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AP State Syllabus AP Board 6th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 12 Movement and Locomotion

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Important Questions 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion

6th Class Science 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion 2 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is movement?
Answer:
The displacement of a body or its parts from its original position is called movement.

Question 2.
What is locomotion?
Answer:
The displacement of an entire body from one place to another is called locomotion.

Question 3.
What is the use of locomotion?
Answer:
Locomotion helps for protection and food gathering.

Question 4.
How the muscles are connected to hones?
Answer:
Muscles are connected to bones either directly or with the help of tendons.

Question 5.
How do the muscles work?
Answer:
Muscles work in pairs. When one of them contracts, the bone is pulled in that direction and the other muscle of the pair relaxes.

Question 6.
What is a skeleton?
Answer:
Different bones of our body combine together to form the skeleton.

Question 7.
What is joint?
Answer:
The point where two bones meet is called a joint.

Question 8.
What are the types of joints?
Answer:
Joints are of two types. They are movable and immovable (fixed)

Question 9.
What are the types of movable joints?
Answer:
Movable joints are four types namely 1. Ball and socket 2. Hinge 3. Sliding 4. Pivot joints.

Question 10.
What is the use of tendons?
Answer:
Tendons join the muscles to bones.

Question 11.
What is the function of the ligament?
Answer:
Ligaments join one bone to the other bone.

Question 12.
Where do you find fixed joints?
Answer:
The joint between the upper jaw and the skull is the fixed joint.

Question 13.
Give some examples for locomotory organs?
Answer:
The stream-lined body, fins in fish; wings, legs in birds; ribs in the snake; muscular foot in snail are useful in locomotion.

Question 14.
How many muscles are there in our body?
Answer:
There are more than 650 muscles in our body.

Question 15.
What is the biggest muscle in our body?
Answer:
The biggest muscle is Gluteus Maximus

Question 16.
What is the smallest muscle in our body?
Answer:
The smallest muscle in our body is Stapedius.

Question 17.
Which muscles work without rest?
Answer:
Interestingly the muscle of the heart works without rest.

Question 18.
How much blood is pumped by the heart per minute?
Answer:
The human heart forces 4500 ccs of blood per minute through blood vessels.

Question 19.
What is the movable joint in the skull?
Answer:
This lower jaw is the only movable joint of the skull.

Question 20.
How many bones are there in the body?
Answer:
There are 206 bones present in our body.

Question 21.
How the bones are made up of?
Answer:
These bones are so hard they are made of calcium and phosphorus.

Question 22.
What is the biggest bone in our body?
Answer:
The biggest bone is the femur.

Question 23.
What is the smallest bone in our body?
Answer:
The smallest bone is stapes.

Question 24.
Why we can’t move the upper jaw?
Answer:
There is a joint between the upper jaw and the rest of the head. It is a fixed joint. So, you cannot move the upper jaw.

6th Class Science 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion 4 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you observe the shoulder muscles?
Answer:
Make a fist with one hand, bend your arm at the elbow and touch your shoulder with the fist.

Also, touch your upper arm with the other hand, you feel a swollen region inside your upper arm. This is muscle.
The muscle bulges due to contraction.
When the muscle is contracted it becomes shorter, stiffer, and thicker.

Question 2.
Is it possible to move your parts without moving muscles? Why?
Answer:
It is not possible to move the body parts without moving muscles.
Muscles are fleshy structures that cause movement.
These are attached to one another and perform contraction and relaxation.
By these contractions, bones are pulled in that direction that makes the movement.

Question 3.
How do Muscles work?
Answer:

1. Muscles work in pairs.
   
2. When one of them contracts, the bone is pulled in that direction and the other muscle of the pair relaxes.
3. To move the bone in the opposite direction, the relaxed muscle contracts and the first one relaxes.
4. Thus two muscles have to work together to move a bone.

Question 4.
What is Tendon? What is its role in our body?
Answer:
Some muscles have round, white, and rope-like fibers at their ends that connect them to the bone.
These fibrous structures are called Tendons.

You can feel the tendons in several parts of your body like; above the elbow, beneath the knee, near the ankle.
They have a key role in body movements to pull the bones.
These also help muscles to attach to the bones.

Question 5.
What is Skeleton System? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. The different bones of different parts of the body combine together to form a single structure or system. This structure is called the skeleton.
2. The skeletal system provides base and shape to our body.
3. It provides protection to internal organs.
4. It also help in blood formation.

Question 6.
What is a ligament? What is its use?
Answer:
Two bones are joined together in a special way by fibers. These fibers are called ligaments These helps in bones connection and body movements.

Question 7.
How we are without a skeleton.
Answer:

1. It’s funny to imagine our body without a skeleton.
2. Without a skeleton, muscles don’t have support.
3. So the body does not have a shape.
4. The body becomes a fate round ball.

Question 8.
How do you observe the lower jaw bone?
Answer:
Ask your friend to open his mouth and move his lower jaw up and down as well as sideways.
Observe his face carefully.
This is the place where the lower jaw bone is joined to the skull.
Press your finger on both sides of your face and spot where you have these joints. This lower jaw is the only movable joint of another skull.

Question 9.
What is Clavicle? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. The clavicle is a long bone between the neck and the shoulder blade it’s also known as collar bone.
2. It provides great support to the shoulder and helps to carry weighty things.

Question 10.
How do you observe the Clavicle?
Answer:

1. To observe the clavicle fold one arm and rest it on your waist.
2. Now slowly lift your arm and shoulder together.
   
3. Run a finger of your other hand from just below your neck towards your shoulder.
4. Try and locate a raised bone there and the one behind it.
5. The raised bone is called the clavicle and the bone behind it is the shoulder blade.

Question 11.
What are the differences between Ribs and Ric Case?
Answer:

Ribs	Rib case
1. Ribs are the bones in chest cavity.	1. Ribs connect together and form rib case.
2. These are 12 in pair.	2. Its single in number.
3. These are connected to chest bone at front side and back bone to back side.	3. Whole structure of chest bone, ribs and back bone is called as rib case.
4. Helps in respiratory movements and protection.	4. It protects lungs and heart.

Question 12.
How do you observe the backbone?
Answer:

1. Ask your friend to stand up, bend forward at the waist and try to touch his toes with his palms.
   
2. Run a finger along the center of his back from below the neck.
3. A long structure running down the middle of his back is called the backbone.

Question 13.
How do you observe the Pelvic Girdle?
Answer:

1. Press the area just below your waist with the fingers of both hands.
   
2. You can feel the bones with the same shape on both sides of your body. This is called the pelvic girdle.
3. Here the leg bones are attached to the bottom of the spine by a group of bones. This is called the pelvis.
4. This is also the part you sit on.

Question 14.
Write about the Skull?
Answer:

1. The skull is made up of many bones joined together.
2. It encloses and protects the brain.
   
3. The joints between the skull bones are fused.
4. They are also called fixed joints.

Question 15.
What is Cartilage? How it useful to the body?
Answer:

1. Some parts of the ear and nose are soft and others are hard.
2. The soft parts are made up of a structure called cartilage.
3. This is also a bone but it is flexible.
4. The cartilage is present in other parts of the skeleton as well, like, between the tips of the rib, eyelids, and sternum, between the vertebrae of the vertebral column, etc.
5. It protects the ends of long bones at the joints and is a structural component of the rib cage, the ear, and the nose.

Question 16.
What are the joints? What are the types in it?
Answer:

1. The point where two bones meet is called a Joint.
2. The joints help us to bend, twist and turn.
3. There are different types of joints in our body to help us carry out different movements and activities.
4. The joints are divided into two types. 1. Movable joints 2. Immovable joints

Question 17.
Write about fixed joints?
Answer:

1. Some joints between bones in our body can’t move, such joints are called fixed joints.
2. These joints are fused and seem to be a single bone.
3. These are present in the skull. When you open your mouth, you can move your lower jaw only.
4. The remaining joints are fixed joints in the skull.

Question 18.
Write about locomotion in birds?
Answer:

1. Birds fly in the air and walk on the ground.
2. Birds can fly because their bodies are well suited for flying.
3. Their bones are hollow and light.
4. The bones of the hind limbs are typical for walking and perching.
5. The forelimbs are modified as wings which help the bird in flight.
6. Feathers also play an important role in flight mechanism.

Question 19.
Observe the hen and the sparrow. How do they move?
Answer:
Hen and Sparrows, both are birds but they have different styles in locomotion.

HEN	SPARROW
1. It can’t fly.	1. It can fly.
2. Walking is main locomotion.	2. It can jump and fly.
3. Legs are enough strong.	3. Legs are thin and weak.
4. Wings are not enough strong to ; floats its body in air.	4. Wings are enough strong to fly.

Question 20.
Describe the Locomotion in Snakes?
Answer:

1. Snakes do not have limbs (legs).
2. Snakes have a long backbone and several muscles.
3. Usually, the snake’s body curves into many loops.
4. Each loop of the snake gives it a forward push by pressing against the ground.
5. This helps the snake move forward very fast.

Question 21.
How do you observe the Locomotion in Snails?
Answer:

1. Collect a snail from a garden.
2. Place the snail on a glass plate and watch it when it starts moving.
   
3. A thick structure may come out of an opening in the shell.
4. The thick structure is its foot, made of strong muscle.
5. The wavy motion of its foot is the reason why a snail moves slowly.

6th Class Science 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion 8 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
There are other ways in which snakes move. Try to find out about them. Collect those pictures, information and display them on wall magazine.
Answer:
Snakes have four ways of moving around. Since they don’t have legs they use their muscles and their scales to do the “walking”.

• Serpentine method: This motion is what most people think of when they think of snakes. Snakes will push off of any bump or other surface, rocks, trees, etc., to get going. They move in a wavy motion. They would not be able to move over slick surfaces like glass at all. This movement is also known as lateral undulation.
  
• Concertina method: This is a more difficult way for the snake to move but is effective in tight spaces.
  The snake braces the back portion of their body while pushing and extending the front portion. Then the snake drops the front portion of their body and straightens and pulls the back portion along. It is almost like they threw themselves forward.
  
• Side winding: This is a difficult motion to describe but it is often used by snakes to move on loose or slippery surfaces like sand or mud. The snake appears to throw its head forward and the rest of its body follows while the head is thrown forward again.
  
• Rectilinear Method: This is a slow, creeping, straight movement. The snake uses some of the wide scales on its belly to grip the ground while pushing forward with the others.
  

Question 2.
Write about movable joints in Human beings?
Answer:
Movable joints are four types. They are:

1. Ball-and-socket joint: The ball-shaped surface of one bone fits into the cup-like shape of another. Examples of a ball-and-socket joint include the hip and the shoulder.
2. Hinge joint: The ends of the bones are shaped in a way that allows motion in two directions, forward and backward. Examples of hinge joints are the knees and elbows
3. Pivot joint: Only allows rotating movement. The joint that joins the skull to the backbone is called the pivot or neck joint.
4. Gliding joint: It is a joint which allows only gliding movement. The gliding joint allows one bone to slide over the other. The gliding joint in your wrist allows you to flex your wrist. It also allows you to make very small side-to-side motions. There are also gliding joints in your ankles and backbone.

Question 3.
How the fish swim in the water?
Answer:

1. The body of the fish is streamlined.
2. The shape is such that it allows the fish to move in water easily.
3. The skeleton of the fish is covered with strong muscles.
   
4. While swimming, muscles make the front part of the body swing towards one side while the tail swings its body towards the opposite side.
5. This creates a jerk and pushes the body forward.
6. A series of such jerks help the fish swim forward.
7. The tail fins also aid in this movement.

Question 4.
Write about different types of Locomotion and their Locomotory Organs in a tabular manner.
Answer:
Animals show different types of locomotion with their locomotory organs. Those are:

Locomotion	Animals	Locomotary Organ	Discription
1. Swim	Fish	Fins	Fins and spindle body helps to fish in swimming.
2. Fly	Birds	Wings	Birds have strong feathered wings to fly.
3. Crawl	Snakes	Scales	Snakes crawl with scales that are present at bottom of the body.
4. Walk	Man	Legs	Animals use four legs to walk, but humans two.

Question 5.
Observe the skeletal system of a bird and write their parts.
Answer:

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class English Textbook Solutions Chapter 3C The Magic of Silk Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class English Solutions Chapter 3C The Magic of Silk

7th Class English Chapter 3C The Magic of Silk Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Who do you think the old man is? Justify your reasons.
Answer:
The old man, I think, is God or a messenger from God because a man could not do such miracle.

Question 2.
Do you believe in miracles?
Do you think that magic and miracles are the same? If not, give your reasons.
Answer:
Yes, I believe in miracles as I believe in the Almighty.
Magic and Miracles are not the same.
A Miracle is an act or event that does not follow the laws of nature and is believed to be caused by God. But ’magic’ is the secret power of appearing to make impossible things happen by saying special words or doing special things. A man can do magic but not miracles. So, they are not the same.

Question 3.
If you were Siew Mei, how would you feel?
Answer:
If I were Siew Mei, I would highly get astonished to see the change of long white beard into the finest silk thread. I would feel it a miracle and get immense happiness and the feeling that luck favoured me.

What is an anagram?
An anagram is the rearrangement of the letters of a word, name, phrase, sentence, title, or the like into another word or phrase. But ALL the letters of the name or phrase must be used ONCE and only ONCE. This is the basic rule of anagramming. The best anagrams are meaningful and relate in some way to the original subject. Example: if we take the word ‘the classroom’ and rearrange the letters in it, we get ‘school master’. So, ‘school master’ is an anagram of‘the classroom’ and vice versa. Here are some other anagrams: mother-in-law _ woman Hitler; debit card _ bad credit; dormitory _ dirty room; eleven plus two _ twelve plus one.
Write some anagrams and display them on the wall magazine.
Answer:

Original expression	Changed expression
the classroom	school master
mother-in-law	woman Hitler
debit card	bad debit
dormitory	dirty room

The Magic of Silk Summary in English

Long ago, there lived an old woman with her daughter, Siew Mei in a hut in the forest. Her husband had been killed by a tiger, some years ago.

Siew Mei helped her mother. She did cooking and cleaning herself. They had a garden in front of their hut. Siew Mei looked after the silkworms, growing in the garden. Siew Mei made beautiful silk from the fine silk thread given by the silkworms. She sold the silk to the travellers in the village market and got money. With that money, she bought items of food and other things.

One day as Siew Mei was returning home, it started to rain heavily and it wats getting dark. So, Siew Mei ran into the first hut she saw. She found nobody in the hut. Then Siew Mei swept the dirty floor and washed the unwashed bowls and pots. She kept the hut clean and tidy. When the rain stopped, Siew Mei came out of the hut. There she saw a long-bearded old man, aged about a hundred years. The man saw the girl and looked at the clean and tidy hut. He understood what the girl had done. He was so pleased that he cut off a little of his white beard and put it in a piece of cloth. He tied it up and gave her the bundle.

The old man told Siew Mei not to give the bundle to anyone. He also told her to open the bundle at her home.

Siew Mei reached her hut with the bundle. She told her mother what had happened. Then she opened the bundle to show the old man’s beard. When the handle was opened, they were surprised to see the finest silk thread in the whole of China, in that bundle. With that finest silk thread, they made the finest silk that they had ever seen. They also noticed that the bundle of silk thread still remained exactly the same size as before.

With the luck they got, the old woman and her daughter, Siew Mei became famous and lived happily together.

By this jesson, one should know that unselfish service fetches a person fame as well as happiness. One can understand by reading this story, how the miracle happened and who the person who did the miracle might be.

The Magic of Silk Glossary

enough (adj): sufficient

had better (aux.v.): should

strange (adj): unknown

a present (n): a gift

beard (n): hair on the cheeks, on and under the chin.

glad (adj): happy

surprise (n): wonder (or) astonishment

noticed (v): observed

far (adv): distant

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class English Textbook Solutions Chapter 3B Home They Brought Her Warrior Dead Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class English Solutions Chapter 3B Home They Brought Her Warrior Dead

7th Class English Chapter 3B Home They Brought Her Warrior Dead Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How do you think the warrior lost his life?
Answer:
The warrior must have fought bravely in the battle field. He must have been killed by an enemy soldier.

Question 2.
What was unnatural with the warrior’s wife?
Answer:
Even though the dead body of her husband was placed before her, she neither swooned nor uttered a cry. Her maidens did their best to make her cry but they all failed. It was unusual.

Question 3.
What did the maidens do to make her cry?
Answer:
They praised the warrior as worthy to be loved, and the truest friend and the noblest foe. A maiden took the face-cloth from the face of the dead warrior.

Question 4.
Why did they want her to cry?
Answer:
They wanted her to cry because they thought that she would die if she did not cry.

Question 5.
Who succeeded in making the woman cry?
Answer:
A nurse of ninety-years succeeded in making the woman cry.

Question 6.
Look at the word order in the title. Normally we say “They brought her dead warrior home.”
Why do you think the poet changed the word order? Is it beautiful? Discuss. Find other lines with a similar order in the poem.
Answer:
The poet changed the word order so as to make the title attract the reader’s attention.

Project

I. Here is a list of India’s neighbouring countries. Collect the information mentioned below in the table. After collecting this information display it in “Our Reading Corner” (ORC).

Answer:

Home They Brought Her Warrior Dead Summary in English

A warrior died in a war. His dead body was brought home by some of his friends, the other soldiers. His wife was too sensitive. When she heard the news of her husband, she was greatly shocked. In her shock, she almost went into a typical semi-unconscious state. She neither fainted nor cried. The maidens, who were watching her, said that she would die, if she did not cry. They made all possible attempts to bring her to normal state.

They praised the warrior as worthy to be loved. Some praised him as the truest friend and the noblest foe. All their admiration and praising words of the soldier failed to bring her to her normal state. She did not speak a single word. She was totally unmoved.

A maiden made another attempt. She slowly went to the dead body and removed the face-cloth from his face. Her trial also failed. The state of the dead warrior’s wife remained the same. She did not move. She did not cry.

A nurse of ninety-years attempted. She put the child of the dead warrior in the lap of the woman. The touch of her child had a magical charm. The woman shed tears. She cried out that she would live for the sake of the child. She regained her full consciousness. She realised that she had to live to look after her child.

Home They Brought Her Warrior Dead Glossary

wanlor(n): soldier good at fighting

swooned(v): became unconscious

stole(v): moved silently

foe(n): enemy

tempest(n): storm in the ocean

they (here): the other soldiers

uttered (v): spoke

maidens (n): noble ladies

praised (v): admired

soft and low (adv): slowly and gently

worthy (adj): rightly fit or suitable

for thee (prn): for your sake

AP State Syllabus AP Board 6th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 11 Shadows – Images

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Important Questions 11th Lesson Shadows – Images

6th Class Science 11th Lesson Shadows – Images 2 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the need of light?
Answer:
We need light to see objects.

Question 2.
What is light of source?
Answer:
Substance which gives light is known as a source of light.

Question 3.
When the shadows are formed?
Answer:
Shadows are formed when opaque objects obstruct the path of light.

Question 4.
What we need to obtain shadow?
Answer:
In addition to light and object we also need a screen to obtain the shadow of an opaque object.

Question 5.
Are you guess the colour of object by its shadow?
Answer:
The colour of objects cannot be determined by looking at their shadows.

Question 6.
How the light travels?
Answer:
Light travels in a straight line.

Question 7.
When the light reflected?
Answer:
Light gets reflected when it falls on any object.

Question 8.
How do the people know that light travels in a straight line?
Answer:
People came to an understanding that light travels in a straight line by observing the shapes of shadows.

Question 9.
Why am I not able to see the objects clearly when it gets dark?
Answer:
In the dark light is not sufficient to see the objects.

Question 10.
Why am I not able to see the objects when the power goes off?
Answer:
When the power goes off light is absent. So we can’t see the objects.

Question 11.
How are we able to see the objects in the presence of light?
Answer:
The light reflects eyes that fell on objects. So we are able to see the objects.

Question 12.
Why are we not able to see the objects in the absence of light?
Answer:
Light is the source of visible since. So without light, we can’t see anything.

Question 13.
What are the conditions to form a shadow?
Answer:
We need a source of light and an opaque object and a screen to get a shadow.

Question 14.
How in ancient days, people came to an understanding that light travels in a straight line?
Answer:
In ancient days, by observing the shapes of shadows people came to an understanding that light travels in a straight line.

6th Class Science 11th Lesson Shadows – Images 4 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How can we see the objects?
Answer:

1. When we put on the bulb, light falls on the object, bounces from the object and reaches us.
2. We can see an object only when light falls on it and bounces back to our eyes.
   
3. The object is visible when there is no obstruction between your eyes and the object.
4. It means light travels in straight lines.

Question 2.
How do you classify the objects according to light traveling through them?
Answer:

1. The substances like paper, plank, wood, iron, etc. don’t allow light to pass through them. These objects form shadows. These are called opaque substances.
2. The substances like glass and air allow light to pass through them and hence we don’t get their shadows. Such substances are called transparent substances.
3. The substances such as polyethylene cover and oily paper partially allow the light to pass through them. Their shadows are unclear. These substances.

Question 3.
Write about shadow puppet?
Answer:

1. Shadow puppetry is one of our traditional recreational activities.
2. In this, some puppets are used to form shadows on a screen and a story is narrated with the help of these shadows.
   
3. By using this art old epics like Ramayana and Maha Bharat were played.
4. Now a days this old art losses its glow.

Question 4.
Write the difference between opaque and transperent substances?
Answer:
Opaque: An object which does not allow light to pass through it and you are not able to see the objects behind your opaque material.
Transparent: An object that allows light to pass through it and you can see the objects behind your transparent material.

Question 5.
Vivek said that light and object are enough to form a shadow? Are you agree with him?
Answer:
No. I can’t agree with this statement. I understand that only light and an opaque object are not enough to form the shadow of an object. In addition to these, we need a screen.

Question 6.
Can we guess the object by observing its shadow?
Answer:

1. Mostly we guess the object by observing its shadow.
2. But it is not always possible.
3. Sometimes the shadow may differ from the shape of the object.
4. Because of light source position and shape of the object.

Question 7.
What is a pinhole camera?
Answer:
It is a small instrument that works on the light.
With this camera, we can observe a big object through a pinhole.
On the screen, it forms a little reverse image without a lance.
The nature of the straight-line motion of light can also be understood by this one.

Question 8.
Look at a tree through the pinhole camera. What do you see?
Answer:
When I observe the tree in the pinhole camera

1. the image is small.
2. it is inverted on the screen.
3. it is colorful.
4. and appear near to me.

Question 9.
Predict what would happen if we make two pin-holes in the camera?
Answer:

1. If we make two pin-holes in the camera I predict that images are not clear.
2. But it is a wonder that it forms two images, both are clear.

Question 10.
We see our faces in the mirror every day. Is the picture in the mirror a shadow or an image? How did you decide that?
Answer:

1. The picture in the mirror is an image.
2. We know that shadows are not colored but an image has colors that are the same as that of the object.
3. A shadow shows only the outline of the object but an image shows the complete object as it is, just like a photograph.
4. The picture in the mirror has color and shows a complete object. So its an imaged

Question 11.
Can you show the difference between a shadow and an image through a drawing?
Answer:
Yes, we can show the difference between shadows and images through a drawing.

1. In images, we can use color and draw the whole picture.
2. Whereas in shadows we draw only outline and fill with black.

6th Class Science 11th Lesson Shadows – Images 8 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you prove that screen is necessary to form shadow?
Answer:
Aim: To prove that screen is necessary to form shadow.
Materials: Torch, leaf, darkroom, drawing sheet, or plank.
Procedure:

1. Do this activity in a dark room with a torch and a leaf.
2. Focus the light on the leaf with a torch.
3. Keep the distance about 30 cm between the leaf and the torch.
   
4. Now the shadow is formed in the wall.
5. Now put the torch under the leaf at a distance of about 30cm.
6. Now the shadow is formed on the roof.
7. Do the same activity, in the open air (outside) at night.
8. Now we can’t find any shadow outside.
   
9. Place a drawing sheet or a plank at a distance of 1 m. above
10. Now we can find a shadow on the drawing sheet.
11. It means the screen is needed to form shadows.

Conclusion: It is proved that screen is needed to form shadows.

Question 2.
Write the process of making a pinhole camera? (Activity – 6)
Answer:
Aim: Making a pin-hole camera.
Materials: A PVC pipe, about 8 cm in diameter and of length 30 cm.
A PVC pipe, about 7 cm in diameter and of length 20 cm.
One black drawing sheet. Oil -1 ml, two rubber bands, a pin, and A4 Sheet. (If you cannot get PVC pipes, take a thick sheet of paper and roll it to form tubes. The diameter and length of the tubes should be the same as that given for the pipes.)
Procedure:

1. Cut a piece of black paper and put it like a cap at one end of the big pvc pipe and fix it with a rubber band as shown in the figure.
   
2. Put the white paper like a cap at one end of the thinner PVC pipe.
3. Fix it with a rubber band, now make a hole in the middle of the black paper cap with the help of a pin.
4. Put 2 to 3 drops of oil on the white paper cap so that it becomes translucent.
5. Insert the thin pipe into the big pipe. Your pinhole camera is ready

Working:

1. Arrange a lighted candle in front of the pinhole of the camera.
   
2. Move the thinner pipe forward and backward to get a clear picture of the candle on the screen of the thin pipe.
3. This picture is to be observed from the back of the thin pipe.
   Observation: The flame of the candle appears inverted on the screen. This is not the shadow of the candle. It is its image.

Question 3.
Why the image in the pinhole camera is inverted?
Answer:

1. The light from the candle travels straight in all directions from each point of the flame of the candle.
2. But only the light coming in some particular directions can enter into the camera through its pin-hole.
   
3. The light that comes from the point at the top of the flame goes straight towards the bottom of the screen.
4. And the light that comes from the point at the bottom of the flame goes straight towards the top of the screen.
5. In this way, the light coming in a particular direction from each point of the flame will be able to enter into the pin-hole.
6. And light going in other directions is blocked by the black sheet.
7. This leads to the formation of an inverted image.
8. The formation of an inverted image on the screen of the pinhole camera explains that light travels in a straight line.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 6th Lesson Reproduction

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions you ask the doctor, who visited your school on World AIDS day?
Answer:

1. How does AIDS disease occurs?
2. How does the AIDS transmit?
3. What are the symptoms of AIDS?
4. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Question 2.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
The first secretion from the Mammary glands, after giving birth, rich in antibodies.
During the end of pregnancy, a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 3.
Name the types of asexual reproduction in the following organisms:
a) Paramoecium b) Yeast
Answer:
a) Paramoecium : Paramoecium reproduces by splitting into two. (Transverse binary fission)
b) Yeast: Yeast reproduces by Budding.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of grafting method in plants.
Answer:

1. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
2. It can be used to produce varieties in seedless fruits.

Question 5.
What measures can be taken to avoid sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners.
2. Sex with life partners only.
3. Follow ethical and healthy life practices because contraceptives always cannot prevent STD’s.
4. In case of any doubt, consult a qualified doctor for early detection if diagonised with disease take complete treatment.

Question 6.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
The process of developing zygote from female gametes without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis.

Question 7.
In flowering plants, I am formed as the result of double fertilization. The cotyledons digest and absorb me. Who am I?
Answer:
Endosperm.

Question 8.
In what way does mitotic division help the living organism?
Answer:

1. growth
2. cell repair
3. healing wounds.

Question 9.
Give any two suggestions to create awareness to stop female foeticide.
Answer:

1. Preparing relevant slogans
2. Organising rallies
3. Awareness campaign by using electronic and print media

Question 10.
Write two precautions you take, while observing Rhizopus in the laboratory.
Answer:

1. Don’t touch the experimental bread with hand.
2. If you touch the bread, thoroughly wash your hands.
3. Leave the bread in the open air for about an hour.
4. Avoid opening of the plastic bag as much as you can.
5. Sprinkle water over bread.
6. Place the bag in a dark and warm place.

Question 11.
Mention two materials you have used to observe Rhizopus on bread mould.
Answer:
Bread mould sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.

Question 12.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during favourable conditions?
Answer:
During favourable conditions paramoecium reproduce asexually by fission.

Question 13.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during unfavourable conditions?
Answer:
During unfavourable conditions paramoecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

Question 14.
Which bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk?
Answer:
Lactobacillus bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk.

Question 15.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The reproduction in which a single parent is involved, without formation of gametes is known as asexual reproduction.

Question 16.
What is fission?
Answer:
Splitting of organisms into two or more offsprings in a symmetrical manner is known as fission. Ex: Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 17.
How budding occurs in yeast?
Answer:

1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at specific site.
2. These buds develop when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Question 18.
Which animals reproduce through fragmentation?
Answer:
Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in Algae, Fungi and many land plants.

Question 19.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:

1. Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organism from their body parts.
2. If the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals. Ex: Hydra and planaria.

Question 20.
In which plant, small plants grow at the edge of leaves?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the edge of leaves.

Question 21.
By means of which plants propagate vegetatively through stem?
Answer:
Plants propagate vegetatively through stem by means of stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.

Question 22.
Through which the Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively?
Answer:
Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively through stolons.

Question 23.
Which plants produce the new plants through roots?
Answer:
New plants are produced from the roots of Dahlia, radish, carrot etc.

Question 24.
What are the artificial propagation methods in plants?
Answer:
Cutting, Layering and Grafting are the artificial propagation methods in plants.

Question 25.
Which method is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters?
Answer:
Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.

Question 26.
Which method will you adopt to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant?
Answer:
I will adopt grafting method to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant.

Question 27.
Which fungus is commonly called as bread mould?
Answer:
Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould.

Question 28.
How bread mould appears when you observe it under microspore?
Answer:
The common bread mould consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin knob like structures called Sporangia.

Question 29.
In which plants leaf is known as Sporophyll? Why?
Answer:
In fern plants leaf is known as Sporophyll. Because on the lower surface of the leaf sporangia are present.

Question 30.
What is fertilisation?
Answer:
Union of male and female gametes is known as fertilisation.

Question 31.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the organism then it is known as external fertilisation. Eg : Frog and fish.

Question 32.
What is internal fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female organism then it is known as internal fertilisation. Eg : Terrestrial animals (Reptiles, Aves, Mammals).

Question 33.
What are the parts present in male reproductive system of man?
Answer:
A pair of testis, Accessory glands and System of ducts.

Question 34.
The male reproductive organ testis produces?
Answer:
Testis produces male reproductive cells or spermatozoa.

Question 35.
Sperms are temporarily stored in which part of duct system?
Answer:
Sperms are temporarily stored in epididymis of duct system.

Question 36.
What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system?
Answer:
The accessory glands present in male reproductive system are one prostrate gland . and two cow cowper glands.

Question 37.
The fluid secreted by accessory glands is
Answer:
The fluid secreted by the accessory glands is semen.

Question 38.
What is the function of semen?
Answer:
Semen provide nutrients for sperm to keep alive and helps as a medium for the movement of sperms.

Question 39.
Which hormone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs?
Answer:
The hormone testosterone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs.

Question 40.
How are the secondary sexual characters are controlled in males?
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males are controlled by the male sex hormone testosterone.

Question 41.
Men produce sperm from the age of about?
Answer:
Men produce sperm from the age of about 13 or 14 years and can go on doing so most their lives.

Question 42.
Which are capable of changing the sex of the organism in which they grow like wasp?
Answer:
Some bacteria and other micro-organisms have been found capable of changing the sex of the organism of wasp in which they live.

Question 43.
The female gamete ovum is produced by
Answer:
The female gamete ovum is produced by graffian follicles of Ovary.

Question 44.
What is ovulation?
Answer:
The release of ovum from graffian follicle is known as ovulation.

Question 45.
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in which part of female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in fallopian tube or oviduct of female reproductive system.

Question 46.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is the nourishment tissue formed by the outer membrane of the embryo called chorion and the part of the uterine tissue.

Question 47.
When do placenta is formed during the development of embryo?
Answer:
Placenta is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy or during the embryonic development.

Question 48.
What keeps embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury?
Answer:
The embryo develop in amniotic fluid filled cavity which keeps it moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.

Question 49.
Which membrane forms umbilical cord?
Answer:
Allantois membrane which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of tube like structure called umbilical cord.

Question 50.
What is foetus?
Answer:
From the third month of pregnancy the embryo is called foetus.

Question 51.
What is gestation period?
Answer:
Total time required for the development of embryo and foetus is called gestation period.

Question 52.
What is the gestation period in human beings?
Answer:
The gestation period in human beings is 9 months or 280 days.

Question 53.
Collect the information about gestation periods in different animals.
Answer:
Gestation period in different animals:

Animal	Gestation period
Cat and dog	63 days
Horse	330 days
Cow	280 days
Rat and mouse	20-22 days

Question 54.
What is after birth?
Answer:
The muscular contractions of the uterus continue until they push out the tissues of the placenta, which are commonly called the ‘after birth’.

Question 55.
What are labour pains?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle layers of the uterus is known as labour pains.

Question 56.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
Colostrum: During the end of pregnancy a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 57.
What is the importance of feeding colostrum to new born baby?
Answer:
It is very important to feed colostrum to the new born baby because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 58.
What is the need of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction help organisms to develop characters that would be help them to adapt better to their surroundings.

Question 59.
In which mountain regions can Sal trees grow?
Answer:
Sal trees grow in the Himalayan mountains.

Question 60.
What are the different parts of a flower?
Answer:
Sepals, petals, stamens and carpels are the different parts of a flower.

Question 61.
What are stamens and carpels?
Answer:
The reproductive parts of a flower which possess the sex cells or germ cells are called stamens and carpels.

Question 62.
What are unisexual flowers? Give examples.
Answer:
Flowers having either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers.
Eg: Bottlegourd, papaya.

Question 63.
What are Bisexual flowers? Give some examples.
Answer:
Flowers having both the stamen and carpel are called bisexual flowers. Eg: Datura.

Question 64.
What are the three parts of carpel or gynoecium?
Answer:
The three parts of carpel or gynoecium are ovary, style and stigma.

Question 65.
What is self pollination?
Answer:
Plants having flowers. Where reproductive cells of stamen of the flower fertilise the female reproductive cells of the carpel of the same flower is called self pollination.
Eg: Plants of pea family.

Question 66.
How cross fertilisation occurs?
Answer:
If the male cells of flower of a plant fertilise the female cells of flowers on the same or different plants of the same species, the type of pollination is called cross pollination.

Question 67.
What did Darwin showed regarding fertilization of plants?
Answer:
Darwin in 1876 showed that plants when isolated had the greatest tendency to self fertilize while when surrounded by varieties of the same flower, they readily cross fertilize.

Question 68.
Which cells are composed the embryosac of ovule?
Answer:
The embryosac of ovule composed of gametophyte cells.

Question 69.
How many cells and nuclei does an embryosac consisting in majority of flowering plants?
Answer:
The majority of flowering plants have an embryosac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

Question 70.
What is double fertilisation?
Answer:
Double fertilisation: Union of one male nucleus with an egg and the second male nucleus with the fusion nucleus is called double fertilisation.

Question 71.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed produced after fertilisation contains the future plant or embryo that develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is called germination.

Question 72.
Who gave the phrase “omnis cellula de cellula”? What does it mean?
Answer:
The ‘phrase omnis cellula de cellula’ means cells arise from pre-existing cells. It was given by Rudolph Virchow who discovered cell division.

Question 73.
Who stated that the animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells?
Answer:
In 1852 Robert Remak of Germany stated that animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells.

Question 74.
Who discovered the process of mitosis?
Answer:
Mitosis was discovered by Walther Flemming in 1879.

Question 75.
What is the most important discovery of Walther Flemming regarding chromosomes?
Answer:
Walther Flemming’s most important discovery was chromosomes appear double in nature.

Question 76.
Who proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements?
Answer:
Wilhelm Roux proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements.

Question 77.
What are the hypothesis made by August Weiseman on chromosomes?
Answer:

1. In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
2. In successive cell division the number of chromosomes always remain constant.

Question 78.
Who confirmed the scheme of mitotic division?
Answer:
The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.

Question 79.
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
Answer:
The structure of (DNA) deoxy ribonucleic acid was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 80.
The cells in which organ do not divide?
Answer:
Cells present in organs such as heart and brain of an individual never divide.

Question 81.
What is time required for completion of mitosis?
Answer:
The process of mitosis is completed in 40 to 60 minutes.

Question 82.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The period between two cell divisions is called interphase.

Question 83.
Into how many phases the interphase can be divided?
Answer:
Interphase can be divided into three phases. They are G₁ phase, S phase and G₂ phase.

Question 84.
What is G₁ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₁ phase is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the begining of DNA replication (Gap 1 phase).

Question 85.
What is S phase of interphase?
Answer:
S phase is the period of DNA synthesis leading to duplication of chromosomes.

Question 86.
What is G₂ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₂ phase is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis (Gap 2 phase).

Question 87.
Who conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique on phases of interphase?
Answer:
Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of interphase.

Question 88.
What is cytokinesis?
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 89.
What are the different stages present in mitosis?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase are the different stages present in mitosis.

Question 90.
In which phase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids?
Answer:
In prophase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids.

Question 91.
During which phase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles.

Question 92.
How many haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis?
Answer:
Four haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis.

Question 93.
What are the diseases that can be sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections such as Gonorrhoea and Syphilis and Viral infections such as AIDS.

Question 94.
In what way the sexually transmitted diseases spread from person to person?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases spread by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices, infected blood transfusion, from an infected mother to child.

Question 95.
Which state has the highest number of HIV patients in the country?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.

Question 96.
Which factors are contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Illiteracy, poor health, unemployment, migration, non-traditional sex practise, unethical contacts and trafficking are some of the factors contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 97.
Expand “ASHA”.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Question 98.
What is Red ribbon express?
Answer:
Red Ribbon express is an AIDS/HIV awareness campaign train by the Indian Railways. The motto of the Red ribbon express is “Embarking on the Journey of Life”.

Question 99.
What is contraception?
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilisation is called contraception.

Question 100.
Which device not only prevents fertilisation but also transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Condoms and diaphragm (cap) prevents fertilisation and also useful to not transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS.

Question 101.
What are spermicides?
Answer:
Spermicides are the pills used for killing sperms.

Question 102.
What are the surgical methods to birth control in males and females?
Answer:
Vasectomy for males and Tubectomy for female are the surgical birth control methods in human beings.

Question 103.
What is Vasectomy?
Answer:
In males, a small portion of vas deferens is removed by surgical operation ami both ends are tied properly. This method is called vasectomy.

Question 104.
What is Tubectomy?
Answer:
In females, a small portion of oviducts (fallopian tube) is removed by surgical operation and the cut ends are tied. This prevents the ovum from entering into the oviducts. This method is called Tubectomy.

Question 105.
What is the marriage age for girls in India?
Answer:
The marriage age for girls in India is 18 years.

Question 106.
What is foeticide?
Answer:
Foeticide is the act of destruction or aborting a foetus because it is female.

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the questions you asked the doctor who visited your school to know “the ways of transmission of HIV”?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions to the doctor.

1. What are the ways of transmission of HIV?
2. How can we prevent the spread of HIV?
3. What precautions should we take while doing transfusion of blood:
4. How does HIV transmit from mother to baby?
5. Why should we use disposable syrenges?

Question 2.
The chromosomal number is reduced to half in the daughter cells produced by meiosis. What happens if the number is not reduced to half in daughter cells?
(OR)
In Meiosis, the chromosome number in the daughter cells are reduced to half that of their parent cells. Guess, what would happen, if the reduction of chromosome number is not done.
Answer:

1. If the reduction of chromosomes number is not done, the chromosomal number is doubled in the offsprings.
2. The change in chromosomal number leads to development of abnormal characters in the individual.
3. The offspring differs from parental generation.
4. Abnormal characters will be formed in new generation, which are not useful for the existence of individual.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a doctor to know about different birth control methods?
Answer:

1. What is family planning?
2. What is meant by contraception?
3. How many types of contraceptive methods are there?
4. What are the contraceptive devices used for female?
5. What are the contraceptive devices used for male?
6. What is tubectomy?
7. What is vasectomy?
8. What are surgical methods of birth controls?

Question 4.
Apparao and Ramulamma are a newly married illiterate couple. They don’t want children for few years. Suggest some birth control methods for them.
(OR)
Mention any four birth control methods.
Answer:
a) condoms
b) diaphragm (Cap)
c) pills
d) copper – T
e) loop

Question 5.
Why is it important for gametes to have half the number of chromosomes?
Answer:

1. If gametes have 2 sets of chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be 4 sets in zygote after fertilization because of this the chromosomal number will be doubled in each generation. This results in abnormalities in off-spring.
2. Hence, to maintain a constant number of chromosomes, garnets should have half set of chromosomes.

Question 6.
Identify the flower parts a, b, c, d and write their main function.
Answer:
a) Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flower. It produces female gametes called ovules.
b) Style: Ovary has a pipe like structure called style. It allows the pollen tube to enter the ovary for fertilization.
c) Stamen: These are male parts called androecium. It has two parts. They are filament and Anther.
d) Anther : Produces male gametes called pollen grain.

Question 7.
Draw and label the diagram of human sperm cell.
Answer:

Question 8.
How can we get the desired useful triats with the help of two selected triats by using grafting method?
Answer:

1. Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with the help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
5. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of plants with various flowers and fruits. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 9.
Draw the labelled diagram of Embryo-sac A.
Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Which phases take same time duration?
Answer:
G₁ phase and S phase.
ii) In which phase, DMA synthesis takes place?
Answer:
S Phase.

Question 11.
Write the process involved in seedless fruit development with two suitable examples.
Answer:
In some plants ovary directly develops into fruit without the process of fertilization, this phenomenon is called as parthenocarypy.
Ex: Grapes, water melon.

Question 12.
What precautions will you take to keep away from diseases like AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. Use condom every time.
3. Use disposable syringes and needles.
4. Transfusion of safe blood to the patients.
5. HIV mother can have child with doctor’s advice only.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Name male and female reproductive parts of the above figure.
Answer:
Male reproductive parts – anther / pollen grain / stamen
Female reproductive parts – ovary / ovule / style / stigma.

ii) Write the names of (1) and (2) in the diagram.
Answer:

1. Sepal or calyx
2. Petal or corolla

Question 14.
When does Parthenogenesis occur? Write names of two animals in which parthenogenesis takes place.
Answer:
a) Parthenogenesis is a process of reproduction where there is a shift from sexual to asexual mode of reproduction.
b) In this process generally the female garnets develops into zygote without fertilization.
c) This strange kind of reproduction occur in bees, ants and wasps.
d) The parthenocarpic zygote develop into male (Monoploid) while the fertilized one developed into female (Diploid)

Question 15.
Draw the figure of metaphase in mitosis, and write about it.
Answer:

1. Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres.
   
2. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.

Question 16.
Prepare 4 questions on meiosis, to conduct a Quiz programme.
Answer:

1. Where does meiosis occur in?
2. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
3. In which phase of meiosis karyokinesis takes place?
4. Name the scientist who discovered meiosis for the first time.

Question 17.
Write slogans on ‘Child marriages – a social evil’.
Answer:

1. Child marriage, a loosing game.
2. She is a child herself, why burden her with another child?
3. My childhood, my right.
4. A child should call ‘mother’ but a child should not be called mother.
5. Good marriages take place slowly. Go slow with children’s marriage.
6. Say no to child marriage.

Question 18.
Write 5 slogans on the prevention of HIV/AIDS.
Answer:

1. Open your eyes before AIDS closes them.
2. Hate the disease but not the diseased.
3. Spread the knowledge not the virus.
4. Wear protection to prevent infection.
5. AIDS brings pain! Girls please obstain.

Question 19.
What is fission? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two or more offsprings.
2. This splitting usually occurs in a symmetrical manner.
3. When an organism is split into two offsprings it is called binary fission.
4. When an organism is split into more offsprings, it is called multiple fission.
5. This is often the only mode of reproduction for single celled organisms.
   Ex : Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 20.
Write a short notes on fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Fragmentation is a reproductive method in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
2. Some can grow from a separate piece of parent organism. This can be from any part of the body.
3. This happens only in the simplest such as some flat-worms, moulds, lichens, spirogyra, etc.
4. Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in algae, fungi and many land plants.

Question 21.
What do you know about parthenogenesis? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. Parthenogenesis is an asexual reproduction in which unfertilized eggs develop into offsprings.
2. In this process generally egg develops into new individual without meiosis and fertilization. So the offsprings are diploid.
3. In some species of animals reproduction occurs only through parthenogenesis. There are no males known in these species. Ex: Rotifers.
4. In another type of parthenogenesis meiosis does occur and the egg can develop whether fertilized or not.
5. The monoploid offsprings develop into males and diploid into females.
   Ex: Bees, Ants and Wasps.
6. Nowadays we are able to develop seed less fruits like watermelon, grapes, pomegranate etc.

Question 22.
Describe the vegetative propagation through the stem with examples.
Answer:

1. Production of new plants from the vegetative parts such as stem, root, leaves of the existing plant is called vegetative propagation.
2. Aerial weak stems like runners and stolons, when they touch the ground, give off adventitious roots.
3. When the connection with the parent plant is broken, the portion with the newly struck roots develops into an independent plant.
4. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms and tubers as follows.
   a) Stolons – Vallisneria, Strawberry
   b) Bulbs – Alliumcepa or onion
   c) Corms – Colacasia
   d) Tuber – Potato

Question 23.
Write short note on artificial propagation method cutting.
Answer:

1. Cutting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which new plants are developed from the cut portion of existing plant.
   
2. Some plants grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant.
3. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
4. After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant.
   Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.

Question 24.
What is layering? Explain briefly about it.
Answer:

1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is layering.
2. A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground.
3. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil.
4. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant, later it develops roots and grows to become a new plant. Ex: Nerium.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Grafting.
Answer:

1. Grafting is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in which two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
   
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. After few days both will unite by forming new tissue and grow as a single one.
5. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
6. Plants in which grafting is done more in mango, apple, citrus, plants.

Question 26.
What are the advantages of grafting?
Answer:

1. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of the two plants (scion and stock) in its flower and fruits.
2. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits quite fast when it is grafted to the stock.
3. Grafting can be used to produce varieties of seedless fruits.

Question 27.
How is tissue culture more beneficial than other traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants? (OR)
What is tissue culture? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. The traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants are being replaced by the modern methods of artificial propagation of plants involving tissue culture, as it is more beneficial than the traditional methods.
2. In tissue culture, a few plant cells or plant tissue are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.
4. There will be no climatic impact on the propagation, so multiplication can be done throughout the year.
5. It is possible to obtain plants that are free from pathogens.

Question 28.
How does the Rhizopus propagate?
Answer:

1. Rhizopus propagates by means of spores.
   
2. The Rhizopus parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic reproductive units called spores.
3. When the spore case of the plant bursts, the spores spread into air.
4. These air borne spores fall on food or soil, under favourable conditions like damp and warm conditions, they germinate and produce new plants.

Question 29.
Write a short note on spore formation. (OR)
How spores are produced in sporangia of fungi?
Answer:

1. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which occurs through microscopic reproductive units called spores.
2. Most of the fungi like rhizopus, mucor etc., bacteria and non-flowering plants such as ferns and mosses reproduce by the method of spore formation.
3. In fungi like rhizopus spores are produced in some specialised structures called sporangia which bursts and spreads the spores into air. These spores when fall on food or soil under favourable conditions germinate and produce new plants.
4. In non-flowering plants like fern, the leaves called sporophyll bears clusters of sporangia on their lower side. These sporangia produce the spores which produce the new plant when it falls on ground under favourable conditions.

Question 30.
How is external fertilisation different from internal fertilisation? (OR)
What are the differences between external and internal fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fertilisation that takes place outside the body of mother is called external fertilisation. This is most common in animals like fishes and amphibians. As the chance of fertilisation is controlled by nature it becomes necessary to give rise to vast number of eggs and sperms by these animals.
2. Fertilisation that takes place inside the body of mother is called internal fertilisation. This is common in most of the land animals. As the chance of fertilisation is not controlled by the nature, these animals generally produce less number of eggs.

Question 31.
Write a short note on ovulation. (OR)
What is ovulation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Release of the egg or ovum is called ovulation.
2. The ova develop in tiny cellular structures in ovary called follicles, which at first look like cellular bubbles.
3. As a follicle grows, it develops a cavity filled with fluid.
4. Each follicle contains a single ovum.
5. When an ovum is mature, the follicle ruptures at the surface of the ovary and the tiny ovum is flushed out.
6. This release of ovum is called ovulation.

Question 32.
How does the uterus get adapted to receive the embryo?
Answer:

1. The uterus at the time of fertilization is beautifully adapted to receive the developing embryo, providing it with food and disposing of its wastes.
2. A few days prior to this time, the uterus was small, its tissues were thin, and its supply of blood vessels was poor.
3. When the fertilized egg or zygote is about to enter the uterus become much larger, its inner wall becomes thick, soft and moist with fluid, its blood supply is greatly increased and waiting for an embryonic occupant.

Question 33.
What is colostrum? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. During the end of pregnancy, a watery lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands.
2. This is called colostrum.
3. For the first few days after the baby is born, the mammary glands secrete only colostrum.
4. It is very important to feed the new born baby with colostrum because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 34.
What is the importance of mitosis in human beings?
Answer:

1. Mitosis is the cell division that transforms a human fertilized egg into a baby in nine months and into an adult in the next 20 years.
2. The bone marrow cells actively divide by mitosis to produce red blood cells.
3. Mitosis helps in replacing the worn out cells in the skin.
4. Mitotic divisions in the cells surrounding the wound helps in cease the wound and healing.

Question 35.
Collect the information about the significance of the experiments done by Dr Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson.
Answer:

1. Nearly 4 decades back Dr.P.N. Rao and Johnson did some elegant experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of cell cycle.
2. These experiments have, for the first time provided evidence that the progression of cells through the cell cycle is sequential and unidirectional and are controlled by a series of chemical signals that can diffuse freely between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3. These experiments revealed for the first time the structure of interphase chromosomes that are not ordinarily visible under the microscope.
4. These experiments are considered to be a ‘milestone’ in the cell cycle studies.

Question 36.
Ramu said that it is very essential to create more awareness in Andhra Pradesh on the risk of HIV infection and AIDS. Do you support him? If so, how can you support his statement?
Answer:
Yes, what Ramu said is right. I support his statement with the following reasons.

1. Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.
2. According to official statistics, the state had 5 lakh of the 24 lakh HIV positive patients
   in the country during 2011-12.
3. While one in every 300 adults is suffering from HIV elsewhere, in Andhra Pradesh one in every 100 adults is a HIV patient, that is almost one per cent.
4. The prevalence of HIV is 1.07 per cent among males and 0.73 among females in the state, which again is higher than in other states.

Question 37.
Briefly explain about the contraception and contraceptive methods.
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in the woman by preventing fertilisation is called contraception. Any device or chemical which prevents pregnancy in a woman is called a contraceptive. Contraceptive methods are of various types and used by any of the partners as preferable. Some of the contraceptive methods are:

1. Use of physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm (cap).
2. Use of hormonal pills which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into oviduct.
   These pills can be induced either orally or inserting into female reproductive organ vagina.
3. Use of spermicides that kills the sperms.
4. Use of intra-uterine device called copper – T, loop, etc.
5. Use of surgical methods such as vasectomy for male and tubectomy for female.

Question 38.
Classify the given organisms basing on the type of reproduction.
Man, Flatworm, Mould, Dog, Bacteria, Frog, Fern, Datura, Hen, Yeast.
Answer:

Sexually reproducing organisms	Asexually reproducing organisms
Man	Flat worm
Dog	Mould
Frog	Bacteria
Datura	Fern
Hen	Yeast

Question 39.
What will happen if the amnion is ruptured before the foetus is developed completely?
Answer:

1. Amnion is the embryonic membrane that grows around the embryo itself.
2. The cavity within the amnion is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid, which keeps the growing embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.
3. If the amnion ruptures by accident before the foetus developed completely, the amniotic fluid is released out through vagina.
4. As there is no protective fluid around the foetus, it starts getting damaged.
5. So if possible delivery must done immediately by surgerical method, otherwise abortion must be done.
6. If baby dies inside the uterus which leads to infections in uterus causing problems
   to mother that leads to death.

Question 40.
How will you appreciate the contribution of August Weiseman to the cell biology?
Answer:

1. Science is not advanced only by the collection of data. Someone must think about and interpret the data. August Weiseman belongs to this category who think and interpret the data.
2. Even though his poor eyesight not allowed him to use a microscope to study cells, he made great contribution to the cell biology making use of his thinking capacity and interpretation skills.
3. He hypothesised that
   a) In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
   b) In successive cell division, the number of chromosomes remains constant.
4. His hypothesis proved right in case of mitosis.
5. We should take such a great person who overcame his defect with his will as our role model.

Question 41.
How will you appreciate the contribution of Dr. P.N. Rao to the ceil biology?
Answer:

1. Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao, a renowned scholar and eminent cytologist came from a poor family in Muppalla village of Guntur district.
2. He did his research work on the cytogenetics of tobacco plant and cancer cells in culture medium.
3. He conducted research in cell kinematics and triggering factor of cell division i.e., mitosis.
4. He observed the interphase and its three phases.
5. To understand the functional relationship between these phases he did elegant experiments on cell fusion technique along with his research associate Dr.Johnson.
6. His researches revealed that the cell cycle is sequential, unidirectional and controlled by a series of chemical signals.
7. His experiments are considered to be a milestone in the cell cycle.
8. He is an exemplary person who proved that poverty is not a barrier to the talent and wisdom.

Question 42.
Write briefly about natural vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

1. In natural vegetative propagation new plants are produced from stem, root, leaves of old plants without the help of any reproductive organs.
2. In bryophyllum small plants grow at the edge of leaves.
3. Aerial weak stems like runners stolons, when they touch the ground give it adventitious roots.
4. When the connection with the parent plant is broken the stem portion with the adventitious roots develops into an independent plant.
5. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.
   
6. Stolons – Vallisneria, strawberry.
   Bulbs – Onion (Alliumcepa)
   Corms – Colacasia
   Tuber – Potato

Question 43.
What are sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them?
Answer:

1. A disease which can be transmitted through sexual contact is called sexually transmitted disease or STD.
2. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, Herpis and viral infections such as herpes and AIDS.
3. Lack of hygiene is usually a major factor in providing conditions for spread of STDs.
4. But unprotected sex with multiple and unknown partners is the highest reason for the spread of STDs.
5. Some of the ways to prevent STD are as follows.
   a) Being faithful to one’s life partner.
   b) Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
   c) Using condom during sexual intercourse.
   d) Maintaining personal hygiene.

Question 44.
Why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individual through regeneration ?
Answer:

1. Many organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
2. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
3. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
4. Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible.
5. Hence complex organisms are not able to give rise to new individuals through regeneration.

Question 45.
How an organism will be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:

1. Reproduction through spores gives several advantages to an organism like they are produced in very large numbers and it helps in propagation of species.
2. Spores can remain dormant till favourable conditions become available.
3. Spores help an organism to overcome unfavourable conditions.
4. Spores can be spread through water, air or animals and thus is good for the spread of an organism to more places.

Question 46.
What is the role of the placenta in embryo development?
Answer:

1. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
2. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
3. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.
4. On the other side mother’s blood spaces are present.
5. This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients from the mother of the embryo.

Question 47.
Why do we practise vegetative propagation for growing some types of plants?
(OR)
Why vegetative propagation is adopted over other types of propagation?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practised in some plants because

1. It is the only method of reproduction in seed less plants.
2. We get more number of matured plants in a very short time.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short time.
4. This method can help the breeder in preserving the characters he need.
5. It is very easy and economical method for the multiplication of ornamental plants.

Question 48.
What is Mitosis? Which type of cells it occurs in organisms? Write about the different stages of it.
Answer:

1. Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei.
2. Each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
3. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
4. Different stages of mitosis:
   1. Prophase
   2. Metaphase
   3. Anaphase
   4. Telophase

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the changes involved in the formation of seed from Ovule.
(OR)
Pollen grain reached the stigma of a flower. Explain the changes that occurs up to the formation of seeds in a sequence.
Answer:
Process of double fertilization:

1. At the time of fertilization there will be a total of 7 cells arranged in three groups in a mature embryo sac.
2. They are one egg (female garnet) two synergids, one central cell (secondary or polar nucleus) and three antipodals.
3. While all the cells are in haploid (n) condition only the polar nucleus is diploid (2n). This is due to the fusion of two nuclei.
4. The synergids are also known as helper cells.
5. Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. For the fusion pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
   
6. Pollen grain received by the stigma, germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. The pollen tube has two male nuclei.
7. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through microphyle and discharges the two male gametes into the embryo sac.
8. One male nucleus (garnet) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form diploid (2n) zygote this is called first fertilization.
9. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) (polar nucleus) and fuses with it to form endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryosac.
   Changes after double fertilization:
10. After double fertilization, the ovule increases in size rapidly as a result of formation of endosperm tissue by mitosis and the development of new embryo.
11. The embryo consists of cotyledons an epicotyl and a hypocotyl. The cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food for the seedling.
12. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed. The ovary grows to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.
i) What are the four main parts of a flower?
Answer:
Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium are the main parts of a flower.

ii) Which parts of the flower produces gametes?
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium produces gametes.

iii) Which parts of the flower help in pollination?
Answer:
Petals or corolla help flower in pollination.

iv) Which part protect the flower during its bud stage?
Answer:
Sepals or calyx protect flower in bud stage.

v) Which part of the flower will turn into a fruit in the future?
Answer:
Ovary of the flower will change into fruit.

Question 3.
Organisms reproduce asexually in many ways. Some of the organisms are given below. Fill the below table based on the collected information about the organism and mode of asexual reproduction in it.
a) Onion b) Spirogyra c) Strawberry d) Ginger e) Honey-bee f) Paramoecium g) Planaria h) Yeast

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction

Answer:

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction
a) Onion	Bulb
b) Spirogyra	Fragmentation
c) Strawberry	Stolons
d) Ginger	Rhizome
e) Honey – bee	Parthenogenesis
f) Paramoecium	Binary fission
g) Planaria	Regeneration
h) Yeast	Budding

Question 4.
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of flower.
ii) What are the sexual parts in the flower ?
Answer:
i)
ii) A. Androecium or Stamen
B. Gynoecium or Pistil

Question 5.
Read carefully and answer the following questions.

According to Weismann prediction, every organism undergoes two kinds of cell divisions. In Mitosis, there is no change in chromosomal number (2n) and in Meiosis, chromosomal number is reduced to half (n).

i) What does ‘n’ and ‘2n’ indicate?
Answer:
‘n’ indicates haploid state. ‘2n’ indicates diploid state.

ii) In which cells, Meiosis takes place?
Answer:
Meiosis occurs in sex cells during the formation of gametes.

iii) What happens, if chromosomal number is not reduced in Meiosis?
Answer:
The chromosomal number not constant in successive generations.

iv) Which type of cell division occurs in the skin cells?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.

i) Which part produce the female gamete?
Answer:
Ovary

ii) Where does the fertilization takes place in female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fallopian tube

iii) Where does the embryo develops until it is ready to born?
Answer:
Uterus

iv) In some cases doctor’s cut and tie the cut ends of the fallopian tubes. What is the name of surgery?
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 7.
Briefly explain the stages of cell cycle.
Answer:
The process of cell division is called “mitosis”. The period between two cell divisions is called “Interphase”.
This is actually the period when the genetic material makes it’s copy so that it is equally distributed to the daughter cells during mitosis. Interphase can be devided into three phases.
G₁ Phase: This is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication (GAP-1 Phase). The cell size increase during this period.
S Phase: This is the period of DNA synthesis (Synthesis phase) leading duplication of chromosomes.
G₂ Phase: This is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis. Cell organells devide and prepare chromosome for mitosis.

Question 8.
i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
ii) What is the function of testosterone?
Answer:
i) Male reproductive system:
ii) The function of testosterone hormone is maintaining of secondary sexual chracters in males.

Question 9.
Describe the life cycle of a flowering plant with a help of neat labelled diagrams. (OR) Draw the life cycle of a flowering plant.
Answer:

1. Adult plant produces flowers:
   When the plant matures and is ready to reproduce, it develops flowers. Flowers are special structures involved in sexual reproduction, which includes pollination and fertilisation.
   
2. Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
3. Fertilisation:
   i) After pollen grains falls on the stigma fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grains joins with the female gametes present in the ovule.
   ii) In the ovary the male nucleus of pollen combines with the nucleus of female gamete or egg present to form zygote.
4. Formation of fruit and seed: After fertilisation, a combined cell i.e. zygote grows into an embryo within a seed formed by the ovule.
5. Each seed contains a tiny plant called an embryo which has root, stem and leaf parts ready to grow into a new plant when conditions are favourable.
6. Another part of the flower (the ovary) grows to form fruit, which protects the seeds and helps them spread away from the parent plant to continue the cycle.

Question 10.
Analyze the following information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the plant	Method of propagation
1.	Mango	Grafting
2.	Rose, Hibiscus	Cutting
3.	Jasmine	Layering
4.	Bryophyllum	Small plants grow on edges of leaves
5.	Colacasia	Cor ms
6.	Onions	Bulbs

i) What do you call the given reproduction methods?
Answer:
Given reproduction methods are called ‘vegetative propagation’.

ii) What is the major difference between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants?
Answer:
In sexual reproduction gametes form zygote. Plant parts like root, stem and leaf are used in vegetative reproduction. It is one of asexual method.

iii) Potato plants do not produce seeds. How can you propagate this plant?
Answer:
Potato plants propagates through the ‘eyes’.

iv) What are the advantages of propagating plants with the above given methods?
Answer:
In vegetative propagation

1. More plants are produced in less time
2. Characters are not changed.
3. It would be possible to develop new varieties with useful characters.

Question 11.
Explain the methods of artificial propagation in various plants.
Answer:
Artificial propagation:

1. Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
   
   After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose, Hibiscus.
2. Layering: A branch of the plant with atleast one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After a few days new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant.
   E.g: Nerium, Jasmine
   
3. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of various flowers and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
   

Question 12.
Observe the following figures and find the stages of cell division and explain.
Answer:
In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (karyokinesis) followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). Finally brings about the formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in mitosis division.
They are

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

1) Prophase	1) Chromosomes condense and get coiled. They become visible even in light microscope. Nucleoli become smaller. 2) Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres. 3) Nuclear membrane disappears. 4) Centrosome, containing rod-like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle
2) Metaphase	1) Centrosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached to centromeres.
3) Anaphase	1) Centromeres split, separating the chromatids. 2) Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4) Telophase	1) Chromatids elongate, replication at this stage to become chromosomes and become invisible. 2) Nuclear membrane form round daughter nuclei. 3) Cell membranes pinches into form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants) 4) Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts. Two cells are form.

Question 13.
Mention the stages of Mitosis with the help of diagrams. Explain the changes that takes place in Prophase.
Answer:
Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
Different stages of mitosis:
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

1) Prophase

1. In this phase chromosomes condense and get coiled.
2. They become visible even in light microscope.
3. Nucleoli becomes smaller.
4. Chromosome split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
5. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
6. Centrosome containing rod like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle.

Question 14.
Describe the process of double fertilization in plants. Explain the uses of endosperm that is formed.
Answer:
Double fertilization:

1. In flowering plant germinated pollen grain forms pollen tube.
2. The end of the pollen tube ruptures and two male garnets are released in the Embryosac.
3. Out of two male garnets one male garnet fuses with female garnet which is called fertilization.
4. Another male garnet fuses with the secondary nucleus and forms endosperm.
5. So in flowering plant fertilization occures twice hence it is called double fertilization.

Uses of Endosperm:

1. Cotyledons develops by utilizing endosperm.
2. The Cotyledons utilizes the stored food in the endosperm.
3. Some of the plants utilizes the endosperm completely and changes in to seed.
4. Because of the stored food the size of the cotyledons increases.

Question 15.
Explain any two natural and two artificial vegetative propagation methods to produce more number of plants in less time period with examples.
Answer:
Natural propagation:
i) Leaves – Small plant grow at the edge of the leaves. Ex: Bryophyllum
ii) Stems:
a) Stolon – Ex: Jasmine, strawberry b) Bulbs – Ex: Onion
c) Corns – Ex: Colocasia d) Rhizome – Ex: Ginger e) Tuber – Ex: Potato
iii) Root – Ex: Roots of murayya, guava
Artificial propagation:
Cutting: Some plants can grow individual when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plants. Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.
Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground. Ex: Nerium, Jasmine.
Grafting: Two plants are joint together in such a way that stems join and grow as a single plant one which is attached to soil is called stock and stem of another plant without roots is called scion. Both stock and scion are tied with a twine thread and cover by a polythene cover. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 16.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

SI. No.	Structure	Location
1.	Tricuspid valve	Right auriculo-ventricular aperture
2.	Guard cells	Epidermis of leaves
3.	Glomerulus	Nephron
4.	Alveoli	Lungs
5.	Acrosome	Above the head of a sperm.

i) Name the structure concerned to the heart.
Answer:
Tricuspid valve

ii) What is the function of acrosome?
Answer:
It helps the sperm in penetrating into ovum.

iii) Name the structures which are helpful for gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli and guard cells

iv) Name the part performing Excretion.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Question 17.
a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Human female reproductive system.
b) What happens when the Fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system
b) If fallopian tubes are closed the sperm can not reach the ova, fertilization will not happen and zygote will not form.

Question 18.
Observe the following table.

Reproduction system	Organisms
Fission	Paramoecium, Bacteria
Budding	Yeast, Hydra
Fragmentation	Flatworms, Spirogyra
Rhizome	Ginger, Turmeric
Cutting	Rose, Hibiscus
Grafting	Citrus, Apple

On the basis of information given in the table write- the answers to the following questions.
i) Write the names of two organisms that show Asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Yeast, Hydra, Bacteria, Paramoecium (any two you may write)

ii) Write two artificial vegetative propagation methods mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Cutting, Grafting

iii) Write the names of two plants, which undergo natural vegetative propagation mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Ginger, Turmeric

iv) In fission, how many organisms can we get from one organism?
Answer:
Two

Question 19.
Among the following organisms can we see asexual reproduction? Write about the method of asexual reproduction in any of the two organisms.
Answer:
а) Paramoecium b) Yeast c) Spirogyra d) Amoeba e) Planaria
Yes, we can see asexual reproduction in all the following organisms.

Method of asexual reproduction – Organism
Binary fission                                – Paramoecium, amoeba
Budding                                        – Yeast
Fragmentation                              – Spirogyra
Regeneration                                – Planaria

1) Binary fission in Paramoecium: A single cell divides into two equal daughter cells. First the cytoplasm divides into two parts followed by nuclear division.
2) Asexual reproduction in Yeast: Budding is the common method of asexual reproduction in yeast. In this method, yeast cell wall at a particular region becomes soft and bulges into an outgrowth called bud. Cytoplasm enters into this bulge and then nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei, one moves into the bud. Finally bud is detached from the parent cell and grows into an independent yeast cell.

Question 20.
See the adjacent picture. Which type of pollination will occur in this ? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. Self-pollination occurs if stamens and carpels matures at the same time.
2. If they mature at different times, cross pollination occurs.
3. Cross pollination occurs in this plant.
4. For cross pollination the pollen grains are carried from other plants belonging to the same species.
5. The mechanism of dispersal of pollen grains from one plant to other plant is facilitated mostly by wind and insects.
6. Cross pollination is believed to be advantageous for the plant.
7. The seeds produced by the flower will contain another source of genetic material
8. Which may contain genes which are advantageous to the survival of the seedlings.

Question 21.
What are the consequences if meiosis do not happen in the body cells of the organism?
Answer:

1. Each organism has a fixed number of chromosomes.
2. This number has to be maintained in its offspring.
3. Any sudden change in the number of chromosomes will be harmful to the offspring. Assume parent has 10 chromosomes.
4. In the absence of meiosis during sexual reproduction gametes will also have the same number of chromosomes as parent i.e., 10 chromosomes.
5. Union of female and male gametes occur forming zygote during sexual reproduction. The number of chromosomes doubled in zygote will have 10+10 chromosomes.
6. In the next generation, the offspring will have forty chromosomes. If this continues cells in the offsprings will have thousands of chromosomes within few generation.
7. This results in formation of abnormalities in each generation. Hence by way of meiotic division, the chromosome number is maintained constant from generation to generation.

Question 22.
Describe different artificial vegetative methods to produce large scale production of plants.
Answer:

1. Different artificial vegetative propagation methods are cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture methods.
2. Cutting: Some plants grow individually when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant. After burying in the soil the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose.
3. Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant. E.g: Nerium.
4. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved vari¬eties of various flower and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
5. Tissue culture: In this method, few plant cells or plant tissues are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.

Question 23.
i) Labelled parts of A, B, C, D above drawn Human female reproductive system.

ii) In which part fertilization takes place?
iii) Which part is in connection with implantation?
iv) What is ovulation?
Answer:
i) A: Fallopian tube
B: Ovary
C: Uterus
D: Vagina
ii) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube.
iii) Uterus
iv) Release of ovum from graffian follicle of ovary is known as ovulation.

Question 24.
Write some programmes conducted by you to bring awareness in the people about health and hygeine and family planning?
Answer:

1. Organising Health camps on World Health day to people of the village.
2. Conducting immunisation programs for every three months.
3. Supplying tablets on the deworming day.
4. Organising seminars by expert doctors on individual health and cleanliness programs.
5. Propagating small family norms conducting camps for family planning operations.
6. Educating the masses through pamplets on the needs of taking balanced diet.
7. Need of using toilets and washing hands and legs before and after meals.
8. Educating the people by conducting adult education centres. This is basically required for enlightening the people on health aspects.

Question 25.
Government made an act on determining sex through ultrasound scanning and telling it as crime. What do you do to tell this to others?
Answer:

1. I will educate people knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the act made by government.
2. The purpose of ultrasound tests are to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments.
3. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female people are ready for aborting it.
4. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country.
5. Children either male or female are equal to parents.
6. We should see proper development of girl child after her birth.

Question 26.
Write about the embryonic membranes that nourish, protect and support to the embryo?
Answer:

1. The growing embryo form two membranes – Chorion and Amnion.
2. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and in the removal of wastes from the embryo.
3. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo and amniotic fluid is present between layers of Amnion.
4. Amnion and Amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against mechanical shocks.
5. Placenta is a tissue formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy by the cells from the embryo and mother.
6. Embryo receives all the required nutrients and oxygen for its metabolism from the mother through the blood vessels present in the placenta.
7. Another membrane called allantois, which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of a tube like structure called umbilical cord.
8. Umbilical cord contains very important blood vessels that connect the embryo with the placenta.

Question 27.
Write brief history of cell division.
Answer:

1. In 1852 a German scientist, Robert Remak published his observations on cell division and stated that the binary fission of cells was the means of reproduction of animal cells.
2. This view was widely publicized by Rudolf Virchow who gave the phrase “Omnis cellulade cellula” means all cells arising from pre existing cells.
3. In 1879 Walther Flemming reported that there were string like structures in the nucleus which split longitudinally during cell division. He named the process as mitosis means fine threads as the dividing structures resembled threads.
4. Wilhelm Roux proposed that each chromosome carried a different set of heritable elements and suggested that the longitudinal splitting observed by Flemming ensured the equal division of these elements.
5. Combined with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s 1866 paper on heritable elements in peas, these results highlighted the central role of the chromosomes in carrying heritable material or genetic material.
6. The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.
7. The chemical nature of the genetic material was determined in a series of experiments over the next fifty years.
8. The structure of DNA – the constituent of the genetic material was determined in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about child birth. (OR) How child birth occurs after gestation period?
Answer:

1. Total time required for the embryonic and foetal development is about 9 months or 280 days.
2. After this time, foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother. This is child birth.
3. Child birth is a complicated process and involves the participation of child and mother.
4. The foetal hormones produced inside, stimulate the contraction of the muscles present in the walls of uterus.
5. These contractions called labour pains help in the expulsion of the foetus from the uterus.
6. During this process the amnion ruptures, placenta is separated from the walls of J the uterus.
7. At child birth the head usually comes out first.
8. The foetus is still attached to the mother’s uterus through the umbilical cord, which is later separated by the doctors.

Question 29.
Draw the life history of flowering plant in the form of block diagram.
Answer:
Life history of a flowering plant:

Question 30.
In a flower self fertilization takes place. Write the process, the flower organs which involve in self fertilization.
Answer:

1. Fusion of male and female gametes produced by the same individual is called self fertilization.
2. Self ferlization occurs in bisexual flowering plants.
3. The flower organs which involve in self fertilization are stamens (androecium) and carpels (Gynoecium).
4. Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
   
5. The pollen grains produced by anther of stamen are transferred to the stigma of the same flower by wind or insects.
6. The stigma of the carpel secretes a sticky substance which promotes the growth of pollen grains.
7. Under favourable conditions pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give rise to pollen tubes.
   Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo sac.
8. This pollen tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
9. One male nucleus (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid zygote. This is first fertilization.
10. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo sac.
11. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryo sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 31.
Describe the structure of flower with a neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. A typical flower consists of an outer whorl of green sepals (calyx) which protects the parts with in.
2. The second whorl has petals (corolla) which are usually brightly coloured. They sometimes emit fragrance also.
3. Petals are soft and are useful to attract insects to facilitate cross pollination.
   
4. The third whorl of the flower consists of stamens (Androecium) which are the male reproductive organs.
5. Each stamen is made up of a filament and an anther.
6. Each anther usually has two anther lobes. The anther produces pollen grains (microspores).
7. The inner most fourth whorl is gynoecium or pistil. It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
8. Ovary occupies central portion on the thalamus. A swollen ovary is present on the thalamus.
9. Inside the ovary future seeds, known as ovules are present.
10. Ovary has a pipe like extension called style. The tip of the style ends in stigma. The stigma receive the pollen grains.

Question 32.
Write a brief note on male reproductive system of human beings.
Answer:

1. The male reproductive system of human beings consists of a pair of testis, accessory glands and a system of ducts.
2. Testis are male reproductive organs and produces spermotozoa or sperms and also secretes male sex hormone Testosterone.
   
3. Inside each testis several lobules are present. Each lobule has several tubules called seminiferous tubules.
4. Germinal epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubules undergo meiotic division to produce sperms.
5. The accessory glands include one prostrate gland and two cowper glands. Secretion of these glands produce semen.
6. The duct system consists of vasa efferentia.
   They collect spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules.
7. Vasefferentia continue as epididymis where sperms are stored temporarily.
8. From epididymis sperms moved into tubule called vas deference and then into urethra.

Question 33.
Describe the female reproductive system in human beings.
Answer:

1. A pair of ovaries, oviducts, uterus and vagina are the parts present in female reproductive system.
2. Ovaries are present just below the Kidneys in the abdominal cavity.
3. Each ovary has several sac like structures called ovarian follicles or Graffian follicles.
   
4. Every time only one follicle matures and release one ovum into the body cavity.
5. Ovaries secrete two female sex hormones called oestrogen and progesterone which control the development of female reproductive organs, ovulation and menstruation.
6. Just above the ovaries are the tubes called oviducts or fallopian tubes where fertilisation takes place.
7. The two oviducts connect to a bag like organ called uterus at their other ends.
8. The uterus is connected through a narrow opening called cervix to another tube called vagina which opens to the outside of the body.
9. Vagina is a tubular structure and is also called birth canal because it is through this passage that the baby is born after the completion of development inside the uterus of the mother.

Question 34.
Describe briefly about the reduction division or meiosis.
(OR)
Why meiosis is also known as reduction division? Comment on it.
Answer:

1. Meiosis occurs only during the formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
2. During meiosis only one set of chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells. Hence daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes of the mother cells.
   
3. In meiosis karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur two times.
4. During first phase of meiosis the parent cell divides twice, though the chromosomes divide only once.
5. The second phase meiosis is similar to normal mitosis, but chromosomes do not duplicate more over the chromosome number distributed equally to each cells.
6. Thus the four daughter cells have just half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells.
7. These are haploid (containing only one set of chromosomes).
8. Thus meiotic division is also called reduction division.

Question 35.
Describe the developmental stages of human embryo after fertilization with the help of neatly labelled diagrams.
Answer:

1. During fertilization, chromosomes of the ovum and the chromosomes of the sperm make up into pairs and the resulting cell is called zygote.
2. Fertilization takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube.
   
3. The zygote which is diploid travels down the fallopian tube. As it moves it undergoes several mitotic divisions forming the embryonic stage called blastocyst.
4. Blastocyst moves towards the wall of the uterus and finally gets attached and embedded in the wall of the uterus. This is called implantation.
5. The growing embryo forms two membranes Chorion and Amnion.
6. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and removal of wastes from the embryo.
7. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo. The space between the amnion and embryo is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid.
8. Amnion and amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against minor mechanical injury.
9. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy.
10. Placenta nourishes the growing embryo.
    
11. A tough cord called umbilical cord is also formed by the embryo which is connected to the walls of the uterus through the placenta.
12. From 3 months of pregnancy, the embryo is called foetus.
13. Pregnancy lasts on an average 9 months or 280 days. This period is called gestation period.
14. After this time foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother – this is child birth.
15. This process is complicated and involves the participation of foetus and mother.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class English Textbook Solutions Chapter 3A Puru, the Brave Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class English Solutions Chapter 3A Puru, the Brave

7th Class English Chapter 3A Puru, the Brave Textbook Questions and Answers

Look at the picture and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
Talk about what is happening in the picture.
Answer:
It is the scene of a fierce battle of ancient times. It appears to be completely an Indian battle. The soldiers of both the sides of the battle are using the old instruments of warfare – swords, daggers and spears. Battle is going on fiercely. The soldiers are slashing their swords with lightning speed. Though they are well armoured the soldiers of both sides are wounded seriously. Their heads are cut off. Some lost their limbs. The battle field must have become red with the bloodshed.

Question 2.
What do you think may be the cause of the war?
Answer:
The thirst of conquering the other’s kingdom.

Question 3.
Who is Puru? What do you know about him?
Answer:
Puru is a brave king. He fights bravely. He is patriotic and a man of self-respect.

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Who is Alexander?
Answer:
Alexander is the King of Macedonia.

Question 2.
Why did the generals and Alexander think that the battle of Jhelum would go down in the history of the world?
Answer:
They thought that it would go down in the history of the world because they had never fought such a battle before. Every Indian soldier fought like a hungry tiger. The Greeks had to fight hard until Puru was injured and captured.

Question 3.
What do you think is the reason for Indian soldiers’ defeat?
Answer:
Indian soldiers fought bravely like tigers. But the generals were not so skilful as the Greek generals. They followed the old methods of warfare. They depended more upon their elephants. So they were defeated.

Question 4.
Do you think that Indian generals were not as brave as the Greek generals?
Answer:
No, I don’t hink so. Our Indian generals were braver than the Greek generals. Even Alexander himself admitted this fact and said he had the highest respect for them.

Question 5.
Do you believe that Puru was really proud ? Give reasons. Do you justify his pride? How?
Answer:
No. Puru was not really proud. He was a man of self-respect. He showed how a king should behave with another king. He did not misbehave with Alexander. Moreover he greeted Alexander when he entered the court. Thus his pride was justifiable.

Question 6.
If you were Alexander, what would you do with Puru?
Answer:
If I were Alexander, I too would behave like Alexander. I mean that Alexander respected and honoured Puru in apt way 1 too would like to have friendship with Puru.

II. Tick (✓) the correct answers.

1. Alexander asked his soldiers to remove the chains of Puru because ( )
a) he was sympathetic to Puru.
b) he did not like a brave man like Puru in chains.
c) Puru requested Alexander to remove his chains.
d) Alexander did not dare see Puru in chains.
Answer:
b) he did not like a brave man like Puru in chains.

2. Puru did not accept Alexander’s proposal to be a vassal because ( )
a) he was very proud.
b) he was very brave and patriotic,
c) he was not very wise.
d) he did not have respect for Alexander.
Answer:
b) he was very brave and patriotic

3. Alexander made friends with Puru because, ( )
a) Puru accepted that Alexander was really great.
b) Alexander wanted to make use of Puru’s services.
c) Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect.
d) Alexander was very kind.
Answer:
c) Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect.

4. Alexander was really great because, ( )
a) he defeated Puru.
b) he made friends with a brave king like Puru. .
c) he defeated Puru, set him free, respected, and made friends with him.
d) he was the conqueror of the world.
Answer:
c) he defeated Puru, set him free, respected, and made friends with him.

I. Pick out the antonyms from the text for the words given below.

Answer:
1) defeat
2) brave
3) proud
4) reject
5) independent

II. Fill in the blanks in the following paragraph with the words given in the box.

I know that you are very ……………………… and ………………………. of the position you hold. But I am really ………………….. to know that you feel as though you have ……………… the world. These days nobody is being …………………. by the other. I would like to make a ……………………. so that you will ……………………. humble and ………………… I hope my words …………………. your imagination and you ………………….. me as your teacher.
Answer:
1) skilful
2) worthy
3) amazed
4) conquered
5) frightened
6) proposal
7) remain
8) lawful
9) capture
10) respect

III. Look at the following words from the text: 1. independent 2. difference

The word ‘precaution’ consists of two parts – ‘in-’ and ‘dependent’ (prefix+root).
The word ‘dangerous’ consists of two parts ‘differ’ and ‘-ence’ (root+suffix).
Add appropriate prefixes / suffixes to the following roots to make new words. The first one is done for you

Answer:

Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with suitable forms (after adding a prefix/suffix) of the words in brackets.
1. He was acting in a very ——– way. (child)
2. This word is very difficult to spell, and even worse, its ——–. (pronounce)
3. You shouldn’t have done that! It was very ——– of you. (think)
4. He didn’t pass his exam. He was ——– in the second attempt. (succeed)
5. Some of the Indian cities are dreadfully ——–.(crowd)
6. The team won the ——–. (champion)
7. There is a very high ——– that they will be late, (likely)
8. I couldn’t find any ——– in his theory, (weak)
9. There was a three-hour ——– because of the strike, (stop)
10. You need a ——– of motivation, organization and revision to learn English.(combine)
Answer:
1) childish
2) pronunication
3) ill thinking
4) successful
5) crowdy
6) championship
7) likelihood
8) weakness
9) stoppage
10) combination

Grammar

I. Let’s have a look at the following sentences from the text.

1. My kingdom should remain independent.
2. You should treat me as your equal.
3. I must say every Indian soldier fought like a tiger.
In sentence 1, should indicates obligation whereas in 2, it indicates condition.
In sentence 3, “must’ is used to indicate insistence on the part of the speaker / necessity.
It is also used when the speaker has authority over the listener.
It is important to understand how the modals ‘should’ and ‘must’ are used.
(People sometimes use should to indicate something that is desirable and must to indicate obligation. However, some people use them interchangeably.)

Now fill in the blanks in the following paragraph with ‘should or ‘must’.

I –(1)– say that you –(2)– come to school regularly because you cannot miss important lessons. You –(3)– attend extra classes in time tomorrow. Otherwise I will punish you. You –(4)– return my book which I gave you month ago. You –(5)– change your habits otherwise you will not come up in life.
Answer:
1) should
2) must
3) must
4) must
5) should

Now read the conversation between a doctor and a patient and fill in the blanks with should (should not) and must (must not).

Doctor: Mr. Rao, what exactly is your problem?
Patient: I’ve been suffering from gastric problem for a long time.
Doctor: Mr. Rao, I (1)………. say you (2)………. eat non-vegetarian or spicy food for sometime.
Patient: Can I eat boiled eggs or omelette, doctor?
Doctor: Isn’t an egg non-vegetarian ? You (3)………. eat any non-vegetarian food for quite some time. In fact, you (4)………. have stopped eating it long ago. You (5)……….. consult me in a week.
Patient: I am sorry, doctor. I won’t eat non-vegetarian food any longer. You are quite correct, doctor. I (6)………. take your advice and (7)………. avoid eating non-vegetarian and spicy food. Thank you very much, doctor.
Doctor: You are welcome. In think you (8)………. remember my advice.
Answer:
1) must
2) should not
3) must hot
4) should
5) must
6) must
7) must
8) should

II. Look at the following sentences from the text:

1. But their generals are not so good as ours.
2. The Indian generals are not so skillful as the Greek generals.
3. It has been a great battle – perhaps the greatest of my life.

In the above sentences 1&2, the Indian generals are compared with Greek generals. The third sentence means that it was the greatest or the best battle of all his (Alexander’s) battles. When we want to compare one thing with the other, we use degrees of comparison – positive, comparative and superlative forms of adjectives.

If we compare two things or two sets of things, we use positive or comparative forms of adjectives. If we compare more than two things or two sets of things, we use the superlative form of adjectives. We can transform positive, (comparative and superlative degrees) into comparative and superlative and vice versa.

Let us observe the sentences 1 and 2 above.
1. Their generals are not so good as ours.
2. Indian generals are not so skillful as the Greek generals.

The underlined words in the above sentences are adjectives. These are the positive forms of adjectives. The other forms of these adjectives are given below.
Positive              Comparative                   Superlative
good                     better                               best
skillful                 more skillful                   most skillful

The two sentences are said to be in the positive degree since the adjectives are in the positive degree.
They can be transformed into comparative degree by changing the adjectives into comparative degree and making certain other changes.
Sentences 1 and 2 can be changed into comparative forms as shown below:
1. Our generals are better than their generals.
2. The Greek generals are more skillful than Indian generals.

Now look at the third sentence.
It is the greatest battle of my life.
The above sentence can be turned into the comparative and positive degrees as shown below.
It is greater than any other battle of my life.
No other battle of my life is so great as this.

Now look at the following sentence in the superlative degree of comparison:
Puru is one of the bravest kings in the world.
This sentence means that there are a few kings in the world who are as brave as Puru. It also means that Puru is not the only bravest king in the world. Let’s see how the above sentence can be transformed into comparative and positive degrees of comparison.

Puru is braver than many other/ most of the other kings in the world (Comparative)
Very few kings in the world are as brave as Puru. (Positive Degree)

Observe the following forms of comparison of some adjectives.

Positive Degree	Comparative Degree	Superlative Degree
nice	nicer	nicest
short	shorter	shortest
big	bigger	biggest
great	greater	greatest
fast	faster	fastest
worthy	worthier	worthiest
frightened	more frightened	most frightened
lawfyl	more lawful	most lawful
brave	braver	bravest

Change the following sentences into other forms of comparison as indicated in brackets.

1. Rahul Dravid is one of the greatest batsmen in the world. (comparative degree)
Answer:
Rahul Dravid is greater than many other batsmen in the world.

2. Alexander was the greatest soldier in the world. (positive degree)
Answer:
No other soldier in the world was as great as Alexander.

3. India is one of the fastest developing countries in the world. (comparative degree)
Answer:
India is developing faster than many other countries in the world.

4. No other river in the world is so long as the Nile. (superlative degree)
Answer:
The Nile is the longest river in the world.

5. Hindi is one of the most popular languages in India. (positive degree)
Answer:
Very few languages in India are as popular as Hindi.

6. Lara is not so great as Tendulkar. (comparative degree)
Answer:
Tendulkar is greater than Lara.

7. Rekha is one of the most beautiful girls in the class. (positive degree)
Answer:
Very few girls in the class are as beautiful as Rekha.

8. Very few metals are as expensive as platinum. (comparative degree)
Answer:
Platinum is more expensive than many other metals.

9. Shimla is colder than all other hill stations in the Himachal Pradesh. (superlative degree)
Answer:
Shimla is the coldest hill station in Himachal Pradesh.

10. Delhi is one of the most crowded cities of India. (positive degree)
Answer:
Very few cities of India are as crowded as Delhi.

Writing

I. Given below are some jumbled sentences. Rearrange them in the right order and write a meaningful paragraph by using appropriate connectives.

1. Alexander asked Puru why he had rejected his offer.
2. Alexander defeated many kings besides Puru, became the world conqueror, and was called Alexander the Great.
3. Alexander was born in Greek and he was the disciple of the greatest Greek philosopher, Aristotle.
4. Puru lost the battle though his generals and soldiers fought very bravely.
5. Alexander asked his generals to remove the chains and bring Puru to him.
6. Puru killed more than one hundred soldiers but he was gravely injured and chained in the battle.
7. Puru lost the battle as he had used the oldest methods of warfare and elephants.
8. Puru said that he was the lawful owner of his kingdom.
9. Puru was a brave king and a great soldier of Northern India.
10. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect , so he became his best friend.
11. There was a great battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of Jhelum.
12. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal but he refused.
Answer:
1. Alexander was born in Greek and he was the disciple of the greatest Greek philosopher, Aristotle. (3)
2. Puru was a brave king and a great soldier of Northern India. (9)
3. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal but he refused. (12)
4. There was a great battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of Jhelum. (11)
5. Puru killed more than one hundred soldiers but he was gravely injured and chained in the battle. (6)
6. Puru lost the battle though his generals and soldiers fought very bravely. (4)
7. Puru lost the battle as he had used the oldest methods of warfare and elephants. (7)
8. Alexander asked his generals to remove the chains and bring Puru to him. (5)
9. Alexander asked Puru why he had rejected his offer. (1)
10. Puru said that he was the lawful owner of his kingdom. (8)
11. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect, so he became his best friend. (10)
12. Alexander defeated many kings besides Puru, became the world conqueror, and was called Alexander the Great. (2)

Forming a paragraph by placing the jumbled sentences in the right order:

Alexander was born in Greek and he was the disciple of the greatest Greek philosopher, Aristotle. Puru was a brave king and a great soldier of Northern India. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal but refused. So there was a great battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of Jhelum. Puru killed more than one hundred soldiers but he was gravely injured and chained in the battle. Puru lost the battle though his generals and soldiers fought very bravely. He lost the battle because he had used the oldest methods of warfare and elephants Alexander asked his generals to remove the chains and bring Puru to him. He asked Puru why he had rejected his offer. Puru said that he was the lawful owner of his kingdom. So he rejected the offer of being his vassal. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self respect, so he became his best friend Alexander defeated many Kings besides Puru, became the world conqueror, and was called Alexander the great.

II. Rewrite the playlet as a short story. You may follow the steps given below :
Read the drama script as many times as necessary.

Answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
Identify the major events depicted in the drama.
Answer:
Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal – great battle between Puru and Alexander – Puru lost the battle – Puru refused to be a vassal – Puru greatly injured, captured – chained – Puru used the oldest methods of warfare – Puru’s generals and soldiers fought bravely – Puru was / brought before Alexander – Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect – made friends with Puru.

Question 2.
Take turns and share the major events in the order they occur.
Answer:

1. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal.
2. Puru refused to be a vassal.
3. Great battle between Puru and Alexander.
4. Puru’s generals and his soldiers fought bravely.
5. Puru used the oldest methods of warfare.
6. Puru lost the battle.
7. Puru greatly injured, captured and chained.
8. Puru was brought before Alexander.
9. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect.
10. Made friends with Puru.

Question 3.
Expand each event in terms of:
a) the location where it takes place
b) the characters involved
c) what they say / think / involved
Answer:
a) Expanding the events in terms of the location where its takes place:
3. There was a great battle between Puru and Alexander on the banks of the river Jhelum:
4. Puru’s generals and soldiers fought bravely in the battle field.
8. Puru was brought before Alexander where he was conducting his camp court.

b) Expanding the events in terms of the characters involved:
1. Alexander was the king of Macedonia. His aim was to conquer the whole world.
2. Puru was a king of Northern India.

c) Expanding the events in terms of the characters what they say / think / feel.
At the camp court of Alexander, Alexander and his generals were discussing how bravely Puru and his soldiers fought. Generals said that the battle of Jhelum went down in the history of the world. Alexander admitted that it was the greatest battle he had ever fought. Alexander thought Puru’s faulty battle plans, using old methods of warfare and depending too much on elephants were the causes for Puru’s defeat.

Meanwhile Puru was brought before Alexander. Alexander asked him why he had rejected his offer to be his vassal while all the other kings gladly agreed to do so. Then Puru told that none of them was Puru.
Alexander asked Puru how he’ should treat him. Puru aksed him to treat him as a king should treat another king. .

Question 4.
Write the first draft.
Answer:
Alexander was the king of Macedonia. His aim was to conquer the whole world. Puru was a king of Northern India. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal. Puru refused Alexander’s offer.

1. There was a battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of the river Jhelum. Puru and his generals fought bravely at the battle field. Puru was greatly injured.
2. He was captured and he was chained. He lost the battle. At the camp court of Alexander, Alexander and his generals were discussing how bravely Puru and his soldiers fought. The generals opined that the battle of Jhelum would go down in the history of the world. Alexander admitted that it was the greatest battle he had ever fought. He thought that Puru’s faulty battle plans, his using of other oldest methods of warfare and depending too much on elephants were the causes for Puru’s defeat.
3. Puru was brought before Alexander. Alexander asked his soldiers to remove his chains. He asked Puru why he had refused to be his vassal, while all other kings gladly agreed to so. Then Puru told that he was not a traitor like them. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self respect.
   He asked Puru how he should treat him. Puru asked him to treat him as a king should treat another king. Alexander asked him whether he would be a friend to him. Puru agreed to be his friend only when Alexander agreed to keep his kingdom independent.
4. Conclusion to be added.

Question 5.
Edit and refine the draft.
Answer:

1. So there was a great battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of the river Jhelum.
2. Puru was greatly injured, captured and chained.
3. Meanwhile Puru was brought before Alexander after removing his chains.
4. Thus the battle of Jhelum really went down in the history of the world. And Puru was remembered for his bravery, and for his sense of patriotism and self-respect.

Final draft:
Alexander was the king of Macedonia. His aim was to conquer the whole world. Puru was a king of Northern India. Alexander asked Puru to be his vassal. Puru refused Alexander’s offer. So there was a great battle between Alexander and Puru on the banks of the river Jhelum. Puru and his generals fought bravely at the battle field.

Puru was greatly injured, captured and chained. He lost the battle. At the camp court of Alexander, Alexander and his generals were discussing how bravely Puru and his soldiers fought. The generals opined that the battle of Jhelum would go down in the history of the world. Alexander admitted that it was the greatest battle he had ever fought. He thought that Puru’s faulty battle plans, his using of the oldest methods of warfare and depending too much on elephants were the causes for Puru’s defeat.

Meanwhile Puru was brought before Alexander after removing his chains. He asked Puru why he had refused to be his vassal, while all other kings gladly agreed to do so. Then Puru told that he was not a traitor like them. Alexander liked Puru’s bravery and self-respect.

He asked Puru how he should treat him. Puru asked him to treat him as a king should treat another king. Alexander asked him whether he would be a friend of him. Puru agreed to be his friend only when Alexander agreed to keep his kingdom independent.

Thus the battle of Jhelum really went down in the history of the world and Puru was remembered for his bravery, and for his sense of patriotism and self-respect.

Study Skills

There are many words which can function as more than one part of speech. For instance ‘talk’ can be used as a verb as well as a noun.
She talks at length about her dress.
Her talk is boring.

I. Refer to the dictionary and say whether the following words can be used as different parts of speech like a noun, a verb, an adjective, etc. The first one is done for you.

Answer:

Usage:
1. battle (n): The battle of Waterloo took place in 1815.
battle (v): She is still battling with her knee injury.
battle (adj): He ran away from the battle field.
2. chain (n): She wore a heavy gold chain.
chain (v): She chained the dog and welcomed us in.
3. conquer (v): Ashoka conquered Kalinga.
4. fight (v): We must fight against corruption.
fight (n): He put up a fight when the police tried to arrest him.
5. like (n): We all have different likes and dislikes.
like (prep): She is wearing a dress like mine.
like (v): I like sweets.
like (adj): She responded in like manner.
like (adv): it’s really hard. Like I have no time for my own mork.
like (conj): It didnt turn out like I intended.
6. refuse (v): She refused to accept that there was aproblem.
refuse (n): Municipal authorities asked the people to keep their domestic refuse in the
bins provided by the Municipality.
7. reject (v): The proposa! was firmly rejected.
reject (n): Mother Teresa used to serve the family rejects and the society rejects.
8. respect (n): 1 have the greatest respect for your brother.
respect (v): She had always been honest with me and I respect her for that.
9. talk (v): She talks at length about her dress.
talk (n): Her talk is boring.
10. treat (v): My parents still treat me like a child.
treat (n): We took the kids to the zoo as a special treat.

Listening and Speaking

Your teacher will read the passage “Nepal and the Himalayas”. Listen carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nepal lies between India and Tibet, among the Himalayan mountains. It is a country of mountains and valleys. The tallest mountain in the world, Mount Everest, is in Nepal. And there are several other mountains nearly as high. When mountaineers try to climb Mount Everest, they take the help of the Sherpas, who live in these mountains, to carry heavy loads and to act as guides.

A long time ago, the Sherpas crossed over the mountains from Tibet and made their homes along the slopes of the Himalayas in Nepal. So, they are rather like the people of Tibet to look at. Here, life is hard, and the entire family, including the children, have to work to get enough to eat.

The Sherpas grow potatoes, barley, garlic, and other vegetables. They also graze their yaks on the higher mountain slopes in the summer and on the lower slopes in the winter. The Sherpas use them for almost everything they need. They ride them, plough with them, and use them to carry their goods. The hairy wool of these animals is made into cloth and their skins into leather boots and tents. The yaks also provide milk, fat and meat. Their dung is dried and used as a fuel instead of wood or coal.

There are hardly any roads in the Himalayas, and everything has to be carried either on animals like yaks and donkeys or on human backs. Even children learn to carry heavy loads in large baskets which are tied to them. The baskets are big enough to carry a person.

The highest mountain tops of the Himalayas are cold, cheerless and covered with snow, but lower down one can find flowers in the spring and summer, and fir trees too. There are colourful butterflies, kites and eagles in the skies, and black and red Himalayan bears hiding in the rocks.

Though the Sherpas lead a tough life in their beautiful country, these small, dark haired people are always cheerful, and like most Buddhist people, they are friendly and kind.

Choose the right answer from the choices given below:

1. The passage is about . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( )
a) Nepal
b) the Himalayas
c) the Himalayas and the Sherpas
d) none of these
Answer:
c) the Himalayas and the Sherpas

2. The Sherpas came from . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( )
a) Nepal
b) Tibet
c) China
d) none of these
Answer:
b) Tibet

3. Lower down the Himalayas we can see . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( )
a) colourful butterflies
b) kites
c) eagles
d) all of these
Answer:
d) all of these

4. The most useful animals for Sherpas are . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( )
a) cows
b) buffaloes
c) yaks
d) none of these
Answer:
c) yaks

II. Read the following sentences and say whether they are true or false.

1. Mount Everest is iri India. ( )
2. There are many roads in the Himalayas. ( )
3. Even the children of Sherpas carry heavy loads. ( )
4. One can find flowers on the tops of the Himalayas. ( )
Answer:
1) False
2) False
3) True
4) False

Work in groups. Ask and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the modes of transport in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Animals like yaks and donkeys or on human backs.

Question 2.
Why do Sherpas look like the people of Tibet?
Answer:
A long time ago, the Sherpas crossed over the mountains from Tibet and made their homes along with the slopes of the Himalayas in Nepal. So they look the people of Tibet.

Question 3.
What interesting things would you find in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are hardly any roads in the Himalayas. Everything has to be carried either on animals like yaks and donkeys or on human backs. The highest mountain tops of the Himalayas are a cold, cheerless and covered with snow, but lower down one can find colourful butterflies, kites and eagles in the skies.
Listen to the following conversation:
Teacher: Meghana! Have you ever been to the Himalayas?
Meghana: No, Sir. I have never been to the Himalayas.
Teacher: Do you have any idea about the Himalayas?
Meghana: Yes, I do.
Teacher: Tell me whatever you know about it.
Meghana: Sir, the Himalayas are the highest mountains in the world.
Teacher: Oh! Are they? Then tell me which is the highest peak among them?
Meghana: Mount Everest, Sir.
Teacher: What sort of help is available to the climbers in the Himalayas?
Meghana: Sir, there are plenty of Sherpas.
Teacher: Who are these Sherpas?
Meghana: Sir, they are helpers in the mountains.
They carry our luggage to earn their living.
Teacher: Good. Meghana.
Meghana: Thank you, sir.

Work in groups and share your experiences about the place you have visited. You may talk about the following:

• The hill station you visited
• How you travelled
• When was it? Where did you stay?
• Who went with you?
• The places you visited. The places you liked and disliked.
• Any memorable experience or anecdote.

Answer:
A: Let’s talk about the places we visited.
B: Yes. To start with, I visited Lakshmi Narasimha Swami temple in Antharvedhi.
C: I had been to Papikondalu.
D: We once went to Ooty.
A: Shall we talk about our mode of travel?
B: Yes, of course! We travelled by a taxi.
C: I went there partly by bus and partly by boat.
D: Our journey was by train and car.
A: May I ask you where you stayed?
B: We stayed in a hotel.
C: We didn’t stay overnight. Our visit was of a few hours.
D: We booked accommodation in a private guest house.
A: Who accompanied you?
B: We all went with the members of our family.
C: We all went with the members of our family.
D: We all went with the members of our family.
A: What places did you see there?
B: M the important.places like lakes, temples, etc. we covered
C: All the important places like lakes, temples, gardens, hill stations we covered …
D: All the important places like lakes, temples, gardens, hill stations we covered …

Puru, the Brave Summary in English

Alexander was the King of Macedon. He conquered Greece, Persia etc. He also made several Indian kings his vassals.
Puru was a king of northern India. He was a brave soldier and a true patriot.

Alexander wanted to make Puru his vassal. So he sent Puru an offer that he would not fight a battle with Puru if he agreed to be his vassal. But Puru rejected his offer. So a great battle occurred between Alexander’s army and Puru’s army. It was such a great battle that Alexander’s army had to sweat a lot and strive their best to defeat Puru’s army. Every Indian soldier fought like a tiger in the battle. The Indian soldiers and generals fought more bravely than the Greek soldiers and generals. Bu the Indian generals were less skilful than the Greek generals. They followed the old methods of warfare. They depended too much on their elephants. At last the Greek were able to defeat Puru’s army.

Puru continued to fight even when others had left the field. Puru killed at least a hundred Greek soldiers with his sword. But he was injured badly and so the Greek generals were able to capture him. Puru was chained and brought to the camp of Alexander, on the banks of the Jhelum.

Alexander in his camp was discussing with his Greek generals how the battle of Jhelum went on. Alexander and the generals admitted that the battle of Jhelum would go down not only in the history of their country but also in the history of the world. Everone praised the Indian army for their bravery and great fight but pitied them for their poor, old methods of warfare.

Meanwhile, a soldier came there and said that Puru had been brought to the camp, in chains. Then Alexander said that Puru was a king and a king should not be brought, in chains. So he ordered them to remove the chains and bring him there. Pure came.

Alexander asked Puru why he had rejected his offer. Puru replied that he was a lawful king and so he would never like to be a vassal. Puru said that a patriotic king ought to be proud of being a king otherwise he could not be a king. Alexander admired Puru’s bravery and self-respect. So he said that he wanted to make friends with Puru. Puru said that he would agree to be so provided his kingdom remained independent and Alexander treated him as his equal. Alexander gave him back his kingdom and made friends with Puru. Puru admired the personality of Alexander and called him, Alexander the Great.

Puru, the Brave Glossary

go down (phr.v): to be recorded

Your Highness (n): a title of respect used when talking to or about a member of the Royal family

warfare (n): the act of fighting a war

Your Majesty: the way of addressing Roya’ people

vassal (n): a man promising to fight for a king in return for the right to hold land

conquered (v): captured

battle (n): war

believe (v): think something is true

perhaps (adv): probably

brave (adj): courageous / bold / dare

faulty (adj): wrong

amazed (v): wondered / astonished

injured (v): hurt badly / wounded badly

besides (prep): in addition to

return (v): give back

softly (adv): gently

 

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the school atlas carefully by looking at various thematic maps.
Answer:
Self-exercise.

Question 2.
Do you think the use of maps has changed between the time of ancient Greeks and now? In what way is it similar and different?

	in ancient Greece	Now
Similarities
Differences

Answer:
Yes, I think so.

	In ancient Greece	Now
Similarities	They tried to make the maps accurate with the help of longitudes and latitudes.	The maps are very accurate and detailed with the help of satellites.
Differences	Maps were made to help the sailor.	Maps are used extensively for planning, development of countries.

Question 3.
Many people believe that making of maps by the Colonial powers was a more powerful tool for exploitation and control of the colonies than guns. Do you agree? Why?
Answer:
Yes, 1 agree with the given statement.
The reasons are –

1. When European powers coionised the entire continents like North and South Americas, Africa, Australia and Asia they needed to know about the places, their climate, crops, mineral resources and about the people living there.
2. They sent scientific expeditions consisting of map makers and others to explore the different parts of the world and prepare maps.
3. These teams fought their way into interiors of continents crossing mountains, deserts and rivers, fighting local peoples to get the necessary information. ,
4. This information and the maps enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over these areas and also exploit their resources.

Question 4.
In what ways were the maps prepared by the British different from the one made by Ptolemy or Idrisi?
Answer:

British maps	Maps of Ptolemy or idrisi
1. They prepared maps to establish their rule over the areas and .also exploit their resources.	1. They prepared their maps for their kings and their interests.
2. These maps give more information of their colonies.	2. These maps give more correct information of Europe and nearby countries.
3. These are relevant to present day maps.	3. They show their continents in the centre of the earth.
4. These show the north towards the top of the map.	4. Al-Idrisi’s map shows the south towards the top of the map.

Question 5.
Read the text the “Use of maps in our times” and answer the following question:

As we saw above, maps were made and used for a variety of purposes: for trade, sailing, for conquests and colonising and for fighting wars. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning, development of countries. This requires planners to identify the problems faced by a region and its resources etc. This is done with the help of maps. For example, we can make a map of regions which have very little drinking -water. We can compare this map with maps showing water resources – rainfall, groundwater and rivers. Based on this comparison we can decide what is the best way to make drinking water available to all the people of the region – by sinking tube wells, or building dams across streams or making tanks (cheruvus) or bringing water from distant places in large pipes. Similarly, we can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, building roads, hospitals and schools with the help of maps.

What are the various purposes for which maps are used in our times?
Answer:

1. In our own times maps are used extensively for planning and development of countries.
2. We can plan agricultural development, setting up new industries, buildings, roads,
   hospitals and schools with the help of maps.
3. Maps are also used by companies to plan their business work.

Question 6.
Prepare a few questions to know about different types of maps.
Answer:

1. How many kinds of maps are there?
2. What are different kinds of maps?
3. What are thematic maps?
4. What are political maps?
5. What do the physical maps show?
6. Which kind of maps show information about the climate of an area?
7. What are road maps?

8th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways do you think the sailors influenced the making of maps in early times?
(Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The sailors travelled widely and wrote down descriptions of the land and people and their histories they saw or heard about. They prepared maps based on these travels and descriptions. Though these maps have not survived, historians have tried to recreate them with the help of their descriptions.

Question 2.
Do you think this free access to maps is a good thing? Why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
No, I do not think so. Any government has to maintain secrecy in access to maps. Otherwise it helps the enemies. But at present satellite images reveal every place on the earth.

Question 3.
If someone wants to choose an appropriate place to set up a hospital, what kind of maps would be useful to her? Make a list.
Answer:

1. Map showing hospitals
2. Map showing laboratories
3. Map showing scanning centres
4. Map showing ill-health
5. Map showing bus routes
6. Map showing train routes and
7. Map showing blood banks.

Question 4.
Can you suggest how maps can be used to plan setting up new schools and colleges? What different kinds of maps would have to be studied for this? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
One has to observe the following matters to establish educational institutions.

1. School going children or college going youth.
2. Up locations of their schools and colleges.
3. Their distances
4. Area/land for establishing the institution.
5. Their financial status for fees determination, etc.

For this one has to Study

1. Population map
2. Residential area map
3. Transport map
4. Water facilities map, etc.

Question 5.
Find out about the lives of some of the great explorers like David Livingstone, Stanley, Amundsan, etc. Find out who sponsored their expeditions and why? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
a) David Livingstone: 19-3-1813 to 1-5-1873 – Scotland – UK – Explored Africa. Sponsored by London Missionary Society.
To develop trade and spread of Christianity
b) Sir Henry Morton Stanley : 28-1-1841 to 10-5-1904 – Denbigh – Wales – UK. Sponsored by New York Herald – To find David Livingstone.
c) Roald Amundsan: 16-7-1872 to 18-6-1928 – Borge – Ostfold – Norway.
Sponsored by Belgian Antarctic expedition – To discover the South pole.
d) Alfonsa – De – Albuquerque: 1453 to 16-12-1515 – Portuguese Sponsored by King Manuel I of Portugal.
To establish Portuguese colonial empire in the Indian Ocean.

Question 6.
Why do you think the map makers place their own country in the middle of the map? (Textbook Page No. 6)
Answer:
The map makers in the olden days were mostly depended on the books written by sailors. They were really patriots. They thought that their country was centre of the world and most important in the world. So they placed their own country in the middle of the map.

Question 7.
Why do you think the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
The information from the maps and map makers enabled the colonial powers to establish their rule over their colonies and also exploit their resources. So the colonial powers invested so much money to prepare detailed maps.

Question 8.
Why do you think maps are useful to armies in times of war? (Textbook Page No. 8)
Answer:
Maps were also in great demand during times of war as armies and airforces needed them.
They use strategy maps to illustrate an organization’s vision, mission, overarching strategies and key goals and initiatives.

Question 9.
Can you guess why? Can you locate India and Srilanka (which was shown much bigger that it is)? (Textbook Page No. 4)
Answer:
Peninsular India is-pushed into the northern India in Al Idrisi’s map. The coast has become more east-west aligned. The Deccan is surrounded on two sides of coasts running North- South ending in sharp point, Cape Comorin.
Sri Lanka is shown much bigger than it is. So it is not easy to locate India and Sri Lanka in Al Idrisi’s map. But I will try.
Note: To read this map we should turn it upside down.

Question 10.
Can you identify India, Arabia and Africa in map (Map of Da Ming Hun Yi Tu of China)? (Textbook Page No. 5)
Answer:
In this map India, Arabia and Africa were mapped from an Indian Ocean perspective. They are mis-shaped. They are on the bottom of left side of the map.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 6th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 10 Basic Electric Circuits

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Important Questions 10th Lesson Organisms and Habitat

6th Class Science 10th Lesson Organisms and Habitat 2 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does a cell contain?
Answer:
A cell contains some chemical substances which can produce electricity with two terminals.

Question 2.
Many times in our houses we observe that though electricity is available some bulbs glow and some don’t glow. What could be the reason for that?
Answer:
The filament might have been fused off.

Question 3.
What is current?
Answer:
The flow of electricity in a circuit is called current.

Question 4.
Do not connect the two terminals of a cell with a single wire. Give reason.
Answer:

1. We should never connect the two terminals of a cell with a single wire.
2. If we do so, the chemicals in the cell get used up very fast and the cell stops working.

Question 5.
What is filament?
Answer:
The part of the bulb that glows is the filament, which is a thin spring-like wire attached to the two metal wires inside the glass bulb.

Question 6.
What is the switch?
Answer:
The switch is a device used to close or open an electric circuit.

Question 7.
What is the purpose of a switch?
Answer:
We use switches to put ON or put OFF the torchlight.

Question 8.
Is our body insulator or conductor?
Answer:
Our body is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 9.
Why is the handle of the electrician’s screwdriver made of plastic?
Answer:

1. Plastic is a bad conductor and does not allow current to pass through it.
2. So, the electrician has a plastic handle to protect him from any shock.

Question 10.
What is the difference between our present bulbs and the Edison bulb?
Answer:

1. Today we use the same kind of bulbs as were first made by Edison.
2. The only difference is that our bulbs have a filament made of a metal called Tungsten.

6th Class Science 10th Lesson Organisms and Habitat 4 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the use of a switch in a circuit?
Answer:

1. The switch allows the flow of electricity when it is ON and cuts off the flow of electricity when it is OFF.
2. In this way, the switch is used to allow / stop the flow of electricity to the bulb or any other electrical device.
   Label the parts in the following figure.

Question 2.
Label the parts in the following figure.

Answer:
1. Glass chamber
2. Filament
3. Metal cap
4. Terminals

Question 3.
Match the following by seeing the figure.


Answer:
a – q,
b – r,
c – s,
d – p

Question 4.
Observe the following figure.

Does the bulb glow or not? Why?
Answer:

1. Yes, the bulb will glow.
2. Since the connections are
   perfectly done in the closed circuit.

Question 5.
Observe the following figure.

Does the bulb glow or not in the arrangement which shown in figure? Why?
Answer:

1. No, the bulb will not glow.
2. Here in this arrangement the circuit is not completed.
3. The handle of the screw is an insulator.

Question 6.
Would the bulb glow in the circuit shown in figure? Why?
Answer:

1. No, the bulb will not glow.
   
2. This is because an electric bulb glow up only when circuit is completed and eraser is a non – conducting material.

Question 7.
Give reasons for the following:
a) Electric wires are made of copper.
b) We should not operate electric switches with wet hands.
Answer:
a) Copper is a good conductor of electricity.
b) Water is a good conductor of electricity and we might get an electric shock.

Question 8.
What was the story of the bulb ? Who ultimately succeeded in making the first bulb?
Answer:

1. The story of invention of bulb is very interesting.
2. We may think that a bulb is a very sinjple gadget, just press a switch and it lights up.
3. But many scientists worked hard for many years before the first successful bulb was made.
4. One of them was Thomas Alva Edison who ultimately succeeded in making the first bulb.

Question 9.
What was the nature of Thomas Alva Edison?
Answer:

1. From childhood, Edison was of an inquisitive nature and he learned science by performing experiments himself.
   
2. We will be amazed to know that in his life time he invented more them one thousand inventions.
3. Even an intelligent scientist like Edison had to work hard for many years before he could make a bulb that worked.

Question 10.
Why do bulbs and cells have two terminals?
Answer:

1. Current needs a closed path in order to flow.
2. To form a closed path there should be two terminal – one for inlet and another for an outlet.
3. So in order to complete the circuit bulbs and cells have two terminals.

Question 11.
How does a bulb glow with the help of a cell?
Answer:

1. Cell is the source of energy that produces electricity from the chemical stored inside it.
2. When the terminals of the bulb are connected with that of the electric cell by wires, the current passes through the filament of the bulb.
3. As a result the filament gats heated up and emits the light.
4. This makes the bulb glow.

6th Class Science 10th Lesson Organisms and Habitat 8 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the construction of a torch-bulb.
Answer:

1. A torch bulb consists of a glass chamber fixed on a metal base.
2. Two metal wires are firmly fixed.
   
3. One wire is attached to the metal cap and the other is attached to the base at the center of the metal cap.
4. These wires act as two terminals. The two terminals do not touch each other.
5. The part of the bulb that glows is the filament, which is a thin spring-like wire attached to the two metal wires inside the glass bulb.

Question 2.
How do you test when the electric bulb glows with a cell? Describe the activity you do with simple electric circuits.
Answer:
Aim: To test when do the electric bulb glows with a cell.
What do you need? (Materials required): Four wires of different colors each about 15 cm long, a bulb, a cell, a cello-tape or cell-holder
How to do? (Procedure):

1. Take four wires of different colors, say blue, green, red and yellow, each about 15 cm long.
2. Electric wires are often covered with plastic. First, remove about two centimeters of the plastic covering, from both ends of each wire.
3. Now attach two wires (Blue and Green) to a bulb and two Wires (Red and Yellow) to a cell with a cello-tape or cell-holder as shown in Fig.
4. We can use a cell holder to hold the cells and wires together tightly.
5. Now connect the wires in different forms as shown in Fig. 4(b) to 4(g).
   
6. In each case, check whether the bulb glows or not.
7. Record your observations in the table.
   

   Connection	Does the bulb glow (Yes / No)
   Fig (b)	No
   Fig (c)	No
   Fig (d)	Yes
   Fig (e)	Yes
   Fig (0	No
   Fig (g)	No

What do you see? (Observation): You may observe that the bulb glows in connections shown in Fig. 4(d) and Fig. 4(e), but not in other cases.
What do you learn? Result: We noticed that in Fig. (d) and Fig. 4(e) the connections form a closed path while in the remaining cases we find some gap in the path.

Question 3.
Write an activity showing the working of a switch in a circuit.
Answer:
Aim: To show the working of switch in a circuit.
What do you need? (Materials required: a cell (power source, a bulb, connecting wires, wooden plank or thermocol sheet, two drawing pins, and the materials provided to test.
How to do it? (Procedure):

1. Connect à èirÙit on a wooden plank or on a thermocol sheet as shown in Fig.
2. Insert two drawing pins at A and B.
   
3. Insert a safety pin in between A and B, such that one end of the pin is completely in contact wLth Rand the other end is left free.
4. Now observe the bulb.
5. Now touch the safety pin to pin A and observe the bulb again

What do you see? (Observation): The bulb doesn’t glow when the safety pin left free at one end. But it glows when the safety pin touches pin A.
What do you learn? (Result): In this activity, the safety pin is used to close /open the circuit. Similarly, An electric switch is an arrangement to close or open (break) a circuit. The switch allows the flow of electricity when it is on and cuts off the flow of electricity when it is off. In this way, the switch is used to allow/stop the flow of electricity to the bulb or any other electrical device.

Question 4.
Describe the trials of Edison to make a bulb.
Answer:

1. First of all, Edison passed electricity through a thin, thread-like platinum wire.
2. He noticed that the wire did give out the light after being heated, but it burned out after only a few seconds.
3. He made a glass casing and fitted a filament of platinum wire in it.
   
4. He then removed all the air from within the glass casing.
5. He passed an electric current through the wire and, to his delight, the bulb lit up and did not burn out for eight long minutes.
6. He began experimenting with different materials while searching for a better choice of filament.
7. He tried cotton thread coated with soot. This filament burned continuously for 45 hours.
8. He tried different kinds of thread.
9. Finally, he succeeded in making a cotton filament that was even better than the bamboo one.

Question 5.
Label the parts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 in Torchlight.

Answer:

1. Hollow cylindrical barrel
2. Metal spring
3. Cells
4. Switch
5. Copper wire
6. Reflector
7. Glass
8. Bulb

Question 6.
Observe the given diagram.

Now answer the following questions.

1. In a bulb which part gives us light?
2. What is the use of a switch in a circuit?
3. What is the filament made of?
4. What does a torch consist of?
5. What is a source of electrical energy in a torchlight?
6. Which of the following acts as the negative terminal of a torchlight?

Answer:

1. Filament.
2. The switch helps us to allow or break the flow of current in a circuit.
3. Tungsten.
4. Torchlight consists of a cell, bulb, and switch.
5. Cell.
6. Zinc plate or Zinc container.

 

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class English Textbook Solutions Chapter 5A A Trip to Andaman Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class English Solutions Chapter 5A A Trip to Andaman

7th Class English Chapter 5A A Trip to Andaman Textbook Questions and Answers

Look at the picture and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you see in the picture?
Answer:
We see several people enjoying themselves at the beach.

Question 2.
Have you ever been to a sea beach ? If yes, which beach did you go to?
Answer:
Yes, I have. It is Marina beach in Chennai.

Question 3.
What do you guess this lesson is going to talk about?
Answer:
I guess, it is going to talk about some islands.

Question 4.
What does the word Andaman bring to your mind ? Share your thoughts with your classmates.
Answer:
It brings to my mind curiosity of knowing about Andaman. Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie between India’s coast and Myanmar. They belong to India.

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Based on your reading of the passage, list the tourist attractions of Andaman Island. Which one of them has fascinated you the most? Why?
Answer:
List of some tourist attractions of Andaman Island:

1. The Cellular Jail built by the British at Port Blair.
2. The Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park.
3. The Havelock Island
4. The majestic lighthouse at Havelock Island.
5. Elephant beach.
6. Scuba diving at Elephant beach.
7. Radhanagar beach.

The most fascinating is the Elephant beach where swimmers take up Scuba diving into the sea.

Question 2.
Would you like to go to Andaman during holidays ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I would like to go to Andaman during holidays because after going through the passage on ’A Trip to Andaman’ and being fascinated by the places visited by the writer, 1 feel like visiting the tourist attractions of Andaman Island.

Question 3.
Which means of transport is, in your opinion, more enjoyable for visiting a place like Andaman? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Mostly by ship and sometimes by ferry. Because in a big ship, we will be safe and happy and can get what we want. Besides, we can watch dolphins moving along the ship. We can also see coral reefs, beautiful fishes of different colours and sea turtles through glass-bottomed boats.

Question 4.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been called a miniature India. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
I agree with this view. It’s because each of the islands is very small. Only 37 islands of the total 600 islands are inhabited. Like in India, these islands have people of different languages, cultures and faiths. Yet they live happily together. They are the very small copies of India. So they are called miniature India.

Question 5.
Who does T refer to in the passage?
Answer:
T refers to the writer.

Question 6.
The writer saw many interesting things on the ship. But which one surprised him the most? Why?
Answer:
The writer saw many interesting things on the ship. But, the most interesting thing that surprised him was that some people were sitting in a saloon getting their hair cut. It was interesting because he felt it strange to observe such thing on the ship.

Question 7.
How did the tourists enjoy on the beach?
Answer:
Some foreign tourists on the beach were basking in the sun and enjoying themselves. The tourists enjoyed swimming in the sea and riding on elephants. At the Elephant beach, some swimmers have undertaken ‘Scuba diving’.

Question 8.
Who guided the family on the Islands?
Answer:
No special guide was hired. Since the writer’s father had a little knowledge of the islands he managed to guide his family during their tour to the islands.

Question 9.
Why do you think the Scuba divers need air cylinders?
Answer:
The Scuba divers need air cylinders because they go to the bottom of the sea to watch the coral reefs, beautiful fishes and sea turtles. Besides, they stay for a long time beneath the sea and swim along with them.

Question 10.
Have you ever visited any tourist place? Share your experience.
Answer:
Yes, I have. I have visited Nagarjuna sagar and Ethipothala (waterfall). Nagarjuna sagar dam is very huge and it’s really thrilling to watch the water-fall when the dam was full and the gates are opened to release the water. Visiting Nagarjuna Konda by boat is also amusing. Later I have visited Ethipothala where water falls down from a very high-level place. It has filled my heart with joy and happiness.

II. Tick the correct answer.

1. How did the author feel, when the windows and doors of their cabin were closed?
A) The author felt the ship sinking. ( )
B) The author felt uncomfortable. ( )
C) The author did not feel the movement of the ship. ( )
D) The author felt the fast movement of the ship. ( )

2. The most favourable time to visit Andaman is the
A) winter. ( )
B) spring. ( )
C) summer. ( )
D) monsoon. ( )

3. Why did the family go to Andaman?
A) to learn about the aboriginals ( )
B) to watch how foreigners enjoy themselves ( )
C) to explore a tourist spot ( )
D) to view only the sea beaches ( )

Answer:
1. C ( ✓ )
2. C ( ✓ )
3. C ( ✓ )

Vocabulary

I. Find the antonyms of the following words from the text and write them in your notebooks. Also, write one sentence each for the word and its antonym.

1. impossible × possible
2. suddenly × gradually
3. ugly × beautiful
4. bright × dim
5. tasteless × tasty
6. dim × bright
7. above × below
8. hostile × friendly
9. cloudy × clear
10. notorious × famous

Writing own sentences using the above antonyms:

1. You think it is possible to change his mind. But I feel it impossible as he is like a rock.
2. Changes come suddenly by revolution but gradually by evolution.
3. This painting is ugly but that is beautiful.
4. This light is too dim to read by.
It’s a bright morning.
5. I have already tasted it. It is not tasty but tasteless. So, please don’t taste it.
6. This light is too dim to read by.
Marriage hall is decorated with full of bright and colourful lights.
7. There’s a mirror above the washbasin. The author’s name was printed below the title,
8. She was openly hostile towards her parents. I don’t know why she was not friendly towards them.
9. The sky is cloudy. It is not clear.
10. The bar has become notorious as a meeting place for drug dealers.
One day I’ll be rich and famous.

II. Read the following sentences and notice how the word ‘wave’ has been used differently:

1. My sister Amala and I too waved our hands while Mom and Dad smiled at us.
2. Silky sands, foaming waves and cool breeze of the sea attracted us very much.
In Sentence I ‘wave’ is used as a verb in the past tense and in Sentence 2, it is used as a noun in its plural form. As a verb, it means ‘to move hand or arm from side to side’ and as a noun, it refers to ‘raised lines of water that move across the surface of the sea or ocean.’

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate forms of the words given in the brackets.
They can be used both as nouns and verbs.
1. Our volleyball team of our school ——– four matches. The fourth day ——– was excellent. (play)
2. Latha is ——– a lot of problems. I am sorry to see tears on her lovely ——–. {face)
3. My grand-daughter said, “Grandpa, you look very sweet when I see a on your face.” On hearing this Grandpa ——– at once.(smile)
4. Suresh ——– that he would pass the examination. But his disappeared when he saw the question paper. (hope)
5. When I answered a question correctly, the English teacher ——– me on my back arid said, “Well done, smarty.” Her ——– made me feel happy and proud. (pat)
Answer:
1. played (v), play (n)
2. facing (v), face (n)
3. smile (n), smiled (v)
4. hoped (v), hope (n)
5. patted (v), pat (n)

III. Read the following sentences from the passage.

1. The ship set out after sounding a loud horn.
2. People who came to see off their friends and relatives cheered them up by waving their hands.
The sets of words underlined are‘phrasal verbs’.

Pick out from a dictionary more phrasal verbs beginning with the word ‘set’, find out their meanings, and use them in sentences of your own.
Answer:
Phrasal verbs with the word ‘Set’:
1. set about (something) = start doing something
Ex: She set about the business of cleaning the house.
2. set (somebody) against = make somebody oppose a friend or relative or someone else
Ex: She accused her husband of setting the children against her.
3. set out = start
Ex: Tomorrow he will set out for Mumbai.
4. set (somebody/something) apart from (somebody / something) = make (somebody/ something) different.
Ex: Her elegant style sets her apart from other journalists.

Grammar

Simple Past Tense

Read the following lines taken from the lesson:
Soon after the examinations were over, Mom made preparations for the trip. On the 25th of April, we took the Pinakini Express from Vijayawada and reached Chennai at 1 p.m.

The underlined words are verbs in the simple past tense and refer to actions that took place in the past. The Simple Past Tense is used here to talk of completed actions in the past.

Given below is the action plan prepared by the Headmaster of Mahatma Gandhi Zilla Parishad High School, Dosakayalapalli for a tour to Nagarjuna Sagar Project. They finished the tour on 15-10-2011. Describe the tour in the past tense by making appropriate changes in the verbs given in the action plan.

6.00 a.m.                       board the bus at the school
8.30 a.m.                       stop at Eluru for breakfast
12.00 noon                   reach the spot
1.00 p.m.                       take lunch
1.30 to 3.30 p.m.           visit the Nagarjuna Sagar project
3.30 to 4.30 p.m.           visit the museum
4.40 p.m.                       visit Ettipothala falls
5.00 p.m.                       board the bus
8.30 p.m.                       take supper at Eluru
10.30 p.m.                     reach the school

You can start like this:
On 15-10-2011, the students of MGZPH school, Dosakayalapalli started their tour to Nagarjuna Sagar Project. They boarded the bus at the school at 6.00 a.m…

II. Past Continuous Tense

Read the following lines taken from the lesson:
Some foreign tourists on the beaches were basking in the sun and enjoying themselves. The underlined verbs ‘were basking’ and ‘(were) enjoying’ are in the Past Continuous Tense. The Past Continuous Tense is used to talk about or describe an action which someone was doing or an event which was happening at a particular time in the past.

I. Fill in the blanks with appropriate forms of the verbs given in the brackets.

1. They ________ with each other when the police______. ( fight, arrive)
2. When Rajesh _______, he _______down and______ his leg. ( run, fall, injure)
3. While he ______ it_______ to rain. ( play, begin)
4. The children_________a film when the lights ________ off. (watch, go off)
5. My mother was _______ when the guests __________. (still cook, arrive)
6. The teacher _________ when the principal ________ the room. ( teach, enter)
7. Father was _________ the T.V. when the telephone bell ______. (watch, ring)
8. We ________ready for our journey when the power _____________ off. (get, go)
Answer:
1. were fighting; arrived
2. was running, fell, injured
3. was playing; began
4. were watching; went
5. still cooking; arrived
6. was teaching; entered
7. watching; rang
8. were getting; went

Work in pairs

II. Narrate what your family members were doing yesterday when you reached home after school.
Answer:
When I reached home after school yesterday, mother was preparing snacks for us, father was talking to his colleague over phone, sister was practising music lessons and brother was getting ready to go to the playground. Grandparents were chatting with some villagers in the front yard.

Writing

I. Arrange the following sentences in proper sequence using appropriate connectors and replacing ‘we’ with ‘they’. You can add some more information you may have liked in the passage.

1. We visited a beach called Elephant beach.
2. We reached Port Blair.
3. We travelled by a ferry from Port Blair to a place called Havelock island.
4. In the evening we boarded’a ship for Port Blair.
5. We visited Radha nagar beach.
6. After a while, we reached an exciting place, the Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park.
7. We had been longing to make a trip to Andaman.
8. We visited a famous national monument, the Cellular jail.
Answer:
The writer and the members of his family had been longing for long to make a trip to Andaman. At last, they visited the place last summer. They travelled from. Vijayawada to Chennai by train, and in the evening they boarded a ship for Port Blair. From there, they sailed in the ship ‘ for five days and reached Port Blair. At Port Blair, they visited a famous national monument, the Cellular Jail (now converted into a hospital). After a while they reached an exciting place, the Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park. Then they travelled by a ferry from Port Blair to a place called Havelock Island. On the ferry they enjoyed snacks like panipuri, samosa. There they visited a beach called Elephant beach. They were also thrilled to watch Scuba diving. Finally, they visited Radha nagar beach. There they had jolly elephant rides and relished delicious sea food. It was a memorable trip for them.

II. Describing a place

You have read about a famous tourist place, Andaman. After reading the description don’t you feel that you have actually visited the place? This is because the author has given a vivid picture of the place through the description of the place and the activities. When you want to describe a place you need to find answers for the following questions:

1. Where is the place located? What is it famous for?
2. How can one reach there? How is the weather during the time of the visit? What is the best time to visit? What things are to be carried? What sort of accommodations available?
3. What places and things can be seen on the way to the place?
4. What are the major tourist attractions?

One of your friends wishes to visit the place you have visited recently. Write a letter to your friend describing the details mentioned above to help him make his/ her trip successful.
Answer:

5-23-13/B,
6/18 Brodipet, GUNTUR.
6th June, 20xx.

My dear Guruvardhan,

I am fine and pink in health. I hope the same with you there.

I would like to describe the place, Hyderabad which I have visited recently. Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana. It is a big cosmopolitan city. People of different languages, cultures and traditions live harmoniously together. There are many places worth-seeing in Hyderabad. Some of them are – 1) the Charminar 2) the Salaijung Museum 3) the Legislative Assembly 4) the Birla Mandir 5) Nehru Zoological Park 6) Planetarium 7) The Tank Bund 8) Rajiv International Airport 8) Ramoji Film City 9) Hussain Sagar and the Buddha Statue.

It is a lovely city. The climate is fine. The Hussain Sagar joins the twin cities namely Hyderabad and Secunderabad. You should visit it soon.

Please convey my regards to your parents.

Yours lovingly,
Hanuman.

Study Skills

This table shows the climate of Port Blair.

Write briefly in your own words the best and the most uncomfortable time to visit Port Blair. Give reasons.
Answer:
The best comfortable time to visit Port Blair, the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is the month of April. In April, the maximum temperature is 30°C and the minimum temperature is 26°C. It is neither hot nor cold there in that month. The precipitation is 69.

The most uncomfortable time is the month of September because it is somewhat cold then. The sun is not so bright then. Above all, the precipitation is rather high. It is 463. The maximum temperature is 27°C and the minimum temperature is 25°C We feel uncomfortable then.

Listening and Speaking

I. Your teacher will read the story ‘Gulliver in Lilliput’. Listen carefully and answer the following questions:

GULLIVER IN LILLIPUT

Gulliver was a doctor on a ship. He was an Englishman. There was a bad storm and the ship hit a rock and broke into two pieces. It was night time. However, Gulliver swam forward and at last reached an island called Lilliput. The people were called Lilliputians. Gulliver was too tired. He could not open his eyes. He soon went to sleep. Next morning when he woke up he could not move. He was held down by some ropes. His long hair was also pinned to the ground. Then something climbed on to his leg and came up to his chin. It was a little mar. about fifteen centimetres high. He carried a bow and an arrow in his hand.

Then forty more little people climbed onto Gulliver’s body. He was very surprised and gave a loud shout. Immediately all the little men ran away. But they came back soon.

At first the ropes were too strong for him to break. But somehow, after a long struggle Gulliver broke some of them. He could move one of his arms. When they saw this, the little people shouted and shot their little arrows into him. But the arrows did not hurt Gulliver very much. They were like little pins.

Gulliver lay still. He did not move. After some time the little people stopped shooting arrows at him. Gulliver asked for some food. Over a hundred people brought baskets full of meat and loaves of bread. Gulliver ate them and fell asleep.

The little men took Gulliver to their king. The king liked Gulliver very much. He told his officers to take Gulliver to the biggest building in the land. No house was big enough for Gulliver to live in, but he was able to creep inside the building and lie down. The beds were too small for Gulliver, so they took hundreds of beds and joined them together!

Gulliver lived among the little people for some time. He wanted to go home. Fortunately, one day Gulliver found a boat floating near the seashore. He sailed out to sea in that boat. Later a big ship found him and took him back to England.

1. Why did Gulliver go to Lilliput?
Answer:
There was a bad storm and the ship in which Gulliver was sailing hit a rock and broke into two pieces. It was night time. So, Gulliver swam forward and reached Lilliput.

2. Why did the little people shoot arrows at Gulliver?
Answer:
He appeared like a huge living structure. They feared he had come to harm them. So they shot arrows at him.

3. What do you think is the size of the Lilliputian’s house?
Answer:
The house was too small for Gulliver to live in.

4. How many Lilliputians can you carry in your bag?
Answer:
I can carry at least a hundred Lilliputians, in my bag.

5. Would you like to live among such strange people?
Answer:
No, I would not.

6. Pigmies are also very small people. Find out who is smaller ? A pygmy or a Lilliputian?
Answer:
A Liliputian.

7. Why did the King like Gulliver?
Answer:
Because Gulliver had not hurt any of his men.

II. Work in pairs.

Ask and answer the following questions:

1. If you were the King, how would you use Gulliver?
Answer:
I would use him as the protector of my kingdom.

2. If you lived in Lilliput, what problems would you face?
Answer:
I couldn’t walk in the streets well. I couldn’t live in a house. I couldn’t get enough food.

3. In stories, we often come across very small people like elves and dwarfs.
How are they different from Lilliputians?
Answer:
Lilliputians are much smaller than elves and dwarfs.

III. Here is a list of places of South India Tourism. Tell your group about the city you would like to visit and why. What is special about the city? What should visitors do there?

Answer:
Amaravathi is a historical place. It is the Mandal headquarters. It fs in Guntur district of the state Andhra Pradesh. It is on the bank of the river Krishna. From the other side of the river, you can reach Kanchikacharla in Krishna district. There is a direct and clear way from Guntur to Amaravathi (a distance of 34 kms) from Sattenapalli to Amaravathi (a distance of 34 kms) from Vijayawada (a distance of 47 kms) and from Mangalagiri (a distance of 34 kms). There is also a clear way from Krosuru and Atchampet to Amaravcithi. There is a great temple of Lord Siva. The Sivalingam here is very high. You can also see the huge statue of Lord Buddha. You can visit the Amaravathi Museum. Pilgrims round the state pay a visit to Amaravathi.

A Trip to Andaman Summary in English

The writer had been longing to make ci trip to Andaman. His father fulfilled his desire during the last summer holidays. After the examinations were over, the writer’s family took the Pinakini Express on the 25th of April from Vijayawada and reached Chennai Central by 1 p.m. Later they reached the port. In the evening, they boarded a ship for Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Sitting in the ship, the writer and his sister Amalai waved their hands to the people who cheered the travellers. The writer could not feel. the movement of the ship when the doors and the windows of the cabin were closed. When the ship was going, they saw dolphins swimming along the ship to know. Dolphins sprang and dived again and again. If was very amusing to the writer. Later, the writer went around the ship to know what other people were d oing in the ship. He saw some people eating and drinking in the restaurant. He was surprised to see some people in a saloon getting their hair cut. The medical staff was busy treating the patients suffering from sea-sickness. The sanitary workers were doing their work. The crew of the ship gladly answered all the queries of the writer about the ship.

After two days, they reached Port Blair. The writer learnt that there are about six hundred islands between India’s coast and Myanmar. Only 37 of them were inhabited. The inhabitants were the aboriginal tribes. Some of them lived far away from the civilized society. Despite this, the islands look today like a miniature India. There are people of different languages, cultures and faiths. Yet they all live happily together.

The writer’s family visited the Cellular jail, built by the British. But now it is not a jail. It is now used as a big hospital. Next, they visited the Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park. There one can find open creeks running through the park area. There they watched coral reefs, fishes of different colours and sea turtles through glass-bottomed boats.

Later they travelled by a ferry from Port Blair to Havelock island where they saw a majestic lighthouse. They saw tourists enjoying swimming in the sea and riding on elephants. They took lots of pictures of the beautiful scenery.

Next, they visited Elephant beach. They watched Scuba’diving in which the swimmers dive into the sea from the motor boats and I stay for a long time beneath the sea. They swim along with beautiful fishes and sea turtles. Scuba diving filled the writer’s heart with a spirit of adventure.

Lastly, they visited Radhanagar beach. There the writer and his sister Amala enjoyed a jolly ride on the elephant. There they tasted Tandoori fish and other sea foods. The writer felt he could never forget his trip to Andaman.

A Trip to Andaman Glossary

1. longing (n): strong feeling or desire

2. vanish (v): disappear

3. treating (v): curing an illness or injury

4. inhabited (v): lived

5. aboriginal (adj): original people belonging to a place .

6. creek (n): a narrow area of water where the sea flows into the land.

7. ferry (n): a boat or a ship that carries people, goods, vehicles across a river.

8. coral reefs (n): a hard substance that is red, pink or white in colour and that forms on the bottom of the sea.

9. miniature (n): very small copy/model of something or very small detailed painting.

10. cherish (v): love sb/sth very much and want to. protect them or it

11. majestic (adj): impressive because of size or beauty

12. basking (v): enjoying sitting/lying in the heat/light of the sun

13. breeze (n): a light wind

14. amazement: great surprise or wonder

15. monument (n): a building built to remind people of a famous person or event

16. spectacle (n): a performance/an event that is impressive to look at

17. bade (v): (V₂ form of bid) said farewell/good-bye

18. boarded (v): got on a ship/train/plane/bus

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 8 Heredity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 8th Lesson Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How did you get the characters from your parents and grandparents?
Answer:
By Genes

Question 2.
Why man is called a moving museum of vestigial organs?
Answer:

1. The organs which are not useful in animals are called ‘vestigial organs’. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings,
2. Hence, human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 3.
Observe the given Flow-chart and answer the question.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father? How?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.
Mother has XX chromosomes. Father has ‘XY’ chromosomes. Y chromosome is determining factor. So father is responsible.

Question 4.
What examples you will give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:
August Weismann, tested the theory proposed by Lamarck by experiments on rats. He removed tails of parental rats. He observed for twenty two generations but still off springs are normal with tails.

Question 5.
Which chromosomes determine the sex in human beings?
Answer:
Allosomes or Sex chromosomes. They are xx (girls) and xy (boys).

Question 6.
Why do we call appendix as a vestigial organ?
Answer:

1. Vestigial organ is the organ of our body which is smaller and simpler than those in related species they have lost their original function.
2. Appendix is highly developed in ruminants which helps in the digestion of cellulose. But, in human beings the cellulose is eliminated as undigested food. Hence in human beings appendix has no role in cellulose digestion. So, we call it as a vestigial organ.

Question 7.
What are variations?
Answer:
Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.

Question 8.
Who is known as father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as father of genetics.

Question 9.
Why Mendel has chosen garden pea plant as material for his experiments?
Answer:
Pea plant has following advantages.

1. Well defined characters
2. Bisexual flowers
3. Predominently self fertilization
4. Early hybridization
5. Annual plant.

Question 10.
What are the vitamins present in pea plant?
Answer:
The vitamins present in pea plant are ‘A, C, E, K and B’.

Question 11.
What is F₃ generation?
Answer:
F₃ generation represents the offsprings produced from the individuals of F₂ generation.

Question 12.
What is a factor?
Answer:
The determining agent responsible for each trait is called a factor.

Question 13.
WTiat is law of dominance?
Answer:
According to Mendel, among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is known as law of dominance.

Question 14.
What is phenotype ratio?
Answer:
The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype and their ratio is called phenotype ratio.

Question 15.
What is the phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

Question 16.
What is genotype ratio?
Answer:
The genetic makeup of an individual with reference to a specific character under consideration is called genotype and their ratio is called genotype ratio.

Question 17.
What is the genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 18.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the factors which are responsible for characters or traits of an organism. These are the units of heredity that are transferred from a parent to offspring. These are small segments of DNA on a chromosome.

Question 19.
What is an allele?
Answer:
The pair of genes which are responsible for character is called allele.

Question 20.
What are homozygous alleles?
Answer:
If an organism has two copies of the same allele for example TT or tt it is homozygous for that trait.

Question 21.
What are heterozygous allele?
Answer:
If an organism has one copy of two different alleles for example Tt, then it is heterozygous.

Question 22.
What is law of independent assortment?
Answer:
In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorted independently of the other pair. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 23.
Wliat is the law of segregation?
Answer:
The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.

Question 24.
What are heritable traits?
Answer:
Traits that may be passed on from one generation to the next are called as heritable traits.

Question 25.
What is heredity?
Answer:
The process of acquiring characters or traits from parents is called heredity.

Question 26.
What is inheritance?
Answer:
The process in which traits are passed from one generation to another generation is called inheritance.

Question 27.
What is genetic drift?
Answer:
Change in the frequency of genes in small populations is called genetic drift.

Question 28.
Who was the first person to propose the theory of evolution?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.

Question 29.
What are acquired characters?
Answer:
The characters developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 30.
What is inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Lamarck proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offsprings i.e., to next generation. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 31.
Who wrote the book “principles of geology” of evolution?
Answer:
The book “principles of geology” of evolution was written by Charles Lyell.

Question 32.
What is micro evolution?
Answer:
Small changes within the species is known as micro evolution.

Question 33.
What is macro evolution or speciation?
Answer:
The process of evolution through which new species are going to be formed is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 34.
The double helix structure of DNA was discovered by?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA.

Question 35.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Chromosomes whose number and morophology do not differ between males and females of a species are called autosomes.

Question 36.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
The chromosomes that determine sex of the organism are called allosomes.

Question 37.
What is meant by survival of the fittest?
Answer:
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature. This is the meaning of survival of the fittest.

Question 38.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
The expanded form of DNA is Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid.

Question 39.
What is the basis of evolution?
Answer:
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolution.

Question 40.
What are analogous organs?
Answer:
The organs which have similar appearance and functions but have different structure and origin. Ex : Wings of a butterfly, bat and a bird.

Question 41.
What is embryology?
Answer:
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult stage.

Question 42.
What is Palaeontology?
Answer:
The study of fossil is called Palaeontology.

Question 43.
How palaeontologists determine the age of fossil?
Answer:
Palaeontologists determine the age of fossil by using carbon dating method.

Question 44.
Where do scientists collected fossil of dinosaurs?
Answer:
Scientists collected fossils of dinosaurs from Yamanapalli in Adilabad district in Telangana State.

Question 45.
What are connecting links?
A. The organisms which bear the characters of two different groups are called connecting links.

Question 46.
Which organism is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles?
Answer:
Archeopteryx is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles.

Question 47.
What is human evolution?
Answer:
Human evolution is the evolutionary process leading upto the appearance of modern human beings.

Question 48.
How do variations occur?
Answer:
Variations develop during reproduction in organisms. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying lead to variations in offspring in a population.

Question 49.
What is divergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which homologous organs develop is called divergent evolution.

Question 50.
What is convergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which analogous organs develop is called convergent evolution.

Question 51.
What are vestigial organs?
Answer:
Organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.

Question 52.
Who proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 53.
Who proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings?
Answer:
Augustus Weisemann proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings.

Question 54.
How the study of fossil is considered significant?
Answer:
The study of fossil is considered significant because

1. Fossils provide direct evidence of past life and
2. Fossils provide convincing proof of organic evolution.

Question 55.
What are the nitrogen bases present in DNA?
Answer:
The nitrogen bases present in DNA are adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine.

Question 56.
How do embryological studies provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
The similarities in embryonic development reinforce the idea of evolution from common ancestors. The sequence of embryonic development in different vertebrates shows similarities.

Question 57.
Why Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments? Give a reason.
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments as these can be self pollinated.

Question 58.
What is the evolutionary significance of the fossil archaeopteryx?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx serves as a connecting link between birds and reptiles. It is the fossil evidence to show that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 59.
How does the creation of variation in a species ensure survival?
Answer:
The creation of variations in a species enable them to adapt according to the changes and the new needs thus they will enable the survival of the species.

Question 60.
Define evolution.
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio of table given at side.
(OR)
Write the Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio when heterogygous (Yy) pea plant is hybridised with the same kind of plant.
(OR)
Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of Mendel’s cross-pollination experiments in pea plants with heterozygous yellow seeds (Yy) with that of the same type, i.e., Yy.
Answer:
Phenotypic ratio -3:1
Genotypic ratio -1:2:1

Question 2.
Define and explain Variations with examples.
Answer:
Variations: Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
(OR)
Differences among living beings are called variations.
Ex:

1. Earlobes in some humans are free and in others attached.
2. Colour of eyes (cornea) in some people are blue and in others black.
3. Colour of skin is black or white.

Question 3.
“Human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs”. How can you support this statement?
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution, some organs remain in organisms. For example, appendix in the digestive system.
2. In human beings it has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix play important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.
5. There are nearly 18 vestigial organs in human beings.
6. For example pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in man, etc.
7. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 4.
Fill the given table and write the genotypic ratio basing on table.

Answer:

The genotypic ratio is 1: 2: 1

Question 5.
Who decides the sex of the baby, mother or father? Explain with a flow chart.
(OR)
Draw a flow-chart showing the sex determination in human beings.
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 6.
Define the terms phenotype and genotype.
Answer:
Phenotype: The observable properties of an organism that are produced by the interaction of the genotype and the environment. These characters can be seen.
Genotype: The genotype is the genetic make-up an individual usually with reference to a specific characteristic consideration.

Question 7.
What questions you will ask a palaeontologist about fossils?
Answer:

1. What are fossils?
2. How do they preserve?
3. What can be the actual remains?
4. How do they form?
5. What do we call the study of fossil?
6. Can you tell some examples of fossils?
7. How do the palaeontologists determine the age of fossils?
8. What are dinosaurs and ketosaurs? In which years they belong?
9. Where did they collect the fossil of dinosaurs? What is the length of this fossil?
10. Where did they preserve the fossil of dinosaurs?

Question 8.
How does the embryological evidences support that Evolution has taken place?
Answer:
Evidences:

1. Remarkable similarities in the Embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. Tadpole of frog resembles the fish more than the frog.
3. Life history of every individual exhibits the structural features of their ancestors.
4. The resemblance is so close at an early stage, it is difficulty to distinguish one embryo from other.

Question 9.
Observe the checker board and answer the following questions.
i) Write phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross.
ii) How many heterozygous plants are present in the checker board?
Answer:
i) Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
ii) Two heterozygous plants – (Yy, yY)

Question 10.
What happens if there is no evolution?
Answer:

1. Evolution is a continuous and comprehensive process.
2. If it does not take place, there is no formation of new species.
3. Variations do not take place and hence desirable traits are not developed.
4. All the Earth would be with the primitive species without any changes.

Question 11.
If you cross a plant with pure yellow seeds (YY) with a plant with pure green seeds (yy), what would be the colour of the seeds in F₂ generation? Show in a checker board.
Answer:
All pea plants are yellow in F₁ generation on self pollination in F₁ generation.
In F₂ generation, we can observe that 75% are yellow seed producing pea plants and 25% are green ones.
Hence the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1

Question 12.
If you meet a historian to clarify your doubt on ‘Man has first born in African conti¬nent’, what type of questions will you ask him / her?
Answer:

1. What is human evolution?
2. When were early man like forms appeared on land?
3. When did the fossil of the homosapiens appeared on earth?
4. Where did the early man lived?
5. Where can we trace the earliest members of the human race homosapiens?
6. When do some of our ancestors left Africa?
7. How the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
8. Why did the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
9. Are all humans evolved from single ancestor?

Question 13.
What is the difference between Phenotype and Genotype?
Answer:

Phenotype	Genotype
1. The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype.	1. The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype.
2. We can’t determine the internal factors by phenotype.	2. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors.
3. It tells about only the dominating characters which express externally.	3. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within.
4. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.	4. The genotype ratio in mono-hybrid cross is 1 :2 : 1.

Question 14.
What are the differences between homozygous and heterozygous ?
Answer:

Homozygous	Heterozygous
1. It refers to having two identical alleles for a single trait.	1. It refers to having two different alleles for a single trait.
2. For example, for long pea plant homozygous combination is ‘TT’	2. For example, for long pea plant heterozygous combination is ‘Tt’
3. On self pollination homozygous plants produce homozygous plants only.	3. On self pollination heterozygous plants produce homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive plants in 1: 2 :1 ratio respectively.

Question 15.
How do traits get expressed according to Mendel?
Answer:

1. Mendel hypothesised that each character or trait is expressed due to a pair of factors or alleles.
2. Now these alleles are known as genes.
3. Gene is made up of a segment of DNA which provide information of protein.
4. Protein is needed for biochemical process.
5. If the proteins work efficiently, the traits get expressed in better way.
6. Thus genes control the traits or characters.

Question 16.
What is speciation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Origin of new species from existing one is called speciation.
2. It may occur due to a) mutations and b) natural selection.

Question 17.
What is sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the chromosomes present in male and female?
Answer:

1. The chromosome which determine the sex of a person is called sex chromosome.
2. The two types of sex chromosomes are X chromosome and Y chromosome.
3. Sex chromosomes in male is XY.
4. Sex chromosomes in female is XX.

Question 18.
Write a short notes on the law of “inheritance of acquired characters”.
Answer:

1. Law of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by Jean Baptist Lamarck.
2. He thought that the characters acquired by an organism in its life time are passed to its offsprings.
3. He thought that at same point of time in the history, the size of giraffe was equal to that of deer.
4. Due to shortage of food material on the ground and lower branches of trees giraffes started stretching their necks.
5. Because of continuous usage of neck, after several generations giraffes obtained longer necks.
6. Such characters that are developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 19.
Write a short notes on the theory of “Natural selection”.
Answer:

1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.
2. This theory states that nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
3. The organisms with useful traits will survive.
4. The organisms having harmful traits are going to be perished or eliminated from its environment.

Question 20.
Write briefly about “Survival of the fittest”.
Answer:

1. Variations which are useful are retained, while those which are harmful are removed.
2. In a population where there is a struggle, the “fittest” will be survived.
3. Nature favours only useful variations.
4. Each species tends to produce large number of offspring.
5. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
6. In this struggle for existence, only the fittest can survive. This is called survival of the fittest.
7. Over long period of time this leads to formation of new species.

Question 21.
How are new species evolved?
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying leads to variations in offspring in a population.
2. Organisms contain variations that help to adapt to its environment going to be survived more efficiently.
3. But in the same population, the organisms which contain the trait which may not help to adapt in its environment may be perished or eliminated slowly.
4. These small changes within the population due to variations is called micro evolution.
5. When organisms of the same species with variations are separated by some cause for long years, lot of variations may take place in these species.
6. These accumulated variations make them unable to mate and produce new offsprings.
7. Thus new species form and this is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 22.
Write a brief note on homologous organs.
Answer:

1. Homologous organs are the organs which perform different functions but have similar structure and origin.
2. For example forelimb of a whale (swimmer), bat (flyer), horse (runner), mole (digger) and man (grasping).
3. If we carefully observe the anatomy of all these animals, they have a common pattern in the arrangement of bones.
4. Even though their external form and functions are different, they are similar internally.
5. Thus it indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 23.
What are fossils? Write a short note on their formation.
Answer:

1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossil evidence is typically preserved within sediments deposited beneath water and land.
3. They can be actual remains of once lived such as bones or seeds or even traces of past event such as dinosaurs foot print or ripple marks on a pre-historic shore.
4. Usually when organisms die, their bodies will be decomposed and lost.
5. But sometimes the body or at least some parts may be in an environment that does not let it decompose completely.
6. For example if a dead insect get caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly and the mud will eventually harden and retain the impression of the body parts of insect.
7. All such preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils.

Question 24.
How would you appreciate Jean Baptist Lamarck for his contribution to the biology?
Answer:

1. Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.
2. He proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offspring i.e., to next generation.
3. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.
4. For example elongation of neck and forelimbs in giraffe.
5. Even though this theory was disproved, his contribution to biology was appreciable because it changed the belief of the people of olden days that the organisms on the earth have not undergone any change.

Question 25.
How did August Weisemann disprove the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck? (OR)
What example will you give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:

1. August Weisemann, tested the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck by an experiment on rats.
2. He removed tails of parental rats.
3. He observed its offsprings which have normal tails.
4. He has done it again for twenty two generations but still offsprings are normal with tails.
5. He proved that the bodily changes are not inherited. So they won’t be passed to its offspring.
6. Thus he disproved the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters”.

Question 26.
Some organisms or species adapt better and survive in a community of organisms. Why do you think this may happen?
Answer:

1. This may happen due to the variations posessed by the organisms which are suitable to that habitat.
2. The variations that help the organism to collect food to escape from their enemies, increase the chance of survival for the organism than the other organisms.
3. In general, variations come during sexual reproduction or mutation.
4. If the variations are useful, that organisms can adapt better and survive.
5. These organisms can be selected by the nature.

Question 27.
What do you understand about pure breeds?
Answer:

1. Pure breed is that expresses the selected character over several generations.
2. A pure breed will have both the factors of the same type.
3. It means all the pure breeds are homozygous.
4. All the gamates produced by them will have same type of factor.
5. Pure breed on self pollination will give pure breed again.

Question 28.
What do you understand about F₁ generation?
Answer:

1. F₁ generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents.
2. Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F₁ generation.
3. All the individuals produced in F₁ generation are heterozygous.
4. Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation.

Question 29.
What are the differences between F₁ generation and F₂ generation of mono hybrid cross?
Answer:

F1 generation	F2 generation
1)   F1 generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents. 2)    Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F1 generation. 3)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are heterozygous. 4)    Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation. 5)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are same, both phenotypically or genotypically.	1)     F2 generation is the offspring of second generation parents. 2)     Self or cross-pollination of F1 generation will give F2 generation. 3)     Individuals produced in F2 generation may be homozygous or heterozygous. 4)     Homozygous recessive plants express recessive characters. 5)     In F2 generation individuals, the phenotype ratio is 3:1 and the genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 30.
What are the differences between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross ?
Answer:

Monohybrid cross	Dihybrid cross
1) In monohybrid cross only one pair of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In monohybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 3:1. 3) In monohybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 1:2:1.	1) In dihybrid cross two pairs of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In dihybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individual is 1:2: 1. 3) In dihybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 31.
Write a short note on fossils of dinosaurs, ketosaurs collected in Telangana state.
Answer:

1. A rare and magnificient fossil of the dinosaurs, ketosaurs were collected in Yamanapalli in Adilabad district of Telangana district.
2. They belong to the lower jurassic age going back to about 160 million years.
3. This fossil has 14 meters length and 5 meters height.
4. This fossil is preserved in BM Birla Science Centre. Hyderabad.

Question 32.
Write a short notes on vestigial organs.
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution some organs remain in organisms, even though they don’t have any work to do.
2. For example appendix in the digestive system of human beings has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix plays important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called “vestigial organs”.
5. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings such as pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in human, etc.
6. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fossils are the precious evidences preserved by the nature to help us knowing about ancient life forms. Write the information you collected about fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are the evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitates which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossils provide information about what lived in the past.
3. Palentologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon-dating method.
4. They convey us about genetic condition, heredity characters through inactive chromosomes which are present in them.
5. They give a detailed information about their diet, life styles, shape of body, etc.
6. Fossils provide the information about how species have changed across long periods of the earth history.

Question 2.
a) If a sperm with ‘X’ chromosome fertilizes with an ovum with ‘X’ chromosome, what will be the gender of the baby?
b) Who determines the sex/gender of the baby, mother or father?
c) Is it correct to blame the mother for giving birth to a baby girl?
d) Are all our characters resembles our parents?
Answer:
a) Female
b) Father
c) Not correct
d) No, some variations occur.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. Vamsi and Priya are newly married couple. They want to give birth to a male child.

a) Draw a probable diagram showing transfer of chromosomes from parents to give birth to male child.
Answer:
b) Who determines the sex of the baby? How can you say ?
Answer:
Father (Vamsi) determines the sex of the baby. Because the chromosome ‘Y’ that determines male sex is present in males.

Question 4.

i) What does the given flow chart indicate?
Answer:
Sex determination in human beings

ii) What will happen if the sperm containing ‘X’ chromosomes fertilises the ovum?
Answer:
Baby will be a girl

iii) Who decides the sex of the baby – Mother or Father?
Answer:
Father

iv) How many pairs of chromosomes are present in off-spring?
Answer:
23 pairs

Question 5.
Write a brief note on Homologous and Analogous organs.
Answer:
Homologous organs: Organs which are structurally similar but functionally different are known as “Homologous organs”.
Forelimbs of a whale – swimming
Wings of a bat – flying
Forelegs of cheetah – running

Analogous: Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
Eg : Wings of a bird – flying
Wings of a bat – flying

Question 6.
Observe the flow – chart and answer the following.
i) What does the flow – chart represent?
Answer:
The flow – chart represents a monohybrid hybridisation between a pure breed Tall (T) and a pure breed dwarf (t) plants resulting first filial generation. On self pollinating with F₁ generation the new breed have any combinations of T, t came in F₂ generation.

ii) What is the phenotype characters in F₁ generation?
Answer:
In the phenotypic characters in F₁ generation all are dominant that is (T) Tall,

iii) What is the Genotype, Phenotype ratio of F₂ generation?
Answer:
Genotype ratio in F₂ generation is 1 : 2 : 1
Phenotype ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

iv) What laws of inheritance did you understand by this flow – chart?
Answer:
understand that i) the law of dominance ii) law of segregation proposed by Mendel.

Question 7.
Write the Darwin’s theory of evolution in a nutshell.
Answer:

1. Any group of population of an organism has variations and all members of group are not identical.
2. Variations maybe passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
3. The natural selection over abundance of offspring leads to a constant struggle for their survival in any population.
4. Individuals with variations that help them to survive and reproduce tend to live longer and have more offsprings than organisms with less useful features.
5. The offsprings of survivors inherit the useful variations, and the same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes a common feature.
6. As the environment changes, the organism within the environment adapt and changes to the new living conditions.
7. Over a long period of time, each species of organism can accumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species, similar to but distinctly different from the original species. All species on the earth arise in this way.
8. Evolution is a slow and continuous process that involves several thousands of generations.

Question 8.
What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance? What are the reasons to choose pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:
Mendel’s Laws of inheritance:

1. Law of Dominance : Among a pair of closely related ‘alleles’ or factors, only one expresses itself. In the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is called as Mendel’s Law of dominance.
2. Law of Segregation : The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait that each parent posses a randomly selected copy only one of these to its off-spring.
3. Law of Independent assortment : In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as ‘Law of Independent assortment’.

Mendel has chosen garden pea as material for his experiment because:

1. It has well developed characters.
2. It is a bisexual flower.
3. Predominently self pollinating.
4. Suitable for cross pollination.
5. It is an annual plant.

Question 9.
What is Phenotype and Genotype? Explain them with the help of Mendel’s Monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Phenotype: Expression of visible character of an individual is called phenotype.
Genotype: Genetic constitution of an individual for any character is called Genotype or Probable nature of factors is known as genotype.
Cross Pollinating a pure breed of yellow coloured pea seeds (YY) and green coloured pea seeds (yy) give F₁ generation. All pea seeds were yellow in F₁ generation. So, yellow colour is phenotype. ‘Yy’ is genotype of all pea seeds in F₁ generation.

F₂ Generation : Self pollination of F₁ pea plants (Yy)

Phenotype Ratio is 3:1 Genotype Ratio is 1:2:1.

Question 10.
Explain in brief any two evidences of Evolution.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are

1. Homologous and analogous organs
2. Evidences from embryology and
3. Evidences from fossils.

I. Homologous and analogous organs :

1. Organs which have common fundamental anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin, whatever varied functions they may perform are regarded as homologous organs.
2. For example forelimb of a whale, wing of bat, leg of leopord, claw of mole and hand of man.
3. They indicate that all the vertebrates are evolved from common ancestor.
4. Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
5. For example wings of bats and wings of birds.
6. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different but they look similar because they have a common use for flying but their origin is not common.

II. Evidences from embryology:

1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close that at an early stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
3. This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

III. Evidences from fossils:

1. Fossils are evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Palaeontologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon dating method.
3. These fossils provide evidences of presence of extinct animals like dinosaurs and how the evolution occurred on the earth, etc.

Question 11.
Observe the given flow-chart and answer the following questions:

i) Name the chromosomes that determine the sex of an individual.
Answer:
Y Chromosome of father.

ii) Show given information in the form of Checker Board.
Answer:

iii) In this situation, which principle of Mendel is applicable?
Answer:
Law of dominance

iv) “Mother determines the sex of the baby”. Is this statement correct or not? Why?
Answer:
The statement is not correct. Because the sperm of father that carries Y chromosome fertilize with ovum of mother that contains X chromosome the resultant will be XY – Male baby.

Question 12.
Keep in mind Mendel’s experiments and write what you know about the following concepts?
a) Pure breed b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Alleles
Answer:
a) Pure breed: These are the plants that expresses a selected character over several generations. Such plants according to Mendel were pure breed for that character.

b) Phenotype: The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype. We cannot determine the internal factors by phenotype. It tells about only the dominating char-acters which express externally. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

c) Genotype: The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within. The genotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 1 : 2: 1.

d) Alleles: Alleles are corresponding pairs of genes located at specific positions in chromosomes. Together they determine the genotype of their host organism. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a rondomly selected copy of only one of these to an offspring. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.

Question 13.
Competition among organisms, variations, natural selection survival of the fittest.
Which theory explains all these aspects? Describe them in a orderly manner.
Answer:

1. Competition: Every living organism in this world reproduces itself. The rate of multiplication and existence of organisms are more or less common for all living things. But the food supply and space remain unchanged, in other words they are limited. Under these conditions, there is a competition among the organisms to fulfil their needs of food and space. This is known as struggle for existence. It may be interspecific, intraspecific and the environment factors.
2. Variations: Every organism has its own specific characteristic and relationship with its environment. The variability caused by variations may be large or small. Large variations are known as macro variation and small variations called micro variations. Variations may be favourable or harmful. Those with useful variations survive while the others perish.
3. Natural selection: The organism with favourable variations are best adapted to the environment in which they live. They have a better chance of survival and perpetuation of race. This principle is called natural selections.
4. Survival of the fittest: Variations which are useful are retained, while those are harmful are lost. In a population where there is a struggle, the fittest will be survived and the less adjusted will be perished. This is known as the elimination of the unfit.

Question 14.
What is genetic drift? Explain how it provides diversity in the population.
Answer:

1. Changes in the frequency of genes in small populations, due to accidents is known as “Genetic drift”.’
2. Let us consider a colour variation occurred in red colour beetles which are living on green coloured leaves of bushes.
3. It results in “blue” colour beetles instead of ‘red’ colour beetles and passed its colour to its progeny.
4. Initially in the population, there are few blue beetles, but most are red.
5. Imagine at this point, an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live.
6. This kills most of the beetles but by chance a few beetles survived are mostly blue.
7. Again the beetle population slowly increases, but in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.
8. Thus genetic drift provides diversity in the population.

Question 15.
Have the apparent groups of human beings (races) evolved differently?
Answer:

1. No, there is no biological basis to the notion of human races. All humans are a single species.
2. Regardless of where we have lived for the past few thousand years, we all came from Africa.
3. The earliest members of human species, Homosapiens, can be traced there.
4. Our genetic footprints can be traced back to our African roots.
5. A couple of hundred thousand years ago, some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on.
6. While the residents spread across Africa, the migrants slowly spread across the planet.
7. They did not go in a single line. They went forwards and backwards, with groups, sometimes separating from each other, even moving in and out of Africa.
8. Like all other species on planet, they had come into being as an accident of evolution, and were trying to live their lives the best they could.

Question 16.
How would you appreciate Gregor Johann Mendel’s contribution to the genetics?
(OR)
Why Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as the father of genetics?
Answer:

1. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on the problem of how variations were passed from one generation to the other.
2. As he was a monk, he did his experiments with interest in the garden of the monastery.
3. He worked for over seven years after which he presented conclusions from his experimental data in a form of a detailed research paper.
4. Mendel made many careful observations of pea plants and asked himself questions about what he observed and then planned and designed experiments to find the answers.
5. He had worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties choosing 7 distinguishing forms of characters.
6. His experimental outcomes gave the idea how the variations were passed on from one generation to another.
7. He was an exemplary person for his observation, planning, patience and experimental skills.
8. His efforts to know the secrets of nature was really appreciable.

Question 17.
What are the hypothesis assumptions and outcomes of Mendel’s experiments with pea plants?
Answer:
Regarding his experiments with pea plants, Mendel hypothesised that

1. Characters were carried as traits and an organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
2. The distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
3. The traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produced them.
4. The seeds must have obtained by the traits from the parent plants.

His assumptions made to explain his observations are:
Assumption 1: Every pea plant has two ‘factors’ which are responsible for producing a particular property or trait.
Assumption 2: During reproduction one ‘factor’ from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny.
Assumption 3: One of these will always dominate the other if mixed together.

Laws made from his experiments:

1. Law of Dominance: Among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other.
2. Law of Segregation: Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Excretion.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 4th Lesson Excretion

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by excretion?
Answer:
Excretion is a biological process involved in separation and removal of wastes from body.

Question 2.
When you are on a field trip, your friend collected a sticky substance oozed out by a plant called gum. What are the plants you observe which give gum ?
Answer:
Acacia, Neem, Drumstick, Eukalyptus and Sapota are the gum yielding plants present in our surroundings.

Question 3.
What are primary metabolites?
Answer:
The substances that are directly involved in normal growth and development and reproduction of a plant are called primary metabolites, e.g.: Carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Question 4.
What are secondary metabolites?
Answer:
The inorganic substances that are not directly involved in the normal growth, development and reproduction of an organism are called secondary metabolites, e.g.: Alkaloids, tannins, resins, gums and latex, etc.

Question 5.
Write any two substances present both in blood and urine.
Answer:
Glucose, Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Creatinine, Uric Acid, Calcium, Phosphorous.

Question 6.
When you are on a field trip, you might have collected some plants which contain alkaloids. Name the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
Answer:
Nicotine, Morphine, Cocaine.

Question 7.
Write the names of any two excretory organs in human beings.
Answer:
Kidney, Skin, Lungs, Liver, Large Intestine.

Question 8.
Which plants in your surroundings are useful for the production of medicines?
Answer:
Neem, Datura, Tulasi, Calotropis.

Question 9.
The body of a person is filled with extra water and waste products. His hands and feet were swollen. What do we call this condition? Failure of which system causes this condition?
Answer:
This condition is called Uremia. This condition is caused due to failure of excretory system (Kidneys).

Question 10.
How do plants get rid of their waste materials?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by transpiration and guttation.
2. The other nitrogenous waste products are stored in leaves, bark and fruits when these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then the waste products in them are removed.

Question 11.
Give an example of a case where organ donation can save one’s life.
Answer:

1. Kidney of a brain dead person can be donated to save the life of renal failure persons.
2. Cornea of a dead person can be donated to the blind.
3. Bone marrow can be donated to save life of persons suffering from blood related genetic disorders.

Question 12.
Why is urine yellow in color?
Answer:
Because of urochrome, urine is yellow in colour. It forms in the liver from dead RBC.

Question 13.
Write two slogans to popularize the awareness on “Organ Donation”.
Answer:
Slogans:

1. Organ donation saves lives.
2. Donate organs today for better tomorrow.
3. Donate organs – Live after death.

Question 14.
Write two healthy habits which you practice to protect your kidneys from diseases.
Answer:

1. Drink plenty of water.
2. Eat low salt diet that saves kidney life.
3. Drink more fruit juices.

Question 15.
What precautions you have to take in the observation of internal structure of mammalian kidney?
Answer:

1. Wash the kidney thorougly with water.
2. Ensure that blood is completely drained from it.
3. Wash your hands with antibacterial lotion after completing the dissection.

Question 16.
Write two secondary metabolites, which you use in your daily life.
Answer:
Gum, Rubber, Coffee are the examples for secondary metabolites which we use in our daily life.

Question 17.
Why is vasopressin not secreted when a person drinks a lot of water?
Answer:
Vasopressin is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out. When a person drinks a lot of water, there will be no need to secrete concentrated urine. The excess water taken by the person will be sent out in the form of dilute urine. Hence, vasopressin is not secreted.

Question 18.
In urine excretory system much water is reabsorbed. What happens if it doesn’t occur?
Answer:
If water is not reabsorbed it leads to excessive repeated dilute urination called diabetes insipidus. If water does not reabsorbed we would dry up in few hours.

Question 19.
A substance given below consists of other three substances. What is that substance? Where is it produced? Uric Acid, Sodium, Oxalate, Urine.
Answer:
Urine contains all the other three substances. It is produced in kidney.

Question 20.
Name the hospitals where the organ transplantation facility is available in Hyderabad.
Answer:
Organ transplantation facility is available only in two government hospitals. They are NIMS (Nizam Institute of Medical Sciences) and Osmania hospital. This facility is also available in some corporate hospitals.

Question 21.
What is anabolism?
Answer:
The synthesis of complex molecules in living organisms from simpler ones together with the storage of energy.

Question 22.
What is catabolism?
Answer:
The breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with the release of energy.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of the word excretion in Latin?
Answer:
In Latin ex means out, crenere means shift.

Question 24.
What are the wastes produced during metabolic activities?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water, nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts, etc., are the wastes produced during metabolic activities.

Question 25.
What is the most poisonous of all waste products?
Answer:
Ammonia is the most poisonous of all waste products.

Question 26.
What are the substances present in blood?
Answer:
Substances present in blood are glucose, sodium, potassium chloride, urea, creatinine, uric acid, cholesterol, triglycerides, calcium, phosphorous, bilirubin, proteins, etc.

Question 27.
What are the substances present in urine?
Answer:
The substances present in urine are protein, creatinine, calcium, phosphorous, uric acid, etc.

Question 28.
What are the substances present in both blood and urine in common?
Answer:
The substances present in the blood and urine in common are sodium, potassium, glucose, chlorides, urea, proteins, creatinine, calcium, phosphorous and uric acid.

Question 29.
What are the substances that need to be removed from body?
Answer:
Creatinine, uric acid, urea, cholesterol and calcium.

Question 30.
In human beings excretory system consists of?
Answer:
The excretory system in human beings consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.

Question 31.
Where are the kidneys present in human body?
Answer:
In human body kidneys are present in the abdominal cavity attached to dorsal body wall one on either side of backbone.

Question 32.
What is the shape and colour of the kidney?
Answer:
The kidney is bean shaped and reddish brown in colour.

Question 33.
What is the size of the kidney?
Answer:
The size of the kidney is 10 cm in length, 5 – 6 cm in breadth and 4 cm in thickness.

Question 34.
Why is the position of right kidney lower than the left kidney?
Answer:
The position of right kidney is lower than left kidney due to the presence of liver above it.

Question 35.
Which artery brings oxygenated blood to kidney?
Answer:
Renal artery brings oxygenated blood to kidney.

Question 36.
What are the two distinct regions present inside the kidney?
Answer:
The two distinct regions present inside the kidney are

1. dark coloured outer zone called the cortex and
2. pale coloured inner zone called medulla.

Question 37.
Each kidney is made up of how many nephrons?
Answer:
Each kidney is made up of about 1.3 to 1.8 million nephrons.

Question 38.
What is the other name of Nephron?
Answer:
The other name of nephron is uriniferous tubule.

Question 39.
What are the two basic parts of nephron?
Answer:
The two basic parts of nephron are malphigian body and renal tubule.

Question 40.
What is meant by Glomerulus?
Answer:
Malphigian body consists of a blind cupshaped broader end of nephron called Bowman’s capsule and bunch of blood capillaries called Glomerulus.

Question 41.
Which blood vessel forms glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule?
Answer:
Afferent arteriole forms glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule.

Question 42.
Renal tubule consists of how many parts?
Answer:
Renal tubule consists three parts. They are Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle, and Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT).

Question 43.
What is the major function of proximal convoluted tubule?
Answer:
Proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs useful substances like glucose, amino acids, phosphate, potassium, urea and other organic solutes from the filtrate.

Question 44.
What are podocyte cells?
Answer:
Glomerulus is lined by a single layer of squamous epithelial cells called podocyte cells.

Question 45.
What is the function of loop of Henle?
Answer:

1. In the descending loop of Henle reabsorption of water from the filtrate takes place.
2. Ascending loop of Henle is impermeable to water and only ions diffuse out into the surrounding cells.

Question 46.
What is the function of Distal convoluted tubule?
Answer:
Distal convoluted tubule maintains proper concentration and pH of the urine.

Question 47.
How many stages are involved in formation of urine? What are they?
Answer:
Formation of urine involves four stages. They are

1. Glomerular filtration,
2. Tubular reabsorption,
3. Tubular secretion and
4. Concentration of urine.

Question 48.
The amount of water reabsorption in the tubule depends on?
Answer:
The amount of water reabsorption in the tubule depends on amount of excess water present in the body and the amount of dissolved wastes to be excreted.

Question 49.
In which region seventy five percent of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed?
Answer:
Seventy five percent of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the region of proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 50.
Which hormone is responsible to pass concentrated urine?
Answer:
Vasopressin is responsible to pass concentrated urine.

Question 51.
What is micturition?
Answer:
Micturition is the process of discharge of urine from the urinary bladder.

Question 52.
What are the composition of various substances in urine?
Answer:
The composition of various substances in urine are 96% of water, 2.5% of organic substances and 1.5% of inorganic solutes.

Question 53.
How much amount of urine is excreted per day?
Answer:
Total amount of urine excreted per day is about 1.6 -1.8 litres.

Question 54.
What is the storage capacity of urinary bladder?
Answer:
The storage capacity of urinary bladder is 300 – 800 ml.

Question 55.
What is uremia?
Answer:
If kidneys stop working completely, our body is filled with extra water and waste products. This condition is called uremia.

Question 56.
What is haemodialysis?
Answer:
Artificial filtering of blood to remove wastes by using dialysis machine is known as haemodialysis.

Question 57.
What is the time required for each dialysis session?
Answer:
The time required for each dialysis session is 3 to 6 hours.

Question 58.
What are the organs that can be transplanted from brain dead patients?
Answer:
The organs that can be transplanted from brain dead patients are kidney, liver, heart, lungs, pancreas, skin, bone, intestines and eyes (cornea).

Question 59.
Where is the transplanted kidney fixed in the body of kidney failure patient?
Answer:
The transplanted kidney is fixed in the body of patient inside the lower abdomen.

Question 60.
What is cadaver transplantation?
Answer:
The process of transplantation of organs from brain dead patients to another is called cadaver transplantation.

Question 61.
What are the other excretory organs present in human body in addition to kidney?
Answer:
The other excretory organs present in human body in addition to kidney are lungs, skin, liver, large intestine, salivary glands and lacrimal glands.

Question 62.
What are the waste products excreted by lungs?
Answer:
The waste products excreted by lungs are carbon dioxide and water.

Question 63.
Sebum of sebaceous glands in skin contains wastes like?
Answer:
Sebum of sebaceous glands in skin contains wastes like waxes, sterols, hydro carbons and fatty acids.

Question 64.
What are the metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of red blood cells in liver?
Answer:
The metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of red blood cells in liver are bile pigments like bilirubin, biliverdin and urochrome.

Question 65.
How is urea produced in liver?
Answer:
Urea is produced in liver by the deamination of proteins.

Question 66.
What are the wastes excreted by intestine?
Answer:
The wastes excreted by intestine are excess salts of calcium, magnesium and iron.

Question 67.
How do unicellular organisms remove waste products?
Answer:
Unicellular organisms remove waste products by diffusion from the body surface to the surrounding water.

Question 68.
What is the osmoregulatory organelle in amoeba and paramoecium?
Answer:
The osmoregulatory organelle in amoeba and paramoecium is contractile vacuole.

Question 69.
In which animal phyla water bathes almost all their cells in body of organisms?
Answer:
In porifera and coelenterates water bathes almost all their cells in body of organisms.

Question 70.
Through which processes plants get rid of excess water?
Answer:
Through transpiration and guttation plants get rid of excess water.

Question 71.
What are Raphides?
Answer:
Waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides.

Question 72.
What are alkaloids?
Answer:
The poisonous nitrogenous by products produced by plants are alkaloids.

Question 73.
Which alkaloid is used as antimalarial drug?
Answer:
Quinine is the alkaloid used as antimalarial drug.

Question 74.
Which flowers and fruits are used to extract sedative scopalamine?
Answer:
The sedative scopalamine is extracted from the flowers and fruits of Datura stramonium.

Question 75.
What are the alkaloids produced by plants?
Answer:
The alkaloids produced by plants are nimbin, nicotine, morphine, codeine quinine, reserpine, caffeine/scopolamine, etc.

Question 76.
What are tannins?
Answer:
Tannins are alkaloids which are carbon compounds.

Question 77.
Which group of plants secretes resin?
Answer:
Resin secretes by a group of plants Gymnosperms.

Question 78.
What is latex?
Answer:
Latex is a sticky, milky white substance secreted by plants.

Question 79.
Which plant of latex is used to prepare rubber?
Answer:
Rubber is prepared from the latex of Hevea braziliensis.

Question 80.
Bio-diesel is obtained from the seeds of?
Answer:
Bio-diesel is obtained from the seeds of Jatropa.

Question 81.
Which person’s kidney is used for a successful kidney transplantation?
Answer:
From a close relative kidney can be used for successful transplantation.

Question 82.
What may be the feeling of the patients who are waiting for suitable organ donations due to failure of vital organs?
Answer:
The patients who are waiting may think that any donor with a kind heart can give them life by donating their organs.

Question 83.
What may be the feeling of a doctor while transplanting the organs?
Answer:
Doctor is also a human being, he predicts that the transplantation becomes a success.

Question 84.
How can you appreciate the father of Yaswanth Kumar for donating the organs of his brain dead son? (From annexure)
Answer:
We can appreciate the father of Yaswanth Kumar for his humanity where no one can accept to take or think such a delicate decision of donating the organs of his brain dead son.

Question 85.
What might be the feeling of the father H.V. Shiva Kumar father of Yaswanth Kumar for donating the organs of his son? (From annexure)
Answer:
The father might have thought that his son can live even after his death in some other people who are in need for the suitable organs. We can appreciate father’s humanity.

Question 86.
What does the society need about organ donation?
Answer:
The society needs much awareness in organ donation so that we can jsave many lives who are in need of different organs from donors for their survival.

Question 87.
Which substances are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine in the sample given?
Answer:
Substances present above the normal limits in the blood are: creatinine, uric acid and cholesterol. Substances present above the normal limits in the urine are creatinine, calcium, uric acid and urea.

Question 88.
When is more urine excreted?
Answer:
A large intake of liquids or water rich food increases the volume of water in the blood, hence more urine is excreted.

Question 89.
What are the uses of Tannins?
Answer:
Tannins are used in tanning of leather and in medicines.

Question 90.
What are the economic importance of gums?
Answer:
Gums are valuable being used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of the medicines, food, etc.

Question 91.
Why do we get peculiar smell when you shift the potted plant?
Answer:
Plants release some peculiar chemical substances into their surroundings into soil through roots. These substances attract useful microorganisms to the plant. Hence we get peculiar smell when we shift the potted plant.

Question 92.
What is chewing gum ? How is it made of?
Answer:
Chewing gum is a type of gum for chewing made dates back 5000 years. Modern chewing gum originally made of chicle, natural latex from plant.

Question 93.
How do pollen grains affect our health?
Answer:
Whenever pollen grains enter in our body they cause allergy due to the presence of nitrogenous substances. These allergens cause skin allergy and asthma. Ex: Parthenium.

Question 94.
What are the defensive mechanism developed by plants of your village to protect themselves from the herbivores ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Plants produce nitrogenous compounds to protect themselves from the herbivores. These compounds are called as alkaloids. For example,
Datura – It produces alkaloid known as scopolamine.
Cactus – Develop spines on the body.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the table on the basis of your obervations in field trip.

S.No	Name of the plant	Secondary metabolites	Uses
A.	Neem
B.	Datura

Answer:

S.No	Name of the plant	Secondary metabolites	Uses
A.	Neem	Nimbin	Antiseptic
B.	Datura	Scopola mine	Sedative

Question 2.
Two kidneys are present in human beings as excretory organs. Haritha, whose age is 23 years, donated one kidney to her father. Now she has one kidney only. She gave birth to a female child.
a) How many kidneys are there in Haritha’s daughter?
Answer:
Harita’s daughter has 2 kidneys,

b) Support your answer.
Answer:
Bodily changes are not inherited, so Harita’s daughter has 2 kidneys.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a nephrologist to know more about kidney related diseases?
Answer:

1. How are stones formed in the kidney?
2. What is dialysis?
3. What is the effect of smoking and alcoholism on kidneys?
4. What is ESRD?

Question 4.
Read the following lines and answer the questions.

Liver: It produces bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin and urochrome) which are metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of dead R.B.Cs. Urochrome, which is responsible for the amber colour of the urine, is eliminated through urine. Biliverdin and bilirubin are stored in gall bladder and later excreted through bile along with cholesterol and derivatives of steroid hormones, extra drug, vitamins and alkaline salts. Liver is also involved in urea formation.

i) Which substance adds colour to urine?
ii) The site of synthesis of urea in the body is …………..
Answer:
i) Urochrome
ii) Liver

Question 5.
Look at the picture and answer the questions, (label bottle on left as X and bottle on right as Y)
The above is a procedure of haemodialysis in a hospital.
i) What are the liquids X and Y, in the picture?
ii) What is the purpose of this procedure and for whom is it needed?
Answer:
i) X – Dialyzing fluid; Y – Urine
ii) It is a process of removal of poisonous nitrogenous wastes from blood. This process is needed by uremic or kidney failure patients.

Question 6.
Prepare four questions to find the reasons for obstructions in excretory system.
Answer:

1. What do we call the complete and irreversible kidney failure?
2. What happen if kidney stops working completely?
3. What is uremia?
4. Is there any solution to this problem?

Question 7.
Name the secondary metabolites which are useful in leather and rubber industry. From which plants we obtain them?
Answer:

1. Latex used in rubber and Tannins used in Leather Industry.
2. Latex – Hevea brasiliensis (Rubber Plant) Tannins – Cassia, Acacia.

Question 8.
Prepare four questions you will ask a nephrologist about Kidney failure.
Answer:

1. When does kidney fail?
2. What are the symptoms of kidney failure?
3. What precautions can we take to prevent failure of kidney?
4. Which alternative method can we adopt if kidney fails?

Question 9.
Observe the following table.

Name of the phylum / organism	Excretory system / organ
Protozoa	Diffusion
Porifera	Water bathes all their cells
Platyhelmirthes	Flame cells
Annelida	Nephridia
Arthropoda	Green glands
Reptiles, Aves and Mammals	Kidney

On the basis of above table, write answers to the following questions.

i) In above table, which living organisms contains kidneys as excretory organs like human beings?
Answer:
Reptiles and Aves.

ii) Write the excretory organs present in Earthworm and Cockroach.
Answer:
Earthworm – Nephridia Cockroach – Green glands

Question 10.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

Alkaloid	Name of the plant	Uses
Quinine	Cinchona	Anti malarial drug
Nicotine	Tobacco	Pesticides
Morphine	Opium	Pain killer
Pyrethroids	Chrysanthemum species	Insecticides

i) Which alkaloid we get from the fruit, is used as pain killer?
Answer:
Morphine

ii) From which part of the plant do we get Quinine?
Answer:
Bark of Cinchona

Question 11.
What is called structural and functional unit of kidney? Why?
Answer:

1. Each kidney is made up of more than one million microscopic and thin tubular units called nephrons or uriniferous tubules. Hence nephron is known as structural and functional unit of kidney.
2. Nephron’s chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine. Hence it is known as functional unit of kidney.

Question 12.
Blood is filtered in Bowman’s capsule of nephron. For the filtration of blood some pressure is needed. How does the pressure arises in Bowman’s capsule?
Answer:

1. Blood flows inside the glomerulus of Bowman’s capsule under the influence of pressure due to the large diameter of afferent arteriole.
2. This increases or rise the blood pressure in the glomerulus capillaries leading to ultrafiltration of the blood in the Bowman’s capsule.

Question 13.
Classify the substances given below.
Ptyaline, Leptin, Morphine, Riboflavin, Testosterone, Thyamin, Niacine, Sucrase, Nicotine, Amylase, Retinol, Quinine, Calciferol, Adrenaline, Tripsin.
Answer:
The above substances can be classified into Enzymes, Hormones, Alkaloids and Vitamins.
Enzymes: Ptyaline, Sucrase, Amylase, Tripsin
Hormones: Testosterone, Adrenaline, Leptin
Alkaloids: Morphine, Nicotine, Quinine
Vitamins: Riboflavin, Thyamin, Niacine, Retinol, Calciferol

Question 14.
How does excretion take place in phylum protozoa?
Answer:

1. Specific excretory organs are absent in unicellular organisms. These organisms remove waste products by simple diffusion from the body surface into the surrounding water.
2. Excess water is sent out through contractile vacuoles in fresh water protozoans. Ex: Amoeba surface.
3. The major portion of excess water is eliminated by diffusion through body surface.

Question 15.
What are the functions of excretory system?
Answer:

1. Excretory system in animals performs more than one function.
2. The primary function of excretory system is to maintain ionic and osmotic balance in the animal body.
3. Excretory system helps to maintain appropriate concentration of salts and correct amount of water in the body.
4. It also helps in maintaining the body volume.
5. The secondary function of excretory system is excretion of nitrogenous wastes and foreign substances such as drugs.

Question 16.
Mention the groups of animals where excretion fakes place through diffusion from body surface.
Answer:

1. In protozoans wastes are excreted by diffusion through body surface.
2. Contractile vacuoles present in some protozoans are mainly concerned with the maintenance of osmotic and ionic balance. Excretion is mainly by diffusion.
3. In sponges, coelenterates like Hydra, excretion takes place by diffusion.

Question 17.
People in cold countries get very less / no sweat. What changes occur in their skin and in other excretory organs?
Answer:

1. Usually human skin has a unique system keep in equilibrium state with the surrounding temperature.
2. During winter season the temperature is low and the body temperature should be heated to balance the tolerance.
3. So the water content in our body is sent out in the form of urine.
4. Hence, people in cold countries get less sweat or no sweat.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Analyse the following information and answer the questions.

Alkaloid	Part of the plant	Uses
Quinine	Bark	Anti-malarial drug
Pyrethroids	Leaves	Insecticide
Reserpine	Roots	Medicine for snake bite
Caffeine	Seeds	Central nervous system stimulant
Nimbin	Seeds, Barks, Leaves	Antiseptic

i) Name the alkaloid which is used to cure malaria.
Answer:
Quininie

ii) Name the alkaloids used as insecticides.
Answer:
Pyrethroids

iii) Which system is stimulated by the alkaloid caffeine?
Answer:
Central nervous system

iv) Which parts of which plant is used as medicine for snake bite?
Answer:
The roots of Rauwolfia Serpentina (Snake root)

Question 2.
Which diagram do you draw to label these parts?
Answer:

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Uriniferous tubule.
3. Collecting tubule.

Draw the diagram and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 3.
Fill the following table related to Secondary Metabolites in plants.

S.No.	Metabolite	Name of the plant	Use
1.		Pinus
2.	Gums
3.			Rubber preparation
4.	Nimbin

Answer:

S.No.	Metabolite	Name of the plant	Use
1.	Resin	Pinus	Used in varnishes
2.	Gums	Neem, Acacia	Used as adhesives and binding agents
3.	Latex	Hevea braziliensis (Rubber plant)	Rubber preparation
4.	Nimbin	Azadirachta indica (Neem)	Antiseptic

Question 4.
The given parts belong to which system? Draw a neat labelled diagram of the system.
a) Kidneys b) Ureters c) Urinary bladder
Answer:
The given parts belong to human excretory system.

Question 5.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark, and fruits. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then waste products in them are removed. Waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called ‘raphides’. However several compounds are synthesized by the plants for their own use especially for defence. Many plants synthesize chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds, etc. for protection against herbivores. Most of the chemicals are unpleasant to taste. Hence herbivores usually do not prefer to eat such plants. Some of the chemicals are toxic and may even kill the animals that eat them.

i) What are raphides?
ii) How do plants protect themselves against herbivores?
iii) How do plants get rid of wastes?
iv) Name the processes by which plants lose excess of water.
Answer:
i) The wastes stored in some fruits in the form of solid bodies are called “raphides”.
ii) Many plants synthesize chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds, etc. for protection against herbivores.
iii) Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits. When these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree. Then waste products in them are removed.
iv) Plants lose excess of water by transpiration and guttation.

Question 6.

S.No.	Test	Present level	Normal range
A. Blood Test
1.	Blood Pressure (BP)	160/90 mm/Hg	120/80 mm/Hg
2.	Glucose (Before food)	120- mg/dl	60-100 mg/dl
3.	Glucose (After food)	220 mg/dl	160-180 mg/dl
4.	Bilirubin	1.0 mg/dl	0.1-0.8 mg/dl
	B. Urine Test
1.	24 hrs protein	150 mg/d ay	100 mg/day
2.	Sodium	140 mmol/L	125-250 mmol/L.

A) Which test is required to know bilirubin?
Answer:
Blood test is required to know bilirubin.

B) How is the sugar disease confirmed?
Answer:
In blood test if the glucose levels in blood before and after food are more than the normal, the sugar disease is confirmed.

C) By observing the above report, what would be the other problems faced by that patient?
Answer:
The blood pressure of the patient 160/90 as the normal is 120/80 mm/Hg.
The Glucose levels in the blood of the patient shows more than the normal before and after food.
So he is suffering from Hypertension and diabetes.

D) What are the organs affected by these problems?
The organsaffected by these problems are heart and kidneys.

Question 7.
Explain the temporary and permanent methods to be adopted for Kidney failure (ESRD) persons.
Answer:
Temporary method for ESRD persons is Dialysis (Artificial kidney). Permanent method is transplantation of kidney.

Dialysis:

1. Blood is taken out from the main artery, mixed with an anticoagulant, such as heparin and then pumped in to dialyzer.
2. In dialyzer blood flows through cellophane tubes and these tubes are embeded in the dialysing fluid.
3. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the tube and dialysing fluid (same as plasma without nitrogenous waste).

Kidney transplantation:

1. A functioning kidney is used in transplantation from a donor preferably a close relative.
2. The kidney that is received by a recipient must be a good match to his body, to minimise the chances of rejection by the immune system of the recipient.
3. Nowadays the process of organ donation helps a lot for kidney failure patients.

Question 8.
What are the accessory excretory organs in human body? How does the liver carry out excretion as a secondary function? (OR)
Write about the accessory excretory organs and their excretory substances in human beings.
Answer:

Accessory Excretory Organs	Excretory Materials
Lungs	CO2 and Water
Skin	Sweat and Metabolic Waste (Sebum)
Liver	Bilirubin, Biliverdin, Urochrome
Large Intestine (Colon)	Excess of salts of calcium, magnesium and iron are excreted along with faecal matter.

Excretory functions of Liver:

1. Liver acts as detoxification centre of our body. Liver produces bile juice which contain bile pigments which are metabolic wastes of dead R.B.C.
2. Bilirubin, Biliverdin and urochrome are the pigments of bile juice.
3. Bilirubin, Biliverdin, cholesterol and derivatives of steroids, extra drugs, vitamins and alkaline salts are the wastes produced by liver.
4. Urochrome is eliminated through urine.
5. Liver also plays a role in the formation of concentrated urine.

Question 9.
Explain the formation of urine in a flow chart.
Answer:
Dissolved substances of blood like urea, glucose, amino acids, minerals, salts etc., are filtered out in Bowman’s capsule under high filtration pressure.
Glomerular filtrate is called primary urine.

Question 10.
Excreting wastes from the human body not only by kidneys but also by other organs helps you. How do you support it?
Answer:

1. In human body wastes are excreted not only by kidneys but also by other organs.
2. Kidney filters blood and eliminates nitrogenous wastes and other harmful things. Filters urea from blood.
3. Apart from kidney lungs, skin, liver, intestine, salivary glands and lacrymal glands.
4. Lungs remove carbon dioxide and water in respiration.
5. Skin excrete wastes in the form of sweat which contains water and certain salts.
6. Liver eliminates bile pigments bilirubin and biliverdin through urine.
7. Excess salts of calcium, magnesium and iron are excreted by epithellial cells of colon for elimination along with faeces by intestine.
8. Eccrine glands present on the forehead, the bottoms of the feet and the palms allow excess water to leave the body.
9. Salivary glands and lacrimal glands excrete small amounts of nitrogenous waste through saliva and tears.

Question 11.
Which plants can you get in your village? Among these by-products of which plants do you use in your real life?
Answer:

1. The plants grow or available in our village are Sapota, Coconut, Cassia, Mango, Guava, Borassus plantain, Tobacco, Rauwolfia, Coffee, Neem, Datura, Chrysanthe¬mum, Acacia, Pinus, Vallisneria, Teak, etc.,
2. Out of these plants alkaloids are available from the plants like Tobacco, Rauwolfia, Coffee, Neem, Datura and Chrysanthemum. The by-products from these plants are utilised in my real life.
   Plant – Use
   Tobacco – Insecticide
   Rauwolfia serpentina – Medicine for snake bite
   Coffee – Central nervous system stimulant
   Neem – Antiseptic
   Datura – Sedative
   Chrysanthemum – Insecticides
3. Tannins are the by-products of cassia, acacia. These are used in tanning of leather and in medicines.
4. Resin the by-product of Pinus is used in varnishes.
5. Gums are extracted from neem and acacia.
   They are used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of food, medicines.

Question 12.
Write an essay stating the advantages of by-products of plants in our real life.
(OR)
What are secondary metabolites? Briefly explain their uses.
(OR)
Not only the food of plants but also their wastes are useful to us. What evidences do you give for it?
Answer:

1. The materials which do not require for normal growth and development are called secondary metabolites. These are the by – products of plants, eg: Alkaloids, Tannins, Resins, Gums and Latex, etc. Though plants produce these chemicals for their own use man found the usage of these chemicals for own benefits. They are generally coloured and fragrant.
2. Alkaloids: These are nitrogenous by-products and poisonous. These are stored in different parts of the plants. Common alkaloids in plants and their uses are given in the table.
   

   Alkaloid	Plant	Part	Uses
   Quinine	Cinchona officinalis (Cinchona)	Bark	Antimalarial drug
   Nicotine	Nicotiana tobacum (Tobacco)	Leaves	Insecticide
   Morphine, Cocaine	Papaver somniferum (Opium)	Fruit	Pain killer
   Reserpine	Rauwolfia serpentiana (Snake bite)	Root	Medicine for snake bite
   Caffeine	Coffea Arabica (Coffee plant)	Seed	Central nervous system stimulant
   Nimbin	Azadirachta indica (Neem)	Seeds, Barks, Leaves	Antiseptic
   Scopolamine	Datura stramonium	Fruit, flower	Sedative
   Pyrethroids	Chrysanthemum sps	Flower	Insecticides

3. Tannins: Tannins are carbon compounds. These are stored in different parts of the plant and are deep brown in colour. Tannins are used in tanning of leather and in medicines, e.g. Cassia, Acacia.
4. Resin: Occur mostly in Gymnosperms in specialized passages called resin passages. These are used in varnishes, e.g. Pinus.
5. Gums: Plants like Neem, Acacia oozes out a sticky substance called gum. When branches are cut. The gum swells by absorbing water and helps in the healing of damaged parts of a plant. Gums are economically valuable and used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of the medicines, food, etc.
6. Latex: Latex is a sticky, milky white substance secreted by plants. Latex is stored in latex cells or latex vessels. From the latex of Hevea braziliensis (Rubber plant) rubber is prepared. Latex from Jatropa is the source of bio-diesel.
7. Modern chewing gum originally made of chick natural latex from plant.

Question 13.
Blood is purified in kidneys. So many wastes are removed from the blood in nephron of the kidney. Which issue make you surprise in excretory system?
Answer:

1. Kidneys remove nitrogenous waste from our body. They also work towards balancing the amount of vitamins , minerals, fat and protein that are found in the blood. They do this so that our body can easily perform day to day activities.
2. Our intestine makes solid waste materials and is excreted through digestive tract.
3. Each day our body eliminates around 1.6 to 1.8 liters of urine which contains liquids, minerals and vitamins that are of no use to the body.
4. The bladder of a human body is nearly the same size as the average of human brain.
5. In one individuals life span the liver can produce around 184.275 kgs of bile (6500 ounces).
6. In our lifetime an individual could urinate close to 7,850,000,000 gallons of fluid.
7. A really extraordinary fact regarding the excretory system is that upto 400 ml of urine can be held in human bladder.
8. Urine contains a high amount of urea which can be used by plants as a source of nitrogen. Because of this diluted urine can be used in gardens and potted plants.
9. It is amazing to see that each kidney is made up of approximately more than one million microscopic tubular functional units called nephrons or uriniferous tubules.

Question 14.
What is the structural and functional unit of the excretory system? Draw a neat labelled diagram of that unit.
Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.

Question 15.
Give an account of excretory system found In different phyla of animal kingdom.
Answer:

1. Different organisms have various excretory systems and organs.
2. Following are the excretory system found in various organisms.
   

   Name of the phylum / organism	Excretory system / organ
   Protozoa	Simple diffusion from the body surface into the surrounding water.
   Porifera and coelenterates	Water bathes almost all their cells
   Platyhelminthes	Flame cells
   Nematoda	Renette cells
   Annelids	Nephridia
   Arthropoda	Green glands, Maiphigian tubules
   Mollusca	Meta nephridia
   Echinodermata	Water vascular system
   Reptiles, Birds and Mammals	Kidneys

Question 16.
How do plants manage/send out waste products from their body?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation.
2. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
3. When these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then waste products in them are got rid of.
4. Plants get rid of carbon dioxide and oxygen through diffusion.
5. Plants release some waste products through roots also.
6. Some waste products are deposited near bark as resins or gums.
7. In many plants waste products are stored in vacuoles of the cells. Plant cells have comparatively large vacuoles.

Question 17.
In recent days many people are coming forward to donate organs of brain dead people, who met with accidents. How will you appreciate the family members of organ donor?
Answer:

1. In recent days many families are willing to donate organs of brain dead person’s. This is truely significant change in attitude of people.
2. Most of the people are burning or burying body after death. Very a few people are would like to see their very dear one’s in other people by donating organs like heart, liver, kidneys, cornea, spleen and bone marrow etc.
3. The family members of brain dead are already in great sorrow. They need great courage and so much kindness toward needy patients.
4. With nobel decision of that family giving new life to 5 – 7 persons, who has no alternate treatment, other than organ transplantation. In society every one must appreciate their courage, kindness and sympathy. They stood role model to others.

Question 18.
How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Answer:

1. The amount of urine produced largely depends on the amount of water reabsorbed in the renal tubule.
2. The amount of water reabsorbed by the renal tubule largely depends on
   the amount of water present in excess in the body need to be removed. If water is abundantly present in the body tissues large quantities of dilute urine is send out of the body. When water is less in quantities in the body tissues a small quantity of concentrated urine is excreted.
3. When there is more quantity of dissolved wastes in the body more quantity of water is required to excrete them. So the amount of urine produced increases.
4. Deficiency of vasopressin causes excessive, repeated, dilute urination called diabetes insipidus.

Question 19.
Observe the below flow chart. Fill the boxes. Explain to which system this belongs to.

Answer:

1. Kidney
2. Loop of Henle
3. Pelvis
4. Urethra

This flow chart belongs to excretory system in human beings. It shows the way how the blood in the kidney moves filtered and urine is excreted.

Question 20.
Explain the external features of kidney in human beings.
Answer:

1. In human beings, there are a pair of bean-shaped, reddish-brown structures in the abdominal cavity attached to dorsal body wall one on either side of the backbone.
2. The size of the kidney is 10cm in length, 5 – 6 cm in breadth, and 4cm in thickness.
3. Each kidney is convex on the outer side and concave on the inner side.
   
4. The inner side of each kidney has a fissure or hilus for the entry of a renal artery, exit of a renal vein and an ureter.
5. Renal artery brings oxygenated blood loaded with waste products and renal vein carries deoxygenated blood.

Question 21.
Describe the excretory system of man.
Answer:

1. The excretory system of man consists of
   a) a pair of kidneys
   b) ureters and
   c) urinary bladder and d) urethra.
2. Kidneys are bean shaped and are located in the abdominal region on either side of vertebral column.
   
3. From hilus of each kidney there are a pair of whitish, narrow tubular structures arise. They are known as ureters.
4. The ureter travels downwards and open, in the sac like structure called the urinary bladder, which stores urine.
5. Urethra is a tube that takes urine from urinary bladder to outside.
6. The opening of urinary bladder into urethra is guarded by a ring of muscles or sphincter.

Question 22.
Describe the internal structure of kidney with the help of diagrams. (OR) Describe the structure of nephron with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

1. L.S. of kidney show two distinct regions. Dark coloured outer zone called cortex and pale coloured inner zone called medulla.
2. Each kidney is made up of approximately more than one million microscopic and thin tubular functional units called nephrons or uniferous tubules.
   
3. Each nephron has basically two parts. One is malphigian body and other is renal tubule.
4. Malphigian body consists of a blind cup shaped broader end of nephron called Bowman s capsule and bunch of fine blood capillaries called glomerulus.
5. Glomerulus develops from afferent arteriole and it gives to rise to an efferent arteriole.
6. Glomerulus functions as a filtration unit.
7. Renal tubule has three parts. They are
   1. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
   2. Loop of Henle which is ‘U’ shaped and
   3. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT).
8. In tubule part reabsorption and secretion takes place. Urine is formed in the renal tubule part of nephron.
9. Distal convoluted tubules open into a collecting tube.
10. Collecting tube forms pyramids and calyces which open into the pelvis.
11. Pelvis leads into the ureter.

Question 23.
Describe the structure of renal tubule with neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. Renal tubule is a specialised tubular structure made up of proximal convoluted tubule, a ‘U’ shaped tube called loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule.
   
2. The three tubular components are selectively permeable and only allow specific molecules to pass through them.
3. The renal tubule is surrounded by capillaries called peritubular capillaries that arise from the efferent arterioles.
4. The substances essential for the body are reabsorbed from the tubules into the peritubular capillaries and the unwanted or toxic molecules are secreted into the lumen of the renal tubule.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class English Textbook Solutions Chapter 2C Susruta, an Ancient Plastic Surgeon Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class English Solutions Chapter 2C Susruta, an Ancient Plastic Surgeon

7th Class English Chapter 2C Susruta, an Ancient Plastic Surgeon Textbook Questions and Answers

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why did Susruta offer the traveller a mug of wine?
Answer:
Susruta offered the traveller a mug of wine because the wine would numb his senses.

Question 2.
Why was Susruta recognized as the father of plastic surgery, today?
Answer:
Susruta was recognized as the father of plastic surgery today because he was the first physician to advocate the caesarean operation. Besides, what he did is not greatly different from what a plastic surgeon would do today.

Question 3.
What made him the father of anaesthesia?
Answer:
His suggestion to give wine to patients about to be operated upon made him the father of anaesthesia.

Question 4.
Who could become a good physician according to Susruta?
Answer:
The person who knew both theory and practice could become a good physician, according to Susruta.

Question 5.
What was his advice to his pupils?
Answer:
Susruta advised his pupils to know both theory and practice so as to become good physicians.
He also advised them to use carcasses and models for practice before surgery.

Susruta, an Ancient Plastic Surgeon Summary in English

Susruta was an ancient plastic surgeon. He learnt surgery and medicine at the feet of Divodasa Dhanvantari in his hermitage at Varanasi. Later he became an authority in both surgery and the other branches of medicine.

Once a stranger came to him. He was bleeding from his disfigured nose. Susruta took him into his room. He washed his face with water and the juice of a medicinal plast. He offered him a mug of wine. Later he started his operation. He cut a strip of flesh from the stranger’s cheek. Later he bandaged the cut in the cheek. Later he inserted two pipes into his nostrils and transplanted the flesh to the disfigured nose. Next, he dusted the nose with powdered liquorice, red sandalwood and an extract of Indian barberry. He enveloped the nose in cotton, sprinkled some refined oil on it and finally put a bandage. Thus he completed the operation.

What Susruta did is not greatly different from what a plastic surgeon would do today So, today Susruta is recognised as the father of plastic surgery, all over the world. Susrata was born in the sixth century B.C. He was a descendant of sage, Viswamitra. He was the first physician to advocate the caesarian operation. He told his pupils that one could become a good physician only if one knew both theory and practice.

Susruta, an Ancient Plastic Surgeon Glossary

surgeon (n): the doctor who does operations

physician (n): the doctor who prescribes medicines for some illness, or a particular disease

tears (n): drops of water from eyes

stranger (n): unknown person

instruments (n): tools or things to do something

approaching (v): coming close to something / someone

advice (n): suggestion