Mahesh

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Nutrition in Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The green substance in the leaves is called
A) Stomata
B) Chlorophyll
C) Stem
D) Roots
Answer:
B) Chlorophyll

Question 2.
Iodine turns starch solution into …………. colour.
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red
D) Blue black
Answer:
D) Blue black

Question 3.
These are heterotrophs
A) Cuscuta
B) Fungi
C) Human beings
D) Pitcher
Answer:
C) Human beings

Question 4.
Green plants are
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Parasites
D) Saprotrophs
Answer:
A) Autotrophs

Question 5.
Chlorophyll is absent in these plants
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) All plnats
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 6.
The food synthesised by the plants is stored as
A) Glucose
B) Starch
C) Proteins
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Starch

Question 7.
Plants grow because of the water it gets. Concluded by
A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
D) Von Helmont

Question 8.
Plants exchange gases with their surrounding air said by
A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
A) Stephen Hales

Question 9.
Leaves are organs of transpiration described by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
D) Stephen Hales

Question 10.
If animals were making air impure, plants were making it pure said by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
B) Priestly

Question 11.
Green parts of plants do photosynthesis in sunlight found by
A) Ingenhouz
B) Priestly
C) Von Helmont
D) Stephen Hales
Answer:
A) Ingenhouz

Question 12.
Green substances are called
A) Haemophyll
B) Chromophyll
C) Chlorophyll
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Chlorophyll

Question 13.
Autotrophs are
A) Animals
B) Fungi
C) Plants
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Plants

Question 14.
Photosynthesis need the following
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Sunlight
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 15.
Photosynthesis takes place in
A) Leaves
B) Green stems
C) Green coloured structures
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 16.
Farmers sprinkle urea in rice field when leaves turned into ………. colour.
A) White
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) Black
Answer:
C) Yellow

Question 17.
Plants get Carbon dioxide from
A) Air
B) Water
C) Sunlight
D) Chlorophyll
Answer:
A) Air

Question 18.
Function of stem in photosynthesis
A) Supply of Carbon dioxide
B) Exchange of gases
C) Transport of water and minerals
D) Strength
Answer:
C) Transport of water and minerals

Question 19.
Plants take water through roots and through stomata.
A) Air
B) Light
C) Minerals
D) Manure
Answer:
A) Air

Question 20.
Plants get air through
A) Stomata
B) Loose tissue
C) Lenticels
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 21.
The tiny holes on the surface of leaf are called
A) Stomata
B) Loose tissue
C) Lenticels
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Stomata

Question 22.
Forming starch by combining car-bon dioxide and water requires
A) Chlorophyll
B) Sunlight
C) Sodium
D) Calcium
Answer:
B) Sunlight

Question 23.
Herbarium is the ……….. of plants.
A) Collection
B) Preservation
C) Collection and preservation
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Collection and preservation

Question 24.
Plants produce first
A) Sugar
B) Starch
C) Proteins
D) Fats
Answer:
A) Sugar

Question 25.
The main nutrients needed are
A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium
C) Phosphorus
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 26.
Plants require nutrients in minute quantities called
A) Macro nutrients
B) Micro nutrients
C) Essential nutrients
D) Non essential nutrients
Answer:
D) Non essential nutrients

Question 27.
Yellow thread like structures twin-ning around the stem has no ……….
A) Chlorophyll
B) Leaves
C) Leaves and chlorophyll
D) Stem
Answer:
C) Leaves and chlorophyll

Question 28.
Haustoria are present in …….
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Saprophytes
D) Symbionts
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 29.
Haustoria are special
A) Roots
B) Stems
C) Leaves
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 30.
The living forms develop on dead and decayed material
A) Saprophytes
B) Halophytes
C) Autotrophs
D) Symbionts
Answer:
A) Saprophytes

Question 31.
Carnivorous plants gets water from
A) Soil
B) Insects
C) Other plants
D) All these
Answer:
A) Soil

Question 32.
Insectivorous plants meet their nitrogen requirement from ( )
A) Insects
B) Birds
C) Soil
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Insects

Question 33.
Through this experiment we prove that

A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) root absorption
D) transpiration
Answer:
C) root absorption

Question 34.
We can see the spots in

A) roots
B) stem
C) leaves
D) flowers
Answer:
C) leaves

Question 35.
Through this experiment we can prove that

A) light is essential for photosynthesis
B) carbondioxide is essential for photosynthesis
C) leaves are essential for photosynthesis
D) chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
Answer:
A) light is essential for photosynthesis

Question 36.
What type of plant is this?

A) Parasitic plant
B) Insectivorey plant
C) Mango plant
D) Saprophytic plant
Answer:
B) Insectivorey plant

Question 37.
Plants making food materials by this process
A) cooking food
B) food absorption
C) photosynthesis
D) symbiosis
Answer:
C) photosynthesis

Question 38.
Insectivorus plants fullfil their deficiency of this element by trapping insects
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) hydrogen
D) oxygen
Answer:
B) nitrogen

Question 39.
Symbiosis organisms share their
A) food
B) shelter
C) both A & B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 40.
This plants does not having green colour
A) Insectivorous plants
B) Saprophytes
C) Symbiosis plants
D) Autotrophs
Answer:
B) Saprophytes

Question 41.
Colonies of algae & fungi living together are called
A) parasitism
B) saprophytism
C) symbiosis
D) insectivorus
Answer:
C) symbiosis

Question 42.
In Dal plants bacteria live on nodules of this part
A) roots
B) stem
C) leaves
D) flowers
Answer:
A) roots

Question 43.
Cuscuta is
A) autotroph
B) saprophyte
C) insectivorous plant
D) parasitic plant
Answer:
D) parasitic plant

Question 44.
This parts are used in
A) Exchange of gases
B) Transpiration
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
In starch test after adding iodine leaves turns into
A) green colour
B) red colour
C) yellow colour
D) blue colour
Answer:
D) blue colour

Question 46.
“Plant grows because of the water it gets” concluded by

A) Stephen Hales
B) Ingenhouz
C) Priestly
D) Von Helmont
Answer:
D) Von Helmont

Question 47.
Haustoria are present in
A) Autotrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Saprophytes
D) Symbiosis
Answer:
B) Heterotrophs

Question 48.
Haustoria is a modification of
A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Buds
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 49.
Photosynthesis : Chlorophyll :: Stomata:
A) Exchange of air
B) Transport of nutrients
C) Supply of minerals
D) Production of flowers
Answer:
A) Exchange of air

Question 50.
Cuscuta is a thread-like plant. It neither has leaves nor chlorophyll. The mode of nutrion in this plant is
A) Autotrophic
B) Heterotrophic
C) Symbiont
D) Saprophytic
Answer:
B) Heterotrophic

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Reflection of Light on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 9th Lesson Reflection of Light with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Image of an object in a plane mirror is
A) red
B) inverted
C) small
D) virtual
Answer:
D) virtual

Question 2.
Ray of light falling on the mirror is
A) reflected ray
B) refracted ray
C) deviated ray
D) incident ray
Answer:
D) incident ray

Question 3.
Angle of incidence
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of refraction
C) Angle of deviation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Angle of reflection

Question 4.
Distances of the object and image are ……….. in a plane mirror.
A) unequal
B) equal
C) may be equal or unequal
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) equal

Question 5.
Army people use this
A) Kaleidoscope
B) Spectroscope
C) Periscope
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Periscope

Question 6.
This is observed in a plane mirror
A) inverted image
B) small image
C) lateral inversion
D) All the above
Answer:
C) lateral inversion

Question 7.
Number of images formed when the object is placed in between the mirrors arranged at an angle of 90°
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
A) 3

Question 8.
Mirror used as a rearview mirror
A) Concave
B) Spherical
C) Plane
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 9.
Mirror used by Dentists
A) Convex
B) Concave
C) Plane
D) Spherical
Answer:
B) Concave

Question 10.
Mirror behind the bulb in a car headlight
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) None
Answer:
A) Concave

Question 11.
The ray of light falling on the mirror is called the
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Incident ray

Question 12.
The ray of light returning from the mirror is called
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Reflected ray

Question 13.
The angle between the normal and the reflected ray is called
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of incidence
C) Angle of refraction
D) Angle of circulation
Answer:
A) Angle of reflection

Question 14.
The angle between the normal and the incident ray is called
A) Angle of reflection
B) Angle of incidence
C) Angle of refraction
D) Angle of circulation
Answer:
B) Angle of incidence

Question 15.
Relationship between angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is
A) Equal
B) Not equal
C) Directly proportionate
D) Indirectly proportionate
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 16.
If the angle of incidence is 20° with the normal, what will be the angle of reflection?
A) 20°
B) 40°
C) 70°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 20°

Question 17.
The mirrors in periscope are kept ………. to each other.
A) Horizontal
B) Vertical
C) Parallel
D) Linear
Answer:
C) Parallel

Question 18.
In a mirror right of an object appears
A) Reverse
B) Right
C) Top
D) Left
Answer:
D) Left

Question 19.
Number of mirrors required to provide multi images
A) 3
B) 5
C) 2
D) 6
Answer:
C) 2

Question 20.
Number of images formed by the arrangement of plane mirrors with the angle of 60
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 21.
Rear view mirror made of
A) Concave mirror
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Any one of these
Answer:
A) Concave mirror

Question 22.
Dentist usually use ………… mirror.
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Convex

Question 23.
Image on curved shining surface of inner portion is
A) Straight image
B) Mirror image
C) Reverse image
D) Irregular image
Answer:
C) Reverse image

Question 24.
Outer portion of spoon acts as a ………… mirror.
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Irregular
Answer:
B) Convex

Question 25.
Clear images formed by ……………. reflection
A) Irregular
B) Diffused
C) Reverse
D) Regular
Answer:
D) Regular

Question 26.
The number of images increased by the ………… of angle between two plane mirrors.
A) Increase
B) Reduction
C) Increase or decrease
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Reduction

Question 27.
In a ………… mirror we get diminished image of the object.
A) Concave
B) Plane
C) Rough
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 28.
The image that can be obtained on a screen is called a
A) Virtual image
B) Reversed image
C) Enlarged image
D) Real image
Answer:
D) Real image

Question 29.
Reflection from a smooth surface is called reflection
A) Irregular
B) Reverse
C) Regular
D) Irrespective
Answer:
C) Regular

Question 30.
The image that can be viewed only in the mirror called
A) Virtual image
B) Reversed image
C) Enlarged image
D) Real image
Answer:
A) Virtual image

Question 31.
What do we prove through this experiment?

A) Light rays
B) Light reflection
C) Pin hole camera
D) Lateral invertion
Answer:
B) Light reflection

Question 32.
What is the source of light in this experiment?

A) Sun
B) Plain mirror
C) Mirror strip with the slit
D) Torch light
Answer:
A) Sun

Question 33.
What is the instrument in that girl’s hand?

A) Kaleidoscope
B) Periscope
C) Convex mirror
D) Concave mirror
Answer:
B) Periscope

Question 34.
What is the angle in between the two mirrors?

A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

Question 35.
The picture tells us

A) Light reflection
B) Lateral invertion
C) Irregular reflection
D) Shadows
Answer:
B) Lateral invertion

Question 36.
How many plain mirrors do we need to prepare a periscope
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 37.
What is the instrument in that boy’s hand?

A) Pin hole camera
B) Periscope
C) Kaleidoscope
D) Convex mirror
Answer:
C) Kaleidoscope

Question 38.
What is the mirror used by this doctor?

A) Convex mirror
B) Concave mirror
C) Plain mirror
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Concave mirror

Question 39.
If you want to farm multipe images how many mirrors atleastyou need?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 40.
When we reduce the angle between two mirrors the number of images
A) decrease
B) increase
C) does not change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) increase

Question 41.
The image that can be obtained on a screen is called
A) real image
B) virtual image
C) multiple images
D) none of these
Answer:
A) real image

Question 42.
Reflection from a rough surface is called
A) Real image
B) Virtual image
C) Regular reflection
D) Irregular reflection
Answer:
D) Irregular reflection

Question 43.
The ray of light returning from the mirror is called
A) Incident ray
B) Reflected ray
C) Refracted ray
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Reflected ray

Question 44.
In which mirror we get diminished image of the object?
A) Concave
B) Plane
C) Rough
D) Convex
Answer:
D) Convex

Question 45.
In this experiment the angle between the two plane mirrors is

A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 46.
Ravi observed the word FLOWER in the mirror. It appears like

Answer:
C)

Question 47.
Kavitha arranged the mirrors with 600 angle and got 5 images. Then Bhavana adjusted the mirrors and got 11 images. What is the angle between the mirrors?
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 30

Question 48.
Rajesh arranged the rear view mirror to his motor cycle. The type of mirror is
A) Convex
B) Concave
C) Plane
D) Not above
Answer:
A) Convex

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones with Answers

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Air, Winds and Cyclones on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Air exerts
A) Cooling
B) Heating
C) Rain
D) Pressure
Answer:
D) Pressure

Question 2.
Air expands on
A) Cooling
B) Heating
C) On its own
D) None
Answer:
B) Heating

Question 3.
Hot air is
A) more dense
B) less dense
C) bad
D) none
Answer:
B) less dense

Question 4.
This part of the globe gets more heat from the sun
A) polar region
B) near the polar region
C) region close to equator
D) all the regions
Answer:
C) region close to equator

Question 5.
Tropical cyclones are like
A) Giant engines
B) Destructive army
C) Enemies
D) Friends
Answer:
A) Giant engines

Question 6.
Most cyclones tend to occur towards
A) Indian ocean
B) Pacific ocean
C) Arabian sea
D) Bay of Bengal
Answer:
D) Bay of Bengal

Question 7.
The other names of cyclone are
A) Typhoons
B) Hurricanes
C) Cyclones
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 8.
Cyclone watch is issued in advance of
A) 24 hours
B) 36 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 60 hours
Answer:
C) 48 hours

Question 9.
The instrument that measures wind speed is
A) Anemometer
B) Spherometer
C) Speedometer
D) Barometer
Answer:
A) Anemometer

Question 10.
In India cyclone usually occur in
A) January
B) April
C) May – June
D) December
Answer:
C) May – June

Question 11.
Air moves from
A) higher pressure to low
B) lower pressure to high
C) cool to hot
D) hot to cool
Answer:
A) higher pressure to low

Question 12.
The warm air moves to
A) downwards
B) upwards
C) no movement
D) all directions
Answer:
A) downwards

Question 13.
One of the following cools fast
A) sea water
B) land
C) river
D) all of these
Answer:
B) land

Question 14.
Uneven heating takes place on the surface of the ………
A) sea
B) hill
C) earth
D) river
Answer:
C) earth

Question 15.
……….. gets more heat from the sun.
A) Equator
B) Pole
C) Desert
D) Earth
Answer:
A) Equator

Question 16.
One of the following heats up fast
A) land
B) sea
C) fog
D) all of these
Answer:
A) land

Question 17.
Find out a cyclonic storm
A) Typhoon
B) Hurricane
C) Both A & B
D) Tornado
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
On heating air gets
A) expands
B) less dense
C) occupies more space
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 19.
The differential heating of land and water by the sun leads to breeze.
A) land
B) sea
C) moon
D) land and sea
Answer:
D) land and sea

Question 20.
Monsoon winds start from
A) May
B) June
C) August
D) July
Answer:
B) June

Question 21.
Main effect of cyclone
A) heavy wind
B) heavy rain
C) tsunamies
D) heavy wind and rain
Answer:
D) heavy wind and rain

Question 22.
More cyclones tend to occur on the ……….. side of India.
A) north
B) south
C) east
D) west
Answer:
C) east

Question 23.
IMD provides information mainly about
A) Cyclones
B) Typhoons
C) Hurricanes
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 24.
………… plays an important role in the formation of cyclones
A) Wind speed
B) Humidity
C) Temperature
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Wind speed

Question 25.
Anemometer measures
A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Wind
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Wind

Question 26.
Through this experiment we can conclude that

A) Bottle is empty
B) Bottle is filled with air
C) Bottle is filled with water
D) Air is every where
Answer:
D) Air is every where

Question 27.
Through this experiment we can conclude that

A) Water expands on heating
B) Solids expands on heating
C) Air expands on heating
D) Cold air is lighter than hot air
Answer:
C) Air expands on heating

Question 28.
This figure tells us

A) hot air is lighter than cold air
B) cold air is lighter than hot air
C) air expands on heating
D) air exerts pressure
Answer:
A) hot air is lighter than cold air

Question 29.
It occurs during

A) daytime
B) night time
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
A) daytime

Question 30.
Tells us

A) Rainfall
B) Mist
C) Wind
D) Cyclone
Answer:
D) Cyclone

Question 31.
Wind moves from
A) higher pressure to low
B) lower pressure to high
C) cool to hot
D) hot to cool
Answer:
A) higher pressure to low

Question 32.
A gentle breeze blowing from the ocean towards the land is called
A) land breeze
B) see breeze
C) monsoon
D) cyclone
Answer:
B) see breeze

Question 33.
More cyclones tend to occur is
A) Arabian sea
B) Indian ocean
C) Bay of Bengal
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Bay of Bengal

Question 34.
We used this to study cyclones
A) Satellite
B) Radars
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 35.
In India cyclones usually occur in the month of
A) May & June
B) October & November
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
“Cooperate and help your neighbours & friends”. It is a ……….
A) pre cyclone measure
B) post cyclone measure
C) pre tsunami measure
D) pre monsoon measure
Answer:
B) post cyclone measure

Question 37.
The following is a cyclonic strom
A) Typhoon
B) Hurricane
C) Both A & B
D) Tornado
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
Which one plays an important role in the formation of cyclones?
A) Humidity
B) Temperature
C) Wind speed
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Wind speed

Question 39.
Which one of the following causes wind movements?
A) Uneven heating on the earth
B) Uneven rainfall on the earth
C) Uneven humidity in the atmosphere
D) The Sun
Answer:
A) Uneven heating on the earth

Question 40.
Factor contributing to the cyclone
A) Wind speed
B) Wind direction
C) Humidity
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 41.
When do we should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods domestic animals and vehicles?
A) After cyclone
B) After Tsunami
C) Before cyclone
D) Before monsoons
Answer:
C) Before cyclone

Question 42.
It is a ……….

A) Tsunami
B) Monsoon
C) Tornado
D) Cyclone
Answer:
D) Cyclone

Question 43.
Name of this aparatus

A) Raingauge
B) Speedometer
C) Thermometer
D) Stop watch
Answer:
B) Speedometer

Question 44.
Which of the following is a correct precaution to be followed during a cyclone?
A) Need not follow suggestions made by weather forecast
B) Blindly following neighbours’ suggestions
C) Switch off electrical mains
D) Need not consult emergency service providers
Answer:
C) Switch off electrical mains

Question 45.
Take a bucket with water.
Now immerse a bottle with a narrow mouth in the bucket till the bottle is filled with water, as shown here. Notice the air bubbles coming out of the bottle when water enters the bottle. Based on this, we can say that the aim of this experiment is to show that

A) Air expands on heating
B) Warm air rises up
C) Air has no mass
D) Air occupies space
Answer:
D) Air occupies space

Question 46.
Ramu collected 4 small paper cups, two strips of car board with dimensions 20 cm length and 2 cm breadth, gum, stapler, sketch pen and sharpened pencil. Using these materials, Ramu made the apparatus as shown here.

A) Windmill
B) Thermoscope
C) Anemometer
D) Barometer
Answer:
C) Anemometer

Question 47.
The following is an IMPORTANT safety measure one needs to take AFTER a cyclone has passed
A) Avoid contact with hanging, loose electrical wires
B) Avoid going inside a building and stay outdoors
C) Wear thick clothing made of wool
D) Cover the head with a hat and have plenty of fluids
Answer:
A) Avoid contact with hanging, loose electrical wires

Question 48.
Information from the following makes it possible to give cyclone warnings 24 hours in advance
A) Rain gauge and thermometer
B) Satellites and radars
C) Anemometer and barometer
D) Speedometer and hydrometer
Answer:
C) Anemometer and barometer

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Electricity – Current and Its Effect on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
1 KW =
A) 10 W
B) 100 W
C) 1000 W
D) 10,000 W
Answer:
C) 1000 W

Question 2.
The element in electric cooker is made up of
A) Copper
B) Tungstun
C) Aluminium
D) Nichrome
Answer:
D) Nichrome

Question 3.
Wastage of electricity can be reduced by using
A) CFLS
B) Motors
C) Heaters
D) Bulbs
Answer:
A) CFLS

Question 4.
symbol indicates
A) a bulb
B) switch
C) battery
D) fuse
Answer:
D) fuse

Question 5.
Two or more cells joined together form a
A) Dry cell
B) Battery
C) Transformer
D) MCB
Answer:
B) Battery

Question 6.
If the circuit is open, then current
A) flows
B) flows or may not flow
C) reverses
D) does not flow
Answer:
D) does not flow

Question 7.
In parallel combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Does not change
D) Remain same
Answer:
B) Decreases

Question 8.
In series combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) May increases or decreases
D) Does not changes.
Answer:
A) Increases

Question 9.
Positive terminal of the dry cell is made of
A) graphite
B) copper
C) zinc
D) iron
Answer:
A) graphite

Question 10.
Negative terminal of the dry cell is made of
A) graphite
B) copper
C) zinc
D) iron
Answer:
C) zinc

Question 11.
Dry cell converts ………….. energy into electrical energy.
A) potential
B) chemical
C) magnetic
D) kinetic
Answer:
B) chemical

Question 12.
Electric iron, electric cooker contain a coil of wire made of
A) nichrome
B) zinc
C) iron
D) any one
Answer:
A) nichrome

Question 13.
In electric cooker the amount of heat produced in coil depends on
A) thickness
B) material
C) length
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 14.
Wastage of electricity reduced by
A) tube light
B) bed light
C) bulb
D) CFL bulb
Answer:
D) CFL bulb

Question 15.
One of the following is preferable instead of fuse
A) MAB
B) MCB
C) MDB
D) MOB
Answer:
B) MCB

Question 16.
1 unit of power equal to
A) 1MW
B) 1MWH
C) 1KW
D) 1KWH
Answer:
D) 1KWH

Question 17.
Michael Faraday invented
A) transformer
B) dynamo
C) generator
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 18.
In a dry cell what serves as a positive terminal?
A) Zinc metal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Carbon powder
D) Carbon Rod
Answer:
D) Carbon Rod

Question 19.
In a circuit the switch is in this position then the bulb is

Answer:
A)

Question 20.

It is a
A) parallel connection of bulbs
B) series connection of cells
C) simple circut
D) parallel connection of cells
Answer:
C) simple circut

Question 21.

It is a
A) simple circut
B) connecting cells in parallel
C) connecting cells in series
D) connecting bulb in parallel
Answer:
B) connecting cells in parallel

Question 22.
L.E.D means
A) Light Emitting Device
B) Light Emitting Diode
C) Light Emergency Device
D) Light Energy Device
Answer:
B) Light Emitting Diode

Question 23.
The following consume less electricity

Answer:
D)

Question 24.
What is the name of this instrument?

A) Fuse
B) Digital meter
C) Miniature circut breaker
D) Switch
Answer:
C) Miniature circut breaker

Question 25.
The watts for 1 kilowatt
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
Answer:
C) 1000

Question 26.
1 unit of electricity means
A) It uses up 1 watt per 1 hour
B) 1 kilowatt per 1 hour
C) 1 watt per 10 hours
D) 1 kilowatt per 10 hours
Answer:
B) 1 kilowatt per 1 hour

Question 27.
Who invented the first electric generator?
A) Wattson
B) Galileo
C) Faraday
D) James watt
Answer:
C) Faraday

Question 28.
CFL means
A) Compact Fluorescent Lamp
B) Compact Fluorescent Light
C) Colour Fluorscent Lamp
D) Colour Fluorescent Light
Answer:
A) Compact Fluorescent Lamp

Question 29.
This instrument contains a coil of wire made up of Nichrome
A) Electric iron
B) Electric cooker
C) Electric heater
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 30.
Which protects our house when current in a circut exceeds the safe limit.
A) LED
B) Digital meter
C) MCB
D) CFL
Answer:
C) MCB

Question 31.
In a dry cell which serves as a negative terminal?
A) Zinc metal
B) Carbon Rod
C) Ammonium chloride
D) Carbon powder
Answer:
A) Zinc metal

Question 32.
In parallel combination of electrical appliances, total electrical power
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Does not change
D) Remains same
Answer:
B) Decreases

Question 33.
Device used to close or open an electric circuit is
A) electric bulb
B) battery
C) switch
D) fuse
Answer:
C) switch

Question 34.
Safety device used electric circuit is
A) electric bulb
B) battery
C) switch
D) fuse
Answer:
D) fuse

Question 35.
It is a

A) Connecting cells in series
B) Connecting cells in parallel
C) Connecting bulbs in series
D) Connecting bulbs in parallel
Answer:
B) Connecting cells in parallel

Question 36.
symbol represents
A) Fuse
B) Bulb
C) Key
D) Cell
Answer:
A) Fuse

Question 37.
It is used to protect the circuit

Answer:
C)

Question 38.
Guess the reasons for not glowing the bulb in the circuit.
A) Chemicals get exhausted
B) Connections are not in proper
C) Switch may not work properly
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
Among these which electric bulb consumes less power?
A) L.E.D. Bulb
B) CFL Bulb
C) Tubelight
D) Round bulb
Answer:
A) L.E.D. Bulb

Question 40.
The connection of serial sets that are used in marriages
A) Parallel
B) Series
C) Parallel, Series
D) Series, Parallel
Answer:
B) Series

Question 41.
After studying the lesson electricity and its effect what safety device do you use in electric circuit?
A) Bulb
B) Battery
C) Switch
D) Fuse
Answer:
D) Fuse

Question 42.
Name the device which “turns off’ automatically when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit
A) Battery
B) Compressed lamp
C) Miniature Circuit Breaker
D) Switch
Answer:
C) Miniature Circuit Breaker

Question 43.

The circuit symbols given in the image are ……….. and …………
A) Battery, fuse
B) Battery, cell
C) Fuse, battery
D) Bulb, switch
Answer:
A) Battery, fuse

Question 44.
Find the correct statement from the following.
P: In series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs will stop glowing.
Q: In parallel connection, if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs continue to glow.
A) P is correct
B) Q is incorrect
C) Both P & Q are correct
D) Both P & Q are incorrect
Answer:
C) Both P & Q are correct

Question 45.
A safety device used to avoid fire when excessive electric current flows through a circuit is called a …………
A) Bulb
B) Fuse
C) Inverter
D) Power bank
Answer:
B) Fuse

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Weather and Climate on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 6th Lesson Weather and Climate with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Weather changes
A) Week after week
B) Day after day
C) Within a short period
D) In any of the above time period
Answer:
D) In any of the above time period

Question 2.
Rain fall is measured by
A) Rain gauge
B) Water level in the ponds
G) Increase in the levels of ground water
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Rain gauge

Question 3.
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in
A) The morning
B) Evening
C) Noon
D) After noon
Answer:
D) After noon

Question 4.
The quantity of. water vapour in air is
A) Temperature
B) Humidity
C) Climate
D) Weather
Answer:
B) Humidity

Question 5.
Humidity is measured by
A) Rain gauge
B) Anemometer
C) Wind guage
D) Hydrometer
Answer:
D) Hydrometer

Question 6.
The maximum and minimum temperature at a place is measured by
A) Lab thermometer
B) Six’s thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) gas thermometer
Answer:
B) Six’s thermometer

Question 7.
Rain gauge is also called
A) Hydrometer
B) Anemometer
C) Udometer
D) None
Answer:
C) Udometer

Question 8.
Wind speed is measured by
A) Anemometer
B) Hydrometer
C) Speedometer
D) Udometer
Answer:
A) Anemometer

Question 9.
Tsunami in Andaman Nicobar occurred in
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2004
D) 2006
Answer:
C) 2004

Question 10.
Rainfall is measured in
A) mm
B) feet
C) yards
D) meters
Answer:
A) mm

Question 11.
Which of the following statements regarding weather is incorrect?
A) It is highly unpredictable.
B) It is measured on a day-to-day basis.
C) It is measured using factors like rainfall and humidity.
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.
Answer:
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.

Question 12.
Which of the following statements regarding humidity is correct?
A) It is the amount of rain received by a an area.
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.
C) It is measured by determining the . degree of heat of an area.
D) It is measured by determining the speed of wind in a given area.
Answer:
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.

Question 13.
Use the following information to answer the given question. The given table represents the weather data for a day of a place.

Based on the weather data, it can be inferred that the weather on the given day in the area is
A) cold and humid
B) hot and humid
C) cold and dry
D) hot and dry
Answer:
A) cold and humid

Question 14.
The minimum temperature of the day is measured during what time period of the day?
A) Early morning
B) Late night
C) Afternoon
D) Evening
Answer:
A) Early morning

Question 15.
A place with a mean temperature of 38 °C that receives high rainfall has what type of climate?
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
D) cold and wet

Question 16.
Rajasthan receives very little rainfall and its mean temperature is very high. The climate of Rajasthan is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
A) hot and dry

Use the following information to answer the given questions from. 17 to 21.
The given table gives the climate data for Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram.

Question 17.
The climate of Srinagar is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
C) cold and dry

Question 18.
The climate of Thiruvananthapuram is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
B) hot and wet

Question 19.
In which month both the cities are getting cool and dry?
A) December
B) January
C) February
D) November
Answer:
B) January

Question 20.
In which month Thiruvananthapuram is having moderate climate?
A) December
B) January
C) February
D) November
Answer:
B) January

Question 21.
What is the reason behind Srinagar for getting more rainfall during March?
A) Dissolving of glaciers
B) Due to cool breeze
C) Due to hot waves
D) Heavy fog
Answer:
B) Due to cool breeze

Question 22.
In Six max-min thermometer magnet is used
A) to take readings
B) to make indicators at original positions
C) to keep thermometer safe
D) to maintain accuracy
Answer:
B) to make indicators at original positions

Question 23.
Farmers measure rainfall based on
A) wetness of the soil
B) dryness of the soil
C) humidity of the air
D) dryness of the air
Answer:
A) wetness of the soil

Question 24.
PADUNU means
A) rainfall is insufficient
B) rainfall is sufficient
C) rainfall is heavy
D) salinity of the soil
Answer:
B) rainfall is sufficient

Question 25.
Moving back of ocean and making sounds of birds indicates
A) Cyclone
B) Rain
C) Hailes
D) Tsunami
Answer:
D) Tsunami

Question 26.
Anemometer is useful to measure
A) speed
B) direction
C) speed and direction
D) none of these
Answer:
C) speed and direction

Question 27.
If the depth of water in rainguage is 1 cm it indicates the rainfall
A) 10 mm
B) 1 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 100 mm
Answer:
A) 10 mm

Question 28.
During summer morning we will get
A) cool breeze
B) hot waves
C) cool and hot waves
D) thunder storms
Answer:
A) cool breeze

Question 29.
In summer if you are in coastal area, you feel
A) cool
B) sweaty
C) hot
D) sweaty and hot
Answer:
D) sweaty and hot

Question 30.
The weather of Kolkata is
A) humid
B) mild
C) dry
D) cold
Answer:
A) humid

Question 31.
The weather of Rajasthan is
A) humid
B) mild
C) dry
D) cold
Answer:
C) dry

Question 32.
The following is effecting the life of human beings
A) Temperature
B) Rain
C) Wind speed
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
“Sky may be cloudy for the next two days”. It is
A) weather report
B) weather forecast
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) weather forecast

Question 34.
42°C maximum temperature recorded at Rentachintala it is a
A) weather report
B) weather forecast
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) weather report

Question 35.
What is this instrument?

A) Anemometer
B) Thermometer
C) Hygrometer
D) Rainguage
Answer:
D) Rainguage

Question 36.
It shows

A) temperature direction
B) rain direction
C) wind direction
D) tsunami direction
Answer:
C) wind direction

Question 37.
The following city having less humidity
A) Visakapatnam
B) Vijayawada
C) Hyderabad
D) Rajamundry
Answer:
C) Hyderabad

Question 38.
How many years of average temperature and rainfall is considered as climate of a place?
A) 10 years
B) 25 years
C) 50 years
D) 100 years
Answer:
B) 25 years

Question 39.
The quantity of water vapour in air is called
A) rain
B) snow
C) hails
D) humidity
Answer:
D) humidity

Question 40.
Rainfall of a particular place is expressed in
A) centimeters
B) kilometers
C) grams
D) litres
Answer:
A) centimeters

Question 41.
This figure shows

A) Rain
B) Thunder rain
C) Stroms
D) Hailes
Answer:
D) Hailes

Question 42.
Study of rainfall weather forecast is done by
A) Indian Meterio Roids Department
B) Indian Geological Department
C) Indian Meteorological department
D) None
Answer:
C) Indian Meteorological department

Question 43.
In this place the weather is hot and dry
A) Bengaluru
B) Delhi
C) Kolkata
D) Rajasthan
Answer:
D) Rajasthan

Question 44.
We used this to measure the day temperature
A) Six maximum minimum thermometer
B) Anemometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Udometer
Answer:
A) Six maximum minimum thermometer

Question 45.
This symbol indicates

A) Rainfall
B) Heavy rainfall
C) Hailes
D) Thunder stroms
Answer:
D) Thunder stroms

Question 46.
Which one of the following statements regarding weather is incorrect?
A) It is highly unpredictable.
B) It is measured on a day-to-day basis.
C) It is measure of using factors like rainfall and humidity.
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.
Answer:
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.

Question 47.
Which one of the following statements regarding humidity is correct?
A) It is the amount of rain received by an area.
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.
C) It is measured by determining the degree of heat of an area.
D) It is measured by determining the speed of wind in given area.
Answer:
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.

Question 48.
Which of the following is measured with this?

A) Speed of wind
B) Direction of wind
C) Humidity in the air
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Temperature and Its Measurement on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
If we use electric heater to heat water then the energy converted into heat is
A) Electrical
B) Solar
C) Mechanical
D) Chemical
Answer:
A) Electrical

Question 2.
First thermometer was invented by
A) Newton
B) Einstein
C) Galileo
D) JC Bose
Answer:
C) Galileo

Question 3.
Temperature of human body is measured by
A) Laboratory thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Six maximum and minimum thermo¬meter
D) Any one of the above
Answer:
B) Clinical thermometer

Question 4.
Boiling point of water is
A) 0 °C
B) 37 °C
C) 100 °C
D) – 10 °C
Answer:
C) 100 °C

Question 5.
Melting point of ice is
A) 37 °C
B) 100 °C
C) -10°C
D) 0 °C
Answer:
D) 0 °C

Question 6.
Mercury is
A) Opaque
B) Transparent
C) Translucent
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Opaque

Question 7.
Normal temperature of human body is
A) 37 °C
B) 58 °C
C) 48 °C
D) 20 °C
Answer:
A) 37 °C

Question 8.
Kink is present in
A) Lab thermometer
B) Six’s max. & min. thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Gas thermometer
Answer:
C) Clinical thermometer

Question 9.
Thermister thermometer is mainly meant for
A) Adults
B) Infants
C) Women
D) Old People
Answer:
B) Infants

Question 10.
At room temperature mercury is in ………… state.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both solid and liquid
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 11.
Electrical energy is converted into heat by
A) Gas stove
B) Thermometer
C) Bulb
D) Electric Heater
Answer:
D) Electric Heater

Question 12.
Chemical energy converts into heat by
A) Gas stove
B) Thermometer
C) Bulb
D) Electric Heater
Answer:
A) Gas stove

Question 13.
Heat energy con verts in to electricity by
A) Gas stove
B) Electric heater
C) Hot plate
D) Thermal station
Answer:
D) Thermal station

Question 14.
…………. energy transmits from warmer object to cooler object.
A) Light
B) Chemical
C) Heat
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Heat

Question 15.
Heat energy converts into mechanical energy by
A) Steam engine
B) Aeroplane
C) Rocket
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Steam engine

Question 16.
Temperature is a measure of
A) Heat
B) Light
C) Sound
D) Electric power
Answer:
A) Heat

Question 17.
We use ………… to measure temperature.
A) Thermometer
B) Thermostat
C) Boiler
D) Heater
Answer:
A) Thermometer

Question 18.
The bulb of thermometer filled with
A) Water
B) Mercury
C) Air
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 19.
The bulb of thermometer filled by …………. to measure ‘low’ temperature.
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Water
D) Any one
Answer:
B) Alcohol

Question 20.
Markings on thermometer based on boiling and melting points of
A) Water and ice
B) Mercury
C) Alcohol
D) Lead
Answer:
A) Water and ice

Question 21.
Thermometer was invented by
A) Galo
B) Hook
C) Galileo
D) Edison
Answer:
C) Galileo

Question 22.
The lowest temperature recorded in the world
A) Arctic
B) Antarctica
C) Pacific
D) Greenland
Answer:
B) Antarctica

Question 23.
The Six maximum and minimum thermometer measured temperatures of
A) Night
B) Week
C) Day
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Day

Question 24.
………….. prevents falling of mercury level on its own
A) Capillary
B) Cap
C) Knob
D) Kink
Answer:
D) Kink

Question 25.
Fahrenheit scale on clinical ther¬mometer ranges 94 to ………….. degrees.
A) 100
B) 104
C) 106
D) 108
Answer:
D) 108

Question 26.
Celcius scale on clinical thermom¬eter ranges from ……………. to 45 degrees.
A) 34
B) 35
C) 36
D) 40
Answer:
B) 35

Question 27.
On clinical thermometer Fahrenheit scale 1°Fsubdivided into …………..
A) 5
B) 10
C) 8
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 28.
37°C equals to ………. °F.
A) 98.2
B) 98.4
C) 98.6
D) 99
Answer:
C) 98.6

Question 29.
Thermister thermometer only is used for …………..
A) Infants
B) Old age
C) Women
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Infants

Question 30.
Laboratory thermometer used in
A) Laboratory
B) Furnaces
C) Theaters
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 31.
Temperature is a measure of the degree of the following of an object
A) coldness
B) hotness
C) both
D) none
Answer:
C) both

Question 32.
The following one converts the electrical energy into heat
A) Solar heater
B) Electrical heater
C) Gas stove
D) Coal iron box
Answer:
B) Electrical heater

Question 33.

It is a …………
A) Clinical thermometer
B) C° thermometer
C) F° thermometer
D) Thermister thermometer
Answer:
B) C° thermometer

Question 34.

Through this experiment, we can prove that
A) Expansion of gases
B) Expansion of solids
C) Expansion of liquids
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Expansion of liquids

Question 35.
Who invented first thermometer?
A) Edison
B) Newton
C) Graham
D) Galileo
Answer:
D) Galileo

Question 36.
The following is having uniform expansion capacity
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Water
D) Air
Answer:
A) Mercury

Question 37.
What liquids are used in this instrument?

A) Alcohol
B) Mercury
C) Both A and B
D) Water
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 38.
It is used to measure

A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) Atmospheric temperature
D) Used in laboratories
Answer:
A) Body temperature

Question 39.
Human body temperature is
A) 37°F
B) 98.6°C
C) 95°F
D) 98.4°F
Answer:
D) 98.4°F

Question 40.
It is used to measure the temperature of

A) Adults
B) Children
C) Animals
D) Oldage people
Answer:
B) Children

Question 41.
In this instrument to measure temperature we use

A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Air
D) None of the above
Answer:
D) None of the above

Question 42.
We use this to measure the temperature of boiling water.
A) Clinical thermometer
B) Six maximum-minimum thermometer
C) Faboratory thermometer
D) Digital thermometer
Answer:
C) Faboratory thermometer

Question 43.
Low temperature recording thermometer is filled with
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Air
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Alcohol

Question 44.
The following is used to record the day and night temperature
A) Six maximum-minimum thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Thermister thermometer
D) Laboratory thermometer
Answer:
A) Six maximum-minimum thermometer

Question 45.
Kink is present in this thermometer
A) Laboratory thermometer
B) Digital thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Thermister thermometer
Answer:
C) Clinical thermometer

Question 46.
Fahrenheit scale has the following divisions
A) 1-100
B) 1-37
C) 1-110
D) 95-110
Answer:
D) 95-110

Question 47.
98.4°F is equal to
A) 35°C
B) 36°C
C) 37°C
D) 38°C
Answer:
C) 37°C

Question 48.
Ice melts at this temperature
A) -1°C
B) 0°C
C) 1°C
D) 100°C
Answer:
B) 0°C

Question 49.
Chemical energy is converted into heat by
A) Electric heater
B) Solar heater
C) Gas stove
D) Iron box
Answer:
C) Gas stove

Question 50.
In first thermometer, this is used as the thermometric substance
A) Air
B) Mercury
C) Alcohol
D) Water
Answer:
A) Air

Question 51.
The apparatus which is made based on the principle “Liquids expands on heating” is
A) Thermometer
B) Bulb
C) Electric stove
D) Raingauge
Answer:
A) Thermometer

Question 52.
If Hari puts the bulb of a clinical thermometer near the fire. What will happen?
1) Mercury level increases
2) Mercury levels decreases
3) No change in mercury level
4) Thermometer will be burst
A) 1 is correct
B) 2 is correct
C) 1, 4 are correct
D) 3 is correct
Answer:
C) 1, 4 are correct

Question 53.
Separation process of solids from liquids is
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Crystallisation
D) Melting
Answer:
C) Crystallisation

Question 54.
Read the following statements.
P. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure.
Q. Due to very hot air, the water in the sea gets evaporated and moves upward and becomes cyclones.
Which of these statements is/are – correct?
A) P and Q are correct
B) P is correct
C) Q is correct
D) P and Q both are wrong
Answer:
A) P and Q are correct

Question 55.
The state of Mercury at the room temperature is
A) Liquid
B) Gaseous
C) Solid
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Liquids

Question 56.
The apparatus used to measure the highest and the lowest temperatures of the day is
A) Thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Thermister thermometer
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer
Answer:
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer

Question 57.
Which of the following is used to know the temperature in infants?
A) Thermister thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Laboratory thermometer
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer
Answer:
A) Thermister thermometer

Question 58.
Ravi wants to know the temperature of boiling water with clinical thermometer. What may happen? Guess?
A) It will burst
B) Glass tube will expand
C) It will shrink
D) No change
Answer:
A) It will burst

Question 59.
-7° C temperature is 0° C.
A) Greater
B) Lesser
C) Equal
D) Very less
Answer:
B) Lesser

Question 60.
Ravi takes a soapnut seed and rubs it on a stone. What do you observe in it?
A) Heat energy is converted into Mechanical energy
B) Mechanical energy is converted into Heat energy
C) Mechanical energy is converted into Chemical energy
D) Chemical energy is converted into Mechanical energy
Answer:
B) Mechanical energy is converted into Heat energy

Question 61.
The following scales are marked on the clinical thermometer
A) Both millimeter and centimeter
B) Only Celsius
C) Only fahrenheit
D) Both Celsius and fahrenheit
Answer:
D) Both Celsius and fahrenheit

Question 62.
Name of thermometer commonly used to measure body temperature of children is
A) Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Laboratory thermometer
D) Alcohol thermometer
Answer:
B) Clinical thermometer

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Motion and Time on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 4th Lesson Motion and Time with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Motion and rest are
A) absolute
B) fixed
C) relative
D) None
Answer:
C) relative

Question 2.
The girl on the bicycle is in in relation to the road.
A) rest
B) motion
C) oscillatory motion
D) rotatory motion
Answer:
B) motion

Question 3.
Motion of a mango falling from a tree is
A) oscillatory motion
B) translatory motion
C) at rest
D) rotatory motion
Answer:
B) translatory motion

Question 4.
Ringing of a bell is an example for
A) Rotatory motion
B) Translatory motion
C) Rectilinear motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

Question 5.
A spinning top has
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) Rectilinear motion
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

Question 6.
1 km/h = ………… m/s.
A) 18/5
B) 15/8
C) 5/18
D) 15/18
Answer:
C) 5/18

Question 7.
This goes fast
A) Air plane
B) Train
C) Bus
D) Car
Answer:
A) Air plane

Question 8.
Speedometer is not fixed for this.
A) Car
B) Scooter
C) Bus
D) Bicycle
Answer:
D) Bicycle

Question 9.
In uniform motion the distance is
A) Equal
B) Unequal
C) Zero
D) Maximum
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 10.
In non-uniform motion the body covers distances.
A) Equal
B) Unequal
C) Constant
D) Circular
Answer:
B) Unequal

Question 11.
Movement of housefly shows ………… motion.
A) Non – uniform
B) Rotatory
C) Linear
D) translatory
Answer:
D) translatory

Question 12.
Motion of needle in a running sewing machine shows
A) Oscillatory
B) Circular
C) Rotatory
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Oscillatory

Question 13.
Soldiers marching in a parade is
A) Straight line
B) Curved line
C) Oscillatory
D) Rotatory
Answer:
A) Straight line

Question 14.
Motion of the ball in pin board
A) Curvilinear
B) Rectilinear
C) Both A & B
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 15.
A body moves in a fixed path and centre is called
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Circular
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
B) Rotatory

Question 16.
Motion of wheel of the sewing machine
A) Rotatory
B) Translatory
C) Linear
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
A) Rotatory

Question 17.
The basic unit of time is
A) Month
B) Second
C) Hour
D) Days
Answer:
B) Second

Question 18.
The speed is ………
A) Distance/time
B) Time/distance
C) Distance x Time
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Distance/time

Question 19.
The sticking machine shows the movements of
A) Oscillatory
B) Rotatory
C) Translatory
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 20.
In a sewing machine motion of cloth is
A) Linear
B) Rotatory
C) Circular
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
A) Linear

Question 21.
Units for measuring time
A) Days
B) Weeks
C) Hours
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 22.
Speedometer shows the distance travelled in
A) kilometers
B) meters
C) km/s
D) m/s
Answer:
A) kilometers

Question 23.
The needle of the speedometer explains
A) Velocity
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Acceleration
Answer:
B) Speed

Question 24.
Name the instrument for measuring distance
A) Odometer
B) Speedometer
C) Altimeter
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Odometer

Question 25.
Total distance travelled / total time indicates
A) Speed
B) Velocity
C) Power
D) Average speed
Answer:
D) Average speed

Question 26.
Hand of clock, tape of tape recorder examples for motion.
A) Oscillatory
B) Translatory
C) Linear
D) Rotatory
Answer:
D) Rotatory

Question 27.
The correct rela tion between speed(v) distance(s) and time(t) is
A) v = s / t
B) v = t/s
C) v = s/2t
D) v = s x t
Answer:
A) v = s / t

Question 28.
One of the following is not showing oscillatory motion
A) Pendulum
B) Sewing needle
C) Cradle
D) Kite
Answer:
D) Kite

Question 29.
If a body covers equal distance in equal intervals it is
A) Rotatory
B) Uniform motion
C) Non-uniform motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
B) Uniform motion

Question 30.
If a body covers an equal distance in equal intervals of time it is
A) Uniform motion
B) Non-uniform motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory motion
Answer:
B) Non-uniform motion

Question 31.
Flying of kite in air shows
A) Non-uniform motion
B) Uniform motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Non-uniform motion

Question 32.
Blades of ceiling fan show the motion of
A) Translatory
B) Oscilatory
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
C) Rotatory

Question 33.
If the translatory motion moves long straight line, it is
A) Rectilinear motion
B) Curvilinear motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Rectilinear motion

Question 34.
Translatory motion moves long a curved path it is
A) Rectilinear motion
B) Curvilinear motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory motion
Answer:
B) Curvilinear motion

Question 35.
Movement of train on tracks is called
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilinear
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Rectilinear

Question 36.
Movement of needle in car speedometer is
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilnear
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
B) Curvilnear

Question 37.
Motions of coins on a carrom board is
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilnear
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 38.
Motion of earth around the Sun is
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Oscilatory
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 39.
A bouncing ball movement is
A) Rotatory
B) Curvilinear
C) Oscilatory
D) Rectilinear
Answer:
C) Oscilatory

Question 40.
Month, Season, Ayanam are the units for
A) Time
B) Speed
C) Mass
D) Weight
Answer:
A) Time

Question 41.
The basic unit of time is
A) Day
B) Hour
C) Second
D) Minute
Answer:
C) Second

Question 42.
Unit of speed in S.I system is
A) Meter/second
B) C.M/s
C) M/H
D) All
Answer:
A) Meter/second

Question 43.
Name the instrument shown in the rig

A) Barometer
B) Speedometer
C) Altimeter
D) Thermometer
Answer:
B) Speedometer

Question 44.
Name the instrument shown in the rig

A) Watch
B) Stopwatch
C) Speedometer
D) Alaram
Answer:
B) Stopwatch

Question 45.
The motion shown in the figure is

A) Rotatory
B) Oscilatory
C) Translatory
D) Curveior
Answer:
B) Oscilatory

Question 46.
Motion of a drill bit have
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Both A and B
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 47.
In the figure the ball shows the movements of

A) Rotatory
B) Translatory
C) Oscilatory
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 48.
The movement of needle in the picture is

A) Rectilinear motion
B) Circulatory motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

Question 49.
Motion of air cooler fan
A) Oscillatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Translatory motion
D) Curvilinear motion
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

Question 50.
Choose the right one.
i) A train runs from Visakhapatnam to Vijayawada. It covers distance of 420 km in 7hrs and next distance of 60 km in one hour.
ii) Gopi takes part in a car race. He drives a distance of 70 km each in time first, second and third hours. Which of the following statements is true?
A) i – is an example uniform motion and ii – is an example of non-uniform motion
B) i – is an example of non-uniform motion and ii – is an example of uniform motion
C) i and ii are examples of uniform motions
D) i and ii are examples of non-uniform motions
Answer:
D) i and ii are examples of non-uniform motions

Question 51.
Hari makes hypothesis about motion.
Which one is right hypothesis?
A) Movements of hands in watch is translatory motion.
B) Motion of a ringing bell is rotatory motion.
C) Motion in top is linear motion.
D) Movement of train on tracks is translatory motion.
Answer:
D) Movement of train on tracks is translatory motion.

Question 52.
John tied a stone to a string and whirled it around. What type of motion do you find in it?
A) Translatory motion
B) Oscillatory motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Linear motion
Answer:
A) Translatory motion

Question 53.
Motion of an arrow from a bow is an example of …………
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Periodic motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
A) Translatory motion

Question 54.
Motion of the Earth around the Sunnis an example of ………..
A) Translatory motion
B) Periodic motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
B) Periodic motion

Question 55.
This type of motion is exhibited by the motion of a girl swinging on a
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) Periodic motion
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

Question 56.
The following is an example of a uniform motion
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Movement of a pendulum
D) Movement of the hands of a watch
Answer:
C) Movement of a pendulum

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Animal Fibre on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Eggs of silk moth are called
A) Larva
B) Seeds
C) Pupa
D) Imago
Answer:
B) Seeds

Question 2.
A female moth lays around ………………. eggs in one go.
A) 500
B) 50
C) 5,000
D) 5
Answer:
A) 500

Question 3.
A big silk seed growing centre is at
A) Pochampadu
B) Dharmavaram
C) Horsely Hills
D) Kanchi
Answer:
C) Horsely Hills

Question 4.
The cocoons have to be stiffled to kill ……………. inside.
A) Eggs
B) Larva
C) Pupa
D) The worm
Answer:
B) Larva

Question 5.
Food for silk worms.
A) Mulberry leaves
B) Mango leaves
C) Coconut leaves
D) Jasmine leaves
Answer:
A) Mulberry leaves

Question 6.
The hair of animals collectively called
A) Fur
B) Skin
C) Fibre
D) None
Answer:
A) Fur

Question 7.
Fleece of sheep is removed from its body during …………….. season.
A) Winter
B) Summer
C) Rainy
D) Spring
Answer:
D) Spring

Question 8.
After washing, …………… is passed over the wool to make it softer.
A) Steam
B) Grease
C) Cool air
D) Hot air
Answer:
C) Cool air

Question 9.
Silk is mainly
A) Carbohydrate
B) Worms
C) Protein
D) Cocoon
Answer:
C) Protein

Question 10.
Cotton is mainly
A) Proteins
B) Cellulose
C) Coarse
D) Soft
Answer:
B) Cellulose

Question 11.
………………. useful to make different types of fibres.
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Coconut
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
Eggs of silk moth called …………………
A) Embryo
B) Larvae
C) Seeds
D) Cocoon
Answer:
C) Seeds

Question 13.
“Chilakalu” means
A) Silk moths
B) Butterfly
C) Caterpillar
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Silk moths

Question 14.
Moths are also called ……………….
A) Bombyx mori
B) Insects
C) Butterfly
D) Honey bee
Answer:
A) Bombyx mori

Question 15.
A female moth lays around ………………. number of eggs in one go.
A) 400
B) 500
C) 600
D) 550
Answer:
B) 500

Question 16.
Grinages grow ……………….
A) Embryos
B) Seeds
C) Caterpillar
D) Cocoon
Answer:
B) Seeds

Question 17.
Caterpillars feed by ……………… leaves.
A) Grass
B) Leaves
C) Cocoon
D) Mulberry leaves
Answer:
D) Mulberry leaves

Question 18.
Chandrikalu means …………………..
A) Cane frames
B) Glass tubs
C) Cocoons
D) Mulberry huts
Answer:
A) Cane frames

Question 19.
Caterpillar stops eating at the age of ……………….
A) 25 to 30 days
B) 30 to 35 days
C) 40 days
D) Several months
Answer:
B) 30 to 35 days

Question 20.
Caterpillar secretes …………….. substance.
A) Fibre
B) Cellulose
C) Starch
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Fibre

Question 21.
“Pattu kayalu’ means
A) Silk worm
B) Cocoon
C) Seeds
D) Chandrikalu
Answer:
B) Cocoon

Question 22.
Young moths come out from …………..
A) Eggs
B) Mulberry leaves
C)Seeds
D) Cocoon
Answer:
D) Cocoon

Question 23.
Stiffling helps to store ……………. for a long time.
A) Cocoons
B) Seeds
C) Worms
D) Caterpillar
Answer:
A) Cocoons

Question 24.
Stiffling done in …………….. centres.
A) Seed growing
B) Reeling
C) Weaving
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Reeling

Question 25.
Silk moths that lay eggs on oak plant produce …………….. silk.
A) Moonga
B) Tussar
C),Eri
D) Mulberry
Answer:
B) Tussar

Question 26.
……………. silk is produced in our state Telangana.
A) Mulberry
B) Tasar
C) Desali
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 27.
Silk is made up of ………………….. proteins.
A) Sirisine
B) Fibroin
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 28.
Obtaining silk fibre from cocoon is called
A) Weaving
B) Spinning
C) Reeling
D) Knitting
Answer:
C) Reeling

Question 29.
Special machines like reelers and twisters are used in …………….
A) Reeling
B) Spinning
C) Knitting
D) Weaving
Answer:
A) Reeling

Question 30.
Cotton is made up of cellulose, but silk has
A) Protein
B) Lipids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins
Answer:
A) Protein

Question 31.
……………. is famous for wide boarder and rich buta
A) Potchampally
B) Darmavaram
C) Banaras
D) Bengal
Answer:
B) Darmavaram

Question 32.
2000 to 3000 cocoons alre required to produce ………………. gms of silk
A) 500
B) 600
C) 700
D) 300
Answer:
A) 500

Question 33.
Good quality of wool is given by ……………….
A) Angora goat
B) Merino sheep
C) Llama
D) Camels
Answer:
B) Merino sheep

Question 34.
Rough and coarse hair is produced by
A) Goat
B) Sheep
C) Camel
D) Rabbit
Answer:
C) Camel

Question 35.
Scouring means removing of
A) Dust
B) Grease
C) Dirt
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 36.
Which one of the following is a poor conductor of heat ?
A) Copper
B) Silver
C) Iron
D) Air
Answer:
D) Air

Question 37.
Wool is use as
A) Conductor
B) Insulator
C) Heater
D) Cooler
Answer:
B) Insulator

Question 38.
1) Egg 2) Pupa 3) Adult D) larva
The correct order is
A) 1,2,4, 3
B) 1. 4, 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 2,4
D) 1, 4, 3, 2
Answer:
B) 1. 4, 2, 3

Question 39.
‘Grinages’ are
A) Seed centers
B) Larva centers
C) Adult centers
D) Silk centers
Answer:
A) Seed centers

Question 40.
‘Bombyx mori’ is a
A) Honey bee
B) Warsp
C) Housefly
D) Silk moth
Answer:
D) Silk moth

Question 41.
Name of the sac, where the catterpillar sleeps
A) Stuff
B) Chandrikalu
C) Cocoon
D) Reels
Answer:
C) Cocoon

Question 42.
Killing of the silk moth larva’s is called
A) Reeling
B) Yarn
C) Stiffling
D) Silk
Answer:
C) Stiffling

Question 43.
The stiffling process takes place at
A) Reeling centers
B) Grinages
C) Chandrikalu
D) Horsely Hills
Answer:
A) Reeling centers

Question 44.
‘Desali pattu ‘is
A) Tasar silk
B) Moonga silk
C) Erisilk
D) Mulberry silk
Answer:
A) Tasar silk

Question 45.
The process in the picture is

A) Stiffling
B) Reeling
C) Warping
D) Feeding
Answer:
A) Stiffling

Question 46.
The equipment show in the figure is

A) Cacoon
B) Chandrikalu
C) Reeling
D) Woven
Answer:
B) Chandrikalu

Question 47.
Fill the blank in the life cycle of silk moth

A) Pupa
B) Laren
C) Silk moth
D) Housefly
Answer:
A) Pupa

Question 48.
The country that used the silk for first time
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) America
Answer:
B) China

Question 49.
1) Dying 2) Sorting
3) Scouring 4) Shearing
The correct order is
A) 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C) 4, 3, 1,2
D) 3, 4, 2,1
Answer:
A) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 50.
Removing the colour of wool is
A) Bleaching
B) Sorting
C) Spinning
D) Scouring
Answer:
A) Bleaching

Question 51.
Making threads of yarn is
A) Spinning
B) Carding
C) Dyeing
D) Sorting
Answer:
A) Spinning

Question 52.
Write the correct order of Collecting Wool.
A) Shearing, Scouring, Sorting
B) Scouring, Sarting, Shearing
C) Shearing, Sorting, Scouring
D) Sorting, Shearing, Scouring
Answer:
A) Shearing, Scouring, Sorting

Question 53.
Which city is called silk city in our State?
A) Venkatagiri
B) Dharmavaram
C) Madanapalli
D) Hanuman Junction
Answer:
B) Dharmavaram

Question 54.
The first stage in making of woollen clothes?
A) Scouring
B) Sorting
C) Shearing
D) Bleaching
Answer:
C) Shearing

Question 55.
Fill the blank in the flow chart with the given answer.

A) Stuffing
B) Moths
C) Reeling
D) Chilakalu
Answer:
A) Stuffing

Question 56.
Material present in silk thread
A) Protein
B) Fat
C) Carbohydrate
D) Cellulose
Answer:
A) Protein

Question 57.
If you went to silk showroom to know the quality of silk, what type of exact question do you ask?
A) How you decide the cost
B) These silk clothes have long life
C) Silk is prepared with
D) Silks are how many types
Answer:
D) Silks are how many types

Question 58.
In summer season what type of clothes do you wear?
A) Cotton, light colour
B) Woollen, Silk
C) Cotton, dark colour
D) Silk, Woollen
Answer:
A) Cotton, light colour

Question 59.
Animal fibre: protein :: plant fibre:
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate
D) Mineral
Answer:
C) Carbohydrate

Question 60.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of processes in making woollen fabric?
A) Shearing – scouring – combing – spinning – weaving
B) Scouring – spinning – combing – shearing – weaving
C) Weaving – scouring – shearing – combing – spinning
D) Shearing – weaving – combing – spinning – scouring
Answer:
A) Shearing – scouring – combing – spinning – weaving

Question 61.
Name the stages of silkworm weavers buy from sericulture industury.
A) Larva
B) Pupa
C) Eggs
D) Moth
Answer:
B) Pupa

Question 62.
Identify the process that helps to store the cocoons for a long time.
A) Boiling
B) Stiffling
C) Reeling
D) Weaving
Answer:
A) Boiling

Question 63.
The silk fibres are composed of
A) Siricin & thrombin
B) Fibroin & thrombin
C) Cellulose & fat
D) Siricin & fibroin
Answer:
D) Siricin & fibroin