Mahesh

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development

8th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statement:
a) Welfare functions of the government need to be monitored.
b) People need to allow the elected representatives alone to monitor the implementation of programmes.
c) Information officers can withhold the information for indefinite period.
d) By looking at various documents one can identify if the programmes are implemented without malpractices.
Answer:
a) True b) False c) False d)True
Correct of false statements :
b) People and the elected representatives should monitor the implementation of programmes.
c) Information officers cannot withhold the information for indefinite period. It should be given in the prescribed time.

Question 2.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Need for Information to Fight Corruption’ and answer the following:
Observe any of the government programme and make a report of its implementation in your area.
Answer:
In our area the government is giving pensions to the old people and handicapped. They give Rs. 200/- to the old and Rs. 500/- to the handicapped every month. They release these funds for every 2 or 3 months once. These pensions are given to the beneficiaries through the employs of local bodies.

They select one place to hand over these pensions. Everyone should reach there in prescribed time. There may be 400 to 500 beneficiaries in that centre. They should stand in a line for hours together and sometimes two or three days also. How pity this is ! We feel so sad for this. Why don’t the government send the pensions directly to their homes or to their accounts ? In this connection we request the government and its officials to view this issue in humanitarian grounds.

Question 3.
Collect a few success stories with regarding to Right To Information Act (RTI) from the newspapers and tell them in your class.
Answer:
Story – 1:
A 70 year old lady Laxmi, lost her son Anoop Singh in Delhi road accident. He was a traffic constable there. His wife was given his pension. Later she remarried some other person. Laxmi was left as an orphan. She used this RTI Act to gain access to files regarding the pension and other benefits of her son.
Story – 2:
Kshetramai of Bhuvaneswar bought a small piece of land and got it registered. But the clerk in the Sub Registrar Office did not hand over the documents to her for 11/2 years.
She complained in the camp of RTI Act. She got her documents within hours on the same day.
Story – 3:
Aashiyana, a thirteen year old Lucknow girl, had got raped by a gang of 6 boys. They gave a compalint in a police station. The prime accused showed an evidence that he was a minor at that time and went for a trial in a Juvenile Court. Then Aashiyana father Sabruddin has filed an application at District Magistrate Office under RTI Act. He has sought information that he was a major at the time of incident. Even though it was late, it was a success.
Story – 4:
RTI brought ban on dark film in motor cars. Use of films or any other material upon the wind screen or the side windows is impermissible in law w.e.f 4.5.2012.

Question 4.
RTE is a boon to the children. Explain.
Answer:
RTE law declares that all children of the age of 6 to 14 years have the right to free education and the state has to ensure building of sufficient schools in the neighbourhood of all children, appoint properly qualified teachers and make all necessary provisions. It also declares that the education should ensure all round development of the children, learning through activities, discovery and exploration and child friendly manner. It also states that children should be taught in their mother tongue and they should be free of fear, trauma and anxiety and be able to express their views freely.

In case free neighbourhood schools are not available, in case sufficient number of teachers are not available in the schools, or sufficient teaching learning materials are not available, or if a child is beaten or terrorised, or forced to study in unfriendly manner, such children can complain to the courts against the authorities. So it is a boon to the children.

Question 5.
Do you need any more rights? Why?
Answer:
After going through this lesson, I came to understand that rights have responsibilities. My country is fulfilling my needs. So I do not need any more rights. I try to safeguard the existing rights.

Question 6.
What information would you ask your Headmaster according to Right to Information Act?
Answer:
I ask the following information:

1. Strength of the school
2. Staff particulars
3. Syllabus and teaching-related issues etc.

Question 7.
How can you say that the Right to Information Act helps to face the corruption?
Answer:
Right to Information laws, or “Sunshine” laws as they are commonly called grant citizens the legal right to access information held by their governments, bringing much-needed transparency in the otherwise opaque functioning of government.

The law is increasingly being used to tackle high profile corruption also. The transparency will automatically limit the abuse of discretion, and thus acts as the check on corruption in any regime. So I can say that the Right to Information Act helps to face corruption.

8th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss how the information regarding a road construction or building of houses is maintained by contractors. (Textbook Page No. 206)
Answer:
To construct a road or to build a house, the owners will call tenders from the contractors. They select and appoint the contractor who quoted least price. The contractors should follow the norms in the construction.

1. What kind of cement is to be used?
2. What is the ratio of cement and sand …?
3. What is the measurement of the brick? etc….

All these should be decided and should be mentioned in a book. They should record the figures of coolies, their wages etc. The owner of the construction observes these things and the construction.
If he is satisfied, he pays the amount in installments.
If it is government construction, the government engineer observes all these things.

Question 2.
a) In the example above, (Text page No: 204) do you think Pavan and his mother are able to live with dignity?
b) What would give them a life with dignity?
c) Are Pavan and his mother free to do what they want?
d) Who is to blame for this kind of a life for Pavan and his mother? Are they respon¬sible for their own condition?
e) Whose duty is it to ensure that Pavan and his mother are able to live a life of dignity
and freedom? (Textbook Page No. 204)
Answer:
a) The persons, who do not participate in illegal and immoral works are able to live with dignity.
Pavan’s mother is working hard in some others’ house. It is dignified. But I think Pavan’s begging is not correct and dignified.
b) “Work hard – Lead the life”.
This only gives them a life with dignity.
c) Any higher official or employee should bend their head before their authorities. They should follow the rules and regulations. But they are not free to do what they want. Like wise Pavan and his mother should obey the rules of their employers in work matter. In the personal life they can do as they like.
For e.g.: If Pavan’s mother does not like the work, she can leave it. She can join some – where else also.
d) The system of the society and its organization are only responsible for their own kind. In this society the rich become the richest and the poor become the poorest. This is also the same.
Some Indians have belief in ‘Karma Siddhantha’. If they are such, they should blame their fate.
e) It is the duty of the society and the government to ensure that Pavan and his mother are able to live a life of dignity and freedom.

Question 3.
With the help of your teacher make a table of the orders, reports, advices, log books etc., that he or she received from the education department during the last one year. What documents does the school maintain to report to the education department? How is the record for mid-day meal kept? (Textbook Page No. 208)
Answer:
A table of the orders, reports, advices and log books etc:

1. The school aged children in the related area should be in the school. For this necessary steps should be taken.
2. Drop-outs should be rejoined.
3. Textbooks, uniform with free of cost, should be supplied to the students.
4. Special classes should be conducted to the SSC students.
5. Mid day meals scheme should be implemented properly.
6. Eye camps should be conducted to the students and further treatment also.
7. De-warming tablets should be supplied to the students.
8. Necessary steps to be taken to improve the regularity of the students.
9. Monthly meetings should be conducted with parents etc.

The documents maintained by the school:

1. Admission Register
2. T.C. Book
3. Attendance Registers
4. Mid-day meals register
5. Salaries & Bills register
6. Visitors book
7. Mid-day meals record
   Date:

   Class & Sec.	Roll	Attendance	No. of Meals taken	Class Teacher’s signature

8. Daily Menu register
9. Monthly statements register etc.

Question 4.
Do you think your school confirms to these norms?
Answer:
Yes, I do think so.
e.g.:

1. There are learned teachers in our school.
2. We have all the needed facilities.
3. Lessons are taught in Labs and LCD room.
4. We enjoy freedom with responsibility.
5. Our teachers are the architects of our future.

Question 5.
Find out to whom you can complain about the functioning of your school when necessary. (Textbook Page No. 210)
Answer:
We should complain to the D.E.O. in district level and the Director, School Education in state level.

Question 6.
Why do you think checking this information can help in improving accountability? (Textbook Page No. 206)
Answer:
Checking the information creates a fear and compulsory morality in the supervisors or other officials. So it improves accountability.

Question 7.
Why do you think the word ‘independent’ is important in the context of State Information Commission? (Page – 208)
Answer:
If the State Information Commission has relations with the Legislature or the Executive it cannot question or control the corruption. It cannot provide the information to the people. So it should be ‘independent’. So the word is important.

Question 8.
Can you think of the questions you would want to ask information officer in the Health department? (If necessary read Chapter IX again and formulate your questions.) (Textbook Page No. 208)
Answer:

1. How many ambulances are there to save the lives of the patients?
2. What are the facilities in regional hospitals?
3. What steps are you following to retain the doctors in rural areas?
4. Are the vaccines like ‘Rabis vaccine’ available in all hospitals?
5. Why are the funds of ‘Arogyasri’ not diverted to the modernization of the government hospitals instead of paying them to private hospitals?

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 24th Lesson Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 24th Lesson Disaster Management

8th Class Social Studies 24th Lesson Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Describe any disaster that occurred in your area or that you watched on TV. What measures could have been taken to reduce its impact?
Answer:
Recently we had floods to ‘Budameru’ due to heavy rains. Houses, fields and roads were inundated with these floods. In our area, 8 persons missed due to these floods. All the crops were washed out. Many animals were drowned in the water.
We should control them flood by channelling this ‘Budameru’ water to the Krishna river. The people in the danger zone should be sent to elevated areas. Donors should be encouraged to supply them food and clothing. Drinking water should be supplied to them. Medical facilities should be arranged. Thus we can reduce its impact.

Question 2.
How can the disaster be prevented/managed?
Answer:
All the living beings except human beings are leading their lives with the nature. But the human beings are changing the nature according to their convenience. This should be avoided. The government should grow mangrove forests, relocate the villages to safe lands, practising and promoting cyclone resistant construction techniques. Thus we can manage disasters.
Village disaster management teams should be formulated and trained. A large numbers of cyclone shelters and mounds should be constructed in strategic locations so as to accommodate villagers in case another cyclone strikes the area. Thus the disaster can be prevented.

Question 3.
Discuss the elder’s experience with regard to the disasters and the management and write a note.
Answer:
Once there was an earthquake in Hyderabad. It was a summer night. All of our family members were sleeping outside in open place. My granny thought that some dog was striking her cot. In seconds we heard shouting ‘earthquake, earthquake’. All of us ran out immediately. One building at the end of the road collapsed. There were some breaches in the walls of the houses. It occurred nearly five to six times. Our colony people sat on the roads with great fear. The next day morning they entered their houses with frozen hearts.

Question 4.
Suggest the precautions to be taken by the people to face the disasters.
Answer:
Disaster precautions are important in preventing the loss of human lives and minimizing the damage to property during the occurance of a natural disaster. In todays world, there are many types of natural disasters. In some cases, we cannot be able to take any precautions. So safety measures or precautions should be pre-planned before the disaster strikes. How¬ever, some of the precautions to be taken before a natural disaster occurs are listed below:

1. The people should be seen that all breakables are stored safely, food stuffs and water are prepared and big items need are on the floor.
2. Green vegetations like trees surrounding should be pruned regularly or even cut down, if they are in state for damaging property if disturbed, for e.g. wind.
3. In the event that the gas or electricity becomes hazardous, everyday should also familiar-ize themselves with turning off the gas and electricity supply to their houses.
4. The originals or copies of valuable certificates like birth certificates, marriage certificates, passports etc.
5. The cracks and damage of the house should be checked including the roof, chimneys and foundation.

Question 5.
Mention the effects of a drought.
Answer:
There is a sequential impact of drought:

1. Scarcity of drinking water; fall in water-table
2. Decline in crop acreage
3. Fall in employment in the agricultural sector due to slowing down of agricultural activity
4. Fall in purchasing power of those engaged in agriculture
5. Scarcity of food grains
6. Scarcity of fodder
7. Loss of cattle life
8. Malnutrition, especially among children
9. III health and spread of diseases like diarrhoea, dysentery or cholera and opthalmia caused by starvation
10. Distress sale and mortgage of land, jewellery and personal property
11. Migration of people in search of employment.

Question 6.
Mention the occasions where the water is wasted and suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
Occasions where the water is wasted:

1. Marriage functions
2. Meetings
3. Children at home (while playing)
4. While carrying water in tanks
5. Roadside taps
6. While filling water tanks etc.

Preventive measures:

1. People should be educated regarding water scarcity.
2. Taps should be in good condition.
3. There should be alarms to the water tanks.
4. Children should be kept away from water while they are playing.
5. The outlets of water tanks should be checked in Municipalities and Corporations etc.

Question 7.
Make an album with the pictures of natural disasters.
Answer:
Natural disasters:

8th Class Social Studies 24th Lesson Disaster Management InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you know what tsunamis are? How they are formed? How they can be predicted and how you can save yourself if you are residing in any of the coastal districts of the state ? (Textbook Page No. 256)
Answer:
The term “Tsunami” has been coined from the Japanese words ‘tsu’ meaning harbour and ‘name’ meaning waves. Tsunamis are huge waves generated by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or underwater landslides which devastate coastal communities. Tsunamis caused by nearby earthquakes may reach the coast within minutes. When the waves enter shallow water, they may rise to several feet or, in rare cases, tens of feet, striking the coast with devastating force. The tsunami danger period can continue for many hours after a major earthquake. With the use of satellite technology, the Tsunamis are predictable. With the cautions given by the department, we will move to the safest places to save ourselves.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 13 Seed Dispersal

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 13th Lesson Seed Dispersal

7th Class Science 13th Lesson Seed Dispersal Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How seeds are formed and give birth to new plants?
Answer:

1. We know that after fertilization ovary develops as fruit and ovules develop into seeds.
2. When the seeds germinate they give birth to new plants.

Question 2.
Why are seeds disperse to different distances. How do they disperse?
Answer:

1. We know that seed dispersal is necessary to grow tiny plants of the same species.
2. To avoid competition with the mother plant for air, water and minerals plants disperse their seeds to different distances.
3. But the process of dispersal varies from plant to plant.
4. Plants have special mechanism for seed dispersal.

Question 3.
Explain how does the dispersal of seeds through wind take place.
Answer:

1. The seeds of caltropis have light and hairy structure at one end.
2. They travel with wind and settle at a suitable place to germinate.
3. Seeds that are dispersed through air are usually light and are either very small or are light with wings on them or some hairy structures on them.
4. The seeds get adapted in such a way that they get carried away easily by wind.
5. Some seeds float in air, some propel to travel short distances.
   
6. In some plants like orchids seeds are minute with inflated covering.
7. In plants like maple, seeds have wing like outgrowths.
8. Cotton seeds have hairy structures.
9. These types of specialized structures, present in the seeds, will be helpful for dispersal by air.

Question 4.
Write a note on dispersal of seed by water.
Answer:

1. The seeds adapted to float on water are usually light. The outer covering of the seed has empty spaces filled with air and some are fibrous with air spaces that encloses the whole seed or fruit.
   Eg: Coconut.
2. The entire Coconut fruit floats on water and moves from one place to another.
   
3. When it reaches the ground it germinates.
4. That’s why we usually find coconut trees growing near sea shores.
   
5. Seeds that are heavy usually fall to the bottom of water sources and get carried by the flow of water. Ex: Seeds of Lotus.

Question 5.
Describe how animals help in the dispersal of seeds.
Answer:

1. Seeds are dispersed by animals in many ways.
   
2. In case of fleshy fruits, the fruit is eaten by animals while some dry fruits, with specialized structures like hooks, thorns, hairy parts, get stuck to the bodies of animals and get carried to distant places.
3. We find such seeds in some kind of grass plants.
4. We notice some kinds of fruits or seeds getting stuck to our clothes when we walk through fields and bushes.
5. They have hooks or thorns on them.

Question 6.
Explain how birds are also responsible for the dispersal of seeds.
Answer:

1. Some seeds are sticky and get stuck to the beaks of birds and in course of flight they fall down at distant places.
2. Often some birds carry seeds with their beaks. Some of them fall before they reach their nesting places.
3. We know some seeds have to pass through the guts of some birds before they germinate.
4. Birds like Bulbuls, Mynahs, Crows eat some fruits (Eg: Neem fruit) the outer fleshly part gets digested in the food canal and the seed coats of them become tender.
5. They are then dispersed to other places as bird droppings.

Question 7.
Why plants produced a large number of seeds?
Answer:

1. We have observed that fruits and vegetable plants that grow in our home garden produce a large number of seeds.
2. Some fruits grow in singly whereas some are in bunches.
3. Some fruits have a single seed in them and some have a large numebr of seeds.
4. All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate to produce new plants.
5. Actually this does not happen. If this happens we will see only same type of plants in large number in our surroundings.
6. All seeds don’t germinate. Some seeds never germinate to produce new plants. Some seeds germinate but plants die before maturation.
7. To overcome these problems plants produce a large number of seeds.

Question 8.
Collect some seeds like grass, poppy, bhendi, coconut etc. Try to collect different types of seeds like seeds with hair, thorns, big, small, light, heavy etc., and record the information in the given table :
Answer:

Question 9.
Observe the following figures. They are seeds with different shapes and structures.
Answer:

Question 10.
How do squirrels help in dispersal of seeds?
Answer:

1. It collects a lot of nuts and hides them underground before onset of winter.
2. It can hardly eat all of them and even forget where it has hidden its nuts!
3. Thus we have several nut trees at different places.

Question 11.
Do you agree with the fact that seeds are also travelling by aeroplanes, and ships ? Explain,
Answer:

1. Nowadays we see diffeernt kinds of fruits and vegetables around us.
2. Import and export of grains like wheat pulses, maize, paddy is a common practice through which many seeds get dispersed all over the world.
3. It is a wonder now that seeds also travel by aeroplanes and ships.

Question 12.
How many seeds a mustard plant does produce? How do you feel about it?
Answer:

1. A mustard plant produces more than 10,000 seeds in its lifetime.
2. If all the seeds germinate to grow into adult plants, think how many seeds would be produced. If this happens for a period of six years the entire globe will be covered with mustard plants.

Question 13.
Some animals eat fleshy fruits. How do they disperse the seeds of those fruits.
Answer:

1. Many fleshy fruits are meant to being eaten by animals.
2. The fleshy part of the fruit is eaten leaving the seeds uninjured.
3. Some seeds get dispersed through animal excretions

Question 14.
With the help of your teacher fill up the table given below.
Answer:
Observe the animals in your surroundings. Fill in the following table.

Question 15.
Describe how does the dispersal of seeds take place by the bursting of fruits that throw the seeds out.
Answer:

1. Many fruits enclose the seed in a capsule or pod.
   Upon drying the pod explodes releasing the seeds with great force in the surroundings.
2. We find such type of seeds in Bhendi, Mustard and seeds of Pea family.
   
3. Some seeds grow in capsules which when touched burst and uncoil with a force in such a way that they scatter the seeds all around.
4. The seeds of Balsam are dispersed in this manner.
5. We also noticed that some fruits explode when we sprinkle water on them and the seeds get dispersed.

Question 16.
Describe how the seeds of fruits tomato, cauliflower, guava, sugar cane transfered across the globe by people.
Answer:

1. We should know from where this tomato fruit has come from and that it is not native to India.
2. When European travellers came to trade in India, they left the seeds of vegetables like tomato, cauliflower, guava, pear on their return.
3. Similarly sugarcane which is native to India and is used worldwide for production of sugar, is a good example of how people transfer seeds/fruits from one place to another.

Question 17.
Use the information in the given table to answer the following questions.

i) What is the agent of coconut seed dispersal?
ii) What is the dispersal agent ofneem seed?
iii) Name the seed which is dispersed by wind?
iv)What are the seeds dispersed by human intervention?
Answer:
i) Water
ii) Birds
iii) Caltropis
iv) Mango

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Food Security.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two ways which you would suggest for the eradication of malnutrition among the children?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Sufficient food should be given to children.
2. Children should be given nutritious food with low cost.

Question 2.
What is the active role of the judiciary in implementing food security in India? How is this role useful to children?
Answer:
In recent time, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through judicial verdict on court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide Mid-day-meals to all the young children studying in schools. The court also set up monitoring mechanisms and provided suggestions for better Implementation.

Question 3.
What is meant by Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

1. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Govern¬ment of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fail in farm prices.
2. With this price the government procures food grains through the FCI.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for ‘Nutricereals.
Answer:
Examples for the Nutri-cereals are

1. Jowar,
2. Ragi,
3. Bajra.

Question 5.
Give any two examples, which give vitamins.
Answer:
Fruits, Leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.

Question 6.
Expand the term F.C.I.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India.

Question 7.
What is the reason for providing mid-day meals in government schools?
Answer:

1. To increase the literacy rate in India and enroll more children in schools.
2. To provide one meal for all the poor young children studying in government schools.

Question 8.
Write any two reasons for better implementation of the Public Distribution System in southern states.
Answer:
A universal Public Distribution System is there in southern states. Specific cards are issued to the needy people. Low cost foodgrains are available for them in the ration shops.

Question 9.
What is the need of food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed for various purposes. The main purpose of food security is ‘no person should go to bed with an empty stomach’.

Question 10.
Which caused large scale starvation deaths in pre-independent India?
Answer:
In pre-independent India, famines – situations of extreme scarcity of food, were a common cause of large-scale starvation deaths.

Question 11.
What was the loss of the Bengal famine?
Answer:
The Bengal famine in 1943-45, took away about 3 to 5 million people lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa.

Question 12.
Why did the famines occur in Indian history?
Answer:
The famines occurred in Indian history because food grains supply was not organized by the rulers.

Question 13.
Name some organizations through which government today ensures food security.
Answer:
Ration shops and Anganwadis.

Question 14.
What is an important requirement of food security?
Answer:
Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.

Question 15.
What are the results of this method?
Answer:
Soil degradation and depletion of groundwater resources.

Question 16.
How is the availability of foodgrains per person per day estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows:
Availability of foodgrains per person per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year T population)/ 365

Question 17.
What do consumers need?
Answer:
Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet.

Question 18.
What can farmers do to increase their incomes?
Answer:
Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.

Question 19.
Give any one reason for farmers’ distress and even suicides.
Answer:
The conversation of food grain fields into cash crops such as cotton in Andhra Pradesh during the last two decades.

Question 20.
What do the nutritionists suggest?
Answer:
Nutritionists suggest that every person in India should eat 300 gms of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day whereas per person availability of these food materials 180 and 58 gms respectively.

Question 21.
What do farmers require?
Answer:
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items. They may have to. be supported and guarded against market risks that they face in the new situation.

Question 22.
Why may the foodgrain production come down?
Answer:
Since resources are diverted to non-food grain uses, foodgrain production may come down.

Question 23.
What is something to be worried about for India’s food security?
Answer:
The decline in the level of per capita availa¬bility of food grains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.

Question 24.
How are the national average calorie levels?
Answer:
The national average calorie levels in both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements.

Question 25.
What are used to examine the nutritional status of children?
Answer:
To examine the nutritional status of children, simple but accurate measurements of height and weight are used.

Question 26.
Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock has been created to meet any exigencies. The buffer stock can be utilized in case of drought or flood or any natural calamity.

Question 27.
What are Fair price shops?
Answer:
The ration shops which come under the PDS are called fair price shops.

Question 28.
Write short notes on MSP.
Answer:
MSP means Minimum Supportive Price. The FCI procures foodgrains and other farm produce by giving MSP for their produce. This ensures farmers of a minimum guarantee for their produce.

Question 29.
How many grams of vegetables and fruits every person eat a day?
Answer:
Every person in India should eat 300 grams of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day.

Question 30.
Today what are called as “nutri-cereals”?
Answer:
The coarse cereals like jowar, ragi, bajra, etc., are today called as nutri-cereals.

Question 31.
What is meant by PDS system?
Answer:
PDS system means the government supplying low-cost foodgrains to people with ration cards.

Question 32.
What is meant by Nutrition Food?
Answer:
Nutritious food is that food that provides for energy, growth and capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.

Question 33.
How is BMI derived?
Answer:
BMI = Weight in legs/height in meters squared.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalize people’s right to food. What do you suggest to implement this Act?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Subsidy rice should be given to the people of the low-income group.
2. More rice should be given to very poor people.
3. Dal, oil, tamarind and jaggery, etc. also should be supplied to these people through PDS.
4. MDM scheme should be implemented with more efforts.

Question 2.
Our country could not achieve self-sufficiency in the production of foodgrains even today. Illustrate your reasons.
Answer:

1. Foodgrain production is not proportional when compared to the rate of population growth.
2. There is no proper water management.
3. Farmers are following traditional methods.
4. Fragmentation of landholdings.
5. Improper manuring and low application of fertilizers.

Question 3.
State any two defects, which you find in the organization of the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Selling with higher prices.
2. Cheating in the process of weighing.
3. Selling ration goods in the black markets.
4. Ineligible candidates holding white cards.
5. Only few days distribution is following.

Question 4.
If the food grain production is affected because of natural calamity, in what ways can the Government ensure higher availability of food grains?
Answer:

1. The FCI releases the buffer stock.
2. By bringing supplies from other areas.
3. Through a universal PDS system, low-cost food grains would be available.
4. The Anthyodaya Cardholders are entitled to get 35 Kgs. of food grains per month per family.

Question 5.
“The Supreme Court of India directed to all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day-meal to the children studying in all schools.”
Prepare a pamphlet on better implementation of the Mid-day-meal program.
Answer:
Pamphlet on Mid-day-meal programme.

1. Foodgrains available in local areas are to be used.
2. Follow the menu regularly that meets the need of nutritional requirements of the children.
3. Cooking in clean and hygienic environment.
4. Involvement of staff and children for effective implementation.

Question 6.
Appreciate the benefits of the Mid-day meal programme implemented in Government schools.
Answer:

1. It ensures food security.
2. It provides nutritious food.
3. It helps to increase net attendance rate.

Question 7.
Write suggestions to avoid food waste in Mid-day meal in your school.
Answer:

1. Meals cooked should be tasty and healthy.
2. Children should be educated on the consequences of food wastage.
3. Teachers should supervise the programme.

Question 8.
Observe the bar diagram and answer the questions.
a) What percentage of people in rural India are consuming more calories than are required?
Answer:
20%
b) What is the reason for consuming less calories than are required in rural India?
Answer:

1. The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of purchasing power of the people.
2. People don’t have adequate incomes to buy food.
3. The reasons are poverty, unemployment, etc.

Question 9.
What are the measures you suggest for improving the present public distribution system?
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Provide ration cards only to the poor and vulnerable groups.
2. Check every month whether they are rationed in an effective manner or not.
3. Quantity supplied by the government should be increased.
4. Remove the fake cards.

Question 10.
Analyze a week’s food habits of your family. And write how it impacts on Agriculture sector and the environment.
Answer:
Family food habits:

1. Rice and redgram, vegetables, milk, curd, eggs, etc.
2. For breakfast – idly, dosa, chapati, etc.
3. Sometimes some members take non-vegetarian food.

Impact on agriculture:

1. For increase of food grains and vegetables production farmers are using pesticides and fertilizers. Due to this soil loses its fertility.
2. For increasing of milk production farmers follow artificial methods. Those methods cause harm to animals.

Impact on the environment:

1. Excessive use of chemicals causes water, air pollutions.
2. Bio-diversity is effected very highly.
3. Deforestation.

Question 11.
Write a letter to the concerned officer for the proper implementation of the Public Distribution System in your area.
Answer:

Siricilla.
31st March 2017.

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Siricilla.

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Subhashnagar, Siricilla. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer. They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….
………………….

Question 12.
Prepare a pamphlet to bring awareness among the people on food security in India
Answer:
Pamphlet

Food Security in India

National Food Security Act 2013 legalizes the people’s right to food. According to this Act White, Pink, Anthyodaya cards are distributed to the needy on identification. Free cooked meal for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children 1-5 in Anganwadi is supplied.

Many ration shops are not open on proper timings. There will be no display of prices list and the stock of commodities. The card holders come to ration shops, and as they are closed, they get back to their home without commodities. They lose their wages for that day also. The shop dealers are diverting commodities to other shops in the market. Many times it is seen in newspapers and channels but no change is found with the dealers.

Mid day meals in schools is also like that. The minimum quantity of pulses and oil are not used. The watery curries are served. No one cares about it.

People should get aware about this. Many non Government organizations are working for the benefit of society. The government should organize a campaign about this.

No. of copies
5000

Published by
Society for people

Question 13.
What is the position of India’s per capita availability of foodgrains compared to other countries?
Answer:

1. India’s per capita availability of foodgrains in 2010-11 was 463 grams.
2. It was very low when compared to the same of countries in Europe (700grams) and USA (850 grams).
3. Since resources are diverted to non-foodgrain uses, food grain production has come down.
4. The decline in the level of per capita availability of foodgrains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.
5. To avoid this, the policy of the government should aim to increase the production of foodgrains and other types of food simultaneously.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the question.

The State and Central Governments procure nearly one-third of foodgrains from farmers. These food grains are distributed to people through various mechanisms. In recent times, government agencies are procuring more foodgrains than what is required to meet the public distribution system. If government stocks keep increasing year after year, less is available (see year 2011 in Table on foodgrain availability). The government has been criticized that it is not distributing these foodgrains to the needy people. Sometimes, governments also exported these foodgrains to other countries.

Do you support this, when a large section of people within the country are not able to access to food grains?
Answer:

1. The state government should procure foodgrains to distribute through PDS at lower prices.
2. Needs of our people are to be considered.
3. So I do not support the concept of exporting foodgrains to foreign countries.
4. Instead, the foodgrains should be kept available to the needy of our country.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the question

“The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency (BMI<18.5) among men was about 35%, while overweight/obesity (BMI >25) was 10% …….
“About 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency andl4% were overweight/obese.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the States of Odisha, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh, followed by 33-38% in Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal…”

How is this related to food security?
Answer:

1. The above information says that 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency.
2. The prevalence of CED in our state is between 33% and 38%.
3. The above information proves that people do not have access to good food.
4. Hence “food security” should be implemented to avoid chronic energy deficiency.

Question 16.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is being ensured in India by using the following methods:

1. By improving production
2. By maintaining buffer stock
3. By the Public Distribution System.

Question 17.
What has to be done in order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop?
Answer:

1. In order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop, necessary inputs have to provided in a judicious manner.
2. One way is to expand irrigation but use water in a manner so that this vital resource is shared and made available to all.
3. Modern methods of farming are to adopted.

Question 18.
Which have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels?
Answer:
Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.

Question 19.
How is the availability of foodgrains for the year estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows.
Availability of foodgrains for the year = Production of foodgrains during the year (production – seed, feed and wastage) + net imports (imports-exports)-change in stocks with the government (closing stock at the year end – opening stock at the beginning)

Question 20.
Write your comments on the Food Security Bill.
Answer:
The Food Security Bill promises to alleviate hunger and guarantee very cheap food to India’s poor people. But there are concerns it has not been properly thought through and become unsustainable.
Under the programme everyone who qualifies for the subsidy will be entitled to 5 kg in total of rice, wheat, etc. The government intends to use the PDS for delivering subsidies to the poor.

Question 21.
Write your comments on P.D.S.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) has helped in stabilizing food prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has helped in avoiding hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. The share of PDS in the consumption of rice and wheat has risen steeply. I think this PDS is working effectively throughout the nation.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and answer the question.

Studies indicate that Southern states of India have a good record in the public distribution system. Notably, these are the states that have followed a universal PDS system which means that low cost food grains would be available to all. This Is in contrast to other states where poor families have been Identified and foodgrains are sold to at different prices to poor and non-poor. Even among the poor, the very poor have different entitlements, or guarantees for access.

Interpret the relation between the PDS and food security.
Answer:

1. People get food grains at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
2. The government ensures it through Food Corporation of India.
3. The Government should take suitable measures to reduce lapses in distribution and ensures benefit to the target groups.
4. The various concepts of PDS like Anganwadis. Mid-day meals and fair price shops etc., provide food security to the different low income groups.

Thus there is a close relation between the PDS and food security.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“While Indian Parliament enacts various laws such as National Food Security Act and implements schemes such as Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) in recent times, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through Judicial verdict as court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals to all the young children studying in schools.

Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act1 to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, It will give cash for the people to buy food grains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the question that follows.
Crop Production (Kilograms per Hectare)

Write an analysis on the yielding trends of different crops.
Answer:

1. The above table explains the crop production in 1950-51 and 2000-2001 kgs per hectare.
2. Paddy production increases highly, wheat production also increased. Pulses production increased 100 kgs only. Oil seeds production increased double. Cotton production also increased double. Jute production also increased.

Due to Green Revolution, crop production increased gradually within the 50 years. Among the all wheat & paddy production increased because of both are benefited with Green Revolution. Food grain production also increased.

Question 4.
How far is ‘Food Security’ required today in India?
Answer:
Due to the increase of more population food security Is need nowadays. The following factors are responsible.

1. Per person availability of food grain has actually not rise but declined in the recent years.
2. Most people are in fact consuming fewer calories than required. This gap is severe for the poorest.
3. Lack of employment or with low salaries majority of people are not able to purchase require food grains.
4. In some areas PDS system is not working properly.
5. A large section of people are malnourished, even when we have adequate food in the country.
6. Majority of children and adults as being underweight in a chronic way.

On above issues food security is need today.

Question 5.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Per person availability of food grains in India

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. In 1951 the population of India was 361 million and the food grains production was 50.8 million and 395 grams of food grains were available to a person per a day.
2. The population increased in 1961. It was 78 million. At the same time food grains production increased 32 million tons. The availability of food grains per person per a day was 469 grams.
3. In 1971,1991 and 2011 the population increased. At the same time the food grains production also increased. But in 1961,1971 the availability of food grains was the same; not increased.
4. From 1991 to 2011 the availability of food grains decreased due to floods, famines, natural calamities. More population was also another cause.

Till 1991 the population, food grains production and availability of food grains per person per day increased. But in 2011 only the population and food grains production increased. Availability of food grains drastically decreased.

The first requirement for a country is to be able to produce food grains for the whole population. Per person availability of food grains should be sufficient and also increasing over the years. From the information given above, it is evident that per person availability of food grains is decreasing since 2011.

So Government should take necessary measures in this regard. It should encourage farmers to produce more food grains. There should be control on exports also. Sometimes local people suffer for food grains but the government exports the food grains to other countries to import what they need. It is the minimum duty of the welfare government to keep food grains available to its people that to especially the poor.

Question 6.
Analyse how the Public Distribution System provides access to food to the poor?
Answer:
It is a joint responsibility of central government, state government and union territory administration to ensure the smooth functioning of the PDS.

While the responsibility of central government is to procure, store and transport it from purchase points to central godowns, the responsibility of state government and union territory administrations is to lift these commodities from the central godowns and distribute them to consumers through the network of fair price shops. FCI procures and distributes foodgrains, to provide subsidized food to the poor to mitigate regional inequalities through moving the surplus food to deficit areas and to stabilize agricultural prices.

The universal coverage of PDS was replaced by Targeted Real Public Distribution System in 1997 in order to achieve the objective of food security through sale of foodgrains to APL householders at economic cost and confirming the food subsidy bill toward the identified BPL families whose number crossed 97 million families in 2007.

Access to food through Public Distribution System :

1. National Food Security Act legalizes people’s right to food.
2. It is applicable to 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. PDS ensures the availability of foodgrains to the poor at subsidized rates.
4. Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice or wheat) per month per family.
5. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5 kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidized rates.
6. 75% of people living in rural areas purchase foodgrains through PDS.
7. 50% of the urban population purchases foodgrains through PDS.
8. PDS helps in maintaining the nutrition status of the people.
9. Studies indicate that the southern states of India have a good record in PDS.

Question 7.
What would be the impact of the availability of other food items and food security?
Answer:

1. It is said that there is a change in consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries.
2. This is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers.
3. Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.
4. Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items.
5. Over the years, although there has been increasing in the production of other food items, it is not sufficient to meet the minimum dietary requirements.
6. The policies should aim at increasing food crop production and other food items simultaneously.
7. It will fill the gap and make food security more viable.

Question 8.
What are the salient features of Food Security Bill?
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act’ to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 9.
Why do we require food? How do we classify the food that we consume?
Answer:

1. Food is required by the body for all its functions for energy, growth and the capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.
2. The food that we consume is normally classified as –
   1. Carbohydrates: that provide energy, through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats, etc.
   2. Proteins: that help growth and regeneration of body tissues through beans, dais, meat, eggs, rice, wheat, etc.
   3. Vitamins: that provide protection and ensure the working of many vital systems of the body through foods such as fruits, leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.
   4. Minerals are required in small quantities for many important functions such as iron and blood formation. This is provided through green leafy vegetables, ragi, etc.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
It is also important to ensure that soil and other natural resources are not damaged or depleted in the process. Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India – by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides – have led to a continuous but unsustainable Increase in the yield levels. In fact, these methods have led to soil degradation and depletion of ground water resources. If this continues, we may soon come to a situation that yields start falling rather than going up.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that improper usage of chemical fertilizers and insecticides causes for damage of cultivable soil and depletion of ground water levels.
2. If these methods are followed continuously there will be no ground water resources.
   My comments on this paragraph are as follows:
3. The population is growing day by day.
4. Cultivable land is not increasing in that proportion.
5. The food grain production is to be increased.
6. A part of green revolution it has become compulsory for the farmers to use fertilizers and pesticides to grow more crops.
7. Instead of using chemical fertilizers, the farmers should use go for organic farming.
8. Compost is to be encouraged. Multiple cropping is also one alternate.
9. Cultivable land is to be expanded by changing the wastelands as farming lands.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

If a country is to able to produce food grains for the whole of its population this would be considered as the first requirement. How do we measure whether if there is food for all ? Whether this food reaches families would be examined later. We are at first estimating what is available. This means that per person (or per capita) availability of foodgrains in the country should be sufficient and also increased over the years. Is the increase in foodgrain availability really happening?

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph every country should produce the foodgrains how much it needs.
2. Every country should examine two things.
3. The first one is how much foodgrains are produced in the country and the second one is how it is reaching to the people.
4. Many countries don’t concentrate on this sensitive issue.
5. It is very primary thing to look into the matter of food grain production and its availability.
6. When the production is less than the need or demand, automatically the prices go up.
7. Government should encourage the farmers to produce more foodgrains.
8. There should be control on exports also.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

It Is said that there Is a change In consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries. This Is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers. Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. Farmers producing food grains can go In for crop diversification In order to increase their Incomes.

Answer:

1. The paragraph says that the people demand different types of food like vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
2. Taking this type of food is a good sign.
3. By utilizing this diverse food, the people maintain good health.
4. Where Is a lot of gap between the production of foodgrains and its availability.
5. The pattern mentioned in this paragraph is good for health but the problem is its availability.
6. The access of food is very less when it is compared to the Nutritionists suggestions.
7. In Agriculture, there is a shift from food crops to commercial crops.
8. Many farmers are concentrating on commercial crops.
9. Consequently, there will be scarcity of foodgrains.
10. Food grains are to be grown to what extent it is necessary.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

The national average calorie levels In both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements. Also, the consumption of calories has gone down between 1983 and 2004. This Is shocking since as we have seen our economy Is growing at a rapid rate. Production of goods and services has Increased many times.

Answer:

1. This paragraph tells us that the people in rural and urban areas are not taking sufficient calories intake in their diet.
2. It is surprising that the economy is growing but calorie intake Is decreasing.
3. Production is increasing but consumption Is decreasing.
4. According to the reports of nutritionists it is clearly understood that the people are not consuming as per requirements.
5. Irrespective of caste, religion, region and gender the rich people take more than requirement but the problem is with the poor people.
6. Government should take new steps to help the poor people.
7. The PDS functioning should be made correct.
8. Quality commodities are to be provided at cheaper prices.

Question 14.
Write a letter to the Tahsildar about irregular functioning of ration shop in your area.

Tadepalli,
Date : xx xx xxxx

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Tadepalli

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Prakashnagar, Tadepalli. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer.

They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What aspects of the Nizam rule would you consider to be ‘undemocratic’?
Answer:
Undemocratic-aspects:
The term ‘undemocratic’ refers to the rule that is not related to the democratic aspect of government, in other words, the decisions that has taken by only one person or a small group rather than taking into consideration the population who will be following those rules. The various aspects of the Nizam’s rule which considered to be ‘undemocratic’ are as follows: –

• Under his rule, Jagirdars were given full control of the villages, and they also collected taxes from the people.
• He wanted to bring old system where king and his nobles had the full authority to rule whenever they want to.
• He didn’t allow functioning of any democratic systems like legislatures or local bodies.
• He was reluctant to allow opening of the schools which led to low literacy rate in the state.

Question 2.
Why do you think the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states?
Answer:
The Nizams were slow in setting up schools in their kingdom. Many jagirdars did not even allow setting up of schools in their areas. The Nizams were also suspicious of private schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. They actually discouraged the setting up of private Telugu medium schools and did not allow those students to join Osmania University. So the literacy rate in Hyderabad state was lower than other princely states.

Question 3.
Describe the activities of the Andhra Maha Sabha for the promotion of education.
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. They established libraries and cultural centres all over Telangana even in remote villages. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. Thus AMS promoted education.

Question 4.
What were the demands of the Hyderabad State Congress and how many of them were fulfilled after 1948?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress only functioned in the British India and did not function directly in the princely states. However, the common people faced more oppression and injustice in these princely states and they wanted to join the larger freedom movement of India. In such states the nationalists formed ‘state congress’ to fight for democratic rights, reforms, representative government etc. This happened in Hyderabad too. All these were fulfilled after 1948.

Question 5.
Do you think the Telangana Armed Struggle helped to end the rule of the Nizam? Give your reasons.
Answer:

1. The established Ryot Sanghams.
2. They established libraries, night schools and tried to make them literate.
3. They undertook many revolutionary activities.
4. They fought against the Nizam and the Doras.
5. They established armed forces.
6. They went from village to village and made the people conscious.
7. They abolished Vetti.
8. They demanded Visalandhra.
9. They fought against Razakars.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions: Do you support the Feudal system of the state.

The Nizams were initially provincial governors of the Mughal emperors. They ruled with the help of hereditary jagirdars and subordinate kings. Jagirdars were given control of dozens and even hundreds of villages which they ruled as they desired and collected taxes from the people. The rest of the kingdom was ruled directly by the Nizam with the help of ‘doras’ about whom you read in an earlier chapter.

The Nizams wanted to retain the old system in which the king and his nobles controlled all resources and ruled as they willed. They did not allow any democratic system like local bodies or legislatures. The Nizams opposed the Congress led nationalist movement and passed several ‘firmans’ or royal orders curtailing political activity in the state. They had a network of police and spies who kept a close watch on people.

Answer:
I do not support the Feudal system of the Nizams.
Reason: The common people were treated as slaves.

Question 7.
Many movements were led against the rulers in the past. Do you find any movements taken up nowadays? If yes, what are they?
Answer:
Some movements were led against the rulers in recent time.

1. The then government enhanced the electricity charges in December 2000. The people led a movement against the government at that time.
2. In July 2011, the textile business people fought against ‘Vat’ and they led a strike.

Question 8.
What questions the librarian should be asked to know about the library of your area?
Answer:

1. At which level the library is situated?
2. How many books are there in the library?
3. What kinds of magazines are there in the library?
4. Can we get book to our house?

Question 9.
Locate the following places of Nizam’s rule in the India map.
a) Aurangabad b) Warangal c) Raichur d) Gulbarga
Answer:

Question 10.
Collect the pictures of leaders of the Telangana armed struggle.
Answer:

8th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think the problems faced by the people of Hyderabad state were in some ways different from those faced by people living in British ruled states? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:

Question 2.
Was there any difference between the attitude of the British and the Nizams when it came to democracy? (Textbook Page No. 142)
Answer:
No. Both suppressed the people.

Question 3.
Was Telangana Armed Struggle only for removal of the grievances of the peasants or did it have other aims? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Initially the main demands of the peasants were limited to fight against illegal feudal exactions, levy system, excessive land refot, eviction of tenants, and for abolition of vetti. It was meant to draw all sections of the rural society (small landowners, landlords and service castes) into the struggle against the doras and the Nizam.
The movement was transformed in 1947-48 into a broad anti-feudal struggle demanding merging of Hyerabad with independent India. To broaden the scope of the movement and integrate vaious sections into it, the demand was raised to merge Telangana with the other Telugu speaking regions to create Vishal Andhra.

Question 4.
What are the languages spoken in your area? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Telugu, Urdu and Hindi are the languages mostly spoken in our area.

Question 5.
What is the medium of teaching in schools and colleges today in our state? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
The mediums of teaching in schools and colleges today are Telugu, English and Urdu. There are many schools also which teach in other statutory languages.

Question 6.
Do you think all teaching should be done in one’s mother tongue? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
No. I don’t think so. The teaching should be in their own mother tongue.

Question 7.
Why do you think it is important to publish books in mother tongues? (Textbook Page No. 143)
Answer:
Books are knowledge giving ones. If they are in other languages, nobody can read them. So to attain knowledge it is important to publish books in mother tongues.

Question 8.
Is there a public library in your village or locality? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Yes. There is Tagore Public Library in our city.

Question 9.
If you have been to a public library, describe what happens there in your classmates. (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
When we enter the library we should sign in the visitors’ register. Then we can read the dailies, magazines there. If we have membership in that library, we can take two books to home. We should return them after a certain period.

Question 10.
Why do you think the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
The leaders of Andhra Maha Sabha combined both educational and social reform objectives. The AMS activities spread rapidly all over Telangana and libraries and cultural centres were established in even remote villages. Peasants and labouring people came to them to learn to read, listen to newspaper, discuss current topics, and also their own problems with the Nizam government and doras. Night classes and discussions were held in these centres. People read books by social reformers like Veeresalingam and nationalists like Gandhiji, Nehru etc. They also wrote new books on local problems. As Editor of the Golconda Patrika, Suravaram Pratapareddy inspired nationalistic fervour amongst the people. Kaloji Narayana Rao, Dasarathi Krishnamacharya, Dasarathi Rangacharya are some of the literary luminaries who fought for the freedom of Hyderabad State. So the libraries became the centres of anti-Nizam and anti-landlord movements.

Question 11.
Why do you think the Nizams and jagirdars were not in favour of Telugu medium schools? (Textbook Page No. 144)
Answer:
Here majority of the officials were Muslims. The majority of the people of the state were Hindus who spoke in Telugu, Kannada and Marathi. They were suspicious of private Telugu medium schools that they would become centres for propagation of anti-Nizam ideas. All the government schools were in Urdu medium.

Question 12.
Why do you think the doras who were Hindus helped the Razakars? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Doras, who were Hindus, ruled as dictators. Razakars also had anti-democratic views and they fought the democratic political parties and communist led peasants. Hence, Doras supported and helped the Razakars.

Question 13.
Why do you think the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The state was merged in 1948. India became Republic in 1950. It took two years to conduct General elections. The Nizam was familiar with the state and people. A governor cannot be appointed as there was no statutory provision. So the Nizam was allowed to retain power even after the merger.

Question 14.
Why do you think the Nizam agreed to pass the ‘firmanas’ abolishing the feudal system? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
When India became independent in 1947, Osman Ali Khan, the Nizam wanted Hyderabad to remain as an independent kingdom. The common people of the state wanted to join Independent India and a large campaign was organized by the Hyderabad State Congress led by Ramananda Theertha. The Razakars attacked them too. Then the Indian government decided to end this anarchy and sent armed forces to Hyderabad. Hyderabad was finally integrated into Indian Union in September 1948. The Nizam however was asked by the government of India to continue as the ruler till the transition to democratic setup was complete. The Nizam was forced to abolish the feudal system and initiate democratic processes of elections.

Question 15.
Why do you think the Nizam rule ended on 26th January 1950? (Textbook Page No. 148)
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into force on that day. So we can say that the Nizam rule ended on 26th January, 1950.

Question 16.
Find out more about the song – Vandemataram. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Vandemataram song – written in Bengali and Sanskrit.
Lyrics: Bakim Chandra Chattopadhyaya in his novel Anandmath – 1882.
Music: Jadunadh Bhattacharya Adopted on 24-1 -1956.
First sung by – Sri Rabindranath Tagore Translated to English – By Arabindo Ghosh
In 1950 the song’s first two verses were given the official status of the National Song of the Republic of India.

Question 17.
Find out about the life of Swami Ramananda Theertha. (Textbook Page No. 145)
Answer:
Swami Ramananda Theertha (1903 – 1972) was an Indian freedom fighter, educator and Social activist who led the Hyderabad liberation struggle, during the reign of last Nizam. He was the main leader of the Hyderabad State Congress.
He fought against the Nizam after the establishment of Congress party wing in 1938. He participated in Satyagrahas and was imprisoned for 111 days by the last Nizam. He created a revolutionary movement which helped Hyderabad to integrate with the Indian Union in 1948. The integration was successful after the Hyderabad police action.

Question 18.
What role do you think was played by the AMS in making the Telangana Armed Struggle possible ? (Textbook Page No. 147)
Answer:
Andhra Maha Sabha in the beginning supported the education and literary works. The Nizam government subjected these centres to a lot of harassment as they were becoming centres of new radical thinking. By 1940 many communists had joined the AMS and they insisted on taking up other demands of the rural people like end to vetti, land reforms, oppression by doras etc. Some of the old leaders of the AMS disagreed and wanted it to continue as educational and literary forum. Soon the radical elements gained leadership and a new movement of the peasants started.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Narahari created the following list of activities where technology is not used. Do you agree with him? If not, prove him wrong.
a) While singing a song
b) While cooking idli
c) While performing drama on the stage
d) While making garland for sale
Answer:
I do not agree with Narahari. I think his words are wrong.
Technology is the practical application of knowledge in our everyday lives that leads to a new product or an improvement in the way something works or how something is done. There is no question of this and that. It is useful in all the activities.

Question 2.
Describe how the situation of labour has changed in powerlooms and mills. Do you think this change is beneficial to the labourers or to the owner? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Textile mills have a large number of workers. They have workers’ unions or labourer unions. These unions fight for their rights and their better conditions. Powerlooms are small units. Compared to mills, powerlooms pay a very low salary. While mills pay workers monthly salary, workers in powerlooms are paid on piece rate basis. If there is any powercut, powerloom workers are not given salaries. Trade unions do not exist in most powerloom clusters. They have no pensions or other social security provisions.
Due to these reasons, we can say that this change is beneficial to the owners.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of using CHs? Who benefits most? Why do farmers use CH?
Answer:
Advantages of using CHs:

1. CH harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grian from chaff.
2. Use of CH helps in timely harvest of paddy. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
3. It also saves from vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
4. The farmers are able to sow the second crop without much delay.
5. Their dependency on labourers is also reduced.
   The farmers benefit most.
   Due to excess benefits by using CH, the farmers are using these CHs.

Question 4.
Changes in technology lead to changes in job opportunities. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this statement.
Reason: Technology with skills creates new jobs.
e.g.: Many landline companies and mobile companies were started. These companies export these phones to many countries.
It created new jobs for young people to work in multi-national companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/top-up shops.

Question 5.
Prabhavathi feels that it is true that telephone technology has changed. She feels that new jobs are available to only educated persons. She also says that many people in India are not literate and hence modern technology is always biased to the educated. Do you agree with her? Give your reasons.
Answer:
I don’t agree with Prabhavathi.
Technology changed as she said, but it is useful to all. e.g.: Now fishermen, rickshaw pullers etc., are using cell phones.
With a minimum educational qualification so many are working as mechanics and technicians. Skill is needed in some works and technology instead of education.

Question 6.
In this chapter, changes in technology in three sectors are discussed. In the following table identify a different example for each of these sectors that is not discussed here:

Answer:

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading “New Skills and New Jobs” and answer the following:

Many private companies including the government-owned ones provide both landline and mobile connections. Private companies continue to expand their share in the telecommunication services. Many companies are being established in India to manufacture handsets. These companies are now exporting to more than 80 countries around the world. The telephone/ mobile technology also came up with the need for new skills. It created new jobs for young people to work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales, repair and recharge/ top-up shops.

What are the newly created jobs for young people in your area?
Answer:
Work in multinational companies, producing mobile handsets, telephone booths, mobile sales repair and recharge/top up shops are the newly created jobs for young people in our area.

Question 8.
Locate the following in the world map:
1) England 2) USA 3) India
Answer:

Question 9.
The people live in forest and adjacent to forest cannot afford to use latest technology. What measures do you suggest for improving their lives?
Answer:
We should not think using technology is only as improvement. The people living in forest and adjacent to forest are living in Nature’s lap. They are living in groups. All the blood relations live mostly in the same group. So they may not need phones or technology. The government should introduce technology to them. It should create better conditions to improve their lives. Then only they can lead an improvised life.

Project work

Mallaiah is a farmer in Sripuram village. There are about 100 houses in the village. Today all the work like planting, weeding, harvesting, spraying pesticides and fertilisers is done by machines. In olden days, it was all done manually. There are more than 33 tractors and about 15 harvesters available in his village. A few of them are given on hire. The owners of the tractors charge Rs. 300 per hour for tilling the fields. More and more farmers are now using these machines in their fields. Based on this information, create a wall paper with illustrations and possible discussions between different groups of people in the village.

Answer:
Wall Paper
a) Mr. Mallalah: I need a tractor on hire
Tractor Owner: How many acres to be ploughed?
Mr. Mallaiah: 3 acres.
Tractor Owner: For one hour, Rs. 300. When do you need?
Mr. Mallaiah: Today only.
Tractor Owner: I already agreed for others.
Mr. Mallaiah: I pay Rs. 400 per acre
Tractor Owner: 0k. I will send traàtor by evening.

b) Tractor Owner: Tractor is under repair.
Mechanic: What is the problem?
Tractor Owner: Tractor’s wheel is caught. It is not working.
Mechanic: Tractor lost bearings. It will cost Rs.1000/-
Tractor Owner: 0k repair it. I have many works.
Mechanic: Not now, by evening I will do it.

c) Old Man: In our days we used to do all these works manually.
Young man: What are the works?
Old Man: Sowing, ploughing and transplanting.
Young man: Today we need not do all works.
Old Man: Yes, you all have machines.

d) Farmer: Mastri, I need 30 labourers.
Mastri: For what work?
Farmer: For harvesting.
Mastri: Now we are not doing all these works.
Farmer: Why?
Mastrl: Now combined harvesters is going on.
Farmer: Is it available!
Mastri: Our charges are high it will be ready by tomorrow morning.
Farmer: I cant pay so much for labourers. I will wait for combined harvester.

8th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of using CH (Combined Harvester) in agricultural production? Make a list from the above text. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
Advantages of using CH in agricultural production:

1. CH is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest.
2. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from chaff.
3. It helps in timely harvest of paddy.
4. It takes less time, reduces the crop loss and helps farmers to tackle the peak time labour shortage.
5. It also saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in coastal regions of Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
6. The farmers were able to sow the second crop.
7. Their dependency on labour is also reduced.

Question 2.
List the jobs lost by agricultural labourers when Combined Harvesters are used. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
They lose the jobs of harvesting the crop, threshing and cleaning the grains from chaff when CHs are used.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks: (Textbook Page No. 97)
i) The production of cloth is classified into four categories as mill, handlooms ———– and ———–.
ii) ———– state had the largest number of handlooms in 1988.
iii) ———– state had the largest number in 2009.
iv) Which state had the lowest number of handlooms in 2009?
v) The ———– pays the worker a salary while the ———– pays the workers on ———– rate.
Answer:
i) hosieries; powerlooms.
ii) Tamilnadu
iii) Tamilnadu
iv) Punjab
v) mill, powerloom, piece

Question 4.
Do you think it is appropriate to use CHs in India where a large section of people working in agriculture as labourers, are poor, and there is so much problem of rural unemployment? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
We can think in two angles about this problem.
We can say that it is not appropriate by keeping the following in view:

1. Rural unemployment
2. More dependency on agriculture. They may lose their livelihood.
3. While keeping the development of the country in view – it is appropriate.

Extensive farm mechanisation is widely prevalent in developed countries. These human resources can be used in other sectors by providing various job opportunities. This helps the development of the country.

Question 5.
In this chapter, we saw the photos of many women engaged in technology. Many of them like the one above does not have an Engineering degree. Conduct a debate in classroom what biases/ stereotypes exist about women getting educated as engineers. (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
“Women education brightens the future”. Degree is an acknowledgement to their knowledge. There are so many skilled persons in many areas without qualifications, e.g.: The village farmers have more knowledge than agricultural graduates.
If the women acquire Engineering graduation, they will get higher positions. They educate their families. They lead their families and nation to development.

Question 6.
Who were the contributors to this industrial revolution? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:

These persons were contributors to this industrial revolution.

Question 7.
Find out the story of the first steam engine. How did this lead to establishment of Railways in India? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Steam Engines were used to pump water out of mines in England when James Watt was born. The discovery that steam could be harnessed and made to work is not credited to James Watt. We do not know that exactly who made that discovery, but we do know that the ancient Greeks had crude steam engines. James Watt however is credited with inventing the first practical steam engine. And so the history of the modern steam engine often begins with James Watt.
There were no railway lines in India upto 1850. It was almost 100 years to the British. Colonial rule in India. They need transport facilities in this vast country. So they inaugurated the first railway line in 1853 which ran from Bombay to Thana. Since then the distance is reduced in India.

Question 8.
It is argued that new jobs can be created in rural areas through infrastructure works. Link roads, tanks, bunds etc., can be created through labour intensive schemes. If you live in rural area, find out if any such activities are being done and discuss if these will suffice the livelihoods of the people there. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
A few years back the then government introduced a scheme ‘Food for Work’. Many works were undertaken in our village. Digging out soil from ‘Cheruvus’ is one of those works. They used this soil to lay roads. They used quarry dust also in laying roads. Digging drainage canals was also a work in this scheme. But the labourers were given ‘rice’ instead of money.
One cannot lead their life only with rice. So they started exchanging the rice with money. As a result the purpose of the scheme got sidetracked. Even then we can say that this scheme helped the labourers in rural areas. These are helpful to them in non-crop season.

Question 9.
How have computers changed the life around you? (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
Computers have changed our lives in many different ways and aspects. Almost everyone depends on computers. People depend on computers for bank transactions, bus reservations etc. People may not even leave the houses for shopping. Meetings and tele conferrences are also conducted by using computers and internet.

Question 10.
Did you see solar energy being used in your neighbourhood, town or city? Make a short list. Why is this source of energy not used even more widely? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
We live in Sai Sri Nilaya apartments in S.N. Puram, near (Boys) Z.P. High school in Vijayawada. We use solar water heaters in our apartment. On the roof of our apartment, there are many solar panels. We get hot water throughout the day. But to get them we have to waste some cold water. The following solar instruments are used by our neighbours.

1. Solar heaters.
2. Solar lanterns / lamps.
3. Solar cookers.
4. Solar stoves.
5. Solar batteries/inverters

The reason for not using them widely:

1. Installation Price: Cost of installing solar technology is too expensive.
2. Variable sunlight: Inconsistency of Sunshine throughout the year.
3. An aesthetic appeal: The opinions of the people who think solar panels look ugly.
4. Day purpose only: They can be used only in daytime only.
5. Clouds: If it is cloudy, we get less amount of energy.

Question 11.
In many villages, agricultural labourers, women labourers, in particular, were found to be upset seeing the operation of CH. Why? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The operation of CH lessens the work opportunities and income to the agricultural labourers, particularly women labourers. This machine does almost all the works of women labourers. If this machine is used widely, they lose their livelihood. So, they were found upset.

Question 12.
Find out the current rates of phone calls and discuss reasons for the difference in the rates for between companies and why they are decreasing? (Textbook Page No. 99)
Answer:
At present the rates were very low.
For e.g.:

Some phones are giving free offers to some selected numbers.
Every company is planning to increase their connections. So they are decreasing their rates. So the differences occur in rates.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 13 The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following bar diagram and answer the question.

How many persons were killed per 1000 people in wars in the 20th century?
Answer:
44.4

Question 2.
Observe the following bar-graph:

Between what years the armaments race was raised?
Answer:
1910-1914.

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause for the World War -1?
Answer:
Murder of Archduke franz Ferdinand of Austria by a Serbian fanatic.

Question 4.
With which countries did Bismarck make the Secret Alliances?
Answer:
Austria and Italy.

Question 5.
Write two slogans on the necessity of peace.
Answer:

1. Hate war – love peace.
2. Peace is civilization.

Question 6.
What is militarism?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is a good way to solve problems.
“UN is a kind of world government based on four principles.”

Question 7.
What are the four principles?
(OR)
What are the four principles on which the UNO was founded?
Answer:

1. Preserve world peace,
2. Uphold human rights,
3. Respect international law and
4. Promote social progress.

Question 8.
Write two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

(OR)
Write any two slogans against wars.
Answer:

1. Peace is angle, war is a ghost.
2. War is extensive, peace is priceless.
3. War wins land, peace wins people.
4. War kills people, peace build people.

Question 9.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) In which century, is the number of war deaths low?
Answer:
16th-century

b) Why is the number of war deaths high during 1900 -1999?
Answer:

1. Two World Wars.
2. Use of modern weapons like nuclear weapons, poisonous gases.

Question 10.
Mention any one condition laid in the Versailles Treaty.
Answer:
Conditions laid in the Versailles Treaty:

1. Economic conditions,
2. Territorial conditions.
3. Military cuts, restriction of naval strength.

Question 11.
Write two reasons for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of League of Nations are:

1. Super powers were not the members of the League.
2. The League failed to prevent Germany, Japan and Italy from attacking/waging war against other countries.
3. The member countries violated international agreements.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and answer questions (a) and (b).
Annual Expenditure on National Defence (Million Dollars).

a) Which country’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more?
Answer:
Germany’s annual growth of national defence expenditure is more.

b) Write any two reasons for the increase of defence expenditure in Britain and Germany.
Answer:
Britain and Germany are rival countries. This led to secret Alliances, Arms race, Imperialism and always they are suspecting each other.

Question 13.
What was the reason for American entry into World War II?
Answer:
The main reason is Japan attacked on American Naval base Pearl Harbour. So America entered into World War II.

Question 14.
Certain military cuts were imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on Germany State any two cuts.
Answer:

1. Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000 from 900,000.
2. It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battle-ships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen a torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Question 15.
Who called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”?
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm called the 20th century “the Age of Extremes”.

Question 16.
Which countries were developed as industrial countries at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
Britain, USA, Germany, France, Italy, Japan etc.

Question 17.
Name the countries of Triple Entente.
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

Question 18.
Which countries were formed as Triple Alliance?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Austria.

Question 19.
What do you mean by “Militarism”?
Answer:
Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 20.
Name two aggressive forms of Nationalism.
Answer:
Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy are the aggressive forms of Nationalism.

Question 21.
Enlist the empires that ended after World War – 1.
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian Empire, the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire, the German empire, etc. were the empires that ended after the First World War.

Question 22.
Name the territories handed over by Germany to France after World War – 1.
Answer:
Alsace and Lorraine.

Question 23.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 24.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 25.
How was the world divided?
Answer:
The world was divided into the West which was experiencing economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose acute backwardness was wors¬ened by colonial exploitation by the West.

Question 26.
What was the change in literacy levels?
Answer:
Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.

Question 27.
Write down some results of the Great Depression.
Answer:

1. Massive unemployment
2. Economic breakdown
3. Two World Wars.

Question 28.
How was the world at the beginning of the 20th century?
Answer:
At the beginning of the 20th century, the world was divided into developed industrialised countries of the West and colonial countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 29.
What were the two rival blocks in the industrialised countries?
Answer:
Germany – Austria – Hungary Vs Britain – France – Russia.

Question 30.
Why was the First World War truly a world war?
Answer:
The First World War was truly a world war as virtually no country was left untouched by it from Japan and China in the East to the US in the West.

Question 31.
How did the First World War end?
Answer:
The First World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies and in the victory of Britain and France in 1918.

Question 32.
How did the Second World War end?
Answer:
The Second World War ended in the defeat of Germany and its allies but before it ended it had ravaged all the warring countries.

Question 33.
Who attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
The U.S. attacked on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 34.
What was the second fact about the world during the period?
Answer:
The second fact about the world during this period is the division of the world into nation-states and grouping of these nations of the world into power blocks and the degeneration of these alliances into war camps.

Question 35.
What happened by the end of the 19th century?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, different nations of Europe entered into alliances with each other against other blocks. Two main blocks emerged – the Centre and the Entente or Allies.

Question 36.
Who led the two blocks in the Second World War?
Answer:
The Axis powers were led by Germany and the Allies led by Britain, the US and the USSR.

Question 37.
What were the three main long term factors which led to World War – 1?
Answer:

1. Aggressive nationalism
2. Imperialism
3. Secret alliances and militarism.

Question 38.
What were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in a destructive mode?
Answer:
Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive nationalism in destructive mode.

Question 39.
Why did Bismarck enter into a secret alliance with Austria and Italy?
Answer:
After defeating France in 1870, Bismarck, the German Chancellor, decided to isolate it. To achieve this end, he entered into a secret alliance with Austria in 1879 and with Italy in 1882.

Question 40.
How did the French break their isolation?
Answer:
The French broke their isolation by striking a mutual alliance with Russia in 1891 and after resolving irritants, with Britain in 1904.

Question 41.
What is the result of the secret alliances?
Answer:
Instead of real peace, these alliances created an atmosphere of fear and ‘armed peace’ in Europe.

Question 42.
When did the British women get the right to vote?
Answer:
The British women got the right to vote in 1918.

Question 43.
Who participated in the Conference of Peace at Versailles?
Answer:
The five big victorious powers of the time viz. the USA, the UK, France, Italy and Japan participated in this conference.

Question 44.
Who were not invited to the conference?
Answer:
Socialist Russia and the vanquished powers were not invited to the conference.

Question 45.
Why was the League of Nations set up?
Answer:
The League of Nations was set up to prevent wars in the future.

Question 46.
How was the League of Nations hoped?
Answer:
The League of Nations was hoped that it would help eliminate wars through “collective security” and settle disputes between countries through arbitration or negotiation.

Question 47.
What were the two ideologies to which the workers turned?
Answer:

1. Socialism and
2. Communism.

Question 48.
Which empires were ended with the World War – 1?
Answer:
The Austro Hungarian empire, the Russian empire, the Ottoman Empire and the German empire, etc.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

a) When did the Russian Revolution take place?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution take place in 1917.

b) Which organisation was formed for peace after World War – II?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation.

c) What are the peace organizations formed after the two World Wars?
Answer:

1. League of Nations,
2. United Nations Organization.

Question 2.
Mention any two happenings of 20th century in support of calling it, “The Age of Extremes”.
Answer:

1. The Two world wars occurred in this age.
2. The world saw the Great Depression in the same period.
3. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights.
4. Women got right to vote firstly during this period.

Question 3.
Plot the information given below on a bar-graph :
The Armaments Race

Answer:

Question 4.
Write your analysis on the graph given below.
Answer:

1. The above graph explains about Armaments Race from 1880 to 1914.
2. From 1880 to 1914 the military expenditure of the big powers were increased by over 300% i,e., from 132 million to 397 million.
3. Each and every country gave more importance to built more army to protect from their enemies.
4. The main theme of militarism is it is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyze the military expenditure in the World War-1 participant countries.

Observe the following graph and write a paragraph on the armament race.

Answer:

1. The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.
2. Military expenditure increases for every 10 years because of the armament race.
3. During 1914, the weapons were prepared on large scale and 397 million pounds were spent.
4. Since 1880 to 1914 the military experience increased in three folds.
5. Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France are some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret. How can you justify “The women getting the right to vote was a big step”?

After a long struggle for political right like right to vote, British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary, with men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with confidence, being breadwinners, women began raising their voices for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and Schools,
3. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established the ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement’ organization in 1914 for right to vote,
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big st2ep towards equality in all walks of life,

Question 7.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars.
(OR)
Create two slogans on promoting peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet to creat awareness on the loss incurred due to wars.
Answer:
Pamphlet

Consequences of wars

Wars are occured because of conquering the world and with the aim of exploiting resources of other countries. Some time dominance is the aim spread of ism or ideology is also preceding to wars.

In olden days, if there was a war, only those participating in the war would die, but nowadays very dangerous, poisonous weapons are available. Ordinary civilians also die. In 1945 what ‘ happened In Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Still some people are facing the consequences.

My request to all the country heads not to clear a way to wars. Better sit together and go for a smoother solution and avoid dangers.

xxx
Publishers.

Copies – 2000.

Question 9.
Observe the timeline and answer the questions.

a) Which year did Russia withdraw from World War -1?
Answer:
Russia withdrew from the World War -1 In 1917.

b) When did Hitler invade Poland?
Answer:
Hitler invaded poland on 1st September, 1939.

Question 10.
Prepare a few slogans on the prevention of wars and the promotion of peace.
Answer:

1. Avoid wars and live peacefully.
2. Spread the theme of love and uproot hatred.
3. Respect the feelings of others.
4. Respect international laws and promote international brotherhood.
5. Live for good cause and preserve world peace.
6. Love human beings and promote social progress.

Question 11.
The world was divided into “the West” which was experiencing economic growth and “the Rest” whose acute backwardness was worsened by colonial exploitation by the West.”
Read the above lines and interpret it.
Answer:

1. At the beginning of the 20th century, the world experienced two different blocks – the West and the Rest.
2. “The West” were all those countries like England, USA who were the leading industrial powers and they were experiencing economic growth.
3. “The Rest” were all the countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
4. They experienced extreme backwardness.
5. That backwardness was worsened by the colonial exploitation of these countries by “the West”.
6. This colonization and imperialism later led to World Wars.

Question 12.
Read the passage and interpret it.

Aggressive nationalism
The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse. It was the foundation of modern nation-states and the force behind the unification of Germany and Italy. But this ideology could also be used to create pride in one self and hatred against neighbours. This hatred was slowly building up in the 19th century between the states of Europe.

Answer:

1. Countries like Germany and Italy were unified in 1870.
2. Nationalism was an impulse behind unification.
3. Nationalism developed pride in them.
4. At the same time “it” developed hatred towards other nation.
5. This hatred led to aggressive farms like Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy.
6. They challenged other countries.
7. Finally, this aggressive nationalism led to World War II.

Question 13.
Study the timeline given and answer the following questions.

a) What was the period of World War -1?
Answer:
The period of World War-1 was 1914-18 AD.

b) Name the organizations formed after the World Wars.
Answer:
League of Nations and UNO were formed after the World Wars respectively.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler was responsible for World War – II.

d) What was the period of World War – II?
Answer:
The period of World War – II was 1939-45 AD.

Question 14.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name two countries that did not fall under the German Empire.
Answer:
Portugal, Spain, Turkey and Sweden.

b) Which country belonged to Allied block?
Answer:
England.

Question 15.
Discuss the death and destruction during two World Wars.
(OR)
Wars cause destruction. Prove it.
Answer:

1. World War I claimed 10 million men.
2. World War II claimed 22-25 million military casualties.
3. It also claimed 40-52 million civilian deaths.
4. It included 6 million Jews killed by Nazis.
5. It included 1,50,000 to 2,46,000 people were killed immediately by atom bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan by the USA.
6. The after-effects like leukaemia, cancer lingered on for decades.

Question 16.
Imperialism created much stress often leading to wars – Explain.
Answer:

1. As industrial capital developed in the European countries like Britain, Germany and US, they needed Markets for their products and access to raw materials.
2. As capital further accumulated in Banks and financial institutions, they looked for safe investment opportunities in colonies.
3. Thus by the end ofthe 19th century there was a race for colonies between the European powers.
4. The governments of these countries acted on behalf of their capitalists to increase their areas of influence and reduce the area under their competitors.
5. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to re-divide the colonies but the old powers were not ready for this.
6. This created much stress often leading to wars.

Question 17.
What do you know about the Militarism?
Answer:

1. Militarism is the belief that military might is the best way to ensure security and war is good way to solve problems.
2. From 1880 to 1914, the military expenditure of the six big powers increased by over 300%.
3. Three things are noteworthy in the context of militarism. Each of these countries built massive standing armies, competed with each other in increasing their armaments and built a mindset among the people to support wars.
4. Large industrial complex producing arms emerged which constantly promoted the idea of using war as a solution to diplomatic problems.

Question 18.
How can you say that the League of Nations was failed?
Answer:
Even though it showed a lot of promise and much was expected of it, it failed eventually to prevent Germany and Italy from violating international agreements and attacking other countries. So the World War – II emerged. Hence we can say League of Nations was failed.

Question 19.
What is the change in colonies during and after the World War -1 and II?
Answer:
During the First World War, on the demand of their subjects, the colonialists accepted the principle that self-government is desirable in colonies. With the process of decolonization, after World War II, the colonies rose to independence and hundreds of new countries were born across Asia and Africa.

Question 20.
What were the changes in the map of world?
Answer:
With World War I the German, Austro- Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. The map of eastern and central Europe was redrawn on the basis of nationality, economic viability and military security. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.

Question 21.
Write about the UNO.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II. UN is a kind of world government based on four principles, viz. preserve peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress. It works through organs like UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, etc.

Question 22.
Explain the Enfranchisement of women.
Answer:
After a long struggle for political right like the right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. In the long protracted wars like the World Wars, industrial production and other services are necessary. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life. Getting the right to vote was a big step in that direction.

Question 23.
What was the immediate provocation for World War -1?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War – I was the murder on 28th June 1914 of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria by Serbian fanatic. Austria declared war on Serbia. As Serbia was with Allied Powers the Austrian attack on it led these powers to come to Serbia’s defence. Then the Central Powers, allied to Austria, also joined the war and this Marked the beginning of World War-1.

Question 24.
What was the immediate provocation for World War – II?
Answer:
The immediate provocation for World War II was the German tanks driving into Poland on September 1,1939. Hitler invaded Poland as punishment for refusing to hand over the port of Danzig to Germany. Polish territory lay between two parts of Germany. Hitler thought the takeover of Poland will also be a small military operation. But Poland had a defence pact with Britain which jumped on to the Polish side and France joined them a day later. This marked the beginning of World War II.

Question 25.
What was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler?
Answer:
The western capitalist countries like Britain were afraid of the Communist Revolution in other countries of Europe like Russia and initially encouraged Hitler and the Nazis of consolidating themselves to act as a buffer against Soviet Socialism. This was the policy of ‘appeasement’ of Hitler.

Question 26.
“The USA could not become a member of the League of Nations.” Why?
Answer:
The USA could not become a member as the US Congress refused to sanction the proposal of President Woodrow Wilson even though he was very active in the formation of the League.

Question 27.
Write about Industrial capitalism.
Answer:
Industrial capitalism had changed the way of many people earned their livelihood but only in the western countries. Some of these countries, especially Britain, were leading industrial powers but also held vast colonial empires, spread all over the world.

10th Class Social 13th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part I 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes that lead to the two World Wars? (OR)
Write about the main reasons which are responsible for the two World Wars.
Answer:
I. Aggressive Nationalism:

1. The Ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. Italian Fascism from 1923 and National Socialism of German Nazis were the other forms of aggressive Nazism in destructive mode.

II. Imperialism:

1. As new industrial powers (like Japan, Germany and Italy) emerged they wanted to redivide the colonies.
2. This created much stress often leading to wars.

III. Secret alliances:

1. Triple Alliance and Triple Entente made the European powers jealous and suspicious of one another.

IV. Militarism:

1. Each country built massive standing armies and competed with each other in increasing armaments.
2. They built a mindset among the people to support wars.

V. Arms Race :

1. The race for armaments and stock piling of war materials by all European coun¬tries created tensions in the world.

VI. The Treaty of Versailles :

1. World War I ended with the conference on Peace at Versailles in 1919.
2. To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on its.
3. Failure of League of Nations was the an-other cause.VII. German challenge to vengeful domination : They wanted to recover the terri¬tories lost by them, in the Treaty of Versailles, restore German dominance over Central Europe and end the restrictions on German armaments.

VIII. Immediate causes:

1. The immediate cause of First World War was the murder of Ferdinand of Austria.
2. The immediate cause of Second World War was the Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the “Treaty of Versailles’? Explain at what extent it was caused for outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles was an agreement between the victorious countries and Germany signed in 1919 after 1st World War.
Terms of Treaty of Versailles:

1. Territorial arrangements.
2. Military clauses
3. Economic clauses

Treaty of Versailles caused for outbreak of the Second World War:

1. The vanquished power Germany was not invited to the conference. Hence they thought the treaty was imposed on them, they had no respect responsibility for it.
2. The treaty aimed to weaken Germany in all aspects like – to return its colonies, reduce military, territorial penalties, huge war indemnity.
3. This created a reaction in Germany and wanted to recover the territories and restore German dominance over Europe.
4. Hitler’s invasion on Poland on Sept. 1st – 1939 gave rise to the cause of the 2nd World War.

Question 3.
Observe the following graph and answer the given questions.

a) How much was the military expenditure of great powers in 1914?
Answer:
397 Million Pounds

b) What are tripple entente countries?
Answer:
Russia, France and Britain.

c) State the allied powers.
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy.

d) How many times, the military expenditure, increased from 1880 to 1914?
Answer:
3 times

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the above graph (See Q.No. 3) and write few sentences by analysing it.
Answer:

1. In 19th century the military expenditure raised slowly.
2. But during the 20th century, it raised rapidly.
3. Before the First World War, the expenditure increased to its maximum level.
4. Within four years i.e., between 1910¬1914 the expenditure raised nearly by 109 million pounds.
5. In the decade of 1880-1890, the raise of expenditure was 26 million pounds only.

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   This graph explained about War related deaths from 1500-1999.
2. In which period, war related deaths were more?
   Answer:
   From 1900 -1999.
3. In which century, “deaths per 1000 people” were low?
   Answer:
   In 16th century
4. Give two suggestions to prevent wars?
   Answer:
   1. We can prevent wars by adopting a policy of mutual co-existence and respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
   2. Disputes between countries should be settled peacefully by talks.

Question 6.
How did the idea of Nationalism lead to the World Wars?
(OR)
How did the idea of Nation-states and Nationalism influence desire for war during 20th century?
Answer:
Nationalism is a belief, creed or political ideology that involves an individual identifying with or becoming attached to one’s nation.

1. The ideology of nationalism was a positive impulse.
2. It was the foundation of modern nation states.
3. But later it became aggressive nationalism.
4. It is used to create pride in oneself and hatred against neighbors.
5. Fascists in Italy tried to build images of victories with it.
6. Nazis of Germany mobilised Germans against other nations of Europe.
7. These incidents led to World War.
8. Thus, we can say the idea of nation-states and nationalism influenced the desire for war during World Wars.’

Question 7.
Observe the given Europe map and answer the following question.
List out the Axis Power group and Central Allies group.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the important developments that took place in the first half of the 20th century? Explain any two of them.
(OR)
“The 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.” – Justify.
Answer:

1. Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.
2. Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people.
3. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all.
4. New forms of art like movies emerged.
5. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life.
6. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West.
7. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world.
8. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and capitalist economy.
9. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated.
10. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 9.
Observe the below graph and answer the following questions.

1. In which year, the military expenditure was high? Why?
   Answer:
   In the year of 1914 the military expenditure was high because the year is the beginning of World War -1.
2. How would the armaments race impact the progress of a country?
   Answer:
   1. Armaments race was not only brought new technology into the world but also brushed a wave of nerves.
   2. It crease tension among the nations.
   3. Some countries developed very well with production and sale of arms, but some are destroyed by other nations with these arms.

Question 10.
What steps would you suggest to prevent these World Wars among the countries?
(OR)
Suggest some measures to protect World peace.
(OR)
Suggest measures to prevent wars between countries.
Answer:
To prevent World Wars, all the countries on the earth must follow the following steps.

1. The countries one and all should give up their attitude of aggressive nationalism.
2. Every country should be ready to disarmamentation of herself.
3. All the countries should promise to stop the usage of nuclear and chemical weapons.
4. Every country should be committed to development, not but to arms race.
5. Every country should respect the sovereignty and integrity of all other countries.
6. Every country should pledge not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
7. Countries must negotiate or go to International Court of Justice in case of disputes, but not to resort to wars.

Question 11.
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments. Justify the statement with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Eric Hobsbawm, a historian, called the 20th century ‘The Age of Extremes’.Politically, the world saw shoots of democratic aspirations grow amidst the rise of Fascist domination which fostered ideologies of unquestioned power and hatred for other people. Literacy levels and average life expectancy grew immensely for all. New forms of art like movies emerged. Scientific knowledge rose to new heights unlocking the secrets of atom and life. Women, who constitute half the world’s population, got their right to vote in this period, starting with the West. Literally more than a hundred nations walked to independence and freedom across the world. This was also an age of great experimentation as people strove to build socialist societies based on the principles of equality and fraternity or alternatively a liberal democracy based on political liberty and a capitalist economy. But the same period saw the “Great Depression” causing massive unemployment and the economic breakdown and two World Wars in which millions died and the lives of many more millions were dislocated. Hence, the 20th century was a period of great expectations, experiments and dangerous developments.

Question 12.
Observe the graph and answer the questions:
a) How many people die in wars in the 16th century?
b) From the graph, what is the trend of war deaths?
c) In which century highest number of war related deaths were recorded? Why?
Answer:
a) 1.6 million people were died in wars in 16th century.
b) Above graph explains trend of war death are gradually increasing.
c) In 20th century a highest number of war related deaths were recorded. Because two World Wars were held in that century only.

Question 13.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

To weaken Germany, the Treaty of Versailles imposed some territorial penalties and military cuts on it Firstly, Germans were asked to return their colonies in Africa occupied in the 1880s and European areas like Alsace and Lorraine which they occupied from France in 1871. Secondly, Germany was asked to pull down its army strength to 100,000from 900,000 during World War I.
It was also asked not to have submarines and restrict its naval strength to six battleships of less than 10,000 tonnes and a dozen torpedo boats and destroyers each.

Do you think the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany in 1919?
Answer:

1. The peace treaty after 1st World War imposed inhumane and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. Germans thought that the Treaty of Versailles was a diktat imposed on them.
3. Germans were asked to return colonies like Alsace and Lorraine.
4. Germans were asked to pull down its army strength to 1 lakh from 9 lakhs.
5. It was asked not to have submarines and restrictions were imposed on its naval strength.
6. These humiliating terms of Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler.
7. He recovered all the territories lost due to Treaty of Versailles.
8. Hence we can conclude that the Second World War could have been avoided if the victorious powers had been more considerate towards Germany.

(OR)

1. The Peace Treaty after First World War posed in-human and humiliating terms on Germany.
2. It definitely was one of the reasons for the Second World War.
3. But the victorious countries were more considerate towards Germany in 1919, would not have avoided the Second Warld War.
4. Countries like Germany, Italy and Japan were driven by Fascist superior feelings and wanted to have control over the world.
5. Keeping aside Germany, Italy and Japan joined the war only to serve their colonial interests and show the domination they enjoy the range of arms and military arrangements they have made, we cannot think of not happening of Second World War.

Question 14.
Study the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What does the above graph represent?
Answer:

1. The first bar column tells us the total number of deaths recorded during the century.
2. The 2nd bar column tells us the proportionate death due to wars.

b) Which century experienced decrease in the proportionate death rate?
Answer:
1700-1799 experienced a decrease in the proportionate death rate, i.e., from 11.2 in 1600-1699 to 9.7 in 1700-1799.

c) Why were the war related deaths high between 1900-1999?
Answer:
The world experienced two World Wars between 1900-1999. Hence the war-related deaths were high.

d) Compare 16th century with that of 20th century.
Answer:
Less than four people out of thousand died in the 16th century while it rose to 44.4 in the last century, i.e., nearly 4.5% of people died.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions.
a) What do you know from the graph?
Answer:
The graph shows that the military expenditure of the great countries has been increasing since 1880.

b) In which year were the weapons prepared in large scale?
Answer:
During 1914, the weapons were prepared in large scale.

c) Why did the expense on soldiers increase for every 10 years?
Answer:
The Governments spent much expenses on soldiers to increase their area of influence and to reduce the areas under their competitors.

d) What are the countries that spend more money on weapons?
Answer:
Countries like Germany, Great Britain, Russia, Italy and France were some countries that spend more money on weapons.

Question 16.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.
a) What was the immediate cause of World War-ll?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany was the immediate cause of World War-II.

b) When did the USA enter in World War – II?
Answer:
The USA joined the World War-ll on the 8th of December 1941.

c) Who was responsible for World War – II?
Answer:
Hitler, who became the Chancellor of Germany on 1933, was responsible for World War – II.

d) Why did mass murder of Jews take place in 1941?
Answer:
As the war proceeded the Nazi regime unfolded its horrible programme of building the racial supremacy of Germans by mass extermination of minority communities. Hence mass murder of Jews took place.

Question 17.
Write about the formation of UNO. On which principles it was based?
Answer:

1. After World War II United Nations Organisation was formed.
2. It was founded on 24 October 1945.
3. It is a kind of world government.
4. It was based on four principles viz.
   Preserve world peace, uphold human rights, respect international law and promote social progress.
5. It works through many organs.
6. It has played a major role in preserving world peace.

Question 18.
Describe women’s fight for Right to vote. (Or) Women were discriminated even in “Right to vote.” Justify.
Answer:

1. In the long protracted wars like World Wars, industrial production and other services were necessary.
2. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools.
3. Beginning with confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.
4. They established ‘International Women’s Suffragist Movement organization in 1914 for right to vote.
5. After a long struggle for political right like right to vote-British women got them in 1918.
6. Getting the right to vote was a big step towards equality in all walks of life.

Question 19.
Eric Hobsbawm called 20th century as ‘The Age of Extremes’. How far do you agree with it?
Answer:

1. I do agree with his statement.
2. Politically, there were monarchies, Fascist dominations, colonies, democratic movements and independent countries in hundreds, during this period.
3. Scientifically, unlocked secrets of atom and life.
4. New forms of art, cinema emerged.
5. Women got right to vote.
6. Socialist societies, liberal democracies are formed.
7. Great depression caused mass unemployment and economic breakdown.
8. Millions died and many more millions dislocated in two World Wars.
9. World governments like United Nations were formed.
10. Thus, this is the ‘Age of Extremes’.

Question 20.
Locate the following countries on the outline map of world.

1. Austria
2. Serbia
3. Japan
4. China
5. USA
6. USSR
7. France
8. England
9. Germany
10. Italy
11. Hungary
12. Turkey
13. Bulgeria
14. Rumenia
15. India.

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.

1. The country is the responsible for World War -1.
   Answer: Germany
2. The capital or Russia.
   Answer: Moscow
3. The Treaty of Versailles was held in the country.
   Answer: France
4. The capital of America.
   Answer:
   Washington D.C.
5. This country declare war on Serbia.
   Answer: Austria
6. In 1948 UNO created a country for Jewish people.
   Answer: Israel
7. Angola
8. China
9. Egypt
10. Myanmar
11. New York

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th B Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Create a table to show the various efforts of Gandhiji in national movement.

Answer:

Question 2.
The national movement fought all attempts of the British government to deny democratic freedom and rights of the people. Give examples of the rights which the government tried to curtail and the movement launched against it.
Answer:

1. In 1919 the British introduced and passed the Rowiatt Act. The act curbed the fundamental rights of citizens and strengthened police powers.
   The National leaders declared 6-4-1919 “the day of humiliation and prayer” and hartal, Satyagraha sabhas were set up to launch the movement.
2. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa.
   The nationalist leaders and Muslim League opposed this as Punjab wrongs’ and ‘Khilafat wrong’ and demanded swaraj. They announced Non-Cooperation movement.
3. The British government decided to convert Chirala-Perala into a municipality. They forced high taxes. The people refused, under the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya, to pay the taxes. They migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months.
4. The Britishers imposed tax on ‘Common salt’. The nationalists opposed this and started civil disobedience movement.
   Thus the Indian Nationalists opposed all the negative activities of the British government.

Question 3.
To what extent was the Salt Satyagraha successful in its objectives? Give your assessment.
Answer:
A wave of enthusiasm swept the country during the Salt Satyagraha. Sait laws were broken at many places and even women took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement. In Delhi alone, 1600 women were imprisoned. This movement was not confined to the Salt Satyagraha alone. Foreign-cloth shops and liquor shops were picketed and were burned. Hand spinning was taken up as a movement. British schools, colleges, and services were boycotted. The people joined in large numbers in this movement.

The combined struggles of the Indian people bore fruit when the Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed provincial autonomy and the government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937.
Thus it was successful in its objectives.

Question 4.
Which of the following was part of the national movement?
a. Picketing shops that sell foreign clothes
b. Hand spinning thread to weave clothes
c. Burning imported clothes d. Wearing khaddar
e. All the above
Answer:
e) All the above

Question 5.
What were the different events that led to the partition?
Answer:

1. In 1940, the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding the Independent States for Muslims.
2. From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate ‘nation’ from the Hindus.
3. The provincial elections of 1937 seemed to have convinced the League that Muslims were a minority and they would always have to play second fiddle in any democratic structure.
4. Muslim League sought to enlarge its support in the early 1940s when most Congress leaders were in jail.
5. At the end of the war in 1945, the British opened negotiations between the Congress, the League but failed.
6. In 1946 elections the Congress did well in the ‘Genera! Constituencies’ but the League’s success in the seats reserved for Muslims was spectacular. It persisted with its demand for “Pakistan”.
7. The Cripps Mission could not get the Congress and the Muslim League to agree to specific details of the proposal – the United India.
8. Muslim League announced 16th August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’. By March, 1947 violence spread to different parts of northern India.
9. Louis Mountbatten was not able to resolve the differences between the Muslim League and the Congress Party.
10. India became independent on 15th August, 1947 while Pakistan celebrated its independence on 14th August.

Question 6.
Look at the India map and fill colors in Pakistan and Bangladesh which are our adjacent countries.
Note: The students are advised to fill colours in Pakistan and Bangladesh in practise.
Answer:
Both Pakistan and Bangladesh are our neighbouring countries.

Question 7.
Read the first paragraph under the heading ‘The Happenings of 1922-1929’ and answer this, ‘Gandhiji called off the movement after the violence. How do you support it?
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement held in February 1922 turned violent. A crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. Twenty-two policemen were killed on that day. Realizing that the situation was going bad to worse, Gandhiji abruptly called off the movement.

Gandhiji followed non-violence and Satyagraha. Those were against this violence. Hence I support Gandhiji’s decision.

Question 8.
As a part of Non-Cooperation movement, what incidents took place in our state?
Answer:
Guntur district was at the centre of nationalist activity and the participation was very widespread including not only students, but also merchants and peasants in the villages. A highlight of the Non-Cooperation movement was the famous Chirala Perala movement. The government decided to convert this town into a municipality and forced high taxes. About 15,000 people of the town led by Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called Ramnagar and remained there for eleven months. There was a powerful movement of non-payment of land revenue by the peasants and mass resignations of village officers. People said, “Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.”

Another major development was the Forest Satyagraha in Palnati taluka of Guntur district and also in Rayachoti taluka of Kadapa district. Peasants began sending herds of cattle into the forests without paying grazing fees to the forest department. In many villages of Palnadu, people declared Gandhi Raj and attacked police parties. People were convinced that the colonial rule was coming to an end and the forests would be back in the control of the village people. In the two taluqs, the forest administration had to virtually close down during the agitation period.
These were some of the incidents that took place in our state as a part of Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on Quit India Movement.
Answer:

1. On 8th August, 1942 the Quit India Movement was launched.
2. In this movement all the categories of people from throughout India participated.
3. Younger activists organized strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
4. In several districts, such as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.
5. The young in very large members, left their colleges to go to jail.
6. During this time Mahatma Gandhi addressed these memorable words to the Indian people. “Every one of you should from this movement onwards consider yourself a free man or woman and act as if you are free. I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall “do or die”. We shall either free India or die in the attempt”. Like this he encouraged all people to participate in this movement. Due to the above reasons Quit India movement become popular.

Question 10.
Prepare a timeline chart on Freedom Struggle from 1885 to 1947.
Answer:

Question 11.
Did the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of Independence movement reach all the people? Mention your opinion on this.
Answer:
My opinion: I think that the fruits of sacrifices of many great leaders of independence movement reached all the people in the early period after independence. But it is sorry to say that the spirit of independence is hanged at present.
Reasons:

1. corruption
2. violence
3. lack of belongingness etc.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think it is right to give the police such powers to suppress revolts? (Textbook Page No. 130)
Answer:
Terrorism and showing anger through demonstrations are two delicate issues. The police should recognise the tenderness and difference between these two. Then only it is right to give such powers.

Question 2.
Find out more about Chirala Perala Movement and the Forest Satyagraha. Prepare a skit and enact it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 132)
Answer:

Independence Movement -1919

Ram Nagar Camp (Chirala I Perala)
Ramudu: Arey! Raja, why did you leave our village?
Raja: Not only myself, totally our Chirala / Perala villagers left our village.
Sekhar: What? I think this ¡s our fate, we have to leave our houses.
Yaswanth: That is not our fate. That is the fate of the Britishers. They tried to raise our tax Rs. 4000/- to Rs. 40,000/-. It is really a cruel action.
Ramudu: Leave it. Gandhiji gave us a beautiful idea.
Raja: Yes ra! His idea, the leadership of Duggirala Gopalakrishnayya are very well. Let us hope that these British will leave us soon.
Yaswanth: Are you right? Will they leave us?
Sekhar: Why do they leave us? They arrest us for our retort.
Raja: Let them do that. We will sacrifice our lives but we dont leave them.
All: Okay ra! Let us do like that.

Gandhiji – Jai
Duggirala – Jai
Bharat Matha – Jai
Jai – Jai

1921 – Forest Satyagraha
Mono Action
Kanneganti Hanumanthu – Palnati Warrior
Age: 30 years
In Palnati Forest

Orey Britishoda ! Who is the person that asked us to pay pullari tax. We, the sons of this land, you, the dependent on this land. Why should we pay tax to you ? Is it just ? Is it Dharma? Do you think that the son of this Palnadu will do this – English dogs.

Orey Rutherford! This forest is our mother. Our own mother. Why should we pay you for our mother’s blessings.
Neeru pettava ? Naru vesava ? Kota kosava ? Kuppa nurchava ? Enduku kattalira sistu, Enduku kattalira neeku sistu.
Enduku, Enduku ?
Amma, Amma, if you kill me ….
Amma – Thousands of Hanumanthus will born ….
You, the Britishers, will be chased – chased and necked out of our country.
Amma-Amma Vande Mataram.
Vande Mataram.
Ammaaa
Bharatha Matha – Selav.
In the next birth also I will be your son – I will play in freedom.
Van … de … maa …. tar.. am.
…. (died)….

Question 3.
Why do you think were people against such laws during the freedom movement? (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

1. Most of the police and higher officials were Britishers at that time.
2. It was most difficult for the people to been the dictatorship.
3. Introducing such laws at that time was like pouring ghee into the fire. So they were against such laws.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Fill in the following table with some examples of transactions.

Answer:

Question 2.
Can there be any difficulties or disadvantages in keeping money in a bank? Think and write.
Answer:
There will be no problems in keeping money in a bank. But there may be problems due to computers, ATMs and the negligence of employes, e.g.:

1. Many problems may arise while withdrawing amount from ATMs.
2. Deducting the EMis of loans twice a month by overlook.
3. Blocking the accounts.

Question 3.
In what ways have cheques made exchange of money more convenient?
Answer:
Nowadays cheques are widely used for making payments and receiving money. When you want to give money to someone, you write a cheque on that person’s name. When you want to send money to someone who lives in a different place, you can send a cheque to her by post. You can also use your cheque to transfer money electronically into the other person’s account through a bank. For business purposes, where money is frequently received and paid, cheques are very important as a medium for transactions.

Thus cheques have made exchange of money more convenient.

Question 4.
Only a part of the total deposits is kept as cash in the bank-safe. Why is this so and how does this benefit the bank ?
Answer:
Banks keep only a part of the total deposits as cash in the bank of safe. This is so because it helps the daily cash transactions of the bank.
The banks lend the remaining amount to their customers on interest. Thus the banks earn profits.

Question 5.
If a very large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank, how will it affect the bank s working?
Answer:
If a large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank.
This affects the reserves of a bank.
The bank cannot lend loans to customers. This affects their income. As a result it is impossible to run a bank.

Question 6.
If many loans are written off (that is, borrowers are not required to pay back the money), how will this affect the working of the bank?
Answer:
A bank is a business enterprise. It has to pay interest to its depositors, pay salary to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipment, pay rent and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit.
If the loans are written off, the bank cannot perform all these activities. So the banks cannot write off the loans. In any case if the government writes off the loans, then the government should bear the losses.

Question 7.
People have to pay a higher interest on loans than the interest they receive on a fixed deposit for the same time-period. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Bank trade with money.
2. Fixed deposits means money that is to be kept with the bank for agreed and specified period. When one has to disturb this arrangement, he has to pay penalty for the same.
3. Hence banks charge more interest on fixed deposit loans than what they give.
4. An other important aspect is discouraging loans on fixed deposits.
5. Not only that, the banks should reach number of expenses such as payment of salaries to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipments, pay rents and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit. That’s why we should pay more interest on loans.

Question 8.
Suppose this year the rains are poor and the crop yield is only half as much as was originally expected. Some people say that if this happens the farmers should be asked to pay back only half the amount they have taken as loans. However, other people say that full amount should be repaid, keeping in view the next year’s crop. In your opinion, what should the bank do and why?
Answer:

1. Whatever the situation, normally banks ask for full payment of loan.
2. When there is a crop failure or less yield, farmers are unable to repay their loans.
3. In such situation banks have to reschedule the repayment procedure and has to provide crop loans to the farmers for the next season.
4. Government shall support the farmers by waiving interest component and directing the banks to provided necessary loans for next crop.

Question 9.
Read the Paragraph under the header ‘Types of Loans’ and answer the following question:
Types of Loans
Banks give loans and advances to different sections of the public like traders, industrialists, students (educational loans), farmers, artisans, SHG, etc. Let us examine some of them.
“What sort of loans are more common in your area?”
Answer:

1. Crop loans
2. Housing loans
3. SHG loans

Question 10.
Do you feel that the loans taken from SHGs are helpful to the members? How?
Answer:
These are very useful to them.

1. They need not ensure the bank with securities.
2. The group will ensure that loans are paid back by its members.
3. Interest is also nominal.
4. The loan can be repaid in easy monthly installments.

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are you aware of any exchanges that are done without money?
Answer:
I know about Barter System. In this system goods are directly exchanged for each other without the use of money.

Question 2.
You may have bought things in exchange of old clothes, plastic, newspapers, hair, paddy, etc. Discuss the transaction. (Textbook Page No. 77)
Answer:

1. Old clothes : We usually exchange old clothes with steel utensils. This depends mostly on the seller.
2. Plastic and Newspapers : We usually exchange these with onion traders. He gives 11/2 kg onions for 1 kg plastic or newspaper.
3. Hair: They offer money for hair.
4. Paddy: In our village paddy is exchanged for services rendered by washerman, barber etc.

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
a)

b) What can we conclude from the above table?
(Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
a)

b)

1. Trading between these three people is impossible.
2. Gopal needs rice. Srinu does not need goat.
3. Money helps this transaction.

Question 4.
Explain in your own words why exchange is not possible between Gopal and Seenu. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Gopal needs rice. Seenu has rice. But he doesn’t need goat. He needs wheat. So the transaction between Gopal and Srinu is not possible.

Question 5.
a) Will the use of money help? Fill in the blanks. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
The use of money helps this type of transaction.
b) If Gopal exchanges for money, his goat with —–(i)—– then Gopal uses this —–(ii)—– to buy rice from —–(iii)—– Now —–(iv)—– can use this money to buy —–(v)—– from Seenu.
Answer:
i) Seenu
ii) money
iii) Ramu
iv) Ramu
v) wheat

Question 6.
Ask your parents how washermen, barbers, neeti kaavalikaru were paid for their work in villages and towns. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Nowadays they are paid money only. But 15 years back our parents paid them in the form of paddy.

Question 7.
How can money be used in the transactions between Gopal, Seenu and Ramu ?
Explain with the help of a flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:

Gopal should sell his goat for money.
↓
He should purchase rice with that.
↓
Seenu should sell wheat for money.
↓
He should purchase goat with that.
↓
Ramu should sell rice for money.
↓
He should purchase wheat with that.

Question 8.
If the role of money as described above were stated as a medium of exchange, would you agree? Explain. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement. In the barter system the calculation of valuation is not logical and scientific. So I agree with this.

Question 9.
For how much rice should Gopal exchange his goat? (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
This depends on the demand of goat. If the demand is high, the rice should be in the quantity demanded by Gopal. Otherwise he should accept the offer of the seller.

Question 10.
In a barter system how do you pay to a person who cuts your hair? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
In barter system I give one kg of rice to the person who cuts my hair. At present the price of one kg of rice is Rs.30/-. The rate of hair cut is also equal to it.

Question 11.
In the above example, complete the conversation, so that they are able to trade. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Gopal: How many bags of rice will you give for this goat?
Seetaiah: Two bags.
Gopal: I was offered 4 bags for it in other village.
Seetaiah: And I can get a goat for just one bag in that village.
Gopal: ……………………………………..
Seetaiah: …………………………………….
Answer:
Gopal: I can give this at least for 3 bags.
Seetaiah: Okay. Take it.

Question 12.
If money was not used by you or any of the traders in your santhalu or weekly market what would happen? Describe in a paragraph. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Nowadays money is mostly used as medium of exchange. No one can decide the value of the commodities. Employees and other workers have money only for exchange. The conditiion is unpredictable.

Question 13.
Do you think money can act as a measure of value of goods and services? Explain.
(Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Yes, money can act as a measure of value of goods and services. Public services and private services can be measured. But we cannot and should not measure the values of services of our parents and blood relations.
e.g.: Public Services : Transportation – APSRTC
Medical facilities – Government hospitals.
Private Services : Transportation – Private buses
Medical facilities – Private hospitals

Question 14.
Can you think of situations when this trust of the goldsmith could break? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The trust of the goldsmith could break in the following situations:

1. debasing the coins
2. maintaining difference in the quality of coins
3. fail to give the coins whenever they asked
4. and any action of cheating

Question 15.
What was the problem faced by the traders in Amsterdam and how did they find a way out? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in Europe. Here, there were 846 silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could be accepted for exchange. However, traders were always suspicious of each other – everyone would doubt the purity and weight of these coins. The merchants of Amsterdam got together and solved this problem in a unique manner. They created a bank owned by the city.

Question 16.
Draw the picture of a bank cheque in your notebook and pay Rs.1,50,000/- to your friend sitting next to you. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:

Question 17.
a) If Suresh Babu wants to deposit 1,75,000, electronically into Kancharla Sujatha’s account through his bank, how can this be done ?
b) What more information would he require ? Visit a bank and find out. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
a) This can be done through NEF transfers. According to this process any account holder can transfer to another account holder of any other bank in the country without any charges. The maximum limit is Rs.2,00,000.
b) For this she needs the account number, name of the receiver, branch name and city of Sujatha.

Question 18.
Discuss and make a list of the payments that people make electronically without using a cheque. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
People can make payments electronically without using cheques by using internet.

1. Sale and purchase of goods
2. Raising capitals
3. Repaying debts
4. Paying electricity and Phone bills
5. Transfer of money
6. Paying income tax
7. Paying house taxes etc.

Question 19.
What is the difference between a savings account and a current account? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Savings account: The savings account holders are mostly employees and common people. They get interest on their amount in the account. Money wil be safe. The account holder can withdraw it at any time he/she wants. The bank promises to pay on demand. Current Account : Business people and traders maintain this account. There are no restrictions on the number of times you can deposit or withdraw the money from a current account. Transactions can be made by way of cheque. The bank does not pay any interest on money deposited in a current account but will collect service charges.

Question 20.
Match the statement in column A with the word(s) / terms in column B. (Textbook Page No. 86)

Answer:
a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii

Question 21.
When should one opt fixed deposits for savings? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
The money invested in fixed deposits should not be withdrawn in the given period. Then only one can use fixed deposits for savings.

Question 22.
How is an SHG loan different from an individual loan? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
One should mortgage one’s property when he/she takes individual loan. The SHG will ensure that loans are paid back by its members. They need not mortgage any asset.

Question 23.
a) Hari cultivates vegetables like tomatoes, okra, green leaves etc. He wants to buy fertiliser after three months. He can’t keep these vegetables with him to pay for the fertiliser after three months. If he does not use money what arrangement will he get into with the person supplying fertilisers?
b) Do you find any such arrangements in villages around you?
c) Many a times farmers may not benefit from such arrangements. Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
a) Hari should sell his vegetables to the trader of fertilisers. Then in future he can get the fertilisers for the same rate. Thus they should enter into an agreement.
b) We have no such arrangements in our village.
c) These arrangements are beneficial to the farmers. Values differ in different seasons. So government should plan the substitutes.

Question 24.
Have you ever been inside a bank? What are the names of some banks you know? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Yes. I have visited the banks many times.
Names of Banks:

1. Kotak Mahindra
2. State Bank of India
3. Andhra Bank
4. Indian Bank
5. Vijaya Bank
6. Dena Bank
7. Kanakadurga Grameena Bank

Question 25.
If you step inside a Bank, you will find some employees sitting at different counters with their computers/ ledgers and dealing with the customers. You can also observe people depositing money at some counters and withdrawing money at other counters. There is one cabin where the manager sits. What do these bank employees do? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
My name is Subba Rao. Once I went to the State Bank of India branch in Mudinepalli One gentleman sat inside a cabin. There is a name plate before him.

ANASINGARAJU VENKATA CHALAPATHI RAO – B.M.

He was going through some documents and discussing with some others. My mother came there to withdraw some amount. She filled up the withdrawal form and handed over it to the person in counter no. 2. The person in the counter verified the form and the book. He signed it and gave us a token no. 4. We waited there for sometime. In the meanwhile one known person Sri K. Yagnaiah came there and deposited some amount. He wished my mother and went away. Rama Krishna, my brother’s friend, came to the bank to open a new account. He was enquiring about it. Bank people were drafting D.D.s, verifying accounts, opening new accounts and helping the locker holders etc. After 40 minutes there was a call from No. 6 counter. We went to the counter and took our money. I was told by my mother that the Manager looks after the bank management issues and any other problems.

Question 26.
Read the promise on paper notes used today. Who is making the promise and to whom? Why is this important? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
I find the following promise on the hundred rupee note.

“I PROMISE TO PAY THE BEARER THE SUM ON ONE HUNDRED RUPEES.”
– GOVERNOR.

This promise is given by the Reserve Bank Governor, Dr. Raghuram Rajan. This promise is given to the owner of the note. Without this promise this note can be treated as a paper. So this is important.

Question 27.
Visit a commercial bank which is near to your locality and fill up the following table. (Textbook Page No. 88)

Answer:

Question 28.
Why were metals preferred for use as money? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around Since they were scarce they became acceptable by all. So the metals were preferred for use as money.

Question 29.
Do you think minting of coins was a good idea? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Yes, I think so. But the quality and measurement should be perfect as per norms.

Question 30.
In what ways would minting of coins benefit the rulers? Can you think of three different reasons? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:

1. The trade transactions in their kingdom will be perfect. This strengthens their treasury.
2. Minting coins is an industry. The income through this also strengthens their treasury.
3. They print their favourite designs on the coins. This act enables the future generation to know about the interest of the past people.
   Eg. : If we find any musical instrument on the coin, it tells us that they were the lovers of music.

Question 31.
Why do the receipts of the goldsmith work as money? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The goldsmiths charged fees for keeping their valuables safe and making them available whenever they wanted. This practice became popular and the trust in some of the goldsmiths or shroffs grew. These goldsmiths would also give loans and had branches in many cities leading to a new system of paper money or hundis. With the great confidence on the goldsmiths, the people treated the receipts as money.

Question 32.
Why is a crossed cheque safe? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
The crossed cheque can be deposited and cashed in the account holder’s account only. No other person can cash it. This system can create confidence in the customers. Otherwise it can be misused.

Question 33.
Why do banks ask for security while lending? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
There is no personal relation and identification between the bank people and their customers. If the bank people failed to recollect the debts, it leads to bankrupt. So banks ask for security while lending.

Question 34.
Which is a better source of loans — banks or money lenders? Why? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
Banks are a better source of loans.
Reasons:

1. The Bank interest is nominal.
2. The loan can be paid in easy instalments.
3. If any customer fails to repay, the bank gives reasonable time for the repayment.

Question 35.
After two centuries, this bank collapsed. Can you guess what could have been the reasons for this? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam Bank opened many branches in many European countries. It was called ‘Wissel Bank’ in Dutch. There was debasement problem in Dutch. It was often. Due to that the customers of the Bank usually repaid the coins of lesser values. So the customers were dissatisfied. As Dutch was a small country, the problem raises many times. Due to this the name of the bank was defamed.

The decline of the Bank accelerated with the fourth Anglo-Dutch war (1780-84). The British blockade of Holland and the capture of many Asian colonies put tremendous pressure on the Dutch East India Company. Loans were issued to all. The metallic stock of the bank was dropped from 20 million to 6 millions (1780-84). The French revolution led the bank towards failure. At last it was closed in 1819.

Question 36.
How would she (Geeta) withdraw the money from an ATM? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
1) Geeta would follow the instructions displayed on the screen of the ATM.

Instructions :
a) Insert the card/Remove the card
b) Feed the PIN number
c) Feed the amount, press ok
d) Take the money
e) Take the receipt
f) Press the ‘Clear’ Button
g) Leave the room
2) By following the given instructions Geetha would withdraw the money from an ATM.

Question 37.
What would she (Geeta) do if she went to her bank branch? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
She would stand in a queue for 30 to 40 minutes to get the amount. She had to fill the withdrawal slip and stand in the queue. When her turn comes she gives the slip and passbook in the counter. Then she gets token. After a few minutes she will be paid in another counter.

Question 38.
How much money will Manaswini get from her Fixed Deposit till five years, if the rate of interest is 8%? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
Manaswini gets Rs. 15000/- approximately after the period of 5 years.

Question 39.
Suppose she needs the money urgently for some medical treatment. Can she withdraw it from the Fixed Deposit at the bank? What will happen? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
She can withdraw her deposit whenever she wants. But she will not receive 8% of interest. She receives less percentage as per bank norms.

Question 40.
Will the same rate of interest be charged for all types of borrowers from a bank? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The rate of interest changes from loan to loan.
For e.g.: They charge 8% on housing loans and 14% on personal loans.

Question 41.
What will happen if some borrowers do not repay the bank loan? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The bank collects the loan from the guarantors or disposes the mortgage.
For e.g.: If any customer fails to repay the housing loan, the bank sells the house in auction. It takes the loan amount and gives the remaining amount to the customer.

Classroom Activity

Suppose you need Rs. 2,000. You fill a cheque and give it to your sister and send her to get the money in cash.
Answer:
Self cheque:

1. I will write a cheque for Rs. 2,000/- on my friend’s name and ask her to get cash from the bank.
2. I will sign on the down and back of the cheque.
3. I will give her instructions where to handover the cheque in the bank and how to receive cash in counter.
4. No need of any account to my friend in the bank.

Cross cheque: If I wrote an amount on cross cheque, my sister needs an account in any of the banks to change the check into cash.

Project
Question 1.
Visit a bank or invite a bank employee to the school and find out:
a) How to open a saving account in your name?
b) How are cheques cleared by the banks?
c) How do banks make NEFTransfers? (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
d) What security precautions are necessary for an ATM to work? What does the computer check?
e) Apart from cheques, people can also exchange money through Bank Drafts/online transaction etc. Find out.
f) For the person receiving the money, what is the advantage of online transaction compared to a cheque?
g)

Answer:
a) The person should take two photographs, address proof, income proof, personal identifi¬cation to the bank. He/she should fill the application form and get the introduction signa¬ture. He/she should handover these papers in the counter, his/her account can be opened.

b) Cheques are cleared by the banks in the Clearing Bank.

c) All the banks in the country are interconnected with computers and internet. A person can transfer a particular amount (less than 2,00,000/-) from his account to others account in other bank. This transaction can be done through NEFT. The Bank will not charge any rate for this.

d) Security precautions necessary, for an ATM to work :

1. Computer should be checked whether working properly or not.
2. Receipt system and printer should be checked.
3. The machine should understand the orders of the user.
4. The count of notes should be proper.
5. There must be a watchman.
6. A camera should be fixed in the ATM room.
7. In addition to the PIN number, a system should be improved which records the thumb prints. Computer checks the PIN number and balances in the accounts.

e) Yes, there are bank drafts and online transactions etc., to exchange money.
Drafts take sometime to be encashed. But online transactions take no time. One can withdraw the amount immediately after a click.

f) When compared to a cheque, online transaction is the best. The person can receive the money without any delay. But a cheque takes 2 to 4 days time to be encashed. So the receiver can save his time.

g)

Question 2.
Please visit www.rbi.org.in and read comics on financial inclusion / financial literacy themes.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 People and Settlement.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson People and Settlement

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which decade had the population of Delhi increased unusually? According to your opinion, what might be the main reason for the population increase?
Population of Delhi City

Answer:
The population of Delhi increased mostly in the decades of 1981 and 1991.
I think the reasons are:

1. It is our national capital.
2. Its development.

Question 2.
Why do certain places attract more people as settlements? Mention the reasons.
Answer:
Water resources, security, employment opportunities etc.

Question 3.
What are called Mega cities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Mega cities.

Question 4.
What is called a Metropolitan city? Give examples.
Answer:

1. A city having population between one million to 10 million is called a metropolitan city.
2. Examples: Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad.

Question 5.
State any two problems caused due to urbanization.
Answer:

1. Traffic problem will arise.
2. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
3. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
4. Air, water, sound pollutions are increased.

Question 6.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, religious, commercial, etc.

Question 7.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 8.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food-gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 9.
What tools did they use initially?
Answer:
Initially they used the tools made of stone. With these tools they were able to hunt more effectively and efficiently.

Question 10.
What happened as agriculture progressed?
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed in nature. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movement of heavenly bodies.

Question 11.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

1. site
2. situation and
3. the history of the place.

Question 12.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural t forces, and so on.

Question 13.
Name any two cities which were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 14.
Which kind of villages has the most vibrant markets and fairs?
Answer:
The villages that are best connected have the most vibrant markets and fairs.

Question 15.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 16.
Name the three cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 17.
What are the problems in urbanization?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing, e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity, water and public facilities.

Question 18.
What are aerotropolis ?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around c large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 19.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 20.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can fly in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with ail ‘ the comfort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 21.
Name some form of aerotropolises that are emerging in India.
Answer:

1. Kempegowda International Airport – Bengaluru
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 22.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having a population between 5000 to 1 lakh are called Towns.

Question 23.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing.’
What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanization, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them are working in the unorganized sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.
Usually, they are occupying government unorganized (porambok) areas for their residences. Govt, also building colonies for them. Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are living are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in unhealthy conditions.

Question 2.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
(OR)
Taking into consideration the past history and the present timings, state the causes for the escalation of population in Visakhapatnam according to your observation.
Answer:

1. Over the decades, Visakhapatnam’s population has grown significantly.
2. Visakhapatnam is a port city.
3. It developed industrially.
4. Many people came for work and settled in Visakhapatnam.
   So the population increased in Visakhapatnam.

Question 3.
Answer the questions by studying the data given below.

Population of Visakhapatnam

1. In which decade, the change in the population percentage is less?
   Answer:
   1981-91
2. What are the reasons for increasing population in Visakhapatnam ?
   Answer:
   1. Visakhapatanm is a port city.
   2. Employment opportunities.
   3. Migration from other places.

Question 4.
Describe the adverse impacts of urbanisation on environment.
Answer:

1. Air pollution increases.
2. Climate changes occur.
3. Drainage problems arise.
4. Non degradable garbage accumulates.

Question 5.
Delhi is the second biggest city in the country. Explain the reasons for it.
Answer:

1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that rilled India.
2. When India gained independence, the city remained its capital.
3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices there are people from all parts living in the city.
5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed. ,
6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 6.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation. Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 7.
What is an Aerotropolis ? Mention any two advantages of an aerotropolis over other cities?
Answer:
An aerotropolis is an urban plan in which the layout, infrastructure and economy is centered on an airport, existing as an airport city.
(or)
The settlements which centered around large airports are called aerotropolis.
Advantages:

1. People can fly to conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out – with all the comfort of a city.
2. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business, conferencing, etc, are provided right there.
   People ead Settlement

Question 8.
What happened as the population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftpersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 9.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there. These ports would enable export of raw materials to the colonizing country.

Question 10.
What happened in early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example, Chhatrapati Shivaji built a fort in Pratapgad, Maharashtra. This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 11.
Describe an annual fair in villages.
Answer:
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along with many cultural elements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.

Question 12.
Why did most of the population increase in cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 13.
What happened as settlements became larger?
Answer:
As settlements became larger, they also became more complex because there were more functions to be performed – food production was not the qjily cOncem.Within each settlement, people specialised in certain skills. Many goods were produced for the market and sold to traders who carried them to far off places.

Question 14.
What does situation describe? Give one example.
Answer:
Places do not exist in isolation. They are in some way connected to other places. Situation describes the connections with other places. For example Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.

Question 15.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 16.
How does urban India contribute to Indians economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.

Question 17.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

1. Suvarnabhoomi International Airport (Bangkok, Thailand)
2. Dubai International Airport (Dubai, UAE)
3. Cairo International Airport (Cairo, Egypt)
4. London Heathrew Airport (London, UK)

Question 18.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things.
3. Vehicle use Increases.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the changes in your settlement during the past twenty years, and find out the reasons for this.
Answer:
During the past 20 years, In our area :

1. Population Increased.
2. Transportation facilities extended.
3. The area of agricultural land has decreased.
4. The residential and shopping area has Increased.
5. Slums formed.
6. Environmental pollution Increased.
   Migrations and urbanisation are the main reasons for all these changes.

Question 2.
Increasing urbanization is not just about greater opportunities for people and economy. It also results in many problems.
– Express your attitude on the consequences of urbanization.
Answer:
There are a lot of problems occurring In the urban areas. They are:

• Scarcity of space and housing problem
• Increase of air, water, soil pollution
• Shortage of food items
• Increase of Plastic waste
• Increase of slum areas
• Increase of traffic problem
• Increase of sewage problem
• Pressure on the environment

Urbanisation is one of the Indicators of development. The governments hive to take necessary precautionary measures to avoid the problems while Increasing of towns and cities. Otherwise It may lead even to under development.

Question 3.
Explain the expansion of agriculture and emergence of towns.
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed In nature.
For example, the seasonal cycles, how to predict climatic conditions how to plan the timing of cropping practices etc. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movements of heavenly bodies.
As population Increased, there was more specialisation – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged, The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle In urban areas. Due to this towns were emerged.

Question 4.
‘Urbanisation results in environmental stress’ – Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Urbanization results in environmental stress -1 agree with this statement because.

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed In these places.
2. The decrease In rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are Increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are Increased.
7. The unemployment increases In urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Study the paragraph given below and answer the following questions:
A new kind of settlement Is occurring In many countries, Including India. These settlements are centred around large airports. Hence the name aerotropolis.

1. What is called a settlement?
2. What is located at the centre of an aerotropolis?
3. What facilities are provided in an aerotropolis?
4. Give two example of aerotropolises in India.

Answer:

1. The way we organise ourselves and our living spaces in a place Is called a settlement.
2. Airport.
3.  In an aerotropolis the airport functions as a city In Its own right. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing etc. are provided.
4. (i) Bengaluru International Airport
   (ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) and
   (iii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).

Question 6.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.
Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
2. Recycling of waste materials.
3. Provide more employment opportunities in villages.
4. Eradicate the use of plastic.

Question 7.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

1. Proper maintenance of sewage water.
2. Proper supply of drinking water.
3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
4. Giving importance to Agriculture.
5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
6. Widening of urban roads.
7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
8. Co-ordination among different wings or departments.

Question 8.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

1. Good transport facilities: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution free environment naturally attract more people.
3. Education, job opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.
4. Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful life style are some of the other factors contributing attracting people.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population Increased, there was more specialization-weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e., towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encourage the crafts persons to settle in urban area. Slowly the facilities are increasing In urban areas. People who are not having land they are migrating to towns & cities and improve their living conditions. After some years industrials are established they left their occupations and joined in industries for better life.
Slowly town areas are increasing, population also increasing and the people who depends on agriculture Is also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 10.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years, early humans lived in bands as hunter gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

Basic concepts of settlements are site; situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist in isolation. Elevated place are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. Historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The formers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment. Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work. Many people in cities and towns choose seif employed work. Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, How Site, Situation and the History of a place plays a vital role in human settlement?
Answer:
To understand what kind of places attracted settlements, we need to look at these basic concepts.

1. Site
2. Situation
3. The history of the place.

Site: Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.

In early settlement periods, places which had favorable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. Ex: Chatrapathi Shivaji built a fort inPratapghad, Maharashtra. Situation: Situation describes the connections with other places.
For Example: Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India. The history of the place: Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
In fact, cities such as Mumbai and Chennai were further developed by the colonial powers to better exploit the natural resources of India. The fight for Visakhapatnam was for similar reasons. Visakhapatnam as we now know it, is made up of several other places. After the British took it over, its boundaries were redrawn several times and have been constantly expanding.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that when the British people came to India a few dries like Mumbai and Chennai were developed for the sake of exploiting our natural resources.
2. Visakhapatnam is also one of the cities developed like that.
3. Much development is seen in Visakhapatnam once it came under the control of the British.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that the colonial rulers concentrated on their profits and benefits but not the development of India.
5. They did the same in Africa and Asian countries.
6. I conclude with this suggestion that after Independence our rulers should have concentrated on the development of many cities and towns.
7. Now Visakhapatnam is expanding in all comers. Other cities also should be developed similar way.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As populations increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e. towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph, it is understood that the increase in population leads to different professions.
2. Different goods and services are, produced. In cities and towns there is no agriculture but new sources of employment are seen.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that many new sorts of livelihoods are started.
4. When there is a scope for new profession emerging, the people should acquire new skills based on the new technology.
5. When there is new profession, new goods or services are produced and so market changes its nature.
6. In conclusion I would like to say that when there is much demand one should understand the trend in the society and shift accordingly.
7. For better employment, people need skill. Though they are not educated enough, they should be skilled in some area.
8. In which profession they have skill, they should go for that.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along With many cultural dements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here the village fairs are very important. Many activities take place there.
2. They play very crucial and key role in the development of the villages and cultural exchanges.
3. Some entertainment programmes are also there.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that the village fairs are useful to the farmers but there is a problem of mediators.
5. Many of the remote villages are not connected to major villages.
6. They still face problems of roads and transportation.
7. Nowadays connectivity is the major theme.
8. It is considered internationally and many of the countries are trying to improve the connectivity.
9. At the village fairs it is necessary to provide various facilities to the farmers those who come from distant places.

Question 15.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural -to – urban migration.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns.
2. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town.
3. The migration from rural areas is very less.
4. My opinion is that it is not common in all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns it may be correct but in many areas the migrants are more in number.
5. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons like livelihood, employment, children education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and other.
6. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.
7. Government should take care of these problems and find solutions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph it is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development.
2. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India.
4. Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sec-tors.
5. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and indus¬tries also.
7. Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector.
8. They should be taken care of.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has to be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue.
2. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumping of waste leads to pollu¬tion in rural areas.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization.
4. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live.
5. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town.
6. I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanism to collect the waste and poliu- tion free programmes are to be taken up.
7. Dumping in out skirts of towns and cities is not the solution but it creates new problem.
8. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 18.
How are slums formed?
Answer:

1. There is growing population in the cities.
2. People who migrate to the city looking for work occupy land without necessary permission and build on it in the way they can afford with no help or facility from anyone.
3. In the plan these places may be demarked for a different purpose. Thus they won’t get the status of colonies.
4. These may not receive many public amenities. People here are poor.
5. Thus slums are formed.
6. When government evict the people from there, the compensation paid may not be sufficient.
7. Again they occupy new location without necessary permission and these slums go on increasing.

Question 19.
What kind of places attract settlement?
Answer:

1. To understand this, we need to look at these basic concepts:
   (i) site(ii) situation (iii) the history of the place.
2. Sites refer to the characteristics of the place its topography, altitude, water characteristics (the places with lakes, rivers, underground water, etc., types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.
3. Shivaji chose Pratapgadh because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen.
4. Situation describes the connections with other places.
5. Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.
6. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 20.
What are the problems of urbanization?
Answer:

1. Increasing urbanization is not only providing opportunities to people and more productivity J but also resulting in many problems.
2. The growing urban population has to be housed. 1
3. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things. .
4. These result in environmental stress.
5. As vehicle use increases urban air pollution increases causing health problems and localized
   climate change.
6. Improper sewage disposal can also lead to greater threat of infectious diseases.
7. Use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so.
8. This produces waste that has to be disposed of.

Question 21.
How did the settlements begin? Discuss.
Answer:

1. For about 1.8 lakh years humans lived in bands as hunter-gatherers.
2. They did not practise agriculture.
3. However owing to changes in obtaining food, some bands took to the deliberate production of food-agriculture, some 10,000 years ago.
4. It brought many changes in human lifestyles.
5. People did not have to travel over large areas to obtain food.
6. They could now increasingly stay in one place.
7. As hunter-gatherers, they were nomadic.
8. But as agriculturists, they were increasingly sedentary.
9. Thus the settlements began.

Question 22.
‘Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.’ Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:

1. In 1951, the population of Delhi was only 20,00,000. Today it is more than 1,60,00,000. During the last 60 years it has grown 8 times.
2. Over decades its attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of jobs and livelihood, etc.
3. As the capital of the country, with the parliament and central government offices, there are people from all parts living in the city.
4. Every city usually has a master plan to design and allocate different types of areas and Delhi had three such plans.
5. But they have not been implemented.
6. On one hand there is growing population in the city and on the other hand there is a long delay In planning and announcing how the areas are to be used.
7. In fact, Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.

Question 23.
How does the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development?
Answer:

1. Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities.
2. Most of the poor live in non metropolitan towns work in the unorganized sector.
3. Most of the public enterprises are either located in urban settlements or their surroundings.
4. Most of the state of art equipment is located in urban settlements.
5. Most of the Information Technology industries or parks are operating in urban areas.
6. The exports of many of these contribute a lot to GDP of our country.
7. Thus, the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development.

Question 24.
Feel that you are living in urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complain-ing about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Sainagar colony,
Vijayawada,
xx xx xxxx.

To
The Commissioner,
Vijayawada Municipal Corporation,
Vijayawada.

Respected sir,

I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H. No. ———–, ) of Bavajipeta. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for your kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and another waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, an unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make city clean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………,
………………………….

Question 25.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
   Answer:
   Luni
2. The state which has Malabar coast.
   Answer:
   Kerala
3. The state which has Utkal coast.
   Answer:
   Odisa
4. The capital of India.
   Answer:
   Delhi
5. Godavari Delta.
6. Kaveri Delta.
7. Mahanadi Delta.
8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.
9. Bhimbedka
   Answer:
   MP (Near – Bhopal)
10. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
    Answer:
    Hyderabad.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 17 Changes Around Us

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 17th Lesson Changes Around Us

7th Class Science 17th Lesson Changes Around Us Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are periodic changes?
Answer:

1. If we observe that every change mentioned is the table repeats after some period of time.
2. Such changes are known as periodic changes.
3. The events which repeat at regular intervals of time are called periodic events.

Question 2.
Mention some physical changes you observe in your daily life.
Answer:

1. In our daily life we observe many changes.
2. In the changes like melting of ice, solidification of ghee or coconut oil in winter etc., there is a change in state of the substance.
3. In certain processes like filling balloons with air and pumping of cycle tubes etc., we notice change in shape.
4. These are all physical changes. On these changes no new substance is formed.

Question 3.
Explain what are physical and chemical changes. Give examples.
Answer:
Physical change: When the material undergoes a change in shape, size, colour or state, it is called a physical change.
Eg: Heating ice, filling air into Balloons
Chemical change: When a material undergoes a change in shape and size and a new material is formed, then we call it a chemical change.
Eg:

1. Burning of crackers
2. Change of milk into curd
3. Burning a piece of wood.

Question 4.
Some changes are given in the table. Write possible changes you notice for each case and put (✓) in the appropriate column.
Answer:

1. In the above activity we notice that only in some examples like burning of paper, burning of crackers, change of milk to curd, boiling of egg, etc., a new substance is formed.
2. But in other examples of changes, we notice a change in state or colour or size or shape etc but the substance remains the same and no new substance is formed.

Question 5.
In the above table which changes do you consider physical changes or chemical changes?
Answer:

1. When a material undergoes a change in shape, size, colour, or state, it is called a physical change.
2. So I consider the following as physical changes.
   Heating a coloured candle, Heating ice, Heating water, Melting of Gold ornaments, Filling of air into Balloons, Cutting a piece of wood, Drying of clothes in sunlight, Drying of wet coconut, change is the cut apple; Change in the mouth due to pan chewing.
3. When a material undergoes a change in its composition, it is called a chemical
   change. In a chemical change, a new substance is formed.
4. So I consider the following as chemical changes. Burning of Newspaper, Burning of crackers, change of milk to curd, Boiling egg.

Question 6.
What is rust and rusting? Why does iron rust? What type of change is this?
Answer:

1. When iron nails, iron gates, iron benches or pieces of iron are left is the open ground for a long time, we find a brown layer on the surface of iron articles.
2. This is called ‘rust’, and the process of forming this layer is called rusting.
3. When iron is exposed to air for a long time, the Oxygen present in air reacts with it in the presence of moist air and forms a new substance called iron oxide as rust on iron articles.
4. This process is known as rusting.
   Iron + Oxygen (from air) + Water → rust (Iron oxide).
5. As a new substance is formed in this change, we call it a chemical change.

Question 7.
What is Galvanisation? Explain its importance.
Answer:

1. Some articles made up of iron, don’t get rusted even they are exposed to air.
2. To prevent iron articles from coming into contact with oxygen in air or water or both, we deposit a layer of a metal like Chromium or Zinc on them.
3. This process of depositing a layer of zinc or Chromium on Iron is called Galvanisation.
4. Generally we use Zinc for such type of coatings.
5. We find in our house that water pipe lines are without rust on them.
6. If we observe carefully, we notice that there is some metallic coating on these pipes to prevent rusting.
7. They do not get rusted even after a long time since they are galvanized.
8. The process of depositing one metal on another metal is called galvanisation.

Question 8.
What happens when you burn camphor?
Answer:

1. Initially Camphor changes into liquid and then evaporates into air.
2. It is also considered to be a chemical change.

Question 9.
What happens when you put a small quantity of Camphor in a dish and place it in the open air?
Answer:

1. Take a small quantity of Camphor in a dish and place it in the open air.
2. Observe it after some time. Its quantity reduces and we sense the smell of it.
3. It happens because the camphor gets evaporated. Since it has strong smell, it is used to keep insects and flies away. It is also used in medicines.

Question 10.
Describe what changes occur in a chemical change.
Answer:

1. In a chemical change, the material undergoes a change in its composition and a new substance is formed.
2. Heat, light or any other radiation may be given out or absorbed.
3. Loud sound may be produced.
4. A change in smell may take place or a new smell may be produced.
5. A colour change may take place.
6. A change in the state may occur. All chemical changes do not have all the 2 to 6 traits mentioned above.

Question 11.
How do you make crystallization of urea?
Answer:

1. Take some water in a test tube and add urea to it. Heat the test tube till all the urea dissolves.
2. Add more urea to it. Keep on adding to it until no more urea can be dissolved in it.
3. Let the solution cool down for sometime.
4. Observe the test tube after about half an hour.
5. We get large size crystals of urea.

Question 12.
What is crystallization? How do you make crystallization of copper sulphate?
Answer:
Crystallization (Definition): The process of separating a soluble solid from the solution by heating or evaporating is called crystallization.
Crystallization of copper sulphate:

1. Take some hot, saturated solution of Copper sulphate in a test tube.
2. Pour some of it in an evaporating dish.
3. Allow the solution to cool quickly.
4. Observe with a magnifying glass, the size, colour and shape of the crystals formed.

Question 13.
Think about the following changes and decide whether they are physical or chemical changes. Write the type of change and reasons for that in the table.
Answer:

Question 14.
Do copper articles get rust? When rusting becomes faster? What change is this?
Answer:

1. When Copper utensils are exposed to air we find a greenish coat on them.
2. This greenish coat is formed when Copper reacts with Oxygen and Carbon dioxide present in the air.
3. This coat also protects Copper from getting further corroded. It is also an example of rusting.
4. Rusting becomes faster when there is more humidity in the air.
5. Rusting is a chemical change.

Question 15.
How can you say that rusting is a chemical change? What factors are favourable for speed rusting?
Answer:

1. In case when the metal is changed to its oxide, that is rusting a new substance is formed.
2. Hence rusting is a Chemical Change.
3. The speed of rusting depends on the amount of moisture available to it for a long time.
4. That is more the humidity in air, the faster is the rusting of iron.

Question 16.
What are the methods you suggest to prevent the rusting of iron?
Answer:

1. The problem of rusting of iron and other metal articles is common experience in almost every home.
2. It spoils beautiful articles and makes them look ugly.
3. The following are some of the ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
   a) Do not allow the iron articles to come in direct contact with Oxygen in the air, water or both.
   b) Apply a coat of paint or grease on an iron article.

Question 17.
Do all the materials get rusted or react with oxygen in the air?
Answer:

1. Observe Gold and Silver, we wear them in the form of ornaments.
2. Even if they get exposed to air for a long time, they do not change colour or get rusted.
3. It means that they are resistant to corrosion which is the reason why we use them in making ornaments.

Question 18.
What changes do you notice when few pieces of ice in a beaker are heated? What do you mean by a physical change ?
Answer:

1. Take few pieces of ice in a beaker and heat them as shown in the following figure.
   
2. We notice that ice slowly melts and becomes water and on further heating.
3. If we reduce the temperature, the water vapour changes back to water and when the temperature is further reduced it changes to ice.
4. In the above activity we notice the change of the state of ice to water and to vapour but the substance, water, remains the same.
5. Changes of this type where no new substance is formed are known as physical changes.
6. When a material undergoes a change in shape, size, color or state it is called a Physical Change.
7. Generally, no new substance is formed in a physical change.

Question 19.
What changes do you observe when some material is burning? What do you mean by a chemical change?
Answer:

1. Take a piece of wood, a piece of paper and a ball of cotton. Burn them and observe the changes.
   
2. Record your observations in the following Table.
   
3. In the above activity we notice that when a piece of wood, paper, and cotton are burnt a new material is formed.
4. This is black in colour and in powder form which is different from the original material.
5. We also notice change in shape and size of new material.
6. This type of change that leads to form a new substance is known as Chemical change.

Question 20.
What happens when magnesium ribbon is burnt in air? What type of substance is formed when it is dissolved in water?
Answer:

1. Take a small piece of Magnesium ribbon. Burn it on a flame of candle.
2. We will find brilliant white dazzling light leaving a powdery substance behind.
3. When Magnesium burns in the presence of Oxygen, it forms Magnesium Oxide in the form of powder ash, which is a new substance.
4. Thus there is a change in the composition.
5. Magnesium + Oxygen → Magnesium Oxide.
6. Collect the ash and mix it with a small quantity of water and dissolve it. Another new substance is formed.
7. Magnesium Oxide + Water → Magnesium Hydroxide
8. Test the dissolved mixture with blue and red litmus papers to decide whether it is a acid or a base.
9. We notice that the litmus paper turns blue.
10. This means that magnesium hydroxide is basic in nature.
11. As all these are new substances all these changes are chemical changes.

Question 21.
What happens if you put an iron nail in copper sulphate solution? Describe how do you perform this activity.
Answer:

1. Take a glass tumbler half – filled with water and add a teaspoonful of Copper sulphate to it.
2. Now add a few drops of Sulphuric Acid to the Copper Sulphate solution.
3. Take some sample solution of it in another beaker and keep it aside.
   
4. Add an Iron nail to the solution in the first beaker and keep it undisturbed for half an hour.
5. Compare the colour of the solution in which iron nail is dropped to that of sample solution kept aside.
6. We notice that the blue coloured solution changes into green colour and a brown coloured deposit is seen on the iron nail.
7. The change in colour of the solution is due to the formation of Iron Sulphate, a new substance.
8. The brown deposit on the Iron nail is copper, another new substance.
9. Copper Sulphate (Blue) + Iron → Iron Sulphate (green) + Copper (brown deposit).
10. This is a chemical change.

Question 22.
Describe how do you perform the activity to observe the reaction of vinegar with baking soda.
Answer:

1. First set up the apparatus has shown in Fig.
   
2. Take a teaspoon of vinegar (acetic acid) in a test tube and add a pinch of baking soda (Sodium bicarbonate) to it.
3. You observe bubbles coming out with a hissing sound. Pass this gas through freshly prepared Limewater (Calcium Hydroxide).
4. Limewater changes to milky white showing that the gas sent into the test tube is Carbon dioxide.
5. Vinegar + Baking Soda → Carbon dioxide + other substance.
6. Carbon dioxide + Lime Water → Calcium Carbonate + Water
7. In these reactions, the new substances like Carbon dioxide and Calcium Carbonate are formed. Hence it is a chemical change.
8. When a material undergoes a change in its composition it is called a chemical change.

Question 23.
How do you produce large size of sugar crystals? What type of change is it?
Answer:

1. Take a big size test tube. Fill half if it with water. Add some sugar to it and stir it.
2. Keep adding sugar and stirring until saturation is attained. Then heat this sugar solution and add some more sugar to it while stirring
3. Continue adding sugar till no more sugar can be dissolved in it.
   
4. Now filter the solution and allow it cool for half an hour.
5. We notice formation of large size crystals of sugar at the bottom of the beaker. Thus sugar the small granules of sugar added changed into large size sugar crystals.
6. This is a physical change.

Question 24.
What do you observe on the cut pieces of fruits and vegetables? Why do they change their colour?
Answer:

1. Take an apple, brinjal, a potato, a tomato, a cucumber, a banana; cut each into small pieces; place them in separate plates and expose them to open air for sometime.
   
2. We notice a brown colour in some of these pieces.
3. Some fruits and vegetables, when cut, react with Oxygen in the air.
4. This makes them to get a brown layer on the surface.

Question 25.
What do you do to prevent browning of cut vegetables and fruits.
Answer:

1. Cold water prevents the outer surface of the potato and brinjal from colouring.
2. Small quantities of acids like vinegar or lemon juice in water will also prevent browning of vegetables.
   
3. We can also rub the surface of the cut fruits with juices of citrus fruits like lemon to avoid their browning.
4. The layer of lemon juice reduces the reaction on the surface of the fruit.
5. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can also be used to prevent browning.

Question 26.
Look at the experiment given below which was already conducted in your laboratory. Answer the following.

a) Which chemical was used in this experiment?
b) What is the change of colour you observed, after putting the iron nail into the solution?
Answer:
a) Copper Sulphate solution (CuSO₄).
b) The solution turns into green colour.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 12th Lesson Reproduction in Plants

7th Class Science 12th Lesson Reproduction in Plants Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the flowers that are classified on the basis of parts present in them.
Answer:
Flowers are classified as:
a) Complete flower
b) Incomplete flower
c) Unisexual flower and
d) Bisexual flower on the basis of parts present in them.
a) Complete flower:
A flower that has four or more whorls – at least one each of calyx (sepals), corolla (petals), Androecium (stamens) and Gynoecium (pistil) is called a Complete flower.

Eg: Datura, ipomea, hibiscus.

b) Incomplete flower:
A flower in which any of these four whorls is missing is an Incomplete flower.

Eg: Cucumber, bottlegourd, papaya.

c) Unisexual flower:
A flower which has either stamens (androecium) or pistil (gynoecium) is called unisexual flower.

Eg: Cucumber, bottle gourd, bitter gourd etc.,

d) Bisexual flower :
A flower that has both stamens and pistil (androecium and gynoecium).

Eg: Datura, hibiscus, ipomoea, is called bisexual.

Question 2.
What is pollination? What happens to pollinated and non-pollinated flowers?
Answer:

1. The process of pollen grains reaching the stigma from anther is known as pollination.
2. After one week if we observe both pollinated and non – pollinated flowers. We find polinated flowers develop into fruits where as non – pollinated flowers do not.

Question 3.
What are the agents that help, in pollination? Describe how it takes place by taking an example.
Answer:

1. Air, water, animals, insects, humans act as agents of pollination.
2. They carry pollen grains from anther to the stigma.
3. Insects like butterflies suck nectar from flowers.
4. At that time pollen grains of that flower stick to the legs of the butterfly.
5. When the butterfly goes to another flower for nectar, the pollen grain that have stuck to it’s legs fall on that flower.

Question 4.
What is fertilization? What happens after fertilization?
Answer:

1. Fertilization: Fusion of units of male and female parts to form a structure called as zygote is called fertilization.
2. After fertilization seed develops from the ovule and the ovary usually develops into a fruit.
3. The entire process of fertilization and formation of zygote is known as Sexual reproduction.
4. For the formation of a seed sexual reproduction is essential.
5. The seed thus formed are dispersed to different places by agents like air, water, birds and animals and by human beings as well.
6. These seeds grow into new plants under favorable conditions.

Question 5.
What is sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Production of baby plants or offsprings from the zygote is called sexual reproduction.

Question 6.
What is vegetative reproduction? Write an example for such reproduction.
Answer:
Vegetative reproduction: Production of new plants from vegetative parts of a plant i.e. root, stem and leaf is known as vegetative reproduction.
Example:

1. Potato has a number of small depressions on its surface.
2. These are known as eyes. Cut the potato into pieces such that there is an eye in each piece.
3. Remove the eyes from some of these pieces. Fill two cups with soil.
4. Plant the piece with eyes in one cup and label the cup as ‘with eyes” and those without eyes in another cup named as “Without eyes”.
5. Water both cups daily and observe potato plants sprout in the cup where pieces with eyes are kept.

Question 7.
How does reproduction take place in Bryophyllum?
Answer:

1. See the picture of the plant called Bryophyllum.
   
2. We can see baby plants on the edge of the leaves.
3. We can say that the Bryophyllum plant reproduces through its leaves.

Question 8.
Name some plants which can reproduce when a small branch of them is cut and planted in the soil.
Answer:
In our garden we grow plants like rose, hibiscus, and jasmine by cutting a small branch and planting them in the soil.

Question 9.
Do all flowers have four parts?
Answer:
The student can do this with the help of the teacher. Collect as many flowers from your surroundings as you can. See that you have at least a type of melon or gourd flower as well. Now observe different parts in each flower. Record your observations in the table given below.

Question 10.
How do you identify the sexual parts of a flower?
Answer:

1. Now take a stamen (androecium) from the datura flower, tap the stamen gently on a slide.
2. We can see some grains fallen on the slide.
   
3. Put a drop of water and observe these grains under the microscope.
4. These grains are called pollen grains. Collect pollen grains from other flowers and observe under the microscope as well.
5. Take the pistil of a datura flower as it is big enough to observe the internal parts.
6. Cut the sections of the ovary of pistil as shown in figures a and b.
   
   With the help of hand lens study the internal parts.
7. We see some small ball like structures called “ovules” can be seen arranged in different chambers.

Question 11.
How do you notice which flower part develops into fruit?
Answer:

1. Collect a pistil and fruit from datura plant. Cut the transverse section of both ovary of pistil and fruit.
2. Observe the internal structure of both the section cuttings with the help of a handlens.
   
3. Collect pistil and fruit of cucumber, bhendi (Ladies finger), cotton and beans and do the above activity.
4. Observe the similarities between the ovary and fruit of the same species.
5. It is reasonable to conclude that an ovary develops into a fruit while the ovules develop into seeds. The seeds further produce new plants.

Question 12.
How do you observe ‘Self Pollination ‘and ‘Cross PollinationWhat role is played by male flower?
Answer:

1. Observe a bottle-gourd plant in a garden. It has unisexual flowers i.e. male and female flowers separately.
2. Select 10 female buds of bottle guard, cover with a polythene bag loosely tying the bag on a stalk.
   
3. Make some tiny holes in the bag with the help of a pin.
4. Two days later observe the buds blooming. (Now collect the pollen grains from a male flower of the Bottlegourd plant).
5. Pluck the stamens of male flower and shake to collect pollen grain in a sheet of paper. Twisting cotton wool over the tip of a match stick prepares a brush.
6. Now uncover five of the ten female flowers. Apply the pollen grain on to the stigma of these flowers with the brush.
7. The pollen grains stick to the stigma.
8. Cover the flowers again with polythene bag. Remove all male flowers from the plant.
9. So that no pollen grain reaches the remaining female flowers.
10. By this experiment we come to know that significant role is played by male flower in the formation of fruit.
11. If transfer of pollen grains take place within the flower it is known as Self Pollination. Transfer of pollen grain from anther of one flower to stigma of another flower of same species is called Cross Pollination.

Question 13.
What happens to the pollen grain after pollination? What is fertilization?
Answer:

1. Take two slides. Put 2-3 drops of water on them. Add some sugar grains to water on one side.
   
2. Now put some pollen grains of Hibiscus flower on both the slides. After one hour observe under microscope. We find pollen grains germinate on the slide containing sugar grain.
3. There are some substances present on the stigma which promote the germination of the pollen grains.
4. During germination a tube grows from the pollen grain.
5. This tube ultimately reaches the ovary through the style with the male part.
6. This male part fuses with the female part in the ovule of the ovary.
7. Fusion of units of male and female parts to form a structure called as zygote is called Fertilization.

Question 14.
What is budding? How do you demonstrate it?
Answer:
1) Yeasts grow with the help of a small bulb like outgrowth which increases in size and • breaks off from the parent plant to live independently.
2) This process of reproduction is called budding.

Demonstration:

1. Take some water in a glass tumbler. Mix a tablespoon of sugar and half spoon of yeast powder you get in the market, in the glass tumbler.
2. Cover the glass and leave it undisturbed for a day.
   
3. On the next day place a drop of the solution on a slide and cover it with a cover slip and examine it under a microscope.
4. We can see budding yeast cells as shown in the figure, (they look like water bubbles growing new ones on them).

Question 15.
What is mould? How can you do an activity to show it?
Answer:

1. Take a slice of bread cover it with a vessel and leave it undisturbed for two or three days.
2. Thereafter you will find the slice covered with grey coloured fungus called bread mould.
   
3. Let it stand for three or four days. The whole growth appears like a black powder like matter.
4. Transfer this powder with a thin stick on a fresh slice of moist bread.
5. Observe what happens after every day and note your observation.
6. The black powdery portion of bread mould contains several spores.

Question 16.
What is thalamus in a flower?
Answer:
Let us hold a Dhatura flower by its stalk. This stalk is green in colour and has a slightly swollen head. This is called thalamus. It is the seat on which the parts of a flower are present.

Question 17.
Explain what are calyx and sepals in a flower.
Answer:

1. Now let us observe the part that comes just above the thalamus.
2. There is a green tube like structure called Calyx.
   
3. The edges on the part towards the petals have thin leaf like structures called sepals.
4. The lower ends of-sepals are fused to form the tube like structure.

Question 18.
Write about corolla.
Answer:

1. If we remove the tube of fused sepals in the flower carefully we see
2. There is a funnel shaped corolla. This is formed of fused petals.

Question 19.
What is the male part or Androecium of a flower?
Answer:

1. After removing the petals we can see soft elongated structures attached to these petals.
2. They are called stamens.
3. There is a bulb like structure at the top of each stamen that is called pollen sac or anther.
4. Just below it a fine whitish thread like structure called filament attaches the anther to the petal (in Datura).
5. So stamen has an elongated filarftent and a bulb like pollen sac.
6. Stamens of the flowers are together called the male part or androecium.

Question 20.
What is Gynoecium? How do you find it is a flower?
Answer:

1. As we remove petals, right on the thalamus is seated a bulb like structure called ovary.
2. Just above it a fine tube like structure called style goes up ending in a somewhat flat bead like structure called stigma.
3. This whole structure from ovary to stigma is the pistil or one female reproductive part.
4. All the parts present on the pistil together called as gynoecium.

Question 21.
What do you see in sun flower?
Answer:

1. Sun flower looks like a single flower.
2. But is actually a bunch of flowers.
3. The small flowers in the bunch are called ‘florets’.
4. The florets in the centre are called disc florets.
5. The florets along the rim are called ray flowers.

Question 22.
How are flowers classified on the basis of number of parts present in them?
Answer:
Flowers are classified as
a) Complete flower b) Incomplete flower c) Unisexual flower d) Bisexual flower

Question 23.
What is Penicillin? Who discovered it?
Answer:
Alexander Fleming a Scottish scientist, discovered that a certain kind of mould (Penicillium) produces a substance, named after the mould, called Penicillin, which can destroy many kinds of disease causing bacteria. Penicillin came to be know as an antibiotic and saved the lives of many soldiers in World War – II.

Question 24.
Observe various types of stamens of different flowers.
Answer:

Question 25.
Observe the different types of pistil drawn below.
Answer:

Question 26.
Write the differences between pollination and fertilization.
Answer:

Question 27.
Draw a flow chart for Reproduction in plants.
Answer:

Question 28.
What is asexual production- How do you appreciate this?
Answer:

1. Reproduction of plants from all such parts other than the flower is asexual reproduction.
2. It is a great thing in nature because reproduction in plants is not confined only to sexual reproduction.
3. By way of such processes, we could get good vegetation.

Question 29.
Write the importance of flowers. Name some of them.
Answer:

1. Flowers are usually the most attractive part of any plant.
2. Flowers are so attractive and colourful. Because they attract insects, human beings, etc. to get cross – pollination.
3. Reproduction is possible through flowers also.
4. Datura, Chinarose (Hibiscus), Cucumebr, Bottlegourd, Tridax, Sun flower, Ipomea etc.

Question 30.
The student is advised to complete the table given below taking the help of the teacher.
Answer:

Question 31.
How are the pesticides causing destruction to our beautiful nature?
Answer:

1. Birds and insects are the natural agents for pollination.
2. Nowadays farmers use pesticides to control pests on crops.
3. The enormous use of pesticides kills insects also.
4. It effects pollination.
5. Crop yield become reduced particularly in sun flower crop.
6. The rate of pollination is reduced because of lack of insects in the fields.
7. Think! How we destroy our beautiful nature.

Question 32.
We often find that some plants grow from their cuttings or some other parts. Can you name some such plants?
Answer:

Question 33.
Look at the picture.

1. Identify the parts A, B, C.
2. Name the type of reproduction seen here.
3. Which part is converted into seed?
4. What is meant by Fertilization?

Answer:

1. A – Pollen grain; B – Pollen tube; C – Ovary
2. Sexual reproduction.
3. Ovules develop into seeds.
4. Fusion of units of male and female parts (Pollen grain and Ovules) to form a structure called zygote is called fertilization.