Category: Bit Bank

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Practical Geometry on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 10th Lesson Practical Geometry with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
The instrument which can be used to a construct line segment is ……………….
A) Scale
B) Ruler
C) Compass
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 2.
The instrument which is used to construct an angle is ………………
A) Scale
B) Compass
C) Protractor
D) Ruler
Answer:
C) Protractor

Question 3.
Number of perpendicular bisectors that can be drawn to a line segment are/is …………….
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 4.
Angle bisector divides the angle into …………………
A) two equal line segments
B) two equal angles
C) two equal rays
D) none
Answer:
B) two equal angles

Question 5.
The length of a line segments is 7 cm. If we draw the perpendicular bisector to the line segment, then the length of each part is ………………..
A) 3 cm
B) 3.5 cm
C) 4 cm
D) 4.5 cm
Answer:
B) 3.5 cm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Instrument which is used to measure the length of the given line segment ……………….
Answer:
Divider and compasses

2. Instrument used to draw a circle is ………………
Answer:
Compass

3. Perpendicular bisector can divide the line segment into ……………….
Answer:
two equal parts

4. Number of angle bisectors that can be drawn to an angle are/is ……………….
Answer:
1

5. Geometrical instruments used to construct the shapes are ……………….
Answer:
Ruler, compasses, divider, set-squares, protractor

6. If we draw the angle bisector to ∠AOB = 100°, then each angle = ……………..
Answer:
6) 50°

7. Parallel lines can be drawn by using the …………… instrument.
Answer:
set squares

8. \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) = 6 cm and l is the perpendicular bisector to \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) at O, then OP = cm
Answer:
3 cm

9. ∠AOB = 90° and \(\overrightarrow{O C}\) is the angle bisector to ∠AOB, then ∠AOC =
Answer:
45°

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Reflection of Light on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 9th Lesson Reflection of Light with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Image of an object in a plane mirror is
A) red
B) inverted
C) small
D) virtual
Answer:
D) virtual

Question 2.
Ray of light falling on the mirror is
A) reflected ray
B) refracted ray
C) deviated ray
D) incident ray
Answer:
D) incident ray

Question 3.
Angle of incidence
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of refraction
C) Angle of deviation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Angle of reflection

Question 4.
Distances of the object and image are ……….. in a plane mirror.
A) unequal
B) equal
C) may be equal or unequal
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) equal

Question 5.
Army people use this
A) Kaleidoscope
B) Spectroscope
C) Periscope
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Periscope

Question 6.
This is observed in a plane mirror
A) inverted image
B) small image
C) lateral inversion
D) All the above
Answer:
C) lateral inversion

Question 7.
Number of images formed when the object is placed in between the mirrors arranged at an angle of 90°
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
A) 3

Question 8.
Mirror used as a rearview mirror
A) Concave
B) Spherical
C) Plane
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 9.
Mirror used by Dentists
A) Convex
B) Concave
C) Plane
D) Spherical
Answer:
B) Concave

Question 10.
Mirror behind the bulb in a car headlight
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) None
Answer:
A) Concave

Question 11.
The ray of light falling on the mirror is called the
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Incident ray

Question 12.
The ray of light returning from the mirror is called
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Reflected ray

Question 13.
The angle between the normal and the reflected ray is called
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of incidence
C) Angle of refraction
D) Angle of circulation
Answer:
A) Angle of reflection

Question 14.
The angle between the normal and the incident ray is called
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of incidence
C) Angle of refraction
D) Angle of circulation
Answer:
B) Angle of incidence

Question 15.
Relationship between angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is
A) Equal
B) Not equal
C) Directly proportionate
D) Indirectly proportionate
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 16.
If the angle of incidence is 20° with the normal, what will be the angle of reflection?
A) 20°
B) 40°
C) 70°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 20°

Question 17.
The mirrors in periscope are kept ………. to each other.
A) Horizontal
B) Vertical
C) Parallel
D) Linear
Answer:
C) Parallel

Question 18.
In a mirror right of an object appears
A) Reverse
B) Right
C) Top
D) Left
Answer:
D) Left

Question 19.
Number of mirrors required to provide multi images
A) 3
B) 5
C) 2
D) 6
Answer:
C) 2

Question 20.
Number of images formed by the arrangement of plane mirrors with the angle of 60
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 21.
Rear view mirror made of
A) Concave mirror
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Any one of these
Answer:
A) Concave mirror

Question 22.
Dentist usually use ………… mirror.
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Convex

Question 23.
Image on curved shining surface of inner portion is
A) Straight image
B) Mirror image
C) Reverse image
D) Irregular image
Answer:
C) Reverse image

Question 24.
Outer portion of spoon acts as a ………… mirror.
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Irregular
Answer:
B) Convex

Question 25.
Clear images formed by ……………. reflection
A) Irregular
B) Diffused
C) Reverse
D) Regular
Answer:
D) Regular

Question 26.
The number of images increased by the ………… of angle between two plane mirrors.
A) Increase
B) Reduction
C) Increase or decrease
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Reduction

Question 27.
In a ………… mirror we get diminished image of the object.
A) Concave
B) Plane
C) Rough
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 28.
The image that can be obtained on a screen is called a
A) Virtual image
B) Reversed image
C) Enlarged image
D) Real image
Answer:
D) Real image

Question 29.
Reflection from a smooth surface is called reflection
A) Irregular
B) Reverse
C) Regular
D) Irrespective
Answer:
C) Regular

Question 30.
The image that can be viewed only in the mirror called
A) Virtual image
B) Reversed image
C) Enlarged image
D) Real image
Answer:
A) Virtual image

Question 31.
What do we prove through this experiment?

A) Light rays
B) Light reflection
C) Pin hole camera
D) Lateral invertion
Answer:
B) Light reflection

Question 32.
What is the source of light in this experiment?

A) Sun
B) Plain mirror
C) Mirror strip with the slit
D) Torch light
Answer:
A) Sun

Question 33.
What is the instrument in that girl’s hand?

A) Kaleidoscope
B) Periscope
C) Convex mirror
D) Concave mirror
Answer:
B) Periscope

Question 34.
What is the angle in between the two mirrors?

A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

Question 35.
The picture tells us

A) Light reflection
B) Lateral invertion
C) Irregular reflection
D) Shadows
Answer:
B) Lateral invertion

Question 36.
How many plain mirrors do we need to prepare a periscope
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 37.
What is the instrument in that boy’s hand?

A) Pin hole camera
B) Periscope
C) Kaleidoscope
D) Convex mirror
Answer:
C) Kaleidoscope

Question 38.
What is the mirror used by this doctor?

A) Convex mirror
B) Concave mirror
C) Plain mirror
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Concave mirror

Question 39.
If you want to farm multipe images how many mirrors atleastyou need?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 40.
When we reduce the angle between two mirrors the number of images
A) decrease
B) increase
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) increase

Question 41.
The image that can be obtained on a screen is called
A) real image
B) virtual image
C) multiple images
D) none of these
Answer:
A) real image

Question 42.
Reflection from a rough surface is called
A) Real image
B) Virtual image
C) Regular reflection
D) Irregular reflection
Answer:
D) Irregular reflection

Question 43.
The ray of light returning from the mirror is called
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Reflected ray

Question 44.
In which mirror we get diminished image of the object?
A) Concave
B) Plane
C) Rough
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 45.
In this experiment the angle between the two plane mirrors is

A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 46.
Ravi observed the word FLOWER in the mirror. It appears like

Answer:
C)

Question 47.
Kavitha arranged the mirrors with 600 angle and got 5 images. Then Bhavana adjusted the mirrors and got 11 images. What is the angle between the mirrors?
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 30

Question 48.
Rajesh arranged the rear view mirror to his motor cycle. The type of mirror is
A) Convex
B) Concave
C) Plane
D) Not above
Answer:
A) Convex

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 9 2D-3D Shapes on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 9th Lesson 2D-3D Shapes with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
A 2-dimensional closed shape formed by straight lines is called ……………….
A) Plane
B) Space
C) Polygon
D) None
Answer:
C) Polygon

Question 2.
Polygon means ……………..
A) Many sides
B) Two sides
C) One side
D) None
Answer:
A) Many sides

Question 3.
Many sided figure is called ………………
A) Space
B) Polygon
C) Angle
D) Plane
Answer:
B) Polygon

Question 4.
Four sided figure is called …………………
A) Triangle
B) Pentagon
C) Hexagon
D) Quadrilateral
Answer:
D) Quadrilateral

Question 5.
Seven sided figure is called ……………….
A) Pentagon
B) Octagon
C) Heptagon
D) Nonagon
Answer:
C) Heptagon

Question 6.
Ten sided figure is known as ………………
A) Decagon
B) Nonagon
C) Septagon
D) Hexagon
Answer:
A) Decagon

Question 7.
Triangle has ……………….
A) Three sides
B) Three angles
C) Three vertices
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 8.
Triangle can divides the points on the plane into …………… parts.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
C) 3

Question 9.
The length of curved edge is called ………………
A) Radius
B) Circle
C) Circumference
D) Diameter
Answer:
C) Circumference

Question 10.
A chord which passes through the centre of the circle is called …………………
A) Radius
B) Diameter
C) Circle
D) Chord
Answer:
B) Diameter

Question 11.
A line which divides the figure into two identical parts is known as ………………..
A) Line of symmetry
B) Line of straight
C) Line of diameter
D) Circumference
Answer:
A) Line of symmetry

Question 12.
The shapes which have length, breadth and height (or) depth are called ……………….
A) 2D shapes
B) 4D shapes
C) 3D shapes
D) 5D shapes
Answer:
C) 3D shapes

Question 13.
Example for the cuboidal shape
A) Triangle
B) Hexagon
C) Ball
D) Eraser
Answer:
D) Eraser

Question 14.
If length, breadth and height are different, then die 3D-shape is known as
A) Cube
B) Cuboid
C) Cylinder
D) Prism
Answer:
B) Cuboid

Question 15.
Example for a cylinder is ……………….
A) Pen
B) Candle
C) Pencil
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 16.
Example for a sphere is ………………
A) Balls
B) Laddoos
C) Marbles
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 17.
Number of faces of a cube ……………..
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 3
Answer:
A) 6

Question 18.
Cuboid has …………… edges.
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 3
Answer:
C) 12

Question 19.
Vertices of a cube are ……………..
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 3
Answer:
B) 8

Question 20.
Pyramid has …………… faces.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
Answer:
A) 5

Question 21.
Euler’s formula is ……………….
A) F + E = V + 2
B) F + V = E + 2
C) F + 2 = V + E
D) E + 2 = F + V
Answer:
B) F + V = E + 2

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Three sided figure is called …………………
Answer:
Triangle

2. Five sided figure is called ………………
Answer:
Pentagon

3. Six sided figure is called ……………….
Answer:
Hexagon

4. The least number of sides needed to form a polygon is ………………..
Answer:
Three

5. The simplest closed figure formed by three line segments is called a ………………….
Answer:
Triangle

6. A triangle is denoted by the symbol …………………..
Answer:

7. Locus of the points which is at equidistant from a fixed paint is called ……………….
Answer:
Circle

8. The distance from the centre to any point on the circumference of circle is called ……………
Answer:
Radius

9. Middle point of the diameter is known as ………………
Answer:
Centre

10. A line segment joining two points on the circumference of the circle is called ………………….
Answer:
Chord

11. The part of a circle between the two points is …………………
Answer:
Arc

12. The region in the interior of a circle enclosed by the boundary is …………………
Answer:
Circular region

13. Another name of line of symmetry is …………………
Answer:
Axis of symmetry

14. The shapes which have only length and breadth are known as …………………
Answer:
2D shapes

15. The 3D shape in which has length, breadth and height are equal is …………………
Answer:
Cube

16. Example for cone shape …………………
Answer:
Joker cap/ Heap of grains

17. Example for pyramid shape ………………….
Answer:
Egypt Mummy

18. The shape of dice is …………………
Answer:
Cube

19. No. of edges of square pyramid …………………
Answer:
8

20. Edges of a sphere ………………..
Answer:
0 (No edges)

III. Match the following:

A)
Number of sides
1) 10
2) 3
3) 6
4) 9
5) 4
6) 5

Name of the polygon
a) Quadrilateral
b) Nonagon
c) Triangle
d) Decagon
e) Hexagon
f) Pentagon
Answer:
1) 10 – d) Decagon
2) 3 – c) Triangle
3) 6 – e) Hexagon
4) 9 – b) Nonagon
5) 4 – a) Quadrilateral
6) 5 – f) Pentagon

B)
1) Cube
2) Cylinder
3) Square pyramid
4) Cone
5) Sphere
6) Rectangular prism

Number of edges
a) 12
b) 8
c) 1
d) 0
e) 9
f) 2
Answer:
1) Cube – a) 12
2) Cylinder – f) 2
3) Square pyramid – b) 8
4) Cone – c) 1
5) Sphere – d) 0
6) Rectangular prism – a) 12

C)
1) Cube
2) Pyramid
3) Cone
4) Cylinder
5) Triangle
6) Heptagon

Number of vertices
a) 1
b) 0
c) 5
d) 7
e) 8
f) 3
Answer:
1) Cube – e) 8
2) Pyramid – c) 5
3) Cone – a) 1
4) Cylinder – b) 0
5) Triangle – f) 3
6) Heptagon – d) 7

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Basic Geometric Concepts on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 8th Lesson Basic Geometric Concepts with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
Location of the object is …………….
A) line
B) point
C) line segment
D) ray
Answer:
B) point

Question 2.
The union of points which has no end points is called …………………
A) Line
B) Line segments
C) Ray
D) None
Answer:
A) Line

Question 3.
Types of lines are ……………….
A) Curved lines
B) Straight lines
C) A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) A & B

Question 4.
Which has no end points?
A) Line segment
B) Line
C) A & B
D) Ray
Answer:
D) Ray

Question 5.
Ray AB is represented by ……………….
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
C) \(\overline{a b}\)
D) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
Answer:
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)

Question 6.
Union of points which has two end points is called ……………….
A) Line segment
B) Line
C) Ray
D) None
Answer:
A) Line segment

Question 7.
Line segment is represented by………………….
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
D) \(\overline{a b}\)
Answer:
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)

Question 8.
GEOMETRY is derived from ……………….
A) American
B) French
C) Latin
D) Greek
Answer:
D) Greek

Question 9.
METRON means …………….
A) Length
B) Measurement
C) Angle
D) Earth
Answer:
B) Measurement

Question 10.
The length of any linesegment can be measured with the help of ……………….
A) scale
B) divider
C) compass
D) all of the above
Answer:
D) all of the above

Question 11.
The lines that cross one another are called ……………… lines.
A) Intersecting
B) Parallel
C) Perpendicular
D) A & B
Answer:
A) Intersecting

Question 12.
The perpendicular distance between the two parallel lines is …………………
A) same
B) different
C) always same
D) always different
Answer:
C) always same

Question 13.
l is parallel to m is represented by …………………
A) \(\overline{\overline{l m}}\)
B) l // m
C) l ⊥ m
D) l = m
Answer:
B) l // m

Question 14.
Common point of three or more lines is called …………………..
A) Intersecting point
B) Parallel point
C) Point of intersecting
D) Point of concurrence
Answer:
D) Point of concurrence

Question 15.
Common end point of two rays is called
A) Angle point
B) Vertex
C) Rays point
D) None
Answer:
B) Vertex

Question 16.
Two rays of an angle are called …………….
A) legs
B) sides
C) arms
D) angles
Answer:
C) arms

Question 17.
Which measure is used to measure angle in degree?
A) Sexagesimal system
B) Centesimal system
C) Gradian system
D) Radian system
Answer:
A) Sexagesimal system

Question 18.
Angle which is less than 90° is called ……………….
A) Acute angle
B) Obtuse angle
C) Right angle
D) Straight angle
Answer:
A) Acute angle

Question 19.
The angle which is greater than 90° is called ………………
A) Acute angle
B) Obtuse angle
C) Right angle
D) Reflexive angle
Answer:
B) Obtuse angle

Question 20.
The angle which is greater than 180° and < 360° is called ……………..
A) Acute angle
B) Obtuse angle
C) Right angle
D) Reflexive angle
Answer:
D) Reflexive angle

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Point is represented by ……………..
Answer:
A, B, C, ……………… (upper caps)

2. Number of types of lines are ………………
Answer:
2

3. Line has no ………………. points.
Answer:
end

4. Line is represented by ………………
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\)

5. Lines are represented by …………………
Answer:
l, m, n, …………… (Lower caps)

6. GEG means ……………….
Answer:
Earth

7. The famous Indian Mathematicians, who contributed their work in geometry are …………………..
Answer:
Aryabhatta and Brahmagupta

8. Geometry means …………….
Answer:
Earth’s measurement

9. Common point of two intersecting lines is called …………………
Answer:
Intersecting point

10. The lines that never meet even, if they are extended any further are called …………….
Answer:
Parallel lines

11. Three or more lines passing through the same point are called ………………
Answer:
Concurrent lines

12. l is perpendicular to line m is represented by ……………..
Answer:
l ⊥ m

13. If two rays has one common end point is called ………………
Answer:
Angle

14. The symbol for degree is ……………..
Answer:
°

15. The angle which is 90° is called …………….
Answer:
Right angle

16. The angle which is exactly 180° is called ………………
Answer:
Straight angle

17. The angle 360° is called ……………..
Answer:
Complete angle

18. A tool which is used to measure angle is ……………….
Answer:
Protractor

19. The exterior region along with the rays is called ……………
Answer:
Exterior angle

20. Two rays with a common initial point make two regions. The interior region along with rays is called ………………
Answer:
Interior angle

III. Match the following:

A)

1) Line PQ is represented	a) ∠ABC
2) Angle PQR is represented	b) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)
3) Line segment PQ is represented	c) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)
4) Ray PQ is represented	d) ∠PQR
5) Angle ABC is represented	e) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)

Answer:
1) – b) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)
2) – d) ∠PQR
3) – e) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)
4) – c) \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\)
5) – a) ∠ABC

B)

1) Acute angle	a) > 90°
2) Right angle	b) = 180°
3) Obtuse angle	c) = 360°
4) Reflexive angle	d) > 90°
5) Complete angle	e) = 90°
6) Straight angle	f) >180° and < 360°

Answer:
1) Acute angle – d) > 90°
2) Right angle – e) = 90°
3) Obtuse angle – a) > 90°
4) Reflexive angle – f) >180° and < 360°
5) Complete angle – c) = 360°
6) Straight angle – b) = 180°

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Introduction to Algebra on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 7th Lesson Introduction to Algebra with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
A letter which we used to represent a number is called ………………
A) Constant
B) Variable
C) Pattern
D) None
Answer:
B) Variable

Question 2.
A fixed value is called …………….
A) Constant
B) Variable
C) Pattern
D) None
Answer:
A) Constant

Question 3.
If ‘n’ number of distinct triangles are to be formed, we need ……………….. matchsticks.
A) 2n
B) 4n
C) 3n
D) 5n
Answer:
C) 3n

Question 4.
If x number of L shapes are to be formed, we need …………….. matchsticks.
A) 2x
B) 3x
C) 4x
D) 5x
Answer:
A) 2x

Question 5.
If two expressions are equal, then it is called ………………..
A) Expression
B) Equation
C) Variable
D) Constant
Answer:
B) Equation

Question 6.
What is the pattern of the series 5, 10, 15, 20, ………………… is?
A) \(\frac{x}{5}\)
B) 5^x
C) 5x
D) 5 + x
Answer:
C) 5x

Question 7.
…………….. Find the rule for the pattern.
A) 4y + 1
B) 2y + 1
C) 3y + 1
D) 4y – 1
Answer:
C) 3y + 1

Question 8.
What is the pattern of the letter H?
A) 3x
B) 4x
C) 5x
D) 2x
Answer:
A) 3x

Question 9.
For which value of x, 2 + x = 10?
A) 12
B) – 8
C) – 12
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 10.
Value of 3z – 2, when z = 0 is ………………
A) 1
B) 5
C) -2
D) -1
Answer:
C) -2

Question 11.
Value of \(\frac{5 \mathbf{x}-\mathbf{2}}{\mathbf{3}}\), when x = 4 is …………………
A) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
B) 6
C) \(\frac{22}{3}\)
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6

Question 12.
Swathi’s present age is ‘p’ years. Her age 3 years back was ………………
A) p + 3
B) p – 3
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{3}\)
D) 3 × p
Answer:
B) p – 3

Question 13.
The expression for “8 is subtracted from 2y” is ………………..
A) 2y – 8
B) 2y + 8
C) 8 – 2y
D) 16y
Answer:
A) 2y – 8

Question 14.
The expression for “-x divided by 4” is …………….
A) -x × 4
B) \(\frac{4}{-x}\)
C) \(\frac{-\mathrm{x}}{4}\)
D) -x + 4
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-\mathrm{x}}{4}\)

Question 15.
Write an expression for the statement “5 times of a is subtracted from twice of b”.
A) 5a – 2b
B) 5b – 2a
C) 2a – 5b
D) 2b – 5a
Answer:
D) 2b – 5a

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Variable is represented by ………………….
Answer:
a, b, …………….m, n, ……………. x, y, …………

2. If n number of squares are to be formed, we need ……………….. matchsticks.
Answer:
4.n

3. If y number of shapes are to be formed, we need …………….. matchsticks.
Answer:
6.y

4. In an equation the value of the variable for which LHS and RHS are equal is called ……………….
Answer:
Solution

5. Another name for solution of an equation is ………………..
Answer:
Root of the equation

6. What is the pattern of the series 6, 12, 18, 24, ………………..?
Answer:
6.n

7. RHS of 2a + 4 = 9 – 3a is ……………..
Answer:
9 – 3a

8. If \(\frac{2}{3 x}=\frac{4}{6}\), then x = ……………
Answer:
1

9. What is the pattern of the series 4, 7, 10, 13, ……………….?
Answer:
3x + 1

10. Number of pencils with Ranga is 3 more than Krishna. Find the number of pencils with Ranga in terms of what Krishna has ……………..
Answer:
y + 3

11. What is the area of a square, if its side is x mts? ………………..
Answer:
x.x (or) x²

12. If cost of a book is ₹ 20, then the cost of ‘n’ books is ……………..
Answer:
20.n

13. What is the perimeter of an equilateral triangle, whose side is ‘a’ units ?
Answer:
3a units

14. If -10 = \(\frac{-2 \mathrm{p}}{3}\), then p = …………………
Answer:
15

15. The n^th term of the sequence 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, …………… is ………….
Answer:
x²

III. Match the following:

A)

1) The pattern of 2, 4, 6, 8, ………………	a) 6
2) The pattern of 4, 8, 12, 16,	b) 4x
3) Value of -x + 5 when x = – 1 is ………………	c) -2
4) Solution of 7x = 49 is ………………..	d) 2n
5) If x – 3 = – 5, then x = …………………	e) 7

Answer:
1) – d) 2n
2) – b) 4x
3) – a) 6
4) – e) 7
5) – c) -2

B)

 

1) LHS of 2x + 1 = 5 – 3x	a) 4a
2) RHS of 2p + 10 = 3p + 5	b) n3
3) Perimeter of square, whose side is ‘a’ units.	c) 3x
4) Perimeter of triangle, whose side is ‘x’ units.	d) 3p + 5
5) n<sup>th</sup> term of 1, 8, 27, 64, 125 ………….	e) 2x + 1

Answer:
1) – e) 2x + 1
2) – d) 3p + 5
3) – a) 4a
4) – c) 3x
5) – b) n³

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones with Answers

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Air, Winds and Cyclones on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Air exerts
A) Cooling
B) Heating
C) Rain
D) Pressure
Answer:
D) Pressure

Question 2.
Air expands on
A) Cooling
B) Heating
C) On its own
D) None
Answer:
B) Heating

Question 3.
Hot air is
A) more dense
B) less dense
C) bad
D) none
Answer:
B) less dense

Question 4.
This part of the globe gets more heat from the sun
A) polar region
B) near the polar region
C) region close to equator
D) all the regions
Answer:
C) region close to equator

Question 5.
Tropical cyclones are like
A) Giant engines
B) Destructive army
C) Enemies
D) Friends
Answer:
A) Giant engines

Question 6.
Most cyclones tend to occur towards
A) Indian ocean
B) Pacific ocean
C) Arabian sea
D) Bay of Bengal
Answer:
D) Bay of Bengal

Question 7.
The other names of cyclone are
A) Typhoons
B) Hurricanes
C) Cyclones
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 8.
Cyclone watch is issued in advance of
A) 24 hours
B) 36 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 60 hours
Answer:
C) 48 hours

Question 9.
The instrument that measures wind speed is
A) Anemometer
B) Spherometer
C) Speedometer
D) Barometer
Answer:
A) Anemometer

Question 10.
In India cyclone usually occur in
A) January
B) April
C) May – June
D) December
Answer:
C) May – June

Question 11.
Air moves from
A) higher pressure to low
B) lower pressure to high
C) cool to hot
D) hot to cool
Answer:
A) higher pressure to low

Question 12.
The warm air moves to
A) downwards
B) upwards
C) no movement
D) all directions
Answer:
A) downwards

Question 13.
One of the following cools fast
A) sea water
B) land
C) river
D) all of these
Answer:
B) land

Question 14.
Uneven heating takes place on the surface of the ………
A) sea
B) hill
C) earth
D) river
Answer:
C) earth

Question 15.
……….. gets more heat from the sun.
A) Equator
B) Pole
C) Desert
D) Earth
Answer:
A) Equator

Question 16.
One of the following heats up fast
A) land
B) sea
C) fog
D) all of these
Answer:
A) land

Question 17.
Find out a cyclonic storm
A) Typhoon
B) Hurricane
C) Both A & B
D) Tornado
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
On heating air gets
A) expands
B) less dense
C) occupies more space
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 19.
The differential heating of land and water by the sun leads to breeze.
A) land
B) sea
C) moon
D) land and sea
Answer:
D) land and sea

Question 20.
Monsoon winds start from
A) May
B) June
C) August
D) July
Answer:
B) June

Question 21.
Main effect of cyclone
A) heavy wind
B) heavy rain
C) tsunamies
D) heavy wind and rain
Answer:
D) heavy wind and rain

Question 22.
More cyclones tend to occur on the ……….. side of India.
A) north
B) south
C) east
D) west
Answer:
C) east

Question 23.
IMD provides information mainly about
A) Cyclones
B) Typhoons
C) Hurricanes
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 24.
………… plays an important role in the formation of cyclones
A) Wind speed
B) Humidity
C) Temperature
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Wind speed

Question 25.
Anemometer measures
A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Wind
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Wind

Question 26.
Through this experiment we can conclude that

A) Bottle is empty
B) Bottle is filled with air
C) Bottle is filled with water
D) Air is every where
Answer:
D) Air is every where

Question 27.
Through this experiment we can conclude that

A) Water expands on heating
B) Solids expands on heating
C) Air expands on heating
D) Cold air is lighter than hot air
Answer:
C) Air expands on heating

Question 28.
This figure tells us

A) hot air is lighter than cold air
B) cold air is lighter than hot air
C) air expands on heating
D) air exerts pressure
Answer:
A) hot air is lighter than cold air

Question 29.
It occurs during

A) daytime
B) night time
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
A) daytime

Question 30.
Tells us

A) Rainfall
B) Mist
C) Wind
D) Cyclone
Answer:
D) Cyclone

Question 31.
Wind moves from
A) higher pressure to low
B) lower pressure to high
C) cool to hot
D) hot to cool
Answer:
A) higher pressure to low

Question 32.
A gentle breeze blowing from the ocean towards the land is called
A) land breeze
B) see breeze
C) monsoon
D) cyclone
Answer:
B) see breeze

Question 33.
More cyclones tend to occur is
A) Arabian sea
B) Indian ocean
C) Bay of Bengal
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Bay of Bengal

Question 34.
We used this to study cyclones
A) Satellite
B) Radars
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 35.
In India cyclones usually occur in the month of
A) May & June
B) October & November
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
“Cooperate and help your neighbours & friends”. It is a ……….
A) pre cyclone measure
B) post cyclone measure
C) pre tsunami measure
D) pre monsoon measure
Answer:
B) post cyclone measure

Question 37.
The following is a cyclonic strom
A) Typhoon
B) Hurricane
C) Both A & B
D) Tornado
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
Which one plays an important role in the formation of cyclones?
A) Humidity
B) Temperature
C) Wind speed
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Wind speed

Question 39.
Which one of the following causes wind movements?
A) Uneven heating on the earth
B) Uneven rainfall on the earth
C) Uneven humidity in the atmosphere
D) The Sun
Answer:
A) Uneven heating on the earth

Question 40.
Factor contributing to the cyclone
A) Wind speed
B) Wind direction
C) Humidity
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 41.
When do we should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods domestic animals and vehicles?
A) After cyclone
B) After Tsunami
C) Before cyclone
D) Before monsoons
Answer:
C) Before cyclone

Question 42.
It is a ……….

A) Tsunami
B) Monsoon
C) Tornado
D) Cyclone
Answer:
D) Cyclone

Question 43.
Name of this aparatus

A) Raingauge
B) Speedometer
C) Thermometer
D) Stop watch
Answer:
B) Speedometer

Question 44.
Which of the following is a correct precaution to be followed during a cyclone?
A) Need not follow suggestions made by weather forecast
B) Blindly following neighbours’ suggestions
C) Switch off electrical mains
D) Need not consult emergency service providers
Answer:
C) Switch off electrical mains

Question 45.
Take a bucket with water.
Now immerse a bottle with a narrow mouth in the bucket till the bottle is filled with water, as shown here. Notice the air bubbles coming out of the bottle when water enters the bottle. Based on this, we can say that the aim of this experiment is to show that

A) Air expands on heating
B) Warm air rises up
C) Air has no mass
D) Air occupies space
Answer:
D) Air occupies space

Question 46.
Ramu collected 4 small paper cups, two strips of car board with dimensions 20 cm length and 2 cm breadth, gum, stapler, sketch pen and sharpened pencil. Using these materials, Ramu made the apparatus as shown here.

A) Windmill
B) Thermoscope
C) Anemometer
D) Barometer
Answer:
C) Anemometer

Question 47.
The following is an IMPORTANT safety measure one needs to take AFTER a cyclone has passed
A) Avoid contact with hanging, loose electrical wires
B) Avoid going inside a building and stay outdoors
C) Wear thick clothing made of wool
D) Cover the head with a hat and have plenty of fluids
Answer:
A) Avoid contact with hanging, loose electrical wires

Question 48.
Information from the following makes it possible to give cyclone warnings 24 hours in advance
A) Rain gauge and thermometer
B) Satellites and radars
C) Anemometer and barometer
D) Speedometer and hydrometer
Answer:
C) Anemometer and barometer

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Basic Arithmetic on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 6th Lesson Basic Arithmetic with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
Comparison of two numbers by division with same units is called …………….
A) Ratio
B) Proportion
C) Percentage
D) None
Answer:
A) Ratio

Question 2.
The ratio of a and b is denoted by …………….
A) b : a
B) \(\frac{b}{a}\)
C) a : b
D) a × b
Answer:
C) a : b

Question 3.
In the ratio a : b, a is called ………………
A) consequent
B) antecedent
C) ratio
D) proportion
Answer:
B) antecedent

Question 4.
If a : b = c : d, then they are said to be is ……………
A) ratio
B) equal
C) proportion
D) none
Answer:
C) proportion

Question 5.
a : b = c : d can be read as ……………..
A) a : b to c : d
B) a : b is as c : d
C) c : d to a : b
D) c : d is as a : b
Answer:
B) a : b is as c : d

Question 6.
If a : b = c : d, then ………………
A) a.c = b.d
B) a.b = c.d
C) bd = ac
D) a.d = b.c
Answer:
D) a.d = b.c

Question 7.
If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then a and d are called ……………….
A) Extremes
B) Means
C) Proportion
D) None
Answer:
A) Extremes

Question 8.
Percent means ………………
A) Out of ten
B) Out of two hundred
C) Out of hundred
D) Out of thousand
Answer:
C) Out of hundred

Question 9.
Equivalent ratio of a : b is …………….
A) b : a
B) a : 2b
C) 2a : b
D) 4a : 4b
Answer:
D) 4a : 4b

Question 10.
Simplest form of 25 : 30 is ………………..
A) 2 : 3
B) 2 : 5
C) 5 : 6
D) 5 : 3
Answer:
C) 5 : 6

Question 11.
If three apples cost Rs. 60, then the cost of 5 apples is Rs ……………..
A) 40
B) 80
C) 60
D) 100
Answer:
D) 100

Question 12.
4 times of 8 : 3 = ……………..
A) 32 : 3
B) 32 : 12
C) 8 : 12
D) 3 : 8
Answer:
B) 32 : 12

Question 13.
1 cm : 20 mm = ………………
A) 1 : 20
B) 1 : 2
C) 20 : 1
D) 2 : 1
Answer:
B) 1 : 2

Question 14.
The ratio between 5 kg and 500 gms is ………………
A) 10 : 1
B) 1 : 100
C) 5 : 500
D) 1 : 10
Answer:
A) 10 : 1

Question 15.
Which of the following quantities are in proportions?
A) 3, 4, 16, 12
B) 12, 4, 3, 16
C) 4, 16. 3, 12
D) 16, 3, 12, 4
Answer:
C) 4, 16. 3, 12

Question 16.
In a class of 45 students number of girls are 15, then find the ratio of number of boys to that of girls ………………….
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 1
C) 4 : 1
D) 5 : 1
Answer:
A) 2 : 1

Question 17.
If Swathi earns ₹42,000 per month and her expenditure is ₹ 28,000 per month. Then what is the ratio of her savings and expenditure?
A) 2 : 1
B) 2 : 3
C) 1 : 3
D) 1 : 2
Answer:
D) 1 : 2

Question 18.
Fractional form of 30% is ……………….
A) \(\frac{30}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{30}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{300}{100}\)
D) \(\frac{100}{30}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{30}{100}\)

Question 19.
1% = ………………
A) 0.01
B) 1.00
C) 0.1
D) 1.01
Answer:
A) 0.01

Question 20.
25% of 200 is …………….
A) 100
B) 150
C) 50
D) 200
Answer:
C) 50

Question 21.
8 hours as percent of 3 days is ……………..
A) 11\(\frac{1}{9}\)%
B) 9\(\frac{1}{11}\)%
C) \(\frac{8}{3}\)%
D) \(\frac{100}{3}\)%
Answer:
A) 11\(\frac{1}{9}\)%

Question 22.
0.35 as percent ………………
A) \(\frac{35}{100}\)%
B) \(\frac{35}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{10}\)%
D) 35%
Answer:
D) 35%

Question 23.
The population of a village is 10,600, of this 20% are school going children, then the number of children in the village…………
A) 2120
B) 1060
C) 3180
D) 4240
Answer:
A) 2120

Question 24.
Simplest fractional form of 50% is ………………
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{1}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{1}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 25.
Balu spends 75% of his monthly income. If he saves ₹ 5000 per month, then his monthly income ……………
A) ₹ 10,000
B) ₹ 15,000
C) ₹ 50,000
D) ₹ 20,000
Answer:
D) ₹ 20,000

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. a : b is read as ………………
Answer:
a is to b

2. Another form of a : b is …………………
Answer:
\(\frac{a}{b}\)

3. In a : b; b is called ……………..
Answer:
consequent

4. The equality of ratios is called ……………….
Answer:
proportion

5. The symbol :: (is as) introduced by ………………..
Answer:
Oughtrad

6. If a, b, c, d are in proportion, b and c are called ………………….
Answer:
Means

7. If a, b, c, d are in proportion the product of extremes = ……………..
Answer:
Product of means

8. The method in which first we find the value of one unit and then the value of required number of units is known as ………………..
Answer:
Unitary method

9. The meaning of percentage in Latin is ……………….
Answer:
Out of one hundred

10. The symbol for percentage is ………………..
Answer:
%

11. Aditya and Kishore bought 20 pencils. Out of them, Kishore took 5 pencils. The ratio of pencils with Kishore & Aditya is ……………..
Answer:
3 : 1

12. 30 min : 1 hr = ……………….
Answer:
1 : 2

13. The simplest form of 180 : 45 is ………………
Answer:
4 : 1

14. Weight of Sreekari is 20 kgs. Swathi’s weight is thrice that of Sreekari. The ratio of weight of Sreekari and Swathi is ……………..
Answer:
1 : 3

15. Decimal form of 20% is ……………
Answer:
0.2

16. What is the ratio between 24 green balls and 27 blue balls? ……………..
Answer:
8 : 9

17. An ornament weighs 45 gms. It is a mixture of gold and copper in the ratio 7 : 2. The weight of copper is ……………….
Answer:
10 gms

18. Aditya runs 12 kms in 45 minutes, then he runs a distance of ……………… kms in 15 minutes.
Answer:
4

19. In a map, if 1 cm = 200 km, then 20 cm = …………….. kms.
Answer:
4000 kms

20. Ratio of 1 hour and 15 minutes is ……………….
Answer:
4 : 1

21. The percentage of 5 multiples and numbers from 1 to 50 is ………………
Answer:
20%

22. 35% as decimals …………………
Answer:
0.35

23. 15% of 240 = ……………..
Answer:
36

24. Siva secured 75% marks in maths. If maximum marks in the paper are 80. Marks secured by Siva ……………….
Answer:
60

25. ₹ 40,000 was shared between Ram and Syam in the ratio 1:3, then Ram’s share is …………………
Answer:
₹10,000/-

III. Match the following:

A)

1) In a : b, a is called	a) Product of means
2) In a : b, b is called	b) Product of extremes
3) If a: b : : c : d, then a × d =	c) Antecedent
4) If a: b : : c : d, then a.d is called	d) b.c
5) If a: b : : c : d, then b.c is called	e) Consequent

Answer:
1) In a : b, a is called – c) Antecedent
2) In a : b, b is called – e) Consequent
3) If a: b : : c : d, then a × d = – d) b.c
4) If a: b : : c : d, then a.d is called – b) Product of extremes
5) If a: b : : c : d, then b.c is called – a) Product of means

B)

1) 25% in the simplest form	a) 0.06
2) 6% in decimal form	b) 72
3) 0.46 decimal as percent	c) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
4) 1\(\frac {1}{2}\) fraction as percent	d) 46%
5) 30% of 240 =	e) 150

Answer:
1) 25% in the simplest form – c) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
2) 6% in decimal form – a) 0.06
3) 0.46 decimal as percent – d) 46%
4) 1\(\frac {1}{2}\) fraction as percent – e) 150
5) 30% of 240 = ……………. – b) 72

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Fractions and Decimals on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 5th Lesson Fractions and Decimals with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
A number representing a part of a whole is called …………….
A) Numerator
B) Denominator
C) Fraction
D) None
Answer:
C) Fraction

Question 2.
A fraction in which numerator is less than the denominator is called ………………
A) Proper fraction
B) Improper fraction
C) Mixed fraction
D) Whole number
Answer:
A) Proper fraction

Question 3.
All improper fractions are ………………
A) Less than 1
B) Greater than 1
C) Equal to 1
D) B and C
Answer:
D) B and C

Question 4.
Combination of a whole number and a proper fraction is called ………………
A) Proper fraction
B) Improper fraction
C) Mixed fraction
D) Whole number
Answer:
C) Mixed fraction

Question 5.
The value of equivalent fractions are ………………
A) different
B) same
C) equal to 0
D) none
Answer:
B) same

Question 6.
Fractions with different denominators are called ……………….
A) Like fractions
B) Unlike fractions
C) Proper fractions
D) Whole numbers
Answer:
B) Unlike fractions

Question 7.
Out of two fractions with the same numerator, the one having the smaller denominator is ……………….
A) greater fraction
B) smaller fraction
C) unit fraction
D) none
Answer:
A) greater fraction

Question 8.
Product to two improper fractions is ………………
A) Proper fraction
B) Improper fraction
C) Like fraction
D) Unlike fraction
Answer:
B) Improper fraction

Question 9.
Reciprocal of \(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\) is ………………
A) –\(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\)
B) –\(\frac{\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{a}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{a}}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{a}}\)

Question 10.
Place of the first digit after decimal from left to right is …………….. place.
A) ones
B) thousandths
C) hundredths
D) tenths
Answer:
D) tenths

Question 11.
Decimals having the same number of decimal places are called …………………
A) Unlike decimals
B) Like decimals
C) Like fractions
D) Unlike fractions
Answer:
B) Like decimals

Question 12.
The product of a fraction and its reciprocal is equal to ……………….
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 100
Answer:
B) 1

Question 13.
Denominator of the reciprocal of \(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\) is ……………
A) \(\frac{\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{a}}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\)
C) a
D) b
Answer:
C) a

Question 14.
Which of the following is the smallest fraction?
A) \(\frac{5}{12}\)
B) \(\frac{19}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{12}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{12}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{3}{12}\)

Question 15.
Equivalent fraction to \(\frac{2}{9}\) is …………………..
A) \(\frac{12}{19}\)
B) \(\frac{25}{95}\)
C) \(\frac{20}{90}\)
D) \(\frac{22}{192}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{20}{90}\)

Question 16.
\(\frac {1}{2}\) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) = ……………
A) 1 \(\frac {1}{2}\)
B) 1
C) 2\(\frac {1}{2}\)
D) 3\(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) 1 \(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 17.
Fractional form of 0.82 is …………………
A) \(\frac{0.82}{100}\)
B) 82
C) \(\frac{82}{100}\)
D) \(\frac{0.82}{10}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{82}{100}\)

Question 18.
\(\frac{\mathbf{2 9 8}}{\mathbf{1 0 0 0}}\) = ………………..
A) 2.98
B) 298
C) 29.8
D) 0.298
Answer:
D) 0.298

Question 19.
Which of the following is the biggest fraction?
A) \(\frac{22}{55}\)
B) \(\frac{42}{550}\)
C) \(\frac{52}{55}\)
D) \(\frac{12}{110}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{52}{55}\)

Question 20.
The lowest form of \(\frac{19}{95}\) is ………………
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{95}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 21.
Decimal form of \(\frac{27}{1000}\) = …………….
A) 0.27
B) 0.027
C) 2.7
D) 27
Answer:
B) 0.027

Question 22.
If \(\frac{5}{7}\) – \(\frac{a}{b}\) = \(\frac{3}{7}\), then \(\frac{a}{b}\) = …………….
A) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{8}{7}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 23.
Sreeja read \(\frac{3}{5}\) of the page of a text books, then the remaining pages to be read are ………………
A) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 24.
3.44 + 0.475 + 76.9 = ………………
A) 79.815
B) 80.715
C) 80.825
D) 80.815
Answer:
D) 80.815

Question 25.
The place value of 2 in 65.328 is ………………..
A) tens
B) tenths
C) hundredths
D) thousandths
Answer:
C) hundredths

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. A fraction in which denominator is greater than the numerator is called ……………..
Answer:
Improper fraction

2. All proper fractions are less than ……………..
Answer:
1

3. Fractions with the same denominators are called ………………
Answer:
Like fractions

4. Out of the two fractions with the same denominator, the one having the smallest numerator is ……………….
Answer:
Small fraction

5. Product of two proper fractions is …………….
Answer:
Proper fraction

6. Product of proper and improper fraction is …………….
Answer:
Improper fraction

7. Any two non-zero numbers whose product is 1 are called ………………. to each other.
Answer:
Reciprocals

8. Another way of expressing a fraction is …………….
Answer:
Decimal

9. The dot or the point between the two digits is called the …………..
Answer:
Decimal point

10. Decimals having different number of decimal places are called …………..
Answer:
Unlike decimals

11. Fractions which has denominator 10,100,1000, …………….. etc. are called ……………..
Answer:
Decimal fraction

12. Ascending order of 0.875, 8.75, 0.0875, 87.5 is ………………..
Answer:
0.0875, 0.875, 8.75, 87.5

13. Mixed fraction of \(\frac{121}{5}\) is ………………
Answer:
24\(\frac {1}{5}\)

14. 2070 paise = ……………… rupees.
Answer:
₹ 20.70

15. Sreekari bought 16.75 mts of cloth. She used 12.50 mts. cloth to her dress, then the length of remaining cloth is ………………
Answer:
4.25 mts

16. Rainfall in a city in 3 consecutive days is 18 mm, 24 mm and 102 mm. Then the
total rainfall is …………….. cm.
Answer:
14.4 cm

17. Equivalent fraction of \(\frac{55}{121}\) is ………………..
Answer:
\(\frac {5}{11}\)

18. 14kg 750g + 125kg 50g + 6kg 75g = …………..
Answer:
145kg 875g

19. 32 – 0.003 = ……………
Answer:
31.997

20. 5 grams = …………….. kg.
Answer:
\(\frac {5}{1000}\) (or) 0.005

21. 32 ml = …………….. l.
Answer:
\(\frac {32}{1000}\) (or) 0.032

22. \(\frac {2}{5}\) of 120 is ………………
Answer:
48

23. If \(\frac {1}{4}\) of a number is 24, then the number is ……………
Answer:
96

24. Place value of 5 in 73.43\(\underline{5}\)2 is …………….
Answer:
Thousandths

25. 2\(\frac{1}{5}\) + 3\(\frac{2}{5}\) + \(\frac{4}{5}\) + \(\frac{8}{5}\) = …………….
Answer:
8

III. Match the following:
A)

Fractions	Name
1. \(\frac{5}{3}\)	a) Like fractions
2. 3\(\frac{1}{4}\)	b) Equivalent fractions
3. \(\frac{4}{7}\)	c) Mixed fraction
4. \(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{2}{3}, \frac{4}{3}\)	d) Proper fraction
5. \(\frac{8}{9}, \frac{16}{18}, \frac{24}{27}\)	e) Improper fraction

Answer:
1. \(\frac{5}{3}\) – e) Improper fraction
2. 3\(\frac{1}{4}\) – c) Mixed fraction
3. \(\frac{4}{7}\) – d) Proper fraction
4. \(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{2}{3}, \frac{4}{3}\) – a) Like fractions
5. \(\frac{8}{9}, \frac{16}{18}, \frac{24}{27}\) – b) Equivalent fractions

B)

1) Place value of 5 in 13.543	a) \(\frac{2}{1000}\)
2) Place value of 8 in 183.654	b) \(\frac{5}{10}\)
3) Place value of 6 in 9.0658	c) 80
4) Place value of 2 in 68.452	d) \(\frac{6}{100}\)
5) Place value of 2 in 824.136	e) 20

Answer:
1) Place value of 5 in 13.543 – b) \(\frac{5}{10}\)
2) Place value of 8 in 183.654 – c) 80
3) Place value of 6 in 9.0658 – d) \(\frac{6}{100}\)
4) Place value of 2 in 68.452 – a) \(\frac{2}{1000}\)
5) Place value of 2 in 824.136 – e) 20

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Integers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 4th Lesson Integers with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
The numbers which are greater than zero are called ………..
A) Positive numbers
B) Negative numbers
C) Natural numbers
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Positive numbers

Question 2.
Zero is a …………….
A) positive number
B) negative number
C) A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
D) neither A nor B

Question 3.
Integers are denoted by ……………
A) N
B) G
C) W
D) Z
Answer:
D) Z

Question 4.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …………….. are called ………………
A) Natural numbers
B) Positive integers
C) Both A and B
D) Negative integers
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 5.
Negative integers are represented by ……………
A) Z⁺
B) Z^–
C) N
D) W
Answer:
B) Z^–

Question 6.
The Mathematician who used minus (-) for negative numbers is ………………….
A) Brahma Gupta
B) Ramanujan
C) Kaprekar
D) Aditya
Answer:
A) Brahma Gupta

Question 7.
Natural numbers are represented by ………………
A) Z^–
B) Z⁺
C) N
D) W
Answer:
C) N

Question 8.
Non-negative integers are represented by
A) Z^–
B) Z
C) N
D) W
Answer:
D) W

Question 9.
On the number line, if we move to left the value of the number ……………..
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Decreases

Question 10.
The additive inverse of 1 is
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) 2
Answer:
C) -1

Question 11.
Sum of two positive integers is ……………….
A) Negative
B) Positive
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
B) Positive

Question 12.
For any integer a, -(-a) = ………………..
A) a
B) -a
C) 2a
D) 0
Answer:
A) a

Question 13.
Which is the smelliest of these numbers -11, -9, -7, -4?
A) -11
B) -7
C) -9
D) -4
Answer:
A) -11

Question 14.
The Loss of ₹500 is represented as
A) +500
B) -500
C) A or B
D) None
Answer:
B) -500

Question 15.
Subtract (-119) from – 1052.
A)-833
B) -1033
C) -933
D) -1133
Answer:
C) -933

Question 16.
A frog was fell into a 30 feet deep well. Each hour it managed to climb up 3 feet, but the following hour, it slipped back 2 feet. In how many hours did it get out of the well?
A) 28 hours
B) 29 hours
C) 31 hours
D) 30 hours
Answer:
D) 30 hours

Question 17.
The number that comes after-6 on the number line is …………….
A) – 7
B) – 5
C) + 7
D) + 5
Answer:
A) – 7

Question 18.
The value of 45 + (-21) – (-20) =
A) +4
B) +44
C) -4
D) -44
Answer:
B) +44

Question 19.
In which of the following places the temperature is low?
A) Kashmir, -10°C
B) Lambasingi, -2°C
C) Shimla, – 6°C
D) Krosur, 12°C
Answer:
A) Kashmir, -10°C

Question 20.
The value of 1 – (-1) + (-2) is ………………
A) 4
B) 3
C) -2
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The numbers which are less than zero are called …………….
Answer:
Negative numbers

2. The positive numbers, zero and negative numbers together can form …………
Answer:
Integers

3. The letter Z first used by the people to represent integers is ………………
Answer:
Germans

4. The meaning of German word Zehlen means ………………
Answer:
Number (Integers)

5. -1, -2, -3, -4,…….. are called …………..
Answer:
Negative integers

6. Positive integers are represented by ……………..
Answer:
Z⁺

7. Natural numbers are also called …………..
Answer:
Non-Negative integers

8. Every integer can be represented on a number line ………….. or …………….
Answer:
horizontally (or) vertically

9. On the number line, the value of a number increases when we move to ………………
Answer:
right

10. Additive inverse of(-a) is ……………..
Answer:
a

11. The sum of two integers one of which is positive and the other is negative, then the sum may be either ……………. or ……………..
Answer:
positive, negative (or) zero

12. Sum of two negative numbers is always ……………….
Answer:
Negative

13. The biggest of the numbers 5, -6, 3, -82, 35 is ……………….
Answer:
35

14. A profit of ₹ 1000 is represented as ……………..
Answer:
+1000

15. A deposit of rupees of ₹3000 in bank is represented as ………………. with appropriate sign.
Answer:
+ 3000

16. “An aeroplane is flying at a height of 2500 metres”. Sign to be used for the statement is ……………….
Answer:
+ 2500

17. “A shark fish swimming in the sea at a depth of 4500 feet”. Sign to be used for the statement is ………………
Answer:
-4000 feet

18. On the number line which is to the right of ‘0’ is ……………..
Answer:
1

19. Simplify: (-111) + 222 + (-333) + (-444) ………………….
Answer:
-666

20. Ascending order of -2, 0, 1, -1, 5 is ………………..
Answer:
-2, -1, 0, 1, 5

III. Match the following:

A)

1) Natural numbers	a) W
2) Whole numbers	b) Z+
3) Integers	c) N
4) Positive integers	d) Z–
5) Negative integers	e) Z

Answer:
1) Natural numbers – c) N
2) Whole numbers – a) W
3) Integers – e) Z
4) Positive integers – b) Z⁺
5) Negative integers – d) Z^–

B)

1) Additive inverse of – 2 is	a) -1
2) On the number line which is to the left of ‘0’is ………………	b) -2
3) Biggest negative integer is ……………..	c) 2
4) Greatest integer of -2, -10, -8, -100	d) 1
5) The value of 2-(-2) + (-4) =	e) 0

Answer:
1) Additive inverse of – 2 is – c) 2
2) On the number line which is to the left of ‘0’is ……………… – a) -1
3) Biggest negative integer is …………….. – a) -1
4) Greatest integer of -2, -10, -8, -100 – b) -2
5) The value of 2-(-2) + (-4) = – e) 0

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Electricity – Current and Its Effect on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
1 KW =
A) 10 W
B) 100 W
C) 1000 W
D) 10,000 W
Answer:
C) 1000 W

Question 2.
The element in electric cooker is made up of
A) Copper
B) Tungstun
C) Aluminium
D) Nichrome
Answer:
D) Nichrome

Question 3.
Wastage of electricity can be reduced by using
A) CFLS
B) Motors
C) Heaters
D) Bulbs
Answer:
A) CFLS

Question 4.
symbol indicates
A) a bulb
B) switch
C) battery
D) fuse
Answer:
D) fuse

Question 5.
Two or more cells joined together form a
A) Dry cell
B) Battery
C) Transformer
D) MCB
Answer:
B) Battery

Question 6.
If the circuit is open, then current
A) flows
B) flows or may not flow
C) reverses
D) does not flow
Answer:
D) does not flow

Question 7.
In parallel combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Does not change
D) Remain same
Answer:
B) Decreases

Question 8.
In series combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) May increases or decreases
D) Does not changes.
Answer:
A) Increases

Question 9.
Positive terminal of the dry cell is made of
A) graphite
B) copper
C) zinc
D) iron
Answer:
A) graphite

Question 10.
Negative terminal of the dry cell is made of
A) graphite
B) copper
C) zinc
D) iron
Answer:
C) zinc

Question 11.
Dry cell converts ………….. energy into electrical energy.
A) potential
B) chemical
C) magnetic
D) kinetic
Answer:
B) chemical

Question 12.
Electric iron, electric cooker contain a coil of wire made of
A) nichrome
B) zinc
C) iron
D) any one
Answer:
A) nichrome

Question 13.
In electric cooker the amount of heat produced in coil depends on
A) thickness
B) material
C) length
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 14.
Wastage of electricity reduced by
A) tube light
B) bed light
C) bulb
D) CFL bulb
Answer:
D) CFL bulb

Question 15.
One of the following is preferable instead of fuse
A) MAB
B) MCB
C) MDB
D) MOB
Answer:
B) MCB

Question 16.
1 unit of power equal to
A) 1MW
B) 1MWH
C) 1KW
D) 1KWH
Answer:
D) 1KWH

Question 17.
Michael Faraday invented
A) transformer
B) dynamo
C) generator
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 18.
In a dry cell what serves as a positive terminal?
A) Zinc metal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Carbon powder
D) Carbon Rod
Answer:
D) Carbon Rod

Question 19.
In a circuit the switch is in this position then the bulb is

Answer:
A)

Question 20.

It is a
A) parallel connection of bulbs
B) series connection of cells
C) simple circut
D) parallel connection of cells
Answer:
C) simple circut

Question 21.

It is a
A) simple circut
B) connecting cells in parallel
C) connecting cells in series
D) connecting bulb in parallel
Answer:
B) connecting cells in parallel

Question 22.
L.E.D means
A) Light Emitting Device
B) Light Emitting Diode
C) Light Emergency Device
D) Light Energy Device
Answer:
B) Light Emitting Diode

Question 23.
The following consume less electricity

Answer:
D)

Question 24.
What is the name of this instrument?

A) Fuse
B) Digital meter
C) Miniature circut breaker
D) Switch
Answer:
C) Miniature circut breaker

Question 25.
The watts for 1 kilowatt
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
Answer:
C) 1000

Question 26.
1 unit of electricity means
A) It uses up 1 watt per 1 hour
B) 1 kilowatt per 1 hour
C) 1 watt per 10 hours
D) 1 kilowatt per 10 hours
Answer:
B) 1 kilowatt per 1 hour

Question 27.
Who invented the first electric generator?
A) Wattson
B) Galileo
C) Faraday
D) James watt
Answer:
C) Faraday

Question 28.
CFL means
A) Compact Fluorescent Lamp
B) Compact Fluorescent Light
C) Colour Fluorscent Lamp
D) Colour Fluorescent Light
Answer:
A) Compact Fluorescent Lamp

Question 29.
This instrument contains a coil of wire made up of Nichrome
A) Electric iron
B) Electric cooker
C) Electric heater
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 30.
Which protects our house when current in a circut exceeds the safe limit.
A) LED
B) Digital meter
C) MCB
D) CFL
Answer:
C) MCB

Question 31.
In a dry cell which serves as a negative terminal?
A) Zinc metal
B) Carbon Rod
C) Ammonium chloride
D) Carbon powder
Answer:
A) Zinc metal

Question 32.
In parallel combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Does not change
D) Remains same
Answer:
B) Decreases

Question 33.
Device used to close or open an electric circuit is
A) electric bulb
B) battery
C) switch
D) fuse
Answer:
C) switch

Question 34.
Safety device used electric circuit is
A) electric bulb
B) battery
C) switch
D) fuse
Answer:
D) fuse

Question 35.
It is a

A) Connecting cells in series
B) Connecting cells in parallel
C) Connecting bulbs in series
D) Connecting bulbs in parallel
Answer:
B) Connecting cells in parallel

Question 36.
symbol represents
A) Fuse
B) Bulb
C) Key
D) Cell
Answer:
A) Fuse

Question 37.
It is used to protect the circuit

Answer:
C)

Question 38.
Guess the reasons for not glowing the bulb in the circuit.
A) Chemicals get exhausted
B) Connections are not in proper
C) Switch may not work properly
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
Among these which electric bulb consumes less power?
A) L.E.D. Bulb
B) CFL Bulb
C) Tubelight
D) Round bulb
Answer:
A) L.E.D. Bulb

Question 40.
The connection of serial sets that are used in marriages
A) Parallel
B) Series
C) Parallel, Series
D) Series, Parallel
Answer:
B) Series

Question 41.
After studying the lesson electricity and its effect what safety device do you use in electric circuit?
A) Bulb
B) Battery
C) Switch
D) Fuse
Answer:
D) Fuse

Question 42.
Name the device which “turns off’ automatically when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit
A) Battery
B) Compressed lamp
C) Miniature Circuit Breaker
D) Switch
Answer:
C) Miniature Circuit Breaker

Question 43.

The circuit symbols given in the image are ……….. and …………
A) Battery, fuse
B) Battery, cell
C) Fuse, battery
D) Bulb, switch
Answer:
A) Battery, fuse

Question 44.
Find the correct statement from the following.
P: In series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs will stop glowing.
Q: In parallel connection, if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs continue to glow.
A) P is correct
B) Q is incorrect
C) Both P & Q are correct
D) Both P & Q are incorrect
Answer:
C) Both P & Q are correct

Question 45.
A safety device used to avoid fire when excessive electric current flows through a circuit is called a …………
A) Bulb
B) Fuse
C) Inverter
D) Power bank
Answer:
B) Fuse

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 3 HCF and LCM on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 3rd Lesson HCF and LCM with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
If any number has 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8 in its ones place, then it is divisible by ……………..
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 2.
If any number is divisible by both 2 and 3, then it is divisible by ………………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
C) 6

Question 3.
If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 9, then the number is divisible by …………….
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
Answer:
D) 9

Question 4.
The numbers with zero at ones place are divisible by ……………..
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 5.
In any number if the number formed by the last two digits is divisible by 4, then the number is divisible by …………………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
B) 4

Question 6.
Which of the following number is divisible by 6?
A) 125734
B) 237197
C) 237192
D) 726352
Answer:
C) 237192

Question 7.
Number divisible by 11 is
A) 10934
B) 726351
C) 7138965
D) 376845
Answer:
A) 10934

Question 8
………………… is the factor of every number.
A) 0
B) 2
C) 5
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 9.
The number which is divisible by 1 and itself is called ………………
A) Composite number
B) Prime number
C) Even number
D) Odd number
Answer:
B) Prime number

Question 10.
Smallest even prime number is ………………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
Answer:
C) 2

Question 11.
Smallest even composite number is ……………….
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
B) 4

Question 12.
Number 1 is …………….
A) Prime
B) Composite
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer:
B) Composite

Question 13.
Every prime number other than 2 is ………………
A) even
B) composite
C) odd
D) A and B
Answer:
C) odd

Question 14.
If the difference of any two prime numbers is 2, then they are said to be
A) Twin primes
B) Co-primes
C) Perfect numbers
D) Exact numbers
Answer:
A) Twin primes

Question 15.
The method of division which is used to find HCF was invented by the Mathematician ……………….
A) Ramanujan
B) Euclid
C) Aditya
D) Kaprekar
Answer:
B) Euclid

Question 16.
HCF means ………………..
A) Highest Common Factor
B) Highest Continued Factor
C) Hight of the Common Factor
D) Highest composite factor
Answer:
A) Highest Common Factor

Question 17.
The product of two numbers =
A) L.C.M
B) H.C.F
C) L.C.M × H.C.F
D) H.C.F × G.C.D
Answer:
C) L.C.M × H.C.F

Question 18.
HCF of 80 and 56 is ………………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 19.
LCM of 45 and 90 is ……………..
A) 180
B) 45
C) 90
D) 15
Answer:
C) 90

Question 20.
What is the HCF of any pair of coprimes?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
C) 1

Question 21.
Which of the following is a pair of coprimes?
A) (30, 35)
B) (99, 21)
C) (3, 5)
D) (63, 45)
Answer:
C) (3, 5)

Question 22.
The factors of 12 are ………………
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
Answer:
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a prime?
A) 81
B) 71
C) 31
D) 41
Answer:
A) 81

Question 24.
The product of two numbers is 360. If HCF is 9, then their LCM is …………….
A) 20
B) 40
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
B) 40

Question 25.
Every polyndrome number is divisible by ……………..
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 11
Answer:
D) 11

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The process of checking whether a number is divisible by a given number or not without actual division is called …………….. for that number.
Answer:
Divisibility rule

2. If the sum of the digits of a number is a multiple of 3, then that number is divisible by ……………….
Answer:
3

3. The numbers with zero or five at ones place are divisible by ………………
Answer:
5

4. The numbers which are divisible by 5 and 2 are divisible by ………………
Answer:
10

5. In any number with 4 or more digits the number formed by the last three digits
is divisible by 8, then the number is divisible by ……………….
Answer:
8

6. In a number if the difference between the sum of the digits at odd places and the sum of the digits at even places from the right is either 0 or a multiple of 11, then the number is divisible by ……………..
Answer:
11

7. A number which divides the other number exactly is called …………….. of the number.
Answer:
Factor

8. Numbers that have more than two factors are called …………….. numbers.
Answer:
Composite

9. Smallest prime number is ……………
Answer:
2

10. Smallest odd prime is ……………..
Answer:
3

11. Smallest odd composite is ……………..
Answer:
9

12. The numbers with only 1 as a common factor are called …………….
Answer:
Co-prime (or) relatively prime

13. If the sum of all factors of a number is two times the number, then the number is called …………………..
Answer:
Perfect number

14. The process to express the given number as the product of prime number is called …………………
Answer:
Prime factorization

15. G.C.D means ………………
Answer:
Greatest Common Divisor

16. L.C.M means ………………
Answer:
Least Common Multiple

17. HCF is also known as ……………….
Answer:
Greatest Common Divisor (GCD)

18. LCM × HCF = ……………..
Answer:
Product of two numbers

19. Kaprekar’s constant is ……………..
Answer:
6174

20. The LCM of 21, 35, 40 is ………………
Answer:
210

21. HCF of 3, 5 and 7 is ……………..
Answer:
1

22. If the HCF and LCM of two numbers are 1 and 91, then the product of two
numbers is ………………
Answer:
91

23. The nearest number to 2020 which is divisible by 11 is ……………..
Answer:
2024

24. The smallest number which and when 7 is subtracted from it is exactly divisible by 7, 8, 9 is ……………
Answer:
511

25. The greatest 3-digited number which is divisible by 26, 14, 91 leaves the remainder 7 is ……………..
Answer:
182

III. Match the following :

A)

Divisibility Rule	Number
1) If sum of the digits of a number divisible by 3	a) 6
2) Number has 0, 2, 4, 6, 8 in units place	b) 4
3) Number formed by the last two digits (from the right) is divisible by 4	c) 5
4) If the number is divisible by 2 and 3	d) 3
5) If the number Has 0 or 5 in units place	e) 2

Answer:
1) – d) 3
2) – e) 2
3) – b) 4
4) – a) 6
5) – c) 5

B)

Divisibility Rule	Number
1) Difference of the digits in the odd and even places is divisible by 11	a) 10
2) Number formed by the last three digits (from the right) is divisible by 8	b) 9
3) If the number has 0 in the units place	c) 12
4) If the sum of the digits is divisible by 9	d) 11
5) If the number is divisible by 3 and 4	e) 8

Answer:
1) – d) 11
2) – e) 8
3) – a) 10
4) – b) 9
5) – c) 12

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Whole Numbers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 2nd Lesson Whole Numbers with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
Whole numbers are represented by
A) N
B) V
C) W
D) O
Answer:
C) W

Question 2.
Successor of the smallest whole number is ………………..
A) 0
B) 1
C) 10
D) 9
Answer:
B) 1

Question 3.
Are all natural numbers are whole numbers?
A) Yes
B) No
C) We can’t say
D) None
Answer:
A) Yes

Question 4.
If 5 and 3 are whole numbers, then their sum is ………………
A) Whole number
B) Natural number
C) Negative number
D) None
Answer:
A) Whole number

Question 5.
Sum of any two whole numbers is always a whole number. This property is called ……………..
A) Commutative
B) Associative
C) Closure
D) None
Answer:
C) Closure

Question 6.
Subtraction of whole numbers is ………………
A) Closed
B) Not Closed
C) Can’t say
D) None
Answer:
B) Not Closed

Question 7.
5 × 4 = 4 × 5 this property is called
A) Closure
B) Associative
C) Commutative
D) B and C
Answer:
C) Commutative

Question 8.
6 – 9 9 – 6
A) =
B) ≠
C) 0
D) None
Answer:
B) ≠

Question 9.
7 + 3 3 + 7
A) =
B) ≠
C) >
D) <
Answer:
A) =

Question 10.
(5 + 4) + 3 = 5 + (4 + 3), this property is called ………………
A) Closure
B) Commutative
C) Associative
D) Additive
Answer:
C) Associative

Question 11.
(3 + 4) + 5 = 3 + (4 + 5), this property is called …………………
A) Closure
B) Commutative
C) Associative
D) None
Answer:
C) Associative

Question 12.
If a, b, c are whole numbers the distributive property of multiplication over addition is ……………
A) a + (b × c)
B) a × b + a × c
C) a × (b + c)
D) c = b
Answer:
D) c = b

Question 13.
Additive identity is …………………
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 4
Answer:
B) 0

Question 14.
a × (b – c) = (a × b) – (a × c), this property is ………………
A) Distributive of multiplication over addition.
B) Distributive of multiplication over subtraction.
C) Associative over addition.
D) Associative over subtraction.
Answer:
B) Distributive of multiplication over subtraction.

Question 15.
{Whole numbers} – {Natural numbers} = ………………
A) Whole number
B) Natural number
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
A) Whole number

Question 16.
We can always form a ……………… with two points.
A) Line
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) None
Answer:
A) Line

Question 17.
65 × 99999 = ……………….
A) 64935
B) 644935
C) 649335
D) 6499935
Answer:
D) 6499935

Question 18.
123456 × 8 + 6 = ………………..
A) 987654
B) 9876543
C) 876543
D) 98765
Answer:
A) 987654

Question 19.
Number of whole numbers between 0 and 50 is ………………..
A) 49
B) 50
C) 51
D) 52
Answer:
A) 49

Question 20.
91 × 11 × 5 =
A) 4004
B) 5005
C) 3003
D) 6006
Answer:
B) 5005

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Smallest number in W is ………………..
Answer:
0

2. Predecessor of 1 is …………………..
Answer:
0

3. Are all whole numbers natural numbers? …………………
Answer:
No

4. If 5 and 4 are whole numbers, then of (5 – 4) is a ………………. number.
Answer:
Whole

5. Whole numbers W = ………………..
Answer:
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, …………..}

6. The value of a number from 0 to its right ……………….
Answer:
Increases

7. 8 + 9 = 9 + 8 is called ……………….
Answer:
Addition is commutative

8. (5 × 6) × 2 = 5 × (6 × 2) is called ………………..
Answer:
Associative over Multiplication

9. (a × b) + (a × c) = ……………….
Answer:
a × (b + c)

10. Multiplicative identity is ………………
Answer:
1

11. Division by zero is ……………….
Answer:
not defined

12. If
143 × 7 × 1 = 1001
143 × 7 × 2 = 2002
143 × 7 × 9 = ………………
Answer:
9009

13. How many 7’s are needed to get 161?
Answer:
23

14. 99999 × 0 = ………………
Answer:
0

15. 13680347 × 9 = ……………
Answer:
123123123

16. a – b b – a
Answer:
≠

17. Example for a rectangle number ………………
Answer:
2 × 3 (or) 3 × 2 (or) 2 × 4 (or) 4 × 3, etc

18. Predecessor of smallest whole number is ……………..
Answer:
0

19. 1111 × 1111 = ……………..
Answer:
1234321

III. Which of the statements are True (T) and which are False (F)?

i) Zero is the smallest whole number.
Answer:
True

ii) There is a natural number that has no predecessor.
Answer:
True

iii) All whole numbers are natural numbers.
Answer:
False

iv) We can show the greatest whole number on the number line.
Answer:
False

v) A whole number that lies on the number line lies to the right side of another number is the greater number.
Answer:
True

vi) We can’t show the smallest whole number on the number line.
Answer:
False

vii) Additive identity is 1.
Answer:
False

viii) A whole number on the left of another number on the number line is greater.
Answer:
False

ix) Multiplicative identity is 1.
Answer:
True

x) 895 is on the right of 239.
Answer:
True