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Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Matter Around Us on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 3rd Lesson Matter Around Us with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is more compressible ?
A) wood
B) air
C) water
D) sponge
Answer:
B) air

Question 2.
Powdered salt is a
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) none
Answer:
A) solid

Question 3.
Rate of diffusion is high in
A) ink drop
B) KMnO₄ solution
C) oxygen
D) KMnO₄ crystal
Answer:
C) oxygen

Question 4.
Which of the following is true in case of particles of matter ?
A) tiny
B) have space between them
C) have force of attraction between them
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 5.
The reason for high rate of diffusion in gas is
A) higher speed of gas particles
B) greater space between gas particles
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 6.
The melting point depends on
A) space among its particles
B) force of attraction among its particles
C) shape of the substance
D) state of the substance
Answer:
B) force of attraction among its particles

Question 7.
Evaporation is influenced by
A) surface area
B) humidity
C) wind speed
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 8.
Matter occupies ……………. and has …………….
A) length, mass
B) space, mass
C) mass, space
D) none of these
Answer:
B) space, mass

Question 9.
The state of matter which have a defi-nite shape and a fixed volume is …………
A) solids
B) liquids
C) gas
D) none of these
Answer:
A) solids

Question 10.
The state of matter which get the shape of container is ………..
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) plasma
Answer:
B) liquid

Question 11.
Liquids can flow easily from one place to another. So they are called …………
A) rigid substances
B) floaters
C) fluids
D) volatile
Answer:
C) fluids

Question 12.
………….. have no fixed shape, but have a fixed volume.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gases
D) Plasma
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 13.
CNG stands for ………
A) Central Natural Gas
B) Central Nano Gas
C) Compressed Natural Gas
D) Conditional Natural Gas
Answer:
C) Compressed Natural Gas

Question 14.
…………. neither have a fixed shape nor volume.
A) Solids
B) Liquids
C) Gases
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Gases

Question 15.
Decrease in the volume of same quan-tity of gas under pressure is known as ……..
A) compressibility
B) rigidity
C) expansion
D) contraction
Answer:
A) compressibility

Question 16.
LPG stands for ………….
A) Litre Petroleum Gas
B) Longitudinal Petroleum Gas
C) Latitudinal Petroleum Gas
D) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
Answer:
D) Liquefied Petroleum Gas

Question 17.
…………. are highly compressible.
A) Liquids
B) Gases
C) Solids
D) Both A & B
Answer:
B) Gases

Question 18.
The movement of air, vapours of scent and smoke is known as ………..
A) diffusion
B) compressibility
C) rigidity
D) evaporation
Answer:
A) diffusion

Question 19.
The rate of diffusion is higher for ……..
A) solids
B) liquids
C) gases
D) none of these
Answer:
C) gases

Question 20.
All matter is made up of …….
A) very large particles
B) large particles
C) small particles
D) tiny particles
Answer:
D) tiny particles

Question 21.
Particles of matter have some …………. between them.
A) weight
B) mass
C) space
D) volume
Answer:
C) space

Question 22.
On dissolving solid in liquid, ………… particles enter into space between the …………. particles.
A) solid, liquid
B) liquid, liquid
C) liquid, solid
D) solid, solid
Answer:
A) solid, liquid

Question 23.
Particles of matter have ………….. between them that keeps the particles together.
A) force of repulsion
B) force of attraction
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) force of attraction

Question 24.
Diffusion is possible only when the particles of matter …………
A) are stationary
B) move continuously
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) move continuously

Question 25.
Space between the particles is very high in ………..
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) none of these
Answer:
C) gas

Question 26.
Rate of diffusion of gases is very high ………. because and ……….. of gas particles.
A) lower’speed, least space
B) higher speed, least space
C) higher speed, greater space
D) lower speed, greater space
Answer:
C) higher speed, greater space

Question 27.
Volume of water shinks between ……………
A) 0°C to 4°C
B) 50°C to 100°C
C) 60°C to 70°C
D) 100°C to 120°C
Answer:
A) 0°C to 4°C

Question 28.
The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid is called ……..
A) boiling point
B) melting point
C) sublimation point
D) freezing point
Answer:
B) melting point

Question 29.
The process of melting is called …………..
A) evaporation
B) fusion
C) boiling
D) sublimation
Answer:
B) fusion

Question 30.
The melting point of substance depends ………….. on among the particles.
A) force of attraction
B) force to repulsion
C) both A & B
D) none of these
Answer:
A) force of attraction

Question 31.
As the force of attraction among the particles increases the melting point ………….
A) increases
B) decreases
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
A) increases

Question 32.
The amount of heat energy that is required to overcome the attractive force among the particles to change the state is given by ………… of the substance.
A) specific heat
B) heat capacity
C) latent heat
D) none of these
Answer:
C) latent heat

Question 33.
The temperature at which liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is known as its ………….
A) boiling point
B) melting point
C) freezing point
D) sublimation point
Answer:
A) boiling point

Question 34.
Statement -1: Matter can change its state by changing temperature.
Statement – II: Matter can change its state by changing pressure.
A) Both statements -1 & II are true.
B) Statement -1 is true and statement – II is false.
C) Statement -1 is false and statement – II is true.
D) Both statements -1 & II are false.
Answer:
A) Both statements -1 & II are true.

Question 35.
300 K is equal to ……….. °C.
A) 37
B) 17
C) 27
D) 47
Answer:
C) 27

Question 36.
The phenomena of change of liquid into vapours at any temperature be-low its boiling point is called ………..
A) evaporation
B) sublimation
C) boiling
D) melting
Answer:
A) evaporation

Question 37.
As the surface area increases, the rate of evaporation ……………
A) increases
B) decreases
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
A) increases

Question 38.
……………. is a surface phenomena.
A) Boiling
B) Melting
C) Evaporation
D) Sublimation
Answer:
C) Evaporation

Question 39.
…………….. is bulk phenomena.
A) Boiling
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Boiling

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Salt crystal is not solid. Reason (R) : Shape of the salt crystals is depending on the shape of the container.
A) A’ and ‘R’ are true and ’R’ is a cor-rect explanation of A’
B) A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of A’
C) A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
D) A’ and ‘R’ are false
Answer:
D) A’ and ‘R’ are false

Question 41.
Assertion (A) : Smell of petrol can identify from some distance. Reason (R) : Solids diffuse in liquid.
A) A and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a cor-rect explanation of A’
B) A’ and ’R’ are true and ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of A’
C) A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
D) A’ and ‘R’ are false
Answer:
B) A’ and ’R’ are true and ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of A’

Question 42.
Which of the following statement is true ?
A. During respiration oxygen diffuses from lungs into blood.
B. During respiration carbon dioxide diffuses from blood to lungs.
A) A only
B) B only
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 43.
Who is correct ?
Sailaja : NH₃ diffuses faster than HCl.
Lalitha: HCl diffuses faster than NH₃.
A) Sailaja
B) Lalitha
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Sailaja

Question 44.
Which of the following is a false state-ment?
A) There exists space between particles in gases.
B) Particles of matter attracts each other.
C) Particles of solids are bigger than that of gas particles.
D) None
Answer:
C) Particles of solids are bigger than that of gas particles.

Question 45.
Match the following:
1) Water – KMnO₄ crystals — a) solid diffuses in liquid
2) Air – SO₂ gas — b) gas diffuses in gas
3) Petrol – Kerosene — c) liquid diffuses in liquid
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Answer:
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Question 46.
Which of the following statement is true ?
Poomima : Solids, liquids and gases diffuse into liquids.
Sheshu : Rate of diffusion of gases is higher than that of liquids or solids.
A) Poornima
B) Sheshu
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 47.
Assertion (A) : Rate of diffusion of gases is higher than that of liquids or solids.
Reason (R_A): There is a greater space between gas particles in gases.
Reason (R_B): Speed of gas particles in gas is more than that of liquids or solids.
Correct Reason to Assertion is / are
A) R₁
B) R₂
C) R₁ and R₂
D) Neither R₁ nor R₂
Answer:
C) R₁ and R₂

Question 48.
Assertion (A): Particles in water at 0°C have more energy as compared to particles in ice at the same temperature.
Reason (R): The particles in water release heat energy during the pro¬cess of conversion from ice to liquid.
A) A is true and R is false
B) A is false and R is true
C) Both A and R are true
D) Both A and R are false
Answer:
A) A is true and R is false

Question 49.
Which of the following statement is true ?
A) Chaitanya : Water can change into watervapour without reaching its boiling point.
B) Subbayya : Ice can change into water without reaching its melting point.
A) A
B) B
C) A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer:
A) A

Question 50.
Milk : Liquid :: Curd : …………..
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma
Answer:
A) Solid

Question 51.
By the given conversation guess the substance ’A’.
Srilatha : Does ‘A’ possess fixed volume?
Susheela: Yes.
Srilatha : Does ‘A’ possess fixed shape?
Susheela: No.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) ‘B’ or ’C
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 52.
Guess the shape of the water, if it spills on a floor is
A) circle
B) line
C) triangular
D) we cannot say
Answer:
D) we cannot say

Question 53.
One litre of water can fill in cylinder A and two litres of water can fill in cylinder B. Then two litres of gas can fill in
A) cylinder A
B) cylinder B
C) both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D) not possible
Answer:
C) both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Question 54.
State of the water at 274 K is
A) liquid
B) solid
C) vapour
D) we cannot say
Answer:
A) liquid

Question 55.
In a cloudy day wet clothes do not dry quickly – because
A) more surface area
B) high wind speed
C) high humidity
D) above all
Answer:
C) high humidity

Question 56.
The force of attraction between the particles of ………….. is strong.
A) liquid
B) gas
C) solid
D) none
Answer:
C) solid

Question 57.
The process of conversion of solid into liquid is
A) fusion
B) diffusion
C) boiling
D) changing
Answer:
A) fusion

Question 58.
Oxygen and Carbon dioxide from atmosphere diffuse and dissolve in wa-ter is essential for survival of ………..
A) human beings
B) land animals
C) birds
D) aquatic animals
Answer:
D) aquatic animals

Question 59.
Among ammonia and hydrogen chloride which gas travels faster?
A) Ammonia
B) Hydrogen chloride
C) Both travel with same speed
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Ammonia

Question 60.
Hydrochloric acid and Ammonia react together and form a white substance called ………
A) Ammonium hydride
B) Ammonium hydroxide
C) Ammonium chloride
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
C) Ammonium chloride

Question 61.
When we heat a substance the particles gain additional ………….
A) density
B) mass
C) energy
D) none of these
Answer:
C) energy

Question 62.
Particles of water at 0°C have …………. energy than the particles in ice at the same temperature.
A) more
B) less
C) same
D) none of these
Answer:
A) more

Question 63.
Generally, the given instrument is not suitable to measure solids.
A) Simple balance
B) Measuring jar
C) Spring balance
D) None
Answer:
B) Measuring jar

Question 64.
Take water into a syringe, close the hole at the nosil and push the piston. By this experiment you can conclude that
A) Liquids are compressible
B) Liquids are not compressible
C) Liquids contain space between their particles
D) Liquids do not contain space between their particles
Answer:
B) Liquids are not compressible

Question 65.
Take some ice cubes in a beaker. Insert a thermometer. Heat the beaker continuously upto changed into water. The reading in thermometer
A) Increases continuously
B) Decreases continuously
C) First increases then decreases
D) Increases then remains constant
Answer:
D) Increases then remains constant

Question 66.
These substances are required to prove that the speed of diffusion is different for different substances.
A) Test tube, potassium permanganate, water
B) Flask, copper sulphate, water
C) Long glass tube, cotton, HCl, NH₃
D) Long glass tube, CuSO₄ Sol., ZnSO₄ Sol.
Answer:
C) Long glass tube, cotton, HCl, NH₃

Question 67.
To prove the effect of surface area on evaporation we need
A) water, test tube, conical flask
B) water, test tube, China dish
C) water, China dish, saucer
D) water, petrol, test tubes
Answer:
B) water, test tube, China dish

Question 68.
What do you to change a substance from gas state to liquid state ?
A) By giving heat
B) By cooling
C) By increasing pressure
D) By decreasing pressure
A) A or C
B) B or C
C) A or D
D) B or D
Answer:
D) B or D

Question 69.
The gas that diffuses from lungs into blood is ………….
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) water vapour
D) hydrogen
Answer:
A) oxygen

Question 70.
The gas that diffuses from blood into lungs is …………
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) water vapour
D) hydrogen
Answer:
B) carbon dioxide

Question 71.
Boiling point of water ……….
A) 0°C
B) 100°C
C) 373 K
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 72.
Solid carbon dioxide is known as …………
A) wet ice
B) dry ice
C) ice
D) liquid ice
Answer:
B) dry ice

Question 73.
The amount of water vapour present in air is called ………..
A) pressure
B) sweating
C) humidity
D) evaporation
Answer:
C) humidity

Question 74.
As the humidity increases, the rate of evaporation ………….
A) increases
B) decreases
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 75.
As the wind speed increases, the rate of evaporation …………
A) decreases
B) increases
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) increases

Question 76.
Water, milk, oil, stone, wood, rain-bow, book, clouds, smoke.
Which of the above is odd one ?
A) clouds
B) rainbow
C) water
D) smoke
Answer:
B) rainbow

Question 77.

From the above table, x, y and z are ……………. respectively.
A) solid, liquid, gas
B) solid, gas, liquid
C) liquid, solid, gas
D) liquid, gas, solid
Answer:
A) solid, liquid, gas

Question 78.

The boiling and melting points of the given substance ‘X’ are
A) 10°C, 80°C
B) 80°C, 10°C
C) 80°C, – 10°C
D) -10°C, 80°C
Answer:
B) 80°C, 10°C

Question 79.
A is liquid
B is solid
C is gas
Which of the above has both fixed shape and volume?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
Answer:
B) B

Question 80.
H₂O at 0°C – State (A)
H₂0 at 100°C – State (B)
H₂0 at 80°C – State (C)
Which state is solid state ?
A) State (A)
B) State (B)
C) State (C)
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 81.
(1) Wood, (2) Water, (3) Kerosene → Set 1
Which of the above evaporates quickly ?
A) Cl)
B) (2)
C) (3)
D) (2) and (3)
Answer:
C) (3)

Question 82.
In the given figure, identify the name of the material used in the dropper.

A) Blue ink
B) Red ink
C) Potassium permanganate
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 83.
What information does the given figure shows?

A) Arrangement of particles in solids
B) Arrangement of particles in liquids
C) Arrangement of particles in gases
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 84.
Which type of activity does the given figure represents?

A) Effect of temperature on change of state
B) Changes of matter
C) Diffusion of two gases
D) None
Answer:
A) Effect of temperature on change of state

Question 85.

Label the parts a and b as …………, ………….. is correct.
A) HCl, NH₃
B) NH₃, HCl
C) HCl, Cl₂
D) Cl₂, HCl
Answer:
B) NH₃, HCl

Question 86.

‘x’ is a substance with same volume. Hence ‘x’ can be labelled as
A) liquid
B) gas
C) A or B
D) solid
Answer:
A) liquid

Question 87.

If you draw figure ’C’, how do you draw?

Answer:
C)

Question 88.

Identify the solid state.
A) AB
B) BC
C) CD
D) DE
Answer:
A) AB

Question 89.
Sweating gives cooling while
A) condensing
B) evaporating
C) both A and B
D) boiling
Answer:
B) evaporating

Question 90.
LPG cylinders are very appreciable because,
A) LPG has no fixed shape
B) LPG has fixed volume
C) LPG is compressible
D) LPG is not compressible
Answer:
C) LPG is compressible

Question 91.
We store water in earthen pots in winter because,
A) pots contain tiny holes and evaporates water.
B) pots contain tiny holes and condensate water.
C) pots obsorb heat.
D) water absorb heat.
Answer:
A) pots contain tiny holes and evaporates water.

Question 92.
If humidity increases, then rate of evaporation of sweating over the body
A) increases
B) decreases
C) A or B
D) first increases and then decreases
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 93.
If the body temperature of a man is 34°C, it equals to
A) 34 K
B) 239 K
C) 234 K
D) 307 K
Answer:
D) 307 K

Question 94.
We prefer to sip hot tea with a saucer than a cup, because, saucer provides ………….. than a cup.
A) less volume
B) more volume
C) more surface area
D) less surface area
Answer:
C) more surface area

Question 95.
Steam produces more severe burns than boiled water, because steam contains energy of ……………. more than that of boiled water.
A) latent heat of fusion
B) latent heat of vapourisation
C) latent heat of melting
D) above all
Answer:
B) latent heat of vapourisation

Question 96.
We can observe water droplets on the outer surface of a glass containing ice cold water. Because
A) evaporation of ice – water in the glass.
B) evaporation of water vapour in the air.
C) condensation of ice cold water in the glass.
D) condensation of water vapour in the air.
Answer:
D) condensation of water vapour in the air.

Question 97.
Cotton clothes give comfort in summer. Because, they can support ……………. of the sweating.
A) condensation
B) evaporation
C) melting
D) above all
Answer:
B) evaporation

Question 98.
Rubber band is a
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) none
Answer:
A) solid

Question 99.
Sponge is a
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) none
Answer:
A) solid

Question 100.
Clothes can dry faster on
A) windy day
B) rainy day
C) sunny day
D) drier
Answer:
C) sunny day

Question 101.
Feeling cooler after sweating is an experience of
A) melting
B) boiling
C) sublimation
D) evaporation
Answer:
D) evaporation

Question 102.
For a given substance, in which state of matter is the space between its constituent particles the maximum?
A) In solid state
B) In liquid state
C) In gaseous state
D) Depends on the type of substance
Answer:
C) In gaseous state

Question 103.
During phase change the temperature of the substance
A) Keeps decreasing
B) Keeps increasing
C) Remains constant
D) First increases and then decreases
Answer:
C) Remains constant

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Force on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 1st Lesson Force with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The S.I. unit of force is
A) Pascal
B) Newton
C) Square metre
D) Tesla
Answer:
B) Newton

Question 2.
The resisting force to movement of an object is called
A) friction
B) magnetic force
C) tension
D) normal force
Answer:
A) friction

Question 3.
………… force acts on the suspended body along the string.
A) Friction
B) Tension
C) Magnetic force
D) Muscular force
Answer:
B) Tension

Question 4.
The forces exerted by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body is known as
A) Electrostatic force
B) Friction
C) Tension
D) Normal force
Answer:
A) Electrostatic force

Question 5.
When the object is in non-uniform motion, it is said to be in
A) displacement
B) momentum
C) acceleration
D) weight
Answer:
C) acceleration

Question 6.
The force that a solid surface exerts on any object in the normal direction is called
A) Muscular force
B) Normal Force
C) Tension force
D) Magnetic force
Answer:
B) Normal Force

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct about a force?
A) It can be seen but it can’t be felt.
B) It is needed to start an object moving.
C) It can change the shape of an object.
D) It can make moving object stop.
Answer:
A) It can be seen but it can’t be felt.

Question 8.
Pressure can be increased by
A) Increasing both the area and the force.
B) Decreasing the area and increasing the force.
C) Increasing the area and decreasing the force.
D) Decreasing both the area and the force.
Answer:
B) Decreasing the area and increasing the force.

Question 9.
Pressure varies with force (F) as (provided area is same)
A) F
B) \(\frac{1}{F}\)
C) F²
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~F}^{2}}\)
Answer:
A) F

Question 10.
An action that involves pushing force is
A) Dragging a bag on a floor.
B) Kicking a ball.
C) Lifting a book from a table.
D) Lifting a pen off a table.
Answer:
B) Kicking a ball.

Question 11.
Pressure depends on and
A) Mass, Force
B) Mass, Volume
C) Force, Area
D) Force, Volume
Answer:
C) Force, Area

Question 12.
Force has ………. as well as ………
A) mass, weight
B) magnitude, direction
C) mass, action
D) action, reaction
Answer:
B) magnitude, direction

Question 13.
Pressure exerted by a sharp needle on a surface is
A) More than the pressure exerted by a blunt needle.
B) Less than the pressure exerted by a blunt needle.
C) Equal to the pressure exerted by a blunt needle.
D) None of these.
Answer:
A) More than the pressure exerted by a blunt needle.

Question 14.
A force can change ……… of a body.
A) shape
B) direction
C) speed
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 15.
The force acting on unit area of a surface is called
A) momentum
B) density
C) pressure
D) velocity
Answer:
C) pressure

Question 16.
The unit of force in S.I. system is
i) Kg ms^-2
ii) Newton
iii) Pascal
iv) Kg ms^-1
A) Both i and ii
B) iii and iv
C) i and iii
D) i and iv
Answer:
A) Both i and ii

Question 17.
The unit of pressure in S.I. system is
A) Newton
B) Pascal
C) Ampere
D) Henry
Answer:
B) Pascal

Question 18.
Pressure = …………
A) Force
B) Force x area
C) Area / force
D) Force / area
Answer:
D) Force / area

Question 19.
The force of attraction between any two objects having mass is
A) frictional
B) muscular
C) gravitational
D) magnetic
Answer:
C) gravitational

Question 20.
For the body at rest, the net force is …………
A) ma
B) not equal to zero
C) 0
D) none of these
Answer:
C) 0

Question 21.
For the body at motion, the net force is
A) ma
B) o
C) not equal to zero
D) none of these
Answer:
C) not equal to zero

Question 22.
If the area is less, then the value of pressure
A) less
B) more
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) more

Question 23.
The force acting in normal direction is
A) gravitational force
B) magnetic force
C) muscular force
D) normal force
Answer:
D) normal force

Question 24.
The force exerted by using our body muscles is
A) muscular force
B) magnetic force
C) gravitational force
D) normal force
Answer:
A) muscular force

Question 25.
Choose correct matching option:
Group – A — Group – B
1. Gravitational force — a) Horse pulling a cart
2. Frictional force — b) Iron nails attracted
3. Electrostatic force — c) Fruit falling from a tree
4. Magnetic force — d) Heat is generated
5. Muscular — e) Bits of paper are raised
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b
D) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a

Question 26.
Choose correct matching option:
Group – A — Group – B
1. Force responsible for attraction between two objects. — a) Weight
2. Force by which the Earth, the Moon and other massive large objects attracts another object. — b) Mass
3. Force applied by muscles of our body. — c) Newton
4. Force exerted by a surface as an object moves across it. — d) Muscular
5. The amount of substance contained in an object. — e) Magnetic
6. Units of force. — f) Gravitational
7. Force due to earth is called — g) Frictional
A) 1 – e, 2 – f, 3 – d, 4 – g, 5 – b, 6 – c, 7 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e, 6 – f, 7 – g
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – f, 6 – g, 7 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – f, 5 – g, 6 – a, 7 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – e, 2 – f, 3 – d, 4 – g, 5 – b, 6 – c, 7 – a

Question 27.
The resistance to the movement of a body over the surface of another is
A) force
B) friction
C) workdone
D) energy
Answer:
B) friction

Question 28.
The direction of friction and the direction of motion are always
A) same
B) opposite
C) A or B
D) we cannot say
Answer:
B) opposite

Question 29.
Direction and magnitude are fixed for
A) normal force
B) frictional force
C) tension force
D) gravitational force due to earth
Answer:
D) gravitational force due to earth

Question 30.
The force acts between a charged balloon and piece of papers
A) magnetic
B) gravitational
C) contact
D) electrostatic
Answer:
D) electrostatic

Question 31.
The gravitational force acts between
A) you and your friend
B) you and earth
C) you and moon
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

Question 32.
We can differentiate ‘contact force’ and ‘field force’ by
A) magnitude
B) direction
C) distance of contact
D) above all
Answer:
C) distance of contact

Question 33.
Net force is zero, when an object is in
A) uniform motion
B) rest
C) A and B
D) uniform acceleration
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 34.
Which of the following is wrong?
A) Force can change the direction of an object
B) Force can change the shape of an object
C) Force can change the speed of an object
D) Force can change the mass of an object
Answer:
D) Force can change the mass of an object

Question 35.
Normal force is applicable only when the given force is exist.
A) gravitational
B) frictional
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
A) gravitational

Question 36.
Match it.
a) Changes the speed of an object — i) hitting a ball projected by a bowler
b) Changes the shape of an object — ii) making a ship with a paper
c) Changes the direction of an object — iii) applying brakes for a moving car
A) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
C) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
D) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
Answer:
A) a – iii, b – ii, c – i

Question 37.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) A car is in rest, no forces acting on it.
B) A car is in rest, net force acting on it is zero.
C) A car is in non-uniform motion, net force acting on it is zero.
D) None
Answer:
B) A car is in rest, net force acting on it is zero.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Magnetic force is a field force.
Reason (R): A magnet can attract or repel another magnet with zero magnitude.
A) A and R are true
B) A and R are false
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
C) A is true, but R is false

Question 39.
Take two balloons inflate them. Rub both with your hair. Bring them to closer to each other. Then they
A) repels
B) attracts
C) no change
D) we cannot say anything
Answer:
A) repels

Question 40.
An apple is falling from a tree. The forces acting on it
A) drag
B) gravitational
C) normal
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

Question 41.
A free falling body can stop by using
A) gravitational force
B) frictional force
C) normal force
D) any of the given
Answer:
C) normal force

Question 42.
Which of the following force is exists anywhere in the universe?
A) Gravitational force
B) Magnetic force
C) Normal force
D) Above all
Answer:
A) Gravitational force

Question 43.
What will happen, if you apply more force on a moving body?
A) Increases its speed
B) Decreases its speed
C) A or B
D) A and B
Answer:
C) A or B

Question 44.
Which one of these is not a contact force?
A) Muscular force
B) Frictional force
C) Normal force
D) Magnetic force
Answer:
D) Magnetic force

Question 45.
Let the forces F₁ and F₂ act on the table in opposite directions, F₁ > F₂ , the F_net = …………….
A) F₁ – F₂
B) F₂ + F₂
C) 0
D) 2F₂ – F₁
Answer:
A) F₁ – F₂

Question 46.
Which of the following statements about force is incorrect?
A) A force can change the mass of an object.
B) A force can change the speed (or) direction.
C) A force can change the shape and size of an object.
D) Forces can stop a moving object.
Answer:
A) A force can change the mass of an object.

Question 47.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Friction helps us to twist an object.
B) Friction is a force that opposes motion.
C) Objects have weight because of frictional force between them and the Earth.
D) More friction is produced between rough surfaces than between smooth surfaces.
Answer:
C) Objects have weight because of frictional force between them and the Earth.

Question 48.
Which of the following statements is correct about force of gravity?
A) The larger the mass, the greater is gravity.
B) Force of gravity is commonly called weight.
C) It makes the moon go around the earth.
D) The larger the weight of an object, greater is the gravity.
Answer:
C) It makes the moon go around the earth.

Question 49.
What will happen if a compass placed near a bar magnet?
A) Compass needle moves by muscular force.
B) Compass needle moves by gravitational force.
C) Compass needle moves by frictional force.
D) Compass needle moves by magnetic force.
Answer:
D) Compass needle moves by magnetic force.

Question 50.
What happens if a boy through a stone?
A) Some muscles will expend
B) Some muscles will contract
C) Both A and B
D) Some muscles will dislocate
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 51.
A book on a table is in rest. Then the magnitude of the given force is zero.
A) Normal
B) Frictional
C) Gravitational
D) None
Answer:
B) Frictional

Question 52.
What will happen if thread is broken?

A) Force of tension > Force of gravity
B) Force of friction > Force of gravity
C) Force of tension < Force of gravity
D) Force of gravity = Force of tension
Answer:
C) Force of tension < Force of gravity

Question 53.
No. of forces acting on acting on the block ‘B’ is

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 54.
A push or a pull is called
A) friction
B) pressure
C) force
D) none of these
Answer:
C) force

Question 55.
Erasing involves
A) a push
B) a pull
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both

Question 56.
Hoisting a flag is related to
A) push
B) pull
C) push and pull both
D) pressure
Answer:
B) pull

Question 57.
A person is pulling water from well.
Which type of force it is?
A) Muscular force
B) Magnetic force
C) Friction force
D) Electrostatic force
Answer:
A) Muscular force

Question 58.
With the increase in the weight of an object the pressure.
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Is not affected
D) None
Answer:
A) Increases

Question 59.
Read and study the given actions carefully and answer correctly to “Where the friction is useful”……………
I) Striking a match stick
II) Writing with a pencil
III) Pushing a cupboard from one room to another.
IV) Sharpening a knife.
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) I, II and IV only
D) All of the above
Answer:
C) I, II and IV only

Question 60.
In the given experiment which type of force is represented?

A) Magnetic
B) Electrostatic
C) Gravitational
D) Tension
Answer:
A) Magnetic

Question 61.

From the given activity your conclusion is
a) friction depends on smoothness of the surface of an object.
b) friction depends on smoothness of the inclined plane.
A) a only
B) b only
C) a and b only
D) a or b only
Answer:
C) a and b only

Question 62.
The apparatus required to find a limiting force of a thread.
A) Simple balance
B) Spring balance
C) Electronic balance
D) None
Answer:
B) Spring balance

Question 63.
How do yon show to at force can change the shape of an object?
A) Squeezing a sponge with hand
B) Squeezing an iron block with hand
C) Throwing a ball
D) Stopping a ball
Answer:
A) Squeezing a sponge with hand

Question 64.
From this experiment, you can conclude that

A) the surface area is smaller, the pressure will be greater.
B) the surface area is greater, the pressure will be greater.
C) the surface area is smaller, the pressure remains same.
D) none
Answer:
A) the surface area is smaller, the pressure will be greater.

Question 65.
From the given figure, the force which is pulling the cart is

A) contact force
B) force at a distance
C) muscular force
D) A and C
Answer:
D) A and C

Question 66.
From the given diagram, you may noticed that F pair of forces acting in opposite directions are

a) Normal force and frictional force
b) Normal force and gravitational force
c) Frictional force and external force
d) Normal force and external force
e) Frictional force and gravitational force
A) a, b
B) b, c
C) c, d
D) d, e
Answer:
B) b, c

Question 67.
In the given diagram, field force is

A) f
B) T
C) F
D) W
Answer:
D) W

Question 68.
The forces acting in the given system are

A) Tension and gravitational
B) Tension and frictional
C) Tension, frictional, gravitational
D) Tension or gravitational
Answer:
A) Tension and gravitational

Question 69.
Wrongly mentioned in the table is

	Force	Exerts
a	Magnetic	Around the magnet
b	Electrostatic	Around the charge
c	Gravitational	Around the earth

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) None
Answer:
C) c

Question 70.
The force of a field is greater at

A) a
B) b
C) c
D) All are equal
Answer:
A) a

Question 71.
The net force is

Force	Magnitude	Direction
F	40 N	Towards east
f	20 N	Towards west
T	30 N	Towards up
W	30 N	Towards down

A) 20 N – Towards east
B) 40 N – Towards west
C) 20 N – Towards down
D) None
Answer:
A) 20 N – Towards east

Question 72.
The forces acting on the body are

A) +F₁, +F₂, -F₃, +F₄
B) -F₁ + F₂, -F₃, +F₄
C) +F₁, -F₂, -F₃, -F₄
D) +F₁, -F₂, -F₃, +F₄
Answer:
C) +F₁, -F₂, -F₃, -F₄

Question 73.

The body moves in the direction of the given arrow mark
A) →
B) ←
C) ↓
D) ↑
Answer:
A) →

Question 74.
Study the above diagram. Why the given object does not move?

A) Force – A > Force – B
B) Force – B > Force – A
C) both forces are equal.
D) both forces are acting in opposite directions.
Answer:
C) both forces are equal.

Question 75.
Siri wants to hit some pins in a balloon game as shown in the figure. To do so, where she should apply a force on the balloon?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer:
B) II

Question 76.
Study the figure given below. At which point, the pressure is greater?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer:
C) III

Question 77.

From the above diagram
The force exerted by one rubber band is F. Then the net force acting on your finger when four rubber bands are used is
A) F
B) 2F
C) 3F
D) 4F
Answer:
D) 4F

Question 78.
The diagram which showing all the forces acting on object at a particular instant is
A) Free body diagram
B) Free fall diagram
C) Free object diagram
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Free body diagram

Question 79.
Name the type of force you observed in the figure.

A) Magnetic force
B) Gravitational force
C) Electrostatic force
D) Tension
Answer:
D) Tension

Question 80.

The part ‘a’ is
A) S
B) N
C) P
D) G
Answer:
B) N

Question 81.
The direction of force can be represented by
A) →
B) ←
C) ↑
D) Any one of the above
Answer:
D) Any one of the above

Question 82.
If draw a diagram for the given data it looks like

	Force	Direction
A	Push	Towards Left
B	Puli	Towards Right
C	Tension	Towards Up
D	Gravity	Towards Down

Answer:
A)

Question 83.
The free body diagram of a moving aeroplane is

Answer:
C)

Question 84.

Directions of normal forces labelled at
A) a, b
B) c, d
C) c
D) a, c
Answer:
A) a, b

Question 85.

The wrongly mentioned part is
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer:
B) b

Question 86.
The air which is important to us is not escaping from the Earth. This is because of
A) Normal force
B) Electrostatic force
C) Gravitational force
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Gravitational force

Question 87.
This force plays great role to do work play specially for human beings.
A) Electrostatic force
B) Muscular force
C) Tension force
D) Magnetic force
Answer:
B) Muscular force

Question 88.
Oldage people seek help because they loss their
A) muscular force
B) frictional force
C) gravitational force
D) above all
Answer:
A) muscular force

Question 89.
A situation for effect of force leads to a permanent change In shape of object is
A) Stretching Rubber band
B) Squeezing sponge
C) Spring
D) Breaking glass
Answer:
D) Breaking glass

Question 90.
Which of the following actions involves both pulling and pushing forces?
A) Typing a letter
B) Closing a door
C) Squeezing tooth paste out of a tube
D) Wringing a wet towel
Answer:
D) Wringing a wet towel

Question 91.
A disadvantage of friction is
A) It creates heat inside a car engine.
B) It prevents us from slipping when we walk.
C) It allows us to hold things.
D) It allows us to write.
Answer:
A) It creates heat inside a car engine.

Question 92.
A sharp knife can cut food much more easily because
A) It produces greater pressure on the food.
B) It produces greater force than blunt knife.
C) Its mass is less as the blade is thinner.
D) Friction between the blade and food is reduced.
Answer:
A) It produces greater pressure on the food.

Question 93.
Play carrom board with your friend. Does the coin move in the same direction in each case?
A) No
B) Yes
C) Some times
D) None of these
Answer:
A) No

Question 94.
Praveen is unable to lift a box off the ground. The force that make it difficult to do so is ………..
I) Friction
II) Gravity
III) The Weight of the box
IV) The weight of the Praveen
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) III and IV only
Answer:
C) II and III only

Question 95.
Like poles of ………… magnet each other.
A) attract
B) repel
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) repel

Question 96.
Unlike poles of ………… magnet each other.
A) attract
B) repel
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
A) attract

Question 97.

The body moves with
A) 20 N; →
B) 60 N; →
C) 20 N; ←
D) 60 N; ←
Answer:
A) 20 N; →

Question 98.
Stretching of a rubber band with two hands, exerts
A) different magnitudes of forces with opposite directions.
B) Same magnitude of forces with same directions.
C) Different magnitude of forces with same directions.
D) Same magnitude of forces with opposite directions.
Answer:
A) different magnitudes of forces with opposite directions.

Question 99.
The car is moving in the direction of

A) Left
B) Right
C) Up
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 100.
Knife is made with
A) Less surface area
B) More surface area
C) Less surface area of contact
D) More surface area of contact
Answer:
C) Less surface area of contact

Question 101.
Assertion (A): A boy pushes the tyre again and again with a stick to increase its speed.
If the net force acts in the direction of motion, the speed of an object moving with constant speed also increase.
A) A and R are true, R supports A
B) A and R are true, R doesn’t support A
C) A and R are false
D) A is true and R is false
Answer:
A) A and R are true, R supports A

Question 102.
Needles has a sharp tip, because
A) Effective pressure is more due to smaller area of contact
B) Effective pressure is less due to smaller area of contact
C) Effective pressure is more due to larger area of contact
D) Effective pressure is less due to larger area of contact
Answer:
A) Effective pressure is more due to smaller area of contact

Question 103.
Comb your dry hair, bring the comb near small pieces of paper. Force you observed is
A) magnetic force
B) electrostatic force
C) gravitational force
D) normal force
Answer:
B) electrostatic force

Question 104.
A monkey hangs stationary at the end of the vertical vine. The forces acting on the monkey is/are
A) gravitational and normal
B) gravitational and friction
C) gravitational and tension
D) gravitational, friction and tension
Answer:
A) gravitational and normal

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 17 Changes Around Us on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 17th Lesson Changes Around Us with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Rust is
A) Iron
B) Oxygen
C) Water
D) Iron Oxide
Answer:
D) Iron Oxide

Question 2.
Depositing one metal on another metal is
A) Physical change
B) Rusting
C) Galvanisation
D) None
Answer:
C) Galvanisation

Question 3.
This metal is generally used for Galvanisation.
A) Magnesium
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Aluminium
Answer:
B) Zinc

Question 4.
……………… prevents the outer surface of potato from colouring.
A) Grease
B) Paint
C) Cold water
D) Zinc
Answer:
C) Cold water

Question 5.
Ascorbic acid is
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C
Answer:
D) Vitamin C

Question 6.
Magnesium Hydroxide is
A) Acidic
B) Salt
C) Basic
D) Neutral
Answer:
C) Basic

Question 7.
Lime water changes to milky is a
A) Physical change
B) Chemical change
C) Slow change
D) Speed change
Answer:
B) Chemical change

Question 8.
Ripening of fruits is a
A) Chemical change
B) Physical change
C) Natural change
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Chemical change

Question 9.
Action of heat on paraffin wax is
A) permanent
B) physical change
C) chemical change
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) physical change

Question 10.
In a physical change
A) change in composition
B) energy is released
C) energy is absorbed
D) no change in composition
Answer:
D) no change in composition

Question 11.
Burning of sulphur in air is
A) physical change
B) temporary change
C) chemical change
D) not possible
Answer:
C) chemical change

Question 12.
The colour of magnesium oxide is
A) Red
B) White
C) Yellow
D) Green
Answer:
B) White

Question 13.
Rusting of iron is
A) chemical change
B) temporary change
C) physical change
D) not possible
Answer:
A) chemical change

Question 14.
Physical change is
A) permanent
B) temporary
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) temporary

Question 15.
Melting of wax is
A) physical change
B) chemical change
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) physical change

Question 16.
The chemical name of lime is
A) calcium
B) calcium oxide
C) calcium hydroxide
D) calcium hydride
Answer:
C) calcium hydroxide

Question 17.
Gas absorbed by white wash on the wall is
A) oxygen
B) carbondioixide
C) carbon monoxide
D) none
Answer:
B) carbondioixide

Question 18.
S + O₂
A) So
B) S₂O
C) SO₄
D) SO₂
Answer:
D) SO₂

Question 19.
Through this image we can understand that

A) water can available in 3 states.
B) on heating ice turns into water.
C) water can change its state from one to another.
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 20.
The experiment in this image can write as following equation

A) vinegar + baking soda → carbondioxide + other substances
B) copper sulphate + iron → iron sulphate + copper
C) magnesium + oxygen → megnesium oxide
D) magnesium oxide + water → magnesium hydroxide
Answer:
C) magnesium + oxygen → megnesium oxide

Question 21.
In this experiment nail turns into

A) blue colour
B) green colour
C) brown colour
D) white colour
Answer:
C) brown colour

Question 22.
In this experiment the colour of water turns as follows

A) From blue to green
B) From green to blue
C) From blue to brown
D) From green to red
Answer:
A) From blue to green

Question 23.
In this experiment which gas is produced

A) oxygen
B) carbondioxide
C) hydrogen
D) nitrogen
Answer:
B) carbondioxide

Question 24.
In this experiment what are the liquids in the first, and second test tubes?

A) Acid and Base
B) Base and Acid
C) Acid and Acid
D) Base and Base
Answer:
A) Acid and Base

Question 25.
In this picture what changes do you observe?

A) Chemical change
B) Permanent change
C) Both A & B
D) Physical change
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 26.
What is the experiment in this diagram?

A) Crystallization
B) Galvanisation
C) Corrosion
D) Rust
Answer:
A) Crystallization

Question 27.
In the physical change, change occurs in
A) shape of substance
B) size of substance
C) colour of substance
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 28.
In which change new substance is formed
A) Physical
B) Chemical
C) Biological
D) Both A & B
Answer:
B) Chemical

Question 29.
In a change the following may be produce
A) light
B) heat
C) sound
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 30.
Through crystallization we can separate
A) a soluble solid from the solution.
B) an insoluble solid from the solution.
C) a soluble liquid from the solution.
D) an insoluble liquid from the solution.
Answer:
A) a soluble solid from the solution.

Question 31.
In the Galvanisation process which metal is used for depositing on iron.
A) Copper
B) Gold
C) Mercury
D) Zinc
Answer:
D) Zinc

Question 32.
Ice melts in to water, it is a
A) physical change
B) Reversible change
C) Slow change
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
The end product of this experiment

A) Zinc oxide
B) Copper sulphate
C) Magnesium oxide
D) Magnesium hydroxide
Answer:
D) Magnesium hydroxide

Question 34.
The liquid taken in this beaker is

A) Copper sulphate
B) Magnesium oxide
C) Vinegar
D) Lime water
Answer:
A) Copper sulphate

Question 35.
When turmeric is added with lime water it turns into colour
A) yellow colour
B) white colour
C) red colour
D) green colour
Answer:
C) red colour

Question 36.
The rust is chemically
A) Magnesium oxide
B) Iron oxide
C) Zinc oxide
D) Calcium oxide
Answer:
B) Iron oxide

Question 37.
Which substance is responsible for rusting?
A) Air
B) Water
C) Colour
D) Gas
Answer:
B) Water

Question 38.
Through galvanisation we can protect
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Copper
D) Gold
Answer:
A) Iron

Question 39.
When your mother cuts the brinjals, it turns into brownish. To avoid this we should
A) Put into salt water
B) Put into lemon water
C) Vinegar mixed water
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 40.
The process of depositing a metal on other metal is called
A) Chlorination
B) Galvanisation
C) Oxidation
D) Ventilation
Answer:
B) Galvanisation

Question 41.
Which of these substances is formed when we burn Magnesium ribbon?
A) Magnesium Oxide
B) Magnesium Chloride
C) Magnesium Sulphate
D) Mangenese Oxide
Answer:
A) Magnesium Oxide

Question 42.
Carbon dioxide + Lime water → ________ + Water.
A) Calcium carbonate
B) Calcium chloride
C) Carbon chloride
D) Carbon monoxide
Answer:
A) Calcium carbonate

Question 43.
The process of depositing zinc metal on iron is called ________
A) Crystallization
B) Galvanisation
C) Sublimation
D) Rusting
Answer:
B) Galvanisation

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 16 Forest: Our Life on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 16th Lesson Forest: Our Life with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is an animal product?
A) Gum
B)Rubber
C) Honey
D) Fruits
Answer:
C) Honey

Question 2.
Which one of the following is the role of forests?
A) Provide food, shelter, water and medicines
B) Prevent soil erosion
C) Pevent flood
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 3.
Forests help in causing ?
A) Floods
B) Rains
C) Heat
D) None
Answer:
B) Rains

Question 4.
Forests keep the surrounding.
A) Hot
B) Dirty
C) Happy
D) Cool
Answer:
D) Cool

Question 5.
Forests provide habitat to
A) Wild life
B) Animals
C) Micro organism
D) All people
Answer:
A) Wild life

Question 6.
Salmanders are found in the forest area of
A) Adilabad District
B) Kurnool District
C) Visakhapatnam District
D) Chittoor District
Answer:
B) Kurnool District

Question 7.
Karthika vanam is related to
A) Social forestry
B) Common village
C) Festival
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Social forestry

Question 8.
Lungs of earth are
A) Wild animals
B) Domestic animals
C) Forests
D) Rivers
Answer:
C) Forests

Question 9.
Bunds along edges of plantations helps to conserve
A) Forests
B) Soil moisture
C) Harm trees
D) Wild animals
Answer:
B) Soil moisture

Question 10.
Chipko movement was started by
A) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Satyajit Ray
D) Swami Vivekanda
Answer:
A) Sunder Lai Bahuguna

Question 11.
Identify the forest

A) Alpine forest
B) Equatorial forest
C) Scrub jungle
D) Mangroove forest
Answer:
B) Equatorial forest

Question 12.
Identify the forest

A) Alpine forest
B) Equatorial forest
C) Scrub jungle
D) Mangroove forest
Answer:
A) Alpine forest

Question 13.
Identify the tribal man

A) Lambadi
B) Early man
C) Chenchu
D) Koya
Answer:
C) Chenchu

Question 14.
Reason for this incident

A) Deforestation
B) Scarcity of food and water
C) Decrease of forest area
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 15.
It is a good habitat for plants and animals
A) ocean
B) river
C) forest
D) grass land
Answer:
C) forest

Question 16.
Destroying forests poses threat to life of
A) Animals
B) Plants
C) Human beings
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 17.
These animals live in Visakhapa tnam Dist. forest area.
A) Tigers, Chinkaras
B) Jackal, Chimpanzees
C) Tigers, Chimpanzees
D) Elephants, Monkeys
Answer:
C) Tigers, Chimpanzees

Question 18.
Bunds along edges of plantations help to conserve
A) Forests
B) Soil moisture
C) Mountains
D) Wild animals
Answer:
B) Soil moisture

Question 19.
Pecentage of forests in geographical area of our country
A) 19.3%
B) 17.3%
C) 23.3%
D) 27.3%
Answer:
A) 19.3%

Question 20.
This is not a forest product
A) Honey
B) Fruits
C) Oils
D) Minerals
Answer:
D) Minerals

Question 21.
Find out the wrong statement
A) If a plant affected by a disease, the whole forest area destroyed.
B) They provide habitat to wild life.
C) They keep the surrounding cool.
D) They help to control soil erosion.
Answer:
A) If a plant affected by a disease, the whole forest area destroyed.

Question 22.
Amrithadevi sacrificed their lives to protect the following trees
A) Teak
B) Rosewood
C) Kejari
D) Khazoor
Answer:
C) Kejari

Question 23.
In our state social forestry is well known as
A) Karthikavanam
B) Nandanavanam
C) Amruthavanam
D) Asokhavanam
Answer:
A) Karthikavanam

Question 24.
The following is a natrual home for wild animals
A) Zoo
B) Sanctuary
C) National park
D) Forest
Answer:
D) Forest

Question 25.
Which of the following are called “Lungs of Earth”?
A) Hills
B) Mountains
C) Deserts
D) Forests
Answer:
D) Forests

Question 26.
In order to protect the forest we have to
A) Cut the trees
B) Establish the industries
C) Plantation in waste lands
D) Burn the forests
Answer:
C) Plantation in waste lands

Question 27.
What will happen if forests are cut down at a very fast rate for timber and other needs ?
A) The population of wild animals will increase
B) There will be changes in the’climate
C) Pollution reduces
D) Rainfall increases
Answer:
B) There will be changes in the’climate

Question 28.
Which of the following can be used to effectively overcome deforestation ?
A) Weeding
B) Gardening
C) Social forestry
D) Jhoom farming
Answer:
C) Social forestry

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Soil: Our Life on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 15th Lesson Soil: Our Life with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
We should use clay idols and celebrate festivals in
A) villages
B) cities
C) an ecofriendly way
D) a happy environment.
Answer:
C) an ecofriendly way

Question 2.
Chemical colours of idols damage our
A) faith
B) culture
C) goal
D) environment
Answer:
D) environment

Question 3.
Soil is a good
A) habitat
B) material
C) source for plant
D) living place for snails
Answer:
A) habitat

Question 4.
Soil contains
A) Waste material
B) Humidity
C) Rocks
D) Minerals
Answer:
D) Minerals

Question 5.
This soil layer is made up of humus
A) R Horizon
B) A Horizon
C) B Horizon
D) C Horizon
Answer:
B) A Horizon

Question 6.
Soil is formed from
A) Rocks
B) Sand
C) Clay
D) Pebbles
Answer:
A) Rocks

Question 7.
Castor can be grown in
A) Black soil
B) Sandy soil
C) Red soil
D) All the soils
Answer:
C) Red soil

Question 8.
Percolation rate of water is highest in
A) Rocky soil
B) Black soil
C) Sandy soil
D) Clayey soil
Answer:
C) Sandy soil

Question 9.
Percolation rate of water is lowest in
A) Black soil
B) Sandy soil
C) Clayey soil
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Clayey soil

Question 10.
Water holding capacity of soil depends on
A) Soil type
B) Rain
C) Place
D) None
Answer:
A) Soil type

Question 11.
Below the ‘O’ Horizon and above the ‘E’ Horizon this is found
A) B Horizon
B) A Horizon
C) E Horizon
D) R Horizon
Answer:
B) A Horizon

Question 12.
Percolation rate is highest in
A) Sandy soil
B) Clay
C) Loam
D) All
Answer:
A) Sandy soil

Question 13.
Removal of top soil by wind, water is called
A) soil profile
B) soil fertility
C) percolation
D) soil erosion
Answer:
D) soil erosion

Question 14.
Wheat, gram, and paddy are grown in
A) Sandy soil
B) Black soil
C) Clay and loam
D) All
Answer:
C) Clay and loam

Question 15.
Water holding capacity of soil depends on
A) soil erosion
B) soil type
C) fertility
D) conservation
Answer:
B) soil type

Question 16.
This is called regolith
A) R Horizon
B) C Horizon
C) A Horizon
D) O Horizon
Answer:
B) C Horizon

Question 17.
This is called sub soil
A) B Horizon
B) E Horizon
C) R Horizon
D) O Horizon
Answer:
A) B Horizon

Question 18.
Study of soil is called
A) Morphology
B) Pedology
C) Biology
D) Ecology
Answer:
B) Pedology

Question 19.
Before constructing multistoreyed buildings, bridges and dams engineers test the ……..
A) soil profile
B) mineral deposits
C) bedrock
D) rainfall
Answer:
A) soil profile

Question 20.
Rotation of crops retains
A) soil profile
B) soil erosion
C) soil fertility
D) humus
Answer:
C) soil fertility

Question 21.
These vessels are made up of

A) Steel
B) Wood
C) Clay
D) Copper
Answer:
C) Clay

Question 22.
Clay loam and sand are types of
A) minerals
B) metals
C) soil
D) stones
Answer:
C) soil

Question 23.
Clay and loam are suitable for growing
A) wheat
B) gram
C) paddy
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 24.
Cotton is grown in
A) sandy
B) clay
C) sandy loam
D) heavy loam
Answer:
C) sandy loam

Question 25.
The factors responsible for soil erosion
A) wind
B) water
C) deforestation
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 26.
Large size particles are present in this soil
A) sandy soil
B) clay soil
C) loam
D) heavy loam
Answer:
A) sandy soil

Question 27.
It is also called top soil
A) A-horizon
B) B-horizon
C) C-horizon
D) R-horizon
Answer:
A) A-horizon

Question 28.
Animals plants and microbes activities are more in this horizon
A) A-horizon
B) E-horizon
C) C-horizon
D) O-horizon
Answer:
A) A-horizon

Question 29.
The right sequence of horizons of the soil from top to bottom is
A) A, B, C, E, O, R
B) O, A, E, B, C, R
C) C, A, B, O, R, E
D) R, C, B, E, A, O
Answer:
B) O, A, E, B, C, R

Question 30.
Making pots by using soil is called
A) Bidri
B) Kalamkari
C) Pottary
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Pottary

Question 31.
Through this experiment what can we find out?

A) Soil erosion
B) Soil profile
C) Soil fertility
D) Percolation rate of soil
Answer:
D) Percolation rate of soil

Question 32.
The following is a soil conservation method
A) Planting trees
B) Crop rotation
C) Growing grass plants
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
What happens if same type of crop is cultivated in same soil every year?
A) Soil fertility increases
B) Soil fertility decreases
C) No change
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Soil fertility decreases

Question 34.
Read the statements:
P : Water percolation rate is more to sandy soil.
Q : Water percolation rate is more to loamy soil.
A) Only P is correct
B) Only Q is correct
C) P & Q are correct
D) P & Q are wrong
Answer:
A) Only P is correct

Question 35.
Which of the following is the topmost layer of soil?
A) “O” Horizon
B) “E” Horizon
C) “A” Horizon
D) “B” Horizon
Answer:
A) “O” Horizon

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Water – Too Little To Waste on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 14th Lesson Water – Too Little To Waste with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Worlds water day is on
A) 22nd March
B) 20th March
C) 22nd April
D) 20th April
Answer:
A) 22nd March

Question 2.
Percentage of fresh water available on the globe
A) 97%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 1%
Answer:
D) 1%

Question 3.
………… alter the natural flow of rivers leading to water scarcity.
A) Rains
B) Dams
C) Bridges
D) None
Answer:
B) Dams

Question 4.
Organic impurities present in waste water
A) Pesticides
B) Nitrates
C) Phosphates
D) Metals
Answer:
A) Pesticides

Question 5.
Inorganic impurities present in waste water
A) Pesticides
B) Oil
C) Urea
D) Phosphates
Answer:
D) Phosphates

Question 6.
Dried sludge is used as
A) Waste material
B) Manure
C) Cattle food
D) Fuel
Answer:
B) Manure

Question 7.
Bacteria in water cause the disease.
A) Cold
B) Fever
C) Body Pains
D) Cholera
Answer:
D) Cholera

Question 8.
Chemical used to disinfect water.
A) Oxygen
B) Chlorine
C) Fluorine
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Chlorine

Question 9.
Essential for metabolic activity
A) CO2
B) Rain
C) Water
D) Minerals
Answer:
C) Water

Question 10.
………… present in the water cause diseases.
A) Dust
B) Microbes
C) Dirt
D) Salts
Answer:
B) Microbes

Question 11.
Water let out from atomic reactors is fatal to
A) Jungle life
B) Hill beings
C) Marine life
D) Human life
Answer:
C) Marine life

Question 12.
Agro industry use excessive
A) Fungicides
B) Water
C) Labour
D) Money
Answer:
A) Fungicides

Question 13.
Chlorine passing into water is called
A) Aeration
B) Chlorination
C) Purification
D) Filteration
Answer:
B) Chlorination

Question 14.
Pumping of water into air for purification is called
A) Chlorination
B) Purification
C) Aeration
D) Filteration
Answer:
C) Aeration

Question 15.
Vegetable waste is a
A) Inorganic Impurity
B) Organic Impurity
C) Microbes
D) None
Answer:
B) Organic Impurity

Question 16.
Nallavally is the oldest Vana Samrakshana Samithi of which district?
A) Khammam
B) Krishna
C) Karimnagar
D) Medak
Answer:
D) Medak

Question 17.
The picture indicates that

A) Water pollution
B) Floods
C) Water scarcity
D) Rain
Answer:
C) Water scarcity

Question 18.
Identify the structure.

A) Sludge tank
B) Seawage tank
C) Bar screens
D) Grit
Answer:
C) Bar screens

Question 19.
Identify this. This is a

A) Petrol tank
B) Water tank
C) Milk tank
D) Septic tank
Answer:
D) Septic tank

Question 20.
Waste water released by different users are collectively called
A) Mud
B) Sewage
C) Sludge
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Sewage

Question 21.
Sewage contain
A) suspended impurities
B) dissolved impurities
C) disease causing bacteria
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 22.
The process involved in treatment of waste water
A) physical process
B) chemical process
C) biological process
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 23.
Which gas kills harmful disease causing organisms in waste water?
A) Fluorine
B) Chlorine
C) Oxygen
D) Bromine
Answer:
B) Chlorine

Question 24.
Microbes of cholera and typhoid grow more in
A) river water
B) tank water
C) well water
D) pond water
Answer:
C) well water

Question 25.
How much percentage of fresh water exist in glaciers?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 7%
Answer:
B) 2%

Question 26.
Activated sludge contain the following percentage of water
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 97%
D) 100%
Answer:
C) 97%

Question 27.
Cleaning of water is a process of removing
A) harmful organisms
B) harmful impurities
C) dissolved & suspended impurities
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 28.
Dried sludge is used as
A) manure
B) pesticide
C) water purifier
D) detergent
Answer:
A) manure

Question 29.
Pumping of water into air for purification is called
A) chlorination
B) purification
C) aeration
D) filtration
Answer:
C) aeration

Question 30.
Which of the component is essential for metabolic activity?
A) carbon dioxide
B) rain
C) water
D) minerals
Answer:
C) water

Question 31.
It is an example of organic impurities
A) Human faces
B) Nitrates
C) Bacteria
D) Microbes
Answer:
A) Human faces

Question 32.
The following is an organic impurity came from agriculture industry
A) Urea
B) Pesticides
C) Herbicides
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
The instrument used to remove oil and grease in sludge is
A) Scraper
B) Skimmer
C) Floater
D) Bar screen
Answer:
B) Skimmer

Question 34.
The following is a water conservation construction
A) Percolation tank
B) Contour trench
C) Check dam
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 35.
The following is a rainfed crop
A) Jowar
B) Redgram
C) Green gram
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 36.
Inorganic pollutants in sewage are
A) Nitrates
B) Phosphates
C) Metals
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 37.
World water day is observed on every year from 2005.
A) 22nd March
B) 22nd December
C) 20th June
D) 2nd May
Answer:
A) 22nd March

Question 38.
Sita collects the water that used after cleaning rice, dal and vegetables in the kitchen and uses it to water the garden. This can be called
A) Stagnation of water
B) Reuse of water
C) Storing of water
D) Recovering of water
Answer:
B) Reuse of water

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 13 Seed Dispersal on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 13th Lesson Seed Dispersal with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This develops as fruit.
A) Ovary
B) Ovule
C) Petals
D) Flower
Answer:
A) Ovary

Question 2.
Ovules develop into
A) fruit
B) seed
C) flower
D) plant
Answer:
B) seed

Question 3.
Dispersal of this seed is by water.
A) Coconut
B) Soap nut
C) Neem
D) Milk weed
Answer:
D) Milk weed

Question 4.
Dispersal of caltropis is through
A) Water
B) Animals
C) Wind
D) Humans
Answer:
C) Wind

Question 5.
These seeds are dispersed by animals.
A) Fleshy fruits
B) Coconut
C) Neem
D) Balsam
Answer:
A) Fleshy fruits

Question 6.
Neem seed is dispersed to other places by
A) Animals
B) Human beings
C) Birds
D) Water
Answer:
C) Birds

Question 7.
Dispersal by bursting of these fruits is done.
A) Neem
B) Coconut
C) Fleshy fruits
D) Bhendi
Answer:
D) Bhendi

Question 8.
People transferred these seeds across the globe.
A) Coconut
B) Neem
C) Soap nut
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
D) Sugarcane

Question 9.
Among the following dispersal of seed occurs through wind in
A) Coconut
B) Lotus
C) Milkweed
D) Mango
Answer:
C) Milkweed

Question 10.
Seeds of Lotus travel by
A) Birds
B) Insects
C) Animals
D) Water
Answer:
D) Water

Question 11.
These are carried by birds
A) Maple
B) Milkweed
C) Lotus
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

Question 12.
On drying the pod explodes releases seeds with great force in
A) Mustard
C) Pears
B) Sugarcane
D) Tomato
Answer:
A) Mustard

Question 13.
Native of India
A) Potato
B) Sugarcane
C) Cauliflower
D) Pear
Answer:
B) Sugarcane

Question 14.
Who lefts the seeds of Tomatoes in India?
A) Americans
B) Europeans
C) Japanese
D) All
Answer:
B) Europeans

Question 15.
Among the following this have a single seed
A) Brinjal
B) Guava
C) Bhendi
D) Mango
Answer:
D) Mango

Question 16.
Among the following this have a large number of seeds
A) Mango
B) Neem
C) Coconut
D) Tomato
Answer:
D) Tomato

Question 17.
These seeds are dispersal through

A) Water
B) Wind
C) Animals
D) Birds
Answer:
B) Wind

Question 18.
These seeds are dispersal through

A) Wind
B) Water
C) Animals
D) Birds
Answer:
C) Animals

Question 19.
In this picture the animal hide the nuts in

A) Nest
B) Tree
C) Underground
D) Under the bark
Answer:
C) Underground

Question 20.
Seeds of fleshy fruits can dispersal through
A) Human beings
B) Birds
C) Animals
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Animals

Question 21.
In mustard plant seeds can dispersal through
A) Wind
B) Bursting mechanism
C) Water
D) Animals
Answer:
B) Bursting mechanism

Question 22.
Seed dispersal is essential for survival of
A) Plants
B) Animals
C) Birds
D) Human beings
Answer:
A) Plants

Question 23.
Cotton seeds have the following structures
A) Wing like outer growths
B) Hooks
C) Hairy parts
D) Thorns
Answer:
C) Hairy parts

Question 24.
Mustard plant produces seeds more than the following
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10,000
D) 1,00,000
Answer:
C) 10,000

Question 25.
Seeds of lotus dispersal through
A) Birds
B) Animals
C ) Wind
D) Water
Answer:
D) Water

Question 26.
This is an example for

A) growing plants without soil
B) hanging gardens
C) seed dispersal
D) wall gardening
Answer:
C) seed dispersal

Question 27.
Plants can compete for the following
A) Air
B) Water
C) Minerals
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 28.
The following seeds dispersal through human beings
A) Bhendi
B) Coconut
C) Tomato
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Tomato

Question 29.
Identify the wrong statement.
A) All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate
B) Some seeds germinate but plants die before maturation
C) Some seeds never germinate
D) All seeds do not germinate
Answer:
A) All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate

Question 30.
Some plants having bursting mechanism of fruits for dispersal of seeds in such plants fruit is called
A) Fleshy fruit
B) Capsule
C) Light weight fruit
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Capsule

Question 31.
Neem fruits are dispersal by
A) Crows
B) Bulbuls
C) Mynas
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 32.
These are carried by birds
A) Maple
B) Milkweed
C) Lotus
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

Question 33.
The seeds in this image are

A) Light weight
B) Float on water
C) Filled with air & empty spaces
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 34.
This seed is dispersed by

A) Water
B) Air
C) Animals
D) Bursting
Answer:
C) Animals

Question 35.
Which of these seeds are dispersed by the wind?
A) Coconut
B) Caltropis
C) Lotus
D) Pedalium (palleru)
Answer:
B) Caltropis

Question 36.
Dispersal of seeds by bursting of fruits happens in
A) Sugarcane
B) Coconut
C) Lotus
D) Ladies’ finger
Answer:
D) Ladies’ finger

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 12th Lesson Reproduction in Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
It is the seat on which the parts of a flower are present.
A) Corolla
B) Thalamus
C) Calyx
D) Androecium
Answer:
B) Thalamus

Question 2.
It has funnel shape.
A) Corolla
B) Sepals
C) Calyx
D) Thalamus
Answer:
A) Corolla

Question 3.
The most attractive part of a plant is
A) roots
B) leaves
C) flowers
D) fruits
Answer:
C) flowers

Question 4.
This is the male part of the flower.
A) Gynoecium
B) Androecium
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
B) Androecium

Question 5.
This is the female part of a flower.
A) Petals
B) Calyx
C) Gynoecium
D) Androecium
Answer:
C) Gynoecium

Question 6.
An example for unisexual flower.
A) Bittergourd
B) Datura
C) Ipomea
D) Hibiscus
Answer:
A) Bittergourd

Question 7.
This is a bisexual flower.
A) Papaya
B) Cucumber
C) Bottlegourd
D) Hibiscus
Answer:
D) Hibiscus

Question 8.
This sucks nectar from flowers.
A) Man
B) Animal
C) Butterfly
D) Any one
Answer:
C) Butterfly

Question 9.
New plants grow from buds on the leaf of the plant.
A) Potato
B) Sugarcane
C) Bryophyllum
D) Carrot
Answer:
C) Bryophyllum

Question 10.
New plants grow from the modified root of the plant.
A) Dhalia
B) Potato
C) Onion
D) Mint
Answer:
A) Dhalia

Question 11.
The fleshy base to which all the floral parts are attached to is
A) Pedicel
B) Sepals
C) Thalamus
D) Petals
Answer:
C) Thalamus

Question 12.
The pollen grains are found in
A) Ovule
B) Anthers
C) Ovary
D) Stigma
Answer:
B) Anthers

Question 13.
The number of stamens present in Datura:
A) 5
B) 3
C) 6
D) 10
Answer:
A) 5

Question 14.
Ovules develop into:
A) flowers
B) plants
C) leaf
D) seeds
Answer:
D) seeds

Question 15.
The pollen grains contain:
A) male garnets
B) female garnets
C) filaments
D) none
Answer:
A) male garnets

Question 16.
Vegetative propagation in plantain is by:
A) leaf
B) tuberous stem
C) root
D) fruit
Answer:
B) tuberous stem

Question 17.
The stem of a ginger develops into a new plant if a piece of it is cut along with
A) Scale leaves
B) Nodes
C) Bud
D) Roots
Answer:
C) Bud

Question 18.
An example for vegetative propa¬gation through leaves:
A) Ginger
B) Begonia
C) Plantain
D) Grass
Answer:
B) Begonia

Question 19.
An example for vegetative propa¬gation through stem:
A) Plantain
B) Begonia
C) Bryophyllum
D) Ginger
Answer:
D) Ginger

Question 20.
In curry leaf plant vegetative propagation occurs through.
A) leaf
B) roots
C) stem
D) nodes
Answer:
B) roots

Question 21.
It is a …………

A) Unisexual flower
B) Bisexual flower
C) Female flower
D) Male flower
Answer:
B) Bisexual flower

Question 22.
In which type of flower this part is present

A) Male flower
B) Bisexual flower
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 23.
Identify the part of flower.

A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
A) Stamen

Question 24.
Identify the part of flower.

A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
B) Pistil

Question 25.
It shows that

A) T.S of flower
B) L.S of flower
C) T.S of stem
D) T.S of root
Answer:
B) L.S of flower

Question 26.
Pollen grains are formed from
A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Ovary
D) Sepals
Answer:
A) Stamen

Question 27.
Which type of reproduction is this?

A) Sexual reproduction
B) Budding
C) Sporulation
D) Vegetative reproduction
Answer:
D) Vegetative reproduction

Question 28.
Identify the reproduction method in this picture.

A) Sexual reproduction
B) Sporulation
C) Budding
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Budding

Question 29.
What are the plants that you have observed in this picture?

A) Yeast
B) Bread mould
C) Bryophyllum
D) Tamarind
Answer:
A) Yeast

Question 30.
In the pollination what is transfer from anther to stigma?
A) Ovule
B) Zygote
C) Seed
D) Pollengrain
Answer:
D) Pollengrain

Question 31.
The following called fertilization
A) Fusion of male and female parts
B) Fusion of stamen and style
C) Fusion of sepals and petals
D) Fusion of ovule and ovary
Answer:
A) Fusion of male and female parts

Question 32.
Which protects the flower at bud stage?
A) Stamen
B) Stigma
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
D) Sepals

Question 33.
Potato is a modified
A) Leaf
B) Flower
C) Stem
D) Root
Answer:
C) Stem

Question 34.
Agents of pollination
A) Birds
B) Insects
C) Air
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 35.
How many stamens are present in this flower?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 36.
What do you observe in the figure?

A) Eyes
B) Nose
C) Mouth
D) Ears
Answer:
A) Eyes

Question 37.
New plants grow from the following part of a plant is not a vegetative reproduction
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Flower
Answer:
D) Flower

Question 38.
Bryophyllum can propogate through the following part of the plant
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Flower
Answer:
C) Leaf

Question 39.
In this plant, new plants grows from bulbs
A) Onion
B) Sweet potato
C) Sugarcane
D) Mint
Answer:
A) Onion

Question 40.
Identify the right Matching.
1) Bread mould — a) Eyes
2) Yeast — b) Spores
3) Potato — c) Budding
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 -c, 2, a, 3-b
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 41.
Which of the following are unisexual flowers?
A) Ridge gourd
B) Bitter gourd
C) Bottle gourd
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
Potato: eye:: Bryophllum:.
A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Root
D) Flower
Answer:
A) Leaves

Question 43.
Teacher asked Ramesh to observe small depressions on surface of a potato. What do you infer in this observation?
A) To study the modification in potato
B) To measure the dimentions of potato
C) To study vegetative reproduction in potato
D) To know the method of preservation of potato
Answer:
C) To study vegetative reproduction in potato

Question 44.
“Florets ” is the chief characteristic of this plant
A) Neem
B) Mango
C) Papaya
D) Sunflower
Answer:
D) Sunflower

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Respiration in Organisms on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 11th Lesson Respiration in Organisms with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The process of breathing in air is called
A) Inspiration
B) Expiration
C) Respiration
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Inspiration

Question 2.
The process of breathing out air is called
A) Respiration
B) Expiration
C) Breathing
D) None
Answer:
B) Expiration

Question 3.
Plants use this gas during respiration
A) Nitrogen
B) Carbondioxide
C) Oxygen
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Oxygen

Question 4.
The process of breathing in and out is called
A) Inspiration
B) Expiration
C) Inspiration and expiration
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Inspiration and expiration

Question 5.
Breathing rate is
A) Number of times we breath per minute
B) Number of times we breath per second
C) Number of times we breath per hour
D) Number of times we breath per 10 minutes
Answer:
A) Number of times we breath per minute

Question 6.
Expiration rate after exercises
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Normal
D) Either increse or decrese
Answer:
A) Increase

Question 7.
Human breath is misty during
A) Summer mornings
B) Summer evenings
C) Winter mornings
D) Rainy days
Answer:
C) Winter mornings

Question 8.
Fixed gas is
A) Oxygen
B) Helium
C) Chlorine
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
D) Carbon dioxide

Question 9.
Lime stone reacts with acids give
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen
C) Helium
D) Chlorine
Answer:
A) Carbon dioxide

Question 10.
Fixed gas was named by
A) Joseph Black
B) Von Helmont
C) Joseph Priestley
D) Lavoiser
Answer:
A) Joseph Black

Question 11.
Gases were first identified by
A) Von Helmont
B) Joseph Priestley
C) Joseph Black
D) Lavoiser
Answer:
A) Von Helmont

Question 12.
Oxygen was named by
A) Von Helmont
B) Joseph Priestley
C) Joseph Black
D) Lavoiser
Answer:
D) Lavoiser

Question 13.
He is the first to move the different kinds of air
A) Von Helmont
B) Joseph Priestley
C) Joseph Black
D) Lavoiser
Answer:
B) Joseph Priestley

Question 14.
Gills are the respiratory organs in
A) Cockroach
B) Butterfly
C) Fish
D) Frog
Answer:
C) Fish

Question 15.
Lime water turns into milky white by
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Chlorine
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
B) Carbon dioxide

Question 16.
Gills are the respiratory organs in
A) Tadpole larvae
B) Frog
C) Cockroach
D) Butterfly
Answer:
A) Tadpole larvae

Question 17.
Frog respires through ………… in summer and winter.
A) Gills
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Trachea
Answer:
C) Skin

Question 18.
Small minute openings on the surface of stem are
A) Stomata
B) Spiracles
C) Lenticels
D) Nostrils
Answer:
C) Lenticels

Question 19.
Small minute openings on either side of cockroach body are
A) Stomata
B) Spiracles
C) Lenticels
D) Nostrils
Answer:
B) Spiracles

Question 20.
Earthworm respires through
A) Skin
B) Trachea
C) Gills
D) Lungs
Answer:
A) Skin

Question 21.
Tracheal respiration is present in
A) Frog
B) Cockroach
C) Fish
D) Earthworm
Answer:
B) Cockroach

Question 22.
What are they doing in this picture?

A) Watching time
B) Counting heart beat
C) Counting breath
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Counting breath

Question 23.
What do you observe in this picture?

A) Frog eating food
B) Frog digestive system
C) Frog respiratory system
D) Frog resproductive system
Answer:
C) Frog respiratory system

Question 24.
Through this picture we can prove that

A) photosynthesis
B) respiration in plants
C) transpiration in plants
D) absorption of roots
Answer:
B) respiration in plants

Question 25.
In this picture what gas the fish inhale?

A) Water
B) Carbondioxide
C) Hydrogen
D) Oxygen
Answer:
D) Oxygen

Question 26.
Name the respiratory parts in this organism.

A) Trache
B) Gills
C) Skin
D) Lungs
Answer:
A) Trache

Question 27.
In the following, one cannot be a respiratory organ.
A) Trachea
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Heart
Answer:
D) Heart

Question 28.
What are the parts which helps in respiration of plants?
A) Stomata
B) Lenticles
C) Both A & B
D) Leaves
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
Find out the respiratory organ in this organism.

A) Lungs
B) Trachea
C) Gills
D) Skin
Answer:
D) Skin

Question 30.
Which gas is very less quantity in inhaled air?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbondioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
B) Carbondioxide

Question 31.
Exhaled air does not contain the following gas.
A) Oxygen
B) Carbondioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
A) Oxygen

Question 32.
Respiratory organs in frog tadpoles are
A) Lungs
B) Skin
C) Gills
D) Trachea
Answer:
C) Gills

Question 33.
The respiratory organ in frog life history
A) Skin
B) Lungs
C) Gills
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 34.
It is called fixed gas
A) Oxygen
B) Carbondioxide
C) Hydrogen
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Carbondioxide

Question 35.
Gases exchange take place in this process.
A) Breathing
B) Circulation
C) Respiration
D) Digestion
Answer:
C) Respiration

Question 36.
In this experiment what indicator do we added?

A) Phenolphthalein
B) Methyl Orange
C) Methylene Blue
D) Saprahin
Answer:
A) Phenolphthalein

Question 37.
Who done the experiments on mint sprig with burning candle?
A) Von Helmont
B) Joseph Black
C) Joseph Priestley
D) Lavoiser
Answer:
C) Joseph Priestley

Question 38.
Match the following.
1) Fish — a) Skin
2) Frog — b) Gills
3) Cockroach — c) Trachea
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – b, 2, a, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2, a, 3 – c

Question 39.
Spiracles are the respiratory organs of ………….
A) Fish
B) Frog
C) Cockroach
D) Leech
Answer:
C) Cockroach

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Data Handling on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 12th Lesson Data Handling with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
Information either in the form of numbers or words, which helps us to take decisions is called ……………..
A) Data
B) Tally marks
C) Frequency
D) Information
Answer:
A) Data

Question 2.
Father of the Indian Statistics is ………………..
A) Ramanujan
B) Brahmagupta
C) P.C.Mahalanobis
D) Shakuntala
Answer:
C) P.C.Mahalanobis

Question 3.
Number of objects of same group in the data is called ………………
A) Data
B) Tally marks
C) Frequency
D) Information
Answer:
C) Frequency

Question 4.
The collected information is called ……………….
A) Tally marks
B) Data
C) Frequency
D) None
Answer:
B) Data

Question 5.
Symbol for tally marks is ……………..
A) |||
B) ≡
C) :
D) None
Answer:
A) |||

Question 6.
In a pictograph, 5 diagrams show 100 students. The number of students shown by each diagram is ……………………
A) 12
B) 10
C) 30
D) 20
Answer:
D) 20

Question 7.
In a pictograph, 10 pictures represent 50 bicycles. Then the number of bicycles represented by each picture is ……………….
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 15
Answer:
A) 5

Question 8.
If represents 15 students, then represents ……………….. number of students.
A) 45
B) 60
C) 75
D) 90
Answer:
C) 75

Question 9.
If 1 unit = 10cm, then 8 units = …………….. cms.
A) 60
B) 70
C) 90
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 10.
If 10 units = 200 cm, then 1 unit = ……………… cm.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Answer:
B) 20

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. A table showing the frequency or count of various items is called a ……………….
Answer:
Frequency distribution table

2. Data that has been organised and presented in frequency distribution tables can be represented in ………………. and …………..
Answer:
pictograph and bar graph

3. If represents 3 students, then (ice-creams) represents ……………… students.
Answer:
9

4. If 100 schools is represented by S, then 300 schools represented by ……………
Answer:
S S S

5. Pictograph consists of …………….
Answer:
pictures

6. Bar graph consists of ……………
Answer:
Rectangles

7. If 25 units = 250 cm, then 1 unit = ……………… cm.
Answer:
10 cm

8. In a bar graph, the …………….. of all the rectangles is same.
Answer:
breadth

9. If a bar of length 6 cm shows 60 marks, then the number of marks shown by 1 cm bar is ………………….
Answer:
10 marks

10. If a bar of length 10cm shows 120 cars, then the number of cars shown by 2 cm bar is …………………..
Answer:
24 cars

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Nutrition in Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The green substance in the leaves is called
A) Stomata
B) Chlorophyll
C) Stem
D) Roots
Answer:
B) Chlorophyll

Question 2.
Iodine turns starch solution into …………. colour.
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red
D) Blue black
Answer:
D) Blue black

Question 3.
These are heterotrophs
A) Cuscuta
B) Fungi
C) Human beings
D) Pitcher
Answer:
C) Human beings

Question 4.
Green plants are
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Parasites
D) Saprotrophs
Answer:
A) Autotrophs

Question 5.
Chlorophyll is absent in these plants
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) All plnats
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 6.
The food synthesised by the plants is stored as
A) Glucose
B) Starch
C) Proteins
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Starch

Question 7.
Plants grow because of the water it gets. Concluded by
A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
D) Von Helmont

Question 8.
Plants exchange gases with their surrounding air said by
A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
A) Stephen Hales

Question 9.
Leaves are organs of transpiration described by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
D) Stephen Hales

Question 10.
If animals were making air impure, plants were making it pure said by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
B) Priestly

Question 11.
Green parts of plants do photosynthesis in sunlight found by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
A) Ingenhouz

Question 12.
Green substances are called
A) Haemophyll
B) Chromophyll
C) Chlorophyll
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Chlorophyll

Question 13.
Autotrophs are
A) Animals
B) Fungi
C) Plants
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Plants

Question 14.
Photosynthesis need the following
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Sunlight
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 15.
Photosynthesis takes place in
A) Leaves
B) Green stems
C) Green coloured structures
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 16.
Farmers sprinkle urea in rice field when leaves turned into ………. colour.
A) White
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) Black
Answer:
C) Yellow

Question 17.
Plants get Carbon dioxide from
A) Air
B) Water
C) Sunlight
D) Chlorophyll
Answer:
A) Air

Question 18.
Function of stem in photosynthesis
A) Supply of Carbon dioxide
B) Exchange of gases
C) Transport of water and minerals
D) Strength
Answer:
C) Transport of water and minerals

Question 19.
Plants take water through roots and through stomata.
A) Air
B) Light
C) Minerals
D) Manure
Answer:
A) Air

Question 20.
Plants get air through
A) Stomata
B) Loose tissue
C) Lenticels
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 21.
The tiny holes on the surface of leaf are called
A) Stomata
B) Loose tissue
C) Lenticels
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Stomata

Question 22.
Forming starch by combining car-bon dioxide and water requires
A) Chlorophyll
B) Sunlight
C) Sodium
D) Calcium
Answer:
B) Sunlight

Question 23.
Herbarium is the ……….. of plants.
A) Collection
B) Preservation
C) Collection and preservation
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Collection and preservation

Question 24.
Plants produce first
A) Sugar
B) Starch
C) Proteins
D) Fats
Answer:
A) Sugar

Question 25.
The main nutrients needed are
A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium
C) Phosphorus
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 26.
Plants require nutrients in minute quantities called
A) Macro nutrients
B) Micro nutrients
C) Essential nutrients
D) Non essential nutrients
Answer:
D) Non essential nutrients

Question 27.
Yellow thread like structures twin-ning around the stem has no ……….
A) Chlorophyll
B) Leaves
C) Leaves and chlorophyll
D) Stem
Answer:
C) Leaves and chlorophyll

Question 28.
Haustoria are present in …….
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Saprophytes
D) Symbionts
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 29.
Haustoria are special
A) Roots
B) Stems
C) Leaves
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 30.
The living forms develop on dead and decayed material
A) Saprophytes
B) Halophytes
C) Autotrophs
D) Symbionts
Answer:
A) Saprophytes

Question 31.
Carnivorous plants gets water from
A) Soil
B) Insects
C) Other plants
D) All these
Answer:
A) Soil

Question 32.
Insectivorous plants meet their nitrogen requirement from ( )
A) Insects
B) Birds
C) Soil
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Insects

Question 33.
Through this experiment we prove that

A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) root absorption
D) transpiration
Answer:
C) root absorption

Question 34.
We can see the spots in

A) roots
B) stem
C) leaves
D) flowers
Answer:
C) leaves

Question 35.
Through this experiment we can prove that

A) light is essential for photosynthesis
B) carbondioxide is essential for photosynthesis
C) leaves are essential for photosynthesis
D) chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
Answer:
A) light is essential for photosynthesis

Question 36.
What type of plant is this?

A) Parasitic plant
B) Insectivorey plant
C) Mango plant
D) Saprophytic plant
Answer:
B) Insectivorey plant

Question 37.
Plants making food materials by this process
A) cooking food
B) food absorption
C) photosynthesis
D) symbiosis
Answer:
C) photosynthesis

Question 38.
Insectivorus plants fullfil their deficiency of this element by trapping insects
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) hydrogen
D) oxygen
Answer:
B) nitrogen

Question 39.
Symbiosis organisms share their
A) food
B) shelter
C) both A & B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 40.
This plants does not having green colour
A) Insectivorous plants
B) Saprophytes
C) Symbiosis plants
D) Autotrophs
Answer:
B) Saprophytes

Question 41.
Colonies of algae & fungi living together are called
A) parasitism
B) saprophytism
C) symbiosis
D) insectivorus
Answer:
C) symbiosis

Question 42.
In Dal plants bacteria live on nodules of this part
A) roots
B) stem
C) leaves
D) flowers
Answer:
A) roots

Question 43.
Cuscuta is
A) autotroph
B) saprophyte
C) insectivorous plant
D) parasitic plant
Answer:
D) parasitic plant

Question 44.
This parts are used in
A) Exchange of gases
B) Transpiration
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
In starch test after adding iodine leaves turns into
A) green colour
B) red colour
C) yellow colour
D) blue colour
Answer:
D) blue colour

Question 46.
“Plant grows because of the water it gets” concluded by

A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
D) Von Helmont

Question 47.
Haustoria are present in
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Saprophytes
D) Symbiosis
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 48.
Haustoria is a modification of
A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Buds
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 49.
Photosynthesis : Chlorophyll :: Stomata:
A) Exchange of air
B) Transport of nutrients
C) Supply of minerals
D) Production of flowers
Answer:
A) Exchange of air

Question 50.
Cuscuta is a thread-like plant. It neither has leaves nor chlorophyll. The mode of nutrion in this plant is
A) Autotrophic
B) Heterotrophic
C) Symbiont
D) Saprophytic
Answer:
B) Heterotrophic

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 11th Lesson Perimeter and Area with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
Sum of all the lengths of all sides a polygon is called its ………………
A) Perimeter
B) Area
C) Circumference
D) None
Answer:
A) Perimeter

Question 2.
The length of curved edge of a circle is called ……………….
A) Perimeter
B) Area
C) Circumference
D) Diameter
Answer:
C) Circumference

Question 3.
If each side of triangle is x, then its perimeter is ……………..
A) 3a
B) 3x
C) \(\frac{a}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{x}{3}\)
Answer:
B) 3x

Question 4.
Circumference of a circle with radius 14 cm is …………….
A) 154 cm
B) 176 cm
C) 188 cm
D) 88 cm
Answer:
D) 88 cm

Question 5.
Side of an equilateral triangle is 5cm, then its perimeter is ……………….
A) 25 cm
B) 15 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 5 cm
Answer:
B) 15 cm

Question 6.
Perimeter of a rectangle when its length and breadths are l and b respectively is ………………..
A) 2l + b
B) l + 2b
C) l + b
D) 2(l + b)
Answer:
D) 2(l + b)

Question 7.
The region occupied by an object is called ………………..
A) Circumference
B) Area
C) Perimeter
D) Diameter
Answer:
B) Area

Question 8.
Units for the area is ……………….
A) centimetres
B) metres
C) square units
D) cubic units
Answer:
C) square units

Question 9.
Area of a rectangle = ………………..
A) l + b
B) 2(l + b)
C) \(\frac{l}{b}\)
D) l.b
Answer:
D) l.b

Question 10.
The area of a square with side 8m is ………………
A) 64 sq.m
B) 16 sq.m
C) 64 m
D) 16 m
Answer:
A) 64 sq.m

Question 11.
Area of a square is 81 sq.cm then its side = ………………….
A) 8 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 7 cm
D) 10 cm
Answer:
B) 9 cm

Question 12.
Circumference of a circle is 154 cm, then its diameter is ………………..
A) 49 cm
B) 94 cm
C) 24.5 cm
D) 49. sq.cm
Answer:
A) 49 cm

Question 13.
What is the ratio of the perimeter and area of a square when its side is 5 cm?
A) 1 : 2
B) 3 : 4
C) 4 : 5
D) 5 : 4
Answer:
C) 4 : 5

Question 14.
What is the formula to find the circumference of a circle?
A) a × a
B) 2πr
C) 2ra
D) 2(l + b)
Answer:
B) 2πr

Question 15.
If the diameter of a circle is 14 cm, then its area is …………………
A) 308 sq.cm
B) 154 sq.cm
C) 616 sq.cm
D) 108 sq.cm
Answer:
B) 154 sq.cm

Question 16.
Radius of a circle is 7 cm and its circumference is equal to the perimeter of a square, then its side is ……………….
A) 44 cm
B) 14 cm
C) 22 cm
D) 34 cm
Answer:
C) 22 cm

Question 17.
If the sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm, then its perimeter is ………………….
A) 38 cm
B) 19 cm
C) 53 cm
D) 46 cm
Answer:
B) 19 cm

Question 18.
Perimeter of a regular pentagon is ……………..
A) 5 × side
B) 6 × side
C) 4 × side
D) 3 × side
Answer:
A) 5 × side

Question 19.
If length is doubled, breadth is tripled, then the area of the rectangle becomes ………………….
A) 3 times
B) 5 times
C) 4 times
D) 6 times
Answer:
D) 6 times

Question 20.
A piece of wire of length 15 cm is used to form an equilateral triangle, then the length of the side is ……………….
A) 3 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 6 cm
Answer:
C) 5 cm

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Perimeter of a square, if its side is ’a’ ………………….
Answer:
4 × side = 4a

2. The value of pi(π) is nearly equals to ……………….
Answer:
\(\frac{22}{7}\)

3. Perimeter of a square when its side 10 cm is ……………….
Answer:
40 cm

4. Radius of the circle, when its circumference is 176 cm ………………
Answer:
28 cm

5. Perimeter of a square is 60 m, then its side is ……………….
Answer:
15 m

6. Diameter of a circle is 21 cm, then its circumference is ………………..
Answer:
66 cm

7. Area of the square = …………………
Answer:
a × a (or) a²

8. If length and breadth of a rectangle are 8cm and 6cm respectively, then its area = ………………….
Answer:
48 sq. cm

9. If the area of a square is 121 sq. m, then its side = ………………..
Answer:
11 m

10. If the area of rectangle is 108 sq.cm and its one side is 12 cm, then its other side = ………………..
Answer:
9 cm

11. Circumference of the circle, when its diameter is d = ……………….
Answer:
πd

12. Number of tiles with dimensions 12 cm, 5 cm needed to fit a region whose length and breadth are 144 cm and 100 cm is ……………….
Answer:
120

13. If l: b = 2 : 1 of a rectangle, its area is 72 sq.cms, then its perimeter = ………………….
Answer:
36 cm

14. A wire was bent in the shape of a circle with radius 14 cm. If the same wire was again used to make a square, then its side is ………………..
Answer:
22 cm

15. Length and breadth of a rectangle are 7cm and 6 cm. If the breadth is increased by 6cm and length is decreased by 6cm, then the difference in areas is ……………..
Answer:
30 sq.cm