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Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Human Eye and Colourful World on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 5th Lesson Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

CONCEPT – I : (Structure Of human Eye)

Question 1.
The value of “least distance of distinct vision” for young adult human being is ………………
A) 25 cm
B) 5 cm
C) 50 cm
D) infinity
Answer:
A) 25 cm

Question 2.
The value of “least distance of distinct vision” at young age i.e below 10 years ……………….
A) 25 cm
B) 0 cm
C) infinity
D) 7 to 8 cm
Answer:
D) 7 to 8 cm

Question 3.
The value of “least distance of distinct vision” at old age ………………..
A) 25 cm
B) infinity
C) 7 to 8 cm
D) 1 to 2 m
Answer:
D) 1 to 2 m

Question 4.
Statement X : The value of least distance of distinct vision varies from person to person and with age.
Statement Y : At young age (i.e below 10 years) the value of least distance of distinct vision is as close as 7to 8 cm due to the muscles around the eye are strong and flexible and can bear more strain.
A) Both X and Y are true
B) Both X and Y are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both X and Y are true

Question 5.
Statement X : The value of least distance of distinct vision does not change with age.
Statement Y : In old age the muscles cannot sustain more strain hence the value of least distance of distinct vision shifts to a larger value.
A) Both X and Y are true
B) Both X and Y are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
D) X is false, Y is true

Question 6.
The range of vision for a young adult with normal vision ……………………..
A) 0 to 25 cm
B) 25 cm to 200 cm
C) 25 cm to infinity
D) zero to infinity
Answer:
C) 25 cm to infinity

Question 7.
The angle of vision for a healthy human being is……………….
A) 60°
B) 70°
C) 80°
D) 180°
Answer:
A) 60°

Question 8.
The maximum angle at which we are able to see the whole object is called ……………….
A) persistance of vision
B) angle of vision
C) least distance of distinct vision
D) none
Answer:
B) angle of vision

Question 9.
Statement X : The value of least distance of distinct vision varies from person to person and with age.
Statement Y : The angle of vision varies from person to person and with age.
A) Both X and Y are true
B) Both X and Y are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both X and Y are true

Question 10.
If the angle of vision is more than 60° then you can see ………………….
A) the whole object
B) only the part of the object
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) only the part of the object

Question 11.
The minimum distance from the eye at which the eye can see the objects clearly and distinctly without any strain is called …………………
A) the maximum distance of distinct vision
B) the average distance of distinct vision
C) the least distance of distinct vision
D) none
Answer:
C) the least distance of distinct vision

Question 12.
The far point of human eye with normal vision lies at ………………..
A) 25 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 0 cm
D) infinity
Answer:
D) infinity

Question 13.
Name the front part of the eye.
A) cornea
B) iris
C) aqueous humour
D) pupil
Answer:
A) cornea

Question 14.
Name the coloured part that we see in an eye.
A) cornea
B) iris
C) ciliary muscles
D) pupil
Answer:
B) iris

Question 15.
Name the part of the eye which controls the amount of light entering the eye.
A) cornea
B) iris
C) pupil
D) retina
Answer:
B) iris

Question 16.
Name the liquid between the cornea and eye lens of the eye.
A) pupil
B) vitreous humour
C) aqueous humour
D) iris
Answer:
A) pupil

Question 17.
Name the part of the eye which is a hole in the middle of the iris …………………
A) eye lens
B) retina
C) iris
D) pupil
Answer:
C) iris

Question 18.
Name the part of the eye that appears black.
A) eye lens
B) retina
C) iris
D) pupil
Answer:
D) pupil

Question 19.
The size of the pupil in low light condition …………………
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 20.
The size of the pupil in the case of bright (or) excess light condition ………………….
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
A) increases

Question 21.
The size of the pupil …………….. when you entered into a cinema hall.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 22.
…………….. lens is present in the human eye.
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Concave

Question 23.
The human eye forms the image of an object at its ……………………
A) cornea
B) iris
C) retina
D) eyeball
Answer:
C) retina

Question 24.
The distance between the eye lens and retina is …………………..
A) 2.25 cm
B) 2.27 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 5 cm
Answer:
C) 2.5 cm

Question 25.
Statement X : The image distance is fixed which is formed by eye lens.
Statement Y : The image formed on our retina is upside down.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) Y is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 26.
The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the ………………..
A) pupil
B) retina
C) ciliary muscles
D) iris
Answer:
C) ciliary muscles

Question 27.
When the eye is focused on a closer object the focal length of the eye lens ………………..
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 28.
When the eye is focused on a distant object the focal length of the eye lens …………………….
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
A) increases

Question 29.
The term “accommodation” as applied to the eye, refers to its ability to …………………..
A) control the light intensity falling on the retina.
B) vary the distance between eye lens and retina.
G) erect the inverted image on the retina.
D) change the focal length of the lens.
Answer:
D) change the focal length of the lens.

Question 30.
Statement X : The.focal length of the eye lens has maximum when the eye is focused on a distant object to focus the image.
Statement Y : The focal length of the eye lens has maximum when the eye is focused ‘ on a closer object to focus the image.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is.true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 31.
Statement X : When the eye is focused on a closer object the ciliary muscles are strained and focal length of the eye lens increases.
Statement Y : When the eye is focused on a distant object the ciliary muscles are relaxed and focal length of the eye lens|decreases.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
B) Both statements are false

Question 32.
Refraction of light in the eye occurs at …………………..
A) only the lens
B) only the cornea
C) both the cornea and lens
D) none
Answer:
A) only the lens

Question 33.
Statement X : The eye lens forms a real and inverted image of an object on the retina.
Statement Y : The eye lens forms a virtual and erect image of an object on the retina.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 34.
The range of focal length of an eye lens is…………………..
A) 0 to ∝
B) 2.25 to 2.50 cm
C) 2.27 to 2.50 cm
D) 0 to 25
Answer:
C) 2.27 to 2.50 cm

Question 35.
The value of focal length of the eye lens when an object is at infinity is ………………………
A) 2.50 cm
B) 2.25 cm
C) 2.27 cm
D) can’t find
Answer:
A) 2.50 cm

Question 36.
The value of focal length of the eye lens when an object is placed at a distance of least distance of distinct vision is …………………….
A) 2.50 cm
B) 2.25 cm
C) 2.27 cm
D) 25cm
Answer:
C) 2.27 cm

Question 37.
The value of focal length of the eye lens when the object is between infinity and the point of least distance of distinct vision is ……………………
A) greater than 2.5 cm
B) less than 2.27 cm
C) greater than 25 cm
D) between 2.27 cm to 2.50 cm
Answer:
D) between 2.27 cm to 2.50 cm

Question 38.
The ability of eye – lens to change its focal length is called…………………..
A) power of lens
B) accommodation of lens
C) co-ordination of lens
D) none
Answer:
B) accommodation of lens

Question 39.
The part of the eye sensitive to light is ……………………….
A) retina
B) pupil
C) ciliary muscles
D) cornea
Answer:
A) retina

Question 40.
The cells preseritiri the retina of an eye which identify the colour of an object are ……………………
A) rods
B) cones
C) both rods arid cones
D) none
Answer:
B) cones

Question 41.
The cells present in the retina of an eye which are sensitive to intensity of light are……………….
A) rods
B) cones
C) both rods and cones
D) none
Answer:
A) rods

Question 42.
The light signals are transmitted to the brain through ……………………….
A) eye lens
B) pupil
C) retina
D) optic nerves
Answer:
D) optic nerves

Question 43.
The function of the rods of the retina is to ……………………
A) adjust focal length of the eye lens
B) enable pupil to expand or contract to receive light
C) identify the intensity of light
D) identify the colour of light
Answer:
C) identify the intensity of light

Question 44.
The maximum and minimum focal lengths of the eye lens respectively are ………………….
A) 2 cm, 1cm
B) 2.25 cm, 1.5 cm
C) 2.5 cm, 2.27 cm
D) 25 cm, 2.27 cm
Answer:
C) 2.5 cm, 2.27 cm

Question 45.
Select the incorrect statement of the following.
A) The least distance of distinct vision at below 10 years age is 7- 8 cm
B) The least distance of distinct vision in old age is 1 m or even more
C) If angle of vision is above 60° then we can see only the part of the object
D) Angle of vision and least distance of distinct vision are same for all persons
Answer:
D) Angle of vision and least distance of distinct vision are same for all persons

Question 46.
Which part of human eye is called “Variable aperture”?
A) retina
B) cornea
C) pupil
D) lens
Answer:
C) pupil

Question 47.
For any position of an object in front of the human eye the image distance is fixed at ………………………
A) 1 cm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 0.25 cm
Answer:
C) 2.5 cm

Question 48.
Which of the following changes takes place when you walk out of bright sunshine into a poorly light room ?
A) The pupil becomes larger
B) The lens becomes thicker
C) The ciliary muscles relax
D) The pupil becomes smaller
Answer:
D) The pupil becomes smaller

Question 49.
When objects at different distances are seen by the eye one of the following remains constant.
A) focal length of the human eye lens
B) object distance from eye lens
C) the radii of curvature of eye lens
D) image distance from eye lens
Answer:
D) image distance from eye lens

Question 50.
Which part of the human eye contains “rods” and “cones” to receive the light signals?
A) cornea
B) iris
C) pupil
D) retina
Answer:
D) retina
Question 51.
For any position of the object in front of the human eye the image distance is ………………
A) 25 cm
B) 5 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 1 cm
Answer:
C) 2.5 cm

CONCEPT – II : Defects Of Visions – Their Corrections

Question 52.
Which of the following is common defect of vision ?
A) Myopia
B) Hypermetropia
C) Presbyopia
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 53.
Some people can not see ob j ects at long distances but can see nearby objects clearly. This type of defect in vision is called ………………..
A) myopia
B) near sightedness
C) both A and B
D) hypermetropia
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 54.
Some people can not see ob j ects at near distances but can see distant objects clearly. This type of defect in vision is called………………..
A) hypermetropia
B) long sightedness
C) both A and B
D) myopia
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 55.
The maximum focal length of the myopia eye is …………………
A) 2.5 cm
B) less than 2.5 cm
C) more than 2.5 cm
D) 22.7 cm
Answer:
B) less than 2.5 cm

Question 56.
The minimum focal length of the hypermetropic eye is ……………….
A) 2.27cm
B) lessthan 2.27 cm
C) greaterthan 2.27 cm
D) 2.5 cm
Answer:
C) greaterthan 2.27 cm

Question 57.
The point of maximum distance at which the eye lens can form an image on the retina is called
A) far point
B) near point
C) focal point
D) pupil
Answer:
A) far point

Question 58.
For normal vision the far point is ……………….
A) 25 cm
B) 2.5 cm
C) 0
D) at infinity
Answer:
D) at infinity

Question 59.
For myopic eye the far point lies ………………………
A) at 25 cm
B) between 25 cm and infinity
C) lessthan 25 cm
D) at infinity
Answer:
B) between 25 cm and infinity

Question 60.
For hypermetropic eye the far point lies …………………..
A) at 25 cm
B) at lessthan 25 cm
C) at infinity
D) at zero
Answer:
C) at infinity

Question 61.
The defect in which people can not see objects beyond far point is called …………………
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) presbyopia
D) none
Answer:
A) myopia

Question 62.
The point of minimum distance at which the eye lens cap form an image on the retina is called ……………………..
A) far point
B) near point
C) focal point
D) pupil
Answer:
B) near point

Question 63.
The defect in which people can not see objects between near point and point of least distance of distinct vision is called …………………….
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) presbyopia
D) none
Answer:
B) hypermetropia

Question 64.
Statement X : In myopia people can not see objects beyond far point.
Statement Y : In hypermetropia people can see objects beyond near point.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 65.
For a myopic eye the image is formed ………………. when the object is placed beyond the far point.
A) at retina
B) before the retina
C) beyond the retina
D) none
Answer:
B) before the retina

Question 66.
For a hypermetropic eye the image is formed……………., when the object is placed between near point and point of least distance of distinct vision.
A) at retina
B) before the retina
C) beyond the retina
D) none
Answer:
C) beyond the retina

Question 67.
Myopia can be corrected by using …………………….
A) concave lens
B) convex lens
C) bi focal lens
D) concave mirror
Answer:
A) concave lens

Question 68.
Hypermetropia can be corrected by using ………………….
A) concave lens
B) convex lens
C) bi focal lens
D) convex mirror
Answer:
B) convex lens

Question 69.
Which of the following ray diagram is correct for myopia defect ?

D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 70.
Which of the following ray diagram is correct for hypermetropia defect.

D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 71.
The focal length of the lens to be used to correct myopia when the far point distance is “d” cm.
A) f = 25d/ (d – 25)
B) f = -d
C) f = (d – 25)/ 25d
D) f = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~d}}\)
Answer:
B) f = -d

Question 72.
The focal length of the lens to be used to correct hypermetropia when the near point distance is “d” cm.
A) f = 25d/ (d – 25)
B) f = -d
C) f = (d-25)/ 25d
D) f = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~d}}\)
Answer:
A) f = 25d/ (d – 25)

Question 73.
The ability of accommodation of the eye usually decreases with ageing. This type of defect in vision is called ………………….
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) cataract
D) presbyopia
Answer:
D) presbyopia

Question 74.
A person suffering from myopia and hypermetropia uses ………………. lens.
A) convex
B) concave
C) bifocal
D) cylindrical
Answer:
C) bifocal

Question 75.
Statement X : Bifocal lens has concave lens at its upper portion and convex lens ‘at its lower portion.
Statement Y : Bifocal lens has convex lens at its upper portion and concave lens at its lower portion.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 76.
Presbyopia can be corrected by using ………………… lens.
A) convex
B) concave
C) bifocal
D) cylindrical
Answer:
C) bifocal

Question 77.
The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays that can be achieved by a lens is called …………………..
A) accommodation
B) power
C) focal length
D) none
Answer:
C) focal length

Question 78.
The reciprocal of focal length of a lens is called ……………………….
A) accommodation
B) power
C) focal length
D) radius of curvature
Answer:
B) power

Question 79.
The unit of power is ………………………
A) diopter
B) meter
C) centimetre
D) 1/diopter
Answer:
A) diopter

Question 80.
See figure, parallel rays of light fall on eye and they converge before the retina. It represents a certain defect in the eye. To correct it …………….. lens is used.

A) bi convex
B) biconcave
C) convex (or) cbncave
D) concavo – convex
Answer:
B) biconcave

Question 81.
Doctor tested the eyes of Raj Kumar and identified that he had hypermetropia. The distance of near point is 50 cm. The power of the lens suggested by the doctor to him is ……………………..
A) -2D
B) + 1D
C) – 1D
D) + 2D
Answer:
D) + 2D

Question 82.
In case of eye defect called “myopia” image is formed ………………………
A) after retina
B) before retina
C) on retina
D) none
Answer:
B) before retina

Question 83.
If a person uses a lens of -2.5 D power, then the focal length of the lens is ……………………
A) 40 cm
B) 50 cm
C) -40 cm
D) -50 cm
Answer:
C) -40 cm

Question 84.
Find the focal length of the lens if the power of the lens is – 2D
A) 49 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 52.5 cm
D) 55 cm
Answer:
B) 50 cm

Question 85.
A doctor advised to use 4D lens. The focal length of the lens is ……………………..
A) 25cm
B) 400cm
C) 4 cm
D) 40 cm
Answer:
A) 25cm

Question 86.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
A) A person with hypermetropia can see near by objects clearly
B) A person with myopia can see near by objects clearly
C) A person with hypermetropia can not see distant objects clearly
D) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
Answer:
B) A person with myopia can see near by objects clearly

Question 87.
If far point of a long sighted person is ‘x’. The focal length of the lens he has to use is …………………..
A) \(\frac{25 x}{x-25}\)
B) \(\frac{25 x}{x+25}\)
C) \(\frac{x-25}{25 x}\)
D) \(\frac{x+25}{25 x}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{25 x}{x-25}\)

Question 88.
The minimum focal length of eye lens for the person of hypermetropia is greater than …………………
A) 2.27 cm
B) 2.5 cm
C) 2.5 m
D) 2.27 m
Answer:
A) 2.27 cm

Question 89.
A doctor has advised to use 2.5D lens. The focal length of the lens is …………………..
A) 40 cm
B) 250 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 50 cm
Answer:
A) 40 cm

Question 90.
Ramu can read a book perfectly well but cannot read the writing on black board unless he sits on the front row in class. Name the defect he has …………………..
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) presbyopia
D) astigmatism
Answer:
A) myopia

Question 91.
A man can read the number of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book. The defect of vision he has is …………………….
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) presbyopia
D) astigmatism
Answer:
B) hypermetropia

Question 92.
A student sitting in the last row of the class room is not able to read clearly the writing on the black board. Name the defect he is suffering from.
A) myopia
B) hypermetropia
C) presbyopia
D) astigmatism
Answer:
A) myopia

Question 93.
A doctor has advised to use + 1D and + 1.5D lens for his left eye and right eye respectively of a patient. What type of defect he has …………………..
A) short – sightedness
B) long-sightedness
C) cataract
D) presbyopia
Answer:
B) long-sightedness

Question 94.
A student sitting on the last bench in the class cannot read the writing on the black board clearly but he can read the book lying on his desk clearly. Which of the following statements is correct about the student ?
A) The near point of his eyes has receded away
B) The near point of his eyes has, come closer to him
C) The far point of his eyes has receded away
D) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him
Answer:
D) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him

Question 95.
Far point of a person is 5 m. In order to have normal vision what kind of spectacles should he use ?
A) Concave lens with focal length 5 m
B) Concave lens with focal length 10 m
C) Convex lens with focal length 5 m
D) Convex lens with focal length 2.5 m
Answer:
A) Concave lens with focal length 5 m

CONCEPT – III : Dispersion and scattering of light

Question 96.
A transparent medium separated from – the surrounding medium by atleast two plane surfaces which are inclined at a . certain angle in such a way that light incident on one of the plane surfaces emerges from the other plane surface is called ……………………..
A) a rectangular glass slab
B) a prism
C) a mirror
D) a lens
Answer:
B) a prism

Question 97.
Which of the following statements is false?
A) The angle between the two rectangular plane surfaces of a prism is called the angle of the prism.
B) The angle between the emergent ray and normal is called the angle of emergence.
C) The angle between the emergent ray and incident ray is called angle of deviation.
D) The angle between the incident ray and refracted ray is called angle of deviation.
Answer:
D) The angle between the incident ray and refracted ray is called angle of deviation.

Question 98.
Identify correctly marked angles from the figure.

A) only i
B) i and e
C) i, e and d
D) none
Answer:
C) i, e and d

Question 99.
A ray of light falls on one of the lateral surface of an equilateral prism placed on the horizontal surface of a table as shown in figure. For minimum deviation of ray which of the following is true?

A) PQ is horizontal
B) QR is horizontal
C) RS is horizontal
D) Either PQ or RS is horizontal
Answer:
B) QR is horizontal

Question 100.
A ray of light incident with 45° on one of the lateral surface of an equilateral prism placed on the horizontal surface of a table. Find the minimum deviation produced by a prism.
A) 45°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
B) 30°
Question 101.
Find angle of a glass prism from the graph.

A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
C) 60°

Question 102.
Statement X : For minimum angle of deviation the angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence.
Statement Y : For minimum angle of deviation the incidentray is parallel to the emergent ray.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 103.
The relation among angle of incidence (i₁) angle of emergence (i₁) angle of deviation (d) and angle of prism (A)
A) A + i₁ = d + i₂
B) A – d = i₁ + i₂
C) A + d = i₁ + i₂
D) A + d = i₁ – i₂
Answer:
C) A + d = i₁ + i₂

Question 104.
The formula for the refractive index of the prism …………………..

D) n = sin (A + D) / sin A
Answer:

Question 105.
A prism with an angle A = 60° produces an angle of minimum deviation of 30°. Find the refractive index of the prism.
A) √3
B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
C) √2
D) 2
Answer:
C) √2

Question 106.
The value of angle of deviation produced by a prism …………………….
A) increases with increase in the value of angle of incidence
B) increases with increase in the value of wavelength of incident
C) decreases first and then increases with increase in the angle of incidence
D) increases first and then decreases with increase in the angle of incidence
Answer:
C) decreases first and then increases with increase in the angle of incidence

Question 107.
The splitting of white light into different colours is called…………
A) dispersion
B) scattering
C) refraction
D) total internal reflection
Answer:
A) dispersion

Question 108.
The colour of white light which suffers the maximum bending on passing through a glass prism is …………………….
A) red
B) yellow
C) green
D) violet
Answer:
D) violet

Question 109.
The colour of white light which suffers the minimum refraction on passing through a glass prism is …………………
A) red
B) yellow
C) orange
D) violet
Answer:
A) red

Question 110.
In the spectrum of white light the two colours appearing at the ends are ………………
A) red, violet
B) green, yellow
C) blue, red
D) red, orange
Answer:
A) red, violet

Question 111.
Statement X : The speed of light is constant in vacuum for all colours.
Statement Y : The speed of light is constant in medium for all colours.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 112.
Statement X : The refractive index of medium depends on wavelength of light.
Statement Y : The refractive index decreases with an increase in wavelength.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 113.
Which of the following colour of white light has least Wavelength ?
A) Red
B) Violet
C) Indigo
D) Blue
Answer:
B) Violet

Question 114.
Which of the following colour of white light has maximum wavelength ?
A) Green
B) Orange
C) Violet
D) Red
Answer:
D) Red

Question 115.
The relation between wavelength and deviation is ……………………
A) wavelength ∝ deviation
B) wavelength ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { deviation }}\)
C) wavelength = deviation
D) none
Answer:
B) wavelength ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { deviation }}\)

Question 116.
The relation between the speed of a wave (υ), wavelength and (λ) frequency
(f) is ……………………
A) f = υ λ
B) υ = f λ
C) λ = f υ
D) λ = \(\frac{f}{v}\)
Answer:
B) υ = f λ

Question 117.
The number of waves leaving the source per second is called …………………..
A) frequency
B) wavelength
C) speed of the wave
D) none
Answer:
A) frequency

Question 118.
Which of the following does not change due to refraction ?
A) Wavelength
B) Speed of the wave
C) Frequency
D) None
Answer:
C) Frequency

Question 119.
Statement X : Speed of the wave increases with increase in , wavelength of light.
Statement Y : Frequency does not change due to refraction.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 120.
Bright rainbow can be observed when the angle between incoming and outgoing light ray in a rain drop is …………………
A) 42°
B) 0° to 40°
C) 40°
D) 0° to 42°
Answer:
D) 0° to 42°

Question 121.
The red colour in a rainbow will be seen when the angle between a beam of sunlight and light sent back by a raindrop ………………….
A) 42°
B) 0° to 40°
C) 40°
D) 0° to 42°
Answer:
A) 42°

Question 122.
The violet colour in a rainbow will be seen when the angle between a beam of sunlight and light sent back by a raindrop ……………….
A) 42°
B) 40°
C) 0° to 42°
D) 0° to 40°
Answer:
B) 40°

Question 123.
If we look at the raindrops dispersing sunlight at an angle between 40° and 42° ………………..
A) we can observe only violet
B) we can observe only red
C) we can observe VIBGYOR
D) we can observe VIBG only
Answer:
C) we can observe VIBGYOR

Question 124.
The light dispersed by the rain drops appears as a bow because ……………………
A) all drops that disperse the light towards us lie in the shape of bow
B) all drops that disperse the light towards us lie in the shape of cone with our eye as tip
C) all drops that disperse the light towards us lie in the shape of circle.
D) none
Answer:
B) all drops that disperse the light towards us lie in the shape of cone with our eye as tip

Question 125.
Rainbow contains ………………………
A) red colour on the outermost layer
B) violet colour on the outermost layer
C) red colour on the innermost layer
D) yellow colour on the outermost layer
Answer:
A) red colour on the outermost layer

Question 126.
Statement X : A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the sun.
Statement Y : A rainbow is produced by the dispersion of white sunlight by rain drop in the atmosphere.
A) Both statement are true
B) Both statement are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statement are true

Question 127.
Which one of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
A) refraction, dispersion
B) refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
C) reflection, refraction and dispersion
D) dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Answer:
B) refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

Question 128.
In prism experiment the i – d curve looks like ………………………
A) straight line
B) circle
C) parabola
D) elipse
Answer:
C) parabola

Question 129.
The splitting of white light into different colours is called …………………..
A) dispersion
B) scattering
C) refraction
D) reflection
Answer:
A) dispersion

Question 130.
Light is a/an ……………………….
A) longitudinal wave
B) stationary wave
C) electromagnetic wave
D) none
Answer:
C) electromagnetic wave

Question 131.
What happens to refractive index of a medium when wavelength of incident light ray increases?
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Becomes zero
D) Becomes infinity
Answer:
A) Decreases

Question 132.
The reason for low angle of deviation for red colour in dispersion of light is due to its …………………
A) low refractive index
B) high refractive index
C) low wavelength
D) frequency
Answer:
A) low refractive index

Question 133.
The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to the dispersion of sunlight by ………………….
A) clouds
B) water droplets
C) air molecules
D) water in the sea
Answer:
B) water droplets

Question 134.
Read the following two statements and choose the correct answer.
a) Red colour has the shortest wavelength.
b) Formation of rainbow is an example for dispersion.
A) only (a) is true
B) only (b) is true
C) (a) is false; (b) is true
D) both (a) and (b) are false
Answer:
C) (a) is false; (b) is true

Question 135.
The process of re-emission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by atoms or molecules is called………………..
A) scattering of light
B) dispersion of light
C) refraction of light
D) reflection of light
Answer:
A) scattering of light

Question 136.
A small particle will scatter light of ……………. wavelength better.
A) large
B) shorter
C) medium
D) none
Answer:
B) shorter

Question 137.
Statement X : The intensity of scattered light varies with angle of scattering.
Statement Y : The intensity of scattered light is maximum at 90° of angle of scattering.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 138.
The blue colour of the sky is due to ……………………
A) refraction of light
B) dispersion of light
C) diffraction of light
D) scattering of light
Answer:
D) scattering of light

Question 139.
The sky appears blue because some of the blue component of sunlight is scattered by
A) gas molecules present in air
B) dust particles present in air
C) water droplets suspended in air
D) soot particles present in air
Answer:
A) gas molecules present in air

Question 140.
Which of the following molecules are responsible for the sky appearing blue
A) N₂
B) O₂
C) H₂O
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 141.
The scientific work of C.V. Raman is on
A) dispersion of light
B) total internal reflection of light
C) defects of vision
D) scattering of light
Answer:
D) scattering of light

Question 142.
The red colour of the sun at the time of sunrise and sunset is because
A) red colour is least scattered
B) blue colour is least scattered
C) red colour is most scattered
D) blue colour is most scattered
Answer:
A) red colour is least scattered

Question 143.
Assertion (A) : Blue colour of the sky is due to scattering of light.
Reason (R) : Blue colour has shortest wavelength among all colours of white light.
A) Both A and R are true
B) Both A and R are false
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
C) A is true but R is false

Question 144.
Assertion (A) : The refractive index of a prism depends only on the kind of a glass which is made of and the colour of light.
Reason (R) : The refractive index of a prism depends on the refracting angle of a prism and the angle of minimum deviation.
A) Both A and R are true
B) Both A and R are false
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
C) A is true but R is false

Question 145.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A) The sun does not appear red during noon hours because the distance travelled by the sun rays in the atmosphere is less than that compared to morning and evening hours.
B) The sun appears red during sunrise and sunset because except red colour, all colours scatter more and vanish before they reach our eye.
C) Speed of light is constant in vacuum for all colours.
D) Speed of light is constant when it has passed through medium for all colotus.
Answer:
D) Speed of light is constant when it has passed through medium for all colotus.

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 16 Making of Laws in the State Assembly on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 16th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a body for making the laws for the state?
A) Cabinet
B) Legislative Assembly
C) High Court
D) Constitution
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly

Question 2.
Which body is responsible for implementing the laws in the state?
A) The Legislative Assembly
B) High Court
C) Cabinet
D) Supreme court
Answer:
C) Cabinet

Question 3.
Our state has MLAs.
A) 110
B) 274
C) 175
D) 284
Answer:
C) 175

Question 4.
MLAs are elected by
A) ZPTCs
B) MPTCs
C) the people directly
D) MLCs
Answer:
C) the people directly

Question 5.
When do men and women get the right to vote in our country?
A) at the age of 21
B) at the age of 24
C) at the age of 18
D) at the age of 20
Answer:
C) at the age of 18

Question 6.
Elections to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha) are held once in ……….. years.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
A) 5

Question 7.
The number of constituencies in a state will depend upon
A) Its area
B) Its population
C) Its resources
D) Its geographical features
Answer:
B) Its population

Question 8.
Nominal tenure of an elected MLA.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 9.
The normal tenure of the legislative assembly of every state is of fine but it may be dissolved earlier by the
A) Speaker
B) Governer
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
B) Governer

Question 10.
The minimum age required for a person to contest in the elections is
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
C) 25 years

Question 11.
The leader of the leading party in the assembly is called
A) Minister
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Question 12.
The leader of the second-largest party in the house is called
A) Chief Minister
B) Minister
C) Speaker
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
D) Opposition leader

Question 13.
The Chief Minister is appointed by
A) The Chief Justice of the High Court
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) President of India
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 14.
Which of the following is also called the Government?
A) The legislative Assembly
B) Cabinet
C) Chief Minister
D) Governor
Answer:
B) Cabinet

Question 15.
The Cabinet is responsible to
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) The legislative Assembly
Answer:
D) The legislative Assembly

Question 16.
Who elects the speaker of the Assembly?
A) The majority party MLAs
B) The opposition party MLA
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly
D) Speaker will not be elected.
He will be nominated by the Governor
Answer:
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly

Question 17.
Before law is passed, the proposed law is called a
A) Draft
B) Bill
C) Proposal
D) Act
Answer:
B) Bill

Question 18.
After the Bill is passed by both the Chambers it should be approved by:
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) Chief Justice of High Court
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 19.
When the Governor approves a Bill, It will be called
A) A Bill
B) A Draft
C) A Gazette
D) An Act
Answer:
D) An Act

Question 20.
How many houses do the Andhra Pradesh Legislature have?
A) One
B) two
C) three
D) Four
Answer:
B) two

Question 21.
The lower house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)

Question 22.
The upper house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)

Question 23.
The Andhra Pradesh Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) was created again in
A) 2005
B) 2009
C) 2007
D) 2004
Answer:
C) 2007

Question 24.
Which of the following is a permanent house?
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Legislative Council
C) Both A & B
D) Vidhan Sabha
Answer:
B) Legislative Council

Question 25.
The term of the members of the Legislative Council (Vidhana Parishad)
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 26.
The minimum age required for a person to contest as MLC (Vidhana Parishad) is
A) 21 years
B) 25 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
Answer:
C) 30 years

Question 27.
AP Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) has members in total.
A) 294
B) 100
C) 50
D) 120
Answer:
C) 50

Question 28.
How many MLCs & are elected by the MLAs?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 29.
How many MLCs are elected by the members of local bodies?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 30.
How many MLCs are elected by the graduates?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 31.
How many MLCs are elected by the teachers?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 32.
How many members are nominated by the Governor to the Legislative Council?
A) 8
B) 30
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
A) 8

Question 33.
Governor of state is appointed by
A) The Chief Minister
B) The Prime Minister
C) The President of India
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
C) The President of India

Question 34.
How many constituencies are reserved for SCs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 54
D) 21
Answer:
A) 29

Question 35.
How many constituencies are reserved for STs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 22
D) 21
Answer:
B) 07

Question 36.
Who do the MLA s address while speaking in Assembly?
A) The Chief Minister
B) The leader of the opposition party
C) The speaker
D) To the MLA. or the Minister he wants to speak
Answer:
C) The speaker

Question 37.
The contestant of the assembly who belongs to no political party
A) Political party contestants
B) Independents
C) Long term contestants
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Independents

Question 38.
The age limit to contest for state assembly is years.
A) 18
B) 21
C) 25
D) 30
Answer:
C) 25

Question 39.
The voter ID cards are observed by
A) Returning Officer
B) Polling Booth Officer
C) Election officer
D) None
Answer:
B) Polling Booth Officer

Question 40.
The majority of party members elect one of their members as
A) leader
B) team leader
C) woman officer
D) none
Answer:
A) leader

Question 41.
All the executive powers of the state government vests in the hands of
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 42.
Who appoints the Council of ministers and allots portfolios?
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.

Question 43.
In Andhra Pradesh, laws are made by the state legislature, which has ……….. chambers
A) two
B) one
C) three
D) None
Answer:
A) two

Question 44.
The place the problems of the people before the assembly.
A) MLAs
B) Legislative Assemblies
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) MLAs

Question 45.
………….. conducts the Assembly meetings.
A) Speaker
B) CM
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
A) Speaker

Question 46.
Both Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are declared as two states
A) 2010 June 2nd
B) 2014 June 2nd
C) 2016 June 2nd
D) 2015 June 1st
Answer:
B) 2014 June 2nd

Question 47.
The no. of members to Vidhana Parishad (legislative council) who are elected by the graduates.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/2
C) 1/6th
D) 1/10th
Answer:
B) 1/2

Question 48.
The governor nominates persons to Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/12th
C) 1/6th
D) 1/8th
Answer:
C) 1/6th

Question 49.
The no. of Indo-Indians that are appointed to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
C) 1

Question 50.
The no. allotted to schedule caste people to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 10
B) 29
C) 12
D) 1
Answer:
B) 29

Question 51.
This share is elected by the MLAs to Andhra Pradesh Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/6th
C) 1/12 th
D) None
Answer:
A) 1/3rd

Question 52.

Once upon a time the picture is
A) A.P Assembly
B) T.S Assembly
C) Kerala Assembly
D) None
Answer:
A) A.P Assembly

Question 53.

What does the map show?
A) Districts
B) Regions
C) Legislating constituencies
D) None
Answer:
C) Legislating constituencies

Question 54.
How many, constituencies are there at present in A.P Assembly?
A) 294
B) 175
C) 180
D) 194
Answer:
B) 175

Question 55.

• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the MLA’s.
• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the members who were elected to Local Bodies like panchayats and municipalities.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Graduates.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Teachers.
• 8 members (1/6) are nominated by the Governor.

Q. Who nominated members to Legislative Council?
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Governor
D) Vice President
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 56.
What is the share of MLCs elected by the MLAs?
A) 1/2
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 3/4
Answer:
C) 1/3

Question 57.
What is the share MLCs elected by teachers?
A) 1/4
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/12
Answer:
D) 1/12

Question 58.
The Indian President is elected by
A) Prime Minister
B) Vice President
C) An Electoral college
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
C) An Electoral college

Question 59.
A bill introduced in the State Assembly can become an act only with the approval of
A) Governor
B) Speaker
C) Chief Minister
D) Finance Minister
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 60.
To consider the bill as an Act, it should get
A) Approval of Chief Minister
B) Approval of Governor
C) Approval of Vidhana Sabha and Vidhana Parishad
D) B and C
Answer:
B) Approval of Governor

Question 61.
Different ministries are allotted to the members of the state cabinet by
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) High court Chief justice
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Establishment of the British Empire in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When did the East India company acquire a charter from the ruler of England?
A) In 1600 AD
B) In 1606 AD
C) In 1611 AD
D) In 1616 AD
Answer:
A) In 1600 AD

Question 2.
Which European country first established its trade relationship with India?
A) England
B) France
C) Holland
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 3.
Where did Portugal have their trade base in India?
A) Madras
B) Machilipatnam
C) Goa
D) Calcutta
Answer:
C) Goa

Question 4.
Vasco da Gama was a ………… explorer.
A) French
B) English
C) Portuguese
D) Dutch
Answer:
C) Portuguese

Question 5.
……………. discovered the sea route to India.
A) Maegallan
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Columbus
D) Captain cook
Answer:
B) Vasco da Gama

Question 6.
Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India in the year.
A) In 1452 AD
B) In 1492 AD
C) In 1498 AD
D) In 1600 AD
Answer:
C) In 1498 AD

Question 7.
The correct chronological order of the arrival of European companies into India to have trade relations with it.
A) English, Portuguese, French, and Dutch
B) English, French, Dutch and Portuguese
C) English, Dutch, French, and Portuguese
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English
Answer:
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English

Question 8.
The last European country to enter into India to have trade relations with it was
A) Portugal
B) France
C) Holland
D) England
Answer:
D) England

Question 9.
Who defeated Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot?
A) Portuguese
B) French
C) English
D) Dutch
Answer:
B) French

Question 10.
When did the Battle of Arcot take place between the Nawab of Arcot and the French?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1763 AD
D) In 1762 AD
Answer:
B) In 1764 AD

Question 11.
Dupleix was the governor of
A) English East India Company
B) French East India Company
C) Dutch East India Company
D) Portuguese East India Company
Answer:
B) French East India Company

Question 12.
Who was Muzaffar Jang?
A) The Nizam of Deccan
B) The Nawab of Arcot
C) The Nawab of Bijapur
D) The Nawab of Bedar
Answer:
A) The Nizam of Deccan

Question 13.
Which port town was gifted to the French by the Nizam of Deccan?
A) Machilipatnam
B) Madras
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Krishnapatnam
Answer:
A) Machilipatnam

Question 14.
When did the Battle of Plassey take place?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1769 AD
D) In 1763 AD
Answer:
A) In 1757 AD

Question 15.
Who was the Nawab of Bengal who fought with the English in the battle of Plassey?
A) Sirajuddaula
B) Mir Jaffer
C) Mir Khasim
D) Anwaruddin Khan
Answer:
A) Sirajuddaula

Question 16.
Who defeated Sirajuddaula in the battle of Plassey?
A) The English
B) The French
C) The Portuguese
D) The Dutch
Answer:
A) The English

Question 17.
Who was the founder of English rule in India?
A) Robert dive
B) Warren Hastings
C) Wellesly
D) Cornwallis
Answer:
A) Robert dive

Question 18.
Which battle was the beginning for the English to conquer many Indian kingdoms?
A) Battle of Plassey
B) Battle of Wandwasi
C) Battle of Buxar
D) Battle of Arcot
Answer:
A) Battle of Plassey

Question 19.
Who gave away the Northern sarkars to the English?
A) Nizam of Hyderabad
B) Nawab of Bengal
C) Nawab of Mysore
D) Nawab of Bijapur
Answer:
A) Nizam of Hyderabad

Question 20.
Which kingdom did Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan belong to?
A) Mysore
B) Hyderabad
C) Arcot
D) Maratha
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 21.
When did the revolt of Sipahis take place?
A) In 1857
B) In 1757
C) In 1763
D) In 1858
Answer:
A) In 1857

Question 22.
Where did the 1857 revolt start first?
A) In Meerut
B) In Delhi
C) In Paniput
D) In Barrackpur
Answer:
A) In Meerut

Question 23.
On which date of 1857 the revolt started in Meerut?
A) May 11
B) May 09
C) May 10
D) May 21
Answer:
C) May 10

Question 24.
After the rebellion at Meerut was over, the rebellions soldiers marched towards
A) Mathura
B) Aligarh
C) Jhansi
D) Delhi
Answer:
D) Delhi

Question 25.
Who was the last Mughal emperor?
A) Shah Alam
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar
C) Aurangazeb
D) Akbar – II
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Question 26.
After the 1857 revolt, Bahadur Shah Zafar was imprisoned in …………
A) Lai Quila
B) Rangoon
C) Andaman
D) Tihar
Answer:
B) Rangoon

Question 27.
When was the declaration by Queen Victoria made?
A) In 1857
C) In 1858
B) In 1859
D) In I860
Answer:
C) In 1858

Question 28.
The Mughal ruler, ……….. granted Robert dive the right to rule Bengal.
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Alam
P) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer:
C) Shah Alam

Question 29.
Anrangpzeh died in
A) 1700
B) 1707
C) 1709
D) 1711
Answer:
B) 1707

Question 30.
The English East India Company was established in
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1650
D) 1750
Answer:
A) 1600

Question 31.
The East India Company was mainly a trade organization that depended on the profits
A) industries
B) trade
C) agriculture
D) none
Answer:
B) trade

Question 32.
Bahadur Shah Zafar and his sons being arrested by
A) Cap Williamson
B) Captain Hodson
C) Cap William
D) None
Answer:
B) Captain Hodson

Question 33.
These Indian goods had the best demand in Europe.
A) cotton
B) silk
C) spices
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 34.
These two companies fought for many years to capture trade in India.
A) The English & French
B) The Portugese & Dutch
C) The English & Dutch
D) The French & Portugese
Answer:
A) The English & French

Question 35.
The wealth that was accumulated in this way one of the most important factors that enabled England to devleop industries and establish
A) their dominance in the country
B) dominance in the world
C) dominance over shipping
D) all of the above
Answer:
B) dominance in the world

Question 36.
As long as this empire was strong, it had not been possible for the European companies to establish their own military power in India.
A) Delhi Sultans
B) Mughals
C) Sivaji
D) Qutub Shahis
Answer:
B) Mughals

Question 37.
Some years after the death of Aurangazeb, these different provinces of the empire became almost independent and were ruled by their respective governors which nominally acknowledged, the Mughal emperor as their supreme.
A) Bengal
B) Awadh
C) Hyderabad
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
In …………… AD, Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot sent his army to fight against the French company.
A) 1760
B) 1764
C) 1780
D) 1784
Answer:
B) 1764

Question 39.
The rulers also gifted the companies large amounts of ………….. in return for their military help.
A) cash
B) capital
C) investment
D) trade
Answer:
A) cash

Question 40.
Barrackpur was nearer to this city
A) Bombay
B) Agra
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Kolkata

Question 41.
The English East India Company also forced the Nizam of Hyderabad to handover the Northern Sarkars with these districts
A) Krishna
B) East & West Godavari districts
C) Visakhapatnam, Vijayanagaram
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
An English official is known as the would-be assigned to stay in the court of the kings and Nawabs.
A) Resident
B) Government executive
C) Official ruler
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Resident

Question 43.
The English lost their power in North India during the war in this year.
A) 1860
B) 1857
C) 1880
D) 1864
Answer:
B) 1857

Question 44.
The royal families revolted in 1857.
A) Nana Sahib
B) Tantia Tope
C) Jhansi Lakshmi Bai
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
This was declared as the Indian emperor during the 1857 revolution
A) Bahadur Shah – II
B) Bahadur Shah – I
C) Khasikhan
D) Jalandhar Shah
Answer:
A) Bahadur Shah – II

Question 46.
One of the revolts against the British in Hyderabad during the 1857 revolt
A) Chengiz Khan
B) Turrebaz Khan
C) Shaistha Khan
D) None
Answer:
B) Turrebaz Khan

Question 47.
The main reason for the failure of the 1857 revolt
A) It was not widespread throughout the country
B) All did not participate in the revolution
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
C) All the above

Question 48.
The fires of the revolution spread to all the villages in these states
A) U.P.
B) Bihar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 49.
The emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was arrested and sent to here in 1857 revolution
A) Rangoon
B) Delhi
C) Lucknow
D) Dhaka
Answer:
A) Rangoon

Question 50.
The picture is

A) Red fort
B) Gol Gumboz
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London
D) The headquarters of Portuguese East India Company in India
Answer:
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London

Question 51.

What is the specialty of the person in the picture?
A) He made good relations with India
B) He discovered a sea route to India
C) He was the founder of the Mughal empire
D) He was a viceroy of Britain
Answer:
B) He discovered a sea route to India

Question 52.

What was the historical incident shown in the picture?
A) Zagirdars revolted against Mughals
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857
C) Polygars revolts
D) Razakars movement
Answer:
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857

Question 53.

Who was arrested in the picture?
A) Aurangzeb and his sons
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons
C) Shivaji and his son
D) None
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons

Question 54.
‘The Europeans discovered a sea route to India”. The reason is
A) To conquer India
B) To develop their trade
C) Indians asked them to do trade
D) All the above
Answer:
B) To develop their trade

Question 55.
The Indian ruler gifted the companies large amounts of money” because
A) For their military help
B) For their trading activities
C) For paying taxes on goods
D) All the above
Answer:
A) For their military help

Question 56.
The Revolt of 1857 suppressed by the English easily”. The reason is
A) They did not fight together
B) The Siphis revolt only one place
C) It was spread only in villages
D) None
Answer:
A) They did not fight together

Question 57.
Delhi: …………..:: Tajmahal: Agra
A) Lai Quila
B) Rama Mandir (Ramajanma Bhoomi)
C) St. Peters Church
D) Mecca Masjid
Answer:
A) Lai Quila

Question 58.

Which area is not under British rule?
A) Mysore
B) Calcutta
C) Benaras
D) Bombay
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 59.
Battle of Plassey: 1757 A.D:: Battle of Buxar: ……………..
A) 1857
B) 1864
C) 1762
D) 1764
Answer:
D) 1764

Question 60.
1857 : Queen Victoria : : 2018 : ……………
A) Princes
B) William
C) Queen Elizabeth
D) Princes Dayana
Answer:
C) Queen Elizabeth

Question 61.
The Battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Question 62.
The following person does not relate with sepoys revolt
A) Gandhiji
B) Rani of Jhansi
C) Nana Saheb
D) Tantiya Tope
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 63.
The battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because :
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D.
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 4th Lesson Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces with Answers

CONCEPT – I : Refraction of Light at A Single Curved Surface

Question 1.
What happens to a ray that travels along the principal axis, strikes a convex surface and passes from rarer to denser medium ?
A) The ray deviates from its path
B) The ray does not deviate from its path
C) The ray bends towards the normal after refraction
D) The ray bends away from the normal after refraction
Answer:
B) The ray does not deviate from its path

Question 2.
What happens to a ray that travels along the principal axis, strikes a concave surface and passes from rarer to denser medium?
A) The ray deviates from its path
B) The ray does not deviate from its path
C) The ray bends towards the normal after refraction
D) The ray bends away from the normal after refraction
Answer:
B) The ray does not deviate from its path

Question 3.
What happens to a ray that travels through the centre of curvature of a single curved surface ?
A) The ray deviates from its path
B) The ray does not deviate from its path
C) The ray bends towafds the normal
D) The ray bends away from the normal
Answer:
B) The ray does not deviate from its path

Question 4.
The refracted ray …………….. when a ray travelling parallel to the principal axis, strikes a convex surface and passes from rarer to denser medium
A) moves towards the principal axis
B) moves away from the principal axis
C) moves parallel to the principal axis
D) moves along the normal
Answer:
A) moves towards the principal axis

Question 5.
The refracted ray ………………. when a ray travelling parallel to the principal axis, strikes a convex surface and passes from denser medium to rarer medium
A) moves towards the principal axis
B) moves away from the principal axis
C) moves parallel to the principal axis
D) moves along the normal
Answer:
B) moves away from the principal axis

Question 6.
The refracted ray ………………. when a ray travelling parallel to the principal axis, strikes a concave surface and passes from rarer medium to denser medium
A) moves towards the principal axis
B) moves away from the principal axis
C) moves parallel to the principal axis
D) moves along the normal
Answer:
B) moves away from the principal axis

Question 7.
The refracted ray ……………… when a ray travelling parallel to the principal axis, strikes a concave surface and passes from denser medium to rarer medium
A) moves towards the principal axis
B) moves away from the principal axis
C) moves parallel to the principal axis
D) moves along the normal
Answer:
A) moves towards the principal axis

Question 8.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following.

Answer:

Question 9.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following.

Answer:

Question 10.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following.

Answer:

Question 11.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following. When a ray of light travels parallel to the principal axis

Answer:

Question 12.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following when a ray of light travels parallel to the principal, axis.

Answer:

Question 13.
Trace out the correct diagram from the following when a ray of light travels parallel to the principal axis.

Answer:

Question 14.
The formula used when a light ray enters a medium with refractive index n₂ from a medium with refractive index n₁ at curved surface with a radius of Curvature R is

Answer:

Question 15.
The formula used when a light ray enters a medium with refractive index n₂ from a medium with refractive index n₁ at plane surface is

Answer:
C) \(\frac{n_{2}}{v}=\frac{n_{1}}{u}\)

Question 16.
A bird is flying down vertically to wards the surface of water in a pond with constant speed. There is a fish inside the water. If the fish is exactly vertically below the bird, then the bird will appear
to the fish to be
a) farther away than its actual distance
b) closer than its actual distance
c) moving faster than its actual speed
d) moving slower than its actual speed
Which of the above options are true?
A) only (a)
B) (a) and (c)
C) (a) and (d)
D) (b) and (d)
Answer:
B) (a) and (c)

Question 17.
A person is standing on the bank of a river. A fish inside water will see the person to be
A) taller
B) shorter
C) original height
D) none
Answer:
A) taller

Question 18.
A transparent sphere of radius R and refractive index n is kept in Air.At what distance from the surface of the sphere should a point object be placed on the principal axis so as to form a real image at the same distance from the second surface of the sphere?
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
B) (n – 1).R
C)R+(n – 1)
D)R/n – 1
Answer:
D)R/n – 1

Question 19.
A lemon kept in a glass of water appears to be bigger than its actual size. This is due to ……….
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) total internal reflection
D) dispersion
Answer:
B) refraction

Question 20.
A curved surface of radius of curvature R is separating the two media of refractive indices n₁ and n₂. If u and υ are object and image distances respectively, then the relation is

Answer:

CONCEPT – II : Refraction of Light Through “Lenses”

Question 21.
A transparent material is bounded by two surfaces of which one (or) both – surfaces are spherical is called …………………….
A) glass slab
B) mirror
C) prism
D) lens
Answer:
D) lens

Question 22.
A lens has ……………… curved surfaces.
A) one
B) two
C) A and B
D) zero
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 23.
A lens which has thick at the middle and thinner at the edges is called ……………………
A) bi convex lens
B) bi concave lens
C) piano – concave lens
D) micro lens
Answer:
A) bi convex lens

Question 24.
A lens is bounded by two spherical surfaces, thin at the middle and thicker at the edges is called …………………..
A) bi convex lens
B) bi concave lens
C) piano – concave lens
D) piano – convex lens
Answer:
B) bi concave lens

Question 25.
Match the following.

A) 1 → p,2 → q,3 → r,4 → s
B) 1 → s,2 → r,3 → q,4 → p
C) 1 → r,2 → s,3 → q,4 → p
D) 1 → r, 2 → s,3 → p,4 → q
Answer:
C) 1 → r,2 → s,3 → q,4 → p

Question 26.
Identify the concavo – convex lens from the following.

Answer:

Question 27.
The midpoint of a thin lens is called …………………
A) focus
B) centre of curvature
C) optic centre
D) none
Answer:
C) optic centre

Question 28.
The line joining the centre of curvatures of a lens is called …………………….
A) focal length
B) radius of curvature
C) principal axis
D) prime axis
Answer:
C) principal axis

Question 29.
The distance between the focal point and optic centre is called …………………
A) focal length
B) radius of curvature
C) principal axis
D) focus
Answer:
A) focal length

Question 30.
The refracted rays of a parallel beam of light when they are incident on a lens ………………….
A) converges
B) diverges
C) both
D) none
Answer:
C) both

Question 31.
Which of the following symbol is used to represent convex lens for drawing ray diagrams related to lens ?

Answer:

Question 32.
Which of the following symbol is used to represent concave lens for drawing ray diagrams related to lens ?

Answer:

Question 33.
The ray passing through the ……………… of the lens is not deviated.
A) optic centre
B) focus
C) centre of curvature
D) none
Answer:
A) optic centre

Question 34.
Which of the ray does not deviate while passing through the lens ?
A) The ray parallel to the principal axis
B) The ray passing along the principal axis
C) The ray passing through the focus
D) none
Answer:
B) The ray passing along the principal axis

Question 35.
Statement X : Any ray passing along the principal axis is undeviated.
Statement Y; Any ray passing through the optic centre is undeviated.
A) X and Y are true
B) X and Y ape false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) X and Y are true

Question 36.
Which of the following ray diagram is correct?

Answer:

Question 37.
Which of the following ray diagram is correct ?

Answer:

Question 38.
The rays which are travelling parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens are ……………….
A) converge at focus
B) converge at centre of curvature
C) appear to diverge from the focus
D) none
Answer:
A) converge at focus

Question 39.
The refracted rays ………………. when they are pass through the focus of a lens.
A) travel parallel to the principal axis
B) meet at focus
C) meet at centre of curvature
D) none
Answer:
A) travel parallel to the principal axis

Question 40.
Which of the following ray diagrams is correct ?

Answer:

Question 41.
What happens when parallel rays of light fall on a lens making some angle with the principal axis ?
A) The rays converge at focus
B) The rays appear to diverge from the focus
C) Both A and B
D) The rays Converge at a point lying on the focal plane
Answer:
D) The rays Converge at a point lying on the focal plane

Question 42.
The plane perpendicular to the principal axis at the focus is called ………………….
A) Y – axis
B) focal plane
C) nodal plane
D) horizontal plane
Answer:
B) focal plane

Question 43.
What type of rays fall on the lens when the object is placed at infinity ?
A) parallel rays
B) convergent rays
G) divergent rays
D) none
Answer:
A) parallel rays

Question 44.
Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens ?
A) water
B) glass
C) plastic
D) clay
Answer:
D) clay

Question 45.
For a concave lens when object is placed at infinity then the position of the image is …………………..
A) at focus
B) between F and 2F
C) at 2F
D) beyond 2F
Answer:
A) at focus

Question 46.
For a convex lens when object is placed beyond C₂ then the position of the image is ………………….
A) at F₁
B) between F₁ and C₁
C) at C₁
D) beyond C₁
Answer:
B) between F₁ and C₁

Question 47.
For a convex lens when object is placed at C₂ then the position of the image is …………………….
A) at F₁
B) between F₁ and C₁
C) at C₁
D) beyond C₁
Answer:
C) at C₁

Question 48.
For a convex lens when object is placed between C₁ and F₂ then the position of the image is …………………
A) at F₁
B) between F₁ and C₁
C) at C₁
D) beyond C₁
Answer:
D) beyond C₁

Question 49.
For a convex lens when object is placed at F₂ then the position of the image is
A) at F₁
B) at infinity
C) beyond C₁
D) same side of the lens
Answer:
B) at infinity

Question 50.
For a convex lens when object is placed between focal point and optic centre then the position of the image is …………………
A) at infinity
B) at focus
C) same side of the lens
D) at centre of curvature
Answer:
C) same side of the lens

Question 51.
For a convex lens where should an object be placed so as to obtain its virtual, erect and magnified image ?
A) at infinity
B) atfocus
C) at centre of curvature
D) between focus and optic centre
Answer:
D) between focus and optic centre

Question 52.
Where should an object be placed in order to use a convex lens as a magnifying glass ………………….
A) at infinity
B) at focus
C) within the focal length
D) at centre of curvature
Answer:
C) within the focal length

Question 53.
Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens so as the image is formed at infinity?
A) at focus
B) between focus and centre of curvature
C) beyond centre of curvature
D) at centre of curvature
Answer:
A) at focus

Question 54.
Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens so as to obtain its real, inverted and magnified image?
A) at focus
B) at centre of curvature
C) beyond centre of curvature
D) between focus and centre of curvature
Answer:
D) between focus and centre of curvature

Question 55.
For what position of an object a real, inverted and same size of image is formed by a convex lens ………………………….
A) at focus
B) at centre of curvature
C) at infinity
D) beyond centre of curvature
Answer:
B) at centre of curvature

Question 56.
For what position of an object a real, diminished image is formed by a convex lens.
A) at centre of curvature
B) at focus
C) between focus and centre of curvature
D) beyond centre of curvature
Answer:
D) beyond centre of curvature

Question 57.
For what position of an object a highly diminished size of image is formed at a focus of convex lens.
A) at focus
B) at centre of curvature
C) beyond centre of curvature
D) at infinity
Answer:
D) at infinity

Question 58.
An object is placed at the following distances from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. Now match the following.

Object distance	Nature of the image
1) 60 cm	a) real and same size of the object
2) 40 cm	b) real and magnified image
3) 30 cm	c) virtual and magnified image
4) 10 cm	d) real and diminished

A) 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d
B) 1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a
C) 1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c
D) 1 → d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c
Answer:
D) 1 → d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c

Question 59.
If the object is moved towards a convex lens the size of its real image ……………….
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains the same
D) first decreases and then increases
Answer:
B) increases

Question 60.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always …………………
A) smaller than the object
B) bigger than the object
C) same size as the object
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 61.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always …………………..
A) on the same side of the lens as the object
B) on the other side of the lens as the object
C) erect
D) none
Answer:
B) on the other side of the lens as the object

Question 62.
An image formed by a convex lens is………………..
A) always virtual
B) always real
C) may be real and virtual
D) always diminished
Answer:
C) may be real and virtual

Question 63.
A virtual image formed by a convex lens is ………………………
A) erect
B) magnified
C) on the same side of the lens as the object
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 64.
The watch repairer uses a ……………….. lens to see tiny parts of watch.
A) convex lens
B) concave lens
C) both
D) none
Answer:
A) convex lens

Question 65.
………………. lens are used in making microscopes.
A) Convex lens
B) Concave lens
C) Plane
D) None
Answer:
A) Convex lens

Question 66.
The minimum possible distance between an object and the real image formed by a convex lens is equal to …………………….
A) zero
B) focal length
C) radius of curvature
D) infinity
Answer:
A) zero

Question 67.
The maximum possible distance between an object and the real image formed by a convex lens is equal to ………………….
A) zero
B) focal length
C) radius of curvature
D) infinity
Answer:
D) infinity

Question 68.
For what position of an obj ect a virtual, erect and diminished image is formed by a concave lens.
A) at focus
B) within the focal length
C) beyond centre of curvature
D) at any position
Answer:
D) at any position

Question 69.
A concave lens always forms a ………………
A) virtual image
B) erect image
C) diminished image
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 70.
The position of the image formed by a concave lens when the object is placed anywhere between optic centre and infinity is
A) at infinity
B) between optic centre and focus
C) at centre of curvature
D) at focus
Answer:
B) between optic centre and focus

Question 71.
The position of the image formed by a concave lens when the object is placed at infinity is …………………
A) at focus
B) at infinity
C) at centre of curvature
D) between optic centre and focus
Answer:
A) at focus

Question 72.
The nature of the image formed by a concave lens when the object is placed in front of it.
A) virtual
B) erect
C) diminished
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 73.
The minimum possible distance between an object and the image formed by a concave lens is ……………………….
A) equal to focal length
B) less than the focal length
C) infinity
D) zero
Answer:
B) less than the focal length

Question 74.
The maximum possible distance between an object and theimage formed by a concave lens is …………………….
A) equal to focal length
B) less than the focal length
C) zero
D) infinity
Answer:
D) infinity

Question 75.
…………….. are used in wide angle spyhole in doors.
A) Concave lens
B) Convex lens
C) Concave mirror
D) Convex mirror
Answer:
A) Concave lens

Question 76.
The size of the image formed by a convex lens is same as that of the object when the object is placed ……………………..
A) at the centre of the curvature
B) between the centre of curvature and focus
C) beyond the centre of curvature
D) between focus and centre of curvature
Answer:
A) at the centre of the curvature

Question 77.
The lens which is thin at the middle on both sides and thicker at the edges is …………………….
A) bi – convex
B) concave – convex
C) plano-concave
D) bi concave
Answer:
D) bi concave

Question 78.
Convex lens is used in the making of microscopes because ………………………
A) it gives diminished image
B) it gives magnified virtual image same side of the object
C) it gives real image behind the screen
D) it gives magnified image opposite side of the lens
Answer:
B) it gives magnified virtual image same side of the object

Question 79.
The lens which can form real and virtual image in air is …………………..
A) bi convex
B) bi concave
C) plano concave
D) plano convex
Answer:
A) bi convex

Question 80.
Every lens has …………….. focal points.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) infinity
Answer:
B) two

Question 81.
In which one amongthe following cases the convex lens does not give a real image?
A) When the object is placed between the focal point and optic centre
B) When the object is placed beyond the centre of curvature
C) When the object is placed between the centre of curvature and focal point
D) When the object is placed on the centre of curvature
Answer:
A) When the object is placed between the focal point and optic centre

Question 82.
Irrespective of the position of the ob j ect on the principal axis a concave lens gives an image of nature …………………
A) real, inverted
B) real, erect
C) virtual, inverted
D) virtual, erect
Answer:
D) virtual, erect

Question 83.
The midpoint of a thin lens is called
A) focus
B) optic centre
C) centre of curvature
D) principal centre
Answer:
B) optic centre

Question 84.
The distance between two focal points of a thin lens having focal length f is ………………
A) f
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{f}}{2}\)
C) 2f
D) infinity
Answer:
C) 2f

Question 85.
Read the following two statements related to lens and pick the correct answer.
a) Any ray passing along the principal axis undeviated
b) Araypassingparalleltotheprincipal axis converge at the focus or appear to diverge from the focus.
A) only (a) is true
B) only (b) is true
C) both (a) and (b) are false
D) both (a) and (b) are true
Answer:
D) both (a) and (b) are true

Question 86.
Which one of the following is not the characteristic feature of the image formed when the object is placed at 2F₁ of the convex lens ?
A) Image is at 2F₂
B) Real image
C) Size of the object and image are same
D) Erect image
Answer:
D) Erect image

Question 87.
An object is placed as shown in the figure. The image is formed at

A) beyond C₂
B) beyond C₁
C) at C₁
D) at infinity
Answer:

Question 88.
A virtual erect image is formed when an object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens ………………….
A) beyond the centre of curvature
B) at the centre of curvature
C) between centre of curvature and infinity
D) between focal point and optic centre
Answer:
D) between focal point and optic centre

CONCEPT – III : Lens formula – Lens Mark’s Formula

Question 89.
Which of the following is a lens formula?
A) \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{u}}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{f}-\frac{1}{u}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{f}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)

Question 90.
Which of the followingis a lens maker’s formula?

Answer:

Question 91.
The focal length of the lens …………………
A) does not depend upon the surrounding medium
B) depends upon the surrounding medium
C) depends on object distance
D) depends on image distance
Answer:
B) depends upon the surrounding medium

Question 92.
The focal length of the lens ……………. in water
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains the same
D) first decreases and then increases
Answer:
B) increases

Question 93.
Statement X: The Convex lens behaves as a converging lens if it is kept in a medium with refractive index less than the refractive index of the lens.
Statement Y: The convex lens behaves as a diverging lens if it is kept in a medium with refractive index more than the refractive index of the lens.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
B) Both statements are false

Question 94.
An air bubble in water behaves like a ……………………
A) converging lens
B) diverging lens
C) convex lens
D) none
Answer:
B) diverging lens

Question 95.
The focal length of double concave lens kept in air with two spherical surfaces of radii R₁ = 30 cm and R₂ = 60 cm
A) 40 cm
B) – 40 cm
C) 20 cm
D) – 20 cm
Answer:
B) – 40 cm

Question 96.
Assertion (A): A person standing on the land appears taller than his actual height to a fish inside a pond
Reason (R): Light bends away from the normal as it enters air from water.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) Both A and R are false
E) A is false but R is true
Answer:
B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 97.
A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii “R” and refractive index n = 1.5. The focal length is …………………..
A) -R
B) +R
C) O
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
B) +R

Question 98.
The refractive index of the glass which is symmetrical convergent lens if its focal length is equal to the radius of curvature of its surface ………………..
A) 1
B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 99.
The radii of curvature of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 10 cm. Its refractive index is 1.5. The focal length is ……………….
A) 10 cm
B) 0.1 cm
C) 0.01 cm
D) zero
Answer:
A) 10 cm

Question 100.
The number of images formed by a lens made up of three different material is ………………..
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 101.
When a lens of focal length f is cut in to two equal halves perpendicular to principal axis, then the focal length of each part of the lens is ………………
A) remains same
B) double
C) halved
D) None of these
Answer:
B) double

Question 102.
The focal length of the piano – convex lens is 2R. Its radius of curvature is R then the refractive index of the material used is ………………
A) 2
B) 1.5
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) 1
Answer:
B) 1.5

Question 103.
Focal length of the piano – convex lens is ………………… when its radius of curvature is R and n is refractive index of the lens.
A) \(\frac{-R}{n-1}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{n}-1}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{-\mathrm{R}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{n}-1}\)

Question 104.
Pick the correct answer from the following two statements.
a) Focal length of a lens depends on the surrounding medium
b) Focal length of a lens changes with the object distance
A) both, (a) and (b) are true
B) both (a) and (b) are false
C) only (a) is true
D) only (b) is true
Answer:
C) only (a) is true

Question 105.
If 40 cm each is the object and image distance respectively for a convex lens then the focal length is ……………………
A) 80 cm
B) 40 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 25 cm
Answer:
C) 20 cm

Question 106.
Name of the lens shown in the figure is ……………..
A) bi convex lens
B) bi concave lens
C) concavo – convex lens
D) piano – convex lens
Answer:
B) bi concave lens

Question 107.
If a convex lens has its ob j ect and image distance equal (say x) the focal length is equal to …………………
A) x
B) \(\frac{x}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{x}\)
D) 0
Answer:
B) \(\frac{x}{2}\)

Question 108.
If the image distance of a convex lens of focal length 25 cm is 75 cm then the object distance is ……………………
A) -37.5 cm
B) 37.5 cm
C) 50 cm
D) -50 cm
Answer:
A) -37.5 cm

Question 109.
An image is formed at a distance of 60 cm from the centre of a convex lens when the object distance
is 30 cm. The focal length of the lens is ……………….
A) 90 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 2 cm
D) 0.05 cm
Answer:
B) 20 cm

Question 110.
An image is formed at distance of 30 cm from the centre of convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The distance of the object is ………………..
A) 2 cm
B) 15 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 45 cm
Answer:
C) 30 cm

Question 111.
Air bubble in water behaves like a diverging lens because ……………………
A) refractive index of air is less than the refractive index of water
B) air bubble is spherical
C) air bubble is not a perfect sphere
D) None of these
Answer:
A) refractive index of air is less than the refractive index of water

Question 112.
A magnifying glass forms ……………….
A) a real and diminished image
B) a real and magnified image
C) a virtual and magnified image
D) a virtual and diminished image
Answer:
C) a virtual and magnified image

Question 113.
Among the following cases the image formed by a convex lens is real.
A) f < u < 2f
B) 2f < u < ∝
C) at 2f
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 114.
Among the following cases the image formed by a convex lens is not real.
A) 0 < u < f
B) f < u < 2f
C) 2f < u < ∝
D) at 2f
Answer:
A) 0 < u < f

Question 115.
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is cut into two halves along principal axis then focal length of each part will be …………………
A) 20 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 40 cm
D) 60 cm
Answer:
A) 20 cm

Question 116.
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis then focal length of each part will be ……………….
A) 20 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 40 cm
D) 60 cm
Answer:
C) 40 cm

Question 117.
We can’t discuss the size and nature of the image formed while using a convex lens, when the
object is placed ………………………
A) in between F and C
B) at F
C) between F and optic centre
D) beyond 2F
Answer:
B) at F

Question 118.
For a given spherical lens the paraxial rays …………………
A) may converge at focus
B) may diverge from focus
C) do not deviate from their path
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 119.
Suppose you are inside the water in a swimming pool near an edge. A friend is standing on the edge. Then your friend will appear
A) taller than his actual height
B) shorter than his actual height
C) actual height
D) both A and B
Answer:
A) taller than his actual height

Question 120.
Which of the following is true?
A) The distance of virtual image is always greater than the object distance for convex lens.
B) The distance of virtual image is not greater them the object distance for convex lens.
C) Convex lens always forms a real image
D) Convex lens always forms a virtual image
Answer:
A) The distance of virtual image is always greater than the object distance for convex lens.

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Mughal Empire on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson Mughal Empire with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Originally Mughals belonged to these countries in central Asia.
A) Iran
B) Arabia
C) Egypt
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan
Answer:
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan

Question 2.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Babur
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 3.
When did Babur become the ruler of Delhi?
A) 1504 A.D.
B) 1523 A.D.
C) 1526 A.D.
D) 1530 A.D.
Answer:
C) 1526 A.D.

Question 4.
Who was the Sultan of Delhi, when Babur captured it?
A) Secunder Lodi
B) Ibrahim Lodi
C) Dahir
D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Answer:
B) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 5.
Who established the Mughal empire in Delhi?
A) Jahangir
B) Sher Shah
C) Babur
D) Akbar
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 6.
Which Mughal emperor introduced guns and cannons to the Indian war fare?
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Jahangir
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Babur

Question 7.
Which of the following was not a Mughal ruler?
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Sher Shah
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
C) Sher Shah

Question 8.
When did Humayun recapture Delhi from Sher khan?
A) 1530 A.D
B) 1555 A.D
C) 1556 A.D
D) 1540 A D
Answer:
B) 1555 A.D

Question 9.
Who was the youngest to become a Mughal ruler?
A) Humayun
B) Akbar
C) Aurangazeb
D) ShahJahan
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 10.
In whose reign the war of succession took place?
A) Shah Jahan’s
B) Jahangir’s
C) Akbar’s
D) Aurangazeb’s
Answer:
A) Shah Jahan’s

Question 11.
Which Mughal emperor was imprisoned for the rest of his life?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
C) Shah Jahan

Question 12.
Who established the Maratha kingdom?
A) Shivaji
B) Balaji Viswanath
C) Sambhaji
D) Baji Rao
Answer:
A) Shivaji

Question 13.
Shivaji was the contemporary of
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Babur
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 14.
“As the Mughals became powerful many other rulers joined them voluntarily” – Who was the best example for this?
A) Sikhs
B) Marathas
C) Rajputs
D) Bahmani Sultans
Answer:
C) Rajputs

Question 15.
Which Mughal officials were given the tasks of guarding the palace, governing a province, conquering a new kingdom?
A) Jagirdars
B) Mansabdars
C) Zamindars
D) Chieftains
Answer:
B) Mansabdars

Question 16.
Mansabdars should maintain a specified number of
A) Cavalry
B) Elephantry
C) Infantry
D) Cannon operators
Answer:
A) Cavalry

Question 17.
In whose reign were jagirs carefully assessed?
A) Sher Shah’s
B) Akbar’s
C) Shah Jahan’s
D) Jahangir’s
Answer:
B) Akbar’s

Question 18.
Officers of revenue assignments – nayankaras in the Vijayanagara kingdom were called
A) Mansabdars
B) Jagirdars
C) Nayakas
D) Amirs
Answer:
C) Nayakas

Question 19.
Todar Mai was the revenue minister of
A) Sher Shah
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 20.
‘Zabt’ means:
A) confiscation of property of a farmer who could not pay his taxes
B) maintenance of cavalry by mansabdars
C) the revenue system of Mughals
D) the religious tradition of Muslims
Answer:
C) the revenue system of Mughals

Question 21.
‘Jagirdars’ in Mughal administration were
A) Policemen
B) Revenue officials
C) Military officers
D) Village headmen
Answer:
B) Revenue officials

Question 22.
Who wrote the book ‘Akbar Nama’?
A) Akbar
B) Abul Fazl
C) Amir Khiisro
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 23.
Which Mughal ruler started the discussions on religion with the scholars of all religions?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 24.
‘Sulh-i-kul’ means:
A) honesty
B) Justice
C) Truthfulness
D) Universal peace
Answer:
D) Universal peace

Question 25.
Which Mughal emperor first got the idea of Sulh-i-kul?
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Aurangazeb
D) Shah Jahan
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 26.
Which of the Mughal rulers deviated from the policy of ‘Sulh-i-kul’?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 27.
Which Mughal emperor framed the vi¬sion of governance?
A) Akbar
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 28.
Which Mughal emperor showed favour to Sunni Muslims?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
A) Aurangazeb

Question 29.
The founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty.
A) Muzafar Jung
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk
C) Nasar Jung
D) Sikander Jah
Answer:
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk

Question 30.
Nizam-ul-Mulk ruled for ……. years.
A) 24
B) 34
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
A) 24

Question 31.
Who of the following was the Prime Minister of the Nizams between 1853 and 1883?
A) Mir Mahabub Ali Pasha
B) Nasar Jung
C) Salabat Jung
D) Salar Jung
Answer:
D) Salar Jung

Question 32.
Musi floods occurred in
A) 1938
B) 1928
C) 1918
D) 1908
Answer:
D) 1908

Question 33.
Sisodiya Rajputs belong to
A) Uzbekistan
B) Magnolia
C) Chittoor
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Chittoor

Question 34.
…………. started a revenues system known as zabt
A) Todarmal
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Todarmal

Question 35.
The year in which Babur conquered Kabul.
A) 1500 AD
B) 1504 AD
C) 1520 AD
D) 1526 AD
Answer:
B) 1504 AD

Question 36.
The year in which Babur defeated the Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodi and occupied Delhi & Agra.
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1535
Answer:
B) 1526

Question 37.
The year of the first Panipat war.
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1527
D) 1528
Answer:
A) 1526

Question 38.
The person who defeated Humayun.
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Sher khan
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
C) Sher khan

Question 39.
The Iranian emperor that helped Humayun.
A) Dara-Shukoa
B) Safavid Shah
C) Shershah
D) Akbar
Answer:
B) Safavid Shah

Question 40.
Humayun died in ………
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1555
D) 1556
Answer:
D) 1556

Question 41.
Humayun re-occupied Delhi in
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1555
Answer:
D) 1555

Question 42.
The age of Akbar at the time of his crowning.
A) 12 years
B) 13 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
B) 13 years

Question 43.
The Mughal rule was expanded in Deccan region by
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Humayun
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
D) Shahjahan

Question 44.
There was a conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan’s sons in
A) 1657-58
B) 1667-68
C) 1677-78
D) 164748
Answer:
A) 1657-58

Question 45.
Sivaji established an independent Maharashtra empire during the rule of this Mughal emperor
A) Akbar
B) Shajahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 46.
Identify the mismatch.
1) Babur – 1526-1530 AD
2) Humayun – 1530 – 1556 AD
3) Akbar – 1556 – 1605 AD
4) Jahangir -1605 – 1627 AD
5) Shahjahan – 1627 – 1658 AD
6) Aurangazeb – 1658 – 1707 AD
A) 1,2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 5
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 47.
These Rajputs of Chittore did not accept or recognize the supremacy of Mughals for many days.
A) Pala dynasty
B) Prathihara dynasty
C) Sisodiya dynasty
D) None
Answer:
C) Sisodiya dynasty

Question 48.
This princess was the mother of Jahangir
A) Amber
B) Jodhpur
C) Gujarat
D) Ahmed Nagar
Answer:
A) Amber

Question 49.
This princess was the mother of Shahjahan
A) Jaipur
B) Jodhpur
C) Malavi
D) Ahmed N.agar
Answer:
B) Jodhpur

Question 50.
During the Mughal rule, the ………….. ‘s military responsibilities required him to maintain a specified number of horse riders or cavalrymen.
A) Mansabdar
B) Shiqdar
C) Mukthi
D) DIWAN – E – Rasalat
Answer:
A) Mansabdar

Question 51.
The no. of mansabdars increased during the rule of this Mughal emperor.
A) Akbar
B) Aurangazeb
C) Shahjahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Aurangazeb

Question 52.
The main source of income to the Mughal ruler.
A) tax on traders
B) tax on artists
C) tax on agricultural products
D) tax on beggars
Answer:
C) tax on agricultural products

Question 53.
The finance minister of Akbar.
A) Necker
B) Taylor
C) Ranapratap
D) Todar Mai
Answer:
D) Todar Mai

Question 54.
Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops. This revenue system was known as
A) Zabt
B) Mabt
C) Jalabandi
D) Jaumabandi
Answer:
A) Zabt

Question 55.
The broad features of administration were laid down by Akbar land were elaborately discussed by his friend and member of his court, Abul Fazl in
his book the …………..
A) Akbar-Nama
B) Ain-I-Akbari
C) Padshah-Nama
D) None
Answer:
A) Akbar-Nama

Question 56.
Akbar felt in his mind
A) religious intolerance
B) Sulh-i-kul
C) Racial discrimination
D) None
Answer:
B) Sulh-i-kul

Question 57.
…………… helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-ikul
A) Jahangir
B) Abul Fazl
C) Khusru
D) Amir Khusru
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 58.
The religious policy followed by Aurangazeb
A) Shia
B) Sunni
C) Hindu
D) Persian
Answer:
B) Sunni

Question 59.
The no. of higher grade Mansabdars out of 8000 in the Mughal empire.
A) 440
B) 450
C) 445
D) 455
Answer:
C) 445

Question 60.
The reason to get the idea of Sulh – i – Kul by Akbar is
A) To create harmony among the various religious people
B) To create discrimination among the people
C) To impress Abul Fazal, his friend
D) To conquer the whole of India
Answer:
A) To create harmony among the various religious people

Question 61.
The cause of rebellions of Zamindars during the reign of Mughals
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator
B) Shortage of Jagirdars
C) The campaigns of Mughal kings
D) The generosity of Mughals
Answer:
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator

Question 62.
Din -1 – Ilahi was belongs to
A) Jahangir
B) Akbar
C) Shabjahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 63.

What does the map show?
A) Cholas kingdom
B) Pandyas kingdom
C) Chalukyas kingdom
D) Akbar’s kingdom
Answer:
D) Akbar’s kingdom

Question 64.
The present state is nearer to the Tropic of Cancer.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisa
C) Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) Bengal

Question 65.
The mother of Jahangir was a daughter Of the Rajput ruler of
A) Sindh
B) Amber
C) Chittor
D) Ajmer
Answer:
B) Amber

Question 66.
The Sisodiya Rajputs who refused to accept Mughal authority for a long time belonged to
A) Multan
B) Bijapur
C) Chittor
D) Gondwana
Answer:
C) Chittor

Question 67.
Find out the correct statement
1. Those who joined the Mughal service were enrolled as Mansabdars.
2. Those who look after the administration of Mughals were known as Amaranayakas.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 68.
Mughals : Mansabdars : : Kakatiyas : …………
A) Nayankaras
B) Jagirdars
C) Zamindars
D) None
Answer:
A) Nayankaras

Question 69.
Match the following:
A) Humayun        [ ]        1) 1556 -1605 A.D
B) Akbar              [ ]        2) 1530- 1556 A.D
C) Aurangzeb      [ ]        3) 1658 – 1707 A.D
A) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
Answer:
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3

Question 70.
Put the following in chronological order
1. Akbar captured Sisodiya.
2. Aurangzeb campaigned against the Yasufzai.
3. Babar defeated the Rajputs at Chanderi.
A) 3, 1, 2
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3, 2, 1
Answer:
A) 3, 1, 2

Question 71.
Akbar was ………… years old when he became the emperor
A) 15
B) 14
C) 12
D) 13
Answer:
D) 13

Question 72.
Din – I – Ilahi: Akbar:: ……………. : Shahjahan
A) Red fort
B) Kakatiya toranam
C) Hawa Manzil
D) Dharma saala
Answer:
A) Red fort

Question 73.
Who introduced cannons and guns in Indian warfare?
A) Muhammad Ghori
B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
C) Sri Krishna Devaraya
D) Babur
Answer:
D) Babur

Question 74.
The Arabic book “Kitab-al-Hind” is written by
A) Abul Fazal
B) Al-Biruni
C) Jahangir
D) Mohammad of Ghazni
Answer:
B) Al-Biruni

Question 75.
Which of the following show the correct chronological order of the Mughal emperors.
A) Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Akbar – Jahangir
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb
C) Akbar – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Jahangir
D) Shah Jahan – Akbar – Jahangir – Aurangzeb
Answer:
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb

Question 76.
Mansabdari system belongs to
A) Mughals
B) Delhi Sultans
C) Cholas
D) Vijayanagara rulers
Answer:
A) Mughals

Question 77.
Which monument belongs to Mughals?
A) Virupaksha temple
B) Padma Mahal
C) Alai darwaja
D) Taj Mahal
Answer:
D) Taj Mahal

Question 78.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Babar
C) Humayun
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Babar

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Structure of Atom on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 6th Lesson Structure of Atom with Answers

CONCEPT -I: Electromagnetic ctrum

Question 1.
Match the following:
a) Electron — ii) Negatively charged particle
c) Neutron — iii) Neutral particle
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
B) c → i, b → ii, a → iii
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iii

Question 2.
The sub atomic particles present in an atom……………
i) electron
ii) proton
iii) neutron
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 3.
The number of colours in rainbow
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
C) 7

Question 4.
A vibrating charge produces ………………..
A) MechMhical wave
B) Stationary wave
C) Longitudinal wave
D) Electromagnetic wave
Answer:
D) Electromagnetic wave

Question 5.
Electromagnetic wave travels with a speed of …………….
A) 3 x 10⁷ m/s
B) 3 x 10⁶ m/s
C) 3 x 10⁸ m/s
D) 3 x 10⁹ m/s
Answer:
C) 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Question 6.
Electromagnetic energy is charecterized by………………
i) wavelength
ii) amplitude
iii) frequency
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
C) both i and iii

Question 7.
The distance between two successive peaks of a wave is …………….
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Wavelength
D) Speed
Answer:
C) Wavelength

Question 8.
The relation between frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic wave
A) λ ∝ υ
B) λ = υ
C) λ ∝ 1/υ
D) none of these
Answer:
C) λ ∝ 1/υ

Question 9.
Formation of rainbow is example of …………….. spectrum.
A) UV
B) IR
C) RADIO
D) Visible
Answer:
D) Visible

Question 10.
V = υλ, is applicable for……………..
A) longitudinal waves
B) transverse waves
C) electromagnetic waves
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 11.
Red has …………………. wavelength and …………………. frequency.
A) maximum, maximum
B) minimum, maximum
C) maximum, minimum
D) minimum, minimum
Answer:
C) maximum, minimum

Question 12.
Quantum theory was proposed by……………….
A) Einsteiry
B) Maxwell
C) Max Planck
D) Newton
Answer:
C) Max Planck

Question 13.
Planck’s equation is …………..
A) E = hυ
B) E = h/υ
C) E = υ/h
D) None of these
Answer:
A) E = hυ

Question 14.
Which of the following are correct statements:
P: E = ko is called Planck’s equation
Q: ‘h’ is called Planck’s constant
R: ‘h’ value is 6.626 x 10^-34J
S: According to Planck electro-magnetic energy is always emitted in multiples of h/υ
A) onlyP
B) PandQ
C) P, Q and R
D) All of these
Answer:
C) P, Q and R

Question 15.
When an iron rod is heated first it turns to
A) violet
B) red
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
B) red

Question 16.
Cupric chloride produces ………….. colour flame.
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
B) green

Question 17.
Strontium chloride produces……………… colour flame.
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
A) red

Question 18.
…………….. vapours produce yellow light in street lamps.
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer:
B) Sodium

Question 19.
Elements emit characteristic colours correspond to certain discrete wave¬lengths of light are called ……………..
A) bond spectra
B) absorption spectra
C) line spectra
D) both A and B
Answer:
C) line spectra

Question 20.
Line spectra is formed by ………………
A) atoms
B) molecules
C) ions
D) protons
Answer:
A) atoms

Question 21.
From the figure, the wavelength of Cosmic rays is………

A) 10^-3 m
B) 10^-9 m
C) 10³ m
D) 10^-12 m
Answer:
D) 10^-12 m

Question 22.
The wavelength range of. visible spectrum is……….
A) <400 nm B) >700 nm
C) 400 nm – 700 nm
D) 1mm-lm
Answer:
C) 400 nm – 700 nm

Question 23.
In this figure magnetic field and electric field are………. each other.

A) parallel to
B) perpendicular to
C) intersect
D) None of these
Answer:
B) perpendicular to

Question 24.
From the figure match the following:
a) X-rays — i) 700nm-1000nm
b) IRrays — ii) lm to 1 km
c) Radio rays — iii) Above 1 km
d) Broadcast — iv) 0.01 to 10 nm bond
A) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii
B) a →i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → n
D) a → iii, b → iv, c →i, d → ii
Answer:
A) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii

Question 25.
…………. are used in Radar.
A) UVrays
B) IRrays
C) Microwaves
D) X-rays
Answer:
C) Microwaves

Question 26.
An emission spectrum consists of , bright spectral lines on a dark back ground. Which one of the following does not correspond to the bright j spectral lines ?
A) Frequency of emitted radiation
B) Wavelength of emitted radiation
C) Energy of emitted radiation
D) Velocity of light
Answer:
D) Velocity of light

Question 27.
The colour in the sequence VIBGYOR that has least wavelength is …………….
A) yellow
B) red
C) green
D) violet
Answer:
D) violet

Question 28.
Which electromagnetic waves are sensitive to our eyes ?
A) X – rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) Visible rays
D) Microwaves
Answer:
C) Visible rays

Question 29.
Rainbow is a …………….. spectrum.
A) continuous
B) discontinuous
C) visible
D) both A and C
Answer:
D) both A and C

CONCEPT – II :Atomic model Bohr’s model & Sommer feld’s model

Question 30.
Stationary orbits are proposed by
A) Rutherford
B) Thomson
C) Newton
D) Neils Bohr
Answer:
D) Neils Bohr

Question 31.
The energies of an electron in an orbit of atom can have only certain values. These orbits are called……………..
i) stationary orbits
ii) stationary states
iii) energy level,
A) only i
B) only ii
C) only iii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 32.
The energy is quantized means ………………
A) Energy is fixed
B) Energy would increase
C) Energy would decrease
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Energy is fixed

Question 33.
Lowest energy state of an electron is known as ……..
A) excited states
B) ground state
C) fixed state
D) rest state
Answer:
B) ground state

Question 34.
Higher energy state of an electron is known as ………..
A) ground state
B) excited state
C) neutral state
D) fixed state
Answer:
B) excited state

Question 35.
The spectrum formed due to excited electron come back to ground state is ………………….
i) absorption spectrum
ii) emission spectrum
iii) fine spectrum
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all
Answer:
B) only ii

Question 36.
When electron absorbs energy from surroundings and moves to excited state the spectrum formed is ……………..
A) Emission spectrum
B) Absorption spectrum
C) Fine spectrum
D) Continuous spectrum
Answer:
B) Absorption spectrum

Question 37.
In the following statements which is not correct for Bohr’s model
A) It explains the spectrum of hydrogen
B) It unable to explain spectra of elements having more than one electron
C) It explains fine spectrum of hydrogen atom
D) Unable to explain Zeeman effect
Answer:
C) It explains fine spectrum of hydrogen atom

Question 38.
Elliptical orbits were introduced by ……………..
A) Neils Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Planck
D) Maxwell
Answer:
B) Sommerfeld

Question 39.
The number of elliptical orbits present in Bohr’s third orbit
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 40.
Quantum mechanical model was proposed by ………………..
A) Neils Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Erwin Schrodinger
D) Lande
Answer:
C) Erwin Schrodinger

Question 41.
If n = 4 then the orbit is represented as ………………….
A) K
B) L
C) M
D) N
Answer:
D) N

Question 42.
The maximum number of electrons that can be occupied in a given shell is………………
A) n²
B) n
C) 2n
D) 2n²
Answer:
D) 2n²

Question 43.
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the L- shell of an atom is …………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
B) 8

Question 44.
Maximum number of electrons M shell contain is …………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
C) 18

Question 45.
Match the following:
a) n = 1 — i) L
b) n = 2 — ii) N
c) n = 3 — iii) K
d) n = 4 — iv) M
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iii, b→ i, c → iv, d → ii
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d→i
D) a → ii, b→ i, c → iii, d → iv
Answer:
B) a → iii, b→ i, c → iv, d → ii

Question 46.
Bohr’s model explain the line spectra of ………
A) H⁺ ion
B) Hatom
C) He atom
D) Li⁺ ion
Answer:
D) Li⁺ ion

Question 47.
If an element has 3 electrons in the M-shell then the element is …………………
A) Mg
B) Al
C) Si
D) Na
Answer:
B) Al

Question 48.
If number of electrons in M-shell is half of K-shell then atomic number and name of element.
A) 12, Magnesium
B) 11, Sodium
C) 13, Aluminium
D) 14, Silicon
Answer:
B) 11, Sodium

Question 49.
When an electron jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit in an atom the energy is …………….
A) absorbed
B) emitted
C) not changed
D) depends on atom
Answer:
B) emitted

CONCEPT – III: Quantum

Question 50.
The region of space around the nucleus where the probability of finding electron is maximum is called…………..
A) orbit
B) sub orbit
C) orbital
D) none of these
Answer:
C) orbital

Question 51.
The information given by principal quantum number……………….
i) size of the orbit
ii) energy of the orbit
iii) orientation of orbitals in space
iv) spin of electrons
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
B) both i and ii

Question 52.
For’n’the minimum value is . and the maximum value is….
A) 1, ∝
B) 0, n-1
C) -n, +n
D) 0, n+1
Answer:
A) 1, ∝

Question 53.
The quantum number which explains about size and energy of the orbit or shell is ……………
A) n
B) l
C) m_l
D) m_s
Answer:
A) n

Question 54.
For l the minimum value is ……………… and the maximum value is
A) 0, l
B) 0,n-1
C) -l, +l
D) -n, n
Answer:
B) 0,n-1

Question 55.
Match the following:
a) l = 0 — i) d – sub shell
b) 1 = 1 — ii) s – sub shell
c) 7 = 2 — iii) f – sub shell
d) 7 = 3 — iv) p – sub shell
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → mi, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 56.
For ml the minimum value is ………….. and the maximum value is………….
A) 0, n
B) 0, n-1
C) \(-\frac{1}{2},+\frac{1}{2}\)
D) -l , +l
Answer:
D) -l , +l

Question 57.
If l = 1 for an atom then the number of orbitals in its sub shell:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0
Answer:
C) 3

Question 58.
Number of orbitals in a sub shell is given by the formula
A) 2n²
B) n²
C) l + l
D) 2l + 1
Answer:
D) 2l + 1

Question 59.
Match the following:
Sub shell — Number of degenerate orbitals
a) s — i) 7
b) p — ii) 1
c) d — iii) 3
d) f — iv) 5

A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→h
C) a—ii, b→iii, c→iv, d→i
D) a→iv, b→ii, o→iii, d→i
Answer:
C) a—ii, b→iii, c→iv, d→i

Question 60.
Match the following:
a) s – orbital — i) dumbell ,
b) p – orbital — ii) spherical
c) d – orbital — iii) double dumbell
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii
B) a→iii, b→ii, c→h
C) a→ii, b→i, c→iii
D) a→ii, b→iii, c→i
Answer:
C) a→ii, b→i, c→iii

Question 61.
Statement I: Fdi p sub shell the m_l values are-1,0,1
Statement II: For d sub shell the m_l values are -2, -1,0,1, 2
A) Both statements are correct
B) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
C) Statement I is. incorrect and II is correct
D) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
A) Both statements are correct

Question 62.
a) s – sub shell i) Maximum number of electrons is 6
b) p – sub shell ii) Maximum number of electrons is 14
c) d – sub shell iii) Maximum number of electrons is 2
d) f – sub shell iv) Maximum number of electrons is 10
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→i
C) a→iii, b→i, c→iv, d→ii
D) a→iv, b→i, c→ii, d→iii
Answer:
C) a→iii, b→i, c→iv, d→ii

Question 63.
Find the odd one.
A) Principal quantum number – n
B) Angular momentum quantum number – l
C) Magnetic quantum number – m_l
D) Spin quantum number – k
Answer:
D) Spin quantum number – k

Question 64.
The value of in m_s for an electron spinning in clockwise direction is ………….. and for anti clockwise direction is …………..
A) \(-\frac{1}{2},+\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(+\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}\)
C) 1,-1
D) -1,1
Answer:
B) \(+\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 65.
The clockwise spin in an orbital is represented by …………..
A) →
B) ←
C) ↑
D) ↓
Answer:
C) ↑

Question 66.
Anti clockwise spin of electron is represented by ……………
A) ↑
B) →
C) ←
D) ↓
Answer:
D) ↓

Question 67.
If two electrons have positive spin values,, then their spins are …………………..
A) perpendicular
B) intersected
C) parallel
D) anti parallel
Answer:
C) parallel

Question 68.
If two electrons have positive and negative spin values then their spins are ………………..
A) parallel
B) anti parallel
C) perpendicular
D) intersected
Answer:
B) anti parallel

Question 69.
During writing electronic configuration the electrons are distributed into
A) shells
B) sub shells
C) orbitals
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 70.
“No two electrons of same atom have same set of four quantum numbers”. This principle is known as ……………..
A) Hund’s principle
B) Aufbau principle
C) Pauli’s exclusion principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
C) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question 71.
Orbitals are filled with electrons in the order of increasing energy is given by ………….. principle.
A) Hund
B) Aufbau
C) Pauli’s exclusion
D) Heisenberg
Answer:
B) Aufbau

Question 72.
……………… means building up.
A) Quanta
B) Photon
C) Aufbau
D) Orbital
Answer:
C) Aufbau

Question 73.
Which of the following orbital has greater n + l value ?
A) 4p
B) 5s
C) 3d
D) 4f
Answer:
D) 4f

Question 74.
The n + l value of 3d orbital is ………………
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
C) 5

Question 75.
The filling order of atomic orbitals is given by.
A) Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Pauli
D) Moeller
Answer:
D) Moeller

Question 76.
The rule violated in this electron configuration is 1s², 2s°, 2p³
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
C) Aufbau principle

Question 77.
The rule violated in the following electronic configuration is………….

A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenburg uncertainty principle
Answer:
B) Hund’s rule

Question 78.
The principle is violated in the given information about Helium atom.

A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question 79.
According to Pauli’s exclusion principle the maximum number of electrons filled in an orbital is ………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 80.
The valence electron configuration of electron for the following quantum numbers.

A) 4s¹
B) 4s²
C) 4p²
D) 4p²
Answer:
B) 4s²

Question 81.
The valance electron configuration of electron for following quantum numbers.

A) 3d⁵
B) 3d⁶
C) 3d⁷
D) 3d¹⁰
Answer:
D) 3d¹⁰

Question 82.
The following orbitals have n+l value 6
i) 5p
ii) 6s
iii) 4d
iv) 4f
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 83.
What are set of quantum numbers for electron configuration of element is 3d⁷?
A) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = -1, m_s = -1/2
B) n = 3, l =2, m_l = -2, m_s = -1/2
C) n = 3, l =2, m_l= -1, m_s = +1/2
D) n = 3, l = 2, m_l= -2, m_s = +1/2
Answer:
A) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = -1, m_s = -1/2

Question 84.
The quantum number which says about size and energy of orbit is
A) n
B) l
C) m_l
D) m_s
Answer:
A) n

Question 85.
Match the following:
a) Principal quantum number (n) — i) Orientation of orbital in space
b) Angular momentum quantum number (l) — Size and energy of orbit
c) Magnetic quantum number (m_l) — iii) Shape of sub shell
d) Spin quantum number (m_s )– Spin of electron
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→ii, b→iii, c→i, d→iv
C) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→i
D) a→iv, b→ii, c→iii, d→i
Answer:
B) a→ii, b→iii, c→i, d→iv

Question 86.
If n = 3 and Z = 2 the energy level is represented as
A) 3s
B) 3p
C) 3d
D) 3f
Answer:
C) 3d

Question 87.
To which boundary surface diagram of d – orbital does indicate ?
A) d_xy
B) d_yz
C) d_z2
D) d_x²-y²

Answer:
D) d_x²-y²

Question 88.
The number of possible orbitals in a sub shell with angular momentum quantum number (1) is
A) l +1
B) 2l + 1
C) 2 (21 + 1)
D) 0 ton-1
Answer:
B) 2l + 1

Question 89.
The maximum number of electrons in n = 3 main energy level is ………………….
A) 8
B) 16
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
C) 18

Question 90.
Which of the following quantum number describes the orientation of orbital in space around the nucleus of atom?
A) Magnetic quantum number
B) Spin quantum number
C) Angular momentum quantum number
D) Principal quantum number
Answer:
A) Magnetic quantum number

Question 91.
The correct electron configuration of Copper is……….
A) [Ar] 4s² 3d¹⁰
B) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁹
C) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵
D) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
Answer:
D) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰

Question 92.
The correct electron configuration of Chromium is………..
A) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵
B) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁵
C) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
D) [Ar] 4s² 3d¹⁰
Answer:
A) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

Question 93.
The rule violated in electron configurations of Chromium and Copper is ………….
A) Aufbau
B) Hund
C) Pauli’s exclusion
D) Heisenberg uncertainty
Answer:
A) Aufbau

Question 94.
Atoms having these orbitals are stable
A) half filled
B) completely filled
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 95.
The maximum number of electrons accommodated in a sub shell with Azimuthal quantum number (angular momentum quantum number) l is ………………….
A) 2l + 1
B) 4l + 2
C) l(l+1)
D) 4l – 1
Answer:
B) 4l + 2

Question 96.
The four quantum numbers for valance electron of Sodium atom are ………………
A) n = 1, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
B) n = 2, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
C) n = 3, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
D) n = 3, l = 1, m_l= 0, m_s= +1/2
Answer:
C) n = 3, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2

Question 97.
Degenerate orbitals have
A) same l value and same n value
B) different l value and same n value
C) same l value and different n value
D) same n+l value
Answer:
A) same l value and same n value

Question 98.
When l = 3 the maximum number of electrons that can occupy in the corresponding sub shell is ……………
A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 99.
The number of orbitals present in a given shell is …………
A) n
B) n²
C) 2n²
D) 2l + 1
Answer:
B) n²

Question 100.
The orbital that is having least energy among 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p is ……………………..
A) 3p
B) 4s
C) 3d
D) 4p
Answer:
A) 3p

Question 101.
Which of the following is the correct configuration of O^2- …………….
A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
C) 1s² 2s² 2p²
D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
Answer:
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

Question 102.
The impossible set of quantum numbers for any electron of an atom is ……………………
a) n = 1, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2
b) n = 2, l =2, m_l = 1, m_s = -1/2
c) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = 1, m_s = +1/2
d) n = 3, l = 0, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2
A) a only
B) a, b only
C) c, d only
D) d only
Answer:
B) a, b only

Question 103.
The orbitalwhich does not lie along the axis is………………
A) P_x
B) d_{² – y²}
C) d_xy
D) p_y
Answer:
C) d_xy

Question 104.
Which one of the following has the electronic configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶?
A) Ne
B) Na⁺
C) F^–
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 105.
Magnetic quantum number of the last electron of Sodium is ………………….
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 106.
The following is shape of …………… orbital.
A) s
B) p
C) d
D) f

Answer:
A) s

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 7th Lesson Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table with Answers

Question 1.
Number of elements discovered to till date.
A) 24
B) 63
C) 90
D) more than 115
Answer:
D) more than 115

Question 2.
……………. defined an element as any substance that cannot be decomposed into further simple substance by physical or chemical change.
A) Charles
B) Robert Boyle
C) Avagadro
D) Madam Curie
Answer:
B) Robert Boyle

Question 3.
Lithium, …………………… and Potassium constitute a Dobereiner triad
A) Magnesium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Rubidium
Answer:
C) Sodium

Question 4.
Louis Proust stated that……………….. atom is the building material.
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Hydrogen

Question 5.
Group of three elements with similar chemical properties is called …………….
A) diad
B) triad
C) tetrad
D) pentad
Answer:
B) triad

Question 6.
Dobereiner triad is based on
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic weight
C) Atomic volume
D) Atomic size
Answer:
B) Atomic weight

Question 7.
According to this every 8th element has similar properties starting from a, given element
A) Dobereiner triad
B) Newlands’ law
C) Mendeleeff’s periodic table
D) Modem periodic table
Answer:
B) Newlands’ law

Question 8.
Newlands’ periodic table was restricted to …………….. elements.
A) 40
B) 56
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
B) 56

Question 9.
Dobereiner triad failed for …………………..
i) low mass
ii) equal mass
iv) neutral mass
A) Only i
B) both i and iii
C) both i and iv
D) all
Answer:
B) both i and iii

Question 10.
The number of periods and groups in Mendeleeff’s periodic table is
A) 7,8
B) 7,18
C) 10,18
D) 7,12
Answer:
A) 7,8

Question 11.
Mendeleeff’s periodic table is based on
A) atomic number
B) atomic weight
C) atomic volume
D) atomic size
Answer:
B) atomic weight

Question 12.
Match the following
a) eka boron — i) gallium
b) eka aluminium — ii) germanium
c) eka silicon — iii) scandium
A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
B) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
D) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
Answer:
B) a – iii, b – i, c – ii

Question 13.
Atomic weight = ……………….. x equivalent weight
A) atomic number
B) combining capacity
C) valency
D) both B and C
Answer:
C) valency

Question 14.
Mendeleeff corrected atomic weights of
i) Beryllium
ii) Indium
iii) Gold
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 15.
Element with atomic number 101 is
A) Barium
B) Fermium
C) Mendelevium
D) Einsteinium
Answer:
C) Mendelevium

Question 16.
Example for anomalous pair
A) Tellurium, Iodine
B) Cobalt, Nickel
C) Argon, Potassium
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 17.
The number of positive charges (protons) in the atom of an element is called………………
A) Atomic number
B) Mass number
C) Atomic weight
D) Atomic volume
Answer:
A) Atomic number

Question 18.
The atomic weight of a bivalent element is 9. The equivalent weight of same element is
A) 18
B) 13.5
C) 4.5
D) 3
Answer:
C) 4.5

Question 19.
Which pair of elements fits into same slot in Newlands’ table of elements ?
A) F, Cl
B) Co, Ni
C) Mg, Ca
D) C, Si
Answer:
B) Co, Ni

Question 20.
Law of octaves was proposed by
A) Dobereiner
B) Newlands
C) Neils Bohr
D) Mendeleeff
Answer:
B) Newlands

Question 21.
The predicted properties of elements Eka boron, Eka aluminium and eka silicon were close to the observed properties of the following elements respectively.
A) scandium, gallium, germanium
B) gallium, germanium, scandium
C) gallium, scandium, germanium
D) germanium, gallium, scandium
Answer:
A) scandium, gallium, germanium

Question 22.
The abnormal pair of elements in the following is
A) H and He
B) NeandAr
C) KrandK
D) K and Ar
Answer:
D) K and Ar

Question 23.
The set of elements that is not Dobereiner triad from the following
A) Ca, Sr, Ba
B) Cl ,Br, I
C) Mn, Cr, Fe
D) S, Si, Te
Answer:
D) S, Si, Te

Question 24.
Mendeleeff’s eka aluminium is
A) scandium
B) gallium
C) germanium
D) indium
Answer:
B) gallium

Question 25.
A Dobereiner triad in the following is
A) Cl, Br, I
B) H, He, Li
C) H, Na, Cl
D) C,N, O
Answer:
Answer:
A) Cl, Br, I

CONCEPT – 2 : Modern Periodic Table

Question 26.
……………….. found that each element emits a characteristic pattern of X ^ rays when subjected to bombardment by high energy electrons.
A) Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Mendeleeff
D) Mosley
Answer:
D) Mosley

Question 27.
Modem periodic table is based on
A) atomic number
B) electron negativity
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
A) atomic number

Question 28.
The number of periods and groups in modern periodic table ………………..
A) 7, 8
B) 7,18
C) 6,7
D) 5,6
Answer:
B) 7,18

Question 29.
Match the following
i) Sodium — a) p – block
ii) Aluminium — f -block
iii) Scandium — s – block
iv) Cerium — d) d-block
A) i → a, ii → b, iii → c, iv → d
B) i → a, ii → d, iii → b, iv →c
C) i → c, ii → a, iii → d, iv → b
D) i → d, ii → c,i ii → b, iv → a
Answer:
C) i → c, ii → a, iii → d, iv → b

Question 30.
Match the following

A) a → ii, b → i, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b →ii, c → i, d →iii
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
D) a → iv, b → ii, c → iii, d → i
Answer:
B) a → iv, b →ii, c → i, d →iii

Question 31.
Match the following
a) Alkali metals i) VIA or 16
b) Alkaline earthmetals — i) I A or 1
c) Chalcogens — iii) VIIA or 17
d) Halogens — iv) II A or 2
A) a → i, b → ii, c iii, d →iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b →iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a →iv, b → ii, c → iii, d → i
Answer:
C) a → ii, b →iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 32.
These are noble gases.
i) He
ii) Ne
iii) Ar
iv) Kr
A) i only
B) ii only
C) ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
…………….. elements are called Lanthanides.
A) 2f
B) 3f
C) 4f
D) 5f
Answer:
C) 4f

Question 34.
Lanthanides having atomic numbers from ……………… to ………………
A) 58, 71
B) 90,103
C) 60, 80
D) 90,110
Answer:
A) 58, 71

Question 35.
5 f elements are called ………………..
A) representative elements
B) transition elements
C) lanthanides
D) actinides
Answer:
D) actinides

Question 36.
Noble gases belong to ……………… group of periodic table.
A) IA
B) IIA
C) VIIA
D) VIIIA
Answer:
D) VIIIA

Question 37.
The elements present in 2nd period of long form of periodic table :
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
B) 8

Question 38.
……………….. period of periodic table is incomplete.
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 6th
D) 7th
Answer:
D) 7th

Question 39.
The number of elements present in 6th period is ………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

Question 40.
Match the following
a) Shortest period — i) 7
b) Longest period — ii) 1
c) Incomplete period — iii) 5
d) Period having 18 elements — iv) 6
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d →iv
B) a → iv, b →iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a →ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii
Answer:
C) a →ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 41.
Nitrogen is the element of group-VA of the periodic table. Which of the following is the atomic number of the next element in the group?
A) 9
B) 14
C) 15
D) 17
Answer:
C) 15

Question 42.
Electron configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 7. Which of the following elements would it be chemically similar ?
A) Nitrogen (Z = 7)
B) Fluorine (Z = 9)
C) Phosphorous (Z = 15 )
D) Argon (Z = 18)
Answer:
B) Fluorine (Z = 9)

Question 43.
‘s’, ‘p’ block elements are collectively called as
A) Transition elements
B) Inner transition elements
C) Representative elements
D) Noble gases
Answer:
C) Representative elements

Question 44.
Statement I : d – block elements are called transition elements.
Statement II : f – block elements are called inner transition elements.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 45.
Inner transition elements belong to ………………
A) III B
B) IV B
C) V B
D) VI B
Answer:
A) III B

Question 46.
The element which is not metal in s – block is ………………..
A) Hydrogen
B) Chlorine
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

Question 47.
Match the following.
a) valence of group IA — i) 4
b) valence of group IVA — ii) 0
c) valence of group VIA — iii) 1
d) valence of group VIIIA — iv) 2
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d →iii
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii
Answer:
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii

Question 48.
Modern periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their
A) atomic weight
B) atomic number
C) electron configuration
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 49.
Which of the following is the p block element ?
A) Ti
B) Ce
C) Ga
D) K
Answer:
C) Ga

Question 50.
How many s – block and p block elements are there in the third period of the periodic table ?
A) 2, 8
B) 8, 2
C) 4,4
D) 2, 6
Answer:
D) 2, 6

Question 51.
Metalloids are
A) s – block elements
B) d – block elements
C) f – block elements
D) p – block elements
Answer:
D) p – block elements

Question 52.
The ionization energy in the periodic table
A) decreases going down the group
B) increases going down the group
C) decreases from left to right in the period
D) remains same going down the group
Answer:
B) increases going down the group

Question 53.
As per modern periodic law, the properties of the elements are periodic functions of their
A) atomic weights
B) mass numbers
C) atomic numbers
D) valencies
Answer:
C) atomic numbers

Question 54.
Elements of which group are called halogens?
A) VA
B) VIA
C) VII A
D) IV A
Answer:
C) VII A

Question 55.
Which of the following elements belongs to d block ?
A) Cl
B) Cr
C) Sr
D) Ar
Answer:
B) Cr

Question 56.
The longest period in the modern periodic table is
A) 7th
B) 6th
C) 5th
D) 4th
Answer:
B) 6th

Question 57.
The valency of an element which belongs to 3rd period and 2nd group of periodic table is
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 58.
The general electron configuration of inert gases
A) ns²
B) ns²np¹
C) ns²np²
D) ns²np⁶
Answer:
D) ns²np⁶

Question 59.
The elements a, b, c, d have the following electron configurations. Then the elements that belong to the same group of periodic table is
a) 2,3
b) 2,8,3
c) 2,8,5
d) 2,8,7
A) a, b
B) b, c
C) c, d
D) d, a
Answer:
A) a, b

Question 60.
The inert gas element which does not have octet configuration in the outer
most orbit is
A) Ar
B) Kr
C) Rn
D) He
Answer:
D) He

Question 61.
The element belongs to 3rd period and 17th group is
A) F
B) Cl
C) Br
D) I
Answer:
B) Cl

Question 62.
The element with atomic number 13 belongs to ……………. period and …………….. group.
A) 3,13
B) 3, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3,14
Answer:
A) 3,13

Question 63.
Where do Na and N belong ?
A) s-block
B) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to d – block
C) p-block
D) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to p – block
Answer:
D) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to p – block

Question 64.
The atomic numbers of actinide series elements are
A) 58 to 71
B) 90 to 103
C) 92 to 105
D) 60 to 73
Answer:
B) 90 to 103

Question 65.
Which of the following group elements are known as chalcogens ?
A) 16
B) 6
C) 1
D) 17
Answer:
A) 16

Question 66.
The number of electrons that are present in Cl ion is
A) 6
B) 5
C) 11
D) 18
Answer:
D) 18

Question 67.
Which one of the following has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
A) Ne
B) Na⁺
C) F^–
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 68.
Potassium and calcium belong to
A) s – block elements
B) p – block elements
C) d – block elements
D) f – block elements
Answer:
A) s – block elements

Question 69.
Which of the following are lanthan ides?
A) K to Kr
B) Cs to Lu
C) CetoLu
D) ThtoLr
Answer:
B) Cs to Lu

Question 70.
The element with highest electro – negativity belongs to
A) 3rd period and 17th group
B) 2nd period and 17th group
C) 2nd period and 16th group
D) 2nd period and 18th group
Answer:
B) 2nd period and 17th group

Question 71.
The general electron configuration of s – block elements are
A) ns¹
B) ns²
C) ns¹ to ns²
D) none of these
Answer:
C) ns¹ to ns²

Question 72.
The general electron configuration of p – block elements are
A) ns¹
B) ns³²
C) ns2np1
D) ns² np¹ to ns² np⁶
Answer:
D) ns² np¹ to ns² np⁶

Question 73.
Cl belongs to …………… family.
A) Noble gases
B) Boron
C) Carbon
D) Halogen
Answer:
D) Halogen

Question 74.
Number of elements present in period 1 are
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 75.
Which of the following element is electronegative?
A) Sodium
B) Oxygen
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 76.
Number of vertical columns in the modern periodic table are
A) 7
B) 8
C) 10
D) 18
Answer:
D) 18

Question 77.
Choose the correct answer for the following matching.
Group A — Group B
1) Alkali metal — P) Calcium
2) Chalcogen — Q) Potassium
3) Alkaline earth metal — R) Sulphur
A) 1-Q,2-R, 3-P
B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R
C) 1-P, 2-0,3-R
D) 1 – P, 2 – R, 3 – Q
Answer:
A) 1-Q,2-R, 3-P

CONCEPT – 3 : Periodic Properties

Question 78.
The elements which have both metallic and non metallic properties are called
A) Metalloids
B) Semiconductors
C) Semi metals
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 79.
The examples for metalloids
A) Li, Na, K, Rb
B) Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba
C) B, Si, As, Ge
D) F, Cl, Br, I
Answer:
C) B, Si, As, Ge

Question 80.
The distance from the centre of the nucleus of the atom to its outermost shell is
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic volume
C) Atomic radius
D) Atomic density
Answer:
C) Atomic radius

Question 81.
Atomic radius is measured in
A) m
B) mm
C) km
D) pm
Answer:
D) pm

Question 82.
1 pm = ……………. m
A) 10^-3
B) 10^-9
C) 10^-12
D) 10^-6
Answer:
C) 10^-12

Question 83.
The correct ascending order of atomic size for the following elements C, Li, N, Be :
A) C, Li, N, Be
B) Li, Be, C, N
C) C, N, Be, Li
D) Be, Li, N, C
Answer:
B) Li, Be, C, N

Question 84.
Which among these have greater size?
A) Na
B) Na⁺
C) Mg²⁺
D) Al³⁺
Answer:
A) Na

Question 85.
Which of the following has greater size?
A) F
B) F
C) Cl
D) Cl^–
Answer:
D) Cl^–

Question 86.
Statement I: Positive ion of an element has less size than its neutral atom.
Statement II : Negative ion of an element has bigger size than the neutral atom.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 87.
The energy required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit or shell of a neutral gaseous atom is
A) atomic size
B) ionization energy
C) electron gain enthalpy
D) oxidation potential
Answer:
B) ionization energy

Question 88.
Choose the correct order of ionization energies.
A) I₁ > I₂ > I₃
B) I₃ > I₂ > I₁
C) I₃ > I₁ > I₂
D) I₁= I₂ = I₃
Answer:
B) I₃ > I₂ > I₁

Question 89.
Which of the following statements is wrong ?
A) As screening effect increases ionization energy decreases
B) As atomic size increases ionization energy decreases
C) Ionization energy is expressed in KJ mol^-1
D) Nitrogen has less ionization energy compared to oxygen because it has stable half filled configuration.
Answer:
D) Nitrogen has less ionization energy compared to oxygen because it has stable half filled configuration.

Question 90.
The energy liberated when an electron is added to neutral gaseous atom is
A) ionization energy
B) electron affinity
C) electron gain enthalpy
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 91.
Alkaline earth metals have electron gain enthalpy values as
A) negative
B) positive
C) zero
D) all of these
Answer:
B) positive

Question 92.
Statement I: Electron affinity of atom is negative.
Statement II : Electron affinity of uninegative ion is positive.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 93.
The tendency of bonded atom to attract the electron pair towards itself is……………
A) electro positivity
B) electronegativity
C) electron affinity
D) ionization energy
Answer:
B) electronegativity

Question 94.
……………. proposed electronegativity of an element as average value of ionization energy and electron affinity.
A) Milliken
B) Pauling
C) Sommerfeld
D) Planck
Answer:
A) Milliken

Question 95.
……………….. assigned the electronegativity values for elements on the basis of bond energies.
A) Milliken
B) Pauling
C) Maxwell
D) Planck
Answer:
B) Pauling

Question 96.
The most electronegative element and its electronegativity value is
A) Cl, 4.0
B) F, 2.0
C) F, 4.0
D) Br, 4.0
Answer:
C) F, 4.0

Question 97.
The tendency of an atom to lose electrons is …………..
A) Metallic character
B) Electronegative character
C) Electropositive character
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 98.
The tendency of an atom to gain electrons is ……………..
A) Non-metallic character
B) Electropositive character
C) Metallic character
D) Both B and C
Answer:
A) Non-metallic character

Question 99.
The element at the bottom of a group would be expected to show ……………… metallic character than the element at the top
A) less
B) more
C) same
D) can’t say
Answer:
B) more

Question 100.
Which of the following is the most active metal ?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Rubidium
Answer:
D) Rubidium

Question 101.
Which of the following ions is larger in size ?
A) Na⁺
B) Mg²⁺
C) Al³⁺
D) H⁺
Answer:
A) Na⁺

Question 102.
Correct ionization energy order in following set of elements is ………………
A) C > O > N
B) N > O > C
C) O > N > C
D) N > C > O
Answer:
B) N > O > C

Question 103.
The element with negative charge having the electronic configuration 2,8, 8 is
A) O^2-
B) O^–
C) S^2-
D) P^–
Answer:
C) S^2-

Question 104.
The pair of atomic numbers which belongs to the p-block elements is
A) 3,5
B) 11,12
C) 7,8
D) 12,13
Answer:
C) 7,8

Question 105.
Which one of the following decreases in a group from top to bottom ?
A) Atomic size
B) Metallic nature
C) Electropositivity
D) Electronegativity
Answer:
D) Electronegativity

Question 106.
The least electronegative element is
A) Cs
B) F
C) CZ
D) H
Answer:
A) Cs

Question 107.
Which of the following elements has larger atomic size ?
A) Na
B) Mg
C) Ca
D) K
Answer:
D) K

Question 108.
The correct order of electronegativity in the following elements is
A) F > Cl > O
B) F > O > Cl
C) O > F > Cl
D) Cl > F > O
Answer:
B) F > O > Cl

Question 109.
WZhich of the following elements has the highest electronegativity ?
A) CZ
B) F
C) Br
D) I
Answer:
B) F

Question 110.
As we go from left to right in a period the atomic number and atomic radius
A) both increase
B) both decrease
C) atomic number increases and atomic radius decreases
D) atomic number decreases and atomic radius increases
Answer:
C) atomic number increases and atomic radius decreases

Question 111.
Which of the following elements has more atomic radius
A) Be
B) Mg
C) Ca
D) Sr
Answer:
D) Sr

Question 112.
Which one of the following elements is electronegative ?
A) Na
B) O
C) Mg
D) Ca
Answer:
B) O

Question 113.
The biggest and smallest atoms from the following respectively are
A) N, Si
B) Si, N
C) C, N
D) N, P
Answer:
B) Si, N

Question 114.
The order of second ionization energy values of O and N is
A) O > N
B) N > O
C) 0 = N
D) IE₂ is lessthan IE₁
Answer:
B) N > O

Question 115.
Generally the order of electronegativity in group
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains same
D) initially decreases then increases
Answer:
A) decreases

Question 116.
The correct order of atomic sizes of K, Ca, Na, Cl is
A) K > Ca > Na > CZ
B) K < Ca < Na < CZ C) Ca > K > CZ > Na
D) Na > CZ > K > Ca
Answer:
A) K > Ca > Na > CZ

Question 117.
Generally metallic character in period from left to right
A) increases
B) decreases
C) is equal for all elements
D) none
Answer:
B) decreases

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 13 The Kings of Vijayanagara on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson The Kings of Vijayanagara with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The city of Vijayanagara was located on the banks of the river
A) Krishna
B) the Godavari
C) Tungabhadra
D) Kaveri
Answer:
C) Tungabhadra

Question 2.
The kingdom of Vijayanagara was founded in the year
A) 1339 A.D
B) 1347 A.D
C) 1336 A.D
D) 1346 A.D
Answer:
C) 1336 A.D

Question 3.
The sage with whose blessings Hari Hara and Bukka founded the Vijayanagara kingdom was
A) Vidyananda
B) Ramanuja
C) Vidyaranya
D) Vijayaranya
Answer:
C) Vidyaranya

Question 4.
The name of the Lord worshipped by Vijayanagara kings was
A) Hazara Rama
B) Vithala
C) Virupaksha
D) Raghunatha
Answer:
C) Virupaksha

Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara kingdom?
A) Tuluva, Saluva, Sangama and Araviti
B) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva and Araviti
C) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Araviti
D) Araviti, Sangama, Saluva and Tuluva
Answer:
C) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Araviti

Question 6.
The capital of the Bahmani kingdom was
A) Bijapur
B) Mysore
C) Golkonda
D) Gulbarga
Answer:
D) Gulbarga

Question 7.
The Sultans of Bahmani Kingdom originally belonged to
A) Prussia
B) Egypt
C) Turkey
D) Arabia and Iran
Answer:
D) Arabia and Iran

Question 8.
The traveller Nicolo Conti who visited Vijayanagara came from
A) Italy
B) Persia
C) Portugal
D) Arabia
Answer:
A) Italy

Question 9.
The Portuguese traveller, who visited Krishnadevaraya’s court was
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Paes
C) Nuniz
D) Razzak
Answer:
B) Paes

Question 10.
The person who visited the Vijayanagara kingdom in 1537 A.D was
A) Nuniz
B) Marco Polo
C) Alberuni
D) Amir Khusro
Answer:
A) Nuniz

Question 11.
The rulers of Vijayanagara imported horses from
A) Arabia
B) Iran
C) Portugal
D) All the three countries
Answer:
D) All the three countries

Question 12.
Which Vijayanagara ruler started recruiting Muslims to train his soldiers in the new modes of warfare?
A) Harihara Raya – II
B) Krishnadevaraya
C) Devaraya – II
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Devaraya – II

Question 13.
Which Vijayanagara ruler permitted the construction of mosques in the capital city?
A) Krishnadevaraya
B) Devaraya – II
C) Harihararaya – II
D) Aliyaramaraya
Answer:
B) Devaraya – II

Question 14.
The revenue assignments given to the nobles in the Sultanate period were called?
A) Iqtas
B) Subahs
C) Paraganas
D) Jagirs
Answer:
A) Iqtas

Question 15.
The nayaka who challenged the Vijayanagara kings was
A) Narasanayaka
B) Achyutaraya
C) Devaraya – II
D) Harihararaya-II
Answer:
A) Narasanayaka

Question 16.
In the Vijayanagara Empire, the village administration was done by
A) Gramani
B) Nayaka
C) Amir
D) Mukti
Answer:
B) Nayaka

Question 17.
The main imports of Vijayanagara rulers were ………..
A) Horses
B) Guns
C) Cannons
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
When did Krishnadevaraya ascend the throne?
A) 1509 AD
B) 1519 AD
C) 1529 AD
D) 1520 AD
Answer:
A) 1509 AD

Question 19.
How long had Krishnadevaraya ruled the Vijayanagara Kingdom?
A) 40 years
B) 25 years
C) 20 years
D) 30 years
Answer:
C) 20 years

Question 20.
The European country which had es¬tablished their power in India by the Krishnadevaraya was
A) England
B) Spain
C) France
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 21.
In India where did the Portuguese establish their power?
A) Mumbai
B) Calicut
C) Goa
D) Koehin
Answer:
C) Goa

Question 22.
Which Vijayanagara ruler personally visited the temples Tirupathi, Srisailam and Ahobilam?
A) Devaraya – II
B) Harihararaya
C) Harihararaya – II
D) Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Krishnadevaraya

Question 23.
Which of the following rulers was a great patron of Telugu literature?
A) Devaraya -II
B) Harihararaya
C) Saluva Narasimha
D) Sri Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Sri Krishnadevaraya

Question 24.
‘Amuktamalyada’ was written by
A) Allasani Peddana
B) Mukku Timmana
C) Dhurjati
D) Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Krishnadevaraya

Question 25.
‘Ashtadiggajas’ – eight poets adorned the court of
A) Saluva Narasimha
B) Devaraya – II
C) Krishnadevaraya
D) Aliya Rama Raya
Answer:
C) Krishnadevaraya

Question 26.
The battle of Rakkasi tangadi was held in the year
A) 1556 AD
B) 1546 AD
C) 1555 AD
D) 1565 AD
Answer:
D) 1565 AD

Question 27.
The Vijayanagara ruler who was defeated in the Rakkasi tangadi war was
A) Achyutaramaraya
B) Aliya Rama Raya
C) Harihara Raya – II
D) Saluva Narasimha
Answer:
B) Aliya Rama Raya

Question 28.
After the war of Tallikota, the capital of Vijayanagara was shifted to
A) Hampi
B) Anegondi
C) Chandragiri
D) Tirupathi
Answer:
C) Chaodragiri

Question 29.
Vijayanagara means
A) city of heavens
B) city of victories
C) city on the land
D) all the above
Answer:
B) city of victories

Question 30.
Vijayanagar was built on the banks of this river
A) Krishna
B) Tungabhadra
C) the Godavari
D) Vamsadhara
Answer:
B) Tungabhadra

Question 31.
…………… says that the city had seven rings of fortifications.
A) Archaeologists
B) Abdul Razak
C) Paes
D) None
Answer:
B) Abdul Razak

Question 32.
…………. Kings adopted guns and canons in their forces.
A) Vijayanagara
B) Cholas
C) Pallavas
D) None
Answer:
A) Vijayanagara

Question 33.
Most of the Amaranayakas were ………….. warriors.
A) English
B) Telugu
C) Muslims
D) None
Answer:
B) Telugu

Question 34.
The Vijayanagara empire lasted for about years.
A) 200
B) 250
C) 300
D) 350
Answer:
B) 250

Question 35.
The dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara empire
A) Sangama, Saluva
B) Tuluva, Araviti
C) Both A & B
D) Slave
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
The king gave due importance of the Telugu language.
A) Harihararaya
B) Bukkaraya
C) Narasimharaya
D) Srikrishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Srikrishnadevaraya

Question 37.
Krishna Devaraya paid special attention to the ………….. of his kingdom.
A) Church
B) Mosques
C) Temples
D) None
Answer:
C) Temples

Question 38.
The Bahamani kingdom was divided into 5 small kingdoms.
A) 1489 -1520 AD
B) 1500 -1530 AD
C) 1540 -1550 AD
D) 1550 – 1560 AD
Answer:
A) 1489 -1520 AD

Question 39.
Identify mismatches.
1) Harihararaya -1336 – 1357 AD
2) Devaraya – II -1426 -1446 AD
3) Srikrishnadevaraya – 1509 – 1529 AD
4) Aliya Ramaraya – 1543 – 1565 AD
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1,2, 3, 4
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 40.
The Italian pilgrim visited Vijayanagara in 1420 AD.
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nuniz
Answer:
A) Nicolo Conti

Question 41.
The Persian trader visited Vijayanagara in 1443 AD.
A) Abdul Salani
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nunico
Answer:
B) Abdul Razzak

Question 42.
The Portuguese traveller visited Vijayanagara in 1520 AD.
A) Nuniz
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
C) Domingo Paes

Question 43.
“The king has made a very strong city; fortified with walls and towers …. These walls are not made like those of other cities, but are made of strong masonry…. and inside, very beautiful rows of building with flat roofs …………
A) Nuniz
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
C) Domingo Paes

Question 44.
In the view of archaeologists, the city was divided into parts.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 45.
Devaraya – II started recruiting ………….. fighters to train his Soldiers in the new modes of warfare.
A) Hindu
B) Muslim
C) Christians
D) None
Answer:
B) Muslim

Question 46.
“This king has a million fighting troops, Which include 35,000 cavalries, ready to be dispatched to any quarter whenever necessary….. He is the most feared king in these parts”…. who said these words?
A) Abdul Razzak
B) Domingo Paes
C) Nuniz
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
B) Domingo Paes

Question 47.
Besides the troops supplied by the captains, the king has his own troops whom he pays were called as
A) Nayakas
B) Amaranayakas
C) Swarga Dhamakas
D) Army captains
Answer:
B) Amaranayakas

Question 48.
‘Amaram’ in Vijayanagara kingdom means
A) Dandanayakas
B) Army
C) The power of collecting Revenue in a particular region
D) The administrative officer of a particular region
Answer:
C) The power of collecting Revenue in a particular region

Question 49.
The administrative period of Sri Krishnadevaraya
A) 1509 – 1529 AD
B) 1530 -1559 AD
C) 1508 -1509 AD
D) 1500 – 1529 AD
Answer:
A) 1509 – 1529 AD

Question 50.
Srikrishnadevaraya maintained a friendly relation with these Europeans
A) The Portuguese
B) The British
C) The French
D) The Dutch
Answer:
A) The Portuguese

Question 51.
Srikrishnadevaraya got these from the Portuguese
A) Horses
B) Explosives
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 52.
Srikrishnadevaraya visited these places of his own ………….
A) Tirupati
B) Srisailam
C) Ahobilam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 53.
Srikrishnadevaraya explained the biography of this god in ‘Amukta- malyada’
A) Srikrishna
B) Srirama,
C) Andal
D) Meenakshi
Answer:
C) Andal

Question 54.
This person was not in Ashtadiggajas of Srikrishnadevaraya court.
A) Pingali Surana
B) Ramaraja Bhushana
C) Bhattumurthy
D) Ayyalaraju Ramabadhrudu
Answer:
C) Bhattumurthy

Question 55.
The year of Thallikota war
A) 1560
B) 1565
C) 1570
D) 1575
Answer:
B) 1565

Question 56.
Who won the Thallikota war?
A) Aliya Ramaraya
B) Achyutadevaraya
C) Bahmani Sultans
D) None
Answer:
C) Bahmani Sultans

Question 57.
The towering temple gateway is called.
A) Raja gopuram
B) Goparam
C) Raja
D) None
Answer:
A) Raja gopuram

Question 58.
Find out the correct statement.
A. Sri Krishnadevaraya was the founder of the Vijayanagara empire.
B. Hari Hara Raya, Bukkaraya were the founders of the Vijayanagara empire.
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) B only

Question 59.
Bukkaraya: Sangama dynasty: : Sri Krishnadevaraya: ………………
A) Araviti
B) Saluva
C) Tulava
D) Sangama
Answer:
C) Tulava

Question 60.
Nicolo Conti: Italy:: Abdul Razzak: ……………….
A) Portuguese
B) Spain
C) Germany
D) Persia
Answer:
D) Persia

Question 61.
The city of Vijayanagara was looked at and destroyed in this war.
A) Battle of Khanwa
B) Battle of Bauxes
C) Battle Plassey
D) Rokkasi Tangadi
Answer:
D) Rokkasi Tangadi

Question 62.
He was permitted the construction of mosques in the capital city where the Muslim soldiers were garrisoned.
Q. Who permitted to the construction of mosques in the capital city?
A) Sri Krishnadevaraya
B) Rama Raya
C) Devaraya II
D) Achyutharaya
Answer:
C) Devaraya II

Question 63.
The picture is

A) Thousand Pillar Temple
B) Konark Surya Chariot
C) Stone Chariot of Hazara Rama temple
D) Bronze Palanquin
Answer:
C) Stone Chariot of Hazara Rama temple

Question 64.
The power of the Vijayanagara kings grew further during the time of Krishnadevaraya’s successors Achyutadeva Raya and Aliya Rama Raya. As the Bahamani rulers were unable to fight the Vijayanagara individually, by 1565 AD, all the five Bahmahi kingdoms joined together and defeated Rama Raya in Rakkasi tangadi war also known as Tallikota war, looted, and destroyed the city of Vijayanagara.
Q. Who defeated the Vijayanagara empire?
A) Bahamani Sultans
B) Deccan Sardars
C) Mangols
D) Chihalgani Sardars
Answer:
A) Bahamani Sultans

Question 65.
Rakkasi Tangadi is also known as
A) Kalinga
B) Somanadh
C) Tallikota
D) None
Answer:
C) Tallikota

Question 66.
The founder of Bahmani Sultans Kingdom was
A) Alauddin Bahman Shah
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Ghazani
D) Ghori
Answer:
A) Alauddin Bahman Shah

Question 67.
The most important poetic work of Sri Krishnadevaraya is
A) Vani Na Rani
B) Bhagavatam
C) Amuktamalyada.
D) Devi Chandra Gupta
Answer:
C) Amuktamalyada.

Question 68.
The base of Amuktamalyada was
A) The life of Kannagi
B) The life of Gowthami
C) The life of Meer Bai
D) The life of Andal
Answer:
D) The life of Andal

Question 69.

The statue belongs to ………….. metal
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Bronze
D) Copper
Answer:
C) Bronze

Question 70.
The statue is installed at
A) Sri Rangam
B) Tirumala
C) Sri Sailam
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
B) Tirumala

Question 71.
Ashtadiggajas: Sri Krishnadevaraya:: Navaralnas : …………….
A) Ashoka
B) Kanishka
C) Raja Raja
D) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya II
Answer:
D) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya II

Question 72.

Tallikota war took place during these period
A) Devaraya II
B) Aliya Rama Raya
C) Venkatapathi Raya
D) Achyutaraya
Answer:
B) Aliya Rama Raya

Question 73.
Who selected Muslim fighters in his army?
A) Hari Hara Raya
B) Achyutha Raya
C) Aliya Rama Raya
D) Devaraya – II
Answer:
D) Devaraya – II

Question 74.

The Gopuram is in …………
A) Madras
B) Tirupathi
C) Kanchipuram
D) Madurai
Answer:
C) Kanchipuram

Question 75.
The following travellers visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom.
Find the wrong statement.
1) Nicolo Conti in 1420 A.D
2) Abdul Razzak in 1443 A.D
3) Paes in 1520 A.D
4) Nuniz in 1620 A.D
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4 only
Answer:
D) 4 only

Question 76.
“Ashtadiggajas” were
A) A group of emperors in the Vijayanagara Dynasty
B) A group of administrators during the period of Shivaji
C) A group of Sabha members in the Chola Dynasty
D) A group of poets during the period of Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) A group of poets during the period of Krishnadevaraya

Question 77.
Under which ruler did the style of temple architecture include Vimanas and Gopurams?
A) Moughal Ruler
B) British Ruler
C) Delhi Sultan Ruler
D) Vizayanagara Ruler
Answer:
D) Vizayanagara Ruler

Question 78.
Vijayanagara dynasty lies on the bank of the river
A) Krishna
B) the Godavari
C) Tungabhadra
D) Penna
Answer:
C) Tungabhadra

Question 79.
Which of the following is appreciable regarding Srikrishna Devaraya
A) A patron of Telugu literature
B) Administration
C) Construction of thanks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 80.
According to Paes, pearls and diamonds are sold in streets in which kingdom?
A) Kakatiya
B) Chola
C) Vijayanagara
D) Bahamani
Answer:
C) Vijayanagara

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Sammakka and Sarakka were …………
A) Tribal women
B) Spiritualists
C) Queens
D) Sisters
Answer:
A) Tribal women

Question 2.
The first poetic work in Telugu.
A) Srimad Andhra Ramayana
B) Srimad Andhra Mahabharatam
C) Sundara Kanda
D) Andhra Bhagavatam
Answer:
B) Srimad Andhra Mahabharatam

Question 3.
Rudramadevi ruled for ……….. years.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 27
D) 22
Answer:
C) 27

Question 4.
A woman ruler killed by her nobles was …………
A) Rudrama Devi
B) Jhansi Laxmi Bai
C) Chand Bibi
D) Raziya Sultana
Answer:
D) Raziya Sultana

Question 5.
The language of the court in Kakatiya kingdom.
A) Telugu
B) Kannada
C) Kannada, Telugu
D) Tamil
Answer:
A) Telugu

Question 6.
Village heads were called
A) Patlas
B) Rattadis
C) Chairpersons
D) Mukthis
Answer:
B) Rattadis

Question 7.
Thousand Pillared Temple is in
A) Aleru
B) Raghunafhapalli
C) Anmakonda
D) Parakala
Answer:
C) Anmakonda

Question 8.
The city was divided into
A) Iqtas
B) Valnadus
C) Panchs
D) Vadas
Answer:
D) Vadas

Question 9.
A Sasana of Ganapatideva was found in …………..
A) Khammam
B) Karimnagar
C) Motupalli
D) Bhupal Palli
Answer:
C) Motupalli

Question 10.
The first books in ……….. were written during Kakatiyas.
A) Hindi
B) Marathi
C) Kannada
D) Telugu
Answer:
D) Telugu

Question 11.
The last important ruler of Kakatiya dynasty was ………..
A) Prola
B) Rudradeva
C) Prataparudra
D) Gariapatideva
Answer:
C) Prataparudra

Question 12.
Marco Polo was an …………. traveller.
A) American
B) Russian
C) Italian
D) Iranian
Answer:
C) Italian

Question 13.
Vinukonda Vallabharaya wrote ………….
A) Kridabhiramamu
B) Prataparudra Charitramu
C) Raja Tarangini
D) Katha Sagaram
Answer:
A) Kridabhiramamu

Question 14.
During …………. rule the capital was shifted from Anmakonda to Orugallu.
A) Rudradeva
B) Rudramadevi
C) Prola-II
D) Ganapatideva
Answer:
A) Rudradeva

Question 15.
Svayambhu Siva Temple was in the …………. of the city.
A) North side
B) South side
C) Centre
D) North East side
Answer:
C) Centre

Question 16.
Palanati Virulakatha was written by
A) Rudramadevi
B) Srinadha
C) Ganpati Deva
D) None
Answer:
B) Srinadha

Question 17.
Who wrote Srimadandhra Mahabharatam?
A) Nannaya
B) Tikkana
C) Errapragada
D) AH the above
Answer:
D) AH the above

Question 18.
The Kavitrayamu belonged to this period.
A) 1000 AD – 1400 AD
B) 1400 AD- 1600 AD
C) 1600 AD-1800 AD
D) 1800 AD – 2000 AD
Answer:
A) 1000 AD – 1400 AD

Question 19.
Vidyanatha wrote the book
A) Ramabhyudayam
B) Prataparudra Yashobhushanam
C) Kridabhiramamu
D) Prataparudra Charitramu
Answer:
B) Prataparudra Yashobhushanam

Question 20.
Ruling period of Rudrama Devi
A) 1262-1289 AD
B) 1289-1323 AD
C) 11584195 AD
D) 1116-1157 AD
Answer:
A) 1262-1289 AD

Question 21.
The Kakatiyas traced their lineage to certain
A) Durjaya
B) Prolaraja
C) Rudradeva
D) Ganapathi Deva
Answer:
A) Durjaya

Question 22.
Kakatiyas adopted this language as the favoured language of the court.
A) Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Kannada
D) Malayala.
Answer:
A) Telugu

Question 23.
Identify the mismatch.
1) Prola Raja – II – AD -1116 -1157
2) Rudradeva – AD -1158 -1195
3) Ganapathi Deva – AD – 1199 -1262
4) Rudramadevi – AD – 1262 – 1289
5) Prataparudra – AD – 1289 – 1323
A) 1,2, 3, 4
B) 1,2, 3
C) 3, 4, 5
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 24.
Kakatiyas were Samanthas to these in the beginning
A) Rashtrakutas & Chalukyas
B) Rulers of Vijayanagara
C) Kakatiyas
D) Pallavas
Answer:
A) Rashtrakutas & Chalukyas

Question 25.
The Kakatiyas emerged as indepen¬dent rulers after the fall of the ……………
A) Reddy Rajulu
B) Rulers of Vijayanagara
C) Western Chalukyas
D) Pallavas
Answer:
C) Western Chalukyas

Question 26.
This person changed the capital from Anmakonda to Orugallu
A) Prolaraju
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapati Deva
D) Rudramadevi
Answer:
B) Rudradeva

Question 27.
Palanati Virulakatha written by Srinatha around
A) 1350s
B) 1450s
C) 1550s
D) 1650s
Answer:
A) 1350s

Question 28.
The woman ruler that ruled from her capital Warangal in the medieval period.
A) Razia Sultana
B) Rudramadevi
C) Peramba
D) Ramabai
Answer:
B) Rudramadevi

Question 29.
The Italian pilgrim Marco Polo visited this court
A) Prolaraju – II
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapati Deva
D) Rudramadevi
Answer:
D) Rudramadevi

Question 30.
In inscriptions Rudramadevi was known as
A) Rudradeva
B) Rudradeva Maharaja
C) Razia Sultana
D) Prataprudra
Answer:
B) Rudradeva Maharaja

Question 31.
This revolted during the rule of Rudramadevi
A) Manumasiddhi
B) Ambadeva
C) Veerabhadra
D) Kumaradeva
Answer:
B) Ambadeva

Question 32.
Nayankara with Nayak title, were appoin ted by ………… to encourage the skilled warriors.
A) Rudramadevi
B) Prataparudra
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
C) All the above

Question 33.
The Kakatiyas brought large tracts of land under cultivation by building
A) Tanks
B) Wells
C) Both A & B
D) Canals
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
The Kakatiya women who donated lands on a large scale for building temples.
A) Muppamamba
B) Mailamma
C) Both A & B
D) Ganapamba
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 35.
The main source of income in the Kakatiya period.
A) land cess
B) trade tax
C) property tax
D) wealth tax
Answer:
B) trade tax

Question 36.
The famous shipyard during the Kakatiya period.
A) Motupalli
B) Kayal
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Nijampatnam
Answer:
A) Motupalli

Question 37.
The new’ kingdom, with Delhi as its centre, was established in ………
A) 1190
B) 1180
C) 3170
D) 1160
Answer:
A) 1190

Question 38.
This Sultan defeated Prataparudra
A) Mohammad-bin-Tugluq
B) Alladin-Khilji
C) Mubarak-Khilji
D) None
Answer:
A) Mohammad-bin-Tugluq

Question 39.
The Kakatiya dynasty ruled out in the year
A) 1300 AD
B) 1320 AD
C) 1323 AD
D) 1350 AD
Answer:
C) 1323 AD

Question 40.
The history of Palanati Warriors was written by
A) Bara
B) Nannaya
C) Tikkana
D) Srinadha
Answer:
D) Srinadha

Question 41.
The Palanati Warrior who said the caste must be set aside when one goes to war.
A) Brahmanayudu
B) Balachandra
C) Nalagama Raju
D) Nagamma
Answer:
B) Balachandra

Question 42.

The picture belongs to
A) Cholas
B) Chalukyas
C) Kakatiyas
D) Pandyas
Answer:
C) Kakatiyas

Question 43.

The coin belongs to
A) Vijayanagaras
B) Bahmanis
C) Pallavas
D) Kakatiyas
Answer:
D) Kakatiyas

Question 44.
One appreciable feature of Rudrama devi
A) She was fearless and subdued enemies
B) She encouraged poets
C) She collected heavy taxes
D) She gave freedom to Nayakas
Answer:
A) She was fearless and subdued enemies

Question 45.
An important appreciable feature of Kakatiyas to agriculture
A) They brought vast forest lands to agriculture
B) They built tanks
C) They encouraged tribes
D) They introduced new crops
Answer:
B) They built tanks

Question 46.
Read the information and answer the following question.
Srimad – Andhra Mahabharatamu is the first poetic work in Telugu which was compose by Kavitrayamu.
Q. These are called Kavitrayamu
A) Pothana, Nannaya, Singana
B) Nannaya, Tikkana, Errapragada
C) Srinadha, Durjati, Tenali Rama- krishna
D) Peddana, Mallana, Tikkana
Answer:
B) Nannaya, Tikkana, Errapragada

Question 47.
Delhi Sultans : …………. :: Kakatiyas : Rudramadevi
A) Kannamba
B) Raziya Sulthana
C) Nagama
D) Padmini
Answer:
B) Raziya Sulthana

Question 48.
Sultan Mohammed bin Tughlaq was able to defeat Kakatiya Pratapa- rudra in 1323 A.D.
Q. When did Kakatiya kingdom ended?
A) 1200 A.D
B) 1100 A.D
C) 1327 A.D
D) 1323 A.D
Answer:
D) 1323 A.D

Question 49.
Prola -11 – 1116- 1157 A.D
Rudradeva – 1158 – 1195 A.D
Ganapati Deva – 1199 – 1262 A.D
Rudramadevi – 1262- 1289 A.D
Prataparudra – 1289 – 1323 A.D
Q. Thousand Pillared Temple was built by
A) Rudradeva
B) Ganapathi deva
C) Rudramadevi
D) Prataparudra
Answer:
A) Rudradeva

Question 50.
During this period capital was shifted from Anmakonda to Orugallu.
A) Rudramadevi
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapathi Deva
D) None
Answer:
B) Rudradeva

Question 51.
Rudrama Devi calls herself as
A) Rudradeva Maharaj
B) Rudra
C) Ganapathideva
D) Prataparudra
Answer:
A) Rudradeva Maharaj

Question 52.
The famous port of Kakatiyas
A) Motupalli
B) Kolleru
C) Nizampatnam
D) Srirangam
Answer:
A) Motupalli

Question 53.
Rudrama and her grandson …………… faced many revolts and took several steps to control these chiefs.
A) Rudradeva
B) Ganapatideva
C) Prataparudra
D) Prola
Answer:
C) Prataparudra

Question 54.
The Motupalli port is connected with which of the following dynasties?
A) Vijayanagara
B) Cholas
C) Kakatiyas
D) Western Chalukyas
Answer:
C) Kakatiyas

Question 55.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) Saluva Narasimharaya – Abdul Razzak
B) Devaraya II – Domingo Paes
C) Rudrama Devi – Marco Polo
D) Krishnadevaraya – Nuniz
Answer:
C) Rudrama Devi – Marco Polo

Question 56.
Kakatiyas adopted which one among the following as the favoured language of the court?
A) Sanskrit
B) Telugu
C) Tamil
D) Kannada
Answer:
B) Telugu

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 3rd Lesson Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces with Answers

CONCEPT – I : Refraction – Refractive index

Question 1.
The phenomenon of changing direction of light at interface of the two media when it travels from one medium to another obliquely is called ………………
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Total Internal Reflection
D) Diffraction
Answer:
B) Refraction

Question 2.
If v₂ < v₁ then medium 2 is said to be ……………… with respect ot medium 1.

A) denser
B) rarer
C) both
D) neither
Answer:
A) denser

Question 3.
The relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction is ……………….. [from the above figure]
A) i = r
B) i > r
C) i < r D) i ≤ r Answer: B) i > r

Question 4.
During refraction …………….. at the interface of two media.
A) the speed of light does not change
B) the speed of light changes
C) frequency of light changes
D) All
Answer:
B) the speed of light changes

Question 5.
Statement x: When light ray travels from a rarer medium to denser medium the refracted ray bends towards normal.
Statement y: When light ray travels from a rarer medium to denser medium the angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence.
A) x and y are true
B) x and y are false
C) x is true, y is false
D) x is false, y is true
Answer:
A) x and y are true

Question 6.
The extent of the change in direction that takes place when a light ray propagates through one medium to another medium is called ……………..
A) Refraction
B) Refractive index
C) Total internal reflection
D) None
Answer:
B) Refractive index

Question 7.
The speed of light in vacuum is ……………………
A) 3, 00, 000 kms^-1
B) 3 × 10⁵ kms^-1
C) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 8.
The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in that medium is called …………………
A) critical angle
B) refractive index
C) absolute refractive index
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 9.
Statement x: Refractive index gives us an idea of how fast or how slow light travels in a medium.
Statement y: The speed .of light in a medium is low, when refractive index of medium is high.
A) x and y are true
B) x and y are false
C) x is true, y is false
D) x is false, y is true
Answer:
A) x and y are true

Question 10.
Absolute refractive index n =
A) \(\frac{c}{\mathrm{v}}\)
B) \(\frac{v}{\mathrm{c}}\)
C) v × c
D) v ÷ c
Answer:
A) \(\frac{c}{\mathrm{v}}\)

Question 11.
Match the following.

Material medium	Refractive index
a) Air	p) 1.44
b) Ice	q) 1.33
c) Water	r) 131
d) Kerosene	s) 1. 0003

A) a → p,b → q,c → r,d → s
B) a → q,b → r,c → s,d → p
C) a → s,b → r,c → p,d → q
D) a → s,b → r,c → q,d → p
Answer:
D) a → s,b → r,c → q,d → p

Question 12.
The refractive index of diamond is………………..
A) 2. 42
B) 24. 4
C) 1
D) 1. 42
Answer:
A) 2. 42

Question 13.
Statement x: The refractive index of the kerosene is greater than the refractive index of water.
Statement y: An optically denser medium may not possess greater mass density.
A) both x and y are true
B) both x and y are false
C) x is true, y is false
D) x is false, y is true
Answer:
A) both x and y are true

Question 14.
Which of the following is a dimension less quantity?
A) Refractive index
B) Relative refractive index
C) Both A and B
D) Speed of light
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 15.
If the refractive index of glass is \(\frac{3}{2}\) then the speed of light in glass is
A) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
B) 2 × 10⁸ ms^-1
C) \(\frac{9}{2}\) × 10⁸ ms^-1
D) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
B) 2 × 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 16.
Refractive index of a medium depends on ………………..
A) nature of material
B) wavelength of light
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 17.
When light is going from one medium (other than vacuum or air) to another medium then the value of refractive index is called ……………..
A) absolute refractive index
B) relative refractive index
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
B) relative refractive index

Question 18.
The ratio of speed of light in first medium to speed of light in second medium is called …………………..
A) absolute refractive index of first medium
B) refractive index of 2^nd medium with respect to 1^st medium
C) refractive index of 1^st medium with respect to 2^nd medium
D) all of the above
Answer:
B) refractive index of 2^nd medium with respect to 1^st medium

Question 19.
Relative refractive index n₂₁ = ………………
A) \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}=\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{n}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_{2}}{\mathrm{v}_{1}}\)\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}
C) \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}=\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\)

Question 20.
Which of the following is Snell’s law ?
A) n₁ sin i = sin r/n₂
B) n₁/n₂ = sin r/sin i
C) n₂/n₁ = sin r/sin i
D) n₂ sin i = constant
Answer:
B) n₁/n₂ = sin r/sin i

Question 21.
Refractive index of glass relative to water is 9/8. The refractive index of water relative to glass is …………………
A) 8
B) 1.33
C) 1.5
D) 8/9
Answer:
D) 8/9

Question 22.
During refraction light follows ………………………..
A) Snell’s law
B) Archimedes law
C) Pascal’s law
D) Galilio’s law
Answer:
A) Snell’s law

Question 23.
Which of the following effect is not related to refraction ?
A) A coin kept at a bottom of vessel filled with water appears to be raised
B) A lemon kept in a glass of water appears to bigger than its size
C) A thick glass slab is placed over some printed letters, they appear raised when viewed through glass slab.
D) Formation of shadows.
Answer:
A) A coin kept at a bottom of vessel filled with water appears to be raised

Question 24.
Which of the following effect is not related to refraction ?
A) A pencil held obliquely and partly immersed in water appears to be bent at the water surface.
B) A pool of water appears to be less deep than it actually is.
C) The images formed by spherical mirrors.
D) The stars appear to twinkle on a clear night.
Answer:
C) The images formed by spherical mirrors.

Question 25.
Which of the following diagram shows the ray of light refracted correctly ?

Answer:

Question 26.
The refractive indices of four substances P, Q, R and S are 1.50,1.36,1.77 and 1.31 respectively. The speed of light is the minimum in the substance.
A) S
B) R
C) Q
D) P
Answer:
B) R

Question 27.
The refractive indices of four materials P, Q, R and S are 1.33,1.31,1.44 and 1.52 respectively. When the light rays pass from air into these materials, they refract the maximum in …………………
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) S
Answer:
D) S

Question 28.
The refractive index of glass for light going from aif’to glass is \(\frac{3}{2}\). The refractive index of air for light going from glass to air ………………….
A) 1
B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{4}{6}\)

Question 29.
The refractive index of glass with respect to air is \(\frac{3}{2}\) and the refractive
index of water with respect to air is \(\frac{3}{2}\) . The refractive index of glass with
respect to-water will be
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{9}{8}\)

Question 30.
A light ray incident on curved surface travelling from rarer medium to denser medium bends ………………….. the normal.
A) towards
B) away from
C) parallel to
D) none
Answer:
A) towards

Question 31.
If i and r be the angles of incidence and refraction respectively, when the light ray travels from glass to air, then
A) i = r
B) i >r
C) i < r
D) none
Answer:
C) i < r

Question 32.
If the refractive index of transparent material is \(\frac{3}{2}\)the speed of light in that
medium (in ip/s) is ……………………..
A) 4.5 × 10⁸
B) 4.5 × 10¹⁰
C) 2 × 10⁸
D) 2 × 10¹⁰
Answer:
C) 2 × 10⁸

Question 33.
When light enters from air to a medium “X” its speed becomes 2 Answer: 10⁸ ms^-1, then refractive index of the medium ‘X’ is …………………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1.5
D) 1
Answer:
C) 1.5

Question 34.
If n is the refractive index of a medium and v is the velocity of light in that medium, then which one of the following statements is correct ?
A) If n is low, v is low
B) If n is high, v is low
C) n = v for all media
D) n and v are independent of each other
Answer:
B) If n is high, v is low

Question 35.
The angle of refraction of a light ray is the angle between …………………
A) incident ray and refracted ray
B) refracted ray and interface separating the two media
C) normal ray and incident ray
D) normal ray and refracted ray
Answer:
D) normal ray and refracted ray

Question 36.
The extent of the change in the direction that takes place when a light ray travels from one medium to another is given by………………..
A) critical angle
B) focal length
C) refractive index
D) focal power
Answer:
C) refractive index

Question 37.
The refractive index of a material is 1. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1 then the speed of light in that material is ………………..
A) 0.3 × 10⁸ m/s
B) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
C) 4 × 10⁸ m/s
D) 10⁸ m/s
Answer:
B) 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Question 38.
Speed of light is almost half of the vacuum in which of the following ?
A) Air
B) Water
C) Glass
D) Kerosene
Answer:
C) Glass

Question 39.
Kerosene is optically ………………than water
A) rarer
B) denser
C) dilute
D) higher
Answer:
B) denser

Question 40.
In which of the following case a light ray does not deviate from its path at the interface of two media ?
A) It is incident normally
B) Refractive indices of two media is same
C) It is incident obliquely
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 41.
A diamond shines more than a glass piece cut to the same shape due to………..
a) refractive index of the diamond is high than the glass piece
b) critical angle of diamond is low than the glass piece
c) critical angle of diamond is high than the glass piece
d) refractive index of the diamond is low than the glass piece
A) a and b
B) c and d
C) a and c
D) b and d
Answer:
A) a and b

Question 42.
Ramu poured some glycerine into the glass vessel and then poured water up to the brim. He kept the quartz glass red into the vessel while doing an activity. When he see the glass rod from the sides of the glass vessel, he can see the ………………….
A) only submerged part of the glass rod into the glycerine
B) only submerged part of the glass rod into the water
C) total length of the glass rod into the vessel
D) none
Answer:
B) only submerged part of the glass rod into the water

Question 43.
n_air = 1, c = 30° (glass – air) the n for glass is ………………………
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
C) 2

Question 44.
Speed of light in a medium is ………………. than in vacuum.
A) less
B) greater
C) equal
D) none
Answer:
A) less

Question 45.
Speed of light in vacuum is “c” and n = 3/2 then the speed of light in medium is ………………….
A) \(\frac{3 c}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{2 c}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{5 c}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{7 c}{5}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{2 c}{3}\)

Question 46.
Refractive index of Benzene is …………………….
A) 1.53
B) 1.50
C) 1.47
D) 1.63
Answer:
B) 1.50

Question 47.
Find the refractive index of the medium from the figure.

A) 2
B) 1.414
C) \(\frac{1}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
B) 1.414

CONCEPT – II : Total Internal Reflection

Question 48.
When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle the light ray is ! reflected into denser medium at inter face. This phenomenon is called ………………….
A) critical angle
B) reflection
C) refraction
D) total internal reflection
Answer:
D) total internal reflection

Question 49.
At critical angle of incidence the angle of refraction is ……………………..
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 180°
Answer:
B) 90°

Question 50.
Total internal reflection takes place when the light ray travels from ………………………..
A) rarer to denser medium
B) rarer to rarer medium
C) denser to rarer medium
D) denser to denser medium
Answer:
C) denser to rarer medium

Question 51.
The angle of incidence at which the light ray travels from denser to rarer medium grazes the interface is called ……………………….
A) refracted angle
B) reflected angle
C) critical angle
D) supplementary angle
Answer:
C) critical angle

Question 52.
Which of the following conditions are needed to take “Total Internal Reflection”?
a) Light rays travel front denser to rarer medium
b) Light rays travel fromrarer to denser medium
c) Angle of incidence is greater than critical angle
d) Angle of incidence is smaller than < critical angle
A) only (a)
B) (a) and (c)
C) (b) and (d)
D) (a) and (d) Answer:
B) (a) and (c)

Question 53.
Statement x : Refractive index of air increases with height.
Statement y : Cooler air has greater refractive index than , hotter air.
A) x is true, y is false
B) x is false, y is true
C) Both are true
D) Both are false
Answer:
C) Both are true

Question 54.
Statement x : If the temperature of air increases, the refractive index of air decreases.
Statement y : The refractive index of air does not depend on its temperature
A) Both are true
B) Both are false
C) x is true, y is false
D) x is false, y is true
Answer:
A) Both are true

Question 55.
The value of refractive index of a rock salt is ………………
A) 2. 52
B) 1.54
C) 2. 62
D) 1.42
Answer:
B) 1.54

Question 56.
The critical angle of a diamond is ……………..
A) 24.4°
B) 42.4°
C) 14.4°
D) 2.42°
Answer:
A) 24.4°

Question 57.
Which one of the following is not an application of total internal reflection ?
A) Shining of diamond
B) Optical fibre
C) Mirage
D) Blue colour of sky
Answer:
D) Blue colour of sky

Question 58.
In what condition ray grazes along die surface?
A) ∠i > ∠c
B) ∠i = ∠c
C) ∠i < ∠c
D) ∠i = 0
Answer:
B) ∠i = ∠c

Question 59.
A ball coated with lamp black put in a glass tank containing water appears shining due to …………………
A) refraction
B) diffraction
C) interference
D) total internal reflection
Answer:
D) total internal reflection

Question 60.
The refractive index and the critical angle of a medium are n and c respectively then
A) n = c
B) n = sin c
C) n = \(\frac{1}{\sin c}\)
D) n = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{c}}\)
Answer:
C) n = \(\frac{1}{\sin c}\)

Question 61.
The absolute refractive index of water is. \(\frac{4}{3}\). The critical angle of water is
A) sinc = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
B) c = sin^-1( \(\frac{4}{3}\))
C) c = sin^-1 (\(\frac{3}{4}\))
D) 0°
Answer:
C) c = sin^-1 (\(\frac{3}{4}\))

Question 62.
The absolute refractive index of a medium is 2. The critical angle for that medium ……………….
A) sin^-1 = (\(\frac{1}{3}\))
B) sin^-1 (2/3)
C) sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{2}\))
D) sin^-1(3/2)
Answer:
C) sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{2}\))

Question 63.
Statement X: If angle of incidence is less than critical angle refraction takes place.
Statement Y: If angle of incidence is greater than critical angle refraction does not take place. (AS 2)
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) Statement – X is true, statement – Y is false
D) Statement – X is false, statement – Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 64.
As temperature of medium increases, the critical angle ………………..
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) first increases then decreases
Answer:
A) increases

Question 65.
The refractive index of a material is 2, then the critical angle is ……………………..
A) sin^-1(2)
B) sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{2}\))
C) sin^-1(√2)
D) sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\))
Answer:
B) sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{2}\))

Question 66.
The total internal reflection in a diamond makes it shine, because the critical angle of diamond is ……………….
A) very low
B) very high
C) exactly 45°
D) none
Answer:
A) very low

Question 67.
The main principle behind working of optical fibres is …………………..
A) total internal reflection
B) dispersion
C) refraction
D) reflection
Answer:
A) total internal reflection

Question 68.
Choose the correct increasing order of substances water, ice, kerosene arranged based on their refractive index ………………….
A) ice, water, kerosene
B) ice, kerosene, water
C) water, ice, kerosene
D) water, kerosene, ice
Answer:
A) ice, water, kerosene

Question 69.
If n₁ and n₂ be the refractive Indices of denser ancfrarer media respectively and 1 c is the critical angle, then ………………..
A) sin c = \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\)
B) sin c = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\)
C) sin c = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{n}_{2} / \mathrm{n}_{1}}\)
D) sin c = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{n}_{1} / \mathrm{n}_{2}}\)
Answer:
B) sin c = \(\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\)

Question 70.
A bunch of optical fibres causes a ……………………..
A) mirage
B) light pipe
C) cable
D) telescope
Answer:
B) light pipe

Question 71.
Refractive index of medium is directly proportional to ………………..
A) mass density of the medium
B) optical density of the medium
C) frequency of the light ray
D) all the above
Answer:
B) optical density of the medium

Question 72.
To see internal organs of the human body optical fibres are used in ……………….
A) physiotherapy
B) radiography
C) endoscopy
D) microscopy
Answer:
C) endoscopy

Question 73.
If critical angle of the medium is 60°, then the velocity of that medium is …………………..m/s
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 10⁸
B) \(\frac{3 \sqrt{3}}{2}\) × 10⁸
C) \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 10⁸
D) 2√3 × 10⁸
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 10⁸

Question 74.
Relation between critical angles of water and glass is ………………..
A) c_w < c_g
B) c_w = c_g
C) c_w > c_g
D) Done
Answer:
C) c_w > c_g

CONCEPT – III : Refraction Through A Glass slab

Question 75.
The light ray that falls perpendicular to one side of the glass slab surface comes out……………………..
A) with deviation
B) without any deviation
C) both A and B
D) can’t say
Answer:
B) without any deviation

Question 76.
When a glass slab is introduced in the path of a light ray the number of times the light ray undergoes refraction are ……………….
A) 2 times
B) 3 times
C) 4 times
D) 1 time
Answer:
A) 2 times

Question 77.
Refractive index of the glass slab =
A) \(\frac{\text { Thickness of the glass slab }}{\text { Vertical shift }}\)
B) \(\frac{\text { Thickness of the glass slab }}{\text { Lateral shift }}\)
C) \(\frac{\text { Thickness of the glass slab }}{\text { Thickness of the glass slab – verticalshift }}\)
D) \(\frac{\text { Thickness of the glass slab }}{\text { Thickness of the slab – lateral shift }}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\text { Thickness of the glass slab }}{\text { Thickness of the glass slab – verticalshift }}\)

Question 78.
The lateral displacement depends on ………………….
A) angle of incidence
B) thickness of the slab
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 79.
The angle between emergent ray and normal is called ………………
A) angle of incidence
B) angle of refraction
C) angle of emergence
D) normal
Answer:
C) angle of emergence

Question 80.
The perpendicular distance between the extended emergent ray and incident ray which are parallel is called
A) lateral shift
B) lateral image
C) object distance
D) none
Answer:
A) lateral shift

Question 81.
The lateral displacement between the incident and the emergent rays ………………… when the angle of incidence increases.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) does not depend on angle of incidence
A) lateral shift
Answer:
A) increases

Question 82.
The lateral displacement between the incident and the emergent rays …………….., when the thickness of the glass slab increases
A) increases
B) decreases.
C) remains-same
D) none
Answer:
A) increases

Question 83.
The angle of deviation produced by the glass slab
A) 0°
B) 20°
C) 90°
D) depends on the angle formed by the light ray and normal to the slab
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 84.
Thickness of a glass slab is 3 cm and its refractive index is 2, then its vertical
shift is…………………
A) 1.5
B) 3.5
C) 2.5
D) 2
Answer:
A) 1.5

Question 85.
Thickness of a glass slab is 3 cm and vertical shift is 1.5, then its refractive index is ……………………..
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1.5
D) 2.5
Answer:
B) 2

Question 86.
The net deviation produced by a rectangular glass slab is …………………..
A) equal to angle of incidence
B) greater than angle of incidence
C) less than angle of incidence
D) zero always
Answer:
D) zero always

Question 87.
Raju is doing an experiment with the glass slab. He focussed the light towards the glass slab at an angle 30°. What would be tire angle of emergence?
A) 30°
B) 0°
C) 90°
D) >30°
Answer:
A) 30°

Question 88.
In the diagram, identify the angles which are correctly marked ?

A) ∠i and ∠r
B) ∠r and ∠e
C) ∠r and ∠e
D) ∠i, ∠r and ∠e
Answer:
A) ∠i and ∠r

Question 89.
Which of the following is correct from Hie above diagram ?
A) ∠i > ∠r
B) ∠r < ∠i
C) ∠i = ∠e
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 90.
If the incident ray falls normally on the surface of a glass slab then trace out the correct diagram ?

Answer:

Question 91
A ray of light falls normally on a glass slab. What is the angle of refraction ?
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 180°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 92.
A ray of light falls normally on a glass slab. What is the angle of emergence ?
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 180°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 93.
A ray of light falls obliquely on a glass slab. What is the angle of emergence ?
A) Greater than incident angle
B) Less than incident angle
C) Equal to incident angle
D) 0°
Answer:
C) Equal to incident angle

Question 94.
When a ray of light travels through glass slab. Which of the following is not true when it is incidentobliquely ?
A) Light ray bends towards the normal when it travels from air to glass.
B) Light ray bends away from the normal when it travels from glass to air
C) Incident ray and emergent ray lie along the same straight line.
D) Incident ray and emergent ray are not along the same straight line.
Answer:
D) Incident ray and emergent ray are not along the same straight line.

Question 95.
Ramu placed a rectangular glass slab over printed letters. The letters appears while ………………. viewing through a glass slab.
A) away from its original position
B) nearer as its original position
C) as its original position
D) both A and B
Answer:
B) nearer as its original position

Question 96.
If the thickness’ of the glass slab increases then the refractive index of the glass slab …………………
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
C) remains same

Question 97.
If the vertical shiff produced by the glass slab increases then the refractive index of the glass slab ………………………
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
C) remains same

Question 98.
When the object is in denser medium’ and the observer is in rarer medium, the object should appear …………………..
A) closer than the original position
B) away from its original position
C) as its original position
D) both A and B
Answer:
A) closer than the original position

Question 99.
Shortest distance between incident and emergent ray is …………… of the glass slab.
A) Vertical shift
B) Lateral shift
C) Parallel shift
D) Real shift’
Answer:
B) Lateral shift