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Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Indian Culture, Languages and Religions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson Indian Culture, Languages and Religions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The special feature of India.
A) Socialism
B) Communism
C) Unity in Diversity
D) Diversity in Unity
Answer:
C) Unity in Diversity

Question 2.
Jesus Christ was born in
A) Raj agriha
B) Kunda
C) Bethlehem
D) Pataliputra
Answer:
C) Bethlehem

Question 3.
……………. is the holy book of Christians.
A) The Bible
B) Gita
C) Vedas
D) Quran
Answer:
A) The Bible

Question 4.
The religious books of the Hindu religion
A) Vedas
B) Upanishads
C) Ramayana, Mahabharata, Bhagavath geetha
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 5.
The religion that started in Arabia
A) Christianity
B) Islam
C) Hindu
D) Jainism
Answer:
B) Islam

Question 6.
The holy book of Islam
A) Quran
B) Bible
C) Bhagavadgeeta
D) Ramayan
Answer:
A) Quran

Question 7.
…………… wrote the book called Aryabhattiyam.
A) Aryabhatta
B) Ramanujan
C) Varahamihirudu
D) Sakuntala Devi
Answer:
A) Aryabhatta

Question 8.
Mahabharata was composed by
A) Viswamitra
B) Valmiki
C) Buddha
D) Vyasa
Answer:
D) Vyasa

Question 9.
The Vedas were taught in this form
A) Oral tradition
B) written
C) both A & B
D) None of them
Answer:
A) Oral tradition

Question 10.
“Ten Gurus” are related to which religion?
A) Hinduism
B) Sikhism
C) Christianity
D) Jainism
Answer:
B) Sikhism

Question 11.
Who is the head of the Roman Catholic Church?
A) Pope
B) Archana
C) Tirthankara
D) Prophet
Answer:
A) Pope

Question 12.
It is not a teaching of Jesus Christ.
A) We are the children of God
B) Lead a pure life without committing sins
C) Love your neighbor as yourself
D) All devotees of Muslims attempt a Hajj (pilgrimage) to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.
Answer:
D) All devotees of Muslims attempt a Hajj (pilgrimage) to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 13.
The Tripitikas are the holy books of
A) Islam
B) Christianity
C) Jainism
D) Buddhism
Answer:
D) Buddhism

Question 14.
The Indian sub-continent is the birthplace of
A) Hinduism
B) Buddhism & Jainism
C) Sikhism
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
How many languages are recognized by the Constitution of India?
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Answer:
C) 23

Question 16.
Ashoka used ……………….. script in all his inscriptions.
A) Picture script
B) Kharosthi script
C) Telugu script
D) Brahmi script
Answer:
D) Brahmi script

Question 17.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Aryabhattiyam                 A) Valmiki
2) Charaka Samhita              B) Vedavyasa
3) Ramayanam                     C) Aryabhatta
4) Mahabharata                    D) Charaka
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A.
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 18.
Choose the correct statement.
A: Language is a medium of communication.
B: Man is the only living being on the earth who uses language.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 19.
A: We think, understand, and communicate with the help of the language.
B: Learning became easier with the evolution of language.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & Eyire wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 20.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Jainism                          A) Guru Nanak
2) Buddhism                      B) Vardhamana
3) Islam                             C) Jesus Christ
4) Sikhism                         D) Siddhartha
5) Christianity E) Prophet Muhammad
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A, 5 – E
D) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – E, 5 – C
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C

Question 21.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Religion – the belief in God
2) Script – the symbolic representation of language
3) Tirthankara – spiritual teacher of Dharma in Buddhism
4) Upanishads – a series of Hindu sacred written works
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 22.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Tirumala                                A) Saudi Arabia
2) Sanchi Stupa                         B) Amritsar
3) Roman Catholic Church        C) Madhya Pradesh
4) Mecca                                   D) Seshachalam Hills
5) Golden Temple                      E) Vatican city in Rome
A) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – B
B) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A
C) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – C, 4 – A, 5 – B
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – B
Answer:
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – B

Fill in the blanks.

1. Indian culture began about ……………….. years ago.
Answer:
5000

2. With the arrival of ………………… a new culture emerged in India.
Answer:
Aryans

3. In olden days people used pins to write on ………………….
Answer:
dried leaves

4. Valmiki’s Ramayana and Vyasa’s Mahabharata were written in ………………..
Answer:
Sanskrit

5. Aryabhatta wrote ……………….
Answer:
Aryabhattiyam

6. ………………, ……………….. books laid the foundation of Ayurvedam.
Answer:
Charaka Samhita and Sushruta Samhita

7. People who follow Jainism are known as ………………..
Answer:
Jains

8. Main goal of Jainism is to reach ………………..
Answer:
Moksha

9. In Jainism state of happiness is known as ………………..
Answer:
Nirvana

10. Texts which are MahaVtfa’s preachings are known as ………………..
Answer:
Angas

11. Spiritual Gurus for Jains are ………………..
Answer:
Tirthankaras

12. Height of Gomateshwara statue in Shravanabelagola is ……………….. feet.
Answer:
57

13. Gautama Buddha was bqrn in ……………….. and in ………………..
Answer:
Lumbini, Nepal

14. Gautama Buddha name when born was ………………..
Answer:
Siddhartha

15. Gautama Buddha got married at the age of ………………..
Answer:
18

16. Gautama Buddha’s son name was ………………..
Answer:
Rahul

17. The tree where Gautama Buddha got enlightenment is named as ………………..
Answer:
Bodhi Vruksha

18. According to Gautama Buddha final goal is ………………..
Answer:
attaining Nirvana

19. The holy books of Buddhism are ………………..
Answer:
Tripitikas

20. ……………….. and ……………….. are the important festivals of Hindus.
Answer:
Sankranthi, Diwali

21. Tirumala is located in ……………….. hills.
Answer:
Seshachalam

22. Unit of administration to maintain Tirumala is ………………..
Answer:
TTD

23. Founder of Christianity was ………………..
Answer:
Jesus Christ

24. Holy book of Christians is ………………..
Answer:
Bible

25. Famous church in the world is …………………
Answer:
Roman Catholic Church

26. Head of the Roman Catholic Church is ………………..
Answer:
Pope

27. Jesus was born in ………………..
Answer:
Bethlehem

28. ……………….. was the founder of Islam.
Answer:
Prophet Mohammed

29. Prophet Mohammed was born in ………………..
Answer:
Mecca

30. Mecca was in ………………..
Answer:
Arabia

31. The ……………….. is the holy book of Muslims.
Answer:
Quran

32. Prophet Mohammed left to ……………….. from Mecca.
Answer:
Madina

33. The followers who follow Sikhism are called ………………..
Answer:
Sikhs

34. The word Sikh means ………………..
Answer:
Student or disciple

35. The holy book of Sikhs is ………………..
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib

36. The first Tirthankara was ………………..
Answer:
Bahubali

37. India is a land of ………………..
Answer:
diversities

38. ……………….. is the implying unity among the people of India.
Answer:
Unity in diversity

39. Dominant cultural trait of India is ……………
Answer:
Unity in diversity

Match the following:

Question 1.
1. Aryans                           [ ]             A) Ayurvedam
2. Valmiki                          [ ]             B) Jainism
3. Charaka Samhitha         [ ]             C) Yagnas
4. Mahavira                       [ ]             D) Homeopathy
5. Gautam Buddha            [ ]             E) GuruNanak
–                                                         F) Rahul
–                                                         G) Ramayana
Answer:
1. C
2. G
3. A
4. B
5. F

Question 2.
Religions                                      Books
1. Hinduism              [ ]                A) Bible
2. Islam                     [ ]                B) Bhagavath Geetha
3. Christianity            [ ]               C) Quran
Answer:
1. B
2. C
3. A.

Question 3.
God                                                 Religions
1. Jesus Christ           [ ]               A) Hinduism
2. Siddhartha            [ ]               B) Christianity
3. Lord Krishna         [ ]               C) Buddhism
Answer:
1. B
2. C
3. A

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Coordination on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 5th Lesson Coordination with Answers

Concept – 1: Responding to Stimuli

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a basic function ?
A) Movement
B) Control of hormones
C) Balance
D) Co-ordination
Answer:
C) Balance

Question 2.
The tree branched like structures appear on the cell body of neuron
A) Axon
B) Cyton
C) Dendrites
D) Afferent nerves
Answer:
C) Dendrites

Question 3.
Nissil’s granules are present in …………………
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Cyton
D) Lymphocytes
Answer:
C) Cyton

Question 4.
The cells which nourish nutrients to the neurons
A) Erythrocytes
B) Glial cells
C) Monocytes
D) Blood platelets
Answer:
B) Glial cells

Question 5.
Which is not found in non – myelinated neurons ?
A) Cyton
B) Synapse
C) Axon
D) Dendrite
Answer:
C) Axon

Question 6.
The arcs which operate when you put your leg on sharp thing ………………….
A) Reflex arcs
B) Controlled arcs
C) Brain
D) Involuntary arcs
Answer:
A) Reflex arcs

Question 7.
We did not know about the Nervous control system in………………. century.
A) 16^th
B) 17^th
C) 18^th
D) 19^th
Answer:
B) 17^th

Question 8.
Nervous system starts from …………………. part.
A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) A and B
D) Heart
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 9.
The longest structure in neuron is …………………..
A) Cyton
B) Axon
C) Dendrites
D) Nerve
Answer:
B) Axon

Question 10.
The life processes in humans are controlled and regulated by :
A) reproductive and endocrine systems
B) respiratory and nervous systems
C) endocrine and digestive systems
D) nervous and endocrine systems
Answer:
D) nervous and endocrine systems

Question 11.
The reactions which occur immediately and perfectly are known as …………………….
A) Reflex action
B) Controlled action
C) Uncontrolled action
D) Work
Answer:
A) Reflex action

Question 12.
You observed the slide of neuron under microscope. How were dendrites appeared in the specimen ?
A) round shape
B) Cylindrical in shape
C) Branched structures protruded from cyton
D) Helical structure
Answer:
C) Branched structures protruded from cyton

Question 13.
The system, which recognises the external and internal changes of the body is ………………
A) Digestive
B) Endocrine
C) Nervous
D) Circulatory
Answer:
C) Nervous

Question 14.
Jerking your body when you hears a loud sudden noise is a good example for
A) Reflex action
B) Voluntary action
C) Both.
D) None
Answer:
A) Reflex action

Question 15.
We can understand that “responses are brought about by rapid changes in body” by doing this experiment
A) Running on the track
B) Stick holding experiment
C) Sleeping experiment
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Stick holding experiment

Concept – 2 : Integration Pathways Nerves Coordination

Question 16.
The structures that act as telephone wires in the body
A) Veins
B) Arteries
C) Muscle fibres
D) Neurons
Answer:
D) Neurons

Question 17.
The organ that integrates, processes the stimuli
A) Heart
B) Synapse
C) Pituitary gland
D) Brain
Answer:
B) Synapse

Question 18.
Find out the odd one.
A) Axon
B) Dendrite
C) Valve
D) Cyton
Answer:
C) Valve

Question 19.
Choose the correct order for nervous control
A) Response, Stimuli
B) Stimuli, Response
C) Hearihg, Stimuli
D) Stimuli, Order of brain
Answer:
B) Stimuli, Response

Question 20.
Sequential events that bring about responses
1. Detecting the stimuli
2. Transmission of information then 3 and 4 are …………………………
A) Response – Analysis
B) Analysis – Reflex
C) Analysis – Response
D) Reflex – Analysis
Answer:
C) Analysis – Response

Question 21.
Coordination occurs …………………
i) due to stimuli changes occur in muscles
ii) the change leads to responses
iii) the silence of responses leads to co-ordination
A) i, ii only
B) i only
C) iii only
D) ii only
Answer:
D) ii only

Question 22.
In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from:
A) axon to cell body of the same neuron.
B) cell body to axon end of the same neuron.
C) dendrite end of one neuron to axon end of adjacent neuron.
D) axon end of one neuron to dendrite end of adjacent neuron.
Answer:
C) dendrite end of one neuron to axon end of adjacent neuron.

Question 23.
What is true about below given picture?

A) Connection between the dendrites of different neurons
B) Functional region between two neurons
C) Analysis of received information
D) Both A and B
Answer:
B) Functional region between two neurons

Question 24.
A node of Ranvier is a :
A) bundle of microtubules
B) naked portion of a myelinated axon
C) group of neural cell bodies in the central nervous system
D) knob – like structure at the end of an axon
Answer:
B) naked portion of a myelinated axon

Question 25.
The cells that give the nutrients to the neurons are ………………….
A) Red blood cells
B) Monocytes
C) Blood platelets
D) Glial cells
Answer:
D) Glial cells

Question 26.
Cells present in myelin sheath of neuron are …………………..
A) Nissel’s granules
B) Schwann cells
C) α – particles
D) Globulins
Answer:
B) Schwann cells

Question 27.
The junction between nerve cells is known as………………..
A) Axon
B) Synapse
C) Stimuli
D) Neuron
Answer:
B) Synapse

Question 28.
Separate the parts which do not form the synapse
a) Axon
b) Dendrite
c) Nodes of Ranvier
d) Nissil granules
A) a, c
B) c, d
C) a, d
D) a, b
Answer:
B) c, d

Question 29.
a) Neurons do not have any protoplasmic connection at synapse.
b) Information is passed in the form of chemical and electrical signals through synapse.
A) a, b both are true
B) a is true b is false
C) a is true b is false
D) a, b both are false
Answer:
A) a, b both are true

Question 30.
Read the following paragraph.
It is very difficult to find the types of neurons based on the presence of dendrites and length of axons in brain and spinal cord. But we can find out axons based on the presence of myelin sheath.
Where is my eline sheath present on the neuron ?
A) Cyton
B) Dendrites
C) Synapse
D) Axon
Answer:
D) Axon

Question 31.
Name the part to be labelled in the ‘?’

A) Axon
B) Neuron
C) Dendrite
D) Cyton
Answer:
A) Axon

Question 32.
Name the given diagram.

A) Algae
B) Neuron
C) Blood cell
D) Mitochondria
Answer:
B) Neuron

Question 33.
Find the missing part in the diagram.

A) Cyton
B) Nucleus
C) Axon
D) Dendrites
Answer:
B) Nucleus

Question 34.
Galen, a Greek physiologist made one notable observation on :
A) Nervous pathways
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerve roots
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Spinal cord

Concept – 3 : Reflex Arc

Question 35.
What sort of biological process was proved by doing knee jerk activity?
A) Involuntary
B) Voluntary
C) Mixed action
D) Favourable action
Answer:
B) Voluntary

Question 36.
You had held up the scale from falling with the help of finger. What happened here ?
A) Responses in the eye
B) Changes occurred in the muscles – Responses
C) Stimuli occurred in fingers
D) Body movement – Responses
Answer:
B) Changes occurred in the muscles – Responses

Question 37.
The nerve or neuron that tells “ferrying towards”.
A) Afferent nerve
B) Sensory neuron
C) A or B
D) Motor neuron
Answer:
C) A or B

Question 38.

What is related part in the box ‘Q’ ?
A) Axon
B) Motor neuron
C) Sensory nerves
D) Association nerves
Answer:
D) Association nerves

Question 39.
Identify the correct sequence of the reflex arc
A) Sense Organ → Spinal cord → Effector organ → Afferent nerve → Efferent nerve
B) Sense Organ → Afferent nerve→ Spinal cord → Efferent nerve → Effector Organ
C) Sense Organ → Efferent nerve → Spinal cord → Afferent nerve → Effector Organ
D) Effector Organ → Afferent nerve → Spinal cord → Efferent nerve → Sense Organ
Answer:
B) Sense Organ → Afferent nerve→ Spinal cord → Efferent nerve → Effector Organ

Question 40.
Consider the statements a & b.
a – Changes occur in muscles due to stimuli
b – The change occurs in the speed of muscles leads to responses.
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true b is false
C) a is false b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 41.

It is a……………….
A) Sensory Nerve
B) Motor Nerve
C) Mixed Nerve
D) Controlling Nerve
Answer:
A) Sensory Nerve

Question 42.
You sat in the cricket ground. Ball was coming towards you. You escaped from it immediately. Which type of reaction is this ?
A) Voluntary action
B) Involuntary action
C) Reflex action
D) Controlled action
Answer:
C) Reflex action

Question 43.
Which of the system does not help in the movement of muscles ?
A) Nervous system
B) Contraction of muscles
C) Bones
D) Both A and B
Answer:
C) Bones

Question 44.
Nerve transmission from stimulus to a response can occur at a maximum speed of about …………….. meters per second.
A) 10
B) 1000
C) 100
D) 120
Answer:
C) 100

Question 45.
The contraction of pupil of the eye in the presence of bright light is an example of:
A) Voluntary reflex
B) Spinal reflex
C) Cerebral reflex
D) Adrenal reflex
Answer:
C) Cerebral reflex

Question 46.
Here A and B represents
A) A = Brain, B = Sensory nerve
B) A = Sensory nerve, B = Receptor
C) a = Receptor, B = Sensory nerve
D) A = Sensory nerve, B = Brain
Answer:
D) A = Sensory nerve, B = Brain

Question 47.
Myelin sheath comprises ……………………….
A) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates
C) Lipids
D) Vitamins
Answer:
C) Lipids

Question 48.
The cells which are destroyed by viruses in Polio disease ………………………
A) Monocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Motor nerves
D) Sensory nerves
Answer:
C) Motor nerves

Question 49.
The nerves that carry information from sensory organs to brain or spinal cord
A) Motor nerves
B) Dendrites
C) Efferent nerves
D) Afferent nerves
Answer:
D) Afferent nerves

Question 50.
The nerves that carry information from brain or spinal cord to effecter organs
A) Dendrites
B) Afferent nerves
C) Efferent nerves
D) Sensory nerves
Answer:
C) Efferent nerves

Question 51.
Which of the following are cerebral reflexes ?
i) A person pulls away his hand on touching a hot object.
ii) A person spits out immediately when a fly enters his mouth while talking.
iii) A person walking bare foot lifts his foot at once on stepping on to a nail
iv) A person’s pupil contracts at once in the presence of bright light.
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (ii) and (iii)
C) (iii) and (iv)
D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
D) (ii) and (iv)

Question 52.
A cell (or group of cells) in a sense organ
which is sensitive to a particular type of stimulus is called :
A) interneuron
B) effector
C) receptor
D) acceptor
Answer:
C) receptor

Concept – 4 : Central Nervous System

Question 53.
The part which protects brain is ………………….
A) Cranium
B) Meninges
C) A and B
D) Bones
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 54.
The weight of brain is ………….. % of the whole body.
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
Answer:
B) 2%

Question 55.
The part which controls anger, pain, etc., is ……………………
A) Cerebrum
B) Diencephalon
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
B) Diencephalon

Question 56.
If a person loses control on emotions, which part of brain is responsible for this?
A) Cerebrum
B) Diencephalon
C) Mid brain
D) Cerebellum
Answer:
B) Diencephalon

Question 57.
In the brain, which of the following is present in white portion ?
A) Cyton
B) Colour pigment
C) Axons
D) Meninges
Answer:
C) Axons

Question 58.
The part which controls pituitary gland in brain :
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Hypothalamus
Answer:
D) Hypothalamus

Question 59.
The system which is formed by ganglion of brain and spinal cord is
A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Parasympathetic nervous system
C) Involuntary system
D) Peripheral nervous system
Answer:
A) Sympathetic nervous system

Question 60.
Olfactory lobes are concerned with sense of :
A) smell
B) hearing
C) taste
D) touch
Answer:
A) smell

Question 61.
The sensory centre that controls various actions in the body
A) Medulla
B) Cerebrum
C) Cerebellum
D) Diencephalon
Answer:
B) Cerebrum

Question 62.
The part of brain that joins fore brain and mid brain
A) Medulla
B) Cerebrum
C) Diencephalon
D) Pons varoli
Answer:
A) Medulla

Question 63.
The brain is protected by bony box called
A) Rib cage
B) Stomach
C) Cranium
D) Pleura
Answer:
C) Cranium

Question 64.
The brain is covered by three layers. The middle layer is
A) Dura mater
B) Pia mater
C) Arachnoid mater
D) Pleura
Answer:
C) Arachnoid mater

Question 65.
The liquid portion between the inner layers of brain and spinal cord is
A) Lymph
B) Plasma
C) Cerebro spinal fluid
D) Serum
Answer:
C) Cerebro spinal fluid

Question 66.
Brain and spinal cord are related to this nervous system
A) Sympathetic
B) Parasympathetic
C) Peripheral
D) Central
Answer:
D) Central

Question 67.
The cranial nerve that controls heart beat
A) Afferent nerve
B) Sensory nerve
C) Mixed nerve
D) Vagus nerve
Answer:
D) Vagus nerve

Question 68.
The white colour inner side of the brain is due to ………………….
A) Cytons
B) Axons
C) Dendrites
D) Glial cells
Answer:
B) Axons

Question 69.
A person has lost control on emotions. Which part of brain is responsible for it?
A) Cerebrum
B) Diencephalon
C) Mid brain
D) Cerebellum
Answer:
B) Diencephalon

Question 70.
Ramesh labelled the picture wrongly. Correct the parts (a)and (b).

A) a – Cerebrum, b – Cerebellum
B) a – Spinal cord, b – Mid brain
C) a – Pons varoli, b – Gland
D) a – Medulla, b – Cerebellum
Answer:
A) a – Cerebrum, b – Cerebellum

Question 71.
Which of the following regulates the activities such as breathing, beating of the heart without our thinking?
A) Nervous system
B) Endocrine system
C) Respiratory system
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Nervous system

Question 72.
Brain uses …………………… of the whole body energy.
A) 2%
B) 100 %
C) 20 %
D) 50%
Answer:
C) 20 %

Question 73.
The following diagram represents the external view of human brain. Identify the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.

A) 1 – Cerebellum, 2 – Mid brain, 3 – Cerebrum, 4 – Spinal cord
B) 1 – Cerebellum, 2 – Mid brain, 3 – Cerebrum, 4 – Pons
C) 1 – Cerebrum, 2 – Mid brain, 3 – Cerebellum, 4 – Spinal cord
D) 1 – Cerebrum, 2 – Hypothalamus, 3 – Cerebellum, 4 – Pons
Answer:
C) 1 – Cerebrum, 2 – Mid brain, 3 – Cerebellum, 4 – Spinal cord

Question 74.
The meninges surrounding the brain from inner to outer are :
A) Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater
B) Duramater and Pia mater
C) Cerebrospinal fluid and Arachnoid mater
D) Arachnoid mater, Dura mater, Pia mater
Answer:
A) Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater

Question 75.
Which structure makes up about 10 percent of the brain’s mass and contains about 50 percent of its neurons ?
A) Cerebral cortex
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Pons varoli
Answer:
B) Cerebellum

Question 76.
In humans, damage to the cerebellum typically produces :
A) inability to initiate movement
B) movements that are slow and robot – like
C) resting tremor
D) muscle rigidity
Answer:
D) muscle rigidity

Question 77.
The surface area of cerebrum is increased by………………….
A) myelin sheath
B) gyri, sulci
C) axons
D) dendrites
Answer:
B) gyri, sulci

Question 78.
It is the seat for memory and thinking in brain
A) Diencephalon
B) Cerebellum
C) Mid brain
D) Cerebrum
Answer:
D) Cerebrum

Question 79.
Kavita solves puzzles. The part of the brain that helps her is ……………….
A) Cerebellum
B) Mid brain
C) Cerebrum
D) Diencephalon
Answer:
C) Cerebrum

Question 80.
We feel cold, heat, pain and pressure. These stimulus responses are under the control of this part of the body
A) Mid brain
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cerebrum
D) Cerebellum
Answer:
C) Cerebrum

Question 81.
Find the correct statement.
A) Cerebrum is the centre for muscular activities.
B) Diencephalon controls thinking, memory and reasoning.
C) Cerebellum maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone.
D) Midbrain coordinates reflexes like swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.
Answer:
C) Cerebellum maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone.

Question 82.
This phenomenon refers to the actions upon a blood vessel which alters its diameter
A) Cerebral arc
B) Vasomotor
C) Dilation
D) Micturition
Answer:
D) Micturition

Question 83.
Suppose you sneezes unexpectedly.
Which part of the brain influences the action ?
A) Mid brain
B) Cerebrum
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
D) Medulla oblongata

Concept – 5 : Spinal Cord

Question 84.
The number of pairs of cranial nerves in man
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
Answer:
C) 12

Question 85.
The number of pairs of spinal nerves in man
A) 30
B) 31
C) 32
D) 33
Answer:
B) 31

Question 86.
The ‘H’ shaped structure in the T.S of spinal cord is
A) Gyri
B) White matter
C) Sulci
D) Grey matter
Answer:
D) Grey matter

Question 87.
The part that coordinates involuntary actions in the body
A) Nervous system, Hormones control
B) Hormones control
C) Medulla oblongata, Autonomous nervous system
D) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
C) Medulla oblongata, Autonomous nervous system

Question 88.
The scientists who observed the liveliness of frog even after the removal of brain is ………………
A) Davinci, Stephen Hales
B) Davinci, Darwin
C) Stephen Hales, Francis
D) Charles Bell
Answer:
A) Davinci, Stephen Hales

Question 89.
The scientists who proved/ showed the functions of two roots of spinal cord are …………..
A) Charles Bell, Stephen Hales
B) Charles Bell, Magendie
C) Da Vinci, Magendie
D) Francis, Magendie
Answer:
B) Charles Bell, Magendie

Question 90.
Reflex actions are under the control of ……………..
A) Medulla
B) Cerebellum
C) Hypothalamus
D) Spinal cord
Answer:
D) Spinal cord

Question 91.
The cells which analyse the information in spinal cord
A) Sensory nerve fibres
B) Motor nerve fibres
C) Axons
D) Associated neurons
Answer:
D) Associated neurons

Question 92.
Choose the correct one.
a) We do not think while climbing the stairs where we are keeping our leg.
b) For this, controlled reflex arcs are the reason.
A) a, b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) a,b both are false
Answer:
A) a, b both are true

Question 93.
a) The dorsal horn of spinal cord control movement of muscles
b) Ventral horn of spinal cord brings information regarding sensation
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
C) b is true, a is false

Question 94.
The role of spinal cord in nervous control was studied by:
A) Leonardo da Vinci
B) Stephen Hales
C) Both A and B
D) Francois Magendie
Answer:
A) Leonardo da Vinci

Question 95.
One of the examples is not involuntary function of autonomous nervous system
A) Expansion and contraction of pupil of our eye
B) Removing the leg when a thorn pierced the leg
C) Control of the level of sugar in blood
D) Control of the heart beat
Answer:
A) Expansion and contraction of pupil of our eye

Question 96.
Number of peripheral nerves is ………………….. pairs.
A) 12
B) 31
C) 43
D) 40
Answer:
C) 43

Question 97.
We can’t see anything soon after entering a dark room. Find the reason.
a) Cones in the eyes do not respond
b) The radius of pupil decreases
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) Both a & b are true, b does not explain a
C) a is true, b is false
D) Both are false
Answer:
D) Both are false

Question 98.
Sympathetic nervous system is formed by :
A) chain of ganglia on either sides of vertebral column
B) nerves arising from ganglion of brain
C) nerves arising’from posterior part of spinal cord
D) chain of ganglia on either side of vertebral column and associated nerves
Answer:
D) chain of ganglia on either side of vertebral column and associated nerves

Question 99.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems make up the ………………….. nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) autonomous
C) central
D) somatic
Answer:
B) autonomous

Question 100.
Spinal cord extends from :
A) back of medulla oblongata to the back of intestine
B) all along the length of vertebral column
C) back of hind brain to the back of lumbar region
D) ventral side of the vertebral column
Answer:
C) back of hind brain to the back of lumbar region

Concept – 6 : Coordination without Nerves

Question 101.
In Latin the word ‘insula’ means
A) Seduce
B) Island
C) Vein
D) Blood
Answer:
B) Island

Question 102.
Diabetes is related to this gland.
A) thyroid
B) pancreas
C) adrenal
D) pituitary
Answer:
B) pancreas

Question 103.
Match the following.
1. Somatotrophin
2. Adrenalin
3. Testosterone

a. Fight/ Flight
b. Growth of bones
c. Males
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c

Question 104.
Chemical coordination in the body is brought out by ………………………
A) blood
B) lymph
C) enzymes
D) hormones
Answer:
D) hormones

Question 105.
Identify the incorrect pair.
A) Thyroxin – Thyroid
B) Adrenalin – Pituitary
C) Insulin – Pancreas
D) Progesterone – Ovary
Answer:
B) Adrenalin – Pituitary

Question 106.
The organism which has ductless glands ………………
A) Amoeba
B) Earthworm
C) Euglena
D) Human being
Answer:
D) Human being

Question 107.
The gland which acts like a bridge between nervous system and endocrine system is ………………..
A) Adrenal gland
B) Thyroid gland
C) Testes
D) Pituitary gland
Answer:
D) Pituitary gland

Question 108.
Endocrine gland present in head is (or) The master gland in our body is
A) Pituitary
B) Adrenal
C) Islets of langerhans
D) Thyroid
Answer:
A) Pituitary

Question 109.
The-substance secreted by ductless glands is ……………….
A) Blood
B) Lymph
C) Enzymes
D) Hormones
Answer:
D) Hormones

Question 110.
Imagine two roosters are fighting at your kitchen garden. What hormone might be secreted in their body during that stage ?
A) Adrenalin
B) Thyroxine
C) Vasopressin
D) Insulin
Answer:
A) Adrenalin

Concept – 7 : Feedback Mechanism

Question 111.
The mechanism which controls the action of hormones is …………………..
A) Feedback mechanism
B) Controlling nervous system
C) Effect of auxins
D) Growth of organisms
Answer:
A) Feedback mechanism

Question 112.
The gland present on the given organs is not related to urination.

A) Thyroid gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Pituitary gland
D) Gonads
Answer:
B) Adrenal gland

Question 113.
The hormone that regulates menstrual cycle in women
A) Thyroxine
B) Testosterone
C) Testes
D) Pituitary gland
Answer:
D) Pituitary gland

Question 114.
The Somatotrophin which helps in growth of body is secreted by ………………..
A) Thyroid gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Testes
D) Pituitary gland
Answer:
D) Pituitary gland

Question 115.
Glucose is. converted into …………………… by insulin and stored in the liver
A) Maltose
B) Glycogen
C) Sucrose
D) Starch
Answer:
B) Glycogen

Question 116.
Doctor advised Dileep that, he has to . take insulin daily compulsorily. Which disease is he suffering from ?
A) Epilepsy
B) Diabetes Insipidus
C) Diabetes Mellitus
D) Langerhans
Answer:
C) Diabetes Mellitus

Question 117.
Suma was walking on the road. All of a sudden she saw a snake approaching towards her. She was’ afraid of it. The reason for this is ………………….
1. She is timid by nature.
2. Due to the secretion of Adrenalin change occurred in her
3. Due to the secretion of vasopressin . change occurred in her
4. To tell it to her mother and father
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3
C) 2
D) 2, 3, 4
Answer:
C) 2

Question 118.
Thyroxine : Metabolism:: Testosterone: ………………..
A) Sex organs in man
B) Sex organs in woman
C) Thyroid gland
D) Fat gland
Answer:
A) Sex organs in man

Question 119.
Doctor diagnosed a patient that he is suffering from the deficiency of a hormone. Doctor advised him to try to reduce the sugar percentage in his diet. Name the deficient hormone that the patient is suffering from.
A) Thyroxine
B) Insulin
C) Somatotrophin
D) Testosterone
Answer:
B) Insulin

Question 120.
A doctor advised a person to take of insulin injection because his :
A) blood pressure was high
B) heart beat was high
C) blood sugar was high
D) thyroxine level in blood was high
Answer:
C) blood sugar was high

Concept – 8 : Control Mechanism in Plants

Question 121.
Leaf movement in mimosa helps to
A) reduce photosynthesis
B) protect from grazers
C) releasing phytohormones
D) regulate its growth
Answer:
B) protect from grazers

Question 122.
The chemical substance which destroy s weeds ………………….
A) IAA
B) 2 – 4 – D
C) ABA
D) NAA
Answer:
B) 2 – 4 – D

Question 123.
The phytohormone which is respon¬sible for seed dormancy is …………………..
A) IAA
B) NAA
C) GA
D) ABA
Answer:
D) ABA

Question 124.
The special function of cytbkinins is
A) Production of more flowers
B) Production of more auxifts
C) Cell division
D) Cell destruction
Answer:
C) Cell division

Question 125.
Gibberellins play a vital role in the production of …………………
A) More buds
B) Size of flower
C) Short plants to long plants
D) Growth of lateral and apical buds equally
Answer:
C) Short plants to long plants

Question 126.
Apical dominance means……………………..
A) Continuous growth of apical buds
B) Apical buds dominate the lateral buds
C) Cutting of apical stem
D) Equal growth of apical and lateral branches
Answer:
B) Apical buds dominate the lateral buds

Question 127.
If we cut the apical bud of a plant ……………..
A) Plant grow at usual height
B) Lateral branches develop
C) Length of plant increases
D) Roots do not develop
Answer:
B) Lateral branches develop

Question 128.
The scientist who proposed the name ‘hormone’.
A) Paul Langerhans
B) William Blake
C) Starling
D) Francis and Darwin
Answer:
C) Starling

Question 129.
The “Influence substance” in the plants discovered by F.W. Went
A) Hormone
B) Gibberellin
C) Enzyme
D) Auxin
Answer:
D) Auxin

Question 130.
F.W. Went used these plants in his experiments
A) Agar – Agar
B) Oats
C) Wheat
D) Pea
Answer:
B) Oats

Question 131.
High concentration of auxin:
A) stimulates stem growth and root growth
B) stimulates stem growth and inhibits root growth
C) inhibits lateral buds and promotes root growth
D) inhibits stem growth and root growth
Answer:
B) stimulates stem growth and inhibits root growth

Question 132.
The movements which are not related with the direction of stimuli ?
A) Hydrotropism
B) Geotropism
C) Tropic movements
D) Nastic movements
Answer:
D) Nastic movements

Question 133.
Who stated that “There is some influence substance in plants ?”
A) Charles Darwin
B) Mendel, Charles Darwin
C) Francis, F W Went
D) FW. Went
Answer:
A) Charles Darwin

Question 134.
The hormone that influences ripening of fruits
A) Gibberellins
B) Ethylene
C) Cytokinins
D) Auxin
Answer:
B) Ethylene

Question 135.
Which plant hormone is responsible for closing of stomata ?
A) Abscisic acid
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Ethylene
Answer:
A) Abscisic acid

Question 136.
Observe the following statements.
1) Promote cell division.
2) Promotion of sprouting of lateral buds.
3) Delaying aging in leaves.
Which of the following is concerned with the above characters ?
A) Auxins
B) Cytokinins
C) Gibberellins
D) Abscisic acid
Answer:
B) Cytokinins

Question 137.
The first phytohormone discovered in plants is …………………..
A) Auxins
B) Gibberellins
C) Cytokinins
D) ABA
Answer:
A) Auxins

Question 138.
The phytohormone which helps in the prevention of loss of water is
A) Gibberellins
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) ABA
Answer:
D) ABA

Question 139.

List – 1	List – 2
1. Gibberellin	a. Fruits
2. Auxin	b. Cell division
3. Ethylene	c. Growth

Which one is not matched correctly ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
C) 3

Question 140.
If we observe potted plant growing horizontally on ground for some days, what will be the correct diagram given below ?

Answer:
(c)

Question 141.
Observe the following a,b statements.
a) Abscisic acid prevents seed dormancy.
b) Gibberellin promotes seed dormancy.
A) a,b both are true
B) a is true b is false
C) a is false b is true
D) a,b both are false
Answer:
D) a,b both are false

Question 142.
Roots of a plant show:
A) positive phototropism and negative geotropism
B) negative phototropism and positive geotropism
C) negative tactic movement and positive tropic movement
D) positive geotropism of stem and roots
Answer:
B) negative phototropism and positive geotropism

Question 143.
Sprouting of lateral buds is promoted by
A) Auxins
B) Gibberellins
C) Cytokinins
D) A & B
Answer:
C) Cytokinins

Question 144.
The sweet smell of ripen fruits is due to
A) Cytokinins
B) ABA
C) Auxins
D) Ethylene
Answer:
D) Ethylene

Question 145.
Fadlike swellings atthe base of Mimosa leaves are called
A) nodules
B) pulvini
C) venules
D) hormones
Answer:
B) pulvini

Question 146.
The hormone which inhibits the growth of plant is
A) Auxins
B) Cytokinins
C) Gibberellins
D) Abscisic acid
Answer:
D) Abscisic acid

Question 147.
The hormone promotes ageing in leaves in plants ?
A) Auxins
B) Abscisic acid
C) Cytokinins
D) Ethylene
Answer:
B) Abscisic acid

Question 148.
Dilation of the pupil of the eye is under the control of this hormone.
A) Thyroxine
B) Estrogen
C) Adrenalin
D) Insulin
Answer:
C) Adrenalin

Question 149.
Auxins were discovered by :
A) Went
B) Charles Darwin
C) Banting and Best
D) Francis Darwin
Answer:
A) Went

Question 150.
Find the incorrect statement regarding thyroxine.
A) Thyroid gland requires iron for the synthesis of thyroxine.
B) It regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.
C) Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine.
D) Thyroid gland can enlarge due to lack of thyroxine.
Answer:
B) It regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.

Question 151.
The part of brain with the greatest influence on the endocrine system is the:
A) Hypothalamus
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cerebral cortex
D) Pituitary
Answer:
A) Hypothalamus

Question 152.
Gonadotropins are :
A) produced by ovaries and testes
B) thyroid stimulating hormones
C) stimulators of ovaries and testes
D) follicle stimulating hormones
Answer:
C) stimulators of ovaries and testes

Question 153.
The plant hormone responsible for ‘one rotten apple spoiling the whole bunch’ is :
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellin
C) Cytokinin
D) Ethylene
Answer:
D) Ethylene

Question 154.
Maximum seed germination can be achieved by treating the seeds with :
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellins
C) Abscisic acid
D) Ethylene
Answer:
B) Gibberellins

Question 155.
Luteinizing hormone in females:
A) stimulates ovary to secrete Oestrogen
B) helps in release of ovum from ovary
C) controls blood pressure
D) helps in milk production
Answer:
B) helps in release of ovum from ovary

Question 156.
What happens when Adrenaline level increases in our blood ?
i) The hair on the body becomes erect and we get goose bumps.
ii) Skin becomes sensitive
iii) Anger decreases
iv) Urine may discharge
A) i, ii and iii
B) ii, iii and iv
C) iii and iv
D) i, ii and iv
Answer:
D) i, ii and iv

Question 157.
A cap like gland that is close to kidney.
A) Liver
B) Adrenal
C) Pancreas
D) Thyroid
Answer:
B) Adrenal

Question 158.
The hormone responsible for phototropism in plants.
A) Ethylene
B) Cytokinins
C) Gibberellins
D) Auxins
Answer:
D) Auxins

Concept – 9 : Tropic and Nastic movements in Plants

Question 159.

List – A	List – B
1. Sunflower plant	a. Phototropism
2. Mimosa pudica	b. Chemotropism
3. Cucumber creeper	c.Thigmotropism

Which one is not matched correctly ?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) All of the above
Answer:
C) 2

Question 160.
a – Butterfly flutters on flower to obtain nectar
b – The ovary of flowers is sweet in taste
A) Both a and b are true – a explains b
B) Both a and b are true – a doesn’t explain b
C) a is false, b is true
D) a is true, b is false
Answer:
D) a is true, b is false

Question 161.
The role of auxins is to :
A) promote fruit growth
B) stimulate positive phototropism
C) cause roots to develop
D) all of the above
Answer:
B) stimulate positive phototropism

Question 162.
Consider the statements a and b.
a – We will see nastic movements in mimosa
b – The same plant species exhibit hydrotropism
A) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are true
B) ‘a’ is true ‘b’ is false
C) ‘a is false ‘b’ is true
D) Both ‘a’ and’b’ are false
Answer:
A) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are true

Question 163.
Guess the correct answer in the ‘?’ box
A) Growth promoters
B) Growth inhibitors
C) Tropic
D) Trophism

Answer:
C) Tropic

Question 164.
Root shows ……………………. type of tropism.
A) Phototropism
B) Geo
C) Chemo
D) Nastic
Answer:
B) Geo

Question 165.
The reason for fluttering of butterflies around the flowers is …………………..
A) Chemotropism
B) Thigmotropism
C) Hydrotropism
D) Nastic movements
Answer:
A) Chemotropism

Question 166.
The growth of root is geotropism, and the growth of stem is …………………
A) Negative geotropism
B) Thigmotropism
C) Chemotropism
D) Hydrotropism
Answer:
A) Negative geotropism

Question 167.
Plants with weak stems such as cucumber and bittergourd show………………..
A) Phototropism
B) Thigmotropism
C) Geotropism
D) Chemotropism
Answer:
B) Thigmotropism

Question 168.
‘a’ – Bitter gourd grows by arranging support
‘b’- Ridge gourd grows without support
A) a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) both a & b are false
Answer:
B) a is true, b is false

Question 169.
The plant that grows in your surroundings / school premises shows thigmotropism. Find it from the following.
A) Mango
B) Cucumber
C) Sunflower
D) Banyan tree
Answer:
B) Cucumber

Question 170.
The following plant species show phototropism
A) Coconut, Sunflower
B) ‘Cucumber, Banyan
C) Mango, Neem
D) A & C
Answer:
A) Coconut, Sunflower

Question 171.
A farmer arranged support for cucumber plants. So that they creep and grow in normal conditions. What type of tropic movement is shown by cucumber?
A) Phototropism
B) Geotropism
C) Hydrotropism
D) Thigmotropism
Answer:
D) Thigmotropism

Question 172.
Scientific name of ‘touch me not’ plant is
A) Mangifera indica
B) Mimosa pudica
C) Azadiraehta indica
D) Cinchona officinalis
Answer:
B) Mimosa pudica

Question 173.
One of the following is not a growth effector
A) Auxins
B) Cytokinins
C) Abscisic acid
D) Gibberellins
Answer:
C) Abscisic acid

Question 174.
Find out mis – matched pair
1) Cucumber – Thigmotropism
2) Sunflower – Phototropism
3) Nectar secretion – Hydrotropism
A) 1
B) 1 & 2
C) 3
D) 1 & 3
Answer:
C) 3

Question 175.
Name the type of responses, shown by the plant in the picture due to contact or touch, is called
A) Hydrotropism
B) Thigmotropism
C) Phototropism
D) Getotropism

Answer:
B) Thigmotropism

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Local Self-Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Local Self-Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Panchayat president is called
A) Mayor
B) President
C) Councillor
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
D) Sarpanch

Question 2.
Panchayat is divided into
A) Wards
B) Divisions
C) Mandals
D) Paraganas
Answer:
A) Wards

Question 3.
The village panchayat is generally elected for a term of
A) 6 years
B) 7 years
C) 8 years
D) 5 years
Answer:
D) 5 years

Question 4.
Who fills the needs of people in villages ?
A) Municipalities
B) Zilla Parishad
C) Gram Panchayat
D) Municipal Corporation
Answer:
C) Gram Panchayat

Question 5.
Government schemes are implemented by
A) Private institution
B) Private people
C) Government Departments
D) President of Panchayat
Answer:
C) Government Departments

Question 6.
The village sarpanch is elected by
A) Members of Panchayat
B) Voters in Village
C) Elders in Village
D) Corporators
Answer:
B) Voters in Village

Question 7.
Every village is divided into
A) Wards
B) Streets
C) Councils
D) Corporates
Answer:
A) Wards

Question 8.
Who elects ward members?
A) Voters in the village
B) Village Panchayat members
C) Sarpanch
D) None
Answer:
A) Voters in the village

Question 9.
The age limit for the contestant as Village Panchayat Member
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 30 years
Answer:
B) 21 years

Question 10.
The number of seats that are sanctioned to the women in the Indian Parliament
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/4th
C) 1/5th
D) 1/6th
Answer:
A) 1/3rd

Question 11.
The Upa Sarpanch acts in the absence of the
A) Ward members
B) Sarpanch
C) Corporator
D) None
Answer:
B) Sarpanch

Question 12.
Number of Gram Panchayats in every Mandal
A) 10 – 20
B) 20 – 40
C) 30 – 40
D) 40 – 50
Answer:
B) 20 – 40

Question 13.
The members of the Gram Sabha must be adults. It means they must be of
A) 18 years or more
B) 20 years or more
C) 22 years or more
D) 25 years or more
Answer:
A) 18 years or more

Question 14.
Who is a member of the gram sabha?
A) every citizen
B) villager
C) every villager who has a vote
D) councilor
Answer:
C) every villager who has the vote

Question 15.
Which article of the Constitution of India addresses local self-governance?
A) 40
B) 44
C) 42
D) 45
Answer:
A) 40

Question 16.
In our state reservation to women in panchayat elections extended to
A) 60%
B) 1/3
C) 50%
D) 25%
Answer:
C) 50%

Question 17.
Dynasty famous for local self-government
A) Satavahanas
B) Cholas
C) Pandyan
D) Mourya
Answer:
B) Cholas

Question 18.
Grama Sachivalayam was started on
A) 2nd October 2014
B) 2nd October 2018
C) 2nd October 2017
D) 2nd October 2019
Answer:
D) 2nd October 2019

Question 19.
No. of people in Grama Sachivalayam is
A) 2500
B) 2200
C) 2000
D) 2400
Answer:
C) 2000

Question 20.
No. of village secretariat functionaries in Grama Sachivalayam
A) 11
B) 13
C) 18
D) 19
Answer:
A) 11

Question 21.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Grama Sabha                          A) Representative in Municipal Corporation
2) Municipal Corporation           B) Representative in Municipal Council
3) Municipal Council                  C) General body in a Grama Panchayat
4) Councillor                               D) Governing body in a Municipal Corporation
5) Corporator                              E) Governing body in a Municipality
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – E, 5 – A
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – E, 5 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – E, 4 – D, 5 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A

Question 22.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Article-40                                           A) Local self-governments in urban areas
2) 73rd Amendment                              B) 3 tier local self-governments in rural areas
3) 74th Amendment                              C) Local self-governments in rural areas
4) A.P. Panchayat Raj Act 1994              D) Local self governance
A) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
B) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C
C) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
C) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 23.
Choose the correct statement.
A: Rajasthan is the first state that implemented local self-government in 1959.
B: Telangana is the second state that implemented local self-government
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 24.
Choose the correct statement.
A: Grama Sabha consists of all voters in a panchayat.
B: Grama Panchayat consists of Sarpanch and ward members.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 25.
Choose the correct statement.
A: The system of Grama Sachivalayam was started on October 2nd 2019 in our state.
B: One Grama Sachivalayam is established per 2000 people.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Fill in the blanks.

1. 73rd and 74th amendments were made creating local self-governments by Parliament of India in ………………..
Answer:
1992

2. Reservations created by parliament for women in panchayat elections is ………………..
Answer:
1/3rd of seats

3. Reservations created by Andhra Pradesh for women in panchayat elections is ………………..
Answer:
50% of seats

4. Elections to gram panchayats take place once in every ………………..
Answer:
five years

5. One Grama Sachivalayam is established for every ………………..
Answer:
2000 people

6. One Grama Volunteer is appointed for every ………………..
Answer:
50 households

7. Three-tier local self-governments in Andhra Pradesh rural areas was established according to ………………..
Answer:
Panchayat Raj Act 1994

8. General body at village level ………………..
Answer:
Grama Sabha

9. ‘Grama sabha’ is presided over by the ………………..
Answer:
President / Sarpanch

10. A person should attain ……………….. years age or above to contest in panchayat elections.
Answer:
21

11. ……………….. is the head of the Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Sarpanch

12. Deputy Sarpanch or Upa-Sarpanch is elected by ………………..
Answer:
Sarpanch and ward members

13. Deputy Sarpanch or Upa-Sarpanch is elected in ………………..
Answer:
indirect election

14. The system of Grama Sachivalayam was started on ………………..
Answer:
October 2nd, 2019

15. Grama Volunteers system was started on ………………..
Answer:
August 15th, 2019

16. No. of Village Secretariat employees in every Grama Sachivalayam is ………………..
Answer:
11

17. Panchayats come under a ………………..
Answer:
Mandal Parishad

18. All the Mandal Parishads in the district come under ………………..
Answer:
Zilla Parishad

19. Councillors or Ward Member in the Nagar Panchayats are chosen in ………………..
Answer:
direct election

20. Vice Chairman of Zilla Parishad is chosen in ………………..
Answer:
indirect election

21. Ward Councillors in a municipality will be elected for every ………………..
Answer:
5 years

22. Corporators are the elected members in a ………………..
Answer:
Municipal Corporation

23. First state that adopted the Panchayat Raj system is ………………..
Answer:
Rajasthan

24. Rajasthan adopted the Panchayat Raj system in ………………..
Answer:
1959

25. the Second state that adopted the Panchayat Raj system is ………………..
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh

26. Nominated member is called ……………….. member.
Answer:
Co-opted

27. Oldest municipality in Andhra Pradesh is ………………..
Answer:
Bheemunipatnam

28. Bheemunipatnam municipality was established in ………………..
Answer:
1861

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In monarchy type of government ruling will be done by
A) King/queen
B) President
C) Prime minister
D) Governor
Answer:
A) King/queen

Question 2.
People enjoyed liberty during the rule of
A) Chandragupta-II
B) Satakarni
C) Ashoka
D) Pulakesin-II
Answer:
C) Ashoka

Question 3.
Democracy is ‘Government of the people, by the people and for the people’ said by
A) Ashoka
B) Abraham Lincoln
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Nehru
Answer:
B) Abraham Lincoln

Question 4.
Direct democracy is followed in
A) USA
B) The kingdom of Saudi Arabia
C) Switzerland
D) Japan
Answer:
C) Switzerland

Question 5.
Which of the following is an important part of the national government?
A) State Assembly
B) Parliament
C) Courts
D) Municipal Corporation
Answer:
B) Parliament

Question 6.
In which type of government is the leader chosen by the people?
A) Monarchy
B) Dictatorship
C) Democracy
D) King or queen
Answer:
C) Democracy

Question 7.
Best example for presidential system
A) India
B) America
C) Britain
D) Canada
Answer:
B) America

Question 8.
The final decision is taken by the king/queen. This is related with
A) Representative Government
B) Democratic Government
C) Monarchial Government
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Monarchial Government

Question 9.
…………. is the function of the Executive.
A) Laws making
B) Laws implementation
C) Law interpretation
D) None
Answer:
B) Laws implementation

Question 10.
The government also works at local level. Here local level means
A) village
B) state
C) panchayat
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 11.
A: Government is the group of people that controls and makes decisions for a country.
B: Many types of government like monarchy and democracy have worked from ancient times to present.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 12.
A: Monarch: Comes to power by election.
B: Democracy: Form of government run by the people.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 13.
A: Direct Democracy: People participate in decision making through representatives.
B: Indirect Democracy: People participate in decision making directly.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 14.
A: In a direct democracy all changes have to be approved by the citizen.
B: USA is an example of direct democracy.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 15.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Democracy A) Executive body is formed from the legislature
2) Monarchy B) A person who acts on behalf of another
3) Representative C) Executive body is not formed from the legislature
4) Parliamentary system D) Government formed by people
5) Presidential system E) Government with a monarch as head
A) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – B, 4 – A, 5 – C
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A, 5 – E
C) 1 – E, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – D
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A, 5 – E
Answer:
A) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – B, 4 – A, 5 – C

Fill in the blanks.

1. The government works at different levels at the local level, at the level of the state and at the level of ……………..
Answer:
national

2. India is an example for …………….. type of indirect democracy.
Answer:
Parliamentary

3. Election play an important role in …………….. kind of democracy.
Answer:
indirect

4. In India, before independence only a small minority was allowed to ……………..
Answer:
vote

5. …………….. is also a part of the government.
Answer:
Judiciary

6. In …………….. the government has to explain its actions and defend its decisions to the people.
Answer:
democracy

7. In …………….. it is the people who give the government power.
Answer:
democracy

8. “Democracy is government of the people, by the people, for the people” said by ……………..
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln

9. …………….. is laws making organ of government.
Answer:
Legislature

10. The majority vote makes decisions in …………….. type of government.
Answer:
rule of the majority

Match the following:

Question 1.
1. Decision made by king/queen        [ ]        A) Supreme court
2. Greece                                             [ ]        B) Government
3. Highest court                                  [ ]        C) High court
4. Peoples government                       [ ]        D) Monarchy
5. It protects rights of the people       [ ]        E) Democracy
–                                                                      F) Presidential system
–                                                                      G) Birth place of democracy
Answer:
1. D
2. G
3. A
4. E
5. B

Question 2.
1. Direct Democracy
2. Parliamentary System                    [ ]               A) Rule of majority
3. Indirect democracy                        [ ]               B) Inheritance of power
4. Monarchy                                       [ ]              C) Government formed by the people
5. Democracy                                     [ ]              D) Supreme Court
6. Presidential system                        [ ]              E) Executive does not formed from legislature
–                                                                          F) The people participate directly in making laws
–                                                                          G) They participate through their representatives
–                                                                          H) Executive responsible to legislature
Answer:
1. F
2. H
3. G
4. B
5. C
6. E

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Kingdoms and Empires on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Kingdoms and Empires with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
After Mahapadmananda …………… became the king of Magadha.
A) Ashoka
B) Chandragupta Maurya
C) Bindusara
D) Narasimha Varma
Answer:
B) Chandragupta Maurya

Question 2.
……………….. is a unique leader.
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Bindusara
C) Ashoka
D) Padmananda
Answer:
C) Ashoka

Question 3.
The most powerful king among the sixteen kingdoms was
A) Vanga
B) Avanthi
C) Magadha
D) Kasi
Answer:
C) Magadha

Question 4.
An unsuccessful attempt to conquer Kalinga was made by
A) Ashoka
B) Maurya Chandragupta
C) Bimbisara
D) Chandragupta – II
Answer:
B) Maurya Chandragupta

Question 5.
The inscriptions were written in
A) Prakrit language
B) Sanskrit language
C) Hindi
D) Bengali
Answer:
A) Prakrit language

Question 6.
The number of lions in our National Emblem are
A) 3
B) 2
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 7.
‘Satyameva Jayathe’ in our National Emblem was an extract from
A) The Vedas
B) The Puranas
C) Jathaka stories
D) Manduka Upanishad
Answer:
D) Manduka Upanishad

Question 8.
The largest empire in the history of ancient India was
A) The Mauryan empire
B) The Gupta empire
C) The empire of Kanishka
D) The empire of Harshavardhana
Answer:
A) The Mauryan empire

Question 9.
The famous poet ‘Kalidasa’ was in the court of
A) Samudragupta
B) Chandragupta -1
C) Chandragupta – II
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Chandragupta – II

Question 10.
The Sathavahana king ‘Gautamiputra Sathakarni’ got the title of ‘Thrisamudradheeswara’ because
A) He conquered the land between three kingdoms
B) He conquered the land between three seas
C) He conquered the land between three rivers
D) He conquered the islands of three seas.
Answer:
B) He conquered the land between three seas

Question 11.
The rulers who came to throne after Satavahanas.
A) Ikshwakas
B) Vishnukundins
C) Bruhat Palayanas
D) Ananda Gotrikas
Answer:
A) Ikshwakas

Question 12.
Who expressed themselves as the heirs of lord Rama dynasty?
A) Vishnukundins
B) Palayanas
C) Ikshwakas
D) Ananda Gotrikas
Answer:
C) Ikshwakas

Question 13.
Who was the son of Bindusara?
A) Ashoka
B) Chandragupta
C) Kautilya
D) Pulumavi
Answer:
A) Ashoka

Question 14.
The laws of Ashoka were mainly in this script.
A) Brahmi
B) Devanagari
C) Dravida
D) Arabic
Answer:
A) Brahmi

Question 15.
Ashoka declared that he would never participate in wars after this war.
A) Kanauj
B) Chowsa
C) Kalinga
D) Panipat
Answer:
C) Kalinga

Question 16.
The only one king, who withdrew himself from wars, even though he won.
A) Alexander
B) Ashoka
C) Allauddin Khilji
D) Akbar
Answer:
B) Ashoka

Question 17.
“I believe that winning people through Dhamma is much better than conquering them through force.” These words were by
A) Alexander
B) Akbar
C) Ashoka
D) Kanishka
Answer:
C) Ashoka

Question 18.
The Sanskrit word is equal to ‘Dhamma’.
A) Dharma
B) Truth
C) Thought
D) Marga
Answer:
A) Dharma

Question 19.
Who ruled his people as his own children?
A) Ashoka
B) Kanishka
C) Buddha
D) Chandragupta
Answer:
A) Ashoka

Question 20.
The Sculpture of four lions is at
A) Sanchi
B) Pataliputra
C) Sarnath
D) Ujjain
Answer:
C) Sarnath

Question 21.
Capital of Mauryan empire
A) Panchale
B) Kausambi
C) Brahmagiri
D) Pataliputra
Answer:
D) Pataliputra

Question 22.
National Emblem of India is in
A) Pataliputra
B) Kalinga
C) Sarnath
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Sarnath

Question 23.
Earlier famous ruler of Gupta dynasty
A) Satakarni
B) Pulakesin
C) Chandragupta
D) Ashoka
Answer:
C) Chandragupta

Question 24.
Navaratnas are in the period of
A) Samudragupta
B) Chandragupta Maurya
C) Chandragupta -1
D) Chandragupta -2
Answer:
D) Chandragupta -2

Question 25.
Gupta’s empire came to an end with the invasions of
A) Hunas
B) Mouryas
C) Ashoka
D) Chandragupta
Answer:
A) Hunas

Question 26.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Indigenous           A) Study of space
2) Astronomy           B) A group of one race people
3) Empire                 C) Native made
4) Clan                     D) Large kingdom
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

Question 27.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Inscriptions      A) on the east coast of India
2) Dynasty            B) Messages carved on rock surfaces
3) Kalinga             C) Physician
4) Dhanvantari     D) Series of rulers from the same family
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 -D, 4 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
D) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
Answer:
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 28.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Aryabhatta            A) Poet
2) Sushruta                B) Astronomer
3) Kalidasa                 C) First Indian Doctor to perform plastic surgery
4) Varahamihira         D) Astronomer and Mathematician
A) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 -B
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
C) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 -B

Question 29.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Mauryan Dynasty      A) Gautamiputra Satakarni
2) Gupta Empire            B) Ashoka
3) Satavahanas              C) Samudragupta-II
4) Ikshavakus                 D) Descendants of Rama
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 -C, 4 – D
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D
Answer:
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D

Question 30.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Pallavas                          A) Mahabalipuram
2) Chalukyas                      B) Mcihendravarman
3) Five Rathas                    C) Pulakesi
4) Aihole Inscription          D) Karnataka
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D
C) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D
Answer:
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D

Question 31.
A: A territory ruled by a king was called an empire:
B: Maurya Chandragupta became the king of Magadha with the help of Kautilya.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 32.
A: Chandragupta Maurya made an unsuccessful attempt to conquer Kalinga.
B: Ashoka won the war and conquered Kalinga.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B Is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 33.
“I believe that winning people through Damma is much better than conquering them through force”. Who said these words?
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Bindusara
C) Ashoka
D) Satakarni
Answer:
C) Ashoka

Question 34.
The four lions represent four qualities. Which of these is correct?
A) Power, courage, confidence, pride
B) Power, courage, sincerity, confidence
C) Power, courage, confidence, security
D) Power, sincerity, morality, security
The below picture shows Pancha Pandava rathas.

Answer:
A) Power, courage, confidence, pride

Question 35.
Can you say in which period they were carved?
A) Narasimhavarman-I
B) Mahendravarman-I
C) Narasimhavarman-II
D) Rajasimha style
Answer:
A) Narasimhavarman-I

Question 36.
Where do these Rathas situate?
A) Pataliputra
B) Sarnath
C) Mahabalipuram
D) Kanchi
Answer:
C) Mahabalipuram

Question 37.
The below-shown coins belong to which period

A) Ashoka
B) Samudra Gupta
C) Satakarni
D) Mahendra Varman-I
Answer:
B) Samudra Gupta

Question 38.
Pataliputra was the capital of two great empires. Which of these is correct.
A) Mauryans and Chalukyas
B) Mauryans and Guptas
C) Mauryans and Pallavas
D) Guptas and Chalukyas
Answer:
B) Mauryans and Guptas

Fill in the blanks.

1. A territory ruled by a king was called …………..
Answer:
Kingdom

2. Larger Kingdoms were called …………….
Answer:
empires

3. Maurya Chandragupta became the king of Magadha with the help of …………..
Answer:
Kautilya

4. Capital city of Mauryan empire ……………….
Answer:
Pataliputra

5. Megasthenes wrote a book named ………………
Answer:
Indica

6. Bindusara became the ruler of Magadha after ……………..
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya

7. Ashoka became the king of Mauryan dynasty after …………….
Answer:
Bindusara

8. Ashoka became the follower of …………….
Answer:
Buddhism

9. Buddhism preaches …………….
Answer:
non-violence

10. Dharma in Prakrit is called …………….
Answer:
damma

11. The lion Capital of Ashoka’s pillar is at ……………..
Answer:
Sarnath

12. ‘Satyameva Jayathe’ is an extract from ……………..
Answer:
Mundaka Upanishad

13. Ashoka learnt that water and food are sacred from ……………..
Answer:
Buddhist monk

14. Earlier famous ruler of Gupta dynasty was ………………
Answer:
Chandragupta-I

15. Capital city of the Mauryan Empire ……………….
Answer:
Pataliputra

16. Samudragupta is the son of ………………..
Answer:
Chandragupta-1

17. The king who defeated the Saka kings of the western India ……………..
Answer:
Chandragupta-II

18. The king who defeated 12 rulers of the south I ……………..
Answer:
Samudragupta

19. Scholars in the court of Chandragupta-II are called …………….
Answer:
Navaratnas

20. Computer programmers today often use ……………..
Answer:
algorithms

21. Well known astronomer and mathematician in Guptas period …………….
Answer:
Aryabhatta

22. The scientist who calculated solar year during Guptas period ……………
Answer:
Brahmagupta

23. The first Indian doctor who carried out plastic surgery ………………
Answer:
Sushruta

24. The basic text for Ayurvedic medicine ‘Charaka Samhitha’ was composed by ………………
Answer:
Charaka

25. Gupta period is called ……………
Answer:
Golden Age

26. Gupta’s empire came to an end with the invasions of …………….
Answer:
Hunas

27. Dhanyakataka is located on the banks of the river …………….
Answer:
Krishna

28. The king who defeated the Sakas, the Yavanas and the Pahlavas is ……………..
Answer:
Gauthamiputra Satakarni

29. The king who got the title of Trisamudradheeswara was ……………..
Answer:
Gauthamiputra Satakarni

30. The Buddhist scholar who lived in the Satavahanas period ……………..
Answer:
Acharya Nagarjuna

31. The kings who established their kingdom with capital at Vijayapuri ……………….
Answer:
Ikshavakus

32. Ikshvakus claimed to be descendants of ………………
Answer:
Lord Rama

33. Capital city of Pallavan dynasty ………………
Answer:
Kanchipuram

34. Dravidian architecture which was known as Mahendra style was introduced by …………….
Answer:
Mahendravarman-I

35. Narasimhavarman -1 was known as ……………….
Answer:
Mamalla

36. Pancha Pandava Rathas are in ……………..
Answer:
Mahabalipuram

37. Pallava king who was known as Rajasimha ……………….
Answer:
Narasimhavarman-II

38. The king who defeated the emperor Harshavardhana ……………….
Answer:
Pulakesi-II

39. Defeat of Harshavardhana by Pulakesi – II was mentioned in ………………
Answer:
Aihole inscription

40. The Aihole inscription was composed by ………………
Answer:
Ravi Keerthi

Match the following:

1. The Gupta’s                  [ ]            A) Badami
2. The Satavahanas          [ ]            B) Varanasi
3. The Ikshwakas              [ ]            C) Thanjavur
4. The Pallavas                  [ ]            D) Pataliputra
5. The Chalukyas              [ ]            E) Kanchi
–                                                       F) Dhanyakataka
–                                                       G) Vijayapuri
Answer:
1. D
2. F
3. G
4. E
5. A

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Excretion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 4th Lesson Excretion with Answers

Concept – I : Introduction-Excretion in Human Beings

Question 1.
Metabolic activities are
A) Only Anabolic activity
B) Only Catabolic activity
C) Both Anabolic & Catabolic activities
D) Partially Anabolic activity
Answer:
C) Both Anabolic & Catabolic activities

Question 2.
The word Excretion belongs to ……………….. language.
A) Greek
B) English
C) Chinese
D) Latin
Answer:
D) Latin

Question 3.
We have to wash the hands with ……………. after the dissection of kidney.
A) Dettol soap
B) fresh water
C) anti bacterial lotion
D) petrol
Answer:
C) anti bacterial lotion

Question 4.

Based on the above table the normal range of creatinine in the urine
A) <100 mg
B) 102 mg
C) 1 – 2 mg
D) 200 mg
Answer:
C) 1 – 2 mg

Question 5.

The volume of potassium at normal level in urine
A) 125 m.mol /L
B) 25 – 100 m.mol /L
C) 100 – 125 m.mol /L
D) 250 – 120 m.mol /L
Answer:
B) 25 – 100 m.mol /L

Question 6.
Read the contents of the urine as per the information given in table

The normal range of iurea present in the urine per day
A) 20 – 30 gm
B) 20 – 30 mg
C) 50 – 80 gm
D) 20 – 30 mmol/L
Answer:
A) 20 – 30 gm

Question 7.
How can you identify the waste materials in blood ?
A) Through scanning
B) Through urine test
C) Using thermometer
D) Through blood test
Answer:
B) Through urine test

Question 8.
Find the odd one different from the other three.
A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Proteins
D) Pyrethroids
Answer:
D) Pyrethroids

Question 9.
Find the incorrect function of the urinary system:
A) Removal of waste products from the blood stream.
B) Storage and excretion of urine
C) Regulation of leucocyte and platelet production
D) Regulation of blood volume and indirectly blood pressure
Answer:
C) Regulation of leucocyte and platelet production

Concept – 2 : Kidneys

Question 10.
Which of the following is correct path taken by urine in our body ?
A) Kidney, urethra ,ureters, bladder
B) Kidney, ureters,bladder, urethra
C) Kidney, bladder,ureters, urethra
D) Kidney, urethra ,bladder, ureters
Answer:
B) Kidney, ureters,bladder, urethra

Question 11.
Part of the nephron that exists in outer zone of kidney
A) Loop of the Henle
B) PCT
C) DCT
D) Bowman’s capsule
Answer:
D) Bowman’s capsule

Question 12.
In a typical adult kidney, the renal ………………….. is subdivided intp 8 to 15 distinct conical or triangular structures known as renal ……………………….
A) cortex; papillae
B) medulla; pyramids
C) medulla; columns
D) cortex; pyramids
Answer:
B) medulla; pyramids

Question 13.
Arrange the following to trace the path of filtrate through a renal tubule :
1) proximal convoluted tubule
2) distal convoluted tubule
3) ascending limb of nephron loop
4) descending limb of nephron loop
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C) 1, 4, 3, 2
D) 3, 2, 1, 4
Answer:
C) 1, 4, 3, 2

Question 14.
The cup shaped broader end of nephron is called:
A) Glomerulus
B) Cortex
C) Medulla
D) Bowman’s capsule
Answer:
B) Cortex

Question 15.
‘U’ shaped part of the Renal tubule is called:
A) Loop of Henle
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Distal convoluted tubule
D) Glomerulus
Answer:
C) Distal convoluted tubule

Question 16.
Choose the correct sentence that concerns with kidneys –
A) One pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, urinary bladder
B) One pair of urinary bladder, one pair of ureters, kidney
C) One pair of kidneys, one pair of urinary bladder, ureter
D) One pair of ureters,one pair ofkidneys, ureter
Answer:
A) One pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, urinary bladder

Question 17.
The part in which kidneys are located is ……………………
A) Ventral cavity
B) Abdominal cavity
C) Lateral part of the body
D) Chest portion
Answer:
B) Abdominal cavity

Question 18.
The inner side of a kidney has ………………….
A) Pyramid
B) Bowman’s capsule
C) Hilus
D) Himunus
Answer:
C) Hilus

Question 19.
The blood vessel which enters through hilus is …………………….
A) Renal artery
B) Renal vein
C) Adrenal vein
D) Adrenal artery
Answer:
A) Renal artery

Question 20.
The blood vessel which comes out from hilus is …………………
A) Renal artery
B) Afferent arteriole
C) Efferent arteriole
D) Renal vein
Answer:
D) Renal vein

Question 21.
The dark coloured outer zone is called
A) Medulla
B) Nephron
C) Auricle
D) Cortex
Answer:
D) Cortex

Question 22.
The colour of medulla present in kidney is …………………….
A) Brown
B) Dark brown
C) Red
D) Pale colour
Answer:
D) Pale colour

Question 23.
Way of passage of urine in human body
A) Kidneys
B) Ureters
C) Urethra
D) Urinary bladder
Answer:
C) Urethra

Question 24.
a – Right kidney is slightly lower in position
b – Right abdominal region of body is occupied by liver ‘
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) Both a & b are true, b doesn’t explain a
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
B) Both a & b are true, b doesn’t explain a

Question 25.
The oxygenated bipod enters into kidneys through …………………… (i) and ……………….. (ii) collects the deoxygenated blood.
A) (i) – Renal vein (ii) – Renal artery
B) (i) – Renal artery (ii) – Renal vein
C) (i) – Hilus (ii) – Renal vein
D) (i) – Renal artery (ii) – Hilus
Answer:
B) (i) – Renal artery (ii) – Renal vein

Question 26.
The position of the right kidney is lower than the left kidney due to the :
A) Presence of adrenal gland above it
B) Presence of pancreas above it
C) Presence of spinal bone above it
D) Presence of liver above it
Answer:
D) Presence of liver above it

Question 27.
Consider the following.
a) Urethra is 4 cm long in females
b) Urethra is 20 cm in.male
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 28.
Identify correct sentence given below:
A) Right kidney – slightly lower than left kidney
B) Right kidney – slightly higher than left kidney
C) Right kidney – left kidney are same height
D) Right kidney is nearer to vertebral column than left kidney.
Answer:
A) Right kidney – slightly lower than left kidney

Question 29.
The order of excretory organs:

A) i – Blood vessel, ii – Kidney, iii – Ureter, iv – Urinary bladder
B) i – Kidney, ii – Blood vessel, iii – Urinary bladder, iv – Ureter
C) i – Blood vessel, ii – Kidney, iii – Urinary bladder, iv – Ureter
D) i – Urinary bladder, ii – Ureter, iii – Kidney, iv – Blood vessel
Answer:
A) i – Blood vessel, ii – Kidney, iii – Ureter, iv – Urinary bladder

Question 30.
Ramesh has forgot some parts in the following picture. Label a and b. ’

A) a – pituitary gland, b. – ureter
B) a – adrenal gland, b – ureter
C) a – ureter, b – urethra
D) a – kidney, b – ureter
Answer:
B) a – adrenal gland, b – ureter

Question 31.
Most nephrons have short loops and are located almost entirely in the………………….
A) renal cortex
B) ureters
C) renal medulla
D) renal pelvis
Answer:
A) renal cortex

Question 32.
Diabetes insipidus is due to the deficiency of this hormone.
A) Insulin
B) Adrenaline
C) Vasopressin
D) Parathormone
Answer:
C) Vasopressin

Question 33.
What is the function of part labelled with ‘3’?

A) Ultrafiltration
B) Collection of urine
C) Collection of blood
D) Storage of urine
Answer:
B) Collection of urine

Question 34.
Choose the correct pathway of urine
A) Kidneys → ureters→ urinary bladder → urethra
B) Ureters → urinary bladder → urethra → kidneys
C) Urinary bladder → urethra → kidneys → ureters
D) Urethra → kidneys → ureters → urinary bladder
Answer:
A) Kidneys → ureters→ urinary bladder → urethra

Question 35.
Network structure of blood capillaries in nephron forms ………………….
A) Hilus
B) Glomerulus
C) Malpighian body
D) Renal tubule
Answer:
B) Glomerulus

Concept – 3 : Mechanism of Urine Formation

Question 36.
The structural and functional unit of kidney is called
A) Neuron
B) Nephron
c) Nephridia
D) Flame cell
Answer:
B) Nephron

Question 37.
Urine can be retained in bladder till it get filled up to the maximum capacity of
A) 700 – 800 ml
B) 300 – 400 ml
C) 600 – 650 ml
D) 800 – 1000 ml
Answer:
A) 700 – 800 ml

Question 38.
Which of the following hormone has direct impact on urine formation?
A) Adrenalin
B) Vasopressin
C) Creatinine
D) Oestrogen
Answer:
B) Vasopressin

Question 39.
Amber (Yellow) colour to the urine is due to
A) urochrome
B) bilirubin
c) biliverdin
D) chlorides
Answer:
A) urochrome

Question 40.
Urine formation mechanism has the following 4 steps. Arrange them systematically.
i) Tubular reabsorption
ii) Glomerular filtration
iii) Concentration of urine
iv) Tubular secretion
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answer:
D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Question 41.
The part where the maintenance of p^H occurs ……………………
A) Renal tubule
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C) Collecting tube
D) Pelvis.
Answer:
B) Distal convoluted tubule

Question 42.
The concentration of urine is ……………….. than that of blood concentration
A) equal
B) more
C) less
D) more or less
Answer:
B) more

Question 43.
Excessive, repeated, dilute urination is called …………………
A) Diabetes
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hepatitis
Answer:
B) Diabetes insipidus

Question 44.
The first kidney transplantation was performed by
A) Henle
B) Hufnagel
C) Brugamen
D) Parwin
Answer:
B) Hufnagel

Question 45.
Due to the concentration of urine in urinary bladder urination occurs. This is called
A) Micturition
B) Faecal excretion
C) Diabetes
D) Circulation
Answer:
A) Micturition

Question 46.
One of the following is a correct composition of urine

Answer:
C) 96% 2.5% 1.5%

Question 47.
The failure of kidney is called
A) ESRD
B) MSRD
C) ASRD
D) KSRD
Answer:
A) ESRD

Question 48.
Place of filtration of blood in nephron
A) Bowman’s capsule
B) Henle’s loop
C) Proximal convoluted tubule
D) Distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
A) Bowman’s capsule

Question 49.
a) The urine gets concentrated by reabsorption of water
b) Vasopressin is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is false b is true
C) a is true b is false
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 50.
Expanded form of ESRD is
A) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate of Deficiency
B) End Stage Renal Disease
C) Emergency Service and Rural Development
D) Endocrine Supplement Renal Disease.
Answer:
B) End Stage Renal Disease

Question 51.
The maintenance of equilibrium of concentration of liquids is
A) Homosapien
B) Stability
C) Homeostasis
D) Control
Answer:
C) Homeostasis

Question 52.
Millions of microscopic thin tubular units in each kidney are …………………
A) Neurons
B) Plasma lemma
C) Medulla
D) Nephrons
Answer:
D) Nephrons

Question 53.
The cup like structure in Nephron is ………………..
A) Glomerulus
B) Bowman’s capsule
C) Malpighian body
D) Loop of Henle
Answer:
B) Bowman’s capsule

Question 54.
Which of the following is correct regarding the filtration of wastes in blood vessels diameter?
A) Diameter of efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arteriole.
B) Diameter of efferent arteriole is more than that of afferent arteriole.
C) Blood vessels have the pores and conduct the filtration.
D) Blood vessels excrete the wastes by contraction.
Answer:
A) Diameter of efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arteriole.

Question 55.
The squamous epithelial cells in Bowman’s capsule are ………………………
A) Thrombocytes
B) Podocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Nephrons
Answer:
B) Podocytes

Question 56.
Distal convoluted tubule opens into ………………….
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Collecting tube
D) Afferent arteriole
Answer:
C) Collecting tube

Question 57.
In nephron, on which of the following the reabsorption of water depends ?
A) quantity of water
B) materials which have to be excreted
C) quantity of blood
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 58.
Fill the flow chart of urine formation.

A) Tubular secretion
C) Tubular excretion
B) Tubular filtration
D) Urine formation
Answer:
A) Tubular secretion

Question 59.
Choose the correct order from the following:
A) Renal tubule → Distal convoluted tubule → Collecting tube → Pelvis → Ureter
B) Ureter → Pelvis → Collecting tube → Renal tubule → Distal convoluted tubule
C) Distal convoluted tubule → Collecting tube → Pelvis → Ureter → Renal tubule
D) Pelvis → Ureter → Collecting tube → Renal tubule → Distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
A) Renal tubule → Distal convoluted tubule → Collecting tube → Pelvis → Ureter

Question 60.
The most poisonous material among nitrogenous waste compounds of human body is …………………
A) ammonia
B) urea
G) uric acid
D) bile pigments
Answer:
A) ammonia

Question 61.
The acidic urine becomes alkaline on standing due to the decomposition of urea to …………………..
A) Sodium
B) Deamines
C) Uric acid
D) Ammonia
Answer:
D) Ammonia

Question 62.
a) Podocytes are formed of epithelial tissue
b) Podocytes possess pores to filter the substances
A) Both a& b are true
B) b is true, a is false
C) a is true, b is false
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a& b are true

Question 63.
a) In the beginning urine is acidic later it converts into alkaline,
b) Ammonia is formed by breaking down of urea
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) Both a & b are false, b doesn’t explain a
C) a is true b is false
D) a is false b is true
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a

Question 64.
A woman is in uremia stage. Therefore ………………….
i) Legs and hands are swollen
ii) Water and wastes are accumulated
iii) Weakness and tiredness
iv) No harm to kidneys
A) All are correct
B) Only (iv) is correct
C) Only (iv) is wrong
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Only (iv) is wrong

Question 65.
Observe the a,b statements:
a) The urine formed by glomerular filtration is primary urine.
b) It is equal to the blood in chemical composition.
A) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are true
B) a true, b false
C) a false, b true
D) a,b both are false
Answer:
A) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are true

Question 66.
ESRD disease is related to this organ.
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Liver
Answer:
C) Kidneys

Question 67.
What will happen if sufficient amount of vasopressin is not secreted in the body?
A) Excretes concentrated urine
B) Excretes dilute urine
C) Excretes proteins along with urine
D) Excretes red coloured urine
Answer:
B) Excretes dilute urine

Question 68.
A person’s limbs are swollen and he is suffering from weakness and fatigue. This organ may be damaged in him.
A) Kidney
B) Brain
C) Heart
D) Liver
Answer:
A) Kidney

Question 69.
Every day Vikki’s brother in a given time passes urine on bed. What is the reason?
A) Less production of Adrenalin
B) More production of Vasopressin
C) No production of Adrenalin
D) Vasopressin not at all released
Answer:
D) Vasopressin not at all released

Question 70.
Which of the following is true concerning kidney transplants?
A) There is a shortage of people needing kidneys.
B) There is nearly a 100% success rate using artificial kidneys for transplant.
C) Removed of the donor kidney is very risky, often fatal.
D) There is a shortage of kidneys for transplant.
Answer:
D) There is a shortage of kidneys for transplant.

Question 71.
Urge for micturition occurs when urinary bladder is filled with …………….. milli litres of urine .
A) 300 – 800
B) 300 – 400
C) 700 – 800
D) 1600 -1800
Answer:
B) 300 – 400

Question 72.
The substance which is not reabsorbed into the blood capillaries surrounding the tubule nephron is mainly :
A) glucose
B) amino acid
C) urea
D) water
Answer:
C) urea

Question 73.
The below given part belongs to human excretory system .What is the process that occurs here ?

A) Reabsorption of water
B) Excretion
C) Urine purification
D) Ultrafiltration
Answer:
D) Ultrafiltration

Question 74.
If you keep an egg in the salt water , the egg will be contracted. The reason is
A) exo osmosis
B) endosmosis
C) Pressure
D) Diffusion
Answer:
A) exo osmosis

Question 75.
A ,B ,C, D are given below .Arrange the mechanism of urine formation in the correct order .
1) Glomerular filtration
2) Tubular reabsorption
3) Tubular secretion
4) Concentration of urine
A) A →B → C → D
B) B → A → C → D
C) A → C → B → D
D) A → B → D → C
Answer:
C) A → C → B → D

Question 76.
Major component present in urine in human beings is ………………………
A) urea
B) creatinine
C) sodium
D) water
Answer:
D) water

Question 77.
This hormone is secreted when urine is with high concentration.
A) Insulin
B) Vasopressin
C) Thyroxin
D) Adrenaline
Answer:
B) Vasopressin

Question 78.
Blood filtration unit in Nephron is…………………….
A) Loop of Henle
B) First convoluted tubule
C) Bowman’s capsule
D) Second convoluted tubule
Answer:
C) Bowman’s capsule

Concept – 4 : Dialysis

Question 79.
In dialysis, anticoagulant used to blood, taken from main artery in order to prevent the clotting of blood is …………………..
A) Heparin
B) Anti coagulase
C) Thrombin
D) Prothrombin
Answer:
A) Heparin

Question 80.
What liquid material does doctor use in dialysis ?
A) Plasma
B) Dialysing fluid
C) Janus green
D) Paraffin liquid
Answer:
B) Dialysing fluid

Question 81.
In Visakhapatnam, the gang of kidney thieves were arrested. They have performed so many kidney transplan-tation operations. How kidney transplantation is performed ?
i) Kidney should be taken from close relative only.
ii) There is modern clinical procedures through which any kind of kidney can be transplanted.
iii) The damaged kidney of the patient only be cured.
iv) Arrange the machine in the place of damaged kidney.
Find the incorrect ones from above.
A) (i) only
B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
D) (iv) only
Answer:
D) (iv) only

Question 82.
If a patient is put on dialysis, he is most likely to be suffering from a severe ailment of the :
A) circulatory system
B) respiratory system
C) excretory system
D) digestive system
Answer:
C) excretory system

Question 83.
Each dialysis session lasts for …………………
A) 2 – 3 hours
B) 3 – 4 hours
C) 3 – 6 hours
D) 5 hours
Answer:
C) 3 – 6 hours

Concept – 5 : Other Pathways of Excretion

Question 84.
Which of the following is not an
excretory organ ?
A) Lungs
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Answer:
D) Pancreas

Question 85.
Which of the following pigment is not formed in the liver ?
A) Bilirubin
B) Biliverdin
C) Urochrome
D) Haemoglobin
Answer:
D) Haemoglobin

Question 86.
The element which is not reabsorbed in the large intestine
A) Calcium
B) Magnesium
C) Silicon
D) Iron
Answer:
C) Silicon

Question 87.
What is not really concerned with excretion given below ?
A) To send CO₂ out
B) Defecation
C) Sweat
D) to remove urea
Answer:
A) To send CO₂ out

Question 88.
Whom do you consult to know about composition of urine ?
A) Department of bio-chemistry
B) Department of physiology
C) Members of bio-technology
D) Department of pathology
Answer:
A) Department of bio-chemistry

Question 89.
The excretory material other than urine eliminated from the body
A) Tears
B) Blood
C) Sweat
D) Hormones
Answer:
C) Sweat

Question 90.
In haemodialysis process, blood is taken out from the body through :
A) Venacava
B) Artery
C) Vein
D) Both B and C
Answer:
B) Artery

Question 91.
Match the following:

i. Skin	a. Bile pigments
ii. Liver	b. Sebum
iii. Colon	c. Salts of calcium, magnesium

A) c, a, b
B) a, b, c
C) b, a, c
D) b, c, a
Answer:
A) c, a, b

Concept – 6 : Excretion in Other Organisms

Question 92.
The excretory organ in cockroach
A) malpighian tubules
B) raphids
C) ureters
D) nephridia
Answer:
A) malpighian tubules

Question 93.
Flame cells are excretory organs in
A) earth worm
B) house fly
C) fishes
D) platyhelminthes
Answer:
D) platyhelminthes

Question 94.
Special excretory organs are absent in
A) birds
B) amoeba
C) sponges
D) A and B
Answer:
B) amoeba

Question 95.
Choose the correct pair:
A) Protozoa – Flame cells
B) Annelida – Kidneys
C) Echinodermata – Nephridia
D) Arthropoda – Green glands
Answer:
D) Arthropoda – Green glands

Question 96.
Match the following,

List – A	List – B
1. Flame cells	a) Nematoda
2. Water vascular	b) Arthropoda system
3. Green glands	c) Starfish

A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b

Question 97.
According to the studies of evolution the excretory structures were first seen in one of the following.
A) Protozoa
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Nemetyhelminthes
D) Both B & C
Answer:
B) Platyhelminthes

Question 98.
Specific excretory organs are absent in unicellular organisms belong to the phylum:
A) Porifera
B) Annelida
C) Protozoa
D) Echinodermata
Answer:
C) Protozoa

Question 99.
“No specific excretory organs are present in unicellular organisms”. Hence, the main excretion takes place by:
A) simple diffusion through body surface
B) through contractile vacuoles
C) osmosis through body surface
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 100.
Which of the following is not a nitrogenous waste ?
A) Ammonia
B) Uric acid
C) Urea
D) CO²
Answer:
D) CO²

Question 101.
Contractile vacuoles are the excretory organs in
A) Amoeba
B) Hydra
C) Paramoecium
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

Question 102.
The mode of excretion through contractile vacuoles
A) Diffusion
B) Filtration
C) Osmoregulation
D) Crystallisation
Answer:
C) Osmoregulation

Question 103.
Excretory organs in mollusca
A) Green glands
B) Malpighian tubules
C) Metanephridia
D) Kidneys
Answer:
C) Metanephridia

Question 104.
Incorrect pair in the following.
A) Platyhelminthes – Flame cells
B) Arthropoda – Malpighian tubules
C) Mollusca – Metanephridia
D) Protozoan – Water vascular system
Answer:
D) Protozoan – Water vascular system

Question 105.
Identify the animal in which excretory orgah is absent.
A) Bird
B) Amoeba
C) Sponge
D) B and C
Answer:
D) B and C

Question 106.
Renette cells are excretory structures in
A) Mollusca
B) Protozoa
C) Nematoda
D) Echinodermata
Answer:
C) Nematoda

Question 107.
In reptiles this organ is involved in excretory system.
A) Flame cells
B) Kidneys
C) Green glands
D) Malpighian tubules
Answer:
B) Kidneys

Question 108.
Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in ………………..
A) Earth worm
B) Flatworm
C) Housefly
D) Hen
Answer:
C) Housefly

Concept – 7 : Excretion and Release of Substances in Plants

Question 109.
Why plants shed their leaves ?
A) To bloom
B) Unable to cope up with heat
C) Get rid off the wastes
D) To grow and develop
Answer:
C) Get rid off the wastes

Question 110.
Raphides are present in ………………. of plant.
A) bark
B) leaf
C) root
D) fruits
Answer:
D) fruits

Question 111.
The method through which excessive water is released out along with transpiration is ……………………
A) Photosynthesis
B) Guttation
C) Formation of bark
D) Respiration
Answer:
B) Guttation

Question 112.
The alkaloid which stimulates the nervous system is
A) Nimbin
B) Caffeine
C) Pyrethroid
D) Quinine
Answer:
B) Caffeine

Question 113.
Which of the following is catabolic activity ?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Metabolic activities
Answer:
B) Respiration

Question 114.
Datura has ………………
A) Nimbin
B) Pyrethroids
C) Scopalamine
D) Quinine
Answer:
C) Scopalamine

Question 115.
The alkaloids that save from snakebite.
A) Nimbin
B) Cinchona
C) Reserpine
D) Caffeine
Answer:
C) Reserpine

Question 116.
The bark of ……………… is used to cure malaria.
A) Tobacco
B) Cinchona
C) Neem
D) Datura
Answer:
B) Cinchona

Question 117.
The speciality of gymnosperms is …………………
A) Tannins
B) Resins
C) Gums
D) Alkaloids
Answer:
B) Resins

Question 118.
The white milky fluid secreted from the plants
A) Latex
B) Tannins
C) Gums
D) Resins
Answer:
A) Latex

Question 119.
……………….. is extracted from Hevea braziliensis
A) Latex
B) Rubber
C) Alkaloid
D) Gums
Answer:
B) Rubber

Question 120.
Bio-diesel is extracted from …….. (or) I am a plant. My seeds are used for production of bio-fuel. Who am I ?
A) Neem
B) Jatropa
C) Hevea
D) Papaver
Answer:
B) Jatropa

Question 121.
Which of the following is a sedative drug?
A) Morphine
B) Cocaine
C) Scopolamine
D) Caffeine
Answer:
C) Scopolamine

Question 122.
Cassia and Acacia will be used in ………………
A) Varnishes
B) Tanning of leathers
C) Manufacture of Rubber
D) Manufacture of bio-diesel
Answer:
B) Tanning of leathers

Question 123.
The scientist who stated that roots also secrete.
A) Bunsen
B) Brugaman
C) Haberland
D) J.C. Bose
Answer:
B) Brugaman

Question 124.
The pollen grains of the following plant causes asthma in man:
A) Parathenium
B) Neem
C) Heavea
D) Jatropa
Answer:
A) Parathenium

Question 125.
Excretory structures appeared for the first time in flatworms belong to the phylum:
A) Annelida
B) Arthropoda
C) Nematoda
D) Platyhelminthes
Answer:
D) Platyhelminthes

Question 126.
The deep brown coloured carbon compounds used in tanning of leather are:
A) Resins
B) Gums
C) Tannins
D) Latex
Answer:
C) Tannins

Question 127.
The alkaloid which is used for malaria treatment.
A) Nimbin
B) Caffeine
C) Quinine
D) Nicotine
Answer:
C) Quinine

Question 128.
Alkaloid used in snake bite.
A) Nimbin
B) Scopolamine
C) Reserpine
D) Quinine
Answer:
C) Reserpine

Question 129.
Alkaloid used in the treatment of malaria is the product of this plant.
A) Nicotiana tobaccum
B) Azadirachta indica
C) Cinchona officinalis
D) Rauwolfia serpentina
Answer:
C) Cinchona officinalis

Question 130.
Weeds and some wild plants are not eaten by insects, pests and animals because
A) Their leaves are very small
B) These are not attractive
C) The plants may contain toxic chemicals and unpleasant to taste
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The plants may contain toxic chemicals and unpleasant to taste

Question 131.
The resin obtained from Pinus is used in
A) Varnish
B) Bread
C) Rubber
D) Medicines
Answer:
A) Varnish

Concept – 8 : Excretion Vs Secretion

Question 132.
Tears are ………………
A) Involuntary fluid
B) Secretion
C) Excretion
D) Water
Answer:
C) Excretion

Question 133.
Hormone is a ……………….
A) Reagent
B) Secretion
C) Excretion
D) Chemical substance
Answer:
B) Secretion

Question 134.
The alkaloid which have Ayurvedic values is ……………….
A) Nimbin
B) Cocaine
C) Pyrethroids
D) Caffeine
Answer:
A) Nimbin

Question 135.
Tilak said, we can tan the leather with resins. What do you say ?
A) Yes, we can
B) No, we can’t
C) We can do it with little change
D) Unable to say
Answer:
B) No, we can’t

Question 136.
Find the odd one out.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
C) Nimbin
D) Fat
Answer:
C) Nimbin

Question 137.
Consider the following
a) Tannins, Latex, Gums are primary metabolites
b) Proteins and Carbohydrates are secondary metabolites
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
D) Both a & b are false

Question 138.
Eating leaves of neem gives bitter taste. Reason
A) Nicotin
B) Cinchona
C) Pyrethroid
D) Nimbin
Answer:
D) Nimbin

Question 139.
Composition of urine has chemicals ………………..
A) Urea
B) Bilirubin
C) Water
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 140.

What is the secondary metabolite produced from the plant given in the picture ?
A) Tannin
B) Gum
C) Alkaloid
D) Resin
Answer:
D) Resin

Question 141.
a) Synthesis of waste products in plants – is very slow.
b) Plants do not have specific excretory organs
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) B is true, a false
D) both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 142.
a) It is not good for health while sleeping under the tree during night
b) There is a chance of falling of branches
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) Both a & b are true, b doesn’t explain a
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
C) a is true, b is false

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Emergence of Kingdoms and Republics on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Emergence of Kingdoms and Republics with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Ashwamedha was the sacrifice of the
A) Horse
B) Cow
C) Goat
D) Elephant
Answer:
A) Horse

Question 2.
One-sixth of the produce was taken as tax from
A) Farmers
B) Craftspersons
C) Traders
D) Village headmen
Answer:
A) Farmers

Question 3.
People began settling down along the river banks, in large numbers some -years ago.
A) 280
B) 3700
C) 2700
D) 3000
Answer:
C) 2700

Question 4.
…………… made tools necessary for agriculture.
A) Goldsmith
B) Blacksmith
C) Craftsmen
D) Village headmen
Answer:
B) Blacksmith

Question 5.
The Vajji Mahajanapada was to the …………. of Magadha.
A) North
B) South
C) West
D) East
Answer:
A) North

Question 6.
The largest plain region in North India.
A) Ganga- Indus plain
B) Jhelum – Sutlez plains
C) Ghaggar plain
D) Sutlez-Indus Plain
Answer:
A) Ganga- Indus plain

Question 7.
The rivers that flow between the Himalayas and the peninsular plateau
A) Mahanadi
B) Jhelum – Sindhu
C) Ganga-Yamuna
D) Yamun-Sindu
Answer:
C) Ganga-Yamuna

Question 8.
The sellers in the beginning of the Ganga – Indus plain were
A) Traders
B) Agriculturists
C) Craftsmen
D) Rajans
Answer:
B) Agriculturists

Question 9.
Tribes that settled in the beginning days were
A) Janapadas
B) Grihapatis
C) Kings
D) Gond Patla
Answer:
A) Janapadas

Question 10.
Performing agriculture with metal tools was done in the period of
A) Janapadas
B) Nomads
C) Mahajanapadas
D) Agriculturists
Answer:
C) Mahajanapadas

Question 11.
The landowners of the Mahajanapadas period were called
A) Grihapatis
B) Gahapatis
C) Bhuswami
D) Traders
Answer:
A) Grihapatis

Question 12.
The war prisoners were sold to farmers.
A) Dasulu
B) Bhartukas
C) Prisioners
D) Craftsmen
Answer:
A) Dasulu

Question 13.
The primary income source to the state in Mahajanapada period.
A) Taxes
B) Business people
C) Soldiers
D) Traders
Answer:
A) Taxes

Question 14.
Agriculturists shared 1/6th of the crop to the king. What this share is called ?
A) Bhaga
B) Thula
C) Bali
D) Share
Answer:
A) Bhaga

Question 15.
The mineral found in the southern region of Magadha kingdom
A) Iron
B) Gold
C) Copper
D) Bronze
Answer:
A) Iron

Question 16.
Archaelogists have excavated hundreds of sites in
A) Egypt
B) Indus valley
C) Ganges valley
D) Mesopotomia
Answer:
C) Ganges valley

Question 17.
Magadha kingdom spread over on the both sides of which river?
A) Yamuna
B) Ganga
C) Brahmaputra
D) Godavari
Answer:
B) Ganga

Question 18.
Vajji had its capital city at
A) Raj agriha
B) Vaishali
C) Magadha
D) Gondwana
Answer:
B) Vaishali

Question 19.
Which janapada is in South India?
A) Asmaka
B) Magadha
C) Kosala
D) Vashali
Answer:
A) Asmaka

Question 20.
Ramayana was written by
A) Vyasa maharshi
B) Rama
C) Valmiki
D) Vyasa
Answer:
C) Valmiki

Question 21.
Mahabharata was written by
A) Vyasa Maharshi
B) Krishna
C) Valmiki
D) Vemana
Answer:
A) Vyasa Maharshi

Question 22.
Mahabharata narrates the story of
A) Rama
B) Battle between Pandavas and Kauravas
C) Ravana
D) Bimbisara
Answer:
B) Battle between Pandavas and Kauravas

Question 23.
A: The rivers Ganga and Yamuna flow between the Himalayas and the hills of Deccan Plateau.
B: This valley is called the Ganjetic valley.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 24.
A: In Sanskrit tribes are called ‘jana’.
B: The place where they settled is ‘Mahapada’.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 25.
A: Large groups of valleys and towns were called Mahajanapadas.
B: Most of the Mahajanapadas had a capital city and most of them were fortified.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 26.
A: Upanishads have dialogues between the son and the father.
B: Upanishad means listening carefully.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 27.
A: Agriculture was managed by Bhartukas.
B: Use of plough share, plantation of saplings improved agricultural productivity.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 28.
A: Potters made Iron pots with designs on them.
B: Carpenters made carts, ploughs, furniture.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong.
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 29.
A: Most of the janapadas were ruled by kings.
B: The kings do not take personal interest in the welfare of the people.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 30.
A: The term gana means people of equal status.
B: Sangha means assembly.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 31.
A: In the southern parts of the Magadha there were copper ore deposits.
B: “Bimbisara and his son Ajatasatru were the early kings who built Magadha.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 32.
A: Alexander came to India to conquer it.
B: His soldiers scared about the vast army of India and refused to fight.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 33.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Archeology                   A) Grihapatis
2) Gana                             B) Modern Delhi
3) Gangetic valley             C) The study of human history through excavation
4) Hastinapura                  D) A group that has many members
5) Land owners                 E) Plains between Himalayas and Deccan Plateau hills
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A, 5 – E
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B, 5 – E
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – E, 5 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A

Question 34.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Largest land owners          A) Territory ruled by a king or queen
2) Bhaga                                B) Organisation or association
3) Kingdom                           C) Headman of the village
4) Magadha                           D) Kingdom that spread on both rides of river Ganga
5) Sangha                              E) 1/6th of crop to be given to king as tax
A) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – D, 5 – B
B) 1 – C, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – D, 5 – B
C) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – D, 5 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – B, 5 – D
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – D, 5 – B

Question 35.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Gangetic valley – receives high rainfall and fertile.
2) Janapada – where tribes were settled.
3) Upanishads – part of vedic books.
4) Blacksmith – who makes pots.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 36.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Grihapati or Gahapati – Land owners
2) Bimbisara and his son Ajatasatru – Early kings who built Magadha
3) Buddha and Mahavira – Famous teachers of Gupta dynasty
4) Alexander – The ruler of Macedonia Greece
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 37.
Sculpture of Buddha was given below. To which category it belongs.

A) Magadha Art
B) Gandhara Art
C) Greece Art
D) Mahajanapada Art
Answer:
B) Gandhara Art

Question 38.
Janapadha which was settled on both sides of the river Yamuna
A) Surasena
B) Magadha
C) Kuru
D) Panchala
Answer:
C) Kuru

Fill in the blanks.

1. The valley between the Himalayas and the hills where Ganga and Yamuna flow is called the ……………….
Answer:
Gangetic valley

2. Tribes which settled in Gangetic valley is called ………………
Answer:
jana

3. The place where tribes is called ……………….
Answer:
janapada

4. Large groups janapadas were called ……………….
Answer:
Mahajanapadas

5. Present name’ of Hastinapura is ……………….
Answer:
Modern Delhi

6. Present name of Pataliputra ……………….
Answer:
Patna

7. Upanishads means ……………….
Answer:
coming and sitting near

8. Landowners who manage agriculture was called ……………….
Answer:
Grihapatis or Gahapatis

9. Employees who were probably captured in wars and sold to farmers are ……………….
Answer:
dasas or slaves

10. Workers who worked for wages ……………….
Answer:
bhartukas

11. Special type of pottery found at these sites is known as ……………….
Answer:
Painted Grey Ware

12. Dividing crops into six equal parts and giving one part to the king is called ……………….
Answer:
bhaga

13. ‘Gana’ means ……………….
Answer:
people of equal status

14. ‘Sangha’ means ……………….
Answer:
assembly

15. Magadha kingdom spread on both sides of the River ……………….
Answer:
Ganga

16. In the southern parts of Magadha, there were deposits of ……………….
Answer:
iron ore

17. Ajatasatru was the son of ……………….
Answer:
Bimbisara

18. The Mahajanapada which was to the North of Magadha is ……………….
Answer:
Vajji

19. Jainism was founded by ……………….
Answer:
Mahavira

20. Buddhism was founded by ……………….
Answer:
Siddhartha

21. The Gandhara school of art developed in the region around ……………….
Answer:
Takshashila

22. Images of Gautama Buddha have been sculptured in ……………….
Answer:
Gandhara art style

Match the following:

Question 1.
1. Bhaga                    ( )             A) Modern Delhi
2. Grihapati               ( )             B) Where the people of a jana settled down
3. Jana                       ( )             C) One whose family did agriculture
4. Hastinapura           ( )             D) The name of a big yagna
5. Mahajanapada       ( )             E) The tribes settled in valleys
–                                                 F) One-sixth of the farm produce
–                                                 G) Big janapada
Answer:
1. F
2. C
3. E
4. A
5. G

Question 2.
1. Gana                  ( )                 A) One-sixth of the farm produce
2. Jainism               ( )                 B) People of equal status
3. Bimbisara           ( )                 C) Siddhartha
4. Dasas                 ( )                 D) Kausambi
5. Buddhism          ( )                 E) Slaves
–                                                 F) Mahavira
–                                                 G) Maghadha kingdom
Answer:
1. B
2. F
3. G
4. E
5. C

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Transportation on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 3rd Lesson Transportation with Answers

Concept – 1 : Heart Beat – Pulse

Question 1.
Study the following pairs.
a) Stethoscope – Rene Laennec
b) Blood pressure – Thermometer
c) Amoeba – Brownian movement
Identify the mis-matched pair.
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) None
Answer:
B) b

Question 2.
In newborn babies the heart beat rate is …………………. /min.
A) 100 – 150
B) 90 – 120
C) 80 – 120
D) 70 – 100
Answer:
A) 100 – 150

Question 3.
Pulse rate equals to ………………….
A) Heart beat
B) Muscules movement
C) Blood pressure
D) Rate of respiration
Answer:
A) Heart beat

Question 4.
What have you determined about the rate of heart beat while detecting the rate of pulse by keeping finger at wrist region?
A) Rate of heart beat and pulse are equal
B) Rate of heart beat and pulse are not equal
C) Rate of heart beat increases, rate of pulse decreases
D) Rate of heart beat is less than pulse
Answer:
A) Rate of heart beat and pulse are equal

Question 5.
What part of your wrist is pressed by a doctor to examine the pulse rate?
A) Vein
B) Artery
C) Capillary
D) Lymph vessel
Answer:
B) Artery

Question 6.
In order to understand the topic transport and circulatory system the instrument that is prepared with paper as paper tube
A) Stethoscope
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Hygrometer
D) A, B & C
Answer:
A) Stethoscope

Question 7.
Stethoscope is invented by
A) William Harvey
B) Marcello Malpighi
C) Rene Laennec
D) Fabrici
Answer:
C) Rene Laennec

Concept – 2 : Structure of Heart

Question 8.
The chambers present in the human heart
A) 2 auricles, 1 ventricle
B) 1 ventricle, 1 auricle
C) 2 auricles, 3 ventricles
D) 2 auricles, 2 ventricles
Answer:
D) 2 auricles, 2 ventricles

Question 9.
The part which is formed by auriculo – ventricular septum
A) Right and left atria
B) Right and left ventricles
C) Atria and ventricles
D) Right atria and left ventricles
Answer:
C) Atria and ventricles

Question 10.
The layer which separates the ventricles into left and right
A) Inter atrial septum
B) Inter ventricular septum
C) Auriculo ventricular septum
D) Ventriculo auricular septum
Answer:
B) Inter ventricular septum

Question 11.
Which of the following is formed due to the inter atrial septum ?
A) Right left auricles
B) Right left ventricles
G) Right, auricle, right ventricle
D) Right auricle, left ventricle
Answer:
A) Right left auricles

Question 12.
The layer that encloses lungs are called plura . Likewise the layer that covers heart is called 1) ( )
A) Hyper cardium
B) Pericardium
C) Epicardium
D) Upper cardium
Answer:
B) Pericardium

Question 13.
Identify the special one from the following.
a) Superior venacava
b) Inferior venacava
c) Aorta
d) Coronary artery
A) only a
B) b and c
C) d only
D) a and d
Answer:
C) d only

Question 14.
Find the correct sentence out from the following.
a) The right atrium and ventricles are large
b) The left atrium t is larger one and ventricles are small
c) The left atrium and ventricles are small
d) The right atrium is large and the ventricles are small
A) a
B) a and c
C) b and d
D) b only
Answer:
B) a and c

Question 15.
Oxygenated blood is supplied by …………….. (i)………………. to body parts, deoxygenated blood is carried by ………………(ii)………………. to lungs.
A) i – aorta; ii – caval vein
B) i – aorta; ii – pulmonary vein
C) i – aorta; ii – pulmonary artery
D) i – aorta; ii – post caval vein
Answer:
C) i – aorta; ii – pulmonary artery

Question 16.
The vessels which stick to the walls of heart are …………………..
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Coronary vessels
D) Pericardium
Answer:
C) Coronary vessels

Question 17.
The blood vessels that supply blood to the heart muscles …………………………..
A) Aorta
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Coronary arteries
D) Vagus nerves
Answer:
C) Coronary arteries

Question 18.
Which is the largest artery ?
A) Caval vein
B) Aorta
C) Coronary artery
D) Pulmonary artery
Answer:
B) Aorta

Question 19.
The vein present on the right side of the heart
A) Post caval vein
B) Pre caval vein
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Aorta
Answer:
C) Pulmonary vein

Question 20.
The vein which collects blood from the posterior parts of the body.
A) Superior vena cava
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Coronary artery
Answer:
B) Inferior vena cava

Question 21.
The vein which collects blood from the anterior parts of the body.
A) Superior vena cava
B) Pulmonary vein
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Coronary artery
Answer:
A) Superior vena cava

Question 22.
Read the following sentences.
1. Blood vessels carrying blood from body parts are veins
2. Arteries are not as strong as veins
3. Pulmonary artery carries blood from heart to lungs
4. Superior vena cava collects deoxy-genated blood from upper parts of the body like head and neck.
What are correct sentences ?
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3
Answer:
B) 1, 3, 4

Question 23.
What is the shape of the heart that you found through the activity with the help of specimen of goat’s heart ?
A) Apple
B) Pear fruit
C) Orange
D) Cashew fruit
Answer:
B) Pear fruit

Question 24.
The valve present between left auricle and left ventricle is
A) mitral valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) auricular valve
D) ventricular valve
Answer:
A) mitral valve

Question 25.
The layer which protects the heart from shocks …………………
A) Pericardium
B) Meninges
C) Muscular layer
D) Arteries, veins
Answer:
A) Pericardium

Question 26.
The valve present between right auricle and right ventricle is
A) tricuspid valve
B) bicuspid valve
C) mitral valve
D) atrial valve
Answer:
A) tricuspid valve

Question 27.
Identify the wrong statement about human heart.
i) It beats, which keeps us alive.
ii) It is located in between the lungs in chest cavity (thoracic cavity)
iii) The size of it is approximately the size of one’s fist.
iv) It is made up of non-striated muscles.
A) i, iii and iv
B) only iii
C) only iv
D) ii, iii and iv
Answer:
C) only iv

Question 28.
Which one of the following represents correct labelling of the given picture ?

A) 1 – Aorta, 2 – Right auricle, 3 – Inferior venacava, 4 – Coronary artery
B) 1 – Aorta, 2 – Left auricle, 3 – Superior venacava, 4 – Coronary artery
C) 1 – Aorta, 2 – Right auricle, 3 – Superior venacava, 4 – Coronary vein
D) 1 – Aorta, 2 – Left auricle, 3 – Superior venacava, 4 – Coronary artery
Answer:
A) 1 – Aorta, 2 – Right auricle, 3 – Inferior venacava, 4 – Coronary artery

Concept – 3 : The Blood Vessels and Circulation .

Question 29.
Which structures of the heart control the flow of the blood ?
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Valves
D) Capillaries
Answer:
C) Valves

Question 30.
The scientist who studied veins in the legs …………………
A) Marcello Malphgi
B) Girolamo Fabrici
C) William Harvey
D) Bacan
Answer:
B) Girolamo Fabrici

Question 31.
The scientist who studied the wings of bats for capillaries is ………………
A) William Harvey
B) Girolamo Fabrici
C) Marcello Malpighi
D) Henry Cavendish
Answer:
C) Marcello Malpighi

Question 32.
Which of the following doesn’t have valves ?
A) Veins
B) Lymph tubes
C) Arteries
D) Blood cells
Answer:
C) Arteries

Question 33.
Identify the mismatched pair:
A) Girolamo Fabrici – Veins in lungs
B) William Harvey – Valves
C) Marcello Malpighi – Capillaries
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Girolamo Fabrici – Veins in lungs

Question 34.
Aorta which supplies oxygenated blood to the body parts arise from ………………
A) right atrium
B) left ventricle
C) right ventricle
D) left atrium
Answer:
B) left ventricle

Question 35.
The blood in veins always flows towards ………………..
A) Body parts
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Tissues
Answer:
B) Heart

Question 36.
Pulmonary artery which supplies deoxygeriatecTblood to the lungs arises from ……………………
A) right ventricle
B) left atrium
C) right atrium
D) left ventricle
Answer:
A) right ventricle

Question 37.
Match the following.

1. Girolamo Fabrici	a) Valves in the heart
2. Marcello Malpighi	b) Blood capillaries
3. William Harvey	c) Valves in the veins

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 38.
a) Arteries supply blood to all the body parts
b) Walls of arteries are rigid
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) Both a & b are false, b explains a
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a

Question 39.
Find out the correct statements from a and b.
a) The way for flow of blood (Lumen) is small in arteries.
b) The way for flow of blood (Lumen) is large in veins.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a true, b false
C) a false, b true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 40.
The given blood vessel carries blood from body parts to heart.
Name the blood vessel.

A) Artery
B) Capillary
C) Vein
D) Muscular fibre
Answer:
C) Vein

Question 41.
The following diagram has thick wall and less lumen.
What blood vessel is it ?

A) Capillary (T.S. of capillary)
B) Artery (T.S. of artery)
C) Vein (T.S. of vein)
D) Muscular vessel
Answer:
B) Artery (T.S. of artery)

Question 42.
Which of the following statements are true?
i) Arteries have thick walls
ii) Arteries carry blood from heart to body parts.
iii) Arteries have low blood pressure.
iv) Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood.
A) (i) and (iii)
B) (i) and (iv)
C) (ii) and (iv)
D) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
D) (i) and (ii)

Question 43.
In the T.S. of blood vessels, the thick muscle layer is seen in ……………………..
i) pulmonary artery
ii) pulmonary vein
iii) aorta
iv) vena cava
A) i, iii
B) ii, iv
C) i, ii
D) iii, iv
Answer:
A) i, iii

Concept – 4 : The Cardiac Cycle

Question 44.
What is the reason for heart beat ?
A) Closing of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
B) Closing of aorta and pulmonary valves
C) Blood flows rapidly through valves
D) Flow of blood in ventricles
Answer:
A) Closing of tricuspid and bicuspid valves

Question 45.
Correct sequence of different phases of human cardiac cycle.
1. Ventricle systole
2. Auricle systole
3. Auricle, Ventricle diastole
A) 3, 2,1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2,1, 3
D) 1, 3, 2
Answer:
C) 2,1, 3

Question 46.
The following picture indicates the double circulation. In pulmonary circulation which part mainly purifies the blood ?

A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Vena cava
D) Aerta
Answer:
A) Lungs

Question 47.
Which organ of the body does the term ‘Cardiac’ refer to ?
A) Heart
B) Vein
C) Lymph
D) Capillary
Answer:
A) Heart

Question 48.
Which side of the human heart is low in oxygen ?
A) Left ventricle
B) Right ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Right atrium
Answer:
B) Right ventricle

Question 49.

List – 1	List – 2
1. Contraction of auricles	a) 0.11 – 0.14 sec
2. Contraction of ventricles	b) 0.8 sec
3. Cardiac cycle	c) 0.27 – 0.35 sec

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b

Question 50.
Blood → Right ventricle artery → Lungs
Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left auricle → Left ventricle → Body parts
Which type of circulation is it indicating ?
A) Single circulation
B) Double circulation
C) Pulmonary circulation
D) Cardiac circulation
Answer:
B) Double circulation

Question 51.
a) Ventricles expand soon after filled with blood during heart beat
b) At the same time both atria come to normal stage
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
C) b is true, a is false

Question 52.
The human heart starts beating around ………………. days of embryonic development.
A) 22
B) 21
C) 23
D) 24
Answer:
B) 21

Question 53.
The time needed for atrial contraction is :
A) 0.12 – 0.14 sec
B) 0.11 – 0.14 sec
C) 0.13 – 0.14 sec
D) 0.14 – 0.15 sec
Answer:
B) 0.11 – 0.14 sec

Question 54.
The time needed for ventricular contraction is :
A) 0.25 -0.35 sec
B) 0.29 – 0.35 sec
C) 0.27 – 0.35 sec
D) 0.30 – 0.36 sec
Answer:
C) 0.27 – 0.35 sec

Question 55.
The cardiac cycle contains
A) Auricular systole
B) Ventricular systole
C) Auriculo – ventricular diastole
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 56.
The heart beat of a new born child (3 – 6 months) is ………………….
A) 100 – 150
B) 90 – 120
C) 80 – 90
D) 70 – 80
Answer:
B) 90 – 120

Question 57.
Blue whale’s heart beat per minute …………………..
A) 7
B) 46
C) 1200
D) 76
Answer:
A) 7

Question 58.
In Coaltit bird, number of heart beats per minute is……………….
A) 450
B) 76
C) 1000
D) 1200
Answer:
D) 1200

Question 59.
The rate of heart beat in elephant
A) 76 times/min
B) 7 times/min
C) 700 times/min
D) 46 times/ min
Answer:
D) 46 times/ min

Question 60.
Find out wrong matching.
A) Blue Whale – heart beat rate is 7 times/ minute
B) Man – heart beat rate is 76 times/ minute
C) Coaltit Bird – heart beat rate is 130 times / minute
D) Elephant – heart beat rate is 46 times /minute
Answer:
C) Coaltit Bird – heart beat rate is 130 times / minute

Concept – 5 : Lymphatic System

Question 61.
Find the odd one out.
A) Edema
B) Capillaries
C) Oxygen debt
D) Lymph vessels
Answer:
C) Oxygen debt

Question 62.
The liquid portion’ of blood that enters the tissues is …………………
A) Plasma
B) Water
C) Tissue fluid
D) Sodium oxalate
Answer:
C) Tissue fluid

Question 63.
We will get this stage if we travel overnight in the bus
A) Joint pains
B) Lack of sleeping
C) Edema
D) Lymphma
Answer:
C) Edema

Question 64.
In latin “Lymph” means …………………
A) Blood
B) Water
C) Serum
D) Plasma
Answer:
B) Water

Question 65.
The vital link between blood and cell tissues is ………………….
A) Blood cells
B) Water
C) Lymph
D) Serum
Answer:
C) Lymph

Question 66.
The parallel system to venous system is ……………………..
A) Lymphatic system
B) Capillary system
C) Artery system
D) Circulatory system
Answer:
A) Lymphatic system

Question 67.
Edema is the swelling stage of………………………
A) hands
B) legs
C) neck
D) head
Answer:
B) legs

Concept – 6 : Evolution of the Transport (Circularoty) System

Question 68.
Read the below sentence. Identify in which part it is wrong. Explain with suitable word.
In unicellular organisms like Amoeba, transport of substances takes place by means of Brownian movements.
A) Paramoecium
B) Respiration
C) Cytostome
D) No wrong in above sentence
Answer:
D) No wrong in above sentence

Question 69.

List -1	List – 2
1. Gastro vascular cavity	a) Earthworm
2. Pseudocoelomate	b) Round worm
3. Eucoelomate	c) Jelly fish

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 70.
Find out the odd one based on circulatory system
A) Earthworm
B) Rabbit
C) Man
D) Cockroach
Answer:
D) Cockroach

Question 71.
Brownian movement, Pseudocoelom, Eucoelom, Trachea, Heart –
Find the correct order of animals according to the transport system mentioned above.
A) Cockroach, earth worm, human, amoeba, round worm
B) Round worm, cockroach, amoeba, human, earth worm
C) Amoeba, round worm, earth worm, cockroach, human
D) Human, earth worm, cockroach, round worm, amoeba
Answer:
C) Amoeba, round worm, earth worm, cockroach, human

Question 72.
Single circulation (Simple Circuit Heart) is found in …………………
A) Bat
B) Fish
C) Human
D) Gorilla
Answer:
B) Fish

Question 73.
The protozoa like sponges use……… for transportation.
A) fresh water
B) sea water
C) mud water
D) glucose water
Answer:
B) sea water

Question 74.
Sponges create their own water currents by beating of:
A) cilia
B) pseudopodia
C) flagella
D) tentacles
Answer:
C) flagella

Question 75.
Which of the following is a serious inherited blood disorder ?
A) Thalassemia
B) Colour blindness
C) Leukaemia
D) Anaemia
Answer:
A) Thalassemia

Question 76.
Gastro – vascular cavity is evolved in:
A) Cnidarians
B) Sponges
C) Annelids
D) Arthropods
Answer:
A) Cnidarians

Question 77.
Branched digestive system is found in:
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Nematyhelminthes
C) Cnidarians
D) Arthropods
Answer:
A) Platyhelminthes

Question 78.

The above flow chart represents
A) Single circuit circulation
B) Double circuit circulation
C) Triple circuit circulation
D) Both A and C
Answer:
A) Single circuit circulation

Question 79.
The first Eucoelomate animals that have developed a pulsatile vessel are :
A) Arthropods
B) Annelids
C) Cephalopods
D) Echinoderms
Answer:
B) Annelids

Question 80.
In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood’to different parts of the body ?
A) Pisces and Amphibians
B) Amphibians and Reptiles
C) Amphibians only
D) Pisces only
Answer:
D) Pisces only

Question 81.
The group of animals that exhibit open type of circulatory system is :
A) Protozoans
B) Annelids
C) Arthropods
D) Cephalopods
Answer:
C) Arthropods

Question 82.
Animal without red blood cells is ………………..
A) Frog
B) Crane
C) Snail
D) Earthworm
Answer:
C) Snail

Question 83.
These organisms utilize their water vascular system for their movement.
A) Annelida
B) Coelenterata
C) Echinodermata
D) Amphibia
Answer:
C) Echinodermata

Question 84.
Pseudocoelom is present in this phylum
A) Echinodermata
B) Mollusca
C) Annelida
D) Nemetoda
Answer:
C) Annelida

Concept – 7 : Blood Pressure

Question 85.
The strongest pressure during the time blood is forced out of the ventricles
A) Systolic pressure
B) Blood pressure
C) Diastolic pressure
D) Atmospheric pressure
Answer:
A) Systolic pressure

Question 86.
The reading of pressure is taken during the resting period as the ventricles refill with blood
A) Systolic pressure
B) Blood pressure
C) Diastolic pressure
D) Atmospheric
Answer:
C) Diastolic pressure

Question 87.
Which of the following shows hypertension ?
A) 120/80
B) 160/90
C) 80/160
D) 110/70
Answer:
B) 160/90

Question 88.
The blood pressure during walking and running is
A) normal
B) less than normal
C) more than normal
D) none of the above
Answer:
C) more than normal

Question 89.
What should we do to prevent high B.P.?
A) Regular phy sical excerise
B) Over eating
C) Yoga
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

Question 90.
If you want to have healthy circulatory system, you should have following healthy organs.
A) Heart, kidneys
B) Heart, liver
C) Heart, lungs
D) A & C
Answer:
C) Heart, lungs

Question 91.
Heart is an important organ for circulation. For the proper functioning of heart every one
A) has to take well balanced diet
B) has to do exercise properly
C) develop smoking habit
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 92.
The systolic and diastolic pressures respectively are :
A) 120 and 80 mm of Hg
B) 80 and 120 mm of Hg
C) 120 and 120 mm of Hg
D) 80 and 80 mm of Hg
Answer:
A) 120 and 80 mm of Hg

Question 93.
It has been found that people living in at higher altitudes have many more red blood corpuscles in their blood than people living in plains. Which one of the following best accounts for their phenomenon ?
A) The cold climate stimulates the production of red blood corpuscles to keep the body warm.
B) People of high mountains breathe more quickly.
C) The low air pressure requires more red blood corpuscles to supply the body cells with oxygen.
D) The low air pressure in high mountains speeds up the blood circulation so that more red blood corpuscles are needed.
Answer:
C) The low air pressure requires more red blood corpuscles to supply the body cells with oxygen.

Question 94.
The instrument used to measure B.P is:
A) Manometer
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Barometer
D) Potentiometer
Answer:
B) Sphygmomanometer

Concept – 8 : Coagulation of Blood

Question 95.
The cells which influence coagulation of blood are …………………
A) Red blood cells
B) Myocytes
C) Platelets
D) Leucocytes
Answer:
C) Platelets

Question 96.
Fibrinogen Fibrin. This equation indicates ………………..
A) blood changing
B) blood transfusion
C) releasing of enzymes
D) coagulation
Answer:
D) coagulation

Question 97.
Prothrombin Thrombin – This is a part of which reaction ?
A) Transportation of oxygen
B) CO₂ acceptance
C) Formation of lymph
D) Coagulation
Answer:
D) Coagulation

Question 98.
Which of the following is not related to coagulation ?
A) Thrombin
B) Fibrin
C) Haemoglobin
D) Platelets
Answer:
C) Haemoglobin

Question 99.
The genetic disease which stops the coagulation ………………
A) Haemolymph
B) Haemophilia
C) Thalassemia
D) Parkinson
Answer:
A) Haemolymph

Question 100.
The vitamin which helps in clotting of blood …………….
A) A
B) C
C) D
D) K
Answer:
D) K

Question 101.
Janani has married her maternal uncle. Is there any possiblility of getting Haemophilia?
A) Yes
B) Can’t say
C) Such situation doesn’t arise
D) To take care
Answer:
A) Yes

Question 102.
Find out who I am.
I am a vitamin. Blood coagulation does not take place in the absence of me. My chemical name is phylloquinone.
A) A
B) E
C) K
D) D
Answer:
C) K

Question 103.

1 and 2 in the above given equation represent:
A) the enzymes
B) the hormones
C) 1 is an enzyme and 2 is a hormone
D) 1 is hormone and 2 is an enzyme
Answer:
A) the enzymes

Question 104.
The liquid portion after the formation of blood clot is called
A) Serum
B) Plasma
C) Lymph
D) Water
Answer:
A) Serum

Question 105.
Thrombokinase enzyme releases from ……………….
A) blood
B) red blood corpuscles
C) Serum
D) blood platelets
Answer:
D) blood platelets

Question 106.
Haemoglobin present in our red blood cells is a kind of
A) Carbohydrate
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Enzyme
Answer:
C) Protein

Question 107.
Rama was injured while playing kabaddi. The time taken for clotting blood is
A) 1 – 3 minutes
B) 4 – 8 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 3 – 6 minutes
Answer:
D) 3 – 6 minutes

Question 108.
The yellow coloured fluid that is left out after blood clotting is ………………
A) Plasma
B) Lymph
C) Serum
D) Lipid
Answer:
C) Serum

Question 109.
Incorrect pair among the following
A) Protozoa – Water vascular system
B) Platyhelminthes – Flame cells
C) Arthropoda – Malphigian tubules
D) Mollusca – Metanephridia
Answer:
A) Protozoa – Water vascular system

Concept – 9 : Material Transport within the Plant

Question 110.
The cells in vascular bundle are ……………….
A) Xylem, Protein
B) Xylem, Epithelial
C) Phloem, Aphid
D) Xylem, Phloem
Answer:
D) Xylem, Phloem

Question 111.
The system which helps for transportation of water and nutrients in plants.
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Vascular Bundle
D) Stomata
Answer:
C) Vascular Bundle

Question 112.
The part through which the plants absorb water is…………………..
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Main Root
D) Root hairs
Answer:
D) Root hairs

Question 113.
The mechanism behind the absorption of water through root hairs in plants is
A) Osmosis
B) Transpiration
C) Diffusion
D) Filteration
Answer:
A) Osmosis

Question 114.
The concentration of cell sap in the root hairs is ………………. than that of soil water
concentration.
A) more
B) equal
C) less
D) can’t say
Answer:
A) more

Question 115.
The …………….. helps in the movement of water upwards in plants.
A) root stream
B) root pressure
C) transpiration stream
D) capillary action
Answer:
B) root pressure

Question 116.
The releasing of water in the form of vapour from leaves is called
A) Osmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Transpiration
D) Boiling
Answer:
C) Transpiration

Question 117.
If transpiration doesn’t take place in plants, this process will not occur.
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Water transportation
D) Reproduction
Answer:
C) Water transportation

Question 118.
The cells of stem which help in transpiration………………..
A) Stomata
B) Xylem
C) Vascular Bundle
D) Lenticels
Answer:
A) Stomata

Question 119.
Which of the following has the concern with rainfall ?
A) Osmosis
B) Root pressure
C) Transpiration
D) Wind erosion
Answer:
C) Transpiration

Question 120.
a) Root hairs influence the movement of water upto the terminal part of plant.
b) Root pressure and osmosis help in upward movement of water.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, bis false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 121.
The tissue responsible for the transport of minerals and water in plants.
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Stomata
D) Guard cells
Answer:
C) Stomata

Question 122.
a) There is a relation between transpiration and rain fall
b) Rain falls due to entry of water vapour into atmosphere
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a
B) a is true, a explains b
C) Both a & b are false b explains a
D) Both a & b are false. Both don’t explain each.
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true, b explains a

Question 123.
Consider the following.
a) Transpiration plays a key role in upward movement of water
b) Root pressure helps in movements of water
A) both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) both a & b are false
Answer:
A) both a & b are true

Question 124.
Drinking cool drink with the help of straw resembles one of the processes.
A) Transportation of nutrients in xylem
B) Transportation of water in phloem
C) Transportation of water in xylem
D) Transportation of vitamins in vascular tissues
Answer:
C) Transportation of water in xylem

Question 125.
Rainfall is high in these regions.
A) Forest region
B) Forest surroundings
C) Desert
D) Cities
Answer:
A) Forest region

Question 126.
The phenomenon known by the project work through the polythene cover wrapped up plant, which secretes water droplets on the polythene cover layer.
A) Evaporation
B) Transpiration
C) Condensation
D) Solidification
Answer:
B) Transpiration

Question 127.
This experiment is conducted to prove …………………

A) Root pressure
B) Photosynthesis
C) Respiration
D) Transpiration
Answer:
D) Transpiration

Question 128.
To get more rain we need plantations. So many reasons explain this need. But one of the biological phenomena becomes major reason for rainfall:
A) Photosynthesis
B) Transpiration
C) Respiration
D) Excretion
Answer:
B) Transpiration

Question 129.
Thread like structures that are observed on the roots:
A) Cilia
B) Flagella
C) Root hairs
D) Pseudopodia
Answer:
C) Root hairs

Question 130.
The indicators M₁ & M₂ that are marked on the glass tube in the experiment conducted on root pressure explain
A) Root pressure
B) Water Viscosity
C) Percentage of soil
D) Level of water
Answer:
D) Level of water

Question 131.
The material collected for observing roots hairs:
A) Bajra
B) Mustard
C) Mango
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

Question 132.
Which of the following is connected with transport of water in plants ?
A) Phloem
B) Epidermis
C) Xylem
D) Meristematic tissue
Answer:
C) Xylem

Question 133.
The following diagram is releated to this experiment.

A) Osmosis
B) Root pressure
C) Photosynthesis
D) Respiration
Answer:
B) Root pressure

Concept – 10 : Transport of Manufactured Food

Question 134.
An aphid pierces its proboscis into the ……………… to get plant juices.
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Cambium
D) Vascular bundles
Answer:
B) Phloem

Question 135.
Stems of some plants are sticky to touch. Reason ………………..
A) Api millifera
B) Aphids
C) Honey glands
D) Gum
Answer:
B) Aphids

Question 136.
Oak tree can transpire as much as ……………… liters of water per day.
A) 700
B) 800
C) 900
D) 1000
Answer:
C) 900

Question 137.
Grey squirrels do great damage to ………………….. crop.
A) casuarina
B) castor
C) paddy
D) potato
Answer:
A) casuarina

Question 138.
In Eucalyptus, water reaches up to ………………… meters.
A) 160
B) 170
C) 180
D) 190
Answer:
C) 180

Question 139.
A complete ring of bark was removed from a tree as shown in the figure ‘A’. The tree continued to live and after about one month it appeared as ‘B’. It is due to :

A) removal of bark with xylem
B) removal of bark with phloem
C) removal of bark with xylem and phloem
D) none
Answer:
B) removal of bark with phloem

Question 140.
In plant cells :
A) the cytoplasm, lining of the cell wall acts as semipermeable membrane.
B) the cytoplasm present in the cell acts as semipermeable membrane.
C) the cell wall acts as semipermeable membrane.
D) cell sap acts as 4 semipermeable membrane.
Answer:
D) cell sap acts as 4 semipermeable membrane.

Question 141
………………. of phloem supply ………………..
A) Xylem, fats
B) Sieve tubes, sugars
C) Seive cells, sugars
D) Seive plants, xylem
Answer:
B) Sieve tubes, sugars

Question 142.
Proboscis is ………………..
A) part of bolus
B) part of aphid
C) parts of plant
D) break down of glucose
Answer:
B) part of aphid

Question 143.
Seive tubes are present in ………………..
A) Xylem
B) Proboscis
C) Phloem
D) Mesophyll cells
Answer:
C) Phloem

Question 144.
Consider the following sentences.
a) Aphids cannot absorb all the sugars from stem .
b) Reminants of sugar is secreted outside of the stem
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 145.
Observe the following statements a and b.
a) Mammals scratch the bark of trees to get the food stored in the phloem.
b) Even though the tree remains alive.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a true, b false
C) a false, b true
D) a,b both are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 146.
The predators which will be grown by the foresters to prevent the rabbits
A) Owls
B) Foxes
C) Badgers
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 147.
Correct statements among the following:
i. Xylem transports minerals and water.
ii. Phloem distributes nutrients.
iii. Xylem has upward movement.
iv.Phloem has also upward movement.
A) i and ii
B) i, ii and iii
C) ii ,iii and iv
D) All of these
Answer:
C) ii ,iii and iv

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Early Civilisations on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Early Civilisations with Answers

Question 1.
When were railway lines being laid down for the first time in Punjab?
A) About 80 years ago
B) About 150 years ago
C) About 50 years ago
D) About 100 years ago
Answer:
B) About 150 years ago

Question 2.
When was the first city of Harappa discovered by the archaeologists?
A) About 80 years ago
B) About 150 years ago
C) About 50 years ago
D) About 100 years ago
Answer:
D) About 100 years ago

Question 3.
How old Harappa civilisation is?
A) About 4000 years ago
B) About 3000 years ago
C) About 4700 years ago
D) About 3500 years ago
Answer:
C) About 4700 years ago

Question 4.
The people who knew how to write were known as
A) writers
B) scribes
C) editors
D) readers
Answer:
B) scribes

Question 5.
The Great Bath is a part of
A) Mohenjodaro
B) Lothal
C) Dholavira
D) Egypt
Answer:
A) Mohenjodaro

Question 6.
Where was the cotton grown about 7000 years ago?
A) Lothal
B) Kalibangan
C) Mehrgarh
D) Dholavira
Answer:
D) Dholavira

Question 7.
The city of Lothal was located on the bank of a tributary of which river?
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Saraswati
D) Sabarmati
Answer:
D) Sabarmati

Question 8.
The Rigveda is composed in the form of
A) poetry
B) hymns
C) dialogues
D) Essay
Answer:
B) hymns

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a Veda.
A) Rigveda
B) Sama veda
C) Ayurveda
D) Atharva Veda
Answer:
C) Ayurveda

Question 10.
The Vedic people are generally referred to as the …………
A) Brahmans
B) Aryans
C) Dasyus
D) Rajan
Answer:
B) Aryans

Question 11.
The language in which the Rigveda composed
A) Telugu
B) Vedic Sanskrit
C) Tamil
D) Kannada
Answer:
B) Vedic Sanskrit

Question 12.
The oldest of die Vedas is
A) Rigveda
B) Sama Veda
C) Atharva Veda
D) Yazur Veda
Answer:
A) Rigveda

Question 13.
The Rigveda was composed about how many years.
A) 3000 years
B) 3500 years
C) 2500 years
D) 2000 years
Answer:
B) 3500 years

Question 14.
The ‘Great Bath’ has been discovered in
A) Lothal
B) Kalibangan
C) Mohenjodaro
D) Egypt
Answer:
C) Mohenjodaro

Question 15.
The other name of the Indus valley civilization
A) Harappan
B) Early Vedic period
C) Later Vedic period
D) Mesopotamia
Answer:
A) Harappan

Question 16.
Which of these is not the name of the Veda?
A) Rigveda
B) Sama veda
C) Bhagavadgeeta
D) Atharva
Answer:
C) Bhagavadgeeta

Question 17.
A: Indus Valley civilization developed between 2500-1700 BC.
B: Aryan civilization developed between 1700-500 BC
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 18.
A: Most historians thought that Indian History began with the Vedic period.
B: But historians found an excellent and advanced civilization earlier to the Vedic period.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 19.
A: Indus valley civilization developed along the Indian Ocean.
B: Thetracesof this civilization comes to know by the excavation of the Indian Ocean.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 20.
A: In Mohenjo-daro ‘the Great Bath’.was found.
B: Lothal was a popular harbor in those days.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 21.
A: Indus people worshipped lord Vishnu.
B: Peepal and neem trees are worshipped.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 22.
A: Vedic culture flourished on the plains of rivers Indus and Saraswathi.
B: The Samaveda mentioned the river Saraswathi many times
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 23.
A: Rigveda: Is a collection of Vedic hymns.
B: Yajurveda: The origin of Indian music is traced to it.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 24.
A: Aryankas: Details of rules to be followed during sacrifices.
B: Upanishads: Deals with mysticism, rites and rituals.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 25.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Early vedic age             A) 1000-600 BC
2) Later vedic age             B) Vedas in Sanskrit
3) Harappan civilisation    C) Srutis
4) Vedas                            D) 1500-1000 BC
5) Superior knowledge     E) 2500-1700 BC
A) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – E, 5 – B
B) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – C, 5 – B
C) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – E, 5 – B
D) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – C
Answer:
B) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – C, 5 – B

Question 26.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Ghaggar – Hakra river                        A) Valmiki
2) Ramayana                                          B) Mahabharata
3) Mahabharata                                     C) Ramayana
4) Adikavya                                            D) Ancient river Saraswathi
5) Victory of Dharma over Adharma     E) Vedavyasa
A) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – C, 5 – B
B) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – C
C) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A
D) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – B, 5 – C
Answer:
A) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – E, 4 – C, 5 – B

Question 27.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Harappan civilisation – Flourished between 2500-1700 BC
2) Mohenjo-doro – The Great Bath
3) Harappan people – Built houses with bricks made with cement
4) Harappan people – Credited for growing cotton for the first time
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 28.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Ammatalli idol – Made of Bronze
2) Swamy Dayanarida Saraswathi – Go back to the Vedas
3) Weights and Measurements of Indus people – Moved to Persia and Central Asia
4) Beard man – Made of stone
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 29.
To which civilization the given picture belongs

A) Aryan Civilisation
B) China Civilisation
C) Indus valley Civilisation
D) Egypt Civilisation
Answer:
C) Indus valley Civilisation

Question 30.
Below shown bullock cart toy belongs to which civilization

A) Aryan Civilisation
B) China Civilisation
C) Indus valley Civilisation
D) Egypt Civilisation
Answer:
C) Indus valley Civilisation

Question 31.
Which god was shown in the below picture?

A) Vishnu
B) Brahma
C) Indra
D) Pashupati
Answer:
D) Pashupati

Fill in the blanks.

1. Excavations of Mohenjodaro and Harappa took place in ………………
Answer:
1920

2. The civilization found in 1920 excavations is ………………
Answer:
Indus valley civilisation

3. The other name of Indus valley civilization is ………………
Answer:
Harappan civilisation

4. Indus valley civilization developed along the Rivers ………………
Answer:
Indus and Ghaggar-Hakra

5. The Harappan civilization flourished between ………………
Answer:
2500-1700BC

6. The Great Bath was found in the cities of ………………
Answer:
Harappan civilisation

7. The Harappan people built their houses with ………………
Answer:
dried or baked bricks

8. Harappan people were credited for growing ……………… for the first time.
Answer:
cotton

9. Harappan people carried out trade activities through the port ………………
Answer:
Lothal

10. the Main occupation of Harappan people was ………………
Answer:
Agriculture

11. Major entertainment of Harappan people was ………………
Answer:
Bullfighting

12. Excellent artifacts of Harappan people were the statues of ………………
Answer:
dancing girl and beard man

13. Harappan people worshipped ………………
Answer:
Siva and mother Goddess

14. Standardised weights and measures system was developed by ………………
Answer:
Harappans

15. Vedic culture flourished on the plains of rivers ………………
Answer:
Indus and Saraswati

16. The period in which the Vedic literature was formed is called ………………
Answer:
the Vedic period

17. Thar desert is located in ………………
Answer:
Rajasthan

18. The river Ghaggar – Hakra disappeared in ………………
Answer:
the Thar desert of Rajasthan

19. The other name given to the river Ghaggar – Hakra is ………………
Answer:
Saraswati

20. Veda means ………………
Answer:
superior knowledge

21. Vedas are called ………………
Answer:
Srutis

22. The call was given by Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi in the modern period ………………
Answer:
Go back to the Vedas

23. Early Vedic Period is also known as ………………
Answer:
Rig Vedic Period

24. Chief of the clan was called ………………
Answer:
Rajan

25. Child marriage and sati started during ……………… period.
Answer:
later Vedic period

26. Two great epics of the later Vedic period are ………………
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharatha

27. The other name of Ramayana is ………………
Answer:
Adikavya

28. Ramayana was written by ………………
Answer:
Maharshi Valmiki

29. Mahabharata was written by ………………
Answer:
Sage Vedavyasa

30. Both Mahabharata and Ramayana were written in ………………
Answer:
Sanskrit

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Early Life to Settled Life on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Early Life to Settled Life with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The discovery by the early people brought a great change in early’s mans’s life.
A) fire
B) ax
C) stone
D) grinders
Answer:
A) fire

Question 2.
People who study the pasts by digging up old places
A) Dentists
B) Explorers
C) Archaeologists
D) Optomologist
Answer:
C) Archaeologists

Question 3.
An example of natural food
A) boiled rice
B) curry
C) honey
D) sweet
Answer:
C) honey

Question 4.
The early humans used the tools made up of
A) sand
B) stone
C) bronze
D) iron
Answer:
B) stone

Question 5.
What enabled the early human to eat roasted meat?
A) Axe
B) Stone
C) Fire
D) Water
Answer:
C) Fire

Question 6.
This was often heated on a fire to harden it for use.
A) Wood
B) Stone
C) Bronze
D) Iron
Answer:
A) Wood

Question 7.
The main occupation of early humans
A) hunting
B) animal taming
C) growing plants
D) painting
Answer:
A) hunting

Question 8.
The people who constantly move from one place to another are called
A) wanderers
B) easyads
C) nomads
D) mover
Answer:
C) nomads

Question 9.
In this age the early farmers needed to clear the forests by cutting trees and branches by using a new kind of tool.
A) old stone age
B) middle stone age
C) modern stone age
D) None of these
Answer:
C) modern stone age

Question 10.
In which age the agriculture was performed with new stone tools
A) modern stone age
B) old stone age
C) stone age
D) middle stone age
Answer:
A) modern stone age

Question 11.
Pit-houses were made in
A) burzahom
B) mehrgarh
C) hallur
D) None of these
Answer:
A) burzahom

Question 12.
Which of the following has been used for grinding of grains in the early days.
A) grinder
B) pestles
C) mill
D) Stone
Answer:
B) pestles

Question 13.
A: Thousand of years ago the people who lived in the sub-continent were called as hunter-gatherers.
B: They gathered food from forests and hunted animals and birds.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 14.
A: People who moved from place to place are called nomads.
B: They covered their bodies with cotton clothes.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 15.
A: Tools made of bones are found in Indian Sub-continent only.
B: Archeologists are the scientists who study the past by digging up old places where people lived.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 16.
A: Chintakunta in Muddariur Mandal in Kurnool District has ten rock shelters with paintings of early people.
B: More than 15,000 years ago, the world had started becoming warmer. This was also known as the period of great development for humans.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 17.
A: The early farmers needed to clear forests by cutting trees. They developed new kinds of stone tools which were called Neolithic stone tools.
B: This period of early agriculture is called the Mesolithic Period.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 18.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Hunter-gatherers              A) They lived in caves
2) Archaeologists                  B) YSR Kadapa District
3) Bamboo brushes              C) Kurnool District
4) Eddula Aavula Gundu       D) To paint on rocks
5) Betamcherla                      E) Study the past by digging up old places
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – E, 5 – C
B) 1 – A, 2 – E, 3 – D, 4 – B, 5 – C
C) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B, 5 – E
D) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – C, 5 – B
Answer:
B) 1 – A, 2 – E, 3 – D, 4 – B, 5 – C

Question 19.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Paleolithic Age               A) New stone age
2) Mesolithic Age               B) Living permanently at one place
3) Neolithic Age                 C) Animal rearers
4) Herders                          D) Old stone age
5) Settled life                      E) Middle stone age
A) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B, 5 – E
B) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – B, 4 – C, 5 – A
C) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – B
D) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – E
Answer:
C) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – B

Question 20.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Domestication – Process of growing plants and rear animals
2) Stone-tools – Tools made of stones for different purposes
3) Hunter – Yanadi and Chenchu communities
4) Pit house – Provided shelter in summer
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
A) 4

Question 21.
We find the below pictures in which district?
A) Krishna
B) Kurnool
C) YSR Kadapa
D) SPSR Nellore
Answer:
B) Kurnool

Question 22.
The caves are shown in the below picture.

A) Borra Caves
B) Belum Caves
C) Ahobilam Caves
D) Undavalli Caves
Answer:
B) Belum Caves

Question 23.
Tools made of bones are found in only
A) Pakistan
B) Afghanistan
C) Indian Subcontinent
D) Vietnam
Answer:
C) Indian Subcontinent

Question 24.
Arrange the following starting from the earliest to the beginning of the Bronze age.
1) Farmer-herders
2) Storage of grains
3) Bronze age
4) Hunter gatherers
5) Neolithic period
A) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3 – 5
B) 4 – 1 – 2 – 5 – 3
C) 4- 2 – 1 – 5 – 3
D) 4 – 5 -1 – 2 – 3
Answer:
B) 4 – 1 – 2 – 5 – 3

Fill in the blanks.

1. Early people who lived in the sub-continent were called ……………….
Answer:
hunter-gatherers

2. Early people covered their bodies with the and ……………….
Answer:
the skin of animals and leaves

3. People who move from place to place are called ……………….
Answer:
nomads

4. Nomads moved from one place to another in search of ………………. during dry seasons.
Answer:
water

5. Hunter-gatherers considered fire ……………….
Answer:
sacred

6. Caves in Kurnool district were used by ……………….
Answer:
hunter-gatherers

7. Scientists who study the past by digging up old places are ……………….
Answer:
archaeologists

8. Brushes used by hunter-gatherers to paint pictures were made up of ……………….
Answer:
bamboo

9. New kind of stone tools developed by early farmers were called ……………….
Answer:
Neolithic stone tools

10. The period of early agriculture is called ……………….
Answer:
Neolithic period

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Respiration on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 2nd Lesson Respiration with Answers

Concept – 1 : Introduction

Question 1.
The term “respiration” is derived from ……………….
A) Greek
B) English
C) Latin
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Latin

Question 2.
The term respiration came into use, a century after the word ……………….. was used, way back in the 14th century.
A) Breathing
B) Nutrition
C) Inhalation
D) Exhalation
Answer:
A) Breathing

Question 3.
Oxygen was discovered by …………………….
A) Joseph Priestley
B) Lavoisier
C) Engelmann
D) Von Sachs
Answer:
B) Lavoisier

Question 4.
In which period O₂ is considered to be a consuming gas ?
A) Before Alexander
B) At the time of Lavoisier
C) After Lavoisier
D) Before Lavoisier
Answer:
B) At the time of Lavoisier

Question 5.
Fixed air = CO₂ : : Vitiated gas = ……………………… ?
A) Hydrogen
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbonate
Answer:
C) Oxygen

Question 6.
Which of the following scientists found that the air that we breathe out precipitated lime water ?
A) Lavoisier
B) Priestley
C) Ingenhouz
D) Pelletier
Answer:
A) Lavoisier

Question 7.
Fixed air means :
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Argon
Answer:
B) Carbon dioxide

Question 8.
The life process that leads to fine utilization of food is :
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Digestion
D) Nutrition
Answer:
B) Respiration

Question 9.
The gas which was called “fixed air” dining the period of “Lavoisier”
A) Hydrogen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Carbon dioxide

Question 10.
“Human Physiology” was written by ……………….. in mid 19th century.
A) John Daper
B) John Howard
C) John Curie
D) John Dalton
Answer:
A) John Daper

Concept – 2 : Events/Steps in Respiration

Question 11.
The muscular flap like valve that prevents entry of food into respiratory tract
A) Tongue
B) Pharynx
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Epiglottis
Answer:
D) Epiglottis

Question 12.
The structure that channalises the air into lungs
A) Alveolus
B) Nasal cavity
C) Bronchus
D) Trachea
Answer:
D) Trachea

Question 13.
Arrange the following in order.
1. Pharynx
2. Larynx
3. Alveolus
4. Bronchus

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4, 2
C) 1, 2, 4, 3
D) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer:
C) 1, 2, 4, 3

Question 14.
Consider the following statements.
a) Vibration of vocal cords generate voice
b) Exhaled air creates vibrations at vocal cords
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 15
Consider the following statements.
a) Temperature of inhaled air is regulated to the body temperature in nasal cavities.
b) The inhaled air becomes moist.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 16.
The structural and functional units that participate in the gaseous exchange of
lungs are ………………….
A) Bronchus
B) Bronchioles
C) Alveoli
D) Dendrites
Answer:
C) Alveoli

Question 17.
Pharynx opens into the trachea through:
A) glottis
B) larynx
C) palate
D) epiglottis
Answer:
D) epiglottis

Question 18.

Arrange the flow chart in a proper way.
A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer:
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 19.
Choose the correct pathway
A) Nostrils → Pharynx → Trachea → Blood
B) Blood → Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea
C) Larynx → Trachea → Bronchioles → Nostrils
D) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveolus
Answer:
D) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveolus

Question 20.
The structure of the respiratory system that filters the air:
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Nasal cavity
D) Bronchiole
Answer:
C) Nasal cavity

Question 21.
The floor of the chest cavity is :
A) Sternum
B) Spinal cord
C) Ribs
D) Diaphragm
Answer:
D) Diaphragm

Question 22.
Vocal cords are located in…………………..
A) pharynx
B) larynx
C) nasal cavity
D) trachea
Answer:
B) larynx

Question 23.
If the alveoli of our lungs are spread out, they will cover an area of nearly
A) 60 m²
B) 160 m²
C) 80 m²
D) 100 m²
Answer:
B) 160 m²

Question 24.
What happens if moisture is not present in the respiratory path ?
A) Dust particles will not be removed
B) Air reaches the lungs without get moistened during summer
C) Air reaches the lungs without get moistened during winter
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Dust particles will not be removed

Question 25.
From nasal cavity, the air goes into pharynx. After pharynx the track is divided into two passages. Those are ………………… , ……………….
1) Stomach, duodenum
2) Trachea, digestive canal
3) Larynx, epiglottis
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 only
D) 1 and 3
Answer:
C) 2 only

Question 26.
Due to vibration of vocal cords sounds are produced. These sounds are produced during …………………..
A) Inhalation
B) Expiration
C) Contraction
D) Relaxation
Answer:
B) Expiration

Question 27.
We will find vocal cords in
A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) nasal cavity
D) trachea
Answer:
A) larynx

Question 28.
The structural and functional units of the Lung are……………………
A) alveoli
B) bronchi
C) bronchioles
D) air spaces
Answer:
A) alveoli

Question 29.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) The diaphragm contracts – volume of chest cavity increased
B) The diaphragm contracts – volume of chest cavity decreased
C) The diaphragm expands – volume of chest cavity increased
D) The diaphragm expands – volume of chest cavity decreased
Answer:
A) The diaphragm contracts – volume of chest cavity increased

Question 30.
The membrane that protects the lungs:
A) Meninges
B) Pericardium
C) Pleura
D) B and C
Answer:
C) Pleura

Question 31.
“For the survival of mankind expiration and inspiration are must” It is …………………..
A) true
B) false
C) incorrect Explanation
D) may be or may not be
Answer:
A) true

Question 32.
When pressure is exerted on lungs, the following one occurs.
A) inspiration
B) chest cavity increases
C) expiration
D) chest cavity decreases
Answer:
C) expiration

Question 33.
Which of the following statement correctly describes the lungs ?
A) They are not of same size and are spongy in nature.
B) The right lung is slightly smaller for making space for the heart.
C) A fluid filled between two membranes of lungs called interstitial fluid.
D) They are of uniform size and hard in nature.
Answer:
A) They are not of same size and are spongy in nature.

Question 34.
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing lime water, the lime water turned milky. This shows that exhaled air consists of:
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Water vapour
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
D) Carbon dioxide

Question 35.
Read the following statement.
i) Chlorophyll pigments influence photosynthesis
ii) Haemoglobin as well as chldrbphyll pigments involve in respiration
A) Statement (i) is wrong; statement (ii) is correct
B) Both statements (i) & (ii) are correct
C) Statement (i) is correct; statement (ii) is wrong
D) Both statements (i) & (ii) are wrong.
Answer:
B) Both statements (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 36.
Arrange the below given stages/events of respiration in the correct order :
i) Transport of air by blood
ii) Exchange of air in tissues
iii) Exchange of gases in lungs
iv) Cellular respiration
A) iii → ii → iv → i
B) iii → i → iv → ii
C) iii → i → ii → iv
D) iii → iv → i → ii
Answer:
C) iii → i → ii → iv

Question 37.
During respiration the composition of this gas remains same.
A) Oxygen
B) CO₂
C) Water vapour
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
D) Nitrogen

Question 38.
Which of the choices below is not a functional process performed by the respiratory system ?
A) Pulmonary ventilation
B) Transport of respiratory gases
C) External respiration .
D) Pulmonary respiration
Answer:
B) Transport of respiratory gases

Question 39.

The correct labelling of P, Q, R and S in the above diagram is:
A) P – Epiglottis, Q – Larynx, R – Trachea, S – Bronchioles
B) P – Larynx, Q – Epiglottis, R – Bronchioles, S – Trachea
C) P – Trachea, Q – Epiglottis, R – Larynx, S – Bronchioles
D) P – Bronchioles, Q – Larynx, R – Trachea , S – Epiglottis
Answer:
A) P – Epiglottis, Q – Larynx, R – Trachea, S – Bronchioles

Question 40.
The correct order of parts in the given flow chart are :

A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9
B) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9
C) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
D) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8,9
Answer:
B) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6, 7, 8, 9

Concept – 3 : Cellular Respiration

Question 41.
Assertion : Breathing slows down under resting stage
Reason : Rate of breathing rises on vigorous exercise
A) Both A and R are true
B) ,A is true, R is false
C) A is false, R is true
D) Both A and R are false
Answer:
A) Both A and R are true

Question 42.
After undergoing strenuous exercise ……………… deficiency occurs.
A) Energy
B) Oxygen
C) Mass
D) CO₂
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 43.
Ethanol : anaerobic respiration : : CO₂ + H₂O : ……………………..
A) aerobic respiration
B) anaerobic respiration
C) fermentation
D) sublimation
Answer:
A) aerobic respiration

Question 44.
Gaseous exchange takes place within the lungs by a process called:
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 45.
Carbon dioxide is usually transported in the blood as :
A) bicarbonate
B) carbonate
Q calcium carbonate
D) sodium
Answer:
A) bicarbonate

Question 46.
Cellular respiration in prokaryotic cells occurs within :
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) mitochondria
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 47.
Haemoglobin has the binding capacity with ……………….
A) O₂
B) SO₂
C) NO₂
D) PO₄
Answer:
A) O₂

Question 48.
Agents present in exhaled air:
A) CO₂, O₂
B) O₂, water vapour
C) CO₂, water vapour
D) Water vapour
Answer:
C) CO₂, water vapour

Question 49.

Column – I	Column – II
i) Pyruvate	p) Alveoli
ii) ATP	q) 7200, calories
iii) Gaseous exchange	r) 3 carbon compound

A) i – p, ii – q, iii – r
B) i – q, ii – r, iii – p
C) i – r, ii – p, iii – q
D) i – r, ii – q, iii – p
Answer:
D) i – r, ii – q, iii – p

Question 50.
Energy currency is the name of this and it is formed due to
A) ATP – Digestion
B) NADP – Respiration
C) ATP – Glycolysis
D) NADP – Glycolysis
Answer:
C) ATP – Glycolysis

Question 51.
In ATP, the energy is stored in the form of these bonds.
A) Oxide
B) Carbonate
C) Phosphate
D) Bicarbonate
Answer:
C) Phosphate

Question 52.
The energy value of a single ATP molecule is…………………..
A) 2700 calories
B) 7200 calories
C) 32 calories
D) 52 calories
Answer:
B) 7200 calories

Question 53.
Reason for muscular pain is …………………
A) accumulation of glucose
B) increase of oxygen in muscles
C) accumulation of lactic acid
D) accumulation of ethanol
Answer:
C) accumulation of lactic acid

Question 54.
Find the reason for slow breathing in walking compared to running fast
A) Variation in inhalation and exhalation .
B) Supply of O₂ and removal of CO₂
C) Tension and stress at rest and running
D) Variation in contraction and relaxation of lungs at rest and run fast
Answer:
D) Variation in contraction and relaxation of lungs at rest and run fast

Question 55.
Anaerobic respiration is seen in
A) Prokaryotes
B) Eukaryotes
C) Organelle
D) Chest
Answer:
A) Prokaryotes

Question 56.
Mode of respiration in Eukaryotes ……………….
A) Anaerobic respiration
B) Aerobic respiration
C) Pulmonary respiration
D) Buccal cavity respiration
Answer:
B) Aerobic respiration

Question 57.
Fermentation is …………………
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Cellular respiration
C) External respiration
D) Anaerobic respiration
Answer:
D) Anaerobic respiration

Question 58.
Strenuous exercise produces ……………….. in muscles.
A) Pyruvate
B) Lactic acid
C) Ethanol
D) Energy
Answer:
B) Lactic acid

Question 59.
Glucose → Pyruvate → Lactic acid + Less energy
A) Mitochondria
B) Muscles
C) Yeast
D) Fungi
Answer:
B) Muscles

Question 60.
Glucose → Pyruvate → Ethanol + Less energy
A) Virus
B) Muscles
C) Yeast
D) B & C
Answer:
C) Yeast

Question 61.
Strenuous exercise causes
A) CO₂ consumption
B) oxygen debt
C) CO₂ debt
D) more active
Answer:
B) oxygen debt

Question 62.
During jogging body temperature rises. Why?
A) Due to over sweating
B) Temperature increases due to over exercise
C) To regain strength with CO₂
D) Over consumption and loss of glucose in the body
Answer:
D) Over consumption and loss of glucose in the body

Question 63.
You have long breath when you are tired. Why ?
A) To reduce tiredness
B) To increase tiredness
C) To regain glucose
D) To repay O₂
Answer:
D) To repay O₂

Question 64.
Energy is stored in
A) nucleus
B) mitochondria
C) ribosomes
D) cell wall
Answer:
B) mitochondria

Question 65.
A person is hiking on a mountain. His breathing rate is increasing while he is walking up hill. The reason is …………………
1) oxygen levels are generally less as we move uphill
2) our muscles have to use more oxygen while walking up
3) oxygen levels are more on mountains
4) our muscles have to use less oxygen
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 4
D) 4 only
Answer:
B) 1 and 2

Question 66.
The percentage of carbon dioxide in exhaled air is ……………………..
A) 44
B) 4.4
C) 0.4
D) 0.04
Answer:
B) 4.4

Question 67.
Muscular pain is caused due to accumulation of………………….
A) Lactic acid
B) Citric acid
C) Tartaric acid
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
A) Lactic acid

Question 68.
The end products of aerobic respiration are ………………….
A) Lactic acid + Energy
B) Ethanol + CO₂ + Energy
C) Lactic acid + Ethanol + Energy
D) CO₂ + Water + Energy
Answer:
D) CO₂ + Water + Energy

Question 69.
The percentage of oxygen in inhaled air is
A) 13%
B) 16%
C) 21%
D) 18%
Answer:
C) 21%

Question 70.
Find out the labelled part of mitochondria indicated with (?) mark.

A) Inner membrane
B) Cristae
C) Lamellae
D) Thylakoid
Answer:
B) Cristae

Question 71.
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6H₂O + Energy Fill up the following equation.
A) 6CO₂
B) C₆H₁₂O₆
C) 6O₂
D) 12CO₂
Answer:
A) 6CO₂

Question 72.
The following flow chart describes the break down of glucose by various pathways.

What are the products formed at the places marked 1, 2 and 3 respectively ?
A) 1 – ethanol + CO₂ + energy, 2 – lactic acid + energy, 3 – CO₂ + energy
B) 1 – ethanol + CO₂ + energy, 2 – lactic acid + energy, 3 – CO₂ + H₂O + energy
C) 1 – ethanol + energy, 2 – lactic acid + CO₂, 3 – CO₂ + H₂O + energy
D) 1 – CO₂ + energy, 2 – lactic acid only, 3 – H₂O + energy
Answer:
B) 1 – ethanol + CO₂ + energy, 2 – lactic acid + energy, 3 – CO₂ + H₂O + energy

Concept – 4 : Fermentation

Question 73.
What deficiency takes place when vigorous exercise or work is done ?
A) CO₂ deficiency
B) Oxygen deficiency
C) N₂ deficiency .
D) Lactic acid deficiency
Answer:
B) Oxygen deficiency

Question 74.
Four students a, b, c and d, made the records given below.
“Observing changes during combustion of sugar”.

Student	X	Y
a b c d	Glucose Alcohol Lime water Glucose	Alcohol Glucose Iodine Lime water

Find out the student who noted correctly.
A) a
B) a, b
C) c ,a, d
D) d
Answer:
D) d

Question 75.
Vasu said that Ethanol is released in fermentation. Bose said that fermentation is the process of anaerobic respiration.
A) Both are wrong
B) Both are correct
C) Vasu is correct
D) Bose is correct
Answer:
B) Both are correct

Question 76
……………….. is formed in the mixture of glucose and yeast in the absence of O₂.
A) Special smell
B) Ethane
C) Methane
D) Ethanol with specific smell
Answer:
D) Ethanol with specific smell

Question 77.
Find the odd one out.
A) Ethanol
B) Lactic acid
C) Yeast
D) Saliva
Answer:
D) Saliva

Question 78.
The solution used to identify the presence of oxygen in Anaerobic respiration experiment is
A) Diazene green
B) Potassium hydroxide
C) Betadin
D) the rod containing Sulphur
Answer:
A) Diazene green

Question 79.
Find the correct statement.
A) When we send yeast cells into sugar solution ethanol is formed.
B) When we send yeast cells into sugar solution in absence of O₂ ethanol is formed.
C) Yeast + sugar solution + lactic acid results in the formation of ethanol.
D) When we send yeast into sugar solution with CO₂ ethanol is formed.
Answer:
B) When we send yeast cells into sugar solution in absence of O₂ ethanol is formed.

Question 80.
The below given experimental set up indicates a phenomenon that helps us to:

A) test the production of CO₂ and heat under aerobic respiration
B) test the production of CO₂ under anaerobic respiration
C) test the production of heat under anaerobic respiration
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 81.
In the anaerobic respiration experiment, the blue dye diazine green (Janus Green-B) turns to which colour when the supply of oxygen around it is short?
A) Red
B) Pink
C) Yellow
D) Orange
Answer:
B) Pink

Question 82.
To remove dissolved oxygen from glucose solution by heating-the time taken ……………….
A) an horn
B) a minute
C) a second
D) two hours
Answer:
B) a minute

Question 83.
Ethanol can be separated from sugar – yeast solution by this method.
A) Freezing
B) Filtration
C) Fractional distillation
D) Cooling
Answer:
C) Fractional distillation

Question 84.
Identify the kind of respiration with the following end products.
i) C₂H₅OH and CO₂
ii) CO₂ and H₂O
iii) Lactic acid
A) i – Alcoholic fermentation, ii – Lactic acid fermentation, iii – Aerobic respiration
B) i -Aerobic respiration, ii – Alcoholic fermentation, iii-Lactic acid fermentation
C) i – Alcoholic fermentation, ii – Aerobic respiration, iii – Lactic acid fermentation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) i – Alcoholic fermentation, ii – Lactic acid fermentation, iii – Aerobic respiration

Concept – 5 : Respiration Versus Combustion :

Question 85.
Name the person who told “Respiration is similar to combustion”
1. Robinson
2. Lavoisier
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1 & 2
D) Both are false
Answer:
C) 1 & 2

Question 86.
Combustion of glucose gives
A) CO₂, H₂O, energy
B) C₆H₁₂O₆, O₂ energy
C) CO₂, O₂, water
D) CO₂, C₆H₁₂O₆, energy
Answer:
A) CO₂, H₂O, energy

Question 87.
Practising yoga asanas help us
A) to get more gases
B) to get more O₂
C) to get more CO₂
D) to get more N₂
Answer:
B) to get more O₂

Question 88.
Living animals and plants usually produce energy in the form of ………………….
A) gases
B) water
C) solid
D) heat
Answer:
D) heat

Question 89.
To liberate energy glucose must be ……………………. in the laboratory.
A) cooled at low temperature
B) burnt at high temperature
C) burnt at low temperature
D) B or C
Answer:
B) burnt at high temperature

Concept – 6 Evolution of Gaseous Exchange in Animals

Question 90.
Match the following.

1. Grass hopper	a) Gills
2. Prawn	b) Trachea
3. Frog	c) Skin

A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c

Question 91.
Find out the wrong pair.
A) Man – Lungs
B) Fish – Gills
C) Frog – Gills
D) Hydra – Body cavity
Answer:
C) Frog – Gills

Question 92.
Find out the organism which respire through skin, lungs ………………..
A) Fish
B) Earth worm
C) Snake
D) Frog
Answer:
D) Frog

Question 93.
Crocodiles and dolphins respire with
A) lungs
B) skin
C) gills
D) tuber
Answer:
A) lungs

Question 94.
Fish in the aquarium respires through
A) gills
B) lungs
C) air tubes
D) skin
Answer:
A) gills

Question 95.
Respiratory organs in insects
A) gills
B) trachea
C) skin
D) lungs
Answer:
B) trachea

Question 96.
Respiratory organs in earthworm
A) skin
B) trachea
C) lungs
D) gills
Answer:
A) skin

Question 97.
Respiratory organs in man
A) skin
B) trachea
C) lungs
D) gills
Answer:
C) lungs

Question 98.
Respiration in Amoeba occurs by
A) trachea
B) diffusion
C) gills
D) lungs
Answer:
B) diffusion

Question 99.
Skin has no respiratory role in this organism. Identify it.
A) Earthworm
B) Lizard
C) Frog
D) Salamander
Answer:
B) Lizard

Question 100.
Branchial respiration is found in IAS
A) Cockroach
B) Fish
C) Frog
D) Birds
Answer:
B) Fish

Concept – 7 : Respiration in Stomata

Question 101.
The reason for entry of air into stomata.
A) Entry of more CO₂
B) More density outside of stomata
C) Density of more CO₂
D) Density of more O₂
Answer:
D) Density of more O₂

Question 102.
What will happen to plants if rate of respiration is more than photosyn¬thesis?
A) Live long but can’t store carbohydrates
B) Plant dies
C) Plant grows rapidly
D) Growth reduces due to hungry
Answer:
A) Live long but can’t store carbohydrates

Question 103.
These plants grow in Eustaries and respire with roots
A) Seedless plants
B) Mangrove plants
C) Gliricidia plants
D) Monocots
Answer:
B) Mangrove plants

Question 104.
The parts which are present on the surface of roots to respire.
A) Aerial roots
B) Lenticels
C) Air spaces
D) Stomata
Answer:
A) Aerial roots

Question 105.
Vamsi conducted the experiment shown in the diagram. The temperature in thermometer rises.

Aim of this experiment is ………………….
A) CO₂ is evolved during germination.
B) Heat is evolved during respiration.
C) Alcohol is evolved during respiration.
D) CO₂ is evolved dining respiration.
Answer:
B) Heat is evolved during respiration.

Question 106.
Observe the following a and b statements.
a) Plants which grow in moist and wet soil do not grow properly.
b) Mangrove plants respire with aerial roots formed above the soil.
A) a and b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false b is true
D) a and b both are false
Answer:
A) a and b both are true

Question 107.
The rate of transpiration is more in the following days of atmosphere.
A) Cold, humid
B) Hot, humid, dry
C) Hot, humid
D) Hot, dry, air
Answer:
D) Hot, dry, air

Question 108.
Identify the part which is present in the plants for respiration.
A) Stomata
B) Lenticels
C) Aerial roots
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 109.
What is the purpose of ‘p’ in the given experiment ?

A) To test the presence of oxygen
B) To test the evolution of carbon dioxide
C) To test the evolution of heat
D) To test the anabolic activity
Answer:
B) To test the evolution of carbon dioxide

Question 110.
Plants that possess pneumatophores or respiratory roots are………………………..
A) Mangrove plants
B) Xerophytic plants
C) Hydrophytic plants
D) Mesophytic plants
Answer:
A) Mangrove plants

Question 111.
An experimental setup is given here to show CO₂ is evolved in respiration. What do X and Y represent ?

A) X – Sprouted seeds, Y – Lime water
B) X – Dry seeds, Y – Lime water
C) X – Dry seeds, Y – KOH solution
D) X – Sprouted seeds Y – KOH solution
Answer:
A) X – Sprouted seeds, Y – Lime water

Concept – 8 : Photosynthesis versus Respiration

Question 112.
Respiration is a catabolic process because of
A) breakdown of complex food molecules
B) conversion of light energy
C) synthesis of chemical energy
D) energy storage
Answer:
A) breakdown of complex food molecules

Question 113.
(CH₂O)_n + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O + Energy
What does this equation indicate?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Excretion
C) Respiration
D) Fermentation
Answer:
C) Respiration

Question 114.
Factors influencing rate of respiration
A) O₂
B) Temperature
C) Light
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

Question 115.
The following process is essential for plant’s metabolism
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

Question 116.
The only process which gives energy for all metabolic activities ………………….
A) Photosynthesis
B) Cellular respiration
C) Combustion
D) Fermentation
Answer:
B) Cellular respiration

Question 117.
Observe the following equation and find out the correct answer for “?”.
(CH₂O)n + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O + ?
A) Energy is not released
B) Energy is not oxidised
C) More energy is released
D) Ethyl Alcohol is formed with small amount energy
Answer:
C) More energy is released

Question 118.
In cells ………………… will be utilised and CO₂, water, energy will be released.
A) CO₂
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
C) Oxygen

Question 119.
Anaerobic respiration is seen in
A) Prokaryotes
B) Eukaryotes
C) Organelle
D) Chest
Answer:
A) Prokaryotes

Question 120.
Photosynthesis and respiration both are called ………………….
A) Anabolic activities
B) Catabolic activities
C) Combustion activities
D) Metabolic activities
Answer:
D) Metabolic activities

Question 121.
Respiration in plants is different from animals in such a way that :
A) all the parts of plant perform respiration individually
B) there is a little transport of gases from one part of the plant to the other
C) the respiration in plants occurs’at a slower rate
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 122.
Find the correct pair:
A) Photosynthesis – Anabolic process
B) Respiration – Catabolic process
C) Pyruvate – 6 carbon compound
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 123.
Choose the correct one :

b) C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy
A) (a) is photosynthesis (b) is respiration
B) (b) is respiration (a) is photosynthesis
C) (a) & (b) both photosynthesis
D) (a) & (b) both respiration
Answer:
A) (a) is photosynthesis (b) is respiration