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Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP Board 10th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు

బహుళైచ్ఛిక ప్రశ్నలు :

1. క్రింది పట్టికను పరిశీలించి, a నుండి d ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.
2013లో భారతదేశం, దాని పొరుగు దేశాలకు సంబంధించిన కొన్ని వివరాలు
a) పై పట్టిక ఆధారంగా మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచికలో అతి తక్కువ స్తానం పొందిన దేశాన్ని గుర్తించుము.
A) భారతదేశం
B) శ్రీలంక
C) మయన్మార్
D) నేపాల్
జవాబు:
D) నేపాల్

b) భారతదేశంతో పోల్చినప్పుడు పాకిస్తాన్ ఏ అంశంలో వెనుకబడి లేదు?
A) తలసరి ఆదాయం
B) పాఠశాల విద్యలో ఉండే సం||రాలు
C) బడిలో గడిపిన సం||రాలు
D) మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక
జవాబు:
C) బడిలో గడిపిన సం||రాలు

c) ఏ దేశం యొక్క ఆయుః ప్రమాణం పాకిస్తాన్తో సమానంగా ఉంది?
A) శ్రీలంక
B) భారతదేశంలో
C) మయన్మార్
D) నేపాల్
జవాబు:
C) మయన్మార్

d) శ్రీలంకతో పోల్చినపుడు భారతదేశం ఏ అంశంలో వెనుకబడి ఉన్నది?
A) తలసరి ఆదాయం
B) మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక
C) ఆయుః ప్రమాణం
D) అన్ని అంశాలతో
జవాబు:
D) అన్ని అంశాలతో

2. మౌలిక ఆరోగ్య సదుపాయాలు, విద్యా సౌకర్యాలు తగినంతగా ఉన్నపుడు ……….
A) మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక స్థాయి పెరుగుతుంది.
B) శిశు మరణాలు తక్కువగా ఉంటాయి.
C) మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక స్థాయి తగ్గుతుంది.
D) సామాజిక అవసరాలు తీరతాయి.
జవాబు:
A) మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక స్థాయి పెరుగుతుంది.

3. క్రింది వాటిలో అతి సంక్లిష్టమైన అంశము ………………
A) ఆర్థికాభివృద్ధి
B) అభివృద్ధి
C) పెరుగుదల
D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు:
B) అభివృద్ధి

4. ఆదాయరీత్యా ప్రస్తుతము భారతదేశపు స్థితి ………..
A) ఎక్కువ ఆదాయం గల దేశం
B) తక్కువ ఆదాయం గలది
C) మధ్యస్ల ఆదాయం గలది
D) అత్యధిక ఆదాయం గల దేశము
జవాబు:
C) మధ్యస్ల ఆదాయం గలది

5. విభిన్న వ్యక్తులకు అభివృద్ధి పట్ల విభిన్న భావనలు ఉండుటకు కారణము ……….
A) వ్యక్తులు వేరు కాబట్టి
B) జీవన పరిస్థితులు వేరు కాబట్టి
C) అభిప్రాయాలలో భేదాలు ఉండడం
D) ఆలోచనలో మార్పు ఉండడము
జవాబు:
B) జీవన పరిస్థితులు వేరు కాబట్టి

6. క్రింది వానిలో సరికానిది.
A) గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు మెరుగైన కూలీని కోరుతారు.
B) వర్షాధార రైతులు సరియైన వర్షాలు కోరుతారు.
C) ధనిక రైతులు గ్రామాల్లోనే స్థిరపడాలని కోరుతారు.
D) ధనిక కుటుంబ అమ్మాయి స్వేచ్ఛను కోరుతుంది.
జవాబు:
C) ధనిక రైతులు గ్రామాల్లోనే స్థిరపడాలని కోరుతారు.

7. రాష్ట్రాల బడ్జెట్ లో చదువుపై ఎక్కువ ఖర్చు చేస్తున్న రాష్ట్రం
A) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
B) బీహార్
C) గుజరాత్
D) కర్ణాటక
జవాబు:
A) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్

8. 2013 మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక ప్రకారం భారతదేశ స్థానము ………
A) 157
B) 136
C) 146
D) 149
జవాబు:
B) 136

9. భారతదేశంలోని ఈ రాష్ట్రంలో పాఠశాల విద్యా విప్లవం ప్రారంభమయినది ………..
A) మహారాష్ట్ర
B) పంజాబ్
C) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
D) ఉత్తర ప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
C) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్

10. మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచిక (HDI) పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకొనే అంశాలు ………
A) పోషకాహారం
B) విద్య
C) వైద్యం
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
D) పైవన్నీ

11. లింగ వివక్షత అనగా ……….
A) స్త్రీలు మరియు పురుషులు
B) స్త్రీలు మాత్రమే
C) పురుషులు మాత్రమే
D) స్త్రీలను అసమానంగా చూడడము
జవాబు:
D) స్త్రీలను అసమానంగా చూడడము

12. క్రింది పట్టికను పరిశీలించి i నుండి iv ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు గుర్తించండి.
2013 లో భారతదేశం, దాని పొరుగు దేశాలకు సంబంధించిన కొన్ని వివరాలు
i) అత్యల్ప తలసరి ఆదాయం గల దేశం
A) మయన్మార్
B) బంగ్లాదేశ్
C) శ్రీలంక
D) నేపాల్
జవాబు:
D) నేపాల్

ii) ఆయుఃప్రమాణం ఒకే విధంగా ఉన్న దేశాలేవి?
A) భారతదేశం, మయన్మార్
B) మయన్మార్, పాకిస్తాన్
C) బంగ్లాదేశ్, నేపాల్
D) పాకిస్తాన్, భారతదేశం
జవాబు:
B) మయన్మార్, పాకిస్తాన్

iii) అత్యధిక తలసరి ఆదాయం గల దేశం
A) పాకిస్తాన్
B) భారతదేశం
C) శ్రీలంక
D) మయన్మార్
జవాబు:
C) శ్రీలంక

iv) మానవ అభివృద్ధి సూచికలో ఒకే ర్యాంకును కలిగిన దేశాలేవి?
A) భారతదేశం, పాకిస్తాన్
B) మయన్మార్, బంగ్లాదేశ్
C) బంగ్లాదేశ్, నేపాల్
D) పాకిస్తాన్, బంగ్లాదేశ్
జవాబు:
D) పాకిస్తాన్, బంగ్లాదేశ్

13. మానవ అభివృద్ధి నివేదికను ప్రచురించు సంస్థ ఏది?
A) U.N.D.P
B) IMF
C) IBRD
D) WTO
జవాబు:
A) U.N.D.P

14. క్రింది మానవాభివృద్ధి నివేదిక – 2013ను పరిశీలించి i, ii ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు గుర్తించుము.
i) మానవాభివృద్ధి నివేదిక – 2013 ప్రకారం ఈ దేశం మంచి స్థితిలో ఉంది.
A) భారతదేశం
B) పాకిస్తాన్
C) శ్రీలంక
D) నేపాల్
జవాబు:
C) శ్రీలంక

ii) ఆయు:ప్రమాణం విషయంలో భారతదేశం కంటే మంచి స్థితిలోనున్న దేశాలు –
A) పాకిస్తాన్, శ్రీలంక
B) నేపాల్, శ్రీలంక
C) శ్రీలంక, పాకిస్తాన్
D) పాకిస్తాన్, నేపాల్
జవాబు:
B) నేపాల్, శ్రీలంక

15. 2018 మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచికలో మెరుగైన స్థానంలోగల దేశం
A) నేపాల్
B) పాకిస్తాన్
C) మయన్మార్
D) శ్రీలంక
జవాబు:
D) శ్రీలంక

16. ఈ క్రింది ఏ అంశం ఆధారంగా ఒక రాష్ట్రాన్ని వెనుక బడిన రాష్ట్రంగా పేర్కొనవచ్చు?
A) ఎక్కువ శిశు మరణాలు
B) తక్కువ అక్షరాస్యతా శాతం
C) తక్కువ నికర హాజరు శాతం
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
D) పైవన్నీ

17. క్రింది వానిలో వేటిని UNDP అభివృద్ధికి కొలమానంగా తీసుకున్నది?
A) వలస
B) ప్రజల ఆరోగ్యస్థాయి
C) తలసరి ఆదాయం
D) Bమరియు C
జవాబు:
D) Bమరియు C

18. హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో అధిక అక్షరాస్యతకు కారణం కానిది
A) విద్య ఉచితం లేదా తల్లిదండ్రులకు నామమాత్రపు ఖర్చు
B) కనీస సౌకర్యాలు కల్పించడం
C) ఉపాధ్యాయుల నియామకం చేయడం
D) పాఠశాలలో కఠిన శిక్ష
జవాబు:
D) పాఠశాలలో కఠిన శిక్ష

19. పాఠశాల విద్యా విప్లవం క్రింది రాష్ట్రంలో సంభవించింది.
A) అసోం
B) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
C) సిక్కిం
D) ఆర్థికాభివృద్ధి
జవాబు:
B) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్

20. విద్యకోసం ఒక్కొక్క విద్యార్థిపై అధిక మొత్తం ఖర్చు చేసిన రాష్ట్రం
A) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
B) ఆంధ్ర ప్రదేశ్
C) బీహార్
D) ఉత్తర ప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
A) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్

21. హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ రాష్ట్రము మానవాభివృద్ధిలో ముందున్నది ఎందుకంటే
i) తక్కువ శిశు మరణాలు
ii) తక్కువ అక్షరాస్యత శాతం
iii) ఎక్కువ నికర హాజరు శాతము
A) (i) మరియు (ii)
B) (1) మరియు (iii)
C) (ii) మరియు (iii)
D) (i), (ii) మరియు (iii)
జవాబు:
B) (1) మరియు (iii)

22. దేశాలను వర్గీకరించడానికి ప్రపంచ బ్యాంక్ చేత ఉపయోగించబడిన సూచిక
A) మానవ అభివృద్ధి
B) జాతీయాదాయం
C) తలసరి ఆదాయం
D) తమిళనాడు
జవాబు:
C) తలసరి ఆదాయం

23. క్రింది వాక్యాలను పరిగణించండి.
i) వేరు వేరు వ్యక్తులకు వేరు వేరు అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ఉండవచ్చు.
ii) ఒకరికి అభివృద్ధి అయినది మరొకరికి కూడా అభివృద్ధి అవుతుంది.
పై వాక్యా లలో సరైనది ఏది?
A) i) మాత్రమే
B) ii) మాత్రమే
C) i) మరియు ii)
D) రెండూ కావు
జవాబు:
A) i) మాత్రమే

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP Board 10th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు

బహుళైచ్ఛిక ప్రశ్నలు :

1. భారత ప్రామాణిక కాలమానం (స్వేచ్ ప్రామాణిక కాలానికి ఎంత తేడా ఉంది?
A) 5½ గం||లు ముందు (+ 5.30 ని॥లు)
B) 5½ గం||లు వెనుక (- 5.30 ని॥లు)
C) 4½ గం॥లు ముందు (+ 4.30 ని||లు)
D) 4½ గం||లు వెనుక (- 4.30 ని||లు)
జవాబు:
A) 5½ గం||లు ముందు (+ 5.30 ని॥లు)

2. ఏది తప్పుగా జతపరచబడినది?
A) జమ్ము కొండలు – జమ్ము కాశ్మీర్
B) మిష్మి కొండలు – అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
C) కొచ్చార్ – అసోం
D) పాట్కా య్ – ఉత్తర ప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
D) పాట్కా య్ – ఉత్తర ప్రదేశ్

3. సిమ్లా నైనితాల్, ముస్సోరి వంటి వేసవి విడిది స్థావరాలు ఈ ప్రాంతంలో ఉన్నాయి.
A) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు
C) శివాలిక్ శ్రేణి
D) నీలగిరి
జవాబు:
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు

4. హిమాలయ దిగువ భాగంలో రాళ్ళు, గులకరాళ్ళతో కూడిన ప్రాంతం
A) భాబర్
B) టెరాయి
C) నల్ల మృత్తికలు
D) భంగర్
జవాబు:
A) భాబర్

5. క్రింది వానిలో భారతదేశం గుండా పోతున్న రేఖ
A) కర్కట రేఖ
B ) మకర రేఖ
C) ఉప అయన రేఖ
D) భూమధ్య రేఖ
జవాబు:
A) కర్కట రేఖ

6. ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమికి సంబంధం లేని పర్వతాలు
A) ఆరావళి
B) సహ్యాద్రి
C) నీలగిరులు
D) తూర్పు కనుమలు
జవాబు:
A) ఆరావళి

7. భారతదేశ ప్రామాణిక రేఖాంశము …………..
A) 82½° పశ్చిమ రేఖాంశము
B) 82½° తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
C) 23½° పశ్చిమ రేఖాంశము
D) 23½° తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
జవాబు:
B) 82½° తూర్పు రేఖాంశము

8. మహాభారత పర్వత శ్రేణులు ఇచ్చట కలవు
A) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు
C) బాహ్య హిమాలయాలు
D) ఆరావళి పర్వత శ్రేణులు
జవాబు:
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు

9. క్రింది వానిలో సరియైనది.
A) కొంకణ తీరం – ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
B) మలబారు తీరం – మహారాష్ట్ర
C) కోరమండల్ తీరం – తమిళనాడు
D) సర్కార్ తీరం – కేరళ
జవాబు:
C) కోరమండల్ తీరం – తమిళనాడు

10. క్రింది వానిలో ఏ అక్షాంశ రేఖ భారత దేశం గుండా వెళ్ళదు?
A) 5°N
B) 12°N
C) 30°N
D) 35°N
జవాబు:
A) 5°N

11. ‘సర్కార్ తీరం’ గల రాష్ట్రం …….
A) ఒడిశా
B) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
C) తమిళనాడు
D) కేరళ
జవాబు:
B) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్

12. తూర్పు కనుమలలో భాగం కానిది.
A) వేలి కొండలు
B) పాల కొండలు
C) శేషాచలం
D)పళని కొండలు
జవాబు:
D)పళని కొండలు

13. మిష్మి కొండలు గల రాష్ట్రము
A) జమ్ము కాశ్మీర్
B) అస్సాం
C) అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
D) మేఘాలయ
జవాబు:
C) అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్

14. భారతదేశం మధ్యగా పోవుచున్న అక్షాంశ రేఖ ……
A) భూమధ్య రేఖ
B) కర్కటరేఖ
C) మకరరేఖ
D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు:
B) కర్కటరేఖ

15. భారతదేశ కాల నిర్ణయ రేఖ ………
A) 82° 30′ ల తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
B) 98° 27′ ల తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
C) 92° 30′ ల తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
D) 73° 30′ ల తూర్పు రేఖాంశము
జవాబు:
A) 82° 30′ ల తూర్పు రేఖాంశము

16. అన్నామలై కొండలలో ఎత్తైన శిఖరము ……….
A) అనైముడి
B) దొడబెట్ట
C) గురుశిఖర్
D) ఆరోయకొండ
జవాబు:
A) అనైముడి

17. ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి ప్రత్యేక లక్షణం
A) ఎర్ర నేలలు
B) నల్ల నేలలు
C) ఒండ్రు నేలలు
D) లాటరైట్ నేలలు
జవాబు:
B) నల్ల నేలలు

18. హిమాద్రికి మరొక పేరు
A) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు
C) శివాలిక్ శ్రేణి
D) బాహ్య హిమాలయాలు
జవాబు:
A) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు

19. క్రింది వానిలో తప్పుగా జతచేయబడింది.
A) కొంకణ్ తీరం – మహారాష్ట్ర
B) కోరమండల్ తీరం – తమిళనాడు
C) మలబార్ తీరం – కేరళ
D) సర్కార్ తీరం – ఒడిశా
జవాబు:
D) సర్కార్ తీరం – ఒడిశా

20. హిమాలయ ప్రాంత వేసవి విడిదిలలో లేనిది
A) గుల్మార్గ్
B) డార్జిలింగ్
C) కొడైకెనాల్
D) నైనిటాల్
జవాబు:
C) కొడైకెనాల్

21. క్రింది వాక్యాలలో సరియైనది కానిది.
A) భారతదేశం 30° రేఖాంశాల పొడవున విస్తరించి యున్నది.
B) హిమాద్రి శ్రేణి సరాసరి ఎత్తు 6, 100 మీటర్లు.
C) పాక్ జలసంధి పాకిస్తాన్, భారతదేశాలను విడదీస్తున్నది.
D) పశ్చిమ తీరంలో ఎటువంటి సరస్సులు లేవు.
జవాబు:
C) పాక్ జలసంధి పాకిస్తాన్, భారతదేశాలను విడదీస్తున్నది.

22. ఈ పర్వతాల వర్షచ్ఛాయా ప్రాంతంలో థార్ ఎడారి కలదు.
A) హిమాలయాలు
B) వింధ్య
C) సాత్పూరా
D) ఆరావళి
జవాబు:
D) ఆరావళి

క్రింది పటాన్ని పరిశీలించి 23 మరియు 24 ప్రశ్నలకు జవాబులివ్వండి.

23. క్రింది వానిలో భారతదేశంతో భూసరిహద్దును పంచుకోని దేశము
A) నేపాల్
B) చైనా
C) శ్రీలంక
D) పాకిస్తాన్
జవాబు:
C) శ్రీలంక

24. భారతదేశాన్ని ఇంచుమించు రెండు సమానభాగాలుగా విభజిస్తున్న రేఖ
A) కర్కటరేఖ
B) మకరరేఖ
C) భూమధ్యరేఖ
D) గ్రీనిచ్ రేఖ
జవాబు:
A) కర్కటరేఖ

25. భారతదేశ స్థానిక కాలం గ్రీనిచ్ కాలము కంటే …………….
A) 514 గంటలు ముందు ఉంటుంది.
B) 52 గంటలు వెనక ఉంటుంది.
C) 12 గంటలు ముందు ఉంటుంది.
D) 5 గంటలు వెనక ఉంటుంది.
జవాబు:
A) 514 గంటలు ముందు ఉంటుంది.

26. మలబారు తీరము ప్రధానంగా ఏ రాష్ట్రములో ఉన్నది?
A) కర్ణాటక
B) కేరళ
C) తమిళనాడు
D) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
B) కేరళ

27. దక్కన్ పీఠభూమి యొక్క ఉత్తర సరిహద్దు
A) సాత్పురా పర్వతశ్రేణులు
B) మహదేవ్ పర్వతశ్రేణులు
C) కైమూర్ పర్వతశ్రేణులు
D) మైకాల్ పర్వతశ్రేణుల ఒక భాగం
జవాబు:
A) సాత్పురా పర్వతశ్రేణులు

28. క్రింది వానిలో తూర్పు వైపున ఉన్న తీరం
A) కొంకణ్
B) కెనరా
C) మలబార్
D) ఉత్క
జవాబు:
D) ఉత్క

29. క్రింది పేర్కొన్న ఏ రాష్ట్రంలో ముందుగా సూర్యోదయం అవుతుంది?
A) అసోం
B) గుజరాత్
C) మధ్యప్రదేశ్
D) రాజస్థాన్
జవాబు:
A) అసోం

30. కర్కట రేఖ ఈ రాష్ట్రం గుండా వెళుతుంది.
A) అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
B) సిక్కిం
C) మేఘాలయ
D) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్
జవాబు:
D) ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్

31. లక్షద్వీప సమూహం వేటిచేత ఏర్పడింది?
A) అగ్నిపర్వత శిలలు
B) రూపాంతర శిలలు
C) అవక్షేప శిలలు
D) కోరల్ రీఫ్స్ (పగడపు దిబ్బలు)
జవాబు:
D) కోరల్ రీఫ్స్ (పగడపు దిబ్బలు)

32. గంగా-సింధూ మైదానంలోని తూర్పుభాగం ప్రధానంగా ఈ నది వల్ల ఏర్పడింది.
A) గంగా నది
B) బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నది
C) సింధూ నది
D) యమునా నది
జవాబు:
B) బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నది

33. కులు, కంగ్ర లోయలు ఈ క్రింది శ్రేణులలో కలవు
A) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు
C) శివాలిక్
D) సహ్యాద్రి
జవాబు:
B) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు

34. మా డోక్ డింపెప్ లోయ క్రింది రాష్ట్రంలో కలదు.
A) కర్నాటక
B) అసోం
C) బీహార్
D) ఛత్తీస్ ఘడ్
జవాబు:
C) బీహార్

35. పశ్చిమ రాజస్థాన్లో ఈ తరహా వాతావరణం ఉంటుంది.
A) శుష్క
B) అర్థ శుష్క
C) మధ్యధరా
D) ధృవ
జవాబు:
A) శుష్క

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 10th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also read AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Studies Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

10th Class Social Bits in English

• Chapter 1 India: Relief Features Bits
• Chapter 2 Ideas of Development Bits
• Chapter 3 Production and Employment Bits
• Chapter 4 Climate of India Bits
• Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources Bits
• Chapter 6 The People Bits
• Chapter 7 People and Settlement Bits
• Chapter 8 People and Migration Bits
• Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy Bits
• Chapter 10 Globalisation Bits
• Chapter 11 Food Security Bits
• Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity Bits
• Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part 1 Bits
• Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part 2 Bits
• Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies Bits
• Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Bits
• Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Bits
• Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Bits
• Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Bits
• Chapter 20 Post – War World and India Bits
• Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times Bits
• Chapter 22 Citizens and the Governments Bits

10th Class Social Bits in Telugu

• Chapter 1 భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు Bits
• Chapter 2 అభివృద్ధి భావనలు Bits
• Chapter 3 ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధి Bits
• Chapter 4 భారతదేశ శీతోష్ణస్థితి Bits
• Chapter 5 భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు Bits
• Chapter 6 ప్రజలు Bits
• Chapter 7 ప్రజలు – నివాస ప్రాంతాలు Bits
• Chapter 8 ప్రజలు – వలసలు Bits
• Chapter 9 రాంపురం : గ్రామ ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థ Bits
• Chapter 10 ప్రపంచీకరణ Bits
• Chapter 11 ఆహార భద్రత Bits
• Chapter 12 సమానత – సుస్థిర అభివృద్ధి Bits
• Chapter 13 ప్రపంచ యుద్ధాల మధ్య ప్రపంచం 1900-1950 : భాగం-I Bits
• Chapter 14 ప్రపంచ యుద్ధాల మధ్య ప్రపంచం 1900-1950 : భాగం-II Bits
• Chapter 15 వలస పాలిత ప్రాంతాలలో జాతి విముక్తి ఉద్యమాలు Bits
• Chapter 16 భారతదేశ జాతీయోద్యమం-దేశ విభజన, స్వాతంత్య్రం: 1939-1947 Bits
• Chapter 17 స్వతంత్ర భారత రాజ్యాంగ నిర్మాణం Bits
• Chapter 18 స్వతంత్ర భారతదేశం (మొదటి ముప్ఫై సంవత్సరాలు-1947-1977) Bits
• Chapter 19 రాజకీయ ధోరణుల ఆవిర్భావం : 1977-2000 Bits
• Chapter 20 ప్రపంచ యుద్దాల తరువాత ప్రపంచం, భారతదేశం Bits
• Chapter 21 సమకాలీన సామాజిక ఉద్యమాలు Bits
• Chapter 22 పౌరులు, ప్రభుత్వాలు Bits

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Why Do We Fall Ill on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 11th Lesson Why Do We Fall Ill with Answers

Choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
This disease lasts lor long time.
A) Cold
B) Cough
C) Fever
D) Elephantiasis
Answer:
D) Elephantiasis

Question 2.
Loss of weight will be seen in this disease.
A) Fever
B) Tuberculosis
C) Jaundice
D) None
Answer:
B) Tuberculosis

Question 3.
Infectious diseases are caused by
A) Microbes
B) Animals
C) Insects
D) Birds
Answer:
A) Microbes

Question 4.
This disease is caused by genetic abnormalities
A) Hepatitis
B) Cholera
C) Cancer
D) Diarrhoea
Answer:
C) Cancer

Question 5.
Helicobacter Pylori was discovered by
A) Leeuwen Hoek
B) Pasteur
C) Robin Warren
D) None
Answer:
C) Robin Warren

Question 6.
The size of SARS Virus is in nanometres
A) 400
B) 500
C) 200
D) 300
Answer:
B) 500

Question 7.
The round worms will stay in the humans
A) Small intestine
B) Large intestine
C) Stomach
D) Liver
Answer:
A) Small intestine

Question 8.
Skin infections are caused by
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoa
D) Fungi
Answer:
D) Fungi

Question 9.
The disease spread through air is
A) Typhoid
B) Tuberculosis
C) Malaria
D) AIDS
Answer:
B) Tuberculosis

Question 10.
These insects feed on many warm-blooded animals
A) Mosquitoes
B) Cockroaches
C) Ants
D) House flies
Answer:
A) Mosquitoes

Question 11.
Which of the following is caused by virus?
A) TB
B) AIDS
C) Malaria
D) Blood Pressure
Answer:
B) AIDS

Question 12.
Which of the following is caused by a bacteria?
A) Small pox
B) Chicken pox
C) TB
D) AIDS
Answer:
C) TB

Question 13.
This is not a communicable disease
A) Polio
B) Typhoid
C) AIDS
D) Diabetis
Answer:
D) Diabetis

Question 14.
Vector for Malaria
A) Pigs
B) Housefly
C) Culex mosquito
D) Female Anophelus mosquito
Answer:
D) Female Anophelus mosquito

Question 15.
BCG is a vaccine to prevent
A) Malaria
B) Polio
C) TB
D) Cholera
Answer:
C) TB

Question 16.
This disease is spread by contaminated food and water
A) Cholera
B) AIDS
C) Malaria
D) TB
Answer:
A) Cholera

Question 17.
Vectors for plague disease
A) Pigs
B) Rats
C) Dogs
D) Bed bugs
Answer:
B) Rats

Question 18.
Example for Chronic disease
A) Cold
B) Fever
C) Cough
D) T.B
Answer:
D) T.B

Question 19.
Pencillin was invented by
A) Dr. Y. Subba Rao
B) Alexander Flemming
C) Jenner
D) Pasteur
Answer:
B) Alexander Flemming

Question 20.
This is caused by bacteria.
A) Cold
B) AIDS
C) Dengue
D) Cholera
Answer:
D) Cholera

Question 21.
Water borne disease
A) AIDS
B) Cholera
C) Typhoid
D) B and C
Answer:
D) B and C

Question 22.
The following disease can be controlled by Vaccination
A) AIDS
B) Cholera
C) Diptheria
D) Common cold
Answer:
C) Diptheria

Question 23.
Example for chronic disease
A) Cold
B) Filaria
C) Dengue fever
D) Typhoid
Answer:
B) Filaria

Question 24.
Which of the following is a acute disease?
A) Cancer
B) AIDS
C) Filaria
D) Common cold
Answer:
D) Common cold

Question 25.
Match the following.
List – A — List – B
1) Cholera — a) Air borne disease
2) TB  — b) Soil borne disease
3) Tetanus — c) Water bornedisease
A) 1 – a. 2 – c, 3 – b
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 26.
Identify the mismatched pair.
1) DDT – Triple Antigen
2) Tetracyclin – Malaria
3) Cinchona – Plague
A) 1 only
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 3 only
Answer:
B) 2, 3

Question 27.
Match the following.
List – A — List – B
1 1) HIV — a) Sleeping sickness
2) Trypanosoma — b) TB
3) Tuberculosis — c) AIDS
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 28.
Identify this pathogen.

A) Leishmania
B) Trypanosoma
C) HIV
D) Tuberculosis bacteria
Answer:
B) Trypanosoma

Question 29.
Identify this pathogen present in the picture.

A) HIV
B) TMV
C) SARS
D) Ebola
Answer:
C) SARS

Question 30.

Identify this microrganism.
A) Staphylococci bacteria
B) Bacillus tubera osis
C) Clostredium
D) Rabies
Answer:
A) Staphylococci bacteria

Question 31.

Identify the parasite present in the intestine.
A) Pin worm
B) Round worm
C) Head worm
D) Earthworm
Answer:
B) Round worm

Question 32.

Identify this parasite of human intestine.
A) Trypanosoma
B) Leishmania
C) Plasmodium
D) Clostredium
Answer:
B) Leishmania

Question 33.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
1. Acute disease — A) Internal cause
2. Chronic disease — B) Short period
3. Infectious — C) Pneumonia
4. Non-infectious — D) Long term effect
5. Communicable — E) Cancer
6. Syphilis — F) Microbes
— G) AIDS
— H) Insects
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) F
4) A
5) C
6) G

Question 34.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Air borne — A) Diarrhoea
2. Water borne — B) Ring worm
3. Protozoans — C) High Blood Pressure
4. Fungi — D) Common cold
5. Intestinal worms — E) Malaria
— F) Cancer
— G) Round worm
Answer:
1) D
2) A
3) E
4) B
5) G

Question 35.
Which of the following organ is highly affected during Jaundice?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Lungs
D) Eyes
Answer:
A) Liver

Question 36.
Which causes Kala Azar disease?


Answer:
D)

Question 37.
Diseases are classified as
A) Infectious and non-infectious
B) Acute and chronic
C) Both A and B
D) We cannot classify
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pollution check will be done for every
A) 4 months
B) 5 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Answer:
C) 6 months

Question 2.
The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is
A) 12%
B) 13%
C) 14%
D) 15%
Answer:
A) 12%

Question 3.
Decay of organic matter releases the gas into air
A) Nitrogen
B) Ammonia
C) Carbondioxide
D) None
Answer:
B) Ammonia

Question 4.
Thermal power plants of Parawada is in
A) Vijayanagaram
B) Vijayawada
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Macharla
Answer:
C) Visakhapatnam

Question 5.
The power generates by using uranium is called
A) Hydro electric power
B) Thermal power
C) Nuclear power
D) None
Answer:
C) Nuclear power

Question 6.
The unforgettable tragedy towards air pollution in Bhopal took place in the year
A) 1981
B) 1982
C) 1983
D) 1984
Answer:
D) 1984

Question 7.
The industrial waste contains a large number of harmful
A) plants
B) animals
C) chemicals
D) microorganisms
Answer:
C) chemicals

Question 8.
Pollutants emitted by thermal power plants causes this disease
A) Bronchitis
B) Lung cancer
C) Suffocation
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 9.
Example for secondary pollutant
A) PAN
B) Chlorine
C) Lead
D) Ammonia
Answer:
A) PAN

Question 10.
The Taj Mahal is situated on the banks of river
A) Ganges
B) Yamuna
C) Brahmaputhra
D) Kaveri
Answer:
B) Yamuna

Question 11.
This is responsible for “minimata” disease.
A) Cadmium
B) Arsenic
C) Mercury
D) Sulphur
Answer:
C) Mercury

Question 12.
The percentage of forests on earth is
A) 19%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 27%
Answer:
A) 19%

Question 13.
Sources of CFCs are
A) AC
B) Refrigerator
C) Jet planes
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
‘Vanamahotsav’ is conducted in this month.
A) June
B) July
C) August
D) February
Answer:
B) July

Question 15.
This is an eco-friendly fuel.
A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Petrol
D) CNG
Answer:
D) CNG

Question 16.
The cause for ‘eutrophication’
A) Nitrates and phosphates
B) Pesticides
C) Chemicals
D) Metals
Answer:
A) Nitrates and phosphates

Question 17.
Ozone layer is being destroyed by
A) CFCs
B) Chlorine
C) CO₂
D) NO₂
Answer:
B) Chlorine

Question 18.
Acid rain is due to this
A) CO and CO₂
B) NO₂ and SO₂
C) Hg and Cd
D) He
Answer:
B) NO₂ and SO₂

Question 19.
SPM can be reduced by installation of this
A) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
B) Filters
C) Cooling Towers
D) None
Answer:
A) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)

Question 20.
This gas is responsible for “Bhopal Gas Tragedy”.
A) Methane
B) Ethane
C) Methyl Isocyanate
D) Acetylene
Answer:
C) Methyl Isocyanate

Question 21.
The petrol now we are using ……….. in our cars is free.
A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Zn
D) Ra
Answer:
B) Pb

Question 22.
Chernobyl disaster happened in ……….. country.
A) USA
B) Iran
C) Iraq
D) Russia
Answer:
D) Russia

Question 23.
The most polluted river in Hyderabad is
A) Manjeera
B) Godavari
C) Krishna
D) Moosi
Answer:
D) Moosi

Question 24.
A drop of engine oil can pollute …………… litres of water.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 45
Answer:
B) 25

Question 25.
Sinks of carbondioxide
A) Rivers
B) Water falls
C) Seas
D) Soil
Answer:
C) Seas

Question 26.
‘Global warming’ is due to
A) CO₂
B) Water vapour
C) NO₂
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 27.
This pollutant tarnishes silver objects and blackens lead paintings.
A) SO₂
B) NO₂
C) PAN
D) Hydrogen sulphide
Answer:
D) Hydrogen sulphide

Question 28.
Expand – PAN
A) Peroxy Acetyle Nitrate
B) Peroxy Acetyle Nitrite
C) Peroxy Accute Nitrate
D) Peroxy Acetylene Nitride
Answer:
A) Peroxy Acetyle Nitrate

Question 29.
Choose the correct mathing.
List – A List – B
1) Acid Rain a) Phosphates and Nitrates
2) Eutrophication b) Mercury
3) Minimata c) SO₂ + NO₂
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 30.
Identify the mismatched pair.
1) Thermal power – Coal
2) Hydral power – Tides of Sea
3) Tidal power – Water energy
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only
Answer:
B) 2, 3

Question 31.
This gas is released by the incomplete burning of fuels in motor vehicles
A) CO
B) NO₂
C) CO₂
D) SO₂
Answer:
A) CO

Question 32.
If blue litmus is turned into red in water, water is
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Neutral
D) None
Answer:
A) Acidic

Question 33.
The following one is a natural cause for air pollution
A) Volcanic eruption
B) Forest fire
C) Automobile emissions
D) Both A and B
Answer:
B) Forest fire

Question 34.

Look at this picture carefully. This activity leads to the
A) Water pollution
B) Air pollution
C) Soil pollution
D) Radioactive pollution
Answer:
B) Air pollution

Question 35.
Observe the picture.

This activity leads to
A) Soil pollution
B) Air pollution
C) Water pollution
D) Sound pollution
Answer:
C) Water pollution

Question 36.
This activity is responsible for….

A) Global Warming
B) Green House effect
C) Air pollution
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 37.

The chief gases of the emissions from the factory shown in the figure
A) SO₂
B) NO₂
C) CO₂
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 38.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
1. Hydrogen sulphide — A) Power plants
2. Particulate matter — B) Headache
3. Air pollution — C) Automobiles
4. Sulphur dioxide — D) Dust and smoke
5. Hydro carbons — E) Ore refining
6. Ammonia — F) High Blood Pressure
— G) Fertilizer plant
— H) Sea salt production
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) F
4) A
5) C
6) G

Question 39.
…………. combines with water to form acid rain.
A) Sulphur dioxide
B) Calcium hydroxide
C) Phosphorous monoxide
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
A) Sulphur dioxide

Question 40.
Which of the following is non-renewable source of energy?
A) Solar energy
B) Fuel energy
C) Tidal energy
D) Wind energy
Answer:
B) Fuel energy

Question 41.
Narmada bachao andolan was led by
A) Sunderlal Bahuguna
B) Baba Amte
C) Medha Patkar
D) Kiran Bedi
Answer:
C) Medha Patkar

Question 42.
Global warming is a serious issue which we are facing now. Which of the following gas is responsible for global warming?
A) O₂
B) SO₂
C) PO₂
D) CO₂
Answer:
D) CO₂

Question 43.
Choose the incorrect statement about pollution control activities of river Musi.
i) Solid waste management
ii) Installation of sewage treatment plant
iii) Sending contaminated water into Musi
iv) Develop public awareness
A) i, ii only
B) ii only
C) iii only
D) i, ii, iv only
Answer:
D) i, ii, iv only

Question 44.
If you take print on both sides of the white paper, this resembles
A) Recycle
B) Reuse
C) Recover
D) Reduce
Answer:
D) Reduce

Question 45.
If you keep oiled papers in various corners of your house, you find that
A) oil dries up
B) it becomes oilier
C) dust accumulates on oil paper
D) no change occurs
Answer:
C) dust accumulates on oil paper

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Production and Management of Food From Animals on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The common and dangerous disease in cows and buffaloes is
A) Nattala Vyadhi
B) Galikuntu
C) Viral infections
D) Bacterial diseases
Answer:
B) Galikuntu

Question 2.
The doctor who provide treatment and health care for the cattle
A) Neurologist
B) Dentist
C) Veterinary doctor
D) None
Answer:
C) Veterinary doctor

Question 3.
In Pasteurization milk is heated at the temperature
A) 62°
B) 72°
C) 82°
D) 92°
Answer:
A) 62°

Question 4.
In Odisa traditional live stock, the following buffaloes are reared
A) Murra
B) Jaferabad
C) Nagapuri
D) Ghilka
Answer:
D) Ghilka

Question 5.
Layers are reared for the production of
A) meat
B) eggs
C) skin
D) bones
Answer:
B) eggs

Question 6.
The egg prices are high in the months of
A) January
B) March
C) April
D) January to April
Answer:
D) January to April

Question 7.
The Indian traditional variety meant for fighting is
A) Aseel
B) Kadaknath
C) Chittagang
D) Bursa
Answer:
A) Aseel

Question 8.
The weight of Emu bird is nearly
A) 40 k.g.
B) 50 k.g.
C) 30 k.g.
D) 10 k.g.
Answer:
B) 50 k.g.

Question 9.
Number of queen bees in a colony is
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 10.
The important fish available in our marine area is
A) Korramenu
B) Jella
C) Tuna
D) Mosu
Answer:
C) Tuna

Question 11.
Animal husbandry is a part and parcel of
A) Games
B) Agriculture
C) Swimming
D) Civilization
Answer:
B) Agriculture

Question 12.
Nattala Vyadhi (worm infection) is very common in
A) Cows
B) Buffaloes
C) Sheep and Goat
D) Prawns
Answer:
C) Sheep and Goat

Question 13.
Traditional variety of cow is
A) Jersy
B) Holstein
C) Murra
D) Nagapuri
Answer:
D) Nagapuri

Question 14.
High milk yielding foreign variety cow
A) Jersy
B) Holstein
C) Haryana
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 15.
What is the temperature used in Pasteurization?
A) 62°C for 30 mnts
B) 65°C for 15 mnts
C) 70°C for 30 mnts
D) 25°C for 15 mnts
Answer:
A) 62°C for 30 mnts

Question 16.
“White revolution” is related to
A) Increase in rice production
B) Increase in oil production
C) Increase in cattle production
D) Increase in milk production
Answer:
D) Increase in milk production

Question 17.
“Green revolution” is related to
A) Food grains
B) Aquaculture
C) Milk production
D) Freedom movement
Answer:
A) Food grains

Question 18.
India held this position in eggs production.
A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 6th
D) 10th
Answer:
A) 4th

Question 19.
India held this position in the production of chicken.
A) 5th
B) 4th
C) 6th
D) 8th
Answer:
A) 5th

Question 20.
White plymoth, Rhode island Red are examples for
A) Broilers
B) Layers
C) Fishes
D) Prawns
Answer:
A) Broilers

Question 21.
How many days did a hen spend to hatch its eggs?
A) 21 days
B) 25 days
C) 28 days
D) 30 days
Answer:
A) 21 days

Question 22.
Hatchability of eggs generally influenced by this temperature
A) 37°C – 38°C
B) 41°C – 42°C
C) 45°C – 46°C
D) None
Answer:
A) 37°C – 38°C

Question 23.
“Divine food” is
A) Fish
B) Prawn
C) Egg
D) Honey
Answer:
D) Honey

Question 24.
The primary function of a queen bee in a hive is
A) To lay eggs
B) To built the hive
C) Eating
D) Honey production
Answer:
A) To lay eggs

Question 25.
“Father of white revolution in India”
A) M.S. Swaminathan
B) Prof. J.K. Kuriyan
C) M.S. Viswanathan
D) Prof. Y.V. Rao
Answer:
B) Prof. J.K. Kuriyan

Question 26.
The purity of milk is calculated by
A) Galactometer
B) Ammeter
C) Monometer
D) Lactometer
Answer:
D) Lactometer

Question 27.
‘Bee Venum’ is prepared in the production of….
A) Injections
B) Tablets
C) Hormones
D) Apis tincture
Answer:
D) Apis tincture

Question 28.
India has the coast line about
A) 7500 mm
B) 7500 m
C) 6500 Km
D) 7500 kms
Answer:
D) 7500 kms

Question 29.
The major use of “bee wax” is
A) Medicinal industry
B) Textile industry
C) Furniture making
D) Shoe polish / creams making
Answer:
D) Shoe polish / creams making

Question 30.
“Flightless bird” that is reared for commercial practice
A) Ostrich
B) Emu
C) Kiwi
D) Swift
Answer:
B) Emu

Question 31.
Bones of dead cattle are used in
A) Chemical industry
B) Fertilizer industry
C) Textile industry
D) Sugar factories
Answer:
B) Fertilizer industry

Question 32.
Sea weeds are used in the production of
A) Colours
B) Medicines
C) Phycocolloids
D) Varnish
Answer:
C) Phycocolloids

Question 33.
“Operation flood” means …….
A) Increase in the production of eggs
B) Increase in the production of chicken
C) Increase in the production of milk
D) Increase in the production of fish
Answer:
C) Increase in the production of milk

Question 34.
In which month the milk production is high in our state?
A) January
B) April
C) November
D) August
Answer:
B) April

Question 35.
……….. can be produced by cattle waste.
A) Fertilizers
B) Cement
C) Biogas
D) Medicines
Answer:
C) Biogas

Question 36.
……….. million of eggs are producing per year in our country.
A) 40.06
B) 39.06
C) 41.06
D) 42.06
Answer:
C) 41.06

Question 37.
How many recognised honey bee species are there in India?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
C) 5

Question 38.
Life span of a queen bee is
A) 4 – 5 weeks
B) 5 – 6 weeks
C) 2 – 3 years
D) 7 – 8 weeks
Answer:
C) 2 – 3 years

Question 39.
Drone lives for ………. days.
A) 47
B) 37
C) 57
D) 77
Answer:
C) 57

Question 40.
Apis millifera produces …………. kgs of honey per annum.
A) 3 – 10 kgs
B) 10 – 15 kgs
C) 15 – 20 kgs
D) 25 – 30 kgs
Answer:
D) 25 – 30 kgs

Question 41.
The milk of this buffalo tastes a bit salty and kept up to 7 days without refrigeration
A) Murra
B) Jersy
C) Kangayam
D) Chilka
Answer:
D) Chilka

Question 42.
The bullock that is best suitable for drought areas
A) Chilka
B) Ongole
C) Kangayam
D) Nagapuri
Answer:
C) Kangayam

Question 43.
According to Economical and Statistical Survey of India – 2011, …………. liters of milk is produced in our state
A) 40 – 50 lakh
B) 40 – 60 lakh
C) 100 lakh
D) 20 lakh
Answer:
B) 40 – 60 lakh

Question 44.
Holstein and Jersy give ……….. liters of milk per day.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 16
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 45.
Example for sea weeds
A) Agar – agar
B) Ulva
C) Sargassum
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 46.
By observing the graph, name the month in which the milk production is maximum.

A) November
B) April
C) May
D) December
Answer:
A) November

Question 47.

This is the logo of
A) National Egg Co-operation Committee
B) National Egg Co-ordination Corporation
C) National Egg Co-ordination Committee
D) National Egg Coordination Commission
Answer:
C) National Egg Co-ordination Committee

Question 48.

Look at the pie diagram, we get milk from cattle. From which animals we get maximum milk production?
A) Buffaloes
B) Goats
C) Camels
D) Cows
Answer:
D) Cows

Question 49.

Can you identify this foreign variety high milk yielding species?
A) Holstein
B) Jersy
C) Jaferabad
D) Nagapuri
Answer:
A) Holstein

Question 50.

Name the great man wh0 led the “Operation flood”.
A) M.S.Swaminathan
B) Prof. J.K. Kuriyan
C) Prof. K.J. Menon
D) R.K. Menon
Answer:
B) Prof. J.K. Kuriyan

Question 51.

Can you identify this “flightless bird”?
A) Ostrich
B) Kiwi
C) Swift
D) Emu
Answer:
D) Emu

Question 52.

Name this famous local fowl variety
A) Aseel
B) Hampshire
C) Plymoth
D) Rhode island red
Answer:
A) Aseel

Question 53.

Identify the strong, healthy local bullock variety best suitable for drought areas.
A) Chilka
B) Ongole
C) Nagapuri
D) Kangayam
Answer:
D) Kangayam

Question 54.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group -B
1. Sea weeds — A) Live stock
2. Murra breed — B) Economical Value
3. Aseel (Barisa Kodi) — C) Agar-agar
4. Apis dorsata — D) Long shan
5. Oysters — E) Cock fighting
F) Foreign variety
G) Honey bee
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) E
4) G
5) B

Question 55.
………… is an Indian traditional variety of fowl used for cockfights during festivals like Pongal.
A) Chittagang
B) White leghorn
C) Aseel
D) Bursa
Answer:
C) Aseel

Question 56.
Acqua culture : fishes :: Apiculture : …………..
A) Broiler hens
B) Prawns
C) Silk moths
D) Honeybees
Answer:
D) Honeybees

Question 57.
Apis tincture is derived from ………..
A) oil from prawns.
B) codfish liver oil.
C) toxins from honeybees.
D) oil from crabs.
Answer:
C) toxins from honeybees.

Question 58.
Kavitha formed some questions to know about the preparation of honey by honeybees. Identify the correct one.
1) How many types of honeybees participate in pollination?
2) What is the role of honeybees in pollination?
3) Do drones take part in preparation of honey?
4) Do respiration glands of honeybees prepare honey?
A) 1, 2 only
B) 2, 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 4 only
Answer:
B) 2, 3 only

Question 59.
The best suited slogan for animal husbandry is
A) Grow either traditional or hybrid varieties
B) Grow only traditional varieties
C) Grow neither traditional or hybrid varieties
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Grow either traditional or hybrid varieties

Question 60.
What is the reason for hike in price of eggs in January to April Months?
i) More eggs used for hatching
ii) Less production during summer
iii) Eggs hatched between 37° – 38°C only
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) ii only
Answer:
C) i and iii

Question 61.
You have collected the information about ocean weeds. Identify the ocean weed from given below names.
A) Hydrilla
B) Agar-Agar
C) Utricularia
D) Nephanthis
Answer:
B) Agar-Agar

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Production and Management of Food From Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The season we find more varieties of vegetables
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy
D) Autumn
Answer:
C) Rainy

Question 2.
Kharif season is in the months of
A) May to October
B) June to October
C) November to March
D) None
Answer:
B) June to October

Question 3.
The global grain is
A) Rice
B) Wheat
C) Ragi
D) Bajra
Answer:
A) Rice

Question 4.
The instrument used to sow seeds in the soil
A) Harrow
B) Seed drill
C) Plough
D) Paddy planter
Answer:
B) Seed drill

Question 5.
The following paddy variety requires much gap between plants.
A) Amritasari
B) Bangaru Teega
C) Srivari
D) Kolleti Kusuma
Answer:
C) Srivari

Question 6.
The name of the disease in groundnut
A) Tikka disease
B) Bacteria
C) Leaf blight
D) Citrus canker
Answer:
A) Tikka disease

Question 7.
The process of watering the plants is
A) Ploughing
B) Seedling
C) Manuring
D) Irrigation
Answer:
D) Irrigation

Question 8.
Before storage of grains they should be
A) Dried
B) Freeze
C) Dehydration
D) Salting
Answer:
A) Dried

Question 9.
The paddy variety which requires much gap between the plants
A) Srivari
B) Sona
C) Bangaru Teega
D) BPT
Answer:
A) Srivari

Question 10.
The method of dispersing seed by sprinkling is called
A) Broad casting
B) Throwing
C) Flying
D) None
Answer:
A) Broad casting

Question 11.
Here, agricultural products are preserved for a longer periods
A) Bamboo bin
B) Metallic bin
C) Cold storage
D) None
Answer:
C) Cold storage

Question 12.
This preserves and promotes different varieties of quality seeds
A) NSDC
B) MDC
C) MTNL
D) BSNL
Answer:
A) NSDC

Question 13.
Which of the following seeds germinate well?
A) Floating seeds
B) Sank seeds
C) Weightless seeds
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Sank seeds

Question 14.
Water and nutrients can be reached to every part of land by
A) Ploughing
B) Levelling
C) Sowing
D) Irrigation
Answer:
B) Levelling

Question 15.
Wheat is cultivated in this Season only.
A) Rabi
B) Kharif
C) Both seasons
D) None
Answer:
A) Rabi

Question 16.
The crops grown only in Winter season is called
A) Rabi
B) Kharif
C) Winter crops
D) Rainy crops
Answer:
A) Rabi

Question 17.
The crops growh in the rainy season are called
A) Rabi
B) Kharif
C) Rainy crops
D) Winter crops
Answer:
B) Kharif

Question 18.
Example for chemical fertilizer
A) Urea
B) DAP
C) Potash
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
…………. shaped ridges are formed when ploughing is done.
A) I
B) L
C) V
D) T
Answer:
C) V

Question 20.
The period of Harappan civilization is
A) 1300 BC
B) 2300 BC
C) 3300 BC
D) 4300 BC
Answer:
B) 2300 BC

Question 21.
Mesolithic period is …………. B.C
A) 9000 – 8000
B) 8000 – 7000
C) 9000 – 7000
D) 9000 – 5000
Answer:
A) 9000 – 8000

Question 22.
The following one has the largest area of land under rice cultivation in the world
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) Srilanka
Answer:
C) India

Question 23.
Name the country that produce highest yield of paddy crop per hectare
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) Malasia
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 24.
Farmers use this, for levelling the soil ………..
A) Leveller
B) Plough
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
Examples for short term crop ………..
A) Green gram
B) Black gram
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 26.
Example for long term crop ……..
A) Jowar
B) Red gram
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
The time period of Rabi crop is ……….
A) August – April
B) October – April
C) December – April
D) January – April
Answer:
A) August – April

Question 28.
Examples for Rabi crops ………
A) Coriandar
B) Fenugram
C) Barley
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
Example for Kharif crops …………
A) Chilli
B) Sugar cane
C) Turmeric
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
‘Molagolukulu’ is the traditional good variety grown in ………..
A) Guntur dist
B) Kurnool
C) Krishna
D) Nellore
Answer:
D) Nellore

Question 31.
Bangaru Teega, Kolleti Kusuma are the varieties in ……….. crop.
A) Paddy
B) Maize
C) Wheat
D) Barley
Answer:
A) Paddy

Question 32.
This book tells about the dangers of pesticides.
A) Silent Spring
B) Silent Winter
C) Winter Silence
D) Silence of Spring
Answer:
A) Silent Spring

Question 33.
The other name for Natural manure is
A) Compost
B) Vermi compost
C) Bio-fertilizers
D) None
Answer:
C) Bio-fertilizers

Question 34.
The pollengrains of this weed plant, causes allergy
A) Garika
B) Gaddi Chamanthi
C) Parthenium
D) Pogaku Malle
Answer:
C) Parthenium

Question 35.
Parthenium was imported from
A) USA
B) China
C) Russia
D) Australia
Answer:
D) Australia

Question 36.
Example for modern methods of irrigation
A) Drip
B) Sprinkler
C) Basin irrigation
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 37.
“Farmer’s family friend” is
A) Crow
B) Parrot
C) Cat
D) Sparrow
Answer:
D) Sparrow

Question 38.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List – B
i) Spraying — a) Seed driller
ii) Sowing seeds — b) Duster
iii) Weeding — c) Harrow
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – a, ii – c, iii – b
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
Answer:
B) i – a, ii – c, iii – b

Question 39.
NSDC-Expand
A) National Seed Development Committee
B) National Seed Development Corporation
C) National Seed Dressing Corporation
D) National Seed Development Commission
Answer:
B) National Seed Development Corporation

Question 40.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
i) Sona – Traditional variety of Rice
ii) Broad casting – Seed dispersing
iii) DDT – Biopesticide
A) i, ii
B) i, iii
C) ii, iii
D) iii only
Answer:
D) iii only

Question 41.
In the adjacent picture, the crop was severely affected by

A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Virus
D) Tsunami
Answer:
C) Virus

Question 42.

The picture is showing the symptoms following disease …………..
A) Smut
B) Blast
C) Tikka
D) Red Rot
Answer:
C) Tikka

Question 43.

The following picture is showing …………
A) Fountain
B) Drip
C) Sprinkler
D) Artificial Raining
Answer:
C) Sprinkler

Question 44.

The picture is showing the modern irrigation method
A) Sprinkler
B) Drip irrigation system
C) Furrow irrigation
D) None
Answer:
B) Drip irrigation system

Question 45.

In this picture we can see this type of irrigation …….
A) Drip irrigation
B) Sprinkler
C) Basin irrigation
D) Furrow irrigation
Answer:
D) Furrow irrigation

Question 46.

This is an example for
A) Basin irrigation
B) Furrow irrigation
C) Drip irrigation
D) Sprinkler irrigation
Answer:
A) Basin irrigation

Question 47.

Name the agricultural tool present in the picture
A) Iron plough
B) Paddy planter
C) Weed harrow
D) Harvester
Answer:
C) Weed harrow

Question 48.

Name the agricultural activity, shown in this picture.
A) Spraying
B) Dustering
C) Broadcasting
D) Dispersal
Answer:
C) Broadcasting

Question 49.

What is the agricultural activity shown in the picture?
A) Weeding
B) Ploughing
C) Sowing
D) Levelling
Answer:
B) Ploughing

Question 50.

Name the agricultural activity shown in the picture
A) Weeding
B) Harvesting
C) Transplantation
D) Levelling
Answer:
C) Transplantation

Question 51.

Look at the picture and what are the constituents in it
A) Mg, Ca, F
B) Zn, BO, K
C) Si, Mg, Zn
D) N, P, K
Answer:
D) N, P, K

Match the following:
Question 52.
Group – A Group -B
i. Rice — a) Rabi
ii. Wheat — b) Biofertilizer
iii. Plant and animal waste — c) Organic pesticide
iv. Aldrin — d) Kharif
v. Superphosphate — e) Inorganic pesticide
— f) Artificial fertilizer
A) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c, v – f
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – e
C) i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – f
D) i – f, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – a
Answer:
A) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c, v – f

Question 53.
Group – A — Group – B
i. Sowing seeds — a) Harrow
ii. Levelling — b) Duster
iii. Weedling — c) Leveller
iv. Irrigation — d) Seed drill
v. Spraying — e) Plough
— e) Sprinkler
— g) Harvester
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – f, iv – a, v – b
B) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – f, v – b
C) i – b, ii – f, iii – a, iv – c, v – d
D) i – f, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c, v – d
Answer:
B) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – f, v – b

Question 54.
Ratnababu wants to grow crops in his field with water scarcity. Which of the following method will be MOST suitable for irrigation for his field ?
A) Furrow irrigation
B) Basin irrigation
C) Drip irrigation
D) Bore water
Answer:
C) Drip irrigation

Question 55.
Which of the following is an example of a short day or long night plant?
A) Soyabean
B) Maize
C) Pea
D) Wheat
Answer:
D) Wheat

Question 56.
Advantages of plouging are
A) Absorbs more water
B) Easy transportation of air
C) Foe microorganisms will die
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 57.
Read the following statements.
(A) : Sprinkler is a modern irrigation method.
(R) : Drip irrigation is right method in water scanty places.
A) Both A, R are correct, R is correct explanation for A.
B) Both A, R are correct, R is not correct explanation for A.
C) A is not correct, R is correct
D) Both A, R are not correct
Answer:
B) Both A, R are correct, R is not correct explanation for A.

Question 58.
Read the following statements.
P : Aphids and white flies suck plant sap and also carry viral infections to the plants.
Q : The Deccan wingless grasshopper is seen only in the Rabi season.
Which of these statements are correct?
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) P is true, Q is false
D) P is false, Q is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 59.
The seeds that are broadcast like paddy in your village is
A) Chilli
B) Cotton
C) Ladyfinger
D) Red gram
Answer:
A) Chilli

Question 60.
Like India other countries also pro¬duce Paddy. Which country produce more paddy in the world ?
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) Pakistan
Answer:
B) Japan

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Different Ecosystems on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All the organisms derive energy from
A) soil
B) water
C) air
D) food
Answer:
D) food

Question 2.
The main source of energy for all living things is
A) Electricity
B) Generator
C) Battery
D) Sun
Answer:
D) Sun

Question 3.
Living organisms that decompose dead animals and plants are called
A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) None
Answer:
C) Decomposers

Question 4.
The food web starts from
A) Animals
B) Plants
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
Answer:
B) Plants

Question 5.
Coringa mangrove is named after the river
A) Ganga
B) Corangi
C) Godavari
D) Kaveri
Answer:
B) Corangi

Question 6.
The area occupied by desert on the land of
A) 17%
B) 18%
C) 19%
D) 20%
Answer:
A) 17%

Question 7.
The camel feeds on
A) insects
B) animals
C) tender shoots
D) roots
Answer:
C) tender shoots

Question 8.
Approximately the solar energy absorbed in the atmosphere is
A) 57%
B) 59%
C) 60%
D) 40%
Answer:
A) 57%

Question 9.
In a food web snakes will be eaten by
A) owl
B) peacock
C) cat
D) rabbit
Answer:
B) peacock

Question 10.
The large ecosystem present on earth is
A) Habit
B) Habitat
C) Biosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
C) Biosphere

Question 11.
Leaves in desert plants are covered by a layer of
A) Hair
B) Fur
C) Water
D) Wax
Answer:
D) Wax

Question 12.
The excretory material in birds is
A) Urea
B) Uric Acid
C) Ammonia
D) None
Answer:
B) Uric Acid

Question 13.
Aestivation can be seen in
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Spring
D) Autumn
Answer:
A) Summer

Question 14.
Which one of the following acts as primary as well as secondary consumer in the forest ecosystem?
A) Rabbit
B) Deer
C) Man
D) Lion
Answer:
C) Man

Question 15.
Trophic level in an ecosystem represents the
A) Water level
B) Energy level
C) Salt level
D) CO, level
Answer:
B) Energy level

Question 16.
In a pond ecosystem, diatoms are
A) Decomposers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Producers
Answer:
D) Producers

Question 17.
The best example for artificial ecosystem is
A) River ecosystem
B) Spaceship
C) Pond ecosystem
D) Mangrove ecosystem
Answer:
B) Spaceship

Question 18.
The following one can trap the solar energy.
A) Deer
B) Lion
C) Rabbit
D) Green plant
Answer:
D) Green plant

Question 19.
Ecosystems can be destroyed by
A) Cyclones
B) Tsunamies
C) Volcanic erruptions
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
The dry skinned and spiny exoskel-eton animals can be seen in
A) Forest ecosystem
B) Grassland ecosystem
C) Desert ecosystem
D) Pond ecosystem
Answer:
C) Desert ecosystem

Question 21.
The forests that grow near the backwaters of the sea
A) Teak forests
B) Evergreen forests
C) Deciduous forests
D) Mangrove forests
Answer:
D) Mangrove forests

Question 22.
Coringa is the best example for the following
A) River ecosystem
B) Forest ecosystem
C) Mangrove ecosystem
D) Desert ecosystem
Answer:
C) Mangrove ecosystem

Question 23.
The word ecosystem was coined by
A) A.G. Tansley
B) Hackel
C) Aristotle
D) Robert Hooke
Answer:
A) A.G. Tansley

Question 24.
The basic unit of Nature is
A) Habitat
B) Niche
C) Trophic level
D) Ecosystem
Answer:
D) Ecosystem

Question 25.
Several food chains interlinked themselves to form a
A) Food cup
B) Food web
C) Food net
D) None
Answer:
B) Food web

Question 26.
The average rainfall in a desert is
A) Less than 50 mm
B) Less than 40 mm
C) Less than 60 mm
D) Less than 23 mm
Answer:
D) Less than 23 mm

Question 27.
Food web ends at
A) Plants
B) Herbivores
C) Carnivores
D) Top Carnivores
Answer:
D) Top Carnivores

Question 28.
Example for Succulent plant.
A) Neem
B) Banyan
C) Pistia
D) Cactus
Answer:
D) Cactus

Question 29.
The energy in an ecosystem flows in the form of
A) Light
B) Heat
C) Water vapour
D) Food chains
Answer:
D) Food chains

Question 30.
Large number of herbivores can be seen in this ecosystem.
A) Forest
B) Desert
C) Mangrove
D) Grassland
Answer:
D) Grassland

Question 31.
All the energy present at a particular level in the food chains of an ecosystem is called
A) Food web
B) Ecotone
C) Trophic level
D) Food chain
Answer:
C) Trophic level

Question 32.
‘Detritus’ is a
A) Fungus
B) Algae
C) Carnivore
D) Decomposing bacteria
Answer:
D) Decomposing bacteria

Question 33.
Choose the correct matching.
List-A — List-B
i) Lichens — a) Forest ecosystem
ii) Breeding place — b) Desert ecosystem
iii) Elephants — c) Mangrove ecosystem
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
C) i – c, ii – b, iii – c
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
Answer:
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 34.
Identify the mismatched pair.
i) Energy flow — Food chain
ii) Excretory material of desert animals — Urea
iii) Greater degree of stratification — Forest Ecosystem
A) i, iii
B) ii, iii
C) iii only
D) ii only
Answer:
D) ii only

Question 35.
This will happen if more number of rabbits are artificially introduced in a grass land ecosystem.
A) Even more number of rabbits will be seen
B) Tough competition for food among the rabbits will be seen
C) There will be no change in the ecosystem
D) Growth of the grass will not be affected
Answer:
B) Tough competition for food among the rabbits will be seen

Question 36.

Arrange the flow chart in the correct order.
A) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
Answer:
D) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

Question 37.

In the above food web, Zebra is a
A) Producer
B) Secondary consumer
C) Primary consumer
D) Tertiary consumer
Answer:
C) Primary consumer

Question 38.

In the above food chain, which acts as primary as well as secondary consumer?
A) Rabbit
B) Wild cat
C) Hound
D) Man
Answer:
D) Man

Question 39.

Who is the secondary consumer of the food chain?
A) Owl
B) Snake
C) Cat
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 40.

What ecosystem do you see in this picture?
A) River ecosystem
B) Forest ecosystem
C) Wet land ecosystem
D) Mangrove ecosystem
Answer:
D) Mangrove ecosystem

Question 41.

This flora can be seen
A) Forest ecosystem
B) Desert ecosystem
C) Grass land ecosystem
D) Mangrove ecosystem
Answer:
B) Desert ecosystem

Question 42.

This fauna is very common in this ecosystem ………….
A) Forest
B) Mangrove
C) Grass land
D) Desert
Answer:
D) Desert

Question 43.

This animal is also known
A) Desert car
B) Desert bus
C) Desert bike
D) Desert ship
Answer:
D) Desert ship

Question 44.

This animal is very common in this ecosystem,
A) Mangrove
B) Desert
C) Forest
D) Grassland
Answer:
C) Forest

Question 45.

This fauna is very common in …………
A) Forests
B) Deserts
C) Mountains
D) Ponds
Answer:
A) Forests

Question 46.
Eco friendly action – Fallen leaves, Vegetable wastes are to be
A) Burn
B) Left as it is
C) Converted into compost manure
D) Thrown in drainage
Answer:
C) Converted into compost manure

Question 47.
Match the following:
Group-A — Group-B
i. Producers — a) Microorganisms
ii. Consumers — b) Living things
iii. Decomposers — c) Animals
iv. Biotic components — d) Habitat
v. Abiotic components — e) Plants.
f) Non iiving forms
g) Biosphere
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – f
B) i – g, ii – e. iii – d, iv – b, v – a
C) i – e, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b, v – f
D) i – c, ii – e, iii – f, iv – b, v – a
Answer:
C) i – e, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b, v – f

Question 48.
Group-A — Group – B
i. Trees — a) Desert
ii. Camel — b) Carrot
iii. Fungi — c) Forest
iv. Rabbit — d) Rodents.
v. Frog — e) Decomposers
f) insects
g) Protozoans
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a, v – f
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – f
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b, v – f
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – e, iv – b, v – f
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – e, iv – b, v – f

Question 49.
Which of the following set of organisms are producers in an ecosystem?
A) Shrimp, Spirogyra
B) Mussel, Daphnia
C) Oscillatoria, Ulothrix
D) Euglena, Bacteria
Answer:
C) Oscillatoria, Ulothrix

Question 50.
In Terrestrial ecosystems – P, Q and Desert ecosystems are the different systems. Here what are P & Q?
A) Forest, grassland
B) Grassland, lake
C) Fresh water, marine water
D) Forest, marine water
Answer:
A) Forest, grassland

Question 51.
The desert animals have
A) Only morphological adaptations
B) Only physiological adaptations
C) They don’t have any adaptations
D) Both morphological and physiological adaptations
Answer:
D) Both morphological and physiological adaptations

Question 52.
This will result in plants if there are no stomata in terrestrial plants
A) No transpiration will occur
B) No exchange of gases will take place
C) There will be no affect on plants
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 53.
The forests that grow where the rivers met with sea are
A) Mangrove
B) Ever forests
C) Mid region forest
D) Grasslands
Answer:
A) Mangrove

Question 54.
The food chain starts with
A) Primary consumers
B) Secondary consumers
C) Producers
D) Tertiary consumers
Answer:
C) Producers

Question 55.
In an Ecosystem, energy transfer from one ecosystem to another. Which is the base of the production of energy in an ecosystem?
A) Plants
B) Herbivores
C) Carnivores
D) Sun
Answer:
D) Sun

Question 56.
Desert is an ecosystem. The conditions are different when we compare other terrestrial ecosystem. Rainfall is very less. Plants does not grow properly. Water scarcity will be seen here. Ani-mals can adopt different types of adaptations.
Choose the correct adaptation seen in the animals.
A) able to live with water scarcity
B) able to live in hot conditions
C) they are nocturnals
D) all the given
Answer:
D) all the given

Question 57.
Terrestrial Ecosystem : Forest :: Aquatic Ecosystem: ?
A) Desert
B) River
C) Grasslands
D) Mountain
Answer:
B) River

Question 58.
Which of the following is artificial Ecosystem?
A) Forest
B) Aquarium
C) Grasslands
D) Desert
Answer:
B) Aquarium

Question 59.
Which of the following influence more changes in an Ecosystem rapidly?
A) Strong winds
B) Earthquake
C) Fire accidents
D) Indiscriminate activities of human
Answer:
D) Indiscriminate activities of human

Question 60.
What is the reason for growing of roots deeply and spreads more in the Xerophytes?
A) To protect from the grazing of ani-mals
B) Water availability is less in sandy soil
C) It has thick and strong leaves
D) To protect from the desert hurricanes
Answer:
B) Water availability is less in sandy soil

Question 61.
Hari advised to the farmers not to use high dose of pesticides. Guess the reason.
A) To reduce the expenditure
B) To protect the insects which are harmful to the crops
C) Food may be not tasty
D) The friendly insects will die which give high yield
Answer:
D) The friendly insects will die which give high yield

Question 62.
Forest is an example for Biodiversity. If all the tigers disappear from forest, result may be
a) Increase in the population of Foxes
b) Increase in the population of Herbivores
c) Increase in the population of Carnivores
d) The number of plants can decrease
Which of the above are suitable?
A) a, b and c
B) b, c and d
C) a and c
D) b and d
Answer:
D) b and d

Question 63.
Teacher said that “it is our responsibility to conserve the mangroves.” The reason is
A) Food available for Acquatic animals
B) They were useful as nursery’s
C) They are protective areas for the endangered species
D) All the given
Answer:
D) All the given

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Biodiversity and its Conservation on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 6th Lesson Biodiversity and its Conservation with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The great Indian Bustard is found in
A) Nandyal
B) Giddalur
C) Kurnool
D) Europe
Answer:
C) Kurnool

Question 2.
Pick out the odd one.
A) Feathers
B) Hoofs
C) Crown
D) Tail
Answer:
B) Hoofs

Question 3.
Rampachodavaram belongs to the district.
A) East Godavari
B) Khammam
C) Prakasam
D) Krishna
Answer:
A) East Godavari

Question 4.
Peacock love eating of
A) Lizards
C) Snakes
B) Birds
D) Frogs
Answer:
C) Snakes

Question 5.
Extinct means
A) existence
C) found earlier
B) see in future
D) vanish forever
Answer:
D) vanish forever

Question 6.
One of the following is the endangered species.
A) Dog
B) Cat
C) Lion
D) Wolf
Answer:
C) Lion

Question 7.
Kiwi bird belongs to the country.
A) New Zealand
B) Australia
C) India
D) Africa
Answer:
A) New Zealand

Question 8.
The number of varieties of rice plants were grown in India are
A) 20,000
B) 30,000
C) 40,000
D) 50,000
Answer:
D) 50,000

Question 9.
These help in Pollination.
A) Birds
B) Snakes
C) Insects
D) Earthworms
Answer:
C) Insects

Question 10.
Government of India launched project to save tiger in the year.
A) 1971
B) 1972
C) 1973
D) 1974
Answer:
B) 1972

Question 11.
Our state animal is
A) Loris
B) Black Buck
C) Deer
D) Stag
Answer:
B) Black Buck

Question 12.
Tiger population in India at present is
A) 3800
B) 4000
C) 5000
D) 8000
Answer:
A) 3800

Question 13.
Which of the following is endemic to India?
A) Peacock
B) Red spur fowl
C) Malabar Parakeet
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
Government of India launched “Project Tiger” in the year
A) 1972
B) 1960
C) 1965
D) 1975
Answer:
A) 1972

Question 15.
Wild life Conservation Act, came into force in the year
A) 1972
B) 1960
C) 1965
D) 1975
Answer:
A) 1972

Question 16.
Mancherial, once called as
A) Tiger valley
B) Leopard valley
C) Fox valley
D) Wolf valley
Answer:
A) Tiger valley

Question 17.
How many species become extinct throughout the world per day?
A) 27
B) 29
C) 30
D) 32
Answer:
A) 27

Question 18.
We can see Gooty Tarantula are
A) Guntur and Krishna districts
B) Nandyal and Giddalur district
C) Godavari district
D) Vizag district
Answer:
B) Nandyal and Giddalur district

Question 19.
The great Indian Bustard is found in
A) Rollapadu Bird Sanctuary
B) Kolleru Bird Sanctuary
C) Srisailam National Park
D) Pulicot Sanctuary
Answer:
A) Rollapadu Bird Sanctuary

Question 20.
The following one is a most threatened bird.
A) Flying Fox
B) Greater Flamengo
C) The Indian Bustard
D) Pipet Bird
Answer:
C) The Indian Bustard

Question 21.
Planting new trees is called
A) Species
B) Deforestation
C) Desertification
D) Reforestation
Answer:
D) Reforestation

Question 22.
The species which have been lost forever are called
A) Threatened species
B) Rare species
C) Extinct species
D) Endangered species
Answer:
C) Extinct species

Question 23.
Tiger Project was launched on
A) 1 -4-1973
B) 2-6- 1970
C) 15-8-1969
D) 1-7-1972
Answer:
D) 1-7-1972

Question 24.
Peacocks fond of
A) Horse
B) Lion
C) Snakes
D) Crows
Answer:
C) Snakes

Question 25.
Red List Book is published by
A) STF
B) IUWC
C) ICRISAT
D) NIN
Answer:
B) IUWC

Question 26.
The animals which are exclusively found in a particular area only are called
A) Extinct species
B) Endemic species
C) Endangered species
D) Threatened species
Answer:
B) Endemic species

Question 27.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List – B
a) Deforestation — i) Red Data Book
b) Endangered species — ii) Cutting of forests
c) Record of animals and plants — iii) Tarantula
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 28.
Choose the mismatched pair.
i) Invasive alien species — Peacock
ii) Endemic species — Hyderabad pigeon
iii) Flora and fauna — Plants and animals
A) i, iii
B) ii, iii
C) iii only
D) i, ii
Answer:
D) i, ii

Question 29.
It is the place where conservation of species takes place
A) Park
B) Zoo
C) Forest
D) Sanctuary
Answer:
D) Sanctuary

Question 30.
To make 1 ton of paper, how many trees have to cut?
A) 15 trees
B) 17 trees
C) 20 trees
D) 25 trees
Answer:
B) 17 trees

Question 31.
This bird migrates from Siberia
A) Herons
B) Pelicons
C) Flemingo
D) Siberian cranes
Answer:
D) Siberian cranes

Question 32.
The main reason for decrease in tiger population.
A) Poaching
B) Destruction of habitats
C) Deforestation
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
If tiger has to be saved, it’s ………… should be protected.
A) Friends
B) Trees
C) Lakes
D) Food web
Answer:
D) Food web

Question 34.
11th Global Biodiversity Summit was held in
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Pune
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
D) Hyderabad

Question 35.
Birds migrate to longer distances for
A) Reproduction
B) Nestling
C) Food
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
White tiger is endemic to
A) India
B) Siberia
C) Canada
D) China
Answer:
B) Siberia

Question 37.
The success of “Tiger Project” lies in
A) Strict Anti Poaching
B) Scientific conservation methods
C) People’s support
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 38.
W.W.F. Stands for
A) Wild World Fund
B) World Wild Fund
C) World Wildlife Federation
D) None
Answer:
C) World Wildlife Federation

Question 39.
Kolleru Sanctuary is situated in
A) Guntur (dt)
B) Khammam (dt)
C) East Godavari (dt)
D) West Godavari (dt)
Answer:
D) West Godavari (dt)

Question 40.
Kangaroo is endemic to
A) New Zealand
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) Mexico
Answer:
C) Australia

Question 41.
Krishna sanctuary is located in
A) Srikakulam
B) Krishna
C) Guntur
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 42.
Choose the correct matching.
List – A — List – B
i) Jim Carbet National Park — a) Assam
ii) Kaziranga National Park — b) Karnataka
iii) Ranganathittu Sanctuary — c) Uttarakhand
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 43.
Choose the correct matching.
List – A — List – B
i) National Parks — a) 448
ii) Tiger Reserves — b) 27
iii) Sanctuaries — c) 90
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – c, ii – b, iii
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – b, iii

Question 44.
This is one of the result of decrease of forest areas.
A) Rains increases
B) Temperature decreases
C) Population decreases
D) Animals like leopards and bears intruding into our living places
Answer:
D) Animals like leopards and bears intruding into our living places

By analyzing the data and choose the correct answers for 45 and 46.
Question 45.
The condiment plant (Sugandha dravyam) from the above table is
A) Orchids species
B) Sandalwood tree
C) Cycas
D) Rauwolfia serpentina
Answer:
A) Orchids species

Question 46.
Our national bird is
A) Pelican
B) Peacock
C) Niligiri langour
D) Loris
Answer:
B) Peacock

Question 47.

Who am I?
A) Stag
B) Kashmir stag
C) Spotted Chital Deer
D) Black buck
Answer:
C) Spotted Chital Deer

Question 48.

Can you identify this endangered bird?
A) Eagle
B) Great Indian Bustard
C) Kiwi
D) Vulture
Answer:
D) Vulture

Question 49.

Can you identify this endangered animal?
A) Jungle pig
B) Jobi
C) Wild bore
D) Single horned Rhino
Answer:
D) Single horned Rhino

Question 50.

Can you identify this endangered animal?
A) Panda
B) Jungle cat
C) Loris
D) Night Rabbit
Answer:
C) Loris

Question 51.

Name the endangered species shown in the picture.
A) Gorilla
B) Gibbon
C) Macaque
D) Black Spider Monkey
Answer:
D) Black Spider Monkey

Question 52.

I am the king of the forest. But I am now endangered. Who am I ?
A) Tiger
B) African lion
C) Asiatic lion
D) None
Answer:
C) Asiatic lion

Question 53.

Can you identify me? I am an insectivorous plant
A) Cycas
B) Pistia
C) Hydrilla
D) Nepenthes
Answer:
D) Nepenthes

Question 54.

I am an endangered plant species. I have very high commercial value. Who am I?
A) Teak
B) Rosewood
C) Mahagani
D) Sandalwood
Answer:
D) Sandalwood

Question 55.
The best suited slogan for conserva-tion of Biodiversity.
i) Save the lungs of the earth
ii) Hunting the wild life
iii) Be cruel towards Biodiversity
iv) Protect Nature, it protects Us
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) iii & iv
D) i & iv
Answer:
D) i & iv

Question 56.
You got knowledge about biodiversity.
To conserve biodiversity what action will you perform?
A) Arranging of food grains to birds
B) Arranging of water to birds
C) Do not hunt to birds
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 57.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
i. Flora and Fauna — a) Rhinocerous
ii. Endemic species — b) Hyderabad Pigeon
iii. Endangered species — c) Plants and animals
iv. Extinct — d) Peacock
V. Invasive alien species — e) Vanish forever
f) Crow
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – b
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – e
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c, v – e
D) i – e, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – a
Answer:
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – b

Question 58.
Which is the migratory bird?
A) Crow
B) Flemingo
C) Eagle
D) Parrot
Answer:
B) Flemingo

Question 59.
Red data book is referred to
A) Information of endangered species of animals
B) Information of migratory birds
C) To know the information of different animals of various habitated
D) It is about disappeared species
Answer:
A) Information of endangered species of animals

Question 60.
Your friend arranged an artificial nests for birds on the terrace of his building. And also provided drinking water. What is your reaction on this activity?
A) It is not an encouraging activity
B) This is very great deed. I appreciate him
C) By this activity the birds go far away
D) I oppose this type of activities
Answer:
B) This is very great deed. I appreciate him

Question 61.
Which of the following explains what is species diversity?
A) The population of endangered species in a given region
B) The number of different species in a given region
C) The absence of any species becoming extinct in a given region
D) The number of species in that region which are not local to that region
Answer:
B) The number of different species in a given region

Question 62.
India shows.; a good number of endemic species. About 62% of world’s amphibians and 50% of lizards are endemic to ………… of India.
A) Himalayan
B) Western ghats
C) Aravali
D) Rajasthan desert
Answer:
B) Western ghats

Question 63.
Red data book consists
A) List of endangered, threatened species
B) List of common and endangered species
C) Rare and invasive species
D) Endemic species
Answer:
A) List of endangered, threatened species

Question 64.
Why is the proper management of the environment important?
A) Humans can continue to live
B) Animals would not become extinct
C) The balance in nature can be preserved
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 65.
What h the importance of the animal shown in the picture?

1) Most threatened species
2) This is called Gooty Tarantula
3) It appears in Himalayas
4) This is jerdon cursor bird.
Which of the above are correct ?
A) 1, 2 only
B) 3, 4 only
C) 1, 4 only
D) 2, 4 only
Answer:
A) 1, 2 only

Question 66.
This statement is true in case of a national park.
1) A large area hitched to conserve the wild life particularly the wild animal species in their natural habitat.
2) Place where conservation of spe-cies takes place with an objective of allowing human activities in a limited way without affecting the habitat.
A) only 1
B) both 1 and 2
C) only 2
D) none of these
Answer:
B) both 1 and 2

Question 67.
The Endemic species of Newzealand
A) Kangaroo
B) Peacock
C) Kiwi
D) Lion
Answer:
C) Kiwi

Question 68.
Identify the migratory birds given below.
A) Siberian crane
B) Pelicans
C) Flamingos
D) Black Ducks
Answer:
A) Siberian crane

Question 69.
Plants or animals species found re-stricted to a particular area of a coun-try are called Endemic species. Identify the endemic species of Andhra Pradesh from below.
A) Kiwi bird
B) Ongole breed ox
C) Kangaroo
D) Vulture
Answer:
B) Ongole breed ox

Question 70.
Vinay brought the following material into the class room.
Plastic tube, wooden spoon, water, clean cotton cloth, old newspapers, wire screen, measuring jar, plastic wrap, blender, roller.
Which of the following can we make with above material?
A) Recycled paper
B) Compressed cardboard
C) Polythene paper
D) Cotton cloth
Answer:
A) Recycled paper

Question 71.

Teacher conducted the following activity with the students. What do you understand with this activity?
A) To count the households
B) To know the location of the houses
C) To understand the biodiversity of a habitation
D) To count the trees in the village
Answer:
C) To understand the biodiversity of a habitation

Question 72.
What do you do to protect biodiversity?
A) Cuts the trees
B) Hunting the animals
C) Observe the environment regularly
D) Conduct plantation and do no harm to animals
Answer:
D) Conduct plantation and do no harm to animals

Question 73.
Once upon a time, there were more vultures appears at Sireesha’s village. Now they are not seen there. Her fa-ther said that the Vultures are going to extinct. In which book, it is to be recorded?
A) Red data book
B) Green data book
C) Black data book
D) Blue data book
Answer:
A) Red data book

Question 74.
Harika told that we have to “Recycle and use the paper”. Reason for it is:
A) To reduce the price of paper
B) To remove waste papers on the road
C) To waste the paper
D) To protect the environment by avoiding to cut the trees
Answer:
D) To protect the environment by avoiding to cut the trees

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Attaining the Age of Adolescence on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 5th Lesson Attaining the Age of Adolescence with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Adolescence age is between
A) 12 – 18 years
B) 10 – 19 years
C) 14-20 years
D) 11 – 12 years
Answer:
B) 10 – 19 years

Question 2.
Adolescents show interest to spend time with
A) infants
B) children
C) peer
D) old
Answer:
C) peer

Question 3.
Adam’s apple is present in …………
A) Larynx
B) Pharynx
C) Oesophagus
D) Mouth
Answer:
A) Larynx

Question 4.
In adolescents the reproductive organs produce
A) hormones
B) gametes
C) pollen grain
D) none
Answer:
B) gametes

Question 5.
The legal age for marriage for girls is
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) 20 years
D) 21 years
Answer:
D) 21 years

Question 6.
The glands that play an important role in development of the reproductive system
A) salivary glands
B) gastric glands
C) endocrine glands
D) liver
Answer:
C) endocrine glands

Question 7.
The character of living organisms is
A) digestion
B) respiration
C) nutrition
D) growth
Answer:
D) growth

Question 8.
The gland responsible for control emotions is
A) Testes
B) Ovaries
C) Pituitary
D) Adrenal
Answer:
C) Pituitary

Question 9.
The age between childhood and adulthood is
A) childhood
B) old age
C) adolescence
D) adulthood
Answer:
A) childhood

Question 10.
During adolescence children grow to the height of
A) minimum
B) maximum
C) normal
D) medium
Answer:
B) maximum

Question 11.
Smokers percentage in Andhra Pradesh ……….
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 68%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 68%

Question 12.
The partial growth of Larynx is ………..
A) Adam’s apple
B) Voice box
C) Voice chamber
D) Thyroid
Answer:
A) Adam’s apple

Question 13.
The number of cartilage present in Larynx ………
A) 8
B) 9
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
B) 9

Question 14.
Oil glands are ………
A) Sweat glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Lacremal glands
D) Serumenous glands
Answer:
B) Sebaceous glands

Question 15.
First menstruation in girls is termed as ……….
A) Menopause
B) Hyrarche
C) Menarche
D) None
Answer:
C) Menarche

Question 16.
Legal age for marriage in Men ………
A) 18
B) 20
C) 21
D) 23
Answer:
C) 21

Question 17.
This element is essential for the production of RBC ……….
A) Magnesium
B) Boran
C) Iron
D) Zinc
Answer:
C) Iron

Question 18.
Secondary sexual characters are seen in ………..
A) Infants
B) Adolescents
C) Middle aged persons
D) Old people
Answer:
B) Adolescents

Question 19.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List – B
i) Psychologist — a) Adolescent education
ii) Red Ribbon club — b) Adolescent boys
iii) Adam’s Apple — c) Stanley Hall
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
C) i – a, ii – c, iii – b
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 20.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
i) Adrenalin — Controls emotions
ii) Testosterone — Production of sperm cells
iii) Leutinizing Hormone — Production of ovum
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii only
D) i only
Answer:
C) iii only

Question 21.
‘Menopause’is seen in ……….
A) Adolescent girls
B) Adolescent boys
C) 50 – 55 aged women
D) 50 – 55 aged men
Answer:
C) 50 – 55 aged women

Question 22.
During adolescent voice of boys become ……..
A) Soft
B) Smooth
C) Loud
D) Harsh
Answer:
D) Harsh

Question 23.
Pimples are due to the over activity of ……….. glands.
A) Sweat
B) Sebaceous
C) Serumian
D) None
Answer:
B) Sebaceous

Question 24.
We grow maximum height during ………..
A) Childhood
B) Adolescent
C) Adult
D) None
Answer:
B) Adolescent

Question 25.
Stoppage of menstruation is called ………
A) Menarche
B) Monarchy
C) Menopause
D) Monotony
Answer:
C) Menopause

Question 26.
Adolescence is an age of stress and strain, they need the help of ……..
A) Teachers
B) Parents
C) Friends
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 27.
It is very essential for overall growth during adolescence ………..
A) Fast food
B) Fruits
C) Balanced Diet
D) None
Answer:
C) Balanced Diet

Question 28.
“Adolescence is the age of stress and strain” – this was said by ……….
A) Stanley Miller
B) Thomas Hall
C) Stanley Hall
D) Stanley Joseph
Answer:
C) Stanley Hall

Question 29.
This hormone is responsible for changes in girls during adolescence ……
A) Adrenalin
B) Estrogen
C) Testosteron
D) LH
Answer:
B) Estrogen

Question 30.
Menstruation in women is a …….
A) Sin
B) Superstition
C) Untouchable thing
D) Natural phenomenon
Answer:
D) Natural phenomenon

Observe the following table.

Age in years	% of fall height in boys	% of full height in girls
13	88	95
14	92	98
15	95	99
16	98	99.5
17	99	100
18	100	100
19	100	100

Question 31.
The growth in height nearly stopped in boys is at the age of
A) 16 years
B) 17 years
C) 18 years
D) 19 years
Answer:
B) 17 years

Question 32.
Which period of age is the faster growing period for girls?
A) 13 to 14 years
B) 14 to 15 years
C) 15 to 16 years
D) 16 to 17 years
Answer:
B) 14 to 15 years

Question 33.
The growth rate is almost same in boys and girls is at the age of
A) 13 to 14 years for boys and girls.
B) 13 to 14 years for girls and 14 to 15 years for boys.
C) 14 to 15 years for girls and 15 to 16 years for boys.
D) 18 to 19 years for boys and girls.
Answer:
C) 14 to 15 years for girls and 15 to 16 years for boys.

Read the information and choose the correct answer for 34 & 35.
Ductless glands are called as endocrine glands. Endocrine glands secretes chemical substances known as hormones. Pituitary, Adrenal, Testes and Ovaries are important endocrine glands. Pituitary gland stimulates other endocrine glands. Adrenalin is secreted by adrenal gland. It controls emotions. Testes releases the hormone Testosterone. It helps in the releasing of sperms, developing secondary sexual characteristics in males. Oestrogen hormone is secreted by ovaries. It helps in the releasing of ova, menstruation and developing
secondary sexual characters in females.

Question 34.
The hormone responsible for the production of spermatozoa is
A) Adrenalin
B) Testosterone
C) Oestrogen
D) Alone
Answer:
A) Adrenalin

Question 35.
Master of endocrine glands is
A) Pituitary
B) Adrenal gland
C) Testes
D) Ovaries
Answer:
B) Adrenal gland

Question 36.
This is the symbol of ………

A) NPEGEL
B) Red Ribbon Club
C) NCC
D) Scout
Answer:
B) Red Ribbon Club

Question 37.
Name the endocrine gland that is present on kidney is called ……….

A) Thyroid
B) Adrenalin
C) Peneal body
D) Ovary
Answer:
B) Adrenalin

Question 38.

Write the name of the labelled area which acts as endocrine gland ………
A) Thymus
B) Thyroid
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Answer:
C) Pancreas

Question 39.
Endocrine gland that is present near the heart ………
A) Thymus
B) Adrenalin
C) Pancreas
D) Pituitary
Answer:
A) Thymus

Question 40.

Name the labelled part shown in the adolescent boy.
A) Thyroid
B) Adam’s apple
C) Thorax
D) None
Answer:
B) Adam’s apple

Question 41.
As a responsible student of adolescent period you should practice
A) Good habits
B) Suitable life skills
C) Respect to mankind
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Good habits

Question 42.
The best suited slogan to prevent early marriages.
A) Small girl like light, don’t make it dark
B) Please encourage child marriage.
C) Early marriages helpful the country
D) Strengthen children are born with early marriages
Answer:
A) Small girl like light, don’t make it dark

Question 43.
Red ribbon club create awareness among the people for this disease
A) AIDS
B) Dengue
C) Cancer
D) Malaria
Answer:
A) AIDS

Question 44.
As a student having understanding on changes in adolescence I will
A) agree physical changes
B) develop self confidence
C) maintain personal hygiene
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 45.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group -B
i. Testes — a) Ova
ii. Endocrine gland — b) Estrogen
iii. Menarche — c) Pituitary gland
iv. Female hormone — d) Sperm
v. Ovaries — e) First menstruation
vi. Male hormone — f) Testosterone
— g) Stoppage of menstruation
A) i – d, ii – c, iii – e, iv – b, v – a, vi – f
B) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – b, v – f, vi – a
C) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – e, vi – f
D) i – f, ii – a, iii – b, iv – e, v – c, vi – d
Answer:
A) i – d, ii – c, iii – e, iv – b, v – a, vi – f

Question 46.
Which age group is known as adolescence period?
A) 8-13
B) 16 – 21
C) 13-19
D) 5 -10
Answer:
C) 13-19

Question 47.
The secretions of endocrine glands
A) Enzymes
B) Blood
C) Hormones
D) Saliva
Answer:
C) Hormones

Question 48.
Jaggery is a rich source of
A) Protein
B) Sodium
C) Fat
D) Iron
Answer:
D) Iron

Question 49.
These characters helps us to know adolescence in boys
A) Pimples appears on the face
B) Appears moustache on the face
C) Adam’s apple appears
D) Above said all characters
Answer:
D) Above said all characters

Question 50.
The secretions of this gland controls emotions
A) Pancreas
B) Testes
C) Ovaries
D) Adrenal
Answer:
D) Adrenal

Question 51.
Which of the following is true about adolescence?
A) Adam’s apple appear more prominent in boys.
B) Shoulders grow wider in girls than boys.
C) There are no voice changes in boys compared to girls.
D) Muscles grow more prominently in girls than in boys.
Answer:
A) Adam’s apple appear more prominent in boys.

Question 52.
Incorrect sentence about sweat and pimples in adolescents.
A) It appears in adolescent age.
B) Sweat and sebaceous glands are very active.
C) Sometimes lead to infection.
D) Pimples are common skin disease.
Answer:
D) Pimples are common skin disease.

Question 53.
Raju’s voice is changed now. Find out which of the following stages he is in.
A) Adolescence
B) Early – childhood
C) Adult
D) Infant
Answer:
A) Adolescence

Question 54.
Stanley Hall stated that
A) Adolescence is the age of stress and strain
B) Adolescence is the age of joy
C) Adolescence is not the age of distress
D) Adolescence is the age of relax
Answer:
A) Adolescence is the age of stress and strain

Question 55.
Find the wrong statements.
P. Secondary sexual characters are seen only in males
Q. Hormones control over the secondary sexual characters
R. The secretions of endocrine glands are called medicines
S. Adolescence is the period of imbalanced emotions
A) P and Q
B) R and S
C) P and R
D) Q and S
Answer:
C) P and R

Question 56.
Asa responsible student of adolescent period you should practice
A) Good habits
B) Suitable life skills
C) Respect to mankind
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 57.
Read the following statements and identify the changes occurred in Adolescence.
i) More interest to engage with friends than parents
ii) Voice changes in females
iii) Appears mustaches in males
iv) Attraction with opposite sex.
A) i, ii
B) i, ii , iii
C) i, iii, iv
D) ii, iv
Answer:
C) i, iii, iv

Question 58.
Match the following.
A — B
1. Testis — a) Estrogen
2. Pituitary gland — b) Sperms
3. Ovaries — c) Main gland
4. Adrenal gland — d) Adrenalin
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – d
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d

Question 59.
At the age of 13 years a boy can grow maximum percentage of his actual height
A) 88
B) 92
C) 95
D) 98
Answer:
A) 88

Question 60.
Match the following:
i) Mammary glands — a)Release of Sperms
ii) Estrogen — b) Production of Milk
iii) Testosteron — c) Controls emotions
iv) Adrenalin — d) Release of Ovum
A) i) – b, ii) – c, iii) – a, iv) – d
B) i) – b, ii) – d, iii) – a, iv) – c
C) i) – c, ii) – b, iii) – d, iv) – a
D) i) – d, ii) – c, iii) – a, iv) – b
Answer:
B) i) – b, ii) – d, iii) – a, iv) – c.

Question 61.
Read the following statements related to Hormones
a) Reason for changes in the body
b) Start and stoppage of menstrual cycle
c) Controls sugar levels
d) Controls water
A) a, b, c
B) b, c, d
C) a, c, d
D) All the given
Answer:
D) All the given

Question 62.
Testes : Sperms :: Ovary : ?
A) Ovum
B) Embryo
C) Zygote
D) Fallopian tube
Answer:
A) Ovum

Question 63.
What is the reason for getting pimples on the faces of both boys and girls in the Adolescence?
A) The secretions of sebaceous glands are very active at this stage
B) Hormones does not released
C) Uncleanliness
D) Heredity
Answer:
A) The secretions of sebaceous glands are very active at this stage

Question 64.
Estrogen : Milk :: Testosterone : ?
A) Release of sperms
B) Increase of breast
C) Anger
D) Pimples
Answer:
A) Release of sperms

Question 65.
Ganesh entered into the Adolescence stage. He looks very weak. Doctor advised him to take the food like leafy vegetables, jaggery and citrus family fruits which contains more Iron. What is the reason?
A) Bones are not strong
B) Does not have knowledge
C) Percentage of blood is very low
D) Muscles are very smooth
Answer:
C) Percentage of blood is very low

(66-67) Look at the picture and answer the questions.

Question 66.
What is the name of the organ?
A) Adam’s Apple
B) Sebaceous gland
C) Ovary
D) Adrenal gland
Answer:
A) Adam’s Apple

Question 67.
What changes do we see in adolescence with this organ?
A) Boys grow fast
B) Voice becomes harsh
C) Get pimples
D) Good thoughts
Answer:
B) Voice becomes harsh

Question 68.
Read the following sentences about your reaching the adolescence stage,
a) Do not want to listen to parent’s suggestions
b) Likes to stay with friends
c) Prefers to spend more time before the mirror
d) Wants to attract others
Which of the above are correct?
A) a, b, c
B) a, b, c, d
C) a, c, d
D) b, c, d
Answer:
B) a, b, c, d

Question 69.
Read the following slogans.
a) Take vaccines — Keep diseases far
b) Early marriages — Reasons for ill health
c) After 10th class No marriage — 11th class for you
d) Protect environment — Keep good health
In the above slogans, which are useful to give propaganda on child marriages?
A) a, b
B) b, c
C) c, d
D) a, d
Answer:
B) b, c

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Reproduction in Animals on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
One of the following is the viviparous animal
A) Frog
B) Sparrow
C) Leopard
D) Crow
Answer:
C) Leopard

Question 2.
Epidermal hair is seen in this animal
A) Frog
B) Snake
C) Crow
D) Cat
Answer:
D) Cat

Question 3.
Asexual reproduction is seen in the following
A) Hydra
B) Algae
C) Fungi
D) None
Answer:
A) Hydra

Question 4.
Binary Fission is seen in
A) Earth worm
B) Amoeba
C) Hydra
D) Monkey
Answer:
B) Amoeba

Question 5.
Female flower do not have this part
A) Ovary
B) Style
C) Stigma
D) Stamen
Answer:
D) Stamen

Question 6.
Male reproductive system consists of
A) Fallopian tube
B) Testes
C) Uterus
D) Ovary
Answer:
B) Testes

Question 7.
Embryo develops in this part
A) Testes
B) Fallopian tube
C) Uterus
D) None
Answer:
C) Uterus

Question 8.
In this animal fertilization takes place externally
A) Frog
B) Hen
C) Deer
D) Crow
Answer:
A) Frog

Question 9.
The larva of frog is called
A) Caterpillar
B) Tadpole
C) Meggot
D) Wriggler
Answer:
B) Tadpole

Question 10.
Pollen grains are produced by
A) Male flower
B) Female flower
C) Calyx
D) Corolla
Answer:
A) Male flower

Question 11.
Test tube babies are formed through
A) Test tubes
B) Testing kits
C) In Vitro Fertilization
D) External fertilization
Answer:
C) In Vitro Fertilization

Question 12.
Pregnancy period in human beings is
A) 150 days
B) 240 days
C) 270 – 280 days
D) 200 days
Answer:
C) 270 – 280 days

Question 13.
Pick out the odd one out.
A) Fish
C) Lizard
B) Frog
D) Camel
Answer:
D) Camel

Question 14.
Which of the following Oviparous?
A) Deer
C) Leopard
B) Tiger
D) Crow
Answer:
D) Crow

Question 15.
The basic life process, which is essential for the continuation of the species
A) Respiration
B) Excretion
C) Circulation
D) Reproduction
Answer:
D) Reproduction

Question 16.
The scientist who performed cloning for the first time is ………..
A) Flemming
B) Jenner
C) Watson
D) Ian Wiimut
Answer:
D) Ian Wiimut

Question 17.
The transformation of larva into adult through drastic changes is called …..
A) Meosis
B) Mitasis
C) Metamorphosis
D) None
Answer:
C) Metamorphosis

Question 18.
Reproduction without release of male and female gametes Is called ……..
A) Asexual
B) Sexual
C) Budding
D) Binary fission
Answer:
A) Asexual

Question 19.
Animals having both male and female reproductive organs are called …….
A) Unisexual animal
B) Bisexual animal
C) Hermaphrodite
D) None
Answer:
B) Bisexual animal

Question 20.
The mode of asexual reproduction in yeast cells …….
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Conjugation
D) Fragmentation
Answer:
B) Budding

Question 21.
Internal fertilization takes place in
A) Fish
B) Amoeba
C) Salamander
D) Man
Answer:
D) Man

Question 22.
The larva of mosquito ……
A) Tadpole
B) Wriggler
C) Maggot
D) Nymph
Answer:
B) Wriggler

Question 23.
The larva of housefly ……..
A) Tadpole
B) Maggot
C) Wriggler
D) Nymph
Answer:
B) Maggot

Question 24.
The respiratory organs in Tadpole larva …….
A) Lungs
B) Gills
C) Skin
D) None
Answer:
B) Gills

Question 25.
The function of mitochondria in sperm
A) Providing energy for it’s movements
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Digestion
Answer:
A) Providing energy for it’s movements

Question 26.
Development of embryo takes place in ………….
A) Oviducts
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Vagina
D) Uterus
Answer:
D) Uterus

Question 27.
Zygote is in this condition
A) Haploid
B) Diploid
C) Triploid
D) Tetraploid
Answer:
B) Diploid

Question 28.
This is an example for marsupials
A) Platipus
B) Echidna
C) Kiwi
D) Kangaroo
Answer:
D) Kangaroo

Question 29.
Choose the correct matching.
List – A — List – B
i) Budding — a) Amoeba
ii) Binary fission — b) Paramecium
iii) Conjugation — c) Hydra
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
B) i – a, ii – b, Iii – c
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – a, ii – c, iii – b
Answer:
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 30.
Identify the mismatched pair ………
i) Dolly – Frog
ii) Test tube baby – IVF
iii) Tadpole – Sheep
A) ii only
B) i, iii
C) i only
D) i, ii, iii
Answer:
B) i, iii

Question 31.
This will happen if all the organisms stop the process of reproduction.
i) There will be no affect for the organisms.
ii) Living organisms would not survive long.
iii) Some species will increase their numbers.
iv) All species will disappear
A) i and ii only
B) iii and iv only
C) ii and iv only
D) ii, iii and iv only
Answer:
C) ii and iv only

Question 32.
Observe the following diagram and choose the correct answer.

A) Nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei in 4th diagram.
B) Two daughter amoebae are formed in 5th diagram.
C) Constriction in centre of nucleus is found in 2nd diagram.
D) The constriction still deepens and ready to cut into two parts in 6th diagram.
Answer:
C) Constriction in centre of nucleus is found in 2nd diagram.

Question 33.
Observe the table and answer the following question.

Sl.No	organism	Type of fertilisation	Habitat
1.	Fish	External fertilisation	Water
2.	Cat	internal fertilisation	Land
3.	Frog	External fertilisation	Land and Water
4.	Human being	internal fertilisation	Land

Which organism could be called as amphibian?
A) Fish
B) Cat
C) Frog
D) Human being
Answer:
C) Frog

Question 34.

What is the process going on in Amoeba?
A) Excretion
B) Digestion
C) Binary fission
D) None
Answer:
C) Binary fission

Question 35.

Identify this animal
A) Paramecium
B) Euglena
C) Amoeba
D) Hydra
Answer:
D) Hydra

Question 36.

What is the process going on in the picture?
A) Digestion
B) Excretion
C) Binary fission
D) Fertilization
Answer:
D) Fertilization

Question 37.

What is the use of the labelled
A) Providing energy
B) Movements
C) Feeding
D) Excretion
Answer:
B) Movements

Question 38.

What is the life process, going on in Hydra?
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Conjugation
D) Fragmentation
Answer:
B) Budding

Question 39.

This diagram shows / discripts
A) Binary fission in Euglena
B) Budding in Hydra
C) Budding in yeast
D) Binary fission in chlamydomonas
Answer:
B) Budding in Hydra

Question 40.
What happen if a couple give birth to more than two babies?
i) Increasing in population
ii) Increasing in income
iii) Increasing in food problems
iv) Increasing in social and economic problems
A) i, ii and iii
B) ii, iii and iv
C) i, iii and iv
D) All of them
Answer:
C) i, iii and iv

Question 41.
Match the following.
Group – A — Group – B
i. Viviparous — a) Earthworm
ii. Oviparous — b) Zygote
iii. Invitro fertilization — c) Tadpole
iv. Asexual reproduction — d) Elephant
V. Sexual reproduction — e) Hen
vi. Hermaphrodite — f) Test tube baby
— g) Hydra
— h) The clone
A) i – d, ii – e, iii – f, iv – g, v – b, vi – a
B) i – e, ii – d, iii – g, iv – f, v – a, vi – b
C) i – a, ii – b, iii – g, iv – f, v – e, vi – d
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – f, iv – g, v – d, vi – e
Answer:
A) i – d, ii – e, iii – f, iv – g, v – b, vi – a

Question 42.

Identify the showing part in the picture.
A) Vasdeference
B) Testes
C) Penis
D) Uterus
Answer:
A) Vasdeference

Question 43.
How many daughter individuals are formed after binary fission in amoeba?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 4
D) More than 4
Answer:
B) Only 2

Question 44.
Which of the following can only reproduce inside the living cells of an organism?
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Fungus
D) Protozoa
Answer:
A) Virus

Question 45.
Identify the correct sequence of developmental stages.
A) Embryo → Zygote → Foetus → Fertilization
B) Fertilization → Zygote → Foetus → Embryo
C) Fertilization → Zygote →Embryo → Foetus
D) Zygote → Embryo → Foetus → Fertilization
Answer:
C) Fertilization → Zygote → Embryo → Foetus

Question 46.
Which of the following is necessary for internal fertilisation to occur but NOT necessary for external fertilisation?
A) Zygote is developed outside and then transferred inside the female body.
B) The sperm should reach inside the body of the female.
C) The ova should be released from the ovary.
D) The sperms have to be released in a water body like a pond.
Answer:
B) The sperm should reach inside the body of the female.

Question 47.
The nucleus of an organism X is inserted into an empty egg cell of an organism Y (devoid of nucleus) and allowed to develop in It till the foetus is fully formed. Which of the following is MOST likely to happen as a result?
A) It will produce an organism with characteristics of both X and Y.
B) It will produce a new type of organism different from both X and Y.
C) It will produce the exact copy of organism X.
D) It will produce the exact copy of organism Y.
Answer:
C) It will produce the exact copy of organism X.

Question 48.
External fertilization occurs in
A) Fish, Frog
B) Crow, Hen
C) Shebuffalo, Cow
D) Snake, Squirrel
Answer:
A) Fish, Frog

Question 49.
Find out the Oviparous in the following
1) Shebuffalo
2) Parrot
3) Fish
4) Cow
5) Frog
6) Deer
A) 1, 4, 6
B) 1, 2, 6
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 5, 2, 1
Answer:
C) 2, 3, 5

Question 50.
The part which is absent in Male flower?
A) Calyx
B) Corolla
C) Stamen
D) Style
Answer:
D) Style

Question 51.
Choose the incorrect pair.
A) Hydra – Binary fission
B) Human – Internal fertilisation
C) Fish – External fertilisation
D) Birds – Internal fertilisation
Answer:
A) Hydra – Binary fission

Question 52.
The period from zygote to fully developed foetus in humans
A) 120 – 180 days
B) 270 – 280 days
C) 310 – 320 days
D) 180 – 220 days
Answer:
B) 270 – 280 days

Question 53.
In this mode of reproduction gametes are not formed, one example is
A) sexual-man
B) asexual-hydra
C) sexual-frog
D) sexual-fowl
Answer:
B) asexual-hydra

Question 54.
The zygote divides repeatedly to develop
A) Off-spring
B) Embryo
C) Foetus
D) Egg
Answer:
B) Embryo

Question 55.
The body parts that used for locomotion in Amoeba are
A) Contractile Vacuole
B) Cell membrane
C) Nucleus
D) seudopodia
Answer:
D) seudopodia

Question 56.
Identify the animals which undergoes external fertilisation.
i) Frog
ii) Fish
iii) Snake
iv) Dog
A) i, ii
B) i, iv
C) i, ii, iv
D) iii only
Answer:
A) i, ii

Question 57.
Which of these is useful for locomotion of sperm cell?
A) Head
B) Throat
C) Tail
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Tail

Question 58.
The life process happening in the above picture is

A) Budding
B) Binary fission
C) Conjugation
D) Regeneration
Answer:
B) Binary fission

Question 59.
Which of the below said organs not related to female reproductive system?
A) Fallopian tubes
B) Uterus
C) Ovary
D) Seminal duct
Answer:
D) Seminal duct

Question 60.
The stage of embryo develops fully and all other parts are distinct is called
A) Foetus
B) Embryo
C) Zygote
D) Baby
Answer:
A) Foetus

Question 61.
“Pseudopodia” are the locomotory organs in
A) Amoeba
B) Paramecium
C) Bacteria
D) Spirogyra
Answer:
A) Amoeba

Question 62.
Which questions are suitable to clarify your doubts about metamorphosis?
a) Is metamorphosis take place in animal lives in water?
b) What are the benefits of metamorphosis?
c) Is metamorphosis take place if a frog eggs kept in a dry bottle?
d) Why frog has tail?
A) a, b, c
B) b, c
C) c, d
D) d
Answer:
A) a, b, c

Question 63.
Bhavana observed an animal in the ZOO. She guessed it must be the ovipa-rous animal. What will be the reason?
a) It has feathers on its wings
b) No external ears appear
c) Seen hair on the skin
d) It has tail
Which of the above is suitable reasons?
A) a and c
B) b and d
C) d only
D) a and b
Answer:
D) a and b

(64-65) Look at the picture. Answer the Questions.

Question 64.
Which system does the picture belong?
A) Female reproductive system
B) Male reproductive system
C) Nervous system
D) Excretory system
Answer:
B) Male reproductive system

Question 65.
Identify the parts A, B, C in order.
A) Head, Neck, tail
B) Head, Tail, Neck
C) Tail, Neck, Head
D) Neck, Tail, Head
Answer:
A) Head, Neck, tail

Question 66.
Read the following parts of Spermatozoa.
a) Head
b) Mitochondria
c) Tail
d) Neck
Identify the parts helpful for locomotion.
A) a and c
B) b and c
C) a and b
D) b and d
Answer:
A) a and c

Question 67.
The picture represents

A) Binary fission in Amoeba
B) Budding in Hydra
C) Vegetative propagation in plants
D) Human reproductive system
Answer:
B) Budding in Hydra

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Story of Microorganisms 1 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 3rd Lesson Story of Microorganisms 1 with Answers

Question 1.
Lactobacillus present in
A) Curd
B) Milk
C) Butter
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Curd

Question 2.
One of the following added to dough for preparing bread
A) Agar
B) Clostridium
C) Yeast
D) Bacillus
Answer:
C) Yeast

Question 3.
…………. gas is released during fermentation.
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Sulphur
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Carbon dioxide

Question 4.
Sugars are converted into ……….. by yeast
A) Proteins
B) Fats
C) Alcohol
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Alcohol

Question 5.
One of the following helps in curing the disease.
A) Antibiotics
B) Pain killers
C) Nutrients
D) Antigens
Answer:
A) Antibiotics

Question 6.
Immediate effect on disease are
A) Tablets
B) Syrups
C) Injections
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 7.
The word vaccine comes from “vaca” which means
A) Cat
B) Horse
C) Cow
D) Cattle
Answer:
C) Cow

Question 8.
About 78% of air around us is
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
C) Carbon

Question 9.
Citrus canker of lemon is caused by
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Protozoa
D) Insects
Answer:
B) Bacteria

Question 10.
Food poisoning is due to consumption of
A) Fresh fruits
B) Spoiled food
C) Raw food
D) Bad air
Answer:
B) Spoiled food

Question 11.
Pencillin was discovered in this year
A) 1929
B) 1932
C) 1917
D) 1940
Answer:
A) 1929

Question 12.
Dr. Y. Subba Rao discovered the following.
A) Vaccine
B) Ampicillin
C) Tetracycline
D) B.C.G
Answer:
C) Tetracycline

Question 13.
Rabies vaccine was discovered by
A) Jenner
B) Pasteur
C) Leeuwenhoek
D) Robert Hooke
Answer:
B) Pasteur

Question 14.
Small pox virus was discovered by
A) Pasteur
B) Flemming
C) Jenner
D) Jonas Salk
Answer:
C) Jenner

Question 15.
The vaccine that prevents Tuberculosis is
A) MMR
B) DPT
C) B.C.G
D) E.C.G
Answer:
C) B.C.G

Question 16.
Folic Acid discovery is associated with the following scientists
A) Jenner
B) Pasteur
C) Y. Subba Rao
D) Flemming
Answer:
C) Y. Subba Rao

Question 17.
Sugars are converted into alcohols by
A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Yeast
D) Algae
Answer:
C) Yeast

Question 18.
Dengue and Chikungunya are spread by
A) Air
B) Water
C) Food
D) Mosquitoes
Answer:
D) Mosquitoes

Question 19.
Sir Ronald Ross was awarded with Nobel Prize in the year
A) 1901
B) 1903
C) 1904
D) 1902
Answer:
D) 1902

Question 20.
Tikka disease can be seen in
A) Sugarcane
B) Groundnut
C) Paddy
D) Sorghum
Answer:
B) Groundnut

Question 21.
Food poisoning is due to this bacteria
A) Typhe
B) E-coli
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Lactobacillus
Answer:
C) Clostridium botulinum

Question 22.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List – B
i) Polio — a) B.C.G
ii) T.B — b) D.P.T
iii) Pertusis — c) Oral polio vaccine
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
B) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 23.
Choose the mismatched pair from the following.
i) Varticella – Measles
ii) MMR – Mumps
iii) Tet – vac – Tetanus
A) ii, iii
B) iii only
C) i, ii
D) i only
Answer:
D) i only

Question 24.
This is also known as “Triple Antigen”
A) BCG
B) ECG
C) Tet-vac
D) DPT
Answer:
D) DPT

Question 25.
Vaccine for Polio was discovered by
A) Flemming
B) Jonas Salk
C) Y. Subba Rao
D) Jenner
Answer:
B) Jonas Salk

Question 26.
The word ‘Vaca’ is derived from vaccine, which means
A) Disease
B) Sheep
C) Cow
D) Medicine
Answer:
C) Cow

Question 27.
Microorganisms which cause diseases are called
A) Vectors
B) Pathogens
C) Vaccines
D) Insects
Answer:
B) Pathogens

Question 28.
Milk is preserved by a method called
A) Sterilization
B) Pasteurization
C) Mineralization
D) None
Answer:
B) Pasteurization

Question 29.
Plasmodium causes this disease
A) AIDS
B) Typhoid
C) Malaria
D) Hepatitis
Answer:
C) Malaria

Question 30.
The disease of food poisoning is called
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Pertusis
D) Mumps
Answer:
A) Botulism

Question 31.
This disease is completely eradicated from the world
A) AIDS
B) Malaria
C) Chicken pox
D) Measles
Answer:
D) Measles

Question 32.
Dr. Ronald Ross discovered that female mosquito was the carrier for plasmodium. This discovery was made in this city
A) Kolkata
B) Mumbai
C) Secunderabad
D) Goa
Answer:
C) Secunderabad

Question 33.
We should spray the following in the stagnated water pools to prevent the mosquito population?
A) Coconut oil
B) Kerosene
C) Olive oil
D) Water
Answer:
B) Kerosene

Question 34.
Housefly acts as carrier for
A) Typhoid
B) Cholera
C) Amoebiasis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
Dr. Edward Jenner discovered Smallpox vaccine in this year
A) 1780
B) 1785
C) 1789
D) 1796
Answer:
D) 1796

Question 36.
Ritwik added some yeast powder to sugar solution and kept it for a day. The next day he will observe that
A) The solution tastes salty and has no smell
B) The solution turns into bluish black
C) The solution remains unchanged
D) The solution smells like alcohol and bubbles are seen on top
Answer:
D) The solution smells like alcohol and bubbles are seen on top

Question 37.
Bacteria present in curd is
A) Lactobacillus
B) Microbacterium tuberculosis
C) Vibrio comma
D) Salmonella
Answer:
A) Lactobacillus

Question 38.
The bacterium that is used as pesticide
A) E-coil
B) Lactobacillus
C) Bacillus thuringiensis
D) Stephalococus
Answer:
C) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 39.
Identify the microorganism present in the picture.

A) Anabina
B) Nostoc
C) E – coli
D) Yeast
Answer:
B) Nostoc

Question 40.
Identify the microorganism

A) Anabina
C) E – coli
B) Nostoc
D) Yeast
Answer:
A) Anabina

Question 41.
The sheep in this picture, are suffering from

A) Food and mouth disease
B) Anthrax
C) Encephalitis
D) None
Answer:
B) Anthrax

Question 42.
I am used as antibiotic. Who am I?

A) Yeast
C) Spirulina
B) E – coli
D) Pencillin
Answer:
D) Pencillin

Question 43.

Name the labelled parts of the yeast ………
A) Daughter cells
B) Buds
C) Micro yeast
D) None
Answer:
B) Buds

Question 44.

Name the labelled parts of the picture
A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Nodules
D) None
Answer:
C) Nodules

Question 45.
Who saved the wine industry in France?
A) Jenner
B) Pasteur
C) Flemming
D) Y. Subba Rao
Answer:
B) Pasteur

Question 46.
“The germ theory of diseases” was proposed by
A) Jenner
B) Flemming
C) Jonas Salk
D) Pasteur
Answer:
D) Pasteur

Question 47.
The scientist associated with Anthrax vaccine
A) Jenner
B) Flemming
C) Y. Subba Rao
D) Pasteur
Answer:
D) Pasteur

Question 48.
Name the scientist who saved the silk industry in Germany and France …..
A) Flemming
B) Jenner
C) Robert Hooke
D) Pasteur
Answer:
D) Pasteur

Question 49.
Name the scientist, who experimen-tally proved that microorganisms could be killed by boiling in 1768
A) Pasteur
B) Jenner
C) Lazzaro Spallanzani
D) Flemming
Answer:
C) Lazzaro Spallanzani

Question 50.
Examples for Antibiotics
A) Tetracycline
B) Streptomycin
C) Erythromycin
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 51.
Tetracycline cures
A) Typhoid
B) Tuberculosis
C) Plague
D) AM the above
Answer:
D) AM the above

Question 52.
Oral polio vaccine was discovered by
A) Dr. Albert Sabin
B) Dr. Jonas Salk
C) Jenner
D) Flemming
Answer:
A) Dr. Albert Sabin

Question 53.
Match the following
Group – A — Group – B
i. Flemming — a) Anthrax vaccine
ii. Ross — b) First antibiotic
iii. Jonas salk — c) Smallpox
iv. Jenner — d) Anopheles
v. Pasteur — e) Aureomycin
f) Polio vaccine
A) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – f, v – b
B) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c, v – f
C) i – a, ii – c, iii – f, iv – d, v – b
D) i – b, ii – d, iii – f, iv – c, v – a
Answer:
D) i – b, ii – d, iii – f, iv – c, v – a

Question 54.
The disease septicemia is caused by
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoan
D) Fungi
Answer:
A) Bacteria

Question 55.
Name the bacterium that exhibits symbiotic relation with Leguminous plants
A) Lactobacillus
B) Bacillus Thuringeinsis
C) Xanthomonas
D) RMzobium
Answer:
D) RMzobium

Question 56.
What will happen if we use vaccines containing strong or potent disease causing microorganisms?
A) There are high chances of getting infected with the disease.
B) More antibodies will be developed and we will be protected against the disease.
C) More useful microorganisms will grow in the intestine.
D) All the bacteria – both useful and harmful will be destroyed in the body.
Answer:
A) There are high chances of getting infected with the disease.

Question 57.
Ambika has a milk factory, they carry out pasteurisation of milk. During this process, milk is heated upto 70 degrees C for 15 to 30 seconds and then stored. This prevents growth of most micro-organisms.
Which of the following activities also uses heat for controlling the growth of microbes
A) Raju is a businessman and he packs dry fruits in a air tight container for a long journey.
B) Radha is a chef and makes jams by adding sugar to cooked fruit.
C) David is a doctor and he sterilises the materials for surgery in his sterilisation chamber.
D) Salim is a farmer and sprays pesticides on his crops.
Answer:
C) David is a doctor and he sterilises the materials for surgery in his sterilisation chamber.

Question 58.
Which of the following may be caused by consumption of antibiotics?
A) Food poisoning can occur
B) Useful microorganisms in the intestine may be killed
C) Conversion of sugar into alcohol by fermentation
D) Development of antibodies against disease causing microbes
Answer:
B) Useful microorganisms in the intestine may be killed

Question 59.
Which of the following diseases are affected with virus?
A) Typhoid, Diarrhoea
B) Malaria, Amoebiasis
C) Conjunctivitis, Chicken pox
D) Heart Diseases
Answer:
C) Conjunctivitis, Chicken pox

Question 60.
Match the following.
1) Red rot disease — a) Sheep
2) Anthrax — b) Hen
3) Birdflu — c) Sugarcane
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 61.
Rabies disease is caused by
A) The mosquito bite
B) The bite of dog
C) Injuries
D) Contaminated food
Answer:
B) The bite of dog

Question 62.
Study the following statements and find out which is the correct one.
I) We take vaccine when we are suffering from fever
II) To prevent polio we must take antibiotic
A) I – is wrong, II – is correct
B) I and II are correct
C) Both are wrong
D) I – is correct and II – is wrong
Answer:
C) Both are wrong

Question 63.
The foot of buffalo effected with a disease, it can’t walk properly. What disease it would be?
A) Anthrax
B) Small pox
C) Rabies
D) Hoof and mouth
Answer:
D) Hoof and mouth

Question 64.
Choose the suitable question for a doctor to know about the uses of vaccines in our body.
A) We will be healthy by taking vaccine?
B) Is vaccines are more useful than antibiotics?
C) How vaccines are work in our body?
D) Are we effect by the fever by taking vaccine?
Answer:
C) How vaccines are work in our body?

Question 65.
Which of the following would be followed by you to keep away from the diseases?
A) I drink boiled water
B) I take food when it is hot
C) I keep my premises clean
D) All above
Answer:
D) All above

Question 66.
Which microorganism are used in preparation of cake in Bakery?
A) Yeast
B) Lactobacillus
C) Virus
D) Rhizopus
Answer:
A) Yeast

Question 67.
To protect your health which precautions would be taken
A) Take preserved drinking water in the bottles
B) Take boiled water
C) Use tap water for drinking
D) Drink well water.
Answer:
B) Take boiled water

Question 68.
Which of the following diseases mainly spreads through air?
A) Tuberculosis
B) AIDS
C) Typhoid
D) Malaria
Answer:
A) Tuberculosis

Question 69.
Disease-causing microorganisms are killed directly by consuming
A) Antiseptics
B) Antibiotics
C) Vitamin supplements
D) Curd
Answer:
B) Antibiotics

Question 70.
Find the mosaic disease from the following picture.

Answer:
D)

Question 71.
What will happen if you add yeast to dough in the following?
1) Decrease in temperature
2) An increase in the volume of substance
3) An increase in the amount of released water by yeast cells
4) The release of CO₂ gas
A) 1,2 only
B) 2, 3 only
C) 2, 4 only
D) 4 only
Answer:
C) 2, 4 only

Question 72.
An example of a microorganism that is a friend of farmer
A) Rhizobium
B) Lactobacillus
C) Penicillin
D) Amoeba
Answer:
A) Rhizobium

Question 73.
The first vaccine discovered by this scientist in the year
A) Edward Jenner-1696
B) Ronald Ross-1796
C) Edward Jenner-1796
D) Louis Pasteur -1696
Answer:
C) Edward Jenner-1796

Question 74.
Find the mis-match.
A) Root nodules – rhizobium
B) Malaria-virus
C) Citrus canker-virus
D) Red rot of sugar cane – fungi
Answer:
B) Malaria-virus

Question 75.
Typhoid, cholera, diarrhoea, dysentery and jaundice are
A) Water borne diseases
B) Air borne diseases
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Water borne diseases

Question 76.
The bacteria which symbioses with legume plant are
A) Rhyzobium
B) Clostridium
C) Lactobacillus
D) Penicillin
Answer:
A) Rhyzobium

Question 77.
Which one of these is preserved in pasteurisation method?
A) Fruit Juices
B) Milk
C) Food
D) Meat
Answer:
B) Milk

Question 78.
Antibiotics are used to kill the Micro-organisms which are cause for dis¬eases. Antibiotics prepared from
A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Protozoan
D) Bacteria
Answer:
A) Fungi

Question 79.
Legume plants have root nodules. Rhizobium bacteria is present in the root nodules. The bacterium provides nitrates to the plant, which gives shelter to the bacterium. This relationship is called
A) Symbiosis
B) Parasitism
C) Autotrophic nutrition
D) Correlation
Answer:
A) Symbiosis

Question 80.
The microorganism which turns milk into curd
A) Lactobacillus
B) Rhizopus
C) Plasmodium
D) Spirogyra
Answer:
A) Lactobacillus

Question 81.
Read the following sentences about viruses. Identify the wrong statement.
A) They are big in size than bacteria
B) Causative organism for Swineflu and Polio
C) They are the link between living and non-living organisms
D) They are the causative microbes for the diseases both in plants and animals
Answer:
A) They are big in size than bacteria

Question 82.
Read the following statements.
P) Vaccines are used to prevent the diseases.
Q) Anti-bodies for causative microorganisms produced in the body by vaccination.
In the above sentences.
A) P is correct and Q is correct explanation
B) P is incorrect but Q is correct explanation
C) P is correct but Q is incorrect explanation
D) P is incorrect and Q is also incorrect explanation
Answer:
A) P is correct and Q is correct explanation

Question 83.
The first scientist who proved that microorganism could be killed by boiling?
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Lazzaro Spallanazani
C) Alexander Flemming
D) Yellapreggada Subba Rao
Answer:
C) Alexander Flemming

Question 84.
Read the names of the diseases given below.
Small pox, Hepatitis, Mumps, Tetanus, Whooping cough
A) all are skin diseases
B) all are occured by bacteria
C) vaccines are discovered for all the above diseases
D) they occur only in adults
Answer:
C) vaccines are discovered for all the above diseases

Question 85.
Which of the following questions are suitable to clarify your doubts on contageous diseases?
A) Why do diseases occur?
B) What happens when we are affected by a disease?
C) Why is fever not a contaminated disease?
D) What precautions do we follow to avoid contaminated diseases?
Answer:
D) What precautions do we follow to avoid contaminated diseases?

(86-88) Look at the picture and answer the questions.

Question 86.
Which of the material is added to myda dough in the experiment?
A) Bacteria
B) Yeast
C) Baking soda
D) Iodine
Answer:
B) Yeast

Question 87.
What is the name of the process occured in the experiment?
A) Transpiration
B) Condensation
C) Fermentation
D) Diffusion
Answer:
C) Fermentation

Question 88.
Which gas is released in the experiment?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbondioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
B) Carbondioxide

Question 89.
Ravi mixed yeast to sugar solution. What changes may be observed by him?
a) It turned into Alcohol
b) Oxygen gas is released
c) CO₂ will release
d) Cold drink is prepared
Which of the above are correct?
A) a and c
B) a and b
C) a and d
D) None of the given
Answer:
A) a and c

Question 90.
You want to give suggestions to your villagers for the prevention of diseases, which of the following are correct?
A) Should not eat contaminated food
B) Drink safe and clean water
C) Keep the surrounding environment clean
D) All the given
Answer:
D) All the given

Question 91.
To avoid spoiling of pickles at my home, I have to Martm
A) Open the lid and keep open the Jar
B) Mix with salt, chilli powder and oil
C) Shall keep in moisture place
D) Heating it frequently
Answer:
B) Mix with salt, chilli powder and oil