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Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 part 1 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 part 1 with Answers

Question 1.
The Axis powers were led by
A) Austria
B) Italy
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 2.
These are the main reasons for World War?
A) Imperialism and league of Nations
B) Militarism and the Treaty of Versailles
C) Imperialism and Militarism
D) The Treaty of Versailles and the League of Nations
Answer:
C) Imperialism and Militarism

Question 3.
Hiroshima, Nagasaki cities belong to which country ?
A) Japan
B) America
C) Russia
D) China
Answer:
A) Japan

Question 4.
Which of the following is a Japan parliament ?
A) Duna
B) Reichstag
C) Diet
D) Bundstag
Answer:
C) Diet

Question 5.
Mussolini established the fascist party at a place called ………………….
A) London
B) Paris
C) Rome
D) Milan
Answer:
C) Rome

Question 6.
The conference on peace after the World War-I took place at ………………….
A) Vienna
B) Versailles
C) London
D) Berlin
Answer:
B) Versailles

Question 7.
Find out the correct statement.
A) The 21st century was a period of great expectations
B) Central powers won in World War-I
C) USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of the President Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of League of Nations
D) International Women’s Suffragist movement, an organisation establi-shed in 1916.
Answer:
C) USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of the President Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of League of Nations

Question 8.
In which of the following years British women acquired right to vote ?
A) 1915
B) 1918
C) 1919
D) 1921
Answer:
B) 1918

Question 9.
It is established to continue thepurpose of the League of Nations.
A) United Nations Organisation
B) World Bank
C) Capitalist group
D) Socialist group
Answer:
A) United Nations Organisation

Question 10.
Which country occupied Alsace and Lorraine Regions from France in 1871 ?
A) Britain
B) Italy
C) Russia
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 11.
The peace organisation prior to UNO was
A) SAARC
B) ASEAN
C) NAM
D) League of Nations
Answer:
D) League of Nations

Question 12.
Find the incorrect sentence
A) Period of first world war – 1914 to 1918
B) Formation of UNO – 24th October, 1945
C) International women’s suffragist movement -1914
D) Triple alliance – 1907
Answer:
D) Triple alliance – 1907

Question 13.
The port of Danzing belongs to this country.
A) Germany
B) Poland
C) Denmark
D) Belgium
Answer:
B) Poland

Question 14.
The important secret alliances during the two World Wars
1) Germany, Japan, Italy
2) Japan, Russia, Italy
3) Japan, Italy, China
4) England, France, Russia
A) 1, 2 True
B) 2, 4 True
C) 1, 4 True
D) 1, 3 True
Answer:
C) 1, 4 True

Question 15.
1) Germany signed on the Treaty of Versailles
2) Germany accepted the rule of Weimer
3) Nazis desired independent administration
A) 1 False
B) 2 False
C) 2 & 3 False
D) 1 & 3 False
Answer:
B) 2 False

Question 16.
The 20th century was a period of
A) Great expectations
B) Experiments
C) Dangerous developments
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 17.
Which of the following is incorrect set ?
A) Rise of Hitler in Germany – 1944
B) First World War – 1914 – 1918
C) Treaty of Versailles – 1919
D) Formation of UNO -1945
Answer:
A) Rise of Hitler in Germany – 1944

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is correct relating to Treaty of Versailles?
I) World War -I ended with the conference on peace at Versailles in 1918.
II) Germans thought the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) None of these
Answer:
C) I and II

Question 19.
The Versailles is in ………………
A) Germany
B) France
C) Austria
D) Italy
Answer:
B) France

Question 20.
Triple alliance was led by
A) Italy
B) Austro-Hungary
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 21.
Which of the following is not one of the goals of United Nations organisation?
A) Establishing World Peace
B) Protecting Human Rights
C) Striving for the development of U.S.A
D) Promote Social Progress
Answer:
C) Striving for the development of U.S.A

Question 22.
Among the following find out the incorrect statement ?
A) At the beginning of 20^th century, disparity across the world was, marked by the West and the Rest.
B) 20th century saw the rise of democracy and instances of dictatorship as well as making of new kingdoms.
C) After or during the First World War many countries changed over from monarchy rule to democracies.
D) Socialist societies wanted to build on the idea of equality and fraternity.
Answer:
B) 20th century saw the rise of democracy and instances of dictatorship as well as making of new kingdoms.

Question 23.
Find the incorrect set
A) 2nd World War – 1939 to 1945
B) Russian Revolution – 1917
C) Triple Entente – 1907
D) Rise of Hitler in Germany – 1923
Answer:
D) Rise of Hitler in Germany – 1923

Question 24.
The Ottoman empire was replaced by a democratic and secular state in ………………..
A) Yugoslavia
B) Afghanistan
C) Finland
D) Turkey
Answer:
D) Turkey

Question 25.
The regions occupied by Germany during World War – II are given below. Match them with years correctly.
i) Hungary and Rumania
ii) Bulgaria
iii) Yugoslavia and Greece
iv) Crete
v) Finland
a) June 1941
b) May 1941
c) April, 1941
d) March, 1941
e) November 1940
Which is the correct set
A) i – e, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – a
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – e
C) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b, v – e
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d, v – e
Answer:
A) i – e, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – a

Question 26.
Weimar Republic was formed in which of the following country after World War -I?
A) Russia
B) America
C) Germany
D) Italy
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 27.
Statement (I): Ferdinand of Austria was murdered on 28^th June 1914.
Statement (II): German tanks drove into Poland on 1^st September 1939.
A) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is wrong.
B) Statement – I is.wrong, statement-II is correct.
C) Both statements are correct
D) Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
C) Both statements are correct

Question 28.
UN is a kind of world government. Based on which principle is it working?
a) Preserving peace
b) Upholding human rights
c) Respecting international law
d) Promoting social progress
A) a, b only
B) b, c only
C) a, b, c only
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
In the phase “The West and the Rest” the West means
A) Newly independent countries
B) The countries which were exploited by the western countries
C) The countries which were experiencing economic growth
D) Newly industralised countries
Answer:
C) The countries which were experiencing economic growth

Question 30.
Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order
1) End of the First World War
2) Germany and the USSR entered into non aggression pact
3) Russian Revolution ‘
4) Russia became the USSR
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 3, 1, 4, 2
C) 3, 2, 1, 4
D) 4, 3, 2,1
Answer:
B) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 31.
The countries that were hot invited to the Treaty of Versailles were
A) England, Austria, Turkey, Italy
B) Russia, USA, Germany, France
C) Russia, Germany, Austria, Turkey
D) Japan, Italy, Germany, USA
Answer:
C) Russia, Germany, Austria, Turkey

Question 32.
The following is not appreciable regarding League of Nations
A) Took measures to establish peace after World War
B) Could not control the big powers for the reasons of own limitations.
C) Establishment of ICJ, WHO
D) Worked for eradicating malaria, trafficking of women
Answer:
B) Could not control the big powers for the reasons of own limitations.

Question 33.
The 20^th century was called ‘The age of extremes’ by
A) Florence Owens
B) Eric Hobsbawm
C) Stalin
D) Kustodiev
Answer:
B) Eric Hobsbawm

Question 34.
Second World War started with the invasion of Germany on
A) Russia
B) Austria
C) France
D) Poland
Answer:
D) Poland

Question 35.
Archduke Franz Ferdinand belonged to
A) Serbia
B) Austria
C) Poland
D) Bulgaria
Answer:
B) Austria

Question 36.
The president of USA during World War -I
A) Thomson
B) Dulight D. Elsinhower
C) Woodrow Wilson
D) Cooldge
Answer:
C) Woodrow Wilson

Question 37.
The Head quarters of the UNO is in
A) Paris
B) Geneva
C) London
D) New York
Answer:
D) New York

Question 38.
Which of these countries are in Triple Entente group ?
A) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
B) Russia, Austria-Hungary, Italy
C) USSR, USA, Italy
D) France, USSR, Great Britain
Answer:
D) France, USSR, Great Britain

Question 39.
The immediate cause of Second World War is ……………….
A) Aggressive Nationalism
B) Hitler’s invasion on Poland
C) Ferdinand’s murder
D) Secret Alliance
Answer:
B) Hitler’s invasion on Poland

Question 40.
Which of these countries are permanent members of UN?
A) France, UK, Germany, USA, India
B) France, China, USA, UK, Russia
C) USA, UK, Russia, Japan, Italy
D) USA, UK, Russia, France, Germany
Answer:
B) France, China, USA, UK, Russia

Question 41.
Hitler decided to attack U.S.S.R in the year
A) 1935
B) 1942
C) 1924
D) 1938
Answer:
B) 1942

Question 42.
When was USSR formed ?
A) 1918
B) 1917
C) 1924
D) 1939
Answer:
C) 1924

Question 43.
The following one was NOT the cause for the World Wars.
A) Militarism
B) Declaration of independence to all countries
C) Secret Alliances
D) Vengeful domination of Germany
Answer:
B) Declaration of independence to all countries

Question 44.
Which of the following countries is not a member of the Triple Alliance ?
A) Germany
B) Austria
C) France
D) Italy
Answer:
C) France

Question 45.
Which of the following organisations of the League of Nations have been functioning till today?
A) World Health Organisation
B) International Labour Organisation
C) International Court of Justice
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 46.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as Age of Extremes for this reason
A) World Wars happened, huge loss to human life.
B) It experienced extreme war – peace efforts turning towards democracy, change in balance of powers.
C) Rise of Hitler, reasori for World War II.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) It experienced extreme war – peace efforts turning towards democracy, change in balance of powers.

Question 47.
What does this photograph explain?

A) The destitute pea pickers in California
B) The audience role in public place
C) Influence of Russian Socialism in older Europe
D) The life of peasants in India
Answer:
A) The destitute pea pickers in California

Question 48.
Find the incorrect set.
A) 1914 – First World War
B) 1946 – Establishment of UNO
C) 1919 – Establishment of League of Nations
D) 1918 – Vote power to women in Britain
Answer:
B) 1946 – Establishment of UNO

Question 49.
Which of the following is not the consequence of World War – II ?
A) 20 to 25 million people were killed
B) UNO was formed
C) Empires like Austria – Hungary, Russian, Ottoman and German came to an end
D) Ex-colonies rose to become independent nations
Answer:
C) Empires like Austria – Hungary, Russian, Ottoman and German came to an end

Question 50.
Which of the following statements is correct relating to League of Nations ?
I) Treaty of Versailles set up the League of Nations to prevent wars in the future.
II) US became the first member country in League of Nations.
A) I only true
B) II only true
C) Both I and II are true
D) Both I and II are false
Answer:
A) I only true

Question 51.
Which of the following is not a cause of World War – I?
A) Imperialism
B) Secret alliances
C) Militarism
D) Fear of socialism and USSR
Answer:
D) Fear of socialism and USSR

Question 52.
Among the following, which was not a long term factor of the World War – I ?
A) Imperialism
B) Murder of Ferdinand – I
C) Aggressive Nationalism
D) Militarism and Secret Alliance
Answer:
B) Murder of Ferdinand – I

Question 53.
This is not an example of aggressive nationalism.
A) Nazism
B) Communism
C) Fascism
D) Nazism and Fascism
Answer:
B) Communism

Question 54.
The first German Chancellor of united Germany was
A) William – I
B) William – I
C) Bismarck
D) Cavour
Answer:
C) Bismarck

Question 55.
Find the incorrect set.
A) Right to vote to British women – 1918
B) Non aggression pact between Germany and USSR – 1939
C) First World War – 1939 to 1945
D) Versailles Peace Conference -1919
Answer:
C) First World War – 1939 to 1945

Question 56.
In 1934 League of Nations had ……………. member countries
A) 58
B) 34
C) 43
D) 85
Answer:
A) 58

Question 57.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding ‘the age of extremes’ as per
Eric Hobsbawm?
A) Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely
B) Women got their right to vote in this period.
C) Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life
D) New forms of art like movies did not emerge.
Answer:
D) New forms of art like movies did not emerge.

Question 58.
Find the incorrect set/statement.
A) Right to vote to British women – 1918
B) French alliance with Russia 1891
C) Facism began in Italy
D) Bismarck’s aliance with Austria – 1907
Answer:
D) Bismarck’s aliance with Austria – 1907

Question 59.
Which of the following events made USA to join the World War – II
A) Battle of Britain
B) Battle of Stalingrad
C) Attack on Pearl Harbour by Japan
D) Annexation of Austrian by Germany
Answer:
C) Attack on Pearl Harbour by Japan

Question 60.
The annual rally of Nazi party in Germany was held at
A) Berlin
B) Frankfurt
C) Nurnberg
D) Vienna
Answer:
C) Nurnberg

Question 61.
One of the ill effects of the ‘Great Depression
A) Over demand and rise in prices
B) Over demand and fall in prices
C) Decline in demand and rise in prices
D) Decline in demand and fall in prices
Answer:
D) Decline in demand and fall in prices

Question 62.
Adolf Hitler was a dictator in
A) Hungary
B) Germany
C) Italy
D) Sweden
Answer:
B) Germany

Question 63.
Which of these countries belongs to Triple Alliance ?
A) Germany
B) Great Britain
C) China
D) USA
Answer:
A) Germany

Question 64.
What is the Treaty that followed World War – I?
A) Treaty of Five Nations
B) Treaty of Boston
C) Treaty of Versailles
D) War Treaty of Allies
Answer:
C) Treaty of Versailles

Question 65.
In 1914 murder of ……………………. of Austria was one of the immediate provocation that led to First World War.
A) Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
B) Franklin D. Roosevelt
C) Adolf Hitler
D) Archduke Ferdinand
Answer:
D) Archduke Ferdinand

Question 66.
The following took place in 1919.
A) Treaty of Versailles
B) RTI Act originated
C) USSR was set up
D) Constitution was adopted in India
Answer:
A) Treaty of Versailles

Question 67.
The organisation, which has been set up and continuing for promoting worldpeace ………………..
A) United Nations Organisation
B) League of Nations
C) NATO
D) I.L.O
Answer:
A) United Nations Organisation

Question 68.
Before World War – II Poland had a defence pact with
A) Germany
B) Britain
C) Russia
D) China
Answer:
B) Britain

Question 69.
This logo belongs to

A) International Court of Justice
B) Statue of Liberty
C) Organisation on women’s suffragist movement
D) Universal Justice
Answer:
C) Organisation on women’s suffragist movement

Question 70.
After Second World War Ottoman Empire was replaced by
A) Democratic and secular state
B) Democratic and theocratic state
C) Democratic and socialist state
D) Democratic and military state
Answer:
A) Democratic and secular state

Question 71.
This was not a rival block during World Wars period.
A) Turkey, Germany, Austria
B) Germany, Austria, Hungary
C) Britain, France, Russia
D) Nigeria, Vietnam, Russia
Answer:
D) Nigeria, Vietnam, Russia

Question 72.
The Allies were not led by this ……………..
A) Britain
B) US
C) Germany
D) USSR
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 73.
This is not true with regard to World War – I
A) Austria declared war on Serbia as a citizen of Austria was murdered in Serbia
B) Allied powers like U.K, France came to the defence of Austria,
C) Germany supported Austria
D) Franz Ferdinand belonged to Austria
Answer:
A) Austria declared war on Serbia as a citizen of Austria was murdered in Serbia

Question 74.
The dissatisfaction for Germany over Peace at Versailles,
A) The Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties on Germany.
B) Germany was asked to retain the colonies of Africa but to retain Alsace and Lorrain.
C) Germany was asked to pull down its army strength.
D) Germany was asked not to have submarines.
Answer:

Question 75.
Find the correct matching
A) UNICEF-United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organis-ation
B) UNESCO-United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
C) Non – aggression pact between Germany and USSR – 1942.
D) The year of Great Depression -1929
Answer:
D) The year of Great Depression -1929

Question 76.
The suitable concept for the ‘pamphlet on world peace’ is
A) Eradication of Malaria
B) Eradication of Poverty
C) Ban on trafficking of women and children
D) Setting the disputes by peaceful negotiations
Answer:
D) Setting the disputes by peaceful negotiations

Question 77.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding right to vote to women ?
A) France – 1949
B) Britain – 1918
C) India – 1950
D) Switzerland – 1971
Answer:
A) France – 1949

Question 78.
Who came in support of Poland when Hitler invaded it in 1939
A) Britain and France
B) Japan and Austria
C) U.S.S.R and Britain
D) U.S.A
Answer:
A) Britain and France

Question 79.
Hilter invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to handover the port of ……………….
A) Keal
B) Kayak
C) Lothal
D) Danzig
Answer:
D) Danzig

Question 80.
This became a Weimer Republic after World War – I
A) Japan
B) Germany
C) Hungary
D) Turkey
Answer:
B) Germany

Question 81.
This is not the principle for forming U.N.O.
A) Preserving peace
B) Upholding human rights
C) Respecting international law
D) Creating markets for developed countries
Answer:
D) Creating markets for developed countries

Question 82.
Bismarck entered alliance with Italy in the year
A) 1879
B) 1881
C) 1882
D) 1878
Answer:
C) 1882

Question 83.
Bismark defeated France in the year
A) 1879
B) 1870
C) 1882
D) 1869
Answer:
B) 1870

Question 84.
The appeasement policy followed by western capitalist countries on Hitler
A) Supporting it against Soviet socialism
B) Encouraging it against Japan
C) Destroying the harbours of Germany
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Destroying the harbours of Germany

Question 85.
Mussolini belonged to
A) Germany
B) Italy
C) France
D) Russia
Answer:
B) Italy

Question 86.
League of Nations was formed in the year
A) 1885
B) 1920
C) 1918
D) 1905
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 87.
The period of World War I was…………….
A) 1939 – 1947
B) 1917 – 1939
C) 1939 – 1945
D) 1914 – 1918
Answer:
D) 1914 – 1918

Question 88.
Who was the leader of Nazi German force ?
A) Winston Churchill
B) Adolf Hitler
C) Joseph Stalin
D) Mussolini
Answer:
B) Adolf Hitler

Question 89.
The international organization formed immediately after World War – I was ……………..
A) World Bank
B) International Monetary Fund (I.M.F)
C) League of Nations
D) Asian Bank
Answer:
C) League of Nations

Question 90.
If a nation behaves aggressively with another country, the second country should ……………..
A) also behave agressively
B) show an attitude of give and take
C) try to solve the issue with political bilateral discussion
D) increase its weapons and army
Answer:
C) try to solve the issue with political bilateral discussion

Question 91.
How many countries participated in Versailles conference ?
A) 32
B) 37
C) 18
D) 25
Answer:
A) 32

★ Read the para and answer the question.
The same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
Question 92.
The period of World Wars and the Great Depression
A) 1900 – 1915
B) 1900 – 1950
C) 1929 – 1960
D) 1850 – 1950
Answer:
B) 1900 – 1950

Graph showing Military expenditure

Question 93.
The Histograms in Graph shows ………………
A) Armament race in World War
B) Armament race during 1880 – 1914 of Great powers.
C) Germany’s Military expenditure
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Armament race during 1880 – 1914 of Great powers.

Question 94.
Armaments were highest in the year ……………
A) 1910
B) 1880
C) 1914
D) 1890
Answer:
C) 1914

Question 95.
Which organisation prepared this graph?
A) Germany – Nazi Party
B) The Times Atlas of World History – London
C) Allied powers
D) Axis powers
Answer:
B) The Times Atlas of World History – London

Question 96.
How much increment can be noticed during 1880 – 1914 ?
A) 200 million pounds
B) 397 million pounds
C) 132 million pounds
D) 265 million pounds
Answer:
D) 265 million pounds

Look at the map and answer questions 97 – 100.

Question 97.
Name the country shown with shaded part.
A) Belarus
B) Poland
C) Ukraine
D) Romania
Answer:
B) Poland

Question 98.
No. ‘1′ shows
A) France
B) Germany
C) U.S.A
D) Italy
Answer:
B) Germany

Question 99.
What is the sea shown with No. ‘2’.
A) Red sea
B) Mediterranean sea
C) Baltic sea
D) Caspian sea
Answer:
C) Baltic sea

Question 100.
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder of Ferdinand. What is number represents his country
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity with Answers

Question 1.
The word “Chipko” means ………………..
A) To cut down
B) To embrace
C) To protect
D) To save
Answer:
B) To embrace

Question 2.
To conserve the water resources for future generations:
A) Water resources to be treated as private property.
B) Deep borewells to be dug.
C) Water intensive crops to be grown.
D) Water resources to be treated as a common pool resource.
Answer:
D) Water resources to be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 3.
Mineral resources and favourable , conditions come under this type of investment.
A) Natural investment
B) Synthetic investment
C) Private investment
D) Public investment
Answer:
A) Natural investment

Question 4.
The first state in India which planned to shift completely to organic farming by the year 2015 is …………………….
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Manipur
C) Sikkim
D) Nagaland
Answer:
C) Sikkim

Question 5.
The ability of an environment to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution is called ………………
A) sink function
B) very special function
C) natural function
D) special function
Answer:
A) sink function

Question 6.
The Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on the river
A) The Krishna
B) The Ganga
C) The Narmada
D) The Godavari
Answer:
C) The Narmada

Question 7.
Chipko movement is related to this state
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Kerala
D) Uttarakhand
Answer:
B) Madhya Pradesh

Question 8.
Aim of Chipko movement
A) Forest conservation
B) Soil conservation
C) River conservation
D) Agricultural development
Answer:
A) Forest conservation

Question 9.
Chipko Andolan is a ………………..
A) social movement
B) political movement
C) traditional movement
D) environmental movement
Answer:
D) environmental movement

Question 10.
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project is set up in this state.
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Tamil Nadu

Question 11.
The following persons are related to Narmada Bachao Andolan:
1) MedhaPatkar
2) Sundarlal Bahuguna
3) Bava Mahalia
A) only 1
B) only 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1 & 2
Answer:
C) 1 & 3

Question 12.
Problems that arise due to maj or/multi purpose projects.
1) Better irrigation facilities
2) Problems to forests and bio diversity
3) Problem of resettlement
4) Production of hydro electricity
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 4, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 4
Answer:
C) 2, 3

Question 13.
This is a false statement with reference to alternate PD system in Zaheerabad.
A) Cultivation of dry lands gave people work.
B) Instead of selling the produce outside, the community started community grain bank.
C) Alternate PD system had no impact on local people’s food habits and food security in Zaheerabad.
D) By establishing a grain bank, they distributed the locally produced food in the village thus ensuring food security.
Answer:
C) Alternate PD system had no impact on local people’s food habits and food security in Zaheerabad.

Question 14.
The main aim of Chipko Movement is …………….
A) protection of animals
B) construction of dams
C) food security
D) protection of trees
Answer:
D) protection of trees

Question 15.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Silent Spring – Rachel Carson
B) Jalsindhi village – Bava Mahaliya
C) Alternate PDS – Krishna district
D) HDI – Social indicators of education and health
Answer:
C) Alternate PDS – Krishna district

Question 16.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production ?
A) Capital is scarce
B) Irrigation is not well developed
C) Agriculture workers are not willing to work
D) Land is fixed
Answer:
D) Land is fixed

Question 17.
Among the following what is the oldest and traditional practice in lifting underground water?
1) Mota baavi
2) Persian wheels
3) Pumpsets
4) Tube wells
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) Only 2
Answer:
C) 1 and 2

Question 18.
Among the following what are the reasons for deteriorating of quality and quantity of ground water ?
1) Contamination of ground water from industrial waste
2) Dumping of all kinds of waste and toxic substances
3) Constructing check dams
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
A) 1, 2

Question 19.
H.D.I expands the meaning of development to ……………… include of education and health.
A) Social indicators
B) Political indicators
C) Communal indicators
D) Economic indicators
Answer:
A) Social indicators

Question 20.
Organic farming does not include:
A) Production levels can be maintained, similar to modern agricultural methods
B) Rely on natural techniques such as crop rotation, compost and biological pest
C) The use of local resources including farm biological processes.
D) The use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
Answer:
D) The use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides

Question 21.
Ningodi and Hiyali are the names of
A) banana trees
B) banyan trees
C) bamboo trees
D) big trees
Answer:
C) bamboo trees

Question 22.
Bhangoria is the name of a ……………….. of the Adivasi of Narmada Valley.
A) dance
B) market
C) festival
D) sony
Answer:
C) festival

Question 23.
Choose the correct pair of the following.
A) Removal of forestry – Silent Spring
B) Cashew pest – Chipko
C) Land, water, minerals, trees – environment
D) Narmada Bachao Andolan – Carson
Answer:
C) Land, water, minerals, trees – environment

Question 24.
Alternate PDS was introduced in the district
A) Medak
B) Kumool
C) Kadapa
D) Prakasam
Answer:
A) Medak

Question 25.
Identify odd matching.
A) Gaucho tribe – Tibet
B) Sikkim – Organic farming
C) NBA – Narmada Bachao Andolan
D) Micro organisms – Rhizobium and Azotobacter
Answer:
A) Gaucho tribe – Tibet

Question 26.
Right to Life is in our Constitution under article …………………
A) 20
B) 22
C) 21
D) 17
Answer:
C) 21

Question 27.
Of the following which is incorrect
A) HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
B) GDP is an indicator of the value of goods and services produced in the country.
C) HDI includes only the progress of production of goods and services.
D) In India, production and incomes coexist with malnutrition and lack of health facilities
Answer:
B) GDP is an indicator of the value of goods and services produced in the country.

Question 28.
Sardar Sarovar dam is intended to meet the shortage of ………………….
A) drinking water
B) transportation.
C) fisheries development
D) irrigation and power
Answer:
D) irrigation and power

Question 29.
The book ‘Silent Sping’ belongs to ………………..
A) Protection of environment
B) Factors of water pollution
C) Effects of fertilisers and pesticides.
D) Impacts of usage of DDT
Answer:
D) Impacts of usage of DDT

Question 30.
Identify the false statement with reference to unorganised sector.
A) In India more than 90 % of the work force is in.the unorganised sector.
B) The working conditions in the unorganised sector are not encouraging at all.
C) Unorganised sector’s contribution to the total GDP is more than that of the organised sector.
D) The workers of the unorganised sector generally get low wages.
Answer:
C) Unorganised sector’s contribution to the total GDP is more than that of the organised sector.

Question 31.
In the graph of the distribution of , households in India, the bottom part shows …………………

A) Rich income group
B) Middle income group
C) Aspirers
D) Deprived income group
Answer:
D) Deprived income group

Question 32.
Medha Patkar is associated with
A) Anti – Hindi Movement
B) Telangana Movement
C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
D) Chipko Movement
Answer:
C) Narmada Bachao Andolan

Question 33.
Among the following find the correct set
1) Massai warrior – Kenya
2) Yurta – Kazakhstan
3) Qiang tribe – Tibet
4) Gaucho – S. America
A) 1 and 2
B) only 4
C) 1 and 4
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 34.
Find the incorrect one.
A) PDS – Public Distribution System
B) NBA – Narmada Bachao Andolarv
C) HDI – Human Development Index
D) GDP – Gross Domestic Price
Answer:
D) GDP – Gross Domestic Price

Question 35.
Preparations to the rain water to go down to the ground through soil and rocks is …………….
A) recharge
B) rainfall
C) irrigation
D) floods
Answer:
A) recharge

Question 36.
Organic farmers use
A) pesticides
B) infecticides
C) chemical fertilizers
D) compost
Answer:
D) compost

Question 37.
The right to a healthy environment is declared as close to ……………….
A) right to life
B) right against war
C) right to education
D) right to religious freedom
Answer:
A) right to life

Question 38.
Endosulfan is a
A) name of a gas
B) infecticide
C) fertiliser
D) pesticide
Answer:
D) pesticide

Question 39.
Chipko Movement is related to this state.
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Jharkhand
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
B) Uttarakhand

Question 40.
Under the Green Revolution the crops increased are ………………….
A) Turmeric
B) Maize
C) Paddy and Wheat
D) Tea and coffee
Answer:
C) Paddy and Wheat

Question 41.
Dry crops are ………………..
A) Sugarcane
B) Paddy
C) Chilly and Cotton
D) Millets and Oil seeds
Answer:
A) Sugarcane

Question 42.
The following are part of Human Development Index
1) Education
2) Health
3) GDP
4) Expenditure of family.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 and 2

Question 43.
GDP neglects which of the following aspects ?
1) Human development
2) Environment
3) Agriculture
4) Per capita Income
A) 3 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 4 and 1
D) 2 and 3
Answer:
B) 1 and 2

Question 44.
This is not an aim of the Chipko movement.
A) Protection of soil and water
B) Protection of minerals
C) Protection of environment
D) Protection of forests
Answer:
B) Protection of minerals

Question 45
………………. is known as Natural capital.
A) Fire
B) Air
C) Water
D) Environment
Answer:
D) Environment

Question 46.
The potential of an environment to provide resources is referred to as
A) Environment’s source function
B) Environment’s sink function
C) Environment’s potential function
D) Pollution
Answer:
A) Environment’s source function

Question 47.
Of the following, the environmental effects due to economic growth
i) Soil erosion
ii) Industrial emissions
A) i is correct
B) ii is correct
C) Both i & ii correct
D) Both i & ii are wrong
Answer:
C) Both i & ii correct

Question 48.
South India and Central India have lower water table due to
1) rocky plateau surface
2) over usage of water
3) scanty rainfall
4) traditional methods of water drawing
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) None
Answer:
B) 1 and 2

Question 49.
Only this percent of pesticide is supposed to act on pests while the rest goes into our system. ( )
A) 10%
B) 2%
C) 1 %
D) 20 %
Answer:
C) 1 %

Question 50.
Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) is …………………
A) Political movement
B) Economic movement
C) Environmental movement
D) Water movement
Answer:
C) Environmental movement

Question 51.
This was the person who supported Chipko Movement.
A) Digvijay singh
B) Bava Mahaliya
C) Sundarlal Bahuguna
D) Anna Hazare
Answer:
C) Sundarlal Bahuguna

Question 52.
This is not the method of Organic farming.
A) Use of biological pest control
B) Crop rotation
C) Use of compost
D) Use of chemical fertilisers
Answer:
D) Use of chemical fertilisers

Question 53.
The Supreme Court held that one of the following of the Constitution includes the right of pollution free water and air for full enjoyment of life.
A) Right to life
B) Legal right
C) Political right
D) Directive principles
Answer:
A) Right to life

Question 54.
The main aim of the Chipko movement is ………………..
A) to protect forest wealth
B) to prevent felling of trees
C) environmental protection
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 55.
‘Dharavi’ slum is located in this city.
A) Mumbai
B) Delhi
C) Ahmedabad
D) Kolkata
Answer:
A) Mumbai

Question 56.
Led by a voluntary organisation, Deccan Development Society, the villagers collectively decided to grow millets in the fallow lands and commons because………………
A) millets were their staple food.
B) millets are more nutritious.
C) millets grow well in the local environment.
D) millets are handy crops.
Answer:
C) millets grow well in the local environment.

Question 57.
This is NOT called sustainable development.
A) Over use of fertilisers to get good crops
B) Better quality of life for everyone
C) Environmental care
D) Rational use of plastic
Answer:
A) Over use of fertilisers to get good crops

Question 58.
The quality of groundwater is deteriorating. The following one is not the reason for this.
A) Contamination
B) Over rainfall
C) Chemical industrial waste
D) Toxic substances
Answer:
B) Over rainfall

Question 59.
………………. is the better indicator of growth and development than GDP.
A) Human Development Index
B) Net National Product
C) Net Domestic Product
D) Gross National Product
Answer:
A) Human Development Index

Question 60.
Which is NOT the effect of construction of Sardar Sarovar Dam ?
A) Destroying fertile land
B) Displacing more number of people
C) Ensuring the protection of biodiversity
D) Destroying thousands of hectares of forest & agricultural land
Answer:
C) Ensuring the protection of biodiversity

Question 61.
One appreciates Chipko Movement in Uttarakhand because its aims are ……………….
A) agricultural development
B) protecting lands
C) protecting rivers
D) protecting forests
Answer:
D) protecting forests

Question 62.
The reason for Narmada Bachao Andolan.
A) Decreased human lives and biodiversity
B) The project does not generate power
C) The project does not provide irrigation
D) The project does not control floods
Answer:
A) Decreased human lives and biodiversity

Question 63.
All these are included in Right to Life i.e., Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
1) Right to food
2) Right to employment
3) Right to the enjoyment of pollution – free water and air
4) Right to vote
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2 only
D) All the statements
Answer:
B) 1, 2 and 3

Question 64.
Mosquitoes are removed by spraying
A) Chiprin
B) DDT
C) Endosulfan
D) Nitric Acid
Answer:
B) DDT

★ Read the para and answer 65 & 66 questions.
Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to moot their own needs.
Question 65.
A hindrance to sustainable development
i) Over use of ground water
ii) Indiscriminate use of pesticides .
A) ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are hindrances
B) ‘ii’ is a hindrance
C) ‘i’ is a hindrance
D) Both ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are wrong.
Answer:
A) ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are hindrances

Question 66.
In 59% of districts of India, water is unsafe for drinking. The reason is
A) Dumping of all kinds of wastes into water sources
B) Underground water
C) More water using in growing crops
D) Construction of dams
Answer:
A) Dumping of all kinds of wastes into water sources

Question 67.
An environment ability of absorb harmless waste and pollution is stated as ……………….
A) Capital
B) Natural function
C) Freedom
D) Sink function
Answer:
D) Sink function

Question 68.
The effect of industrialisation
i) A lot of material comforts
ii) Afforestation
A) i is correct
B) ii is correct
C) i & ii are correct
D) i & ii are wrong
Answer:
A) i is correct

Question 69.
In Kerala, to protect the cashew crop from pests, government carried out the treatment of 15,000 acres of land with Endosulfan, which was started in the year
A) 1999
B) 1980
C) 1976
D) 1975
Answer:
C) 1976

Question 70.
Of the following which is not correct ?
A) Climate change affects all countries and people more or less
B) The environmental damage is self correcting
C) The problem of Pesticides is an example for negative consequence of economic growth
D) Chipko movement is to prevent the cutting of trees.
Answer:
B) The environmental damage is self correcting

Question 71.
The supreme court upheld that the right to life under article 21 of the constitution includes the right to the enjoyment of pollution free water and air for full enjoyment of life.
A) 1992
B) 1991
C) 2010
D) 1976
Answer:
B) 1991

Question 72.
The main content of “Silent spring” deals with ………………
A) the impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control
B) the way how the extraction of ground water increased
C) impact of pesticide “Endosulfan” on environment
D) contamination of ground water from chemical industrial waste
Answer:
A) the impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control

Question 73.
Rachel Carson: ………………
A) Silent valley
B) Animal farm
C) Silent spring
D) Centre of spring
Answer:
C) Silent spring

Question 74.
Recent data on the ground water resources in India suggest that the ground water is under serious threat of over use in many parts of our country. The reason for it is ……………………
A) over use of ground water
B) use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
C) lifting of ground water motors
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)rd of the country is pumping out more ground water than what goes in recharge
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)rd of the country is pumping out more ground water than what goes
in recharge

Question 75.
Which is not the use of new energy resources pumpsets that work with petrol/diesel and electricity ?
A) Irrigate a smaller area of land
B) Relief from drudgery
C) Lifting of water has became easy
D) Water availability
Answer:
A) Irrigate a smaller area of land

Question 76.
In order to protect cashew crop from pest ……………… government has carried out a treatment of 15,000 acres of land.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Kerala
D) Sikkim
Answer:
C) Kerala

Question 77.
In India, water from hand pumps and wells are unsafe for drinking in about …………… districts.
A) 12%
B) 30%
C) 70%
D) 59%
Answer:
D) 59%

Question 78.
In India, of total the cultivated land the rainfed area is ……………. million hectares.
A) 190
B) 192
C) 171
D) 134
Answer:
B) 192

Question 79.
Which is not the influence of petrol/ diesel and electrical pumpsets?
A) Helpful for the recharge of ground water
B) Lifting of water became very easy
C) Relief from drudgery
D) Water tables started going down
Answer:
A) Helpful for the recharge of ground water

Question 80.
If environment losts its ability of “Source function” and “Sink function” ………………
A) Pollution contamination
B) Environment will support economic production and consumption
C) It affects the carrying capacity of environment
D) Long term damage to environment in recharge.
Answer:
D) Long term damage to environment in recharge.

Look at the bar graph and answer the questions 81 & 82.

Question 81.
The above bar graph indicates
A) wide inequalities in income and wealth
B) middle class people in India are increasing
C) poor people are more in number
D) Billionaires are increasing rapidly
Answer:
A) wide inequalities in income and wealth

Question 82.
In 2011 number of Billionaires is ………………
A) 45
B) 51
C) 54
D) 55
Answer:
D) 55

Question 83.
Bava Mahaliya of Jalsindhi village, Jhabua district wrote a letter to the CM of Madhya Pradesh in ………………….
A) 1997
B) 1996
C) 1994
D) 1995
Answer:
C) 1994

Question 84.
This is not the feature of organic farming.
A) Organic farming relies mainly on natural techniques.
B) It includes using pest predators.
C) It includes using micro organisms which make nutrients.
D) Use of synthetic chemicals encouraged more.
Answer:
D) Use of synthetic chemicals encouraged more.

Question 85.
1970: ………………..
A) SSP
B) Natural function
C) MNC
D) Chipko movement
Answer:
D) Chipko movement

Question 86.
Natural existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the …………………. process
A) productive
B) trading
C) selling
D) distributing
Answer:
A) productive

Question 87.
Bava Mahaliya letter was recorded in
A) English
B) Urdu
C) Bhilala
D) Punjabi
Answer:
C) Bhilala

Question 88
……………….. is nutritionally inferior compared to millets.
A) Dal
B) Egg
C) Milk
D) Rice
Answer:
D) Rice

Question 89.
Open wells had water at ……………. feet deep.
A) 10 to 15
B) 5 to 10
C) 15 to 20
D) 9 to 16
Answer:
A) 10 to 15

Question 90.
In India more than ………………. of the work force is in the unorganised sector.
A) 30%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 85%
Answer:
C) 90%

Question 91.
Silent spring:
A) 1926
B) 1962
C) 1996
D) 1942
Answer:
B) 1962

Question 92.
Recharge means ………………… has goes down to the ground for it to be lifted up.
A) fire
B) pipe
C) air
D) water
Answer:
D) water

Question 93.
A book “Before they pass away” is about …………………..
A) nomadic communities
B) nature
C) South America
D) PDS
Answer:
A) nomadic communities

Question 94.
A slogan related to protection of environment is ………………….
A) No trees no life
B) Cutting trees, distributing future
C) Vanam – Manam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 95.
Wheat, jowar, tuvar, red gram will grow more in………………….
A) Gujarat
B) Telangana
C) Sikkim
D) Manipur
Answer:
A) Gujarat

Question 96.
Through mota baavi …………………. acres of land can be irrigated
A) 2 to 5
B) 3 to 10
C) 2 to 3
D) 4 to 5
Answer:
C) 2 to 3

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Food Security on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson Food Security with Answers

Question 1.
The National Institute of Nutrition is situated at …………………….
A) Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Hyderabad
D) Mumbai
Answer:
C) Hyderabad

Question 2.
The main advantage of mid-day meal programme is …………………..
1) to increase attendance of children
2) to increase economical status of parents
3) to increase skills of learning
4) to provide nutritious food to children
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 3
Answer:
A) 1 and 4

Question 3.
An example to good proteins in the following is/ are ……………….
A) Dals
B) Jowar
C) Ragi
D) Sugar
Answer:
A) Dals

Question 4.
The scheme which is not related to the National Food Security Act, 2013
A) Mid-day meal scheme
B) ICDS
C) PDS
D) Self Help Groups
Answer:
D) Self Help Groups

Question 5.
The food grains purchased and kept in stock by the government of India through FCI is called ……………….
A) food stock oas
B) wheat grain stock
C) buffer stock
D) millet stock
Answer:
C) buffer stock

Question 6.
The ‘Antyodaya’ programme aims at ………………..
A) Eradication of unemployment
B) Helping the poorest of the poor
C) Development of minorities
D) Upliftment of middle class
Answer:
B) Helping the poorest of the poor

Question 7.
Indian Government has made National Food Security Act in the year …………………..
A) 2009
B) 2005
C) 2012
D) 2013
Answer:
D) 2013

Question 8.
Article 21 of the Constitution of India, enshrines this fundamental right.
A) Right to equality
B) Right to life
C) Right to religious freedom
D) Right to speech
Answer:
B) Right to life

Question 9.
What is the minimum support price
A) The price given by consumers
B) The price given by the wholesale merchants of peasants
C) The price decided by Government for agricultural produce
D) The price decided by the peasants for agricultural produce
Answer:
C) The price decided by Government for agricultural produce

Question 10.
The following is not relating to the food corporation of India
A) Buffer stock
B) Purchasing additional production from the farmers
C) Supplies fertilizers
D) Public Distribution corporation
Answer:
C) Supplies fertilizers

Question 11.
MSP (Minimum Support Price) is declared by government agency every ……………….
A) 2 years
B) 1 year
C) 6 months
D) 5 years
Answer:
B) 1 year

Question 12.
The government provides food to public through
A) Private companies
B) Multi National Company
C) Super Bazaar
D) Public Distribution System
Answer:
D) Public Distribution System

Question 13.
Examples for coarse grains or nutrient grains.
1. Jowar
2. Ragi
3. Bajra
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3
Answer:
C) 1, 2, 3

Question 14.
Public Distribution System is associated with …………………
A) Super Bazaars
B) Cooperative stores
C) Ration shops
D) General stores
Answer:
C) Ration shops

Question 15.
FCI stands for ……………
A) Foreign Co-operation with India
B) Fossils Corporation of India
C) Food Corporation of India
D) Food Coming to India
Answer:
C) Food Corporation of India

Question 16.
The Bengal famine occurred in the year ……………….
A) 1840 – 43
B) 1943 – 45
C) 1860-64
D) 1947 – 50
Answer:
B) 1943 – 45

Question 17.
Poverty has a direct impact on ………………
A) Per capita income
B) Inflation
C) Unemployment
D) The calorie intake of our body
Answer:
D) The calorie intake of our body

Question 18.
This state was the first to implement mid-day meal programme.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala .
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 19.
This organisation survey declared that malnutrition is a major problem in India.
A) National Institute of Nutrition
B) Food Corporation of India
C) Government of India through PD System
D) Integrated Child Development Scheme
Answer:
A) National Institute of Nutrition

Question 20.
For estimating nutritional status of children these measurements are used.
1) Height
2) Weight
3) Education
4) Number of calories they take
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
Answer:
B) 1 and 2

Question 21.
When children are undernourished for a long time, their bone growth is affected and so they remain short. Giving food sufficiently does not make them normal. It is called
A) underweight
B) wasting
C) stunting
D) obese
Answer:
C) stunting

Question 22.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the states of ………………
1) Odisha
2) Gujarat
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Chhattisgarh
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) All the above
Answer:
A) 1, 2 and 3

Question 23.
You have more food reserves. If famine occurs, what will you do ?
A) I distribute the excess to the needy people
B) I try to sell my reserves for higher prices
C) I write a letter to government for help
D) I purchase and preserve more food grains
Answer:
A) I distribute the excess to the needy people

Question 24.
This method is NOT responsible for soil degradation.
A) Unscientific application of chemical fertilisers
B) Heavy use of pesticides and insecticides
C) Application of organic manure
D) Improper use of natural resources
Answer:
C) Application of organic manure

Question 25.
This is the method adopted by government to increase the availability of food grains
A) Buying from the farmers.
B) Selling from its existing stocks.
C) Exporting to foreign countries.
D) None.
Answer:
B) Selling from its existing stocks.

Question 26.
This is not the aspect of food security.
A) Food grains production
B) Export of food grains
C) Access to food gr ains
D) Food grains availability
Answer:
B) Export of food grains

Question 27.
Based on Body Mass Index, we can estimate ……………….
A) The efficiency of PDS
B) Importance given to food crops
C) Nutritional status among adult men and women
D) Purchasing power of people
Answer:
C) Nutritional status among adult men and women

Question 28.
Children of this age group are attached to Anganwadis.
A) 1 – 5 years
B) 1 – 3 years
C) 3 – 5 years
D) 6 – 14 years
Answer:
A) 1 – 5 years

Question 29.
The states have followed …………… which means that low cost foodgrains would be available to all.
A) local shop
B) state level storage
C) national food store
D) universal PDS
Answer:
D) universal PDS

Question 30.
Which of the following is not related to food security?
A) Provide inputs to the farmers
B) Farmers have to be supported and guarded against market risks
C) Encourage crop diversification from foodgrains to commercial crops
D) Expand irrigation facilities
Answer:
C) Encourage crop diversification from foodgrains to commercial crops

Question 31.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Anthyodaya card holders – 20 kgs of foodgrains
B) ICDS – Integrated Child Development Scheme
C) National Food Security Act – To legalise people’s Right to Food
D) NIN – National Institute of Nutrition
Answer:
A) Anthyodaya card holders – 20 kgs of foodgrains

Question 32.
What are the important means for people to access food grains in India ?
A) Ration shops
B) Anganwadis
C) Best price shops
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Ration shops

Question 33.
Which of the following crops are related to Green Revolution ?
A) Maize, rice
B) Cotton, bajra
C) Wheat, rice
D) Cotton, wheat
Answer:
C) Wheat, rice

Question 34.
In food security accessibility means ………………
A) Food is stored by government
B) Food is supplied for rich people
C) Food is within reach of every person
D) Food is not served for people
Answer:
C) Food is within reach of every person

Question 35.
…………… supply food products for the low income groups
A) Multi National Corporation
B) World Health Organisation
C) Government Security Institution
D) Public Distribution System
Answer:
D) Public Distribution System

Question 36.
The scheme that is being implemented to solve the problem of malnutrition in the schools.
A) Integrated Child Welfare Scheme
B) Mid-day Meals Programme
C) Swachh Bharat Programme
D) System of organizing toilets
Answer:
B) Mid-day Meals Programme

Question 37.
Food security depends on …………………..
A) Country’s buffer stock
B) Government’s vigilation and action
C) PDS
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Weight is plotted against height – Wasting
B) Over weight – BMI >25
C) Mid-day meal today – 20 crore children in India
D) Chronic energy deficiency — BMI < 18.5
Answer:
C) Mid-day meal today – 20 crore children in India

Question 39.
The following state records more rice purchase through PDS.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
D) Tamil Nadu

Question 40.
Food security, in India like country is, ensured when …………………
A) then is on barrier on access to food
B) all persons have capacity to buy food of acceptable quality
C) change food is available for all the persons
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
Most of the coarse cereals are grown in ……………. regions of country
A) dry land regions
B) humid
C) cold
D) wet land regions
Answer:
A) dry land regions

Question 42.
The people working in rural areas are recommended to take …………… kilo calories.
A) 2100
B) 2010
C) 2400
D) 2040
Answer:
C) 2400

Question 43.
The condition characterized by excessive accumulation and storage of fat in body is called …………….
A) stunting
B) wasting
C) obesity
D) underweight
Answer:
C) obesity

Question 44.
Indian government has made Food Security Act in year
A) 2011
B) 2013
C) 2012
D) 2014
Answer:
B) 2013

Question 45.
Food Security means
A) Availability of food
B) Affordability of food
C) Accessibility of food
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 46.
The stock of food grains mainly wheat and rice are procured by the government through ……………………
A) BCCI
B) FCI
C) DCI
D) FCCI
Answer:
B) FCI

Question 47.
This is the first requirement for food security
A) Export food grains
B) Distribute food grains
C) Produce food grains
D) Use of HYN seeds
Answer:
C) Produce food grains

Question 48.
The court verdict gave preference to ………………. in cooking the meals
A) urban unemployed
B) rural unemployed
C) dalit cooks
D) all the people
Answer:
C) dalit cooks

Question 49.
A child lost weight recently. If given food – recovers easily. It refers to
A) obesity
B) wasting
C) underweight
D) stunting
Answer:
B) wasting

Question 50.
The nutrients which help in growth and regeneration of body tissues are
A) carbohydrates
B) vitamins
C) minerals
D) proteins
Answer:
D) proteins

Question 51.
Buffer stock is created,to
A) Avoid shortage
B) Maintain equal distribution of food
C) Distribute food grains in the deficit areas
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 52.
This is the prime concern for India’s food security
A) Per capita Income.
B) National Income.
C) Per capita availability of food grains.
D) Production of crops.
Answer:
C) Per capita availability of food grains.

Question 53.
Carbohydrates provide.
A) protection of body
B) growth
C) body building
D) energy
Answer:
D) energy

Question 54.
This is the main benefit of mid – day meal programme.
1) Increase in the percentage of attendance
2) Increase in the quality of learning and achievement of competencies
3) Provision of nutritious food to children
4) Parent can concentrate on the work without bothering about the food of the children
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) All the above
Answer:
A) 1, 2 and 3

Question 55.
The kilo calories to be taken by the urban people in a day are ……………..
A) 2200
B) 2100
C) 2300
D) 2400
Answer:
B) 2100

Question 56.
Identify the correct sentence.
i) Indian government made National Food Security Act in 2013.
ii) National Institute of Nutrition is located in Bangalore.
iii) A standard of 2100 kilo calories per day in urban areas and 2400 kilo calories in rural areas is the recommended food intake per day.
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (i) and (iii)
C) (ii) and (iii)
D) (i) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
B) (i) and (iii)

Question 57.
The most devasting famine of 1943, occurred in which state of India ?
A) Sikkim
B) Odisha
C) Rajasthan
D) Bengal
Answer:
C) Rajasthan

Question 58.
These are associated with food security.
A) Ration shops
B) Anganwadi centres
C) Mid-day meal scheme
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 59.
At which subsidized price wheat is given to the people below the poverty line according to AAY scheme ………………. (per kg)
A) ₹ 8
B) ₹ 2
C) ₹ 4
D) ₹ 9.3
Answer:
B) ₹ 2

Question 60.
Which one of the following does not ensure food security to the people ?
A) Enough food is available for all the persons.
B) All persons have the capacity to buy food
C) Extremely inadequate purchasing power
D) There is no barrier on access to food
Answer:
C) Extremely inadequate purchasing power

Question 61.
Which of the following is incorrect relating to Food Security Act 2013 ?
A) Every person of low income families is entitled to 5 kgs of food grains.
B) If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
C) Among poor families, the poorest ones are entitled to 25 kgs of foodgrains.
D) It applies to approximately 2/3 rd of the population of India.
Answer:
C) Among poor families, the poorest ones are entitled to 25 kgs of foodgrains.

Question 62.
Coarse cereals are also known as ………………..
A) fine cereals
B) white grains
C) nutri – cereals
D) light grains
Answer:
C) nutri – cereals

Question 63.
Find the correct statement :
A) Availability of food grains per day = (Availability of foodgrains for year ÷ population) 365
B) Availability of food grains per day = (Availability of foodgrains for tire year + population) 365
C) Availability of food grains per day = (Availability of food grains for the year × population) / 365
D) Availability of foodgrains per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year-population) / 365
Answer:
A) Availability of food grains per day = (Availability of foodgrains for year ÷ population) 365

Question 64.
Nutritionists in India suggest that every person should eat 100 grams of fruits but availability was …………….
A) 75 grams
B) 80 grams
C) 58 grams
D) 46 grams
Answer:
C) 58 grams

Question 65.
Government has opened fair price shops ……………….
A) to remove poverty
B) to promote education
C) to provide inputs to the farmers
D) to provide essential items to poor at reasonable rate
Answer:
D) to provide essential items to poor at reasonable rate

Question 66.
Which provide energy through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats etc. ?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Vitamins
D) Minerals
Answer:
A) Carbohydrates

Question 67.
…………….. are institutions where young children are taken care of.
A) Upper primary schools
B) Primary schools
C) Hospitals
D) Anganwadis
Answer:
D) Anganwadis

Question 68.
BMI = …………………
A) Height in metres / weight in kgs
B) Weight in pounds / height in metres/ squared
C) Weight in kgs /height in metres/ squared
D) Height in cms / weight in kgs
Answer:
C) Weight in kgs /height in metres/ squared

Question 69.
Main benefit of implementation of midday meals scheme.
A) Improvement in attendance of children
B) Improvement in learning standards
C) Improvement in economical status of parents
D) Supply of nutritious food to students
Answer:
D) Supply of nutritious food to students

Question 70.
Self sufficiency in food resources is required …………………….
A) to meet the increasing demand of increasing population
B) to reduce import
C) to control prices
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 71.
Choose the wrong pair from the following.
A) Standard kilocalories per day in urban areas – 2100
B) Standard kilocalories per day in rural areas – 2400
C) Availability of food grains per person per day in America – 850 grams
D) Availability of food grains per person per day in Europe – 469 grams
Answer:
D) Availability of food grains per person per day in Europe – 469 grams

Question 72.
Which of the following statements is correct?
I. National Food Security Act was passed in 2012
II. Main aim of National Food Security Act is to legalise people’s right to food
A) I only correct
B) II only correct
C) Both I and II are correct
D) Both I and II are incorrect
Answer:
B) II only correct

Question 73.
Which of the following are nutricereals?
A) Jowar, ragi, bajra
B) Rice and wheat
C) Red gram, green gram
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Jowar, ragi, bajra

Question 74.
What are the two components that belong to food security system ?
A) Buffer stock, FCI
B) Buffer stock, Issue price
C) Buffer stock, PDS
D) PDS, FCI
Answer:
D) PDS, FCI

Question 75.
Women and children under the age of five come under food-insecure population due to …………………
A) Fats
B) Healthy diet
C) Malnutrition
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Malnutrition

Question 76.
The prevalence of underweight is highest in ……………….
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Kerala
C) Gujarat
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
C) Gujarat

Question 77.
Fair Price Shops are related to ……………………….
A) FCI
B) PDS
C) CBI
D) CWC
Answer:
B) PDS

Question 78.
Which is the correct statement regarding food security ?
A) Mono – crop cultivation ensures food security
B) PDS system could be used alone to address issue of child nutrition
C) Low – calorie food intake is higher among people with low income
D) Increase in food production alone ensures food security
Answer:
C) Low – calorie food intake is higher among people with low income

Question 79.
Identify a food insecure person …………………….
A) pregnant mother
B) school children
C) working woman
D) urban labourers
Answer:
A) pregnant mother

Question 80.
Stunting means ………………….
A) under weight children
B) bone growth is affected
C) a child who has lost weight recently
D) suffering from energy deficiency
Answer:
B) bone growth is affected

Question 81.
………………. provide us energy
A) vitamins
B) minerals
C) carbohydrates
D) protein
Answer:
C) carbohydrates

Question 82.
Which of the following is responsible for blood formation ?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Minerals
D) Vitamins
Answer:
C) Minerals

Question 83.
This is not the method involved in dry land cultivation.
A) Planting drought resistant crops
B) Use of HYV seeds and chemical fertilisers
C) Crop rotation use
D) Water harvesting
Answer:
B) Use of HYV seeds and chemical fertilisers

Question 84.
National food security Act legalises people’s
A) Right to Food
B) Right to Equality
C) Right to Employment
D) Right to Freedom
Answer:
A) Right to Food

Question 85.
Nutrients which are required in small quantities ………………
A) vitamins
B) minerals
C) carbohydrates
D) proteins
Answer:
B) minerals

Question 86.
This is the most worrying factor about India’s food security.
A) Percapita Income
B) Percapita expenditure on food grains
C) Percapita availability of food grains
D) National food security
Answer:
C) Percapita availability of food grains

Question 87.
Proteins help in
A) growth
B) energy
C) protecting body
D) blood formation
Answer:
A) growth

Question 88.
Food security system comprises of ………………….
A) PDS
B) Buffer stock
C) A & B
D) quality
Answer:
C) A & B

Question 89.
The important aspect in the mid-day meals programme because of the judi-ciary instructions is that ……………….
A) warm food should be prepared at the schools
B) nutritional values should be maintained
C) priority should be given to the women who do not have any other source of income
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 90
……………….. buys the surplus food grains from farmers
A) FCI
B) Food Government
C) MSP
D) Council of India
Answer:
A) FCI

Question 91.
Which of the following states achieved the highest rate of growth in agriculture due to Green Revolution in India?
A) Manipur
B) Punjab
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
B) Punjab

Question 92.
Antyodaya ration cards are meant for which of the following groups ?
A) The poorest of the poor
B) Everybody below poverty line
C) The poorest among BPL families
D) Those living above the poverty line
Answer:
A) The poorest of the poor

Question 93.
Seasonal hunger is related to …………………
A) very low income
B) the change in season
C) change in profession
D) cycles of food grain harvesting
Answer:
D) cycles of food grain harvesting

Question 94.
Identify which of the following is not a cooperative playing an” important role
in food security in India.
A) AAY
B) ADS
C) Amul
D) Mother Dairy Delhi
Answer:
A) AAY

Question 95.
“Chronic hunger” is ……………..
A) when a person is unable to set work for entire year
B) an expression of poverty
C) a consequence of diets persistently inadequate
D) related to the cycles of food growing
Answer:
C) a consequence of diets persistently inadequate

Question 96.
At the time of disaster what does not happen to the supply of food grains ?
A) Due to shortage of food, prices fall
B) Food supply is adversely affected
C) Adminstration gears itself to take the situation
D) Due to natural disater there is a widespread failure of crops
Answer:
A) Due to shortage of food, prices fall

Question 97.
Seasonal hunger is commonly found in …………….. areas
A) rural
B) tribal
C) urban
D) metro
Answer:
A) rural

Question 98.
When were the integrated child devel-opment services introduced ?
A) 1975
B) 1991
C) 1992
D) 1981
Answer:
A) 1975

Question 99.
The per capita availability of food grains in countries of Europe was ………………….. gms
A) 600
B) 650
C) 100
D) 700
Answer:
D) 700

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Globalisation on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Globalisation with Answers

Question 1.
W.T.O. means ……………….
A) World Tourism Organisation.
B) World Trade Organisation.
C) World Teacher Organisation.
D) World Tobacco Organisation.
Answer:
B) World Trade Organisation.

Question 2.
‘Globalisation’ has NOT badly impacted the lives of
A) MNCs
B) Tribal people
C) Landless workers
D) Unorganised sector workers
Answer:
C) Landless workers

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an Indian Multi National Company ?
A) Ranbaxy
B) Ford Motors
C) Tata Motors
D) Infosys
Answer:
B) Ford Motors

Question 4.
Which of the following organizations monitors the liberalized policies of international trade ?
A) W.H.O
B) I.L.O
C) W.M.O
D) W.T.O
Answer:
D) W.T.O

Question 5.
SEZ stands for
A) Special Economic Zone
B) Special Environmental Zone
C) Socially Economic Zone
D) Special Electricity Zone
Answer:
A) Special Economic Zone

Question 6.
These companies have control over the foreign trade as a result of globalization
A) Local Private Companies
B) Multi National Companies
C) Companies under Government sector
D) Cottage Industries
Answer:
B) Multi National Companies

Question 7.
The following is NOT an advantage of the arrival of MNC
A) Expansion of Employment opportunities
B) Availability of quality products at low costs
C) Distribution of MNCs’profit to public
D) Betterment in foreign trade
Answer:
C) Distribution of MNCs’profit to public

Question 8.
Ranbaxy is a
A) Indian I.T company of USA
B) Automobile company of USA
C) Pharmaceutical MNC
D) Indian company that produces spare parts
Answer:
C) Pharmaceutical MNC

Question 9.
i) Interaction of foreign markets and flow of foreign investment is called Globalisation
ii) Globalisation is responsible for the increase in flow of services, investments and knowledge
A) (ii) is influenced by (i)
B) No change in (ii) with the effect of (i)
C) (i) & (ii) are not related to each other
D) Both (i) & (ii) are false
Answer:
A) (ii) is influenced by (i)

Question 10.
Positive consequences of globalisation
1) Negligence of few communities
2) Domination of western countries
3) Availability of best quality products
4) Growth in production and development
5) Growth in employment opportunities
A) 1, 2, 4, 5
B) 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 4, 2, 5
D) 3, 4, 5
Answer:
D) 3, 4, 5

Question 11.
This is NOT the flow of international trade
A) Flow of services
B) Flow of investments
C) Expansion of nationalist feelings
D) Flow of goods
Answer:
C) Expansion of nationalist feelings

Question 12.
To emerge more Indian MNCs
A) Tax procedure to be liberalised
B) Improvement of infrastructure
C) Availability of new production technology to producers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
In the past three or four decades, more and more MNCs have been looking for ……………….. around the world which would be cheap for their production
A) Situations
B) Locations
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Locations

Question 14.
The people who are mainly benefitted by globalization are…………..
1) rich consumers
2) skilled and educated people
3) farmers
4) poor people
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
Q 1 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Answer:
A) 1 and 2

Question 15.
How are MNCs spreading their production and interacting with local producers?
A) By setting up partnership with local companies
B) By using the local companies for supplies
C) By closely competing with the local companies or buying them up
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 16.
Benefit to the local company of joint production with MNCs.
A) Moral and social support.
B) Money from MNCs for additional investments.
C) Cultural exchange.
D) All the above.
Answer:
B) Money from MNCs for additional investments.

Question 17.
Which one of the following is NOT responsible for a greater choice of goods in the market for the consumer ?
A) Multinational Companies
B) Increased Foreign Investment
C) World Trade Organisation
D) Increased Foreign Trade
Answer:
B) Increased Foreign Investment

Question 18.
Which one among the following is a far reaching change in the policy made in India in 1991?
A) Put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
B) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government.
C) Restrictions set by the government to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
D) By giving protection to domestic producers through a variety of means.
Answer:
B) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government.

Question 19.
Goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs due to the improvement in this technology.
A) Transportation
B) Information
C) Communication
D) Publication
Answer:
A) Transportation

Question 20.
This is the main channel of connecting countries.
A) Trade
B) Nursing
C) Teaching
D) Unorganised sector
Answer:
A) Trade

Question 21.
According to WTO, trade between countries should be
A) restricted and limited
B) a little bit free
C) free without barriers
D) unfair
Answer:
C) free without barriers

Question 22.
The share of agriculture in GDP in US is
A) 5%
B) 3%
C) 1%
D) 2%
Answer:
C) 1%

Question 23.
WIPRO, INFOSYS are called Indian MNCs because they have invested in
A) India
B) Foreign countries
C) Their companies in foreign countries
D) Asia only
Answer:
C) Their companies in foreign countries

Question 24.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Call Centers – Customers Care Services
B) Western Asia and Northern Africa – Arab Spring
C) Japanese MNC – Honda
D) Removal of Trade barriers – Globalisation
Answer:
D) Removal of Trade barriers – Globalisation

Question 25.
…………… is the process of rapid integration with the countries of the world.
A) Low quality and high prices
B) Low prices and low quality
C) Greater choice and high quality
D) Lesser choice and high prices
Answer:
C) Greater choice and high quality

Question 26.
This not the measure adopted by MNCs to regulate/ control production
A) Co – ordination of production by distribution of production into small units
B) Investment in the budget of a particular country
C) Production and marketing across the countries
D) Optimum utilisation of resources with the help of new technology
Answer:
B) Investment in the budget of a particular country

Question 27.
Globalisation has created new opportunities of
A) employment
B) emerging multinationals
C) providing services
D) all of the above
Answer:
D) all of the above

Question 28.
Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the have ………………….. unfairly retained trade barriers
A) developing nations
B) underdeveloped countries
C) developed countries
D) none of these
Answer:
C) developed countries

Question 29.
The other dimension of inequality is in the dominating influence of the ……………. on matters of policy
A) Rich countries
B) Poor countries
C) Middle income group countries
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Rich countries

Question 30.
Art/A ………………. is a bonded labourer under contract to work for an employer for a specific amount of time, to pay off his passage to a new country or home.
A) Permanent labourer
B) Workers
C) Indentured labourer
D) None
Answer:
C) Indentured labourer

Question 31.
Colonies such as India exported ………………. and ……………….. imported
A) Agricultural goods, IT goods
B) Raw materials and food grains, finished goods
C) Vegetables, Industrial goods
D) Consumer goods, Basic goods
Answer:
B) Raw materials and food grains, finished goods

Question 32.
Largest producer of edible oil in India
A) Dhara
B) Cargill Foods
C) Wipro
D) ITC
Answer:
B) Cargill Foods

Question 33.
Match the following:

1. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers	a) Automobiles
2. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade items	b) Garments, footwear, sports wear
3. Indian companies who have invested abroad	c) Call centres
4. IT has helped in the spreading of production of services	d) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
5. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in India for production	e) Trade barriers

A) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – b
C) 1 – e, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a

Question 34.
WTO headquarters is in ………………….
A) New York
B) Geneva
C) London
D) Hague
Answer:
B) Geneva

Question 35.
MNCs choose to set up production in the areas of …………………..
A) Economic sustainability
B) Cheap goods
C) Cheap labour resources
D) Scenic beauty
Answer:
C) Cheap labour resources

Question 36.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
A) form partnership with local companies
B) buy up existing local companies
C) set up new factories
D) all the above
Answer:
B) buy up existing local companies

Question 37.
Ford Motors is connected with
A) Tata Motors
B) Mahindra and Mahindra
C) Maruti Suzuki
D) Hindustan Motors
Answer:
B) Mahindra and Mahindra

Question 38.
This is an example for trade barrier
A) Strict procedure for trade barrier
B) Lack of transport
C) Taxes
D) Growth in production
Answer:
C) Taxes

Question 39.
Which of the following is NOT an MNC?
A) Ford Motors
B) Asian paints
C) Priya foods
D) Tata Motors
Answer:
C) Priya foods

Question 40.
The ill – effect of globalisation in India is ………………..
A) Emergence of Indian MNCs
B) Greater choice for urban people
C) Goods of improved quality and lower price
D) Closure of small units
Answer:
D) Closure of small units

Question 41.
Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make …………….. pouches daily.
A) 5 million
B) 6 million
C) 4 million
D) 55million
Answer:
A) 5 million

Question 42.
Allowing private sector to set up more of such industries as were previously reserved for public sector is called
A) Globalisation
B) Privatisation
C) Nationalisation
D) Socialisation
Answer:
B) Privatisation

Question 43.
The impact of globalisation in India is ……………………..
i) particularly the well – off sections in the urban areas got benef itted.
ii) the impact of globalisation has not been uniform on producers and workers.
iii) arrival of Multi National Companies.
iv) greater choice before consumers
A) i, iii and iv only
B) i, ii, iii, iv
C) i, ii, iii only
D) ii, iii, iv only
Answer:
B) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 44.
USA’s voting is valued at ………………. % in the World Bank.
A) 19
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
Answer:
B) 16

Question 45.
This is one of the American companies manufacturing automobiles.
A) Suzuki
B) Yamaha
C) Ford Motors
D) Bajaj
Answer:
C) Ford Motors

Question 46.
This is an unfair thing with regard to the developed countries.
A) Removing trade barriers
B) Liberalisation
C) Decreasing barriers
D) Retaining trade barriers
Answer:
D) Retaining trade barriers

Question 47.
The companies that have markets in more than one Country.
A) Multi National Company
B) Unorganised Enterprise
C) Monopolistic Company
D) Public Enterprise
Answer:
A) Multi National Company

Question 48.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as
A) Privatisation
B) Liberalisation
C) Industrialisation
D) Nationalisation
Answer:
B) Liberalisation

Question 49.
Fair globalisation means
A) ensuring better living for the people of developed countries.
B) creating new trade barriers.
C) creating opportunities for all.
D) investing more in developing countries.
Answer:
C) creating opportunities for all.

Question 50.
TATA company manufactures …………………
A) Medicines
B) Colours
C) Vehicles
D) Textiles
Answer:
C) Vehicles

Question 51.
Match the following.

Group – A	Group – B
1. Tata Motors	a) Paints
2. Nerolac	b) Information technology
3. Infosys	c) Automobiles

A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 52.
If we look at the past, we find that MNCs have been a major force in the process of globalisation since last ……………….
A) thirty years
B) forty years
C) fifty years
D) seventy years
Answer:
A) thirty years

Question 53
……………. have played a crucial role in the Arab spring.
A) Leaders
B) Media
C) Students
D) Farmers
Answer:
B) Media

Question 54.
In the year 2015 the number of member countries in W.T.O are …………………
A) 159
B) 162
C) 165
D) 152
Answer:
A) 159

Question 55.
Decisions on key issues in international trade are now taken by
A) National governments
B) Institutions of Developed countries
C) Institutions of Global Governance
D) MNCs
Answer:
C) Institutions of Global Governance

Question 56.
Ford, an MNC, entered into India in
A) 2004
B) 1990
C) 1995
D) 2014
Answer:
C) 1995

Question 57.
……………. control production in many countries.
A) International Organisations
B) Joint Ventures
C) Multi National Companies
D) Net marketing
Answer:
C) Multi National Companies

Question 58.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding liberalisation policy ?
A) It was started around 1991
B) Government accepted liberlisation to improve the performance of producers .
C) It was opposed by powerful international organisation
D) As per this policy traders are free to export or import
Answer:
C) It was opposed by powerful international organisation

Question 59.
Which of the following are the ways that MNCs to expand market?
1) MNCs setup production jointly with local companies
2) MNCs buy up local companies
3) MNCs place orders for production with small producers
4) MNCs confined to few countries
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) All the above
Answer:
C) 1, 2 and 3

Question 60.
The money that MNCs spent to buy assets as land, buildings, machines and other equipment is called as
A) Foreign trade
B) Working capital
C) Self investment
D) Foreign investment
Answer:
D) Foreign investment

Question 61.
An example for rapid information technology
A) Transportation technology
B) Satellite communication devices
C) Chinese toys
D) Better health devices
Answer:
B) Satellite communication devices

Question 62.
In an economist’s view, which of the following perspective of globalisation is most suitable ?
A) The decline of sovereignty of the nation state
B) The emergence of global institutions and global conflicts
C) The development of communication technologies
D) The growth of international trade and the increase in international trade follows
Answer:
C) The development of communication technologies

Question 63.
Which of the following are the types of movement within international economic exchanges ?
A) Flow of goods and services
B) Flow Of labour
C) Flow of capital
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 64.
Which of the following helps globalisation ?
A) Technology
B) MNCs
C) WTO
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 65.
Which facilitated globalisation by removing barriers to trade and investment ?
A) Cultural homogenisation
B) Movements by the common people
C) Information technology
D) Liberalisation of trade and investment
Answer:
D) Liberalisation of trade and investment

Question 66.
When was economic reform (Privatisation) appeared in India ?
A) 1991
B) 2005
C) 2008
D) 1989
Answer:
A) 1991

Question 67.
Infosys is an MNC in the field of
A) Automobiles
B) Paints
C) IT
D) Nuts and bolts
Answer:
C) IT

Question 68.
“Cargill Foods” is a very large MNC of this country.
A) England
B) America
C) Mexico
D) China
Answer:
B) America

Question 69.
These are playing a major role in the Globalisation process.
A) National companies
B) MNCs
C) Nursing
D) Govt, industries
Answer:
B) MNCs

Question 70.
Companies that set up production units in The special economic zones do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of …………………..
A) 10 years
B) 12 years
C) 5 years
D) 15 years
Answer:
C) 5 years

Question 71.
The revolutionary period to uproot the dictators in western Asia and North Africa was termed as ……………………… by media.
A) R-R-R
B) Toppling Arab
C) Arab Spring
D) Democratisation Arab
Answer:
C) Arab Spring

Question 72.
Globalisation is a phenomenon which started at the end of this century.
A) 19^th century
B) 17^th century
C) 18^th century
D) 20^th century
Answer:
D) 20^th century

Question 73.
…………….. is the process of rapid integration with the countries of the world.
A) Liberalisation
B) Globalisation
C) Privatisation
D) Technological Revolution
Answer:
B) Globalisation

Question 74.
Liberalisation was started in India in the year
A) 1971
B) 1991
C) 1981
D) 2001
Answer:
B) 1991

Question 75.
The aim of WTO is
A) Strict trade
B) Liberalise international trade
C) Providing education
D) None
Answer:
B) Liberalise international trade

Question 76.
This is not the type of movement within international economic exchanges.
A) Flow of trade in goods as well as services.
B) Flow of labour.
C) Movement of capital for short term or long term investments.
D) Movement for nationalisation.
Answer:
D) Movement for nationalisation.

Question 77.
Which are correct in the following
i. Flow of trade in goods and services is a type of movement within international ecomomic exchange.
ii. Ford Motors is a Japan company.
iii. Tax on imports is an example of trade barrier
A) i & ii
B) i & iii
G) ii & iii
D) i, ii, iii
Answer:
B) i & iii

Question 78.
Name the term which refers to globalisation which create opportunities for all and ensures that benefits are better shared
A) Fair globalisation
B) Fair nationalisation
C) Liberalisation
D) Best share
Answer:
A) Fair globalisation

Question 79.
This is NOT the feature of an MNC.
A) All these reduce the margin of profits for the MNC and yet, they organise production in different countries.
B) Spreading out its customer care services in a different country i.e., customer care is provided by another country.
C) Selling the products globally.
D) Organise production process into small parts and spread out across the globe.
Answer:
A) All these reduce the margin of profits for the MNC and yet, they organise production in different countries.

Question 80.
This is NOT the criteria for selecting a site for operation of MNC.
A) Proximity to the markets.
B) Areas which are highly sensitive.
C) Availability of skilled and unskilled labour at low costs.
D) Assured availability of other factors of production.
Answer:
B) Areas which are highly sensitive.

Question 81.
This is one of the methods in which MNCs control production.
A) Investing in the budget of the country.
B) Placing orders for production with small producers and selling it under their brand name.
C) Producing less than what people need to increase the cost.
D) Producing more and more goods to force people to buy more.
Answer:
B) Placing orders for production with small producers and selling it under their brand name.

Question 82.
Example for Indian Multinational Company is…………..
A) Tata Motors
B) Honda
C) Nokia
D) Pepsi
Answer:
A) Tata Motors

Question 83.
This is the main reason for a country to impose trade barriers.
A) Protection of consumer interest.
B) Protection of developed countries.
C) An article included in the Constitution stipulates such rules.
D) Protection of domestic producers.
Answer:
D) Protection of domestic producers.

Question 84.
After 1991, the government decided to expose Indian producers to the globe because
A) pressure from the producers.
B) to improve performance of producers.
C) Indian consumers demanded foreign goods.
D) better products production around the world.
Answer:
B) to improve performance of producers.

Question 85.
The following is one of the main allegation against WTO.
A) It adopts policies that are favourable to developing countries.
B) It allows trade barriers for developed countries but not for developing countries.
C) It allows trade barriers to exist in every country.
D) The entire trade is under its control.
Answer:
B) It allows trade barriers for developed countries but not for developing countries.

Question 86.
This is not the ill effect of Globalisation
A) Gradual dilution of nationalistic feeling.
B) Negligence of sortie languages there by causing their extinction.
C) Marginalisation of cultural practices.
D) Offering a wide range of products by the MNCs to the consumers thus widening choices.
Answer:
B) Negligence of sortie languages there by causing their extinction.

Question 87.
Result of Globalisation.
A) Getting profits for small producers.
B) Competition increases among countries
C) Reduced relation between countries.
D) Scarcity of goods.
Answer:
B) Competition increases among countries

Question 88.
Expand IT
A) International Technology
B) Information Techniques
C) International Techniques
D) Information Technology
Answer:
D) Information Technology

Question 89.
Indian consumers have a greater choice of goods now. This can be attributed to
A) Globalisation
B) Increased small producers
C) Trade barriers
D) Sustainable growth
Answer:
A) Globalisation

Question 90.
Cargill foods, a very large American MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as
A) Best foods
B) Gold foods
C) Fine foods
D) Parakh foods
Answer:
D) Parakh foods

Question 91.
From the following which statement is correct regarding globalisation ?
A) Technology is developing rapidly
B) Small scale tradesmen will get benefitted
C) Not suitable for the developed countries
D) All are correct
Answer:
A) Technology is developing rapidly

Question 92.
Which of the following has benefitted least because of globalization in India
A) Agriculture sector
B) Industry
C) Service sector
D) Secondary sector
Answer:
A) Agriculture sector

Question 93.
When was privatization adopted in
India
A) 1957
B) 1995
C) 1991
D) 1926
Answer:
C) 1991

Question 94.
Where did the Ford Motors set up their large plant ?
A) At Mumbai
B) AtKolkata
C) At Kanpur
D) At Chennai
Answer:
D) At Chennai

Question 95.
Why do MNCs make investments ?
A) To increase their assets
B) For their own benefits
C) For the benefit of the foreign country
D) For the welfare of the poor people
Answer:
A) To increase their assets

Question 96.
What steps the government has to take
to ensure that the benefits of globaliza-tion are shared better ?
A) To ensure the proper implementation of labour laws
B) To support small producers to improve their performance
C) Using the trade and investment barriers if necessary
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy with Answers

Question 1.
Water intensive crop among the following is …………………
A) Maize
B) Bajra
C) Sugarcane
D) Jo war
Answer:
C) Sugarcane

Question 2.
Example for physical or fixed capital is ……………………
A) Expenditure on wages.
B) Expenditure on raw materials.
C) Expenditure on machines.
D) Expenditure on marketing.
Answer:
C) Expenditure on machines.

Question 3.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is a/an ……………………
A) Health scheme
B) Education scheme .
C) Scheme that aimed for environmental protection
D) Scheme that guarantees minimum days of employment
Answer:
D) Scheme that guarantees minimum days of employment

Question 4.
Cows purchased in animal fair ……………………
A) Physical capital
B) Working capital
C) Bank loan
D) A and B
Answer:
A) Physical capital

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a noncommercial activity?
A) Maintenance of warehouses
B) Maintenances of shop
C) Outsourcing
D) Fishing
Answer:
B) Maintenances of shop

Question 6.
The following is not true with regard to agricultural labourers.
A) They can secure loan from bank easily
B) Disguised unemployment is prevalent there
C) They do not have regular employment
D) They are paid less wages
Answer:
A) They can secure loan from bank easily

Question 7.
The reason for small land holdings in our country.
A) More land is allocated for industries
B) Dependence of huge population on agriculture and law of inheritance
C) Vast area in our country is covered by mountains, plateaus
D) Reduction in cultivable land
Answer:
B) Dependence of huge population on agriculture and law of inheritance

Question 8.
Which refers to all human efforts in production, not just manual labour ?
A) Land
B) Capital
C) Organiser
D) Labour
Answer:
D) Labour

Question 9.
Generators, turbines, ploughs all these tools come under which type of capital?
A) Working
B) Fixed
C) Additional
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Fixed

Question 10.
The natural resource which is NOT essential for production is …………………………
A) Land
B) Water
C) Air
D) Forest
Answer:
C) Air

Question 11.
Farmers in Rampur are able to grow three different crops in a year due to ……………………..
A) good educational facilities
B) good training in farming
C) well – developed irrigation system
D) good co-operation by the villagers
Answer:
C) well – developed irrigation system

Question 12.
Which is the incorrect set ?
A) Labour-Human effort in production
B) Working capital – Raw material and money
C) Fertility of land increases by excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
D) Entrepreneurs – Produce for the market
Answer:
C) Fertility of land increases by excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

Question 13.
Which is the incorrect set about Rampur?
A) Most important activity in village – Farming
B) Crushing machine – Working capital
C) Most abundant factor of production – Labour
D) Common non-farm activity – Dairy
Answer:
B) Crushing machine – Working capital

Question 14.
Which is the physical capital for dairy Industry ?
A) Own shed in the village
B) Buffaloes purchased at the cattle fair
C) Family labour
D) Feed from the land and some medicines for the buffaloes
Answer:
B) Buffaloes purchased at the cattle fair

Question 15.
This scheme provides work to agricultural labour in rural areas when they don’t find agricultural work.
A) Pradhana Mantri Rozgar Yojana
B) Jawahar Employment Gaurantee Scheme
C) Rajiv Rural Works Programme
D) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
Answer:
D) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

Question 16.
Before the introduction of electricity the irrigation was carried on with:
A) Canals
B) Harvesting tanks
C) Persian wheels
D) Tanks
Answer:
C) Persian wheels

Question 17.
Cultivating more than one crop in same piece of land is …………………..
A) Cash Crops
B) Multiple cropping
C) Mixed farming
D) Modern farming
Answer:
B) Multiple cropping

Question 18.
What is the source of capital for the large farmers ?
A) Banks and money lenders
B) Money lenders and relatives
C) Banks and own savings
D) Poor farmers
Answer:
C) Banks and own savings

Question 19.
Which of the following is a fixed capital ?
A) Money
B) Raw material
C) Tools
D) Labour
Answer:
C) Tools

Question 20.
What is the main source of loan for the small farmers?
A) Rich farmers and Money lenders
B) Money lenders and Banks
C) Bank and their own savings
D) Rich farmers and Banks
Answer:
A) Rich farmers and Money lenders

Question 21.
The use of high yields with combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides etc refers to ………………..
A) Mixed cropping
B) Modern cropping
C) Multiple cropping
D) Mega cropping
Answer:
B) Modern cropping

Question 22.
Which of the following is a part of working capital ?
A) Raw material and land
B) Raw material and money in hand
C) Raw material and building
D) Money in hand and machinary
Answer:
B) Raw material and money in hand

Question 23.
Organic farming does not include …………………
A) Rely bn natural techniques such as crop rotation, compost and biological pest
B) The use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
C) The use of local resources including biological processes
D) Ecofriendly farming
Answer:
B) The use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides

Question 24.
The person who organises or combines all the factors of production is
A) Worker
B) Manager
C) Entrepreneur
D) Supervisor
Answer:
C) Entrepreneur

Question 25.
Which is not the consequence if environment loses its ability of “Source function’ and “Sink function”?
A) It affects the carrying capacity of the environment
B) Long – term damage to environment
C) Environment will support economic production and consumption
D) Pollution contaminates the resources
Answer:
C) Environment will support economic production and consumption

Question 26.
What percentage of people are dependent on the farming activity in Rampur ?
A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Answer:
B) 75%

★ Observe the following table and answer the questions from 27 to 30.
Daily Wages for different farm activities in Ándhra Pradesh in December 2011
(in Rupees)

Question 27.
For which work women are getting lowest wages?
A) Weeding
B) Winnowing
C) Harvesting
D) Threshing
Answer:
D) Threshing

Question 28.
For which work men are getting highest wages?
A) Ploughing
B) Weeding
C) Sowing
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Weeding

Question 29.
Which work is done only by women?
i) Ploughing
ii) Transplanting
iii) Threshing
iv) Picking cotton
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) ii and iv
D) iii and iv
Answer:
C) ii and iv

Question 30.
Based on the above table, which work is done only by men?
A) Transplanting
B) Winnowing
C) Ploughing
D) Harvesting
Answer:
C) Ploughing

Question 31.
Which of the following is a fixed capital?
A) Labour
B) Tools
C) Money
D) Raw Material
Answer:
B) Tools

Question 32.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
A) Land
B) Capital
C) Labour
D) Entrepreneur
Answer:
C) Labour

Question 33.
The standard unit of measuring land is …………………
A) Jole
B) Hectare
C) Kilowatt
D) Kilometer
Answer:
B) Hectare

Question 34.
Read the Statements.
i) Due to heavy competition for work among the farm labourers, people agree to work for lower wags.
ii) Relying on machines for farm activi-ties lead to higher wages for farm labourers.
A) i is right
B) ii is right
C) i & ii are right
D) i & ii wrong
Answer:
A) i is right

Question 35.
Which of the following is not true with reference to the Green Revolution?
A) It has raised the living standard of farmers all over India.
B) It was introduced in late 60’s.
C) It has lead to the loss of soil fertility.
D) It brought hybrid seeds into utilisation.
Answer:
A) It has raised the living standard of farmers all over India.

Question 36.
MGNREGA is being implemented from …………………
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2005
D) 2004
Answer:
C) 2005

Question 37.
Multiple cropping means growing
A) only two crops
B) more than one crop
C) up to four crops
D) only three crops
Answer:
B) more than one crop

Question 38.
A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as
A) small farmer
B) medium farmer
C) large farmer
D) advanced farmer
Answer:
A) small farmer

Question 39.
…………………. has provided some support to the incomes of rural workers.
A) MGNREGA
B) Mid-day meals
C) SSA
D) DWACRA
Answer:
A) MGNREGA

Question 40.
The correct set of matching :

Group – A	Group – B
1. Kharif crop	a) Land
2. Natural resource	b) Wheat
3. Rabi crop	c) Jowar

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 41.
The correct set of matching :

Group – A	Group – B
1. Persian wheel	a) Irrigation
2. Dairy	b) Non- agricultural activity
3. Tube wells	d) Rajasthan

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – c,2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – c,2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – c,2 – b, 3 – a

Question 42.
If production is 80 and consumption is 70, what will be the surplus?
A) 80
B) 30
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
C) 10

Question 43.
Which of the following is not a nonfarm production activity?
A) Sowing seeds
B) Small manufacturing
C) Dairy
D) Transport
Answer:
A) Sowing seeds

Question 44.
One hectare is equal to the area of how many square metres with one side?
A) 80
B) 90
C) 100
D) 60
Answer:
C) 100

Question 45.
The effect of tapping under ground water
A) under ground water tables have fallen rapidly
B) under ground water tables have increased more
C) under ground water got more nutrition
D) over use lead to accumulation of natural resources
Answer:
A) under ground water tables have fallen rapidly

Question 46.
What is HYV?
A) Half Yielding Varieties
B) Hope Yielding Varieties
C) Hard Yielding Varieties
D) High Yielding Varieties
Answer:
D) High Yielding Varieties

Question 47.
Consumption of chemical fertilizers is highest in which state of India?
A) Haryana
B) Punjab
C) Rajasthan
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
B) Punjab

Question 48.
What is the main activity in Rampur ?
A) Dairy
B) Transport
C) Farming
D) Manufacturing
Answer:
C) Farming

Question 49.
One of the following is not a coarse cereal.
A) Jowar
B) Ragi
C) Wheat
D) Bajra
Answer:
C) Wheat

Question 50.
The cause for decline of fertility of land is due to
A) using organic manures
B) excessive use of chemical fertilizers
C) raising more crops
D) over tilling
Answer:
B) excessive use of chemical fertilizers

Question 51.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about small scale manufacturing in villages ?
A) Farmers engage in it to supplement their income.
B) They take the help of their family members.
C) They produce articles for their own use.
D) Production is done mostly at home.
Answer:
C) They produce articles for their own use.

Question 52.
Physical capital includes
A) tools implements
B) tubewells
C) machines
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 53.
Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital ?
A) Entrepreneur
B) Money lender
C) Zamindar
D) Manager
Answer:
A) Entrepreneur

Question 54.
Minimum support price is decided by
A) Government
B) Farmers
C) Mediators
D) Traders
Answer:
A) Government

Question 55.
Mineral resources and favourable climatic conditions comes under this type of investment.
A) Private Investment
B) Synthetic Investment
C) Natural Investment
D) Public Investment
Answer:
C) Natural Investment

★ Looking at the given map, answer the following question.
Question 56.
In India map, the marked state is

A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bihar
Answer:
C) Uttar Pradesh

Question 57.
The agricultural labourers work for lower wages because
A) illiteracy
B) lack of skills in other works
C) landless situation
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 58.
What do you think of the land distribution in our country ?
i) Land is equally distributed
ii) Land is not equally distributed
A) Only ‘i’ is true
B) Both ‘i’ & ’ii’ are false
C) Both ‘i1 & ‘ii’ are true
D) Only ‘ii’ is true
Answer:
D) Only ‘ii’ is true

Question 59.
The capital which is used for production is known as …………………….
A) Physical
B) Fixed
C) Working
D) None
Answer:
C) Working

Question 60.
The basic constraint in raising farm production
A) Capital is scarce
B) Lack of labourers
C) Land is fixed
D) Lack of capital
Answer:
A) Capital is scarce

Question 61.
This not a factor of production.
A) Land
B) Labour
C) Entrepreneur
D) Distribution
Answer:
D) Distribution

Question 62.
What one of the following is an economic activity ?
A) Work of a nurse at her home
B) Work of a doctor at home
C) Work of a teacher in the school
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Work of a teacher in the school

Question 63.
Which of the following activities are carried on at limited scale in Rampur
A) Farming
B) Small scale manufacturing
C) Dairy and Transport
D) Only B and C
Answer:
D) Only B and C

Question 64.
Which factor of production is most abundant in Rampur village ?
A) Land
B) Capital
C) Labour
D) None pf them
Answer:
C) Labour

Question 65.
How many families in Rampur live in small houses ?
A) 200
B) 150
C) 100
D) 125
Answer:
B) 150

Question 66.
Which one of the following does not come under modem farming methods
A) Use of chemical fertilisers
B) Use of person wheel for irrigation
C) Use of HYV seeds
D) Use of tractors
Answer:
B) Use of person wheel for irrigation

Question 67.
Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation at Rampur ?
A) Tube wells
B) Persian wheels
C) Rain water harvesting
D) Multi purpose project
Answer:
A) Tube wells

Question 68.
Green Revolution is related to
A) Milk production
B) Grain production
C) Fishing
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Grain production

Question 69.
Where from do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital ?
A) Banks
B) Cooperative societies
C) Village money lenders
D) Friends and relatives
Answer:
C) Village money lenders

Question 70.
Which of the following economic activities is most labour absorbing
A) Industry
B) Biotechnology
C) Agriculture
D) Mining
Answer:
C) Agriculture

Question 71.
Rampur is located in ……………… of Gangetic basin
A) Flood plains
B) Alluvial plains
C) Coastal plains
D) Mountaineous region
Answer:
B) Alluvial plains

Question 72.
In October – December ……………….. is cultivated in Rampur as third crop
A) Potato
B) Wheat
C) Jowar
D) Bajra
Answer:
B) Wheat

Question 73.
Minimum wages for labourers are fixed by ………………….
A) Farmers
B) Employees
C) Government
D) Farmers Association
Answer:
C) Government

Question 74.
……………… % of the people working in Rampur are engaged in non-farm activities
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 75.
All human efforts put in production is …………………
A) rent
B) entreprenureship
C) capital
D) labour
Answer:
D) labour

Question 76.
One hectare is
A) 100 sq.m
B) 1000 sq.m
C) 10 sq.m
D) 10000 sq.m
Answer:
D) 10000 sq.m

Question 77.
Of the follwoing which is true
A) Labour is a scarce factory of production
B) Non – farm sector in the villages is very large.
C) The small farmers constitute less percentage of total farmers in India
D) In raising’ production, a great pressure is put on land and natujral resources
Answer:
D) In raising production, a great pressure is put on land and natujral resources

Question 78.
…………….. transformed the system of agriculture in Rampur
A) Persian wheals
B) Cattle farming
C) Electricity
D) Wells
Answer:
C) Electricity

Question 79.
Which of the following is not fixed capital?
A) Agriculture land
B) Tube well
C) Fertilizers and pesticides
D) Farm machinery
Answer:
C) Fertilizers and pesticides

Question 80.
The advantages for medium and large farmers
i) They have their own saving form farming
ii) They use mechanisation in farm activities
A) i only correct
B) ii only correct
C) i & ii are correct
D) i & ii are wrong
Answer:
C) i & ii are correct

Question 81.
Of the following which is not correct
A) Kharif is called rainy season
B) Jo war and Bajra are grown in rainy season
C) Rabi is called rainy season is wrong
D) Duing Rabi, wheat is sown
Answer:
C) Rabi is called rainy season is wrong

Question 82.
Of the following which is not true
A) Land is fixed and scarce
B) Multiple cropping helps in increasing
C) Fertility of land production increased with over use of chemical fertilisers
D) Because of small size of the plots, the production not more
Answer:
C) Fertility of land production increased with over use of chemical fertilisers

Question 83.
Two major factors of production are
A) Land and capital
B) Labour and Land
C) Capital and Labour
D) Land and Technology
Answer:
B) Labour and Land

Question 84.
Which capital is needed to set up a Jaggery manufacturing unit ?
A) Fixed
B) Recurring
C) Working
D) None
Answer:
A) Fixed

Question 85.
Along with …………….. and Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh forms a contiguous belt of agricultural prosperous region
A) Punjab
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Chhattisgarh
D) Assom
Answer:
A) Punjab

Question 86.
Apart from the riverine plans, ……………… in our country are well irrigated
A) Telangana
B) Coastal regions
C) Deccan Plateau
D) Rayalaseema
Answer:
B) Coastal regions

Question 87.
While intensive use of natural resources like land and water has led to increased production and yields, the use of the ………………. has not always been judicious.
A) artificial resources
B) land
C) natural resources
D) capital
Answer:
C) natural resources

Question 88.
All ……………… farmers in Rampur village have tractors
A) Small
B) Middle class
C) Large
D) Marginal
Answer:
C) Large

Question 89.
Who is small farmer ?
A) A farmer having less than 5 hectares of land
B) A farmer having more than 2 hectares of land
C) A farmer having less than 2 hectares of land
D) A farmer having more than 10 hectares of land
Answer:
C) A farmer having less than 2 hectares of land

Question 90.
These are grown as cattle feed
A) Wheat
B) Jowar and Bajra
C) Potato
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
B) Jowar and Bajra

Question 91.
Fertility of land is not declining due to
A) Over use of natural resources
B) Excessive use of chemical fertilisers
C) Excessive use of pesticides
D) Tapping of underground water
Answer:
D) Tapping of underground water

Question 92.
Which are not used up or consumed immediately in production process
A) Raw materials and money
B) Tools, machines, buildings
C) Labour
D) Money only
Answer:
A) Raw materials and money

Question 93.
Which is NOT the feature of landless farm labourers in villages in India ?
A) He works on daily wages
B) He must regularly look for work
C) There is heavy competition for work among the farm labourers
D) They get the work in all months of the vear
Answer:
D) They get the work in all months of the vear

Question 94.
Farmers in Rampur are able to grow three different crops in a year due to the well – developed – system
A) administration
B) irrigation
C) protection
D) none
Answer:
B) irrigation

Question 95.
A few of the families whose houses are close to the bus stand have used a part of the space to open
A) large shops
B) markets
C) small shops
D) market yards
Answer:
C) small shops

Question 96.
Dala’s wages are less than what the Uttar Pradesh government set a minimum wage for a labourer. The reasons is
A) Heavy competition for work among the farm labourers.
B) No awareness about the minimum wages
C) No agriculture in U.P ‘
D) Less mechanisation in rural areas by large farmers
Answer:
A) Heavy competition for work among the farm labourers.

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 People and Migration on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson People and Migration with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a popular state in India that produces sugar
A) Jammu & Kashmir
B) Sikkim
C) Maharastra
D) Rajasthan
Answer:
C) Maharastra

Question 2.
Identify the International migration
1. India to Saudi Arabia to work as drivers
2. Teachers coming from China to India to teach Chinese
3. Migration of Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.
A) 1 & 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 Only
D) 3 only
Answer:
A) 1 & 2 only

Question 3.
Which is not related to Rural to Urban migrants in India ?
i) take up new jobs and acquire new skills
ii) Less discrimination based on caste and gender
iii) Basic facilities such as drinking water and sanitation
iv) Find the job in organised sector.
Which is the correct set ?
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) i, iv
Answer:
C) iii, iv

Question 4.
Your suggestion for reducing the rural migration
A) Increase the working days provided by MGNREGA
B) Establishing factories in rural areas
C) Encouraging agriculture and its allied sectors
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
In Maharashtra, the seven districts,
Nasik, Ahmednagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur are all together known as
A) Sweet house
B) Sugar belt
C) Jaggery belt
D) Ginger belt
Answer:
B) Sugar belt

Question 6.
Among the issues which are not related to migrants in India?
A) They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions
B) They are not able to access proper health facilities
C) They will get foodgrains from fair price shops with low cost
D) Children accompanying their parents remain as dropouts
Answer:
C) They will get foodgrains from fair price shops with low cost

Question 7.
Match the following:
1. Kopi a) 50 – 100 Kopis
2. Gadi b) 200 – 500 Kopis
3. Tyre centre c) Conical hut
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 8.
Which of the following could be considered seasonal migration ?
A) Women moving from their parent’s house to husband’s house due to marriage
B) Women from Nalgonda district come to work’ as domestic maids in Hyderabad
C) Turmeric harvesters moving from one district to another district in Tamil Nadu for three months in a year.
D) Cycle rickshaw pullers in Delhi coming from rural parts of Bihar to settle here
Answer:
C) Turmeric harvesters moving from one district to another district in Tamil Nadu for three months in a year.

Question 9.
Among the following places, which does not come under “Sugar belt” of Maharashtra ?
A) Satara
B) Nasik
C) Belgaum
D) Sholapur
Answer:
C) Belgaum

Question 10.
Which of the following are the reasons for urbanisation in India?
A) Natural increase
B) Declaration of rural areas as urban areas
C) Migration of people from rural to urban areas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 11.
Which of the following comes under internal migration ?
1) People going from India to Saudi Arabia to work as technicians
2) Agricultural labourers going from Bihar to Punjab.
3) Teachers coming from China to India to teach Chinese to Indian children
4) Brick workers going from Odisha to Andhra Pradesh.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3 and 4
Answer:
C) 2 and 4

Question 12.
Which of the following is correct relating to migration?
A) Employment is the main reason for migration of females.
B) Males migrate due to marriage.
C) All the migrants from rural to urban would get jobs in organised sector.
D) Most migrants move only for short distance.
Answer:
D) Most migrants move only for short distance.

Question 13.
The states in India which are very much Hr : benefitted by the remittances sent by
the non – residents are ………………..
A) A.P – Tamilnadu
B) Kerala and Punjab
C) Maharashtra and Goa
D) Jharkhand – Bihar
Answer:
B) Kerala and Punjab

Question 14.
It is not the cause for migration
A) Supporting the family
B) For luxurious life
C) For better jobs
D) For higher education
Answer:
B) For luxurious life

Question 15.
During the last few decades which countries are the major destination for most of the Indian workers to West Asia?
A) Saudi Arabia
B) UAE
C) Singapore
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 16.
Which state in India has 2^nd largest number of NRI’s (Non – Residential Indians) ?
A) Kerala
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Punjab

Question 17.
Koina Dam is in ………………..
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Manipur
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
D) Maharashtra

Question 18.
Identify organised sector.
A) Police Officer
B) Construction workers
C) Hawkers
D) Painter
A) Police Officer

Question 19.
The skilled migrants among the following are …………………….
A) IT professionals
B) Doctors
C) A & B
D) Lawyers
Answer:
C) A & B

Question 20.
When schools in native places of migrant workers refuse to take them again when they come back – they become …………………
A) Failure
B) Passout
C) Regular to school
D) Dropouts
Answer:
D) Dropouts

Question 21.
Who retain a part of earnings of migrants apart from payments they receive from employers ?
A) Businessman
B) Migrant worker
C) Contractor
D) Engineer
Answer:
C) Contractor

Question 22.
Migrant labourers who work in sugarcane plantations in Maharashtra are mostly ………………. workers.
A) Contract
B) Regular
C) Seasonal
D) B and C
Answer:
C) Seasonal

Question 23.
The factors responsible for migration of tribal people from their native place are …………………..
A) Construction of dams
B) Intrusion of outsider
C) Mining
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
How do you decide the nativity of a person ?
A) Depending on the birth places of parents
B) Depending on the birth place
C) The region in which one resides most of one’s life
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
Which of the following statements are true ?
i) The main reason for migration women – marriage.
ii) Migration in male – employment opportunities.
A) Only i is true
B) i and ii are false
C) Only ii is true
D) Both i and ii are true
Answer:
D) Both i and ii are true

Question 26.
When did India introduce Emigration Act ?
A) 1981
B) 1983
C) 1982
D) 1984
Answer:
B) 1983

Question 27.
Kopis means
A) Concrete buildings built for migrants
B) Permanent shelters of the migrants
C) Both A and B
D) Temporary shelters of the migrants
Answer:
D) Temporary shelters of the migrants

Question 28.
Internal migrations are mostly
A) among villages
B) among continents
C) among countries
D) among states
Answer:
D) among states

Question 29.
Which of the following statements are true ?
i) Technically skilled and professional expertise migrate to organised sector.
ii) Unskilled and semi skilled labourers migrate to unorganised sector.
A) Only i is correct
B) Only ii is correct
C) i, ii are correct
D) Only i is false
Answer:
C) i, ii are correct

Question 30.
The male migrant labourers working in Assom tea plantations belong to this tribe
A) Munda
B) Saora
C) Koya
D) Yerulea
Answer:
B) Saora

Question 31
………………… means money sent by migrants from their destination
A) Accountant
B) Reporter
C) Remittances
D) Orator
Answer:
C) Remittances

Question 32.
Sugarcane cutting is a …………………… migration.
A) permanent
B) international
C) seasonal and internal
D) none of these
Answer:
C) seasonal and internal

Question 33.
According to national census surveys, every ………………. person in India is a migrant.
A) fifth
B) fourth
C) third
D) second
Answer:
B) fourth

Question 34.
Rural seasonal migrants work in ……………….
A) agriculture
B) industry
C) services
D) organised
Answer:
B) industry

Question 35.
People migrate due to
A) marriage
B) in expectation of higher income
C) insufficient employment opportunities in rural areas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
The following criteria are used to identify a person as migrant
A) Assets
B) Residence of last six months
C) Birth place
D) Liabilities
Answer:
C) Birth place

Question 37.
Which is the reason for seasonal migration as per the National Commission of Rural Labour (NCRL) ?
A) construction of dams
B) uneven development and regional disparity
C) construction of parks
D) development of agricultural sectors in the native villages
Answer:
B) uneven development and regional disparity

Question 38.
Assertion I- Urban to Urban migration is more than rural to urban migration.
Assertion II – Rural to urban migration is not properly recorded as it is much of seasonal.
A) Assertion II is correct
B) Assertion I is correct
C) Both I and II are wrong
D) Both I and II are correct
Answer:
A) Assertion II is correct

Question 39.
1. Assertion I – Remittances increase GDP.
2. Assertion II – Remittances affect GDP.
A) Both I and II are wrong
B) Assertion II is correct
C) Assertion I is correct
D) Both 1 and II are correct
Answer:
C) Assertion I is correct

Question 40.
The most common reason for migration among women is …………………
A) Education
B) Employment
C) Marriage
D) Business
Answer:
C) Marriage

Question 41.
Which is not the reason for growth in urbanisation ?
A) Growth of facilities
B) Migration due to education and employment
C) Modern culture
D) Declaration of rural areas as urban areas
Answer:
C) Modern culture

Question 42.
Which is not enj oyed by Rural to Urban migrants in India ?
i) Take up new jobs and acquire new skills
ii) Less discrimination based on caste and gender
iii) Basic facilities such as drinking water and sanitation
iv) Find the job in organised sector
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) i, iv
Answer:
C) iii, iv

Question 43.
The criteria used by the census, to identify a person as a migrant
A) Birthplace
B) Last usual place of residence
C) A only
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 44.
Which is not the correct set ?
A) Males from Saora tribals – Assom plantations
B) Munda and Santhal men – mining sites in Odisha
C) Maharashtra – rice producing belt
D) Women from Kerala-fish processing of Maharashtra
Answer:
C) Maharashtra – rice producing belt

Question 45.
Which is not the example of international migration ?
A) People going from India to Saudi Arabia to work as technicians
B) Construction workers going from India to Mauritius
C) Brick workers going from Odisha to Andhra Pradesh
D) Teachers coming from China to India
Answer:
C) Brick workers going from Odisha to Andhra Pradesh

Question 46.
Give a right example for internal migration
A) Farmers going from Karnataka to Africa to work in plantations.
B) Teachers coming from China to India . to teach Chinese to Indian children.
C) Brick workers going from Odisha’to Andhra-Pradesh.
D) People going from India to Saudi Arabia to work as technicians.
Answer:
C) Brick workers going from Odisha’to Andhra-Pradesh.

Question 47.
What is the pattern of migration, if Johnson, an NRI moved to New Delhi from Pitsburg ?
A) Urban Migration
B) Rural Migration
C) National Migration
D) International Migration
Answer:
D) International Migration

Question 48.
Migrant labourers are suffering from
A) Insufficient work
B) Improper work contracts
C) Irregular payment of wages
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 49.
The migration of Sushma from Chennai to New York is
A) Urban to urban migration
B) Urban to rural migration
C) Rural to urban migration
D) International migration
Answer:
D) International migration

Question 50.
Which is not true regarding rural to urban migration in India ?
A) People take up new jobs and acquire new skills in urban areas.
B) There is no job security to these people in urban areas
C) People do not depend upon job searching mechanisms in urban areas
D) Migration does not necessarily involve movement of all members of the family
Answer:
C) People do not depend upon job searching mechanisms in urban areas

Question 51.
Choose the correct set of matching:

1. Richshaw Puller	a) Rural – Urban migration
2. Seasonal Migration.	b) Unorganised sector
3. Magaithuru – Delhi	c) Stay less than 6 months

A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – a,2 – b,3 – c
D) 1 – c,2 – a,3 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 52.
Choose the correct set of matching:

1. Remittances are high	a) Kerala
2. The Emigration Act	b) Sugar
3. Maharashtra	c) 1983

A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b

Question 53.
The main reason for the migration of people is ……………….
A) faction politics exists in villages
B) employment opportunities are less in villages
C) no problem exists to resist in towns
D) all of these
Answer:
B) employment opportunities are less in villages

Question 54.
The number of workers migrate from India to West Asia per year is ………………………….
A) 3 lakhs
B) 2 lakhs
C) 5 lakhs
D) 4 lakhs
Answer:
A) 3 lakhs

★ Read the para and answer the questions.
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price at their work places. As they live in harsh circumstances and in un-hygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
Question 55.
A suggestive measure to be followed by employers to protect the migrant labourers from diseases.
A) Providing education
B) Employing healthy workers
C) Providing healthy food
D) Providing safety measures
Answer:
D) Providing safety measures

Question 56.
Migrant labourers face problems like
A) Skin irritation
B) Stilt strokes
C) Lung diseases
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 57.
The graph depicts the social back ground of short term migrants in India in 2007-2008.

Whose share is more in the migration ?
A) SC
B) ST
C) OBC
D) Other than SC, ST, OBC
Answer:
C) OBC

Question 58.
From the table calculate the number of migrants from other states

Category	Number of persons (Millions)
1. Total population 2. Total migrants 3. Migrants within state 4. Migrants from other states 5. Migrants from other country	1028 307 258 ? 6

A) 43 million
B) 457 million
C) 252 million
D) 49 million
Answer:
B) 457 million

Question 59.
During 1991-2001 there were 67 million people added in the urban population, 40 million were added due to natural growth. Calculate the percentage of population due to natural growth.
A) 4%
B) 60%
C) 21%
D) 19%
Answer:
B) 60%

Question 60.
Calculate the percentage of migrants that are from the same state .

Category of Migrants	%
1. Migrants within the state 2. Migrants from other states 3. Migrants from other countries	? 13.8 2.0

A) 258
B) 15.8
C) 84.2
D) 100
Answer:
C) 84.2

Question 61.
Look at the map and answer the questions from 61 – 63.

Which of the following state has low GDP ?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Jammu Kashmir
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Question 62.
More number of out migrants are recorded from which of the two states ?
A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
C) Bihar and Andhra Pradesh
D) Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh

Question 63.
Which state has recorded more in migrants ?
A) Bihar
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Delhi
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
C) Delhi

Look at the given map answer the questions from 64 – 66.

Question 64.
In the given map, which state produces sugar more ?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 2

Question 65.
The place shown with dot mark
A) Bangalore
B) Delhi
C) Chennai
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
B) Delhi

Question 66.
In which South Indian states, migration takes place ?
A) 1 & 5
B) 2 & 4
C) 1 & 3
D) 2 & 3
Answer:
A) 1 & 5

Question 67.
A suggestion to prevent rural to urban migration
A) Encouraging agriculture
B) Increasing irrigational facilities
C) providing seeds at subsidy rates
D) All of those
Answer:
D) All of those

Question 68.
How can the government educate the migrated children ?
i) By denying admissions whenever they want
ii) By allowing admissions throughout year
A) Only ‘i’ is true
B) Both ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are true
C) Only ‘ii’ is true
D) Both ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are false
Answer:
C) Only ‘ii’ is true

Question 69.
The total migrants in India, according to census 2001
A) 1028 millions
B) 307 millions
C) 258 millions
D) 140 millions
Answer:
B) 307 millions

Question 70.
Most urban migrants work as
A) professionals
B) teachers
C) officers
D) technicians
Answer:
A) professionals

Question 71.
Maharashtra has a total of ………………. cooperative suger factories.
A) 70
B) 186
C) 185
D) 75
Answer:
B) 186

Question 72.
Gadi centres have …………………. kopis.
A) 50 – 100
B) 100 – 200
C) 200 – 500
D) 500 – 1000
Answer:
A) 50 – 100

Question 73.
Tyre centre settlements have ………………. kopis.
A) 2000 – 5000
B) 200 – 500
C) 200 – 300
D) 500 – 600
Answer:
B) 200 – 500

Question 74.
Women from ………………. state migrate to Maharashtra to work in fish processing
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Tamilnadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
A) Kerala

Question 75.
The total international migrants in the world as per UNDP are
A) 70 million
B) 140 million
C) 200 million
D) 250 million
Answer:
C) 200 million

Question 76.
A state which improved considerably with remittances
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Karnataka
C) Tamilnadu
D) Kerala
Answer:
D) Kerala

Question 77.
Many unskilled labourers migrate from India to
A) Canada
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 78.
This district does not include in sugar belt
A) Surat
B) Pune
C) Belgaum
D) Beed
Answer:
D) Beed

Question 79.
During 2001 – 2011 there were ……………….. million people added to urban population
A) 91
B) 40
C) 29
D) 22
Answer:
A) 91

Question 80.
Estimated major Inter – state migration streams in 2001 – 2011 in South India is found between ……………………
A) Kerala – Tamilnadu
B) UP – MP
C) Delhi – Haryana
D) AP – Tamilnadu
Answer:
A) Kerala – Tamilnadu

Question 81.
Which is NOT the reason for rural to urban migration in India ?
A) Insufficient employment in rural areas
B) In adequate income availability in rural areas
C) Better higher education facilities in rural areas
D) To work in industry and other service activity in urban areas
Answer:
C) Better higher education facilities in rural areas

Question 82.
Which is NOT true regarding rural to urban migration in India ?
A) People take up new jobs and acquire new skills in urban areas
B) There is no job security to these people in urban areas
C) Migration does not necessary involve movement of all members of the family
D) People do not depend upon job searching mechanisms in urban areas
Answer:
D) People do not depend upon job searching mechanisms in urban areas

Question 83.
Which is NOT related to the seasonal and temporary migration in India ?
A) Distress caused in rural areas
B) Some of the seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their natural place.
C) A large section of such migrants are from urban areas
D) Males from Soara tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assom plantations
Answer:
A) Distress caused in rural areas

Question 84.
Among the issues which are NOT related to migrants in India ?
A) They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions
B) They are not able to access proper health facilities
C) Children accompanying their parents remain as dropouts
D) They will get food grains from fair price shops with low cost
Answer:
D) They will get food grains from fair price shops with low cost

Question 85.
The number of international migrants in the world are ……………………
A) 200 million
B) 70 million
C) 250 million
D) 125 million
Answer:
A) 200 million

Question 86.
Most of the unskilled and semi – skilled workers are migrating to
A) Oil exporting countries of West Asia
B) Well developed countries
C) South – East Asian countries
D) South – American countries
Answer:
A) Oil exporting countries of West Asia

Question 87.
Large scale net urban to urban inter state migration is found between
A) Uttar Pradesh to Delhi
B) Tamilnadu to Kerala
C) Andhra Pradesh to Karnataka
D) Uttar Prddesh – Maharashtra
Answer:
A) Uttar Pradesh to Delhi

Question 88.
As per the census survey, a person who stayed continuously in a particular place for a period of ……………………… or more is called as a migrant.
A) 1 year
B) 6 months
C) 3 months
D) 11/2 years
Answer:
B) 6 months

Question 89.
During harvest season, the rice producing belt of West Bengal attract tribals and other low castes move to …………………. district.
A) Hooghly
B) Bardhaman
C) Murshidabad
D) Nadia
Answer:
B) Bardhaman

Question 90.
Which are crucial for getting urban jobs?
A) Illiteracy and poverty
B) Contacts and networks
C) Backwardness
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Contacts and networks

Question 91.
During 1961 – 71, population living in urban areas increased by ………………..
A) 6 million
B) 30 million
C) 31 million
D) 50 million
Answer:
B) 30 million

Question 92.
Migrants wanted to retain the economic ties in rural areas because
A) it is decided by the family
B) to safe guard their rights over land and homestead
C) generating additional incomes for the rural family
D) they continue to live in their destination
Answer:
B) to safe guard their rights over land and homestead

Question 93.
Which is not the correct set ?
A) Males from Saora tribals – Assom plantations
B) Munda and Santhal men – mining sites in Odisha
C) Women from Kerala-fish processing of Maharashtra
D) Maharashtra – rice producing belt
Answer:
D) Maharashtra – rice producing belt

Question 94.
The larger increase in the urban population is due to
A) declaration of rural areas and expansion of urban areas
B) natural increase in urban areas
C) migration of people from rural, to urban areas
D) development of skills and training
Answer:
C) migration of people from rural, to urban areas

Question 95.
Out of the 307 million migrants, the percentage of migrants move from one part of the state to another part of the same state was …………………….
A) 13%
B) 84. 2%
C) 15%
D) 70. 8%
Answer:
B) 84. 2%

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 People and Settlement on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson People and Settlement with Answers

Question 1.
The following is not an Indian Aerotropolis ……………….
A) Suvamabhoomi International Airport
B) Indira Gandhi International Airport
C) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
D) Bangalore International Airport
Answer:
A) Suvamabhoomi International Airport

Question 2.
Which of the following is a megacity?
A) Mumbai
B) Kolkata
C) Delhi
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Mumbai

Question 3.
What type pf settlement is Hyderabad ?
A) Metropolitan city
B) Revenue village
C) Mega city
D) Class 1 city
Answer:
A) Metropolitan city

Question 4.
Which is the right pair?
A) Mega city – having more than 10 million people.
B) Metropolitan city – having 5 lakhs to 1 million people.
C) Class I city – having 2 lakhs to 5 lakhs people.
D) Town – having 1 lakh to 2 lakhs people.
Answer:
A) Mega city – having more than 10 million people.

Question 5.
Juggi Jhopdi means
A) Hut
B) Slum area
C) Pakka house
D) Industrial area
Answer:
B) Slum area

Question 6.
The method of staying at one place without moving is known as
A) Sedentary
B) Nomadic
C) Migration
D) Hunting and gathering
Answer:
A) Sedentary

Question 7.
The people who are entering into city from outer place are known as
A) Emigrants
B) Authorised people
C) Unauthorised people
D) Immigrants
Answer:
D) Immigrants

Question 8.
The places where maximum number of people engaged in non agricultural work are called ………………… areas.
A) Urban
B) Rural
C) Village
D) PHC
Answer:
A) Urban

Question 9.
Which describes the connections with other places?
A) Situation
B) Agglomeration
C) Migration
D) Site
Answer:
A) Situation

Question 10.
Vijayawada is an example of ………………
A) Town
B) Mega city
C) City / Class 1 city
D) Metropolitan city
Answer:
C) City / Class 1 city

Question 11.
Hyderabad population is 78 lakhs. What type of settlement is it?
A) Mega city
B) Metropolitan
C) Mega town
D) Class -I city
Answer:
B) Metropolitan

Question 12.
Chennai, Ahmadabad, Hyderabad, Kumool. Arrange these cities in order from high to low population
A) Chennai, Hyderabad, Ahmadabad, Kurnool
B) Ahmadabad, Kurnool, Chennai, Hyderabad
C) Kurnool, Ahmadabad, Hyderabad, Chennai
D) Hyderabad, Chennai, Kurnool, Ahmadabad
Answer:
A) Chennai, Hyderabad, Ahmadabad, Kurnool

Question 13.
Among the following which are the problems of urbanisation?
A) Air pollution
B) Food crisis
C) Water scarcity
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
Which of the following is correctrelating for the eviction of people from illegal settlements from Delhi ?
A) Metropolitan, towns, villages, cities
B) Hamlet, Mega cities’, Metropolitan cities
C) Census village, Mega cities, cities, towns
D) Mega cities, Metropolitan cities, cities, towns
Answer:
D) Mega cities, Metropolitan cities, cities, towns

Question 15.
Which of the following is correct statement ?
I. Settlements started with the practice of agriculture
II. When settlements become larger, they become more complex.
A) Only I is true
B) Only II is true
C) Both I and II are not true
D) Both I and II are true
Answer:
D) Both I and II are true

Question 16.
The urban areas having population between 5000 to 1 lakh are known as
A) Class 1 city
B) Town
C) Metropolitan city
D) Revenue village
Answer:
B) Town

Question 17.
The international airport present in New Delhi is ……………………
A) Indira Gandhi International Airport
B) Jawaharlal Nehru International Airport
C) Rahul Gandhi International Airport
D) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi International Airport

Question 18.
Which type of migration is mainly responsible for urbanisation in India ?
A) Rural – Urban
B) Urban – Rural
C) Urban – Urban
D) Rural – Rural
Answer:
A) Rural – Urban

Question 19.
The place in which settlements are centered around large airports are known as
A) Agglomeration
B) Aerotropolis
C) Urbanisation
D) Metropolis
Answer:
B) Aerotropolis

Question 20.
Early humans were called hunter – gatherers because …………………
A) They hunted the animals for food
B) They created food
C) They hunted animals and gathered food
D) They cultivated the food
Answer:
C) They hunted animals and gathered food

Question 21.
Which is not correct of the following ?
A) Early humans are nomadic
B) In India 350 million people live in cities and towns
C) Hyderabad is a metropolitan city
D) Chennai is a mega city
Answer:
D) Chennai is a mega city

Question 22.
These result in intermarriages among the people from different villages ……………….
A) village fairs
B) festivals
C) migration
D) picnics
Answer:
A) village fairs

Question 23.
People are settling down in cities and , towns after migration from villages and they are taking up non- agricultural work. This is called ………………..
A) ruralisation
B) urbanisation
C) migration
D) civilisation
Answer:
B) urbanisation

Question 24.
To understand settlement, we need to look at these basic concepts.
A) site
B) The history of the place.
C) Situation
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
Suvarnabhoomi International Airport is in ……………………..
A) Burma
B) Thailand
C) Bhutan
D) Nepal
Answer:
B) Thailand

Question 26.
The aerotropolis in Bangkok of Thailand is known as ………………..
A) Suyarna Bhoomi International Airport
B) Dubai International Airport
C) Cairo International Airport
D) London Heathrow Airport
Answer:
A) Suyarna Bhoomi International Airport

Question 27.
In India, cities having population between one million to ten million are ………………
A) Metropolitan cities
B) Mega cities
C) Hamlets
D) Class I cities
Answer:
A) Metropolitan cities

Question 28.
Urban areas having population between one lakh to one million are called as …………………
A) Class I cities
B) Towns
C) Metropolitan cities
D) Mega cities
Answer:
A) Class I cities

Question 29.
Which of the following is not a metropolitan city ?
A) Chennai
B) Hyderabad
C) Ahmedabad
D) Tirupati
Answer:
D) Tirupati

Question 30.
Designated slum areas are
A) Rural villages in Delhi
B) Areas which are not regularised
C) Areas accepted by local authorities as valid settlements
D) Planned colonies in Delhi
Answer:
C) Areas accepted by local authorities as valid settlements

Question 31.
Among the following, which is a feature of situation of a place ?
A) It is on the main railway line
B) Soil type is clay
C) Rainfall is heavy
D) It has gently sloping land.
Answer:
A) It is on the main railway line

Question 32.
Which is not the reason for the forma-tion of slum areas in a city ?
A) Uncontrolled growth of population in a city
B) Migration of people into the city who are mostly working in organised sector
C) People occupy new location without necessary permission
D) Most of the settlements in a city may not receive proper public amenities
Answer:
B) Migration of people into the city who are mostly working in organised sector

Question 33.
Which is the feature of situation of a place ?
A) Soil type is clay
B) Rainfall is heavy
C) It has many agricultural fields
D) Its main market is 45 kms by road from the coast
Answer:
D) Its main market is 45 kms by road from the coast

Question 34.
Altitude of a place is referred to this feature
A) site
B) situation
C) development
D) history
Answer:
A) site

Question 35.
The population of class I cities vary between
A) 1 lakh – 1 million
B) 1 lakh – 5 lakhs
C) 1 million -1 crore
D) 10 million and above
Answer:
A) 1 lakh – 1 million

Question 36.
Basic concepts useful in understanding establishment of settlements do not include
A) Site
B) Economic nature
C) Situation
D) History of the place
Answer:
B) Economic nature

Question 37.
What do we call the areas which are not accepted as legal settlement?
A) Slums
B) Juggi Jhopdi
C) Unauthorised colonies
D) Unplanned colonies
Answer:
B) Juggi Jhopdi

Question 38.
Most of the population increases in cities and towns due to
A) development of basic infrastructural facilities.
B) inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns
C) rural to urban migration
D) natural growth within the urban areas
Answer:
D) natural growth within the urban areas

Question 39.
Situation describes
A) History of the place
B) Characteristics of the place
C) Connections with other places
D) Shows the topography of the city
Answer:
C) Connections with other places

Question 40.
Altitude, topography, security refers to which features of a place ?
A) Situation
B) Site
C) History
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Site

Question 41.
Largest populous city in India …………………..
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkata
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Mumbai

Question 42.
The second biggest city in India is ……………………
A) Punjab
B) Mumbai
C) Delhi
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Delhi

Question 43.
Mumbai city is called …………….
A) Megacity
B) Town
C) Metropolitan city
D) Municipality
Answer:
A) Megacity

Question 44.
The most populous country in the world
A) India
B) America
C) China
D) Russia
Answer:
C) China

Question 45.
Kopis means ………………….
A) Permanent shelters of the migrants
B) Temporary shelters of the migrants
C) Both A & B
D) Concrete buildings built for migrants
Answer:
B) Temporary shelters of the migrants

Question 46.
The following is not an International Airport ……………………
A) Bangalore
B) Delhi
C) Ahmedabad
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
C) Ahmedabad

Question 47.
The present population of Simla town is ………………
A) 2 lakhs
B) 5 lakhs
C) 50 thousand
D) 11/2 lakhs
Answer:
A) 2 lakhs

Question 48.
This is true regarding the early man
a) He didnot practise agriculture
b) He led a sedentary life style
A) b is correct
B) a is correct
C) Both a and b are correct
D) Both a and b are wrong
Answer:
B) a is correct

Question 49.
To understand about a place we should know about
A) site
B) situation
C) history
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
Which of the following is an odd one ?
A) Hyderabad
B) Delhi
C) Calcutta
D) Mumbai
Answer:
A) Hyderabad

Question 51.
Which of the following is an odd one ?
A) Ahmedabad
B) Allahabad
C) Hyderabad
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Allahabad

Question 52.
lyiatch the following

Group – A	Group -B
1. Megacity	a) Population between 1 million -10 million
2. Class 1 city	b) More than 10 million people
3. Metropolitan city	c) Population between 1 lakh -1 million

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1- b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1- c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
C) 1- b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 53.
Match the following

Group – A	Group – B
1. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport	a) Delhi
2. Suvarna Bhoomi International Airport	b) Bangkok
3. Indira Gandhi International Airport	c) Hyderabad

A) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 54.
The airport at Tirupathi is located at ……………….
A) Mummadivaram
B) Gannavaram
C) Renigunta
D) Sriharikota
Answer:
C) Renigunta

Question 55.
The reason for the abnormal increase of population in Visakhapatnam over the last century is …………………..
A) Transport facilities are scarce
B) There are no slums in the city
C) Visakhapatnam is a sea port
D) People do not migrate very much to this place
Answer:
C) Visakhapatnam is a sea port

Question 56.
Which one of the following is NOT an aerotropolis ?
A) Hyderabad
B) Agra
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Agra

Question 57.
A group of houses within the revenue village:
A) Hamlet
B) Town
C) Village
D) City
Answer:
A) Hamlet

Question 58.
An example to mega city is …………….
A) Hyderabad
B) Kolkata
C) Ahmedabad
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Kolkata

Question 59.
What does the alphabet represent ?

A) Towns
B) Cities
C) Megacities
D) Villages
Answer:
A) Towns

Question 60.
The pyramid shows the order of settlements. What is top most highest level ?

A) Revenue villages
B) Metropolitan cities
C) Mega cities
D) Towns
Answer:
C) Mega cities

Question 61.
The place shown in the map.

A) Berhampur
B) Kolkata
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Sonapur
Answer:
A) Berhampur

Question 62.
The mega city shown in the map.

A) Chennai
B) Hyderabad
C) Ahmedabad
D) Kolkata
Answer:
D) Kolkata

Question 63.
The aerotropolis in Bangkok

A) Heathrow international airport
B) Dubai international airport
C) Rajiv Gandhi international airport
D) Suvarna Bhoomi international airport
Answer:
D) Suvarna Bhoomi international airport

Question 64.
The place shown in the map with ‘?’ mark,

A) Cairo international airport
B) Indira Gandhi international airport
C) Kempegouda international airport
D) Rajiv Gandhi international airport
Answer:
C) Kempegouda international airport

Question 65.
Aerotropolis provides all the comforts of a city. We don’t face this problem in aerotropolis.
A) Communication problem
B) Internet problem
C) Traffic problem
D) Accommodation problem
Answer:
C) Traffic problem

Question 66.
This is the major problem of urbanisation ……………………
A) Job opportunities
B) Education
C) Medical facilities
D) Pollution
Answer:
D) Pollution

Question 67.
Visakhapatnam has been constantly expanding. The reasons ……………….
A) Well connected to other places
B) Historical background
C) Coast
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 68.
A survey by Berhampur municipal corporation shows an increase in solid waste. The reason is …………………
A) increase in literacy
B) increase in population
C) awareness in public
D) increase in jobs
Answer:
B) increase in population

Question 69.
Delhi has grown in this manner
A) unplanned
B) unknown
C) planned
D) meticulously planned
Answer:
A) unplanned

Question 70.
Topography of a place refers to this feature.
A) Situation
B) Site
C) History
D) Development
Answer:
B) Site

Question 71.
During the last 60 years Delhi population has grown by ……………….. times.
A) sixteen
B) six
C) eight
D) twelve
Answer:
C) eight

Question 72.
Today the number of villages in India are appoximately
A) 5.4 lakh
B) 6.4 lakh
C) 5.6 lakh
D) 5.3 lakh
Answer:
B) 6.4 lakh

Question 73.
Today ……………… cities accommodate more than 10 million people
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
Answer:
A) three

Question 74.
The following is a million plus city
A) Tirupathi
B) Kolkata
C) Chennai
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Chennai

Question 75.
Kolkata urban Authority is an example for this settlement
A) Metropolitan city
B) Town
C) City
D) Mega City
Answer:
D) Mega City

Question 76.
Today we have more than ………………. cities that have a population of one million.
A) ten
B) sixty
C) forty
D) fifty
Answer:
D) fifty

Question 77.
The urban area with 5000 to 1 lakh population is
A) Hamlet
B) Revenue village
C) Census village
D) Town
Answer:
D) Town

Question 78.
Which is the incorrect statement?
A) Mega city – more then 10 million people
B) Metropolitan – between one million to 10 million
C) Class 1 city – between 1 lakh to one million
D) Town – between 3000 to 1 lakh
Answer:
D) Town – between 3000 to 1 lakh

Question 79.
Financial capital of Andhra Pradesh is
A) Vijayawada
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Guntur
D) Tirupathi
Answer:
B) Visakhapatnam

Question 80.
Which city in India can be claimed to have been central to many empires that ruled India ?
A) Mumbai
B) Delhi
C) Kolkata
D) Lucknow
Answer:
B) Delhi

Question 81.
Find out the incorrect set:
A) Chatrapati Shivaji – Pratapagad Maharashtra
B) DDA – Delhi Development Authority
C) Site – The characteristics of the place
D) Common lands – Central Government
Answer:
D) Common lands – Central Government

Question 82.
The following airport is not an aerotropolis
A) Begumpet Airport
B) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
C) Bengaluru International Airport
D) Cairo International Airport
Answer:
A) Begumpet Airport

Question 83.
The Shimla city designed for a population of …………………….
A) 25, 000
B) 2 lakh people
C) 50, 000
D) 4 lakh people
Answer:
A) 25, 000

Question 84.
The rock shelter used by early humans at ………………. in Madya Pradesh.
A) Bhopal
B) Sanchi
C) Bhim betka
D) Ujjain
Answer:
C) Bhim betka

Question 85.
Designated slum areas are
A) Areas accepted by local authorities as valid settlements
B) Areas which are not regularised
C) Rural villages in Delhi
D) Planned colonies in Delhi
Answer:
A) Areas accepted by local authorities as valid settlements

Question 86.
A method of taking a picture of the internal parts of your body is known as
A) PHC
B) MRI scan
C) Brain scan
D) Xerox
Answer:
B) MRI scan

Question 87.
Unplanned development of habitations does not lead to
A) Growth of legal settlement
B) There will be no proper facilities to the people
C) People face constant threat of eviction
D) Controlled growth of population in city
Answer:
A) Growth of legal settlement

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 The People on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson The People with Answers

Question 1.
For measuring the percentage of literate population of a country, this age group is not considered.
A) 7 years and above
B) 9 years and above
C) 0 – 6 years
D) 14 years and above
Answer:
C) 0 – 6 years

★ Observe the following table and answer the questions 2 and 3.

Question 2.
Gender discrimination is high in which state?
A) Haryana
B) Punjab
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Kerala
Answer:
A) Haryana

Question 3.
The factor that helps to reduce the differences in sex ratio.
A) Education
B) Child marriages
C) Infanticide
D) Superstitions
Answer:
A) Education

Question 4.
As per the census 2011, the density of population in India was …………………
A) 379
B) 380
C) 382
D) 381
Answer:
C) 382

Question 5.
“The number of females in India has consistently been lower than that of men.” One of the following statements reveals the present position of women in terms of “Sex Ratio”
A) Infanticide
B) A hidden form of discrimination against women
C) Women in higher positions
D) Unequal opportunities in education and development
Answer:
C) Women in higher positions

Question 6.
The percentage of the working people in India in the unorganised sector
A) 8%
B) 92%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Answer:
D) 90%

Question 7.
It is not a cause for change in population
A) Births
B) Deaths
C) Health status
D) Migrations
Answer:
C) Health status

Question 8.
(Number of births + Number of in – migrants) – (Number of deaths + Number of out – migrants) = ?
A) Population growth
B) Population growth rate
C) Population change in a place
D) Population pyramid
Answer:
C) Population change in a place

Question 9.
Key factor for socio – economic growth is
A) Health status
B) Culture
C) Income
D) Literacy
Answer:
D) Literacy

Question 10.
Which kind of migration does not change the size of the population, but influences the distribution of population within the nation ?
A) Emigration
B) International migration
C) Immigration
D) Internal migration
Answer:
D) Internal migration

Question 11.
The census of India is taken once in ……………….
A) 10 years
B) 5 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
A) 10 years

Question 12.
The “working age” population refers to
A) 14 – 58 years
B) 19 – 59 years
C) 15 – 59 years
D) 16 – 15 years
Answer:
C) 15 – 59 years

Question 13.
The present sex ratio of India and Andhra Pradesh respectively is
A) 918, 938
B) 914, 940
C) 914, 970
D) 941, 972
Answer:
C) 914, 970

Question 14.
The farmers who farm or supervise the land they own or take on rent are known as
A) Cultivators
B) Workers in household indu stries
C) Agricultural labourers
D) Unorganised workers
Answer:
A) Cultivators

Question 15.
The change in number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period is known as
A) Population density
B) Age structure
C) Migration
D) Population size change
Answer:
D) Population size change

Question 16.
The number of deaths per thousand persons in a year is called
A) Birthrate
B) Death rate
C) Total fertility rate
D) Population change
Answer:
B) Death rate

Question 17.
Highest literacy rate is observed in which state of India 2011 census ?
A) Haryana
B) Kerala
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Mizoram
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 18.
Least population density is observed in which state of India 2011 census ?
A) Sikkim
B) Jammu & Kashmir
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
D) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 19.
Highest and least populated states of India according to 2011 census
A) West Bengal, Lakshadweep
B) Maharashtra, Sikkim
C) U.P, Sikkim
D) Andhra Pradesh, Lakshadweep
Answer:
C) U.P, Sikkim

Question 20.
Andhra Pradesh occupies …………………….. position in population in India – 2011 census.
A) 3rd
B) 5th
C) 4th
D) 6th
Answer:
B) 5th

Question 21.
The fertility rate in India during 1961 to 2011 is ………………….
A) increasing regularly
B) decreasing regularly
C) not changed
D) increasing sometimes and decreasing sometimes
Answer:
B) decreasing regularly

Question 22.
The state which has the highest density of population.
A) West Bengal
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Tamilnadu
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
A) West Bengal

Question 23.
According to 2011 census, literacy rate of India is …………………
A) 82.14%
B) 65.46%
C) 74.04%
D) 64.84%
Answer:
C) 74.04%

Question 24.
Which state has a positive sex ratio ?
A) Punjab
B) Bihar
C) Kerala
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
C) Kerala

Question 25.
Identify the reason for population change
A) Births
B) Deaths
C) Migration
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
Which are the three main factors that cause population change ?
A) Births, deaths and marriages
B) Births, deaths and life expectancy
C) Births, deaths and migrations
D) Internal migrations and External migrations
Answer:
C) Births, deaths and migrations

Question 27.
In 1947 …………………… % of population was literates.
A) 13%
B) 12%
C) 14%
D) 15%
Answer:
B) 12%

Question 28.
Population pyramid denotes
A) Distribution of population in various regions of country
B) Number of people per sq. kilometer
C) Average fertility rate of women in a country
D) Proportion of male and female in different age groups in the population
Answer:
D) Proportion of male and female in different age groups in the population

Question 29.
Among the following which indicates a hidden form of discrimination ?
A) Sex ratio
B) Age structure
C) Literacy rate
D) Population size
Answer:
A) Sex ratio

Question 30.
High population density region is
A) Shiwalik ranges
B) North Eastern states
C) Northern plains
D) Desert
Answer:
C) Northern plains

Question 31.
Which group are biologically reproductive?
A) Children
B) Retired people
C) Aged
D) Working age
Answer:
D) Working age

Question 32.
Which information is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between men and women ?
A) Literacy rate
B) Population growth
C) Sex ratio
D) Age structure
Answer:
C) Sex ratio

Question 33.
Choose the wrong pair from the given below:
A) Highest density – Bihar
B) Least sex ratio – Andhra Pradesh
C) Highest sex ratio – Kerala
D) Lowest density – Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
B) Least sex ratio – Andhra Pradesh

Question 34.
Identify false statement.
A) In India, 103 female babies are bom against 100 male babies.
B) Girls are not getting equal opportunies in education and development
C) Discrimination follows in between boy, girl children in case of nutrition food and health
D) The age group of 0 – 5, the number of boys who survive’is much lo wer than girls
Answer:
D) The age group of 0 – 5, the number of boys who survive’is much lo wer than girls

Question 35.
This acts as a powerful force in reducing discrimination against woman
A) Economic status
B) Govt. Acts
C) Education
D) Marriages
Answer:
C) Education

Question 36.
The population in a square kilometer area is called ………………..
A) Population
B) Over population
C) Decrease in population
D) Population density
Answer:
D) Population density

Question 37.
The fertility rate in India during 1961 to2011 is………………
A) decreasing regularly
B) increasing regularly
C) not changed
D) increasing sometimes and decreasing sometimes
Answer:
A) decreasing regularly

Question 38.
The northern plains attract high population
A) as it is a desert area
B) as it is a dissected area
C) as it is a hilly area
D) as it is a flat and fertile plain
Answer:
D) as it is a flat and fertile plain

Question 39.
The most populous country in the world ………………………
A) China
B) India
C) America
D) Russia
Answer:
A) China

Question 40.
The reason why boy’s education is preferred to girl’s education
A) Unable to find suitable alliance
B) Girls have no proper protection
C) How much ever she is educated her earning is not for parents’ sake
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 41.
Literacy rate of India in 1947 ……………………
A) 10%
B) 33%
C) 12%
D) 47%
Answer:
C) 12%

Question 42.
In India the first census was taken in this year
A) 1863
B) 1861
C) 1872
D) 1849
Answer:
C) 1872

Question 43.
Sex ratio of USA is
A) 1050
B) 1056
C) 1501
D) 900
Answer:
A) 1050

Question 44.
Conducting census helps
i) to know literacy rates
ii) to know age structure
A) i’ & ‘ii’ are correct
B) ‘ii’ is correct
C) ‘i’ is correct
D) ‘i’ & ‘ii’ are wrong
Answer:
A) i’ & ‘ii’ are correct

Look at graph and answer questions 45 – 47

Question 45.
India population as per 2011 census
A) 10.28 millions
B) 12.10 millions
C) 32.78 millions
D) 20 millions
Answer:
B) 12.10 millions

Question 46.
The population of India started growing rapidly from the year
A) 1901
B) 1921
C) 1911
D) 1931
Answer:
B) 1921

Question 47.
Which year recorded a decrease in population ?
A) 1901
B) 1921
C) 1931
D) 1911
Answer:
B) 1921

Question 48.
Which district in A.P. has least population density ?
A) Anantapuram
B) Guntur
C) YSR Kadapa
D) East Godavari
Answer:
C) YSR Kadapa

Question 49.
The census in India has been taken in the year……………. for the last time.
A) 2011
B) 2001
C) 1991
D) 2013
Answer:
A) 2011

Question 50.
Which factor influences the density of population of a state ?
A) The area and the number of people
B) Natural resources and extent of the area
C) Natural resources and production of goods
D) People and natural resources
Answer:
C) Natural resources and production of goods

Question 51.
Which of the following is true ?
A) Density of population is high in Arunachal Pradesh
B) The registrar general and census commission of India collect and record of the population data.
C) Density of population is low in westbengal
D) Census is collected once in 5 years
Answer:
B) The registrar general and census commission of India collect and record of the population data.

Question 52.
From which of the following year is the population in India rising constantly?
A) 1981
B) 2021
C) 1921
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 1921

Question 53.
Match the following

i) India’s population in 2011	a) 1.9
ii) The fertility percentage in Andhra Pradesh	b) 1210 millions
iii) India’s population density in 2011	c) 15 – 59 years
iv) Working age	d) 382 sq.kms

A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
C) – i – b, ii – d, iii – c, iv – a
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c

Question 54.
Wdtich slogan is suitable to female literacy?
A) Safety frist speed next
B) Save the trees they will save you
C) Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao
D) Health is wealth
Answer:
C) Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao

Question 55.
This helps in reducing discrimination against women.
A) Literacy and schooling
B) Less sex ratio
C) Working population
D) Infanticide
Answer:
A) Literacy and schooling

Question 56.
Identify correct matching of district and sex ratio
A) Krishna – 508
B) Chittor – 274
C) Guntur – 462
D) YSRKadapa – 188
Answer:
D) YSR Kadapa – 188

Question 57.
This is not correct activity to control population growth
A) increasing marriage age
B) prohibiting dowry
C) family planning
D) improving literacy
Answer:
B) prohibiting dowry

Question 58.
WTiat are the reasons for the declining of famines from 1947 onwards ?
A) famine relief
B) abundant crops
C) ration shops
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 59.
Match the following places with their sex ratio

i) Haryana	a) 970
ii) Punjab	b) 880
iii) Andhra Pradesh	c) 870

A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 60.
Among the following find the incorrect set according to 2011 census
A) India – 382
B) Krishna district – 519
C) Arunachal Pradesh – 17
D) Bihar – 106
Answer:
D) Bihar – 106

Question 61.
Statement I – Fertility rate in India is 2.5.
Statement II – Fertility rate in A.P is 2.7.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A) Statement I is correct
B) Both are wrong
C) Both are correct
D) Statement II is correct
Answer:
B) Both are wrong

Question 62.
Choose the wrong pair from the following sets relating to Andhra Pradesh
A) Literacy rate – 67.66%
B) Density – 308
C) Sex ratio – 970
D) Fertility rate – 2.7
Answer:
D) Fertility rate – 2.7

Question 63.
What does fertility rate indicate ?
A) The number of females per 1000 males
B) The number of children that is likely to be bom to a women
C) The number of males and females in different age groups
D) The number of persons per unit area
Answer:
B) The number of children that is likely to be bom to a women

Question 64.
Which has been powerful force in reducing discrimination aga inst women?
A) Gender bias
B) Women’s education
C) Equal distribution of population
D) Male domination in society
Answer:
B) Women’s education

Question 65.
Since which year, birth rates have also started declining gradually, resulting in a gradual decline in the rate of population growth ?
A) 1991
B) 2011
C) 2001
D) 1981
Answer:
D) 1981

Question 66.
The present fertility rates of India and Andhra Pradesh respectively are
A) 6.0, 5.6
B) 2.7,1.9
C) 1.9, 2.7
D) 5.6, 3.1
Answer:
B) 2.7,1.9

Question 67.
The state that has least sex ratio is ……………………..
A) Kerala
B) Tamilnadu
C) Haryana
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
C) Haryana

★ Read the para and answer the questions 68 & 69.

The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 1106 persons per sq km in Bihar to onl\ 17 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
Question 68.
The reason for less density of population in Arunachal Pradesh
A) Low rain fall
B) Shallow and less fertile soils
C) Hilly area
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 69.
Bihar has 1106 persons per sq.km. One of the reasons for this is
A) Scanty rainfall
B) Hot climate
C) Flat plains with fertile soils
D) Literacy
Answer:
C) Flat plains with fertile soils

Question 70.
The district with 2nd highest density of population

A) West Godavari
B) Krishna
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Anantapuram
Answer:
A) West Godavari

Question 71.
This age is to be considered to estimate literacy.
A) 4 years.
B) 5 years.
C) 7 years.
D) 6 years.
Answer:
C) 7 years.

Question 72.
Among Chittoor, SPS Nellore, Anantapur, Kurnool, which has the highest population density ?

A) SPS Nellore
B) Chittor
C) Anantapuram
D) Kurnool
Answer:
B) Chittor

Question 73.
Assertion 1: Population change = (no. of births + immigrants)-(no. of deaths + out migrants)
Assertion 2: Population change = (no. of births – no. of deaths.)
A) Assertion 1 and 2 are correct
B) Assertion 2 is correct
C) Assertion 1 is correct
D) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
C) Assertion 1 is correct

Question 74.
Assertion I – Density of population in North – East states is less due to heavy rainfall.
Assertion II – Density of population in Kerala is high due to flat surface, fertile soil and abundant rainfall.
A) Assertion I is correct
B) Both are wrong
C) Both are correct
D) Assertion II is correct
Answer:
D) Assertion II is correct

Question 75.
What is true regarding the density of population ?
a) The density of population is the number of persons per unit area
b) The density of population is the number of persons per square kilometer.
A) ‘b’ is correct
B) ‘a’ is correct
C) Both are correct
D) None is correct
Answer:
C) Both are correct

Question 76.
Which of the following is a pivotal element in social sciences ?
A) Population
B) Resources
C) Coal
D) Petroleum
Answer:
A) Population

Question 77.
Name the state of India which is most populous ?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Goa
D) Tamilnadu
Answer:
B) Uttar Pradesh

Question 78.
Which of the following statements defines the density of population
A) Number of persons living per unit area
B) Number of persons living in a country
C) Change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time
D) Absolute numbers added every year
Answer:
A) Number of persons living per unit area

Question 79.
Change in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period of time is called
A) Magnitude
B) Pace
C) Population growth
D) Population density
Answer:
C) Population growth

Question 80.
The distribution of the population according to different types of occupations is called
A) Population density
B) Population growth
C) Sex ratio
D) Occupation structure
Answer:
D) Occupation structure

Question 81.
Which is not a real cause of several diseases?
A) Polluted water
B) Congested living
C) Uncleaned garbage
D) Better sanitation
Answer:
D) Better sanitation

Question 82.
Observe the following population pyramid. What does it indicate ?

A) When the population density of an area is so high people live in tali buildings
B) Pattern of population distribution in large urban areas
C) A graphical representation of the age, sex composition of a population
D) It shows the graphical representation of different workers in India
Answer:
C) A graphical representation of the age, sex composition of a population

Question 83.
Some children are forced to work because of
A) willingness
B) economic conditions
C) both
D) none
Answer:
B) economic conditions

Question 84
………………
usually continue their work as long as they are physically possible
A) Central government employees
B) Domestic workers
C) State government employees
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Domestic workers

Question 85.
Women and girls in particular, face unequal opportunities for
A) Wealth
B) Education and development
C) Family status
D) None
Answer:
B) Education and development

Question 86.
Which of the following statements truly defines the word census ?
A) An official enumeration of working population
B) An official enumeration of population done periodically
C) An enumeration of population of one community
D) Religion based enumeration of population .
Answer:
B) An official enumeration of population done periodically

Question 87.
The natural increase of population is the difference between birth rates and
A) total rates
B) fertility rates
C) death rates
D) None of these
Answer:
C) death rates

Question 88.
The major components of population growth are birth rates, death rates and
A) job rate
B) migration
C) transfer of funds
D) None of these
Answer:
B) migration

Question 89.
……………… is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year
A) Birth rate
B) Death rate
C) Sex rate
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Birth rate

Question 90.
……………….. is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year
A) Mortality rate
B) Birth rate
C) Death rate
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Death rate

Question 91.
India’s population has been steadily increasing from 361 million in 1951 to 1028 million since
A) 1991
B) 2001
C) 2000
D) 1981
Answer:
B) 2001

Question 92.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Since 1981, growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually.
Reason (R): Birth rate is declining. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of Ay
B) Both A and R are false
C) A is false and R is true
D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 93.
In India, ……………….. female babies are born against 100 male babies.
A) 103
B) 100
C) 95
D) 90
Answer:
A) 103

Question 94.
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child ……………….
A) before birth
B) after tyrth
C) both
D) none
Answer:
A) before birth

Question 95.
From 1900 onwards and especially post independence, impact of famine
A) increased
B) declined
C) is constant
D) none
Answer:
B) declined

Question 96.
There has been the rapid decline in ………………. rates in India
A) Birth
B) Death
C) Growth
D) None
Answer:
B) Death

Question 97.
Total fertility rate is the number of ………………… that is likely to be born to a woman
A) children
B) female Children
C) male Children
D) none
Answer:
A) children

Question 98.
The first complete census was taken is
A) 1881
B) 1812
C) 1891
D) 1882
Answer:
C) 1891

Question 99.
Which kind of migration does not
change the size of the population, but influences the distribution of population with in the nation. ( )
A) Internal migration
B) International migration
C) Immigration
D) Emigration
Answer:
B) International migration

Question 100.
The district in Andhra Pradesh which has the highest density of population
A) Krishna
B) West Godavari
C) East Godavari
D) Y.S.R. Kadapa
Answer:
B) West Godavari

Practice the AP 10th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources with Answers

Question 1.
This canal waters the part of Thar desert.
A) Indira Gandhi Canal
B) Jawahar Canal
C) Lai Bahadur Canal
D) Rajiv Gandhi Canal
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi Canal

Question 2.
The Dibang and the Lohit are the tributaries of this river.
A) Ganga
B) Brahmaputra
C) Indus
D) Godavari
Answer:
B) Brahmaputra

Question 3.
The river water of Tungabhadra is shared by these three states.
A) Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
D) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
Answer:
A) Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh

Question 4.
The agricultural season of Rabi and Kharif are related to one of the following countries.
A) Nepal
B) China
C) Bhutan
D) India
Answer:
D) India

Question 5.
The water dividing hills/mountains between the major peninsular rivers joining the Bay of Bengal and small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea, are
A) The Aravalis
B) The Western Ghats
C) The Vindhya and Satpura Mountains
D) The Nilgiris
Answer:
B) The Western Ghats

Question 6.
Tungabhadra dam in Andhra Pradesh has gradually lost its water storage capacity, because of
A) Insufficient rainfall.
B) Proper maintenance of dam.
C) Accumulation of silt.
D) None of the above.
Answer:
C) Accumulation of silt.

Question 7.
Identify correct matching.
i) River Indus – a) Kailasa mountain
ii) River Godavari – b) Nasik Tryambak
iii) River Narmada – c) Amarantak
A) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
D) i – a, ii – c, iii – b
Answer:
C) i – a, ii – b, iii – c

Question 8.
This condition (ban) not taken in the selection of village to Adarsh Gram Yojana
A) Small family
B) Free animal grazing
C) Cutting trees
D) Liquor
Answer:
A) Small family

Question 9.
Transpiration means
A) The turning water into vapour from water bodies
B) Living things give off water through their breathing process.
C) The water released from industries
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Living things give off water through their breathing process.

Question 10.
Identify correct matching.
i) Sandur – a) Gold
ii) Kudremukh – b) Iron ore
iii) Kolar – c) Manganese
A) i -b, ii – c, iii – a
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – b, iii – a

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a tributary of the river Indus?
A) Yamuna
B) Chenab
C) Sutlej
D) Ravi
Answer:
A) Yamuna

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a peninsular river?
A) Godavari
B) Brahmaputra
C) Krishna
D) Cauvery
Answer:
B) Brahmaputra

Question 13.
The process of giving water into the atmosphere by living things is called ………………
A) Transpiration
B) Evapotranspiration
C) Evaporation
D) Precipitation
Answer:
A) Transpiration

Question 14.
Nasbandi belongs to
A) Ban on free grazing
B) Family planning
C) Ban on felling trees
D) Ban an liquor
Answer:
D) Ban an liquor

Question 15.
Ban on ……………… for irrigation was introduced to preserve water.
A) wells
B) tube wells
C) canals
D) tanks
Answer:
B) tube wells

Question 16.
The birth place of Mahanadi is
A) Nasik
B) Mahabaleshwar
C) Sihawa
D) Amar Kantak
Answer:
B) Mahabaleshwar

Question 17.
Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Son rivers belong to this river system
A) Indus
B) Brahmaputra
C) Godavari
D) Ganges
Answer:
D) Ganges

Question 18.
This is not a Himalayan river
A) Ganga
B) Brahmaputra
C) Godavari
D) Indus
Answer:
C) Godavari

Question 19.
Current laws on ground water use are inappropriate because
A) All the individuals have equal right on groundwater.
B) Use of groundwater is regulated by local governments.
C) Control is there over the usage of groundwater.
D) Basic link between access to groundwater and land ownership
Answer:
D) Basic link between access to groundwater and land ownership

Question 20.
Water inflow means
1) Precipitation
2) Surface flow
3) Underground flow
A) 1, only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1,2,3
Answer:
D) 1,2,3

Question 21.
Which of the following is not correct solution for increasing ground water?
A) Rent to be collected by panchayat from borewell owner.
B) Underground water is to be treated as public property.
C) Use of ground water must be controlled by Panchayat raj institutions.
D) Delinking the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground.
Answer:
A) Rent to be collected by panchayat from borewell owner.

Question 22.
Perennial rivers have regular flow of water because of water because of
i) heavy rainfall
ii) melting of snow
iii) wide catchment area
iv) being in polar region
A) i,ii,iii,iv
B) i, iv
C) i, ii
D) ii, iv
Answer:
C) i, ii

Question 23.
70% of our surface water resources are polluted. Among the following, which is not the reason for it?
A) Direct discharges from industrial sources
B) Washing of animals and clothes in river water
C) Over consumption of water for agricultural and industrial purpose.
D) Dumping of solid wastes by humans.
Answer:
C) Over consumption of water for agricultural and industrial purpose.

Question 24.
Among the following, which is not correct with regard to water conservation in Hiware Bazar?
A) Continuous contour trenches
B) Water harvesting structures
C) Use of water through borewells for irrigation
D) Plantations on roadsides and forest lands
Answer:
C) Use of water through borewells for irrigation

Question 25.
Water is considered a common property and essential to all for survival. Which does not support this statement?
A) Water is available to all through nature
B) Water is available to all on land and underground
C) Water is essential for all living beings
D) People can survive, without water
Answer:
D) People can survive, without water

Question 26.
The Brahmaputra rises in this glacier
A) Satopanth glacier
B) Siachin glacier
C) Mahabaleswar
D) Chemayungdung glacier
Answer:
D) Chemayungdung glacier

Question 27.
Which is the birth place of river Indus?
A) Satopanth glacier
B) Trayambakam
C) Chemyungdung
D) Kailash range
Answer:
D) Kailash range

Question 28.
The birth place of the river Ganga
A) Chemyungdung
B) Kailash range
C) The Gangotri glacier
D) Srilanka
Answer:
C) The Gangotri glacier

Question 29.
Alakananda and Baghiradhi join at
A) Gangotri
B) Allahabad
C) Dev Prayaga
D) Haridwar
Answer:
C) Dev Prayaga

Question 30.
One of the following belongs to internal drainage river.
A) The river Ganga
B) The river Narmada
C) The river Tapti
D) The river Luni
Answer:
D) The river Luni

Question 31.
Find out the odd one with regard to major flow in india
A) Narmada
B) Godavari
C) Indus
D) Krishna
Answer:
C) Indus

Question 32.
The three major river systems in Himalayan rivers
i) Indus
ii) Ganges
iii) Brahmaputra
A) Only ii
B) Only i
C) Both i and ii
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 33.
The river Ganges forms with the merging of these two rivers
1) Bhagirathi
2) Gandak
3) Kosi
4) Alakananda
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
Answer:
B) 1, 4

Question 34.
This is not a peninsular river
A) Brahmaputra
B) Mahanadi
C) Godavari
D) Krishna
Answer:
A) Brahmaputra

Question 35.
To conserve the water resources for future generations:
A) Water resources to be treated as private property.
B) Deep bore wells to be dug.
C) Water resources have to be treated as a common pool resource.
D) Water intensive crops to be grown.
Answer:
C) Water resources have to be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 36.
Tungabhadra is the tributary of
A) Godavari
B) Ganga
C) Krishna
D) Indus
Answer:
C) Krishna

Question 37.
The mineral dug in Kudremukh mines is
A) Iron
B) Bauxite
C) Gold
D) Coal
Answer:
A) Iron

Question 38.
The largest river in peninsular India is ……………………
A) Krishna
B) Ganga
C) Godavari
D) Narmada
Answer:
C) Godavari

Question 39.
In catchment areas, the inflows of ground water depends upon …………………
A) Land
B) Trees
C) Hills
D) Mountains
Answer:
B) Trees

Question 40.
In Tibet, river Brahmaputra is known as …………………
A) Tsangpo
B) Siang
C) Dibang
D) Dihang
Answer:
A) Tsangpo

Question 41.
Choose the wrong pair from the following.
A) Ganga – Ko§i
B) Indus – Beas
C) Brahmaputra – Dihang
D) Krishna – Tungabhadra
Answer:
C) Brahmaputra – Dihang

Question 42.
Which of the following benefits are enjoyed by Hiware Bazar due to water harvesting measures?
A) The improvement in soil moisture level has helped to increase productivity.
B) The area irrigated for summer crops has increased
C) The improvement of the livestock economy
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 43.
Jhelum and Chenab are the tributaries of
A) Ganga
B) Indus
C) Brahmaputra
D) Godavari
Answer:
B) Indus

Question 44.
Tsangpo begins from …………………
A) India
B) Tibet
C) Nepal
D) Bhutan
Answer:
B) Tibet

Question 45.
About 5% of water is used for domestic , purposes and yet a large section of the population does not have access to the water.
A) Industries use high quality of water
B) Not following the water management system
C) Wastage of water
D) Water resources are-less on the earth
Answer:
B) Not following the water management system

Question 46.
Precipitation + surface flow + ground water flow = ?
A) Total rain fall
B) Outflow
C) Water on the land
D) Inflow
Answer:
D) Inflow

Question 47.
Which of the following statements is correct?
I) Most of the major peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapati flow from east to west.
II) Peninsular rivers are characterised by fixed course, absence of meanders and largely non – perennial flow of water.
A) Both I and II are true
B) Both I and II are incorrect
C) Only I is true
D) Only II is true
Answer:
D) Only II is true

Question 48.
Effort to increase the groundwater table is
A) Check dams
B) Soaking pits
C) Storing rainwater
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 49.
Choose the wrong pair from the following
A) Nasbandi – ban on liquor
B) Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
C) Kurhad bandi – ban on felling trees
D) Shramdan-voluntary physical labour
Answer:
A) Nasbandi – ban on liquor

Question 50.
Find the wrong pair with regard to origination
A) Godavari – Tryambak plateau
B) Krishna – Mahabaleswar
C) Narmada – Multai
D) Brahmaputra – Kailash range
Answer:
C) Narmada – Multai

Question 51.
At the north west of Badrinath, the Satopnath glacier is called …………………
A) Beas
B) Bhagirathi
C) Alakananda
D) Sutlej
Answer:
C) Alakananda

Question 52.
Which river is water causing disputes between Karnataka and Tamilnadu
A) Godavari
B) Cauvery
C) Krishna
D) Tungabhadra
Answer:
B) Cauvery

Question 53.
Which river is originated from Chemayungdung glacier?
A) Ganga
B) Indus
C) Brahmaputra
D) Luni
Answer:
C) Brahmaputra

Question 54.
The meaning of Doab is
A) The place where the river meets sea
B) Land between the two rivers
C) Land between the two mountains
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Land between the two rivers

Question 55.
Hiware Bazaar is in which state?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Gujarat
C) Maharashtra
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
C) Maharashtra

Question 56.
The following is common pool source
A) Drinking water in home
B) Borewells dug by individuals
C) Water cans in shops
D) Overhead tank water in home
Answer:
B) Borewells dug by individuals

Question 57.
The significance of rivers Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken and Son is
A) West flowing rivers in peninsular India
B) East flowing rivers
C) Originated in central highlands and belong to the Ganga river system
D) South flowing rivers belong to Ganga system
Answer:
C) Originated in central highlands and belong to the Ganga river system

Question 58.
Which of the following is not south flowing tributaries of river Ganga?
A) Yamuna
B) Chambal
C) Ghandak
D) Teesta
Answer:
B) Chambal

Question 59.
The current laws about ground water in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. Which is not the correct explanation?
A) Laws were made when ground water was marginal source of water.
B) Now ground water has become main source of agriculture
C) Basic problem to link between access – to ground water and land ownership in those laws.
D) Land owners are restricted in the amount of water they can-use at that time.
Answer:
C) Basic problem to link between access – to ground water and land ownership in those laws.

Question 60.
The course of Tungabhadra river is in disputes as it extends in three states. To solve this problem
A) As per the flowing area of the river, Karnataka is to be given major share.
B) All the three states should make agreements and follow it on the basis of water availability
C) As there are no major projects on the river in A.P, and Telangana no rights to them
D) Water should be provided only for irrigation in Karnataka and for drinking in A.P and Telangana.
Answer:
B) All the three states should make agreements and follow it on the basis of water availability

Question 61.
This is not a tributary of River Ganga.
A) Sutlej
B) Son
C) Yamuna
D) Gandak
Answer:
A) Sutlej

Question 62.
Water scarcity in Rayalaseema is checked by
A) Effective utilization of ground water
B) Water conservation methods
C) Repairs & maintenance of tanks
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 63.
In the peninsular rivers flowing towards east, Krishna is the second largest river. Krishna river takes its origin in
A) Nasik
B) Mahabaleswaram
C) Multai
D) Manasarovar
Answer:
B) Mahabaleswaram

Question 64.
The river Indus enters India here ……………………
A) Punjab
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Uttaranchal
D) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer:
D) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 65.
In Arunachal Pradesh Brahmaputra is Called ………………..
A) Dibang, Lohit
B) Brahmaputra
C) Tsangpo, Dihang
D) Siang, Dihang
Answer:
D) Siang, Dihang

Question 66.
………………… is a Himalayan river.
A) Musi
B) Gandak
C) Bheema
D) Koyina
Answer:
B) Gandak

Question 67.
Which village is an example for rational and equitable use of water?
A) Ahmedabad
B) Pedakallepalli
C) Hiware Bazar
D) Tike Karwadi
Answer:
C) Hiware Bazar

Question 68.
40 million ‘hectares’ of land in India is flood-prone and an equally large part of the country is also drought prone. Which is not the reason for this ?
A) Continuous and heavy rainfall in some areas.
B) Lack of adequate drainage infrastructure
C) High consumption of water
D) Cyclonic storms in the deltaic regions.
Answer:
D) Cyclonic storms in the deltaic regions.

Question 69.
The Brahmaputra enters oar country through …………………. state.
A) Arunachal Pradesh
B) Assom
C) Sikkim
D) Nagaland
Answer:
A) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 70.
The peninsular rivers the Krishna and the Godavari discharge their water in the ……………….
A) Arabian sea
B) Indian Ocean
C) Red sea
D) Bay of Bengal
Answer:
D) Bay of Bengal

Question 71.
The process of giving water into the atmosphere by living things is called ……………………….
A) Evaporation
B) Transpiration
C) Evapotranspiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
B) Transpiration

Question 72.
Most of the peninsular rivers except ………………….. and Tapati flow from west to east.
A) Krishna
B) Godavari
C) Narmada
D) Cauvery
Answer:
C) Narmada

Question 73.
The largest peninsular river is …………………
A) Krishna
B) Tungabhadra
C) Godavari
D) Cauvery
Answer:
C) Godavari

Question 74.
The area drained by a single “river system’ is called a
A) drainage
B) drainage basin
C) river system
D) river divide
Answer:
B) drainage basin

Question 75.
The lower portion of the Tungabhadra river is in ……………….. state.
A) Tamilnadu
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Odisha
Answer:
B) Andhra Pradesh

Question 76.
The following is not a Himalayan river.
A) Brahmaputra
B) Sindhu
C) Ganga
D) Mahanadi
Answer:
D) Mahanadi

Question 77.
The source of the river Godavari in Western Ghats is ………………..
A) Manasarovar
B) Keerga Region
C) Hamsala Deevi
D) Nasik Tryambak
Answer:
D) Nasik Tryambak

Question 78.
About 50 years ago, the capacity of river Tungabhadra river reservoir was ………………… million cubic meters.
A) 2, 766
B) 3, 766
C) 9, 766
D) 8, 766
Answer:
B) 3, 766

Question 79.
……………… is the only river in the desert of Thar in Rajasthan.
A) River Mahi
B) River Tapati
C) River Bhani
D) River Luni
Answer:
D) River Luni

Question 80.
The river Sindhu flows through …………………
A) Delhi
B) China
C) Pakistan
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Pakistan

Question 81.
Match the following

Group – A	Group – B
1. Ganga	Peninsular river
2. Indus	Gomti
3. Krishna	Manasarovar

A) 1- a 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 82.
Match the following Group-A

Group – A	Group – B
1. ‘V’ shaped valley	a) Narmada
2. West flowing river	b) Godavari
3. Peninsular river	c) Indus

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 83.
Match the following

Group – A	Group – B
1. Bhagirathi	(a) Chemayungdung
2. Brahmaputra	b) Satopanth
3. Alakananda	c) Gangotri

A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 84.
Most of the peninsular rivers join in the …………………
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Arabian sea
C) Indian Ocean
D) None

Kurhad bandi – Ban on felling trees
Charai bandi – Ban of free grazing
Nas bandi – Family planning
Nasha bandi – Ban on Liquor.
Answer:
A) Bay of Bengal

Question 85.
What is the scheme that helps in controlling population ?
A) Kurhad bandi
B) Charai bandi
C) Nashabandi
D) Nasbandi
Answer:
D) Nasbandi

☆ Observe the table and answer the Questions 87 & 88.

Tungabhadra sharing states	Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Origin	Western Ghats, River Krishna
Catchment area	57671 km2 in merges in Karnataka. 13746 km2 in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

Question 86.
Tungabhadra river is a tributary of ………………
A) River Godavari
B) River Penna
C) River Kaveri
D) River Krishna
Answer:
D) River Krishna

Question 87.
The major flowing part of Tungabhadra …………………..
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Karnataka
C) Telangana
D) Both A.P and Telangana
Answer:
B) Karnataka

☆ Observe the map and answer the Questions 89 & 90.

Question 88.
This course of river shown in the map with ‘A’ belongs to ………………
A) River Gomti
B) River Brahmaputra
C) River Sabarmati
D) River Krishna
Answer:
B) River Brahmaputra

Question 89.
The river shown with’B’is ……………….
A) Gomti
B) Damodar
C) Betwa
D) Padma
Answer:
C) Betwa

☆ Observe the map and answer the Questions 91 & 94.

Question 90.
River Yamuna joins Ganges at ……………….
A) Varanasi
B) Allahabad
C) Kanpur
D) Farakka
Answer:
B) Allahabad

Question 91.
This state is not drained by River Ganga.
A) Uttarakhand
B) Bihar
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) West Bengal
Answer:
C) Andhra Pradesh

Question 92.
The tributary which is on northern side of Ganga.
A) Tamsa
B) Betwa
C) Yamuna
D) Son
Answer:
C) Yamuna

Question 93.
The tributary which is on southern side of Ganga.
A) Betwa
B) Gomti
C) Ken
D) Yamuna
Answer:
A) Betwa

Question 94.
The reason for calling the Himalayan rivers as perennial rivers is ……………………..
A) they rise in the peninsular plateau
B) they do not flow into ‘V’ – shaped valleys
C) they get water from rain as well as from melting snow
D) they flow continuously
Answer:
C) they get water from rain as well as from melting snow

Question 95.
The reason for downing of the water capacity of Tungabhadra dam
1) Digging mines
2) Soil erosion
3) Deposit of waste matter
A) only 1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) only 2
D) 1, 2
Answer:
B) 1, 2, 3

Question 96.
The Himalayan rivers are supplied by rainfall as well as the melting snow. This helped them ……………………
A) to have clean water
B) to dry up in winter season
C) to flow all throughput the year
D) to run a long distance
Answer:
C) to flow all throughput the year

Question 97.
What is this river ?
i) One of its sources is Gangotri
ii) Another source is Satopanth.
iii) Some of tributaries have their sources in the peninsular plateau.
A) The Godavari
B) The Krishna
C) The Ganges
D) The Mahanadi
Answer:
C) The Ganges

Question 98.
Many dams are losing their water storage capacity. The reasons for this ………………..
A) Accumulation of debris
B) Soil erosion
C) Mining activities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 99.
The river that has severe objections in sharing water among Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
A) ThePenna
B) The Tungabhadra
C) The Kaveri
D) TheBetwa
Answer:
B) The Tungabhadra

Question 100.
Hiware Bazar was selected under the Adarsh Gram Yojana. What makes it to get selected ?
A) Ban on liquor
B) Literacy
C) Watershed and all round development of the village
D) Free grazing of animals
Answer:
C) Watershed and all round development of the village

★ Read the para and answer the Questions.
The Ganga is joined by a large number of tributaries. A majority of them originate in the Himalayan ranges but some of them have their sources in the peninsular plateau.
Question 101.
The river that joins the Ganga from peninsular plateau
A) Godavari
B) Betwa
C) Narmada
D) Tapati
Answer:
B) Betwa

Question 102.
A feature of the Ganga
A) It flows from east to west
B) It is a tribute of Brahmaputra
C) It is perennial one
D) Mahanadi is its tribute
Answer:
C) It is perennial one

Question 103.
Which one of the following is not the tributary of the river ‘Ganga’ ?
A) The Yamuna
B) The Ghaghara
C) The Penganga
D) The Kosi
Answer:
C) The Penganga

Question 104.
Why are Peninsular rivers called seasonal ?
A) Because their flow depends upon rainfall
B) Because their flow depends upon snowfall
C) Because their flow depends upon ground water
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Because their flow depends upon rainfall

Question 105.
Which of the following pair of river flows west and makes estuaries ?
A) Narmada and Tapati
B) Tapati and Brahmaputra
C) Narmada and Ganga
D) Brahmaputra and Ganga
Answer:
A) Narmada and Tapati

Question 106.
Which one of the following river flows in a rift valley ?
A) The Narmada
B) The Godavari
C) The Krishna
D) The Kaveri
Answer:
A) The Narmada

Question 107.
From where does the river Tapati arise?
A) Amarkantak
B) Satpura
C) Western ghats
D) Mahabaleshwar
Answer:
B) Satpura

Question 108.
Which iS the origin of river Krishna ?
A) From Chattisgarh
B) Highlands of M.P
C) From a spring near Mahabaleshwar
D) From Odisha
Answer:
C) From a spring near Mahabaleshwar

Question 109.
With which of the following states is Dal lake associated ?
A) Orisha
B) Manipur
C) Nagaland
D) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
D) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 110.
Which of the following rivers do not form delta ?
i) Tapati
ii) Narmada
iii) Yamuna
iv) Ganga
A) i and ii
B) i and iv
C) ii and iv
D) iii and iv
Answer:
A) i and ii

Question 111.
The largest delta in the world is
A) Ganga delta
B) Mahanadi delta
C) Sunderban delta
D) Godavari delta
Answer:
C) Sunderban delta

Question 112.
Which of the following river is formed from twin sources?
A) Godavari
B) Ganges
C) Brahmaputra
D) Sindhu
Answer:
B) Ganges

Question 113.
The Indus river enters in Indian Territory in
A) Gujarath
B) Rajasthan
C) Jammu & Kashmir
D) Punjab
Answer:
C) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 114.
Near Lhotse Dzong, the Brahmaputra opens out into a wide navigable channel for about ……………… kms.
A) 460 km
B) 720 km
C) 680 km
D) 640 km
Answer:
D) 640 km

Question 115.
Transpiration takes place in
A) Lakes
B) Rivers
C) Living Things
D) Seas
Answer:
C) Living Things

Question 116.
Total catchment area of Tungabhadra is
A) 71,417 km²
B) 77,141 km²
C) 65, 751 km²
D) 57, 671 km²
Answer:
A) 71,417 km²

Question 117.
The public protested against discharge of molasses in Tungabhadra basin in the year ……………..
A) 1984
B) 1986
C) 1992
D) 1996
Answer:
A) 1984

Question 118.
Living things also give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process is called
A) Evaporation
B) Transpiration
C) Sublimation
D) Saturation
Answer:
B) Transpiration

Question 119.
The success of Hiware Bazar is NOT dependent upon
A) Social control over ground water extraction
B) Crop planning and water use priority
C) Ban on free grazing
D) Government policy and programmes
Answer:
D) Government policy and programmes