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Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Importance of Transport System on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Importance of Transport System with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Highways built across different ……….. in the country.
A) States
B) Towns
C) Villages
D) Tribal areas
Answer:
A) States

Question 2.
………….. are responsible for village roads.
A) Mandal Parishats
B) Panchayats
C) Z.Ps
D) State government
Answer:
B) Panchayats

Question 3.
………… share of travelers in India use trains.
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 1/5
D) 2/7
Answer:
C) 1/5

Question 4.
There are …………. airports in A.P.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 5.
……….. are major trading centers.
A) Port cities
B) Villages
C) Historical cities
D) Capitals
Answer:
A) Port cities

Question 6.
……….. are mostly transported by ships.
A) People
B) Goods
C) Animals
D) Plantations
Answer:
B) Goods

Question 7.
Motorcycles and ………. are used in a big way.
A) cycles
B) lorries
C) cars
D) trucks
Answer:
C) cars

Question 8.
Coal is transported through ………… transport.
A) Road
B) Rail
C) Both A & B
D) Air
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 9.
………… are more crucial in foreign trade.
A) Airports
B) Main cities
C) Seaports
D) State capitals
Answer:
C) Seaports

Question 10.
………… is a domestic airport.
A) Puttaparthi
B) Dum Dum
C) Santha Cruz
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
A) Puttaparthi

Question 11.
The paper industry uses ………….. to bring their raw material.
A) Trucks
B) Vans
C) Lorries
D) Trains
Answer:
C) Lorries

Question 12.
The ………….. maintain accounts, repair buses or work in bus depots.
A) Politicians
B) Farmers
C) Lawyers
D) Employees
Answer:
D) Employees

Question 13.
Construction and maintenance of roads are mostly under this ownership in India.
A) Public
B) Private individuals
C) Public, Private individuals
D) Foreigners Collaboration
Answer:
A) Public

Question 14.
These are connected cities in different states in our country
A) State Highways
B) National Highways
C) Village Roads
D) Z.P. road
Answer:
B) National Highways

Question 15.
The NH-7 runs through these states
A) U.P, M.P.
B) Maharashtra, Telangana
C) A.P, Karnataka, Tamilnadu
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
This government maintains the roads which connect small towns with districts
A) central government
B) state government
C) Z.P.s
D) local governments
Answer:
B) state government

Question 17.
…………. are responsible for the roads made of gravel and urban roads.
A) Gram Panchayats, Corporations, Municipalities
B) Central government, state governments
C) Central, state, and local governments
D) None
Answer:
A) Gram Panchayats, Corporations, Municipalities

Question 18.
There are ………… ports in Andhra Pradesh.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 18
D) 16
Answer:
B) 15

Question 19.
The railways are mainly used for transport these
A) coal, raw iron
B) fertilizers, cement
C) food grains
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 20.
This state has no coastal line or shipyards
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Telangana
D) Gujarat
Answer:
C) Telangana

Question 21.
The biggest shipyard out of 15 shipyards in Andhra Pradesh.
A) Kakinada
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Nijampatnam
D) Kalingapatnam
Answer:
B) Visakhapatnam

Question 22.
International trade happens through these
A) roadways
B) railways
C) waterways
D) airways
Answer:
C) waterways

Question 23.
The ways used by more in Andhra Pradesh.
A) roadways
B) railways
C) waterways
D) airways
Answer:
A) roadways

Question 24.
This share of villages has transport facilities in 2001 in Andhra Pradesh.
A) 1/2nd
B) 2/3rd
C) 3/4th
D) 4/5th
Answer:
C) 3/4th

Question 25.
The farmers should carry their produce to this place
A) Rythu Bazar
B) Market
C) Resort
D) Park
Answer:
A) Rythu Bazar

Question 26.
The no. of buses in APSRTC run by 1,20,000 employees
A) 8,000
B) 9,000
C) 20,000
D) 11,000
Answer:
C) 20,000

Question 27.
The share of two-wheelers on Andhra Pradesh roads out of one crore vehicles.
A) 1/2nd
B) 2/3 rd.
C) 3/4 th
D) 4/5th
Answer:
C) 3/4 th

Question 28.
The transport system is dependent on these
A) Availability of transport facilities
B) Transport charges
C) Both A & B
D) Gravity
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
The important means of transport to far off countries, either for human beings or for goods, from centuries together
A) Aeroplanes
B) Trains
C) Buses
D) Ships
Answer:
D) Ships

Question 30.
The people cannot move from one place to another place at this time.
A) when transport cost is more
B) when transport cost is less
C) when the people receive high incomes
D) none
Answer:
A) when transport cost is more

Question 31.
The persons who occupy pavements for business
A) Pedestrians
B) Vendors
C) Vehicle drivers
D) Common people
Answer:
B) Vendors

Question 32.
The no. of people living in, six big cities in India increased by two times during 1981 to 2001 whereas the no. of motor vehicles went up by ………….. times during the same period.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 33.
The issues which show more effect on the families of low income
A) road accidents
B) deaths
C) wounds
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 34.
In the first week of every year, the Road Transport departments all over the country celebrate
A) Library week
B) Rail week
C) Road Safety Week
D) None
Answer:
C) Road Safety Week

Question 35.
Whatever may be the means of transport one should follow
A) Traffic rules
B) Fundamental duties
C) Directive principles
D) None
Answer:
A) Traffic rules

Question 36.

What does the picture show?
A) Airport
B) Seaport
C) Island
D) Peninsula
Answer:
B) Seaport

Question 37.

What does the picture show?
A) Airport
B) Seaport
C) Factory
D) Lighthouse
Answer:
A) Airport

Question 38.
One has to prefer public transport system because
A) Over pollution due to carrying more people
B) They move long distances
C) Cost is more
D) They carry more people so that using individual vehicles reduce leading to less pollution
Answer:
D) They carry more people so that using individual vehicles reduce leading to less pollution

Question 39.
Following traffic rules help
A) To avoid accidents
B) To avoid pollution
C) To carry less luggage
D) To carry more luggage
Answer:
A) To avoid accidents

Question 40.
Find the correct statement.
1. Horse cart is a manual.
2. Bus is mechanical and manual.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 41.
Match the following:
A                                                       B
1. APSRTC                    [ ]        A) Road Transport
2. National Highways  [ ]        B) BRDB
3. State Highways        [ ]        C) Central Government
4. Border roads            [ ]        D) State Government
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
Answer:
C) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B

Question 42.
Find the correct statement.
1. Road Transport provides door-to-door delivery.
2. Railways constructions are very cheap.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 43.
If you want to travel fastly from Vijayawada to Delhi, you opted
A) Bus
B) Train
C) Aeroplane
D) Car
Answer:
C) Aeroplane

Question 44.
Most of the accidents are occurring in
A) Roadways
B) Railways
C) Airways
D) Waterways
Answer:
A) Roadways

Question 45.
Vehicles are registered at
A) Collectorate Office
B) R.T.O. Office
C) Village Office
D) Transport Minister Office
Answer:
B) R.T.O. Office

Question 46.
Which of the following we should follow when we are riding on a motorcycle?
A) Overtaking the vehicles
B) Drunk and drive the vehicles
C) Wearing a helmet
D) To run the vehicles on footpath
Answer:
C) Wearing a helmet

Question 47.
Road safety week
A) First week of January
B) Last week of January
C) the First week of December
D) Last week of December
Answer:
A) First week of January

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Electromagnetism on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 10th Lesson Electromagnetism with Answers

Question 1.
The unit of magnetic field strength is
A) Oersted
B) Ampere
C) Coloumb
D) Faraday
Answer:
A) Oersted

Question 2.
The magnetic field around a magnet is
A) one dimensional
B) two dimensional
C) three dimensional
D) none
Answer:
C) three dimensional

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is true ?
A) A magnetic field is characterized by strength and direction.
B) The direction of the magnetic field can be determined by using a compass.
C) The strength of the magnetic field varies with distance from the bar magnet.
D) all of the above
Answer:
D) all of the above

Question 4.
Statement X : The magnetic field is strong when lines are crowded.
StatementY : The magnetic field is weak when lines are spaced apart.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 5.
Statement X : If the field strength or direction of field change from point to point then the field is said to be non-uniform.
StatementY : If both field strength and direction of field are constant throughout the field then the field, is said to be uniform.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A) The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet-is non-uniform.
B) The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet is uniform.
C) Earth’s magnetic field is uniform.
D) Earth’s magnetic field is non¬uniform.
Answer:
C) Earth’s magnetic field is uniform.

Question 7.
The number of lines passing through the plane of area perpendicular to the field is called
A) magnetic field
B) magnetic flux
C) magnetic flux density
D) none
Answer:
B) magnetic flux

Question 8.
The magnetic flux passing through unit area taken perpendicular to the field is called …………………
A) magnetic flux
B) magnetic flux density
C) magnetic field induction
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 9.
The ratio of magnetic flux passing through a plane perpendicular to the field and area of the plane is called …………….
A) magnetic flux
B) magnetic flux density
C) magnetic field induction
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 10.
The S.I unit of magnetic flux is ………………..
A) Weber
B) Weber/meter2
C) Tesla
D) Both B and C
Answer:
A) Weber

Question 11.
The S.I unit of magnetic flux density is ………………….
A) Weber
B) Weber/meter²
C) Telsa
D) Both B and C
Answer:
D) Both B and C

Question 12.
Statement X : Magnetic flux represents the number of lines passing through the plane in the field.
Statement Y : The magnetic flux depends on the orientation of the plane in the field.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false.
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 13.
The general formula of the flux for any orientation of the plane taken in the field
A) Φ = BA
B) Φ = BA cos θ
C) Φ = BA sin θ
D) zero
Answer:
B) Φ = BA cos θ

Question 14.
The flux through the plane taken perpendicular to the field is……………….
A) Φ = BA
A) Φ = BA
B) Φ = BA cos θ
C) Φ = BA sin θ
D) zero
Answer:
A) Φ = BA

Question 15.
The flux through the plane taken parallel to the field is……………….
A) Φ = BA
A) Φ = BA
B) Φ = BA cos θ
C) Φ = BA sin θ
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 16.
The scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of current:
A) Oersted
B) Faraday
C) Ampere
D) Fleming
Answer:
A) Oersted

Question 17.
The shape of the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor are …………….
A) parallel lines
B) concentric circles
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) concentric circles

Question 18.
Statement X: When electric current flows vertically upwards the direction of the magnetic field lines produced by a straight conductor are in anti clock wise direction.
Statement Y : When electric current flows vertically down-wards the direction of the magnetic field lines produced by a straight conductor are in clock wise direction.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 19.
Which of the following diagram represents the direction of magnetic field lines produced by a straight conductor when an electric currentflows in up ward direction i.e out of the page?

Answer:
D

Question 20.
Statement X:
The direction of the magnetic field due to circular coil points to wards you when the current in the coil is in anti clock wise direction.
Statement Y : The direction of the magnetic field due to circular coil points away from you when the current in the coil is . clock wise direction.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A) A current carrying circular wire behaves like a thin disc magnet
B) If the current flows around the face of a circular coil in the clock-wise direction that face of the circular wire will be south pole.
C) If the current flows around the face of a circular coil in the anti clock-wise direction that face of the circular wire will be north pole.
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 22.
The direction of current flowing in a coil is shown in figure. What type of magnetic pole is formed at the face?

A) North pole
B) South pole
C) East pole
D) West pole
Answer:
A) North pole

Question 23.
Which of the following statements is, are correct?
A) A long wire wound in a closely packed helix is called solenoid.
B) The magnetic field lines set up by solenoid resemble those of a bar magnet.
C) One end of the solenoid behaves like a north pole and other behaves like a south pole when electric current flows through it.
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 24.
Statement X : The direction of the field’ outside the solenoid is from north to south.
Statement Y : The direction of the field lines inside the solenoid is from south to north.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 25.
Statement X : The strength of the magnetic field inside a solenoid is the same at all the points.
Statement Y : The strength of the magnetic field is the same at all points outside the solenoid.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 26.
Which of the following statements is aretrue ?
A) The direction of the magnetic field lines due to straight current carrying wire can be determined by using right hand rule.
B) The direction of the magnetic field lines due to circular current carrying wire can be determined by using right hand rule.
C) The direction of the magnetic field lines due to current carrying solenoid can be determined by using right hand rule.
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 27.
For the solenoid given in the diagram name the polarities A and B of a solenoid when the current flows in the direction
shown.

A) North and south
B) South and north
C) East and west
D) West and east
Answer:
A) North and south

Question 28.
Tesla is the S.I unit for ………………….
A) magnetic flux
B) magnetic flux density
C) magnetic pole strength
D) induction emf
Answer:
B) magnetic flux density

Question 29.
The direction of lines of force in the inner side of a solenoid is ………………….
A) North to south
B) South to north
C) East to west
D) West to east
Answer:
B) South to north

Question 30.
The magnetic field is called uniform if
A) strength and direction of magnetic field are changing
B) strength and direction of magnetic field are constant
C) only magnetic field strength is constant
D) only direction of magnetic field is constant
Answer:
B) strength and direction of magnetic field are constant

Question 31.
Magnetic flux density (B) = ……………..
A) Area/Magnetic flux
B) Length/Magnetic flux
C) Magnetic flux/Length
D) Magnetic flux/ Area
Answer:
D) Magnetic flux/ Area

Question 32.
If B is the magnetic flux density and A is the area of the plane then the magnetic flux is given by
A) AB
B) B/A
C) A/B
D) A²B
Answer:
A) AB

Question 33.
A current carrying circular coil has ‘n’ turns. The magnetic field produced in the entire coil is
A) 1/n times as large as that produced by a single turn
B) same as that produced by a single turn
C) ‘n’ times as large as that produced by a single turn
D) zero
Answer:
C) ‘n’ times as large as that produced by a single turn

Question 34.
The first scientist who identified the relationship between electricity and magnetism is ………………..
A) Oersted
B) Ampere
C) Lenz
D) Ohm
Answer:
A) Oersted

Question 35.
1 tesla = ………………..
A) 1 Weber
B) 1 Weber/meter²
C) 1 Watt/meter²
D) 1 Coloumb
Answer:
B) 1 Weber/meter²

CONCEPT – II: Magnetic Force on Moving Charge and Current Carrying Wire – Electric Motor

Question 36.
The equation for magnetic force on charge q when there is an angle “9” between the direction of field B and
velocity V is ………………….
A) F = Bqv
B) F = Bqv sinθ
C) F = Bqv cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
B) F = Bqv sinθ

Question 37.
The equation for magnetic force on charge ‘q’ moving perpendicular to the magnetic field is
A) F = Bqv
B) F = Bqv sinθ
C) F = Bqv cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
A) F = Bqv

Question 38.
The magnetic force on the charge ‘q’ moving parallel to the magnetic field is ……………………
A) F = Bqv
B) F = Bqv sinθ
C) F = Bqv cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 39.
Statement X : The picture on the TV screen is distorted when you bring a bar magnet near the TV screen as the magnetic field exerts a force on the moving charges.
Statement Y : When you bring a bar magnet away from the TV screen you will get a clear picture on the screen because the force exerted by the magnet on the charges disapp-ear.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 40.
The equation for magnetic force on a current carrying wire of length T/ which makes an angle ‘θ’ with the magnetic
field is ……………….
A) F = BIL
B) F = BIL sinθ
C) F = BIL cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
B) F = BIL sinθ

Question 41.
The equation for magnetic force on a current carrying wire of length T/ which is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field is ………………….
A) F = BIL
B) F = BIL sinθ
C) F = BIL cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
A) F = BIL

Question 42.
The magnetic force on a current carrying wire which is placed along a magnetic field is …………..
A) F = BIL
B) F = BIL sinθ
C) F = BIL cosθ
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 43.
In which way does the wire move which is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field and the direction of current is Shown in figure? [The direction of the magnetic field is into the page.i.e x]

Answer:
B

Question 44.
A current carrying wire of length L is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. Then the force acting on the wire with current is ……………………..
A) 0
B) ILB
C) 2ILB
D) ILB/2
Answer:
B) ILB

Question 45.
The charge is moving alongthe direction of magnetic field. Then force acting on it is ………………..
A) 0
B) Bqv sinθ
C) Bqv
D) BIL
Answer:
A) 0

Question 46.
Name the device which is used to reverse the direction of current in the coil of a
A) commutator
B) Split rings
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 47.
In an electric motor which of the following rotates with the coil ?
A) commutator
B) brush
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
A) commutator

Question 48.
In an electric motor which of the following remains fixed with the coil ?
A) commutator
B) brush
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) brush

Question 49.
In an electric motor the direction of current in the coil charge once in each ………………
A) two rotations
B) one rotation
C) half – rotation
D) one – fourth – rotation
Answer:
C) half – rotation

Question 50.
Statement X : A current carrying coil rotates when it is kept in a uniform magnetic field.
Statement Y: Net force on a current carrying coil when it is kept in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 51.
Which of the following statements is correct.
A) The direction of rotation of motor will be reversed when the direction of the current is reversed.
B) The direction of the rotation of motor will be reversed when the direction of the magnetic field is reversed.
C) The direction of the rotation of motor will remain unchanged when both current and magnetic field are reversed simultaneously.
D) AH of the above
Answer:
D) AH of the above

Question 52.
Statement X : When a current carrying wire is kept perpendi-cular to the magnetic field it experiences a force.
Statement Y : When a current carrying wire is kept along the direction (or) against the direction of magnetic field it experiences no force.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 53.
As shown in the figure a positive charge ‘q’ moves at a speed ‘v’ in a constant uniform magnetic field directed into the page. The direction of velocity is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. The direction of magnetic force on the charge ‘q’ is …………………
A) due north
B) due south
C) due west
D) due east

Answer:
A) due north

Question 54.
Which .of the following equation is correct in electro magnetism ?
A) F = \(\frac{\mathrm{qv}}{\mathrm{B} \sin \theta}\)
B) F = \(\frac{\mathrm{qB} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{v}}\)
C) F = qvBsinθ
D) F = qvBcosθ
Answer:
C) F = qvBsinθ

Question 55.
In which of the following electric energy is converted into mechanical energy ?
A) Galvanometer
B) Ammeter
C) Generator
D) Electric motor
Answer:
D) Electric motor

Question 56.
A particle of charge ‘q’ and rhass’m’ is moving with a speed V perpendicular to the magnetic field of induction B. The radius of the circular path moving by the particle is ………………….
A) mvB/q
B) mlvq/B
C) mB/vq
D) mv/Bq
Answer:
D) mv/Bq

Question 57.
If the angle between moving charge and magnetic field is 0, the magnetic force acting on the charge is given by …………….
A) qvB \(\frac{1}{\operatorname{cosec} \theta}\)
B) qvBcosθ
C) qvB. \(\frac{1}{\sin \theta}\)
D) qvB tanθ
Answer:
A) qvB \(\frac{1}{\operatorname{cosec} \theta}\)

Question 58.
No force works on the conductor carrying electric current when it is kept ………………….
A) away from magnetic field
B) in the magnetic field
C) perpendicular to magnetic field
D) parallel to magnetic field
Answer:
D) parallel to magnetic field

Question 59.
A charge ‘q’ is moving with a velocity ‘v’ in magnetic field of induction B. If the magnetic force acting on charge ‘q’ is equal to qvB, then ………………….
A) ‘q’ is moving parallel to B
B) ‘q’ is moving perpendicular to B
C) ‘q’ is moving at an angle of 45° to B
D) ‘q’ is stationary
Answer:
B) ‘q’ is moving perpendicular to B

Question 60.
If we stretch the thumb, index finger and middle finger perpendicular to each other in the right hand rule with regard to positive charge then these three fingers indicate the following direction respectively (when direction force is ‘F’, direction of velocity of charge is V, direction of field is ‘B’)
A) F, V, B
B) V, F, B
C) B,V,F
D) F, B, V
Answer:
A) F, V, B

CONCEPT – III: Electro – Magnetic Induction

Question 61.
The phenomenon of electro magnetic induction is ………………….
A) the process of charging a body.
B) the process of generating magnetic field due to current passing through a coil
C) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and a coil
D) the process of rotating a coil of electic motor
Answer:
C) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and a coil

Question 62.
Statement X : Whenever there is a continuous charge of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil a current is generated in the coil. This is Faraday’s law of electic magnetic induction.
Statement Y : The induced emf generated in a closed loop is equal to the rate of charge of magnetic flux passing through it. This is Faraday’s law of electro magnetic indue – tion.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 63.
The equation of Faraday’s law of electro magnetic induction is
A) G = Δt / ΔΦ
B) e = ΔΦ/Δt
C) e = ΔΦx Δt
D) none
Answer:
B) e = ΔΦ/Δt

Question 64.
Faraday’s law of induction is the consequence of …………….
A) law of conservation of mass
B) law of conservation of charge
C) law of conservation of energy
D) none
Answer:
C) law of conservation of energy

Question 65.
Statement X : Lenz’s law states “the induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the charges in the flux in the coil.”
Statement Y : Lenz’s law gives the direction of induced curren in a coil
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 66.
Find the length of the conductor which is moving with a speed of 10 m/sin the direction perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field of induction 0.8T, if it induces an em/of 8V between the ends of the conductor.
A) 10 m
B) 1 m
C) 100 m
D) 0.8 m
Answer:
B) 1 m

Question 67.
Which of the following works on the rule of Faraday’s law of electro -magnetic induction ?
A) Tape recorder
B) ATM machine
C) Induction stove
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 68.
The frequency of direct current is …………………
A) 0 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 60 Hz
D) 100 Hz
Answer:
A) 0 Hz

Question 69.
The frequency of alternating current (AC) supply in India is ……………..
A) 0Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 60 Hz
D) 100 Hz
Answer:
B) 50 Hz

Question 70.
Statement X : Induced emf is genera¬ted due to relative motion between the magnet and the coil
Statement Y : Induced emf is genera¬ted due to continuous charge of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil (AS 2) ( )
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 71.
The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
A) AC generator has an elector magnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet
B) DC generator will generate a higher voltage
C) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
D) AC generator has commutator while the DC generator has slip rings
Answer:
C) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

Question 72.
Statement X : A generator works on the principle of electro megnetic induction.
Statement Y : A motor works on the principle of electro magnetic induction.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 73.
The given figure represents .
A) DC
B) AC
C) both A and B
D) none

Answer:
A) DC

Question 74.
The given figure represents
A) DC
B) AC
C) both A and B
D) none

Answer:
B) AC

Question 75.
Which of the following does not work on electro magnetic induction principle
A) Transformer
B) Tape recorder
C) ATM card
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 76.
Whenever there is continuous changes of magnetic flux linked with closed coil a current is generated in coil. This is ……………..
A) Lenz’s law
B) Ampere’s law
C) Faraday’s law
D) Ohm’s law
Answer:
C) Faraday’s law

Question 77.
A conductor of length of 1m moving with velocity ‘v’ perpendicular to the magnetic field of strength 10 Tesla induces an e.m.f of 10 volts. Then v = ………….. m/s
A) 100
B) 10
C) 1
D) 0.1
Answer:
C) 1

Question 78.
The peak value of alternative current is 2 ampere. The r.m.s value of current is ………….. ampere.

Answer:
B

Question 79.
Which among the following is responsible for an induced current in the coil ?
A) Presense of galvanometer in the coil
B) Presense of magnetic flux in the coil
C) Change of magnetic flux through the coil
D) Using coil of large area of cross – section
Answer:
C) Change of magnetic flux through the coil

Question 80.
A coil has 200 turns. If an increase in , magnetic flux through one turn of coil is 0.001 Wb in 0.1 sec, then the maximum induced emf in the coil is ………….
A) 0.2 V
B) 2 V
C) 20 V
D) 20000 V
Answer:
B) 2 V

Question 81.
A metal ring is inserted through the soft iron cylinder which is wounded with copper wire when AC is supplied between the ends of the coil, then ……………..
A) the metal ring is levitated on the coil.
B) the metal ring is levitated and falls down immediately.
C) the metal ring rotates round the cylinder without levitation.
D) none.
Answer:
A) the metal ring is levitated on the coil.

Question 82.
Generator converts mechanical energy to ……………. energy.
A) sound
B) light
C) electrical
D) wind
Answer:
C) electrical

Question 83.
…………………. generated in a closed loop is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux passing through it.
A) Motional emf BD
B) Induced emf
C) Motional resistance
D) Induced resistance
Answer:
B) Induced emf

Question 84.
According to Faraday’s law the induced emf produced in a closed loop is equal to the …………….
A) magnetic flux
B) change of magnetic flux
C) rate of change of magnetic flux
D) cross – sectional area of the loop.
Answer:
C) rate of change of magnetic flux

Question 85.
A conductor is moving with a speed of 10 nVs perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field of induction 0.5 T. If the induced emf is 5 V then the length of the conductor is …………………….
A) 0.25 m
B) 0.01 m
C) 4 m
D) 1 m
Answer:
D) 1 m

Question 86.
A metal ring is inserted through the soft iron cylinder which is wounded with copper wire. When DC is supplied between the ends of the coil, then …………………….
A) the metal ring is levitated on the coil and stays there.
B) the metal ring is levitated and falls down immediately.
C) the metal ring rotate round the cylinder at the same position.
D) none
Answer:
B) the metal ring is levitated and falls down immediately.

Question 87.
A conductor of 1 m length is moving with a speed of 10 m/s in the direction perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field of induction 0.8T. The induced e.m.f between the ends of the conductor is …………………….
A) 10 V
B) 1 V
C) 2 V
D) 8 V
Answer:
D) 8 V

Question 88.
An induction stove works on this principle
A) electric induction
B) induced emf
C) electro magnetic induction
D) magnetic induction.
Answer:
C) electro magnetic induction

Question 89.
The law which states “An induced emf will appear in such a direction that it opposes the change in its flux” is …………………….
A) Faraday’s law
B) Kirchhoff’s loop law
C) Ohm’s law
D) Lenz’s law
Answer:
D) Lenz’s law

Question 90.
In which among the following the principle of electromagnetic induction is not involved ?
A) In security check, where people are made to walk through a large upright coil of wire
B) Working of tape recorder
C) Working of an electric bulb
D) Working of ATM cards.
Answer:
C) Working of an electric bulb

Question 91.
If ΔΦ/Δt is the rate of change of flux and I is the current then the electric power is …………….
A) I. (Δt/ΔΦ)
B) I. (ΔΦ/Δt)
C) I². (ΔΦ/Δt)
D) (ΔΦ/Δt)
Answer:
B) I. (ΔΦ/Δt)

Question 92.
If I₀ and V₀ are the peak values of AC and AC – emf for an AC generator, then
their rms values respectively are …………….
A) I₀/2,V₀/2
B) \(\left(\mathrm{I}_{0} / \sqrt{2}, \mathrm{~V}_{0} / \sqrt{2}\right)\)
C) \(\mathrm{I}_{0} \cdot \sqrt{2}, \mathrm{~V}_{0} \cdot \sqrt{2}\)
D) 2I₀,2V₀
Answer:
\left(\mathrm{I}_{0} / \sqrt{2}, \mathrm{~V}_{0} / \sqrt{2}\right)

Question 93.
…………….. current has some frequency
A) A.C
B) D.C
C) A.C & D.C
D) none
Answer:
A) A.C

Question 94.
Electro magnetic induction was proposed by …………….
A) Oersted
B) Faraday
C) Lenz
D) Weber
Answer:
B) Faraday

Question 95.
The rms value of current is 110\(\sqrt{2}\) A then its peak value of current is ………………
A) 220 A
B) 110 A
C) 110\(\sqrt{2}\) A
D) 1104/\(\sqrt{2}\) A
Answer:
A) 220 A

Question 96.
The device used for producing electric current is ……………..
A) generator
B) galvanometer
C) ammeter
D) motor
Answer:
A) generator

Question 97.
Statement X : DC generator uses split rings.
Statement Y : AC generator uses slip rings.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 98.
Statement X : Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy by electric motor.
Statement Y : Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy by dynamo.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Production in a Factory – A Paper Mill on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Production in a Factory – A Paper Mill with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……….. production is done at the house by small families.
A) Handicrafts
B) Heavy machinery
C) Tools
D) Machinery
Answer:
A) Handicrafts

Question 2.
Papermill needs ………. for operating its machines.
A) Robos
B) Electricity
C) Electricians
D) Officers
Answer:
B) Electricity

Question 3.
A few decades ago, contractors employed tribal people to cut from forests.
A) Hardwood
B) Sandal
C) Bamboo
D) Teak
Answer:
C) Bamboo

Question 4.
Nowadays ……………. is used instead of Bamboo.
A) Oak
B) Birch
C) Teak
D) Subabul
Answer:
D) Subabul

Question 5.
…………… is a permanent worker in the paper mill.
A) Anand
B) Umar
C) Pushpa
D) Narayana
Answer:
A) Anand

Question 6.
………… employees get bonus.
A) Temporary
B) Permanent
C) Casual workers
D) Owners
Answer:
B) Permanent

Question 7.
…………… get paid very high salaries.
A) Accountants
B) Clerks
C) Sr. Managers
D) Managers
Answer:
C) Sr. Managers

Question 8.
…………. bear the loss.
A) Accountants
B) Managers
C) Workers
D) Owners
Answer:
D) Owners

Question 9.
‘Kunawaram’ is a place of
A) tribals
B) worship
C) natural beauty
D) education
Answer:
A) tribals

Question 10.
Among the following the district which has no paper mill
A) West Godavari
B) Guntur
C) Kurnool
D) East Godavari
Answer:
B) Guntur

Question 11.
The third stage in papermaking is
A) Pressing
B) Cutting
C) Spreading the pulp
D) Chipping
Answer:
C) Spreading the pulp

Question 12.
………… is a casual worker.
A) Anand
B) Umar
C) Pushpa
D) Nazar
Answer:
C) Pushpa

Question 13.
…………. get profits from the factory.
A) Accountants
B) Owners
C) Workers
D) Clerks
Answer:
B) Owners

Question 14.
The main paper industries are here in Andhra Pradesh.
A) Andhra paper mill (Rajahmundry)
B) Kurnool
C) Guntur
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 15.
This is a primary need for producing a good.
A) raw-material
B) finished well
C) goods
D) both A & B
Answer:
A) raw-material

Question 16.
This wood is used generally in the paper industry.
A) Bamboo
B) Eucalyptus
C) Subabul
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 17.
At present this wood is used more in the paper industry.
A) Bamboo
B) Eucalyptus
C) Subabul
D) Guava
Answer:
C) Subabul

Question 18.
Newspaper product is produced by using these in the paper industry.
A) waste paper
B) wastebaskets
C) waste goods
D) none
Answer:
A) waste paper

Question 19.
These are important for the paper industry.
A) electricity
B) freshwater
C) wood, common salt, caustic soda
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 20.
Paper industries are established mainly in these areas
A) bamboo
B) the area of softwood
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 21.
This takes subabul to the machine which cuts it into pieces.
A) conveyor belt
B) crane
C) human beings
D) none
Answer:
A) conveyor belt

Question 22.
The time is taken for cutting a lorry of wood into pieces
A) 20 mts
B) 30 mts
C) 40 mts
D) 50 mts
Answer:
B) 30 mts

Question 23.
The main stage in papermaking
A) cutting into pieces
B) making of wood pulp
C) spreading the wood pulp
D) pressing
Answer:
C) spreading the wood pulp

Question 24.
The paper mill runs 24 hours a day. The workers work in three shifts of eight hour’s each. In each shift, about workers are at work.
A) 700 – 800
B) 800 – 900
C) 900- 1000
D) 1000-1100
Answer:
B) 800 – 900

Question 25.
These works In the paper industry.
A) high qualified engineers
B) who qualified ITI or Polytechnic
C) some illiterates
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 26.
The facilities provided to permanent employees
A) Provident Fund
B) Health insurance
C) Leave facilities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 27.
The earnings of daily labourers in a month in the paper industry.
A) 2000
B) 2500
C) 3000
D) 3500
Answer:
B) 2500

Question 28.
The industries which are not under the ownership of a person or a group
A) civil industries
B) public industries
C) capital industries
D) none
Answer:
B) public industries

Question 29.
This kind of pollution is caused by the paper industry.
A) air
B) water
C) land, food
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 30.
These are not provided to daily labourers.
A) PF
B) Health insurance
C) Leave facilities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 31.
What does the picture show?

A) Andhra Paper Mill
B) Coastal Paper Mill
C) Sugar factory, Vyyuru
D) Sugar factory, Tiruvuru
Answer:
A) Andhra Paper Mill

Question 32.
Fill in the empty box.

A) Papercutting
B) Making fibre
C) For uniform width, length & thickness
D) Colours adding
Answer:
C) For uniform width, length & thickness

Question 33.
Study the different stages of the papermaking process.

Which of the following is the correct order of missing stages in the places of i, ii, iii,
A) i – cutting, ii – the making of wood pulp, iii – spreading the pulp
B) i – the making of wood pulp, ii- cutting, iii – spreading the pulp
C) i – spreading the pulp, ii – cutting, iii – the making of wood pulp
D) i – made of wood pulp, ii – spreading the pulp, iii – cutting
Answer:
D) i – made of wood pulp, ii – spreading the pulp, iii – cutting

Question 34.
Which of the following is a good sign of an environmentally-friendly attitude among the students?
A) Visit the paper industries
B) Understand the paper making stages
C) Increase the chemical utilisation for papermaking
D) Reduce the usage of paper
Answer:
A) Visit the paper industries

Question 35.
To help paper mills, instead of Bamboo, Government is encouraged to grow
A) Sababul
B) Neem
C) Mangroves
D) Dale Palms
Answer:
A) Sababul

Answer the following questions based on the flow chart given below.

Question 36.
At which stage the thickness of the paper is set?
A) Cutting
B) Making of wood pulp
C) Pressing, drying and rolling
D) Spreading the pulp
Answer:
D) Spreading the pulp

Question 37.
Which of the following is the finished product of the above process?
A) Wood
B) Pulp
C) Paper
D) Fibre
Answer:
C) Paper

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Heat on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 1st Lesson Heat with Answers

CONCEPT – I : Heat – Temperature

Question 1.
If you touch a piece of wood and a piece of metal which were kept in the fridge for the same period of time then the result is
A) metal piece is colder than wooden piece
B) wooden piece is colder than metal piece
C) both are at same temperature
D) none
Answer:
A) metal piece is colder than wooden piece

Question 2.
Calorimetry is the measurement of
A) heat
B) temperature
C) pressure
D) mass
Answer:
A) heat

Question 3.
…………….. flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature.
A) Temperature
B) Heat
C) Light
D) Electricity
Answer:
B) Heat

Question 4.
Heat energy will be transferred, when two bodies are placed in thermal contact which are at different temperatures
A) from a body at lower temperature to higher temperature
B) from a body at higher temperature to lower temperature
C) no transfer of heat energy takes place
D) both A and B are correct
Answer:
B) from a body at higher temperature to lower temperature

Question 5.
The degree of hotness or coldness is …………………
A) heat
B) temperature
C) evaporation
D) boiling
Answer:
B) temperature

Question 6.
Elow of heat energy between two bodies or systems requires …………………….
A) pressure difference
B) potential difference
C) temperature difference
D) all of these
Answer:
C) temperature difference

Question 7.
……………… is a measure of thermal equilibrium
A) Temperature
B) Heat
C) Mass
D) None
Answer:
A) Temperature

Question 8.
Three bodies A, B and C are in thermal equilibrium, the temperature of B is 45°C, then the temperature of C is
A) 45° C
B) 50° C
C) 40°C
D) any temperature
Answer:
A) 45° C

Question 9.
An object .A at 10°C and another object B at 10 K are kept in contact, then heat flows from
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) A to A
D) no heat transfer
Answer:
A) A to B

Question 10.
The difference in temperature of a body measured as 27°C. Its corresponding difference in Kelvin scale is ………………..
A) 27 K
B) 300 K
C) 246 K
D) 0 K
Answer:
A) 27 K

Question 11.
The temperature of a steel rod is 330 K. Its temperature in °C is ……………………..
A) 55° C
B) 59° C
C) 53° C
D) 57° C
Answer:
D) 57° C

Question 12.
Which of the following thermometer scale is also known as absolute scale of temperature?
A) Celsius scale
B) Fahrenheit scale
C) Kelvin scale
D) None
Answer:
C) Kelvin scale

Question 13.
Which one of the following temperature scales can not take negative ?
A) Celsius scale
B) Fahrenheit scale
C) Kelvin scale
D) None
Answer:
C) Kelvin scale

Question 14.
Temperature of a body is directly proportional to
A) potential energy
B) mass
C) density
D) average kinetic energy
Answer:
D) average kinetic energy

Question 15.
Different gases are at same temperature^ Which value remains same for all gases?
A) mass
B) heat
C) linear momentum
D) average kinetic energy
Answer:
D) average kinetic energy

Question 16.
Kinetic energy of molecules is more in
A) ice at 0°C
B) water at 0° C
C) water at 100° C
D) water vapour at 100° C
Answer:
D) water vapour at 100° C

Question 17.
For some change in temperature the amount of heat absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to …………………
A) mass
B) volume
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
A) mass

CONCEPT – II : Specific heat – Method of Mixtures

Question 18.
The amount bf heat requited to raise the temperature of the unit mass of the substance by one unit is called ………………….
A) latent heat
B) 1 Calorie
C) 1 Joule
D) specific heat
Answer:
D) specific heat

Question 19.
The degree of reluctance of a substance to change its temperature
A) latent heat
B) specific heat
C) kinetic energy
D) heat
Answer:
B) specific heat

Question 20.
The rise in temperature is high for a substance, if the maximum share of given heat energy is utilised for increasing its
A) rotational energy
B) potential energy
C) vibrational energy
D) linear kinetic energy
Answer:
D) linear kinetic energy

Question 21.
Internal energy of a system is
A) vibrational energy
B) linear kinetic energy
C) rotational and potential energy
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 22.
The substance with the highest specific heat is
A) mercury
B) gold
C) ice
D) water
Answer:
D) water

Question 23.
The substance with the lowest specific heat is
A) lead
B) mercury
C) kerosene oil
D) water
Answer:
A) lead

Question 24.
‘ Same amount of heat is supplied to two liquids A and B.
The liquid B shows greater rise in temperature. What can you say about the specific heat of B as compared to A?
A) Specific heat of B is less than that of A
B) Specific heat of B is greater than that of A
C) Can’t say
D) Specific heat of B is same as that of A
Answer:
A) Specific heat of B is less than that of A

Question 25.
Heat store houses on the earth
A) Trees
B) Mountains
C) Oceans
D) Coal
Answer:
C) Oceans

Question 26.
Which of the following is used as coolant?
A) ice
B) water
C) petrol
D) kerosene oil
Answer:
B) water

Question 27.
The S.I unit of specific heat is
A) Cal/g -°C
B) J/kg – K
C) Cal/kg -K
D) J/kg
Answer:
B) J/kg – K

Question 28.
The C.G.S unit of specific heat is
A) Cal/g- °C
B) Cal/kg – K
C) J/kg – K
D) Cal/kg – K
Answer:
A) Cal/g- °C

Question 29.
Specific heat S =
A) Q/Δt
B)Q Δt
C) Q/mΔt
D) mΔt/Q
Answer:
C) Q/mΔt

Question 30.
1 Cal/g -°C =
A) 4.2 × 10³J/kg – K
B) 4.2 × 10^-3 J/kg – K
C) 4.2 J
D) 4.2 × 10⁶J/kg – K
Answer:
A) 4.2 × 10³J/kg – K

Question 31.
If the specific heat is low, the rate of rise or fall in temperature is ………………. for the same quantity of heat supplied.
A) low
B) more
C) equal
D) can’t say
Answer:
B) more

Question 32.
Which of the following equation is used to determine howmuch heat is needed to raise the temperature of a certain mass of the substance through certain degrees?
A) Q = mL
B) Q = m Δt
C) Q = mS Δt
D) Q = it
Answer:
C) Q = mS Δt

Question 33.
Regarding the specific heat of water which of the following is correct ?
a) Its value in S.I system is 4180 J/kg – K
b) It’s value in C.G.S. system is 1 Cal/g-°C
c) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of substance by one unit
d) Specific heat changes the temperature of the body.
A) a, b
B) a, b, c
C) a, b, c, d
D) only b
Answer:
C) a, b, c, d

Question 34.
Statement I : The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of substance through 1 °C is known as specific heat of the substance.
Statement II: The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of water through 1°C is 1 calorie.
Which of the above statements is true?
A) Both are true
B) Both are false
C) Statement I is true and II is false
D) Statement I is false and II is true
Answer:
A) Both are true

Question 35.
Mercury is preferred as thermometric fluid because of its
A) high thermal conductivity
B) low specific heat capacity
C) uniform thermal expansion
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 36.
Net heat lost by the hot bodies = Net heat gained by the col d bodies (if heat is noi lost by any other process). This is known as
A) Principle of Pascal
B) Principle of Archimedes
C) Principle of method of mixtures
D) None
Answer:
C) Principle of method of mixtures

Question 37.
The temperature (T) of two samples of the same substance with masses m₁ and m₂ and temperatures T₁ and T₂ when added together is
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{1}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)
C) \(\frac{m_{1} T_{1}+m_{2} T_{2}}{T_{1}+T_{2}}\)
D) m₁T₁ = m₂T₂
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\)

Question 38.
The temperature of mixture of equal quantities of water at 90°C and water at
60°C when added together is ………………….
A) 60° C
B) 70° C
C) more than 90° C
D) 75° C
Answer:
D) 75° C

Question 39.
The temperature of mixture of two samples of the same substance is 70°C. One of the samples of 100 ml at 90°C and the other sample at 60°C. Find the quantity of other sample
A) 100 ml
B) 200 ml
C) 300 ml
D) 400 ml
Answer:
B) 200 ml

Question 40.
127° C + 400 K + x = 1000 K. The value of x is …………………
A) 200 K
B) 273 K
C) 473 K
D) 800 K
Answer:
A) 200 K

Question 41.
Which among the following material has specific heat more than that of ice?
A) Water
B) Glass
C) Mercury
D) Copper
Answer:
A) Water

Question 42.
A person is not feeling hot or cold with surroundings then he is in the state of
A) thermal equilibrium
B) high temperature
C) low temperature
D) both high and low temperature
Answer:
A) thermal equilibrium

Question 43.
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of water to 1°C is ………….. (in Jouls)
A) 4.186
B) 4. 286
C) 4.108
D) 4. 208
Answer:
A) 4.186

Question 44.
The substance that is having least specific heat from the following …………………
A) Zinc
B) Mercury
C) Water
D) Kerosene
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 45.
The C.G.S unit of heat from the following is ……………………
A) Joule
B) Calorie
C) Kelvin
D) Celsius
Answer:
B) Calorie

Question 46.
The S.I unit of heat from the following is …………………….
A) Joule
B) Calorie
C) Kelvin
D) Celsius
Answer:
A) Joule

Question 47.
The S.I unit of temperature from the following is ………………………
A) Joule
B) Calorie
C) Kelvin
D) Celsius
Answer:
C) Kelvin

Question 48.
The final temperature of a mixture of 100g of water at 30°C temperature and 100g of water at 60°C temperature is ………………………
A) 45° C
B) 70° C
C) 90° C
D) 130° C
Answer:
A) 45° C

Question 49.
Specific heat of Cu is 0.095, iron 0.115, brass 0.092 and water 1. Which of the above can be heated quickly when they are kept in sunlight with same masses?
A) Iron
B) Brass
C) Copper
D) Water
Answer:
B) Brass

Question 50.
1 gm of water at 20°C is heated till its temperature raises to 21 °C. The amount of heat energy absorbed by the water is ………………..
A) 1 Joule
B) 1 calorie
C) 1 Kilo calorie
D) 2 Joule
Answer:
B) 1 calorie

Question 51.
1 kg of water at 300 K is heated till its temperature raises to 301K. The amount of heat energy absorbed by the water is …………………..
a) 1 Joule
b) 1 calorie
c) 1 K. calorie
d) 4180 J
A) a, b
B) a,c
C) c,d
D) a, c, d
Answer:
C) c,d

Question 52.
The heat energy required to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water from 25 °C to 75 °C is (in calories) …………………
A) 10³
B) 10⁴
C) 10⁵
D) 10⁶
Answer:
D) 10⁶

Question 53.
The heat absorbed by the substance depends on
A) mass
B) temperature change
C) specific heat
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 54.
Evaporation of liquid takes place at the ………………..
A) bottom
B) middle
C) surface
D) edges only
Answer:
C) surface

Question 55.
Water is used in car radiators of engine as coolant because of ………………….
A) its density is more
B) high specific heat
C) high thermal conductivity
D) free availability
Answer:
B) high specific heat

CONCEPT – III : Changes of States

Question 56.
The process of escaping of molecules from the surface of a liquid at any temperature is called ……………………..
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) melting
Answer:
A) evaporation

Question 57.
Evaporation is a ……………… process.
A) warming process
B) cooling process
C) A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) cooling process

Question 58.
Evaporation is a ………….. phenomenon.
A) bulk
B) hot
C) surface
D) none
Answer:
C) surface

Question 59.
The temperature of a system during evaporation
A) raises
B) remains same
C) falls
D) can’t say
Answer:
C) falls

Question 60.
Evaporation takes place at ………………. temperature
A) 100° C
B) 50° C
C) 28° C
D) any temperature
Answer:
D) any temperature

Question 61.
The phase change from liquid to gas that occurs at the surface of liquid at any temperature is called ………………………
A) freezing
B) melting
C) boiling
D) evaporation
Answer:
D) evaporation

Question 62.
If the surface of the liquid exposed to air the evaporation process takes place up to ………………….
A) full quantity of liquid evaporates
B) half of the quantity of liquid evaporates
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)of the quantity of liquid evaporates
D) some quantity of die liquid evaporates
Answer:
A) full quantity of liquid evaporates

Question 63.
Rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on ………………….
A) surface area
B) temperature
C) humidity
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 64.
Statement I : The rate of evaporation slows down as the water vapour increases in the air
Statement II : At a given temperature air can hold only fixed amount of water.
A) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
B) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
C) Both statements are correct
D) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
C) Both statements are correct

Question 65.
A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot season because……………….
A) fan provides cool air
B) it increases humidity
C) of the evaporation of sweat
D) fan cools the surrounding air
Answer:
C) of the evaporation of sweat

Question 66.
During phase change of a substance ……………………
A) temperature remains constant
B) temperature increases
C) temperature decreases
D) temperature may increase or decrease
Answer:
A) temperature remains constant

Question 67.
Among the following phenomenon the evaporation process involved in ……………………..
a) wet clothes dry in the air
b) the floor becomes dry after washing with water
c) sprinkling of the spirit on the skin gives coldness
d) we feel cooling while getting sweat
A) a and b
B) a, b and c
C) a, b, c and d
D) only a
Answer:
C) a, b, c and d

Question 68.
The rate of evaporation of the liquid is faster in ……………………
A) a cup
B) saucer
C) test tube
D) can’t say
Answer:
B) saucer

Question 69.
The reverse process of evaporation takes place in ……………………….
A) boiling
B) melting
C) freezing
D) condensation
Answer:
D) condensation

Question 70.
The phase change from gas to liquid is called …………………..
A) evaporation1
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) freezing
Answer:
B) condensation

Question 71.
Which of the following is a warming process?
A) evaporatipn
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) all
Answer:
B) condensation

Question 72.
The amount of water vapour present in air is called ………………….
A) boiling
B) pressure
C) humidity
D) heat
Answer:
C) humidity

Question 73.
The water droplets condensed on the surfaces of window – panes, flowers, grass etc are known as ……………………..
A) humidity
B) dew
C) fog
D) none
Answer:
B) dew

Question 74.
Condensed and floating water droplets in the air is called …………………..
A) dew
B) fog
C) ice
D) cloud
Answer:
B) fog

Question 75.
Dew and fog form due to
A) evaporation
B) melting
C) boiling
D) condensation
Answer:
D) condensation

Question 76.
Water droplets form on the outer surface of the glass tumbler filled with cold water due to
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) boiling
D) melting
Answer:
B) condensation

Question 77.
Which of the following condensation restricts visibility in the surrounding air?
A) dew
B) fog
C) both
D) none
Answer:
B) fog

Question 78.
‘Which of the following phenomena are reverse of each other ?
A) melting & boiling
B) melting & evaporation
C) boiling & evaporation
D) evaporation & condensation
Answer:
D) evaporation & condensation

Question 79.
A person feels warm when he stays . inside the bathroom after bath because of ……………….
A) evaporation of water
B) condensation of water vapour
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B.
Answer:
B) condensation of water vapour

Question 80.
Statement I : During evaporation the temperature of the evaporating liquid decreases.
Statement II: During condensation the temperature of the surrounding air increases
A) Both I and II are true
B) I is true, II is false
C) I is false, II is true
D) Both I and II are false
Answer:
A) Both I and II are true

Question 81.
The sultryness in summer days is due to
A) Melting
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) Humidity
Answer:
D) Humidity

Question 82.
The liquid phase changes to gaseous phase at a constant temperature at a given pressure is called ………………………..
A) evaporation
B) melting
C) boiling
D) condensation
Answer:
C) boiling

Question 83.
The temperature of the liquid while boiling
A) remains constant
B) increases
C) decreases
D) can’t say
Answer:
A) remains constant

Question 84.
If heat is supplied to water continuously, the temperature of water …………………
A) increases continuously
B) decreases
C) increases continuously till it reaches 100° C
D) can’t say
Answer:
C) increases continuously till it reaches 100° C

Question 85.
The heat energy required to change 1gm of liquid to gas at constant temperature is called …………………..
A) specific heat
B) latent heat of vapourization
C) latent heat of fusion
D) calorie
Answer:
B) latent heat of vapourization

Question 86.
The latent heat of vapourization of liquid of “m”gm when the heat energy of “Q” calories is supplied to change its state from liquid to gas is ………………
A) m/Q
B) Q/m
C) Q × m
D) mS Δt
Answer:
B) Q/m

Question 87.
C.G.S unit of latent heat of vapourization is ……………….
A) cal/gm
B) gm/cal
C) calorie
D) cal/gm-°C
Answer:
A) cal/gm

Question 88.
S.I unit of latent heat of vapourization is ………………………
A) kg/J
B) J/Kg
C) J/kg – K
D) Joule
Answer:
B) J/Kg

Question 89.
1 cal/gm = ………………..
A) 1 J/Kg
B) 4.186 J
C) 4.186 × 10³ J/Kg
D) 4.186 × 10^-3J/Kg
Answer:
C) 4.186 × 10³ J/Kg

Question 90.
The boiling point of water at 1 atm is ………………
A) 100° C
B) 540 cal/gm
C) 373 K
D) both A and C
Answer:
D) both A and C

Question 91.
The latent heat of vapourization of water is ………………..
A) 100° C
B) 80 cal/gm
C) 540 cal/gm
D) 373 K
Answer:
C) 540 cal/gm

Question 92.
The process in which solid phase changes to liquid phase at a constant temperature is called
A) boiling
B) melting
C) condensation
D) freezing
Answer:
B) melting

Question 93.
The melting point of an ice at 1 atm is
A) 0° C
B) 273 K
C) 100° C
D) both A and B
Answer:
A) 0° C

Question 94.
When ice melts its temperature ?
A) remains constant
B) increases
C) decreases
D) cannot say
Answer:
A) remains constant

Question 95.
The heat energy required to convert 1 gm of solid completely into liquid at a constant temperature is called ……………….
A) specific heat
B) 1 calorie
C) latent heat of fusion
D) latent heat of vapourization
Answer:
C) latent heat of fusion

Question 96.
The latent heat of fusion of ice is …………………
A) 80 cal/gm
B) 540 cal/gm
C) 0°C
D) 100° C
Answer:
A) 80 cal/gm

Question 97.
S.I unit of latent heat of fusion is
A) cal/ gm
B) J/Kg
C) J/Kg – K
D) cal/Kg – K
Answer:
B) J/Kg

Question 98.
C.G.S unit of latent heat of fusion is
A) cal/gm
B) J/kg
C) J/kg – K
D) cal/g – ° C
Answer:
A) cal/gm

Question 99.
How much heat energy is required to convert 1 gm of ice to liquid
A) 540 cal
B) 80 cal
C) 100 cal
D) 373 cal
Answer:
B) 80 cal

Question 100.
The latent heat of fusion of a solid ‘ substance of mass “m” is L. The required amount of heat to change solid phase to liquid phase is ……………… cal.
A) Q = mL
B) Q = mSΔt
C) 80
D) 540
Answer:
A) Q = mL

Question 101.
The amount of heat needed to change from ice to water at 0° C is 80 cal. Find the mass of the substance taken.
A) 100 g
B) 1 g
C) 80 g
D) 20 g
Answer:
B) 1 g

Question 102.
What will be the amount of heat required to convert 50g of water at 100°C to steam at 100° C ?
A) 5400 cal
B) 2,700 cal
C) 400 cal
D) 4000 cal
Answer:
B) 2,700 cal

Question 103.
What amount of ice can be melted by 4000 cal of heat ?
A) 20 g
B) 30 g
C)40g
D)50g
Answer:
D)50g

Question 104.
Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 5 gm of ice at 0° C to water at 100° C.
A) 900 cal
B) 400 cal
C) 500 cal
D) 100 cal
Answer:
A) 900 cal

Question 105.
Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 50 gm of water at 30° C to water at 100° C.
A) 3, 500 cal
B) 1725 cal
C) 2, 700 cal
D) 4000 cal
Answer:
A) 3, 500 cal

Question 106.
Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 100 g of ice at – 5° C to 0° C.
A) 350 cal
B) 250 cal
C) 400 cal
D) 2,700 cal
Answer:
B) 250 cal

Question 107.
The process in which the substance in liquid phase changes to solid phase is called ………………….
A) melting
B) boiling
C) freezing
D) condensation
Answer:
C) freezing

Question 108.
Freezing of water takes place at ………………
A) 100° C, 1 atm
B) 0° C, 1 atm
C) 80° C, 1 atm
D) 373 K, 1 atm
Answer:
B) 0° C, 1 atm

Question 109.
Statement I : The internal energy of water decreases during freezing.
Statement II : The heat energy given to the ice is totally utilized in breaking the bonds between the water molecules during melting.
A) both statements are correct
B) both statements are incorrect
C) I is correct but II is incorrect
D) I is incorrect but II is correct
Answer:
A) both statements are correct

Question 110.
When water freezes to form ice, its volume will
A) decrease
B) increase
C) remains same
D) can’t day
Answer:
B) increase

Question 111.
Ice floats on water because
A) density of ice is more then water
B) density of ice is less than water
C) densities of ice and water are equal
D) none
Answer:
B) density of ice is less than water

The graph shows the values of temperature, when 1 g of ice is heated till it becomes water vapour. Observe the graph and answer the following questions. (112 – 125)

Question 112.
At what temperature ice converts into water ?
A) 0°C
B) -20° C
C) 100°C
D) 50°C
Answer:
A) 0°C

Question 113.
At what temperature water converts into water vapour
A) 0° C
B) -20° C
C) 100° C
D) 50° C
Answer:
C) 100° C

Question 114.
What is the range of temperature of liquid water ?
A) -20° C to 0° C
B) 0° C to 100° C
C) -20° C to 100° C
D) 100°C to >100° C
Answer:
B) 0° C to 100° C

Question 115.
What is the range of temperature of solid ice ?
A) -20° C to 0° C
B) 0°Ctol00°C
C) -20° C to 100° C
D) any range
Answer:
A) -20° C to 0° C

Question 116.
Which part of the graph represents change of state from ice to water ?
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\)
D) \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\)

Question 117.
Which part of the graph represents change of state from water to water vapour ?
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\)
D) \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\)
Answer:
D) \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\)

Question 118.
Which part of the graph represents only temperature change but not phase change?
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\)
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{EF}}\)
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 119.
Which part of the graph represents only phase change but not temperature change ?
A) \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\)
C) \(\overline{\mathrm{EF}}\)
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 120.
The temperature of ice at B
A) -20° C
B) 0° C
C) 100° C
D) 110° C
Answer:
B) 0° C

Question 121.
The temperature of water vapour at E
A) 0° C
B) -20° C 1
C) 100°C
D) more than 100° C
Answer:
C) 100°C

Question 122.
The physical state and temperature of an ice at D
A) liquid, 0° C
B) liquid, 100° C
C) ice,0°C
D) gas, 100° C
Answer:
B) liquid, 100° C

Question 123.
What is the state of ice at E ?
A) solid
B) liquid
C) vapour
D) sublimation
Answer:
C) vapour

Question 124.
What is the value of Q at B ?
A) 10 cal
B) 90 cal
C) 190 cal
D) 730 cal
Answer:
A) 10 cal

Question 125.
The amount of heat energy absorbed by ice at E
A) 10 cal
B) 90 cal
C) 190 cal
D) 730 cal
Answer:
D) 730 cal

Question 126.
Statement A: Heat is absorbed by a substance during melting and boiling
Statement A : Heat is released from a substance duringfreezing and liquification
A) A is true, B is false
B) A is false, B is true
C) Both are true
D) Both are false
Answer:
C) Both are true

Question 127.
During phase change of a substance ……………………
A) temperature remains constant
B) temperature increases
C) temperature decreases
D) temperature may increase or decrease
Answer:
A) temperature remains constant

Question 128.
X g of water is heated from y° C to z° C. The quantity of heat required in calories …………………….
A) x. (\(\frac{y}{z}\))
B) x (\(\frac{z}{y}\))
C) x(z – y)
D) x (z + y)
Answer:
C) x(z – y)

Question 129.
The liquid which expands during its change of state into solid state is ………………….
A) water
B) alcohol
C) mercury
D) liquid wax
Answer:
A) water

Question 130.
At this temperature water changes into gaseous state, (in Kelvin)
A) 100
B) 373
C) 273
D) 173
Answer:
B) 373

Question 131.
The boiling point of water might be less at this place.
A) Hyderabad
B) Ooty
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Ooty

Question 132.
The heat energy required to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water from 25° C to 75° C.
A) 10³ cal
B) 10⁴ cal
C) 10⁵ cal
D) 10⁶ cal
Answer:
D) 10⁶ cal

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Principles of Metallurgy on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 11th Lesson Principles of Metallurgy with Answers

CONCEPT -I: Occurrence of the Metals & Reactivity of Metals

Question 1.
Metallurgy is .the process of extraction of ……………from the ores.
A) Non metals
B) Metals
C) Metalloids
D) Noble gases
Answer:
B) Metals

Question 2.
The alloy of copper and tin is ………………
A) Brass
B) Bronze
C) Steel
D) Stainless steel
Answer:
B) Bronze

Question 3.
The metals which are available in native form are ………………
A) Au
B) Ag
C) Cu
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 4.
The elements or compounds of the metals which occur in nature in the earth crust are called ………………
A) ores
B) minerals
C) gangue
D) slag
Answer:
B) minerals

Question 5.
The minerals from which the metals are extracted without economical loss are called ………………
A) gangue
B) slag
C) calcination
D) ore
Answer:
D) ore

Question 6.
The ore of aluminium is ………………
A) Clay
B) Bauxite
C) Horn silver
D) Haematite
Answer:
B) Bauxite

Question 7.
Match the following:
a) Horn silver — i) Kcl. MgCl₂. 6H₂O
b) Haematite — ii) AgCl
c) Cinnabar — iii) Fe₂O₃
d) Camalite — iv) Hgs
A) a → ii, b → iii, c→ iv, d → i
B) a→ i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
D) a → iv, b → i, c → di, d → iii
Answer:
A) a → ii, b → iii, c→ iv, d → i

Question 8.
Arranging metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity is called ………….
A) Reactivity series
B) Lyman series
C) Balmer series
D) Pfund series
Answer:
A) Reactivity series

Question 9.
The following are examples for high reactivity mentals ………….
i) Potassium
ii) Sodium
iv) Magnesium
A) Only i
B) Both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 10.
Ores of many metals are ………….
A) oxides
B) chlorides
C) sulphides
D) both A and C
Answer:
D) both A and C

Question 11.
Find the odd one out based on reactivity.
A) K
B) Na
C) Au
D) Ca
Answer:
C) Au

Question 12.
The ore of calcium metal among the following ………….
A) Bauxite
B) Lime stone
C) Rock salt
D) Haematite
Answer:
B) Lime stone

Question 13.
The fusible product formed when the impurity present in ore react with flux is called ………….
A) Gangue
B) Slag
C) Mineral
D) Alloy
Answer:
B) Slag

Question 14.
Carnalite is the ore of ………….
A) Pb
B) Mg
C) Hg
D) Zn
Answer:
B) Mg

Question 15.
The metal extracted from Gelena is ………….
A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Mg
D) Zn
Answer:
B) Pb

Question 16.
The metals having high reactivity from the following K, Na, Mg, Zn, Cu, Au
A) Zn, Cu, Au
B) Cu, Zn, Mg
C) K, Na, Mg
D) Na, Mg, Zn
Answer:
C) K, Na, Mg

Question 17.
The ore of mercury is ………….
A) Galena
B) Cinnabar
C.) Gypsum
D) Zincite
Answer:
B) Cinnabar

Question 18.
The metal which do not displace hydrogert from dil. HCl is ………………
A) Zn
B) Mg
C) Cu
D) Fe
Answer:
C) Cu

Question 19.
The formula of Gelena is
A) ZnS
B) MnO₂
C) CaC0₃
D) PbS
Answer:
D) PbS

Question 20.
Match the following :
a) Copper Iron Pyrites — i) ZnS
b) Zinc blende — ii) Cu FeS₂
c) Magnesite — iii) MgSO₄. 7H₂O
d) Epsom salt — iv) MgCO₃
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → d
C) a → ii, b → d, c → iv, d → iii
D) a → iv, b → ii, c → i, d → iii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → d, c → iv, d → iii

Question 21.
Match the following :
a) Horn silver — i) MnO₂
b) Pyrolusite — ii) AgCl
c) Zincite — iii) NaCl
d) Rock salt — iv) ZnO
A) a → i, b→ii, c → iii, d →iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii
D) a → iv, b → ii, c → i, d→iii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii

Question 22.
The reactivity of metals Al, Ag and Cu decrease in this order.
A) AZ > Cu > Ag
B) Ag > Cu > Al
C) Ag > Al> Cu
D) Cu > Ag > Al
Answer:
A) AZ > Cu > Ag

CONCEPT – II: Extraction of metals from their ores

Question 23.
The stages involved in extraction of metal from its ore ……………..
A) Concentration or dressing
B) Extraction of crude metal
C) Refining or purification of the metal
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 24.
The impurity present in ore is called……………..
A) Gangue
B) Flux
C) Slag
D) Mineral
Answer:
A) Gangue

Question 25.
Which of the following is a carbonate ore ?
A) Magnesite
B) Bauxite
C) Gypsum
D) Galena
Answer:
A) Magnesite

Question 26.
Which of the following is the correct formula of Gypsum ?
A) CUSO₄.2H₂O
B) CaSO₄. 1/2 H₂O
C) CuSO₄. 5H₂O
D) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
Answer:
D) CaSO₄. 2H₂O

Question 27.
Cinnabar is an ore of ……………..
A) Zn
B) Pb
C) Hg
D) Al
Answer:
C) Hg

Question 28.
The metal that occur in native form is……………..
A) Pb
B) Au
C) Fe
D) Hg
Answer:
B) Au

Question 29.
The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is ……………..
A) silver
B) aluminium
C) zinc
D) iron
Answer:
B) aluminium

Question 30.
The oil used in the froth floatation process is……………..
A) kerosene oil
B) pine oil
C) coconut oil
D) olive oil
Answer:
B) pine oil

Question 31.
Froth floatation is a method used for the purification of ……………..ore.
A) sulphide
B) oxide
C) carbonate
D) nitrate
Answer:
A) sulphide

Question 32.
Getting rid of unwanted rocky material from ore is ……………..
A) Concentration
B) Enrichment of ore
C) Dressing
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
The method used for concentration of Galena is ……………..
A) Hand picking
B) Froth floatation
C) Washing
D) Magnetic separation
Answer:
B) Froth floatation

Question 34.
The process used for concentration in the given diagram is ……………..

A) Hand picking
B) Washing
C) Froth floatation
D) Magnetic seperation
Answer:
C) Froth floatation

Question 35.
…………….. method is used for concentration of magnetite ore
A) Hand picking
B) Washing
C) Froth floatation
D) Magnetic seperation
Answer:
D) Magnetic seperation

Question 36.
The process involved in the given diagram is……………..

A) Hand picking
B) Washing
C) Froth floatation
D) Magnetic separation
Answer:
D) Magnetic separation

Question 37.
Normal reductions are not suitable for the above given activity series because……………..
A) Temperature required for reduction is too high
B) Temperature required for reduction is too small
C) More expensive
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 38.
The method used for extraction of metals at the top of the activity series is ……………..
A) Simple reduction of their oxides
B) Electrolysis of their aqueous solutions
C) Electrolysis of their fused compounds
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Electrolysis of their fused compounds

Question 39.
During electrolysis of NaCZ the substances formed at anode and cathode are ……………..
A) Na, Cl₂
B) Cl₂, Na
C) Na₂, Cl
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Cl₂, Na

Question 40.
The ores of metals in the middle of activity series generally present in the form of……………..
i) Oxides
ii) Chlorides
iii) Sulphates
iv) Sulphides
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (i) and (iii)
C) (ii) and (iii)
D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
D) (i) and (iv)

Question 41.
In extraction of metals in the middle of activity series before reduction they are converted into ……………..
A) Metal chlorides
B) Mefal carbonates
C) Metal oxides
D) Metal sulphates
Answer:
C) Metal oxides

Question 42.
The ore is heated in the presence of oxygen or air below its melting point is called ……………..
A) Calcination
B) Roasting
C) Smelting
D) Poling
Answer:
B) Roasting

Question 43.
During Roasting …………….. ore is converted into …………….. ore.
A) Sulphide, Chloride
B) Chloride, Oxide
C) Sulphide, Oxide
D) Sulphide, Nitrate
Answer:
C) Sulphide, Oxide

Question 44.
The methods used to extract metals in the middle of the activity series are ……………..
i) Reduction of metal oxides with carbon
ii) Reduction of metal oxides with carbon mono oxide
iii) Auto reduction
iv) Reduction of ore by more reactive metals
A) Only (i)
B) Both (i) and (ii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 45.
The reducing agent in thermite process is ……………..
A) Al
B) Mg
C) Fe
D) Si
Answer:
A) Al

Question 46.
When cinnabar is heated in air it first converted into …………….. and then reduced to ……………..
A) HgO, Hg
B) CuO, Cu
C) Hg, HgO
D) ZnO, Zn
Answer:
A) HgO, Hg

Question 47.
The process of obtaining the pure metal from impure metal is called ……………..
A) Roasting
B) Calcination
C) Smelting
D) Refining
Answer:
D) Refining

Question 48.
The …………….. method suitable for purification of low boiling metals.
A) Distillation
B) Poling
C) Liquation
D) Electrolytic refinery
Answer:
A) Distillation

Question 49.
The …………….. method is suitable for purification of low melting metals.
A) Distillation
B) Poling
C) Liquation
D) Electrolytic refinery
Answer:
C) Liquation

Question 50.
Blister copper is purified by using……………..
A) Distillation
B) Poling
C) Liquation
D) Calcination
Answer:
B) Poling

Question 51.
Match the following:
a) Distillation — i) Tin
b) Electrolytic refinery — ii) Zinc, Mercury
c) Liquation — iii) Copper
A) a→i, b → ii, c →iii
B) a → iii, b →ii, c → i
C) a →ii, b → iii, c → i
D) a →iii, b →i, c → ii
Answer:
C) a →ii, b → iii, c → i

Question 52.
The anode mud formed during electrolysis of acidified copper sulphate is ……………..
i) Antimony
ii) Selenium
iii) Tellurium
iv) Silver
A) Only (i)
B) Both (i) and (ii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 53.
Tarnishing of silver is due to formation of ……………..
A) Silver chloride
B) Silver nitrate
C) Silver sulphate
D) Silver sulphide
Answer:
D) Silver sulphide

Question 54.
Corrosion of iron occurs in the presence of …………….. and……………..
A) kerosene, water
B) air, water
C) air, oil
D) kerosene, alcohol
Answer:
B) air, water

Question 55.
The chemical name of rust ……………..
A) Hydrated zinc oxide
B) Hydrated ferric oxide
C) Hydrated copper oxide
D) Hydrated calcium oxide
Answer:
B) Hydrated ferric oxide

Quesiton 56.
The formula of rust is……………..
A) Fe₂O₃
B) FeO
C) Fe₂O₃. XH₂O.
D) Fe(OH)₃
Answer:
C) Fe₂O₃. XH₂O.

Question 57.
If carbon dioxide is dissolved in water it produces……………..acid
A) Carbonic
B) Hydrochloric
C) Chlorous
D) Sulphuric
Answer:
A) Carbonic

Question 58.
Pyro chemical process means process which takes place in the presence of ……………..
A) lightz
B) water
C) heat
D) electricity
Answer:
C) heat

Question 59.
Pyro chemical process among these :……………..
A) Smelting
B) Roasting
C) Calcination
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 60.
The purpose of smelting an ore is to …………….. it
A) oxidise
B) reduce
C) neutralise
D) none of these
Answer:
B) reduce

Question 61.
The chemical process in which the ore is heated in the absence of air is called ……………..
A) Roasting
B) Calcination
C) Smelting
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Calcination

Question 62.
The method used to convert magnesite to oxide ore is ……………..
A) Roasting
B) Calcination
C) Smelting
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Calcination

Question 63.
…………….. is substance added to ore to remove the gangue ?
A) Flux
B) Slag
C) Rust
D) Mineral
Answer:
A) Flux

Question 64.
Which of the following is useful to remove acidic gangue
i) CaO
ii) MgO
iii) FeO
iv) Si02
A) Only (i)
B) Both (i) and (ii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) All of these
Answer:
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 65.
Which of the following is useful to remove basic gangue
A) SiO₂
B) CO₂
C) P₂O₅
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 66.
…………….. is used to carry pyro chemical process.
A) Furnace
B) Hearth
C) Chimney
D) Fire box
Answer:
A) Furnace

Question 67.
…………….. is place inside the funace where ore is kept for heating purpose.
A) Furnace
B) Hearth
C) Chimney
D) Fire box
Answer:
B) Hearth

Question 68.
For heamatite ore………………. is used as fuel and …………. is used as flux.
A) coke, quick lime
B) coke, lime stone
C) charcoal, lime stone
D) charcoal, quick lime
Answer:
B) coke, lime stone

Question 69.
Smelting is carried out in a…………….. furnace.
A) Reverberatory
B) Open hearth
C) Restart
D) Blast
Answer:
D) Blast

Question 70.
…………….. furnace is used for roasting.
A) Reverberatory
B) Open hearth
C) Retart
D) Blast
Answer:
A) Reverberatory

Question 71.
…………….. is the outlet through which flue (waste) gases go out of the furnace.
A) Hearth
B) clumney
C) Fire box
D) None of these
Answer:
B) clumney

Question 72.
…………….. is the part of furnace where the fuel is kept for burning.
A) Hearth
B) Chimney
C) Fire box
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Fire box

Question 73.
In……………..furnace both fire box and hearth are combined in big chamber which accommodates both ore and fuel.
A) Reverberatory
B) Open hearth
C) Retart
D) Blast
Answer:
D) Blast

Question 74.
…………….. furnace has both fire box and hearth separated.
A) Reverberatory
B) Open hearth
C) Retart
D) Blast
Answer:
A) Reverberatory

Question 75.
In……………..furnace there is no direct contact between the hearth and fire box.
A) Reverberatory
B) Open hearth
C) Retart
D) Blast
Answer:
C) Retart

Question 76.
Thermite reaction involves reaction of metal oxide with ……………..
A) Ag
B) Fe
C) Al
D) Hg
Answer:
C) Al

Question 77.
Generally metallic oxides are converted into metals by ……………..
A) Roasting
B) Calcination
C) Oxidation
D) Reduction
Answer:
D) Reduction

Question 78.
The reducing agent used to join railings of railway tracks is ……………..
A) Al
B) CO₂
C) SO₂
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Al

Question 79.
In electrolysis the reaction that takes place at cathode is ……………..
A) Oxidation
B) Reduction
C) Redox reaction
D) None
Answer:
B) Reduction

Question 80.
The impurities present in the metal are oxidized in this method ……………..
A) Liquation
B) Poling
C) Distillation
D) Auto reduction
Answer:
B) Poling

CONCEPT -III: Corrosion

Question 81.
Blast furnace is mainly suitable for ……………..
A) Smelting
B) Roasting
C) Calcination
D) Oxidation
Answer:
A) Smelting

Question 82.
The chemical formula of rust is
A) Fe₂O₃.XH₂O
B) FeO
C) FeS
D) Fe₂O₅
Answer:
A) Fe₂O₃.XH₂O

Question 83.
Which of the following is used as reducing agent in metallurgical process.
A) Coke
B) O₂
C) KMnO₄
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Coke

Question 84
Which of the following represents calcination ?
im
Answer:
A

Question 85.
Rusting of iron is ……………..
A) reduction process
B) oxidation process
C) chemical decomposition
D) none of these
Answer:
B) oxidation process

Question 86.
A common metal which is highly resistant to corrosion is ……………..
A) Magnesium
B) Aluminium
C) Copper
D) Iron
Answer:
B) Aluminium

Question 87.
Steel is an alloy of ……………..
A) iron and aluminium
B) carbon and manganese
C) zinc and iron
D) iron and carbon
Answer:
D) iron and carbon

Question 88.
Match the following:
a) Magnesite — i) Ca
b) Horn silver — ii) Mg
c) Lime stone — iii) Fe
d) Haematite — iv) Ag
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a → iv, b → ii, c → i, d → iii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 89.
Match the following:
a) Sulphate ore — i) Magnasite
b) Carbonate ore — ii) Epsum salt
c) Oxide ore — iii) Rock salt
d) Chloride ore — iv) Haematite
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → iii b → ii, c → i, d—iv
D) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii
Answer:
D) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Carbon and its Compounds on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 12th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds with Answers

Concept – 1 : Versatile Nature of Carbon

Question 1.
The following is not correct about carbon
A) It is a non metal
B) It belongs to 14th group
C) Its electron configuration is 1s² 2s²2p²
D) Its valency is 3
Answer:
D) Its valency is 3

Question 2.
The electronegativity of carbon is
A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2.5

Question 3.
Thecovalency of carbon is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 4.
Match the following:
a) Methane — i) sp
b) Ethylene or ethene — ii) sp³
c) Acetylene or ethyne — iii) sp²
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
B) a → iii, b → ii, c → i
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i .
D) a → ii, b → i, c → iii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i

Question 5.
Match the following:
a) Methane — i), 180°
b) Ethene — ii) 109° 28′
c) Ethyne — iii) 120°
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
B) a → iii, b → ii, c i
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i
Answer:
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i

Question 6.
Carbon (Z=6) is the element of group-IVA of periodic table. Which of the following is the atomic number of next number in the group
A) 9
B) 14
C) 15
D) 17
Answer:
B) 14

Question 7.
The number of sigma and pi bonds in ethene are …………,………………respectively.
A) 1, 5
B) 2, 3
C) 3,2
D) 5,1
Answer:
D) 5,1

Question 8.
Number of sigma and pi bonds in ethyne are ……………
A) 2, 3
B) 3, 2
C) 4,1
D) 1, 4
Answer:
B) 3, 2

Question 9.
Ethylene is common name for ……………….
A) ethene
B) ethane
C) ethyne
D) ethanol
Answer:
A) ethene

Question 10.
Acetylene is common name for ……………..
A) ethane
B) ethene
C) ethyne
D) ethanol
Answer:
C) ethyne

Question 11.
The number of a bonds in methane is …………………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
C) 4

Question 12.
The electronic configuration of carbon in excited state is ………………….
A) 1s² 2s² 2p¹_y2p¹_z
B) 1s² 2s¹ 2p¹_x2p¹_y2p¹_z
C) 1s² 2s² 2p¹_x 2p¹_y
D) 1s² 2s² 2p²x
Answer:
B) 1s² 2s¹ 2p¹_x2p¹_y2p¹_z

Question 13.
The bond angle in C₂H₂ molecule is
A) 109° 28′
B) 120°
C) 180°
D) 107°
Answer:
D) 107°

Question 14.
How many unpaired electrons the carbon atom posseses in the ground state?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
A) 2

Question 15.
The type of hybridization in CH₄ molecule is ………..
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) sp³d
Answer:
C) sp³

Question 16.
Which of the following molecules undergo sp hybridisation ?
A) CH₄
B) C₂H₄
C) C₂H₆
D) C₂H₂
Answer:
D) C₂H₂

Question 17.
Who among the following disproved vitalism theory ?
A) Berzelius
B) Linus pauling
C) Autbau
D) Wohler
Answer:
D) Wohler

Question 18.
The bond angle in C₂H₄ is
A) 109° 28′
B) 180°
C) 104° 27′
D) 120°
Answer:
D) 120°

Question 19.
The chemical bonds present in C₂H₂ are
A) 2 sigma and 3 pi
B) 1 sigma and 2 pi
C) 3 sigma and 2 pi
D) 2 sigma and 1 pi
Answer:
C) 3 sigma and 2 pi

Question 20.
n – butane and isobutane are
A) structural isomers
B) functional isomers
C) stereo isomers
D) geometrical isomers
Answer:
A) structural isomers

CONCEPT – II – Allotropes of Carbon

Question 21.
The property of an element to exist in two or more physical forms with same chemical properties but different physical properties is called
A) catenation
B) isomerism
C) allotropy
D) conjugation
Answer:
C) allotropy

Question 22.
The amorphous forms of carbon allutropes
i) coal
ii) coke
iii) animal charcoal
iv) diamond
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
D) i, ii and iii

Question 23.
The crystalline forms of carbon allotropes
i) diamond
ii) graphite
iii) lamp black
iv) buckminster fullerene
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iv
D) all of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Question 24:
The hybridisation present in diamond is
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) dsp²
Answer:
C) sp³

Question 25.
The hardest material among these is ……………….
A) diamond
B) graphite
C) buckminster fullerene
D) coke
Answer:
A) diamond

Question 26.
In diamond each carbon atom has a …………………… environment.
A) trigonal planar
B) tetrahedral
C) square planar
D) pyramidal
Answer:
B) tetrahedral

Question 27.
Graphite forms ……………. layer structure.
A) one dimensional
B) two dimensional
C) three dimensional
D) none of these
Answer:
B) two dimensional

Question 28.
In layer structure of graphite the carbon atoms are in ………………. environment.
A) trigonal planar
B) tetrahedral
C) square planar
D) pyramidal
Answer:
A) trigonal planar

Question 29.
The hybridisation present in graphite is …………………….
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) d²sp³
Answer:
B) sp²

Question 30.
The distance between two successive layers of graphite is…………….
A) 1.35 A°
B) 2.35 A°
C) 3.35 A°
D) 4.35 A0
Answer:
C) 3.35 A°

Question 31.
The use of graphite is ……………….
A) lubricant
B) lead in pencils
C) good conductor of electricity
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 32.
Delocalized n system is present in …….
A) diamond
B) charcoal
C) coal
D) graphite
Answer:
D) graphite

Question 33.
Graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to ………………….
A) delocalized a system
B) localized n system
C) delocalized n system
D) localized a system
Answer:
C) delocalized n system

Question 34.
Buckminster fullerene was discovered by ………………
A) Robert F. Curl
B) Harold W.Kroto
C) Richard E. Smalley
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 35.
Bucky balls are ………………. fullerences.
A) cylindrical
B) spherical
C) conical
D) elliptical
Answer:
B) spherical

Question 36.
The shape of Buckminster fullerene is ………………..
A) soccer ball
B) cricket ball
C) basket ball
D) base ball
Answer:
A) soccer ball

Question 37.
The pentagonal and hexagonal faces in Buckminster fullerene are ……………… and ………………. respectively.
A) 12, 20
B) 20,12
C) 12,18
D) 18,12
Answer:
A) 12, 20

Question 38.
The hybridisation present in Buckminster fullerene is ……………….
A) sp³
B) sp²
C) sp
D) sp³d²
Answer:
B) sp²

Question 39.
……. is useful in curing melanoma cancer.
A) Diamond
B) Graphite
C) Fullerene
D) Nano tube
Answer:
C) Fullerene

Question 40.
Nano tubes were discovered by …………………
A) H. W. Kroto
B)-RE. Smalley
C) Sumi Li Jima
D) R. F. Curl
Answer:
C) Sumi Li Jima

Question 41.
The uses of nano tubes are
i) used as molecular wires
ii) used in integrated circuits instead of copper
iii) biomolecules are inserted into nano tubes to inject them into a single cell
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) none of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 42.
Graphene is extracted from
A) graphite
B) diamond
C) nano tube
D) coal
Answer:
A) graphite

Question 43.
…………. conducts electricity better than copper
A) Graphite
B) Graphene
C) Nano tubes
D) Buckminster fullerene
Answer:
B) Graphene

Question 44.
…………… named the compounds derived from living organisms as organic compound
A) Wohler
B) Berzelius
C) Lewis
D) Pauling
Answer:
B) Berzelius

Question 45.
The first synthetic carbon compound is …….. and it was prepared by …………
A) Acetic acid, Wohler
B) Alcohol, Berzelius
C) Urea, Wohler
D) Dimethyl, Lewis
Answer:
C) Urea, Wohler

Question 46.
The formula of Urea is
A) NH₄CNO
B) CO(NH₂)₂
C) CH₃CONH₂
D) C₃H₇NH₂
Answer:
B) CO(NH₂)₂

Question 47.
The formula of ammonium cyanate is ……………..
A) NH₄CNO
B) CO(NH₂)₂
C) CH₃COONa
D) CH₃NH₂
Answer:
A) NH₄CNO

Question 48.
The ability to form longest chains with its own atoms is ………..
A) Allotropy
B) Isomerism
C) Catenation
D) Combustion
Answer:
C) Catenation

Question 49.
The following elements show catenation.
A) carbon
B) sulphur
C) phosphorous
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 50.
The properties which made carbon as versatile element
i) Tetra valency
ii) Catenation
iii) Isomerism
iv) Formation of multiple bonds
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 51.
The hardest material among the allotropes of carbon is
A) diamond
B) graphite
C) coke
D) coal
Answer:
A) diamond

Question 52.
Which of the following is not an electric conductor?
A) nano tube
B) graphene
C) diamond
D) graphite
Answer:
C) diamond

Question 53.
In integrated circuit ………….. are used instead of copper to connect the components together
A) graphite
B) C₆₀
C) nano tubes
D) PVC
Answer:
C) nano tubes

CONCEPT – III : Hydro Carbons

Question 54.
Hydrocarbons contains the following elements
A) H, C
B) H, CO
C) N, C
D) H, Cl
Answer:
A) H, C

Question 55.
The characteristic properties of an organic compound which depend on atom or group of atoms in its molecule is known as …………………
A) standard group
B) functional group
C) associate group
D) alkyl group
Answer:
B) functional group

Question 56.
The phenomenon of possessing same molecular formula but different properties by compounds in known as ……..
A) Allotropy
B) Catenation
C) Isomerism
D) Combustion
Answer:
C) Isomerism

Question 57.
Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A) C₂H₄
B) C₂H₂
C) C₃H₆
D) C₂H₆
Answer:
D) C₂H₆

Question 58.
The general formula of alkynes is
A) C₂H_2n+2
B) C_nH_2n-2
C) C_nH_2n
D) C_nH_2n+1
Answer:
B) C_nH_2n-2

Question 59.
Match the following :
a) Alkanes — i) Hydrocarbons containing double bonds
b) Alkenes — ii) Hydrocarbons containing triple bonds
c) Alkynes — iii) Hydrocarbons containing single bonds
A) a → i, b → iii, c → ii
B) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
C) a → iii, b → i, c → ii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i
Answer:
C) a → iii, b → i, c → ii

Question 60.
Match the following :
a) Alkanes i) C₂H_2n-2
b) Alkenes ii) C₂H_2n+2
c) Alkynes iii) C₂H_2n
A) a → ii, b → iii, c → i
B) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
C) a → iii, b → ii, c → i
D) a → iii, b → i, c → ii
Answer:
a) Alkanes i) C₂H_2n-2

Question 61.
The hydrocarbon having single bonds between the carbon atoms is ……………
A) Ethane
B) Ethene
C) Propene
D) Butyne
Answer:
A) Ethane

Question 62.
The number of hydrogen atoms in octane is ………………
A) 8
B) 18
C) 16
D) 14
Answer:
B) 18

Question 63.
To detect the leakage of gas from the cylinder the substance added to the gas is……..
A) C₂H₅SH
B) C₂H₅OH
C) CH₃COOH
D) CH₃CHO
Answer:
A) C₂H₅SH

Question 64.
Which of the following compound is not a hydrocarbon ?
A) R—CH₃
B) RCH —CH₂
C) RCH₂OH
D) CH₃CH = CH₂
Answer:
B) RCH —CH₂

CONCEPT – 4 : Nomenclature of Hydrocarbons

Question 65.
IUPAC name of alkene containing 3 carbon atoms is ………………..
A) ethene
B) propene
C) butene
D) pentene
Answer:
B) propene

Question 66.
Carbon compounds containing double bonds and triple bonds are called ………….. hydrocarbons.
A) saturated
B) unsaturated
C) super saturated
D) none of these
Answer:
B) unsaturated

Question 67.
Number of single covalent bonds in ammonia is . …………..
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 68.
Which one of the following hydrocarbon can show isomerism
A) C₂H₄
B) C₂H₆
C) C₃H₈
D) C₄H₁₀
Answer:
D) C₄H₁₀

Question 69.
The number of structural isomers for pentane is
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 70.
The series of carbon compounds in which two successive compounds differ -CH₂ unit is called …………..
A) Reactivity series
B) Homologous series
C) Lyman series
D) Balmer series
Answer:
B) Homologous series

Question 71.
Match the following:
a) Alcohol — i) — CHO
b) Aldehyde — ii) OH
c) Ketone — iii) COOH
d) Acid — iv) C0
A) a → i1b →ii,c →iii,d →iv
B) a →iv,b →iii,c →ii,d →i
C) a →ii,b →i,c →iv,d →iii
D)a →iv,b →ii,c →iii,d →i
Answer:
C) a →ii,b →i,c →iv,d →iii

Question 72.
Match the following
a) Butanol — i) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-COOH
b) Pentanoic acid — ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂– CHO
c) Propanone — iii) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-OH
d) Hexanal — iv) CH₃COCH₃
A) a → i,b → ii,c → iii,d → iv
B) a → iv,b → iii,c → ii,d → i
C) a → iii,b → i,c → iv,d → ii
D) a → iv,b → ii,c → iii,d → i
Answer:
C) a → iii,b → i,c → iv,d → ii

Question 73.
A compound which is a basic constituent of many cough syrups
A) Methanol
B) Ethanol
C) Ethyl alcohol
D) Both B and C .
Answer:
D) Both B and C .

Question 74.
Very dilute solution of ethanoic acid is …………..
A) Vinegar
B) Baking soda
C) Washing soda
D) Quick lime
Answer:
A) Vinegar

Question 75.
The functional group present in methanol is ……….
A) Alcohol
B) Aldehyde
C) Acid
D) Ketone
Answer:
A) Alcohol

Question 76.
The first member of homologous series among alkynes is ………………..
A) Methyne
B) Ethyne
C) Propyne
D) Butyne
Answer:
B) Ethyne

Question 77.
The suffix used for naming aldehyde is ………….
A) — ol
B) — al
C) — one
D) — ene
Answer:
B) — al

Question 78.
—NH₂ group is called …………….
A) ester
B) ether
C) amine
D) amide
Answer:
C) amine

Question 79.
Combustion of hydrocarbon is generally accompanied by the evolution of ……………..
A) heat
B) light
C) both heat and light
D) electric current
Answer:
C) both heat and light

Question 80.
Oxidation of ethyl alcohol forms
A) ethanoic acid
B) acetic acid
C) formic acid
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 81.
The oxidizing agent used for conversion of alcohols to carboxylic acids is …………….
A) Alkaline potassium dichromate
B) Manganese dioxide
C) Acidified potassium dichromate
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 82.
The catalyst used in hydrogenation of oils is ………………..
A) Pd
B) Pt
C) Ni
D) Co
Answer:
C) Ni

Question 83.
Unsaturated organic compounds participate in …………….. reactions.
A) substitution
B) addition
C) elimination
D) rearrangement
Answer:
B) addition

Question 84.
A reaction in which an atom or a group of atoms in a compound is replaced by other atom or group of atoms is called
……………… reaction.
A) addition
B) elimination
C) substitution
D) rearrangement
Answer:
C) substitution

Question 85.
Paraffins are ………………..
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) Alcohols
Answer:
A) Alkanes

Question 86.
Saturated hydrocarbons (Alkanes) participate in ……………… reactions.
A) addition
B) substitution
C) elimination
D) rearrangement
Answer:
B) substitution

Question 87.
The process of conversion of starches and sugars to ethyl alcohol is called ……………..
A) carbonisation
B) esterification
C) condensation
D) fermentation
Answer:
D) fermentation

Question 88.
2 – Methyl propane is also called
A) Iso propane
B) n-butane
C) n – propane
D) Isobutane
Answer:
D) Isobutane

Question 89.
The IUPAC name of
HO – CH₂– CH₂– CH₂– COOH.
A) 1 – hydroxy – 4 -butanoic acid
B) 4 – carboxyl – 1 – butanol
C) 3 – hydroxy -1- propanoic acid
D) 4 – hydroxy -1 – butanoic acid
Answer:
D) 4 – hydroxy -1 – butanoic acid

Question 90.
Esters are dervivatives of ………………….
A) Ketones
B) Alcohols
C) Ethers
D) Carboxylic acids
Answer:
D) Carboxylic acids

Question 91.
The name of the structure
CH₃ – CH = C = CH₂ is
A) Butene
B) Buta – 1, 2 – diene
C) Butadiene
D) 1, 3 – butadiene
Answer:
B) Buta – 1, 2 – diene

Question 92.
CH₃ – NH – CH₃ is known as
A) primary amine
B) teritituted amine
C) secondary amine
D) quaternary ammonium salt
Answer:
C) secondary amine

Question 93.
The general formula of ester is
A) R – O – R
B) R – CO – R
C) R-COOR
D) R – CHO
Answer:
C) R-COOR

Question 94.
The functional group in ketone is
A)
B) —COOH
C) —OH
D) — COOR
Answer:
A)

Question 95.
The functional group which is recognised as alcohol is
A) —CHO
B) —OH
C) —CO
D) —COOH
Answer:
B) —OH

Question 96.
The unsaturated hydrocarbon that contains multiple bonds undergo the following type of reaction to become a saturated hydrocarbon.
A) combustion
B) addition
C) oxidation
D) substitution
Answer:
B) addition

Question 97.
If CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – COOH is the IUPAC structure of carbon compound, then the carbon compound is
A) Butene
B) Butanol
C) Butanoic acid
D) But – 1 – ene
Answer:
C) Butanoic acid

Question 98.
If the carbon compound has many functional groups, then the order of preference while naming according to IUPAC nomenclature is
A) CONH₂ > CHO > NH₂ > — COOH
B) — COOH >CONH₂ > CHO NH₂
C) — CHO > CONH₂ > COOH > NH₂
D) — COOH > CHO > NH₂ > CONH₂
Answer:
B) — COOH >CONH₂ > CHO NH₂

Question 99.
The IUPAC name of
NH₂ – CH₂ – CHOH – CH₂ – COOH is
A) 1 – amino – 2 hydroxy butanoic acid
B) 3 – hydroxy – 4 – amino butanoic acid
C) 4 – amino – 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid
D) 1 – amino – 3 – hydroxy butyric acid
Answer:
C) 4 – amino – 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid

Question 100.
IUPAC name of Cl₃C – CH₂ – CHO
A) 3, 3, 3 – trichloro propanal
B) 3, 3, 3 – trichloro propanol
C) 1,1,1 – trichloro propanol
D) 1,1,1 – trichloro propanal
Answer:
A) 3, 3, 3 – trichloro propanal

Question 101.
IUPAC name of

A) chloro butane
B) 2 – chloro butane
C) 2, 3 – chloro butane
D) 2, 3 – dichloro butane
Answer:
D) 2, 3 – dichloro butane

Question 102.
Simplest ketone is
A) CH₃COCHg
B) CH₃COCH₂CH₃
c) CH₃COCH₂CH₂CH₃
D) CH₃CH₂CHO
Answer:
A) CH₃COCHg

Question 103.
Simplest acid is
A) Ethanoic acid
B) Methanoic acid
C) Propanoic acid
D) Butanoic acid
Answer:
B) Methanoic acid

Question 104.
The IUPAC name of following structure is

A) 2 – chloro – butanoic acid
B) 3 – chloro butanoic acid
C) 3 – chloro – pentanoic acid
D) 2 – chloro pentanoic acid
Answer:
B) 3 – chloro butanoic acid

CONCEPT – 5 : Some Important Carbon Compounds

Question 105.
Match the following:
a) Methyl chloride i) CHCl₃
b) Methylene chloride ii) CH₃Cl
c) Chloroform iii) CH₂Cl₂
d) Carbon tetra chloride iv) CCl₄
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → i, d → ii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv
Answer:
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv

Question 106.
Match the following:
a) Ethanol i) Acetic acid
b) Ethanoic acid ii) Acetaldehyde
c) Ethanal iii) Chloroform
d) Trichloro iv) Ethyl alcohol
methane
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
C) a → iii, b → ii, c. → iv, d → i
D) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii
Answer:
D) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii

Question 107.
Pure ethanol is called …………….
A) absolute alcohol
B) rectified spirit
C) denaturated spirit
D) None of these
Answer:
A) absolute alcohol

Question 108.
Denaturated alcohol is ethanol that contains impurities like ……………..
A) Methanol
B) Methyl isobutyl ketone
C) Aviation gasoline
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 109.
When sodium metal is dropped in ethanol ………………. gas will be released.
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Hydrogen

Question 110.
The product that is formed by dehydration of ethanol in concentrated sulphuric acid is ……………….
A) Ethane
B) Ethene
C) Ethyne
D) Ethanal
Answer:
B) Ethene

Question 111.
Which of the four tubes containing
following chemicals show the brisk effervescence when dilute acetic acid is added to them ?
i) KOH
ii) NaHCO₃
iii) K₂CO₃
iv) NaCl
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i&iv
D) i & iii
Answer:
B) ii & iii

Question 112.
A sweet odour substance formed by reaction of an alcohol and carboxylic acid is ……………………..
A) Ether
B) Aldehyde
C) Ketone
D) Ester
Answer:
D) Ester

Question 113.
Which of the following solution of acetic acid in water can be used as preservative.
A) 5 -10 %
B) 10 -15 %
C) 15 – 20 %
D) 100 %
Answer:
A) 5 -10 %

Question 114.
Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, dissociates into ions reversibly because it is a
A) weak acid
B) strong acid
C) weak base
D) strong base
Answer:
A) weak acid

Question 115.
2 ml of ethanoic acid was taken in three test tubes A, B and C and 2 ml, 4 ml and 8 ml water was added to them respectively. A clean solution is obtained in
A) Test tube A only
B) Test tubes A & B only
C) Test tubes B & C only
D) All the test tubes
Answer:
D) All the test tubes

Question 116.
If 2 ml of acetic acid is added slowly in drops to 5 ml of water then we will notice
A) the acid forms a separate layer on the top of water
B) water forms a separate layer on the top of the acid
C) formation of clear and homogeneous solution
D) formation of pink and clear solution
Answer:
C) formation of clear and homogeneous solution

Question 117.
A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to sodium carbonate. The possible results of the reaction :
A) A hissing sound was evolved
B) Brown fumes evolved
C) Brisk effervescence occurred
D) A pungent smelling gas evolved
Answer:
C) Brisk effervescence occurred

Question 118.
When acetic acid reacts with ethyl o alcohol, we add coiic.H₂S0₄ . It acts as and the process is called
A) oxidizing agent, saponification
B) dehydrating agent, esterification
C) reducing agent, esterification
D) acid and esterification
Answer:
B) dehydrating agent, esterification

Question 119.
The strength of acids may be expressed in terms of
A) H⁺ ion concentration
B) pH
C) PK_a
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 120.
Sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid is……
A) soap
B) detergent
C) indicator
D) soda
Answer:
A) soap

Question 121.
Match the following
a) Palmitric acid — i) C₁₇H₃₅COOH
b) Stearic acid — ii) C₁₇H₃₃COOH
c) Oleic acid — iii) C₁₇H₃₁COOH
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
B) a → iii, b ii, c → i
C) a → iii, b → i, c → ii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i ‘
Answer:
C) a → iii, b → i, c → ii

Question 122.
Alkaline hydrolysis of tri esters of higher fatty acids producing soaps is called
A) esterification
B) hydrolysis
C) saponification
D) neutralization
Answer:
C) saponification

Question 123.
Ravi added acid to the metal hydrogen carbonate and observed the gas evolved. The evolved gasis
A) O₂
B) N₂
C) H₂
D) CO₂
Answer:
D) CO₂

Question 124.
The carboxylic acid used to preserve pickles is
A) Methanoic acid
B) Propanoic acid
C) Ethanoic acid
D) Butanoic acid
Answer:
C) Ethanoic acid

Question 125.
CH₃ — CH₂ — OH reacts with alkaline KMnO₄ and heats to form first the compound A, which futher oxidises to form a compound B. The name of compound B is
A) Ethanol
B) Ethanal .
C) Formaldehyde
D) Acetic acid
Answer:
D) Acetic acid

Question 126.
But – 2 – yne reacts with H₂ in the presence of ‘NT catalyst to form But -1 – ene. This reaction is an example of ………………….
A) substitution reaction
B) addition reaction
C) elimination reaction
D) rearrangement reaction
Answer:
B) addition reaction

Question 127.
Which of the following organic compounds undergoes substitution reaction ?
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) All
Answer:
A) Alkanes

Question 128.
Which of the following substitution products is not formed when methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight ?
A) chloroform
B) carbon chloride
C) methylene chloride
D) ethyl chloride
Answer:
D) ethyl chloride

Question 129.
The process of conversion of starch and sugar into ethanol by using enzymes is called
A) Fermentation
B) Esterification
Q Carbonization
D) Pyrolysis
Answer:
A) Fermentation

Question 130.
The sweet odour substance formed by the reaction of an alcohol and carboxylic acid is
A) ester
B) amine
C) ether
D) aldehyde
Answer:
A) ester

Question 131.
The general formula of alcohol is
A) C_nH_2n+1OH
B) C_nH_2n+1NH₂
C) C_nH_2n+1CH0
D)(C_nH_2n+1)₂O
Answer:
A) C_nH_2n+1OH

Question 132.
In combustion of alkane the heat energy is
A) absorbed
B) liberated
C) neither absorbed nor liberated
D) depends on alkane
Answer:
B) liberated

CONCEPT VI: Soap – Saponification Micelle

Question 133.
A spherical aggregate of soap molecule in water is called …………….
A) nucleus
B) cell nucleus
C) micelle
D) none of these
Answer:
C) micelle

Question 134.
CMC means
A) Critical Molar Concentration
B) Conical Molar Concentration
C) Critical Micelle Concentration
D) Conical Micelle Concentration
Answer:
C) Critical Micelle Concentration

Question 135.
In true solution the solute particle diameter is
A) more than 1 nm
B) less than 1 nm
C) equal to 1nm
D) none of these
Answer:
B) less than 1 nm

Question 136.
The polar end in micelle ……………… in nature.
A) hydrophilic
B) hydrophobic
C) isochoric
D) isothermal
Answer:
A) hydrophilic

Question 137.
The non polar end in micelle is ……………. in nature.
A) hydrophilic
B) hydrophobic
C) isochoric
D) Isothermal
Answer:
B) hydrophobic

Question 138.
The carboxyl end in micelle is …………….. in nature.
A) polar
B) non- polar
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
A) polar

Question 139.
The hydrocarbon chain in micelle is ……………. in nature.
A) polar
B) non-polar
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) non-polar

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Industrial Revolution on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Industrial Revolution with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
During ………….. A.D. machines and steam power began to be increasingly used to produce goods.
A) 1750-1850
B) 1850-1860
C) 1650-1660
D) 1950-1960
Answer:
A) 1750-1850

Question 2.
In the 1840s ……….. devised a method of laying road using broken stones.
A) John L.Mc Adam
B) Kruthika
C) James Watt
D) Boulton
Answer:
A) John L.Mc Adam

Question 3.
In the ………. century the industrial workers of Europe had to face several hardships.
A) 18th
B) 20th
C) 21st
D) 19th
Answer:
D) 19th

Question 4.
Major changes swept industries with the coming of ………..
A) Computers
B) Machines
C) Factories
D) Tools
Answer:
B) Machines

Question 5.
The invention of the steam engine boosted …………. industry.
A) Shipping & Textile
B) Aviation
C) Roads
D) None
Answer:
A) Shipping & Textile

Question 6.
The beginning of ‘machine age’ started in ………….
A) France
B) Russia
C) Britain
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Britain

Question 7.
………… invested the necessary money for Watt.
A) John Me Adam
B) George Stephenson
C) Graham Bell
D) Boulton
Answer:
D) Boulton

Question 8.
………….. made goods that were cheap and durable.
A) Computers
B) Machines
C) Steam engines
D) Roads
Answer:
B) Machines

Question 9.
George Stephenson’s locomotives pulled heavy loads along ………….. kilometre track from Liverpool to Manchester.
A) 54 km
B) 64 km
C) 74 km
D) 44 km
Answer:
B) 64 km

Question 10.
Disallowing children under …………… years of age from being employed in mines or factories.
A) 15 years
B) 16 years
C) 14 years
D) 13 years
Answer:
C) 14 years

Question 11.
Trade between countries in America, Europe, Africa and Asia increased manifold in these years.
A) 1000 AD to 1500 AD
B) 1500 AD to 1800 AD
C) 1800 AD to 2000 AD
D) 2000 AD to 2500 AD
Answer:
B) 1500 AD to 1800 AD

Question 12.
The different phases of cloth weaving could be done in different places, but the finishing work was done in before it was sold in other countries.
A) Washington
B) Paris
C) London
D) Moscow
Answer:
C) London

Question 13.
The no. of craft persons used in every phase in making clothes by every trader
A) 20 to 25
B) 25 to 30
C) 30 to 35
D) 35 to 40
Answer:
A) 20 to 25

Question 14.
The phase in which the trade dominated craft person.
A) Pre industrialisation phase
B) Proto industrialisation phase
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Pre industrialisation phase

Question 15.
Around ……………… machines and steam power began to be increasingly used to produce goods and people from one place to another.
A) 1600
B) 1650
C) 1700
D) 1750
Answer:
D) 1750

Question 16.
As a result of the pressure of ………….. several people make machines.
A) trade
B) work stress
C) both A & B
D) roadways
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 17.
The steam engine was invented by
A) Copernicus
B) John Gutenberg
C) James Watt
D) Boulton
Answer:
C) James Watt

Question 18.
This person was not involved in inventing the steam engine
A) James Watt
B) Boulton
C) Copernicus
D) None
Answer:
C) Copernicus

Question 19.
Between 1750 – 1850, a new system called the ………. emerged.
A) Law amendment
B) Factory system
C) Capitalism
D) Socialism
Answer:
B) Factory system

Question 20.
All facilities needed for production were owned and managed by individuals called …………
A) Socialists
B) Landowners
C) Capitalists
D) Landlords
Answer:
C) Capitalists

Question 21.
The investment for machinery and labour is
A) capital
B) rent
C) integrated cost
D) contemporary cost
Answer:
A) capital

Question 22.
The factory workers in Europe face dreadful problems in this century.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
B) 19

Question 23.
The working hours in industries in the 19th century.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Answer:
C) 12

Question 24.
Only ………… could set up mechanised factories.
A) poor
B) middle class
C) wealthy merchants
D) landlords
Answer:
C) wealthy merchants

Question 25.
The main demand of the workers in the beginning time
A) 8 or 10 working hours
B) higher salaries
C) disallowing children under 14 years of age from being employed in mines or factories etc.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 26.
Energy is available from …………. needed to run machines in a factory.
A) coal
B) electricity
C) petrol
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 27.
…………… locomotive pulled heavy loads along a 64 km track from Liverpool to Manchester at a speed of 46 km per hour.
A) George Stephenson
B) James Watt
C) John Loudon Me Adam
D) Rolland Pal
Answer:
A) George Stephenson

Question 28.
James Watt was an ……….. Craftsman.
A) Russian
B) German
C) English
D) French
Answer:
C) English

Question 29.
The inventor of the Aeroplane in the early period of 20th century.
A) George Stephenson
B) Wright Brothers
C) Brayon Brothers
D) William Brothers
Answer:
B) Wright Brothers

Question 30.
In order to serve the interests of their own trade and industry, the European countries made colonies in these continents.
A) Asia, Africa
B) Australia, America
G) Antarctica
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 31.
Due to the industrial revolution
A) migrations increased to towns
B) a hurdle was created for sanitation and other facilities
C) freshwater supply made difficult
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 32.
Labour fought for these
A) Civil rights
B) Construction of houses
C) Improvement in the conditions of labour
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
Wright Brothers: Air crafts: : Locomotives: ………….
A) James Watt
B) Me Adam
C) George Stephenson
D) None
Answer:
C) George Stephenson

Question 34.
What does the picture show?

A) Spinning Jenny
B) Road connecting position wheel
C) Child labour
D) Manufacturing good
Answer:
A) Spinning Jenny

Question 35.
What does the picture show?

A) Machinery
B) Child labour
C) Weaving
D) Repairing
Answer:
B) Child labour

Question 36.
Who noticed that steam had so much strength that it could move enormous weight?
A) Me. Adam
B) Wright Brothers
C) Captain Cook
D) James Watt
Answer:
D) James Watt

Question 37.
Which of the following is cheaper and less polluting?
A) Thermal power
B) Hydel power
C) Nuclear power
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Hydel power

Question 38.
The main result of the industrial revolution
A) The number of agriculturists increased
B) Machines took place of manpower
C) The importance of city life decreased
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Machines took place of manpower

Question 39.
The machine age started in Britain firstly – The reason is
A) There was not available skilled labour
B) It was geographically suitable for machines
C) It has more colonies throughout the world
D) The traders wanted to increase their productivity
Answer:
D) The traders wanted to increase their productivity

Question 40.
“A cloth trader in Britain purchased cotton from a cotton supplier”. This belongs to
A) Under putting out system
B) Guild system
C) Factory system
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Under putting out system

Question 41.
Find the wrong statement.
1. Industrial Revolution first started in England.
2. James Watt invented Steam Engine.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 42.

Australia was colonised by
A) Spain
B) England
C) Holland
D) Portuguese
Answer:
B) England

Question 43.
The north part of Africa was colonised by
A) the USA
B) Italy
C) Turkey
D) Brazil
Answer:
C) Turkey

Question 44.
In 1840 a method of laying road using broken stones was devised by
A) Me Grath
B) Me Adam
C) Me Breath
D) Me Dyke
Answer:
B) Me Adam

Question 45.
Who noticed that stem had so much strength that it could move enormous weight?
A) John Loudon McAdam
B) Wright Brothers
C) Captain Cook
D) James Watt
Answer:
D) James Watt

Answer questions 46 and 47 based on the picture of the steam engine given below.

Question 46.
Who invented the steam engine?
A) Eli Whitney
B) Robert Fulton
C) Samuel Morse
D) James Watt
Answer:
D) James Watt

Question 47.
Which mode of transport was revolutionised by this invention?
A) Water transport
B) Road transport
C) Air transport
D) Space transport
Answer:
A) Water transport

Question 48.
Which of the following in NOT true about Industrial Revolution?
A) Wages decreased
B) Production increased
C) Use of machines increased
D) Urbanisation decreased
Answer:
D) Urbanisation decreased

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution with Answers

Question 1.
India is a secular state because –
A) There is no state religion.
B) Citizen has the right to adopt and practise any religion.
C) No religion discrimination among citizens.
D) All the above.
Answer:
D) All the above.

Question 2.
The words “Secular and Socialist” are included in ………………..
A) Schedules
B) Parts
C) Preamble
D) Fundamental Rights
Answer:
C) Preamble

Question 3.
Who is the Drafting Committee Chairman of Indian Constitution?
A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D) Dr. C. Rajagopalachari
Answer:
B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Question 4.
According to India Act, 1935 the right to vote was given to ……………. people for provincial assemblies
A) 11%
B) 12%
C) 24%
D) 15%
Answer:
B) 12%

Question 5.
This is NOT correct with regard to the formation of Constituent Assembly.
A) 26 members were there from SCs.
B) 9 women members were there.
C) 93 members were elected from all the Princely States.
D) Members were elected through Universal Franchise.
Answer:
D) Members were elected through Universal Franchise.

Question 6.
In 1959 the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King
A) Rajendra
B) Gnanendra
C) Mahendra
D) Surendra
Answer:
C) Mahendra

Question 7.
The Congress party of Nepal, came to power in the elections held in the year
A) 1975
B) 1991
C) 2001
D) 1985
Answer:
B) 1991

Question 8.
In Nepal, Monarchy was abolished in the year
A) 1997
B) 2007
C) 2012
D) 2000
Answer:
B) 2007

Question 9.
Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in the year
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1946
D) 1940
Answer:
C) 1946

Question 10.
Seats to each province and princely state were allotted by the
A) Government Mission
B) Nehru Mission
C) Cripps Mission
D) Cabinet Mission
Answer:
D) Cabinet Mission

Question 11.
The number of Scheduled Caste members in the Constituent Assembly was
A) 16
B) 36
C) 26
D) 20
Answer:
C) 26

Question 12.
Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
A) Patel
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C) Nehru
D) Gandhi
Answer:
B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 13.
The Constitution was finally adopted on
A) 1st January 1947
B) 26th November 1949
C) 15th August 1947
D) 15th January 1950
Answer:
B) 26th November 1949

Question 14.
Find the incorrect matching
A) Supremacy of the central polity-Unitary Constitution
B) Dual polity – Dual system of government
C) Chief head of the executive – Indian president
D) Strategic posts – Civil servants
Answer:
C) Chief head of the executive – Indian president

Question 15.
Different states in a union may have different laws on marriage, diverse, banking and commence etc. This we can find in this form of government.
A) Unitary system
B) Federal system
C) Secular system
D) Single judiciary system
Answer:
B) Federal system

Question 16.
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the
A) Parliament
B) Assembly
C) Election
D) Court
Answer:
A) Parliament

Question 17.
The President of the Indian Union will be generally bound by the advice of his
A) Office
B) Vice – President
C) Councillors
D) Ministers
Answer:
D) Ministers

Question 18.
Regarding the President of Indian Union – which is incorrect ?
A) He rules the nation
B) He is the head of the nation
C) He represents the nation
D) He is the symbol of the nation
Answer:
A) He rules the nation

Question 19.
Which is not the basic feature of the Indian Constitution ?
A) Form of the government
B) Duality in laws and dual Judiciary
C) Sovereignty of the nation
D) Provisions for justice and welfare state
Answer:
B) Duality in laws and dual Judiciary

Question 20.
In which year Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the Draft Constitution before Constituent Assembly ?
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1949
D) 1948
Answer:
D) 1948

Question 21.
Which among the following is not a feature of Unitary Constitution ?
A) Rigid Constitution
B) Absence of subsidiary politics
C) The supremacy of the centre
D) Single citizenship
Answer:
A) Rigid Constitution

Question 22.
Who argued that Constitution was merely a copy of the 1935 Act ?
A) Damodar Swarup Seth
B) S.C. Banerjee
C) Promatha Ranjan
D) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
Answer:
D) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Question 23.
Who define untouchability as any act committed in exercise of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, or lawful vocation of life ?
A) S.C. Banerjee
B) K.M. Munshi
C) Sri Rohini Kumar Choudhary
D) D.S. Seth
Answer:
C) Sri Rohini Kumar Choudhary

Question 24.
From which country we borrowed directive principles of state policy ?
A) USA
B) U.K
C) USSR
D) Ireland
Answer:
D) Ireland

Question 25.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the President of India?
A) Nominal executive
B) First citizen
C) Chief Head of Executive
D) Bound by the advice of his ministers
Answer:
C) Chief Head of Executive

Question 26.
Consider the following unitary features of Indian Constitution.
1. Distribution of powers between the centre and state.
2. Single citizenship.
3. Single integrated judiciary.
4. All India Services.
A) 1 & 2 only
B) 1 & 3 only
C) 2, 3 & 4 only
D) 1, 2 & 3 only
Answer:
C) 2, 3 & 4 only

Question 27.
The power of making laws on the concurrent list is given to
A) Central Government only
B) State Government only
C) Both Central & State Governments
D) Prime Minister
Answer:
A) Central Government only

Question 28.
In preamble of the constitution to whom the constitution was given ?
A) People
B) Prime Minister
C) President
D) Parliament
Answer:
A) People

Question 29.
The correct statement about the decisions regarding important issues of the country.
A) the decision is taken by only one person
B) the decision is taken by only rich persons
C) the decision is taken through lottery
D) the decision is taken through discussions.
Answer:
D) the decision is taken through discussions.

Question 30.
The total number of articles in the Draft Constitution of India is
A) 312
B) 313
C) 315
D) 314
Answer:
C) 315

Question 31.
The number of articles and schedules in the Draft Constitution were
A) 315 articles, 8 schedules
B) 440 articles, 12 schedules
C) 215 articles, 14 schedules
D) 210 articles, 8 schedules
Answer:
A) 315 articles, 8 schedules

Question 32.
The head of the Indian Union …………………
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Chief Justice
D) P.M.
Answer:
A) President

Question 33.
The country which furnishes a close parallel to Indian system of judiciary
A) U.S.A.
B) U.S.S.R.
C) Canada
D) Japan
Answer:
C) Canada

Question 34.
The constituent assembly represents ‘the nation on a more throwing away the shell of its past political and possibly social structure andf ashioningfor itself a new garment in its own making’ was
told by
A) Dhirendranath Datta
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Rohini Kumar Choudhary
D) M. K. Gandhi
Answer:
B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 35.
An example for concurrent list is ……………….
A) foreign policy
B) agriculture
C) postal services
D) marriage and divorce
Answer:
D) marriage and divorce

Question 36.
The main demand of the Communist party was
A) continuation of monarchy
B) less powers to monarchy
C) abolition of monarchy
D) military government
Answer:
C) abolition of monarchy

Question 37.
The Constitution of India was framed by
A) British’Monarchy
B) Indian Parliament
C) British Parliament
D) Constituent Assembly
Answer:
D) Constituent Assembly

Question 38.
After 14 August 1947 the constituent Assembly was ………………….
A) nullified
B) remained same
C) members from Pakistan joined it
D) members from Pakistan formed a separate constituent Assembly
Answer:
D) members from Pakistan formed a separate constituent Assembly

Question 39.
The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India to be a
A) Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
B) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
C) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
D) Capitalist economy
Answer:
B) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Question 40.
The Constitution of India is
A) flexible
B) partly flexible and partly rigid
C) rigid
D) federal
Answer:
B) partly flexible and partly rigid

Question 41.
India is a secular state because
A) there is no state religion.
B) no discrimination can be made among citizens on the basis of religion.
C) every citizen has the right to adopt and practise any religion.
D) all of the above.
Answer:
D) all of the above.

Question 42.
Which among the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution ?
A) Parliamentary form of government
B) Double citizenship
C) Federal form of government
D) A written constitution
Answer:
B) Double citizenship

Question 43.
The term ‘gender’ is found in the Preamble of
A) Japan
B) Nepal
C) India
D) China
Answer:
B) Nepal

Question 44.
The term ‘desire peace for all times’ is found in the Preamble of
A) India
B) Japan
C) Nepal
D) Korea
Answer:
B) Japan

Question 45.
Find the odd one out
A) Indian constitution has remained same since its drafting
B) Indian constitution provides principles for ruling the country
C) Indian constitution adopts from experiences of freedom movement
D) Indian constitution adopts from already existing constitutions
Answer:
A) Indian constitution has remained same since its drafting

Question 46.
Identify the odd one with regard to the persons involvement in preparing Indian Constitution
A) M.A. Jinnah
B) K.M. Munshi
C) Alladi Krishna Swamy
D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
A) M.A. Jinnah

Question 47.
Choose the correct one by arranging the following in sequence.
a) Abolition of autocracy in Nepal
b) Accepting Indian constitution
c) Formation of drafting committee
d) Implementation of constitution .
A) b, a, c, d
B) a, b, c, d
C) c, b, d, a
D) b, c, d, a
Answer:
C) c, b, d, a

Question 48.
With regard to the procedure of amending Constitution this is not correct:
A) Amending the articles in the Indian Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament
B) It needs the approval of 213 members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C) Some articles may be amended only by voting of total population
D) Some articles may be amended only after the acceptance from the State Legislatures
Answer:
C) Some articles may be amended only by voting of total population

Question 49.
i) Under the Presidential system of America, the President is the Chief head of the Executive
ii) The administration is vested in the President in American system
A) ‘i’ correct
B) ‘ii’ correct
C) ‘i’ , ‘ii’ both are wrong
D) ‘i’, ‘ii’ both are correct
Answer:
D) ‘i’, ‘ii’ both are correct

Question 50.
Who among the given persons, was not involved in the preparation of Indian Constitution?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Motilal Nehru
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
C) Motilal Nehru

Question 51.
The members with which Indian Constituent Assembly formed
A) 392
B) 192
C) 299
D) 200
Answer:
C) 299

Question 52.
The number of Constituent Assembly seats allotted to the Princely States was
A) 83
B) 93
C) 103
D) 123
Answer:
B) 93

Question 53.
The representatives of the Princely States were identified through
A) lottery system
B) consultation
C) election
D) family backround
Answer:
B) consultation

Question 54.
The percentage of members of the Indian National Congress party in the Constituent Assembly was
A) 39%
B) 89%
C) 69%
D) 29%
Answer:
C) 69%

Question 55.
The percentage of voters who participated in the election to the Constituent Assembly was
A) 25%
B) 10%
C) 75%
D) 50%
Answer:
B) 10%

Question 56.
The Drafting Committee was appointed on
A) 29th Aug 1947
B) 15th Aug 1947
C) 4th Nov 1948
D) 26th Jan 1947
Answer:
A) 29th Aug 1947

Question 57.
The number of amendments to our Constitution till 2013 is
A) 99
B) 89
C) 109
D) 79
Answer:
A) 99

Question 58.
Which of the following is not in the preamble?
A) Secular
B) Socialist
C) Federal
D) Sovereign
Answer:
C) Federal

Question 59.
The 29^th state of India
A) Telangana
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Jharkhand
Answer:
A) Telangana

Question 60.
Identify the correct statement
i) Written Constitution – Taken from American Constitution
ii) Parliamentary Democracy – Taken from1; Britain
iii) Constitutional Amendment process – Taken from South Africa
iv) President’s duties/responsibilities – Taken from the Constitution of Ireland
A) i ,ii, iii and iv are true
B) iii and iv are true
C) i and ii are true
D) ii and iii are true
Answer:
A) i ,ii, iii and iv are true

Question 61.
Secular state means
A) a country which has official religion.
B) a country which has religious intolerance.
C) a country which is neutral in religious matters.
D) a country that bans religions.
Answer:
C) a country which is neutral in religious matters.

Question 62.
Fundamental duties of Indian Constitution were adopted from
A) America
B) France
C) Russia
D) China
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 63.
Federation means
A) State Government is powerful
B) Central Government is powerful
C) Dual polity
D) Unitary
Answer:
C) Dual polity

Question 64.
……………….emphasized that too much centralization of power takes towards fascist ideals.
A) D.S.Seth
B) Nehru
C) Gandhiji
D) Ambedkar
Answer:
B) Nehru

Question 65.
Which type of Government system does India follow ?
A) Presidential System
B) Parliamentary System
C) Central System
D) Monarchy System
Answer:
B) Parliamentary System

Question 66.
Constitutional amendment in India can be done only by the ……………..
A) Parliament
B) Supreme court
C) President
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Parliament

Question 67.
Which among the following statements about the Draft Constitution was wrong?
A) Moulana Hasrath Mohani – It is merely a copy of 1935 Act
B) D.S. Seth – Will gradually towards facism.
C) A & B are correct
D) A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) A & B are correct

Question 68.
Which one of the following principles in Socialistic Government do you appreciate?
A) Equality
B) Dictator King
C) Religious State
D) Capitalism
Answer:
A) Equality

Question 69.
” there is a duty cast upon us and that is to bear the absentees in mind, to remember al ways that we are here not to function for one party or one group, but always to think of India as a whole and always to think of the welfare of the four hundred millions that comprise India.
Who made this statement
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) K.M. Munshi
C) S.C. Banerjee
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 70.
The words those emphasised the values of Secularism and Socialism of the Preamble were ………………..
A) Directive Principles of State Policy.
B) Equality, Liberty, Justice.
C) Democracy and Republic.
D) Fundamental Rights
Answer:
B) Equality, Liberty, Justice.

Question 71.
Which Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments ?
A) Evolved Constitution
B) Unitary Constitution
C) Federal Constitution
D) Written Constitution
Answer:
C) Federal Constitution

Question 72.
Which Constitution gives more powers to the government at the centre ?
A) Federal Constitution
B) Evolved Constitution
C) Unitary Constitution
D) Written Constitution
Answer:
C) Unitary Constitution

Question 73.
The central and state governments can make laws on
A) central list
B) concurrent list
C) state list
D) residuary list
Answer:
B) concurrent list

Question 74.
Who raise the doubt in the debate on the constritution that “But the natural consequence of centralising power by law will be that our country which has all along opposed Fascism – even today we claim to strongly oppose it – will gradually move towardsFascism…………….”
A) S.C. Banerjee
B) D.S. Seth
C) K.M. Munshi
D) Ambedkar
Answer:
B) D.S. Seth

Question 75.
The dual polity resembles the
A) England Constitution
B) Japan Constitution
C) Indian Constitution
D) American Constitution
Answer:
D) American Constitution

Question 76.
Who argued that members of CA were not elected by adult franchise?
A) Nehru
B) D.S.Seth
C) Ambedkar
D) S.CBanerjee
Answer:
B) D.S.Seth

Question 77.
In which popular case, Supreme Court said that certain provisions of Indian Constitution cannot be changed.
A) Shah bano case
B) Keshavananda Bharati case
C) Privy purses case
D) Banks nationalisation case
Answer:
B) Keshavananda Bharati case

Question 78.
Find out the false statement.
A) There was no unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates
B) The makers of Constitution represented all the regions of the country
C) Supreme Court has said that basic features of Constitution cannot be amended.
D) Constitution does not provide certain provisions to amend articles in it.
Answer:
D) Constitution does not provide certain provisions to amend articles in it.

Question 79.
Under the Presidential System of USA, the chief head erf the country is
A) Secretary
B) Prime Minister
C) President
D) Council of ministers
Answer:
C) President

Question 80.
Among the following which is not a characteristic feature of Federalism ?
A) Written Constitution
B) Independent Judiciary
C) Division of Power
D) The Supremacy of the Central Polity
Answer:
D) The Supremacy of the Central Polity

Question 81.
Match the following regarding Nepal Constitution.

Group – A	Group – B
I) 1959	a) Full pledged Constitution was announced
II) 1991	b) Abolition of monarchy
III) 2007	c) People continued struggle for democratic government, and led elections
IV) 2015	d) Elections conducted under King Mahendra

A) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
B) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
C) I – d, II – b, III – c, IV – a
D) I – c,II – d,III – a,IV – b
Answer:
B) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a

Question 82.
Find the incorrect set
A) Symbol of the nation – Indian president
B) Dual polity with a single citizenship – USA
C) Chief head of the executive – American President
D) Uniformity in fundamental laws – India
Answer:
C) Chief head of the executive – American President

Question 83.
“Untouchability in any form is to be abolished and the imposition of any disability only on that account shall be an offence”. These words are by –
A) Promotha Ranjan Thakur
B) S.C. Banerjee
C) D.S. Seth
D) Moulana Hasrat Mohani
Answer:
A) Promotha Ranjan Thakur

Question 84.
…………… is an important device to promote social justice.
A) Social liberty
B) Social equality
C) Reservations
D) Social freedom
Answer:
C) Reservations

Question 85.
The parliament in our system has immense power because
A) It is the supreme authority
B) It has representatives of the people
C) It has two Houses
D) It is law-making body
Answer:
B) It has representatives of the people

Question 86.
Which are responsible for implementing laws and running the Government ?
A) The executive
B) The legislative
C) The judiciary
D) None of these
Answer:
A) The executive

Question 87.
Constitutional cases are taken up by these courts ……………….
A) High Court and district sessions court
B) Supreme Court and district civil court
C) High Court and Supreme Court
D) Supreme Court, High Court and magistrate court
Answer:
C) High Court and Supreme Court

Question 88.
Match the following.

Group – A	Group – B
1. Motilal Nehru	a) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
2. B.R. Ambedkar	b) President of the Constituent Assembly
3. Rajendra Prasad	c) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928.

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 89.
Match the following.

Group – A	Group – B
1. President of India	a) Similar to India British King
2. Double citizenship	b) Reservations
3. Social justice	c) US. A.

A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b

★ Observe the table and answer questions
90 – 92.

26th Nov 1949	Constitution was adopted
26th Jan 1950	Constitution came into force

Question 90.
According to time line, Constitution came into implementation in India on …………………..
A) 26th January, 1950
B) 29th August, 1947
C) 26th Nov, 1949
D) 26th December 1946
Answer:
A) 26th January, 1950

Question 91.
The duration of time between approval and implementation of Constitution
A) 2 months
B) 3 Years
C) 2 Years, 11 months, 18 days
D) One year
Answer:
A) 2 months

Question 92.
i) India became a republic
ii) Constitution came into force on 26th January – 1950
A) ‘i’ is correct
B) i & ii are correct
C) i & ii are wrong
D) ‘ii’ is correct
Answer:
B) i & ii are correct

Question 93.
Vijaya of 10th Class prepared the list of admirable qualities of Indian Constitution. Pick up the right ones.
i) Biggest written Constitution
ii) Adopted virtues of worldwide Constitutions
iii) Available in regional languages
iv) Rigid and flexible
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) i, ii, iii
C) i, ii and iv
D) i, ii only
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Observe the table and answer questions 94 – 96.

Question 94.
Based on the above graph, the following number of amendments were done to Constitution since its implementation.
A) 99
B) 22
C) 15
D) 100
Answer:
A) 99

Question 95.
Match the following

Group – A	Group – B
1.1951 – 60	a) 17 amendments
2.1971 – 80	b) 16 amendments
3.1991 – 2000	c) 7 amendments
4. 2001 – 2013	d) 22 amendments

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
C) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a

Question 96.
In which decade/ decades more amendments were made ?
A) 1971 – 80
B) 1971 – 80,1981 – 1990
C) 1981 – 90
D) 1991 – 2000, 2001 – 2010
Answer:
B) 1971 – 80,1981 – 1990

Question 97.
The following one is appreciated in our Constitution
A) Monarchy
B) Emergency powers
C) Presidential form
D) Secularism
Answer:
D) Secularism

Question 98.
The President of India can do nothing contrary to the advice of ministers-this shows
A) The President is given more powers
B) The real powers lie with the people who elect their representatives
C) He is head as well as executive of the state
D) The President is supreme in everything
Answer:
B) The real powers lie with the people who elect their representatives

Question 99.
The Constitution of India had 99 amendments till 2013. This shows that
A) it represents the opinions and needs of people time to time
B) the Constitution is a weak one
C) it is a rigid one
D) the Constitution is not to be amended
Answer:
A) it represents the opinions and needs of people time to time

Question 100.
We should appreciate secularism because
A) it is neutral in religious matters
B) it treats all religions as official religions
C) it is against to any religion
D) All the above
Answer:
A) it is neutral in religious matters

Question 101.
The President of the Indian union will be generally bound by the advice of
A) his ministers
B) his secretaries
C) his assistants
D) bureaucrats
Answer:
A) his ministers

★ Read the para and answer the questions.
The makers of Indian Constitution confronted the fact that Indian society was ridden with inequality, injustice and deprivation and was victim of colonial policies which had exploited its economy.
Question 102.
A measure taken in our constitution to remove injustice and inequality
A) Encouraging industries
B) Reservations for scheduled castes and tribes
C) Cancellation of privy purses
D) Appointment of judges
Answer:
B) Reservations for scheduled castes and tribes

Question 103.
Find the incorrect set
A) Constitution was adopted – 26th January 1950
B) Elections to the Constituent Assembly 1946 July
C) First meeting of Constituent Assembly 9th December 1946
D) Drafting committee formation – 29th August 1947
Answer:
A) Constitution was adopted – 26th January 1950

Question 104.
Identify the wrong one
A) Parliamentary system – India
B) Japanese Constitution was adopted – 1948
C) First elections in Nepal – 1959
D) Presented the draft of the Constitution – 4/11/1948
Answer:
B) Japanese Constitution was adopted – 1948

Question 105.
Declaring Nepal as federal, democratic republican state upon duly abolishing the
A) Monarchy
B) Diarchy
C) President
D) Anarchy
Answer:
A) Monarchy

Question 106.
Conducting elections for every five years results in
A) Wastage of time of the public
B) More expenditure on elections
C) Concentration of power in single hand
D) No scope for the concentration of power in single person.
Answer:
D) No scope for the concentration of power in single person.

Question 107.
Which is the important provision facilitating social change in the Constitution ?
A) Directive principles of state policy
B) Reservation for SCs and STs
C) Supremacy of the majority religion group in politics
D) Ban on Religions and castes
Answer:
B) Reservation for SCs and STs

Question 108.
Maj or changes in the Constitution were made during 1970s. One of these is
A) Reservations for SCs and STs
B) Inclusion of words Secular, Socialist
C) Abolition of untouchability
D) Introduction of Federal system.
Answer:
B) Inclusion of words Secular, Socialist

Question 109.
Which committee allotted seats to each province and each princely state or group of states in the Indian constituent Assembly ?
A) Fazal Ali Commission
B) Cabinet Mission
C) INC
D) Cripps mission
Answer:
B) Cabinet Mission

Question 110.
Which is not the basic feature of Indian Constitution
A) Provisions for justice and welfare state
B) Capitalism
C) Form of the government
D) Duality in laws and dual judiciary
Answer:
B) Capitalism

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Handicrafts and Handlooms on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Handicrafts and Handlooms with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Shankavaram village is in ………….. district.
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Ananthapur
D) Prakasam
Answer:
D) Prakasam

Question 2.
………….. is craftwork that involves the use of wild date palm leaves.
A) Basket making
B) Handloom weaving
C) Pots making
D) Chairs making
Answer:
A) Basket making

Question 3.
…………… sarees are world-famous.
A) Dharmavaram silk
B) Gadwal
C) Mangalagiri
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Dharmavaram silk

Question 4.
Silk sarees are manufactured by following different tasks like dyeing of ……………
A) Panni
B) Katcha Pattu
C) Spendiling of yarn
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 5.
They get …………. per saree for the work.
A) Rs. 1300
B) Rs. 1100
C) Rs. 1000
D) Rs. 9000
Answer:
A) Rs. 1300

Question 6.
………… has the second largest number of handlooms in the country.
A) Assam
B) Delhi
C) Goa
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 7.
Venkatesu’s son Nagendra was engaged in weaving in the ……….. set up inside the house.
A) Chitkasu
B) Maggam
C) Panni
D) Acchu
Answer:
B) Maggam

Question 8.
Polaiah belongs to …………. tribal community.
A) Chenchu
B) Yanadi
C) Yerukala
D) Konda reddys
Answer:
C) Yerukala

Question 9.
Silkworms grow on …………. tree.
A) Babul
B) Mulberry
C) Tamarind
D) Olive
Answer:
B) Mulberry

Question 10.
Dharmavaram is located in ……….. district.
A) Anantapur
B) Khammam
C) Kurnool
D) Chittoor
Answer:
A) Anantapur

Question 11.
The work of Polaiah in the lesson.
A) Mat weaver
B) Basket weaver
C) Maggam weaver
D) Blacksmith
Answer:
B) Basket weaver

Question 12.
The persons who supply raw material to the workers and they took produced clothes are called as
A) handloom worker
B) house owner
C) master weavers
D) co-operative credit societies
Answer:
C) master weavers

Question 13.
Basket weaving is
A) knowledge-based
B) thought based
C) craftwork
D) very difficult
Answer:
C) craftwork

Question 14.
The profession of the Yerukala tribe
A) saree weaving
B) fortune-telling/sodhi
C) both A & B
D) basket weaving
Answer:
D) basket weaving

Question 15.
The languages in Yerukula Bhasha.
A) Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Kannada
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The local name of silk yarn is
A) Coloured pattu
B) Katcha pattu
C) Yarn
D) None
Answer:
B) Katcha pattu

Question 17.
Yeruka tribe speak
A) Hindi
B) Gandhari
C) Yerukula Basha
D) None
Answer:
C) Yerukula Basha

Question 18.
Recently saree that get patent right in India.
A) Ikkat
B) Kanchi
C) Dharmavaram
D) Mangalagiri
Answer:
C) Dharmavaram

Question 19.
Some of the merchants from ……… sale zari to the weavers of Dharmavaram.
A) Surat
B) Gujarat
C) Ahmed Nagar
D) Kolkata
Answer:
A) Surat

Question 20.
……….., …………. and ………… were used in process of weaving a saree
A) warp, wept, zari
B) wound on a bobbin
C) weaving
D) dyeing
Answer:
A) warp, wept, zari

Question 21.
………… is the yarn that goes from top to bottom and ………… is the yarn that go from left to right.
A) warp, weft
B) weft, warp
C) Maggam dying
D) None
Answer:
A) warp, weft

Question 22.
A saree requires approximately ……… to …….. days to complete.
A) 7 – 10
B) 4 – 8
C) 5 – 6
D) 6 – 7
Answer:
B) 4 – 8

Question 23.
The whole family has to work for 12-15 hours a day for nearly ………. days to weave 10 sarees.
A) 20-30
B) 30-40
C) 40-50
D) 50-60
Answer:
C) 40-50

Question 24.
The government should take this step to solve the problems of handloom workers.
A) encouraging capitalists
B) encouraging co-operative societies
C) encouraging factories
D) encouraging middlemen
Answer:
C) encouraging factories

Question 25.
……….. meters of long warp which can make 10 sarees at a time.
A) 80
B) 75
C) 90
D) 100
Answer:
B) 75

Question 26.
………. card is used for designing sarees.
A) state
B) board
C) playing
D) Jacquard
Answer:
D) Jacquard

Question 27.
Making the raw silk for warp and weft is known as
A) Maggam
B) Sappuri
C) Andugula
D) Kanchi
Answer:
B) Sappuri

Question 28.
……….. is a craftwork that involves the use of wild date palm leaves.
A) Post making
B) Handloom weaving
C) Basket making
D) Chairs making
Answer:
C) Basket making

Question 29.
What does the picture show?

A) Basket weaving
B) Weft making
C) Dyeing
D) Warp making
Answer:
A) Basket weaving

Question 30.
What does the picture show?

A) Warp making
B) Pitloom
C) Weaving
D) Dyeing
Answer:
A) Warp making

Question 31.
Uppada: East Godavari:: Ponduru: ………….
A) Neilore
B) Guntur
C) Srikakulam
D) Kalahasti
Answer:
C) Srikakulam

32. Find the correct statement.
1) Konaseema is famous for toys.
2) Machilipatnam is famous for Kalamkari.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 33.
Match the following :
A                                                         B
1. Musical instruments     [ ]      A) Vetapalem
2. Agarbathis                    [ ]      B) Srikalahasti
3. Bangles                         [ ]      C) Pithapuram
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
Answer:
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Question 34.
The basket maker’s family migrated from Shankavaram to Ongole. The reason is
A) He wants to leave his basket making profession
B) The demand for baskets had declined in native place
C) The raw material is cheaper than in his village
D) All the above
Answer:
B) The demand for baskets had declined in native place

Question 35.
Which of the following is a result of introducing Power looms and power mills in the textile industry?
A) Employment of weavers in handloom industry increased
B) Income of handloom weavers increased
C) Handloom industry declined
D) Production of Handloom sarees increased.
Answer:
C) Handloom industry declined

Question 36.
This Region is famous for the handloom industry in Andhra Pradesh
A) Dharmavaram
B) Vijayawada
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Tirupati
Answer:
A) Dharmavaram

Question 37.
In handlooms Andhra Pradesh stands in the place of
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
Answer:
A) Second

Question 38.
In handlooms, Jacquard Cards are used for
A) Reeling
B) Twisting
C) Designing
D) Dyeing
Answer:
C) Designing

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Africa on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Africa with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In respect of size, Africa stands
A) the largest
B) second-largest
C) the smallest
D) fourth
Answer:
B) second-largest

Question 2.
The largest sand desert in the world
A) Kalahari
B) Thar
C) Sahara
D) Patagonia
Answer:
C) Sahara

Question 3.
The ocean to the west of Africa
A) Indian ocean
B) Atlantic ocean
C) Southern ocean
D) Pacific ocean
Answer:
B) Atlantic ocean

Question 4.
River Nile rises at
A) Nyasa lake
B) Chad lake
C) Lake Victoria
D) Angel lake
Answer:
C) Lake Victoria

Question 5.
These winds cause very little rainfall in the south-west of Africa
A) Winds
B) West winds
C) Trade winds
D) Southeast winds
Answer:
B) West winds

Question 6.
………….. receives very scanty rainfall.
A) Thar desert
B) Sahara desert
C) Kalahari desert
D) Arabian desert
Answer:
B) Sahara desert

Question 7.
………….. were familiar only with the northern coastal regions of Africa.
A) Americans
B) Europeans
C) Dutches
D) The French
Answer:
B) Europeans

Question 8.
About years ago, Europeans began their attempt to reach India.
A) 600
B) 500
C) 400
D) 300
Answer:
B) 500

Question 9.
In the year 1498, a Portuguese sailor named ……………… went around the southern tip of Africa and reached India.
A) Vasco da Gama
B) Columbus
C) James Cook
D) Henry
Answer:
A) Vasco da Gama

Question 10.
What is the capital city of Egypt?
A) Cairo
B) Tripoli
C) Accra
D) Sudan
Answer:
A) Cairo

Question 11.
The biggest continent on the west side of India.
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) Antarctica
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 12.
The biggest mines of gold and diamonds are in this continent in the world
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) North America
D) South America
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 13.
The highest peak in Africa.
A) Mencken Lee
B) Everest
C) Kilimanjaro
D) Sahara
Answer:
C) Kilimanjaro

Question 14.
The biggest Tropical desert in the world is the ……….
A) Thar
B) Arabia
C) Sonar on
D) Sahara
Answer:
D) Sahara

Question 15.
The biggest lake in Africa.
A) Victoria
B) Nav
C) Superior
D) Bikal
Answer:
A) Victoria

Question 16.
The river flows through the Sahara desert.
A) Zambezi
B) Congo
C) Nile
D) Orange
Answer:
C) the Nile

Question 17.
The river originated from Victoria lake.
A) Zambezi
B) Nile
C) Congo
D) Orange
Answer:
B) the Nile

Question 18.
The Equator, Tropic of Cancer, and tropic of Capricorn run across this continent
A) Asia
B) North America
C) South America.
D) Africa
Answer:
D) Africa

Question 19.
The most tropical region in the world is on this continent.
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) North America
D) South America
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 20.
These zones south and north of the tropics experience summer as well as winter. They are called
A) Tropical regions
B) Temperate regions
C) Desert regions
D) Cold regions
Answer:
B) Temperate regions

Question 21.
The region with continuous rainfall throughout the year.
A) The Savanna region
B) The Equitorial region
C) The Subtropical region
D) The Polar region
Answer:
B) The Equitorial region

Question 22.
The hot desert in the southern part of Africa.
A) Kalahari desert
B) Thar desert
C) Sahara desert
D) Arabia desert
Answer:
A) Kalahari desert

Question 23.
The main occupation of the African people.
A) hunting
B) animal husbandry
C) agriculture
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 24.
Europeans were familiar only with the …………….. regions of Africa.
A) Northern coastal
B) Southern
C) Eastern
D) Western
Answer:
A) Northern coastal

Question 25.
The Indian and Arab traders knew about the ………….. region of Africa.
A) eastern coastal
B) western coastal
C) northern
D) southern
Answer:
A) eastern coastal

Question 26.
About 500 years ago, Europeans began their attempts to reach India by the sea route by going around
A) Australia
B) North America
C) South America
D) Africa
Answer:
D) Africa

Question 27.
Traversing the Atlantic Ocean, the sailors used.to stopover on the islands of
A) St. Madiera
B) the Azores
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 28.
In 1498, a Portuguese sailor named Vasco-da-Gama went around the southern tip of Africa and reached
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) America
Answer:
C) India

Question 29.
The century in which the Europeans were migrated to America.
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
Answer:
B) 16

Question 30.
The slave trade was started on this continent.
A) Africa
B) Europe
C) Asia
D) Australia
Answer:
A) Africa

Question 31.
After many fights, the slaves were declared free citizens in America in
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1880
Answer:
B) 1860

Question 32.
The Europeans exported African etc. on a very large scale to Europe.
A) timber
B) minerals
C) both A & B
D) machinery
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 33.
The ……….. mines in Southern Africa are still under the control of European companies.
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Both A & B
D) Coal
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
These priceless mines are in Zambia and Zimbabwe.
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Diamonds
D) Copper
Answer:
D) Copper

Question 35.
The agricultural products that are exported to Europe.
A) Tea
B) Coffee
C) Rubber, tobacco
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
Chocolates are made of these
A) Palm oil
B) Cocoa
C) Rubber
D) Chuing
Answer:
B) Cocoa

Question 37.
The Nigerians gather these products by crossing the Niger River.
A) Palm oil fruits
B) Palm oil seeds
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
The acting managers of palm oil plantations in Nigeria were the
A) Britishers
B) Local blacks
C) Nigerians
D) None
Answer:
A) Britishers

Question 39.
Nigeria got Independence from the British.
A) 1950
B) 1960
C) 1970
D) 1980
Answer:
B) 1960

Question 40.
This mineral is more in Africa.
A) coal
B) copper
C) tin
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
The main natural resource in Algeria.
A) Mineral oil/Petroleurrf
B) Mica
C) Asbestos
D) Limestone
Answer:
A) Mineral oil/Petroleurrf

Question 42.
The companies established control over the oil mining and refining in Nigeria.
A) French
B) Dutch
C) Britain
D) Spanish
Answer:
B) Dutch

Question 43.
Nigeria started exporting mineral oil in the year
A) 1950
B) 1958
C) 1960
D) 1964
Answer:
B) 1958

Question 44.
The regions in which the oil refineries were established in Nigeria.
A) Harcourt
B) Vari port
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
The largest desert in the world
A) Sahara
B) the Gobi
C) Thar
D) Patagonia
Answer:
A) Sahara

Question 46.
This is called as “Gift of Nile”
A) R. Congo
B) River Chad
C) River Nile
D) R. Niger
Answer:
C) River Nile

Question 47.
One has to cross ……………….. sea from Europe to reach North Africa?
A) the Atlantic Ocean
B) the Mediterranean
C) Arctic ocean
D) None
Answer:
B) the Mediterranean

Question 48.
The picture shows

A) Tamarind tree
B) Banyan tree
C) Palm tree
D) Boabab tree
Answer:
D) Boabab tree

Question 49.
African continent lies to the …………….. of India
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Answer:
C) West

Question 50.
Kimberly in South Africa is famous for
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Copper
D) Zinc
Answer:
B) Diamonds

Question 51.
Lake Victoria is one of the largest freshwater lakes in the World. Which of the following rivers originate from lake Victoria?
A) Volta
B) Nile
C) Congo
D) Niger
Answer:
B) the Nile

Question 52.
Human beings first evolved in which of the following continents?
A) North America
B) Africa
C) South America
D) Europe
Answer:
B) Africa

Question 53.
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
A) The Nile river crosses the Sahara Desert.
B) The Nile river originates near the Lake Victoria
C) The Nile River flows into the Indian Ocean
D) The Nile river has helped Egyptian civilization
Answer:
C) The Nile River flows into the Indian Ocean

Question 54.
The region lies between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn
A) Tropical Region
B) Tundra Region
C) Temperature Region
D) Taiga Region
Answer:
A) Tropical Region

Question 55.
The continent is called the cradle of the humankind
A) Asia
B) Antarctica
C) Africa
D) America
Answer:
C) Africa

Question 56.
Desert in Southern region of Africa is
A) Sahara
B) Kalahari
C) Atacama
D) Petagonia
Answer:
B) Kalahari

Question 57.
Kimberly is in South Africa is famous for ………..
A) Gold
B) Diamonds
C) Copper
D) Silver
Answer:
B) Diamonds

Question 58.
The largest desert in the world:
A) Sahara
B) Kalahari
C) Thar
D) the Atacama
Answer:
A) Sahara

Question 59.
Which of the following played an important role in the development of the Egyptian civilization?
A) Niger River
B) Congo River
C) Nile River
D) River Volta
Answer:
C) Nile River

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Independent India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Independent India with Answers

Question 1.
This is NOT related to the first general elections in India.
A) Symbols were introduced.
B) Separate ballot boxes for each candidate.
C) Massive campaign to encourage the voters.
D) Electronic voting machines were used.
Answer:
D) Electronic voting machines were used.

Question 2.
Who started Five Year plan in India ?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Jawahar Lai Nehru
D) Deve Gowda
Answer:
C) Jawahar Lai Nehru

Question 3.
Match the following…………….
1) RajaHari Singh — a) Andhra Pradesh
2) Potti Sri Ramulu — b) Kashmir
3) V.P. Singh — c) B.PMandal Commission
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
Answer:
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Question 4.
Which of the following is true ?
A) The emergency was declared in 1975
B) Abolishing of privy purses done in 1971
C) The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
Arrange the following prime ministers in chronological order
1) Nehru
2) PV Narasimha Rao
3) Lai Bahadur Sastri
4) Indira Gandhi
A) 14,3,2
B) 1,3,4, 2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 4,3,2,1
Answer:
B) 1,3,4, 2

Question 6.
In 1971 general elections, ‘Garibi Hatao’, popular slogan was used by
A) Congress Party
B) Janata Dal Party
C) Communist Party
D) Janatha Party
Answer:
A) Congress Party

Question 7.
States Reorganisation Commission was set-up in ……………….
A) 1952
B) 1956
C) 1953
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1956

Question 8.
As per the States Reorganization Act of 1956 passed in Parliament, the number of states created is
A) 14 states
B) 25 states
C) 18 states
D) 29 states
Answer:
A) 14 states

Question 9.
‘Excluding the courts from election disputes’ was brought from this Constitutional Amendment in India.
A) 44th
B) 42nd
C) 41st
D) 45th
Answer:
B) 42nd

Question 10.
India had to face war with Pakistan in 1971 over this issue.
A) Border issue
B) Bangladesh issue
C) Kashmir issue
D) Punjab issue
Answer:
B) Bangladesh issue

Question 11.
Green Revolution is related with this
A) To increase milk production
B) To increase fisheries
C) To increase food production
D) To increase animal husbandry .
Answer:
C) To increase food production

Question 12.
“On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contra-dictions”. Who said these words ?
A) Gandhi
B) Nehru
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Ambedkar
Answer:
D) Ambedkar

Question 13.
To solve a problem of unrest or agitations, an ideal way for a Prime Minister is
A) to stand on his the personal belief
B) to accept majority agitators opinion
C) to act favouring the unity of the nation
D) to use army forces
Answer:
C) to act favouring the unity of the nation

Question 14.
Elections of 1952, 1957 and 1962 were won by
A) Congress Party
B) Independents
C) DMK
D) Socialist Party
Answer:
A) Congress Party

Question 15.
The first Prime Minister of Independent
A) B. R. Prasad
B) L. B. Shastri
C) M. K. Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 16.
Which had been active even during’ British rule and was attempting to bring together the Telugu speaking people in the Madras Presidency ?
A) AMS
B) Congress
C) TMS
D) DMK
Answer:
A) AMS

Question 17.
Meghalaya was created in December …
A) 1968
B) 1970
C) 1969
D) 1971
Answer:
C) 1969

Question 18.
Indira Gandhi used slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ in this general elections year
A) 1967
B) 1980
C) 1977
D) 1971
Answer:
D) 1971

Question 19.
Among the following, which is a successful programme regarding land reforms in India ?
A) Redistribution of land to the landless
B) Rich and powerful continued to control most of the land in rural areas
C) Zamindari system was abolished
D) Abolition of untouchability
Answer:
C) Zamindari system was abolished

Question 20.
Telugu Desam Party was started in
A) 1983
B) 1984
C) 1982
D) 1981
Answer:
C) 1982

Question 21.
Among the following, which is not the programme of Rajiv Gandhi Government?
A) Providing Local self governments a Constitutional status
B) Introduction of first budget towards a more liberalised system
C) Spread the network of telephonic communication in the country
D) Peace initiative in Punjab, Assom and Mizoram
Answer:
A) Providing Local self governments a Constitutional status

Question 22.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Second Prime Minister – Lai Bahadur Shastri
B) Green Revolution -1947
C) Emergency – Indira Gandhi
D) Second General Elections – 1957
Answer:
B) Green Revolution -1947

Question 23.
Political equality can be identified with
A) Right to get admission in any school
B) Right to enter any religious worship place
C) Principle of one person one vote
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Principle of one person one vote

Question 24.
After Independence what are the main
challenges before the leaders in our country?^
a) Maintain unity and integrity
b) Social and Economic transforming
c) Working of the democratic system
A) a and b
B) b and c
C) a and c
D) a, b, c
Answer:
D) a, b, c ,

Question 25.
Match the following:
Column -I — Column – II
i) Death of Potti Sriramulu — a) 1953
ii) SRC Act — b) 1964
iii) States Reorganisation Commission — c) 1952
iv) Death of Nehru — d) 1956
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
B) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
C) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
D) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
Answer:
A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b

Question 26.
The State Reorganisation Act was passed in the year
A) 1947
B) 1986
C) 1956
D) 1970
Answer:
C) 1956

Question 27.
The correct order of Prime Ministers according to time line
A) Lai Bahadur Sastry, Indira Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Lai Bahadur Sastry
C) Lai Bahadur Sastry, Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru,’ Lai Bahadur . Sastry, Indira Gandhi
Answer:
D) Jawaharlal Nehru,’ Lai Bahadur . Sastry, Indira Gandhi

Question 28.
Potti Sriramulu fasted unto death for …………….. days.
A) 58 days
B) 50 days
C) 40 days
D) 25 days
Answer:
A) 58 days

Question 29.
The language which was not taken into account during the formation of linguistic states
A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) Kannada
D) Santhali
Answer:
D) Santhali

Question 30.
The Planning Commission was set up in the year ……………..
A) 1952
B) 1955
C) 1950
D) 1945
Answer:
C) 1950

Question 31.
The First Five Year plan focussed on
A) politics
B) agriculture
C) industry
D) sports
Answer:
B) agriculture

Question 32.
The Second Five Year plan focussed on
A) industries
B) population control
C) poverty alleviation
D) health facilities
Answer:
A) industries

Question 33.
The correct order of incidents
A) War with China, Lai Bahadur Sastry becoming the prime minister, Anti Hindi Agitation.
B) Arab – Israeli war, Bangladesh war, declaration of emergency in the country, death of Potti Sriramulu
C) Formation of Punjab, first elections in India, green revolution
D) Green revolution, first five year plan, Indira Gandhi becoming prime minister
Answer:
A) War with China, Lai Bahadur Sastry becoming the prime minister, Anti Hindi Agitation.

Question 34.
Find the wrong matching
A) Ranchi-Bihar
B) Ahmedabad – Gujarat .
C) Jalgaon – Maharashtra
D) Aligarh – Kerala
Answer:
D) Aligarh – Kerala

Question 35.
One of the following countries is not a supporter of NAM
A) Indonesia
B) USA
C) Egypt
D) Yugoslavia
Answer:
B) USA

Question 36.
Panchasheel is the agreement between India and
A) USA
B) China
C) Pakistan
D) USSR
Answer:
B) China

Question 37.
Jawaharlal Nehru died in the year
A) 1970
B) 1962
C) 1965
D) 1964
Answer:
D) 1964

Question 38.
The person who became the Prime Minister of India after Nehru
A) L.B. Shastri
B) Ambedkar
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
A) L.B. Shastri

Question 39.
In 1965 India had a war with
A) Srilanka
B) China
C) Nepal
D) Pakistan
Answer:
D) Pakistan

Question 40.
Lai Bahadhur Shastri died in the year
A) 1966
B) 1967
C) 1968
D) 1969
Answer:
A) 1966

Question 41.
Who won elections in East Pakistan in early 1970’s? ,
A) Sheik Abdullah
B) M.A Jinnah
C) MaulanaAzad
D) Mujibur Rehaman
Answer:
D) Mujibur Rehaman

Question 42.
Which of the following is not true with reference to the Green Revolution ?
A) It has raised the living standard of farmers all over India
B) HYV .seeds are used to increase production
C) It has led to the loss of soil fertility
D) It was introduced in late 1950’s
Answer:
D) It was introduced in late 1950’s

Question 43.
The JP movement was very prominent in
A) AP and Tamilnadu
B) Bihar and Gujarat
C) AP and Karnataka
D) Tamilnadu and Kerala
Answer:
B) Bihar and Gujarat

Question 44.
All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim conference led by …………………
A) Mujibur Rehaman
B) Muhammad Ali Zinna
C) Sheik Muhammad Abdullah
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Sheik Muhammad Abdullah

Question 45.
Kashmir has a greater autonomy provided in the Constitution in the form of ……………….
A) Article 356
B) Article 360
C) Article 56
D) Article 370
Answer:
D) Article 370

Question 46.
Bangladesh got independence in ………………
A) 1969
B) 1970
C) 1973
D) 1971
Answer:
D) 1971

Question 47.
Which of the following is correct regarding 42nd amendment?
1) Excluding the courts from election disputes
2) Strengthening the central govern – ment vis – a – vis the state government
3) Making the Judiciary subservient to Parliament .
4) Providing maximum protection from Judicial challenges to social and economic transformation
A) Only 1 is true
B) Only 1, 2 are true
C) Only 2 is true
D) 1,2,3,4 are true
Answer:
D) 1,2,3,4 are true

Question 48.
Addressing the problem of the rights of minorities was an important aspect of onr constitution. Which made the constitution to address this problem ?
A) The experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi army
B) The illiteracy in the minorities
D) The major population of them in the country
D) Bring the minorities, the richest section of the country.
Answer:
A) The experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi army

Question 49.
In Post Independent India the Prime Ministers order
A) Nehru – Indira Gandhi – Lai Bahadur Sashtri
B) Indira Gandhi – Nehru – Shastri
C) Nehru – Lai Bahadur Shahtri – Indira Gandhi
D) Nehru – Indira Gandhi- Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
C) Nehru – Lai Bahadur Shahtri – Indira Gandhi

Question 50.
Result of Emergency
A) Poverty removed
B) Umits on citizen’s rights
C) Ail political parties accepted
D) Right to speech
Answer:
B) Umits on citizen’s rights

Question 51.
Find oat the correct matching.
1) January 26 — a) Indo – China War
2) 1962 — b) Jammu Kashmir
3) Article 370 — c) Republic Day
4) K.M. Panikkar — d) State reorganisa¬
tion commission
A) c,b,d,a
B) b,c,a,d
C) c,a,b,d
D) a,b,c,d
Answer:
C) c,a,b,d

Question 52.
Who led opposition to Indira Gandhi?
A) Aijun Singh
B) N.D.Tiwari
C) Patel
D) Jaya Prakash Narayana
Answer:
D) Jaya Prakash Narayana

Question 53.
Who among the following was die successor of Nehru ?
A) Lai Bahadur Sastri
B) NeeJam Sanjeeva Reddy
C) Indira Gandhi
D) V.P. Singh
Answer:
A) Lai Bahadur Sastri

Question 54.
Whom of the following was Prime Minister of India in 1966 ?
A) Nehru
B) V.P.Singh
C) Charan Singh
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
D) Indira Gandhi

Question 55.
Which is not the achievement in the first 30 years of independent rule of India?
A) Establishment of a stable democracy
B) Bureaucratic neutrality in Indian politics
C) Balanced regional development in economic goals
D) Economic liberalisation policy
Answer:
D) Economic liberalisation policy

Question 56.
Operation Barga was launched by government.
A) Punjab
B) Haryana
C) Kerala
D) West Bengal
Answer:
D) West Bengal

Question 57.
The new organization introduced in India in the place of Planning Commission is
A) National Development Council
B) Commerical Aayog
C) Suraksha Yojana
D) NIB Aayog
Answer:
D) NIB Aayog

Question 58.
Who was not the member in SRC – 1953?
A) Fazl Ali
B) K.M.Panikkar
C) Madan Mohan
D) Hridaynath Kunzru
Answer:
C) Madan Mohan

Question 59.
The President of India at present is
A) Man Mohan Singh
B) Muraii Manohar Joshi
C) L.K.Adwani
D) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer:
D) Ram Nath Kovind

Question 60.
Fourth General Elections were held in the year
A) 1957
B) 1962
C) 1952
D) 1967
Answer:
D) 1967

Question 61.
The person who suceeded Lai Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister
A) JayaPrakash Narayana
B) Morarji Desai
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Shanthi Bhushan
Answer:
C) Indira Gandhi

Question 62.
Between 1947 and 1977, which election is called a land mark ?
A) 1952
B) 1957
C) 1967
D) 1962
Answer:
C) 1967

Question 63.
In 1967 the Congress party won
A) 284 seats
B) 320 seats
C) 300 seats
D) 360 seats
Answer:
A) 284 seats

Question 64.
M.G. Ramachandran belonged to
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Gujarat
Answer:
A) Tamil Nadu

Question 65.
The state of Punjab was formed in the year
A) 1976
B) 1966
C) 1970
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1966

Question 66.
In Maharashtra, the Shiva Sena mainly targeted
A) North Indians
B) North East Indians
C) Anglo Indians
D) South Indians
Answer:
D) South Indians

Question 67.
Sheikh Abdullah is a leader from
A) Pakistan
B) Kashmir
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
B) Kashmir

Question 68.
In 1947, Kashmir was being ruled by
A) Pakistan
B) British
C) Hari Singh
D) Nizams
Answer:
C) Hari Singh

Question 69.
The political party system in India is
A) Single party
B) Dual party
C) Multi party
D) No party system
Answer:
C) Multi party

Question 70.
The Pathans (Razakars) who started attacking western Kashmir were supported by
A) China
B) Afghanistan
C) Pakistan
D) Iran
Answer:
C) Pakistan

Question 71.
Movement for Independence to Kashmir started from
A) 1950’s
B) 1990’s
C) 1940’s
D) 1980’s
Answer:
B) 1990’s

Question 72.
Bangladesh was once upon a time called
A) Hindustan
B) Burma
C) East Pakistan
D) Asia Minor
Answer:
C) East Pakistan

Question 73.
The leader who won the elections in Bangladesh but was arrested and taken to Pakistan
A) Khaledazia
B) Bhutto
C) Sheikh Mujibur Rehaman
D) Sheikh Hasina
Answer:
C) Sheikh Mujibur Rehaman

Question 74.
OU prices in India rose, due to the Arab – Israeli War in
A) 1980
B) 1967
C) 1973
D) 1950
Answer:
C) 1973

Question 75.
The people of Pepsu village solved the election problem by …………………
A) Separate elections for Women
B) Came before a day and spent the night dancing and singing
C) Conduction of Wrestling match
D) None
Answer:
C) Conduction of Wrestling match

Question 76.
Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha, according to the decision of the High court of
A) Hyderabad
B) Bombay
C) Allahabad
D) Madras
Answer:
C) Allahabad

Question 77.
The 42 nd Constitutional Amendment was passed in the year
A) 1986
B) 1976
C) 1956
D) 1966
Answer:
B) 1976

Question 78.
Green Revolution means
A) Increasing the production of food grains
B) Growing tress
C) Decreasing the production of food grains
D) Deforestation
Answer:
A) Increasing the production of food grains

Question 79.
Which of the following states opposed Hindi?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 80.
Which of the article is used to impose Presidential rule in the states?
A) 336
B) 356
C) 346
D) 366
Answer:
B) 356

Question 81.
Among the following, which is related to Nehru Government ?
A) 42nd constitutional amendment
B) abolition of Zamindari system
C) nationalisation of many private banks
D) abolishing of princely pensions
Answer:
B) abolition of Zamindari system

Question 82.
Which of the following is incorrect ?
A) The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture
B) Our country followed Non-Aligned Movement
C) Bangladesh was once part of China
D) The Congress party went to 1972 elections with the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’
Answer:
C) Bangladesh was once part of China

Question 83.
Who succeeded Mr. Naseem Zaidi as Chief Election Commissioner ?
A) T.N. Seshan
B) B.R.Ambedkar
C) Achal Kumar Jyothi
D) Ram Nath Kovind
Answer:
C) Achal Kumar Jyothi

Question 84.
On the basis of ………….. report in 1956 the States Reorganisation Act was passed in parliament
A) Linguistic Commission
B) Jawahar Commission
C) States Reorganisation Commission
D) Muslim League Commission
Answer:
C) States Reorganisation Commission

Question 85.
Among the following, which is not related to 1967 Elections ?
A) There were gainers and losers from the economic development process in the elections
B) Changed the pattern of political competition.
C) This showed the country was moving towards a competitive multi party system
D) The Congress party secured highest majority to form the government
Answer:
D) The Congress party secured highest majority to form the government

Question 86.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Green Revolution -1964 to 1967
B) Arab – Israeli War – 1972
C) Bangladesh War -1971
D) The left turn programme – Indira Gandhi
Answer:
B) Arab – Israeli War – 1972

Question 87.
The party which began Anti-Hindi agitation
A) Socialist party
B) DMK party
C) Janata party
D) Communist party
Answer:
B) DMK party

Question 88.
In which year’s of general election did Janata party defeat Congress?
A) 1977
B) 1972
C) 1980
D)1982
Answer:
A) 1977

Question 89.
India had war with in 1971 to liberate Bangladesh.
A) China
B) Pakistan
C) Srilanka
D) Japan
Answer:
B) Pakistan

Question 90.
Emergency was announced by..
A) MorarjiDesai
B) Charan Singh
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Babu Jagjeevan Rao
Answer:
C) Indira Gandhi

Question 91.
Emergency is imposed to
A) provide freedom of expression.
B) ensure eradication of poverty.
C) be accepted by all political parties.
D) restrict people’s rights.
Answer:
D) restrict people’s rights.

Question 92.
Who among the following persons were not inspired by the Communism?
A) M.N.Roy
B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Tagore
Answer:
B) Subhash Chandra Bose

Question 93.
The political party that dpminated in the first thirty years of independent India was ……………..
A) Jana Sangh Party.
B) Bharatiya Janata Party.
C) Indian National Congress.
D) Communist Party of India.
Answer:
C) Indian National Congress.

Question 94.
Match the following.
Group -A — Group – B
1. Shiv Sena — a) Tamilnadu
2. DMK — b) Maharashtra
3. The National Conference — c) Jammu and Kashmir
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
Answer:
B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Question 95.
Match the following.
Group -A — Group – B
1. JaiJawan JaiKisan — a) Nehru
2. Garibi Hatao — b) Lai Bahadur Sastry
3. Panchasheel Policy — c) Indira Gandhi
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Answer:
D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Question 96.
The new state created in Assom in 1969, out of the tribal districts is ………………..
A) M.N. Roy
B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Tagore
Answer:
C) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 97.
Planning, for Nehru was …………………..
A) ‘Good economics’ only
B) ‘Good economics’ as well as ‘Good politics’
C) ‘Good politics’only
D) A difficult task
Answer:
B) ‘Good economics’ as well as ‘Good politics’

Look at the map and answer the questions 102 to 104.

Question 98.
The Madras state in the map is identified as ……………… at preset.

A) Karnataka
B) Tamilnadu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Hyderabad State
Asnwer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 99.
Hyderabad state has the regions of ……………………
A) Karnataka, Andhra, Tamilnadu
B) Andhra, Hyderabad, Madras
C) Karnataka, Kerala, Maharastra
D) Karnataka, Telangana, Maharastra
Answer:
D) Karnataka, Telangana, Maharastra

Question 100.
The map shows the position of states ………………..
A) at the time of Independence
B) Present time
C) Before reorganisation of states
D) During British rule
Answer:
C) Before reorganisation of states

Question 101.
The dot given in the map represents …………………
A) Delhi
B) Chennai
C) Kolkata
D) Visakhapatnam

Answer:
B) Chennai

Question 102.
The Election Commission came up with the idea of having symbols in elections to overcome the problem of ……………….
A) poverty
B) unemployment
C) illiteracy
D) corruption
Answer:
C) illiteracy

Question 103.
Smt. Indira Gandhi was the successful women Prime minister who got great acceptence for ………………………
i) She introduced poverty eradicating programmes.
ii) She took bold steps in introducing socialistic reforms.
iii) She had command over party and government.
iv) She introduced emergency in the country.
A) iv
B) i, ii, iii
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
B) i, ii, iii

Question 104.
Which of the following slogans does NOT relate to the right to vote ?
A) Right to vote is the most powerful weapon of a voter
B) Vote for note
C) Vote for corrupt person – damage to the nation
D) Don’t get bribed – cast your vote freely
Answer:
B) Vote for note

Study the following pie – graph, which shows the seat share of various political parties in 1962 elections and answer the questions 105 & 106

Question 105.
Which party formed the government ?
A) Communist party
B) Independent and others
C) Indian National Congress
D) Jana sangh
Answer:
C) Indian National Congress

Question 106.
‘Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam’ party belongs to which state ?
A) Kerala
B) Tamilnadu
C) West Bengal
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 107.
Switzerland women got right to vote in
A) 1973
B) 1972
C) 1971
D) 1974
Answer:
B) 1972

Question 108.
Which of the following statements is wrongly written ?
A) States Reorganisation Committee (SRC) members were Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabhbhai Patel.
B) In 1956, the States Reorganisation Act was passed in Parliament;
C) Linguistic Reorganisation didn’t weaken India.
D) As per SRC report, 14 States and 6 Union territories were created.
Answer:
A) States Reorganisation Committee (SRC) members were Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Jawaharlal Nehru and Vallabhbhai Patel.