Mahesh

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Cell: The Basic Unit of Life on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 2nd Lesson Cell: The Basic Unit of Life with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Microbiology as a science born in
A) 1674
B) 1686
C) 1574
D) 1474
Answer:
A) 1674

Question 2.
Single lens microscope magnifies
A) 3
B) 300
C) 3000
D) 30
Answer:
B) 300

Question 3.
Animalcules are
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Algae
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Bacteria

Question 4.
Green strands of pond water are
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Algae
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Algae

Question 5.
Bacteria in buttermilk is
A) Lactobacillus
B) Nitro bacter
C) Ecoli
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Lactobacillus

Question 6.
Bacteria stained by
A) Crystal violet
B) Crystal blue
C) Safranin
D) Crimson red
Answer:
A) Crystal violet

Question 7.
Micro arthropod is
A) Scabies mite
B) Spirogyra
C) Amoeba
D) Yeast
Answer:
A) Scabies mite

Question 8.
Protozoan is
A) Scabies mite
B) Spirogyra
C) Amoeba
D) Yeast
Answer:
C) Amoeba

Question 9.
Typhoid is caused by
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoa
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Bacteria

Question 10.
Amoebiasis is caused by
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoa
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Protozoa

Question 11.
“Bread mould” is
A) Agaricus
B) Mushroom
C) Pencillium
D) Rhizopus
Answer:
D) Rhizopus

Question 12.
Which are considered as the interlink between living and non-living organisms?
A) Algae
B) Bacteria
C) Viruses
D) Protozoans
Answer:
C) Viruses

Question 13.
Viruses reproduce only when they are in
A) Air
B) Water
C) Soil
D) Host living cell
Answer:
D) Host living cell

Question 14.
Scabies is caused by
A) Bed bug
B) Housefly
C) Agaricus
D) Scabies bug
Answer:
D) Scabies bug

Question 15.
Important microorganisms that help in increasing soil fertility by decomposing biomass are
A) Bacteria
B) Algae
C) Micro – Arthropoda
D) Virus
Answer:
C) Micro – Arthropoda

Question 16.
AIDS is caused by
A) TMV
B) Ebola
C) HIV
D) None
Answer:
C) HIV

Question 17.
Which of the following is caused by Bacteria?
A) AIDS
B) Typhoid
C) Amoebiasis
D) Scabies
Answer:
B) Typhoid

Question 18.
Pick out the ‘odd man’ out
A) Amoeba
B) Spirogyra
C) Euglena
D) Vorticella
Answer:
B) Spirogyra

Question 19.
Pick out the odd man out
A) Rhizopus
B) Pencillium
C) Mushroom
D) Spirulina
Answer:
D) Spirulina

Question 20.
Bacteria that is present in the intestine is useful in
A) Excretion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Assimilation
Answer:
B) Digestion

Question 21.
‘Septicemia’ means
A) Poisoning of body
B) Poisoning of blood
C) Poisoning of organs
D) Poisoning of brain
Answer:
B) Poisoning of blood

Question 22.
Amoebiasis is caused by
A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Micro Arthropods
D) Protozoans
Answer:
D) Protozoans

Question 23.
The top 8 inches of soil of one acre may contain ………….. of bacteria and fungi.
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\) kg
B) 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) tons
C) 1 ton
D) 1 kg
Answer:
B) 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) tons

Question 24.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List -B
i) Lactobacillus — a) Root nodules
ii) Rhizobium — b) Alcohol
iii) Yeast — c) Curd
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
Answer:
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 25.
Identify the mismatched pair.
i) Malaria — Protozoa
ii) Septicemia — Virus
iii) Swine flu — Bacteria
A) i, iii
B) ii, iii
C) i, ii
D) i only
Answer:
B) ii, iii

Question 26.
Choose the correct matching.
List – A — List -B
i) Polio — a) Tobacco
ii) TB — b) Bacteria
iii) TMV — c) Virus
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
C) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
D) i – c, ii – b, iii – a
Answer:
D) i – c, ii – b, iii – a

Question 27.
Viruses can be observed through ………..
A) Simple microscope
B) Compound microscope
C) Electron microscope
D) None
Answer:
C) Electron microscope

Question 28.
Microbiology is the science of …………
A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Virus
D) Microorganisms
Answer:
D) Microorganisms

Question 29.
Spirulina is used in the preparation of …….
A) Medicines
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 30.
Microorganisms were first studied by ………
A)Jenner
B) Ross
C) Leeuwenhoek
D) Robert Hooke
Answer:
C) Leeuwenhoek

Question 31.
Which converts milk into curd?
A) E – coli
B) Yeast
C) Rhizobium
D) Lactobacillus
Answer:
D) Lactobacillus

Question 32.
Umbrella like growth over rotten materials of dumped wastes ……….
A) Rhizopus
B) Azolla
C) Nostoc
D) Mushroom
Answer:
D) Mushroom

Question 33.
Microorganisms grow on other organisms are
A) Parasites
B) Saprophites
C) Autotrophs
D) Heterotrophs
Answer:
A) Parasites

Question 34.
Animalcule is nothing but ………..
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Fungus
D) Algae
Answer:
B) Bacteria

Question 35.
This will happen if butter milk is added to luke warm milk.
A) Milk would be spoiled
B) Curd would be formed in 2 or 3 hours
C) Curd would be formed in a long time
D) Curd would not be formed
Answer:
B) Curd would be formed in 2 or 3 hours

Question 36.
This chemical is used in bacterial staining ………
A) Methyle Blue
B) Methyl Orange
C) Janus Green
D) Crystal Violet
Answer:
D) Crystal Violet

Question 37.
For the observation of fungi, we use this …………
A) Rotten bread
B) Pond water
C) Grape juice
D) Buttermilk
Answer:
A) Rotten bread

Question 38.
Lactobacillus can be seen in ………..
A) Water
B) Rotten vegetable
C) Buttermilk
D) Bread
Answer:
C) Buttermilk

Question 39.
Protozoans can be observed in ………..
A) Pond water
B) Hay decoction
C) Bread
D) Potato
Answer:
B) Hay decoction

Question 40.
Disease causing microbes spread through
A) Air
B) Water
C) Vectors
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 41.
Name the labelled part of the fungus ………….

A) Hyphae
B) Body
C) Spores
D) Conidiospores
Answer:
D) Conidiospores

Question 42.
Name the micro-organism present in the diagram.

A) Agaricus
B) Rhizopus
C) Penicillium
D) Aspergillus
Answer:
B) Rhizopus

Question 43.
Name the microorganism present in the diagram.

A) Rhizopus
B) Penicillium
C) Spirogyra
D) Spirulina
Answer:
B) Penicillium

Question 44.
The given microorganism belongs to ……….

A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Virus
Answer:
C) Protozoa

Question 45.

I’m responsible for causing a deadly disease. Who am I?
A) TMV
B) Swine flu virus
C) HIV
D) Ebola
Answer:
C) HIV

Question 46.

I am responsible for mosaic disease in Tobacco. Who am I?
A) HIV
B) Polio virus
C) Smallpox virus
D) TMV
Answer:
D) TMV

Question 47.

Name the micro-organism present in the picture.
A) Spirogyra
B) Diatom
C) Spirulina
D) Ceratium
Answer:
B) Diatom

Question 48.
We should clean our hands with soap before eating because
A) Washing is our hobby
B) Washing makes our hands hygenic
C) Washing makes our hands perfume
D) We eat more food
Answer:
B) Washing makes our hands hygenic

Question 49.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
i. Eyelash mite — a) Virus
ii. Cholera — b) Algae
iii. Polio — c) Micro arthropod
iv. Chara — d) Bacteria
v. Bread mould — e) Protozoa
f) Fungus
A) i – f, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d, v – c
B) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b, v – f
C) i – b, ii – f, iii – d, iv – a, v – c
D) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – f
Answer:
B) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b, v – f

Question 50.
Which of the following belongs to Fungi?

Answer:
B)

Question 51.
Which of the following belongs to protozoa?

Answer:
D)

Question 52.
Match the following

A) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
B) a – 3, b – 5, c -1, d – 4
C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d -1
D) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d -1
Answer:
D) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d -1

Question 53.
Choose the unicellular organism which is green in colour.

Answer:
B)

Question 54.
Match the following.
1. Bacteria — a) Paramecium
2. Virus — b) E.coli
3. Fungi — c) TMV
4. Protozoan — d) Rhizopus
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a

Question 55.
The following is called a bridge be-tween living and non-living things.
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Algae
Answer:
B) Viruses

Question 56.
Read the below sentences. Select the right statements.
a) All the Fungi species are microbes
b) We can see Bacteria with naked eye
c) Microbes lives in water, air and soil
d) All the Arthropodas are microbes
A) a, b, c
B) b, c, d
C) b and c
D) a and c
Answer:
D) a and c

Question 57.
We can see green colour in stagnated water because of the algae growning in it. But many algae does not see with naked eyes. Identify the algae which can be seen with naked eye.
A) Spirogyra
B) Spirulina
C) Seratium
D) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
A) Spirogyra

Question 58.
Read the statements about micro arthropods.
P) They increase soil fertility.
Q) Causative organisms for skin disease like scabies.
In the above sentences,
A) P is only correct
B) Q is only correct
C) Both P and Q are correct
D) Both P and Q are wrong
Answer:
C) Both P and Q are correct

Question 59.
Rajesh is trying to observe with the material like black coloured bread, slide, microscope. Guess what he may be observed.
A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Bacteria
D) Protozoan
Answer:
A) Fungi

Question 60.
Identify the correct order of stages to observe the bacteria in buttermilk.
a) Slowly heat the slide.
b) Wash the slide gently with water after heating the slide.
c) Put a drop of buttermilk on the slide.
d) Drop crystal voilet solution on the slide.
A) a, b, c, d
B) b, c, d, a
C) c, b, a, d
D) c, a, d, b
Answer:
D) c, a, d, b

Question 61.
Read the following stages of making the protozoan slide in the laboratory and identify the correct order.
a) Observe the slide under Micro¬scope.
b) Take a drop of water collected along with the hay.
c) Put cover slip on the water drop on the slide.
d) Soak dry hay for 3 – 4 days into the water.
A) a, b, c, d
B) c, b, d, a
C) d, b, c, a
D) d, b, a, c
Answer:
C) d, b, c, a

Question 62.
Look at the flow chart. Write correct example in Boxes.
Identify the organisms in A, B, C places orderly.
A) Lactobacillus, Pencillin, Plasmodium
B) Pencillin, Plasmodium, Lactobacillus
C) Lactobacillus, Plasmodium, Pencillin
D) Plasmodium, Pencillin, Lactobacillus
Answer:
A) Lactobacillus, Pencillin, Plasmodium

Practice the AP 8th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 1 What is Science? on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology Bits 1st Lesson What is Science? with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The way that was followed by scientists is called
A) Enlightenment Method
B) Questioning Method
C) Scientific Method
D) Supportive Method
Answer:
C) Scientific Method

Question 2.
Science is a tool for searching
A) Truths of nature
B) Amazing to think
C) Many problems
D) History of nature
Answer:
A) Truths of nature

Question 3.
A Geologist examines the …………..
A) Territorial behaviours
B) Distribution of fossils
C) Rate of reaction
D) Angular momentum
Answer:
B) Distribution of fossils

Question 4.
Science is an organized study of knowledge which is based on
A) Controlled conditions
B) Phenomena
C) Experimentation
D) Observation
Answer:
C) Experimentation

Question 5.
Which language does the word ‘science’ come from?
A) English
B) Persian
C) Greek
D) Latin
Answer:
D) Latin

Question 6.
Who tries to understand how certain conditions are passed from one generation to another generation?
A) Geologist
B) Biologist
C) Geneticist
D) Ecologist
Answer:
C) Geneticist

Question 7.
Marigold seeds sprout best in a combination of which soil?
A) Clay, sandy and potting soil
B) Red, clay and black
C) Black, sandy and potting soil
D) In all soils
Answer:
A) Clay, sandy and potting soil

Question 8.
What are the good ways to display data so that it can he interpreted by others?
A) Graph
B) Tables
C) Charts
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 9.
“Study of birds”
A) Paleo Botany
B) Zoogeography
C) Physiology
D) Ornithology
Answer:
D) Ornithology

Question 10.
It helps in exploring the secrets of nature
A) Social studies
B) Commerce
C) Economics
D) Science
Answer:
D) Science

Question 11.
‘Scientia’ is a word that belongs to
A) Greek
B) Latin
C) French
D) English
Answer:
B) Latin

Question 12.
The word ‘Scientia’ mean
A) Truth
B) Experiment
C) Knowledge
D) Intelligence
Answer:
C) Knowledge

Question 13.
Scientists use this skill in data analysis
A) Work skill
B) Language
C) Experiment
D) Hypothesis
Answer:
C) Experiment

Question 14.
This is the first step in Scientific method
A) Display of results
B) Observing
C) Experiment
D) Hypothesis
Answer:
B) Observing

Question 15.
Tables, charts, graphs are useful in
A) Hypothesis
B) Experiment
C) Display of data
D) Observing
Answer:
C) Display of data

Question 16.
A possible answer that can be tested is
A) Generalisation
B) Theory
C) Hypothesis
D) None
Answer:
C) Hypothesis

Question 17.
The primary or fundamental step in scientific thinking
A) Experimentation
B) Investigation
C) Questioning
D) Information
Answer:
C) Questioning

Question 18.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
i) Classify – Scientific method
ii) Scientia – Knowledge
iii) Planning an experiment – Process skill
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iii
D) i, ii, iii
Answer:
C) i, iii

Question 19.
We can see ‘Kiwi’ in
A) Canada
B) U.S.A
C) India
D) New Zealand
Answer:
D) New Zealand

Question 20.
‘Kangaroo’ is confined to this continent
A) Africa
B) South America
C) North America
D) Australia
Answer:
D) Australia

Question 21.
The ‘National bird of India’
A) Sparrow
B) Parrot
C) Peacock
D) Eagle
Answer:
C) Peacock

Question 22.
The place where a scientist works in a
A) Library
B) Laboratory
C) Classroom
D) Forest
Answer:
B) Laboratory

Question 23.
The secret of inventions lies in identifying the
A) Change
B) Theory
C) Problem
D) Analysis
Answer:
C) Problem

Question 24.
The persons observing the rates of chemical reaction is
A) Ecologist
B) Chemist
C) Geologist
D) Biologist
Answer:
B) Chemist

Question 25.
“Science is a history of corrected mistakes”. This was said by
A) Albert Einstein
B) Darwin
C) Edison
D) Karl Popper
Answer:
D) Karl Popper

Question 26.
The average rainfall of a desert is less than
A) 20 cm
B) 24 cm
C) 23 cm
D) 28 cm
Answer:
C) 23 cm

Question 27.
The following one is an endemic species of India
A) Kangaroo
B) Kiwi
C) White tiger
D) Peacock
Answer:
D) Peacock

Question 28.
The following one is considered as safety rule in laboratory.
A) Never eat or drink anything in the science lab.
B) Always clean up when you have finished the experiment
C) Wear safety goggles while doing experiments.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
Thermometer is used to measure
A) Mass
B) Temperature
C) Pressure
D) Gravitation
Answer:
B) Temperature

Question 30.
The following one is used to measure time in the laboratory.
A) Wall clock
B) Time clock
C) Wrist watch
D) Stop clock
Answer:
D) Stop clock

Question 31.
‘Supersonics’ are
A) Instruments
B) Jet planes
C) Missiles
D) None
Answer:
B) Jet planes

Question 32.
The following one is used to measure liquids in laboratory
A) Measuring Cylinder
B) Spring Balance
C) Buret
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 33.
Heliocentric theory was proposed by
A) Albert Einstein
B) Robert Clins
C) Copernicus
D) F. Cojori
Answer:
C) Copernicus

Question 34.
“History of Science” was written by
A) Robert Hook
B) F. Cojori
C) Newton
D) Copernicus
Answer:
B) F. Cojori

Question 35.
“The theory of gravitation” was discovered by
A) Einstein
B) Newton
C) Aristotle
D) Galileo
Answer:
B) Newton

Question 36.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A — List – B
i) Galaxies — a) Climatology
ii) Climate — b) Ecologist
iii) Environment — c) Astrophysicist
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
C) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
D) i – a, ii – c, iii – b
Answer:
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – b

Question 37.
Match the following:
List – A — List – B
i) An ecologist — a) Records the results of angular momentum
ii) An astrophysicist — b) Observes the reaction of a tissue
iii) A chemist — c) Observes the territorial behaviours
iv) A nuclear physicist — d) Distribution of fossils
V) A biologist — e) Photographs distant galaxies
vi) A geologist — f) Observes the rates of a chemical reaction
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – f, vi – e
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a, v – f, vi – e
C) i – c, ii – e, iii – f, iv – a, v – b, vi – d
D) i – d, ii – e, iii – a, iv – b, v – f, vi – c
Answer:
C) i – c, ii – e, iii – f, iv – a, v – b, vi – d

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Stars and the Solar System on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 12th Lesson Stars and the Solar System with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The shortest shadow cast by a vertical object on the ground always falls in the direction.
A) East
B) West
C) North-South
D) North
Answer:
C) North-South

Question 2.
Solar eclipse occurs on a ………..
A) Full moon day
B) New moon day
C) Daily
D) None of these
Answer:
B) New moon day

Question 3.
Small objects revolving around sun like planets are called …………
A) Comets
B) Meteors
C) Asteroids
D) Meteorites
Answer:
C) Asteroids

Question 4.
The biggest of all planets in solar system is
A) Earth
B) Jupitor
C) Mercury
D) Saturn
Answer:
B) Jupitor

Question 5.
……….. is self luminous.
A) Planet
B) Asteroid
C) Satellite
D) Star
Answer:
D) Star

Question 6.
An object which comes from outer space and burns and falls on earth producing crator is
A) Meteor
B) Comet
C) Meteorite
D) Asteroid
Answer:
C) Meteorite

Question 7.
The Pole Star does not change its position with respect to earth because
A) It is near Great Bear
B) It is a big star
C) It is near small bear
D) It is on the axis of rotation of earth
Answer:
D) It is on the axis of rotation of earth

Question 8.
The natural satellite of earth is
A) Aryabhatta
B) Rohini
C) INSAT
D) Moon
Answer:
D) Moon

Question 9.
The number of planets in solar system
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
B) 8

Question 10.
Lunar eclipse occurs on
A) Full moon day
B) New moon day
C) Daily
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Full moon day

Question 11.
…………. is called red planet.
A) Mars
B) Earth
C) Jupiter
D) Mercury
Answer:
A) Mars

Question 12.
………….. is nearest star to earth.
A) Epsilonariga
B) The Pole Star
C) Sun
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Sun

Question 13.
The first artificial satellite is
A) Rohini
B) Bhaskara
C) Aryabhatta
D) INSAT
Answer:
C) Aryabhatta

Question 14.
Earth rotates from
A) West to East
C) North to South
B) East to West
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 15.
When the moon completely covers the sun as seen from the earth is known as ……..
A) Partial solar eclipse
B) Total solar eclipse
C) Annular eclipse
D) Hybrid eclipse
Answer:
B) Total solar eclipse

Question 16.
The planet which is near to earth is
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Jupiter
D) Saturn
Answer:
A) Mercury

Question 17.
The brightest planet among all the planets
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Jupiter
D) Saturn
Answer:
B) Venus

Question 18.
Moon is ………… to earth.
A) Natural satellite
B) Artificial satellite
C) Comet
D) Astroid
Answer:
A) Natural satellite

Question 19.
………… was the first Indian artificial satellite.
A) INSAT
B) Kalpana -1
C) Aryabhatta
D) EDUSAT
Answer:
C) Aryabhatta

Question 20.
When the sun looks like travelling towards the south of sky, it is called the
A) Dakshinayanam
B) Uttarayanam
C) Poorvayanam
D) Pakshinayanam
Answer:
A) Dakshinayanam

Question 21.
When the sun looks like travelling towards the north of the sky it is called the
A) Dakshinayanam
B) Uttarayanam
C) Poorvayanam
D) Pakshinayanam
Answer:
B) Uttarayanam

Question 22.
The time when the shortest shadow occurs called the ……….. time at that place.
A) local morning
B) local afternoon
C) local noon
D) local night
Answer:
C) local noon

Question 23.
The changes in appearance of moon are called
A) races of moon
B) chases of moon
C) phases of moon
D) none of these
Answer:
C) phases of moon

Question 24.
The entire illuminated surface of moon is visible from earth on day.
A) full moon
B) new moon
C) old moon
D) empty
Answer:
A) full moon

Question 25.
Great Bear can be easily recognised by its …………….. in the northern sky.
A) triangular head
B) square head
C) pentagonal head
D) rectangular head
Answer:
D) rectangular head

Question 26.
Our sun is a star in ………….. galaxy.
A) Orion
B) Milky way
C) Ursa major
D) Ursa minor
Answer:
B) Milky way

Question 27.
The path is which a planet revolving around the sun is called
A) orbital
B) orbit
C) boundary
D) none of these
Answer:
B) orbit

Question 28.
The time taken by a planet to complete one revolution is called
A) period of rotation
B) period of oscillation
C) period of revolution
D) period of vibration
Answer:
C) period of revolution

Question 29.
The time taken by planet to complete one rotation is called the
A) period of rotation
B) period of oscillation
C) period of revolution
D) period of vibration
Answer:
A) period of rotation

Question 30.
Any celestial body revolving around another celestial body is called the
A) planet
B) star
C) comet
D) satellite
Answer:
D) satellite

Question 31.
The man made satellites revolving around the earth are called ………… satellites.
A) natural
B) periodic
C) linear
D) artificial
Answer:
D) artificial

Question 32.
Earth rotates on its
A) angle
B) axis
C) plane
D) none of these
Answer:
B) axis

Question 33.
……….. is the smallest planet.
A) Earth
B) Mercury
C) Venus
D) Pluto
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 34.
The only planet on which life exists
A) Earth
B) Mercury
C) Venus
D) Pluto
Answer:
A) Earth

Question 35.
………… is called morning star or evening star.
A) Earth
B) Mercury
C) Venus
D) Pluto
Answer:
C) Venus

Question 36.
Which among these is not a planet?
A) Earth
B) Mercury
C) Venus
D) Pluto
Answer:
D) Pluto

Question 37.
This planet has rings
A) Earth
B) Saturn
C) Mercury
D) Venus
Answer:
B) Saturn

Question 38.
………….. revolve around sun in highly elliptical orbits.
A) Meteor
B) Comet
C) Star
D) Asteroid
Answer:
B) Comet

Question 39.
Asteroids are mainly present between
A) Earth, Mercury
B) Venus, Mars
C) Mars, Jupiter
D) Earth, Mars
Answer:
C) Mars, Jupiter

Question 40.
………… is called blue planet.
A) Mars
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Mercury
Answer:
C) Earth

Question 41.
The planets which rotate from east to west are
A) Venus
B) Uranus
C) Neptune
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 42.
Choose correct matching option.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Earth — a) Not a planet
2. Mercury — b) Only planet on which life exists
3. Venus — c) Has rings
4. Pluto — d) Smallest planet
5. Saturn — e) Morning star or evening star
A) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 43.
Planets shine more brightly than stars because
A) due to nuclear reactions
B) self luminous
C) reflect light
D) none of these
Answer:
C) reflect light

Question 44.
The nearest planet to sun is
A) Earth
B) Jupiter
C) Venus
D) Mercury
Answer:
D) Mercury

Question 45.
Halley’s comet is periodically seen for every ………. years.
A) 70
B) 76
C) 74
D) 80
Answer:
B) 76

Question 46.
A clock based on shadows of an object due to sunlight is
A) Atomic clock
B) Wall clock
C) Sundial
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Sundial

Question 47.
The illuminated surface of moon is not visible from earth on
A) full moon day
B) new moon day
C) old moon day
D) empty moon day
Answer:
B) new moon day

Question 48.
The diameter of sun is ………….. km
A) 13,92,000
B) 6,000
C) 13,000
D) 9,000
Answer:
A) 13,92,000

Question 49.
The diameter of earth is ………. km
A) 13,92,000
B) 12,756
C) 3,474
D) 15,00,00,000
Answer:
B) 12,756

Question 50.
The diameter of moon is ……….. km
A) 13,92,000
B) 12,756
C) 3,474
D) 15,00,00,000
Answer:
C) 3,474

Question 51.
The distance from sun to earth is ………. km
A) 13,92,000
B) 12,756
C) 3,474
D) 15,00,00,000
Answer:
D) 15,00,00,000

Question 52.
The distance from moon to earth is ………. km
A) 12,756
B) 3,474
C) 5,000
D) 3,84,399
Answer:
D) 3,84,399

Question 53.
Choose correct matching option.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Artificial satellite — a) Earth
2. Comet — b) Venus, uranus
3. Blue planet — c) Aryabhatta
4. Asteroids mainly present between — d) Revolve around Sun in highly elliptical orbits
5. The planets with rotate from east to west are — e) Mars, Jupiter
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b

Question 54.
i. A Lunar eclipse occurs when the shadow of the earth falls on the moon on full moon day.
ii. A solar eclipse occurs when the shadow of the moon falls on the earth on full moon day.
A) Only (i) is true
B) Only (ii) is true
C) (i) and (ii) both are true
D) (i) and (ii) both are false
Answer:
A) Only (i) is true

Question 55.
The country that sent Chandrayan -1 Satellite to observe the moon was
A) Japan
B) India
C) Russia
D) England
Answer:
B) India

Question 56.
“No life on the planet Mercury” – Predict the reason for this identity.
A) It is more hot.
B) There is only water without land region.
C) It has no satellites.
D) It is fully covered with ice.
Answer:
A) It is more hot.

Question 57.
Match the planets in Set – A with their specialities in Set – B.
Set – A — Set -B
P) Mars — X) Giant planet
Q) Venus — Y) Red planet
R) Jupiter — Z) Morning star
A) P – Y, Q – X, R – Z
B) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X
C) P – Z, Q – X, R – Y
D) P – Z, Q – Y, R – X
Answer:
B) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X

Question 58.
The tilted motion of the earth on its axis causes
A) Cyclones
B) Day and nights
C) Seasons
D) Eclipses
Answer:
C) Seasons

Question 59.
Suppose the new planet is discovered between Earth and Mars. It’s time period would be.
A) Less than that of Mars
B) More than that of Mars
C) Equal to that of Mars
D) Less than earth
Answer:
A) Less than that of Mars

Question 60.
The sun appears to move from east to west around the Earth. This means that the earth rotates
A) East to west
B) West to east
C) North to south
D) South to north
Answer:
B) West to east

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Some Natural Phenomena on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 11th Lesson Some Natural Phenomena with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The upper layer of the earth is called
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Inner core
D) Outer core
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 2.
Seismic waves recorded by an instrument called
A) Electroscope
B) Galvanometer
C) Seismograph
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Seismograph

Question 3.
Increase in 2 in magnitude of richter scale means ……….. times more destructive energy.
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10
D) 10000
Answer:
B) 1000

Question 4.
Hyderabad lies in seismic zone of
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer:
B) II

Question 5.
Unlike charges ………….. each other.
A) repel
B) attract
C) does not react
D) none of these
Answer:
B) attract

Question 6.
Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?
A) a plastic scale
B) a copper rod
C) a wollen cloth
D) piece of wood
Answer:
B) a copper rod

Question 7.
When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth
A) Rod and the cloth acquire positive charge
B) Rod becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative charge
C) Rod and the cloth both acquire negative charge
D) Rod becomes negatively charged while the cloth has a positive charge
Answer:
B) Rod becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative charge

Question 8.
Discharge takes place between negative and positive charge which produces streaks of bright light is called
A) earthing
B) lightning
C) cracking
D) thunder
Answer:
B) lightning

Question 9.
The outermost layer of the earth is fragmented. Each fragment is called
A) zone
B) plate
C) region
D) area
Answer:
B) plate

Question 10.
The waves produced by tremors on the surface of earth is called
A) earthquake waves
B) seismic waves
C) sound waves
D) light waves
Answer:
B) seismic waves

Question 11.
………… measures energy released by the earthquake more accurately.
A) Richter
B) Moment magnitude
C) Pauling
D) Milliken
Answer:
B) Moment magnitude

Question 12.
Unlike magnetic each other.
A) repel
B) attract
C) both
D) none
Answer:
B) attract

Question 13.
Like charges each other.
A) attract
B) repel
C) both
D) none
Answer:
B) repel

Question 14.
The process of transferring charge from a charged object to earth is called
A) earthing
B) lightning
C) thunder
D) blowing
Answer:
A) earthing

Question 15.
……….. protects us from electric shocks due to any leakage of electric charge.
A) Rarthing
B) Lightning
C) Thunder
D) Blowing
Answer:
A) Rarthing

Question 16.
The layer below the crust is
A) core
B) mantle
C) inner core
D) none of these
Answer:
B) mantle

Question 17.
The innermost layer of earth is
A) crust
B) mantle
C) outermost
D) inner core
Answer:
D) inner core

Question 18.
Choose correct matching options.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Like charges — a) Produce streaks of bright light
2. Unlike charges — (b) Protect us from electric shock due to lekage of charge
3. Earthing — c) Attract
4. Lightning — d) Crust
5. The uppermost — e) Repel
A) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d

Question 19.
When the glass rubbed with silk cloth, the charge acquired by silk cloth is
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) No charge
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Negative

Question 20.
The device used to test whether an object is carrying charge or not is
A) Microscope
B) Galvanoscope
C) Electroscope
D) Thermoscope
Answer:
C) Electroscope

Question 21.
…………. is a simple device which can be used without any technological back ground to measure the occurrence of earthquake.
A) Seismograph
B) Electroscope
C) Seismoscope
D) Galvanoscope
Answer:
C) Seismoscope

Question 22.
The instrument is called to approximate measure the intensity of earthquake is
A) Seismograph
B) Sesmoscope
C) Gold leaf electroscope
D) Lightening conductors
Answer:
A) Seismograph

Question 23.
“Lightning and spark from your clothes are essentially same phenomena” This experiment was shown by scientist
A) Faraday
B) Newton
C) Benjamin Franklin
D) Volta
Answer:
C) Benjamin Franklin

Question 24.
The destructive earthquakes have magnitudes higher than on ………. the Richter scale.
A) 3.0
B) 4.0
C) 7.0
D) 2.0
Answer:
C) 7.0

Question 25.
It can protects buildings from the effects of lightening.
A) Seismograph
B) Seismoscope
C) Gold leaf electroscope
D) Lightening conductors
Answer:
D) Lightening conductors

Question 26.
The power of earthquake can be expressed in terms of scale.
A) Pauling
B) Milliken
C) Kelvin
D) Ritcher
Answer:
D) Ritcher

Question 27.
The weak zones where earthquakes more likely to occur are called
A) resident zones
B) non-resident zones
C) seismic zones
D) non-seismic zones
Answer:
C) seismic zones

Question 28.
Choose correct matching options.
Group – A Group – B
1. Electroscope — a) Device used to protect buildings from lightning
2. Lightning — b) Used to conductor detect charged object
3. Seismograph — c) Power of earthquake
4. Seismoscope — d) Time of occurance of earthquake
5. Richter scale — e) Instrument records seismic waves
A) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – d, 5 – c
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – d, 5 – c

Question 29.
Which activity the given figure represents?

A) Types of charges
B) Testing the presence of charge
C) Effect of rubbing
D) Transfer of charge
Answer:
B) Testing the presence of charge

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Reflection of Light at Plane Surfaces on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 10th Lesson Reflection of Light at Plane Surfaces with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Find the values of ∠i, ∠r in the diagram.

A) ∠i = 60°, ∠r = 60°
B) ∠i = 60°, ∠r = 30°
C) ∠i = 30°, ∠r = 60°
D) ∠i = 30°, ∠r = 30°
Answer:
D) ∠i = 30°, ∠r = 30°

Question 2.
Which of the following mirror is used as a rearview mirror?
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Combination of concave and convex
Answer:
B) Convex

Question 3.
The principle which states that light takes the path which takes the least time to travel is given by
A) Newton
B) Ampere
C) Pierre de Fermat
D) Pascal
Answer:
C) Pierre de Fermat

Question 4.
In the case of a plane mirror, the object distance is ………… to image distance.
A) Equal
B) Lesser
C) Greater
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 5.
Which of the following images cannot be caught on the screen?
A) Real
B) Virtual
C) Lateral inversion
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Virtual

Question 6.
The angle of incidence is the angle between
A) The incident ray and surface of the mirror
B) The reflected ray and surface of the mirror
C) The normal to the surface and incident ray
D) The normal to the surface and reflected ray
Answer:
C) The normal to the surface and incident ray

Question 7.
The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is ………..
A) virtual
B) real
C) diminished
D) upside-down
Answer:
A) virtual

Question 8.
The focal length of the plane mirror is ………….
A) zero
B) infinity
C) negative
D) positive
Answer:
B) infinity

Question 9.
Two plane mirrors are kept at the following angles one by one. In which case is the number of images formed are the maximum?
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 30°

Question 10.
When two plane mirrors are placed parallel to each other, then a number of images formed are infinite because ……….
A) Angle between plane mirrors is 0°

D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 11.
In the given figure the value of x and y

A) 40°, 40°
B) 90°, 90°
C) 50°, 50°
D) 180°
Answer:

Question 12.
In the given figure the value of δ is ………… degrees.

A) 180°
B) 90°
C) 30°
D) 60°
Answer:
C) 30°

Question 13.
The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence …………
A) always
B) sometimes
C) never
D) under special conditions
Answer:
A) always

Question 14.
For a plane mirror, the incorrect statement is
A) it forms a real image
B) image is as far behind the mirror as far the object is in front of it
C) the image formed is erect
D) the image formed is of the same size as the object
Answer:
A) it forms a real image

Question 15.
Which of the following is related to plane mirrors?
i) Image is virtual and erect
ii) Object size = image size
iii) Distance from mirror to object = mirror to image
iv) Lateral inversion
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii and iii
C) i and ii
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 16.
A real image
A) is formed when reflected rays do not actually meet but appear to diverge from a point
B) can’t be obtained on a screen
C) can be obtained on a screen
D) is always erect
Answer:
C) can be obtained on a screen

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Light forms shadow.
Reason (R): Light always travels in a straight line.
A) A’ and ‘R’ are correct and A’ is supported by ‘R’
B) A and ‘R’ are correct, but A is not supported by ‘R’
C) A is correct, but ‘R’ is incorrect
D) ‘R’ is correct, but A is incorrect
Answer:
A) A’ and ‘R’ are correct and A’ is supported by ‘R’

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
Reason (R): When the light gets reflected from a surface, it selects the path that takes the least time.
A) A and ‘R’ are correct and ‘A’ is supported by ‘R’
B) A’ and ‘R’ are correct, but A’ is not supported by ‘R’
C) A is correct, but ‘R’ is incorrect
D) ‘R’ is correct, but A is incorrect
Answer:
A) A and ‘R’ are correct and ‘A’ is supported by ‘R’

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The size of an image seems to be increased when you move the object towards your eye from a plane mirror.
Reason (R): The angle of vision plays a role in judging the size of an object.
A) A and ‘R’ are correct and A is supported by ‘R’
B) A and ‘R’ are correct, but A is not supported by ‘R’
C) A is correct, but ‘R’ is incorrect
D) ‘R’ is correct, but A is incorrect
Answer:
D) ‘R’ is correct, but A is incorrect

Question 20.
Assertion (A1): The light rays which come from our right ear get reflected from the plane mirror and reach our eye.
Assertion (A2): Our brain feels that the ray (reflected) is coming from the inside of the mirror.
These statements are related to
A) shadow
B) lateral inversion
C) refraction
D) Fermat’s principle
Answer:
B) lateral inversion

Question 21.
Choose the correct statements regarding the laws of reflection.
i) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
ii) The incident ray, the normal at the point of incidence, and the reflected ray lie in the same plane.
iii) The frequency of the incident light changes.
iv) The velocity and wavelength of light change.
A) i
B) i and ii
C) ii and iii
D) iii
Answer:
B) i and ii

Question 22.
Fermat principle
i) Applicable for reflection of light
ii) Light selects the path which takes the least time to travel.
iii) It is also applicable for the refraction of light.
iv) Light selects the path which takes maximum time to travel.
A) i, ii, iii
B) iii, iv, i
C) i
D) iv
Answer:
A) i, ii, iii

Question 23.
A student is standing at a distance of 2 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the student and his image will be
A) 2m
B) 3m
C) 4m
D) 6m
Answer:
C) 4m

Question 24.
The focal length of a concave mirror in the experiment set up shown below equals to

A) 4 cm
B) 8 cm
C) 1.2 cm
D) 5 cm
Answer:
C) 1.2 cm

Question 25.
The figure given below shows the image of a clock as seen in a plane mirror. The correct time is ………

A) 2:25
B) 2:35
C) 6:45
D) 9:25
Answer:
D) 9:25

Question 26.
The angle of incidence between the plane of a mirror arid light ray is 45°. The angle of reflection is ……..
A) 45°
B) 30°
C) 90°
D) 60°
Answer:
A) 45°

Question 27.
Choose the correct mirror image of

Answer:
A)

Question 28.
Which information do we have from the given figure?

i) Our brain feels that reflected ray seems to be coming from inside the mirror
ii) We can observe lateral inversion
iii) ∠i = ∠r
iv) Light travels from rarer medium falls on the smooth polished surface
A) i, ii only correct
B) i, iv only correct
C) ii, iii only correct
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 29.

Select the correct pair of incidence and reflected rays
A) (l, o) and (m, n)
B) (l, n) and (m, o)
C) (l, m) and (n, o)
D) None of the above
Answer:
D) None of the above

Question 30.
If an object is placed 10 cm from the plane mirror, then the distance between the object and its image is
A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm
Answer:
B) 20 cm

Question 31.
Find the distance from O’ to I’ from the following figure if

A) 120
B) 240
C) 60
D) 60 + 2x
Answer:
B) 240

Question 32.
What is the difference between the two images?

A) i) is a lateral inversion
B) ii) is a vertical inversion
C) Both i) and ii) are correct
D) Can’t say
Answer:
C) Both i) and ii) are correct

Question 33.
The letter ‘P’ appears as ……….. in vertical inversion.

Answer:
A) b

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Electrical Conductivity of Liquids on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 9th Lesson Electrical Conductivity of Liquids with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……….. is called blue vitrol.
A) Copper sulphate
B) Zinc sulphate
C) Iron sulphate
D) Magnesium sulphate
Answer:
A) Copper sulphate

Question 2.
…………… cell does not have any liquid.
A) Volta
B) Dichromate
C) Lechlanche
D) Dry
Answer:
D) Dry

Question 3.
………… is added to increase conductivity of distilled water.
A) Sugar
B) Oil
C) Salt
D) Kerosene
Answer:
C) Salt

Question 4.
………… is useful to join or break the circuit.
A) Cell
B) Key
C) Battery
D) Resistor
Answer:
B) Key

Question 5.
Drinking water is good conductor of electricity due to
A) dissolved salts
B) bacteria
C) virus
D) dust particles
Answer:
A) dissolved salts

Question 6.
…………… spot is seen on the potato around the wire connected to the positive terminal of battery.
A) White
B) Yellow
C) Greenish blue
D) Orange
Answer:
C) Greenish blue

Question 7.
Pure water is a ……….
A) Electric conductor
B) Semi conductor
C) Insulator
D) Resistor
Answer:
C) Insulator

Question 8.
The material which do not allow electric current to pass through it is known as
A) Electric conductor
B) Insulator
C) Electric resistance
D) Semi conductor
Answer:
B) Insulator

Question 9.
Electroplating is possible through
A) Electrolysis
B) Chemical process
C) Dissolving
D) Filtration
Answer:
A) Electrolysis

Question 10.
One of the following is not an electrolyte
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Lemon juice
C) Tamarind juice
D) Detergent solution
Answer:
D) Detergent solution

Question 11.
The material that allow electric current to pass through them easily are called
A) conductors
B) semi conductors
C) insulators
D) resistors
Answer:
A) conductors

Question 12.
The diodes which glow when current pass through them are called
A) LED
B) HED
C) LRD
D) LAD
Answer:
A) LED

Question 13.
…………… proposed that all living be¬ings contained electricity.
A) Volta
B) Ampere
C) Ohm
D) Galvani
Answer:
D) Galvani

Question 14.
The first cell was prepared by
A ) ampere
B) volta
C) ohm
D) galvani
Answer:
B) volta

Question 15.
The metallic rods or plates used in electrolysis is called
A) electrodes
B) electrolytes
C) electric charges
D) none of these
Answer:
A) electrodes

Question 16.
The substance used for electrolysis is called
A) electrode
B) electrolyte
C) electric substance
D) none of these
Answer:
B) electrolyte

Question 17.
The colour of copper sulphate solution is
A) green
B) blue
C) red
D) yellow
Answer:
B) blue

Question 18.
Which among these is good conductor of electricity?
A) plastic
B) rubber
C) diamond
D) salt solution
Answer:
D) salt solution

Question 19.
Which among these is bad conductor of electricity?
A) gold
B) silver
C) copper
D) kerosene
Answer:
D) kerosene

Question 20.
………….. useful as tester.
i) LED
ii) Magnetic compass
iii) Magnet
iv) Fuse
A) Both i and ii
B) Both i and iii
C) ii and iv
D) iii and iv
Answer:
A) Both i and ii

Question 21.
…………. converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
A) Motor
B) Generator
C) Electrolytic cell
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Electrolytic cell

Question 22.
Choose correct matching option.
Group – A — Group -B
1. Electrode — a) Dissociation into ions with passage of current
2. Electrolysis — b) Kerosene
3. Electrolyte — c) Metallic rods used in electrolysis
4. Good conductor — d) The material which allows passage of current
5. Bad conductor — e) Salt solution
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3-d, 4 – e, 5 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3-d, 4 – e, 5 – b

Question 23.
Magnetic compass acts as tester when it is connected in a circuit due to ……………. effect of current.
A) heating
B) magnetic
C) chemical
D) none of these
Answer:
B) magnetic

Question 24.
The passage of electric current through solution causes ………… effects.
A) mechanical
B) chemical
C) magnetic
D) physical
Answer:
B) chemical

Question 25.
The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called
A) electrotyping
B) electrolysis
C) electroplating
D) none of these
Answer:
C) electroplating

Question 26.
The process of dissociation of solution of compound into constitute ions with passage of current is called
A) electrolysis
B) pyrolysis
C) photolysis
D) ketolysis
Answer:
A) electrolysis

Question 27.
An inferior metal is coated with supe¬rior metal by using electrolysis process is called
A) electrotyping
B) electroplating
C) electroprinting
D) galvanizing
Answer:
B) electroplating

Question 28.
If you pass current through copper sulphate solution, copper deposited on the plate connected to the ………. terminal of the battery.
A) negative
B) positive
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
A) negative

Question 29.
Choose correct matching option.
Group – A — Group -B
1. Potato — a) Converts chemical energy into electric energy
2. LED — b) To identify positive terminal of cell
3. Electrolytic cell — (c) Electroplating
4. Ornamentation — (d) Galvani
5. Living being contained electricity — (e) Tester
A) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – d
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – d

Question 30.
The formula of copper sulphate is
A) FeSO₄
B) ZnSO₄
C) CuSO₄
D) MgSO₄
Answer:
C) CuSO₄

Question 31.
Which of the following is also used in ornamentation and decoration?
A) Electrotyping
B) Electroplating
C) Electroprinting
D) Galvanizing
Answer:
B) Electroplating

Question 32.
The word voltage derived from……….
A) watt
B)volta
C) volt
D) ampere
Answer:
B)volta

Question 33.
Distilled water is ………. conductor of electricity.
A) good
B) partial
C) poor
D) none of these
Answer:
C) poor

Question 34.
………… is useful in identifying positive terminal of battery.
A) Tomato
B) Potato
C) Carrot
D) Beetroot
Answer:
B) Potato

Question 35.
Given figure is a

A) Battery
B) Circuit
C) Current
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Circuit

Question 36.
Given figure is an example for

A) Bulb
B) LED bulb
C) Current flowing
D) None
Answer:
B) LED bulb

Question 37.
Name of the experiment given here is

A) Electrotyping
B) Electroplating
C) Electric current
D) None
Answer:
B) Electroplating

Question 38.
Electrolytic cell converts ………… energy into electrical energy.
A) Mechanical
B) Chemical
C) Magnetic
D) Muscular
Answer:
B) Chemical

Question 39.
L.E.D means ………….
A) Light Emitting Diode
B) Light Existing Diode
C) Light Equipped Diode
D) Light Energy Diode
Answer:
A) Light Emitting Diode

Question 40.

In the above diagrams indicates bulb, indicates battery. Then which of the following is correct?
A) ii only
B) i and ii only
C) ii and iii only
D) i only
Answer:
A) ii only

Question 41.
In a voltaic cell
A) Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy
B) Mechanical energy is converted into chemical energy
C) Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
D) Chemical energy is converted into
Answer:
D) Chemical energy is converted into

Question 42.
The electric current in a circuit represents
A) Formation of charge
B) Motion of conductor
C) Motion of charge
D) Discharge of charge
Answer:
C) Motion of charge

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Combustion, Fuels and Flame on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 8th Lesson Combustion, Fuels and Flame with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The example for combustible material
A) sand
B) clay
C) alcohol
D) pebbles
Answer:
C) alcohol

Question 2.
The example for non-combustible material
A) Kerosene
B) Petrol
C) Diesel
D) Iron
Answer:
D) Iron

Question 3.
……….. gas supports combustion.
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
A) Oxygen

Question 4.
Fire produced by oil cannot be controlled by
A) water
B) sodium carbonate
C) carbondioxide
D) none of these
Answer:
A) water

Question 5.
Fuel must be heated to its ……….. temperature before it starts burning.
A) Critical
B) Ignition
C) Melting
D) Freezing
Answer:
B) Ignition

Question 6.
The outermost zone of candle is ………… in colour.
A) blue
B) red
C) black
D) yellow
Answer:
A) blue

Question 7.
………… zone of candle is least hot.
A) Middle zone
B) Outermost zone
C) Dark zone
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Dark zone

Question 8.
The dark zone of candle is …………… in colour.
A) blue
B) black
C) red
D) yellow
Answer:
B) black

Question 9.
The gas needed for combustion among the following is
A) Argon
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 10.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its
A) Ignition temperature
B) Maximum temperature
C) Room temperature
D) Normal temperature
Answer:
A) Ignition temperature

Question 11.
The units of calorific value is
A) Newtons/grams
B) Newtons/kg
C) Kilo jouls/kg
D) Kilo jouls/gram
Answer:
C) Kilo jouls/kg

Question 12.
Spirit and petroleum turns into gas at
A) Room temperature
B) Ignition temperature
C) Maximum temperature
D) Normal temperature
Answer:
A) Room temperature

Question 13.
A chemical process in which material reacts with oxygen present in the air to generate heat is called
A) combustion
B) partial combustion
C) non combustion
D) none of these
Answer:
A) combustion

Question 14.
The material which undergo combustion is called ………. material.
A) non combustible
B) partial combustible
C) combustible
D) none of these
Answer:
C) combustible

Question 15.
The material which does not undergo combustion is called ………… material.
A) combustible
B) partial combustible
C) non combustible
D) none of these
Answer:
C) non combustible

Question 16.
………… substances have very low ignition temperature.
A) Inflammable
B) Flammable
C) Partial flammable
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Inflammable

Question 17.
Burning of gas is an example of …………. combustion.
A) spontaneous
B) rapid
C) regular
D) irregular
Answer:
B) rapid

Question 18.
…………. zone is the hottest part of the candle.
A) Innermost
B) Middle
C) Outermost
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Outermost

Question 19.
Middle zone of candle is ……….. in colour.
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Yellow
D) White
Answer:
C) Yellow

Question 20.
Spirit and petrol turn into …………. at room temperature.
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) none of these
Answer:
C) gas

Question 21.
…………. among these prevents burning.
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Both
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Carbon dioxide

Question 22.
The full form of LPG is
A) Liquefied Pilot Gas
B) Liquified Petroleum Gas
C) Liquid Petrol Gas
D) Liquid Potential Gas
Answer:
B) Liquified Petroleum Gas

Question 23.
Middle zone of candle ………… hot.
A) highest
B) moderate
C) least
D) none of these
Answer:
B) moderate

Question 24.
Dark zone of candle ………….. hot.
A) least
B) moderate
C) highest
D) none of these
Answer:
A) least

Question 25.
Among these not a combustible material ………….
A) petrol
B) diesel
C) kerosene
D) sand
Answer:
D) sand

Question 26.
Among these ………….. is a com-bustible material.
A) steel
B) iron
C) sand
D) petrol
Answer:
D) petrol

Question 27.
Explosion takes place in
A) lamps
B) lanterns
C) crackers
D) none of these
Answer:
B) lanterns

Question 28.
The colour of flame of candle at hottest zone is
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Yellow
D) White
Answer:
B) Blue

Question 29.
Choose correct option for matching.
Group – A — Group -B
1. Middle zone of candle gas — a) Liquid petrol
2. Outermost zone of candle hot — b) Moderately
3. Dark zone of candle natural gas — c) Compressed
4. CNG — d) hottest part
5. LPG — e) Least hot
A) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – a

Question 30.
………… gas is released when potassium permanganate is heated.
A) Hydrogen
B) Chlorine
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
C) Oxygen

Question 31.
…………. release oxygen on heating.
A) Mercuric sulphate
B) Lead chloride
C) Potassium permanganate
D) Sodium chloride
Answer:
C) Potassium permanganate

Question 32.
What information does the figure gives us?

A) Necessity of air for burning
B) Ignition temperature
C) Combustion
D) Structure of flame
Answer:
A) Necessity of air for burning

Question 33.
The formula of potassium permangan ate is
A) K₂MnO₄
B) KMnO₄
C) MnO₂
D) KClO₃
Answer:
B) KMnO₄

Question 34.
………… is written on petrol tankers,
A) Flammable
B) Inflammable
C) Highly inflammable
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Highly inflammable

Question 35.
………… is used in matchsticks.
A) Potassium chloride
B) Sodium chloride
C) Antimony sulphide
D) Potassium sulphide
Answer:
C) Antimony sulphide

Question 36.
……….. is used in surface of match- stick,
A) White phosphorous
B) Red phosphorous
C) Yellow phosphorous
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Red phosphorous

Question 37.
Choose correct option for matching.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Combustible material — a) KJ/kg
2. Non-combustible burning material — b) Prevents
3. Carbondioxide — c) Petrol
4. Phosphorous — d) Sand
5. Calorific value — e) Stored in water
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a

Question 38.
Choose correct option for matching.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Low ignition temperatures — a) Matchstick
2. Crackers — b) Inflammable substances
3. Potassium permanganate — (c) Explosion
4. Antinomy sulphide — (d) Surface of match box
5. Red phosphorous — (e) Oxygen
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – d

Question 39.
Among the following High Calorific valued substance is ……….

Answer:
C)

Question 40.
The liquid fuel used in homes is
A) CNG
B) LPG
C) Coal gas
D) None of these
Answer:
B) LPG

Question 41.
Burning of wood and coal causes severe ………… pollution.
A) water
B) land
C) air
D) none of these
Answer:
C) air

Question 42.
The type of combustion in which material suddenly burns into flames without the application of any external agent is called ………
A) Rapid combustion
B) Slow combustion
C) Spontaneous combustion
D) Explosion
Answer:
C) Spontaneous combustion

Question 43.
Burning of a matchstick is an example of ………… combustion.
A) spontaneous
B) rapid
C) explosion
D) none of these
Answer:
A) spontaneous

Question 44.
In which situations we are misusing the fuel resources while cooking in our daily life?
A) Cooking with out lid
B) Using more water while cooking
C) Leakages in pipes, burners and regu-lators
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
Units of calorific value is
A) Kilo joule
B) Kilo joule – kilogram
C) Kilo joule / kilogram
D) Kilogram
Answer:
C) Kilo joule / kilogram

Question 46.
Geetha: Fire is necessary to burn a substance.
Harini: Sufficient temperature is necessary for burning.
Whom do you support?
A) Geetha
B) Harini
C) Both Geetha & Harini
D) Neither Geetha nor Harini
Answer:
B) Harini

Question 47.
Which causes less pollution?
Among the fuels that we use in our daily life.
A) Kerosene
B) LPG
C) Dung cakes
D) Wood
Answer:
B) LPG

Question 48.
Observe the following graph.

Which have same calorific value?
A) Coal, Diesel
B) Coal, Petrol
C) Hydrogen, Diesel
D) Petrol, Diesel
Answer:
D) Petrol, Diesel

Question 49.
The correct order of the following sentences is
1) Insert a glass tumbler over it
2) Then flickers and finally, flame goes off
3) Take a small burning candle and put it on a table
4) The candle continues to burn for some time
A) 3, 2, 1, 4
B) 3, 1, 4, 2
C) 3, 1, 2, 4
D) 3, 4, 2,1
Answer:
B) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 50.
On placing an inverted tumbler over a burning candle, the flame extinguishers after sometime. This is because of non-availability of ….
A) Water vapours
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Wax
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 51.
Which one among the following is considered as the cleanest fuel?
A) Petrol
B) Diesel
C) Cow dung cake
D) Hydrogen gas
Answer:
D) Hydrogen gas

Question 52.
Clothes catch fire, the best way to extinguish the fire is to
A) Throw water on the clothes
B) Use fire extinguisher
C) Cover the person with a woolen blanket
D) Cover the person with a polythene sheet
Answer:
B) Use fire extinguisher

Question 53.
In villages, people use wood as fuel because ………
A) It is considered to be an ideal fuel
B) Of its easy availability and low cost
C) It is environment friendly
D) It catches fire very easily
Answer:
B) Of its easy availability and low cost

Question 54.
Which one of the following has the highest calorific value?
A) Kerosene
B) Biogas
C) LPG
D) Petrol
Answer:
C) LPG

Question 55.
One of the following substances is expected to have the highest ignition temperature
A) Kerosene
B) Petrol
C) Coal
D) Alcohol
Answer:
C) Coal

Question 56.
The following is not a combustile substance
A) Camphor
B) Glass
C) Straw
D) Alcohol
Answer:
B) Glass

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Coal and Petroleum on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 7th Lesson Coal and Petroleum with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………. is called black gold.
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Natural gas
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Petroleum

Question 2.
………. gas obtained during the processing of coal to get coke.
A) Coal
B) LPG
C) CNG
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Coal

Question 3.
Coal fired power plants emits
A) magnesium
B) aluminium
C) mercury
D) silicon
Answer:
C) mercury

Question 4.
……….. is inexhaustible source of energy in the given below.
A) Coal
B) Solar energy
C) Petroleum
D) Natural gas
Answer:
B) Solar energy

Question 5.
……….. is a mixture of 200 substances.
A) Coal
B) Coal gas
C) Carbon
D) Coal tar
Answer:
D) Coal tar

Question 6.
CNG means ………..
A) condensed natural gas
B) compressed natural gas
C) complete natural gas
D) condemned natural gas
Answer:
B) compressed natural gas

Question 7.
Purest form of carbon is called
A) coal
B) charcoal
C) lamp black
D) coke
Answer:
D) coke

Question 8.
……….. use wind energy to produce current.
A) Panels
B) Wind guage
C) Wind mill
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Wind mill

Question 9.
Napthalene is obtained from
A) coal
B) coal gas
C) coal tar
D) none of these
Answer:
C) coal tar

Question 10.
Why does we call coal and petrol are exhaustible resources?
A) They are limited in stock
B) They cannot produce immediately
C) They emits pollution
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 11.
What will happen if there is no petrol and coal?
A) Ail the vehicles, now available, will become useless.
B) Thermal power plants will shut down.
C) Transportation charges will increases.
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 12.
Petroleum components are separated by a technique called
A) distillation
B) evaporation
C) sublimation
D) fractional distillation
Answer:
D) fractional distillation

Question 13.
Process of conversion of dead vegetation into coal is called
A) hydrogenation
B) calcination
C) carbonisation
D) oxidation
Answer:
C) carbonisation

Question 14.
Separation of petroleum products from petroleum is called ……….
A) refinery
B) distillation
C) poling
D) liquification
Answer:
A) refinery

Question 15.

This experiment shows
A) Burning of coal gas
B) Burning of petrol
C) Burning of coke gas
D) None
Answer:
A) Burning of coal gas

Question 16.
Metals are extracted from
A) petrochemicals
B) dried up trees
C) sand
D) ores
Answer:
D) ores

Question 17.
More pollutant among fossil fuels is
A) coal
B) petroleum
C) natural gas
D) none of these
Answer:
A) coal

Question 18.
……….. balls repel moths and other insects.
A) Benzene
B) Naphthalene
C) Anthoacene
D) Acitene
Answer:
B) Naphthalene

Question 19.
……… is exhaustible source among these.
A) solar energy
B) wind energy
C) tidal energy
D) natural gas
Answer:
D) natural gas

Question 20.
……… is used for extraction of metals.
A) Coal
B) Coke
C) Coal tar
D) Coal gas
Answer:
B) Coke

Question 21.
Choose correct option to sure matching.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Exhaustible source — a) Naphthalene
2. Inexhaustible source — b)Extraction of metals
3. Coal tar — c) Tidal energy
4. Coke — d)Lighting )
5. Coal gas — e) Natural gas
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – e
B) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
C) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – d, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d

Question 22.

Material	How is it obtained ?
Glass	By melting sand with other materials and then, cooling it rapidly
Clay	By mixing the mineral kaolinite with water
Wood	From dried up trees
Plastics	From petrochemicals
Metals	From their respective ores

Plastic tables and plastic chairs are made with
A) Petroleum
B) Coal
C) Natural gas
D) Trees
Answer:
A) Petroleum

Question 23.

Coal is used to manufacture
A) Napthalene
B) Paints
C) Kerosene
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 24.
This is not a product of petroleum
A) Candle
B) LPG
C) Petrol
D) Naphthalene
Answer:
A) Candle

Question 25.

Given figure is an example for ………. type of energy resource.
A) natural
B) renewable
C) non-renewable
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 26.

Part ‘a’ is
A) Boiling tube
B) Delivery tube
C) Jet tube
D) Stand
Answer:
B) Delivery tube

Question 27.
Liquid gold is
A) Petrol
B) Coal
C) Petroleum
D) Kerosene
Answer:
C) Petroleum

Question 28.
These microbes, which were produced petroleum are appreciable
A) Plankton
B) Dengue
C) Sea animals
D) Starfish
Answer:
A) Plankton

Question 29.
………… is exhaustible fuel among the fuels given below.
A) Solar energy
B) Wind energy
C) Coal
D) Tidal energy
Answer:
C) Coal

Question 30.
Solar energy ……….. source of energy.
A) exhaustible
B) inexhaustible
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) inexhaustible

Question 31.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ……… fuels.
A) fossil
B) natural
C) artificial
D) none of these
Answer:
A) fossil

Question 32.
……….. is used in the manufacture of steel and extraction of many metals.
A) Nickel
B) Cobalt
C) Zinc
D) Coke
Answer:
D) Coke

Question 33.
……….. is used for lighting.
A) Coal
B) Coke
C) Coal tar
D) Coal gas
Answer:
D) Coal gas

Question 34.
This product of ‘coal’ protects from moths and insects to our clothes
A) Napthelene
B) Vaseline
C) Wax
D) Paints
Answer:
A) Napthelene

Question 35.
Global warming is caused by
A) O₂
B) CO₂
C) N₂
D) H₂O
Answer:
B) CO₂

Question 36.
Coal fired power plants (thermal power plants) emits
A) Mercury
B) Selenium
C) Arsenic
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 37.
Which of the following is not harmful to our health?
A) Solar power stations
B) Thermal power station
C) Hydrel power stations
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 38.
This is not a product of paraffin wax
A) Face cream
B) Grease
C) Candle
D) Paints
Answer:
D) Paints

Question 39.
This is a renewable and non-toxic fuel
A) Bio fuels
B) Petroleum fuel
C) LPG
D) Above all
Answer:
A) Bio fuels

Question 40.
Complete the given analogy
Carbon dioxide : Global warming : : ………….. : Nausea
A) Sulphur dioxide
B) Toxic substances from paints
C) Oxygen
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
B) Toxic substances from paints

Question 41.
Which of die following is Gas fuel
A) LPG
B) Petrol
C) Coal
D) Diesel
Answer:
A) LPG

Question 42.
i) Solar energy ii) Petroleum
iii) Wind energy iv) Hydro energy
Which of the above are inexhaustible resources?
A) only (i)
B) (i) and (iii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 43.
Which of the following is not obtained from coaltar?
A) Naphthalene
B) Dyes
C) Sugar
D) Pesticides
Answer:
C) Sugar

Question 44.
P) Take a hard boiling tube and fill it with coal. Arrange a rubber cork and pass delivery tube through rubber cork
Q) Brownish black colour gas released from test tube
R) Take a boiling tube and fill it with water
S) We can observe the white flame at the mouth of jet tube
The correct sequence of arranging the apparatus.
A)Q-R-S-P
B)P-R-Q-S
C)P-S-Q-R
D)P-Q-R-S
Answer:
B)P-R-Q-S

Question 45.
Write the precautions to be taken in conducting an experiment showing the burning of gas released by heating a high quality coal.
a) test tubes must be very hard
b) maintain distance from bunsen burner
c) heat the test tube by keeping in
A) a and b only
B) a and c only
C) a, b and c only
D) a only
Answer:
C) a, b and c only

Question 46.
Petrochemical which is used in our daily life and which is not very harmful?
A) LPG
B) Kerosene
C) Diesel
D) Coaltar
Answer:
A) LPG

(47-48)

Identify the correct answers.
Question 47.
The above table indicates
A) the increasing the energy consump-tion year by year
B) the increase in energy deficiency percentage
C) the decrease in energy deficiency percentage
D) the increasing energy needs year by year
Answer:
B) the increase in energy deficiency percentage

Question 48.
Write the difference in energy deficiency percentage from 1993 to 1996.
A) 0.3
B) 0.8
C) 1.1
D) 11
Answer:
C) 1.1

(49-50)
Read the following paragraph and answers.
Petrochemicals are obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum. Different compounds are formed at different temperatures. The first product obtained from petroleum is kerosene. Asphalt is the residue formed in fractional distillation. We also can get petrol, diesel, etc. from petroleum.
Question 49.
Name the first compound formed from petroleum.
A) Diesel
B) Kerosene
C) Asphalt
D) Petrol
Answer:
B) Kerosene

Question 50.
Name the residue formed from petroleum.
A) Diesel
B) Petrol
C) Asphalt
D) Kerosene
Answer:
C) Asphalt

Question 51.
If the energy sources are consumed, they will be exhausted. Which of the following is an inexhaustible resource?
A) CNG gas
B) Petroleum
C) Wind power
D) Coal
Answer:
C) Wind power

Question 52.
a) Using drier in washing machine to dry the clothes even when sunlight is present.
b) Using petrol likes for a shorter distance without walking. The above two sentences indicate
A) Using Alternate energy sources
B) Using energy sources
C) Misusing energy sources
D) Using petrochemicals
Answer:
C) Misusing energy sources

Question 53.
Compounds obtained from petro-chemical coal are
A) Coke, Coaltar, Coal gas
B) Coaltar, Kerosene, Coke
C) Coke, Coal gas, Petrol
D) Diesel, Coke, Coal gas
Answer:
A) Coke, Coaltar, Coal gas

Question 54.
Generally petrochemicals are harmful to environment.
Name the petrochemical which is not harmful.
A) Petroleum
B) Natural gas
C) Wood
D) Coal
Answer:
B) Natural gas

Question 55.
Set – A — Set – B
a) Coal — i) Plankton
b) Petroleum — ii) Fractional distillation
c) Petrol — iii) Carbonisation
Establish a relation between the com-pounds in Set – A and the formation process in Set – B.
A) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
C) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
D) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
Answer:
C) a – ii, b – iii, c – i

Question 56.
Which among the following is not a petrochemical?

Answer:
C) Conical flask

Question 57.
In the given picture X – indicates

A) Coal powder
B) Wax
C) Petroleum
D) Water
Answer:
A) Coal powder

Question 58.
Petroleum is a fossil fuel and is a nonrenewable source. Which among the following indicates the proper utilisation of fuels?
a) Minimising the mis-use of fuels.
b) Stop using the utilisation of nonrenewable sources.
c) Developing alternate resources of fuels.
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) a, b and c
D) a only
Answer:
B) a and c

Question 59.
The incorrect statement from the following is
A) Coal is formed due to carbonization
B) LPG is better fuel than CNG
C) Petroleum formed by plankton
D) Petrochemicals have various uses
Answer:
B) LPG is better fuel than CNG

Question 60.
When coal burns in air ……….
A) Carbon monoxide is formed
B) Oxygen is formed
C) Sulphur dioxide is formed
D) Carbon dioxide is formed
Answer:
D) Carbon dioxide is formed

Question 61.
Purest form of carbon is
A) Coal
B) Charcoal
C) Coke
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Coke

Practice the AP 8th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Sound on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Physical Science Bits 6th Lesson Sound with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Sound can’t travel in
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) vacuum
Answer:
D) vacuum

Question 2.
The unwanted sound in our surroundings leads to ………..
A) conservation
B) emission
C) absorption
D) pollution
Answer:
D) pollution

Question 3.
The intensity of sound is measured in
A) Decibel
B) Meter
C) Kg
D) Newton
Answer:
A) Decibel

Question 4.
The number of vibrations per second is called
A) wavelength
B) amplitude
C) frequency
D) none of these
Answer:
C) frequency

Question 5.
The shrillness of a sound is called
A) pitch
B) velocity
C) wavelength
D) none
Answer:
A) pitch

Question 6.
An object which moves to and fro motion from rest known as ………..
A) Linear motion
B) Vibration
C) Simple motion
D) Angular motion
Answer:
B) Vibration

Question 7.
The number of vibrations produced per second is known as ……..
A) Frequency
B) Shrillness
C) Vibration limit
D) Decibels
Answer:
A) Frequency

Question 8.
The oval window has the surface area ………. of the eardrum.
A) 1/10
B) 2/10
C) 2/20
D) 1/20
Answer:
D) 1/20

Question 9.
The unit for intensity of sound is
A) Hertz
B) Decibel
C) Newton
D) Ampere
Answer:
B) Decibel

Question 10.
Audible range is
A) 20 cycles /sec – 2,000 cycles/sec
B) 20 cycles /sec – 20,000 cycles/sec
C) 200 cycles /sec – 20,000 cycles/sec
D) 20 cycles /sec – 2,00,000 cycles/sec
Answer:
B) 20 cycles /sec – 20,000 cycles/sec

Question 11.
Pitch depends upon ………. of the sound.
A) frequency
B) amplitude
C) intensity
D) none of these
Answer:
A) frequency

Question 12.
Intensity of sound depends on
A) pitch
B) amplitude
C) frequency
D) none of these
Answer:
B) amplitude

Question 13.
The unit decibel expressed in the name of ………..
A) Graham Bell
B) Newton
C) Pascal
D) Ampere
Answer:
A) Graham Bell

Question 14.
……….. produce more shrillness sound.
A) Man
B) Woman
C) Child
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Child

Question 15.
………… can’t travel in vacuum.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Sound
Answer:
D) Sound

Question 16.
The intensity of ………. is measured in decibel.
A) sound
B) meter
C) kg
D) newton
Answer:
A) sound

Question 17.
Length of vocal cords in man is nearly ……… mm.
A) 20
B) 10
C) 5
D) 1
Answer:
A) 20

Question 18.
Length of vocal cords in women is ……….. mm.
A) 20
B) 15
C)10
D) 5
Answer:
B) 15

Question 19.
The smallest audible sound is ……… dB.
A) 0
B) 30
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
A) 0

Question 20.
The sounds which are pleasant to hear and are in order are called ………..
A) music
B) noise
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
A) music

Question 21.
Sounds which are irregular and unpleasant to hear are called ……….
A) music
B) noise
C) both
D) none of these
Answer:
B) noise

Question 22.
The sounds that normal human being can listen are called ………… sounds.
A) infrasonics
B) ultrasonics
C) audible
D) none of these
Answer:
C) audible

Question 23.
The sound produced in our normal conversation is about ………. dB.
A) 0
B) 120
C) 60
D) 140
Answer:
C) 60

Question 24.
Choose correct option for sure matching.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Pitch — a) Pleasant to hear
2. Intensity of sound — b) 20 cycles / second to 20,000 cycles /second
3. Music — c) Frequency
4. Noise — d) Amplitude
5. Audible — e) Unpleasant to hear
frequency range
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b

Question 25.
Jalatarang works with the difference in
A) air column
B) string length
C) area of membrane
D) none
Answer:
A) air column

Question 26.
Sound will produce, when a body
A) moves
B) falls
C) flies
D) vibrates
Answer:
D) vibrates

Question 27.
Vocal cords are present in
A) Larynx
B) Mouth
C) Nose
D) Stomach
Answer:
A) Larynx

Question 28.
Number of vocal cords present in our throat is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) ∞
Answer:
B) 2

Question 29.
Sound can travel in
A) solids
B) liquids
C) gases
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

Question 30.
Loudness and feebleness of sounds depends upon
A) frequency
B) pitch
C) amplitude
D) above all
Answer:
C) amplitude

Question 31.
Vibrate a bell and touch it. You may feel
A) heat
B) cool
C) vibration
D) shock
Answer:
C) vibration

Question 32.
Guess the object which produces sound without vibrate itself.
A) tuning fork
B) bell
C) air
D) no object
Answer:
D) no object

Question 33.
If no part in this universe vibrates, then the consequence is
A) total silence
B) total fall down
C) total colourful
D) total noise
Answer:
A) total silence

Question 34.
What is the intensity of the sound at out side of the Glass jar?

A) less intensity
B) more intensity
C) same intensity of original sound
D) zero intensity
Answer:
D) zero intensity

Question 35.

From the given experiment, we may produce.
A) friction
B) light
C) heat
D) sound
Answer:
D) sound

Question 36.
The required apparatus to prove that sound has energy are
A) glass, rubber band, balloon, cell phone, sugar
B) glass, water, sugar, rubber band, whistle
C) 6 glasses, water, spoon
D) any one of the above
Answer:
A) glass, rubber band, balloon, cell phone, sugar

Question 37.
How do you produce a feeble sound ?
A) By striking gently a body
B) By striking hardly a body
C) By increasing length of a body
D) By decreasing length of a body
Answer:
A) By striking gently a body

Question 38.

From the given experiment we can produce sounds to differentiate
A) Low pitch, high pitch sounds
B) Low amplitude, high amplitude sounds
C) Low pitch, high intensity sounds
D) Low intensity, high intensity sounds
Answer:
A) Low pitch, high pitch sounds

Question 39.

How do you produce high intensity sound in the given experiment?
A) Use small force to vibrate the blade
B) Use great force to vibrate the blade
C) Reduce length of the blade and vibrate
D) Extend the length of the blade and vibrate
Answer:
B) Use great force to vibrate the blade

Question 40.

Adjacent figure represents an activity ………..
A) Sound produced by hack-saw blade
B) Vibration of hack-saw blade
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 41.

Given figure represents about
A) Musical instrument
B) Cell phone
C) Tumbler closed with cloth
D) Sound has energy
Answer:
D) Sound has energy

Question 42.
………. contains three small bones.
A) Inner ear
B) Outer ear
C) Middle ear
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Middle ear

Question 43.
A 30 dB sound is …………. times more powerful than the total silence.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10000
Answer:
C) 1000

Question 44.
Choose correct option for sure matching.
Group – A — Group B
1. A whisper — a) 110 dB
2. Normal conversation — b) 140 dB
3. A lawnmower — c) 15 dB
4. A car horn — d) 60 dB
5. A jet engine — e) 90 dB
6. A gunshot or fire cracker — f) 120 dB
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – f, 6 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e, 6 – f
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – f, 6 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – f, 5 – a, 6 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – f, 6 – b

Question 45.

Instrument	Vibrating part
A	Membrane, air inside hollow body
Flute	Air inside hollow body
Veena	Vibrating strings

‘A’ may be
A) Tabala
B) Guitar
C) Harmonium
D) Shehnai
Answer:
A) Tabala

Question 46.


In the given pictures instruments works with vibrating its strings are
A) B
B) C, D
C) A, F
D) A, D, F
Answer:
C) A, F

Question 47.

Person	Length of vocal cord
man	20 mm
woman	15 mm
children	10 mm

Shrillness of sound appears in
A) man
B) woman
C) children
D) above all
Answer:
C) children

Question 48.

The given figures shows
A) sound travels in solids
B) sound travels in liquids
C) sound travels in vacuum
D) above all
Answer:
A) sound travels in solids

Question 49.

In the above waves, which one has more frequency?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer:
A) A

Question 50.
From the above diagrams, which one has more wavelength?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D)D
Answer:
D) D

Question 51.
From the above diagram ‘A’ possesses
A) Less frequency and more wavelength
B) High frequency and less wavelength
C) High frequency and high wavelength
D) Less frequency and less wavelength
Answer:
B) High frequency and less wavelength

Question 52.
From the above diagrams ‘A’ and ‘C’, which one has more amplitude?
A) A
B) C
C) Both A and C
D) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘C’
Answer:
B) C

Question 53.

Blade	Vibrations	Amplitude
A	1500	0.005 m
B	1000	0.05 in
C	100	0.01 in

From above table, which blade has more intensity?
A) A
B) B
C)C
D) None
Answer:
B) B

Question 54.
From above table, which blade has more pitch?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) All are equal
Answer:
A) A

Question 55.
Identify the name of the activity in the figure the girl was doing.

A) Blowing air
B) Jalatarang
C) Striking the glass
D) None
Answer:
B) Jalatarang

Question 56.

Which of the following property shows by this activity?
A) Propagation of sound
B) Pitch of sound
C) Sound has energy
D) Sound has intensity
Answer:
A) Propagation of sound

Question 57.

Part ’a’ is
A) Larynx
B) Vocal cord
C) Trachea
D) Tongue
Answer:
B) Vocal cord

Question 58.

Name of these figures is
A) Larynx
B) Vocal cords
C) Lungs
D) Eyes
Answer:
B) Vocal cords

Question 59.

‘d’ and ‘λ’ indicates
A) wavelength and frequency
B) wavelength and amplitude
C) amplitude and wavelength
D) frequency and amplitude
Answer:
C) amplitude and wavelength

Question 60.
Match the great musicians.
a) Bismilla Khan — (i) Tabala
b) Chittibabu — (ii) Shehnai
c) Zakir Hussain — (iii) Veena
A) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
B) a -1, b – ii, c – iii
C) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
D) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
Answer:
A) a – ii, b – iii, c – i

Question 61.
All the human beings and animals are communicate their feeling by
A) Producing light
B) Producing heat
C) Producing sound
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Producing sound

Question 62.
The sound produced by near total silence is
A) 0 dB
B) 15 dB
C) 60 dB
D) 110 dB
Answer:
A) 0 dB

Question 63.
Sound travel much faster in ………..
A) solids
B) liquids
C) gases
D) plasma
Answer:
A) solids

Question 64.
Tabala is an instrument of ……….. type.
A) drum instrument
B) fringed instrument
C) stringed instrument
D) none of these
Answer:
A) drum instrument

Question 65.
Flute is an instrument of ……….. type.
A) drum instrument
B) fringed instrument
C) stringed instrument
D) none of these
Answer:
B) fringed instrument

Question 66.
Guitar is an instrument of ……… type.
A) drum instrument
B) fringed instrument
C) stringed instrument
D) none of these
Answer:
C) stringed instrument

Question 67.
………… is the important organ in the human body to produce sound.
A) Ear
B) Larynx
C) Nose
D) Muscles
Answer:
B) Larynx

Question 68.
The intensity of sound of car horn is ……… dB.
A) 140
B) 110
C) 60
D) 140
Answer:
B) 110

Question 69.
The intensity of sound of jet engine ……… dB.
A) 140
B) 120
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
B) 120

Question 70.
The intensity of sound of a fire cracker is …….. dB.
A) 140
B) 120
C) 60
D) 110
Answer:
A) 140

Question 71.
The intensity of near total silence is …….. dB.
A) 0
B) 60
C)110
D) 120
Answer:
A) 0

Question 72.
Why does a cracker make a loud sound?
A) It vibrates air molecule
B) It burns with air
C) It gives light with heat
D) It gives fumes
Answer:
A) It vibrates air molecule

Question 73.
Some diwali crackers harmful to ears. Due to they produce
a) high pitch sound
b) high intensity sound
c) high amplitude sound
d) high frequency sound
A) a, d
B) a
C) b, c
D) d
Answer:
C) b, c

Question 74.
High intensity sounds causes
A) anger
B) frustation
C) express negativity
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

Question 75.
Raju cannot hear this sounds with
A) 10 Hz
B) 200 Hz
C) 200, 000 Hz
D) Above all
Answer:
B) 200 Hz

Question 76.
Which of the sound is not harmful?
A) Sound with 60 dB
B) Sound with 120 dB
C) Sound with 100 dB
D) B and C
Answer:
D) B and C

Question 77.
How do you control sound pollution ?
A) By plantation
B) By attach silences to the vehicles
C) Reducing sounds through loud speakers
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 78.
Audible frequency range
A) 2 vibrations/sec – 20 vibrations / sec
B) 20 vibrations / sec – 20,000 vibrations / sec
C) 20 vibrations / sec – 200 vibrations / sec
D) 10 vibrations / sec – 20 vibrations / sec
Answer:
B) 20 vibrations / sec – 20,000 vibrations / sec

Question 79.
Match the following.
A — B
1) Tabla — a) Stringed instrument
2) Flute — b) Membrane instrument
3) Veena — c) Air blowing instrument
Choose the correct answer.
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 80.
Find the odd one out from the parts of speech organs.
A) Vocal cards
B) Lips
C) Tongue
D) Ear
Answer:
D) Ear

Question 81.
Read the following sentences.
i) We came to know that sound travels through the solids,
ii) Keep your ear on the table.
iii) We can hear a peculiar sound,
iv) Tap the table at other end with hand.
A) i, iii, ii, iv
B) iv, ii, iii, i
C) ii, iv, iii, i
D) iii, i, ii, iv
Answer:
C) ii, iv, iii, i

Question 82.
1) Units of intensity of sound is decible.
2) The number of vibrations per minute is called frequency.
A) 1-True, 2-True
B) 1-False, 2-True
C) 1-True, 2-False
D) 1-False, 2-False
Answer:
C) 1-True, 2-False

Question 83.
A bird makes high pitch sound and a lion makes low pitch roar. Predict the reason.
A) Bird produces high frequency sound
B) Lion produces high frequency sound
C) Bird size is small
D) Lion size is big
Answer:
A) Bird produces high frequency sound

Question 84.
A blade made 3000 vibrations in 10 seconds. Then the frequency of the blade is ………….. vibr. / sec.
A) 30
B) 300
C) 3000
D) 30000
Answer:
B) 300

Question 85.
The loudness of sound exceeds ……….. are harmful for the ear.
A) 80 dB
B) 60 dB
C) 50 dB
D) 55 dB
Answer:
A) 80 dB

Question 86.
Apparatus required in an experiment to find the relation between intensity of sound and amplitude.
A) Wooden table, brick, hack – saw blade
B) Wooden table, blade, brick
C) Stand, simple pendulum, hack – saw blade
D) Wooden table, stick, brick
Answer:
A) Wooden table, brick, hack – saw blade

Question 87.
Laahi is asked to conduct an experiment by giving bucket, water and two stones. After doing the experiment what is her observation?
A) Water is needed for the production of sound.
B) Sound travels through water.
C) Sound travels through air.
D) Sound is produced by touching two stones.
Answer:
B) Sound travels through water.

Question 88.
High intensity sound causes sound pollution. Suggest the precautions to avoid sound pollution
a) ask the people to decrease the usage of loud speakers
b) to arrange silencers to motor vehicles
c) encourage them to burn crackers
d) encourage them to increase plantation
A) a, c and d
B) a, b and d
C) b, c and d
D) a, b and c
Answer:
B) a, b and d

Question 89.
Adult women, adult men, lion, infants are having different pitch in their voices. The right order of their pitch
A) Lion > Adult men > Adult women > infant
B) Lion < Adult men < Adult women < infant C) Adult women > Infant > Lion > Adult men
D) Adult women > Adult men > Lion > infant
Answer:
B) Lion < Adult men < Adult women < infant

Question 90.
Which of the statement is incorrect?
A) Sound has energy.
B) Sound requires a medium to travel.
C) Vibrations produce sound.
D) Sound produce vibrations.
Answer:
D) Sound produce vibrations.

Question 91.
P: Infrasonics does not produce sound pollution
Q: Ultrasonics produce sound pollution
A) P is false, Q is true
B) P, Q both are true
C) P, Q both are false
D) P is true, Q is false
Answer:
B) P, Q both are true

Question 92.
P: Intensity of sound depends on amplitude
Q: Pitch of the sound depends on Frequency
A) P, Q both are false
B) P is true, Q is false
C) P is false, Q is true
D) P, Q both are true
Answer:
D) P, Q both are true

Question 93.
Match the following.
Instrument Process of producing sound
a) Tabala i) Vibrating air column
b) Harmonium ii) Vibrating upper layer and air column
c) Guitar iii) Vibrating string
A) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
B) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
C) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
D) a-i, b—ii, c-iii
Answer:
C) a – ii, b – i, c – iii

(94 -95)

Near total silence	0 db
A whisper	15 db
Normal conversation	60 db
A lawn mover	90 db
A car horn	110 db
Jet engine	120 db
Fire cracker	140 db

The above table indicates the sounds and their intensities. Answer the following by observing the above table.
Question 94.
Intensity of sound produced by a lawn mover
A) 60 db
B) 90 db
C) 110 db
D) 15 db
Answer:
B) 90 db

Question 95.
The intensity of sound produced by Jet engine is more than the intensity of car horn. How many times is more?
A) 100 db
B) 1000 db
C) 20 db
D) 10 db
Answer:
D) 10 db

Question 96.

What do you know from the picture below?
A) Sound can travel through vacuum
B) Sound has energy
C) Sound produces vibrations
D) Medium is required for the sound to travel
Answer:
B) Sound has energy

Question 97.
Assertion (A): Humans cannot hear the sound produced by Bats.
Reason (R): Humans cannot hear the sounds with frequency greater than 20000 vibrations / sec.
A) Both “A” and “R” are correct but “R” is not correct reason for A
B) A is correct and R is not correct
C) Both A and R are not correct
D) Both A” and “R” are correct and “R” is the correct reason for A
Answer:
D) Both A” and “R” are correct and “R” is the correct reason for A

Question 98.
Predict why Deepak has closed his ears after hearing the sound of crickets?
A) Because of high wave length sound
B) Because of high pitch sound
C) Because of high amplitude sound
D) Because of high intensity sound
Answer:
B) Because of high pitch sound

Question 99.
Frequency is related to
A) Loudness
B) Pitch
C) Amplitude
D) Feebleness
Answer:
B) Pitch

Question 100.
The following is not the effect of sound pollution.
A) Loss of hearing
B) Sleeplessness
C) Hypertension
D) Loss of eye sight
Answer:
D) Loss of eye sight

Question 101.
The velocity if propagation of sound in ascending order is
A) Solid < liquid > air
B) Air < liquid < solid
C) Liquid < air < solid
D) Solid < air < liquid
Answer:
B) Air < liquid < solid

Question 102.
Intensity of sound can be measured in ……………
A) Meter/sec
B) Vibration/sec
C) Meter
D) Decible
Answer:
D) Decible

Question 103.
Which is the correct statement regarding blending?
A) A blend means alternating threads of cotton and polyester
B) Only synthetic fibres can be blended
C) Unique and different textures can be created through blending
D) Weak fibres can be produced
Answer:
C) Unique and different textures can be created through blending

Question 104.
Velocity of sound in vacuum
A) 0 meter/sec
B) 100 meter/sec
C) 250 meter/sec
D) 330 meter/sec
Answer:
A) 0 meter/sec

Question 105.
Velocity of the sound is maximum in
A) Solids
B) Liquids
C) Gases
D) Vacuum
Answer:
A) Solids

Question 106.
Length of vocal chords in men is 20mm, in women it is about 5 mm less and in children it is shorten than that. Length of the vocal chord determines the frequency and in turn determines the pitch.
The sound produced by a short vibrating blade has high pitch and by a long vibrating blade has a low pitch.
Which of the following can be said based on the above ?
A) Women’s voice have a higher pitch than men.
B) Children’s voice have a higher pitch than women.
C) Men’s voice have a higher pitch than women and children.
D) The voice of men and children have the same pitch.
Answer:
B) Children’s voice have a higher pitch than women.

Question 107.
Decibel is the unit for measuring intensity of sound. It is expressed in Decibels (dB). Some common sounds and their decibel ratings. Near total silence – 0 dB, A whisper -15 dB, Normal conversation – 60 dB, A lawnmower – 90 dB, A car horn -110 dB, A jet engine -120 dB. A gunshot or fire-cracker – 140 dB, If a person is being exposed to the sound of 80 dB con-tinuously it may lead to hearing problems.
Which of the following can be said based on the above?
A) Listening to whispering sounds continuously can lead to hearing problems.
B) Hearing to continuous explosive sounds of guns can lead to hearing problems.
C) Total silence can harm the ears and some sound is required for maintaining the health of ear drums.
D) Car horns and other vehicle horn sounds do not cause any damage to the ears.
Answer:
B) Hearing to continuous explosive sounds of guns can lead to hearing problems.