Category: Class 10

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Textbook Solutions Study Material Guide Pdf free download in English Medium and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 10th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also go through AP Board 10th Class Social Notes to understand and remember the concepts easily. Students can also read AP 10th Class Social Important Questions for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Studies Textbook Solutions Study Material Guide Pdf Free Download

AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf Download English Medium

AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 2021-2022 Part 1 Resources Development and Equity

• Chapter 1 India: Relief Features
• Chapter 2 Ideas of Development
• Chapter 3 Production and Employment
• Chapter 4 Climate of India
• Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources
• Chapter 6 The People
• Chapter 7 People and Settlement
• Chapter 8 People and Migration
• Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy
• Chapter 10 Globalisation
• Chapter 11 Food Security
• Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social Study Material Pdf Download English Medium Part 2 Contemporary World and India

• Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part 1
• Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part 2
• Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies
• Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence
• Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution
• Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)
• Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000
• Chapter 20 Post – War World and India
• Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times
• Chapter 22 Citizens and the Governments

AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf Download Telugu Medium

AP 10th Class Social Guide భాగం-1 : వనరుల అభివృద్ధి, సమానత

• Chapter 1 భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు
• Chapter 2 అభివృద్ధి భావనలు
• Chapter 3 ఉత్పత్తి, ఉపాధి
• Chapter 4 భారతదేశ శీతోష్ణస్థితి
• Chapter 5 భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు
• Chapter 6 ప్రజలు
• Chapter 7 ప్రజలు – నివాస ప్రాంతాలు
• Chapter 8 ప్రజలు – వలసలు
• Chapter 9 రాంపురం : గ్రామ ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థ
• Chapter 10 ప్రపంచీకరణ
• Chapter 11 ఆహార భద్రత
• Chapter 12 సమానత – సుస్థిర అభివృద్ధి

AP 10th Class Social Textbook Telugu Medium Pdf భాగం-2 : సమకాలీన ప్రపంచం, భారతదేశం

• Chapter 13 ప్రపంచ యుద్ధాల మధ్య ప్రపంచం 1900-1950 : భాగం-I
• Chapter 14 ప్రపంచ యుద్ధాల మధ్య ప్రపంచం 1900-1950 : భాగం-II
• Chapter 15 వలస పాలిత ప్రాంతాలలో జాతి విముక్తి ఉద్యమాలు
• Chapter 16 భారతదేశ జాతీయోద్యమం-దేశ విభజన, స్వాతంత్య్రం: 1939-1947
• Chapter 17 స్వతంత్ర భారత రాజ్యాంగ నిర్మాణం
• Chapter 18 స్వతంత్ర భారతదేశం (మొదటి ముప్ఫై సంవత్సరాలు-1947-1977)
• Chapter 19 రాజకీయ ధోరణుల ఆవిర్భావం : 1977-2000
• Chapter 20 ప్రపంచ యుద్దాల తరువాత ప్రపంచం, భారతదేశం
• Chapter 21 సమకాలీన సామాజిక ఉద్యమాలు
• Chapter 22 పౌరులు, ప్రభుత్వాలు

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given may and answer the question:
In which state, Indira Sagar Project is located and on which river?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, River Narmada.

Question 2.
Identify one state for each movement in given India’s political map relating to the following social movements.
Answer:

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Chipko Movement

Question 3.
Why did the black Americans begin the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s?
Answer:
The blank Americans began the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s

1. Segregation of the Blacks and Whites (in schools, buses and public places).
2. Discrimination in appointments, housing and in voting rights.

Question 4.
Name the two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement
Answer:
The two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement are

1. Movement of Indigenous people.
2. Movement against neo-liberal policies.

Question 5.
What did the American Civil Rights Movements fight for?
Answer:
The American Civil Rights Movement fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans against permitting segregation.

Question 6.
When was Washington March conducted?
Answer:
Washington March was conducted on 28th August 1963.

Question 7.
Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
In Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 8.
Who led Narmada Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
Medha Patkar led Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 9.
Where was the Chernobyl nuclear plant?
Answer:
The Chernobyl nuclear plant was in the USSR.

Question 10.
In which year was arrack officially banned?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 11.
Which dominated the world during the first half of the 20th century?
Answer:
The world during the first half of the 20th century was dominated by great wars, revolutions, the emergence of German Fascism, Soviet Socialism, Western liberalism, national liberation movements, etc.

Question 12.
Name two anti-Communist countries.
Answer:
The USA and the UK.

Question 13.
Which decades saw a new kind of movement – the movement against war and nuclear arms?
Answer:
The 1970s and 1980s.

Question 14.
When was START signed?
Answer:
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed in 1991.

Question 15.
When was the total arrack prohibition imposed in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 16.
When was Manipur made a part of India?
Answer:
The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India.

Question 17.
When did the Greenpeace Movement start in Europe?
Answer:
The Greenpeace movement initially started as a protest in 1971 against the American underwater nuclear tests near Alaska.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1
Do you agree with the view that equal participation of men and women and equal opportunity for them is necessary for freedom and development of the country?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this view.
2. Because the women contribute nearly half of the participants in all aspects.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the American civil rights movement?
Answer:

1. One of the most important civil rights movements was the American Civil Rights Movement.
2. It fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans of Black Americans and against rules that permitted segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses, and public places and discriminated against them in appointments, housing, and even voting rights.

Question 3.
Read the map given below and answer the following questions.

i) In which state, was Sardar Sarovar Project constructed?
Answer:
Gujarath.

ii) Name the movement that was held against the construction of dams on river Narmada.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 4.
Create two slogans on ‘Environmental Protection.
Answer:

1. No chemicals – Go organic.
2. Conserve water – Conserve life.
3. Grow trees – Save earth.

Question 5.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Domination of Bengalis.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 6.
What would you do, if you were to solve the problem of liquor prohibition?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness among the people.
2. Proper implementation of the laws.
3. Formation of village committees.
4. Making involvement of women.

Question 7.
During the last few decades, why is the pollution increasing day by day?
Answer:

1. Nowadays industries are increasing due to that they release more chemicals and pollution is increasing.
2. Nowadays every person has a power-driven vehicle due to that pollution is increasing.
3. Farmers are using more pesticides and fertilizers, due to that pollution increases. Due to de-forestation, CO₂ reaches more in the atmosphere then pollution increases very highly.

Question 8.
What were the four main demands of Bhopal gas victims?
Answer:

1. Proper medical treatment of the victims.
2. Adequate compensation for them based on international standards.
3. Fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the multinational company.
4. Steps to prevent disasters in the future.

Question 9.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of the Environment.
Answer:

Importance of Environment

1. The surroundings in which living and non-living things are present is known as the environment.
2. For living things environment provides basic needs for staying alive.
3. We get food, shelter and cloth from the environment.
4. Tourism people go the jungle to observe animals and for their different characteristics.
5. The forest, ocean and sky environment provides shelter to various animals.
6. It also provides home for us.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

“A large section of people who actively participated in the civil rights movement were black women, who felt that their voice was not being heard even within the movement which was dominated by men. In fact, no woman was allowed to speak in the famous Washington March. They felt that women needed to assert themselves for the equality of women.”

Answer:
This paragraph is about the inequalities in the society. Women discrimination is discussed. Their voice was not being heard. It means they were not allowed to say what they demand. Many of the black women participated in the Civil rights movement but not even a single woman was allowed to speak is the March. The women came to know that they should fight for their rights.

There was strong discrimination between the Whites and the Blacks. Especially the black women had no rights. The Americans purchased the black people from Nigeria and other African countries as if they purchase different commodities. They were treated as slaves. In 1960s there was a segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses and public places. The blacks were discriminated against in appointments, housing and even in voting rights. So there was a movement against this discrimination.

White Aryan supremacy was the reason for this segregation. The Americans, the English, and French, and the Germans feel that they are Nordic race and their race is the supreme one. Dr. Martin Luther King delivered a speech that he had a dream that his children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of skin.

Discrimination is there in different forms. At the time of Second World War, in Germany, millions of Jews were killed.Caste based discrimination was there in India. Nowadays this discrimination is reduced.

Special status is being given to some people based on their birth or position. In these days, everyone is coming out for study and employment. As this was not there, the movements began. Nowadays the women occupied many high positions. Banks, political parties are also being run by the women. About five states in India are being ruled by the women. Many IAS, IPS officers are there from women.

In conclusion, the women should be given priority, even in family matters. The head of the family may be the women. She could play a crucial role in taking decisions. Equal rights are to be given to women. They should be encouraged for higher education. There voice is to be given respect. In political scenario the wives of leaders occupied some positions but their husbands are ruling. This shouldn’t happen. Let the elected rule of themselves. I hope to see the world without any sort of discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster?
Answer:
The losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster:

1. Thousands of people lost their lives.
2. Many people became homeless.
3. Still people are suffering from its ill effects.
4. It caused damage to the environment.

Question 12.
What is the result of the anti-nuclear movement?
Answer:

1. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons and insisted that USA and USSR come to an agreement to end the Arms Race.
2. Massive protests took place against the governments weaponisation policies and demanded them to reduce nuclear arms and work towards peace on a long term.
3. The USA and the USSR began the race to cut down their nuclear arsenal.
4. Strategic Arms Limitation talks were unsuccessful.
5. A Treaty was signed in 1991 called Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
6. In late 2001, according to this treaty, 80% of the all strategic weapons then in existence were removed.

Question 13.
What is the effect of globalisation on people?
Answer:

1. Tribal and marginal farmers are being threatened by commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc.
2. As large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population.
3. This led to the destruction of tribal cultures.
4. So they became most vulnerable section of the society.
5. These gave rise to environmental movements.
6. Poor families, landless workers, women, industrial workers, and workers in unorganized sectors have been worst hit.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences.

We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Give your opinion on the above article.
Answer:

1. Here the people in the USA were refusing to be drafted into the army to fight in the Vietnam war.
2. They were saying that they had examined the history and the nature of the war.
3. Participation was contrary to the dictates of their consciences.
4. So they are refusing to join into military services.
5. They signed on the statement in order to create political opposition to the war.
6. The article was a trendsetter as people’s rejection to war was established in the statement.

Question 15.
Why have social movements arised?
Answer:

1. Social movements have raised diverse demands of environment or human rights or equality.
2. In some contexts, these resist changes that are forced on them.
3. In some contexts, these demand for change.
4. These often distant from individual political parties and more united under a single cause.
5. Their programmes are envisaged through participatory and democratic manner.
6. Social movements arise when people feel that their expectations were unmet by political systems.

Question 16.
‘The second half of the 20th -century was an era of growth, prosperity and growing tensions’ – Comment.
Answer:

1. With the end of the Second World War and the independence of colonies and semi-colonies like India, China, Indonesia, Nigeria and Egypt by mid 1950s a new era began in the world.
2. This was an era of economic growth and prosperity for most of the countries, but also of growing tensions in many countries.
3. Sections of societies which had long been denied equal rights came out asserting their rights.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two important treaties among the nations to prevent nuclear weapons.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race began talks to cut down their nuclear arsenal.

1. SALT – Strategic Arms Limitation Talks.
2. START – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Question 18.
Read the given passage.

Manipur today is composed of two distinctive geographical terrains: the valley and the hills. Before independence, the valley was under princely rule and the hill areas were relatively autonomous, mainly inhabited by the tribal population. In 1891 the British established their I control over the region though the king continued to rule the kingdom. The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India. This agreement was disputed by many tribes which argued that they had been autonomous and did not agree to be a part of India.

Answer the following questions.
a) When did the British establish their control over the Manipur?
Answer:
British established their control oyer Manipur in 1891.

b) When has Manipur signed a merger agreement with India?
Answer:
Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949.

c) Name the two distinctive geographical terrains of Manipur.
Answer:
Two distinctive geographical terrains in Manipur are 1) Hills and 2) Valleys.

Question 19.
The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect the social life-Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect social life.
2. The raise in the price levels of oil will lead to raise in the transportation costs.
3. It’s raise leads to raise in the prices of essential commodities.
4. As we depend a lot on oil imports, it’s cost raise will charge a lot on our exchequer.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an essay on ‘Appreciating the prominence of the basic features of Social Movements”.
Answer:

1. Social movements have been a powerful means for ordinary people to participate directly in creating positive social change.
2. There are deeply grounded in our founding values of security, culture, justice, democracy, civil rights, etc.
3. Social movements have raised diverse demands cutting across the strict boundary of environment establishing equality.
4. Most of the social movements are non-violent and often a distance from individual political parties and are more united under a single cause.
   For all these conditions we can appreciate the basic features of the Social Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the Meira Paibi Movement.
Answer:

1. Meira Paibi (in Meitei language) literally can be translated as ‘torch bearers’.
2. Meira Paibi originated as a movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the late 1970s.
3. But, it soon became a movement for human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces to counter the armed movement in the early 1980s.
4. This resulted in frequent military operations and human rights violations. The Meira Paibi responded instantly with protest demonstrations.
5. The Meira Paibi took to patrolling the streets at night.
6. Women of every leikai or ward of every town and village participated in the daily patrolling.
7. Bearing no weapons but only the bamboo and rag kerosene torches.
8. These are not activists or politically inclined women, Meira Paibi group has also been demanding that AFSPA be revoked.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of globalisation and neo-liberalism on the lives of marginalised people.
Answer:

1. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women and the workers in the unorganised sector have been worst hit.
2. They have no access to better education and skills.
3. As a result, they are not able to get better-paying jobs or legal or other constitutional remedies.
4. Due to the activities such as mining and construction of major projects, many tribal people and farmers are being displaced.

Question 4.
Estimate the pros and cons of building Multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Pros:

1. Huge amounts of water could be stored.
2. Agriculture could be developed.
3. A large amount of electricity could be generated.
4. Floods and droughts could be controlled.

Cons:

1. Local people will be displaced.
2. It is not really possible to rehabilitate all the displaced people properly.
3. Bio-diversity will be damaged.
4. Water storage and electricity generation were actually less than those were assumed.
5. Sometimes the construction of dams may cause earthquakes.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Rank in Total Emissions in 2011	Country	2011 Total Carbon dioxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (million metric tons)	Per capita Carbon di-oxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (Metric tons)
1	China	8715.31	6.52
2	USA	5490.63	17.62
3	Russia	1788.14	12.55
4	India	1725.76	1.45
11	UK	496.80	7.92
15	Indonesia	726.79	1.73

Answer:

1. The above table shows that how many million tonnes of carbon dioxide is emitted in 2011 by some of the countries like China, USA, Russia, India, UK & Indonesia while they are using energy resources.
2. According to this, they are given ranks also to the countries on the base of emission of carbon dioxide.
3. In the above table, over all China emitted more million tonnes, but in percapita USA emitted more metric tonnes.
   In this one China, USA, Russia occupies first three places in the emission of carbon dioxide which are highly industrialised countries. These are the main responsible for global warming in the world and creating natural hazards and disasters in the world. Due to that climatic changes are taken place very rapidly and causes to destroy life at present and future also.
4. If it continues the whole world will suffer very highly, that’s why every country takes the responsibility and reduce the emission of carbon dioxide more and follow the safe and scientific measure and protect the atmosphere, environment and human beings also.

Question 6.
Write about the advantages and problems the people faced, due to the construction of Dams.
Answer:
Advantages: They do not only help in irrigation but also in electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Disadvantages: Due to the Dam construction people lost their fertile land. Tribal people lost the forest land and their livelihood. People are displaced from their native place to other places. It maintains more expenditure also. It also induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The economic and political changes happening world wide since 1990s, which go by the name pf ‘globalisation’ or ‘neo-liberalism’ have deeply impacted the lives of the underprivileged and poor. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women, urban poor working in the unorganised sector and industrial workers have been the worst hit. By and large these are also the people without access to formal education or adequate nutrition and health.

Answer:
This paragraph is about the consequences of globalisation. It mainly influences the poor people and tribal people and it affects workers working in the unorganised sector. The people who are illiterates and under-nutritious are mostly affected.

Due to technological advancement, various machinery came out. The developed technology is influencing all the sectors. In agriculture combined harvesters, threshers are used. Tractors and transplantation machines are used and so labourers lost their livelihoods Due to railways and dams the tribal people are affected. When railways are taken up for extension many of the trees are cut for keeping under the rails. Hence the forest dwellers face problems of displacement. When government plans for constructing dams to increase irrigation facilities it is compulsory to
construct near forests. These lead to the displacement of tribal people. Many of these people are illiterates. Many tribal people lost their livelihoods such as collecting honey, nuts and seeds. Industrial belts also increased near the outskirts of cities and towns. This leads to pollution. Many rural illiterates are affected by this. Computers, IT,

Telecommunication, transportation increased and so the poor and the tribals are impacted.
My suggestion to the government is that it should take care of the people about their displacement. Proper compensation is to be given on time. Officers also should implement existing laws.

Question 8.
What are the ways in which the Black Americans protested with the government?
Answer:

1. The Black Americans suffered a lot as the government permitted segregation in schools and buses.
2. There was discrimination against them in appointments, housing, and even in voting rights.
3. They took up the Civil Rights Movement.
4. It Is of non-violent nature.
5. They gave massive demonstrations, marches, civil disobedience and boycott of discriminatory services.
6. They boycotted the buses for one year long.
7. More than two lakh people conducted the Washington March.
8. These are the ways in which they protested.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

Initially, the Sardar Sarovar Project was expected to be built with money borrowed from World Bank. After Intense protests, mobilisation, marches, hunger fasts and an international campaign World Bank decided to withdraw its funding.

Is it possible to build factories or projects or powerplants without throwing out farmers or tribal people?
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is possible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material.
3. .For that Government should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the interests of the farmers and tribals also lies with the government.
5. The government should see that no damage is done to any sections of people.
6. Compensations in terms of land, money or job are to be properly calculated.
7. Government has to go for alternatives if the interests of any section of people are hurt.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

Sl. No.	Movement	Place	Leaders
1.	Civil Rights Movement	America	Dr. Martin Luther King
2.	Narmada Bachao Andolan	Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh	1) Medha Patkar 2) Bava Mahalia
3.	Anti-arrack Movement	Andhra Pradesh	Rosamma
4.	Anti AFSPA	Manipur	Irom Sharmila

a) Which state witnessed anti-arrack movement?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the state which witnessed anti-arrack movement.

b) Which movement was led by Med ha Patkar?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by Medha Patkar.

c) Who led the Civil Rights Movement in America?
Answer:
Dr. Martin Luther King led the Civil Rights Movement in America.

d) Name the movement that took place in Manipur.
Answer:
Anti AFSPA is the movement that took place in Manipur.

e) Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was taken place in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

	Vietnam	The USA
Civilian deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	Nil
Military deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	58,000
Physically handicapped	NA	More than 58,000
War technique	Guerrilla warfare	Army, Air Force
Arsenal (Invented)	NIL	Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs

a) What is the war technique of Vietnam?
Answer:
The war technique of Vietnam is Guerrilla warfare.

b) What are the inventions of the USA Arsenal?
Answer:
Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs are the inventions of U.S.A Arsenal.

c) Why were there no civilian deaths in war for the USA?
Answer:
The war was fought in Vietnam. So, none of the USA civilian deaths occurred there.

d) How many military deaths were there for the USA?
Answer:
There were 58000 military deaths for the USA.

e) How many civilian deaths were there for Vietnam?
Answer:
There were 8 to 30 lakh civilian deaths for Vietnam.

Question 12.
Read the following information.

Article	Provisions
Article 3	Everyone has right to life, liberty and security.
Article 5	No one is subject to torture, or to cruel, inhuman treatment or punishment.
Article 7	All are equal before law.
Article 9	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest detention, exile.
Article 10	Everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.
Article 12	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy.
Article 13	Everyone has right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of our country.

Read the passage and answer the following questions.
a) Which article protests, against the arbitrary arrest?
Answer:
Article 9.

b) What are the provisions of Article 10?
Answer:
According to article 10 everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.

c) Why are the above articles framed?
Answer:
The above articles are framed to protect civil and human rights.

d) Which article insists on equality before Saw?
Answer:
“Article 7” insists on equality before law.

Question 13.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the movement	Purpose	Who lead the movement
1.	Civil Rights Movement of the USA of 1960’s.	Protest against discrimination of blocks in the USA	Martin Luther king 1960’s
2.	Human Rights Movement	Human rights of freedom of expression and move­ment.	Alexander Solzhenit­syn and Andrei Sakharov.
3.	Green Peace Movement	Banning of underwater nuclear tests	Mass Movement
4.	Narmada Bhachao Andolan	Demand for a fair compensation	Meda Patkar and Bava Mahaliya
5.	Anti-Arrack movement	Against liquor in Nellore in A.P.	Mass Movement
6.	Meira Paibi Movement	To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in Meitei in Manipuri.	Mass movement

a) Write about civil rights movement of the USA.
Answer:
It was a movement to protest against discrimination of blacks in the USA in 1960s.

b) In which place Anti-Arrack movement in A.P. occurred?
Answer:
In Nellore District.

c) Name the movement that banned under water nuclear tests.
Answer:
Green Peace movement.

d) Who were the leaders of Human Rights Movement of the USSR.
Answer:
Alexander Solzhenitsyn and Andrei Sakharov.

Question 14.
What were the demands of the people of Bhopal regarding the great tragedy?
Answer:

1. The worst industrial disaster in the world happened in Bhopal in 1984.
2. Thousands of people lost their lives and many more are still suffering from its ill effects till date.
3. Right from the beginning, the people of Bhopal have been fighting for four main demands.
4. Proper medical treatment of the victims is the first.
5. As the company was a multinational company, the compensation for them based on international standards.
6. Third one is fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the company.
7. The fourth demand is to find steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
8. While they have succeeded to some measure, they are still a long way to achieve all these demands.

Question 15.
Locate the following points on the outline map of world.

1. USA
2. USSR
3. Vietnam
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Andhra Pradesh
6. Manipur
7. Gujarat
8. Hungary
9. Poland.

Answer:

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Estonia
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Finland
4. Hungary
5. Europe
6. Norway
7. Sweden
8. Greenland
9. River Niger
10. Turkey

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77).

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at the time of the creation of the states in 1956?
Answer:
The languages spoken by dominant or powerful populations were considered at that time, so the tribal language were ignored.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Panchsheel policy?
Answer:
To establish a foreign policy on the basis of Gandhian principles like peace and non-violence.

Question 3.
What were the main challenges before the leaders of the country in the early years after Independence?
Answer:

1. To maintain unity and integrity.
2. Reorganization of states without disturbing unity and integrity.
3. To bring about social and economic transformation
4. Poverty
5. Unemployment
6. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Write any two rural development programmes of Nehru.
Answer:
The rural development programmes are:
The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.

1. Land reforms,
2. Agricultural co-operatives and
3. Local self-government.

Three types of land reforms were contemplated, a) abolition of Zamindari system, b) tenancy reform and c) land ceilings.

Question 5.
Why is the Green Revolution Compulsory in India?
Answer:
Green Revolution in India is compulsory because.

1. To meet the needs of the increasing population by increasing food production.
2. To use better water management.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a single-party system and multi-party system?
Answer:

1. Single party system – prevailing only one party
2. Multi-party system – prevailing many parties.

Question 7.
What was the main reason behind introducing symbols to represent political parties and candidates by Election Commission?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise:
All the people who attain the age of 18 years, irrespective of caste, creed, religion gender language have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What are the land reforms proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
According to Nehru’s proposal of land reforms are:

1. Abolition of Zamindari System
2. Tenancy reforms
3. Land ceiling. Some land is fixed. No one should hold more than that extent.

Question 10.
What did the Election Commission of India do for the illiterates to cast their vote?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India introduced symbols for the political parties and contesting candidates for the sake of illiterates to cost their vote easily.

Question 11.
What is the Constitution sought for?
Answer:
The Constitution is sought to fulfil multiple goals simultaneously, including making democracy work, unification and creation of a single political community and bringing about massive social and economic changes.

Question 12.
What was a great achievement?
Answer:
The setting of national goals and putting in place institutional mechanisms to achieve them within a relatively short span of time was undoubtedly a great achievement for a people who had been ruled by a foreign power for more than two centuries.

Question 13.
How can you say that first general elections were immensely significant for Indian democracy?
Answer:
The first elections were difficult because of the social dimensions also.

Question 14.
Why was an Election Commission set up?
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to take care of the practical matters of conducting elections across the length and breadth of the country.

Question 15.
What was called the Congress System?
Answer:
The Congress party formed the government in many of the states as well. This inaugurated what some observers called the Congress System.

Question 16.
Write about the groupism in Congress.
Answer:
Congress always had within small groups. Though these groups originated on the basis of personal competition between leaders, they shared in the overall goals of the party but differed on some policy issues.

Question 17.
What enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy?
Answer:
It was the strength of the Constitutional framework and the democratic foundations laid by the freedom movement which enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy.

Question 18.
Write a challenge of the new nation.
Answer:
Among the first challenges the new nation faced was the demand for the reorganization of states on the basis of language.

Question 19.
How was the country divided during British rule?
Answer:
During the British period, the country was divided into Presidencies (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) and a number of very large states like Central Provinces and Berar. A large part of the country was under princely states.

Question 20.
What was the fear regarding the language reorganisation?
Answer:
The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganization would lead to breaking up of the country.

Question 21.
When were the A.P. and Tamil Nadu state created?
Answer:
Potti Sriramulu demanding the formation of a separate Telugu speaking state died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952. Consequently, the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were created.

Question 22.
What was at the top of the agenda of modern India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity, it put social and economic change at the top of the agenda of modern India.

Question 23.
What were the two questions that divide a political opinion?
Answer:
The two main questions that divided political opinion were:

1. What place agriculture should have in the larger development strategy?
2. How should resources be allocated between industry and agriculture?

Question 24.
What did the planners feel?
Answer:
The planners felt that for the country to develop it was essential to develop industries so that more people can shift to towns to work in factories and in the service sector. Hence from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, the emphasis shifted to industries.

Question 25.
Who formulated Panchsheel and for what?
Answer:
As for the immediate neighbours Nehru formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

Question 26.
Who succeeded Sastri?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister after his untimely death in 1966.

Question 27.
Name some assemblies in which the Congress defeated.
Answer:
It was defeated in assemblies like Bihar, U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala.

Question 28.
Who was MGR?
Answer:
He was a popular hero in Tamil Nadu.

Question 29.
How were SVD governments?
Answer:
Many of these SVD governments were short-lived. Their life was marked by defections and corruption. Power seemed to be the only thing that united them. These governments had nothing to showcase.

Question 30.
What was the regional sentiment in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, there was a demand for the separation of Telangana. The movement was spearheaded by students of Osmania University, whose main grouse was that the benefits of development were going to only some sections of the state.

Question 31.
What was Bangladesh?
Answer:
It was East Pakistan.

Question 32.
What was popular slogan in 1971 election?
Answer:
The popular slogan in 1971 election was “Garibi Hatao”.

Question 33.
What were the important legislations during the period of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:

1. Nationalisation of many private banks.
2. Abolition of princely pensions.

Question 34.
What happened in 1973?
Answer:
In 1973, the Court came up with the landmark decision on the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which put a checkon the governmental power to amend the Constitution.

Question 35.
Write any two ill effects of the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights were suspended.
2. There were also instances of arbitrary arrests, torture and violation of civil liberties.

Question 36.
How was Meghalia formed?
Answer:

1. Meghalaya was formed in 1969; Meghalaya formerly belonged to Assam.
2. It was formed out of the tribal districts of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo hills.

Question 37.
Expand SRC.
Answer:
State Reorganization Committee.

Question 38.
Write two important events occurred during Lai Bahadur Shastry period.
Answer:

1. Official language Act in 1963 and anti-Hindi agitation.
2. War with Pakistan in 1965.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the given Pie diagram and discuss the 2014 General Elections.

Answer:

1. B.J.P. is the largest party with 282 seats.
2. INC got only 44 seats.
3. AIADMK got 37 seats
4. TDP got 16 seats.
5. Others got 140 seats.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the given question.

With this democracy was put on hold. The government began a series of repressive measures, claiming that this was necessary to bring order in the country. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended. There were also instances of arbitrary detention, torture and other violations of civil liberties. While people welcomed control over prices rise and the campaign against black marketing and bonded labour many programmes undertaken by the emergency government such as demolition of slums and forced sterilisation in the name of population control became very unpopular. However, in the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.

What were the changes taken place in an emergency?
Answer:

1. Democracy was put on hold.
2. The government began a series of repressive measures in the name of law and order.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. Forced sterilization in the name of population control.
5. In the absence of civil rights, people could not express their discontent.

Question 3.
What are the aims of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:

1. To exclude the courts from election disputes.
2. To strengthen the central government vis-a-vis the State Governments.
3. To provide maximum protection from judicial challenges towards social and economic transformation legislation.
4. To make the judiciary subservient to the parliament.

Question 4.
Read the following paragraph and comment in your own words.

One of the greatest weaknesses was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health. This was going to hurt India for a long time to come. Other countries like China and Korea which also began a new inning around the same time, did much better on these two counts as compared to India.

Answer:

1. Primary education and public health are the most important aspects.
2. They have to be given utmost priority in any state.
3. Unfortunately in India, both these sectors could not develop as per expectations.
4. The government had to play a key role in these sectors to achieve the targets.

Question 5.
How were the land reforms implemented in India? How far did these reforms benefit the people?
Answer:

1. Land reforms were however implemented in a half-hearted manner across India.
2. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land.
4. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret the changes taken place in the social and economic fields in India.

Land reforms were implemented in a halfhearted manner across India. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity as its agenda.

1. For that the Planning Commission was set up within a month. The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
2. The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.
   1. Landforms
   2. Agricultural co-operatives
   3. Local Self Government
3. Three types of land reforms were contemplated:
   1. Abolition of Zamindari system
   2. Tenancy reforms and
   3. Land Ceilings.
4. Local self-government would ensure that the land reforms were carried out and the coopera¬tives run according to the collective interests of the village.
5. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and industrial sector.
6. The Second Five Year Plan shifted emphasis to industries. As a result, the service sector also would develop.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Lai Bahadur Shastri do you like? Why?
Answer:
After the death of Nehru in 1964, Congress managed a successful transition with the choos¬ing of Lai Bahadur Sastri as its leader in government. Sastri was immediately put to test with a series of issues which challenged the fundamental values and goals of the Indian nation. These included the Anti-Hindi agitation led by the DMK in the South, which threatened the goals of unity and integrity, the shortage of food which came in the way of social and economic transformation, besides a war with Pakistan in 1965.

Question 8.
Draw an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the results of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Results of Green Revolution:

1. Increase in net sown area
2. Increase in double-cropped area
3. Progress in the irrigation sector
4. Increase in per hectare yield level
5. Increase in the area under High Yielding Varieties
6. Increase in the use of fertilizers.

Question 10.
Write the differences between Regional party and the National Party.
Answer:
State Party: In a state, if a party wins 3% of valid votes or 3 Assembly seats, it is declared as a regional/state party. A party can be recognised in more than one state.
National Party: If a party is recognized in four states with 6% of valid votes or 11 Loksabha M.P seats from 4 different states, it is called a national party.

Question 11.
Create two slogans on “the importance of voting”.
Answer:
Your vote – Your weapon
Cast your vote – Change your fate
Vote is valuable – Don’t sell it

Question 12.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

A few days later, with the JP movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency and justified it as necessary to preserve order, save democracy, protect the social and economic transformation and preserve national integrity.

Comment on the above text.
Answer:

1. When J.P. movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency.
2. Democracy was put on hold.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. There were instances of arbitrary arrests and the violation of civil liberties.
5. The emergency period weakened the democratic fabric of our country.

Question 13.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the states that are bordering Hyderabad state.
Answer:
Bombay State, Andhra state and Mysore state were surrounding the Hyderabad state.

b) How many states were there in the southern peninsula?
Answer:
There were eight states in the southern peninsula. They are

1. Bombay state
2. Hyderabad state,
3. Mysore state,
4. Andhra state,
5. Madras state,
6. Coorg state,
7. Pondicherry state,
8. Travancore-Cochin state.

Question 14.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.
a) What was the smallest state that is there between Madras and Mysore state?
Answer:
“Coorg” was the smallest state between Madras and Mysore states.

b) Name the southernmost state from the above map.
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southern most state.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

Jawaharlal Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states; he only believed that this was not the time for it. It was also the consensual position among the leaders of the day. They believed that India was in the process of consolidating Itself and there should be no distraction.

Was Nehru opposing “Liquistic reorganization of states”?
Answer:

1. No. Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states.
2. He thought it was not a right time for reorganization.
3. Still India was consolidating itself.
4. At this moment there should not be any distraction.
5. Hence Nehru thought that it was not the right time to reorganization.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When India became independent the Cold War had just begun and the world was being polarised into countries in the US or USSR camp. Jawaharlal Nehru followed a policy of not joining either camp and tried to maintain an equidistant and independent position in foreign policy. He also joined hands with several other countries that had become independent around the same time and wanted to follow a similar policy – Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and so on. Together they built the Non Aligned Movement. As for the immediate neighbours he formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs. However, India had to face two wars during this period, first with Pakistan over Kashmir in 1948 and with China in 1962. India was not well prepared for the wars, especially the war in 1962 and sustained heavy losses of human life and money.

Answer:
What was our foreign policy and did that policy help us to avoid wars with our neighbours?

1. We became independent in the bipolarized world.
2. We followed a policy of not joining in the US or the USSR camp.
3. Along with other countries like Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia we built the Non-Alignment movement
4. In spite of our policy of Non-Alignment, we had to face two wars with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971 and one war with China, i.e. in 1962.
5. These wars ended with heavy losses of human life and money.
6. We have always been peace-loving and follow our policy in spite of hurdles.

Question 17.
What were the challenges before the leadership?
Answer:
The main challenges before the leadership were the need to maintain unity and integrity, bring about a social and economic transformation and to ensure the working of the democratic system. These challenges are interrelated and great care had to be taken to ensure that the system did not get imbalanced.

Question 18.
Mention the social dimension time of the first general elections.
Answer:
A large section of the population did not know how to read and write. In some parts of the country, women were known by their father’s or husband’s name, they did not have an independent identity. This has to change if women were to have equal rights and take the country towards greater social equality.

Question 19.
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy, the Election Commission came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political parties and candidates. This creative innovation dispensed with elaborate instructions and required only visual identification. This basic idea continues even today. To make it even easier, in the first election each candidate had a separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside; the voter only had to drop their ballot paper in the box of their preferred candidate.

Question 20.
How were the first three general elections?
Answer:
In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962, the Indian National Congress won reducing other participants to almost nothing. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India. None of the other parties individually got more than 11% of the votes polled.

Question 21.
What was the result of groupism in Congress party?
Answer:
The groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as if it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. At times, these groups also tied up with other political parties to pressurise the leadership. This also acted as an inbuilt corrective mechanism within the ruling party. Political competition in the one- party dominant system, therefore, took place within the Congress. The opposition parties therefore only posed a latent and not a real threat.

Question 22.
What was the planning for Nehru?
Answer:
For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well. He hoped that planned development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and region as well as other disruptive and disintegrative tendencies and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.

Question 23.
Write about the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and stressed on the need for increased food production, development of transport and communications and the provision of social services. It also stressed the need to industrialise India as quickly as possible. Given that food was a basic requirement, there was a consensus on increasing food production but there was no agreement on how this should be achieved.

Question 24.
How were land reforms implemented?
Answer:
Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner across India. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefitted from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 25.
Write about laws during the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on improving agriculture by building large dams to irrigate and produce electricity. Dams benefitted both the agriculture and the industrial sector. Though there was an increase in agricultural production, it was still not sufficient to meet the needs of the population.

Question 26.
Explain the need of Green revolution.
Answer:
The existing strategy was not increasing food production, there was a shift to different strategy between the years 1964-67. This attempted to secure the cooperation of the state governments as well as increase food production. In a way it also reflected the changes in economic policy after the death of Nehru and also the changes in economic thinking as well.

Question 27.
Explain the reason for the given statement: The new governments are important markers.
Answer:
The new governments are an important marker in India’s political history because it was in a way the first democratic upsurge. It was for the first time the intermediate castes; the groups who had first benefitted from the land reforms and acquired some degree of economic standing gained political power. They were the dominant castes in their respective states and also had a significant numerical presence.

Question 28.
What were the reactions of government before emergency?
Answer:
The government reacted harshly with a series of laws which violated civil rights in the name of maintaining order. The opposition also criticised the Prime Minister for personalising the government. Meanwhile, due to a decision of Allahabad High Court Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha for violating some of the provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act during the 1971 elections. However, she got a stay from the Supreme Court.

Question 29.
In the west, franchise was extended in stages, first to propertied and only subsequently to other sections of society. But independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise at one go. Why was it so?
Answer:

1. The first general elections in independent India were immensely significant for Indian democracy.
2. It represented India’s determination to take the path of democracy.
3. Earlier British provided franchise to propertied and educated as well as taxpayers only.
4. But independent India wanted every adult to indicate his choice.
5. That is how democracy would be more meaningful.
6. So, independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise immediately.

Question 30.
Why were many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments short-lived ?
Answer:

1. Many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments were short-lived.
2. Their life was marked by defections and corruptions.
3. Power seems to be the only thing united them.
4. These governments had nothing to showcase.
5. Even today, the regional or state parties are evaluated from this standpoint.

Question 31.
“The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is useful for Local Self Government”. Explain reasons.
Answer:

1. 73rd Constitutional amendment definitely useful for local self-government.
2. State governments decide on what functions were to be devolved to local self-governments.
3. Women and scheduled caste and tribes are provided with reservation of seats in local self-governments.

Question 32.
“Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyse it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals. ,
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, rising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed emergency.
5. During Emergency, Democracy was put on hold.

Question 33.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti-Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi. This was called anti- Hindi agitation.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of Constitution.
4. The government made English and Hindi as official languages.
5. Till now, Tamilians have anti feelings towards Hindi.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Concept	Related person	Year
1.	Non – alignment	Nehru	1955 -1961
2.	Green revolution	M.S. Swaminathan	1964 -1967
3.	Emergency	Indira Gandhi	1975 -1977
4.	Planning	Nehru	1951
5.	Panchasheela	Nehru	1954

i) Which two countries were signed on Panchasheela pact?
Answer:
China and India.

ii) When did Planning begin in India?
Answer:
1951

iii) Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in India.
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

iv) What is green revolution?
Answer:
A large increase in the production of food grains due to the introduction of high yielding varieties, to the use of pesticides and to better management techniques.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the state	Formation	Capital	Special features
1.	Jharkhand	15th November, 2000	Ranchi	40% of mineral resources of India
2.	Uttarakhand	9th November, 2000	Dehradun	Sanskrit is one of the official languages
3.	Chattisgarh	1st November, 2000	Raipur	15% of total steel production

i) From which state, Jharkhand was separated?
Answer:
Bihar.

ii) Mention one special feature of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Sanskrit is one of the official languages.

iii) Which state was formed on 1st November 2000?
Answer:
Jharkhand.

iv) Which state was separated from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chattisgarh.

Question 3.
Write your comments on the opinion of Ambedkar given below.

On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.

Answer:

1. This opinion of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is very much true.
2. As everyone has his right tp vote and each vote has the same value, we can say that there is political equality.
3. As there is discrimination in many aspects, social equality is becoming a question
4. As there are wide inequalities in incomes of the people, there is no economic equality.
5. These inequalities need to be addressed at the earliest possible moment.

Question 4.
Describe the situation of India during the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The democracy was put on hold.
2. Many Fundamental rights were suspended.
3. Civil liberties were violated.
4. People could not even express their discontent.
5. Slums were demolished.
6. Forced sterilization went on the name of population control.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions:

Sl.No.	Item	Details
1.	Right to vote.	Switzerland women got it in 1971.
2.	Election symbols.	To assist the illiterates.
3.	Victory of Congress.	1952,1957,1962 Elections.
4.	Andhra Mahasabha.	To unite Telugu speaking people in Madras Presidency.
5.	State Reorganisation Act.	1956
6.	First Five Year Plan.	Agriculture
7.	D.M.K.	Tamil Nadu

Questions:

1. When was first linguistic state formed?
Answer:
1953.

2. Mention one of the challenges faced by Election Commission in conducting First General Elections.
Answer:
Illiteracy.

3. In which Five Year Plan, was agriculture given importance?
Answer:
Agriculture was given importance is the First Five Year Plan.

4. What party dominated Indian politics in first 3 decades of independent India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

S.No.	Name of the Party	Year 1952	Year 1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Socialist Party	12	12
4.	Kisan Mazdur Party	09	—
5.	People’s Democratic Front	07	—
6.	Ganatantra Parishad	06	—
7.	Others	38	27
8.	Independents	37	20
9.	Jana Sangh	—	18
10.	Praja Socialist Party	—	12
11.	DMK	—	07

Table showing the parliamentary seat sharing of various political parties
a) Which political parties got their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Communist Party.

b) Which political parties had disappeared till 1962?
Answer:

1. Jana Sangh
2. Praja Socialist Party
3. DMK

c) Which political parties lost their seats in 1952 and in 1962?
Answer:
1962: Kisan Mazdur Party, People’s Democratic Front, Ganatantra Parishad

d) Which political parties lost their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Others, Independents, Congress.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India has been extremely successful in holding together and maintaining Its unity and integrity. India was seen a fit case for breakup given Its extreme diversities and the fact that It has not done so, Is a valuable lesson has many other countries.

Answer:

1. India is a vast country with diversity.
2. There are a good number of religious, castes, tribes and languages.
3. People speaking a particular language have a culture and they identify themselves as a separate entity.
4. But National Integrity lies on the fact of “one nation and one race”.
5. In India all communities people joined together and celebrate all festivals.
6. India gave Right to vote to all eligible citizens without discrimination.
7. Even the highest post President of India is also elected from different communities.
8. This shows India follows, unity and integrity.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 – Indian General Elections

Party	Alliance	Votes (%)	Seats
BJP	NDA	31%	282
INC	UPA	19.31%	44

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections, the NDA got 31% of the votes whereas the UPA got 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the Pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave a mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During the Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was a fear that language reorganisation would lead to break down of the country.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph:

The given paragraph says that our country was divided on the basis of religion. So some doubts are created about the security and stability of India. Language reorganisation was another fear. Congress promised to restructure the country on the lines of language.

Everyone knows that India was divided and Pakistan was formed on the basis of religion. Bengal and Punjab were divided into East Bengal – West Bengal and East Punjab – West Punjab. East Bengal became East Pakistan and West Punjab became West Pakistan. In 1970s East Pakistan declared itself independence after the war. Then Bangladesh was formed. The two newly formed countries are of the Muslim majority. Many leaders are afraid about the security and stability of the country. In Pakistan and Bangladesh, a few Hindus are there and in India there are Muslims. Now the position of Hindus in Pakistan and Bangladesh is worst. They have no minority status and rights, but in India minorities are given special attention under Article 29 and 30. The demand of language-based reorganisation was also a problem. At last the States Reorganisation Committee worked out and the States are formed based on the language. Though the States are formed based on language, nothing was weakened as expected but it helped India integrated. Based on the language someone is a Tamilian or Telanganite, he/she is an Indian. Such a feeling is there in all the states. There is a criticism that tribal languages are ignored but they also live in the states safely.

Besides religion, language is also a predominant issue. In erstwhile Andhra Pradesh the language problem was there. Andhra language is greater than Telangana was a feeling. In cinemas, books, cultural programmes and songs Telangana language was degraded and humiliated in many ways. It has become one of the reasons for Telangana separate state movement. Finally, separate Telangana was formed.

In conclusion, I would say, whatever the religion or language is everyone is a human being first next he/she is an Indian. Religion is one’s personal. One can follow the religion he/she likes. The feeling such as one’s religion is greater than others, destroys and destructs the other. Gradually it degrades the country at international level. We hope and wish universal brotherhood. We got independence with lot of stress and strain. We should not spoil its spirit.

Question 10.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Seat share of various political parties in 1952 and 1962

S.No.	Political Party	1952	1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Independents	37	20
4.	Socialist Party	12	06
5.	Others	38	27

Answer:
Table Analysis:
From the given table we understand how the national parties gained seats in 1952 and 1962 general elections.

1. Comparing 1952 & 1962, we come to know that INC lost three seats; Communist Party of India gained 13 more seats than previous election.
2. Independent parties lost 17 seats.
3. Socialist Party drowned to half of its previous seats.
4. Others too lost 11 seats when compared to previous election.

In my opinion, the other parties which contested were not able to win enough seats to challenge the Congress Party.

Question 11.
Observe the given table and analyse the data of Electors.

Election Commission of India

Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 (16th Lok Sabha)

Electors	Male	Female	Others	Total
No. of Electors	43.7 Crores	39.7 Crores	28.5 Thousands	83.4 Crores
No. of Electors who voted	29.2 Crores	26.01 Crores	1968	55.3 Crores
Polling percentage	67.00%	65.54%	7%	66.30%

Answer:
The given table is about the details of Lok Sabha Elections 2014, (16th Lok Sabha) Turn out of the voters issued by Election Commission of India. In the given table male, female and other voters number and their casting of vote particulars are given. Male voters are 43.7 crores whereas 39.7 crores female voters are listed out. Polling percentage in male is 67% and in female it is 65.54%, others only 7%. Out of 83 crore voters 55 crore voters cast their vote.
In democracy voting decides the rulers. Before elections many malpractices are going on the voters are lured with money, liquor, sarees, cricket kits what not many more. Surprising thing is that educated voters are also not excepted.

It is sad in democracy. If all educated and uneducated voters cast their vote by not inclining to any attractions and cast their vote for real leaders then we can say democracy is alive.

In cities like Hyderabad, recent election voting percentage is below 50%. Government should think, why these people are not turning out to cost their vote. In most IT companies they enjoy the day of polling will be a holiday. Rural people turn a lot of costing their vote.

For urban people, Election Commission should come out with a proposal of online voting or evoting. Then percentage will be increased. It is my suggestion.

Question 12.
Analyse the advantages and problems faced by the people due to the Multi-party system in India.
Answer:

1. In the first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress Party won and led to single party dominance.
2. It was a kind of undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
3. To strengthen the democratic foundations multi-party system emerged.
4. It almost checked the single party dominance of Congress.
5. The oppositions started critisizing the government.
6. People now have chance to choose the right party.
7. Multi-party system strengthens the constitutional frame work and democracy.

Question 13.
Observe the following pie diagram and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which political party secured less seats ?
Answer:
Ganatantra Parishad party secured less number of seal

2. What are the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected are 489.

3. How many seats were secured by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Indian National Congress Secured the maximum 364 seats.

4. Which political party secured 16 seats?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 16 seats.

5. How many seats were secured by Kissan Majdoor Party?
Answer:
Kissan Majdoor Party secured 9 seats.

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram and answer the following questions.

a) What were the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected were 494.

b) Which party secured maximum number of seats?
Answer:
Indian National Congress secured maximum number of seats.

c) How many seats were secured by Communist Party of India?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 29 seats.

d) Which party secured minimum of seats?
Answer:
Socialists Party secured minimum number of seats.

e) How many seats were secured by others?
Answer:
Others secured 27 seats.

Question 15.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

Compare the above Pie diagrams.
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams reveal the fact that there was an undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
2. In both the election the Congress won maximum seats, i.e., 364 in 1952 and 361 in 1962 election.
3. Other parties were unable to challenge the Congress.
4. Ganatantra Parishad Party secured less seats in 1952 whereas Socialist Party secured less seats in 1962 elections.
5. The Communist Party of India secured more seats in 1962 i.e., 29 when compared with 16 in 1952 elections.

Question 16.
Read the following and comment on it.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganisation would lead to break up of the country. Hence, even though the Congress itself was organised on the linguistic lines and had promised to restructure the country on those lines, it developed cold feet when independence came.

Answer:

1. The partition of India created a lot of insecurity in the minds of the people.
2. How to maintain the integrity of the country became a burning topic.
3. There was a fear that the language reorganization would lead to breakup of the country.
4. But state reorganization committee was established.
5. Reorganization Act was passed in 1956.
6. Our leaders took initiative in this direction and regional languages were recognized as state official language.
7. English was given the status of communicating language.
8. Hence linguistic reorganization did not create any problem.

Question 17.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) Which was the smallest area shown in the map?
Answer:
Pondicherry was the smallest area shown in the map.

b) Which small state was there in between Madras and Mysore states?
Answer:
Coorg was the small state in between Madras and Mysore states.

c) Which was the southernmost state from the map ?
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southernmost state.

d) Which was the eastern state?
Answer:
Andhra state was the eastern state.

e) Name the boundaries of Andhra State.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Hyderabad, Mysore and Tamil Nadu were the boundaries of Andhra State.

Question 18.
Locate the following on the outline map of India.

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Jammu-Kashmir
6. Nagaland
7. Punjab
8. Meghalaya

Answer:

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Kenya
2. Suez canal belongs to this country
   Answer: Egypt
3. Algeria
4. Libya
5. China
6. Kyrguzstan
7. Uzbekistan
8. Ukraine
9. Phillippine
10. New Zealand

Answer:

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు

10th Class Social Studies 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning (మీ అభ్యసనాన్ని మెరుగుపడుచుకోండి)

ప్రశ్న 1.
వివిధ దేశాలను వర్గీకరించటంలో ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికాలు ఏమిటి? పై ప్రామాణికాలలో ఏమైనా పరిమితులు ఉంటే వాటిని పేర్కొనండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
వివిధ దేశాలను వర్గీకరించటంలో ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికాలు.

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (అమెరికన్ డాలర్లలో) ను ముఖ్య ప్రామాణికంగా తీసుకుంది.
2. దేశం మొత్తం ఆదాయాన్ని (జాతీయాదాయం ) దేశ జనాభాతో భాగిస్తే తలసరి ఆదాయం వస్తుంది.
3. తలసరి ఆదాయంను ‘సగటు ఆదాయం ” అని కూడా అంటారు.

పరిమితులు:
ఎ) పోలికకు “సగటు” ఉపయోగకరంగా ఉన్నా అది ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.
బి) ప్రజల మధ్య ఈ ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ అయిందో తెలియదు.
సి) వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధిని తెలియచేయకపోవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
ప్రతి సామాజిక అంశం వెనుక ఒకటి కాక అనేక కారణాలు ఉంటాయి. ఇక్కడ కూడా అది వర్తిస్తుంది. మీ అభిప్రాయంలో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ఏ ఏ అంశాలు పాఠశాల విద్యకు దోహదం చేశాయి? (AS1)
(లేదా)
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో మెరుగైన అక్షరాస్యతను సాధించడానికి దోహదపడిన అంశాలు ఏవి?
జవాబు:
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో పాఠశాల విద్యకు లేదా మెరుఅక్షరాస్యతకు దోహదం చేసిన అంశాలు.

1. పాఠశాలలు తెరిచి చాలా వరకు విద్య ఉచితంగా ఉండేలా లేదా తల్లిదండ్రులకు నామమాత్రపు ఖర్చు అయ్యేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూసింది.
2. పాఠశాలలో ఉపాధ్యాయులు, తరగతి గదులు, మరుగుదొడ్లు, త్రాగునీరు వంటి కనీస సదుపాయాలు ఉండేలా చూసింది.
3. భారతదేశ రాష్ట్రాలలో ప్రభుత్వ బడ్జెటులో ప్రతి విద్యార్థి చదువుపై ఎక్కువ మొత్తం ఖర్చు పెడుతున్న రాష్ట్రాలలో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ ఒకటి.
4. ఆడపిల్లల పట్ల అంతగా వివక్షత లేకపోవటం అనేది హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో చెప్పుకోదగిన విషయం
5. కొడుకుల లాగానే కూతుళ్లు కూడా చదువుకోవాలని అక్కడి తల్లిదండ్రులు కోరుకుంటున్నారు.
6. లింగ వివక్షత తక్కువగా ఉండటం.
7. మహిళా సాధికారిత (మహిళలు బయట ఉద్యోగాలు చేయటం).
8. సామాజిక జీవితంలోనూ, గ్రామ రాజకీయాలలోనూ మహిళల పాత్ర ఎక్కువగా ఉండటం.

ప్రశ్న 3.
అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ప్రామాణికాలకూ, ఐక్యరాజ్యసమితి అభివృద్ధి కార్యక్రమం ఉపయోగించే వాటికి తేడా ఏమిటి? (AS1)
జవాబు:

ప్రపంచ బ్యాంక్ ప్రామాణికాలు	ఐక్యరాజ్యసమితి అభివృద్ధి కార్యక్రమం (UNDP) ప్రామాణికాలు
1) ప్రపంచ బ్యాంక్ తలసరి ఆదాయం (సగటు ఆదాయం ) ను ప్రధాన ప్రామాణికంగా ఉపయోగిస్తుంది.	1) ఐక్యరాజ్యసమితి అభివృద్ధి కార్యక్రమం (UNDP) తలసరి ఆదాయంతోపాటు విద్యాస్థాయి, ఆయుః ప్రమాణం రేటును ప్రామాణికంగా ఉపయోగిస్తుంది.
2) ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు అభివృద్ధి వేదికను “ప్రపంచ అభివృద్ధి నివేదిక” గా పిలుస్తారు.	2) UNDP నివేదికను ‘మానవాభివృద్ధి నివేదిక’ అని పిలుస్తారు.
3) ప్రజల ఆదాయాలను మాత్రమే పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకొంటుంది. జీవిత ప్రమాణ స్థాయిని పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోదు.	3) ప్రజల ఆదాయాలతో పాటు జీవన ప్రమాణ స్థాయిని కూడా పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకుంటుంది.
4) ప్రజల సంక్షేమాన్ని దీనిద్వారా తెలుసుకోలేం.	4) ప్రజల సంక్షేమాన్ని వీని ద్వారా తెలుసుకోగలం.
5) ఇవి ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.	5) ఇవి ప్రజల (అభివృద్ధి) మధ్య అంతరాలను తెలియజేస్తుంది.
6) ఇవి పరిమాణాత్మకమైనవి.	6) ఇవి పరిమాణాత్మకం మరియు గుణాత్మకమైనవి.

ప్రశ్న 4.
మానవ అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి మీ దృష్టిలో ఇంకా ఏ అంశాలను పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోవాలి? (AS4)
(లేదా)
మానవాభివృద్ధిని కొలవడానికి ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలను ఉదహరించుము.
జవాబు:
మానవ అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకున్న అంశాలు :

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (కొనుగోలు శక్తి తెలుసుకోవటం కోసం)
2. విద్యాస్థాయి
3. ఆరోగ్య స్థితి

పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోవాల్సిన మరికొన్ని అంశాలు :

1. సామాజిక న్యాయం
2. పంపిణీ న్యాయం
3. త్రాగునీటి సౌకర్యాల ఏర్పాటు
4. విద్యుత్ సౌకర్యం
5. ఉద్యోగిత స్థాయి
6. జీవన ప్రమాణ స్థాయి
7. పర్యావరణం, పరిశుభ్రత
8. అవినీతి రహితం
9. సాంకేతిక ప్రగతి
10. మెరుగైన రవాణా వ్యవస్థ

ప్రశ్న 5.
‘సగటు’ ఎందుకు ఉపయోగిస్తాం? దీనిని ఉపయోగించటంలో ఏమైనా పరిమితులు ఉన్నాయా? అభివృద్ధికి సంబంధించి మీ సొంత ఉదాహరణను తీసుకుని దీనిని వివరించండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. పోలికకు ‘సగటు’ను ఉపయోగిస్తాం.
2. జాతీయాదాయం (మొత్తం) కన్నా తలసరి ఆదాయం (సగటు) మెరుగైన సూచిక.
3. “సగటు” ను లెక్కించటం సులువు.

పరిమితులు :

1. సగటు ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.
2. ఇది పరిమాణాత్మకమైనదే కాని గుణాత్మకమైనది కాదు.
3. పంపిణీ ఎలా జరిగిందో తెలియదు.
4. వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధి తెలియజేయకపోవచ్చు.
5. జీవన ప్రమాణ స్థాయిని ఖచ్చితంగా నిర్వచించలేకపోవచ్చు

1. పై ఉదాహరణలో రెండు దేశాల సగటు (20,000) ఒకే విధంగా ఉంది. అయితే,
2. రెండు దేశాల అభివృద్ధి స్థాయి ఒకే విధంగా లేదు.
3. ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో ఒక వ్యక్తి అత్యంత ధనవంతుడు, మిగతా నలుగురు పేదలు కాని సగటును తీసుకుంటే ఈ విషయం వెల్లడి కాదు. అంటే ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ అయిందో తెలియదు.
4. సగటును తీసుకుంటే ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధి జరిగిందో లేదో తెలియకపోవచ్చు.
5. సగటును తీసుకుని ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో వ్యక్తులందరి కొనుగోలు శక్తి ఒకేలా ఉందని అనుకోవచ్చు కాని వాస్తవంలో అది కరెక్ట్ కాకపోవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో తలసరి ఆదాయం తక్కువ ఉన్నప్పటికీ పంజాబ్ కంటే మానవ అభివృద్ధి సూచికలో ముందుండటం అన్న వాస్తవం నేపథ్యంలో ఆదాయం యొక్క ప్రాముఖ్యత గురించి ఎటువంటి నిర్ధారణలు చేయవచ్చు? (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. పౌరులు ఉపయోగించుకోగల భౌతిక వస్తువులు, సేవలను కేవలం ఆదాయం సూచించలేదు.
2. డబ్బు కాలుష్యం లేని వాతావరణాన్ని కొనివ్వలేదు. కలీలేని మందులు దొరుకుతాయన్న హామీ ఇవ్వలేదు.
3. ప్రజలందరూ నివారణ చర్యలు చేపడితే తప్పించి అంటురోగాల నుంచి (ఆదాయం) రక్షించలేకపోవచ్చు.
4. మానవ అభివృద్ధి సూచికలో దిగువన ఉండటం ప్రజల జీవితాలలోని కొన్ని అంశాలపై దృష్టి కేంద్రీకరించాలన్న సంకేతాన్ని ఇస్తోంది.
5. ప్రభుత్వమూ, ప్రజలూ అభివృద్ధి (మానవ వనరులు) పై ఆసక్తి కలిగి ఉంటే ఆదాయం (తలసరి) అంత ప్రాముఖ్య అంశం కాకపోయినప్పటికీ, అవసరమైన మేర ఉండాలి.
   ఉదా : హెచ్.పి. ప్రభుత్వం విద్యపై సగటున 2,005 రూపాయలు ఖర్చు పెడుతోంది, ఇది భారతదేశ సగటు (1049) కన్నా ఎక్కువ.
6. తలసరి ఆదాయ అభివృద్ధి కన్నా, మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధికి అధిక ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వడం వలన హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ఇది (HDI లో ముందుండటం) సాధ్యమయ్యింది.
7. సామాజిక అంశాలు (లింగ వివక్షత, పురుషాధిక్యత మొదలయినవి) మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధిలో ఆదాయం కన్నా ముఖ్యపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి.
   ఉదా : లింగ వివక్షత లేకపోవడం వలన హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో బాలికలు అందరూ చదువుకోవడం జరుగుతుంది.
8. మహిళా సాధికారత మానవాభివృద్ధిలో ప్రముఖ అంశంగా తోడ్పడుతుంది.
   ఉదా : హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో సామాజిక జీవితంలో, గ్రామ రాజకీయాలలోను మహిళల పాత్ర ఎక్కువ. అలాగే పలు గ్రామాలలో చురుకుగా పనిచేస్తున్న మహిళా మండలులు ఉన్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 7.
పట్టిక : హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రగతి

పై పట్టికలో ఉన్న వివరాల ఆధారంగా కింది వాటిని పూరించండి : (AS3)
ఆరు సంవత్సరాలు పైబడిన ప్రతి 100 మంది ఆడపిల్లల్లో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో 1993లో ….. ఆడపిల్లలు ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివారు. 2006 నాటికి ఇది వందలో ………… మందికి చేరుకుంది. భారతదేశం మొత్తం మీద 2006లో ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివిన మగపిల్లల సంఖ్య వందలో …….. మాత్రమే.
జవాబు:
ఆరు సంవత్సరాలు పైబడిన ప్రతి 100 మంది ఆడపిల్లల్లో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో 1993లో …. 39 మంది…. ఆడపిల్లలు ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివారు. 2006 నాటికి ఇది వందలో …60 ….. మందికి చేరుకుంది. భారతదేశం మొత్తం మీద 2006లో ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివిన మగపిల్లల సంఖ్య వందలో … 57….. మాత్రమే.

ప్రశ్న 8.
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో తలసరి ఆదాయం ఎంత? అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్నప్పుడు పిల్లల్ని బడికి పంపటం తల్లిదండ్రులకు తేలిక అవుతుందా? చర్చించండి. హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రభుత్వం పాఠశాలలు నడపటం ఎందుకు అవసరమయ్యింది? (AS1)
జవాబు:
ఎ) హిమాచల్‌ ప్రదేశ్ తలసరి ఆదాయం (2012 సం||లో) 74,000 రూపాయలు.
బి)

1. అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్నప్పుడు పిల్లల్ని బడికి పంపటం తల్లిదండ్రులకూ ఖచ్చితంగా తేలిక అవుతుంది. అయితే తలసరి ఆదాయం అధికంగా ఉన్నప్పుడు ఈ విషయాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా చెప్పలేం. ఎందుకంటే ఆదాయ పంపిణీ ఎలా జరిగిందో చెప్పలేం కనుక.
2. తక్కువ ఆదాయం కలిగి ఉన్న తల్లిదండ్రులు విద్యపై డబ్బు ఖర్చు పెట్టడం కష్టం. అలాగే పిల్లలను కూడా చదువు మాన్పించి కూలీకి (బాలకార్మికులుగా) పంపటం జరుగుతుంది.
3. అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్న తల్లిదండ్రులకు ఆ అవసరం ఉండదు కనుక పిల్లలను చక్కగా చదివిస్తారు.

సి) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రభుత్వం పాఠశాలలు నడపటం ఎందుకు అవసరమయ్యిందంటే.

1. భారతదేశానికి స్వాతంత్ర్యం వచ్చినపుడు హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో విద్యాస్థాయి తక్కువగా ఉండటం.
2. కొండ ప్రాంతం కావటంతో జనసాంద్రత చాలా తక్కువ. పాఠశాల విస్తరణ, ప్రత్యేకించి గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో విస్తరించటం పెద్ద సవాలుగా ఉండింది.
3. చాలావరకు విద్య ఉచితంగా లేదా తల్లిదండ్రులకు నామమాత్రపు ఖర్చు అయ్యేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూసింది.
4. అక్కడి ప్రజలు విద్యపై ఎంతో ఆసక్తి చూపడం వలన.
5. విద్యకు అత్యధిక ప్రాధాన్యతను ఇవ్వడం వలన.

ప్రశ్న 9.
అబ్బాయిలతో పోలిస్తే అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తల్లిదండ్రులు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఎందుకు ఇస్తారు? తరగతిలో చర్చించండి. (AS4)
జవాబు:
అబ్బాయిలతో పోలిస్తే అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తల్లిదండ్రులు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇస్తున్నారు.

కారణాలు :

1. అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వటానికి ప్రధాన కారణం “లింగ వివక్షత”.
2. “బాల్య వివాహాలు” (అమ్మాయిలకు తొందరగా పెళ్ళి చేసి పంపించేయాలని భావించటం),
3. అమ్మాయిలను అబ్బాయిలకంటే తక్కువగా చూస్తూ వారిని ఇంటిపని, వంట పనులకు బాధ్యుల్ని చేయటం, చిన్నపిల్లల సంరక్షణను అప్పగించటం.
4. అమ్మాయి ఎక్కువగా చదువుకుంటే తగిన పెళ్ళి సంబంధం కుదర్చాలంటే ఎక్కువ ఖర్చు మరియు కష్టంతో కూడుకున్నదని పెద్దలు అభిప్రాయపడటం.
5. ఉద్యోగం పురుషలక్షణం అంటూ, అమ్మాయి చదివి ఏం ఉద్యోగం చేయాలని అంటూ అమ్మాయిల విద్యను నిరుత్సాహపరచటం. (ఒక విధమైన ‘పురుషాధిక్యత’)
6. మనది “పితృస్వామ్య కుటుంబా”లవ్వటం వలన అబ్బాయిలకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఎక్కువగా ఉంటుంది.
7. అమ్మాయిలను “సరైన భద్రత” లేకుండా బయటకు (పాఠశాలలు మొ||నవి) పంపటం శ్రేయస్కరం కాదని భావించడం. సరైన సౌకర్యాలు (రవాణా, మరుగుదొడ్లు మొ||నవి) అందుబాటులో లేకపోవటం.
8. మగపిల్లల చదువు (ఖర్చును) పెట్టుబడిగా, బాలికల చదువు (ఖర్చు) ఖర్చుగాను భావించడం. అబ్బాయిలకయ్యే ఖర్చును ఇతరత్రా రూపంలో తిరిగి పొందవచ్చని భావించడం.
9. కొన్ని సామాజిక దురాచారాలు, పురుషాధిక్య సమాజం, మహిళా సాధికారత లోపించడం వలన అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇస్తున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
ఆడవాళ్ళు ఇంటిబయట పనిచెయ్యటానికి, లింగ వివక్షతకూ మధ్య గల సంబంధం ఏమిటి? (AS1)
జవాబు:
ఆడవాళ్ళు ఇంటిబయట పనిచెయ్యటానికి, లింగ వివక్షతకూ విలోమ (వ్యతిరేక) సంబంధం ఉంది.

1. బయట ఉద్యోగాలు చేసే మహిళలు స్వతంత్రంగా ఉంటారు, ఆత్మవిశ్వాసం కనబరుస్తారు.
2. ఇంటిలో తీసుకునే నిర్ణయాలలో అంటే పిల్లల చదువు, ఆరోగ్యం, పిల్లల సంఖ్య, గృహ నిర్వహణ వంటి వాటిల్లో ఆడవాళ్ళ మాటకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఉంటుంది.
3. ఉద్యోగాల్లో ఉన్న మహిళలు పెళ్ళి అయిన తరువాత తమ కూతుళ్లు ఉద్యోగాలు చేయాలని తల్లులు కోరుకుంటారు, కాబట్టి చదువుకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వటం సహజం.
4. ఆడవాళ్లు ఉద్యోగం (బయటపని) చేయటం వలన ఆర్థిక స్వాతంత్ర్యం పొందుతారు, అలాగే ఆర్థికంగా స్థిరత్వం పొందుతారు. తద్వారా మహిళా సాధికారత పొందుతారు.
5. మహిళలు సాధికారత సాధించిన తర్వాత లింగ వివక్షతకు అసలు చోటే ఉండదు. (పూర్తి అనాగరిక సమాజాలలో తప్ప) ఈ విషయాన్ని మనం అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో చూస్తున్నాం కూడా !

ప్రశ్న 11.
ఎనిమిదవ తరగతి పాఠ్యపుస్తకంలో మీరు విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం (వి.హ.చ) గురించి చదివారు. 6-14 సంవత్సరాల బాలలకు ఉచిత విద్యకు హక్కు ఉందని ఈ చట్టం పేర్కొంటోంది. పరిసర ప్రాంతాలలో తగినన్ని పాఠశాలలు నిర్మించేలా, అర్హులైన టీచర్లను నియమించేలా, అవసరమైన సదుపాయాలు కల్పించేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూడాలి. మీరు ఈ అధ్యాయంలో చదివినది, మీకు తెలిసిన దాన్నిబట్టి (1) బాలలకు (II) మానవ అభివృద్ధికి ఈ చట్టం ఎలాంటి ప్రాధాన్యత కలిగి ఉందో చర్చించండి, గోష్టి నిర్వహించండి. (AS2)
జవాబు:
(i) విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం – బాలలకు కలిగి ఉన్న ప్రాధాన్యత.

1. దీని ప్రకారం 6 నుండి 14 సం|| మధ్య వయస్సు గల పిల్లలందరికీ ఉచిత, నిర్బంధ విద్యను ప్రభుత్వం అందిస్తుంది.
2. పిల్లల పరిసరాలలోనే తగిన సంఖ్యలో కనీస సౌకర్యాలు కలిగిన పాఠశాలలు నిర్మించడం, తగినంతమంది ఉపాధ్యాయుల నియామకం చేయడం జరుగుతుంది.
3. పిల్లలకు భయం, ఆందోళన లేకుండా (శారీరక, మానసిక హింసలేకుండా) కృత్యాల ద్వారా బోధన ద్వారా పిల్లల సర్వతోముఖాభివృద్ధికి కృషి చేస్తుంది.
4. బాలల హక్కులు (అభివృద్ధి, భూస్వామ్య హక్కు మొ॥నవి) కాపాడబడటానికి ఈ చట్టం ఎంతో అవసరం.
5. బాలకార్మిక వ్యవస్థ, వెట్టిచాకిరి, బాల్య వివాహాలు మొ||న సామాజిక దురాచారాల నుండి (బాలలను) విముక్తి కల్పిస్తుంది.

(II) మానవ అభివృద్ధికి ప్రాధాన్యత :

1. మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచికలో ‘విద్యాస్థాయి’ ప్రధానమైన సూచిక. విద్యాస్థాయిని పెంపొందించటానికి ఈ విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం ఎంతో ఉపయోగపడుతుంది.
2. సగటున బడిలో గడిపే సంవత్సరాలు ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా ఖచ్చితంగా పెరుగుతాయి.
3. అలాగే పాఠశాల విద్యలో ఉండే సంవత్సరాలు, ప్రాథమిక, మాధ్యమిక, ఉన్నత విద్యలో నమోదు నిష్పత్తి కూడా ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా గణనీయంగా పెరుగుతుంది.
4. ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా విద్యాభివృద్ధి తద్వారా మానవాభివృద్ధి ఆశించిన రీతిలో జరుగుతుంది.
5. విద్యాభివృద్ధి అనేది ఆదర్శవంతమైన (మానవాభివృద్ధి) సూచిక.

10th Class Social Studies 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 1.
ప్రపంచ అభివృద్ధి నివేదిక 2012 ప్రకారం మధ్య ఆదాయ దేశాల తలసరి ఆదాయం ఎంతో పైన ఉన్న భాగం చదివి చెప్పండి.
జవాబు:
ప్రపంచ అభివృద్ధి నివేదిక 2012 ప్రకారం మధ్య ఆదాయ దేశాల తలసరి ఆదాయం 1,035 అమెరికన్ డాలర్ల కంటే ఎక్కువ, 12,600 అమెరికన్ డాలర్ల కంటే తక్కువ.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.14 & 15

ప్రశ్న 2.
పట్టిక : వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు, అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు

వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు	అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు/ఆకాంక్షలు
1) భూమిలేని గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు	మరిన్ని రోజుల పని, మెరుగైన కూలీ; స్థానిక పాఠశాల తమ పిల్లలకు నాణ్యమైన విద్యను అందించగలగటం; సామాజిక వివక్షత లేకపోవటం, వాళ్లు కూడా గ్రామంలో నాయకులు కాగలగటం.
2) ధనిక రైతులు	తమ పంటలకు అధిక మద్దతు ధరల ద్వారా, తక్కువ కూలీకి బాగా కష్టపడే కూలీల ద్వారా అధిక ఆదాయాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా పొందగలగటం; తమ పిల్లలు విదేశాలలో స్థిరపడగలగటం.
3) వర్షాధార రైతులు
4) భూమి ఉన్న కుటుంబంలోని గ్రామీణ మహిళ
5) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని నిరుద్యోగ యువత
6) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని ధనిక అబ్బాయి
7) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని ధనిక కుటుంబానికి చెందిన అమ్మాయి	తన సోదరుడికి లభించే స్వేచ్చ తనకీ కావాలి, తన జీవితంలో ఏం చేయాలో తాను నిర్ణయించుకోగలగాలి. విదేశాలలో పై చదువులు చదువుకోవాలి.
8) గనుల తవ్వకం ప్రాంతంలోని ఆదివాసి
9) తీరప్రాంతంలో చేపలు పట్టే వ్యక్తి

జవాబు:
పట్టిక : వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు, అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు

వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు	అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు/ఆకాంక్షలు
1) భూమిలేని గ్రామీణ కార్మికులు	మరిన్ని రోజుల పని, మెరుగైన కూలీ; స్థానిక పాఠశాల తమ పిల్లలకు నాణ్యమైన విద్యను అందించగలగటం; సామాజిక వివక్షత లేకపోవటం, వాళ్లు కూడా గ్రామంలో నాయకులు కాగలగటం.
2) ధనిక రైతులు	తమ పంటలకు అధిక మద్దతు ధరల ద్వారా, తక్కువ కూలీకి బాగా కష్టపడే కూలీల ద్వారా అధిక ఆదాయాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా పొందగలగటం; తమ పిల్లలు విదేశాలలో స్థిరపడగలగటం.
3) వర్షాధార రైతులు	సకాలంలో రుతుపవనాలు వచ్చి వర్షాలు బాగా పడాలి. పొలాలకు సాగునీరు అందాలి. పంట దిగుబడి పెరగాలి. ఆ పంటకు మంచి గిట్టుబాటు ధర రావాలి. పిల్లలకు మంచి విద్యనందించటం.
4) భూమి ఉన్న కుటుంబంలోని గ్రామీణ మహిళ	పంట దిగుబడి పెరగాలి. పంటకు మంచి ధర రావాలి. నలుగురిలో (ఊరిలో) దర్పంగా ఉండాలి. మంచి బంగారు నగలు కొనుక్కోవాలి. ఇంట్లోవారు తన మాట వినాలి. పిల్లలకు ఉన్నతమైన సంబంధాలు తేవాలి.
5) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని నిరుద్యోగ యువత	చిన్నదో, పెద్దదో ఒక మంచి స్థిరమైన ఉద్యోగం (ప్రభుత్వ ఉద్యోగం) పొందాలి. స్థిరమైన ఆదాయం వచ్చే స్వయం ఉపాధిని వెతుక్కోవాలి. ప్రభుత్వ ఉద్యోగాల నోటిఫికేషన్స్ సకాలంలో వెలువడాలి, వాటికి ప్రిపేరయ్యి ఉద్యోగం సాధించాలి.
6) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని ధనిక అబ్బాయి	విదేశాలలో చదువుకోవాలి, ఉద్యోగం పొందాలి. స్వేచ్ఛావాతావరణంలో విహరించాలి. తండ్రి వ్యాపారం చేయటం ఇప్పుడే ఇష్టం లేదు, లేదా తండ్రి వ్యాపారాన్ని అభివృద్ధి చెయ్యాలి. కొత్త మోడల్ కారు, బైక్ కొనుక్కోవాలి.
7) పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలోని ధనిక కుటుంబానికి చెందిన అమ్మాయి	తన సోదరుడికి లభించే స్వేచ్ఛ తనకీ కావాలి. తన జీవితంలో ఏం చేయాలో తాను నిర్ణయించుకోగలగాలి. విదేశాలలో పై చదువులు చదువుకోవాలి.
8) గనుల తవ్వకం ప్రాంతంలోని ఆదివాసి	తమ భూములు తమకిచ్చేయాలి. ప్రమాదానికి గురికాకుండా రోజు గడవాలి. పర్యావరణాన్ని ఎలాగైనా కాపాడుకోవాలి. ప్రభుత్వం నిర్ణయం మార్చుకుంటే బాగుండు, మార్చే శక్తి తమకుంటే బాగుండు.
9) తీరప్రాంతంలో చేపలు పట్టే వ్యక్తి	వేట బాగా జరిగి ఎక్కువ చేపలు దొరకాలి. ఎటువంటి అంతరాయం, ప్రమాదం జరగకుండా క్షేమంగా ఇంటికి చేరాలి. చేపలకు మంచి ధర రావాలి. మంచి మర పడవ కొనుక్కోవాలి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.16 & 17

ప్రశ్న 3.
క్రింద ఇచ్చిన వార్తాపత్రిక కథనం చూడండి.
“ఒక ఓడ 500 టన్నుల విషపూరిత వ్యర్థ ద్రవ పదార్థాలను చెత్త పడవేసే బహిరంగ ప్రదేశంలోనూ, పక్కన ఉన్న సముద్రంలోనూ పారబోసింది. ఆఫ్రికాలోని ఐవరీకోస్ట్ దేశంలోని అబిద్ జాన్ అనే పట్టణంలో ఇది జరిగింది. అత్యంత విషపూరితమైన ఈ వ్యర్థ పదార్థాల నుండి వెలువడిన వాయువుల వల్ల తల తిప్పటం, చర్మంపై దద్దురులు, స్పృహతప్పి పడిపోవటం, విరోచనాలు వంటి సమస్యలు ఏర్పడ్డాయి. ఒక నెల రోజులలో ఏడుగురు చనిపోయారు. ఇరవై మంది ఆసుపత్రిలో ఉన్నారు. విష ప్రభావానికి గురైన లక్షణాలకు 26,000 మంచి చికిత్స పొందారు. లోహాలు, ముడి చమురులతో వ్యాపారం చేసే ఒక బహుళజాతి కంపెనీ తన ఓడలోని వ్యర్థ పదార్థాలను పడవెయ్యటానికి ఐవరీకోస్టు చెందిన ఒక స్థానిక కంపెనీతో కాంట్రాక్టు కుదుర్చుకుంది.” (ది హిందూ పత్రికలో 2006 సెప్టెంబరు 16న వైజు నరవనె రాసిన వార్త ఆధారంగా)
ఎ) దీనివల్ల ప్రయోజనం పొందినవాళ్లు ఎవరు, పొందని వాళ్లు ఎవరు?
జవాబు:

1. దీనివల్ల (కుడంకుళం అణు విద్యుత్ కేంద్రం) ప్రయోజనం పొందినవాళ్లు భారతదేశ ప్రజలు అందరూ. దీని ప్రధాన ఉద్దేశం నిరంతరం పెరుగుతున్న దేశ విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీర్చడం.
2. ఈ ప్రాంతం ప్రజలు, మత్స్యకారులు వారి భద్రత, రక్షణ, జీవనోపాధులు దెబ్బతింటాయని దీనివల్ల తమకు ప్రయోజనం ఉండదని భావించారు.
3. రెండో ఉదాహరణలో బహుళ జాతి కంపెనీ లాభం పొందింది, ఐవరీకోస్ట్ తీరప్రాంత ప్రజలు నష్టపోయారు.

బి) ఈ దేశానికి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ఎలా ఉండాలి?
జవాబు:
ఈ దేశానికి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ఎలా ఉండాలి అంటే –

1. అవసాపనా సౌకర్యాల (రోడు, రవాణా, విద్యుత్, నీరు మొ||నవి) లోటు లేకుండా ఏర్పాటు చేయడం.
2. ఆధునిక సమాచార, సాంకేతిక రంగాలలో స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించుట.
3. దేశ అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ప్రజలందరి అభివృద్ధికి, అభ్యున్నతికి కృషి చేసేవిలా, దేశం స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించేలా, సుస్థిరమైన అభివృద్ధి సాధించేలా ఉండాలి.

సి) మీ గ్రామానికి, పట్టణానికి లేదా ప్రాంతానికి కొన్ని అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలను పేర్కొనంది.
జవాబు:
మా గ్రామానికి / పట్టణానికి / ప్రాంతానికి కొన్ని అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు :

1. రక్షిత మంచినీటి సౌకర్యం (అందరికి) కల్పించటం.
2. విద్యా సౌకర్యాలు ఏర్పాటు చేయటం.
3. పర్యావరణం, పరిశుభ్రతను కాపాడటం.
4. వైద్య, ఆరోగ్య సదుపాయాలు కల్పించటం.
5. మెరుగైన (రోడ్లు) రవాణా సౌకర్యాలను కల్పించటం.
6. 100%, విద్యుదీకరణ, కోతలు లేని విద్యుత్ సౌకర్యం ఏర్పాటు.
7. వ్యవసాయ కూలీలకు, ఇతర నిరుద్యోగులకు సంవత్సరమంతా ఉపాధి కల్పించే ప్రణాళికలు చేయడం.
8. వ్యవసాయంతో పాటు పారిశ్రామికంగా అభివృద్ధి చేయటం.

డి) ప్రభుత్వానికి, అణువిద్యుత్ కేంద్ర ప్రాంతాలలో నివసించే ప్రజలకు మధ్య గల వివాదాలేవి?
జవాబు:

1. భారత ప్రభుత్వం అణువిద్యుత్ కేంద్రాన్ని పెరుగుతున్న దేశ విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీర్చు ప్రధాన ఉద్దేశముతో స్థాపించింది.
2. కాని ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు వారి భద్రత, రక్షణ, జీవనోపాధుల పరిరక్షణ కోసం ఉద్యమించారు.
3. పెరుగుతున్న విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీరాలంటే అణువిద్యుత్ శక్తి ఉత్పత్తి తప్పనిసరి అని ప్రభుత్వం భావిస్తోంది.
4. కాని ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు తీరప్రాంతం, దేశం రేడియోధార్మిక వినాశక ప్రమాదం నుండి రక్షించబడాలని కోరుకుంటు ఉద్యమిస్తున్నారు.
5. ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు ప్రత్యామ్నాయ ఇంధన వనరుల (సౌర విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి, పవన విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి మొ||నవి) గురించి ఆలోచించమంటూ, ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణాన్ని ఆపాలంటున్నారు.
6. ప్రభుత్వం ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణానికి తగిన భద్రతా చర్యలన్నీ తీసుకుంటున్నామని ప్రకటించి, ఉద్యమాలకు అతీతంగా నిర్మాణం కొనసాగిస్తోంది.

ఇ) ఇటువంటి అభివృది విధానాలకు చెందిన వివాదాలు మీకేమైనా తెలుసా? ఇరుపక్షాల వాదనలు పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:

1. పశ్చిమగోదావరి జిల్లా (ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్) లో గోదావరి నదిపై నిర్మిస్తున్న బహుళార్థ సాధక ప్రాజెక్ట్ పై అనేక వివాదాలు ఉన్నాయి.
2. ఈ ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణం పూర్తయితే అనేక లక్షల ఎకరాలకు సాగునీరు అందుతుంది, అలాగే జలవిద్యుచ్ఛక్తి కూడా ఉత్పత్తవుతుంది.
3. అయితే ఈ ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణం వలన అనేక గ్రామాలు ముంపునకు గురవుతాయి. పెద్ద మొత్తంలో అటవీ ప్రాంతం మునిగిపోతుంది, పర్యావరణం దెబ్బతింటుందని అక్కడి ప్రజలు పెద్ద ఎత్తున నిరసన తెలుపుతున్నారు.
4. మరో ఉదాహరణ నర్మదానదిపై నిర్మించతలపెట్టిన (సర్దార్ సరోవర్) ప్రాజెక్ట్ విషయంలో కూడా ఇలాంటి వివాదాలే తలెత్తితే, మేధాపాట్కర్ నాయకత్వాన ‘నర్మదా బచావో’ ఆందోళన సాగిస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.19

ప్రశ్న 4.
ఉదాహరణకు క, గ అనే రెండు దేశాలను తీసుకుందాం. సంక్లిష్టంగా లేకుండా ఉండటానికి రెండు దేశాలలోనూ అయిదుగురే ప్రజలు ఉన్నారనుకుందాం. పట్టికలో ఇచ్చిన వివరాల ఆధారంగా రెండు దేశాల సగటు ఆదాయాన్ని లెక్కగట్టండి.
పట్టిక : రెండు దేశాలను పోల్చటం

జవాబు:
ఎ) దేశం ‘క’ సగటు ఆదాయం = 10000
బి) దేశం ‘గ’ సగటు ఆదాయం = 10000

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఇక్కడ ఇచ్చిన ఉదాహరణ కాకుండా పోలికకు సగటును ఉపయోగించే మరో మూడు ఉదాహరణలు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక పరిశ్రమలోని ఉత్పత్తి, ఉద్యోగులు (ధరలు, వ్యయం) అనుసరించి సగటు ఉత్పత్తి, సగటు వ్యయం మొదలైనవి ఉపయోగించి పోలుస్తారు.
2. తరగతిలోని వివిధ మార్కుల సగటు. .
   ఉదా : తరగతి మార్కుల సగటు, సబ్జెక్ట్ మార్కుల సగటు, జి.పి.ఎ. (గ్రేడ్ పాయింట్ సగటు)
3. జనాభాను పోల్చుటకు “సగటు జనసాంద్రత” (ఒక చదరపు కిలోమీటరులో నివసించే జనాభా) ను ఉపయోగిస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 6.
విభిన్న వ్యక్తులకు అభివృది పట్ల విభిన్న భావనలు ఎందుకుంటాయి? కింద ఇచ్చిన వివరణల్లో ఏది ముఖ్యమైనది, ఎందుకు?
(అ) వ్యక్తులు వేరు కాబట్టి
(ఆ) వ్యక్తుల జీవన పరిస్థితులు వేరు కాబట్టి
(లేదా)
వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు భిన్నంగా ఉంటాయనడానికి ఉదాహరణలివ్వండి.

జవాబు:

1. విభిన్న వ్యక్తులకు అభివృద్ధి పట్ల విభిన్న భావనలు ఎందుకుంటాయంటే వ్యక్తుల జీవన పరిస్తితులు వేరు కాబట్టి.
2. వ్యక్తులు వారి వారి పరిస్థితులను బట్టి వారి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు, ఆకాంక్షలు కలిగి ఉంటారు.
3. ఇద్దరు వ్యక్తులకు లేదా బృందాలకు పరస్పర విరుద్ధమైన కోరికలు ఉండవచ్చు.
4. వ్యక్తులు తామున్న జీవన పరిస్థితుల్లో వివిధ కోరికలు లక్ష్యాలు/ఆకాంక్షలు కలిగి ఉంటారు. ఇవి వారి జీవన పరిస్థితులకు అనుగుణంగానే ఉంటాయి.
5. ఒకరికి అభివృద్ధి అయినది మరొకరికి అభివృద్ధి కాకపోవచ్చు, అది విధ్వంసం కూడా కావచ్చు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 7.
కింది రెండు వాక్యాల అర్థం ఒకటేనా ? మీ సమాధానాన్ని ఎలా సమర్థించుకుంటారు?
(అ) ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వేరు వేరుగా ఉంటాయి.
(ఆ) ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు పరస్పర విరుద్ధంగా ఉంటాయి.
జవాబు:

1. రెండు వాక్యాల అర్థం ఒకటి కాదు, వేరు వేరు.
2. ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వేరువేరుగా ఉంటాయి అంతేకాని పరస్పర విరుద్ధంగా ఉండాలని లేదు.
3. కొన్ని సందర్భాలలో ఒకరికి అభివృద్ధి అనుకున్నది మరొకరికి (కాకపోవచ్చు) విధ్వంసం కావచ్చు కాని అన్ని సందర్భాలలో కాదు.
   ఉదా : విద్యుత్ కోసం పారిశ్రామికవేత్తలు మరిన్ని ఆనకట్టలు కోరుకోవచ్చు. కాని ముంపునకు గురయ్యే నిర్వాసితులు ఆనకట్టలకు బదులు చెక్ డ్యాములు కోరుకోవచ్చు. కాని ప్రజలందరూ ఇలా కోరుకోటం లేదు కదా !
4. ఒక అమ్మాయి తన సోదరుడికి లభించే స్వేచ్చ తనకూ కావాలని ఆశించవచ్చు. ఈ కోరిక సోదరుడి కోరికకు విరుద్ధం కాదు కదా !

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 8.
మన జీవితంలో ఆదాయం కంటే ముఖ్యమైన ఇతర అంశాలకు కొన్ని ఉదాహరణలు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:
మన జీవితంలో ఆదాయం కంటే ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలు చాలానే ఉన్నాయి.

1. డబ్బు లేదా అది కొనగలిగిన వస్తువులు మన జీవితంలో ఒక అంశం మాత్రమే.
2. భౌతికం కాని అంశాలపైన జీవన నాణ్యత ఆధారపడి ఉంటుంది.
3. సమానత, స్వేచ్ఛ, భద్రత, ఇతరుల నుంచి గౌరవం పొందడం.
4. ఇతరుల స్నేహాన్ని కోరుకోవటం, అభిమానాన్ని పొందడం.
5. మన కుటుంబానికి ఉండే సదుపాయాలు, పని పరిస్థితులు, నేర్చుకోవటానికి గల అవకాశాలు.
6. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉండటం.
7. కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా పనిచేయడం.
8. సురక్షితమైన వాతావరణం.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 9.
పై భాగంలోని ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలను మీ సొంత మాటలలో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
1) ఉద్యోగ భద్రత :
తక్కువ జీతమైనా క్రమం తప్పకుండా పని దొరికి అది భద్రతా భావాన్ని కలిగిస్తుంది. మరొక ఉద్యోగంలో ఎక్కువ జీతం ఉండవచ్చు కానీ అందులో ఉద్యోగ భద్రత లేకపోతే (అభద్రతాభావం) దానిని కోరుకోకపోవచ్చు.

2) కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా ఉండటం :
వ్యక్తులు ఎక్కువగా తమ కుటుంబాలతో సమయం గడపాలని ఆశిస్తారు. తక్కువ జీతం అయినా, కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా ఉండే ఉద్యోగాలవైపు మొగ్గు చూపుతారు.

3) సురక్షిత వాతావరణం :
భద్రతతో కూడిన సురక్షితమైన వాతావరణం ఉంటే మహిళలు అనేక రకాల ఉద్యోగాలు చేపట్టటానికి, వ్యాపారాలు నిర్వహించటానికి అవకాశం ఉంటుంది.

4) సమానత (వివక్షతలు లేకపోవడం) :
వివక్షత లేని సమానత్వ వాతావరణంలో పనిచేయటానికి ఇష్టపడతారు, ఆదాయం కోసం వివక్షతను ఎదుర్కొనటానికి ఇష్టపడరు.

5) స్వేచ్ఛా వాతావరణం :
అభివృద్ధి చెందటానికి అవకాశం ఉన్న స్వేచ్ఛా వాతావరణంలో పనిచేయటానికి యువకులు ఇష్టపడతారు, ఆదాయం ముఖ్యమని భావించకపోవచ్చు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 10.
అభివృద్ధికి సగటు ఆదాయం ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికమని ఎందుకంటున్నారు? వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
ఒక దేశ (ప్రాంత, రాష్ట్ర అభివృద్ధిని తెలుసుకునేందుకు సగటు ఆదాయం (తలసరి ఆదాయం ) ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికంగా భావిస్తున్నారు.

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (సగటు ఆదాయం ) ఆ దేశ ప్రజల కొనుగోలు శక్తిని తెలియజేస్తుంది.
2. సగటు ఆదాయం , దేశం మొత్తం ఆదాయము (ఉత్పత్తుల మొత్తం) ను కూడా తెలియజేస్తుంది.
3. ఒక దేశంలోని ప్రజలు మరో దేశ ప్రజల కంటే మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారా లేదా అనే విషయం తెలుసుకోవడానికి మనం సగటు ఆదాయాన్ని పోలుస్తాం.
4. ప్రజలు తమకు ఇష్టమైనవి, అవసరమైనవి ఎక్కువ ఆదాయాలతో సమకూర్చుకోగలుగుతారు. కాబట్టి అధిక ఆదాయం ఉండటం ఒక ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికంగా పరిగణిస్తారు.
5. మొత్తం ఆదాయంలో పెరుగుదల దేశాలను పోల్చటానికి అంతగా ఉపయోగపడదు ఎందుకంటే వివిధ దేశాల జనాభాలో తేడా ఉంటుంది కాబట్టి.
6. అయితే పోలికకు “సగటు” ఉపయోగకరంగా ఉన్నా అది ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 11.
కొంతకాలంగా ఒక దేశ సగటు ఆదాయం పెరుగుతోందని గణాంకాలు చెబుతున్నాయని అనుకుందాం. సమాజంలోని అన్ని వర్గాల ప్రజల జీవితం మెరుగయ్యిందని దీని ఆధారంగా చెప్పగలమా ? మీ జవాబుకు ఒక ఉదాహరణ ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక దేశ సగటు ఆదాయం పెరుగుతోందని గణాంకాలు చెబుతున్నా, సమాజంలోని అన్ని వర్గాల ప్రజల జీవితం మెరుగయ్యిందని దీని ఆధారంగా “చెప్పలేం*.
2. ఉదాహరణకు దేశంలోని కొన్ని ఉన్నత వర్గాల ప్రజల (ధనవంతుల) ఆదాయం పెరిగినా సగటు ఆదాయం పెరిగినట్లు గణాంకాలు చెబుతాయి, కాని నిజంగా ప్రజలందరి ఆదాయం (పేద, బి.పి.ఎల్. వర్గాలందరి) పెరిగి ఉండకపోవచ్చు.
3. అలాగే ఒక దేశంలోని మొత్తం ఆదాయం పెరగకపోయినా దానికంటే జనాభా తగ్గినట్లయితే (పెరుగుదల రేటు) తలసరి (సగటు) ఆదాయం పెరిగినట్లుగా గణాంకాలు చూపుతాయి. కాని ఇక్కడ ఆదాయాలు పెరగలేదు, జనాభా తగ్గరు.
4. సగటు ఆదాయం పెరిగినా ప్రజల మధ్య ఈ ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ జరిగిందో తెలియదు.
5. సగటు ఆదాయం ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 12.
అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశంగా మారటానికి మీకు గల ఆలోచన ప్రకారం భారతదేశం ఏం చెయ్యాలో, లేదా ఏం సాధించాలో ఒక పేరా రాయండి.
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశంగా మారాలంటే ఇవి సాధించాలి.

1. సంపూర్ణ (100%) అక్షరాస్యత సాధించాలి.
2. వైద్యం, ఆరోగ్యం అందరికి అందుబాటులో ఉండాలి.
3. వ్యవసాయంలో అధిక దిగుబడి (ఆధునిక వ్యవసాయ పద్ధతులు, హరిత విప్లవం) సాధించేలా కృషి చేయాలి.
4. దేశంలో ఉన్న వనరులను సక్రమంగా ఉపయోగించుకుని పారిశ్రామిక వృద్ధి (ఉత్పత్తి) సాధించాలి.
5. శాస్త్ర, సాంకేతిక, సమాచార రంగంలో స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించాలి.
6. మెరుగైన రవాణా మరియు ఆధునిక సమాచార (వ్యవస్థలు) సౌకర్యాలు కల్పించాలి.
7. విద్యుత్, త్రాగునీరు, రోడ్లు మొదలైన అవస్థాపనా సౌకర్యాలు మెరుగుపర్చాలి.
8. పొదుపు, పెట్టుబడుల సక్రమ నిర్వహణకై పటిష్టమైన బ్యాంకింగ్, ద్రవ్య వ్యవస్థ కలిగి ఉండాలి.
9. పటిష్టమైన, పారదర్శకమైన, అవినీతిరహిత పాలన వ్యవస్థ కలిగి ఉండాలి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 13.
క్రింది పట్టికలలోని వివరాలు చూడండి. తలసరి ఆదాయాలలో బీహార్ కంటే పంజాబు ముందున్నట్లుగా అక్షరాస్యత వంటి వాటిల్లో కూడా ఉందా?
పట్టిక : కొన్ని రాష్ట్రాల తలసరి ఆదాయం

రాష్ట్రం	2012 సం||లో తలసరి ఆదాయం (రూ.లో)
పంజాబ్	78,000
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్	74,000
బీహార్	25,000

పట్టిక : కొన్ని రాష్ట్రాలకు సంబంధించి కొన్ని తులనాత్మక గణాంకాలు

జవాబు:

1. తలసరి ఆదాయంలో పంజాబు (₹ 78,000) బీహార్ (₹ 25,000) కంటే ముందుంది.
2. అక్షరాస్యత పంజాబులో 77% ఉంటే బీహార్లో 64% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
3. నికర హాజరు పంజాబులో 76% ఉంటే బీహార్‌లో 56% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
4. అలాగే శిశుమరణాలరేటు పంజాబులో 42 ఉంటే బీహార్ 62 కలిగి ఉంది. ఈ వివరాలు గమనించినట్లైతే పంజాబు, బీహార్ కంటే తలసరి ఆదాయాలలోనే కాకుండా అక్షరాస్యత మొదలైన వాటిల్లో కూడా ముందు ఉందని అవగాహనవుతుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 14.
వ్యక్తులుగా సమకూర్చుకోవటం కంటే సామూహికంగా వస్తువులు, సేవలు సమకూర్చుకోవటానికి తక్కువ ఖర్చు అయ్యే మరికొన్ని ఉదాహరణలు పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
వాస్తవానికి ఎన్నో ముఖ్యమైన వాటిని అందించటానికి (సమకూర్చుకోవటానికి), తక్కువ ఖర్చుతో చెయ్యాలంటే వస్తువులను,
సేవలను సామూహికంగా అందించాలి. ఉదాహరణకు

1. ఇంటి ముందు (రహదారి) రోడ్డు ఒక్కరే వేసుకోవాలంటే చాలా ఖర్చవుతుంది, రోడ్డులోని ఇళ్ళవారందరూ కలసి వేసుకుంటే తక్కువ ఖర్చు అవుతుంది (విద్యుత్ లైన్, డ్రైనేజి వ్యవస్థ మొదలైనవి కూడా).
2. అపార్ట్మెంట్లో ప్రతి ఒక్కరు ఒక లిఫ్ట్ పెట్టుకోవాలంటే ఖర్చు పెరుగుతుంది. కనుక సామూహికంగా ఒక లిఫ్ట్ ఏర్పాటు చేసుకుంటున్నారు (మంచినీటి సరఫరా, భద్రత సిబ్బంది మొదలైనవి కూడా).
3. ప్రతి ఒక్కరూ అన్నీ పుస్తకాలు కొనుక్కొని చదవాలంటే ఖర్చు పెరుగుతుంది. అదే లైబ్రరీ ఏర్పాటు చేసుకుని సామూహికంగా వాడుకుంటే ఖర్చు చాలా తగ్గుతుంది.
4. ఆట స్థలమును వ్యక్తిగతంగా ఏర్పాటు చేసుకోవటం వ్యయంతో కూడుకున్నది, సామూహికంగా అయితే ఖర్చు తగ్గుతుంది. (స్విమ్మింగ్ పూల్, పార్క్ మొదలైనవి కూడా)
5. ‘షేర్ ఆటో’ దగ్గర నుంచి ‘ఎయిర్ బస్’ వరకు సామూహికంగా వినియోగించుకోవటం వల్ల వాటి వినియోగ సేవల ఖర్చు తగ్గుతుందని తెలుస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 15.
ఆరోగ్యం, విద్యపై ప్రభుత్వం ఖర్చు పెట్టే డబ్బుపైనే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుబాటులో ఉండటం ఆధారపడి ఉందా? ఇంకా ఏయే అంశాలు ప్రధానపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి?
జవాబు:

1. అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్న, తక్కువ అభివృద్ధి చెందిన (వెనకబడిన) దేశాలలో ఆరోగ్యం, విద్యపై ప్రభుత్వం ఖర్చుపెట్టే డబ్బుపైనే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుబాటులో ఉండటం ఆధారపడి ఉంది.
2. అలాగే ప్రభుత్వ ప్రోత్సాహంతో పాటు ఇతర సామాజిక అంశాలు కూడా ప్రధానపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి.
3. ప్రజల యొక్క చైతన్యం, సేవా దృక్పథం. (విద్యను పొందాలని, ఆరోగ్యం బాగుండాలని ప్రజల్లో చైతన్యం వస్తే ప్రజలు సేవా దృక్పథం కలిగి ఉంటే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుతాయి.)
4. మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధి, అందుబాటు. (డాక్టర్లు, ఉపాధ్యాయులు ఎక్కువగా లభ్యమయితే, మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుతాయి.)
5. స్వచ్చంద సంస్థలు, (NGOS) (వీరి సేవలు అందించుట వల్ల మెరుగైన ఆరోగ్యం , విద్య అందుతుంది)
6. యువజన సంఘాలు, మత సంస్థలు మొదలైనవి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 16.
తమిళనాడు, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని కుటుంబం 2009-10 లో చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి తమకు అవసరమైన దాంట్లో 53 శాతం, 33 శాతం కొనుక్కున్నాయి. మిగిలిన బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటారు. పశ్చిమ బెంగాల్, అసోంలలో 11 శాతం, 6 శాతం బియ్యం మాత్రమే పౌర సరఫరా దుకాణాల నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటున్నాయి. ఏ రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజలు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు? ఎందుకు?
జవాబు:
పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, అసోం రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజలు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు. కారణం :

1. తమిళనాడు, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని కుటుంబాలు 2009-10 లో చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి 53% మరియు 33% వరుసగా కొనుక్కున్నాయి.
2. అంటే 47% మరియు 67% (బియ్యం) బజారు నుంచి కొనుగోలు చేశారు.
3. పశ్చిమ బెంగాల్, అస్సాంలు చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి 11 శాతం, 6 శాతం బియ్యం మాత్రమే కొనుక్కుంటున్నాయి.
4. అంటే 89% మరియు 94% బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటున్నారు.
5. బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, అసోం రాషాల కుటుంబాలు ఎక్కువగా కొంటున్నాయి. కాబట్టి ఈ రెండు రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజల కొనుగోలు శక్తి అధికంగా ఉంది. కనుక వీరు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు.

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు Textbook Questions and Answers

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ప్రశ్న 1.
పశ్చిమాన ఉన్న గుజరాత్ లో కంటె అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో సూర్యోదయం రెండు గంటల ముందు అవుతుంది. కానీ, గడియారాలు ఒకే సమయం చూపిస్తాయి. ఎందుకని? (AS1)
జవాబు:
సూర్యుడు తూర్పున ఉదయించి, పడమరన అస్తమిస్తాడు. ఒక్కో రేఖాంశం పశ్చిమం నుండి తూర్పునకు తిరగటానికి ‘4’ నిమిషాలు పడుతుంది. గుజరాత్ లోని కచ్ 68°7′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం వద్ద, అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లోని తూర్పు ప్రాంతం 97°25′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం వద్ద కలదు. అంటే దాదాపు 30 డిగ్రీల మేర విస్తరించి ఉంది. కావున, రెండు ప్రదేశాల మధ్య రెండు గంటలు (30 x 40 ని = 120 ని||) తేడా ఉంటుంది.

కానీ భారత స్థానిక కాలరేఖగా 82° 30′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం తీసుకోవటం జరిగింది. దేశంలో వివిధ ప్రదేశాల స్థానిక కాలాల్లోని భేదాన్ని తొలగించడానికిగాను దీనివద్ద కాలాన్ని లెక్కించి, దానినే భారతదేశ ప్రామాణిక కాలం (IST- Indian Standard Time) గా వ్యవహరిస్తున్నారు. కావున సూర్యుడు తూర్పున, పశ్చిమం కన్నా రెండు గంటలు ముందుగా ఉదయించినా గడియారాలు ఒకే సమయం చూపిస్తాయి.

ప్రశ్న 2.
హిమాలయాలు ప్రస్తుతం ఉన్న స్థానంలో లేకపోతే భారత ఉపఖండ శీతోష్ణస్థితులు ఎలా ఉండేవి? (AS1)
(లేదా)
భౌగోళికంగా భారతీయ శీతోష్ణస్థితి హిమాలయ పర్వతాల వల్ల ఏ విధంగా ప్రభావితమౌతున్నది?
జవాబు:
హిమాలయాలు ప్రస్తుతం ఉన్న స్థానంలో లేనట్లయితే భారత ఉపఖండ శీతోష్ణస్థితులు ఇలా ఉండేవి –

1. హిమాలయాల వల్ల శీతోష్ణస్థితి అనేక విధాలుగా ప్రభావితం అవుతుంది.
2. భారతదేశ ఉత్తర సరిహద్దులో రక్షణ కవచాలుగా ఉండి తీవ్ర చలికాలంలో మధ్య ఆసియా నుండి వచ్చే చల్లటిగాలులను అడ్డుకుంటాయి. ఇవే లేనట్లయితే తీవ్ర చలిగాలులు వీస్తాయి.
3. వేసవిలో వర్షాలకు, పశ్చిమ కనుమలు దాటిన తరువాత ప్రాంతంలో ఋతుపవన తరహా శీతోష్ణస్థితికి హిమాలయాలే కారణం. ఇవే లేకపోతే ఉత్తర ప్రాంతం పొడిగా ఉండేది. ఋతుపవన శీతోష్ణస్థితి లేనట్లయితే భారతదేశం ఉష్ణమండల ఎడారిగా మారి ఉండేది.
4. హిమాలయాలలోని సతతహరిత అరణ్యాలు ఆవరణ సమతౌల్యతను కాపాడటానికి దోహదం చేస్తున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 3.
ఇక్కడ పేర్కొన్న వాటిల్లో ఏ ఏ రాష్ట్రాలలోనికి హిమాలయాలు విస్తరించి లేవు? (AS1)
మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్, సిక్కిం, హర్యానా, పంజాబ్, ఉత్తరాంచల్,
జవాబు:
మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్, హర్యానా రాష్ట్రాలలోనికి హిమాలయాలు విస్తరించి లేవు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
భారతదేశ ప్రధాన భౌగోళిక విభజనలు ఏవి? హిమాలయ ప్రాంత భౌగోళిక పరిస్థితులతో ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమిని పోల్చండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
A) భారతదేశ ప్రధాన భౌగోళిక విభజనలు :
i) హిమాలయాలు
ii) గంగా-సింధూనది మైదానం
iii) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి
iv) తీరప్రాంత మైదానాలు
v) ఎడారి ప్రాంతం
vi) దీవులు

B) హిమాలయ ప్రాంత భౌగోళిక పరిస్థితులతో ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమిని పోల్చుట :

హిమాలయ ప్రాంతం	ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి
i) హిమాలయ పర్వతాలు ఒక చాపం వలె పడమర నుంచి తూర్పునకు విస్తరించి ఉన్నాయి.	i) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి మెట్టపల్లాలతో, విడివిడి భాగాలుగా విస్తరించి ఉంది.
ii) హిమాలయాలు నవీన ముడుత పర్వతాలు. ఇవి అవక్షేప శిలలతో ఏర్పడినవి.	ii) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి ‘గోండ్వానా భూమి’లో భాగం. ఇది పురాతన స్ఫటికాకార, కఠినమైన అగ్నిశిలలు, రూపాంతర శిలలతో కూడి ఉన్నది.
iii) హిమాలయాలు సమాంతరంగా ఏర్పడిన శ్రేణులు. వీని మధ్య లోయలు (డూన్లు) ఉన్నాయి.	iii) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి తూర్పువైపునకు కొద్దిగా వాలి ఉంది. నదులు, భ్రంశాలు మరియు నిట్ర వాలులు దీనిని వేరు చేస్తున్నాయి.
iv) ఇక్కడ జీవనదులు ప్రవహిస్తున్నాయి. నిత్యం మంచుతో కప్పబడి ఉంటాయి.	iv) జీవనదులు లేవు. వర్షధార నదులే ఉన్నాయి. మంచుతో కప్పబడి అస్సలు ఉండవు.
v) ఖనిజ వనరులు చాలా తక్కువగా ఉన్నాయి.	v) లోహ, అలోహ ఖనిజాల వనరులు పెద్ద మొత్తంలో ఉన్నాయి.
vi) ప్రపంచంలోనే అత్యంత ఎత్తైన పర్వత శిఖరాలకు హిమాలయాలు ప్రసిద్ధి. ఉదా : ఎవరెస్ట్, కాంచనజంగా, నందాదేవి, కైలాష్ మొదలగునవి.	vi) సాధారణ పర్వతాలు, కొండలకు మాత్రమే ప్రసిద్ధి. ఉదా : అనె ముడి, దొడబెట్ట, అరోమకొండ మొ॥వి.
vii) ఎవరెస్ట్ (8848 మీ|| శిఖరం ప్రపంచంలో మరియు హిమాలయాల్లో ఎత్తైన శిఖరం	vii) అనైముడి (2695 మీII) శిఖరం దక్షిణ భారతదేశంలో ఎత్తైన శిఖరం.
viii) గంగా, సింధు, బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదులకు జన్మస్థలం.	viii) నర్మదా, తపతి, గోదావరి, కృష్ణా, మహానదులు ప్రవహిస్తున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 5.
భారతీయ వ్యవసాయాన్ని హిమాలయాలు ఏ రకంగా ప్రభావితం చేస్తున్నాయి? (AS1)
జవాబు:
భారతీయ వ్యవసాయాన్ని హిమాలయాలు ఎంతో ప్రభావితం చేస్తున్నాయి :

1. భారతదేశ ఉత్తర సరిహద్దులో సహజ రక్షణ కవచాలుగా ఉండి తీవ్ర చలికాలంలో మధ్య ఆసియా నుండి వచ్చే చల్లటి గాలులను గంగా-సింధూ మైదానాలకు తగలకుండా అడ్డుకుంటున్నాయి. ఆ ప్రాంతంలోని పంటలకు నష్టం వాటిల్లకుండా చేస్తున్నాయి.
2. రుతుపవన తరహా శీతోష్ణస్థితికి హిమాలయాలే కారణం. రుతుపవనాలే లేకపోతే భారతదేశం ఉష్ణమండల ఎడారిగా మారిపోయేది. ఏ పంటలు పండే అవకాశం ఉండేది కాదు.
3. హిమనీనదాల నుంచి నీళ్లు అందటంతో హిమాలయ నదులు సం||రం పొడవునా నీళ్లు కలిగి ఉండి సంవత్సరంలో అన్ని పంటకాలాల్లో కూడా నీరు సమృద్ధిగా అందిస్తున్నాయి.
4. హిమాలయ నదులు కొండల నుంచి కిందికి తెచ్చే ఒండ్రు మట్టి వల్ల, మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు చాలా సారవంతంగా మారి అధిక దిగుబడికి కారణమవుతున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 6.
గంగా-సింధూ నది మైదానంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువ. కారణాలను తెలపండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
గంగా-సింధూ నది మైదానంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువగా ఉండుటకు కారణాలు :

1. భారతదేశంలో సుమారు 70%. మందికి వ్యవసాయమే ప్రధాన వృత్తి. కావున అధిక ఉత్పత్తులనిచ్చే సారవంతమైన ‘ఒండ్రు మృత్తికలు’ కలిగి ఈ ప్రాంతంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువ.
2. మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు ‘ప్రాచీన కాలం నుండి’ (సింధూ నాగరికత) మానవ ఆవాసాలకు నిలయం.
3. ఆ మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు బాగా అభివృద్ధి చెందిన ‘నగరాలకు’ ప్రసిద్ధి.
   ఉదా : చండీగఢ్, లక్నో, పాట్నా, 4) మైదాన ప్రాంతం బాగా అభివృద్ధి చెందిన ‘సాగునీరు, తాగునీరు’ వసతులు కలిగి ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 7.
భారతదేశ సరిహద్దులను చూపించే పటంలో కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి. (AS5)
i) కొండలు, పర్వత శ్రేణులు – కారకోరం, జస్కార్, పాట్ కాయ్, జైంతియా, వింధ్య పర్వతాలు, ఆరావళి, కార్డమం కొండలు.
ii) శిఖరాలు – K2, కాంచనగంగ, నంగ పర్వతం, అనైముడి.
iii) పీఠభూములు – చోటానాగ్ పూర్, మాల్వా.
iv) భారత ఎడారి, పశ్చిమ కనుమలు, లక్షద్వీప దీవులు.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 8.
అట్లాసు ఉపయోగించి కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి. (AS5)
i) అగ్నిపర్వతాల విస్ఫోటనం వల్ల ఏర్పడిన దీవులు
ii) భారత ఉపఖండంలోని దేశాలు
iii) కర్కటరేఖ పోయే రాష్ట్రాలు
iv) భారత భూభాగంలో అన్నిటికంటే ఉత్తరాన ఉన్న అక్షాంశం, డిగ్రీలలో
v) భారత భూభాగంలో అన్నిటికంటే దక్షిణాన ఉన్న అక్షాంశం, డిగ్రీలలో
vi) అన్నిటికంటే తూర్పున, పడమరన ఉన్న రేఖాంశాలు, డిగ్రీలలో
vii) మూడు సముద్రాలు ఉన్న ప్రదేశం
viii) భారతదేశం నుండి శ్రీలంకను వేరుచేస్తున్న జలసంధి
ix) భారతదేశ కేంద్రపాలిత రాష్ట్రాలు
జవాబు:
i) అండమాన్, నికోబార్ దీవులు
ii) భారత్, పాకిస్థాన్, ఆఫ్ఘనిస్థాన్, నేపాల్, భూటాన్, బంగ్లాదేశ్, మయన్మార్, శ్రీలంక, మాల్దీవులు.
iii) గుజరాత్, మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఛత్తీస్ గఢ్, జార్ఖండ్, పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, త్రిపుర, మిజోరం, రాజస్థాన్.
iv) 37°6
v) 8°4
vi) 97°25′ మరియు 68°7′
vii) కన్యాకుమారి
viii) పాక్ జలసంధి
ix) ఢిల్లీ, చండీగఢ్, పాండిచ్చేరి, అండమాన్ & నికోబార్, లక్షద్వీప్, డామన్ & డయ్యు, దాద్రానగర్ హవేలి.

ప్రశ్న 9.
తూర్పు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు, పడమటి మైదాన ప్రాంతాల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు ఏమిటి ? (AS1)
జవాబు:
తూర్పు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు, పడమటి మైదాన ప్రాంతాల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు :

తూర్పు తీరమైదాన ప్రాంతాలు	పడమటి తీరమైదాన ప్రాంతాలు
1) తూర్పు కనుమలకు, బంగాళాఖాతానికి మధ్య తీరం వెంబడి ఉన్నాయి.	1) పశ్చిమ కనుమలకు, అరేబియా సముద్రానికి మధ్య తీరం వెంబడి ఉన్నాయి.
2) మహానది డెల్టా నుండి కావేరి డెల్టా వరకు విస్తరించి ఉన్నాయి.	2) రాణ్ ఆఫ్ కచ్ నుండి కన్యాకుమారి వరకు విస్తరించి ఉన్నాయి.
3) ఇవి వెడల్పుగా, బల్ల పరుపుగా ఉన్నాయి.	3) ఇవి సన్నగా, అసమానంగా ఉన్నాయి.
4) ఇవి చాలా సారవంతమైనవి, డెల్టాలు ఉన్నాయి.	4) ఇవి అంత సారవంతమైనవి కావు, డెల్టాలు ఎక్కువ లేవు.
5) ఇక్కడ గోదావరి, కృష్ణ, మహానది మొ|| వదులు ప్రవహిస్తున్నాయి.	5) ఇక్కడ పెద్ద నదులు ప్రవహించడం లేదు.
6) చిల్కా కొల్లేరు, పులికాట్ లాంటి సరస్సులు ఉన్నాయి.	6) ఈ తీర మైదానంలో సరస్సులు లేవు. లాగూన్లు, వెనుక జలాలు కలిగి ఉన్నాయి.
7) ఉత్కళ్ తీరం, సర్కార్ తీరం, కోరమండల్ తీరం అని పిలుస్తారు.	7) కొంకణ్ తీరం, కెనరా తీరం, మలబార్ తీరాలుగా విభజించారు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
భారతదేశంలోని మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు వ్యవసాయానికి దోహదపడినంతగా పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు తోడ్పడవు – దీనికి కారణాలు ఏమిటి ? (AS3)
జవాబు:
భారతదేశంలోని మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు వ్యవసాయానికి దోహదపడినంతగా పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు తోడ్పడవు – దీనికి కారణాలు :

1. పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలంత సారవంతమైనవి కావు. మైదాన ప్రాంతాల్లోని ఒండ్రునేలలు అధిక దిగుబడికి, భూసారానికి పెట్టింది పేరు.
2. పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలలోని నదులు జీవనదులు కావు. గంగా మైదాన ప్రాంతంలోని నదులు జీవనదులు కావటం వలన సంవత్సరమంతా సాగునీరు అందుతుంది. వ్యవసాయానికి అనుకూలం.
3. మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు నదులు తీసుకువచ్చిన మెత్తని, సారవంతమైన మట్టితో ఏర్పడినవి. పీఠభూములు అగ్నిపర్వత శిలలతో ఏర్పడినవి.

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 1.
అట్లాసులో ‘ఇందిరా పాయింటీ’ ని గుర్తించండి. దీని ప్రత్యేకత ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:
అట్లాసులో, భారతదేశ పటంలో ఇందిరా పాయింట్ ని గుర్తించాము. దీని ప్రత్యేకత : ఇది భారతదేశపు దక్షిణ అంచు, -నికోబార్ దీవుల్లో ఉంది. 2004లో సంభవించిన సునామీలో ఇది ముంపునకు గురి అయ్యింది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 2.
ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ ……. ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల మధ్య, …….. తూర్పు రేఖాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.
జవాబు:
12°41′ – 19°07′ ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాలు,
77° – 84°40′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాలు

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 3.
మీ అట్లాసులో ఇచ్చిన స్కేలు ఆధారంగా ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ తీర పొడవును కనుక్కోండి.
జవాబు:
దాదాపు 970 కి.మీ.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.4

ప్రశ్న 4.
హిమాలయాలు ఎ) ……. కోట్ల సంవత్సరాల క్రితం ఏర్పడగా, వేట- సేకరణపై ఆధారపడిన తొలి మానవులు బి) ………. లక్షల సం||రాల క్రితం భూమి మీద ఆవిర్భవించారు.
జవాబు:
ఎ) 20
బి) 5

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.1 & 2

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఒక ప్రదేశాన్ని లేదా ప్రాంతాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా సూచించటానికి అక్షాంశ, రేఖాంశాలను ఉపయోగిస్తారు. అట్లాసు ఉపయోగించి కింది వాక్యాన్ని సరిచేయండి.
“భారతదేశం చాలా విశాలమైన దేశం, ఇది పూర్తిగా దక్షిణార్ధ గోళంలో ఉంది. దేశం 8° – 50° ఉత్తర రేఖాంశాల మధ్య 68° – 9° తూర్పు అక్షాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.”
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం చాలా విశాలమైన దేశం, ఇది పూర్తిగా ‘ఉత్తరార్ధ’ గోళంలో ఉంది. 8° – 4′ ‘ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల’ మధ్య 68° -7′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 6.
“భారతదేశ ద్వీపకల్పం” అన్న పదాన్ని తరచుగా ఎందుకు ఉపయోగిస్తాం?
జవాబు:
భారతదేశానికి తూర్పున బంగాళాఖాతం, పడమరన అరేబియా సముద్రం మరియు దక్షిణం వైపున హిందూ మహాసముద్రం ఉన్నాయి. మూడువైపులా నీరు ఉండి ఒకవైపు భూభాగం ఉన్న భూభాగాన్ని “ద్వీపకల్పం” అంటారు. భారతదేశానికి మూడువైపులా సముద్రాలు (నీరు) ఉన్నాయి కాబట్టి భారతదేశ ద్వీపకల్పం అన్న పదాన్ని తరచుగా (దక్షిణ భారతదేశాన్ని ఉద్దేశించి) ఉపయోగిస్తారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 7.
కింద ఇచ్చిన పరిశీలనలలో అహ్మదాబాద్, ఇంఫాల్ సూర్యోదయ, సూర్యాస్తమయాలను తెలిపేవి ఏవి ? కారణాలను వివరించండి.

జవాబు:
ప్రదేశం : ఇంఫాల్ ప్రదేశం : అహ్మదాబాద్
కారణాలు :

1. ఇంఫాల్ భారతదేశానికి తూర్పుగా, అహ్మదాబాద్ పశ్చిమంగా ఉన్నాయి.
2. ఇంఫాల్ 93°54′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశంపై, అహ్మదాబాద్ 72° 36′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశంపై ఉన్నాయి. ముందుగా 93°54 తూ.రే. పై సూర్యోదయం జరుగుతుంది. తర్వాత 72° 36′ పై సూర్యోదయం అవుతుంది.

(లేదా)

1. భూమి పడమర నుండి తూర్పుకు తిరుగుతుంది. కనుక సూర్యోదయం భూగోళానికి తూర్పున, సూర్యాస్తమయం పడమర అవుతుంది.
2. భారతదేశానికి తూర్పున ఉన్న ఇంఫాల్ లో పడమర ఉన్న అహ్మదాబాద్ కంటే ముందుగా సూర్యోదయం అవుతుంది. అలాగే సూర్యాస్తమయం ఇంఫాల్ లో ముందుగాను, అహ్మదాబాయ్ తరువాత అవుతుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.4

ప్రశ్న 8.
భారతదేశ ఉత్తర మైదానాల ఏర్పాటుకు దోహదపడిన హిమాలయ, ద్వీపకల్ప నదులను పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
భారతదేశ ఉత్తర మైదానాల ఏర్పాటుకు దోహదపడిన నదులు :
1) హిమాలయ నదులు : గంగా, సింధు, బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదులు మరియు వాటి ఉపనదులు.

2) ద్వీపకల్ప నదులు : నర్మదా, మహానది మొ||వి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.1

ప్రశ్న 9.
పైన ఇచ్చిన ప్రపంచ పటాన్ని పరిశీలించి భారతదేశ ఉనికిని గురించి కొన్ని వాక్యాలు రాయండి.

జవాబు:
భారతదేశం ఆసియా ఖండంలో దక్షిణభాగాన ఉంది.

1. భారతదేశం ఉత్తరార్ధ, పూర్వార్ధ గోళాలలో పాక్షికంగా విస్తరించి ఉంది.
2. భౌగోళికంగా 8°4′ – 37°6′ ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల మధ్య, 68°7′ – 97°25′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాలకు మధ్యన ఉంది.
3. అక్షాంశాల పరంగా ఉత్తర, దక్షిణాలుగా 30 డిగ్రీల పొడవున, రేఖాంశాల పరంగా కూడా తూర్పు, పడమరలుగా అన్నే డిగ్రీల వెడల్పున వ్యాపించి ఉంది.
4. భూగోళంపై భారత ఉపఖండం హెచ్చు భూభాగ విస్తీర్ణంతో వ్యాపించి ఉంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 10.
పై పటం చూసి ఆర్కిటిక్ వృత్తంలో భారతదేశం ఉందని ఊహించుకోండి. అప్పుడు మీ జీవితంలో ఏ ఏ తేడాలు ఉంటాయి?
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం ఆర్కిటిక్ వృత్తంలో ఉందనుకుంటే మా జీవితంలో ఉండే తేడాలు :
1) ఆహారం : తీసుకునే ఆహారంలో తేడా ఉంటుంది. ధ్రువప్రాంత ప్రజలు ఎక్కువగా మాంసం, చేపలు తీసుకుంటారు. కనుక మేము కూడా అవే తీసుకోవాల్సి ఉంటుంది. (వరి, గోధుమ పంటలు పండవు కనుక)

2) ఆవాసం : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతవాసులు మంచుతో నిర్మించిన ‘ఇగ్లూ’లలో, జంతుచర్మాలతో నిర్మించిన గుడారాలలో నివసిస్తారు. మేము ఇప్పటిలాగా డాబాల్లో ఉండలేము. కనుక ఆవాసంలో తేడా ఉంది.

3) దుస్తులు : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతవాసులు చలి నుండి రక్షణకై జంతు చర్మాలతో తయారైన బట్టలను ధరిస్తారు. మనలాగా నూలు, సిల్కు దుస్తులు ధరించరు. కనుక వేసుకునే దుస్తులలో తేడా ఉంటుంది.

4) వృత్తి : ప్రస్తుతం మేము వ్యవసాయం, పరిశ్రమలు, వాణిజ్యం మొ||న వృత్తులలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నాం. కానీ ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతంలో వేట, చేపలు పట్టడమే ప్రధాన వృత్తులు. కాబట్టి ఎంచుకునే వృత్తిలో కూడా తేడా ఉంటుంది.

5) వినోదం : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతంలో ఇక్కడిలా సినిమాలు, టీవీలూ, కంప్యూటర్లు, ఇంటర్నెట్లు లేవు. కావున వినోద సాధనాల్లో, వినోద కార్యక్రమాల్లో తేడా ఉంటుంది.

6) కాలాలు : ఇప్పటిలాగా వేసవి, వర్ష, చలికాలం వంటివి ఉండవు. ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతం 6 నెలలు వేసవి, 6 నెలలు శీతాకాలం. కావున కాలాల్లో కూడా తేడా ఉంటుంది.

7) రవాణా సాధనాలు : ఇప్పుడు మేము వాడుతున్న రవాణా సాధనాలు (కారు, బైక్, బస్సు, విమానం మొ||నవి) ఇవి అక్కడ అందుబాటులో ఉండవు. స్లెడ్జ్ బండ్లు లాంటివి తప్ప.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 11.
ఈ కింది పటాన్ని పరిశీలించండి. భారతదేశ సరిహద్దును గుర్తించండి. రంగులతో నింపండి.

పటంలో ఉన్న స్కేలు ఆధారంగా బంగ్లాదేశ్ తో భారతదేశ సరిహద్దు పొడవును అంచనా వేయండి.
జవాబు:
బంగ్లాదేశ్ తో భారతదేశ సరిహద్దు పొడవు సుమారు 4,096.70 కి. మీ.లు

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.3

ప్రశ్న 12.
పటం 2 ను, మీ పాఠశాలలోని ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటాన్ని చూడండి. మీ వేలితో కింద పేర్కొన్న వాటిని గుర్తించండి :

ఎ) దక్కను పీఠభూమి వాలు ఎటు ఉందో : తెలుసుకోటానికి గోదావరి, కృష్ణా నదుల ప్రవాహం వెంట మీ వేలు పోనివ్వండి.
బి) భూస్వరూపాలు, ఎత్తులు, దేశాలను పేర్కొంటూ బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదీ మార్గం మొత్తాన్ని వర్ణించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎ) దక్కన్ పీఠభూమి కొద్దిగా తూర్పునకు వాలి ఉంది. గోదావరి, కృష్ణా నదులు పశ్చిమం నుండి తూర్పు వైపునకు ప్రవహించి బంగాళాఖాతంలో కలుస్తున్నాయి.

బి) బ్రహ్మపుత్రానది టిబెట్ పీఠభూమి లోని ‘మానస సరోవరం’ (సరస్సు) దగ్గర కైలాస్ పర్వతాలలో జన్మించింది. (సింధు, సట్లెజ్ నదులు కూడా ఇక్కడే జన్మించాయి).

1. టిబెట్లో బ్రహ్మపుత్రానదిని ‘సాంగ్ పో’ (Tsangpo) అంటారు.
2. హిమాలయాలకు సమాంతరంగా తూర్పు వైపునకు ప్రవహిస్తుంది.
3. అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో నైరుతి దిశగా పెద్దమలుపు తిరుగుతుంది. ఇక్కడ దీనిని “సియాంగ్” అనీ, “దిహాంగ్” అనీ అంటారు.
4. తరువాత అసోం లోయలోకి వచ్చినపుడు దిబంగ్, లోహిత్ అనే రెండు ఉపనదులు కలుస్తున్నాయి.
5. అసోం లోయ నుండి బంగ్లాదేశ్ లోకి ప్రవేశించి, పద్మానదితో కలిసి బంగాళాఖాతంలో కలుస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.5

ప్రశ్న 13.
ఎ) మీ అట్లాసులో ఈ మూడు (హిమాద్రి, నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు, పిరే పంజాల్) పర్వతశ్రేణులను గుర్తించండి.
బి) ఉబ్బెత్తు పటంలో అత్యంత ఎత్తైన పర్వత శిఖరాలను కొన్నింటిని గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎ) 1) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు ( హిమాద్రి)
2) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు ( హిమాచల్)
3) శివాలిక్ శ్రేణి

బి) ఎవరెస్ట్ శిఖరం, K2 శిఖరం, కాంచనగంగ, గౌరీశంకర్, నంగపర్బత్, ధవళగిరి మరియు నందాదేవి

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.5

ప్రశ్న 14.
ఎ) కింద పేర్కొన్న ప్రాంతాలపైన గోడ పటంలోనూ, ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలోనూ మీ వేలిని పోనివ్వండి.
బి) మీ అట్లాసులోని భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో కింద పేర్కొన్న ప్రాంతాలను గుర్తించండి. సిమ్లా, ముస్సోరి, నైనిటాల్, రాణిఖేత్.
జవాబు:
ఎ) విద్యార్థి కృత్యము.
బి)

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.7

ప్రశ్న 15.
మీ అట్లాసులోని భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో ఈ కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి.

కొండలు	రాష్ట్రం / రాష్ట్రాలు
పూర్వాంచల్
పాట్ కాయ్
నాగా కొండలు
మణిపురి కొండలు

జవాబు:

కొండలు	రాష్ట్రం / రాష్ట్రాలు
పూర్వాంచల్	అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్, నాగాలాండ్, మణిపూర్, మేఘాలయ, మిజోరం
పాట్ కాయ్	అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్
నాగా కొండలు	నాగాలాండ్
మణిపురి కొండలు	మణిపూర్

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.9

ప్రశ్న 16.
మీ అట్లాసులోని, భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలోనూ, ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలోనూ ఈ కిందివాటిని గుర్తించండి.
1. మాల్వా పీఠభూమి, 2. బుందేల్‌ఖండ్, 3. భాగేల్ ఖండ్, 4. రాజమహల్ కొండలు, 5. చోటానాగపూర్ పీఠభూమి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.9

ప్రశ్న 17.
అట్లాసు సహాయంతో టిబెట్ పీఠభూమితో పోలిస్తే పైన పేర్కొన్న పీఠభూములు ఎంత ఎత్తులో ఉన్నాయో పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
టిబెట్ పీఠభూమి – 4950 మీటర్లు
మాల్వా పీఠభూమి – 300 – 600 మీ||
బుందేల్ ఖండ్ పీఠభూమి – 2 150 – 300 మీ||
భాగేఖండ్ పీఠభూమి – 300 – 600 మీ||
చోటానాగపూర్ – 600 – 900 మీ||
టిబెట్ పీఠభూమితో పోలిస్తే మిగతా పీఠభూములు అన్నీ తక్కువ ఎత్తులోనే ఉన్నాయి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.10

ప్రశ్న 18.
భారతదేశ ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలో తూర్పు, పశ్చిమ కనుమల ఎత్తులను టిబెటన్ పీఠభూమి, హిమాలయ శిఖరాలతో పోల్చండి.
జవాబు:

టిబెటన్, హిమాలయ శిఖరాలు	తూర్పు, పశ్చిమ కనుమల శిఖరాలు
1) టిబెటన్, హిమాలయ శిఖరాలు హిమాలయ పర్వతాలకు ఉత్తరభాగంలో ఉన్నాయి.	1) తూర్పు, పశ్చిమ కనుమల శిఖరాలు ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమిలో తూర్పు, పశ్చిమంగా ఉన్నాయి.
2) ఇవి సముద్రమట్టానికి 6000 మీ|| పైన ఎత్తు కలిగి ఉన్నాయి.	2) వీటి ఎత్తు 3000 మీ|| దాటిలేదు.
3) ఇవి ఎప్పుడూ మంచుతో కప్పబడి ఉంటాయి.	3) మంచుతో కప్పబడి (అస్సలు) ఉండవు.
4) ఎవరెస్ట్, కాంచనజంగ, K2, నంగప్రభాత్, నందాదేవి, నామ్చాబార్వ మొ||న వాటితోపాటు ప్రధాన శిఖరాలు ఉన్నాయి.	4) అనైముడి, (నీలగిరి) దొడబెట్ట, అరోమకొండ మొ||న ప్రధాన శిఖరాలు ఉన్నాయి.
5) ఎవరెస్ట్ శిఖరం (8848 మీ.) హిమాలయాల్లోనూ మరియు ప్రపంచంలోనూ ఎత్తైన శిఖరం.	5) అనైముడి (2695 మీ.) భారత ద్వీపకల్పంలో ఎత్తైన శిఖరం

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.12

ప్రశ్న 19.
భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలను గుర్తించండి. వాటి ఎత్తులలో తేడాలు ఏమిటి ? గంగా-సింధూ మైదానాలతో వీటిని పోల్చండి.
జవాబు:
డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలన్నీ దాదాపు ఒకే ఎత్తులో ఉన్నాయి.

గంగా-సింధు మైదానాలతో డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలను పోల్చడం :

గంగా – సింధూ మైదానాలు	డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలు
1) భారతదేశ ఉత్తర ప్రాంతంలో ఉన్నాయి. ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమికి, హిమాలయాలకు మధ్యన ఉన్నాయి.	1) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమికి తూర్పుగా ఉన్నాయి. బంగాళాఖాతానికి, తూర్పు కనుమలకు మధ్యన ఉన్నాయి.
2) గంగా, సింధూ, బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదుల వల్ల ఏర్పడ్డాయి.	2) మహానది, గోదావరి, కృష్ణా, కావేరి నదుల వల్ల ఏర్పడ్డాయి.
3) ఇవి చాలా సారవంతమైనవి మరియు వ్యవసాయానికి చాలా అనుకూలం.	3) ఇవి కూడా చాలా సారవంతమైనవి. మరియు వ్యవసాయానికి అనుకూలం.
4) భాబర్, భంగర్, ఖాదర్, టెరాయి లాంటి భూస్వరూపాలు ఉన్నాయి.	4) చిల్కా, కొల్లేరు, పులికాట్ లాంటి సరస్సులు ఉన్నాయి.
5) ఇవి చాలా విస్తారమైనటువంటివి. దాదాపు 7 లక్షలు చ.కి.మీ. విస్తరించి ఉన్నాయి.	5) ఇవి అంత విశాలమైనవి కావు.
6) వీనిలో జీవనదులు ప్రవహిస్తున్నాయి.	6) వీనిలో జీవనదులు లేవు.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 20 Post – War World and India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

NATO Pool	WARSA Pool
USA	Poland
Canada	Albania
Belgium	Romania
Denmark	Bulgaria
France	Flungary, etc.
Portugal
Britain, etc.

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Country	1990	1995	2000	2005	2014
USA	10,904	10,577	8,360	7,700	7,260
Russia / USSR	37,000	27,000	21,500	17,000	7,500

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Year	US	USSR
1965	33,000	10,000
1975	25,000	32,000
1985	24,000	45,000
1995	12,000	25,000
2005	11,000	16,000

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Communist and Socialistic block	Capitalistic and Democratic block
1. The communist block was lead by the USSR.	1. The capitalistic block was lead by the USA.
2. Here the process of development is controlled by the state.	2. Here, the private capitalists controlled the process of development.
3. Socialism and idea of equality exist here.	3. Democracy exists here.
4. Opposition was suppressed.	4. The USA promoted the idea of multiparty democracy.

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Presidential System	Parliamentary System
1. The President is the chief head of the executive.	1. The President is the chief head of the state but not the executive.
2. The President has under him secretaries incharge of different departments.	2. The President has under him ministers in charge of different departments.
3. The President is not necessarily bound by the advice of his secretaries.	3. The President is generally bound by the advice of his ministers.
4. The President can dismiss any secretary at any time. Eg: America	4. The President can not do so. Eg: India

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Years	1951-60	1961-70	1971-80	1981-90	1991-2000
Constitutional Amendments:	7	15	22	22	16

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

The Parliamentary system of government	The Presidential system of government
1. The President is the head of the state but not of the executive.	1. The President is the Chief Head of the executive.
2. The President is the Normal Executive.	2. The President is the real executive.
3. The President is generally bound by the advice of the council of ministers.	3. The President is not bound by the advice of the council of ministers.
4. The President has no power to dismiss his ministers so long as they command a majority in parliament.	4. The President can dismiss any minister at any time.
5. The election procedure of the head of state is indirect.	5. The President elected directly by the people.

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Period of time	Number of amendments made to Constitution
1951 -1960	7
1961 -1970	15
1971 – 1980	22
1981 -1990	22
1991 – 2000	16
2001 – 2013	17

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Food Security.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two ways which you would suggest for the eradication of malnutrition among the children?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Sufficient food should be given to children.
2. Children should be given nutritious food with low cost.

Question 2.
What is the active role of the judiciary in implementing food security in India? How is this role useful to children?
Answer:
In recent time, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through judicial verdict on court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide Mid-day-meals to all the young children studying in schools. The court also set up monitoring mechanisms and provided suggestions for better Implementation.

Question 3.
What is meant by Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

1. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Govern¬ment of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fail in farm prices.
2. With this price the government procures food grains through the FCI.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for ‘Nutricereals.
Answer:
Examples for the Nutri-cereals are

1. Jowar,
2. Ragi,
3. Bajra.

Question 5.
Give any two examples, which give vitamins.
Answer:
Fruits, Leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.

Question 6.
Expand the term F.C.I.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India.

Question 7.
What is the reason for providing mid-day meals in government schools?
Answer:

1. To increase the literacy rate in India and enroll more children in schools.
2. To provide one meal for all the poor young children studying in government schools.

Question 8.
Write any two reasons for better implementation of the Public Distribution System in southern states.
Answer:
A universal Public Distribution System is there in southern states. Specific cards are issued to the needy people. Low cost foodgrains are available for them in the ration shops.

Question 9.
What is the need of food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed for various purposes. The main purpose of food security is ‘no person should go to bed with an empty stomach’.

Question 10.
Which caused large scale starvation deaths in pre-independent India?
Answer:
In pre-independent India, famines – situations of extreme scarcity of food, were a common cause of large-scale starvation deaths.

Question 11.
What was the loss of the Bengal famine?
Answer:
The Bengal famine in 1943-45, took away about 3 to 5 million people lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa.

Question 12.
Why did the famines occur in Indian history?
Answer:
The famines occurred in Indian history because food grains supply was not organized by the rulers.

Question 13.
Name some organizations through which government today ensures food security.
Answer:
Ration shops and Anganwadis.

Question 14.
What is an important requirement of food security?
Answer:
Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.

Question 15.
What are the results of this method?
Answer:
Soil degradation and depletion of groundwater resources.

Question 16.
How is the availability of foodgrains per person per day estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows:
Availability of foodgrains per person per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year T population)/ 365

Question 17.
What do consumers need?
Answer:
Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet.

Question 18.
What can farmers do to increase their incomes?
Answer:
Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.

Question 19.
Give any one reason for farmers’ distress and even suicides.
Answer:
The conversation of food grain fields into cash crops such as cotton in Andhra Pradesh during the last two decades.

Question 20.
What do the nutritionists suggest?
Answer:
Nutritionists suggest that every person in India should eat 300 gms of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day whereas per person availability of these food materials 180 and 58 gms respectively.

Question 21.
What do farmers require?
Answer:
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items. They may have to. be supported and guarded against market risks that they face in the new situation.

Question 22.
Why may the foodgrain production come down?
Answer:
Since resources are diverted to non-food grain uses, foodgrain production may come down.

Question 23.
What is something to be worried about for India’s food security?
Answer:
The decline in the level of per capita availa¬bility of food grains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.

Question 24.
How are the national average calorie levels?
Answer:
The national average calorie levels in both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements.

Question 25.
What are used to examine the nutritional status of children?
Answer:
To examine the nutritional status of children, simple but accurate measurements of height and weight are used.

Question 26.
Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock has been created to meet any exigencies. The buffer stock can be utilized in case of drought or flood or any natural calamity.

Question 27.
What are Fair price shops?
Answer:
The ration shops which come under the PDS are called fair price shops.

Question 28.
Write short notes on MSP.
Answer:
MSP means Minimum Supportive Price. The FCI procures foodgrains and other farm produce by giving MSP for their produce. This ensures farmers of a minimum guarantee for their produce.

Question 29.
How many grams of vegetables and fruits every person eat a day?
Answer:
Every person in India should eat 300 grams of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day.

Question 30.
Today what are called as “nutri-cereals”?
Answer:
The coarse cereals like jowar, ragi, bajra, etc., are today called as nutri-cereals.

Question 31.
What is meant by PDS system?
Answer:
PDS system means the government supplying low-cost foodgrains to people with ration cards.

Question 32.
What is meant by Nutrition Food?
Answer:
Nutritious food is that food that provides for energy, growth and capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.

Question 33.
How is BMI derived?
Answer:
BMI = Weight in legs/height in meters squared.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalize people’s right to food. What do you suggest to implement this Act?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Subsidy rice should be given to the people of the low-income group.
2. More rice should be given to very poor people.
3. Dal, oil, tamarind and jaggery, etc. also should be supplied to these people through PDS.
4. MDM scheme should be implemented with more efforts.

Question 2.
Our country could not achieve self-sufficiency in the production of foodgrains even today. Illustrate your reasons.
Answer:

1. Foodgrain production is not proportional when compared to the rate of population growth.
2. There is no proper water management.
3. Farmers are following traditional methods.
4. Fragmentation of landholdings.
5. Improper manuring and low application of fertilizers.

Question 3.
State any two defects, which you find in the organization of the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Selling with higher prices.
2. Cheating in the process of weighing.
3. Selling ration goods in the black markets.
4. Ineligible candidates holding white cards.
5. Only few days distribution is following.

Question 4.
If the food grain production is affected because of natural calamity, in what ways can the Government ensure higher availability of food grains?
Answer:

1. The FCI releases the buffer stock.
2. By bringing supplies from other areas.
3. Through a universal PDS system, low-cost food grains would be available.
4. The Anthyodaya Cardholders are entitled to get 35 Kgs. of food grains per month per family.

Question 5.
“The Supreme Court of India directed to all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day-meal to the children studying in all schools.”
Prepare a pamphlet on better implementation of the Mid-day-meal program.
Answer:
Pamphlet on Mid-day-meal programme.

1. Foodgrains available in local areas are to be used.
2. Follow the menu regularly that meets the need of nutritional requirements of the children.
3. Cooking in clean and hygienic environment.
4. Involvement of staff and children for effective implementation.

Question 6.
Appreciate the benefits of the Mid-day meal programme implemented in Government schools.
Answer:

1. It ensures food security.
2. It provides nutritious food.
3. It helps to increase net attendance rate.

Question 7.
Write suggestions to avoid food waste in Mid-day meal in your school.
Answer:

1. Meals cooked should be tasty and healthy.
2. Children should be educated on the consequences of food wastage.
3. Teachers should supervise the programme.

Question 8.
Observe the bar diagram and answer the questions.
a) What percentage of people in rural India are consuming more calories than are required?
Answer:
20%
b) What is the reason for consuming less calories than are required in rural India?
Answer:

1. The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of purchasing power of the people.
2. People don’t have adequate incomes to buy food.
3. The reasons are poverty, unemployment, etc.

Question 9.
What are the measures you suggest for improving the present public distribution system?
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Provide ration cards only to the poor and vulnerable groups.
2. Check every month whether they are rationed in an effective manner or not.
3. Quantity supplied by the government should be increased.
4. Remove the fake cards.

Question 10.
Analyze a week’s food habits of your family. And write how it impacts on Agriculture sector and the environment.
Answer:
Family food habits:

1. Rice and redgram, vegetables, milk, curd, eggs, etc.
2. For breakfast – idly, dosa, chapati, etc.
3. Sometimes some members take non-vegetarian food.

Impact on agriculture:

1. For increase of food grains and vegetables production farmers are using pesticides and fertilizers. Due to this soil loses its fertility.
2. For increasing of milk production farmers follow artificial methods. Those methods cause harm to animals.

Impact on the environment:

1. Excessive use of chemicals causes water, air pollutions.
2. Bio-diversity is effected very highly.
3. Deforestation.

Question 11.
Write a letter to the concerned officer for the proper implementation of the Public Distribution System in your area.
Answer:

Siricilla.
31st March 2017.

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Siricilla.

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Subhashnagar, Siricilla. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer. They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….
………………….

Question 12.
Prepare a pamphlet to bring awareness among the people on food security in India
Answer:
Pamphlet

Food Security in India

National Food Security Act 2013 legalizes the people’s right to food. According to this Act White, Pink, Anthyodaya cards are distributed to the needy on identification. Free cooked meal for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children 1-5 in Anganwadi is supplied.

Many ration shops are not open on proper timings. There will be no display of prices list and the stock of commodities. The card holders come to ration shops, and as they are closed, they get back to their home without commodities. They lose their wages for that day also. The shop dealers are diverting commodities to other shops in the market. Many times it is seen in newspapers and channels but no change is found with the dealers.

Mid day meals in schools is also like that. The minimum quantity of pulses and oil are not used. The watery curries are served. No one cares about it.

People should get aware about this. Many non Government organizations are working for the benefit of society. The government should organize a campaign about this.

No. of copies
5000

Published by
Society for people

Question 13.
What is the position of India’s per capita availability of foodgrains compared to other countries?
Answer:

1. India’s per capita availability of foodgrains in 2010-11 was 463 grams.
2. It was very low when compared to the same of countries in Europe (700grams) and USA (850 grams).
3. Since resources are diverted to non-foodgrain uses, food grain production has come down.
4. The decline in the level of per capita availability of foodgrains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.
5. To avoid this, the policy of the government should aim to increase the production of foodgrains and other types of food simultaneously.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the question.

The State and Central Governments procure nearly one-third of foodgrains from farmers. These food grains are distributed to people through various mechanisms. In recent times, government agencies are procuring more foodgrains than what is required to meet the public distribution system. If government stocks keep increasing year after year, less is available (see year 2011 in Table on foodgrain availability). The government has been criticized that it is not distributing these foodgrains to the needy people. Sometimes, governments also exported these foodgrains to other countries.

Do you support this, when a large section of people within the country are not able to access to food grains?
Answer:

1. The state government should procure foodgrains to distribute through PDS at lower prices.
2. Needs of our people are to be considered.
3. So I do not support the concept of exporting foodgrains to foreign countries.
4. Instead, the foodgrains should be kept available to the needy of our country.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the question

“The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency (BMI<18.5) among men was about 35%, while overweight/obesity (BMI >25) was 10% …….
“About 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency andl4% were overweight/obese.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the States of Odisha, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh, followed by 33-38% in Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal…”

How is this related to food security?
Answer:

1. The above information says that 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency.
2. The prevalence of CED in our state is between 33% and 38%.
3. The above information proves that people do not have access to good food.
4. Hence “food security” should be implemented to avoid chronic energy deficiency.

Question 16.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is being ensured in India by using the following methods:

1. By improving production
2. By maintaining buffer stock
3. By the Public Distribution System.

Question 17.
What has to be done in order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop?
Answer:

1. In order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop, necessary inputs have to provided in a judicious manner.
2. One way is to expand irrigation but use water in a manner so that this vital resource is shared and made available to all.
3. Modern methods of farming are to adopted.

Question 18.
Which have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels?
Answer:
Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.

Question 19.
How is the availability of foodgrains for the year estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows.
Availability of foodgrains for the year = Production of foodgrains during the year (production – seed, feed and wastage) + net imports (imports-exports)-change in stocks with the government (closing stock at the year end – opening stock at the beginning)

Question 20.
Write your comments on the Food Security Bill.
Answer:
The Food Security Bill promises to alleviate hunger and guarantee very cheap food to India’s poor people. But there are concerns it has not been properly thought through and become unsustainable.
Under the programme everyone who qualifies for the subsidy will be entitled to 5 kg in total of rice, wheat, etc. The government intends to use the PDS for delivering subsidies to the poor.

Question 21.
Write your comments on P.D.S.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) has helped in stabilizing food prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has helped in avoiding hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. The share of PDS in the consumption of rice and wheat has risen steeply. I think this PDS is working effectively throughout the nation.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and answer the question.

Studies indicate that Southern states of India have a good record in the public distribution system. Notably, these are the states that have followed a universal PDS system which means that low cost food grains would be available to all. This Is in contrast to other states where poor families have been Identified and foodgrains are sold to at different prices to poor and non-poor. Even among the poor, the very poor have different entitlements, or guarantees for access.

Interpret the relation between the PDS and food security.
Answer:

1. People get food grains at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
2. The government ensures it through Food Corporation of India.
3. The Government should take suitable measures to reduce lapses in distribution and ensures benefit to the target groups.
4. The various concepts of PDS like Anganwadis. Mid-day meals and fair price shops etc., provide food security to the different low income groups.

Thus there is a close relation between the PDS and food security.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“While Indian Parliament enacts various laws such as National Food Security Act and implements schemes such as Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) in recent times, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through Judicial verdict as court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals to all the young children studying in schools.

Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act1 to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, It will give cash for the people to buy food grains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the question that follows.
Crop Production (Kilograms per Hectare)

Crop	1950 – 1951	2000 – 2001
Paddy	668	1901
Wheat	655	2708
Pulses	441	544
Oilseeds	481	810
Cotton	88	190
Jute	1043	2026

Write an analysis on the yielding trends of different crops.
Answer:

1. The above table explains the crop production in 1950-51 and 2000-2001 kgs per hectare.
2. Paddy production increases highly, wheat production also increased. Pulses production increased 100 kgs only. Oil seeds production increased double. Cotton production also increased double. Jute production also increased.

Due to Green Revolution, crop production increased gradually within the 50 years. Among the all wheat & paddy production increased because of both are benefited with Green Revolution. Food grain production also increased.

Question 4.
How far is ‘Food Security’ required today in India?
Answer:
Due to the increase of more population food security Is need nowadays. The following factors are responsible.

1. Per person availability of food grain has actually not rise but declined in the recent years.
2. Most people are in fact consuming fewer calories than required. This gap is severe for the poorest.
3. Lack of employment or with low salaries majority of people are not able to purchase require food grains.
4. In some areas PDS system is not working properly.
5. A large section of people are malnourished, even when we have adequate food in the country.
6. Majority of children and adults as being underweight in a chronic way.

On above issues food security is need today.

Question 5.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Per person availability of food grains in India

Year	Population (in millions)	Food grains production (in million tonnes)	Per person availability per day (grams)
1951	361	50.8	395
1961	439	82	469
1971	548	108.4	469
1991	846	176.4	510
2011	1210	232.07	454

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. In 1951 the population of India was 361 million and the food grains production was 50.8 million and 395 grams of food grains were available to a person per a day.
2. The population increased in 1961. It was 78 million. At the same time food grains production increased 32 million tons. The availability of food grains per person per a day was 469 grams.
3. In 1971,1991 and 2011 the population increased. At the same time the food grains production also increased. But in 1961,1971 the availability of food grains was the same; not increased.
4. From 1991 to 2011 the availability of food grains decreased due to floods, famines, natural calamities. More population was also another cause.

Till 1991 the population, food grains production and availability of food grains per person per day increased. But in 2011 only the population and food grains production increased. Availability of food grains drastically decreased.

The first requirement for a country is to be able to produce food grains for the whole population. Per person availability of food grains should be sufficient and also increasing over the years. From the information given above, it is evident that per person availability of food grains is decreasing since 2011.

So Government should take necessary measures in this regard. It should encourage farmers to produce more food grains. There should be control on exports also. Sometimes local people suffer for food grains but the government exports the food grains to other countries to import what they need. It is the minimum duty of the welfare government to keep food grains available to its people that to especially the poor.

Question 6.
Analyse how the Public Distribution System provides access to food to the poor?
Answer:
It is a joint responsibility of central government, state government and union territory administration to ensure the smooth functioning of the PDS.

While the responsibility of central government is to procure, store and transport it from purchase points to central godowns, the responsibility of state government and union territory administrations is to lift these commodities from the central godowns and distribute them to consumers through the network of fair price shops. FCI procures and distributes foodgrains, to provide subsidized food to the poor to mitigate regional inequalities through moving the surplus food to deficit areas and to stabilize agricultural prices.

The universal coverage of PDS was replaced by Targeted Real Public Distribution System in 1997 in order to achieve the objective of food security through sale of foodgrains to APL householders at economic cost and confirming the food subsidy bill toward the identified BPL families whose number crossed 97 million families in 2007.

Access to food through Public Distribution System :

1. National Food Security Act legalizes people’s right to food.
2. It is applicable to 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. PDS ensures the availability of foodgrains to the poor at subsidized rates.
4. Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice or wheat) per month per family.
5. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5 kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidized rates.
6. 75% of people living in rural areas purchase foodgrains through PDS.
7. 50% of the urban population purchases foodgrains through PDS.
8. PDS helps in maintaining the nutrition status of the people.
9. Studies indicate that the southern states of India have a good record in PDS.

Question 7.
What would be the impact of the availability of other food items and food security?
Answer:

1. It is said that there is a change in consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries.
2. This is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers.
3. Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.
4. Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items.
5. Over the years, although there has been increasing in the production of other food items, it is not sufficient to meet the minimum dietary requirements.
6. The policies should aim at increasing food crop production and other food items simultaneously.
7. It will fill the gap and make food security more viable.

Question 8.
What are the salient features of Food Security Bill?
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act’ to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 9.
Why do we require food? How do we classify the food that we consume?
Answer:

1. Food is required by the body for all its functions for energy, growth and the capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.
2. The food that we consume is normally classified as –
   1. Carbohydrates: that provide energy, through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats, etc.
   2. Proteins: that help growth and regeneration of body tissues through beans, dais, meat, eggs, rice, wheat, etc.
   3. Vitamins: that provide protection and ensure the working of many vital systems of the body through foods such as fruits, leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.
   4. Minerals are required in small quantities for many important functions such as iron and blood formation. This is provided through green leafy vegetables, ragi, etc.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
It is also important to ensure that soil and other natural resources are not damaged or depleted in the process. Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India – by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides – have led to a continuous but unsustainable Increase in the yield levels. In fact, these methods have led to soil degradation and depletion of ground water resources. If this continues, we may soon come to a situation that yields start falling rather than going up.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that improper usage of chemical fertilizers and insecticides causes for damage of cultivable soil and depletion of ground water levels.
2. If these methods are followed continuously there will be no ground water resources.
   My comments on this paragraph are as follows:
3. The population is growing day by day.
4. Cultivable land is not increasing in that proportion.
5. The food grain production is to be increased.
6. A part of green revolution it has become compulsory for the farmers to use fertilizers and pesticides to grow more crops.
7. Instead of using chemical fertilizers, the farmers should use go for organic farming.
8. Compost is to be encouraged. Multiple cropping is also one alternate.
9. Cultivable land is to be expanded by changing the wastelands as farming lands.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

If a country is to able to produce food grains for the whole of its population this would be considered as the first requirement. How do we measure whether if there is food for all ? Whether this food reaches families would be examined later. We are at first estimating what is available. This means that per person (or per capita) availability of foodgrains in the country should be sufficient and also increased over the years. Is the increase in foodgrain availability really happening?

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph every country should produce the foodgrains how much it needs.
2. Every country should examine two things.
3. The first one is how much foodgrains are produced in the country and the second one is how it is reaching to the people.
4. Many countries don’t concentrate on this sensitive issue.
5. It is very primary thing to look into the matter of food grain production and its availability.
6. When the production is less than the need or demand, automatically the prices go up.
7. Government should encourage the farmers to produce more foodgrains.
8. There should be control on exports also.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

It Is said that there Is a change In consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries. This Is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers. Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. Farmers producing food grains can go In for crop diversification In order to increase their Incomes.

Answer:

1. The paragraph says that the people demand different types of food like vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
2. Taking this type of food is a good sign.
3. By utilizing this diverse food, the people maintain good health.
4. Where Is a lot of gap between the production of foodgrains and its availability.
5. The pattern mentioned in this paragraph is good for health but the problem is its availability.
6. The access of food is very less when it is compared to the Nutritionists suggestions.
7. In Agriculture, there is a shift from food crops to commercial crops.
8. Many farmers are concentrating on commercial crops.
9. Consequently, there will be scarcity of foodgrains.
10. Food grains are to be grown to what extent it is necessary.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

The national average calorie levels In both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements. Also, the consumption of calories has gone down between 1983 and 2004. This Is shocking since as we have seen our economy Is growing at a rapid rate. Production of goods and services has Increased many times.

Answer:

1. This paragraph tells us that the people in rural and urban areas are not taking sufficient calories intake in their diet.
2. It is surprising that the economy is growing but calorie intake Is decreasing.
3. Production is increasing but consumption Is decreasing.
4. According to the reports of nutritionists it is clearly understood that the people are not consuming as per requirements.
5. Irrespective of caste, religion, region and gender the rich people take more than requirement but the problem is with the poor people.
6. Government should take new steps to help the poor people.
7. The PDS functioning should be made correct.
8. Quality commodities are to be provided at cheaper prices.

Question 14.
Write a letter to the Tahsildar about irregular functioning of ration shop in your area.

Tadepalli,
Date : xx xx xxxx

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Tadepalli

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Prakashnagar, Tadepalli. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer.

They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following bar diagram and answer the question.

How many persons were killed per 1000 people in wars in the 20th century?
Answer:
44.4

Question 2.
Observe the following bar-graph:

Between what years the armaments race was raised?
Answer:
1910-1914.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause for the World War -1?
Answer:
Murder of Archduke franz Ferdinand of Austria by a Serbian fanatic.

Question 4.
With which countries did Bismarck make the Secret Alliances?
Answer:
Austria and Italy.

Question 5.
Write two slogans on the necessity of peace.
Answer:

1. Hate war – love peace.
2. Peace is civilization.

Question 6.
What is militarism?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is a good way to solve problems.
“UN is a kind of world government based on four principles.”

Question 7.
What are the four principles?
(OR)
What are the four principles on which the UNO was founded?
Answer:

1. Preserve world peace,
2. Uphold human rights,
3. Respect international law and
4. Promote social progress.

Question 8.
Write two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

(OR)
Write any two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Peace is angle, war is a ghost.
2. War is extensive, peace is priceless.
3. War wins land, peace wins people.
4. War kills people, peace build people.

Question 9.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) In which century, is the number of war deaths low?
Answer:
16th-century

b) Why is the number of war deaths high during 1900 -1999?
Answer:

1. Two World Wars.
2. Use of modern weapons like nuclear weapons, poisonous gases.

Question 10.
Mention any one condition laid in the Versailles Treaty.
Answer:
Conditions laid in the Versailles Treaty:

1. Economic conditions,
2. Territorial conditions.
3. Military cuts, restriction of naval strength.

Question 11.
Write two reasons for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of League of Nations are:

1. Super powers were not the members of the League.
2. The League failed to prevent Germany, Japan and Italy from attacking/waging war against other countries.
3. The member countries violated international agreements.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and answer questions (a) and (b).
Annual Expenditure on National Defence (Million Dollars).

	1935	1936	1937	1939
Britain	595	846	1263	1817
Germany	381	2600	3600	4400

a) Which country’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more?
Answer:
Germany’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more.

b) Write any two reasons for the increase of defence expenditure in Britain and Germany.
Answer:
Britain and Germany are rival countries. This led to secret Alliances, Arms race, Imperialism and always they are suspecting each other.

Question 13.
What was the reason for American entry into World War II?
Answer:
The main reason is Japan attacked on American Naval base Pearl Harbour. So America entered into World War II.

Question 14.
Certain military cuts were imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on Germany State any two cuts.
Answer:

1. Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000 from 900,000.
2. It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battle-ships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen a torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Question 15.
Who called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”?
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”.

Question 16.
Which countries were developed as industrial countries at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
Britain, USA, Germany, France, Italy, Japan etc.

Question 17.
Name the countries of Triple Entente.
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

Question 18.
Which countries were formed as Triple Alliance?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Austria.

Question 19.
What do you mean by “Militarism”?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 20.
Name two aggressive forms of Nationalism.
Answer:
Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy are the aggressive forms of Nationalism.

Question 21.
Enlist the empires that ended after World War – 1.
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian Empire, the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire, the German empire, etc. were the empires that ended after the First World War.

Question 22.
Name the territories handed over by Germany to France after World War – 1.
Answer:
Alsace and Lorraine.

Question 23.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 24.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 25.
How was the world divided?
Answer:
The world was divided into the West which was experiencing economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose acute backwardness was wors¬ened by colonial exploitation by the West.

Question 26.
What was the change in literacy levels?
Answer:
Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.

Question 27.
Write down some results of the Great Depression.
Answer:

1. Massive unemployment
2. Economic breakdown
3. Two World Wars.

Question 28.
How was the world at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
At the beginning of the 20th century, the world was divided into developed industrialised countries of the West and colonial countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 29.
What were the two rival blocks in the industrialised countries?
Answer:
Germany – Austria – Hungary Vs Britain – France – Russia.

Question 30.
Why was the First World War truly a world war?
Answer:
The First World War was truly a world war as virtually no country was left untouched by it from Japan and China in the East to the US in the West.

Question 31.
How did the First World War end?
Answer:
The First World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies and in the victory of Britain and France in 1918.

Question 32.
How did the Second World War end?
Answer:
The Second World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies but before it ended it had ravaged all the warring countries.

Question 33.
Who attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
The U.S. attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 34.
What was the second fact about the world during the period?
Answer:
The second fact about the world during this period is the division of the world into nation-states and grouping of these nations of the world into power blocks and the degeneration of these alliances into war camps.

Question 35.
What happened by the end of the 19th century?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, different nations of Europe entered into alliances with each other against other blocks. Two main blocks emerged – the Centre and the Entente or Allies.

Question 36.
Who led the two blocks in the Second World War?
Answer:
The Axis powers were led by Germany and the Allies led by Britain, the US and the USSR.

Question 37.
What were the three main long term factors which led to World War – 1?
Answer:

1. Aggressive nationalism
2. Imperialism
3. Secret alliances and militarism.

Question 38.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 39.
Why did Bismarck enter into a secret alliance with Austria and Italy?
Answer:
After defeating France in 1870, Bismarck, the German Chancellor, decided to isolate it. To achieve this end, he entered into a secret alliance with Austria in 1879 and with Italy in 1882.

Question 40.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 41.
What is the result of the secret alliances?
Answer:
Instead of real peace, these alliances created an atmosphere of fear and ‘armed peace’ in Europe.

Question 42.
When did the British women get the right to vote?
Answer:
The British women got the right to vote in 1918.

Question 43.
Who participated in the Conference of Peace at Versailles?
Answer:
The five big victorious powers of the time viz. the USA, the UK, France, Italy and Japan participated in this conference.

Question 44.
Who were not invited to the conference?
Answer:
Socialist Russia and the vanquished powers were not invited to the conference.

Question 45.
Why was the League of Nations set up?
Answer:
The League of Nations was set up to prevent wars in the future.

Question 46.
How was the League of Nations hoped?
Answer:
The League of Nations was hoped that it would help eliminate wars through “collective security” and settle disputes between countries through arbitration or negotiation.

Question 47.
What were the two ideologies to which the workers turned?
Answer:

1. Socialism and
2. Communism.

Question 48.
Which empires were ended with the World War – 1?
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian empire, the Russian empire, the Ottoman Empire and the German empire, etc.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Beginning of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) When did the Russian Revolution take place?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution take place in 1917.

b) Which organisation was formed for peace after World War – II?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation.

c) What are the peace organizations formed after the two World Wars?
Answer:

1. League of Nations,
2. United Nations Organization.

Question 2.
Mention any two happenings of 20th century in support of calling it, “The Age of Extremes”.
Answer:

1. The Two world wars occurred in this age.
2. The world saw the Great Depression in the same period.
3. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights.
4. Women got right to vote firstly during this period.

Question 3.
Plot the information given below on a bar-graph :
The Armaments Race

Year	1880	1890	1900	1910	1914
Military Expenditure in Million Pounds	132	158	205	288	397

Answer:

Question 4.
Write your analysis on the graph given below.
Answer:

1. The above graph explains about Armaments Race from 1880 to 1914.
2. From 1880 to 1914 the military expenditure of the big powers were increased by over 300% i,e., from 132 million to 397 million.
3. Each and every country gave more importance to built more army to protect from their enemies.
4. The main theme of militarism is it is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyze the military expenditure in the World War-1 participant countries.

S.No.	Year	Military expenditure in million pounds
1.	1880	132
2.	1890	158
3.	1900	205
4.	1910	288
5.	1914	397

Observe the following graph and write a paragraph on the armament race.

Answer:

1. The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.
2. Military expenditure increases for every 10 years because of the armament race.
3. During 1914, the weapons were prepared on large scale and 397 million pounds were spent.
4. Since 1880 to 1914 the military experience increased in three folds.
5. Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France are some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret. How can you justify “The women getting the right to vote was a big step”?

After a long struggle for political right like right to vote, British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary, with men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with confidence, being breadwinners, women began raising their voices for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and Schools,
3. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established the ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement’ organization in 1914 for right to vote,
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big st2ep towards equality in all walks of life,

Question 7.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars.
(OR)
Create two slogans on promoting peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet to creat awareness on the loss incurred due to wars.
Answer:
Pamphlet

Consequences of wars

Wars are occured because of conquering the world and with the aim of exploiting resources of other countries. Some time dominance is the aim spread of ism or ideology is also preceding to wars.

In olden days, if there was a war, only those participating in the war would die, but nowadays very dangerous, poisonous weapons are available. Ordinary civilians also die. In 1945 what ‘ happened In Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Still some people are facing the consequences.

My request to all the country heads not to clear a way to wars. Better sit together and go for a smoother solution and avoid dangers.

xxx
Publishers.

Copies – 2000.

Question 9.
Observe the timeline and answer the questions.

Beginlng of First World War on August 1	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler In Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German Invasion of USSR	1942
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) Which year did Russia withdraw from World War -1?
Answer:
Russia withdrew from the World War -1 In 1917.

b) When did Hitler invade Poland?
Answer:
Hitler invaded poland on 1st September, 1939.

Question 10.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars and the promotion of peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 11.
The world was divided into “the West” which was experiencing economic growth and “the Rest” whose acute backwardness was worsened by colonial exploitation by the West.”
Read the above lines and interpret it.
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century, the world experienced two different blocks – the West and the Rest.
2. “The West” were all those countries like England, USA who were the leading industrial powers and they were experiencing economic growth.
3. “The Rest” were all the countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
4. They experienced extreme backwardness.
5. That backwardness was worsened by the colonial exploitation of these countries by “the West”.
6. This colonization and imperialism later led to World Wars.

Question 12.
Read the passage and interpret it.

Aggressive nationalism
The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse. It was the foundation of modern nation-states and the force behind the unification of Germany and Italy. But this ideology could also be used to create pride in one self and hatred against neighbours. This hatred was slowly building up in the 19th century between the states of Europe.

Answer:

1. Countries like Germany and Italy were unified in 1870.
2. Nationalism was an impulse behind unification.
3. Nationalism developed pride in them.
4. At the same time “it” developed hatred towards other nation.
5. This hatred led to aggressive farms like Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy.
6. They challenged other countries.
7. Finally, this aggressive nationalism led to World War II.

Question 13.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Begining of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) What was the period of World War -1?
Answer:
The period of World War-1 was 1914-18 AD.

b) Name the organizations formed after the World Wars.
Answer:
League of Nations and UNO were formed after the World Wars respectively.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler was responsible for World War – II.

d) What was the period of World War – II?
Answer:
The period of World War – II was 1939-45 AD.

Question 14.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name two countries that did not fall under the German Empire.
Answer:
Portugal, Spain, Turkey and Sweden.

b) Which country belonged to Allied block?
Answer:
England.

Question 15.
Discuss the death and destruction during two World Wars.
(OR)
Wars cause destruction. Prove it.
Answer:

1. World War I claimed 10 million men.
2. World War II claimed 22-25 million military casualties.
3. It also claimed 40-52 million civilian deaths.
4. It included 6 million Jews killed by Nazis.
5. It included 1,50,000 to 2,46,000 people were killed immediately by atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan by the USA.
6. The after-effects like leukaemia, cancer lingered on for decades.

Question 16.
Imperialism created much stress often leading to wars – Explain.
Answer:

1. As industrial capital developed in the European countries like Britain, Germany and US, they needed Markets for their products and access to raw materials.
2. As capital further accumulated in Banks and financial institutions, they looked for safe investment opportunities in colonies.
3. Thus by the end ofthe 19th century there was a race for colonies between the European powers.
4. The governments of these countries acted on behalf of their capitalists to increase their areas of influence and reduce the area under their competitors.
5. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to re-divide the colonies but the old powers were not ready for this.
6. This created much stress often leading to wars.

Question 17.
What do you know about the Militarism?
Answer:

1. Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.
2. From 1880 to 1914, the military expenditure of the six big powers increased by over 300%.
3. Three things are noteworthy in the context of militarism. Each of these countries built massive standing armies, competed with each other in increasing their armaments and built a mindset among the people to support wars.
4. Large industrial complex producing arms emerged which constantly promoted the idea of using war as a solution to diplomatic problems.

Question 18.
How can you say that the League of Nations was failed?
Answer:
Even though it showed a lot of promise and much was expected of it, it failed eventually to prevent Germany and Italy from violating international agreements and attacking other countries. So the World War – II emerged. Hence we can say League of Nations was failed.

Question 19.
What is the change in colonies during and after the World War -1 and II?
Answer:
During the First World War, on the demand of their subjects, the colonialists accepted the principle that self-government is desirable in colonies. With the process of decolonization, after World War II, the colonies rose to independence and hundreds of new countries were born across Asia and Africa.

Question 20.
What were the changes in the map of world?
Answer:
With World War I the German, Austro- Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. The map of eastern and central Europe was redrawn on the basis of nationality, economic viability and military security. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.

Question 21.
Write about the UNO.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II. UN is a kind of world government based on four principles, viz. preserve peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress. It works through organs like UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the Enfranchisement of women.
Answer:
After a long struggle for political right like the right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like the World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Question 23.
What was the immediate provocation for World War -1?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder on 28th June 1914 of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria by Serbian fanatic. Austria declared war on Serbia. As Serbia was with Allied Powers the Austrian attack on it led these powers to come to Serbia’s defence. Then the Central Powers, allied to Austria, also joined the war and this Marked the beginning of World War-1.

Question 24.
What was the immediate provocation for World War – II?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War II was the German tanks driving into Poland on September 1,1939. Hitler invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to hand over the port of Danzig to Germany. Polish territory lay between two parts of Germany. Hitler thought the takeover of Poland will also be a small military operation. But Poland had a defence pact with Britain which jumped on to the Polish side and France joined them a day later. This marked the beginning of World War II.

Question 25.
What was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler?
Answer:
The western capitalist countries like Britain were afraid of the Communist Revolution in other countries of Europe like Russia and initially encouraged Hitler and the Nazis of consolidating themselves to act as a buffer against Soviet Socialism. This was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler.

Question 26.
“The USA could not become a member of the League of Nations.” Why?
Answer:
The USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of President Woodrow Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of the League.

Question 27.
Write about Industrial capitalism.
Answer:
Industrial capitalism had changed the way of many people earned their livelihood but only in the western countries. Some of these countries, especially Britain, were leading industrial powers but also held vast colonial empires, spread all over the world.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes that lead to the two World Wars? (OR)
Write about the main reasons which are responsible for the two World Wars.
Answer:
I. Aggressive Nationalism:

1. The Ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive Nazism in destructive mode.

II. Imperialism:

1. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to redivide the colonies.
2. This created much stress often leading to wars.

III. Secret alliances:

1. Triple Alliance and Triple Entente made the European powers jealous and suspicious of one another.

IV. Militarism:

1. Each country built massive standing armies and competed with each other in increasing armaments.
2. They built a mindset among the people to support wars.

V. Arms Race :

1. The race for armaments and stock piling of war materials by all European coun¬tries created tensions in the world.

VI. The Treaty of Versailles :

1. World War I ended with the conference on Peace at Versailles in 1919.
2. To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on its.
3. Failure of League of Nations was the an-other cause.VII. German challenge to vengeful domination : They wanted to recover the terri¬tories lost by them, in the Treaty of Versailles, restore German dominance over Central Europe and end the restrictions on German armaments.

VIII. Immediate causes:

1. The immediate cause of First World War was the murder of Ferdinand of Austria.
2. The immediate cause of Second World War was the Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the “Treaty of Versailles’? Explain at what extent it was caused for outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles was an agreement between the victorious countries and Germany signed in 1919 after 1st World War.
Terms of Treaty of Versailles:

1. Territorial arrangements.
2. Military clauses
3. Economic clauses

Treaty of Versailles caused for outbreak of the Second World War:

1. The vanquished power Germany was not invited to the conference. Hence they thought the treaty was imposed on them, they had no respect responsibility for it.
2. The treaty aimed to weaken Germany in all aspects like – to return its colonies, reduce military, territorial penalties, huge war indemnity.
3. This created a reaction in Germany and wanted to recover the territories and restore German dominance over Europe.
4. Hitler’s invasion on Poland on Sept. 1st – 1939 gave rise to the cause of the 2nd World War.

Question 3.
Observe the following graph and answer the given questions.

a) How much was the military expenditure of great powers in 1914?
Answer:
397 Million Pounds

b) What are tripple entente countries?
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

c) State the allied powers.
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.

d) How many times, the military expenditure, increased from 1880 to 1914?
Answer:
3 times

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the above graph (See Q.No. 3) and write few sentences by analysing it.
Answer:

1. In 19th century the military expenditure raised slowly.
2. But during the 20th century, it raised rapidly.
3. Before the First World War, the expenditure increased to its maximum level.
4. Within four years i.e., between 1910¬1914 the expenditure raised nearly by 109 million pounds.
5. In the decade of 1880-1890, the raise of expenditure was 26 million pounds only.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   This graph explained about War related deaths from 1500-1999.
2. In which period, war related deaths were more?
   Answer:
   From 1900 -1999.
3. In which century, “deaths per 1000 people” were low?
   Answer:
   In 16th century
4. Give two suggestions to prevent wars?
   Answer:
   1. We can prevent wars by adopting a policy of mutual co-existence and respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
   2. Disputes between countries should be settled peacefully by talks.

Question 6.
How did the idea of Nationalism lead to the World Wars?
(OR)
How did the idea of Nation-states and Nationalism influence desire for war during 20th century?
Answer:
Nationalism is a belief, creed or political ideology that involves an individual identifying with or becoming attached to one’s nation.

1. The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. It was the foundation of modern nation states.
3. But later it became aggressive nationalism.
4. It is used to create pride in oneself and hatred against neighbors.
5. Fascists in Italy tried to build images of victories with it.
6. Nazis of Germany mobilised Germans against other nations of Europe.
7. These incidents led to World War.
8. Thus, we can say the idea of nation-states and nationalism influenced the desire for war during World Wars.’

Question 7.
Observe the given Europe map and answer the following question.
List out the Axis Power group and Central Allies group.
Answer:

Axis Powers	Allied Powers
Austria	USSR
Germany	Romania
Turkey	Britain
Bulgaria	France
Italy	USA
Japan	Poland

Question 8.
What are the important developments that took place in the first half of the 20th century? Explain any two of them.
(OR)
“The 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.” – Justify.
Answer:

1. Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.
2. Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people.
3. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.
4. New forms of art like movies emerged.
5. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life.
6. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West.
7. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world.
8. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and capitalist economy.
9. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
10. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 9.
Observe the below graph and answer the following questions.

1. In which year, the military expenditure was high? Why?
   Answer:
   In the year of 1914 the military expenditure was high because the year is the beginning of World War -1.
2. How would the armaments race impact the progress of a country?
   Answer:
   1. Armaments race was not only brought new technology into the world but also brushed a wave of nerves.
   2. It crease tension among the nations.
   3. Some countries developed very well with production and sale of arms, but some are destroyed by other nations with these arms.

Question 10.
What steps would you suggest to prevent these World Wars among the countries?
(OR)
Suggest some measures to protect World peace.
(OR)
Suggest measures to prevent wars between countries.
Answer:
To prevent World Wars, all the countries on the earth must follow the following steps.

1. The countries one and all should give up their attitude of aggressive nationalism.
2. Every country should be ready to disarmamentation of herself.
3. All the countries should promise to stop the usage of nuclear and chemical weapons.
4. Every country should be committed to development, not but to arms race.
5. Every country should respect the sovereignty and integrity of all other countries.
6. Every country should pledge not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
7. Countries must negotiate or go to International Court of Justice in case of disputes, but not to resort to wars.

Question 11.
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments. Justify the statement with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all. New forms of art like movies emerged. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and a capitalist economy. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and the economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 12.
Observe the graph and answer the questions:
a) How many people die in wars in the 16th century?
b) From the graph, what is the trend of war deaths?
c) In which century highest number of war related deaths were recorded? Why?
Answer:
a) 1.6 million people were died in wars in 16th century.
b) Above graph explains trend of war death are gradually increasing.
c) In 20th century a highest number of war related deaths were recorded. Because two World Wars were held in that century only.

Question 13.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on it Firstly, Germans were asked to return their colonies in Africa occupied in the 1880s and European areas like Alsace and Lorraine which they occupied from France in 1871. Secondly, Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000from 900,000 during World War I.
It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battleships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Do you think the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany in 1919?
Answer:

1. The peace treaty after 1st World War imposed inhumane and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. Germans thought that the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
3. Germans were asked to return colonies like Alsace and Lorraine.
4. Germans were asked to pull down its army strength to 1 lakh from 9 lakhs.
5. It was asked not to have submarines and restrictions were imposed on its naval strength.
6. These humiliating terms of Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler.
7. He recovered all the territories lost due to Treaty of Versailles.
8. Hence we can conclude that the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany.

(OR)

1. The Peace Treaty after First World War posed in-human and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. It definitely was one of the reasons for the Second World War.
3. But the victorious countries were more considerate towards Germany in 1919, would not have avoided the Second Warld War.
4. Countries like Germany, Italy and Japan were driven by Fascist superior feelings and wanted to have control over the world.
5. Keeping aside Germany, Italy and Japan joined the war only to serve their colonial interests and show the domination they enjoy the range of arms and military arrangements they have made, we cannot think of not happening of Second World War.

Question 14.
Study the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What does the above graph represent?
Answer:

1. The first bar column tells us the total number of deaths recorded during the century.
2. The 2nd bar column tells us the proportionate death due to wars.

b) Which century experienced decrease in the proportionate death rate?
Answer:
1700-1799 experienced a decrease in the proportionate death rate, i.e., from 11.2 in 1600-1699 to 9.7 in 1700-1799.

c) Why were the war related deaths high between 1900-1999?
Answer:
The world experienced two World Wars between 1900-1999. Hence the war-related deaths were high.

d) Compare 16th century with that of 20th century.
Answer:
Less than four people out of thousand died in the 16th century while it rose to 44.4 in the last century, i.e., nearly 4.5% of people died.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What do you know from the graph?
Answer:
The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.

b) In which year were the weapons prepared in large scale?
Answer:
During 1914, the weapons were prepared in large scale.

c) Why did the expense on soldiers increase for every 10 years?
Answer:
The Governments spent much expenses on soldiers to increase their area of influence and to reduce the areas under their competitors.

d) What are the countries that spend more money on weapons?
Answer:
Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France were some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 16.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.
a) What was the immediate cause of World War-ll?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany was the immediate cause of World War-II.

b) When did the USA enter in World War – II?
Answer:
The USA joined the World War-ll on the 8th of December 1941.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler, who became the Chancellor of Germany on 1933, was responsible for World War – II.

d) Why did mass murder of Jews take place in 1941?
Answer:
As the war proceeded the Nazi regime unfolded its horrible programme of building the racial supremacy of Germans by mass extermination of minority communities. Hence mass murder of Jews took place.

Question 17.
Write about the formation of UNO. On which principles it was based?
Answer:

1. After World War II United Nations Organisation was formed.
2. It was founded on 24 October 1945.
3. It is a kind of world government.
4. It was based on four principles viz.
   Preserve world peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress.
5. It works through many organs.
6. It has played a major role in preserving world peace.

Question 18.
Describe women’s fight for Right to vote. (Or) Women were discriminated even in “Right to vote.” Justify.
Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools.
3. Beginning with confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement organization in 1914 for right to vote.
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big step towards equality in all walks of life.

Question 19.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as ‘The Age of Extremes’. How far do you agree with it?
Answer:

1. I do agree with his statement.
2. Politically, there were monarchies, Fascist dominations, colonies, democratic movements and independent countries in hundreds, during this period.
3. Scientifically, unlocked secrets of atom and life.
4. New forms of art, cinema emerged.
5. Women got right to vote.
6. Socialist societies, liberal democracies are formed.
7. Great depression caused mass unemployment and economic breakdown.
8. Millions died and many more millions dislocated in two World Wars.
9. World governments like United Nations were formed.
10. Thus, this is the ‘Age of Extremes’.

Question 20.
Locate the following countries on the outline map of world.

1. Austria
2. Serbia
3. Japan
4. China
5. USA
6. USSR
7. France
8. England
9. Germany
10. Italy
11. Hungary
12. Turkey
13. Bulgeria
14. Rumenia
15. India.

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.

1. The country is the responsible for World War -1.
   Answer: Germany
2. The capital or Russia.
   Answer: Moscow
3. The Treaty of Versailles was held in the country.
   Answer: France
4. The capital of America.
   Answer:
   Washington D.C.
5. This country declare war on Serbia.
   Answer: Austria
6. In 1948 UNO created a country for Jewish people.
   Answer: Israel
7. Angola
8. China
9. Egypt
10. Myanmar
11. New York

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 People and Settlement.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson People and Settlement

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which decade had the population of Delhi increased unusually? According to your opinion, what might be the main reason for the population increase?
Population of Delhi City

Year	Population (in lakhs)
1951	20
1961	35
1971	48
1981	68
1991	100
2001	120

Answer:
The population of Delhi increased mostly in the decades of 1981 and 1991.
I think the reasons are:

1. It is our national capital.
2. Its development.

Question 2.
Why do certain places attract more people as settlements? Mention the reasons.
Answer:
Water resources, security, employment opportunities etc.

Question 3.
What are called Mega cities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Mega cities.

Question 4.
What is called a Metropolitan city? Give examples.
Answer:

1. A city having population between one million to 10 million is called a metropolitan city.
2. Examples: Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad.

Question 5.
State any two problems caused due to urbanization.
Answer:

1. Traffic problem will arise.
2. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
3. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
4. Air, water, sound pollutions are increased.

Question 6.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, religious, commercial, etc.

Question 7.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 8.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food-gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 9.
What tools did they use initially?
Answer:
Initially they used the tools made of stone. With these tools they were able to hunt more effectively and efficiently.

Question 10.
What happened as agriculture progressed?
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed in nature. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movement of heavenly bodies.

Question 11.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

1. site
2. situation and
3. the history of the place.

Question 12.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural t forces, and so on.

Question 13.
Name any two cities which were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 14.
Which kind of villages has the most vibrant markets and fairs?
Answer:
The villages that are best connected have the most vibrant markets and fairs.

Question 15.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 16.
Name the three cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 17.
What are the problems in urbanization?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing, e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity, water and public facilities.

Question 18.
What are aerotropolis ?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around c large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 19.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 20.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can fly in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with ail ‘ the comfort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 21.
Name some form of aerotropolises that are emerging in India.
Answer:

1. Kempegowda International Airport – Bengaluru
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 22.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having a population between 5000 to 1 lakh are called Towns.

Question 23.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing.’
What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanization, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them are working in the unorganized sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.
Usually, they are occupying government unorganized (porambok) areas for their residences. Govt, also building colonies for them. Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are living are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in unhealthy conditions.

Question 2.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
(OR)
Taking into consideration the past history and the present timings, state the causes for the escalation of population in Visakhapatnam according to your observation.
Answer:

1. Over the decades, Visakhapatnam’s population has grown significantly.
2. Visakhapatnam is a port city.
3. It developed industrially.
4. Many people came for work and settled in Visakhapatnam.
   So the population increased in Visakhapatnam.

Question 3.
Answer the questions by studying the data given below.

Population of Visakhapatnam

Year	Population	% change
1951	1,08,042	+ 53.8%
1961	2,11,190	+ 95.5%
1971	3,63,467	+ 72.1%
1981	6,03,630	+ 66.1%
1991	7,52,031	+ 24.6%
2001	13,45,938	+ 78.97%
2011	20,35,690	+ 51.2%

1. In which decade, the change in the population percentage is less?
   Answer:
   1981-91
2. What are the reasons for increasing population in Visakhapatnam ?
   Answer:
   1. Visakhapatanm is a port city.
   2. Employment opportunities.
   3. Migration from other places.

Question 4.
Describe the adverse impacts of urbanisation on environment.
Answer:

1. Air pollution increases.
2. Climate changes occur.
3. Drainage problems arise.
4. Non degradable garbage accumulates.

Question 5.
Delhi is the second biggest city in the country. Explain the reasons for it.
Answer:

1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that rilled India.
2. When India gained independence, the city remained its capital.
3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices there are people from all parts living in the city.
5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed. ,
6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 6.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation. Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 7.
What is an Aerotropolis ? Mention any two advantages of an aerotropolis over other cities?
Answer:
An aerotropolis is an urban plan in which the layout, infrastructure and economy is centered on an airport, existing as an airport city.
(or)
The settlements which centered around large airports are called aerotropolis.
Advantages:

1. People can fly to conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out – with all the comfort of a city.
2. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business, conferencing, etc, are provided right there.
   People ead Settlement

Question 8.
What happened as the population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftpersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 9.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there. These ports would enable export of raw materials to the colonizing country.

Question 10.
What happened in early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example, Chhatrapati Shivaji built a fort in Pratapgad, Maharashtra. This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 11.
Describe an annual fair in villages.
Answer:
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along with many cultural elements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.

Question 12.
Why did most of the population increase in cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 13.
What happened as settlements became larger?
Answer:
As settlements became larger, they also became more complex because there were more functions to be performed – food production was not the qjily cOncem.Within each settlement, people specialised in certain skills. Many goods were produced for the market and sold to traders who carried them to far off places.

Question 14.
What does situation describe? Give one example.
Answer:
Places do not exist in isolation. They are in some way connected to other places. Situation describes the connections with other places. For example Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.

Question 15.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 16.
How does urban India contribute to Indians economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.

Question 17.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

1. Suvarnabhoomi International Airport (Bangkok, Thailand)
2. Dubai International Airport (Dubai, UAE)
3. Cairo International Airport (Cairo, Egypt)
4. London Heathrew Airport (London, UK)

Question 18.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things.
3. Vehicle use Increases.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the changes in your settlement during the past twenty years, and find out the reasons for this.
Answer:
During the past 20 years, In our area :

1. Population Increased.
2. Transportation facilities extended.
3. The area of agricultural land has decreased.
4. The residential and shopping area has Increased.
5. Slums formed.
6. Environmental pollution Increased.
   Migrations and urbanisation are the main reasons for all these changes.

Question 2.
Increasing urbanization is not just about greater opportunities for people and economy. It also results in many problems.
– Express your attitude on the consequences of urbanization.
Answer:
There are a lot of problems occurring In the urban areas. They are:

• Scarcity of space and housing problem
• Increase of air, water, soil pollution
• Shortage of food items
• Increase of Plastic waste
• Increase of slum areas
• Increase of traffic problem
• Increase of sewage problem
• Pressure on the environment

Urbanisation is one of the Indicators of development. The governments hive to take necessary precautionary measures to avoid the problems while Increasing of towns and cities. Otherwise It may lead even to under development.

Question 3.
Explain the expansion of agriculture and emergence of towns.
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed In nature.
For example, the seasonal cycles, how to predict climatic conditions how to plan the timing of cropping practices etc. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movements of heavenly bodies.
As population Increased, there was more specialisation – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged, The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle In urban areas. Due to this towns were emerged.

Question 4.
‘Urbanisation results in environmental stress’ – Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Urbanization results in environmental stress -1 agree with this statement because.

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed In these places.
2. The decrease In rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are Increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are Increased.
7. The unemployment increases In urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Study the paragraph given below and answer the following questions:
A new kind of settlement Is occurring In many countries, Including India. These settlements are centred around large airports. Hence the name aerotropolis.

1. What is called a settlement?
2. What is located at the centre of an aerotropolis?
3. What facilities are provided in an aerotropolis?
4. Give two example of aerotropolises in India.

Answer:

1. The way we organise ourselves and our living spaces in a place Is called a settlement.
2. Airport.
3.  In an aerotropolis the airport functions as a city In Its own right. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing etc. are provided.
4. (i) Bengaluru International Airport
   (ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) and
   (iii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).

Question 6.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.
Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
2. Recycling of waste materials.
3. Provide more employment opportunities in villages.
4. Eradicate the use of plastic.

Question 7.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

1. Proper maintenance of sewage water.
2. Proper supply of drinking water.
3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
4. Giving importance to Agriculture.
5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
6. Widening of urban roads.
7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
8. Co-ordination among different wings or departments.

Question 8.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

1. Good transport facilities: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution free environment naturally attract more people.
3. Education, job opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.
4. Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful life style are some of the other factors contributing attracting people.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population Increased, there was more specialization-weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e., towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encourage the crafts persons to settle in urban area. Slowly the facilities are increasing In urban areas. People who are not having land they are migrating to towns & cities and improve their living conditions. After some years industrials are established they left their occupations and joined in industries for better life.
Slowly town areas are increasing, population also increasing and the people who depends on agriculture Is also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 10.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years, early humans lived in bands as hunter gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

Basic concepts of settlements are site; situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist in isolation. Elevated place are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. Historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The formers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment. Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work. Many people in cities and towns choose seif employed work. Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, How Site, Situation and the History of a place plays a vital role in human settlement?
Answer:
To understand what kind of places attracted settlements, we need to look at these basic concepts.

1. Site
2. Situation
3. The history of the place.

Site: Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.

In early settlement periods, places which had favorable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. Ex: Chatrapathi Shivaji built a fort inPratapghad, Maharashtra. Situation: Situation describes the connections with other places.
For Example: Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India. The history of the place: Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
In fact, cities such as Mumbai and Chennai were further developed by the colonial powers to better exploit the natural resources of India. The fight for Visakhapatnam was for similar reasons. Visakhapatnam as we now know it, is made up of several other places. After the British took it over, its boundaries were redrawn several times and have been constantly expanding.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that when the British people came to India a few dries like Mumbai and Chennai were developed for the sake of exploiting our natural resources.
2. Visakhapatnam is also one of the cities developed like that.
3. Much development is seen in Visakhapatnam once it came under the control of the British.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that the colonial rulers concentrated on their profits and benefits but not the development of India.
5. They did the same in Africa and Asian countries.
6. I conclude with this suggestion that after Independence our rulers should have concentrated on the development of many cities and towns.
7. Now Visakhapatnam is expanding in all comers. Other cities also should be developed similar way.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As populations increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e. towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph, it is understood that the increase in population leads to different professions.
2. Different goods and services are, produced. In cities and towns there is no agriculture but new sources of employment are seen.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that many new sorts of livelihoods are started.
4. When there is a scope for new profession emerging, the people should acquire new skills based on the new technology.
5. When there is new profession, new goods or services are produced and so market changes its nature.
6. In conclusion I would like to say that when there is much demand one should understand the trend in the society and shift accordingly.
7. For better employment, people need skill. Though they are not educated enough, they should be skilled in some area.
8. In which profession they have skill, they should go for that.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along With many cultural dements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here the village fairs are very important. Many activities take place there.
2. They play very crucial and key role in the development of the villages and cultural exchanges.
3. Some entertainment programmes are also there.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that the village fairs are useful to the farmers but there is a problem of mediators.
5. Many of the remote villages are not connected to major villages.
6. They still face problems of roads and transportation.
7. Nowadays connectivity is the major theme.
8. It is considered internationally and many of the countries are trying to improve the connectivity.
9. At the village fairs it is necessary to provide various facilities to the farmers those who come from distant places.

Question 15.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural -to – urban migration.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns.
2. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town.
3. The migration from rural areas is very less.
4. My opinion is that it is not common in all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns it may be correct but in many areas the migrants are more in number.
5. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons like livelihood, employment, children education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and other.
6. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.
7. Government should take care of these problems and find solutions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph it is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development.
2. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India.
4. Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sec-tors.
5. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and indus¬tries also.
7. Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector.
8. They should be taken care of.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has to be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue.
2. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumping of waste leads to pollu¬tion in rural areas.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization.
4. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live.
5. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town.
6. I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanism to collect the waste and poliu- tion free programmes are to be taken up.
7. Dumping in out skirts of towns and cities is not the solution but it creates new problem.
8. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 18.
How are slums formed?
Answer:

1. There is growing population in the cities.
2. People who migrate to the city looking for work occupy land without necessary permission and build on it in the way they can afford with no help or facility from anyone.
3. In the plan these places may be demarked for a different purpose. Thus they won’t get the status of colonies.
4. These may not receive many public amenities. People here are poor.
5. Thus slums are formed.
6. When government evict the people from there, the compensation paid may not be sufficient.
7. Again they occupy new location without necessary permission and these slums go on increasing.

Question 19.
What kind of places attract settlement?
Answer:

1. To understand this, we need to look at these basic concepts:
   (i) site(ii) situation (iii) the history of the place.
2. Sites refer to the characteristics of the place its topography, altitude, water characteristics (the places with lakes, rivers, underground water, etc., types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.
3. Shivaji chose Pratapgadh because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen.
4. Situation describes the connections with other places.
5. Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.
6. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 20.
What are the problems of urbanization?
Answer:

1. Increasing urbanization is not only providing opportunities to people and more productivity J but also resulting in many problems.
2. The growing urban population has to be housed. 1
3. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things. .
4. These result in environmental stress.
5. As vehicle use increases urban air pollution increases causing health problems and localized
   climate change.
6. Improper sewage disposal can also lead to greater threat of infectious diseases.
7. Use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so.
8. This produces waste that has to be disposed of.

Question 21.
How did the settlements begin? Discuss.
Answer:

1. For about 1.8 lakh years humans lived in bands as hunter-gatherers.
2. They did not practise agriculture.
3. However owing to changes in obtaining food, some bands took to the deliberate production of food-agriculture, some 10,000 years ago.
4. It brought many changes in human lifestyles.
5. People did not have to travel over large areas to obtain food.
6. They could now increasingly stay in one place.
7. As hunter-gatherers, they were nomadic.
8. But as agriculturists, they were increasingly sedentary.
9. Thus the settlements began.

Question 22.
‘Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.’ Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:

1. In 1951, the population of Delhi was only 20,00,000. Today it is more than 1,60,00,000. During the last 60 years it has grown 8 times.
2. Over decades its attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of jobs and livelihood, etc.
3. As the capital of the country, with the parliament and central government offices, there are people from all parts living in the city.
4. Every city usually has a master plan to design and allocate different types of areas and Delhi had three such plans.
5. But they have not been implemented.
6. On one hand there is growing population in the city and on the other hand there is a long delay In planning and announcing how the areas are to be used.
7. In fact, Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.

Question 23.
How does the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development?
Answer:

1. Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities.
2. Most of the poor live in non metropolitan towns work in the unorganized sector.
3. Most of the public enterprises are either located in urban settlements or their surroundings.
4. Most of the state of art equipment is located in urban settlements.
5. Most of the Information Technology industries or parks are operating in urban areas.
6. The exports of many of these contribute a lot to GDP of our country.
7. Thus, the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development.

Question 24.
Feel that you are living in urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complain-ing about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Sainagar colony,
Vijayawada,
xx xx xxxx.

To
The Commissioner,
Vijayawada Municipal Corporation,
Vijayawada.

Respected sir,

I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H. No. ———–, ) of Bavajipeta. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for your kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and another waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, an unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make city clean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………,
………………………….

Question 25.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
   Answer:
   Luni
2. The state which has Malabar coast.
   Answer:
   Kerala
3. The state which has Utkal coast.
   Answer:
   Odisa
4. The capital of India.
   Answer:
   Delhi
5. Godavari Delta.
6. Kaveri Delta.
7. Mahanadi Delta.
8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.
9. Bhimbedka
   Answer:
   MP (Near – Bhopal)
10. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
    Answer:
    Hyderabad.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 10 Globalisation.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Globalisation

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term I.B.R.D.
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. (OR) World Bank.

Question 2.
Explain SEZ.
Answer:

1. The full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone.
2. They are meant for free establishment of industries.

Question 3.
What is the difference between foreign trade and foreign investment ?
Answer:
Foreign trade Foreign trade is any kind of trade (exports and imports) with other countries of the world.
Foreign investment: Private capital invest-ment by firms of one country into those of another country is called foreign investment.

Question 4.
Expand WTO.
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 5.
What is the Arab Spring?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors which led to Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization is a process of connecting countries across the globe.
Technology, Liberalisation of foreign trade and investment, foreign investment policy, WTO and other global institutions led to this globalization.

Question 7.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC is a multinational corporation, owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 8.
What do you mean by foreign investment?
Answer:
Investments made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 9.
What is the investment?
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Question 10.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade is any kind of trade with other countries of the world.

Question 11.
What do you mean by trade barrier?
Answer:
It is called a barrier since some restrictions have been set up by the Indian government on foreign trade and foreign investment. It can be tax on imports.

Question 12.
What is Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.

Question 13.
What was called ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 14.
Where do MNCs set up offices and factories for production? Give reason.
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.
This is done so that cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 15.
Define Economic reforms of NEP 1991.
Answer:
The economic policy adopted by the Government of India since July, 1991 is termed as new economic policy or economic reforms.

Question 16.
What is Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatization means reduced government intervention and increased private investment in production activities.

Question 17.
What is Outsourcing?
Answer:
Outsourcing means going out to a source outside the company to buy regular service.

Question 18.
How many countries are currently members of the WTO?
Answer:
The WTO has 164 member countries as on 29th July 2016.

Question 19.
In which year, the government started to remove barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 20.
Why are Chinese toys popular in the world?
Answer:
Chinese toys are comparatively cheaper and have new designs. So they are popular in the world.

Question 21.
Why are the MNCs making investments in India?
Answer:
In India labour cost is very low when compared to rest of the world. So, many MNCs are making investments in India.

Question 22.
Which organization lay emphasis on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment in India?
Answer:
The WTO.

Question 23.
When was the WTO established?
Answer:
The WTO was established On 01-01-1995.

Question 24.
Where is the main head office of the WTO?
Answer:
It is in Geneva – Switzerland.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. They can sell their products in other countries also.

Question 26.
State a positive aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.
Answer:
The strategy has helped India in creating a large industrial base and an increase in industrial production.

Question 27.
What do you mean by export quotas?
Answer:
For the protection of local consumers, the government restricts giving limit of export of particular goods. This is called an export quota.

Question 28.
What is an import quota?
Answer:
For the protection of local manufacturers from the competition of producers of another country, the government imposes taxes on imported goods. This is called an import quota.

Question 29.
State any two impacts of liberalization and globalization in India.
Answer:

1. There are better services in the communication sector.
2. Many food processing companies have taken over the market.

Question 30.
State the new strategies of NEP.
Answer:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Question 31.
What is meant by modernization of the economy?
Answer:
The NEP accords top priority to modern techniques and technologies. It also promotes computers and electronics industries. It has made the Indian industries dynamic.

Question 32.
What is Joint Venture?
Answer:
At times MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of the countries where they established their MNC operations.

Question 33.
Expand W.T.O. How does it work?
Answer:

1. WTO-World Trade Organisation. It lays emphasis on the liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investments.
2. It was established in 1995 with headquarters in Geneva – Switzerland.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the effects of Globalisation in India.
Answer:

1. The impact of globalization in India is not uniform.
2. It has benefited well-off consumers.
3. It has also benefited the producers with skill, education and huge wealth.
4. Certain services enabled with technology have expanded.
5. Some new jobs are created.
6. Some large Indian companies have grown as M.N.C.s.
7. On the other hand, most of the small producers and workers are not happy with globalization.

Question 2.
Estimate the impact of globalization on local industries of India.
Answer:
Impact of globalization:
Positive effect:

1. Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
2. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards.
3. Some have gained from a successful collaboration with foreign companies.

Negative effect:

1. Some of the small industries have been hit hard due to competition.
2. Several units have been shut down rendering many workers jobless.

Question 3.
“Globalisation by connecting countries results in greater competition among producers.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.
2. An MNC does different operations related to its business at different locations across the globe.
3. An MNC is able to take advantage of cost-benefit and also of easier access to important markets.
4. There is a greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products.
5. Competition held between local producers and foreign companies.

Question 4.
Write about the problems of Urbanization.
Answer:
Problems of urbanization:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to the housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population affects agricultural production due to a shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problems will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Give four reasons to the factors that helped Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means interconnecting the markets and countries also. Factors that helped globalization are:

1. Technology: The development in Information and Communication Technology have been even more remarkable and rapid.
   Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process.
2. Transportation: As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail and talk across the world at negligible costs.
3. Liberalization of Foreign Trade: With the liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
4. Liberalization of Foreign Investment: Due to this so many companies are going to invest on new products.
5. Political climate: We must remember that political decisions are taken in a particular context, which accounts for the economic and technological change that has already taken place.

Question 6.
How are the Indian companies benefited from Globalisation at present?
Answer:
Benefit for Indian companies with globalization at present

1. Invested in newer technology and production methods
2. Raised their production standards
3. Gained from collaboration with foreign companies

Question 7.
What will be the consequences of Globalisation, if it spreads to all sectors in future?
Answer:
More products will be available if globalization process is continued and spread. Quality of goods will be increased prices come down. Foreign investment is increased. Many new jobs will come up. IT services will be increased. Technology will be more used. Small scale industries will be closed. Culture and nationalism are also affected. Soil lose its fertility.

Question 8.
What do you understand by globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is a process associating with increasing openness, growing economic independence and deepening economic integration with the world economy. In other words, it means opening up of the domestic economy for foreign countries.

Question 9.
What is the role of media in ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
Media played a crucial role during the Arab Spring. Television Channels that were owned and run by people from other countries supported such mobilization which resulted in regulating the powers of local leaders. While events like Civil War or natural disasters like Tsunami are discussed within the national boundaries they also receive support and sympathy from around the world.

Question 10.
Give a picture of ‘Production across countries before large MNCs’.
Answer:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organized within countries. Raw materials, food grains and finished products only crossed the boundaries of these countries. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food grains and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Question 11.
What is important regarding MNCs?
Answer:
MNCs not only sell their finished products globally but more important, the goods and services are produced globally. As a result, production is organized in increasingly complex ways. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

Question 12.
“Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market player and forces”. Comment with an example.
Answer:

1. Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market players and forces.
2. In fact many of the MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments.
3. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and the influence of these MNCs.
4. This is how the decision making powers of sovereign governments are at a risk.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the influence of globalization on the Indian economic system? What are the advantages of extending globalization to India? Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The Globalization has benefited both the customers and the industrialists.
2. There are greater choices for the customers, who now enjoying quality items at lower prices.
3. As such, their standard of living is improved.
4. Among producer and workers, the influence has not been uniform.
5. The MNCs have invested in Indian Companies.
6. New jobs have been created and local companies supplying raw materials etc. to these companies prospered.
7. Top Indian companies have been benefited as new technology is implemented.
8. Some large Indian companies emerged as MNCs.
9. The Globalization has also created new opportunities for companies providing services.
10. Besides, a host of services, such as data entry, accounting, engineering etc. are now done cheaply in India.

Question 2.
Do you support or oppose the setting up of the Special Economic Zones? Why?
Answer:
I strongly oppose the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. Accumulation of land for SEZs disturb the livelihood of agricultural dependents.
2. SEZs are not offering as much employment as they have assured.
3. They disturb the ecological balance in certain cases.

(OR)

I support the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. They provide more employment opportunities.
2. They provide world-class infrastructural facilities in a particular place.
3. They attract foreign investments and help to the establishment of industries.

Question 3.
“Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Write your opinions on it.
Answer:

1. The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed.
2. It has benefited the producers with huge wealth and well-off consumers.
3. But the small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode.
4. Globalisation should be fair. It has to create opportunities for all.
5. The government has to play a major role in making this possible.
6. The government has to ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.

Question 4.
Explain the factors that have enabled Globalisation.
Answer:

1. Technology has been improved rapidly.
2. Due to this, many revolutionary changes occurred in the fields of production, trade and especially in information and communication.
3. Nowadays computer and internet has made the world a hamlet.
4. After 1991, the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India.
5. This had speeded up the process of globalisation in India.
6. The policies implemented by international organisations like WTO, promoted the interests of MNCs, all over the world.

Question 5.
Explain with examples, how small and cottage industries are extinct because of multinational companies.
Answer:
Small and cottage industries are going the extinct because of multinational companies due to the following reasons.

1. Small industries are not having the capacity to compete with M.N.C.’s
2. Imported goods quality is high and the cost is low.
3. People are attracted to machine-made goods. But cottage industries are not following.

Example:
a) Basket making:

1. Small industries did not get good quality of plastic, because its cost is high.
2. Instead of traditional baskets MNC’s imported steel and metal baskets.

b) Weaving:

1. Small and cottage industries using old traditional methods for weaving, only handlooms.
2. MNC’s using power looms for weaving and using machines and imported machine-made cloth.

Question 6.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of Multi-National Companies.
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Multinational Companies :
Advantages:

1. Competition among countries increased.
2. Quality improvement.
3. The decrease in prices.
4. Increase in production.
5. Increase in access of goods and services.
6. Development in research and technology.
7. Increase in employment opportunities.

Disadvantages:

1. The decline in small scale industries.
2. No employment opportunities for unskilled labourers.
3. Agriculture is affected.
4. The environment is affected.
5. The exploitation of natural resources.
6. Value of currency is determined internationally.
7. Indigenous languages and culture is affected.

Question 7.
How can flexibility in labour laws support the present companies?
Answer:

1. Flexibility in labour laws can help the companies to decrease their production cost by employing labourers only for a short period of time when there is need instead of employing them for long period of time or yearly basis.
2. By easing upon labour laws, company heads can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

The developments in information and communication technology have been even more remarkable and rapid. Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world to access information instantly and to communicate from remote areas.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about developments in technology especially with regard to information and communication technology. It has various effects on society and made the task of many people easy.

In the fast-growing world, every field is being updated and upgraded. There are so many reasons for these changes in technology. Due to globalization, getting and sending information should be fast. Email, Google, Internet, Wikipedia all these made our task easy. People also changed their lifestyles. Even in mobile phones various activities like e-banking, different payments like electricity bill, phone bill are paid. Many of the GOs and Memos are sent by mail.

It has negative effects also. Some youth are attracted by abscence films and pornographic videos are watched. Students can utilise it for their study. The government should take necessary action.

Question 9.
Read the paragraph given below and comment.

The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed. It has benefited well-off consumers and also producers with skill, education and huge wealth. Certain services, enabled with technology, have expanded. On the other hand, thousands of small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode. It is important to understand the two¬sided nature of globalisation.

Answer:

1. The costs and benefits of globalization are unevenly distributed both within and in between cities.
2. Homeless people are living in cardboard boxes on sidewalks of gleaming corporate skyscrapers, whose budgets exceed those of many countries.
3. In many countries real incomes have fallen, the costs of living gone up and the number of poor households has grown, particularly in urban areas.
4. More urban inhabitants live in inadequate housing, mostly in the slums and scattered settlements in developing countries.

Conclusion: Finally developed countries and rich people are benefited and poor people are not benefited.

Question 10.

Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this paragraph or not. Mention why/why not.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of these countries. The local company benefits by the additional investments and the latest technology that the MNCs bring.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it says that the multinational companies invest for the production of goods jointly with the local companies.
2. This additional investment is a sort of benefit for the local companies as they have access to technology.
3. To some extent it is true.
4. When foreign companies want to establish a new factory they bring some new technology and provide job opportunities for the local people.
5. They utilize the local resources along with the human resource.
6. The companies keep the local companies in their grip and gradually they lose their control on their own production.
7. Some people say that multinational companies are helpful to local companies.
8. It is true in the initial stage but in due course, it leads to downfall.
9. So I don’t fully agree with this paragraph.
10. The government should put barriers which are useful for the local companies.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

For a long time trade has been the main channel of connecting countries. In history, you would have read about the trade routes connecting India and South Asia to markets both in the East and West and the extensive trade that took place along these routes. You would also remember that it was trading interests which attracted various trading companies such as the East India Company to India.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, trade is the main channel bringing the nations together.
2. East India Company came to India in such a way. In the name of trade, the Europeans tried to find out new sea routes and in the series of efforts, they explore many countries and estab¬lished markets.
3. The exploration doesn’t stop with spreading the markets.
4. It leads to the exploitation of natural resources.
5. East India Company came to India and looted the country. Trade doesn’t mean exploitation.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that it is not so easy to decide whether the trade is really linking the markets and leading to exploitation.
7. Every country should think whether foreign companies are useful to their country or not.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.

To put it simply, foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. Similarly, for the buyers, trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that because of foreign companies opportunities are created and
   the producers send their goods to other markets also.
2. The buyers also have the choice to select the commodities or goods whatever they like.
3. Foreign trade helps in connecting markets of the globe. The international market system will be increased.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that many of the foreign products like Coca-cola, Pepsi and other cool drinks are available in our country.
5. Local coconuts and buttermilk are not being utilized.
6. Though there is a choice for buyers, they should think of their domestic market also.
7. Foreign trade connects the markets in different countries.
8. The integration of the market system doesn’t collapse the domestic economic system.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write’ your opinion on it.

Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements in transporta¬tion technology. As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph technology is one major factor in the process of globalization.
2. Recently there are many changes in transportation technology.
3. It led to faster movement in reaching the destination.
4. My opinion is that technology is a part of globalization.
5. Many multinational companies use different technology for various purposes.
6. In this paragraph, it is discussed about transportation technology.
7. Improved transportation makes travel easy. Construction and management of roads including vehicle maintenance are to be concentrated.
   8) Better roads help in minimizing the prices because of fuel consumption.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Let us return to the example of imports of Chinese toys in India. Suppose the Indian government puts a tax on the import of toys. And because of the tax, buyers will have to pay a higher price on imported toys. Chinese toys will no longer be as cheap in the Indian markets and imports from China will automatically reduce. Indian toy-makers will prosper.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the government has to put barriers on Chinese toys.
2. Thus the prices of the Chinese toys rise.
3. Automatically Indian toys will have positive market. Indian toy makers will get benefits. My comments on this paragraph are as follows. This is only an example.
4. Like Chinese toys, there are so many goods coming from abroad and making good business.
5. They are getting good profits.
6. The same Indian manufacturers face many troubles.
7. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should take necessary steps to strengthen the Indian companies and small scale industries along with artisans and handicrafts.

Question 15.
Identify these countries on an outline map of world.

1. United States of America
2. China
3. Mexico
4. Eastern European countries
   i) Poland
   ii) Ukraine
   iii) Romania
   iv) Bulgaria
   v) Czech Republic
   vi) Slovakia
5. India

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 The People.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson The People

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is sex-ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sex ratio can be calculated with the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 2.
As 2011 Census, the population has increased to 121 crores approximately in India. Write any two reasons for it.
Answer:

1. Early marriages.
2. Illiteracy.
3. Superstitions.
4. Advancement in Medical Science.

Question 3.
Give the main reason for decreasing the death rate during the last decade in India.
Answer:

1. Decline in the death rate is due to effective control of dreadful epidemic diseases through the advancement of medical technology and the health-care delivery system.
2. Spread of education, development of science and technology and effective use of the resources have given greater scope and prospects for sustainability.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.

Male, Female Literacy rate in India.

Year	Female Literacy	Male Literacy	Literacy rate
1961	15.35%	40.45%	28.30%
1971	21.97%	45.96%	34.45%
1981	29.76%	56.38%	43.57%
1991	39.29%	63.13%	52.21%
2001	54.67%	75.26%	64.84%
2011	65.46%	82.14%	74.04%

(a) By what percentage is male literacy more than that of female in 2011?
Answer:
Male literacy is more than that of female in 2011 is 16.68%.

(b) What information does the above table give us?
Answer:
The above table gives us the information about male and female literacy rate in India during 1961 – 2011.

(c) In which period is the literacy rate increased more?
Answer:
The literacy rate increased more during the period 1991 – 2001.

(d) How do you understand female literacy?
Answer:

1. When compared with male literacy, female literacy rate is low.
2. In 1961 female literacy is very low. But it is an increasing level. During 1991 – 2001 female literacy is highly increased.

Question 5.
Observe the given bar graph and answer the questions.

(a) What does the above graph tell about?
Answer:
The above graph tells about India Population – Sex Ratio (1951 – 2011).

(b) What does the change in sex ratio show when compared with 1991 year to that of 2011 year ?
Answer:
The sex ratio is increased (929 to 940)

(c) What do you mean by sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

(d) Mention the reason behind the low female population in India.
Answer:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Illiteracy
3. Lack of Medical facilities
4. Not providing nutritious food.
5. Parental attitude

Question 6.
What processes influence the change in population size?
Answer:
The processes that influence the change in population size are

1. births
2. deaths
3. migrations

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer questions a and b.
Census 2011 – Data related to literacy rate in Kerala and Bihar

Rank	State	Literacy rate	Male literacy rate	Female literacy rate
1	Kerala	94%	96%	92%
2	Bihar	64%	73%	53%

(a) What is table about?
Answer:
The table is about literary rate in Kerala and Bihar considering census 2011.

(b) Mention one reason for low literacy rate among the women.
Answer:
Reasons for low literacy rate among the women:

• Following traditions and conventions
• Less priority to girl education

Question 8.
How much percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
Ninety-two percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
What is important regarding population study?
Answer:
It is important to understand population numbers, its distribution and characteristics that provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating the other aspects.

Question 10.
What does the Census of India provide?
Answer:
The Census of India provides us with infor-mation regarding the population of our country.

Question 11.
What is a census?
Answer:
A census is a procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.

Question 12.
Who collects the census?
Answer:
A central government institution, the Census of India, organizes the collection and record¬ing of this information.

Question 13.
What does the age structure of a population refer to?
Answer:
The age structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups in a country.

Question 14.
How can we group the population of a nation?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:

1. Children (Below 15 years),
2. Working-age (15-59 years),
3. Aged (Above 59 years)

Question 15.
Who gets retirement pension?
Answer:
Those who work and retire in organised sector may get retirement pension.

Question 16.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 17.
What does the sex ratio indicate?
Answer:
The sex ratio indicates a hidden form of discrimination.

Question 18.
What does medical research show?
Answer:
Medical research shows that given similar circumstances girl children survive much better than boys.

Question 19.
What does the census show regarding child births? Give reasons for that.
Answer:
The census shows that in the age group 0-5, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.

Question 20.
Which tend towards unequal sex ratios? Give reason for that.
Answer:
Regions that have unequal gender relations that favour the males and discriminate against the females tend towards unequal sex ratios. This can happen even though they have high incomes.

Question 21.
Give an example of the state which has positive sex ratio.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for female foetus infanticide?
Answer:
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child before birth. Many adults consider female children as a burden.

Question 23.
Write about women’s education.
Answer:
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.

Question 24.
Who is treated as literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 25.
What is literacy?
Answer:
Literacy: Literacy is key for socio-economic progress.

Question 26.
Write an account of literacy rate.
Answer:
At independence in 1947,12% of the population was literate. In 2001, it was 64.84%.lt grew to 74.04% by 2011. However, the 2011 Census shows that there is a wide disparity in literacy rates for men (82.14%) and women (65.46%).

Question 27.
Write the equation of population change.
Answer:
Population change (absolute numbers) = (Population at later date) – (Population at earlier date)

Question 28.
Write the equation of population change in a place.
Answer:
Population change in a place = (number of births + number of in-migrants) -(number of deaths + number of out-migrants). A positive number means the population has increased by that number. A negative number shows it has decreased by that number.

Question 29.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.

Question 30.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
What is the change in birth rate and death rate at present?
Answer:
There has been the rapid decline in death rates but till recent times, birth rates were not decreasing substantially.

Question 32.
Why did the famines decline after 1900?
Answer:
After 1900 famines declined because of famine relief, movement of grain, ration shops and an active public voice in a democracy.

Question 33.
Why are some children forced to work?
Answer:
Some children are forced to work because of economic conditions.

Question 34.
Why does the population size change?
Answer:
The population is dynamic. The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are always changing. This is because of the interaction of the three processes:

1. births,
2. deaths and
3. migrations.

Question 35.
What is the change in population size? How it can be expressed?
Answer:
The change in the size of a population is the difference in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in two ways, (1) as absolute numbers, or (2) as a percentage change.

Question 36.
Write some reasons for population growth in India.
Answer:

1. High birth rate
2. Low death rate
3. Improvement in medical facilities.
4. High fertility rate in young couples.
5. A decline in fancies
6. Illiteracy.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence population densities in states like Assam?
Answer:
Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.

Question 38.
Why do the plains have very high density of population?
Answer:
The northern Plains and the plain in the south have, high to very high population, densities, because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph.
A distressing aspect of gender bias in India that shows little sign of going away is the preference for boys over girls. One of the worst manifestations of this pro-male bias is the relatively high mortality rates of girls compared with boys. Many families consider female children as a burden. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
“Due to the difference in sex ratio, what would be the impact on society ?” Explain.
Answer:

1. Female population will decrease.
2. In future male population may not get marriages.
3. Family system may collapse.
4. Gender bias may increase in the society.
5. The problem of criminality in our society will increase.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given question.
India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
What are the reasons for high population density in West Bengal and low population density in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. West Bengal is located in fertile deltas of River Ganga.
2. It supports agriculture and industrial development and suitable for living.
3. Arunachal Pradesh is in hilly terrain and covered by snow in vast areas.
4. So, it is not suitable for human habitation and have low density of population.

Question 3.
“Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population. In 1951 there were 946 females per 1000 males in India. In 1991 there were 929 per 1000 males and 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011 respectively.”
Draw a table based on the information given below:
Answer:

S.No.	Year	Sex ratio
1.	1951	946
2.	1991	929
3.	2001	933
4.	2011	940

Question 4.
Study the following graph and answer the given questions.
a) In which year, the highest sex-ratio was recorded?
Answer: 1951.
b) Identify the reasons for low sex-ratio in India.
Answer:

1. Gender Bias.
2. Superstitions

Question 5.
People often talk of population growth in alarmed tones. Why?
Answer:

1. It population increases, availability of infrastructural facilities will become less.
2. It may also leads to food shortage.
3. Deforestation and global natural destruction is one of the problem.
4. A huge population causes huge demands like foods, water, clothes etc. As per the population growth the trees were cut down for construction of the house and factories.
5. Due to this natural resources will be depleted.

Question 6.
Write your observations about the population growth in india, from the graph given below:
Answer:
I observed the following reasons:

1. Population census have been taken for every 10 years.
2. From the year 1921 onwards population increases very highly due to the following reasons.
   1. Improved medical facilities.
   2. Declination of the impact of famines.

The other factors which are responsible for high growth rate of population:

1. Contact with western nations, in particular Great Britain, brought with it western medicine.
2. The infant mortality rate dropped.
3. The life expectancy rose.
4. As the largest democratic nation in the world, India has been unable to force population controls.
5. High fertility rate due to early marriages.
6. Some religious superstitions, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:

1. The bar graph is about male, female sex ratio of India.
2. It gives the sex ratio in 1991, 2001 and 2011.
3. Sex ratio is increasing from 1991 to 2011.
4. The sex ratio in India is a cause of concern. Ever since independence, it has been constantly decreasing and with 940 in 2011 it is also alarming.

Question 8.
Prepare two slogans on ‘Control of popula-tion growth’.
Answer:

1. Slogan should reflect the theme of controlling population growth.
2. Slogan should be divided around two equal halves.

Examples:

1. More Population – More problems.
2. Control the Population – Enjoy nature.
3. Small family – Happy family.
4. Reduce the crowd – Have a better future.

Question 9.
Give some examples of gender discrimination.
Answer:
Women and girls in particular face unequal opportunities for education and development. In the most basic needs of nutrition, child care and health also they are discriminated against – they get less of these things than males. This can happen even within the same family. This discrimination is not always obvious. Nor is it accepted.

Question 10.
What is rate or pace of population increase?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase is important. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g.: a rate of increase of 2 per cent per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base year. This works like compound interest. This is referred to as the annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing.

Question 11.
Describe the categories of the working population.
Answer:
The Census of India, groups the working population into four categories. Cultivators are farmers, who farm or supervise the land that they own or take on rent. Agricultural labourers are those who work on another’s farm for wages in cash or kind. Workers in household industries would be those who are manufacturing or repairing some product at home such as dehusking of paddy, bidi workers, potters, weavers, repair of footwear, manufacture of toys, matches, etc. Other workers would be those who are employed in factories, trading, casual labour and all other occupations.

Question 12.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period?
Answer:
One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people.
The other reason is the number of children that couples wish to have. This in turn is related to how many children survive, what social security people have and the preference of male child in society.

Question 13.
Prepare a rough bar diagram using the following information.

Area	Haryana	Punjab	A.P	Kerala	USA
Sex Ratio	870	880	970	1040	1050

Answer:

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
The Census of India provides us with information regarding the population of our country. A’ census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. Once in ten years information is collected about all people living in India. The people who do this survey go from house to house and find out the number of people living in every house in every village,town and city. This census provides us with a lot of information such as how old people are, their occupation, houses, education, religion, etc. The Registrar General & Census Commission of India, organises the collection and recording of this information.
Answer:
A census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. It is a regularly occurring and official count of a particular population. In India this information is collected once in ten years. This census provides us a lot of information. The census is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commission of India.

Question 15.
It is noted that within India certain parts like Kerala have a positive sex ratio. How can you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Kerala have a positive sex ratio while some other states are extremely biased against women.
2. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
3. Women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
4. As Kerala worked on these front, remaining states need to follow its footsteps.

Question 16.
“Over population creates many problems” Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc., to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following of questions based on the graph given below.

1. From which year did the population increase continuously?
   Answer:
   From the year 1921 the population increased continuously.
2. What is the present population of India?
   Answer:
   The present population of India is 121 crores.
3. In which decade is the population growth less?
   Answer:
   The population growth is less in the decade 1911-21.
4. For how many years is the census being taken in India?
   Answer:
   The census is being taken in India for ten years once.

Question 2.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions that given below.

1. How many times census was taken up after independence ?
   Answer:
   7 times.
2. What do you mean by sex ratio ?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per every 1000 males in the population.
3. Give two reasons for low sex ratio.
   Answer:
   1. Traditionally our society is male-dominated. Gender discrimination is one cause.
   2. Women are getting inequal opportunities for education and development.
4. In which year the sex ratio is better ?
   Answer:
   1951

Question 3.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   It explains the Sex ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. In which year, the least sex ratio is recorded ?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio recorded in 1991.
3. How was the sex ratio calculated?
   Answer:
   The sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
4. How many times the female number is recorded more than 935?
   Answer:
   3 times.

Question 4.
Study the graph and answer the following.

1. In which year, did the population decrease?
   Answer:
   1921
2. For how many years, census have been held regularly?
   Answer:
   10 years
3. Why was the population of India increasing after independence?
   Answer:
   Improved medical facilities
   Declination of the impact of famines.
4. What problems would arise with the population explosion?
   Answer:
   1. Stress on environment.
   2. Unemployment.
   3. Scarcity of resources.
   4. Lock of food.

Question 5.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.
In India, 103 female babies are born as against 100 male babies. However, more female babies die than the male babies. The census shows that in the age group 0-5 years, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition because otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.
Answer:
More female babies are born, yet at the age of 0-5 years the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys.
The following reasons give us why the sex ratio has been declining.

1. Most of the women are illiterate, so they are unable to realise the importance of a girl child.
2. Most of the families in India are patriarchal, so men dominate the women and force them to abort against for a girl child.
3. Most of the families give importance for a boy child to increase their clan.
4. Even though they have high income, parents give less importance for girl child in all spheres.

Question 6.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. Which year has the least number of females?
   Answer:
   In the year 1991, the number of females is least.
2. What do you mean by Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   The number of females per 1000 males is called sex ratio.
3. Since 1951, what changes do you observe in Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   During 1951-1971 the sex ratio is decreasing whereas 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, the sex ratio is high.
4. What is to be done to prevent a decrease in female number?
   Answer:
   Concept of equality between male and female is to be developed by organizing campaigns.
   • The laws related to pre-natal diagnostic tests should be brought out.
   • They should be implemented in true spirit.

Question 7.
What is the influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio?
Answer:
Influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio:

1. Marriage related problems.
2. Crimes related to sexual assault increase.
3. Kanyasulkam may revive.
4. Gender discrimination reduces.
5. Mankind struggles to survive.
6. Population decreases.
7. Family relations may be affected
8. Human relations get disturbed.
9. Importance to women – increased.

Question 8.
Plot the below information on a bar-graph. Write your observation.
Table : India Population: Sex Ratio 1951 – 2011

SI. No.	Year	No. of females for 1000 males
1.	1951	946
2.	1961	941
3.	1971	930
4.	1981	934
5.	1991	929
6.	2001	933
7.	2011	943

Answer:

1. The above graph explains the Sex Ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. During 1951 -1971 the Sex Ratio is decreasing whereas in 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, but the Sex Ratio is high.
3. The least Sex Ratio recorded in 1991.
4. The female ratio is very low in India due to gender discrimination, illiteracy, lack of medical facilities, not providing nutritious food, parental attitude etc.

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because there are too many people who have to share very few resources.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, the population growth affects many ways people should aware of this and the literate people talk about the benefits share of resources is not balancing. Very few people are using more resources whereas many people are using very less resources.
Countries like USA are using more natural resources though its population is less than 5% of the world population. In India, it is less than 16% of the population of the world is using less natural resources. In India population is steadily increasing. If population increases in this way, one day India would be the first in world population. Population is not a curse to the country development, it is a boon for the development of the country. People in any country can be divided into three categories. They are skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. The Government has to utilise the services of the skilled for the nation’s development. The semi skilled should be made skilled. The unskilled should be provided with some training and so they would be doing some sort of productive work which would be strengthening Gross Domestic Product. Equal distribution of resources should be the target of the Government. The underdeveloped countries should focus on improving the qualities of work force. So population is not a problem. It’s a boon.

Question 10.
Observe the population pyramids and answer the questions.

a) What are group in India has the largest percentage of people?
b) What is the total percentage of the population in the 90 and above age group?
c) What is the total percentage of the population between 0-14 age group?
d) Based on the population pyramid given above, how do you think.the population of the India will grow? Will it grow quickly or slowly? Why?
Answer:
a) 10-14 years.
b) 0.1 % .
c) 4.7 + 4.7 + 4.9 + 4.3 + 4.3 + 4.4 = 27.3
d) Quickly. Because young pouplation currently is high in number. So for future the population of the India will grow.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
The third component of population change is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
Answer:

1. Migration is the third component of population growth.
2. Migration plays a significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
3. Migration is the movement of people from one region to another.
4. Migration is both internal and international.
5. Internal migration does not affect the size of the population but changes the composition of the population.
6. Internal migration includes movement of people from rural to urban and from urban to rural.
7. Whereas international migration changes the size of the population.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Think of various ways in which the government should have special schemes for different groups. Examples could be midday meal schemes; Anganwadi programmes, etc. Why are they necessary?
Answer:

1. The given paragraph focuses on special schemes suggestive for the sake of the poor and the needy people.
2. According to my opinion the midday meal scheme came out with the initiation of the Su¬preme Court of India.
3. Many of the poor students are not attending schools in the afternoon. Their parents may go to fields for work.
4. As the people are poor many programmes are to be taken up. In many of the schools it is not functioning well.
5. They should be provided with sufficient mechanism so as to make them lead their lives with satisfaction.
6. Whatever the programme or scheme taken up, it should be worked out in a right way with the true spirit.
7. The objective is not fulfilled in many of the schemes.
8. How many schemes are running is different from how they are running. So implementation is important.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduces child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
Answer:

1. It is very important to educate the girls. Their literacy and schooling should be increased so as to bring social change with regard to discrimination against women.
2. My comments on this paragraph are that the village people are mostly illiterates and they don’t want to send their daughters to schools and colleges for education.
3. In this decade, we observe that many of the parents in villages changed their notions and started sending them even to cities and towns and encouraging in getting higher education.
4. An educated mother can take care of both male and female child in a better way.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period? One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population, the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people. 
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the young people are more in number and in due course of time, they get married and have children.
2. This adding of population is going on over the period.
3. There are so many reasons for high birth rate in our country.
4. Early marriages also cause for population growth. The family planning programmes are not successfully implemented.
5. They understand that they may not provide sufficient food, clothes, education and health facilities to their children.
6. Awareness programmes should be initiated among the people.
7. People also should participate in the campaign. Everyone should take responsibility. Increase in population is not the problem of the nation but it affects the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   This graph is about sex ration of Indian Population during 1951-2011.
2. In which year is the least sex ratio recorded?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio is recorded in 1991.
3. How often does the Census take place?
   Answer:
   Once in ten years.
4. How many times it is recorded less than 940?
   Answer:
   It is recorded four times (1971,1981,1991,2001).
5. What do you mean by sex ratio?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per one thousand males in the total population.
6. From which year onwards is sex ratio constantly increasing?
   Answer:
   It is increasing constantly from 1991.
7. In which year the ratio is high?
   Answer:
   The ratio is high in 1951.

Question 16.
Observe the graph and describe it.
Answer:

1. The above graph depicts the fertility rate in India.
2. The fertility rate is nothing but total births per women.
3. The fertility rate in India has been decreasing.
4. That means the number of children a family wants is decreasing.
5. In 1961, the fertility rate was 5.9 that means an average women is likely to bear five to six children.
6. Now the outlook is completely changed.
7. The present fertility rate as per 2011 census is 2.7.

Question 17.
What are the steps to be taken restrict the overgrowth of population in India?
Answer:
The following are the steps to be taken to restrict the over growth of population in India :

1. Family planning measures should be implemented by the government.
2. Child marriages must be stopped.
3. Education should be provided to all women in the country.
4. Family planning counselling centres must be maintained.
5. Newly married couples should wait at least three years to get children.
6. They should maintain 3 years gap between two children.

Question 18.
“Over population creates many problems”. Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc. to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of the occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Aila super cyclone affected the Delta Region.
   Answer: Sunderban
2. Capital of Lakshadweep Islands.
   Answer: Kavaratti
3. The density of population is very high in this state.
   Answer: Bihar
4. The density of population is very low in this state.
   Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
5. The highest populous state.
   Answer: Uttar Pradesh
6. The lowest populous state.
   Answer: Sikkim
7. Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on.
   Answer: Narmada River
8. The capital of Tamilnadu.
   Answer: Chennai
9. Cardamom hills.
10. The capital of West Bengal.
    Answer: Kolkata