Category: Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by “Pan Africanism”?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 2.
Write down the ill effects of reckless oil extraction in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Environment got polluted.
2. The Mangrove forests have been destroyed.
3. Crops have been destroyed through contamination of ground water and soils.
4. Local fish production was declined.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for not establishing sustainable Democracy in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Civil War
2. Military Rule
3. Support of Multi-National Oil Corporations

Question 4.
Why was the Civil war started in Nigeria?
Answer:
The Civil war was started in Nigeria because a just and democratic balance could not happen. Soon Civil war started in Nigeria. The corruption of rulers and Multi-National Oil Corporations suppressed human rights in Nigeria.

Question 5.
Why did America interfere into the Vietnam war?
Answer:
America interfered into Vietnam war because it was worried that communists would become powerful in Vietnam.

Question 6.
What were the twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists?
Answer:
The twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists were:

1. Fighting the British
2. Unifying the diverse and conflicting ethnic group of Nigeria.

Question 7.
Why did US intervene in the Vietnam War?
Answer:
With the help of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF fought for the unification
of the country. The US watched this alliance with fear. Worried about communists gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively, sending in troops and arms.
(OR)
To arrest the spread of Communism from Vietnam, US intervene in the Vietnam war.

Question 8.
How did the oil extraction affect agriculture in Nigeria?
Answer:
Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the ground water and soils.

Question 9.
Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.
Answer:

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. (any two)

Question 10.
Who was Ken Saro Wiwa?
Answer:
Ken Saro Wiwa was an eminent human rights activist and environmentalist and was executed by the military government despite international protests.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern China?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 12.
When was a republic established in China?
Answer:
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic was established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen who is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 13.
Who ruled China at the turn of the 20th century?
Answer:
The emperors of the Manchu dynasty ruled China at the turn of the 20th century.

Question 14.
What was the programme of Sun-Yat-sen?
Answer:
The programme of Sun Yat-sen was called the three principles – (San min chui)
San means – nationalism
Min means – democracy
Chui means – socialism

Question 15.
Who were called warlords?
Answer:
Regional military powers of China were called warlords. China came to be controlled by them.

Question 16.
What happened on 4th May 1919 in China?
Answer:
On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.

Question 17.
What was called the May Fourth Movement?
Answer:
Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan. The pro-test became a movement, called the “May- Fourth Movement”.

Question 18.
What emerged as major forces striving to unite China and bring stability?
Answer:
The Guomindang and the Chinese Commu¬nist Party emerged as major forces striving to unite the country and bring stability.

Question 19.
Where was the social base of Guomindang?
Answer:
The Guomindang’s social base was in urban areas.

Question 20.
When was Peking University established?
Answer:
Peking University was established in 1902.

Question 21.
What were the four virtues that the women had to cultivate?
Answer:
Chastity, appearance, speech, and work.

Question 22.
What was the practice of foot-binding?
Answer:
Foot-binding was a cruel practice of not allowing women to have fully grown feet.

Question 23.
Who invaded China in 1937?
Answer:
Japan invaded China in 1937.

Question 24.
When had the CCP (Chinese Communist Party) been founded?
Answer:
The CCP had been founded in 1921, soon after the Russian Revolution.

Question 25.
Why did Lenin go on to establish the Comintern?
Answer:
Lenin went on to establish the Comintern in March 1918 to help bring about a world government that would end exploitation.

Question 26.
Who emerged as a major CCP leader?
Answer:
Mao Zedong.

Question 27.
Where can Mao Zedong’s radical approach be seen?
Answer:
Mao Zedong’s radical approach can be seen in Jiangxi, in the mountains, where they camped from 1928 to 1934, secure from Guomindang attacks.

Question 28.
What was the three-fold strategy of the French?
Answer:

1. Improving irrigation network.
2. Encouraging landlords and
3. Facilitating the marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 29.
Who was called ‘colons’?
Answer:
The French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 30.
Who established Vietnam Cong San Dang (the Vietnamese Communist Party)?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh established Vietnam Cong San Dang.

Question 31.
Who took power in North and South Vietnam?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in the north.
An old emperor took power in the south who was soon ousted by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 32.
How was the new era of land reforms after 1954 in North Vietnam?
Answer:

1. After 1954 a new era of land reforms was started in North Vietnam.
2. The land of the landlords was confiscated and distributed among the land-hungry landless peasants and poor peasants.

Question 33.
What is Agent Orange and why is it so-called?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant plant killer, so-called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band.

Question 34.
Name some chemical weapons used by the US.
Answer:

1. Napalm
2. Agent Orange and
3. Phosphorous Bombs

Question 35.
Explain the formation of Nigeria.
Answer:
The country we know as Nigeria today was actually created by the British by bringing together distinct regions inhabited by different tribal groups around the Niger river system.

Question 36.
How is the region of river Niger?
Answer:
The region of river Niger is one of the most populous countries of Africa, which has been suffering from different kinds of colonial rule.

Question 37.
Expand NNDP.
Answer:
The Nigerian National Democratic Party.

Question 38.
Expand A.G.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 39.
When did Nigeria become independent?
Answer:
Nigeria became independent on 1st October, 1963.

Question 40.
When did Nigerians elect a democratic government?
Answer:
Nigerians elected a democratic government in 1999.

Question 41.
When was oil discovered in the Niger Delta?
Answer:
Oil was discovered in 1950s in the Niger Delta.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the May Fourth movement in China.
Answer:

1. On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.
2. Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan.
3. The protest became a movement, called the “May Fourth Movement”.
4. The revolutionaries called for driving out of foreigners, who were controlling the country’s resources, to remove inequalities and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Study the map given below and answer the question that follows.
How were the British able to implement their ‘divide and rule’ policy in Nigeria?
Answer:

1. There are three major tribal groups in Nigeria.
   1. Hausa-Fulani,
   2. Yoruba,
   3. Igbo.
2. The British were able to implement the divide and rule policy in Nigeria by encouraging competition and conflict among these three groups.

Question 3.
How did the education system in Vietnam contribute to the emergence of nationalist ideas?
Answer:

1. In Vietnam, teachers and students did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.
3. The students were inspired by patriotic feelings.
4. The primary objective of the students who went to Japan for modern education was to drive out the French from Vietnam.

Question 4.
Why does the oil spillage from oil wells have a major impact on the ecosystem?
(OR)
What are the environmental problems faced by independent Nigeria?
Answer:

1. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
2. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
3. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
4. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water.
5. Offshore spills, which are usually much greater in scale, contaminate coastal environments and cause a decline in local fish production.

Question 5.
What is the impact of over-extraction of oil in Nigeria?
Answer:
Destruction of mangrove forests destroyal of :

1. Ecosystem
2. Crops
3. Agriculture
4. Soil
5. Water contamination
6. The decline in fish production
7. Cause for cancer

Question 6.
Explain the ‘Pan Africanism’.
(OR)
What do you know about Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 7.
Observe the below map and answer the following questions.

1. Which country colonized Nigeria?
Answer:
The country of Nigeria was colonized by the British.

2. South-eastern Nigeria was dominated by which tribe?
Answer:
The South-Eastern part of Nigeria is dominated by Igbo tribes.

Question 8.
How can you appreciate the role of teachers in the Emergence of Vietnamese Nationalism?
Answer:
I appreciate the teachers by the following reasons.

1. Blindly they did not follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. Teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.

Question 9.
Based on the chart given below answer the question.
Which aspect of the Communist approach do you think led to Mao’s victory? Explain.
Answer:
Strong due to promised land reform for peasants.
The above aspect introduces equality among all and distributes the lands to landless poor confiscated from rich landlords.
With this programme majority of people enjoy their own lands and lived happily without pressure.

Question 10.
What do you know about Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:
After the death of Sun, Chiang Kai-shek emerged as the leader of the Guomindang as he launched a military campaign to control the ‘warlords’, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. He sought to militarise the nation. The people, he said, must develop a ‘habit and instinct for unified behavior’.

Question 11.
What were the evil practices against women in China?
Answer:

1. Practice of foot-binding.
2. The subordination of women and
3. Equality in marriage
4. Four virtues:
   1. Chastity,
   2. Appearance,
   3. Speech and
   4. Work and
   5. Length of hemlines were also prescribed

Question 12.
What were the two crises faced by rural China?
Answer:
Rural China faced two crises:

1. Ecological, with soil exhaustion deforestation and floods and
2. A socio-economic one caused by exploitative land-tenure systems, indebtedness, primitive technology and poor communications.

Question 13.
What was the massive effort to spread literacy?
Answer:
A massive effort for setting up adult peasant schools to spread literacy and political education was undertaken along with the land reforms. This was also accompanied by the setting up of primary schools for both young children and adults in all the villages.

Question 14.
Why did the standard of living for the peasant’s decline in Vietnam?
Answer:
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and few Vietnamese elites. Bonded labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. The French did little to industrialize the economy. In the rural areas landlordism, spread and large landlords took over the lands of small peasants and made them work as tenant farmers. As a result, the standard of living for the peasants declined.

Question 15.
What were the conditions of the peasants in Vietnam who rented the land of landlords?
Answer:
The peasants who rented the land of landlords had to pay rent in both share of produce and also by working on the fields and homes of the landlords and also pay different kinds of taxes imposed at will by the landlords. This forced them to borrow rice and money from the landlords and push them further into debt bondage.

Question 16.
Why did the Vietnamese students go to Japan in early 20th century?
Answer:
In early 20th century, Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modern education. For many of them, the primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.

Question 17.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s?
Answer:
The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment, and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Question 18.
What were the challenges faced by the New Republic of Vietnam?
Answer:
The new republic faced a number of challenges. The French tried to regain control by using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. Faced with the French offensive, the Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu and over 16000 French soldiers and officers were taken, prisoners.

Question 19.
Write about China at the turn of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the turn of the 20th century, China was ruled by emperors of the Manchu dynasty, which had become powerless to defend the interests of China vis a vis the western colonial powers. These powers had carved out their ‘spheres of influence’ in different parts of China and had forced the emperors to give them economic and political concessions like low import taxes, immunity from Chinese laws, maintaining armed forces, etc. Both the common people and administrators of the empire were unhappy with this state of affairs. There were several revolts by the people and attempts at reform by the administrators.

Question 20.
Why did the Guomindang fail?
Answer:

1. The Guomindang, despite its attempts to unite the country, failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
2. A major plank in Sun Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalizing land was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
3. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 21.
‘Mao was unlike other leaders’ – Why?
Answer:

1. Mao stressed the need for an independent government and army.
2. He had become aware of women’s problems and supported the emergence of rural women’s associations.
3. He promulgated a new marriage law that forbade arranged marriages, stopped purchase or sale of marriage contracts and simplified divorce. So Mao was unlike other leaders.

Question 22.
Write about the Peoples Republic of China government.
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China government was established in 1949.
2. It was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
3. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
4. Once in power the CCP carried out large-scale land reform measures which meant taking away the land of landlords and distributing them among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and the abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various
   fields.

Question 23.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Why did the fall in price of rice lead to the rise of rural indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Two-thirds of the rice production in Vietnam is exported.
2. By that time it was the third-largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Great depression of 1929-30 has a great negative impact on Vietnam.
4. The prices of Rice and Rubber has fallen drastically and there is rise in rural indebtedness.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the reforms implemented after the formation of democracy in China?
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
2. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
3. They carried out large scale and reform measures.
4. They took away the land of landlords and distributed among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various fields.

Question 2.
Explain the role of schooling played in Vietnam national movements.
(OR)
Explain the role of education in the national movement by taking Vietnam as an example.
Answer:

1. The teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticised what was stated.
3. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs.
4. They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.

Question 3.
Explain the policies followed by the French in Vietnam.
Answer:

1. French colonial rule influenced all aspects of Vietnamese life.
2. The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice.
3. They improved irrigation net work by building canals.
4. They encouraged landlords and facilitated marketing of agricultural produce.
5. The French did little to industrialise the economy.
6. Vietnamese peasants became entrenched in a cycle of debt.
7. There was no access for all to get good education.
8. All the higher education was in French only.

Question 4.
How were the Land reforms implemented in China?
Answer:
Land reforms of China.

1. Land reforms were launched in 1950-51.
2. The major steps involved were,
   1. Identification of all village inhabitants.
   2. Confiscation of all village lands and redistribution of land lord’s land and other productive property.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

Racism became common in the British colonial empire in late 19th and early 20th centuries. Educated Africans were excluded from the civil service, and there was discrimination against African entrepreneurs. At the same time, the authorities from ruling country gave control to the tribal chiefs and elite and promoted them.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about Racial Discrimination between the Black and the White people. It is related to Africa. One more point is that tribal chiefs were given control and the government promoted them.

Nigeria is an African country. It was a colony of the British. The British created Nigeria by bringing together different regions around the Niger river system where people of different tribes lived.

Before bringing all together, they faced many problems. Hausa-Fulani, Igbo and Yoruba tribes were there. Due to long years of missionary activity, many people still practice tribal religious beliefs.

The British implemented their divide and rule policy. A section of the people were educated and developed. If all the people were united in Nigeria, then the British would face the problem. The British always wanted to divide the Vietnamese based on colour or religious practices. That Was what the Britishers followed in India to divide Indians. All the Indians came together and fought against the British. Then the Britishers encouraged the Muslims to form a separate party for Muslims. They emphasised that Indian National Congress was the party of Brahmins and of upper caste. Gradually Hindus and Muslims were separated and so the national movement was weakened.

Now all the Independent countries should give equal opportunities to all and equality is to be maintained. There will be no racial discrimination at any level.

Question 6.
“America was very cruel in the Vietnam war” – Comment.
Answer:

1. America behaves very wild manner on Vietnam.
2. America with the fear of Communism to stop the spread of Communism in Vietnam, it declared war on Vietnam.
3. It uses chemical bombs and weapons like Agent Orange – B 52s. and Napalm.
4. Agent Orange destroyed plants & trees and made the land barren for a long time.
5. Phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles.
6. Civilians died in large numbers.
7. Thousands of troops were used by America.
8. Due to cruelty of America, America got agitation from world wide and from their mother land also.
9. Finally, America made a peace settlement and withdrawn from the war.

Question 7.
Answer the questions with the help of the given information.
a) Which nation was ruled by the Manchu Dynasty?
Answer:
China was ruled by the Manchu dynasty.

b) Who is considered as the ‘founder of modern China’?
Answer:
Sun-Yat-Sen was regarded as the founder of modern China.

c) Who was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria?
Answer:
Ken – Saro- Wiwa was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria.

d) What is meant by the Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 8.
Read the given paragraph and write your Opinion.

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.

Answer:
The given paragraph emphasises that the coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because the oil companies extracted more than their share. It is talking about the consequences of over spillage of oil.

Over spillage of oil has various negative consequences:
Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem. Large areas of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil, have been destroyed. This is mainly because oil is stored in the soil and re-released annually. Around 5-10% of Nigerian mangrove ecosystems have been destroyed either by clearing or oil. Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the groundwater and soil. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. Even if there is no immediate health effect of this water contamination, it can cause cancer in the long term. Offshore spills, which are usually much bigger in scale, contaminate the coastal environments and cause a decline in the local fish production.

If the same is continued the whole world be affected. Oil is a natural resource. So natural resources are to be saved.

Question 9.
“The United States approach in Vietnamese’s struggle was brutal.” Do you agree with this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:
“Yes, I agree with this statement. Because:

1. Until 1950’s Vietnamese were under the control of French.
2. And in some years it was under control of Japan.
3. People were suffered with high rents and taxes.
4. They did not get proper food also.
5. Ho-Chi-Minh’s idea land distribution in North Vietnam provide something to them and they lived happily.
6. So the North Vietnam peasants fulfilled their long cherished dream.
7. At the same manner South Vietnam people also wished that reforms introduced in that area and established Communism and get happy life.

Conclusion: But America brutally declare war on them to fulfill its desire.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph given below and answer the questions.

Agent Orange: The Deadly Poison

Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer, so called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band. Between 1961 and 1971, some 11 million gallons of this chemical was sprayed from cargo planes by US forces. Their plan was to destroy forests and fields, so that it would be easier to kill if there was no jungle cover for people to hide in. Over 14 percent of the country’s farmland was affected by this poison. Its effect has been staggering, continuing to affect people till today. Dioxin, an element of Agent Orange, is known to cause cancer and brain damage in children and according to a study, is also the cause of the high incidence of deformities found in the sprayed areas.
The tonnage of bombs, including chemical arms, used during US intervention (mostly against civilian targets) in Vietnam exceeds that used throughout the Second World War.

a) What is Agent Orange ?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer.

b) How does Agent Orange affect the children?
Answer:
Agent Orange causes cancer, brain damage and deformities in children.

c) Why did they destroy forests and fields?
Answer:
That it would be easier to kill if there were no forests and fields cover for people to hide in.

d) Do you think America was justified in using chemical weapons and civilian population and forests?
Answer:
No, it was not justified.

Question 11.
What do you know about the administration of Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:

1. Chiang was a conservative and he encouraged women to cultivate the four virtues of ‘chastity,
   appearance, speech and work’ and recognize their role as confined to the household.
2. He also tried to suppress the trade union movement to encourage factory owners.
3. The Guomindang was failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
4. A major plank in Sun-Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalising land – was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
5. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 12.
How was the French education system in Vietnam?
Answer:

1. The French colonisers like the British were convinced that the people of the colony were uncivilised and the objective of their rule was to bring the benefits of modern civilisation. Education was seen as one way to civilize the ‘natives’.
2. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.
3. Once educated, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
4. Even though Vietnamese language was taught in the primary level, all higher education was in French.
5. Only the Vietnamese elite -comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school-leaving examination.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925) who is regarded as the founder of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. He studied the problems of China and worked out a programme of action. His programme was called the Three Principles (San min chui). These were: “nationalism”- this meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well as other foreign imperialists; “democracy” or establishing democratic government; and “socialism” regulating industries and land reforms to distribute land to the landless peasants. Even though the Manchu dynasty was overthrown and a republic was declared, the republican government led by Sun-Yat-sen could not consolidate itself. The country came to be controlled by regional military powers called “warlords”.

a) Why was Sun Yat-sen regarded as the founder of modern China?
Answer:
Because he established a republic in China by overthrowing the Manchu empire.

b) What were the Three Principles?
Answer:
San min chui (Nationalism, Democracy, Socialism)

c) What is meant by Nationalism here?
Answer:
Nationalism meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as foreign dynasty as well as other foreign imperialists.

d) What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Regulating industries and land reforms.

e) Who were war lords?
Answer:
The regional military powers were called warlords.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Japan attacked and occupied much of China between 1937 and 1945. They tried to impose a barbaric colonial militaristic rule over China which had a disastrous impact on the Chinese society and economy. Both Guomindang and CCP now tried to join forces to fight Japanese occupation. After the surrender of Japan to the US in August 1945, Guomindang and CCP engaged with each other in an all out warfare for control over China. Eventually CCP was successful in establishing its rule over mainland China while Guomindang was forced to set up its government on the island of Taiwan.

a) How was the Japanese rule over China?
Answer:
It was a barbaric colonial militaristic rule.

b) Name the two political parties.
Answer:
Guomingdang and CCP.

c) To whom did Japan surrender?
Answer:
Japan surrendered to the US.

d) Which party was successful?
Answer:
The CCP was successful.

e) Which party established rule in Taiwan?
Answer:
The Guomindang.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice and for this purpose they adopted a threefold strategy – improving irrigation network, encouraging landlords and facilitating marketing of agricultural produce like rice and rubber. The French began by building canals and draining lands fa the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world. This was followed by infrastructure projects (roads and railways) to help transport goods for trade, move military garrisons and control the entire region. Construction of a trans- Indo-China rail network that would link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China was begun.

a) Why were the French keen to develop Vietnam?
Answer:
Because it was an exporter of rice.

b) What was the other crop?
Answer:
Rubber plantations.

c) Which Delta was developed?
Answer:
The Mekong Delta was developed.

d) exported two-thirds of its rice production.
Answer:
Vietnam.

e) Who developed Vietnam?
Answer:
The French developed Vietnam.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

This phase of struggle with the US was brutal. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks and backed by the most powerful bombers of the time – B52s. The wide spread attacks and use of chemical weapons – Napalm (a deadly bomb which caused intense damage to humans), Agent Orange (which destroyed plants and trees and made the land barren for a long time), and phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

a) Which struggle was brutal?
Answer:
The struggle with the US was brutal.

b) What were B52s?
Answer:
B52s were powerful bombers.

c) What was “Napalm’?
Answer:
It was a chemical weapon.

d) Which was used on forest areas?
Answer:
Agent Orange was used on forest areas.

e) How were phosphorous bombs?
Answer:
They destroyed many villages and decimated jungles, civilians died in large numbers.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Nigerian nationalism had the twin task of fighting the British and also welding the. very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups. The national movement was stronger in the more developed south rather than in the north and this created a north-south divide. Even in the south, nationalism was plagued by ethnic conflict between the Yoruba and the Igbos. By the 1950s these three regions also had their own anti-colonial movements led by regional parties: the conservative Northern People’s Congress (NPC) in the north; the National Council for Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) in the east, and the Action Group (AG) in the west.

a) What were the two tasks?
Answer:

1. Fighting the British
2. Welding the very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups.

b) In which region was the national movement stronger?
Answer:
It was strong in south.

c) What were the two tribes?
Answer:
Yoruba and Igbos.

4) Expand NPC.
Answer:
Northern People’s Congress.

e) Expand AG.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 18.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
The effect of the war was felt within the US as well. Many were critical of the government for getting involved in a war that they saw as indefensible.
How do you appreciate the role of the people of the USA in ending the war?
Answer:

1. Vietnam was a small country.
2. The USA was very brutal in the war.
3. It used even chemical weapons.
4. The effects of the war was felt within the US as well.
5. When youth were drafted for the war, the anger spread.
6. People opposed the war.
7. They questioned the government’s policy.
8. Finally the people were instrumental in ending the war.
9. A peace settlement was signed in Paris in 1974.

Question 19.
Read the following text and interpret it.

Pan Africanism

Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe. This unity was to be used not only to fight colonialism and racial discrimination, but also to build unity among tribes and communities inhabiting the continent based on principles of equality, social justice and human dignity. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah, a freedom^ghter from Ghana.

Answer:

1. Africa was colonized by the European imperialistic powers and different tribes were residing in Africa.
2. The European powers plundered the resources of Africa both the mineral and agricultural resources.
3. Slave trade was also carried in this region.
4. Pan Africanism promoted the idea of the unity of all the Africans.
5. It helped them to fight against colonization and racial discrimination.
6. Pan Africanism has a higher sphere and it breaks the limits of nationalism.
7. It unites all the tribes living on the continent based on the principles of equality, social justice and human dignity.

Question 20.
Locate the following on the outline map of the world.

1. China
2. USA
3. Vietnam
4. France
5. Nigeria
6. Russia

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of world.
1) The third largest exporter of rice in the world.
Answer: Vietnam

2) These country people were called colons.
Answer: France

3) Manchu dynasty rule this country.
Answer: China

4) Yoruba people are belongs to this country.
Answer: Nigeria

5) America used agent orange on this country.
Answer: Vietnam

6) Washington

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

Question 2.
Why were usually men paid more wages than women for the same work?
Answer:

1. Because ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Women are paid less wages because of gender bias.

Question 3.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

1. In Rampur no land is left idle.
2. The non-agricultural sector also developed.
3. Due to the development of the transport sector, other sectors of the economy also developed.

Question 4.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 5.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Dairy farming
3. Brick making
4. Carpentry
5. Basket making
6. Poultry
7. Shopkeeping
8. Fishing, etc.

Question 6.
Who are called as labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force, (or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 7.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

1. Large farmers
2. Moneylenders
3. The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

Question 8.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:
Without agriculture – there is no future.
No farmer-No food.

Question 9.
Which is the main production activity in villages across India?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 10.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 11.
Who owns the majority of land in Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper-caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 12.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 13.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 14.
What is the main aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 15.
What is a marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a farmer produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called a marketable surplus.

Question 16.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 17.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 18.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

Question 19.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint in raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 20.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs. 60/- per day.

Question 21.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 22.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Another part may be utilized for lending to small farmers who require a loan.

Question 23.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:
a) Electricity helped farmers in running tubewells in the fields.
b) It is also used for carrying out various small scale business in the village.

Question 24.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:

1. Canals
2. Tubewells
3. Tanks and
4. Rains.

Question 25.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are called ‘fixed’ capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 26.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money form part of working capital. The capital which is used for production is known as working capital.

Question 27.
Classify the capital investment on various items in production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

1. Physical or fixed capital
2. Working capital

Question 28.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

1. land 2
2. labour
3. capital and
4. organisation.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

1. Some more days of work.
2. Still better wages.
3. Better education to their children in the local govt, schools.
4. No social discrimination.
5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

Question 2.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. 87% of the farmers are small farmers are holding only 48% of the cultivated land.
2. 13% are the medium and large farmers.
3. There is unequal land distribution in India.

Question 3.
Convert the information given below into a pie-chart (rough diagram). Write your observation.

Type of farmers	Percentage of cultivated area
Small farmers	48%
Medium and large farmers	52%

Answer:
Cultivated Area

Observation: While a major part of the land (52%) is under control of medium and large farmers, minor part of land (48%) is under the control of small farmers.

Question 4.
Write a letter to the Tahasildar (MRO), explaining the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Kalyandurg,
Date : xx xx xxxx.

To,
The Tahsildar,
Mandal Revenue office,
Anantapur

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine – request for write off old loans.

Respected Sir,

I am from Kalyandurg I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less in the before year. So, crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from bank.

Hence, I request you place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
x x x x x

Question 5.
Mention the factors of production.
(OR)
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working capital: The requirement of raw material and money which are used up in the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital = Tools, machine and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process.
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 6.
Today, why is there a need for expansion of non-farm activities in rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why the expansion of non – farm activities in rural areas is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land. Banks provide loans to self-employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to village goods.
Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 7.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 8.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages?
Answer:

1. At present, non-farm production activities engage less number of people in villages.
2. Many things can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages.
3. It is important to see that loan available to people, who are interested in setting up non-farm production activities, at low rate of interest.
4. It is good to have markets where these goods and services produced can be sold.
5. To connect more and more villages to towns and cities through good roads.
6. As these require little land and some capital, entrepreneurs should be encouraged.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:

1. The farmer with 1 hectare of land is considered as a small farmer.
2. He usually keeps large share of production for household needs.
3. He does not have much saving for capital.
4. When he thinks of inputs expenditure, he may borrow money from large farmer or moneylender.
5. In case of borrowing from large farmer, he not only pays high rate of interest but he is also forced to work as a labourer in the large farmer’s fields.
6. In case of borrowing from money lender, he has to pay high rates of interests.

Question 10.
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc. require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.

Question 11.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it is not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modern farming methods in those areas.

Question 12.
Give the characteristics of Rural industries.
Answer:

1. Rural industries are small scale manufacturing units.
2. They involve very simple production methods.
3. The output is very small.
4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 13.
Explain ‘Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:

1. Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.
2. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land.
3. All farmers in Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 14.
Which changes have taken place in the way of farming practised in India?
Answer:

1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
3. Use of pesticides.
4. Use of farm machinery.
5. Use of tubewells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 15.
“Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land”.
Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

1. Experience shows fertility of the land is declining due to overuse, excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
2. The situation of water is equally alarming.
3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
4. The use of natural resources also not always been judicious while increasing production.

Question 16.
“Labour in an essential item for production”. Read the statement and interpretate.
Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Question 17.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called as physical capital. Ex¬plain why.
Answer:

1. The expenditure on tools, machines and building is called physical capital.
2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
3. They help to produce goods over many years.
4. They require some repair and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 18.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
2. To conserve water schemes like a watershed, soaking pit, check dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc., should be taken up.
3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

Question 19.
Name some Dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra, etc., is used to feed the cattle.
3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 20.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman in your area.
Answer:

1. Once Mr. Venkateswara Rao organised a cloth business in my region.
2. At the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell cloths and collects money weekly.
3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.

1. Which kind of houses are more in Rampur Village?
   Answer:
   Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.
2. In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
   Answer:
   60% of Rampur village belong to the poor class.
3. State approximately, the number of middle-class people in Rampur village.
   Answer:
   25% people of Rampur belong to the middle class.
4. Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
   Answer:
   Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 2.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.

Workers	Ploughing	Sowing	Weeding	Transplanting	Harvesting	Winnowing	Threshing	Picking Cotton
Male	214	197	215	–	164	168	152	–
Female	–	152	130	143	126	124	118	136

1. What are the works done only by male workers?
   Answer:
   Ploughing.
2. What are the works done only by female workers?
   Answer:
   Transplanting, Picking cotton.
3. In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
   Answer:
   Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting, Winnowing, Threshing.
4. What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
   Answer:
   The concept existing in the society is that, the women do less work than men.

Question 3.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non – farm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agriculture purpose, motor pumpsets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
2. There are four requirements for the production of goods and services.

They are:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital – (a) Physical or fixed capital (b) Working capital
4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals.
It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.
2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to per¬form the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers).

Type of farmers	Size of plots	% of farmers	% of cultivated area
Small farmers	Less than 2 hectares	87%	48%
Medium and Large farmers	More than 2 hectares	13%	52%

Answer:

1. The given data refers to the land cultivated by farmers.
2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in India.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however^practically fixed. In Rampur, since 1921 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village Were converted to cultivable land. There is no further scope to increase agriculture production by longing new land under cultivation.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture.
2. The cultivable land is not expanding.
3. In some areas a few forest lands are cleared and the waste land is being converted to agriculture land. There is no other way of expansion of land.
4. My opinion is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct. The basic factor of production is land.
5. The population is increasing day by day.
6. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching for new ways of increasing the production of food grains.
7. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.
8. Rampur village is a model for us.
9. In conclusion I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation.
10. Due to some other reasons like power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of ground water the farmers are not able to involve in farm activities.
11. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a great distress to repay the loan.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the moneylenders.
2. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities.
3. As they are charged a high rate of interest, they are put to distress.
4. This is the real situation of small farmers.
5. I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows.
6. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop.
7. Small farmers depend on others for loans.
8. The government should concentrate on providing a loan facility to the small farmers without collateral.
9. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged.
10. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

There is often a loss inform activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in price of agricultural produce. In such situations, farm¬ers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given it is clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk.
2. In those conditions, they hardly survive.
3. Many of the farmers commit suicide because of this situation.
4. Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains.
5. They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture.
6. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes. Due to the pests, floods or drought, they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survival.
7. Many a time, they commit suicides.
8. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand.
9. They should be saved from losing their lives.
10. New schemes should be launched for the sake of farmers who lose because of these natural hazards.

Question 9.
From your field visit find out at what rate of interest do farmers borrow when they need money for inputs. Compare with interest charged by the bank.
Answer:

1. Farmers need money for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and repair of tools, etc.
2. Small farmers cannot mobilise that money.
3. They borrow from medium and large farmers or moneylenders.
4. They charge higher rate of interest, usually 36% per annum.
5. Whereas banks provide crop loan to farmers.
6. But banks charge only 8% per annum.
7. Thus there is great variation in the rate of interest.

Question 10.
Groundwater levels are deplected dangerously day by day. If this is continued, what would be the consequences?
Answer:

1. The groundwater levels are depleted dangerously day by day.
2. Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation and industrial purposes has resulted in a decrease of groundwater levels.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. We will face the problem of scarcity of water.
5. Water will not be available for domestic purposes also.
6. Hence we should not over-extract water from tube wells.
7. Water should be allowed to sink into the ground.
8. Under any cost we should conserve groundwater for future generations.

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
   Answer:
   Mumbai
2. The birth place of river Godavari.
   Answer:
   Triyambak
3. The birth place of river Krishna.
   Answer:
   Mahabaleswar
4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
   Answer:
   Odisha
5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Jammu & Kashmir
9. Assam
10. Tripura

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 14 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does the term “Great Depression” signify?
Answer:

1. There was a worldwide economic decline triggered by a decline in demand and fall in prices. It was called “Great Depression”.
2. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939.

Question 2.
Read the following map and answer the question.
Name any one country that shared land boundary with India and not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan.

Question 3.
What was your opinion on Hitler’s treatment of the Jews in Germany?
Answer:
The treatment of Hitler towards Jews is very cruel and unjust.

Question 4.
Mention the important aspects of “New Deal”.
Answer:

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Steps to ensure economic recovery.

Question 5.
Write any two consequences of economic depression.
Answer:

1. Decline in demand and fall in prices.
2. Massive unemployment.
3. Decline of real incomes of ordinary people.

Question 6.
Write any two economic reforms of Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler’s Economic Policies:

1. Hitler banned all strikes.
2. He reduced tax burden on people.
3. He established war industries.
4. He created employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Write about collective farming.
Answer:

1. In U.S.S.R all small and large farmers were forced to join collective farms.
2. These farms were united and mechanised farming was introduced and the produce was divided among the members.

Question 8.
How did Hitler get all powers to sideline Parliament?
Answer:
Hitler got all powers to sideline parliament by passing the Enabling Act.

Question 9.
What was the intention of the Communist Party of India for helping Britain during the Second World War?
Answer:
The Communist Party of India helped Britain during the Second World War as the Nazis attacked on the soviet union. Intentionally the communists helped Britain.

Question 10.
What was the ‘New Deal Policy’ of Franklin D. Roosevelt?
Answer:
Relief to the victims of depression.
Reform of financial institutions and steps to ensure Economic Recovery by undertaking large public works.

Question 11.
Who was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia?
Answer:
Lenin was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia.

Question 12.
What was the major incidence occurred in 1924 in Russia?
Answer:
Union of Soviet Socialistic Republic was established.

Question 13.
Who became the leader of Russia after Lenin in 1924?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 14.
Enlist Indians that were inspired by communism.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru.

Question 15.
Name the book written on the violation against the opposition in Russia and who wrote it.
Answer:
George Orwell wrote his famous satire “Animal farm” to highlight how the ideals of Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 16.
What were the famous “3 Rs” of New Deal Policy?
Answer:
The famous “three Rs” of New Deal are …

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Recovery of the economy.

Question 17.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Eventually, Germany was divided into

1. German Democratic Republic of Germany (GDR).
2. Federal Republic of Germany (FRG).

Question 18.
Where were the Nazi generals put to trial?
Answer:
The leaders and Nazi generals were captured and put to trial in the famous “Nuremberg trials.”

Question 19.
Name the organization formed after World War – II to establish peace.
Answer:
United Nations Organization.

Question 20.
Enlist the countries that got independence by 1950.
Answer:
India,. China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria, etc.

Question 21.
What were the super powers emerged after 1945?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 22.
What was “Socialistic camp”?
Answer:
Eastern Europe and China together came to be known as “the Socialistic camp.”

Question 23.
Why did the common people not want the war?
Answer:
Fatigued by military reserves and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the war.

Question 24.
Who led Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolsheviks.

Question 25.
Why could full peace not return to Russia after October Revolution?
Answer:
Full peace could not return to Russia, as the liberals decided to continue the war to preserve the honour of their land.

Question 26.
Expand the USSR.
Answer:
The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Question 27.
When did the Great Depression begin?
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.

Question 28.
Who was the President during the Depression?
Answer:
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.

Question 29.
What was the ‘New Deal’?
Answer:
It was a programme created by the US to help the Americans and the economy.

Question 30.
What were ‘Three Rs’?
Answer:
The Three Rs are:

1. Belief to the victims of Depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions and
3. Steps to ensure economic Recovery.

Question 31.
What else was introduced in the US?
Answer:
The Social Security system was introduced.

Question 32.
What is meant by Social Security system?
Answer:
It is a permanent system of universal retirement pensions, unemployment insurance, and welfare benefits for handicapped and needy children in families without father present.

Question 33.
Why did Germany face severe crises of the war?
Answer:
German economy faced severe crises after the war as it was saddled with the burden of paying war damages, etc.

Question 34.
Which act of the German government resulted in unheard of inflation?
Answer:
The German government began to print currency notes on a large scale and this resulted in unheard of inflation.

Question 35.
How did Hitler mobilise his supporters?
Answer:

1. Hitler mobilized his supporters on the promise of establishing the racial supremacy of Aryan Germans over the world and by targeting minority communities like Jews as the main cause of all problems.
2. He also guaranteed employment to people.

Question 36.
How did Hitler attack communism and capitalism?
Answer:
Hitler attacked communism and capitalism terming both of them as Jewish conspiracies and promised to build a strong state which would counter both.

Question 37.
How did he appeal to the middle class?
Answer:
Hitler appealed especially to the middle class which felt threatened by capitalism and the Great Depression and at the the same time was opposed to working-class movement led by the Communists and Socialists.

Question 38.
Name the security forces in Germany.
Answer:
Regular police in a green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).

Question 39.
What was Auschwitz?
Answer:
Auschwitz was a killing centre.

Question 40.
Why were Soviet forces welcomed all over Eastern Europe?
Answer:
Soviet forces were welcomed all over Eastern Europe as liberators from the hated Nazi rule and eventually captured Berlin, the capital of Germany.

Question 41.
What happened to Hitler and his close associates?
Answer:
Hitler and his close associates committed suicide to avoid being captured and tried.

Question 42.
Who sentenced the Nazis?
Answer:
The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death.

Question 43.
What were the two super powers?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 44.
What did Hitler promise?
Answer:

1. Hitler promised employment for those looking for work and a secure future for the youth.
2. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against Germany.

Question 45.
Who laid way for planned economic development in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin in 1928.

Question 46.
What were the policies of Stalin?
Answer:
Stalin followed a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

Question 47.
Name Indian Leaders who were inspired by the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by the Russian Revolution.

Question 48.
What does the book “Animal Form” mention about?
Answer:
The book highlighted, how the ideals of the Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 49.
What was the Enabling Act?
Answer:
The Act was passed in 1933. This act established a dictatorship in Germany.

Question 50.
Who was the famous economist of Hitler?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 51.
Expand GDR and FDR.
Answer:
G.D.R – German Democratic Republic.
F.D.R – Federal Republic of Germany.

Question 52.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Germany was divided into two portions.

1. The Eastern Part – GDR.
2. The Western Part – FDR.

Question 53.
Which countries came under “the socialist camp”?
Answer:
Russia along with the Eastern European countries and China came under the socialistic camp.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

“In fact, the second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of USA prospered and achieved full employment and high productivity. In Harry Truman’s words, “We have emerged from this war as the most powerful nation in the world.”

How do you think the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression? Write your comment.
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the World War-II began. There was a sudden fall in the American stock market.

This effected almost all the nations in the world. Roosevelt, the US President, announced ‘The New Deal which promised Relief to the victims of Depression. However, the real break came from the outbreak of war when state expenditure on armies and armaments suddenly increased giving a big boost to factory production and demand for farm produce. Thus the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression.

Question 2.
Observe the given timeline chart and answer the following questions.

a) How do you think the victory on Auschwitz and liberation by the Soviet Union led to an easy success for the Allied nations?
Answer:
After the liberation of Auschwitz the Allied got victory in Europe. So I can say so.

b) What were the main incidents which occurred in 1941 in world’s history?
Answer:

1. Germany invaded the USSR.
2. Mass murder of the Jews begins.
3. The United States joins the Second World War.

Question 3.
Observe the given map and answer the questions:
a) What is Dutch East India called now?
Answer:
Indonesia

b) Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan?
Answer:
Manchuria

Question 4.
Write any two effects of great depression.
Answer:

1. Increase in unemployment.
2. Fall in prices.
3. Closure of industries.
4. Decrease in the purchasing capacity of the people.

Question 5.
Read the below paragraph.

“This earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough. A vigorous nation will always find ways pf adapting its territory to its population size.”

Do you think world should belong to those who have power and strength alone – Comment.
Answer:

1. No. I don’t think like that.
2. The world belongs to all. All are equal by birth.

Question 6.
“Constitution is a living and changing document.” Would you agree with it? Justify it.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with it.
2. Our constitutional makers are aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. So they provided an opportunity to amend laws.

Question 7.
Observe the Map and answer the questions given below:

1. Name any two countries which were not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India, Nepal and Tibet.

2. Dutch East Indies was the former name of which country?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 8.
What will be the consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War?
Answer:
The consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War are

1. Huge loss of life on the earth
2. Destruction of properties
3. Increase of environmental damage
4. The existence of life becomes difficult

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by Russian revolution of 1917 in the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Soviets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War-II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Question 10
Observe the map and answer the questions.

1. Mention any two countries that were NOT under Japanese control.
Answer:
India, Tibet, Nepal, Mongolia, U.S.S.R. (any two)

2. Which part of the Ocean did Japan dominant in 1942?
Answer:
North Part of Pacific Ocean.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“With this began a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, Kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet did not have inequality or exclusion of people on basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”

Answer:

1. The Soviets under the leadership of Bolsheviks seized power from the provisional government in 1917.
2. Peace could not be established as civil war lasted from 1918-20.
3. Finally the USSR was established in 1924.
4. This was an experiment as there was no place for feudal lords, kings or capitalists.
5. The USSR tried to establish a society where there was no scope for inequality or exploitation on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.
6. Socialism was established and gave a big’ blow to the capitalistic world.

Question 12.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. Mention any two countries which are not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India and China are not under the control of Japan.

2. Mention any two places which are under f ‘ the control of Japan and lying on its western side.
Answer:
Korea and Manchuria.

Question 13.
What do you know about Tsarist Russia?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia was vast landmass spread over two continents and making it a Euro Asian Power. It had the third-largest population in the world, viz. 156 million, after China and India. It comprised of several nations like the Russia, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, .’Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkomania, etc.

Question 14.
What was the first Russian revolution of 1917?
Answer:
On March 8th 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital, St Petersburg, took out a procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’. Workers joined them in this protest. Unnerved at the protest in the capital, Tsar Nicholas II ordered the army to suppress the demon¬strators, even by firing at them. Instead, the soldiers joined the demonstrators. In just two days, the situation went so much out of hand that the Tsar abdicated and non-aristocratic Russians made a Provisional government. This was the first Russian revolution of 1917 and it was called the March Revolution.

Question 15.
“The October Revolution was not spontaneous” – Why?
Answer:
A bigger revolution was made later in October 1917 and it was not spontaneous. The liberals and aristocrats, who ruled Russia after the abdication of the Tsar, decided to continue the War to preserve the honor of the fatherland. Fatigued by military reverses and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the War. They began organizing themselves in councils which were called Soviets. Such Soviets of soldiers, industrial workers, and also people in rural areas were the expression of com-mon people’s power which was channelized by a group of Russian Communist party called Bolsheviks.

Question 16.
Why were Bolsheviks able to win the confidence of the Soviets?
Answer:
Bolsheviks were able to win the confidence of the Soviets because they took up the demand for immediate and unconditional peace, nationalization of all land and its redistribution to the peasants and control over prices and nationalization of all factories and banks.

Question 17.
What effect did the war have, on the industry of Russia?
Answer:
Russian industries were very few numbers and the country was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway, lines began to breakdown. Able-bodied men were called up to the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.

Question 18.
Discuss briefly the Five-Year Plans.
Answer:

1. A process of centralized planning was introduced by Stalin in 1928. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made five-year plans.
2. The government fixed all prices to pro-mote industrial growth during the first two plans. (1927-32, 1933 – 38)
3. Centralised planning led to economic growth.

Question 19.
Appreciate the role of Lenin in the Revolu¬tion and his economic policy.
Answer:

1. Vladimir Lenin played an important role in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. He led the revolutionaries after the fall of the war.
3. The Bolshevik party put forward clear policies to end the war.
4. He transferred land to the peasants and advance the slogan ‘All power to the Soviets’.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled them. So, Lenin’s name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.

Question 20.
Write any two conditions which led to the Russian civil war in 1918-1920.
Answer:

1. The Russian army began to break up after the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and desert.
2. Supporters of private property among ‘Whites’ took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.

Question 21.
How can you say that the experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world including India?
Answer:
The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation. A large number of them now became communists and tried for a communist revolution in their countries. Many of them like MN Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties.

Question 22.
Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Answer:

1. World War -1, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central Powers in November 1918.
2. The Peace Treaty of Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty.
3. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
4. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to 6 billion.

Question 23.
Explain the role of women in Nazi Germany.
Answer:

1. According to Hitler’s ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they bad to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

Question 24.
Explain the rallies of Nazis.
Answer:
Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilization. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instill a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Question 25.
Write about the Enabling Act.
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Question 26.
Explain the condition of the people of Germany after the famous Enabling Act passed.
Answer:
People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.
These powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities and build a state of unprecedented horror and fear.

Question 27.
What happened in the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
In the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Japan surrendered to the USA. US armies occupied Japan but keeping in the sentiments of Japanese allowed the Japanese Emperor to continue. But it built a Constitutional Monarchy like in England. Japan was to be ruled by the elected government responsible to the Parliament (DIET).

Question 28.
Name the Indian leaders inspired by the USSR Communist regime.
Answer:

1. The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation.
2. Many of them like Manavendra Nath Roy, Rabindranath Tagore, and Jawaharlal Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties, etc.

Question 29.
How was the economic revival planned after World War II?
Answer:

1. There were many economies that collapsed after World War II.
2. The USA came up with the Marshall Plan to fund the economic revival of West European countries.
3. The USSR came up with a package for the revival of East European countries.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the measures taken by the USSR under the great depression.
Answer:

1. USSR was not integrated with the international market.
2. It had a planned economy.
3. The state decided what and how much has to be produced.
4. This enabled them to maintain a balance between demand and supply.

Question 2.
A) Locate and Label any four of the permanent members of United Nations Security Council on the World map given.
Point out the following countries on the World map given.
B) 1) Portugal 2) Nigeria S) Chile 4) Japan
Answer:
Question 3.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:

1. German economy was the worst hit by the Great Depression.
2. This economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people.
3. Hitler and his Nazi party used this situation in an intelligent manner.
4. Hitler, by his words and passion, moved the people.
5. He promised them to construct a strong Germany in all aspects.
6. He devised a new style of politics and attracted people.
7. As a result of this, the Nazi Party has become the largest party by 1932.
8. By passing the Enabling Act in 1933, Hitler became the dictator of Germany. Nazi government had become most powerful.

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of Time-line chart.

1. What was the immediate cause for the Second World War?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany.

2. When did the United States enter into the World War – II?
Answer:
Dec. 8, 1941

3. The Weimar Republic belongs to which country ?
Answer:
Germany

4. Write any two important incidents occurred in 1941.
Answer:
Germany invades the USSR Mass murder of the Jews begins The United States joins Second World War

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. Which was the first country that established the socialist government in the world?
Answer:
Russia (OR) USSR.

2. Why did the Civil war occur in Russia?
Answer:
Civil war was broke out between Bolshevik group and White army for establishment of Socialism and political monarchism, ecomonic capitalism. Bolsheviks were favour to Socialism and White group was favour to Economic capitalism.

3. What were the Russian emperors called?
Answer:
Tzars.

4. Name the international organization which was formed to promote socialist ideology.
Answer:
Formation of Comintern (Third international at Moscow in 1919).

Question 6.
Russian revolution brought in many changes in their society. What were they? And what challenges did they face?
Answer:
Changes in the Russian Society:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Sovi¬ets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War – II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Challenges they faced:

1. Famines
2. Resistances
3. Low standards of living
4. The Great Depression
5. Unemployment
6. Lack of educational facilities
7. Cheap public health care, etc.

Question 7.
What were the agricultural reforms of Joseph Stalin in the USSR?
Answer:

1. After the death of Lenin in 1924 Stalin emerged as the leader of the Communist Party.
2. The USSR began a programme of planned economic development with its Five Year Plans in 1928.
3. This pursued a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.
4. The USSR under the leadership of Joseph Stalin tried to end small peasant production by forcing all small and large farmers to surrender their lands and join “Collective Farms” and share the products.
5. Farmers worked together and the produce was divided among the members of the farms.
6. After an initial period of decline, agricultural production soon rose and helped the USSR to also build its industries on an unprecedented scale.
7. All industries were owned by the state which did not allow a free-market system.
8. An extended schooling system developed, and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.

Question 8.
What are the impacts of the great economic depression in the USA?
Answer:
Impacts of the great economic depression in the USA:

1. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.
2. In this period decline in demand and fall in prices.
3. The decline in demand led to closure of factory production which in turn meant further de-cline in the purchasing power of people.
4. It initially began with a stock market collapse in the U.S.A., but before long affected almost every country.
5. As many as 25% Americans were unemployed.
6. This in turn caused a collapse of prices (up to 60%) for agricultural produce causing pauperisation of millions of farmers and stopping of cultivation.
7. It had devastating social consequences sharply increasing poverty, desolation, homelessness, etc.
8. F.D. Roosvelt who became the President of the US announced “the New Deal” policy to re-cover America from Great Depression.

Question 9.
What are the consequences of the World Wars?
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted : The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turk-ish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women : After a long struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“USSR, started a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet didn’t have inequality or exclusion of people on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that USSR has established a country with equality.
2. There are no exploiters, no dominants and no sufferers.
3. Though if followed industrialisation and modern technology and updated life, it didn’t have no inequality in any form.
4. It is the real spirit of socialism.
5. A country with equality and modern development is never expected in any country but it happened in USSR at that time.
6. In any country, we can see some sort of discrimination.
7. In some countries, discrimination is seen in the form of colour, i.e. the Blacks and the Whites.
8. In our country, some castes are treated as high castes and some other castes as low.
9. Boys are sent to higher education whereas the girls are not sent because of various reasons like safety and security.
10. Many countries have mentioned in the preamble of their constitutions that they give impor¬tance to equality and there will be no discrimination in any form.
11. In conclusion, I would say that every country should maintain equality.
12. The downtrodden should be uplifted.
13. A country with equal treatment is always an ideal one to all the nations.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“The Nazi’s police powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities, especially the Jews. They did all this to build a state of horror and fear”.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph conveys about the cruel policy of the Nazi soldiers.
2. Hitler arrested and tortured millions of German political leaders and activists, trade union leaders.
3. Minorities were also targeted.
4. This situation created a horrible state under the leadership of Hitler in Germany.
5. When Hitler won the elections of 1932 he brought the Enabling Act and many special forces like Gestapo, protection squads, security services besides different troopers.
6. These forces worked brutally and created horror and fear among the people.
7. Hitler did not allow any political party or trade union to work out.
8. He instructed all the people to follow the Nazis.
9. There was no peace.
10. He treated the Jewish people as his enemies.
11. Everyone criticized Hitler mainly because of his cruel treatment with the Jewish people.
12. The whole Germany was horrified of his activities.
13. In conclusion, I feel that Hitler’s activities are unlawful and undemocratic.
14. Nowadays all the countries are moving towards democratic governments.
15. All the countries should concentrate on literacy rate and so various programmes are to be taken up and implement strictly.
16. So that there will be no scope for such situation in any country.

Question 12.
What are the situations that led to strengthening Nazism in Germany?
Answer:
The situations that led to strengthening Nazim in Germany:

1. The burden of paying war-damages.
2. Inflation increased.
3. The economy was worst hit by depression.
4. Unemployment increased.
5. Savings of the people diminished.
6. Small businessmen were ruined.
7. Big businessmen were in a crisis.
8. Organized workers could manage to survive.
9. Peasants were affected by fall in agricultural prices.
10. Women were unable to feed their children.
11. No stable rule.

Question 13.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:
Annual National Defence Expenditure

1. The table shows that the annual defence expenditure of great countries Britain and Germany has been increasing since 1933.
2. In the year of 1939, the expenditure increases because of the armament race, protection from enemies why because already they tasted the World War -1.
3. The government of these countries also helped to them to spend more money on defence. Ag-gressive nationalism also created proud of their country and desire of superiority in the world and also responsible to more expenditure on defence.
4. Million dollars spend for defence only during the period of 1933 to 1939.
5. At present some countries also spend more money on defence because of enemies. If every country realise and maintain friendly relations with other countries, and they spend million dollars for peace and development of poor people, automatically the world peace will de¬velop and every person live with without fear of war and tension in the world.

Question 14.
Observe the following Bar-graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The given bar graph is about the Explosive Production of two developed industrialised countries of West, i.e. Britain and Germany during World War-1.
2. Both countries belonged to two enemy groups or blocks.
3. In 1914 the explosive production of Britain and Germany is 4 tonnes and 8 tonnes respectively.
4. From that year onwards the production increased on a large scale in both the countries.
5. The difference is that the explosive production is less for Britain when compared to Germany in 1914.
6. But this situation reversed in 1917. The explosive production of Britain increased by over 45 times, i.e. from 4 tonnes to 184 tonnes during the years from 1914 to 1917 whereas the production of Germany increased by approximately 18 times, i.e. from 8 tonnes to 140 tonnes for the same period.

Question 15.
Explain briefly about the consequences of the World Wars.
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted: The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations: After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women: After a Jong struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 16.
Observe the poster and answer the questions.
a) Which country issued this poster?
b) What was the purpose of this poster?
c) What does the Swastika in the poster stand for?
d) During which war was this poster was published?
Answer:
a) U.S.A issued this poster.
b) War bonds were offered by the U.S.A. Government for purchase by the public to fulfill the military operations and other expenditure in times of war.
c) The three young children, apprehensive and fearful, as they are enveloped by the large dark arm of swastika shadow.
(OR)
Simply, Germany is going to occupy the U.S.A also.
d) This war bonds poster was published during the time of second World War.

Question 17.
Describe the course of Russian Socialist Revolution.
Answer:

1. Russian socialist revolution in 1917 took place in two phases – March 1917 and November 1917.
2. 10,000 women took procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’ and supported by many later.
3. In just two days Tsar Nicolas II abdicated throne and provisional government was set up in search 1917.
4. It wished to continue the war and economic shortage was not addressed.
5. Soviets (the councils of peasants, workers and soldiers) were organised by Bolshevik leader Lenin.
6. They seized political power from provisional government.
7. They took steps to end the war and redistributed land.
8. They made control over prices and nationalized industries, banks, etc.
9. They suppressed the long-drawn civil wars.
10. By 1924, the USSR – Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was formed.

Question 18.
Give an estimate of the world at the end of first half of the 20th century.
Answer:

1. The first half of the 20th century ended with the nightmare of Hiroshima and Nagasaki and with the hopes generated by the founding of the UNO.
2. The Second World War ended with the ending of large colonial empires of Britain, France, Japan, Italy and Germany.
3. By 1950, countries like India, China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria etc. became independent.
4. Britain which was the most powerful country now became a secondary power.
5. Two new superpowers emerged on the World scene : the USSR and the USA.
6. The USSR, which bore the main burnt of Hitler’s war and faced enormous destruction, gradually rebuilt its economy.
7. Its victory however, greatly enhanced its prestige in the world and it was now joined by the entire Eastern Europe and China to form a large ‘Socialist Camp’.

Question 19.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.

1. When and how were the foundation for socialism laid?
Answer:
The foundations for socialism were laid between 1850¬1880 due to debates over socialism.

2. How many revolutions took place in Russia?
Answer:

1. Revolution of 1905 .
2. The February Revolution of 1917 and the October revolution of 1917.

3. Did the peace establish in Russia after 1917?
Answer:
No, civil war broke out between 1918-20.

4. What do you mean by collectivization?
Answer:
The land was collected and farmer worked together and shared the produce. This was collectivization.

Question 20.
Locate the following points in the world map.

1. St. Petersberg
2. Moscow
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Ukraine
5. Uzbekistan
6. Tajikistan
7. Kazakistan
8. Turkomania

Answer:

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Answer the following questions after reading the map.

1. Which neighbouring country of India was occupied by Japan?
Answer:
The neighbouring country of India that was occupied by Japan was Burma.

2. What is Dutch East India called now ?
Answer:
Dutch East India is now called ‘Indonesia’.

3. Most of the area under control of Japan is a part of which ocean?
Answer:
Most of the area under the control of Japan is a part of Pacific Ocean.

4. Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan ?
Answer:
Manchuria was the Chinese region that was under the control of Japan.

5. Was Mongolia under the control of Japan in 1942?
Answer:
No. It was not under the control of Japan in 1942.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Stalingrad

2. In 1939 Germany attacked on this country
Answer:
Poland

3. St. Petersberg

4. This country faced more destruction due to releasing atom bombs by America
Answer:
Japan

5. Capital of Poland
Answer:
Warsaw

6. Capital of Austria
Answer:
Vienna

7. Corsica Island

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

Minerals	1997-1998	2008-2009
Bauxite	6,108	15,250
Coal	2,97,000	4,93,000
Iron ore	75,723	2,25,544
Chromite	1,515	3,976

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Source function	Sink function
1. The sectors of the economy are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.	1. It is (environment) to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities.
2. The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an environment’s source function.	2. Unwanted byproducts of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Causes	%
Natural Increases	44%
Expansion of Urban Area	32%
Migration	24%

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Migration by place of birth	Census 1991 (excluding J & K in millions)	Census 2001 (including J & K in millions)	Variation (%) 1991-2001
Total population	838.5	1028.6	21.5
Total migrations	229.8	307.1	32.9
Migrants from within the districts	136.2	181.7	32.6
Migrants from other districts of state	59.1	76.8	29.5
Migrants from other states in India	27.2	42.3	54.5
Migrants from other countries	6.9	6.1	(-) 11.6

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
i) Economic liberalisation        A) restriction in foreign import tax
ii) Arbitrary dismissal               B) of state governments by central government
iii) Ethnic cleansing                  C) towards people who are different from themselves
iv) Federal principle                 D) greater autonomy for state governments
Answer:
i) A
ii) B
iii) C
iv) D

Question 2.
Identify the major changes in party system during the second phase of Independence.
Answer:

1. The second phase of Independence is from 1977 to 2000.
2. There were many major changes in party system during the second phase of independence.
3. It prevented India from sliding into a single party democracy.
4. A new system of coalition governments are introduced at the central level.
5. Coalition succumbed to fractional struggles.
6. Parties acted in a manner which weakened federal principles.
7. From a time when the term regional party was considered not a very respectable one, now they are much sought after. The state parties also entered into national politics.
8. They form common front to resist the misuse of powers of Governor and arbitrary imposition of President’s rule.
9. They also demanded greater say in national-level decision making, greater financial autonomy and low interference in state matters.

Question 3.
What are the major economic policies discussed in this (chapter) and the previous chapters of various governments at the centre and the state? How are they similar or different?
Answer:
Similarities :

1. Green Revolution was implemented with the co-operation of state governments to increase food grain production.
2. Reservations which are announced by V.P. Singh government to OBC’s are already Implemented in South Indian States.

Differences:

Central Level Economic Policies	State Level Economic Policies
Nehru’s governmnet policies:	Jyothi Basu:
1. Implementation of Five Year Plans.	1. In West Bengal Jyothi Basu government launched operation Barga.
2. Land reforms, agricultural co-operatives and localself government etc.	2. As a result of operation Barga, the landlords were largely prevented from forcibly throwing the bargadars off the land.
3. Abolition of Zamindari system, tenancy reform and land ceilings etc.	3. The Bargadar rights were made hereditary and thus perpetual.
4. Green Revolution for increasings of Food-grain production.	In Andhra Pradesh N.T.R. Governments policies
Indira Gandhi’s policies:	1. Sale of rice at Rs. 2 per kg to poor.
1. Nationalisation of Private Banks and abolishing princely pensions.	2. Liquor prohibition.
V.P. Singh’s policies: OBC reservations.	3. Mid-day meal scheme in government schools.
P.V. Narasimha Rao policies: Liberalisation of Economic policies.	4. Provide the loans to the poor farmers through the banks.

Question 4.
How did regional aspirations lead to the formation of regional parties? Compare the similarities and differences between the two different phases.
Answer:
Regional aspirations have a major role in the formation of regional parties. We can show the following reasons to prove this.
The history of so many states like Andhra Pradesh, Assom shows that the emergence of new regional parties was mainly due to regional aspirations.

Andhra Pradesh:

1. The frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central congress leadership and imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.
2. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national congress leadership.
3. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people.

Assom:

1. From the British time, Bengalis occupied the lower and middle rungs of the administration in the state.
2. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equals but as second class citizens.
3. Not only this, Bangladesh people also migrated to Assom.
4. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Punjab:

1. In Punjab the difference in language and religion of the dominant population became a point of mobilisation.
2. They also believed that the state had received an unfair bargain when it was created.
3. It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the centre.
4. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the Army.

Question 5.
In order to form governments, it becomes necessary for political parties to attract people from different sections of society. How did different political parties raise these objectives in the
second phase after Independence?
Answer:

1. At the end of emergency Indira Gandhi removed censorship on freedom of movement, campaigns and meetings.
2. Janata Party promised freedom from authoritarian rule and restoration of democracy.
3. Telugu Desam Party promised sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor, mid-day meals in government schools and liquor prohibition.
4. Assam Gana Parishad promised to remove the outsiders i.e., Bengalis and migrants from Bangladesh.

Question 6.
What were the developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity? How is the ability to accommodate different communities and regional aspirations changing?
Answer:

1. There were a few developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
2. After emergency the victorious Janata Party dismissed nine Congress governments in the states.
3. In 1980, when Congress came to power, it dismissed nine Janata governments in the states.
4. The actions of both these, weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
5. The people of many states felt alienated and wanted either greater autonomy or decision making.
6. They demanded centre’s lower interfence in state matters, stopping the misuse of the powers of governor and imposition of President Rule arbitrarily.

Question 7.
How do different types of regional aspirations draw from cultural, and economic dimensions?
Answer:

1. In combined Andhra Pradesh, N.T.Ramarao set up Telugu Desam party and stood for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
2. State could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.
3. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equal but as second class citizens.
4. The local people felt that they would loose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the outsiders.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities.
6. The major resources of state, including tea and oil were not benefitting the locals but people from Calcutta.
7. In Punjab, people asked for greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
8. They belive that the contribution of the state was ignored.
9. They laid claim to the new capital city of Chandigarh, which remained a union territory.

Question 8.
In the early half of India after independence there was importance given to planned development. In the later part emphasis was given to liberalisation. Discuss and find out how does it reflect political ideals.
Answer:

1. In the early half of India after independence Prime Minister was Nehru.
2. For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well.
3. He hoped that planning development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.
4. After that, Indira Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ and decimated the opposition.
5. She tried to achieve the goal of social and economic transformation.
6. In 1992, when P.V. Narasimha Rao formed Government faced a dearth of reserves of foreign currency due to political instability.
7. So he was forced to accept the policy of Economic liberalism.
8. It demanded cuts in subsidies, reduction in restrictions and taxes on import and this period faced still competition to India from global foreign industries.
9. Thus the above economic implications reflected the various political ideas discussed above.

Question 9.
Study newspapers and magazines to identify at least one example each of moderation in policies due to the coalition and how does different political parties in coalition emphasise their regional demands?
Answer:

1. United Progressive Alliance government, led by Congress brought Women Reservation Bill.
2. It was unable to make it pass, as it got stern opposition from partners of a coalition like Samajwadi Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal.
3. So under policy paralysis, though many times it was introduced, it had to be repeated.
4. Another such bill was Lok Pal, which was primarily aimed to bring all the rulers of state and centre to be brought under it.
5. But later due to the opposition from its coalition partners UPA let a number of dignatories outside its purview. The bill was passed.
6. It is an example of moderation in principles.

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 264

Question 1.
Write a brief summary of political events discussed about in the previous chapter on independent India.
Answer:

1. Congress party’s dominance in politics in first three general elections.
2. Planning Commission introduced five year plans to bring socio-ecohomic change in the country.
3. Land reforms, agriculture cooperatives and local self governments served the purpose.
4. First challenge was demand for reorganisation of states on the basis of language.
5. Have to face few wars with Pakistan and China.
6. Green Revolution marked substantial growth in food production.
7. There was a tendency of regional movements and regional parties.
8. This phase ended with the imposition of emergency.
9. Panchsheel Treaty was held between India and China.
10. India followed Non-alignment policy.
11. Meghalaya state was formed in 1969.
12. Indo-Pak war was held in 1971 on the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
13. In 1973 Arab-lsraeli was raised oil prices, and increased inflation in India.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 265

Question 2.
Do you think ‘single party democracy’ would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy ?
Answer:

1. I don’t think single-party democracy would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy.
2. Single Party keeps on winning takes decisions which are arbitrary and not in compliance with Constitution.
3. They may become authoritarian and overpower the democratic system, itself.
4. There was a greater threat to civil liberties and freedoms in single-party democracies.

Question 3.
In what ways does a multi-party democracy create favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change?
Answer:

1. A multi-party democracy creates favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change.
2. JP movement supported the restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule got support from Janata Party.
3. Anti-outsiders movement for change got support from Assam Gana Parishad.
4. The movement for autonomy in Punjab was supported by Shiromani Akali Dal.
5. Political viewpoints of Socialists, Hindu nationalists, Communists, as well as sectional interests like those of farmers, Dalits, backward castes, and regions among others now came to the fore ‘ and asserted their claims.
6. A number of non-political movements like environmental movements, the feminist movements, civil liberties movements, literacy movements and so on also emerged and became powerful motors of social change.
7. Protects against the constructions of dams, nuclear power projects, etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 267

Question 4.
There have been many instances in which governments at centre removed governments at the state, if they are from different political parties. Discuss how does it violate democratic principles.
Answer:

1. There have been many instances in which government at the centre removed governments at state, if they are from different political parties.
2. It completely violates the democratic principles.
3. When there is a majority government functioning in the state it is not fair to dismiss it.
4. Government at the centre misuses the powers of governors and Article 356.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 268

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of the following factors in the politics of NTR:
i. Background of being a filgi hero.
ii. Fight for self-respect of the state.
iii. Popular welfare schemes for the poor.
iv. Alliance with other regional parties.
Answer:

1. NTR was a popular film actor with nearly 300 movies to his credit.
2. He had vast following and fan base.
3. Congress leadership at the centre frequently changing Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh, people believed not getting respect.
4. He stood for the honour and self rgspect of Telugu speaking people and started Telugu Desam Party.
5. He promised mid-day meal scheme in government schools, sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
6. In his struggle against arbitrary dismissal he was supported by CPI(M), DMK, SAD and National Conference.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 270

Question 6.
In what ways do you think the Assom movement is similar or different from the movement of NTR in Andhra Pradesh ?
Answer:

1. Both the movements are of regional nature.
2. Both the movements set up political parties.
3. Both of them secured political power.
4. Movement of NTR stood for the honour and self respect of Telugu speaking people.
5. Whereas movement in Assom is against Bengalis officialdom and outsiders influx.
6. NTR promised welfare measures such as midday meal scheme in schools, sale of rice ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
7. In Assom,- the movement paved the way for many such movements and even to ethnic cleansing.

Question 7.
Organise a debate in your class on the following themes:
Only one community should live in a region and all posts and trade-business should be in the hands of the people of that specific community only. (OR) All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in places of their choice.
Answer:

1. All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in place of their choice.
2. Constitution guarantees us the above right.
3. There were nearly 6,748 castes in India.
4. Organise only one community in a region is almost impossible.
5. All posts and trade business cannot be taken up by same community.
6. India fs a country which has unity in diversity and diversity in unity.

Question 8.
Will an open policy of free movement of people cause rich and powerful outsiders to buy up all land and resources and leave the original people of a locality poor and impoverished ?
Answer:

1. Open policy of free movement may cause some rich and powerful outsiders to buy land and own resources.
2. Original people of a locality may also have some native people who are rich and powerful.
3. So it does never happen that outsiders leave original people of a locality poor and impoverished.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 272

Question 9.
What was the role of anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 in fuelling Sikh separatism and extremism?
Answer:

1. 4 thousand Sikhs were killed and state government seemed to do little to stop the violence.
2. To apprehend and punish the guilt also took many years.
3. This created anguish and anger among the Sikhs.
4. Militant Sikhs killed Longoyyal, who made agreement with centre.
5. Akal Takht made declaration of Khalistan.
6. Several groups engaged in terrorist activities for separate state.
7. This anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 fuelled Sikh separation and extremism.

Question 10.
Compare the similarities and differences between Assam and Punjab movements. What kind of challenge did they pose to our political system ?
Answer:

1. Assam movement was first anti-outsiders movement then transformed into anti-Bengali, anti¬left and anti-non-Assamese movement and even anti-India stand.
2. It did not subside, even led to ethnic cleansing.
3. Punjab movement went into the hands of militant Sikhs.
4. Anti-Sikh riots and after effected culminated the movement into extremist way.
5. These two movements needed army to restore peace.
6. Military powers were used and civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. They posed a great threat to our unity and integrity.

Question 11.
The way the government handled the two problems, did it strengthen our democratic polity or weaken it ?
Answer:

1. The way the government handled the two problems, it did not strengthen our democratic polity, it weakens it.
2. Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab.
3. There were thousands of suspected militants executed.
4. Many were disappeared in police custody.
5. In Assam also army was deployed to reduce tension and bring peace.
6. Civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. Government resorted to undemocratic methods to survive democracy.
8. It would strengthen undemocratic tendencies in the polity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 273

Question 12.
Looking back from the present, what do you think were the lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country ?
Answer:

1. There were many lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country.
2. He was instrumental in initiating peace process in Assam, Punjab and even in Sri Lanka.
3. He was the best supporter of Panchayat Raj institutions.
4. His government’s first budget moved towards more liberalised system.
5. He invited telecom revolution in India.
6. He believed poor are not successful in getting access to the fruits of development.

Question 13.
Discuss in your class why the poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them. What long-term steps should be taken to ensure that such benefits really reach the poor ?
Answer:

1. The poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.
3. They have no access to the schemes or knowledge of them.
4. There exists inbuilt corruption at higher level.
5. Participation of mass in governance is very low.
6. So Panchayat Raj Institutions were introduced.
7. Right Information Act was made available.
8. Whistle blowers were given complete protection.

Question 14.
Find out and list all the benefits students of your school are entitled to. Do they manage to get them properly? Discuss in both the class and outside the school in your homes or playground.
Answer:
Benefits of our school:

1. Free textbooks
2. Free uniform
3. Library facility
4. Play ground facility
5. Lab facilities
6. Mid-day meals.

They do manage to get them properly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 274

Question 15.
Read the following and answer the given questions.

The Prime Ministers Apology

Dr. Manmohan Singh’s statement in the Rajya Sabha
… Four thousand people were killed in this great national tragedy that took place in 1984. This should be an occasion for introspection, how working together as a united nation, we can find new pathways to ensure that such ghastly tragedies never again take place in our country. … / have no hesitation in apologising not only to the Sikh community but the whole Indian nation because what took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our Constitution. So, I am not standing on any false prestige. On behalf of our Government, on behalf of the entire people of this country, I bow my head in shame that such a thing took place. But, Sir, there are ebbs, there are tides in the affairs of nations. The past is with us. We cannot rewrite the past. But as human beings, we have the willpower and we have the ability to write better future for all of us….

a) What is the most important message in this speech?
Answer:
Prime Minister apologises for what happened to Sikhs in 1984.
b) What signals does this speech send out?
Answer:
The speech sends out the signals such tragedies could never repeat, we can make our future better by letting this behind us.
c) Why is it important that the Prime Minister made this speech?
Answer:
What took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our constitution. So it is important that Prime Minister made this speech.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 276

Question 16.
While some people feel that coalition politics has weakened the government others feel that it has prevented any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country. Discuss this with examples.
Answer:

1. It became mere impossible for any single party to win a majority of the seats to form government on its own.
2. No party could pursue its extreme agendas and tone down their approaches.
3. Early coalitions were instable.
4. Now coalitions are getting re-elected.
5. So keeping ail in the view coalitions are must.
6. They are preventing any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 277

Question 17.
Compare the land reforms in West Bengal and the land reforms in Vietnam or China. In what ways were they similar or different ?
Answer:
Land Reforms in China: The major steps in land reforms were a class identification of all village inhabitants, followed by the confiscation and redistribution of landlord land and other properties. Land Reforms in Vietnam : A reduction of 25% in land rents, the cancellation of all secondary rents and the cancellation of all areas in rent owed by tenants before August, 1945.

Land Reforms in West Bengal: Operation Barga was introduced. West Bengal Government recorded the names of the sharecroppers and secured their rights. All the legal documents were issued and distributed on the spot immediately. As a result the sharecroppers felt secured.
In all the three issues the governments created a security feeling in the winds of the tenants. They controlled the inhumane acts of the landlords.

Question 18.
Why do you think the protection of sharecroppers led to an increase in production?
Answer:
As a result of Operation Barga, the landlords were largely prevented from forcibly throwing the bargadars off the land. In fact, the bargadar rights were made hereditary and thus perpetual. Secondly, the State guaranteed that the bargadars would receive a fair share of the crop (75 per cent if the bargadar provided the non-labour inputs and 50 per cent if the landlord provides those inputs). In all, approximately half of rural households in West Bengal have received land reform benefits.
As a result of these measures, agricultural production in West Bengal had increased.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Identify statements or statements in the bracket that are relevant to statements in italics on left.
(a) Political equality can be identified with (right to get admission in any school, principle of one person one vote, right to enter any religious worship place)
Answer:
Political equality can be identified with the principle of one person one vote.

(b) Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant (allowing all people to vote for any political party, allowing all people to vote in elections, allowing all people to vote for Congress party)
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant both allowing all people to vote for any political party and allowing all people to vote in elections.

(c) Congress dominance would include (being able to attract people from various ideologies; being able to win most states assembly seats after elections; being able to use police force during election)
Answer:
Congress dominance would include being able to win most states assembly seats after elections.

(d) Emergency imposed (restrictions on people’s rights; ensured eradication of poverty; accepted by all political parties)
Answer:
Emergency imposed restrictions on people’s rights.

Question 2.
What measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence?
Answer:

1. Many measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence.
2. The Planning Commission was set up.
3. The Fifst five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
4. The components of socio-economic change were
   a) land reforms b) agriculture cooperatives c) local self-government.
5. Planners felt that it was essential to develop industries and increase employment in service sectors.
6. In Second Five Year Plan focus shifted to industries.
7. Three types of land reforms were contemplated.
   a) Abolition of Zamindari System,
   b) Tenancy reforms and land ceilings.
8. Co-operatives were to bring economies of scale and also provide valuable inputs.
9. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and Industrial sectors.

Question 3.
What do you understand about one party dominance? Would you consider it as dominance only in elections ot also in terms of ideology? Discuss with reasons.
Answer:
One party dominance means the party not only win in elections either in state or in central, but also it has in term of ideology. Due to the following reason.
Internally, the Congress party has small groups. This is the benefit to the Congress party. Because the groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. This also acts as an inbuilt corrective mechanism with in the ruling party.

Question 4.
Language became a central rallying point Hi Indian politics on many occasions, either as a unifying force or as a divisive element. Identify these instances and describe them.
Answer:
Language as a unifying force:

1. The northern states have accepted Hindi as the national language.
2. They have their own mother tongues but they have no problem jn accommodating Hindi.
3. There is a common uniformity upto some extent in the north which has been brought about , by Hindi.

Language as a divisive element:

1. The official Languages Act was passed in 1963.
2. It made Hindi as the national language.
3. The DMK party of Tamilnadu believed that it wps an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
4. Strikes, dharnas and hartals started all over the state.
5. The Congress itself was divided between the pro-Hindi and anti-Hindi camps.
6. Some felt that the unity of the country was at stake.
7. Telugu, Kannada, Marathi and Gujarathi languages speaking people started a movement for separate states on the basis of their language.

Question 5.
What were the major changes in political system after 1967 elections?
Answer:

1. There were many major changes in political system after 1967 elections.
2. Elections had become to be taken seriously arid had life of their own.
3. Democracy had taken roots in India.and country was moving towards a competitive multi¬party system.
4. There were basically a coalition of legislators against the Congress in many states.
5. Intermediate caste, who had first benefited from land reforms gained political power.
6. Many of the coalition of legislators were marked by defection and corruption.
7. This period saw a renewal of a regional sentiment in different parts of the country.
8. This was also a period of communal tension.

Question 6.
Think of other ways in which states could have been created and how would they be better than language based reorganization?
Answer:

1. In India state reorganisation was done on the basis of linguistic principle.
2. Other ways in which we could form states may be culture, ethnicity and economy.
3. But history provides proof that even nations could not survive on cultural, ethnicity and economy bases.
4. Nationalist movement leaders accepted the principle of territorial organisation of the country on a linguistic basis.
5. The diverse elements of Indian culture are chiefly represented by the languages of India.
6. So no other basis of reorganisation would not have fared better than linguistic reorganisation.

Question 7.
What measures of Indira Gandhi are called ‘left turn’? How do you think this was different from policies of previous decades? Based on your economics chapters describe how it is different from the current policies.
Answer:

1. Immediately after the victory in 1971 Bangladesh War, using Indira Gandhi’s popular slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ the Congress won with record majority in 1971 general elections.
2. In the legislative assembly elections held subsequently in 1972, Congress did well.
3. She then had control over both the party as well as the Parliament.
4. She nationalised banks, abolished princely pensions which were challenged in courts.
5. Constitution was being amended rapidly in the name of socio-economic change, feared the Supreme Court.
6. This was called ‘Left turn’.
7. In 1973, oil prices rose to an all time high, rise in prices, scarcity of food, and unemployment increased.
8. Current policies are different from them.
9. Government is encouraging private banking and non-banking finance corporations, reducing subsidies, etc.

Question 8.
In what ways was the Emergency period a set back to the Indian democracy?
Answer:
On 25th June 1975, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi imposed an Emergency in the country. Due to this Emergency –

1. General Elections were postponed.
2. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended.
3. The press was censored.
4. Most of political opponents were imprisoned.
5. Demolition of slums and forced sterilisation on the name of population control became very unpopular.
6. In the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.
7. Thus, the Emergency period was a setback to the Indian democracy.

Question 9.
What were the institutional changes that came up after the Emergency?
Answer:

1. With this emergency, democracy was put on hold.
2. Many fundamental rights were suspended.
3. There were instances of detention and torture beyond mere violation of civil liberties.
4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment brought about a series of changes
   a) Excluding the courts from election disputes,
   b) Strengthening the central government vis-a-vis the state governments.
5. Other changes were c) Protection from judiciary challenges to socio-economic legislations, d) Made judiciary subservient to Parliament.
6. These weakened the democratic fabric of this country.

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 248

Question 1.
In your opinion have we been able to achieve social equality: think of instances that you would identify as examples of social equality and inequality.
Answer:

1. We have not been able to achieve social equality.
2. Our social structure continues to deny us the principle of one man one value.
3. Caste system interrelated economic structure is never allowing us the achievement of social equality.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 249

Question 2.
How do you think illiteracy affects elections, especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting? How do you think this problem can be solved? (OR)
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy in the conduct of the first General Election in India.
Answer:

1. Illiteracy causes difficulty in elections especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting.
2. They cannot read the name in the Ballot paper, to whom he/she wishes to vote.
3. This problem was solved by the Election Commission initially by sticking the symbol outside the Ballot box separately.
4. Again it allotted symbols of daily life for every contestant for visual identification of the voter.
5. We can also print his photo against his name.

Question 3.
Could we have considered that our country was democratic if all people did not have voting rights?
Answer:

1. We could not have considered that our country was democratic if all the people did not have voting rights.
2. All eligible people shall be given franchise and elections at definite intervals are the tenets of democracy.
3. If Universal Adult Franchise was not accepted, then we cannot say ourselves as a democracy.

Question 4.
Given the literacy rate of tyomen being low, if women were not allowed to vote bow would it affect our policies?
Answer:

1. Literacy rate of women was low.
2. They were not given right to vote.
3. Then our policies will not do justice to them.
4. Their requirements and difficulties will not be known to us.
5. We cannot prepare the bills that suit their needs.

Question 5.
Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish democracy. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish Democracy.
2. I do agree with this statement.

Reasons:

1. Indian democracy rests on the idea of representation.
2. Every adult citizen of above 18 years is given the right to vote regardless of education, property
   and gender.
3. Elections are held periodically to the various representative institutions of a democratic state at three different levels (The centre, the state and the local levels) to facilitate effective functioning.
4. Any registered voter who completed 25 years can contest for elections t6 the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha.
5. Entire country or state is divided into territorial units called constituencies.
6. The work of conducting election to the Parliament and Legislature is entrusted to the Election Commission.
7. The procedure for elections is laid down in the Representation of People’s Act.
8. Elections are therefore held in a free and fair manner.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 251

Question 6.
Summarise the features that could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.
Answer:

1. In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress won, reducing other participants to almost nothing.
2. The Congress consistently won over 70% of seats by obtaining about 45% of the total votes cast.
3. The Congress formed the government in many states as well.
4. The opposition parties only posed a latent and not a real threat.
5. The above features could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 253

Question 7.
Do you think unity nf India wou|d have been better served if linguistic states were not formed?
Answer:

1. I don’t think that the unity of India would have been better without linguistic states.
2. Language unites people and it represents the diverse elements of our culture.
3. There was popular will for linguistic states.
4. Leaders of national movement also accepted linguistic states.
5. Moreover, now these states are of great help in consolidating India.

Question 8.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at this time?
Answer:

1. When linguistic states were formed dominant languages were considered.
2. Tribal languages were not considered. Tribal language have no script.
3. Because the population of these tribal language users is very less and sparsely spread.
4. Apart from this there was popular will.
5. People of dominant languages demanded seperate states.

Question 9.
Do you know how many states and union territories are there in India today?
Answer:
Today, in India there are 29 states and 7 union territories.

Question 10.
Which are the newest states of India and when were they created?
Answer:

1. The newest states of India are
   1. Chhattisgarh
   2. Jharkhand
   3. Uttarakhand
   4. Telangana.
2. Chattisgarh, the 26th state of India was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on Nov. 1, 2000.
3. Uttaranchal, the 27th state of India was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on Nov. 9,2000.
4. Later it had changed;its name to be Uttarakhand.
5. Jharkhand, the 28th state of India was carved of Bihar on November 15, 2000.
6. Telangana, the 29th state of India was formed on 2nd June, 2014.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 255

Question 11.
If you live in a rural area, find out if institutions like cooperatives were established before 1970’s and who became members in it?
Answer:

1. In rural areas there were institutions like cooperatives.
2. Important among them were Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies.
3. Farmers who are practising agriculture were joined as members in it.

Question 12.
Compare the land reforms carried out in India with that of China or Vietnam.
Answer:

1. Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner in India.
2. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. Whereas land reforms were implemented in China and Vietnam in a whole-hearted manner.
4. They were able to redistribute the land to the landless.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 256

Question 13.
How did the language policy help foster national unity and integrity?
Answer:

1. The language policy states the right of each state to have a language of its own (which could be the regional language or English).
2. Communications in states could be in regional languages with English translations.
3. English would continue to be the communication language between the centre and the states.
4. Civil Service Examinations would be conducted in English rather than in Hindi alone.
5. With these all provisions, no state has a problem with the centre, so promoted national unity and integrity.

Question 14.
Is there a need for a national language ?
Answer:
Yes, there is a need for national language to achieve national integrity.

1. We are such a vast country with many regional languages.
2. Language policy is of help in fostering national unity and integrity.

Question 15.
Should all languages in India have equal status ? Reflect.
Answer:

1. In India there are as many as 1,652 languages.
2. All languages in India don’t have equal status.
3. Indian Constitution recognises 22 languages as statutory.
4. Many languages have no script.
5. Some tribal languages were neglected. Ex : Oravan.
6. Many languages were spoken by few people.
7. Taking all things into consideration it will be difficult to accord equal status to all languages.
8. According to the Constitution, the citizens have right to protect their language and culture.
9. If they provide equal status to all languages, we should protect integrity and unity of our country.

(OR)

1. Yes, all languages should be accorded equal status.
2. No regional language should be ignored.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Ideas of Development.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State reason for protesting against the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kudankulam people have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
2. They also want their coast and country protected from the radio active peril.

Question 2.
Why did the people oppose the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power project in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
On the grounds of safety, security and livelihood, the people protested against the project.
(OR)
To protect their cost from radio active peril people opposed it.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.
Answer:

Country	H.D.I. Ranking 2012	Average Life Span in 2012	Average years of Schooling
Norway	1	81.3	12.6
America	3	78.7	13.3
Sri Lanka	92	75.1	9.3
China	101	73.7	7.5
India	136	65.8	4.4
Bangladesh	146	69.2	4.8
Pakistan	146	65.7	4.9
World Average	–	70.1	7.5

a) Which two countries have more average schooling years?
Answer:
Norway, America.

b) Which two Asian countries have better HDI rank than that of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, China.

c) Which countries are lacking behind to the average life expectancy of World?
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan.

d) What are the reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan are

1. Poverty,
2. More rural population,
3. No awareness with regard to literacy.

Question 4.
In the context of development, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. Give one example for this.
Answer:
Example – 1: To get more electricity industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people such as the tribals who are dis-placed.
Example – 2: A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. But brother may not like this.

Question 5.
What idea is the poster promoting?

Answer:
Importance of Education.

Question 6.
State any two goals of development other than income.
Answer:
Equal treatment, freedom, security and respect from others.

Question 7.
What is HDI?
Answer:
The index developed for comparing coun¬tries for measuring human development is called HDI (Human Development Index). It generally includes income, educational levels and health status of the people.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is “the total income of the country divided by its total population”.

Question 9.
Expand IMR.
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate.

Question 10.
Which organization publishes HDR?
Answer:
UNDP publishes Human Development Report.

Question 11.
What is the main criteria for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
The main criteria for comparing the development of different countries are per capita income, life expectancy, average years of schooling, expected years of schooling, etc.

Question 12.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of couple soundness – physical and mental.

Question 13.
Why do people look at a mix of goals?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 14.
Why are dams opposed?
Answer:
Dams are opposed because they will disrupt the lives of the people and submerge their own lands.

Question 15.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the homes are economically independent and self¬confident.

Question 16.
What is adult literacy rate?
Answer:
The rate of percentage of people aged 15 and above, who can understand, read and write a short and simple statement in their regional languages is known as adult literacy rate.

Question 17.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
Average income is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

Question 18.
Explain the calculation of BMI.
Answer:
BMI can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 19.
What is educational development?
Answer:
Education attained by the people of a country on an average basis is referred as educational development.

Question 20.
What isthe percentage of population living in the rural India?
Answer:
70% of the Indian population is living in rural India.

Question 21.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
The rate at which children in a country die within an age of 0-1 year is known as “Infant Mortality Rate.”

Question 22.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors of production.
Technology is also added to the factors of production.

Question 23.
How is the standard of living measured?
Answer:
Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita.

Question 24.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle.

Question 25.
What is PDS?
Answer:
PDS is a system to distribute ration to the poor at a reasonable rate through govern¬ment ration shops. PDS – Public Distribution System.

Question 26.
A girl from a rich urban family has some development goals for her. State any one such goal.
Answer:
She can get as much freedom as a boy has.

Question 27.
Write any one advantage of public facilities.
Answer:
It develops national feelings and a sense of collective responsibility. Reduces expenditure.

Question 28.
What is NAR?
Answer:
Net Attendance Rate: Out of the total num¬ber of children in age group 6-17, the per¬centage of children attending schools.

Question 29.
Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing coun¬tries?
Answer:
Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing countries.

Question 30.
Which is not a useful measure for comparison between countries?
Answer:
Total income is not such a useful measure for comparison between countries.

Question 31.
What are called developed countries?
Answer:
The rich countries, excluding countries of West Asia and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.

Question 32.
Why, in some areas, children, particularly girls are not able to achieve secondary level schooling?
Answer:
Due to social restrictions imposed on girl child i.e., gender bias.

Question 33.
Why have some states lesser Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Some states have a lesser Infant Mortality Rate because they have adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 34.
What is the major consideration of Himachali women?
Answer:
One major consideration is that many Himachali women are themselves employed outside the home and hence show lesser gender bias.

Question 35.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the home are economically independent and self-confident.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you learn from the schooling revolution in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government and the people of Himachal Pradesh were keen on education.
2. They started many schools.
3. They made sure that education was largely free.
4. They allocated a good share to education in the government budget.
5. They tried to ensure that the schools had all the facilities.
6. Most of the students enjoy their schooling experience.

Question 2.
People generally do not like to work in unorganised sector. Why?
Answer:

1. Unorganised sector is largely outside the control of the government.
2. Rules and regulations are often not followed.
3. Jobs are not regular.
4. Jobs are low paid.
5. It is difficult to avail the leaves.
6. No provision for paid leave.
7. Job is not secure.
8. Working conditions are generally poor.
9. No safety measures followed in work places.
10. Health hazards would be there.
11. No insurance
12. No welfare schemes.

Question 3.
Give examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development.
Answer:
The examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development:

1. Per capita income
2. The education levels of people and health status.
3. Standard of life of the people
4. Availability of electricity
5. Transportation
6. Sanitation facilities
7. Expected years of schooling
8. Average years of schooling, etc.
   Ex: Sri Lanka, one of our neighbours is much ahead of India in every respect.

Question 4.
What are the different indicators in which development is measured? Which one do you agree with ?
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling 4) Expected years of schooling
4. Life expectancy at birth 6) Health status
5. Employment status 8) Equal distribution
6. I agree with all the above things because those are useful for measuring the complete development.

Question 5.
Give examples for different persons can have different developmental goals.
Answer:

Category of persons	Developmental goals
Landless rural labourers:	More days of work and better wages, quality education for their children, no social discrimination.
Prosperous farmers:	Higher support prices for crops, should be able to settle their children abroad.
Farmers who depend only on rains for growing crops:	Adequate rainfall.
Urban unemployed youth:	High salaried jobs
An Adivasi from mining fields :	To protect their livelihoods.
Persons from fishing community in the coastal area.	Good weather and a good catch of fisher.

Question 6.
What do the people desire other than income?
Answer:
People desire the following other than income.

1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
4. Respect from others.

Question 7.
Prepare a pamphlet on making mahila mandals active in villages.
Answer:
Mahila Mandals are voluntary service organizations that work for the betterment of women in the villages of India. To better their life the village women should have their say in the active involvement of Mahila Mandals’ activities. Active Mahila Mandals can be found In many villages. Suggestions to make Mahila Mandals active in the villages:

• First priority should be given to girl education and to eradicate illiteracy.
• Vocational training and credit facilities to women for self-employment should be provided.
• Mahila Mandals should collectively work for the betterment of women who need nutrition, education and family welfare.
• They should help the women in immunization of children, small savings, provision of bathrooms, women crafts centres and balwadis.
• They should work towards the elimination of discrimination, inequality, intolerance, and violence-both, within and outside the home.
• They should have comparatively high involvement in social life and village politics.

The government should provide basic equipment and stationery, etc. to the Mahila Mandals. It should create awareness among women regarding the Mahila Mandals.

Women empowerment leads to a strong nation.

Copies: 2000

Surya Printers.

Question 8.
What is Development ? Why do different people have different developemntal goals? Explain with two Examples.
Answer:
Meaning of Development:

1. Growth plus change is called development. .
2. All the persons may not have the same notion of development or progress.
3. Each one of them seeks different things.
   Examples:
   i) A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
   ii) To get more electricity, industrialists, may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced as the tribals.

Question 9.
Create a few slogans on promoting girl education.
Answer:

1. Girl with education – helpful to the family.
2. Educate a girl – she educates a family.
3. Encourage girl education – save the nation.
4. An educated girl – serves the nation well.
   (Students can sit together and discuss to prepare a few slogans of their own.)

Question 10.
Observe the following table and prepare a paragraph on it.
Answer:
Progress in Himachal Pradesh
The comparison across two different years is indicative of development that has happened. Clearly, there has been greater development in schooling and spread of education in Himachal Pradesh than India as a whole. Though there is still a lot of difference in the average levels of education among boys and girls, i.e., across genders, there has been some progress towards greater equal¬ity in the recent years.

Question 11.
Why was it necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The rich children can get the education in private sector schools. But the majority of Indian chil¬dren are enrolled in the government schools. Education has also been made free for children from 6 to 14 years of age or up to VIII class under the R.T.E. Act 2009. So, it was necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 12.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. Human development focuses on the people.
2. It is concerned with the well-being of the people, their needs, choices and aspirations. All these help in building a right kind of society.
3. It is all about the enlarging or widening the choices for the people. It is the building of human capabilities, such as education, information and knowledge, to have opportunities of livelihood.
4. Human development focuses on the expansion of basic choices.

Question 13.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:

1. Even though per capita income is high in many states, education and health facilities are still lacking.
2. Money or high per capita income cannot buy a pollution-free environment or good health.
3. Money cannot buy peace and democracy.

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the following table and answer the questions that given below.
(a) What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The number of literates per every 100 persons in the population is known as literacy rate.

(b) In which state the net attendance is highest?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

(c) What could be the reason for the highest, Literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government of Himachal Pradesh and the people of the state were keen on education.
2. The government started schools and made sure that education was largely free, or costs very little for parents.
3. Further, it tried to ensure that these schools had at least the minimum facilities of teach¬ers, classrooms, toilets, drinking water, etc.

(d) In which state the IMR is least?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph :
“In many parts of the country, girls’ are still given less priority by parents compared to boys.”
Comment on the gender bias in India.
Answer:

1. Ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Female literacy rate is low.
3. Women who work outside their homes are less in number.
4. Traditionally, in our society, women have less involvement in social life.
5. Because of all these reasons, gender bias is still continuing.
6. This is a hurdle for the development of society.
7. Boys and girls should be treated equally.

Question 3.
“We should be able to integrate environmental concerns with the idea of progress”. Explain.
Answer:

1. We must show concern on environmental issues while achieving development.
2. The environmental source function will deplete while using the sources in a speedy way.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit, it will cause long-term damage to the environment.
4. The big projects may harm bio-diversity.
5. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in modern agriculture leads to a big loss to the environment.
6. The fuel used as a part of industrial development causes a lot of air pollution.
7. Ground water levels are being depleted.
8. Deforestation is being occurred.
9. The rights of low-income countries, future generations also should be viewed.

Question 4.
Plot the below information on a bar graph. Write your observation.

SI. No.	State	Literacy rate (%)
1.	Punjab	77
2.	Himachal Pradesh	84
3.	Bihar	64

Answer:
Observation:
As Himachal Pradesh has high literacy rate, it can be considered as developed state.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by the parents as compared to boys’ education. While girls may study for a few years, they may not complete their schooling.
Answer:
According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country and the second one is only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
My opinion on these two issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many places. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study in a school.
He hopes his daughter becomes a professional. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools irrespective of their income and status. It shows their interest. A little bit fear about girls is there among them because of other reasons. They are afraid of the safety of their daughters. Just like in Himachal Pradesh other states are also spending much amount on education and schooling. It is accepted that the Himachal Pradesh state has taken the step earlier. I don’t say that other states are not taking steps to improve the conditions of schools for providing good education for the girls.
It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admit in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls in schools.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per capita  Income in $	Life Expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Development Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. Which country stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI ?
   Answer:
   The country Sri Lanka stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI.
2. Mention the aspects that are considered in making Human Development Index.
   Answer:
   1. Percapita income
   2. Literacy Rate
   3. Average years of schooling
   4. Expected years of schooling
   5. Life expectancy at birth
   6. Health status, etc. are the aspects considered in making Human Development Index.
3. Name the country that has the lowest per capita income.
   Answer:
   The country Nepal has the lowest per capita income.
4. Give two suggestions for the improvement of the rank of India in HDI.
   Answer:
   1. Education should be improved and more skill development centres should be established.
   2. The poor and needy people should be provided cheap and better health facilities.

Question 7.
Observe the given table and analyse the HDI data of India and its neighbours.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2016

Country	Per capita income in $	Life expectancy at birth	Literacy rate	Human Development Index (HDI)
Sri Lanka	10,789	74.9	92.6	70
India	5,663	68.3	74.04	131
Pakistan	5,031	66.2	60.0	148
Myanmar	4,943	65.9	93.1	146
Bangladesh	3,341	71.6	61.5	140
Nepal	2,337	69.6	64.7	144

Answer:
The given table is about Human Development data of India and some of the neighbouring countries pertaining to 2016. In this table per capita income in dollars, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate are considered and HDI Ranking is given. In per capita income Sri Lanka stands high and in the same of life expectancy but in literacy Myanmar is better than Srilanka. Pakistan is very poor in literacy rate and so Bangladesh. These countries do not show interest on literacy. In over all ranking Srilanka stands well, Pakistan’s ranking is least. Countries should concentrate on what (the people need proper medication, medical facilities to the poorer people, wide availabiltiy of
104,108 services are essential in rural areas. In Telangana to some extent these services are provided. Each one teach one programme is to be maintained so that all people will be literated. Schooling should be strengthened. Per capita income should be spent on Health facilities and education. Priorities are to be set first and proper planning for its implementation is essential. So that countries can be developed.

Question 8.
Read the text and interpret it.
The ongoing protest over the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in theTirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu is one such conflict. The government of India set up the nuclear power plant in this quiet coastal town of fisher folks. The aim is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the country. The people in the region have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
Answer:

1. The Government of India is going on with the Nuclear Power Project of the Kundankulum.
2. The aim of the project is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the people.
3. The fisher folks of this area are protesting against the project on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
4. Hence the ideas on development are different for different people.
5. Development for one may not be the development for other.
6. Here the ideas on development of government is conflicting with the interests of the local people.

Question 9.
Read the following text and state your opinion on it.

Human Development Report

When we realise that even though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita Income.

Answer:

1. The income is not the correct criteria to measure the level of development.
2. Most of the time it hides disparities.
3. So we begin to think of another criterion.
4. There could be a long list of criteria.
5. We selected some such as “health and education”.
6. Health and Education indicators were used to compare Punjab and Kerala.
7. Human Development Report was published by UNDP.
8. The countries were compared on the basis of the education levels of the people, health status and per capita income.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
If you get a job in afar off place, you would try to consider many factors, apart from income.
This could be facilities for your family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, people give preference to income as well as facilities.
2. They also want to spend time with their families.
3. They need job security and freedom. It is not possible in all the cases.
4. Many workers from India are migrating even to foreign countries for getting work so as to earn something for their livelihoods.
5. Some people are working in cities like Hyderabad by keeping their families at their hometowns.
6. They are losing the opportunity of spending their time with their families. Their living conditions are also not good.
7. Many of them are leading sedentary life. In some cases pay is less but job is secure. In some other cases payment may be high but job security is not there.
8. Whatever it is, I am coming to the conclusion that there are many factors that affect livelihoods.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
When we looked at Individual aspirations and goals, we found that people not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect of others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. In mind. Similarly, when we think of a nation or a region, we may, besides average income, think of other equally important attributes.
Answer:

1. This paragraph is about the aspirations and goals of the individuals.
2. The people want their income and they want to be treated well.
3. Though the wages are well and good, they don’t want to be ill-treated.
4. Everyone in the society wants to live with dignity which our Constitution promises.
5. Many of the labourers are now looking towards prestige.
6. Some states in our country are getting more per capita income but they are lacking in providing other facilities to the people.
7. Nowadays schooling is very importing to its children.
8. For nations and states the literacy rate, net attendance rate, infant mortality rate are also considered in its development.
9. They have to provide schools, pollution-free atmosphere, unadulterated medicines, to its people for better living.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by parents compared to
boys’ education. While girls may study for a few classes, they may not complete their schooling.
A welcome trend in Himachal Pradesh is the lower gender bias. Himachali parents have ambitious educational goals for their girls, just as for their boys.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country.
2. Only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
3. My opinion on these two,issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society.
4. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many
   places.
5. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study In a school.
6. He hopes his daughter becomes a professional.
7. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools Irrespective of their income and status.
8. It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admitted in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools.
9. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls In schools.

Question 13.
Table: Read the following table and answer the following questions.
Some Comparative data of Selected States

state	IMR per 1000 (2006)	Literacy rate (%) {2011)	Net Attendance Rate (2006)
Punjab	42	77	76
Himachal Pradesh	36	84	90
Bihar	62	64	56

1.  What does the table tell us?
   Answer:
   The table tells us about some comparative data of selected states.
2. What are the three states compared here?
   Answer:
   The three states compared are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
3. What does IMR mean?
   Answer:
   IMR means Infant Mortality Rate.
4. Which state ranks best in literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks best in literacy rate with 84%.
5. What is the Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006?
   Answer:
   The Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006 is 56.
6. What is the position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate?
   Answer:
   The position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate is next to Himachal Pradesh.
7. What is literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Literacy rate is that the percentage of literate people in the 7 and above years age group.
8. Why is the number of children below the age of 6 not considered for counting of Net Atten¬dance Rate?
   Answer:
   The children below the age of 6 do not go to school.
9. Which state ranks first when we consider the above data ?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks first.
10. How do you say Bihar is an underdeveloped state ?
    Answer:
    Bihar has high infant mortality rate i.e., 62. It has less literacy rate and Net attendance rate i.e., 64 and 56 respectively. Hence we can say Bihar is a backward state.

Question 14.
Study the table given and answer the following questions.
Table: Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per Capita Income in $	Life expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Develop­ment Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about some data regarding India and its neighboring countries for 2013.
2. What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
   Answer:
   The life expectancy at birth in India is 65.8 years.
3. What components are considered in this table?
   Answer:
   The components considered in the table are per capita income, life expectancy at birth, aver¬age years of schooling, expected years of schooling and HDI.
4. Which country ranks best in HDI?
   Answer:
   Sri Lanka ranks best in HDI with 92nd rank.
5. Which country is lacking in expected years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Pakistan is lacking in expected years of schooling.
6. Per capita income is shown in some symbol. What does it mean?
   Answer:
   The symbol given means dollar.
7. Which country has the lowest average years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Nepal has the lowest average years of schooling.
8. What is the per capita income of India ?
   Answer:
   The per capita income of India is $ 3,285.
9. What is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table?
   Answer:
   65.7 years is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table.
10. What is the difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling
    for India?
    Answer:
    The difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling for India is 6.3 years.

Question 15.
By studying the given map answer the following questions.

1. Name two countries which have low income.
   Answer:
   Zimbabwe and Kenya are the two countries with low income.
2. Which two countries have very high income?
   Answer:
   USA and Canada are the two countries which have very high income.
3. Name two countries with high income.
   Answer:
   Brazil and Russia are the two countries with high income.
4. Which two countries have medium income?
   Answer:
   India and Egypt are the two countries which have medium income.

Question 16.
Prepare a pamphlet on Promoting Girl Education.
Answer:

PROMOTING GIRL EDUCATION

Girls and boys in the society are equal but many of the parents give less importance to girl education compared to boys. This treatment of girls and boys in different ways is called gender bias. Some parents feel that boy is income and girl is expenditure. After marriage also the in-law’s family of the bride normally gives very less importance to her education. This is the wrong notion that the people have. It is to be removed.
The notion is to be changed. Many women have come forward to discharge their duties in political, educational and administrative areas. They are proving that they can do everything. In education also many girls are getting good results and ranks. Their number in civil services and other competitive examinations is rapidly increasing. If a girl is educated, she can manage her family herself well.
She can educate her children.
Many women now are district collectors or police officers and administrative officers and a few banks are being run under the leadership of female authorities. Many departments are under their control. For many years it has been a custom that the women have to work at kitchen but it is disproved, if they were given choice to do something they can do it as we expected.
All the parents should send their daughters to schools to study. They should be given an opportunity to show their intellect. All the parents should understand that their notion is to be
changed and think positively about their daughters’ future.

Question 17.
Write a paragraph after reading the table.
Answer:
Comparison of two countries

Name of the country	Monthly incomes of citizens in 2014 (in Rupees)
Country A	1	II	III	IV	V	Average
	9,500	10500	9,800	10000	10200	10,000
Country B	500	500	500	500	48000	10,000

According to this table in the country ‘A’, all the five persons are earning mostly equal monthly income. In the country ‘B’ the first four persons are earning only five hundred each but the fifth person is earning forty eight thousand rupees per month. If you are the fifth one it is OK but if you are one among the first four it will be worst to live in. If we consider the average, it will be the same as ten thousand per person per month. In these two countries the country A has more equitable distribution of income.
In many countries more income is there with a few persons. Many people in the countries are poor. They don’t have minimum amount of income for their livelihoods. In the above table the average income of the two countries is the same but in B it is not equally distributed. The Gross Domestic Product is to be distributed among the people of the country that means the poor also have to get their share in the country. The gap between the poor and the rich is to be removed and so the society of equality emerged.

Question 18.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu.
   Answer:
   Kudankulam
2. Schooling Revolution took place in the state.
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh
3. Draw the Indian standard time.
   Answer:
   82 1/2° E longitude.
4. Sahyadri Range.
5. Islands in Bay of Bengal.
   Answer:
   Andoman & Nicobar
6. Locate any one of Hill station.
   Answer:
   Nainital
7. River which is flowing through a rift valley.
   Answer:
   Narmada
8. The Hill Station located near Nilgiris.
   Answer:
   Ooty
9. The largest river in South India.
   Answer:
   Godavari
10. The largest river in India.
    Answer:
    Ganga

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Here are the list of items that you can use for making a table on social movements. Draw a table based on them and find out similarities and differences amongst movements:
Main area of focus of the movement; location, main demands, modes of protest, important leaders; response from the state; possible impact on society.
Answer:

Question 2.
Kanayya, Ramya and Salma have a debate. They have different expectations. Whom would you agree with and give reasons, from the context of human rights? Ramya argues it is okay to restrict the freedom of the press, etc. but ensure people do not live in poverty. Salma argues it is food alone is not important but equally important to have freedom of press because there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country. Kanayya says, how will it make a difference if press belongs to the rich and powerful people, why would they cover things that ordinary people expect.
Answer:

1. I agree with Ramya.
2. She argues that food alone is not important but also to have freedom of press.
3. If we do not have freedom of press, there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country.
4. Now with globalization, world has become a tiny village.
5. People are coming to know and responding quickly in social media.
6. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
7. No one shall be subjected to inhuman or degrading treatment.
8. Protection of most human rights is important.

Question 3.
What are the basic features of social movements?
Answer:
The basic features of social movements :

1. They are based on values of justice, democracy and civil rights.
2. Protection of the cultural sphere.
3. The prevention of a change in societies structure and values.
4. Protection of livelihood and health.
5. Equal treatment in the society.
6. Protection from the consumption of alcohol and drugs.
7. Protection of the environment.
8. Protection of agricultural lands.

Question 4.
How is the role of the ordinary individuals described in the above case studies ?
Answer:

1. Without the participation of ordinary individuals any social movement cannot be a successful one.
2. They were the ones, who suffered and dejected.
3. They make their voices heard through their leaders.
4. They actively participate in marches, boycotts, processions planned by their leaders.
5. Nowadays they are making use of internet and social media to mobilise and fight for their cause.
6. They not only think of personal profits, hope for better future and sustainable environment.
7. They even oppose their own government and support the human rights of the sufferers.
8. Most movements involved them are peaceful in nature.

Question 5.
How are the rights of black people in the USA and Meira Paibi movements similar or different?
Answer:

1. The rights of black people in the USA are violated by law.
2. They are met with inhuman treatment.
3. They are discriminated in schools, transport facilities, job, housing and even in voting righ/s.
4. But they are given right to freedom of movement.
5. In Meira Paibi movements, the most suffered are women.
6. Their right to life, liberty and security of person are taken away by special protection law.
7. They are subjected to cruel and degrading treatment.
8. Their men and children are detained on no fair cause.
9. They are not even given the right to freedom of movement.
10. Government has yet to take a decision on Meira Paibi’s demands.

Question 6.
Democracies have been identified as most prominent political systems across the world.
Do you think it has been able to take care of all expectations of people. Based on the examples cited in these chapters, write a short note on ‘democracy and social movements’.
Answer:
Democracy and Social Movements :

1. Social movements are mostly the outcome of dissatisfactions in the society.
2. The ruling democracies are not able to fulfil the expectations of people.
3. Some section or the other in the society is suffering with denial of human rights or social justice.
4. Their ire is augmented and shapes into a movement.
5. When governments are after nuclear arms and not providing peace and security to people usually people resent it and movements come up.
6. When people are discriminated, they revolt against administration. Likewise, whenever there is lack of social justice and when there is a threat to environmental system also movements come out.

Question 7.
Discuss and find out how movements mobilise people from across the globe like in the above instance of campaign to protest in the context of Bhopal gas tragedy.
Answer:

1. Movements seek a vision that is different.
2. Movements mobilise people from across the globe to protest various issues.
3. Black Americans organised themselves against the segregation and discrimination they faced.
4. People of Russia fought for human rights there, when free multiparty elections were not allowed, Press freedom was not allowed.
5. Massive protests took place against the policies of the govemments, which are war mongering.
6. Greenpeace movement in the USA protested the conduct of nuclear tests under water in the USA.
7. Many such movements related to environment were taken up and people supported them.
8. There are various platforms for them like, Facebook, twitter, e-mails, Internet newspaper, etc.

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 299

Question 1.
Try to read the famous speech of Dr King and write an essay on the ideals he set for American society and how he planned to achieve it.
Answer:
Martin Luther king set many ideals for the American society. Some of them are,
а) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Unalienable rights of life
e) Pursuit of happiness
f) freedom
g) Democracy etc.

He plans to achieve the ideals in the following ways:

1. Negroes should not relax until their demands are met.
2. Shaking the foundations of the government with revolt until the bright day of justice emerges.
3. The struggle should be filled with dignity and discipline.
4. By avoiding physical violence.
5. Trusting some white people who sympathize with the blacks.
6. He says that with faith all will be able to work together, pray together, struggle together, to go to jail together, to stand up for freedom together, knowing that there will be freedom one day.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 300

Question 2.
Make a table and list the demands of civil rights movement and possible solutions in your opinion.
Answer:

Demands of Civil Rights movements	Possible solutions
1. Passage of Civil Rights Act	1. All forms of segregation has to be repealed.
2. Programme for generation of employment	2. Government should look for promoting industries.
3. Full and fair employment.	3. Along with whites, Black Americans are also to be considered for employment.
4. Decent Housing	4. Government shall help the Blacks with construction of houses.
5. Right to vote	5. All the adults must be given right to vote.

Question 3.
The USA claims to be a democracy, yet it kept certain groups of people segregated, till middle of last century. Discuss how the idea of democracy need to be more inclusive in our context.
Answer:

1. The USA claims to be a democracy.
2. It practised segregation, till the middle of last century.
3. Democracies cannot afford to alienate their subjects.
4. They cannot judge a person by the colour of the skin.
5. They cannot shy away the protection of equal rights to all subjects.
6. Democracy in this context needed to be more inclusive.
7. All the black people are to be treated on same footing with others.

Question 4.
Why do we hear different voices within a movement? Can you identify differences in them?
Answer:

1. People have differences of opinions, hence we hear different voices within a movement.
2. In American Civil Rights Movement two voices arose. They were –
   a) Many people agreed with Dr King that it was possible to achieve equality for all people through peaceful means.
   b) Many others like “Malcom X” thought that Blocks should fight for independence from white rule and for that they have to use all means including armed conflict.

Question 5.
Can you think of similarity or differences in the nature of political system in the USA and the USSR and how was their response to people’s rights?
Answer:

Political System in the USA	Political System in the USSR
1. Democratic Government.	1. Socialist system of Government.
2. Freedom of press / media present.	2. Freedom of press/media is not present
3. Movement of ordinary people is allowed.	3. Movement of ordinary people is not allowed.
4. No control over people activities.	4. Kept close control of people activities.
5. Segregation laws are followed.	5. No such laws in force.
6. Civil Rights Act was passed and successfully implemented.	6. Glasnost brought greater freedom for the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 301

Question 6.
“We Won’t Go”
America has a law which requires all able bodied citizens to enroll in the army for a short period. During the Vietnam War, thousands of citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam. Let us read about one such protest refusal. This is a statement that appeared in a newspaper, Harvard Crimson:

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences. We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Some thought that these people were being un-patriotic while others thought that they were justified in refusing to participate in an unjust war. Discuss the two points of view in the class and write a short note of arguments of both sides and your own viewpoint.
Answer:

1. Vietnam conflict was the outcome of the Cold War between the USA and the USSR.
2. Citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam.
3. The US war with Vietnam was inhuman, hence the majority of the people opposed it.
4. People who hate “Socialistic Society” and “Communism” supported the decision of the US to continue the war with Vietnam.
5. In my opinion, I oppose the war with Vietnam as it was against democratic principles and human rights.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 303

Question 7.
What were the different types of responses to the weaponisation?
Answer:

1. Nuclear arms race intensified after the end of Vietnam war in 1975.
2. More and more countries competed with each other to stock pile nuclear arms.
3. Arms producing companies and governments created a war panic among the people.
4. They created war like situation.
5. People believed that war mongering and arms race made the world more unsafe.
6. It also increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
7. Massive protests took place against these policies of governments.

Question 8.
If people from different countries meet each other, there would be less chances of war, than the governments alone deciding the policy with each other. Would you agree with this statement? Give reasons for the answer.,
Answer:

1. Usually countries formulate their policies.
2. People of countries meet together and avoiding war is distant from reality.
3. Most countries in the world are democracies.
4. People vest their powers through vote to their representatives who could administer them.
5. It may be looking simple but, it definitely may not be feasible.
6. So, I cannot agree with this statement.

Question 9.
Explain how environmental issues can affect people of nations who may have no role in deciding the location of nucelar plants, polluting factories, etc. How do you deal with such situation?
Answer:

1. Usually people of the nation are suffering lot, whenever there is a nuclear tragedy.
2. They really do not have any role in deciding the nuclear plant’s location or pollution factory.
3. That will be decided by their representatives and their secretaries.
4. They decide the locations taking into consideration, a lot of things like infrastructure, raw material, technology, etc.
5. To deal with these situations the governments should take all the protective measures.
6. In case of any adversity, they should respond well in time to support the people.
7. They should see that proper care is taken about the affected and fair compensations were distributed among the suffered people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 304

Question 10.
Look up the website of Greenpeace movement (http : //www.greenpeace.org/international) to find out about the issues they have been fighting for and how the methods they have used for fighting. Find out about the debates and controversies about this movement too.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 307

Question 11.
Is it impossible to build factories or mines or power plants without throwing out farmers or tribal people? What can be the alternatives? Discuss in your family and school on these issues.
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is impossible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material availability, they are to be set up like this.
3. Governments should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the farmers and tribals is also lied with the government.
5. They should plan of no damage to these sectors of people or the minimum.
6. In case of a compulsion, they must be given compensations like land, lump sums and employment.
7. More importantly, government should concentrate on viable alternatives to protect the environment also.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 308

Question 12.
What were the various strategies used by the social movement?
Answer:

1. Social Movements throughout the world used various strategies.
2. Civil Rights Movement in the USA used civil disobedience (Violating discriminatory laws peacefully) and boycott of discriminatory services (like buses which segregate whites and blacks)
3. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons.
4. Volunteers in the USA setout in a smallship “Green Peace’ in protest to underwater nuclear test of the USA.
5. People used international laws to fight against the problems that factory workers and women affected in Bhopal gas disaster.
6. Women led movements for social justice and human rights.
7. People organised movements in protest to pollution, global warming and environmental degradation.

Question 13.
How do the people in movement see the process of resettlement promises?
Answer:

1. People who stood to be displaced from the project, demanded a fair compensation not just to those who own land, but all those who lived there.
2. People realised that there was actually no adequate land available to compensate for the loss.
3. They alsobelieved that it was really not possible to rehabilitate the displaced people properly.
4. People began to realise that the problem was not compensation or rehabilitation but one of faulty notion of development.
5. A development which was based on unsustainable use of natural resources, only paved way for setting up industries and commercial farms at the cost of farming and tribal communities.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 310

Question 14.
Find out about more recent such struggles in West Bengal (Nandigram), Odisha (Niyamagiri) and Andhra Pradesh (Polavaram, Sompeta etc). Prepare a poster explaining the main features of the struggle in each of these cases.
Answer:
Nandigram (West Bengal):

1. Nandigram is a place on the bank of Haldia and quite far from Kolkata.
2. In 2007, March the state government of West Bengal sanctioned the land there to set up Special Economic Zone by Salim Group.
3. People of Nandigram resented it and led mass processions and struggle and 14 people died.

Niyamgiri (Odisha):

1. Niyamagiri hills in Odisha state are famous for their bauxite reserves. Odisha government gave permission to British mining company Vedanta to mine bauxite from there in July 2013.
2. People resented this, especially the tribals and organised many processions and later courts involved in this matter and by January 2014 the mining was disallowed.

Sompeta, Polavaram in combined (Andhra Pradesh):

1. Sompeta was a mandal in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and government at the state permitted Nagarjuna Company Limited to set up a thermal plant there in 2010.
2. People supported by many opposition party leaders protested the decision of government and for three years there were long drawn struggles.
3. Polavaram project is to be constructed on Godavari river spreading in East, West Godavari’s and Khammam. Government obtained permissions and started it in 2004.
4. It has submerging areas and affecting, zones in Chattisgarh and Odisha also. Many conflicts were there to complete it.

Question 15.
Fill in the para and line in the section below which you think is related to the violation or are in conflict with provisions of Human rights.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his [or her]rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him [or her]. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy,family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her] honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para ——– line ——–.
Articl e 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state [state here means country], Para ——– line ——–.
(2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his[or her country. Para ——– line ——–.
Answer:
Violations
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para 3 line 13.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para 3 line 6 and 7.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para 3 line 4.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her]honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para 3 line 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Seasons	Months according to the Indian calendar
Vasantha	Chaitra – Vaishaka
Grishma	Jyestha- Ashadha
Varsha	Sravana – Bhadra
Sharad	Aswayuja – Karthika
Hemantha	Margashira – Pushya
Shishira	Magha – Phalguna

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
a) Latitude		Closer to equator and has more rainfall
b) Relief	Even though place Y is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences low temperatures.

Answer:

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
1. Latitude	Higher latitudes cause temperature’s decrease. Lower latitudes cause increase in temperatures.	Closer to the equator and has more rainfall.
2. Relief	Even though place V is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences lower temperatures,	Closer to the equator does not affect much If the elevation of relief is more,

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Sector	Employment (%) 2011-12	Gross Domestic Product (%) 2011-12
Agriculture	49	16
Industry	24	26
Services	27	58

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Sectors	Employment (%)
	1972 – 73	2009 -10
Agriculture	74	53
Industrial	11	22
Service	15	25

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Year	Agriculture	Industry	Services
1972-73	74%	11%	15%
2008-09	53%	22%	25%

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Intermediate goods	Final goods
1. These goods are meant for further production.	1. These are used for final consumption.
2. These are not included in GDP.	2. These are included in GDP.

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Service Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Sector	Employment
Agriculture	53%
Industry	22%
Service	25%

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Organised Sector Center	Unorganised Sector Center
1. It has some formal processes and procedures.	1. It has small and scattered units largely outside the control of government.
2. It gives security of employment.	2. Rules and regulations are not enforced here.
3. It has fixed number of work hours, overtime will be paid by the employer.	3. Jobs here are low-paid and non-regular.
4. It provides paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, medical benefits, etc.	4. There is no provision of overtime, paid leave, holidays leave due to sickness, etc.
5. It also ensures pensions.	5. When there is less work, some people are asked to leave.
6. It has workers of government, companies and large establishment.	6. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer or changes in the market situation.

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Sectors	2012	2013	2014	2015	2016	2017
Agriculture	16.85%	17.15%	16.79%	16.17%	16.28%	15.45%
Industry	29.4%	28.4%	27.66%	27.22%	26.58%	26.16%
Services	46.3%	46.7%	47.82%	47.91%	47.88%	48.93%

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

Sector	Employment (%)		Gross Domestic Product (%)
	1972- 73	2009-10	1972-73	2009-10
Agriculture	74%	53%	43%	17%
Industry	11%	22%	22%	26%
Services	15%	25%	35%	57%

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Services Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Sl No.	Nameof the River	Origin or Birth place	Direction of Flow	Tributaries	Flow through which States

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal