AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 4th Lesson Union Legislature Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 4th Lesson Union Legislature

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the speaker. [Mar. 18]
Answer:
Articles 93 to 97 of the Indian Constitution deal with the office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker acts as head of the Lok Sabha, guardian of members, and principal spokesman of the house. He enjoys Supreme Authority and power on the floor of the house.

Election :
The members of the Lok Sabha elect the Speaker from among themselves. According to the Parliamentary convention the speaker is unanimously elected or chosen by the members on the request of the Prime Minister.

A person elected as the speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha.

Tenure:
The speaker continues in office for five years. Though the Lok Sabha is dissolved the speaker continues in office until the new Lok Sabha elects its speaker. (Article 94).

Removal:
The speaker can be removed from office by a majority members, resolution, proceeded by a 14-day prior notice to that effect.

Salary and. allowances :
At present, the speaker receives a monthly salary of ₹ 1,40,000. Besides he is provided with rent free accommodation, Medical, travelling, and telephone facilities.

Powers and functions of the speaker :

  1. The speaker presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha. He conducts the meetings with dignity, order and efficiency.
  2. He allots time to the members to express their views on the bills, conducts voting if necessary and announces the results.
  3. He sends bills to the Rajya Sabha after they are approved by the Lok Sabha. On the receipt of the Bills from the Rajya Sabha, he certifies and sends them to the President of India for his consent.
  4. He acts as the representative of the Lok Sabha. He sends messages and directives to the members on behalf of the Lok Sabha.
  5. He takes steps for safeguarding the rights and privileges of the members and for upholding the respect of the house.
  6. He has the privilege of determining whether a bill is money bill or not.
  7. He accords permission to the members for introducing various bills in the house. He gives his signature on the bill approved by the house.
  8. He is empowered to permit the members to move a No-confidence motion against the government, postpone the meetings of the house and decide the Quorum in the house.
  9. He constitutes various house committees and appoints their chairpersons.
  10. He presides over the joint session of the Parliament.
  11. He exercises his casting vote in case of a tie over a bill. ,
  12. He conducts the election of the Deputy Speaker in case of a vacancy.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Question 2.
Explain the powers and functions of the Union Legislature. [Mar. 16]
(Or)
Write about the composition powers and functions of the Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Introduction :
The Union Legislature (Parliament) is the highest legislative organ of the Union government. Articles 79 to 129 in part V of Indian Constitution deals with the composition, organization, powers, and functions of the Indian Union Legislature.

Composition :
Indian Parliament consists of the

  1. President
  2. Rajya Sabha (Council of states)
  3. Lok Sabha (House of people)

The upper house Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories.

The lower house Lok Sabha represents the people.

The President of India has the power to summon or prorogue the two houses of Parliament though he is not a member of either house.

He can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Powers and functions of the Union Legislature (or) Indian Parliament :
The Parliament enjoys extensive powers and performs variety of functions. These powers and functions are under the following points.

1) Legislative Powers and Functions:
The main function of the Indian Parliament is law making. It makes laws on all the subjects mentioned in the Union List and Concurrent List. Under certain circumstances it also makes laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List. Further, it also makes laws on the matters that are not included in any of the three Lists i.e., on residuary matters.

2) Executive Powers and Functions :
Another important function of the Indian Parliament is controlling the Executive (Union Council of Ministers). Parliament controls the Executive through various ways, such as by asking questions, supplementary questions, and by introducing adjournment motions and no confidence resolutions against the Ministry. Hence the survival of the Government depends upon the will of the members in the Lower House. The executive remains in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

3) Financial Powers and Functions :
The Parliament controls the financial resources of the nation. It accepts the budget and other money bills required by the government. Its permission is needed for the government for imposing and collecting tax and for revising the existing tax rates. In this regard the Lok Sabha has more financial powers than the Rajya Sabha. All money, bills shall at first be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has to accept all money bills sent by the Lok Sabha within 14 days. It approves the railway budget, appropriation bill, and other money bills.

4) Judicial Powers and Functions :
The Parliament has certain judicial powers and functions. It has the power to remove the President and Vice President. The procedure is called impeachment. It has also the power to recommend to the President the removal of the higher officials of the country such as the Chief justice and Judges of Supreme Court, High Court and the Chairman, and other members of U.P.S.C., Chief Election Commissioner etc., for violation of certain principles.

5) Constitutional Powers and Functions:
The Parliament takes initiative for changing the provisions of the Constitution according to the changing times. Bills relating to the Constitution amendments may be introduced in either House. The State legislatures also join with the Parliament in accepting certain important Constitutional amendment bills. There are three methods of amending the Constitution.

6) Electoral Powers:
The Parliament also serves as an electoral college. It participates in the election of the President and Vice President. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker who act as the presiding officers are elected by the members of Lok Sabha. The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha.

7) Deliberative Powers and Functions :
The Parliament acts as the highest forum and direct agency of public opinion. Its members discuss various issues of national and international significance. They demand the government to solve the people’s problems.

8) Miscellaneous Powers :
In addition to the above, the Indian Parliament has also the power to a) create or abolish Legislative Councils b) change the names and boundaries of the States, etc.

Conclusion:
A look at the powers and functions of the Indian Parliament it is the centre of legislative activity and political activity of our country.

Question 3.
Examine the role of financial committees in Parliament.
Answer:
The Financial committees of Parliament endeavour of undertake the task of detailed scrutiny of governmental spending and performance, there by securing the accountability of the administration to the Parliament in financial matters.
There are three financial committees in Indian Parliament. They are :

  1. Public Accounts committee
  2. Estimates committee and
  3. Committee on public undertakings

1) Public Accounts Committee :
Public Accounts Committee was set up on 1921. It consists of 22 members. Out of them, 15 members belong to the Lok Sabha and 7 members to the Rajya Sabha. Their term of office is one year. They are elected by means of proportional representation and single transferable vote. The speaker nominates one of the members as the chairman of the committee. It became a convention to appoint one of the members of the opposition in the Lok Sabha as its chairman since 1967-68. The Committee performs the following functions :

  1. The Committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
  2. It examines Public Expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy prudence, wisdom, and property.
  3. It brings out the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union Government and any other accounts laid before the Lok Sabha.
  4. It examines whether the public funds are disbursed properly.
  5. It examines the accounts of Autonomous and Semi-Autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
  6. It investigates the money spent on any service during the financial year in the excess of the amount granted by the Lok Sabha for that purpose.

The Comptroller and Auditor General renders assistance to this committee. The members of this committee carry out a country-wide tour and meet the concerned officers non-officials, people and receive petitions from them and it submits a final report to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2) Estimates Committee :
The origin of this committee can be traced to the Standing Financial Committee setup in 1921. The Estimates Committee was at first constituted in April 1950 in free India. It consists of 30 members of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from among its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferrable vote. The members hold their office for a year.

The Speaker ha appoints the Chairman of the Committee. If the Duty Speaker is a member ttee, the Speaker appoints him as the Chairman of the Committee. One third of the total members belong to newly elected members. The Chairman of the Committee will be appointed invariably from the ruling party. Mr. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar acted the first chairman of this committee in the first Lok Sabha.

The members of this-committee may visit different projects and hold discussions with the officers, non-officials, business groups and receive suggestions from them. The committee functions on permanent basis.

The committee performs the following four important functions :

  1. It offers suggestions in regard to the economy in expenditure, improvement in organization and efficiency of the Union Government.
  2. It examines as to whether the public funds are disbursed as per the estimates.
  3. It also examines the matters assigned to it by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  4. It examines whether the money is well laid out within the, limits of the policy implied in the estimates. Hence, it has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.

3) Committee on Public Undertakings :
The Committee on Public Undertakings was created in 1964 on the recommendations of Krishan Menon Committee. It consists of 22 members out of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. The members of the committee are elected by the Parlianient every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

The purpose of the committee is to lighten the burden of Public Accounts Committee. The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. The members of Rajya Sabha are not be appointed as a Chairman of the committee. The functions of the committee are :

  1. To examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings.
  2. To examine the reports of the Comptroller and Audit of General on undertakings.
  3. To examine whether the affairs of the public undertakings are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and practices.
  4. To exercise such other functions vested in the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write about the composition of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha or the House of the people is the lower house in Indian Parliament. Maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent states, 20 to represent union territories and 2 members of Anglo-Indian community, to be nominated by the President).

At present there are 545 members in the Lok Sabha out of them,

  • 530 members are elected from the states.
  • 13 members are elected from the union territories and the remaining.
  • 02 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo Indian community.

Out of 543 elected seats, 79 seats are reserved for the scheduled castes and 41 for the scheduled tribes.

The election is through direct franchise.
The tenure of the Lok Sabha is normally 5 years.

A person who wishes to contest as a candidate for the membership of the Lok Sabha must
A) Be an Indian citizen.
B) Have completed 25 years of age.
C) Not hold any office of profit in union, state or local governments.
D) Possess such other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Question 2.
Explain the election of the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The members of the Lok Sabha elect the Speaker from among themselves. According to the Parliamentary convention, the speaker is unanimously elected or chosen by the members on the request of the Prime Minister.

When no single party secures majority or when a coalition Ministry is formed, the coalition Ministry is formed, the coalition partners will make efforts for deciding the candidature for the office of the speaker. Sometimes coalition partners may hand over that office to a candidate selected by the parties that declare support from outside. A person elected as the speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
What do you know about the composition and qualifications of members . of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Rajya Sabfya is the upper chamber in Indian Parliament. Article 80 stipulates that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of
A) 12 members nominated by the President and
B) Not more than 238 representatives of the states and of the union territories.

Thus its maximum membership shall be 250 only.
At present there are 245 members in the Rajya Sabha of them

  • 229 members belong to the elected from the 29 states.
  • 3 members belong to the National capital territory of Delhi.
  • 1 member represents the union territory of Pondicherry and the remaining.
  • 12 members nominated by the President having practical experience in respect of matters such as literature, science, arts and social service.

The members are elected in accordance with the proportional representation by means of single transferable vote system.

Qualifications :

  1. He shall be a citizen of India.
  2. He shall have completed 30 years of age.
  3. He should not hold any office of profit under union, state or local government.
  4. He shall possess such other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

The Raja Sabha is a permanent house of which l/3rd of its total members shall retire for every two years.

Question 4.
Write a note on the chairman and Deputy chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
The Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is popularly known as the Chairman. The Vice President of India acts as the Ex-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He is not a member of the House. The members of Parliament elected him for every five years as the Vice-President of India. It implies that both the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha cast their vote in the Vice-Presidential election.

At present he is paid ₹ 1,40,000/- towards monthly salary and allowances. His salaries and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha vacates his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice President.

Deputy Chairman:
The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha amongst the members. The Deputy Chairman receives a monthly salary of ₹ 90,000/-. In the absence of the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman acts as Chairman and presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha. Whenver the office of the Deputy Chairman falls vacant, the members of Rajya Sabha will elect another member to fill the vacancy.

Question 5.
Mention any three powers and functions of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
The Indian Parliament, the law body in our country, has extensive powers and performs a variety of functions. There are as follows : ‘

1) Legislative Powers :
The main function of the Indian Parliament is law making. It makes laws on all the subjects mentioned in the Union List and Concurrent List. Under certain circumstances it also makes laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List. Further, it also makes laws on the matters that are not included in any of the three Lists i.e., on residuary matters.

2) Executive Powers :
Another important function of the Indian Parliament is controlling the Executive (Union Council of Ministers) . The members exercise control over the Executive by asking questions, supplementary questions, and by introducing adjournment motions and no-confidence resolutions against the ministry. The ministers are collectively responsible for their actions, to the Lower House of the Parliament i.e., Lok Sabha. They will be in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the majority of members in the Lok Sabha.

3) Financial Powers :
The Parliament controls the financial resources of the nation. It accepts the budget and other money bills required by the government. It’s permission is needed for imposing and collecting taxes and for revising the existing tax rates. In this regard the Lok Sabha has more financial powers than Rajya Sabha.

Question 6.
Write a note on the types of bills.
Answer:
A Bill is a proposed law under consideration by a legislature. A bill does not become law until it is passed by the legislature. Once a bill has been enacted into law, it is called on Act or statute.

Bills introduced in the Parliament are of two typek 1) Public bill (Government bill) and 2) Private bills (Private member’s bills) the public bills are introduced by the Ministers in the Parliament whereas private bills are introduced by any member of Parliament other than a Minister. The bills introduced in the Parliament may also be classified into four categories.

1) Ordinary bill:
Ordinary bills are concerned with any matter other than financial subjects.

2) Money bill:
Money bills are concerned with the financial matters like taxation, public expenditure etc.

3) Finance bill:
The financial bills are also concerned with financial matters but are different from money bills. These bills deal with fiscal matters i.e., revenue of, expenditure.

4) Constitutional Amendment Bill: Constitutional Amendment bills are concerned with the provisions of the constitution.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Question 7.
Explain briefly about the stages of law-making procedure in Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Law making is an important function of Indian Parliament. The Parliament has the power to pass all acts. A bill becomes an act after it receives the assent of the President. Every bill has to pass through different stages as described below.

1) First Reading:
A bill may be introduced by any member of Parliament. One has to ask for the leave of the House to introduce a bill. The title of the bill is to be read out. If the bill is voted for it is deemed to have been read first time and is published in the Gazette of India.

2) Second Reading:
The printed copies of the bill are distributed to all the members at this stage. It may be moved that the bill be referred to a select committee or that the bill be circulated for public opinion. There will be a general discussion on the main principles of the bill at this stage.

3) Committee Stage :
If the House approves the principles, the bill is referred to and examined by the select committee. Then it is thoroughly discussed clause by clause.

4) Report Stage :
The report of the committee with suggestions is presented to the House. If the House agrees to consider the bill as reported by the select committee the bill is taken up for clause by clause discussions and members may move amendments.

5) Third Reading:
The bill enters for the third reading. If it is approved by the House, only oral amendments are allowed at this stage. If the House accepts the bill it is deemed to have been passed by the House.

6) Consideration by the other House :
When the bill is passed by the House, it is sent to the other House for consideration. The procedure in one House is repeated in the other House. If the second House disagrees, a joint sitting is arranged to resolve the differences.

7) Assent by President:
If the bill is passed by both the Houses of Parliament, it is sent to the President for his assent. After the bill is given assent, it becomes an act which will be implemented by the Executive.

The President sometimes send a bill passed by the Parliament for reconsideration. The suggestions sent by the President along with the bill have to be taken up for discussion by the Parliament immediately. If the bill is passed second time by the Parliament, then the President has to give his assent to the bill.

Question 8.
What do you know about Public Accounts Committee.
Answer:
Public Account’s Committee was set up in 1921. It consists of 22 members. Out of them 15 members belong to the Lok Sabha and 7 members to the Rajya Sabha. Their term of office is one year. They are elected by means of proportional representation and single transferable vote. It became a convention to appoint one of the members of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha as its chairman since 1967-68. The Committee performs the following functions :

  1. The Committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
  2. It examines Public Expenditure not only from legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of economy prudence, wisdom and property.
  3. It brings out the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union Government and any other accounts laid before the Lok Sabha.
  4. It examines whether the public funds are disbursed properly.
  5. It examines the accounts of Autonomous and Semi-Autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
  6. It investigates the money spent on any service during the financial year in the excess of the amount granted by the Lok Sabha for that purpose.

Question 9.
Describe the composition and functions of Estimates Committee.
Answer:
The Estimates Committee was setup in 1950. It consists of 30 members of the Lok Sabha. The members hold their office for a year. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Committee. If the Duty Speaker is a member of this Committee, the

Speaker appoints him as the Chairman of the Committee. The members of this committee may visit different projects and hold discussions with the officers, non-officials, business groups and receive suggestions from them. The committee functions on permanent basis.

The committee performs the following four important functions :

  1. It offers suggestions in regard to the economy in expenditure, improvement in organization and efficiency of the Union Government.
  2. It examines as to whether the public funds are disbursed as per the estimates.
  3. It also examines the matters assigned to it by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  4. It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. Hence, it has been described as a “continuous economy committee”.

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Composition of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Indian Parliament consists of the i) President ii) Rajya Sabha (Council of states ) iii) Lok Sabha (House of people)
The upper house, Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories.

The lower house, Lok Sabha represents the people.

The President of India has the power to summon or prorogue the two houses of Parliament though he is not a member of either house.

He can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister :

Question 2.
Qualifications of Rajya Sabha member.
Answer:

  1. He shall be a citizen of India.
  2. He shall have completed 30 years of age.
  3. He should not hold any office of profit under union, state or local government.
  4. He shall possess such other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

Question 3.
Quorum of Lok Sabha. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
Quorum implies minimum attendance of members required for conducting the meetings of the Lok Sabha. Quorum is fixed at l/10th of the total membership. The speaker determines whether there is Quorum on a particular day for conducting the meetings.

Whenever there is no Quorum, he postpones the meetings for an hour or two or for the next day. There are several instances where in the meetings of the Lok Sabha were deffered due to lack of Quorum.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Question 4.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The office of the Speaker has great dignity, honour and authority. As the speaker acts as the chairman of the Lok Sabha and as the member of the Lok Sabha represents the people directly. He represents the whole Nation. He acts as the friend, philosopher and guide to the members.

Question 5.
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
There will be a Deputy Speaker for conducting the proceedings of the Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Deputy Speaker while acting as the presiding officer, enjoys all the powers and priveleges of the Speaker.

Question 6.
Committee on Public Undertakings. [Mar. 17]
Answer:
The Committee on Public Undertakings was created in 1964. It consists of 22 members out of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It examines whether the autonomy and efficiency of public sector undertakings are being managed in accordance with Sound business principles and prudent commercial practices.

Question 7.
Panel of Speakers.
Answer:
The Speaker nominates some of the members of the Lok Sabha as panel speakers. Maximum strength of panel chairpersons will be 10. If both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent at particular time, one of the members from the panel of chairpersons will act as the Speaker. ,

Question 8.
Pro-tem Speaker.
Answer:
The President appoints the pro-tem Speaker for presiding over the meeting of the] first session of the Parliament after general elections. The pro-tem Speaker administers the oath of office on the elected members. Election to the office of the Speaker is held later. Pro-tem Speaker post is dissolved soon after the election of the new Speaker.

Question 9.
Question Hour. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
In both houses of Parliament first hour is allotted to question hour. The members, by giving notice to the presiding officer, can ask questions pertaining to public issues, administrative inefficiency or about the role of the government.

Question 10.
Adjournment Motion.
Answer:
Adjournment Motion is tabled in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. If any member wants to introduce adjournment motion he should give in writing to the speaker, the Minister concerned and the Secretary General of Parliament before 10 A.M. on that day.

Question 11.
Whip [Mar. 17]
Answer:
Every political party whether ruling or opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the concerned party to serve as an assistant floor leader. He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by whip, otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken against those members.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 4 Union Legislature

Question 12.
No Confidence Motion.
Answer:
According to Article 75 of the constitution, No Confidence Motion can be tabled in the Parliament when the Cabinet behaves in an irresponsible manner and if the ruling party does not enjoy majority. No confidence motion is introduced by the opposition parties through written notice supported by atleast 50 members and there will be a discussion on the motion. After the discussion there will be a voting. If the No-Confidence Motion is passed or approved In the house the cabinet has to resign.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 3 Union Executive

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 3rd Lesson Union Executive Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 3rd Lesson Union Executive

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
Introduction:
The President of India is the constitutional head of the Indian Republic. He is the First citizen of India. He administers the affairs of the union Government either himself or through the officers subordinate to him. (Articles 52 and 53)

Qualifications :
A person to be eligible to contest the office of the President shall possess the following qualifications :

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.
  3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. He should not hold any office of profit under the union, state or local Governments (Article 59 (i))
  5. Possess such other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

Election Procedure :
The President of India shall be elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies and elected members of Delhi and Pondicheri. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote system and secret ballot.

Oath of office :
The person who is elected as President assumes office only after he takes oath of office and secrecy by the Chief Justice of India.

Term of office :
The President continues in office for five years from the date of his assumption of office.

Salary and Allowances :
The President now gets a monthly salary of ₹ 1,50,000/-. His official residence is Rashtrapathi Bhavan at New Delhi. On retirement, he will get a monthly pension of ₹ 75,000/-.

Removal (or) Impeachment :
The President can be removed from the office by a process of impeachment for violation of the constitution. Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure adopted by the Parliament.

Powers and Functions :
The President shall exercise his powers with the help of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. His powers may be analysed under the following heads :

1. Executive Powers :
An executive action of the Union Government shall be expressed in the name of the President. The President appoints the Prime Minister and other Ministers, Attorney General, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, State Governors, Judges of the Supreme Court and State High Courts, Finance Commission, Chairman and members of U.P.S.C., Election Commission, and Chief Commissioners of Unit Territories. He allocates portfolios to the Ministers.

2. Legislative Powers :
The President is an integral part of Parliament (Art. 79) and as such enjoys extensive legislative powers.
They are :

  1. He summons from time to time each House of Parliament, adjours, and prorogues either or both the Houses.
  2. He addresses either House separately or both the Houses Jointly.
  3. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  4. He opens the first session of Parliament after the General Elections and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
  5. He can send messages to the Parliament.
  6. He arranges a joint session of both the Houses when there is a dead-lock over an ordinary bill.
  7. All bills passed by Parliament require his assent for becoming in acts.
  8. He nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha and two Anglo Indian members to Lok Sabha.
  9. He promulgates ordinances when the Parliament is not in session.
  10. He sends the annual reports of Finance Commission, U.P.S.C etc., for the consideration and approval of Parliament.

3. Financial Powers :
The President also enjoys some financial powers. They are :

  1. He recommends the financial bills to be introduced by the members in parliament. The Budget is caused to be laid down before the Parliament by the President.
  2. He operates the Consolidated Fund of India.
  3. He determines the shares of States in the proceeds of Income Tax.
  4. No Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament except on his recommendations.
  5. He constitutes a Finance Commission for every five years etc.

4. Judicial Powers :

  1. The President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments.
  2. He appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and State High Courts.
  3. He can also remove them on an address by the Parliament.

5. Military Powers:
The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the Union. He appoints the Chiefs on the Staff for Army, Navy, and Air Force. He can declare war and conclude peace. But he has to take the approval of Parliament.

6. Diplomatic Powers :
The president appoints Ambassadors to foreign countries to represent India. He receives the credentials of the Ambassadors appointed in India. He represents our Nation in International affairs. He makes treaties and agreements with other countries subject to the ratification by the Parliament.

7. Emergency Powers :
In extraordinary conditions, the President can proelaim emergency to safeguard the security, integrity, and independence of our country. They are of three types :

  • Emergency caused by war or external aggression or armed rebellion (Article 352).
  • Emergency due to failure of Constitutional machinery in the States (Article 356)
  • Emergency due to threat to the financial stability of India (Article 360).

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 3 Union Executive

Question 2.
Write briefly the Emergency powers of the President of India. [Mar. 16]
Answer:
Articles 352 to 360 of part XVIII of Indian constitution deals with three types of emergency powers of the Indian President. They are :

  1. National Emergency,
  2. Constitutional Emergency,
  3. Financial Emergency

They may be explained as follows.
1) National Emergency : (Article 352)
The President exercises this power during the period of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. He declares emergency if he is satisfied that the sovereignty and security of India or any part thereof is threatened by external aggression.

When National Emergency is in force, the federal provisions of our constitution ceases to operate. So far, National Emergency was proclaimed on four occasions in our country. They are : 1. Chinese Aggression (1962), 2. Indo – Pak war (1965), 3. Indo – Pak war in the context of Bangladesh Liberation Movement (1971), 4. Opposition’s call for blocking Parliament (1975).

2) Constitutional Emergency : (Article 356)
Article 356 of Indian constitution empowers the President to proclaim the constitutional emergency. If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or other wise; is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on according to the constitutional provisions. He is empowered to proclaim this emergency. It is also called as the President’s Rule. So far this type of emergency was proclaimed for over 100 times.

3) Financial Emergency : (Article 360)
If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen where by the financial stability or credit of India is threatended, then he may proclaim financial emergency in the country. During the period of financial emergency, the President enjoys the following powers.

  • The President may reserve all the money bills or other financial bills of the state after they are approved by the state legislature.
  • He may reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any person serving in the states.
  • The President can reduce the salaries allowances of the persons working at the union level including the judges of the Supreme Court and the State High Courts. But so far the financial emergency has not been yet imposed in the country.

Question 3.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union Government. He occupies an important position in the administration of our country. Since India has a Parliamentary form of Government the real power rests with him. He is the ‘uncrowned king’ and “the keystone of the Cabinet arch in the Union Government”.

Qualifications :

  1. He should be citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed the age of 25 ytears.
  3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. He should not hold any office of profit under the union or state or local governments.

Appointment:
The President appoints the Prime Minister. Generally the President has to summon the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha to form the Ministry. If no party gets an absolute majority, the President can use his discretion and summon the leader of the party, who in his opinion can manage to form a ministry. Afterwards the Prime Minister will be asked to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha.

Oath of Office :
The President of India will administers the oath of office of the Prime Minister.

Term of Office :
The Prime Minister shall remain in office during the pleasure of the President. But actually he assumes his powers as long as he retains the confidence of the majority members in the Lok Sabha. He resigns when the Lok Sabha accepts a no-confidence motion against his ministry.

Salary and Allowances:
The salary and allowances of Prime Minister are decided by the Parliament from time to time. He gets his salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament. At present the Prime Minister gets a salary and allowances of ₹ 1,60,000/- per month.

Powers and Functions :
The Prime Minister is the head of the union government. He is the real executive. The Council of Ministers cannot exist without the Prime Minister. His powers are explained here under.

1) Leader of the Union Cabinet:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the Union Cabinet and Union Council of Ministers. He selects some eminent members of his party in parliament and sees that they are appointed as ministers by the President. He has a free choice of both allocating portfolios and reshuffling the ministry. All the ministers are personally and politically loyal to the Prime Minister. He decides the agenda, of the cabinet meetings. Further, he presides over the cabinet meetings.

2) Leader of the Union Government:
The Prime Minister acts as the leader of the union government. The union executive (Union Council of Ministers) initiates its business after the swearing in ceremony of the Prime Minister. All the ministers in the union ministry assume their office, owe their position and exercise their powers along with the Prime Minister. Infact, the Prime Minister influences the nature and working of the union government. He not only has a clear understanding but holds complete control over the affairs of the union government. All the high-level officers and the entire ministry in the union government behave and act according to the wishes of the Prime Minister.

3) Leader of the parliament:
The Prime Minister acts the leader of the Parliament in India. He is primarily a member of Parliament. He extends co-operation to the presiding officers in the smooth conduct of the two Houses. He wields complete control over his party members in the Parliament. He ensures that his party members maintain discipline during the sessions of the Parliament. He informs out the cabinet decisions to the Parliament. He communicates the major domestic and foreign policies of the union government to the members of Parliament. He maintains rapport with the opposition leaders and discusses the major issues confronted by the nation with them.

4) Link between the President and the Council of Ministers :
The Prime Minister acts as the main link between the President and the Union Council of Ministers. It is his duty to communicate to the President about the decisions of the Union Council of Ministers. He furnishes the every information required by the President concerning the affairs of union government. All the ministers shall formally meet the President only with the consent of the Prime Minister.

5) Leader of the Majority Party:
The Prime Minister acts as the leader of the majority party or group in the lower House of Parliament. He participates in the meetings of the party and acquaints his party members on various issues and steps taken by his ministry in implementing the party promises. He utilizes the services of the senior party leaders in running the government. He acts as the main link between the part and the government.

6) Leader of the Nation :
The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation. He takes initiative in finding solutions to several problems in the internal matters of the country. He plays an important role in the development of the nation.

7) Maker of Foreign Policy :
The Prime Minister plays a dominant role in shaping the foreign policy of the nation. He keeps in touch with the developments in all countries. He meets Heads of various countries and maintains friendly relations with them.

8) Chairman of NITI Aayog :
The Prime Minister heads the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) NITI Aayog means policy commission. It is a policy think tank of government of India that replaces planning commission which aims to involve the states in economic policy making in India. It will provide strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments. It will have a governing council comprising Chief Ministers of all the states and it governors of Union Territories. Union government set up the NITI Aayog on January 1,-2015.

Question 4.
Explain the composition, powers and functions of the Union Council of Ministers. .
Answer:
Article 74 (1) of the Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers at the Centre. It’s main function is to aid and advice the President in the performance of his duties. It consists of Prime Minister and other Ministers. It is this body which runs the entire administration of our country. It is thefreal Executive authority of the country. It functions on the ‘Principle of Collective Responsibility1. It holds office till it continues to enjoy the confidence and support of the Lok Sabha.

Formation of Council of Ministers :
The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with the appointment of the Prime Minister. The President appoints the Prime Minister and on the advice of the Prime Minister, the other Ministers are appointed by the President.

Composition of Council of Ministers :
Our Constitution did not mention the exact size of the Union Council of Ministers. But there are three kinds of Ministers:

  1. Cabinet Ministers
  2. Ministers of State
  3. Deputy Ministers.

The Cabinet Ministers are entrusted with the maintenance of some important ministries. They enjoy independence and decision making powers.

The Ministers of State act as the heads of some important sections in the ministry. They are directly responsible to the Prime Minister for their activities.

The Deputy Ministers have no independent and discretionary powers. They assist the Cabinet Ministers and perform the functions assigned to them.

The Cabinet or the Council of Ministers is the pivot around which the entire administration of our country revolves. “It is the steering wheel of the ship of the State.” It is the hyphen that joins the Executive and Legislative organs of the Government.

Powers and Functions :
1. Executive Powers :
The Union Cabinet is a deliberative and policy formulating body. It discusses and decides all National and International policies of the country. The policies decided by the cabinet are carried out by the Ministers. It directs and leads the Parliament for action and gets its approval for all its policies. It coordinates and guides the activities of departments of the Government. It also plays an important role by suggesting persons for all major appointments. It considers the reports of various committees before they are presented to the Parliament.

2. Legislative Powers :
The Cabinet plans the legislative programme of the Government at the beginning of each session of Parliament. It drafts Bills on all important matters and introduces them in the Parliament. It also decides the time of summoning and prorogation of Parliament. The inaugural speech of the President to the Parliament is prepared by the Cabinet.

3. Financial Powers:
The Cabinet possess important financial powers. It has complete control over national finance. It prepares the Union Budget. It decides what taxes are to be imposed and how much of expenditure is to be incurred. Money Bills are always introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Finance Minister.

4. Foreign Relations :
In the field of foreign relations also the Cabinet plays an important role. It determines and formulates the foreign policy of the country and decides India’s relations with other countries. It considers and approves all international treaties and agreements.

Collective Responsibility :
Article 75(3) of Indian constitution stated that the union council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, for all their acts of commissions and commissions. They act as a team under the leadership of the Prime Minister. They sail together, they swim together and they sink together.

Conclusion:
It is thus clear that the Council of Minister or Cabinet enjoys far reaching powers both with regard to the internal and external policies of the country. Internally it maintains law and order within the country and externally protects the country from foreign aggression. The progress of the country largely depends upon the ability of the Cabinet.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How is the President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India shall be elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies and elected members of Delhi and Pondicheri. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote system and secret ballot.

Each member of the Electoral College has one vote. But the value of the vote differes from State to State. The value of the vote of a Parliament member also differs from the value of the vote of a member of State Assembly.

The value of the vote of an M.L.A is worked out as follows. The total population of the State is divided by the total number of elected members of the Assembly. The quotient thus obtained is to be divided by 1,000. Fractions of half or more should be counted as one and added to the quotient. If it is less than half, it is ignored. This may be shown as follows.

  1. Value of vote of an M.L.A = Population of State / number of elected members of the Assembly / 1,000.
  2. Value of vote of M.P. = Total value of votes of all Assembly members / Total number of elected members of both Houses of Parliaments.

This method is followed to keep the election of the President above narrow political considerations.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 3 Union Executive

Question 2.
Write briefly about the procedure of impeachment of President
Answer:
The President may be removed from the office for violation of the constitution by a process of impeachment. Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure adopted by the Parliament. Either House of Parliament shall prefer the charge for removal of the President. The other House shall investigate into the charges itself or cause the charge to be investigated.

There are four stages in the impeachment of the President.

Firstly the impeachment resolution has to be moved with a 14 days prior notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total members of that House. Such a resolution has to be passed by a majority of not less than 2/3rds of the total members of the House.

Secondly, the resolution approved by the first House will be sent to the second House for consideration and approval.

Thirdly, the second House investigates into the charges directly or constitutes a committee to enquire into the charges. The President has the right to present his views directly or through a deputy during such enquiry.

Fourthly, if the charges against the President are established and adopted by the second House with 2/3rds majority of the total members, the President stands removed from the office. With regard to voting on the resolution for impeachment, only the elected members cast their vote. No president has so far been impeached in our country till today.

Question 3.
Mention any two Emergency powers of the Indian President.
Answer:
1) National Emergency : (Article 352)
The President exercises this power during the period of war, External aggression or armed rebellion. He declares emergency if he is satisfied that the sovereignty and security of India or any part thereof is threatened by external aggression.

When National Emergency is in force, the federal provisions of our constitution ceases to operate. So far, National Emergency was proclaimed on four occasions in our country. They are :

  1. Chinese Aggression (1962) ‘
  2. Indo – Pak war (1965) .
  3. Indo – Pak war in the context of Bangaldesh Liberation Movement (1971)
  4. Oppositions call for blocking Parliament (1975)

2) Constitutional Emergency : (Article 356)
Article 356 of Indian constitution Empowers the President to proclaim the constitutional emergency. If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or other wise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on according to the constitutional provisions. He is empowered to proclaim this emergency, It is also called as the President’s rule. So far this type of emergency was proclaimed for over 100 times.

Question 4.
Explain the role and position of the President in Union Government.
Answer:
The President of India is the head of the union executive. He is the first citizen of India. He could exercise many powers as enstined in the constitution in the following manner.

Position of the President:
There are different opinions on the actual position of the president of India in the administration of our country. The farmers of the constitution wanted him to be a nominal Head of the state.

Dr. Ambedkar compared his position to that of the British King Sri. M. C. Setalved, the farmer Attorney General of India mentioned that the position of the President of India is like the king in England and the Governor General in a Dominion. Sri Alladi Krishna Swamya Ayyar also said that it was perfectly clear that our presidents position was similar to that of the constitutional Monarch in England.

Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, said that “We have not given our President any real power but we have made his position one of great authority and dignity.” These opinions make it clear that our President is only a nominal figure head and he does not have any real powers. This is confirmed by the 42nd Amendment of the constitution of India.

However, the President exercises independent powers under some conditions. He utilises these powers in regard to the appointment of the Prime Minister, dissolving the Lok Sabha and ordering midterm poll to the Lok Sabha. Some presidents like Sanjiva Reddy, Zail Singh, R.Venkata Raman, Dr. S.D. Sharma etc., utilised their discretionary powers where there was political instability or Hung Parliament after the general elections in the country. Like the Monarch of England, he still enjoys three rights the right to be ! consulted the right to encourage and the right to warn.

Question 5.
Write about any two powers of the Vice – President of India.
Answer:
The Vice President of India occupies the second highest position in the union government. He is accorded a rank next to the President.

Qualifications :
A person to be eligible as vice-president should possess the following qualifications.

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
  3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the eousil of states.
  4. He should not hold any office of profit under the union, state or local Governments in India.

Election :
The election of the vice – president like that of the President shall be indirect and in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote system. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both the houses of Parliament.

Term of Office :
The Vice-President holds office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters his office.

Removal:
The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of states passed by a majority of all the members of the council and agreed to by the house of the people.

Salary and Allowances :
The Vice President of India receives a monthly salary of ₹ 1,25,000/-in addition, he is entitled to daily allowance, free furnished residence, medical, travel and other facilities.

Powers and Functions :
The Vice – President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. As. such he enjoys the same powers like the Speaker of Lok Sabha, such as (1) presiding over the meetings of Rajya Sabha, (2) maintaining discipline, decency and decorum in the House, (3) exercising casting vote in case of a tie, (4) admitting visitors, (5) protecting the privileges and rights of the members. He has no right with regard to money bills.

Acting as President of India :
He discharges the functions of the President during the temporary absertce of the President. He may take over the office of the President under 4 situations like (1) Death of the President, (2) Resignation of the President, (3) Removal of the President, (4) Inability of the President due to absence, illness or any other cause.

Question 6.
How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer:
Article 75 (1) of the Indian constitution deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister of India.

Appointment:
The constitution simply lays down that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. After the conduct of General Elections to the Lok Sabha, the President has to invite the majority party leader of the Ldk Sabha to form the Government.

When no single party is able to secure majority seats in Lok Sabha, the President invites the leader of a coalition to form the Government. The president uses his discretionary powers in this regard. The President appoints the leader of the coalition as the Prime Minister on the condition that he has to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha within a specified period. Being the leader of the majority in Lok Sabha to be the Prime Minister, the person has to be a member of Parliament. If he is not a member at the time of appointment, he has to acquire it within six months from the date of his appointment as Prime Minister.

The powers of the President in choosing, inviting and appointing the Prime Minister cannot be questioned in any court of Law.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 3 Union Executive

Question 7.
Explain the role of the Prime Minister in Union Government.
Answer:
The prime Minister plays a predominant role in the affairs of the union government. He will have an indelible impression on every one in the administration of the union government. He is described as the Primus Interparus (first among equals). His role as the leader of the Union Council of Ministers, Union Cabinet, Party in power, Lok Sabha, Nation and as the link between the President and the Union Council of Ministers is unique. He wields tremendous political power and patronage. He enjoys enormous powers and fulfils innumerable tasks. It all depends on the image, influence, stature, and personality of the Prime Minister in the union government.

Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Ambedkar, and other eminent leaders of the National Movement and members of the Constituent Assembly described the Prime Minister as the linchpin of the union government. It is in this context that Sir william Harcourt remarked that every one expects from the Prime Minister dignity and authority, firmness to control, tact, practice and firmness, an impartial mind, a tolerant temper, a kind and prudent counsellorship, and accessibility to the people.

Question 8.
Describe the composition and powers of the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Composition of Council of Ministers :
Our Constitution did not mention the exact size of the Union Council of Ministers. But there are three kinds of Ministers: 1) Cabinet Ministers 2) Ministers of State 3) Deputy Ministers.

The Cabinet Ministers are entrusted with the maintenance of some important ministries. They enjoy independence and decision making powers.

The Ministers of State act as the heads of some important sections in the ministry. They are directly responsible to the Prime Minister for their activities.

The Deputy Ministers have no independent and discretionary powers. They a&ist the Cabinet Ministers and perform the functions assigned to them.

The Cabinet Or the Council of Ministers is the pivot around which the entire administration of our country revolves. “It is the steering wheel of the ship of the State”. It is the hyphen that joins the Executive and Legislative organs of the Government.

Powers and Functions :
1) Executive Powers :
The Union Cabinet is a deliberative and policy formulating body. It discusses and decides all National and International policies of the country. The policies decided by the cabinet are carried out by the Ministers. It directs and leads the Parliament for action and gets its approval for all its policies. It co-ordinates and guides the activities of departments of the Government. It also plays an important role by suggesting persons for all major appointments. It considers the reports of various committees before they are presented to the Parliament.

2) Legislative Powers :
The Cabinet plans the legislative programme of the Government at the beginning of each session of. Parliament. It drafts Bills on all important matters and introduces them in the Parliament. It also decides the time of summoning and prorogation of Parliament. The inaugural speech of the President to the Parliament is prepared by the Cabinet.

3) Financial Powers :
The Cabinet possesses important financial powers. It has complete control over national finance. It prepares the Union Budget. It decides what taxes are to be imposed and how much of expenditure is to be incurred. Money Bills are always introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Finance Minister.

4) Foreign Relations :
In the field of foreign relations also the Cabinet plays an important role. It determines and formulates the foreign policy of the country and decides India’s relations with other countries. It considers and approves all international treaties and agreements.

Very Short answers

Question 1.
Composition of the Union Executive.
Answer:
The constitution of India provides for the Union Executive. Articles 52 to 78 in part V of the constitution deal with the union executive. The Union Executive consists.
i) The President
ii) The Vice-President
iii) The Prime Minister and
iv) The Union Council of Ministers

Question 2.
Qualifications required for contesting the Presidential elections.
Answer:
A person to be eligible to contest the office of the president shall possess the following qualifications.

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.
  3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or Local Governments.
  5. Possess such other qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

Question 3.
Election of President.
Answer:
The President of India shall be elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and elected members of Delhi and Pondicheri. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote system and secret ballot.

Question 4.
Important appointments of President.
Answer:
The president has the power to appoint the following high dignitaries :

  • The Prime Minister of India.
  • Members of the union council of Ministers.
  • The Affomey General of India.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor general of India.
  • The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
  • State Governors etc.

Question 5.
Judicial Powers of the President.
Answer:

  1. The President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments.
  2. He appoints the Judges of the Supreme Court and State High Courts.
  3. He can also remove them on an address by the Parliament.

Question 6.
Article 352. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
Article 352 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to impose National Emergency during the period of war, External Aggression, Armed Rebellion or internal disturbance. So far National Emergency was proclaimed on Four occasions. They are :

  1. Chinese Aggression (1962)
  2. Indo – Pak War (1965)
  3. Indo – Pak war in the context of Bangladesh Liberation movement (1971) and
  4. Opposition’s call for blocking Parliament (1975).

Question 7.
Article 356.
Answer:
Article 356 of Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim the constitutional emergency. If the President on receipt of a report from the governor or otherwise is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on according to the constitutional provisions. He is empowered to proclaim this emergency. It is also called as the President’s Rule.

Question 8.
Financial Emergency.
Answer:
If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen where by the financial stability or credit of India is threatened then he may proclaim financial emergency in the country as per Article 360 of the Indian Constitution.

Question 9.
National Emergency.
Answer:
Article 352 of the Indian constitution empowers the president to impose National Erpergency during the period of war, External Aggression, Armed Rebellion or Internal disturbances. When National Emergency is in force, the Federal provisions of our constitution cease to operate. So far, National Emergency was imposed four times in 1962, 1965, 1971 and 1975.

Question 10.
Qualifications required for contesting as Vice-President. [Mar. 16]
Answer:
A person to be eligible for election as Vice-president should possess the following qualifications : ,

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
  3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the council of states.
  4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or Local Governments in India.

Question 11.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha,
Answer:
The Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. As such he enjoys the same powers like the speaker of Lok Sabha such as

  1. Presiding over the meetings of Rajya Sabha.
  2. Maintaining discipline, decency and decorum in the House.
  3. Exercising casting vote in case of a tie.
  4. Protecting the privileges and rights of the members.

Question 12.
Appointment of Prime Minister.
Answer:
After the conduct of General elections of the Lok Sabha, the President has to invite the majority party leader of the Lok Sabha to form the Government. When no single party is able to secure majority seats in Lok Sabha, the President invites the Leader of a coalition to form the Government. The president uses his discretionary powers in this regard.

Question 13.
Categories of Union Council of Ministers.
Answer:
There are three kinds of ministers in the union council of ministers. They are

  1. Cabinet Minister.
  2. Ministers of State.
  3. Deputy Ministers.

1) The Cabinet Ministers are entrusted with the maintenance of some important ministries like Finance, Home, Defence etc.

2) The Ministers of state act as the heads of some important sections in the Ministry. They are directly responsible to the Prime Minister for their activities.

3) The Deputy Ministers have no independent and discretionary powers. They assist the Cabinet Ministers.

Question 14.
Any two functions of the Union Cabinet.
Answer:

  1. The Union Cabinet formulates the policies of the union government. It finalizes the domestic as well as foreign policies of the nation after having serious deliberations.
  2. It pilots several bills in the Parliament at various stages and strives to secure the approval of the latter.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 3 Union Executive

Question 15.
Collective Responsibility. [Mar. 18]
Answer:
Article 75 (3) of Indian constitution stated that the union council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, for all their acts of omissions and commissions. They act as a team tinder the leadership of the Prime Minister. They sail together, they swim together and they sink together.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 2 Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 2nd Lesson Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 2nd Lesson Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristic Features of Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights :
Fundamental Rights are an important feature of Indian constitution. They are meant for Indian citizens realising the ideal of political democracy. These rights are assigned to the Indian citizens. They enable the citizens to realize their personality. Fundamental Rights will act as a means for leading a happy and honourable life by citizens their render strength and succor to the citizens. They serve as the main source for realising the ideals of political democracy in India.

The makers of Indian constitution have incorporated Fundamental Rights in Articles 12-35 in part III of the constitution.

Characteristics features of Fundamental Rights :
Fundamental Rights have the following characteristic features.

1) Some of the fundamental rights are granted to the ‘citizens’ alone for example, equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, protection against discrimination on any ground; freedom of speech, assembly, association, etc., and cultural and educational rights of the minorities. On the other hand, some of the fundamental rights are available to any person living in the country whether Indian of foreign. For example, equality before law and its equal protection, protection of life, freedom of religion etc.

2) Some of the fundamental rights are positive in nature. They provide scope for the citizens to enjoy some types of freedom. On the other hand, some of the fundamental rights are negative in nature. They impose some restrictions upon the activities of the state.

3) Fundamental Rights are not absolute. In this sense the state can impose reasonable restrictions on their utilisation and enjoyment in the interest of public order, morality, and friendly relations with foreign states.

4) State may impose some restrictions on all or some of the fundamental rights of the citizens during the emergency. The president of India can suspend all the fundamental rights except article 21 (Right to Life) during the national emergency. However, the freedoms guaranteed can’t be restricted by any body.

5) Fundamental Rights are component of the Indian constitution. So they can’t be altered through ordinary laws.

6) Fundamental Rights are comprehensive, integrative and detailed in nature. Some restraints have also been imposed against the utilization of these rights under specific conditions.

7) Fundamental Rights are protected by the judicial organizations in the country. Especially the Supreme court and state High courts play a crucial role in this regard. The ensure justice to those whose rights are infringed or confiscated by others including the state authorities. They issue several writes for the protection of fundamental rights.

8) Fundamental Rights serve as the main means for proper utilization of the capacities and intelligence hidden among the Indian citizens.

9) Though the constitution guarantees six categories of fundamental Rights, all are not of equal weight. That is three can be discovered a hierarchy of values. It becomes evident when justice M. Hidayatullah in the Golaknath case ruled that right to property is the Weakest of all rights’.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 2 Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Question 2.
Explain the various types of Directive principles of state policy mentioned in Indian constitution. [Mar. 18, 17]
Answer:
Directive principles of state policy are enumerated in articles from 36 to 51 in past -IV of the Indian constitution. They are borrowed from the Irish constitution. They help in realizing the objectives mentioned in the preamble.

Types of Directive principles of state policy: Directive principles can be classified into three broad categories namely Socialistic, Liberal-intellectual and Gandhian principles.

Article 36 defines the term “State”.

Article 37 declares that the directive principles shall not be enforceable by any court.

1) Socialist Principles:
Articles 38,39,41,42,43 and 47 explains about the socialistic ideology of the directive principles of state policy.
1. Article 38 prescribes that the state shall strive to provide justice and promote welfare of the people by creating a proper economic, social and political atmosphere.

2. Article 39 directs the state to secure its citizens.

  • Adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
  • Equitable distribution of wealth for sub-serving the common good.
  • Equal pay for equal work for all.
  • Protection of adult and child labour.
  • Decentralization of nation’s wealth.
  • Preserving the health and strength of workers, men and women.
  • Protecting childhood and youth against exploitation.

3. To secure right to work and education for all people* relief in the case of unemployment; old age; sickness and disablement and in dther cases of under served want. (Article 41).

4. To make provision for just and human conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).

5. To secure living wage and decent standard of life so as to ensure to the workers sufficient leisure and enjoyment of social and cultural Opportunities. (Article 43).

6. Raising the level of nutrition and standard of living of the people and the improvement of public health (Article 47).

2) Liberal-intellectual Principles:
The principles represent the ideology of liberalism and certain objective like provision of basic education, uniform civil code, independent judiciary and international peace. They are incorporated in Articles 44, 45, 50 and 51 of the Constitution.

  1. The State shall secure for the citizens uniform civil code throughout the country. (Article 44)
  2. The State shall provide free and compulsory education for all the children below 14 years of age. The Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 substituted, the following words in Article 45. “The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.” (Article 45)
  3. The state organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modem and scientific lines (Article 48)
  4. The state protect monuments which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49)
  5. The state protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life. (Article 48 A)
  6. The State shall take steps to separate judiciary from executive in public services of the State. (Article 50)
  7. The State shall (a) promote international peace, justice and security, (b) Maintain just and honorable relations with other nations (c) protection of monuments and place of historical and cultural interest (d) respect for international laws and treaty obligations; and (e) encourage settlement of international dispute by arbitration. (Article 51)

3) Gandhian Principles :
These Principles are based on gandhian ideology. They represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Mahatma Gandhi during the national movement. These principles provide ideal rule in India. They are reflected in Articles 40, 43, 46 and 47. They may be enumerated as under.

  1. The State shall organize village Panchayats and endow them with adequate powers and authority so as to enable them to function as the units of self-government. (Article 40)
  2. The State shall strive for the promotion of cottage industries on individual or cooperative basis in rural areas. (Article 43)
  3. The State shall promote the educational and economic interests of the SCs, STs and BCs of society with special care, (Article 46)
  4. The State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47)

Other Principles :
The Constitution (Forty Second and Forty-Fourth Amendment) Acts of 1976 and 1978 added a few more subjects to the list of Directive Principles. While the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act inserted Articles 39A, 43A, and 48 A, the Constitution (Forty Fourth Amendment) Act included Article 39 Clause (2). They cc the following provisions.

  1. Providing opportunities for healthy development of children.
  2. Promotion of equal justice and legal aid to the poor.
  3.  Securing participation of workers in the management of industries.
  4. Protecting the environment, forests and wild animals.

Question 3.
Describe the Fundamental Duties incorporated in Indian Constitution. [Mar. 16]
Answer:
Fundamental Duties are a significant feature of Indian Constitution. They are incorporated in our constitution by the constitution 42nd amendment act of 1976 in part – IV under article 51 A. They are borrowed from Russian Constitution. They are 11 in number as mentioned below :

  • To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
  • To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India and renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
  • To provide educational opportunities by the parent or guardian to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 4.
Explain the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are incorporated in Part – III (Article 12 to 35) of our Constitution. Fundamental Rights are of great significance. They serve as the best means to safeguard the life, liberty and property of individuals. They act as the main instrument for releasing the inherent talents and capabilities of the individuals. Fundamental Rights are borrowed from the American Constitution. These are justiciable and can be enforced by the courts.

The Directive Principles of State Policy is a feature of Indian Constitution. They are included in Part -IV from Articles 36 to 51. The principles help to realize the objectives mentioned in the preamble of our Constitution. The makers of our Constitution drew them from the Irish Constitution. These are directives to different governments and agencies of our country. These principles aim at transforming our country into a Welfare State. The rulers have to respect them. They cannot be enforced through any Court of Law. The I governments have to implement them subject to availability of funds. They explain the I responsibilities of the State towards the people.

Differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of state policy :

Fundamental RightsDirective Principles of state policty
1) The concept was borrowed from the American Constitution.1) The concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2) These are enumerated in Part – III of the Constitution covering articles from 12 to 35.2) These are enumerated in Part – IV of the Constitution covering articles from 36 to 51.
3) These-are negative in character in the sense that they prohibit the Government from doing certain things.3) These are positive in character in the sense that they direct the government to work for the attainment of certain objects.
4) These aim at establishing political democracy in the country.4) These aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.
5) These have constitutional sanction and so their implementation needs no legislation.5) These have no constitutional sanction and so their implementation needs legislation.
6) These are justicable and can be enforced by the courts.6) These are non – justiciable and cannot be enforced by the courts.
7) A law violating a Fundamental Right can be declared by the court as unconstitutional.7) A law violating a Directive Principle cannot be declared by the court as unconstitutional.
8) These are personal and individualistic in nature.8) These are societarian and socialistic in nature.
9) These promote the welfare pf the individual.9) These promote the welfare of the society.
10) These have been laid down in clear legal language.10) These are stated in general terms.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on the changing Relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights and Directive principles of state policy are the salient features of Indian Constitution.

Changing Relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles :
Although a distinction is mode, between fundamental rights and directive principles of sate policy by way of justiciable and non-justiciable nature. Yet over the years directive principles of state policy have become politically important and the relation between the two has undergone several changes.

The Supreme court consistently held the opinion that the directive principles of state policy should be subsidiary to the fundamental rights. Judgements in various disputes like Sajjan Singh Vs state of Rajasthan and Golaknath Vs state of Punjab, the Supreme court confirmed its stand and reiterated that it is the duty of Parliament to enforce the Directive principles without tampering the Fundamental Rights.

As a result of the invalidation of certain laws like the Nationalization of Banks, Abolition of privy purses, the Parliament enacted the (Twenty Fifth Amendment) constitution Act in 1971 which declated that the enforcement of the directive principles of state policy shall not be invalidated by any court on the grand that it violates the fundamental rights in articles 14, 19 and 31 of the constitution.

Again the (Forty Second Amendment) constitution Act passed by Parliament in 1976 declared that no law, giving effect to any of all directive principles, shall be invalid on the ground that it infringes on Fundamental Rights. However, in the Minerava Mills case, the Supreme court restricted the original supremacy and sanctity of the fundamental rights over the directive principles of state policy. Thus, the fundamental rights have primary over the directive principles.

In the case of Keshavananda Bharati Vs state of Kerala. The supreme court held that the Parliament cannot among the basic structure of the constitution. By implication the Supreme court considered fundamental rights as a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 2 Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Question 2.
Explain any three fundamental rights of a citizen. [Mar. 18]
Answer:
1) Right to freedom of Religion :
This right denotes the secular nature of Indian political system. It aims at transforming India into a secular state. Both the citizens and aliens of India enjoy this right.

Article 25 empowers every persons to profess, practice and propagate a religion of this liking.

Article 26 guarantees the following rights to every person.

  1. To establish and maintain religious and charitable institutions.
  2. To mange his their religious affairs.
  3. To own and acquire moveable and immovable properties and
  4. To maintain such properties in accordance with the provision of the law.

Article 27 prohibits the state to impose or collect taxes from individuals purely on religious grounds. It also prohibits the state to’impose and collect taxes for the benefit and maintenance of any particular religion or religious denominations.

Article 28 bans religious instructions in educational institutions wholly or partly maintained by the state funds.

2) Educational and Cultural Rights :
Indian constitution provided several cultural and educational opportunities for Indian citizens through this right. Article 29 enables every citizen to preserve and protect his own language and culture irrespective of one’s religion, language or region.

Article 30 prohibits special treatment to any citizen in the admission into educational institutions either wholly or partly funded by the state on the grounds of caste, religion, region, colour, language or sect. However, it allowed the minotities some special facilities for preserving and promoting their language and culture. The state can grant financial assistance to them in this regard.

3) Right to Constitutional Remedies :
This right enables the individuals to approach a high court under article 226 or the supreme court under article 32 to get any of the fundamental rights restored in case of their violation. The Supreme court and the state High courts issue various writs for the implementation of Fundamental Rights. Dr. Ambedkar described this right as the Heart and Soul of the constitution.

Question 3.
Describe the six Freedoms of a citizen. [Mar. 17]
Answer:
Our constitution in chapter III under Article 19 (clause 1) guarantees certain fundamental rights subject to certain restrictions. They are also known as fundamental freedoms. They are :

  1. Freedom of speech and expression.
  2. Freedom of peaceful Assembly without Arms.
  3. Freedom of Associations and Unions.
  4. Freedom of movement throughout the territory of India.
  5. Freedom of residence and settlement in any part of the Territory of India.
  6. Freedom of profession, trade occupation or business.

These freedoms would facilitate the progress of Indian citizens in social, political and economic spheres. These freedoms are not absolute. The state may, if necessary, impose certain reasonable restrictions on the enjoyment of the above freedoms by the Indian citizens. These restrictions relate to the maintenance and safe guarding of the independence, sovereignty, integrity, law and order.

Question 4.
Write briefly on the right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
This right is the most significant of all the fundamental rights. It extends protection and relief to those whose Fundamental Rights were abridged, confiscated or infringed by others including the public, authorities. As this right gives a citizen the right to approach a rights restored in case of their violation. The supreme court and the High court can issue orders and give directions to the governments for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. The courts can issue various writs like habeas corpus, Mandamus, prohibition, Quowarranto and certiorari Dr. Ambedkar rightly described this right as Heart and Soul of the constitution.

Question 5.
Explain any five differences between Fundamental rights and Directive principles of state policy. [Mar. 16]
Answer:

Fundamental RightsDirective Principles
1) The concept was borrowed from American constitution.1) The concept was borrowed from Irish Constitution.
2) These aim at establishing a political democracy in the country.2) These aim at establishing a social and economical democracy in the society.
3) These are justicable and then enforced by the courts.3) These are non-justicable and cannot be enforced by the courts.
4) These are personal and Individualistic in nature.4) These are societarian and socialistic in nature.
5) These promote the welfare of the Individual.5) These promote the welfare of the society.

Question 6.
Explain the important characteristics of Directive principles of State Policy.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of the Directive principles :

  1. These are in the form of directives or instructions issued to the successive governments.
  2. These are positive in nature as they extend the jurisdiction of the powers and functions of the governments at various levels in India.
  3. Enforcement of these principles depends upon availability of financial resources.
  4. They are popular in nature as they aim at the establishment of egalitarian society.
  5. They are supposed to be implemented by any party in power irrespective of it’s policies and Ideology.
  6. Failure to implement these principles is not considered as a breach of law.
  7. They are non-justicable in nature as no one can force the governments to implement them immediately. The governments have discretion in implementing these principles.

Question 7.
Examine the implementation of Directive principles of state policy.
Answer:
Keeping in view the fact, Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country. The Union as well as the State Governments, since 1950, have been continuously taking various steps to implement them from to time. These are mentioned below:

  1. Abolition of Zamindari, Jagirdari and Inamdari systems.
  2. Introduction of Land Ceiling Acts.
  3. Abolition of Privy Purses.
  4. Nationalization of 14 leading commercial banks.
  5. Establishment of Khadi and Village Industries Board etc. .
  6. Organization of Village Panchayats.
  7. Reservation of seats are reserved for SCs and STs in educational institutions and representative bodies.
  8. Enactment of Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archeological Sites Remains Act 1951.
  9. Separating criminal procedure code from the executive.
  10. Prohibition of cow slaughter, calves and bullocks in some States.
  11. Establishment of primary health centers and hospitals throughout the country.
  12. Implementation of Non-Alignment and Panchasheel Principles.
  13. Initiation of old age pension schemes.
  14. Introduction of unemployment schemes.
  15. Enactment of Minimum Wages Act.
  16. Enactment of Wild Life Act.

Question 8.
Explain the significance of Directive principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Directive principles of state policy are considered as the most significant feature of the Indian constitution. They have great significance in the administration of our country. Though they lack legal sanction, they enjoy popular support and possess public sanction. If the party in power fails to implement these principles, it has to face resistance from the electorate in the coming elections.

So, no government can afford to ignore the implementation of these principles. The opposition, the press and the electorate would exert pressure on the government for implementing these principles. Hence the union government considered these principles as the basis for the functioning of National Planning Commission (or) NITI Ayog. They have helped the cburts in exercising their power of Judicial Review.

To conclude, directive principles of state policy are considered as an authoritative declaration of the aims and aspirations of Indians formulated by their representatives after solemn and mature deliberations as they are considered” as the goal of social Revolution”.

Very Short Questions

Question 1.
Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are an important feature of Indian constitution. They are incorporated in part – III Articles from 12 to 35 in our constitution. They enable the citizens to realise their personality. They are :

  • Right to Equality
  • Right to Freedom
  • Right against exploitation
  • Right to Freedom of Religion
  • Educational and cultural rights
  • Right to constitutional remedies

Question 2.
Types of Directive principles.
Answer:
On the basis of their content and direction directive principles of state policy can be classified into three broad categories namely socialistic, Liberal – intellectual and Gandhian principles.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 2 Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Question 3.
Habeas corpus. [Mar. 16]
Answer:
Habeas corpus literally means “To produce the body of”. It is in the nature of calling upon a person who has detained another to produce the latter before it. The court wants to know on what grounds a person has been detained. This writ frees a person whose detention has no legal justification.

Question 4.
Mandamus.
Answer:
Mandamus literally means “A mandate or command”. It is issued by a competent court for directing any person, corporation or inferior courts requiring him, it or them to do some particular, thing specified there in which appertains to his of their and is in the nature of public duty.

Question 5.
Cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer:
Article 29 guarantees to every citizen to protect his own language, script or culture. Article 30 provides that all minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and maintain educational institutions of their choice.

Question 6.
Gandhian Ideas of Directive principles of state policy.
Answer:

  1. The state shall organize village panchayats and endow them with adequate powers and authority so as to enable them to function as the units of self government (Article 40).
  2. The state shall strive for the promotion of cottage industries on individual or cooperative basis in rural areas (Article 43).
  3. The state shall promote the educational and economic interests of the SCs, STs and BCs of society with special care (Article 46).
  4. The state shall endeavour to. bring about prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).

Question 7.
Significance of Fundamental Duties. [Mar. 17]
Answer:
Fundamental duties are considered most significant from the following view points.

  1. The Fundamental Duties act as a reminder to the citizens that while enjoying their rights, they should also be conscious of duties they owe to their country, their society and to their fellow citizens.
  2. They serve as warning against antinational and anti social activities.
  3. They serve as the source of inspiration for the citizens and promote sense of discipline and commitment among them.
  4. They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.

Question 8.
Mention any three liberal principles.
Answer:

  1. The state shall secure for the citizens uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
  2. The state organize Agriculture and Animal husbandry on modem and scientific lines, (Article 48).
  3. The state shall take steps to separate judiciary from executive in public services of the state (Article 50)

Question 9.
Quo – Warranto
Answer:
Quo – Warranto literally means ‘What Warrant or Authority”. It enables the competent court to enquire into the legality of the claim which a party assets to a public office and to oust him from its enjoyment if the claim is not well founded.

Question 10.
Right to Religion.
Answer:
This right denotes the secular nature of Indian political system. It aims at transforming India into a secular state. Both the citizens and aliens of India enjoy this right. Articles from 25 to 28 in part – III of Indian constitution deals with right to freedom of Religion. This right enables the individuals to profers, practice and propagate any religion according to their conscience.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 2 Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy

Question 11.
Right against exploitation.
Answer:
In our country, there are millions of people who are underprivileged and deprived. They are subjected to exploitation by their fellow human beings. One such form of exploitations is ‘begar’ or ‘forced labour’ without payment. Another closely related form of exploitation is trafficking of human beings and using them as slaves. Both are prohibited under Article 23 of our constitutions.

Article 24 of the Indian constitution forbids all forms of child labour below the age of 14 years in factories, mines and other hazardous industries.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 1 The Constitution of India

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 1st Lesson The Constitution of India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material 1st Lesson The Constitution of India

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a constitution? Explain the historical background of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The term Constitution implies a written document embodying the provisions relating to the powers and functions of the government organs, the rights of the people, and their relations with the government. In simple,

Powers and Functions of the state + Rights and Duties of the Citizens = Constitution

Historical Background of the Indian constitution :
The constitution of India is the best constitution in the world.

It was formulated by Drafting Committee headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and approved by the Constituent Assembly Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Earlier the Leaders of the Indian National Movement demanded several times for a separate constitution for Indians. They at first emphasized, during the second decade of the 20th century, that the British government shall grant self-rule or the right to formulate a constitution for Indians. It is in this context that leaders like Bala Gangadhara Tilak and Annie Besant launched the Home Rule movement. They requested the British government to apply the “right of self-determination”.

The Swaraj Party Leaders in 1922 made it clear that constitutional arrangements must be made for providing representation to Indians in Legislative Assembly.

Later Motilal Nehru moved a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly requesting the British government for convencing a Round Table Conference for formulating a constitution for Indians.

The Three Round Table conferences held in London in 1930, 1931 and 1932 and their recommendations led to the passage of Government of India Act, 1935.

The Act provided for the introduction of Federal Polity and the establishment of provincial autonomy in the British India Provinces.

In the wake of Second World War, the Congress Ministers in the provincial legislative councils proposed a resolution meant for recognizing India as independent state and the power to make a constitution by the provincial legislative councils.

Viceroy Linlithgow through his August offer (1940) announced for the first time that Indians must Cooperate with Britain in the Second World War and the primary responsibility of making a constitution wholly vests with the Indians.

In 1942 Prime Minister Winston Churchill made efforts for resolving the Indian constitutional crisis by sending Stafford Cripps, a member of war cabinet to India for extensive discussions with Indian leaders.

The Cripps Mission (1942) was a failure. In this back drop, Indian National Congress under Gandhiji’s leadership adopted the famous “Quit India Revolution on 8th August, 1942 for the immediate ending of British rule in India.

After the Second World War, the labour party came to power in Britain under the leadership of element Attlee.

Then Viceroy Lord Wavell announced the latest policy of government in September, 1945. The British Government despatched a three member cabinet mission in February 1946 to India for making deliberations with Indian leaders on the issue of setting up of the Constituent Assembly and the provision of independence for Indians.

The Cabinet Mission made it clear that elections will be held to the Constituent Assembly and citizens having franchise will elect the members. Except Muslim League all the parties in India have agreed broadly the suggestions of the above team.

Lord Wavell formed on interion government with Jawaharlal Nehru as it’s head in 1946, with an increasing communal violence it seems there is no alternative to partition of the sub-continent.

The Mount Batten plan (1947) provided for the partition of the country. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided for setting up of a dominion of India and a dominion of Pakistan.

The Native states were given the choice of joining and becoming an integral part of either of the two dominions.

The vision and constructive statemanship of Sardar Vallabhai Patel the deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister facilitated the peaceful merger of most of the Native states into the Indian union.

Of course, the merger of Jammu and Kashmir, Junagadh and Hyderabad states into the Indian Union provided to be a difficult task.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 1 The Constitution of India

Question 2.
Explain in brief the salient features of Indian Constitution. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
Introduction :
The Indian constitution was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly which was set up in 1946. The Constituent Assembly took nearly three years (From 9th December, 1946 to 25th November, 1949) to complete the framing of the constitution.

The Constituent Assembly approved the Indian Constitution on 26th November, 1949. The Indian constitution came into force on 26th January, 1950. Which we have been celebrating as “The Republic Day”. The following are the salient or basic features of the Indian constitution.

1) Preamble :
The Indian constitution begins with a preamble. The preamble clearly defines the objectives of our constitution. It declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, democratic Republic. It provides liberty, equality, fraternity and justice. It states that the people of India are the chief source of the political authority.

2) A lengthy Written Document:
The Constitution of India is the most written, lengthy and detailed document in the world. In 1950, the Indian Constitution had 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. After subsequent amendments, it contains 12 schedules and 444 articles for the present.

3) A combination of rigidity and flexibility :
The constitution of India is a blend of rigidity and flexibility. Our founding Fathers were programatic enough to provide for rigidity and flexibility as the situation demands. Article 368 provides the details of the amendment procedure.

i) Some of the provisions like admission of New states (Ex : Telangana), provisions relating to citizenship, salaries and allowances of the members of the constitutional bodies like President, Vice-President, Supreme Court and High Court judges etc. Can be amended by simple majority. It is said to be flexible.

ii) Some provisions can be amended by a special majority i.e., not less than Two – Thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
Ex : Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of state policy etc.

It is said to be half rigid and half flexible.

iii) Some provisions can be amended by two-thirds majority of the Parliament and with the concurrence of half of the states.
Ex: Election of the President, executive powers of the union and the states, distribution of legislative powers between the union and the states etc. It is said to be rigid.

4) Quasi-Federal polity:
India is a states according to the constitution. Our constitution contains both the features of unitary and Federal Governments. It prescribed unitary system in emergencies and Federal system on ordinary occassions. Provisions of unitary state such as Single Citizenship, Single Integrated Judiciary, Single Election Commission, Role of All India Services Personnel etc., are found in our constitution. At the same time certain federal features like written, rigid constitution, Dual government, Bicameralism etc., are profoundly seen in our constitution. Thus it is a Quasi-Federal. Polity like Canada.

5) Republican government :
Unlike the colonial Master, the UK, India preferred a Republican government. Here all public offices right from World member to the top president of India are open to all eligible citizens and there is no place for hereditary principle.

6) Parliamentary government :
The constitution of India provided Parliamentary government of the British type but with an elected President of Irish Model. Accordingly, the features of Parliamentary government such as two executive heads, Ministerial accountability to the lower house of the legislature, Prime Minister leadership etc., are prevalent in our political system.

7) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties:
Part – III of the constitution, Articles from 12 to 35, provides for a set of basic human rights to ail. They are justiceable and ensure basic freedoms. They are six in number. 1) Right to equality 2) Right to freedom 3) Right against exploitation 4) Right to religion 5) Cultural and educational right and 6) Right to constitutional remedies.

The 42nd Amendment to the constitution in 1976 incorporated the fundamental duties in Article 51A under part – IVA. Though they are not justiciable. But they put an obligation on the citizens to render certain duties in return for the protection they have been enjoying through fundamental rights. Fundamental duties relate to respecting the constitution, the National Flag and National Anthem, safeguarding public property etc.

8) Single citizenship :
Our Constitution provides for single citizenship for all persons who are born in India and who resided in India for a specific period. It enables the citizens to possess and enjoy identical rights and privileges. It also promotes unity, integrity and fraternity among the people.

9) Universal and Adult Franchise :
The makers of the Indian constitution provided for the universal adult Franchise for all citizens without any discrimination based on caste, colour, creed, community, language, religion, region, sex, property etc. At the beginning, adult Franchise was given to all the citizens who attained the age of 21 years. Later voting age was reduced to 18 years through the 61st constitution, Amendment Act in 1988.

10) Secular state :
Our constitution stands for a secular state. It does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of. the Indian state. It ensures complete religious freedom to the people. It abolishes discrimination between individuals on religious grounds in the matters of employments education and legislation. It prohibits religious instructions in state owned or state – aided educational institutions.

11) Independent judiciary :
The Judiciary performs its functions independently. The legislature or the executive shall not interfere in the working of the Judiciary. The Judiciary carries on its obligations according to the constitutional norms and democratic principles.

12) Directive principles of state policy:
Our constitution hinted out certain directive principles as the policy of the state in part IV from Articles from 36 to 51. These principles are drawn from Irish constitution. These principles reflect the welfare state concept. They are the directions to be followed by the various governments. Equal pay for equal work, provision of employment opportunities, fair distribution of wealth, old age pension, protection of illhealth, provision of education, protection of women and children etc., are the some examples of these principles. Though these principles are non-justiciable, No responsible government can afford to ignore them.

13) Bi-cameralism:
The constitution of India introduced Bi-cameralism at the National level. Accordingly, The Indian Parliament consists of two houses namely the Rajya Sabha (upper house) and the Lok Sabha (lower house). While the Rajya Sabha represents the states, the Lok Sabha represents the people.

14) Panchayati Raj and Nagar Palikas Acts :
The Panchayati Raj and Nagar Palikas Acts are recent features of our constitution. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts gave constitutional recognition to the Rural and Urban local governments. Which came into force in 1993 and 1994 respectively had become operative all over the territory of India. The ideals of democratic decentralisation or the grass roof democracy are realised by these acts.

These acts provides for adequate representation for women, scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other weaker sections in the policy making bodies of the local governments.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write briefly the elements of the constitution.
Answer:
The term constitution implies a written document embodying the provisions relating to the powers and functions of the government organs, the rights of the people and their relations with the government.
Elements of the constitution :
1) The constitution prescribes a set of basic rules that ensure coordination amongst the members and groups of a society. The constitution specifies the basic allocation of power in a society. It decides who frames the laws. For example, in a democratic country like, the people through their elected representatives make the laws i.e., the Parliament at national level and state legislatures at state level are empowered to make laws.

2) It specifies the structure of the government and its limitations of the modern govemrttents are made up of three organs, viz.
i) Legislature which frames the laws within the limits set by the constitution.
ii) The executive, the President or the Governor, the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister or Chief Minister would be taking policy decisions as per the guidelines provided by the Parliament or Legislature.
iii) The Judiciary by interpreting the laws would set limits on the powers of both the legislature and executive.

Through the Judiciary, the constitution ensures limited and responsible government.
For example : Article 13 of the Indian constitution establishes the Supremacy of the constitution.

3) The constitution establishes the relationship between the rulers and the ruled. Fundamental rights and Fundamental Duties spell out in detail the mutual obligations of the citizens and the state. Part III and Part IVA of the Indian constitution bind the state and the citizens towards each other.

4) Every society has certain aspirations and goals. The state came into existence to fulfill the bare needs of the people and continues to exist for the good life of all. It is the constitution which directs the state i.e., government to make certain policies for welfare of the people.
Ex : Directive principles of state policy which incorporated in part – IV of the Indian
1 Constitution.

5) The constitution, as the Supreme document, serves as a shock absorber in limiting the fluctuations of present and future generations. It is a living document that connects the past with the present and assures a predictable future. Modem societies cannot survive without a just constitution.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 1 The Constitution of India

Question 2.
Write about the making of Indian constitution.
Answer:
While Negotiations were going on about the modalities of transfer of power, a l Constituent Assembly was set up to draw the constitution for India. The Cabinet Mission and the major political parties reached an agreement over the constitution of Constituent Assembly in 1946.

Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July, 1946 in which 292 members from British provinces, 93 members from Native states and 4 members from central provinces were elected. The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. It elected Sachchidanand Sinha as its protemporaiy chairman.

On December 11, 1946 it elected Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad as its permanent chairman.

The making of the constitution really began at its third session held between April 22 and May 2, 1947.

The Fourth session of the Assembly was held on July 14 and continued till July 31, 1947. It held discussions on Model constitution, Adopted the National Flag. The Assembly met for the fifth time on the eve of the independence day.

On August 29, 1947, it set up a seven member Drafting committee with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its chairman.

The Drafting Committee presented the Draft constitution on February 21, 1948. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Draft constitution on November 26, 1949. The last session of the Assembly was held on January 24, 1950.

It elected Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad as the first President of Indian Republic under the new constitution.

On January 26, 1950 the New constitution came into operation and India was declared as a Republic state.

Question 3.
Write a note on the sources of Indian constitution. [Mar. 18, 16]
Answer:
The constitution of India was formulated on the basis of various experiences. Almost all the noble features of the world constitutions have been incorporated in it. Similarly the peculiar political, social and cultural conditions present in India have been taken into account at the time of drafting the constitution. The makers of Indian constitution ignored those conditions prevalent in other countries which are contrary to the socio-economic and political background of India.

On the whole the following sources figure prominently in making the Indian constitution.

  1. Many provision of Indian constitution have been drawn on the basis of West Minister Model (british). These include parliamentary traditions, rule of law, cabinet government, legislative-executive relations, single citizenship’ nominal executive head etc.
  2. Some provisions like fundamental rights, judicial review, federal system, president’s election, impeaching the president etc., have been taken from the American constitution.
  3. Items relating to directive Principles of State Policy have been drawn from the constitution of Ireland.
  4. The emergency powers of the President have been taken basing on the German constitution.
  5. Matters such as Concurrent List, Business, Commerce, Inter State trade, Special privileges of legislators etc., have been added on the model of Australia.
  6. The Union-State relations mentioned in Indian constitution have been designed basing on the Canadian constitution.
  7. Matters of constitutional amendment procedure were drawn from South African constitution.
  8. The idea of republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity have been taken from the constitution of France.
  9. Most of provisions of Indian constitution were drawn from the Government of India Act, 1935.

Question 4.
Explain any three salient features of Indian constitution.
Answer:
1) A combination of rigidity and flexibility :
The constitution of India is a blend of rigidity and flexibility. Article 368 provides the details of the amendment procedure. Some Of the’provisions like Admission of New states (Ex : Telanganaj, provisions relating to citizenship, salaries and allowances of the President, Vice president, Supreme Court and High Court judges etc., can be amended by simple majority. It is said to be flexible.

Some provisions can be amended by a special majority i.e., not less than two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Ex : Fundamental Rights, Directive principles of state policy etc. It is said to be half rigid and half flexible. Some provisions can be amended by two-thirds majority of the Parliament and with the concurrence of half of the states.
Ex : Election of the President, Distribution of Legislative powers between the union and the states etc. It is said to be rigid.

2) Republican government:
Unlike the colonial master, the U.K., India preferred a Republican government. Here all public offices right from ward member to the top of India are open to all eligible citizens and there is no place for hereditary principle.

3) Single citizenship :
Our constitution provides for single citizenship for all persons who are born in India and who resided in India for a specific period. It enables the citizens to possess and enjoy identical rights and privileges. It also promotes unity, integrity and fraternity among the people.

Question 5.
“The preamble is the soul of the constitution”. Explain.
Answer:
Preamble is the most salient features of Indian constitution. It denotes the essential philosophy of Indian constitution. It reflects the aims, aspirations and objectives of the makers of Indian constitution. Jawaharlal Nehru described the Preamble as a declaration, a firm resolve, a pledge, an understanding and something more than a resolution. Preamble begins with the sentence “we, the people of India’ adopt, enact and give to ourselves this constitution”.

It declared India as a sovereign socialist, secular, democratic and republic. It announced that Indians enjoy liberty, equality, fraternity and justice. It clearly stated that sovereignty in India belongs the people of India. Justice Madholkar pronounced that Preamble is the essence of Indian constitution. Justice Hidayatullah praised the Preamble as “the soul of the constitution”.

The Preamble after the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 19718 is as follows :

We, the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens.

“Sovereign” – which means its authority within the country is undisputed and externally it is free from others contort. “Socialist” means a state that doesn’t, allow any kind of exploitation – social, economic and political.

“Secular” – It gives equal freedom to all religions.

“Democratic” – Stipulates that the sovereign power vests with the people. They exercise it periodically through universal Adult Franchise.

A “Republican” state assures that public offices are open to every citizen without any discrimination. There is no place for hereditary principle.

  1. Justice – social, economic and political.
  2. Liberty of-thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
  3. Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all.
  4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

In our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949 do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”.

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Written constitutibn
Answer:
The constitution of India is the most written, lengthy and detailed document in the world. In 1950 the Indian constitution had 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. After subsequent amendments, it contains 12 schedules and 444 articles for the present.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 1 The Constitution of India

Question 2.
Rigid constitution
Answer:
Rigid constitution is one whose provisions cannot be charged easily. In this system the constitutional amendment methods are different from those of ordinary laws. There will be a special procedure for amending the provisions of the rigid constitution. The rigid constitution will have firmness due to its special procedures of amendment.
Ex : United states and India.

Question 3.
Parliamentary form of government
Answer:
The constitution of India provided Parliamentary Government of the british type but with an elected president of Irish model. According to the features of Parliamentary government such as two executive heads, ministerial accountability to the lower house, of the legislature, Prime Minister, leadership etc., are prevalent in our political system.

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights and Duties
Answer:
Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties are the salient features of Indian constitution.

Six Fundamental Rights were incorporated in Part – III articles from 12 to 35. They are justiciable and ensures basic freedoms to all Indians.

Eleven fundamental duties were incorporated in Part IV A under article 51 A. They put an Obligation on the citizens to render certain duties in return for the protection they have been enjoying through Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
Secular state
Answer:
Our constitution stands for a secular state. It does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian state. It ensures complete religious freedom to the people it abolishes discrimination between individuals on religious grounds in the matters of employment,’ education and legislation. It prohibits religious instructions’in state-owned or state-aided educational institutions.

Question 6.
Universal Adult Franchise
Answer:
The makers of the Indian constitution provided for the universal adult Franchise for all citizens without any discrimination based on caste, colour, creed, community, language, religion, region, sex, property etc. At the beginning, adult Franchise was given to all .the citizens who attained the age of 21 years. Later voting age was reduced to 18 years through the 61st constitution Amendment Act in 1988.

Question 7.
Bicameralism
Answer:
The constitution of India introduced Bi-cameralism at the national level. Accordingly, the Indian Parliament consist of two houses namely the Rajya Sabha (upper house) and the Lok Sabha (Lower house). While the Rajya Sabha represents the states, the Lok Sabha represents the people.

Question 8.
Directive principles of state policy
Answer:
Our constitution hinted out certain directive principles as the policy of the state in part IV from Articles from 36 to 51. These principles are drawn from Irish constitution. These principles reflect the welfare state concepts. They are the directions to be followed by the various governments. Though these principles are non-justiciable, No responsible government can afford to ignore them.

Question 9.
Independence of Judiciary
Answer:
The Judiciary performs its functions independently. The legislature of the executive shall not interfere in the working of the judiciary. The Judiciary carries on its obligations according to the constitutional norms and democratic principles.

AP Inter 2nd Year Civics Study Material Chapter 1 The Constitution of India

Question 10.
Preamble [Mar. 18, 17, 16]
Answer:
The Indian constitution begins with a preamble. The preamble clearly defines the objectives of our constitution. It declares India as a sovereign, as a socialist, Secular Democratic Republic. It provides liberty, equality, fraternity and justice. It states that the people of India are the chief sources of the political authority.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 14th Lesson Kinetic Theory Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 14th Lesson Kinetic Theory

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define mean free path. [A.P. Mar. 18, 17, 15; T.S. Mar. 17, 15]
Answer:
The average distance covered by a molecule between two successive collisions is called the mean free path.

Question 2.
How does kinetic theory justify Avogadro’s hypothesis and show that Avogadro Number in different gases is same ?
Answer:
For two different gases, we have \(\frac{P_1 V_1}{N_1 T_1}=\frac{P_2 V_2}{N_2 T_2}\) = KB (constant)
If P, V, T are same, then N is also same for two gases.
N is called Avogadro’s number. According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, that the number of molecules per unit volume is same for all gases at a fixed temperature and pressure.
In this way kinetic theory justify Avogadro’s hypothesis.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 3.
When does a real gas behave like an ideal gas ? [T.S. Mar. 16; Mar. 14]
Answer:
At low pressures and high temperatures real gases behave like an ideal gas.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s Law and Charle’s Law. [A.P. Mar. 18; T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Boyle’s law : At constant temperature, the pressure of a given mass of gas varies inversely with volume.
Charle’s law: At constant pressure, the volume of the gas is proportional to its absolute temperature.

Question 5.
State Dalton’s law of partial pressures. [T.S. Mar. 18; A.P. Mar. 16; Mar. 14]
Answer:
The total pressure exerted by a mixture of non-reacting gases occupying a vessel is equal to the sum of the individual pressures which each gas would exert if it is alone occupied the whole vessel.
i.e., P = P1 + P2 + ………….

Question 6.
Pressure of an ideal gas in container is independent of shape of the container – explain. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
The kinetic theory expression for the pressure of a given mass of an ideal gas in a container is 1 -2.
P = \(\frac{1}{3}\) nm\(\bar{v}^2\), where \(\overline{\mathrm{V}}\) indicates mean-square-speed, n is number of molecules, m is mass of molecule. From the above equation, shape of the container is immeterial. Hence pressure of an ideal gas is independent of shape of the container.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 7.
Explain the concept of degrees of freedom for molecules of a gas.
Answer:
The degrees of freedom of a particle indicate the number of independent motions which the particle can undergo, or the number of independent methods of exchanging energy.

A monoatomic molecule (He) has three degrees of freedom, a diatomic (H2, O2) one has five, while a triatomic (H2O) one has six.

Question 8.
What is the expression between pressure and kinetic energy of a gas molecules ? [AP – Mar. ’17, ’16, ’15]
Answer:
By kinetic theory pressure, P = \(\frac{1}{3} m n \overline{V}^2\) and kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2} m n \overline{V}^2\) where m is the mass of the molecules, n is the number of moles per unit volume, v is the mean-square-speed.
∴ P = \(\frac{2}{3}\left(\frac{1}{2} m n \overline{V}^2\right)\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) (kineticenergy)

Question 9.
The absolute temperature of a gas is increased 3 times. What will be the increase in rms velocity of the gas molecule ?
Answer:
Case (i) : The r.m.s velocity of gas molecule, \(\overline{V}_1=\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_1}{M}}\)
Case (ii) : The r.m.s velocity of gas molecule, \(\overline{V}_2=\sqrt{\frac{3 R T_2}{M}}\)
\(\frac{\overline{\mathrm{V}}_2}{\overline{\mathrm{V}}_1}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_2}{\mathrm{~T}_1}}=\sqrt{\frac{3 \mathrm{~T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1}}\)  [∵ T2 = 3T1] ⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{V}}_2=\sqrt{3} \overline{\mathrm{V}}_1=1.732 \overline{\mathrm{V}}_1\)
∴ Increase in r.m.s velocity of gas molecule = \(\overline{\mathrm{V}}_2-\overline{\mathrm{V}}_1=1.732 \overline{\mathrm{V}}_1-\overline{\mathrm{V}}_1=0.732 \overline{\mathrm{V}}_1\)

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the kinetic interpretation of Temperature.
Answer:
Kinetic interpretation of Temperature : Since the pressure of the gas is given by
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{mn} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\), where m = mass of the gas, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = Number of molecules per unit volume
\(\overline{V}\) = r.m.s velocity of gas, P = \(\frac{1}{3} m \frac{N}{V} \overline{V}^2\) ⇒ PV = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{mN} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\)
Also for a gram molecule of the gas, PV = RT
Hence RT = \(\frac{1}{3} m N \overline{V}^2 \Rightarrow 3 \frac{R T}{N}=m \overline{V}^2 \text { or } \frac{1}{2} m \overline{V}^2=\frac{3}{2} K_B T\) [∵ \(\frac{R}{N}\) = KB]
Here KB is Boltzman constant. So mean kinetic energy of a molecule is \(\frac{3}{2}\) KB T, which depends upon the temperature. As temperature increases mean kinetic energy of the molecules also increases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 2.
How specific heat capacity of mono atomic, diatomic and poly atomic gases can be explained on the basis of Law of equipartition of Energy ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
Specific heat capacity:
1) Mono atomic gases : According to law of equipartition of energy, a molecule of mono atomic gas has only 3 (translational) degrees of freedom, i.e., f = 3.
The molar specific heat of the gas at constant volume is given by Cv = \(\frac{f}{2}\) R where f is degree of freedom.
∴ Cv = \(\frac{3}{2}\)R = 3 cal/mole k [∵ R = 2 cal/mole – k]
The molar specific heat at constant pressure is given by
Cp = (\(\frac{f}{2}\) + 1)R = (\(\frac{3}{2}\) + 1) R = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R = 5 cal/ m0le – k

2) Diatomic gases : A molecule of diatomic gas has 5 degrees of freedom, 3 translational and 2 rotational i.e., f = 5
Therefore Cv = \(\frac{f}{2}\) R = \(\frac{5}{2}\)R = 5 cal/mole – k, Cp = (\(\frac{f}{2}\) + 1) R = \(\frac{7}{2}\) R = 7 cal/mole – k

3) Polyatomic gases : Polyatomic molecule has 3 translational, 3 rotational degrees of freedom, i. e., f = 6
Therefore Cv = \(\frac{f}{2}\)R = 3R = 6 cal / mole – k, Cp = (\(\frac{f}{2}\) + 1) = 4R = 8 cal / mole – k.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of absolute zero of temperature on the basis of kinetic theory.
Answer:
Concept of absolute zero on the basis of kinetic theory :
Since the pressure of the gas is given by
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{mn} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\), where m = mass of the gas, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = number of molecules per unit volume.
V = r.m.s velocity of gas, P = \(\frac{1}{3} \frac{\mathrm{mN}}{\overline{\mathrm{V}}} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\) ⇒ PV = \(\frac{1}{3} m N \overline{V}^2\)
Also for a gram molecule of the gas, PV = RT
Hence RT = \(\frac{1}{3} M \overline{V}^2\) [∵ M = mN = molecular weight]
\(\overline{\mathrm{V}}^2=\frac{3 R T}{M}\)
∴ \(\overline{v}=\sqrt{\frac{3 R T}{M}}\)
Putting T = 0 in the above equation \(\overline{\mathrm{V}}\) = 0. Hence pressure becomes zero. Then the gas converts into liquids. Thus, this temperature is called absolute zero.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 4.
Prove that the average kinetic energy of a molecule of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas.
Answer:
Since the pressure of the gas is given by
P = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{mn} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\), where m = mass of the gas, n = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = number of molecules per unit volume
\(\) = r.m.s velocity of gas, P = \(\frac{1}{3} m \frac{N}{V} \overline{V}^2\) ⇒ PV = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{mNV}^2\)
Also for a gram molecule of the gas, PV = RT
Hence RT = \(\frac{1}{3}\) mNV2
3\(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{V}}\)T = \(\mathrm{m} \overline{\mathrm{V}}^2\) or \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\)KBT [∵ \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{V}}\) = KB]
Where KB is the Boltzmann constant and T is the absolute temperature. ∴ E = \(\frac{3}{2}\)KBT
Hence the average kinetic energy of a molecule is proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas.

Question 5.
Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 of volumes V1 and V2 are joined with a valve and filled with air at temperatures (T1, T2) and pressures (P1, P2) respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, what will be the temperature inside the vessels at equilibrium.
Answer:
During adiabatic process, there is no loss of energy, i.e. K.ET of molecules before mixing = K.ET of molecules after mixing.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 1

Question 6.
What is the ratio of r.m.s speed of Oxygen and Hydrogen molecules at the same temperature ?
Answer:
The r.m.s speed of gas is \(\overline{\mathrm{V}}=\sqrt{\frac{3 R T}{M}} \Rightarrow \frac{\overline{\mathrm{V}}_0}{\mathrm{~V}_{\mathrm{H}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{H}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{O}}}}\), Given MH = 2 and M0 = 32
\(\frac{\overline{\mathrm{V}}_0}{\overline{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{H}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2}{32}}=\frac{1}{4}\)
∴ V0 : VH = 1 : 4

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 7.
Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 km/s. Find the rms speed of the gas molecule.
Answer:
Given V1 = 1 km/s; V2= 2 km/s; V3 = 3 km/s; V4 = 4 km/s; = ?
Vrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{V_1^2+V_2^2+V_3^2+V_4^2}{n}}=\sqrt{\frac{1^2+2^2+3^2+4^2}{4}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{1+4+9+16}{4}}=\sqrt{\frac{30}{4}}=\sqrt{7.5}\)
= 2735 kms-1

Question 8.
If a gas has ‘f’ degrees of freedom, find the ratio of CP and CV.
Answer:
If a gas has ‘f’ degrees of freedom, then
CV = \(\frac{f}{2}\)R and CP = CV + R = \(\frac{f}{2}\) R + R = (\(\frac{f}{2}\) + 1)R
Hence the ratio of the two specific heats of a gas is, r = \(\frac{C_p}{C_V}=\left[\frac{\frac{f}{2}+1}{\frac{f}{2} R}\right]=1+\frac{2}{f}\)

Question 9.
Calculate the molecular K.E of 1 gram of Helium (Molecular weight 4) at 127°C. Given R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1.
Answer:
Given, t = 127°C, T = 273 + 127 = 400; R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1
K.E. = \(\frac{3}{2}\)KBT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-23 × 400 = 8.28 × 10-21 J.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 10.
When pressure increases by 2%, what is the percentage decrease in the volume of a gas, assuming Boyle’s law is obeyed ?
Answer:
The gas obeys the Boyles law PV = constant, on differentiating, PdV + VdP = 0
PdV = – V dP ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dV}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{-\mathrm{dP}}{\mathrm{P}}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dV}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100% = –\(\frac{-\mathrm{dP}}{\mathrm{P}}\) × 100%
% change in volume = – percentage change in pressure
∴ % change in volume = – 2%
Here negative sign indicates decrease in volume.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Derive an expression for the Pressure of an ideal gas in a container from Kinetic Theory and hence give Kinetic Interpretation of Temperature.
Answer:
Let us consider cubical vessel of side T with perfectly elastic wall containing gas molecules. Let the three sides of the cube be taken as co-ordinate axis. Consider a molecule moving with velocity V, in any direction at any instant. The components of V1 along the three sides are Vx, Vy and Vz respectively. Then
\(\overline{V}^2=V_x^2+V_y^2+V_z^2\) ……………………. (1)
If ‘m is the mass of this molecule, it transfers a momentum mV when it strikes the face ABCD of the cube. Since the wall is perfectly elastic, this molecule is reflected back with a velocity – Vx and momentum – mVx. So the change in momentum = mVx – (- mVx)
= 2mVx
This molecule then travels towards the opposite face, collide with it, rebounds and travels again towards the face ABCD. The distance travelled between two successive collisions is 2l. Time taken between two successive collisions is \(\frac{2 l}{\mathrm{~V}_{\mathrm{x}}}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 2
∴ Number of collisions per second = \(\frac{V_x}{2 l}\)
Change in momentum per second = (2mVx) × \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{x}}}{2 l}\right)=\frac{\mathrm{mV}_{\mathrm{x}}^2}{l}\)
Thus force exerted by this molecule = \(\frac{\mathrm{mV}_{\mathrm{x}}^2}{l}\) [∵ F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dP}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)]
Hence, force exerted by N such molecule in the X-direction.
f1 = \(\mathrm{N} \frac{\mathrm{mV}_{\mathrm{x}}^2}{l}=\frac{\mathrm{mNV}_{\mathrm{x}}^2}{l}\)
∴ Pressure exerted by the molecules in the x-direction is Px = \(\frac{f_1}{l^2}=\frac{m N \overline{V}_x^2}{l^3}\)
Similarly, pressure exerted by the molecules in the y and z-directions are
Py = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{l^3} \mathrm{~N} \overline{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{y}}^2\) and Pz = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{l^3} \mathrm{~N} \overline{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{z}}^2\)
Since the pressure exerted by a gas in all the directions is same, the average pressure
P = \(\frac{P_x+P_y+P_z}{3}=\frac{m N}{3 l^3}\left[V_x^2+v_y^2+V_z^2\right]=\frac{m N}{3 V} \overline{V}^2\) [ from (1) and V = l3]
Here V2 is the mean square velocity of the molecule, V is the volume of the vessel.
If M is the mass of the gas then M = mN
∴ P = \(\frac{1}{3} \frac{M^2}{V}=\frac{1}{3} m n \overline{V}^2\) [∵ n = \(\frac{N}{V}\)]
This pressure is actually the pressure exerted by an ideal gas.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

b) Kinetic interpretation of temperature :
Since the pressure of the gas is given by
P = \(\frac{1}{3} m n \overline{V}^2\), where m = mass of the gas, n = \(\frac{N}{V}\) = Number of molecules per unit volume
\(\overline{V}\) = r.m.s velocity of gas
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 3
Here KB is Boltzmann constant. So mean kinetic energy of a molecule is \(\frac{3}{2}\) KBT, which depends upon the temperature. As temperature increases means kinetic energy of the molecules also increases.

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Estimate the fraction of molecular volume to the actual volume occupied by oxygen gas at STP. Take the diameter of an oxygen molecule to be 3 Å.
Solution:
Here, diameter,
d = 3A°, r = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{2}=\frac{3}{2}\) A° = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 10-8 cm.
Molecular volume,
v = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3N, where N is Avagadros No.
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) (1.5 × 10-8)3 × (6.023 × 1023)
= 8.52 cc.
Actual volume occupied by 1 mole of oxygen at STP v = 22400 cc
= \(\frac{v}{v^{\prime}}=\frac{8.52}{22400}\) = 3.8 × 10-4 = 4 × 10-4.

Question 2.
Molar volume is the volume occupied by 1 mol of any (ideal) gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP : 1 atmospheric pressure, 0 °C.) Show that it is 22.4 litres.
Solution:
For one mole of an ideal gas, ρv = RT
∴ v = \(\frac{\mathrm{RT}}{\rho}\)
Put R = 8.31 J mole-1 k-1, T = 273k, ρ = 1 atm = 1.013 × 105 Nm-2
v = \(\frac{8.31 \times 273}{1.013 \times 10^5}\) = o.0224m3 = 0.0224 × 106
cc = 22400 cc = 22.4 lit.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 3.
Figure 14.8 shows plot of PV/T versus P for 1.00 × 10-3 kg of oxygen gas at two different temperatures.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 4
a) What does the dotted plot signify ?
b) Which is true: T1 > T2 or T1 < T2 ?
c) What is the value of PV/T where the curves meet on they y-axis ?
d) If we obtained similar plots for 1.00 × 10-3 kg of hydrogen, would we get the same value of PV/T at the point where the curves meet on the y-axis ? If not, what mass of hydrogen yields the same value of PV/T (for low pressurehigh temperature region of the plot) ? (Molecular mass of H2 = 2.02 u, of O2 = 32.0 u, R = 8.31 J mole-1 K-1.)
Solution:
a) The dotted plot shows that \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) (= μR) is a constant quantity, independent of pressure p. This sign signifies the ideal gas behaviour.

b) The curve at temperature T1 is closer to dotted plot than the curve at temperature T2. As the behaviour of a real gas approaches the behaviour of a perfect gas when temperature is increased, therefore T1 > T2.

c) Where the two curves meet, the value of
\(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) on y-axis is equal to μR.
As mass of oxygen gas = 1.00 × 10-3 kg = 1g
\(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = nR (\(\frac{1}{32}\)) × 8.31 Jk-1.

d) If we obtained similar plots for 1.00 × 10-3 kg of hydrogen, we will not get the same value of \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) at the point, where the curve meets on the y-axis. This is because molecular mass of hydrogen is different from that of oxygen.
For same value of \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) mass of hydrogen required is obtained from.
\(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = nR = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2.02}\) × 8.31 = 0.26
M = \(\frac{2.02 \times 0.26}{8.31}\) gm = 6.32 × 10-2 grams.

Question 4.
All oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litres has an initial gauge pressure of 15 atm and a temperature of 27 °C. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, the gauge pressure drops to 11 atm and its temperature drops to 17 °C. Estimate the mass of oxygen taken out of the cylinder (R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1, molecular mass of O2 = 32 u).
Solution:
Initially in the oxygen cylinder,
v1 = 30 lit = 30 × 10-3 m3
P1 = 15 atm = 15 × 1.01 × 105 Pa;
T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 k.
If the cylinder contains n1 mole of oxygen gas, then
P1v1 = nRT1
(or) n1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_1 \mathrm{~V}_1}{\mathrm{RT}_1}=\frac{\left(15 \times 1.01 \times 10^5\right) \times\left(30 \times 10^{-3}\right)}{8.3 \times 300}\)
= 18.253 .
For oxygen, molecular weight, M = 32 g
Initial mass of cylinder,
M1 = n1 M = 18.253 × 32 = 584.1 g
Finally in the oxygen cylinder, let n2 moles of O2 be left, were,
v2 = 30 × 10-3 m3, P2 = 11 × 1.01 × 105 Pa, T2 = 17 + 273 = 29K
Now
n2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_2 \mathrm{~V}_2}{\mathrm{RT}_2}=\frac{\left(11 \times 1.01 \times 10^5\right) \times\left(30 \times 10^{-3}\right)}{8.3 \times 290}\)
= 13.847
∴ Final mass of oxygen gas in the cylinder,
m2 = 13.847 × 32 = 453.1 g
∴ Mass of oxygen taken out = m1 – m2 = 631.0 g.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 5.
An air bubble of volume 1.0 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep at a temperature of 12 °C. To what volume does it grown when it reaches the surface, which is at a temperature of 35 °C ?
Solution:
v1 = 1.0 cm3 = 1.0 × 10-6 m3,
T1 = 12 °C = 12 + 273 = 285 k
P1 = 1 atm + h1 ρg = 1.01 × 105 + 40 × 103 × 9.8
= 493000 Pa.
When the air bubble reaches at the surface of lake, then
v2 = 2, T2 = 35 °C = 35 + 273 = 308 K,
P2 = 10 atm = 1.01 × 105 pa.
Now \(\frac{P_1 v_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2 v_2}{T_2}\) (or) v2 = \(\frac{P_1 v_1 T_2}{T_1 P_2}\)
∴ v2 = \(\frac{(493000) \times\left(1.0 \times 10^{-6}\right) \times 308}{285 \times 1.01 \times 10^5}\)
= 5.27 × 10-6m3.

Question 6.
Estimate the total number of air molecules (inclusive of oxygen, nitrogen, water vapour and other constituents) in a room of capacity 25.0 m3 at a temperature of 27 °C and 1 atm pressure.
Solution:
Here, v = 25.0 m3, T = 27 + 273 = 300 k,
k = 1.38 × 10-23 Jk-1
Now Pv = nRT = n(NK) T = (nN) kT = N’kT
When nN = N’ = total no. of air molecules in the given gas.
N’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{Pv}}{\mathrm{kT}}=\frac{\left(1.01 \times 10^5\right) \times 25}{\left(1.38 \times 10^{-23}\right) \times 300}\) = 6.10 × 1026

Question 7.
Estimate the average thermal energy of helium atom at (i) room temperature (27 °C), (ii) the temperature on the surface of the Sun (6000 K), (iii) the temperature of 10 million kelvin (the typical core temperature in the case of a star).
Solution:
i) Here, T = 27 °C = 27 + 273 = 300 k
Average thermal energy
= \(\frac{3}{2}\) kT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-23 × 300
= 6.2 × 10-21 J

ii) At T = 6000 k. Average thermal energy = \(\frac{3}{2}\)kT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-23 × 6000
= 1.24 × 10-19 J.

iii) At T = 10 million K = 107 K.
Average thermal energy
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)kT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-23 × 107
= 2.1 × 10-16 J.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 8.
Three vessels of equal capacity have gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains neon (monatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic), and the third contains uranium hexafluoride (poly-atomic). Do the vessels contain equal number of respective molecules ? Is the root mean square speed of molecules the same in the three cases ? If not, in which case is urms the largest ?
Solution:
All the three vessels (at the same temperature and pressure) have same volume. So in accordance with the avagadro’s law, the three vessels will contain equal number of respective molecules, being equal to
Avagadro’s number N = 6.023 × 1023
As vrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 k T}{m}}\)
i.e., vrms ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\) at a given temp, therefore, rms speed of molecules will not be same in the three cases.
As neon has the smallest mass, therefore, rms speed will be largest in case of neon.

Question 9.
At what temperature is the root mean square speed of an atom in an argon gas cylinder equal to the rms speed of a helium gas atom at – 20 °C ? (atomic mass of Ar = 39.9 u, of He = 4.0 u).
Solution:
Let c and c’ be the rms velocity of argon and a helium gas atoms at temperature TK and TK’ respectively.
Here μ = 39.9, μ = 4.0,
T = 2, T’ = -20 + 273 = 253 K.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 5

Question 10.
Estimate the mean free path and collision frequency of a nitrogen molecule in a cylinder containing nitrogen at 2.0 atm and temperature 17 °C. Take the radius of a nitrogen molecule to be roughly 1.0 Å. Compare the collision time with the time the molecule moves freely between two successive collisions (Molecular mass of N2 = 28.0 u).
Solution:
Here, λ = 2, f = 2
P = 2 atm = 2 × 1.013 × 105 Nm-2
T = 17 °C = (17 + 273) K = 290 k
σ = 2 × 1 = 2A° = 2 × 10-10 m
K = 1.38 × 10-23 J molecule-1 k-1,
μ = 28 × 10-3 kg
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{KT}}{\sqrt{2} \pi \sigma^2 \rho}\)
= \(\frac{1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 290}{1.414 \times 3.14\left(2 \times 10^{-10}\right)^2 \times 2.026 \times 10^5}\)
λ = \(\frac{1.38 \times 29 \times 10^{-7}}{1.44 \times 3.14 \times 2.06}\) = 1.11 × 10-7 m.
vrms = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 R T}{M}}=\sqrt{\frac{3 \times 8.31 \times 290}{28 \times 10^{-3}}}\) = 508.24 m/s.
Collision frequency = no. of collisions per second = \(\frac{v_{r m s}}{\lambda}=\frac{508.24}{1.11 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 4.58 × 109

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 11.
A metre long narrow bore held horizontally (and closed at one end) contains a 76 cm long mercury thread, which traps a 15 cm column of air. What happens if the tube is held vertically with the open end at the bottom ?
Solution:
When the tube is held horizontally, the mercury of length 76 cm traps length of air = 15 cm. A length of 9 cm of the tube will be left at the open end. Fig. (a). The pressure Of air enclosed in tube will be atmospheric pressure. Let area of cross section of the tube be 1 sq.cm.
∴ P1 = 76 cm and v1 = 15 cm3.
When the tube is held vertically, 15 cm air gets another 9 cm of air (filled in the right hand side position) and let h cm of the mercury flows out to balance the atmospheric pressure. Fig. (b). Then the heights of air column and mercury column are (24 + h) cm and (76 – h) cm respectively.
The pressure of air = 76 – (76 – h) = h cm of mercury
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 6
∴ v2 = (24 + h) cm3 and P2 = hcm.
If we assume that temperature remains constant, then
P1v1 = P2v1 or 76 × 15 = h × (24 + h) or h2 + 24h – 1140 = 0
(or) h = \(\frac{-24 \pm \sqrt{(24)^2+4 \times 1140}}{2}\) = 23.8 cm
(or) -47.8 cm.
Since h cannot be negative, therefore h = 23.8 cm.
In vertical position it flows out (23.8) cm.

Question 12.
From a certain apparatus, the diffusion rate of hydrogen has an average value of 28.7 cm3s-1. The diffusion of another gas under the same conditions is measured to have an average rate of 7.2 cm3s-1. Identify the gas.
[Hint: Use Graham’s law of diffusion : R1/R2 = (M2/M1) where R1, R2 are diffusion rates of gases 1 and 2 and M1 and M2 their respective molecular masses. The law is a simple consequence of kinetic theory.]
Solution:
According to Graham’s law of diffusion
\(\frac{r_1}{r_2}=\sqrt{\frac{M_2}{M_1}}\)
Where
r1 = diffusion rate of hydrogen = 28.7 cm3s-1
r2 = diffusion rate of unknown gas = 7.2 cm3s-1
M1 = molecule wt. of hydrogen = 2u M2 = ?
M2 = ?
∴ \(\frac{28.7}{7.2}=\sqrt{\frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1}} \text { or } M_2=\left(\frac{28.7}{7.2}\right)^2 \times 2\) = 31.78
≈ 32 µ

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 13.
A gas in equilibrium has uniform density and pressure throughout its volume. This is strictly true only if there are no external influences. A gas column under gravity, for example, does not have uniform density (and pressure). As you might expect, its density decreases with height. The precise dependence is given by the so- called law of atmospheres.
n2 = n1 exp [-mg(h2 – h1)/KBT] Where n2, n1 refer to number density at heights h2 and h1 respectively. Use this relation to derive the equation for sedimentation equilibrium of a suspension in a liquid column :
n2 = n1 exp [-mg NA (ρ – P) (h2 – h1)/(ρRT]
Where ρ is the density of the suspended particle and ρ that of surrounding medium. [NA is Avogadro’s number and R the universal gas constant.]
[Hint: Use Archimedes principle to f ind the apparent weight of the suspended particle.]
Solution:
According to the law of atmospheres n2 = n1 exp. [-\(\frac{m g}{K_B T}\) (h2 – h1)] ………… (1)
Where n2 n1 refer to number density of particles at heights h2 and h1 respectively. If we consider the sedimentation equilibrium of suspended particles in a liquid, then in place of mg, we will have to take effective weight of suspended particles.
Let
v = average vol. of suspended particle
ρ = density of suspended particle
ρ’ = density of liquid
m = mass of one suspended particle
m’ = mass of equal vol. of liquid displaced
According to Archimedis principle, effective weight of one suspended particle.
= actual weight – weight of liquid displaced
= mg – m’ g
= mg – v P’g = mg – (m/P) P’g = mg \(\left(\frac{1-\rho^{\prime}}{\rho}\right)\)
Also boltzman constant, KB = \(\frac{R}{N A}\) ………….. (i)
Where R is gas constant and NA is Avagadros number.
Putting mg \(\left(\frac{1-\rho^{\prime}}{\rho}\right)\) in place of mg and value of KB in (i).
We get
n2 = n1 exp \(\left[-\frac{\text { mgNA }}{R T} \cdot\left(1-\frac{\rho^{\prime}}{\rho}\right)\left(h_2-h_1\right)\right]\)
Which is the required relation.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 14.
Given below are densities of some solids and liquids. Give rough estimates of the size of their atoms :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory 7
[Hint: Assume the atoms to be tightly packed1 in a solid or liquid phase, and use the known value of Avogadro’s number. You should, however, not take the actual numbers you obtain for various atomic sizes too literally. Because of the crudeness of the tight packing approximation, the results only indicate that atomic sizes are in the range of few Å].
Solution:
If r is the radius of the atom, then volume of each atom = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
Volume of all atoms in one mole of substance
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 × N = μ/P
r = \(\left[\frac{3 \mu}{4 \pi \mathrm{PN}}\right]^{\frac{1}{3}}\)
For carbon p = 12.01 × 10-3 kg,
P = 2.22 × 103 kg m-3
r = \(\frac{3 \times 12.01 \times 10^{-3}}{4 \times \frac{22}{7} \times\left(2.2210^3\right) \times\left(6.02310^{23}\right)}\)
r = 1.29 × 10-10 m = 1.29A°
Similarly for gold
r = 1.59A°
For liquid nitrogen r = 1.77A°
For lithium r = 1.73A°
For liquid fluorine r = 1.88A°

Textual Examples

Question 1.
The density of water is 1000 kg m-3. The density of water vapour at 100° C and 1 atm pressure is 0.6 kg m-3. The volume of a molecule multiplied by the total number gives. What is called, molecular volume. Estimate the ratio (or fraction) of the molecular volume to the total volume occupied by the water vapour under the above conditions of temperature and pressure.
Answer:
For a given mass of water molecules, the density is less if volume is large. So the volume of the vapour is 1000/0.6 = /(6 × 10-4) times, large. If densities of bulk water and water molecules are same, then the fraction of molecular volume to the total volume in liquid state is 1. As volume in vapour state has increased, the fractional volume is less by the same amount, i.e. 6 × 10-4.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 2.
Estimate the volume of a water molecule using the data in Example 1.
Answer:
In the liquid (or solid) phase, the molecules of water are quite closely packed. The density of water molecule may therefore, be regarded as roughly equal to the density of bulk water = 1000 kgm-3. We know that 1 mole of water has a mass approximately equal to (2 + 16)g = 18 g = 0.018 kg.
Since 1 mole contains about 6 × 1023 molecules (Avogadro’s number).
The mass of a molecule of water is (0.018) / (6 × 1023) kg = 3 × 10-26 kg.
Volume of a water molecule = (3 × 10-26 kg) (1000 kg m-3)
= 3 × 10-29 m3
= (4/3)π (Radius)3
∴ Radius » 2 × 10-10 m = 2Å

Question 3.
What is the average distance between atoms (interatomic distance) in water ? Use the data given in Examples 1 and 2.
Answer:
A given mass of water in vapour state has 1.67 × 103 times the volume of the same mass of water inliquid state (e.g. 1). When volume increases by 103 times the radius increases by V1/3 or 10 times,
i.e., = 10 × 12 = 2Å.
So the average distanceis 2 × 10 40 Å.

Question 4.
A vessel contains two non-reactive gases : neon (monatomic) and oxygen (diatomic). The ratio of their partial pressures is 3 : 2. Estimate the ratio of (i) number of molecules and (ii) mass density of neon and oxygen in the vessel. Atomic mass of Ne = 20.2 u, molecular mass of O2 = 32.0 u.
Answer:
Each gas (assumed ideal) obeys the gas law. Since V and T are common to the two gases, we have P1V = μ1 RT and P2V = μ2 RT. i.e., (P1 / P2) = (μ1 / p2). Here 1 and 2 refer to neon and oxygen respectively.
Since (P1 / P2) = (3/2) (given), (μ1 / μ2) = 3/2.

i) By definition μ1 = (N1 /NA) and μ2 = (N2/NA) where N1 and N2 are the number of molecules of 1 and 2, and NA is the Avogadro’s number. Therefore,
(N1/N2) = (μ12) = 3/2.

ii) We can also write μ1 = (m1/ M1) and μ2 = (m2 / M2) where m1 and m2 are their molecular masses. (Both m1 and M1; as well as m2 and M2 should be expressed in the same units). If ρ1 and ρ2 are the mass densities of 1 and 2 respectively, we helve
\(\frac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}=\frac{m_1 / V}{m_2 / V}=\frac{m_1}{m_2}=\frac{\mu_1}{\mu_2} \times\left[\frac{M_1}{M_2}\right]\)
= \(\frac{3}{2} \times \frac{20.2}{30.2}\) = 0.947

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 5.
A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixtures is 27° C. Obtain the ratio of (i) average kinetic energy per molecule and (ii) root mean square speed vrms of the molecules of the two gases. Atomtic mass of argon = 39.9 u. Molecular mass of chlorine = 70.9 u.
Answer:
The important point to remember is that the average kinetic energy (per molecule) of any (ideal) gas (be it monatomic like argon, diatomic like chlorine or polyatomic) is always equal to (3/2) kBT. It depends only on temperature and is independent of the nature of the gas.
i) Since argon and chlorine both have the same temperature in the flask, the ratio of average kinetic energy (per molecule) of the two gases is 1 : 1.
ii) Now 1/2 mvrms2 = average kinetic energy . per molecule = (3/2) KBT where m is the mass of a molecule of the gas. Therefore,
\(\frac{\left(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{rms}}^2\right)_{A \mathrm{C}}}{\left(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{ms}}^2\right)_{\mathrm{cl}}}=\frac{(\mathrm{m})_{\mathrm{C}}}{(\mathrm{m})_{\mathrm{Ar}}}=\frac{(\mathrm{M})_{\mathrm{Cl}}}{(\mathrm{M})_{\mathrm{Ar}}}=\frac{70.9}{39.9}\) = 1.77
where M denotes the molecular mass of the gas.
\(\frac{\left(\mathrm{V}_{\text {rms }}\right)_{\mathrm{Ar}}}{\left(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{rms}}\right)_{\mathrm{cl}}}\) = 1.33

Question 6.
a) When a molecule (or an elastic ball) hits a (massive) wall, it rebounds with the same speed. When a ball hits a massive bat held firmly, the same thing happens. However, when the bat is moving towards the ball, the ball rebounds with a different speed. Does the ball move faster or slower ? (ch. 6 will refresh your memory on elastic collisions).
b) When gas in a cylinder is compressed by pushing in a piston, its temperature rises. Guess at an explanation of this in terms of kinetic theory using (a) above.
c) What happens when a compressed gas pushes a piston out and expands. What would you observe ?
d) Sachin Tendulkar uses a heavy cricket bat while playing. Does it help him in anyway ?
Answer:
a) Let the speed of the ball be u relative to the wicket behind the bat. If the bat is moving towards the ball with a speed V relative to the wicket, then the relative speed of the ball to bat is V + u towards the bat. When the ball rebounds (after hitting the massive bat) its speed, relative to bat, is V + u moving away from the bat. So relative to the wicket the speed of the rebounding ball is V + (V + u) = 2V + u, moving away from the wicket. So the ball speeds up after the collision with the bat. The rebound speed will be less than u if the bat is not massive. For a molecule this would imply an increase in temperature.
You should be able to answer (b) (c) and (d) based on the answer to (a).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Kinetic Theory

Question 7.
A cylinder of fixed capacity 44.8 litres contains helium gas at standard temperature and pressure. What is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by 15.0° C ? (R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1).
Answer:
Using the gas law PV = μRT, you can easily show that 1 mol of any (ideal) gas at standard temperature (273 K) and pressure (1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa) occupies a volume of 22.4 litres. This universal volume is called molar volume. Thus the cylinder in this example contains 2 mol of helium. Further, since helium is monatomic, its predicted (and observed) molar specific heat at constant volume, Cv = (3/2) R, and molar specific heat at constant pressure, Cp = (3/2) R + R =(5/2) R. Since the volume of the cylinder is fixed, the heat required is determined by Cv.
Therefore,
Heat required = no. of moles × molar specific heat × rise in temperature
= 2 × 1.5 R × 15.0 = 45
R = 45 × 8.31 = 374 J.

Question 8.
Estimate the mean free path for water molecule in water vapour at 373 K. Use information from Exercises 1 and above. l = 2.9 × 10-7 m = 1500d.
Ans. The d for water vapour is same as that of air. The number density is inversely proportional to absolute temperature.
So n = 2.7 × 1025 × \(\frac{273}{373}\) = 2 × 1025 m-3
Hence, mean free path l = 4 × 10-7 m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Thermodynamics Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Thermodynamics

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Thermal equilibrium. How does it lead to the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
Answer:
If the temperatures of the two systems are equal, then they are said to be in thermal equilibrium.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics: “If two systems (A, B) are in thermal equilibrium with the third system (c) separately, then two systems (A, B) thermal equilibrium with each other.”

Question 2.
Define Calorie. What is the relation between calorie and mechanical equivalent of heat?
Answer:
Calorie: It is defined to be the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C.
The relation between calorie and mechanical equivalent of heat is given by 1 cal = 4186 J Kg-1K-1 or 1 cal = 4.186 J g-1K-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Qeustion 3.
What thermodynamic variables can be defined by
a) Zeroth Law
b) First Law ?
Answer:
a) Temperature
b) Internal energy.

Question 4.
Define specific heat capacity of the substance. On which factors does it depend ?
Answer:
Specific heat capacity :
The amount of heat required to raise the 1 gm of substance through 1°c or 1 k is called specific heat capacity (or) the heat capacity per unit mass is called specific heat.
S = \(\left(\frac{1}{m}\right) \frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\)
It depends on 1) natuture of the substance 2) temperature.

Question 5.
Define molar specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Molar specific heat capacity : The amount of heat required to raise the 1gm mole of substance through 1°C or 1°K is called molar specific heat capacity.

Question 6.
For a solid, what is the total energy of an oscillator ?
Answer:
For a mole of a solid, the total energy of an oscillator, U = 3KB T × NA = 3RT.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 7.
Indicate the graph showing the variation of specific heat of water with temperature. What does it signify ?
Ans.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 1
Significance : the specific heat of water varies slightly with temperature in the range 0 to 100°C.

Question 8.
Define state variables and equation of state.
Answer:
State variables : The state of a system is described by pressure P, temparature T, density p (intensive variables) and internal energy U, Volume V, total mass M (Extensive variables). These are called state variables.

Equation of state : The connection between the state variables is called the equation of state.

Question 9.
Why a heat engine with 100% efficiency can never be realised in practise ?
Answer:
The efficiency of heat engine is η = 1 – \(\frac{Q_2}{Q_1}\)
For Q2 = 0, η = 1, i.e., the engine will have 100% efficiency in converting heat into work.
The first law of thermodynamics does not rule out such an engine. But experience shows that such an ideal engine with η = 1 is never possible.

Question 10.
In summer, when the valve of a bicycle tube is opened, the escaping air appears cold.
Answer:
This happens due to adiabatic expansion of the air of the tube of the bicycle.

Question 11.
Why does the brake drum of an automobile get heated up while moving down at constant speed ?
Answer:
The work done by the brake drum on wheel is converted into heat due to friction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 12.
Can a room be cooled by leaving the door of an electric refrigerator open ?
Answer:
No, a room can not be cooled by leaving the door of a refrigerator open, rather it will get slightly heated.

Question 13.
Which of the’ two will increase the pressure more, an adiabatic or an isothermal process, in reducing the volume to 50% ?
Answer:
Isothermal process obeys , P1V1 = P2V2
But V2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{v_1}}{2}\) ⇒ P1V1, = P2 \(\frac{\mathrm{v_1}}{2}\)
∴ P2 = 2P1
Adiabatic process obeys, P1V1γ = P2V2γ
P2 = \(P_1\left[\frac{v_1}{v_2}\right]^\gamma=p_1\left[\frac{v_1}{\frac{v_1}{2}}\right]\)
∴ P2 = 2γ P1 Where r = \(\frac{C_p}{C_v}\)
∴ pressure is more in adiabatic than isothermal.

Question 14.
A thermoflask containing a liquid is shaken vigorously. What happens to its temperature ? .
Answer:
Work is done by the liquid on the wall of flask, since it is vigorously shaken. Hence Internal energy and temperature of the liquid increases.

Question 15.
A sound wave is sent into a gas pipe. Does its internal energy change ?
Answer:
Yes, a sound wave is sent into a gas pipe internal energy increases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 16.
How much will be the internal energy change in

  1. isothermal process
  2. adiabatic process

Answer:

  1. Change in internal energy during isothermal process is dU = 0 [∵ U is constant)]
  2. a) Change in internal energy during adiabatic compression increases,
    b) Change in internal energy during adiabatic expansion decreases.

Question 17.
The coolant in a chemical or a nuclear plant should have.high specific heat. Why ?
Answer:
In chemical and nuclear plants more heat is liberated. To absorb this heat, the coolant should have a property of high specific heat for small rise in temperature.
Since S = \(\frac{1}{m} \frac{d Q}{d t}\) ⇒ S ∝ \(\frac{1}{d t}\)

Question 18.
Explain the following processes

  1. Isochoric process
  2. Isobaric process

Answer:

  1. Isochoric process : A process takes place at constant volume is called Isochoric process. During this process, no work is done on or by the gas, its internal energy and its temperature changes.
  2.  Isoboric process : A process takes place at constant pressure is called isobaric process During this process temperature, internal energy changes. The heat absorbed goes partly to increase internal energy and partly to do work.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State and explain first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Statement: The amount of heat supplied to system is equal to the algebraic sum of the change in internal energy of the system and the amount of external work-done.

Explanation : When ∆Q is the quantity of heat is supplied to system, a part of it is used to increase its internal energy ∆U and the rest is used in doing external work ∆W. The mathematical expressions of this law is ∆Q = ∆U – ∆W. It is a special case of law of conservation of energy.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 2.
Define two principal specific heats of a gas. Which is greater and why ?
Answer:
Two principal specific heats of a gas are

  1. Molar specific heat capacity at constant pressure
  2. molar specific heat capacity at constant volume.

1. Molar Specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp): The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm – mole of a gas through 1°C at constant pressure is called molar specific heat at constant pressure.
i.e., Cp = \(\frac{1}{\mu} \frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\) where μ is no of moles.

2. Molar Specific heat capacity at constant volume (Cv): The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1gm – mole of a gas through 1°C at constant volume is called molar specific heat at constant volume i.e., Cv = \(\frac{1}{\mu} \frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\)

Explanation of Cp is greater that Cv: When a gas is heated at a constant pressure, it expands. The heat supplied to it is used partly in raising its temperature and partly in doing work against the external pressure. If, on the other hand, the gas is heated at constant volume, no work is done. Therefore, the heat supplied is to be used only in raising the temperature. Hence the amount of heat required to be supplied to a gas to raise its temperature by 1 °C (say) at constant pressure will be greater than the amount required at constant volume.

Question 3.
Derive a relation between the two specific heat capacities of gas on the basis of first law of thermodynamics
Answer:
The mathematical equation of first law of thermodynamics for 1 mole of gas is given by
∆Q = ∆U + P∆V
if ∆Q is absorbed heat at constant volume, ∆V = 0
Cv = \(\left[\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right]_V=\left[\frac{\Delta U}{\Delta T}\right]_V=\left[\frac{\Delta U}{\Delta T}\right]\) ……………. (1)
Where the subscript V is dropped in the last step, since U of an ideal gas depends only on temperature. (The subscript denotes the quantity kept fixed.) If, on the other hand, ∆Q is absorbed heat at constant pressure,
Cp = \(\left[\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right]_P=\left[\frac{\Delta U}{\Delta T}\right]_P+P\left[\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right]_P \Rightarrow\left[\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right]_P=\left[\frac{\Delta U}{\Delta T}\right]+P\left[\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right]_P\) ………………… (2)
The subscript p.can be dropped from the first term since U of an ideal gas depends only on T. Now, for a mole of an ideal gas.
PV = RT
Which gives P\(\left[\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta T}\right]_P\) = R
Putting the equations (1) and (3) in (2), we get
Cp = Cv + R
∴ Cp – Cv = R

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 4.
Obtain an expression for the work done by an ideal gas during isothermal change.
Answer:
Expression for the work done by an ideal gas during isothermal change : Let a certain mass of gas expands from volume V1 to V2 isothermally at constanst temperature T. Let the pressure changes form P1 to P2.
The work done during the small change in volume dv at a pressure ‘p’ is dw = pdv
The total work done during the change of volume from V1 to V2 is W = \(\int d w=\int_{V_1}^{V_2} p d v\) …………. (1)
The Isothermal change is represented by
PV = constant
PV = μRT ⇒ P =\(\frac{\mu \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{V}}\) where μ = no. of moles
substituting this value in equation (1)
W = \(\int_{V_1}^{v_2} p d v=\int_{V_1}^{V_2} \frac{\mu R T}{V} d V=\mu R T \int_{V_1}^{V_2} \frac{d v}{V}\)
W = μRT loge \(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\)
∴ Work done during the isothermal change W = 2.3026 RT log10 \(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\) .

Question 5.
Obtain an expression for the work done by an ideal gas during adiabatic change and explain.
Answer:
Expression for the work done by an ideal gas during adiabatic change :
During an adiabatic chnage the state of an ideal gas changes from (P1, V1, T1) to (P2, V2, T2)
The workdone during a small change in volume dV at a pressure p is dw = pdV
Total work done by gas from volume V1 to V2 is ,
W = \(\int\) dw = \(\int_{v_1}^{v_2}\) pdv ………………. (1)
The adiabatic relation between pressure and volume is given by PVr = constant K …………. (2)
P = \(\frac{k}{v^r}\) …………… (3)
and P1V1r = P2V2r = K
Substituting eg. (3) in (1) becomes
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 2
This is equal to the work done during the adiabatic change.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
Compare isothermal and an adiabatic process.
Answer:
Isothermal change

  1. Changes in volume and pressure of a gas taking place at constant temperature are called isothermal changes,
  2. Temperature of the gas remains constant.
  3. The gas remains in good thermal contact with the surroundings and heat is exchanged.
  4. Internal energy remains constant. Change in internal energy ∆U = 0
  5. This process takes place slowly.
  6. Boyle’s law PV = Constant holds good.
  7. Work done W = RT loge\(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\) .

Adiabatic change

  1. Changes in volume and pressure of a gas taking place in a thermally isolated system are called adiabatic changes.
  2. Temperature of the gas changes.
  3. The gas is isolated from the surroundings and heat is not exchanged ∆Q = 0.
  4. Internal energy changes.
  5. This process takes place quickly.
  6. PVr = Constant
  7. Work done W = \(\frac{R}{(r-1)}\)(T1 – T2)

Question 7.
Explain the following processes
i) Cyclic process with example
ii) Non cyclic process with example
Answer:
i) Cyclic process: “A process in which the system after passing through various stages (of pressure, volume and temperature changes) returns to its initial state1′ is called as a cyclic process.
For cyclic process P.V graph is a closed curve. The area under P-V graph gives work done by the substance. In a cyclic process there will be no change in the internal energy i.e., ∆U = 0
The first law of thermodynamics states that
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
∴ For cyclic process ∆Q = ∆W
In cyclic process, the total heat absorbed by the system equals the work done by the system. Example : Fleat engine is a device by which a system is made to undergo a cyclic process that results in conversion of heat to work.

ii) Non cyclic process : A process which is not cyclic is called Non-cyclic process. In Non-cydic process, the system does not attains its initial state. Irreversible process is a Non cyclic process. Workdone in non-cyclic process is given by the area between the curve and volume axis.

Example :

  1. Diffusion of liquids or gases
  2. Free expansion of a perfect gas.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 8.
Write a short note on Quasi – static process.
Answer:
A quasi-static process is defined as “an infinitesimally slow process in which at each and every intermediate stage the system remains in thermal and mechanical (thermodynamic) equilibrium with the surroundings through out the entire process.”

In this process the pressure and temperature of the surroundings at each and every stage will differ from those of the system only in a very small amount.

Any process taking place sufficiently slowly, not involving acceleration motions and large temperature gradients can be considered as quasi -static process.
Example : isothermal process, adiabatic process.

Question 9.
Explain qualitatively the working of a heat engine.
Answer:
“A device used to convert heat energy into work (or mechanical energy)” is called heat engine. A heat engine converts heat into work.
A heat engine consists of the following essential parts :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 3

  1. A body at a higher temperature T1. Heat Q1 is extracted from this body and hence it is called a “hot reservior” (or source).
  2. The engine contains working substance. In a steam engine the working substance is the steam. In a diesel engine the working substance is a mixture of fuel vapour and air.
  3. A body at lower temperature T2. Heat Q2 is rejected by the working substance to this body and hence it is called a cold reservoir (or sink).

The difference in heat absorbed (Q1) and heat rejected (Q2) is equal to the workdone by the system (W). This is because the engine is operated in a cyclic process. W = Q1 – Q2.

The heat engine operates in a cyclic process and in each cycle, the work done (W) by the system is transferred to the environment via some arrangement (shaft) to drive vehicles.

The efficiency (η) of aheat engine is defined as the ratio of the workdone (W) by the engine to the amount of heat absorbed (Q1) by the engine.
Efficiency (η) = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{Q}_1}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_1-\mathrm{Q}_2}{\mathrm{Q}_1}=1-\frac{\mathrm{Q}_2}{\mathrm{Q}_1}\)

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain reversible and irreversible processes. Describe the working of Carnot engine. Obtain an expression for the effieciency. [AP – Mar. ’18, ’17, ’16, 15; TS – Mar. ’17, ’15, ’14]
Answer:
Reversible process : A process that can be retraced back in the opposite direction in such away that the system passes through the same states as in the direct process, and finally the system and the surroundings return in their original states, is called a reversible process.
A reversible process is only a purely idealised process.
Examples:

  1. Slow isothermal and slow adiabatic changes
  2. Peltier effect and seeback effect.
  3. Fusion of ice and vaporisation of water.

Irreversible process : “A process that cannot be retraced back in the opposite direction” is called as irreversible process.

In this process the system does not pass through the same intermediate states as in the reversible process.
All natural processes such as conduction, radiation, radioactivity etc, are irreversible.
Example:

  1. Work done against friction.
  2. Heat produced in conductors by passing a current through it. (Joule heating)
  3. Diffusion of gases.

Carnot Engine : A reversible heat engine operating between two temperatures is called a carnot engine. The cycle operating it is known as carnot’s cycle. In this cycle the working substance(say an ideal gas) is taken through a cycle by means of two isothermals and two adiabatics. The four operations are shown in P-V (Indicator) diagram.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 4

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Step 1 → 2 : Isothermal expansion of the gas taking its state from (P1, V1, T1) to (P2, V2, T2). It is shown in curve (a).
The heat absorbed by the gas (Q1) from the reservoir at temperature
T1 equals the workdone by the gas. i.e.
W1 → 2 = Q1 = μRT1 loge \(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\)

Step 2 →3 : Adiabatic expansion of the gas from (P2, V2, T1) to (P3, V3, T2). It is shown in curve (b). The work done by the gas is gÑen by
W2 → 3 = \(\frac{\mu R\left(T_1-T_2\right)}{(r-1)}\)

Step 3 → 4: Isothermal compression of the gas from (P3, V3, T2) to (P4, V4, T2). It is shown in curve (c).
Heat released (Q2) by the gas to the reservoir at temperature T2 equals the work done on the goes.
i.e., W3 → 4;= μRT2 loge \(\frac{V_4}{V_3}\) = -μRT1 loge \(\frac{V_3}{V_4}\)

Step 4 → 1: Adiabatic compression of the gas from (P4, V4, T2) to (P1, V1, T1). It is shown in curve (d) Work done on the gas is given by.
W4 → 1 = μR \(\frac{\left(T_2-T_1\right)}{(r-1)}=-\mu R \frac{\left(T_1-T_2\right)}{(r-1)}\)
Total work done by the gas in one complete cycle is
W = W1 → 2 + W2 → 3 + W3 → 4 + W4 → 1
= \(\mu R T_1 \log _e \frac{V_2}{V_1}+\frac{\mu R\left(T_1-T_2\right)}{(r-1)}-\mu R T_2 \log _e \frac{V_3}{V_4}-\frac{\mu R\left(T_1-T_2\right)}{(r-1)}\)
∴ W = μRT1 loge \(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\) – μRT2 loge \(\frac{3}{V_4}\) = Q1 – Q2 …………… (2)
The efficiency of the cannot engine is
η = \(\frac{W}{Q_1}=\frac{Q_1-Q_2}{Q_1}\) ………… (3)
Now since step 2 → 3 is an adiabatic process,
T1V2r – 1 ≈ T2V3r – 1
Similarly, since step 4 → 1 is an adiabatic process,
T2V2r – 1 = T1V1r – 1 ⇒ T1V1r – 1 = T2V2r – 1
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 5

Question 2.
State second law of thermodynamics. How is heat engine different form a refrigerator. [TS – Mar. ’18, ’16; AP – Mar. ’15, ’13]
Answer:
Second law of thermodynamics gives the direction of flow of heat. Second law consists two statements.

  1. Kelvin – Planck statement: “No process is possible whose sole result is the absorption of heat from a reservoir and the complete conversion of the heat into work”.
    (or)
    “It is impossible to derive a continuous supply of engines in cooling a body below the coldest of its surroundings1′.
  2. Clausius statement : “No process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter object”.
    (or)
    “Heat can not itself flow from cold body to hot body”.

Heat engine : A device which converts heat energy into work is called heat engine.
A heat engine consists of the essential parts.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 6

  1. Source or hot reservoir: It is maintained at a very high temperature T1. Heat is extracted from this body.
  2. Working substance : In a steam engine working substance is steam. In a diesel engine working substance is mixture of fuel vapour and air.
  3. Sink or cold reservoir: It is maintained at a very low temperature T2. It absorbs heat energy, rejected by working substance.

Work done: The difference of heat absorbed from source and heat rejected to sink is equal to work done by the engine, i.e., W = Q1 – Q2.
Efficiency : The ratio of workdone (W) by the engine to the amount of heat absorbed (Q1) by the engine is called efficiency.
i.e., η = \(\frac{W}{Q_1}=\frac{Q_1-Q_2}{Q_1}=1-\frac{Q_2}{Q_1}\)
Refrigerator : Refrigerator is a heat pump which is the reverse of a heat engine.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 7
In refrigerator the working substance extracts (Q2) an amount of heat from sink of lower temperature and a external work W is done on the working substance and finally amount of heat (Q1) is transfered to source.
The coefficient of performance (α) of a refrigerator is given by
α = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_2}{\mathrm{~W}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}_2}{\mathrm{Q}_1-\mathrm{Q}_2}\) (∴ heat released Q1 = Q2 + W)
For heat engine η can never exceed 1. For refregirator a can be greater than 1.
Therefore working of refrigerator is opposite to that of heat engine.

Problems

Question 1.
If a monoatomic ideal gas of volume 1 litre at N.T.P. is compressed (i) adia- batically to half of its volume, find the work done on the gas. Also find (ii) the work done if the cdmpression is iso- thermal, (γ = 5/3)
Solution:
i) During an adiabatic process
T1V1r – 1 = T2V2r – 1
Here T1 = 273 K
V2 = \(\frac{V_1}{2}\)
r = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
T2 = \(\left[\frac{V_1}{V_2}\right]^{\frac{5}{3}-1}=273\left[\frac{V_1}{V_1}\right]^{\frac{2}{3}}\)
T2 = (2)\(\frac{2}{3}\) = 273 = 431.6 K
Number of moles = \(\frac{1 \text { litre }}{22.4 \text { litre }}=\frac{1}{22.4}\)
Work done = \(\frac{\mu R}{(r-1)}\) [T1 – T2]
= \(\frac{8.314}{22.4\left[\frac{5}{3}-1\right]}\) × (273 – 431.6)
= \(\frac{8.314 \times 3}{22.4 \times 2}\) (-158.6)
= -89 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

ii) Work done during isothermal compression is
w = 2.3026 μRT log10\(\frac{V_2}{V_1}\)
μ = Number of moles = \(\frac{1}{22.4}\)
T = 273K
R = 8.314 Jmol-1K-2
\(\frac{V_2}{V_1}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5
∴ W = \(\frac{2.3026 \times 8.314 \times 273 \log _{10}(0.5)}{22.4}\)
Or w = -70J

Question 2.
Five moles of hydrogren when heated through 20 K expand by an amount of 8.3 × 10-3m3 under a constant pressure of 105 N/m2. If Cv = 20.1/mole K, find Cp.
Solution:
Mayer’s relation Cp – Cv = R
Multiplying throughout by μ∆T
μCp∆T – μCv∆T = μ R∆T
μ ∆T(Cp – Cv) = P∆T [∴ μ R∆T = P∆V]
5 × 20 (Cp – 20) = 105 × 8.3 × (10 – 3)
[∴ μ = 5, ∆T = 20 K, P = 1 × 105 N/m2 Cv = 20 J/mole K and ∆V = 8.3 × 103 M3]
Cp – 20 = 8.3
∴ Cp = 28.3 J/mole-K

Additional Problems

Question 1.
A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 litres per minute from 27 °C to 77 °C. If the geyser operate on a gas burner, what is the rate of consumption of the fuel if its heat of combustion is 4.0 × 104 J/g ?
Solution:
Here volume of water heated = 3.0 lit/min.
Mass of water heated m = 3000 g/min
Rise in temperature ∆T = 77 – 27 = 50°C
Sp. heat of water C = 4.2 Jg-1C-1
Amount of heat used
∆Q = mc∆T = 3000 × 4.2 × 50
= 63 × 104 J/min
Heat of combustion = 4 × 104 J/g
Rate of combustion of fuel = \(\frac{63 \times 10^4}{4 \times 10^4}\)
= 15.75 g/min

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 2.
What amount of heat must be supplied t 2.0 × 10-2 kg of nitrogen (at room temperature) to raise its temperature by 45 °C at constant pressure ? (Molecular mass of N2 = 28; R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1.)
Solution:
Here mass of gas m = 2 × 10-2kg = 20g
Rise in temperature ∆T = 45°C
Heat required ∆Q = ?
Molecular mass M = 28
Number of moles n = \(\frac{m}{M}=\frac{20}{28}\) = 0.714
As nitrogen is a diatomic gas, molecular specific heat of constant pressure is
Cp = \(\frac{7}{2}\) R = \(\frac{7}{2}\) × 8.3 J mole-1 K-1
As ∆Q = nCp∆T
∆Q = 0.714 × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × 8.3 × 45 J = 933.4 J

Question 3.
Explain why
a) Two bodies at different temperatures T1 and T2 if brought in thermal contact do not necessarily settle to the mean temperature (T1 + T2)/2.
b) The coolant in a chemical or nuclear plant (i.e., the liquid used to prevent the different parts of a plant from getting too hot) should have high specific heat.
c) Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
d) The climate of a harbour town is more temperate then that of a town in a desert at the same latitude.
Solution:
a) In thermal contact heat flows from the body at higher temp to the body at lower temperature till temperatures becomes equal. The final temperature can be the mean temp (T1 + T2)/2 only when thermal capacities of the two bodies are equal.

b) This is because heat absorbed by a substance is directly proportional to the specific heat of the substance.

c) During, driving the temperature of air inside the tyre increases due to motion. According to Charles law, P α T. Therefore, air pressure inside the tyre increases.

d) This is because in a harbour town, the relative humidity is more than in a desert town. Hence the climate of a harbour town is without extremes of hot and cold.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 4.
A cylinder with a movable piston contains 3 moles of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure. The walls of the cylinder are made of a heat insulator, and the piston is insulated by having a pile of sand on it. By what factor does the pressure of the gas increase if the gas is compressed to half its original volume ?
Solution:
As no heat is allowed to be exchanged, the process is adiabatic.
∴ P2V2r = P1V1r (or) \(\frac{P_2}{P_1}=\left(\frac{V_1}{V_2}\right)^r\)
As V2 = \(\frac{V_1}{2}\)
∴ P2/P1 = \(\left(\frac{V_1}{\frac{1}{2} V_1}\right)^{1 .4}\)
= 21.4 = 2.64

Question 5.
In changing the state of a gas adiabatically form an equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B, and amount of work equal to 22.3 J is done on the system. If the gas is taken from state A to B via a process in which the net heat absorbed by the system is 9.35 cal. how much is the net work done by the system in the latter case ? (Take 1 cal = 4.19 J)
Solution:
Here, when the change is adiabatic, ∆Q = 0, ∆w = -22.3 J
If ∆u is change in internal energy of the system, then as
∆Q = ∆u + ∆w
O = ∆u – 22.3 (or) ∆u = 22.3 J
In the second case ∆Q = 9.35 cal
= 9.35 × 4.2 J = 39.3 J
∆w = ?
As ∆u + ∆w = ∆Q
∆w = ∆Q – ∆u
= 39.3 – 22.3 = 17.0 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 6.
Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. A contains a gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stopcock is suddenly opened. Answer the following :
a) What is the final pressure of the gas in A and B ?
b) What is the change in internal energy of the gas ?
c) What is the change in the temperature of the gas ?
d) Do the intermediate states of the system (before settling to the final equilibrium state) lie on its P-V-T surface ?
Solution:
a) When the stopcock is suddenly opened, the volume available to the gas at 1 atm pressure will become two times. Therefore pressure will decrease to one-half i.e., 0.5 atm.

b) There will be no change in the internal energy of the gas as no work is done on/ by the gas.

c) Also there will be no change in temp of the gas as gas does no work in expansion.

d) No, because the process called free expansion is rapid and cannot be controlled. The intermediate states are non equilibrium states and do not satisfy the gas equation. In due course, the gas does return to an equilibrium state.

Question 7.
A steam engine delivers 5.4 × 108J . of work per minute and services 3.6 × 109J of heat per minute form its boiler, what is the efficiency of the engine ? How much heat is wasted per minute ? .
Solution:
Output i.e., useful workdone per min
= 5.4 × 108 J
Input i.e., heat absorbed per min
= 3.6 × 109 J
Efficiency = \(\frac{\text { Output }}{\text { Input }}=\frac{5.4 \times 10^8}{3.6 \times 10^9}\) = 0.15
= 0.15 × 100% = 15%
heat energy wasted / minute = Heat absorbed / minute – useful work done / minute
= 3.6 × 109 – 5.4 × 108 = 109 (3.6 – 0.54)
= 3.06 × 109

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 8.
An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100W. If system performs work at a rate of 75 joules per second. At what rate is the internal energy increasing ?
Solution:
Heat supplied, ∆Q = 100 w = 100 J/s
Useful workdone ∆w = 75 J/s
Increase in internal energy/ sec, ∆u = ?
As ∆Q = ∆u + ∆w
∴ ∆u = ∆Q – ∆w
= 100 – 75 = 25 J/S

Question 9.
A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state to an intermediate state by the linear process shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics 8
Its volume is then reduced to the original value form E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the total work done by the gas from D to E to F
Solution:
A is clear from fig.
Change in pressure dp = EF = 5.0 – 2.0
= 3.0 atm = 3.0 × 1015 Nm-2
Change in volume dv = DF = 600 – 300
= 300 cc = 300 × 10-6 m3
Workdone by the gas from D to E to F = area of ∆DEF
w = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × DF × EF
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (300 × 10-6 ) × (3.0 × 105 ) = 45 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Thermodynamics

Question 10.
A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 9°C. If room temperature is 36°C. calculate the coefficient of performance.
Solution:
Here T1 = 36°C = 36 + 273 = 309 K
T2 = 10°C = 10 + 273 = 283 K
COP = \(\frac{T_2}{T_1-T_2}=\frac{283}{309-283}\)
= \(\frac{283}{26}\) = 10.9

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Thermal Properties of Matter Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Thermal Properties of Matter

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between heat and temperature. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Heat

  1. It is a form of energy.
  2. It is the cause on the body.
  3. It is determined with calorimeter.
  4. It’s unit is Joule and Calories.

Temperature

  1. It is a degree of hotness or coldness of a body.
  2. It is an effect on a body.
  3. It is measured with thermometer.
  4. It’s unit is degree’Celsius or Kelvin or degree Fahrenheit.

Question 2.
What are the lower and upper fixing points in Celsius and Fahrenheit scales ? [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
In Celsius scale, lower fixed point is ice point or 0°C and upper fixed point is steam point or 100°C. In Fahrenheit scale, lower fixed point is 32°F and upper fixed point is 212°F.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 3.
Do the values of coefficients of expansion differ, when the temperatures are measured on Centigrade scale or on Fahrenheit scale ?
Answer:
Yes. The coefficients of expansion depends on scale of temperature because
\(\frac{\alpha}{{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}=\frac{9}{5} \alpha /{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{F}\)

Question 4.
Can a substance contract on heating ? Give an example.
Answer:
Yes. Rubber, type metal, cast iron contract on heating.

Question 5.
Why gaps are left between rails on a railway track ? [A.P. Mar. 17, 16]
Answer:
The length of the rails increases in summer due to high temperature. Therefore a gap is left to allow this expansion.

Question 6.
Why do liquids have no linear and areal expansions ?
Answer:
Liquids occupy the same shape of vessel. They do not have individual length and area. Hence, liquids have no linear and areal expansions.

Question 7.
What is latent heat of fusion ?
Answer:
The amount of heat per unit mass required to change a substance from solid into liquid at the same temperature and pressure is called the latent heat of fusion (Lf).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 8.
What is latent heat of vapourisation ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
The amount of heat per unit mass required to change a substance from the liquid to the vapour state at the same temperature and pressure is called the latent heat of vaporisation (Lv).

Question 9.
What is specific gas constant ? Is it same for all gases ?
Answer:
Universal gas constant per molecular mass is called specific gas constant.
i.e., r = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{m}}\). No, it is different for different gases.

Question 10.
What are the units and dimensions of specific gas constant ?
Answer:
The units of specific gas constant is J/Kg/K. Dimensional formula is (m0.L2t-2K1).

Question 11.
Why utensils are coated black ? Why the bottom of the utensils are made of copper ?
Answer:

  1. Utensils are coated black, because it is a good absorber of heat.
  2. Copper is a good conductor of heat. So, copper is used at the bottom of cooking utensils.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 12.
State Weins displacement law. [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
The wavelength (λm) corresponding to maximum energy emitted by a black body is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature
i.e., λm ∝ \(\frac{1}{T}\)

Question 13.
Ventilators are provided in rooms just below the roof. Why ? [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Ventilators are provided in rooms just below the roof, because the hot air escapes out and fresh air enters into the rooms due to convection.

Question 14.
Does a body radiate heat at 0 K ? Does it radiate heat at 0°C ?
Answer:

  1. No. A body does not radiate heat at 0k.
  2. Yes. A body radiate heat at 0°C.

Question 15.
State the different modes of transmission of heat. Which of these modes require medium ?
Answer:
The different modes of transmission are : 1) conduction 2) convection and 3) radiation.
Among three modes conduction and convection require medium.

Question 16.
Define coefficient of thermal conductivity and temperature gradient.
Answer:
Coefficient of thermal conductivity : It is defined as the quantity of heat energy flowing per second between the opposite faces of cube of unit side, which are maintained at unit temperature difference.
Temperature gradient: The change of temperature per unit length of conductor is called temperature gradient.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 17.
What is thermal resistance of a conductor ? On what factors does it depend ?
Answer:
The resistance offered by the conductor for the flow of heat is called thermal resistance (R) of the conductor. R = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{kA}}\). It depends on

  1. The nature of the material, i.e., thermal conductivity (K).
  2. d; length of conductor along which heat flows and
  3. A; area of cross section of the conductor.

Question 18.
State the units and dimensions of coefficient of convection.
Answer:
The unit of coefficient of convection is, wm-2k-1.
Dimensional formula (m.L0T3θ-1).

Question 19.
Define emissive power and emissivity ?
Answer:
Emissive power : The energy flux emitted by unit surface area of a radiating body is known as emissive power (eλ).

Missivity (e): It is defined as the ratio of the emissive power of the body to that of black body at the same temperature.

Question 20.
What is greenhouse effect ? Explain global warming. [A.P. Mar. 15, 13]
Answer:
Greenhouse effect: When the earth receives sun light, it gets heated up and emits infrared radiation into air. CO2, CH4, N2O, O3, Chlorofluoro carbon (green house gases) present in the air absorbs the heat content of infrared radiation and keeps the earth warm. This is called green house effect.

Global warming : As CO2 content increases, more heat is retained in the atmosphere and the temperatures all over the world increases. This is called global warming.

Effects : a) Polar ice caps melt and fed more water in rivers and seas results in severe floods, b) In some areas, water resources dry up leading to drought conditions.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 21.
Define absorptive power of a body. What is the absorptive power of a perfect black body ?
Answer:
Absorptive power : At a given temperature and wavelength, the ratio of the amount of radiant energy absorbed to the amount of radiant energy incident in a wavelength range is called the absorptive power at that temperature and wavelength. Absorptive power of a perfect black body is 1.

Question 22.
State Newton’s law of cooling. [A.P. Mar. 18, 16; T.S. Mar. 18]
Answer:
The rate of loss of heat is directly proportional to the difference in temperature between the body and its surroundings provided the temperature difference is small. i.e., – \(\frac{\mathrm{dQ}}{\mathrm{dt}} \alpha\left(\mathrm{T}_B-\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{S}}\right)\)

Question 23.
State the conditions under which Newton’s law of cooling is applicable.
Answer:

  1. Loss of heat is negligible by conduction and only when it is due to convection.
  2. Loss of heat occurs in a streamlined flow of air i.e., forced convection.
  3. Temperature of the body is uniformly distributed over it.

Question 24.
The roof of buildings are often painted white during summer. Why ? [T.S. Mar. 17, 15]
Answer:
The roof of buildings are painted white during summer, because it reflects more heat radiations and absorbs less heat radiations. Hence we feel comfort inside the house.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain Celsius and Fahrenheit scales of temperature. Obtain the relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales of temperature.
Answer:
Centigrade (Celsius) scale of temperature: In the Celsius scale of temperature, the lower fixed point is called the ice point and is assigned the value 0°C. The upper fixed point is called the steam point and is assigned the value 100°C. The interval between these two points (i.e., 100°C – 0 = 100°C) is subdivided into 100 equal parts each one corresponding to 1°C.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 1
Fahrenheit scale of temperature : In the Fahrenheit scale of temperature, the lower fixed point is the ice point and is assigned a value 32°F and the upper fixed point is the staempoint and is assigned a value 212°F. The interval between these two points (i.e., 212°F – 32°F = 180°F) is subdivided into 180 equal parts, each one corresponding to 1°F.

Fahrenheit scale of temperature : In the Fahrenheit scale of temperature, the lower fixed point is the ice point and is assigned a value 32°F and the upper fixed point is the staempoint and is assigned a value 212°F. The interval between these two points (i.e., 212°F – 32°F = 180°F) is subdivided into 180 equal parts, each one corresponding to 1°F.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 2
Relation between Celsius and Fahreinheit scales of temperature:
Difference of 100 Celsius degrees = Difference of 180 Fahrenheit degress
When the temperature of a body is measured on both the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales, let the readings be tC and tF respectively. Then
\(\frac{t_c-0}{t^{100}}=\frac{t_F-32}{180} \Rightarrow \frac{t_C}{5}=\frac{t_F-32}{9}\)
C = \(\frac{5}{9}\) (F – 32)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 2.
Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper and the other of steel, are riveted together to form a compound bar. What will happen on heating ?
Answer:
Bimetallic strip:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 3
Two similar strips of copper and steel are revitted side by side as a compound strip called bimetallic strip. It is straight at ordinary temperatures. When the bimetallic strip is heated, copper expands more than steel. So, it bends with copper on convex side. When the bimetallic strip is cooled below room temperature, copper contracts more than steel and it bends with copper on concave side. Bimetallic strip is used in refrigerators, automatic iron, fire alarm etc.

Question 3.
Pendulum clocks generally go fast in winter and slow in summer. Why ?
Answer:
The time period of a pendulum at t1°C is T1 = 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{L_1}{g}}\) ………….. (1)
Where L1 is length of pendulum at t1°C.
If L2 is length of pendulum at t2°C,
then T2 = 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{L_2}{g}}\) ………………. (2)
\(\frac{(2)}{(1)}\) gives \(\frac{T_2}{T_1}=\sqrt{\frac{L_2}{L_1}}=\sqrt{\frac{L_1(1+\alpha t)}{L_1}}\)
Where a is the linear coefficient of expansion of pendulum clock. Where t = t2 – t1
\(\frac{T_2}{T_1}=\sqrt{(1+\alpha t)}=(1+\alpha t)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
\(\frac{T_2}{T_1}=1+\frac{\alpha t}{2}\)
\(\frac{T_2}{T_1}-1=\frac{\alpha t}{2}\)
\(\frac{T_2-T_1}{T_1}=\frac{\alpha t}{2}\)
\(\frac{T_2-T_1}{T_1}\) = time lost by pendulum per second.
Due to expansion in length, during summer, time period increases or the clock looses time in summer. In winter due to fall in temperature, the length contracts, time period decreases, hence clock gains time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 4.
In what way is the anomalous behaviour of water advantageous to acquatic animals ? [A.P. Mar. 18, Mar. 14]
Answer:
In cold countries, as atmospheric temperature decreases, the upper layers of the lakes, rivers etc., cool, contract and sink to the bottom (fig). This goes on until the whole of the water reaches the temperature of 4°C. When the top layers cool further temperature falls below 4°C, it expands and becomes lighter. It does not sink downwards and remains at the top. With further cooling the top layer gradually form ice at the top (fig). Ice and water are bad conductors of heat. So the lower layers are protected against freezing by the layers of ice and cold water at 1°C, 2°C and 3°C. This results in water remaining at the bottom at 4°C. So that aquatic animals survive in those layers of water.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 4

Question 5.
Explain conduction, convection and radiation with examples. [TS – Mar. ’18, ’16, ’15; AP – Mar. ’15]
Answer:
The heat is transmitted in three types. They are 1) Conduction 2) Convection 3) Radiation.

  1. Conduction : The process of transmission of heat from one place to other without actual movement of the particles of the medium is called conduction.
    Ex : When long iron rod is heated at one end, heat transmits to the other end.
  2. Convection : The process of transmission of heat from one place to another by the actual
    movement of the particles is called convection.
    Ex. : If water in a beaker is heated, the particles of water at the bottom receive the heat first. These particles expand, become lighter and rise up. At the same time colder and denser particles reach the bottom. They get in their turn heated and move up. This process is known as convection.
  3. Radiation : The process of transmission of heat from one place to another without any intervening medium is called radiation.
    Ex. : Earth receives heat radiations from the sun.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
State Boyle’s law and charle’s law. Hence, derive ideal gas equation which of two laws is better for the purpose of Thermometry and why ?
Answer:
P ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{V}}\)
⇒ PV = constants ⇒ P1V1 – P2V2
Charles law at constant volume : At constant volume the pressure of given mass of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature of gas.
P ∝ T
⇒ \(\frac{P}{T}\) = constant ⇒ \(\frac{P_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2}{T_2}\)
Charles law at constant pressure : At constant pressure the volume of given mass of gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature.
V ∝ T
⇒ \(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant ⇒ \(\frac{V_1}{T_1}=\frac{V_2}{T_2}\)
Ideal gas equation : A gas which obeys all the gas laws at all temperature and all pressures is called an ideal gas.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 5
Consider are mole of a gas initially at a pressure P1 volume V1 and temperature T1 and Let P2, V2 and T2 be the final pressure, volume and absolute temperature T2.
From Boyle’s law, P1V1 = P2V2
⇒ V = \(\frac{P_1 V_1}{P_2}\) ………….. (1)
Now the gas is heated at constant pressure P2, then its volume changes from V to V2 and temperature changes from T1 and T2.
From charles law, \(\frac{V}{T_1}=\frac{V_2}{T_2} \Rightarrow V=\frac{V_2 T_1}{T_2}\) ………….. (2)
From (1) & (2) \(\frac{P_1 V_1}{P_2}=\frac{V_2 T_1}{T_2} \Rightarrow \frac{P_1 V_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2 V_2}{T_2}\)
⇒ \(\frac{P V}{T}\) = constant ⇒ \(\frac{P V}{T}\) = R
Where ‘R’ is coniversal gas constant.
⇒ PV = RT
From ‘n’ gram moles PV = nRT. This law is called ideal gas equation.
Out of Boyle’s law, charles law is better for the purpose of thermometry because with increasing temperature, pressure and volume of gas also increase.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 2.
Explain thermal conductivity and coefficient of thermal conductivity. A copper bar of thermal conductivity 401 W/(mK) has one end at 104°C and the other end at 24°C. The length of the bar is 0.10 m and the cross – sectional area is 1.0 × 10-6 m-2. What is the rate of heat conduction, along the bar ?
Answer:
Thermal conductivity : Thermal conductivity of a solid body is ability to conduct heat in the body. Coefficient of thermal conductivity: The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the quantity of heat energy flowing per second between the opposite faces of the cube of unit side, which are maintained at unit temperature difference.

Explanation of conduction : In steady state, conduction between the opposite faces which are at temperatures θ1°C and θ2°C separated by distance d is

  1. Directly proportional to area of cross section of the rod.
    Directly proportional to temperature difference (θ2 – θ1) between the opposite faces.
  2. Time of flow of heat, t
  3. Inversely proportional to the separation of faces ‘d’.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 6
    ∴ Q ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{A}\left(\theta_2-\theta_1\right) t}{\mathrm{~d}}\)
    or Q = \(\frac{K A\left(\theta_2-\theta_1\right) t}{d}\)
    K is called coefficient of thermal conductivity of the material.
    When A = 1; (θ2 – θ1) = 1; t = 1; d = 1
    ∴ K = Q

Problem:
Kc = 401 W/mK, θ2 = 104°C, θ2 = 24°C, d = 0.10 m, A = 1.6 × 10-6 m-2
Rate of heat conduction = \(\frac{Q}{t}=K_c A \frac{\left(\theta_2-\theta_1\right)}{d}\)
= 401 × 1 × 10-6 × (104-24) = 0.32 W

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 3.
State and explain Newton’s law of cooling. State the conditions under which Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. A body cools down from 60°C to 50°C in 5 minutes and to 40°C in another 8 minutes. Find the temperature of the surroundings.
Answer:
Expression for Newton’s law of cooling : Consider a hot body at temperature T. Let T0 be the temperature of its surroundings. According to Newton’s law of cooling,
Rate of loss of heat ∝ Temperature difference between the body and its surroundings.
\(\frac{-\mathrm{dQ}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ∝ (T – T0)
\(\frac{-\mathrm{dQ}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = k (T – T0) ⇒ (1) where k is proportionality constant. Let m be the mass and C the specific heat of the body at temperature T. If the temperature of the body falls by small amount dT in time dt, then the amount of heat lost is
dQ = mc dT
∴ Rate of loss of heat is given by
\(\frac{\mathrm{dQ}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = mc \(\frac{\mathrm{dT}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ………….. (2)
putting (2) in (1) ⇒
-mc \(\frac{\mathrm{dT}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = k(T – T0)
\(\frac{\mathrm{dT}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\frac{\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{mc}}\) (T – T0) = -K(T – T0)
where K = \(\frac{\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{mc}}\) is another constant.
⇒ \(\frac{d T}{\left(T-T_0\right)}\) = – K dt
on integrating both sides, we get
\(\int \frac{d T}{\left(T-T_0\right)}=-K \int d t\)
loge (T – T0) = – Kt + c …………… (3)
T – T0 = e-Kt + c
T = T0 + ec e-Kt
T = T0 + Ce-Kt ……………… (4)
Where c is integration constant and C = ec
equations (1), (2), (3) and (4) are the different expressions for Newton’s law of cooling.

Explanation of Graphs:
1) If we plot a graph by taking equation (4) different values of temperature difference ∆T = T – T0 along y – axis and the corresponding values of t along X – axis, we get a curve of the form shown in figure. It clearly shows that the rate of cooling is higher initially and then decreases as the temperature of the body falls.
Curve showing cooling of hot water with time.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 7
2) More over, the equation (3) is of the form y = mx + c. So if we plot a graph, by taking loge(T – T0) along Y – axis and time t along x – axis, we must get a straight line, as shown in figure. It has a negative slope equal to – K and intercept on Y – axis equal to C.
In both of the above situations, Newton’s law of cooling stands verified.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 8
Newton’s law of cooling is applicable :

  1. Loss of heat is negligible by conduction and only when it is due to convection.
  2. Loss of heat occurs in a stream lined flow of air i.e., forced convection.
  3. Temperature of the body is uniformly distributed over it.
  4. Temperature differences are moderate i.e., upto 30 K, however if heat body is due to forced convection the law is valid for large differences of temperature also.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 9
    ∴ Surrounding temperature, θ0 = \(\frac{85^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{3}\) = 28.33°C

Problems

Question 1.
What is the temperature for which the readings on Kelvin and Fahrenheit scales are same?
Answer:
The relation between Kelvin and Fahrenheit scales is given by
\(\frac{K-273.15}{100}=\frac{F-32}{180}\)
but K = F
\(\frac{F-273.15}{100}=\frac{F-32}{180}\)
F – 273.15 = \(\frac{5}{9}\) F – \(\frac{160}{9}\)
F – \(\frac{5}{9}\) F = 273.15 – \(\frac{160}{9}\)
= 273.15 – 17.77
\(\frac{4F}{9}\) = 255.38
∴ F = \(\frac{9}{4}\) (255.38)
= 574.6°F

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 2.
Find the increase in temperature of aluminium rod if its length ¡s to be increased by 1%. (a for aluminium = 25 × 10-6/0 C). [A.P (Mar. ‘15)]
Answer:
Percentage increase in length = \(\frac{l_2-l_1}{l_1}\) × 100
= α(t2 – t1) × 100 [∵ \(\frac{l_2-l_1}{l_1}\) = α(t2 – t1)]
Here, percentage increase in length = 1,
α = 25 × 10-6/ °C
1 = 25 × 10-6(t2 – t1) × 100
t2 – t1 = \(\frac{1}{25 \times 10^{-4}}=\frac{10^4}{25}\) = 400°C

Question 3.
How much steam at 100°C is to be passed into water of mass 100 g at 20°C to raise its temperature by 5°C ? (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g and specific heat of water is 1 cal/g°C).
Answer:
In the method of mixtures,
Heat lost by steam = Heat gained by water
mSLS + mSS(100 – 1) = mWS (t – 20)
Where mS is the mass of steam, LS is the latent heat of steam, S is the specific heat of steam and mW is the mass of water.
Here, LS = 540 cal/g
S = 1 cal/g°C;
mW = 100 g
t = 20 + 5 = 25°C
mS × 540 + mS × 1 × (100 – 25) = 100 × 1 × (25 – 20)
615 mS = 500
mS = \(\frac{500}{615}\)
= 0.813 g.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 4.
2 kg of air is heated at constant volume. The temperature of air is increased from 293 K to 313 K. If the specific heat of air at constant volume is 0.718 kJ/kgK, find the amount of heat absorbed in kJ and kcal.
(J = 4.2 kJ/kcal).
Answer:
Here, M = 2 kg
dT = 313- 293 = 20 K
CV = 0.718 × 103 J/Kg – K
J = 4.2 KJ/Kcal
CV = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~m}} \frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dθ = mCVdT
= 0.718 × 103 × 2 × 20
= 28720 J
dθ = 28.72 KJ
dθ = \(\frac{28720}{4.2 \times 10^3}\)
= 6.838 Kcal.

Question 5.
A dock, with a brass pendulum, keeps correct time at 20°C, but loses 8.212 s per day, when the temperature rises to 30°C. Calculate the coefficient of linear expansion of brass.
Answer:
Here t1 = 20°C, t2 = 30°C
Loss of time per day = 8.212 sec
Loss of time per day = \(\frac{1}{2}\) α (t2 – t1) × 86,400
8.212 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) α (30 – 20) × 86,400
∴ α = \(\frac{16.424}{864 \times 10^3}\)
= 19 × 10-6/C°

Question 6.
A body cools from 60°C to 40°C in 7 minutes. What will be its temperature after next 7 minutes if the temperature of its surroundings is 10°C ?
Answer:
Rate of cooling \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = K(θav – θ0)
Case (i) :
Given, .
θ1 = 60°C, θ2 = 40°C, θ0 = 10°C, t = 7 min
⇒ \(\frac{60^{\circ} \mathrm{C}-40^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{7}=K\left[\frac{60^{\circ} \mathrm{C}+40^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{2}-10^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\right]\)
\(\frac{20}{7}\) = K[50 – 10]
⇒ \(\frac{20}{7}\) = K × 40
∴ K = \(\frac{1}{14}\) ……………. (1)

Case (ii) :
Given,
θ1 = 40°C, θ0 = 10°C, t = 7 min, θ2 = ?
⇒ \(\frac{40-\theta_2}{7}=K\left[\frac{40+\theta_2}{2}-10\right]\)
\(\frac{40-\theta_2}{7}=\frac{1}{14}\left[\frac{40+\theta_2}{2}-10\right]\)
80 – 2θ2 = \(\frac{40+\theta_2-20}{2}\)
160 – 4θ2 = 20 + θ2
2 = 140
∴ θ2 = \(\frac{140}{5}\) = 28°C

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 7.
If the maximum intensity of radiation for a black body is found at 2.65 pm what is the temperature of the radiating body ? (Wien’s constant = 2.9 × 10-3 mK)
Answer:
λmax = 2.65 pm = 2.65 × 10-6m
Wien’s constant (b) = 2.90 × 10-3 mk
λmax T = b(constant)
T = \(\frac{b}{\lambda_{\max }}=\frac{2.9 \times 10^{-3}}{2.65 \times 10^{-6}}\)
= 1094 K.

Additional Problems

Question 1.
The triple points of neon and carbon dioxide are 24.57 K and 216.55 K respectively. Express these temperatures on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales.
Answer:
Relation between kelvin scale and Celsius scale is TC = TK – 273.15
Where TC.TK = temperature on Celsius and kelvin scales respectively
For Neon TC = 24.57 – 273.15 = – 248.58°C
For CO2 TC = 216.55 – 273.15 = -56.60°C
Relation between Kelvin and Fahrenheit scales is
\(\frac{T_F-32}{180}=\frac{T_K-273.15}{100}\)
TF = \(\frac{180}{100}\) (TK – 273.15) + 32
FQ or Neon TF
= \(\frac{180}{100}\)(24.57 – 273.15) + 32 = – 415.44° F
FQ or CO2 TF = \(\frac{180}{100}\) (216.55 – 273.15) + 32
= – 69.88° F

Question 2.
Two absolute scales A and B have triple points of water defined to be 200 A and 350 B. What is the relation between TA and TB ?
Answer:
Given triple point of water on scale A = 200
A triple point of water on scale B = 350 B
As per question 200 A = 350, B = 273.16 K
(Or)
IA = \(\frac{273.16}{200}\) K and IB = \(\frac{273.16}{350}\) K
If TA and TB represent the triple point of water on two scales A and B then
\(\frac{273.16}{200}\) TA = \(\frac{273.16}{350}\)TB (Or) \(\frac{T_A}{T_B}=\frac{200}{350}=\frac{4}{7}\)
(Or) TA = \(\frac{4}{7}\) TB

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 3.
The electrical resistance in ohms of a certain thermometer varies with temperature according to the approximate law:
R = R0[1 + α(T – T0)]
The resistance is 101.6 Ω at the triple-point of water 273.16 K and 165.5 Ω at the normal melting point of lead (600.5 K). What is the temperature when the resistance is 123.4 Ω ?
Answer:
Here, R0 = 101. 6 Ω, T0 = 273.16 K
Case (i) R1 = 165.5 Ω, T1 = 600.5 K
Case (ii) R2 = 123.4 Ω; T2 = ?
Using the relation R = R0(1 + α(T – T0))
Case (i):
165.5 = 101.6(1 + α(600.5-273.16))
α = \(\frac{165.5-101.6}{101.6 \times(600.5-273.16)}\)
= \(\frac{63.9}{101.6 \times 327.34}\)

Case (ii): 123.4 = 101.6(1 + α(T2 – 273.16))
(Or)
123.4 = 101.6
(1 + \(\frac{63.9}{101.6 \times 327.34}\) (T2 – 273.16))
= 101.6 + \(\frac{63.9}{327.34}\) (T2 – 273.16)
T2 = \(\frac{(123.4-101.6) \times 327.34}{63.9}\) + 273.16
= 111.67 + 273.16 = 384.83 K

Question 4.
Answer the following :
a) The triple-point of water is a standard fixed point in modern thermometry. Why? What is wrong in taking the melting point of ice and the boiling point of water as standard fixed points (as was originally done in the Celsius scale) ?
b) There were two fixed points in the original Celsius scale as mentioned above which were assigned the number 0°C and 100°C respectively. On the absolute scale, one of the fixed points is the triple-point of water, which on the Kelvin absolute scale is assigned the number 273.16 K. What is the other fixed point on this (Kelvin) scale ?
c) The absolute temperature (Kelvin scale) T is related to the temperature tC on the Celsius scale by
tc = T – 273.15
Why do we have 273.15 in this relation and not 273.16 ?
Answer:
a) This is on account of the fact that the triple point of water has a unique value i.e., 273.16 K at a unique point, where exists unique values of pressure and volume. On the other hand, the melting point of ice and boiling point of water do not have unique set of value as they change in pressure and volume.

b) The other fixed point on the absolute scale is the absolute zero itself.

c) On Celsius 0°C corresponds to melting points of ice of normal pressure. The corresponding value of absolute temperature is 273.15 K. The temperature 273.16 K corresponds to the triple point of water.
From the given relation the corresponding value of triple point of water on Celsius scale
= 273.16 – 273. 15 = 0.01°C.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 5.
Two. ideal gas thermometers A and B use oxygen and hydrogen respectively. The following observations are made :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 10
a) What is the absolute temperature of normal melting point of sulphur as read by thermometers A and B?
b) What do you think is the reason behind the slight difference in answers of thermoineters A and B ? (The thermometers are not faulty). What further procedure is needed in the experiment to reduce the discrepancy between the two readings ?
Answer:
a). Let T be the melting point of sulphur, for water Ttr = 273.16 K
For thermometer A, T = P/Ptr × 273.16
= \(\frac{1.797 \times 10^5}{1.250 \times 10^5}\) × 273.16 = 392.69 K
For thermometer B, T = P/Ptr × 273.16
= \(\frac{0.287 \times 10^5}{0.200 \times 10^5}\) × 273.16 = 391.98 K

b) The cause of slight different answers is that the oxygen and hydrogen gases are not perfectly ideal. To reduce this discrepancy, the readings should be at lower and lower pressure as in that case, the gases approach to the ideal gas behaviour.

Question 6.
A steel tape 1 m long is correctly calibrated for a temperature of 27.0°C. The length of a steel rod measured by this tape is found to be 63.0 cm on a hot day when the temperature is 45.0°C. What is the actual length of the steel rod on that day ? What is the length of the same steel rod on a day when the temperature is 27.0°C ? Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.20 × 10-5 K-1.
Answer:
Length of steell tape at 27°C is 100 cm i.e.
L = 100 cm and T = 27°C
The length of steel tape at 45°C is L1 = L + ∆L
= L + αL∆T
= 100 + (1.20 × 10-5) × 100 × (45° – 27)
= 100.0216 cm
Length of 1 cm mark at 27°C on this scale, at 45°C
= 100.0216/100 cm
Length of 63 cm measured’ by this tape at 45°C will be
= \(\frac{100.0216}{100}\) × 63 = 63.0136 cm
Length of the same steel rod on a day when the temperature is 27°C = 63 × 1 = 63 cm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 7.
A large steel wheel is to be fitted on to a shaft of the same material. At 27°C, the outer diameter of the shaft is 8.70 cm and the diameter of the central hole in the wheel is 8.69 cm. The shaft is cooled using ‘dry ice’. At what temperature of the shaft does the wheel slip on the shaft ? Assume coefficient of linear expansion of the steel to be constant over the required temperature range :
αsteel = 1.20 × 10-5K-1.
Answer:
Here T1 = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Length at temperature, T1K = LT1 = 8.70 cm
Length at temperature, T2K = LT2 – 8.69 cm
Change in length = LT2 – LT1 = LT2 α(T2 – T2)
Or 8.69 – 8.70 = 8.70 × (1.20 × 10-5) × (T2 – 300)
Or T2 – 300 = \(\frac{0.01}{8.70 \times 1.2 \times 10^{-5}}\) = -95.8
Or T2 = 300 – 95.8 = 204.2 K = -68.8°C

Question 8.
A hole is drilled in a copper sheet. The diameter of the hole is 4.24 cm at 27.0°C. What is the change in the diameter of the hole when the sheet is heated to 227°C ? Coefficient of linear expansion of copper = 1.70 × 10-5K-1.
Answer:
In this problem superfical expansion of copper sheet will be involved on heating. Here, area of hole at 227°C, then area of the hole at 227°C,
S2 = \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{D}_2^2}{4}\)cm2.
Coefficient of superficial expansion of copper is β = 2α = 2 × 1.70 × 10-5 = 3.4 × 10-5 c1
Increase in area = S2 – S1 = βS1 ∆T (or)
S2 = S1 + βS1 ∆T
= S1(1 + β∆T)
(Or)
\(\frac{\pi \mathrm{D}_2^2}{4}=\frac{\pi}{4}\) (4.24)2 [1 + 3.4 × 10-5 (228 – 27)]
(Or)
D22 = (4.24)2 × 1.0068
D2 = 4.2544 cm
Change in diameter = D2 – D1
= 4.2544 – 4.24
= 0.0144 cm.

Question 9.
A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27°C is held taut with little tension between two rigid supports. If the wire is cooled to a temperature of -39°C, what is the tension developed in the wire, if its diameter is 2.0 mm ? Co-efficient of linear expansion of brass = 2.0 × 10-5K-1; Young’s modulus of brass = 0.91 × 1011 Pa.
Answer:
Here L = 1.8m, T1 = 27°C, T2 = -39°C, r = 1
mm = 10-3m, F = ?
α = 2 × 10-5C-1, y = 0.91 × 1011 N/m2
From y = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{a \Delta L}\), ⇒ ∆L = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{ay}}\)
Also ∆L = αL∆T = ∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{ay}}\) = αL∆T
(Or) F = α∆Tay = α(T2 – T1) πr2y
= 2 × 10-5 × (-39 – 27) × (10-3)2 × 0.91 × 1011
= -3.77 × 10-2 N
Negative sign indicates that the force is inward due to contraction of the wire.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 10.
A brass rod of length 50 cm and diameter 3.0 mm is joined to a steel rod of the same length and diameter. What is the change in length of the combined rod at 250°C, if the original lengths are at 40.0°C ? Is there a ‘thermal stress’ developed at the junction ? The ends of the rod are free to expand (Co-efficient of linear expansion of brass = 2,0 × 10-5K-1, steel = 1.2 × 10-5K-1.
Answer:
∆L1 = L1α1∆T = 50 × (2.10 × 10-5) (250 – 40) = 0.2205 cm
∆L2 = L2α2∆T
= 50 × (1.2 × 10-5) (250 – 40) = 0.216 cm
∴ Change in length of combined rod
= ∆L1 + ∆L2
= 0.220 + 0.126 = 0.346 cm

Question 11.
The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 49 × 10-5K-1. What is the fractional change in its density for a 30°C rise in temperature ?
Answer:
Here r = 49 × 10-5C-1, ∆T = 30°C .
As V1 = V + ∆V = V(1 + r∆T)
∴ V1 = V(1 + 49 + 10-5 × 30) = 1.0147 V
As P = \(\frac{m}{V}\), p1 = \(\frac{m}{V^1}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{1.0147 \mathrm{~V}}\)= 09855 P
Fractional change in density = \(\frac{\rho-\rho^{\prime}}{\rho}\)
= \(\frac{\rho-0.9855 \rho}{\rho}\)
= 0.0145

Question 12.
A 10 kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8.0 kg. How much is the rise in temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes, assuming 50% of power is used up in heating the machine itself or lost to the surroundings. Specific heat of aluminium = 0.91 Jg-1K-1.
Answer:
Here p = 10 kw = 105w,
Mass m = 8.0 kg = 8 × 103 g
Rise in temp; ∆T = ?
time t = 2.5 min = 2.5 × 60 sec
Sp. heat C = 0.91 Jg-1°C-1
Total energy = p × t = 104 × 150
= 15 × 105 J
As 50% of energy is lost
∴ Energy available ∆Q = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 15 × 105
= 7.5 × 105 J
As ∆Q = mc ∆T
∴ ∆T = \(\frac{\Delta Q}{\mathrm{mc}}=\frac{7.5 \times 10^5}{8 \times 10^3 \times 0.91}\) = 103°C

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 13.
A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature of 500°C and then placed on a large ice block. What is the maximum amount of ice that can melt ? (Specific heat of copper = 0.39 Jg-1K-1 heat of fusion of water = 335 Jg-1.
Answer:
Here, mass of copper block m = 2.5 kg = 2500 kg
Fall in temperature ∆T = 500 – 0 = 500°C
Specific heat of copper C = 0.39 Jg-1°C-1
Latent heat of fusion L = 335 Jg-1
Let the mass of ice melted by m1
As heat gained by ice = Heat lost by copper
m-1L = Mc∆T
m-1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{mC} \Delta \mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{L}}\)
m1 = \(\frac{2500 \times 0.39 \times 500}{335}\)
= 1500 g = 1.5 kg

Question 14.
In an experiment on the specific heat of a metal, a 0.20 kg block of the metal at 150°C is dropped in a copper calorimeter (of water equivalent 0.025 kg) containing 150 cm3 of water at 27°C. The final temperature is 40°C. Compute the specific heat of the metal. If heat losses to the surroundings are not negligible, is your answer greater or smaller than the actual value for specific heat of the metal ?
Answer:
Here, mass of metal, m = 0.20 kg = 200 g
Fall in temperature of metal ∆T = 150 – 40
= 110°C
If L is specific heat of metal, then heat lost by the metal
∆Q = mc∆T = 200 × L × 110
Volume of water = 150 C.C
Mass of water m1 = 150 g
Water equivalent of calorimeter, w = 0.025 kg = 25 kg
Rise in temp of water and calorimeter
∆T1 = 40 – 27 = 13°C
Heat gained by water and calorimeter,
∆Q1 = (m1 + w)T1
= (150 + 25) × 13 = 175 × 13
As ∆Q = ∆Q1
∴ From (i) and (ii)
200 × C × 110 = 175 × 13
C = \(\frac{175 \times 13}{200 \times 110}\) ≈ 0.1
(Or)
If some heat is lost to the sorroundings, value of L is so obtained will be less than the actual value of L.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 15.
Given below are observations on molar specific heats at room temperature of some common gases.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 11
The measured molar specific heats of these gases are markedly different from those for monatomic gases. Typically, molar specific heat of a monatomic gas is 2.92 cal/mol K. Explain this difference. What can you infer from the somewhat larger (than the rest) value for chlorine ?
Answer:
The gases which are listed in the above table are diatomic gases and not mono atomic gases. For diatomic gases, molar specific heat
= \(\frac{5}{2}\) R = \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 1.98 = 4.95, which agrees fairly well with all observations listed in the . table except for chlorine. A monoatomic gas molecules has only the transnational motion. A diatomic gas molecules, a part from translation motion. The vibrational as well as rotational motion is also possible. Therefore to raise the temperature of 1 mole of diatomic gas through 1°C heat is also to be supplied increase not only translation energy but also rotational and vibrational energies. Hence molar specific heat of diatomic gas is greater than that for monoatomic gas. The higher value of molar specific heat of chlorine as compared to hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen etc. Shows that for chlorine molecule, at room temperature vibrational motion. Also occurs along with translational and rotational motions. Where as other diatomic molecules at room temperature usually have rotational motion apart from their translational motion. This the reason that chlorine has some what larger value of molar specific heat.

Question 16.
Answer the following questions based on the P-T phase diagram of carbon dioxide :
a) At what temperature and pressure can the solid, liquid and vapour phases of CO2 co-exist in equilibrium ?
b) What is the effect of decrease of pressure on the fusion and boiling point of CO2 ?
c) What are the critical temperature and pressure for CO2 ? What is their significance ?
d) Is CO2 solid, liquid or gas at (a) – 70°C under 1 atm, (b) -60°C under 10 atm, (c) 15°C under 56 atm ?
Answer:
a) The solid, liquid and vapour phase of carbon dioxide exist in equilibrium at the point i.e., temperature = -56.6°C and pressure = 5.11 atm.

b) With the decrease in pressure, both the fusion and boiling point of carbondioxide will decrease.

c) For carbondioxide, the critical tempera-ture is 31,1°C and critical pressure is 73.0 atm. If the temp of CO2 is more than 31.1°C. It cannot be liquified, however large pressure we may apply.

d) Carbondioxide will be (a) a vapour at – 70°C under 1 atm (b) a solid at 6°C under 10 atm (c) a liquid at 15°C under 56 atm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 17.
Answer the following questions based on the P – T phase diagram of CO2 :
a) CO2 at 1 atm pressure and temperature – 60°C is compressed isothermally. Does it go through a liquid phase ?
b) What happens when CO2 at 4 atm pressure is cooled from room tem-perature at constant pressure ?
c) Describe qualitatively the changes in a given mass of solid CO2 at 10 atm pressure and temperature – 65°C as it is heated up to room temperature at constant pressure.
d) CO2 is heated to a temperature 70°C and compressed isothermally. What changes in its properties, do you expect to observe ?
Answer:
a) Since the temp – 60°C lies to the left of 56.6°C on the curve i.e. lies in the region of vapour and solid phase. So CO2 will condense directly into solid with out becoming liquid.

b) Since the pressure 4 atm is less than 5.11 atm. The carbondioxde will condenses directly into solid without becoming liquid.

c) When a solid CO2 at 10 atm. Pressure and -65°C temp is heated, It is first converted into a liquid. A further increase in temperature brings it to the vapour phase. At P = 10 atm. If a horizontal line is drawn parallel to the T-axis. Then the points of intersection of this line with the fusion and vapourisation curve will give the fu-sion and boiling point of CO2 at 10 atm.

d) Since 70°C is higher than the critical temperature of CO2. So the CO2 gas can not be converted into liquid state on being compressed isothermally at 70°C. It will remain in the vapour state. Nowever the gas will depart more and more now its perfect gas behavious with the increase in pressure.

Question 18.
A child running a temperature of 101 °F is given an antipyrin (i.e. a medicine that lowers fever) which causes an increase in the rate of evaporation of sweat from his body. If the fever is brought down to 98°F in 20 min, what is the average rate of extra evaporation caused, by the drug. Assume the evaporation mechanism to be the only way by which heat is lost. The mass of the child is 30 kg. The specific heat of human body is approximately the same as that of water and latent heat of evaporation of water at that temperature is about 580 cal g-1.
Answer:
Here fall in temp = ∆T = 101 – 98 = 3°F
= 3 × \(\frac{5}{3}\)°C = \(\frac{5}{3}\)°C
Mass of child M = 30 kg
Sp. heat of human body = Sp heat of water
C = 1000 cal.kg-1C-1
∴ Heat last by the body of child, ∆Q = mC∆T
= 30 × 1000 × \(\frac{5}{3}\) = 5000 calories
If m be the mass of water evapourated in 20 min then m1L = ∆Q
m1 = \(\frac{\Delta Q}{L}=\frac{5000}{580}\) = 86.2 g
∴ Average rate of extra evapouration = \(\frac{86.2}{20}\)
= 4.31 gmin-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 19.
A ‘thermacole’ icebox is a cheap and efficient method for storing small quantities of cooked food in summer in particular. A cubical icebox of side 30 cm has a thickness of 5.0 cm. If 4.0 kg of ice is put in the box, estimate the amount of ice remaining after 6 h. The outside temperature is 45°C and co-efficient of thermal conductivity of thermacole is 0.01 Js-1m-1 K-1. [Heat of fusion of wafer = 335 × 103 J kg-1]
Answer:
Here length of each side l = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Thickness of each side ∆x = 5 cm = 0.05 m
Total surface area through which heat enters into the box
A = 6 l2 = 6 × 0.3 × 0.3 = 0 Jum2
Temp.diff ∆T = 45 – 0 = 45°C,
K = 0.01 JS-1m-1°C-1
Time ∆T = 6 hrs = 6 × 60 × 60 S
Latent heat of fusion L = 335 × 103 J/kg
Let m be the mass of ice melted in this time
∆Q = mL = KA \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{T}}{\Delta \mathrm{x}}\right)\) ∆t
m = kA \(\left(\frac{\Delta T}{\Delta \mathrm{T}}\right) \frac{\Delta \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = 0.01 × 0.54 × \(\frac{45}{0.05}\) × \(\frac{6 \times 60 \times 60}{335 \times 10^3}\) = 0.313 kg
Mass of ice left = 4 – 0.313 = 3.687 kg

Question 20.
A brass boiler has a base area of 0.15 m2 and thickness 1.0 cm. It boils water at the rate of 6.0 kg/min when placed on a gas stove. Estimate the temperature of the part of the flame in contact with the boiler. Thermal conductivity of brass = 109 Js-1m-1 K-1: Heat of vaporisation of water = 2256 × 103 Jkg-1.
Answer:
Were A = 0.15 m2 ∆x = 1.0 m = 10-2 m
\(\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta t}=\frac{6 \times 10^3 \times 2256}{60}\) JS-1 = 2256 × 102 JS-1
K = 609 JS-1m-1°C-1, ∆T = (t – 100)
From \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\mathrm{KA}\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{T}}{\Delta \mathrm{x}}\right)\)
2256 × 102 = 609 × 0.15 \(\frac{(t-100)}{10^{-2}}\)
t – 100 = \(\frac{2256}{609 \times 0.15}\) = 2470 t
t = 24.70

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 21.
Explain why :
a) a body with large reflectivity is a poor emitter.
b) a brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilly day.
c) an optical pyrometer (for measuring high temperatures) calibrated for an ideal black body radiation gives too low a value for the temperature of a red hot iron piece in the open, but gives a correct value for the temperature when the same piece is in the furnace.
d) the earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold.
e) healting systems based on circulation of steam are more efficient in warming a building than those based on circulation of hot water.
Answer:
a) This is because a body with large refelectivity is a poor absorber of heat and poor absorbers of heat are poor imilters.

b) When we touch a brass tumbler on a chill day; heat flows from our body to the tumbler quickly cas thermal conductivity or brass is very high and as a result, it appears colder. On the other hand as the wood is bad conductor, heat does not flow to the wooden tray from our body, on touching it.

c) When the red hot iron pieces is in the oven, its temperature TK is the given by the relation.
E = αT4 But if the red hot iron piece is in the open having the surrounding temperature T0, its energy is radiated according to relation E1 = α(T4 – T40). As the working principle of optical pysometer is based on the fact that the brightness of – a glowing surface of a body depends , upon its temperature. Therefore, pysometes gives too low a value for the temperature of red iron in the open.

d) The lower layer’s of Earth’s atmosphere reflect infrared radiations from earth back to the surface of the earth. Thus the heat radiation recieved by the earth from the sun during the day are kept trapped by the atm. If atmosphere of earth were not there, its surface would become too cold to live.

e) Steam at 100°C possess more heat than the same mass of water at 100°C possess 540 calories of heat more than possessed by 1 gm of ware at 100°C. That is why heating systems based on circulation of stream are more efficient than those based on circulation of hot water.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 22.
A body cools from 80°C to 50°C in 5 minutes. Calculate the time it takes to cool from 60°C to 30°C. The temperature of the surroundings is 20°C.
Answer:
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = K [θav – θ0]
\(\frac{80-50}{5}\) = K(65 – 20)
⇒ \(\frac{30}{5}\) = K × 45 = K = \(\frac{2}{15}\)
\(\frac{60-30}{t}=\frac{2}{15}[45-20]\)
\(\frac{30}{t}=\frac{2}{15} \times 15\)
t = 5 min
Time of cooling is given by t = \(\frac{2.3026}{k}\) log10
\(\frac{T_1-T_0}{T_2-T_0}\)
As per question condition (i) T1 = 80°C, T2 = 50°C, T0 = 20°C, t = 5 min
5 × 60 = \(\frac{2.3026}{K} \log _{10} \frac{80-20}{50-20}\)
= \(\frac{2.3026}{k} \log _{10^2}\) ……………. (2)
As per question condition (i) T1 = 60°C, T2 = 30°C, T0 = 20°C, t = ?
t = \(\frac{2.3026}{K} \log _{10} \frac{60-20}{30-20}\)
= \(\frac{2.3026}{k} \log _{10^4}\) ……………. (3)
Div (3) by (2) we get
\(\frac{t}{5 \times 60}=\frac{\log _{10^4}}{\log _{10^2}}=\frac{0.6021}{0.3010}\) = 2
(Or) t = 5 × 60 × 2 = 10 × 60 s
= 10 min

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Show that the coefficient of areal expansions. (∆A/A)/∆T, of rectangular sheet of the solid is twice its linear expansivity, α1.
Answer:
∆A3 = (∆a) (∆b)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 12
When the temperature increases by ∆T, a increases by ∆a = α1a ∆T and b increases by ∆b = α1b ∆T. From fig. the increase in area
∆A = ∆A1 + ∆A2 + ∆A3
∆A = a ∆b + b ∆a + (∆a) (∆b)
= a α1b ∆T + b α1a ∆T + (α1)2 ab(∆T)2
= α1ab ∆T(2 + α1∆T)
= α1A ∆T(2 + α1∆T)
Since α1 = 10-5 K-1, from Table 12.1, the product α1∆T for fractional temperature is small in comparision with 2 and may be neglected.
Hence,
\(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{A}}\right) \frac{1}{\Delta \mathrm{T}}\) ≈ 2α1

Question 2.
A blacksmith fixes iron ring on the rim of the wooden wheel of a bullock cart. The diametbr of the rim and the iron ring are 5.243 m and 5.231 m respectively at 27°C. To what temperature should the ring be heated so as to fit the rim of the wheel ?
Answer:
Given,
T1 = 27°C
LT1 = 5.231 m
LT2 = 5.243 m
So,
LT2 = LT1 [1 + α1(T2 – T1)]
5.243 m = 5.231 m[1 + 1.20 × 10-5 K-1 (T2 – 27°C)]
or T2 = 218°C

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 3.
A sphere of aluminium of 0.047 kg is placed for sufficient time in a vessel containing boiling water, so that the sphere is at 100°C. It is then immediately transfered to 0.14 kg copper calorimeter containing 0.25 kg of water at 20°C. The temperature of water rises and attains a steady state at 23°C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of aluminium.
Answer:
Mass of aluminium sphere (m.,) = 0.047 kg
Initial temp, of aluminium sphere = 100°C
Final temp. = 23°C
Change in temp. (∆T) = (100°C – 23°C)
= 77°C
Let specific heat capacity of aluminium be sAl. The amount of heat lost by the aluminium sphere = m1sAl ∆T = 0.047 kg × sAl × 77°C s ……………. (i)
Mass of water (m2) = 0.25 kg
Mass of calorimeter (m3) = 0.14 kg
Initial temp, of water and calorimeter = 20°C
Final temp, of the mixture = 23°C
Change in temp. (∆T2) = 23°C – 20°C = 3°C
Specific heat capacity of water (sw) from table
12.3 = 4.18 × 103 J kg-1 K-1
Specific heat capacity of copper calorimeter = 0.386 × 103 J kg-1 K-1
The amount of heat gained by water and calorimeter = m2sw ∆T2 + m3scu ∆T2 = (m2sw + m3scu) (∆T2)
= (0.25 kg × 4.18 × 103 J kg-1 K-1 + 0.14 kg × 0.386 × 103 J kg-1 K-1) (23°C – 20°C) ………………… (ii)
In the steady state heat lost by the aluminium sphere = heat gained by water + heat gained by calorimeter.
So, from (i) and (ii)
0.047 kg × sAl × 77°C = (0.25 kg × 4.18 × 103 J kg-1 K-1 + 0.14 kg × 0.386 × 103 J kg-1 K-1) (3°C)
sAl = 0.911 kJ kg-1 K-1

Question 4.
When 0.15 kg of ice of 0°C mixed with 0.30 kg of water at 50°C in a container, the resulting temperature is 6.7°C. Calculate the heat of fusion of ice.
(swater = 4186 J kg-1 K-1)
Answer:
Heat lost by water = mswf – θi)w
= (0.30 kg) (4186 kg-1 K-1) (50.0°C – 6.7°C)
= 54376.14 J
Heat required to melt ice = m2Lf = (0.15 kg) Lf
Heat required to raise temperature of ice water to final temperature
= mIswf – θi)I
= (0.15 kg) (4186 J kg-1 K-1) (6.7°C – 0°C)
= 4206.93 J
Heat lost = heat gained
54376.14 J = (0.15 Kg)Lf + 4206.93 J
Lf = 3.34 × 105 J kg-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 5.
Calculate the heat required to convert 3 kg of ice at -12°C kept in a calorimeter-to steam at 100°C at atmospheric pressure. Given specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J kg-1 K-1, specific heat capacity of water = 4186 J kg-1 K-1, latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.35 × 105 J kg-1 and latent heat of steam = 2.256 × 106 J kg-1.
Answer:
We have
Mass of the ice, m = 3 kg
Specific heat capacity of ice, sice
= 2100 J kg-1 K-1
Specific heat capacity of water, swater
= 4186 J kg-1 K-1
Latent heat of fusion ice, Lf ice
= 3.35 × 105 J kg-1
Latent heat of steam, Lsteam
= 2.256 × 106 J kg-1
Now,
Q = Heat required to convert 3 kg of ice at -12°C to steam at 100°C.
Q1 = Heat required to convert ice at – 12°C to ice at 0°C. .
msice ∆T1 = (3 kg) (2100 J kg-1 K-1) [0 – (-12)]°C = 75600 J
Q2 = Heat required to melt ice at – 0°C to water at 0°C.
mLf ice = (3 kg) (3.35 × 105 J kg-1) = 1005000 J
Q3 = Heat required to convert water at 0°C to water at 100°C.
msW ∆T2 = (3 kg) (4186 J kg-1 K-1) (100°C)
= 1255800 J
Q4 = Heat required to convert water at 100°C to steam at 100°C.
mLsteam = (3 kg) (2-256 × 106 J kg-1)
= 6768000 J
So,
Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4
= 75600 J + 1005000 J + 1255800 J + 6768000 J
= 9.1 × 106 J

Question 6.
What is the temperature of the steel- copper junction in the steady state of the system shown in fig. Length of the steel rod = 15.0 cm, length of the copper rod = 10.0 cm, temperature of the furnace = 300°C, temperature of the other end = 0°C. The area of cross section of the steel rod is twice that of the copper rod. (Thermal conductivity of steel = 50.2 J s-1m-1K-1 and of copper = 385 J s-1m-1K-1].
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 13
Answer:
Let T be the temperature of the steel-copper junction in the steady state. Then,
\(\frac{K_1 A_1(300-T)}{L_2}=\frac{K_2 A_2(T-0)}{L_2}\)
Where 1 and 2 refer to the steel and copper rod respectively. For A1 = 2, A2, L1 = 15.0 cm, L2 = 10.0 cm, K1 = 50.2 J s-1m-1K-1,
K2 = 385 J s-1m-1K-1, we have
\(\frac{50.2 \times 2(300-\mathrm{T})}{15}=\frac{385 \mathrm{~T}}{10}\)
which gives T = 44.4°C

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 7.
An iron bar (L1 = 0.1 m, A1 = 0.02 m2, K1 = 79 W m-1 K-1) and a brass bar (L2 = 0.1 m, A2 = 0.02 m2, K2 = 109 W m-1K-1) are soldered end to end as shown in fig. The free ends of the iron bar and brass bar are maintained at 373 K and 273 K respectively. Obtain expressions for and hence compute (i) the temperature of the junction of the two bars, (ii) the equivalent thermal conductivity of the compound bar and (iii) the heat current through the compound bar.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 14
Answer:
Given,
L1 = L2 = L = 0.1 m, A1 = A2 = A = 0.02 m2, K1 = 79 W m-1 K-1, K2 = 109 W m-1K-1, T1 = 373 K and T2 = 273 K.
Under steady state condition, the heat current (H1) through iron bar is equal to the heat current (H2) through brass bar.
So, H = H1 = H2
= \(\frac{K_1 A_1\left(T_1-T_0\right)}{L_1}=\frac{K_2 A_2\left(T_0-T_2\right)}{L_2}\)
For A1 = A2 = A and L1 = L2 = L this equation leads to
K1(T1 – T0) = K2(T0 – T2)
Thus the junction temperature T0 of the two bars is T0 = \(\frac{\left(K_1 T_1+K_2 T_2\right)}{\left(K_1+K_2\right)}\) ………….. (a)
Using this equation, the heat current H through either bar is
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 15
Using these equations, the heat current H’ through the compound bar of length L1 + L2 = 2L and the equivalent thermal conductivity K, of the compound bar are given by
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 16
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 17

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter

Question 8.
A pan filled with hot food cools from 94°C to 86°C in 2 minutes when the room temperature is at 20°C. How long will it take to cool from 71°C to 69°C ?
Answer:
The average temperature of 94°C and 86°C is 90°C, which is 70°C above the room temperature. Under these conditions the pan cools 8°C in 2 minutes.
Using \(\frac{\mathrm{dT}_2}{\mathrm{~T}_2-\mathrm{T}_1}=-\frac{\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{ms}}\) dt = – K dt we have
The average of 69°C and 71°C is 70°C, which is 50°C above room temperature. K is the same for this situation as for the original.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Thermal Properties of Matter 18
The average of 69°C and 71°C is 70°C, which is 50°C above room temperature. K is the same for this situation as for the original.
\(\frac{2^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}{\text { Time }}\) = K(50°C)
When we divide above two equations, we have
\(\frac{8^{\circ} \mathrm{C} / 2 \min }{2^{\circ} \mathrm{C} / \text { time }}=\frac{K\left(70^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\right)}{\mathrm{K}\left(50^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\right)}\)
Time = 0.7 min = 42 s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Mechanical Properties of Fluids Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define average pressure. Mention it’s unit and dimensional formula. Is it a scalar or a vector ? [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Average pressure (Pav) : Average power is defined as the normal force acting per unit area.
Pav = \(\frac{F}{A}\)
units → N/m2 (or) pascal
Dimensional formula → [ML-1 T-2]
Pressure is a scalar quantity.

Question 2.
Define Viscosity. What are it’s units and dimensions ?
Answer:
Viscosity : The property of a liquid which opposes the relative motion between its layers is called viscosity. .
G.G.S unit poise
S.I unit → Nm-2s
Dimensional formula = [M1L-1T-1]

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 3.
What is the principle behind the carburetor of an automobile ? [AP – Mar. 15; TS – Mar. ’18, ’17]
Answer:
The carburetor of automobile has a venturi channel (nozzle) through which air flows with a large speed. The pressure is then lowered at the narrow neck and the petrol is sucked up in the chamber to provide the correct mixture of air to fuel necessary for combustion. ”

Question 4.
What is magnus effect ? [T.S. Mar. 16; A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
The difference in the velocities of air results in the pressure difference between the lower and upper faces and there is a net upward force on the ball. This dynamic lift due to spinning is called magnus effect.

Question 5.
Why are drops and bubbles spherical ? [A.P. Mar. 18, 17, 16, 14]
Answer:
The surface tension of a liquid tends to have minimum surface area. For a given volume, the surface area is minimum for a sphere. Hence rain drops are spherical shape.

Question 6.
Give the expression for the excess pressure in a liquid drop. [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Excess pressure in a liquid drop, pi – p0 = \(\frac{2 s}{r}\)
where s = Surface tension; r = Radius of the liquid drop.

Question 7.
Give the expression for the excess pressure in an air bubble inside the liquid.
Answer:
Excess pressure in an air bubble inside the liquid, pi – p0 = \(\frac{2 s}{r}\)
where s = Surface tension
r = Radius of the air bubble.
Air bubble forms inside the liquid, hence it has one liquid surface.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 8.
Give the expression for the excess pressure soap bubble in air. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Soap bubble have two interfaces, hence excess pressure inside a soap bubble is pi – p0 = \(\frac{4 s}{r}\)
where s = Surface tension
r = Radius of the soap bubble.

Question 9.
What are water proofing agents and water wetting agents ? What do they do ?
Answer:
Water proofing agents are added, to create a large angle of contact between water and fibres.
Soaps, detergents and dying substances are wetting agents. When they are added, the angle of contact becomes small. So that they may penetrate well and become effective.

Question 10.
What is angle of contact ? [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
The angle between tangent to the liquid surface at the point of contact and solid surface inside the liquid is termed as angle of contact (0).

Question 11.
Mention any two examples that obey Bernoullis theorem and justify them. [A.P. Mar. 18]
Answer:

  1. In heavy winds house roof’s are blown off. When the velocity of the wind is greater on the roof top than inside the house, then the pressure on the roof top becomes less than that inside the house. This pressure difference causes the dynamic lift.
  2. When a fan is rotating, papers are blown off from .the table top. The velocity of wind on the paper increases due to fan and hence pressure decreases. Due to this pressure difference papers are blown off.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 12.
When water flows through a pipe, which of the layers moves fastest and slowest ?
Answer:
Water flows through a pipe, the layers near the axis of the tube are fastest and at the walls of the tube are slowest
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 1

Question 13.
“Terminal velocity is more if surface area of the body is more”. Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
Surface area (A) = 4πr2 and terminal velocity (υt) αr2
As surface area increases, r2 is also increases. Then terminal velocity is also increases.
∴ Terminal velocity is more, if surface area of the body is more.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is atmospheric pressure and how is it determined using Barometer ?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure : Atmospheric pressure at any point is equal to the weight of a column of air of unit cross sectional area extending from that point to the top of the earth’s atmosphere.
1 atm = 1.013 × 105 pa
Determination of atmospheric pressure using barometer: A long glass tube closed at one end and filled with mercury is inverted into a trough of mercury. This device is known as mercury barometer.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 2
The space above the mercury column in the tube contains only mercury vapour whose pressure Pis so small, that it may be neglected. The pressure inside the column at point A must equal the pressure at B.
∴ Pressure at B = Atmospheric pressure = Pa
Pa = ρgh = Pressure at A …………………… (1)
Where ρ is density of mercury and h is the height of the mercury column in the tube. In the experiment it is found that the mercury column in the barometer has a height of about 76cm at the sea level equivalent to one atmosphere.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
What is guage pressure and how is a manometer used for measuring pressure differences ?
Answer:
Guage pressure : The guage pressure is the difference of the actual pressure and the atmospheric pressure. Pg = P – Pa
measurement of pressure differences :

  1. The manometer consists of a U-shaped tube, which is filled with a low density liquid (oil) for measuring small pressure difference and high density liquid
    (mercury) for measuring large pressure difference.
  2. One end of the tube is connected to the vessel D whose pressure of air measure and the other end of the tube is open.
  3. If pressure of air in vessel D is more than the earth’s atmosphere, the level of liquid in arm I will go down up to point A and level of liquid in arm II rises up to C.
  4. Then the pressure of air in vessel is equal to pressure at point A.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 3
  5. Note the difference of liquid levels in the two arms of U-tube.(Say h). p be density of the liquid. Pa is the atmospheric pressure.
  6. Pressure at point A (PA) = Pressure at point B = Pressure at point C + Pressure due to column of liquid.
    PA = Pc + hρg (or) PA – Pc = hρg
    Here Pc = Pa, PA = P, ∴ P – Pa = hρg
    P – Pa = Pg = guage pressure = hρg

Question 3.
State Pascal’s law and verify it with the help of an experiment.
Answer:
Pascal’s law : It states that if gravity effect is neglected, the pressure at every point of liquid in equilibrium of rest is same.
Proof :

  1. Imagine a circular cylinder of uniform cross-sectional area A, such that points C and D lie on flat faces of the cylinder.
  2. The liquid inside the cylinder is in equilibrium under the action of forces exerted by the liquid outside the cylinder.
  3. These forces are acting every where perpendicular to the surface of the cylinder.
  4. Thus the forces on the flat faces of the cylinder at C and D will be perpendicular to the forces on the curved surface of the cylinder.
  5. Since liquid is in equilibrium, the sum of the forces acting on the curved surface of the cylinder must be zero.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 4
  6. If P1 and P2 are the pressures at points C and D respectively. F1 and F2 are the forces acting on the flat surfaces of the cylinder due to liquid, then
    F1 = P1 A and F2 = P2A Since liquid is in equilibrium, therefore
    F1 = F2
    P1 A = P2A
    (or) P1 = P2
    It means the pressures at C and D are the same. This proves the pascal’s law.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 4.
Explain hydraulic lift and hydraulic brakes.
Answer:
Hydraulic lift and hydraulic brakes are based on the Pascal’s law.

Hydraulic lift : Here C and D are two cylinders of different areas of cross section. They are connected to each other with a pipe E. Each cylinder is provided with airtight frictionless piston. Let a, A be the area’s of cross-sections of the piston at C and D (a < < A)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 5
The cylinders are filled with an incompressible liquid.
Let f be the applied force at C. Pressure exerted on the liquid
P = \(\frac{f}{a}\) ……………. (1)
According to pascal’s law, this pressure is transmitted to piston of cylinder D. Upward force at D will be
F = PA = \(\frac{f}{a}\) A = f \(\frac{A}{a}\) …………… (2)
As A > > a
∴ F > > f .
∴ Heavy load placed on the larger piston is easily lifted.

Hydraulic Brakes :
When the brake pedal is pressed, the piston (P) of the master cylinder is pushed inwards. There will be increased pressure on liquid at P, which is transmitted equally to P1 and P2 of wheel cylinder in accordance with pascal’s law. Due to which P1 and P2 move outwards. Breakshoes to move away from each other which in turn press against the inner rim of the wheel. The brake becomes operative.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 6

Question 5.
What is hydrostatic paradox ?
Answer:
Consider three vessels A, B and C of different shapes. They are connected at the bottom by a horizontal pipe. On filling with the level in the three vessels is the same, though they hold different amounts of water. This is so because water at the bottom has the same pressure below each section of the vessel. It means the liquid pressure at a point is independent of the quantity of liquid but depends upon the depth of point below the liquid surface. This is known as hydrostatic paradox.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 7

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 6.
Explain how pressure varies with depth.
Answer:
Consider a fluid at rest in a container. In figure point 1 is at a height h above a point 2. The pressure at points 1 and 2 are P1 and P2. As the fluid is at rest, the horizontal forces should be zero. The resultant vertical forces should balance the weight of the element. Pressure at top (P1A) acting downward, pressure at bottom (P2A) acting upward.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 8
(P2 – P1) A = mg ………………… (1)
Mass of the fluid (m) = ρv = ρhA
(P2 – P1) = ρgh ………………. (2)
Pressure difference depends on the vertical distance h.
If the point 1 under discussion is shifted to the top of the fluid (water), which is open to the atmosphere, P1 may be replaced by atmospheric pressure (Pa) and P2 by P. Then eq (2) gives
P – Pa = ρgh
P = Pa + ρgh ……………… (3)
Thus the pressure P, at depth below the surface of a liquid open to the atmosphere is greater than atmospheric pressure by an amount ρgh.

Question 7.
What is Torricelli’s law ? Explain how the speed of efflux is determined with an experiment.
Answer:
Torricelli’s theorem : The velocity of efflux i.e., the velocity with which the liquid flows out of an orifice (i.e., a narrow hole) is equal to that which is freely falling body would acquire in falling through a vertical distance equal to the depth of orifice below the free surface of liquid.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 9
Consider ideal liquid of density p contained in a tank provided with a narrow hole.
Let h = Height of free surface of liquid above O.
P = Atmospheric pressure
v = Velocity of efflux
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem at A and O
(P + ρgh + O)atA = [P + 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)ρv2]atO
P + ρgh = P + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρv2 = ρgh = \(\frac{1}{2}\)ρv2
v = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 8.
What is Venturi-meter? Explain how it is used.
Answer:
Venturi meter: The Venturi-meter is a device to measure the flow speed of incompressible fluid.

  1. It consists of a tube with a broad diameter and a small constriction at the middle.
  2. A manometer in the form of a U-tube is also attached to it, with one of arm at the broad neck point of the tube and the other at constriction as shown in figure.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 10
  3. The manometer contains a liquid of density ρm.
  4. The pressure difference causes the fluid in the U-tube connected at the narrow neck to rise in comparison to the other arm.
  5. Filter pumps, sprayers used for perfumes, carburetor of automobile has used on this principle.

Question 9.
What is Reynolds number ? What is it’s significance ?
Answer:
Reynolds number : “Reynold number is a pure number which determines the nature of flow of liquid through a pipe”.
Reynold number (Re) = \(\frac{\rho \mathrm{vd}}{\eta}\)
Where ρ is density of the fluid
v is speed of the fluid
d is diameter of the pipe

  1. If the flow is stream line (or) laminor Re < 1000
  2. If the flow is turbulent, Re > 2000
  3. If the flow becomes unsteady, 1000 < Re < 2000

Physical significance of Reynolds number : Reynold’s number describes the ratio of the inertial force per unit area to the viscous force per unit area for a flowing fluid.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 11

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 10.
Explain dynamic lift with examples.
Answer:
Dynamic lift: Dynamic lift is the force that act on a body, by virtue of its motion through a fluid.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 12
e.g.1 : Fig (a) shows, ball moving without spin. Stream lines are equally distributed above and below the ball. The velocity above and below the ball is same resulting zero pressure difference. There no upward (or) downward force on the ball.

Fig (b) shows, ball moving with spin stream lines are more crowded above the ball than below. The velocity of air above the ball is large (v + vr) and below it is smaller (v – vr). As a result, there is a pressure difference between lower and upper faces. Pressure is less at top of the ball and pressure is morebelow the ball. There is a net upward force on the ball.
e.g. 2 : Dynamic lift also acts on the an aeroplane wing.

Question 11.
Explain Surface Tension and Surface energy. [Mar. 13]
Answer:
Surface tension (S): The force acting per unit length of an imaginary line drawn on the surface of a liquid, normal to it and parallel to the surface is called surface tension.
T = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{l}\)
S.l unit → N/m
D.F → [MT-2]
Surface energy (E): The additional potential energy due to molecular forces per unit surface area is called surface tension.
Surface energy = \(\)
S.l Unit → J/m2
D.F → (MT-2 )
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 13
Consider a horizontal liquid film ending in bar free to slide over parallel guides. We move the bar by a small distance d. The area of the surface increases, the system now has more energy, this means – that some work has to be done against an internal force F.
Work done (W) = F.d
If the surface energy of the film is S per unit area, the extra area is 2dl. A film has two sides and the liquid in between them.
So there are two surfaces and the extra energy is
S (2dl) = Fd
S = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{2 l}\)
Surface tension is equal to the surface energy and is also equal to the force per unit length exerted by the fluid on the movable bar.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 12.
Explain how surface tension can be measured experimentally.
Answer:
A flat vertical glass plate, below which a vessel of some liquid is kept, forms one arm of the balance. The plate is balanced by weights on the otherside, with its horizontal edge just over water. The vessel is raised slightly till the liquid just touches the glass plate and pulls it down a little because of surface tension. Weights are added till the plate just clears water. Suppose the additional weight requires is W.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 14
Surface tension of liquid air interface is
Sla = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{2 l}=\frac{\mathrm{mg}}{2 l}\)
Where l is length of the plate edge, m is extra mass.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
State Bernoulli’s principle. From conservation of energy in a fluid flow through a tube, arrive at Bernoulli’s equation. Give an application of Bernoulli’s theorem.
Answer:
Bernoulli’s principle : Bernoulli principle states that in a stream line flow, the sum of the pressure, the K.E per unit volume and the P.E per unit volume remains a constant.
P + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρv2 + ρgh = constant

  1. Consider a non-viscous, incompressible fluid is flowing through the pipe in a steady flow.
  2. Consider the flow at two regions BC and DE. Initially the fluid lying between B and D.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 15
  3. During short time interval At, this fluid would have moved. Suppose V1 is the speed at B and V2 is the speed at D.
  4. In time ∆t, distance moved from B to C is V1 ∆t in the same interval (∆t) distance moved from D to E is V2∆t.
  5. Let P1 and P2 be pressure act at area’s of cross¬sections A1 and A2 of the two regions.
  6. The work done on the fluid at left end (BC)
    = Force × displacement
    = Pressure × Area × displacement
    = P1A1 × V1∆t (∆V = A1V1∆t) = P1∆V ………………. (1)
  7. Similarly work done by the fluid at right end (DE)
    = P2A2 × V2∆t = P2∆V …………………. (2)
  8. Work done on the fluid is taken as positive and workdone by the fluid is taken as negative.
    ∴ Total work done (W) = (P1 – P1) ∆V ………………. (3)
    Part of this work goes into changing the K.E of the fluid and part goes into changing gravitational P.E.
  9. Mass of the fluid(∆m) passing through the pipe in time (∆t) is ∆m = ρA1V1∆t
    where ρ is the density of the fluid.
    ∆m = ρ∆V ………………….. (4)
  10. Gravitational P.E = ρg∆V (h2 – h1) ………………… (5)
    Change in K.E (∆K) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ∆V (V22 – V12) …………….. (6)
  11. According to law of conservation of energy
    (P1 – P2) ∆V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ ∆V (V22 – V12) + ρg∆V (h2 – h1)
    P1 – P2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ (V22 – V12) + ρg (h2 – h1)
    P1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ V12 + ρgh1 = P1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ V22 + ρgh2
    P + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρ v2 + ρgh = constant ………………. (7)

∴ Sum of the pressure, K.E per unit volume and P.E per unit volume remains constant. Application of Bernoulli’s theorem :

  1. It explains the dynamic lift on the wings of aeroplanes.
  2. It explains the dynamic lift experienced by a spinning cricket ball.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
Define coefficient of viscosity. Explain Stoke’s law and explain the conditions under which a rain drop attains terminal velocity, υt. Give the expression for υt.
Answer:
Coefficient of viscosity (η): The coefficient of viscosity is defined as the tangential force per unit area of the layer, required to maintain unit velocity gradient.
η = \(\frac{F}{A\left(\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta x}\right)}\)
S.l. unit → Nm-2 s (or) PaS
C.G.S unit → Poise
Dimensional formula = [ML-1T-1]
Stoke’s law : According to this law the viscous force acting on a moving body which is spherical in shape is directly proportional to

  1. Coefficient of viscosity of fluid (η)
  2. Radius of the spherical body (r)
  3. Velocity of the body (v)

∴ F ∝ ηrv
F = Kηrv
Where K is a constant of proportionality. Experimentally it was found to be 6π.
∴ F = 6πηrv
When rain drops falling through air from the clouds reach the surface with almost constant speed through they are moving under gravitational force. This velocity is called terminal velocity. After attaining the terminal velocity, net force acting on the rain drop is zero.
According to stokes law, F ∝ ηrv
F = 6πηrv (∵ 6π = K = Proportionality constant)
Let ρ, r be the density and radius of the sphere.
The fluid density be σ.
The forces acting on the sphere are

  1. Weight of the sphere W = mg
    W = Vρg = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3ρg …………….. (1)
  2. The force of buoyancy (B) = V σ g = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3σg ……………. (2)
  3. Viscous force (f) = 6πηv ………………… (3)
    When the sphere attains terminal velocity (vt), the net force on the body becomes zero.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 16
    ∴ At terminal velocity
    Net downward force = Net upward force
    W = B + f, W – B = f
    \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3ρg – \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3σg = 6πηrvt;
    ∴ \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3g (ρ – σ) = 6πηrvt
    Vt = \(\frac{2}{9} \frac{r^2 g(\rho-\sigma)}{\eta}\) ………………. (4)

Problems

Question 1.
Calculate the work done in blowing a soap bubble of diameter 0.6 cm against the surface tension force. (Surface tension of soap solution = 2.5 × 102 Nm-1).
Solution:
D = 0.6 cm = 0.6 × 102 m
r = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{0.6 \times 10^{-2}}{2}\) = 0.3 × 102 m
S = 2.5 × 102 N/m
W = 8πr2s
= 8 × 3.14 × (0.3 × 10-2)2 × 2.5 × 10-2
W = 5.652 × 10-6 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
How high does methyl alcohol rise in a glass tube of diameter 0.06 cm ? (Surface tension of methyl alcohol = 0.023 Nm-1 and density = 0.8 gmcm-3. Assume that the angle of contact is zero)
Solution:
D = 0.06cm, θ = 0°
r = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{0.06}{2}\) = 0.03 cm = 0.03 × 10-2 m
= 3 × 10-4 m
S = 0.023 N/m, Density = 0.8 gm/c.c.
= 0.8 × \(\frac{10^{-3}}{10^{-6}}\)
ρ = 0.8 × 103 kg/m3
S = \(\frac{\mathrm{hr \rho g}}{2 \cos \theta}\)
h = \(\frac{2 \cos \theta}{r \rho g}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 0.023}{3 \times 10^{-4} \times 0.8 \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\) (∵ cos 0° = 1)
= 0.0019 × 10-1 m
≈ 0.002 m
h = 2 cm .

Question 3.
What should be the radius of a capillay tube if water has to rise to a height pf 6 cm in it ? (Surface tension of water = 7.2 × 10-2 Nm-1).
Solution:
h = 6 × 10-2 m
S = 7.2 × 10-2 N/m
Density of water (ρ) = 103 kg/m3
S = \(\frac{\mathrm{hr \rho g}}{2}\)
r = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~S}}{\mathrm{h \rho g}}=\frac{2 \times 7.2 \times 10^{-3}}{6 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\)
r = \(\frac{14.4}{58.8} \) × 10-3
r = 0.24 × 10-3 m
r = 0.24 mm

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 4.
Find the depression of the meniscus in the capillary tube of diameter 0.4 mm dipped in a beaker containing , mercury. (Density of mercury = 13.6 × 103 Kg m-3 and surface tension of mercury = 0.49 Nm-1 and angle of contact = 135°).
Solution:
D = 4 m.m
r = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{4}{2}\) = 2m.m = 2 × 10-3 m
ρ = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3
θ = 135°, S = 0.49 Nm
cosθ = cos 135°
= – sin 45° = – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
S = \(\frac{\mathrm{hr \rho g}}{2 \cos \theta}\)
h = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~s} \cos \theta}{\mathrm{r \rho g}}\)
= 2 × 0.49 \(\left(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \frac{1}{2 \times 10^{-3} \times 13.6 \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\)
h = \(\frac{-0.49}{13.6 \times 9.8 \times \sqrt{2}}\)
h = -0.024m.

Question 5.
If the diameter of a soap bubble is 10 mm and its surface tension is 0.04 Nm-1, find the excess pressure inside the bubble. [Mar. 14]
Solution:
D = 10 m.m
r = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{10}{2}\) = 5 m.m
= 5 × 10-3
S = 0.04 N/m
Pi – P0 = \(\frac{4 S}{r}=\frac{4 \times 0.04}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 0.032 × 103
Pi – P0 = 32 N/m2 (or) Pascal.

Question 6.
If work done by an agent to form a bubble of radius R is W, then how much energy is required to increase its radius to 2R ?
Solution:
R1 = R, R2 = 2R
Initial work done (W) = 8πR2S
Final work done (W) = 8π[R22 – R12]S
= 8π [4R2 – R2]S
= 3 × 8π R2S
W = 3W.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 7.
If two soap bubbles of radii R1 and R2 (in vacuum) coalasce under isothermal conditions, what is the radius of the new bubble. Take T as the surface tension of soap solution.
Solution:
R1, R2 and R be the radii of first, second and resultant bubble. The soap bubbles coalesce in vacuum, so surface energy do not change
E = E1 + E2
8π R2T = 8π R12T + 8π R22 T
R2 = R12 + R22
R = \(\sqrt{R_1^2+R_2^2}\)

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Explain why
a) The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain.
b) Atmospheric pressure at a height of about 6 km decreases to nearly half of its value at the sea level, though the height of the atmosphere is more than 100 km.
c) Hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantities even though pressure is force divided by area.
Answer:
a) The height of the blood column in the human body is more at feet than at the brain. That is why, the blood exerts more pressure at the feet than at the brain (∴ pressure = hρg)

b) We know that the density of air is maximum near the surface of earth and decreases rapidly with height and at a height of about 6 km, it decreases to near by half its value at the sea level. Beyond 6 km height the density of air decreases very slowly with height. Due to this reason, the atmospheric pressure at a height of about 6 km decreases to nearby half of its value at sea level.

c) Since due to applied force on liquid, the pressure is transmitted equally in all directions inside the liquid. That is why there is no fixed direction for the pressure due to liquid. Hence hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
Explain why
a) The angle of contact of mercurywith glass is obtuse, while that of water with glass is acute.
b) Water on a clean glass surface tends to spread out while mercury on the same surface tends to form drops. (Put differently, water wets glass while mercury does not.) [T.S. Mar. 15]
c) Surface tension of a liquid is independent of the area of the surface.
d) Water with detergent disolved in it should have small angles of contact.
e) A drop of liquid under no external forces is always spherical in shape.
Answer:
a) When a small quantity of liquid is poured on solid, three interfaces, namely liquid- air, solid-air and solid-liquid are formed. The surface tensions corresponding to these three interfaces are SLA, SSA and SSL respectively. Let 0 be the angle of contact between the liquid and solid. The molecules in the region, where the three interfaces meet are in equilibrium. It means net force acting on them is zero. For the molecule at 0 to be in equilibrium, we have.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 17
In case of mercury glass, SSA < SSL, therefore cosθ is negative or θ > 90° i.e. obtuse. In case of water-glass, SSA > SSL, therefore cosθ is positive or θ < 90° i,e. acute.

b) For mercury glass, angle of contact is obtuse. In order to achieve this obtuse value of angle of contact, the mercury tends to form a drop. In case of water glass, the angle of contact is acute. To achieve this acute value of angle of contact, the water tends to spread.

c) Surface tension of liquid is the force acting per unit length on a line drawn tangentially to the liquid surface at rest. Since this force is independent of the area of liquid surface, therefore surface tension is also independent of the area of the liquid surface.

d) We know that the cloth has narrow spaces in the form of capillaries. The rise of liquid in a capillary tude is directly proportional to cos0. if 0 is small cos0 will be large. Due to which capillary rise will be more and so the detergent will penetrate more in cloth.

e) In the absence of external forces, the surface of the liquid drop tends to acquire the minimum surface area due to surface tension. Since for a given volume, the surface area of sphere is least, hence the liquid drop takes the spherical shape.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks using the word (S) from the list appended with each statement ;
a) Surface tension of liquids generally … with temperatures (increases / decreases)
b) Viscosity of gases… with temperature, whereas viscosity of liquids … with temperature (increases / decreases)
c) For solids with elastic modulus of rigidity, the shearing force is proportional to…. while for fluids it is proportional to … (shear strain / rate of shear strain)
d) For a fluid in a steady flow, the increase in flow speed at a constriction follows (conservation of mass / Bernoulli’s principle)
e) For the model of a plane in a wind tunnel, turbulence occurs at a… speed for turbulence for an actual plane (greater / smaller)
Answer:
a) Decreases
b) increases; decreases
c) Shear strain; rate of shear strain.
d) Conservation of mass; Bernoullis principle.
e) Greater.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 4.
Explain why
a) To keep a piece of paper horizontal, you should blow over, not under, it.
b) When we try to close a water tap with our fingers, fast jets of water gush through the openings between our fingers.
c) The size of the needle of a syringe controls flow rate better than the thumb pressure exerted by a doctor while administering an injection.
d) A fluid flowing out of a small hole in a vessel results in a backward thrust on the vessel.
e) A spinning cricket ball in air does not follow a parabolic trajectory.
Answer:
a) When we blow over the paper, the velocity of air blow increases and hence pressure of air on it decreases (according to Bernoullis theorem), whereas pressure of air below the paper is atmosphere. Hence the paper stays horizontal.

b) By doing so the area of the outlet of water jet is reduced, so velocity of water increases according to equation of continuity av = a constant.

c) When a fluid is flowing out of a small hole in a vessel it acquires a large velocity and hence possesses large momentum. Since no external force is acting on the system, a backward velocity must be attained by the vessel (according to law of conservation of momentum). As a result of it, impulse (backward thrust) is experienced by the vessel.

d) There, size of the needle controls velocity of flow and thumb pressure controls pressure. According to Bernoulli’s theorem, P + ρgh + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρV2 = a constant shows that P occurs with power one and V occurs with power two, hence the velocity has more influence. That is why the needle has a better control over flow.

e) If the ball is spinning well as moving linearly, the streamlines at the top of ball due to two types of motion are opposed to each other and those below are in the same direction. As a result of it, the velocity of air flow is greater below than above the ball. Now, according to Bernoullis principle, the pressure on the upper side of the ball becomes more than the pressure on the lower side of ball. Due to it, a resultant force F acts upon the ball at right angle to linear motion in the downward, direction, resulting the ball to move along a curved path.

Question 5.
A 50 kg girl wearing high heel shoes balances on a single heel. The heel is circular with a diameter 1.0 cm. What is the pressure exerted by the heel on the horizontal floor ?
Answer:
Here, m = 50kg; r =D/2 = 1/2 cm = \(\frac{1}{200}\) m
Pressure = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { area }}=\frac{m g}{\pi r^2}=\frac{50 \times 9.8}{(22 / 7)(1 / 200)^2}\)
= 6.24 × 106 Nm-2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 6.
Toricelli’s barometer used mercury. Pascal duplicated it using French wine of density 984 kg m-3. Determine the height of the wine column for normal atmosphere pressure.
Answer:
P = 0.76 × (13.6 × 103) × 9.8
= h × 984 × 9.8 or
h = \(\frac{0.76 \times 13.6 \times 10^3 \times 9.8}{984 \times 9.8}\)
= 10.5 m.

Question 7.
A vertical off-shore structure is built to withstand a maximum stress of 109 Pa. Is the structure suitable for putting up on top of an oil well in the ocean ? Take the depth of the ocean to be roughly 3 km and ignore ocean currents.
Answer:
Here, maximum stress = 109Pa,
h = 3km = 3 × 103m;
ρ(water) = 103kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2
The structure will be suitable for putting upon top of an oil well provided the pressure exerted by sea water is less than the maximum stress it can bear.
Pressure due to sea water, P = hρg
= 3 × 103 × 103 × 9.8
= 2.94 × 107 Pa
Since the pressure of sea water is less than the maximum stress of 109 Pa, the structure will be suitable for putting upon top of the oil well.

Question 8.
A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of cross-section of the piston carrying the load is 425 cm2. What maximum pressure would the smaller piston have to bear ?
Answer:
The maximum force, which the bigger piston can bear,
F = 3000 kgf = 3000 × 9.8 N
∴ Area of piston, A = 425 cm2
= 425 × 10-4 m2
∴ maximum pressure on the bigger piston.
P = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{3000 \times 9.8}{425 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 6.92 × 105 Pa
Since the liquid transmits pressure equally, therefore the maximum pressure the smaller piston can bear is 6.92 × 105 Pa.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 9.
A U-tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the two arms are in level with 10.0 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other. What is the specific gravity of spirit ?
Answer:
For water column in one arm of U-tube,
h1 = 10.0 cm; ρ1 (density) = 1g cm-3
For spirit column in other arm of U-tube, h2 = 12.5 cm; ρ1 = ?
As the mercury column in the two arms of U-tube are in level, therefore pressure exerted by each is equal. Hence h1ρ1g = h2ρ2g or
P2 = \(\frac{h_1 \rho_1}{h_2}=\frac{10 \times 1}{12.5}\) = 0.8 g cm-3
Therefore, relative density of spirit = ρ21
= \(\frac{0.8}{1}\) = 0.8

Question 10.
In the previous problem, if 15.0 cm of water and spirit each are further poured into the respective arms of the tube, what is the difference in the levels of mercury in the two arms ? (Specific, gravity of mercury = 13.6)
Answer:
On pouring 15.0 cm of water and spirit each into the respective arms of U-tube, the mercury level will rise in the arm containing spirit. Let h be the difference in the levels of mercury in two arms of U-tube and p be the density of mercury.
∴ The pressure exerted by h cm of mercury column = difference in pressure exerted by water and spirit.
∴ h1ρ1g = h2ρ2g ……………. (1)
Here h = ? ρ =13.6 g cm-3
ρ1 =1 cm-3
ρ2 = 0.8 g cm-3
h1 = 15 + 10 = 25 cm
h2 = 15 + 12.5 = 27.5 cm
Putting values in (i) we get h × 13.6 × g
= 25 × 1 × g – 27.5 × 0.8 × g = 3g
or h = 3/13.6 = 0.22cm

Question 11.
Can Bernoulli’s equation be used to describe the flow of water through a rapid in a river ? Explain.
Answer:
No, Bernoulli’s theorem is used only for stream – line flow.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 12.
Does it matter if one uses gauge instead of absolute pressures in applying Bernoulli’s equation ? Explain.
Answer:
No, it does not matter if one uses gauge instead of absolute pressures in applying Bernoulli’s’ equation, provided the atmospheric pressure at the two points where Bernoulli’s equation is applied are significantly different.

Question 13.
Glycerine flows steadily through a horizontal tube of length 1.5 m and radius 1.0 cm. If the amount of glycerine collected per second at one end is 4.0 × 10-3 kg s-1, what is the pressure difference between the two ends of the tube ? (Density of glycerine = 1.3 × 103 kg m-3 and viscosity of glycerine = 0.83 Pa s). [You may also like to check if the assumption of laminar flow in the tube is correct].
Answer:
Here, l = 1.5 m, r = 1.0 cm = 10-2 m, ρ = 1; 1.3 × 10-3 kg/m3; η = 0.83 Nsm-2.
Mass of glycerine flouring per sec, M = 4 × 10-3 kg/s
Volume of glycerine flouring per sec, V = \(\frac{M}{\rho}\)
V = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-3}}{1.3 \times 10^3} \mathrm{~m}^3 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\) m3s-1
If ρ is the difference of pressure between two ends of the tube,then using poisevilles formula we have
V = \(\frac{\pi \rho r^4}{8 \eta l}\) or P = \(\frac{V \times 8 \eta l}{\pi r^4}\)
P = \(\left(\frac{4 \times 10^{-3}}{1.3 \times 10^3}\right) \times \frac{8 \times 0.83 \times 1.5}{3.142 \times\left(10^{-2}\right)^4}\)
= 975.37 Pa

Question 14.
In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing are 70 m s-1 and 63 m s-1 respectively. What is the lift on the wing if its area is 2.5 m2 ? Take the density of air to be 1.3 kg m-3.
Answer:
Let V1, V2 be the speeds on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing of aeroplane and P1 and P2 be the pressures on upper and lower surfaces of the wing respectively.
Then V1 = 70ms-1; V2 = 63ms-1,
P = 1.3kg m-3.
This difference of pressure provides the lift to the aeroplane.
\(\frac{P_1}{\rho}\) + gh + \(\frac{1}{2} V_1^2\) = \(\frac{P_2}{\rho}\) + gh + \(\frac{1}{2} V_2^2\)
∴ \(\frac{P_1}{\rho}-\frac{P_2}{\rho}=\frac{1}{2}\left(V_2^2-V_1^2\right)\)
or P1 – P2 = \(\frac{1}{2} \rho\left(V_2^2-V_1^2\right)\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1.3 [(70)2 – (63)2]
= 605.15 Pa
This difference of pressure provides the lift to the aeroplane.
So, lift on the aeroplane = Pressure difference × area of wings
= 605.15 × 2.5
= 1512.875 N
= 1.51 × 103N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 15.
Figures (a) and (b) refer to the steady flow of a (non-viscous) liquid. Which of the two figures is incorrect ? Why ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 18
Answer:
Figure a is incorrect. According to equation of continuity i.e. av = a constant, where area of cross – section of tube is less, the velocity of liquid flow is more than the other portion of tube. According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
P + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ρv2 = a constant i.e. where V is more P is less and avice versa.

Question 16.
The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8.0 cm2 one end of which has 40 fine holes each of diameter 1.0 mm. If the liquid flow inside the tube is 1.5 m min-1, what is the speed of ejection of the liquid through the holes ?
Answer:
Area of cross – section of tube, a1 = 8.0 cm2 = 8 × 10-4 m2
No. of holes = 40, Diameter of each hole, D = 1 mm = 10-3 m
∴ Radius of hole, r = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\) × 10-3 m
= 5 × 10-4 m
Area of cross – section of each hole = πr2
= π(5 × 10-4)2m2
Total area of cross – section of 40 holes,
a2 = 40 × π (5 × 10-4)2m2
Speed of liquid inside the tube,
V1 = 1.5m/min
= \(\frac{1.5}{60}\) ms-1
If V2 is the velocity of ejection of the liquid through the holes, then
a1V1 = a2V2 or V2 = \(\frac{a_1 V_1}{a_2}\)
V2 = \(\frac{\left(8 \times 10^{-4}\right) \times 1.5}{60 \times 40 \times \pi \times\left(5 \times 10^4\right)^2}\)
= 0.637 ms-1

Question 17.
A U-shaped wire is dipped in a soap solution and removed. The thin shaped film formed between the surfaces and the light slider supports a weight of 1.5 × 10-2 N (which includes the small weight of the slider). The length of the slider is 30 cm. What is the surface tension of the film ?
Answer:
We know that soap film has two free surfaces, so total length of the film to be supported,
= 2l = 2 × 30 = 60 cm
= 0.6 m
Total force on the slider due to surface tension will be,
F = S × 2l
= S × 0.6 N
In equilibrium position, the force F on slider due to surface tension must balance the weight mg
(1.5 × 10-2)N i.e. F = 1.5 × 10-2
= S × 0.6 Or
S = \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-2}}{0.6}\)
2.5 × 10-2Nm-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 18.
Figure (a) shows a thin liquid film supporting a small weight = 4.5 × 10-2 N. What is the weight supported by a film of the same liquid at the same temperature in Fig. (b) and (c) ? Explain your answer physically.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 19
Answer:
a) Here, length of film supporting the weight
= 40cm = 0.4 m
Total liquid film supported (or force)
= 4.5 × 10-2 N
film has two free surfaces, ∴ surface tension,
S = \(\frac{4.5 \times 10^{-2}}{2 \times 0.4}\)
S = 5.625 × 10-2 Nm-1
Since the liquid is same for all the cases (a), (b), (c) and temperature is also same, therefore surface tension for cases (b) and (c) will also be the same = 5.625 × 10-2. In figure (b) and (c) the length of the film supporting the weight is also the same as that of(a), hence the total weight supported in each case is 4.5 × 10-2 N.

Question 19.
What is the pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3.00 mm at room temperature ? Surface tension of mercury at that temperature (20°C) is 4.65 × 10-1 Nm-1. The atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 Pa. Also give the excess pressure inside the drop.
Answer:
Here, r = 3.0 mm = 3 × 10-3 m;
S = 4.65 × 10-1 Nm-1;
P = 1.01 × 105 Pa
Excess of pressure inside the drop of mercury is given by
P = \(\frac{2 S}{r}=\frac{2 \times 4.65 \times 10^{-1}}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 310 Pa
Total pressure inside the drop = P + ρ
= 1.01 × 105 + 310
= 1.01 31 × 105 Pa

Question 20.
What is the excess pressure inside a bubble of soap solution of radius 5.0 mm, given that the surface tension of soap solution at the temperature (20°C) is 2.50 × 10-2 Nm-1? If an air bubble of the same dimension were formed at depth of 40.0 cm inside a container containing the soap solution (of relative density 1.20), what would be the pressure inside the bubble ? (1 atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 Pa).
Answer:
Here, S = 2.5 × 10-2 Nm-1, r = 5.00 mm = 5 × 10-3 m.
Density of soap solution, ρ = 1.2 × 103 kg m-3
Excess pressure inside the soap bubble,
P = \(\frac{4 s}{r}=\frac{4 \times 2.5 \times 10^{-2}}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 20 Pa
Excess pressure inside the air bubble, P’ = \(\frac{2S}{r}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 2.5 \times 10^{-2}}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 10 Pa
Total pressure inside the air bubble at depth h in soap solution – ρ’ + atmospheric pressure + hρg
= 10 + 1.01 × 105 + 0.4 × 1.2 × 103 × 9.8
= 1.06 × 103 Pa

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 21.
A tank with a square base of area 1.0 m2 is divided by a vertical partition in the middle. The bottom of the partition has a small-hinged door of area 20 cm2. The tank is filled with water in one compartment and an acid (of relative density 1.7) in the other, both to a height of 4.0 m. compute the force necessary to keep the door close.
Answer:
For compartment containing water,
h1 = 4m, ρ1 = 103 kg m-3
The pressure exerted by water at the door provided at bottom
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 20
P1 = h1ρ1g
= 4 × 103 × 9.8
= 3.92 × 104 Pa
For compartment containing acid,
h2 = 4m,
ρ2 = 1.7 × 1.03 kg/m3
The pressure exerted by acid at the door provided at bottom.
P2 = h2ρ2g
= 4 × 1.7 × 103 × 9.8
= 6.664 × 104 Pa
∴ Difference of pressure = P2P1
= 6.664 × 104 – 3.92 × 104
= 2.774 × 104Pa
Given, area of door, A = 20cm2
= 20 × 10-4m2
Force on the door = difference in pressure × area
= (P2 – P1) × A
= (2.774 × 104) × (20 × 104)
= 54.88N
≈ 55N
To keep the door closed, the force equal to 55 N should be applied horizontally on the door from compartment containing water to that containing acid.

Question 22.
A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in an enclosure as shown in Fig. (a) when a pump removes some of the gas, the manometer reads as in Fig. (b) The liquid used in the manometers is mercury and the atmo-spheric pressure is 76 cm of mercury.
a) Give the absolute and gauge pressure of the gas in the enclosure for cases (a) and b) in units of cm of mercury.
b) How would the levels change in case (b) if 13.6 cm of water (immiscible with mercury, are poured into the right limb of the manometer? (Ignore the small change in the volume of the gas).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 21
Answer:
a) Here, atomospheric presure, p = 76 cm of mercury
In Fig (a) Pressure head
h = + 20 cm
∴ Absolute pressure = p + h
= 76 + 20
= 96 cm of mercury
Gauge pressure = h = 20 cm of mercury.
In fig (b) pressure head, h = -18 cm
Absolute pressure = p + h
= 76+ (-18)
= 58 cm of mercury
Gauge pressure = h = -18cm of mercury.

b) Here 13.6 cm of water added in right limb is equiralent to
\(\frac{13.6}{13.6}\) = 1 cm of mercury column.
i.e., h1 = 1 cm of mercury column.
Now pressure at A, PA = P + h1 = 76 + 1
= 77 cm
Let the difference in mercury levels in the two lumbs be h1, then pressure at B,
PB = 58 + h1 or
As PA = PB = 77 = 58 + h1
h1 = 77 – 58 = 19 cm of mercury column.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 23.
Two vessels have the same base area but different shapes. The first vessel takes twice the volume of water that the second vessel requires to fill upto a particular comon height. Is the force exerted by the water on the base of the vessel the same in the two cases ? If so, why do the vessels filled with water to that same height give different readings on a weighing scale ?
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 22
Since the pressure depends upon the height of water column and the height of the water column in the two vessels of different shapes is the same.hence there will be same pressure due to water on the base of each vessel. As the base area of each vessel is same, hence there will be equal force acting on the two base areas due to water pressure. The water exerts force on the walls of the vessel also. In case, the walls of the vessel are not perpendicular to base, the force exerted by water on the walls has a net non-zero vertical component which is more in first vessel than that of second vessel. That is why, the two vessel:; filled with water to same vertical height show different readings on a weighing machine.

Question 24.
During blood transfusion the needle is inserted in a vein where the gauge pressure is 2000 Pa. At what height must the blood container be placed so that blood may just enter the vein ? Use the density of whole blood from Table 1.
Answer:
h = \(\frac{p}{p g}=\frac{200}{1.06 \times 10^3}\) × 9.8 = 0.1925 m
The blood may just enter the vein if the height at which the blood container be kept must be slightly greater than 0.1925 m i.e. 0.2 m.

Question 25.
In deriving Bernoulli’s equation, we equated the work done on the fluid in the tube to its change in the potential and kinetic energy.
a) What is the largest average velocity of blood flow in an artery of diameter 2 × 10-3 m if the flow must remain laminar ?
b) Do the dissipative forces become more important as the fluid velocity increases ? Discuss qualitatively.
Answer:
a) If dissipative forces are present, then some forces in liquid flow due to pressure different is spent against dissipative forces. Due to which the pressure drop becomes large.

b) The dissipative forces become more important with increasing flow velocity, because of tubulence.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 26.
a) What is the largest average velocity of blood flow in an artery of radius 2 × 10-3m if the flow must remain lanimar ?
Answer:
Here, r = 2 × 10-3m ;
D = 2r = 2 × 2 × 10-3 = 4 × 10-3m
η = 2.084 × 10-3 Pa s;
p = 1.06 × 103 kgm3
For flow tobe laminar, Nr = 2000
a) Now, Vc = \(\frac{N_r \eta}{\rho D}\)
= \(\frac{2000 \times\left(2.084 \times 10^{-3}\right)}{\left(1.06 \times 10^3\right) \times\left(4 \times 10^{-3}\right)}\) = 0.98m/s.

b) What is the corresponding flow rate ? (Take viscosity of blood to be 2.084 × 10-3 Pa s).
Answer:
Volume flowing per second = πr2Vc
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (2 × 10-3)2 × 0.98
= 1.23 × 10-5 m3s-1

Question 27.
A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 25m2. If the speed of the air is 180 km/h over the lower wing and 234 km/h over the upper wing surface, determine the plane’s mass. (Take air density to be 1 kg m-3)
Answer:
Here, V1 = 180 km/h = 50m/s, V2 = 234 km/ h = 65 m/s;
A = 2 × 25 = 50m2; P = 1kg/m3
P1 – P2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) p (V22 – V12)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1 × (652 – 502)
Upward force = (P1 – P2) A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (652 – 502) × 50N
As the plane is in level flight, so
mg = (P1 – P2)A
or m = \(\frac{\left(P_1-P_2\right) A}{g}=\frac{1 \times\left(65^2-50^2\right) \times 50}{2 \times 9.8}\)
= 4.4 × 103N

Question 28.
In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, what is the terminal speed of an uncharged drop of radius 2.0 × 10-5 m and density 1.2 × 103 kg m-3. Take the viscosity of air at the temperature of the experiment to be 1.8 × 105 Pa s. How much is the viscous force on the drop at that speed ? Neglect buoyancy of the drop due to air.
Answer:
Here, r = 2.0 × 10-5m; ρ = 1.2 × 103 kg m-3;
η = 1.8 × 105 Ns m-2
P0 = 0, V = ?, F = ?
Terminal velocity V = \(\frac{2 r^2\left(\rho-\rho_0\right) g}{9 \eta}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times\left(2.0 \times 10^{-5}\right)^2 \times\left(1.2 \times 10^3-0\right) \times 9.8}{9 \times 1.8 \times 10^{-5}}\)
= 5.8 × 10-2ms-1 = 5.8 cms-1
Viscous force on the drop, F = 6πηrv
= 6 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (1.8 × 10-5) × (2.0 × 10-5) × (5.8 × 10-2)
= 3.93 × 10-10N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 29.
Mercury has an angle of contact equal to 140° with soda lime glass. A narrow tube of radius 1.00 mm made of this glass is dipped in a trough containing mercury. By what amount does the mercury dip down in the tube relative to the liquid surface outside ? Surface tension of mercury at the temperature of the experiment is 0.456 N m-1. Density of mercury = 1.36 × 103 kg m-3.
Answer:
Here, θ = 140°, r = 1 × 10-3 m;
S = 0.465 Nm-1, ρ = 13.6 × 103 kg, h = ?]
Cos = 140° = – cos40° = -0.7660
Now h = \(\frac{2 S \cos \theta}{r \rho g}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 0.465 \times \cos 140^{\circ}}{10^{-3} \times 13.6 \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 0.465 \times(-0.7660)}{10^{-3} \times 13.6 \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\)
= -5.34 × 10-3m
= -5.34mm
Negative value of h shows that the mercury levels is depressed in the tube.

Question 30.
Two narrow bores of diameters 3.0 mm and 6.0 mm are joined together to forma a U-tube open at both ends. If the U-tube contains water, what is the difference in its levels in the two limbs of the tube ? Surface tension of water at the temperature of the experiment is 7.3 × 10-2 N m-1. Take the angle of contact to be zero and density of water to be 1.0 × 103 kg m-3 (g = 9.8 m-2).
Answer:
Here, S = 7.3 -2 Nm-1, ρ = 1.0 × 103 kg m-3; θ = 0°
For narrow tube, 2r1 = 3.00 mm = 3 × 10-3 m or r1 =1.5 × 10-3 m .
For wider tube, 2r2 = 6.00 mm = 6 × 10-3 m or r2 = 3 × 10-3 m
let h1, h2 be the heights to which water rises in narrow tube and wider tube respectively.
Then, h1 = \(\frac{2 s \cos \theta}{r_1 \rho g}\) and h2 = \(\frac{2 s \cos \theta}{r_2 \rho g}\)
∴ Difference in levels of water in two limbs of U-tube is
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 23

Question 31.
a) It is known that density of air decreases with height y as
ρ = ρ0e-y/y0
Where p0 = 1.25 kg m-3 is the density at sea level, and y0 is a constant. This density variation is called the law of atmospheres. Obtain this law assuming that the temperature of atmosphere remains a constant (isothermal conditions). Also assume that the value of g remains constant.
Answer:
We know that the rate of decrease of density p of air is directly proportional to height y i.e.
\(\frac{-d \rho}{d y}\) ∝ p or \(\frac{d \rho}{d y}\) = – Kρ
Where K is a constant of proportionality. Here – ve sign shows that ρ decreases as y increases.
\(\frac{d y}{\rho}\) = – Kρ
Integrating it with in the conditions, as y changes fromotoy density changes from ρ0 to ρ, we have
\(\left.\int_{P_0}^p \frac{d P}{P}=-\int_0^y k d y=\left[\log e^p\right)\right]_{\rho_0}^p=k y\)
\(\frac{\rho}{\rho_0}=e^{-k y}=\rho=\rho_0 e^{-\mathrm{y} / y_0}\)

b) A large He balloon of volume 1425 m3 is used to lift a payload of 400 kg. Assum that the balloon maintains constant radius as it rises. How high does it rise ?
(Take y0 = 8000 m and PHe = 0.18 kgm-3)
Answer:
The balloon will rise to aheight, where its density becomes equal to the air at that height.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 24
y = 8000 × 1 = 8000 m
= 8 km.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
The two thigh bones (femurs), each of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 mass 40 kg. Estimate the average pressure sustained by the femurs.
Answer:
Total cross-sectional area of the femurs is A = 2 × 10 cm2 20 × 10-4 m2. The force acting on them is F = 40 kg wt = 400 N (taking g 10 ms-2). This force is acting vertically down and hence, normally on the femurs. Thus, the average pressure is
Pav = \(\frac{F}{A}\) = 2 × 105 N m-2

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 2.
What is the pressure on a swimmer 10m below the surface of a lake ?
Answer:
Here
h = 10 m and p = 1000 kg m-3.
Take g 10 m S-2
From Equation = P = Pa + ρgh
P = Pa + ρgh
= 1.01 × 105 Pa + 1000 kgm-3 × 10m S-2 × 10 m
= 2.10 × 105 Pa
≈ 2 atm
This is a 100% increase in pressure from surface level. At a depth of 1 km the increase in pressure is 100 atm! Submarines are designed to withstand such enormous pressures.

Question 3.
The density of the atmosphere at sea level is 1.29 kg/m3. Assume that it does not change with altitude. Then how high would the atmosphee extend ?
Answer:
We use P – Pa = ρgh
ρgh = 1.29 kg m-3 × 9.8 ms2 × hm
= 1.01 × 105 pa
∴ h = 7989 m ≈ 8 km
In reality the density of air decreases with height. So does the value of g. The atmospheric cover extends with decreasing press-ure over 100 km. We should also note that the sea level atmospheric pressure is not always 760 mm of Hg. A drop in the Hg level by 10 mm or more is a sign of an approaching storm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 4.
At a depth of 1000 m in an ocean
(a) What is the absolute pressure ?
b) What is the guage Pressure ?
c) Find the force acting on the window of area 20 cm × 20 cm of a submarine at this depth, the interior of which is maintained at sealevel atmospheric pressure. (The density of sea water is 1.03 × 103 kg m-3, g = 10ms-2.
Answer:
Here h = 1000 m and ρ = 1.03 × 103 kg m-3
a) From P2 – P1 = ρgh absolute pressure
P = Pa + ρgh
= 1.01 × 105 Pa + 1.03 × 103 kg m-3 × 10 m s-2 × 1000 m
= 104.01 × 105 Pa .
= 104 atm

b) Gauge pressure is P – Pa = ρgh = Pg
Pg = 1.03 × 103 kg m-3 × 10 m s2 × 1000 m
= 103 × 105 Pa
≈ 103 atm

c) The pressure outside the submarine is P = Pa + ρgh and the pressure inside it is Pa. Hence, the net pressure acting on the window is gauge pressure, Pg = ρgh. Since the area of the window is A = 0.04 m2, the force acting on it is
F = PgA = 103 × 105 Pa × 0.04m2
= 4.12 × 105 N
≈ 103 atm

Question 5.
Two syringes of different cross sections A1, A2 and lengths L1, L2 (without needles) filled with water are connected with a tightly fitted rubber tube filled with water. Diameters of the smaller piston and larger piston are 1.0 cm and 3.0 cm respectively.
a) Find the force exerted on the larger piston when a force of ION is applied to the smaller piston, b) if the smaller piston is pushed in through 6.0 cm,’how much does the larger piston move out ?
Answer:
a) Since pressure is transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid.
F2 = \(\frac{A_2}{A_1} F_1=\frac{\pi\left(3 / 2 \times 10^{-2} m\right)^2}{\pi\left(1 / 2 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2} \times 10 \mathrm{~N}\)
= 90 N

b) Water is considered to be perfectly incompressible. Volume covered by the move-ment of smaller piston inwards is equal to volume moved outwards due to the larger piston.
L1A1 = L2A2
L2 = \(\frac{A_1}{A_2} L_1=\frac{\pi\left(1 / 2 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2}{\pi\left(3 / 2 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2}\)
= × 6 × 10-2m
≃ 0.67 × 10-2m = 0.67 cm.
Note, atmospheric pressure is common to both pistons and has been ignored.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 6.
In a car lift compressed air exerts a force F1 on a small piston having a radius of 5.0 cm. This pressure is transmitted to a second piston or radius 15 cm (Fig). If the mass of the car to be lifted is 1350 kg, calculate F1. What is the pressure necessary to accomplish this task ? (g = 9.8 ms-2).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 25
Answer:
Since pressure is transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid.
F1 = \(\frac{A_1}{A_2} F_2=\frac{\pi\left(5 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2}{\pi\left(15 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2}\)
= (1350 N × 9.8m s-2) = 1470 N
= 1.5 × 103N
The air pressure that will produce this force is
P = \(\frac{F_1}{A_1}=\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~N}}{p\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2 \mathrm{~m}}\) = 1.9 × 105 Pa
This is almost double the atmospheric pressure.

Question 7.
Blooc velocity : The flow of blood in a large artery of an anesthetised dog is diverted through a Venturi meter. The wider part of the meter has a cross-sectional area equal to that of the artery. A = 8 mm2. The harrower part has an area = 4mn2. The pressure drop in the artery is 24 Pa. What is the speed of the blood in the artery ?
Answer:
We take the density of blood from whole blood to be 1.06 × 103 kg m3. The ratio of the areas is \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{a}}\right)\) = 2
Using v1 = \(\left(\sqrt{\frac{2 \rho_m g h}{\rho}}\right)\left(\left(\frac{A}{2}\right)^2-1\right)^{-1 / 2}\)
we obtain
v1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 24 \mathrm{pA}}{1060 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~m}^{-3} \times\left(2^2-1\right)}=0.125 \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 8.
A fully loaded Boeing aircraft has a mass of 3.3 × 105 kg. Its total wing area is 500 m2. It is in level flight with a speed of 960 km/h. a) Estimate the pressure difference between the lower and upper surfaces of the wings (b) Estimate the fractional increase in the speed of the air on the upper surface of the wing relative to the lower surface. [The density of air is ρ = 1.2 kgm-3].
Answer:
a) The weight of’the Boeing aircraft is balanced by the upward force due to the pressure difference
∆P × A – 3.3 × 105 kg × 9.8 = mg.
∆P = (3.3 × 105 kg × 9.8 m s-2) / 500 m2
= 6.6 × 103 N m-2

b) We ignore the small height difference between the top and bottom sides in
P1 + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) ρv12 + ρgh1 = P2 + (\(\frac{1}{2}\))ρv22 + ρgh2
The pressure difference between them is then
∆P = \(\frac{\rho}{2}\left(v_2^2-v_1^2\right)\)
Where v2 is the speed of air over the upper surface and v1 is the speed under the bottom surface.
(v2 – v1) = \(\frac{2 \Delta P}{\rho\left(v_2+v_1\right)}\)
Taking the average speed vav (v2 + v1)/2 – 960 km/h = 267 m s-1, we have
(v2 – v1)/vav = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{P}}{\rho v_{\mathrm{av}}^2}\) ≈ 0.08
The speed of air above the wing needs to be only 8% higher than that below.

Question 9.
A metal block of area 0.10 m2 is connected to a 0.010 kg mass via a string that passes over an ideal pulley (considered massless and frictionless), as in Fig. A liquid with a film thickness of 0.30 mm is placed between the block and the table. When released, the block moves to the right with a constant speed of 0.085 ms-1. Find the co-efficient of viscosity of the liquid.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 26
Answer:
The metal block moves to the right because of the tension in the string. The tension T is equal in magnitude to the weight of the suspended mass m. Thus the shear force F is
F = T = mg = 0.010 kg × 9.8 ms-2
= 9.8 × 10-2 N
Shear stress on the fluid = F/A = \(\frac{9.8 \times 10^{-2}}{0.10}\)
Strain rate = \(\frac{v}{l}=\frac{0.085 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}{0.3 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m}}\)
η = \(\frac{\text { stress }}{\text { strain rate }}\)
= \(\frac{\left(9.8 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~N}\right)\left(0.30 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m}\right)}{\left(0.085 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\right)\left(0.10 \mathrm{~m}^2\right)}\)
= 3.45 × 10-3 Pa s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 10.
The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 2.0 mm falling through a tank of oil at 20°C is 6.5 cm s-1. Compute the viscosity of the oil at 20°C. Density of oil is 1.5 × 103 kg m-3, density of copper is 8.9 × 103 kg m-3.
Answer:
We have vt = 6.5 × 10-2 ms-1,
a = 2 × 10-3m,
g = 9.8 ms-2, ρ = 8.9 × 103 kg m-3,
σ = 1.5 × 103 kg m-3. From
vt = \(\frac{2 a^2(\rho-\sigma) g}{(9 \eta)}\)
η = \(\frac{2}{9} \times \frac{\left(2 \times 10^{-3}\right) \mathrm{m}^2 \times 9.8 \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}}{6.5 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}\) × 7.4 × 103 kg m-3
= 9.9 × 10-1 kg m-1s-1

Question 11.
a) The flow rate of water from a tap of diameter 1.25 cm is L7min. The co-efficient of viscosity of water is 10-3 Pa s.
b) After sometime the flow rate is increased to 3L / min. Characterise the flow for both the flow rates.
Answer:
a) Let the speed of the flow be v and the diameter of the tap be d = 1.25 cm. The volume of the water flowing out per second is
Q = v × π d2/4
v = 4Q / d2 π
We then estimate the Reynolds number to be
Re = 4vQ / πdη
= 4 × 103 kg m-3 × Q / (3.14 × 1.25 × 10-2 m × 10-3 Pa S)
= 1.019 × 108 m-3 SQ
Since initially (a)
Q = 0.48 L/min = 8cm3/s
= 8 × 10-6 m3 s-1, we obtain,
Re = 815
Since this is below 1000, the flow is steady.
After some time

b) When Q = 3L/ min = 50 cm3, s = 5 × 10-5 m3 s-1 we obtain,
Re = 5095
The flow will be turbulent. You may carry out an experiment in your washbasin to determine the ransition from laminar to turbulent flow.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Question 12.
The lower end of a capillary tube of diameter 2.00 mm is dipped 8.00 cm below the surface of water in a beaker. What is the pressure required in the tube in order to blow a hemispherical bubble at its end in water ? The surface tension of water at temperature of the experiments is 7.30 × 10-2 Nm1. 1 atmospheric pressure = 1.01 × 105 Pa, density of water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.8 × ms-2. Also calculate the excess pressure.
Answer:
The excess pressure in a bubble of gas in a liquid is given by 2S / r, where S is the surface tension of the liquid gas interface. You should note there is only one liquid surface in this case. (For a bubble of liquid in a gas, there are two liquid surfaces, so the formula for excess pressure in that case is 4S / r.) The radius of the bubble is r. Now the pressure outside the bubble, within water, P0 equals atmospheric pressure plus the pressure due to 8.00 cm of water column. That is
P0 = (1.01 × 105 Pa + 0.08 m × 1000 kg m-3 × 9.80 m s-2)
= 1.01784 × 105 Pa. .
Therefore, the pressure inside the bubble is
P1 = P0 + 2S / r (as r = 1 mm)
= 1.01784 × 105 Pa + (2 × 7.3 × 10-2 Pa m/10-3 m)
= (1.01784 + 0.00146) × 105 Pa
= 1.02 × 105 Pa
where the radius of the bubble is taken to be equal to the radius of the capillary tube, since the bubble is hemispherical ! (The answer has been rounded off to three significant figures). The excess pressure in the bubble is 146 Pa from (1.0178 + 0.00146) × 105 Pa.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 10th Lesson Mechanical Properties of Solids Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 10th Lesson Mechanical Properties of Solids

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State Hooke’s law of elasticity.
Answer:
“With in the elastic limit stress directly proportional to the strain”.
Stress ∝ strain
Stress = k × strain
k = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
Where k is modulus of elasticity.

Question 2.
State the units and dimensions of stress.
Answer:

  1. Stress = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{F}{A}\)
    S.l units → N/m2 (or) Pascal
  2. Dimensional formula
    Stress = \(\frac{\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}}{\mathrm{~L}^2}\) = [ML-1T-2].

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 3.
State the units and dimensions of modulus of elasticity.
Answer:
Modulus of elasticity (k) = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
Units → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Dimensional formula → [ML-1T-2]

Question 4.
State the units and dimensions of Young’s modulus.
Answer:
Young’s modules (y) = \(\frac{\text { LongitudinalStress }}{\text { Longitudinal Strain }}=\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\frac{e}{L}}\)
Units → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Dimensional formula → [ML-1T-2]

Question 5.
State the units and dimensions of modulus of rigidity.
Answer:
Modulus of rigidity (G) = \(\frac{F}{A \theta}=\frac{\text { Shearing Stress }}{\text { Shearing Strain }}\)
Units → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Dimensional formula → [ML-1T-2].

Question 6.
State the units and dimensions of Bulk modulus.
Answer:
Bulk modulus (B) = \(\frac{\text { Bulk Stress }}{\text { Bulk Strain }}=\frac{-P V}{\Delta V}\)
Units → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Dimensional formula → [ML-1T-2].

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 7.
State the examples of nearly perfect elastic and plastic bodies.
Answer:

  • Nearly perfect elastic bodies are quartz fibre.
  • Nearly perfect plastic bodies are dough and day.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Hooke’s Law of elasticity, proportionality, permanent set and breaking stress.
Answer:
Hooke’s law : “With in the elastic limit stress is directly proportional to the strain”.
Stress ∝ strain
Stress = k × strain
Where k is modulus of elasticity.
Proportionality limit: The maximum stress developed in a body till it obeys Hookes law is called proportionality limit.
Permanent Set : Permanent deformation produced when a body is stretched beyond its elastic limit.
Breaking stress : The maximum stress a body can bear before it breaks.

Question 2.
Define modulus of elasticity, stress, strain and Poisson’s ratio.
Answer:
Modulus of elasticity : It is the ratio stress applied on a body to the strain produced in the body.
k = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
S.I unit → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Stress : When a body is subjected to an external force, the force per unit area is called stress.
Stress = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{F}{A}\)
S.I unit → N/m2 (or) Pascal
Strain : When deforming forces act on a body, the fractional deformation produced in the body. It has no units

Poisson’s ratio (σ) : The ratio between lateral strain to longitudinal strain of a body is called poisson’s ratio.
σ = \(\frac{\text { Lateral Strain }}{\text { Longitudinal Strain }}=\frac{\frac{-\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}}}{\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 3.
Define Young’s modulus. Bulk modulus and Shear modulus.
Answer:
Young’s modulus (y) : With in the elastic limit, the ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain is called young’s modulus.
y = \(\frac{\text { Longitudinal Stress }}{\text { Longitudinal Strain }}=\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\frac{e}{L}}\)
y = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{A} \cdot \mathrm{e}}\)
S.I unit → N/m2 (or) Pascal

Bulk modulus (B) : With in the elastic limit, it is defined as the ratio of Bulk stress to Bulk strain
B = \(\frac{\text { Bulk Stress }}{\text { Bulk Strain }}\)
B = \(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{A}}}{\frac{-\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}}=\frac{-\mathrm{PV}}{\Delta \mathrm{V}}\) (∵ -ve sign indicates volume decreases)
S.I unit → N/m2 (or) Pascal

Rigidity modulus (G) : With in the elastic limit, it is defined as the ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain.
G = \(\frac{\text { Shearing Stress }}{\text { Shearing Strain }}\)
G = \(\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\theta}=\frac{F}{A \theta}\)
S.I unit → N/m2 (or) Pascal

Question 4.
Define stress and explain the types of stress. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Stress : The restoring force per unit area is called stress
∴ Stress = \(\frac{\text { Restoring Force }}{\text { Area }}=\frac{F}{A}\)
Stress is classified into three types.

  1. Longitudinal stress
  2. Volume (or) Bulk stress
  3. Tangential (or) shearing stress

1. Longitudinal stress (or) Linear stress : When a normal stress changes the length of a body, then it is called longitudinal stress.
Longitudinal stress = \(\frac{F}{A}\)

2. Volume (or) Bulk stress : When a normal stresschanges the volume of a body, then it is called volume stress.
Volume stress = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}\) = pressure.

3. Tangential (or) shearing stress : When the stress is tangential to the surface due to the application of forces parallel to the surface, then the stress is called tangential stress.
Tangential stress = \(\frac{F}{A}\).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 5.
Define strain and explain the types of strain.
Answer:
Strain : It is the ratio of change in dimension to its original dimension.
Strain = \(\frac{\text { Changes in dimension }}{\text { Original dimension }}\)
Strain is of three types.
1. Longitudinal strain : It is the ratio of change in length to its original length.
Longitudinal strain = \(\frac{\text { Changes in length }}{\text { Original length }}=\frac{e}{L}\)

2. Shearing strain (or) Tangential strain : When simultaneous compression and extension in mutually perpendicular direction takes place in a body, the change of shape it under goes, is called shearing strain.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 1
Shearing strain (θ) = \(\frac{1}{L}\)

3. Bulk (or) volume strain : It is the ratio of change in volume to its original volume is called bulk strain. It is called Bulk (or) volume strain.
Bulk strain = \(\frac{\text { Change in Volume }}{\text { Original Volume }}=\frac{\Delta V}{V}\)

Question 6.
Define strain energy and derive the equation for the same. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
The potential energy stored in a body when stretched is called strain energy.
Let us consider a wire of length L and cross – sectional area A. Let x be the change in length of the wire by the application of stretching force F.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 2
Strain energy per unit volume = \(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{F}{A} \cdot \frac{x}{L}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × stress × strain.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 7.
Explain why steel is preferred to copper, brass, aluminium in heavy-duty machines and in structural designs.
Answer:
The elastic behavior of materials plays an important role in everyday life. Designing of buildings, the structural design of the columns, beams and supports require knowledge of strength of material used. The elasticity of the material is due to stress developed with in the body, when extenal force acts on it. A material is of more elastic nature if it develops more stress (or) restoring force. Steel develops more stress than copper, brass, aluminium for same strain. So steel is more elastic.
y = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)

Question 8.
Describe the behaviour of a wire under gradually increasing load. [A.P. – Mar. ’18, ’16, ’15; TS – Mar. ’18, ’15, ’13]
Answer:
When the load is increased in steps, a graph is drawn between stress on y-axis and corresponding strain on x-axis.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 3
1. Proportionality limit : In the linear position OA, stress is proportional to strain, i.e. Hookes law is obeyed by the wire upto point A. The graph is a straight lint. When ever the stretching force at A is removed, the wire regains its original length.
A is called proportionality limit.

2. Elastic limit : In the graph B is the elastic limit.
Through the wire doesnot obey Hooke’s law at B. The wire regains its original length after removing the stretching force at B. upto point B the wire is under elastic behaviour.

3. Permanent set (or) yield point: In the graph c is the yield point. If the stretching force at c is removed, the wire doesnot regain its original length and the length of the wire changes permanently. In this position the wire flows like a viscous liquid. After the point c, the wire is under plastic behavior, c is called permanent set (or) yield point.

4. Breaking point: When the stress increased, the wire becomes thinner and thinner. When the stress increases to a certain limit the wire breaks. The stress at which the wire breaks is called breaking stress and the point D is called breaking point.

5. Elastic fatigue : The state of temperary loss of elastic nature of a body due to continuous strain is called elastic fatigue. When a body is subjected to continuous strain with in the elastic limit, it appears to have lost Hastic property temporarily to some extent and becomes weak.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 9.
Two identical solid balls, one of ivory and the other of wet-day are dropped from the same height onto the floor. Which one will rise to greater height after striking the floor and why ?
Answer:
Ivory ball rise to greater height after striking the floor. The ivory ball regain its original shape after striking the floor. The elastic property of ivory ball is more. Where as wet-day ball does not regain its original shape after striking the floor.

So wet-day ball acts like plastic body.

Question 10.
While constructing buildings and bridges a pillar with distributed ends is preferred to a pillar with rounded ends. Why ?
Answer:
Use of pillars (or) columns is also very common in buildings and bridges. A pillar with rounded ends supports less load than that with a distributed shape at the ends. The precise design of a bridge (or) a building has to take into account the conditions under which it will function, the cost and long period, reliability of usable materials.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 4

Question 11.
Explain why the maximum height of a mountain on earth is approximately 10 km ?
Answer:
The maximum height of a mountain on earth is 10 km, can also be provided by considering the elastic properties of rocks. A mountain base is not under uniform compression and this provides some shearing stress to rocks under which they can flow. The stress due to all the material on the top should be less than the critical shearing stress at which the rocks flow.

At the bottom of a mountain of height h, the force per unit area due to the weight of the mountain is hρg. Where ρ is the density of the mountain. The material at the bottom experiences this force in the vertical direction and the sides of the mountain are free.
There is a shear component, approximately hρg itself.
Elastic limit for 3 typical rock is 30 × 107 N/m2
hρg = 30 × 107 (ρ = 3 × 103 kg/m3)
h = \(\frac{30 \times 10^7}{3 \times 10^3 \times 10}\)
h = 10 km.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 12.
Explain the concept of Elastic Potential Energy in a stretched wire and hence obtain the expression for it.
Answer:
“When a wire is put under a tensile stress, work is done against the inter-atomic forces. The work is stored in the wire in the form of elastic potential energy”.

Expression for elastic potential energy : Consider a wire of length L and area of cross section A is subjected to a deforming force F along the length of the wire. Let the length of the wire is elongated by l.
Young’s modulus (y) = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{Al}}\)
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{yAl}}{\mathrm{L}}\) ……………. (1)
Work done due to further elongation of small length dl
Work done (dw) = F × dl = (\(\frac{\mathrm{yAl}}{\mathrm{L}}\))dl ……………… (2)
Total work done in increasing the length of the wire from L to (L + l)
w = \(\int_0^1 \frac{\mathrm{yAl} }{\mathrm{L}} \mathrm{dl}=\frac{\mathrm{yA}}{2} \times \frac{l^2}{\mathrm{~L}}\)
w = \(\frac{1}{2} \times \mathrm{y} \times\left(\frac{l}{\mathrm{~L}}\right)^2 \times \mathrm{Al}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) y × stress2 × volume of the wire
w = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × stress × strain × volume of the wire.
This work is stored in the wire in elastic potential energy (u).

Long Answer Question

Question 1.
Define Hooke’s law of elasticity and describe an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus of the material of a wire.
Answer:
Hooke’s law : With in the elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain.
Stress ∝ strain
Stress = k × strain
Where k is modulus of elasticity.
Determination of young’s modulus of the material of a wire:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 5
Young’s Modulus of the Material of a wire

  1. It consists of two long straight wires of same length and same area of cross-section suspended side by side from a rigid .support.
  2. The wire A (reference wire) carries a metre scale M and a pan to place a weight.
  3. The wire B (experimental wire) carries a pan in which known weights can be placed.
  4. A vernier scale v is attached to a pointer at the bottom of the experimental wire B and the main scale M is fixed to the wire A.
  5. The weights placed in the pan, the elongation of the wire is measured by the vernier arrangement.
  6. The reference wire is used to compensate for any change in length that may occur due to change in room temperature.
  7. Both the reference and experimental wires are given an initial small load to keep the wires straight and the vernier reading is noted.
  8. Now the experimental wire is gradually loaded with more weights, the vernier reading is noted again.
  9. The difference between two vernier readings gives the elongation produced in the wire.
  10. Let r and L be the radius and initial length of the experimental wire. Let M be the mass that produced an elongation ∆L in the wire.
    Young’s modulus of the material of the experimental wire is given by
    y = \(\frac{\text { Longitudinal Stress }}{\text { Longitudinal Strain }}=\frac{\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{A}}}{\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}}\)
    y = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{A} \Delta \mathrm{L}}\)
    y = \(\frac{\mathrm{MgL}}{\pi r^2 \times \Delta \mathrm{L}}\)
    From above equation young’s modulus of the material of the wire is determined.

Problems

Question 1.
A copper wire of 1mm diameter is stretched by applying a force of 10 N. Find the stress in the wire.
Solution:
D = 1 m.m = 10-3m, r = \(\frac{D}{2}\) = 0.5 × 10-3 m.
F = 10 N
Stress = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{F}{\pi r^2}\)
= \(\frac{10}{3.14 \times\left(0.5 \times 10^{-3}\right)^2}\)
= 1.273 × 107 N/m2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 2.
A tungsten wire of length 20 cm is stretched by 0.1 cm. Find the strain on the wire.
Solution:
L = 20 × 10-2 m, ∆L = 0.1 × 10-2 m
Strain = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{0.1 \times 10^{-2}}{20 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 0.005.

Question 3.
If an iron wire is stretched by 1 %, what is the strain on the Wire ?
Solution:
Strain = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = 1 %
Strain = \(\frac{1}{100}\) = 0.01

Question 4.
A brass wire of diameter 1mm and length 2 m is streched by applying a force of 20N. If the increase in length is 0.51 mm. find
(i) the stress,
(ii) the strain and
(iii) the Young’s modulus of the wire.
Solution:
D = 1 m.m, r = \(\frac{D}{2}\) = 0.5 × 10-3 m
L = 2 m, F = 20 N, ∆L = 0.51 m.m = 0.51 × 10-3 m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 6
= 9.984 × 1010 N/m2

Question 5.
A copper wire and an aluminium wire have lengths in the ratio 3 : 2, diameters in the ratio 2 : 3 and forces applied in the ratio 4: 5. Find the ratio of increase in length of the two wires. (Ycu = 1.1 × 1011 Nm-2, YAl = 0.7 × 1011 Nm-2).
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 7
= \(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{2} \times\left(\frac{0.7 \times 10^{11}}{1.1 \times 10^{11}}\right) \times\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^2\)
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}_1}{\Delta \mathrm{L}_2}=\frac{189}{110}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 6.
A brass wire of cross-sectional area 2 mm2 is suspended from a rigid support and a body of volume 100 cm3 is attached to its other end. If the decrease in the length of the wire is 0.11 mm, when the body is completely immersed in water, find the natural length of the wire.
(Ybrass = 0.91 × 1011 Nm-2, ρwater = 103 kg m-3).
Solution:
A = πr2 = 2 × 10-6 m2, V = 100 × 10-6 = 10-4 m3
∆L = 0.11 × 10-3 m, yBrass = 0.91 × 1011 N/m2, ρ = 103 kg/m3
y = \(\frac{M g L}{A \times \Delta L}=\frac{v \rho g L}{A \times \Delta L}\)
L = \(\frac{\mathrm{yA} \Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{v \rho g}}=\frac{0.91 \times 10^{11} \times 2 \times 10^{-6} \times 0.11 \times 10^{-3}}{10^{-4} \times 10^3 \times 9.8}\)
L = 2.04 m.

Question 7.
There are two wires of same material. Their radii and lengths are both in the ratio 1:2. If the extensions produced are equal, what is the ratio of loads ?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 8

Question 8.
Two wires of different material have same lengths and areas of cross¬section. What is the ratio of their increase in length when forces applied are the same ?
(Y1 = 0.9 × 1011 Nm-2, Y2 = 3.6 × 1011 Nm-2)
Solution:
y1 = 0.9 × 1011 Nm-2
y2 = 3.6 × 1011 Nm-2
y = \(\frac{F L}{A \times \Delta L}\)
∆L ∝ \(\frac{1}{y}\)
\(\frac{(\Delta L)_1}{(\Delta L)_2}=\frac{y_2}{y_1}=\frac{3.6 \times 10^{11}}{0.9 \times 10^{11}}=\frac{4}{1}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 9.
A metal wire of length 2.5 m and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10-6 m2 is stretched through 2 mm. if its Young’s modulus is 1.25 × 1011 N.m2, find the tension in the wire.
Solution:
L = 2.5 m, A = 1.5 × 10-6 m2
∆L = 2 × 10-9 m
y = 1.25 × 1011 N.m2
y = \(\frac{\mathrm{FL}}{\mathrm{A} \Delta \mathrm{L}}\)
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{yA} \Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}\)
= \(\frac{1.25 \times 10^{11} \times 1.5 \times 10^{-6} \times 2 \times 10^{-3}}{2.5}\)
F = 150 N

Question 10.
An aluminium wire and a steel wire of the same length and cross-section are joined end-to-end. The composite wire is hung from a rigid support and a load is suspended from the free end. If the increase in length of the composite wire is 1.35 mm, find the ratio of the
(i) stress in the two wires and
(ii) strain in the two wires.
(YAl = 0.7 × 1011 N.m2, YSteel = 2 × 1011 Nm2).
Solution:
YAl = 0.7 × 1011 N.m2, YSteel = 2 × 1011 Nm2
∆L1 + ∆L2 = 1.35 mm ……………… (1)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 9

Question 11.
A 2 cm cube of some substance has its upper face displaced by 0.15 cm due to a tangential force of 0.3 N while keeping the lower face fixed, Calculate the rigidity modulus of the substance.
Solution:
L = 2 × 10-2 m, A = L2 = 4 × 10-4 m2
∆x = 0.15 × 10-2 m
F = 0.3 N
G = \(\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\frac{\Delta x}{L}}=\frac{F L}{A \Delta x}\) (∵ θ = \(\frac{\Delta x}{L}\))
G = \(\frac{0.3 \times 2 \times 10^{-2}}{4 \times 10^{-4} \times 0.15^6 \times 10^{-2}}\)
G = 104 N/m2

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 12.
A spherical ball of volume 1000 cm3 is subjected to a pressure of 10 Atmosphere. The change in volume is 10-2 cm3. If the ball is made of iron, find its bulk modulus.
(1 atmosphere = 1 × 105 Nm-2).
Solution:
v = 1000 cm3 = 1000 × 10-6 = 10-3 m3
p = 1 atm = 1 × 105 = 105 N/m2
-∆v = 10-2 cm3 = 10-2 × 10-6 = 10-8 m3
Bulk modulus (B) = \(\frac{-p v}{\Delta v}\)
= \(\frac{10^5 \times 10^{-3}}{10^{-8}}\)
B = 1010 N/m2.

Question 13.
A copper cube of side of length 1 cm is subjected to a pressure of 100 atmosphere. Find the change in its volume if the bulk modulus of copper is 1.4 × 1011 Nm-2. (1 atm = 1 × 105 Nm-2).
Solution:
l = 1 cm = 10-2 m
V = Volume of the cube = l3 = 1cm3
= 10-6 m3
P = 100 atm = 100 × 105 = 107 N/m2
B = 1.4 × 1011 N/m2
B = \(\frac{-P V}{\Delta V}\)
-∆V = \(\frac{P V}{B}=\frac{10^7 \times 10^{-6}}{1.4 \times 10^{11}}\)
-∆V = 0.7143 × 10-10 m3.

Question 14.
Determine the pressure required to reduce the given volume of water by 2%. Bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm-2.
Solution:
\(\frac{-\Delta V}{V}\) = 2 % = \(\frac{2}{100}\)
B = 2.2 × 109 Nm2
B = \(\frac{-P V}{\Delta V}\)
P = -B × \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\)
= 2.2 × 109 × \(\frac{2}{100}\)
P = 4.4 × 107 N/m2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 15.
A steel wire of length 20 cm is stretched to increase its length by 0.2 cm. Find the lateral strain in the wire if the Poisson’s ratio for steel is 0.19.
Solution:
L = 20 cm = 20 × 10-2 m
∆L = 0.2 × 10-2 m
σ = 0.19
σ = \(\frac{\text { Lateral strain }}{\text { Longitudinal strain }\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}\right)}\)
Lateral strain = σ × \(\frac{\Delta L}{L}\)
= \(\frac{0.19 \times 0.2 \times 10^{-2}}{20 \times 10^{-2}}\)
= 0.0019

Additional Problems

Question 1.
A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional area 3.0 × 10-5 m2 stretches by the same amount as a copper wire of length 3.5 m and cross-sectional area of 4.0 × 10-5 m2,
Solution:
Given, for steel wire, a1 = 3.0 × 10-5 m2, l1 = 4.7 m, ∆l1 = ∆l, F1 = F
For copper wire, a2 = 4.0 × 10-5 m2, l2 = 3.5 m, ∆l2 = ∆l, F2 = F .
Let y1, y2 be the young modulus of steel wire and copper wire respectively.
∴ y1 = \(\frac{F_1}{a_1} \times \frac{l_1}{\Delta l_2}=\frac{F}{3.0 \times 10^{-5}} \times \frac{4.7}{\Delta l}\) ………….. (i)
and y2 = \(\frac{F_2 \times l_2}{a_2 \times \Delta l_2}=\frac{F \times 3.2}{4 \times 10^{-5} \times \Delta l}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{y}_1}{\mathrm{y}_2}=\frac{4.7 \times 4 \times 10^{-5}}{3.5 \times 3.0 \times 10^{-5}}\) = 1.8
Here y1 : y1 = 1.8 : 1.

Question 2.
Figure shows the strain-stress curve for a given material. What are (a) Young’s modulus and (b) approximate yield strength for this material ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 10
Solution:
a) From graph, for stress = 150 × 106 Nm-2 the corresponding strain = 0.002
young’s modulus y = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}=\frac{150 \times 10^6}{0.002}\)
= 7.5 × 1010 Nm-2

b) Approximate yeild strength will be equal to the maximum stress it can substain with out crossing the elastic limit. Therefore, the approximate yeild strength
= 300 × 106 Nm-2
= 3 × 108 Nm-2

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 3.
The stress-strain graphs for materials A and B are shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 11
The graphs are drawn to the same scale.
a) Which of the materials has the greater Young’s modulus ?
b) Which of the two is the stronger material ?
Solution:
a) From the two graphs we note that for a given strain, stress for A is more than that of B. Hence young’s modulus (= stress/ strain) is greater for A than that of B.

b) A is stronger than B. Strength of a material is measured by the amount of stress required to cause fracture, corresponding to the point of fracture.

Question 4.
Read the following two statements below carefully and state, with reasons, if it is true or false.
a) The Young’s modulus of rubber is greater than that of steel;
b) The stretching of a coil is determined by its shear modulus.
Solution:
a) False, because for a given stress there is more strain in rubber than steel and modulus of elasticity is inversly proportional to strain.

b) True because the strecting of coil simply changes its shape without any change in the length of the wire used in the coil due to which shear modulus of elasticity is involved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 5.
Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and the other made of brass are loaded as shown in Fig. The unloaded length of steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass Wire is 1.0 m. Compute the elongations of the steel and the brass wires.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 12
Solution:
For steel wire, total force on steel wire,
F1 = 4 + 6 = 10 kg, f = 10 × 9.8 N
l1 = 1.5 m, ∆l1 = ?, 2r1 = 0.25cm or r1 =(0.25/2)cm = 0.125 × 10-2 m
y1 = 2.0 × 1011 pa
For brass wire, F2 = 6.0 kg, f = 6 × 9.8 N
2r2 = 0.25 cm or r2 = (0.25/2) cm = 0.125 × 10-2 m,
y2 = 0.91 × 1011 pa, l2 = 1.0 m, ∆l2 = ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 13

Question 6.
The edge of an aluminium cube is 10 cm long. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a verticle wall. A mass of 100 kdis then attached to the opposite face of the cube. The shear modulus of aluminium is 25 GPa. What is the vertical deflection of this face?
Solution:
A = 0.10 × 0.10 = 10-2 m2, F = mg = 100 × 10 N
Shearing strain = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{A}}\right)}{\eta}\)
or ∆L = \(\frac{F L}{A \eta}\)
= \(\frac{(100 \times 10) \times(0.10)}{10^{-2} \times\left(25 \times 10^9\right)}\) = 4 × 10-7 m.

Question 7.
Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass 50,000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30 and 60 cm respectively. Assuming the load distribution to be uniform, calculate the corn pressional strain of each column.
Solution:
Load on each column, F = \(\frac{50,000}{4}\) kgwt
= \(\frac{50,000 \times 9.8}{4}\) N
A = π(r22 – r12) = \(\frac{22}{7}\)(0.60)2 – (0.30)2]
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) 0.27 m2
Compression strain = \(\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{y}=\frac{F}{A y}\)
= \(\frac{50,000 \times 9.8}{4 \times\left(\frac{22}{7} \times 0.27\right) \times 2.0 \times 10^{11}}\)
= 7.21 × 10-7.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 8.
A piece of copper having a rectangular cross-section of 15.2 mm × 19.1 mm is pulled in tension with 44,500 N force, producing only elastic deformation. Calculate the resulting strain?
Solution:
Here, A = 15.2 × 19.2 × 10-6 m2, F = 44,
500 N, η = 42 × 109 Nm-2
Strain = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Modulus of elasticity }}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\eta}=\frac{F}{A \eta}=\frac{44500}{\left(15.2 \times 19.2 \times 10^{-6}\right) \times 42 \times 10^9}\)
= 3.65 × 10-3.

Question 9.
A steel cable with a radius of 1.5 cm supports a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress Is not to exceed 108 N m-2, what is the maximum load the cable can support ?
Solution:
Maximum load macimum stress × area of cross-section
= 108πr2
= 108 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (1.5 × 10-2)2
= 7.07 × 104 N.

Question 10.
A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported symmetrically by three wires each 2.0 m long. Those at each end are of copper and the middle one is of iron. Determine the ratios of their diameters if each is to have the same tension.
Solution:
As each wire has same tension F, so each wire has same extansion due to mass of rigid bar. As each wire is of same length, hence each wire has same strain, if D is the diameter of wire, then
y = \(\frac{4 \mathrm{~F} / \pi \mathrm{D}^2}{\text { Strain }}\) or D2 ∝ 1/y
\(\frac{D_{\mathrm{cu}}}{\mathrm{D}_{\mathrm{iron}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{y}_{\mathrm{iron}}}{\mathrm{y}_{\mathrm{cu}}}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{190 \times 10^9}{110 \times 10^9}}=\sqrt{\frac{19}{11}}\) = 1.31.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 11.
A 14.5 kg mass, fastened to the end of a steel wire of unstretched length 1.0 m, is whirled in a vertical circle with an angular velocity of 2 rev/s at the bottom of the circle. The cross-sectional area of the wire is 0.065 cm2. Calculate the elongation of the wire when the mass is at the lowest point of its path.
Solution:
Here, m = 14.5 kg, l = r = 1m, v = 2 rps, A = 0.065 × 10-4 m2
Total pulling force on mass, when it is at the lowest position of the vertical circle is
F = mg + mrω2
= mg + mr4πv2
= 14.5 × 9.8 + 14.5 × 1 × 4 × (\(\frac{22}{7}\))2 × 22
= 142.1 +2291.6
= 2433.7 N
y = \(\frac{F}{A} \times \frac{l}{\Delta l}\) or ∆l = \(\frac{F l}{A y}\)
= \(\frac{2433.7 \times 1}{\left(0.065 \times 10^{-4}\right) \times\left(2 \times 10^{11}\right)}\)
= 1.87 × 10-3 m
= 1.87 mm.

Question 12.
Compute the bulk modulus of water from the following data : Initial volume = 100.0 litre, Pressure increase = 100.0 atm (1 atm = 1.013 × 105 Pa), Final volume = 100.5 litre. Compare the bulk modulus of water with that of air (at constant temperature). Explain in simple terms why the ratio is so large.
Solution:
Here, V = 100 lit = 100 × 10-3 m3, P = 100 atm = 100 × 1.013 × 105 Pa
V + ∆V = 100.5 litre or ∆V= (V + ∆V) – V
= 100.5 – 100
= 0.5 litre = 0.5 × 10-3 m3
We known that bulk modulus, B = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\Delta \mathrm{V}}\)
= \(\frac{100 \times 1.013 \times 10^5 \times 100 \times 10^{-3}}{0.5 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 2.026 × 109 Pa
Bulk modulus of air = 1.0 × 105 Pa
\(\frac{\text { Bulk modulus of water }}{\text { Bulk modulus of air }}=\frac{2.026 \times 10^9}{1.0 \times 10^5}\)
= 2.026 × 1014.
It is so because gases are much more compressible than those of liquids. The molecules in gases are very poorly coupled to their neighbours as compared to those of gases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 13.
What is the density of water at a depth where pressure is 80.0 atm, given that its density at the surface is 1.03 × 103 kg m-3 ?
Solution:
Here, P = 80.0 atm = 80.0 × 1.013 × 105 pa,
compressibility = \(\left(\frac{1}{B}\right)\) = 45.8 × 10-11 pa-1
Density of water at surface,
ρ = 1.03 × 103 kg m-3
Let p be the density of water at the given depth, if v and v’ are volumes of certain mass M of ocean water at surface and at a given
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 14
Putting this value in (i) we get
1 – \(\frac{1.03 \times 10^3}{\rho^{\prime}}\) = 3.712 × 10-3 or
ρ’ = \(\frac{1.03 \times 10^3}{1-3.712 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 1.034 × 103 kg m-3.

Question 14.
Compute the fractional change in volume of a glass slab, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 10 atm.
Solution:
Here, P = 10 atm = 10 × 1.013 × 105 pa,
B = 37 × 109 Nm-2
Volumetric strain = \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}=\frac{P}{B}\)
= \(\frac{10 \times 1.013 \times 10^5}{37 \times 10^9}\) = 2.74 × 10-5
∴ Fractional change in volume = \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\)
= 2.74 × 10-5

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 15.
Determine the volume contraction of a solid copper cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7.0 × 106 Pa.
Solution:
Here, L = 10 cm = 0.10m; P = 7 × 106 pa B = 140 Gpa = 140 × 109 pa
As B = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\Delta \mathrm{V}}=\frac{\mathrm{Pl}^3}{\Delta \mathrm{V}}\) or ∆V = \(\frac{\mathrm{Pl}^3}{\mathrm{~B}}\)
= \(\frac{\left(7 \times 10^6\right) \times(0.10)^3}{140 \times 10^9}\) = 5 × 10-8 m3
= 5 × 10-2 mm3

Question 16.
How much should be pressure on a litre of water be changed to compress it by 0.10% ?
Solution:
Here, V = 1 litre = 10-3m3;
∆V/V = 0,10/100 = 10-3
B = \(\frac{P V}{\Delta V}\) or P = B \(\frac{\Delta V}{V}\)
= (2.2 × 109) × 10-3 = 2.2 × 106pa

Question 17.
Anvils made of single crystals of diamond, with the shape as shown in Fig. are used to investigate behaviour of materials under very high pressures. Flat faces at the narrow end of the anvil have a diameter of 0.50 mm, and the wide ends are subjected to a compressional force of 50,000 N. What is the pressure at the tip of the anvil ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 15
Solution:
Here, D = 0.5 mm = 0.5 × 10-3m = 5 × 10-4m
F = 50,000 N = 5 × 104N
Pressure at the tip of anvil.
P = \(\frac{F}{\pi D^2 / 4}=\frac{4 F}{\pi D^2}\)
P = \(\frac{4 \times\left(5 \times 10^4\right)}{(22 / 7) \times\left(5 \times 10^{-4}\right)^2}\) = 2.5 × 1011pa.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 18.
A rod of length 1.05 m having negligible mass is supported at its end by two wires of steel (wire A) and aluminium (wire B) of equal lengths as shown in Fig. The cross-sectional areas of wires A and B are 1.0 mm2 and 2.0 mm2, respectively. At what point along the rod should a mass m be suspended in order to produce (a) equal stresses and (b) equal strains in both steel and aluminium wires.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 16
Solution:
For Steel wire A, l1 = l, A1 = 1 mm2
Y1 = 2 × 1011Nm-2
For aluminium wire B, l2 = l;
A2 = 2mm2; y2 = 7 × 1010 Nm-2
a) Let mass m be suspended from the rod at the distance × from the end where wires A is connected. Let F1 and F2 be the tension in two wires and there is equal stress in two wires, then
\(\frac{F_1}{A_1}=\frac{F_2}{A_2} \text { or } \frac{F_1}{F_2}=\frac{A_1}{A_2}=\frac{1}{2}\) …………………. (i)
Taking moment of forces about the point of suspension of mass from the rod, we have
F1x = F2 (1.05 – x) or \(\frac{1.05-x}{x}=\frac{F_1}{F_2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
or 2.10 – 2x = x or x = 0.70m = 70 cm

b) Let mass m be supended from the rod at distance × from the end where wire A is connected. Let F1 and F2 be the tension in the wires and there is equal strain in the two wires i.e.
\(\frac{F_1}{A_1 Y_1}=\frac{F_2}{A_2 Y_2}\) or \(\frac{F_1}{F_2}=\frac{A_1}{A_2} \frac{Y_1}{Y_2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2 \times 10^{11}}{7 \times 10^{10}}=\frac{10}{7}\)
As the rod is stationary, so F1x = F2(1.05 – x)
or \(\frac{1.05-x}{x}=\frac{F_1}{F_2}=\frac{10}{7}\)
or 10 x = 7.35 – 7x
or x = 0.4324 m
x = 43.2cm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 19.
A mild steel wire of length 1.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 × 10-2 cm2 is stretched, well within its elastic limit, horizontally between two pillars. A mass of 100 g is suspended from the mid-point of the wire. Calculate the depression at the- mid-point.
Solution:
Refer the figure, let x be the depression at the mid point i.e CD = x
In fig. AC = CB = Z = 0.5m
m = 100g = 0.100 kg
AD = BD = (l2 + x2)1/2
Increase in length, ∆l = AD + DB – AB
= 2 AD – AB
= 2 (l2 + x2)1/2 – 2l
= 2l(1 + \(\frac{x^2}{l^2}\))1/2 – 2l
= 2l (1 + \(\frac{x^2}{2 l^2}\)) – 2l = \(\frac{x^2}{l}\)
Strain = \(\frac{\Delta l}{2 l}=\frac{x^2}{2 l^2}\)
If T is the tension in the wire, then 2T cos θ
= mg or T = \(\frac{\mathrm{mg}}{2 \cos \theta}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 17
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 18

Question 20.
Two strips of metal are riveted together at their ends by four rivets, each of diameter 6.0 mm. What is the maximum tension that can be exerted by the riveted strip if the shearing stress on the rivet is not to exceed 6.9 × 107 Pa ? Assume that each rivet is to carry one quarter of the load.
Solution:
Here, r = 6/2 = 3mm = 3 × 10-3 m, max.
stress = 6.9 × 107 Pa
Max . load on a rivet = Max stress × area of cross section
= 6.9 × 107 × (22/7) × (3 × 10-3)2
∴ Maximum tension
= 4 (6.9 × 107 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 9 × 10-6)
= 7.8 × 103N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 21.
The Marina trench is located in the Pacific Ocean, and at one place it is nearly eleven km beneath the surface of water. The water pressure at the bottom of the trench is about 1.1 × 108 Pa. A steel ball of initial volume 0.32 m3 is dropped into the ocean and falls to the bottom of the trench. What is the change in the volume of the ball when it reaches to the bottom ?
Solution:
Here, P = 1.1 × 108 Pa, V = 0.32 m3,
B = 16 × 1011Pa
∆V = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{B}}\)
= \(\frac{\left(1.1 \times 10^8\right) \times 0.32}{1.6 \times 10^{11}}\)
= 2.2 × 10-4m3

Textual Examples

Question 1.
A structural steel rod has a radius of 10 mm and a length of 10 m. A 100 KN force stretches it along its length. Calculate (a) stress, (b) elongation, and (c) strain on the rod. Young’s modulus, of structural steel ¡s 2.0 × 1011 Nm2.
Answer:
a) Given Stress = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{F}{\pi r^2}\)
= \(\frac{100 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~N}}{3.14 \times\left(10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^2}\) = 3.18 × 108 Nm-2

b) The elongation
∆L = \(\frac{(\mathrm{F} / \mathrm{A}) \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{Y}}\)
= \(\frac{\left(3.18 \times 10^8 \mathrm{Nm}^2\right)(1 \mathrm{~m})}{2 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{Nm}^{-2}}\)
= 1.59 × 10-3 m
= 1.59 mm

c) The strain is given by
Strain = ∆L/L = (1.59 × 10-3) km
= 1.59 × 10-3 = 0.16%

Question 2.
A copper wire of length 2.2 m and a steel wire of length 1.6 m, both of diameter 3.0 mm, are connected end to end. When stretched by a load, the net elongation is found to be 0.70 mm. Obtain the load applied.
Answer:
From y = \(\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon}\)
we have stress = strain × Young’s modulus.
W/A = Yc × (∆Lc/Lc) = Ys × (∆Ls/Ls)
where the subscripts c and s refer to copper and stainless steel respectively,
∆Lc/∆Ls = (Ys/Ys) () (Lc/Ls)
Given Lc = 2.2 m, Ls = 1.6 m,
Yc = 1.1 × 1011 N.m-2 and Ys = 2.0 × 1011 N.m-2.
∆Lc/∆Ls = \(\frac{2.0 \times 10^{11}}{1.1 \times 10^{11}}=\frac{2.2}{1.6}\) = 2.5
∆Lc + ∆Ls = 7.0 × 10-4 m
Solving the above equations,
∆Lc = 5.0 × 10-4 m and ∆Ls = 2.0 × 10-4 m.
∴ W = (A × Yc × ∆Lc)Lc
= π(1.5 × 10-3)2 × \(\left[\frac{\left(5.0 \times 10^{-4} \times 1.1 \times 10^{11}\right)}{2.2}\right]\) = 1.8 × 102 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 3.
In a human pyramid in a circus, the entire weight of the balanced group is supported by the legs of a performer who is lying on his back (as shown in Fig.) The combined mass of all the persons performing the act and the tables, planks etc. involved is 280 kg. The mass of the performer lying on his back at the bottom of the pyramid is 60 kg. Each thighbone (femur) of this performer has a length of 50 cm and an effective radius of 2.0 cm. Determine the amount by which each thighbone gets compressed under the extra load.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids 19
Answer:
Total mass of all the performers, tables, plaques = 280 kg
Mass of the performer = 60 kg
Mass supported by the legs of the performer at the bottom of the pyramid = 280 – 60
= 220 kg
Weight of this supported mass = 220 kg wt.
= 220 × 9.8 N = 2156 N
Weight supported by each thighbone of the performer = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2156) N = 1078 N.
The Young’s modulus for bone is Y = 9.4 × 109 Nm-2 (compressive)
Length of each thighbone L = 0.5 m the radius of thigbone = 2.0 cm
Thus the cross-sectional area of the thighbone
A = π × (2 × 10-2)2 m2
= 1.26 × 10-3 m2
Using \(\frac{(F \times L)}{(A \times \Delta L)}\) the compression in each thigbone (∆L) can be computed as
∆L = \(\frac{F \times L}{Y \times A}\)
= [(1078 × 0.5)/(9.4 9 × 109 × 1.26 × 10-3)]
= 4.55 × 10-5 m or 4.55 × 10-3 cm.
This is a very small change ! The fractional decrease in the thighbone is ∆L/L = 0.000091 or 0.0091%.

Question 4.
A square slab of side 50 cm and thickness 10 cm is subject to a shearing force (on its narrow face) of 9.0 × 104 N. The lower edge is riveted to the floor. How much will the upper edge be displaced ?
Answer:
The area (A) = 50 cm × 10 cm
= 0.5 m × 0.1 m
= 0.05 m2
Therefore, the stress appIid is
= (9.4 × 104N/0.05 m2)
= 1.80 × 106 N.m2
We know that shearing strain = (∆x/L)
= Stress/G.
Therefore the displacement
∆x = (Stress × L)/G = \(\frac{\left(1.8 \times 10^6 \mathrm{Nm}^{-2} \times 0.5 \mathrm{~m}\right)}{5.6 \times 10^9 \mathrm{Nm}^{-2}}\)
= 1.6 × 10-4 m = 0.16 mm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Question 5.
The average depth of Indian Ocean is about 3000 m. Calculate the fractional compression. ∆V/V, of water at the bottom of the ocean, given that the bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm-2. (Take g = 10 ms-2)
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a 3000 m column of water on the bottom layer
ρ = hρg
= 3000 m × 1000 kg m-3× 10 ms-2
= 3 × 107 Nm-2
Fractional compression ∆V/V, is
∆V/V = stress \(\frac{\left(3 \times 10^7 \mathrm{Nm}^{-2}\right)}{2.2 \times 109 \mathrm{Nm}^{-2}}\)
= 1.36 × 10-2 or 1.36%

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 9th Lesson Gravitation Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 9th Lesson Gravitation

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the unit and dimension of the universal gravitational constant (G).
Answer:
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_1 \mathrm{~m}_2}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\)
units of G = Nm2 Kg-2
dimensional formula of G = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]\left[\mathrm{L}^2\right]}{[\mathrm{M}][\mathrm{M}]}\) = [M-1 L3 T-2]

Question 2.
State the vector form of Newtons’s law of gravitation.
Answer:
Vector form of Newton’s law of gravitation is
F = \(\frac{-G m_1 m_2}{r^3} \hat{r}\) where \(\hat{r}\) is unit vector.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 3.
If the gravitational force of Earth on the Moon is F, what is the gravitational force of moon on earth ? Do these forces to attraction-reaction pair ?
Answer:
F. Yes, they form action and reaction pair.

Question 4.
What would be the change in acceleration due to gravity (g) at the surface, if the radius of Earth decreases by 2% keeping the mass of Earth constant ?
Answer:
g1r12, l = g2r22, r2 = \(\frac{98}{100}\) r1
\(\frac{g_2}{g_1}=\frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2}=\frac{r_1^2}{\left(\frac{98}{100}\right) r_1^2}=\frac{100 \times 100}{98 \times 98}\)
\(\frac{g_2}{g_1}\) = 1.04
\(\frac{g_2}{g_1}\) – 1 = 1.04 – 1
\(\frac{g_2-g_1}{g_1}\) = 0.04

Question 5.
As we go from one planet to another, how will
a) the mass and
b) the weight of a body change ?
Answer:
a) The mass remains constant.
b) The weight (w = mg), changes from one planet to another planet.

Question 6.
Keeping the length of a simple pendulum constant, will the time period be the same on all planets ? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:
No, Time period depends on acceleration due to gravity (g).
T = 2π \(\sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)
g value varies from planet to planet. So time period changes.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 7.
Give the equation for the value of g at a depth ‘d’ from the surface of Earth. What is the value of ‘g’ at the centre of Earth ?
Answer:

  1. gd = g(1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{R}}\)) where d = Depth
    R = Radius of the Earth
  2. At the centre of the Earth g = 0.

Question 8.
What are the factors that make ‘g’ the least at the equator and maximum at the poles ? > .
Answer:

  1. g value is maximum at poles due to
    a) Rotation of the Earth
    b) Earth is flattened at the poles
    c) The equatorial radius is less at the poles.
  2. g value minimum at equator due to
    a) Rotation of the earth
    b) Bulging near the equator.

Question 9.
“Hydrogen is in abundance around the sun but not around Earth”. Explain.
Answer:
The escape velocity on the sun is 620 km/s and escape velocity on the Earth is 11.2 km/s. The r.m.s velocities of hydrogen (2 km/s) is less than escape velocity on the Sun. So hydrogen is more abundant around the Sun and less around the Earth.

Question 10.
What is the time period of revolution of a geostationary satellite ? Does it rorate from West to East or from East to West ?
Answer:
Time period of geo-stationary satellite is 24 hours. It can rotate from west to east.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 11.
What are polar satellites ?
Answer:
Polar satellites are low altitude satellites (500 to 800 km), but they go around the poles of the earth in a north-south direction. Its time period is around 100 minutes.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
Answer:
The three laws of Kepler can be stated as follows.

  1. Law of orbits : All planets move in elliptical orbits with the sun situated at one of the foci.
    AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 1
  2. Law of areas : The line that joins any planet to the sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
  3. Law of periods : The square of the time period of revolution of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse traced out by the planet.
    T2 ∝ R3

Question 2.
Derive the relation between acceleration due to gravity (g) at the surface of a planet and Gravitational constant (G).
Answer:
Consider a body of mass m on the surface of the planet. Let R be the radius of the Earth and M be the mass of the Earth.
Force acting on the body due to gravitational pull of the planet is
F = m g → (1)
According to Newton’s gravitational law, Force on the body is F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) → (2)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 2
From eq’s (1) and (2), we have
m g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
This is the relation between g and G
Mass of the earth (M) = Volume × density of the earth
M = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π R2 × ρ
g = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π G R ρ

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 3.
How does the acceleration due to gravity (g) change for the same values of height(h) and depth (d).
Answer:
a) gh = g(1 – \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{R}}\)), gd = g(1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{R}}\))
Same values of height and depth, h = d
gh = g (1 – \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~d}}{\mathrm{R}}\)) and gd = g(1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{R}}\))
∴ gd > gh

b) For large height and large depth
gh = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)^2}\) and gd = g(1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{R}}\))
If h = d = R
gh = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)^2}\) and gd = g(1 – \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}}\)) = 0
∴ gh > gd

Question 4.
What is orbital velocity ? Obtain an expression for it. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Orbital velocity (V0) : The horizontal velocity required for an object to revolve around a planet in a circular orbit is called orbital velocity.

Expression for orbital velocity :
Consider a body (satellite) of mass m, revolves round the earth in a circular orbit. Let h be the height of the satellite from the surface of the earth. Then (R + h) is the radius of the orbit.
The Gravitational force of attraction of the earth on the body is given by F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})^2}\) ………….. (1)
Where M = Mass of the earth, R = Radius of the earth, G = universal gravitational constant. If V0 is the orbital velocity of the body.
The centripetal force on the body is given by F = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}_{\mathrm{o}}^2}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\) …………… (2)
In order to make the body revolve in the same orbit, its centripetal force must be equal to the gravitational force
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 3

Question 5.
What is escape velocity ? Obtain an expression for it.
Answer:
Escape velocity : It is the minimum velocity with which a body should be projected, so that it moves into the space by overcoming the earth’s gravitational field.

Expression for escape velocity :
Consider a body of mass m thrown with a velocity v2
Then K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m ve2 …………. (1)
The gravitational force of attraction of the earth of mass M and Radius R on a body of mass m at its surface is F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) ……………… (2)
Gravitational P. E. = work done on the body
∴ P. E. = F × R = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) × R
P.E. = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\) …………….. (3)
A body just escapes when its K. E. = P. E
\(\frac{1}{2}\) m ve2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
ve2 = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}\) (∵ g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\))
ve = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}}\)
ve = \(\sqrt{2 g R}\) (gR = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}\))
ve = \(\sqrt{2} \times \sqrt{g R}\) (∵ v0 = \(\sqrt{g R}\))
ve = \(\sqrt{2}\) × v0
∴ Escape velocity is \(\sqrt{2}\) times the orbital velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 6.
What is a geostationary satellite ? State its uses. [T.S. Mar. 18, 15; A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Geo-stationary satellite : If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite is equal to the period of rotation of earth, then such a satellite is called geo-stationary satellite.
Time period of geo-stationary satellite is 24 hours.
Uses :

  1. Study the upper layers of atmosphere
  2. Forecast the changes in atmosphere
  3. Know the shape and size of the earth.
  4. Identify the minerals and natural resources present inside and on the surface of the earth.
  5. Transmit the T. V. programmes to distant objects
  6. Under take space research i.e. to know about the planets, satellites, comets etc.

Question 7.
If two places are at the same height from the mean sea level; One is a mountain and other is in air at which place will ‘g’ be greater ? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity on mountain is greater than that of air.
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) ………….. (1)
Mass (M) = volume × density (ρ)
M = \(\frac{4}{3}\)π R3 × ρ
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{G}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) × \(\frac{4}{3}\) π R3 ρ
g = – \(\frac{4}{3}\) π R G ρ …………….. (2)
g ∝ ρ
So density is more at mountains. So g is more on mountain.

Question 8.
The weight of an object is more at the poles than at the equator. At which of these can we get more sugar for the same weight ? State the reason for your answer.
Answer:
Weight of the object at poles = mp gp (∵ w = mg)
Weight of the object at equator = me ge
Given weight of the object at poles > weight of the object at equator
mp gp > mege
We know that gp > ge
Then mp < me
Hence we can get more sugar at equator.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 9.
If a nut becomes loose and gets detached form a satellite revolving around the earth, will it fall down to earth or will it revolve around earth ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
When a nut is detached from a satellite revolving around the earth, the nut is also moving with the speed of the satellite as the orbit of a satellite does not depend upon its mass. Hence nut is moving in the same orbit under centripetal force.

Question 10.
An object projected with a velocity greater than or equal to 11.2 kms it will not return to earth. Explain the reason.
Answer:
The escape velocity on the surface of the earth (ve) = 11.2 km/s. Any object projected with the velocity greater then (or) equal to 11.2 km/s it will not come back. Because it has overcome the earth’s gravitational pull.
So an object never come back to earth.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define gravitational potential energy and derive an expression for it associated with two particles of masses m1 and m2.
Answer:
Gravitational potential energy : Gravitational potential energy of a body at a point in a gravitational field of another body is defined as the amount of work done in brining the given body from infinity to that point without acceleration.

Expression for gravitational potential energy : Consider a gravitational field due to earth of mass M, radius R. The mass of the earth can be supposed to be concentrated at its centre 0. Let us calculate the gravitational the potential energy of the body of mass m placed at point p in the gravitational field, where OP = r and r > R. Let OA = x and AB = dx.
The gravitational force on the body at A will be
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{X}^2}\) ……………… (1)
Small amount of work done in bringing the body without acceleration through a small distance dx is given by
dw = Force × displacement
dw = F × dx
dw = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{X}^2}\) × dx ……………… (2)
Total work done in bringing the body from infinity to point P is given by
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 4
This work done is stored in the body as its gravitational potential energy (u)
∴ Gravitational potential energy (u) = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}}\) ……………….. (4)
Gravitational potential energy associated with two particles of masses m, and m2 separated by a distance r is given by
u = –\(\frac{G m_1 m_2}{r}\) ……………….. (5) (if we choose u = 0 as r → ∞).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 2.
Derive an expression for the variation of acceleration due to gravity (a) above and (b) below the surface of the Earth.
Answer:
i) Variation of g with height:
When an object is on the surface of the earth, it will be at a distance r = R radius of the earth, then we have g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
Where G = universal gravitational constant, M = Mass of the earth
When the object is at a height h above the surface of the earth, Then r = R + h
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 5
g value decreases with altitude.

ii) Variation of g with depth :
Let us assume that the earth to be a homogeneous uniform sphere of radius R, mass M and of uniform density ρ.
We know that g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π ρ G R ………………… (1)
Consider a body of mass m be placed at a depth d.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 6
The value of g decreases with depth.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 3.
State Newton’s Universal Law of gravitation. Explain how the value of the Gravitational constant (G) can be determined by Cavendish method.
Answer:
Newton’s law of gravitation :
“Every body in the universe attracts every other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversly proportional to the square of the distance between them”
Determination of G value by cavendish method :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 7

  1. In 1798 Henry Cavendish determined the value of G experimentally.
  2. The bar AB has two small lead spheres attached at its ends.
  3. The bar is suspended from a rigid support by a fine wire.
  4. Two large lead spheres are brought close to the small ones but on opposite sides as shown in figure.
  5. The big spheres attract the nearby small ones by equal and opposite force as shown in figurer.
  6. There is no net force on the bar but only a torque which is clearly equal to F times the length of the bar. When F is the force of attraction between a big sphere and its neighbouring small sphere.
  7. Due to this torque, the suspended wire gets twisted till such time as the restoring torque of the wire equals the gravitational torque.
    Restoring torque = τ θ ………………… (1)
    Where τ is restoring couple per unit twist 0 is the angle
  8. If d is the seperation between big and small balls having masses M and m.
    Gravitational force (F) = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{d}^2}\) ……………… (2)
    ix) If L is the length of the bar A B, then the torque arising out of F is F multiplied by L. At equilibrium, this is equal to the restoring torque.
    \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{d}^2}\) = τ θ
    observations of θ thus enables one to calculate G.
    The measurement of G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/ Kg2

Problems

(Gravitational Constant ‘G’ = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/ Kg-2; Radius of earth ‘R’ = 6400 km; Mass of earth ‘ME’ = 6 × 1024 kg)

Question 1.
Two spherical balls each of mass 1 kg are placed 1 cm apart. Find the gravitational force of attraction between them.
Solution:
m1 = m2 = 1 kg, d = 1 cm = 1 × 10-2 m
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_1 \mathrm{~m}_2}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\)
F = \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1 \times 1}{\left(1 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\) = 6.67 × 10-7N

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 2.
The mass of a ball is four times the mass of another ball. When these balls are separated by a distance of 10 cm, the force of gravitation between them is 6.67 × 10-7 N. Find the masses of the two balls.
Solution:
m1 = m, m2 = 4m, d = 10 cm = 10 × 10-2 m,
F = 6.67 × 10-7 N
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg 2
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_1 \mathrm{~m}_2}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\)
6.67 × 10-7 = \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times \mathrm{m} \times 4 \mathrm{~m}}{\left(10 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\)
4 m2 = 102
m2 = \(\frac{100}{4}\) = 25
m = 5 kg
∴ m1 = m = 5 kg
m2 = 4m = 4 × 5 = 20 kg

Question 3.
Three spherical balls of masses 1 kg, 2kg and 3 kg are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. Find the magnitude of gravitational force exerted by the 2 kg and 3kg masses on the 1 kg mass.
Solution:
The force of attraction at 2 kg on the 1 kg particle
F2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{Gmn}{\mathrm{~d}^2}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{G} \times 1 \times 2}{1^2}\)
F2 = 2 G
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 8

Question 4.
At a certain height above the earth’s surface, the acceleration due to gravity is 4% of its value at the surface of earth. Determine the height.
Solution:
gh = 4% of g = \(\frac{4}{100}\)g, R = 6400 km
gh = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)^2}\)
\(\frac{4 \mathrm{~g}}{100}=\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{R}}\right)^2}\)
\(\left(1+\frac{h}{R}\right)^2=\frac{100}{4}\) = 25
1 + \(\frac{h}{R}\) = 5
\(\frac{h}{R}\) = 4
h = 4 × R = 4 × 6400 = 25,600 km.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 5.
A satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 1000km. Find its orbital speed.
Solution:
h = 1000 km
Oribital velocity (v0) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h}}}\)
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg 2, M = 6 × 1024 kg
R + h = 6400 + 1000 = 7400 km
= 7400 × 103m
v0 = \(\sqrt{\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 6 \times 10^{24}}{7400 \times 10^3}}\)
v0 = \(\sqrt{0.5408 \times 10^{10}}\) = 73.54 × 103 m/s
v0 = 7.354km/s

Question 6.
A satellite orbits the earth at a height equal to the radius of earth. Find it’s
(i) orbital speed and
(ii) Period of revolution
Solution:
Height h = R
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 11

Question 7.
The gravitational force of attraction between two objects decreases by 36% when the distance between them is increased by 4 m. Find the original distance between them.
Solution:
F1 = F, F2 = \(\frac{64}{100}\) F
d1 = d, d2 = (d + 4) m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 12
5d = 4d + 16
d = 16 m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 8.
Four identical masses of m are kept at the corners of a square of side a. Find the gravitational force exerted on one of the masses by the other masses.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 13

Question 9.
Two spherical balls of 1 kg and 4kg are separated by a distance of 12 cm. Find the distance of a point from the 1 kg mass at which the gravitational force on any mass becomes zero.
Solution:
m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 4kg, r = 12 cm
∴ x = \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{\frac{m_2}{m_1}}+1}\) from m1
= \(\frac{12}{\sqrt{\frac{4}{1}}+1}=\frac{12}{2+1}=\frac{12}{3}\) = 4 cm
At x = 4 cm the gravitational force is zero.

Question 10.
Three uniform spheres each of mass m and radius R are kept in such a way that each touches the other two. Find the magnitude of the gravitational force on any one of the spheres due to the other two.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 9

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 11.
Two satellites are revolving round the earth at different heights. The ratio of their orbital speeds ¡s 2 : 1. If one of them is at a height of 100 km, what is the height of the other satellite ?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 10
4R + 400 = R + h2
h2 = 3R + 400 = 3 × 6400 + 400
= 19200 + 400
h2 = 19,600 km.

Question 12.
A satellite is revolving round in a circular orbit with a speed of 8 km s-1 at a height where the value of acceleration due to gravity is 8 m s-2. How high is the satellite from the Earth’s surface ? (Radius of planet = 6000 km)
Solution:
v0 = 8 km/s = 8000 m/s
gh = 8 m/s2, R = 6000 km = 6000 × 103 m
∴ v0 = \(\sqrt{\frac{G M}{R+h}}=\sqrt{g(R+h)}\)
v02 = g(R + h)
(8000)2 = 8(6000 × 103 + h)
6000 × 103 + h = 8 × 106
h = (8 – 6) 106
h = 2 × 106m
h = 2000 × 103 = 2000 km.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 13.
(a) Calculate the escape velocity of a body from the Earth’s surface, (b) If. the Earth were made of wood, its mass would be 10% of its current mass. What would be the escape velocity, if the Earth were made of wood ?
Solution:
R = 6400 × 103m,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 14

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Answer the following :
a) You can shield a charge from electrical forces by putting it inside a hollow conductor. Can you shield a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter by putting it inside a hollow sphere or by some other means ?
b) An astronaut inside a small space ship orbiting around the earth cannot detect gravity. If the space station orbiting around the earth has a large size, can he hope to detect gravity ?
c) If you compare the gravitational force on the earth due to the sun to that due to the moon, you would find that the Sun’s pull is greater than the moon’s pull, (you can check this yourself using the data available in the succeeding exercises). However, the tidal effect of the moon’s pull is greater than the tidal effect of sun. Why ?
Solution:
a) We cannot shield a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter because the gravitational force on the body due to near by matter is independent of the presence of other matter, whereas it is not so in the case of electrical forces it means the gravitational screens are not possible.

b) Yes, if the size of the spaceship orbiting around the earth is large enough, an astronaut inside the spaceship can detect the variation in g.

c) Tidal effect depends inversly on the cube of the distance, unlike force which depends inversly on the square of the distance. Since the distance of moon from the ocean water is very small as compared to the distance of sun from the ocean water on earth. Therefore, the tidal effect of moon’s pull is greater than the tidal effect of the sun.

Question 2.
Choose the correct alternative :
a) Acceleration due to gravity increase^ decreases with increasing altitude.
b) Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increas¬ing depth (assume the earth to be a sphere of uniform density).
c) Acceleration due to gravity is independent of mass of the earth/ mass of the body.
d) The formula – G Mm (1/r2 – 1/r1) is more/less accurate than the formula mg (r2 – r1) for the difference of potential energy between two points r2 and r1 distance away from the centre of the earth.
Solution:
a) decreases
b) decreases
c) mass of the body
d) more

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 3.
Suppose there existed a planet that went around the sun twice as fast as the earth. What would be its orbital size as compared to that of the earth ?
Solution:
Here, Te = 1 year; Tp = \(\frac{T_c}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\) year; re = 1
A.U.; rp = ?
Using Kepler’s third law, we have
rp = re\(\left(\frac{T_p}{T_e}\right)^{2 / 3}\) = \(1\left(\frac{1 / 2}{1}\right)^{2 / 3}\)
= 0.63 AU

Question 4.
Io, one of the satellites of Jupiter, has an orbital period of 1.769 days and the radius of the orbit is 4.22 × 108m. Show that the mass of Jupiter is about-one-thousandth that of the sun.
Solution:
For a satellite of Jupiter, orbital period,
T1 = 1.769 days = 1.769 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Radius of the orbit of satellite,
r1 = 4.22 × 108 m
mass of Jupiter, M1 is given by M1
= \(\frac{4 \pi^2 \times\left(4.22 \times 10^8\right)^3}{G \times(1.769 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60)^2}\)
= \(\frac{4 \pi^2 r_1^3}{\mathrm{GT}_1^2}\) ……………. (1)
We know that the orbital period of earth around the sun,
T = 1 year = 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Oribital radius, r = 1 A.U = 1.496 × 1011 m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 15

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 5.
Let us assume that our galaxy consists of 2.5 × 1011 stars each of one solar mass. How long will a star at a distance of 50,000ly from the galactic centre take to complete one revolution ? Take the diameter of the Milky Way to be 105 ly.
Solution:
Here, r = 50,000 ly =50,000 × 9.46 × 1015m
= 4.73 × 1020m.
M = 2.5 × 1011 solar, mass = 2.5 × 1011 × (2 × 1030) kg
= 5.0 × 1041 kg
We know that, M = \(\frac{4 \pi^2 r^3}{\mathrm{GT}^2}\)
or T = \(\left(\frac{4 \pi^2 r^3}{G M}\right)^{1 / 2}\)
= \(\left[\frac{4 \times(22 / 7)^2 \times\left(4.73 \times 10^{20}\right)^3}{\left(6.67 \times 10^{11}\right) \times\left(5.0 \times 10^{41}\right)}\right]^{1 / 2}\)
= 1.12 × 1016S.

Question 6.
Choose the correct alternative :
a) If the zero of potential energy is at infinity, the total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative of its kinetic/potentia! energy.
b) The energy required to launch an orbiting .satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is more/less than the energy required to project a stationary object at the same height (as the satellite) out of earth’s influence.
Solution:
a) Kinetic energy
b) Less.

Question 7.
Does the escape speed of a body from the earth depend on (a) the mass of the body, (b) the Ideation from where it is projected, (c) the direction of projection, (d) the height of the location from where the body is launched ?
Solution:
The escape velocity is independent of mass of the body and the direction of projection it depends upon the gravitational potential at the point from where the body is launched. Since this potential depends slightly on the latitude and height of the point, therefore, the escape velocity depends slightly on these factors.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 8.
A comet orbits the sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Does the comet have a constant (a) linear speed, (b) angular speed, (c) angular momentum, (d) kinetic energy, (e) potential energy, (f) total energy throughout its orbit ? Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to the Sun.
Solution:
A comet while going on elliptical orbit around the sun has constant angular momentum and total energy at all locations but other quantities vary with locations.

Question 9.
Which of the following symptoms is likely to afflict an astronaut in space
(a) swollen feet,
(b) swollen face,
(c) headache,
(d) orientational problem.
Solution:
a) We know that the legs carry the weight of the body in the normal position due to gravity pull. The astronaut in space is in weightless state. Hence, swollen feet may not affect his working.

b) In the conditions of weightless, the face of the astronaut is expected to get more supply. Due to it, the astronaut may develop swollen face. As eyes, ears, nose, mouth etc. are all embedded in the face, hence, swollen face may affect to great extent the seeing / hearing / eating / smelling capabilities of the astronaut in space.

c) Headache is due to metal strain it will persist whether a person is an astronaut in space or he is on earth it means headache will have the same effect on the astronaut in space as on a person on earth.

d) Space also has orientation. We also have the frames of reference in space. Hence, orientational problem will affect the astronaut in space.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 10.
In the following two exercises, choose the correct answer from among the given ones : The gravitational intensity at the centre of a hemispherical shell of uniform mass density has the direction indicated by the arrow (see Fig) (i) a, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) 0.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 16
Solution:
We know that the gravitational potential is constant at all points upside a spherical shell. Therefore, the gravitational potential gradient at all points inside the spherical shell is zero [i.e as v is constant, \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dr}}\) = 0].

Since gravitational intensity is equal to negative of the gravitational potential gradient, hence the gravitational intensity is zero at all points inside a hollow spherical shell. This indicates that the gravitational forces acting on a particle at any point inside a spherical shell, will be symmetrically placed. Therefore if we remove the upper hemispherical shell, the net gravitational forces acting on the particle at the centre Q or at some other point P will be acting downwards which will also be the direction of gravitational intensity it is so because, the gravitational intensity at a point is the gravitational force per unit mass at that point. Hence the gravitational intensity at the centre Q will be along c, i.e., option (iii) is correct.

Question 11.
For the above problem, the direction of the gravitational intensity at an arbitrary point P is indicated by the arrow (i) d, (ii) e, (iii) f, (iv) g. .
Solution:
As per explanation given in the answer of Q. 10, the direction of gravitational intensity at P will be along e i.e., option (ii) is correct.

Question 12.
A rocket is fired from the earth towards the sun. At what distance from the earth’s centre is the gravitational force on the rocket zero ? Mass of the sun = 2 × 1030 kg, mass of the earth 6 × 1024 kg. Neglect the effect of other planets etc. (orbital radius 1.5 × 1011 m).
Solution:
Here Ms = 2 × 1030 kg ; Mc = 6 × 1024 kg ; r = 1.5 × 1011 m .
Let x be the distance of a point from the earth where gravitational forces on the rocket due to sun and earth become equal and opposite. Then distance of rocket from the sun
= (r – x). If m is the mass of rocket then
\(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{s}} \mathrm{m}}{(\mathrm{r}-\mathrm{x})^2}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{x}^2} \text { or } \frac{(\mathrm{r}-\mathrm{x})^2}{\mathrm{x}^2}=\frac{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}}}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 17

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 13.
How will you ‘weigh the sun1, that is estimate its mass ? The mean orbital radius of the earth around the sun is 1.5 × 108 km.
Solution:
To estimate the mass of the sun, we require, the time period of revolution T of one of its planets (say the earth). Let Ms, Me be the masses of sun and earth respectively and r be the mean orbital radius of the earth around the sun. The gravitational force acting on earth due to sum is
F = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{s}} \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{r}^2}\)
Let, the earth be moving in circular orbit around the sun, with a uniform angular velocity ω, the centripetal force acting on earth is.
F1 = Me2 = Mer \(\frac{4 \pi^2}{T^2}\)
As this centripetal force is provided by the gravitational pull of sun on earth, So
\(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{s}} \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{r}^2}=\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{r} \frac{4 \pi^2}{\mathrm{~T}^2} \text { or } \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{s}}=\frac{4 \pi^2 \mathrm{r}^3}{G \mathrm{~T}^2}\)
Knowing r and T, mass Ms of the sun can be estimated.
In this Question, we are given, r = 1.5 × 108 km
= 1.5 × 1011 m
T = 365 days = 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
∴ Ms = \(\frac{4 \times(22 / 7)^2 \times\left(1.5 \times 10^{11}\right)^3}{\left(6.67 \times 10^{-11}\right) \times(365 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60)^2}\)
= 2 × 1030 kg.

Question 14.
A saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the saturn from the sun if the earth is 1.50 × 108 km away from the sun ?
Solution:
Here, Ts = 29.5 Te; Re = 1.5 × 108 km; Rs =?
Using the relation, \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{s}}^2}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{s}}^3}=\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{e}}^2}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{e}}^3}\)
or R = Re \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{e}}}\right)^{2 / 3}\)
= 1.5 × 108 \(\left(\frac{29.5 \mathrm{~T}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{e}}}\right)^{2 / 3}\)
= 1.43 × 109 km.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 15.
A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
Solution:
Weight of the body = mg = 63N
At height h, the value of g is given by
g’ = \(\frac{g R^2}{(R+h)^2}=\frac{g R^2}{(R+R / 2)^2}\) = 4/9 g
Gravitational force on body at height h is
F = mg’ = m × \(\frac{4}{9}\) g = \(\frac{4}{9}\) mg
= \(\frac{4}{9}\) × 63 = 28N

Question 16.
Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh half way down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface ?
Solution:
wt. of body at a depth d = mg1
= m × g \(\left(1-\frac{d}{R}\right)\)
= 250 \(\left(1-\frac{R / 2}{R}\right)\)
= 125 N

Question 17.
A rocket is fired vertically with a speed of 5 km s-1 from the earth’s surface. How far from the earth does the rocket go before returning to the earth ? Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg; mean radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G = 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2.
Solution:
Let the rocket be fired with velocity v from the surface of earth and it reaches a height h from the surface of earth where its velocity becomes zero.
Total energy of rocket at the surface of energy
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 18
or h = \(\frac{\mathrm{Rv}^2}{2 \mathrm{gR}-\mathrm{v}^2}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.4 \times 10^6\right) \times\left(5 \times 10^3\right)^2}{2 \times 9.8 \times\left(6.4 \times 10^6\right)-\left(5 \times 10^3\right)^2}\)
= 1.6 × 106m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 18.
The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s surface is 11.2 km s-1. A body is projected out with thrice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the earth ? Ignore the presence of the sun and other planets.
Solution:
Here, ve = 11.2 kms-1, velocity of projection of the body v = 3ve. Let m be the mass of the projectile and v0 be the velocity of the projectile when far away from the earth (i.e) out of gravitational field of earth) then from the law of conservation of energy
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv02 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mve2
or v0 = \(\sqrt{v^2-v_e^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{(3 v e)^2-v_e^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{8} v_e=\sqrt{8}\) × 11.2 = 31.68 kms-1

Question 19.
A satellite orbits the earth at a height of 400 km above the surface. How much energy must be expended to rocket the satellite out of the earth’s gravitational influence ? Mass of the satellite = 200 kg; mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg; radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G = 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 kg-2.
Solution:
Total energy of orbiting satellite at a hight h.
= – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\)
= – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}+\frac{1}{2} m \frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{2(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
energy expended to rocket the satellite out of the earth’s gravitational field.
= – (total energy of orbiting satellite)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{2(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
= \(\frac{\left(6.67 \times 10^{-11}\right) \times\left(6 \times 10^{24}\right) \times 200}{2\left(6.4 \times 10^6+4 \times 10^5\right)}\)
= 5.9 × 109J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 20.
Two stars each of one solar mass (= 2 × 1030< kg) are approaching each other for a head on collision. When they are a distance i09 km, their speeds are negligible. What is the speed with which they collide? The radius of each star is 104< km. Assume the stars to remain undistorted until they collide. (Use the known value of G).
Solution:
Here, mass of each star, M = 2 × 1030< kg
initial distance between two stars, r = 109<
km = 1012< m.
initial potential energy of the system = – \(\frac{\text { GMM }}{r}\)
Total K.E. of the stars = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2< + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2<
= Mv2<
Where v is the speed of stars with which they collide. When the stars are about to collide, the distance between their centres, r1< = 2R.
∴ Final potential energy of two starts = \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMM}}{2 \mathrm{R}}\)
since gain in K.E. is at the cost of loss in P.E
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 19

Question 21.
Two heavy spheres each of mass 100 kg and radius 0.10 m are placed 1.0 m apart on a horizontal table. What is the gravitational force and potential at the mid point of the line joining the centres of the spheres ? Is an object placed at that point in equilibrium ? If so, is the equilibrium stable or unstable ?
Solution:
Gravitational field at the mid – point of the line joining the centres of the two spheres.
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(r / 2)^2}(-\hat{r})+\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(r / 2)^2} \hat{r}=0\)
Gravitational potential at the mid point of the list joining the centres of the two spheres is
v = \(\frac{-\mathrm{GM}}{r / 2}+\left(\frac{-\mathrm{GM}}{r / 2}\right)=\frac{-4 \mathrm{GM}}{r}\)
\(\frac{-4 \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 100}{1.0}\) = -2.7 × 10-8< J/kg
As the effective force on the body placed at mid-point is zero, so the body is in equilibrium. If the body is displaced a little towards either mass body from its equilibrium position, it will not return back to its initial position of equilibrium. Hence, the body is in unstable equilibrium.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 22.
As you have learnt in the text, a geo-stationary satellite orbits the earth at a height of nearly 36,000 km from the surface of the earth. What is the potential due to earth’s gravity at the site of this satellite ? (Take the potential energy at infinity to be zero). Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg, radius = 6400 km.
Solution:
Gravitational potential at height h from the surface of earth is
v = \(\frac{-\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
= \(\frac{-6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times\left(6 \times 10^{24}\right)}{\left(6.4 \times 10^6+36 \times 10^6\right)}\)
= -9.4 × 106 J/kg.

Question 23.
A star 2.5 times the mass of the sun and collapsed to a size of 12 km rotates with a speed of 1.2 rev. per second. (Extremely compact stars of this kind are known as neutron stars. Certain stellar objects called pulsars belong to this category). Will an object placed on its equator remain stuck to its surface due to gravity ? (mass of the sun = 2 × 1030< kg).
Solution:
The object will remain struck to the surface of star due to gravity, if the accerlation due to gravity is more than the centrifugal accerlation due to its rotation.
Accerlation due to gravity, g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
= \(\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 2.5 \times 2 \times 10^{30}}{(12000)^2}\)
= 2.3 × 1012 m/s2
centrifugal accerlation = rw2
= r(2πv)2
= 12000 (2π × 1.5)2
= 1.1 × 106 ms-2
since g > rω2 , therefore the body will remain struck with the surface of star.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 24.
A spaceship is stationed on Mars. How much energy must be expended on the spaceship to launch it out of the solar system ? Mass of the space ship = 1000 kg; mass of the sun = 2 × 1030 kg; mass of mars = 6.4 × 1023< kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; radius of the orbit of mars = 2.28 × 108< km; G = 6.67 × 10-11< N m2 kg 2 .
Solution:
Let R, be the radius of the orbit of mars and R be the radius of the mars. M be the mass of the sun and M’ be the mass of mars. If m is the mass of the space ship, then potential energy of space-ship due to gravitational attraction of the sun = \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
potential energy of space – ship due to gravitational attraction of mars = – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^1 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{R}^1}\)
since K.E of space ship is zero, therefore total energy of spaceship
= \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}^1 \mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{R}^1}\)
= – Gm \(\left(\frac{M}{R}+\frac{M^1}{R^1}\right)\)
∴ energy required to rocket out the spaceship from the solar system = – (total energy of space ship)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 20

Question 25.
A rocket is fired ‘vertically’ from the surface of mars with a speed of 2 km s-1. If 20% of its initial energy is lost due to martian atmospheric resistance, how far will the rocket go from the surface of mars before returning to it ? Mass of mars = 6.4 × 1023< kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; G = 6.67 × 10-11< N m2 kg-2.
Solution:
Let m = mass of the rocket, M = mass of the mars and
R = radius of mars. Let v be the initial velocity of rocket.
Initial K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2; Initial P.E = – \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
Total initial energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
since 20% of K.E is lost, only 80% is left behind to reach the height. Therefore
Total energy available = \(\frac{80}{100} \times \frac{1}{2}\) mv2
– \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\) = 0.4 mv2 – \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
If the rocket reaches the higher point which is at a height h from the surface of Mars, its
K.E. is zero and P.E. = \(\frac{-\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
using principle of conservation of energy, we have
0.4 mv2 – \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}=-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}\)
or \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}}\) – 0.4 v2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 21

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Let the speed of the planet at the perihelion P in Fig. be υp and the Sun- planet distance SP be rp. Relate {rp, υp} to the corresponding quantities at the aphelion {rA, υA}. Will the planet take equal times to traverse BAC and CPB ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 22
(a) An ellipse traced out by a planet around the sun. The colsest point is P and the farthest point is A. P is called the perihelion and A the aphelion. The semimajor axis (a) is half the distance AP
Answer:
The magnitude of the angular momentum at P is Lp = mp rp υp. Similarly, LA = mp rA υA. From angular momentum conservation
mp rp υp = mp rA υA
or \(\frac{v_p}{v_A}=\frac{r_A}{r_p}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 2.
Three equal masses of m kg each are fixed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC. (a) What is the force acting on a mass,2m placed at the centroid O of the triangle ? (b) What is the force if the mass at the vertex A is doubled ?
Take AO = BO = CO = 1 m (see Fig)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 23
Three equal masses are placed at the three vertices of the ∆ABC. A mass 2m is placed at the centroid O.
Answer:
(a) The angle between OC and the positive x- axix is 30° and so is the angle between OB and the negative x-axis. The individual forces a vector notation are
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 24
From the principle of superposition and the law of vector addition, the resultant gravitational force FR on (2m) at O is
FR = FOA + FOB + FOC
FR = 2Gm2 \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) + 2Gm2 \(-\hat{\mathrm{i}}\) cos 30° – \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) sin 30°) + 2Gm2 (\(\hat{\mathrm{i}}\) cos 30° – \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) sin 30°) = 0
Alternatively, one expects on the basis of symmetry that the resultant force ought to be zero.

(b) By symmetry the x-component of the force cancels out. The y-component survives.
FR = 4Gm2 \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) – 2Gm2 \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\) = 2Gm2 \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

Question 3.
Find the potential energy of a system of four particles placed at the vertices of a square of side l. Also obtain the potential at the centre of the square.
Answer:
We have four mass pairs at distance l and two diagonal pairs at distance \(\sqrt{2}\)1 Hence,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 25
= \(\frac{2 \mathrm{Gm}}{1}\left(2+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\) = -5.41 \(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}^2}{l}\)
The gravitational potential U(r) at the centre of the square (r = \(\sqrt{2}\) l / 2) is
U(r) = \(-4 \sqrt{2} \frac{\mathrm{Gm}}{\mathrm{l}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 4.
Two uniform solid spheres of equal radii R, but mass M and 4 M have a centre to centre separation 6 R, as shown in Fig. The two spheres are held fixed A projeetile of mass m is projected from the surface of the sphere of mass M directly towards the centre of the second sphere. Obtain an expression for the minimum speed v of the projectile so that it reaches the surface of the second sphere.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 26
Answer:
If ON = r, we have
\(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^2}=\frac{4 \mathrm{GMm}}{\left(6 \mathrm{R}-\mathrm{r}^2\right)}\)
(6R – r)2 = 4r2
6R – r = ±2r
r = 2R or – 6R.
The neutral point r = -6R does not concern us in this example. Thus ON = r = 2R.
Thereafter, the greater gravitational pull of 4M would suffice. The mechanical energy at the surface of M is
Ei = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{~m} v^2-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}-\frac{4 \mathrm{GMm}}{5 \mathrm{R}}\)
The mechanical energy at N is purely potential.
EN = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}}-\frac{4 \mathrm{GMm}}{4 \mathrm{R}}\)
From the principle of conservation of mechanical energy
\(\frac{1}{2} v^2-\frac{G M}{R}-\frac{4 G M}{5 R}=-\frac{G M}{2 R}-\frac{G M}{R}\)
υ2 = \(\frac{2 G M}{R}\left(\frac{4}{5}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
υ2 = \(\left(\frac{3 \mathrm{GM}}{5 R}\right)^{1 / 2}\)

Question 5.
The planet Mars has two moons, phobos and delmos. (i) phobos has a period 7 hours, 39 minutes and an orbital radius of 9.4 × 103 km. Calculate the mass of Mars, (ii) Assume that Earth and Mars move in circular orbits around the sun, with the Martian orbits being 1.52 times the orbital radius of the earth. What is the length of the Martain year in days ?
Answer:
(i) We employ T2 = K (RE + h)3 (where K = 4π2 / GME) with the Earth’s mass replaced by the Martian mass Mm
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 27
(ii) Once again Kepler’s third law comes to our aid,
\(\frac{T_M^2}{T_E^2}=\frac{R_{M S}^3}{R_{E S}^3}\)
Where RMS is the Mars-Sun distance and RES is the Earth-Sun distance.
∴ TM = (1.52)3/2 × 365
= 684 days
For example. the ratio of the semi-minor to semi-major axis for our Earth is, b/a = 0.99986.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 6.
Weighing the Earth : You are given the following data g = 9.81 ms2 RE = 6.37 x106 m the distance to the moon R = 3.4 × 108 m and the time period of the moons revolution is 27.3 days. Obtain the mass of the Earth ME in two different ways.
Answer:
(1) From g = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{G M_E}{R_E^2}\)
ME = \(\frac{g R_E^2}{G}\)
= \(\frac{9.81 \times\left(6.37 \times 10^6\right)^2}{6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
= 5.97 × 1024kg. (by Method – 1)

(2) The moon is a satellite of the Earth. From the derivation of Kepler’s third law
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation 28
= 6.02 × 1024kg (by Method – 2)
Both methods yield almost the same answer the difference between them being less than 1%.

Question 7.
Express the constant k T2 = K (RE + h)2 where K = 4π2/GME of in days and kilometres. Given k = 10-13 s2 m-3. The moon is at a distance of 3.84 × 105 km from the earth. Obtain its time period of revolution in days.
Answer:
Given
k = 10-13 s2 m-3 (d = day)
= 10-13 \(\left[\frac{1}{(24 \times 60 \times 60)^2} d^2\right]\)
\(\left[\frac{1}{(1 / 1000)^3 \mathrm{~km}^3}\right]\) = 1.33 × 10-14 d2 km-3
Using T2 = K (RE + h)3 (where k = 4π2/ GME) and the given value of k the time period of the moon is
T2 = (1.33 × 10-14) (3.84 × 105)3
T = 27.3 d

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 9 Gravitation

Question 8.
A 400 kg satellite is in a circular orbit of radius 2RE about the Earth. How much energy is required to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4RE? What are the changes in the kinetic and potential energies ?
Answer:
Initially,
E1 = \(\)
While finally
Ef = \(\)
The change in the total energy is
∆E = Ef – Ei
= \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_E \mathrm{~m}}{8 R_E}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}^2}\right) \frac{\mathrm{mR} \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}{8}\)
∆E = \(\frac{\mathrm{gm} \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}{8}=\frac{9.81 \times 400 \times 6.37 \times 10^6}{8}\)
= 3.13 × 109J
The kinetic enegy is reduced and it mimics ∆E, namely, ∆K = Kf – Ki = -3.13 × 109 J.
The change in potential energy is twice the change in the total energy, namely
∆V = Vf – Vi= -6.25 × 109 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Oscillations Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 8th Lesson Oscillations

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give two examples of periodic motion which are not oscillatory.
Answer:

  1. The motion of planets around the sun.
  2. The motion of an electron round the nucleus.

Question 2.
The displacement in S.H.M. is given by y = a sin (20t + 4). What is the displacement when it is increased by 2π/ω ?
Answer:
The displacement in S.H.M. is y = a sin (20t + 4)
The time period T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) is increased, the displacement of the particle remains the same.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
A girl is swinging seated in a swing. What is the effect on the frequency of oscillation if she stands ?
Answer:
Frequency (n) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{g}{l}}\), n ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{l}}\)
A girl swinging in standing position location of centre of mass shifts upwards l decreases, frequency of oscillation increases.

Question 4.
The bob of a simple pendulum is a hollow sphere filled with water. How will the period of oscillation change, if the water begins to drain out of the hollow sphere ?
Answer:
The period of the pendulum is same, when the bob is hollow (or) completely filled with water. As water flows out from the bob, the centre of gravity of the bob lowered. The pendulum length increases. Hence time period also increases. When the bob becomes empty, again centre of gravity shifts upwards. The pendulum length decreases. The time period also decreases.

Question 5.
The bob of a simple pendulum is made of wood. What will be the effect on the time period if the wooden bob is replaced by an identical bob of aluminum ?
Answer:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\), Time period is independent of mass of the bob.
Hence wooden bob is replaced by an identical aluminium bob, Time period remains constant.

Question 6.
Will a pendulum clock gain or lose time when taken to the top of a mountain.?
Answer:
T ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}\), At the mountain top, the value of g decreases, hence time period increases i.e. the pendulum will take longer time to complete one vibration. Hence pendulum clock will loose time on the mountain top.

Question 7.
A pendulum dock gives correct time at the equator. Will it gain or lose time if it is taken to the poles ? If so, why ?
Answer:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)
g value at poles is greater than at equator.
If it is taken to the poles g value increases, time period decreases.
So pendulum clock gains time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 8.
What fraction of the total energy is K.E when the displacement is one half of a amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M.
Answer:
Total energy (E) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2 A2
Given y = \(\frac{\mathrm{A}}{2}\), Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – y2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2\(\left(A^2-\frac{A^2}{4}\right)\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
K.E = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × E
∴ \(\frac{K \cdot E}{E}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 9.
What happens to the energy of a simple harmonic oscillator if its amplitude is doubled ?
Answer:
Total energy (E) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
Given Amplitude A is doubled
E’ = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(2A)2
E’ = 4 × \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
E’ = 4E
∴ Energy becomes four times.

Question 10.
Can a simple pendulum be used in an artificial satellite? (T.S. Mar. 16)
Answer:
No, in an artificial satellite acceleration due to gravity is zero. Hence we cannot use simple pendulum in an artificial satellite.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define simple harmonic motion. Give two examples.
Answer:
Simple harmonic motion : “A body is said to be in simple harmonic motion, if it moves to and fro along a straight line, about its mean position such that, at any point its acceleration is proportional to its displacement but opposite in direction and is directed always towards the mean position”.
w ∝ -x

If a is the acceleration of the body at any given displacement x from the mean position, the time for the body to be in S.H.M.
Displacement of a particle in S.H.M is given by
x(t) = A cos (ωt + ϕ)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 1

Example:

  1. Motion of a simple pendulum.
  2. Motion of mass attached to a spring.
  3. Motion of atoms in solids.
  4. Cork floating on water.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 2.
Present graphically the variations of displacement, velocity and acceleration with time for a particle in S.H.M.
Answer:
Let us put ϕ = 0 and write the expressions for x(t),
υ(t) and a(t).
x(t) = A cos ωt. υ(t) = -Aωsinωt
a(t) = -ω2A cos ωt. The corresponding plots are shown in figure. All quantities varies sinusoidally with time.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 2
x(t) varies between – A to A; υ(t) varies from -ωA to ωA and a(t) varies from – ω2A to ω2A with respect to displacement plot, velocity plot has a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) and acceleration plot has a phase difference of π.

Question 3.
What is phase ? Discuss the phase relations between displacement, velocity and acceleration in simple harmonic motion.
Answer:
Phase : The phase of a particle executing S.H.M. at any instant is defined as its state (or) condition as regards to its position and direction of motion at that instant.

  1. Displacement : x = A cos (ωt – ϕ), (ωt – ϕ) is called phase and ϕ is epoch.
  2. Velocity : V = -Aω sin (ωt – ϕ), Here also (ωt – ϕ) is phase angle
  3. Acceleration : a = -ω2A cos (ωt – ϕ), Here also (ωt – ϕ) is phase angle.

Phase difference between displacement and velocity = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Phase difference between velocity and acceleration = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Phase difference between displacement and acceleration = π.

Question 4.
Obtain an equation for the frequency of oscillation of spring of force constant k to which a mass m is attached. Answer:
Let us consider a spring suspended vertically from a rigid support and loaded with a mass m. If it is now pulled down and released, it executes vertical oscillations about mean position.
Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement, but oppositely directed
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 4
F ∝ -y
F = -ky —–> (1)
Where k is force constant
Ma = -ky (∴ F = Ma)
a = \(-\left(\frac{K}{M}\right) y\) —-> (2)
Since K and M are constant. We can write a ∝ -y
ie Acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement but oppositely directed. Hence oscillations of a loaded spring is S.H.M.
Comparing eq. (2) with a = -ω2y
ω2 = \(\frac{K}{M}\) ; ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{M}}}\)
T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) ; T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{K}}}\)
Frequency of oscillation (n) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{K}{M}}\) —> (3)

Question 5.
Derive expressions for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator.
Answer:
Kinetic energy of simple harmonic oscillator : The velocity of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
v = \(\omega \sqrt{A^2-y^2}\) ∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2(A2 – y2)
When y = 0, (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω2A2 (Mean position)
When y = A, (K.E)Min = 0 (Extreme position)
K.E is maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme position.

Potential energy of simple harmonic oscillator: When the displacement of a particle executing simple Harmonic oscillations increases, the restoring force also increases. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement. Therefore work is done in moving through the displacement, against restoring force. If F is the restoring force at the displacement y.
The average force against which work is done = \(\frac{\mathrm{O}+\mathrm{F}}{2}\) = \(\frac{F}{2}\)

∴ Workdone on the particle for the displacement (y) = Average force × displacement F
i.e. w = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{2}\) × y
w = \(\frac{\max y}{2}\) —- (1) (∵ F = ma)
But acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
a = ω2y —– (2)
Using eq’s (1) and (2). we get
The work done (w) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\) mw2y2
This work done is stored in the form of P.E.
∴ P.E. = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\) —– (3)
If y = 0, (P.E)Min = 0 (At mean position)
If y = A, (P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\) (At extreme position).
∴ P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.

Question 6.
How does the energy of a simple pendulum vary as it moves from one extreme position to the other during its oscillations?
Answer:
The total energy associated with a particle executing S.H.M. at any point is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy at that point.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 5
Total energy (E) = K.E + P.E
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)\)
P.E. = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2\)
T.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2(A2 – y2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At mean position y = 0, P.E = 0
and (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
∴ T.E. = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
At extreme position y = A, K.E = 0 and P.E = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
∴ (P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\)
From mean position to extreme position K.E. is to be converted into P.E.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 7.
Derive the expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration of a particle executes S.H.M.
Answer:
Consider a particle P moves on the circumference of a circle of radius A with uniform angular velocity ω. Let PN be the perpendicular drawn to the diameter yy’ from P.
As P moves on the circumference of the circle, N moves on the diameter yy’ to and fro about the centre O.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 6
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 7

Velocity : The velocity of a partcile executing SHM is given by
v = \(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) (A sin ωt)
= Aω cos ωt = Aω\(\sqrt{1-\sin ^2 \omega t}\)
v = \(A \omega \sqrt{1-\left(\frac{y}{A}\right)^2}\) (∵ sin ωt = \(\frac{y}{A}\))
v = ω\(\omega \sqrt{A^2-y^2}\) —- (2)

Acceleration : As the rate of change of velocity gives acceleration of the particle executing S.H.M is given by
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(Aω cos ωt) = -Aω2 sin ωt
∴ a = -ω2y —- (3)

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define simple harmonic motion. Show that the motion of (point) projection of a particle performing uniform circular motion, on any diameter, is simple harmonic. (AP – Mar. ‘18; TS – Mar. ‘16)
Answer:
Simple harmonic motion : A body is said to be in simple harmonic motion, if it moves to and fro along a straight line, about its mean position such that, at any point its acceleration is proportional to its displacement but opposite in direction and directed always towards the mean position.

Show that the projection of uniform circular motion on any diameter is simple harmonic : Consider a particle P moving on the circumference of a circle of radius A with uniform angular velocity ω. Let O be the centre of the circle. XX’ and YY’ are two mutually perpendicular diameters of the circle as shown in the figure. Let PN be drawn perpendicular to the diameter YY’ from P. As P moves on the circumference of the circle, N moves on the diameter YY’ to and fro about the centre O. Let us consider the position of N at any time t, after leaving the point ‘O’, during its motion. The corresponding angular displacement of the particle P is AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 8
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 33
Hence acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement and opposite direction. Hence motion of N is simple harmonic.

Question 2.
Show that the motion of a simple pendulum is simple harmonic and hence derive an equation for its time period. What is seconds pendulum ? (TS – Mar. ’18, ’17, ’15, ’14, ’13; AP – Mar. ’17, ’16, ’15, ’14, ’13)
Answer:

  1. Consider simple pendulum, a small bob of mass m tied to an inextensible mass less string of length L and other end of the string is fixed from a rigid support.
  2. Once the bob is slightly displaced and released, it begins to oscillate about mean position.
  3. Let θ be the angular displacement and T be the tension in the string.
  4. The forces acting on the bob are (a) tension T along the string (b) weight mg acts vertically downwards.
  5. The force mg can be resolved into two components (1) mg cos θ along the PA and (2) mg sin θ acts along PB.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 34
  6. From figure at point P,
    T = mg cos θ —– (1)
  7. The force mg sin θ will provide the restoring torque, which tends to bring the bob back to its mean position O.
  8. The restoring torque is given by
    \(\tau\) = Restoring force × ⊥lar distance
    \(\tau\) = -mg sin θ × L —– (2)
    Here negative sign shows that the torque acts to reduce θ.
    Then sin θ is replaced by θ i.e., sin θ ≈ θ
    x = -mg L θ —– (3) (∵ sin θ = θ – \(\frac{\theta^3}{3 !}\) + \(\frac{\theta^3}{5 !}\) …..)
  9. From equation (3), we note that \(\tau\) ∝ θ. and This \(\tau\) will bring the bob back towards its equilibrium position.
    So, if the bob is left free, it will execute angular simple harmonic motion.
    Comparing equation (3), with the equation \(\tau\) = -kθ, we have Spring factor, k = mgL.
  10. Here inertia factor = Moment of inertia of the bob about the point of suspension = mL2
  11. In S.H.M, Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\text { Inertia factor }}{\text { Spring factor }}}\)
    T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m L^2}{m g L}}\)
    T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\) — (4)
    Seconds pendulum : A pendulum whose time period is 2 seconds is called seconds pendulum.
    T = 2 seconds.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
Derive the equation for the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator and show that the total energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion is constant at any point on its path.
Answer:
Kinetic energy : The velocity of a particle in S.H.M is given by v = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = \(\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)\) —— (1)
We know that y = A sin ωt
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2[1 – sin2ωt) —— (2)
When y = 0, (K.E)Max = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 (Mean position)
When y = A, (K.E)Min = 0 (At extreme position)
∴ K.E is maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme position.

Potential energy : When the displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic oscillations increase, the restoring force also increases. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement. Therefore work is done in moving through the displacement, against restoring force. If F is restoring force at the displacement y.
The average force against which work is done = \(\frac{\mathrm{O}+\mathrm{F}}{2}\) = \(\frac{F}{2}\)

∴ Workdone on the particle for the displacement (y) = Average force × displacement.
i.e., w = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × y
w = \(\frac{\max y}{2}\) —– (3) (∵ F = ma)
But acceleration of a particle in S.H.M is given by
a = -ω2y —– (4)
Using equations (3) and (4), we get
The work done (W) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2
This work done is stored in the form of P.E
∴ P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 —– (5)
∴ P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 sin2ωt —– (6) (∵ y = A sin ωt)
If y = 0, (P.E)Min = 0 (At mean position)
If y = A, (P.E)Max = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 (At extreme position)
∴ P.E. is maximum at extreme position and minimum at mean position.

Total energy (E) : The total energy associated with a particle executing S.H.M at any point is the sum of RE and K.E at that point.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 35
Total energy (E) = K.E + P.E
K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2
∴ T.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2 (A2 – y2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2y2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At mean position y = 0, RE = 0, (KE)Max = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
∴ T.E = K.E + P.E
T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 + 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
At extreme position, y = A, K.E = 0 and,
(P.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2.
∴ T.E = K.E + P.E
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 9
T.E. = O + \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2
From mean position to extreme position K.E is to be converted into RE.

Problems

Question 1.
The bob of a pendulum is made of a hollow brass sphere. What happens to the time period of the pendulum, if the bob is filled with water completely ? Why?
Solution:
Time period (T) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
The period of the pendulum is same. When the bob is hollow (or) completely filled with water. As water flows out from the bob, the centre of gravity of the bob lowers.

The pendulum length increases. Hence time period also increases. When the bob becomes empty, again centre of gravity shifts upwards. The pendulum length decreases. The time period also decreases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 2.
Two identical springs of force constant “k” are joined one at the end of the other (in series). Find the effective force constant of the combination.
Solution:
k1 = k2 = k
If two springs are connected in series
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 10

Question 3.
What are the physical quantities having maximum value at the mean position in SHM ?
Solution:

  1. Velocity, Vmax = Aω
  2. Kinetic energy, (K.E)Max = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω2A2.

Question 4.
A particle executes SHM such that, the maximum velocity during the oscillation is numerically equal to half the maximum acceleration. What is the time period ?
Solution:
Given VMax = \(\frac{1}{2}\)aMax
Aω = \(\frac{1}{2}\)ω2
ω = 2
T = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{2}\) = π sec.

Question 5.
A mass of 2 kg attached to a spring of force constant 260 Nm-1 makes 100 oscillations. What is the time taken ?
Solution:
m = 2 kg, k = 260 N/m
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\) = 2 × 3.14\(\sqrt{\frac{2}{260}}\) = 0.5508sec.
∴ Time for 100 oscillations = 100 × 0.5508
= 55.08 sec.

Question 6.
A simple pendulum in a stationery lift has time period T. What would be the effect on the time period when the lift

(i) moves up with uniform velocity
(ii) moves down with uniform velocity
(iii) moves up with uniform acceleration a
(iv) moves down with uniform acceleration ‘a’
(v) begins to fall freely under gravity ?

Solution:

i) When the lift moves up with uniform velocity
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
No change in time period.

ii) When the lift moves down with uniform velocity. No change in the time period.

iii) When the lift moves up with acceleration.
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g+a}}\)
Time period decreases.

iv) When the lift moves down with acceleration.
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g-a}}\)
Time period increases.

v) Lift falls freely, a = g
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{l}{g-g}}\) = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{0}}\) = ∝
Time period becomes infinity.

Question 7.
A particle executing SHM has amplitude of 4 cm and its acceleration at a distance of 1 cm from the mean position is 3 cm s-2. What will is velocity be when it is at a distance of 2 cm from its mean position ?
Solution:
A = 4 cm, x1 = 1 cm, a = 3 cm/s2
a = ω2x1
3 = ω2 × 1
ω = \(\sqrt{3}\)
Velocity v = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-x_2^2}\)
(∵ x2 = 2 cm)
v = \(\sqrt{3} \sqrt{4^2-2^2}\)
v = \(\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{12}\)
v = \(\sqrt{36}\) = 6 cm/s.

Question 8.
A simple harmonic oscillator has a time period of 2s. What will be the change in the phase 0.25 s after leaving the mean position ?
Solution:
T = 2 sec
t = 0.25 sec
sin ωt = sin\(\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right) t\)
ϕ = ωt = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) × t
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{2}\) × 0.25
ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 9.
A body describes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s. find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is
(a) 5 cm.
(b) 3 cm.
(c) 0 cm.
Solution:
A = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m
T = 0.2 sec.

i) y = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2 m
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\) = 10π
Acceleration (a) = -ω22y = -(10π)2 × 5 × 10-2
a = -5π2 m/s2
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\)

ii) y = 3 cm = 3 × 10-2 m
Acceleration (a) = -ω2y = -(10π)2 × 3 × 10-2
= -3π2 m/s2
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-\left(3 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{25-9}\) × 10-2
v = 0.4π m/s.

iii) y = 0 cm
a = -ω2y = -(10π)2 × 0
Velocity (v) = ω\(\sqrt{A^2-y^2}\)
= 10π\(\sqrt{\left(5 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2-0}\)
= 0.5π m/s

Question 10.
The mass and radius of a planet are double that of the earth. If the time period of a simple pendulum on the earth is T, find the time period on the planet.
Solution:
g = \(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
g ∝ \(\frac{M}{R^2}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 12

Question 11.
Calculate the change in the length of a simple pendulum of length 1 m, when its period of oscillation changes from 2 s to 1.5 s. (T.S. Mar. ’18)
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 13

Question 12.
A freely falling body takes 2 seconds to reach the ground on a plane, when it is dropped from a height of 8 m. If the period of a simple pendulum is seconds on the planet, calculate the length of the pendulum.
Solution:
u = 0, t = 2 sec, s = h = 8 m
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at
s = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × g × 22
g = 4m/s2
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
π = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}}\)
l = 1 m = 100 cm.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 13.
The period of a simple pendulum is found to increase by 50% when the length of the pendulum is increased by 0.6 m. Calculate the initial length and the initial period of oscillation at a place where g = 9.8 m s-2.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 14

Question 14.
A clock regulated by a second’s pendulum keeps correct time. During summer the length of the pendulum increases to 1.02 m. How much will the clock gain or lose in one day ?
Solution:
T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
T ∝ \(\sqrt{l}\)
\(\frac{d T}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{d} l}{l}\)
T = 2 sec, l = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\pi^2}\) = 0.9927
dl = 1.02 – 0.9927 = 0.0273
\(\frac{d T}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\right)\)
dT = \(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\)
No. of oscillations performed per day by seconds pendulum = \(\frac{\text { One day }}{2 \text { Sec. }}\)
= \(\frac{86,400}{2}\) = 43,200.

The gain (or) loss of time per day = No. of oscillations in one day to the change in time for one oscillation = 43,200 × \(\frac{0.0273}{0.9927}\)
= 1180 sec.

Question 15.
The time period of a body suspended from a spring is T. What will be the new time period if the spring is cut into two equal parts and the mass is suspended
(i) from one part
(ii) simultaneously from both the parts ?
Answer:
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
i) Spring is cut into two parts, k’ = 2k
T’ = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k^{\prime}}}\) = \(\frac{T}{\sqrt{2}}\)
ii) When the mass is suspended from both the parts
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{2 k+2 k}}\) = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{4 k}}\) = \(\frac{T}{2}\)

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Which of the following examples represent periodic motion ?
a) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back. .
b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N – S direction and released.
c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass.
d) An arrow released from a bow.
Solution:
a) It is not a periodic motion. Though the motion of a swimmer is to and fro but will not have a definite period.
b) It is a periodic motion because a freely suspended magnet if once displaced from N-S direction and let it go, it oscillation about this position. Hence it is simple harmonic motion also.
c) It is also a periodic motion.
d) It is not a periodic motion.

Question 2.
Which of the following examples represent (nearly) simple harmonic motion and which represent periodic but not simple harmonic motion ?
a) The rotation of earth about its axis.
b) Motion of an oscillating mercury column in a U-tube.
c) Motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth curved bowl, when released from a point slightly above the lower most point.
d) General vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about its equilibrium position.
Solution:
a) It is periodic but not SHM because it is not to and fro motion about a fixed point.
b) It is SHM
c) It is SHM
d) It is a periodic but not SHM. A polyatomic gas molecule has a number of natural frequencies and its general motion is the resultant of S.H.M’s of a number of different frequencies. The resultant motion is periodic but not SHM.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 3.
Fig. depicts four x-t plots for linear motion of a particle. Which of the plots represent periodic motion ? What is the period of motion (in case of periodic motion)?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 15
Solution:
a) Does not represent periodic motion, as the motion neither repeats nor comes to mean position.
b) Represents periodic motion with period equal to 2s.
c) Does not represent periodic motion, because it is not identically repeated.
d) Represents periodic motion with periodic equal to 2s.

Question 4.
Which of the following functions of time represent
(a) simple harmonic, (b) periodic but not simple harmonic, and (c) non-periodic motion ? Give period for each case of periodic motion (ω is any positive constant)
a) sin ωt – cos ωt
b) sin3 ωt
c) 3 cos (π/4 – 2ωt)
d) cos ωt + cos 3ωt + cos 5 ωt
e) exp (-ω2t2)
f) 1 + ωt + ω2t2.
Solution:
The function will represent a periodic motion, if it is identically repeated after a fixed interval of time and will represent SHM. If it can be written uniquely in the form of a
cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{T}}+\phi\right)\) or a
sin \(\left(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{T}}+\phi\right)\), where T is the time period.

a) sin ωt – cos ωt
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)sin ωt – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)cos ωt)
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(sin ωt cos \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) – cos ωt sin \(\frac{\pi}{4}\))
= \(\sqrt{2}\)(ωt\(\frac{\pi}{4}\))
It is a S.H.M and its period is 2π/ω.

b) sin3 ωt = \(\frac{1}{4}\)(3sin ωt – sin 3ωt)
Here each term sin ωt and sin 3ωt individually represents S.H.M. But (ii) which is the out come of the super position of two S.H.Ms will only be periodic but not S.H.M. its time period is 2π/ω.
(∵ cos (-θ) = cos θ).

c) 3 cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-2 \omega t\right)\) = 3 cos \(\left(2 \omega t-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
Clearly it represents S.H.M. and its time period is 2π/2ω.

d) cos ωt + cos 3ωt + cos 5ωt it represents the periodic but not S.H.M its time period is 2π/ω.

e) \(\mathrm{e}^{-\omega^2 t^2}\) it is an exponential function which never repeats itself. Therefore it represents non-periodic motion.

f) 1 + ωt + ω2t2 also represents non periodic motion.

Question 5.
A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion between two points, A and B, 10 cm apart. Take the direction from A to B as the positive direction and give the signs of velocity, acceleration and force on the particle when it is
a) at the end A
b) at end B
c) at the mid-point of AB going towards A
d) at 2 cm away from B going towards A
e) at 3 cm away from A going towards B and
f) at 4 cm away from B going towards A.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 16
Refer figure here A and B represent the two extreme positions of a S.H.M. For velocity, the direction from A to B is taken as positive for acceleration and the force, the direction is taken positive if directed along AP and negative if directed along BP.
a) At the end A, the artice executing S.H.M is momentarily at rest being its extreme position of motion, hence its velocity is zero, acceleration is +ve because directed along AP. Force is also +ve since the force is directed towards AP i.e + ve direction.
b) At the end B, velocity is zero. Here acceleration and force are negative as they are directed along BP i.e. along negative direction.
c) At the mid point AB going towards A, the particle is at its mean position P, with a tendency to move along PA i.e. -ve direction. Hence velocity is -ve both acceleration and force are zero.
d) At 2 cm away from B going towards A, the particle is at Q, with a tendency to move along QP, which is a negative direction there velocity, acceleration and force are all -ve.
e) At 3 cm away from A going towards B, the particle is at R with a tendency to move along RP, which is positive direction, there, velocity, acceleration and force are all +ve.
f) At 4 cm away from A going towards A, the particle is at S, with a tendency to move along SA which is negative direction for velocity. Therefore velocity is negative but acceleration is directed towards mean position i.e., along SP, hence +ve. Similarly force is also +ve.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 6.
Which of the following relationships between the acceleration a and the displacement x of a particle involve simple harmonic motion ?
a) a = 0.7x
b) a = -200x2
c) a = -10x
d) a = 100x3
Solution:
In S.H.M acceleration a is related to displacement by the related of the form a = -kx which is for relation (c).

Question 7.
The motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is described by the displacement function.
x(t) = A cos (ωt + ϕ).
If the initial (t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial velocity is ω cm/s, what are its amplitude and initial phase angle ? The angular frequency of the particle is πs-1. If instead of the cosine function, we choose the sine function to describe the SHM : x = B sin (ωt + α), what are the amplitude and initial phase of the particle with the above initial conditions.
Solution:
Here, at t = 0, x = 1 cm and v = ω cm s-1, ϕ = ?; ω = πs-1
Given x = A cos (ωt + ϕ)
1 = A cos (π × 0 + ϕ) or
= A cos ϕ —– (i)
Velocity, v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = – Aω(sin ωt + ϕ)
∴ ω = -Aω sin (π × 0 + ϕ) or 1 = – A sin ϕ
or A sin ϕ = -1 —— (ii)
Squaring and adding (i) and (ii)
A2(cos2 ϕ + sin2 ϕ) = 1 + 1 = 2 or A2 = 2 or A = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
tan ϕ = -1 or ϕ = \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\) or \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\)
For, x = B sin (ωt + α) —— (iii)
At t = 0, x = 1, so,
1 = B sin (ω × 0 + α) = B sin α —– (iv)
Differentiating (iii), w.r.t, t we have dx
velocity, v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = Bω cos (ωt + α)
Applying initial conditions i.e. at t = 0, v = ω
ω = Bωcos (π × 0 + α)
or 1 = B cos α —– (v)
Squaring and adding (iv) and (v) we get
B2sin2α + B2 cos2 α = 12 + 12 = 2 or B2 = 2 or B = \(\sqrt{2}\) cm
Dividing (iv) by (v), we have
\(\frac{B \sin \alpha}{B \cos \alpha}\) = \(\frac{1}{1}\) or tan α = 1 or α = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) or \(\frac{5 \pi}{4}\).

Question 8.
A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body suspended from this balance, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.6 s. What is the weight of the body ?
Solution:
Here. m = 50 kg, max. extension.
y = 20 – 0 = 20 cm = 0.2 m; T = 0.65
Max. Force, F = mg = 5 × 9.8 N
K = \(\frac{F}{y}\) = \(\frac{50 \times 9.8}{0.2}\) = 2450 Nm-1
As T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
m = \(\frac{T^2 k}{4 \pi^2}\)
= \(\frac{(0.6)^2 \times 2450}{4 \times(3.14)^2}\)
= 22.36 kg
∴ Weight of body = mg = 22.36 × 9.8
= 219.1 N
= 22.36 kgf

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 9.
A spring having with a spring constant 1200 Nm-1 is mounted on a horizontal table as shown in fig. A mass of 3 kg is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled sideways to a distance of 2.0 cm and released.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 17
Determine
(i) the frequency of oscillations,
(ii) maximum acceleration of the mass, and
(iii) the maximum speed of the mass.
Solution:
Here, k = 1200 Nm-1, m = 3.0 kg, a = 2.0 cm = 0.02 m
a)
Frequency,
υ = \(\frac{1}{T}\) = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2 \times 3.14} \sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\)
= 3.2s-1

b) Acceleration A = ω2y = \(\frac{k}{m}\)y
Acceleration will be maximum when y is maximum i.e. y = a
Max. acceleration, Amax = \(\frac{k_a}{m}\) = \(\frac{1200 \times 0.02}{3}\)
= 8 ms-2

c) Max. speed of the mass will be when it is passing through the mean position, which is given by
Vmax = aω = a\(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\)
= 0.02 × \(\sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 0.4 ms-1

Question 10.
In exercise, let us take the position of mass when the spring is unstreched as x = 0, and the direction from left to right as the positive direction of x-axis. Give x as a function of time t for the oscillating mass if at the moment we start the stopwatch (t = 0), the mass is
a) at the mean position
b) at the maximum stretched position and
c) at the maximum compressed position
In what way do these functions for SHM differ from each other, in frequency, in amplitude or the initial phase ?
Solution:
Here, a = 2.0 cm; ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{1200}{3}}\) = 20s-1

a) As time is noted from the mean position, hence using
x = a sin ωt, we have x = 2 sin 20t

b) At maximum stretched position, the body is the extreme right position, with an initial phase of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) rad. Then
x = a sin \(\left(\omega t+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
= a cos ωt = 2 cos 20t

c) At maximum compressed position, the body is at the extreme left position, with an initial phase of \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\) rad.
Then x = a sin (ωt + \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\))
= -a cos ωt
= -2 cos 20t

Question 11.
Figures correspond to two circular motions. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, the initial position, and the sense of revolution (i.e. clockwise or anti-clockwise) are indicated on each figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 18
Obtain the corresponding simple ‘ harmonic motions of the x-projection of the radius vector of the revolving particle P, in each case.
Solution:
In Fig. (a) T = 2s ; a = 3 cm
At t = 0, OP makes an angle \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) with X-axis
i.e., ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) radian.
While moving clockwise, here ϕ = +\(\frac{\pi}{2}\). Thus the X-projection of OP at time t will give us the equation of S.H.M. given by
x = a cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}+\phi\right)\)
= 3cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{2}+\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) or x = -3
sin πt (x is in cm)
In Fig. (b) T = 4s ; a = 2m
At t = 0, OP makes an angle π with the positive direction of X-axis i.e., ϕ = π. While moving anticlockwise, here ϕ = +π.
Thus the X-projection of OP at time t will give us the equation of S.H.M. as
x = a cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}+\phi\right)\)
= 2 cos \(\left(\frac{2 \pi t}{4}+\pi\right)\)
= -2 cos \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2} t\right)\) (x is in m)

Question 12.
Plot the corresponding reference circle for each of the following simple harmonic motions. Indicate the initial (t = 0) position of the particle, the radius of the circle, and the angular speed of the rotating particle. For simplicity, the sense of rotation may be fixed to be anticlockwise in every case : (x is in cm and t is in s).
a) x = -2 sin (3t + π/3)
b) x = cos (π/6 – t)
c) x = 3 sin (2πt + π/4)
d) x = 2 cos πt.
Solution:
If we express each function of the form
x = a cos (cot + ϕ) —— (i)
Where ϕ is the initial phase i.e., ϕ represents the angle which the initial radius vector of the particle makes with the -l-ve direction of X-axis.

a) x = -2 sin (3t + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) = 2 cos (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + 3t + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\))
or x = 2 cos (3t + \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\))
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 2, ω = 3 and ϕ = \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)
Hence, the reference circle will be shown in Fig. (a).

b) x = cos\(\left(\frac{\pi}{6}-t\right)\) = cos \(\left(t-\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\)
(∵ cos (-θ) = cos θ))
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 1, ω and ϕ = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
The reference circle will be as shown in Fig. (b).

c) x = 3 sin \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
= 3 cos \(\left(2 \pi t+\frac{3 \pi}{2}+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
Comparing it with equation (i), we note that a = 3, ω = 2π and ϕ = \(\frac{3 \pi}{2}\) + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\)
The reference circle will be as in Fig. (c).

d) x = 2 cos πt
Comparing it with equation (i), we note
that a = 2, = π and ϕ = 0.
The reference circle will be as shown Fig. (d)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 19

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 13.
Figures (a) shows a spring of force constant k clamped rigidly at one end and a mass m attached to its free end. A force F applied at the free end stretches the spring. Figure (b) shows the same spring with both ends free and attached to a mass at either end. Each end of the spring in Fig. (b) is stretched by the same force F.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 20
a) What is the maximum extension of the spring in two cases ?
b) If the mass in Fig. (a) and the two masses in Fig. (b) are released, what is the period of oscillation in each case ?
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 21
a) The maximum extension of the spring in both the cases will be = \(\frac{F}{K}\), where K is the spring constant of the spring used.
b) In Fig. (a), if x is the extension in the spring, when mass m is returning to its mean posi-tion after being released free, then restoring force on the mass is F = -Kx i.e., F ∝ x.
As this F is directed towards mean position of the mass, hence the mass attached to the spring will execute SHM. Here, spring factor = spring constant
= K
Inertia factor = mass of the given mass
= m
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 22
In Fig.(b). we have a two body system of spring constant K and reduced mass,
μ = \(\frac{m \times m}{m+m}\) = \(\frac{m}{2}\)
Here, inertia factor = \(\frac{m}{2}\)
and spring factor = K
∴ Time period, T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{(m / 2)}{k}}\)
= 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{m}{2 K}}\)

Question 14.
The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 m. If the piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 200 rad/min. what is its maximum speed ?
Solution:
Given a = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m; ω = 200 rev/min ;
Vmax = aω
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 200
= 100 m/min.

Question 15.
The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.7 ms-2. What is the time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of moon if its time period on the surface of earth is 3.5 s ? (g on the surface of earth is 9.8 ms-2).
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 23

Question 16.
Answer the following questions :
a) Time period of a particle in SHM depends on the force constant k and mass m of the particle :
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{k}}}\). A simple pendulum executes SHM approximately. Why then is the time period of a pendulum independent of the mass of the pendulum ?
b) The motion of a simple pendulum is approximately simple harmonic for small angle oscillations. For larger angles of oscillation, a more involved analysis shows that T is greater than \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\). Think of a qualitative argument to appreciate this result.
c) A man with a wristwatch on his hand falls from the top of a tower. Does the watch give correct time during the free fall ?
d) What is the frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum mounted in cabin that is freely falling under gravity ?
Solution:
a) For a simple pendulum, force constant or spring factor K is proportional to mass m, therefore, m cancels out in denominator as well as in numerator. That is why the time period of simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the bob.

b) The effective restoring force acting on the bob of simple pendulum in displaced position is
F = -mg sin θ. When θ is small, sin θ = θ. Then the expression for time period of simple pendulum is given by T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\mu \mathrm{g}}\) When θ is large sin θ < θ, if the restoring force mg sin θ is replaced by mgθ, this amounts to effective reduction in the value of ‘g’ for large angles and hence an increase in the value of time period T.

c) Yes, because the working of the wrist watch depends on spring action and it has nothing to do with gravity.

d) We know that gravity disappears for a man under free fall, so frequency is zero.

Question 17.
A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of mass M is suspended in a car. The car is moving on a circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the pendulum makes small oscillations in a radial direction about its equilibrium position, what will be its time period ?
Solution:
Centripetal acceleration, ac = \(\frac{v^2}{R}\), it is acting horizontally.
Acceleration due to gravity = g acting vertically downwards.
Effective acceleration due to gravity
g’ = \(\sqrt{g^2+\frac{v^4}{R^2}}\)
∴ Time period, T = 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)
= 2π\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{g^2+v^4 / R^2}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 18.
A cylindrical piece of cork of density of base area A and height h floats in a liquid of density ρ1. The cork is depressed slightly and then released. Show that the cork oscillates up and down simple harmonically with a period.
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{h \rho}{\rho_1 g}}\)
where ρ is the density of cork. (Ignore damping due to viscosity of the liquid).
Solution:
Mass of the cylinder (m) = volume × density
= Ahρ ——- (1)
F1 = weight of the liquid displaced by the length l of the cylinder
= (Al)ρ1g —— (2)
Weight of the cylinder = mg —– (3)
In equilibrium position, mg = Alρ1g
m = Alρ1 —– (4)
F2 = A(l + y)ρ1g —– (5)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 24
Restoring force (F) = -(F2 – mg)
= -[A(l + y)ρ1g – Alρ1g]
F = Ayρ1g = -(Aρ1g)y —— (6)
In S.H.M. F = -Ky —– (7)
From eqs. (6) & (7),
spring factor (K) = Aρ1g ——(8)
Inertia factor, m = Ahρ ——- (9)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 25

Question 19.
One end of a U-tube containing mercury is connected to a suction pump and the other end to atmosphere. A small pressure difference is maintained between the two columns. Show that, when the suction pump is removed, the column of mercury in the U-tube executes simple harmonic motion.
Solution:
Consider a liquid of density ρ contained in a vertical U-tube of cross-sectional area A. Total length of the liquid column from P to P1 is L.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 26
Mass (m) = LAρ
PQ = y, P1Q1 = y, QQ1 = 2y
Restoring force (F) = -(A2y)ρg
= -(2Aρg)y —– (1)
F ∝ -y
Hence oscillations in U-tube is S.H.M.

Question 20.
An air chamber of volume V has a neck area of cross section a into which a ball of mass m just fits and can move up and down without any friction (Fig.). Show that when the ball is pressed down a little and released, it executes SHM. Obtain an expression for the time period of oscillations assuming pressure-volume variations of air to be isothermal (see Fig.).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 27
Solution:
Consider an air chamber of volume V with a long neck of uniform area of cross-section A, and a frictionless ball of mass m filled smoothly in the neck at position C. The pressure of air below the ball inside the chamber is equal to the atmospheric pressure. Increase the pressure on the ball by a little amount P, so that the ball is depressed to position D, where CD = y.
There will be decrease in volume and hence increases in pressure of air inside the chamber. The decrease in volume of the air inside the chamber.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 28
Here, negative sign shows that the increase in pressure will decrease the volume of air in the chamber.
Now, ρ = \(\frac{-E A y}{V}\)
Due to this excess pressure, the restoring force acting on the ball is
F = P × A = \(\frac{-E A y}{V} \cdot A\)
= \(\frac{-E A^2}{V} y\) —- (1)
Since F ∝ y and negative sign shows that the force is directed towards equilibrium position, if the applied increased pressure is removed from the ball, the ball with start executing linear SHM in the neck of chamber with C as mean position.
In a S.H.M., the restoring force,
F = -Ky —- (2)
Comparing (1) and (2), we have spring factor.
K = \(\frac{E A^2}{V}\)
Here, inertia factor = mass of ball = m
Inertia factor Spring factor
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 29

Note : If the ball oscillates in the neck of chamber under isothermal conditions, then E = P = Pressure of air inside the chamber, when ball is at equilibrium position. If the ball oscillates in the neck of chamber under adiabatic conditions, then E = υP, where v = \(\frac{c_p}{c_v}\).

Question 21.
You are riding in an automobile of mass 3000 kg. Assuming that you are examining the oscillation characteristics of its suspension system. The suspension sags 15 cm when the entire automobile is placed on it. Also, the amplitude of oscillation decreases by 50% during one complete oscillation. Estimate the values of (a) the spring constant k and (b) the damping constant b for the spring and shock absorber system of one wheel, assuming that each wheel supports 750 kg.
Solution:
Here, M = 3000 kg ; x = 0.15 cm ; if K is the spring constant of each spring, then spring constant of 4 springs in parallel to support the whole mass is, K = 4 K.
4 kx = Mg
k = \(\frac{M g}{4 x}\)
= \(\frac{3000 \times 10}{4 \times 0.15}\)
= 5 × 104 N/m.

b) If m is the mass supported by each spring, then m = \(\frac{3000}{4}\) = 750 kg.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 30

Question 22.
Show that for a particle in linear SHM the average kinetic energy over a period of oscillation equals the average potential energy over the same period.
Solution:
Consider a particle of mass m be executing S.H.M. with period T. The displacement of the particle at an instant t, when time period is noted from the mean position is given by
Y = a sin ωt
∴ Velocity 1 V = \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = aω cos ωt
K.E., EK = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)ma2ω2 cos2 ωt
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 31
Average P.E. over one cycle is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations 32

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 8 Oscillations

Question 23.
A circular disc of mass 10 kg is suspended by a wire attached to is centre. The wire is twisted by rotating the disc and released. The period of torsional oscillations is found to be 1.5s. The radius of the disc is 15 cm. Determine the torsional spring constant of the wire. (Torsional spring constant a is defined by the relation J = -α θ, where J is the restoring couple and θ the angle of twist).
Solution:
Here, m = 10kg; R = 15 cm = 0.15m; T = 1.55, ∝ = ?
Moment of inertia of disc,
I = \(\frac{1}{2} m R^2\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × (0.15)2 kgm2
Now T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{\alpha}}\)
so, α = \(\frac{4 \pi^2 1}{T^2}\)
= 4 × \(\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)^2\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{10 \times(0.15)^2}{(1.5)^2}\)
= 1.97Nm/rad.

Question 24.
A body describes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s. Find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 0 cm.
Solution:
Here, r = 5 cm = 0.05 m ; T = 0.25 ;
ω = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{T}}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{0.2}\)
= 10p rad/s
When displacement is y, then acceleration
A = -ω2y
Velocity, v = ω\(\sqrt{r^2-y^2}\)

Case (a) : When y = x cm = 0.05 m
A = -(10π)2 × 0.05
= -5π2 m/s2
V = 10π\(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0.05)^2}\) = 0

Case (b) : When y = 3 cm = 0.03 m
A = -(10π)2 × 0.03
= -3π2 m/s2
V= 10π × \(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0.03)^2}\)
= 10π × 0.04
= 0.4π m/s

Case (c): When y = 0,
A = -(10π)2 × 0 = 0
V= 10π\(\sqrt{(0.05)^2-(0)^2}\)
= 10π × 0.05
= 0.5π m/s.

Question 25.
A mass attached to a spring is free to oscillate, with angular velocity ω, in a horizontal plane without friction or damping. It is pulled to a distance x0 and pushed towards the centre with a velocity v0 at time t = 0. Determine the amplitude of the resulting oscillations in terms of the parameters ω, x0 and V0.
[Hint : Start with the equation x = a cos (ωt + θ) and note that the initial velocity is negative.]
Solution:
x = A cos (ωt + θ) dx
Velocity, \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -Aω sin (ωt + θ) dt
When t = 0, x = x0, and \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -V0
∴ x0 = A cos θ
-V0 = -Aω sin θ or A sin θ = \(\frac{V_0}{\omega}\)
Squaring and adding- (i) and (ii), we get
A2(sin2 θ + cos2 θ) = \(\left(\frac{v_0^2}{\omega^2}\right)+x_0^2\)
A = \(\left[\frac{v_0^2}{\omega^2}+x_0^2\right]^{1 / 2}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 7th Lesson Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 7th Lesson Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Is it necessary that a mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system?
Answer:
No. Any mass need not be present at the centre of mass of a system.
Ex : a hollow sphere, centre of mass lies at its centre.

Question 2.
What is the difference in the positions of a girl carrying a bag in one of her hands and another girl carrying a bag in each of her two hands?
Answer:
When the girl carries a bag in one hand (left) her centre of mass shifts towards other hands (right). In order to bring it in the middle, the girl has to lean towards her other side. When the girl carries a bag in each of her two hands (left and right), the centre of mass does not shift. The girl does not bend any side because of the same hags’ .w in her two hands.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 3.
Two rigid bodies have same moment of inertia about their axes of symmetry. Or the two, which body will have greater kinetic energy ?
Answer:
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω2 = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{L}^2}{1}\) , E oc \(\frac{1}{l}\) (∵ L = constant)
The rigid body having less moment of inertia will have greater kinetic energy.

Question 4.
Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel ?
Answer:
By connecting to the rim of wheel to the axle through the spokes the mass of the wheel gets concentrated at its rim. This increases its moment of inertia. This ensures its uniform speed.

Question 5.
We cannot open or close the door by applying force at the hinges, why ?
Answer:
When the force is applied at the hinges, the line of action of the force passes through the axis of rotation i.e, r = 0, so we can not open or close the door by pushing or pulling it at the hinges.

Question 6.
Why do we prefer a spanner of longer arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm ?
Answer:
The torque applied on the nut by the spanner is equal to the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotaion.
A spanner with longer arm provides more torque compared to a spanner with shorter arm. Hence longer arm spanner is preferred.

Question 7.
By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
A raw egg has some fluid in it and a hard boiled egg is solid form inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Therefore (Ir > Ib) That means M. I of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. As I × ω = constant; ∴ ωr < ωb. That means Angular Velocity of raw egg is less than angular velocity of boiled egg.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
Why should a helicopter necessarily have two propellers ?
Answer:
If there were only one propeller in the hellicopter then, due tio conservation of angular momentum, the helicopter itself would have turned in the opposite direction. Hence, if should have two propellers.

Question 9.
It the polar ice caps of the earth were to melt, what would the effect of the length of the day be ?
Answer:
Earth rotates about its polar axis. When ice of polar caps of earth melts, mass concentrated near the axis or rotation spreads out. Therefore, moment of Inertia I increases.

As no external torgue acts, L = I × ω = \(I\left(\frac{2 \pi}{T}\right)\)= constant. With increase of I, T will increase i.e. length of the day will increase.

Question 10.
Why is it easier to balance a bicycle in motion?
Answer:
When a bicycle is in motion, it is easy to balance because the principle of conservation of angular momentum is involved.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity. [A.P. – Mar. ‘18, ‘16, ‘15, ‘14, ‘13; TS – Mar. ‘16, ‘15, ‘14, ‘13]
Answer:
Centre of mass

  1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated, and the motion of the point represents motion of the body.
  2. It refers mass of to body.
  3. In a uniform gravitational field centre of mass and centre of gravity coincide
  4. Centre of mass of the body is defined to describe the nature of motion of a body as a whole.

Centre of gravity

  1. Fixed point through which the weight of the body act.
  2. It refers to the weight acting on all particles of the body
  3. In a non-uniform gravitational field, centre of gravity and centre of mass do not coincide.
  4. Centre of gravity of body is defined to know the amount of stability of the body when supported.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
Show that a system of particles moving under the influence of an external force, moves as if the force is applied at its centre of mass.
Answer:
Consider \(\overrightarrow{r_1}, \overrightarrow{r_2}, \overrightarrow{r_3} \ldots \ldots \overrightarrow{r_n}\) be the position vectors of masses m1, m2, m3 …………. mn of n particle system.
According to Defination of centre of mass.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 4
Differentiating the above equation w.r.t. time, we obtain
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 5
Where Fext represents the sum of all external forces acting on the particles of the system. This equation states that the centre of mass of a system of particles moves as if all the mass of the system was concentrated at the centre of mass and all the external forces were applied at that point.

Question 3.
Explain about the centre of mass of earth-moon system and its rotation around the sun.
Answer:
In the solar system the planets have different velocities and have complex two dimensional motion. But the motion of the centre of mass of the planet is simple and translational. consider the earth and moon system. We consider that the earth is moving around the sun in an elliptical path. But actually the centre of mass of earth and moon moves in an elliptical path round the sun. But the motion of either earth or moon is complicated when considered separately, more over we say that moon goes round the earth.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 6
But actually earth and moon are revolving round their centre of mass such that they are always on opposite sides of the centre of mass. Here the forces of attraction between earth and moon are internal forces.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 4.
Define vector product. Explain the properties of a vector product with two examples. [T.S. AP – Mar. 15]
Answer:
The cross product of two vectors is given by \(\vec{C}=\vec{A} \times \vec{B}\). The magnitude of the vector defined from cross product of two vectors is equal to product of magnitudes of the vectors and sine of angle between the vectors.

Direction of the vectors is given by right hand corkscrew rule and is perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors.
∴ \(|\vec{C}|\) = AB sin θ. and \(\vec{C}\) = AB sin θ \(\hat{n}\). Where, \(\hat{n}\) is the unit vector perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\)
Example: 1) Torque is cross product of position vector and Force. i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{T}}=\vec{r} \times \vec{F}\)
2) Angular momentum is cross product of position vector and momentum
i.e., \(\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}\)

Properties:

  1. Cross product does not obey commutative law. But its magnitude obeys commutative low.
    \(\vec{A} \times \vec{B} \neq \vec{B} \times \vec{A} \Rightarrow(\vec{A} \times \vec{B})=-(\vec{B} \times \vec{A}),|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|=|\vec{B} \times \vec{A}|\)
  2. It obeys distributive law \(\vec{A} \times(\vec{B} \times \vec{C})=\vec{A} \times \vec{B}+\vec{A} \times \vec{C}\)
  3. The magnitude of cross product of two vectors which are parallel is zero.
    Since θ = 0; \(|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|\) = AB sin 0° = 0
  4. For perpendicular vectors, θ = 90°, \(|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}|\) = AB sin 90° \(|\hat{n}|\)= AB

Question 5.
Define angular velocity(u). Derive v = r ω. [T.S. Mar. 16]
Answer:
Angular velocity (ω):
The rate of change of angular displacement of a body is called angular velocity, i.e., ω = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Derivation of v = rω
consider a rigid body be moving with uniform speed (v)along the circumference of a circle of radius r. Let the body be displaced from A to B in a small interval of time At making an angle ∆θ at the cantre. Let the linear displacement be ∆x from A to B.
From the property of circle, length of arc = radius × angle
∆x = r ∆θ
This equation is divided by ∆t, and taking
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 1

Question 6.
Define angular acceleration and torque. Establish the relation between angular acceleration and torque. [T.S. Mar. 18]
Answer:
Angular acceleration :
The rate of change of angular velocity is called angular acceleration
i.e., α = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Torque : The rate of change of angular momentum is called torque or The moment of Force is called Torque.

Relation between angular acceleration and Torque: Consider a rigid body of mass ‘M’ rotating in a circular path of radius ‘R’ with angular velocity ‘ωω’ about fixed axis.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 2
By definition, τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}(\mathrm{I} \omega)}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Where I = MR2 = moment of inertia of a body
τ = I \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\) [∵ I = constant]
But \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \omega}{\mathrm{dt}}\) α
∴ τ = Iα

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 7.
Write the equations of motion for a particle rotating about a fixed axis?
Answer:
Equations of motion for a particle rotating about a fixed axis:
1. ωf = ωf + αt [∵ like v = u + at]
2. θ = \(\left(\frac{\omega_f+\omega_t}{2}\right) t\) [∵ like v = \(\left(\frac{v_1+v_2}{2}\right) t\)]
3. θ = ωit + \(\frac{1}{2}\) α t2 [∵ like s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2]
4. ωf2 – ωi2 = 2 α θ [∵ like v2 – u2 = 2as]
Where ωi = Initial angular velocity
ωf = Final angular velocity
α = Angular acceleration
θ = Angujar displacement
t = time

Question 8.
Derive expressions for the final velocity and total energy of a body rolling without slipping.
Answer:
Expression of velocity of a body Rolling down an inclined plane:
Consider a rigid body of mass M and radius R rolling down an inclined plane from a height h . Let v the linear speed acquired by the body when it reaches the bottom of the plane and k is its radius of gyration.

According to law of conservation of Energy, we have P.E of body on top of inclined plane = K.E of a body at the bottom of inclimed plane
When a body rolls down an incline of height h, we apply the principle of conservation of energy.
P.E at the top – K.E of translation + K.E of rotation
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Expression of Total energy of a body Rolling down on an inclined plane:
Suppose a body (Sphere) is rolling on a surface. Its motion can be treated as a combination of the translation of the centre of mass and rotation about an axis passing through the centre of mass. The total kinetic energy E can written as
E = ET + ER
Where ET = Translational kinetic energy
and ER = Rotational kinetic energy
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) MR2 ω2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mk2ω2
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) M ω2 (R2 + K2)
where k is radius of gyration
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Mv2 (1 + \(\frac{K^2}{R^2}\)) [∵ ω = \(\frac{V}{R}\)]

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
a) State and prove parallel axis theorem.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a rigid body about any axis is equals to the sum of moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through centre of mass (lg) and product of mass of body and square of perpendicular distance between two parallel axis.
∴ I = IG + mr2
Proof : Consider a rigid body of mass M. Let I and IG are the moment of inertia of a body about parallel axes X and Y respectively.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 7
Let ‘r’ be the perpendicular distance between two axes.
Moment of inertia about ‘X’ axes is
I = Σm(OP)2 ………………. (1)
Moment of inertia about Y axes is
IG = Σm(GP)2 …………….. (2)
from ∆4 OQP, OP2 = (OQ)2 + (PQ)2
= (OG + GQ)2 + (PQ)2
= OG2 + (GQ)2 + 2.OG.GQ + (PQ)2
= OG2 + (GP)2 + 2(OG) (GQ) (∴ (GP)2 = (GQ)2 + (PQ)2)
Multiplying both sides by Σm,
⇒ Σm(OP)2 = Σm(OG)2 + Σm(GP)2 + 2Σm(OG)(GQ)
from (1) and (2), I = mr2 + IG + 2Σm (OG) (GQ)
But sum of moments of particles about centre of mass is zero.
i.e., Σm (OG) (GQ) = 0
∴ I = IG + mr2
Hence proves.

b) For a thin flat circular disk, the radius of gyration about a diameter as axis is k. If the disk is cut along a diameter AB as shown in to two equal pieces, then find the radius of gyration of each piece about AB.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 8
Answer:
For thin circular disk, the radius of gyration about a diameter
AB is, K = \(\sqrt{\frac{I}{M}}\)
Where M = mass of disk
I = M.I of disk
The disk is cut into two halves about AB, when each,
Mass M’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{2}}\) and each M.I, I = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Therefore Radius of gyration of each piece is
K’ = \(\sqrt{\frac{I^{\prime}}{M^{\prime}}}=\sqrt{\frac{\left(\frac{I}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{M}{2}\right)}}=\sqrt{\frac{I}{M}}\) = k

Question 2.
a) State and prove perpendicular axes theorem.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a plane lamina about an axes perpendicular to its plane is equal to sum of moment of inertia of lamina about the perpendicular axes in its plane intersecting each other at a point, where the perpendicular axes passes.
i.e., Iz = Ix + Iy
Proof’ Consider a particle of mass’m’ at p. Let it be at a distance Y from Z-axis. Here ‘X’ and Y axes are in plane Ramina and Z-axes perpendicular to plane lamina.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 9
Now,
Moment of inertia about X-axix, Ix = Σmx2
Moment of inertia about Y-axis, Iy = Σmy2
Moment of inertia about Z-axis, Iz = Σmr2
From ∆4 OQP, r2 = x2 + y2
multiplying both side with Σm,
⇒ Σmr2 = Σmx2 + Σmy2
⇒ Iz = Ix + Iy
Hence proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

b) If a thin circular ring and a thin flat circular disk of same mass have same moment of inertia about their respective diameters as axes. Then find the ratio of their radii.
Answer:
For a thin flat circular dist, M.I., Ir = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}_{\mathrm{r}}^2}{2}\)
For a thin flat circular dist, M.I., Id = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}_{\mathrm{d}}^2}{2}\)
Given that Ir = Id
\(\frac{M R_r^2}{2}=\frac{M R_d^2}{4} \Rightarrow \frac{R_r^2}{R_d^2}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ \(\frac{R_r}{R_d}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \text { or } R_r: R_d=1: \sqrt{2}\)

Question 3.
State and prove the principle of conservation of angular momentum. Explain the principle of conservation of angular momentum with examples. [A.P. Mar 16]
Answer:
Statement: Angular momentum of a body remains constant when the external torque is zero.
L = I ω = constant K.
or I1 ω1 = I2 ω2.
If the moment of Inertia of a body is lowered, the angular velocity of the body co increases.
Proof:
By derfination, the rate of change of angular momentum is called Torque.
i.e., τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
If τ = 0 ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 0
or L = constant k
⇒ L1 = L2
∴ I1 ω1 = I2 ω2
Example 1): When a man with stretched out arms stands on a turn table which is revolving then his moment of inertia is high. If he folded his hands, the moment of inertia decreases and hence the angular velocity, linear velocity increase, but the period decreases. In both cases angular momentum remains constant.

Example 2): An acrobat from a swing in a circus, leaves the swing with certain angular momentum, with his arms and legs stretched. As soon as he leaves the swing he pulls his hands and legs together thus lowering his M.I. and increasing his angular velocity. He then quickly makes somersaults in air and finally lands on a net or ground.

Problems

Question 1.
Show that a(b × c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the three vectors a, b and c.
Solution:
Let a parallele piped be formed on three vectors.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 10
Which is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallel piped.

Question 2.
A rope of negligible mass is wound 4. round a hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and redius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30N ? What is the linear acceleration of the rope ? Assume that there is no slipping.
Solution:
Here M = 3kg, R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Moment of intertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis
I = MR2 = 3(0.4)2 = 0.48 kgm2
Force applied F = 30 N
∴ Torque, τ = F × R= 30 × 0.4 = 12 N – m.
If α is the angular acceleration, produced, then from τ = Iα
α = \(\frac{\tau}{\mathrm{l}}=\frac{12}{0.48}\) = 25 rads-2
Linear acceleration, a = Rα = 0.4 × 25 = 10 m/s2

Question 3.
A coin is kept a distance of 10 cm from the centre of a circular turntable. If the coefficient of static friction between the table and the coin is 0.8 find the frequency of rotation of the disc at which the coin will just begin to slip.
Solution:
Here, radius, r = 10cm = 0.1 m; μs = 0.8
F = μmg
mrω2 = μmg
2 = μg
ω = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{r}}=\sqrt{\frac{0.8 \times 9.8}{0.1}}=\sqrt{8 \times 9.8}\)
= 8.854 rad/s
w = 2πn
∴ frequency n = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{8.854}{2 \times 3.14}\) = 1 .409rps
n = 1.409 × 60 = 84.54 rpm

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 4.
Particles of masses 1g, 2g, 3g…. 100g are kept at the marks 1 cm. 2cm, 3cm ….100cm respectively on 2 meter scale. Find the moment of inertia of the system of particles about a perpendicular bisector of the meter scale. –
Solution:
By adding all the masses, we get M = 5050g
= 5.050 kg
= 5.1 kg
and L = 1 m
M.I. of the meter scale = \(\frac{\mathrm{mL}^2}{12}=\frac{5.1 \times 1^2}{12}\)
= 0.425kg m2
= 0.43kg -m2

Question 5.
Three particles each of mass 100g are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length 10 cm. Find the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centroid Of the triangle and perpendicular to its plane.
Solution:
m = 100 g = 100 × 10-3kg
Side a = 10 cm
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 11

Question 6.
Four particles each of mass 100g are placed at the corners of a square of side 10 cm. Find the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane. Find also the radius of gyration of the system.
Solution:
mass m = 100g
= 100 × 10-3kg
M = 4m = 400 × 10-3kg
radius r = 10cm
= 10 × 10-2m
Moment of Inertia I = Mr2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 12

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 7.
Two uniform circular discs, each of mass 1 kg and radius 20 cm, are kept in contact about the tangent passing through the point of contact. Find the moment of inertia of the system about the tangent passing through the point of contact.
Solution:
Mass m = 1kg; r = 20cm = 20 × 10-2m
I = I1 + I<sub2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 13
I1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\) + MR2
I1 = \(\frac{5\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\)
Similarly I2 = \(\frac{5\mathrm{MR}^2}{4}\)
∴ I = \(\frac{10 \mathrm{MR}^2}{4}=\frac{10 \times 1 \times\left(20 \times 10^{-2}\right)^2}{4}\) = 0.1 kg-m2

Question 8.
Four spheres, each diameter 2a and mass ‘m’ are placed with their centres on the four corners of a spuare of the side b. Calculate the moment of inertia of the system about any side of the square.
Solution:
I1 = mb2
I2 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2
I3 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2
I4 = mb2
∴ Moment of inertia of the system
I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
= mb2 + \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2 + \(\frac{2}{5}\) ma2 + mb2
I = \(\frac{4}{5}\) ma2 + 2mb2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 14

Question 9.
To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed or 200 rads-1, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 Nm. What is the power required by the engine ? (Note : uniform angular velocity in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice applied torque is needed to counter frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Solution:
Here, ω = 200 rad/s, torque τ = 180 N – m, power p = ?
As p = τ ω
∴ p = 180 × 200 = 3600.watt = 36 kw.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 10.
A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the metre stick ?
Solution:
Let M be the mass of stick concentrated at L, the 50 cm, mark.
For equilibrium about G’ the 45 cm mark,
10g (45 – 12) = mg(50 – 45)
10 g × 33 = mg × 5
M = \(\frac{10 \times 33}{5}\) = 66 gram.

Question 11.
Determine the kinetic energy of a circular disc rotating with a speed of 60 rpm about an axis passing through a point on its circumference and perpendicular to its plane. The circular disc has a mass of 5kg and radius 1m.
Solution:
Here M = 5kg; R = 1 m;
ω = 2π × \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{t}}\) = 2n × \(\frac{60}{60}\) rad /s = 2π rad/s
The M.I of disc about parallel axis passing through a point on its circumferance
I = \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{2}\) + MR2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2
∴ Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2 ω2 = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 5 × (1)2 × (2π)2
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 5 × 4π2 = 15 × (\(\frac{22}{7}\)2
∴ K.E = 148.16 J.

Question 12.
Two particles each of mass m and speed v Travel in opposite directions along parallel lines separated by a distance. Show that the vector angular momentum of the two particle system is the same whatever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken.
Solution:
Given that m1 = m2 = m;
\(\vec{V}_1=\vec{V}_2=\vec{V}\)
momentum of 1st particle p1 = \(\mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
∴ p1 = \(\mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
momentum of 2nd particle \(\vec{\mathrm{P}}_2=\mathrm{mV}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 15
If two particles moves oppositely on
Circumference of circle, distance d = 2r
Angular momentum of 1st particle w.r.t
Centre ‘O’ is \(\vec{L_1}=\vec{r} \times \vec{P}_1=\vec{r} \times m \vec{V}\)
Angular momentum of 2nd particle w.r.t
centre ‘O’ is \(\vec{\mathrm{L}_2}=\vec{\mathrm{r}} \times \vec{\mathrm{P}_2}=\vec{\mathrm{r}} \times \mathrm{m} \vec{\mathrm{V}}\)
∴ \(\vec{L_1}=\vec{L_2}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 13.
The moment of inertia of a fly wheel making 300 revolutions per minute is 0.3 kgm 2 Find the torque required to bring it to rest in 20s.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 16

Question 14.
When 100 J of work is done on a fly wheel, its angular velocity is increased from 60 rpm to 180 rpm. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel ?
Solution:
Here, Initial frequency
n1 = \(\frac{60}{60}\) = 1Hz
Initial angular velocity
ω1 = 2π n1 = 2π rad /sec
Final frequency n2 = \(\frac{180}{60}\) = 3Hz
Final angular velocity
ω2 = 2π n2 = 2π × 3 = 6π rad/sec
Work done = 100 J from work – energy therorem,
Workdone = change in K.E.
W = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω22 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) I ω12
100 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I [(6π)2 – (2π)2]
100 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I (32π)2
I = \(\frac{200}{32 \pi^2}\) = 0.634 kg – m2
∴ I = 0.634 kg- m2

Additional Problems

Question 1.
Give the location of the centre of mass of a (i) sphere (ii) cylinder (iii) ring and (iv) cube. each of uniform mass density. Does the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the body?
Solution:
In all the four cases, as the mass density is uniform, centre of mass is located at their respective geometrical centres.
No, it is not necessary that the center of mass of a body should lie on the body for example in caSe of a circular ring. Center of mass is at the centre of the ring, where there is no mass.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
In the HCl molecule the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms Is about 1.27 Å(1 Å = 10-10m). Find the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that a chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom Is concentrated in its nucleus.
Solution:
Let the mass of the H atom = m unit, mass of the Cl atom = 35.5 m units
Let cm be at the distance xÅ from Htom
∴Distance of cm from CL atom = (1.27 – x) Å
It cm is taken at the origin,
then mx + (1.27 – x) 55.5m = 0
mx = (1.27 – x) 35.5 m.
Negative sign indicates that if chlorine atom is on the right side of cm (+), the hydrogen atom is on the left side of cm, so leavning negative sign, we get
x + 35.5 x = 1.27 × 35.5
36.5 x = 45.085
x = \(\frac{45.085}{36.5}\)
= 1.235
x = 1.235 Å
Hence cm is located on the line joining centres of H and d atoms at a distance 1.235 Å from H.

Question 3.
A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley moving uniformly with a speed V on a smooth horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner, what is the speed of the CM of the (trolley + child) system ?
Solution:
The speed of the centre of mass of the system , (trolley + child) shall remain unchanged, when the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner. This is because forces involved in the exercise are purely internal i.e., from within the system. No external force acts on the system and hence there is no change in velocity of the system.

Question 4.
Show that the area of the triangle contained between the vectors a and b is one half of the magnitude of a × b
Solution:
Let \(\vec{\mathrm{a}}\) represented by \(\vec{\mathrm{OP}}\) and \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\) be represented by \(\vec{\mathrm{OQ}}\).
Let ∠POQ = θ
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 17
∴ area of ∆ OPQ = \(\frac{1}{2}|\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|\), which was to be proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 5.
Show that a.(b × c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the three vectors a, b and c.
Solution:
Let a parallel piped be formed on three vectors.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 18
Where \(\hat{n}\) is unit vector along \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}\) perpendicular to the plane containing \(\) and \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\). Now \(\vec{\mathrm{b}}\) = (a) (be) cos 0°
= abc
Which is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped.

Question 6.
Find the components along the x. y. z axes of the angular momentum 1 of a particle whose position vector is r with components x, y, z and momentum is p with components px, py, and pz,. Show that if the particle moves only in the x-y plane the angular momentum has only a z-component.
Solution:
For motion in 3D, the position vector \(\vec{\mathrm{r}}\) and linear momentum vector \(\vec{\mathrm{p}}\) can be written in terms of their rectangular components as follows.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 19
Comparing the coefficient of k on both sides, we have Lz = xpy – ypx.
Therefore the particle moves only in x-y plane. The angular momentum has only z component.

Question 7.
Two particles, each of mass m and speed v. travel in opposite directions along parallel lines separated by a distance d. Show that the vector angular momentum of the two particle system is the same what ever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken.
Solution:
From fig, vector angular momentum of the two particle system any point A on x1 y1 is.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 20
Similary, vector angular momentum of the tw.o particle system, a bout any pt. B on x2y2 is
\(\vec{L_B}=m \vec{v} \times d+m \vec{v} \times 0=m \vec{v} d\)
Let us consider any other point (on AB, where AC = x)
∴ Vector angular momentum of the two particle system about c is
\(\vec{L_c}=m \vec{v}(x)+m \vec{v}(d-x)=m \vec{v} d\)
Clearly, \(\vec{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{A}}}=\vec{\mathrm{L}_{\mathrm{B}}}=\vec{\mathrm{L}_C}\)
Which has to be proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
A non-uniform bar of weight W is suspended at rest by two strings of negligible weight as shown in figure. The angles made by the strings with the vertical are 36.9 and 53.1° respectively. The bar is 2 m long. Calculate the distance d of the centre of gravity of the bar from its left end.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 21
From fig (b)
θ1 = 36.9°, θ2 = 53.1°
If T1, T2 are the tensions in two strings, then for equilibrium along the horizontal,
T1 sin θ1 = T2 sin θ2
(or) \(\frac{T_1}{T_2}=\frac{\sin \theta_2}{\sin \theta_1}=\frac{\sin 53.1^{\circ}}{\sin 36.9^{\circ}}\)
= \(\frac{0.7407}{0.5477}\) = 1.3523
Let d be the distance of center of gravity c of the bar from the left end.
For rotational equilibrium about c,
T1 cos θ1 Xd = T2 cos θ2 (2 – d)
T1 cos 36.9° × d = T2 cos 53.1° (2 – d)
T1 × 0.8366 d = T2 × 0.6718 (2 – d)
Put T1 = 1.3523 T2 and solve to get
d = 0.745 m.

Question 9.
A car weight 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on each front wheel and each back wheel.
Solution:
Here, m = 1800 kg
Distance between front and .back axles = 1.8 m
Distance of center of gravity (c) behind the front axle = 1.05 m
Let R1 and R2 be the forces exerted by the level ground on each front wheel and each back wheel. As it is dear from fig.
R1 + R2 = mg = 1800 × 9.8
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 22
For rotational equilibrium about C,
R1 × 1.05 = R2 (1.8 – 1.05) = R2 × 0.75 ………….. (i)
\(\frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{0.75}{1.05}=\frac{5}{7}\)
Putting in (i)
\(\frac{5}{7}\) R2 + R2 = 1800 × 9.8
R2 = \(\frac{7 \times 1800 \times 9.8}{12}\)
= 10290 N
R1 = \(\frac{5}{7}\) R2
= \(\frac{5}{7}\) × 10290
= 7350 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 10.
(a) Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment of inertia of the sphere about any of its diameters to be 2 MR2/5. where M is the mass of the sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
Solution:
a) Moment of inertia of sphere about any diameter = \(\frac{2}{5}\)MR2
Applying theorem of parallel axes,
Moment of inertia of sphere about a tangent to the sphere = \(\frac{2}{5}\)MR2 + M(R)2
= \(\frac{7}{5}\)MR2.

(b) Given the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about any of its diameters to be MR2/4, find its moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge.
Solution:
We are given, moment of inertia of the disc about any of its diameters = \(\frac{1}{4}\)MR2.
i) Using theorem of perpindicular axes, moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through its center and normal to the disc = 2 × \(\frac{1}{4}\)MR2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2
ii) Using theorem of parallel axes, moment of inertia of the disc passing through a point on its edge and normal to the disc
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)R2 + MR2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) MR2.

Question 11.
Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry, and the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing through its centre. Which of the two will acquire a greater angular speed after a given time.
Solution:
If M is mass and R is radius of the hollow cylinder and the solid sphere, then
M.I of hollow cylinder about its axis of symmetry I1 = MR2 and
M.I of solid sphere about an axis through its 2 , centre, I1 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) MR2
Torque applied, I = I1 α1 = I2 α2
\(\frac{\alpha_2}{\alpha_1}=\frac{l_1}{l_2}=\frac{M^2}{\frac{2}{5} M R^2}=\frac{5}{2}\)
α2 > α1
From ω = ω0 + αt, we find that for given ω0 and t, ω2 > ω1 to, i.e. angular speed of solid sphere will be greater than angular speed of hallow sphere.

Question 12.
A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100 rad s-1. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the cylinder ? What is the magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis ?
Solution:
Here, M = 20 kg, R = 0.25 m, w – 100 g-1
Moment of inertia of solid cylinder
= \(\frac{\mathrm{MR}^2}{2}=\frac{20 \times(0.25)^2}{2}\) = 0.625 kg/m2
K.E of rotation = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.625 × (100)2 = 3125 J
Angular momentum, L = Iω
= 0.625 × 100
= 62.5 Js.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 13.
a) A child stands at the centre of a turntable with his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set rotating with an angular speed of 40 rev/miri. How much is the angular spped of the child if he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/5 times the initial value ? Assume that the turntable rotates without friction.
Solution:
Here, intial angular speed ω1 = 40 rev/min, ω2 = ?
Final moment of inertia, I2 = \(\frac{2}{5}\)I, Intial moment of Inertia
As no external torque acts in the process, therefore
Iω = constant
i.e. I2ω2 = I1ω1
ω2 = \(\frac{I_1}{I_2}\) ω1 = \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 40
= 100 rpm

b) Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of rotation. How do you account for this increase in kinetic energy ?
Solution:
Final K.E of rotation, E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)I2ω22
Intial K.E of rotation, E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)I2ω12
\(\frac{E_2}{E_1}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} l_2 \omega_2^2}{\frac{1}{2} l_1 \omega_1^2}=\left(\frac{l_2}{l_1}\right)\left(\frac{\omega_2}{\omega_1}\right)^2\)
= \(\frac{2}{5} \times\left(\frac{100}{40}\right)^2=\frac{5}{2}\) = 2.5
∴ K.E of rotation increase. This is because child spends internal energy folding back his hands.

Question 14.
A rope of negligible mass is wound roung a hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ? what is the linear acceleration of the rope ? Assume that there is no slipping.
Solution:
Here M = 3kg, R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Moment of Inertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis
I = MR2 = 3(0.4)2 = 0.48 kgm2
Force applied F = 30 N
∴ Torque, τ = F × R = 30 × 0.4 = 12 N – m.
If α is the angular acceleration, produced, then from τ = Iα
α = \(\frac{\tau}{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{12}{0.48}\) = 25 rads-2
Linear acceleration, a = Rα = 0.4 × 25 = 10 m/s2.

Question 15.
To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s-1, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 N m. What is the power required by the engine ? (Note : uniform angular velocity in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice, applied torque is needed to counter frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Solution:
Here, ω = 200 rad/s, torque τ = 180 N – m, power p = ?
As p = τω
∴ p = 180 × 200 = 3600 watt = 36 kw.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 16.
From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is a R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of gravity of the resulting flat body.
Solution:
Suppose mass per unit area of the disc = M
∴ Mass of original disc
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 23
M = πR2 × m
Mass of portion removed from the disc
M’ = π\(\left(\frac{R}{2}\right)^2 \times m=\frac{\pi R^2}{4} m=\frac{M}{4}\)
In fig, mass M is connected at O and mass
M’ is concentrated at O’, where OO’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{2}}\).
After the circular disc of mass M’ is removed, the remaining portion can be considered as a system of two masses M at 0 and – M’ = \(\frac{\mathrm{-M}}{\mathrm{4}}\) at O’. If x is the distance of centre of 4 mass (p) of the remaining part, then
x = \(\frac{M \times O-M^{\prime} \times \frac{R}{2}}{M-M^{\prime}}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{-M}{4} \times \frac{R}{2}}{M-\frac{M}{4}}=\frac{-M R}{8} \times \frac{4}{3 M}=\frac{-R}{6}\)
Negative sign shows that p is the left O.

Question 17.
A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the metre stick ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 24
Solution:
Let m be the mass of stick concentrated at c, the 50 cm, mark,
For equilibrium about c’ the 45 cm mark,
10g (45 – 12) = mg(50 – 45)
10 g × 33 = mg × 5
m = \(\frac{10 \times 33}{5}\)
= 66 gram.

Question 18.
A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of the same heights but different angles of inclination, (a) Will it reach the bottom with the same speed in each case ? (b) Will jt take longer to roll down one plane than the other ? (c) If so, which one and why ?
Solution:
Let v be the speed of the solid sphere at the bottom of the incine. Applying principle of conservation of energy, we get
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
As I = \(\frac{2}{5}\) mr2; \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{2}{5}\) mr22 = mgh
as rω = v, \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{5}\) mv2 = mgh
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{10}{7} \mathrm{gh}} .\)
As h is same in two cases, v must be same i.e., It will reach the bottom with the same speed. Time taken to roll down the two planes will also be the same, as their height is the same.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 19.
A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of mass has a speed of 20 cm/s. How much work has to be done to stop it ?
Solution:
Here, R = 2m, M = 100 kg v = 20 cm/s = 0.2 m/s.
Total energy of the hoop = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (MR)2ω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
= mv2.
Work required to stop the hoop = total energy of the hoop
w = mv2 = 100(0.2)2 = 4 joule.

Question 20.
The oxygen molecule has a mass of 5.30 × 10-26 kg and a moment of inertia of 1.94 × 10-46 kg m2 about an axis through its centre perpendicular to the lines joining the two atoms. Suppose the mean speed of such a molecule in a gas is 500 m/s and that its kinetic energy of rotation is two thirds of its kinetic energy of trans-lation. Find the average angular velocity of the molecule.
Solution:
Here, m = 5.30 × 10-26 kg
I = 1.94 × 10--46 . kgm2
v = 500 m/s
If \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{2}}\) is mass of each atom of oxygen and 2r is the distance between the two atoms as shown in fig. then
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 25
= 6.7 × 10-12 rod/s.

Question 21.
A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. At the bottom of the inclined plane the centre of mass of the cylinder has a speed of 5 m/s.
a) How far will the cylinder go up the plane ?
b) How long will is take to return to the bottom ?
Solution:
Here θ = 30°, v = θm/s
Let the cylinder go up the plane upto a height h
From \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (\(\frac{1}{2}\) mr2) ω2 = mgh
\(\frac{3}{4}\) mv2 = mgh
h = \(\frac{3 v^2}{4 g}=\frac{3 \times 5^2}{4 \times 9.8}\) = 1.913 m
If s is the distance up the inclined plane, then as sin θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{s}^2}\)
s = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sin \theta}=\frac{1.913}{\sin 30^{\circ}}\) = 3.826 m
Time taken to return to the bottom
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 s\left(1+\frac{k^2}{r^2}\right)}{g \sin \theta}}=t \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 3.826\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)}{9.8 \sin 30^{\circ}}}\) = 1.53 s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 22.
As shown in Fig. the two sides of a step ladder BA and CA are 1.6 m long and hinged at A. A rope DE, 0.5 m is tied half way up. A weight 40 kg is suspended from a point F.1.2 m from B along the ladder BA. Assuming the floor to be frictionless and neglecting the weight of the ladder, find the tension in the rope and forces exerted by the floor on the ladder.
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 26
(Hint: Consider the equilibrium of each side of the ladder separately.)
Solution:
Data seems to be insufficient

Question 23.
A man stands on a rotating platform, with his arms stretched horizontally holding a 5 kg weight in each hand . The angular speed of the platform is 30 revolutions per minute. The man then brings his arms dose to his body with the distance of each weight from the axis changing from 90cm to 20 cm. Thd moment of inertia of the man together with the platform may be taken to be constant and equal to 7.6 kg m2
(a) What is his new angular speed ? (Neglect friction.)
b) Is kinetic energy conserved in the process ? If not, form where does the change come about ?
Solution:
Here l1 = 7.6 × 2 × 5(0.9)2 = 15.7 kgm2
ω1 = 30 rpm
l2 = 7.6 + 2 × 5(0.2)2 = 8.0 kgm2
ω2 = ?
According to the principle of conservation of angular momentum
l2ω2 = l1ω1
ω2 = \(\frac{l_1}{l_2} \omega_1=\frac{15.7 \times 30}{8.0}\) = 58.88 rpm

Question 24.
A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is fired into a door and gets embedded exactly at the centre of the door. The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and rotates about a vertical axis practically without friction. Find the angular speed of the door just after the bullet embeds into it.
(Hint : The moment of inertia of the door about the vertical axis at one end is ML2/3.)
Solution:
Angular momentum imparted by the bullet
I_ = mv × r = (10 × 10-3) × 500 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 2.5
Also, L = \(\frac{M L^2}{3}=\frac{12 \times 1.0^2}{3}\) = 4kgm
As L = Lω
∴ ω = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{1}=\frac{2.5}{4}\) = 0.625 rad/sec.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 25.
Two discs of moments of inertia I, and I2 about their respective axes (normal to the disc and passing through the centre), and rotawing with angular speeds ω1, and ω2 are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident,
(a) .What is the angular speed of the two-disc system ?
(b) Show that the kinetic energy of the combined system is less than the sum of the initial kinetic energies of the two discs. How do you account for this loss in energy ? Take ω1 ≠ ω1.
Solution:
Here, total intial angular momentum of the two discs L1 = I1ω1 + I2ω2
Under, the given conditions, moment of intertia of the two disc system = (I1 + I2)
If ω is angular speed of the combined system, the final angular momentum of the system
L2 = (I1 + I2
As no external torque is involved in this excercise, therefore, L2 = L1
(I1 + I2)ω = I1ω1 + I2ω2
ω = \(\frac{I_1 \omega_1+I_2 \omega_2}{I_1+I_2}\)

b) Initial K.E of two disc E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) I1ω12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) I2ω22
Final K.E of the system E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (I1 + I22
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 27
∴ E1 – E2 > 0 or E1 > E2 or E2 < E1
Hence there occurs a loss of K.E in the process. Loss of energy = E1 – E2. This loss must be due to friction in the contact of the two discs.

Question 26.
a) Prove the theorem of perpendicular axes.
(Hint: Square of the distance of a point (x, y) in the x – y plane from an axis through the origin and perpendicular to the plane is x2 + y2).
Answer:
Statement: The sum of moments of inertia of a plane lamina about any two perpendicular axes in its plane is equal to its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through the point of intersection of the first two axes.

Proof : Consider a plane lamina revolving about the Z axis. Let ‘O’ be the origin of the axis. Imagine a particle of mass ‘m’ lying at a distance ‘r’ from point ‘o’ on the plane. Let x, y be the coordinates of the point P.
Thus r2 = x2 + y2
Then the moment of the body about x-aixs
Ix = Σm y2
The moment of inertia of the body about y-axis.
Iy = Σm x2
Then the moment of inertia of the body about Z-axis
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 28
Iz = Σm r2
Iz = Σm(x2 + y2)
Iz = Σm x2 + Σm y2 = Iy + Ix
∴ Iz = Ix + Iy
Hence perpendicular axes theorem is proved.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

b) Prove the theorem of parallel axes.
(Hint: If the centre of mass is chosen to be the origin Σmiri = 0).
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a plane lamina about an-axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through the centre of mass and the product of its mass and square of the distance between the two axes i.e., I0 = IG + Mr2
Let IG is the moment of inertia of the plane lamina about the axis Z2 passing through the centre of mass.
I0 is the moment of inertia of the plane lamina about an axis Z1
Let M be the mass of the lamina and r be the distance between the two axes . Then
I0 = IG + mr2.
Proof : Let a particle of mass m is situated at P. Moment of inertia about the axis passing through 0 is
dl = m op2 or I = Σm op2.
Join the lines PO and PG and draw the line PQ and Join with the line extending from OG.
From the trainagle POQ, OP2 = OQ2 + PQ2
OP2 – (OG + GQ)2 + PQ2 + OQ = OG + GQ
OP2 = OG2 + 2OG . GQ + (GQ2 + PQ2)
OP2 – OG2 + 2OG. GQ + GP2
OP2 = OG2 + GP2 + 2OG.GQ
[∵ From the ∆le PGQ, GP2 = PQ2 + GQ2]
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 29
Multiplying with Σm on both side
Σm OP2 = Σm OG2 + Σm GP2 + Σm OG. GQ
But Σm OG2 = Mr2
(∵ OG is constant and Σm = M, total mass of the body)
Σm GP2 = IG
Σm OP2 = I0
∴ I0 = Mr2 – IG + 2r ΣmGQ
Σm.GQ = 0
[∵ The moment of all the particles about the centre of mass is always zero]
I0 = IG + Mr2
Thus the theorem is proved.

Question 27.
Prove the result that the velocity u of translation of a rolling body (like a ring, disc, cylinder or sphere) at the bottom of an inclined plane of a height h is given by υ2 = \(\frac{2 g h}{\left(1+k^2 / R^2\right.}\) using dynamical consideration (i.e. by consideration of forces and torques). Note k is the radius of gyration of the body about its symmetry axis, and R is the radius of the body. The body starts from rest at the top of the plane.
Solution:
When a body rolls down an incline of height h, we apply the principle of conservation of energy.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 30
K.E of translation + K.E of rotation = P.E at the top
i.e . \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2 = mgh
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (mk2) ω2 = mgh
As w = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m \(\frac{k^2}{R^2}\)v2 = mgh
or mv2 (1 + \(\frac{k^2}{R^2}\)) = mgh
v2 = \(\frac{2 g h}{\left(1+\frac{K^2}{R^2}\right)}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 28.
A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed ω0 is placed lightly (without any translational push) on a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the disc is R. What are the linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc shown in Fig. ? Will the disc roll in the direction indicated ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 31
Solution:
Using the reaction v = rω,
we get
for point A, VA = Rω0, along AX
for point B, VB = Rω0, along BX
for point C, Vc = (\(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{2}}\) ω0 parallel to AX,
The disc will not rotate, because it is placed on a perfectly frictionless table, without, rolling is not possible.

Question 29.
Explain why friction is necessary to make the disc in Figure roll in the direction indicated.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 31
(a) Give the direction of frictional force at B and the sense of frictional torque before perfect rolling begins.
(b) What is the force of friction after perfect rolling begins ?
Solution:
To roll a disc, we require a torque, which can be proved only by a tangential force. As force of friction is the only tangential force in this case, it is necessary.
(a) As frictional force at B opposes the velocity of point B, which is to the left, the frictional force must be to the right. The sense of frictional torque will be perpendicular to the plane of the disc and outwards.

(b) As frictional force at B decreases the velocity of the point of contact B with the surface, the perfect rolling begins only when velocity of point B becomes zero. Also, force of friction would become zero at this stage.

Question 30.
A solid disc and a ring, both of radius 10 cm are placed on a horizontal table simultaneously, with initial angular speed equal to 10 π rad s-1. Which of the two will start to roll earlier ? The co-efficient of kinetic friction is μk = 0.2.
Solution:
Here, intial velocity of centre of mass is zero i.e, u = 0.
Frictional force causes the GM to accelerate
μk mg = ma ∴ a = μk g
As v = u + at ∴ v = 0 + μk gt
Torque due to friction causes retardation in the intial angular speed ω0.
i.e. μk mg × R = – Iα
α = \(\frac{\mu_k \mathrm{mgR}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
ω = ω0 + αt
∴ ω = ω0 – \(\frac{\mu_k \mathrm{mgRt}}{\mathrm{I}}\)
Rolling begins, when v = Rω from (ii) and (iv)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 32
Comparing (vi) and (vii) we find that the disc would begin to roll earlier than the ring We can calculate the values of t from (vi) and (vii) using known values of μk, g, R and ω0.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 31.
A cylinder of mass 10kg and radius 15 cm is rolling perfectly on a plane of inclination 30°. The coefficient of static friction μs = 0.25.
(a) How much is the force of friction acting on the cylinder?
(b) What is the work done against friction during rolling?
(c) If the inclination θ of the plane is increased, at what value of θ does the cylinder begin to skid, and not roll perfectly?
Solution:
Here, m = 10 kg, r = 15 cm = 0.15 m
θ = 30°, μs = 0.25
Accelaration of the cylinder down the incline,
α = \(\frac{2}{3}\)g sin θ = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 9.8 sin 30° = \(\frac{9.8}{3}\) m/s2
a) Force of friction, f = mg sin θ – ma = m(g sin θ – α) = 10(9.8 sin 30° – \(\frac{9.8}{3}\)) = 16.4 N
b) During rolling the point of contact is at rest. Therefore work done against friction is zero
c) For rolling without slipping/skidding μ = \(\frac{1}{3}\) tan θ
tan θ = 3μ
= 3 × 0.25 = 0.75
θ = 37°.

Question 32.
Read each statement below carefully, and state, with reasons, if it is true or false;
(a) During rolling, the force of friction acts in the same direction as the direction of motion of the CM of the body.
(b) The instantaneous speed of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(c) The instantaneous acceleration of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(d) For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.
(e) A wheel moving down a perfectly italic inclined plane will undergo slipping (not roiling) motion.
Solution:
a) The statement is false.

b) True. This is because rolling body can be imagined to be rotating about an axis passing through the point of contact of the body with the ground.
Hence its instantaneous speed is zero.

c) This is not true. This is because when the body is rotating its instantaneous acc is not zero.

d) It is true. This is because once the perfect rolling begins, force of friction becomes zero. Hence work done against friction is zero.

e) The statement is true. This is because rolling occurs only on account of friction which is tangential force capable of providing torque. When the inclined plane is perfectly smooth it will simply slip under the effect of its own weights.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 33.
Separation of Motion of a system of particles into motion of the centre of mass and motion about the centre of mass :
(a) Show P = \(\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{i}}^{-}+\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{V}\)
Where Pi is the momentum of the ii the particle (of mass mi) and p’i + miv’i. Note relative velocity of the ith particle relative to the centre of mass. Also, prove using the definition of the centre of mass Σp’i = 0
(b) Show K = K’ + 1/2MV2
Where K is the total kinetic energy of the system of particles. K’ is the total kinetic energy of the system when the particle velocities are taken with respect to the centre of mass and MV2/2 is the kinetic energy of the translation of the system as a whole (i.e. of the centre of mass motion of the system). The result has been used in Sec. 7.14.
(c) Show L = L’ + R × MV
Where L’ = Σri Pi is the angular momentum of the system about the centre of mass with velocities taken relative to the centre of mass. Remember r’i = ri – R rest of the notation is the standard notation used in the chapter. Note L1 and MR × V can be said to be angular momenta, respectively, about and of the centre of mass of the system of particles.
(d) Show \(\frac{d l^{\prime}}{d t}=\sum r_i^{\prime} \frac{d p^{\prime}}{d t}\)
Further, show that \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}^{\mathrm{l}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = τ’ext
Whereτ’ext is the sum of all external torques acting on the system about the centre of mass.
(Hint: Use the definition of centre of mass and Newton’s Third Law. Assume the internal forces between any two particles act along the line joining the particles.)
Solution:
a) Let m1, m2, … mi mass points have the position vectors \(\overrightarrow{r_1}, \overrightarrow{r_2}, \overrightarrow{r_i}\) w.r.t origin ‘O’. The position vector of C.M. say \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\)
i.e., \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}=\frac{m_1 \overrightarrow{r_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{r_2}+\ldots}{m_1+m_2+\ldots}=\frac{m_i r_i}{M}\)
where i = 1, 2, 3 .
Now, let us change the origin to O’ and assume that the C.M is now at p’ with
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 33
Multiplying eqn. (1) by mi and differentiating w.r.t to time, we get
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 34
even if we change the origin, the position of
centre of mass will not change i.e., Σp’i = 0

b) In rotational kinematics, K.ET of the system of particles = K.ET of the system when the particle velocities are taken w.r.t to CM + K.E of the translation of the system as a whole (i.e. of the C.M motion of the system)
i.e. \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1v12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2v22 + …..
= [\(\frac{1}{2}\) m1v12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2v2 +……] + \(\frac{1}{2}\)Mv2
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mivi2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mivi2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
∴ k = k’ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
where M = total mass of particles
and y = velocity of C.M motion of the system.

c) From eq. (1), we have
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 35
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 36

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Find the centre of mass of three particles at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The masses of the particles are 100g, 150 g, and 200 g respectively. Each side of the equilateral triangle is 0.5 long. [A.P. & T.S. Mar.18]
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 37
With the x – and y-axes chosen as shown in Fig. 7.9, the coordinates of points O, A and B forming the equilateral triangle are
respectively (0, 0), (0, 5, 0), (0.25. \(\sqrt{3}\) ). Let the masses 100 g, 150g and 200g be located at O, A and B be respectively. Then.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 38

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 2.
Find the centre of mass of a triangular lamina.
Solution:
The lamina (∆LMN) may be subdivided into narrow strips each parallel to the base (MN) as shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 39
By symmetry each strip has its centre of mass at its midpoint. If we joint the midpoint of all the strips we get the median LP. The centre of mass of the triangle as a whole therefore, has to lie on the median LP. Similarly, we can argue that it lies on the median MQ and NR. This means the centre of mass lies on the point of concurrence of the medians, i.e. on the centroid G of the triangle.

Question 3.
The density of the atmosphere at sea level is 1.29 kg/m3. Assume that it does not change with altitude. Then how high would the atmosphere extend ?
Solution:
The centres of mass C1, C2 and C3 of the squares are, by symmetry, their geometric centres and have coordinates (1/2,1/2), (3/ 2,1/2), (1/2,3/2) respectively.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 40

Question 4.
A 3m long ladder weighing 20 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet reston the floor 1 m from the wall as shown in Fig. Find the reaction forcesof the wall and the floor.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 41
Let AB is 3 m long, A is at distance AC = 1 m from the wall. Pythagoras theorem,
BC = 2\(\sqrt{2}\) m.
For translational equilibrium, taking the forces in the vertical direction, N – W = 0 ……….. (i)
Taking the forces in the horizontal direction,
F – F1 = 0 ……………. (ii)
taking the moments of the forces about A,
2\(\sqrt{2}\) F1 – (1/2) W = 0 ………….. (iii)
Now W = 20 g = 20 × 9.8 N = 1960.0 N
From (i) N = 196.0
From (iii) = F1 = W/4 \(\sqrt{2}\) = 196.0/4 \(\sqrt{2}\)
= 34.6 N
From (ii) F = F1 = 34.6 N
F2 = \(\sqrt{F^2+N^2}\) = 199.0 N

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 5.
Find the scalar and vector products of two vectors
a = \((3 \vec{i}-4 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k})\) and b = \((-2 \vec{i}+\vec{j}-3 \vec{k})\)
Solution:
a.b = (\((3 \vec{i}-4 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k})\)) . (\((-2 \vec{i}+\vec{j}-3 \vec{k})\))
= -6 – 4 – 15 = -25
a × b = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
3 & -4 & 5 \\
-2 & 1 & -3
\end{array}\right|=7 \vec{i}-\vec{j}-5 \vec{k}\)
Note b × a = \(7 \vec{i}-\vec{j}-5 \vec{k}\)

Question 6.
Obtain Equation from first principles.
Solution:
The angular acceleration is uniform,
ω = αt + c (as α is comstant)
At t = 0, ω = ω0 (given)
From (i) we get at t = 0, ω = c = ω0
Thus, ω = αt + ω0 as required

Question 7.
The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm is 16 seconds, (i) What is its angular acceleration, assuming the acceleration to be uniform ? (ii) How many revolutions does the engine make during this time ?
Solution:
(i) We shall use ω = ω0 + αt
ω0 = initial angular speed in rad/s
= 2π × angular speed in rev/s
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times \text { angular speed in rev } / \mathrm{min}}{60 \mathrm{~s} / \mathrm{min}}\)
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times 1200}{60} \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}\)
= 40π rad/ s
Similarly ω = final angular speed in rad /s
= \(\frac{2 \pi \times 3120}{60} \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}\)
= 2π × 52 rad/s = 104 π rad/s
∴ Angular acceleration
α = \(\frac{\omega-\omega_0}{t}\) = 4π rad/s2
The angular acceleration of the engine = 4π rad/s2

(ii) The angular displacement in time t is given by
θ = ω0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) αt2
= (40π × 16 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4π × 162) rad
= (640 π+ 512 π )rad
= 1150π rad
Number of revolutions = \(\frac{1152 \pi}{2 \pi}\) = 576

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 8.
Find the torque of a force \((\bar{i}-\bar{j}+\bar{k})\) about the origin. The force acts on a particle whose position vector is \((\bar{i}-\bar{j}+\bar{k})\) (Mar.’14, 13)
Answer:
Here r = \(\vec{i}-\vec{j}+\vec{k}\)
and F = \(7 \vec{i}-3 \vec{j}+5 \vec{k}\)
We shall use the determinant rule to find the torque τ = r × F
τ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
\vec{i} & \vec{j} & \vec{k} \\
1 & -1 & 1 \\
7 & 3 & -5
\end{array}\right|=(5-3) \vec{i}-(-5-7) \vec{j}\) + \((3-(-7)) \vec{k}\)
or τ = \(2 \vec{i}+12 \vec{j}+10 \vec{k}\)

Question 9.
Show that the angular momentum about any point of a single particle moving with constant velocity remains constant throughout the motion.
Solution:
Let the particle with velocity v be at point P at some instant t. We want to calculate the angular momentum of the particle about an arbitrary point O.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 42
The angular momentum is 1 = r × mv. Its magnitude is mvr. sine, where θ is the angle between r and v as shown in Fig. Although the particle changes position with time, the line of direction of v remains the same and hence OM = r sin θ ; a constant.

Question 10.
Show that moment of a couple does not depend on the point about which you take the moments.
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 43
The moment of the couple = sum of the moments of the two forces making the couple
= r1 × (-F) + r2 × F
= r2 × F + r1 × F
= (r2 – r1) × F
But r2 + AB = r2, and hence AB = r2 – r1.
The moment of the couple, therefore, is AB × F.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 11.
What is the moment of intertia of a disc about one of its diameters ?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 44
x and y-axes lie in the plane of the disc and z is perpendicular Iz = Ix = Iy
Now, x and y axes are along two diameters of the disc, and by symmetry the moment of inertia of the disc is the same about any diameter. Hence
Ix = Iy
and Iz = 2Iy
But Ix = Iy
So finally, Ix = Iz/2 = MR2/4
Thus the moment of inertia of a disc about any of its diameter is MR2/4.
Find similarly the moment of inertia of a ring about any of its diameter. Will the theorem be applicable to a solid cylinder?

Question 12.
What is the moment of inertia of a rod of mass M, length l about an axis perpendicular to it through one end ?
Solution:
For the rod of mass M and length l, I = Ml2/ 12. Using the parallel axes theorem, I’ = I + Ma2 with a = l/2 we get.
I’ = \(\mathrm{M} \frac{l^2}{12}+\mathrm{M}\left(\frac{l}{2}\right)^2=\frac{\mathrm{M} l^2}{3}\)
We can check this independently since I is half the moment of inertia of a rod of mass 2M and length 21 about its midpoint,
I’ = \(2 \mathrm{M} \frac{4 l^2}{12} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{\mathrm{M} l^2}{3}\)

Question 13.
What is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent to the circle of the ring ?
Solution:
The tangent to the ring in the plane of the ring is parallel to one of the diameters of the ring. The distance between these two parallel axes is R, the radius of the ring. Using the parallel axes theorem.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 45
= 0.4kg m2
α = angular acceleration
= 5.0 Nm/0.4 kg m2 = 12.5 S-2

b)Work done by the pull unwinding 2m of the cord
= 25 N × 2 m = 50 J

(c) Let ω be the final angular velocity. The kinetic energy gained = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Iω2
since the wheel starts from rest. Now,
ω2 = ω20 +2αθ, ω0 = 0
The angular displacement θ = length of unwound string / radius of wheel = 2m / 0.2 m = 10 rad
ω2 = 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12.5 × 10.0 = 250 (rad/s)2
∴ K.E. gained = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.4 × 250 = 50 J

(d) The answers are the same, i.e. the kinetic energy gained by the wheel work done by the force. There is no loss of energy due to friction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Question 14.
A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly wheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord as shown in Fig. The flywheel is mounted on a horizontal axle -with frictionless bearings.
(a) Compute the angular acceleration of the wheel.
(b) Find the work done by the pull, when 2m of the cord is unwound
(c) Find also the kinetic energy of the wheel at this point. Assume that the wheel starts from rest.
(d) Compare answers to parts (b) and (c).
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 46
a) We use Iα = τ
the toque τ = FR
= 25 × 0.20 Nm (as R = 0.20m)
= 5.0 Nm

Question 15.
Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of the bodies are identical. Which of the bodies reaches the ground with maximum velocity ?
Solution:
We assume conservation of energy of the rolling body, i.e. there is no loss of energy due to friction etc. The protential energy lost by the body in rolling down the inclined plane (= mgh) must, therefore, be equal to kinetic energy gained. (See fig.) Since the bodies start from rest the kinetic energy gained is equal tot he final kinetic energy of the odies. From K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{cm}}^2\left[1+\frac{\mathrm{k}^2}{\mathrm{R}^2}\right]\)
K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2 1+\left(\frac{K^2}{R^2}\right)\) Where v is the final velocity of (the centre of mass of) the body.
Equating K and mgh
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion 47
Note v2 is independent of the mass of the rolling body:
For a ring, k2 = R2
vring = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1}}=\sqrt{g h}\)
For a solid cylinder K2 = R2/0.2
vdisc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1 / 2}}=\sqrt{\frac{4 g h}{3}}\)
For a solid sphere K2 = 2R2/5
vsphere = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g h}{1+1 / 52}}=\sqrt{\frac{10 g h}{7}}\)