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AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 10 Nutrition in Plants

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants

7th Class Science 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the process of photosynthesis carried on in plants?
Answer:

1. We know that plants take water through their roots and air though the stomata of their leaves. (There are some other parts like loose tissues and lenticels present on the bark of plant through which exchange of air takes place).
2. We also know that leaves contain the green substance, chlorophyll.
3. In the presence of sun light the process of photosynthesis takes place as follows. Green parts of plants use carbon dioxide in the presence of sunlight along with water to make glucose starch and other food materials.
   

Question 2.
What effect light has on the formation of starch in leaves? Describe an activity to find out.
Answer:

1. We need to find out if starch is present in leaves. We already know how to test for starch, but a problem arises if we try this test with leaves.
2. Leaves are green in colour. When iodine solution is put on a leaf, it should turn blue if starch is present.
3. However, the green colour of the leaf disguises the blue colour.
4. So we must first remove the green colour of the leaves if we want to test whether they contain starch.
5. The way to do this is to first put the leaves in a boiling tube and boil them in alcohol.
6. 4 to 5 leaves of a plant were plucked in the afternoon.
7. After removing their green colour in the way described above, they were put in diluted iodine solution.
8. The leaves turned black.
   
9. It means the leaves has starch in them.
10. In the second part of the experiment, 4 to 5 leaves of the same plant were covered with black paper without removing them from the plant.
11. The way the black paper was cut and fixed to the leaves is shown in the figure.
12. These leaves were plucked two days later. Their green colour was removed and they were dipped in iodine solution.
13. The leaves turned black in the pattern shown in the figure.
14. We will notice with the iodine solution test that starch was not present in the portion of the leaves covered with black paper.
15. This experiment confirms that light is essential for the formation of startch in plants.

Question 3.
Do plants produce only starch? If not, what are the other compounds it could produce? explain.
Answer:

1. We know that starch, fats and proteins are present in food.
2. They are also present in plants.
3. Plants produce sugar first, which is converted to starch and then another compound as well.
4. But plants need other nutrient elements to do this.

Question 4.
What are the main nutrients for plants ? What do you mean by micronutrients?
Answer:

1. The main nutrients needed are nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus.
2. Plants require many other nutrient elements as well, but these are needed only in minute quantities.
3. Hence, they are called micronutrients.
4. Plants absorb these nutrient elements from the soil through their roots.

Question 5.
What is Cuscuta? Explain what is meant by hetero trophic nutrition.
Answer:

1. We see yellow thread-like structures twining around the stem, branches and leaves of some trees.
2. Figure shows such a plant.
3. This thread-like plant is Cuscuta. It neither has leaves nor Chlorophyll.
4. Cuscuta takes food from the plant on which it is climbing.
   
5. Like humans and animals such plants depend on the food produced by other plants.
6. This mode of nutrition is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 6.
What are saprophytes? Where do they grow?
Answer:

1. Often after rains we find umbrella like structures growing from the ground.
2. Such plants are called saprophytes.
3. They grow on dead / decaying matter.
4. Mushrooms belong to this type of plants.

Question 7.
What is fungi? Where do you find it?
Answer:

1. Black and white spots appearing on bread pieces, pickles, when kept in moist places. These spots develop due to the growth of fungi, which is a type of plant.
2. All these types of plants do not contain chlorophyll so they simply absorb organic material usually from decaying matter.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on ‘insectivorous plants’.
Answer:

1. A few plants manufacture their own food but also obtain a part of their nutrition from insects.
2. Leaves of these plants are specially modified to trap insects.
   
3. These plants grow in areas deficient in nitrogen.
4. Hence they meet their nitrogen requirements from insects.
5. Being green in colour, they can manufacture their own food.
6. Droseras, Utricularia, Venusflytrap are examples of some such insectivorous plants.
7. These are also called as carnivorous plants.

Question 9.
Mention some plants on whose roots bacteria grow.
Answer:
Some plants like those of the Dal family have a type of bacteria growing on their roots in nodules. The bacteria fixes nitrogen for the plant while it gets shelter in the roots of these plants. Such an association is beneficial to both groups and called symbiosis.

Question 10.
What are Lichens? Write a note about it.
Answer:
There are colonies of algae and fungi living together in a symbiotic relationship. These colonies are known as Lichens. This relationship starts with the attack of the algal colony by a type of fungus. It is an example of balanced parasitism then. Later as algae survive, they are given protection from intense light and conditions of drying up due to the presence of fungus colony. The fungus gets food from its partner.

Question 11.
Describe the experiment conducted by Jan Baptista Von Helmont and discuss his results.
Answer:

1. In the year 1648 a Belgian scientist Jan Baptista Von Helmont conducted an experiment that continued for five years.
   
2. He took a small willow tree and planted it in a large pot of soil.
3. Before he did this he carefully measured the mass of the dry soil and the mass of the tree.
4. He covered the soil with a lid so that nothing could fall onto the surface of the soil and add to its mass.
5. There were holes in the lid so that the tree could grow out of the soil and so that air and water could reach the roots. Von Helmont left the tree for five years, giving it only rain water to drink.
   
6. At the end of the five years he measured the mass of the tree and the mass of the dry soil for a second time.
7. The results of this experiment are shown below.
8. This experiment changed the belief of hundreds of years. This was because Von Helmont arrived at a result that –
9. 
   a) The substances needed for the growth of a plant do not come from the soil only.
   b) The plant grow because of the water it gets.

Question 12.
Who was the first to point out a possible role of light in plant nutrition?
Answer:

1. People tried to check the conclusions of Von Helmont and thus experiment after experiment followed.
   
2. Stephan Hales described the leaves as organs of transpiration (loss of excess water from plant body) and he said that plants exchange gases with their surrounding air.
3. Furthermore, he was the first to point out a possible role of light in plant nutrition.

Question 13.
List the four major things needed by plants to carry out the process of photosynthesis.

Answer:

1. In nature, the presence of the green substance in leaves is essential for photosynthesis to take place.
2. This green substance is called chlorophyll. Plants get water from the soil through their roots while the process of photosynthesis takes place in the leaves.
   

Question 14.
Why is it necessary to irrigate the fields after sprinkling urea?
Answer:

1. Farmers sprinkle urea in rice or wheat fields whenever the leaves turn yellow.
2. The leaves soon become green again.
3. After sprinkling urea, farmers irrigate their fields.
4. Urea dissolves in water and stay near the roots of the rice plants.
5. The plants absorb this urea dissolved in water through their roots.
6. This is the reason why farmers irrigate the fields after sprinkling urea.
7. The rice or wheat plants get water and other nutrients dissolved in it thus.

Question 15.
How does the exchange of air take place in plants?
Answer:

1. Plants get water from the soil through their roots.
   They use carbon dioxide of air. This job is done by the leaves.
2. The leaves have tiny holes through which the exchange of air takes place.
   
3. These holes are so minute we can only see them with the help of a microscope.
4. They are called stomata.
5. It is through the stomata that the exchange of air in leaves takes place continuously.

Question 16.
Draw a diagram of mango tree and write its soliloquy.
Answer:

Question 17.
How do parasitic plants get food from the host plants?
Answer:
Parasitic plants develop special roots called haustoria, which penetrate into the tissues * of the host plant and absorb food materials from them.

Question 18.
What is herberium? How is it useful to us?
Answer:

1. Preservation of plant parts like leaves, flowers or whole plant is a traditional designery art.
2. If the plants are not available in a particular place then the plant physiologists collect those plants where they available and make them in the preservative form.
3. This is commonly known as herberium.
4. They study those plants, and these preserved plants also helpful for the future studies.

Question 19.
Read the para and answer the quesions given below.
Cascuta is a parasitic plant. This receives nutrients from the host plant. It has a finger like structure called haustoria. It inserts it into the stem of the host and receives nutrients.

1. Why do we call Cascuta a parasitic plant?
2. What helps to receive nutrients in Cascuta?
3. Why does Cascuta depend on host for nutrition?
4. Give some more examples of parasitic plants.

Answer:

1. Because Cascuta depends on other plants for food.
2. Haustoria.
3. As Cascuta has no chloroplasts to perform photosynthesis, it depends on other plants for food.
4. a) Corpse flower (Rafflesia plant)
   b) Hydnora plant
   c) Thurber’s stem sucker.

Question 20.
What happens if the stomata is absent in the plants?
Answer:

1. If there are no stomata in plant, transpiration will not occur.
2. Moreover, the gaseous exchange (CO₂, O₂) will not take place in plants.
3. Photosynthesis will not occur in plants.

Question 21.
In human beings respiratory organs are lungs. What are the respiratory organs of plants?
Answer:
Stomata act as respiratory organs in plants.

 

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Using the following case study, explain the role of different Departments of the Government and citizens in the context of RTI. Also write how can the the RTI make functioning of the governments more transparent.

Following incident occurred in Chinnashankarampet of Medak district. Members of the Self Help Groups joined in Abhaya Hastam, Aam Aadmi schemes of the Rural Welfare Ministry of the State Government. Under this scheme their children who were students of classes 9 to 12 were eligible for scholarship of Rs. 1200. However for 3 years students have not been receiving the amount for the years during 2008-11. The students went to the IKP (Indira Kranthi Pathakam) office and enquired about it but the officers ignored their requests.

This came to the notice of the local newspapers. Now they applied to the officers concerned for the information with regard to the scholarships sanctioned. They asked about the number of beneficiaries and the amount sanctioned during 2008-09, 09-10 and 10-11. They got rqply in one week. The amount was 7 lakh rupees. It became clear from the RTI records that even though the amount was sanctioned, it was not distributed. When it was published in the newspapers the amount was distributed to 1167 children within 15 days.

Answer:
Following the case study above we can assess the role of the departments handling different schemes like SHG, IKP, Abhaya Hastam and Aam Aadmi, etc.
Having learnt of the knowledge of RTI and applying for information of the scholarships sanctioned helped the beneficiaries.
The RTI can make the functioning of the Government more transparent. Students who did not receive scholarships for 3 long years were given the same within 15 days. Not only that not providing information asks for punishment on the part of PIOs.

Question 2.
How do you think RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments?
“RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments”- Do you agree with this? Support your answer.
Answer:

1. In any democratic system, governments are responsible and accountable to people.
2. Earlier accountability of government departments and its functionaries were mostly limited to the elected representatives of people.
3. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
4. So, if there are any discrepancies, they will be brought out and who are responsible will be given punishments.
5. So, in this way government functioning can be bettered and monitored well.

Question 3.
What is identified as information? How is this generated in Government Departments? Would it include oral communication between senior and junior officers?
Answer:

1. According to RTI Act, information is defined as material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
2. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
3. The oral instructions or oral communication between senior and junior officers do not fall in this category.

Question 4.
Why are the State and Central Information Offices given autonomy?
Answer:

1. Every government offices have a Public Information Officer (PIO) and Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) and appellate authority in department.
2. All PIOs and APIOs of all departments and departmental appellate authorities are under autonomous appellate State Public Information Office with a State Public Information Commissioner (SPIC).
3. If a government department fall under Central government, PIOs are accountable to autonomous Central Information Office with a Central Public Information Commissioner (CPIC).
4. They are given autonomy because they need to deal with the PIOs who rejected to provide information.
5. They should not yield under any pressure that is why they must be independent.

Question 5.
This (RTI 2005) Act resembles the true spirit of democracy. How do you justify?
Answer:

1. In a democracy, it is the people’s money that is used for their welfare and therefore people have every right to know how this is being used.
2. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
3. In situations where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
4. Information is crucial to human development, and democratic rights.
5. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning and check the possibility of corrupt practices.
6. Thus, this Act (RTI Act of 2005) resembles the true spirit of democracy.

Question 6.
What steps have been taken to ensure that any citizen can access information from the different government departments in the country?
Answer:
Under the provisions of 2005 Act of RTI, public authorities are obliged to
a) maintain all information in a computerised format
b) publish all detailed information pertaining to the information some of it fbitn the Act as follows:

1. Every public authority shall
   a) Maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed.
   b) The authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation, functions and duties.
2. The powers and duties of its officers and employees to be published.
3. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability;
4. The rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees for discharging its functions.

Question 7.
How do you think the Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under the Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002, legal services authorities are constituted to provide free and legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities and to organize Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on an equal opportunity basis.
4. In this way, Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid.

Question 8.
What is the purpose of Lok Adalat?
Answer:

1. Lok Adalat meahs people’s court.
2. All are equal before law.
3. The Article 39A of the Constitution of India contains various provisions for settlement of disputes.
4. It is an act to constitute legal services, authorities to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
5. It is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice or not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
6. To organise Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.
7. This is the purpose of Lok Adalat.

(OR)

1. The main aim of Lok Adalat is to provide free legal aid to poor and weaker sections and also faster settlement of long pending cases on mutual consent.
2. Lok Adalat facilitates the peaceful, amicable, compromise or settlement of cases.
3. It is meant to reduce the burden of the courts.

Question 9.
What do you think on the eligible criteria for free legal services and nature of cases under this Act?
Answer:
i) Persons entitled to get free legal support are

1. A member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribe.
2. A victim of trafficking in human being or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. Persons who are victims of mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought earthquake and industrial disaster.
6. Industrial workers.
7. Persons in custody.
8. Persons with annual income of not more than Rs. 1 lakh

ii) Nature of cases under this Act.
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husbands and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

Question 10.
Compare and contrast the procedures of conflict/case resolution by the Village Community elders and by courts. Which do you prefer and why?
Answer:

1. In our country, it is common that conflicts in the villages and in the communities are addressed by the village/community elders.
2. They settle them in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing the various issues and concerns.
3. The nature of conflict and disputes and their origin are mostly known to the local people and village elders.
4. This facilitates to find out amicable solutions in a transparent way.
5. Now Lok Adalats are functioning to settle disputes/cases in an amicable atmosphere by mutual consent in the presence of legal experts, officials and non-officials, dignitaries.
6. People are now using it for expeditious and inexpensive justice.
7. It is an opportunity to settle long pending court cases through Lok Adalat in short time and without any expenses.
8. It is an old form of dispute/ conflict resolution system valid now also.

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 316

Question 1.
Discuss what could be the reason information would not include oral (instruction of a headmaster to a teacher.
Answer:

1. RTI Act has defined information as the following:
2. Material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models.
3. Data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
4. In this, the oral instructions are not included as they were not in written form.
5. Thus, the oral instruction of a headmaster to a teacher would not be included in information.

Question 2.
Imagine how would government departments would become more accountable when rules and regulations are followed within prescribed manner.
Answer:

1. Government departments have the responsibility to use the people’s money for their welfare.
2. For every department there are rules and regulations that are to be followed within a prescribed manner.
3. If all the departments follow them, automatically they will be more accountable to people.
4. Not only that their functioning would become transparent and free from corruption.
5. Machinery to monitoring them is essential and they must be given applause if they are behaving accountable to people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 318

Question 3.
According to this Act (RTI 2005), if any officer fails to give the specified information, she/he will have to pay the fine. Do you agree with this? Why?
Answer:

1. According to this Act, if any officer fails to give the specified information she/he will have to pay fine.
2. I do agree with it.
3. It prevents corruption.
4. It provides for accountability and transparency.
5. It prevents PIOs from shying away of information.
6. If a fine is imposed on one PIO then it acts as deterrent and most PIOs realise the impact of not giving information.
7. Apart from making the PIOs responsible in case of not providing information, they should be appreciated.

Question 4.
What type of information is not accessible to the citizens? What is the argument in favour of this?
Answer:

1. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. Matters that could be of strategic economic on scientific interest of the state in the context of foreign powers.
3. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commission.
4. It is correct on the part of government not to share the information that is vital and affect the country,. . . . ..
5. If information of strategic importance was disclosed and reached the hands of foreign powers, the damage that could be caused cannot be estimated.
6. Citizens should also have some self restraint and not to seek the information which causes the worry to National Government.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 320

Question 5.
What sort of opportunities are existing in our country for free legal services to the poor people who cannot afford to pay court fees and other related expenses?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002 Legal Services Authorities are constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
4. To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on equal opportunity basis.

Question 6.
What is the nature of cases and conflicts that can be addressed through free legal services?
Answer:

1. The legal services authority through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time without any expenses.
2. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases can be addressed through free legal service.
3. All types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc. can be settled amicably and permanently by Lok Adalats without any fees or expenses through free legal services.

Question 7.
Is there any mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts?
Answer:

1. There is one mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts.
2. Conflicts in villages/ communities are addressed by village/ community elders.
3. They resolute conflicts in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing various issues/ concerns.
4. The nature of conflicts/disputes and their origin are mostly known to village elders.
5. This facilitates to find out an amicable solution in a transparent way.
6. Thus outside the courts the conflicts/disputes are addressed and resoluted by village elders.

Question 8.
Do you support the Lok Adalats? If so, why?
Answer:

1. I support Lok Adalats because there is no court fee, if paid it will be refunded if the dispute is settled.
2. It has procedural flexibility and speedy trial of the disputes.
3. The parties of the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their council.
4. The Award by Lok Adalat is binding on the parties with a status of decree of civil court.
5. Provides free legal advice form the advocates.
6. Provides photocopies of judgements on free of cost.

 

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer: Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong?
a) Rivalry between the US and the USSR,
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war,
c) Triggering off an arms race,
d) An ideological war between the two super powers.
Answer:
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war.

Question 2.
Who amongst the following is not involved in The West Asian crisis?
a) Egypt
b) Indonesia
c) Britain
d) Israel
Answer:
b) Indonesia.

Question 3.
What was the nature of shift in power in the world after the Second World War?
Answer:

1. The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and imperialism.
2. After the war colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial powers exclusive access to the colonies.
3. In fact, Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the great depression.
4. Far from War theatres, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered.
5. The USSR coming out of its destruction was emerging as a Champion of anticolonial struggle.
6. In the post-war period the USA and the USSR have emerged as super powers.
7. The USA is the leader of the capitalist nations and the USSR is the leader of the communist nations.

(OR)
After the Second World War, the major shift in power is observed between two power blocs of USA and USSR.

1. The USA led an Anti – communist bloc based on capitalistic principles. It tried to prevent other countries from adopting communism.
2. The USSR led a communist bloc. It tried to bring other countries into its communist influence.
3. Both USA and USSR tried to expand their ideologies and check each other, resulted in the situation of cold war.
4. Newly independent countries formed an alliance called NAM that stood independently in international aspects away from both military blocs.

Question 4.
What are the different roles done by United Nations in order to build peace in the world?
Answer:

1. The UN started with a twin objectives of ensuring peace ever lasting and human development.
2. Charter emphasised on the need to preserve peace and prevent wars.
3. It recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affairs of country.
4. In cases of serious human rights violation or threat to world peace, the UN interferes.
5. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council.
6. UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
7. The special powers to great powers is a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
8. UN has been less successful in preventing wars.

Question 5.
Given the idea of democracy do you think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions?
Answer:

1. Given the idea of democracy, also, I think a few countries should have special powers in making decisions.
2. The very existence of forums like UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
3. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
4. At times, these powers may be used to block any action against them.
5. Sometimes these powers save many countries and territories of theirs. As all four permanent members intended to annex Kashmir to Pakistan. Russia used veto power to stop it and did the favour to India.

(OR)
Given the idea of democracy, I think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions is not correct. This is opposite to concept of democracy.

Question 6.
How were the super powers benefited by military alliances?
Answer:

1. Super powers strengthened themselves by creating military alliances.
2. They maintained a constrained relationship acting as a deterrent on each other.
3. With alliances they expanded their influence.
4. They gained the access to the vital resources like oil and minerals.
5. They have markets for their products and places to invest safely their capital.
6. They got military bases to launch their troops and weapons.
7. They could spread their ideology.
8. They gain economic support to pay huge military expenses.

Question 7.
How did Cold War produce arms race as well as arms control?
Answer:

1. Both the USSR and the USA spent huge amounts of money to conduct research into weapons.
2. They build arsenals of devastating nuclear arms and missiles.
3. They could strike across the continents.
4. They had enough nuclear arms to destroy the entire earth many times over.
5. Gradually their allies like Britain, France and China too built nuclear arsenals.
6. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.
7. Many times war looked imminent but got defused somehow through diplomacy.
8. There were many flash points which made everyone believe of the triggering off another world war.
9. But when both ultimately realised the implication of a nuclear war both started working for arms control and many arms control treaties were signed like CTBT, NPT, etc.
10. Both decided to follow the logic of deterrence which meant that both have the capacity to attack and cause so much destruction to threaten the existence of the other. But neither is willing to start the war due to the amount of destruction.

Question 8.
Why did West Asia become a center of tensions in the world?
Answer:

1. West Asia became a center of tensions in the world.
2. The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are the main cause for it.
3. In Palestine is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
4. Jews and Arabs want it at any cost.
5. Matters were also complicated by the discovery of massive oil reserves.
6. Both the US and the USSR wanted to bring it under their sphere of influence.
7. In 1947, UN created Jerusalem for Jews from Palestine.
8. Arabs refused to recognize it as a legitimate state.
9. Israel took policies that insulted Arabs.
10. Arabs formed suicide squads for causing explosions in public places.
11. The region has been constantly in a state of war and terrorist attacks.

Question 9.
By the end of the 20th century there is only one single power that dominates the world. In this context what do you think would be the role of NAM?
Answer:

1. In the current scenario the USA remains a major super-power and China is in the process of becoming the biggest threat to the US supremacy of world affairs. Russia is also slowly climbing back, for its joint policy of respecting anti-US policy in the security council, by the use of the veto along with China.
2. The Nam has in recent years often criticised the USA while backing self-determination of Puerto Rico and Western Sahara. It can play a strong role in devising methods to foster co-operation among these nations.
3. The Nam can also act as a guide and over seen of the condition of Human Rights in some of the member states who have rather poor human rights records.
4. NAM is a great way to ensure that issues like Palestine and crises in Somalia and Sudan get a fair and long-lasting solution and that the super-powers don’t unduly interfere in these issues to meet their vested interest. Thus NAM exists and will continue to exist as a strong organisation to reckon with.

Question 10.
“Formation of NAM was not merely in the context of military alliances but also in the context of economic policies” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Non Alignment was established as an international organisation with an aim to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
2. NAM helped the newly independent nations assert their autonomy in international affairs in a world torn between the two super powers.
3. NAM summit at Algiers in 1973 resolved to constitute 5 different trusts to strengthen the economic development of non aligned countries and assist in their reconstruction activities.
4. In the Hawana summit conference in 1979 it also appealed to take measures to minimise the economic differences between the developed and under developed countries.
5. Thus, it also worked for economical development of NAM countries.
6. During 1970s and early 1980s, the NAM also sponsored campaigns for restructuring commercial relations between developed and developing nations, namely the NIEO.
7. The Djakarta Summit 1992 allowed the movement to shift its focus in a direction that also enabled it to work a cross to grouping such as the G-7 and the EU.

Question 11.
Make a table to show relation between India and neighbouring countires with following items :
Answer:

Neighbouring Country	Issues of Conflicts	Events of War	Events of Help and Cooperation
China	Tibet to be a buffer zone but China annexed India gave an asy­lum to Dalai Lama Aksai-Chin area and much of Arunachal Pradesh – China claims it is its.	1962 October China invaded unilaterally Even declared unila­teral ceasefire.	Strategic as well as economic advantages. Two are rising powers of Asia. Ambitious major world economic power. Peace and tranquility at borders.
Pakistan	Kashmir is the main bone of contention.	1947-48 regarding Kashmir. 1965 regarding Kashmir. Dec. 1971 Liberation of East Pakistan 1999 Kargil War.	Build bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges. Secularism, demo­cracy and freedom will enable a greater understanding and cooperation between the people of two countries.
Bangladesh	Sharing of river waters of Ganga and Brahmaputra.Large scale illegal migration from Bangladesh to India. Bangladesh opposed fencing of border	No war	Cooperation in economic front. Indian look East policy makes Bangladesh integral part. Cooperation on disaster manage­ment. Bangladesh rewar­ded many Indians helped in war.
Sri Lanka	Treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by Sri Lanka. Influx of Sri Lanka Tamils to India.	No war	Cultural, ethnic and economic relations. Peace maintenance agreement between India & Sri Lanka.

Question 12.
“The ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.” Justify.
Answer:

1. Since times immemorial, India and Sri Lanka have cultural, ethnic and economic relations.
2. A major irritant in the relation between the two countries has been the treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by the Sri Lankan government.
3. The large scale influx of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees into India posed a special problem.
4. India made an agreement with Sri Lanka and Tamil militants to maintain peace on the land.
5. India sent its armies to keep peace in Sri Lanka and it caused the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.
6. Thus, ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 283

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘decolonization’?
Answer:

1. During the 18th and 19th centuries, some European countries set up colonies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
2. They used those colonies as cheap raw material suppliers and markets for their finished goods.
3. They waged World War keeping control over their colonies.
4. After the Second World War, colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial policies.
5. Under these conditions, old powers like Britain had no choice but to grant freedom to their old colonies.
6. This granting of freedom to old colonies is called ‘decolonisation1.

Question 2.
How do you think the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War, colonial states granted freedom to their colonies.
2. As these countries became free they faced a world greatly torn between Capitalism and Communism.
3. They were continuously under the pressure to choose between the two rather than follow their own paths of development.
4. They also got an opportunity to negotiate by playing one power against the other.
5. Thus, the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 284

Question 3.
Do you think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries?
Answer:
Yes, I think that wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchange between countries.
(OR)

1. I don’t think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries.
2. Most of the wars are fought for ideological differences, colonial advantages, and occupation of other territories as an achievement.
3. Every country fought or allied with it has its own calculations and agenda.
4. Though with the central groups, Italy fought against Germany in the 1st World War.
5. Though made a peace treaty with Russia, Hitler invaded it during the Second World War.
6. Wars may to some extent help for the cultural exchanges between the countries.

Question 4.
According to some the special powers given to the five powers is undemocratic and should be abolished while some others feel that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council and five nations have special status within it.
2. Any decision taken by council can be vetoed by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
3. However, the very existence of UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self control.
4. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
5. So, I support the view that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 289

Question 5.
What was the main purpose of 1955 Bandung conference?
Answer:

1. The leaders of newly independent states felt the need for a change from the insecure and tense situation caused by power blocs.
2. So in 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
3. It was the first Afro-Asian conference represented by 29 nations.
4. Its aim was to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.

Question 6.
How did super powers react for the principles of Non-alignment?
Answer:

1. NAM helped the newly emerging countries to bargain for space and assistance from the super powers by playing one against the other.
2. To some extent it also ease tensions amongst the NAM countries.
3. Both the blocs looked at NAM with suspicion.
4. The US regarded the NAM as being closer to the USSR on wider international issues.
5. When Soviet invaded Afghanistan NAM could not stop it.
6. Thus, the super powers reacted for the principles of Non Alignment Movement.

Question 7.
Why were Non-Aligned Nations called third world countries?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War the world divided into 2 power blocs under the USA and the USSR.
2. So these two are considered two different worlds.
3. Many countries were newly emerged as countries, which were before the colonies of colonial states.
4. All of these countries joined Non-Alignment Movement.
5. So these Non Aligned Nations were called ‘third world’.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 291

Question 8.
What were the reasons for the conflict between Arabs and Israelites?
Answer:

1. The conflict between Arabs and Jews is mainly related to the occupation of Palestine.
2. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
3. The Jews considered Palestine as their Promised Land.
4. In Europe they were the persecuted community as Christians considered them responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
5. The Jews through ‘Zionist Movement’ trying to unite Jews over the world.
6. The discovery of massive oil reserves made the US and the USSR to enter the dispute.

Question 9.
Why did Egypt support the Palestinians during the conflict?
Answer:

1. In 1947 UN divided Palestine and created Israel for Jews.
2. The Arabs did not agree to giving up their homeland.
3. The Arabs were forced to leave their homes and properties in Israel and refugees to Arab states.
4. Egypt formed suicide squads to cause explosion in Israel.
5. Egyptians are also Arabs, that’s why they are vengeful.

Question 10.
Why do you think some Palestinians adopted the path of terrorism? What was its outcome?
Answer:

1. Israelites forced Arabs out of their homes and properties.
2. Egyptians caused explosions in public places in Israel to support Arabs.
3. These were attacks and counter attacks between Israel and Egypt.
4. Israel occupied the territories of Gaza, Golan Heights and the West Bank.
5. Palestinian Liberation Organisation led by Yasser Arafat started in Jordan carried out plane hijacking holding hostage of Israeli Olympic squad and killing many of the sportspersons.
6. The result is Israel used such attacks to mount further attacks on them and refused to implement the promises it had made.

Question 11.
Find out about the condition of Palestinians who are living in refugee camps and constantly facing warfare and poverty.
Answer:

1. The condition of Palestinians who are living in refuge camps are very pitiable.
2. They are constantly facing warfare and poverty.
3. Refugee camps are not providing them sufficient facilities to lead a happy life.
4. Palestinians became the victims of world politics, especially of the super powers.
5. The Palestinian are still fighting for their homeland and peace under very difficult conditions of exile and warfare.
6. Though with the intervention of UN, the problems are not yet solved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 292

Question 12.
What are the similarities and difference between Arab Socialist Nationalism and Religious Nationalism?
Answer:

Arab Socialist Nationalism	Religious Nationalism
1. In 1968 a coup took place in Iraq in which Saddam Hussein came to power.	1. In many cases the opposition to the US and the US backed regimes took religious colours.
2. They meant by socialism, the nationa­lization of oil resources and the use of revenues by the state to fund welfare measures for the citizens.	2. Nationalist forces fostered the idea of establishing religious orthodaxy in those countries.
3. These combined welfare measures with autocratic and dictatorial rule of a ruler or a smail group.	3. In 1979 in Iran a new joint government of Shia Islamic clerics and elected leaders started.
4. These regimes did not allow opposi­tion or democratic protest against themselves.	4. Beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.

Question 13.
Find out more about the developments in Iran and Afghanistan under the Taliban to understand how religious states work.
Answer:
Afghanistan:

1. The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops established an extremist Islamic state.
2. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts.
3. In many cases they meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.
4. The beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs which resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.
5. Some Arab terrorists hijacked 2 aircrafts in the US and crashed into the World Trade Centre in New York killing thousands of people.

Iran:
The offical religion of the Islamic Republic of Iran is “Shiaism”. Iran explicitly aims to support and lead the entire Muslim world. The Shariah provides all the laws needed for the Islamic state from Allah.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 293

Question 14.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. The term polarity refers to the world that was divided between two power blocs.
2. It was the period between 1945 and 1991.
3. The two power blocs are Communist power block under USSR and democratic Capitalist power bloc under USA. This, situation is called as bipolarity.
4. But in the year 1991 USSR was disintegrated and Russia was no more a super power.
5. From 1991 the world became unipolar i.e., one super power, America.
6. These are the different terms of bipolarity and unipolarity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 294

15. Read the passage on Page 293 (During the colonial resolved till today.) and answer the following questions.
a. Do you think it was correct for India to give refuge to the Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers?
Answer:

1. I think it is correct for India to give refuge to Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers.
2. China overpowered the Tibet and eschewed its sovereignty.
3. Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers are fighting for their autonomy.
4. According to Panchsheel, China agreed to not interfere into the sovereignty of other countries.
5. It violated the agreement and annexed Tibet.

b. Do you think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet?
Answer:

1. I don’t think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet.
2. It may believe that a small sovereign country in the neighborhood may be a threat.
3. Opponents may bring it in their control or under their sphere of influence.
4. So it might have overpowered it and annexed.
5. Its action, anyway, was not justified.

Question 16.
To what extent do you think both the countries can forget about their past conflicts over the boundaries and develop meaningful cooperation and friendship?
Answer:

1. After the 1962 Indo-Chinese war, it took more than a decade to restore diplomatic normalcy.
2. Being rising powers of Asia, both have strategic as well as economic advantages.
3. Both are ambitious to be major world economic and political powers.
4. They also see each other as economic and political competitors.
5. Both have taken measure to maintain peace and tranquility at the borders.
6. So they have to forget about their post conflicts over borders and develop meaningful friendship and cooperation.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 296

Question 17.
What steps do you think both India and Pakistan should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. First India and Pakistan should leave the conflicts behind which were perpetual right from the partition.
2. They should seek the help of UN over the issue of Kashmir and agree for mutual amicable settlement.
3. Pakistan should stop her religious terrorism and trained militant infiltration into India.
4. Pakistan should keep herself away from theocratic rule and military coups and belief should be kept in elections and democracy.
5. Both countries should continue with all present trade, economic, cultural, sports, film, etc. relations. In addition to, help each other in combating terrorism, eradication of poverty, assistance in technology, medicine, etc.

Question 18.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both the countries?
(Or)
Why the peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries? Explain, keeping in view the recent developments.
Answer:

1. Peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries.
2. Both of them are spending huge amounts on defence and strategic nuclear arsenal.
3. The division of the country itself created mistrust among the countries and it is mounted now.
4. For social, political and economical development of the both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 19.
Many small countries feel that their larger neighbours act like ‘big brothers’. What do you think is meant by this?
Answer:

1. Many small countries feel that their neighbours act like ‘big brothers’.
2. They meant that larger neighbours are trying to control them.
3. They feel that neighbours are doing this to pretend that they are doing it for the benefit of small country.
4. They meant that ‘Big brother’ is watching them i.e., Big brother knew what small countries did.
5. Thus, small countries treat their larger neighbours as’Big brothers’.

(OR)

This means the larger neighbouring countries will work for the good of the small countries as a family members.

Question 20.
Look at the map of India and Bangladesh and see why cooperation between the two countries is of vital importance to both.
Answer:

1. Bangladesh is surrounded by Indian states.
2. In between many Indian states there is Bangladesh.
3. So there should be cooperation between the two countries.
4. It is of vital importance for both the countries.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 297

Question 21.
Compare the support of India to Bangladesh and its role in Sri Lanka – Do you think the situation was similar or different?
Answer:

1. Bangladesh, erstwhile East Pakistan is physically distant from parent West Pakistan.
2. The people led a liberation movement nearly for 8 months and then India supported her cause.
3. Thus, Bangladesh was formed as new nation.
4. Whereas the situation in Sri Lanka is different.
5. Indian Tamils, an integral part of Sri Lanka but were meted out injustice based on their language and race.
6. The interference of India was not appreciated by both Sri Lanka government and the Tamils fighting for their rights.
7. So, the situation in Sri Lanka is different from that of Bangladesh.

 

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Temperature and Its Measurement

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement

7th Class Science 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the different clothes we wear in different seasons?
Answer:

1. We wear woolen and dark coloured clothes during winter when it is cold outside.
2. Woolen and dark coloured clothes keep us warm.
   
3. We prefer to wear light coloured cotton clothes when it is hot.
4. They give us a feeling of coolness.
5. It is a wonder why a particular type of cloth is suitable for a particular season.

Question 2.
When rice is being cooked you observe the plate on the rice bowl jumps! Why is it happening?
Answer:
The heat energy converts water into steam and the pressure of steam throws away the lid.

Question 3.
Have you observed water boiling in a vessel with a lid on it? What do you notice? How can you establish that heat is a form of energy?
Answer:

1. We know that boiled water is being converted to water vapour.
2. The volume of the water vapour increases.
3. The increased volume of vapour tries to go out. In this process it tries to lift the lid up.
4. We need energy to lift any object. This energy comes from the heated water.
5. Water gets the energy from the heat of the fire. Thus heat is a form of energy:

Question 4.
What is heat?
Answer:

1. We feel hot when we sit in sunlight or near fire. We feel cold when we put a piece of ice on our palm.
2. We know that heat is a form of energy that is transferred from an object at higher temperature to one at lower temperature.
   
3. When we stand in the sun or near fire, heat energy enters our body and we feel hot. When ice is put on our palm, heat energy moves from our body to the piece of ice.
4. That’s why we feel cold.
5. “The energy which makes an object appear hot or cold is called heat.”.

Question 5.
What happens in the following?
a) Rub your palms together. How do you feel?
b) Have you ever observed that iron becomes hot when it is beaten with a hammer?
c) Take a soapnut seed. Rub it on a stone and touch it. How do you feel?
Answer:
In above cases mechanical energy is converted into heat energy.

Question 6.
Explain the terms ‘heat’ and ‘temperature’.
Answer:

1. If we stand close to fire, we feel warm.
2. When a warm object is placed close to a cooler object, heat energy moves from the warmer object to the cooler one until both objects attain the same temperature.
3. Often we think that heat and temperature are the same things. This is wrong.
4. Temperature is a measure of the heat energy in a body which indicates the ability of a body to give heat to another body or absorb heat from another body.
5. We use thermometers to measure temperature.

Question 7.
What are the properties of mercury?
Answer:
Properties of Mercury:

1. Its expansion is uniform. (For equal amounts of heat it expands by equal lengths.)
2. It is opaque and shining.
3. It does not stick to the sides of the glass tube.
4. It is a good conductor of heat.
5. It is easily available in pure state.

Question 8.
Write the properties of alcohol.
Answer:
Properties of Alcohol:

1. It can record very low temperatures.
2. Its expansion per degree Celsius rise in temperature is very large.
3. It can be coloured brightly and hence is easily visible.

Question 9.
Who first designed the thermometer? What do you know about it?
Answer:

1. First thermometer was invented by Galileo in 1593 AD.
   
2. In this thermometer air was used as the thermometric substance as air rapidly expands on heating and contracts on cooling.
3. Further, the substance that is used in the thermometer has uniform expansion or contraction with the rise or fall in temperature.

Question 10.
Do you find any difference in temperature of air in shadow and in the sun?

Measure temperature of air using a thermometer. What will you do to keep a thermometer in close contact with air?
Answer:

1. The temperature of air will be more as it receives heat directly from the sun and from reflected radiations.
2. The temperature in the shadow will be relatively less as only reflected radiant heat reaches there.

Question 11.
Is there any difference in temperature with variation of time or place?
Answer:
There is difference in temperature with variation of time or place.

Question 12.
Why do you use an umbrella in the hot sun during summer?
Answer:
To avoid direct heat radiations from the sun.

Question 13.
Write a note on the variations of temperature on different occasions and at different places over the globe?
Answer:

1. In Lybia (Africa) on a particular day in the year 1922, it became so hot that the temperature of air even in shade was as high as 58 °C.
2. At some places (Rentachintala of Guntur District) in Andhra Pradesh, the maximum temperature of air sometimes reaches 48 °C and more.
3. When it is so hot we feel extremely uncomfortable as the normal temperature of the human body is 37 °C.
4. The lowest temperature in the world has been measured in Antarctica where it once went down to about -89 °C.
5. The minus sign is used for temperature which is less than 0 °C. Water freezes at 0 °C, just think how cold -89 °C must be.
6. In winter when the atmospheric temperature around us becomes 15 °C – 20 °C we begin to feel cold.

Question 14.
What is a clinical thermometer ? Describe its construction.
Answer:

1. Thermometer which is used to find out the temperature of our bodies is called Clinical Thermometer.
   If we observe Thermometer carefully. There are two types of scales marked on the clinical thermometer one that starts with 35 degrees and ends at 45 degrees is Celsius scale. While the other that starts with 95 degrees and ends at 110 degrees is the Fahrenheit scale.
2. We see a kink in the capillary near the bulb.
   
3. This kink prevents Mercury level from falling on its own.

Question 15.
What is the value of one division on the fahrenheit scale on thermometer?
Answer:

1. Note the temperature difference indicated between the two bigger marks.
2. Also note down the number of divisions between these marks.
   
3. Suppose two consecutive bigger marks differ by one degree and there are five divisions between them.
4. Then one small division reads
   1/5 = 0.2 °F

Question 16.
Describe how do we use a clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. We should wash the thermometer preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Holding it firmly by the end and give it a few jerks. These jerks will bring the level of mercury down. Ensure that it falls below 35 °C (95 °F).
3. Now we should plape the thermometer under our tongue or arm pit.
4. After one minute, we have to take the thermometer out and note the reading. It tells our body temperature.

Question 17.
How can you decide whether one has fever or not?
Answer:
The normal temperature of human body is 37°C (98.6°F). If one has body more than 98.6°F can consider as fever.

Question 18.
Write a note on a) Thermister thermometer and b) Digital thermometer.
Answer:
a) Thermister thermometer:
It is available in market to measure the human body tempera¬tures, particularly for infants and children.

b) Digital thermometer:

1. There is a lot.of concern over the use of Mercury in thermometer.
   
2. Mercury is a toxic substance and is very difficult to dispose of if a thermometer breaks.
3. These days digital thermometers are also available which do not use Mercury.

Question 19.
What precautions are suggested in using a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

1. We are advised not to use a clinical thermometer for measuring the temperature of any object other than human body.
   
2. Also we are advised to avoid keeping it in the sun or near a flame.

Question 20.
Measure the temperature of a person with clinical and digital thermometers.
Are the temperature readings same or different? Explain your observations.
Answer:
The temperature readings in both clinical and digital thermometers are the same.

Question 21.
What is value of one small division on the Celsius scale?
Answer:
Reading the Celsius scale on thermometer.

1. Temperature difference is indicated between two bigger marks.
2. Between these two bigger marks divisions are there.
   
3. Suppose two consecutive bigger marks differ by one degree and there are 10 divisions between them then one small division reads
   1/10 = 0.1°C
   ∴ The value of one small division on the Celsius scale is 0.1 °C.

Question 22.
How do you measure the temperature of other objects?
Answer:

1. To measure the temperature of other objects there are other thermometers.
2. One such thermometer is known as the laboratory thermometer used to measure temperature of water.
3. Six’s maximum and minimum therometer is used to measure maximum and minimum temperatures of a day.

Question 23.
Can you make use of laboratory thermometer like a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

1. We should take some hot water in a beaker, dip thermometer in it for one minute.
2. Record the temperature while the thermometer is in water.
   
3. Take out the thermometer from water. Observed the mercury thread carefully.
4. As there is no kink in the laboratory thermometer mercury falls down in the glass tube of its own when taken out of the water. So we cannot use a laboratory thermometer like a clinical thermometer.

Question 24.
Measure the temperature of different students by touching them and noting in the clinical thermometer.
Make sure that you have cleaned the thermometer before each measurement.

Compare the values in the table after completion of recording.
a) What do you observe in the table?
b) Are the estimated temperature and measured temperature same?
c) Is the body temperature of every person 37 °C (98.6 °F)?
d) What is the average body temperature of your friends?
The average body temperature of a large number of healthy persons is known as normal temperature (98.6 °F).
Answer:
The student is advised to do this work as a project work.

Question 25.
Some of the objects are given in the table. Mark these objects as hot or cold. What is your conclusion?

Answer:

1. We see that some objects are cold and some are hot.
2. We also know that some objects are hotter than others while some are colder than
   others.
3. To decide which object is hotter than the other, and which object is colder than the other.
4. We need a reliable method to decide the hotness/coldness of an object.
5. Generally, hotness or coldness is expressed in terms of temperature.
6. Temperature is a measure of the degree of hotness or coldness of an object.

Question 26.
How can find out the hotness or coldness of a substance by touch? Explain.
Answer:

1. By touching with our hands, we can guess whether a cup of milk is still worth sipping or has become too cold, whether milk is hot enough for making curds etc.
2. But estimating temperature with our hands can, sometimes mislead or confuse us.
3. Take some cold water, luke-warm water and hot water in three different vessels.
   
4. Immerse your left hand in the cold wa¬ter vessel and right hand in hot water vessel simultaneously. Wait for two or three minutes.
5. Take off both your hands and dip them in the luke-warm water vessel.
6. Though both hands are in the same glass of water, one hand feels it cold and the other feels it hot! Look how our hands are confused!
7. We can not exactly decide the hotness/coldness of a substance just by touching it?. It is not possible to guess the hotness of a substance only on the basis of feel/touch.
8. It is certain that water in different tubs has different degrees of hotness which can¬not be exactly determined simply by touching.

Question 27.
How do we establish by experiment that liquids expand due to heat?
Answer:

1. We should take a flat bottom flask and fill it with coloured water.
2. Fix a cork, having a capillary tube, in the mouth of flask such that level of water is as shown (fig).
   
3. We should place the flask in a metal trough.
4. We should pour boiling hot water into the trough and carefully observe the level of coloured water. The level rises.
5. If we take the flask out of the trough and keep it outside for some time, the level of coloured water decreases.
6. In the above activity we see that water expands on heating and contracts on cooling.

Question 28.
Record your observations in the following.

Answer:
Do the above observation independently.

Question 29.
Did you ever bathe with cold water during winter? What happens?
Answer:

1. I have taken bathe with cold water during winter.
2. My body shivered with chill.

Question 29.
What do you do to protect yourself from cold?
Answer:

1. I wear woolen and dark coloured clothes to protect myself from cold.
2. I will cover my body with a blanket to protect myself from cold in the night.

Question 30.
How do you get hot water in winter?
Answer:
By heating water, I get hot water in winter.

Question 31.
Generally we heat water to get hot water. How do you heat water? What sources do you use?
Answer:
By converting electrical energy, chemical energy and mechanical energy into heat we heat water. We use electric heaters, gas stoves and solar heaters to heat water.

Question 32.
Give examples of conversion of energy from one form to another.
Answer:

1. Different kinds of energies can be converted to heat.
2. In the same way heat energy can be converted to other forms of energy.
3. We have heard that in a thermal power station, heat energy is converted to electrical energy.
4. In a steam engine, heat energy is converted to mechanical energy which helps in moving the engine.
5. In electrical heater electrical energy, in gas stove chemical energy and in solar heaters solar energy are converted to heat.

Question 33.
What are the liquids used as thermometer liquids?
Answer:

1. Mercury is used as liquid for indicating temperature in thermometers.
2. Apart from Mercury we also use alcohol as thermometer liquid.

Question 34.
Describe the construction of a thermometer with a neat diagram.
Answer:

1. At one end of the tube we observe a bulb. It is filled with Mercury.
2. The other end of the tube is sealed after removing air from it.
   
3. We find a scale which is marked to express temperature in degree Celsius.
4. We read the temperature with the help of these markings.
5. The readings range from 0° to 100°
6. This arrangement of the marks is called scale of temperature.
7. All thermometers are based on the fact that matter expands on heating.

Question 35.
Draw a neat diagram of Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer. What is its importance.
Answer:
1) The maximum (highest) and minimum (lowest) temperatures of a day are measured by a thermometer called the Six’s maximum-minimum thermometer.

Question 36.
How do you use a thermometer? Write an example.
Answer:

1. To find the temperature of an object, the bulb of the thermometer needs to be in close contact with that object.
2. Watch the shiny line of mercury in the tube. .
3. The highest point on the scale, at which the rise of mercury stops, shows the temperature of the object.
4. Example: To find the temperature of your palm, place the bulb of thermometer in contact with palm for two minutes and see the mercury rise.
5. When mercury stops rising and its level becomes steady, note the position of its upper end.
6. This is the temperature of your palm.

Question 37.
If markings on thermometer are wiped out, how do we create new markings?
Answer:

1. Take some ice in a beaker. Immerse a thermometer in ice for two minutes. Mark the Mercury level. Now let the ice melt.
2. The level of Mercury remains same while ice melts. This means that temperature is constant.
3. This constant temperature at which ice melts is called melting point of ice and mark it 0 °C.
4. Take some water in a beaker. Immerse the thermometer in it and start heating the water. It will start boiling while getting converted into steam.
5. Mercury level starts rising and reaches a point beyond which it doesn’t rise. Mark the level of mercury at this point.
6. Observe the constant level at which Mercury stays while water is boiling, this constant temperature is called boiling point of water. We mark the level of mercury at this point as 100 °C.
7. Thus temperature at which ice melts or water boils is constant. These values are fixed as 0 °C and 100 °C respectively. Like water, all substances in pure form melt and boil at certain fixed temperatures.
8. To create a scale, we need two fixed points. Let us choose the melting point (0 °C) and boiling point (100 °C) as two fixed points for the scale of thermometer. Now divide the distance between these two points on the thermometer into 100 equal parts.
9. Each of the 100 equal parts represents 1 °C. We further divide 1 °C into 10 small divisions. It can be read as 1/10 = 0.1 °C.

Question 38.
Feel the body temperature of some of your friends by placing your hand on their forehead. Estimate the temperature and record it in the table.

Answer:
The student is advised to do this with the help of the teacher.

Question 39.
How do you note the temperature of water taken in a beaker?
Answer:

1. Take some tap water in a beaker.
2. Dip the thermometer in water so that the bulb is immersed in water but does not touch the bottom or side of the beaker.
3. Hold thermometer vertically, wait till the mercury thread becomes steady.
4. Note the reading. That is the temperature of water at that time.

Question 40.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. What is the aim of the experiment?
2. Write down the apparatus required.
3. What are your observations?
4. Where do you find this type of phenomenon in your daily life?

Answer:

1. Liquids expand on heating.
2. A flat bottom flask, cork, coloured water, metal trough, boiling hot water.
3. Water expands on heating and the level in coloured water is increased.
4. We can observe this phenomenon in the thermometer in our day to day life.

Question 41.
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions:
Heat is a type of Energy. It is transferred from hot object to cold object. We know the hotness and coolness of an object due to the transformation of energy. It is called “Heat”. If you want to heat the water with electric heater, Electric Energy is turned into Heat Energy. If you heat the water on gas stove, Chemical Energy is turned into Heat Energy.
i) What is Heat?
ii) How is heat transferred from one object to other?
iii) Which equipment is used to turn Electric Energy into Heat Energy?
iv) When we heat water on the gas stove, which energy is turned into Heat Energy?
Answer:
i) It is a form of energy. The energy which makes an object appear hot or cold is called heat.
ii) Heat flows from an object at high temperature to another at lower temperature.
iii) Electric heater.
iv) Chemical energy.

Question 42.
What questions would you ask the doctor to clarify your doubts on the usage of the thermometer?
Answer:

1. Why do we use thermometer in our daily life?
2. Why is mercury used in thermometers?
3. How do we measure the temperature in thermometer?
4. How many types of scales are marked on the thermometer?

Question 43.
Read the paragraph given below and answer the following questions.
Temperature is a measure of the heat energy in a body. We use thermometers to measure temperature. Mercury is a good conductor of heat and is a liquid at room
temperature. It is used in most thermometers. In some thermometers, alcohol is used. Alcohol can record very, low temperatures.
i) What is temperature?
ii) Name the device used to measure the temperature.
iii) Name the liquid used commonly in the thermometers.
iv) Name the liquid used in thermometers to measure low temperature.
Answer:
i) Temperature is a measure of heat energy in a body.
ii) The device used to measure temperature is thermometer.
iii) Mercury is the liquid used in thermometers.
iv) Alcohol is used in thermometers to measure low temperature.

Question 44.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.

Day	Date	Maximum Temperature
1	01.01.2019	30°C
2	02.01.2019	32°C
3	01.04.2019	35°C
4	02.05.2019	39°C
5	15.05.2019	42°C

i) Name the month and date when the minimum temperature was recorded.
ii) On which date was the maximum temperature recorded?
iii) Between which two consecutive months, the difference in temperature was the highest?
iv) In which month people could most likely have used air-conditioner to get relief from heat?
Answer:
i) 1st January, 2019.
ii) 15th May, 2019
iii) April and May
iv) In May month

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus 7th Class Social Studies Study Material Guide Pdf free download, AP Board 7th Class Social Studies Textbook Solutions in English Medium and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 7th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also go through AP Board 7th Class Social Notes to understand and remember the concepts easily. Students can also read AP 7th Class Social Important Questions for exam preparation.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Studies Guide Study Material Pdf Free Download

7th Class Telugu Study Material Andhra Pradesh Pdf | 7th Class Social Studies Guide Pdf

AP 7th Class Social Study Material Pdf English Medium New Syllabus

7th Class Telugu Study Material Sem 1

• 1st Lesson The Universe and The Earth
• 2nd Lesson Forests
• 3rd Lesson Learning Through Maps
• 4th Lesson Delhi Sultanate
• 5th Lesson Kakatiya Kingdom
• 6th Lesson Vijayanagara Empire

7th Class Social Studies Guide Pdf Sem 2

• 7th Lesson Mughal Empire
• 8th Lesson Bhakthi – Sufi
• 9th Lesson Indian Constitution – An Introduction
• 10th Lesson State Government
• 11th Lesson Road Safety Education
• 12th Lesson Markets Around Us
• 13th Lesson Women Change the World

AP 7th Class Social Studies Guide Telugu Medium

7th Class Social Guide Pdf Sem 1

• Chapter 1 విశ్వం మరియు భూమి
• Chapter 2 అడవులు
• Chapter 3 పటాల ద్వారా అధ్యయనం
• Chapter 4 ఢిల్లీ సుల్తానులు
• Chapter 5 కాకతీయ రాజ్యం
• Chapter 6 విజయనగర సామ్రాజ్యం

AP 7th Class Social Study Material Pdf Sem 2

• Chapter 7 మొఘల్ సామ్రాజ్యం
• Chapter 8 భక్తి – సూఫీ
• Chapter 9 భారత రాజ్యాంగం – పరిచయం
• Chapter 10 రాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వం
• Chapter 11 రహదారి భద్రత
• Chapter 12 మన పరిసరాలలో ఉన్న మార్కెట్లు
• Chapter 13 ప్రపంచ పరివర్తనలో మహిళలు

AP 7th Class Social Study Material Pdf English Medium (Old Syllabus)

• Chapter 1 Reading Maps of Different Kinds
• Chapter 2 Rain and Rivers
• Chapter 3 Tanks and Ground Water
• Chapter 4 Oceans and Fishing
• Chapter 5 Europe
• Chapter 6 Africa
• Chapter 7 Handicrafts and Handlooms
• Chapter 8 Industrial Revolution
• Chapter 9 Production in a Factory – A Paper Mill
• Chapter 10 Importance of Transport System
• Chapter 11 New Kings and Kingdoms
• Chapter 12 The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom
• Chapter 13 The Kings of Vijayanagara
• Chapter 14 Mughal Empire
• Chapter 15 Establishment of the British Empire in India
• Chapter 16 Making of Laws in the State Assembly
• Chapter 17 Implementation of Laws in the District
• Chapter 18 Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality
• Chapter 19 Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers
• Chapter 20 Folk Religion
• Chapter 21 Devotional Paths to the Divine
• Chapter 22 Rulers and Buildings

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Find the odd one out.
a) Indian Constitution adopts from experiences of freedom struggle.
b) Indian Constitution adopts from already existing Constitutions.
c) Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.
d) Indian Constitution provides principles and provisions for ruling the country.
Answer:
The odd one is ‘c’. It is: Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.

Question 2.
Correct the false statements:
a) There was unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented only certain regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution may also be amended.
Answer:
a) There was no unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented all the regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) The Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution cannot be amended.

Question 3.
Describe the unitary and federal principles of Indian government as discussed in the CA debates.
(OR)
Distinguish between federal and unitary systems. June 2017)
Answer:
Our Constitution reaffirms that India is a unitary and a federal state. The following principles represent the unitary and federal characters.
Unitary Principles :

1. Single citizenship,
2. The supremacy of the Constitution,
3. Residual powers to central governments,
4. Single Judiciary,
5. Uniformity of fundamental rights,
6. Provision for All India Services.

Federal Principles :

1. Dual Polity,
2. Sovereign Powers to States,
3. State Services.

Question 4.
How does the Constitution reflect the political events of the time? Draw from previous chapters on the freedom struggle.
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution adopts from the experience of the freedom struggle.
2. It reflects the political events of time.
3. It provides for equality, liberty, justice and fraternity.
4. It promises adult universal franchise, fundamental rights which were most sought after during freedom struggle.
5. It grants single citizenship and independent judiciary to protect the integrity of the country and the rights and liberties of people.
6. A reference to the history of British rule and Indian independence struggle provides basic idea of self-governance that emerged into a people’s participative democracy.
7. The representatives of princely states declared the First Round table conference that they would join an ‘All India Federation with a Self-Governing British India’. This prefered creation of All India Federation.

Question 5.
What differences would it have made to the making of our Constitution if the Assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise?
Answer:

1. It would not have made any difference to the making of our Constitution even if the assembly had been elected through Universal Adult Franchise.
2. At that time nearly 86% of the population is illiterate.
3. Most of the population was under the poverty line.
4. Nothing substantial benefit would have made.
5. The Draft Committee chairman himself was one of the greatest intellectuals of all the time in the world.
6. So, a better Constitution was already made.

(OR)

1. It would be more democratic if the constituent assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise.
2. If the assembly members had been elected through universal adult franchise intellectuals would not be elected and better constitution was also not prepared.

Question 6.
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.
Sovereignty:

1. India is a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
2. The Indian people has sovereign (or) supreme power.

Fundamental Rights:
Indian Constitution provide basic fundamental rights to all citizens without discrimination.

Directive Principles:
These are guidelines to frame laws. These are not enforceable by the courts.

Cabinet Government (or) Parliamentary Type of Government:
A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

Secularism:
Secularism is the basic structure of Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

Socialism:
The world Socialism was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment- It implies social and economic equality.

Fedaralism:
The Constitution provides a federal structure. The powers are specifically divided between central and state government.

Independent judiciary:
India has an independent and integrated judiciary.

Question 7.
How has the Constitution defined and changed political institutions in the country?
Answer:

1. The Constitution has defined and changed political institutions in the country.
2. It provided federal system with union and state government of sovereign power.
3. It made the Constitution as the supreme law of land.
4. It paves way for strong centre during an emergency.
5. It supports multiparty democracy with elections in definite intervals.
6. It provided universal Adult Franchise.
7. It set up Election Commission for smooth conduct of free and fair elections.
8. It adopts single citizenship.
9. It provides fundamental rights.
10. It adopts directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties.

Conclusion: It defines India as a sovereign, democratic, socialist and secular republic. It has provisions for bringing about social change and defining the relationship between Individual citizen and the state.

Question 8.
While Constitution provides basic principles it is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change. Do you agree with this statement, give reasons.
Answer:

1. Constitution provides basic principles like fundamental rights, the supremacy of the Constitution, etc.
2. It is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change.
3. People get good and transparent governance only if they elect good and corrupt free representatives.
4. All the schemes of government would be fruitful if they reach genuine beneficiaries.
5. Thus, people’s participation brings social change.

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 232

Question 1.
Complete the following tasks regarding the Indian Constitution.
Task 1: Some significant contributors to the Indian Constitution were:
———-, ———-, ———-.
Answer:
Sri Babu Rajendra Prasad, Acharya Kripalani, Pandit Nehru, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Task 2: What are the basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in its Preamble?
Answer:
Basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in the Preamble:

1. Justice : Every citizen will have social, economical and political justice.
2. Liberty : Every citizen will have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Equality : Every citizen will be provided with the equality of status and of opportunity.
4. Fraternity : Citizens of India have been assured about the dignity of the individual and unity, integrity of the nation.

Task 3: Read the following two preambles along with the Indian Preamble and see how they are similar or different. Remember each Constitution also reflects political events around the making of their nations. Try to relate to the political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution. (You can re-read the background of Japan in chapter 13 and look at page 234 to understand the background of Nepal.)
Answer:

Preambles of
Indian Constitution	Nepal Constitution	Japan Constitution
Federal Republic	Federal Republic	Peaceful co-operation
Multiparty Democracy	Multiparty Democracy	Blessings of liberty
Sovereignty	Sovereignty	Sovereignty
Fundamental Rights	Fundamental Rights	Trusting in the justice
Adult Franchise	Adult Franchise	Faith of the peace-loving people
Periodic Elections	Periodic Elections	Banishment of Tyranny and Slavery
Independent Judiciary Integrity	Independent Judiciary Integrity

The political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution:
India: The differences in traditional India and disparities in colonial India and political movements shaped the Indian Constitution.
Nepal: The political movements against Monarchy formed the Nepal Constitution.
Japan: The results of World War – II shaped the Japanese Constitution so.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 233 & 234

Question 2.
Read the Preambles of Nepal and Japan given on Pages 232 and 233 in Textbook and answer the following questions.
a) What do you think is similar or different in the political context of these nations? What were the immediate prior events? Who were the previous rulers?
Answer:

1. These nations restrict the monarchy and other forms of governance.
2. They are committed to form the government by those who were given mandate in elections.
3. They believe their representatives make policies whose fruits are enjoyed by people.
4. There were mass movements for democracy in Nepal.
5. Japan started new lease of life after war torn image.
6. Nepal was ruled by the Monarch.
7. Japan was ruled by Pan Asianic rulers.

b) Which Preamble refers to the word gender?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Constitution of Nepal refers to the word gender.
2. It promises to solve the problems relating gender.

c) Which Preamble reflects the desire for peace?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Japanese Constitution reflects the desire for peace.
2. It promises to never visit the horrors of war.

d) How are people’s movements reflected in the Preamble?
Answer:
The Nepalese Constitution reflects the historic struggles and peoples’ movements launched by the people of Nepal at various times since 1951.

e) What is similar or different for Preambles in their reflection of the past?
Answer:

1. The Nepalese Constitution refers to abolition of monarchy.
2. It also refers to historical struggles and people’s movements.
3. The Japanese Constitution refers to the horrors of war.
4. It would never like to repeat them and promises to world peace.

f) What types of promises are made up about the future society in the three countries?
Answer:

1. In India social, economical, political justice is promised.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship also promised.
3. Equality of status and opportunity also promised.
4. Japanese promised a peaceful world.
5. They desire to occupy an honoured place in an international society.
6. Nepal guaranteed basic rights of the people.
7. Nepal expressed full commitment to democratic values.

g) What promises are made about the nature of political system?
Answer:

1. Nepal will allow competitive multi-party democratic system, human rights, adult franchise, periodic elections, etc.
2. Japan referred Government as a sacred trust of the people who give power to representatives and enjoy benefits of power’
3. They try for the banishment of tyranny and slavery, oppression and intolerance for all time from the earth.
4. Every Indian get the right to vote at the age of 18 years without discrimination.

h) What promises are made to the citizen of these nations?
Answer:

1. Nepal pledges to accomplish the progressive restructuring of the state.
2. It also promises to solve the problems relating to class, ethnicity, region and gender.
3. Japan desires peace for all time.
4. It desires to occupy an honoured place in international society.
5. India promised to provide equality, fraternity, justice and fundamental rights to all the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 236

Question 3.
The Constitution of India begins with the statement, “We the people of India…”. Do you think this claim to represent all the people of India was justified?
Answer:

1. The claim to represent all the people of India was definitely justified.
2. The Constitution was made by the people for the people.
3. The draft was printed and made available to the 40 crore people of the country for 8 months.
4. There were more than 7,000 changes proposed by the people.
5. Out of them above 2000 changes were accepted.
6. Thus, the claim is justified.

Question 4.
Do you think all the people of India can participate in the formulation of Constitution for the entire country? Was it important for all people to participate actively in this process or could it have been left to some wise people?
Answer:

1. As you can see the Constituent Assembly was not elected through universal adult franchise.
2. Only 10% of the population could vote in the provincial election.
3. All the people were not necessary to participate actively in the formulation of constitution.
4. Because majority of our people are illiterate and they have no knowledge about the constitution.
   So, in this situation elites participation is necessary to frame our constitution.

Question 5.
If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted, who all should be involved in it and how?
Answer:

1. If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted the head teacher and all the other teachers should be involved.
2. The representative of all classes of the school should also be involved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 237

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks.
a) Drafting Committee was appointed roughly ———- days after the Independence.
b) The Assembly first appointed special committees on specific issues like, ———-, ———-, and ———-.
c) The reports of these committees were discussed by the ———- and key decisions were taken by it.
d) The ———- Committee headed by Dr. Ambedkar had to incorporate these decisions.
e) The Draft also drew upon provisions of the ———- passed by the British Government.
f) It was then made available to public for ———- months so that they could criticise and give their suggestions on it.
g) In the Draft Constitution there were ———- Articles and ———- Schedules.
Answer:
a) fifteen,
b) Fundamental rights, Minorities, Tribal Areas,
c) Constituent Assembly,
d) Drafting,
e) Government of India Act, 1935,
f) eight,
g) 395,8.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 238

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks.
a) The powers given to Indian President are more similar to ———-.
b) Constituent Assembly visualised that the Indian President follows the advice of ———-, than ———- of ———-.
Answer:
a) King; England; President; the USA
b) Ministers

Question 8.
What do you think was the difference between the position of the British King and the President of India?
Answer:

1. President occupies the same position as the king under the English Constitution.
2. His position is not hereditary like king but elected.
3. He represents the nation but not rule the nation.
4. He generally bound by the advice of Ministers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 239

Question 9.
Under federal polity there are more than one government and in the Indian context we have  them at ———- and ———- levels. You belong to ———- state while you belong to ———- nation.
Answer:
Central; State; Andhra Pradesh; Indian.

Question 10.
Which type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the Centre?
Answer:

1. Unitary type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the centre.
2. Two essential characteristics of a unitary Constitution are the supremacy of the central polity and the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
Which type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments?
Answer:

1. Federal type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments.
2. A Federal Constitution is marked by the existence of a central polity and subsidiary polities side by side and by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it.

Question 12.
In what ways are Indian states not “administrative units or agencies of the Union Government”?
Answer:

1. Indian states are not administrative units or agencies of the union government.
2. Because states have sovereign power assigned to them by the Constitution.
3. They have elected representatives and they are not the agencies of the union, government.
4. They are peripheral entities in the federal system.

Question 13.
Why do you think the framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship (of India and of the state)?
Answer:

1. The framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship.
2. When there is dual citizen, one is for India and other for the state.
3. In such a federal system, rules and laws differ for union and each state.
4. It may not be possible to keep them united.
5. Our Constitution framers showed uniformity in all basic matters which are essential to maintain the unity of the country.
6. So they did not recommend dual citizenship.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 242

Question 14.
Can you point out the main differences between Indian federalism and American federalism?
Answer:

Indian Federalism	American Federalism
1. Single citizenship.	1. Dual citizenship
2. Single judiciary	2. Dual judiciary
3. Uniformity in fundamental, civil and criminal laws.	3. A duality of legal codes.
4. A common All India Civil Service to main important posts.	4. A duality of services.
5. No matter of difficulty for a citizen who moved from state to state.	5. Difficult for a citizen who moved from state to state.
6. India has a parliamentary form of government.	6. America has a presidential form of government.
7. In India the Loksabha (Lower house) is more powerful.	7. In America the House of Senate (Upper house) is more powerful.
8. Indian constitution is a rigid and flexible.	8. American constitution is a only rigid constitution.
9. In India president is nominal head.	9. In America president has supreme power.

Question 15.
Does the Indian Constitution allow the states to have their own civil servants (officers)?
Answer:

1. The Constitution provides that without depriving the states of their right to form their own civil services, there shall be All Indian Service recruited.
2. It is recruited on All India basis with common qualifications, with the uniform scale of pay and the members of which alone could be appointed to the strategic posts throughout the Union.

Question 16.
Are all officials of a state from the state’s civil services?
Answer:

1. No. All officials of a state are not from the state’s civil services.
2. Constitution provides for an All India Services for every state in strategic posts.
3. They are like Collectors, Superintendents of Police, Secretary, Principle Secretary and Chief Secretary, etc.

Question 17.
In America the judiciary of the Central Government and the judiciary of the states are distinct and separate. In India we have a judiciary in the centre and the states – Explain.
Answer:

1. In America the judiciary of the Central Government and that of states are distinct and separate.
2. Whereas we have a single judiciary in our country.
3. Our judiciary is integrated which is formed with the Supreme Court, all High Courts and other courts.
4. We have one jurisdiction and providing remedies in all cases under civil, criminal and constitutional laws.

Question 18.
How were the ideas of Seth and Draft Committee similar or different?
Answer:

1. The ideas of Seth and Draft Committee were different.
2. He argues that members of CA were not elected by Adult Franchise.
3. He says that our Constitution ignores the centrality of villages.
4. He opposes Centralization of power as it leads to totalitarian power.
5. He desires the decentralization of power to a large extent.
6. He believes centralization of power by law leads to Fascism.

Question 19.
Find out what form of autonomy is now being made available to villages after the 73rd amendment of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. Villages were provided with the autonomy of forming Grampanchayat.
2. Now they are self administered units.
3. State Governments shall ensure that direct elections to all seats of Panchayat are conducted.
4. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion to their population and for women reservation seats are not less 1/3 of the total seats.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 244

Question 20.
Observe the newspaper cutting and answer the following question. What Hems can you read on this page?
Answer:

1. This was the first page of ‘The Statesman’ newspaper of January 26th 1950.
2. Nehru stated that India emerged as a republic.
3. Nehru called for unity and tolerance.
4. Soekarno congratulated Indian MPsforthe birth of the republic.
5. The preamble of our Constitution is printed.
6. Photo of Nehru who was signing on the cabinet assembly was also printed.
7. “Today’s programme in Calcutta” was also printed.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 245

Question 21.
What are the differences of opinion that are being raised in the above debate (‘Debate on Fundamental Rights’ on Page 243 in Textbook)?
Answer:

1. The above discussion is about the abolition of untouchability to provide equality as fundamental rights
2. Some say untouchability is not a disease itself, but the symptom of disease of caste system.
3. So caste system is to abolished.
4. Untouchability means different things to different people. So it should be defined clearly.
5. Unable to come to a conclusion on definition, it was left for future law makers.

Question 22.
If you were given the choice to participate in the debate, what solution would you suggest?
Answer:
If I have a chance to participate in the debate about untouchability, I will suggest untouchability is a crime however it is in any form in the society. It creates harmess to right to equality. So we should uproot casteism from our society which is main responsible to the untouchability.

Question 23.
Do you think it was a good idea to leave the term undefined in the Constitution? Give reasons for your argument.
Answer:
It was good idea to leave the term “Untouchability” in undefined manner in the Constitution. Because, the word untouchability has different meanings in different places.
So when we are going to use the word ‘untouchability’, we should be in clear manner.
That’s why Article 17 (untouchability is a crime), what says it is correct.

Question 24.
Do you agree with the view that the Constitution should have put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability? How do you think it could have been done ?
Answer:

1. It would be better if the Constitution had put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability.
2. Caste system is so deep rooted that to end all the aspects of it may not be that easy.
3. But austere efforts and stern action against the practicers of caste system would end it.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 246

Question 25.
What are the examples and explanations you can identify with basic features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

Basic features of our constitution	Examples and explanations
1. Form of Government	1. We have a democratic and parliamentary form of government.
2. Unitary but federal	2. Central governments are supreme but states are autonomous in their fields.
3. Supremacy of the constitution	3. Supremacy of the Constitution is the character of unitary form of government.
4. Sovereignty of the nations	4. We are free in our internal and external affairs.
5. Provision for justice and welfare state	5. We determine to establish welfare state and provide justice to all people without any discri­mination.

 

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 17 Changes Around Us Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Solutions 17th Lesson Changes Around Us

7th Class Science 17th Lesson Changes Around Us Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Why do we paint wooden doors and windows?
Answer:
We paint wooden doors and window to protect them from moisture, white ants and other insects.

Question 2.
Some deposits were observed in water preserved in Aluminium containers after two to three days. What could the deposit be? What is the reason for the formation of these deposits?
Answer:

1. When water was preserved in Aluminium containers some deposits were observed in the containers after two to three days.
2. This is because salts and minerals present in water form scales on the Aluminium containers.

Question 3.
When a candle is burnt, what type of changes take place? Give another example of a similar process.
Answer:

1. When a candle is burnt both physical and chemical changes take place.
2. Burning of candle giving heat and light and reducing its size is a chemical change.
3. The wax melted during burning again condenses to solid wax is a physical change.
4. Part of the candle burnt is a permanent change and it cannot be reversed.
5. Due to the burning of the candle, carbon dioxide and water vapour are produced.
   Examples:
   1) Burning of LPG in our kitchen.
   2) Liquid state of LPG in the cylinder is converted into a gaseous state when comes out This is a physical change.
   3) When LPG burns in air heat is produced, this is a chemical change.

Question 4.
How is an iron gate prevented from rusting?
Answer:

1. Iron gate when-exposed to moisture and air gets rusted.
2. To prevent rusting of Iron gates it should be painted with a paint.

Question 5.
Between coastal and dry land areas, where is rusting of iron objects faster? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal areas.
2. In coastal areas there is humidity in the atmosphere (water vapour is present in the air)
3. This water vapour is responsible for the rusting qf iron objects faster.
4. In dry land areas, the humidity in the atmosphere is relatively less.

Question 6.
Classify the changes involved in the following processes as Physical, Chemical or both.
a) Burning of Coal
b) Melting of Wax
c) Beating Aluminium to make Aluminium foil
d) Digestion of food
e) Boiling of Egg
f) Photosynthesis
g) Cutting of Wood
Answer:

Physical change	Chemical change
1) Melting of wax 2)  Beating Aluminium to make Aluminium foil 3)  Cutting of wood.	1)  Burning of coal 2)   Digestion of food 3)   Boiling of egg 4)   Photosynthesis.

Question 7.
Which of the following processes are chemical changes? Give reasons.
a) Making a Salt Solution.
b) Adding Hydrochloric Acid to Marble stone.
c) Evaporation of water.
d) Adding phenolphthalein indicator to acid solution.
e) Respiration
f) Ripening of a Mango
g) Breaking of Glass.
Answer:
Physical changes:
a) Making a salt solution
c) Evaporation of water
g) Breaking of glass
Chemical changes:
b) 1) Adding Hydrochloric acid to Marble stone.
2) New Substances are formed so it is a chemical change.
d) 1) Adding phenolpthalein indicator to acid solution.
2) Phenolpthalein indicator in acid solution is colourless.
3) It turns pink in basic solution.
4) This is a chemical change because there will be a structural change in phenolpthalein.
e) 1) Respiration is also a chemical change.
2) There will be exchange of gases in this process.
f) Ripening of a Mango: This is a chemical change. Ripening can not be reversed back.

Question 8.
Identify the incorrect statements among the following and rewrite them correctly.
a) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change.
b) Iron pipes coated with Zinc do not get rusted.
c) Setting of curd is a physical change.
d) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change.
e) Burning of Magnesium in air is a chemical change.
Answer:
a) 1) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change (Incorrect)
2) Formation of manure from leaves is a chemical change (correct)
b) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted (correct)
c) 1) Setting of curd is a physical change (Incorrect)
2) Setting of curd is a chemical change (correct)
d) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change (correct)
e) Burning of magnesium in air is a chemical change (correct)

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
a) The chemical name of vinegar is …………
b) Changes in which only ………… properties of a substance change are called physical changes.
c) Changes in which new substances are formed are called ………… changes.
d) Magnesium + Oxygen → …………
e) Copper Sulphate + Iron → …………
Answer:
a) Acetic acid
b) Physical
c) Chemical
d) Magnesium oxide
e) Iron sulphate + copper

Question 10.
Answer the following questions.
I) The gas we use in kitchen is in the form of liquid in the cylinder. When it comes out from the cylinder it becomes a gas (step-I) then it burns (step-II). Choose the correct statement from the following.
a. Only step – I is a chemical change.
b. Only step – II is a chemical change.
c. Both steps – I & II are chemical changes.
d. Both steps – I & II are physical changes.
Answer:
a) Step – I – is a physical change (not a chemical change)
b) Step – II – is a chemical change (It is correct)
c) Both steps I & II – are chemical changes.
This is not correct.
Step – I – Physical change and
Step – II – Chemical Change is correct.
d) Both steps I & II – are physical changes – This is not correct.
Step I – Physical change
Step II – Chemical change.

II) Bacteria digest animal waste and produce biogas (step – I). The biogas is then burnt as fuel (step – II). Choose the correct statement from the following.
a) Only step – I is a chemical change.
b) Only step – II is a chemical change.
c) Both steps – I & II are chemical changes.
d) Both steps – I & II are physical changes.
Answer:
a) 1) Only step – I is a chemical change This is not correct.
2) Both step – I and step – II are chemical changes – This is correct.
b) 1) Only step – II is a chemical change – This is not correct.
2) Both step – I and step – II are chemical changes – This is correct.
c) Both steps I & II – are chemical changes – This is correct.
d) 1) Both steps I & II – are physical changes – This is not correct.
2) Both steps I & II – are chemical changes – This is correct.

III) A piece of paper was cut into four pieces. What type of change occurred in the property of the paper?
A) Physical change B) Chemical change C) Both changes D) No change
Answer:
A) Physical change

IV) Aryan stretched a rubber band. What does it represent?
A) Chemical change B) Physical change C) Both changes D) No change
Answer:
B) Physical change

V) Which of the following changes are reversible or irreversible?
a) Rise of water from ground to the overhead tank …………
b) Setting of cement …………
c) Absorption of water by a sponge …………
d) Migration of birds …………
e) Rise in temperature during summer …………
Answer:
a) Rise of water from ground to the overhead tank is a reversible change.
b) Setting of cement is an irreversible change.
c) Absorption of water by a sponge is a reversible change.
d) Migration of birds is a reversible change.
e) Rise in temperature during summer is a reversible change.

Question 11.
Sudheer wants to make his vessels, which are made of Brass and copper, clean and shiny. What suggestions you would like to give him?
Answer:

1. Brass and copper vessels when exposed to air we find a greenish coat on them.
2. This greenish coat is formed when copper or brass reacts with oxygen and carbon dioxide present in air.
3. This coat protects copper from getting further corroded.
4. To keep them clean and shiny they must be used regularly washing them with cleaning powders.
5. In case if they are not used regularly grease on than to prevent direct contact of these metals with oxygen and water vapour in the air.

Question 12.
Does Anurag appreciate the changes in ripe mango as “How nice its colour and taste are” ? Give some examples of changes that makes you feel happy, or wonder.
Appreciate them in your own words.
Answer:

1. When mango ripens, the contents present in the fruit gives good taste. The change in colour indicates that the fruit is ripend.
2. Similar situations we experience with many fruits like banana, guava, papaya, pine apple … etc.
3. In fact fruits are a gift to human beings as they give instantaneous energy when eaten.
4. Nature is so kind to us to provide such ready made safe foods.

Question 13.
The changes like, chicks came out of eggs, blossoming flowers, etc. are very pretty to see. List out such type of changes around you which make to feel happy on observation.
Answer:

1. A cow giving birth to a calf
2. Plants producing vegetables
3. A new born baby trying to search for milk.
4. These are all wonderful changes we feel happy to observe in the nature.

Question 14.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 15.
Collect information on changes taking place in the food during the process of digestion. [From the school library/internet and display your observations on
the bulletin board].
Answer:
1. The digestion of food in human beings starts from mouth.
2. The digestive system of human being consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus.
Summary of the digestive enzymes of various glands with their secretions and/end products of digestion in man

Question 16.
Collect information on the process of artificial ripening of fruits in fruit markets and discuss whether it is useful or harmful.
Answer:

1. Calcium carbide is more commonly known as “masala” is used for the artificial ripening of fruits.
2. It is very harmful to health.
3. Calcium carbide is a carcinogenic agent.
4. The most important precaution to avoid eating such artificially ripened fruits is to go in for fruits and vegetables which are not unseasonal.
5. Always wash the vegetables and fruits properly before consuming them.

Question 17.
Ravi prepared carbon – dioxide using baking soda and vinegar. Carbon – dioxide changed lime water into milky white. Represent this experiment in a diagram with labelling.
Answer:

Question 18.
When you burn a piece of wood different changes take place. Analyse the following.
a) Predict possible changes and list them all.
b) Are there any physical changes among them?
c) How many forms of energy are released in the change?
d) What chemical changes do you notice? Explain briefly why these occur.
Answer:
a) During burning.

1. Heat is produced
2. Sound and light is also produced.
3. Wood turns into ash
4. Chemical change.

b) No physical changes are there in the list.
c) Heat energy, light energy, sound energy are produced.
d) Wood turns into carbon dioxide and ash.
(wood) carbon + (Air) Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + ash.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Identify at least ten food items that you consume and find out how far they have travelled from their place of production to reach your plate.
Many people have argued for localisation of food production rather than food travelling long distances. How is localisation of food connected to the environment ? Find out more about the localisation movement in food and organise a discussion and debate in the classroom.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why did the people of Jalsindhi village refuse to move out of the village?
Answer:

1. The people of Jalsindhi were asked to leave the place as it would be the first village in Madhya Pradesh to be submerged by Sardar Sarovar dam.
2. They have lived there for generations, cleared the forests, worshipped Gods, improved the soil, domesticated animals and settled in villages.
3. In hard times they went to the forest and used its produce.
4. They live with their clan, their relatives.
5. They are all alike and they share a common understanding.
6. Their village gods were all there.
7. The land in Gujarat was not acceptable to them.
8. The compensation to be given by Madhya Pradesh government was not acceptable to them.
9. They were born from the belly of the Narmada and they were not afraid to die in her lap.
10. That’s why they were not ready to leave their village.

Question 3.
“This is the land of our forefathers. We have a right to it. If this is lost, then we will only get spades and pickaxes, nothing else ” says Bava Mahalia. Can you explain the statement?
Answer:

1. Bava Mahaliya belonged to Jalsindhi, a village on the banks of river Narmada.
2. When government decided to construct Sardar Sarovar dam, it would be the first village in Madhya Pradesh to be submerged.
3. They lived there for generations.
4. Their ancestors cleared the forest, worshipped Gods, improved the soil, domesticated the animals and settled in villages.
5. They had flowing water of the river Narmada and fodder in the forest.
6. In hard times they depended on forest produce.
7. Their children played on the banks of the river Narmada.
8. They were all alike there and shared a common understanding.
9. Thus, they say that was their forefathers’ land and they won’t leave it. They will try to protect it by hook or crook.

Question 4.
“Last, but not the least, the key to the environmental problem lies in changing lifestyles that will minimise waste and pollution.”
(i) What are the various ways in which our lifestyles affect the environment? Use examples from your own context to explain.
Answer:

1. There are various ways in which our lifestyles affect the environment.
2. Nowadays people are using polythene covers as carry bags for almost every household chore.
3. After usage they are thrown into waste.
4. It takes many years for them to completely decay into land.
5. Everyone is using vehicles to travel, they emit carbon monoxide and a few other gases which cause damage to environment.
6. The usage of air-conditioners and refrigerators is also increasing, the gases emitted by them cause the destruction or holes to ozone layer.
7. Thus, our lifestyle is the key to environmental problems.
8. So we need to change our lifestyle and minimize the waste and reduce the pollution.

(ii) Find out about the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Answer:

1. The problems of garbage and emissions are dealt In i
2. The garbage is divided into dry waste and wet waste and thus channelized to be used In production of electricity.
3. Much research is underway in waste management.
4. United Nations organs are working on the emission of gases and their management.
5. Euro standards were set up and the production of vehicles also was made compatible.
6. In many places conversion from the usage of petroleum or diesel to Natural Gas Compressed (CNG) was also advocated.
7. Making products that are more durable, repairable, re-usable and recyclable would help out down on the amount of waste being created.
8. Encouraging people and business to re-use goods via charity shops or other re-use networks would help boost markets for second hand items.

Question 5.
Rapid extraction of minerals and other natural resources would adversely impact the future development prospects. Do you agree?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be deploted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may Induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 6.
Why do you think the effects of ‘climate change’ may be felt by all countries?
Answer:
Many global issues are climate-related, including basic needs such as food, water, health and shelter.
Changes in climate may threaten these needs with increased temperatures, rise of sea level, changes in precipitation, etc. Climate change also threatens key natural resources, affecting water and food security.
So conflicts, mass migrations, health Impacts and environmental stresses happened.
So, I think the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries.

Question 7.
Should the average temperature of the earth be treated as a natural resource for all people?
Answer:

1. The average temperature of the earth should be treated as a natural resource for all people.
2. The complete radiation of the heat received by the sun Is important.
3. If the CO₂ proportion in the atmosphere Increases, then less heat will be radiated.
4. This causes an increase in global temperatures called Global Warming.
5. So the average temperature of the earth is treated as natural resource for all people.
6. People can use this temperature for different types of solar energy operated equipment.

(OR)

Yes, the average temperature of the earth can be treated as a natural resource for all people. Taking the advantage of this renewable resource in the form of solar energy, people can reduce their dependency on non – renewable sources like coal, petroleum etc.

Question 8.
What are the lessons to be drawn from the alternate PDS initiative at Zaheerabad mandal in Telangana?
Answer:

1. Many lessons can be drawn from the alternate PDS initiative of Zaheerabad mandal In Telangana.
2. We have to reverse the dependence on crops like wheat and rice.
3. We can adapt to crops like millets.
4. Millets are hardy crops and nutritious.
5. Community can cultivate and start community grain banks.
6. Manage local grain and ensure food security in the village.

Question 9.
“Environment is crucially important for the lives and livelihoods of the local communities and the lifestyles of local communities are harmonious with the environment.” Explain.
Answer:

1. For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of people is very strong.
2. Access to environment serves their needs like food, firewood, fodder, commercially valuable articles, etc.
3. They lose out all if they are displaced.
4. The environment is denuded of its rich biodiversity and rich traditional knowledge.
5. With It they can make good contributions to environment when it is endangered.
6. So, environment is crucially important for the lives and livelihoods of the local communities.
7. The lifestyle of local communities also should be in harmony with the environment.

10th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 159 & 160

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graphs and figures.
Graph: Distribution of households in India based on annual income (2010 survey)


Answer:
Graph 1 shows the distribution of households in India based on annual income. It gives the details of rich people, middle class, below middle class and poor people. We can see a lot of difference in terms of inequality. There are 135 million households with annual income Rs. 1.5 lakhs, 71 million households with income between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakhs, 31 million households with income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakhs whereas 3 million households are there with annual income above Rs. 17 lakhs.
Graph 2 depicts that the total wealth held by Billionaires. When compared to 1996 and 2004, the total wealth by Billionaires had an enormous increase in 2011.
Graph 3 shows an increase in the number of Billionaires. There were 3 billionaires in 1996, 9 billionaires in 2004 but the number of billionaires was 56 in 2011 which shows an enormous increase between 2004 and 2011.

1. The figures show the living conditions of the rich and the poor. The rich are getting richer and richer whereas the poor are getting poorer and poorer.
2. The rich are leading comfortable lives and the poor are living in pitiable conditions without even basic amenities.
3. People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of opportunities.
4. On the other hand, there are many people who have not shared the benefits.
5. Such wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 161

Question 2.
Revisit the class IX chapters on Indian Agriculture and industry.
How have they discussed issues of disparity and distribution and access to resources in these two contexts?
Answer:

1. There are disparities in cultivating various crops and areas under such crop cultivation.
2. The land distribution was not equitable, more land was concentrated in the hands of large farmers and landlords.
3. Small landholdings were there for many small and marginal farmers.
4. There were irrigation facilities for only 40% of the total land cultivated.
5. When it comes to Industries, we lack in sophisticated technologies and in the adaption of them.
6. The capital required did not meet through mobilization and expansions of industries were not in large scale.
7. There is shortage of skilled labourers and the wages paid were also low.
8. Post globalisation era, changed these situations to some extent of improvement.

Question 3.
Identify how the idea of development has been contested through problems of the environment.
Answer:

1. The Idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The ground water levels fell rapidly and ground water recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialization has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.
5. Industrialization has resulted in disruption of climate.
6. Economic development focussed narrowly on GDP springs from its neglect of the environment.
7. Environmental resources have been used up and damaged to an unprecedented extent.
8. There occurred long-term damages to the environment.

Question 4.
What kind of environmental problems did the spread of ‘green revolution’ create? What lesson does this have for the future?
Answer:

1. The ‘Green Revolution’ has brought in several environmental imbalances.
2. The High Yielding Variety seeds usage required plenty of water.
3. The number of tubewells were increased over the years, the groundwater level fell rapidly which meant that less groundwater is available for future use.
4. Green Revolution resulted in a loss of soil fertility.
5. The soil was deprived of the normal production of micro-organisms.
6. Chemical fertilizers polluted groundwater, rivers, lakes, etc.
7. Thus, it resulted in ever-increasing costs for farmers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 162

Question 5.
Why do you think has the modern method of lifting water proved to be unsustainable?
Answer:

1. The modern method of lifting water has proved to be unsustainable.
2. Initially, there was relief from drudgery, and lifting of water with pumps was easy.
3. With the lifting of groundwater by electric and motor pumps, the water table started going down.
4. Nearly 1/3 of the country is pumping out groundwater than what goes in as recharge.
5. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 mts during the past 20 years.
6. Groundwaters are also becoming unsafe and being contaminated by chemical industrial waste.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 164

Question 6.
The environment is also called ‘natural capital’. Recall the definition of capital from Chapter 9. Why do you think the environment is called natural capital?
Answer:

1. Capital from chapter 9 defines as the money needed to meet the inputs of agriculture and the raw materials for production.
2. They also included factors of production like land, labour on which money is to be spent.
3. Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production processes.
4. All the sectors of economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees i.e., environment’s source function.
5. Thus, we can say that environment is natural capital.

Question 7.
Why should water be considered as common property?
Answer:

1. Water is available to us through the nature.
2. We can have access to it from different sources like underground water, canals, tanks and rivers, etc.
3. It is a compulsory part of living.
4. Thus it is common for all and is called common property.
5. We shall have it and retain it for the future generations.
6. We have used up it and this extra use is causing a concern of future availability.
7. Underground waters are to be recharged and we should see that they are not contaminated.
8. For a better quality of life to everyone, water is necessary. So water is considered as common property.

Question 8.
Why was it considered necessary to go to court to stop the use of endosulfan?
Answer:

1. In 1976, to protect cashew crop the government sprayed the pesticide endosulfan by helicopter over 15,000 acres of land in Kasaragod in the northen part of Kerala.
2. The air, water and entire environment was suffused with the pesticide.
3. Caused serious health problems to local people, especially agricultural labourers.
4. At least 5,000 people died and for countless life became miserable.
5. So, it was necessary to go to court to stop the use of endosulfan.
6. In recent years, the use of endosulfan was banned by court order.

Question 9.
The court order banning the use of endosulfan argued that the pesticide violated the Right to Life (Article 21 of the Constitution). Can you describe how use of endosulfan had violated people’s Right to Life?
Answer:

1. The Constitution gaurantees Right to Life under Article 21 of it.
2. It states that every individual has the right to lead life which is secured.
3. But the spraying of pesticide, endosulfan claimed the lives of 5,000 people.
4. Apart from this it has caused cancer and deformities which made life worse than death.
5. The treatment was continued for 25 years.
6. Thus, the use of endosulfan had violated people’s Right to Life.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 167

Question 10.
“In the chapter ideas on Development, we read that what is development for one might not be development for another”. Use Bava Mahaiiya’s letter to explain this statement.
Answer:

1. Bava Mahaliya in his letter brings out different ideas of development.
2. The idea that the government took was different from him.
3. Government says their lands were not hospitable but they say they are satisfied with living there.
4. As government calls them, they say that they own houses and have prosperous agriculture.
5. They have traditional knowledge of every tree and herb and shrub, which would be lost if they are to be dislocated.
6. They say they pool together and construct a house in one day and are living alike with sharing a common understanding.
7. Thus, we can say ‘what is development for one might not be development for another’.

Question 11.
Create a table identifying the current aspects of living and changes that will occur if the tribal people are re-settled in a different state on the following aspects:
Food habits; Farming; Finance; Relation with forest; Religious practices; House making; Social relations.
Answer:

Question 12.
How is the loss of biodiversity being expressed in the letter?
Answer:

1. The loss of biodiversity is expressed in different ways in the letter.
2. The forest will be submerged and cannot be seen.
3. The various trees, shrubs and herbs are not seen and their traditional knowledge will be forgotten.
4. Many different kinds of crops that were not grown outside the forest will not be cultivated.
5. Channels made from streams will be washed away.
6. Thus, the loss of biodiversity was discussed.

Question 13.
For the tribal people livelihood, cultural practices and social relations are deeply connected to the local environment. Can you explain?
Answer:

1. They get their livelihood from local cultivation of own seeds, manure from livestock.
2. For irrigation water they make channels from stream in the local environment.
3. They live with their clan, their relatives and their kin.
4. All of them pool together to any individual’s work needs.
5. Their village gods were all there and their ancestors memorial stones were there.
6. People come from all over to celebrate their festivals.
7. All of them go to market where the youth choose their spouses.
8. Thus, tribal people’s livelihood, cultural practices and social relations are deeply connected to the local government.

Question 14.
Do you think that the people of Jalsindhi village are food secure in their present location?
Answer:

1. I think the people of Jalsindhi village are not food secure in their present location.
2. As far as the various crops they grew, nothing insecure of food.
3. They eat the leaves of forest trees like hegva, mahia, amli, etc. It does not refer to food security.
4. In times of famine they are survived by eating roots and tubers which is not food secure.
5. When they fall sick, their medicine was leaves, roots and bark from forest, this is also not
   food secure.

Question 15.
If you lived in the above situation, how would you have responded to the demand for resettlement?
Answer:

1. If I lived in the above situation, I would have accepted the demand for resettlement.
2. At the place of resettlement, one may get schooling to their children.
3. In place of tribal medicine treatments governments provide with public health.
4. The food taken there may at times prove to be health hazardous.
5. Government pay provide with alternate land to practice modern agriculture, etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 168

Question 16. Observe the following figure.
Write your caption in the context of the environment.
Answer:
FOR BETTER FUTURE – SAVE THE NATURE
Man is overusing natural resources indiscriminately
Creating severe problems ecologically
For our future generations we should work collectively
To conserve these invaluable resources judiciously
And take measures that are eco-friendly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 169

Question 17.
You have read about the protests against the Kudankulam nuclear power plant in the Chapter on Ideas of Development. Can you interpret the protest in view of what you have read here?
Answer:

1. Kudankulam was a peaceful village in Tamil Nadu.
2. Most people from there depend on fishing for livelihood.
3. With the setting up Kudankulam nuclear power plant all of them have to vacate that place.
4. They lost their livelihood.
5. Not only they have allayed the fears of the accidents in Nuclear plants.
6. A recent accident jn Nuclear plant in Japan created a havoc in the minds of people.
7. They have protested on large scale.

Question 18.
“Environment protection is not just crucial for those communities directly affected but for all of us.” Explain with a few examples.
Answer:

1. Climate change affects all countries and people, some may be more than the others.
2. Even a country is trying to reduce emission of greenhouse gases, its environment would continue to deteriorate if other countries do not regulate their emissions.
3. As more and more ground water is pumped out through electric and motor power pumps the water tables deplete.
4. In 59% of the districts of India, water from hand pumps and wells are unsafe for drinking.
5. Thus, environment protection is not just crucial for those communities directly affected but for ail of us.

Question 19.
Revisit the class VIII chapters on Mines and Minerals in the context of Andhra Pradesh. What issues of conflict emerge between industrialists and people living in regions of minerals?
Answer:

1. People living in regions of minerals face cutting down of forests, destroying fields and habitations, creating large pits and mounds.
2. Nearby rivers and water sources are polluted.
3. This results in people leaving the land like that as the older use of land cannot be continued.
4. Even people who live nearby face problems created by mining.
5. Uncontrolled mining by the private companies far in excess of the permits given to them and disregarded safety measures.
6. Minerals taken by private companies without paying royalty to the government- thus people do not get anything.

Question 20.
There has been rapid increase in the extraction of minerals for domestic use and for exports to other countries since liberalisation and globalisation of Indian economy. Using figures from the table here substantiate the observation.
Answer:

1. The extraction of Bauxite is raised from 6108 thousand tonnes in 1997-98 to 15250 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
2. The extraction of Coal is raised from 297000 in 1997-98 to 493000 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
3. The extraction of Iron ore is raised from 75723 in 1997-1998 to 225544 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
4. The extraction of Chromite is raised from 1515 thousand and tonnes in 1997-1998 to 3976 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.

Question 21.
What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Such rapid growth in mining would have a negative impact on the environment as well as at the human cost.
2. Mines are dug deep, so the layers of earth become weak.
3. They may cause landslides, avalanches, earthquakes, etc.
4. Most of the water is used in the process of digging and later process also.
5. Post liberalisation era brought private people (companies) into mining activities.
6. Accidents may occur, tunnel may fall down, or get flooded with water or there can be fire and suffocation due to gases – these dangers may be faced in mining.
7. With the motto of earning profits, these companies do not take proper measures of safety.
8. Thus, there may be many human losses in rapid extractions of minerals.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 170

Question 22.
Observe the following picture.
Write your caption in the context of development.
Answer:
On the name of development, man is causing nature’s destruction, So for the flora and fauna where is the protection ?

Project work

You have read about composting in the context of organic farming. Here is a simple method that you can try out in your school and home.

• Take a large size container and make several holes for water drainage.
• Layer it with coconut fibres for drainage.
• Cover it with a thin layer of soil.
• Add vegetable wastes in a layer.
• Add another layer of soil.
• Again add vegetable wastes in a layer.
• Cover with soil.
• After one week, introduce earthworms in it.
• After decomposition, use the soil to make a small garden with plants of your choice.

Answer:
Self Activity.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 16 Forest: Our Life Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Solutions 16th Lesson Forest: Our Life

7th Class Science 16th Lesson Forest: Our Life Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
How can you say forest is a habitat for people?
Answer:

1. Forests have been a home of people from ancient times.
2. In various forest areas of Andhra Pradesh, we find people still living there and making it their home.
3. They usually live in places in the forest where water is available.
4. These people, aadivasis, never harm the forest in any way.
5. They never cut green trees for fuelwood and for domestic purposes. They collect only dry wood.
6. They also hunt only small animals like lizards and rabbits for their food.
7. While collecting tubers that they eat, they leave a part of them in the soil for the plants to grow again.
8. They earn money by selling forest products in the weekend markets (santha)

Question 2.
What variations do we see in forest types?
Answer:
1) There are two types of forests. They are:
a) Forest of hot and humid areas. (Equatorial forests)
b) Forest of cold areas (Alpine forests)

Equatorial forests	Alpine forests
1) These forests have green trees of all types.	1) These forests have mostly ice and plants that grow in cold atmosphere.
2) The climate in these forests is hot and humid.	2) The climate in these forests is cold.
3) We find different types of trees like teak, sal, neem, tamarind, amla, soap nuts etc.	3) These forests consists of alpine trees and thorny bushes.

Question 3.
How do we depend on forests?
Answer:

1. Forests keep the surroundings cool.
2. We get different varieties of timber from forests.
3. We get honey, tamarind, bamboo from the forests.
4. Forests provide us the rains, fresh air and fresh water.
5. We get medicinal plants from the forest.
6. The forests help us in getting food, shelter and clothing.

Question 4.
How can you say forests are lungs of our earth?
Answer:

1. Forests take up a large amount of Carbon dioxide and some other harmful particles
   and gases and keep the air clean.
2. They serve as lungs of our earth.

Question 5.
List the things that we use in our daily life which are made from wood.
Answer:
We use in our daily life the following which are made of wood.

1. Windows
2. Doors
3. Tables
4. Chairs
5. Stands
6. Bench
7. Cot
8. Cradle
9. Sofa
10. Almirah
11. Counter
12. Cup – Board etc.

Question 6.
What is deforestation? How can it be stopped?
Answer:

1. Deforestation is cutting down forests for replacement of industries or for timber or for other economic needs, croplands etc.
2. People destroy the forests for their own economic purposes. For example, earning by selling trees and thus excessive cutting down of trees or deforestation is taking place.
3. Deforestation can be stopped by the following steps.
   a) The forest officials should make good efforts with voluntary organisations to save forests.
   b) People should be continuously educated about the adverse effects of deforestation.
   c) Plantation of trees should be encouraged.

Question 7.
This is not a forest product.
A) Soap nut B) Plywood C) Matchstick D) Kerosene
Answer:
D) Kerosene

Question 8.
If you want to develop social forestry in your village which type of plants would you like to grow. Why?
Answer:
1) If we want to develop social forestry in our village, we would like to grow the following plants.

1. Bamboo
2. Karaka
3. Rose wood
4. Nallamadi
5. Tamarind
6. Usiri
7. Jafra etc.

Question 9.
Collect the pictures of forest products and stick them in your scrap book.
Answer:
The student can prepare the scrapbook.

Question 10.
Write a note on livelihood of forest tribes of our state.
Answer:

1. Tribals like ‘Chenchu’ are living in the forests of our state.
2. The forest tribes, walk through the forests for nearly 30 km. every day and has thorough knowledge of forest, its flora, fauna and birds with in a radius of around 15 km.
3. They collect various food products like soap nuts, honey, tamarind, bamboo etc and sell them’ in Santha (a weekend market) and purchase materials like clothes etc.
4. They also collect medicinal plants from the forest for which they are well known through- out the state.
5. These people never cut green trees for fuel wood and for domestic purposes.
6. They also hunt only small animals like lizards and rabbits for their food.
7. While collecting tubers, that they eat, they leave part of them in the soil for the plants to grow again.
8. They have very little needs and happily go about their daily lives.

Question 11.
Collect some songs / stories / poems about conservation of trees.
Answer:
Poem: 1
See the leaves that fall from trees.
Watch then fall to ground with grace.
Carried by the winds of nature.
They never stay in just one place.
Poem: 2
See the leaves that fall from trees.
They grow from branches nice and quick.
A seasons when they live their life.
Full and short poisoned sick.

Question 12.
We can see animals not only in the forests but also in the Zoo. Write some similarities and differences between the conditions in which animals are found in the zoo and the forest.
Answer:
a) Similarities:

1. Both the animals in the forest and in the zoo appear in the same way.
2. They continue their food habits.
3. The nature of these animals do not change.
4. They give birth to the off spring.

b) Differences:

1. The animals in the forest feel independence. The animals in the zoo do not feel it.
2. The animals in the forest struggle to get their food. The animals in the zoo get their food in fixed times without any effort.
3. There is difference in the conceivement of forest animals and zoo animals. Zoo animals are facing inconvenience.
4. Forest animals can wander freely where as zoo animals cannot wander freely. This has an effect on their Biological system.

Question 13.
Charita said “forest is good habitat” How can you support her?
Answer:

1. By harboring greater variety of plants the forest provides greater opportunities for food and habitat for the herbivores.
2. Larger number of herbivores means increased availability of food for a variety of carnivores.
3. The wide variety of animals help the forests to regenerate and grow.
4. Forests provide habitat to a wide variety of plants and animals.

Question 14.
Draw or collect pictures of forests. Discuss with your friends. Write about fate of forests in your state and what steps you would take to conserve them.
Answer:
The student can collect pictures of forests available.
The fate of Forests:

1. In many parts of our country, the deforestation has been on a large scale and the consequences are being faced by men.
2. Flood situations, drought, soil erosion, land slides etc. are very common problems due to deforestation.
3. People are clearing forest land for cultivation, construction of houses, roads, factories and dams.
4. Extinction of many animals and living organism result of this deforestation.

Steps for conservation:

1. We must make efforts to save forests by planting plants like Karaka, Rosewood, Nallamadi, Usiri etc.
2. We should conserve soil moisture by making bunds along edges of plantation areas, digging trenches etc.
3. We should see that no one harms trees.
4. We should Start growing forests once again.

Question 15.
Find out about state of forests in India and write a brief report on it.
Answer:

1. In our country the area of the forests is decreasing due to deforestation.
2. This has already shown its effect on our environment.
3. Several types of organisms already disappeared due to this deforestation in our ‘ country.
4. There are forests only on 19.3% of the geographical area of our country.
5. Forests play an important role in the maintenance of ecological balance.
6. Conservation of forests is the need of the hour in our country.

Question 16.
Plant a tree on your birthday or during any celebration in the family.
Answer:
Every student, parent, teacher, and citizen should follow this suggestion.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Make a table and show how different groups, and individuals in India responded to World War II. What dilemmas were faced by these groups?
Answer:

Groups/Individuals	Response to World War-ll
Congress	1. Demanded a national government immediately. 2. Should they help the British? – dilemma 3. Opposed to Fascist conquering of sovereign nations.
Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad in 1940	1. As the president of INC decided to start Individual Satyagrahas.
Jawaharlal Nehru	1. Against Fascist countries – to join the British.
Subhash Chandra Bose	1. To defeat British to seek the help of Japan and Germany. 2. Formed INA to fight British. 3. Fought for 3 years.
Mahatma Gandhi	1. Gave a mantra ‘Do or Die’. 2. Mass struggle of ‘Quit India’ movement.

Question 2.
Given the brutal manner in which particular communities like Jews and others were treated in Germany, do you think it would have been morally right to support Germany or Japan?
Answer:

1. Hitler propagated Nazism in Germany.
2. They killed lakhs of Jews.
3. Even though Japan is a small country in Asia, has been competing with powerful European nations and started colonialism in the name of Pan Asianism.
4. So, morally it is not right to support Germany or Japan.

Question 3.
Make a list of various reasons for the Partition of the country.
(OR)
Write a short note on various consequences of partition of India.
Answer:

1. The Muslim League thought of reserved seats for Muslims, where they are the majority.
2. Congress accepted this logic, so, from 1909 separate electorates were implemented.
3. League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity to the needs of Muslims.
4. The fears of League were fueled by British ‘Divide and Rule Policy’.
5. League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separation.
6. When Cabinet Mission recommended India was to be united, League opposed it.
7. They asked people to come out on the streets and riots and violence and thousands of people were dead.
8. So it was inevitable for the partition of India.

Question 4.
What were the different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised before Partition?
Answer:

1. Before the Partition there were different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised.
2. There were too many organizations like the Muslim League, Congress, Hindu Maha Jana Sabha, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, etc. in function in India.
3. There were separate electorates for Muslims both provincial assemblies and in central assembly.
4. In 1946, Muslim League won all 30 seats in the Centre and 442 out of 509 seats in the provinces.
5. It had got more than 86% of the Muslim votes.
6. In 1946 the Congress swept the general constituencies, capturing over 91% of the non-Muslim vote.

Question 5.
How did British colonialists practise their ‘divide and rule’ policy in India? How was it similar or different from what you have studied about Nigeria? (OR)
How did the British implement “Divide and rule” policy in India ?
Answer:

1. The British colonialists practised their Divide and Rule Policy in India.
2. They encouraged Muslims to set up a separate party Muslim League in 1906.
3. They set separate electorate for Muslims from 1909.
4. They gave communal electorate to Sikhs also in 1932.
5. They also extended separate electorate to Dalits.
6. Thus, all the time they wanted to weaken the hold of Congress on people, which is fighting hard against them for Independence.

Comparison :
In Nigeria, in 1939 the British separated the Yoruba and Igbo regions into Western and Eastern Nigeria and encouraged competition and conflict between the three major tribal groups so as to be able to “divide and rule” the country.
(OR)

1. In the Indian context, the basic truth is that the British did rule and, they did try to divide opposition.
2. Divide and rule was seen in the following actions :
   a) Partition of Bengal
   b) Encouraging formation of Muslim League,
   c) Separate electorates for Muslims and for SC.
3. The idea that ‘Divide and Rule’ was such a set and evil strategy that it actively, logically led on to partition of our country.
4. To solve the minority question, the British imperialists, implementing their policy of divide and rule, separated the continent into a Hindu and a Muslim state.

Question 6.
What were the different ways in which religion was used in politics before Partition? (Or)
Trace out role of religion before the Partition of India.
Answer:

1. Religion played a crucial role in politics before Partition.
2. To weaken Congress’s hold over the people, the British vigorously followed ‘Divide and Rule’ policy.
3. So with support and encouragement of British, Muslim League for Muslims was started.
4. Separate electorate and reserved seats for Muslims were there from 1909.
5. Hindu Maha Sabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh wished to unite all Hindus overcoming caste divisions.
6. As minorities, Muslims made a demand to carve out a new state from regions where they were majorities.
7. The League created an impression that Congress was basically a Hindu party.
8. There were riots broke out and several thousand people dead after Cabinet Mission plan was rejected.

Question 7.
How were workers and peasants mobilised during the last years of freedom struggle? (Or)
“Peasants were also restless during British rule.” Give your opinion.
Answer:

1. On Feb. 22,1946,3 lakh mill workers put down their tools in Bombay and fought violently for two days.
2. Small and poor peasants agitated in Bengal for 2/3 of the crop for them instead of 1/2 crop then.
3. This was called ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by Provincial Kisan Sabha.
4. In Telangana farmers opposed land owners and demanded their debts to be cancelled.
5. They also demanded that bonded labour should be stopped and land be distributed to those who worked on it.
6. Peasants took up arms to fight against the rulers and their armies.
7. Armed revolt of peasants took place in Travancore in Punnapra-Vayalar.

Question 8.
How did Partition affect the lives of ordinary people? What was the political response to mass migration following Partition?
(OR)
Read the following paragraph and answer the question given below.
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.
Comment on the conditions that the people had to face on both sides of the newly drawn border with the creation of Pakistan.
Answer:

1. They felt anger and hatred against each other for being forced to move out of their homes, villages and cities.
2. Around 1-5 crore people both Hindus and Muslims were displaced.
3. They were killed, looted and burnt.
4. Between 2 to 5 lakh both Hindus and Muslims were killed.
5. They became refugees, lived in relief camps and hospitals, moved out in trains to find new homes.
6. Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood.
7. The Congress now passed a resolution on the rights of minorities.
8. Thus, while the nation was celebrating its first independence day, the father of the nation was on fasting.

Question 9.
Integration of various Princely states into the new Indian nation was a challenging task. Discuss.
(OR)
How were the princely states integrated?
(OR)
“Integration of various princely state in newly independent India was a challenging task”.
Answer:

1. At the time of withdrawal of British from India, there were around 550 princely states in Indian territory.
2. They become independent after the British rule.
3. They were asked by the British to decide if they wanted to join India, Pakistan or remain independent.
4. In Hyderabad and Travancore peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling Zamindars.
5. Sardar Vallabhai Patel was given charge of this matter of merging Princely states into Indian Union in July 1947.
6. He began discussing with princes the necessity to join India.
7. All Princely States agreed to join Indian Union except Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.
8. In Hyderabad and Junagadh, the rulers were Muslims and majority of population were Hindus, rulers want to join Pakistan people want to Join India, a conflict.
9. In Kashmirthe ruler was a Hindu and majority population were Muslims, so a difficulty in consensus.
10. Thus it was difficult, but thr^e states were also made to join in the next two years.
11. Junagadh was merged after conducting referendum.
12. Kashmir was merged after receiving a letter from the ruler.
13. But Hyderabad was merged after a police action.
14. With great efforts of Patel, this challenging task was completed by merging these states.

(OR)

1. The 550 princely states were given freedom to decide their future. The ordinary people did not want princely states to continue.
2. They started movements and revolts.
3. Guided by the masterful diplomacy of Sardar Patel, the home minister, most of them acceded to India.
4. However, the Nawab of Junagadh, the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maharaja of Jammu & Kashmir did not accept to unite with India.
5. Sardar Patel made it clear that if they do not join India, the army would have to be sent to complete the process of unification.
6. With the military action on these, the work of integration of princely states had been completed.

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 218

Question 1.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 ?
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British parliament.
2. According to this right to vote was given to a small section of population.
3. Winning Prime Minister should work under the supervision of a British Governor.
4. Indians made a pledge to have complete swaraj in the Lahore session of INC in 1929.
5. So, they may not be greatful to British, but they grabbed the opportunity with eagerness.
6. It is our country, so we need to elect our representatives.

Question 2.
Do you think the rise of Hitler was such a big threat to the freedom of humanity that Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British and concentrated on the fight for a free world ?
Answer:

1. The rise of Hitler was a big threat to the freedom of humanity.
2. He believes in his ‘Nordic’ racial supremacy.
3. He was the root cause of the deaths of lakhs of Jews.
4. He has the attitude of vengeance. He also hates Communism.
5. Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British.
6. Indians should have concentrated on the fight for a free world.

Question 3.
According to you, what would be the reasons for and against supporting the British in World War II?
Answer:
Reason for supporting the British:

1. Most congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini, and the ideology of fascism.
2. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations.
3. So India had no other choice it was better to support the British.

Reasons for against the British:

1. It is vindicative that they are showing double standards.
2. On one side they say they are protecting sovereign nations and on the other, they occupied India.
3. They did not even consult Indians before announcing that India would support them.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 219

Question 4.
Do you think Congress could have taken some other steps to protest against the attitude of the British?
Answer:

1. A difficult question arose before the Congress leaders.
2. Should they support the British in fighting a war against Germany?
3. The Congress was torn in its mind over this question.
4. The British were willing to give India Dominion Status.
5. Congress wanted a promise of full freedom.
6. The Congress was upset with the British and walked out of the provincial governments.
7. There was no other alternative.

Question 5.
Why did the British not make the promise and win the support of the Indians? After all, in 1939 only a promise was being asked for ? Discuss together in class.
Answer:

1. During the Second World War the British intended to have the support of Indians.
2. But Indians demanded full freedom after the War, at least a promise to that effect.
3. It was hard for the British to accept that they will really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.
5. With this they implied that congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
6. They also implied that congress may be Ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 6.
When ministers resign, who continues to conduct the day to day affairs of governance ?
Answer:
When ministers resign, now, the government officials continue to conduct the day to day affairs of governance.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 220

Question 7.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
“Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure ; the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended. No major protest was launched.”
Imagine what would happen if Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this point of time ? Would it make the fight for freedom stronger?
Answer:

1. If Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this time, the British would severely punish our leaders and imprison them.
2. It would not make the fight form freedom stronger.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 221

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of addressing the concerns of minorities. Why is it felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities ?
Answer:

1. The traditional notion of democracy has always upheld the voice of the majority over the minority.
2. So it is the fundamental importance that the minority is protected against discrimination and exploitation.
3. Basically India is a democratic state. In any democracy there is always a danger that the interest of majority conflicts with the interest of minorities. It may not be also.
4. If there is such a conflict, it is the interest of majority which will override the interest of the minority even if it happens to an unjust interest.
5. So it is felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities.

Question 9.
Separate electorate was one method to protect minority interests. Can you think of some other methods that can be helpful for this purpose? For example, would it help if there was a rule that a non Muslim member of a council must consult the Muslim population of his/her constituency before voting on an issue that concerned them? When would such a method work and under what conditions would it fail to be effective ?
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution paved a way – ‘reservations’ to the minorities. It is a wonderful solution for the problems of minorities.
2. It would not help.
3. Such a method would work in small village panchayats. In minorities also there may be difference of opinion.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 223

Question 10.
How would people assess the possible benefits from the politics of Muslim League? Would they have any doubts? What kind of questions will they have? Discuss.
Answer:

1. League was able to convince the Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation.
2. Peasants could think of a state where Hindu Zamindars and Moneylenders did not exploit them.
3. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there.
4. There would be greater religious freedom.
5. Muslims had the fears of Hindu domination.
6. Their doubt was that it is difficult to protect their interests in an Indian Government.
7. i) What about their future in Independent India ?
   ii) How would be their conditions as minorities ? etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 224

Question 11.
Why did the Japanese allow Bose to recruit soldiers whom they had imprisoned?
Answer:

1. Japan and Southeast Asia were major refuges for Indian nationalists living in exile before the start of World War-II.
2. Japan has sent an intelligence mission to gain support from the Indian movement.
3. These missions were successful in establishing contacts with indian nationalists in exile supporting the establishment and organisation of the indian Independence league.
4. At the outbreak of World War – II, in Southeast Asia, 70,000 Indian troups were stationed in Malaya and later imprisoned by Japan after the fall of Malasia and Singapore.
5. From these prisoners of war, the first Indian National Army was formed and received considerable Japanese aid and support.
6. In 1943 the Japanese invited Bose to lead the Indian Nationalist Movement in East Asia.
7. Bose accepted and reached Japan and took the lead.

Question 12.
Why did the Indian soldiers join INA?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, they were soldiers in the British Army.
2. They were captured by the Japanese when the British were defeated in Burma and Malaya.
3. They were prisoners of war.
4. Bose convinced Japan to allow them to form an Army.
5. This army would fight alongside of Japan and against the British.
6. The soldiers joined Indian National Army with patriotism and national consciousness.

Question 13.
Why were Indian soldiers not scared of losing the war and falling into the hands of the British? What would the British do to them ?
Answer:

1. The Indian soldiers felt very proud to fight for the country, so they didn’t scare of losing the war and felling into the hands of the British.
2. They hope, that if the Britishers were defeated in the war we would get independence.
3. But in the war Indian army was defeated and punishments were imposed by British.

Question 14.
Review the period 1942-45. How can you say that the resistance of Indian people to the British rule had become more powerful than ever before?
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch ‘Quit India’ campaign in 1942.
2. Although he was jailed at once, young activists organised strikes all over the country.
3. Students^eft their colleges to go to jail.
4. Socialist resistance was very active.
5. Independent Governments were formed in several districts.
6. Bose waged war for 3 years with his INA against mighty British Army.
7. All the masses of the country were active against the British.
8. So we can say during 1942-45 resistance to British rule had become more powerful than ever before.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 225

Question 15.
Imagine the tragic turn of events and how these must have affected the lives of these people.
Answer:
The soldiers of INA were imprisoned and the British decided to punish them. A trial of INA soldiers was began – to court martial them for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.
Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trails proceeded.
In this popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness, the issue of Hindu-Muslim identity and separatist politics often became unimportant.

People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketing and hoarding. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 16.
What horror would the other Indians have felt at the thought that the INA soldiers who were like heroes to them were being tried and hanged as traitors by the British ?
Answer:

1. The INA soldiers were like heroes to other Indians.
2. They weret^ing tried and hanged as traitors by the British.
3. Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trials proceeded.
4. Nationalist consciousness was growing and separatist politics became unimportant.
5. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 226

Question 17.
Review the actions of ordinary masses in the country. What were they demanding ?
Answer:

1. On 18th February 1946, Royal INDIAN NAVY in Bombay came out from harbour on hunger strike.
2. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.
3. In 1946 the workers of factories and mills stoppages their work and demand for better wages and solving their problems.
4. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements.
5. In Bengal small and poor peasants who took land for rental purpose demanded that their share of harvest should be increased.
6. The Telangana farmers demanded that debts of farmers be written off, bonded labour be stopped and land be distributed to those who tilled it.

Question 18.
It was noted that religious divisions were not important in many of these mass movements mentioned above. What could be the reason for the unity of the people in these movements?
Answer:

1. Unrest, unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India.
2. Popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness did not allow separatist religious politics.
3. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.
4. All were taking part in movements unitedly.

Question 19.
What were the demands of the Muslim League that were not acceptable to the Congress? Do you agree with the reasons of the Congress ?
Answer:

1. League should have an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members of the Executive Council.
2. The separate nation of Pakistan to be carved out of Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan, Afghan and Kashmir.
3. These were the demands that were not acceptable to the Congress made by League.
4. Congress was correct as sizable Muslim representatives are there from Congress and other party like Unionist Party of Punjab.

Question 20.
According to you, what did the election results of 1946 indicate about public mood ?
Answer:

1. In 1946, elections were held for the Provincial Governments and Central Assembly.
2. Muslim League got more than 86% of Muslim votes.
3. Congress captured 91% of non-Muslim vote.
4. Public mood is vindicative that there is great hope in the Congress in non-Muslim people and, in Muslim League in Muslim people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 228

Question 21.
Newspaper report on Indian Independance. What different items can you identify in it ? Discuss.
Answer:

1. This was the first page of “The Statesman” Newspaper dated Friday, August 15,1947.
2. There is political freedom for the fifth of Human race as Two Dominions are born.
3. Nehru’s reply to Mr. Attlee that there will be close friendship with the Britain.
4. The excellency MnC. Rajagopalachari Sworn as first Governer of West Bengal.
5. We can see joyful sceffnes in Calcutta celebrations by Hindus and muslims.
6. First Cabinet of India begins to function headed by Pandit Nehru.
7. The meeting of Mahatma was listened without interruption.
8. And some ad like OMEGA watch is seen here.

 

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Solutions Chapter 15 Soil: Our Life Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Solutions 15th Lesson Soil: Our Life

7th Class Science 15th Lesson Soil: Our Life Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
How can you say soil is a precious resource? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Soil is a precious resource.
2. It is the basis for growth of plants.
3. It is habitat for micro organism, animals, reptiles etc.
4. Soil is used for various purposes.
5. Almost all the things in our surroundings directly or indirectly depend on soil.

Question 2.
Which type of soil is suitable for growing cotton?
Answer:

1. Black soil is suitable for growing cotton.
2. Black soil is sticky in nature. It retains water for a long time.
3. This soil is suitable for the growth of cotton, sugarcane and paddy.

Question 3.
Give reasons for low percolation rate of clayey soil as compared to sandy soil.
Answer:

1. Clayey soil mainly contains clay.
2. Only small percentage of sand and slit are present in the clayey soil.
3. Humus is also present in this soil.
4. The components having good percolation capacity are not present in the clayey soil in the desired proportion.
5. So clayey soil has low percolation rate as compared to sandy soil.

Question 4.
Why is top soil more useful for us?
Answer:

1. The top organic layer of soil, made up mostly of leaf litter and humus (decomposed organic matter).
2. This layer is soft and porus. It contains nutrients which help in the growth of plants.
3. To soil is capable of retaining water in it.
4. It is a good habit at for many living organism.

Question 5.
What types of soils are there in your village? Make a. list of crops grown on these soils.
Answer:

1. Types of soil differ from village to village.
2. For guidance, a village in Krishna District is identified and details are given here.
3. There is black soil in the village. This soil can retain water for a long time.
4. Here farmers grow cotton, sugarcane and paddy.

Question 6.
If a farmer wants to improve water holding capacity of his sandy soil field what will you suggest to him?
Answer:

1. In sandy soi] the proportion of larger sized particle is more.
2. This soil will have more percolation rate.
3. If a good proportion of fine particles are added to the sandy soil, these fine particles hold the water.
4. So the farmer is advised to mix clay soil, having fine particles, with the sandy soil, to improve water holding capacity.

Question 7.
Do you think rotting vegetation and animal remains are important for the soil? In what way?
Answer:

1. Rotting vegetation and animal remains make up the humus rich in fertility.
2. They contain nutrients, natural manure which give good support to the growth of plants.

Question 8.
Roots of grasses hold soil particles. This conserves the
Answer:
Soil

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is correct? Correct the wrong one.

• Soil form from sand.
• Crop rotation protects soil fertility.
• Clay soil can’t hold water for a long time.
• Upper layers ofsoild are made of rocks.

Answer:

• Soil form from sand. …….. This, is wrong.
• Crop rotation protects soil fertility. ……… This is correct.
• Clay soil can’t hold water for a long time. …….. This is wrong.
• Upper layers of soild are made of rocks. …….. This is wrong.

Correct statements:
a) Soil is formed slowly as rock erodes into tiny pieces near the Earth’s surface.
b) Statement is correct.
c) Clay soil contains more fine particles. So its water holding capacity is more.
d) The upper layers of soil is made up of humus mixed with mineral particles.

Question 10.
Collect soil from your school ground. Try to make a ring with that soil. Write down your observations. What type of soil is it?
Answer:
The student can do it.
The soil changes from school to school. So the student with the help of the teacher can make the observations.

Question 11.
Take a boiling tube. Put two spoons of soil in it. Heat it on a spirit lamp and cover it.
a) Do this experiment and write your findings.
b) Do you find any moisture in the soil?
c) How can you say that?
Answer:
a)

1. This soil is found to contain minerals like salts of sodium, calcium and magnesium.
2. Traces of potassium chlorides, sulphates and carbonates are also observed.

b) I found moisture in the soil.
c)

1. As the boiling tube is covered, on the bottom of the cover, water drops condensed
   are found.
2. Due, to heat the moisture in the soil got evaporated and the vapours were condensed on the bottom of the cover.

Question 12.
Nazmal’s grandmother said “Human beings always depends on soil”. Is she correct? How do you support her statement?
Answer:

1. Nazmal’s grandmother is correct. I support her statement.
2. Soil is one of the most important natural resources. It supports the existence of living organisms.
3. We use soil for different purposes in our daily life. Almost all things in our surroundings directly or indirectly depend on soil.
4. The soil supports all plants, animals and microorganism.
5. We grow our food components in this soil.

Question 13.
“If you sow a seed in the soil it will give birth to a tiny plant which grows bigger and bigger. “It is the wonder of soil” Swetha said. How do you express your appreciation of soil like Swetha?
Answer:

1. Soil always support plants to grow.
2. It is plants that grow life long.
3. Soil supplies the necessary water and nutrients to the plant throughout its life period.
4. The plant makes it own food using, solar energy and the gases in the atmosphere with the help of water supplied by the soil.
5. It is one of the wonderful things we observe in the nature.

Question 14.
Write a dialogue between seed and soil and perform a small play using your own script.
Answer:
Soil : Who are you?
Seed : I am as eed.
Soil : What do you want from me?
Seed : I want water, minerals and nutrients.
Soil : Why do you need all those things?
Seed : As I want to germinate and become a big tree I need all those things.
Soil : Definitely I will supply all that things needed to you to become a big tree.

Question 15.
If you have a chance to talk with a soil scientist, what questions would you like to ask him about soil?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions.

1. How can you test the soil for its acidity?
2. Is it possible to change the basic nature of the soil?
3. How can the water holding capacity of the soil be increased at a low cost.
4. Suggest methods to improve the fertility of the soil.
5. What can be done with the black cotton soil when a building is to be constructed?
6. As black cotton soil yields, and the building cracks, suggest preventive measures for it.

Question 16.
Do you find any relationship between the chapters “Soil” and “Nutrition in plants”. What are they?
Answer:

1. Plants get their nutrition from the soil where they grow.
2. All plants cannot grow in every soil. We have to select plants to seed suited to the soil available.
3. By taking proper steps, we can improve the quality of soil for a good growth of the plants.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 11th Lesson Food Security Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson Food Security Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements.
(a) Increase in food production alone ensures food security.
Answer:
It is not sufficient that there is increase in food production. Everyone should be able to buy them for consumption.

(b) It is important to encourage mono-crop cultivation to ensure food security.
Answer:
Encouraging mono-crops will not serve the purpose of food secuirty. It makes the soil lose its ife&ility. Care must be taken to encourage farmers to go for agricultural diversification.

(c)
Low-calorie intake is higher among people with low income.
Answer:
It is correct.

(d) Legislations have an important role to play in ensuring food security.
Answer:
It is correct. Those legislations are needed to be executed in a heartful manner.

(e) PDS system could be used to address the issue of child nutrition.
Answer:
To address the issue of child nutrition PDS could be used. Anganwadis and Mid-day meals are. serving the needs of children. Their parents shall be made to have the purchasing power to sufficient food with secured access.

Question 2.
The consumption of calories has consistently ——– in rural areas. The average per capita calorie consumption in 2004-05 is ——– than the required calories. The minimum calorie consumption for persons living in urban areas is 2100 calories. The difference between actual calorie consumption in 2004-05 and the required calorie consumption in urban areas is ——–.
Answer:
(i) decreased
(ii) less
(iii) 300 calories

Question 3.
Supposing the foodgrain production has been affected in a particular year, because of a natural calamity. In what ways can the government ensure higher availability of foodgrains for the year?
Answer:

1. The food production has been affected in a particular year, because of natural calamity.
2. The government ensures higher availability of foodgrains for the year in different ways.
3. It could arrange from stocks with it.
4. It could arrange from imports i.e., increasing the amount of foodgrains compared to the exports.
5. Encouraging the farmers who suffered in calamity with waiver of taxes and providing free inputs.
6. Insuring the crops all the time by paying the premium by government itself.

Question 4.
Use an imaginary example from your context to describe the relationship between underweight
and access to food.
Answer:

1. There is some relationship between underweight and access to food.
2. If we have access to sufficient food with required calorific values, there is no question of underweight.
3. No one would have a lower weight if he/she had access to adequate food.
4. The purchasing power of people is also related with weight.
5. Madhavaiah and his family earns monthly Rs. 6000 and with a rented house and medication to parents, he can only afford less amount on food apart from educating his children.
6. Thus, all his family members do not consume sufficient calories food, which resulted in underweight.
7. They are even prone to diseases.

Question 5.
Analyse a week’s food habit of your family. Create a table to explain nutrition elements included in it.
Answer:

Question 6.
Describe the relationship between increase in food production and food security.
Answer:

1. Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.
2. The government creates conditions so that farmers are able to produce an increasing amount of foodgrains.
3. The necessary inputs to agriculture are to be provided in a judicious manner.
4. To expand the irrigation and water is to be made available to all.
5. It is not sufficient to produce food grains and other items.
6. Everyone should be able to buy them for consumption.

Question 7.
Give reasons to argue for the following statement “Public Distribution system can ensure better food security for people”.
(OR)
“Central and State Governments purchase one-third of food grains from farmers. Through different programmes, these food grains are distributed to people.”
Do you think that the public distribution system managed by the government is providing proper food security? Express your opinion in an elaborate manner.
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalise peoples’ Right to Food.
2. This food security bill covers nearly 70% of people of the country.
3. They will be given rice, wheat and millets at subsidised prices of Rs. 3. Rs. 2 and Rs. 1 respectively.
4. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains at subsidised price.
5. Among poor families, the poorest ones are entitled to 35 kilograms of foodgrains.
6. 75% of rural population and 50% of urban population will be covered under this scheme.
7. It will provide cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children between 1-6 years and mid-day meals to children of 6-14 years.
8. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy food grains. Thus, public food distribution can ensure better food security for people.

Question 8.
Below poster what indicates about food security.
Answer:
The above poster indicates :

1. Every night one in seven of us goes to bed with hungry.
2. We know that it doesn’t have to be happend in this way.
3. We wake up with this situation.
4. So food security is very important in our life.

Question 9.
Make similar posters about food security.
Answer:

10th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson Food Security InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 146

Question 1.
Examine the given graph and fill in the blanks.
The food grains production has grown over the period 1970-71 to ——–. Paddy production increased from about 40 million tonnes in 1970-71 to about ——– million tonnes in 2010-11. Another important food crop that witnessed rapid increase in production during this 40 years period was ——–. Compared to paddy and wheat the production of ——– did not increase during 1970-2011. This could be due to ——–.
Answer:
The food grains production has grown over the period of 1970-71 to 2010-11. Paddy production increased from about 40 million tonnes in 1970-71 to about 96 million tonnes in 2010-11. Another important food crop that witnessed rapid increase in production during this 40 years period was wheat. Compared to paddy and wheat the production of jowar did not increase during 1976-2011. This could be due to dry land agriculture.

Question 2.
Read again the section on “Land and other natural resources” In chapter 9, What are the possible ways of increasing production of crops from land?
Answer:

1. After going through “Land and other natural resources” in chapter 9, there are a few possible ways of increasing production of crops from land.
2. One way is to grow more than one crop on the same piece of land.
3. It is the most common way of increasing production from land.
4. The other way is to grow three different crops in a year due to the well-developed irrigation system.
5. Electric tubewells could irrigate much larger area of land easily.
6. Increasing the production with intensive use of natural resources like land and water.

(OR)
The possible ways of increasing production of crops from land.

1. Mechanization
2. High yield varieties, which were the basis of the green revolution.
3. Fertilizers
4. HW of seeds
5. Increased plant density.
6. Growing three different crops in a year due to the well developed irrigation system.
7. Electric tube wells could irrigate much larger area of land easily.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 147

Question 3.
Describe the per hectare yield of paddy and wheat by filling the following passage.
Two crops ——– and ——– always had low yield when compared with paddy and wheat. Yet both these crops have shown slow increase in yield in recent years.
Answer:
Two crops jowar and oil seeds always had low yield when compared with paddy and wheat. Yet both these crops have shown slow increase in yield in recent years.

Question 4.
Why should attention be given to increase the yield of jowar? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Jowar is the poor man’s food.
2. It is the third most important food crop ranking next to rice and wheat in both area and production.
3. It is a rainfed crop mostly grown in moist areas which hardly need irrigation.
4. Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar, followed by Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh.
5. Only half of the jowar crop area is being cultivated with High Yielding Varieties seeds.
6. As it does not need irrigation, use of HYVs can be increased, thus we should give attention to increase the yield of jowar.

(OR)

1. Jowar is a highly nutritious food.
2. To increase the availability of food grains, and food security.
3. Not necessary to use of pesticides, fertilizers and insecticides.
4. Even though where the water availability is very low this crop is also suitable.
5. Jowar has more demand in the market.

Question 5.
What factors have contributed to the high growth of paddy and wheat yields over a long period?
Answer:

1. Many factors have contributed to the growth of paddy and wheat yields over the long period.
2. The rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to the continuous increase in the yield levels.
3. Development of a dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells helped the growth in yieds of rice and wheat.
4. The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds under Green Revolution helped the growth in yields of rice and wheat.
5. They provide for larger amounts of grains as the stalks are short and a short period of maturity of the crop in most cases.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 148

Question 6.
Complete the following table.
Answer:

Question 7.
Based on your calculations, fill in the blanks:
The per person availability of food grains _____ (increased/decreased) between 1971 and 1991 but was _____ lower/higher) in 2011. This happened despite shown in population growth in recent decades. In the future, the government must ensure higher availability through _____.
Answer:
The per person availability of food grains increased between 1971 and 1991 but was lower in 2011. This happened despite slowdown in population growth in the recent decades. In future, the government must ensure higher availability through selling from its existing stocks.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 150

Question 8.
Underline words and sentences that deal with agricultural diversification and explain why are these essential for Indian farmers.
Answer:
Water development – technology – cash crops – vegetables – dairying – best pulse seeds – second crop – yields – a plan and government effort.

• The bank gave credit to them for water development.
• The technology is fairly good.
• They take more money from cash crops and it is vegetables all the way.
• A great thing that happened on the way was dairying.
• Farmers know the best pulse seeds come from Maharashtra.
• The second crop, if any, depending on the rains.
• Yields are low.
• Without a plan and government effort it would be a cruel joke to talk about diversification to them.

Question 9.
Write a description about agricultural diversification for your own village or any village that you know about.
Answer:
Velpur has most of the lands with black cotton soils. There are a few rainfed streams for irrigation water. Rice is cultivated as the primary crop. Cotton is cultivated as the second crop. The seeds for these crops are collected from corporate seed companies. Most of the villagers own few buffaloes. They are much interested in dairying. Some part of the land is used to keep grass which is to be used as the fodder to the cattle.
When there was a shortage of rainfall, the crops are damaged and they do not yield good crop. Along with cotton, chillies are also grown in large scale. People are taking up the works of agriculture with much of the usage of technology. A proper plan from the government and its efforts are enabling this village to experience the agricultural diversification.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 151

Question 10.
Recall the discussion on Public Distribution System in Class VIII. How is PDS related to food security of the people in the country ?
Answer:

1. PDS has played a crucial role in reaching food to everyone both in the rural and urban areas.
2. Around 1997, government decided that ration shops should cater mainly to the poor.
3. Governments buy foodgrains from farmers and supply these to the ration shops.
4. Ration shops keep stocks of foodgrains and these items are then sold to people.
5. Prices at the ration shops are meant to be lower than the prices in the market.
6. The government is trying to provide food to all.
7. The government stakes a lot of amount in purchasing food from farmers and wholesalers and selling them at subsidised prices.
8. Thus, PDS is thriving for food security of the people in the country.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and fill in the blanks.
Percentage Share of Purchases from PDS, rice and wheat, 2009-10.

(a) Fill in the blanks.
For all India, —— percent of peoples’ total consumption of rice and —— percent of peoples total consumption of wheat are purchased from the ration shops. This shows that people have to buy most of their foodgrain requirements from ——. However, there are several well-performing states like —— and ——. And some states like ——, ——, —— where PDS hardly seems to be fulfilling peoples’ needs for food grains.
Answer:
For all India, 39 percent of peoples’ total consumption of rice and 28 percent of people’s consumption of wheat are purchased from the ration shops. This shows that people have to buy most of their food grain requirements from market. However, there are several well-performing states like Tamil Nadu and combined Andhra Pradesh. And some states like Bihar, Rajasthan and Punjab where PDS hardly seems to be fulfilling peoples’ needs for food- grains.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 155

Question 12.
How can an effective Anganwadi center deal with such a situation for a locality? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Out of 7000 children, in the age group of 1 – 5 years, examined in the survey of NIN (National Institute of Nutrition) from many states in the country, 45% of children are underweight.
2. Their weight was less than what is expected by normal standards.
3. These children are in fact hungry and not getting adequate food.
4. Unless they are severely underweight it may not be easily visible or identifiable.
5. In such circumstances an effective anganwadi center in such locality would provide the children nutritious food.
6. Its teachers are supposed to go to every household where children are present and supply them this food.
7. Make their parents to know about the losses of sustained underweight of children and educate them to provide their children with nutritious food.

Question 13.
What overall conclusions can you draw from these statistics? Write a paragraph.

Answer:
When weight is plotted against age nearly 45% of children in the country are under weight. It means that they cannot study, work or perform physical activities. They do not grow as quickly as healthy children. Their immune system is weakened. When height is plotted against age 41% of children not up to the height they have to be. It seems their growth is affected and short for their age. They are difficult to cover this. When weight is plotted against height 21% children are not with weight they are supposed to be. With sufficient food they can cover this up.

Project work

Read the following poem, Aai. Can you write a poem relating to any aspect of food security?

Answer:
Some Quotes on Food Security: