Category: Bit Bank

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Maps on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Maps with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Most of the maps contain an arrow marked with the letter
A) N
B) S
C) E
D) W
Answer:
A) N

Question 2.
If we stand facing east, all the things to our left are towards
A) South
B) North
C) West
D) South East
Answer:
B) North

Question 3.
If we stand facing east, all the things to our right are towards
A) South
B) North
C) West
D) North West
Answer:
A) South

Question 4.
If we stand facing east, all the things behind us are towards.
A) South
B) North
C) West
D) None
Answer:
C) West

Question 5.
The largest continent in the world
A) Africa
B) North America
C) Asia
D) North East
Answer:
C) Asia

Question 6.
Large water bodies are called.
A) Rivers
B) Oceans
C) Lakes
D) Mountains
Answer:
B) Oceans

Question 7.
Maps showing the distribution of population conditions are called
A) Population maps
B) Political maps
C) Physical maps
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Population maps

Question 8.
Usually, maps are prepared in such a manner that North is at the ……….. of the map.
A) top
B) bottom
C) right-hand side
D) left-hand side
Answer:
A) top

Question 9.
This is used to indicate distance on the map.
A) symbol
B) direction
C) scale
D) none
Answer:
C) scale

Question 10.
The scale is the …………… of distance between two points on the map to the actual distance on the ground.
A) ratio
B) axis
C) both (A) and (B)
D) none
Answer:
A) ratio

Study the map to find out how to use the symbols:

Question 1.
The symbol indicates.
A) Railway line
B) National highway
C) Pucca road
D) State highway
Answer:
A) Railway line

Question 2.
The symbol indicates
A) House
B) Temple
C) Trees
D) Church
Answer:
C) Trees

Question 3.
The symbol indicates.
A) Church
B) Masjid
D) Gurudwara
C) Temple
Answer:
B) Masjid

Question 4.
The symbol indicates.
A) Kutcha road
B) National highway
D) Railway line
C) Pucca road
Answer:
A) Kutcha road

Question 5.
The symbol indicates.
A) House
B) Temple
C) Church
D) Masjid
Answer:
A) House

Question 6.
Map that shows cities, states, countries is
A) Political Map
B) Physical Map
C) Thematic Map
D) States Map
Answer:
A) Political Map

Question 7.
Among the following one country does not share a boundary with India.
A) Bhutan
B) Afghanistan
C) Pakistan
D) USA
Answer:
D) USA

Read the figure and answer 8 to 10 questions.

Question 8.
In the above picture well is in which direction?
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
Answer:
B) South

Question 9.
School is situated in which direction?
A) North-West
B) South-East
C) North-East
D) South-West
Answer:
B) South-East

Question 10.
Masjid is located in which direction.
A) North-West
B) South-East
C) North-East
D) South-West
Answer:
D) South-West

Question 11.
In a map blue color is used to indicate
A) Sky
B) Greenary
C) Trees
D) Water
Answer:
D) Water

Question 12.
To show plateaus which color is used in maps?
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C ) Brown
D) Green
Answer:
A) Yellow

Observe the map showing continents and oceans (13-14).

Question 13.
What is the ocean on both sides of the map?
A) the Arctic Ocean
B) Antarctic Ocean
C) the Indian Ocean
D) the Pacific Ocean
Answer:
D) Pacific Oceans

Question 14.
What is the country South to North America?
A) Europe
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) South America
Answer:
D) South America

Question 15.
Which statement is correct?
A: Physical maps show mountains, plateaus, plains, oceans.
B: Political maps show villages, cities, districts, states, and countries.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A and B are correct

Question 16.
A: Thematic map shows the distribution of specific features.
B: Sri Lanka shares land boundaries with India.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
A) A is correct

Question 17.
A: Large-scale maps represent large areas.
B: Small-scale maps represent small areas.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A and B are wrong

Fill in the blanks.

1. Rough drawing is drawn without scale and direction ………………….
Answer:
sketch

2. Colors in the physical map represent differently………………….
Answer:
physical features

3. Blue color in the physical maps represent ………………….
Answer:
water

4. Green color in the physical maps represent ………………….
Answer:
plains or low lands

5. Yellow color in the physical maps represent ………………….
Answer:
plateaus

6. Brown color in the physical maps represent ………………….
Answer:
mountains

7. Cartographers are ………………….
Answer:
map makers

8. Collection of maps is called an ………………….
Answer:
atlas

9. Largest continent in the world is ………………….
Answer:
Asia

10. Land masses on the globe are called ………………….
Answer:
Continents

11. Oceans are ………………….
Answer:
large water bodies

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Globe – Model of the Earth on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson Globe – Model of the Earth with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A globe is the
A) Model of the Mars
B) Model of the Earth
C) Model of the Jupiter
D) Model of the Saturn
Answer:
B) Model of the Earth

Question 2.
A globe shows the
A) The shape of the Earth
B) Water and Masses
C) Oceans
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 3.
The total number of latitudes in both the hemispheres is
A) 90
B) 100
C) 180
D) 360
Answer:
C) 180

Question 4.
The globe and the earth are different in
A) shape
B) size
C) continents and oceans
D) None of these
Answer:
B) size

Question 5.
The longest latitude
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Tropic of Capricorn
C) Equator
D) Arctic circle
Answer:
C) the Equator

Question 6.
The imaginary horizontal lines on the globe are ……………….
A) latitudes
B) longitudes
C) parallels
D) both A & C
Answer:
A) latitudes

Question 7.
The hemisphere that lies between the Equator and the North pole is ……………….
A) Southern hemisphere
B) Northern hemisphere
C) Eastern hemisphere
D) Western Hemisphere
Answer:
B) Northern hemisphere

Question 8.
The hemisphere that lies between the Equator and the South pole is ……………….
A) Southern hemisphere
B) Northern hemisphere
G) Eastern hemisphere
D) Western Hemisphere
Answer:
A) Southern hemisphere

Question 9.
India is located in ……………….
A) Northern hemisphere
B) Eastern hemisphere
C) Southern hemisphere
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 10.
An imaginary line that connects the North and South poles on the earth is called
A) Latitude
B) Longitude
C) Axis
D) Orbit
Answer:
B) Longitude

Question 11.
The other name of 0° longitude ……………….
A) Greenwich longitude
B) The longest longitude
C) 180° western longitude
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Greenwich longitude

Question 12.
The value of the Prime meridian is
A) 90°
B) 0°
C) 60°
D) 180°
Answer:
B) 0°

Question 13.
The Antarctic Circle is located in
A) 6654° N
B) 2354° S
C) 2354° N
D) 6654° S
Answer:
D) 6654° S

Question 14.
The Antarctic Circle is located in
A) the Northern hemisphere
B) the Southern Hemisphere
C) the Eastern Hemisphere
D) the Western Hemisphere
Answer:
B) the Southern Hemisphere

Question 15.
The Tropic of Cancer is located at
A) 2354° N
B) 6654°N
C) 2354° S
D) 6654° S
Answer:
A) 2354° N

Question 16.
The Earth moves at a speed of
A) 1610 KMPH
B) 1160 KMPH
C) 1810 KMPH
D) 1060 KMPH
Answer:
A) 1610 KMPH

Question 17.
The Earth moves on its own axis from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North to East
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 18.
A: The globe moves around the axis from East to West.
B: The imaginary line which runs horizontally on the globe divides it into two equal halves.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) B is correct

Question 19.
A: the Equator is 0° latitude.
B: India is located in the Southern hemisphere.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
A) A is correct

Question 20.
A: Latitudes are parallel to each other.
B: Latitudes are equal in length.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
A) A is correct

Question 21.
A: Longitudes run parallel to the equator.
B: Longitudes never meet.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A and B are wrong

Question 22.
A: Planets rotate themselves while revolving around the Sun.
B: Earth’s movement from West to East is called rotation.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A and B are correct

Question 23.
Arrange the latitudes from South to North.
Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle, Equator
A) Arctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Antarctic Circle
B) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle
C) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Antarctic Circle
D) Antarctic Circle, Arctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
B) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle

Question 24.
Match the following.,
1) Longitudes                                                   a) Prime Meridian
2) 0° Latitude                                                   b) Tropic of Cancer
3) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude   c) Antarctic Circle
4) 0° longitude                                                 d) Meridians
5) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude   e) Equator
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – c
C) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
Answer:
C) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 25.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Solar eclipse – when Earth comes in between the Sun and Moon
2) Lunar Eclipse – when Earth comes in between the Sun and the moon
3) Earth’s Rotation – Earth’s movement around itself
4) Earth’s revolution – Earth’s movement around the Sun
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 26.
Sun’s rays fall directly on the Earth on
A) 21st June and 22nd December
B) 21st March and 22nd December
C) 21st March and 23rd September
D) 21st June and 23rd September
Answer:
C) 21st March and 23rd September

Question 27.
Christmas is celebrated in summer in Australia due to
A) Earth’s rotation
B) Earth’s revolution
C) Moon’s rotation
D) Moon’s revolution
Answer:
B) Earth’s revolution

Question 28.
Match the following.
1) Earth’s rotation                       a) 0° longitude
2) Earth’s revolution                   b) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude
3) International date line            c) Day and night
4) Tropic of Cancer                     d) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude
5) Tropic of Capricorn                e) Seasons
6) Greenwich line                       f) 180° East and west longitude
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b, 6 – f
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – f, 5 – e, 6 – d
C) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – f, 4 – b, 5 – d, 6 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – f, 5 – c, 6 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – f, 4 – b, 5 – d, 6 – a

Question 29.
India is located in
A) Northern Hemisphere
B) Southern Hemisphere
C) Both Southern and Western Hemisphere
D) Both Northern and Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
D) Both Northern and Eastern Hemisphere

Question 30.
A: Europe and the Arctic Ocean are in Northern Hemisphere.
B: Australia and the Southern Ocean are in Southern Hemisphere.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A and B are correct

Fill in the blanks.

1. The ocean on both sides of a world map ……………….
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

2. The word Globe came from …………….. language.
Answer:
Latin

3. The Globe is a true model of the …………….
Answer:
Earth

4. The needle fixed through the globe is called ……………….
Answer:
Axis

5. The oldest terrestrial globe was made in ………………..
Answer:
1492

6. The world’s first seamless celestial globe was built by Mughal scientists under the patronage during ……………… empire.
Answer:
Mughal

7. The horizontal imaginary line that divides the globe into two equal halves is ………………
Answer:
the Equator

8. The halve that lies north of the Equator is known as ……………….
Answer:
Northern Hemisphere

9. The halve that lies south of the Equator is known as ……………….
Answer:
Southern Hemisphere

10. The horizontal lines drawn parallel to the Equator are ……………….
Answer:
latitudes

11. The 90° latitude that lies to the north Of the Equator ……………….
Answer:
North Pole

12. The 90° latitude that lies to the south of the Equator ……………….
Answer:
South Pole

13. The Tropic of Capricorn is located at ……………….
Answer:
231/2° S

14. The imaginary lines drawn perpendicular to the latitudes are ……………….
Answer:
longitudes

15. The 0° Meridian is also known as ……………….
Answer:
Prime Meridian/Greenwich

16. The line opposite Greenwich is called ……………….
Answer:
International Date Line

17. The hemisphere that lies East to the Greenwich ……………….
Answer:
Eastern Hemisphere

18. The hemisphere that lies West to the Greenwich ……………….
Answer:
Western Hemisphere

19. The distance between the longitudes decreases towards ……………….
Answer:
Prime Meridian

20. The Arctic Circle is located in the ………………. hemisphere.
Answer:
Northern

21. To locate a point, we need to know its latitude, as well as ……………….
Answer:
longitude

22. Day and night are caused due to the Earth’s ……………….
Answer:
rotation

23. When half portion of the Earth receives Sun’s rays, the remaining half remains in, ……………….
Answer:
Dark

24. A leap year has ……………….
Answer:
366 Days

25. Seasons are caused due to the Earth’s ……………….
Answer:
revolution

26. When Sun, Moon and the Earth comes into a straight line ……………….
Answer:
Solar eclipse

Match the following:

Column A                                                                Column B
1) Globe                            ( )                A) Sun, Earth, Moon comes into one line
2) Seasons                         ( )                B) Sun, Moon, Earth comes into one line
3) Day and night               ( )                C) 90° Northernmost part of the earth
4) Solar eclipse                  ( )                D) Model of the earth
5) Lunar eclipse                 ( )                E) 66VS° North latitude
6) Arctic circle                   ( )                F) 90° Southernmost part of the earth
7) South Pole                    ( )                G) Rotation of the earth
–                                                           H) 6614° North latitude
–                                                           I) Revolution of Earth
Answer:
1 – D
2 – I
3 – G
4 – B
5 – A
6 – E
7 – F

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Nutrition on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 1st Lesson Nutrition with Answers

Concept – 1 : Introduction – Autotrophic Nutrition

Question 1.
Fill the equation correctly.

A) CO₂,C₂H₅OH,6O₂
B) 6 CO₂,12 H₂O, C₆ H₁₂ 0₆
C) 6 CO₂, C₆ H₁₂O₆ , O₂
D) 6 CO₂, C₆ H₁₂O₆,6 O₂
Answer:
D) 6 CO₂, C₆ H₁₂O₆,6 O₂

Question 2.
Van Neil worked on …………………..
A) Purple sulphur bacteria
B) Hydrilla
C) Chloroplast
D) Paramoecium
Answer:
A) Purple sulphur bacteria

Question 3.
Famous photosynthesis equation was proposed by which scientist ?
A) Arnon
B) Hill
C) C . B . Van Neil
D) Jackson
Answer:
C) C . B . Van Neil

Question 4.
In autotrophs the energy is stored as ………………….
A) Fats
B) Proteins
C) Glycogen
D) Carbohydrates
Answer:
D) Carbohydrates

Question 5.
Who opined when each molecule of carbohydrate is formed, one molecule of water and one molecule of oxygen are also produced during photosynthesis?
A) C.B. Van Neil
B) Von Sachs
C) Caventou
D) Pelletier
Answer:
A) C.B. Van Neil

Question 6.
Instead of H₂O purple sulphur bacteria use …………….. as a starting material.
A) H₂S
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine gas
D) CO₂
Answer:
A) H₂S

Question 7.
‘X’ is photosynthetic bacteria which uses hydrogen sulphide instead of water. Which element is released during the photosynthesis of this bacteria ?
A) O₂
B) Sulphur
C) H₂
D) All of the above
Answer:
B) Sulphur

Question 8.
Which part of the plant takes in carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis?
A) Root hair
B) Stomata
C) Leaf veins
D) Sepals
Answer:
B) Stomata

Question 9.
One of the following is not useful for the autotrophs during synthesis of chemical substances by utilising light energy.
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Stomata
D) Water
Answer:
A) Oxygen

Question 10.
From which of the following, the oxygen is released in plants during photosynthesis?
A) Glucose
B) Water
C) CO₂
D) Chlorophyll
Answer:
B) Water

Question 11.
One of the following did not reveal that growth of plant is influenced by photosynthesis?
A) Van Helmont
B) Ingenhousz
C) Engleman
D) Mohl
Answer:
A) Van Helmont

Question 12.
Which of the following does not occur in photosynthesis ?
A) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
B) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
C) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
D) Chlorophyll absorbs photons
Answer:
C) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide

Question 13.
Find the missing product in the equation.

A) CO₂
B) H₂O
C) C₆H₁₂O₆
D) 6 SO₂
Answer:
B) H₂O

Question 14.
Reason for calling Hill reaction as light reaction
A) Break down of water molecule by light
B) Break down of chlorophyll atom by light
C) Conversion of Hydrogen ions of water tp Hydroxyl ions
D) Water is formed by combination of Hydrogen and Hydroxyl ions
Answer:
A) Break down of water molecule by light

Question 15.
Autotrophic organisms:
A) depend on other organisms for food
B) hunt for the food
C) synthesize their own food
D) cannot synthesize their food
Answer:
C) synthesize their own food

Question 16.
Find out the false statement from the following:
A) Energy is required for metabolic activities
B) Organisms grow along with time
C) Transportation of molecules do not occur in cells
D) Organisms construct their body on their own
Answer:
C) Transportation of molecules do not occur in cells

Question 17.
The proper order of conducting experiment to test the starch in leaves.
1) Selection of a potted plant.
2) Pouring iodine drops on the leaf that is kept in petri dish.
3) Taking methylated spirit into the test tube.
4) Heating the leaf in test tube for removal of chlorophyll.
A) 4, 3, 1, 2
B) 4, 1, 3, 2
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer:
D) 1, 3, 4, 2

Question 18.
………… detected the point of maximum rate of photosynthesis.
A) Engelman
B) Eastman
C) Arnon
D) Neils Bohr
Answer:
A) Engelman

Question 19.
We use ganji (boiled rice water) for conducting action of ……………….. in the digestive system.
A) pepsin
B) mucin
C) saliva
D) lipase
Answer:
C) saliva

Question 20.
To test for the presence of carbohydrates in whedt flour the following are mixed.
A) First saliva next iodine
B) First saliva next xyline
C) First iodine next saliva
D) First xyline next iodine
Answer:
C) First iodine next saliva

Question 21
No oxygen is liberated in purple sulphur bacteria during photosynthesis. This is
because they use:
A) H₂O as starting material
B) H₂S as starting material
C) CO₂ as starting material
D) Photosynthesis is a chemical process
Answer:
B) H₂S as starting material

Question 22.
The following picture depicts

A) Starch test
B) Protein test
C) Test for fats
D) Test for oils
Answer:
A) Starch test

Concept – 2 : Factors Essential for photosynthesis

Question 23.
Why we use KOH in a bottle in the experiment to iknow CO₂ is necessary for photosynthesis?
A) To absorb chlorophyll in leaves
B) To absorb air in bottle
C) To absorb C0₂ in bottle
D) To absorb water vapour in the bottle
Answer:
C) To absorb CO₂ in bottle

Question 24.
a : Chloroplasts convert simple inorganic substances into complex organic compounds.
b : Light energy is required for synthesis of carbohydrates.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is correct, b is wrong
C) b is correct, a is wrong
D) Both a and b are wrong
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 25.
In Mohl’s half-leaf, experiment, which part becomes bluish black for starch test?
A) Total leaf
B) Leaf part in the bottle
C) Leaf part outside the bottle
D) Venation of the leaf
Answer:
C) Leaf part outside the bottle

Question 26.
The solution, which is useful to decolorise a leaf.
A) Water
B) Iodine
C) KOH solution
D) Alcohol
Answer:
D) Alcohol

Question 27.
A plant is kept in dark cupboard for about forty eight hours before conducting any experiment on photosynthesis in order to :
A) remove chlorophyll from leaves
B) remove starch from leaves
C) ensure that no photosynthesis occurred
D) ensure that leaves are free from the starch.
Answer:
B) remove starch from leaves

Question 28.
What chemical is used to know the presence of starch in leaves?
A) Methylated spirit
B) Iodine
C) Methylated spirit, Iodine
D) Methylene blue
Answer:
B) Iodine

Question 29.
Mohl’s half leaf experiment shows ………………. is essential for photosynthesis.
A) O₂
B) CO₂
C) N₂
D) Mg
Answer:
B) CO₂

Question 30.
To test the importance of CO₂ Mohl used……………… solution.
A) O₂
B)COOH
C) K₂SO₄
D) KOH
Answer:
D) KOH

Question 31.
In Mohl’s half leaf experiment, the part of the leaf inside the flask does not become blue- black after adding iodine drops. It is because :
A) starch formation does not take place in that part
B) CO₂ is absent inside the flask
C) light entering into the flask has more intensity
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 32.
Given leaf is tested through Mohl’s experiment. The dark coloured part shows the presence of ……………….
A) CO₂
B) KOH
C) Starch
D) Sugar
Answer:
C) Starch

Question 33.
Sneha wants to know one of the factors of photosynthesis. She arranged total apparatus as shown in figure to conduct the experiment. This shows ………………….

A) Light is essential for photosynthesis.
B) CO₂ is essential for photosynthesis.
C) O₂ is released during photosynthesis.
D) Chloroplasts are essential for photosynthesis.
Answer:
B) CO₂ is essential for photosynthesis.

Concept – 3 : Light and Photosynthesis

Question 34.
The scientist who discovered that photosynthesis occurs only in the green parts of the plants
A) Engelman
B) Ingenhousz
C) Robert Hill
D) Kelvin
Answer:
B) Ingenhousz

Question 35.
The extract obtained by Pelletier and Caventou is ……………………
A) Colour pigments
B) Chlorophyll
C) Xanthophyll
D) Keratine
Answer:
B) Chlorophyll

Question 36.
Energy change takes place in photosynthesis …………………
A) Conversion of light energy to heat energy
B) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
C) Conversion of light energy to electrical energy
D) Conversion of heat energy to chemical energy
Answer:
B) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy

Question 37.
The gas released by hydrilla twigs is …………………. . It burns the incense sticks with
glowing flames.
A) O₂
B) CO₂
C) CO
D) O₃
Answer:
A) O₂

Question 38.
Identify the right sequence of events of Hydrilla experiment.
1) Invert the funnel in the beaker of water.
2) Insert Hydrilla plant twigs in the funnel.
3) Insert the test tube filled with water over the funnel.
4) Fill water in the beaker.
A) 4, 2, 1, 3
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 1, 4, 3
D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Answer:
C) 2, 1, 4, 3

Question 39.
The figure below represents an experimental set up to study a physiological process in plants. Which of the following is being studied ?

A) Excretion
B) Respiration
C) Photosynthesis
D) Transportation
Answer:
C) Photosynthesis

Question 40.
The picture of leaf shows ………………. experiment of photosynthesis.
A) Mohl’s
B) Light screen
C) KOH
D) Hydrilla plant
Answer:
B) Light screen

Question 41.
Observe the picture. If iodine is used on the leaf ………………….

A) formation of deep blue colour at the non-light falling region.
B) formation of deep blue colour at the light falling region.
C) formation of deep blue colour on both light falling and non-light falling regions.
D) no colour formation on both regions.
Answer:
B) formation of deep blue colour at the light falling region.

Question 42.
The covered portion did not change into blue because ………………..
A) it does not receive CO₂
B) it does not receive water
C) it does not receive light
D) it does not have chlorophyll
Answer:
C) it does not receive light

Question 43.
The figure given here is for performing an experiment on photosynthesis. What do you conclude from this experiment?

A) It proves that chloroplast is necessary for the manufacture of starch.
B) It proves that water is .necessary for the manufacture of starch.
C) It proves that carbon dioxide is necessary for the manufacture of starch
D) It proves that light is necessary for the manufacture of starch.
Answer:
D) It proves that light is necessary for the manufacture of starch.

Concept – 4 : Chlorophyll and Photosynthesis

Question 44.
Element present in Chlorophyll:
A) Magnesium
B) Ferrous
C) Manganese
D) Calcium
Answer:
A) Magnesium

Question 45.
The scientists who discovered chlorophyll are…………………
A) Joseph Priestley and Gregor Mendel
B) Lavoisier and Pelln
C) C .B . Van Neil and Julius Von Sachs
D) Pelletier and Caventou
Answer:
D) Pelletier and Caventou

Question 46.
Which of the following materials is /are synthesized by plants ?
A) Starch
B) Cellulose
C) Lipid
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 47.
The scientist who observed that chlorophyll in plants is not spread throughout the entire cell ………………
A) Van Neil
B) Van Dammy
C) Von Sachs
D) Von Rose
Answer:
C) Von Sachs

Question 48.
Number of chloroplasts in ground tissue of cell are……………………
A) 30 – 190
B) 40 – 100
C) 20 – 30
D) 40 – 720
Answer:
B) 40 – 100

Question 49.
Need of green chlorophyll pigmented molecules in leaves is
A) break down of water molecule into Hydrogen and Oxygen
B) to release green light
C) to trap solar energy
D) to trap electric energy
Answer:
C) to trap solar energy

Question 50.
The closing and opening of stomata depends on ………………
A) Oxygen
B) Water in guard cells
C) Temperature
D) Concentration of CO₂
Answer:
B) Water in guard cells

Question 51.
Photosynthesis takes place in chlorophylls and produce glucose and carbohydrates.
What will happen if chlorophyll is absent ?
A) Production of Carbohydrates
B) Plant dies
C) Plant grows more
D) All
Answer:
B) Plant dies

Question 52.
These are the end products, of photosynthesis:
A) carbon dioxide, water, sucrose
B) glucose, water and oxygen
C) glucose, carbon dioxide, air
D) sucrose, water and oxygen
Answer:
B) glucose, water and oxygen

Question 53.
Light reactions are different from dark reactions in such a way that :
A) they are light independent
B) they occur in stroma of chloroplast
C) they occur in grana of chloroplast
D) they do not facilitate photolysis event
Answer:
C) they occur in grana of chloroplast

Question 54.
ATP and NADPH are :
A) reactants of light reactions
B) end products of light reactions
C) intermediate products of light reactions
D) precursors for light reactions
Answer:
B) end products of light reactions

Question 55.
In plants, exchange of gases takes place through:
A) Stomata
B) Palisade tissue
C) Spongy tissue
D) Midrib
Answer:
A) Stomata

Question 56.
How many pigment molecules are grouped as light harvesting complex or photosynthetic unit in each granum ?
A) 150 to 200
B) 250 to 300
C) 250 to 400
D) 350 to 500
Answer:
C) 250 to 400

Question 57.
If chloropyll is absent in leaves, plants cannot synthesize ………………..
A) Starch
B) Glucose
C) A & B
D) Cellulose
Answer:
C) A & B

Question 58.
The important factors of photosynthesis are
A) light, CO₂, chlorophyll and temperature
B) light, chlorophyll, water and temperature
C) light, CO₂, water and chlorophyll
D) water, chlorophyll, temperature and CO₂
Answer:
C) light, CO₂, water and chlorophyll

Question 59.
Chloroplasts present in large numbers in the cells (around 40 – 100) of plant tissue like the :
A) stomatal guard cells
B) ground tissue
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 60.
i) Light energy is converted into chemical energy.
ii) Photolysis of water,
iii) Reduction of CO₂ and formation of glucose.
Where do all the above mentioned reactions occur?
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Chloroplast
D) Lysosomes
Answer:
C) Chloroplast

Question 61.
Ram has forgot to label the part P. Identify it from the following.

A) Stomata
B) Chloroplast
C) Mesophyll
D) Starch grain
Answer:
A) Stomata

Question 62.
Below figure is a part of the epidermis of the leaf. What is the name of P ?

A) Cell
B) Spongy cell
C) Xylem cell
D) Guard cell
Answer:
D) Guard cell

Question 63.
This is the picture of chloroplast. Identify the part in which light reaction takes place.

A) Stroma
B) Grana
C) Starch grain
D) Lipid globule
Answer:
B) Grana

Question 64.
Parts 1, 2 and 3 in the below given diagram indicate :

A) 1 – Outer membrane, 2 – Stroma, 3 – Grana
B) 1 – Grana, 2 – Stroma, 3 – Outer membrane
C) 1 – Stroma, 3 – Grana, 2 – Outer membrane
D) 1 – Stroma, 2 – Grana, 3 – Outer membrane
Answer:
A) 1 – Outer membrane, 2 – Stroma, 3 – Grana

Question 65.
1. Chlorophyll is similar to the haemoglobin of blood.
2. Haemoglobin has iron while chlorophyll has magnesium.
A) 1 is correct, 2 is wrong
B) 1 is wrong, 2 is correct
C) 1, 2 both are correct
D) 1, 2 both are wrong
Answer:
C) 1, 2 both are correct

Concept – 5 : Mechanism of Photosynthesis

Question 66.
End products of light dependent reaction is/are
A) C₆H₁₂O₆
B) CO₂
C) O₂, ATP, NADPH
D) H₂O
Answer:
C) O₂, ATP, NADPH

Question 67.
This shows remarkable effect on photosynthesis:
A) Temperature
B) Humidity
C) Intensity of light
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Intensity of light

Question 68.
The end product of dark reaction is ……………………
A) PGA
B) CO₂
C) Ribulose biphosphate
D) C₆H₁₂O₆
Answer:
D) C₆H₁₂O₆

Question 69.
ATP, NADPH₂ are utilized in …………………
A) light reaction
B) excretion
C) dark reaction
D) respiration
Answer:
C) dark reaction

Question 70.
The rate of photosynthesis is NOT affected by this factor
A) Light intensity
B) Humidity
C) Temperature
D) Carbon dioxide concentration
Answer:
B) Humidity

Question 71.
belongs to …………………….
A) Fermentation
B) Dark phase
C) Hill’s reaction
D) Mold’s half leaf experiment
Answer:
C) Hill’s reaction

Question 72.
Which of these are required for autotrophic nutrition ?
A) Water, CO₂
B) Chlorophyll
C) Sunlight
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 73.
This process doesn’t take place, if a plant is kept in dark room.
A) Respiration
B) Reproduction
C) Photosynthesis
D) Water transportation
Answer:
C) Photosynthesis

Question 74.
Site of light reaction
A) Grana of chloroplasts
B) Stroma of chloroplasts
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi complex
Answer:
A) Grana of chloroplasts

Question 75.
How are H⁺ ions obtained in the given reaction ?
NADP + H⁺ → NADPH
A) Through dark reaction
B) Through light reaction
C) Through sunlight
D) Through rain
Answer:
B) Through light reaction

Question 76.
Assimilatory powers of light reaction …………………..
A) ATP, NADPH
B) H₂O,O
C) CO₂, ATP
D) CO₂, NADPH
Answer:
A) ATP, NADPH

Question 77.
Correct order of the products that are synthesised by plants.
A) Glucose, starch, cellulose
B) Glucose, proteins, lipids, starch, cellulose
C) Proteins, lipids, cellulose, starch, glucose
D) Glucose, vitamins, lipids and alkaloids
Answer:
A) Glucose, starch, cellulose

Question 78.
Photosynthesis process determines the production of carbohydrates but not
A) Carbohydrates are intermediate products in photosynthesis
B) Glucose which is formed in photosynthesis immediately converted to carbohydrates
C) Carbohydrates dissolve in water
D) Glucose is not tested.
Answer:
B) Glucose which is formed in photosynthesis immediately converted to carbohydrates

Question 79.
The special intermediate compound of dark reaction:
A) RUBP
B) Glucose
C) Citric acid
D) Starch
Answer:
A) RUBP

Question 80.
What happens, if green plants are not there on earth ?
A) Living organisms will not get O₂
B) Living organisms will not get CO₂
C) Living organisms will not get N₂
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Living organisms will not get O₂

Question 81.
The important factors of photosynthesis are ……………..
A) Light, CO₂, Chlorophyll, Temperature
B) Light, Water, Chlorophyll, Temperature
C) Light, Temperature, Chlorophyll, CO₂
D) Light, Water, Chlorophyll, CO₂
Answer:
D) Light, Water, Chlorophyll, CO₂

Concept – 6 : Heterotrophic Nutrition

Question 82.
Cuscuta plant absorbs food through
A) Haustoria
B) Stem
C) Root
D) Flower
Answer:
A) Haustoria

Question 83.
Example for saprophyte
A) Mushroom
B) Louse
C) Paramoecium
D) Owl
Answer:
A) Mushroom

Question 84.
Example for with highly branched digestive system.
A) Jelly fish
B) Ascaris
C) Fasciola hepatrica
D) Star fish
Answer:
C) Fasciola hepatrica

Question 85.
The Cuscuta belongs to this family.
A) Malvaceae
B) Solanaceae
C) Convolvulaceae
D) Fabaceae
Answer:
C) Convolvulaceae

Question 86.
Amoeba takes the food through……………………
A) Nucleus
B) Pseudopodia
C) Vacuole
D) Cytoplasm
Answer:
B) Pseudopodia

Question 87.
In single celled animals the food is taken by
A) the entire body surface
B) mouth
C) teeth
D) vacuoles
Answer:
A) the entire body surface

Question 88.
Which of the following organisms takes food by parasitic nutrition ?
A) Yeast
B) Mushroom
C) Cuscuta
D) Amoeba
Answer:
C) Cuscuta

Question 89.
The site of ingestion of food in paramoecium
A) Pseudopodia
B) Flagella
C) Cytostome
D) Nucleus
Answer:
C) Cytostome

Question 90.
The mode of food intake in Amoeba is …………………
A) Dialysis
B) Cytokinesis
C) Phagocytosis
D) Amoebiosis
Answer:
C) Phagocytosis

Question 91.
Pick up the correct option for “Dodder.”
1) Genus Cuscuta
2) It is leafless
3) Twining plant
4) Microscopic
5) Parasitic in nature
6) Family is Convolvulaceae
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Answer:
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6

Question 92.
Example for parasite :
A) Cuscuta
B) Lice
C) Leech
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 93.
Example for parastic plant
A) Cuscuta
B) Hibiscus
C) Bitter gourd
D) Jasmine
Answer:
A) Cuscuta

Question 94.
Water is drawn through the haustoria from the host plant’s
A) xylem
B) leaves
C) phloem
D) nodules
Answer:
A) xylem

Question 95.
The dodder contains ……………….. amount of chlorophyll.
A) less
B) more
C) moderate
D) zero
Answer:
A) less

Question 96.
Food movement in paramoecium is facilitated by
A) cilia
B) cytostome
C) flagella
D) pseudopodia
Answer:
A) cilia

Question 97.
In which colour do you find the slender, string like stems of the Dodder?
A) Yellow
B) Orange
C) Pink
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 98.
Animals cannot synthesize the following.
(i) Carbohydrates
(ii) Cellulose
(iii) Lipid
(iv) Protein
A) i only
B) i, ii only
C) iii only
D) iii, iv only
Answer:
B) i, ii only

Question 99.
When ‘Dodder’ plant is fully grown it obtains food through part (ii) only after development of part (i). What are (i) and (ii)?
A) (i) leaves (ii) haustoria
B) (i) haustoria (ii) anchoring roots
C) (i) anchoring roots (ii) haustoria
D) (i) leaves (ii) anchoring roots Observe the diagram
Answer:
C) (i) anchoring roots (ii) haustoria

Question 100.
Observe the diagram …………………… is occurring in ampeba.
A) Nutrition
B) Elimination
C) Excretion
D) A or B
Answer:
A) Nutrition

Question 101.
The dodder seed germinates forming
A) anchoring root
B) slender stem
C) haustoria
D) hanging leaves
Answer:
A) anchoring root

Question 102.
Root like structures in cuscuta that penetrate the tissue of a host plant to absorb food is ………………
A) Dodder
B) Haustoria
C) Legume roots
D) Aerial roots
Answer:
B) Haustoria

Concept – 7 : Nutrition in Human Beings

Question 103.
The digestive juice without enzyme is
A) Gastric juice
B) Pancreatic juice
C) Intestinal juice
D) Bile juice
Answer:
D) Bile juice

Question 104.
Emulsification of the fats in human body occurs in …………………
A) small intestine
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) stomach
Answer:
B) liver

Question 105.
Enzyme that helps in fat metabolism
A) Trypsin
B) Lipase
C) Ptyaline
D) Pepsin
Answer:
B) Lipase

Question 106.
Identify the correct order of digestion process.
A) Digestion → ingestion → absorption → defecation
B) Ingestion → absorption → digestion → defecation
C) Ingestion → digestion → absorption → defecation
D) Ingestion → defecation → digestion → absorption
Answer:
C) Ingestion → digestion → absorption → defecation

Question 107.
The surface area in the small intestine is increased due to ………………
A) Villi
B) Mucous glands
C) Cilia
D) Cristae
Answer:
A) Villi

Question 108.
In man, where does the digestive process end ?
A) Oesophagus
B) Small intestine
C) Stomach
D) Large intestine
Answer:
D) Large intestine

Question 109.
The part in which the digestive process starts in man ……………………
A) Stomach
B) Oesophagus
C) Mouth
D) Small intestine
Answer:
C) Mouth

Question 110.
In alimentary canal, where do the proteins get digested at first ?
A) Small intestine
B) Oesophagus
C) Mouth
D) Stomach
Answer:
D) Stomach

Question 111.
Which of the following helps in protecting the walls of stomach from Hydrochloric acid ?
A) Pepsin
B) Mucus
C) Saliva
D) Bile Juice
Answer:
B) Mucus

Question 112.
The part of food pipe which collects bile juice from liver is …………………..
A) Oesophagus
B) Small intestine
C) Duodenum
D) Large intestine
Answer:
C) Duodenum

Question 113.
The following processes do not occur due to the lack of secretion of bile juice.
i) Splitting of proteins
ii) Formation of glucose
iil) Emulsification of fats
iv) Formation of glycerine
A) i, ii
B) ii only
C) ii, iii, iv
D) iii only
Answer:
D) iii only

Question 114.
Find out the ascending order for digestion of food in the alimentary canal.
i) Mastication
ii) Contraction of muscles
iii) Peristaltic movements
iv) Emulsification of fats
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) i, iii, ii, iv
C) i, iv, iii, ii
D) iv, iii, ii, i
Answer:
A) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 115.
Emulsification in digestive system is due to the presence of
A) Saliva
B) Gastric juice
C) Pepsin
D) Bile juice
Answer:
D) Bile juice

Question 116.
The length of small intestine in human being is ………………
A) 4.5 m
B) 1.5 m
C) 3.5 m
D) 6.5 m
Answer:
D) 6.5 m

Question 117.
Which of the following can be digested by the enzymes present in pancreatic juice?
A) Proteins and carbohydrates only
B) Proteins and fats only
C) Fats and carbohydrates only
D) Proteins, fats and carbohydrates
Answer:
D) Proteins, fats and carbohydrates

Question 118.
The enzyme which mixes up with food in alimentary canal at first is ………………..
A) Pepsin
B) Trypsin
C) Salivary Amylase
D) Glycogen
Answer:
C) Salivary Amylase

Question 119.
Acid present in Gastric juice
A) Sulphuric Acid
B) Hydrochloric Acid
C) Nitric acid
D) Phosphoric acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric Acid

Question 120.
The process of convertingfats into small globule like forms by the bile juice secreted from liver is :
A) mastication
B) emulsification
C) desertification
D) lipogenesis
Answer:
B) emulsification

Question 121.
Which of the following enzymes is secreted into stomach ?
A) Sucrase
B) Lipase
C) Trypsin
D) Pepsin
Answer:
D) Pepsin

Question 122.
The function of sphincter is to :
A) prevent materials from moving backward
B) allow materials to move from one segment to another
C) regulate the opening of the passage
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 123.
Digestion of carbohydrates does not takes place in stomach. This is due to:
A) their hardness
B) the absence of enzymes that act on them
C) presence of more acids
D) the inactivation of pepsin
Answer:
B) the absence of enzymes that act on them

Question 124.
Complete digestion of food molecules occurs in :
A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) buccal cavity
Answer:
B) small intestine

Question 125.
The first enzyme that mixes with food in the digestive system is :
A) Pepsin
B) Ptyalin
C) Lipase
D) Trypsin
Answer:
B) Ptyalin

Question 126.
Food in the form of a soft slimy substance where some proteins and carbohydrates have already been broken down is called :
A) chyme
B) bile
C) succus entericus
D) bolus
Answer:
A) chyme

Question 127.
Ramu is suffering from vomitings and nausea. What happened to him ?
A) Suffering from indigestion
B) Liver loses capacity of digestion due to excess intake of fats
C) Liver becomes weak due to less fats
D) Ramu consumes raw leafy secretions
Answer:
B) Liver loses capacity of digestion due to excess intake of fats

Question 128.
If salivary amylase is absent, which of the following process gets affected badly?
A) Conversion of proteins to amino acids.
B) Conversion of carbohydrates to glucose.
C) Conversion of fats to fatty acids.
D) Formation of ulcers.
Answer:
B) Conversion of carbohydrates to glucose.

Question 129.
a : Bile juice doesn’t have enzymes.
b : Emulsification of fats is done by bile juice.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a true, b false
C) b true, a false
D) a, b both are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 130.
If this is absent in saliva, swallowing food Will be difficult
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Protein
D) Mucin
Answer:
D) Mucin

Question 131.
Find out wrong pair.
A) Saliva – Ptyalin
B) Pancreatic juice – Amylase
C) Gastric juice – Lipase
D) Intestinal juice – Peptidase
Answer:
C) Gastric juice – Lipase

Question 132.
Excessive intake of fats causes
A) Nausea
B) Vomiting
C) Digestion
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 133.
Find out wrong pair.
A) Saliva – Ptyalin
B) Pancreatic juice – Amylase
C) Gastric juice – Lipase
D) Intestinal juice – Peptidase
Answer:
C) Gastric juice – Lipase

Question 134.
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding bile ?
A) It is secreted by bile duct and stored in liver.
B) It is secreted by gall bladder and stored in liver.
C) It is secreted by liver and stored in bile duct.
D) It is secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder.
Answer:
D) It is secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder.

Question 135.
These people suffer from intestinal ulcers.
(i) Restless employees
(ii) Political leaders
(iii) Overtime TV viewers
(iv) Time to time meals consumers
A) i only
B) iii only
C) i, ii
D) iii, iv
Answer:
A) i only

Question 136.
Reasons for formation of ulcers in stomach
A) Improper food intake
B) Stress and strain
C) Bacteria
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 137.
One of the following is not a good habit related to digestion
A) Having balanced meals
B) Taking more junk foods
C) Thoroughly masticating the food
D) Drinking more water
Answer:
B) Taking more junk foods

Question 138.
These play a key role in nutrition
A) Assimilation
B) Expulsion of wastes
C) Regular exercises
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 139.
Thoroughly masticating food enables easy ………………
A) constipation
B) digestion
C) circulation
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 140.
Pepsin : Proteins :: Lipase :………………
A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Vitamins
D) Sucrose
Answer:
B) Fats

Concept – 8 : Diseases due to Malnutrition

Question 141.
Very poor muscle development, swollen legs, fluffy face, diarrhoea and dry skin are the symptoms of this disease
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Marasmus
C) Obesity
D) Pellagra
Answer:
A) Kwashiorkor

Question 142.
Protein deficiency among children causes
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Obesity
C) Marasmus
D) Edema
Answer:
A) Kwashiorkor

Question 143.
Reasons for Marasmus
A) Protein deficiency
B) Protein, Calorie deficiency
C) Calorie deficiency
D) Excessive calories
Answer:
B) Protein, Calorie deficiency

Question 144.
Obesity occurs due to one of the following.
A) Ghrelin
B) Leptin
C) junk foods
D) Nutrigyne
Answer:
C) junk foods

Question 145.
Deficiency of both proteins and calories in children causes:
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Obesity
C) Marasmus
D) Goitre
Answer:
C) Marasmus

Question 146.
If we consume more junk foods we may suffer from ………………….
A) Obesity
B) Kwashiorkor
C) Marasmus
D) Jaundice
Answer:
A) Obesity

Question 147.
Observe the below statements.
(i) Protein deficiehcy in diet leads to Kwashiorkor disease.
(ii) Deficiency of only calories leads to Marasmus disease.
A) (i) and (ii) are true
B) (i) true but (ii) false
C) (i) false but (ii) true
D) (i) and (ii) both false
Answer:
B) (i) true but (ii) false

Question 148.
Balu is unable to walk during nights in darkness. His skin is also becoming scaly. What will be the cause for his above problems?
A) Deficiency of Vitamin – A
B) Protein diet deficiency
C) Deficiency of Vitamin – D
D) Deficiency of calories
Answer:
A) Deficiency of Vitamin – A

Question 149.
Over intake of cholesterol containing food causes ……………… that is seen in many people throughout the world.
A) Obesity
B) Asthma
C) Bronchitis
D) Marasmus
Answer:
A) Obesity

Question 150.
Slum areas are the places in which generally we see the children suffering from malnutritious diseases such as …………………
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Marasmus
C) Obesity
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 151.
I am a disease. I come to the people who have the habit of overeating and excess of energy intake. Who am I ?
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Marasmus
C) Obesity
D) Pellagra
Answer:
C) Obesity

Question 152.
The reasons for malnutrition in our country are:
A) Poor health, will – full starvation
B) Lack of awareness of nutritional habits
C) Socio economic factors
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 153.
Which of the following is not a characteristic symptom of Marasmus ?
A) Accumulation of water in the intercellular spaces
B) Less developed muscles
C) Dry skin
D) Diarrhoea
Answer:
A) Accumulation of water in the intercellular spaces

Question 154.
Obese children may face which of the following health problems in future?
A) Diabetes
B) Heart problems
C) Digestive problems
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 155.
Generally this disease occurs when there is immediate second pregnancy or repeated child births
A) Marasmus
B) Kwashiorkor
C) Obesity
D) Anaemia
Answer:
A) Marasmus

Question 156.
Rich fibrous containing food may reduce the impact of ……………… , one of the health hazards.
A) Obesity
B) Kwashiorkor
C) Marasmus
D) Haemophilia
Answer:
A) Obesity

Question 157.
Nitya likes to eat sour tasty fruits. Then the vitamin she obtains is
A) Pantothenic acid
B) Ascorbic acid
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Pyridoxin
Answer:
B) Ascorbic acid

Concept – 9 : Nutrition-Vitamins

Question 158.
This vitamin is not available in any kind of food material, only digestive tract fauna can synthesize it
A) B₆
B) B₂
C) Vit – D
D) B₁₂
Answer:
D) B₁₂

Question 159.
Deficiency of this vitamin leads to Rickets
A) Tocoferol
B) Calciferol
C) Retinol
D) Riboflavin
Answer:
B) Calciferol

Question 160.
Scurvy: Ascorbic acid :: Pellagra: ……………….
A) Niacin
B) Biotin
C) Retinol
D) Folic acid
Answer:
B) Biotin

Question 161.
B₆ vitamin is also called ……………….
A) Pyridoxin
B) Niacin
C) Folic acid y
D) Pantothenic acid
Answer:
A) Pyridoxin

Question 162.
This vitamin is NOT soluble in the water.
A) Riboflavin
B) Pyridoxine
C) Ascorbic acid
D) Calciferol
Answer:
D) Calciferol

Question 163.
This vitamin is synthesized by bacteria present in the intestine .
A) Cyanocobahriine
B) Niacin
C) Folic acid
D) Biotin
Answer:
A) Cyanocobahriine

Question 164.
What symptoms do you observe in the disease caused due to the deficiency of vitamin-A ?
A) No vision in dim light
B) Lack of appetite
C) Can’t see bright light
D) Loose motions
Answer:
A) No vision in dim light

Question 165.
One of the following is not a vitamin deficiency disease.
A) Beri Beri
B) Diabetes
C) Anaemia
D) Rickets
Answer:
B) Diabetes

Question 166.
Identify the correct pair.
A) Thiamine – Anemia
B) Niacin – Glossitis
C) Folic acid – Pellagra
D) Calciferol – Rickets
Answer:
D) Calciferol – Rickets

Question 167.
Identify the correct one.
Cyanocobalamine : B₁₂ :: Niacin : ………………….
A) B₆
B) B₃
C) B₂
D) B₁
Answer:
B) B₃

Question 168.
Deficiency of folk acid causes
A) Anaemia
B) Pellagra
C) Glossitis
D) Rickets
Answer:
A) Anaemia

Question 169.
Beri-Beri is caused due to the deficiency of …………………
A) Riboflavin
B) Niacin
C) Thiamin
D) Folic acid
Answer:
C) Thiamin

Question 170.
Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
A) Pyridoxine
B) Cyanocobalamin
C) Biotin
D) Niacin
Answer:
D) Niacin

Question 171.
One of the following is not a water soluble vitamin
A) Phylloquinone
B) Ascorbic acid
C) Folic acid
D) Pyridoxine
Answer:
A) Phylloquinone

Question 172.
One of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin
A) Phylloquinone
B) Calciferol
C) Biotin
D) Retinol
Answer:
B) Calciferol

Question 173.
Loss of leucocytes is due to the deficiency of ………………….
A) Cyanocobalamin
B) Folic acid
C) Biotin
D) Retinol
Answer:
B) Folic acid

Question 174.
The vitamin that is synthesized by bacteria
A) Biotin
B) Phylloquinone
C) Cyanocobalamin
D) Tocoferol
Answer:
C) Cyanocobalamin

Question 175.
Fatigue, muscle pains etc., are due to the deficiency of
A) Biotin
B) Folic acid
C) Niacin
D) Tocoferol
Answer:
A) Biotin

Question 176.
The vitamin obtained from guava, amla, citrus etc.
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Aspartic acid
C) Abscisic acid
D) Oxalic acid
Answer:
A) Ascorbic acid

Question 177.
The vitamin present in carrot
A) Vitamin – B₆
B) Vitamin – A
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
B) Vitamin – A

Question 178.
Night blindness, cataract, cornea failure etc disorders are caused due to the deficiency of
A) Vitamin – C
B) Vitamin – B₁₂
C) Vitamin – A
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – A

Question 179.
The vitamin that is obtained from cod liver oil
A) Vitamins – C & E
B) Vitamins – A & D
C) Vitamins – E & K
D) Vitamins – D & B
Answer:
B) Vitamins – A & D

Question 180.
Anti sterility vitamin
A) Vitamin – E
B) Vitamin – B₆
C) Vitamin – K
D) Vitamin – C
Answer:
A) Vitamin – E

Question 181.
Loss of coagulation of Mood is due to the deficiency of ………………..
A) Vitamin – K
B) Vitamin – C
C) Vitamin – E
D) Vitamin – A
Answer:
A) Vitamin – K

Question 182.
Knock knees and bow legs are caused due to the deficiency of ……………………..
A) Vitamin – K
B) Vitamin – E
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – A
Answer:
C) Vitamin – D

Question 183.
Glossitis is caused due to the deficiency of:
A) B₁
B) B₂
C) B₃
D) B₆
Answer:
B) B₂

Question 184.
Which of the following is correct pair ?
A) Thiamine – Glossitis
B) Niacin – Pellagra
C) Pyridoxine – Scurvy
D) Biotin – Scurvy
Answer:
B) Niacin – Pellagra

Question 185.
Find out who I am.
I am a vitamin.
Healing of bounds, fracture of bones don’t take place in the absence of me.
I am in vegetables, citrus fruits, and in germinating seeds.
A) Retinol
B) Niacin
C) Folic Acid
D) Ascorbic Acid
Answer:
D) Ascorbic Acid

Question 186.
The vitamin (s) that is / are stored by liver is / are :
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin B₁₂
D) Ail the above
Answer:
A) Vitamin D

Question 187.
Which of the following statement(s) is /are not correct about vitamins?
A) They are organic substances.
B) They are required in small quantities by our body.
C) They are classified into two groups.
D) They are energy providing nutrients.
Answer:
D) They are energy providing nutrients.

Question 188.
A boy from uneducated area is suffering from ulceration in the mouth. It is due to the deficiency of …………………….. vitamin
A) B₆
B)B₁
QB₁₂
D)B₂
Answer:
D)B₂

Question 189.
Kiran said that ‘Glossitis’ is caused due to deficiency of ‘Riboflavin’. Sunil said that ‘Retinol’ is related to eyes.
A) Kiran is correct
B) Sunil is correct
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
Answer:
C) Both are correct

Question 190.
………………. is the cheapest food material that is easily available in our areas, it reduces the deficiency of vitamin C.
A) Mango
B) Papaya
C) Banana
D) Citrus
Answer:
D) Citrus

Question 191.
Gopi got an injury while playing Kabaddi. It took a long time for blood clotting. This may be due to the deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin K
Answer:
D) Vitamin K

Question 192.
Tocoferol is the another name for ……………………..
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin B₆
Answer:
A) Vitamin E

Question 193.
Match the following and identify the answer.

Name of the vitamin	Deficiency disease
a. Thiamin (B1) b. Citric acid (C) c. Retinol (A)	1. Scurvy 2. Night blindness 3. Beri Beri

A) (a – 3), (b – 1), (c – 2)
B) (a – 1), (b – 2), (c – 3)
C) (a – 2), (b – 3), (c – 1)
D) (a – 3), (c – 1), (b – 2)
Answer:
A) (a – 3), (b – 1), (c – 2)

Question 194.
We get this vitamin from morning sun rays.
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D
Answer:
D) Vitamin D

Question 195.
Vitamin – B₁₂ causes
A) Photophobia
B) Pernicious anaemia
C) Rickets
D) Scurvy
Answer:
B) Pernicious anaemia

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Our Earth in the Solar System on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Our Earth in the Solar System with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Celestial bodies are made up of
A) Gas
B) Water
C) Light
D) Wax
Answer:
A) Gas

Question 2.
The nearest star to the Earth is
A) Venus
B) Saturn
C) Sun
D) Mars
Answer:
C) Sun

Question 3.
Moon moves around
A) Sun
B) Earth
C) Mercury
D) Jupiter
Answer:
B) Earth

Question 4.
The center of the solar system is
A) Sun
B) Moon
C) Earth
D) Mars
Answer:
A) Sun

Question 5.
The surface temperature of the Sim is about
A) 7600°C
B) 6700°C
C) 6000°C
D) 7200X
Answer:
C) 6000°C

Question 6.
The nearest planet to the Sun is
A) Mars
B) Earth
C) Mercury
D) Saturn
Answer:
C) Mercury

Question 7.
Fifth largest planet in size is
A) Earth
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Mercury
Answer:
A) Earth

Question 8.
The layer of the air that surrounds the Earth
A) Hydrosphere
B) Atmosphere
C) Lithosphere
D) Biosphere
Answer:
B) Atmosphere

Question 9.
Planets that do not have any satellites are
A) Mercury and Venus
B) Mars and Jupiter
C) Saturn and Earth
D) Venus & Jupiter
Answer:
A) Mercury and Venus

Question 10.
The moon moves around the Earth in
A) 28 days
B) 25 days
C) 27 days
D) 30 days
Answer:
C) 27 days

Question 11.
Mangalyan was launched in
A) 28th September 2014
B) 29th September 2014
C) 24th September 2014
D) 28th September 2020
Answer:
C) 24th September 2014

Question 12.
The Pole Star indicates the direction to the
A) South
B) North
C) East
D) West
Answer:
B) North

Question 13.
The Sun is
A) a star
B) a celestial body
C) the head of the solar system
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 14.
The term “Blue Planet” indicates the presence of
A) land
B) water
C) oxygen
D) all of these
Answer:
B) water

Question 15.
A: Bright light of the Sun does not allow us to see the objects in the sky.
B: Bright light of the Moon does not allow to see dead objects in the sky.
A) Only.A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 16.
A: Celestial bodies are very big and hot.
B: Celestial bodies are made up of gases.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 17.
A: Earth is the companion of the Sun and moves around the Earth.
B: Moon is the companion of Earth and moves around the Earth.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 18.
A: North Star indicates north direction.
B: North star is also called pole star.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 19.
A: Earth is the third largest planet to the Sun.
B: Earth is the fifth nearest planet to the Sun.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 20.
Match the following.
1) Earth                       [ ]       a) made up of head and tail
2) Galaxy                     [ ]       b) small pieces of rocky or metallic bodies
3) Comet                     [ ]       c) Huge cluster of stars
4) Meteoroids             [ ]       d) Part of the Solar System
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
C) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b

Question 21.
Match the following.
1) Asteroids                              [ ]         a) Moon
2) Man made satellite              [ ]         b) Small rocky objects
3) Natural satellite                    [ ]         c) Sun
4) Closest star to the Earth       [ ]         d) An artificial body
A) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c

Question 22.
The given picture shows

A) The Sun
B) The Globe
C) The spheres of the Earth
D) Solar system
Answer:
C) The spheres of the Earth

Question 23.
Arrange the planets from the Sun.
Mars, Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, Earth
A) Mars, Jupiter, Earth, Venus, Mercury
B) Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter
C) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth, Jupiter
D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter
Answer:
D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter

Question 24.
Choose the wrong statement.
A) Constellations – Groups of stars
B) North star – Pole star
C) Outer planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
D) Mercury – Smallest planet
Answer:
C) Outer planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

Question 25.
Match the following:
1. The Sun                      [ ]               a) Blue Planet
2. The Moon                   [ ]               b) Inner Planets
3. The Earth                    [ ]               c) 3.84 km away from the earth
4. Saturn and Uranus     [ ]                d) 150 million Kilometers away from the earth
5. Mercury and Venus    [ ]                e) Outer planets
Answer:
1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b

Fill in the Blanks.

1. A group of ……………….. forming various patterns is called a …………….
Answer:
stars, constellation

2. Celestial bodies are made up of …………….
Answer:
gases

3. ……………. is the closest celestial body to our earth.
Answer:
The moon

4. ……………. is the third nearest planet to the Sun.
Answer:
The earth

5. Stars are celestial bodies that are ……………… and ……………..
Answer:
big, hot

6. Planets do not possess their own ………………, ………………
Answer:
heat, light

7. People determine North direction with the help of ………………
Answer:
North Star/Pole Star

8. Saptarshi constellation is a group of ………………
Answer:
seven stars

9. ……………… are elongated fixed paths in which a celestial body always remains.
Answer:
Orbits

10. Venus is similar to the earth in its ……………… and ………………
Answer:
size ; shape

11. The shadows on the moon’s surface are due to ………………, ……………… and ………………
Answer:
mountains, plains; depressions

12. Meteoroids heat up and burn due to ………………
Answer:
friction

13. Earth receives light and heat from the ………………
Answer:
Sun

14. The Sun is the center of the ………………
Answer:
Solar system

15. Man-made satellite is a ………………
Answer:
artificial body

16. India is the …………. country to reach Mars.
Answer:
fourth

17. MOM ……………
Answer:
Mars Orbiter Mission

18. No. of days the Moon takes to complete its spin around itself …………….
Answer:
27

19. No. of days the Moon takes to complete to move around the Earth ………………
Answer:
27

20. Sun can include ……………… Earths in it.
Answer:
13 lakhs

21. Biggest planet in Solar system ………………
Answer:
Jupiter

22. Smallest planet in Solar system ………………
Answer:
Mercury

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 22 Rulers and Buildings on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 22nd Lesson Rulers and Buildings with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who started the construction of Qutb Minar?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Iltutmish
C) Alauddin Khilji
D) Akbar
Answer:
A) Qutbuddin Aybak

Question 2.
Who finished the construction of Qutb Minar?
A) Alauddin Khilji
B) Akbar
C) Iltutmish
D) Qutbuddin Aybak
Answer:
C) Iltutmish

Question 3.
When was the construction of Qutb Minar completed?
A) 1129 AD.
B) 1199 A.D.
C) 1229 A.D.
D) 1429 A.D.
Answer:
C) 1229 A.D.

Question 4.
When was the Kandariya Mahadeva temple constructed?
A) In 899 A.D.
B) In 909 A.D
C) In 999 A.D.
D) In 919 A.D.
Answer:
C) In 999 A.D.

Question 5.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple was built by
A) Dhangadeva
B) Dhanunjayadeva
C) Dharmadeva
D) Dharma Pala
Answer:
A) Dhangadeva

Question 6.
Which temple had the tallest Shikhara amongst all the temples of its time?
A) Brihadiswara temple
B) Kandariya Mahadeva temple
C) Virupaksha temple
D) Ramachandra temple
Answer:
A) Brihadiswara temple

Question 7.
Brihadiswara temple (or) Raja Rajeswara temple was built by
A) Raja Raja Chola
B) Rajendra Chola
C) Kulottunga Chola
D) Rajaraja Narendra
Answer:
A) Raja Raja Chola

Question 8.
To which dynasty Khajuraho temples belong to
A) Chandela
B) Pala
C) Chola
D) Pandya
Answer:
A) Chandela

Question 9.
Rajarajeswara (or) Brihadeshwara temple is at
A) Madurai
B) Chennai
C) Tanjore
D) Sri Rangam
Answer:
C) Tanjore

Question 10.
Which court chronicles described the sultan as the ‘Shadow of God’?
A) Indian
B) Turkish
C) Persian
D) Arabian
Answer:
C) Persian

Question 11.
According to the inscription in the Delhi mosque which sultan was chosen by God?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Iltutmish
C) Balban
D) Alauddin Khilji
Answer:
D) Alauddin Khilji

Question 12.
‘Hauz – i – Sultani’ or the ‘King’s Res-ervoir’ was constructed by
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Balban
C) Iltutmish
D) Alauddin Khilji
Answer:
C) Iltutmish

Question 13.
Which Sultan had the qualities of Solomon and Moses?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Alauddin Khilji
C) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
D) iltutmish
Answer:
B) Alauddin Khilji

Question 14.
What is the popular name of Harminder Sahib?
A) Golden Temple
B) Lotus Temple
C) Kali Temple
D) Sikh Temple
Answer:
A) Golden Temple

Question 15.
Golden Temple (Harminder Sahib) is at
A) Amritsar
B) Jalandhar
C) Chandigarh
D) Ludhiana
Answer:
A) Amritsar

Question 16.
Which Pandyan King invaded Srilanka and defeated the King Sena -1?
A) Shrimara Shrivallabha
B) Nedunjalian
C) Karikala
D) Jalandhar
Answer:
A) Shrimara Shrivallabha

Question 17.
The Sinhalese ruler defeated by the Pandyan King Shrimara Srivallabha was
A) Sena I
B) Sena II
C) Sena III
D) Sena IV
Answer:
A) Sena I

Question 18.
Which Sinhalese ordered his general to invade Madurai?
A) Sena II
B) Sena
C) Sena III
D) Ser
Answer:
A) Sena II

Question 19.
The capital of Pandyas was ……..
A) Kanchi
B) Coimbatore
C) Madurai
D) Tanjore
Answer:
C) Madurai

Question 20.
Which dynasty was the statue of Bhairavi seized from?
A) Palas of Bengal
B) Kalingas of Odisha
C) Eastern Chalukyas from Vengi
D) From Chalukyas.
Answer:
B) Kalingas of Odisha

Question 21.
From which dynasty was the Statue of Nandi seized by the Cholas?
A) Chalukyas
B) Kalingas of Odisha
C) Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi
D) Palas of Bengal
Answer:
C) Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi

Question 22.
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a con-temporary of which Chola king?
A) Raja Raja
B) Rajendra -1
C) Kulottunga Chola
D) Rajaraja Narendra
Answer:
B) Rajendra -1

Question 23.
The Sultan who looted Somnath temple was
A) Mahmud of Ghazni
B) Mahmud of Ghori
C) Taimur
D) Nadir Shah
Answer:
A) Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 24.
Which city was developed to act as the imperial capital of entire South India?
A) Tanjore L
B) Vengi
C) Orugallu
D) Vijayanagara
Answer:
D) Vijayanagara

Question 25.
“Mahanavami Dibba” was the structure belonged to
A) Vijayanagara Kings
B) Kakatiya Kings
C) Chalukya Kings
D) Chola Kings
Answer:
A) Vijayanagara Kings

Question 26.
Diwan – i – aam or Diwan – i – klias was constructed by
A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Shah Jahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Shah Jahan

Question 27.
Who constructed the Red Fort at Delhi?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Jahangir
D) Babur
Answer:
B) Shah Jahan

Question 28.
Who built the Tajmahal?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Jahangir
D) Babur
Answer:
B) Shah Jahan

Question 29.
The grandest architectural accomplishment of Shah Jahan was
A) Taj Mahal
B) Peacock Throne
C) Red Fort
D) Diwan – i – aam
Answer:
A) Taj Mahal

Question 30.
The Taj Mahal is on the banks of the river
A) Ganges
B) Yamuna
C) Ravi
D) Son
Answer:
B) Yamuna

Question 31.
Qutubuddin-Aibak build Qutub Minar in the year ……….. A.D.
A) 1190
B) 1195
C) 1199
D) 1200
Answer:
C) 1199

Question 32.
The no. of stairs in Qutub Minar.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 33.
The construction of Qutub Minar was completed by lltutmish in the year
A) 1200
B) 1220
C) 1229
D) 1250
Answer:
C) 1229

Question 34.
Roofs, doors and windows were still made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns, a style of architecture called
A) Trabeate
B) Corbelled
C) Both A&B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A&B

Question 35.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated to Shiva was constructed in 999 A.D. by
A) Ganga Deva
B) Dhanga Deva
C) Ramachandra Deva
D) Bhuthala Raju
Answer:
B) Dhanga Deva

Question 36.
The Khajuraho complex contained temples where common people were not allowed to enter
A) royal
B) ministerial
C) samanthas
D) parganadhipathas
Answer:
A) royal

Question 37.
The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roof too used this principle and was converted into vaults and domes. This architectural form is called
A) arcuate
B) achyuate
C) gummatam
D) dome
Answer:
A) arcuate

Question 38.
Arches, domes and limestone mortar were used extensively in the buildings after ……….. A.D.
A) 1190
B) 1290
C) 1390
D) 1490
Answer:
A) 1190

Question 39.
The Raja Rajeswara temple was built by:
A) Rajarajadeva
B) Rajendradeva
C) Gangadeva
D) Dhangadeva
Answer:
A) Rajarajadeva

Question 40.
The Swayambhu Siva Temple is here
A) Hyderabad
B) Ranga Reddy
C) Orugallu
D) Sultanpur
Answer:
C) Orugallu

Question 41.
Most of the temples had become elaborate institutions, because
A) they employed hundreds of artisans.
B) they lend money on interest to traders.
C) they organised fairs and markets and celebrations.
D) all the above.
Answer:
D) all the above.

Question 42.
Who built a large reservoir just outside Delhi-i-kuhna?
A) lltutmish
B) Qutubuddin – Aibak
C) Deshpond
D) Balban
Answer:
A) lltutmish

Question 43.
The reason behind the construction of temples by kings.
A) Bhakti
B) To exhibit their wealth
C) To exhibit their power
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
In the early ninth century, the Pandyan king Shrimara Shrivallabha invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the king.
A) Sena -1
B) Sena – II
C) Sena – III
D) Sena – IV
Answer:
A) Sena -1

Question 45.
The period of Sena I
A) 999-1000
B) 831-851
C) 821-851
D) None
Answer:
B) 831-851

Question 46.
The chola king Rajendra – built a temple in his capital
A) Shiva
B) Vishnu
C) Brahma
D) None
Answer:
A) Shiva

Question 47.
By destroying temples – especially the one at Somnath tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam.
A) Mahmud Ghazni
B) Mahmud Ghori
C) Akbar
D) Babur
Answer:
A) Mahmud Ghazni

Question 48.
The Vijayanagara kings built large temples for Sri Virupaksha, Ramachandra, Krishna and Vitthala using a style that had been developed by emperors.
A) Chola
B) Pandya
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 49.
The Virupaksha temple was built over many centuries while inscriptions suggest that the earliest shrine dated to the ……….. century.
A) 9 – 10
B) 10 – 11
C) 11 – 12
D) 8 – 9
Answer:
A) 9 – 10

Question 50.
The buildings that were built for the secular works of the Vijayanagara kings.
A) Raja Mandiras
B) Grama Panchayats
C) Trade organisations
D) None
Answer:
A) Raja Mandiras

Question 51.
The Padma Mahal was built by
A) Sri KrishnadeVaraya
B) Devaraya – II
C) Virupaksharaya
D) Atchyutharaya
Answer:
A) Sri KrishnadeVaraya

Question 52.
The famous construction of the Vijayanagara kings.
A) Maha Mandap
B) Mahanavami Dibba
C) Maharaja Mandir
D) Raja Prasad
Answer:
B) Mahanavami Dibba

Question 53.
The Vijayanagara kings held their………….. on Mahanavami dibba.
A) Navarathri Puja
B) Dussehra Darbar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 54.
This Mughal empower or declared his interest on gardens.
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Babur

Question 55.
The other name of Mughal gardens.
A) Char Mahal
B) Charbagh
C) Panchbagh
D) None
Answer:
B) Charbagh

Question 56.
The constructions of Akbar are like these constructions.
A) Timur’s
B) Nadirshah’s
C) Iltutmish’s
D) Babur’s
Answer:
A) Timur’s

Question 57.
The Humayun tomb was placed in the centre of a huge formal chahar bagh and built in the tradition known as
A) Aridwar
B) Hasht bihisht
C) Nava bihisht
D) Nawadwar
Answer:
B) Hasht bihisht

Question 58.
Diwan-i-khas or diwan-i-aain was built by
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Shahjahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
C) Shahjahan

Question 59.
The pedestal on which their throne was placed was known as
A) Qubla
B) Qibla
C) Jeehad
D) Haz
Answer:
B) Qibla

Question 60.
Behind the balcony of the emperor’s throne, in Red Fort in Delhi, there were a series of
A) Pietra dura inlays
B) the legendary Greek god Orpheus playing the flute
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 61.
In the early years of his reign, Shahjahan’s capital was at Agra, a city where the nobility had constructed their homes on the banks of the river.
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Narmada
D) Sindhu
Answer:
B) Yamuna

Question 62.
The charbagh was described by the historians as
A) river-front garden
B) Mughal gardens
C) Navaneeth gardens
D) All the above
Answer:
A) river-front garden

Question 63.
The world famous Tajmahal was built by Shahjahan in the garden which is infront of this river.
A) Ganga
B) Sindh
C) Yamuna
D) Godavari
Answer:
C) Yamuna

Question 64.
The eldest son of Shahjahan
A) Dara Shukoh
B) Aurangazeb
C) Murad
D) Humayun
Answer:
A) Dara Shukoh

Question 65.
Quwaat al – Islam is in Delhi : : Brihadeeswara temple is at
A) Kanchi
B) Tanjore
C) Madurai
D) Rameswaram
Answer:
B) Tanjore

Question 66.
Qutubminar : Delhi : : Alai Darwaza at
A) Delhi
B) Agra
C) Kolkata
D) Bombay
Answer:
A) Delhi

Question 67.
This picture is

A) Tajmahal
B) Golden temple
C) Brihadeeswara temple
D) Qutub Minar
Answer:
B) Golden temple

Question 68.
Find the correct statement.
1. Qutub Minar construction was completed by Iltutmish.
2. Qutub Minar construction was completed by Qutubuddin Iraq.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 69.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
A. Qutub Minar
B. Kandariya Mahadev temple
C. Taj Mahal
D. Destruction of Somanath Temple
A) D, C, B, A
B) B, D, A, C
C) A, B, C, D
D) C, B, A, D
Answer:
B) B, D, A, C

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Devotional Paths to the Divine on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Devotional Paths to the Divine with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
According to Ramanuja, the best way, to attain salvation through intensive devotion of
A) Siva
B) Shakti
C) Vishnu
D) Brahma
Answer:
C) Vishnu

Question 2.
Who propounded the doctrine of Visishtadvaita?
A) Kabir
B) Guru Nanak
C) Ramanuja
D) Tukaram
Answer:
C) Ramanuja

Question 3.
Virashaiva movement was initiated by
A) Allama Prabhu
B) Akkamahadevi
C) Basavanna
D) Bijjala
Answer:
C) Basavanna

Question 4.
Virashaiva movement began in …..
A) Karnataka
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Tamilnadu
D) Kerala
Answer:
A) Karnataka

Question 5.
Virashaiva movement began in ….
A) 13th century
B) 12th Century
C) 11th Century
D) 10th Century
Answer:
B) 12th Century

Question 6.
The Saints Jnaneshwar, Eknath, Tukaram, and Sakkubai belonged to the state, of ……………
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Tamilnadu
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The saints belonged to the untouchable Mahar caste of Maharashtra.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Tukaram
C) Sakkubai
D) Chokhamela
Answer:
D) Chokhamela

Question 8.
Maharashtra tradition of bhakti focused on the God …………
A) Siva
B) Sakthi
C) Vitthala
D) Tryambakeshwar
Answer:
C) Vitthala

Question 9.
Vitthala is an incarnation of
A) Siva
B) Subrahmanya Swami
C) Vishnu
D) Brahma
Answer:
C) Vishnu

Question 10.
Vitthala temple is in …………
A) Shirdi
B) Amaravathi
C) Pandharpur
D) Tryambakeswar
Answer:
C) Pandharpur

Question 11.
Narsi Mehta was a ……….. saint.
A) Marathi
B) Telugu
C) Kannada
D) Gujarathi
Answer:
D) Gujarathi

Question 12.
Who said, “Vaishnavas are those who understand the pain of others”?
A) Ramanuja
B) Namdev
C) Narsi Mehta
D) jnaneshwar
Answer:
C) Narsi Mehta

Question 13.
Who advocated the renunciation of the world?
A) Saints of Maharashtra
B) Kabir
C) Siddhacharas and Nathpanthis
D) Ramanuja
Answer:
C) Siddhacharas and Nathpanthis

Question 14.
Islam propagated
A) monotheism
B) Polytheism
C) Idol worship
D) Outward religiosity
Answer:
A) monotheism

Question 15.
The holy law developed by Muslim scholars was
A) Zikr
B) Shariat
C) Tariqa
D) Raqs
Answer:
B) Shariat

Question 16.
Ghazzali, Rumi and Sadi were Sufi saints of
A) Central India
B) Central Asia
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Central Asia

Question 17.
‘Zikr’ means
A) Contemplation
B) Singing
C) Dancing
D) Chanting of a name
Answer:
D) Chanting of a name

Question 18.
A genealogy of Sufi teachers is called
A) Silsila
B) Tariqa
C) Panthi
D) Khanqah
Answer:
A) Silsila

Question 19.
Which Of the following matching is wrong? Write the correct answer.
Matchings
(A) (B)
A) ‘Khwaja Moinuddin – Ajmer
B) Qutbuddin Bhakhtiar Kaki – Delhi
C) Baba Farid – Allahabad
D) Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya – Delhi
E) Bandanawaz Gisudaraz – Gulbarga
Answer:
C) Baba Farid – Allahabad

Question 20.
The tomb of a Sufisaint is called
A) Khanqah
B) Dargah
C) Silsila
D) Shariat
Answer:
B) Dargah

Question 21.
Pothana was a
A) priest
B) peasant
C) teacher
D) farm labour
Answer:
B) peasant

Question 22.
Mahabhagavatham in Telugu was written by
A) Pothana
B) Nannayya
C) Tikkana
D) Errana
Answer:
A) Pothana

Question 23.
………….. was called a Sahaja Kavi.
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Pothana
D) Shankaradeva
Answer:
C) Pothana

Question 24.
‘Ramacharithamanas’ was composed by
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Pothana
D) Shankaradeva
Answer:
B) Tulasidas

Question 25.
Mirabai was a …………. princess.
A) Mughal
B) Rajput
C) Maratha
D) Ahmednagar
Answer:
B) Rajput

Question 26.
Gurugranth Sahib was written by
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Kabir
D) Nanak
Answer:
C) Kabir

Question 27.
Mirabai was a disciple of
A) Dadu Dayal
B) Ravidas
C) Chokhamela
D) Surdas
Answer:
B) Ravidas

Question 28.
Mirabai was a devotee of
A) Rama
B) Krishna
C) Siva
D) Shakti
Answer:
B) Krishna

Question 29.
Kabir was a
A) Tailor
B) Weaver
C) Potter
D) Blacksmith
Answer:
B) Weaver

Question 30.
Kabir lived in the city of
A) Allahabad
B) Varanasi
C) Madhura
D) Agra
Answer:
B) Varanasi

Question 31.
The vast collection of verses are called
A) Dohas
B) Sakhis or pads
C) Slokas
D) Chantings
Answer:
B) Sakhis or pads

Question 32.
‘Bijak’ was written by
A) Tulasidas
B) Surdas
C) Kabir
D) Nanak
Answer:
C) Kabir

Question 33.
Panchvani was written by
A) Kabir
B) Guru Nanak
C) Ravidas
D) Dadu Dayal
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 34.
Guru Nanak was born at
A) Amritsar
B) Patiala
C) Talwandi
D) Ludhiana
Answer:
C) Talwandi

Question 35.
Where did Nanak establish a center?
A) at Talwandi
B) at Kartarpur
C) at Amritsar
D) at Dharmasala
Answer:
B) at Kartarpur

Question 36.
The sacred space, ‘where people of all creed, caste or gender ate together created by Nanak was called
A) Pavitrasthal
B) Langar
C) Dharmsal
D) Karmasala
Answer:
C) Dharmsal

Question 37.
Yogi Vemana lived in the
A) 16th Century
B) 17th Century
C) 18th Century
D) 15th Century
Answer:
B) 17th Century

Question 38.
Sankaracharya took his birth in this state.
A) Karnataka
B) Kerala
C) Tamilnadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 39.
Who taught ‘Advaita’ principle?
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Vallabhacharya
Answer:
A) Sankaracharya

Question 40.
He who taught that Brahman, the only or Ultimate Reality, was formless and without any attributes was
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Vallabhacharya
D) None
Answer:
A) Sankaracharya

Question 41.
Ramanuja, born in South India in the eleventh century, was deeply influenced by the
A) Nayanars
B) Alvars
C) Saivas
D) Veerasaivas
Answer:
B) Alvars

Question 42.
According to him, the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu.
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Vallabhacharya
Answer:
C) Ramanujacharya

Question 43.
………… ensured a place for people of lower castes in temple worship.
A) Ramanujacharya
B) Nimbarka
C) Ramananda
D) None
Answer:
A) Ramanujacharya

Question 44.
He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita.
A) Nimbarka
B) Kabir
C) Ramananda
D) Ramanujacharya
Answer:
D) Ramanujacharya

Question 45.
………… ‘s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti.
A) Kabir
B) Gurunanak
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Sankaracharya
Answer:
C) Ramanujacharya

Question 46.
…………. was a notable proponent for the Vaishnava school of Bhakti yoga.
A) Chaitanya
B) Boppana
C) Somanatha
D) Nimbarka
Answer:
A) Chaitanya

Question 47.
Dasarathi Shatakamu, a collection of nearly …………. poems.
A) 116
B) 108
C) 128
D) 150
Answer:
B) 108

Question 48.
Dasarathi Shatakamu was written by.
A) Ramadasu
B) Potanna
C) Nannaya
D) Tikanna
Answer:
A) Ramadasu

Question 49.
The popular saint poets in Maharashtra.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Namdev
C) Eknath, Tukaram
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 50.
The main God in the temple of Pandharipur.
A) Siva
B) Vishnu
C) Durga
D) Bhavani
Answer:
B) Vishnu

Question 51.
This saint – poets rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth.
A) Jnaneshwar, Tukaram
B) Namdev, Eknath
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 52.
Her songs openly challenged the norms of upper castes.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Tukaram
C) Anamacharya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
D) Mirabai

Question 53.
Who started criticizing the rituals and other aspects of conventional religion and social order using simple, logical arguments?
A) Nathpanthis
B) Siddhacharas
C) Yogis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
They advocated renunciation of the world. To them, the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realization of oneness with it. To achieve this, they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises and
meditation.
A) Nathpanthis
B) Siddhacharas
C) Yogis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 55.
Who emphasized love and devotion to God and compassion towards all fellow human beings?
A) Sufi Sanyasis
B) Yogis
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
………….. drew his followers from among both Hindus and Muslims.
A) Annamacharya
B) Kabir
C) Gurunanak
D) None
Answer:
B) Kabir

Question 57.
The terms nam, dan and isnan for the essence of his teachings were used by
A) Annamacharya
B) Kabir
C) Potana
D) Gurunanak
Answer:
D) Gurunanak

Question 58.
A large number of Sufis from Central Asia settled in from the 11 century onwards.
A) Pakistan
B) Afghanisthan
C) Hindustan
D) Turkmenisthan
Answer:
C) Hindustan

Question 59.
Identify the mismatches from the below.
1) Ajmer – Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
2) Delhi – Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
3) Punjab – Baba Farid
4) Gulbarga – Bandanawaz Gesudaraz.
A) Both 1 & 2
B) Both 2 & 3
C) Both 1 & 3
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 60.
Who accepted existing beliefs and
practices but wanted to make them accessible to all?
A) Bammera Potana
B) Annamacharya
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 61.
Who translated the Mahabha- gavatamu into Telugu?
A) Tikkana
B) Nannaya
C) Errana
D) Potana
Answer:
D) Potana

Question 62.
This vaggeyakara and pada kavita pitamaha was belonged to Andhra Pradesh
A) Bammera Potana
B) Thallapaka Annamacharya
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Srinatha
Answer:
B) Thallapaka Annamacharya

Question 63.
In ‘Annamacharya Charitramu’, it is said that Annamayya composed a thousand Keertanas on Lord Venkateswara.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 36
Answer:
B) 32

Question 64.
This was the first who opposed social evils like ‘Untouchability’.
A) Annamayya
B) Potana
C) Tikkana
D) Nannaya
Answer:
A) Annamayya

Question 65.
Who wrote ‘Brahmam Okkate, Parabrahmam Okkate’ song
A) Potana
B) Nannaya
C) Tikkana
D) Annamayya
Answer:
D) Annamayya

Question 66.
This Vaishnava Sadhu belonged to the Eastern India
A) Kancherla Gopanna
B) Bammera Potana
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Tikkana
Answer:
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Question 67.
This person belonged to the 17th century, and popularly known as Bhakta Ramadasu
A) Kancherla Gopanna
B) Bommera Pothana
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Tikkana
Answer:
A) Kancherla Gopanna

Question 68.
This person wrote ‘the Dasarathi Shatakamu’ with 108 poems and dedicated to Sri Rama.
A) Potana
B) Gopanna
C) Tikkana
D) Nannaya
Answer:
B) Gopanna

Question 69.
…………… conceived of God in the form of Rama.
A) Tulsidas
B) Ramdas
C) Gopaldas
D) Krishnadas
Answer:
A) Tulsidas

Question 70.
Who wrote ‘Ramcharitmanas’?
A) Tulsidas
B) Sankaracharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Madhwacharya
Answer:
A) Tulsidas

Question 71.
This person emphasized on devotion to Vishnu and composed poems and plays in Assamese.
A) Vishnudeva
B) Shankaradeva
C) Bhavani
D) Tarabhai
Answer:
B) Shankaradeva

Question 72.
……….. was a Rajput princess married into the royal family of Mewar in the sixteenth century.
A) Mirabai
B) Tarabai
C) Ahalyabai
D) Ramabai
Answer:
A) Mirabai

Question 73.
A unique feature of most of the saints is that their works were
A) composed in regional languages
B) could be sung
C) immensely popular
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 74.
………….. who probably lived in the 15, 16 centuries, was one of the most influential saints.
A) Kabir
B) Mirabai
C) Ramananda
D) Sankaracharya
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 75.
Some of Kabir’s ideas were collected and preserved in the
A) Guru Granth Sahib
B) PanchVani
C) Bijak
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 76.
…………… believed in a formless Supreme God.
A) Kabir
B) Nanak
C) Chaitanya
D) Tarabai
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 77.
Who preached that the only path to salvation was through bhakti or devotion?
A) Nanak
B) Kabir
C) Chaitanya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
B) Kabir

Question 78.
This person was born in Talwandi village in Pakistan.
A) Nanak
B) Kabir
C) Chaitanya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
A) Nanak

Question 79.
The sacred space created by Guru Nanak was known as
A) Vijayapuri
B) Dharmsal
C) Viharayatra
D) Pradayini
Answer:
B) Dharmsal

Question 80.
Guru Nanak insisted that his followers must be
A) householders
B) should adopt productive occupation
C) should adopt useful occupations
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 81.
He insisted that caste, creed or gender was irrelevant for attaining liberation.
A) Nanak
B) Tilak
C) Tukaram
D) Namdev
Answer:
A) Nanak

Question 82.
Guru Nanak teachings are now remembered as

A) nam-japna
B) kirt-karna
C) vand-chhakna
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 83.
The person in the picture is
A) Kabir
B) Gurunanak
C) Annamayya
D) Ramadasu
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 84.
Sankaracharya: Advaita:: Ramanuja Charya: …………
A) Bhakti
B) Vishishtadvaita
C) Veerashaiva
D) Vaishnava
Answer:
B) Vishishtadvaita

Question 85.
Nayanar : Shaiva : : Vaishnava : ………….
A) Alwars
B) Gurus
C) Mahars
D) Yogis
Answer:
A) Alwars

Question 86.
Annamacharya : Keertanas : : Chaitanya Maha Prabhu : …………….
A) Bhajanas
B) Poems
C) Novels
D) Stories
Answer:
A) Bhajanas

Question 87.
Find the correct statement.
1. Mahabharatam was written in Sanskrit by Vedavyasa.
2. Mahabhagavatam was written in Telugu by Potana.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 88.
The Sufis often rejected this ……….
A) Codes of behavior by religious scholars
B) The guidance of a master
C) Submission to one God
D) Compassion towards all fellow human beings
Answer:
A) Codes of behaviour by religious scholars

Question 89.
What is the core theme of the sankeerthana “brahmamokkate parabrah mamokkate….” written by Annamacharya?
A) Education of women
B) Eradication of poverty
C) Idol worship
D) Equality of all people related to
Answer:
D) Equality of all people related to

Question 90.
Zikr, raqs, silsila …………. these words are
A) VeeraSiva
B) Sufism
C) Path of nath Panthi
D) Sikhism
Answer:
B) Sufism

Question 91.
Shankaracharya was an advocate of
A) Dwaita
B) Adwaita
C) Visistadvaita
D) Sufism
Answer:
B) Adwaita

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Electric Current on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 9th Lesson Electric Current with Answers

CONCEPT – 1 : Electric Current, Potential Difference & emf

Question 1.
What type of charge flows through an electric wire when it is connected in an electric circuit ?
A) positive
B) negative
C) either
D) neither
Answer:
B) negative

Question 2.
Which of the following phenomena is an evidence for the motion of charge in daily life situations ?
A) Formation of rainbow in the sky
B) Formation of mirages
C) Lightning between two clouds
D) None
Answer:
C) Lightning between two clouds

Question 3.
Which of the following situations makes the bulb glows ?
A) When we connect the ends of copper wire to the terminals of the battery through the bulb and switch to make a complete circuit and switch on the circuit
B) When we connect the copper wire, bulb and switch to make a complete circuit and switch on the circuit.
C) When we connect the nylon wire to the terminals of the battery through the bulb and switch to make complete circuit and switch on the circuit.
D) none.
Answer:
A) When we connect the ends of copper wire to the terminals of the battery through the bulb and switch to make a complete circuit and switch on the circuit

Question 4.
In an electric cell
A) chemical energy converts into electrical energy
B) mechanical energy converts into electrical energy
C) electrical energy converts into mechanical energy
D) electrical energy converts into chemical energy
Answer:
A) chemical energy converts into electrical energy

Question 5.
Statement X : The material which transfers energy from battery to the bulb is called conductor
Statement Y : The material which cannot transfer energy from battery to the bulb is called insulator.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 6.
Name the scientist who proposed that metal conductors contain a large number of free electrons.
A) Drude
B) Loreritz
C) Both Drude & Lorentz
D) Ohm
Answer:
C) Both Drude & Lorentz

Question 7.
The arrangement of the positive ions in a metal conductor is called ……………………
A) free electrons
B) bounded electrons
C) lattice
D) none
Answer:
C) lattice

Question 8.
The net charge flowing through a crosssection of a conductor in unit time is …………………. when the conductor is in open circuit.
A) electric current
B) one ampere
C) onecoloumb
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 9.
Which of the following statement is false?
A) When the electrons are in ordered motion, there will be a net charge crossing through any cross-section of the conductor.
B) When the electrons are in random motion, there will be no net charge crossing through any cross section of the conductor.
C) The positive ions of the metal conductor are fixed in their location.
D) The positive ions of the metal conductor are in motion.
Answer:
D) The positive ions of the metal conductor are in motion.

Question 10.
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A) Electric current is ordered motion of charges.
B) The amount of charge crossing any cross section of the conductor in one second is called electric current.
C) The amount of one coloumb charge crossing any cross section of the conductor in one second is called one ampere
D) Electric current is random motion of free electrons in a conductor.
Answer:
D) Electric current is random motion of free electrons in a conductor.

Question 11.
The equation for an electric current is ……………….
A) I = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
B) I = Q × t
C) I = \(\frac{t}{Q}\)
D) I = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}^{2}}\)
Answer:
A) I = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}}\)

Question 12.
The S.I unit of electric current is …………………
A) volt
B) ampere
C) oersted
D) ohm
Answer:
B) ampere

Question 13.
1 coloumb /1 second = ………………….
A) one volt
B) one ohm
C) one ampere
D) one watt
Answer:
C) one ampere

Question 14.
Statement X : The free electrons in the conductor are accelerated by the electric field and move in a direction opposite to the direction of the electric field.
Statement Y : The free electrons in the conductor are accelerated by the electric field and move in a direction parallel to the direction of the electric field.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 15.
Electrons in the conductor move with a constant average speed. This speed is called ………………….
A) drift speed
B) drift velocity
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
C) either A or B

Question 16.
The magnitude of electric charge is ……………………….
A) 1.602 × 10¹⁹ C
B) 1.602 × 10^-19C
C) 8.5 × 10²⁸C
D) 7 × 10^-5C
Answer:
B) 1.602 × 10^-19C

Question 17.
The S.I unit of an electric charge is ………………..
A) coloumb
B) ampere
C) volt
D) second
Answer:
A) coloumb

Question 18.
Statement X : The conventional direction of electric current is from positive terminal of a cell to the negative terminal through the outer circuit.
Statement Y : The actual direction of electric current is from negative terminal of a cell to the positive terminal through the outer circuit.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 19.
Match the following.

1) Electric current (I)	a) It
2) Average drift speed (Vd)	b) I/nqA
3) Electric charge (Q)	c) nqAvd

A) 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c
B) 1 → b, 2 → c, 3 → a
C) 1 → c, 2 → b, 3 → a
D) 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → b
Answer:
C) 1 → c, 2 → b, 3 → a

Question 20.
Calculate the drift speed of an electron in a copper wire carrying a current of 1 A and cross sectional area A = 10^-6m² [n = 8.5 × 10²⁸ m^-3]
A) 0.07 cm/s
B) 0.07 m/s
C) 7 x 10^-5m/s
D) Both B and C
Answer:
D) Both B and C

Question 21.
Electric current can be measured by …………………
A) a voltmeter
B) an ammeter
C) a cell
D) a resistor
Answer:
B) an ammeter

Question 22.
An ammeter is always connected in ……………… to the circuit
A) series
B) parallel
C) both series (or) parallel
D) none
Answer:
A) series

Question 23.
The amount of work done in moving a unit charge from one point to the other point in an electric circuit is called …………………..
A) potential difference
B) voltage
C) both A and B
D) wattage
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 24.
The equation for potential difference is ………………….
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{q}}\)
B) V = Wq
C) V = W ÷ q
D) V = W + q
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{q}}\)

Question 25.
The S.I unit of potential difference is ………………….
A) ampere
B) ohm
C) coloumb
D) volt
Answer:
D) volt

Question 26.
1 Joule /1 Coloumb = ……………………….
A) 1 ampere
B) 1 ohm
C) one volt
D) one coloumb
Answer:
C) one volt

Question 27.
Statement X : In case of metal conductors there will be only motion of negative charges.
Statement Y : In case of liquid conductors there will be only motion of positive charges.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 28.
Electrons move in this direction ………………….
A) higher potential to lower potential
B) lower potential to higher potential
C) higher temperature to lower temperature
D) lower temperature to higher temperature
Answer:
B) lower potential to higher potential

Question 29.
The potential difference between two points separated by a distance l in a conductor wire by the electric force on a free charge ‘q’ is …………………….
A) V= \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{l \mathrm{q}}\)
B) V = \(=\frac{l q}{F}\)
C) V = \(\frac{\text { F.l }}{\mathrm{q}}\)
D) none
Answer:
C) V = \(\frac{\text { F.l }}{\mathrm{q}}\)

Question 30.
The potential difference is measured by an instrument called ……………………
A) voltmeter
B) ammeter
C) ohm-meter
D) galvanometer
Answer:
A) voltmeter

Question 31.
The voltmeter is always connected in ………………….. across the two points where the potential difference to be measured.
A) series
B) parallel
C) either
D) neither
Answer:
B) parallel

Question 32.
Statement X : The voltmeter is always connected in parallel and it has a high resistance so that it takes negligible current from the circuit
Statement Y : The ammeter is always connected in series and it has a low resistance so that it may not change the current flowing in the circuit.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 33.
The e.m.f of a” battery is measured by an instrument called
A) ammeter
B) ohm-meter
C) voltmeter
D) galvanometer
Answer:
C) voltmeter

Question 34.
If a charge q is moving against an electric force F_e through a distance “d” between the terminals of a battery then the em/is ……………………..
A) F_e.dq
B) F_e/dq
C)F_ed/q
D)F_eq/d
Answer:
C)F_ed/q

Question 35.
The quantity which has SI unit as coloumb is ……………………..
A) Electric current
B) Electric capacitance
C) Electric charge
D) Electric potential
Answer:
C) Electric charge

Question 36.
A charge is moved from a point A to point B. The work done to move an unit charge during this process is called ……………………
A) potential at A
B) potential at B
C) potential difference between A and B
D) current from A to B
Answer:
C) potential difference between A and B

CONCEPT – II : Ohm’s law, Factors affecting the resistance of a material and series, parallel connection of resistors :

Question 37.
The potential difference between the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at constant temperature. This law is known as …………….
A) Ohm’s law
B) Joule’s law
C) Power’s law
D) Faraday’s law
Answer:
A) Ohm’s law

Question 38.
Which of the following is an equation for Ohm’s law ?
A) V = IR
B) I = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
C) R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 39.
The S.I unit of resistance is ……………………
A) volt
B) ohm
C) ampere
D) coloumb
Answer:
B) ohm

Question 40.
1 volt/1 ampere = ………………….
A) 1 coloumb
B) 1 joule
C) 1 watt
D) 1 ohm
Answer:
D) 1 ohm

Question 41.
The ratio of potential difference to current is ………………….
A) voltage
B) specific resistance
C) current
D) resistance
Answer:
D) resistance

Question 42.
Statement X: The materials which obey Ohm’s law are called ohmic materials.
Statement Y : The materials which do not obey ohm’s law are called non-ohmic conductors.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 43.
Ohm’s law is valid for …………………. conductors provided the temperature and other physical conditions remain constant.
A) gaseous
B) semiconductors
C) metal
D) none
Answer:
C) metal

Question 44.
Which of the following is a non-ohmic conductor?
A) germanium
B) silicon
C) LED
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 45.
Electrical resistance of a conductor was first determined by
A) Coloumb
B) Faraday
C) George simon Ohm
D) Ampere
Answer:
C) George simon Ohm

Question 46.
The V-I graph for a metal conductor will be …………………. when provided the temperature
and other physical conditions remain constant
A) non-linear
B) linear
C) parabola
D) curved graph
Answer:
B) linear

Question 47.
Which of the following V-I graph represents ohmic conductor ……………………….

Answer:

Question 48.
The substance having infinitely high electrical resistance is called ………………..
A) conductor
B) resistor
C) super conductor
D) insulator
Answer:
D) insulator

Question 49.
Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. The current will become
A) double
B) half
C) one-fourth
D) four-times
Answer:
B) half

Question 50.
Keeping the p.d constant, the resistance of a circuit is halved. The current will become
A) one-fourth
B) four times
C) half
D) double
Answer:
D) double

Question 51.
The p.d across a 3 Ω resistor is 6 V. The current flowing in the resistor will be ……………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)A
B) 3A
C) 2A
D) 6A
Answer:
C) 2A

Question 52.
When a 4 Ω resistor is connected across the terminal of a 12 V battery, the number of coloumbs passing through the resistor per second is …………………..
A) 0.3
B) 8
C) 3
D) 12
Answer:
C) 3

Question 53.
Find the resistance of a wire from the V-I graph

A) 10 Ω
B) 20 Ω
C) 30 Ω
D) 1 Ω
Answer:
A) 10 Ω

Question 54.
Find the current passing through the wire when p.d across a wire is 5 V from the V-I graph
A) 0.3 A
B) 0.1 A
C) 0.5 A
D) 5 A
Answer:
C) 0.5 A

Question 55.
Find the potential difference across a wire when the current passing through a wire is 0.8
A) 5 V
B) 8 V
C) 6 V
D) not defined
Answer:
B) 8 V

Question 56.
The above V-I graph represents …………………. conductor.
A) semi
B) gaseous
C) metallic
D) not defined
Answer:
C) metallic

Question 57.
Statement X : The obstruction to the motion of free electrons in a conductor is called resistance of the conductor.
Statement Y : The material which offers resistance to the motion of electrons is called resistor.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 58.
The V-I graph of two conductors of resistances and R2 are shown by A and B in the figure. Which is having greater resistance.

A) R₁
B, R₂
C) R₁ = R₂
D) not defined
Answer:
A) R₁

Question 59.
Match the following.

Current in ampere	Effect
1) 0.001	a) It does not affect the functioning of organs
2) 0.00024	b) Can be felt
3) 0.005	c) It can affect the functioning of heart
4) 0.07	d) It is painful

A) 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → c, 4 → d
B) 1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b,4 → a
C) 1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c
D) 1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → c, 4 → d
Answer:
C) 1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c

Question 60.
A bird does not get an electric shock when it stands on a high voltage single wire because
A) the body of a bird is an electric insulator
B) the current that passes through the body of a bird does not affect the organs inside the body.
C) there is no potential difference between the legs of a bird
D) none
Answer:
C) there is no potential difference between the legs of a bird

Question 61.
Statement X : The disturbance of the functioning of organs inside the human body is felt as electric shock Statement Y : The skin offers more resistance than the organs inside the human body.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 62.
The electric shock felt by a human body depends on ………………..
A) potential difference
B) electric current
C) resistance
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 63.
The electrical resistance of a conductor depends on …………………….
a) temperature of the conductor
b) nature of the material of the conductor
c) length of the conductor
d) area of cross-section of the conductor
A) onlyb
B) a, b and c
C) b, c and d
D) a, b, c and d
Answer:
D) a, b, c and d

Question 64.
The value of a resistance of a bulb …………………. when the temperature of a filament in a bulb increases for providing constant potential difference
A) increases
B) decreases
C) does not depend on temperature
D) none
Answer:
A) increases

Question 65.
The resistance of a conductor …………………. when the length of a conductor increased for providing constant temperature and cross-sectional area.
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
B) increases

Question 66.
Statement X : The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length at constant temperature and cross sectional area
Statement Y : A long wire has more resistance than a short wire made by the same material and cross – sectional area
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 67.
When the length of a wire is doubled, its resistance for same cross-sectional area
A) halved
B) four-times
C) one-fourth
D) doubled
Answer:
D) doubled

Question 68.
The resistance of a conductor ………………….. when the area of cross section of a conductor increased for same length and temperature
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains same
D) none
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 69.
A thick wire has a ………………… resistance than a thin wire
A) low
B) high
C) equal
D) zero
Answer:
A) low

Question 70.
Statement X : The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to its cross sectional area.
Statement Y : The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the square of its diameter.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 71.
If the diameter of a resistance wire is halved then its resistance becomes ………………………….
A) four times
B) half
C) one-fourth
D) two times
Answer:
A) four times

Question 72.
The resistance per unit length of a unit cross sectional area of the material is called …………………… of the material.
A) resistivity
B) specific resistance
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 73.
The S-I unit of resistivity is ……………………
A) ohm
B) meter
C) ohm-meter
D) ohm/meter
Answer:
C) ohm-meter

Question 74.
Statement X : The specific resistance of the conductor depends on the nature of the material, and temperature of the material.
Statement Y : The resistance of the material depends on the nature of the material, temperature and geometrical factors of the material.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 75.
Which of the following metal conductors has least resistivity value?
A) copper
B) silver
C) tungsten
D) Nichrome
Answer:
B) silver

Question 76.
Statement X : The materials with very low resistivity behave as good conductors.
Statements Y : The materials with very high resistivity behave as insulators.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true
Answer:
B) Both statements are false

Question 77.
Which of the following statement is false.
A) The values of resistivity of alloys are 30 – 100 times larger
B) The values of resistivity of alloys are smaller than those of metals
C) Alloys are use in the heating elements such as electric irons, toasters etc
D) Alloys don’t oxidise easily
Answer:
B) The values of resistivity of alloys are smaller than those of metals

Question 78.
Which materials are used to make diodes, transistors and integrated circuits?
A) Conductors
B) Insulators
C) Semiconductors
D) None
Answer:
C) Semiconductors

Question 79.
A wire of length lm and radius 0.1 mm has a resistance of 100 Ω. The resistivity of the material is ………………….
A) 3.14 × 10⁶ Ω – m
B) 3.14 × 10^-6 Ω – m
C) 3.14 Ω – m
D) 3.14 × 10^-8 Ω – m
Answer:
B) 3.14 × 10^-6 Ω – m

Question 80.
A uniform wire of resistance 100 Ω is melted and recast into wire of length double that of the original. The resistance of the new wire is ……………………..
A) 400 Ω
B) 200 Ω
C) 100 Ω
D) 300 Ω
Answer:
A) 400 Ω

Question 81.
Statement X: The sum of the individual resistances is equal to their equivalent resistance when the resistors are connected in series.
Statement Y : The same electrical current passes through all the resistors connected in series.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 82.
Statement X : The equivalent resistance of a series combination is greater than any of its component resistors.
Statement Y : When one of the resistors in series breaks down the circuit becomes open and flow of current can not take place in the circuit.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:

Question 83.
Statement X : When resistances are connected in parallel the reciprocal of equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of reciprocal of their individual resistances.
Statement Y : In parallel combination of resistors the potential difference across all the resistors is same.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 84.
The effective resistance of parallel combination is ………………… than that of any one of them.
A) greater
B) equal
C) less
D) none
Answer:
C) less

Question 85.
Three resistors of values 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 6 Ω are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of combination of resistors is …………………….
A) 10 Ω
B) 6 Ω
C) 1 Ω
D) 12 Ω
Answer:
D) 12 Ω

Question 86.
Three resistors of values 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of combination of resistors is …………………
A) 6 Ω
B) 1 Ω
C) 1.09 Ω
D) 12 Ω
Answer:
C) 1.09 Ω

Question 87.
A uniform wire of resistance 50 Ω is cut into five equal parts. These parts are now connected in parallel. Then the equivalent resistance of the combination is …………………….
A) 2 Ω
B) 12 Ω
C) 250 Ω
D) 6250 Ω
Answer:
A) 2 Ω

Question 88.
The graph between potential difference (X – axis) and current (Y – axis) for an iron spoke at constant temperature gives a ……………………
A) straight line parallel to X – axis
B) straight line parallel to Y – axis
C) straight line passing through the origin
D) curved line
Answer:
C) straight line passing through the origin

Question 89.
Two resistors of values x and x/2 are connected in parallel combination. Their effective resistance is ………………….
A) \(\frac{x}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{x}\)
C) \(\frac{3 x}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{x}{3}\)

Question 90.
A 100 Ω resistance is cut into five equal parts and are connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance is …………………..
A) 20 Ω
B) 100 Ω
C) 4 Ω
D) 5 Ω
Answer:
C) 4 Ω

Question 91.
If the length and diameter of a conductor both are halved, the resistance of the conductor becomes …………………….
A) 4 times
B) doubled
C) does not change
D) halved
Answer:
D) halved

Question 92.
In case of non-ohmic material, the V-I graph is ……………………

Answer:

Question 93.
Two resistors are connected in ……………….. then same current flows through two resistors.
A) series
B) parallel
C) series and parallel
D) none
Answer:
A) series

Question 94.
Three resistors 2 Ω, 3 Ω and R Ω are connected in series to a battery of voltage 20 V. If the current through the circuit is 1 ampere then the value of R is ………………… ohm.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 25
Answer:
C) 15

Question 95.
Three resistors each of value 3 Ω are connected, in parallel combination. Their equivalent resistance is …………………….
A) 9 Ω
B) 1 Ω
C) 0.33 Ω
D) 1.5 Ω
Answer:
B) 1 Ω

Question 96.
At constant temperature the ratio of potential difference to current is not constant for the following …………………….
A) iron
B) copper
C) light emitting diode
D) aluminium
Answer:
C) light emitting diode

Question 97.
If the potential difference in a circuit is 240 V and the resistance is 60 Ω then the current flowing through the circuit is …………………….
A) 300 A
B) 180 A
C) 0.25 A
D) 4 A
Answer:
A) 300 A

Question 98.
Three resistors of resistances 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The combination is connected to a battery of 8 V. The current in the circuit is ……………………
A) 4 A
B) 3 A
C) 6 A
D) 8 A
Answer:
C) 6 A

Question 99.
Which one of the following material has high resistivity
A) silicon
B) wet wood
C) glass
D) rubber
Answer:
D) rubber

Question 100.
The equivalent resistance is 8 Ω when two resistances are connected in series and 1.5 Ω when they are connected in parallel then the values of these resistances is ……………………….
A) 2, 0.75
B) 6, 0.75
C) 0.75, 0.75
D) 2, 6
Answer:
D) 2, 6

Question 101.
Read the following two statements and pick the correct answer
a) Semi conductors obey the Ohm’s law.
b) Metallic conductors obey the Ohm’s law.
A) only a is true
B) only b is true
C) both a and b are true
D) both a and b are false.
Answer:
B) only b is true

Question 102.
Which among the following materials have their resistivity of the order of 10¹⁴ to 10¹⁶ Ω – m
A) conductors
B) semiconductors
C) insulators
D) all
Answer:
C) insulators

Question 103.
Which one among the following statements is true ?
A) Resistance of a conductor is independent of it’s length
B) Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length
C) Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to its length
D) Resistance of a conductor is indepen-dent of its temperature.
Answer:
B) Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length

Question 104.
Volt per ampere is called
A) watt
B) coloumb
C) farad
D) ohm
Answer:
D) ohm

Question 105.
Which among the following quantities has the unit ohm-meter
A) Resistance
B) Resistivity
C) Charge
D) Potential
Answer:
B) Resistivity

Question 106.
Which among the material has greater resistivity at room temperature ?
A) Iron
B) Glass
C) Gold
D) Germanium
Answer:
B) Glass

Question 107.
Three resistors each of 6 Ω are connected in the form of a triangle. The resistance across any two corners of the triangle is
A) 0.25 Ω
B) 6 Ω
C) 4 Ω
D) 18 Ω
Answer:
C) 4 Ω

Question 108.
A potential difference of 40 V is maintained across a conductor of resistance 20 Ω at constant temperature. The current passing through it is in amperes …………………..
A) 0.05
B) 80
C) 20
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 109.
Statement X : R₁, R₂ and R₃ resistors are connected in series. The equivalent resistance R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃.
Statement Y : R₁, R₂ and R₃ resistors are connected in parallel. The reciprocal of equivalent resistance \(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}}=\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{3}}\)
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

CONCEPT – 3 : Kirchhoff’s laws and Electric power

Question 110.
Which of following laws are called Kirchhoff’s laws ?
A) Junction law
B) Loop law
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 111.
Which of the following Kirchhoff’s law is based on the conservation of charge?
A) Junction law
B) Loop law
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
A) Junction law

Question 112.
Which of the following Kirchhoff’s law is based on the conservation of energy?
A) Junction law
B) Loop law
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
B) Loop law

Question 113.
Statement X : At any Junction point in a circuit where the current divides the sum of the currents into the junction must equal the sum of the currents leaving the junction.
Statement Y : The algebraic sum of the increases and decreases in potential differences across various components of a closed circuit loop must be zero.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 114.
Statement X : According to Junction law there is no accumulation of electric charges at any junction point in a circuit.
Statement Y : According to Loop law the algebraic sum of changes in potential differences is equal to zero when we have completely traversed the circuit loop.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 115.
Statement X : emf of a battery is taken as positive when we move from negative terminal to positive terminal across the battery in a closed circuit loop.
Statement Y : emf of a battery is taken as positive when we move from positive terminal to negative terminal across the battery in a closed circuit loop.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
C) X is true, Y is false

Question 116.
Statement X : The potential difference across the resistor is taken as negative when we move along the direction of electric current in a closed circuit.
Statement Y : The potential difference across the resistor is taken as positive when we move against the direction of electric current in a closed circuit.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) X is true, Y is false
D) X is false, Y is true.
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 117.
Apply Kirchhoff’s Junction law and find i₃ value of the following figure.

A) 19 A
B) 5 A
C) 2 A
D) 1 A
Answer:
B) 5 A

Question 118.
Read the following statement and indicate which law states that “There is no accumulation of electric charge at any junction in an electric circuit.”
A) Kirchhoff’s Junction law
B) Kirchhoff’s Loop law
C) Ohm’s law
D) Coloumb’s law
Answer:
A) Kirchhoff’s Junction law

Question 119.
In the figure the potential at A is ……………………. when the potential at B is zero.

A) 5 V
B) 7 V
C) 2 V
D) 0V
Answer:
B) 7 V

Question 120.
According to Kirchhoff’s laws which of the following equation is correct from the figure ?

A) For the loop ACDBA
-V₂ + I₂R₂ – I₁R₁ + V₁ = 0
B) For the loop EFDCE
-(I₁ + I₂)R₃ – I₂R₂ + V₂ = 0
C) For the loop EFBAE
-(I₁ + I₂)R₃ – I₁R₁+ V₁ = 0
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 121.
Consider the following statements.
X : In series connection the same current flows through each element.
Y : In parallel connection the same potential difference gets applied across each element.
A) Both X and Y are correct
B) X is correct but Y is wrong
C) X is wrong but Y is correct
D) Both X and Y are wrong
Answer:
A) Both X and Y are correct

Question 122.
The equation for electric power is …………………….
A) P = VI
B) P = I²R
C) P = V²/R
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 123.
1 Volt × 1 Ampere = ………………….
A) 1 – watt
B) 1 – volt
C) 1 – ampere
D) 1 – ohm
Answer:
A) 1 – watt

Question 124.
The S.I unit of electric power is ………………………
A) watt
B) kilo watt
C) kilo watt hour
D) watt hour
Answer:
A) watt

Question 125.
The kilo watt hour is the unit of ……………………..
A) electric power
B) electrical energy
C) electrical current
D) none
Answer:
B) electrical energy

Question 126.
1 KWH = ……………………
A) 36 × 10⁶ J
B) 3.6 × 10⁵ J
C) 3.6 × 10⁶ J
D) 36 × 10 ⁵J
Answer:
C) 3.6 × 10⁶ J

Question 127.
The current in the wire depends …………………..
A) only on the potential difference applied
B) only on the resistance of the wire
C) on both of them
D) none of them
Answer:
C) on both of them
Question 128.
The power delivered by a battery of emf 10 V is 10 W. Then the current delivered
by the battery is …………………
A) 10 A
B) 1 A
C) 100 A
D) 0.1 A
Answer:
B) 1 A

Question 129.
Observe the circuit. The power consumed by the resistor R₂ is P. The power consumed by the resistor R₂ when the resistor R₁ is removed from the circuit is …………………. (take R₁ = R₂)

A) 2P
B) P/2
C) P
D) 4P
Answer:
B) P/2

Question 130.
Which of the following is correct regarding electricity
A) P = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
B) P = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
C) P = V²R
D) P = VIR
Answer:
A) P = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)

Question 131.
A bulb is marked 70 W and 210 V. The resistance is ………………….
A) 210 Ω
B) 70 Ω
C) 280 Ω
D) 630 Ω
Answer:
D) 630 Ω

Question 132.
An electric bulb is marked 40 W and 120 V. It means that in one second it converts …………………….
A) 120 J of electric energy into heat or light
B) 40 J of electric energy into heat or light
C) 160 J of electric energy into heat or light
D) 3 J of electric energy into heat or light
Answer:
B) 40 J of electric energy into heat or light

Question 133.
A bulb of resistance 200 Ω is connected to a 10 V battery. The power consumption is ……………………
A) 2 W
B) 20 W
C) 0.5 W
D) 0.05 W
Answer:
C) 0.5 W

Question 134.
Which of the following is used to prevent damages due to overloading to the household circuit ?
A) switch
B) fuse
C) resistance
D) all
Answer:
B) fuse

Question 135.
The unit generally used for power consumption is …………………..
A) kilo watt
B) volt
C) ampere
D) ohm
Answer:
A) kilo watt

Question 136.
In an electric circuit fuse is connected in …………………..
A) series to neutral wire
B) series to live wire
C) parallel to neutral wire
D) parallel to live wire
Answer:
B) series to live wire

Question 137.
An electric bulb of 360 Ω resistance is connected to a 6 V battery. The power consumption is ………………………
A) 0.1 W
B) 3 W
C) 3W
D) 20 W
Answer:
A) 0.1 W

Question 138.
If V is the voltage, R is the resistance and I is the current then the equation for electric power is …………………….
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
B) IR²
C) V²R
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)

Question 139.
Overloading of household circuit means …………………..
A) Increasing the number of electric appliances consuming power more than 4.8 KW
B) The household circuits draw the current from mains more than 20 A
C) The household circuits draw the current from mains more than 40 A
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 140.
In an experiment verification of Ohm’s law following observations are obtained.

Choose the correct statement from the following.
A) V = 1.25 V when I = 0.5A
B) I = 0.3A when V = 0.75 A
C) Resistance in circuit is 2.5 £2
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 141.
Two bulbs have ratings 100 W, 220 V and 60 W, 220 V. Which of the following statement is true.
A) Two bulbs have same resistance
B) The bulb 100 W has greater resistance than 60 W
C) The bulb 60 W has greater resistance than 100 W.
D) None
Answer:
C) The bulb 60 W has greater resistance than 100 W.

Question 142.
A house has 3 tube lights and two fans. Each tube light draws 40 W and each fan draws 80 W. On the average all the tube lights and fan work 5 hours every day. Find the electrical energy consumed in 30 days.
A) 1 KWH
B) 2 KWH
C) 52 KWH
D) 52000 KWH
Answer:
C) 52 KWH

Question 143.
Which of the following statement is incorrect
A) All the electrical devices of our home are connected in parallel connection.
B) The fuse consists of a thin wire of low melting point.
C) To prevent damages due to overloading we connect an electric fuse wire in series in the electric circuit.
D) The fuse wire consists of a thick wire of high melting point.
Answer:
D) The fuse wire consists of a thick wire of high melting point.

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Folk Religion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Folk Religion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………… is the most popular folk goddess of Andhra Pradesh.
A) Ganganamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Renuka
Answer:
B) Pochamma

Question 2.
The Goddess is believed to protect the cattle.
A) Maisamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Ganganamma
Answer:
A) Maisamma

Question 3.
……….. is worshipped as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Katta Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katta Maisamma

Question 4.
With whose blessings crops flourish?
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Somalamma
D) Katta Maisamma
Answer:
D) Katta Maisamma

Question 5.
Fishermen worship ………….. as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 6.
………….. is also called Polimeramma.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Maritemma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 7.
…………….. guards the boundaries of the village.
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 8.
People mainly pray to …………… to prevent epidemics like cholera.
A) Maisamma
B) Ganganamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 9.
……………… is the famons fair celebrated in Northern Andhra Pradesh.
A) Medaram Jathara
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara
C) Yellamma Jatara
D) Ammavari Jatara
Answer:
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara

Question 10.
The deity, who looks after agricultural lands, is
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 11.
The deity who protects the crops from dreadful diseases
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Yellamma
D) Gangamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 12.
…………. is sacrificed as an offering to Potharaju when the crop is harvested.
A) Cock
B) Goat
C) Buffalo
D) Sheep
Answer:
A) Cock

Question 13.
……………….. and ……………. are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities.
A) Potharaju and Pydithalli
B) Potharaju and Yellamma
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju
D) Potharaju and Beerappa
Answer:
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju

Question 14.
……………… fought for the grazing rights of the animal herders.
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Katama raju
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katama raju

Question 15.
………….. and …………….. laid down their lives in defense of the tribal people.
A) Yellamma and Pydithalli
B) Beerappa and Potharaju
C) Sammakka and Sarakka
D) Pochamma and Pydithalli
Answer:
C) Sammakka and Sarakka

Question 16.
This should be taken to please the Gods.
A) Bonalu
B) Plants
C) Birds
D) Animals
Answer:
A) Bonalu

Question 17.
The village deities particularly belong to these
A) castes
B) villages
C) families
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
Sirimanu Utsavam is celebrated during the month of
A) Sept. (or) Oct.
B) Dec. (or) Jan.
C) Jan. (or) Feb
D) Oct. (or) Nov.
Answer:
A) Sept. (or) Oct.

Question 19.
There is a temple in every village in Andhra Pradesh
A) Renukamma
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pochamma

Question 20.
Pochamma temple is almost near this tree
A) Marri
B) Maredu
C) Neredu
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

Question 21.
How do people worship Pochamma in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Through Pujari
B) Through Brahmin
C) Through customs and traditions of local people
D) Through Sanyasis
Answer:
C) Through customs and traditions of local people

Question 22.
“Mother, keep away all infectious diseases and evils from our family” – This is the prayer of Andhra Pradesh people to this goddess.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Poleramma
Answer:
A) Pochamma

Question 23.
……………. Utsavam is an important aspect in Sirimanu Utsavam.
A) Jatara
B) Tollela
C) Toranam
D) None
Answer:
B) Tollela

Question 24.
Among the cattle sheds, a niche is whitewashed and decorated with ’Kumkuma’ and called as ……………..
A) Pasuvula goodu
B) Gangamma goodu
C) Maisamma goodu
D) Yellamma goodu
Answer:
C) Maisamma goodu

Question 25.
In many places, ……………… is also worshipped as a goddess of water in the form of a small stone on the tank bund.
A) Pochamma
B) Katta-maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Katta-maisamma

Question 26.
Poor and Orphans are protected by this goddess
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 27.
She is a goddess who protects fishermen who go out into the sea.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Gangamma

Question 28.
This goddess is also called as Polimeramma, Mariaemma, Renuka, Mahankali, Jogamma, Somalamma and by other names.
A) Yellamma
B) Jogulamba
C) Gangamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
A) Yellamma

Question 29.
It is believed that she will ensure that the tank is full.
A) Jogulamba
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Maisamma
Answer:
D) Maisamma

Question 30.
The farmers of Andhra Prade&h believe that …………. looks after their agricultural land and crops and protects the crops from dreadful diseases, thieves and animals.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 31.
The farmers keep a small stone painted in white in a corner of their field and worshipped it as
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Beerappa
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 32.
They are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju
B) Sivudu, Parvathi
C) Sri Rama, Sita
D) Mallappa, Somasekhar
Answer:
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju

Question 33.
It is a general practice to offer in most of the folk festivals.
A) human sacrifice
B) animal sacrifice
C) eating neem flowers
D) wearing leaves of trees
Answer:
B) animal sacrifice

Question 34.
Many of the folk gods and goddesses were actually
A) local heroes
B) local kings
C) who died fighting in defence of their people
D) both A & C
Answer:
D) both A & C

Question 35.
Two folk heroines who laid down their lives in defence of the tribal people were
A) Sammakka, Sarakka
B) Achamamba, Lakkamamba
C) Tirupatamba, Gopaiah
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Sammakka, Sarakka

Question 36.
Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara was celebrated by the Girijans of this village
A) Sirisilla
B) Bhadrachalam
C) Medaram
D) Jupalli
Answer:
C) Medaram

Question 37.
Sirimanu Utsavam : Vijayanagaram :: Chengalamma Jatara: ………….
A) Sullurupet
B) Nellore
C) Renigunta
D) Tirupati
Answer:
A) Sullurupet

Question 38.
Siri means …………. and ………….
A) Stump and out
B) lean and small
C) stick and loose
D) None
Answer:
B) lean and small

Question 39.
Manu means ………….. and …………….
A) stump or stick
B) lean and small
C) big and small
D) None
Answer:
A) stump or stick

Question 40.
…………. is placed on Sirimanu during the celebration of the festival.
A) Srimanu
B) Pyditalli
C) Flowers
D) None
Answer:
B) Pyditalli

Question 41.
Srlmanu Utsavam is also known as ………… utsavam.
A) Gangamma
B) Poleramma
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pyditalli

Question 42.
This festival is celebrated on the death of the grandson of Prophet Mohammad.
A) Abdullah
B) Ramzan
C) Moharram
D) None
Answer:
C) Moharram

Question 43.
Anniversaries of Muslim saints, who lie buried in various parts of the state are celebrated.
A) Vardhanthotsavam
B) Urs Utsav
C) Flag Utsav
D) Flower Utsav
Answer:
B) Urs Utsav

Question 44.
This Utsavas stand good for religious tolerance.
A) Moharram, Urs
B) Ouliya Utsavas
C) Urdu Utsavas
D) Salim, Allah Utsavas
Answer:
A) Moharram, Urs

Question 45.
People believe that these masters have miraculous powers.
A) Shia
B) Sufi
C) Ouliya
D) Allah
Answer:
B) Sufi

Question 46.
The place where the Ameen Peer Dargah is located.
A) YSR Kadapa District
B) Siripur-Kagaj Nagar (Adilabad)
C) Bhadrachalam (Khammam)
D) Begumpeta (Ranga Reddy)
Answer:
A) YSR Kadapa District

Question 47.
Every year annual Urs celebrations are held for three days beginning on Thursday coming after this festival.
A) Diwali
B) Dussehra
C) Sankranthi
D) Ugadi
Answer:
C) Sankranthi

Question 48.
During Bonalu, women folk participate in the procession carrying on their heads.
A) Brass vessels
B) Ande
C) Bonam
D) Ghatam
Answer:
D) Ghatam

Question 49.
The worship of nagas, trees, yakshas and yakshinis even some years ago.
A) 2000
B) 2500
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2500

Question 50.
The written by Srinatha around 1450s mentions the worship of Potharaju.
A) Palnati Virula Katha
B) Rudra Vijayam
C) Rasa Ratnakaram
D) Gangadhara Vijayam
Answer:
A) Palnati Virula Katha

Question 51.
Vallabharaya’s Kridabhiramamu written around the same time describes in detail the worship of the ………..
A) Palnati Veeras
B) Mailara in Warangal
C) Many mother Goddesses in Warangal
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 52.
These farmers also participate in the prayers of folk Goddesses.
A) Jat
B) Muslim
C) Christian
D) Jewish
Answer:
B) Muslim

Question 53.
The high religious traditions too worship.
A) Peepul tree
B) Snakes
C) Mother goddesses
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
A very strong tradition of to darghas and urs developed in which people of all faiths participate.
A) Pilgrimages
B) Prayers
C) Urs
D) Philosophical thinking
Answer:
A) Pilgrimages

Question 55.
These poems of great wisdom were composed 300 years ago in Telugu.
A) Sumathi Satakam
B) Vemana Satakam
C) Kunalamma Patalu
D) Yenki geethalu
Answer:
B) Vemana Satakam

Question 56.
A) Hindu : Bhagavadgita:: Christian : ………..
A) Zend Avesta
B) Quran
C) Bible
D) Ramayana
Answer:
C) Bible

Question 57.
Find the correct statement.
1. Pocharnma is the most popular folk goddess of Adi
2. Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara is also called Medaram Jatara.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 58.
Gangamma : Fishermen : : KatamaRaju: …………..
A) Shepherd
B) Lawyers
C) Fanners
D) Agriculture
Answer:
A) Shepherd

Question 59.
This picture shows

A) Yellamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potha Raju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potha Raju

Question 60.
The belief behind conducting Bonalu
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature
B) To eat well
C) To clean tanks
D) To go foreign trips
Answer:
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature

Question 61.
The picture shows

A) Sammakka Jatara
B) Yellamma Jatara
C) Sirimanu Utsavam
D) Maisamma Jatara
Answer:
C) Sirimanu Utsavam

Question 62.
Rottela Panduga : Nellore : : Ameen- peer Dargah : …………
A) Guntur
B) Prakasam
C) Chittoor
D) YSR Kadapah
Answer:
D) YSR Kadapah

Question 63.
Amin peer Darga located in this district
A) SPSR Nellore
B) YSR Kadapa
C) Chittoor
D) Guntur
Answer:
B) YSR Kadapa

Practice the AP 0th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 2nd Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

CONCEPT – I Properties Of Acids and Bases

Question 1.
Indicators are used to detect the nature of the solution for
A) Acidity
B) Basicity
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 2.
……………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solutions
A) Sour
B) Bitter
C) Salty
D) Sweet
Answer:
A) Sour

Question 3.
Bases tend to taste …………….. and feel …………
A) sour, pleasant to touch
B) bitter, slippery to touch
C) sour, slippery to touch
D) None of these
Answer:
B) bitter, slippery to touch

Question 4.
Acids turn …………… litmus to ………………..litmus
A) red, red
B) blue, red
C) red, blue
D) blue, blue
Answer:
B) blue, red

Question 5.
Natural indicators are prepared from…..
i) plants
ii) petrochemicals
iii) living organisms
iv) minerals
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both i and iii
D) both ii and iv
Answer:
C) both i and iii

Question 6.
Natural indicators among these
i) litmus
ii) extract of red cabbage
iii) methyl orange
iv) turmeric
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iv
D) All
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Question 7.
The colour of turmeric in basic solutions is………
A) blue
B) red
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
B) red

Question 8.
Synthetic indicator among these
A) Methyl red
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Methyl orange
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 9.
Match the following.
a) hydrochloric acid — i) H₂SO₄
b) sulphuric acid — ii) CH₃COOH
c) nitric acid — iii) HCl
d) acetic acid — iv) HNO₃
A) a → i, b→ii, c →iii, d → iv
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii
C) a →i, b →iii, c →iv, d → ii
D) a → i, b → iv, c →iii, d → ii
Answer:
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii

Question 10.
As aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as
A) electrolytes
B) bad conductors
C) good conductors
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 11.
Acids turn methyl orange into ……………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
A) red

Question 12.
Bases turn methyl orange into …………………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
C) yellow

Question 13.
Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct …………, and are identified as ………………
A) heat, electrolytes
B) electricity, electrolytes
C) electricity, nonelectrolytes
D) heat, partial electrolytes
Answer:
B) electricity, electrolytes

Question 14.
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is ………………….
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

Question 15.
Match the following.
a) Sodium hydroxide — i) Ca(OH)₂
b) Calcium hydroxide — ii) NH₄OH
c) Magnesium hydroxide — iii) Mg(OH)₂
d) Ammonium hydroxide — iv) NaOH
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → i,b → iii,c → ii,d → iv
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii
D) a → iv,b → iii,c → ii,d → i
Answer:
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii

Question 16.
Olfactory indicators are those indicators whose …….. change in acidic or basic media.
A) colour
B) odour
C) state
D) taste
Answer:
B) odour

Question 17.
The following will act as olfactory indicator.
A) onion
B) vanilla essence
C) clove oil
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 18.
The gas released in this experiment is.,

A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) chlorine
D) carbon dioxide
Answer:
B) hydrogen

Question 19.
More reactive metals react with acids and liberate …………….. gas.
A) O₂
B) H₂
C) Cl₂
D) C0₂
Answer:
B) H₂

Question 20.
Complete the reaction
2NaOH + Zn → ………………… + ………………………
A) NaCZ, H₂
B) ZnO₂, NaH₂
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂
D) Na₂O, H₂O
Answer:
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂

Question 21.
Name the parts in the diagram.

A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube
B) 1 – Cork, 2 – stand
C) 1 – Test tube, 2 – boiling tube
D) 1 – Sodium carbonate,
2 – hydrochloric acid
Answer:
A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube

Question 22.
Active metals react with acids and form
A) salt, hydrogen
B) salt, water
C) salt, nitrogen
D) salt, oxygen
Answer:
A) salt, hydrogen

Question 23.
A solution reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution contains
A) NaCZ
B) HCZ
C) LiCZ
D) KCZ
Answer:
B) HCZ

Question 24.
What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) No gas is produced
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

Question 25.
Metal oxides are generally …………… in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 26.
Non metal oxides are generally……. in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
A) Acidic

Question 27.
Identify the odd one.
A) Glucose
B) Alcohol
C) Acetone
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

Question 28.
………… is common to all adds.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) H₃O⁺
C) OH^–
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 29.
…….. does not change colour of dry blue litmus.
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulphuric acid
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas

Question 30.
……. is common for all bases.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) OH^–_(aq)
C) H₃O⁺
D) OH⁺
Answer:
B) OH^–_(aq)

Question 31.
In water H⁺ ions exists as
A) H₃O⁺
B) hydroniumion
C) OH^–
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 32.
If a base dissolves in wafer by what name it is better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

Question 33.
The process of dissolving an acid or base in water is ………….. process.
A) endothermic
B) exothermic
C) isothermal
D) adiabatic
Answer:
B) exothermic

Question 34.
Mixing of an acid or base with water result in decrease in the concentration of H₃O⁺ /0H ^– per unit volume is called
A) hydration
B) dehydration
C) hydrolysis
D) dilution
Answer:
D) dilution

Question 35.
……………….. is slightly soluble in water
A) NaOH
B) KOH
C) Be(OH)₂
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Be(OH)₂

Question 36.
The nature of substance that converts blue litmus to red, but no change of colour with red litmus is
A) Base
B) Neutral
C) Acid
D) Can’t decide
Answer:
C) Acid

Question 37.
Phenolphthalein indicator gets pink colour with
A) HCl solution
B) NaOH solution
C) H₂ SO₄ solution
D) CH₃ COOH solution
Answer:
B) NaOH solution

Question 38.
HCl solution with Na₂ CO₃ and NaHCO₃ produces
A) H₂ gas
B) NaH (sodium hydride)
C) H₂ CO₃
D) CO₂ gas
Answer:
D) CO₂ gas

Question 39.
Which of the following solutions convert red litmus paper to blue
A) HCl
B) HNO₂
C) NaOH
D) None
Answer:
C) NaOH

Question 40.
Which of the following solutions give yellow colour with methyl orange indicator.
A) NaOH
B) CH₃ COOH
c) Ha
D) H₂ SO₄
Answer:
A) NaOH

Question 41.
The formula of sodium zincate is
A) 2NaZnO
B) Na₂ ZnO₂
C) NaZnO₂
D) NaZnO
Answer:
B) Na₂ ZnO₂

Question 42.
Olfactory indicator from the following is oaEaga
A) turmeric
B) onion
C) methyl orange
D) litmus paper
Answer:
B) onion

Question 43.
Pair of strong acid and strong base from the following is
A) HCl, NH₄
B) CH₃COOH, NH₄OH
C) CH₃COOH, NaOH
D) HCl, NaOH
Answer:
D) HCl, NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following produces more OH^– ions ?
A) HCl solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NH₄OH solution
D) NaOH solution
Answer:
D) NaOH solution

Question 45.
Which one of the following produces more number of H₃O<sup+ ions
A) HCZ solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NaOH solution
D) Mg(OH)₂ solution
Answer:
A) HCZ solution

Question 46.
Which of the following is a weak base?
A) KOH
B) NaOH
C) NH₄OH
D) None of these
Answer:
C) NH₄OH

Question 47.
When Zn is added to aqueous NaOH and on heating it forms
A) ZnO
B) Na₂ZnO₂
C) O₂
D) Na₂O
Answer:
B) Na₂ZnO₂

Question 48.
Which one of the following is an acid?
A) NaCZ
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) HNO₃
D) NaNO₃
Answer:
C) HNO₃

Question 49.
Which of the following indicators gives red colour-in acid solution ?
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Bromothymol blue
Answer:
A) Methyl orange

Question 50.
Which of the following is a mineral acid?
A) Oxalic add
B) Citric acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Phosphoric acid
Answer:
D) Phosphoric acid

Question 51.
A student added dil. HCZ to a test tube containing zinc granules and made the following observations.
i) The zinc surface becomes dull and black
ii) The gas evolved is burnt with a pop sound
iii) The solution remains colourless The correct observations are
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
D) i, ii and iii

Question 52.
A student added few drops of universal indicator to a given colourless sample and observed the sample turning to red. The nature of sample is
A) neutral’solution
B) acid
C) base
D) either acid or base
Answer:
B) acid

CONCEPT – II Neutralization Reactions

Question 53.
When metal carbonate reacts with acid the products foiled are
A) salt
B) water
C) carbon dioxide
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 54.
Lime water turns into milky white due to the formation of
i) CaO
ii) Ca(OH)₂
iii) CaCO₃
iv) Ca(HCO₃)₂
A) only i
B) only ii
C) only iii
D) both ii and iii
Answer:
C) only iii

Question 55.
Statement I : When carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into milky.
Statement II : When excess of carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into colourless.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and statement II is false
C) Statement I is false statement II is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 56.
The colourless solution formed when excess of CO₂ is passed through slaked lime is
A) CaO
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) CaCO₃
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂

Question 57.
When acid reacts with base it forms salt and water then the reaction is called
A) Hydrolysis
B) Esterification
C) Neutralization
D) Dehydration
Answer:
C) Neutralization

Question 58.
Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid – base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base »neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

Question 59.
Whichofthefollowingsubstanceswhen mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

Question 60.
Base reacts with…………….. to produce salt and
A) base, water
B) acid, water
C) salt,water
D) base, salt
Answer:
B) acid, water

Question 61.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating irritation in stomach ?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

Question 62.
The following are neutralization reactions.
i) Acid reacts with base to form salt and water
ii) Acid reacts with metal oxide to form salt and water
iii) Base reacts with non-metal oxide to form salt and water.
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 63.
Antacids are
A) strong acids
B) weak acids
C) strong bases
D) weak bases
Answer:
D) weak bases

Question 64.
The chemical name of milk of magnesia is…….
A) calcium hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) potassium hydroxide
D) magnesium carbonate
Answer:
B) magnesium hydroxide

Question 65.
Family of chloride salts are
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) MgCl₂
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 66.
Milk of magnesia is
A) MgO
B) Mg(OH)₂
C) MgCl₂
D) Mg(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
B) Mg(OH)₂

Question 67.
The pH of milk of magnesia is
A) 7 – 8
B) 6 – 7
C) 10 – 11
D) 4 – 5
Answer:
A) 7 – 8

Question 68.
HCl + H₂O → X⁺ + Cl^– Then X may be
A) H₃O⁺
B) OH^–
C) HOCl
D) H₂O⁺
Answer:
A) H₃O⁺

Question 69.
Which of the following bases is used in antacids ?
A) Ca(OH)₂
B) NaOH
C) Mg(OH)₂
D) NH₄OH
Answer:
C) Mg(OH)₂

Question 70.
…………….. is used for treating indigestion.
A) Antibiotic
B) Analgesic
C) Antacid
D) Antiseptic
Answer:
C) Antacid

Question 71.
Antacids are used
A) to produce acid in the stomach
B) to produce water in the stomach
C) to neutralise the excess base in the Stomach
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach
Answer:
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach

CONCEPT – III : pH and Its Applications

Question 72.
…………… can be used to know the strength of acid or base
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Universal indicators
Answer:
D) Universal indicators

Question 73.
The ‘p’ in pH stands for
A) potential
B) pressure
C) momentum
D) potenz
Answer:
D) potenz

Question 74.
Match the following.
a) acids — i) pH < 7 b) bases — ii) pH = 7 c) neutral — iii) pH > 7
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii
B) a → i, b →ii, c → iii
C) a → iii, b → ii, c → i
D) a → ii, b →i, c → iii
Answer:
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii

Question 75.
Match the following.
a) acid rain — i) pH below 5.5
b) tooth decay — ii) Milkof magnesia
c) antacid — iii) pH below 5.6
d) bee sting — iv) Methanoic acid
A) a → ii, b →i, c →iii, d → iv
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv
C) a →i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
D) a → i, b →iii, c →ii, d → iv
Answer:
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv

Question 76.
If the soil is acidic it is treated with……
A) Calcium hydroxide
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Acetic acid
D) A or B
Answer:
D) A or B

Question 77.
If the pH of a solution is 13.8 then it is
A) weak acid
B) weak base
C) strong acid
D) strong base
Answer:
D) strong base

Question 78.
Salt formed from a weak acid and strong base pH value is ……………..
A) < 7 B) > 7
C) 7
D) ≤ 7
Answer:
B) > 7

Question 79.
pH scale is introduced by
A) Sorensen
B) Mosley
C) Schrodinger
D) C.V. Raman
Answer:
A) Sorensen

Question 80.
A solution turned pink when a drop of phenolphthalein was added to it. The probable pH .of that solution is
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 81.
Which of the following solutions has pH greater than 7 ?
A) CH₃COOH
B) NH₄Cl
C) NaCl
D) CH₃COONa
Answer:
D) CH₃COONa

Question 82.
Dissociation of ions in aqueous acetic acid is reversible process because it is a
A) weak acid
B) strong, acid
C) weak base
D) strong base
Answer:
A) weak acid

Question 83.
Tooth decay start when the pH value of mouth is
A) 5.4
B) 5.6
C) 5.7
D) 5.8
Answer:
A) 5.4

Question 84.
If a solution turns blue litmus to red then its pH is likely to be
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Answer:
A) 5

Question 85.
Metal oxide + Acid → ……………..
A) salt + metal
B) salt + water
C) base + water
D) Non metallic oxide + base
Answer:
B) salt + water

CONCEPT – IV: Sortie Common Chemicals

Question 86.
The example for salt having acidic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
C) NH₄Cl

Question 87.
The example for salt having basic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
D) CH₃COONA

Question 88.
Brine solution among these is ……………….
A) NaCl(_aq )
B) KCl(_aq)
C) NH₄Cl(_aq )
D) MgCl₂(_aq )
Answer:
A) NaCl(_aq )

Question 89.
The products formed in chlor-alkali process are
i) H₂
ii) Cl₂
iii) NaOH
iv) Na₂CO₃
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 90.
The gases released at cathode and anode during chlor-alkali process
A) H₂/Cl₂
B) Cl₂,H₂
C) H₂, O₂
D) O₂, H₂
Answer:
A) H₂/Cl₂

Question 91.
Match the following
a) Bleaching powder i) NaHCO₃
b) Baking soda ii) CaOCl₂
c) Washing soda iii) HCOOH
d) Formic acid iv) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii
C) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
D) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
Answer:
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii

Question 92.
……………. is used for disinfecting prinking water to make it free from germs.
A) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
B) NaHCO₃
C) CaOCl₂
D) Mg(OH)₂
Answer:
C) CaOCl₂

Question 93.
Baking powder is mixture of…………….and …………….
A) Baking soda, citric acid
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid
C) Washing soda, tartaric acid
D) Washing soda, citric acid
Answer:
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid

Question 94.
……………. is used in soda – acid extinguishers
i) Baking soda
ii) NaHCO₃
iii) CaOCl₂
iv) H₂SO₄
A) only i
B) Both i and ii
C) only iii
D) Both iii and iv
Answer:
B) Both i and ii

Question 95.
Washing soda is……………salt.
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Neutral
D) Amphoteric
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 96.
The water of crystallisation of hydrous copper sulphate is
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 5

Question 97.
The colour of hydrous copper sulphate is …………………
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
C) blue

Question 98.
The colour of anhydrous copper sulphate is. …………..
A) white
B) blue
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
A) white

Question 99.
Match the following. .
a) Gypsum — i) CuSO₄. 5H₂O
b) Plaster of pans — ii) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
c) Hydrous copper sulphate — iii) CaSO₄\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
d) Anhydrous copper sulphate — iv) CuSO₄
A) a → i, b →ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv
D) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv

Question 100.
Which of the following is an antiseptic
A) Na₂CO₃
B) NaHCO₃
C) NaCl
D) Na₂SO₄
Answer:
B) NaHCO₃

Question 101.
Match the following.
i) Milk of magnesia — CaOCl₂
ii) Gypsum — Mg(OH)₂
iii) Bleaching powder — Na₂CO₃
iv) Washing soda — CaSO₄. 2H₂O
A) i → a, ii → c, iii → d, iv → b
B) i → d, ii → b, iii → a,iv → c
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c
C) i → b, ii → d, iii → a, iv → c
Answer:
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c

Question 102.
Which of the following salt solutions are basic in nature
A) NaiCl
B) NH₄Cl
C) Na₂CO₃
D) KCl
Answer:
C) Na₂CO₃

Question 103.
Which of the following compound is used in glass, paper and soap industry?
A) Washing soda
B) Baking soda
C) Calcium hydroxide
D) Plaster of pads
Answer:
A) Washing soda

Question 104.
The formula of gypsum is
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O
B) CaSO₄,3H₂O
C) CaOCl₂
D) CaSO₄.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
Answer:
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O

Question 105.
The chemical formula of plaster of pans is
A) CuSO₄.5H₂O
B) CuSO₄.H₂O
C) CUSO₄.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
D) CaSO₄. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
Answer:
D) CaSO₄. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O

Question 106.
The difference of the water molecules between gypsum and plaster of paris is
A) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
B) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
C) 2
D) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Ever since the Industrial Revolution, workers have been fighting for
A) a dignified life
B) share of their produce
C) several kinds of securities and rights
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Which department is concerned with the rights and securities of the workers?
A) Welfare Department
B) Labour Department
C) Department of Industry
D) Department of Employment
Answer:
B) Labour Department

Question 3.
The workers who enjoy rights and se¬curities are called ………..
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract labour
Answer:
C) Regular workers

Question 4.
The workers who do not have any securities and rights are
A) Casual workers
B) Badli workers
C) Contract labour
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
The workers who replace permanent workers in case of their absence are called
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract workers
Answer:
A) Badli workers

Question 6.
Most of the benefits are available to the ………… workers.
A) badli workers
B) permanent workers
C) casual labour
D) contract workers
Answer:
B) permanent workers

Question 7.
How long does a worker in a brick kiln work per day?
A) 10 hours a day
B) 8 hours a day
C) 12 hours a day
D) 14 to 16 hours a day
Answer:
D) 14 to 16 hours a day

Question 8.
How much money is paid to the worker of brick kiln per 1000 bricks?
A) Rs. 1000
B) Rs. 1500
C) Rs. 108
D) Rs. 1080
Answer:
C) Rs. 108

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belong to the informal sector?
A) selling vegetables
B) working in tea stalls
C) working as regular labour in factories
D) making bidis
Answer:
C) working as regular labour in factories

Question 10.
In the sector, in which workers are not registered as employees, there is no agreement and no protection of law or rules and regulations is called
……….. sector.
A) Formal
B) Organised
C) Informal
D) Small scale
Answer:
C) Informal

Question 11.
Which of the following may be called as bonded labourers’?
A) Permanent workers in a factory
B) Contract labourers in a factory
C) Workers who work in brick kilns
D) Casual labourers in factories
Answer:
C) Workers who work in brick kilns

Question 12.
………. are also made to protect the welfare of workers employed in fields, factories, private and government offices.
A) Laws
B) Reforms
C) Changes
D) Uses
Answer:
A) Laws

Question 13.
The department which makes laws for labour
A) Labour Department
B) Welfare Department
C) Social Welfare Department
D) Home Department
Answer:
A) Labour Department

Question 14.
The heavy industry Fibrotex was established in
A) 1974
B) 1976
C) 1980
D) 1984
Answer:
B) 1976

Question 15.
The facilities are achieved by the Trade Unions.
A) Medical tests in big hospital & leaves for treatment
B) Safety measures at the workplace
C) Protected water and transport facilities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main function of Tras Union.
A) labour welfare
B) state welfare
C) country welfare
D) all the above
Answer:
A) labour welfare

Question 17.
Many owners will not give permission to form Trade Unions – The reason is
A) more wages to be paid.
B) they may demand working hours, proper wages to work.
C) they have to provide bonuses and health insurance.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
The problem faced by labour even today.
A) the workers are taken too far off places.
B) the workers have to go to the regions of different languages and hard work throughout the day and night.
C) continuous work for months together with family members.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Workers work according to their skill and efficiency in conditions where there is no harm to their health
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
A) Right to productive and safe employment

Question 20.
The workers have time to rest from their tiring work and also have time to attend to other cultural and social interests.
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
B) Right to leisure and rest

Question 21.
The workers can improve their skills and capabilities while at work.
A) Collective voice
B) Work security
C) Skill improvement
D) Income security
Answer:
C) Skill improvement

Question 22.
Daily wage workers work mostly in this sector.
A) Formal sector
B) Informal sector
C) Industrial sector
D) None
Answer:
B) Informal sector

Question 23.
This belongs to the informal sector.
A) Making of Bidis, Papads
B) Embroidery work
C) Making of Agarbattis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
This cannot get employment as permanent workers like in factories and offices
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
There are ho trade unions for this kind of workers rights.
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
Some trade unionists of …………… formed what is considered the largest trade union of the informal workers in the world.
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Telangana
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Question 27.
Mahatma Gandhi worked with this trade union
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
B) Bombay Handloom Workers Association
C) Kanchi Handloom Workers Association
D) Chirala-Perala Handloom Workers Association
Answer:
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association

Question 28.
SEWA was formed with the help of TLA in
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1973
Answer:
B) 1971

Question 29.
SEWA became a trade union in
A) 1971
B) 1970
C) 1972
D) 1969
Answer:
C) 1972

Question 30.
SEWA means
A) Self Employed Women’s Association
B) Self Employment Women Association
C) Soldier Employment Women Association
D) Self Employment Widow Association
Answer:
A) Self Employed Women’s Association

Question 31.
As women are employs
A) can solve their problems
B) can improve their work culture
C) can stand economically
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 32.
The members of SEWA were
A) Handloom workers
B) Old/new cloth sellers
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
At present SEWA is in existence in nine states, then the members in it are ………… lakhs.
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 16
Answer:
B) 13

Question 34.
The workers enjoy rights and securities like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory.
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Contract labour
D) Regular workers
Answer:
D) Regular workers

Question 35.
The work comes under

A) Underemployment
B) Disguised unemployment
C) Self-employment
D) Seasonal employment
Answer:
C) Self-employment

Question 36.
Industrial Revolution first started in this country
A) the U.S.A
B) England
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
B) England

Question 37.
TLA abbreviation
A) Textile Labour Association
B) Textile law Amendment
C) Three-letter abbreviation
D) Three letter Acronym
Answer:
A) Textile Labour Association

Question 38.
SEWA : 1971:: MNREGA :
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer:
D) 2005

Question 39.
This type of worker get benefits like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory
i) Regular worker
ii) Temporary workers
iii) Casual workers
A) i only
B) i and ii only
C) i, ii and iii
D) iii only
Answer:
A) i only

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The chairperson of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
A) Dr.Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Sardar Vallabai Patel
D) Sucheta Krupalani
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
The first Union Law minister was
A) Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawahar Lai Nehru
C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

Question 3.
‘Joothan’ is one autobiography of
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jyothiba Phule
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 4.
The four major caste groups, Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vysya and Sudra emerged in the times of
A) Vedas
B) Indus valley civilisation
C) Guptas
D) Mauryas
Answer:
A) Vedas

Question 5.
Mahatma Jyothiba Phule was a social reformer of ……..
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Gujarat
Answer:
A) Maharashtra

Question 6.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded by:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Narayana Guru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Periyar
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 7.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded in:
A) 1875
B) 1873
C) 1874
D) 1871
Answer:
B) 1873

Question 8.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened at:
A) Bombay
B) Calcutta
C) Pune
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Pune

Question 9.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened by
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Savitri Bai Phule
C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 10.
Who was the first headmistress of the country’s first school for girls?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Jyothi Bai Phule
C) Nirmala Bai
D) Sarojini Bai
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 11.
Narayana Guru was born in
A) Tamilnadu
B) Kerala
C) Maharashtra
D) West Bengal
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 12.
Who preached ‘one God, one Caste, one religion for all people?
A) Periyar
B) Jyothirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayana Guru
D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
C) Narayana Guru

Question 13.
The first social and religious movement in India was:
A) Buddhism
B) Jainism
C) Hinduism
D) Judaism
Answer:
A) Buddhism

Question 14.
……….. was the first state to start a mid-day meal program.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 15.
In ……… the Supreme Court asked all the state governments to start ‘Mid-day Meal’ program in their schools.
A) 2000
B) 2001
C) 2002
D) 2004
Answer:
B) 2001

Question 16.
Many people follow the caste rules only within their own caste.
A) marry
B) occupy
C) employ
D) traditions and customs
Answer:
A) marry

Question 17.
Caste system
A) creates a relation between some classes of people
B) separates some classes of people
C) caste discrimination increases in society
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
These works are treated as low
A) washing clothes
B) barbering
C) removing garbage
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Facing discrimination means
A) no permission to education
B) no right to do work as per their willing
C) no entry into school and houses of the rich
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 20.
This famous Indian leader faced caste discrimination at nine years of age in 1901.
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Abdul Kalam
C) Narendranath Dutt
D) Babu Jagajjevanram
Answer:
A) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 21.
The famous Dalit writer
A) Somasekhar
B) Prakash Badal
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Siddhendra Yogi
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 22.
The no. of Varnas in Vedas
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 23.
The philosophers who visioned some as great by birth
A) Buddha
B) Mahavira, Ramanuja
C) Basava, Kabir, Vemana
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
In 19, 20 centuries many social reformers tried to frame a new society based on these.
A) freedom, equality
B) fraternity, respect to individual
C) economical justice
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 25.
In 19, 20 centuries these reformers tried to create a new social system based on freedom, equality, etc.
A) Jfyotirao Govindarao Phule
B) SavitriBai Phule, Periyar E.V. Rama-Sami Naickar
C) Sri Narayana Guru, Ayyankali
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The government adopted to attain equality
A) Making and executing laws
B) Hardworking for the upliftment of suppressed through
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
The Mid Day Meals Scheme was first introduced in this state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 28.
The Mid Day Meals is maintained by ………. in all the village schools in Andhra Pradesh
A) Women SHGs
B) Children SHGs
C) Old people SHGs
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Women SHGs

Question 29.
“One caste, One Religion, One God for all men” who said these
A) J.V Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 30.
The first state to introduce a mid-day meal scheme in our country.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Maharashtra
D) Gujarat
Answer:
B) Tamil Nadu

Question 31.
The person in the picture is

A) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 32.
Which institution asked all the state governments to introduce mid – day meal scheme
A) Parliament
B) Planning Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) Food Commission
Answer:
C) Supreme Court

Question 33.
An appreciating work of Ramasami
A) He made people realize that all are equal
B) He preached that enjoying liberty and equality are birthrights of everyone
C) Developed rationalist ideas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
Om Prakash Valmiki: Joothan:: Satya Sodhak Samaj: ………….
A) Ambedkar
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayan
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

Question 35.
Find the correct statement.
1. Savithri Bhai Phule was the first headmistress.
2. Narayana Guru preached brotherhood.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 36.
Match the following :
A B
1. Ambedkar [ ] A) First Union Law Minister
2. Om Prakash [ ] B) Rationalist Leader
3. Periyar [ ] C) Dalit Writer
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
Answer:
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B

Question 37.
This is not related to Ambedkar
A) First law Minister
B) Drafting Committee Chairman of Indian Constitution
C) He was born in Maharashtra
D) First Prime Minister of India
Answer:
D) First Prime Minister of India