AP Board

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 7th Class Textbook Solutions

Students can also read AP Board 7th Class Science Solutions for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

7th Class Science Bits in English Medium

• 1st Lesson Food for Health Bits
• 2nd Lesson Nature of Substances Bits
• 3rd Lesson Nutrition in Organisms Bits
• 4th Lesson Respiration and Circulation Bits
• 5th Lesson Motion and Time Bits
• 6th Lesson Electricity Bits
• 7th Lesson Reproduction in Plants Bits
• 8th Lesson Wonders of Light Bits
• 9th Lesson Heat, Temperature and Climate Bits
• 10th Lesson Changes Around Us Bits
• 11th Lesson Fibres and Fabrics Bits
• 12th Lesson Soil and Water Bits

7th Class Science Bits in Telugu Medium

• 1st Lesson ఆహారంతో ఆరోగ్యం Bits
• 2nd Lesson పదార్థాల స్వభావం Bits
• 3rd Lesson జీవులలో పోషణ Bits
• 4th Lesson శ్వాసక్రియ – ప్రసరణ Bits
• 5th Lesson చలనం – కాలం Bits
• 6th Lesson విద్యుత్ Bits
• 7th Lesson మొక్కలలో ప్రత్యుత్పత్తి Bits
• 8th Lesson కాంతితో అద్భుతాలు Bits
• 9th Lesson ఉష్ణం, ఉష్ణోగ్రత మరియు శీతోష్ణస్థితి Bits
• 10th Lesson మన చుట్టూ జరిగే మార్పులు Bits
• 11th Lesson దారాలు – దుస్తులు Bits
• 12th Lesson నేల మరియు నీరు Bits

7th Class Science Bits in English Medium (Old Syllabus)

• Chapter 1 Food Components Bits
• Chapter 2 Acids and Bases Bits
• Chapter 3 Animal Fibre Bits
• Chapter 4 Motion and Time Bits
• Chapter 5 Temperature and Its Measurement Bits
• Chapter 6 Weather and Climate Bits
• Chapter 7 Electricity – Current and Its Effect Bits
• Chapter 8 Air, Winds and Cyclones Bits
• Chapter 9 Reflection of Light Bits
• Chapter 10 Nutrition in Plants Bits
• Chapter 11 Respiration in Organisms Bits
• Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants Bits
• Chapter 13 Seed Dispersal Bits
• Chapter 14 Water – Too Little To Waste Bits
• Chapter 15 Soil: Our Life Bits
• Chapter 16 Forest: Our Life Bits
• Chapter 17 Changes Around Us Bits

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus 8th Class Biology Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 8th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also read AP Board 8th Class Biology Solutions for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

8th Class Biology Bits in English

• Chapter 1 What is Science? Bits
• Chapter 2 Cell: The Basic Unit of Life Bits
• Chapter 3 Story of Microorganisms 1 Bits
• Chapter 4 Reproduction in Animals Bits
• Chapter 5 Attaining the Age of Adolescence Bits
• Chapter 6 Biodiversity and its Conservation Bits
• Chapter 7 Different Ecosystems Bits
• Chapter 8 Production and Management of Food From Plants Bits
• Chapter 9 Production and Management of Food From Animals Bits
• Chapter 10 Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing Bits
• Chapter 11 Why Do We Fall Ill Bits

8th Class Biology Bits in Telugu

• Chapter 1 విజ్ఞానశాస్త్రం అంటే ఏమిటి? Bits
• Chapter 2 కణం – జీవుల మౌళిక ప్రమాణం Bits
• Chapter 3 సూక్ష్మజీవుల ప్రపంచం 1 Bits
• Chapter 3 సూక్ష్మజీవుల ప్రపంచం 2 Bits
• Chapter 4 జంతువులలో ప్రత్యుత్పత్తి Bits
• Chapter 5 కౌమార దశ Bits
• Chapter 6 జీవ వైవిధ్యం – సంరక్షణ Bits
• Chapter 7 వివిధ ఆవరణ వ్యవస్థలు Bits
• Chapter 8 మొక్కల నుండి ఆహారోత్పత్తి Bits
• Chapter 9 జంతువుల నుండి ఆహారోత్పత్తి Bits
• Chapter 10 పీల్చలేము – తాగలేము Bits
• Chapter 11 మనకు అనారోగ్యం ఎందుకు కలుగుతుంది? Bits

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Real Numbers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths Bits 1st Lesson Real Numbers with Answers

Question 1.
In the rational form of a terminating decimal number prime factor of the denominator is ………………..
A) only 2
B) only 5
C) 2 or 5 only
D) any prime
Answer:
C) 2 or 5 only

Question 2.
log₁₀2 + log₁₀5 value = ……………….
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
A) 1

Question 3.
If P₁ and P₂ are two odd prime numbers such that P₁ > P₂, then P₁² -P₂² is ……………..
A) an even number
B) an odd number
C) a prime number
D) an odd prime number
Answer:
A) an even number

Question 4.
The HCF of two consecutive natural numbers is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 5.
The fundamental theorem of arithmetic is applicable to
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
A) 4

Question 6.
The last digit of 6⁵⁰ is ………………..
A) 1
B) 6
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
B) 6

Question 7.
A rational number that equals to 2.\(\overline{6}\) is
A) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{16}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{17}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{8}{3}\)

Question 8.
The value of log₂₅ 5 = …………………
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) 2
C) 5
D) 25
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
The value of log_√2 64 is ………………..
A) -6
B) 12
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
B) 12

Question 10.
Which is the three digit number divisible by 7 ?
A) 100
B) 133
C) 137
D) 143
Answer:
B) 133

Question 11.
Which one of the following rational numbers have non-terminating repeating decimal expansion ?
A) \(\frac{31}{3125}\)
B) \(\frac{71}{512}\)
C) \(\frac{23}{200}\)
D) None of these
Answer:
D) None of these

Question 12.
Logarithmic form of \(\sqrt[3]{8}\) = 2 is
A) log₈ 2 = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) log₂ 8 = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\log _{\frac{1}{3}}\) 8 = 2
D) \(\log _{\frac{1}{3}}\) 2 = 0
Answer:
A) log₈ 2 = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 13.
The relation a . (b . c) = (a . b). c is
A) distributive law
B) associative law
C) commutative law
D) closure law
Answer:
A) distributive law

Question 14.
The HCF of 1.2 and 0.12 is
A) 1.2
B) 12
C) 0.12
D) 120
Answer:
C) 0.12

Question 15.
The value of log₃ 243 =
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 8
Answer:
A) 5

Question 16.
0.10110111011110 …………….. is
A) an integer
B) a rational number
C) an irrational number
D) a natural number
Answer:
C) an irrational number

Question 17.
The LCM of the numbers 2⁷ × 3⁴ × 7 and 2³ × 3⁴ × 11 is
A) 2³ × 3⁴
B) 2⁷ × 3⁴
C) 2⁷ × 3⁴ × 7 × 11
D) 2³ × 3⁴ × 7 × 11
Answer:
C) 2⁷ × 3⁴ × 7 × 11

Question 18.
The number of rational numbers exist between any two distinct rational numbers is
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) infinite
Answer:
D) infinite

Question 19.
The prime factorization of 163800 is
A) 2² × 3³ × 5⁵ × 7 × 13
B) 2³ × 3² × 5² × 7 × 13
C) 2³ × 3² × 5⁵ × 7 × 13
D) None
Answer:
B) 2³ × 3² × 5² × 7 × 13

Question 20.
\(\frac{1}{\log _{x} x y}+\frac{1}{\log _{y} x y}\)
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) 2
Answer:
B) 1

Question 21.
If log₁₀3 = 0.4771, then the value of log 15 + log 2 =
A) 47.71
B) 1.4771
C) 4.77
D) 0.4771
Answer:
B) 1.4771

Question 22.
The value of \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}+2+\frac{y}{x}}\) =
A) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{y}}+\frac{\sqrt{y}}{x}\)
B) \(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x}\)
C) \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}+\sqrt{\frac{y}{x}}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{x}}{y}+\frac{y}{\sqrt{x}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}+\sqrt{\frac{y}{x}}\)

Question 23.
√3 + √5 is a …………………
A) positive rational number
B) negative rational number
C) positive irrational number
D) negative irrational number
Answer:
C) positive irrational number

Question 24.
If a + b = 5, ab = 6, then a³ + b³ =
A) 5
B) 25
C) 35
D) 125
Answer:
C) 35

Question 25.
2 log 3 – 3 log 2 =
A) log 0
B) log 1
C) log (\(\frac{9}{8}\))
D) log (72)
Answer:
C) log (\(\frac{9}{8}\))

Question 26.
log₂ . log₂₅ 5 =
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
C) -1

Question 27.
If a^x = \(\left(\frac{a}{k}\right)^{y}\) = k^m then \(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}\) =
A) 0
B) 1
C) m
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~m}}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~m}}\)

Question 28.
The H.C.F. of the numbers 3⁷ × 5³ × 2⁴ and 3² × 7⁴ × 2⁸is …………………
A) 2⁴ × 3²
B) 2⁸ × 3⁷ × 5³ × 7⁴
C) 2⁸ × 3⁷
D) 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
Answer:
A) 2⁴ × 3²

Question 29.
The expanded form of log \(\frac{343}{125}\) is …………………
A) 7 (log 5 – log 7)
B) 4 (log 5 – log7)
C) 2 (log 7 – log 5)
D) 3 (log 7 – log 5)
Answer:
D) 3 (log 7 – log 5)

Question 30.
The value of \(\log _{10}^{0.01}\) is ……………….
A) -1
B) -2
C) -10
D) 0.01
Answer:
B) -2

Question 31.
log \(\left[\frac{x+y}{3}\right]\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (log x + log y), then the value of \(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x}\) is ………………….
A) 9
B) 5
C) 7
D) 11
Answer:
C) 7

Question 32.
log₁₀2 = 0.3010 the number of digits in 4²⁰¹⁷is …………….
A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 1215
D) 1214
Answer:
C) 1215

Question 33.
If a = b² = c³ then log_c ab = ………………..
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)

Question 34.
If x = log₂ 3 and y = log₂ 5, then log₂15 in terms of x and y is
A) x – y
B) x + y
C) xy
D) x + y – 1
Answer:
B) x + y

Question 35.
If a² + b² = c² then log_a(c – b)
+ log_a(c + b) = ………………..
A) -1
B) -2
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
B) -2

Question 36.
Identify the terminating decimal.
A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 37.
Number of two digit numbers divisible by 3 is ……………….
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 30
Answer:
D) 30

Question 38.
log₁₀125 + log₁₀8 =
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
C) 3

Question 39.
The relation a (b + c) = ab + ac is
A) commutative law
B) associative law
C) distributive law
D) None
Answer:
C) distributive law

Question 40.
If n is a natural number, then 8ⁿ – 3ⁿ is always divisible by ……………..
A) 3
B) 5
C) 8
D) 11
Answer:
B) 5

Question 41.
√P + √Q is ………………….
A) real number
B) irrational number
C) natural number
D) rational number
Answer:
A) real number

Question 42.
\(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}+\frac{b}{a}-2}\) = …………………
A) \(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}-\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\)
B) \(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}+\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{b}}}+\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{a}}}\)
D) \(\frac{a}{b}+\frac{b}{a}\)
Answer:
A) \(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}-\sqrt{\frac{b}{a}}\)

Question 43.
G.C.F. of 12,18 is
A) 36
B) 6
C) 12
D) 18
Answer:
B) 6

Question 44.
The rational number betwen the pair of numbers \(\frac{1}{2}\) and √1 is
Answer:
A) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 45.
The prime factorisation of 729 is
A) 3⁶
B) 3⁵
C) 3⁴
D) 3⁸
Answer:
A) 3⁶

Question 46.
The number of prime factors of 36 is ……………………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
C) 2

Question 47.
The exponential form of log₁₀0.001 = -3 is …………………..
A) (0.001)¹⁰ = -3
B) (-3)¹⁰ = 0.001
C) (10)³ =-0.001
D) (10)^-3 = 0.001
Answer:
D) (10)^-3 = 0.001

Question 48.
Which of the following is true for an irrational number ?
i) Which can be written in the form of \(\frac{p}{q}\) where p, q ∈ Z, q ≠ 0.
ii) Which cannot be written in the form of \(\frac{p}{q}\) , where p, q ∈ Z, q ≠ 0.
iii) Non – terminating repeating decimals.
iv) Non – terminating, non – repeating decimals.
A) (i), (iii)
B) (ii), (iv)
C) (i) only
D) (iii) only
Answer:
B) (ii), (iv)

Question 49.
The HCF of the polynomials
(x² – 4x + 4) (x + 3) and (x² + 2x – 3) (x – 2) is …………………
A) x + 3
B) x – 2
C) (x + 3) (x – 2)
D) (x + 3) (x – 2)²
Answer:
C) (x + 3) (x – 2)

Question 50.
\(\sqrt{3+\sqrt{5}}\) = ……………….
A) √2 + 12.
B) \(\sqrt{\frac{8}{2}}+\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}}\)
C) \(\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}}-\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}}\)
D) \(\sqrt{\frac{9}{2}}-\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}}-\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Question 51.
The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 1260. If their LCM is 900 more than their HCF, find the product of two numbers.
A) 205400
B) 194400
C) 109440
D) 29590
Answer:
B) 194400

Question 52.
Find the remainder when the square of any prime number greater than 3 is divided by 6.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 9
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 53.
If HCF (72, q) = 12 then how many values can q take ?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 54.
Find the HCF of 120 and 156.
A) 42
B) 12
C) 19
D) 48
Answer:
B) 12

Question 55.
Find the HCF of 432 and 504.
A) 86
B) 72
C) 96
D) 108
Answer:
B) 72

Question 56.
The LCM of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be their HCF ?
A) 600
B) 500
C) 800
D) 700
Answer:
A) 600

Question 57.
How many prime factors are there in the prime factorization of 240 ?
A) 3
B) 20
C) 25
D) 6
Answer:
A) 3

Question 58.
The largest number among √2, 3√3 and 4√4 is ………………..
A) √2
B) 3√3
C) 4√4
D) all are equal
Answer:
C) 4√4

Question 59.
The expression (x + y)^-1 (x^-1 + y^-1) is the reciprocal of …………………..
A) x + y
B) xy
C) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{xy}}\)
D) \(\frac{x}{y}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{xy}}\)

Question 60.
The greatest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly 3cm,
5cm, 10cm and 90cm is ……………….
A) 40 cm
B) 80 cm
C) 90 cm
D) 60 cm
Answer:
D) 60 cm

Question 61.
If (x -1)² + (y – 2)⁴ + (z – 3)⁶ = 0 then the
value of xyz is ………………..
A) 1
B) 6
C) 14
D) 0
Answer:
B) 6

Question 62.
a^x = b^y = c^z and abc = 1 then \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\) = ………………….
A) 0
B) abc
C) a + b + c
D) \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\)
Answer:
A) 0

Question 63.
If 0.\(\overline{7}\) = \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) then p + q = ……………………..
A) 16
B) 15
C) 12
D) 14
Answer:
A) 16

Question 64.
For what values of x, 2^x × 5^x ends with 8 or 5 ? ( )
A) 10
B) 8
C) 5
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 65.
If 7^{x + 3} = 5^{x + 3} then the value of ‘x’ is ……………………
A) -3
B) 3
C) 2
D) -2
Answer:
A) -3

Question 66.
= …………………
A) 0
B) 1
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) 0

Question 67.
If a + b + c = 1 and \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\) = 3. where a, b, c are non zero real numbers. Then the value of ab(a + b) + bc (b + c) + ca (a + c) is ………………………..
A) 0
B) 2
C) 1
D) 3
Answer:
A) 0

Question 68.
If \(\sqrt{15-x \sqrt{14}}=\sqrt{8}-\sqrt{7}\) then x = …………………….
A) 1
B) 0
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 69.
If then …………………..
A) T < 1
B) T = 1
C) T > 2
D) 1 < T < 2
Answer:
C) T > 2

Question 70.
If a^x = b^y – c^z and b² = ac then y = ………………….
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{xz}}{\mathrm{x}+2}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{XZ}}{2(\mathrm{x}-\mathrm{z})}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{xz}}{2(\mathrm{z}-\mathrm{x})}\)
D) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{xz}}{(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{z})}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{xz}}{(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{z})}\)

Question 71.
If the ratio of the ages of Mona and Sona is 4:5 and twelve years hence their ages will be in the ratio of 5 : 6, then the age of Sona after 6 years will be …………………
A) 66 years
B) 55 years
C) 67 years
D) 77 years
Answer:
A) 66 years

Question 72.
In a zoo, there are Rabbits and Pigeons. If their heads are 90 and their legs are 224. Then the number of Pigeons in the zoo is ………………….
A) 70
B) 68
C) 72
D) 22
Answer:
B) 68

Question 73.
If x = \(\sqrt{-1+4 \sqrt{3}}\) then x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = ……………………
A) 4
B) 6
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
C) 3

Question 74.
The value of \(\frac{1}{2+\sqrt{3}}+\frac{1}{2-\sqrt{3}}\) is ……………………..
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 1
Answer:
B) 4

Question 75.
If x = \(\frac{2}{3+\sqrt{7}}\) then (x – 3)² = ………………..
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 76.
If \(\frac{4+3 \sqrt{3}}{2+\sqrt{3}}\) = a + √b then (a, b) = …………………….
A) (12, 1)
B) (-1, 12)
C) (-12, -1)
D) (-12,1)
Answer:
B) (-1, 12)

Question 77.
If \(\frac{\sqrt{7}-\sqrt{3}}{x}=\frac{x}{\sqrt{7}+\sqrt{3}}\) then the value of x = …………………….
A) 11
B) 2
C) 16
D) 12
Answer:
B) 2

Question 78.
If p³ + q³ + r³ then log_pr – q + log_p(r² + qr + q²) ………………..
A) 3
B) 8
C) 9
D) 14
Answer:
A) 3

Question 79.
= …………………..
A) 10.52
B) 1.5
C) 3.5
D) 20.5
Answer:
B) 1.5

Question 80.
\(\frac{1}{\log _{2} \cdot \log _{2} \cdot \log _{2} 16}\) = ………………….
A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
A) 1

Question 81.
If log(x + y) = log(\(\frac{3 x-3 y}{2}\)) then log x – log y = …………………….
A) log 6
B) log 3
C) log 5
D) log 2
Answer:
C) log 5

Question 82.
If log [latex]\frac{x+y}{3}[/latex] = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [log x + log y] then \(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x}\) = ………………..
A) 8
B) 7
C) 10
D) 9
Answer:
B) 7

Question 83.
If log₁₀3 = 0.4771, then the value of log 15 + log 2 = ………………….
A) 1.4771
B) 47.71
C) 4.77
D) 0.4771
Answer:
A) 1.4771

Question 84.
Find the value of \(\log _{\frac{4}{3}} \frac{256}{81}\)
A) 1
B) 8
C) 2
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 85.
(X^a. X^b)^{a – b}(X^b. X^c)^{b – c}(x^c. X^a)^{c – a} = …………………..
A) 0
B) 1
C) ∞
D) 2
Answer:
B) 1

Question 86.
If \(x^{1-\log _{5}^{x}}\) = 0.04 then x = ………………..
A) 5, \(\frac{1}{25}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{5}\), 25
C) 25, 5
D) \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{25}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{5}\), 25

Question 87.
If log₁₀343 = 2.5353, then the least positive integer ‘n’ such that 7ⁿ > 10⁵ is
A) 6
B) 1
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 6

Question 88.
If x² + y² = 6xy then 2 log(x + y)-log(xy) = …………………
A) log 2
B) 2 log 2
C) 3 log 2
D) 4 log 2
Answer:
C) 3 log 2

Question 89.
\(\frac{4}{9^{\frac{1}{3}}-3^{\frac{1}{3}}+1}=\mathbf{A} \cdot 3^{\frac{1}{3}}\) + B then
A) A = 2
B) A = 3
C) B = 1
D) B = 2
Answer:
C) B = 1

Question 90.
x = 3 + 2√2 then x⁴ + \(\frac{1}{x^{4}}\) = ……………….
A) 1152
B) 1053
C) 1154
D) 1159
Answer:
C) 1154

Question 91.
x = \(\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}-1}\) , y = \(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{\sqrt{2}+1}\) then x² – xy + y² = …………………..
A) 33
B) 37
C) 36
D)49
Answer:
A) 33

Question 92.
\(\sqrt[3]{a}+\sqrt[3]{b}+\sqrt[3]{c}\) = 0 then (a + b + c)³ = ……………….
A) 3 abc
B) 9 abc
C) 27 abc
D) 81 abc
Answer:
C) 27 abc

Question 93.
Rationalising factor of \(\sqrt[3]{16}-\sqrt[3]{4}\) + 1 is …………………….
A) \(\sqrt[3]{4}\) + 2
B) \(\sqrt[3]{4}\) – 2
C) \(\sqrt[3]{4}\) + 1
D) \(\sqrt[3]{4}\) – 1
Answer:
C) \(\sqrt[3]{4}\) + 1

Question 94.
then k = ……………………..
A) k = \(\frac{l}{2}\)
B) l = \(\frac{2}{k}\)
C) l = \(\frac{\mathrm{k}}{2}\)
D) K = \(\frac{2}{l}\)
Answer:
B) l = \(\frac{2}{k}\)

Question 95.
A rationalising factor of \(\sqrt[3]{25}+\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{25}}-1\) is …………………
A) \(5^{\frac{1}{3}}-5^{\frac{1}{3}}\)
B) \(5^{\frac{1}{3}}+5^{\frac{1}{3}}\)
C) \(25^{\frac{1}{3}}+25^{\frac{-1}{3}}\)
D) \(25^{\frac{1}{3}}-25^{\frac{-1}{3}}\)
Answer:
B) \(5^{\frac{1}{3}}+5^{\frac{1}{3}}\)

Question 96.
\(\frac{\sqrt{x^{2}+1}+\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}{\sqrt{x^{2}+1}-\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}\) + \(\frac{\sqrt{x^{2}+1}-\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}{\sqrt{x^{2}+1}+\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}\)
A) 3x²
B) 2x²
C) 2x
D) 4x²
Answer:
B) 2x²

Question 97.
Arithmetic mean of two surds is 5 +9√2 and one of them is 1 + 12√2 then second surd is ……………….
A) 7 + 6√2
B) 9 + 6 √2
C) 10 + 6√2
D) 8 + 6√2
Answer:
B) 9 + 6 √2

Question 98.
\(\frac{1+\sqrt{2}}{3-2 \sqrt{2}}\) = a + b√2 then (a, b) = ……………………
A) (7, 5)
B) (-7, 5)
Q (3, 5)
D) (-7, -5)
Answer:
A) (7, 5)

Question 99.
x = 2√2 + √7 then \(\frac{1}{2}\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)\) = …………………
A) √2
B) √7
C) √8
D) 2√7
Answer:
B) √7

Question 100.
If the product of two irrational numbers is rational, then which of the following can be concluded ?
A) The ratio of the greater and the smaller numbers is an integer.
B) The sum of the numbers must be rational.
C) The excess of the greater irrational number over the smaller irrational number must be rational.
D) The sum of the numbers must be irrational
Answer:
D) The sum of the numbers must be irrational

Question 101.
Which of the following is always true?
A) The product of two distinct . irrational numbers is irrational.
B) The rationalising factor of a number is unique.
C) The sum of two distinct irrational numbers is rational.
D) None of these
Answer:
D) None of these

Question 102.
Which of the following pair of numbers is co-prime ?
A) 8 and 14
B) 6 and 35
C) 4 and 12
D) 9 and 19
Answer:
B) 6 and 35

Question 103.
Which of the following is not an irrational number ?
A) √2
B) √9
C) √3
D) √7
Answer:
B) √9

Question 104.
Which of the following is a rational number ?
A) √2
B) π
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) √3
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 105.
Which of the following four digit numbers is a perfect square such that the first two digits and the last two digits considered separately also represent perfect squares ?
A) 1681
B) 5462
Q 8214
D) 7210
Answer:
A) 1681

Question 106.
The solution of which equation is an irrational number ?
A) \(\frac{1}{x}=\frac{3}{4}\)
B) x² = \(\frac{49}{20}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2} x+\frac{1}{5}=\frac{1}{3}\)
D) ² = \(\frac{9}{16}\)
Answer:
B) x² = \(\frac{49}{20}\)

Question 107.
Which of the following is always true?
A) Every irrational number is a surd.
B) Any surd of the form n√a + n√b can be rationalised by a surd of the form n√a -n√b where n√a and n√b are surds.
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 108.
Among the following a rational number is ………………
A) 1.121212 ……………..
B) 1.23874 ………………
C) 0.23567 ……………….
D) 0.1785 ………………
Answer:
B) 1.23874 ………………

Question 109.
If log₃2 log₃(2^x – 5) log₃(2^x – \(\frac{7}{2}\)) are in A.P then x is
A) an odd positive integer
B) a positive fraction
C) an even positive integer
D) an odd positive integer or even positive integer
Answer:
A) an odd positive integer

Question 110.
If n is an odd natural number, 3²ⁿ + 2²ⁿ is always divisible by ………………
A) 13
B) 15
C) 17
D) 19
Answer:
A) 13

Question 111.
Given that the units digit of A³ and A are the same where A is a single digit natural number. How many possibilities can A assume ?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 9
Answer:
C) 5

Question 112.
The remainder of any perfect square divided by 3 is
A) 0
B) 1
C) either (A) or (B)
D) neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
C) either (A) or (B)

Question 113.
The LCM and HCF of two numbers are equal, then the numbers must be ……………….
A) prime
B) co-prime
C) composite
D) equal
Answer:
D) equal

Question 114.
n² – 1 is divisible by 8, if n is ……………………..
A) an odd number
B) an even number
C) prime number
D) integer
Answer:
A) an odd number

Question 115.
If n is a natural number, then which of the following expression ends with zero ?
A) (3 × 2)ⁿ
B) (5 × 7)ⁿ
C) (9 × 3)ⁿ
D) (2 × 5)ⁿ
Answer:
D) (2 × 5)ⁿ

Question 116.
The decimal expansion of \(\frac{9}{17}\) is …………………….
A) Terminating
B) Non-terminating and non-repeating
C) Non-terminating and repeating
D) Terminating and repeating
Answer:
C) Non-terminating and repeating

Question 117.
If n is any natural number then 6ⁿ – 5ⁿ always ends with …………………
A) 1
B) 5
C) 8
D) 7
Answer:
A) 1

Question 118.
If 6a53435 is divisible by both 5 and 3, then the least possible value of ‘a’ is ……………..
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
A) 1

Question 119.
If a = 2 + √3 and b = 2 – √3 then a + b is ………………….
A) Rational
B) Irrational
C) 0
D) Natural
Answer:
B) Irrational

Question 120.
The multiplicative inverse does not exist in the set of ………………..
A) Natural numbers
B) Whole numbers
C) Integers
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 121.
Logarithmic form of 10³ = 1000
A) log₁₀¹⁰⁰⁰ = 3
B) log₃¹⁰ = 3
C) log₁₀³ = 3
D) None
Answer:
A) log₁₀¹⁰⁰⁰ = 3

Question 122.
\((\sqrt[m]{\sqrt[n]{a b}})^{\min }\) = ………………..
A) abⁿ
B) ab^m
C) a^mb
D) ab
Answer:
D) ab

Question 123.
If n is a natural number, then 9²ⁿ – 4²ⁿ is always divisible by…………………..
A) 5
B) 13
C) either (A) or (B)
D) neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
C) either (A) or (B)

Question 124.
N is a natural number such that when ‘N is divided by N’, it leaves remainder a. It can be concluded that ………………….
A) a is a perfect cube
B) a is a perfect square
C) a is a perfect square and cube
D) neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
A) a is a perfect cube

Question 125.
There is a circular path around a sports field. Anand takes 18 minutes to drive one round of the field while Prakash takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose they both start at the same point and at the same time and go in the same direc¬tion. After how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point ?
A) 36 minutes
B) 19 minutes
C) 48 minutes
D) 56 minutes
Answer:
A) 36 minutes

Question 126.
A sweet seller has 420 Kaju burfies and 130 Badam burfies. She wants to stock them in such a way that each stock has the same number and they take up the least area of the tray. What is the number of burfies that can be placed in each stock for this purpose ?
A) 15
B) 10
C) 40
D) 45
Answer:
B) 10

Question 127.
In a seminar, the number of participants in English, Mathematics and Science are 36, 60 and 84 respectively. Find the minimum number of rooms required if in each room the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being in the same subject.
A) 15
B) 28
C) 40
D) 18
Answer:
A) 15

Question 128.
Ramu has two vessels which contain 720 ml and 405 ml of milk respectively. Milk in each vessel is poured into glasses of equal capacity to their brim. Find the minimum number of glasses which can be filled with milk.
A) 25
B) 36
C) 48
D) 65
Answer:
A) 25

Question 129.
A student is ranked 9^th from the top and 38^th from the bottom in a class. The number of students in the class is ………………
A) 46
B) 48
C) 45
D) 49
Answer:
A) 46

Question 130.
In a group of elephants and ducks if the number of legs are 24 more than twice the number of heads, then the number of elephants in the group is …………………
A) 6
B) 12
C) 8
D) 16
Answer:
B) 12

Question 131.
The sum of seven numbers is 235. If the average of the first three numbers is 23 and that of the last three numbers is 42, then the fourth number is ……………….
A) 120
B) 66
C) 40
D) 195
Answer:
C) 40

Question 132.
If a two digits number is divisible by 3 and 4, also the difference between the unit’s digit and the ten’s digit is equal to 4, then the number is ………………..
A) 96
B) 48
C) 72
D) 36
Answer:
B) 48

Question 133.
Complete the missing entries in the following factor tree.

A) 42,21
B) 61, 71
C) 21,46
D) 21,48
Answer:
A) 42,21

Question 134.
Identify the factors of 24.

Answer:

Question 135.
Which of the following may be the value of √2 on the number line

Answer:

Question 136.
Which of the following triangle was √2

Answer:

Question 137.
In between which two parts \(\frac{3}{4}\) can belocated in the number line

Answer:

AP State Syllabus Bit Bank for 10th, 9th, 8th, 7th, 6th Class in English and Telugu

AP 10th Class Bit Bank | AP 10th Class Important Bits All Subjects

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Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 India: Relief Features on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson India: Relief Features with Answers

Question 1.
The highest peak in Eastern Ghats
A) Anaimudi
B) DodaBetta
C) Gursikhar
D) Aroya Konda
Answer:
D) Aroya Konda

Question 2.
The latitude that does NOT pass through India.
A) 8° N.L.
B) 48° N.L.
C) 12° N.L.
D) 36° N.L.
Answer:
B) 48° N.L.

Question 3.
The latitude that passes through India
A) Equator
B) Tropic of Capricorn
C) 36°N
D) Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
D) Tropic of Cancer

Question 4.
The difference between the Greenwich Mean Time and the Indian Standard Time is
A) -4.30 minutes
B) -5.30 minutes
C) +4.30 minutes
D) +5.30 minutes
Answer:
D) + 5.30 minutes

Question 5.
Which of the following statements is wrong
A) India has a longitudinal extent of 30°.
B) The average height of Himadri range is 6,100 mts.
C) The Palk Strait separates Pakistan from India.
D) The west coastal plain has no lakes.
Answer:
C) The Palk Strait separates Pakistan from India.

Question 6.
The distance between North and South extremes of India is …………………
A) 2933 kms
B) 15,200 kms
C) 7516.6 kms
D) 3214 kms
Answer:
D) 3214 kms

Question 7.
The Pirpanjal ranges are situated in this region.
A) Greater Himalayas
B) Lesser Himalayas
C) Shivalik ranges
D) Purvanchal
Answer:
B) Lesser Himalayas

Question 8.
The Mawkdok Dympep valley is present in the state shown with the number

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 9.
Of the following which is not true?
A) Bhabar is porous in nature
B) Chotanagpur is rich in mineral resources
C) Mahadev ranges are on the east side of Deccan plateau
D) Arkan yoma is a river in Myanmar
Answer:
D) Arkan yoma is a river in Myanmar

Question 10.
Lakshadweep islands are located in one of the following
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Arabian Sea
C) Pacific Ocean
D) Indian Ocean
Answer:
B) Arabian Sea

Question 11.
The central highlands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan plateau are the parts of one of the following.
A) Indian peninsular plateau
B) The land stretching between Himalayas and Vindhya mountains
C) Northeastern part of India
D) Thar desert area
Answer:
A) Indian peninsular plateau

Question 12.
The southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar island and called ………………….
A) Nariman point
B) Rajiv Gandhi point
C) Nehru point
D) Indira point
Answer:
D) Indira point

Question 13.
The Shivaliks in Assom are known as …………..
A) Cachar
B) Jammu hills
C) Mishmi hills
D) Mizo
Answer:
A) Cachar

Question 14.
The portion of triangular shaped
peninsular plateau lying to the south of river Narmada is called as ………………..
A) Chotanagpur plateau
B) Tibet plateau
C) Deccan plateau
D) Malwa plateau
Answer:
C) Deccan plateau

Question 15.
The longest canal in the country watering part of Thar desert in Rajasthan is ………………
A) Buckingham canal
B) Mayurakshi canal
C) Ken canal
D) Indira canal
Answer:
D) Indira canal

Question 16.
In Andaman and Nicobar, the origin of Narcondam and Barren Islands is from ………………..
A) Volcanoes
B) Rivers
C) Mountains
D) Hills
Answer:
A) Volcanoes

Question 17.
The land extended from river Ghaggar to Teesta is ……………………
A) Sindhu plain
B) Ganga plain
C) North plain
D) South plain
Answer:
B) Ganga plain

Question 18.
The Indian peninsula was a part of ………………….
A) Angara landmass
B) Deccan plateau
C) Thar desert
D) Gondwana land
Answer:
D) Gondwana land

Question 19.
The famous valley of Kashmir is situated between the mountain ranges of
A) Karakoram and Ladakh
B) Ladakh and Zaskar
C) Zaskar and Greater Himalayas
D) Greater Himalayas and Birpanjal
Answer:
D) Greater Himalayas and Pirpanjal

Question 20.
Which of the following does not belong to South India?
A) Anaimudi
B) DodaBetta
C) Aroya konda
D) Mishmi hills
Answer:
D) Mishmi hills

Question 21.
Which cyclone is responsible for the destruction of Sundarban area in 2009?
A) Laila
B) Aila
C) Neelam
D) Hud-hud
Answer:
B) Aila

Question 22.
Himadri is known as ……………….
A) Greater Himalayas
B) Lesser Himalayas
C) Shivaliks
D) Outer Himalayas
Answer:
A) Greater Himalayas

Question 23.
One of the following belongs to internal drainage river.
A) The river Luni
B) The river Narmada
C) The river Tapti
D) The river Ganga
Answer:
A) The river Luni

Question 24.
The Malabar coast exists mostly in the state of ……………..
A) Karnataka
B) Kerala
C) Tamilnadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 25.
Identify the mis – match one.
A) Konkan coast – Maharashtra
B) Coramandal coast – Tamilnadu
C) Malabar coast – Kerala
D) Circar coast – Odisha
Answer:
D) Circar coast – Odisha

Question 26.
The Indian standard time is ……………… to Greenwich Mean Time
A) 51/2 hours ahead
B) 51/2 hours back
C) 12 hours ahead
D) 5 hours back
Answer:
A) 51/2 hours ahead

Question 27.
Which of the following statements is correct, related to Indian climate?
i) Tropic of Cancer passes through the central India.
ii) The southern part of India lies in the tropical zone.
iii) The northern part of India lies in the tundra zone.
A) (i) only
B) (i) and (ii)
C) (iii) only
D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
B) (i) and (ii)

Question 28.
Which of the following is of coral origin.
A) Maldives
B) Minicoy
C) Andaman, Nicobar
D) Lakshadweep
Answer:
D) Lakshadweep

Question 29.
Arkan Yoma is located in …………………
A) Baluchistan
B) Kashmir
G) Nepal
D) Myanmar
Answer:
D) Myanmar

Question 30.
Of the following, which is false?
A) The Indian peninsula was part of Angara land.
B) The Indian plate collided the Eurasian plate.
C) The Indian peninsular plateau is one of the ancient land blocks.
D) The Himalayas were formed due to collision of Indian plate with Eurasian plate
Answer:
A) The Indian peninsula was part of Angara land.

Question 31.
Of the following which is not correct?
A) We found glaciers in greater Himalayas
B) The lesser Himalayas has the most rugged relief
C) Shivaliks are the southern most range of the Himalayas
D) The western boundary of the Himalayas is the Brahmaputra valley
Answer:
D) The western boundary of the Himalayas is the Brahmaputra valley

Question 32.
Nilgiris join the Western Ghats at this place
A) Udagamandalam
B) DodaBetta
C) Palani
D) Gudalur
Answer:
D) Gudalur

Question 33.
The desert located on the leeward side of Aravali is …………………..
A) Sahara
B) Thar
C) Atakama
D) Sone
Answer:
B) Thar

Question 34.
The mountains which are NOT related to the peninsular plateau are ……………….
A) Aravalis
B) Sahyadris
C) Nilgiris
D) Eastern Ghats
Answer:
C) Nilgiris

Question 35.
This is NOT correct about the peninsular plateau.
A) It is surrounded by the sea on three sides
B) The plateau is composed of old crystalline, hard rock
C) It has broad and shallow valleys
D) The southernmost tip of the plateau is Indira point
Answer:
D) The southernmost tip of the plateau is Indira point

Question 36.
Which is the correct one?
A) Konkan coast – Andhra Pradesh
B) Malabar coast- Maharashtra
C) Coramandal coast – Tamilnadu
D) Circar coast – Kerala
Answer:
C) Coramandal coast – Tamilnadu

Question 37.
This is not true with regard to coastal plain.
A) It has Arabian sea on west and Bay of Bengal on the east
B) The western coast starts from the Rann of Kutch and ends at Kanyakumari
C) The west coast is narrower than east coast
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands are part of coastal plains
Answer:
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands are part of coastal plains

Question 38.
Special feature of Peninsular .plateau.
A) Red soil
B) Black soil
C) Alluvial soil
D) Laterite soil
Answer:
B) Black soil

Question 39.
Reason for forming ’V’ shaped valley …………………..
A) River
B) Glaciers
C) Wind
D) Volcano
Answer:
A) River

Question 40.
Which of the following is not true relating to the Thar desert?
A) It is located on the leeward side of Aravalis
B) It consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
C) Annual rainfall ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year
D) It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
Answer:
C) Annual rainfall ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year

Question 41.
Choose the wrong pair from the following.
A) Western Ghats – Anaimudi Peak
B) Eastern Ghats – Aroya Konda
C) Nilgiris – Doda Betta
D) Lakshadweep Islands – Volcanic Origin
Answer:
D) Lakshadweep Islands – Volcanic Origin

Question 42.
The local name of Shivaliks in Assom is ………………….
A) Cachar hills
B) Mishmi hills
C) Jammu hills
D) Patkai hills
Answer:
A) Cachar hills

Question 43.
Choose the wrong pair from given below.
A) Himadri – average elevation of 6100 mts
B) Anaimudi – 2637 mts
C) Shivaliks – 900 to 1100 mts
D) Himachal – 3700 to 4500 mts
Answer:
B) Anaimudi – 2637 mts

Question 44.
Which continents existing today were parts of the Gondwana land?
i) Asia
ii) Europe
iii) Australia
iv) South America
A) i and iii
B) iii and iv
C) ii and iv
D) i and ii
Answer:
B) iii and iv

Question 45.
1) Western Ghats are lower than the Eastern Ghats
2) Aravali Hills lie on the Western Ghats
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A) Both 1 and 2
B) Neither 1 nor 2
C) 1 only
D) 2 only
Answer:
D) 2 only

Question 46.
Find out the correct matching.
A) Greater Himalayas – Himachal
B) Lesser Himalayas – 6100 mts
C) Southernmost tip of Peninsular plateau – Indira Point
D) Pebble sediments – Bhabar
Answer:
D) Pebble sediments – Bhabar

Question 47.
Match the following:
1) Highest peak ( ) a) Aroya Konda in south India
2) Longest canal ( ) b) Doda betta in India
3) Highest peak ( ) c) Anaimudi in Eastern Ghats
4) Highest peak in Nilgiris( ) d) Indira Gandhi Canal

Which is the correct set?
A) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
C) 1 – b,2 – d,3 – a,4 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b

Question 48.
Choose the wrong pair from given below.
A) R. Mahanadi – Odisha
B) Cauvery – Tamil Nadu
C) Pulicat Lake – Kerala
D) Kolleru Lake – Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
C) Pulicat Lake – Kerala

Question 49.
The southernmost tip of India is …………..
A) Rameswaram
B) Kanyakumari
C) Cochin
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Kanyakumari

Question 50.
From East to West, India measures ………………
A) 2900 km
B) 2000 km
C) 3214 km
D) 2933 kms
Answer:
D) 2933 kms

Question 51.
Find the odd one out
A) Kanchenjunga
B) Namchabarwa
C) Nanga Parbat
D) Anaimudi
Answer:
D) Anaimudi

Question 52.
This is not true about the central part of Indo Gangetic plains.
A) The central part is known as Ganga plain.
B) It extends from the rivers Ghaggar to Godavari
C) This part is mainly spread in the states of U.P, Bihar and part of Haryana, Jharkhand and West Bengal
D) The rivers Ganga, Yamuna drain in ‘ this central part
Answer:
B) It extends from the rivers Ghaggar to Godavari

Question 53.
Regionally the Purvanchal are known as …………………..
A) Patkai hills
B) Manipuri hills
C) Naga hills
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 54.
Find the one which is wrongly matched
A) Jammu Hills – Jammu and Kashmir
B) Mishmi Hills – Arunachal Pradesh
C) Cachar – Assom
D) Patkai – Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
D) Patkai – Uttar Pradesh

Question 55.
The Central Highlands are otherwise known as …………………..
A) Deccan plateau
B) Malwa plateau
C) Chotanagpur plateau
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

Question 56.
Ooty is located in these mountains ……………….
A) Mahadev hills
B) Nilgiris
C) Aravali
D) Annamalai
Answer:
B) Nilgiris

Question 57.
The state which does NOT have a common border with Andhra Pradesh is …………………..
A) Telangana
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Maharashtra
D) Orissa
Answer:
C) Maharashtra

Question 58.
Mishmi hills are located in ……………
A) Jammu & Kashmir
B) Assom
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Meghalaya
Answer:
C) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 59.
The highest peak in Annamalai hills is ……………..
A) Anaimudi
B) Dodabetta
C) Gurusikhar
D) Aroya konda
Answer:
A) Anaimudi

Question 60.
The northern boundary of Deccan plateau ……………………
A) Seshachalam ranges
B) Satpura ranges
C) Aravali ranges
D) Nilgiri ranges
Answer:
B) Satpura ranges

Question 61.
Chotanagpur plateau is rich in
A) resorts
B) alluvium deposits
C) river banns
D) minerals
Answer:
D) minerals

Question 62.
Mahabharatha ranges are here.
A) Greater Himalayas
B) Lesser Himalayas
C) Outer Himalayas
D) Aravali Ranges
Answer:
B) Lesser Himalayas

Question 63.
Which of the following is the correct statement?
I) The peninsular plateau is one of the most ancient land blocks on the earth’s surface.
II) One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.
A) Only I is true
B) Only II is correct
C) land II are incorrect
D) I and II are correct
Answer:
D) I and II are correct

Question 64.
Find out the wrong matching
A) Deccan Plateau’s north edge – Satpura range
B) Deccan Plateau’s eastern edge – Mahadev
C) Western ghats – Continuous stretch
D) Eastern ghats – Continuous stretch
Answer:
D) Eastern ghats – Continuous stretch

Question 65.
Cardamom hills are the part of ………………….
A) Western Ghats
E) Eastern Chats
C) Aravalis
D) Nilgiris
Answer:
A) Western Ghats

Question 66.
Nallamalas, Velikondas, Palakondas are hilly trarts of ……………………….
A) Nilgiri hills
B) Western Ghats
C) Eastern Chats
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Eastern Chats

Question 67.
Which of the following is correct?
1) The average height of Greater Himalayas is about 6100 mts.
2) The height of Lesser Himalayas ranges from 3,700 to 4,500 mts.
3) The height of Shivaliks varies between 1100 mts. to 1500 mts.
A) Only 1
B) Both 2 and 3
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Only 3
Answer:
C) Both 1 and 2

Question 68.
Match the following
1) Glaciers – a) Lesser Himalaya Ranges
2) Hill stations – b) Between Greater Himalayas and Shivaliks
3) Duns – c) Between Lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks
d) Himadri
A) 1 – d, 2 – c. 3 – b
B) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – c

Question 69.
Find the one which is wrongly matched.
A) Ooty – Nilgiris
B) Aroya Konda – Chinthapalii
C) Annaimudi – Annamalai
D) Cardamom hills – Karnataka
Answer:
D) Cardamom hills – Karnataka

Question 70.
The areas where gravel and pebble sediments deposited at foot hills of Himalayas is ………………
A) Bhabar
B) Terai
C) Black soil
D) Bhangar
Answer:
A) Bhabar

Question 71.
Where do we find conifers?

A) At foot hills of Himalayas
B) On mountain peaks
C) On mountain ranges of Himalayas and Shivaliks
D) Western Ghats
Answer:
C) On mountain ranges of Himalayas and Shivaliks

Question 72.
The type of vegetation in Shivaliks /Terai region
A) Grass
B) Coniferous
C) Xerophytes
D) Broad leaf trees
Answer:
D) Broad leaf trees

Question 73.
The hills on the eastern side of India that are at highest elevation in the given map.

A) Bundelkhand plateau
B) Rajmahal hills
C) Tibetan plateau
D) Chotanagpur plateau
Answer:
B) Rajmahal hills

Question 74.
Identify the physical features that have average elevation of 6000 mts.
A) Tibetan plateau
B) Himalayan peaks
C) Bundelkhand plateau
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 75.
The place Where east coast and west coast meets
A) Aroya Konda
B) Rann of Kutch
C) Kanyakumari
D) Nilgiris
Answer:
D) Nilgiris

Question 76.
We find Pirpanjal ranges in …………….

A) Jammu & Kashmir
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
A) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 77.
The shape shown resembles

A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Kerala
D) Tamilnadu
★ Read the following and answer
1. Utkal Coast : This is the northern part It touches Odisha.
2. Circar Coast : This is the middle part. It is the longest coast and touches Andhra Pradesh.
3. Coramandal Coast : This is the Southern Part and touches Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
A) Andhra Pradesh

Question 78.
Utkal, Circar and Coramandal coasts are all part of
A) Bengal Coast
B) West Coast
C) East Coast
D) Rann of Kutch
Answer:
C) East Coast

Question 79.
The state that stands on three seas is …………………
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Kerala
Answer:
A) Tamil Nadu

Question 80.
Special feature of Deccan plateau is
A) Red soil
B) Alluvial soil
C) Black soil
D) Laterite soil
Answer:
C) Black soil

Question 81.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Central part of Indo-Gangetic plain extends from the rivers Ghaggar to Teesta.
II. This part is mainly spread in the states of Assom and Meghalaya.
A) I and II are correct
B) I and II are incorrect
C) Only I is correct
D) Only II is correct
Answer:
C) Only I is correct

Question 82
…………….. is mainly composed of the old crystalline, hard igneous and metamorphic rocks
A) The Peninsular Plateau
B) Indo-Gangetic Plain
C) Thar Desert
D) All of these
Answer:
A) The Peninsular Plateau

Question 83.
The eastern and the western most longitudes of India in degrees.
A) 8°4′ and 37°6′
B) 8° and 50°
C) 68°7′ and 97°25′
D) 68° and 90°
Answer:
C) 68°7′ and 97°25′

Question 84.
Tropic of Cancer passes through
A) Bihar
B) Tripura
C) Odisha
D) Nagland
Answer:
B) Tripura

Question 85.
The coast that touches Maharashtra and Goa ………………
A) Konkan
B) Canara
C) Malabar
D) Coramandal
Answer:
A) Konkan

Question 86.
Indira point belongs to ……………….
A) Nicobar Islands
B) Andaman Islands
C) Lakshadweep Islands
D) Pamban Islands
Answer:
A) Nicobar Islands

Question 87.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of ……………….. origin.
A) Igneous
B) Coral
C) Volcanic
D) Archanean
Answer:
C) Volcanic

Question 88.
Which is correct?
A) Himalayas are in Southern India
B) Equator is passing through our country
C) India is in Northern Hemisphere
D) India is in between 8° and 37° longitudes
Answer:
C) India is in Northern Hemisphere

Question 89.
Which of the following is the correct statement?
I) Land forms originated from two giant lands namely Angara land and Gondwana land.
II) The Indian peninsula was part of Angara land.
A) I and II are correct
B) I and II are incorrect
C) Only I is correct
D) Only II is correct
Answer:
C) Only I is correct

Question 90.
Coral reefs are found in ………………….
A) Andaman Islands
B) Lakshadweep Islands
C) Western Ghats
D) Nicobar Islands
Answer:
B) Lakshadweep Islands

Question 91.
Utkal, Circar and Coramandal coasts are the parts of the coast ………………
A) Arabian Sea
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Indian Ocean
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Bay of Bengal

Question 92.
The Shivalik ranges in Arunachal Pradesh are called as …………………
A) Shivaliks
B) Cachar hills
C) Jammu hills
D) Mishmi hills
Answer:
D) Mishmi hills

Question 93.
Tamil Nadu is located near the following latitude ………………….
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Tropic of Capricorn
C) Equator
D) Arctic Circle
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 94.
This is not the part of East Coast.
A) Utkal Coast
B) Circar Coast
C) Coramandal Coast
D) Canara Coast
Answer:
D) Canara Coast

Question 95.
The land part towards south of Tethys sea is
A) Angara
B) Laurasia
C) Pangea
D) Gondwana
Answer:
D) Gondwana

Question 96.
Among the following states, narrow steep valleys are formed in
A) Goa
B) Jharkhand
C) Gujarat
D) Sikkim
Answer:
D) Sikkim

Question 97.
The rising and setting times of sun are different between Ahmedabad and Imphal. Among the following which is right option for it?
A) India occupies vast area on the globe
B) India is located in Southern and Northern Hemispheres
C) India has the vast extent of latitudinal expansion
D) India lies between 68° 7′ W and 97° 25’E longitudes
Answer:
D) India lies between 68° 7′ W and 97° 25’E longitudes

Question 98.
Which of the following is not the part of the Western Ghats?
A) Anaimalai hills
B) Palakondas
C) Palani hills
D) Cardamom hills
Answer:
B) Palakondas

Question 99.
Which of the following is correct regarding Indo – Gangetic Plain?
A) It was formed 200 million years ago
B) It is formed with black soil
C) It has rich mineral resources
D) River Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra are mainly responsible for the formation
Answer:
D) River Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra are mainly responsible for the formation

Question 100.
Match the following:
1) Canara Coast – a) Tamil Nadu
2) Malabar Coast – b) Kerala
3) Utkal Coast – c) Karnataka
4) Coramandal Coast – d) Odisha
Which is the correct set?
A) 1 – b, 2- c, 3 – d, 4 – a
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a
C) 1 – d,2 – b,3 – c,4 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a

Question 101.
The first state to witness sunrise in India is ………………..
A) West Bengal
B) Mizoram
C) Nagaland
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 102.
Which is the ancient land block in India?
A) The Himalayas
B) The Indian desert
C) The Indo-Gangetic plain
D) The Peninsular Plateau
Answer:
D) The Peninsular Plateau

Question 103.
Among the following statements, which is not true?
A) The portion of range found south of the Greater Himalayas is known as ‘Lesser Himalayas’
B) Himachal range is mainly composed of highly compressed rocks
C) The Pirpanjal and Mahabharata ranges form the important ranges of the Himachal.
D) The average elevation of Himachal range is about 6,100 mts above MSL.
Answer:
D) The average elevation of Himachal range is about 6,100 mts above MSL.

Question 104.
The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
A) Tripura
B) Rajasthan
C) Chattisgarh
D) Odisha
Answer:
D) Odisha

Question 105.
Which of the following hills are not a part of Purvanchal?
A) Patkai
B) Naga
C) Mizo
D) Nilgiris
Answer:
D) Nilgiris

Question 106.
Among the following statements, which is not true?
A) The portion of range found south of the Greater Himalayas is known as “Lesser Himalayas”
B) Himachal range is mainly composed of highly compressed rocks
C) The average elevation of Himachal range is about 6,100 mts above MSL.
D) The Pirpanjal and Mahabharata ranges form the important ranges of the Himachal.
Answer:
C) The average elevation of Himachal range is about 6,100 mts above MSL.

Question 107.
It is not the border of Deccan plateau
A) Satpura range
B) Aravalis
C) Eastern ghats
D) Nilgiri Hills
Answer:
B) Aravalis

Question 108.
Geographical area of Lakshadweep.
A) 324sq.km
B) 32sq.km
C) 32 lakh sq.km
D) 3 sq. km
Answer:
B) 32sq.km

Question 109.
“Marshy Tract” is called
A) Bhabar
B) Terai
C) Bhangar
D) Khadar
Answer:
B) Terai

Question 110.
This mountain range is not situated in the Himalayas
A) Everest
B) Annapooma
C) Dodabetta
D) NandaDevi
Answer:
C) Dodabetta

Question 111.
This is the source of the perennial rivers in India
A) High rainfall in Deccan plateau
B) Accumulation of ice, movement and melting of glaciers
C) Born in western ghats
D) Retreating monsoons
Answer:
B) Accumulation of ice, movement and melting of glaciers

Question 112.
Lakshadweep islands are famous for
A) Variety of flora and fauna
B) Volcanic eruptions
C) Nicobar birds
D) Variety of minerals
Answer:
A) Variety of flora and fauna

Question 113.
This part of India lies in the Tropical belt.
A) Eastern part
B) Western part
C) Northern part
D) Southern part
Answer:
D) Southern part

Question 114.
Shivalik series are regionally called …………..
A) Jammu Hills
B) Mishmi hills
C) Cachar
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 115.
Patkai hills are the part of
A) Himadri
B) Himachal
C) Shiwaliks
D) Purvanchal
Answer:
D) Purvanchal

Question 116.
Mahadev hills are a part of
A) Vindhyas
B) Aravalis
C) Satpura ranges
D) Western ghats
Answer:
C) Satpura ranges

Question 117.
The mountain ranges that separate North India from South India
A) Vindhya – Satpura ranges
B) Aravali mountains
C) Himalayas
D) Nilgiris
Answer:
A) Vindhya – Satpura ranges

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physical Science (Physics & Chemistry) Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 10th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also read AP Board 10th Class Physical Science Solutions (Physics & Chemistry) for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

10th Class Physical Science Bits in English

• Chapter 1 Heat Bits
• Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Bits
• Chapter 3 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces Bits
• Chapter 4 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces Bits
• Chapter 5 Human Eye and Colourful World Bits
• Chapter 6 Structure of Atom Bits
• Chapter 7 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table Bits
• Chapter 8 Chemical Bonding Bits
• Chapter 9 Electric Current Bits
• Chapter 10 Electromagnetism Bits
• Chapter 11 Principles of Metallurgy Bits
• Chapter 12 Carbon and its Compounds Bits

10th Class Physics Bits in Telugu

• Chapter 1 ఉష్ణం
• Chapter 3 సమతల ఉపరితలాల వద్ద కాంతి వక్రీభవనం
• Chapter 4 వక్రతలాల వద్ద కాంతి వక్రీభవనం
• Chapter 5 మానవుని కన్ను – రంగుల ప్రపంచం
• Chapter 9 విద్యుత్ ప్రవాహం
• Chapter 10 విద్యుదయస్కాంతత్వం

10th Class Chemistry Bits in Telugu

• Chapter 2 ఆమ్లాలు-క్షారాలు – లవణాలు
• Chapter 6 పరమాణు నిర్మాణం
• Chapter 7 మూలకాల వర్గీకరణ – ఆవర్తన పట్టిక
• Chapter 8 రసాయన బంధం
• Chapter 11 లోహ సంగ్రహణ శాస్త్రం
• Chapter 12 కార్బన్ – దాని సమ్మేళనాలు

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers