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AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Earth Movements and Seasons.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons

Question 1.
Can you relate what are the major seasons you have seen?
Answer:
The major seasons I have seen are Summer season, Rainy season and Winter season.

Question 2.
Write any two factors that influence the order of seasons.
Answer:
The factors are:
a) The spherical shape of the Earth and the curvature of its surface.
b) Daily rotation of the Earth on its own Axis.

Question 3.
From where can we see the axis of the earth?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is an imaginary line. We cannot see it.

Question 4.
What are the reasons behind the formation of seasons?
Answer:
Earth’s revolution and inclination of the axis are the reasons behind it.

Question 5.
What happens if there are no seasons?
Answer:
If there are no seasons, there will be no life on the earth.

Question 6.
Find out if Andhra Pradesh is in the Tropical Belt or in the Temperate Beit.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is extended between 18°N to 79°N latitude (approximately). It is in Tropical Belt.

Question 7.
Will the Sun shine directly on our heads in Andhra Pradesh during any month? If yes, in which month?
Answer:
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on Andhra Pradesh in the month of May.

Question 8.
Find out in which belt is Delhi and if it would receive snowfall in winters.
Answer:
Delhi is located between 28°22″ N. latitude and 28°54″ N. latitude. It is in Temperate Belt. It records low temperatures but there is no snowfall.

Question 9.
The earth is rotating daily in such a high speed. But why don’t we feel this?
Answer:
The earth is rotating in such a speed with all its – atmosphere, human, animal and plant kingdoms. So we don’t feel this.

Question 10.
Appreciate the rotation and revolution.
Answer:
The Earth is rotating and revolving since her birth without any rest. If it stops for a while, the life on the Earth may get disappeared. So a lot of thanks to Mother Earth.

Question 11.
Which season is important out of all the seasons?
Answer:
All the seasons are important. The existence of all the seasons only supports the life on the earth.

Question 12.
What are the factors that influence the order of seasons?
Answer:
The factors that influence the order of seasons are:

1. The spherical shape of the Earth and the curvature of its surface.
2. Daily rotation of the Earth on its own Axis.
3. The tilt of the Axis of rotation compared to the plane on which the Earth moves.
4. The Earth’s movement around the Sun once a year (revolution).

Question 13.
From where can we see the axis of the earth?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is an imaginary line. We cannot see it.

Question 14.
The earth is rotating daily in such a high speed. But why don’t we feel this?
Answer:
The earth is rotating in such a speed with all its – atmosphere, human, animal and plant kingdoms. So we don’t feel this.

Question 15.
Appreciate the rotation and revolution.
Answer:
The Earth is rotating and revolving since her birth without any rest. If it stops for a while, the life on the Earth may get disappeared. So a lot of thanks to Mother Earth.

Question 16.
Which season is important out of all the seasons?
Answer:
All the seasons are important. The existence of all the seasons only supports the life on the earth.

Question 17.
Draw the important latitudes.
Answer:

Question 18.
Draw the temperature belts on the earth.
Answer:

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Energy from the Sun.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Energy from the Sun

Question 1.
What is meant by Insolation?
The radiation received on the surface of a body is called insolation.

Question 2.
What is meant by Radiation?
Answer:
When a body gives out energy it is called radiation.

Question 3.
What are the forms of sun’s energy?
Answer:
Light, heat, UV rays, radio waves and X-rays are the forms of sun’s energy.

Question 4.
Arrange the following temperatures from the highest to the lowest:
12°C, -16°C, 29°C, 0°C, – 4°C.
Answer:
29°C, 12°C, 0°C, -4°C, – 16°C.

Question 5.
What will happen if the inversion occurs?
Answer:
When inversion occurs cold air underlies warmer air.

Question 6.
Give three possible explanations for the differences between the average temperatures in Thiruvananthapuram and Shimla in January.
Answer:
A) Tiruvananthapuram is situated on sea coast.
B) Shimla is on high altitude.
C) Tiruvananthapuram is near to the equator and Shimla is far away from the equator.

Question 7.
Between Bhopal, Delhi, Mumbai and Shimla, which two places show a similar temperature pattern? How can you explain the similarity between these two places?
Answer:
Bhopal and Delhi show a similar temperature pattern. This is because these two are far away from the sea.

Question 8.
Which continents are there near to the equator?
Answer:
South America, Africa and Asia continents are there near to the equator.

Question 9.
Give reasons for ditference in temperature of a location:
a) height from sea level.
b) distance from the sea
c) distance from equator
d) all the above
e) some of the above
Answer: d

Question 10.
What is the relation between temperature and rainfall?
Answer:
The amount of rain in 2 places is determined by temperature differences between them.

Question 11.
How do we have variation in vegetation and animal life?
Answer:
Temperature and rainfall affect life in very critical ways. Plants and animals depend upon heat and water.
Only certain kinds of trees and plants will grow in hot regions and some other kinds will grow in cold regions and in very cold regions, nothing grows. Thus we have variation in vegetation and animal life.

Question 12.
What are the forms of sun’s energy?
Answer:
Light, heat, UV rays, radio waves and X-rays are the forms of sun’s energy.

Question 13.
Which results in ‘Global Warming’?
Answer:
Some gases like CO₂ prevent radiation of heat from the earth. CO₂ in the atmosphere N increases due to increased use of diesel and petrol, cutting down of forests etc. If the CO₂ proportion in the atmosphere increases, then less heat will be radiated causing increase in global temperature. This results in ‘Global Warming’.

Question 14.
Appreciate the ‘green houses’.
Answer:
Green houses are also called Glass houses. Green house is a building in which plants are grown. These are climate controlled. It works by taking sunlight and heating it up. This process is the conversion of solar energy to thermal energy. It gives plants both temperate heat and a good water source. The creation of green house is excellent.

Question 15.
What are the effects of ‘Global warming’?
Answer:
Global warming is the increase of Earth’s average surface temperature due to effect of green house gases, such as carbon dioxide emissions from burning fossil fuels or from deforestation.

Question 16.
The sun is the primary source of energy. The trees are the factories which produce food from sunlight. Are we growing or cutting down such trees? Discuss the advantages of trees and our responsibility in growing them.
Answer:
We are cutting down trees more than we grow.
The advantages of Trees:

1. Trees can reduce air temperature by blocking sunlight. Further cooling occurs when water evaporates from the leaf surface. The conversion of water to air vapour … a chemical process …. removes heat energy from the air.
2. A tree can be a natural air conditioner.
3. Trees absorb and block noise and reduce glare.
4. Fallen treen leaves can reduce soil temperature and soil moisture loss.
5. Trees create an ecosystem to provide habitat and food for birds and other animals.
6. Trees absorb CO₂ and potentially harmful gasses from the air and release O₂.
7. Trees help to reduce surface water runoff from storms, thus decreasing soil erosion and the accumulation of sediments in streams. They increase ground water recharge and reduce the number of potentially harmful chemicals transported to our streams.
8. Dews and frosts are less under tree because less radiant heat is lost at night.

Question 17.
Locate the following in the given world map.

1. Equator
2. Poles
3. Russia
4. Australia 5)India

Answer:

Question 18.
Observe the given map and answer the following questions.
1. What is the line to south of equator?
Answer:
Tropic of Capricorn.

2. This is ……… Projection.
Answer:
Robinson

3. Which continents are there near to the equator?
Answer:
South America, Africa and Asia.

Project
Observe some families in your village / locality and fill up the following table.

S.No.	Name of the family head	No.of electricity bulbs used	Type			Electricity bill (in rupees)
			Bulb	Tube	CFL

Educate the families about the energy-saving measures and then conduct the same survey again after three month and compare the difference.
Answer:

S.No.	Name of the family head	No.of electricity bulbs used	Type			Electricity bill (in rupees)
			Bulb	Tube	CFL
1.	Malleswara Rao	10	4	4	2	1000 ₹
2.	Subba Rao	9	3	4	2	1200 ₹
3.	Sunil	10	4	4	2	800 ₹

Above families used more electricity bulbs especially tubes & bulbs. They are using very less CFL’s. By using more bulbs they get every month more electricity bill. That’s why, I explain to them about the importance of electricity, how we are wasting and our future generations will face the problems and I said, use more CFL’s to reduce the wastage of power & minimise the bill. After three months I went to their houses and saw the power bill really I admired because they reduce the power using and use CFL’s also. Due to this they save the power and get less electricity bill.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 10 Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam

Question 1.
Did the Zamindar own all the lands of the villages in the Mughal times?
Answer:
No. They owned some of the village lands. They had the power to collect revenue from the villagers. Rest of the land was owned by peasants and others.

Question 2.
What did the Zamindars do for the Mughal government and what did they get in return?
Answer:
The Zamindars collected the revenue from the peasantry on behalf of Mughal emperors. In return they received a share of revenue collected. Sometimes they also had right to collect some small local taxes.

Question 3.
How would the changes have affected the position of the farmers who tilled the land for several generations?
Answer:

1. This settlement inadvertently converted all the peasants into the tenants.
2. Since rent collected was much higher than the revenue, the cultivators could not pay and sometimes deserted the lands. These were the affects.

Question 4.
What is the difference between revenue and rent?
Answer:
Revenue: Tax on land which is paid to the Zamindars or government.
Rent: Amount paid to the owners of the land for using and cultivating it.

Question 5.
In what ways did the government invest in agriculture during the early British rule? Do you think it could have been done by farmers themselves?
Answer:

1. The Britishers made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones,
2. They constructed anicuts & canals. It could not have been done by farmers themselves.

Question 6.
How was a ‘dora’ different from an ordinary landlord?
Answer:
The large landlords were called Doras. They had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. Ordinary landlords were under the control of these ‘doras’. Landlords should follow the orders of ‘Doras’. This is the difference between them.

Question 7.
How do you think it was possible for the zamindars to keep increasing their incomes without increasing investment in the land?
Answer:
The prices of grains in the market rose and cultivation slowly expanded. So there was an increase in the income of Zamindars without increasing investment in the land.

Question 8.
Who do you think would have benefited from the Ryotwari Settlement – the farmers, the landlords or the British? Give reasons.
Answer:
The landlords would have benefited from the Ryotwari settlement.
Reasons:

1. There was an increase in the number of landlords in the Ryotwari area.
2. They showed much interest in giving their lands on rents rather than cultivation.

Question 9.
Why do you think the ryots did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture?
Answer:
The prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them. So they did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture.

Question 10.
Who ultimately profited from production for export market and why?
Answer:
Moneylenders profited ultimately from production for export market. They lent more and more money to farmers on high-interest rates and profited.

Question 11.
Discuss the changes in the lives of traditional crafts persons and village artists.
Answer:
Traditional crafts persons are adding technology to their tradition. As the prices are high, there is no demand for their products. Village artists had enjoyed the encouragement of the Kings and Zamindars. Now they lack it. So their lives are in worse condition.

Question 12.
How are we paying the taxes nowadays?
Answer:
At present revenue is paid in the form of money.

Question 13.
Have you heard of any similar rapid rise or decline in prices of any agricultural produce in our own times? Find out about its impact on the farmers.
Answer:
In recent past, there was an increase in the prices of rice and red gram. Later they were reduced by the government. Peasants grew some crops thinking of high profits. If the demand fell, they would get losses that year.

Question 14.
Why do you think the Zamindars kept the soldiers and small forts?
Answer:
Zamindars had some villages under their control. They were the mediators between the rulers and the ruled. They had much income also. So they lived in small forts.
To protect their people from thefts and attacks, to collect revenues they needed soldiers. So they maintained them.

Question 15.
Why did the high revenue rates prevent zamindars and farmers from improving agriculture?
Answer:
As they paid heavy rates of rents and revenue from their income, they were not able to improve agriculture. They used the remaining amounts for their household purposes.

Question 16.
During the freedom movement the Zamindars normally supported the British. Can you explain why?
Answer:
The policies of Zamindars created a gap between them and their people. They earned more assets in the British reign. So they normally supported the British during the freedom movement.

Question 17.
Who introduced the Permanent Settlement of Tax and when?
Answer:
Cornwallis introduced this in 1793.

Question 18.
Why did the war in America lead to increase in prices of cotton in India?
Answer:
In 1861, there was Civil war in America and British factories turned to India for supply of cotton. As a result cotton prices soared high.

Question 19.
Why were famines caused under British rule? Do you think it was because of failure of rains or floods?
Answer:
The rains and floods caused one or two famines during the British rule. Most of the famines occurred due to their dictatorial rule. They exported food grains in the famines. They had no interference when the merchants created artificial scarcity by hoarding food grains. They didn’t work for the welfare of the people in India. So the famines were caused.

Question 20.
Write the names of any two peasant movements.
Answer:
The Deccan riots of 1860s, Rampa fituries, Moppila agitations etc.

Question 21.
Match the following.
1) 1865/66 ( ) A) Dhawaleshwaram anicut
2) 1860      ( ) B) Anicut over the Krishna river at Vijayawada
3) 1793      ( ) C) Ganjam famine
4) f1849     ( ) D) Permanent settlement
5) 1854      ( ) E) The Deccan riots
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) B

Question 22.
Imagine that you live in the ‘Ceded Districts’, find put about the Palegars who fought with the British.
Answer:
Many wars were broken out between Palegars and the British from 1798 to 1805. First war was fought between Veerapandya and the British in 1799. Second main war was fought between a group of Palegars and the British. After a long and expensive campaign the British finally defeated the revolting Palegars of whom many were beheaded and hanged while others were deported to the Andaman Islands. Of the Palegars who submitted to the British some of them granted Zamindari status, which had only tax collection rights and disarmed them completely.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Public Health and the Government.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government

Question 1.
Why are children given food in the anganwadis?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh about 33% of children below 5 years of age were characterised as under weight. This is due to hunger and malnutrition. So the government decided to feed these children through Anganwadis.

Question 2.
What problems do we face in private hospitals?
Answer:
Problems in private hospitals : We should pay more money here. Medicines also cost very high. Some may cause unnecessary tensions to the patient families.

Question 3.
What should be available in every village as part of the public health system?
Answer:
Asha worker, nutrition, immunisation facilities, weighing machine etc., should be available in every village as part of the public health system.

Question 4.
List some public health centres or hospitals near your place.
Answer:
We have public health centre in Vadali. In a short distance we have P.H.C. at Mudinepalli. We have a centre of R.M.P. in our village.

Question 5.
Is the water you drink at school clean?
Answer:
Yes, the water at our school is clean.

Question 6.
In your opinion, what is one most important improvement that should be made for the mid-day meal being served at your school?
Answer:
The quality of rice should be changed. Better quality should be maintained.

Question 7.
Write any two reasons for doctors not accepting rural posting?
Answer:

1. Rural backwardness,
2. Lack of modern facilities.

Question 8.
Why are people approaching private hospitals though the government hospitals are functioning?
Answer:
The state government is issuing ‘Aarogya Sri’ cards to people even though the government hospitals are functioning. The people also may take this as ideal.

Question 9.
Read the first paragraph under the heading ‘Basic Public Facilities’ (Textbook page No. 105) and answer the question:
Is there any provision of safe drinking water in your area? Explain.
Answer:
Ours is Singarayapalem village in Mudinepalli Mandal. We have two tanks in our village. Water in one tank is purified and lifted to another water tank. From there it is supplied to the whole village. So we are all protected from many diseases. Our Panchayat looks after all these works.

Question 10.
1. Let us examine the situation through the AP Human Development Report, 2007 which states: “Freedom from hunger and malnutrition is a basic human right and a fundamental prerequisite for human and national development. Better nutrition means stronger Immunity systems, less illness and better health. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), poor nutrition contributes to 1 out of 2 deaths (53 percent) associated with infectious diseases among children below five in developing countries. In Andhra Pradesh, about 33 per cent of children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight. About 31 percent of women and 25 per cent of men are undernourished.”
Read the above para and prepare a question.
Answer:
“What is useful for the development of humankind?”

2. Why are people approaching private hospitals though the government hospitals are functioning ? Write your opinion on this issue.
Answer:
The state government is issuing ‘Aarogya Sri’ cards to people even though the government hospitals are functioning. The people also may take this as ideal.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 Impact of Technology on Livelihoods.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods

Question 1.
What happens when Combined Harvesters are used?
Answer:
Agricultural labourers lose the jobs of harvesting the crop, threshing and cleaning the grains from chaff when Combined Harvesters are used.

Question 2.
Why do farmers use Combined Harvesters?
Answer:
Due to excess benefits by using Combined Harvesters, the farmers are using these Combined Harvesters.

Question 3.
What happened with the invention of steam engine?
Answer:
The steam engine changed many production processes in factories.

Question 4.
What is called an invention?
Answer:
When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time, it is called an invention.

Question 5.
Write the names of any two machines.
Answer:
X-ray machines and power looms.

Question 6.
What can we use instead of rubber?
Answer:
We can use plastic instead of rubber.

Question 7.
Write any two advantages of Mobile phones.
Answer:

1. They reduce the distances between people.
2. Emergency messages can be conveyed within seconds.

Question 8.
Write any two disadvantages of Mobile phones.
Answer:

1. They pollute the minds of children.
2. They cause disturbance in the circulation of electro-magnetic waves of one’s body, who uses it.

Question 9.
What comes under service sectors? What is the technological change in it?
Answer:

1. Services include activities that support agriculture and industries. All the trading activities are also services.
2. Technological changes also affect service activities.
3. Due to this there is a rapid change in communications. They are available at the lowest rates.

Question 10.
Write any two advantages and two disadvantages of Mobile phones.
Answer:
Advantages:

1. They reduce the distances between people.
2. Emergency messages can be conveyed within seconds.

Disadvantages:

1. They pollute the minds of children.
2. They cause a disturbance in the circulation of electro-magnetic waves of one’s body, who uses it.

Question 11.
Appreciate the ladies ¡n the following figures.

Answer:
The women in the left side picture are in their traditional dress and repairing community radio. They are caring their children also. They are very conscious in their work.
The women in the right side picture are like white flowers. They are also repairing Telephone assembly line. The way they sit discloses their dedication to the work.

Question 12.
Observe the following table and answer the given questions.

State	1988	2009
Telangana & A.P.	5,29,000	1,24,700
Gujarat	24,000	3,900
Karnataka	1,03,000	40,500
Maharashtra	80,000	4,500
Madhya Pradesh	43,000	3,600
Punjab	22,000	300
Tamil Nadu	5,56,000	1,55,000

a) What was the change in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?
Answer:
There was a decline in handloom units.

b) Of all the states, which had more decline?
Answer:
Punjab state.

c) Of all the states, which two states were having more units in 2009?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Tamilnadu

d) Where did most of the changes take place either in Northern India or in Southern India?
Answer:
In Northern India.

e) Which units is this table related to?
Answer:
This table is related to handloom units.

Question 13.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
The steam engine changed many production processes in factories. Later on with a new source of energy such as electricity, factories that we see them today emerged. When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time, it is called an invention. However, practical application of these ideas takes a long time and depends on many factors. These could be improvements to make the technology effective, reducing cost of new techniques, acceptance of a new way or product. Technical developments or technical improvements can be due to completely new types of machinery (X ray machines and power looms), or changes in the types of raw materials used (plastic instead of rubber), or reorganisation of production processes.

a) What happened with the invention of steam engine?
Answer:
The steam engine changed many production processes in factories.

b) Why were the factories emerged?
Answer:
New sources of energy such as electricity etc., emerged the factories.

c) What is called an invention?
Answer:
When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time,it is called an invention.

d) Write the names of any two machines.
Answer:
X-ray machines and powerlooms.

e) What can we use instead of rubber?
Answer:
We can use plastic instead of rubber.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 Money and Banking.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson Money and Banking

Question 1.
How do we usually exchange old clothes?
Answer:
We usually exchange old clothes with steel utensils. This depends mostly on the seller.

Question 2.
How do we usually exchange plastic & newspaper?
Answer:
We usually exchange these with onion traders. He gives 1 1/2 kg onions for 1 kg plastic or newspaper.

Question 3.
How do we exchange hair?
Answer:
Money is offered for hair.

Question 4.
How do we exchange paddy?
Answer:
In our village paddy is exchanged for services rendered by washerman, barber etc.

Question 5.
Ask your parents how washermen, barbers, need kaavalikaru were paid for their work in villages and towns.
Answer:
Nowadays they are paid money only. But 15 years ago our parents paid them in the form of paddy.

Question 6.
When should one use fixed deposits for savings?
Answer:
The money invested in fixed deposits should not be withdrawn in the given period. Then only one can use fixed deposits for savings.

Question 7.
If a very large number of account-holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank, how will it affect the bank’s working?
Answer:
This affects the reserves of a bank. The bank cannot lend loans to customers. This affects their income. As a result it is impossible to run a bank.

Question 8.
Suppose you need Rs. 2000. You fill a cheque and give it to your friend and send her to get the money in cash. What happens?
Answer:
Bankers reject this cheque. Bankers never give cash to the cheques. The sister should have an account in the branch. Then only she can withdraw the amount.

Question 9.
What are the names of some banks you know?
Answer:

1. Kotak Mahindra,
2. State Bank of India,
3. Andhra Bank,
4. Indian Bank.

Question 10.
Name some durable metals.
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold.

Question 11.
Are all the problems solved with the invention of money?
Answer:
With the invention of money, some problems remained and new problems came up.

Question 12.
Why were metals preferred for use as money?
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around Since they were scarce they became acceptable by all. So the metals were preferred for use as money.

Question 13.
Do you think minting of coins was a good idea?
Answer:
Yes, I think so. But the quality and measurement should be perfect as per norms.

Question 14.
Why do banks ask for security while lending?
Answer:
There is no personal relation and identification between the bank people and their customers. If the bank people failed to recollect the debts, it leads to bankrupt. So banks ask for security while lending.

Question 15.
What will happen if some borrowers do not repay the bank loan?
Answer:
The bank collects the loan from the guarantors or disposes the mortgage.
For e.g.: If any customer fails to repay the housing loan, the bank sells the house in auction. It takes the loan amount and gives the remaining amount to the customer.

Question 16.
What a crossed cheque?
Answer:
The cheque which is crossed as on the left side top of the cheque.

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks:
1. If we use ———– there will be no problem in exchanging commodities.
2. Exchange of goods and services with each other is called ———– system.
Answer:
1. money
2. barter

Question 18.
Why do we save money in a bank?
Answer:
Money kept at home does not earn interest. But, money kept in a bank account does. If you keep money in the bank it wili grow.
In the villages, poor peoples incomes are irregular and unpredictable. You have to cope with a bad crop season, loss of employment, illness or death in the family. You also need money for marriages and festivals. Saving money in a bank account helps you smoothen your income.
Money is safe in bank, please check, if the bank in which you intend to keep your hard earned money is licensed, please do not share bank account details with anybody. Protecting your bank acount is as important as opening and using it.

Question 19.
How do we open a bank account for a Minor?
Answer:
A savings/fixed/recurring bank deposit account can be opened by a minor of any age through his/her natural or legally appointed guardian.
Minors above the age of 10 years are allowed to open and operate savings bank accounts independently, subject to bank’s risk management systems that are in place.
Additional banking facilities like internet banking, ATM / debit card, cheque book facility etc., are allowed. But minor accounts are not allowed to be overdrawn and should always remain in credit.

Question 20.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions.
Over time, people preferred scarce and attractive metals as medium of exchange. Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around. Since they were scarce, they became acceptable by all. People could buy and sell with the assurance that the money they had in hand would be valuable and sought by others. They did not have to worry that their money might lose value as could happen with grains or cattle. However, some problems remained and new problems came up. For every exchange, the metal had to be weighed and later on traders were not sure about the quality of the metal. What one might get in exchange may not be pure gold or silver. After sometime, there was a serious problem of trust in the quality of metal that was used as money for exchange.
1. Name some durable metals.
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold

2. What was the assurance of the people?
Answer:
People could buy and sell with the assurance that the money they had in hand would be valuable and sought by others.

3. Why did the people not have to worry?
Answer:
They did not have to worry that their money might lose value as could happen with grains or cattle.

4. Are all the problems solved with the invention of money?
Answer:
With the invention of money, some problems remained and new problems came up.

5. People preferred scarce and attractive metals as
Answer:
Medium of exchange.

Question 21.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions.
In many towns and cities representatives of all banks meet on each day to settle what each bank has to pay to the other and receive from the other. Cheques that have been verified are handed over to each other. One of the banks works as the Clearing Bank where all the banks have an account. The payments and receipts between banks are done by this Clearing Bank.

In the present system, all banks and most of their branches are linked by computers. All deposit holder accounts and their signatures can be accessed by the branches anywhere. Hence representatives don’t have to meet nor do banks have to send cheques to the outstation branches. The transaction between one bank and another is done through interlinked com-puters. This makes the whole system work faster and in an easier manner.

1. Who meet on each day?
Answer:
In many towns and cities representatives of all banks meet on each day.

2. What did they exchange?
Answer:
Cheques that have been verified are handed over to each other.

3. What is the work of Clearing Bank?
Answer:
The payments and receipts between banks are done by the Clearing Bank.

4. What is the novelty in the present system?
Answer:
In the present system all banks and most of their branches are linked by computers.

5. What is the result of this?
Answer:
This makes the whole system work faster and in an easier manner.

Question 22.
Read the following passage and prepare two questions.
Paper money also has its defects. It will tear and get dirty. So there is an idea of using plastic material for notes. Plastic or polymer currency is easy to handle, more durable and forgery can be detected easily. It is water-proof and eco friendly (recycling is easy). From metal to paper and now probably paper to plastic.
Answer:

1. What are the defects of paper money?
2. What are the advantages of paper or polymer currency?

Question 23.
Locate any three places of early bankers of India in the given Indian map.
Answer:

Discussion
Invite the local postmaster/postman to your class and conduct the interaction on different saving schemes.
Answer:
Children: Good morning, Sir.
Postmaster: Good morning, Children.
Children: Sir, we want to know about different saving schemes in the post office.
Postmaster: For especially students some saving schemes are introduced in post offices to habituate the savings by children whenever they get pocket money without wastage, it is useful to them buy books in higher classes.
Children: Please Sir, explain such schemes.
Postmaster: Recurring deposit: This is one of the important saving scheme.
Children: Sir, how should we save money in this scheme?
Postmaster: Children this is monthly scheme. From above Rs.10 to how much we need we should save for a certain period of time.
Children: Sir, is there any other schemes.
Postmaster: Savings account.
Children: Sir, How should we maintain this?
Postmaster: Children, in this scheme we opened an account on our name and whenever we have surplus amount should deposit in our account.
Children: Sir, very interesting, is there any other schemes?
Postmaster: Sukanya scheme, this is for only girls.
Children: Sir, we have interest to know about more schemes.
Postmaster: Children, another scheme is also there, that is fixed deposit.
Children: Please, explain Sir.
Postmaster: In this scheme we will deposit our money for a certain period of time, like 1 year, 2 years, 3 years. But we will get interest on behalf of this deposit.
Children: Thank you Sir, today we know more valuablé information about saving schemes in the post office.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 4th Lesson The Polar Regions Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 4th Lesson The Polar Regions

8th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson The Polar Regions Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning
Question 1.
Re-write the false statements with correct facts:
a) Animal body parts were used only in clothing.
Answer:
True: Animal body parts were used in food, construction of houses, clothes, and in making weapons.

b) Major part of the food includes vegetables.
Answer:
True: Major part of the food includes animal meat and fish.

c) Popular games amongst the people in Tundra are closely related to their daily lives.
Answer:
True

d) Contact with people from outside impacted their health.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Based on what you studied about equator regions in Class VII, how is polar region different?
Answer:

Equator region	Polar region
1. This extends from 0° to 23\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)° North and South latitudes.	1. This extends from 66\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)° N latitude to 90°N.
2. The Sun’s rays fall straight on this region.	2. The Sun’s rays fall slantingly on this region.
3. This region has 3 main seasons.	3. This region has 2 main seasons.
4. Formation of day and night occurs in one day.	4. Formation of day and night occurs in one year.
5. The people of this region lead settled life.	5. The people of this region lead nomadic life.
6. They have contacts with rest of the world.	6. They have less contacts with rest of the world.

Question 3.
What are the ways in which life of people in Tundra are dependent on climate of the region? Describe in the context of following aspects:

Food	Dress	Travel	Shelter

Answer:
Climate influences the people of the Tundra.

Food	Dress	Travel	Shelter
Cereals and grains are not cultivated here due to frozen ice. They should lead their life with meat and fish. They cannot even cook the food. So they should eat raw meat. They store the food in the frozen ice.	These people wear skins of animals and their fur. They should wear clothes from top of the head to bottom of the feet. They wear two piece dresses and and designed.	They need vehicles which are wide in shape to travel in ice. So they travel on platform like vehi­cles called sledges. These are drawn by polar dogs. They use kayaks and umiyaks to travel in waters in summers.	The land is covered with a layer of snow. Laying foundation is not possible. So they live in wooden tents covered with animal skins. And also they construct houses of ice blocks. They use ice blocks to sleep as cots.

Question 4.
In this chapter there are many aspects that are very different from the place where you live. Look at the subheadings in this chapter and make a list of them. Now create a wall paper with illustrations and descriptions comparing life in your location with that in the Tundra.
Answer:
The comparison between the life of the people of N. polar region and that of the people of the equatorial region

Question 5.
Imagine one entire day (24 hours) when the Sun does not set and another day when there is no Sun. What changes will you make in your daily lives ? Write a short note on them.
Answer:
When the Sun does not set: We should shut all the doors and windows of our house and make it dark to sleep. Rest of the day will be okay.
When there is no Sun: We should arrange lights probably flood lights to get light everywhere. Then we should perform our daily works.
This is possible for only one day.

Question 6.
Find out the five living places of Eskimos in the world map
Answer:
Greenland, Alaska, Canada, Siberia, Lapland are the five places shown in the below map.

8th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson The Polar Regions InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which continent parts fall within this region? (Textbook Page No. 40)
Answer:
North America, Europe and some parts of Russia fall within this region.

Question 2.
Try to recall what happens as we move away from the equator. (Textbook Page No. 40)
Answer:
Temperature falls when we move from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
Mention five points about the summer in Tundra. (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:

1. The Sun begins to shine in the tundra around February-March. In the beginning the Sunsets within a short time.
2. For almost three months from May to July, the Sun never sets.
3. The Sun does not rise overhead. It just hovers a little above the horizon. So it is never very warm.
4. Due to the relatively warm weather, some of the ice melts. The rivers, lakes melt and begin to flow.
5. When summer approaches, many multi-coloured plants, lichens, grass, shrubs and berries sprout around.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks : (Textbook Page No. 42)
1. The Sun does not appear during the month of November, December and January.
2. At this time, the water freezes and the plants cover with the snow.

Question 5.
How do the people of Tundra get light in winter ? (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:
There will be no sunlight during the winter in the polar region. At this time, the light of stars
falls on the ice, reflects, and fills the region with bright colourful lights. These are known as ‘Aurora Borialisis’. During winter they get light with these Aurora borialisis, oil and fat lamps.
In what ways are the resources available in their surroundings used for making houses? (Textbook Page No. 45)

1. They use skins of animals and wood for tents.
2. They use logs and whale ribs in building round houses.
3. They form ice blocks (like bricks) and build domed houses.

Thus they use available resources in the surroundings.

Question 6.
Did you see any tree in the pictures on the previous page? (Textbook Page No. 42)
Answer:
No. Grass and small bushes are visible in the pictures given.

Question 7.
Look at the pictures in this chapter (The Polar Region). How has that dress and hunting changed? (Textbook Page No. 48)
Answer:
The people of the earlier times wore raw skins of animals. They are too heavy. They use the horns of animals, harpoons, sharp edged instruments to hunt.
In the modern times they wore designed caps, dresses which are light in weight. Guns occupied the place of traditional weapons.

Question 8.
Why do you think people probably always did not live in the Tundra region? (Textbook Page No. 43)
Answer:
There are no seasons or seasonal differences in tundras. They have likely temperatures and seasons. They face nominal summers. So they cannot cultivate crops here. They have no tasty foods and different kinds of foods. During winters the whole region becomes dark, deserted and desolate. So they did not live here throughout the year.

Question 9.
How is the house impacted by the climate? (Textbook Page No. 45)
Answer:
Their houses are called igloos. In summer, most Eskimos live in tents made of animal skins. In some areas, they made tents of wood and animal skins. They use logs and whale ribs also for this. They use stone slabs in some areas. Snow houses are made from blocks of packed snow, built into a dome. They build snow platforms for their sleep. As the area is covered with snow they cannot lay foundations and they cannot lead a settled life. Thus the house is impacted by the climate.

Question 10.
Do you think lives of people in Tundra have changed for better or worsened because of their interaction with outside world? Give reasons for your answer. (Textbook Page No. 48)
Answer:
The lives of people in Tundra have changed for better or worst both because of their interaction with the outside world.

The pattern of relations between the Eskimos and outsiders has been described as “boom and bust”. Waves of outsiders have brought brief periods of wealth, education, and employment. This was followed by periods of poverty and disorganisation. Peak periods have been those of whaling (1859 to 1910), the modern fur trade (1925 to about 1950), the building of military and defence bases (the mid-1950s), the building of urban centres (mid- 1960s), and oil exploration and development (the 1970s).

Each wave of activity has drawn the Eskimos into contact with different social and economic forces. The once isolated northlands have been opened up by air travel, highways, powerful modern ships, and satellite communications. These changes have produced great strains on the Eskimo way of life.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Minerals and Mining.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining

Question 1.
How has been the contribution of mining to economy identified in this chapter?
Answer:
India is underdeveloped country immediately after independence. These mines yield income to the government and also get royalty, when the mines were given to others. So I think this is the contribution of mining to economy.

Question 2.
What is the use of the stick in coal mines?
Answer:
The stick is used to check the blasted place in the mine by tapping.

Question 3.
What is meant by SCCL?
Answer:
Singareni Collieries Company Limited.

Question 4.
Write about the quality of Barytes.
Answer:
Barytes available in the upper layers are of lower grade while those mined from depth are of higher grade. Quality is determined by the grain size of the stone.

Question 5.
How many kinds of minerals are there? What are they?
Answer:
Environmentalists differentiate minerals into two kinds of resources-renewable and non-renewable. Renewable resources are those which can be regenerated like wood.
Most minerals are non-renewable. There is only a limited amount of these available on the earth. If we finish them then there will not be any more of it. These are called non-renewable sources of energy, e.g.: gold, coal, petroleum.

Question 6.
Match the following.
1) Bauxite     ( ) A) Non-conductors of electricity
2) Mica         ( ) B) Roof sheets
3) Chrome    ( ) C) Aluminium
4) Asbestos  ( ) D) Wash basin
5) Feldspar   ( ) E) Stainless steel
Answer:
1) C,
2) A,
3) E,
4) B,
5) D

Question 7.
Fili in the blanks:
1. Ten rings in Hollage indicates danger.
2. Narrow tunnel in mine is mine shaft.
3. Coal layer is called coal seam.
4. The coal drilling area is called face.
5. Coal is transported through conveyor belts.

Question 8.
Appreciate the mineral resources of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Mineral Resources of Andhra Pradesh:
Andhra Pradesh is very rich in mineral resources. It is a large producer of granites of various colours, Kadapa stones, etc., used in buildings. It also produces limestone and dolomite used in cement industry. Northern districts have large coal deposits (Kothagudem in Godavari valley) while the Krishna Godavari basin has great potential for mineral oil and gas. AP is historically known for its famous diamond mines too and some of the largest diamonds in the world were found here.

Question 9.
What are the sensitivities in obtaining minerals from mines?
Answer:
Most of the mining practices result in disturbing the surface area – it can mean cutting down forests, destroying fields and habitations, creating large pits or mounds. Mines also need large amounts of water to wash the minerals. This results in polluting the nearby rivers and water sources. This usually means that older use of the land cannot be continued and farmers or tribal people have to leave the land. Even people who live nearby face problems created by mining. At the same time mining employs a large number of people who come to live in nearby areas and build new townships. It thus provides livelihood for nearly ten lakh people in India and over one lakh people in Andhra Pradesh. The work of miners is also very hazardous, as they are constantly exposed to accidents besides breathing in poisonous substances which cause long term health damage.

Question 10.
What aspects of regulations in the mining by the government do you agree with? And why?
Answer:
If the government introduced sophisticated methods and technology instead of giving the mines on lease, I feel better.
The reasons are:

1. The private people may not take the safety measures.
2. Their attitudes may cause ‘0’ (zero) minerals to the future citizens.
3. The right percentage of royalty may not reach the government properly.
4. The unused mines may not be closed in view of expenditure.

So I support the government regulation only.

Question 11.
Why is the SCCL interested in open cast?
Answer:
When compared to underground mines, the open casts are less expensive. Machines can be used widely in these. So SCCL is interested in open casts.

Question 12.
Why is the mining of atomic fuels in the hands of government?
Answer:
Atomic fuels are most valuable. We have less reserves of them. They play a key role in our safety. So they are in the hands of government.

Question 13.
Why should the residents of mining areas be rehabilitated?
Answer:
The residents of mining areas are the owners of those lands. The lands are confiscated from them by force. So they should be rehabilitated.

Question 14.
Read a news report of 29 June 2009:

Sinqareni coal mines open wounds

By Our Correspondent
WARANGAL, June 28: Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) has decided to adopt Open Cast Mining (OCM), to meet the demand for coal. The decision could render 20,000 people homeless and affect 200 villages. The mines will also affect an estimated 3,000 hectares of forests.

“If the mining underground produces 1,500 tonnes of coal a day, open cast mines pro-duce 10,000 tonnes per day and obviously at a much lesser cost,” said a senior SCCL official.

While that is so, the open cast mining will displace thousands of families, destroy scores of habitations and cause loss of livelihood to locals. According to the company official, the company will pay compensatory afforestation charges and develop forests on an equal amount of land where it has lopped off the jungles. It will pay Rs. 4.38 to Rs. 10.43 lakh per hectare, he said. The local people also complained that due to these mines which dig up the earth and create huge artificial hills of loose earth, rivers and streams are getting choked and ground water is getting polluted and there is acute scarcity of even drinking water.

Now answer the following questions.
1. When was this news published?
Answer:
It was of 29-6-2009.

2. What is meant by SCCL?
Answer:
Singareni Collieries Company Limited.

3. What will happen with this decision?
Answer:
The decision could render 20,000 people homeless and affect 200 villages. The mines will also affect an estimated 3,000 hectares of forests.

4. Underground mines, open cast mines – which are profitable to the company?
Answer:
Opencast mines

5. What did the local people complain?
Answer:
The local people complained that due to these mines which dig up the earth and create huge artificial hills of loose earth, rivers and streams are getting choked and ground water is getting polluted and there is acute scarcity of even drinking water.

Question 15.
Look at the mineral map of Andhra Pradesh and fill the table.

Answer:

Mineral	Districts
Barytes	P.S.R. Nellore, Y.S.R Kadapa, Ongole.
Limestone	Ananthapur, Y.S.R. Kadapa, Ongole, Kurnool, Vizianagaram, Guntur, West Godavari.
Granite	Chittoor, Ongole, Krishna, Srikakulam, Vizianagaram.
Iron ore	Y.S.R. Kadapa, Ananthapur, Ongole, Krishna.
Mica	Nellore
Crude oil	West Godavari

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce

8th Class Social Studies 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements:

1. Colonial rulers promoted Cricket to be played between nations that were under their power.
2. People adopted the game to become westernised.
3. Indian villagers played cricket.
4. Cricket was introduced in schools to bring good manners.

Answer:

1. Correct.
2. False.
3. False.
4. Correct.

Correction of False statements:
2. People loved this game and adopted.
3. England villagers played cricket.

Question 2.
Give brief explanations for the following by reading the lesson:
a) The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.
b) The significance of the shift of the ICC head quarters from London to Dubai.
Answer:
a) The origins of Indian cricket, that is, cricket played by Indians are to be found in Bombay and the first Indian community to start playing the game was the small community of Parsis. Brought into close contact with the British because of their interest in trade and the first Indian community to westernise, the Parsis founded the first Indian cricket club, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848. Parsi clubs were funded and sponsored by Parsi businessmen like the Tatas and the Wadias. The white cricket elite in India offered no help to the enthusiastic Parsis. In fact, there was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana, a whites-only club, and Parsi cricketers over the use of a public park.

When it became clear that the colonial authorities were prejudiced in favour of English¬men, the Parsis built their own gymkhana to play cricket in. The rivalry between the Parsis and the racist Bombay Gymkhana had a happy ending for these pioneers of Indian cricket. A Parsi team beat the Bombay Gymkhana at cricket in 1889, just four years after the foundation
of the Indian National Congress in 1885.

b) Matches in Sydney could now be watched live in Surat. This simple fact shifted the balance of power in cricket: a process that had begun by the break-up of the British Empire was taken to its logical conclusion by globalisation. Since India had the largest viewership for the game amongst the cricket-playing nations and the largest market in the cricketing world, the game’s centre of gravity shifted to South Asia. This shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai.

Question 3.
Find out the history of any one local sport. Ask your parents or grandparents about how this game was played in their childhood. See whether it is played in the same way now. Try and think of the historical forces that might account for the changes.
Answer:
‘Kabaddi’ is our game. This was played by the Kouravas and Pandavas also. Kabaddi means ‘Continous sounding’. This is called ‘Chik-Chik’ in some areas, ‘Chedugudu’ in some areas. In our region we call it ‘Kabaddi’. This is a game between two groups. Each group has 12 members – 7 out of them will be in the court.
Some rules of the game:

1. This is Time based game.
   15 mts – 5 mts rest – 15 mts.
2. The persons who are ‘out’ should leave the court.
3. They can enter the court after getting a point.
4. If all the 7 members are ‘Out’, it is called ‘Lona’.
5. ‘2’ points will be awarded for ‘Lona’.

The rules will be framed and changed by the ‘Kabaddi Federation of India’. We have also such federation in our state.
This game had many changes. A change is introduced recently i.e., ‘Bonus Line Point’. When the 6 to 7 members are in the court, the opposite group person touches the bonus line, they get one additional point.
The player should not stop the ‘Sounding’.

Question 4.
How have advances in technology, especially television technology, influenced the development of contemporary cricket?
Answer:
Coloured dress, protective helmets, field restrictions, cricket under lights, became a standard part of the post-Packer game. Crucially, Packer drove home the lesson that cricket was a marketable game, which could generate huge revenues. Cricket boards became rich by selling television rights to television companies. Television channels made money by selling television spots to companies who were happy to pay large sums of money to advertise their products to cricket’s captive television audience. Continuous television coverage made cricketers celebrities who, besides being paid better by their cricket boards, now made even larger sums of money by making commercials for a wide range of products, from tyres to colas. Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the spectators for the game by beaming cricket into small towns and villages. It also broadened cricket’s social base. Children who had never previously had the chance to watch international cricket because they lived outside the big cities, could now watch and learn by imitating their heroes. The technology of satellite television and the world wide reach of multi-national television companies created a global market for cricket.
Thus the advances in TV technology influenced the development of contemporary cricket.

Question 5.
Prepare a pamphlet on the consequences of commercialisation of cricket.
Answer:

The commercialisation of Cricket – Its Consequences

Matches in Sydney could now be watched live in Surat. This simple fact shifted the balance of power in cricket: a process that had begun by the break-up of the British Empire was taken to its logical conclusion by globalisation. Since India had the largest viewership for the game amongst the cricket-playing nations and the largest market in the cricketing world, the game’s centre of gravity shifted to South Asia. This shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai.

A more important sign that the centre of gravity in cricket had shifted away from the old, Anglo – Australian axis is that innovations in cricket technique in recent years have mainly come from the practice of subcontinental teams in countries like India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Pakistan has pioneered two great advances in bowling: the ‘doosra’ and the ‘reverse swing’. Both skills were developed in response to subcontinental conditions: the doosra to counter aggressive batsmen with heavy modern bats who were threatening to make finger-spin obsolete and ‘reverse swing’ to move the ball in on dusty, unresponsive wickets under clear skies. Initially, both innovations were greeted with great suspicion by countries like Britain and Australia which saw them as an underhanded, illegal bending of the laws of cricket. In time, it came to be accepted that the laws of cricket could not continue to be framed for British or Australian conditions of play, and they became part of the technique of all bowlers, everywhere in the world.

One hundred and fifty years ago, the first Indian cricketers, the Parsis, had to struggle to find an open space to play in. Today, the global marketplace has made Indian players the best-paid, most famous and for whom the world is a stage. The history that brought about this transformation was made up of many smaller changes: the replacement of the gentlemanly amateur by the paid professional, the triumph of the one-day game and twenty twenty as it overshadowed Test cricket in terms of popularity, and the remarkable changes in global commerce and technology. The business of history is to make sense of change overtime.

Question 6.
Point out any five cricket playing countries on world map.
Answer:

1. South Africa
2. Zimbabwe
3. Australia
4. New Zealand
5. West Indies

Project
Collect information about any one game. Write the history of the game in the form of a report.
Answer:

Kabaddi

Kabaddi originated in the Southern Indian state of Tamilnadu, where it is derived from group hunting and village defence. Other forms of Kabaddi originated in Northern parts of India. Kabaddi is a concept sport that originated in ancient India.

Kabaddi also encompasses similar sports known by their regional names such as
Hududu – in Bangladesh
Baibalaa – in Maldieves
Chedugudu – in Andhra Pradesh
Sadugudu – in Tamilnadu and
Hututu – in Maharashtra

Kabaddi is the state game of Indian states of Tamilnadu, Maharashtra, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Punjab.
Kabaddi received international exposure during 1936 Berlin Olympics, demonstrated by India.
The game was introduced in the Indian National Games at Calcutta in 1938.

In 1950 All India Kabaddi Federation came into existence and framed the rules.
The AIKF was reconstituted as the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India in 1972 and the First National Tournament for men was held in Chennai.

Kabaddi was popularised by Indians in Japan also. Nowadays Women Kabaddi National Tournment were also conducting in India. It was included in Asian games also.

8th Class Social Studies 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What has been the relationship between the cricket and the idea of developing western culture? (Textbook Page No. 249)
Answer:
Cricket was invented in western country England. It was made popular in its colonial countries. Most of the changes were made by them only. So encouraging the cricket means the idea of developing western culture. This has been the relation.

Question 2.
List the changes that occurred with end of dominance of Test cricket. (Textbook Page No. 250)
Answer:

1. The 1970s was the decade in which cricket was transformed.
2. The dominance of test cricket was ended and one day internationals gained much popularity.
3. ‘Packer’s circus’ was run for 2 years.
4. Coloured dress, protective helmets, field restrictions, cricket under lights became a standard part of the post – Packer game.
5. Cricket was made a marketable game, which could generate huge revenues.
6. Cricket boards became rich by selling television rights to television companies.
7. Many companies spent large amount for advertisements.
8. Continuous television coverage made cricketers celebrities who, besides being paid better by their cricket boards, now made even larger sums of money by making commercials for a wide range of products.
9. Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the spectators for the game by beaming cricket into small towns and villages.
10. A global market for cricket is created.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 246)
1. Do you like to play games?
Answer:
Yes.

2. What games do you play?
Answer:
Khokho – Volleyball, Badminton.

3. Which game do you like best?
Answer:
Badminton.

4. Think of some sports which only girls or only boys participate.
Answer:

1. Sport of only girls: Thokkudu billa
2. Sport of only boys: Marbles.

5. Are some games played only in the villages?
Answer:
Yes, Chedugudu.

6. Are some games played only by very rich people?
Answer:
Yes, Golf.

Question 4.
Why do you play? (Textbook Page No. 246)
Put a (✓) if you agree with the reason given. Put (✕) if you disagree. If you find other reasons add them to the list.
Collect the views of all the students in the class and find out which reason is considered most important.
Answer:

Playing games is easy	✓
It is fun to play games	✓
Parents, teachers, friends appreciate	✓
Games are challenging	✓
Games keep the body healthy	✓
Lot of scope to imitate their favourites like Sachin, Sania	✓
Games are easier than studies	✕
Appear on the television	✕
No written tests and examinations in games	✕
Win medals in international games	✓
To bring glory to the country	✓
Win name, money and fame	✓

The following reason is considered most important.
“Games keep the body healthy”.

Question 5.
Did you notice that there is no single country called West Indies? Identify one of these islands that has the best athletes in running. (Textbook Page No. 247)
Answer:
West Indies are the Carribean Islands. They were present from 1958 to 1962 only on that name. At present some of them were sovereign islands, some are parts of St. Kitts and Nevis, some are dependable on UK and some on Dutch and one on U.S. So there is no single country called West Indies.
“USIAN BOLT’ is the best Athlete in running. He is from Jamaica Islands.

Question 6.
There are different sports equipments to play games as you can see here. You may notice that they are of very different quality than the one’s available in your local market. Do you think such equipments will be affordable for children to play for fun as against professional adults playing game for making money? (Textbook Page No. 249)
Answer:
These all are very costly equipments. No common man or player can buy these.

Professional adults earn money by playing with these equipments. In addition to this many big companies sponsor them. So they can buy.

Question 7.
After thinking about cricket for sometime Vinayak listed a few words that are only in English language – ‘boundary’, ‘over’, ‘wicket’. Can you explain to him why there are no Telugu words for it? (Textbook Page No. 251)
Answer:
Yes, I think I can explain. Cricket was invented in England. So the related words are all in English. It is not so easy to translate the words into Telugu. So they are not in Telugu.
For example, we have ‘Kabaddi’ –
We cannot translate this into English. We pronounce it as same in any language. (Textbook Page No. 247)

Question 8.
Locate the cricket playing nations in your atlas.
Answer:
Self exercise.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty

8th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statement/statements in the context of poverty as chronic hunger is true?
a. Having food only once a day
b. Having food below the required calorie
c. A person driving the harvester and person ploughing the field require the same calorie of food
d. Person ploughing the field requires more calorie than shop owner
e. Hunger also affects the person’s immune system
Answer:
a) True
b) True
c) False
d) True
e) True

Question 2.
Identify the major reasons for poverty described in the chapter.
Answer:
Big families, lack of chances according to capacity or eligibility, less wages/salaries, change in agricultural operations, crop failure and usage of machines etc., are the major reasons for poverty described in the chapter. The most important contributor to poverty is the lack of regular employment.

Question 3.
A) What have been the major features in programmes like MNREGA and PDS?
B) Which aspects of poverty do they try to address?
C) Why are ration shops necessary?
Answer:
A) Major features:
(i) MNREGA
MNREGA lays down that any adult member willing to do unskilled manual work and who is looking for work must be given work by the government. A rural household can demand at least one hundred days of employment in a year for which they would be paid not below the minimum wages. The following are some sample activities taken up under MNREGA.

• water conservation and water harvesting
• drought-proofing (including afforestation and tree plantation)
• provisions of irrigation facility to land owned by households belonging to the SCs and STs
• renovation of traditional water bodies including desilting of tanks.

(ii) The system of ration shops distributing foodgrains and other essential items is known as the Public Distribution System (or PDS in short). PDS has existed in India right from the time of independence and has played a crucial role in reaching food to everyone both in the rural and urban areas. There were of course problems of functioning. At places, the ration shops would not open regularly or on time. The foodgrain stocks would be adulterated with the intention that no one buys. Ration shop owners would be found selling foodgrains to other shops rather than to the public. Many people including the poor would not receive ration. Performance of ration shops was not so good as expected in the poorest states and the poorest regions of India.

B) Alongside employment, the government ensured that everyone has access to affordable food. They tried to address these aspects of poverty.

C) Employment and income cannot do much, if the prices of essential items are very high. So the government supplies the basic needs at fair price. So the ration shops are needed.

Question 4.
Why are people without employment also often without assets, such as land, cattle, shops, etc.?
Answer:
The people those who have no employment cannot save their earnings. Without savings they cannot purchase assets. So they do not have assets.

Question 5.
Read the first two paragraphs under the title “The Struggle towards ‘the Right to Life” on page 201 and 202 and comment on them.

The Struggle towards “The Right to Life”: The new policy on PDS has been in the center of much debate. We know that about 4 out of 5 people in the rural areas consume less than the minimum required calories. And yet, not even 3 out of 10 families in the rural areas in India possessed BPL and Antyodaya cards, as per the National Sample Survey of 2004. Thus, a large number of people who earlier benefited from the PDS were no longer convered by it. Many families of landless labourers did not have BPL cards. Whereas, there were some reports of well-off families with BPL cards.

There are other contradictions too in the new PDS (Public Distribution System) Policy. The government of India often has huge piles of food stocks (i.e. foodgrains that it bought from farmers). There have been times when foodgrains rot in godowns and are eaten by rats. Since the ration shops sell foodgrains at a fair price only to BPL, Antyodaya and Annapurna card holders, there are unsold stocks at the ration shop too. And yet, there is a feeling that we are not able to provide food to all.

Answer:

1. Today in India 4 out of 5 people in the rural areas consume less than the minimum required calories.
2. But our government especially for rural areas they introduced Antyodaya cards for BPL people.
3. According to national sample survey many families of landless labourers did not have BPL cards. Whereas there were some reports of well of families with BPL cards.
4. There are so many problems with new PDS systems.
5. Even though the government has more food grains stock, but ration shops provide food grains to only card holders and not for other people.
6. That’s why in our country majority of landless poor people did not get even one meal for a day. Still so many families fight for “Right to life”.

Question 6.
Write a letter to your District Collector on the functioning of P.D.S programme in your village.
Answer:
To
The District Collector,
Machilipatnam,
Krishna District.

From
A. Suneeta, Class : VIII,
M.P. Ele. School, Nunna.
Sir,

We are residing in Nunna in Vijayawada Rural. We have white card for our family. We are receiving 20kgs of rice from the ration shop. From the last two months we are receiving spoiled rice from the dealer. I came to know that all the villagers are receiving rice in less quantity also. So I request you to look into the matter and to enquire the issue. This is for kind information and necessary favourable action.

Thanking you sir,
Yours faithfully
xx xxx

Address:
A. Suneeta
D/o. A. Narasayya
Nunna; Vijayawada Rural,
Krishna District.

Question 7.
Visit the ration shop in your neighborhood and look for the following:
1. When does the ration shop open?
Answer:
The ration shop is open from 8 am to 12 am and from 4 pm to 8 pm.

2. What are the items sold at the ration shop?
Answer:
Rice, wheat, sugar, tamarind, red gram and palmolive oil are sold in ration shops.

3. Do you find the system of different card-holders?
Answer:
Yes, I find white and pink cards.

4. Can you compare the prices of rice and sugar from the ration shop (for families below poverty line) with the prices at any other grocery store? [Important: Ask for the ordinary variety rates at the grocery shop.]
Answer:

Prices in Ration Shops		Prices in Kirana Shops
1) Rice	1 kg Re. 1/-	1) Same quality	Rs. 25/-
2) Red gram	1 kg Rs. 130/-	2) Same quality	Rs. 160/-
3) Sugar	1 kg Rs. 14/-	3) Same quality	Rs. 40/-
4) Tamarind	1 kg Rs. 65/-	4) Same quality	Rs. 90/-
5) Palmolive oil	1 Itr Rs. 55/-	5) Same quality	Rs. 68/-

8th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss what is common about Chandraiah’s and Ramachari’s lives. (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:

1. Both are economically poor.
2. Both are the sufferers of hunger.
3. Both persons’ wives are staying in other places due to their works.
4. Both have illhealth.
5. Both look like elders.

Question 2.
What is the average calorie intake of persons in the top quarter in the country? (Textbook Page No. 194)
Answer:
The average calorie intake of persons in the top quarter in the country is 2521.

Question 3.
By what percentage does the calorie intake of persons in the bottom quarter fall short of the daily calorie standard? (Textbook Page No. 194)
Answer:
23% of the calorie intake of persons in the bottom quarter fall short of the daily calorie standard.

Question 4.
Do you find any relationship between the economic background of person and his/her nutritional status? (Textbook Page No. 196)
Answer:
Yes, I find the relationship between economic background of person and his/her nutritional status. If the economic standard is less, the nutritional status is also low and vice versa.

Question 5.
Do you think that cash transfer scheme is an alternative to the PDS? (Textbook Page No. 201)
Answer:
I do not think so.
Reason:
e.g.: Through PDS the government is supplying 1 kg of rice for Re. 1/-. For this the government is bearing the subsidy of Rs, 19/-.
In the cash transfer scheme the government transfers these Rs. 20/- directly to the beneficiary’s account. If the price of rice in the market is high, this would not be successful.

Question 6.
In what way, was Ramachari’s livelihood related to agriculture in the village? (Textbook Page No. 293)
Answer:
Till a few years back, Ramachari would get around 40 clients, most of them farmers. They paid for his services with paddy. Each gave him 70 kilograms a year. Of the 2800 kg he got this way, he kept what his family needed and sold the rest in the market. He could get around Rs.375 for 70 kg of paddy. This was some years ago. After retaining what his family required, he could make Rs. 8000 in a year this way. With that, he looked for the family. Thus the livelihood of Ramachari was related to agriculture.
Then the poor may lose their food security. So I think this is not the right scheme.

Question 7.
Do you think the hardships that the family faces were because of:
(a) Ramachari’s lack of awareness and effort (OR)
(b) the livelihood situation in the village. (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:
(b) the livelihood situation in the village.

Question 8.
What do you think can be done so that Ramachari and his family get two square meals a day? (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:
Ramachari should also go to the nearest town with his wife for daily works. Then only he and his family can get two square meals a day.

Question 9.
How would you describe the exchange between Ramachari and the farmers in the village? (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:
I describe the exchange between Ramachari and the farmers in the village as follows:
“One for all and all for one”.

Question 10.
How many kilograms of paddy would Ramachari retain for the family in normal years? (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:
1300 kgs of rice approximately.

Question 11.
Can we consider Rs. 8000 a year sufficient to cover the family’s expenses (other than foodgrains)? (Textbook Page No. 193)
Answer:
Rs. 8000 per year means Rs. 667 per month. We cannot consider it sufficient to cover the family’s expenses.

Question 12.
Discuss the different living standards in the following urban picture. (Textbook Page No. 193)

Answer:

People in building	People in tents
1) They spend luxurious life.	1) They spend miserable life.
2) They are rich.	2) They are poor.
3) They have better facilities.	3) They have no common facilities.

Question 13.
Here are a few steps that the government must undertake to support agricultural growth and those dependent on agriculture. Can you write a few lines on each? Why is it important? You could give examples from your own context.
i) Timely provision of seed, fertilizer, pesticides by the government such that the farmer does not have to depend on middlemen/ traders. The government must ensure that these products are of standard quality and reasonably priced.
ii) Small irrigation projects
iii) Timely availability of bank loans at reasonable interest rate
iv) Outlets or marketing the crops at a fair price for producers
v) Development of roads, transport systems in the countryside
vi) Assistance to farmers in case of crop failure . (Textbook Page No. 197)
Answer:
i) The farmers earn least income on agriculture. They cannot purchase seeds etc., from dealers for more rates.
e.g.: In recent period, the low quality cotton seeds were supplied to the farmers in some districts. They met heavy losses due to this.

ii) In India agriculture depends on monsoons which are indefinite. So the small irrigation projects should be encouraged.
e.g.: Ten years back there were no rains. So the farmers did not sow the seeds. But suddenly there were heavy rains in the months of July and August. They bought the sprouts for heavy rates and sowed them. The crops grew well. At the end of November there was a heavy cyclone. All the fields were drowned. So there should be small irrigation projects.

iii) If the loans are not available in time, the farmers would approach the money lenders or other landlords. They collect heavy interests on the loans. The farmers will become .permanent debtors.

(v) e.g.: In recent past the lorry owners announced and conducted a strike for many days. At that time some farmers failed to carry the sugarcane to the factory. They incurred heavy losses as it got dried.

vi) In case of crop failure, the banks should lend additional loans and should write off the interests. Otherwise the farmers cannot cultivate in the next crop season. They cannot repay the loan. Today many farmers are committing suicides due to these reasons.

Question 14.
Read the following and answer the following questions.
MNREGA lays down that any adult member willing to do unskilled manual work and who is looking for work must be given work by the government. A rural household can demand at least one hundred days of employment in a year for which they would be paid not below the minimum wages. The following are some sample activities taken up under MNREGA.

• water conservation and water harvesting
• drought proofing (including afforestation and tree plantation)
• provisions of irrigation facility to land owned by households belonging to the SCs and STs
• renovation of traditional water bodies including desilting of tanks.

(i) With the help of your teacher, find out what the above works (given in Italics) mean.
Answer:
The above mentioned works fulfil the needs of agriculture. This enables the villages to arrange their resources. This indicates the development of villages.

(ii) Plan a visit to one of the sites in your village/ town where you can see public works in progress. Record your conversations.
In our village ‘Nunna’, the canal banks are repaired under this scheme. The roads are cleaned and the tanks are desilted.
Due to this scheme, the people are getting works in summer season also. This controls their migrations.

(iii) Why do you think the MNREGA places priority on provision of irrigation facility to land owned by households belonging to the SCs and STs?
Answer:
The government sanctioned some funds for the development of SCs and STs from many years. These funds were remained unused. So these are used for irrigation and drinking water facilities to them only. With this they feel self-reliance.

Question 15.
Why do you think is the calorie intakes of the people so low? (Textbook Page No. 194)
Answer:
As they have low earnings, they cannot purchase costly foods which have high calories. They cannot eat and cannot work. So they are habituated to eat stomachful of food, e.g.: Rice & chutney / rice & curry or rice & sambar.
So they are taking so low calories.

Question 14.
Do you think the poor will be served better now with new policy? Provide reasons in favour of your answer. (Textbook Page No. 201)
Answer:
I think that the poor will be served better now with new policy.
Reasons:

1. The government takes back the white cards from ineligibles.
2. So the provisions are supplied only to the poor and the poorest.

Question 15.
Ration shops are also called fair price shops. Can you guess why? (Textbook Page No. 202)
Answer:
The provisions in ration shops are available at low prices when compared to open market. So they are called fair price shops.

Question 16.
Could you suggest some more ways of improving the PDS? (Textbook Page No. 201)
Answer:
Some suggestions:

1. The beneficiaries should be selected confidentially.
2. Middle class also should be taken into consideration with BPL families.
3. Standard weights should be measured in these ration shops.
4. Dealers should be selected on a particular basis.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term AIADMK.
Answer:
All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazagam.

Question 2.
Give any two examples for Regional Political parties.
Answer:
TDP, YSRCP, JANA SENA, TRS, AIADMK, DMK, etc.

Question 3.
Which welfare schemes initiated by N.T. Rama Rao are still continuing with some changes in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Mid-day meal scheme in government schools.
2. Sale of rice at subsidy rates to the poor.

Question 4.
Identify at least any two states presently ruled by regional parties in India on the given Indian political map.
Answer:

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Telecom revolution?
Answer:
The contribution of Telecom Revolution:
A network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology increased.

Question 6.
Mention any two initiations of N.T. Rama Rao.
Answer:

1. Sale of rice at Rs. 2/- kg
2. Mid day meal scheme in government schools.
3. Liquor prohibition

Question 7.
Write about the 73rd amendment of the constitution.
Answer:
73rd amendment: The 73rd constitutional amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level and so Gram Panchayat, Mandal Parishad and Zilla Parishad are formed.

Observe the table given below and answer the questions 8 & 9.
Results of Telangana State Assembly and Parliament Elections – 2014

S.No.	Name of the Party	Assembly Seats won	Parliament Seats won
1.	T.R.S.	63	11
2.	Congress Party	21	2
3.	T.D.P.	20	2
4.	Others	15	2
	Total	119	17

Question 8.
Name the two parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.
Answer:
Parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.

1. TRS
2. Congress Party
3. T.D.P

Question 9.
Why did TRS secure more seats in 2014 elections?
Answer:
TRS secured more seats in 2014 elections because it played a key role in Telangana agitation.

Question 10.
What is meant by the Coalition government?
Answer:
During the time of General Election to the Assembly and Lok Sabha, no party gain the majority to form the government at the centre or state at that time. Two or more than two political parties come together to form a single government.
(OR)
A number of national and regional parties had to come together to form governments at the centre.

Question 11.
Name some non-political movements.
Answer:
Environmental movements, the feminist movement, civil liberties movement, literacy movements.

Question 12.
Which became powerful motors of social change?
Answer:
A number of non-political movements emerged and became powerful motors of social change.

Question 13.
Which parties decided to merge together and form the Janata Party?
Answer:
The Congress, Swatantra Party, Bharatiya Jan Sangh, the Bharatiya Lok Dal and the Socia¬list Party decided to merge together and form the Janata Party.

Question 14.
Who supported the Janata Party?
Answer:
The DMK, the SAD and the CPI (M) chose to maintain their separate identities but supported the Janata Party in a common front against the Congress.

Question 15.
Who played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties?
Answer:
Senior leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya JB Kriplani played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties to fight the elections.

Question 16.
What was the argument of the Janata Party regarding the dismiss of nine state governments?
Answer:
The Janata Party argued that the Congress party had lost its mandate to rule in the States as it had been defeated.

Question 17.
Which created a bad state in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.

Question 18.
Who moved to Assom and Bengal?
Answer:
The Bangladeshis moved to Assom and Bengal.

Question 19.
Name some communities of Assom.
Answer:
Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis.

Question 20.
Who was Bhindtanwale and what was his demand?
Answer:
Bhindranwale, the leader of the group of militant Sikhs began to preach separatism and also demanded the formation of a Sikh State- Khalistan.

Question 21.
What did the militants try?
Answer:
The militants tried to impose an orthodox life code on all Sikhs and even non-Sikhs of Punjab.

Question 22.
Who made a declaration in April 1986?
Answer:
In April 1986, an assembly at the Akal Takht, made a declaration of an independent state of Khalistan.

Question 23.
Where were the militants engaged in?
Answer:
The militants were also engaged in large scale kidnapping and extortion to raise funds for their work.

Question 24.
How were the methods used by the govern¬ment for the suppression of militancy in Punjab?
Answer:
The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of. Constitutional rights of citizens.

Question 25.
What did Rajiv Gandhi begin?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi began a peace initiative in Punjab, Assam and Mizoram and also in the neighbouring country of Sri Lanka.

Question 26.
What is called the telecom revolution?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated what is called the ‘telecom revolution’ in India which speeded up and spread the network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology.

Question 27.
What had been under dispute for some time regarding Babri Masjid?
Answer:
Some sections of the Hindus had begun a campaign for building a temple for Lord Rama in Ayodhya in the place of Babri Masjid.

Question 28.
What is the speciality of Elections held in 1989?
Answer:
The issue of corruption in administration and in political circles became the main plank of the election campaign for non-Congress political forces in the next elections held in 1989.

Question 29.
What is Policy Paralysis?
Answer:
Policy Paralysis means the coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 30.
Which was the first coalition to be re-elected?
Answer:
The UPA was the first coalition to be re-elected.

Question 31.
Who led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977?
Answer:
Jyoti Basu of CPM led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977.

Question 32.
On what did the Operation Barga depend?
Answer:
Operation Barga depended heavily on collective action by the share croppers and Panchayati Raj Institutions thus avoiding bureaucratic delays and domination of the landowning classes.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of the constitutional rights of citizens. Many observers felt that such violations of constitutional rights and human rights were justified.as the constitutional machinery was on the edge of collapse due to militant activity.
Express your views on the information given above.

Answer:
There was a threat to the integration of the Indian nation due to the militancy in Punjab. If the government had not taken such actions, the map of India would be different today. So I think the government was correct.

Question 2.
Read the given data to answer the questions.

A) Which were the parties that participated in the governments of the National Front and United Front and supported the government from the outside?
Answer:
To National Front: CPM, CPI, and BJP.
To United Front: CPM.

B) Mention the name of the party that participated in the above three governments.
Answer:
J.K.N.C.

Question 3.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

End of Emergency and formation of Janata party government under Morarji Desai and Charan Singh	1977
Formation of Congress government led by Indira Gandhi	1980
Formation of TDP	1982
Operation Blue Star and assassination of Indira Gandhi	1984
Rajiv Gandhi Accords with H.S. Longowal on Punjab and AASU on Assam.	1985

a) Name the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.
Answer:
Janata Party is the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.

b) Who is the founder of Telugu Desam Party?
Answer:
Nandamuri Taraka Rama Rao (NTR) is the founder of Telugu Desam Party.

Question 4.
Which are the newest states of India, when they created?
Answer:

State	Year of formation
1. Uttaranchal / Uttarkhand	2000
2. Jharkand	2000
3. Chattisghar / Chattisghad	2000
4. Telangana	2014

Question 5.
Read the table and answer the given equations.

Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi and government led by Congress party with P.V. Narsimha Rao as P.M.	1991
Economic liberalization	1990
Demolition of Babri Masjid	1992
National Front Government with Deve Gowda and I.K. Gujral as P.M.s	1996
NDA government led by A.B. Vajpayee	1998

a) Which party won in 1996 elections and formed government?
Answer:
National Front.

b) Name the Coalition Governments mentioned in the above table.
Answer:
National Front and NDA Governments.

Question 6.
Write about people’s welfare schemes started by present Governments.
Answer:

1. Supply of rice at the cost of Rs. 1 per Kg to the white ration cardholders.
2. Pensions for the old age people and widows.
3. Free textbooks, uniforms and Midday meal scheme in government schools.
4. Housing schemes for the poor people.
5. Health scheme for the poor people.
6. Fees reimbursement to the poor for higher education, etc.

Question 7.
Read the following text and answer the questions given below.

The Congress returned to power in 1980. The Congress immediately paid back the Janatb in the same coin by dismissing the Janata and non-Congress governments in nine States. The Congress was victorious in all the States except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

A) Which party ruled before 1980s?
Answer:
Janata Party.

B) In which two states, the Congress party was defeated?
Answer:
Tamilnadu and West Bengal.

Question 8.
Prepare a table by classifying the given political parties into National and Regional Parties. “BJP, YSRCP, TDP, CPM, CPI, DMK, Congress-1, AGP”.

National parties	Regional parties

Answer:

S.No.	National Parties	Regional Parties
1.	Bharatiya janata Party	DMK
2.	Congress -1	TDP
3.	CPI	AGP
4.	CPM	YSRCP

Question 9.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

Election and formation of Janata Dal government with VP Singh and Chandrasekhar	1989
Decision to implement Mandal Commission recommendation	1989
Ram Janmabhoomi Rath Yatra	1990
Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi and government led by Congress party with P.V. Narsimha Rao as P.M.	1991
Economic Liberalization	1990
Demolition of Babri Masjid	1992
National Front Government with Deve Gowda and IK Gujral as PMs	1996
NDA government led by AB Vajpayee	1998

i) Who was the Prime Minister at the time of demolition of Babri Masjid?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao.

ii) Give two examples of the Coalition government.
Answer:

1. Janata Dal government.
2. National Front government.
3. National Democratic Alliance (NDA).

Question 10.
Sometimes coalition governments cause ‘Policy Paralysis’. Do you agree with this statement?
Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement. The coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 11.
“Coalition Governments cause political instability.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Sometimes no single party wins a majority of seats to form a government of its own. In such the situation, a number of political parties come together and form coalition governments.
2. A common agreement between these parties has to be arrived at, but this is not so easy.
3. Different parties put pressure on the government for their different interests.
4. The government cannot implement any policy for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners. The governments become instable.
5. This is called policy paralise which is frequent in the coalition government.

Question 12.
What are the situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties in present days?
Answer:
The situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties

1. Regional aspirations – regional movements.
2. Intermediate castes strengthening – gaining political power.
3. To gain political power.
4. Defections and corruption.

Question 13.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Protest against the domination of Bangladesh.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 14.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Table: Seat share of various Political parties in 2014 (lok Sabha)

S.No.	Political patty	Won Seats
1	Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)	282
2	Indian National Congress (INC)	45
3	Telugu Desam Party (TDP)	16
4	Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS)	11
5	Left parties [CPI + CPI (M)]	10

Answer:

1. In 2014 General elections BjP got with 282 seats and form the largest party and form the government also.
2. Indian National Congress got only 45 seats.
3. Left parties CPI + CPI (M) joined together got 10 seats.
4. The Regional parties like TDP 16 seats 8i TRS 11 seats gained In Lok’Sabha elections.

Question 15.
What are the important changes that occured in India between 1975-85?
Answer:
Many changes occurred In India between 1975-85. Some of them are:

1. Emergency was declared by smt. Indira Gandhi as she was asked to quit her Prime Minister post by Allahabad high court.
2. Janatha Government came into power in 1979.
3. Congress Party came to power in the elections after Janatha govt, failure.
4. Non-political movements like environment movements, feminist movements, civil liberties movement and literacy movements came up.

Question 16.
At present, what is the necessity of coalition politics?
Answer:
In the present multiparty system in India it is impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own but in 2019 elections BJP has won the election as single party. It went as coalition.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national Congress leadership. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people. N.T. Rama Rao(NTR), popular film actor, chose to take up this cause. He began the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) on his 60th birthday in 1982. He said that the TDP stood for the honour and self respect of the Telugu speaking people (Teluguvari atma gauravam). He argued that the state could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.

Answer:

1. The Congress government frequently changed the Chief Ministers.
2. The Congress was not giving respect to Andhra Pradesh leadership.
3. The TDP was formed for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
4. He introduced welfare schemes like midday meals to government schools, liquor prohibition and the sale of rice for Rs. 2/- per kg.
5. These populist measures helped the TDP sweep the 1982 elections.
6. TDP emerged as a strong regional party, and challenged the Congress domination.

Question 18.
What are the effects of changes of the Telecom Revolution on the Human lifestyles.
Answer:

1. Telecom Revolution is the result of privatization of Telecommunications.
2. Number of industries invested in telecommunications.
3. “Mobiles” and Smart phones have created sensation.
4. They reduced the distance between the buyers and sellers.
5. Every family has a mobile in India.
6. Telemarketing is a creative innovation.
7. Smartphones have internet access and due to that internet facility is accessible to villagers through telephones.

Question 19.
What was Operation Blue Star?
Answer:

1. Sikhs became militant in Punjab under Bhindranwale.
2. People belonging to non-Sikhs were subjected to communal attack.
3. Sikh separatist groups hid in the Golden Temple.
4. Army had to intervene to vacate the campus.
5. This was called ‘Operation Blue Star’.

Question 20.
What factors influenced central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the North Eastern Region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Mynmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large-scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 21.
Read the given information.

Now answer the following questions.
a) Which party was included in “Governing parties” in all the above coalition governments?
Answer:
Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)

b) Which party gave support to NDA government?
Answer:
TDP.

c) Which party gave support to National Front and United Front from outside?
Answer:
CPM.

Question 22.
What did the emergence of competitive alternatives ensured?
Answer:
The emergence of competitive alternatives ensured that Indian voters could always exercise a reasonable choice. This also allowed many different political viewpoints and sectional interests to become active in state level and national politics.

Question 23.
How was the rule of the first non-Congress government?
Answer:
The Janata Party had come to power promising a restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule. However, the disunity among the partners had a serious effect on the governance and its rule is most often remembered for internal squabbles and defections. The factional struggle in the party soon culminated in the fall of the government within three years leading to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 24.
What happened whenever there was any political instability?
Answer:
Whenever there was any political instability or natural calamity in the neighbouring country, thousands of people moved into the State creating huge discomfort for the locals. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be outnumbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Question 25.
What was there besides culture and demographics?
Answer:
Besides culture and demographics, there was also an economic dimension. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities. The major resources of the State, including tea and oil were again not benefitting the locals.

Question 26.
What was the dominant thrust of the movement?
Answer:
The dominant thrust of the movement was that Assam was being treated as an “internal colony” and this had to stop. The main demands were that the local people should be given greater preference in employment, the “outsiders” should be removed and the resources should be used for the benefit of the locals.

Question 27.
Which has led to violent attempts of ethnic cleansing in Assam?
Answer:
Too much emphasis on ethnic identities had a negative impact on other communities of Assam like the Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis. Many of them too demanded autonomous status. They began to assert themselves and wanted to drive out people of other communities from their areas.

Question 28.
What did Punjab claim?
Answer:
It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the Centre. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.

Question 29.
Write about the resolution of Akali Dal.
Answer:
The Akali Dal had passed a set of resolutions in 1978 during the Janata Party rule in the centre, calling upon the central government to implement them. Its most significant demand was to amend the Constitution to give more powers to the states and ensure greater decentralisation of powers.

Question 30.
What happened after Rajiv Gandhi’s entrance?
Answer:
After Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister, he held talks with SAD and entered into an agreement with Sant Langowal, the SAD president. Though fresh elections were held in Punjab and SAD won them, the peace was short-lived as Langowal was assassinated by the militants.

Question 31.
What did Rajiv Gandhi say in his speech?
Answer:
In a famous speech Rajiv Gandhi said that out of every Rupee spent on the poor barely 15 paise reaches them I It highlighted the fact that despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.

Question 32.
Which factors influenced the central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the Northeastern region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Myanmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 33.
What was meant by liberalization?
Answer:

1. It meant a lot of things put together like the drastic reduction of government expenditure, reducing restrictions and taxes on imports, etc.
2. It proved for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India and allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
3. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
4. It brought in foreign goods and Indian businessmen were forced to compete with them.
5. It had many positive and negative impacts on India.

Question 34.
“One of the greatest weakness was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health”. Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The post-Independence era is marked with less priority to education and health.
2. The optimum development of country depends mostly on the education and health levels of the population of it.
3. It further forms part of Human Development Indicators also.
4. So, I suggest more priority should be given to education and health now.

Question 35.
Read the given information.

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes.

Answer the following questions.
a) Which constitutional amendment created institution of local self-government?
b) According to which amendment general elections were conducted in towns and cities?
c) How many seats are reserved for women in local bodies?
Answer:
a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self-governments for villages.
b) According to 74th Constitutional Amendment general elections were conducted in towns/cities.
c) 1/3 seats were reserved for women in local self-government elections.

Question 36.
“Do you think that the reservations will promote the social development” ? Express your ideas.
Answer:

1. Reservations will definitely promote social development.
2. Scheduled castes and tribes were drowtodden and suffered in the social stature for centuries.
3. To develop themselves and to question the injustice they meted out, reservations will of great help.
4. Reservations both in education, jobs, and legislature help them.

Question 37.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to first Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of constitution.
4. Still there is same feeling in Tamil Nadu.

Question 38.
“Some people think that Social Welfare Schemes do not reach eligible persons”. Express your suggestions.
Answer:

1. Despite all the attention to development in the country, much of it did not reach the real beneficiaries.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure the story of the poor remained the same.
3. The main reasons were political and beaurocratic corruption.
4. Enlistment of various beneficiaries also plagued by officialdom and political pressures.

Question 39.
“India needed to adapt itself to the new technologies emerging in the world, especially computer and telecommunication technologies”. Comment.
Answer:

1. Technologies like computer and communication technology are thursting the world.
2. It is believed that we should also adopt them without fail.
3. With initiatives of Rajiv Gandhi now called ‘Telecom Revolution1 was introduced in India.
4. With the help of satellite technology communications spread widely and extensively.
5. Everyone has access to mobile phones, the internet, email, facebook, Twitter, etc.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the text given and answer the questions.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th Amendment

In 1992, Government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an Important amendment to the Constitution to provide Local Self Governments a Constitutional status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created Institutions of local self-government at the village level, while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were pathbreaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be developed to their respective local self-governments. Consequently, the powers of local self-governments vary across the country.

i) What is Local Self Government?
Answer:
The Government that formed by the people at the village, town and city level to solve the local needs is Local Self Government.

ii) Which government recognised the Constitutional status of Local self Government?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao or Congress Government.

iii) What does the 73rd Constitutional Amendment say?
Answer:
Creation of Local Self government at the village level.

iv) 1/3 of seats were to be reserved for women in Local Self Governments. Comment.
Answer:
Women need political equality and they should Involve actively In the Local Governments.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Liberalization measures brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with global manufacturers. It also led to the setting up of industries and business by foreign companies in India. However, it also meant a lot of hardship for the common people as the government was forced to cut subsidies to the people and as many factories closed down due to Influx of cheap foreign goods. This also led to privatization of many public amenities tike education, health, and transport and people had to pay high prices to private service providers.

Write your opinion on the consequences of liberalization.
(OR)
What are the consequences of economic Liberalization?
Answer:

1. India was drawn into the world market.
2. Liberalization paved the way to telecom revolution.
3. Liberalization forced Indian business to compete with global manufactures.
4. The government was forced to cut subsidies which results a great loss to people and local industries.
5. It also led to the privatization of many public amenities like education, health and transport.
6. It led to globalization.
7. The policies of liberalisation have been of advantage particularly to well of sections only.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of regional parties in Democracy.
Answer:

1. Multi-party system which includes national parties and regional parties strengthens the democracy.
2. Regional parties reflect the spirit of the federalism.
3. Regional parties have good understanding of the problems and needs of the respective states.
4. They focus mainly on the development of their states.

Question 4.
Telecom revolution has brought several changes in human life nowadays. Explain them.
Answer:
Changes brought by the telecom revolution:

1. Saves time
2. Fast communication
3. Online services
4. Prosperous life
5. Addiction
6. Obesity
7. Cost of living increased
8. Affected human relations

Question 5.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India was forced to open up and ‘liberalise’ its economy by allowing free flow of foreign capital and goods Into India. On the other hand, new social groups asserted themselves politically for the first time, and finally, religious nationalism and communal political mobilisation became Important features of our political life. All this put the Indian society into great turmoil, we are still coming to grips with these changes and adapting ourselves to them.

Answer:

1. Liberalisation means relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policy.
2. The twentieth century ended with India’s drawing into the world free market.
3. India was forced to open up and liberalise its economy. It allowed free flow of foreign capital and goods into India.
4. On the other hand, India seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which divisive and communal political mobilisation was threatening to destroy social peace.
5. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics.
6. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Question 6.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 -Indian General Elections

Party	Alliance	Votes(%)	Seats
BJP	NDA	31%	282
INC	UPA	19.31%	44

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections the NDAgot 31% of the votes whereas the UPAgot 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction.

Question 7.
Explain the effects along with the reasons for the emerging era of coalition politics.
Answer:
Reasons for the emergence of coalition era of politcs:

1. Multi party system
2. No single party securing required majority.
3. Significance of regional parties increased.
4. Congress party gradually lost people’s mandate after 1960s.

Effects:

1. No political stability
2. Isolating the ideologies
3. Giving importance to party’s interest at the cost of nation’s interest.
4. Coming to power in spite of securing less mandate.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The twentieth century closed with India which was drawn into the world market, India which seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which, divisive and communal political mobilisation were threatening to destroy social peace. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Answer:
The given paragraph depicts about divisive and communal politics. These may destroy the social peace. After independence in India, stable government continued for 30, 40 years and unstability began. Main problem of solving poverty and inequalities with regard to caste, region is not yet solved.

My opinion is that the politics are only vote bank based. Sometimes the political leaders are there behind the communal riots. To throw out some Chief Minister of the same party, their party leaders encourage these riots. Caste based politics are shown at the time of tickets given to party candidates. Caste unions, and the caste group heads are distributed money to lure them to get their votes. Some constituencies are fixed for some religion because of their dominance in number. It is really a threat to democracy. Holy places of worship are also in some cases used to spread communal message. That destroys social peace.
My suggestion is that people should get awarness about this and act accordingly.

Question 9.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
The trend of Coalition Governments, 1989 – 2004

S.No.	Coalition	Duration	Governing parties	Supporting parties
1.	National Front	1989 – 90	JD, DMK, AGP, TDP, JKNC	CPM, CPI, BJP
2.	United Front	1996 – 98	JKNC, TDP, TMC, CPI, AGP, DMK, MGP	CMP
3.	National Democratic Alliance	1998 – 2004	JDU, SAD, TMC, AIADMK, JKNC, BJD, Shiva-Sena	TDP

Answer:

1. The given table is about the trend of Coalition Governments during the period of the years from 1989 to 2004.
2. The details of three coalition governments and their duration, etc. are given in the table.
3. During 1989-1990 Janata Dal-led National Front formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JD, DMK, AGP, TDP, JKNC. CPM, CPI and BJP supported this government.
4. United Front formed the coalition government during 1996-1998. JKNC, TDP, TMC, CPI, AGP, DMK, MGP were the governing parties in this government. CPM supported this government.
5. During 1998-2004 BJP-led National Democratic Alliance formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JDU, SAD, AIADMK, JKNC, TMC, BJD and Shiva Sena. TDP rendered support to the NDA government.
6. The 1990s were years of very significant change in the post-Independence India.
7. With the transformation to a competitive multi-party system, it became near impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own.
8. Since 1989, all governments that had formed at the national level have been either coalition or minority governments.

Question 10.
Explain about Assam movement in detail.
Answer:

Assam movement:

It is the struggle between Assamese and non-Assamese. These non-Assamese were none other than the people of Bangladesh. The youth of Assam formed All Assam Students Union (AASU) and was in the forefront of agitation. It led a number of strikes, agitations and marches to remove the so called outsiders. The problem of outsiders is not a cultural one but of economic issue. Every country or state wants to protect their cultural roots. The Assamese were most of them, Hindus and the outsiders were Muslims. The local people were afraid of their cultural roots.
Now they affect the trade and so the livelihoods of the locals had been in trouble. It is not only the problem of Assam, it happens at many states. Outsiders dominate a few areas of business and so the locals lose opportunities. In Assam the locals were not given priority or preference in employment. This was the demand of the Assamese. Gradually these demands led to communal polarisation as most of the outsiders are from Bangladesh Muslims. The movement between the Assamese and outsider Muslim led to form an idea of anti Indian stand.

Central Government took initiation and went on for talks for three years. An agreement was signed by the central government and the students union. In the next elections Assam Gana Parishad (an offshoot of AASU) came to power.

In conclusion, the formation of Bangladesh erstwhile Pakistan was taken place on the basis of religion. One’s religion can be given respect by all but it led to many disturbances. The Muslims, the outsiders of Assam occupied most of the areas of trade and business and there was distress and disappointment among the Assamese. The outsiders would have settled in Bangladesh only. They wanted their country to be separated and still they are coming to India illegally. Recently both the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh sat together and solved a few problems. If any problem arises, they should sit together and problems can be solved.

Question 11.
Prepare an album by collecting the photos of Prime Ministers of India and write their specialities.
Answer:

Question 12.
You may notice how simple and genuine demands of the people of Punjab were hijacked by religious and anti-national extremists. What steps do you think would have prevented this?
Answer:

1. The simple and genuine demands of Punjab were
   a) the contribution of state was ignored
   b) received unfair bargain when it was created
   c) capital remain UT
   d) more water from Bhakra Nangal and
   e) greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
2. Akali Dal government was dismissed by Congress.
3. A series of untoward incidents increased distance between Sikhs and the central government.
4. Militant Sikhs demanded separate state.
5. They occupied Golden Temple, then Congress used army to vacate.
6. A fallout led to the assassination of Indira.
7. Rioting in Delhi against Sikhs was followed.
8. Later Langowal made an agreement with centre but was killed by militants.
9. Militants engaged in extortion and kidnapping and lost faith of the people

Question 13.
Understand the table and answer the following questions.
Some opposition parties of 1970’s

SI.No.	Name of the party	Place of Activity	Ideologies
1.	BLD-Bharatiya Lok Dal	Uttar Pradesh	Special attention to Indian farmers
2.	Congress (O)	Entire India	Conservative section opposed policies of Indira Gandhi
3.	CPI (M) Communist Party of India (Marxist)	West Bengal, Tripura, Kerala, and remained states	Radical land reforms, trade unionism, socialist policies
4.	DMK – Dravida Munnetra Kazagam	Tamil Nadu	1. Greater autonomy and powers to state 2. Fiercely opposed Hindi in the state
5.	Jan Sangh	Northern States	A Hindu nationalist party
6.	SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal	Punjab	1. Great autonomy to states 2. Organised around Gurudwaras

a) Which political party fiercely opposes Hindi in the state ?
Answer:
DMK is the party which opposes Hindi in the state.

b) What is the place of activity for Jan Sangh?
Answer:
Jan Sangh is active in Northern States.

c) What is the ideology of CPI (M)?
Answer:
The ideologies of CPI (M) are radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

d) Where is the political party which shows special attention to farmers, active ?
Answer:
The political party, which shows special attention to farmers is active in Uttar Pradesh.

e) Which party is of semireligious nature?
Answer:
SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal is of semireligious nature.

Question 14.
What were the implications of 1977 general elections?
Answer:

1. It was a historical election for democracy.
2. The Congress party was defeated at the national level for the first time.
3. Janata Party became victorious and tried to consolidate itself.
4. It dismissed nine Congress governments in states.
5. It argued that Congress had lost its mandate to rule in the states as it had been defeated.
6. Its stand somewhat proved correct by the results.
7. Except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, Janata Party came to power in states.
8. The disunity among the partners had a serious effect on governance.
9. The government fell within three years.
10. It led to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 15.
Why was the public sympathy to Punjab militant Sikhs declined?
Answer:

1. They formed armed attachments and engaged in terrorist activities.
2. They clashed with police and other religious groups.
3. Those who were not confirmed to militant approved behaviour were killed.
4. There were civil casualities in derailing trains, exploding bombs, etc.
5. They were engaged in kidnapping, extortion to raise funds.
6. All this gradually alienated them from masses and even Sikhs.
7. Over a period, public sympathy declined rapidly.
8. Peace was finally returned to Punjab by the end of 1990s.

Question 16.
‘Coalition governments induce political instability’ – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. Since 1989, all governments at national level were coalition/minority governments.
2. A number of national and regional parties had come together.
3. So political ideologies and programmes of all parties had to be accommodated.
4. A common agreement had to be arrived at.
5. No party could pursue extreme agendas.
6. They needed to tone down their approaches.
7. It caused considerable instability.
8. Many coalitions did not last their full time.

Question 17.
How do political parties reap on communal polarisation? Provide an example.
Answer:

1. The Hindus are led by Bharatiya Janata Party.
2. In the year 1984 LokSabha elections they won only 2 seats.
3. It made great strides when it took up the Ayodhya issue.
4. It decided to campaign for the building of a temple at the site of mosque.
5. It claimed that was the birthplace of Lord Rama.
6. L.K. Advani in 1990, led a ‘Rath Yatra’ from Somanath to Ayodhya.
7. This campaign was accompanied by intense communal polarisation.
8. It caused a large number of communal conflicts.
9. In 1991 General elections BJP’s strength went up to 120.
10. It was then Rajiv was killed and sympathy wave followed the Congress, still, BJP withstood it.

Question 18.
What is meant by liberalisation?
Answer:

1. It means a lot of things put together.
2. It proposes drastic reduction of government expenditure.
3. It asks for reducing restrictions and taxes on import of foreign goods.
4. It provides for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India.
5. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
6. It brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with them.
7. It allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
8. Common people suffered with cut of subsidies.
9. Many factories were closed down due to influx of cheap foreign goods.

Question 19.
Study the timeline given below and answer the following questions.
a) Who was the Prime Minister that initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka.

b) Which government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report?
Answer:
Janata Dal government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report.

c) Name two important incidents occurred during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Answer:
Economic liberalization and the demolition of the Babri Masjid took place during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

d) When was Indira Gandhi assassinated?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi was assassinated in 1984.

e) Who were the Prime Ministers of National Front Government?
Answer:
Deve Gowda and I.K. Gujral were the Prime Ministers of the National Front Government.

f) Who were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government?
Answer:
V.P. Singh and Chandrasekhar were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government.

g) Who led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.

h) Who led the NDA government?
Answer:
A.B. Vajpayee led the NDA government.

i) When was the NDA Government formed?
Answer:
NDA formed the government in 1998.

Question 20.

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Some opposition parties of 1970s

BLD – Bharatiya Lok Dal – A party which was formed of socialists who called for special attention to Indian farmers, based mainly in Uttar Pradesh.

Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress which had opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

CPI (M) – Communist Party of India (Marxist)-a party with a national presence, which strove for radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

DMK – Dravida Munnetra Kazagam – a party based mainly in Tamil Nadu which sought greater autonomy and powers for the state.

Jan Sangh – A Hindu nationalist party largely confined to the northern States.

SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal – a party based in Punjab catering specially to the Sikhs and organised around Gurudwaras. It therefore had a semi-religious character. It was also in favour of greater autonomy to the States.

a) Which party fought for autonomy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Dravida Munnetra Kazagam fought for greater autonomy in Tamil Nadu.

b) Which party showed special attention to Indian farmers mainly in UP?
Answer:
Bharatiya Lok Dal showed special attention to farmers mainly in U.P.

c) Name the regional party of Punjab.
Answer:
Shiromani Akali Dal is the regional party of Punjab.

d) Name one Hindu nationalist party.
Answer:
“Jan Sangh” is one Hindu nationalistic party.

e) Which opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:
Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

f) What was the main aim of SAD?
Answer:
It sought for greater autonomy to Punjab.

g) Which party was confined to North India only?
Answer:
Jan Sangh was confined to North India only.

Question 21.

Read the following passage and interpret it.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th amendment

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.

One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for , scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into j account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be devolved to their respective local self governments. Consequently, the powers of local self governments vary across the country.

Answer:

1. In 1992 P.V. Narasimha Rao s government passed the important amendments of 73rd and 74th.
2. The 73rd amendment created institutions of local self governments at the village levels.
3. The 74th amendment created institutions of local self-governments at the town and city levels.
4. They are path-breaking as the office bearers at the local level are elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.
5. Seats are reserved for women and Scheduled Castes and Tribes too.
6. Powers were devolved to their respective local self-governments.
7. Hence we can say that these two amendments were path-breaking.

Question 22.
On the outline map of India locate the On the outline map of India locate the following.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assom
3. Punjab
4. Tamil Nadu
5. West Bengal
6. Uttar Pradesh
7. Nagaland
8. Mizoram
9. Bihar
10. Gujarat
11. Maharashtra
12. Ayodhya

Answer:

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Madagascar Island
2. Nigeria
3. Holland
4. Amsterdam
5. Brazil
6. Jordan
7. Israel
8. Spain
9. Palestine
10. Bangladesh

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why did the Indian soldiers join the INA?
Answer:
The Indian soldiers were against to the British government. They were motivated by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and joined the INA to fight against the British.

Question 2.
What was the wish of the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS?
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS wished to unite all Hindus; overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life.

Question 3.
Who was the Prime Minister that abolished Privy Purses?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi.

Question 4.
What is the two-nation theory?
Answer:
Partition of India based on religions – Hindus and Muslims is called two-nation theory.

Question 5.
Write any two differences between the Russian Revolution (1917) and the Indian freedom movement.
Answer:

Russian Revolution	Indian Freedom Movement
1. Against Tsar Nicholas – II	1. Against the British
2. Demanded Peace and bread	2. Struggle for freedom
3. Two phases	3. Three phases
4. Against liberals and aristocrats	4. Against the foreign rule

Question 6.
This map depicts an event of India’s struggle for Independence. What could be that event?

Answer:
This is the incident that happened on the partition of India.

Question 6.
Observe the following table. It has certain events shown by letters
Write the suitable ENGLISH LETTER for each event listed above in the boxes against each on the timeline.

Answer:

Question 7.
“India is a secular state.” Justify this statement by giving two examples.
Yes, India is a secular state. There is no state religion.
Example

1. Every Indian has right to follow, propagate and conduct processions on the basis of religion.
2. The constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

Question 8.
Expand RSS.
Answer:
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.

Question 9.
How was the name “Pakistan” coined?
Answer:
The name “Pakistan” or “Pakistan” was derived from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sindh and Baluchistan and was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali.

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

Question 11.
Expand “NWFP”.
Answer:
North-West Frontier Province.

Question 12.
Name the Muslim majority states of the British in India.
Answer:
Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan and East Bengal.

Question 13.
Which princely states experienced peasant revolt against ruling zamindars?
Answer:
Travancore and Hyderabad peasants revolted against ruling zamindars.

Question 14.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as it was possible.

Question 15.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The labour party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 16.
What was the Congress demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the centre.

Question 17.
How did Congress argue?
Answer:
The Congress argued that Hindus and Muslims were not people of two different nations but part and parcel of one Indian nation.

Question 18.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
Sir Stafford Cropps.

Question 19.
What was called privy purse?
Answer:
The government of the princely states was taken over and the princes were given pension funds called privy – purse to meet their personal expenses.

Question 20.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plants of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhiji did not agree with the plants of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 21.
What did the Congress expect before World War – II?
Answer:
The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the fascists but not giving India full freedom.

Question 22.
Who was the Prime Minister in Britain at the time of the war?
Answer:
At the time of the war, Britain had an all-party government headed by Prime Minister Winston Churchill of the Conservative Party.

Question 23.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The Conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as was possible.

Question 24.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The Labour Party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 25.
What did Congress also demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the Centre.

Question 26.
Why did the British object Congress demand?
Answer:
The British objected to this by saying that they had to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.

Question 27.
Why had the government had given itself special war time powers?
Answer:
The government had given itself special war time powers to maintain law and order to be able to focus on winning the war.

Question 28.
How were the special war time powers?
Answer:
Anyone who opposed the government could be jailed without much delay and kept imprisoned for a long time without going to court. Freedom of speech was also curtailed.

Question 29.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
sir Stafford Cripps.

Question 30.
Where were the independent governments proclaimed?
Answer:
In several districts, such as Satafra in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.

Question 31.
Who won the World War-ll?
Answer:
The Allied powers.

Question 32.
What happened on 18th February 1946?
Answer:
On 18th February 1946, the guards or Ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Bombay harbour came out on hunger strike to protest against bad food and behaviour of their British officers.

Question 33.
Who was the head of Naval Central Strike Committee?
Answer:
M.S. Khan.

Question 34.
What happened on 30th January 1948?
Answer:
Less than six months after independence, the Father of the Nation fell to three bullets while going out for his all-religion prayer in the evening of 30 January 1948.

Question 35.
How many princely states were there in India?
Answer:
There existed around 550 princely states which enjoyed different levels of sovereignty but were under British paramount power.

Question 36.
What happened in Travancore and Hyderabad?
Answer:
In Travancore and Hyderabad peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling zamindars.

Question 37.
Name the three princely states which joined the Indian Union in the next two years to 1947.
Answer:
Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.

Question 38.
Who was the famous leader of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Mohammad Ali Jinnah was the famous leader of the Muslim League.

Question 39.
What was Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule was Quit India Movement in 1942.

Question 40.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plans of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhi did not agree with the plans of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 41.
Who wrote ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’?
Answer:
The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal was the writer of ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“India is a land of many religions and many races and must remain so.” Comment.
Answer:

1. India is a land of many religions and many races.
2. Even though, it is continuing as a democratic secular state.
3. It gives protection to all the citizens irrespective of their religions.
4. All citizens have equal rights.

Question 2.
Write about the Indian National Army formulated by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. When the British were defeated by Japan, some Indian soldiers were captured as prisoners by Japan.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose raised the Indian National Army with these soldiers.
3. Later other Indians also joined the army including many women.
4. INA fought against the British for almost three years.
5. Finally INA was defeated by the British army.

Question 3.
Which qualities do you like in Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:
Qualities of Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Truthful,
2. Non-violence,
3. Simplicity.

Question 4.
Which qualities of Sardar Patel do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
The qualities that I like the most in Sardar Patel are:

1. Patriotism
2. Commitment

Question 5.
Explain the causes that led to partition of India?
Answer:

1. Anti-thinking of the Muslims and their communalism.
2. Activities of the Muslim League.
3. Congress’s policy of Appeasement.
4. Communal reaction.
5. Congress policy of strengthening India.
6. Formation of weak Pakistan in the minds of Indian leaders.
7. Development transfer of power. 8) Provisions of the Indian Independent Act.
8. British’s policy of divide and rule. 10) Mount Batten Plan.

Question 6.
What was the political picture in India in 1939?
Answer:
When the war started in 1939, most of the provinces of Indian were governed by Congress ministries. The British government had accepted the principle that the right to rule themselves must be given to Indians to an extent.

Question 7.
Write about the Govt, of India Act 1935.
Answer:
The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British Parliament. According to this, elections may be held in provinces and governments may be formed by parties that won in the elections.

Question 8.
Why did the British object the Congress’s demand of full freedom?
Answer:
By objecting they implied that Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 9.
Why did all Congress ministries resign in October 1939?
Answer:
The Congress was upset at the obstinacy of the British and decided to walk out of the provincial governments. All Congress ministers resigned in October 1939 after having come to power in 1937.

Question 10.
Write about the Muslim League.
Answer:
This was a party formed in 1906. Till 1930, it mainly represented the interests of Muslim landlords of UP and did not have much mass support. It had demanded that the British should create separate seats in all councils for which only Muslims would vote.

Question 11.
What was the agreement of the Muslim League?
Answer:
The Muslim League had argued that since the majority people in many areas were Hindus, more Hindus are likely to get elected to councils to and Muslims will find it difficult to protect their interests in government. But, if a certain number of seats were reserved for Muslims for which only the Muslims population of an area would vote, the Muslim members reaching the councils will be able to raise the concerns of Muslims.

Question 12.
Where was the Muslim League popular and weak?
Answer:
The Muslim League was popular in the United Provinces, Bombay and Madras. However, it was quite weak in the three provinces from which Pakistan was to be carved out just ten years later, viz. Bengal, the NWFP and Punjab. Even in Sind it failed to form a government.

Question 13.
How could the League create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu Party and did not want to share power with Muslims?
Answer:
The League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity. The Congress refused to form a coalition government with the League in the United Provinces where it too had won many seats. The Congress had banned its members from taking membership of the League Congress members could be members of the Hindu Mahasabha before. But this was also banned from 1938, only after objections were raised by Muslim Congressmen like Maulana Azad. The League could thus create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu party and did not want to share power with the Muslims.

Question 14.
Write about the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS.
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) were engarged in active mobilisation. These organisations wished to unite all Hindus, overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life. They also gave out the message that India was the land of the Hindus who were in a majority. Many Congressmen were also impressed with the activities of these organisations.

Question 15.
Who coined the name Pakistan?
Answer:
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali. In pamphlets written in 1933 and 1935, this young student desired a separate national status for this new entity.

Question 16.
What did the resolution demand?
Answer:
On 23 March 1940, the League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan. However, in later years it came to be called the Pakistan Resolution.

Question 17.
What were the dreams of different sections from 1940 to 1946?
Answer:
From 1940 to 1946, the League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation. Peasants could think of state where Hindu zamindars and moneylenders did not exploit them. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there. There would be freedom for the Muslim elite to run the government the way they wanted.

Question 18.
Which was the ‘Quit India’ campaign?
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third majority movement against British rule. This was the “Quit India” campaign, which began in August 1942.

Question 19.
What impressions did the victories of Japan create on the people in India?
Answer:
The victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively. The myth of the racist superiority of the British was smashed.

Question 20.
How were the Indian people after World War – II?
Answer:
People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketeering and hoarding. Workers were angry about low wages. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 21.
What did the strike committee demand?
Answer:
The Naval Central Strike Committee was elected with M S Khan as its head. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors, the release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the year 1946?
Answer:
The year 1946 was a year of strikes and work stoppages in factories and mills in many parts of the country. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements. The countryside was also on the boil.

Question 23.
Why did the small and poor peasants start an agitation in Bengal?
Answer:
Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the Tebhaga movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Question 24.
Write about the Direct Action Day.
Answer:
The Muslim League decided that its demands cannot be met through discussions and it must ask people to come out on the streets. It decided on”Direct Action” for winning its Pakistan demand and announced 16 August 1946 as “Direct Action Day”. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947, violence spread to many parts of northern India.

Question 25.
Why didn’t Gandhiji celebrate the first Independence Day?
Answer:
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.

Question 26.
Why did Congress organise individual satyagrahas through 1940 and 1941?
Answer:
Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended.

Question 27.
Why did the British resort to the ‘Divide and Rule Policy’?
Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They looked for ways to punish Congress and weaken its hold over the people.
3. The British actively raised doubts about the right of Congress to represent the people of the country.
4. Then they followed “Divide and Rule Policy” more vigorously.

Question 28.
Write any features liked by you in Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

1. Gandhi took the national movement to masses.
2. Gandhiji all the time depended upon the weapons of Truth and Non – violence.
3. He worked for the welfare of Harijans.
4. He introduced the concept Satyagraha.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Religions have been playing a prominent role since the partition of India.” Write your evidences.
Answer:

1. The growth of Muslim separation from the late 19th century and the rise of communal violence from 1920s to the virulent outbreaks of 1946-1947.
2. Muslims, as a religious community, comprised only 20% of the population and represented great diversity in economic, social and political terms.
3. From the late 19th century, some of its political elites in northern India felt increasingly threatened by British devolution of power. Due to this, the logic of numbers would mean the dominance of the majority Hindu community.

Question 2.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the act of 1935? Write your opinion.
Answer:
No, we need not have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 because of the following reasons:

1. India is meant for Indians only.
2. We have right to freedom.
3. To British were forced by Indian freedom fighters.
4. That’s why the British passed the Act of 1935.

So we should be grateful to our national leaders and freedom fighters, not to the Britishers.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on the assassination of Gandhiji.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was unhappy with the communal riots in north-western India and tried to calm the fears and anger of the people.
2. Yet, some sections of people were annoyed with Gandhi for his role in Indian politics.
3. They disturbed his all-religion prayer meetings many times.
4. An unsuccessful attempt on his life was made two days before his actual assassination.
5. Finally, less than six months after Independence, on the evening of 30th January 1948, Gandhi was shot with three bullets while going for his all-religion prayer meeting. As desired by him, before dying Gandhi reportedly said, ‘Hey, Ram’.
6. His assassin, Nathuram Godse ran off from the scene of the crime and was later arrested in Bombay.
7. He was once a member of Hindu Mahasabha and because of his actions, many became against this organisation.

Question 4.
Read the following text and interpret.

The British government, even without the consultation of the Congress government, decided that India will participate in the war. The Congress was torn in its mind over the question. Most Congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini and the ideology of Fascism. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not give (or at least promise) India full freedom.

Comment on the double standard role of the British.
Answer:

1. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not giving India full freedom.
2. The British realised this but at the same time, it was hard for them to accept that they would really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
3. The British were willing to give Indian Dominion status under the British crown some time after the War, but the Congress wanted a promise of full freedom for India.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India. With this they implied that the Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
5. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians. So, the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Do you support small and poor peasants’ demands? How?
Answer:
I do agree with the small and poor peasants demands because –

1. They demanded their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less.
2. Although they invested on the production of crops they did not get reasonable remuneration of share harvest.
3. They were forced to pay more land tenure. Due to this they faced more economic crises and failed to repay their debts.

Question 6.
How did the Indian National Army fight for Indian freedom? Explain.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose recruited the prisoners of war, captured by Japan in the Indian National Army.
2. Later other Indians also joined in the Army including women.
3. Though Gandhi was not interested in encouraging INA for waging a war, Subhash Chandra Bose persisted in the path and led Indian soldiers to fight against the British.
4. With that intention he took help from Germany also.
5. Thousands of soldiers joined Indian National Army.
6. In view of the Britishers, the soldiers of INA were traitors but in view of the Indians they are National Heroes.
7. The INA soldiers sacrificed their lives for the sake of Indian Independence.
8. The British suppressed them.
9. Subhash Chandra Bose continued his struggle against the British for almost three years but unfortunately his army was defeated.
10. The British decided to court martial the soldiers of Indian National Army for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.

Question 7.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The initial victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. In my view, Japan a tiny nation defeated Russia in 1905 and China.
2. With this courage during Second World War in the initial period Japan was victorious against the allies.
3. By seeing this victory of Japan we got a strong impression that we Indians can decisively fight against our colonial masters.
4. We also thought that wherever European colonists occupied Afro-Asian countries would also liberate from the clutches of the colonists.
5. Japan an Asian country was against the Europian colonists. So India took an opportunity stand on the side of Japan and fought against dominance in India.
6. From this we can understand an example of Subash Chandra Bose who wanted to take support of Japanese to overthrow the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain the circumstances that arouse after the partition of India.
Answer:
Circumstances that arouse after the partition of India :

When India was divided, there was a problem of fear and threat among the Hindus and Muslims. Pakistan was separated as a new country and it was separated on the basis of religion. If Pakistan was separated on the basis of religion, all Muslims should go to Pakistan and all Hindus should be in Hindustan such discussions were also taken place but practically there were many problems for all this. This two religious people suffered of anger and hatred. Many were killed looted, and burnt each other. From Pakistan thousands of Hindus came to India as refugees. Many stayed on roads. Gradually they were settled relief camps. Insecurity feeling was developed among the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 9.
Look at the picture given below

Answer the following:
a) Identify the leader given in the picture.
b) Name the Military Organization that he formed.
c) State any two objectives of that organisation.
Answer:
a) The leader in the picture is Subhash Chandra Bose,
b) He formed India Nation Army a Military Organisation.
c) Objectives:

1. India’s independence was the utmost important.
2. Should take the help of the Japanese to throw out the British.

Question 10.
Appreciate the role of Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the greatest freedom fighters of India.
2. He wanted to take up the opportunity created by the difficulties of the British.
3. He believed that India’s independence was of utmost important.
4. For that he took the help of the enemies of the British, i.e., Japan and Germany.
5. Bose recruited “Prisioners of war” into his Indian National Army.
6. Bose continued in his chosen path though opposed by many.
7. His INA fought against the British for three years.
8. Though defeated, he has become immortal for his bravery.

Question 11.
Read the following para and comment on “Divide and Rule of British.”

Towards this end, the British government supported and encouraged the plans of the Muslim League and downplayed the importance of the Congress. It is in these years that the Muslim League and its leaders like M A Jinnah became more active in mass politics.

Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They wanted to finish Congress.
3. They looked for the ways to weaken its hold over the people of India.
4. They created doubt among Muslims and adopted and implemented their age-old policy of “Divide and Rule”.
5. They encouraged the plans of the Muslim League.
6. During early years “it” did not receive much support.
7. By 1937 and in 1946 elections it succeeded. .
8. The British followed “Divide and Rule” policy and they are successful in dividing India into two countries.

Question 12.
Read the letter of Gandhiji to Hitler and answer the following question.

LETTER TO ADOLF HITLER

HERR HITLER
BERLIN
GERMANY

DEAR FRIEND,
Friends have been urging me to write to you for the sake of humanity. But I have resisted their request, because of the feeling that any letter from me would be an impertinence. Something tells me that I must not calculate and that I must make my appeal for whatever it may be worth.

It is quite clear that you are today the one person in the world who can prevent a war which may reduce humanity to the savage state.

Must you pay that price for an object however worthy it may appear to you to be? Will you listen to the appeal of one who has deliberately shunned the method of war not without considerable success?
Any way I anticipate your forgiveness if I have erred in writing to you.

I remain,

Your sincere friend,
M. K. GANDHI

What was the appeal of Gandhi to Hitler?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji wrote the letter to Hitler for the sake of humanity.
2. Gandhiji thought that Hitler was the only one person who could prevent world war.
3. Gandhiji was saying that the price for the war however not worth the benefit that Hitler was expecting.
4. Gandhiji felt that Hitler should save the world from the disastrous war.

Question 13.
A few incidents of National movement are described here. Study them and answer the given questions.

Sl.No.	Year	Incident of Importance
1.	1939 October	Congress ministries in Provincial Assemblies resigned resenting the attitude of the British Government.
2.	1940-41	Congress decided to organize individual satyagrahas and get arrested to pressurize the British.
3.	1942	After the failure of Cripps Mission Gandhiji gave a Mantra ‘do or die’ in ‘Quit India’ Movement.
4.	1942	Subhash Chandra Bose, formed Indian National Army to fight the British to get Independence.
5.	1946	A strike was organised by the guards of Royal Indian Navy at Mumbai.

a) Who founded Indian National Army?
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose founded Indian National Army.

b) Which movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission?
Answer:
Quit India movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission.

c) When did the Congress ministries resign?
Answer:
The Congress ministries resigned in October 1939.

d) Which incident took place in the year 1946?
Answer:
A strike by Royal Indian Navy Guards at Mumbai was the incident took place in the year 1946.

e) When were individual satyagrahas organised?
Answer:
Individual satyagrahas were organised from 1940 to 1941.

Question 14.
Identify the following places related to National Movement in the given map of India.

1. Punjab
2. Sindh
3. Kashmir
4. Baluchistan
5. Bengal
6. Hyderabad
7. Junagadh
8. Assom
9. Afghan

Answer:

Question 15.
Locate the following in the given map of World.
1. Pakistan

2. This country ruled India for two hundred years
Answer: Great Britain

3. This country was ruled by Dutch people
Answer: Indonesia

4. This is called tear drop of Indian Ocean
Answer: Sri Lanka