Category: Class 9

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Is Matter Pure?

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure?

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
There is a mixture with sand and iron filings. Write an activity for the separation of iron filings from sand.
Answer:

1. Take mixture of sand and iron filing in a tub.
2. Take a magnet and move over the mixture.
3. Iron filings are separated by sticking to the magnet.

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Frame two questions to understand “Homogeneous mixture”.
Answer:

• Can you see components in homogenous mixture?
• In which mixture components are uniformly distributed, heterogeneous or homogeneous?

Question 2.
How can you use milk to show Tyndall effect?
Answer:

1. Take milk in a glass.
2. Pass light through the milk.
3. Milk particles shine due to scattering of light.
4. This is the Tyndall effect.
5. Milk is a colloidal solution.

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the arrangement of apparatus of fractional distillation experiment. What is the advantage of using the fractionating column?
Answer:

1. Fractional distillation column contains glass beads.
2. These glass beads in fractional distillation column provide maximum possible surface area for the vapours to cool and condense repeatedly.

Question 2.
Draw and label the apparatus set up for the separation of a mixture by sublimation.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw and label the apparatus set up for the separation of a mixture by evaporation.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain how two miscible liquids can be separated if their boiling points are close to each other.
Answer:

To separate two or more miscible liquids when the difference in their boiling points is less than 25°C, fractional distillation process is used.

Aim :
To separate two miscible liquids (water and acetone) by fractional distillation.

Materials required :
Stand, distillation flask, thermometer, condenser, beaker, acetone and water, one holed rubber cork.

Procedure:

1. Take a mixture of acetone and water in a distillation flask.
2. Fix a thermometer as shown in the figure and clamp to the stand.
3. Attach condenser to the flask.
4. Keep a beaker to collect distillate at the end of condenser.
5. Heat the mixture slowly.
6. Observe the reading of thermometer.
7. The acetone (low boiling point) vapourises and condenses.
8. It can be collected from the condenser outlet.
9. Water remains in the distillation flask. ,

Question 5.
800 ml of solution contains 20 grams of solute. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by volume percentage of the solution.
Answer:

Question 6.
a) Diagram shows one of the process of separation by mixtures. Based on the diagram answer the following questions.
i) Identify the process involved in the diagram.
Answer:
Sublimation.

ii) Is something missing in the diagram. If so what is that?
Answer:
Stove is missed for heating.

iii) If ‘B’ represent ammonium chloride, then what is ‘A’ represent?
Answer:
Mixture of ammonium chloride and salt.

iv) Give one more example for separation of mixture using above process?

Answer:
Camphor and salt.

Question 7.
Name the instrument used to separate immiscible liquids. Draw a neat diagram of it taking kerosene and water as immiscible liquids.
Answer:
The instrument used to separate immiscible liquids is separating funnel.

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? Important Questions and Answers

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Pure substance’?
Answer:
In our day to day language, ‘pure’ means something with no adulteration. A substance is said to be pure i.e., homogeneous when the composition doesn’t change, no matter which part of the substance you take for examination.

Question 2.
What is a mixture?
Answer:
A mixture is generally made of two or more components that are not chemically combined.

Question 3.
What is a homogeneous mixture? Give examples.
In a homogeneous mixture the components of the mixture of uniformly distributed throughout it.
Ex : Lemonade, sugar solution, air, etc.

Question 4.
What is a heterogeneous mixture? Give examples.
Answer:
A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture made up of different substances or the same substance in different states which are not uniformly distributed in it.
Ex : Mixture of oil and water; water and naphthalene, etc.

Question 5.
What are the factors affecting rate of dissolving?
Answer:
The factors affecting rate of dissolving are
i) Temperature of solvent,
ii) Size of solute particles,
iii) Stirring of the solution.

Question 6.
When do you say that a solution is dilute solution?
Answer:
If the amount of solute present is little, the solution is said to be dilute.

Question 7.
What do you say that a solution is a concentrated solution?
Answer:
If the amount of solute present is more in a solution, then the solution is said to be a concentrated solution.

Question 8.
Define suspension.
Suspensions are the heterogeneous mixtures of a solid and a liquid in which the solids do not dissolve, like mixtures of soil and water.
Ex : Mixture of sand and water.

Question 9.
Define emulsion and give an example.
Answer:
Emulsion is a mixture consisting of two liquids that do not mix and settle into layers when they left undisturbed.
Ex : Mixture of oil and water.

Question 10.
What is a colloid?
Answer:
Colloids are heterogeneous mixtures in which the particle size is too small to be seen with the naked eye, but big enough to scatter light.
Ex : Milk, Cheese, Ghee, etc.

Question 11.
What is Tyndall effect?
Answer:
Scattering of a beam of light is called Tyndall effect.

Question 12.
What technique do you use to separate the colours?
Answer:
The laboratory technique called chromatography is used for the separation of mixtures into its individual components like inks and dyes.

Question 13.
When do we use fractional distillation method for the separation of miscible liquids?
Answer:
To separate two or more miscible liquids when the difference in their boiling points is less than 25°C, fractional distillation process is used.

Question 14.
What is the definition given by Lavoisier for the ‘element’?
Answer:
According to Lavoisier, an element is a form of matter that cannot be broken down by chemical reactions into simpler substances.

Question 15.
What is the principle involved in separation of immiscible liquids using separation funnel?
Answer:
The underlying principle involved in separation of immiscible liquids using separating funnel is that the immiscible liquids separate out into layers depending on their densities.

Question 16.
What is the use of glass beads in the fractional distillation column?
Answer:
The glass beads in fractional distillation column provide maximum possible surface area for the vapours to cool and condense repeatedly.

Question 17.
How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more then 25°C). Which are miscible with each other?
Answer:
Kerosene and petrol are separated by using distillation process because the difference in boiling point is more than 25°C.

Question 18.
What type of mixtures are separated by the techniques of crystallisation?
Answer:
Salt from water, sugar from water and sodium chloride from its solution in water, etc. are the mixtures to be separated by the techniques of crystallisation.

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a centrifuge? What are its uses?
Answer:
Centrifuge is a machine used to separate the particles of higher mass and lower mass from a mixture.
Uses :

1. To separate cream from milk.
2. In diagnostic laboratories, to test blood and urine samples.
3. Dryer in a washing machine.

Question 2.
Define a mixture and mention its properties.
Answer:
Mixture :
A mixture is generally made of two or more components that are not chemically combined.

Properties :

1. The substances in a mixture retain their own properties.
2. The substances in a mixture can be physically separated.

Question 3.
What are homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures? Give examples.
Answer:
Homogeneous mixture:
A homogeneous mixture is a mixture in which the components of the mixture are uniformly distributed throughout it.
Ex :
Lemonade, sugar solution, etc.

Heterogeneous mixture :
A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture made up of different substances or the same substance in different states which are not uniformly distributed in it.
Ex :
Oil and water; Naphthalene and water, etc.

Question 4.
Define solution, solvent and solute.
Answer:
Solution :
The homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is that we cannot separate them by the process of filtration called a solution.

Solvent:
The component of the solution that dissolve the other component in it (usually the component present in larger quantity) is called solvent.

Solute :
The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent (usually the component present in lesser quantity) is called solute.

Question 5.
Mention the properties of a solution.
Answer:

1.  The particles of a solution cannot be seen with our naked eye.
2. They do not show Tyndall effect.
3. The solute particles do not settle down when left undisturbed.
4. Solution is a homogeneous mixture.

Question 6.
What are the disperse phase and dispersion medium of a colloidal solution?
Answer:
Disperse phase :
Disperse phase is the substance that present in small proportions and consists of particles of colloidal size (lnm to 100 nm).

Dispersion medium :
Dispersion medium is the medium in which the colloidal particles are dispersed.

Question 7.
Define miscible and immiscible liquids.
Answer:
Miscible liquid :
A liquid is said to be miscible if it dissolve completely in another liquid.
Ex : Alcohol is miscible in water.

Immiscible liquid :
An immiscible liquid is one which doesn’t dissolve but forms a layer over another liquid and can be separated easily.
Ex : Oil is immiscible in water.

Question 8.
Define element and compound. Give examples.
Answer:
Element:
Element can be defined as a basic form of matter that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical reactions.
Ex : lron, gold, silver, sodium, magnesium, etc.

Compound :
Compound can be defined as pure substance that can be separated into two or more components by means of chemical reactions.
Ex : Copper sulphate, ammonium chloride, etc.

Question 9.
How do you appreciate the efforts of scientists in discovering elements?
Answer:

• Generally elements are available in nature in the form of their ores.
• Study of properties of elements lead to the development of civilization.
• The efforts of early alchemists-up to and including Newton, Hennig Brand, Sir Humphry Davy are appreciable for their works in unearthing new elements.
• The definition of element and compound given by Robert Boyle and Lavoisier lead to study the properties of elements and compounds.

Question 10.
Name the technique to separate,
i) butter from curd
ii) salt from sea-water
iii) camphor from salt
Answer:
i) Centrifugation method is used to separate butter from curd .
ii) Crystallisation is used to separate salt from water.
iii) Sublimation technique is used to separate camphor from salt.

Question 11.
What are the factors on which solubility depends on?
Answer:
The factor influence solubility are

1. nature of solute
2. nature of solvent
3. temperature.

Question 12.
What is a concentrated and dilute solution?
Answer:
If the amount of solute is less in a solution, then it is called dilute solution.

If the amount of solute is more in a solution, then the solution is called concentrated solution.

Question 13.
How do you separate following mixture?
a) Iodine from sodium chloride
b) Petrol from water
c) Butter from milk
d) Sugar from water
Answer:
a) Sublimation
b) Separating funnel
c) Centrifugation
d) Evaporation

Question 14.
Identify pure substance and mixture from this figure. Why?

Answer:
a) Fig ‘a’ is a pure substance. Because particles are evenly distributed.
b) Fig ‘b’ is a mixture. Because particles are unevenly distributed.

9th Class Physical Science 3rd Lesson Is Matter Pure? 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the terms :
a) Solubility
b) Saturated solution
c) Unsaturated solution
d) Concentration
Answer:
a) Solubility :
The amount of solute present in a saturated solution at a certain tem-perature is called its solubility.

b) Saturated solution :
When no more solute can be dissolved in the solution at a certain temperature, it is said to be a saturated solution.

c) Unsaturated solution :
If the amount of solute present in the solution is less than that in the saturated solution is called an unsaturated solution.

d) Concentration of a solution:
The concentration of a solution can be defined as the amount (mass) of solute present in a given amount (mass) of solution or the amount (mass) of solute dissolved in a given volume of the solution.

Question 2.
Compare the properties of suspensions and colloids.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the process of preparation of ice cream.
Answer:

1. Ice cream is made by churning a mixture of milk, sugar and flavours.
2. This mixture is slowly chilled to form ice cream.
3. The churning process disperses air bubbles into the mixture by foaming and break up the large ice crystals into tiny particles.
4. The result is a complex substance which contains solids, liquids and gases.
5. This is the ice cream.
6. Ice cream is a colloid.

Question 4.
What is chromatography? What are its uses?
Answer:
Chromatography :
Chromatography is a laboratory technique for the separation of mixtures into its individual components.
Uses:

1. Used to separate components of ink and dyes.
2. Used to separate the coloured pigments in plants.
3. Used to determine the chemical composition of many substances.
4. Used in crime scene investigations.
5. Used in hospitals to detect alcohol levels in a patient’s blood stream.
6. Used by environmental agencies to detect the level of pollutants in water supplies.
7. Used by pharmacists to determine the amount of each chemical found in each product.

Question 5.
Explain the process of separation of components of air briefly.
Answer:

1. If we want oxygen gas from air, we have to separate out all the other gases present in air.
2. The air is compressed by increasing the pressure and then cooled by decreasing the temperature to get liquid air.
3. This liquid air is allowed to warm up slowly in a fractional distillation column where gases get separated at different heights depending upon their boiling points.

Question 6.
Distinguish between mixtures and compounds.
Answer:

Question 7.
Draw a flow chart shows the process of obtaining gases from air.
Answer:

1. We have learnt that air is a homogeneous mixture.
2. It can be separated into its components.
3. The following are the steps involved in separating the components of air.

Question 8.
Draw a flow chart to understand the chemical and physical nature of the matter.
Answer:

Question 9.
Give some daily life experiences where you can observe “Tyndall effect”.
(OR)
What is Tyndall effect? Write any two applications of Tyndall effect.
Answer:
Tyndall effect:
Scattering a beam of light is called the ‘Tyndall effect’.

Daily life experiences:

1. Select a room where the sun light falls directly through a window.
   Close the window in such a way that a slit is left open between the windows.
   We observe a beam of light passing through the slit.
2. While walking on a road having a lot of trees on both sides, when the sun light passes through branches and leaves, we can see the path of dust particles.
3. In cinema halls we can observe the beam of light scatters from projector to the screen.
4. When smoke in the kitchen is exposed to sun light, we can observe the path of smoke particles.

Question 10.
How do you separate the mixture of napthaleine powder and salt powder?
Answer:
Aim :
To separate components in the mixture of napthaleine and salt.

Apparatus:
China dish, cotton plug, funnel, burner.

Method :
Separation mixtures by sublimation.

Procedure :

1. Take 4 table spoons of mixture in a China dish.
2. Take the glass funnel and plug the mouth of the funnel with cotton plug.
3. Invert the funnel over the China dish.
4. Keep the dish on the stand of stove and heat for some time.

Observation :

1. Vapours of napthaleine solidified on the walls of the funnel.
2. Salt remains in the China dish.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Expansion of Democracy

9th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Map 1: Democratic Governments in 1900 – 1950

Map 2 : Democratic Governments in 2011

a) On the basis of these maps, identify up to three countries (in some cases you won’t find three countries) that were democratic in these continents for the given years and make a table as given.

Answer:

b) identify some African countries with democracy in 2011.
Answer:
Egypt, Libya, Tunisia are countries which got independence in and around 2011.

c) Make a list of big countries that were not democratic in 2011.
Answer:
1) Asian countries :
China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Saudi Arabia, etc.

2) African countries :
Algeria, Ethiopia, Chad, Zaire, Morocco, Mauritania, Angola, etc.

The above countries were not democratic in 2011.

Question 2.
Read the maps again and think about the following points.
a) Based on the maps, can we say that the Twentieth century was a significant era for the spread of democracy?
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century only few countries of Europe and America were independent, e.g.: Spain, France, England, Norway, Argentina, Chile, Bolivia and Peru, the USA, Canada, Alasca.
2. After World War II almost all countries fought against colonial powers and got independence.
3. Though there are still some non-democratic countries, we can call 20th century as an era of democracy.

b) During the early 20 century, democracy was mostly in the continents like Europe and Americas. While in certain continents like Africa and Asia there were almost no democratic countries.

c) Even today there are certain areas that have not established democratic governments such as Saudi Arabia and Ethiopia.

Question 3.
Most countries often claim themselves to be democratic by conducting elections. How did this occur in the context of Myanmar and Libya?
Answer:

1. Both the countries Myanmar and Libya claim themselves as independent and democratic.
2. But in practical view, they are not democratic countries.
3. Unlike democratic countries –
   a) They did not allow multi-party elections and one party usually ruled for several years.
   b) Even they did not allow free elections.
   c) Sometimes they did not allow the elected representatives to form governments.
   Ex : NLD, led by Suu Kyi got 80% seats, was not allowed to form government.
   d) They did not allow freedom of expression or freedom to form organizations, or freedom to protest against government.

Both the countries did not have any conditions for a democracy to flourish. Hence they cannot claim themselves to be democratic by conducting elections.

Question 4.
Why do you think the rulers try to control the media? Do you know how is media controlled in your area?
Answer:

• Mass Media is powerful weapon which can make or break any governments.
• Restrictions on media helps them to remain in power.
• Hence the rulers always try to control the media.
• So many times in India too government censors certain news. This generally happens without the notice of common man.

Question 5.
Write an imaginary dialogue between a person from Libya and Myanmar comparing the events and struggle for democracy in their respective countries.
Answer:
Person from Libya : Hai, I am xxxx, as I have already told you the monarchy is over thrown in our country.
Person from Myanmar : Yes, I came to know about that who is ruling your country now.
Libya : Gaddafi has taken control of our country. What about your country.
Myanmar : In 1962, the government was overthrown and ‘Ne Win’ military rule is going on.
Libya : First of all we thought he could rule us. He laid foundation for development. What is your country’s position?
Myanmar : Under military rule, our country did not make any progress.
Libya : UNO is supporting our people’s to demands.
Myanmar : Other countries are also showing sympathy us.
Libya : We protested against.
Myanmar : Suu Kyi is in house arrest she played good role.
Libya : Gaddafi is overthrown in 2012. O.K. Bye.
Myanmar : We got new government in 2012. Bye.

Question 6.
How do literacy and mass education help for the functioning of democracy?
(OR)
How do the literacy help for the effective functioning of democracy?
Answer:

• Literacy and education play an important role in the development of individual and society.
• Knowledge liberates citizens from ignorance.
• Any society needs a vigilant, conscious, and informed public for the successful functioning of the democracy.
• Education enables people to think critically, rationally, and scientifically.
• The right to vote can be properly exercised when voter can read newspapers, follow national and international developments, and participate in democratic process effectively.
  Hence the proper functioning of democracy always depends on the literacy and mass education.

Question 7.
What is the difference between democracy and dictatorship?
Answer:
Differences between democracy and dictatorship :

Question 8.
What is the role played by Aung San Suu Kyi in fighting for democracy in Myanmar?
Answer:

• Aung San Suu Kyi, daughter of Aung San who took the lead in staging protest against the military rule.
• Suu kyi fought for reforms in Burma.
• She established a new political party “National League for Democracy (NLD) and won majority (80%) of the seats even though she was in prison.
• Suu Kyi was released from house arrest after the elections of 2010.
• She questioned on the malpractices of elections.
• In 2011 Suu Kyi’s ‘NLD’ contested in the elections and have won 43 out of 45 parliamentary seats that were vacant.
• The freeing of Suu Kyi and the successful participation of NLD in elections are considered the beginning of democracy in Burma.

Question 9.
Read the last paragraph of this chapter and answer the question.

Today, it is increasingly becoming clear to the people that democracy which respects the freedom and rights of all people may be the best way to solve some of the complex problems the countries face. Today, a new kind of democracy is being forged across the world in which even the poorest and the most vulnerable people will have a voice and will be able to influence policies and ensure justice and peace for all.

What is a new kind of democracy?
Answer:

1. The poorest and the most vulnerable people will have a voice.
2. The poorest will be able to influence the policies.
3. The new kind of democracy will ensure justice and peace for all.

Question 10.
Read the newspapers and note down any news regarding the struggle for democracy in Libya or Egypt or any other country. Prepare a file of such news clippings and display them in the classroom.
Answer:
Struggle for democracy in Libya :
A few months ago the National Transitional Council (NTC), which has governed Libya since the first few weeks of the revolt in 2011, announced that the assembly would not draft the constitution itself but instead appoint a 60-member committee to draft it. The members of this committee were supposed to be chosen from outside the assembly and represent the country’s three geographic regions of Libya – Tripolitania, Cyrenaica, and Fezzan — in equal numbers. Yet, a few weeks ago, the NTC changed policy again at the last moment, declaring that the members of the constitutional committee would not be appointed by the assembly but directly elected by the people, though it’s not clear when. Confused? So are Libyans.

There are rumors in Libya that most members of the NTC are not happy about the idea of dissolving the institution and going back home. It’s just a rumor, but the group’s decision to revoke constitution-writing powers from the new assembly is making people suspicious, and that’s the point. The NTC likely fears too much power going to Islamists, who are notoriously less friendly toward the NTC than are other groups. We can’t know the NTC’s motivations for sure, but their recent moves diminished the power of the new assembly, which they may have feared would be dominated by Islamists, who swept national elections in neighboring Tunisia and Egypt. A more democratic Libya would re¬ject the NTC’s odd rule-changing and reinstate the elected assembly’s power to write the constitution. After all, this is what Libyans voted for. So should the same Western powers that supported the Libyan revolt.

Libya has come a long way since Gaddafi’s fall, but it still hasn’t been able to solve two major security problems: the armed militias that still roam the country and the state’s deteriorating control of its national borders. Fortunately, this is where new assembly can step in, finding agreement among the various parties and militias and forming a govern-ment, one that is as inclusive as possible, to administer and rebuild Libya. The interna-tional community can help, including by training and equipping the police and security forces, both of which were devastated by the recent conflict.

A successful election is just the start of dealing with one of Libya’s most important challenges right now: national unity. Regional and local claims and jockeying for power threaten to undermine the legitimacy of and support for the national government. A few thousand inhabitants of the eastern provinces care calling for a federalist state, if not of outward secession. While this is definitely a minority position, it is a very dangerous one because it could easily, at the administration’s first real difficulty, split the government and the people, thus slowing or even reversing Libya’s progress toward stability. Most Libyans, as well as the interested Western nations, are rightly happy with Libya’s progress toward becoming a stable, unified, democratic state. But if they want that progress to continue, they’ll all have to work together.

9th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What kind of problems do you think these pose for establishing democratic government? (Text Book Page No. 235)
Answer:

• Bringing democratic participation of all the people under conditions of tribalism, normalism, illiteracy, and restrictions on women was difficult.
• Encouraging participation of common people in public affairs through peoples councils and elected Peoples Assembly in the centre in also difficult.

Question 2.
Even though the people had benefited much from the Gaddafi government, why do you think they rose in rebellion against it? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• The government of Gaddafi was not ready to trust these democratic bodies.
• “Revolutionary Councils” were appointed.
• The democratic bodies had to implement the decisions of these non-elected leaders.
• The RCC used brute armed force to arrest, torture, and kill political opponents.
• There was no freedom of press and no one could start any trade union or other associations.
• The civic amenities were deplorable.
  Hence rebellions rose against the government of Gaddafi.

Question 3.
Even though the Gaddafi government claimed to be a democratic government, what aspects of democracy were absent? What aspects of democratic government were present in it? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:
Aspects of democracy absent in the government of Gaddafi:

1. Democratic bodies had to implement the decisions of non-elected leaders.
2. Freedom of press, freedom to form trade unions and associations were prohibited.
3. No political parties were allowed to function in Libya.
4. This led to concentration of power and wealth in the hands of few.

Aspects of democracy present in the government of Gaddafi :

1. Free universal education was provided.
2. Free medical care for all was also provided.
3. Oil profits were distributed to all the citizens.
4. Subsidised housing schemes were introduced.
5. Women were given with equal opportunities and status in the society.

Question 4.
Why are civil liberties important for democracy? Explain in the context of Libyan experience. (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• “Liberty” is one of the aspects of democracy.
• Civil liberties include liberty of thought, speech, expression, faith, belief and worship.
• These “liberties” were missing in Libya.
• Liberty of expression was brutally crushed.
• The RCC was also very intolerant of criticism and opposition.
• People were not at liberty to express their discontent.
  Thus lack of civil liberties led to the downfall of the government of Gaddafi in Libya.

Question 5.
Why do you think democracy was not able to establish itself in Burma after its independence? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• Burma became independent just 5 months after Indian independence.
• It appeared that Burma too would emerge as a democratic republic.
• However, the Burmese did not have a united political party to lead them at the time.
• Burma consisted of a large number of small states and ethnic linguistic regions.
• Aung San, the leader of the nationalist movement and the leader of the ethnic group was assassinated.
• Burmese military began its slow advance into the ethnic states to rule by force.
• They were illiterate, no able leader, no power to fight with military, etc., were the reasons for the failure to establish democracy in Burma.
• Finally, in 1962, the elected government was overthrown by a coup, and army “General Ne Win” took over the charge of the country.

Question 6.
Why do you think democracy was not able to establish itself in Libya after its independence? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• Libya got its independence in 1951 and the power was transferred to king Idris.
• In the year 1969 under the leadership of Gaddafi monarchy was abolished and the country was declared as the “Socialist Libyan Arab Republic”.
• But the people were concerned about their own tribe and its honour than about the welfare of the people.
• Most of the people were poor nomadic animal herders who were also illiterates.
• Women were confined to purdah and were not allowed to participate in public activities.
• On top of this the government of Gaddafi was not ready to trust the bodies of democracy. Hence the democratic participation of all people under these conditions was difficult.

Question 7.
How did students and youth play an important role in bringing democracy to both Libya and Burma? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• People from across the country began to interact through internet and mobile phones to share their misery.
• Use of internet and Facebook helped them to get the support of the people all over the world.
• The youth and people started protesting against delay in the building of houses and political corruption.
• In Burma, the students took the lead in staging protest against the military rule. Finally military power was overthrown in both the countries and democracies are established.

Question 8.
What similarities of events do you find in the description of events in Libya and Burma? (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:

• In both the countries, students, youth and people participated in the protest movements.
• Use of mobiles and internet and social networking sites like Facebooks were common.
• “UNO” supported both the countries and declared Libya as “No fly zone” and ordered for a referendum in Burma.
• Economic sanctions were imposed on both the countries.
• In both the countries the protest was to overthrow the military regime and establish a democratic form of government.
• Lastly both the countries successfully conducted elections in a fair way and elected their new leader.

Question 9.
Underline the statements that are related to political party and voting in both Libya and Burma. (Text Book Page No. 240)
Answer:
a) Libya

1. RCC – Revolutionary Command Council.
2. Election – 2012 new government sworn in on Nov. 2012. Over 100 political parties participated and 200 representatives were elected.

b) Burma

1. 1951, 56 and 60 elections were held.
2. 1990 elections – NLD party established by Suu Kyi.
3. 2010 elections were held.
4. In 2011 ‘NLD’ won 43 out of 45 seats.

Question 10.
Track the changes that you may have heard about Libya and Burma during the year 2012 and write it. (Text Book Page No. 240)
Changes in Libya :

1. In 2012 the National Transitional Council (NTC) handed overthe powerto Libya’s newly elected Parliament the General National Congress (GNC).
   The Congress appointed a Prime Minister Ali Zidan, who formed an interim government.

Changes in Burma :
Burma’s Pro-democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi greeted supporters from her vehicle during her election campaign in Aung Pan in the southern Shan State of Burma (Myanmar) on March 1, 2012.

Question 11.
Dictators try to control press and TV media. Do you know other ways of sharing information and ideas between people? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• Mobile phone occupies the first place in sharing information and ideas.
• ‘Fax’ is one of the ways of sending message from one place to another.
• Today internets are available everywhere.
• We can send e-mails to exchange information and ideas.
• Social networking sites play important role in sharing informations.
  Ex : Facebook, Twitter, etc.

Question 12.
The Tunisian struggle began with the death of one trader. The struggle gained strength largely through the use of social networking websites like Facebook. Why do you think it is not easy for governments to control them? (Text Book Page No. 237)
Answer:

• Technology has changed much.
• For development, every country has to work on internet.
• Computer have become a part of our life.
• Hence it is difficult to control social networking websites.

Question 13.
Locate “Libya” and “Myanmar” in the world map. Which continents are they located on? (Text Book Page No. 234)
Answer:
Libya is in Africa continent.
Myanmar is in Asia continent.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Impact of Colonialism in India

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
How did people use the forests before the rule of the British? Why was there less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days?
Answer:

• The adivasis used forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits, flowers and herbs and for gazing their cattle.
• They cut wood, cleared the land to cultivate crops.
• They cut trees to build their homes etc.
• They did not blindly cut large tracts of forests but only small patches.
• They cut only old trees and allowed new trees to grow.
  Therefore there was less danger of the forests being fully destroyed in those days.

Question 2.
Against whom did the adivasis revolt? In what ways did they demonstrate their anger and protest? Give some examples.
Answer:

• The Adivasis revolted against the police department, the forest department and the moneylenders.
• During the protests they would burn down many police stations, posts of the forest department and houses of the moneylenders.
• In many places they would set fire to the entire jungle.
• The revolt of Santhals of Jharkhand in 1856, the Koya revolt of A.P. in 1880 and 1922, the revolt of the Maria and Muria of Bastar in 1910, etc. were some of the revolts of adivasis.

Question 3.
How were the revolts of the adivasis suppressed by the British?
Answer:

• In most of the revolts the leaders were arrested and were kept behind bars,
  e.g.: Birsa Munda died in prison in 1900.
• The leaders were traped and shot dead by the Britishers,
  e.g.: Sita Rama Raju of A.P.
• The Adivasis were armed only with bows and arrows.
• They could not stand before the gun-bearing British army.
  e.g. : In a fierce battle 15000 Santhals were killed and their revolt was finally suppressed.

Question 4.
Make a timeline to show when adivasi protests occurred in different parts of India.
Answer:

Question 5.
What problems did the Indian industrialists have with the British government?
Answer:
The problems of the Indian industrialists during the British government were –

1. The British government had levied a special tax on cloth made by Indian weavers in order to help the cloth industry of Britain.
2. The British government refused to levy the similar tax on the British cloth.
3. Later the government levied a 3 /2% tax on the British goods and the same tax was levied on the cloth made in India too.
4. With this the British government made it clear that it would protect mainly the interests of the British factories.

Question 6.
During British rule, why was it easier for the European companies rather than Indian companies to set up industries? Give a few reasons.
Answer:

• Indian industry had got a little help from the British government.
• A very large number of factories, banks, ships etc., were in the hands of Europeans, not in the hands of Indians.
• British industries had easy access to all types of officers and authorities of the British government, whereas Indians never had such reach.
• All the foreign trade was in the hands of European companies, hence, they had no shortage of funds.

Question 7.
Labour laws were first made for child labourers, then for women and lastly for men. Why were these laws made in this order?
Answer:

• The first Factory Act in 1881 made rules especially for the welfare of the children.
• As the children are tender hence the first priority was given for the welfare and regularized their working hours and children below 7 years were restricted to work in factories.
• In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labour as they are sensitive when compared with men.
• Lastly in 1911, the working hours of men were regularised.

Question 8.
How could education affect industrial development ? Discuss in the class.
Answer:

• Industrial development needs a lot of educational workers and officers at all levels.
  We need lot of technicians, scientists, engineers, management personnels, lot of support system etc.
  Previously lack of “technical know how” led to the establishment of factories with foreign collaboration
  Now due to education affect, we are technically skillful and can establish industries without any foreign collaboration.

Question 9.
Identify the large industrial cities on outline map of India during 20th century.

Answer:

1. Mumbai
2. Ahmedabad
3. Chennai
4. Jamshedpur
5. Kanpur
6. Kolkata
7. Hyderabad
8. Surat
9. Visakhapatnam
10. Pune
11. Nagpur
12. Indore
13. Salem

Question 10.
Find out where each of these adivasi struggles took place, and mark their locations on a map of India.
Answer:

1. Jharkhand
2. Chotanagpur Plateau
3. Uttarkhand
4. Chintapalli
5. Adilabad

Question 11.
Read the para under the title ‘Adivasi Revolts’ on page 222 and comment on it.
Adivasi Revolts :
We have seen how the conditions of the adivasi farmers who lived in the jungle worsened in British times. The Baiga, Muria, Gond and Bhil tribes of Madhya Pradeshand Chattisgarh, the Koya, Reddy, and Kolam tribes of Andhra Pradesh and the Saora adivasis of Orissa, were all no longer able to practice their old form of cultivation. They were having to become labourers for either the Forest Department or for contractors. Or they were becoming bonded labourers for moneylenders or farmers who had come from outside.
Answer:

1. As soon as the British took over Eastern India, tribal revolts broke out to challenge the alien rule.
2. In the early years of colonization, no other community in India offered such heroic resistance to British rule or faced such tragic consequences as did the numerous Adivasi communities.
3. As punishment for Adivasi resistance to British rule, ‘The Criminal Tribes Act’ was passed by the British Government in 1871.
4. As the freedom movement widened, it drew adivasis into all aspects of the struggle.

Question 12.
Visit an office of the Forest Department and interview the official on how forest could be preserved and wisely used by both industries and local people.
Answer:
Interview with Forest Ofiicer :
Student (S) : “Good Morning Sir, tell us about your eduction.”
Forest Officer (F.O) : “I was a village man. After completing my graduation, I appeared for the APPSC. Later I got selected and trained at Dehardun. I was appointed in forests in East Godavari Dist.
Student : Sir, elaborate upon your works as a Forest Officer.”
Forest Officer : “My work involved preservation of forest. As a Forest Officer it is my duty to safeguard the forests. Today, the world’s demand for timber and paper continues to grow. As we lose the forest, we also lose the habitat for many species, including human tribes.”
Student : “What precautions should we take to preserve the forests ?”
Forest Officer : 1. The government should ban the import of illegally logged timber.
2. The people should use less paper and wood.
3. People should invest in forest communities.
Student : “How can the forests be used wisely by both industries and local people ?”
Forest Officer : “Fine, there are certain things that everyone of us can do.
1. We should plant new trees.
2. We should practise the 3Rs. ‘Reduce, Reuse and Recycle’.
Reduce the amount of products of trees.
Reuse the items of forests, use the recycling process for some items.
3. Harvesting trees to create young regrowing forest in the place of cut forests.
4. We should keep all wildlife in our minds.
Student : “Thank you Sir, you gave us good information. Bye, sir”
Forest Officer : “Very good my boy. God bless you.”

Question 13.
Visit a nearby factory in your area find out its history how has the technology changed, where do the workers come from, try and talk to the employers and some workers to get their views.
Answer:
We have visited Sri Padmavathi Polymers.
Sri K. Chalapathi Rao and Sri C.V. Narasimha Rao are the partners of this factory. The factory was established in the year 2007. There are 50 employees in this factory. They are manufacturers and suppliers of Thermocol Boxes like EPS box, Apple box, Fish box, etc.

They import the thermocol balls from some other country. They heat these balls and mould them in different shapes.

The employers are present in the factory when we visit it. We met Smt. Subhadra, Accountant there. They are very happy to work there. They said that the facilities arranged by the authorities were well. There are shift duties in the factory. Women workers work during the day time only. The salary structures are also fine. They have eight working hours a day. We observe the surroundings in the factory. They are neat and clean. They grow plants for fresh air.

9th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss what “Protected market” means. (Text Book Page No. 225)
ANswer:

• “Protected Market” is the policy according to which goods made in a specific area be protected from foreign goods.
• Protection is given to the indigeneous goods by levying tax on imports. Thereby free incoming of imports is restricted to protect local markets.
• Indian markets were not protected during the British rule.

Question 2.
The Indians demanded that a tax be imposed on British goods coming to India.
1) Do you think this was a fair demand? (Text Book Page No. 225)
2) Should the government have treated British and Indian industries equally?
Answer:

1. Yes, Indians’ demand of taxing the British goods coming to India was a fair demand.
2. Yes, the government should have treated British and Indian industries equally.

Question 3.
Why did a rapid development take place in Indian industry during the First World War? (Text Book Page No. 226)
Answer:

• During the First World War, the import of foreign goods into India fell sharply.
• Cargo ships were diverted to war related duties, and hence there was a shortage of ships.
• The factories of Europe produced things needed for the war.
• So under these circumstances, the factories in India started selling their goods in greater quantities.
• Enthused by these heavy sales there was a rapid development of industries.

Question 4.
What industries were established in India during British rule? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

• From 1850 onwards, machine based industries had begun to set up in India.
• The biggest industry was the spinning and weaving of textiles.
• The jute industry also developed during this peirod.
• The greatest example of the achievements of Indian industrialists was the setting up of a steel factory at Jamshedpur in 1907.

Question 5.
What were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of Independence? (Text Book Page No. 227)
Answer:

• Tax levied on foreign goods was not adequate to protect our industries or goods.
• The British government did not pay adequate attention to develop the resources and facilities such as coal and iron and railway, roadways and electricity.
• Indian industrialists had to buy machines from abroad and they did not start in India.
• Educated workers like scientists, engineers and technicians were not available in India.
• Hence we depended on foreigners for “technical know how”.
• The above were the difficulties in the development of Indian industries at the time of independence.

Question 6.
In the early days of factories in India : (Text Book Page No. 229)
a) What were the rules regarding work and rest for labourers?
b) What were the rules regarding payment of wages ?
c) For what reasons would there be cuts and reductions in the labourers’ wages?
Answer:
a) Rules regarding work and rest for labourers :

1. Once the work began, there was no question of stopping.
2. There was no fixed time break even for meals.
3. Taking out 15-20 minutes from their work and would eat their meal.
4. The working atmosphere was unhygienic and would pass in the heat, humidity, noise, dust and suffocation of the mill.
5. The work would stop at sunset, when it would impossible to see.

b) Rules regarding payment of wages :

1. Wages were given in proportion to the amount of goods produced.
2. The owners laid the condition that “as much as you make, so much will you be paid”.
3. The labourers were not able to get any fixed income each month.
4. At the end of the month, the owners would not even pay the full payment. They would keep some amount till the end of the next week so that the worker would not leave the work.

c) Reasons for cuts and reductions in the wages :

1. There were plenty of fines.
2. The owners would fine the labourers
   a) if they came late,
   b) if the cloth spoilt,
   c) if the owner thought the labourer did not work sincerely.
3. These fines were deducted from the month’s wages.

Question 7.
Why did labourers go on strikes? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

1. Labourers struggled against their oppressive working conditions.
2. They went on strike for fixed incomes and other facilities such as –
   a) regulation of working hours
   b) improvement of their working conditions
   c) weekly break and leave
   d) regarding employment of children

Question 8.
Why were strikes used instead of any other action? (Text Book Page No. 230)
Answer:

• During strikes all workers would participate.
• Due to that the work would stop and the production would come down.
• One day strike would lead to lakhs of rupees loss to all industrialists.
• Hence strikes were used instead of any other work.

Question 9.
Why did the educated people of India not pay much attention to the interests of factory labourers in the beginning? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• In the beginning most of the educated people of India paid no need to the problems of the labourers.
  They believed that if laws were made in the interests of the labourers, industries would not be able to develop in India.

Question 10.
How would the labour laws have affected the industrialists? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• The industrialists were forced to give a break of half an hour after every six hours of work.
• The working hours of men, women and children were regularised.
• The mill production came down.
• The expenses of the owners increased.
• They were forced to improve the working conditions of the workers.

Question 11.
The British industrialists were against the development of factories in India, yet they took the side of Indian labourers. Why? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• If fixed incomes and facilities were provided, the mill production would come down and the expenses of the owners would go up.
• Then the goods produced in the factories would be more expensive.
• Then the goods from Britain would be sold easily.
• The development of Indian industries would come to a standstill.
  Thus the British industrialists were just pretending to show concern for the welfare of the Indian labourers.

Question 12.
Below what age could children not be employed as labourers in British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• According to the Factory Act of 1881, children below the age of 7 were not allowed to work in the factories.
• According to the Factory Act of 1891, children below the age of 9 were not allowed to work in the factories.

Question 13.
According to the labour laws what was the maximum number of hours that children, women and men could be expected to work? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• According to the Factory Act of 1881, the children’s working hours were reduced to 9 hours a day.
• According to the Factory Act of 1891, the women labourers cannot be made to work more than 11 hours a day.
• The men labourers cannot be made to work for more than 12 hours every day as per the Factory Act of 1911.

Question 14.
Which were the two main labourers’ unions to be formed in India during British times? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:

• Girni Kamgar Union was formed with the help of labourers of Mumbai.
• The Mazdoor Mahazan was formed in Ahmedabad under the influence of Gandhiji.

Question 15.
In which year were you born? Mark it on this time line. Also mark the births of your parents and some grandparents or other old relatives you can find out about. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
I was born on ……………. . My father was born on ……………. . My mother was born on ……………. . My grand father was born on My grand mother was born on ……………. .

Question 16.
Find out whether any of the people whose births you marked were affected by the labour laws. (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
My grandfather was affected by labour law. He worked in a sugar factory. So he obtained many benefits by labour law. Working hours duration, medical, housing etc., facilities were obtained.

Question 17.
Underline four sentences that represent the situation of adivasis and their use of forests before British rule. (Text Book Page No. 220)
Answer:

• Before British rule adivasis and villagers living in and near forests got many things they needed for their daily lives from the forests.
• They were the owners of the forests.
• They used the forests for hunting, gathering tubers, fruits,flowers and herbs and for grazing their cattle.
• They cut wood to build their homes and to make implements. They took things for their personal use.

Question 18.
Have you seen old wooden sleepers used in railway tracks ? What are they being replaced with today? Discuss why this replacement is taking place. (Text Book Page No. 221)
Answer:
Yes, I have seen wooden sleepers in railway tracks when I was very young. They are replaced by concrete sleepers today. Interest in concrete rail road ties increased after World War – II following advances in the design, quality and production of pre-stressed concrete. Concrete ties were cheaper and easier to obtain than timber and better able to carry higher axle weights and sustain higher speeds. Concrete sleepers have a longer service life and require less maintenance than timber due to their greater weight which helps them remain in the correct position longer.

Problems with wood ties include rot, splitting, insect infestation, plate-cutting, etc. In addition to these, the government wanted to reduce the burden on the forests.

So the concrete sleepers are introduced and replaced the wooden sleepers.

Question 19.
What do the present laws set as minimum age, below which children cannot be employed as labourers? (Text Book Page No. 231)
Answer:
According to the recent factory acts no child below 14 years of age can be employed as labour in factories or coalmines or any other jobs.

Question 20.
Why is a union or labourers’ organization important for labourers? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 233)
Answer:

• Any union or organizations fight for the common cause of all workers.
• They fight for the right of the workers.
• They protect the workers from the harassment of owners.
• They also fight for the hike in salaries and compensation for accident deaths, etc.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Physical Science Solutions Chapter 12 Units and Graphs Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Solutions 12th Lesson Units and Graphs at Curved Surfaces

9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs Textbook Questions and Answers

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9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs 1 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Unit?
Answer:
A unit is a standard measure used for comparing measurements.

Question 2.
Why do we use different units for different items?
Answer:
Depending on the quantities of material the units may be expressed.

Question 3.
Write fundamental quantities in MKS system.
Answer:
Mass (m), Length (l) and Time (t).

Question 4.
What are fundamental quantities?
Answer:
Fundamental quantities are those physical quantities that cannot be expressed in terms of other quantities.

Question 5.
What is fundamental unit?
Answer:
Units used to express fundamental quantities are called fundamental units.

Question 6.
Write fundamental units in MKS system.
Answer:
Meter, Kilogram and Second.

Question 7.
What is CGS system?
Centimeter, Grams and Seconds.

Question 8.
What is SI system? When was it introduced?
Answer:
SI system means International System of units. It was introduced in 1971.

Question 9.
List the fundamental quantities that are added to SI system.
Answer:
Electricity, light intensity, quantity of substance, temperature and plane angle.

Question 10.
What is difference between MKS and SI systems?
Answer:

• MKS system has only three fundamental quantities. Those are length, mass and time.
• SI system has eight fundamental quantities. Those are length, mass, time, electricity, light intensity, quantity of substance, temperature, plane angle.

Question 11.
What is derived quantity?
Answer:
The quantities that are obtained by combining fundamental quantities either by multiplication or division or both operations are called derived quantities.

Question 12.
What are derived units?
Answer:
The derived units of measurement derived from the fundamental units.

Question 13.
Write derived units of area and volume.
Derived units of area = m²
Derived units of volume = m³

Question 14.
What are the fundamental units are used to express the units of Force?
Answer:

Hence fundamental units used to express force are kg, m, s.

Question 15.
Which conversion factor is used to convert kilometers into meter?
Answer:
1000.

Question 16.
Which conversion factor is used to convert meters into kilometers?
Answer:
10^-3.

Question 17.
Write conversion factor to convert km/hr into m/s.
Answer:
\(\frac{5}{18}\)

Question 18.
Write some units of measurements expressed in the name of scientists.
Answer:
Newton (N), Pascal (Pa), Joule (J), Watt (W), etc.

Question 19.
What is graph?
Answer:
A pictorial form of representation that shows the relation between two quantities can be called a graph.

Question 20.
What are independent and dependent variables?
Answer:
Independent variables are controlled by us. Whereas dependent variables are changed due to the change in dependent variable.

Question 21.
Which variable is taken on x – axis?
Answer:
Independent variable.

Question 22.
What are grids on graph paper?
Answer:
On a graph paper, there are thick as well as fine vertical and horizontal lines. These intersecting lines form squares or grids.

Question 23.
What is Range?
Answer:
Range = highest value – lowest value.

Question 24.
What is scaling?
Answer:
Pointing of the values in the table on x – axis and y – axis is called scaling.

Question 25.
What is scale?
Answer:
The interval taken pointing values on axis is called scale.

Question 26.
How do you find x – axis scale?
Answer:

Question 27.
What is curved line graph?
Answer:
If a graph is in curved shape, then it is curved line graph.

Question 28.
What is Hooke’s law?
Answer:
The elongation of the spring is proportional to the applied mass within the elastic limit of the spring.

Question 29.
What is slope of the straight line graph?
Answer:

Question 30.
What is slope of a graph?
Answer:
The tan value of the angle at x – axis is the slope of a graph.
tan θ = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{y} }{\Delta \mathrm{x}}\)

Question 31.
What is area of a graph?
Answer:
The product of the physical quantity of y – axis and x – axis may explain another physical quantity. Hence, it is said to be area of the graph.

Question 32.
What does slope indicate to the graph of displacement and time?
Answer:
Velocity.

Question 33.
What does area of the graph of acceleration Vs time indicate?
Answer:

Question 34.
Predict shape of the graph if you plot a graph by taking time on x – axis and velocity of a free fall body on y – axis.
Answer:
Straight line.

Question 35.
Guess the shape of the graph if you plot a graph of time and distance covered by a bus.
Answer:
Curved graph.

Question 36.
Rithvik wrote ‘3 kgs of sugar’ on the black board. Correct him by asking a question.
Answer:
Is it correct to mention kg in plural form while writing units?

Question 37.
Karthik got a doubt by seeing ‘3 newtons’ on the black board. What would be it?
Answer:
Which quantity is measured in newtons ?

Question 38.
What are the materials / apparatus required to prove Hooke’s law?
Answer:

1. Spring,
2. Weights,
3. Scale,
4. Stand.

Question 39.
Area, volume, density, mass
a) Write any one fundamental quantity from the above data.
b) Write any one derived quantity from the above data.
Answer:
a) mass.
b) volume.

Question 40.
‘Dheeraj counted distance travelled by him for every 10 min.’
From the above data write independent and dependent variables.
Answer:
Time (min) is independent variable distance is dependent variable.

Question 41.

Plot the data points (6, 4) and (0, 0) in the above graph.
Answer:

Question 42.
How do you remember scientists through units of measurements?
Answer:
Some units are expressed in the names of the scientists like newton, joule, etc. When we use these units, scientists are remember once again.

Question 43.
What is the use of graph?
Answer:

• We can solve so many problems by using graphs.
• We can know the relation between two physical quantities through graphs.

Question 44.
Calculate the Range of 5, 7, 3, 8, 18, 4, 2, 6.
Answer:
Range = highest value – lowest value
= 18-2 = 16.

Question 45.
If the range is 10 and no. of grids horizontally is 20. How can you take scale X-axis?
Answer:

2) I will take 0.5,1,1.5, 2, 2.5,3,3.5, 4, 4.5, 10 on the X-axis. As a scale on x-axis.

Question 46.
How slope of displacement Vs time graph is useful?
Answer:
We can calculate velocity by calculating slope of line in displacement Vs time graph.

Question 47.
How area of velocity Vs time graph is useful?
Answer:
Area of velocity Vs time graph is useful to find the position of the object.

Question 48.

What is the acceleration at ‘B’?
Answer:

Acceleration is 1 m/s².

Question 49.

Find the acceleration at ‘A’.
Answer:

Question 50.

How much distance is travelled by the object from A to B in the graph?
Answer:
Zero.

9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs 2 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a unit? Where it be placed?
Answer:

• A unit is a standard measure used for comparing measurements.
• Unit should be placed right side of the magnitude of every physical quantity. For eg : 2 kg, 7 m.

Question 2.
Differentiate fundamental quantities and derived quantities.
Answer:

Question 3.
Derive units of density.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write different system of measurements.
Answer:

1. FPS : Foot, Pound, Second.
2. CGS : Centimeter, Gram, Second.
3. MKS : Meter, Kilogram, Second.
4. SI : Meter, Kilogram, Second, Ampere, Candela, Mole, Kelvin, Radian.

Question 5.
Derive units to the given physical quantities.
Answer:

Question 6.
Which of the following are correct? Why?
Answer:
A) m/s
B) m/s/s
C) m-s²
D) 10.kgs
E) Pascal
F) joule
Answer:
A) and F) only are correct
B) two solidus are used – wrong.
C) line break is used – wrong.
D) ‘•’ and plural of kg are used – wrong.
E) capital letter used (P) – wrong.

Question 7.
Write correct form of units in the following.
(j) DB
(ii) mhz
(iii) 20 – m
(iv) kg.m-s^-2
Answer:
(i) dB
(ii) MHz
(iii) 20 m
(iv) Kg.m.s^-2

Question 8.
How do you expect the shape of the given graphs?
(a) a ∝ b
(b) a ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathbf{b}}\)
Answer:
a) It may be straight line graph.
b) It may be curved line graph.

Question 9.
From the graph,
a) What is indicated by slopes of the lines OA, OB, OC?
b) Which line shows high speed than other lines? Why?

Answer:
a) Slopes of the lines indicate speeds of the objects.
b) OA shows high speed than other lines.
Because it has high slope than others.

Question 10.

a) Which is independent variable?
b) Which is dependent variable?
c) Predict how the graph is.
d) Find the range on Y – axis.
Answer:
a) Mass
b) Weight
c) It may be in straight line.
d) On Y – axis, values are 98, 196, 294, 392, 490.
Range = 490 – 98 = 392

Question 11.
Plot the given data points on the given graph paper and join the dots.
Data points : (8, 10) (20, 15) (40, 22.5) (48, 0)

Answer:

Question 12.
Draw a graph roughly to show uniform velocity of a body.
Answer:

Question 13.
Draw a graph that shows a body without movement after travelling sometime.
Answer:

Question 14.
How do you appreciate the role of graphs in solving problems?
Answer:

• Graphs can be used to compare different physical quantities like time- displacement, time-velocity, pressure-volume, etc. and helps in solve the problems.
• Graphs are very useful to find the path of an object which is in motion and it is easy to calculate velocity, acceleration, position, etc. at particular time and particular point of the object.
• Graphs are very useful minimum, maximum values of some physical quantities. For example to find minimum deviation of a prism graphs are very useful.
• In this way graphs are appreciable for their role in solving problems.

Question 15.
From the given graph find the slope and area at point B.
Answer:

Question 16.
Convert 3 m/s into km/hr.
Answer:

Question 17.
A ball of 100 g mass is thrown with initial velocity of 0.01 km/s. What is its momentum at that time?
Answer:
Momentum = mass × velocity
Here, mass of the ball = 100 gr = 100 × \(\frac{1}{100}\) kg ⇒ m = 0.1 kg
Velocity of the ball = 0.01 km/s = 0.01 × 1000 m/s ⇒ v = 10 m/s
Momentum of the ball = mxv = 0.1 × 10 kg.m/s = 1 kg.m/s

Question 18.

Find the temperature on Day – 4 by using graph.
Answer:

From the graph the temperature on day – 4 is 43°C.

Question 19.
Observe table and answer the following.

i) 12 cm = …………. m
ii) 2 nm = …………. cm
Answer:
i) 12 cm = 12 × 10^-2 m
ii) 2 nm = 2 × 10^-7 cm
[From the table 1 nanometer = 10_-9 m; 1 centimeter = 10^-2 m.
1 nanometer to centimeter conversion factor = 10^-9-(-2) = 10^-7.]

Question 20.
Find the conversion factors
a) Picometers to Meters
b) Gigabytes to Kilobytes.
Answwr:
From the above table,
a) 1 picometer = 10^-12 m; 1 meter = 10° m
Conversion factor to convert picometers to meters = 10^-12-(-0) = 10^-12 m

b) 1 GB = 10⁹ bytes ; 1 KB = 10³ bytes
Conversion factor to convert GB to KB = 10^9-3 = 10⁶ bytes.

Question 21.
Find the conversion factors
a) Megawatts to Kilowatts
b) Kilowatts to Megawatts.
Answer:
From the above table,
a) 1 Megawatt = 10⁶ watts; 1 Kilowatt = 10³ watts
Conversion factor MW to KW = 10^6-3 = 10³ W

b) 1 KW = 10³ W and 1 MW = 10⁶ W
Conversion factor KW to MW = 10^3-6 = 10^-3 W

9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs 4 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any four rules of writing units of measurements.
Answer:
1) Values are written as a number followed by a space and a unit symbol.
eg : 24 kg, 2 cm, 5 s.

2) Symbols for derived units formed by multiplication are joined with a dot or a space.
eg : 30 N.m, 30 N.m

3) Symbols are mathematical entities, not abbreviations. So, do not have an appended period / full stop.
eg : 4 kg is correct, but 4 k.g. is incorrect.

4) All symbols for units are written in lowercase.
eg : m, s, kg, etc.

5) Symbols derived from the name of a person use uppercase letter for shortform.
eg : Pa, N, W, etc.

Question 2.
Write steps in the construction of a graph, to the given data in a tabular form.
Answer:

• Take a graph paper. Draw x – axis and y – axis on it.
• Identify independent variable and dependent variable from the data given in the table. Generally independent variables are decided by us, whereas dependent variables are changed due to the change in independent variable. Take independent variable on x – axis and dependent variable on y – axis.
• Calculate range for values taken on x – axis as well as y – axis, by using the formula. Range = highest value – lowest value.
• Determine the scale to be taken on x – axis and y-axis by calculating, range/no. of grids on axis. And mark the scale on the axes.
• Write names of the physical quantity which is taken on the axis. For eg : time (s), distance (m).
• Write the data points from the data given in the table such as (x₁ y₁) (x₂ y₂)
• Label the data points in the graph paper by put a dot where the corresponding horizontal and vertical line intersects of a data point.
• Joint the dots in the graph paper.

Question 3.
Fill the given table with suitable answers.

Answer:
a) N/m²
b) Pa [pascal]
c) s^-1
d) Force
e) m.kg.s^-2
f) m² . kg . s^-2
g) J/s (or) \(\frac{N.m}{s}\)
h) W [watt]

Question 4.
Fill the table with suitable answers.

Answer:

Question 5.

1) Who took rest while travelling?
2) After 100 min., what is the positions of Padma and Bhavani?
3) Whose speed is uniform?
4) What is the speed of Bhavani?
Answer:

1. Padma
2. Padma at 700 meters and Bhavani at 600 meters from the beginning point.
3. Speed of Bhavani is uniform.
4. \(\frac{600}{100}\)m/min. = 6 m/min.

Question 6.

a) Which physical quantity is taken as independent variable?
b) What is the scale on x – axis?
c) What is the scale on y – axis?
d) How the graph is?
Answer:
a) Distance
b) 1 cm = 100 m
c) 1 cm = 2 min.
d) It is a curved line graph.

Question 7.
Draw a graph to the given data.

Answer:
1) Draw x – axis and y – axis on a graph paper.
2) Here time is independent variable and displacement is dependent variable. So, take time on x – axis and displacement on y – axis.

3) Calculate the ranges of values on x – axis and y – axis.
Range on x – axis = 24 – 4 = 20
Range on y – axis = 15-2 = 13

4) Estimate scale on x – axis and y – axis.

So, scale on x – axis 1 cm = 2 min.
Scale on y – axis 1 cm = 1 km.
Mark the scales on x and y – axis.

5) Write time (min) at x – axis and displacement (km) at y – axis.

6) Write data points or data values as (4, 2) (8, 3) (12, 7) (16, 11) (20, 13) (24, 15).

7) Plot the above data points in the graph paper with dots.

8) Join the data points.

Question 8.
Draw velocity – time graph to the given table.

Answer:
1) Draw x – axis and y – axis on a graph paper.
2) Here time is independent variable and velocity is dependent variable. So, take time on x – axis and velocity on y – axis.

3) Calculate the ranges of values on x – axis and y – axis.
Range on x – axis = 180 – 20 = 160
Range on y – axis = 20 – 5 = 15

4) Estimate scale on x – axis and y – axis.

Take scale as 1 cm = 8 s on x – axis.
1 cm = 1 m/s on y – axis.

5) Write time (s) at x – axis, velocity (m/s) on y – axis.

6) Write data points as (20, 5), (40, 10), (60, 15) (80, 20) (100, 20), (120, 20) (140, 20) (160, 20) (180, 15).

7) Plot the data points in the graph paper with dots.

8) Join the dots.

Question 9.
Show that i) v = u + at, ii) s = ut + ½ at² in graphical method.
Answer:

1) Graph is plotted with time on x – axis and velocity on y – axis.

2) According to the above graph,
Velocity of the object at “t” value ”0″ = u
Velocity of the object at “t” value “t” = v

3) Difference between the time intervals = v – u

4) From the graph, x₁ = 0, x₂ = t, y₁ = u, y₂ = v

5) We know that slope refers acceleration to the velocity – time graph.
Hence acceleration (a) = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}\) ⇒ v – u = at ⇒ v = u + at ………… (1)

6) The area between the two straight lines drawn at u, v gives displacement of the object. The area of graph is in the shape of trapezium. It has a rectangle and a triangle.

7) Area of the graph = area of rectangle (ABCD) + area of triangle (DCE)

8) We know that area of the graph of velocity – time gives displacement(s).

Question 10.
Observe the following graph and calculate displacement of the object in 12 sec.

Answer:
1) Displacement (s) = Area of the graph = Area of ABDO rectangle + BDC triangle.
2) Area of the rectangle ABDO = 8 × 20 = 160.
3) Area of the triangle BDC = ½ × 20 × (12 – 8)
= ½ × 20 × 4 = 40.
4) Displacement (s) = 160 + 40 = 200 m.
5) Hence, displacement of the object in 12 sec. = 200 m.

Question 11.
Find the velocity from the graph at A.

Answer:

1. We know that area of the graph of acceleration – time gives velocity (v).
2. Join the line AB.
3. Velocity (v) = Area of ΔABO = ½ × 60 × 120 = 3600 m/s.

Question 12.
Find the force at point ‘B’.

Answer:

We know that
Force= Area of trapezium ABDO.
= Area of triangle AEB + Area of rectangle EODB

Question 13.
Using the following data. Draw displacement time graph.

Using above graph, what is the average velocity in First “4” Seconds
Answer:
Average velocity in first “4” seconds

9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs InText Questions and Answers

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 205

Question 1.
Which is bigger, 2 kg or 100 gr?
Answer:
2 kg.

Question 2.
What would be Rasheeda’s answer?
Answer:
2 kg.

Question 3.
If Rasheeda asked the shop keeper to give 2 sugar, 100 tea powder, can he be able to weigh the items? Why?
Answer:
No, the shop keeper cannot weigh. Because there is no measuring terms (units) to weigh.

Question 4.
Can you name the units of time? What are they?
Answer:
Second, minutes, hours, etc.

Question 5.
Why are they (different units to measure a physical quantity) required?
Answer:
Depending upon the quantity, different units to measure are required.

Question 6.
Can we express the mass of chalk in kilogram?
Answer:
It is difficult to measure directly in kilograms.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 206

Question 7.
Why do we use different units for different items?
Answer:
Depending on the quantities of material the units may be expressed.

Question 8.
Why are these called fundamental quantities?
Answer:
These (length, mass, time, etc.) are independent quantities, cannot be expressed in terms of other quantities.

Question 9.
What fundamental quantities are there in the table?
Answer:
Length, mass, time electricity, light intensity, quantity of substance, temperature, plane angle.

Question 10.
What similarities have you noticed in MKS and SI systems?
Answer:
Length, mass, time are common in MKS and SI systems.

Question 11.
How do you find the area of the book?
Answer:
By multiplying length and breadth of the book.

Question 12.
What measurements are required to express area?
Answer:
Length and breadth.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 208

Question 13.
How can you convert kilometers into meters?
Answer:
We can convert kilometers into meters by multiplying meters with conversion factor 1000.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 211

Question 14.
What is the length of each side (of square grid)?
Answer:
1 cm.

Question 15.
What is the distance between the adjacent thin lines?
Answer:
1 mm.

Question 16.
Which axis is time plotted on and which axis represents distance?
Answer:
Time is plotted on x – axis, y – axis represents distance.

Question 17.
How are these (numbers on x – axis) interpreted?
Answer:
By calculating range of the values of data on x – axis.

Question 18.
What is the difference between the highest and the lowest values?
Answer:
40-5 = 35.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 212

Question 19.
What is the advantage of knowing the range of values?
Answer:
If the graph is plotted with the help of calculated values of range, the graph is uniformly distributed through the graph paper and has a correct shape. Otherwise, it will be either too big or too small and will not be any help for analysis.

Question 20.
How to identify values on x-axis and y-axis?
Answer:
By determine the scale.

Question 21.
How to determine scale?
Answer:

Question 22.
Which values of distance in the table are equal to the values marked on y-axis?
Answer:
3, 12, 24, 24, 30, 33.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 213

Question 23.
What is the shape of the line in the graph?
Answer:
It is curved line.

Question 24.
Did you notice any elongation of the spring?
Answer:
Yes, I noticed elongation of the spring.

Question 25.
How much was the elongation?
Answer:
Some extend. It can be calculated by difference in the lengths of the spring.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 214

Question 26.
Can you identify the independent and the dependent variables?
Answer:
Mass is independent variable and elongation of the spring is dependent variable.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 215

Question 27.
At what point plunger cannot move forward.
Answer:
It is depending upon conditions of the experiment.

Question 28.
Do you experience any pressure with air?
Answer:
Yes.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 217

Question 29.
Let us say what is the slope of x – axis?
Answer:
Slope of the x – axis is zero.

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 218

Question 30.
What does the ratio explains the physical quantities on the y – axis and x – axis?
Answer:

The ratio explains the physical quantities on the y – axis and x – axis is velocity.

Question 31.
What is the velocity of the object at 1.5 seconds of time?
Answer:

9th Class Physical Science Textbook Page No. 207

Question 32.
Is litre a fundamental unit or a derived unit?
Answer:
One litre is the volume of a cube with 10 cm sides. (10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm)
(or) 1 L = 10^-3 m³
Hence, litre is a derived unit.

9th Class Physical Science 12th Lesson Units and Graphs Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
You have noticed that different units are used to measure different materials. Based on your past experience fill in the table with suitable units of measurements used in general, put a tick mark.

Activity – 2 Derived Quantities – Derived Units

Question 2.
1) Let us measure the surface area of your book using a scale.
2) Measure the length and breadth of the book.
3) Area of the book can be obtained by multiplying length and breadth.
4) Length = ……………………..
5) Breadth = ……………………
Is area of fundamental quantity?
Answer:
No.

Which fundamental quantity is used to derive area?
Answer:
Length.

From the activity, we can say area is a derived quantity, which is obtained by multiplication of length and breadth which are fundamental quantities.

Activity 3

Question 3.
Let us observe the given table and try to find out fundamental and derived units for the given information.

1) Which derived units are obtained by the multiplication of fundamental units?
Answer:
Area, volume

2) Which units are derived from only the fundamental quantity length?
Answer:
Area, volume

3) Which derived quantity has no units?
Answer:
Relative density

4) What are the fundamental units of volume?
Answer:
Length

5) What quantities are derived from time?
Answer:

1. Velocity
2. Acceleration
3. Force
4. Pressure

Activity – 4

Question 4.
Draw a curved line graph to the given table.
Answer:
1) Anitha travels to her grandmother’s village by car.
2) She observed the Odometer (the instrument that measures the distance travelled) fitted in the car.
3) She recorded the reading shown by the odometer once every 5 minutes for 40 minutes.
4) Look at the table prepared by Anitha.

5) ‘We show the relation between two quantities using a graph.
6) Here time is independent variable and distance is dependent variable.
7) The steps in the construction of a graph

i) Draw x – axis and y – axis on a graph paper.
Plot time on x – axis as it is independent variable whereas distance on y – axis as it is dependent variable.

ii) Find the range on x – axis
Range on x – axis = highest value – lowest value = 40 – 5 = 35 Find the range on y – axis
Range on y – axis = highest value – lowest value = 33 – 3 = 30

iii) Determine the scale

iv) Names on the axis
Write time (min.) on x – axis.
Write distance (km) on y – axis.

v) Write the data points from the table.
(0, 0), (5, 3), (10, 8), (15, 12), (20, 19), (25, 24), (30, 24), (35, 30), (40, 33).

vi) Labelling of data points :
Label above data points with dots where vertical and horizontal lines are intersect to the respective data points.

vii) Join the dots.

What is the shape of the line graph?
Answer:
It is curved in shape.

Activity 5

Question 5.
Draw a straight line graph to the given table.

Answer:

• Take a spring / rubber band.
• Measure the length of the spring with a scale.
• Fix the spring to the stand.
• Suspend the weight to the second end of the spring.
• Now, again measure the length of the spring.
• Calculate the elongation.
•  This way, keep on changing the weights and measure the elongation of the spring with scale.

Record the readings in the table.

9) Here mass (gm) is independent variable and elongation is dependent variable.
10) Plot the graph.

1. Which quantity is taken on the x-axis ? In what units it was expressed? Why was it taken on the x-axis?
Answer:

1. Mass is taken on the x – axis.
2. It was expressed in grams.
3. Mass is independent variable, so it was taken on the x – axis.

2. Which quantity is taken on the y-axis? In what units it was expressed? Can this be called an independent variable?
Answer:

1. Elongation of the spring was taken on the y – axis.
2. It was expressed in millimeters.
3. It cannot be called as independent variable, because the values of elongation are obtained in the experiment.

3. The value of range on the x – axis
Answer:
Range = 50 – 0 = 50

4. The value of range on the y-axis
Answer:
Rang = 10 – 0 = 10

5. Scale on the x-axis
Answer:
10

6. Scale on the y-axis
Answer:
2

7. Data values on the x-axis
Answer:
0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50.

8. Data values on the y-axis
Answer:
0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

9. What is the shape of the line that joined the intersecting points?
Answer:
Straight line.

10. What does the slope of a curve tell us?
Answer:
Relation between mass and extension of the spring.

11. What is the reason for the elongation of the spring?
Answer:
Due to mass suspension to the spring.

12. What relation did you notice between the mass and elongation of spring?
Answer:
Elongation is directly proportional to mass.

13. Wliat could be the relation between the two quantities when the graph is a straight line?
Answer:
It could be directly proportional.

14. Based on the graph, which of the following sentences are correct?
a) If mass increases the elongation of spring increases.
b) If mass decreases the elongation of spring increases.
c) Even if mass increases, there will be no change in the elongation of the spring.
Answer:
a), b) are correct.

Activity – 6

Question 6.
Plot a graph showing inversely proportional measurements.
Answer:

1. Take a 50 ml syringe.
2. Fill the syringe with air by pulling a plunger.
3. To avoid escape of air from syringe close the nozzle of syringe with your finger.
4. Now push (apply the force) the plunger slowly.
5. While you are pushing the plunger you may experience more pressure with the decrease of volume of air in syringe, hence you need to apply more force on plunger.
6. Let us find out the relation between the pressure and volume of air.
7. Observe the following data table.

Physical Quantity on x – axis
Answer:
Pressure

Physical Quantity on y – axis
Answer:
Volume

What is the independent variable?
Answer:
Pressure

What is the dependent variable?
Answer:
Volume

What is the range of values on vertical axis?
Answer:
Range = 50 – 18.7 = 31.3

What is range of values on horizontal axis?
Answer:
Range = 3.2 – 1.2 = 2

What is the shape of the graph?
Answer:
Curved in shape (Parabolic).

What relation you noticed between two physical quantities based on data points in the graph?
Answer:
I have noticed that there is decrease in volume with increase of pressure. Hence these two quantities said to be inversely proportional.

Activity – 7

Question 7.
Observe the following graphs and write your analysis in the given table.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 4th Lesson Atmosphere Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 4th Lesson Atmosphere

9th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson Atmosphere Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Explain the composition of the atmosphere.
Answer:

• The atmosphere is a sea of gases surrounding the Earth.
• There are many gases in the atmosphere.
• Of all the gases in the atmosphere oxygen (21%) and nitrogen (78%) dominate.
• Other gases are in very small percentages, these include argon, neon, carbon dioxide (0.03%), methane, ammonia, ozone, etc.
• Water vapour accounts for about 0.4% by volume over the whole atmosphere.
• Apart from these gases the atmosphere also has the fine dust particles called particulates.

Question 2.
Discuss the structure of the atmosphere along with a diagram.
Answer:
On the basis of the chemical composition the atmosphere is divided into two broad layers. They are -1) Homosphere II) Heterosphere
I) Homosphere : This layer is characterized by uniformity in composition of gases like
Nitrogen, Oxygen, Orgon and Carbondioxide. It consists of the three thermal layers such as Troposphere, Stratosphere and Mesosphere. It extends up to the height of 90 kms.

A) Troposphere :
i) It is the lower most of layers of the atmosphere.
ii) It extends to a height of 8 kms near the poles and about 18 kms at the equator.
iii) It contains 75% of the total gaseous mass of the atmosphere.
iv) The entire weather phenomenon happens in this layer.
v) The life is present in this layer.

B) Stratosphere :
i) This layer extends up to a height of 50 kms.
ii) This layer is free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon.
iii) These conditions are most ideal for flying jet aircrafts.
iv) This layer contains Ozone layer.

C) Mesosphere :
i) It extends up to a height of 80 kms.
ii) Meteorites burn up as they enter this layer from the space.
iii) The temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude.

II) Heterosphere : Because of its heterogenous composition this layer is called heterosphere. This layer is above 90 kms of the atmosphere. It has two thermal layers called Thermosphere and Exosphere.
A) Thermosphere:
i) It extends up to 400 kms.
ii) Here the temperature rises rapidly with increase in height.
iii) It contains electrically charged particles known as ions. Hence this layer is called Ionosphere.
iv) Radio waves are reflected back to the earth through this layer.
v) It is also known as ‘Ionosphere’.

B) Exosphere :
i) The upper most layer of the atmosphere.
ii) Very little is known about this layer.

Question 3.
Differentiate weather and climate.
(OR)
Write the differences between weather and climate?
Answer:

• The difference between weather and climate is a measure of time.
• Weather is what conditions of the atmosphere are over a short period of time and climate is how the atmosphere “behaves” over relatively long period of time.
• Weather is basically the way the atmosphere is behaving, mainly with respect to its effects upon life and human activities.
• Whereas climate is the description of the long-term pattern of weather in a particular area.
• In most places weather can change from minute to minute, hour to hour, day-to-day and season-to-season. Whereas the climate is the average of weather overtime and space.
• In short, climate is what we expect whether a hot summer or a cool winter and weather is what you get or experience at present.

Question 4.
Compare and contrast convectional and orographic rainfall.
Answer:
Comparison between convectional and orographic rainfall:
1) Both types of rainfall are caused by vertical ascent of heated air.
Contrast between convectional and orographic rainfall :

1. While orographic rainfall is caused when the mountain forces the air to rise over mountain or the elevation in its path; the convectional rainfall occurs when moisture over the heated ground becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
2. While convectional rainfall is common on summer days in interior part of the continents the orographic rainfall occurs in the windward sides of mountains.
3. While the orographic rain occurs in the mountainous regions, the convectional rain takes place in the equatorial regions.

Question 5.
Describe the distribution of world rainfall.
Answer:

• Between the latitudes 10° and 30° N and S of the equator, due to the trade winds, rainfall is heavier on the eastern coasts, and decreases towards the West.
• Between the latitudes 40° and 60° N and S of the equator due to the westerlies, the rainfall is heavy on the west coast, and goes decreases towards the East.
• Low pressure areas, especially around the equator receiver high rainfall than high pressure areas.
• The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the continent.

Question 6.
How do climatic changes influence the human life?
Answer:
Due to climatic changes the following changes are taking place.

1. The climatic changes led to the emergence of large scale environmental hazards such as global warming, increase of green house gases etc.
2. Development of planet’s flora and fauna is mainly due to climatic changes.
3. Globally the average sea level has risen by 17 cm in the 20th century.
4. Climatic changes are affecting food habits and culture of the people of any area.
5. Due to global warming both the Greenland and Antarctic ice sheets have lost significant amounts of ice.
6. Thus the climatic changes are influencing human life significantly.

Question 7.
Explain relative humidity.
Answer:

• The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is called humidity.
• Relative humidity is the ratio between the maximum water vapour that the air can hold at a given temperature and pressure and the actual amount of water vapour it holds at any given time.
• For example, at 20°C temperature air can contain 80 gms of water vapour per cubic meter. If the actual water vapour present is 40 gms, the relative humidity is 50%.
• If the atmosphere has 100% relative humidity, it is known as saturation level.
• Relative humidity decreases with increase of temperature and decrease of water vapour,
• In high humidity, our sweat doesn’t cool us because it cannot evaporate.
• In low humidity we feel more thirsty.

Question 8.
Why does the amount of water vapour decrease rapidly with altitude?
Answer:
The water vapour is attracted towards the surface or close to the surface due to the gravitational pull of the earth. Hence the amount of water vapour decreases with altitude.

Question 9.
What is Coriolis effect ? And explain its effects.
(OR)

What is Coriolis effect and how does it influence the wind system?
Answer:
1. Because of the impact of Earth’s rotation on its own axis, the winds move slightly to the right in the northern hemisphere, and to the left in the southern hemisphere. This effect is called Coriolis effect.
2.

3. At the equator the Coriolis effect is ‘O’ and at the poles it is maximum.

The most important effects of Coriolis force are :
a) The deflection of winds and currents in the ocean.
b) It has significant effect on planes and missiles also.
c) In the northern hemisphere these winds move to the right and in the southern hemisphere to the left. This usually creates the westerly winds moving from the subtropical areas to the poles.
d) The Coriolis effect also affects the movement of ocean currents.

Question 10.
Identify the given local winds in the world map.
a) Chinook
b) Loo
c) Simoon
d) Yoma
e) Norwester
f) Mistral
g) Puna
h) Pampero
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the para under the title “Effects of Planetary Winds” on page 43 and comment on it.
Effects of Planetary Winds: You would have noted that the pressure and wind systems are actually a result of the impact of Lithosphere and Hydrosphere on Atmosphere. These winds play a crucial role in transporting heat and moisture across the world. That is why no part of the world gets too cold or too hot for life to survive. Had there been no atmosphere (as on the Moon) it would have got intolerably hot in day time or in the tropics and intolerably cold at night or in the Polar regions. However, these winds do not distribute heat or moisture uniformly – which is why we have some parts of the earth quite hot, some parts cooler and some parts with high rainfall and some which are deserts.
Answer:
Planetary winds are winds that are created in the different Global circulation cells.

1. Polar Easterlies – blow from pole to 60°
2. Prevailing Westerlies – blow from 60° to 30°
3. Trade Winds – blow from 30° to 0°

These winds transport heat and moisture across the world. But the winds do not distribute heat or moisture uniformly.

Question 12.
Collect weather information covered by media such as newspapers, TV, Radio, etc. to understand weather phenomena.
Answer:
Weather information of major cities of India on 8, April 2020.

Question 13.
Collect the newspapers from July to December and note down the news related to extreme rainfall in different parts of country.
Answer:
Average annual rainfall of the states of India

9th Class Social Studies 4th Lesson Atmosphere InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List out some of the ways in which particulates in the atmosphere are beneficial and harmful to us. (Text Book Page No. 37)
Answer:
1. The fine dust particles present in the atmosphere are called particulates.

2. Particulates may come from natural processes such as sand storms over deserts and natural forest fires and from human activity such as burning forests, burning petroleum and industrial emissions.

3) Benefits of particulates :
a) The particulates can change atmospheric conditions that may be beneficial to life on Earth.
b) The particulates in the atmosphere cause the bright colour of the sunrise or sunset.
c) The particulates help rainfall and hailstones to fall.

4) Harmful effects of particulates :
a) They cause problems by altering temperature and rainfall patterns.
b) They can make it difficult for people to breathe.
c) They can make it difficult for the plants to breathe and photosynthesise.

Question 2.
In which layer is the life present? (Text Book Page No. 39)
Answer:
In troposphere the life is present. The suitable conditions that make life possible in the troposphere are :

1. The troposphere is the lower most layer of the atmosphere.
2. It contains about 75% of the total gaseous mass of the atmosphere and practically all the moisture and dust particles.
3. The entire weather phenomenon happens in this sphere.
4. Condensation, evaporation, precipitation, rainfall, cyclones etc., occur in this layer.

Question 3.
About which layer do we have very less knowledge? (Text Book Page No. 39)
Answer:

• Exosphere is the upper most layer of the atmosphere.
• This is the highest layer.
• Very less is known about it.

Question 4.
Which layer of the atmosphere is ideal for flying jet aircrafts? Why? (Text Book Page No. 39)
Answer:

• Stratosphere is ideal for flying jet aircrafts.
• Because this layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon.
• These conditions are most ideal for flying jet aircrafts in this layer.

Question 5.
Our skin dries up more during winters. Why?
Answer:

• Water vapour (i.e., the humidity) is a very important component in the atmosphere.
• The relative humidity plays a large role in determining our comfort level.
• If the relative humidity is 100 percent, we feel much hotter than the actual temperature indicates because our skin, sweat does not evaporate at all.
• If the humidity is low, our skin and mucous membranes are dry.
• As a result of low humidity, we’ll have chapped lips, dry and itchy skin, and a dry sore throat when we wake up in the morning.
• Low humidity also dries the plants and furniture.

Question 6.
Observe the following figure and describe from which pressure belt to which pressure belt are the Westerlies, trade winds and polar Easterlies are blowing.

Answer:

• The Westerlies blow from subtropical high pressure belts to sub polar low pressure belts in both the hemispheres.
• The trade winds blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to equatorial IQW pressure belt.
• Polar Easterlies blow from polar high pressure belt to polar low pressure belt.

Question 7.
What will happen if water vapour is not present in air?
Answer:
1. The condensation of water vapour to the liquid or ice phase is responsible for clouds, rain, snow and other precipitations.

If water vapour is not present in the atmosphere, clouds, rains, snow will not occur. If there is no rain, life will not be possible on earth.

2. Water vapour is one of the green house gases. Green house gases play a major role in determining the balance of between the amount of radiation entering the Earth’s surface and the amount of radiation leaving the Earth’s surface.

The green house effect keeps the Earth’s surface about 33°C warmer thair-it would otherwise be.

Question 8.
Why is atmosphere important for us?
Answer:

• We breathe in oxygen which is one of the components of atmosphere.
• We breathe out carbon dioxide, which in turn is taken in by plants in their respiration.
• The atmosphere prevents harmful rays of the sun from reaching us.
• The green plants take in carbon dioxide, use sunlight and water to photosynthesise and we get delicious fruits, vegetables, and grains from them.
• These give us proteins, carbohydrates, sugars, fats, minerals and other nutrients that we need.
• The atmospheric winds transport water from the oceans deep into the continents in the form of rain.
• Atmospheric winds erode rocks and are responsible for the formation of many kinds of soils with whose fertility we grow many kinds of crops.
• Atmosphere helps in cooling monsoon rains.
• Atmosphere helps in diffusion of perfumes and helps in the travelling of sound waves.
• Thus we can say atmosphere is important for us.

Question 9.
Can you imagine why life is not possible on the Moon? (Text Book Page No. 37)
Answer:

• Life is not possible on the Moon because the Moon has no atmosphere.
• On Moon we don’t have atmospheric pressure without which we cannot live.
• Because of lack of atmosphere we don’t have any protection from ultra violet raditation.
• Because of the lack of magnetosphere, we will be frequently bombarded by the charged particles.
• There is no water on the Moon which is the first and foremost requirement for the life.
• For all the above reasons life is not possible on the Moon.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 13th Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries

9th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Identify the name of the country in the context of following statement: (UK, USA and France)
1) revolution where parliament system was established
2) country where king continues to play some role even after revolution
3) country that had to war against another in order to establish its democracy
4) The bill of rights was adopted
5) Overthrow of the monarchy was led by the peasants
6) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen was adopted
Answer:

1. UK
2. UK
3. USA
4. USA
5. France
6. France

Question 2.
What were the main ideas of social thinkers, which were significant to the establishment of new forms of governments? How did they gain popularity?
Answer:

• Philosophers such as John Locke and Rousseau envisaged a society based on freedom and equal laws and opportunities for all.
• Locke in his “Two Treatises of Government” advocated theory of Natural rights and opposed the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the monarch.
• Rousseau carried the idea forward and laid foundation for democracy in his book “The Social Contract”.
• Montesquieu, in his book “The Spirit of Laws” proposed a division of power between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
• Voltair advocated restricted powers.
• Thomas Jefferson advocated to fight for the political rights of the people.
• These ideas were discussed in salons and coffee-houses.
• Spread among the people through books.
• These ideas were read aloud in groups to benefit those who could not read and write.

Question 3.
Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
Answer:
The French Revolution is an important political revolution in the world. It has laid foundation for democracy and human rights. The following are the circumstances that led to the outbreak of the French Revolution.
1. Social causes:

1. The French society was divided into three estates.
2. The members of the first two estates, that is, the clergy and the aristocracy, enjoyed certain privileges and were exempted from paying taxes.
3. The burden of taxes was borne by the third estate alone. This problem was compounded by failure of crops.

2. Political causes :

1. In 1774, Louis XVI ascended the throne of France.
2. He was quite inefficient and was influenced by his wife.
3. The influence of nobles and priests also had bad effect on the administration.

3. Growth of Middle class :

1. The eighteenth century witnessed the emergence of new social groups, collectively termed the middle class.
2. This group of the third estate became powerful due to their access to education and new ideas.
3. They believed that no group in the society should be privileged by birth.

4. Intellectual causes :
The third estate was influenced by the philosophical thoughts of Locke, Rousseau, etc.

5. Summoning of Estate General :

1. Long years of war had drained the financial resources of France.
2. To increase the taxes to meet the expenses, in 1789, summoned the Estates General.
3. Summoning of Estate General was the immediate causes of the French Revolution.

Question 4.
Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?
Answer:

• The third estate, i.e. landless labour, small peasants, middle class were benefited as their rights were recognized.
• The privileges enjoyed by the members of the first two estates were abolished.
• Hence the first two estates, i.e. the clergy and the aristocracy were disappointed with the outcome of the revolution.

Question 5.
After completing the chapter on Fundamental Rights, draw up a list of the democratic rights that we enjoy today whose origins could be traced back to the French Revolution.
Answer:
The origins of the following democratic rights we enjoy today were traced to the French Revolution.

1. Liberty
2. Equality
3. Right to participate in the formation of Legislature and Executive
4. Rule of law
5. Freedom of expression
6. Right to property.

Question 6.
Would you agree with the view that the message of Universal Rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
Answer:

• Yes. The message of Universal Rights was beset with contradictions.
• Contradiction was evident as regards women. Women did not enjoy the same political rights nor were their wages equal to men.
• The French revolution has been the symbol of liberty, equality and fraternity but later the French became the conquerers instead of liberators.
• And it was the direct contradiction of the terms.
• Slave trade, the most inhuman practice was yet another blatant contradiction.

Question 7.
What made the American colonists to raise the slogan ‘No Taxation without Representation’?
(OR)
How did you understand the slogan ‘No Taxation without Representation?
Answer:

• The English Parliament assumed powers to make laws for the American states but the people of those states did not vote for the Parliament.
• American colonies were taxed heavily by the British Government.
• The Parliament often passed laws that favoured English traders at the cost of the people of the colonies.
• The American colonies therefore raised the slogan “No Taxation without Representation”.

Question 8.
What do understand by middle class ? How did it emerge in Europe?
(OR)
‘The eighteenth century witnessed the emergence of new social groups collectively termed the middle class’ – Explain about the emergence of middle class in Europe.
Answer:

• Within the Third Estate, a group of people had access to education and new ideas and became prosperous.
• They earned their wealth through expanding means of overseas trade and from the manufacture of goods such as woollen and silk textiles.
• This new social group was collectively termed as middle class.

Question 9.
Locate England, France, Prussia, Spain and Austria on the map of Europe.
Answer:

Question 10.
How do you understand women’s role in French Revolution
Answer:
Women’s role in French Revolution : From the very beginning women were active participants in the events which brought about so many important changes in French society. They hoped that their involvement would pressurise the revolutionary govern¬ment to introduce measures to improve their lives. Most women of the Third Estate had to work for a living. They worked as seamstresses or laundresses, sold flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market, or were employed as domestic servants in the houses of prosperous people. Most women did not have access to education or job training.

In order to discuss and voice their interests women started their own political clubs and newspapers. About sixty women’s clubs came up in different French cities. The Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was the most famous of them. One of their main demands was that women enjoy the same political rights as men. They demanded the right to vote, to be elected to the Assembly and to hold political office.

During the Reign of Terror, the new government issued laws ordering closure of women’s clubs and banning their political activities. Many prominent women were arrested and a number of them executed. It was finally in 1946 that women in France won the right to vote.

Question 11.
Read the paragraph under the title “The Reign of Terror” of page 169 and comment on it.

Answer:
The Reign of Terror:
In the autumn of 1793, Robespierre and the Jacobins focused on addressing economic and political threats within France. What began as a proactive approach to reclaiming the nation quickly turned bloody as the government instituted its infamous campaign against internal opposition known as the reign of terror.

Beginning in September, Robespierre, under the auspicious of the committee of public safety, began pointing an accusing finger at any one whose beliefs seemed to be counter revolutionary – citizens who had committed no crime but merely had social or political agendas that varied too much from Robespierre. The committee targeted even those who shared many Jacobin views but were perceived as just slightly too radical or conservative. A rash of executions ensured in Paris and soon spread to smaller towns and rural areas.

During the nine-month period that followed, anywhere from 15,000 to 50,000 French citizens were beheaded at the guillotine. Even longtime associates of Robespierre such as Georges Danton, who had helped orchestrate the Jacobin rise to power, fell victim to the paranoia. When Danton wavered in his conviction, questioned Robespierre increasingly. The lives were on the edge of a blade.

Question 12.
Learn something more about the different personalities who played an important role in American and French revolution. Which of them impresses you the most and why? Write a paragraph on him/ her.
Answer:

1. Jacques – Pierre Brissot
2. Charles de Calonne
3. Lazare carnot
4. Marquis de Lafayatte
5. Jacques Necker
6. Maximillian Robespierre
7. Emmanuel – Joseph Sieyes
8. Thomas Jafferson

These are all participated and played an important role in French and America revolu-tions. But I like more Marquis de Lafayatte. Why because he participated in American and French Revolutions both.

Marquis de Lafayette :
Lafayate was one of the generals of Louis XVI. Born in a noble family of France, he displayed great qualities of courage and adventure on various occassions. He was also known for his political acumen. He was sent to America during American war of Independence. He helped George Washington in defeating England. While he was in America, he was deeply influenced by the drafting of a constitution and the grant of declaration of rights. On his return from America, he was elected to the estate general and participated in the French Revolution.

Jacques – Pierre Brissot:
A member of the Legislative Assembly and National Conven¬tion who held a moderate stance and believed in the idea of a constitutional monarchy.

Charles de calonne :
The controller general of finance appointed by king Louis XVI after Jacques Necker was forced out of office in 1781.

Lazare carnot :
A French soldier appointed by the committee of public society to help reorganise the failing war effort against Austria and Prussia.

Jacques Necker:
He was appointed as a genera! of finance in the late 1770s.

Maximilien Robespierre :
A brilliant political factician and leader of the radical Jacobins in the National Assembly.

Emmanuel-Joseph Sieyes :
A liberal member of the clergy, supporter of the third estate and author of the fiery 1789 pamphlet “What is the Third Estate”?

9th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 17th and 18th Centuries InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What was the effect of the Civil war on the king and the people of the England? (Text Book Page No. 161)
Answer:

• A civil war lasted in England for five years.
• Ultimately, Charles, I was defeated and executed in 1649.
• After Glorious Revolution in 1688, the powers of the king were restricted. Thus the Parliament’s supremacy was established.
• After a consistent struggle, the right to vote was gradually extended to all adults by 1928.

Question 2.
(Look at the chart on P.No. 166) Which groups of French society would have gained from the Constitution of 1791? Which groups would have had reason to be dissatisfied? (Text Book Page No. 168)
Answer:

• The Third Estate and the newly developed middle class were benefited from the revolution.
• They got equal rights with other social groups. They were given right to vote.
• They were given the rights such as right to live, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion and equality before law.
• Common tax is levied. It must be assessed equally on all citizens in proportion to their means. Thus the burden of taxes on common people was removed.
• The clergy the nobles and the king were forced to relinquish their powers and privileges.
• The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen declared that no group or individual may exercise authority that does not come from the people. With this the clergy and the nobles were deprived of their special rights and privileges.
• The new Constitution limited the powers of the monarch. Thus the king had to relinquish the powers of his autocracy. The powers concentrated in the hands of one person, were now separated and assigned to different institutions – the legislature, executive and Judiciary.
• According to the Declaration of Rights the common tax is levied. It must be assessed equally on all citizens in proportion to their means. Thus the clergy and the nobles lost their privilege and were forced to pay the taxes.

Question 3.
Fill in the blank boxes in the figure below with appropriate terms from among the following: (Text Book Page No. 163)
1) Food riots
2) Social unrest
3) Increase number of death
4) Rising food prices
5) Weaker bodies.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write an imaginary dialogue between persons from a king’s party and parliamentary party in our context. (Text Book Page No. 161)
Answer:
Parliamentary Party :
The parliament had now a better army in so much that if the Earl of Essex had immediately followed the king of Oxford, not yet well fortified, he might in all likelihood have taken it. For he could not want either men or ammunition. Whereof the city of London, which was wholly at the parliments devotion, had store enough.

Kings’ Party :
I cannot judge that. But this is manifest, considering the estate the king was in at his first marching from York, when he had neither money nor men nor arms enough to put them in hope of victory, that this year, take it altogether, was very prosperous.

Question 5.
Imagine the impact of the events of France on neighbouring countries such as Prussia, Austria-Hungary or Spain, all of which were absolute monarchies. How would the kings, traders, peasants, nobles or members of the clergy have reacted to the news of what was happening in France? (Text Book Page No. 168)
Answer:

• It is said that whenever France sneezes Europe catches cold.
• After the great French Revolution of 1789, France was acknowledged the leader of the progressive opinion in Europe.
• The 1830 revolution raised national spirit in the countries like Belgium, Germany, Italy, Spain, Portugal, and Poland. They led the movements for achieving National Independence.
• The rising tide of revolution in different countries became the cause of fear among the autocrat rulers. They joined to check the spread of the revolution.
• The main gift of French Revolution was the ideas of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.
• It ended the dominance of the theory of the divine right of kingship.
• It give death blow to social status by birth. The clergy and nobles lost their supremacy, dominance over polity and other sections of society.
• The clergy and the noble were devoid of their privileges in society.
• The Third Estate and the middle class were relieved from serfdom and the burden of over taxation.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 10th Lesson Prices and Cost of Living Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 10th Lesson Prices and Cost of Living

9th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Prices and Cost of Living Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Why is there a need to regulate prices?
Answer:

• Trades main aim is to earn profit, raise prices of many goods and particularly essential items by illegal ways.
• If there is no increase in wage for workers who are also consumers in the market, they cannot buy the goods.
• When these goods happen to be essentials such as wheat, rice, milk etc., this creates problem for the people.
• This necessitates the need for regulation of traders to regulate prices.

Question 2.
How are prices fixed by a seller/producer?
Answer:

• The traditional economic theories of pricing were based on the demand and the supply.
• In general the prices are fixed on the basis of full average cost of production per unit plus a margin of normal profit or some satisfactory margin of profit.
• Producer sells the goods to the seller.
• Seller in turn adds his profits and fixes the prices.

Question 3.
Differentiate the cost of living from the standard of living.
Answer:

Question 4.
Who is affected the most by increase in cost of living? Why?
Answer:

• People with fixed incomes, such as pensioners, daily wage earners, manual workers, small vendors, workers in small enterprises and in private low income jobs etc., are badly affected by increase in cost of living.
• These people’s income does not increase when there is inflation.

Question 5.
Which groups can get higher incomes whenever there is inflation?
Answer:
Not everyone is affected by rising prices. For some groups this rise in price levels is compensated. They are –

1. People working in central and state government offices and in some organizations get an additional payment called “Dearness Allowance” whenever prices rise. Therefore their income increases, along with inflation.
2. People doing business activities recover the higher cost of living by increasing the prices of goods they sell.
3. People providing services such as lawyers, doctors etc., increase their fees when prices increase.
4. Extremely rich people and those working in corporate sector are less affected by rising prices.

Question 6.
How is Wholesale Price Index different from Consumer Price Indices?
Answer:
Change in price is measured with the help of a statistical device referred to as “Price Index”. Price Index is of two types. They are –

1. Consumer Price Index
2. Wholesale Price Index

Question 7.
How is food inflation different from Consumer Price Indices?
Answer:

• CPI measures only changes in prices of a few selected consumer goods at a retail price.
• Different CPIs are published by the government.
• Whereas FPI (Food Price Index) is used to estimate rise in prices of food items called food inflation.
• The FPI consists wholesale price of food materials such as rice, wheat, pulses, vegetables, sugar, milk, eggs, meat, fish, and manufactured food materials such as edible oils.

Question 8.
What are the uses of the CPI?
Answer:
The CPIs are used to calculate the DA to be paid for government employees, to revise legal wage rates as part of Indian government laws and also to estimate the number of poor in India.

Question 9.
List of five problems with measuring CPI.
(OR)
Write any five issues that are considered while measuring CPI.
Answer:

• There are thousands of goods and services in the economy.
• Only selected consumer goods and changes in these goods are taken by the government to calculate CPI.
• Both quality and quantity of goods consumed keeps varying from time to time.
• Difficult to calculate CPI as the price levels vary from state to state.
• Even food habits keep varying among people.

Question 10.
How is Administrative Price Mechanism (APM) different from Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

Question 11.
Read sixth paragraph under the heading ‘Role of Government in Regulating Prices’ and answer the question.

How does the APM affect the government revenue? Discuss.
Answer:

• Goods like Kerosene, Diesel, LPG, CNG and piped Natural Gas are subsidised by the government. .
• Under subsidised scheme the government purchases the goods at high prices and sells them at low prices.
• The loss is the subsidy and the. government bears the loss.
• Government is now 3% of its expenditure on subsidies.

Question 12.
Take any five goods or services used by your family and construct a Consumer Price Index for your family based on these five goods/services.

Answer:

Question 13.
Write True or False against the statement given below.
1) Inflation increases the standard of living of the people. [ ]
2) Value of money is shown by changes in its purchasing power. [ ]
3) Change in cost of living does not affect the standard of living of pensioners [ ]
4) Central Government workers are compensated for inflation by rise in DA. [ ]
5) WPI measures changes in the price level of only consumer goods. [ ]
Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

Question 14.
The following table shows the wholesale Price Indices of Industrial Goods. Prepare a line diagram answer the questions that follow.

Answer:

1.Which commodity’s price rose steeply over the years?
Answer:
Cement prices rose steeply.

2. What could be the reasons for a slow rise in the price of cotton cloth and fertilizers?
Answer:

• Demand of cotton is stable and price level are also stable.
• Government gives subsidies to the fertilizers. Hence prices are slowly increasing.

Question 15.
Write a letter to your Tehsildar on proper maintenance of Public Distribution System by indicating your suggestions.
Answer:

9th Class Social Studies 10th Lesson Prices and Cost of Living InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Price of Cotton and Rice (per quintal) during 2005-2011

(i) Calculate the index numbers of rice and cotton by assuming 2005-06 as the base year.
(ii) Draw a line diagram showing index number of rice and cotton. Keep the years in x-axis and index numbers on the y-axis. Discuss how the line goes up over the years. (Text Book Page No. 123)
Answer:
(i) Index numbers of rice
The value: of the index = 100; Original index value is = 600; In 2005-06 = \(\frac{600}{600}\) × 100 = 100%

ii)

There is a slight increase in rice from 2005-06 to 2006-07 and from here there is huge increase up to 2010-2011. Incase of cotton, from 2005-06 to 2006-08 there is a slight increase and from 2007-08 to 2008-09 there is a huge increase and from 2008-09 to 2010-11 the price is constant.

Question 2.
Tomorrow is Teacher’s Day. Your class students give you Rs.200 and send you to the market to buy some sweets and biscuits to celebrate this day with your teachers. When you go to the shop, you find that the price of a sweet packet is Rs. 60, and a biscuit packet is Rs. 20. If you buy 2 sweets packets, how many biscuit packets can you buy ? How much should you pay ? (Text Book Page No. 121)
Answer:
If we buy 2 sweet packets:
The cost of two sweet packets = 2 × 60 = 120
Remaining Amount = 200 – 120 = 80
No. of Biscuit packets we can buy = \(\frac{80}{20}\) = 4
Total Amount we paid = 200

Question 3.
Why did you buy such few packets? (Text Book Page No. 121)
Answer:
Prices of the goods have gone up and for the same amount of money i.e., Rs. 200/- we can buy lesser amounts of these commodities.

Question 4.
Suppose your classmates asked you to buy 5 packets of both sweets and biscuits this year also. How much would you have to pay then? (Text Book Page No. 121)
Answer:
For 5 packets sweets (5 × 60) = Rs. 300
For 5 packets biscuits (5 × 20) = Rs. 100
Total amount you pay = Rs. 400

Question 5.
How much more do you have to pay compared to last year? (Text Book Page No. 121)
Answer:
Total amount this year spent = Rs. 400
Total amount last year spent = Rs. 200
Excess amount paid = Rs. 200

Question 6.
Recent price increases : (Text Book Page No. 126)
During 2009-12, prices of many essential goods went up. You can see this from the following figures. Look at the figure carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1) If a family was buying rice for Rs. 20 a kg in 2005-06, how much would if have to pay in 2011?
2) In which years did the price of pulses increased considerably?
3) What is the percentage increase in the price of cotton?
4) Which commodity price has been more or less stable?
Answer:

1. Rs. 32 a kg
2. 2010 -11
3. Insufficient information
4. Edible oils

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 9th Lesson Credit in the Financial System Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 9th Lesson Credit in the Financial System

9th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Credit in the Financial System Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Most of the credit needs of the poor households are met from informal sources. The dependence of richer households on informal credit is less. Do you agree? Use the data given in page 114 to support your answer.
Answer”

• Yes. Most of the credit needs of the poor households are met from informal sources. And the dependence of richer households on informal credit is less. The following statistical data proves that.
• As per All-India Debt and Investment Survey 2003,
  a) 85% of the credit needs of the poor households are met from informal sources.
  b) Whereas only 10% of the rich households loans are from informal source.

Question 2.
How are the high interest rates on loans harmful?
Answer:

• Getting loans at high interest rates means a larger part of the earning of the borrowers is used to repay the loans.
• So the borrowers will have less income left for themselves.
• In certain cases, the high interest rate of borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower.
• The debt will be increasing day by day.
• High interest rates and increasing debt sometimes make the farmers depressed and in some cases force them to commit suicides.

Question 3.
What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.
Answer:

• The idea behind selfhelp groups is to organize rural poor, especially women into small groups and pool their savings.
• To help the poor households to get loans at cheaper rates and without difficulty.
• To create self-employment opportunities for the members e.g.: For buying seeds, fertilizers, raw materials, for acquiring assets like sewing machines, hand-looms, cattle, etc.
• These groups are meant to make women financially self-reliant.
• These groups aim to save rural poor section from the traps of moneylenders who charge high interest rates.

Question 4.
Talk to a banker and find out what are the purposes for which people in urban areas generally take loans?
Answer:
Generally, urban people take loans for the following purposes. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities.

1. To construct a house or to buy a flat.
2. To conduct family functions like marriages, deliveries of sisters, etc.
3. To purchase household appliances like, fridges, TV, washing machines, furnitures, air conditioners etc.
4. To buy vehicles like scooters and cars etc.
5. Sometimes they want to establish a business or dream to start a small scale industry for which they may go for a loan.
6. Sometimes they take loans to meet the medical expenses of the family members and dependents.

Question 5.
What is the difference between the bank loans and through SHG?
Answer:

Question 6.
Read the paragraph 3rd under the heading of ‘Self Help Group for the Poor’ and answer the question. How are SHGs working in your area?

(OR)
“Self Help, Groups play a vital role in the women empowerment. They not only provide economic support but also help in eradicating poverty”. Explain the work of a self help group in your village.
Answer:
The working of SHGs in our area :

1. There are 10 to 11 SHGs in our village.
2. All are registered. They voluntarily coming together to save regular small savings of money, mutually agreeing to contribute to a common fund and to meet their emergency needs on the basis of mutual help.
3. They pool their resources to become financially stable, taking loans from the money collected by that group and by making everybody in that group self-employed.
4. They borrow loans from banks and repay it back regularly.
5. An economically poor individual gains strength as a part of a group.

Question 7.
What are the services rendered by the banks in fulfilling the needs of farmers?
Answer:

• Short-term loans to farmers for raising crops, i.e. crop loans.
• Medium and long term loans to farmers for agriculture and allied activities.
• Loans to farmers for pre-harvest and post-harvest activities.
• Loans to farmers upto 25 lakh against pledge/hypothication of agriculture produce.
• Export credit to corporates, partnership figures, and institutions engaged in agriculture.
• Loans for purchase of agricultures land.
• Loans to distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders.
• Bank loans to PACS, FSS, LAMPS, etc.
• Loans to farmers under Kisan credit card scheme.
• Export credit to farmers for exporting their own farm produce.
• Loans to allied activities to agriculture.

Question 8.
Is there any incident of farmers committing suicide in your area? If so, find out reasons and make a report, discuss in the classroom by adding a few newspaper clippings related to this issue.
Answer:
Yes. Recently an incident happened at Atmakur village in Anantapur district. There was a 53-year-old farmer in the village. He was a well-respected farmer. He cultivated cotton. He expanded the small plot he owned by leasing adjoining land. The money was never abundant, but he managed to arrange matches and festive wedding ceremonies for his two sisters, and then his daughters. His sons were sent to school.

And then, his crop failed – heavy rains washed it out two years ago, drought withered his fields the next. He was defeated not just by insurmountable loans but by the humiliation he felt about the unpaid debt. So he committed suicide.

Farmers work from early morning till late night. They wait an entire year to harvest a crop, despite all uncertainty. Most of the farmers are not getting MSP (Minimum Support Price). They are tied to the traders and middlemen who are dealing in agricultural inputs. This depresses the price that farmers are to get for their output. It is time the government implemented the schemes for the welfare of the farmers.

9th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Credit in the Financial System InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? (Text Book Page No. 109)
Answer:

• Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to a lender.
• It is a security or guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
• If the borrower fails to repay the ioan, the lender has the right ot sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.

Question 2.
How does the demand for collateral affect poor person’s capacity to borrow? (Text Book Page No. 109)
Answer:

• Bank loans require collateral.
• Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons which prevent the poor from getting bank loans.
• In such cases, they approach the moneylenders.
• However, the moneylenders charge high interest rates.
• Finally the poor may be pushed into a situation from which recovery is very difficult.
• Hence the demand for collateral against loans may force the poor to approach informal sources.

Question 3.
What are the differences between formal and informal sources of credit? (Text Book Page No. 114)
Answer:

Question 4.
Why should credit at reasonable rates be available for all? (Text Book Page No. 114)
Answer:

• Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan.
• In such cases, the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower.
• This could lead to increasing debt.
• High interest rates are hurdles for those who want to establish an enterprise.
• For these reasons, banks and cooperative societies need to lend more at reasonable rates.

Question 5.
Why are demand deposits considered as money? (Text Book Page No. 105)
Answer:

• The demand deposits can be withdrawn on demand.
• The demand deposits possess the essential characteristics of money that is a medium of exchange.
• Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment, along with currency, they constitute money in the modern economy.

Question 6.
The deposits kept at the bank are also insured by the government? Find out the details. (Text Book Page No. 1o5)
Answer:

• All the commercial banks pay premium to insure the deposits.
• The deposits of the individuals, only to an extent of one lakh, will be issued by the banks.

Question 7.
Do you think fixed deposits that people keep with banks will easily work like money? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 105)
Answer:
Since one can withdraw money in cash or make payments by cheque it makes these deposits work like any other form of money such as currency notes.

Question 8.
Tick the correct option(s): (Text Book Page No. 110)
(a) Over the years, Rama’s debt

1. will rise, (✓)
2. will remain constant.
3. will decline.

(b) Arun is one of the few persons to take a bank loan. One reason for this is

1. He is an educated person.
2. Banks demand collateral which everyone cannot provide, (✓)
3. Interest rate on bank loans is same as the interest rate charged by the traders.
4. There is no documentation work required for getting bank loan.

Question 9.
Talk to some people to find out the credit arrangements that exist in your area. Record your conversation. Are there any differences in the terms of credit? (Text Book Page No. 111)
Answer:
Credit arrangements in our area :

1. Banks
2. Gold loans by Gold shop
3. Moneylenders
4. Finance organizations, etc.

All the terms of credit are one and the same in all the sources except banks. In Banks, getting a loan is tough. But the interest rate, repayment mode, etc. are flexible.

Question 10.
Some SHG groups charge very high interest rates for loans to its members? Is this fair? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 115)
Answer:
No, it is not fair. The SHGs are formed to help the poor. If it charges high interest rates, the same problem of access to credit arises. So it is not fair. The interest rate should be reasonable as bank’s.

Question 11.
Read the two different credit scenarios of Alisha and Swapna and fill in the following table. (Text Book Page No. 108)
Answer:

Question 12.
Supposing, Alisha continues to get orders from traders. What would be his position after 6 years? (Text Book Page No. 108)
Answer:

• Financially he may come to a position.
• For next order, he may not borrow loan.
• There is a possibility of establishing small scale industry.
• There is a possibility of employment for others also.

Question 13.
What are the reasons that make Swapna’s situation so risky? Discuss the following factors: role of moneylenders and climate. (Text Book Page No. 108)
Answer:
1. Pesticides :
Due to low quality of pesticides, the farmers undergo losses. They are deceived many times in this matter.

2. Role of Moneylenders :
Moneylenders lend loans on high rate of interest and there will be a restriction to the farmers to sell the crop production for low price to them only. And they will sell production on higher rates. So moneylenders are benefited from both sides.

3. Climate :
Indian farmers depend on monsoon type of climate. They gamble on monsoon. If sufficient rainfall occurs, farmer will go for better situation. And in case of insufficient rainfall – drought may occur. This leads to worst situation.
So, we can guess that pesticides, role of moneylenders, and climate make Swapna’s situation so risky.

Question 14.
Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the brackets : (Text Book Page No. 109)
While taking a loan, borrowers look for easy terms of credit. This means ________ (1) (low/high) interest rate, ________ (2) (easy / tough) conditions for repayment, ________ (3) (less/more) collateral and documentation requirements.
Answer:

1. low
2. easy
3. less

Question 15.
Fill the following details for Sivakami, Arun, Rama, and Vasu. (Text Book Page No. 111)
Answer:

Question 16.
List the different sources of credit in the above examples. (Text Book Page No. 110)
Answer:

1. Bank loans
2. Cooperative loans
3. Moneylenders
4. Relatives
5. Traders
6. The land owners
7. The employers, etc.

Question 17.
Underline the various uses of credit in the above passage. (Text Book Page No. 110)
Answer:

• Loan for the construction of a house.
• Loan for completing the production of any kind.
• To meet the expenses of cultivation.
• To meet the expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family.
• Sometimes to meet the daily expenses.

Question 18.
How is a loan to an SHG member different from an individual ioan by a bank? (Text Book Page No. 115)
Answer:
SHG loans are group loans and individual loans are personal loans.

Question 19.
Talk to someone who has taken a bank ioan. What was the purpose and how did she approach the bank? (Text Book Page No. 107)
Answer:
I have conducted an interview with Miss B.P.P.S. Lalitha. She has borrowed an education loan from the SBI, Ongole.
1. She has approached nearest branch of ……………… bank.

2. She has submitted previous education records, father’s income certificate, admission details for the ……………. course, details about the course and job opportunity after the completion.

3. With the above details, she approached Education loan officer. After verifying all the papers he sanctioned the loan. She has to repay the loan amount after completion of her education (immediately after 6 months).

Question 20.
Interview a bank manager. What are the loans that they have given? Are there any activities for which they would not give loans? (Text Book Page No. 107)
Answer:
I have interviewed the bank manager of Andhra Bank, Sai Nagar, Nellore.
The loans they gave are :

1. Personal loans!’
2. Housing loans
3. Education loans
4. Vehicle loans
5. Mortgage loans
6. Gold loans
7. SHG loans and
8. Business loans, etc.

Other activities:

1. Maintains relations with the customers.
2. Helping the small entrepreneurs by giving suggestions.
3. Acquiring deposits
4. Promoting and marketing the branch and its products.
5. Meeting with customers and resolving any problems or complaints.
6. Ensuring there is a high level of customer service.
7. Monitoring sales targets and
8. Reporting to head office.

Question 21.
People also require credit for consumption and to manage many socio-cultural aspects. Marriages require a huge expenditure on both bride and groom which compel families to borrow. Do you think there are other reasons for people borrowinjnTionevinvour area? Find out from your parents and teachers and discuss in the class. (Text Book Page No. 109)
Answer:
Reasons for people borrowing :
1) Life cycle needs :
Such as wedding, funerals child birth, education, house building, widowhood, and old age.

2) Personal emergencies:
Such as sickness, injury, unemployment, theft, harassment of dwellings.

3) Disasters:
Such as fires, floods, cyclones, and man-made events like war or bulldozing of dwellings.

4) Investment opportunities:
Expanding a business, buying land or equipment, improving housing, securing a job (which often requires paying a large bribe), etc.

Question 22.
The following table shows how urban families borrow from two sources in 2003 (in percentage). Read the table carefully and fill in the blanks in the passage given. (Text Book Page No. 113)

Source : India’s Debit and Investment Survey – 2003 by N.S.S. conducted R.E.P. 501, December 2005.
The table above Shows the share of formal and informal sources for people living in urban areas. The people include both rich and poor households. You can see that ….(1)….per cent of the credit needs of the poor households are met from informal sources. Formal sources of credit account for only ..(2)…per cent. Compare this with the rich households. What do you find? Only ..(3)….percent of their loans are from informal sources, while ..(4)…per cent is from formal sources. You would find a similar pattern in rural areas.
Answer:

1. 85%
2. 15%
3. 10%
4. 90%

Question 23.
Find out: What is the role of a federation of SHG groups? (Text Book Page No. 115)
Answer:
i) Federations have been providing a number of services to SHGs and individual members.
ii) These could be grouped into 4 categories.

1. Institutional development
2. Financial intermediation
3. Livelihood enhancement or business development services and
4. Social intermediation

Question 24.
What would happen if all the depositors went to ask for their money at the same time? (Text Book Page No. 1o7)
Answer:

• All commercial banks deposit certain percent of their deposits with the Reserve Bank of India.
• Next, advances loans to customers.
• Keeps only 15% of their deposits as cash.
• If all the depositors want their money back, there will not be any liquid cash with the bank.
• When banks are unable to pay cash, then immediately people’s trust on the bank is lost.

Question 25.
Apart from banks people keep deposits in other institutions such as housing societies, companies, post office schemes, etc. Discuss how is that different from bank deposits? (Text Book Page No. 1o7)
Answer:

• In bank deposits, there will be security for the cash as the banks work under the norms of the RBI. Post office also offers good security. Other than post office and banks, the security for deposits is less.
• There will not be any locking period for the banks. Whereas in societies and other companies, there will be locking period.
• Premature cancellation is possible with the bank deposits which is not possible for other deposits.

Question 26.
Should there be a supervisor such as the Reserve Bank of India that looks into the loan activities of informal lenders? Why would its task be quite difficult? (Text Book Page No. 114)
Answer:

• Due to vast geographical conditions and diversified cultures the Reserve Bank of India cannot check or supervise informal credit.
• Most of the transactions are on oral agreement between the borrower and the lender.
• There will not be any registered transaction. Most of the cases a lot of black money is involved.
  Hence it is difficult for the RBI to supervise informal credit.

Question 27.
Can everyone get credit at a cheap rate? Who can get? (Text Book Page No. 11o)
Answer:

• No, everyone cannot get loan at cheap rates.
• Only priority sector, like agriculture, animal husbandary, poultry, etc. gets loan at cheaper rates.
• Banks have to extend 40% of their loans to priority sector.

Question 28.
Do you think that the low share of formal sector credit for poorer households has been one of the factors for farmer distress in Andhra Pradesh? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 114)
Answer:

• Absence of collateral is one of the major reason which prevents the poor from getting formal loans.
• Informal lenders know the borrowers personally. Hence they give loans but charge very high interest rates.
• High interest rates charged by informal loans and crop failures, etc. are the reasons for distress of farmers in Andhra Pradesh.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Chemical Reactions and Equations

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations

9th Class Physical Science6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fe₂O₃ + 2 Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
Name the compound which is oxidized in the above reaction.
Answer:
In the reaction Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe,
Aluminium (Al) is oxidised and formed as Al₂O₃.

Question 2.
Give an example for displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) In displacement reaction one element displaces another element from its compound and takes its place there in.

2) Eg : Zinc pieces react with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberate Hydrogen gas.
Zn_(s)+ 2HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 3.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Assume and write the name of the element ‘X’ and also predict the substance formed black in colour.
Answer:
Element X – Copper.
Black substance – Copper Oxide

Question 4.
Iron gets rust but Gold doesn’t, why?
Answer:
Gold does not oxidized.
(OR)
Gold is least reactive metal.

Question 5.
What happens if iron articles are exposed to moist air? Write the chemical equation to represent that reaction.
Answer:
Rusting takes place on iron articles when they are exposed to moist air.
2Fe_(s) + O_2(g) + 4H⁺_(aq) → 2Fe²⁺_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 6.
On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide powder, the solution formed is blue green. Write the new compound formed.
Answer:
Copper oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid and forms copper chloride and water. Copper chloride is in blue green colour.
CuO + 2 HCl → CuCl₂ + H₂O

Question 7.
Write the equation for the chemical decomposition reaction of silver chloride in the presence of sunlight.
Answer:

Question 8.
Balance the following chemical equation.
Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂
Answer:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 9.
If you keep an iron piece in solid state CuSO₄ crystals, does it get any reaction? Guess the reason.
Answer:
Reaction will not takes place if an iron piece is placed in solid state CuSO₄ crystals because there will not exist separate Cu⁺², SO₄^-2 ions in CuSO₄ Crystals. In aqueous solution, they exists. So iron can not displace copper.

Question 10.
What is a chemical equation?
Answer:
Chemical Equation :
Describing a chemical reaction using least possible words or symbols is called a chemical equation.
Ex : CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

Question 11.
What are “Reactants” and “Products”?
Answer:
1) Reactants :
The substances which undergo chemical change in the reaction are called ‘Reactants’.

2) Products:
The new substances formed in a chemical reaction are called ‘Products’.
Ex : Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
3) In above reaction Zn and 2HCl are called reactants, ZnCl₂ and H₂ are called products.

Question 12.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
Balanced Chemical Equation :
A chemical reaction in which the number of atoms of different elements on the reactants side (left side) are same as those on product side (right side) is called a balanced chemical equation.
Ex : Mg + O₂ → MgO (Unbalanced chemical equation)
2 Mg + O₂ → MgO (Balanced chemical equation)

Question 13.
What is chemical change?
Answer:
Chemical Change :
The process in which the change is affecting the identity of a molecule by a change in chemical composition is called a “chemical change”.

Question 14.
What is physical change?
Answer:
Physical Change: The process where a change is occurring only in physical properties, without affecting the identity of the molecules is called a “physical change”.

Question 15.
What is the meaning of “Exo”, “Endo” and “Thermo”?
Answer:
The term ‘Exo’ means outside, ‘Endo’ means inside and ‘Thermo’ means heat.

Question 16.
What is oxidation? Give examples.
Answer:
Oxidation is a reaction that involves the addition of oxygen or loss of hydrogen or electrons.

Question 17.
What is a reduction? Give examples.
Answer:
The process in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen or electrons is known as reduction.

Question 18.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
Corrosion :
When some metals are exposed to moisture, acids etc. they tarnish due to the formation of respective metal oxide on their surface. This process is called “corrosion”.

Question 19.
What is “galvanizing”?
Answer:
It is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating them a thin layer of zinc.

Question 20.
What is combustion?
Answer:
The process of burning a substance in the presence of oxygen is called “combustion”.

Question 21.
What do you mean by “rancidity”?
Answer:
Food materials containing fat / oil are exposed to air, for a long time they react with atmospheric oxygen and it is responsible for spoiling of food. This process is called “rancidity”.

Question 22.
How do you know that respiration is an exothermic reaction?
Answer:
During the respiration reaction energy releases, so it is an exothermic reaction.

Question 23.
What will happen in chemical reaction?
Answer:
New substances are formed in chemical reaction.

Question 24.
What is precipitate?
Answer:
A precipitate is a solid product’ which separates out from the solution during a chemical reaction.

Question 25.
How does precipitation reaction occur? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. Prepare lead nitrate and potassium iodide solutions in separate test tubes.
2. Mix the two solutions.
3. A yellow colour substance which is insoluble in water, is formed. This insoluble substance is known as precipitate. The precipitate here in this reaction is lead iodide.
   Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2KI → Pbl₂ + 2KNO₃

Question 26.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products.

Question 27.
What is an unbalanced equation?
Answer:
An unbalanced chemical equation has an unequal number of atoms of one or more elements in the reactants and products.

Question 28.
Why do the smell and taste of food items change?
Answer:
When fats and oils are oxidized they become rancid. So their smell and taste change.

Question 29.
“Freshly cut apple turning brown, the iron articles shiny when new, but gradually become reddish brown when left for sometime ………”. How do these changes occur?
Answer:
Oxygen molecules interact with different substance from metal to living tissue which may come into contact with it. The above changes occur. These are all the examples of the process of oxidation.

Question 30.
What are antioxidants?
Answer:
Antioxidants :
The spoilage of food can be prevented by adding preservatives which prevent oxidation. The substances which prevent oxidation are called antioxidants.
(OR)
The substances which prevent oxidation added to food containing fats and oil are called antioxidants.

Question 31.
Complete the following reaction.
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2 KI → …………….. + …………………
Answer:
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2 KI → Pbl₂ + 2KNO₃

Question 32.
If iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, after sometime copper will be formed. Write the chemical equation for this reaction.
Answer:
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

Question 33.
Which metal is used in the manufacture of Diwali crackers?
Answer:
The metal used in manufacture of Diwali crackers is Magnesium.

Question 34.
What are new substances formed due to decomposition of lead nitrate?
Answer:
The new substances formed are lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.

Question 35.
Balance the following chemical equation. C₂H₆ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2C₂H₆ + 7O₂ → 4CO₂ + 6H₂O

Question 36.
NH₄Cl → NH₃ + HCl. Which type of reaction is this?
Answer:
This is decomposition reaction.

Question 37.
Which chemical reaction is involved in the corrosion of iron?
Answer:
The chemical reaction involved in corrosion of iron is oxidation reaction.

Question 38.
Which metal is used for wrapping food material? Why?
Answer:
Aluminium is used to wrap food material because it reacts with oxygen and forms a protective layer of aluminium oxide which prevents further oxidation.

Question 39.
Write states of the reactants and products and also write conditions required for the completion of reaction.
Answer:
2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
H₂O is in liquid state. H₂ and 0₂ are in gaseous state.
The reaction is carried out in the presence of electricity.

Question 40.
Give an example for chemical combination reaction where only elements take part.
Answer:
2 H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Here hydrogen and oxygen both are elements.

Question 41.
Give an example for chemical combination where element and compound take part in the reaction.
Answer:
2 NaN02 + O₂ → 2 NaNO₃
Here O₂ is element and NaNO₂ is compound.

Question 42.
Give an example where two compounds combine together to form a compound.
Answer:
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
Here both calcium oxide, water are compounds which combine together to form calcium hydroxide.

Question 43.
Before burning in air, why is Mg ribbon cleaned by rubbing with a sand paper?
Answer:
To remove the protection layer of basic magnesium carbonate from the surface of magnesium

Question 44.
X Pb(NO₃)₂ → Y PbO + Z NO₂ + W O₂.
If the equation is a balanced equation, what are values of coefficients X, Y, Z and W?
Answer:
The balanced equation is 2 Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2 PbO + 4 NO₂ + O₂.
∴ The values are X = 2,Y = 2, Z = 4 and W = 1.

Question 45.
Why does a layer of zinc prevent rusting of iron?
Answer:
Zinc reacts with oxygen and forms layer of zinc oxide which prevents further oxidation. So a layer of zinc protects iron from rusting.

Question 46.
Why does jewellery made of gold not rust?
Answer:
Gold does not react with air because it has least reactivity. So gold jewellery does not rust.

Question 47.

What type of reaction is this? Which element between A and C is more reactive? Why?
Answer:
This reaction is chemical displacement. ‘C’ is more reactive than ‘A’. So C displaces ‘A’ from AB and occupies its place.

Question 48.
Given AB + CD → AD + CB. What type of chemical reaction is this? What is the condition which makes the reaction possible?
Answer:
This is double displacement reaction. This reaction can be possible if ionisation of both the salt solutions are possible.
i.e., AB → A⁺ + B^–
CD → C⁺ + D^–

Question 49.
An iron nail is completely immersed in a test tube containing oil. Do you observe any rust on the iron nail? If not, why?
Answer:
No, I do not observe any rust because both air and moisture are required for rusting of iron.

Question 50.
How can we prevent rusting of iron?
Answer:
Rusting of iron can be prevented or at least minimised by shielding the metal surface from oxygen and moisture. It can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing, chrome plating or making alloys.

Question 51.
Suggest few methods to avoid corrosion.
Answer:
Some methods to avoid corrosion

1. Painting, oiling, greasing on the surfaces of the metals.
2. Galvanizing the metal with thin layer of zinc.
3. Making alloy metals prevents corrosion,
   eg : brass, bronze and steel.

Question 52.
Some metals react with oxygen to form their oxides. It is serious problem. Give some examples for oxidation of metals and write balanced equations.
Answer:
1) Iron reacts with oxygen and forms iron oxide.
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃.

2) Copper reacts with oxygen and forms copper oxide.
2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO

3) Silver tarnishes when reacts with hydrogen sulphide and oxygen
4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O

Question 53.
Which pipes are suggestable/suitable for water supply? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Steel, PVC and CPVC pipes are suitable/suggestable for water supply.
Reasons:

1. They are not oxidised in moisture.
2. They do not form oxides.
3. They are not corroded.
4. So, they are durable and safe to use in supply of water.

Question 54.
Which pipes are used by you for water supply to your house?
Answer:

1. PVC, CPVC and steel pipes are used for water supply in my house.
2. Because they do not corrode.

Question 55.
List of metals are given below. Classify them into corroded and non-corroded metals. Aluminium, Silver, Iroh, Copper, Gold, Tin, Tungsten, Platinum.
Answer:
Corroded metals :
Aluminium, Silver, Iron, Copper

Non-corroded metals :
Gold, Tin, Tungsten, Platinum.

9th Class Physical Science6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A light yellow coloured compound ‘X’ is exposed to sunlight for some time. It is turned into gray coloured material. What is the name of ‘X’? Predict the type of chemical reaction occured in it.
Answer:
1) The name of the compound ‘X’ is Silver Bromide (AgBr).

This is a decomposition reaction and also it occurs in the presence of sunlight. Hence, it is a photo chemical reaction.

Question 2.
Oil and fat containing food item packets are flushed with Nitrogen gas. Why?
Answer:
By stopping the oxidation it prevents the rancidity of food material.

Question 3.
N_2(g) + O_2(g) + heat → 2NO_(g)
What information do you get from the above equation? Comment.
Answer:

• Nitrogen gas reacts with oxygen gas in the presence of heat energy and forms nitric oxide gas.
• It is an endothermic reaction.
• This is an example for chemical combination reaction.
• In this reaction, the reactants are gases and products are also gases.

Question 4.
Write an activity about how you conduct an experiment to show that more reactive metals replace less reactive metals from their compounds.
Answer:

• Take two iron nails and clean then by rubbing with sand paper.
• Take two test tubes and mark them ‘A’ and ‘B’.
• Pour copper sulphate solution in the test tube ‘A’ and Zinc Chloride solution in the test tube ‘B’.
• Dip iron nails in both test tubes.
• Keep them without disturbing for 20 min.

Observation :

1. The nail which is dipped in Copper Sulphate solution becomes brownish colour.
2. The nail which is dipped in Zinc Chloride solution doesn’t change.

Reaction :
In test tube ‘A’: CuSO₄ + Fe → FeSO₄ + Cu
In test tube ‘B’: ZnCl₂ + Fe → No reaction.

Conclusion :

1. Iron is more reactive than copper. So it displaces copper from Copper Sulphate solution.
2. Iron is less reactive than zinc. So, it doesn’t displace zinc from ZnClr

Question 5.
i) CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_3(g)
ii) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g)
Mention the types of reactions to which the above equations belong. Also mention which of them is a photochemical reaction.
Answer:
1) i) CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g). It is a chemical decomposition reaction.
ii) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g). It is also a chemical decomposition reaction.

2) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g). It is a photochemical reaction. Because, this reaction
takes place in the presence of sunlight only.

Question 6.
Write the products of given reactions, if any. Give reason.
FeCl₂ + Zn →
ZnCl₂ + Fe →
Answer:
FeCl₂ + Zn → ZnCl₂ + Fe (Displacement reaction)
ZnCl₂ + Fe → No reaction. (Low reactive metals cannot displace high reactive metals)

Question 7.
Balance the following chemical equations:
i) Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂
ii) K₂CO₃ + HCl → KCl + H₂O + CO₂
Answer:
i) 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂
ii) K₂CO₃ + 2HCl → 2KCl + H₂O + CO₂

Question 8.
Observe the following balanced chemical equation and answer the given questions.
C₃H_8(g) + 5O_2(g) → 3CO_2(g) + 4H₂O_(g)
i) How many molecules of Oxygen are involved in this chemical reaction?
ii) How many moles of Propane are required to get 20 moles of Water?
Answer:
i) In this chemical reaction five molecules of oxygen are involved.
ii) Five moles of propane are required to get 20 moles of water.

Question 9.
What do you do to prevent rusting of copper and silver articles?
Answer:
I can follow some rules given below to prevent rusting of copper and silver articles.

1. Shielding the metal surface from oxygen and moisture.
2. By painting.
3. By oiling, greasing.
4. By galvanizing, chrome plating.
5. By making alloys.

Question 10.
What are the important characteristics of chemical reactions?
Answer:
The important characteristics of chemical reactions are

1. Evolution of a gas
2. Formation of a precipitate
3. Change in colour
4. Change in temperature
5. Change in state

Question 11.
What symbols do we use to indicate the physical state of reactants and products in an equation?
Answer:

1. Solid state is indicated by the symbol (s)
2. Liquid state is indicated by the symbol (l)
3. Gaseous state is indicated by the symbol (g)
4. Aqueous solution is indicated by the symbol (aq)

Question 12.
What can we do to make a chemical equation more informative?
(OR)
How can chemical equation be made more informative by knowing?
Answer:

1. Physical state,
2. Heat changes (exothermic and endothermic reactions),
3. Gas evolved,
4. Precipitate formed.

Question 13.
Commemt on “C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Heat” equation.
Answer:

• The burning of carbon in oxygen is an exothermic reaction because heat is evolved in this reaction.
• An exothermic reaction is indicated by writing + Heat or + Heat energy or just + Energy on the products side of an equation.

Question 14.
Comment on “N_2(g) + O_2(g) + Heat → 2 NO_(g)” equation.
Answer:

• The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitric oxide is an endothermic reaction because heat is absorbed in this reaction.
• An endotheumic reaction is usually indicated by writing + Heat or + Heat energy or just”+ Energy” on the reactants side of an equation.

Question 15.
Balance the following equations.
1) Na + O₂ → Na₂O
2) H₂O₂ → H₂O + O₂
3) Mg(OH)₂ + HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂O
4) Fe + O₂ → Fe₂O₂
Answer:

1. 4 Na + O₂ → 2 Na₂O
2. 2 H₂O₂ → 2 H₂O + O₂
3. Mg(OH)₂ + 2 HCl → MgCl₂ + 2 H₂O
4. 4 Fe + 3 O₂ → 2 Fe₂O₃

Question 16.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO
What information do you get from above equation?
Answer:
The above equation tells us that,

1. Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide.
2. The formula of copper oxide is CuO and that of oxygen is O₂.
3. 2 moles of copper atoms react with 1 mole of oxygen molecules (O₂) to produce 2 moles of copper oxide (CuO).

Question 17.
Write examples for oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation :
It is a reaction involving addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen from a substance.
1) Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2 Mg + O₂ → 2 MgO

2) Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO

3) Iron reacts with oxygen to form ferric oxide.
4 Fe + 3 O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃

Question 18.
Write examples for reduction reaction.
Answer:
Reduction :
It is a reaction involving addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen from a substance.
1) Nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to produce Ammonia.
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃

2) Oil reacts with hydrogen to form fat.
Oil + H₂ → Fat

Question 19.
Write the examples for corrosion reaction.
Answer:
1) The black coatings on silver.
4 Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2 Ag₂S + 2H₂O

2) Green coating on copper.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO

Question 20.
Name the reactants and products in the following chemical equations.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + NaCl
Answer:
Reactants are Sodium sulphate and Barium chloride. Products are Barium sulphate and Sodium chloride.

Question 21.
Balance the following chemical equation and follow the steps involved in balancing a chemical equation.
Cu₂S + O₂ → Cu₂O + SO₂
Answer:
Step – 1 : Write the unbalanced equation using correct chemical formula for all substances.
Cu₂S + O₂ → Cu₂O + SO₂

Step – 2 : Compare number of atoms of each element on both sides.

Balancing Cu, S, O atoms both sides
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂
The equation is balanced.

Step – 3 : Write the coefficient of smallest ratio.
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

Step – 4 : Verify above equation for balancing of atoms of each element on both sides.
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

Question 22.
Write the difference between oxidation and reduction. Give example.
Answer:

Question 23.
Give two examples for chemical reactions in which precipitate is formed.
Answer:
The reactions in which a substance insoluble in water is formed are called precipitation reactions.
e.g.:
1) When lead nitrate solution reacts with potassium iodide solution it forms a yellow precipitate of lead iodide.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)

2) When sodium sulphate solution reacts with barium chloride solution it forms a white precipitate of barium sulphate.
Na₂SO4_(aq) + BaCl_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s) + 2NaCl_(aq)

Question 24.
What are exothermic and endothermic reactions?
Answer:
Exothermic reaction :
A chemical reaction in which heat is released is called exothermic reaction.
Ex :
C + O₂ → CO₂ + Heat,
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Heat

Endothermic reaction :
A chemical reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.
Ex :
2NaHCO₃ + Heat → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

Question 25.
What is an alloy? Give one example.
Answer:
A metallic substance made by mixing and fusing two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal, to obtain desirable qualities such as hardness, lightness and strength is called alloy.
Ex : Brass, bronze, steel.

Question 26.
What is photochemical reaction? Give example.
Answer:
The decomposition reaction occurs in the presence of sunlight is called photochemical.. reaction.
Ex : 2AgBr_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g)

Question 27.
Why is power supply to our home from the electrical pole interrupted?
Answer:

• Sometimes during rainy season the power supply to our home from the electric pole will be interrupted due to the formation of the metal oxide layer on the electric wire.
• This metal oxide is an electrical insulator.

Question 28.
Name the reactions involved in the following reactions with reasons.

Answer:
a) It is a decomposition reaction carried out in the presence of heat. So it is thermal decomposition reaction.
b) It is a decomposition reaction carried out in the presence of light. So it is photochemical reaction.
c) It is a decomposition taking place in the presence of electricity. So it is electrolysis reaction.
d) Lead is more reactive than copper. So lead displaces copper from salt solution. So the reaction is chemical displacement reaction.

Question 29.
Ramu told Ravi that all material made of iron and its alloys are rusted when exposed to air. How do you correct him by asking suitable questions?
Answer:

1. What are the material we will generally use in our cooking utensils?
2.  What are the material used for surgical equipments?
3. What happens when stainless steel vessels are exposed to air?

Question 30.
What are the gases released when lead nitrate is heated and how do you identify those gases?
Answer:
When lead nitrate is heated it decomposes into lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.

Nitrogen diox-ide is identified by its reddish brown co|our. Oxygen makes the burning splinter to burn brightly when it is placed in test tube containing oxygen.

Question 31.
Write some chemical reactions occurring in our daily life.
Answer:

1. Souring of milk
2. Formation of curd from milk
3. Cooking of food
4. Digestion of food in our body
5. Fermentation of grapes
6. Rusting of iron
7. Burning of fuels
8. Burning of candle wax
9. Ripening of fruits.

Question 32.
If 40 gm of methane is burnt, then how much amount of CO₂ is released ?
Answer:

When 16 g of methane is burnt it releases 44 g of CO₂. The amount of CO₂ released when 40 g methane burnt 44
= \(\frac{44}{16}\) × 40=110g

Question 33.
Calculate the amount of calcium oxide formed when 2 kg of calcium carbonate is decomposed. (The atomic masses of Ca = 40 U, C = 12 U, O = 16 U).
Answer:
The balanced equation is
CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
(40 + 12 + 3 x 16) U → (40 + 16) U + (12 + 2 x 16) U
100 U → 56 U + 44 U
100 g → 56g + 44g
100 g calcium carbonate on decomposition produces 56 g of calcium oxide.
Amount of calcium oxide formed due to decomposition of 2 kg of calcium carbonate

Question 34.
A solution of common salt when added to silver nitrate solution yields a precipitate of silver chloride (0.28 g). Find the mass of sodium chloride in the solution and also the mass of sodium nitrate formed.
Answer:

Question 35.
0.29 g of hydrocarbon when burnt completely in oxygen produces 448 ml of carbon dioxide at STP. From the information, calculate the
i) mass of carbon dioxide formed
ii) mass of element carbon in carbon dioxide
iii) mass of hydrogen in hydrocarbon.
Answer:
i) Gram molecular weight of carbon dioxide = 12 + 2 × 16g = 44 g.
22.4 litres of CO₂ at STP weighs 44 g.

The weight of 448 ml of CO₂ at STP = \(\frac{44}{22400}\) × 448 = 0.88 g

ii) 44g of CO₂ contains 12 g of carbon.
The amount of carbon present in 0.88 g of CO₂ = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 0.88 = 0.24 g

iii) Weight of hydrogen = Weight of hydrocarbon – Weight of carbon
= 0.29 – 0.24 = 0.05 g

Question 36.
Calculate the weights of carbon dioxide and water that will be obtained by completely burning 0.25 g of an organic compound having molecular formula C₄H₄O₄.
Answer:

Question 37.
What weight of sulphuric acid will be required to completely dissolve 3g of magnesium carbonate? Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide evolved at STP.
Answer:

Question 38.
If 16.4 g of calcium nitrate is heated : (a) Calculate the volume of Nitrogen dioxide obtained at STP and (b) The mass of calcium oxide obtained.
Answer:

Question 39.
Give some examples for corroded and non-corroded metals and give the reasons for non-corrosion of metals.
Answer:
Examples to corroded metals :

1. Iron
2. Copper
3. Silver

Reactions:
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO
4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O

Exmples to non-corroded metals :

1. Gold
2. Platinum
3. Brass
4. Bronze
5. Steel

Reasons:

1. Gold and platinum metals do not react with oxygen and have resistance to corrosion.
2. Brass, bronze and steel are alloys. So they have a quality of resistance to corrosion.

Question 40.
Iron is a corroded metal. Through alloying we can prevent corrosion. Justify.
Answer:

• Alloying is a very good method of improving properties of metal.
• Generally pure form of iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.
• When iron is mixed with carbon, nickel and chromium, an alloy stainless steel is obtained.
• The stainless steel is hard and does not rust.
• So, through alloying iron we can prevent corrosion.

Question 41.
“Through alloying corrosion can be prevented.” For the justification pose some questions.
Answer:

1. What is alloying?
2. How are alloys prepared?
3. What are the qualities of alloys?
4. Which quantity prevents the corrosion in alloys?
5. Can we prevent corrosion by alloying a metal ?

9th Class Physical Science6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case.
A) Magnesium_(s) + Iodine_(g) → Magnesium iodide_(s)
B) Zinc_(s) + Hydrochloric acid_(aq) → Zinc chloride_(aq) + Hydrogen_(g)
Answer:
A) Magnesium_(s) + Iodine_(g) → Magnesium iodide_(s)
Mg + I₂ → Mgl₂. This reaction is chemical combination.

B) Zinc_(s) + Hydrochloric acid_(aq) → Zinc chloride_(aq) + Hydrogen_(g)
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
This reaction is chemical displacement.

Question 2.
Write an activity to each of the following chemical reaction.
A) Photo chemical reaction
B) Chemical displacement reaction.
Answer:
A) Photo chemical reaction :
1) Take a pinch of Silver Bromide in a watch glass and it in the presence of sunlight.
2) Silver Bromide decomposes to silver and Bromine in sunlight.

B) Chemical displacement:

1. Take a small quantity of zinc dust in a conical flask and add some drops of dilute hydrochloric acid slowly.
2. Immediately we can observe the gas bubbles coming out from the solution.
3. This is because zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberates hydrogen gas.
   Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
4. In this reaction the element zinc has displaced hydrogen from hydrochloric acid.

Question 3.
Why should we balance a chemical equation ? Take any one chemical equation and explain the procedure of balancing it.
Answer:
Chemical reactions obey law of conservation of mass. So the total number of atoms of each elements in the reactants must be equal to the total number of atoms of each element in the

products. So we should have to balance chemical equation.
Eg : H₂ + O₂ → H₂O

Step -1 : Unbalanced equation = H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
Step – 2 : Compare no.of atoms of each element on both sides.

No.of 0 atoms balancing – H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
No.of H atoms balancing – 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Step – 3 : The above equation is balanced and write the coefficients in the smallest ratio. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Step – 4 : Verify above equation for balancing of atoms each element on both sides. Hence the equation is balanced.
∴ 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
i) Zn_(s) + Ag NO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + Ag_(s)
ii) Fe₂O_3(s) + C_(s) → Fe_(s) + CO_2(g)
iii) Ag_(s) + H₂S_(g) → Ag₂S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
iv) Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → CuO_(g)
Answer:
i) Zn_(s) + Ag NO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + Ag_(s)
Balanced equation : Zn_(s) + 2 AgNO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

ii) Fe₂O_3(s) + C_(s) → Fe_(s) + CO_2(g)
Balanced equation : 2Fe₂O_3(s) + 3C_(s) → 4Fe_(s) + 3CO_2(g)

iii) Ag_(s) + H₂S_(g) → Ag₂S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
Balanced equation :
We cannot balance the equation because atom ‘O’ does not exist in the reactants.

iv) Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → CuO_(s)
Balanced equation :
2Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → 2CuO_(s)

Question 5.
Write the equation for the reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid and balance the equation. Find out the number of molecules of hydrogen gas produced in this reaction, when 1 mole of HCl completely reacts at S.T.P.
[Gram molar volume is 22.4 liters at S.T.P., Avogadro’s number is 6.023 × 10²³]
Answer:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

• In the reaction 2 moles of HC/ produce 1 mole of H₂.
• If 1 mole of HCl participate in reaction, Vi mole of hydrogen will be produced.
• 1 mole of H₂ gas contains 6.023 × 10²³ molecules at STP.
  Number of molecules in ½ mole of H₂ gas = 6.023 × 10²³ × ½ = 3.011 × 10²³

Question 6.
Write the examples for chemical combination.
Answer:
1) Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2 Mg + O₂ → 2 MgO

2) When coal is burnt in oxygen, carbon dioxide is produced.
C + O₂ → CO₂ + Q (cheat energy)

3) Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick lime.
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Q (heat energy)

4) When hydrogen reacts with oxygen, it gives water.
H₂ + O₂ → 2 H₂O

5) Hydrochloric acid is obtained by adding hydrogen to chlorine.
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2 HCl

6) Magnesium reacts with iodine to magnesium iodide.
Mg + l₂ → Mgl₂

7) Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.
2 Na +Cl₂ → 2 NaCl

8) Iron reacts with oxygen to form haematite.
Fe + 3O₂ → 2 Fe₂O₃

Question 7.
Write examples for chemical decomposition reaction.
Answer:
1) Calcium carbonate on heating decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

2) On electrolysis, water decomposes to water and hydrogen.
2 H₂O → 2 H₂ + O₂

3) Silver bromide decomposes to silver and bromine in sunlight.
2 AgBr → 2 Ag + Br₂

4) Silver chloride decomposes to silver and chlorine.
2 AgCl → 2 Ag + Cl₂

5) Glucose decomposes to ethanol and carbon dioxide.
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 C₂H₅OH + 2 CO₂

6) Sodium bicarbonate decomposes to sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide.
2 NaHCO₃ + Heat → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

7) On heating lead nitrate decomposes to lead oxide, oxygen and nitrogen dioxide.

Question 8.
Write the examples for chemical displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) Zinc pieces react with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberate hydrogen gas
Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

2) Iron reacts copper sulphate to form iron sulphate and copper.
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

3) Zinc is mixed with silver nitrate to form zinc nitrate and silver.
Zn + 2 AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag

4) Lead reacts with copper chloride to form lead chloride and copper.
Pb + CuCl₂ → PbCl₂ + Cu

5) Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen.
2 Na + 2H₂O → 2 NaOH + H₂

6) Aluminium reacts with copper chloride to form aluminium chloride and copper.
2 Al + 3 CuCl₂ → 2 AlCl₃ + 3 Cu

7) Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen.
Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

Question 9.
Write examples for chemical double displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) Sodium sulphate solution on mixing with barium chloride solution forms a white precipitate of barium sulphate and soluble sodium chloride.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2 NaCl

2) Sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to form sodium chloride and water.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

3) Sodium chloride spontaneously combines with silver nitrate in solution giving silver chloride precipitate.
NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃

4) Mix lead nitrate solution and potassium iodide solution to form a yellow precipitate of lead iodide and potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2Kl → PbI₂ + 2KNO₃

5) Calcium hydroxide reacts with nitric acid to form water and calcium nitrate.
Ca(OH)₂ + 2 HNO₃ → 2H₂O + Ca(NO₃)₂

6) Magnesium chloride reacts with potassium hydroxide to form magnesium hydroxide and potassium chloride.
MgCl₂ + 2 KOH → Mg(OH)₂ + 2 KCl

Question 10.
Balance the following equations.
1) Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + H₂O
2) NH₃ + CuO → Cu + N₂ + H₂O
3) Al₂(SO₄)₃ + NaOH → Al(OH)₃ + Na₂SO₄
4) HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
5) NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
6) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Answer:

1. 2 Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + 3 H₂O
2. 2 NH₃ + 3 CuO → 3 Cu + N₂ + 3 H₂O
3. Al₂(SO)₃ + 6 NaOH → 2 Al(OH)₃ + 3 Na₂SO₄
4. 2 HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2 H₂O
5. 2 NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2 H₂O
6. BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2 HCl

Question 11.
How many types of chemical reactions are there? Explain with examples.
Answer:
There are four types of chemical reactions. They are :
i) Chemical combination :
A chemical reaction in which two or more substances combine together to form a new substance is called chemical combination.
e.g.: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

ii) Chemical decomposition :
The reaction in which a compound breaks up into two or more simpler substances are known as decomposition reaction. These reactions are generally carried out by means of heat, light, electricity or catalysts.
e.g.: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2 PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂

iii) Chemical displacement:
The chemical reaction in which one element takes the place of another element in a compound is called displacement reaction.
In these reactions, an atom or group of atoms in a molecule is replaced by another atom or a group of atoms.
e.g.: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu

iv) Chemical double displacement: The reaction in which two compounds react to form two other compounds by mutual exchange of their ions is called double displacement reaction.
e.g.: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
NaNO_3(aq) + AgCl_(aq) → AgNO_3(s) + NaCl_(aq)

Question 12.
Balance the following chemical equations.
a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + NaCl
b) Al₄C₃ + H₂O → CH₄ + Al(OH)₃
c) Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂
d) Fe₂O₃ + Al → Al₂O₃ + Fe
Answer:
a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
b) Al₄C₃ + 12H₂O → 3CH₄ + 4Al(OH)₃
c) 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂
d) Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe

Question 13.
How can we make a chemical equation information?
Chemical equations can be made more informative by expressing following characteristics of the reactants and products.
1. Expressing the physical state :
The different states, i.e. gaseous, liquid and solid states are represented by the notations (g), (l) and (s) respectively. If the substance is present as a solution in water the word aqueous is written.

2. Expressing the heat changes :
Q is heat energy which is shown with plus ’+’ sign on product side for exothermic reactions and minus sign on product side for endothermic reactions.
e.g.: a) C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Q (exothermic reaction)
N_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_(g) ” Q (endothermic reaction)

3. Expressing the gas evolved :
If a gas evolved in a reaction, it is denoted by an upward arrow ↑ or (g).
Zn_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + H_2(g)↑

4. Expressing precipitate formed: If a precipitate is formed in the reaction, it is denoted by downward arrow ↓.
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s) ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)

Question 14.
Give daily life examples of oxidation.
Answer:
Daily life examples :

1. Combustion of fuels.
2. Corrosion of metals.
3. Change of colour of fruits like apples, bananas, when they are cut.
4. Burning of crackers.
5. Rancidity of food material.
6. During rainy season the power supply to our home from the electric pole will be interrupted due to formation of metal oxide layer on the electric wire.
7. Rising of dough with yeast depends on oxidation of sugars to carbon dioxide and water.
8. Bleaching of coloured objects using moist chlorine.
9. Respiration.

Question 15.
What is the information giyen by balanced chemical equation?
Answer:

• A chemical equation gives information about the reactants and products through their symbols and formulae.
• It gives the ratio of molecules of reactants and products.
• As molecular masses are expressed in unified masses, the relative masses of reactants and products are known from the equation.
• If the masses are expressed in grams, then the equation also gives the molar ratios of reactants and products.
• If gases are involved, we can equate the masses to their volumes.
• Using molar mass and Avagadro’s number we can calculate the number of molecules and atoms of different substances from the equation.

Question 16.
Write the balanced equation and identify the type of reaction.
1) Magnesium Hydroxide_(aq) + Nitric Acid_(aq) → Magnesium Nitrate_(aq) + Water_(l)
2) Magnesium_(s) + Carbon Monoxide_(g) → Magnesium Oxide_(s) + Carbon_(g)
3) Barium Chloride_(aq) + Sodium Sulphate_(aq) → Barium Sulphate_(s) + Sodium Chloride_(aq)
4) Sodium Nitrate_(s) → Sodium Nitrite_(s) + Oxygen_(g)
Answer:
1) Mg(OH)_2(aq) + 2 HNO_3(aq) → Mg(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2 H₂O_(l)
It is both double displacement and neutralisation reaction.

2) Mg_(s) + CO_(g) → MgO_(s) + C_(s)
It is a redox reaction in which magnesium is oxidised and carbon monoxide is reduced.

3) BaCl_2(aq) + Na₂SO_4(aq) → BaSO_4(s) ↓ + 2 NaCl_(aq)
It is both precipitation and double displacement reaction.

4) 2 NaNO_3(s) → 2 NaNO_2(s) + O_2(g)
It is both endothermic and decomposition reaction.

Question 17.
We write symbol of water as H₂O. State why we should not write it as HO₂.
Answer:
1) The hydrogen atom has only T electron in its outermost shell, so it needs 1 more electron to achieve the stability. ‘2’ electrons are required to get inert gas electronic configuration.

2) The oxygen atom has ‘6’ electrons in its outermost shell and it needs ‘2’ more electrons to compare the stability. ‘8’ electron arrangement of inert gas is neon.

In the water molecule, central oxygen atom has two pairs of unshared electrons which have not been utilised in the formation of bonds.

So, we write symbol of water as H20 and we should not write it as HO₂.

Question 18.
Latha took some quantity of powder of a substance in a test tube. Heated it with spirit lamp. A gas was liberated. She sent the gas into another test tube. The colour of solution in the second test tube turned into milk white.
Answer the following questions :
a) Which substance was heated?
b) Which gas was liberated?
c) What was the solution taken in second test tube?
d) Which type of chemical reactions involved the experiment?
Answer:
a) The substance is calcium carbonate.
b) The gas liberated is carbon dioxide.
c) The solution taken in the second test tube was solution of slaked lime.
d) Two types of reactions took place in this experiment, i.e. decomposition and double displacement.
CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) . CO₂ ↑
Ca(OH)_2(aq) + CO_2(g) → CaCO_3(s) + H₂O

Question 19.
A light yellow colour substance (some quantity) on a watch glass is put in the sunlight. It changes into grey colour substance.
a) What is the light yellow colour substance?
b) What is the grey colour substance?
c) Which type of chemical reaction it is?
d) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
a) The light yellow colour substance is silver bromide.
b) The grey colour substance is silver.
c) The type of chemical reaction is photochemical reaction.

Question 20.
Heat is liberated in the reactions where water is added to calcium oxide and hydrochloric acid added to zinc pieces.
Rarnu says that they are same type of chemical reactions. Eswar’s opinion is that the reactions are not similar. What is the basis of Eswar’s opinion ? Write equations for the above reaction.
Answer:
Eswar’s thinking is correct. Although both are exothermic reactions, the type of chemical reactions is different.
Case (i) : When water is added to calcium oxide it forms calcium hydroxide. It is an example for combination reaction.
CaO_(s) + H₂O → Ca(OH)_2(aq)

Case (ii) : When hydrochloric acid is added to zinc pieces it would liberate hydrogen gas which is an example for displacement reaction.
Zn_(s) + HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g) ↑

Question 21.
We see many combustion and oxidation reactions in our daily life. Among them every combustion reaction is an oxidation reaction. But not all the oxidation reactions are combustion reactions. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Explain with proper reasons.
Answer:
1) Yes, I agree with the statement because combustion reaction is nothing but burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen so it is an oxidation reaction. So every combustion reaction is an oxidation reaction.

2) Whereas some reactions which do not require burning still they are oxidation reactions.
Eg :

1. Corrosion of metals.
2. Change of colour of fruits like apples, bananas when they are cut.
3. Rancidity of food materials.
4. Respiration.
5. Bleaching of coloured objects using moist chlorine.
   So all oxidation reactions are not combustion reactions.

Question 22.
Explain the following :
1) What happens when iron filings are added to zinc sulphate solution?
2) What happens when solid silver nitrate is added to solid sodium chloride?
Answer:
1) No reaction takes place because zinc is more reactive than iron. So iron cannot displace zinc from its salt solution.

2) No reaction takes place because in solid state silver nitrate as well as sodium chloride is unable to dissociate into constituent ions. So exchange of ions is not possible.

Question 23.
Why is steel not used for surgical equipment and what is the material used for surgical equipment? Why is that material used for surgical equipment?
Answer:
1) Steel undergoes rusting when It exposed to air. So it is not useful for preparation of surgical equipment. If we use it in surgical equipment it may cause septic of wound.

2) The material used for surgical equipment is stainless steel which is an alloy of iron, carbon, nickel and chromium. Chromium does not easily react with oxygen. So, addition of chromium makes the stainless steel free from rusting. Therefore it is used in surgical equipment.

Question 24.
Give reasons for the following.
1) Why do we add salt to water during electrolysis of water?
2) Why does hydrogen gas put off the burning splinter and it burns with blue flame?
3) Why does carbon dioxide turn lime water milky?
Answer:
1) Pure water is a bad conductor of electricity. By adding a small amount of salt the solution becomes conductor of electricity.

2) Hydrogen does not support combustion. So it puts off the burning splinter and also it is combustible. So burns with blue flame.

3) When we pass carbon dioxide through lime water it turns into milky because lime water (calcium hydroxide) reacts with carbon dioxide and forms a white milky substance, i.e. calcium carbonate.

Question 25.
A student was given the following substances and was asked to show types of chemical reactions through experiment. Write how he would have done that. Copper sulphate solution, barium chloride solution, ferrous sulphate crystals, iron nails, calcium oxide, water.
Answer:
Given chemicals are CuSO₄ solution, BaSO₄ solution, iron nails (Fe), Ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄), Calcium oxide (CaO) and water (H₂O).

i) Chemical combination :
Chemicals chosen : CaO, H₂O
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

When we add water to calcium oxide it produces Calcium hydroxide. This is an example for chemical combination.

ii) Chemical decomposition:
Chemicals chosen : Ferrous sulphate

When we heat FeSO₄ it dissociates into Ferric oxide, Sulphur dioxide and Sulphur trioxide respectively.

iii) Chemical displacement :
Chemicals chosen : Iron nail – CuSO₄
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu ↓

When iron nail is placed in CuSO₄ solution, the solution turns into light green due to formation of FeSO₄ and reddish brown deposit of Copper.

iv) Double displacement:
Chemicals chosen : CuSO₄ solution and BaCl2 solution.
CuSO_4(aq) + BaCl_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s) ↓ + CuCl_2(s)

When CuSO₄ is mixed with BaCl₂ solution it forms white precipitate of BaSO₄ and aqueous solution of Copper (II) Chloride.

This is an example for double displacement reaction.

Question 26.
Take two beakers and prepare lead nitrate aqueous solution and potassium iodide aqueous solutions. What are the colours of the solutions? Now mix them in another beaker. What happens? What type of chemical reaction it is? What are products?
Answer:
The colours of the solutions are white or colourless. When lead nitrate solution is mixed with potassium iodide solution we will get yellow precipitate of lead iodide. This is double displacement reaction. The products are lead iodide and potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Kl_(aq) → Pbl_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)

Question 27.
Observe the following equation which shows the action of heat on Calcium Nitrate
2 Ca(NO₃)₂ → 2 CaO + 4 NO₂ + O₂
a) How many moles of NO₂ are formed when a mole of 2 Ca(NO₃)₂ is decomposed?
b) What is the volume of NO₂ produced when 164 gm of Ca(NO₃)₂ is heated at constant temperature and pressure?
c) Calculate the mass of Calcium Oxide formed when 82 gm of Ca(NO₃)₂ is heated.
d) What is the quantity of Ca(NO₃)₂ required to produce 5 moles of gaseous products?
Answer:
Given balanced equation is
a) From the balanced equation 2 moles of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 4 moles of NO₂.
b) Molecular weight of Ca(NO₃)₂ and CaO respectively are 164 and 56.
From the equation at STP 2 × 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 4 × 22.4 litres of NO₂.
At similar conditions 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ releasing NO₂ in litres is
= \(\frac{164}{2 \times 164}\) × 22.4 × 4 = 2 × 22.4 = 44.8 liters.

c) From the balanced equation 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ decomposes and forms 112 g. of CaO. Similarly 82 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ decomposes and forms
\(\frac{82}{164}\) × 112 = 56 g. of CaO.

d) From the above balanced equation 2 moles of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 5 moles of gaseous products.
∴ The mass of Ca(NO₃)₂ required is 2 × 164 = 328 g.

Question 28.
Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Calculate amount of zinc required to release 500g of hydrogen. (Zn = 65 U, H = 1 U, Cl = 35.5 U are the atomic masses).
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is
Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
65 U + (2 × 36.5) U → (65 + 2 × 35.5) U + 2 U
65 g + 73 g → 136 g + 2g
As per the balanced equation
65 g Zinc is reacting with hydrochloric acid to produce 2g of Hydrogen.

Question 29.
Calculate the volume, mass and number of molecules of carbon dioxide when 104 g of acetylene (C₂H₂) burnt in air. (Atomic masses of C = 12 U, H = 1 U, O = 16 U).
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is
2C₂H₂ + 5O₂ → 4CO₂ + 2H₂O
2 × (2 × 12U + 2 × lU) + 5 × (2 × 16U) → 4 × (12U + 2 × 16U) + 2(2 × 1U + 16U)
52 g + 160g → 176 g + 36 g
52 g of acetylene when burnt in air produces 176 g carbon dioxide.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced when 104 g acetylene burnt

At S.T.P. 1 gram molar mass of any gas occupies 22.4 litres.
So 44g carbon dioxide occupies 22.4 litres volume.
The volume occupied by 352 g carbon dioxide = \(\frac{352}{44}\) × 22.4 = 8 × 22.4 = 179.2 litres.
44 g of carbon dioxide i.e., 1 mole of CO₂ contains 6.02 × 10²³ molecules. So the number of molecules present in 352 g of carbon dioxide
352
= \(\frac{352}{44}\) × 6.02 × 10²³ = 8 × 6.02 × 10²³
= 4.816 × 10²⁴ molecules.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Changing Cultural Traditions in Europe 1300-1800 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Changing Cultural Traditions in Europe 1300-1800

9th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Changing Cultural Traditions in Europe 1300-1800 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Discussion on Renaissance in this chapter was mostly in the context of __________ (England/Italy/France/Germany).
Answer:
Italy

Question 2.
Write a sentence or phrase about the changes in ideas listed below during Renaissance.
Answer:
a. Humanists :
from religious interests to individual interests.

b. Books :
from hand made to printed books.

c. Paintings :
from religious to realistic.

d. Human beings :
from religious bonds to rational thoughts.

e. Women:
from limited public life to started aspiring for freedom and equality of status.

Question 3.
How did printing of the Bible influence the ideas about God and Church?
Answer:

• A major achievement of the reformists was to translate the Bible into the popular languages of the people.
• Printing Bible in large quantities made it available to all people.
• Previously the Bible was only in Latin which ordinary people did not understand.
• Translation of the Bible helped the common people to understand the teachings of the sacred book.
• The ideas of reformation took hold of many people in Germany, Holland, France, and England.
• In all these states people with diverse faith emerged and theystartedinterpretingChristianity.
• Thus the influence and power of the Roman Catholic Church declined.
• Later, the Catholic Church itself did not escape the impact of these ideas, and began to reform itself from within.

Question 4.
Compare the modern Italian towns with that of the medieval towns. Do you notice any changes in their present names?
Answer:

I observed many changes in the names

Question 5.
Which elements of Greek and Roman culture were revived in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries?
Answer:

• A new humanist culture had flourished in Italian towns.
• Individualism developed. That means the ability of human beings to know and decide for themselves increased.
• Several Nation States came to be established. Two of these – Florence and Venice were republic.
• After downfall of Constantinople in 1453 A.D., many Greek scholars fled to Italy. This paved a path for the revival of ancient Greek literature.
• Visual arts like painting and sculpture took the form of “realism”.
• People studied the ruins of old Roman buildings to revive the old Roman style.
• This inspired a new style in architecture, which was actually a revival of imperial Roman style, now called “classical”.
• The ideals of Reformation took hold of many people. Interpretation of Christianity emerged. Thus the monopoly of the Catholic Church was for ever broken.
• Scientific outlook developed.

Question 6.
Why were Italian towns the first to experience the ideas of humanism?
Answer:

• In 1453, Constantinople was overthrown, and the Turkish or Ottoman Empire took the place of the Eastern Roman Empire.
• Many of the educated men who spoke Greek fled to Italy for safety.
• Some of them brought their Greek books with them.
• This increased interest among Italians in the ancient Greek literature.
• The literature of the ancient Greek had reflected an interest in life.
• Later, students of the ancient Greek literature, which dealt with the nature and interest of man, were called Humanists.
• Thus humanism started in Italy and then spread to other European states.

Question 7.
What were the features of humanist thought?
(OR)
‘Humanist culture means the ideas of modern man who is not under the control of church’. Write about the features of humanist thoughts.
Answer:

• A new “humanist” culture had flowered in Italian towns.
• It was characterised by a new belief-that man, as an individual was capable of making his own decisions and developing his skills.
• Another important feature of humanist culture was a weakening of the control of religion over human life.
• Humanists considered the acquisition of power and wealth as desirable and not something to be avoided.
• Humanist scholars began attacking the corruption of priests and questioning the need for a priesthood and its interpretation of Christianity.
• The humanist members of the Church called on Christians to practise religion in the way laid down in the ancient texts of their religion, discarding unnecessary rituals.

Question 8.
The following graph indicates the increase in book production. What can you tell about it?
(OR)
Write about Book Production based on below Graph.

Answer:

• The books printed increased rapidly.
• During 15^th century only a few books were printed.
• People developed the habit of reading.
• Thus ideas, opinions and information moved more rapidly than ever before.
• They acted as good mass media.

Question 9.
Do you agree with the following statement: “Printed books continue to dominate our lives.” Give reasons for your answer.
(OR)
“The mastery of the technology of printing was the greatest revolution of the sixteenth century”. Explain how the invention of the Printing machine affected the human lives?
Answer:

• “Gutenberg” invented printing press.
• The Bible was translated into all languages.
• Books like “Utopia”, Praise of Folly”, “Divine Comedy”, etc. changed the society and paved way for the great Reformation Movement.
• Students did not have to depend solely on lectures – notes.
• Cultural diffusion has taken place due to the availability of books.
• Hence we can say “Printed books continue to dominate our lives”.

Question 10.
Write an account of how the world appeared different to seventeenth century Europeans.
Answer:

• The ideas of reformation took hold of many people and the monopoly of the Roman Catholic Church was for ever broken.
• The few people who were interested, started investigating the world in which they lived.
• Scientific attitudes developed.
• Theirs was a radically new view of human beings as free and rational agents.
• Faith in religious books and priests decreased.
• Faith in the ability of human beings to know and decide for themselves increased.
• They showed interest in reading good literature.
• Europeans were strongly attracted to material wealth, power and glory.
• Self interests developed.
• Many of the scientific inventions took place and people started exploring the world and discovered sea routes to different continents.

Question 11.
Mention the outstanding features of the renaissance architecture. Explain why.
Answer:

• During Renaissance, a new style in architecture, which was actually a rival of the imperial Roman style, emerged.
• They used tall pillars, arches, and domes in buildings and decorated buildings with paintings, sculptures and reliefs.
• Another remarkable change was that from this time, artists were known individually, by name, not as members of a group or a guild as earlier.

Question 12.
Observe the map 2 given in the page 156 and locate the geographical explorations on the world outline map.

Answer:
Self exercise

Question 13.
Read the para 4 of Page No. 151 and comment on it.

Answer:
Women in the middle ages occupied a number of different social roles. Women in the middle ages, a European history from around the 5th century to the 15th century, held the position of wife, mother, peasant, artisan, and nun, as well as some important leadership roles, such as abbess or queen regnant. The very concept of “woman” changed in a number of ways during the middle ages and several forces influenced their role during the period.

Question 14.
Collect pictures of great Renaissance artists and prepare an album.
Answer:

Question 15.
Prepare a play on the debate between Galileo and a priest who did not believe that the earth went around the sun.
Answer:
Priest : “Hi ! What is this instrument ?”
Galileo : “Ho I This is a telescope.”
Priest : “What is the use of this instrument ?”
Galileo : “This is useful in observing the celestial bodies, their motion and their, shapes, etc.”
Priest : “There is nothing to know about them. The earth we live is flat and it is in the centre of the universe. We, the priests, are direct descendants of god and everyone should listen to our words. Bible is the only holy book.”
Galileo : “I am very sorry to say that all your words are wrong. Now, it is time to know the truth. The earth is round. It is a planet in the solar system and it revolves round the sun. Human beings on the earth are all equal.”
Priest : “Don’t say like that. You are too wrong. You should apologise for these words.
Otherwise you will be punished by the church.”
Galileo : “I don’t care, I am ready to face my trouble. The earth is moving – moving – moving.”

Question 16.
Study the various ways in which we use products of the printing press today and pre¬pare a detailed report.
Answer:
We use printing press in all spheres of our life.

1. Books
2. Greeting cards
3. Bill books
4. Novels, others, etc.

9th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Changing Cultural Traditions in Europe 1300-1800 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have read about the zamindari system and vetti in Hyderabad state in class VIII. Compare it with ‘serfdom’ in Europe. (Text Book Page No. 145)
Answer:

• Both the systems exploited the labourer.
• Both the classes were the lowest in all social classes.
• The condition of serfs was more better than that of vetti.

Question 2.
Who were the humanists and what did they teach? (Text Book Page No. 147)
Answer:

• Students of the ancient Greek literature, which dealt with the nature and interests of man, were called Humanists.
• Humanism taught a new belief – that man, as an individual was capable of making his own decisions and developing his skills.
• Humanism taught to pursue pleasure, seek wealth and comfort and also act in self interest.
• Humanists began attacking the corruption among clergy.
• Humanists questioned the need for a priesthood and its interpretation of Christianity.

Question 3.
In what way do you think women of those times have benefited from studying Greek and Roman books? (Text Book Page No. 152)
Answer:

• The women were able to question the scholars that “Were women incapable of achiev¬ing the qualities of humanist scholars ?”
• They were able to criticise political systems openly.
• They were inivited to give orations at the universities.
  Thus the women have benefited from studying Greek and Roman books.

Question 4.
What were the issues on which the Protestants criticised Catholic Church? (Text Book Page No. 154)
A.nswer:
The Church was criticised on the following grounds :

1. It dominated the religious and cultural life of people in medieval times.
2. The Catholic priests of Roman Catholic Church began to lead a luxurious life and they were criticised for their rich and luxurious life.
3. Erasmus criticised some of the beliefs of the Church, which he said, were based on superstitions.
4. Church had become an institution marked by greed, extorting money at will from ordinary people.
5. Sale of indulge certificates to free the buyer from the burden of sin, was also criticised.

Question 5.
Do you see any similarity between the Bhakti movement in India and the Protestant movement ? Do you also see any differences between the two of them? (Text Book Page No. 154)
Answer:

Question 6.
Who were the Renaissance scientists, and how did each of them contribute to science? (Text Book Page No. 155)
(OR)
Who were the chief Renaissance scientists, and what work did each of them contribute to science?
Answer:
1) Andreas Vesalius (1514-64) :
He was a Belgian and a professor of medicine at the university of Padua. He was the first to dissect human body. This was the beginning of the modern physiology.

2) William Harvey (1628):
Harvey discovered the blood circulation in human body after making careful experiments.

3) Isaac Newton :
Sir Newton propounded the theory of gravitational force. He proved that all heavenly bodies moved according to the law of gravitation. In 1687, Newton’s Principia Mathematica was published.

4) Roger Bacon :
He was a serious searcher for truth. He performed some experiments with metals and chemicals and probably had a crude microscope.

5) Nicolaus Copernicus (1473 -1543):
He built an observatory from which he patiently studied the heavens. Copernicus claimed that the earth is one of a number of planets that revolve around the sun.

6) Galileo (1564 – 1642) :
Galileo invented a telescope. This aided in the study of astronomy. He supported Copernicus and proved that the sun is the centre of the universe. Galileo also discovered certain laws of pendulum. He also proved that the heavy and light objects fall at the same speed.

Question 7.
How do you think trade helps in the development of towns? (Text Book Page No. 145)
Answer:

• The people involved in trade will settle in towns because they need transport facilities.
• The working class also settles in the towns to market their products.
• The foreign traders also reach the towns mostly port towns to do their business.
  So I think the trade helps in the development of towns.

Question 8.
In the view of Burckhardt, which of these would be associated with modern view and which would be medieval view? (Text Book Page No. 145)
i) Faith in the ability of human beings to know and decide for themselves
ii) Faith in the Religious books and priests
iii) Faith in divine revelation
iv) Faith in human reason
Answer:
i) Modern view
ii) Medieval view
iii) Medieval view
iv) Modern view

Question 9.
There was no printing press in India during the same period. Let us suppose Krishna Devaraya wrote a book. How do you think it would have reached scholars in different parts of India? (Text Book Page No. 150)
Answer:
The hand written books would have reached scholars in different parts of India.

Question 10.
What do you think would have been the reaction of kings and priests to the printing press? Would they have welcomed it or would they have been worried by it? (Text Book Page No. 150)
Answer:
They have been worried by it.
Reason : The common man was under the control of church in all the matters. The inven¬tion of printing press enabled the common man to know the the Bible. This was a great damage to the kings and priests. So they have been worried by it.

Question 11.
Locate Republics and three court cities on the outline map of Italy. (Text Book Page No. 146)
Answer:

Some Republics : Venice, Florence, Sicily
Court Cities : Rome, Padua, Mantua, Venice, Bologna and Genoa

Question 12.
Read the following map and prepare a list of explorations of sea routes. (Text Book Page No. 157)

Answer:

1. 1492-1504 – Christopher Columbus reaches America looking for a sea route to the Indies; discovering various lands and islands and establishing a colony on Hispaniola.
2. 1498 – Vasco da Gama sails around Africa from Portugal reaching India and establishing trade routes.
3. 1499-1504 – Amerigo Vespucci explores New World.
4. 1519-1522 – Ferdinand Magellan’s ships circumnavigate the world.
5. 1488 – Sails around the southernmost tip of Africa, reaching Indian Ocean from the Atlantic; It was only on the return voyage that he discovered the Cape of Good Hope.

Question 13.
Do you think there is a greater possibility of knowing new ideas and trying out new things in towns rather than villages ? Discuss. (Text Book Page No. 145)
Answer:
1) Many people, who are efficient, from all spheres reach towns to prove themselves. There are many chances to interact with many people.
So I think there is a greater possibility of knowing more and trying out new things in towns rather than villages.

Question 14.
Describe the different scientific elements in the work of sixteenth century Italian artists. (Text Book Page No. 149)
Answer:

• Artists wanted “perfectly proportioned men and women” in their sculptures.
• They took the help of scientists to reach perfection.
• Painters knowledge of geometry and changing quality of light helped them to acquire a three dimensional quality.
• Many artists like Leonardo da Vinci studied human anatomy so as to make their paintings and sculpture realistic, e.g : The statue The Pieta by Michelangelo.
• Thus, anatomy, geometry, physics as well as a strong sense of beauty, gave a new quality to Italian art.

Question 15.
The Renaissance was considered a New Age, because people considered it proper to pursue pleasure, seek wealth and comfort and also act in seif-interest. This was in contrast to teachings of religions that one should not act in self-interest and forsake comfort and wealth. Do you agree with this view point of the Renaissance humanists? (Text Book Page No. 151)
Answer:
I agree with this view point of the Renaissance humanists.
Self-interest, self-growth etc., lead human beings to moral lives. The humanists were against the exploitation. So I agree with them.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 10 Work and Energy

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 10th Lesson Work and Energy

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What type of energies are possessed by the objects shown in below figures.
Answer:

i) Potential energy

ii) Kinetic energy

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the scientific concept of the work, two conditions need to be satisfied in order to say that work has been done.
i. A force should act on the object.
ii. The object must be displaced or there must be change in position of the object. Now complete the table given below.

Answer:

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the differences between potential energy and kinetic energy.
(OR)
Compare and differentiate between political energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy Important Questions and Answers

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by one joule work?
Answer:
1 joule work is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 Newton displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the force.

Question 2.
What happens to the speed of a ball while it moves up with an initial velocity?
Answer:
As the ball moves up, the gravitational force acts against to the direction of motion of the object. Hence its velocity slowly decreases.

Question 3.
When a ball is moving up with an initial velocity, what will be its speed at its maximum height?
Answer:
The speed of a ball moving up is zero at its maximum height.

Question 4.
What happens to the speed of the ball during its downward motion?
Answer:
The speed of the ball during its downwards motion will increase gradually.

Question 5.
Define energy.
Answer:
Energy is defined as the capacity to do a work.

Question 6.
Why does a person get tired standing at a place for long time?
Answer:
Though the person standing is not doing any work externally a lot of work is being done inside the body.

The muscles of the body become stretched when he stands for long time and heart has to pump more blood to muscles. This leads to loss of energy inside the body and hence he gets tired.

Question 7.
What is kinetic energy?
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object due to its motion is called kinetic energy.

Question 8.
Write a formula to measure kinetic energy.
Answer:
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

Question 9.
Define potential energy.
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object because of its position or shape is called its potential energy.

Question 10.
Write a formula to calculate potential energy.
Answer:
Potential energy PE = mgh.

Question 11.
What is conservation of energy?
Answer:
The law of conservation of energy states that the energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only be changed from one form to another.

Question 12.
A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process?
Answer:
Chemical energy is converted into heat energy then light energy.

Question 13.
A mass of 10 kg at a point A on the table is moved to a point B. If the line joining A & B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by gravitational force? Explain your answer.
Answer:
The work done on the object by gravitational force is zero, since the angle between force and motion of object is zero.

Question 14.
A person holds a bundle of hay over his head of 30 minutes and get tired. Has he done some work or not? Justify your answer.
Answer:
There is no displacement. So no work is done on the object. (W = F x s = F x 0 = 0)

Question 15.
Expand OTE.
Answer:
OTE means – Ocean Thermal Energy.

Question 16.
Expand OTEC.
Answer:
OTEC means – Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion.

Question 17.
What is ‘Biomass’?
Answer:
The material contained in the bodies of plants and animals is Called ‘Biomass’.

Question 18.
What is Nuclear reaction?
Answer:
The physical reaction which involves changes in nucleus of an atom is called “Nuclear reaction”.

Question 19.
What is Nuclear Energy?
Answer:
The energy released during a nuclear reaction is called nuclear energy.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define power and mention its units.
Answer:
Power is defined as the rate of doing work or rate of transfer of energy.

The unit of power is ‘Watt’ and denoted by the symbol ‘W’.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of one joule?
Answer:
One joule is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 Newton displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the force.
If F = 1N, s = 1 m then the work done
W = F × s = 1 N × 1 m = 1 N-m = 1 Joule

Question 3.
What is the meaning of one watt?
Answer:
1 watt is the power of an object, which does work at the rate of one joule per second.
If W = 1J, t = 1 sec then,

Question 4.
Explain work through a diagram.
Answer:

1. Suppose a constant force (F) acts on an object and is moved through a distance (s) along the direction of the force, as shown in figure.
2. Then the work done W = F × s

Question 5.
Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes it velocity from 5 ms-1 to 2 ms-1. Calculate the work done by the force?
Answer:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Initial velocity (u) = 5 m/s
Final velocity (v) = 2 m/s

Change in kinetic energy stored as work done is – 210 J

Question 6.
The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does the violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?
Answer:
No, it is not violating law of conservation of energy because when freely falling object moves towards ground its speed increases due to gravitational force so potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

Question 7.
Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/hr.
Answer:

∴ The work done to stop the moving car = 208333 J

Question 8.
An object of mass m is moving with a constant velocity v. tlow much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?
Answer:
Mass of the object = m, Velocity of the object = v, Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv².
The work done to bring the object to rest is stored in the from of kinetic energy.
∴ Work done = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

Question 9.
In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the long arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Answer:
i) In the first case force is acting perpendicular to the displacement of the object. So the work done by the force is zero.
ii) In the second case force is acting in the direction of displacement. So work done
by the force is positive.
iii) In the third case force and displacement opposite to each oth£r. So the work done is negative. –

Question 10.
What is Nuclear fission?
Answer:
1) The process in which heavy nucleus of a radioactive atom splits up into smaller nuclei when bambared with low energy neutrons is called nuclear fission.
2) Ex : ²³⁵U₉₂ + ¹n₀ → ¹³⁹Ba₅₆ + ⁹⁴Kr₃₆ + ³¹n₀ + Energy

Question 11.
What is nuclear fusion?
Answer:
1) The process which two nuclei of light elements combine to form a heavy nucleus is called nuclear fusion.
2) Ex : 2H₁ + 2H₁ → 3He₂ + ¹n₀ + Energy.

Question 12.
What is Ocean Thermal Energy?
Answer:

1. Heat from the sun is absorbed by the water on the surface of ocean, but at deeper levels of ocean, the temperature is very less.
2. So, there is temperature difference between the water “at the surface of ocean” and at “deep levels”.
3. This difference in temperature is called Ocean Thermal Energy.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain negative value of work done.
Answer:

1. Suppose a ball is moving on a plain ground, will get stopped after sometime due to frictional force acting on it in opposite direction.
   
2. If the force acting on an object and displacement are in opposite directions then the work done by the force is taken as negative.
   W = – F × s
3. If the work done has negative value, the body on which the work has been done loses energy.

Question 2.
Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not, work is done in the light of your understanding of the term work.
1. Suma is swimming in a pond.
2. A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
3. A wind-mill lifting water from a well.
4. A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
5. An engine is pulling a train.
6. Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
7. A sail boat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer:

1. Work is done because force is applied and the person is moved.
2. No work is done the object is not moved in the direction of force.
3. Work is done against gravitational force thrift water.
4. No work is done
5. Work is done since the engine is pulling the train.
6. No work is done.
7. Work isjdone because sail boat is moving in the direction of wind energy.

Question 3.
An object of mass 4 kg is raised to height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half way down.
Answer:
m = 4 kg, h = 5 m, g = 10 m/s².
Potential energy = mgh = 4 × 10 × 5 = 200 J.
If object is allowed to fall, then we have to take half of distance.
u = 0, h = 2.5 m, a = + g = 10 m/s²
v² — u² = 2gh ⇒ v² = 2 × 10 × 2.5 ⇒ v² = 50

∴ At half of distance the kinetic energy = 100 J.

SCERT AP Board 9th Class Social Solutions 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Studies Solutions 14th Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century

9th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve Your Learning

Question 1.
Choose the correct options.
a) Democraticand nationalist movements assumed that a nation has a ___________ ; (shared history; shared culture; shared economy; all the above; none of the abovd)
b) Jacobin clubs were established in different countries by ___________ (peasants; royalty; middle class; army)
c) During the mid 18th century the land was owned by ___________ and cultivated by ___________ (middle class, army, aristocrats, tenants)
Answer:
a) All the above
b) army
c) aristocrats, tenants.

Question 2.
After readingabout mid-eighteenth century Europe, what similarities or differences amongst people existed in the context of: language, ethnicity, trade practices.
Answer:

• Within the territories of the empire there lived diverse people.
• In the Alpine regions the aristocracy were predominently German – speaking.
• In Lombardy and Venetia people spoke Italy.
• In Galicia people spoke Polish.
• Bohemians, Slovaks, Slovens, Croats and Roumans were certain ethnic groups.
• The majority of the population was made up of the peasantry.
• Vast estates were there and they were cultivated by serfs.
• Trade and industry developed, commercial classesemergedduetothesedevelopments.
• A group of new middle class emerged due to the access to education and new ideas.

Question 3.
Do you agree with the statement: “when the emergence of nation states, the dominance of Aristocracy declined and middle class increased”. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Europe witnessed growth of industrial production and trade.
• This led to the growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes whose existence was based on production for the markets.
• In its wake, new social groups came into being, (a working-class population and middle classes.)
• They had access to education and new ideas.
• It was among them that ideas of national unity and the abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity.
• There after the dominance of Aristocracy declined and middle class increased.

Question 4.
Write an imaginary dialogue between Mazzini and any of the Indian nationalist you have studied.
Answer:
Mazzini : We can’t form a nation state through talks, lectures, and discussions. We should do something.
Indian Nationalist : We can’t achieve freedom by revolutions and violent movements. We can’t achieve the unity of the nation. Time will decide it.
Mazzini : How long is this procrastination? We can achieve the unity through revolutionary organizations and secret fightings.
Indian Nationalist : It takes time for the people to get awareness. Nationality is strengthened when change comes in people.
Mazzine : We have to create the atmosphere of war. We should put an end to the monarchical and despotic rule.
Indian Nationalist : There is a way for that ………. We have to wait for some more time.
Mazzini : The situation will get worst if we still wait …………
Indian Nationalist : You know how French revolution was possible and what results it got.
Mazzini : The circumstances then were different.
Indian Nationalist : Agitations will not show solutions.
Mazzini : We have to decide soon. The flames of revolution should be lit in young people.

Question 5.
Mark sentences that describe conservatives and liberals. Try to identify examples in our contemporary context.
Answer:

Question 6.
Draw a table to show the differences and similarities in the nation building process of France, Germany and Italy.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain what is meant by 1848 revolution of liberals. What were the political, social and economic ideas supported by the liberals?
Answer:
1848 revolt occurred duringthe period of Louis Philippe. Ideas of Socialism, Liberalism and Nationalism were increasing and finally resulted as Revolution of 1848. This revolution was led by liberal nationalists belonging to the educated middle-class and members of the commercial middle classes.
The ideas supported by the liberals were –

1. All the parties opposed monarchy as the king grew more and more reactionary and conservative.
2. Liberals raised their voice against the corruption of the government’s officials.
3. Work to every citizen was the demand of the socialistic party.
4. Reform Party leader ‘Theirs’ demanded extension of the suffrage and limitation of royal power.
   Not finding any other alternative Louis Philippe abdicated the throne and fled away to England. In 1848, Liberals took control of France and abolished monarchy.

Question 8.
Briefly trace the process of Germany unification.
(OR)
Describe the unification of Germany.
Answer:

• Nationalist feeling wide spread among middle class Germans.
• They tried to unite the different regions of the Germany in 1848.
• But it was oppressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military.
• Later Prussia took on the leadership for national unification.
• Its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck, was the architect of this process.
• He carried out this with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy.
• He waged three wars in seven years.
  a) War with Denmark
  b) Austro – Prussian war
  c) Franco – Prussian war
• Unification of Germany was accomplished by 1871.
• In January 1871, the Prussian king, William -1, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

Question 9.
Locate some changes on Europe map drawn up by the Vienna Congress.
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the last para of page 178 and comment on it.

Answer:

• Increasing economic hardship during the 1830s.
• Widespread unemployment, urban congestion, competition flow, machine made goods from England, Feudal dues, rising food prices, failed crops.
• Popular revolt in France in 1848 resulted in Louis Philippe fleeing, France declared a republic with voting for all men above – 21 and national workshops for more employment.
• Very critical conditions were prevailed.

Question 11.
Compare the map of Europe of mid 18th century (1815) with that of the present map of Europe and note down the changes you find, in a note book.
Answer:

The Congress of Vienna was held in order to draw up a plan to alter Europe politically and territorially so as to prevent the extensive expansion of any one great power, such as that Napoleon had brought about. To main¬tain the balance of power and establish a old regimes and to pacify the situations Vienna congress divided the different regions of Europe were brought under the power of different strongholds of Europe.

Later on, when the nations like Italy and Germany took up the ideas of Nationalism and moved for unification, they defeated those powers, which were being ruled by the other European powers. As a result of this, the structure of Europe, established by the congress of Vienna, got redrawn, and the present day Europe is established.

9th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In what ways do you think Napoleon’s conquests would have helped in the emergence of nationalism in those countries? (Text Book Page No. 174)
Answer:

• Napoleon formed a new political union under French patronage and called it “confederation of the Rhine”.
• He had abolished 112 small states and merged them into a bigger nation.
• As a result the complicated political map of Germany was made easy.
• These confederations raised the feeling of the nationalism in those countries.

Question 2.
How did nationalism and the idea of the nation-state emerge? (Text Book Page No. 174)
Answer:

• A nation state was one in which the majority of its citizens came to develop a sense of common identity and shared common history.
• This commonness did not exist from time immemorial, it was forged through struggles, through the actions of leaders and the common man.
• The French revolution gave the term “nation” its modern meaning.
• A nation is not the territory but the people who make it.
• The French revolution gave the meaning of sovereignty that the people constituting the nation are the source of all power and authority.
• Government is answerable to its people.
  All these ideals led to the formation of the nation -states.

Question 3.
Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity. (Text Book Page No. 174)
Answer:

• Language and popular traditions are important in the creation of national identity.
• National identity means people feeling that they belong to a nation irrespective of their caste, religion, colour etc.
• The language makes people identify themselves as a one race or a nation.
• Also the popular traditions such as Roman culture and tradition etc., easily attracted the people and strengthened the national integrity.

Question 4.
Explain why Charles X and Louis Philippe fled from france. (Text Book Page No. 180)
Answer:

• Revolutions means transformation of ideas and thoughts.
• Sometimes this transformations became violent and may lead to the execution of the king and queen.
  Ex : Charles X and Louis X VI
• In orderto avoid such kind of situations Charles X and Louis Philippe fled from France.

Question 5.
Describe the caricature. How does it represent the relationship between Bismarck and the elected deputies of parliament? What interpretation of democratic processes is the artist trying to convey? (Text Book Page No. 181)

Answer:
Bismarck’s dominance over the elected deputies of the Parliament is shown in the caricature. He followed ‘Blood and iron’ policy. He firmly believed that this policy only could achieve the unification of Germany but not the songs, speeches and festivals.

Question 6.
In what ways do you think the old kingdoms prevented the growth of trade and industry? (Text Book Page No. 176)
Answer:

• There was no free trade and there were lot of state-imposed restrictions.
• A merchant had to pass through so many customs barriers and pay a customs duty of about 5% at each customs officers.
• Due to these conditions, the growth of trade and industry was prevented in the old kingdom.

Question 7.
In what ways would liberal democracy have helped to develop trade and industry in those countries? (Text Book Page No. 176)
Answer:

• Liberal democracy stood for the freedom of markets.
• It also insisted on the abolition of state-imposed restrictions.
• Through the above measures, the liberal democracy have helped to develop trade and industry in their countries.

Question 8.
Do you think our country has a liberal democratic political system ? Give your reasons. (Text Book Page No. 176)
Answer:

• In India supreme power rests with the people.
• India is a republic country.
• Everyone is equal before law.
• Every citizen of 18 years and above has the right to vote.
• Any citizen is eligible to contest for any political office.
  Hence we can say India has liberal democratic political system.

Question 9.
Why do you think conservatism needs to curb freedom to express ones opinion and criticise? (Text Book Page No. 176)
Answer:

• Conservatism is the dominance of society by an aristocracy. It is incompatible with democracy, prosperity and civilization in general.
• The conservatives did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
• They imposed censorship laws to control the ideas of liberty and freedom associated with the French Revolution.

Question 10.
What is the caricaturist trying to depict? (Text Book Page No. 177)

Answer:
The caricaturist is trying to depict the thoughts of Jacobin clubs and the discontentment among people on the freedom of speech.

Question 11.
Indian nationalists also sought to revive and give importance to folk arts in India. Why do you think they thought this was important?
Answer:

• Our Indian nationalists sought to revive and give importance to folk arts in India.
• This was done to carry the message to large audience who were mostly illiterate.
• Another reason to use folk art was to revive our ancient national spirit.

Question 10.
Do you think Italy became a true nation state with its unification under King Emmanuel II? Give your reasons.
Answer:
No, because the unification of Italy was only made territorially. The much of the Italian population was illiterate. They had no idea of nationalist ideology. The peasant masses in Southern Italy had never heard of Italia. Hence, we can say that Italy did not become a true nation state.

Question 11.
Hold a debate in the class between those who agree with conservatism and those who agree with liberal democracy on what is best for the welfare and development of people in Europe or in India.
Answer:
Conservatism means supporting monarchy. The conservatives wanted to protect traditional institutions of state and society like the monarchy, the church, social hierarchies, property and family. They supported the modernisation initiated by Napoleon.

In monarchy, the king is the final. It he is good administrator, the people under him will be benefited. Otherwise they will suffer a lot.

Liberal democracy means the representative of the people rules the country for the will and wish of the people only. Without the concern of the people, he may not have whole right to take any action. The people have the power to remove him from the power when he goes wrong. Hence the government itself is people’s. Thus, democracy is the best form of government.