Mahesh

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Handicrafts and Handlooms on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Handicrafts and Handlooms with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Shankavaram village is in ………….. district.
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Ananthapur
D) Prakasam
Answer:
D) Prakasam

Question 2.
………….. is craftwork that involves the use of wild date palm leaves.
A) Basket making
B) Handloom weaving
C) Pots making
D) Chairs making
Answer:
A) Basket making

Question 3.
…………… sarees are world-famous.
A) Dharmavaram silk
B) Gadwal
C) Mangalagiri
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Dharmavaram silk

Question 4.
Silk sarees are manufactured by following different tasks like dyeing of ……………
A) Panni
B) Katcha Pattu
C) Spendiling of yarn
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 5.
They get …………. per saree for the work.
A) Rs. 1300
B) Rs. 1100
C) Rs. 1000
D) Rs. 9000
Answer:
A) Rs. 1300

Question 6.
………… has the second largest number of handlooms in the country.
A) Assam
B) Delhi
C) Goa
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 7.
Venkatesu’s son Nagendra was engaged in weaving in the ……….. set up inside the house.
A) Chitkasu
B) Maggam
C) Panni
D) Acchu
Answer:
B) Maggam

Question 8.
Polaiah belongs to …………. tribal community.
A) Chenchu
B) Yanadi
C) Yerukala
D) Konda reddys
Answer:
C) Yerukala

Question 9.
Silkworms grow on …………. tree.
A) Babul
B) Mulberry
C) Tamarind
D) Olive
Answer:
B) Mulberry

Question 10.
Dharmavaram is located in ……….. district.
A) Anantapur
B) Khammam
C) Kurnool
D) Chittoor
Answer:
A) Anantapur

Question 11.
The work of Polaiah in the lesson.
A) Mat weaver
B) Basket weaver
C) Maggam weaver
D) Blacksmith
Answer:
B) Basket weaver

Question 12.
The persons who supply raw material to the workers and they took produced clothes are called as
A) handloom worker
B) house owner
C) master weavers
D) co-operative credit societies
Answer:
C) master weavers

Question 13.
Basket weaving is
A) knowledge-based
B) thought based
C) craftwork
D) very difficult
Answer:
C) craftwork

Question 14.
The profession of the Yerukala tribe
A) saree weaving
B) fortune-telling/sodhi
C) both A & B
D) basket weaving
Answer:
D) basket weaving

Question 15.
The languages in Yerukula Bhasha.
A) Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Kannada
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The local name of silk yarn is
A) Coloured pattu
B) Katcha pattu
C) Yarn
D) None
Answer:
B) Katcha pattu

Question 17.
Yeruka tribe speak
A) Hindi
B) Gandhari
C) Yerukula Basha
D) None
Answer:
C) Yerukula Basha

Question 18.
Recently saree that get patent right in India.
A) Ikkat
B) Kanchi
C) Dharmavaram
D) Mangalagiri
Answer:
C) Dharmavaram

Question 19.
Some of the merchants from ……… sale zari to the weavers of Dharmavaram.
A) Surat
B) Gujarat
C) Ahmed Nagar
D) Kolkata
Answer:
A) Surat

Question 20.
……….., …………. and ………… were used in process of weaving a saree
A) warp, wept, zari
B) wound on a bobbin
C) weaving
D) dyeing
Answer:
A) warp, wept, zari

Question 21.
………… is the yarn that goes from top to bottom and ………… is the yarn that go from left to right.
A) warp, weft
B) weft, warp
C) Maggam dying
D) None
Answer:
A) warp, weft

Question 22.
A saree requires approximately ……… to …….. days to complete.
A) 7 – 10
B) 4 – 8
C) 5 – 6
D) 6 – 7
Answer:
B) 4 – 8

Question 23.
The whole family has to work for 12-15 hours a day for nearly ………. days to weave 10 sarees.
A) 20-30
B) 30-40
C) 40-50
D) 50-60
Answer:
C) 40-50

Question 24.
The government should take this step to solve the problems of handloom workers.
A) encouraging capitalists
B) encouraging co-operative societies
C) encouraging factories
D) encouraging middlemen
Answer:
C) encouraging factories

Question 25.
……….. meters of long warp which can make 10 sarees at a time.
A) 80
B) 75
C) 90
D) 100
Answer:
B) 75

Question 26.
………. card is used for designing sarees.
A) state
B) board
C) playing
D) Jacquard
Answer:
D) Jacquard

Question 27.
Making the raw silk for warp and weft is known as
A) Maggam
B) Sappuri
C) Andugula
D) Kanchi
Answer:
B) Sappuri

Question 28.
……….. is a craftwork that involves the use of wild date palm leaves.
A) Post making
B) Handloom weaving
C) Basket making
D) Chairs making
Answer:
C) Basket making

Question 29.
What does the picture show?

A) Basket weaving
B) Weft making
C) Dyeing
D) Warp making
Answer:
A) Basket weaving

Question 30.
What does the picture show?

A) Warp making
B) Pitloom
C) Weaving
D) Dyeing
Answer:
A) Warp making

Question 31.
Uppada: East Godavari:: Ponduru: ………….
A) Neilore
B) Guntur
C) Srikakulam
D) Kalahasti
Answer:
C) Srikakulam

32. Find the correct statement.
1) Konaseema is famous for toys.
2) Machilipatnam is famous for Kalamkari.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 33.
Match the following :
A                                                         B
1. Musical instruments     [ ]      A) Vetapalem
2. Agarbathis                    [ ]      B) Srikalahasti
3. Bangles                         [ ]      C) Pithapuram
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
Answer:
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Question 34.
The basket maker’s family migrated from Shankavaram to Ongole. The reason is
A) He wants to leave his basket making profession
B) The demand for baskets had declined in native place
C) The raw material is cheaper than in his village
D) All the above
Answer:
B) The demand for baskets had declined in native place

Question 35.
Which of the following is a result of introducing Power looms and power mills in the textile industry?
A) Employment of weavers in handloom industry increased
B) Income of handloom weavers increased
C) Handloom industry declined
D) Production of Handloom sarees increased.
Answer:
C) Handloom industry declined

Question 36.
This Region is famous for the handloom industry in Andhra Pradesh
A) Dharmavaram
B) Vijayawada
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Tirupati
Answer:
A) Dharmavaram

Question 37.
In handlooms Andhra Pradesh stands in the place of
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
Answer:
A) Second

Question 38.
In handlooms, Jacquard Cards are used for
A) Reeling
B) Twisting
C) Designing
D) Dyeing
Answer:
C) Designing

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Africa on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Africa with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In respect of size, Africa stands
A) the largest
B) second-largest
C) the smallest
D) fourth
Answer:
B) second-largest

Question 2.
The largest sand desert in the world
A) Kalahari
B) Thar
C) Sahara
D) Patagonia
Answer:
C) Sahara

Question 3.
The ocean to the west of Africa
A) Indian ocean
B) Atlantic ocean
C) Southern ocean
D) Pacific ocean
Answer:
B) Atlantic ocean

Question 4.
River Nile rises at
A) Nyasa lake
B) Chad lake
C) Lake Victoria
D) Angel lake
Answer:
C) Lake Victoria

Question 5.
These winds cause very little rainfall in the south-west of Africa
A) Winds
B) West winds
C) Trade winds
D) Southeast winds
Answer:
B) West winds

Question 6.
………….. receives very scanty rainfall.
A) Thar desert
B) Sahara desert
C) Kalahari desert
D) Arabian desert
Answer:
B) Sahara desert

Question 7.
………….. were familiar only with the northern coastal regions of Africa.
A) Americans
B) Europeans
C) Dutches
D) The French
Answer:
B) Europeans

Question 8.
About years ago, Europeans began their attempt to reach India.
A) 600
B) 500
C) 400
D) 300
Answer:
B) 500

Question 9.
In the year 1498, a Portuguese sailor named ……………… went around the southern tip of Africa and reached India.
A) Vasco da Gama
B) Columbus
C) James Cook
D) Henry
Answer:
A) Vasco da Gama

Question 10.
What is the capital city of Egypt?
A) Cairo
B) Tripoli
C) Accra
D) Sudan
Answer:
A) Cairo

Question 11.
The biggest continent on the west side of India.
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) Antarctica
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 12.
The biggest mines of gold and diamonds are in this continent in the world
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) North America
D) South America
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 13.
The highest peak in Africa.
A) Mencken Lee
B) Everest
C) Kilimanjaro
D) Sahara
Answer:
C) Kilimanjaro

Question 14.
The biggest Tropical desert in the world is the ……….
A) Thar
B) Arabia
C) Sonar on
D) Sahara
Answer:
D) Sahara

Question 15.
The biggest lake in Africa.
A) Victoria
B) Nav
C) Superior
D) Bikal
Answer:
A) Victoria

Question 16.
The river flows through the Sahara desert.
A) Zambezi
B) Congo
C) Nile
D) Orange
Answer:
C) the Nile

Question 17.
The river originated from Victoria lake.
A) Zambezi
B) Nile
C) Congo
D) Orange
Answer:
B) the Nile

Question 18.
The Equator, Tropic of Cancer, and tropic of Capricorn run across this continent
A) Asia
B) North America
C) South America.
D) Africa
Answer:
D) Africa

Question 19.
The most tropical region in the world is on this continent.
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) North America
D) South America
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 20.
These zones south and north of the tropics experience summer as well as winter. They are called
A) Tropical regions
B) Temperate regions
C) Desert regions
D) Cold regions
Answer:
B) Temperate regions

Question 21.
The region with continuous rainfall throughout the year.
A) The Savanna region
B) The Equitorial region
C) The Subtropical region
D) The Polar region
Answer:
B) The Equitorial region

Question 22.
The hot desert in the southern part of Africa.
A) Kalahari desert
B) Thar desert
C) Sahara desert
D) Arabia desert
Answer:
A) Kalahari desert

Question 23.
The main occupation of the African people.
A) hunting
B) animal husbandry
C) agriculture
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 24.
Europeans were familiar only with the …………….. regions of Africa.
A) Northern coastal
B) Southern
C) Eastern
D) Western
Answer:
A) Northern coastal

Question 25.
The Indian and Arab traders knew about the ………….. region of Africa.
A) eastern coastal
B) western coastal
C) northern
D) southern
Answer:
A) eastern coastal

Question 26.
About 500 years ago, Europeans began their attempts to reach India by the sea route by going around
A) Australia
B) North America
C) South America
D) Africa
Answer:
D) Africa

Question 27.
Traversing the Atlantic Ocean, the sailors used.to stopover on the islands of
A) St. Madiera
B) the Azores
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 28.
In 1498, a Portuguese sailor named Vasco-da-Gama went around the southern tip of Africa and reached
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) America
Answer:
C) India

Question 29.
The century in which the Europeans were migrated to America.
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
Answer:
B) 16

Question 30.
The slave trade was started on this continent.
A) Africa
B) Europe
C) Asia
D) Australia
Answer:
A) Africa

Question 31.
After many fights, the slaves were declared free citizens in America in
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1880
Answer:
B) 1860

Question 32.
The Europeans exported African etc. on a very large scale to Europe.
A) timber
B) minerals
C) both A & B
D) machinery
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 33.
The ……….. mines in Southern Africa are still under the control of European companies.
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Both A & B
D) Coal
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
These priceless mines are in Zambia and Zimbabwe.
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Diamonds
D) Copper
Answer:
D) Copper

Question 35.
The agricultural products that are exported to Europe.
A) Tea
B) Coffee
C) Rubber, tobacco
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
Chocolates are made of these
A) Palm oil
B) Cocoa
C) Rubber
D) Chuing
Answer:
B) Cocoa

Question 37.
The Nigerians gather these products by crossing the Niger River.
A) Palm oil fruits
B) Palm oil seeds
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
The acting managers of palm oil plantations in Nigeria were the
A) Britishers
B) Local blacks
C) Nigerians
D) None
Answer:
A) Britishers

Question 39.
Nigeria got Independence from the British.
A) 1950
B) 1960
C) 1970
D) 1980
Answer:
B) 1960

Question 40.
This mineral is more in Africa.
A) coal
B) copper
C) tin
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
The main natural resource in Algeria.
A) Mineral oil/Petroleurrf
B) Mica
C) Asbestos
D) Limestone
Answer:
A) Mineral oil/Petroleurrf

Question 42.
The companies established control over the oil mining and refining in Nigeria.
A) French
B) Dutch
C) Britain
D) Spanish
Answer:
B) Dutch

Question 43.
Nigeria started exporting mineral oil in the year
A) 1950
B) 1958
C) 1960
D) 1964
Answer:
B) 1958

Question 44.
The regions in which the oil refineries were established in Nigeria.
A) Harcourt
B) Vari port
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
The largest desert in the world
A) Sahara
B) the Gobi
C) Thar
D) Patagonia
Answer:
A) Sahara

Question 46.
This is called as “Gift of Nile”
A) R. Congo
B) River Chad
C) River Nile
D) R. Niger
Answer:
C) River Nile

Question 47.
One has to cross ……………….. sea from Europe to reach North Africa?
A) the Atlantic Ocean
B) the Mediterranean
C) Arctic ocean
D) None
Answer:
B) the Mediterranean

Question 48.
The picture shows

A) Tamarind tree
B) Banyan tree
C) Palm tree
D) Boabab tree
Answer:
D) Boabab tree

Question 49.
African continent lies to the …………….. of India
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Answer:
C) West

Question 50.
Kimberly in South Africa is famous for
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Copper
D) Zinc
Answer:
B) Diamonds

Question 51.
Lake Victoria is one of the largest freshwater lakes in the World. Which of the following rivers originate from lake Victoria?
A) Volta
B) Nile
C) Congo
D) Niger
Answer:
B) the Nile

Question 52.
Human beings first evolved in which of the following continents?
A) North America
B) Africa
C) South America
D) Europe
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 53.
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
A) The Nile river crosses the Sahara Desert.
B) The Nile river originates near the Lake Victoria
C) The Nile River flows into the Indian Ocean
D) The Nile river has helped Egyptian civilization
Answer:
C) The Nile River flows into the Indian Ocean

Question 54.
The region lies between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn
A) Tropical Region
B) Tundra Region
C) Temperature Region
D) Taiga Region
Answer:
A) Tropical Region

Question 55.
The continent is called the cradle of the humankind
A) Asia
B) Antarctica
C) Africa
D) America
Answer:
C) Africa

Question 56.
Desert in Southern region of Africa is
A) Sahara
B) Kalahari
C) Atacama
D) Petagonia
Answer:
B) Kalahari

Question 57.
Kimberly is in South Africa is famous for ………..
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Copper
D) Silver
Answer:
B) Diamonds

Question 58.
The largest desert in the world:
A) Sahara
B) Kalahari
C) Thar
D) the Atacama
Answer:
A) Sahara

Question 59.
Which of the following played an important role in the development of the Egyptian civilization?
A) Niger River
B) Congo River
C) Nile River
D) River Volta
Answer:
C) Nile River

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Independent India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Independent India with Answers

Question 1.
This is NOT related to the first general elections in India.
A) Symbols were introduced.
B) Separate ballot boxes for each candidate.
C) Massive campaign to encourage the voters.
D) Electronic voting machines were used.
Answer:
D) Electronic voting machines were used.

Question 2.
Who started Five Year plan in India ?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Jawahar Lai Nehru
D) Deve Gowda
Answer:
C) Jawahar Lai Nehru

Question 3.
Match the following…………….
1) RajaHari Singh — a) Andhra Pradesh
2) Potti Sri Ramulu — b) Kashmir
3) V.P. Singh — c) B.PMandal Commission
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
Answer:
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Question 4.
Which of the following is true ?
A) The emergency was declared in 1975
B) Abolishing of privy purses done in 1971
C) The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
Arrange the following prime ministers in chronological order
1) Nehru
2) PV Narasimha Rao
3) Lai Bahadur Sastri
4) Indira Gandhi
A) 14,3,2
B) 1,3,4, 2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 4,3,2,1
Answer:
B) 1,3,4, 2

Question 6.
In 1971 general elections, ‘Garibi Hatao’, popular slogan was used by
A) Congress Party
B) Janata Dal Party
C) Communist Party
D) Janatha Party
Answer:
A) Congress Party

Question 7.
States Reorganisation Commission was set-up in ……………….
A) 1952
B) 1956
C) 1953
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1956

Question 8.
As per the States Reorganization Act of 1956 passed in Parliament, the number of states created is
A) 14 states
B) 25 states
C) 18 states
D) 29 states
Answer:
A) 14 states

Question 9.
‘Excluding the courts from election disputes’ was brought from this Constitutional Amendment in India.
A) 44th
B) 42nd
C) 41st
D) 45th
Answer:
B) 42nd

Question 10.
India had to face war with Pakistan in 1971 over this issue.
A) Border issue
B) Bangladesh issue
C) Kashmir issue
D) Punjab issue
Answer:
B) Bangladesh issue

Question 11.
Green Revolution is related with this
A) To increase milk production
B) To increase fisheries
C) To increase food production
D) To increase animal husbandry .
Answer:
C) To increase food production

Question 12.
“On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contra-dictions”. Who said these words ?
A) Gandhi
B) Nehru
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Ambedkar
Answer:
D) Ambedkar

Question 13.
To solve a problem of unrest or agitations, an ideal way for a Prime Minister is
A) to stand on his the personal belief
B) to accept majority agitators opinion
C) to act favouring the unity of the nation
D) to use army forces
Answer:
C) to act favouring the unity of the nation

Question 14.
Elections of 1952, 1957 and 1962 were won by
A) Congress Party
B) Independents
C) DMK
D) Socialist Party
Answer:
A) Congress Party

Question 15.
The first Prime Minister of Independent
A) B. R. Prasad
B) L. B. Shastri
C) M. K. Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 16.
Which had been active even during’ British rule and was attempting to bring together the Telugu speaking people in the Madras Presidency ?
A) AMS
B) Congress
C) TMS
D) DMK
Answer:
A) AMS

Question 17.
Meghalaya was created in December …
A) 1968
B) 1970
C) 1969
D) 1971
Answer:
C) 1969

Question 18.
Indira Gandhi used slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ in this general elections year
A) 1967
B) 1980
C) 1977
D) 1971
Answer:
D) 1971

Question 19.
Among the following, which is a successful programme regarding land reforms in India ?
A) Redistribution of land to the landless
B) Rich and powerful continued to control most of the land in rural areas
C) Zamindari system was abolished
D) Abolition of untouchability
Answer:
C) Zamindari system was abolished

Question 20.
Telugu Desam Party was started in
A) 1983
B) 1984
C) 1982
D) 1981
Answer:
C) 1982

Question 21.
Among the following, which is not the programme of Rajiv Gandhi Government?
A) Providing Local self governments a Constitutional status
B) Introduction of first budget towards a more liberalised system
C) Spread the network of telephonic communication in the country
D) Peace initiative in Punjab, Assom and Mizoram
Answer:
A) Providing Local self governments a Constitutional status

Question 22.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Second Prime Minister – Lai Bahadur Shastri
B) Green Revolution -1947
C) Emergency – Indira Gandhi
D) Second General Elections – 1957
Answer:
B) Green Revolution -1947

Question 23.
Political equality can be identified with
A) Right to get admission in any school
B) Right to enter any religious worship place
C) Principle of one person one vote
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Principle of one person one vote

Question 24.
After Independence what are the main
challenges before the leaders in our country?^
a) Maintain unity and integrity
b) Social and Economic transforming
c) Working of the democratic system
A) a and b
B) b and c
C) a and c
D) a, b, c
Answer:
D) a, b, c ,

Question 25.
Match the following:
Column -I — Column – II
i) Death of Potti Sriramulu — a) 1953
ii) SRC Act — b) 1964
iii) States Reorganisation Commission — c) 1952
iv) Death of Nehru — d) 1956
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
B) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
C) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
D) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
Answer:
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b

Question 26.
The State Reorganisation Act was passed in the year
A) 1947
B) 1986
C) 1956
D) 1970
Answer:
C) 1956

Question 27.
The correct order of Prime Ministers according to time line
A) Lai Bahadur Sastry, Indira Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Lai Bahadur Sastry
C) Lai Bahadur Sastry, Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru,’ Lai Bahadur . Sastry, Indira Gandhi
Answer:
D) Jawaharlal Nehru,’ Lai Bahadur . Sastry, Indira Gandhi

Question 28.
Potti Sriramulu fasted unto death for …………….. days.
A) 58 days
B) 50 days
C) 40 days
D) 25 days
Answer:
A) 58 days

Question 29.
The language which was not taken into account during the formation of linguistic states
A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) Kannada
D) Santhali
Answer:
D) Santhali

Question 30.
The Planning Commission was set up in the year ……………..
A) 1952
B) 1955
C) 1950
D) 1945
Answer:
C) 1950

Question 31.
The First Five Year plan focussed on
A) politics
B) agriculture
C) industry
D) sports
Answer:
B) agriculture

Question 32.
The Second Five Year plan focussed on
A) industries
B) population control
C) poverty alleviation
D) health facilities
Answer:
A) industries

Question 33.
The correct order of incidents
A) War with China, Lai Bahadur Sastry becoming the prime minister, Anti Hindi Agitation.
B) Arab – Israeli war, Bangladesh war, declaration of emergency in the country, death of Potti Sriramulu
C) Formation of Punjab, first elections in India, green revolution
D) Green revolution, first five year plan, Indira Gandhi becoming prime minister
Answer:
A) War with China, Lai Bahadur Sastry becoming the prime minister, Anti Hindi Agitation.

Question 34.
Find the wrong matching
A) Ranchi-Bihar
B) Ahmedabad – Gujarat .
C) Jalgaon – Maharashtra
D) Aligarh – Kerala
Answer:
D) Aligarh – Kerala

Question 35.
One of the following countries is not a supporter of NAM
A) Indonesia
B) USA
C) Egypt
D) Yugoslavia
Answer:
B) USA

Question 36.
Panchasheel is the agreement between India and
A) USA
B) China
C) Pakistan
D) USSR
Answer:
B) China

Question 37.
Jawaharlal Nehru died in the year
A) 1970
B) 1962
C) 1965
D) 1964
Answer:
D) 1964

Question 38.
The person who became the Prime Minister of India after Nehru
A) L.B. Shastri
B) Ambedkar
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
A) L.B. Shastri

Question 39.
In 1965 India had a war with
A) Srilanka
B) China
C) Nepal
D) Pakistan
Answer:
D) Pakistan

Question 40.
Lai Bahadhur Shastri died in the year
A) 1966
B) 1967
C) 1968
D) 1969
Answer:
A) 1966

Question 41.
Who won elections in East Pakistan in early 1970’s? ,
A) Sheik Abdullah
B) M.A Jinnah
C) MaulanaAzad
D) Mujibur Rehaman
Answer:
D) Mujibur Rehaman

Question 42.
Which of the following is not true with reference to the Green Revolution ?
A) It has raised the living standard of farmers all over India
B) HYV .seeds are used to increase production
C) It has led to the loss of soil fertility
D) It was introduced in late 1950’s
Answer:
D) It was introduced in late 1950’s

Question 43.
The JP movement was very prominent in
A) AP and Tamilnadu
B) Bihar and Gujarat
C) AP and Karnataka
D) Tamilnadu and Kerala
Answer:
B) Bihar and Gujarat

Question 44.
All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim conference led by …………………
A) Mujibur Rehaman
B) Muhammad Ali Zinna
C) Sheik Muhammad Abdullah
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Sheik Muhammad Abdullah

Question 45.
Kashmir has a greater autonomy provided in the Constitution in the form of ……………….
A) Article 356
B) Article 360
C) Article 56
D) Article 370
Answer:
D) Article 370

Question 46.
Bangladesh got independence in ………………
A) 1969
B) 1970
C) 1973
D) 1971
Answer:
D) 1971

Question 47.
Which of the following is correct regarding 42nd amendment?
1) Excluding the courts from election disputes
2) Strengthening the central govern – ment vis – a – vis the state government
3) Making the Judiciary subservient to Parliament .
4) Providing maximum protection from Judicial challenges to social and economic transformation
A) Only 1 is true
B) Only 1, 2 are true
C) Only 2 is true
D) 1,2,3,4 are true
Answer:
D) 1,2,3,4 are true

Question 48.
Addressing the problem of the rights of minorities was an important aspect of onr constitution. Which made the constitution to address this problem ?
A) The experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi army
B) The illiteracy in the minorities
D) The major population of them in the country
D) Bring the minorities, the richest section of the country.
Answer:
A) The experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi army

Question 49.
In Post Independent India the Prime Ministers order
A) Nehru – Indira Gandhi – Lai Bahadur Sashtri
B) Indira Gandhi – Nehru – Shastri
C) Nehru – Lai Bahadur Shahtri – Indira Gandhi
D) Nehru – Indira Gandhi- Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
C) Nehru – Lai Bahadur Shahtri – Indira Gandhi

Question 50.
Result of Emergency
A) Poverty removed
B) Umits on citizen’s rights
C) Ail political parties accepted
D) Right to speech
Answer:
B) Umits on citizen’s rights

Question 51.
Find oat the correct matching.
1) January 26 — a) Indo – China War
2) 1962 — b) Jammu Kashmir
3) Article 370 — c) Republic Day
4) K.M. Panikkar — d) State reorganisa¬
tion commission
A) c,b,d,a
B) b,c,a,d
C) c,a,b,d
D) a,b,c,d
Answer:
C) c,a,b,d

Question 52.
Who led opposition to Indira Gandhi?
A) Aijun Singh
B) N.D.Tiwari
C) Patel
D) Jaya Prakash Narayana
Answer:
D) Jaya Prakash Narayana

Question 53.
Who among the following was die successor of Nehru ?
A) Lai Bahadur Sastri
B) NeeJam Sanjeeva Reddy
C) Indira Gandhi
D) V.P. Singh
Answer:
A) Lai Bahadur Sastri

Question 54.
Whom of the following was Prime Minister of India in 1966 ?
A) Nehru
B) V.P.Singh
C) Charan Singh
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
D) Indira Gandhi

Question 55.
Which is not the achievement in the first 30 years of independent rule of India?
A) Establishment of a stable democracy
B) Bureaucratic neutrality in Indian politics
C) Balanced regional development in economic goals
D) Economic liberalisation policy
Answer:
D) Economic liberalisation policy

Question 56.
Operation Barga was launched by government.
A) Punjab
B) Haryana
C) Kerala
D) West Bengal
Answer:
D) West Bengal

Question 57.
The new organization introduced in India in the place of Planning Commission is
A) National Development Council
B) Commerical Aayog
C) Suraksha Yojana
D) NIB Aayog
Answer:
D) NIB Aayog

Question 58.
Who was not the member in SRC – 1953?
A) Fazl Ali
B) K.M.Panikkar
C) Madan Mohan
D) Hridaynath Kunzru
Answer:
C) Madan Mohan

Question 59.
The President of India at present is
A) Man Mohan Singh
B) Muraii Manohar Joshi
C) L.K.Adwani
D) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer:
D) Ram Nath Kovind

Question 60.
Fourth General Elections were held in the year
A) 1957
B) 1962
C) 1952
D) 1967
Answer:
D) 1967

Question 61.
The person who suceeded Lai Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister
A) JayaPrakash Narayana
B) Morarji Desai
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Shanthi Bhushan
Answer:
C) Indira Gandhi

Question 62.
Between 1947 and 1977, which election is called a land mark ?
A) 1952
B) 1957
C) 1967
D) 1962
Answer:
C) 1967

Question 63.
In 1967 the Congress party won
A) 284 seats
B) 320 seats
C) 300 seats
D) 360 seats
Answer:
A) 284 seats

Question 64.
M.G. Ramachandran belonged to
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Gujarat
Answer:
A) Tamil Nadu

Question 65.
The state of Punjab was formed in the year
A) 1976
B) 1966
C) 1970
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1966

Question 66.
In Maharashtra, the Shiva Sena mainly targeted
A) North Indians
B) North East Indians
C) Anglo Indians
D) South Indians
Answer:
D) South Indians

Question 67.
Sheikh Abdullah is a leader from
A) Pakistan
B) Kashmir
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
B) Kashmir

Question 68.
In 1947, Kashmir was being ruled by
A) Pakistan
B) British
C) Hari Singh
D) Nizams
Answer:
C) Hari Singh

Question 69.
The political party system in India is
A) Single party
B) Dual party
C) Multi party
D) No party system
Answer:
C) Multi party

Question 70.
The Pathans (Razakars) who started attacking western Kashmir were supported by
A) China
B) Afghanistan
C) Pakistan
D) Iran
Answer:
C) Pakistan

Question 71.
Movement for Independence to Kashmir started from
A) 1950’s
B) 1990’s
C) 1940’s
D) 1980’s
Answer:
B) 1990’s

Question 72.
Bangladesh was once upon a time called
A) Hindustan
B) Burma
C) East Pakistan
D) Asia Minor
Answer:
C) East Pakistan

Question 73.
The leader who won the elections in Bangladesh but was arrested and taken to Pakistan
A) Khaledazia
B) Bhutto
C) Sheikh Mujibur Rehaman
D) Sheikh Hasina
Answer:
C) Sheikh Mujibur Rehaman

Question 74.
OU prices in India rose, due to the Arab – Israeli War in
A) 1980
B) 1967
C) 1973
D) 1950
Answer:
C) 1973

Question 75.
The people of Pepsu village solved the election problem by …………………
A) Separate elections for Women
B) Came before a day and spent the night dancing and singing
C) Conduction of Wrestling match
D) None
Answer:
C) Conduction of Wrestling match

Question 76.
Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha, according to the decision of the High court of
A) Hyderabad
B) Bombay
C) Allahabad
D) Madras
Answer:
C) Allahabad

Question 77.
The 42 nd Constitutional Amendment was passed in the year
A) 1986
B) 1976
C) 1956
D) 1966
Answer:
B) 1976

Question 78.
Green Revolution means
A) Increasing the production of food grains
B) Growing tress
C) Decreasing the production of food grains
D) Deforestation
Answer:
A) Increasing the production of food grains

Question 79.
Which of the following states opposed Hindi?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 80.
Which of the article is used to impose Presidential rule in the states?
A) 336
B) 356
C) 346
D) 366
Answer:
B) 356

Question 81.
Among the following, which is related to Nehru Government ?
A) 42nd constitutional amendment
B) abolition of Zamindari system
C) nationalisation of many private banks
D) abolishing of princely pensions
Answer:
B) abolition of Zamindari system

Question 82.
Which of the following is incorrect ?
A) The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture
B) Our country followed Non-Aligned Movement
C) Bangladesh was once part of China
D) The Congress party went to 1972 elections with the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’
Answer:
C) Bangladesh was once part of China

Question 83.
Who succeeded Mr. Naseem Zaidi as Chief Election Commissioner ?
A) T.N. Seshan
B) B.R.Ambedkar
C) Achal Kumar Jyothi
D) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer:
C) Achal Kumar Jyothi

Question 84.
On the basis of ………….. report in 1956 the States Reorganisation Act was passed in parliament
A) Linguistic Commission
B) Jawahar Commission
C) States Reorganisation Commission
D) Muslim League Commission
Answer:
C) States Reorganisation Commission

Question 85.
Among the following, which is not related to 1967 Elections ?
A) There were gainers and losers from the economic development process in the elections
B) Changed the pattern of political competition.
C) This showed the country was moving towards a competitive multi party system
D) The Congress party secured highest majority to form the government
Answer:
D) The Congress party secured highest majority to form the government

Question 86.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Green Revolution -1964 to 1967
B) Arab – Israeli War – 1972
C) Bangladesh War -1971
D) The left turn programme – Indira Gandhi
Answer:
B) Arab – Israeli War – 1972

Question 87.
The party which began Anti-Hindi agitation
A) Socialist party
B) DMK party
C) Janata party
D) Communist party
Answer:
B) DMK party

Question 88.
In which year’s of general election did Janata party defeat Congress?
A) 1977
B) 1972
C) 1980
D)1982
Answer:
A) 1977

Question 89.
India had war with in 1971 to liberate Bangladesh.
A) China
B) Pakistan
C) Srilanka
D) Japan
Answer:
B) Pakistan

Question 90.
Emergency was announced by..
A) MorarjiDesai
B) Charan Singh
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Babu Jagjeevan Rao
Answer:
C) Indira Gandhi

Question 91.
Emergency is imposed to
A) provide freedom of expression.
B) ensure eradication of poverty.
C) be accepted by all political parties.
D) restrict people’s rights.
Answer:
D) restrict people’s rights.

Question 92.
Who among the following persons were not inspired by the Communism?
A) M.N.Roy
B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Tagore
Answer:
B) Subhash Chandra Bose

Question 93.
The political party that dpminated in the first thirty years of independent India was ……………..
A) Jana Sangh Party.
B) Bharatiya Janata Party.
C) Indian National Congress.
D) Communist Party of India.
Answer:
C) Indian National Congress.

Question 94.
Match the following.
Group -A — Group – B
1. Shiv Sena — a) Tamilnadu
2. DMK — b) Maharashtra
3. The National Conference — c) Jammu and Kashmir
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
Answer:
B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Question 95.
Match the following.
Group -A — Group – B
1. JaiJawan JaiKisan — a) Nehru
2. Garibi Hatao — b) Lai Bahadur Sastry
3. Panchasheel Policy — c) Indira Gandhi
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Answer:
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Question 96.
The new state created in Assom in 1969, out of the tribal districts is ………………..
A) M.N. Roy
B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Tagore
Answer:
C) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 97.
Planning, for Nehru was …………………..
A) ‘Good economics’ only
B) ‘Good economics’ as well as ‘Good politics’
C) ‘Good politics’only
D) A difficult task
Answer:
B) ‘Good economics’ as well as ‘Good politics’

Look at the map and answer the questions 102 to 104.

Question 98.
The Madras state in the map is identified as ……………… at preset.

A) Karnataka
B) Tamilnadu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Hyderabad State
Asnwer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 99.
Hyderabad state has the regions of ……………………
A) Karnataka, Andhra, Tamilnadu
B) Andhra, Hyderabad, Madras
C) Karnataka, Kerala, Maharastra
D) Karnataka, Telangana, Maharastra
Answer:
D) Karnataka, Telangana, Maharastra

Question 100.
The map shows the position of states ………………..
A) at the time of Independence
B) Present time
C) Before reorganisation of states
D) During British rule
Answer:
C) Before reorganisation of states

Question 101.
The dot given in the map represents …………………
A) Delhi
B) Chennai
C) Kolkata
D) Visakhapatnam

Answer:
B) Chennai

Question 102.
The Election Commission came up with the idea of having symbols in elections to overcome the problem of ……………….
A) poverty
B) unemployment
C) illiteracy
D) corruption
Answer:
C) illiteracy

Question 103.
Smt. Indira Gandhi was the successful women Prime minister who got great acceptence for ………………………
i) She introduced poverty eradicating programmes.
ii) She took bold steps in introducing socialistic reforms.
iii) She had command over party and government.
iv) She introduced emergency in the country.
A) iv
B) i, ii, iii
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
B) i, ii, iii

Question 104.
Which of the following slogans does NOT relate to the right to vote ?
A) Right to vote is the most powerful weapon of a voter
B) Vote for note
C) Vote for corrupt person – damage to the nation
D) Don’t get bribed – cast your vote freely
Answer:
B) Vote for note

Study the following pie – graph, which shows the seat share of various political parties in 1962 elections and answer the questions 105 & 106

Question 105.
Which party formed the government ?
A) Communist party
B) Independent and others
C) Indian National Congress
D) Jana sangh
Answer:
C) Indian National Congress

Question 106.
‘Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam’ party belongs to which state ?
A) Kerala
B) Tamilnadu
C) West Bengal
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 107.
Switzerland women got right to vote in
A) 1973
B) 1972
C) 1971
D) 1974
Answer:
B) 1972

Question 108.
Which of the following statements is wrongly written ?
A) States Reorganisation Committee (SRC) members were Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabhbhai Patel.
B) In 1956, the States Reorganisation Act was passed in Parliament;
C) Linguistic Reorganisation didn’t weaken India.
D) As per SRC report, 14 States and 6 Union territories were created.
Answer:
A) States Reorganisation Committee (SRC) members were Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabhbhai Patel.

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Europe on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Europe with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The place of Europe in area all the continents
A) Biggest
B) Smallest
C) Second Biggest
D) Second smallest
Answer:
D) Second smallest

Question 2.
The biggest country in Europe
A) Austria
B) the United Kingdom
C) Russia
D) Vatican City
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 3.
The eastern boundary of Europe
A) the Ural Mountains
B) Alps Mountains
C) the Caspian Sea
D) Pyrenees Mountains
Answer:
A) the Ural Mountains

Question 4.
Columbus set out with three ships in ………. to cross the Atlantic Ocean.
A) 1592
B) 1492
C) 1692
D) 1392
Answer:
B) 1492

Question 5.
…………. Sea is called the middle of the world.
A) Black
B) Caspian
C) the Volga
D) the Mediterranean
Answer:
D) the Mediterranean

Question 6.
In fact, Asia and Europe are one continuous landmass. This landmass is therefore called
A) U.K.
B) C.I.S
C) Eurasia
D) Asia – Europe
Answer:
C) Eurasia

Question 7.
………… countries are the southernmost countries in Europe.
A) Black sea
B) Caspian sea
C) North sea
D) The Mediterranean
Answer:
D) The Mediterranean

Question 8.
In India ……… % land is cultivable.
A) 50
B) 55
C) 40
D) 45
Answer:
B) 55

Question 9.
…………. are used for making wine.
A) Oranges
B) Grapes
C) Pineapples
D) Sugar beet
Answer:
B) Grapes

Question 10.
Europeans did not know of ………. before Columbus.
A) Australia
B) India
C) America
D) Austria
Answer:
C) America

Question 11.
The ocean that separates Europe and North America
A) The Pacific Ocean
B) The Atlantic Ocean
C) The Arctic Ocean
D) The Indian Ocean
Answer:
B) The Atlantic Ocean

Question 12.
The sea route was explored from Europe to America ………… years ago.
A) 400 years
B) 450 years
C) 500 years
D) 550 years
Answer:
C) 500 years

Question 13.
These continents were not known to the Europeans in the early period.
A) America
B) Australia
C) Both A & B
D) Asia
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
The continents were known to the Europeans in the early period.
A) Europe
B) Asia
C) The northern regions of Africa
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 15.
These two continents have one continuous landmass so-called Eurasia.
A) Africa
B) Europe
C) Asia
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 16
The important ranges in Europe.
A) The Rockey Mountains
B) The Himalaya Mountains
C) The Alps Mountains
D) The Andes Mountains
Answer:
C) The Alps Mountains

Question 17.
The Caucasus mountains are between these two oceans
A) The Caspian and Black sea
B) The Red and Mediterranean seas
C) The Atlantic and Pacific oceans
D) The White and Yellow seas
Answer:
A) The Caspian and Black sea

Question 18.
The longest river in Europe
A) Volga
B) Dnieper
C) Neister
D) Thames
Answer:
A) the Volga

Question 19.
The cities on the ………… are not linked to transcontinental trade through waterways.
A) Rhine
B) Volga
C) Dnieper
D) Dniester
Answer:
B) the Volga

Question 20.
The biggest lake in the world
A) Superior
B) Bikal
C) Caspian sea
D) Black sea
Answer:
C) Caspian sea

Question 21.
The river Volga merges in this sea
A) Caspian
B) Atlantic
C) Pacific
D) the Indian Ocean
Answer:
A) Caspian

Question 22.
The country which has season ……….. its three sides
A) Italy
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) Poland
Answer:
A) Italy

Question 23.
Norway, Sweden together called as this peninsula
A) Scandinavian
B) Indian Peninsula
C) Arabian Peninsula
D) Italy Peninsula
Answer:
A) Scandinavian

Question 24.
An example for Island country.
A) Italy
B) Spain
C) Great Britain
D) Poland
Answer:
C) Great Britain

Question 25.
The presence of a large number of ………… has also facilitated the use of sea routes.
A) Bays
B) Gulfs
C) Both A & B
D) The lands which are curved into water
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 26.
These protect shipyards from cyclones/storms
A) Bays
B) Gulfs
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
The European climate is
A) hotter than India
B) cold than India
C) like India
D) none
Answer:
B) cold than India

Question 28.
These show more influence on European climate
A) The Atlantic Ocean
B) Winds
C) Both A & B
D) Temperature
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
Winds blow all year-round from the Atlantic Ocean towards Europe. They are called ………….
A) Easterlies
B) Westerlies
C) Northern winds
D) Southern winds
Answer:
B) Westerlies

Question 30.
The currents visible in the Atlantic Ocean
A) cold currents
B) warm currents
C) local currents
D) warm and moist winds
Answer:
D) warm and moist winds

Question 31.
The warm and moist currents flow
A) from westward to North America
B) from eastward to South America
C) from northside to North America
D) from the southside to South America
Answer:
A) from westward to North America

Question 32.
These Atlantic Ocean currents touch America and Europe. These are called so in America and Europe.
A) Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Drift
B) Labrador, Gulf Stream
C) Labrador, North Atlantic Drift
D) Mexican Gulf, Labrador
Answer:
A) Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Drift

Question 33.
The winds that cause rains in North Europe and Western Europe
A) Western winds
B) Eastern winds
C) Southern winds
D) Northern winds
Answer:
A) Western winds

Question 34.
In this Europe, these showers all around the year.
A) Eastern Europe
B) Western Europe
C) Northern Europe
D) Southern Europe
Answer:
B) Western Europe

Question 35.
While we, in India, eagerly await cool showers, the people of Western Europe await
A) showers
B) heavy rains
C) cool winds
D) bright sunny days
Answer:
D) bright sunny days

Question 36.
The ………. currents are very good for fish breeding.
A) cold currents
B) warm currents
C) warm & moist currents
D) none
Answer:
B) warm currents

Question 37.
‘Dogger Bank’ means
A) to saving money
B) to look after pups
C) the fishery industry in the North Sea near Britain
D) poultry
Answer:
C) the fishery industry in the North Sea near Britain

Question 38.
The Mediterranean countries are mostly here in Europe
A) north
B) south
C) west
D) east
Answer:
B) south

Question 39
The rainy season in the Mediterranean countries
A) winter
B) summer
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) winter

Question 40.
The fruit orchards in the Mediterranean countries.
A) Grapes, oranges
B) Olive
C) Figs
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 41.
Based on climate, Europe can be divided into ……………. seasons.
A) winter; spring, summer
B) winter, spring, summer, autumn
C) winter, summer
D) summer, spring, autumn
Answer:
B) winter, spring, summer, autumn

Question 42.
In winter the times of sunrise and sunset in Europe
A) 9 or 10 A.M. to 4 P.M.
B) 9 or 10 A.M. to 6 P.M.
C) 10 or 11 to 7 P.M.
D) 6 or 7 to 6 P.M.
Answer:
A) 9 or 10 A.M. to 4 P.M.

Question 43.
The landscape changes in March in this country.
A) France
B) Italy
C) Britain
D) Germany
Answer:
A) France

Question 44.
In France, the snow begins to melt and new shoots appear on trees in this season
A) winter
B) summer
C) spring
D) autumn
Answer:
C) spring

Question 45.
The summer in Europe
A) June to September
B) June to August
C) May to June
D) April to September
Answer:
B) June to August

Question 46.
The country that has ‘Midnight Sun’
A) Norway
B) Finland
C) Germany
D) Britain
Answer:
A) Norway

Question 47.
The favourable season for agriculture in Europe
A) winter
B) spring
C) summer
D) autumn
Answer:
C) summer

Question 48.
The time of cropping in India
A) 6 to 8 months
B) 8 to 10 months
C) 9 to 11 months
D) 6 to 7 months
Answer:
B) 8 to 10 months

Question 49.
The time of cropping in France or Europe
A) 6, 7 months
B) 7, 8 months
C) 8,9 months
D) 9, 10 months
Answer:
A) 6, 7 months

Question 50.
The autumn in Europe
A) September to December
B) September to October
C) June to September
D) August to October
Answer:
B) September to October

Question 51.
Tree leaves turn red and yellow and begin to fall in Europe
A) winter
B) summer
C) autumn
D) spring
Answer:
C) autumn

Question 52.
The fertile regions in Europe
A) plains
B) river valley regions
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 53.
In Norway 3%, in England 30%. What is the % of agricultural land in Germany?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 54.
The percentage of agricultural land in India
A) 40%
B) 45%
C) 50%
D) 55%
Answer:
D) 55%

Question 55.
The people of Holland have reclaimed small portions of land from the sea by building embankments called dykes to push back the sea. That land is called
A) Pochar
B) Chabar
C) Polder
D) Waldar
Answer:
C) Polder

Question 56.
It is in spring that sowing takes place and crops ripen in the summer months and are ready for harvest in
A) autumn
B) winter
C) leaf shed season
D) none
Answer:
C) leaf shed season

Question 57.
These countries are famous for Grape wine
A) Portugal
B) Spain
C) Italy, Southern France
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 58.
Sugar is extracted from these tubers in Russia, Ukraine and Germany
A) Sugar-Beet
B) Rye
C) Sweet Potato
D) Cinnamon
Answer:
A) Sugar-Beet

Question 59.
From very ancient times, the people of Europe have been trading with
A) India
B) China
C) Indonesia
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 60.
The Europeans got to exchange their goods with these Indian goods
A) silver
B) gold
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 61.
About years ago, the west European sailors and traders began to search for new routes to India.
A) 400
B) 500
C) 600
D) 700
Answer:
B) 500

Question 62.
An Italian sailor named …………. thought: ‘If the earth is round then it should be possible to reach India from the west too.
A) Copernicus
B) Christopher Columbus
C) John Mecdom
D) Ptolemy
Answer:
B) Christopher Columbus

Question 63.
……….. discovered West Indies.
A) Columbus
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Amerigo-Vespucci
D) Magillan
Answer:
A) Columbus

Question 64.
The winds that blow from southwest Europe to the east coast of America.
A) Trade winds
B) Polar east winds
C) Monsoons
D) None
Answer:
A) Trade winds

Question 65.
The blow from the south-west to the north-east to the south-west.
A) Trade winds
B) Westerlies
C) Monsoons
D) None
Answer:
B) Westerlies

Question 66.
The winds helped to go from Europe to America.
A) Trade winds
B) Western winds
C) Polar east winds
D) Monsoons
Answer:
A) Trade winds

Question 67.
The Industrial Revolution started this year.
A) 1700
B) 1720
C) 1750
D) 1800
Answer:
C) 1750

Question 68.
The European countries had to depend on other countries due to Industrialisation for these products
A) industrial goods
B) agricultural goods
C) minerals
D) None
Answer:
B) agricultural goods

Question 69.
Industrially the European trade was with their colonies in
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) America
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 70.
After three months of sailing on the Atlantic ocean, Columbus thought that he reached India. But actually, he reached
A) Egypt
B) Mexico
C) West Indies
D) Brazil
Answer:
C) West Indies

Question 71.
Italy can be categorized under
A) Bay
B) Gulf
C) Island
D) Peninsula
Answer:
D) Peninsula

Question 72.

The mountains that lie between the Caspian Sea and the Black sea are
A) Himalayas
B) the Caucasus
C) the Ural
D) Alp
Answer:
B) the Caucasus

Question 73.
The bay adjacent to Pyrenees mountains
A) Alps
B) Bay of Biscay
C) River Rhine bay
D) Caucasus bay
Answer:
B) Bay of Biscay

Question 74.

What winds are indicated by arrow marks in the above map?
A) Monsoon winds
B) Typhoons
C) Easterlies
D) Westerlies
Answer:
D) Westerlies

Question 75.
…………. climate is very good for growing Juicy fruits.
A) Maritime
B) the Mediterranean
C) Continental
D) None
Answer:
B) the Mediterranean

Question 76.
The people of Holland overcame the problem of shortage of land
A) By removing forests
B) By reclaiming land from the sea by building embankments.
C) By transferring soil
D) By removing mountains
Answer:
B) By reclaiming land from the sea by building embankments.

Question 77.
America: Gulf stream :: Europe : ……………..
A) North Atlantic Drift
B) Westerlies
C) Trade Route
D) None
Answer:
A) North Atlantic Drift

Question 78.
Summer: June to August:: Autumn :
A) January, February
B) March, April
C) September, October
D) November, December
Answer:
C) September, October

Question 79.
Find the wrong statement.
1) Summer is the season of agriculture in Europe.
2) Summer is the season of agriculture in India.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 80.
The “Dogger Bank” region is famous for which of the following indust¬ries?
A) Poultry
B) Fishing
C) Diary
D) Fruits
Answer:
B) Fishing

Question 81.
Which of the following oceans is located on the Western side of Europe?
A) the Indian Ocean
B) the Pacific Ocean
C) the Arctic Ocean
D) the Atlantic Ocean
Answer:
D) the Atlantic Ocean

Question 82.
Which of the following is an example of a peninsular country?
A) England
B) Italy
C) Germany
D) Switzerland
Answer:
B) Italy

Question 83.
Which of the following group of countries belong to Europe?
A) Nigeria, Egypt, Germany
B) Norway, Australia, Somalia
C) France, Japan, England
D) Italy, England, Somalia
Answer:
D) Italy, England, Somalia

Read the given map and answer the following questions from 84-87.

Question 84.
The river that does not join in the Black Sea
A) Don
B) Dniper
C) Danube
D) Volga
Answer:
A) Don

Question 85.
These Mountain ranges extended into Norway & Sweden
A) Caucasus
B) Ural
C) the Pyrenees
D) Scandinavian
Answer:
D) Scandinavian

Question 86.
These are associated with the Mediterranean sea
A) the Caspian Sea & Black Sea
B) Adriatic & Aegean Sea
C) the the North Sea & Baltic Sea
D) Adriatic & Caspian Sea
Answer:
B) Adriatic & Aegean Sea

Question 87.
These rives flow in France
A) Seine & Loire
B) Dniper & Don
C) Volga & Dvina
D) Po & Elbe
Answer:
A) Seine & Loire

Question 88.
The mountains that lie in between the Caspian Sea and the Black sea
A) the Caucasus Mountains
B) Himalayas
C) Andes Mountains
D) Drakensburg Mountains
Answer:
A) the Caucasus Mountains

Question 89.
“Polders Agriculture” is done in which country
A) Holland
B) Italy
C) Russia
D) Germany
Answer:
A) Holland

Question 90.
What is the percentage of agricultural land in India?
A) 40%
B) 45%
C) 50%
D) 55%
Answer:
D) 55%

Question 91.
Italy can be categorized under:
A) Bay
B) Gulf
C) Island
D) Peninsula
Answer:
D) Peninsula

Question 92.
After, three months of sailing on the Atlantic Ocean, Columbus thought that he reached India. But actually, he reached
A) Egypt
B) Mexico
C) West Indies
D) Brazil
Answer:
C) West Indies

Question 93.
The equator does not pass through this continent
A) Australia
B) Asia
C) Africa
D) South America
Answer:
A) Australia

Answer questions 94 and 95 based on the information given below.

• Land reclaimed from the sea
• Protected by embarkments called dykes
• Generally used for agriculture

Question 94.
What is described in the information?
A) Polder
B) Meander
C) Dogger Bnak
D) Bay
Answer:
A) Polder

Question 95.
In which of the following European countries would you find this type of farming?
A) Spain
B) Italy
C) Holland
D) Switzerland
Answer:
C) Holland

Question 96.
Why are trade winds called so?
A) Because they carry rain clouds to the land
B) Because they help in the movement of ships
C) Because they bring fish to the shore
D) Because they blow throughout the year
Answer:
B) Because they help in the movement of ships

Question 97.
Answer the following question based on the picture given below Which numbered region is a bay?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 with Answers

Question 1.
The Indian National Congress was defeated for the first time in the General Elections of Parliament in the year
A) 1962
B) 1967
C) 1977
D) 1998
Answer:
C) 1977

Question 2.
The Presidential Rule can be imposed in the states by this Article
A) 352
B) 356
C) 360
D) 370
Answer:
B) 356

Question 3.
74th Constitutional Amendment Act is related to
A) Urban areas
B) Women
C) Rural areas
D) Minorities
Answer:
A) Urban areas

Question 4.
Which of the following constitutional
amendment relates to rural local self government ?
A) 42nd amendment
B) 73rd amendment
C) 72nd amendment
D) 76th amendment
Answer:
C) 72nd amendment

Question 5.
What is the number of general elections held in 2014?
A) 10 th
B) 16th
C) 14th
D) 9th
Answer:
B) 16th

Question 6.
The machine to cast vote which is used by the election commission in elections at present
A) ETC
B) ATM
C) EVM
D) PAN
Answer:
C) EVM

Question 7.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) AGP political party was started in Assom.
B) DMK party started Anti – Hindi agitation in Kerala.
C) Operation Blue Star started in Bangladesh.
D) P.V. Narsimha Rao was first Vice President of India.
Answer:
A) AGP political party was started in Assom.

Question 8.
One of the following is not related to Telangana armed struggle.
A) Cancelled farmer’s debts
B) Banned vetti
C) Land to tillers
D) Changed Hyderabad into Hindu state
Answer:
D) Changed Hyderabad into Hindu state

Question 9.
The party which withdrew support to V.P. Singh government leading to early elections
A) The Congress party
B) The BJP
C) The CPI
D) The DMK
Answer:
B) The BJP

Question 10
The militant Sikh leader who demanded a separate state ‘Khalistan’ for Sikhs was ………………
A) Sukhdev
B) Sikhander Singh
C) Delhiwala
D) Bhindranwale
Answer:
D) Bhindranwale

Question 11.
In which year elections, did the Janata party defeat the Congress party?
A) 1977
B) 1972
C) 1980
D) 1982
Answer:
A) 1977

Question 12.
In which year, the Supreme Court laid down norms for the use of President’s Rule?
A) 1990
B) 1992
C) 1994
D) 1993
Answer:
C) 1994

Question 13.
The first party to defeat Congress in Andhra Pradesh was …………….
A) Telugu Desam Party
B) Janata Party
C) The Congress
D) Dravida Munnetra Kazagam
Answer:
A) Telugu Desam Party

Question 14.
Telugu Desam Party was started in the year ……………
A) 1984
B) 1982
C) 1986
D) 1988
Answer:
B) 1982

Question 15.
In which year, the Chief Minister N.T. Rama Rao was dismissed?
A) 1982
B) 1988
C) 1986
D) 1984
Answer:
D) 1984

Question 16.
Who led the Assom movement ?
A) AASU
B) AGP
C) DMK
D) SAD
Answer:
A) AASU

Question 17.
Who were the outsiders in Assom ?
A) People from Bangladesh
B) Bengalis
C) Both A & B
D) Gujarat
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
In which year, an agreement was signed between the Central Government and AASU ?
A) 1980
B) 1986
C) 1984
D) 1988
Answer:
C) 1984

Question 19.
Which party had passed a set of resolutions in 1978 demanding decentralization of powers ?
A) Assom Gana Parishad
B) Akali Dal
C) Both A & B
D) TDP
Answer:
B) Akali Dal

Question 20.
When was the budget with more
liberalizations made in India?
A) 1981
B) 1982
C) 1985
D) 1983
Answer:
C) 1985

Question 21.
In 1990’s Hindus demanded to build a temple for Lord Rama in controversial place in
A) Allahabad
B) Kanpur
C) Delhi
D) Ayodhya
Answer:
D) Ayodhya

Question 22.
The process that leading political party could not implement any policy for fear of withdrawal of support by other coalition partners was called
A) Policy implementation
B) Policy exchange
C) Policy moderation
D) Policy paralysis
Answer:
D) Policy paralysis

Question 23.
The first coalition to be re-elected was
A) Janata Dal
B) NDA
C) UPA
D) Janata Party
Answer:
C) UPA

Question 24.
Which government implemented 27% reservation for backward castes ?
A) Janata Party
B) Janata Dal
C) NDA
D) UPA
Answer:
B) Janata Dal

Question 25.
Name of the Sikh State for which the anti-Sikh riots demanded was
A) Pakistan
B) Hindusthan
C) Khalisthan
D) Pulisthan
Answer:
C) Khalisthan

Question 26.
This party was organised around Gurudwaras.
A) DMK
B) SAD
C) AIADMK
D) BLD
Answer:
B) SAD

Question 27.
Khalisthan was related to this agitation
A) Punjab
B) Bengal
C) Assom
D) Bihar
Answer:
A) Punjab

Question 28.
This Prime Minister entered an agreement with Sant Langowal
A) Deva Gowda
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Chandra Sekhar
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
D) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 29.
The slogan of TDP when it was founded …………
A) Teluguvari Ikyata
B) Teluguvari Pratishta
C) Teluguvari Atmagauravam
D) Teluguvari Adhikaram
Answer:
C) Teluguvari Atmagauravam

Question 30.
The sixth President of India was …………………
A) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
B) C.V. Raman
C) Giani Zail Singh
D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Answer:
A) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Question 31.
Find the incorrect set.
A) Mandal commission – Reservations for OBCs
B) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi – LTTE
C) First coalition govt – Morarji Desai
D) Ram Janmabhoomi Rath Yatra – L.K.Advani
Answer:
C) First coalition govt – Morarji Desai

Question 32.
Which is not the correct set ?
A) Telecom Revolution – Rajiv Gandhi
B) Constitutional status to local self governments – P.V. Narasimha Rao
C) Coalition government – Ethnic cleansing
D) Popular welfare schemes for the poor – N.T.Rama Rao
Answer:
C) Coalition government – Ethnic cleansing

Question 33.
Find out the wrongly matched
A) Rama Janmabhoomi Rath Yathra – 1990
B) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi -1991
C) Assassination of Indira Gandhi and Operation Blue Star -1982
D) Local self governments -1992
Answer:
C) Assassination of Indira Gandhi and Operation Blue Star -1982

Question 34.
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
A) Congress (O) – led by Indira Gandhi
B) SAD – based in Haryana
C) Jan Sangah Party – largely confined to Northern States
D) Bharatiya Lok Dal-a party in Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
C) Jan Sangah Party – largely confined to Northern States

Question 35.
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A) Mr. Sanjeeva Reddy is 6th Lok Sabha Speaker of India.
B) The first Non- Congress Prime Minister is Morarji Desai
C) Mr. Sanjeeva Reddy is 6th President of India.
D) Mr Sanjeeva Reddy had worked with Prime Ministers Nehru and Morarji Desai.
Answer:
D) Mr Sanjeeva Reddy had worked with Prime Ministers Nehru and Morarji Desai.

Question 36.
Identify the incorrect set ?
A) President’s rule over a state – Article 356
B) Amendment to Indian Constitution Article – 368
C) Financial Emergency – Article – 362
D) Proclamation of Emergency – Article 352
Answer:
C) Financial Emergency – Article – 362

Question 37.
Identify the incorrect set:
A) DMK – Tamil Nadu
B) AGP – Assom
C) SAD – Uttar Pradesh
D) TDP – Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
C) SAD – Uttar Pradesh

Question 38.
Arrange the following Prime Ministers in chronological order.
a) Rajiv Gandhi
b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
c) H.D Deva Gowda
d) I.K. Gujral
A) a, b, c, d
B) b, a, c, d
C) c, a, b, d
D) b, d, a, c
Answer:
B) b, a, c, d

Question 39.
Which of the following party was not in the Left Front Govt ?
A) CPI
B) Forward Block
C) TDP
D) CPM
Answer:
C) TDP

Question 40.
Which of the following government won elections from 1978 – 2006 ?
A) SVD Government
B) Congress Government
C) Left Front Government
D) BJP Government
Answer:
C) Left Front Government

Question 41.
Article 356 of Indian Constitution is related to
A) the election of President
B) amendments in Constitution
C) President’s rule
D) elections in the states
Answer:
C) President’s rule

Question 42.
An initiative launched by West Bengal in 1978 to record the names of share croppers and secure their rights was
known as……………
A) Operation Blue Star
B) Operation Polo
C) Operation Vijay
D) Operation Barga
Answer:
D) Operation Barga

Question 43.
In India, the ‘Telecom Revolution’ was initiated by………
A) Sanjay Gandhi
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Rajiv Gandhi
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
C) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 44.
Identify the senior leader who played an important role in bringing together all the anti-congress and anti¬emergency parties.
A) Jayaprakash Narayan
B) JagjivanRam
C) Morarji Desai
D) Charan Singh
Answer:
A) Jayaprakash Narayan

Question 45.
Choose the correct matching
i) Advani — a) CPM
ii) Jyoti Basu — b) SAD
iii) Sant Langowal — c) BJP
A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
B) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
C) i-c, ii-b, iii-a
D) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
Answer:
C) i-c, ii-b, iii-a

Question 46.
Coalition government means
A) Government formed with the help of some parties
B) A party which wins with absolute majorty
C) Parties forming government with the help of the President
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Government formed with the help of some parties

Question 47.
Assom revolt was led by
A) AASU
B) AGP
C) DMK
D) SAD
Answer:
A) AASU

Question 48.
Founder of TDP is
A) YSR
B) P.V. Narasimha Rao
C) NTR
D) Chandrababu Naidu
Answer:
C) NTR

Question 49.
27% reservation for OBCs was given by which Prime Minister
A) P.V. Narasimharao
B) V.P.Singh
C) Man Mohan Singh
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
B) V.P.Singh

Question 50.
The Commission that recommended reservation for OBC during V.P.Singh regime
A) Kothari Commission
B) Mandal Commission
C) Fazal Ali Commission
D) Krishna Commission
Answer:
B) Mandal Commission

Question 51.
Farmers of UP and Haryana agitated under the leadership of ……………..
A) V.P. Singh
B) Mahendra Singh Tikati
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Sharada Joshi
Answer:
B) Mahendra Singh Tikati

Question 52.
The party came to power in center, immediately after the end of emergency was ………………..
A) Congress Party
B) Janatha Party
C) Communist Party of India
D) Siromani Akali Dal
Answer:
B) Janatha Party

Question 53.
Operation Barga was launched by …………… government
A) Haryana
B) Kerala
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) West Bengal
Answer:
D) West Bengal

Question 54.
Shri Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was sworn as the 6th president of India in the year
A) 1980
B) 1977
C) 1970
D) 1985
Answer:
B) 1977

Question 55.
India consists of ………………………….
A) 29 States, 7 Union Territories.
B) 29 States, 8 Union Territories.
C) 23 States, 7 Union Territories.
D) 28 States, 7 Union Territories
Answer:
A) 29 States, 7 Union Territories.

Question 56.
Match the following.
1. Morarji Desai — a) Telecom revol¬ution
2. V.P. Singh — b) First non-cong ress Prime Minister
3. Rajiv Gandhi — c) Mandal commission
A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
Answer:
A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Question 57.
1. Rath Yatra — a) P.V. Narasimha Rao
2. Liberalisation — b) Neelam Policy Sanjeeva Reddy
3. Lok Sabha speaker that became Indian President. — c) L.K. Adwani
A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Answer:
C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

Question 58.
The first coalition government was led by ………………….
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Vajpayee
C) V.P. Singh
D) Morarji Desai
Answer:
D) Morarji Desai

Question 59.
Which are the following measures to gain substantial support of the rural population for the Left Front government in West Bengal ?
A) Implementation of Panchayat Raj
B) Operation Barga
C) Price control
D) Both options (A) and (B)
Answer:
D) Both options (A) and (B)

Question 60.
Which of the following political party is not existing in India now ?
A) Indian National Congress (I)
B) Bharatiya Janata Party
C) Muslim League
D) Communist Party of India
Answer:
C) Muslim League

Question 61.
Which of the following coalition government is led by BJP ?
A) United Progressive Alliance
B) National Front Government
C) First Coalition Government
D) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
D) National Democratic Alliance

Question 62.
Which of the following is wrong matching ?
A) L.K Advani – Rath yatra
B) V.P. Singh – Janata Dal
C) Rajiv Gandhi – LTTE
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao – Left Front
Answer:
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao – Left Front

Question 63.
IMF stands for ………………
A) Integrated Monetaty Fund
B) International Money Fund
C) International Monetary Fund
D) Indian Mutual Fund ‘
Answer:
C) International Monetary Fund

Question 64.
The following acts contributed to huge support to West Bengal Government
A) Operation Barga
B) Implementation of Panchayat Raj ‘ System
C) Price control
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 65.
Meaning of liberalisation ………………….
A) Decreasing of importance on private sector
B) Given importance to only public sector
C) Promoting private sector
D) Not given importance to public sector
Answer:
C) Promoting private sector

Question 66.
Party based in Punjab
A) D.M.K
B) T.D.P
C) Shirormani Akali Dal
D) None of above
Answer:
C) Shirormani Akali Dal

Question 67.
Which of the following was not the demand of Assom Movement ?
A) Local People should be given greater preference in employment
B) Demanded greater recruitment of Assamese in the army
C) Outsiders should be removed
D) Resources should be used for the benefit of the locals.
Answer:
B) Demanded greater recruitment of Assamese in the army

Question 68.
Identify the incorrect set from the following
A) Anti – Flindi Agitation – MNF
B) Punjab Agitation – SAD
C) Teluguvari atma gauravam – TDP
D) Assom Movement – AASU
Answer:
A) Anti – Flindi Agitation – MNF

Question 69.
Which of the following is not a characterstic features of coaliation government ?
A) Common minimum programmes
B) Coordination committees
C) Single party domination
D) Mostly instable
Answer:
C) Single party domination

Question 70.
73 and 74 amendments were made in the year ………………..
A) 1990
B) 1991
C) 1993
D) 1992
Answer:
D) 1992

Question 71.
Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated by in ………………..
A) Naxals, 1991
B) Maoists, 1995
C) Terrorists, 1993
D) LTTE, 1991
Answer:
D) LTTE, 1991

Question 72
………………. introduced liberalisation policy in India.
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) Indira Gandhi
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 73.
Raj iv Gandhi began a peace intiative in Punjab, Assom and Mizoram and also in the neighbouring country …………….
A) Sudan
B) Pakistan
C) Afghanistan
D) Sri Lanka
Answer:
D) Sri Lanka

Question 74.
The Janata Dal dining V.P. Singh’s rule focussed on the need for
A) Exclusive Development
B) Inclusive Development
C) Inclusive Democracy
D) Majoritarian Democracy
Answer:
B) Inclusive Development

Question 75.
The Prime Minister who made agreement with All Assom Students Union in 1984 was
A) Indira Gandhi
B) V.P. Singh
C) Rajiv Gandhi
D) Deva Gowda
Answer:
C) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 76.
The Prime Minister to implement Mandal Commission Report was
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) Indira Gandhi
C) V.P. Singh
D) L.B. Shastry
Answer:
C) V.P. Singh

Question 77.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
a) Formation of TDP
b) Operation Blue Star
c) Ram Janma Bhoomi Rath Yatra
d) End of Emergency
A) b, a, d, c
B) a, b, c, d
C) d, c, b, a
D) d, a, b, c
Answer:
D) d, a, b, c

Question 78.
Which is not the reason for Assom
Movement ?
A) Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equals but as second class citizens
B) Migrants creating huge discomfort for the locals
C) Electoral competition between the local parties and the rilling Congress Party
D) Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non – Assamese communities
Answer:
C) Electoral competition between the local parties and the rilling Congress Party

Question 79.
A law in 1986 was seen as compromising before religious orthodoxy. The case that led to this framing of law
i) Kesavananda Bharati
ii) Shah Bano
A) i is correct
B) ii is correct
C) i & ii are correct
D) Both i & ii wrong
Answer:
B) ii is correct

Question 80.
In 1980 elections Congress was victor¬. ious in all states except
A) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
B) Tamil Nadu and Bihar
C) West Bengal and Assom
D) Tamil Nadu and West Bengal
Answer:
D) Tamil Nadu and West Bengal

Question 81.
Which of the following-is incorrect?
A) NT Rama Rao began the TDP in 1982
B) TDP stood for the honour and self respect of the Telugu people
C) NTR argued that the state could be treated as a lower office of the Congress party
D) TDP swept the 1982 elections
Answer:
C) NTR argued that the state could be treated as a lower office of the Congress party

Question 82.
Which is not the member in Left Front Government led by Jyothi Basu of CPM in 1977 in West Bengal ?
A) Forward Block
B) Trinamool Congress
C) Communist Party of India (CPI)
D) Revolutionary Socialist Party (RSP)
Answer:
B) Trinamool Congress

Question 83.
Which Revolution initiated by Rajiv Gandhi to speed up and spread the network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology?
A) Green Revolution
B) White Revolution
C) Telecom Revolution
D) Digital Revolution
Answer:
C) Telecom Revolution

Question 84.
Match the following
1) BLD — a) Tamil nadu
2) CPI (M) — b) Punjab
3) DMK — c) Uttar Pradesh
4) SAD — d) West Bengal
A) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
Answer:
C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Question 85.
Which of the following tribals do not belong to Assom ?
A) Kurmis
B) Khasis
C) Mizos
D) Bodos
Answer:
A) Kurmis

Observe the map and answer questions from 86-88

Question 86.
The marked place (1) in map is relevant to this issue
A) Anti – Hindi movement
B) Struggle of Assamese
C) Operation Blue Star
D) Indo-Bangladesh issue
Answer:
A) Anti – Hindi movement

Question 87.
Which of the following is related to the marked place (2) in map ?
A) LTTE issue
B) Article 356
C) Anti Bengali, anti religion
D) Operation Blue Star
Answer:
C) Anti Bengali, anti religion

Question 88.
’3’ in map is related to India for
A) War with India
B) Border dispute
C) Occupying territories
D) LTTE issue
Answer:
D) LTTE issue

Question 89.
Coalition governments are not advisable for this reason
A) Policy paralysis
B) No strong leadership
C) Unstable span government
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 90.
NTR got great welcome to politics for this reason
A) He raised voice for self respect of Telugu people
B) He was a film hero
C) He got stunning personality
D) He was the man from popular com-munity in A.P
Answer:
A) He raised voice for self respect of Telugu people

Question 91.
The demand for Khalisthan was not acceptable for the following reason
A) It strengthens nationalism
B) It supports Sikhism
C) It disturbs nationalism and integrity of country
D) It adopted violent measures
Answer:
C) It disturbs nationalism and integrity of country

Question 92.
The following efforts of Rajiv Gandhi are appreciable
i) Agreement with Longowal in Punjab.
ii) Peace talks with AASU in Assom.
iii) Introduction of Telecom revolution
A) i, iii
B) i
C) i, ii, iii
D) None
Answer:
C) i, ii, iii

Question 93.
Multi party democratic system is advisable as
A) Ruling party may turns to opposition any time
B) It provides opportunities to raise voice of differences
C) People can have choice to elect many parties.
D) Coalition governments can be formed.
Answer:
B) It provides opportunities to raise voice of differences

Question 94.
The aim of “Operation Barga’ is ………………..
A) Ruling party may turns to opposition any time
B) It provides opportunities to raise voice of differences
C) People can have choice to elect many parties.
D) Coalition governments can be formed.
Answer:
B) It provides opportunities to raise voice of differences

Question 95.
Who among the following Prime Ministers opined that out of every rupee spent on the poor, barely 15 paise reaches them ?
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) Lai Bahadur Shastry
C) Indira Gandhi
D) V.P. Singh
Answer:
B) Lai Bahadur Shastry

Question 96.
Observe the below statements.
1. Rajiv Gandhi government’s first budget in 1985 move towards a more liberalised system.
2. In the late 1970s the general feeling of happiness was transformed into social movement in Punjab.
A) Both 1 and 2 are true
B) 1 false, 2 true
C) 1 true, 2 false
D) Both land 2 are false
Answer:
C) 1 true, 2 false

Question 97.
Ram Janma Bhomi Rath Yatra was conducted by
A) A.B Vajpayee
B) L.K. Advani
C) J.P Narayana
D) J.B Kripalani
Answer:
B) L.K. Advani

Question 98.
The president of SAD
A) Bhindranwale
B) Charan Singh
C) Sant Langowal
D) None of them
Answer:
C) Sant Langowal

Question 99.
Observe the following statements.
I) Potti Sriramulu, demanding the formation of a separate; Telugu speaking state, died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952.
II) N.T Rama Rao began the Telugu Desam party (TDP) on his 60th birthday in 1982. He said that the TDP stood for the honour and self respect of the Telugu speaking people (Telugu Vari Atmagaur- avam)
A) I True, II False
B) I and II True
C) I False, II True
D) Both I, II False
Answer:
B) I and II True

Question 100.
Which kind of mechanisms used to bring about greater understanding between the parties in coalition government ?
A) Cooperative cell
B) Common Need cell
C) National Committees and Common Services
D) Common Minimum Programmes and Coordination Committees
Answer:
D) Common Minimum Programmes and Coordination Committees

Question 101.
Among the parties, which is not the member in National Front (1989 – 90) Government ?
A) DMK
B) JKNC
C) AGP
D) Samajwadi Party
Answer:
D) Samajwadi Party

Question 102.
The Prime Minister who negotiated ? with IMF in 1992 for loans to come out of economical crises was ………………..
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) H.D. Deve Gowda
C) Narendra Modi
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 103.
The party that participated in the Governments of National Front, United Front and
supported the National Democratic Alliance government from outside is ( )
A) AGP
B) TDP
C) CPI
D) Shiva Sena
Answer:
B) TDP

Question 104.
The party that participated in the above three governments is ………………..
A) AGP
B) TDP
C) Samajwadi party
D) JKNC
Answer:
D) JKNC

Question 105.
Which state Trinamool Congress Party belongs to ?
A) Assom
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Punjab
Answer:
C) West Bengal

Question 106.
TDP belongs to
A) Tamilnadu
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
B) Andhra Pradesh

Question 107.
The Prime Minister who apologized in the Rajya Sabha for 1984 anti sikh roits.
A) P.V. Narasimha Rao
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Manmohan Singh
D) Narendra Modi
Answer:
C) Manmohan Singh

Question 108.
…………………. made agreement with all Assam Students Union in 1984
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Deva Gowda
C) V.P. Singh
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
D) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 109.
…………………… quit Congress after emergency and joined Anti Congress Front.
A) Kripalini
B) J.P.N.
C) Kamaraj .
D) JagjivanRam
Answer:
D) JagjivanRam

Question 110.
The P.M. of first coalition of Janata Dal in 1989 was ……………
A) ChandraSekhar
B) Manmohan Singh
C) V.P. Singh
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
C) V.P. Singh

Question 111.
An assembly at the Akal Takht made a declaration of an Independent state of Khalistan in
A) October, 1986
B) April, 1986
C) October, 1984
D) April, 1984
Answer:
B) April, 1986

Question 112.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) SAD-Punjab
B) DMK – Karnataka
C) TDP – Andhra Pradesh
D) BLD – Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
B) DMK – Karnataka

Question 113.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Liberalisation – P.V. Narasimha Rao
B) Anti – Sikh Riots – Rajiv Gandhi
C) Khalistan – Bhindranwale
D) Operation Blue Star – Morarji Desai
Answer:
D) Operation Blue Star – Morarji Desai

Question 114.
For a long period from 1978 to 2006, a party and its allies ruled a state. The name of the state
A) Tamilnadu
B) Kerala
C) West Bengal
D) A.P.
Answer:
C) West Bengal

Question 115.
Which party along with its allies ruled for a long time in West Bengal ?
A) C.P.M.
B) DMK
C) Trinamool Congress
D) AASU
Answer:
A) C.P.M.

Question 116.
This is not correct with regard to operation Barga.
A) It was a programme launched in West Bengal
B) It was a programme to uplift women of weaker sections
C) It helped in decling rural poverty
D) It is a programme of land reforms
Answer:
B) It was a programme to uplift women of weaker sections

Question 117.
The problems with the coalition governments
i) Policy Paralysis
ii) Common minimum programmes
iii) Considerable instability
iv) Compromising with a number of parties and idealogies
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iii
D) i, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, iii, iv

Question 118.
The main plank of the election campaign for non – congress political forces in the election held in 1989.
A) Reservation to OBCs
B) Corruption in administration and in political circles
C) Sending armies to Srilanka
D) Default of India in payments to foreign countries
Answer:
A) Reservation to OBCs

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Post – War World and India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Post – War World and India with Answers

Question 1.
Which among the following is not the aim of Non – alignment policy ?
A) To avoid cold war
B) Cooperation among the countries of Non – alignment policy
C) Having independence in foreign affairs
D) To encourage cold war
Answer:
B) Cooperation among the countries of Non – alignment policy

Question 2.
The organisation of third world countries ………………
A) Warsaw pact
B) NATO
C) SEATO
D) NAM
Answer:
D) NAM

Question 3.
Suez Canal was nationalised by ………………
A) Nasser
B) Yasser
C) Saddam
D) Tito
Answer:
A) Nasser

Question 4.
The main aim of Palestinian Liberation Organisation was
A) To regain the land it lost without violence
B) To regain the land it lost with the violence
C) To occupy the Israel
D) To occupy the Suez Canal
Answer:
A) To regain the land it lost without violence

Question 5.
The movement led by the supporters of Mujeeb – Ur – Rehman to liberate east Pakistan was called ………………
A) Mukti Bahini
B) Bangla movement
C) Pakistan movement
D) East Pakistan movement
Answer:
A) Mukti Bahini

Question 6.
……………… refers to the region between Europe and Asia.
A) Central Asia
B) East Asia
C) West Asia
D) Eurasia
Answer:
C) West Asia

Question 7.
China annexed Tibet in
A) 1960
B) 1962
C) 1950
D) 1948
Answer:
C) 1950

Question 8.
During the Second World War, the President of US was ………………
A) Wilson
B) Roosevelt
C) Truman
D) Eisen Hower
Answer:
B) Roosevelt

Question 9.
Warsaw pact was signed by
A) West European countries
B) Capitalistic Nations
C) Non – aligned countries
D) Communist Nations
Answer:
D) Communist Nations

Question 10.
“We have emerged from the second World War the most powerful nation in the World. The most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history”
This statement was by :
A) Wilson
B) Kruschev
C) Harry Truman
D) Johnson
Answer:
C) Harry Truman

Question 11.
Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong ?
A) Rivalry between US and USSR
B) Triggering off an arms race
C) USA and USSR engaged in direct war
D) An ideological war between the two super powers
Answer:
C) USA and USSR engaged in direct war

Question 12.
Find the false statement
A) Panchasheel – An agreement between India and China in 1954.
B) Proxy War – Civil war created by USA and Britain
C) PLO – Palestinian Liberation Organi-sation
D) Awami League – One of the political parties of Bangladesh.
Answer:
B) Proxy War – Civil war created by USA and Britain

Question 13.
Among the following what is the reason for starting of a movement by Jews ?
A) In Europe they were a persecuted community
B) To unite Jews spread across the world
C) To claim Palestine as their homeland
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
Which regions were occupied by Israel from Egypt ?
A) Gaza
B) Galon Heights
C) West Bank
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 15.
What are failures of Gorbachev among the following ?
A) Introduced certain reforms for the revival economy
B) Promoted healthy relations with the west
C) He was not in a position to help Eastern Europe during its crisis
D) Reforms introduced by open regime called as Glasnost and Perestroika
Answer:
C) He was not in a position to help Eastern Europe during its crisis

Question 16.
The present membership of UNO is ………………
A) 173
B) 193
C) 183
D) 203
Answer:
B) 193

Question 17.
After the creation of Bangladesh in 1971, the Shimla agreement was signed between
A) Jawaharlal Nehru – Chou – Lai
B) Zulifikar Ali Bhutto – Indira Gandhi
C) Mohammad Ayub Khan – Lai Bahadur Shastri
D) Rajiv Gandhi – Benajir Bhutto
Answer:
B) Zulifikar Ali Bhutto – Indira Gandhi

Question 18.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Patrice Lumumba – Congo
B) Che Guevera – Latin America
C) Josip Broz Tito – Egypt
D) Kwame Nkrumah – Ghana
Answer:
B) Che Guevera – Latin America

Question 19.
The total number of member countries of NAM ………………
A) 10
B) 220
C) 190
D) 120
Answer:
D) 120

Question 20.
The important and major natural resource found in West Asia is ………………
A) Gold
B) Coal
C) Copper
D) Oil reserves
Answer:
D) Oil reserves

Question 21.
Aswan dam is present in ………….
A) Egypt
B) India
C) China
D) America
Answer:
A) Egypt

Question 22.
The dominant population in Palestine are ………………
A) Arabs
B) Hindu
C) Jews
D) Buddhists
Answer:
A) Arabs

Question 23.
The first war between India and Pakistan took place in ………………
A) No war took place between India and Pakistan
B) 1962-63
C) 1998-99
D) 1947-48
Answer:
D) 1947-48

Question 24.
“Mukti Bahini” is liberation struggle observed in ………………
A) India
B) Bangladesh
C) Pakistan
D) Sri Lanka
Answer:
B) Bangladesh

Question 25.
The Indian Prime Minister who was assassinated by Tamil militants.
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Lai Bahadur Shastri
D) Gandhiji.
Answer:
B) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 26.
Which of the following organizations of UNO is related to Education?
A) WHO
B) UNICEF
C) UNESCO
D) FAO
Answer:
C) UNESCO

Question 27.
The Chief Spokes Person of Non-Alignment Movement
A) Sukarno
B) Nehru
C) Mashal Tito
D) All of the above
Answer:
B) Nehru

Question 28.
Veto power means
A) Gaining power
B) To accept
C) To extend
D) A power to reject
Answer:
D) A power to reject

Question 29.
Panchasheel agreement is between ……………… countries.
A) India – China
B) India – England
C) India-Russia
D) India-Bangladesh
Answer:
A) India – China

Question 30.
Secretary General of UNO in 2017
A) Angela Morkel
B) Antonio Gutters
C) Irena Bokova
D) Christine Lagarde
Answer:
B) Antonio Gutters

Question 31.
The first human sent by the USSR to enter into space was ………………
A) Neil Armstrong
B) Yuri Gagarin
C) Sunita Williams
D) Rakesh Sharma
Answer:
B) Yuri Gagarin

Question 32.
The headquarters of the World Health Organization is in ………………
A) New York
B) Hague
C) Geneva
D) Washington
Answer:
C) Geneva

Question 33.
China and India signed the Panchasheel Pact on ………………
A) 29th January, 1954
B) 29th April, 1950
C) 29th April, 1954
D) 29th April, 1949
Answer:
C) 29th April, 1954

Question 34.
This country supplied arms and ammunitions for Egypt to struggle, against western countries.
A) India
B) U.S.S.R
C) China
D) Germany
Answer:
B) U.S.S.R

Question 35.
To counter the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, Communist Nations signed this treaty.
A) Warsaw pact
B) Central Treaty Organization
C) Non-aligned Movement
D) Brussels Treaty
Answer:
A) Warsaw pact

Question 36.
The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at. ………………
A) Paris
B) Geneva
C) New York
D) Hague
Answer:
D) Hague

Question 37.
Angola became independent from this country in November 1975.
A) Spain
B) Portugal
C) Belgium
D) France
Answer:
B) Portugal

Question 38.
Myanmar was once called
A) Burma
B) Bangladesh
C) Nepal
D) Ceylone
Answer:
A) Burma

Question 39.
UNICEF headquarters:
A) Los Angeles
B) New York
C) Chicago
O) Washington
Answer:
B) New York

Question 40.
UNESCO headquarters:
A) Geneva
B) Hague
C) Paris
D) New York
Answer:
C) Paris

Question 41.
It was NOT one among allied powers
A) England
B) France
C) Germany
D) Russia
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 42.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) UNO headquarters – NewYork
B) International Court of Justice – Geneva
C) UNICEF – NewYork
D) UNESCO – Paris
Answer:
B) International Court of Justice – Geneva

Question 43.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding UN?
A) General Assembly is the main body where regular discussions between nations take place.
B) In Security Council five nations have special status.
C) UN headquarters is in New York.
D) Permanent members of Security Council are America, China, Britain, India and France.
Answer:
D) Permanent members of Security Council are America, China, Britain, India and France.

Question 44.
Which of the following is the correct pair?
A) Sukarno – Indonesia
B) Tito – Ghana
C) Nkrumah – Yugoslavia
D) Truman – USSR
Answer:
A) Sukarno – Indonesia

Question 45.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding NAM?
A) The first NAM summit was held at Indonesia..
B) Bandung Conference paved the way for NAM
C) Non aligned nations are also called third world countries.
D) By 2012 NAM has 120 countries.
Answer:
C) Non aligned nations are also called third world countries.

Question 46.
In 1968 in Iraq who came to power with a twin policy of Arab Nationalism and Socialism?
A) Yasser Arafat
B) Nasser
C) Tito
D) Saddam Hussain
Answer:
D) Saddam Hussain

Question 47.
Among the following which is not a policy of Panchasheel ?
A) Promoting peaceful coexistence
B) Non interference in the internal affairs
C) To respect for each other’s sovereignty
D) To solve border issues by waging wars
Answer:
D) To solve border issues by waging wars

Question 48.
1) Congo got independence in 1960
2) Angola got independence in 1975
A) 1 is true
B) 2 is true
C) Bqth are false
D) Both are true
Answer:
D) Both are true

Question 49.
Arrange the following in a chronological order
a) Simla agreement
b) Tashkent agreement
c) Indo-China War
A), c, a, b
B) b, c, a
C) c, b, a
D) a, b, c
Answer:
C) c, b, a

Question 50.
Match the following and choose the correct option.
i) Egypt — a) Sukarno
ii) Yugoslavia — b) Tito , :
iii) Indonesia — c) Nehru
iv) India — d) Nasser
A) i – d, ii – b, iii – c, iv – a
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
C) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
D) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
Answer:
D) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c

Question 51.
What are the permanent member countries of U.N.O. ? ( )
A) China, U.K., Japan, Russia and France
B) China, Russia, France, U.K. and Italy
C) France, China, U.S.A, U.K. and Russia
D) China, Russia, France, U.K. and Germany
Answer:
C) France, China, U.S.A, U.K. and Russia

Question 52.
Who formed fidayeens (suicide squads) for causing explosions in public places in Israel ? ( )
A) Yasser Arafat
B) Gamal Abdel Nasser
C) Kwarne Nkrumah
D) Fidel castro
Answer:
B) Gamal Abdel Nasser

Question 53.
This logo belongs to which organization?

A) U.N.O
B) N.A.M
C) UNICEF
D) W.H.O
Answer:
C) UNICEF

Question 54.
Which of the following countries was not a member of communist block ?
A) Spain
B) Hungary
C) East Germany
D) Poland
Answer:
A) Spain

Question 55.
Identify the incorrect set from the following.
A) Kargil War – 2009
B) Indo – China War -1962
C) Indo – Pak War -1965
D) Cold War-1945-1991
Answer:
A) Kargil War – 2009

Question 56.
Which of the following is not associated with the UN?
A) UNESCO
B) NATO
C) WHO
D) UNICEF
Answer:
B) NATO

Question 57.
Allende was the leader of
A) Cube
B) Angola
C) Chile
D) U.S.A
Answer:
C) Chile

Question 58.
The following country was not involved in the drafting of charter of U.N.O.
A) England
B) France
C) Japan
D) China
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 59.
Patrice Lumumba, the communist leader of ……. was killed in 1961.
A) Cuba
B) Belgium
C) Angola
D) Congo
Answer:
D) Congo

Question 60.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) UNO head quarters – New York
B) UNICEF – New York
C) UNESCO – Paris .
D) International Court of Justice – Geneva
Answer:
D) International Court of Justice – Geneva

Question 61.
Find the incorrect set
A) USSR invaded Afghanistan -1971
B) NATO -1947
C) USSR withdrawn from Afghanistan -1985
D) Disassociation of China from USSR – 1960
Answer:
B) NATO -1947

Question 62.
Which is not related to non-aligned countries ?
A) Backward nations in Asia, Africa and Latin America
B) Third World countries
C) All the communist-nations
D) Newly independent countries
Answer:
C) All the communist-nations

Question 63.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) NATO (1949) – America
B) PLO (1964) – Egypt
C) Bandung (1955) -NAM
D) Warsaw Pact (1955) – USSR
Answer:
B) PLO (1964) – Egypt

Question 64.
Munich Olympics were held in year
A) 1970
B) 1974
C) 1972
D) 1976
Answer:
C) 1972

Question 65.
After the creation of Bangladesh in 1971, the Shimla agreement was signed between
A) Jawaharlal Nehru and Chou – en – Lai
B) Mohammad Ayub khan and Lai Bahadur Shastri
C) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Indira Gandhi
D) Rajiv Gandhi and Benajir Bhutto
Answer:
C) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Indira Gandhi

Question 66.
Shimla agreement was signed between…………….in 1971 year.
A) India-Sri Lanka
B) India-China
C) India-Pakistan
D) Bangladesh – Pakistan
Answer:
C) India-Pakistan

Question 67.
…………….. was believed as Promised Land of Jews.
A) Pakistan
B) Russia
C) USA
D) Palestine
Answer:
D) Palestine

Question 68.
Which is not a cold war ?
A) A strange war fought between the two blocks
B) A direct war between the two blocks
C) A war behind the closed doors
D) A propaganda war
Answer:
B) A direct war between the two blocks

Question 69.
Now the world is recognising which among the following as rising powers of Asia?
A) China and Pakistan
B) China and India
C) Andhra Pradesh and Singapore
D) India and Pakistan
Answer:
B) China and India

Question 70.
The border – line between India and China is
A) Radcliffe line
B) Durand line
C) Maginot line
D) Me Mahon line
Answer:
D) Me Mahon line

Question 71.
The settlement of Palestine resulted in the creation of a new state called
A) Egypt
B) Ghana
C) Israel
D) Poland
Answer:
C) Israel

Question 72
The problem of Palestine is related to these people
A) Jews-Arabs
B) Jews-Egyptians
C) Jews-Syrians
D) Arab-English
Answer:
A) Jews-Arabs

Question 73.
India fought against Pakistan in 1971 for the liberation of
A) Azad Kashmir
B) Siachin Sector
C) Poonch Sector
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
D) Bangladesh

Question 74.
The struggle for Tamil Eelam is in
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Sri Lanka
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
C) Sri Lanka

Question 75.
Which of the following organizations of the League of Nations have been functioning till today ?
nanmsTim
A) World Health Organization
B) International Labour Organization
C) International Court of Justice
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 76.
The number of countries in U.N.O in 2012 was ……………
A) 115
B) 193
C) 186
D) 120
Answer:
B) 193

Question 77.
The Cold War was between the countries, …………… rarosrant )
A) USSR – America (USA)
B) USSR – Germany
C) Japan – America (USA)
D) Britain – France
Answer:
A) USSR – America (USA)

Question 78.
UNO headquarters is located at……………
A) Geneva
B) New York
C) Switzerland
D) France
Answer:
B) New York

Question 79.
Panchasheel Pact was signed in
A) 1954
B) 1945
C) 1917
D) 1971
Answer:
A) 1954

Question 80.
The countries stand the first and second places in world population are
A) India and China
B) India and Russia
C) China and Russia
D) China and India
Answer:
D) China and India

Question 81.
Identify the important aspect that was result of the new processes of the World even as the war devastated countries rebuilt their economies.
A) Establishing UNO
B) Dictatorship
C) Imperialism
D) Colonisation
Answer:
A) Establishing UNO

Question 82.
This is not a specific function of United Nations Organisation
A) preserving peace
B) encouraging terrorism
C) eradication of poverty
D) ensure human rights
Answer:
B) encouraging terrorism

Question 83.
Cold war means .
A) War through propaganda and words
B) Nuclear war
C) Traditional war
D) Space war
Answer:
A) War through propaganda and words

Question 84.
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as
A) Europe crisis .
B) South Asian crisis
C) West Asian crisis
D) Arab spring
Answer:
D) Arab spring

Question 85.
Dispute of Brahmaputra – Ganga is between……………..
A) Bharat – Nepal
B) Bharat – Pakistan –
C) Bharat – Bangladesh
D) Bharat – Srilanka
Answer:
C) Bharat – Bangladesh

Question 86.
It is established to continue the purpose of the League of Nations.
A) Socialist group
B) World Bank
C) Capitalist group
D) United Nations Organisation
Answer:
D) United Nations Organisation

Question 87.
The map shows Israel and Palestine. The places shown with ‘A’ belong to ……….

A) Palestine
B) Israel
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Iraq
Answer:
A) Palestine

Observe the map and answer the questions 88 & 89.

Question 88.
The country that had conflicts with India as sharing of river waters of the Ganga and Brahmaputra and illegal migration

A) Bangladesh
B) Pakistan
C) China
D) Nepal
Answer:
A) Bangladesh

Question 89.
The country whose main bone of contention is Kashmir
A) Pakistan
B) China
C) Bangladesh
D) Nepal
Answer:
A) Pakistan

Question 90.
The countries given in the map are the founders of ……………….

A) NAM .
B) UNO
C) League of Nations
D) NATO
Answer:
A) NAM

Question 91.
A war fought behind doors through propaganda and words is ……………….
A) direct war
B) cold war
C) civil war
D) nuclear war
Answer:
B) cold war

Question 92.
The first satellite of USSR is
A) Aryabhatta
B) Kukai
C) Sputnik
D) Bhaskara
Answer:
C) Sputnik

Question 93.
Bandung Conference, 1955 was significant with the formation of……………..=
A) United Nations Organization
B) Palestinian Liberation Organization
C) Non-Aligned Movement
D) World Bank
Answer:
C) Non-Aligned Movement

Question 94.
This is NOT an issue in between India and Bangladesh.
A) River water sharing
B) Implementation of welfare schemes
C) Fencing of border
D) Illegal migration
Answer:
B) Implementation of welfare schemes

Question 95.
Which prime minister gave this inspiring speech ?
………………… whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic state and uses religion…. we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose.
A) Nehru
B) Lai Bahadur Sastri
C) Vajpayee
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
B) Lai Bahadur Sastri

Question 96.
Of the following which is wrong ?
A) Fidel Castro revolted against America
B) The fight of Fidel Castro inspired Latin American countries.
C) USA supported socialist governments like Chile
D) Che Guvera was a popular leader of Latin America.
Answer:
C) USA supported socialist governments like Chile

Question 97.
Talibans, the extreme group, belong to this country
A) Chile
B) Ghana
C) Afghanistan
D) Czechoslovakia
Answer:
C) Afghanistan

Question 98.
This city is considered a holy one for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike
A) Rome
B) Jerusalem
C) Paris
D) Mecca
Answer:
B) Jerusalem

Question 99.
Fidayeens means
A) Names and atom bombs
B) Suicide squads formed by Egypt
C) Other name of Kashmiri people
D) Arab refugees
Answer:
B) Suicide squads formed by Egypt

Question 100.
Gaza, Golan Heights and West Bank are part of:
A) Egypt
B) Israel
C) Yugoslavia
D) Indonesia
Answer:
A) Egypt

Question 101.
Cold war created intense tension in the world between
A) 1945 and 1991
B) 1945 and 1992
C) 1945 and 1900
D) 1945 and 1995
Answer:
A) 1945 and 1991

Question 102.
Fidel Castro led revolution in
A) Portugal
B) Angola
C) Latin Amercia
D) Africa
Answer:
C) Latin Amercia

Question 103.
Che Guvera led revolution in
A) U.S.S.R
B) Angola
C) Latin America
D) USA
Answer:
C) Latin America

Question 104.
………….. died in 2004 due to suspected poisoning
A) Yasser Arafat
B) Saddam Hussain
C) Gen Tito ‘
D) Abdel Nasser
Answer:
A) Yasser Arafat

Question 105.
A military coup took place in ……………in 1969
A) Palestine
B) Egypt
C) Libya
D) Iraq
Answer:
C) Libya

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Oceans and Fishing on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 4th Lesson Oceans and Fishing with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The deepest ocean is
A) the Atlantic Ocean
B) the Indian Ocean
C) the Arctic Ocean
D) the Pacific Ocean
Answer:
D) the Pacific Ocean

Question 2.
Ocean currents are caused by
A) Prevailing winds
B) the salinity of the ocean
C) differences in temperature
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 3.
…………. are the rhythmic rise and fall of the water in the oceans everyday.
A) Waves
B) Tides
C) Currents
D) Trenches
Answer:
A) Waves

Question 4.
It is estimated that about ……… % of the earth’s surface is occupied by seas and oceans.
A) 61%
B) 81%
C) 91%
D) 71%
Answer:
D) 71%

Question 5.
The ocean currents are of ……….. types.
A) five
B) three
C) four
D) two
Answer:
D) two

Question 6.
The number of major oceans is……………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
C) 5

Question 7.
Bhavanapadu lies at the tail end of …………. canal.
A) Krishna
B) the Godavari
C) Penna
D) Vamshadhara
Answer:
D) Vamshadhara

Question 8.
The most important festival in Bhavanapadu village is
A) Dasara
B) Diwali
C) Gowri Purnima
D) Ramjan
Answer:
C) Gowri Purnima

Question 9.
In Bhavanapadu, during festivals, all the activities -burrakathas, hari kathas, dramas etc., are led by the caste headmen called
A) Rajas
B) Ministers
C) Pillas
D) Leaders
Answer:
C) Pillas

Question 10.
The fishermen have a special ……….. for repairing the nets.
A) needle
B) thread
C) fork
D) tool kit
Answer:
C) fork

Question 11.
The bottom of the ocean is
A) with water
B) like earth’s surface
C) with minerals in improper order
D) none
Answer:
B) like earth’s surface

Question 12.
These are at the bottom of oceans
A) mountains
B) hills
C) plateaus, bays
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 13.
The depth of the ocean when com¬pared to sea level mostly below.
A) 3 to 6 kms
B) 6 to 9 kms
C) 9 to 12 kms
D) 4 to 8 kms
Answer:
A) 3 to 6 kms

Question 14.
How many kinds of movements are there to an Ocean?
A) two kinds
B) three kinds
C) four kinds
D) five kinds
Answer:
B) three kinds

Question 15.
The ups and downs of sea surface water are called so
A) waves
B) currents
C) tides
D) all the above
Answer:
A) waves

Question 16.
The seawater moves from one place to other
A) waves
B) currents
C) tides
D) all the above
Answer:
B) currents

Question 17.
The flows from the equator to the poles
A) warm currents
B) cold currents
C) right cold currents
D) right warm currents
Answer:
A) warm currents

Question 18.
The ocean currents mainly depend on these winds world wide are
A) Warm currents
B) Cold currents
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
The taste of seawater is
A) tasteless
B) salty
C) sweet
D) no taste
Answer:
B) salty

Question 20.
These are useful for international trade
A) rivers
B) oceans
C) borewells
D) tanks
Answer:
B) oceans

Question 21.
The total cost of diesel, labor and other expenses for fishing to fishermen
A) Rs. 5000
B) Rs. 4000
C) Rs. 6000
D) Rs. 7000
Answer:
A) Rs. 5000

Question 22.
The fishermen usually turn back to the land, when they go to the hut.
A) 1 p.m. to 8 p.m
B) 2 p.m. to 9 p.m
C) 4 p.m. to 12 p.m
D) 6 p.m. to 1 a.m
Answer:
A) 1 p.m. to 8 p.m

Question 23.
Some middlemen purchase fish from fishermen and export them to these places by keeping them in fridges
A) Kolkata
B) Bangalore
C) Chennai, Hyderabad, Kerala
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
Karrateppa is a country made boat which goes up to ………. km.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 25.
It is dangerous to hunt from these
A) Karrateppalu
B) Marapadavalu
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Marapadavalu

Question 26.
The fishermen have a special ………… for repairing the nets.
A) Tool kit
B) First Aid Box
C) Diesel
D) Thread
Answer:
A) Tool kit

Question 27.
The things in a tool kit
A) Nulukarralu
B) Nulukanda
C) Karrabadda
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
What is the lifetime of a net?
A) 2, 3 years
B) 3, 4 years
C) 4, 5 years
D) 5, 6 years
Answer:
C) 4, 5 years

Question 29.
The price of net per kg
A) Rs. 200 – 300
B) Rs. 250 – 300
C) Rs. 300 – 350
D) Rs. 400 – 450
Answer:
B) Rs. 250 – 300

Question 30.
The main soil in Bhavanapadu.
A) Red soil
B) Sandy soil
C) Clayey soil
D) Laterite soil
Answer:
C) Clayey soil

Question 31.
This village is on the last end of canal of the Vamshadhara
A) Bhavanapadu
B) Errapadu
C) Nallajedu
D) Sultanpur
Answer:
A) Bhavanapadu

Question 32.
At what depth we can have fresh water in the Coastal region?
A) 5-8 feet
B) 8 -10 feet
C) 10-15 feet
D) 15 – 20 feet
Answer:
B) 8 -10 feet

Question 33.
These Gods are offered prayers in Bhavanapadu.
A) Gangamma
B) Gowri
C) Shiva
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
The head of the caste is called so in Bhavanapadu.
A) Balias
B) Pillas
C) Kullas
D) Chalias
Answer:
B) Pillas

Question 35.
The main function of Bhavanapadu is called so
A) determine customs and traditions of the people
B) resolve disputes
C) impose fines
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 36.

What does the picture show?
A) Middleman’s adda
B) Karrateppa
C) Mara padava
D) None
Answer:
A) Middleman’s adda

Question 37.
Nulu Kanda: Thread:: Kannulu: …………..
A) Net
B) Boat
C) Rings
D) None
Answer:
C) Rings

Question 38.

Who are they?
A) Middle women
B) Fisherwomen
C) Berakatthelu
D) None
Answer:
C) Berakatthelu

Question 39.
The highest percentage of fresh water lies in which of the following.
A) Seas
B) Swamps
C) Rivers
D) Icecaps and Glaciers
Answer:
D) Icecaps and Glaciers

Question 40.
The head man of Bhavanapadu.
A) Bharduka
B) Pillas
C) Gana
D) Peshwa
Answer:
B) Pillas

Question 41.
Which of the following is not caused for ocean currents?
A) Fishing
B) Prevailing winds
C) Difference in temperature
D) Difference in Salinity
Answer:
A) Fishing

Question 42.

Which relief feature of an ocean is represented by (2) in the given picture?
A) Continental shelf
B) Continental slope
C) Trench
D) Deep Sea Plain
Answer:
B) Continental slope

Question 43.
The rhythmic rise and fall of oceans water twice in a day is called
A) Tides
B) Waves
C) Current
D) Storms
Answer:
A) Tides

Question 44.
Generally, the warm ocean currents originate near
A) North pole
B) South pole
C) Arctic circle
D) the Equator
Answer:
D) the Equator

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Tanks and Ground Water on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Tanks and Ground Water with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Our ancestors have tried to use rain water by building.
A) Tanks
B) Wells
C) Borewells
D) Dams
Answer:
A) Tanks

Question 2.
Rocks which have cracks or pores in them and can contain water are called …………
A) Pervious rocks
B) Impervious rocks
C) Granites
D) Limestone
Answer:
A) Pervious rocks

Question 3.
The layer of water which accumu¬lates under the ground among rocks is called
A) Topsoil
B) Shale rock
C) Limestone
D) Aquifer
Answer:
D) Aquifer

Question 4.
………… water is usually mixed with many minerals
A) Tank
B) Rain
C) Ground
D) None
Answer:
C) Ground

Question 5.
Today’s generation has received ……………… from the past as a sacred asset,
A) Land
B) Gold
C) Water
D) Forest
Answer:
C) Water

Question 6.
Under ……….. projects trees and grasses are planted on the hill slopes from where a stream s,tarts and small bunds are built across streams to stop the flow of water.
A) Tanks
B) Check dams
C) Dams
D) Watershed
Answer:
D) Watershed

Question 7.
In Rainy season water level goes …………
A) upper
B) same
C) deep
D) deeper
Answer:
A) upper

Question 8.
The level of groundwater also called
A) water table
B) water cycle
C) water tanks
D) waterfalls
Answer:
A) water table

Question 9.
The flow of rainwater is checked by
A) vegetation
B) check dams
C) fertilizers
D) chemicals
Answer:
A) vegetation

Question 10.
Sandstones are found in ………… district in Andhra Pradesh.
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Anantapur
D) Prakasam
Answer:
D) Prakasam

Question 11.
The main chance to store water
A) changing the river course
B) digging canals
C) building tanks
D) arranging flows
Answer:
C) building tanks

Question 12.
These persons took up building tanks in the olden days.
A) Kings
B) Army leaders
C) Leaders
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
Who made repairs to tank bunds?
A) Kings
B) Villagers
C) Army heads
D) None
Answer:
B) Villagers

Question 14.
A person who regulated the use of water from the tank
A) Neeru Katte Manisi
B) Neerati
C) Unemployed
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 15.
The main use of tank
A) It fulfills the needs of people.
B) It supplies drinking water to animals.
C) It helps in irrigating their fields in such a way that even during drought years.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The most important use of tanks
A) it never controls water flow.
B) soil eradication is high.
C) the silt in tanks is used in fields to fertilize the soil.
D) none of these.
Answer:
C) the silt in tanks is used in fields to fertilize the soil.

Question 17.
The main reason for the decline of tanks
A) desilting have not been done
B) repairs have not been done properly
C) people used the tank lands for building houses
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
The programme introduced by the Andhra Pradesh state government for minor irrigation tanks aims at the removal of silt from tank beds and repair and construction of tank bunds.
A) Mission Kakatiya
B) Mana Uuru – Mana Cheruvu
C) Neeru Chettu – Neeru Pragathi
D) Both A & B
Answer:
C) Neeru Chettu – Neeru Pragathi

Question 19.
Under groundwater is extracted from these
A) wells
B) tubewells
C) both A & B
D) tanks
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 20.
The rocky layer that has cracks, pores is
A) strong
B) soft
C) weightless
D) easy
Answer:
B) soft

Question 21.
Granite, Kadapa limestone are examples of these stone
A) strong rocky layer
B) soft rocky layer
C) rocky layer with no weight
D) all the above
Answer:
A) strong rocky layer

Question 22.
Pakala cheruvu is in which district?
A) Chittoor
B) Anantapur
C) Kurnool
D) Krishna
Answer:
A) Chittoor

Question 23.
Most of the layers under the earth in Andhra Pradesh are hard and water cannot go beneath them are of this kind
A) coal
B) granite
C) sandstone
D) clay
Answer:
B) granite

Question 24.
Thick layers are present in the regions near the great rivers like the Krishna and the Godavari
A) sand
B) alluvial soil
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 25.
This should be done to increase water table
A) growing plants
B) storing water by constructing dams
C) growing grass on the slopes of hills
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 26.
This helps to increase the water table
A) rivers
B) wells
C) kuntas
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 27.
The trails to increase water table are called so
A) Watershed development programs
B) Dharawahikalu
C) Water storage projects
D) Water capacity projects
Answer:
A) Watershed development programs

Question 28.
These are with groundwater
A) minerals
B) pesticides
C) dust particles
D) none
Answer:
A) minerals

Question 29.
The mineral salts that are most in water in our state
A) Salt, Fluoride
B) Chloride, Iron
C) Nitrate
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
If somebody drinks water that contains Salt, Fluoride, Chloride, Iron, Nitrate, etc., they get diseases related to these
A) bones
B) teeth
C) both A & B
D) nerves
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
This water is the common property of all
A) river water
B) under groundwater
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 32.
People should follow the system regarding water
A) water should be used economically.
B) steps to be taken to store water.
C) water should be handed over to future generations as pious property.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 33.
The picture shows

A) Save water
B) Save land
C) Save the forest
D) None
Answer:
A) Save water

Question 34.
This is true in the context of water usage
A) Groundwater to be treated as a common resource of all people
B) Water should be used in a restrained manner
C) Water conservation methods to be developed and practiced
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
The most important thing is that tanks helped to prevent
A) Run-off of Rainwater
B) The erosion of topsoils
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.

During the summer season the groundwater level is
A) Decreasing
B) Increasing
C) Remain same
D) Totally disappears
Answer:
A) Decreasing

Question 37.

What does the picture show?
A) The person affected with fluoride water
B) The person affected with polio
C) The person affected with paralysis
D) None
Answer:
A) The person affected with fluoride water

Question 38.
The Arid region of our country is
A) Punjab
B) Rajasthan
C) Meghalaya
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Rajasthan

Question 39.
In which of these places do you expect maximum percolation to take place
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
(c)

Question 40.
In the future which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
A) Decrease in rainfall
B) Increase in water pollution
C) Ocean currents
D) Urbanisation
Answer:
D) Urbanisation

Question 41.
Check dams and bunds help in
A) Generating electricity
B) Increasing rainfall
C) increasing groundwater
D) Increasing soil erosion
Answer:
C) increasing groundwater

Question 42.
Which of the following is a program initiated by the Government for de-silting of tanks in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Polam Pilustondi
B) Inkuduguntalu
C) Vanam – Manam
D) Neeru-Chettu
Answer:
D) Neeru-Chettu

Question 43.
The present Water Resources Minister of the State of Andhra Pradesh
A) Yanamala Ramakrishnudu
B) Nara Lokesh
C) Ganta Srinivasa Rao
D) Devineni Uma Maheswara Rao
Note: Present – Dr. P. Anil Kumar.
Answer:
D) Devineni Uma Maheswara Rao

Question 44.
In many villages, people use water from wells for drinking. How does water get into wells?
A) It has to be poured into them from water tanks
B) Rain sinks down through the soil into them
C) It is pumped by large engines into the well
D) It evaporates from the inside of Earth.
Answer:
B) Rain sinks down through the soil into them

Question 45.
Observe the picture of Groundwater level in the rainy season in one region.

If you were to dig a new well in the rainy season in a region at what minimum depth would you get water.
A) 3 meters
B) 5 meters
C) 10 meters
D) 7.5 meters
Answer:
B) 5 meters

Question 46.
Water gets percolates through them
A) Shale rocks
B) Hard Rockey layer
C) Soft Previous Rock
D) Sand Rock
Answer:
C) Soft Previous Rock

Question 47.
A person who regulates the use of water from the tank
A) Pillas
B) Patla
C) Neerati
D) Panch
Answer:
C) Neerati

Question 48.
This is true in the context of water usage:
A) Groundwater to be treated as a common resource of all people
B) Water should be used in a restrained manner
C) Water conservation methods are to be developed and practiced
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Answer questions 49 and 50 based on the information given in the table below.

Place	Depth of the Water Table in Summer	Depth of the Water Table in Monsoon
A	5 meters	1 meter
B	10 meters	5 meters
c	100 meters	50 meters
D	20 meters	10 meters

Question 49.
Which place is most likely located in a delta region
A) Place A
B) Place B
C) Place C
D) Place D
Answer:
A) Place A

Question 50.
During summer, a 50 meter deep well will go dry in which place?
A) Place A
B) Place B
C) Place C
D) Place D
Answer:
C) Place C

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Rain and Rivers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson Rain and Rivers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There are ……………. arms of the monsoon winds.
A) three
B) four
C) one
D) two
Answer:
D) two

Question 2.
In the months from …….. to ……… cyclones from in the Bay of Bengal causing widespread rains in coastal and inland Andhra Pradesh.
A) May to October
B) November to March
C) June to August
D) September to December
Answer:
A) May to October

Question 3.
The South-West monsoon, however, brings much rain to the …………
A) Rayalaseema
B) Telangana
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
B) Telangana

Question 4.
………… is an instrument by which the rainfall is measured.
A) Rain scope
B) Rain guage
C) Rain metre
D) Rain puppet
Answer:
B) Rain guage

Question 5.
The rivers Krishna and Godavari start from the
A) the Eastern Ghats
B) the Western Ghats
C) Deccan Plateau
D) None of these
Answer:
B) the Western Ghats

Question 6.
………… allows the water to flow slowly into the river.
A) Sand
B) Hills
C) Soil
D) Vegetation
Answer:
D) Vegetation

Question 7.
Ganga and its tributaries originate in
A) the Western Ghats
B) Himalayas
C) the Eastern Ghats
D) Deccan Plateau
Answer:
B) Himalayas

Question 8.
In our state we have ………… main deltas.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Answer:
A) two

Question 9.
………….. is the main tributary of the River Krishna.
A) Manjira
B) Musi
C) Dindi
D) Tungabhadra
Answer:
D) Tungabhadra

Question 10.
In coastal Andhra Pradesh, at least ………… villages were washed away by the cyclonic storms in 1977.
A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 125
Answer:
C) 100

Question 11.
The percentage of water on the earth’s surface.
A) 29%
B) 71%
C) 66%
D) 49%
Answer:
B) 71%

Question 12.
This may take place in the form of dew, fog, rain, snow and hail.
A) Evaporation
B) Precipitation
C) Humidity
D) None
Answer:
B) Precipitation

Question 13.
The summer months which are unbearable
A) April – May – June
B) May – June – July
C) March – April – May
D) April – June – July
Answer:
A) April – May – June

Question 14.
When the water is boiled it changes as water vapour, then water vapour gets cooled and changes as
A) ice
B) water
C) water vapour
D) pressure
Answer:
B) water

Question 15.
Water changes into vapour and mixes with the sky.
A) condensation
B) evaporation
C) sublimation
D) transpiration
Answer:
B) evaporation

Question 16.
Evaporation takes place from these
A) oceans
B) rivers
C) lakes
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 17.
When the heat increases water?
A) evaporates more
B) evaporates less
C) no change in vapour
D) none
Answer:
A) evaporates more

Question 18.
When we rise from the earth’s surface?
A) there is heat
B) there is cold
C) no change occurs
D) none
Answer:
A) there is heat

Question 19.
Tiny droplets together
A) increase heat
B) form as clouds
C) drops as rain
D) all the above
Answer:
B) form as clouds

Question 20.
Water vapour changes into water
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) precipitation
D) humidity
Answer:
B) condensation

Question 21.
The process of water evaporating from the seas, forming clouds in the sky, coming down as rain, flowing down the slopes on land in the form of rivers and finally joining the sea is called the
A) evaporation
B) water cycle
C) precipitation
D) humidity
Answer:
B) water cycle

Question 22.
Different forms of condensations of water vapour are known as
A) evaporation
B) water cycle
C) precipitation
D) humidity
Answer:
C) precipitation

Question 23.
The amount of invisible water vapours present in the atmosphere is known as
A) evaporation
B) water cycle
C) precipitation
D) humidity
Answer:
D) humidity

Question 24.
The wind, come all the way from the Arabian sea to the Bay of Bengal and causes
A) rain
B) no rain
C) no changes
D) none
Answer:
A) rain

Question 25.
The monsoons in India are of ……… kinds.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
A) 2

Question 26.
In Andhra Pradesh state, the temperature rises higher every day between
A) March and June
B) April and June
C) May and August
D) March and August
Answer:
A) March and June

Question 27.
The rains in Andhra Pradesh due to the South-West monsoon is
A) high
B) low
C) common
D) none
Answer:
A) high

Question 28.
This district receives very little rainfall in Andhra Pradesh in the South-West monsoon time.
A) Anantapur
B) Kurnool
C) YSR Kadapa
D) Both A & B
Answer:
C) YSR Kadapa

Question 29.
Rain caused by whirling storms is called.
A) Convectional rainfall
B) Orographic rainfall
C) Cyclonic rainfall
D) None
Answer:
C) Cyclonic rainfall

Question 30.
The months in which cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal
A) January and February
B) March and April
C) May to October
D) September and October
Answer:
C) May to October

Question 31.
The winds from the Bay of Bengal blow towards this direction after October
A) North-East
B) North-West
C) South-East
D) South-West
Answer:
D) South-West

Question 32.
Andhra Pradesh receives very little rainfall during these months.
A) October, November
B) November, December
C) March, April
D) May
Answer:
D) May

Question 33.
North-East monsoons are also called as
A) Return monsoon
B) High monsoons
C) Low monsoon
D) None
Answer:
A) Return monsoon

Question 34.
These are formed due to water flow from mountains
A) streams
B) seas
C) oceans
D) brooks
Answer:
A) streams

Question 35.
Smaller rivers or streams which join a large river are called ………….
A) rivers
B) lakes
C) tributaries
D) brooks
Answer:
C) tributaries

Question 36.
As the river becomes bigger and broader, its flow gets
A) faster
B) slower
C) no change in flow
D) none
Answer:
B) slower

Question 37.
This forms where the river joins the sea.
A) deserts
B) deltas
C) plateaus
D) mountains
Answer:
B) deltas

Question 38.
The Krishna and Godavari rivers originated from these
A) Eastern ghats
B) Western Ghats
C) Satpura ranges
D) Vindhya ranges
Answer:
B) Western Ghats

Question 39.
The treeless bed in the flow of the river is called
A) plain
B) desert plain
C) mountain plain
D) Flood plain
Answer:
D) Flood plain

Question 40.
The slowing down river water helps the rainwater
A) to change the route to agricultural fields.
B) to percolate into the soil.
C) to control floods.
D) all the above
Answer:
B) to percolate into the soil.

Question 41.
The reason behind the floods
A) a sudden inflow of water into the river
B) a slow inflow of water into the river
C) a late & slow inflow of water into the river
D) all the above
Answer:
A) a sudden inflow of water into the river

Question 42.
If the surface of the land is covered with vegetation,
A) then soil erosion is greatly reduced.
B) soil erosion cannot be reduced.
C) may cause harm to the environment.
D) all the above
Answer:
A) then soil erosion is greatly reduced.

Question 43.
India is frequently facing destructive cyclones from the Bay of Bengal. The reason
A) Because it has no long coastline.
B) Because it has a long coastline.
C) Because of unrest in the sea.
D) Because of no rains.
Answer:
B) Because it has a long coastline.

Question 44.
The worst cyclone hit the East Coast in
A) November 1976
B) November 1977
C) November 1978
D) December 1977
Answer:
B) November 1977

Question 45.
In November 1977 on the east coast, six-metre high tidal waves swept across villages and killed ……… people.
A) 7000
B) 8000
C) 9000
D) 9941
Answer:
D) 9941

Question 46.
Who is most affected at the time of natural calamities?
A) poorest people
B) middle-class people
C) higher class people
D) landlords
Answer:
A) poorest people

Question 47.
Diseases caused due to polluted water
A) Cholera
B) Jaundice
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 48.
The negative effect due to cyclones
A) loss of lives
B) loss of crops
C) loss of property
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 49.
Governments are also responsible for providing long term security to all the people by building
A) pucca houses,
B) strong roads
C) food, water and medical emergency teams
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
How can people prepare for disasters?
A) wide advertisement through TV & Radio
B) keeping an emergency kit ready at home
C) should arrange a rehabilitation centre
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 51.
What does the picture show?

A) Trade winds
B) Evaporation
C) Cyclone
D) Water cycle
Answer:
B) Evaporation

Question 52.
Seasoned winds blow from the Arabian Sea in India
A) North-East Monsoons
B) South – West Monsoons
C) South-East Monsoons
D) North-West Monsoons
Answer:
C) South-East Monsoons

Question 53.

Where does the South West Monsoon enter India?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Kerala
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
C) Kerala

Question 54.
Find out the correct statement.
1. South-West monsoon provide bulky rains in entire India.
2. North-East monsoon provide bulky rains in entire India.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 55.
Find out the correct statement.
1. Evaporation takes place from oceans and rivers.
2. Evaporation takes place from living beings.
3. Evaporation takes place from non – living beings.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 & 2 only
D) 3 only
Answer:
C) 1 & 2 only

Question 56.
Cyclonic months in South India are
A) October – November
B) January – February
C) March – April
D) June – July
Answer:
A) October – November

Question 57.
Hud Hud : Visakhapatnam :: Vardah:
A) Odisa
B) Chennai
C) West Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Chennai

Question 58.
Godavari: Triyambak:: Krishna:
A) Nasik
B) Amarkantak
C) Mahabaleswar
D) Brahma giri hills
Answer:
C) Mahabaleswar

Question 59.
Match the following A
1. South-West                     ( )        A) Mediterranean sea
2. North – East                    ( )         B) Measure the rainfall
3. Western distrubances     ( )         C) Kerala
4. Rain guage                      ( )        D) Tamilnadu
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
D) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 60.

What is the tributary of the Krishna river?
A) Chitravathi
B) Papagni
C) Manjeera
D) Musi
Answer:
D) Musi

Question 61.
What is the main river that flows in the southern region of A.P?
A) Penna
B) Krishna
C) Dindi
D) None
Answer:
A) Penna

Question 62.
How can we measure the rainfall?
A) Using a thermometer
B) Using a rain gauge
C) Using a barometer
D) Using an anemometer
Answer:
B) Using a rain gauge

Question 63.
The South-West monsoon winds’ begins to blow in which of the following season?
A) Winter
B) Summer
C) Spring
D) Autumn
Answer:
B) Summer

Question 64.
The maximum amount of evaporation would take place from
A) Plants
B) Rivers
C) Oceans
D) Soils
Answer:
C) Oceans

Question 65.
Which of the following is NOT an example of evaporation?
A) Drying wet clothes when put in the sun.
B) Drying of water from puddles from the street
C) Cooling of water in earthen pots
D) Freshly laid cement pavement drying up after a rain shower
Answer:
C) Cooling of water in earthen pots

Question 66.
True among the following statements is:
0 Evaporation takes place from oceans and rivers.
ii) Evaporation takes place from our bodies.
iii) Evaporation takes place from trees and plants.
iv) Evaporation takes place from the soil.
A) i only
B) i and iii only
C) i, ii and iii only
D) i, ii, iii and iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii and iv

Question 67.
Seasonal winds blow from the Arabian Sea in India:
A) North-East Monsoons
B) South West Monsoons
C) South-East Monsoons
D) North-West Monsoons
Answer:
B) South West Monsoons

The diagram below shows the path of a river. Answer questions 68 and 69 based on the diagram.

Question 68.
Where is the river forming a delta?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 69.
Where is the river joined by a tributary?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 70.
The picture shows cold soft drink bottles. What best explains the water droplets formed on the bottles?

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Precipitation
D) Transpitation
Answer:
B) Condensation

Question 71.
The highest percentage of freshwater lies in which of the following.
A) Seas
B) Swamps
C) Rivers
D) Icecaps and Glaciers
Answer:
D) Icecaps and Glaciers

Question 72.
The maximum rain is in
A) Rainshadow area
B) Mountains that are in the direction of winds
C) Arid zone
D) Desert
Answer:
B) Mountains that are in the direction of winds

Read the following map and answer Q. 73 & 74

Question 73.
Which river flows through Andhra Pradesh?
A) Cauvery
B) Mahanadi
C) Narmada
D) Krishna
Answer:
B) Mahanadi

Question 74.
In which state does the Mahanadi river flow?
A) Kerala
B) Tamilnadu
C) Karnataka
D) Odisa
Answer:
D) Odisa

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Reading Maps of Different Kinds on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Reading Maps of Different Kinds with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Maps showing the distribution of forests are
A) Physical Map
B) Thematic Map
C) Atlas
D) Political Map
Answer:
A) Physical Map

Question 2.
The blue colour is used for showing
A) Waterbodies
B) Mountains
C) Plains
D) Hills
Answer:
A) Waterbodies

Question 3.
Maps are of
A) two types
B) many types
C) some types
D) four types
Answer:
B) many types

Question 4.
………….. is a line joining the places with equal heights.
A) Contour line
B) Plain
C) Hill
D) Plan
Answer:
A) Contour line

Question 5.
…………….. is cut by many rivers like the Krishna and the Godavari which form deep and broad valleys in them.
A) The hill
B) The plain
C) The plateau
D) The mountain
Answer:
A) The hill

Question 6.
…………. tell us about how high or low the places are.
A) Maps
B) Globes
C) Plans
D) Books
Answer:
A) Maps

Question 7.
PO stands for
A) Police Officer
B) Post Office
C) Polling Officer
D) Post and Telegraph Office
Answer:
B) Post Office

Question 8.
This is the symbol of ……………….
A) Tank
B) River
C) Borewell
D) Canal
Answer:
A) Tank

Question 9.
This is the symbol of
A) Settlement
B) Graveyard
C) Trees
D) Clouds
Answer:
B) Graveyard

Question 10.
To show any physical features on a map, we can use these
A) heights/ups
B) downs
C) symbols
D) all the above
Answer:
C) symbols

Question 11.
Delhi can be shown with this
A) (•) Dot
B) ( ~ ) Flowway
C) Track
D) Border with different colors
Answer:
A) (•) Dot

Question 12.
The heights on the earth are measured from this
A) lakes
B) sea level
C) rivers
D) river flows
Answer:
B) sea level

Question 13.
This joins the places with equal heights on the map
A) Contour lines
B) Flatlines
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
Contour lines
A) crosses each other
B) do not cross each other
C) irregular in shape
D) both B & C
Answer:
D) both B & C

Question 15.
If the Slope of land is gentle
A) the contour lines will be quite far from each other.
B) the contour lines will be very near.
C) the contour lines will be at different heights.
D) none
Answer:
A) the contour lines will be quite far from each other.

Question 16.
The distance between two contour lines depends upon the landscape of this
A) earth
B) mountain
C) sea
D) water
Answer:
A) earth

Question 17.
If we observe the Andhra Pradesh map the river Godavari flows in this direction.
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) South
Answer:
A) East

Question 18.
These rivers divide the Andhra Pradesh Plateau region.
A) Penna, Kaveri
B) Krishna, Tungabhadra
C) Krishna, Godavari
D) Narmada, Tapathi
Answer:
C) Krishna, Godavari

Question 19.
The use of maps
A) to lay down roads
B) to find out the submerged lands due to dams.
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 20.
To measure the sea level this will foe taken as consideration.
A) the average height of tides
B) they observe the height of average tides and calculate the average sea level,
C) by taking the surface of the tides into consideration
D) both A & B
Answer:
D) both A & B

Question 21.
This picture shows

A) Antarctica
B) Himalayas
C) Arctic region
D) Magnolia
Answer:
A) Antarctica

Question 22.
This is the symbol of
A) Tank
B) River
C) Temple
D) Well
Answer:
B) River

Question 23.
This is the symbol of
A) Borewell
B) River
C) Tank
D) Canal
Answer:
A) Borewell

Question 24.

Name the city which is the common capital of two Northern states,
A) Delhi
B) Gandhi Nagar
C) Chandigarh
D) Kolkata
Answer:
C) Chandigarh

Question 25.
Mention one state which shares a boundary with three seas.
A) Kerala
B) Tamilnadu
C) Gujarat
D) West Bengal
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 26.
Mention one eastern state which has coast and boundary with the neighboring country
A) Nagaland
B) Sikkim
C) West Bengal
D) Odisa
Answer:
C) West Bengal

Question 27.
All heights on the land are calculated from
A) Sea level
B) Land level
C) Atmospheric level
D) Ground level
Answer:
A) Sea level

Question 28.
A contour line is joining two places M and N. The height of M is 50 meters. Then the height of N is
A) 150 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 50 meters
D) 25 meters
Answer:
C) 50 meters

Question 29.
………….. maps show a variety of landforms and depict the height of places.
A) Political
B) Thematic
C) Physical
D) Atlas
Answer:
C) Physical

Question 30.
A contour line is a line joining the places with equal …………
A) Rainfall
B) Temperature
C) Climate
D) Height
Answer:
D) Height

Question 31.
Which of the cities shown on the map has better opportunities for economic development?

A) City A
B) City B
C) City C
D) City D
Answer:
B) City B

Answer questions 32 and 33 based on the map given below.

Question 32.
If the distance between Bangalore and Mumbai; in the Map is 5 cm, then what Is the actual distance between Bangalore and Mumbai?
A) 5 km
B) 5 cm
C) 200 km
D) 1000 km
Answer:
D) 1000 km

Question 33.
Adil went to Delhi from Amaravathi. In which direction did he travel?
A) South
B) North
C) West
D) East.
Answer:
B) North

Question 34.
The heights of a place can be measured based on this
A) Origin place of river
B) Interior of Sea
C) Foothill
D) Mean Sea level
Answer:
D) Mean Sea level

Question 35.
A contour line is joining two places M and N. The height of M is 50 meters. Then the height of N is:
A) 150 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 50 meters
D) 25
Answer:
C) 50 meters

Answer questions 36 and 37 based on the map given below.

Question 36.
Which of the following information is missing from the map?
A) Index
B) Scale
C) Directions
D) Title
Answer:
B) Scale

Question 37.
The post office is located on which side of the pond?
A) North
B) East
C) South
D) West
Answer:
D) West

Answer questions 38 and 39 based on the map given below.

Question 38.
If the contour interval of the map is 10 meters, what is the elevation at the point F?
A) 10 meters
B) 20 meters
C) 30 meters
D) 40 meters
Answer:
D) 40 meters

Question 39.
Which is the steepest slope on the hill?
A) North
B) East
C) South
D) West
Answer:
D) West

Andhra Pradesh SCERT AP State Board Syllabus 7th Class Social Studies Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu Medium are part of AP Board 7th Class Textbook Solutions.

Students can also read AP Board 7th Class Social Solutions for board exams.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Studies Important Bits with Answers in English and Telugu

7th Class Social Bits in English Medium

• 1st Lesson The Universe and The Earth Bits
• 2nd Lesson Forests Bits
• 3rd Lesson Learning Through Maps Bits
• 4th Lesson Delhi Sultanate Bits
• 5th Lesson Kakatiya Kingdom Bits
• 6th Lesson Vijayanagara Empire Bits
• 7th Lesson Mughal Empire Bits
• 8th Lesson Bhakthi – Sufi Bits
• 9th Lesson Indian Constitution – An Introduction Bits
• 10th Lesson State Government Bits
• 11th Lesson Road Safety Education Bits
• 12th Lesson Markets Around Us Bits
• 13th Lesson Women Change the World Bits

7th Class Social Bits in Telugu Medium

• Chapter 1 విశ్వం మరియు భూమి Bits
• Chapter 2 అడవులు Bits
• Chapter 3 పటాల ద్వారా అధ్యయనం Bits
• Chapter 4 ఢిల్లీ సుల్తానులు Bits
• Chapter 5 కాకతీయ రాజ్యం Bits
• Chapter 6 విజయనగర సామ్రాజ్యం Bits
• Chapter 7 మొఘల్ సామ్రాజ్యం Bits
• Chapter 8 భక్తి – సూఫీ Bits
• Chapter 9 భారత రాజ్యాంగం – పరిచయం Bits
• Chapter 10 రాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వం Bits
• Chapter 11 రహదారి భద్రత Bits
• Chapter 12 మన పరిసరాలలో ఉన్న మార్కెట్లు Bits
• Chapter 13 ప్రపంచ పరివర్తనలో మహిళలు Bits

Social Bits for 7th Class in English Medium (Old Syllabus)

• Chapter 1 Reading Maps of Different Kinds Bits
• Chapter 2 Rain and Rivers Bits
• Chapter 3 Tanks and Ground Water Bits
• Chapter 4 Oceans and Fishing Bits
• Chapter 5 Europe Bits
• Chapter 6 Africa Bits
• Chapter 7 Handicrafts and Handlooms Bits
• Chapter 8 Industrial Revolution Bits
• Chapter 9 Production in a Factory – A Paper Mill Bits
• Chapter 10 Importance of Transport System Bits
• Chapter 11 New Kings and Kingdoms Bits
• Chapter 12 The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom Bits
• Chapter 13 The Kings of Vijayanagara Bits
• Chapter 14 Mughal Empire Bits
• Chapter 15 Establishment of the British Empire in India Bits
• Chapter 16 Making of Laws in the State Assembly Bits
• Chapter 17 Implementation of Laws in the District Bits
• Chapter 18 Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality Bits
• Chapter 19 Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers Bits
• Chapter 20 Folk Religion Bits
• Chapter 21 Devotional Paths to the Divine Bits
• Chapter 22 Rulers and Buildings Bits

AP State Syllabus Bits with Answers

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct ?
A) Narmada Bachao Andolan is against big dams.
B) Meira Paibi means torch bearers.
C) ‘Greenpeace’ is a treaty signed between America and Russia.
D) Anti Arrack movement was started by women in Nellore dist.
Answer:
C) ‘Greenpeace’ is a treaty signed between America and Russia.

Question 2.
This is not related to Green peace movement.
A) Green peace was the name of a ship
B) It started against the American underwater nuclear test
C) It works under the supervision of Russia .
D) It developed the idea of sustainable development
Answer:
C) It works under the supervision of Russia .

Question 3.
‘Silent valley’ is now converted into a ……………..
A) Historical place
B) Hill station
C) Software Hub
D) National park
Answer:
D) National park

Question 4.
As a greenhouse gas this is more powerful than carbon dioxide.
A) Ozone caraBcnBi
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon
D) Methane
Answer:
D) Methane

Question 5.
Across many countries, Green Peace Movement has taken the impact on ……………..
A) employment
B) climate change
C) education and health
D) migration
Answer:
B) climate change

Question 6.
“Niyamagiri” is present in ……………..
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) West Bengal
C) Odisha
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
C) Odisha

Question 7.
The movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse is called
A) Narmada Bachao
B) Meira Paibi Movement
C) Chipko Movement
D) Alcohol Ban Movement
Answer:
B) Meira Paibi Movement

Question 8.
Present Governor of RBI is ……………..
A) Raghuram Rajan
B) V.K. Malhotra
C) Anand Patel
D) Urjit Patel
Answer:
D) Urjit Patel

Question 9.
The ideology which became famous in Germany after the First World War.
A) Fascism
B) Communism
C) Nazism
D) Democracy
Answer:
C) Nazism

Question 10.
Martin Luther King Jr. belonged to
A) Russia
B) USA
C) England
D) France
Answer:
B) USA

Question 11.
The Indian who influenced Martin Luther King Jr.
A) Vivekananda
B) Gandhi
C) Nehru
D) Tagore
Answer:
B) Gandhi

Question 12.
2 lakh people gathered in Washington for a rally on 28th August in the year
A) 1963
B) 1953
C) 1943
D) 1933
Answer:
A) 1963

Question 13.
The black leader in USA who said that the struggle should be armed
A) Malcom – X
B) Martin Luther King Jr.
C) Mahaliya Jackson
D) Rodney King
Answer:
A) Malcom – X

Question 14.
The famous speech, ‘I have a dream’ was given by
A) George Washington
B) Martin Luther King Jr.
C) George Bush
D) John. F Kennedy .
Answer:
B) Martin Luther King Jr.

Question 15.
Manipur was made a part of India with a merger agreement in ……………..
A) 1891
B) 1958
C) 1949
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 1949

Question 16.
‘We won’t go’ protest appeared in Harvard Crimson. This Harvard Crimson is a
A) Political party
B) Newspaper
C) Film name
D) TV channel
Answer:
B) Newspaper

Question 17.
Martin Luther King Jr. gave his famous speech from the steps of
A) Jefferson Memorial
B) Lincoln Memorial
C) Congress library
D) His house
Answer:
B) Lincoln Memorial

Question 18.
The American President, who freed millions of slaves
A) Eisenhower
B) Roosevelt
C) Bill Clinton
D) Abraham Lincoln
Answer:
D) Abraham Lincoln

Question 19.
This is not the cause for American Civil Rights Movement
A) Segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses
B) Blacks were discriminated in appointments, housing
C) Blacks were not treated equally with whites
D) Blacks were given voting rights
Answer:
D) Blacks were given voting rights

Question 20.
Which of the following is the principle of Civil rights movements?
A) Discrimination against caste and creed
B) Equal rights
C) Freedom of expression
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 21.
Irom Sharmila had been on hunger strike for 16 years for the cancellation of
A) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
B) FEMAAct
C) Article 370
D) Civil Servants Special Powers Act
Answer:
A) Armed Forces Special Powers Act

Question 22.
A movement of year long boycott of buses by blacks led by Dr. Martin Luther King took place in
A) New York
B) Washington
C) Montgomery
D) New Jersey
Answer:
C) Montgomery

Question 23.
This is not correct regarding Washington March in 1963 …………….
A) More than 2 lakh people marched there
B) King wished a separate nation for blacks .
C) King’s historic speech “I have a dream” was delivered here
D) No woman was allowed to speak in the march
Answer:
B) King wished a separate nation for blacks .

Question 24.
Who viewed that blacks were a separate nation, and should fight for the independence from the white rule?
A) Martin Luther King
B) Nelson Mandela
C) Abraham Lincoln
D) MalcomX
Answer:
D) MalcomX

Question 25.
Statement -1: The civil rights movement of USA was largely non-violent
Statement – II: They took the form of massive demonstration, marches, civil disobe¬dience and boycott of discriminatory services , (like buses) etc.
A) Statement -1 is wrong and statement II is correct
B) Both are correct
C) Both are wrong
D) Both are correct and statement II is explaining statement I
Answer:
D) Both are correct and statement II is explaining statement I

Question 26.
Supreme Court Judge appointed to look into the possibility of repealing AFSPA was
A) K.T.Shah
B) K.G. Balakrishna
C) B.P. Jeevan Reddy
D) Narmian
Answer:
C) B.P. Jeevan Reddy

Question 27.
Initially Meira Paibi movement was originated for
A) restore the human rights against AFSPA
B) to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse
C) against frequent military operations
D) to create awareness for political involvement
Answer:
B) to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse

Question 28.
Which is not a demand of Narmada Bachao Andolan ?
A) demanding a fair compensations
B) demanding proper rehabilitations
C) opposing the construction of the dams
D) demanding decent housing for the victims
Answer:
D) demanding decent housing for the victims

Question 29.
The American civil rights movement fought for equal treatment of
A) Afro Amercians
B) Africans
C) Amercians
D) Whites
Answer:
A) Afro Amercians

Question 30.
Hiroshima and Nagasaki were bombed in the year
A) 1943
B) 1940
C) 1935
D) 1945
Answer:
D) 1945

Question 31.
The tensions between these two powers was referred to as ‘Cold war’
A) India, Pakistan
B) China, Japan
C) USA, USSR
D) England, Germany
Answer:
C) USA, USSR

Question 32.
Vietnam is a country in the continent of
A) North America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) Europe
Answer:
C) Asia

Question 33.
The USA left Vietnam in the year
A) 1975
B) 1974
C) 1970
D) 1972
Answer:
A) 1975

Question 34.
Napalm bombs were used by the USA on this country.
A) USSR
B) Japan
C) Vietnam
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Vietnam

Question 35.
The Strategic Arms reduction Treaty was signed by USA and USSR in the year.
A) 1995
B) 1985
C) 2000
D) 1991
Answer:
D) 1991

Question 36.
In USSR, a major accident took place in the nuclear reactor at
A) Stalingrad
B) Moscow
C) Chernobyl
D) Vladivostok
Answer:
C) Chernobyl

Question 37.
Greenpeace movement started as aprotect nuclear tests near
A) Haiti
B) Cuba
C) Panama
D) Alaska -T
Answer:
D) Alaska -T

Question 38.
Greenpeace has its headquarters at
A) London
B) Amsterdam
C) Paris
D) Tokyo
Answer:
B) Amsterdam

Question 39.
A great gas tragedy happened in Bhopal in the year
A) 1984
B) 1980
C) 1974
D) 1969
Answer:
A) 1984

Question 40.
The Union Carbide Company responsible for the Bhopal gas tragedy was based in :
A) Canada
B) USA
C) Japan
D) England
Answer:
B) USA

Question 41.
The women in Dubagunta ffught against which of the following?
A) Military action
B) River valley project
C) Taking loans
D) Drinking Alcohol
Answer:
D) Drinking Alcohol

Question 42.
The main aim of Meira Paibi movement
A) Preventing the drunkers from creating nuisance in the streets
B) For the independence movement of Manipur
C) Protesting against the violation of Human rights
D) For the Environmental protection
Answer:
C) Protesting against the violation of Human rights

Question 43.
In which country did Human Rights movement take place ?
A) USSR
B) Nigeria
C) France
D) Pakistan
Answer:
A) USSR

Question 44.
Silent Valley is present in
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Tamilnadu
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 45.
Construction of multi purpose projects are not encouraged because ………….
1) It causes displacement of many habitations
2) This may cause disturbance to the ecological balance
3) Cost Of construction and benefits of project after construction may not be balanced
A) Only 1, 2 are correct
B) Only 1 is correct
C) 1,2,3 are correct
D) Only 2,3 are correct
Answer:
C) 1,2,3 are correct

Question 46.
The main benefit of multi purpose projects
i) Electricity generation
ii) Irrigation
iii) Afforestation
A) i & iii
B) i & ii
C) ii & iii
D) i, ii, iii
Answer:
B) i & ii

Question 47.
Find out wrong pair
A) Washington march – 28th Aug. 1964
B) Andrei Sakharov – A nuclear scientist
C) I have a dream – Martin Luther King
D) Alexander Solzhenitsyn – A famous writer
Answer:
A) Washington march – 28th Aug. 1964

Question 48.
Which company purchased the Union Carbide Factory?
A) Parkha Foods
B) Honda Company
C) Dow Company
D) Japan MNC Company
Answer:
C) Dow Company

Question 49.
Meira Paibi Movement refers to
A) prevent pubic disorder due to alcohol abuse
B) protect human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces in Manipur
C) patrolling the streets at night
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
The agitation led by the women of Dubagunta
A) Agitation of “Narmada Bachavo”
B) Meira Paibi movement
C) Protest against thermal electricity
D) Anti – arrack movement
Answer:
D) Anti – arrack movement

Question 51.
Weapons used by women in Meira Paibi movement.
A) Guns
B) Knives
C) No Weapons
D) Axes
Answer:
C) No Weapons

Question 52.
‘The Lion Tailed Macaque’ is a kind of
A) Bird
B) Tiger
C) Wolf
D) Monkey
Answer:
D) Monkey

Question 53.
…………. gas disaster took place in India in 1984.
A) Kumbhakonam
B) Tiruchi
C) Bhopal
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Bhopal

Question 54.
Silent Valley was converted into National Park in
A) 1977
B) 1991
C) 1985
D) 1987
Answer:
C) 1985

Question 55.
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) took place between ………….
A) Members of UN
B) USA and Britain
C) USA and USSR
D) Third world countries
Answer:
C) USA and USSR

Question 56.
Which is the basic element in recent social movements ?
A) Note for vote
B) Inflation
C) Environment, Human Rights
D) Joining in the army
Answer:
C) Environment, Human Rights

Question 57.
Aim of Greenpeace movement
A) Ensuring the ability of the earth to nurture life in all its diversity
B) To stop the construction of big dams
C) To stop the use of nuclear arms
D) To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse
Answer:
A) Ensuring the ability of the earth to nurture life in all its diversity

Question 58.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
I) 1956 — a) START was signed
II) 1963 — b) America left Vietnam
III) 1975 — c) Great Washington March
IV) d) American court banned segregation in buses
A) I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b
B) I – d, II – a, III – b, IV – c
C) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
D) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
Answer:
D) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Question 59.
Chernobyl is a ………….
A) Thermal power plant
B) Gas based power plant
C) Hydro power plant
D) Nueclear power plant
Answer:
D) Nueclear power plant

Question 60.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Harry Truman – USA
B) Yasar Arafat – Lebanon
C) Sukarno – Indonesia
D) Gamal Abdel Nasser – Egypt
Answer:
B) Yasar Arafat – Lebanon

Question 61.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
I) Elizabeth Eckford — a) Nuclear scientist
II) Martin Luther King — b) Famous writer
III) Alexander — c) I have a dream Solzhenitsyn
IV) Andrei Sakharov — d) Black girl
A) I – d, II – c, 111 – b, IV – a
B) I- a, II – b, III – c, IV-d
C) I – d, II – a, III-b, IV – c
D) I – d, II – a, III – c, IV – b
Answer:
A) I – d, II – c, 111 – b, IV – a

Question 62.
“We won’t go” ………………. who refused to
A) Africans
B) Americans
C) Russians
D) Vietnamese
Answer:
B) Americans

Question 63.
The following is not the demand of Bhopal gas tragedy people.
A) Proper medical treatment to the victims.
B) Steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
C) Fixing criminal responsibility.
D) Adequate compensation for them based on national standards.
Answer:
D) Adequate compensation for them based on national standards.

Question 64.
This movement was led by Kerala Shastra Sahitya Parishath against the construction of a dam?
A) Silent Valley Movement
B) Forest protect Movement
C) Chipko Movement
D) Environmental Protection Movement
Answer:
A) Silent Valley Movement

Question 65.
Which is not the feature of communist governments under the influence of USSR?
A) did not allow free multi-party elections
B) freedom of expression to the people
C) constantly under the fear of conspiracies
D) did not allow free uncensored press or media
Answer:
B) freedom of expression to the people

Question 66.
“Meira Paibi” means ………………..
A) factory workers
B) reformers
C) torch bearers
D) farmers
Answer:
C) torch bearers

Question 67.
In the year 1971 America tested nuclear weapons in this
A) Alaska
B) Hudson Bay
C) Victoria Island
D) Lake Michigan
Answer:
A) Alaska

Question 68.
Polavaram project belongs to the state
A) Karnataka
B) Tamilnadu
C) Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 69.
USA stopped war on Vietnam because
A) USA government was opposed by its citizens
B) Vietnam urged USA
C) USA was defeated by Vietnam
D) USSR gave support to Vietnam
Answer:
A) USA government was opposed by its citizens

Question 70.
“Greenpeace Movement” means
A) Organisation for protection of peace
B) Organisation for nuclear- deweaponisation
C) Organisation for protection of environment
D) Organisation for weaponisation
Answer:
C) Organisation for protection of environment

Question 71.
“Nandigram” is present in
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Sikkim
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) West Bengal
Answer:
D) West Bengal

Question 72.
Vietnamese used ………………. technique to counter US troops.
A) Nuclear
B) Guerrilla
C) Tanks
D) Bombs
Answer:
B) Guerrilla

Question 73.
Act had given army to arrest or even shoot people simply under suscipion of being involved in anti-national activities.
A) RTI act
B) Civil Rights act
C) Human rights act
D) AFSPA
Answer:
D) AFSPA

Question 74.
Which of the following is not a key con-cept of present social movements ?
A) Nuclear plants, polluting factories.
B) Human rights
C) Environmental protection.
D) Family planning
Answer:
D) Family planning

Question 75.
Which of the following is not a principle of civil rights movements ?
A) Sustainable development
B) Equal rights
C) Freedom of expression
D) Discrimination against caste and creed
Answer:
A) Sustainable development

Question 76.
The dream of Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.is ……………….
A) People should be respected by their colour
B) People should be respected by character
C) People should be respected by wealth
D) People should be respected by religion
Answer:
B) People should be respected by character

Question 77.
‘We Won’t Go’ was the protest of ………………. during USA-Vietnam War.
A) soldiers of Vietnam
B) citizens of USA as part of compulsory military service.
C) farmers of Vietnam
D) Army officers of USA.
Answer:
B) citizens of USA as part of compulsory military service.

Question 78.
This treaty was signed in 1991 to cut down nuclear arsenal.
A) SALT
B) START
C) NATO
D) Warsa treaty
Answer:
B) START

Question 79.
Silent Valley got its name because
A) it is in Kerala
B) presence of lion tailed Macaque
C) medicinal herbs
D) absence of crickets
Answer:
D) absence of crickets

Question 80.
Which of the following movement was organised by women ?
A) Meira Paibi movement
B) Anti – arrack movement
C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

Question 81.
Right to Life is guaranteed by which ar-ticle ?
A) Article – 7
B) Article – 29
C) Article – 21
D) Article – 30
Answer:
C) Article – 21

Question 82.
Green Peace movement was initially started as a protest in the year ………………….
A) 1961
B) 1966
C) 1971
D) 1981
Answer:
C) 1971

Question 83.
At present, which of the following is a key concept of social movement ?
A) Vote for note
B) Price increases
C) Environment and human rights
D) Joining the army
Answer:
C) Environment and human rights

Question 84.
For which purpose did the Meira Paibi movement origninate ?
A) To protect the environment
B) To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the 1970’s
C) To control violence on women
D) To obtain human rights
Answer:
B) To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the 1970’s

Question 85
Meira Paibi movement related to this state.
A) Jharkhand
B) Punjab
C) Manipur
D) Assam
Answer:
C) Manipur

Question 86.
For the cancellation of which Act, Irom Sharmila had been on hunger strike for more than 10 years ?
A) FEMA Act.
B) Armed Forces Special Powers Act.
C) Article 370.
D) Civil Servants Special Powers.Act.
Answer:
B) Armed Forces Special Powers Act.

Question 87.
Civil Disobedience means ……………….
A) Turning the movement to violence.
B) Violating discriminatory laws peacefully.
C) Fighting with social activities.
D) None.
Answer:
B) Violating discriminatory laws peacefully.

Question 88.
Match the given correctly-
1. Alexander Solzhenitsyn — a) Nuclear Scientist
2. Gorbachev — b) Russian Writer
3. Andrei Sakharov — c) Russian President
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 89.
Human Rights Movement in Russia arouse because
A) USSR govt did not allow multi-party elections.
B) Conspiracies in govt, to hold power.
C) USSR uncensored press media
D) All the above.
Answer:
D) All the above.

Question 90.
Whose role is appreciated in Meira Paibi Movement ?
A) Soldiers
B) Employees
C) Women
D) Students
Answer:
C) Women

Question 91.
The movement that developed the idea of ‘Sustainable development’ is.
A) Green Peace movement
B) Narmada Bachao Aandolan
C) Meria Paibi movement
D) Chipko movement
Answer:
B) Narmada Bachao Aandolan

Question 92.
Which among the following was true in respect of American Civil Rights Movement under the leadership of Martin Luther King ?
A) Boycotting discriminatory services
B) Violating discriminatory laws
C) Practising non-violent methods
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 93.
Which of the following features in not correct in the context of ‘meaningful development’ ?
A) Being environmentally sustainable
B) Increasing the national income in any way at any cost
C) Being just for all
D) Considering the problems of the people who are to be displaced
Answer:
B) Increasing the national income in any way at any cost

Question 94.
There is a wild fire in the forest. The immediate action to be taken is …………..
A) Report to the police
B) Shouting and alerting others .
C) Trying to stop with water
D) Reporting to the fire department
Answer:
D) Reporting to the fire department

Question 95.
The state faced this movement …………………
A) Anti – arrack Movement
B) Silent Valley Movement
C) Meira1 Paibi
D) Narmada Bachao Andolan
Answer:
B) Silent Valley Movement

Question 96.
The state faced this ……………
A) Diviseema Cyclone
B) Hud-Hud Cyclone
C) Bhopal gas tragedy
D) Armed Forces harrassment
Answer:
C) Bhopal gas tragedy

Question 97.
The picture shows

A) Silent Valley Project
B) Hydro electric projects in Narmada river basin
C) Nagarjuna Sagar Project ‘
D) Kohima electric projects
Answer:
B) Hydro electric projects in Narmada river basin

Question 98.
Neelima said that she will not appreciate the following in Civil Rights move-ment.
A) It enabled the Afro-Americans to en-joy equal rights
B) It could not satisfy the demand of equal participation of women in movement.
C) This helped to reduce racial discrimi-nation.
D) Movement was peaceful.
Answer:
B) It could not satisfy the demand of equal participation of women in movement.

Question 99.
As a student of social ftudips I support Greenpeace movement for this reason.
A) It developed the idea of sustainable development.
B) It aims at ensuring the ability of the Earth to nurture life in all its diver-sity.
C) It creates awareness on need of ecologial balance
D) All the above.
Answer:
D) All the above.

Read the para and answer the questions. In the Vietnam conflict it is estimated that as many as 8,00,000 to 30,00,000 Vietnamese military and civilians were killed, apart from equally large number of Cambodians and Laotians,

Question 100.
With whom had Vietnam a conflict ?
A) U.S.S.R
B) U.S.A
C) Japan
D) Korea
Answer:
B) U.S.A

Question 101.
What do you suggest to end this type of conflicts ?
A) Severe wars to defeat the enemies
B) Surrendering to enemy
C) Bilateral talks to restore peace
D) Isolating the enemy with anti-campaigning
Answer:
C) Bilateral talks to restore peace

Question 102.
The Chipko Movement started in …………….
A) Eastern ghats
B) Satpura ranges
C) Himalayas
D) Western ghats
Answer:
C) Himalayas

Observe the map

Question 103.
Sardar Sarovar dam is shown with the number ………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 104.
Indira $agar is shown with the number
A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
B) 3

Question 105.
No. 6 shows
A) Bargi
B) lndira sagar
C) Amarkhantak
D) Sindhu
Answer:
C) Amarkhantak

Question 106.
Bargi is shown with the number ………………
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
B) 5

Question 107.
During the last phase of the USSR, a major accident took place in
A) Kudankulam
B) Chernobyl
C) Moscow
D) Bhopail
Answer:
B) Chernobyl

Read the para and answer the questions.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draft age, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam.”

Question 108.
In what news paper, this statement appeared ?
A) New York Times
B) Tire Wall Street Journal
C) Harvard Crimson
D) Chicago Tribune
Answer:
C) Harvard Crimson

Question 109.
Who are men of draft age ?
A) All abled citizens to join the army
B) All youngsters to construct factories
C) Those men. who can draft financial schemes
D) Old people who retired from army
Answer:
A) All abled citizens to join the army

Question 110.
These countries were called communist countries.
A) U.K
B) U.S.A
C) U. S. S. R
D) Japan
Answer:
C) U. S. S. R