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SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements

8th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Do you agree with “Western education and Christian Missionaries influenced the Social and Religious reform movement in India”. Why?
Answer:
Yes. I can agree with this statement.
Reasons: Many Christian missionaries came to India along with the European companies to preach Christianity in India. They severely criticised the existing religious practices and beliefs and tried to persuade people to adopt Christianity. At the same time they also established many educational institutions, hospitals and charity services with the view of serving the poor and needy. This helped in spreading many new ideas among people.

Soon a lively debate ensued between the missionaries and leaders of Hinduism and Islam as each tried to defend their own religious ideas. Such debates helped people not only to understand each others ideas but also encouraged them to enquire into the original and basic tenets of their own religions. Several European scholars studied the ancient literature of India, translated them and published them as books. (Since they studied books of the eastern countries they were called ‘Orientalists’.) Now these books are available for all to study.

As the ancient Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Persian and Arabic books got translated into European languages, the rich and diverse cultural heritage of the country was recognized by all. This enabled the people with new ideas to reinterpret their own religions better.
e.g.:

1. Rammohan Roy condemned idol worship.
2. Vivekananda asked to adopt some of the positive qualities of European culture like freedom and respect for women, work ethic, technology etc.
3. Swami Dayananda rejected all later additions to Hindu religion.
4. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan worked for the spread of modern education and social reforms among the Muslims.
5. The minimum age for marriage was raised to the 14 years.
6. Rammohan Roy fought against ‘Sati’.
7. Law was made to encourage widow remarriages.
8. Many established schools for girls.

Question 2.
What was the importance of printifig press in the development of reform movement?
Answer:
The Europeans introduced printing press in India. It made possible the appearance of many newspapers and magazines. Books were also published in different Indian languages. This made books accessible to a large number of people at a very low cost. People could now carry on debates and discussions through these newspapers, magazines and books and easily reach out to large number of people.

Question 3.
The main idea behind religious reform was to end complex rituals, worshipping of many gods and idol worship, purdah system. Do you think people have accepted these reforms ? Explain.
Answer:
People have accepted these reforms temporarily.
Reasons:

1. Now there was no existence of Brahmo Samaj. The members of it followed ‘Bhakti Path.’
2. Arya Samaj also accepted Vedic religion at the end.
3. At present, the Hindus are worshipping many Gods and their idols.
4. Complex rituals: People have accepted some of the rituals which are easy to follow.

Question 4.
Why do you think people like Ramabai paid special attention to the condition of widows?
Answer:
Many writings tell us about the pitiful conditions of the widows in their families. They suffered because they had no economic freedom and education. The people like Ramabai thought that “it was the biggest sin to endure the ill deeds and not oppose them.” So, they paid special attention to the condition of widows.

Question 5.
Explain the role of Raja Rammohan Roy as a social reformer in India in 19th century.
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy was born in Bengal in 1772. He was a great scholar of Sanskrit, Persian, English, and knew Arabic, Latin and Greek.
He also studied several religious philosophies like Hinduism, Islam, Christianity and Sufism. Having studied various religious books he was convinced that there is only one God and that worshipping of idols and making sacrifices were incorrect. He was convinced that all great religions had the same common beliefs and it was incorrect to criticise the religions of others. He also believed that we should accept a religious belief only if it is rational and if it is beneficial to people.
He rejected the authority of priests and called upon people to study the original books of their religions. He published his ideas in magazines and books using the new technology of printing to reach out to maximum number of people.
In 1828 Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj – an assembly of all those who believed in an universal religion based on the principle of One Supreme God. After the death of Rammohan Roy in 1833, the Brahmo movement was led by Devendranath Tagore and Keshav Chandra Sen. They popularised their ideas by lecturing all over India.

Question 6.
What was the main concern of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in promoting English creation?
Answer:

1. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was convinced that the bitterness between Muslims and the British must end.
2. In order to progress, Muslims should participate in government and get larger share in government jobs.
3. He thought that this was possible only through modern education.
4. This was the main concern of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan in promoting English education.

Question 7.
Different leaders thought of different ways in which the ‘untouchable’ castes can be made the equals with all others. Make a table with the suggestions of leaders like Phule, Bhagya Reddy Varma, Narayana Guru, Ambedkar and Gandhiji.
Answer:
Phule:

1. He opened a special school for the Mahar and Maang castes.
2. He wrote many books on caste discrimination.
3. They set up Satya Shodhak Samaj for low caste children.
4. He encouraged to conduct marriage and death ceremonies without the Brahmins.

Bhagya Reddy Varma :

1. He called upon Dalits to call themselves ‘Adi Andhras’.
2. To spread awareness in dalits he started ‘Jagan Mitra Mandali’.
3. He opened special schools.
4. He opposed religious misdeeds on dalit girls.
5. He encouraged Buddhism.

Narayana Guru:

1. He preached the idea of ‘One Jathi, One God and One Religion for all’.
2. He called upon the Ezhava community to give up several aspects of their low caste status.
3. He set up temples where no caste discrimination would be practised and very simple rituals would be followed without Brahmin priests.
4. He even said that building schools for children was more important than building temples.

Ambedkar:

1. He led many agitations for dalits.
2. He argued that the dalits should vote separately for dalit candidates to the legislatures.
3. Overcoming numerous social and financial obstacles, Ambedkar became one of the first dalits to obtain college education in India.
4. He founded an Independent Labour Party to represent the interests of the dalits.
5. Ambedkar was appointed as the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee, charged by the assembly to write India’s new constitution.

Gandhiji:
Around 1932 Gandhiji started a movement against untouchability. He called the ‘untouchable’ castes as Harijans or ‘People of God’. He wanted to ensure them equal access to temples, water sources and schools. This campaign was taken up by Congress in a big way and helped to bring millions of Dalits into the national movement.

Question 8.
Why does caste remain such a controversial issue today? What do you think was the most important movement against caste in colonial times?
Answer:
In addition to that one feels one’s caste is great. So caste is an important pillar in some celebrations of families. No caste, even higher or lower, people will agree to cross these limitations.
Bringing this ‘caste’ into social issues is causing many problems, e.g.: A dispute between two persons is created as a dispute between two castes.
I think the movement led by Satya Shodhak Samaj was the most important movement against caste in colonial times.

Question 9.
What did Ambedkar want to achieve through the temple entry movement?
Answer:
Ambedkar wanted to say that ‘All are equal before God and everyone has rights on God”.

Question 10.
How in your opinion were the movements of social reform effective in ridding Indian society of social evils? What social evils do you find today ? Which reform movements should be started to combact them ?
Answer:
The movements of social reforms were effective in ridding Indian society of social evils. These movements banned Sati and child marriages. These encouraged women education, school education and widow remarriages.
We find the following social evils today:

1. Corruption
2. Religionism,
3. Casteism
4. Dowry
5. Regionalism etc.

Today there is a silence in our society. No politician is working against these evils. Nobody is thinking of these.
The educated should think of these evils and respond. Otherwise, no reforms are introduced. The governments also should think of these issues.

Question 11.
Create a poster that reflects girls education and its importance.
Answer:

Poster on Girls’ Education

Despite all tall claims by the government and nagging by voluntary organizations, a vast majority of the girls are yet illiterate in India. During the last four decades since independence, much is being done to emancipate women. Education of girls is one of the basic features of the plan. Many schools and colleges are founded for girls.

Education has led to their economic independence and equality with the menfolk. They have now an honoured position in society and have secured their rights from the reluctant men but all this is confined chiefly to the urban areas. In rural areas most of the peopte-are-sWtfr against girls’ education.

Every village must have a girls’ school, or if that is not possible owing to lack of funds, parents should be persuaded to admit their daughters to boys’ schools thus promoting co-education.
Furthermore, the extreme poverty of the Indian masses makes it imperative that education for girls should be free up to the matriculation standard. If facilities for female education are provided in every village, it will also be possible to make it compulsory.

Special legislation should then be enacted to deal with parents who neglect the education of their daughters. This compulsion would be essential in early stages because most villagers are still too ignorant to understand the value of education for girls.

Question 12.
What qualities of Social Reformers you liked? Why?
Answer:
Qualities of Social Reformers I liked:

1. The reformers took recourse to propaganda in the Indian language to reach the masses.
2. They also used novels, dramas, short stories, poetry, the press and the cinema to spread their views.
3. Indian women played an active and important role in the struggle for independence of the country.
   Reason: Due to the hardwork of these reformists and other individuals many superstitious disappeared.

8th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What were the similarities and differences between the views of Rammohan Roy and Swami Vivekananda and Dayananda Saraswati ? (Textbook Page No. 213)
Compare the religious views of Ram Mohan Roy, Vivekananda and Dayananda and point out the similarities and differences among them.
(OR)
Compare the religious views of Rammohan Roy, Vivekananda and Dayananda, and point out the similarities and differences among them.
Answer:
Similarities:

1. All the three believed the Hindu Dharmic Literature.
2. They told that the best things of all the religions should be followed by all.
3. They opted social service as their ideal hobby.

Differences:

Dayananda	Rammohan Roy	Vivekananda
1) He rejected the orthodox Hindu religion.	1) He treated all the religions equal.	1) He treated Hindu religion as best of all.
2) He set up Arya Samaj.	2) He set up Brahmo Samaj.	2) He set up Ramakrishna Mission.
3) He treated all the religi­ons are false and gave a call to the people to return to Vedic Hindu religions.	3) He asked people to have faith in only one god.	3) He wanted to revive a reformed Hindu religion. He wanted the people to leave superstitions and to follow the Hindu religion.

Question 2.
How do you think were the early reformers influenced by European culture and Christianity? (Textbook Page No. 213)
Answer:

1. The early reformers were influenced by the positive qualities of European culture like freedom and respect for women, work ethic, technology etc. So they worked hard to abolish ‘Sati’ and child marriages and to encourage widow remarriages etc.
2. The persons who were influenced with their religion, propagated new systems like worshipping one Supreme God.
3. They were all educated in English. They studied many subjects for knowledge. So they encouraged English education and establishment of schools.
   Thus the early reformers were influenced by European culture and Christianity.

Question 3.
Do you see any similarities between the DAV schools and the MAO college? (Textbook Page No. 214)
Answer:

DAV (Dayananda Anglo Vedic) Schools	MAO (Mohammedan Anglo Oriental) college
1) These were established by the followers of Swami Dayananda.	1) This was established by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
2) To educate children in modern subjects and at the same time keep them in touch with their religion and culture.	2) It sought to teach English and science but in an Islamic atmosphere.
3) At the end they felt that they should focus on teaching Vedic religion and not modern subjects and counter the influence of other religions.	3) It later developed into the Aligarh Muslim University.

Question 4.
Do you think these demands are necessary even today? (Textbook Page No. 219)
Answer:
I do not think so.
Reasons: The Government of India is providing the ‘low’ castes with ‘reservations’ in all the sectors like education, employment etc.
All these people are educated equally with others and doing their jobs. They are participating and are in good positions in politics also. So I think these demands are not necessary today.

Question 5.
Compare the efforts of Narayana Guru and Jyotiba Phule. What similarities and differences do you see between them? (Textbook Page No. 219)
Answer:
Similarities:

1. Both opposed the caste system.
2. Both established many schools.
3. Both opposed the supremacy of Brahmins.

Differences:

Narayana Guru	Jhotiba Phule
1. He was a religious leader.	1. He was a social reformist.
2. He set up temples where no caste discrimination would be practised and very simple rituals would be followed without Brahmin priests.	2. He campaigned for special schools, colleges and hostels for the children of ‘low’ castes where the teachers too would be from ‘low’ castes.
3. He actively criticized caste system and called for end to all forms of caste discriminations.	3. He called upon the low castes to conduct marriage and death ceremonies without the Brahmins.

Question 6.
Recall the teachings of Buddha with regard to the caste system. (Textbook Page No. 220)
Answer:
Buddha preached that ‘All are equal’. He opposed caste and religious discriminations. He treated all his followers equal.

Question 7.
What are the similarities and differences in the approaches of Gandhiji and Ambedkar towards dalits? (Textbook Page No. 221)
Answer:
Similarities:

1. Both worked for Dalits.
2. Both were the members of Congress Party.

Differences:

Gandhiji	Ambedkar
1) Being a person of higher caste, he fought for dalits.	1) He fought for dalits as a dalit.
2) He reserved some seats in elections to dalits.	2) He argued that the dalits should vote separately for dalit candidates to the legislatures.
3) He fought for dalits from Congress.	3) He set up Independent Labour Party for dalits.
4) He continued himself in Hindu religion and fought for dalits.	4) He lost his faith in Hinduism and converted to Buddhism at the end of his life.

Question 8.
In what way do you think printing helped in the spread of these new ideas? (Textbook Page No. 213)
Answer:
The Europeans introduced printing press in India. It made possible the appearance of many newspapers and magazines. Books were also published in different Indian languages. This made books accessible to a large number of people at a very low cost. People could now carry on debates and discussions through these newspapers, magazines and books and easily reach out to large number of people.
Thus the printing helped in the spread of these new ideas.

Question 9.
If you had to choose between a DAV school, Gurukul School and a government run school, which one would you prefer to go to and why? (Textbook Page No. 213)
Answer:
I would prefer the government school.
Reason:

1. Here the teaching-learning process would be in a secular way.
2. All the students here would be treated equally.

Question 10.
You may have noticed that all the reformers tried to reinterpret the ancient religious books in order to defend their reformist ideas. Look at the examples of all the major reformers and see how they did this. (Textbook Page No. 214)
Answer:
1) Raja Rammohan Roy:
He studied several religious philosophies like Hinduism, Islam, Christianity and Sufism. Having studied various religious books he was convinced that there is only one God and that worshipping of idols and making sacrifices were incorrect. He was convinced that all great religions had the same common beliefs and it was incorrect to criticise the religions of others. He also believed that we should accept a religious belief only if it is rational and if it is beneficial to people. He rejected the authority of priests and called upon people to study the original books of their religions. He published his ideas in magazines and books using the new technology of printing to reach out to maximum number of people.

2) Swami Vivekananda:
He believed that Hindu religion was superior to all others. He emphasized the teachings of Upanishadas which were being translated and printed in large numbers.

3) Swami Dayananda Saraswathi:
He studied the Vedas and was convinced that they contained the true religion and he rejected all later additions to Hindu religion like many gods and goddesses, idol and temple worship and Brahmanic priesthood and caste system. He advocated worshipping one Supreme God through simple rituals and recitation of Vedic mantras. He rejected all other religions as false religions and wanted Hindus who had converted to other religions to return to Hinduism based on the Vedas.

Question 11.
Do you find any religious idea advocated by the above reformers which was not part of the Bhakti Movement? (Textbook Page No. 214)
Answer:
No. All the reformers advocated the religious ideas of the Bhakti Movement only.

Question 12.
Some people thought this situation (No place inside the classroom) was better than the total lack of education for untouchable people. Would you agree with this view? (Textbook Page No. 218)
Answer:
Yes. I do agree with them.
Jyothiba Phule and Ambedkar faced and ignored such situations and studied well. So they were able to pave the way to the next generations. Otherwise there will be the same situation at present.

Question 13.
Do you think dalits have equal access to temples, water sources and schools today? What problems do they still face? (Textbook Page No. 221)
Answer:
At present dalits have equal access to temples, water sources and schools. To say frankly they have equal access and reservations also. So we can say that there were no social problems to them.

Question 14.
Write a dialogue between supporters and opposers of widow remarriage. (Textbook Page No. 215)
1856 – At the time of first widow remarriage – Calcutta.

1. Srikanth Chattarji: Wow, this should be a golden page in the history of our nation. Here is an end to the problems of women. May God bless the women!
2. Mukhesh Bandopadhyaya: How dare you to talk like this Srikanth babu? This gives us several punishments in the hell. Arey – A marriage to widow.
   How could this be possible? A woman will go to some other’s family to develop their family, again to some other family. How could they do this?
   Oh God! Please save us and save our country.
3. Rajya Laxmi: Today is really a wonderful day. Child marriages and widowships etc., were curses on us. We have to work in our maternal and mother-in-law’s houses freely without any feelings. So this is a good beginning for us. We are very grateful to the God.

Question 15.
Do you think today equal importance is given to the education of girls or do girls still face discrimination? (Textbook Page No. 217)
Answer:
Equal importance is given to girls education with boys. To be frank the girl enrolment is more than boys in some schools and collges. But in some families girls face discrimination, mostly in some backward states.

Question 16.
What problems do girls face in getting educated which boys do not face? (Textbook Page No. 217)
Answer:

1. Girls are not encouraged for higher education.
2. Girls are not permitted to far off places for education.
3. Some courses are only meant for boys.

Question 17.
To what extent has the treatment of widows changed today? (Textbook Page No. 218)
Answer:
We can say that the attitude of the society is changed. Widows are treated equally with other women. Their elders are only arranging remarriages for them. Men are also taking a step forward to marry them. They are treated equally except in some religious traditions like marriages etc.

Question 18.
Do dalit girls and Muslim girls face special problems in education even today? (Textbook Page No. 218)
Answer:
Nowadays we seldom hear such a news from newspapers that dalit girls are facing some problems from others. They are also receiving education in classrooms along with others. Muslim girls also have separate schools. They are also studying without problems.

Question 19.
Find out about some important women leaders of the freedom struggle – Kalpana Dutt, Aruna Asaf Ali, Captain Lakshmi Sehgal, Sarojini Naidu, Kamladevi Chattopadhyaya, etc. (Textbook Page No. 220)
Answer:
1. Kalpana Dutt:
27.07.1913
08.02.1995.
She was later known as Kalpana Joshi. She was a member of prominent Republican Army in Chittagang and participated in the well known Chittagong Armoury Raid case 1930. Later she joined Communist Party of India.

2) Aruna Asaf Ali:
16.07.1908
27.09.1996
She played a leading role during the Quit India Movement. She unfurled the national flag at the Gowalia tank Maidan to signify the commencement of the Quit India Movement and became a legend for thousands of youth that rose to emulate her.
She was awarded Lenin Prize for Peace in 1975, Jawaharlal Nehru Award for Interna¬tional Understanding – 1991 and Bharata Ratna – 1998.

3) Captain Lakshmi Sehgal:
24.10.1914
23.07.2012.
In 1943 she met Netaji in Singapore. Their meeting changed her life. She started Rani of Jhansi Regiment. Then she became as Captain Lakshmi Sehgal. She was arrested by the British in May 1945.

4) Sarojini Naidu:
13.02.1879
02.03.1949.
The Nightingale of India – she was the second Indian woman to become the President of Indian National Congress. Her birthday was celebrated as Women’s Day in India.
She joined the movement in 1905 – Partition of Bengal. She came into contact with many people.

5) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyaya:
03.04.1903
29.10.1988.
She was a social reformer and freedom fighter. She joined the movement in 1923 during Non-Cooperation Movement. She was the first Indian woman to be arrested.

Question 20.
Why do you think was there bitterness between the Muslims and the British after 1857? (Textbook Page No. 214)
Answer:
Mohammadans invaded India many times from 6 AD/7AD. Later they occupied and ruled India till the arrival of the Britishers. Nearly 1200 years they ruled India. Even though there were some native rulers, they were small in number. After 1857, India was under the control of the British queen’s rule. Mohammadans were also treated as Indians. So, there was bitter¬ness between the Muslims and the British after 1857.

Question 21.
Why do you think was it important to get the government to pass laws for social reform? (Textbook Page No. 215)
Answer:
Some persons might have reformistic views. Some might reject them. So the people in the society could not follow these ideas. Even though they followed, they might be rejected by the society. So it was important to get the government to pass laws for social reforms.

Question 22.
Imagine that you are one of the students sitting in the school veranda and listening to the classes. What kind of questions would be raising in your mind ? (Textbook Page No. 218)
Answer:

1. Why should I sit here?
2. Why I am not allowed to sit inside?
3. Did I do any mistake
4. Why I am an untouchable?
5. Is it my mistake, taking birth in this caste?
6. Why shouldn’t they touch me?

Question 23.
Why do you think he (Jyotiba Phule) insisted on ‘low’ caste teachers to teach such students? (Textbook Page No. 219)
Answer:
Teachers of higher castes ill-treated and hurted the low caste students. They showed discrimination in the castes. In these conditions the process of learning might not be perfect. The teachers of low castes could not hurt these students. So he insisted on low caste teachers to teach such students.

Question 24.
How would the feeling that the dalits were the orginal inhabitants of Andhra Pradesh have helped in boosting the confidence of the dalits ? (Textbook Page No. 220)
Answer:
The feeling would raise the confidence in dalits. This confidence would strengthen them in fighting against the discrimination. That led them to their success.

Question 25.
Did all women get the right to vote in independent India? (Textbook Page No. 220)
Answer:
Yes, all women get the right to vote in independent India.

Question 26.
Create a poster that reflects on social Reforms.
Answer:

Poster on Social Reforms

Sometimes society becomes full of evils and vices. It is guided by blind faith and superstition. People do not try to know the relation between cause and effect. They believe in imaginary ghosts and spirits as the prime-mover of all social actions. They believe in animal sacrifice to please the deities. They also once believed in the human sacrifice. The social vices like child wives were in existence. The widows were not allowed to marry again. The wives were compelled to be burnt with their dead husbands and so on. Untouchability disabled a big section of people. In order to eradicate all these things social reforms were necessary. Social reforms are necessary at all times in order to get the society purged off any vice that creeps into it.

Great reformers are born to reform the society and to reform the religion. Because many times religion is the basis of the social behavior. Martin Luther in Germany and John Wicliff in great Britain were the great reformers in 18th century. In India we got Raja Rammohan Roy, Ishwar Chadra Vidyasagar, Swami Dayananda Saraswati, Ramakrishna, Paramhamsa, Swami Vivekananda, Mahatma Gandhi as the great reformers. In ancient times we had Gautama Buddha and Mahavir as the great religious and social reformers. In Orissa Mr. Madhusudan Das, Pandit Nilakantha Das and Acharya Harihar Das made attempt to reform the society.

Social reform is necessary, time and often. So we must reform our society whenever it is necessary. Social reform should base on science and morality. Social reform cannot be made by legislation, force or imposition. It can be made only by effective public education, though the necessity of legislation cannot be altogether ruled out.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 20 Post – War World and India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

NATO Pool	WARSA Pool
USA	Poland
Canada	Albania
Belgium	Romania
Denmark	Bulgaria
France	Flungary, etc.
Portugal
Britain, etc.

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Country	1990	1995	2000	2005	2014
USA	10,904	10,577	8,360	7,700	7,260
Russia / USSR	37,000	27,000	21,500	17,000	7,500

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Year	US	USSR
1965	33,000	10,000
1975	25,000	32,000
1985	24,000	45,000
1995	12,000	25,000
2005	11,000	16,000

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Communist and Socialistic block	Capitalistic and Democratic block
1. The communist block was lead by the USSR.	1. The capitalistic block was lead by the USA.
2. Here the process of development is controlled by the state.	2. Here, the private capitalists controlled the process of development.
3. Socialism and idea of equality exist here.	3. Democracy exists here.
4. Opposition was suppressed.	4. The USA promoted the idea of multiparty democracy.

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning
Question 1.
Do you agree with the following statements? Give reasons for your agreement or Contradiction.
a) The notion of private property is important to protect the forest.
b) All forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Over the centuries most people living on earth have reduced their dependence on forest for their livelihood.
Answer:
a) I agree with this statement. They were sent out of their homes and they lost that ‘ours’ feeling.
b) I agree with this statement. The trees and human beings are interdependent. So all forests need to be protected by human beings.
c) Yes, I agree with this. Many other kinds of employment and business opportunities were created on the earth. So the dependence on forests is reduced.

Question 2.
Create a timeline to show the major changes in use of forest over centuries. It may be necessary to look at your textbooks from previous classes.

Event	Changes affecting tribal life	Impact on forest
Emergence of agriculture
Arrival of the colonial rulers
Government rules

Answer:

Event	Changes affecting tribal life	Impact on forest
1. Emergence of agriculture	Due to this the tribals changed their traditional foods, and began to cultivate crops like cereals, grains etc.	Due to this tribals started shifting or podu cultivation. Forest land changed as agricultural land, but they took care to ensure the regeneration of animals and trees.
2. Arrival of the colonial rulers	After their arrival the tribals lost their control and rights over the forests. The laws restricted the customary rights of tribals and uses of forests. They became homeless.	Forests were under the control of Britishers and Forest Department. The land was handed over to farmers and zamindars. Britishers consumed much wood as the industries were developed.
3. Government rules	Things did not really change for the better of the tribal people even after independence. The govt, continued to follow the British forest policy. As a result of these policies the condition of the tribal people continued to worsen.	In 1988, the government declared National Forest Policy. The primary task is to associate the tribals in the protection and regeneration of forests. This led to Joint Forest Management (JFM). Next the Parliament passed Forest Rights Act in 2006 and resto­red the tribals rights on forests. At last the forests came into the hands of tribals.

Question 3.
Based on the details given in the above text, or from what you already know about the forests, compare the type of forest that is closest to your area of living on the following aspects.

Density of trees	Types of trees found	Special features of trees

Answer:
Ours is a Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. Our forest is as follows.

Density of trees	Types of trees found	Special features of trees
650 to 750 trees per acre	1) Maredu	– called as Bilwavriksh; favourite of Lord Shiva.
	2) Peepal	– favourite of Lord Vishnu. It has more electromagnetic power.
	3) Neem	– It is a form of energy. We treat it as ‘Amma’.
	4) Amla	– Medicinal plant (Lord Vishnu).
	5) Teak	– Hard wood; used for household purpose.
	6) Devdar	– It is descended directly from ‘Devlok’.
	7) Sal	– Hard wood; favoured by Vishnu; best for construction.

Question 4.
Observe the map of forests in Andhra Pradesh and find out which district (s) has/have the maximum forest covered area?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, Srikakulam and Prakasam districts have the maximum forest covered areas in our state.

Question 5.
A few children in a school participated in Vanamahotsavam programme and they planted some saplings. How do you respond to this?
Answer:
I appreciate this action very much. The children’s participation in this brightens the future of the country. But they should take care of their plants till they grow.

Question 6.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Forests of Andhra Pradesh’ and answer the question:
You read about some of the important kinds of forests in our state But how large are our forests? Are they increasing or decreasing? Let us find out. About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.

However, all this is not really forested as only about 16% of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest. This means that is about 7% of our forest lands are open grounds and with very few trees. Even this forest cover is dwindling due to felling, encroachment, mining etc. Every year about one hundred sq kilometres of forests are lost in our state
What suggestions do you have for increasing the forest cover in our state?

Answer:

1. Government should adopt social forestery scheme.
2. Plantations should be taken in bare lands in forests.
3. Consumption of forest products should be minimised.
4. Renewable sources of energy should be invented.
5. Forests should be protected from illegal activities.
6. Awareness should be created about the necessity of forests among the common people.
7. Plantations should be taken in the area of used up mines.

Question 7.
Locate the various places mentioned below different photographs of forests given in this chapter in an Atlas. What similarities and differences can you find among them?
Answer:
Similarities & Differences

Name of the Forest	Physiographic conditions	Location	Trees
1. Evergreen Forests	Regions which get very high rainfall and also have a very warm climate.	Equatorial regions or regions like Kerala and Andamans in India have evergreen forests. We do not have such forests in our state.	Dense forests with a very large variety of trees. Jamun, canes, bamboos, kadam etc. are some characteristic trees.
2. Decidious Forests	These grow in regions when it rains in only some months and is warm and dry during most of the year.	Most of the forests of our state fall in this catageory.	Vegi, Ageisa maddi, Billu Neem, Teak, Velaga, Yepi, Buruga and Moduga etc.
3. Thorny Forest	These grow in very dry areas with little rainfall and high temperatures.	These are located in Y.S.R. Kadapa, Chittoor Anantapur districts in our state.	Babul (Thumma) Balusu, Regu, Sandal Neem etc.

Question 8.
What are the differences between Ever green forests and Deciduous forests?
Answer:
Difference between Evergreen forests and Deciduous forests:

1. Evergreen forests: Evergreen plants in evergreen forests have leaves or needles that stay on the plant throughout all of the seasons. This does not mean that the needles or leaves never die or fall off. It means that when they do, they are replaced by new ones and the plant is never without greenary.
2. Deciduous forests: Deciduous trees in deciduous forests lose their leaves flow September onwards, with some trees, this is accompanied by stunniodelus autumn colours. This happens at different points throughout the autumn, depending upon, the species of tree and weather at the point that this occurs.

Question 9.
Observe the pictures and write a comment.

Answer:
Tragically, human beings operate under the belief, that they have the right to do what they please to animals.
On the earth, the plant kingdom and the animal kingdom appeared first, before human kingdom. But now the later occupied more land on the earth. So the forests and wild life are to be protected.
Additional Information:

Mineral kingdom
↓
Plant kingdom
↓
Animal kingdom
↓
Human kingdom

8th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have read about forests and people living forests in the previous classes. Can you recall some of them and talk about people who live in the forests? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
“Good morning all of you. Forests are lifeline of the lives. The area of forest should be 33% of the area of any country. But in India it is 23% only. These figures show our critical condition. Adivasis are 8% of our total population. Approximately 60% of them live in forests. They lead their lives in the lap of nature. Their traditions, customs, religious rituals, groups, agriculture – in every issue, they are different from others. Their welfare is our welfare. Save trees, they save us. Thank you one and all”.

Question 2.
What is a forest? There can be many ways of defining a forest. Write a definition of forests. Then discuss jointly in the class and write down points which seem to be correct to most students. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:
A large tract of land covered by trees is called a forest.
Definitions:

1. A forest is best defined as an ecosystem or assemblage of ecosystems dominated by trees and other woody vegetation.
2. A place where the environment is covered from all sides with trees and wildlife means.

Correct points:

1. It is ecosystem.
2. It is dominated by trees.
3. There are another woody vegetations also.
4. Its place is covered with trees, from all sides.
5. There is wildlife also.

Question 3.
Find out how the mangrove trees adapt to the special conditions of sea coasts.
(Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Mangroves, like desert plants have special adaptations for growing in low moisture and high salt conditions.
One special strategy for coping with high concentrations of salt is special salt – excreting glands on leaves.
Another is exclusion of salt from entering roots with water uptake. They have specialised aerial breathing roots known as pneumatophores.

Question 4.
You may remember reading about Equatorial forests in Nigeria. What are the main differences between the forests of Andhra Pradesh and the Equatorial forests? (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:

Forests of equatorial regions	Forests of Andhra Pradesh
1. These are extended on either side of the equator.	1. These are only to the north of the equator.
2. These are highly densed.	2. These are less densed.
3. The ground is wet and swampy.	3. The ground is semi wet and semi dry.
4. More species are found here.	4. Limited species are found here.
5. These are not fit for transport facilities.	5. These are fit for transport facilities.

Question 5.
Do you think there is any difference between a plantation of Eucalyptus trees or tea shrubs and a forest? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 57)
Answer:
Forest trees grow in both height and breadth. The diameter at the top should be more or less equal to its height.
Eucalyptus trees are long, but at the top they are not broad enough. The plantations in tea estates are grown upto a height of 3 to 4 feet. Otherwise, it will be useless. So I think there is a difference between these three varieties.

Question 6.
What was the difference between the protection of forests by the tribal people and by the Forest Department? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Tribals treated the forest as their mother. Their birth, life, death-every event was in the laps of forests. They felt no difference between them and forest. So they didn’t cause any harm or loss to the forests. In agriculture also they took necessary safety measures.

But the Forest Department officials usually belonged to distant and rich communities. They regarded the tribal people as ignorant and dangerous. They had no positive feeling about the forests.

This is the difference between protection of forest by the tribal people and by the Forest Department.

Question 7.
Can each of you draw a picture of a forest and compare them? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
In some pictures the forests are dense.
In some pictures there are gaps between tree trunks.
In some pictures some plain ground is visible in the forest.

Question 8.
Write a caption on the above cartoon in the contest of forest. (Textbook Page No. 50)
Answer:

1. “More usage makes us stand on the edge of a blade”.
2. “In front, there is crocodiles’ festival”. (Jovial cartoon)

Question 9.
Do you think it is important to have forests ? What will happen if all the forests are cleared and used up for growing crops, building factories or mines or houses for people to live ? Can’t we live without forests? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Both plant and human kinds are interdependent. We cannot live or lead life on the earth without forests. We breathe in O₂ and breathe out CO₂ and the plants vice-versa. 1/3 of the total land on the earth should be covered with trees or forests. Otherwise it leads to natural disasters.

Question 10.
“Every year about 100 sq. km of forests are lost in our state” – Is this a satisfactory situation? Discuss in your class. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
No, this is not a satisfactory situation. This affects our biodiversity, rainfall and soils etc. We can say this as critical condition.

Question 11.
Discuss in the class which way would have been better. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
It would have been better if the tribal people left alone to lead their traditional lives in the forests. Our government also followed the British policy which was not fair.

Question 12.
In what way do you think it (Forest Right act) makes up for the injustice done to the tribal people in the past 200 years?
Answer:
The act confers on forest dwellers and other traditional users of forests, their traditional rights over the forest and also title to lands they use. If implemented properly, this act can be used to undo the wrongs done to the tribal people for generations.

Question 13.
Discuss this in the class – do you think it is the correct way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people? How will it help in protecting the forests? What other steps need to be taken for this? (Textbook Page No. 61)
Answer:
I think this is the right way to redress the wrongs done to the tribal people. They are the children of the forests and they alone can protect them. But there should be some supervision on them to avoid the usage of forest products for commercial purpose. If they are provided with some minimum needs this could be controlled.

Question 14.
Some of you may be familiar with a nearby forest – its trees, plants, animals, rocks, streams, birds and insects. Describe to the class the forest in detail and what you do there. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli in East Godavari district. Our village is itself in a forest. This is on Bhadrachalam road. We are in the lap of nature’s beauty. Bamboo, Peepal, Neem, Amla, Teak, Sal etc., are the main trees here. Coffee and rubber plantations are also here. We can see wild animals also rarely. Different birds, colourful flies make us happy. Visitors from different places come here to enjoy the nature. We collect and eat the tubers, fruits, honey. If they are excess, we will take them to our nearest town to sell them. With these earnings we take our grains and cereals from the town.

Question 15.
Have you ever been to a forest to collect firewood, leaves or fruits and tubers? Tell everyone in the class about it and also make a list of all the things people in your area collect from the forests. How are they used? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
We live in Salur, Salur mandal in Vizianagaram district. My father Ramachandra Rao works in Private company Once we planned for ‘Chandi Homam’. We had to collect ‘Samidhalu’ (dry sticks of sacred trees) from the nearest forest. My friends and I went to the forest. We collected Peepal’s, Bilwa’s samidhalu. During that time we were afraid very much.
The people of this forest collect honey, medicinal plants, tree barks, amla, gum, tamarind etc., from the forest. They use them as their food and sell the unused in the nearest towns.

Question 16.
Our folk tales and Puranas and stories repeatedly mention forests. Can you relate in the class some such stories about the forests ? (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two great epics of our country. These two tell us about the ‘Aranya vasa’. This is the story of Ramayana. After the announcement of ‘Rama Pattabhishekam’, Kaika sent him to forests for 14 years. Rama went to the forest of ‘Dandakaranya’ with his brother Lakshmana and wife Sita. It is in Bastar district in central India. As the forest is known for this ‘Dandana’ (punishment), it got its name Dandakaranya. He lived there for a few years. When Ravana took away Sita with him, Rama went to Lanka to kill him. Later he killed Ravana in the war and returned to ‘Ayodhya’ after 14 years of exile.

Question 17.
Many forests are sacred and are worshipped by the people. Some forests are famous as the abode of some gods and goddesses. Find out about them and tell everyone in the class about them. (Textbook Page No. 49)
Answer:
At the end of ‘Dwapara yuga’ all the rishis and sages went to ‘Lord Brahma’. They requested ‘Brahma’ to suggest them a ‘sacred’ place to continue their further penance and to save themselves from the effect of ‘Kali’. Then Brahma took a sacred wheel and rolled it down on the earth and said wherever that wheel stopped, that would be the place. It stopped in ‘Naimisha’ which was in between Panchala and Kosala kingdoms. At present it is Sitapur, in Uttar Pradesh. It is on the banks of ‘Gomathi’ river. Now it is famous with its name ‘Naimisaranya’. This story is mentioned in Mahabharatha, Siva Purana etc.

Question 18.
Look at the map of Andhra Pradesh given on the showing the distribution of forests. Find out if your district has any forest and if yes, what kind of forest. (Textbook Page No. 54)
Answer:
Ours is East Godavari district. We have mangrove forest in our area.

Question 19.
Find out from your elders about their experience of CFM and also Social Forestry projects. (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
Madras Forest Act was introduced in 1882 and later it was changed as A.P. Forest Act 1882. Again another act was introduced in 1915. Other forest policies and rules were declared in 1956, 1967, 1970 and 1971. Joint Forest Management (J.F.M.) was introduced in 1990. It was changed as Community Forest Management (C.F.M) in Telangana. While this programme helped to bring together the Forest Department and the local communities, it only forced the tribal people to give up their earlier podu lands for forest regeneration. During the same time, several Tiger Sanctuaries were established in the forests to protect wild life.

In 1976 government introduced Social Forestry Scheme. Its aim was taking the pressure off the forests making use of unused and fallow land. These should be afforested. With the introduction of this, government formally recognised the local communities right to forest resources.

Question 20.
Which is the nearest forest area from your village or town ? Find out why this area still has tree cover and has not been converted into fields or habitations or mines. (Textbook Page No. 51)
Answer:
Ours is Maredumilli village in East Godavari district. It is situated on a hill top. Rampachodavaram is very very near to us. These two are forest areas. These two stood independent in the British period also. Most of the area was under the control of tribals. No minerals were found in this area.

Question 21.
Due to historical factors and physical conditions, this remains as forest only.
a) Do you think it is possible for people to take care of forests and use them as well?
b) What would they have done if someone had tempted them to cut trees and sell them in the markets? (Textbook Page No. 56)
Answer:
a) It is possible. In present society many people are cultivating fruits and vegetables. They are protecting their gardens by selling the fruits and vegetables.
b) They definitely oppose and reject the suggestion. For ex: All their festivals are related to trees. Mamidi panduga, Gongura panduga, Mutyalamma panduga etc. They may cut a branch or some else but not the trees. They don’t cut their home.

Question 22.
List all the causes for the decline of forests in the last 200 years. Do you think Poducultivation was also responsible for this? Give your arguments. (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
Causes for decline of forests :

1. Agriculture
2. Cattle rearing
3. Mega projects
4. Fires
5. Logging
6. Mangroves and shrimp farming
7. Mining, oil and gas

We can say that ‘Podu’ is also one of the reasons. The tribals left their traditional food, and depended on crops. So the land in forests is changed as agriculture land.

Question 23.
Why do you think the tribal people were not able to pay the land revenue demanded by the government? (Textbook Page No. 58)
Answer:
By one stroke of the government the tribal people were rendered homeless in their own homes. The government handed over these lands to zamindars and cultivators. The evicted tribal people had to work for these landlords. On the lands which the tribal people were to cultivate, they had to pay very high revenue. They had no habit or chance of saving money. So they were not able to pay the taxes.

Question 24.
Why do you think the government thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development? (Textbook Page No. 60)
Answer:
I think that the government had lost its foresight and thought that forest was not important for tribal people’s development.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Presidential System	Parliamentary System
1. The President is the chief head of the executive.	1. The President is the chief head of the state but not the executive.
2. The President has under him secretaries incharge of different departments.	2. The President has under him ministers in charge of different departments.
3. The President is not necessarily bound by the advice of his secretaries.	3. The President is generally bound by the advice of his ministers.
4. The President can dismiss any secretary at any time. Eg: America	4. The President can not do so. Eg: India

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Years	1951-60	1961-70	1971-80	1981-90	1991-2000
Constitutional Amendments:	7	15	22	22	16

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

The Parliamentary system of government	The Presidential system of government
1. The President is the head of the state but not of the executive.	1. The President is the Chief Head of the executive.
2. The President is the Normal Executive.	2. The President is the real executive.
3. The President is generally bound by the advice of the council of ministers.	3. The President is not bound by the advice of the council of ministers.
4. The President has no power to dismiss his ministers so long as they command a majority in parliament.	4. The President can dismiss any minister at any time.
5. The election procedure of the head of state is indirect.	5. The President elected directly by the people.

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Period of time	Number of amendments made to Constitution
1951 -1960	7
1961 -1970	15
1971 – 1980	22
1981 -1990	22
1991 – 2000	16
2001 – 2013	17

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development

8th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Correct the false statement:
a) Welfare functions of the government need to be monitored.
b) People need to allow the elected representatives alone to monitor the implementation of programmes.
c) Information officers can withhold the information for indefinite period.
d) By looking at various documents one can identify if the programmes are implemented without malpractices.
Answer:
a) True b) False c) False d)True
Correct of false statements :
b) People and the elected representatives should monitor the implementation of programmes.
c) Information officers cannot withhold the information for indefinite period. It should be given in the prescribed time.

Question 2.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Need for Information to Fight Corruption’ and answer the following:
Observe any of the government programme and make a report of its implementation in your area.
Answer:
In our area the government is giving pensions to the old people and handicapped. They give Rs. 200/- to the old and Rs. 500/- to the handicapped every month. They release these funds for every 2 or 3 months once. These pensions are given to the beneficiaries through the employs of local bodies.

They select one place to hand over these pensions. Everyone should reach there in prescribed time. There may be 400 to 500 beneficiaries in that centre. They should stand in a line for hours together and sometimes two or three days also. How pity this is ! We feel so sad for this. Why don’t the government send the pensions directly to their homes or to their accounts ? In this connection we request the government and its officials to view this issue in humanitarian grounds.

Question 3.
Collect a few success stories with regarding to Right To Information Act (RTI) from the newspapers and tell them in your class.
Answer:
Story – 1:
A 70 year old lady Laxmi, lost her son Anoop Singh in Delhi road accident. He was a traffic constable there. His wife was given his pension. Later she remarried some other person. Laxmi was left as an orphan. She used this RTI Act to gain access to files regarding the pension and other benefits of her son.
Story – 2:
Kshetramai of Bhuvaneswar bought a small piece of land and got it registered. But the clerk in the Sub Registrar Office did not hand over the documents to her for 11/2 years.
She complained in the camp of RTI Act. She got her documents within hours on the same day.
Story – 3:
Aashiyana, a thirteen year old Lucknow girl, had got raped by a gang of 6 boys. They gave a compalint in a police station. The prime accused showed an evidence that he was a minor at that time and went for a trial in a Juvenile Court. Then Aashiyana father Sabruddin has filed an application at District Magistrate Office under RTI Act. He has sought information that he was a major at the time of incident. Even though it was late, it was a success.
Story – 4:
RTI brought ban on dark film in motor cars. Use of films or any other material upon the wind screen or the side windows is impermissible in law w.e.f 4.5.2012.

Question 4.
RTE is a boon to the children. Explain.
Answer:
RTE law declares that all children of the age of 6 to 14 years have the right to free education and the state has to ensure building of sufficient schools in the neighbourhood of all children, appoint properly qualified teachers and make all necessary provisions. It also declares that the education should ensure all round development of the children, learning through activities, discovery and exploration and child friendly manner. It also states that children should be taught in their mother tongue and they should be free of fear, trauma and anxiety and be able to express their views freely.

In case free neighbourhood schools are not available, in case sufficient number of teachers are not available in the schools, or sufficient teaching learning materials are not available, or if a child is beaten or terrorised, or forced to study in unfriendly manner, such children can complain to the courts against the authorities. So it is a boon to the children.

Question 5.
Do you need any more rights? Why?
Answer:
After going through this lesson, I came to understand that rights have responsibilities. My country is fulfilling my needs. So I do not need any more rights. I try to safeguard the existing rights.

Question 6.
What information would you ask your Headmaster according to Right to Information Act?
Answer:
I ask the following information:

1. Strength of the school
2. Staff particulars
3. Syllabus and teaching-related issues etc.

Question 7.
How can you say that the Right to Information Act helps to face the corruption?
Answer:
Right to Information laws, or “Sunshine” laws as they are commonly called grant citizens the legal right to access information held by their governments, bringing much-needed transparency in the otherwise opaque functioning of government.

The law is increasingly being used to tackle high profile corruption also. The transparency will automatically limit the abuse of discretion, and thus acts as the check on corruption in any regime. So I can say that the Right to Information Act helps to face corruption.

8th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss how the information regarding a road construction or building of houses is maintained by contractors. (Textbook Page No. 206)
Answer:
To construct a road or to build a house, the owners will call tenders from the contractors. They select and appoint the contractor who quoted least price. The contractors should follow the norms in the construction.

1. What kind of cement is to be used?
2. What is the ratio of cement and sand …?
3. What is the measurement of the brick? etc….

All these should be decided and should be mentioned in a book. They should record the figures of coolies, their wages etc. The owner of the construction observes these things and the construction.
If he is satisfied, he pays the amount in installments.
If it is government construction, the government engineer observes all these things.

Question 2.
a) In the example above, (Text page No: 204) do you think Pavan and his mother are able to live with dignity?
b) What would give them a life with dignity?
c) Are Pavan and his mother free to do what they want?
d) Who is to blame for this kind of a life for Pavan and his mother? Are they respon¬sible for their own condition?
e) Whose duty is it to ensure that Pavan and his mother are able to live a life of dignity
and freedom? (Textbook Page No. 204)
Answer:
a) The persons, who do not participate in illegal and immoral works are able to live with dignity.
Pavan’s mother is working hard in some others’ house. It is dignified. But I think Pavan’s begging is not correct and dignified.
b) “Work hard – Lead the life”.
This only gives them a life with dignity.
c) Any higher official or employee should bend their head before their authorities. They should follow the rules and regulations. But they are not free to do what they want. Like wise Pavan and his mother should obey the rules of their employers in work matter. In the personal life they can do as they like.
For e.g.: If Pavan’s mother does not like the work, she can leave it. She can join some – where else also.
d) The system of the society and its organization are only responsible for their own kind. In this society the rich become the richest and the poor become the poorest. This is also the same.
Some Indians have belief in ‘Karma Siddhantha’. If they are such, they should blame their fate.
e) It is the duty of the society and the government to ensure that Pavan and his mother are able to live a life of dignity and freedom.

Question 3.
With the help of your teacher make a table of the orders, reports, advices, log books etc., that he or she received from the education department during the last one year. What documents does the school maintain to report to the education department? How is the record for mid-day meal kept? (Textbook Page No. 208)
Answer:
A table of the orders, reports, advices and log books etc:

1. The school aged children in the related area should be in the school. For this necessary steps should be taken.
2. Drop-outs should be rejoined.
3. Textbooks, uniform with free of cost, should be supplied to the students.
4. Special classes should be conducted to the SSC students.
5. Mid day meals scheme should be implemented properly.
6. Eye camps should be conducted to the students and further treatment also.
7. De-warming tablets should be supplied to the students.
8. Necessary steps to be taken to improve the regularity of the students.
9. Monthly meetings should be conducted with parents etc.

The documents maintained by the school:

1. Admission Register
2. T.C. Book
3. Attendance Registers
4. Mid-day meals register
5. Salaries & Bills register
6. Visitors book
7. Mid-day meals record
   Date:

   Class & Sec.	Roll	Attendance	No. of Meals taken	Class Teacher’s signature

8. Daily Menu register
9. Monthly statements register etc.

Question 4.
Do you think your school confirms to these norms?
Answer:
Yes, I do think so.
e.g.:

1. There are learned teachers in our school.
2. We have all the needed facilities.
3. Lessons are taught in Labs and LCD room.
4. We enjoy freedom with responsibility.
5. Our teachers are the architects of our future.

Question 5.
Find out to whom you can complain about the functioning of your school when necessary. (Textbook Page No. 210)
Answer:
We should complain to the D.E.O. in district level and the Director, School Education in state level.

Question 6.
Why do you think checking this information can help in improving accountability? (Textbook Page No. 206)
Answer:
Checking the information creates a fear and compulsory morality in the supervisors or other officials. So it improves accountability.

Question 7.
Why do you think the word ‘independent’ is important in the context of State Information Commission? (Page – 208)
Answer:
If the State Information Commission has relations with the Legislature or the Executive it cannot question or control the corruption. It cannot provide the information to the people. So it should be ‘independent’. So the word is important.

Question 8.
Can you think of the questions you would want to ask information officer in the Health department? (If necessary read Chapter IX again and formulate your questions.) (Textbook Page No. 208)
Answer:

1. How many ambulances are there to save the lives of the patients?
2. What are the facilities in regional hospitals?
3. What steps are you following to retain the doctors in rural areas?
4. Are the vaccines like ‘Rabis vaccine’ available in all hospitals?
5. Why are the funds of ‘Arogyasri’ not diverted to the modernization of the government hospitals instead of paying them to private hospitals?

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 24th Lesson Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 24th Lesson Disaster Management

8th Class Social Studies 24th Lesson Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Describe any disaster that occurred in your area or that you watched on TV. What measures could have been taken to reduce its impact?
Answer:
Recently we had floods to ‘Budameru’ due to heavy rains. Houses, fields and roads were inundated with these floods. In our area, 8 persons missed due to these floods. All the crops were washed out. Many animals were drowned in the water.
We should control them flood by channelling this ‘Budameru’ water to the Krishna river. The people in the danger zone should be sent to elevated areas. Donors should be encouraged to supply them food and clothing. Drinking water should be supplied to them. Medical facilities should be arranged. Thus we can reduce its impact.

Question 2.
How can the disaster be prevented/managed?
Answer:
All the living beings except human beings are leading their lives with the nature. But the human beings are changing the nature according to their convenience. This should be avoided. The government should grow mangrove forests, relocate the villages to safe lands, practising and promoting cyclone resistant construction techniques. Thus we can manage disasters.
Village disaster management teams should be formulated and trained. A large numbers of cyclone shelters and mounds should be constructed in strategic locations so as to accommodate villagers in case another cyclone strikes the area. Thus the disaster can be prevented.

Question 3.
Discuss the elder’s experience with regard to the disasters and the management and write a note.
Answer:
Once there was an earthquake in Hyderabad. It was a summer night. All of our family members were sleeping outside in open place. My granny thought that some dog was striking her cot. In seconds we heard shouting ‘earthquake, earthquake’. All of us ran out immediately. One building at the end of the road collapsed. There were some breaches in the walls of the houses. It occurred nearly five to six times. Our colony people sat on the roads with great fear. The next day morning they entered their houses with frozen hearts.

Question 4.
Suggest the precautions to be taken by the people to face the disasters.
Answer:
Disaster precautions are important in preventing the loss of human lives and minimizing the damage to property during the occurance of a natural disaster. In todays world, there are many types of natural disasters. In some cases, we cannot be able to take any precautions. So safety measures or precautions should be pre-planned before the disaster strikes. How¬ever, some of the precautions to be taken before a natural disaster occurs are listed below:

1. The people should be seen that all breakables are stored safely, food stuffs and water are prepared and big items need are on the floor.
2. Green vegetations like trees surrounding should be pruned regularly or even cut down, if they are in state for damaging property if disturbed, for e.g. wind.
3. In the event that the gas or electricity becomes hazardous, everyday should also familiar-ize themselves with turning off the gas and electricity supply to their houses.
4. The originals or copies of valuable certificates like birth certificates, marriage certificates, passports etc.
5. The cracks and damage of the house should be checked including the roof, chimneys and foundation.

Question 5.
Mention the effects of a drought.
Answer:
There is a sequential impact of drought:

1. Scarcity of drinking water; fall in water-table
2. Decline in crop acreage
3. Fall in employment in the agricultural sector due to slowing down of agricultural activity
4. Fall in purchasing power of those engaged in agriculture
5. Scarcity of food grains
6. Scarcity of fodder
7. Loss of cattle life
8. Malnutrition, especially among children
9. III health and spread of diseases like diarrhoea, dysentery or cholera and opthalmia caused by starvation
10. Distress sale and mortgage of land, jewellery and personal property
11. Migration of people in search of employment.

Question 6.
Mention the occasions where the water is wasted and suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
Occasions where the water is wasted:

1. Marriage functions
2. Meetings
3. Children at home (while playing)
4. While carrying water in tanks
5. Roadside taps
6. While filling water tanks etc.

Preventive measures:

1. People should be educated regarding water scarcity.
2. Taps should be in good condition.
3. There should be alarms to the water tanks.
4. Children should be kept away from water while they are playing.
5. The outlets of water tanks should be checked in Municipalities and Corporations etc.

Question 7.
Make an album with the pictures of natural disasters.
Answer:
Natural disasters:

8th Class Social Studies 24th Lesson Disaster Management InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you know what tsunamis are? How they are formed? How they can be predicted and how you can save yourself if you are residing in any of the coastal districts of the state ? (Textbook Page No. 256)
Answer:
The term “Tsunami” has been coined from the Japanese words ‘tsu’ meaning harbour and ‘name’ meaning waves. Tsunamis are huge waves generated by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or underwater landslides which devastate coastal communities. Tsunamis caused by nearby earthquakes may reach the coast within minutes. When the waves enter shallow water, they may rise to several feet or, in rare cases, tens of feet, striking the coast with devastating force. The tsunami danger period can continue for many hours after a major earthquake. With the use of satellite technology, the Tsunamis are predictable. With the cautions given by the department, we will move to the safest places to save ourselves.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 13 Seed Dispersal

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 13th Lesson Seed Dispersal

7th Class Science 13th Lesson Seed Dispersal Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How seeds are formed and give birth to new plants?
Answer:

1. We know that after fertilization ovary develops as fruit and ovules develop into seeds.
2. When the seeds germinate they give birth to new plants.

Question 2.
Why are seeds disperse to different distances. How do they disperse?
Answer:

1. We know that seed dispersal is necessary to grow tiny plants of the same species.
2. To avoid competition with the mother plant for air, water and minerals plants disperse their seeds to different distances.
3. But the process of dispersal varies from plant to plant.
4. Plants have special mechanism for seed dispersal.

Question 3.
Explain how does the dispersal of seeds through wind take place.
Answer:

1. The seeds of caltropis have light and hairy structure at one end.
2. They travel with wind and settle at a suitable place to germinate.
3. Seeds that are dispersed through air are usually light and are either very small or are light with wings on them or some hairy structures on them.
4. The seeds get adapted in such a way that they get carried away easily by wind.
5. Some seeds float in air, some propel to travel short distances.
   
6. In some plants like orchids seeds are minute with inflated covering.
7. In plants like maple, seeds have wing like outgrowths.
8. Cotton seeds have hairy structures.
9. These types of specialized structures, present in the seeds, will be helpful for dispersal by air.

Question 4.
Write a note on dispersal of seed by water.
Answer:

1. The seeds adapted to float on water are usually light. The outer covering of the seed has empty spaces filled with air and some are fibrous with air spaces that encloses the whole seed or fruit.
   Eg: Coconut.
2. The entire Coconut fruit floats on water and moves from one place to another.
   
3. When it reaches the ground it germinates.
4. That’s why we usually find coconut trees growing near sea shores.
   
5. Seeds that are heavy usually fall to the bottom of water sources and get carried by the flow of water. Ex: Seeds of Lotus.

Question 5.
Describe how animals help in the dispersal of seeds.
Answer:

1. Seeds are dispersed by animals in many ways.
   
2. In case of fleshy fruits, the fruit is eaten by animals while some dry fruits, with specialized structures like hooks, thorns, hairy parts, get stuck to the bodies of animals and get carried to distant places.
3. We find such seeds in some kind of grass plants.
4. We notice some kinds of fruits or seeds getting stuck to our clothes when we walk through fields and bushes.
5. They have hooks or thorns on them.

Question 6.
Explain how birds are also responsible for the dispersal of seeds.
Answer:

1. Some seeds are sticky and get stuck to the beaks of birds and in course of flight they fall down at distant places.
2. Often some birds carry seeds with their beaks. Some of them fall before they reach their nesting places.
3. We know some seeds have to pass through the guts of some birds before they germinate.
4. Birds like Bulbuls, Mynahs, Crows eat some fruits (Eg: Neem fruit) the outer fleshly part gets digested in the food canal and the seed coats of them become tender.
5. They are then dispersed to other places as bird droppings.

Question 7.
Why plants produced a large number of seeds?
Answer:

1. We have observed that fruits and vegetable plants that grow in our home garden produce a large number of seeds.
2. Some fruits grow in singly whereas some are in bunches.
3. Some fruits have a single seed in them and some have a large numebr of seeds.
4. All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate to produce new plants.
5. Actually this does not happen. If this happens we will see only same type of plants in large number in our surroundings.
6. All seeds don’t germinate. Some seeds never germinate to produce new plants. Some seeds germinate but plants die before maturation.
7. To overcome these problems plants produce a large number of seeds.

Question 8.
Collect some seeds like grass, poppy, bhendi, coconut etc. Try to collect different types of seeds like seeds with hair, thorns, big, small, light, heavy etc., and record the information in the given table :
Answer:

Question 9.
Observe the following figures. They are seeds with different shapes and structures.
Answer:

Question 10.
How do squirrels help in dispersal of seeds?
Answer:

1. It collects a lot of nuts and hides them underground before onset of winter.
2. It can hardly eat all of them and even forget where it has hidden its nuts!
3. Thus we have several nut trees at different places.

Question 11.
Do you agree with the fact that seeds are also travelling by aeroplanes, and ships ? Explain,
Answer:

1. Nowadays we see diffeernt kinds of fruits and vegetables around us.
2. Import and export of grains like wheat pulses, maize, paddy is a common practice through which many seeds get dispersed all over the world.
3. It is a wonder now that seeds also travel by aeroplanes and ships.

Question 12.
How many seeds a mustard plant does produce? How do you feel about it?
Answer:

1. A mustard plant produces more than 10,000 seeds in its lifetime.
2. If all the seeds germinate to grow into adult plants, think how many seeds would be produced. If this happens for a period of six years the entire globe will be covered with mustard plants.

Question 13.
Some animals eat fleshy fruits. How do they disperse the seeds of those fruits.
Answer:

1. Many fleshy fruits are meant to being eaten by animals.
2. The fleshy part of the fruit is eaten leaving the seeds uninjured.
3. Some seeds get dispersed through animal excretions

Question 14.
With the help of your teacher fill up the table given below.
Answer:
Observe the animals in your surroundings. Fill in the following table.

Question 15.
Describe how does the dispersal of seeds take place by the bursting of fruits that throw the seeds out.
Answer:

1. Many fruits enclose the seed in a capsule or pod.
   Upon drying the pod explodes releasing the seeds with great force in the surroundings.
2. We find such type of seeds in Bhendi, Mustard and seeds of Pea family.
   
3. Some seeds grow in capsules which when touched burst and uncoil with a force in such a way that they scatter the seeds all around.
4. The seeds of Balsam are dispersed in this manner.
5. We also noticed that some fruits explode when we sprinkle water on them and the seeds get dispersed.

Question 16.
Describe how the seeds of fruits tomato, cauliflower, guava, sugar cane transfered across the globe by people.
Answer:

1. We should know from where this tomato fruit has come from and that it is not native to India.
2. When European travellers came to trade in India, they left the seeds of vegetables like tomato, cauliflower, guava, pear on their return.
3. Similarly sugarcane which is native to India and is used worldwide for production of sugar, is a good example of how people transfer seeds/fruits from one place to another.

Question 17.
Use the information in the given table to answer the following questions.

Agents of seed dispersal	Name of the seed / fruit
by wind	Milk weed
by water	Coconut
by animals	Grass plants
by bird	Neem
by man	Mango

i) What is the agent of coconut seed dispersal?
ii) What is the dispersal agent ofneem seed?
iii) Name the seed which is dispersed by wind?
iv)What are the seeds dispersed by human intervention?
Answer:
i) Water
ii) Birds
iii) Caltropis
iv) Mango

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Food Security.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two ways which you would suggest for the eradication of malnutrition among the children?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Sufficient food should be given to children.
2. Children should be given nutritious food with low cost.

Question 2.
What is the active role of the judiciary in implementing food security in India? How is this role useful to children?
Answer:
In recent time, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through judicial verdict on court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide Mid-day-meals to all the young children studying in schools. The court also set up monitoring mechanisms and provided suggestions for better Implementation.

Question 3.
What is meant by Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

1. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Govern¬ment of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fail in farm prices.
2. With this price the government procures food grains through the FCI.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for ‘Nutricereals.
Answer:
Examples for the Nutri-cereals are

1. Jowar,
2. Ragi,
3. Bajra.

Question 5.
Give any two examples, which give vitamins.
Answer:
Fruits, Leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.

Question 6.
Expand the term F.C.I.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India.

Question 7.
What is the reason for providing mid-day meals in government schools?
Answer:

1. To increase the literacy rate in India and enroll more children in schools.
2. To provide one meal for all the poor young children studying in government schools.

Question 8.
Write any two reasons for better implementation of the Public Distribution System in southern states.
Answer:
A universal Public Distribution System is there in southern states. Specific cards are issued to the needy people. Low cost foodgrains are available for them in the ration shops.

Question 9.
What is the need of food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed for various purposes. The main purpose of food security is ‘no person should go to bed with an empty stomach’.

Question 10.
Which caused large scale starvation deaths in pre-independent India?
Answer:
In pre-independent India, famines – situations of extreme scarcity of food, were a common cause of large-scale starvation deaths.

Question 11.
What was the loss of the Bengal famine?
Answer:
The Bengal famine in 1943-45, took away about 3 to 5 million people lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa.

Question 12.
Why did the famines occur in Indian history?
Answer:
The famines occurred in Indian history because food grains supply was not organized by the rulers.

Question 13.
Name some organizations through which government today ensures food security.
Answer:
Ration shops and Anganwadis.

Question 14.
What is an important requirement of food security?
Answer:
Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.

Question 15.
What are the results of this method?
Answer:
Soil degradation and depletion of groundwater resources.

Question 16.
How is the availability of foodgrains per person per day estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows:
Availability of foodgrains per person per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year T population)/ 365

Question 17.
What do consumers need?
Answer:
Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet.

Question 18.
What can farmers do to increase their incomes?
Answer:
Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.

Question 19.
Give any one reason for farmers’ distress and even suicides.
Answer:
The conversation of food grain fields into cash crops such as cotton in Andhra Pradesh during the last two decades.

Question 20.
What do the nutritionists suggest?
Answer:
Nutritionists suggest that every person in India should eat 300 gms of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day whereas per person availability of these food materials 180 and 58 gms respectively.

Question 21.
What do farmers require?
Answer:
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items. They may have to. be supported and guarded against market risks that they face in the new situation.

Question 22.
Why may the foodgrain production come down?
Answer:
Since resources are diverted to non-food grain uses, foodgrain production may come down.

Question 23.
What is something to be worried about for India’s food security?
Answer:
The decline in the level of per capita availa¬bility of food grains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.

Question 24.
How are the national average calorie levels?
Answer:
The national average calorie levels in both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements.

Question 25.
What are used to examine the nutritional status of children?
Answer:
To examine the nutritional status of children, simple but accurate measurements of height and weight are used.

Question 26.
Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock has been created to meet any exigencies. The buffer stock can be utilized in case of drought or flood or any natural calamity.

Question 27.
What are Fair price shops?
Answer:
The ration shops which come under the PDS are called fair price shops.

Question 28.
Write short notes on MSP.
Answer:
MSP means Minimum Supportive Price. The FCI procures foodgrains and other farm produce by giving MSP for their produce. This ensures farmers of a minimum guarantee for their produce.

Question 29.
How many grams of vegetables and fruits every person eat a day?
Answer:
Every person in India should eat 300 grams of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day.

Question 30.
Today what are called as “nutri-cereals”?
Answer:
The coarse cereals like jowar, ragi, bajra, etc., are today called as nutri-cereals.

Question 31.
What is meant by PDS system?
Answer:
PDS system means the government supplying low-cost foodgrains to people with ration cards.

Question 32.
What is meant by Nutrition Food?
Answer:
Nutritious food is that food that provides for energy, growth and capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.

Question 33.
How is BMI derived?
Answer:
BMI = Weight in legs/height in meters squared.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalize people’s right to food. What do you suggest to implement this Act?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Subsidy rice should be given to the people of the low-income group.
2. More rice should be given to very poor people.
3. Dal, oil, tamarind and jaggery, etc. also should be supplied to these people through PDS.
4. MDM scheme should be implemented with more efforts.

Question 2.
Our country could not achieve self-sufficiency in the production of foodgrains even today. Illustrate your reasons.
Answer:

1. Foodgrain production is not proportional when compared to the rate of population growth.
2. There is no proper water management.
3. Farmers are following traditional methods.
4. Fragmentation of landholdings.
5. Improper manuring and low application of fertilizers.

Question 3.
State any two defects, which you find in the organization of the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Selling with higher prices.
2. Cheating in the process of weighing.
3. Selling ration goods in the black markets.
4. Ineligible candidates holding white cards.
5. Only few days distribution is following.

Question 4.
If the food grain production is affected because of natural calamity, in what ways can the Government ensure higher availability of food grains?
Answer:

1. The FCI releases the buffer stock.
2. By bringing supplies from other areas.
3. Through a universal PDS system, low-cost food grains would be available.
4. The Anthyodaya Cardholders are entitled to get 35 Kgs. of food grains per month per family.

Question 5.
“The Supreme Court of India directed to all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day-meal to the children studying in all schools.”
Prepare a pamphlet on better implementation of the Mid-day-meal program.
Answer:
Pamphlet on Mid-day-meal programme.

1. Foodgrains available in local areas are to be used.
2. Follow the menu regularly that meets the need of nutritional requirements of the children.
3. Cooking in clean and hygienic environment.
4. Involvement of staff and children for effective implementation.

Question 6.
Appreciate the benefits of the Mid-day meal programme implemented in Government schools.
Answer:

1. It ensures food security.
2. It provides nutritious food.
3. It helps to increase net attendance rate.

Question 7.
Write suggestions to avoid food waste in Mid-day meal in your school.
Answer:

1. Meals cooked should be tasty and healthy.
2. Children should be educated on the consequences of food wastage.
3. Teachers should supervise the programme.

Question 8.
Observe the bar diagram and answer the questions.
a) What percentage of people in rural India are consuming more calories than are required?
Answer:
20%
b) What is the reason for consuming less calories than are required in rural India?
Answer:

1. The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of purchasing power of the people.
2. People don’t have adequate incomes to buy food.
3. The reasons are poverty, unemployment, etc.

Question 9.
What are the measures you suggest for improving the present public distribution system?
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Provide ration cards only to the poor and vulnerable groups.
2. Check every month whether they are rationed in an effective manner or not.
3. Quantity supplied by the government should be increased.
4. Remove the fake cards.

Question 10.
Analyze a week’s food habits of your family. And write how it impacts on Agriculture sector and the environment.
Answer:
Family food habits:

1. Rice and redgram, vegetables, milk, curd, eggs, etc.
2. For breakfast – idly, dosa, chapati, etc.
3. Sometimes some members take non-vegetarian food.

Impact on agriculture:

1. For increase of food grains and vegetables production farmers are using pesticides and fertilizers. Due to this soil loses its fertility.
2. For increasing of milk production farmers follow artificial methods. Those methods cause harm to animals.

Impact on the environment:

1. Excessive use of chemicals causes water, air pollutions.
2. Bio-diversity is effected very highly.
3. Deforestation.

Question 11.
Write a letter to the concerned officer for the proper implementation of the Public Distribution System in your area.
Answer:

Siricilla.
31st March 2017.

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Siricilla.

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Subhashnagar, Siricilla. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer. They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….
………………….

Question 12.
Prepare a pamphlet to bring awareness among the people on food security in India
Answer:
Pamphlet

Food Security in India

National Food Security Act 2013 legalizes the people’s right to food. According to this Act White, Pink, Anthyodaya cards are distributed to the needy on identification. Free cooked meal for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children 1-5 in Anganwadi is supplied.

Many ration shops are not open on proper timings. There will be no display of prices list and the stock of commodities. The card holders come to ration shops, and as they are closed, they get back to their home without commodities. They lose their wages for that day also. The shop dealers are diverting commodities to other shops in the market. Many times it is seen in newspapers and channels but no change is found with the dealers.

Mid day meals in schools is also like that. The minimum quantity of pulses and oil are not used. The watery curries are served. No one cares about it.

People should get aware about this. Many non Government organizations are working for the benefit of society. The government should organize a campaign about this.

No. of copies
5000

Published by
Society for people

Question 13.
What is the position of India’s per capita availability of foodgrains compared to other countries?
Answer:

1. India’s per capita availability of foodgrains in 2010-11 was 463 grams.
2. It was very low when compared to the same of countries in Europe (700grams) and USA (850 grams).
3. Since resources are diverted to non-foodgrain uses, food grain production has come down.
4. The decline in the level of per capita availability of foodgrains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.
5. To avoid this, the policy of the government should aim to increase the production of foodgrains and other types of food simultaneously.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the question.

The State and Central Governments procure nearly one-third of foodgrains from farmers. These food grains are distributed to people through various mechanisms. In recent times, government agencies are procuring more foodgrains than what is required to meet the public distribution system. If government stocks keep increasing year after year, less is available (see year 2011 in Table on foodgrain availability). The government has been criticized that it is not distributing these foodgrains to the needy people. Sometimes, governments also exported these foodgrains to other countries.

Do you support this, when a large section of people within the country are not able to access to food grains?
Answer:

1. The state government should procure foodgrains to distribute through PDS at lower prices.
2. Needs of our people are to be considered.
3. So I do not support the concept of exporting foodgrains to foreign countries.
4. Instead, the foodgrains should be kept available to the needy of our country.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the question

“The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency (BMI<18.5) among men was about 35%, while overweight/obesity (BMI >25) was 10% …….
“About 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency andl4% were overweight/obese.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the States of Odisha, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh, followed by 33-38% in Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal…”

How is this related to food security?
Answer:

1. The above information says that 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency.
2. The prevalence of CED in our state is between 33% and 38%.
3. The above information proves that people do not have access to good food.
4. Hence “food security” should be implemented to avoid chronic energy deficiency.

Question 16.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is being ensured in India by using the following methods:

1. By improving production
2. By maintaining buffer stock
3. By the Public Distribution System.

Question 17.
What has to be done in order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop?
Answer:

1. In order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop, necessary inputs have to provided in a judicious manner.
2. One way is to expand irrigation but use water in a manner so that this vital resource is shared and made available to all.
3. Modern methods of farming are to adopted.

Question 18.
Which have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels?
Answer:
Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.

Question 19.
How is the availability of foodgrains for the year estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows.
Availability of foodgrains for the year = Production of foodgrains during the year (production – seed, feed and wastage) + net imports (imports-exports)-change in stocks with the government (closing stock at the year end – opening stock at the beginning)

Question 20.
Write your comments on the Food Security Bill.
Answer:
The Food Security Bill promises to alleviate hunger and guarantee very cheap food to India’s poor people. But there are concerns it has not been properly thought through and become unsustainable.
Under the programme everyone who qualifies for the subsidy will be entitled to 5 kg in total of rice, wheat, etc. The government intends to use the PDS for delivering subsidies to the poor.

Question 21.
Write your comments on P.D.S.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) has helped in stabilizing food prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has helped in avoiding hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. The share of PDS in the consumption of rice and wheat has risen steeply. I think this PDS is working effectively throughout the nation.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and answer the question.

Studies indicate that Southern states of India have a good record in the public distribution system. Notably, these are the states that have followed a universal PDS system which means that low cost food grains would be available to all. This Is in contrast to other states where poor families have been Identified and foodgrains are sold to at different prices to poor and non-poor. Even among the poor, the very poor have different entitlements, or guarantees for access.

Interpret the relation between the PDS and food security.
Answer:

1. People get food grains at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
2. The government ensures it through Food Corporation of India.
3. The Government should take suitable measures to reduce lapses in distribution and ensures benefit to the target groups.
4. The various concepts of PDS like Anganwadis. Mid-day meals and fair price shops etc., provide food security to the different low income groups.

Thus there is a close relation between the PDS and food security.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“While Indian Parliament enacts various laws such as National Food Security Act and implements schemes such as Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) in recent times, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through Judicial verdict as court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals to all the young children studying in schools.

Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act1 to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, It will give cash for the people to buy food grains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the question that follows.
Crop Production (Kilograms per Hectare)

Crop	1950 – 1951	2000 – 2001
Paddy	668	1901
Wheat	655	2708
Pulses	441	544
Oilseeds	481	810
Cotton	88	190
Jute	1043	2026

Write an analysis on the yielding trends of different crops.
Answer:

1. The above table explains the crop production in 1950-51 and 2000-2001 kgs per hectare.
2. Paddy production increases highly, wheat production also increased. Pulses production increased 100 kgs only. Oil seeds production increased double. Cotton production also increased double. Jute production also increased.

Due to Green Revolution, crop production increased gradually within the 50 years. Among the all wheat & paddy production increased because of both are benefited with Green Revolution. Food grain production also increased.

Question 4.
How far is ‘Food Security’ required today in India?
Answer:
Due to the increase of more population food security Is need nowadays. The following factors are responsible.

1. Per person availability of food grain has actually not rise but declined in the recent years.
2. Most people are in fact consuming fewer calories than required. This gap is severe for the poorest.
3. Lack of employment or with low salaries majority of people are not able to purchase require food grains.
4. In some areas PDS system is not working properly.
5. A large section of people are malnourished, even when we have adequate food in the country.
6. Majority of children and adults as being underweight in a chronic way.

On above issues food security is need today.

Question 5.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Per person availability of food grains in India

Year	Population (in millions)	Food grains production (in million tonnes)	Per person availability per day (grams)
1951	361	50.8	395
1961	439	82	469
1971	548	108.4	469
1991	846	176.4	510
2011	1210	232.07	454

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. In 1951 the population of India was 361 million and the food grains production was 50.8 million and 395 grams of food grains were available to a person per a day.
2. The population increased in 1961. It was 78 million. At the same time food grains production increased 32 million tons. The availability of food grains per person per a day was 469 grams.
3. In 1971,1991 and 2011 the population increased. At the same time the food grains production also increased. But in 1961,1971 the availability of food grains was the same; not increased.
4. From 1991 to 2011 the availability of food grains decreased due to floods, famines, natural calamities. More population was also another cause.

Till 1991 the population, food grains production and availability of food grains per person per day increased. But in 2011 only the population and food grains production increased. Availability of food grains drastically decreased.

The first requirement for a country is to be able to produce food grains for the whole population. Per person availability of food grains should be sufficient and also increasing over the years. From the information given above, it is evident that per person availability of food grains is decreasing since 2011.

So Government should take necessary measures in this regard. It should encourage farmers to produce more food grains. There should be control on exports also. Sometimes local people suffer for food grains but the government exports the food grains to other countries to import what they need. It is the minimum duty of the welfare government to keep food grains available to its people that to especially the poor.

Question 6.
Analyse how the Public Distribution System provides access to food to the poor?
Answer:
It is a joint responsibility of central government, state government and union territory administration to ensure the smooth functioning of the PDS.

While the responsibility of central government is to procure, store and transport it from purchase points to central godowns, the responsibility of state government and union territory administrations is to lift these commodities from the central godowns and distribute them to consumers through the network of fair price shops. FCI procures and distributes foodgrains, to provide subsidized food to the poor to mitigate regional inequalities through moving the surplus food to deficit areas and to stabilize agricultural prices.

The universal coverage of PDS was replaced by Targeted Real Public Distribution System in 1997 in order to achieve the objective of food security through sale of foodgrains to APL householders at economic cost and confirming the food subsidy bill toward the identified BPL families whose number crossed 97 million families in 2007.

Access to food through Public Distribution System :

1. National Food Security Act legalizes people’s right to food.
2. It is applicable to 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. PDS ensures the availability of foodgrains to the poor at subsidized rates.
4. Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice or wheat) per month per family.
5. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5 kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidized rates.
6. 75% of people living in rural areas purchase foodgrains through PDS.
7. 50% of the urban population purchases foodgrains through PDS.
8. PDS helps in maintaining the nutrition status of the people.
9. Studies indicate that the southern states of India have a good record in PDS.

Question 7.
What would be the impact of the availability of other food items and food security?
Answer:

1. It is said that there is a change in consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries.
2. This is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers.
3. Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.
4. Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items.
5. Over the years, although there has been increasing in the production of other food items, it is not sufficient to meet the minimum dietary requirements.
6. The policies should aim at increasing food crop production and other food items simultaneously.
7. It will fill the gap and make food security more viable.

Question 8.
What are the salient features of Food Security Bill?
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act’ to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 9.
Why do we require food? How do we classify the food that we consume?
Answer:

1. Food is required by the body for all its functions for energy, growth and the capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.
2. The food that we consume is normally classified as –
   1. Carbohydrates: that provide energy, through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats, etc.
   2. Proteins: that help growth and regeneration of body tissues through beans, dais, meat, eggs, rice, wheat, etc.
   3. Vitamins: that provide protection and ensure the working of many vital systems of the body through foods such as fruits, leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.
   4. Minerals are required in small quantities for many important functions such as iron and blood formation. This is provided through green leafy vegetables, ragi, etc.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
It is also important to ensure that soil and other natural resources are not damaged or depleted in the process. Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India – by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides – have led to a continuous but unsustainable Increase in the yield levels. In fact, these methods have led to soil degradation and depletion of ground water resources. If this continues, we may soon come to a situation that yields start falling rather than going up.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that improper usage of chemical fertilizers and insecticides causes for damage of cultivable soil and depletion of ground water levels.
2. If these methods are followed continuously there will be no ground water resources.
   My comments on this paragraph are as follows:
3. The population is growing day by day.
4. Cultivable land is not increasing in that proportion.
5. The food grain production is to be increased.
6. A part of green revolution it has become compulsory for the farmers to use fertilizers and pesticides to grow more crops.
7. Instead of using chemical fertilizers, the farmers should use go for organic farming.
8. Compost is to be encouraged. Multiple cropping is also one alternate.
9. Cultivable land is to be expanded by changing the wastelands as farming lands.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

If a country is to able to produce food grains for the whole of its population this would be considered as the first requirement. How do we measure whether if there is food for all ? Whether this food reaches families would be examined later. We are at first estimating what is available. This means that per person (or per capita) availability of foodgrains in the country should be sufficient and also increased over the years. Is the increase in foodgrain availability really happening?

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph every country should produce the foodgrains how much it needs.
2. Every country should examine two things.
3. The first one is how much foodgrains are produced in the country and the second one is how it is reaching to the people.
4. Many countries don’t concentrate on this sensitive issue.
5. It is very primary thing to look into the matter of food grain production and its availability.
6. When the production is less than the need or demand, automatically the prices go up.
7. Government should encourage the farmers to produce more foodgrains.
8. There should be control on exports also.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

It Is said that there Is a change In consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries. This Is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers. Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. Farmers producing food grains can go In for crop diversification In order to increase their Incomes.

Answer:

1. The paragraph says that the people demand different types of food like vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
2. Taking this type of food is a good sign.
3. By utilizing this diverse food, the people maintain good health.
4. Where Is a lot of gap between the production of foodgrains and its availability.
5. The pattern mentioned in this paragraph is good for health but the problem is its availability.
6. The access of food is very less when it is compared to the Nutritionists suggestions.
7. In Agriculture, there is a shift from food crops to commercial crops.
8. Many farmers are concentrating on commercial crops.
9. Consequently, there will be scarcity of foodgrains.
10. Food grains are to be grown to what extent it is necessary.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

The national average calorie levels In both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements. Also, the consumption of calories has gone down between 1983 and 2004. This Is shocking since as we have seen our economy Is growing at a rapid rate. Production of goods and services has Increased many times.

Answer:

1. This paragraph tells us that the people in rural and urban areas are not taking sufficient calories intake in their diet.
2. It is surprising that the economy is growing but calorie intake Is decreasing.
3. Production is increasing but consumption Is decreasing.
4. According to the reports of nutritionists it is clearly understood that the people are not consuming as per requirements.
5. Irrespective of caste, religion, region and gender the rich people take more than requirement but the problem is with the poor people.
6. Government should take new steps to help the poor people.
7. The PDS functioning should be made correct.
8. Quality commodities are to be provided at cheaper prices.

Question 14.
Write a letter to the Tahsildar about irregular functioning of ration shop in your area.

Tadepalli,
Date : xx xx xxxx

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Tadepalli

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Prakashnagar, Tadepalli. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer.

They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What aspects of the Nizam rule would you consider to be ‘undemocratic’?
Answer:
Undemocratic-aspects:
The term ‘undemocratic’ refers to the rule that is not related to the democratic aspect of government, in other words, the decisions that has taken by only one person or a small group rather than taking into consideration the population who will be following those rules. The various aspects of the Nizam’s rule which considered to be ‘undemocratic’ are as follows: –

• Under his rule, Jagirdars were given full control of the villages, and they also collected taxes from the people.
• He wanted to bring old system where king and his nobles had the full authority to rule whenever they want to.
• He didn’t allow functioning of any democratic systems like legislatures or local bodies.
• He was reluctant to allow opening of the schools which led to low literacy rate in the state.

Question 2.
Why do you think the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states?
Answer:
The Nizams were slow in setting up schools in their kingdom. Many jagirdars did not even allow setting up of schools in their areas. The Nizams were also suspicious of private schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. They actually discouraged the setting up of private Telugu medium schools and did not allow those students to join Osmania University. So the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states.

Question 3.
Describe the activities of the Andhra Maha Sabha for the promotion of education.
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. They established libraries and cultural centres all over Telangana even in remote villages. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. Thus AMS promoted education.

Question 4.
What were the demands of the Hyderabad State Congress and how many of them were fulfilled after 1948?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress only functioned in the British India and did not function directly in the princely states. However, the common people faced more oppression and injustice in these princely states and they wanted to join the larger freedom movement of India. In such states the nationalists formed ‘state congress’ to fight for democratic rights, reforms, representative government etc. This happened in Hyderabad too. All these were fulfilled after 1948.

Question 5.
Do you think the Telangana Armed Struggle helped to end the rule of the Nizam? Give your reasons.
Answer:

1. The established Ryot Sanghams.
2. They established libraries, night schools and tried to make them literate.
3. They undertook many revolutionary activities.
4. They fought against the Nizam and the Doras.
5. They established armed forces.
6. They went from village to village and made the people conscious.
7. They abolished Vetti.
8. They demanded Visalandhra.
9. They fought against Razakars.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions: Do you support the Feudal system of the state.

The Nizams were initially provincial governors of the Mughal emperors. They ruled with the help of hereditary jagirdars and subordinate kings. Jagirdars were given control of dozens and even hundreds of villages which they ruled as they desired and collected taxes from the people. The rest of the kingdom was ruled directly by the Nizam with the help of ‘doras’ about whom you read in an earlier chapter.

The Nizams wanted to retain the old system in which the king and his nobles controlled all resources and ruled as they willed. They did not allow any democratic system like local bodies or legislatures. The Nizams opposed the Congress led nationalist movement and passed several ‘firmans’ or royal orders curtailing political activity in the state. They had a network of police and spies who kept a close watch on people.

Answer:
I do not support the Feudal system of the Nizams.
Reason: The common people were treated as slaves.

Question 7.
Many movements were led against the rulers in the past. Do you find any movements taken up nowadays? If yes, what are they?
Answer:
Some movements were led against the rulers in recent time.

1. The then government enhanced the electricity charges in December 2000. The people led a movement against the government at that time.
2. In July 2011, the textile business people fought against ‘Vat’ and they led a strike.

Question 8.
What questions the librarian should be asked to know about the library of your area?
Answer:

1. At which level the library is situated?
2. How many books are there in the library?
3. What kinds of magazines are there in the library?
4. Can we get book to our house?

Question 9.
Locate the following places of Nizam’s rule in the India map.
a) Aurangabad b) Warangal c) Raichur d) Gulbarga
Answer:

Question 10.
Collect the pictures of leaders of the Telangana armed struggle.
Answer:

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think the problems faced by the people of Hyderabad state were in some ways different from those faced by people living in British ruled states? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:

People in the British Rule	People in the Hyderabad state
1) They received encouragement in education.	1) They were backward in education.
2) Poorness was prevalent here.	2) ‘Vetti’ system was prevalent here.
3) Importance was given to all languages.	3) Importance was given to Urdu, the Telugu faced many problems.
4) Many movements happened here.	4) Armed fights were fought here.

Question 2.
Was there any difference between the attitude of the British and the Nizams when it came to democracy? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:
No. Both suppressed the people.

Question 3.
Was Telangana Armed Struggle only for removal of the grievances of the peasants or did it have other aims? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Initially the main demands of the peasants were limited to fight against illegal feudal exactions, levy system, excessive land refot, eviction of tenants, and for abolition of vetti. It was meant to draw all sections of the rural society (small landowners, landlords and service castes) into the struggle against the doras and the Nizam.
The movement was transformed in 1947-48 into a broad anti-feudal struggle demanding merging of Hyerabad with independent India. To broaden the scope of the movement and integrate vaious sections into it, the demand was raised to merge Telangana with the other Telugu speaking regions to create Vishal Andhra.

Question 4.
What are the languages spoken in your area? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Telugu, Urdu and Hindi are the languages mostly spoken in our area.

Question 5.
What is the medium of teaching in schools and colleges today in our state? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
The mediums of teaching in schools and colleges today are Telugu, English and Urdu. There are many schools also which teach in other statutory languages.

Question 6.
Do you think all teaching should be done in one’s mother tongue? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
No. I don’t think so. The teaching should be in their own mother tongue.

Question 7.
Why do you think it is important to publish books in mother tongues? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Books are knowledge giving ones. If they are in other languages, nobody can read them. So to attain knowledge it is important to publish books in mother tongues.

Question 8.
Is there a public library in your village or locality? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Yes. There is Tagore Public Library in our city.

Question 9.
If you have been to a public library, describe what happens there in your classmates. (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
When we enter the library we should sign in the visitors’ register. Then we can read the dailies, magazines there. If we have membership in that library, we can take two books to home. We should return them after a certain period.

Question 10.
Why do you think the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
The leaders of Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. The AMS activities spread rapidly all over Telangana and libraries and cultural centres were established in even remote villages. Peasants and labouring people came to them to learn to read, listen to newspaper, discuss current topics, and also their own problems with the Nizam government and doras. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. People read books by social reformers like Veeresalingam and nationalists like Gandhiji, Nehru etc. They also wrote new books on local problems. As Editor of the Golconda Patrika, Suravaram Pratapareddy inspired nationalistic fervour amongst the people. Kaloji Narayana Rao, Dasarathi Krishnamacharya, Dasarathi Rangacharya are some of the literary luminaries who fought for the freedom of Hyderabad State. So the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements.

Question 11.
Why do you think the Nizams and jagirdars were not in favour of Telugu medium schools? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Here majority of the officials were Muslims. The majority of the people of the state were Hindus who spoke in Telugu, Kannada and Marathi. They were suspicious of private Telugu medium schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. All the government schools were in Urdu medium.

Question 12.
Why do you think the doras who were Hindus helped the Razakars? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Doras, who were Hindus, ruled as dictators. Razakars also had anti-democratic views and they fought the democratic political parties and communist led peasants. Hence, Doras supported and helped the Razakars.

Question 13.
Why do you think the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The state was merged in 1948. India became Republic in 1950. It took two years to conduct General elections. The Nizam was familiar with the state and people. A governor cannot be appointed as there was no statutory provision. So the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger.

Question 14.
Why do you think the Nizam agreed to pass the ‘firmanas’ abolishing the feudal system? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
When India became independent in 1947, Osman Ali Khan, the Nizam wanted Hyderabad to remain as an independent kingdom. The common people of the state wanted to join Independent India and a large campaign was organized by the Hyderabad State Congress led by Ramananda Theertha. The Razakars attacked them too. Then the Indian government decided to end this anarchy and sent armed forces to Hyderabad. Hyderabad was finally integrated into Indian Union in September 1948. The Nizam however was asked by the government of India to continue as the ruler till the transition to democratic setup was complete. The Nizam was forced to abolish the feudal system and initiate democratic processes of elections.

Question 15.
Why do you think the Nizam rule ended on 26th January 1950? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into force on that day. So we can say that the Nizam rule ended on 26th January, 1950.

Question 16.
Find out more about the song – Vandemataram. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Vandemataram song – written in Bengali and Sanskrit.
Lyrics: Bakim Chandra Chattopadhyaya in his novel Anandmath – 1882.
Music: Jadunadh Bhattacharya Adopted on 24-1 -1956.
First sung by – Sri Rabindranath Tagore Translated to English – By Arabindo Ghosh
In 1950 the song’s first two verses were given the official status of the National Song of the Republic of India.

Question 17.
Find out about the life of Swami Ramananda Theertha. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Swami Ramananda Theertha (1903 – 1972) was an Indian freedom fighter, educator and Social activist who led the Hyderabad liberation struggle, during the reign of last Nizam. He was the main leader of the Hyderabad State Congress.
He fought against the Nizam after the establishment of Congress party wing in 1938. He participated in Satyagrahas and was imprisoned for 111 days by the last Nizam. He created a revolutionary movement which helped Hyderabad to integrate with the Indian Union in 1948. The integration was successful after the Hyderabad police action.

Question 18.
What role do you think was played by the AMS in making the Telangana Armed Struggle possible ? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha in the beginning supported the education and literary works. The Nizam government subjected these centres to a lot of harassment as they were becoming centres of new radical thinking. By 1940 many communists had joined the AMS and they insisted on taking up other demands of the rural people like end to vetti, land reforms, oppression by doras etc. Some of the old leaders of the AMS disagreed and wanted it to continue as educational and literary forum. Soon the radical elements gained leadership and a new movement of the peasants started.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Narahari created the following list of activities where technology is not used. Do you agree with him? If not, prove him wrong.
a) While singing a song
b) While cooking idli
c) While performing drama on the stage
d) While making garland for sale
Answer:
I do not agree with Narahari. I think his words are wrong.
Technology is the practical application of knowledge in our everyday lives that leads to a new product or an improvement in the way something works or how something is done. There is no question of this and that. It is useful in all the activities.

Question 2.
Describe how the situation of labour has changed in powerlooms and mills. Do you think this change is beneficial to the labourers or to the owner? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Textile mills have a large number of workers. They have workers’ unions or labourer unions. These unions fight for their rights and their better conditions. Powerlooms are small units. Compared to mills, powerlooms pay a very low salary. While mills pay workers monthly salary, workers in powerlooms are paid on piece rate basis. If there is any powercut, powerloom workers are not given salaries. Trade unions do not exist in most powerloom clusters. They have no pensions or other social security provisions.
Due to these reasons, we can say that this change is beneficial to the owners.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of using CHs? Who benefits most? Why do farmers use CH?
Answer:
Advantages of using CHs:

1. CH harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grian from chaff.
2. Use of CH helps in timely harvest of paddy. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
3. It also saves from vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
4. The farmers are able to sow the second crop without much delay.
5. Their dependency on labourers is also reduced.
   The farmers benefit most.
   Due to excess benefits by using CH, the farmers are using these CHs.

Question 4.
Changes in technology lead to changes in job opportunities. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Reason: Technology with skills creates new jobs.
e.g.: Many landline companies and mobile companies were started. These companies export these phones to many countries.
It created new jobs for young people to work in multi-national companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/top-up shops.

Question 5.
Prabhavathi feels that it is true that telephone technology has changed. She feels that new jobs are available to only educated persons. She also says that many people in India are not literate and hence modern technology is always biased to the educated. Do you agree with her? Give your reasons.
Answer:
I don’t agree with Prabhavathi.
Technology changed as she said, but it is useful to all. e.g.: Now fishermen, rickshaw pullers etc., are using cell phones.
With a minimum educational qualification so many are working as mechanics and technicians. Skill is needed in some works and technology instead of education.

Question 6.
In this chapter, changes in technology in three sectors are discussed. In the following table identify a different example for each of these sectors that is not discussed here:

Sl.No.	Sector	Older technology	Newer technology	Any impact on livelihood/ amount of production/increase or decrease in human effort
1	Agriculture
2	Industry
3	Service

Answer:

Sl.No.	Sector	Older technology	Newer technology	Any impact on livelihood/ amount of production/increase or decrease in human effort
1	Agriculture	Transporting coal in trolleys in mines	Through conveyor belt.	Production increased, human effort decreased.
2	Industry	Techniques & Tricks old cameras in film industry	Computers, digital cams, graphics	Livelihood, amount of production increased, human effort decreased.
3	Service	Surface railway lines	Metro Railways	Human effort decreased.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading “New Skills and New Jobs” and answer the following:

Many private companies including the government-owned ones provide both landline and mobile connections. Private companies continue to expand their share in the telecommunication services. Many companies are being established in India to manufacture handsets. These companies are now exporting to more than 80 countries around the world. The telephone/ mobile technology also came up with the need for new skills. It created new jobs for young people to work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/ top-up shops.

What are the newly created jobs for young people in your area?
Answer:
Work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales repair and recharge/top up shops are the newly created jobs for young people in our area.

Question 8.
Locate the following in the world map:
1) England 2) USA 3) India
Answer:

Question 9.
The people live in forest and adjacent to forest cannot afford to use latest technology. What measures do you suggest for improving their lives?
Answer:
We should not think using technology is only as improvement. The people living in forest and adjacent to forest are living in Nature’s lap. They are living in groups. All the blood relations live mostly in the same group. So they may not need phones or technology. The government should introduce technology to them. It should create better conditions to improve their lives. Then only they can lead an improvised life.

Project work

Mallaiah is a farmer in Sripuram village. There are about 100 houses in the village. Today all the work like planting, weeding, harvesting, spraying pesticides and fertilisers is done by machines. In olden days, it was all done manually. There are more than 33 tractors and about 15 harvesters available in his village. A few of them are given on hire. The owners of the tractors charge Rs. 300 per hour for tilling the fields. More and more farmers are now using these machines in their fields. Based on this information, create a wall paper with illustrations and possible discussions between different groups of people in the village.

Answer:
Wall Paper
a) Mr. Mallalah: I need a tractor on hire
Tractor Owner: How many acres to be ploughed?
Mr. Mallaiah: 3 acres.
Tractor Owner: For one hour, Rs. 300. When do you need?
Mr. Mallaiah: Today only.
Tractor Owner: I already agreed for others.
Mr. Mallaiah: I pay Rs. 400 per acre
Tractor Owner: 0k. I will send traàtor by evening.

b) Tractor Owner: Tractor is under repair.
Mechanic: What is the problem?
Tractor Owner: Tractor’s wheel is caught. It is not working.
Mechanic: Tractor lost bearings. It will cost Rs.1000/-
Tractor Owner: 0k repair it. I have many works.
Mechanic: Not now, by evening I will do it.

c) Old Man: In our days we used to do all these works manually.
Young man: What are the works?
Old Man: Sowing, ploughing and transplanting.
Young man: Today we need not do all works.
Old Man: Yes, you all have machines.

d) Farmer: Mastri, I need 30 labourers.
Mastri: For what work?
Farmer: For harvesting.
Mastri: Now we are not doing all these works.
Farmer: Why?
Mastrl: Now combined harvesters is going on.
Farmer: Is it available!
Mastri: Our charges are high it will be ready by tomorrow morning.
Farmer: I cant pay so much for labourers. I will wait for combined harvester.

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of using CH (Combined Harvester) in agricultural production? Make a list from the above text. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
Advantages of using CH in agricultural production:

1. CH is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest.
2. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from chaff.
3. It helps in timely harvest of paddy.
4. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
5. It also saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
6. The farmers were able to sow the second crop.
7. Their dependency on labour is also reduced.

Question 2.
List the jobs lost by agricultural labourers when Combined Harvesters are used. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
They lose the jobs of harvesting the crop, threshing and cleaning the grains from chaff when CHs are used.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks: (Textbook Page No. 97)
i) The production of cloth is classified into four categories as mill, handlooms ———– and ———–.
ii) ———– state had the largest number of handlooms in 1988.
iii) ———– state had the largest number in 2009.
iv) Which state had the lowest number of handlooms in 2009?
v) The ———– pays the worker a salary while the ———– pays the workers on ———– rate.
Answer:
i) hosieries; powerlooms.
ii) Tamilnadu
iii) Tamilnadu
iv) Punjab
v) mill, powerloom, piece

Question 4.
Do you think it is appropriate to use CHs in India where a large section of people working in agriculture as labourers, are poor, and there is so much problem of rural unemployment? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
We can think in two angles about this problem.
We can say that it is not appropriate by keeping the following in view:

1. Rural unemployment
2. More dependency on agriculture. They may lose their livelihood.
3. While keeping the development of the country in view – it is appropriate.

Extensive farm mechanisation is widely prevalent in developed countries. These human resources can be used in other sectors by providing various job opportunities. This helps the development of the country.

Question 5.
In this chapter, we saw the photos of many women engaged in technology. Many of them like the one above does not have an Engineering degree. Conduct a debate in classroom what biases/ stereotypes exist about women getting educated as engineers. (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
“Women education brightens the future”. Degree is an acknowledgement to their knowledge. There are so many skilled persons in many areas without qualifications, e.g.: The village farmers have more knowledge than agricultural graduates.
If the women acquire Engineering graduation, they will get higher positions. They educate their families. They lead their families and nation to development.

Question 6.
Who were the contributors to this industrial revolution? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:

Inventions	Their inventors
1. Spinning Jenny	James Hargraves
2. Steam Engine	James Watt
3. Steel Making	Henry Bessem
4. Electricity and Light bulb	Thomas Aiwa Edison
5. Telegraph	Samuel F.B. Morse
6. Telephone	Alexander Grahambell etc.

These persons were contributors to this industrial revolution.

Question 7.
Find out the story of the first steam engine. How did this lead to establishment of Railways in India? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Steam Engines were used to pump water out of mines in England when James Watt was born. The discovery that steam could be harnessed and made to work is not credited to James Watt. We do not know that exactly who made that discovery, but we do know that the ancient Greeks had crude steam engines. James Watt however is credited with inventing the first practical steam engine. And so the history of the modern steam engine often begins with James Watt.
There were no railway lines in India upto 1850. It was almost 100 years to the British. Colonial rule in India. They need transport facilities in this vast country. So they inaugurated the first railway line in 1853 which ran from Bombay to Thana. Since then the distance is reduced in India.

Question 8.
It is argued that new jobs can be created in rural areas through infrastructure works. Link roads, tanks, bunds etc., can be created through labour intensive schemes. If you live in rural area, find out if any such activities are being done and discuss if these will suffice the livelihoods of the people there. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
A few years back the then government introduced a scheme ‘Food for Work’. Many works were undertaken in our village. Digging out soil from ‘Cheruvus’ is one of those works. They used this soil to lay roads. They used quarry dust also in laying roads. Digging drainage canals was also a work in this scheme. But the labourers were given ‘rice’ instead of money.
One cannot lead their life only with rice. So they started exchanging the rice with money. As a result the purpose of the scheme got sidetracked. Even then we can say that this scheme helped the labourers in rural areas. These are helpful to them in non-crop season.

Question 9.
How have computers changed the life around you? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Computers have changed our lives in many different ways and aspects. Almost everyone depends on computers. People depend on computers for bank transactions, bus reservations etc. People may not even leave the houses for shopping. Meetings and tele conferrences are also conducted by using computers and internet.

Question 10.
Did you see solar energy being used in your neighbourhood, town or city? Make a short list. Why is this source of energy not used even more widely? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
We live in Sai Sri Nilaya apartments in S.N. Puram, near (Boys) Z.P. High school in Vijayawada. We use solar water heaters in our apartment. On the roof of our apartment, there are many solar panels. We get hot water throughout the day. But to get them we have to waste some cold water. The following solar instruments are used by our neighbours.

1. Solar heaters.
2. Solar lanterns / lamps.
3. Solar cookers.
4. Solar stoves.
5. Solar batteries/inverters

The reason for not using them widely:

1. Installation Price: Cost of installing solar technology is too expensive.
2. Variable sunlight: Inconsistency of Sunshine throughout the year.
3. An aesthetic appeal: The opinions of the people who think solar panels look ugly.
4. Day purpose only: They can be used only in daytime only.
5. Clouds: If it is cloudy, we get less amount of energy.

Question 11.
In many villages, agricultural labourers, women labourers, in particular, were found to be upset seeing the operation of CH. Why? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The operation of CH lessens the work opportunities and income to the agricultural labourers, particularly women labourers. This machine does almost all the works of women labourers. If this machine is used widely, they lose their livelihood. So, they were found upset.

Question 12.
Find out the current rates of phone calls and discuss reasons for the difference in the rates for between companies and why they are decreasing? (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
At present the rates were very low.
For e.g.:

Some phones are giving free offers to some selected numbers.
Every company is planning to increase their connections. So they are decreasing their rates. So the differences occur in rates.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following bar diagram and answer the question.

How many persons were killed per 1000 people in wars in the 20th century?
Answer:
44.4

Question 2.
Observe the following bar-graph:

Between what years the armaments race was raised?
Answer:
1910-1914.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause for the World War -1?
Answer:
Murder of Archduke franz Ferdinand of Austria by a Serbian fanatic.

Question 4.
With which countries did Bismarck make the Secret Alliances?
Answer:
Austria and Italy.

Question 5.
Write two slogans on the necessity of peace.
Answer:

1. Hate war – love peace.
2. Peace is civilization.

Question 6.
What is militarism?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is a good way to solve problems.
“UN is a kind of world government based on four principles.”

Question 7.
What are the four principles?
(OR)
What are the four principles on which the UNO was founded?
Answer:

1. Preserve world peace,
2. Uphold human rights,
3. Respect international law and
4. Promote social progress.

Question 8.
Write two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

(OR)
Write any two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Peace is angle, war is a ghost.
2. War is extensive, peace is priceless.
3. War wins land, peace wins people.
4. War kills people, peace build people.

Question 9.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) In which century, is the number of war deaths low?
Answer:
16th-century

b) Why is the number of war deaths high during 1900 -1999?
Answer:

1. Two World Wars.
2. Use of modern weapons like nuclear weapons, poisonous gases.

Question 10.
Mention any one condition laid in the Versailles Treaty.
Answer:
Conditions laid in the Versailles Treaty:

1. Economic conditions,
2. Territorial conditions.
3. Military cuts, restriction of naval strength.

Question 11.
Write two reasons for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of League of Nations are:

1. Super powers were not the members of the League.
2. The League failed to prevent Germany, Japan and Italy from attacking/waging war against other countries.
3. The member countries violated international agreements.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and answer questions (a) and (b).
Annual Expenditure on National Defence (Million Dollars).

	1935	1936	1937	1939
Britain	595	846	1263	1817
Germany	381	2600	3600	4400

a) Which country’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more?
Answer:
Germany’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more.

b) Write any two reasons for the increase of defence expenditure in Britain and Germany.
Answer:
Britain and Germany are rival countries. This led to secret Alliances, Arms race, Imperialism and always they are suspecting each other.

Question 13.
What was the reason for American entry into World War II?
Answer:
The main reason is Japan attacked on American Naval base Pearl Harbour. So America entered into World War II.

Question 14.
Certain military cuts were imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on Germany State any two cuts.
Answer:

1. Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000 from 900,000.
2. It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battle-ships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen a torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Question 15.
Who called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”?
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”.

Question 16.
Which countries were developed as industrial countries at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
Britain, USA, Germany, France, Italy, Japan etc.

Question 17.
Name the countries of Triple Entente.
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

Question 18.
Which countries were formed as Triple Alliance?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Austria.

Question 19.
What do you mean by “Militarism”?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 20.
Name two aggressive forms of Nationalism.
Answer:
Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy are the aggressive forms of Nationalism.

Question 21.
Enlist the empires that ended after World War – 1.
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian Empire, the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire, the German empire, etc. were the empires that ended after the First World War.

Question 22.
Name the territories handed over by Germany to France after World War – 1.
Answer:
Alsace and Lorraine.

Question 23.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 24.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 25.
How was the world divided?
Answer:
The world was divided into the West which was experiencing economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose acute backwardness was wors¬ened by colonial exploitation by the West.

Question 26.
What was the change in literacy levels?
Answer:
Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.

Question 27.
Write down some results of the Great Depression.
Answer:

1. Massive unemployment
2. Economic breakdown
3. Two World Wars.

Question 28.
How was the world at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
At the beginning of the 20th century, the world was divided into developed industrialised countries of the West and colonial countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 29.
What were the two rival blocks in the industrialised countries?
Answer:
Germany – Austria – Hungary Vs Britain – France – Russia.

Question 30.
Why was the First World War truly a world war?
Answer:
The First World War was truly a world war as virtually no country was left untouched by it from Japan and China in the East to the US in the West.

Question 31.
How did the First World War end?
Answer:
The First World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies and in the victory of Britain and France in 1918.

Question 32.
How did the Second World War end?
Answer:
The Second World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies but before it ended it had ravaged all the warring countries.

Question 33.
Who attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
The U.S. attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 34.
What was the second fact about the world during the period?
Answer:
The second fact about the world during this period is the division of the world into nation-states and grouping of these nations of the world into power blocks and the degeneration of these alliances into war camps.

Question 35.
What happened by the end of the 19th century?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, different nations of Europe entered into alliances with each other against other blocks. Two main blocks emerged – the Centre and the Entente or Allies.

Question 36.
Who led the two blocks in the Second World War?
Answer:
The Axis powers were led by Germany and the Allies led by Britain, the US and the USSR.

Question 37.
What were the three main long term factors which led to World War – 1?
Answer:

1. Aggressive nationalism
2. Imperialism
3. Secret alliances and militarism.

Question 38.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 39.
Why did Bismarck enter into a secret alliance with Austria and Italy?
Answer:
After defeating France in 1870, Bismarck, the German Chancellor, decided to isolate it. To achieve this end, he entered into a secret alliance with Austria in 1879 and with Italy in 1882.

Question 40.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 41.
What is the result of the secret alliances?
Answer:
Instead of real peace, these alliances created an atmosphere of fear and ‘armed peace’ in Europe.

Question 42.
When did the British women get the right to vote?
Answer:
The British women got the right to vote in 1918.

Question 43.
Who participated in the Conference of Peace at Versailles?
Answer:
The five big victorious powers of the time viz. the USA, the UK, France, Italy and Japan participated in this conference.

Question 44.
Who were not invited to the conference?
Answer:
Socialist Russia and the vanquished powers were not invited to the conference.

Question 45.
Why was the League of Nations set up?
Answer:
The League of Nations was set up to prevent wars in the future.

Question 46.
How was the League of Nations hoped?
Answer:
The League of Nations was hoped that it would help eliminate wars through “collective security” and settle disputes between countries through arbitration or negotiation.

Question 47.
What were the two ideologies to which the workers turned?
Answer:

1. Socialism and
2. Communism.

Question 48.
Which empires were ended with the World War – 1?
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian empire, the Russian empire, the Ottoman Empire and the German empire, etc.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Beginning of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) When did the Russian Revolution take place?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution take place in 1917.

b) Which organisation was formed for peace after World War – II?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation.

c) What are the peace organizations formed after the two World Wars?
Answer:

1. League of Nations,
2. United Nations Organization.

Question 2.
Mention any two happenings of 20th century in support of calling it, “The Age of Extremes”.
Answer:

1. The Two world wars occurred in this age.
2. The world saw the Great Depression in the same period.
3. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights.
4. Women got right to vote firstly during this period.

Question 3.
Plot the information given below on a bar-graph :
The Armaments Race

Year	1880	1890	1900	1910	1914
Military Expenditure in Million Pounds	132	158	205	288	397

Answer:

Question 4.
Write your analysis on the graph given below.
Answer:

1. The above graph explains about Armaments Race from 1880 to 1914.
2. From 1880 to 1914 the military expenditure of the big powers were increased by over 300% i,e., from 132 million to 397 million.
3. Each and every country gave more importance to built more army to protect from their enemies.
4. The main theme of militarism is it is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyze the military expenditure in the World War-1 participant countries.

S.No.	Year	Military expenditure in million pounds
1.	1880	132
2.	1890	158
3.	1900	205
4.	1910	288
5.	1914	397

Observe the following graph and write a paragraph on the armament race.

Answer:

1. The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.
2. Military expenditure increases for every 10 years because of the armament race.
3. During 1914, the weapons were prepared on large scale and 397 million pounds were spent.
4. Since 1880 to 1914 the military experience increased in three folds.
5. Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France are some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret. How can you justify “The women getting the right to vote was a big step”?

After a long struggle for political right like right to vote, British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary, with men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with confidence, being breadwinners, women began raising their voices for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and Schools,
3. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established the ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement’ organization in 1914 for right to vote,
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big st2ep towards equality in all walks of life,

Question 7.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars.
(OR)
Create two slogans on promoting peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet to creat awareness on the loss incurred due to wars.
Answer:
Pamphlet

Consequences of wars

Wars are occured because of conquering the world and with the aim of exploiting resources of other countries. Some time dominance is the aim spread of ism or ideology is also preceding to wars.

In olden days, if there was a war, only those participating in the war would die, but nowadays very dangerous, poisonous weapons are available. Ordinary civilians also die. In 1945 what ‘ happened In Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Still some people are facing the consequences.

My request to all the country heads not to clear a way to wars. Better sit together and go for a smoother solution and avoid dangers.

xxx
Publishers.

Copies – 2000.

Question 9.
Observe the timeline and answer the questions.

Beginlng of First World War on August 1	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler In Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German Invasion of USSR	1942
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) Which year did Russia withdraw from World War -1?
Answer:
Russia withdrew from the World War -1 In 1917.

b) When did Hitler invade Poland?
Answer:
Hitler invaded poland on 1st September, 1939.

Question 10.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars and the promotion of peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 11.
The world was divided into “the West” which was experiencing economic growth and “the Rest” whose acute backwardness was worsened by colonial exploitation by the West.”
Read the above lines and interpret it.
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century, the world experienced two different blocks – the West and the Rest.
2. “The West” were all those countries like England, USA who were the leading industrial powers and they were experiencing economic growth.
3. “The Rest” were all the countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
4. They experienced extreme backwardness.
5. That backwardness was worsened by the colonial exploitation of these countries by “the West”.
6. This colonization and imperialism later led to World Wars.

Question 12.
Read the passage and interpret it.

Aggressive nationalism
The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse. It was the foundation of modern nation-states and the force behind the unification of Germany and Italy. But this ideology could also be used to create pride in one self and hatred against neighbours. This hatred was slowly building up in the 19th century between the states of Europe.

Answer:

1. Countries like Germany and Italy were unified in 1870.
2. Nationalism was an impulse behind unification.
3. Nationalism developed pride in them.
4. At the same time “it” developed hatred towards other nation.
5. This hatred led to aggressive farms like Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy.
6. They challenged other countries.
7. Finally, this aggressive nationalism led to World War II.

Question 13.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

Begining of First World War on July 28	1914
Russian Revolution	1917
End of First World War	1918
Treaty of Versailles	1919
Formation of League of Nations	1919
Rise of Hitler in Germany	1933
Breakout of Second World War	1939
German invasion of USSR	1941
Formation of United Nations Organization	1945
End of Second World War in August	1945

a) What was the period of World War -1?
Answer:
The period of World War-1 was 1914-18 AD.

b) Name the organizations formed after the World Wars.
Answer:
League of Nations and UNO were formed after the World Wars respectively.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler was responsible for World War – II.

d) What was the period of World War – II?
Answer:
The period of World War – II was 1939-45 AD.

Question 14.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name two countries that did not fall under the German Empire.
Answer:
Portugal, Spain, Turkey and Sweden.

b) Which country belonged to Allied block?
Answer:
England.

Question 15.
Discuss the death and destruction during two World Wars.
(OR)
Wars cause destruction. Prove it.
Answer:

1. World War I claimed 10 million men.
2. World War II claimed 22-25 million military casualties.
3. It also claimed 40-52 million civilian deaths.
4. It included 6 million Jews killed by Nazis.
5. It included 1,50,000 to 2,46,000 people were killed immediately by atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan by the USA.
6. The after-effects like leukaemia, cancer lingered on for decades.

Question 16.
Imperialism created much stress often leading to wars – Explain.
Answer:

1. As industrial capital developed in the European countries like Britain, Germany and US, they needed Markets for their products and access to raw materials.
2. As capital further accumulated in Banks and financial institutions, they looked for safe investment opportunities in colonies.
3. Thus by the end ofthe 19th century there was a race for colonies between the European powers.
4. The governments of these countries acted on behalf of their capitalists to increase their areas of influence and reduce the area under their competitors.
5. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to re-divide the colonies but the old powers were not ready for this.
6. This created much stress often leading to wars.

Question 17.
What do you know about the Militarism?
Answer:

1. Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.
2. From 1880 to 1914, the military expenditure of the six big powers increased by over 300%.
3. Three things are noteworthy in the context of militarism. Each of these countries built massive standing armies, competed with each other in increasing their armaments and built a mindset among the people to support wars.
4. Large industrial complex producing arms emerged which constantly promoted the idea of using war as a solution to diplomatic problems.

Question 18.
How can you say that the League of Nations was failed?
Answer:
Even though it showed a lot of promise and much was expected of it, it failed eventually to prevent Germany and Italy from violating international agreements and attacking other countries. So the World War – II emerged. Hence we can say League of Nations was failed.

Question 19.
What is the change in colonies during and after the World War -1 and II?
Answer:
During the First World War, on the demand of their subjects, the colonialists accepted the principle that self-government is desirable in colonies. With the process of decolonization, after World War II, the colonies rose to independence and hundreds of new countries were born across Asia and Africa.

Question 20.
What were the changes in the map of world?
Answer:
With World War I the German, Austro- Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. The map of eastern and central Europe was redrawn on the basis of nationality, economic viability and military security. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.

Question 21.
Write about the UNO.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II. UN is a kind of world government based on four principles, viz. preserve peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress. It works through organs like UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the Enfranchisement of women.
Answer:
After a long struggle for political right like the right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like the World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Question 23.
What was the immediate provocation for World War -1?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder on 28th June 1914 of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria by Serbian fanatic. Austria declared war on Serbia. As Serbia was with Allied Powers the Austrian attack on it led these powers to come to Serbia’s defence. Then the Central Powers, allied to Austria, also joined the war and this Marked the beginning of World War-1.

Question 24.
What was the immediate provocation for World War – II?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War II was the German tanks driving into Poland on September 1,1939. Hitler invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to hand over the port of Danzig to Germany. Polish territory lay between two parts of Germany. Hitler thought the takeover of Poland will also be a small military operation. But Poland had a defence pact with Britain which jumped on to the Polish side and France joined them a day later. This marked the beginning of World War II.

Question 25.
What was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler?
Answer:
The western capitalist countries like Britain were afraid of the Communist Revolution in other countries of Europe like Russia and initially encouraged Hitler and the Nazis of consolidating themselves to act as a buffer against Soviet Socialism. This was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler.

Question 26.
“The USA could not become a member of the League of Nations.” Why?
Answer:
The USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of President Woodrow Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of the League.

Question 27.
Write about Industrial capitalism.
Answer:
Industrial capitalism had changed the way of many people earned their livelihood but only in the western countries. Some of these countries, especially Britain, were leading industrial powers but also held vast colonial empires, spread all over the world.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes that lead to the two World Wars? (OR)
Write about the main reasons which are responsible for the two World Wars.
Answer:
I. Aggressive Nationalism:

1. The Ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive Nazism in destructive mode.

II. Imperialism:

1. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to redivide the colonies.
2. This created much stress often leading to wars.

III. Secret alliances:

1. Triple Alliance and Triple Entente made the European powers jealous and suspicious of one another.

IV. Militarism:

1. Each country built massive standing armies and competed with each other in increasing armaments.
2. They built a mindset among the people to support wars.

V. Arms Race :

1. The race for armaments and stock piling of war materials by all European coun¬tries created tensions in the world.

VI. The Treaty of Versailles :

1. World War I ended with the conference on Peace at Versailles in 1919.
2. To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on its.
3. Failure of League of Nations was the an-other cause.VII. German challenge to vengeful domination : They wanted to recover the terri¬tories lost by them, in the Treaty of Versailles, restore German dominance over Central Europe and end the restrictions on German armaments.

VIII. Immediate causes:

1. The immediate cause of First World War was the murder of Ferdinand of Austria.
2. The immediate cause of Second World War was the Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the “Treaty of Versailles’? Explain at what extent it was caused for outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles was an agreement between the victorious countries and Germany signed in 1919 after 1st World War.
Terms of Treaty of Versailles:

1. Territorial arrangements.
2. Military clauses
3. Economic clauses

Treaty of Versailles caused for outbreak of the Second World War:

1. The vanquished power Germany was not invited to the conference. Hence they thought the treaty was imposed on them, they had no respect responsibility for it.
2. The treaty aimed to weaken Germany in all aspects like – to return its colonies, reduce military, territorial penalties, huge war indemnity.
3. This created a reaction in Germany and wanted to recover the territories and restore German dominance over Europe.
4. Hitler’s invasion on Poland on Sept. 1st – 1939 gave rise to the cause of the 2nd World War.

Question 3.
Observe the following graph and answer the given questions.

a) How much was the military expenditure of great powers in 1914?
Answer:
397 Million Pounds

b) What are tripple entente countries?
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

c) State the allied powers.
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.

d) How many times, the military expenditure, increased from 1880 to 1914?
Answer:
3 times

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the above graph (See Q.No. 3) and write few sentences by analysing it.
Answer:

1. In 19th century the military expenditure raised slowly.
2. But during the 20th century, it raised rapidly.
3. Before the First World War, the expenditure increased to its maximum level.
4. Within four years i.e., between 1910¬1914 the expenditure raised nearly by 109 million pounds.
5. In the decade of 1880-1890, the raise of expenditure was 26 million pounds only.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   This graph explained about War related deaths from 1500-1999.
2. In which period, war related deaths were more?
   Answer:
   From 1900 -1999.
3. In which century, “deaths per 1000 people” were low?
   Answer:
   In 16th century
4. Give two suggestions to prevent wars?
   Answer:
   1. We can prevent wars by adopting a policy of mutual co-existence and respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
   2. Disputes between countries should be settled peacefully by talks.

Question 6.
How did the idea of Nationalism lead to the World Wars?
(OR)
How did the idea of Nation-states and Nationalism influence desire for war during 20th century?
Answer:
Nationalism is a belief, creed or political ideology that involves an individual identifying with or becoming attached to one’s nation.

1. The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. It was the foundation of modern nation states.
3. But later it became aggressive nationalism.
4. It is used to create pride in oneself and hatred against neighbors.
5. Fascists in Italy tried to build images of victories with it.
6. Nazis of Germany mobilised Germans against other nations of Europe.
7. These incidents led to World War.
8. Thus, we can say the idea of nation-states and nationalism influenced the desire for war during World Wars.’

Question 7.
Observe the given Europe map and answer the following question.
List out the Axis Power group and Central Allies group.
Answer:

Axis Powers	Allied Powers
Austria	USSR
Germany	Romania
Turkey	Britain
Bulgaria	France
Italy	USA
Japan	Poland

Question 8.
What are the important developments that took place in the first half of the 20th century? Explain any two of them.
(OR)
“The 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.” – Justify.
Answer:

1. Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.
2. Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people.
3. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.
4. New forms of art like movies emerged.
5. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life.
6. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West.
7. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world.
8. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and capitalist economy.
9. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
10. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 9.
Observe the below graph and answer the following questions.

1. In which year, the military expenditure was high? Why?
   Answer:
   In the year of 1914 the military expenditure was high because the year is the beginning of World War -1.
2. How would the armaments race impact the progress of a country?
   Answer:
   1. Armaments race was not only brought new technology into the world but also brushed a wave of nerves.
   2. It crease tension among the nations.
   3. Some countries developed very well with production and sale of arms, but some are destroyed by other nations with these arms.

Question 10.
What steps would you suggest to prevent these World Wars among the countries?
(OR)
Suggest some measures to protect World peace.
(OR)
Suggest measures to prevent wars between countries.
Answer:
To prevent World Wars, all the countries on the earth must follow the following steps.

1. The countries one and all should give up their attitude of aggressive nationalism.
2. Every country should be ready to disarmamentation of herself.
3. All the countries should promise to stop the usage of nuclear and chemical weapons.
4. Every country should be committed to development, not but to arms race.
5. Every country should respect the sovereignty and integrity of all other countries.
6. Every country should pledge not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
7. Countries must negotiate or go to International Court of Justice in case of disputes, but not to resort to wars.

Question 11.
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments. Justify the statement with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all. New forms of art like movies emerged. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and a capitalist economy. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and the economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 12.
Observe the graph and answer the questions:
a) How many people die in wars in the 16th century?
b) From the graph, what is the trend of war deaths?
c) In which century highest number of war related deaths were recorded? Why?
Answer:
a) 1.6 million people were died in wars in 16th century.
b) Above graph explains trend of war death are gradually increasing.
c) In 20th century a highest number of war related deaths were recorded. Because two World Wars were held in that century only.

Question 13.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on it Firstly, Germans were asked to return their colonies in Africa occupied in the 1880s and European areas like Alsace and Lorraine which they occupied from France in 1871. Secondly, Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000from 900,000 during World War I.
It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battleships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Do you think the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany in 1919?
Answer:

1. The peace treaty after 1st World War imposed inhumane and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. Germans thought that the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
3. Germans were asked to return colonies like Alsace and Lorraine.
4. Germans were asked to pull down its army strength to 1 lakh from 9 lakhs.
5. It was asked not to have submarines and restrictions were imposed on its naval strength.
6. These humiliating terms of Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler.
7. He recovered all the territories lost due to Treaty of Versailles.
8. Hence we can conclude that the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany.

(OR)

1. The Peace Treaty after First World War posed in-human and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. It definitely was one of the reasons for the Second World War.
3. But the victorious countries were more considerate towards Germany in 1919, would not have avoided the Second Warld War.
4. Countries like Germany, Italy and Japan were driven by Fascist superior feelings and wanted to have control over the world.
5. Keeping aside Germany, Italy and Japan joined the war only to serve their colonial interests and show the domination they enjoy the range of arms and military arrangements they have made, we cannot think of not happening of Second World War.

Question 14.
Study the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What does the above graph represent?
Answer:

1. The first bar column tells us the total number of deaths recorded during the century.
2. The 2nd bar column tells us the proportionate death due to wars.

b) Which century experienced decrease in the proportionate death rate?
Answer:
1700-1799 experienced a decrease in the proportionate death rate, i.e., from 11.2 in 1600-1699 to 9.7 in 1700-1799.

c) Why were the war related deaths high between 1900-1999?
Answer:
The world experienced two World Wars between 1900-1999. Hence the war-related deaths were high.

d) Compare 16th century with that of 20th century.
Answer:
Less than four people out of thousand died in the 16th century while it rose to 44.4 in the last century, i.e., nearly 4.5% of people died.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What do you know from the graph?
Answer:
The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.

b) In which year were the weapons prepared in large scale?
Answer:
During 1914, the weapons were prepared in large scale.

c) Why did the expense on soldiers increase for every 10 years?
Answer:
The Governments spent much expenses on soldiers to increase their area of influence and to reduce the areas under their competitors.

d) What are the countries that spend more money on weapons?
Answer:
Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France were some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 16.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.
a) What was the immediate cause of World War-ll?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany was the immediate cause of World War-II.

b) When did the USA enter in World War – II?
Answer:
The USA joined the World War-ll on the 8th of December 1941.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler, who became the Chancellor of Germany on 1933, was responsible for World War – II.

d) Why did mass murder of Jews take place in 1941?
Answer:
As the war proceeded the Nazi regime unfolded its horrible programme of building the racial supremacy of Germans by mass extermination of minority communities. Hence mass murder of Jews took place.

Question 17.
Write about the formation of UNO. On which principles it was based?
Answer:

1. After World War II United Nations Organisation was formed.
2. It was founded on 24 October 1945.
3. It is a kind of world government.
4. It was based on four principles viz.
   Preserve world peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress.
5. It works through many organs.
6. It has played a major role in preserving world peace.

Question 18.
Describe women’s fight for Right to vote. (Or) Women were discriminated even in “Right to vote.” Justify.
Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools.
3. Beginning with confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement organization in 1914 for right to vote.
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big step towards equality in all walks of life.

Question 19.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as ‘The Age of Extremes’. How far do you agree with it?
Answer:

1. I do agree with his statement.
2. Politically, there were monarchies, Fascist dominations, colonies, democratic movements and independent countries in hundreds, during this period.
3. Scientifically, unlocked secrets of atom and life.
4. New forms of art, cinema emerged.
5. Women got right to vote.
6. Socialist societies, liberal democracies are formed.
7. Great depression caused mass unemployment and economic breakdown.
8. Millions died and many more millions dislocated in two World Wars.
9. World governments like United Nations were formed.
10. Thus, this is the ‘Age of Extremes’.

Question 20.
Locate the following countries on the outline map of world.

1. Austria
2. Serbia
3. Japan
4. China
5. USA
6. USSR
7. France
8. England
9. Germany
10. Italy
11. Hungary
12. Turkey
13. Bulgeria
14. Rumenia
15. India.

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.

1. The country is the responsible for World War -1.
   Answer: Germany
2. The capital or Russia.
   Answer: Moscow
3. The Treaty of Versailles was held in the country.
   Answer: France
4. The capital of America.
   Answer:
   Washington D.C.
5. This country declare war on Serbia.
   Answer: Austria
6. In 1948 UNO created a country for Jewish people.
   Answer: Israel
7. Angola
8. China
9. Egypt
10. Myanmar
11. New York

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th B Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Create a table to show the various efforts of Gandhiji in national movement.

Event	Gandhiji’s Role

Answer:

Event	Gandhiji’s Role
1917 & 1918 Peasants’ struggle	His earliest interventions were in local movements in Champaran and Kheda where he led peasants in their struggles against unfair terms and excessive taxes.
1919 Mill workers strike	In Ahmedabad he led a successful textile workers strike in 1919.
1919 Rowlatt Act	Gandhiji gave a call for Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
1920 Punjab wrongs	Gandhiji supported the Muslims call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs”, the Khilafat wrong.
1920-22 Non-Cooperation Movement	Gandhiji demanded Swarajya and abruptly called off Non­Cooperation movement.
1930 Salt Satyagraha, Civil Disobedience	He led a campaign to Dandi village from Sabarmathi Ashram in Ahmedabad and refused the British laws.
1942 Quit India movement	Quit India resolution was passed on 8-8-1942 at Bombay. “British Rule in India must end immediately”; Gandhiji addressed memorable words to the Indian People.
194, Aug 15	He rendered his services till we attained our independence.

Question 2.
The national movement fought all attempts of the British government to deny democratic freedom and rights of the people. Give examples of the rights which the government tried to curtail and the movement launched against it.
Answer:

1. In 1919 the British introduced and passed the Rowiatt Act. The act curbed the fundamental rights of citizens and strengthened police powers.
   The National leaders declared 6-4-1919 “the day of humiliation and prayer” and hartal, Satyagraha sabhas were set up to launch the movement.
2. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa.
   The nationalist leaders and Muslim League opposed this as Punjab wrongs’ and ‘Khilafat wrong’ and demanded swaraj. They announced Non-Cooperation movement.
3. The British government decided to convert Chirala-Perala into a municipality. They forced high taxes. The people refused, under the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya, to pay the taxes. They migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months.
4. The Britishers imposed tax on ‘Common salt’. The nationalists opposed this and started civil disobedience movement.
   Thus the Indian Nationalists opposed all the negative activities of the British government.

Question 3.
To what extent was the Salt Satyagraha successful in its objectives? Give your assessment.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm swept the country during the Salt Satyagraha. Sait laws were broken at many places and even women took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement. In Delhi alone, 1600 women were imprisoned. This movement was not confined to the Salt Satyagraha alone. Foreign-cloth shops and liquor shops were picketed and were burned. Hand spinning was taken up as a movement. British schools, colleges, and services were boycotted. The people joined in large numbers in this movement.

The combined struggles of the Indian people bore fruit when the Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed provincial autonomy and the government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937.
Thus it was successful in its objectives.

Question 4.
Which of the following was part of the national movement?
a. Picketing shops that sell foreign clothes
b. Hand spinning thread to weave clothes
c. Burning imported clothes d. Wearing khaddar
e. All the above
Answer:
e) All the above

Question 5.
What were the different events that led to the partition?
Answer:

1. In 1940, the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding the Independent States for Muslims.
2. From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate ‘nation’ from the Hindus.
3. The provincial elections of 1937 seemed to have convinced the League that Muslims were a minority and they would always have to play second fiddle in any democratic structure.
4. Muslim League sought to enlarge its support in the early 1940s when most Congress leaders were in jail.
5. At the end of the war in 1945, the British opened negotiations between the Congress, the League but failed.
6. In 1946 elections the Congress did well in the ‘Genera! Constituencies’ but the League’s success in the seats reserved for Muslims was spectacular. It persisted with its demand for “Pakistan”.
7. The Cripps Mission could not get the Congress and the Muslim League to agree to specific details of the proposal – the United India.
8. Muslim League announced 16th August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’. By March, 1947 violence spread to different parts of northern India.
9. Louis Mountbatten was not able to resolve the differences between the Muslim League and the Congress Party.
10. India became independent on 15th August, 1947 while Pakistan celebrated its independence on 14th August.

Question 6.
Look at the India map and fill colors in Pakistan and Bangladesh which are our adjacent countries.
Note: The students are advised to fill colours in Pakistan and Bangladesh in practise.
Answer:
Both Pakistan and Bangladesh are our neighbouring countries.

Question 7.
Read the first paragraph under the heading ‘The Happenings of 1922-1929’ and answer this, ‘Gandhiji called off the movement after the violence. How do you support it?
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement held in February 1922 turned violent. A crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. Twenty-two policemen were killed on that day. Realizing that the situation was going bad to worse, Gandhiji abruptly called off the movement.

Gandhiji followed non-violence and Satyagraha. Those were against this violence. Hence I support Gandhiji’s decision.

Question 8.
As a part of Non-Cooperation movement, what incidents took place in our state?
Answer:
Guntur district was at the centre of nationalist activity and the participation was very widespread including not only students, but also merchants and peasants in the villages. A highlight of the Non-Cooperation movement was the famous Chirala Perala movement. The government decided to convert this town into a municipality and forced high taxes. About 15,000 people of the town led by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months. There was a powerful movement of non-payment of land revenue by the peasants and mass resignations of village officers. People said, “Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.”

Another major development was the Forest Satyagraha in Palnati taluka of Guntur district and also in Rayachoti taluka of Kadapa district. Peasants began sending herds of cattle into the forests without paying grazing fees to the forest department. In many villages of Palnadu, people declared Gandhi Raj and attacked police parties. People were convinced that the colonial rule was coming to an end and the forests would be back in the control of the village people. In the two taluqs, the forest administration had to virtually close down during the agitation period.
These were some of the incidents that took place in our state as a part of Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on Quit India Movement.
Answer:

1. On 8th August, 1942 the Quit India Movement was launched.
2. In this movement all the categories of people from throughout India participated.
3. Younger activists organized strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
4. In several districts, such as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.
5. The young in very large members, left their colleges to go to jail.
6. During this time Mahatma Gandhi addressed these memorable words to the Indian people. “Every one of you should from this movement onwards consider yourself a free man or woman and act as if you are free. I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall “do or die”. We shall either free India or die in the attempt”. Like this he encouraged all people to participate in this movement. Due to the above reasons Quit India movement become popular.

Question 10.
Prepare a timeline chart on Freedom Struggle from 1885 to 1947.
Answer:

Year	Events
1) 1885	Indian National Congress established.
2) 1886	Congress representatives were elected for local bodies (436).
3) 1885-1905	The period of Moderates
4) 1903	Swadeshi movement.
5) 1905	‘Vande Mataram1 movement against the partition of Bengal.
6) 1905-1920	The period of Extremists.
7) 1907	A split in Congress
8) 1915	Home Rule movement by Tilak and Annie Besant.
9) 1916	Congress united in Lucknow pact.
10) 1915	Gandhiji arrived – joined in Indian freedom movement.
11) 1917	Champaran local movement
12) 1918	Kheda struggle
13) 1919	Ahmedabad Mill workers strike, Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
14) 1920	Khilafat movement
15) 1921	Non-Cooperation Movement
16) 1922	Chauri-Chaura incident, called off Civil disobedience
17) 1930	Dandi Satyagraha – Civil disobedience recalled on.
18) 1935	Government of India Act
19) 1937	Elections to the provincial legislatures
20) 1940-1945	Radical Nationalists period
21) 1942	Quit India Movement
22) 1942-44	Parallel government of Midnapur people
23) 1946	Elections, Muslim League persisted for separate Pakistan
24) 1946	Cripps Mission, Muslim League announced as Direct Action Day
25) 1947	Violence spread to different parts of northern India.
26) 1947-14th Aug	Independence to Pakistan
1947-15th Aug	India became independent

Question 11.
Did the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of Independence movement reach all the people? Mention your opinion on this.
Answer:
My opinion: I think that the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of independence movement reached all the people in the early period after independence. But it is sorry to say that the spirit of independence is hanged at present.
Reasons:

1. corruption
2. violence
3. lack of belongingness etc.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think it is right to give the police such powers to suppress revolts? (Textbook Page No. 130)
Answer:
Terrorism and showing anger through demonstrations are two delicate issues. The police should recognise the tenderness and difference between these two. Then only it is right to give such powers.

Question 2.
Find out more about Chirala Perala Movement and the Forest Satyagraha. Prepare a skit and enact it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 132)
Answer:

Independence Movement -1919

Ram Nagar Camp (Chirala I Perala)
Ramudu: Arey! Raja, why did you leave our village?
Raja: Not only myself, totally our Chirala / Perala villagers left our village.
Sekhar: What? I think this ¡s our fate, we have to leave our houses.
Yaswanth: That is not our fate. That is the fate of the Britishers. They tried to raise our tax Rs. 4000/- to Rs. 40,000/-. It is really a cruel action.
Ramudu: Leave it. Gandhiji gave us a beautiful idea.
Raja: Yes ra! His idea, the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya are very well. Let us hope that these British will leave us soon.
Yaswanth: Are you right? Will they leave us?
Sekhar: Why do they leave us? They arrest us for our retort.
Raja: Let them do that. We will sacrifice our lives but we dont leave them.
All: Okay ra! Let us do like that.

Gandhiji – Jai
Duggirala – Jai
Bharat Matha – Jai
Jai – Jai

1921 – Forest Satyagraha
Mono Action
Kanneganti Hanumanthu – Palnati Warrior
Age: 30 years
In Palnati Forest

Orey Britishoda ! Who is the person that asked us to pay pullari tax. We, the sons of this land, you, the dependent on this land. Why should we pay tax to you ? Is it just ? Is it Dharma? Do you think that the son of this Palnadu will do this – English dogs.

Orey Rutherford! This forest is our mother. Our own mother. Why should we pay you for our mother’s blessings.
Neeru pettava ? Naru vesava ? Kota kosava ? Kuppa nurchava ? Enduku kattalira sistu, Enduku kattalira neeku sistu.
Enduku, Enduku ?
Amma, Amma, if you kill me ….
Amma – Thousands of Hanumanthus will born ….
You, the Britishers, will be chased – chased and necked out of our country.
Amma-Amma Vande Mataram.
Vande Mataram.
Ammaaa
Bharatha Matha – Selav.
In the next birth also I will be your son – I will play in freedom.
Van … de … maa …. tar.. am.
…. (died)….

Question 3.
Why do you think were people against such laws during the freedom movement? (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

1. Most of the police and higher officials were Britishers at that time.
2. It was most difficult for the people to been the dictatorship.
3. Introducing such laws at that time was like pouring ghee into the fire. So they were against such laws.