AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Solutions 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Textbook Questions and Answers

Review of Your Previous Knowledge

Question 1.
Which property do you think of while suggesting the remedy from a problem of acidity?
Answer:
Neutralization Property. Antacid tablets neutralise acidity.

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11,7 and 9 respectively, which solution is : (AS1)
a) neutral
b) strongly alkaline
c) strongly acidic
d) weakly acidic
e) weakly alkaline
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
Solution – pH Value
A → 4
B → 1
C → 11
D → 7
E → 9
a) Solution ‘D’ is neutral
b) Solution ‘C’ is strongly alkaline
c) Solution ‘B’ is strongly acidic
d) Solution ‘A’ is weakly acidic
e) Solution ‘E1 is weakly alkaline
∴ Increasing order of Hydrogen ion concentration : C < E < D < A < B.

Question 2.
What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples. (AS1)
Answer:
Neutralization reaction : When acid reacts with base, forms its salt and water. This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.
Examples :
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
Equation: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
ii) Acetic Acid + Sodium Hydroxide → Sodium Acetate + Water
Equation : CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Formula : Acid + Base > Salt + Water

Question 3.
What happens when an acid or base is mixed with water? (AS1)
Answer:
When an acid or base is mixed with water it changes into dilute acid or dilute base.
(OR)
Dilute acid or dilute base will be formed when an acid or base is mixed with water. Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in the concentration of ions (H30+/ OH-) per unit volume. Such a process is called dilution and the acid or base is said to be diluted.

AP Board Solutions

Question 4.
Why does tooth decay start when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5? (AS1)
(OR)
Does the pH change tooth decay? Explain.
Answer:

  1. Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body.
  2.  It doesn’t dissolve in water but corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
  3. It happens due to the bacteria which produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth.

Question 5.
Why does not distilled water conduct electricit? (AS2)
Answer:

  1. Distilled water does not contain impurities.
  2. It is also extremely weak electrolyte.
  3. So it does not dissociate into ions.
  4. It does not have charge carriers.
  5. Because of that it does not conduct electricity.

Question 6.
Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus to red whereas hydrochloric acid does. Why? (AS1)
Answer:
1. Dry hydrogen chloride gas is not an acid. Because it does not produce H+(aq) ions. Hence it can’t turn blue litmus into red.
2. Hydrochloric acid is an aqueous solution. So it can produce H+(aq) ions. Hence it can turn blue litmus into red.

Question 7.
Why pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity? (AS1)
Answer:
The reasons for pure acetic acid does not conduct electricity are :
i) Acetic acid is a weak acid.
ii) It gives fewer H3O+ ions.

AP Board Solutions

Question 8.
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. (AS2)
a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Answer:
1. By adding a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk, the milkman keeps the milk unspoiled for little more time than usual time.
2. As the pH value increases the milk turns to slightly alkaline.

b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Answer:

  1. Curd form from the milk by the action of Lactic acid produced by bacteria in the milk.
  2. If milk man add Baking soda (NaHCO3) to the milk it neutralise acid, which is produced by the bacteria.
  3. Excess acid is required to change the milk as curd.
  4.  It takes long time.

Question 9.
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why? (AS2)
Answer:
Storing of Plaster of Paris :

  1. Plaster of Paris is a white powder.
  2. It easily absorbs water in air and forms hard gypsum.
  3. So, it should be stored in a moisture-proof container.

Question 10.
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Explain why the pH changes as it turns into curd.
Answer:
1. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. Hence it is a weak acid.
2. To turn the milk as curd, we have to add yeast in the form of some curd. The fermentation takes place during this process and lactose changes in lactic acid and the pH decreases as milk sets as curd.

AP Board Solutions

Question 11.
Compounds such as alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it. (AS3)
(OR) (Activity – 7)
Write an activity to show that the solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character even though they are having Hydrogen.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves acids are good conductors of electricity.
(OR)
The acidity of acids is attributed to the H+ ions produced by them in solution explain the above statement with an activity.
List out the material for the experiment to investigate whether all compounds containing Hydrogen are acids or not and write the experimental procedure.
Answer:
List of the material required :

  1. Glucose
  2. Alcohol
  3. Dil. HCl
  4. Dil-H2SO4
  5. Beaker
  6. Connecting wires
  7. 230 voltage AC supply
  8. Bulb
  9. Graphite rods.

Procedure :

  1. Prepare glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid solutions.
  2. Connect two different coloured electrical wires to graphite rods separately as shown in figure.
  3. Connect free ends of the wire to 230 volts AC plug.
  4. Complete the circuit as shown in the figure by connecting a bulb to one of the wires.
  5. Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Observation :
The bulb starts glowing.

Repetition:
Repeat activity with dilute sulphuric acid, glucose and alcohol solutions separately.

Observation :

  1. We will notice that the bulb glows only in acid solutions.
  2. But the bulb does not glow in glucose and alcohol solutions.

Result:

  1. Glowing of bulb indicates that there is flow of electric current through the solution.
  2. Acid solutions have ions and the movement of these ions in solution helps for flow of electric current through the solution.

Conclusion :

  1. The positive ion (cation) present in HCl solution is H+.
  2. This suggests that acids produce hydrogen ions H+ in solution, which are, responsible for their acidic properties.
  3. In glucose and alcohol solution the bulb did not glow indicating the absence of H+ ions in these solutions.
  4. The acidity of acids is attributed to the H+ ions produced by them in solutions.

Question 12.
What is meant by “water of crystallization” of a substance? Describe an activity to show the water of crystallisation. (Activity – 16) (AS3)
Answer:
Water of Crystallization : Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt in its crystaline form.
Ex : CuSO4 • 5H2O.
It means that five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.

Activity to show the water of crystallization :

  1. Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
  2. We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.
  3. Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained after heating.
  4. We observe, the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Reason :
1. In the above activity copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry contain the water of crystallization, when these crystals are heated, water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.

2. When the crystals are moistened with water, the blue colour reappears.
Removing water of crystallization

AP Board Solutions

Question 13.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration of both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why? (AS4)
Answer:
1. The volatility of acetic acid (CH3COOH) is more than that of hydrochloric acid.
2. But HCl solution has more strength than acetic acid.
3. Hence magnesium ribbon in test tube A will react more vigorously than in B.
4. So fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube ‘A’.

Question 14.
Draw a neat diagram showing acid solution in water conducts electricity. (AS5)
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram which shows acids contains H+ ions.
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram showing how does dilute HCl solution conduct electricity.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 15.
How do you prepare your own indicator using beetroot ? Explain. (AS5)
Aim : To prepare own indicator.
Materials required :
1) Beetroots-2 or 3
2) Knife
3) Bowls
4) Water
5) Spoon
6) Mixy
7) Orange juice

Procedure:
1) Take the beetroots and peel them with the help of a knife. (Firstly wash them).
2) Chop them into pieces.
3) Put those pieces into a mixy jar and make a paste.
4) Add some water to the paste. Now filter this and collect only juice from this.

Observation and Result:
1) Now add 5 to 6 drops of this juice, (beetroot juice (indicator)) to orange juice (5 to 6 drops) and mix it.
2) We can see the colour changes. This indicates the presence of acidic nature in orange juice.

Question 16.
How does the flow of acid rain into a river make the survival of aquatic life in a river difficult? (AS7)
(OR)
What are the harmful effects of acid rain?
Answer:
1) Acid rains are combination of carbonic acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid with rain water.
2) The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.
3) Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change.
4) When acid rain with pH value less than 5.6, flows into rivers, it lowers the pH of river water.
5) Due to less pH, the river water becomes acidic and hence the aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult.

Question 17.
What is baking powder? How does it make the cake soft and spongy? (AS7)
Answer:
1) Baking Powder:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO3) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. COOH (CHOH)2 COOH

2) Chemical reaction :
When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place.
NaHCO3 + H+ → CO2 + H2O + Sodium salt of acid.

3) Carbondioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

AP Board Solutions

Question 18.
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda. (AS7)
(OR)
Write the chemical formulae for washing soda and Baking soda and give their uses.
(OR)
Write any four uses of washing soda.
Answer:
Uses of washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) :
1) Washing soda (sodium carbonate) is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
2) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
3) Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
4) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Uses of baking soda (NaHCO3 10H2O) :
1) Baking soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate) is used for faster cooking.
2) Baking powder (a mixture of baking soda and a mild acid) is used in preparation of cakes.
3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids.
4) It is also used in soda – acid, fire extinguishers.
5) It acts as a mild antiseptic.

Fill in the Blanks

1. i) ………………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solution.
ii) Acids react with some metals to produce ………………….. gas.
iii) Because aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as …………………..
iv) Acids react with bases to produce a ………………….. and water.
v) Acids turn methyle orange into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
1. i) Sour
ii) hydrogen
iii) electrolytes or conductors
iv) salt
v) red

AP Board Solutions

2. i) Bases tend to taste ………………….. and feel ………………….. .
ii) Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct ………………….., and are identified as ………………….. .
iii) Bases react with ………………….. to produce a salt and
iv) Bases turn phenophthalein into ………………….. colour.
Answer:
2. i) bitter, soapy (slippery) to touch
ii) electricity, electrolytes
iii) acids, water
iv) pink

Match the following :

a) Plaster of Paris1) CaOCl2
b) Gypsum2) NaHCO3
c) Bleaching powder3) Na2CO3
d) Baking soda4) CaSO4.½H2O
e) Washing soda5) CaSO4.2H2O

Answer:
3. a – 4,
b – 5,
c – 1,
d – 2,
e – 3.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is
A) yellow
B) green
C) orange
D) red
Answer:
D) red

2. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

AP Board Solutions

3. Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions
A) orange
B) yellow
C) red
D) blue
Answer:
B) yellow

4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
(OR)
If a solution converts red litmus into blue colour, then its pH value is …………….. .
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

AP Board Solutions

5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky, the solution contains …………….. .
A) NaCl
B) HCl
C) LiCl
D) KCl
Answer:
B) HCl

6. If a base dissolves in water, by what name is it better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

7. Which of the following substances when mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

8. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH = 1) turn universal indicator?
A) Orange
B) Purple
C) Yellow
D) Red
Answer:
D) Red

AP Board Solutions

9. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

10. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) no gas is produced
Answer:
A) hydrogen

11. Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid-base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base → neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

10th Class Chemistry 1st Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 25

Question 1.
Is the substance present in antacid tablet acidic or basic?
A. The substance present in antacid tablet is basic.

Question 2.
What type of reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed?
mrearx
A. Neutralization reaction takes place in stomach when an antacid tablet is consumed.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 26

Question 3.
You are provided with three test tubes containing distilled water, an acid and a base solution respectively. If you are given only blue litmus paper, how do you identify the contents of each test tube?
Answer:
I know that acid turns blue litmus to red. With the help of this test I can find the acid. Distilled water and base don’t do so. Thus I identify each.

Question 4.
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Answer:
Usually acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.

Test: When a burning splinder is brought near to the collected gas (H2), it puts off with a pop sound.
This test proves that the gas is H2.

AP Board Solutions

Question 5.
A compound of a calcium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle ; turns lime water milky. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
Equation is : CaCO3 + 2 HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 30

Question 6.
Why do HCl, HNO2 etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Answer:
HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions as they liberate H+ ions. But alcohol and glucose don’t liberate H+ ions. So, they do not show acidic character.

Question 7.
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Answer:
1) If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
2) The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

10th Class Chemistry Textbook Page No. 33

Question 8.
What will happen if the pH value of chemicals in our body increases?
Answer:
When pH value of chemicals in our body increases then the body will effect by some problems. They are
1) Digestion problems raise in the stomach.
2) pH changes as the cause of tooth decay.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Why do living organism have narrow pH range?
Answer:
Because increasing acidity is thought to have a range of possibly harmful consequences such as depressing metabolic rate and immune response in some organisms and causing coral bleaching

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts Activities

Activity – 1

Question 1.
Observe the change in colour in each case and tabulate the results in the table.
Answer:
Procedure:
1) Collect the following samples from the science laboratory ;
i) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
ii)Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
iii) Nitric acid (HNO3)
iv) Acetic acid (CH3COOH)
v) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
vi) Calcium hydroxide[Ca(OH)2]
vii) Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2]
viii) Ammonium hydroxide(NH4OH)
ix) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
2) Prepare dilute solutions of the respective substances.
3) Take four watch glasses.
4) Put one drop of the first solution in each one of them and test the solution as follows.
i) Dip the blue litmus paper in the first watch glass.
ii) Dip the red litmus paper in the second watch glass.
iii) Add a drop of methyl orange to the third watch glass.
iv) Add a drop of phenolphthalein to the fourth watch glass.

Observation :
Observe the respective colour changes and note down in the chart below.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 4

1. What do you conclude from the observations noted in the above table? (AS1)
Answer:
Conclusion : Acids turn blue litmus to red and bases turn red litmus to blue. Acids turn phenolphthalein to colourless and bases turn pink. Acids turn methyl orange to red and bases turn methyl orange to yellow.

2. Identify the above sample as acidic or basic solution. (AS4)
Answer:
Acids : HCl, H2SO4, HNO3, CH3COOH.
Bases : NaOH, KOH, Mg(OH)2, NH4OH, Ca(OH)2.

Activity -2

Question 2.
What are Olfactory indicators? Write an activity to prove them.
(OR)
What is the name given to a substance which identifies an acid or base by virtue of smell? Write an activity to prove the fact with an example.
Answer:
Olfactory Indicators : There are some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. These are called olfactory indicators.
Activity :
Aim : To check the olfactory indicator.
Required materials :
1) Onions
2) Knife
3) Plastic bag
4) Clean clothes.

Procedure :
1) Take some onions and finely chop them.
2) Put the chopped onions in a plastic bag along with some clean cloth.
3) Tie up the bag tightly and keep it overnight in the fridge.
4) Then remove onions from fridge and add some base. We observe it loses its smell. Observation : Check the odour of the cloth strips.

Result: It is used as the basic indicator.

LAB ACTIVITY Reaction of Acids with metals

Question 3.
Write an experiment showing the reaction of acids with metals. (AS3)
(OR)
Ramu added acid to active metal then what is the gas which has been liberated. What are the apparatus required to prove the experiment. Write the experimental acitivity.
(OR)
Write the required material and experimental procedure for the experiment, “Hydrochloric acid reacts with ‘Zn’ pieces and liberates H2“.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of acids with metals.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
Required Materials :

  1. Test tube
  2. Delivery tube
  3. Glass trough
  4. Candle,
  5. Soap water
  6. Dil. HCl
  7. Zinc granules
  8. One holed rubber stopper
  9. Retard stand

Experimental procedure :

  1. Take some zinc granules in a test tube and arrange the test tube to the retart stand.
  2. Fix a delivery tube to the rubber stopper and immerse the second end of the delivery tube into the soap water.
  3. Add about 10 m/ of dilute hydrochloric acid to Zn granules and fix rubber stopper to the test tube.
  4. Evolved gas forms bubbles in soap water.
  5. Bring a lightened candle near to the gas bubbles. We can observe the burning of gas bubble with pop sound.

Result: We can conform that the evolved gas is hydrogen.
Chemical reaction:
Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
2Hcl(aq) + Zn(s) → Zncl2(aq) + H2(g)

Additional Experiment :

  • Repeat the above experiment with H2SO4 and HNO3.
  • We observe the same observation of the HCL experiment.

Conclusion : From the above activities we can conclude that when acid reacts with metal, H2 gas is evolved.

Activity – 3 Reaction of Bases with metals

Question 4.
Write an activity to show the reaction of bases with metals.
(OR)
Write an activity which proves certain bases produce hydrogen gas when they react with metals.
Answer:
Aim : To show the reaction of bases with metals.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
Required Materials :

  1. Test tube,
  2. Delivery tube
  3. Glass trough
  4. Candle
  5. Soap water
  6. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Solution
  7. Zinc granules
  8. One holed rubber stopper

Procedure :

  1. Set the apparatus as shown in figure.
  2. Take about 10 ml of dilute Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution in a test tube.
  3. Add a few granules of zinc metal to it.
  4. We will observe formation of gas bubbles on the surface of granules.
  5. The gas will pass through delivery tube evolved from soap solution as bubbles.
  6. Bring burning candle near the gas filled bubble.
  7. The gas in the bubble puts off the candle with pop sound.

Result: The evolved gas is hydrogen.

Chemical reaction :
Base + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 6
Note : It is better to use cone. NaOH solution for this reaction.

Activity – 4 Reaction of carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates with Acids

Question 5.
Write an activity to show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt. (AS3)
Answer:
Aim : To show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 7
Required Materials :

  1. Two test tubes
  2. Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3)
  3. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO3)
  4. Two holed rubber stopper
  5. Thistle funnel
  6. Stand
  7. Dilute hydrochloric acid
  8. Delivery tube
  9. Calcium Carbonate (in a test tube)

Procedure :

  1. Take a test tube A with 0.5 gm of sodium carbonate.
  2. Close the test tube A with two holed rubber cork.
  3. Insert a thistle funnel through one hole and insert a delivery tube through the other hole.
  4. Pour 2 ml of dilute HC/ to the test tube A.
  5. Do the same as above with test tube B with sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Observation :
Carbon dioxide is released from test tube A and B. Passing CO2 gas through Ca(OH)2 solution

Chemical Reaction :
Na2CO3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → 2 NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Metal Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Metal Hydrogen Carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

Result : All metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.

Activity – 5 Neutralization reaction

Question 6.
Write an activity to find the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base (Neutralization) reaction. (AS3)
(OR)
Explain neutralization reaction with an activity.
Answer:
Aim : To test the change of colour in the reaction of an acid with a base.

Required Materials :

  1. 2 ml of dilute NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide) solution.
  2. Phenolphthalein indicator solution.
  3. dilute HCl (Hydrochloric) solution.

Procedure :

  1. Take about 2 ml of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube.
  2. Add two drops of phenolphthalein indicator solution.

Observation (i) :

  1. It turns to red or pink colour.
  2. It shows that NaOH is a base.

Experiment (1) : Add dilute HCl solution to the above solution drop by drop.
Observation (ii) : Pink colour disappears due to the reaction of NaOH (base) with HCl (acid).

Experiment (2) : Now add one or two drops of NaOH to the above mixture.
Observation (iii) : Pink colour reappears on adding NaOH.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
base + acid → salt + water
Result: This reaction is called a neutralization reaction.

Activity – 6 Reaction of metallic oxides with acids

Question 7.
Write an activity to show that metal oxide reacts with acid is a neutralization. (AS3)
(OR)
How can you prove metallic acids are basic in nature?
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of copper oxide (CuO) in a beaker.
2) Add dilute HCl slowly while stirring.
3) Copper oxide dissolves in dilute HCl and the solution becomes blueish green colour due to the formation of copper (II) chloride.

Equation : Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Result: This reaction is same as the reaction of base with acid, (neutralization)

Question 8.
Write an activity to show that non-metallic oxide reacts with base is a neutralization.
Answer:
1) Take a small amount of calcium hydroxide (base).
2) Add CO2 into it.
3) Salt and water are produced.
Equation : Non-metallic oxide + Base → Salt + Water
Result: It is a neutralization reaction.

AP Board Solutions

Question 9.
Repeat the activity – 7 using alkalis such as sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide solutions, etc. instead of acid solutions.
i) Does the bulb glow?
Answer:
Yes, the bulb will glow.

ii) What do you conclude from the results of this activity?
Answer:
Basic solutions are also good conductors of electricity due to released OH ions.

iii) What happens to an acid or a base in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Acids produce H+ ions and bases produce OH ions in aqueous solutions.

iv) Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution?
Answer:
Yes.

Activity – 8

Question 10.
Do acids produce ions only in aqueous solution? Prove it. (AS3)
(OR)
Acids produce ions only in aqueous solution. Justify your answer with an activity.
Answer:
Procedure :

  1. Take about 1.0 g of solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube.
  2. Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube. .

Observation :

  1. A gas comes out of the delivery tube.
  2. If we test the gas with dry and wet blue litmus paper, there is no change in colour.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 10
Chemical equation : 2 NaCl(s) + H2SO4(l) > 2 HCl + Na2SO4(s)

Conclusion :

  1. We can conclude that dry HCl gas (hydrogen chloride) is not an acid.
  2. Because we have noticed that there is no change in colour of dry litmus paper.
  3. But HCl aqueous solution is an acid because wet blue litmus paper turned into red.

Activity – 9 Reaction of water with acids or bases

Question 11.
Write an activity to show that dissolving of an acid in water is an exothermic process (or) endothermic process. (AS3)
(OR)
What do you observe when water is mixed with acid or base?
Answer:
Experiment :

  1. Take 10 ml water in a beaker.
  2. Add a few drops of concentrated H2SO4 to it and swirl the beaker slowly.
  3. Touch the base of the beaker.
  4. The base is hot.
  5. Do this experiment with other concentrated acids like HCl, HNO3 Result: This is an exothermic process called dilution.

Activity -10 Strength of acid or base

Question 12.
Write an activity to know whether the acid is strong or weak. (AS3)
Answer:

  1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
  2. Close it with a cardboard and introduce two different colour electrical wires through the holes made on it.
  3. Connect a bulb and make the connection as shown in the figure.
  4. Do the same replacing dilute HCl with dilute CH3COOH (acetic acid).

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Observation :
The bulb glows brightly in HCl solution, while the bulb’s intensity is low in acetic acid solution.

Result:
More ions are present in HCl solution which is a strong acid than in CH3COOH solution which is a weak acid.

Activity – 11

Question 13.
Test the pH value of solution given in table. Record your observations. What is the nature of each substance on the basis of your observations?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 12

Activity – 12

Question 14.
Write an activity to check the colour change in dilute HCl and antacid solution in addition of methyl orange. (AS3)
Answer:
Procedure :

  1. Take dilute HCl in a beaker.
  2. Add two to three drops of methyl orange indicator to it.
  3. The solution colour turns to red.
  4. Now take the same solution and mix antacid tablet powder.

Observation :
Check the colour change.

Result:
The colour of the solution turns to light yellow.

Chemical equation:
2 HCl + Mg(OH)2 → MgCl2 + 2H2O

Activity – 13

Question 15.
How can we test the pH value of the soil? (AS3)
Answer:

  1. Take about 2g of soil in a test tube.
  2. Add 5 ml water to it.
  3. Shake it well.
  4. Filter the content.
  5. Collect the filtrate in a test tube.
  6. Add 2 drops of universal solution to it.
  7. Observe the colour.
  8. Compare the colour with strip colour on the bottle and find the pH value.
  9. In this way we can test the pH of the soil.

Activity – 14

Question 16.
Write the formulae of the following salts and classify them as families based on radicals.
Potassium Sulphate, Sodium Sulphate, Calcium Sulphate, Magnesium Sulphate, Copper Sulphate, Sodium Chloride, Sodium Nitrate, Sodium Carbonate and Ammonium Chloride. (AS4)
Answer:

Name of the SaltFormula
1. Potassium SulphateK2SO4
2. Sodium SulphateNa2SO4
3. Calcium SulphateCaSO4
4. Magnesium SulphateMgSO4
5. Copper SulphateCuSO4
6. Sodium ChlorideNaCl
7. Sodium NitrateNaNO3
8. Sodium CarbonateNa2CO3
9. Ammonium ChlorideNH4Cl

Sodium family : Na2SO4, NaCl, NaNO3, Na2CO3, etc.
Family of chloride salts : NaCl, NH4Cl, etc.
Family of sulphate salts : K2SO4, Na2SO4, CaSO4, MgSO4, CuSO4, etc.
Family of carbonate salts : Na2CO3 MgCO3 CaCO3, etc.

AP Board Solutions

Question 17.
Identify the acids and bases from which they are obtained. (AS4)
Answer:

Name of the SaltParent AcidParent Base
1. Potassium SulphateSulphuric AcidPotassium Hydroxide
2. Sodium SulphateSulphuric AcidSodium Hydroxide
3. Calcium SulphateSulphuric AcidCalcium Carbonate
4. Magnesium SulphateSulphuric AcidMagnesium Hydroxide
5. Copper SulphateSulphuric AcidCopper Hydroxide
6. Sodium ChlorideHydrochloric AcidSodium Hydroxide
7. Sodium NitrateNitric AcidSodium Hydroxide
8. Sodium CarbonateCarbonic AcidSodium Hydroxide
9. Ammonium ChlorideHydrochloric AcidAmmonium Hydroxide

Activity – 15 pH of Salts

Question 18.
Collect the salt samples like sodium chloride, aluminium chloride, copper sulphate, sodium acetate, ammonium chloride, sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium carbonate. Dissolve them in distilled water. Check the action of these solutions with litmus papers. Find the pH using pH paper (universal indicator. Classify them into acidic, basic or neutral salts. Identify the acid and base used to form the above salts. Record your observations in table. (AS4)
Answer:

SaltpHAcidBaseNeutral
Sodium Chloride7
Aluminium Chloride7
Copper Sulphate< 7
Sodium Acetate> 7
Ammonium Chloride< 7
Ammonium Chloride> 7
Sodium Carbonate> 7

 

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions 7th Lesson Human Eye and Colourful World

10th Class Physics 7th Lesson Human Eye and Colourful World 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the power of lens. (AP June 2016)
Answer:
The reciprocal of focal length is called “power of lens”.

Question 2.
What physical quantity can be found in an experiment done with prism? (AP June 2017)
Answer:

  1. Angle of deviation.
  2. Refractive index of a prism.

Question 3.
What is the relation between Power and Focal length of the lens? (AP June 2018)
Answer:
\(P=\frac{1}{f(\text { in metres })}\) (OR) \(P=\frac{100}{f(\text { in cms })}\)

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 4.
Draw the diagram of a lens which will be recommended by an eye doctor to a long sighted patient. (TS June 2015)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 1
The lens is convex lens.

Question 5.
What is the cause of Presbyopia? (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Presbyopia is vision defect when the ability of accommodation of the eye decreases with ageing.

Question 6.
Draw a ray diagram to show the angle of deviation when a ray of light passes through a glass prism. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World
d = angle of deviation

Question 7.
Suggest reasons for the phenomenon associated with the following. The sky appearing blue. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
The reason for blue sky is due to the scattering of light by the molecules of N2 and O2 whose size is comparable to the wavelength of blue light.

Question 8.
+50 cm focal length bi-convex lens is recommended to correct the defect of vision of a mart. Find the power of the lens. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
f = +50 cm
Power (P) = \(\frac{100}{\mathrm{f}}\) D (in cm); P = \(\frac{100}{50}\) = 2 D
Power of the bi-convex lens is 2D.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 9.
What happens if the eye lens of a person cannot accommodate its focal length more than 2.4 cm? (TS March 2017)
Answer:
The person can able to see certain distance only he cannot see distance objects. For correction, he should use concave lens.

Question 10.
Write the reason for Sun appears red during the Sun-rise and Sun-set. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Due to the high velocity (wave length) of red right, it reaches our eye without under go scattering. So, sun appears red during sunrise and sunset.

Question 11.
A person is unable to see distant objects. Show the defect of vision of the person with the help of ray diagram. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
1) His vision defect is myopia.
2) Ray diagram

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 2

Question 12.
Which molecules of atmosphere act as scattering centres are responsible for the blue sky? (TS June 2019)
Answer:
Oxygen and Nitrogen molecules.

Question 13.
Write any one application of a prism. (AP SA-I; 2019-20)
Answer:

  1. Prism is used in scopes like binoculars, telescopes and light houses.
  2. Prism is used to create artificial rainbow.

Question 14.
Mention the function of retina in a human eye.
Answer:
It acts as a screen, (which the image is formed) for image formed.

Question 15.
State the role of ciliary muscles in accommodation.
Answer:
It can adjust the focal length of the eye lens.

Question 16.
Why is normal eye not able to see clearly the objects kept closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The maximum accommodation of a normal human eye is reached when the object is at a distance of 25 cm from the eyes. The focal length of the eye lens cannot be decreased this minimum limit.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 17.
What is “Power of accommodation of the eye” (or) “Least distance of clear vision”?
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length to see nearby and distant objects clearly.

Question 18.
What is “Iris” and “Pupil”?
Iris :
The muscular diaphragm between the aqueous humour and the lens is called ‘iris’. Iris is the coloured part that we see in an eye.

Pupil:
The small hole in iris is called ‘pupil’.

Question 19.
What are three common defects of vision?
Answer:
The common defects of vision are i) Myopia ii) Hypermetropia iii) Presbyopia.

Question 20.
What is “Far point”?
Answer:
The point of maximum distance at which the eye lens can form an image on retina is called ‘far point’.

Question 21.
What is power of lens?
Answer:
The reciprocal of focal length is called power of lens. Power of lens focal length = \(\frac{1}{\text { focal length }}\)

Question 22.
What is the function of pupil in human eye?
Answer:
It allows the light falling on iris.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 23.
What is the purpose of human eye?
Answer:
The purpose of eye is to see and perceive the objects around us.

Question 24.
What is the principle of the working of human eye?
Answer:
It acts as camera having a lens system forming an invented real image on the light sensitive screen, retina.

Question 25.
What is the nature of the image formed on the retina?
Answer:
Real, inverted and same sized.

Question 26.
What is meant by dispersion of light?
The splitting of white light into its component colours when it passes through the prism is called dispersion of light.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 27.
On which factors does the colour of the scattered white light depend?
Answer:

  1. Angle of scattering
  2. Distance travelled by light
  3. Size of the molecules.

Question 28.
Why is normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The focal length of eye lens cannot decrease below 25 cm.

Question 29.
A person is advised to wear spectacles with concave lenses. What type of defect of vision is he suffering from?
Answer:
Myopia (or) short sightedness.

Question 30.
A person suffering from an eye-defect uses lenses of power – 1D. Name the defect he is suffering from and the nature of lens is used.
Answer:
Defect:
Myopia, Nature of lens, Concave/divergence.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 31.
Name the two phenomena involved in the formation of rainbow.
Answer:
Dispersion of light and internal reflection.

Question 32.
Identify the following part of the human eye.
1. Where is image of an object formed?
2. Which controls size of pupil?
Answer:

  1. Image of an object is formed on retina.
  2. Iris controls the size of pupil.

Question 33.
What is the relation between power of lens and focal length (f)?
Answer:
Power of lens (concave/convex)
\(P=\frac{1}{f(\text { in metres })}\) (OR) \(P=\frac{100}{f(\text { in cms })}\)

Question 34.
Explain about “Bending of light”.
Answer:

  1. When a light travels from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal.
  2. And from denser to rarer medium, it moves away from the normal.

Question 35.
What is sclerotic?
Answer:
It is the outermost covering of the eye. It protects the vital internal parts of the eye.

Question 36.
What is “Retina”?
Answer:
Retina is the internal part and the light sensitive surface of the eye. It is equivalent to the photographic film in a camera.

Question 37.
What is “Atmospheric refraction”?
Answer:
When the light rays pass through the atmosphere having layers of different densities and refractive indices, refraction of light takes place. This refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere is called atmospheric refraction.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 38.
What is a “Telescope”?
Answer:
The instrument which is used to see the distant objects such as a star, planet (moon, sun) or distant tree is called telescope.

Question 39.
Have you seen a rainbow in the sky after rain? How is it formed?
Answer:

  1. A rainbow is a natural spectrum of sunlight in the form of bows appearing in the sky when the sun shines on raindrops after the rain.
  2. It is formed due to reflection, refraction and dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere.

Question 40.
“To look at the twinkling of stars is a wonderful experience.” How does it happen?
Answer:
The continuous changing atmosphere (due to varying atmospheric temperature and density) refracts the light from the stars by varying amounts and in different directions from one moment to the next.

Question 41.
Some things appear blue on a misty day. Give two examples.
Answer:

  1. The long distance hills covered with thick growth of trees appear blue.
  2. The smoke coming from a cigarette or an incense stick (agarbatti) appears blue on a misty day.

Question 42.
Which coloured suits do rescue workers wear?
Answer:
Rescue workers wear orange coloured suits during any rescue operations.

Question 43.
Which colour is best for school buses?
Answer:
Orange or yellow colour is best for school busses.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 44.
What is persistence of vision?
Answer:
The time for which the sensation of vision (of an object) continues in the eye is called persistence of vision. It is about 1/16th part of a second.

Question 45.
Why can’t some people identify some colours?
Answer:
Rods identify the colours in the retina. If some rods are absent, the distinction of colours is not possible. In such cases, persons can’t identify some colours.

Question 46.
Write the reasons for colour blindness.
Answer:

  1. Absence of colour responding rod cells in the retina.
  2. Due to genetic disorder.

Question 47.
Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room when we enter the room from bright sunlight outside?
Answer:
In bright light, the size of the pupil is small to control the amount of light entering the eye. When we enter a dim room, it takes some time so that the pupil expands and allows more light to enter and helps to see things clearly.

Question 48.
What is tyndall effect?
Answer:
The phenomenon of scattering of white light by colloidal particles is known as ‘Tyndall effect”.

Question 49.
Give two examples illustrating “Tyndall effect”.
Answer:

  • A fine beam of sunlight entering a smoke filled room through a hole. Smoke particles scatter the white light and hence the path of light beam becomes visible.
  • Sunlight passing through the trees in forest.
  • Tiny water droplets through the trees in forest.

Question 50.
An eye camp was organised by the doctors in a village. What were the benefits to organise such camps in rural areas?
Answer:

  1. To make people aware of eye diseases
  2. To take proper and balanced diet.

Question 51.
What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye?
Answer:
In the eye, the image distance (distance between eye lens and retina) is fixed and it cannot be changed. So when we increase the distance of an object, there is no change in the image distance.

Question 52.
Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The maximum accommodation of a normal eye is at a distance of 25 cm from the eye.
The focal length of the eye lens cannot be decreased below this. Thus an object placed closer than 25 cm cannot be seen clearly by a normal eye.

Question 53.
Write the relation between intensity of scattered light (I) and wavelength (λ).
Answer:
Light of short wavelength is scattered more than the light of long wavelength.
i.e., Intensity of scattered light (I) ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { wavelength }(\lambda)}\)

Question 54.
Why would the sky look dark if the earth had no atmosphere?
Answer:
If the earth has no atmosphere, no particles present either. Thus no scattering of light. Then, the sky appears dark.

Question 55.
Why do different coloured rays deviate differently in the prism?
Answer:
Because the angle of refraction of different colours is different while passing through the glass prism.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 56.
What prevents rainbow from being seen as complete circles?
Answer:
The earth comes in the way of the rainbow and prevents it to form a complete circle.

Question 57.
When a monochromatic light passes through a prism will it show dispersion?
Answer:
No, it will not show any dispersion but show deviation.

Question 58.
Will a star appear to twinkle if seen from free space (say moon)?
Answer:
No, because there is no atmosphere in free space for refraction to take place.

Question 59.
A short-sighted person may read a book without spectacles. Comment.
Answer:
The statement is true, because a short-sighted person has difficulty in observing far off objects.

Question 60.
What is angle of vision?
Answer:
The maximum angle, at which we can see the whole object is called angle of vision.

Question 61.
What is cornea?
Answer:
The front curved portion of eye, which is covered by a transparent protective membrane is called the cornea.

Question 62.
Which lens do you use to correct the eye defect, Myopia?
Answer:
Bi-concave lens are used to correct the eye defect, Myopia.

Question 63.
What happens to power of lens if (i) focal length is increased, (ii) focal length is decreased?
Answer:

  1. If focal length is increased, then power of lens decreases.
  2. If focal length is decreased, then power of lens increases.

Question 64.
What type of image is formed by magnifying glass?
Answer:
It forms virtual, erect and magnified image.

Question 65.
How is power of lens related to its focal length?
Answer:
Power of lens is inversely proportional to its focal length.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 66.
What is “Scattering of light”?
Answer:
The process of re-emission of light in all directions with different intensity is called scattering of light. The re-emitted light is called scattered light.

Question 67.
Ramu is unable to see letters on the blackboard sitting at the last bench in the class¬room. What is the defect from which Ramu is suffering?
Answer:
Ramu is suffering from Myopia.

Question 68.
Vinay is able to read letters in a book beyond certain distance from least distance of distinct vision. What is the eye defect of Vinay?
Answer:
Vinay is suffering from Hypermetropia.

Question 69.
How can an eye lens accommodate its focal length?
Answer:
To see an object comfortably and distinctly, one must hold at a distance about 25 cm from his/her eyes. This distance is called least distance of distinct vision.

Question 70.
Write the uses of “rods” and “cones”.
Answer:
Retina contains about 125 million receptors called rods and cones. Rods identify the colour and cones identify the intensity of light.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 71.
Frame some questions, that you are going to ask your friend who is suffering from eye sight.
Answer:

  1. Are you not able to see near objects or far objects?
  2. Are you not able to see both near and far objects?

Question 72.
Write some more examples to find dispersion of light as VIBGYOR.
Answer:

  1. Formation of rainbow.
  2. When white light passes through water drop.

Question 73.
Why do stars twinkle?
Answer:
Due to change in atmospheric conditions, density changes so position keeps on changing.

Question 74.
“Sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes.” Why?
Answer:
At very high altitude, there is no atmosphere. So there is no scattering of light at such heights. So sky appears dark to passengers.

Question 75.
Why are danger signals red? (OR) Why are danger signals shown in red colour?
Answer:
Among the colours of visible light, red has more wavelength and least scattered. Thus, red colour can easily go through fog or mist or smoke without getting scattered. It can be seen from long distance. So red colour is used in universal danger signal.

Question 76.
How can you identify regarding the type of defect a person is suffering from by physically touching his spectacles?
Answer:
By touching the spectacles we can find out whether the lens is concave or convex lens and hence the defect from which he suffers.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 77.
A person cannot see objects beyond 1-2 m distinctly. What should be the nature of the defect and what type of lens should be used to correct the defect?
Answer:
The person is suffering from Myopia. It can be corrected by using concave lens.

Question 78.
How do you appreciate the working of “Retina”?
Answer:

  1. It is the innermost delicate membrane having a large number of receptors called ‘rods’ and ‘cones’.
  2. The rods identify the colour and the cones identify the intensity of light.
  3. The retina is a part on which the image of an object is formed.

Question 79.
How do you appreciate the working of “Optic nerve”?
Answer:

  1. Optic nerve consists of a large number of fibres.
  2. These optic nerve fibres are connected to the rods and cones.
  3. Optic nerve fibers transmit the light signals to the brain.

Question 80.
We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspaper. Write the importance of such advertisements.
Answer:
Eye donation advertisements are important as :

  1. The people aw;are about donation of organs after their death.
  2. Sympathetic nature towards others.

Question 81.
An eye donation camp is being organised by social workers in your locality. How and why would you help in this cause?
Answer:

  1. We can intimate other people to participate in the camp.
  2. As a human being, we should also register our eyes for donation after death.

Question 82.
A short sighted person cannot see clearly beyond 2m. Calculate the power of lens required to correct his vision.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 3

Question 83.
How does the power of a lens change if its focal length is doubled?
Answer:
The power get halved.

Question 84.
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2m. Which among these lens is useful to correct the defect
a) – 0.2D
b) – 0.5 D
c) + 0.2D
d) +0.5D?
Answer:
The person is suffering from Myopia.
The lens is concave and its focal length f = – 2m.
\(P=\frac{1}{5}=\frac{1}{-2}=-0.5 D\)
So to correct the defect concave lens of – 0.5 D power should be used (b).

Question 85.
Express the power of concave lens of focal length 20 cm with its sign.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 4

10th Class Physics 7th Lesson Human Eye and Colourful World 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you appreciate the working of iris in the eye? (AP June 2018)
Answer:
Iris helps in controlling the amount of light entering the eye through pupil.

Question 2.
What is the reason for the blue colour of the sky? (AP March 2018)
How do you appreciate the role of molecules in the atmosphere in this regard?
Answer:
Blue colour of sky :

  1. Atmosphere contains more O2 and N2 molacules and they are caused to blue colour of the sky.
  2. The size of molecules of O2 and N2 are comparable with the blue colour and scatter blue colour only.

Role of molecules in the atomosphere in scattering :

  1. Light of certain frequency falls on that atom or molecule.
  2. This molecule responds to the light whenever the size of the molecule is comparable to the wavelength of light and vibrates.
  3. Due to these vibration, molecule reemits a certain fraction of absorbed energy in all directions. The emitted light is called scattered light.
  4. The atoms or molecules are called scattering centres.
  5. I appreciate the role of the molecules in scattering.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 3.
In which conditions does a rainbow form? Why? (TS June 2015)
Answer:
1) Rainbow forms and appears when,
i) tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere (after rain shower),
ii) sunlight falls on the droplets,
iii) observer watches the rainbow in a specific direction.
2) Rainbow forms due to dispersion of sunlight by tiny droplets, present in the atmosphere, which acts as small prisms.

Question 4.
Draw the ray diagram, showing the correction of defect of vision hyper metropia by using a convex lens. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 5

Question 5.
Least distance of distinct vision of a person is observed as 35 cm. What lens is useful for him to see his surroundings clearly? Why? (TS March 2016)
Answer:
The least distance of distinct vision is 35 cm. This is more than the least distance of distinct vision of an ordinary person. Hence the person is suffering from Hypermetropia. He has to use double convex lens to see his surroundings clearly.

Question 6.
What happens, if Ciliary muscles do not perform contraction and expansion? Guess and write. (TS June 2018)
Answer:

  1. If Ciliary muscles do not perform contraction and expansion, foal length of eye lens do not change.
  2. Human eye can see the objects at specific distance only, eye cannot see the object either nearer or far distance.

Question 7.
Write any two situations to observe dispersion of light in your daily life. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
We can observe the dispersion of light in the following situations in our daily life.

  1. In the formation of rainbow.
  2. When observing sun light through the triangular transparent material like prism, scale edge.
  3. At the time of curing of walls of new houses with water.
  4. Dispersion of light by inclained plane mirror which is in water.

Question 8.
Write the material that you use to find out the value of refractive index of a prism. What is the necessity of the graph in this experiment? (AP March 2019)
Answer:
The material used to find out the value of refractive index of a prism:
Prism, Piece of white chart, Pencil, Pins, Scale and Protractor.

Necessity of the graph :
To find the angle of minimum deviation graph is required.

Question 9.
Draw a ray diagram showing the correction of myopia eye defect. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
Diagram of Myopia correction :
Note : Draw the diagram using Bi Concave Lens and show the far point (M). Image should form on Retina.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 6

Question 10.
What happen if dispersion and scattering of light do not occur? (TS March 2019)
Answer:
If dispersion does not occur in nature, then there is no rainbow formation and splitting of light into seven different colors. If there is no scattering then the oceans and sky appears to be black. The sun appears white all the time (Including Sunrise and Sunset).

Question 11.
When Mohan viewed white light through a transparent scale, he observed some colours. Predict and write the phenomenon involved in his observation. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

  1. The phenomenon involved in his observation is dispersion of light.
  2. Splitting of white light into different colours (VIBGYOR) is called dispersion.

Question 12.
A boy who is suffering from eye defect has been given a prescription as -2D. Based on the information given, answer the following questions.
a) Identify the eye defect he is suffering.
b) Write the nature and focal length of the lens. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
a) The boy is suffering from myopia.
b) Nature of the lens :
The lens is biconcave lens.
It is thin at the middle and thicker at the edges.
Focal length of the lens :
Given that power is – 2D
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 7

Question 13.
How does eye lens change its focal length? (AP SA-I:2019-20)
Answer:

  • Eye lens changes its focal length by the ciliary muscle attached to it.
  • By relaxing ciliary muslces, the focal length of the eye lens is reached its maximum value.
  • By straining ciliary muscles, the focal length of the eye lens is reached its minimum value.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 14.
Kishore wore spectacles. When you saw through his spects the size of his eyes seemed bigger than their original size.
a) Which lens did he use?
b) Explain that defect of vision.
Answer:
a) When we saw through Kishore’s spects the size of his eyes seemed bigger than their original size. This is possible with convex lens only because magnification of the lens is greater than T.

b) The defect he suffers is hypermetropia. This is also called farsightedness.

A person who suffers with this type of defect, he can’t see the objects clearly which are placed near distance because the image is formed beyond the retina. So by using convex lens the rays can be converged on retina.

Question 15.
“God has given the gift for us to see the sunrise and sunset.” Explain the feeling of it.
Answer:

  • The sun is visible two minutes before the actual sunrise and remains visible two minutes after the actual sunset.
  • The actual sunrise takes place when the sun is just above the horizon.
  • The actual sunset takes place when the sun is just below the horizon.

Question 16.
“Smoke coming out of coal fired chimney appears blue on a misty day.” Why?
Answer:

  • On a misty day, the air has large amount of tiny particles of water droplets, dust and smoke.
  • These tiny particles present in the air scatter blue colour of the white light passing through it.
  • When this scattered blue light reaches our eyes the smoke appears blue.

Question 17.
“Motorists use orange light on a foggy day rather than normal white light.” Why?
Answer:

  • On a foggy day, the air has large amount of water droplets.
  • If a motorist uses white light, the water droplets present in the air scatter large amount of the blue light.
  • This on reaching our eyes decreases visibility and hence driving becomes extremely difficult.
  • Whereas orange light has longer wavelength and hence it is least scattered.

Question 18.
A rainbow viewed from an airplane may form a complete circle. Where will the shadow of the airplane appear? Explain.
Answer:

  • A rainbow viewed from an airplane form a complete circle because the earth does not come along the way of the airplane and rainbow.
  • A rainbow is a three dimensional cone of dispersed light it appear as a complete circle.
  • The shadow of the airplane appears within the circle of the rainbow.

Question 19.
How do we see colours?
Answer:

  • The retina of human eye has a large number of receptors.
  • These receptors are of two types i.e., rods and cones.
  • The rod cells recognise the colour of light rays, while the cones identify the intensity of light.
  • It is these cone cells, which make it possible for a men to see different colours and distinguish between them.

Question 20.
Why do we use lenses in spectacles to correct defects of vision?
Answer:
The process of adjusting focal length is called “accommodation”. This process has to be done by eye itself. Sometimes the eye may gradually lose its power of accommodation. In such condition, the person cannot see the object clearly and comfortably. In this situation, we have to use lenses in spectacles to correct defects of vision.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 21.
What is a) far point of the eye and b) near point of the eye?
Answer:
a) The farthest point up to which the eye can see objects clearly without strain (in the eye) is called the far point of the eye. For a normal eye, the far point is at infinity.

b) The minimum distance at which objects can be seen most clearly without strain (in the eye) is called the least distance of distinct vision or the near point of the eye.

Question22.
Write the difference between “Myopia” and “Hypermetropia”.
(OR)
Distinguish between Myopia and Hypermetopia.
Answer:
The eye defect in which people cannot see at long distances but can see nearby objects clearly is called Myopia. The eye defect in which people cannot see near distant objects but can see distant objects is called hypermetropia.

Question 23.
Define the following words.
a) Prism
b) Dispersion of light
c) Scattering of light
Answer:
a) Prism :
A prism is a transparent medium separated from the surrounding medium by at least two plane surfaces which are inclined at a certain angle.

b) Dispersion of light :
The splitting of white light into different colours is called dispersion of light.

c) Scattering of light:
The process of reemission of absorbed light in all directions with different intensities by atoms or molecules is called scattering of light.

Question 24.
Define the words associated with prism with the help of figure.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 8
1) Angle of incidence :
The angle between incident ray and normal is called angle of incidence.

2) Angle of emergence :
The angle between normal and emergent ray is called angle of emergence.

3) Normal:
Perpendicular drawn to the surface of prism.

4) Angle of deviation:
The angle between extended incident ray and emergent ray is called angle of deviation.

Question 25.
State the cause of dispersion, when white light enters a glass prism. Explain with a diagram.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 9

  • Light is made up of different colours. Each colour travels at its own speed inside a prism.
  • Due to this different colours of light bends through different angles with respect to the incident ray, as it passes through a prism.
  • The red light bends the least while the violet most.
  • Thus, the rays of each colour emerge along different paths and become distinct.
  • It is the bond of distinct colours that we see in a spectrum.

Question 26.
What happens to the lens and the ciliary muscles when you are looking at distant objects and near objects?
Answer:
a) The ciliary muscles become relaxed and the lens becomes thin, i.e. its radius of curvature increases. So focal length of eye lens increases for distant object.

b) The ciliary muscles contract and the lens becomes thick, i.e. its radius of curvature decreases. So focal length of eye lens decreases for near objects.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 27.
Why does it take some time to see objects in cinema hall when we just enter the hall from bright sunlight? Explain in brief.
Answer:

  • The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering eye.
  • In bright sunlight, the size of pupil is small and when we enter the cinema hall it takes some time for the pupil to expand in size due to dim light.

Question 28.
What are the factors which influence the total angle of deviation?
Answer:

  • The angle of incidence at the first surface (i).
  • The angle of prism (A).
  • Refractive index of the material.

Question 29.
How does eye change its focal length take place in the eyeball?
Answer:

  • Eye lens changes its focal length by the ciliary muscle attached to it.
  • By relaxing ciliary muslces, the focal length of the eye lens is reached its maximum value.
  • By straining ciliary muscles, the focal length of the eye lens is reached its minimum value.

Question 30.
Stars twinkle while planets do not. Why?
Answer:
1) Continuously changing atmosphere refracts light from the stars by different amounts from one moment to the other, when atmosphere refracts more starlight towards us and the stars appear to be bright and when the atmosphere refracts less star-light then the stars appear to be dim.

2) However the planets are nearer to us than the stars, they appear to be comparatively bigger to us so they cannot be considered as a point source, hence no twinkling is seen.

Question 31.
How do earth and stars appear for a person who is on the moon?
Answer:

  • For the person who is on the moon, the earth appears blue due to blue colour of sunlight scattered by the earth’s atmosphere reaching him.
  • Stars and other heavenly bodies are seen as usual, but without twinkling.

Question 32.
Why does the sky appear dark and black to an astronaut instead of blue?
(OR)
Why does the sky appear dark to the passenger flying at high altitudes?
Answer:

  • This is because there is no atmosphere containing air in the outer space to scatter light.
  • Since there is no scattered light which can reach our eyes in outer space, the sky looks dark and black there.
  • This is why the astronauts who go to outer space find the sky to be dark and black instead of blue.

Question 33.
A person is able to see objects clearly only when these are lying at distance between 60 cm and 250 cm from his eye. What kind of defect of vision is he suffering from?
Answer:
For a normal eye, the near point is at 25 cm and the far point is at infinity. The given person cannot see object clearly either close to the eye or far away from the eye. So he is suffering from presbyopia.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 34.
Write the material required in finding the refractive index of a prism.
Answer:
Materials required:
Prism, piece of white chart of size 20 x 20 cm, pencil, pins, scale and protractor.

Question 35.
Draw the graph between angle of incidence and angle of deviation.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 35.
Draw the diagram of scattering of sunlight.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 10

Question 35.
How do you appreciate the “Eye Donor”?
Answer:
The human eye is one of the most important sense organs. Without eye we are unable to see the beautiful world. So we have to appreciate “eye donor” for his kindness to give sight to blind people.

Question 36.
How can we appreciate the working of “Iris”?
Answer:

  • Iris consists of muscles which help in controlling the amount of light entering the eye through pupil.
  • In case of low light the iris makes the pupil to expand and allow more light to enter the eye.
  • In case of bright or excess light the iris makes the pupil to contract in order to decrease the amount of light entering the eye. The iris consists of muscles that expand and contract the pupil.

Question 37.
The power of lens is 2.0 D. Find its focal length and state what kind of lens it is.
Answer:
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\) (f in metres)
Given P = 2D
∴ f= \(\frac{1}{P}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0. 5 m = 50 cm.
The focal length positive indicates it is a convex lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 38.
Two convex lenses of powers 1D and 2D are combined together to form a new lens. Then what is the resultant power and focal length of lens?
Answer:
P1 = 1 D ; P2 = 2D
Resultant power P = P1 + P2 = 1 + 2 = 3D
P = \(\frac{1}{f}\) (f in metres)
∴ f= \(\frac{1}{P}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) = 0.3333 m = 33.33 cm.

Question 40.
Figure shows the refraction of light through an equilateral prism. Incident at an angle of 30°. The ray suffers a deviation of 37°. What are the angles marked at A, e and f respectively?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 11
Since the prism is an equilateral prism,
A = 60°, also D = 37° and i = 30° (i.e., i1), e = i2 = ?
We know that i1 + i2 = A + D
30° + e = 60 + 37
e = 97 – 30 = 67°
Also A + f = 180°
f = 180°-60° = 120°

10th Class Physics 7th Lesson Human Eye and Colourful World 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Kavya can see distant objects clearly but cannot see objects at near distance. With what eye defect is she suffering? Draw the diagrams showing the defected eye and its correction. (AP June 2016)
Answer:
Kavya is suffering from hypermetropia.
The following diagram shows the defective eye and its correction.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 12

Question 2.
Revathi is a front bench student. She is unable to draw the picture drawn on the blackboard. She got permission from the teacher and sat in the back row. What could be the defect that Revathi is suffering from? Draw the diagram, which shows the correction of the above defect? (AP Mareh 2017)
Answer:
Hypermetropia
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 5

Question 3.
An eye specialist suggested a + 2D lens to the person with defect in vision. Which kind of defect in vision does he have? Draw the diagrams to show the defect of vision and its correction with a suitable lens. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
Eye specialist suggested +2D lens, that is convex lens is used to correct Hypermetropia. So the person has Hypermetropia.
Deffect of Vision:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 13

Correction :
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 5

Question 4.
How will you calculate the focal length of a biconvex lens that is used to correct the defect of Hypermetropia? Explain it mathematically. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
The person who has hypermetropia cannot see near objects. He can see the objects those are beyond near point (H). For correction of this eye defect the image of the object placed at “least distance of distinct vision (L)” should be at near point (H).
u = -25 cm; v = -d cm
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 14
here d > 25, so ‘f gets positive value.
Hence, convex lens should be used.

Question 5.
Mention the required material and chemicals for the experiment of “scattering of light.” Write the experiment procedure. (TS March 2018)
(OR)
Write the required apparatus and chemicals to show the scttering of light experimentally and write the experimental process.
(OR)
How can you demonstrate scatteing of light by an experiment?
Answer:
Aim :
To show the scattering of light.

Material required :
Beaker, sodium thiosulphate, sulphuric acid.

Procedure:

  1. Take a solution of sodium-thio-sulphate (hypo) and sulphuric acid in a glass beaker.
  2. Place the beaker in an open place where abundant sun light is available.
  3. Watch the formation of grains of sulphur and observe the changes in the beaker.
  4. We will notice that sulphur participates as the reaction is in progress. At the beginning, the grains of sulphur are smaller in size and as the reaction progress, their size increases due to precipitation.
  5. Sulphur grains appear blue in colour at the beginning and slowly their colour becomes white as their size increases.
  6. The reason for this is scattering of light.
  7. At the beginning, the size of grains is small and almost comparable to the wavelength of blue light. Hence they appear blue in colour.
  8. As the size of grains increases, their size becomes comparable to wavelength of other colours.
  9. As a result, they acts as scattering centres of all colours.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 6.
A boy has been playing games in mobile phone and is suffering from eye defect. The doctor prescribed him to use spectacles of power – 5D. What eye defect is he suffering from? (AP SA-I:2018-19)
Draw a neat diagram which shows the correction of above eye defect.
Answer:
Doctor suggested the boy – 5D lens, that is concave lens. Concave lens is used to correct myopia. So the boy has myopia.
Defect of Vision :
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 2
Correction:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 26

Question 7.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 15
Answer the following questions from the above information. (TS June 2019)
i) What is the defect of vision in ‘D’ suffering from? Why does it happen?
ii) Whose defect of vision can be corrected by using Biconcave lens?
iii) Who is suffering with similar defect of vision as of ‘B’?
iv) Who among the above do not have any defect of vision?
Answer:
i) 1) The vision defect of person ‘D’ is presbyopia.
2) Presbyopia happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens. This effect can be seen in aged people.
ii) Person A’ defect of vision can be corrected by using Biconcave lens.
iii) Person ’C’ is suffering with similar defect of vision as of ’B’.
iv) Person ‘E’ has no defect of vision.

Question 8.
A prism causes dispersion of white light while a rectangular glass block does not. Explain.
Answer:

  • In a prism the refraction of light occurs at two plane surfaces.
  • The dispersion of white light occurs at the first surface of prism where its constituent colours are deviated through different angles.
  • At the second surface, these split colours suffer only refraction and they get further separated.
  • But in a rectangular glass block, the refraction of light takes place at the two parallel surfaces.
  • At the first surface, although the white light splits into its constituent colours on refractions, but they split colours on suffering refraction at the second surface emerge out in the form of a parallel beam, which gives an impression of white light.

Question 9.
A convex lens of power 4D is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a wall. At what distance from the lens should a candle be placed so that its image is formed on the wall?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 16
So candle should be placed 66.66 cm from the lens.

Question 10.
Explain briefly the reason for the blue of the sky.
Answer:

  • Our atmosphere contains different types of molecules and atoms.
  • The reason for blue sky is the molecules N2 and O2.
  • The sizes of these molecules are comparable to the wavelength of blue light.
  • These molecules act as scattering centres for scattering of blue light.

Question 11.
What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye?
Answer:

  • For a normal eye, image distance in the eye is fixed.
  • This is equal to the distance of retina from the eye lens.
  • When we increase the distance of the object from the eye, focal length of eye lens is changed on account of power of accommodation of the eye so as to keep the image distance constant.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 12.
A person is able to see objects clearly only when they are lying at distance between 60 cm and 250 cm from his eye. What kind of lenses will be required to increase his range of vision from 25 cm to infinity? Explain.
Answer:
A bi-focal lens consists of concave and convex lens of suitable focal lengths will be required to correct the defect and to increase his range of vision from 25 cm to infinity. In bi-focal lens, the upper half of the lens is concave lens which corrects distant vision and the lower half is convex which corrects near vision.

Question 13.
Discuss why sun is visible before actual sunrise and after actual sunset?
Answer:

  • The sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise and 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction.
  • By actual sunrise we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the sun.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 17

  • Figure shows the actual and apparent positions of the sun with respect to the horizon.
  • The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes.
  • The apparent flattering of the sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon.

Question 14.
When does the colour of sky appear black for an observer?
Answer:

  • In the absence of atmosphere, there will not be any scattering of light and so light will reach our eye, i.e. the sky will appear black instead of blue at night in the absence of light.
  • On the moon, since there is no atmosphere, there is no scattering of sunlight reaching the moon surface. Hence to an observer on the surface of moon, no light reaches except the light directly from sun. Thus sky will have no colour and will appear black to an observer on the moon surface. This is applicable for any planet which does not have atmosphere.
  • When an astronaut goes above the atmosphere of the earth in rocket he sees the sky black.

Question 15.
Why does the colour of clouds appear black?
Answer:

  • The clouds are nearer the earth surface and they contain dust particles and aggregates of water molecules of size bigger than the wavelength of visible light.
  • Therefore, the dust particles and water molecules present in clouds scatter all colours of incident white light from sun to the same extent and hence when the scattered light does not reach our eye, the clouds seem black.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 16.
Give daily life examples of scattering of light by earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
Some daily life effects of scattering of sunlight by earth’s atmosphere are

  1. Red colour of sun at sunrise and sunset.
  2. White colour of sky at noon.
  3. Blue colour of sky is due to molecules N2 and O2.
  4. Black colour of sky is due to the absence of atmosphere.
  5. Use of red light for the danger signal because it is least scattered by particles due to its greater wavelength.
  6. White colour of clouds is due to rise in temperature.

Question 17.
What is the relation between scattering and wavelength of light? Explain.
Answer:

  • Scattering is the process of absorption and then re-emission of light energy.
  • The air molecules of size smaller than the wavelength of incident light absorb the energy of incident light and then re-emit it without change in its wavelength.
  • The intensity of scattered light is found to be inversely proportional to fourth power of wavelength of light.
  • The wavelength of violet is least and red light is most, therefore from the incident white light, violet light is scattered the most and red light is scattered the least.

Question 18.
How can we get this (in human eye) same image distance for various positions of objects?
Answer:

  • The ciliary muscle attached with eye lens helps to change the focal length of eye lens.
  • When the eye is focussed on a distant object, these are relaxed. So the focal length of eye lens increases to its maximum value.
  • F(max) – 2.5 cm,u = oo, v = 2.5 cm. The parallel rays coming from a distant object are focussed on the retina with 2.5 cm image distance.
  • When the eye is focussed on a nearer object the muscles are strained. So the focal length of the eye lens decreases its minimum value.
  • F(min)= 2.27 cm, u = 25 cm, v = 2.5 cm. The rays from an object (u = 25 cm) at L (point of least distance of distinct vision) are focussed on the retina with 2.5 cm image distance.

Question 19.
Does eye lens form a real image or virtual image? Explain it.
Answer:

  • Eye lens forms a real image.
  • The light that enters the eye forms an image on the retina.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 18

  • The image is obtained on a screen (retina) and it is an inverted image.
  • So, we can say eye lens forms a real image.

Question 20.
How does the image formed on retina help us to perceive the object without change its shape, size and colour?
Answer:

  • The eye-lens forms a real and inverted image of an object on the retina.
  • The retina is a delicate membrane which contains about 125 million receptors called ‘rods’ and ‘cones’ which receive the light signals.
  • Rods identify the colour.
  • Cones identify the intensity of light.
  • These signals are transmitted to the brain through about 1 million optic nerve fibres.
  • The brain interprets these signals and finally processes the information so that we perceive the object in terms of its shape, size and colour.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 21.
How do you prove that a prism does not produce colours itself?
Answer:

  • A white light from a slit ‘S’ is made to pass through prism P which forms spectrum on a white screen AB.
  • A narrow slit H is made on the screen AB, parallel to slit S to allow the light of particular colour to pass through it.
  • The light of a particular colour is made to fall on the second prism Q placed with its base in opposite direction to that of the prism P.
  • The light after passing through the second prism Q is received on another white screen M.
  • It is observed that the colour of light obtained on the screen M is same as that of the light incident on the second prism Q through the slit H.

Question 22.
Draw the structure of human eye and explain its parts.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 20

Question 23.
What is the part indicated by an arrow mark? What is its working function?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 21

  • The part indicated by the arrow mark is ciliary muscle.
  • Ciliary muscles help to change the focal length of the eye lens.
  • When it relaxes the focal length of the eye lens is maximum.
  • When it strains, the focal length of the eye lens is minimum.
  • In this way the ciliary muscles to which eye lens is attached help to give us clear vision.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 22

Question 24.
Two observers standing apart from each other do not see the “same” rainbow. Explain.
Answer:

  • All the rain drops that disburse the light to form rainbow lie within a cone of semi vertical angle 40° to 42°.
  • If two observers are standing at a distance apart, they will observe rainbow at different parts on the surface of the cone.
  • So the portion of the rainbow observed by an observer depends on the position of the observer.
  • Two different observers will form two different cones with the observer standing at the vertex of the cone, therefore rainbow seen by them will be different.

Question 25.
A prism with an angle A = 60° produces an angle of minimum deviation of 30°. Find the refractive index of material of the prism.
Answer:
Given, A = 60° and D = 30°
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 23

Question 26.
A person cannot see the objects distinctly, when placed at a distance less than 50 cm. Calculate the power and nature of the lens he should be using to see clearly the object placed at a distance of 25 cm from his eyes.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 7 Human Eye and Colourful World 24

Question 27.
A person cannot see the objects distinctly, when placed beyond 2 m.
Calculate the power and nature of the lens he should be using to see the distant objects clearly.
Answer:
For myopia the focal length = – far point distance = – 2m
Power = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=\frac{1}{-2}\) = 0.5 D.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions 6th Lesson Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

10th Class Physics 6th Lesson Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suppose you are inside the water in a swimming pool. Your friend is standing on the edge. Do you find your friend taller or shorter than his actual height? Why? (AP June 2018)
Answer:
Friend is seemed to be taller. Because of refraction of light.

Question 2.
What happens to the image, if a convex lens is made up of two different transparent materials as shown in figure? (TS March 2016)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 1
Answer:
The convex lens is made up of two different materials. So the refractive i these two materials will be different. Hence two images will be formed.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 3.
Write the list of materials required for the experiment to find the focal length of a convex lens. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
Convex Lens, Scale, Piece of paper, Sunrays.
(OR)
Convex Lens, V-Stand, Candle, Match box, Screen, Scale.

Question 4.
Complete the following ray diagram. (TS March 2019)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 2
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 3
The parallel rays coming with some angle to principal axis meet on focal plane.

Question 5.
If the object is placed between the focal point and the optical centre of a convex lens, what will be the characteristics of the image formed? (AP SA-1:2019-20)
Answer:
Object is placed between F2 and optic centre P :
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 4
Nature :
Virtual, erect and magnified.

Position :
Same side of the lens where object is placed.

Question 6.
For a concave lens, what type of image will be formed if the object is placed at the centre of curvature? (AP SA-1:2019-20)
Answer:
Same size of object, inverted and real image will be formed.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 7.
Write lens formula. (AP SA-I:2019-20)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)

Question 8.
What is a lens? (or) Define lens.
Answer:
A lens is formed when a transparent material is bounded by two spherical surfaces.

Question 9.
What is a double convex lens?
The lens having two spherical surfaces bulging outwards is called double convex lens.

Question 10.
What about the thickness of double convex lens?
Answer:
It is thick at the middle as compared to edges.

Question 11.
What is a double concave lens?
Answer:
The lens having two spherical surfaces curved inward is called a double concave lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 12.
Write about the thickness of concave lens.
Answer:
It is thin at the middle and thicker at the edges.

Question 13.
What is centre of curvature?
Answer:
The centre of sphere which contains the part of curved surface is called centre of curvature.

Question 14.
What is radius of curvature?
Answer:
The distance between the centre of curvature and curved surface is called radius of curvature.

Question 15.
What is the mid point of lens called?
Answer:
The mid point of lens is called pole (or) optical centre.

Question 16.
What is a focus?
Answer:
The point where rays converge or the point from which rays seem emanate is called focal point (or) focus.

Question 17.
What is the distance between pole and focal point called?
Answer:
Focal length.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 18.
What happens if the ray passes through principal axis?
Answer:
It will be undeviated.

Question 19.
Where do light rays travelling to principal axis converge?
Answer:
They converge at focus.

Question 20.
What happens to light rays passing through focus?
Answer:
The path of the rays is parallel to principal axis after refraction.

Question 21.
What is a focal plane?
Answer:
A plane which is perpendicular to principal axis at the focus is called focal plane.

Question 22.
What is lens formula?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\)

Question 23.
On what factor does focal length of a lens depend?
Answer:
It depends on refractive index of the medium, object distance and image distance.

Question 24.
What is lens maker formula?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=(\mathrm{n}-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)

Question 25.
What happens to be image formed by a convex lens if its lower part is blackened?
Answer:
Every part of a lens forms a complete image. If the lower part of the lens is blackened the complete image will be formed but its intensity will be decreased.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 26.
From which point of lens are all the distances are measured?
Answer:
The optical centre of lens.

Question 27.
Is it possible for a lens to Act as a convergent lens in are medium and a divergent lens in another?
Answer:
Yes. A convergent lens is placed in a higher refractive index of medium the nature of the lens changes i.e., it acts as divergent lens.

Question 28.
What are paraxial rays?
Answer:
The rays which move very close to the principal axis which can be treated as parallel are called paraxial rays.

Question 29.
What is absolute refractive index?
Answer:
It is the ratio of speed of light in air to speed of light in any medium.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 30.
Give mathematic expression for power lens and explain the terms in the formula.
Answer:
Power (P) = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
where f is focal length of lens.

Question 31.
If the size of image is same as object through a convex lens, then where is the object placed?
Answer:
The object is placed at centre of curvature.

Question 32.
How will you identify a concave lens by touching it?
Answer:
A concave lens is thinner at centre and thicker at edges.

Question 33.
How will you identify a convex lens by touching it?
Answer:
A convex lens is thicker at centre and thinner at edges.

Question 34.
Give the sign conventions for lenses with regard to the object and image distance.
Answer:
The distance measured in the direction of incident ray is taken as positive.
The distance measured against the direction of incident ray is taken as negative.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 35.
Give the sign conventions for lenses with regard to the height of objects and images.
Answer:
All the heights of objects and images above principal axis are positive and below the axis are negative.

Question 36.
When light of two colours A and B passes through a plane boundary, A is bent more than B. Which colour travels more slowly in the second medium?
Answer:
Colour A travels slowly.

Question 37.
What type of lens behaviour will an air bubble inside water show?
Answer:
It will act as a concave lens.

Question 38.
Is it possible for a lens to act as a convergent lens in one medium and a divergent lens in another?
Answer:
Yes. A lens is placed in a medium of a high refractive index than that of the lens then nature of lens changes (ML > Mg).

Question 39.
The image formed by a lens is always erect and diminished. What is the nature of lens?
Answer:
Given that the lens is forming an image which is always erect and diminished. So it is virtual also. Such type of image is formed by concave lens.

Question 40.
If a student observed an image of same size with a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, then where should he keep the object in front of lens?
Answer:
Because the student got image of same size the object should be placed at a distance of twice the focal length, i.e. 40 cm.

Question 41.
For an object placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of convex lens, the image formed is at a distance of 20 cm behind the lens. Find the focal length of lens.
Answer:
The object distance and image distance are same. So the object is kept at twice the focal length. So the focal length of the convex lens is 10 cm.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 42.
A doctor suggested spectacles for a student which has negative focal length. Which type of lens is that?
Answer:
Focal length negative indicates that it is a concave lens.

Question 43.
What happens to a light ray which passes through optical centre?
Answer:
The light ray which passes through optical centre does not deviate.

Question 44.
When do you get image at infinity with a convex lens?
Answer:
When the object is at the focal point.

Question 45.
When do you get a virtual image with a convex lens?
Answer:
When the object is placed between focus and pole.

Question 46.
Is focal length of a lens zero? If not, why?
Answer:
No, focal length of lens never equals to zero because it is the distance between focal point and optical centre.

Question 47.
A thin lens has a focal length of 12 cm. Is it a convex leps or a concave lens?
Answer:
It is a convex lens, because f is positive.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 48.
Name the different apparatus where we are using the convex and concave lenses.
Answer:
The magnifying lense, telescope, microscope.

Question 49.
Draw the given diagram in your answer book and complete it for the path of ray of light beyond the lens.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 5
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 6

Question 50.
The diagram below shows two incident rays P and Q which emerge as parallel rays R and S respectively. The appropriate device used in the box is ……..
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 7
Answer:
The rays are diverging and they produced the parallel from the device after refraction. So the device is concave lens.

Question 51.
The following figure shows the incident and refracted rays pass through a lens kept in the box. Draw the lens and complete the path of rays.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 8
Answer:
The incident rays 1 and 2 have converged after refraction. So the lens is convex.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 9

10th Class Physics 6th Lesson Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A convex lens is made of five different materials as shown in the figure. How many images does it form? Why? (AP March 2017)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 10
Answer:
The given convex lens is made up of five different materials.
So they have different refractive indices / different focal lengths.
Hence they form five different images.

Question 2.
The focal length of a converging lens is 20cm. An object is 60cm from the lens. Where will be image be formed and write characteristics of the image. (AP March 2018)
Answer:
Focal length = f = 20 cm (+ 20cm)
Object distance = u = 60 cm (- 60cm)
Image distance = v = ?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 11
Here, (-) indicates inverted images.
m = \(\frac{1}{2}\) < 1 indicates diminished image.
Image forms between F1 and 2F1.
Characteristics of the image :

  1. real
  2. inverted
  3. diminished.

Question 3.
When a light rays enters a medium with refractive index n2 from a medium with refractive index n, at curved interface with radius of curvature R is given by
\(\frac{\mathbf{n}_{2}}{\mathbf{v}}-\frac{\mathbf{n}_{1}}{\mathbf{u}}=\frac{\mathbf{n}_{2}-\mathbf{n}_{1}}{\mathbf{R}}\)
Now assume that the surface is plane and rewrite the formula with suitable changes.
Answer:
Assume that the interface is plane surface
Then R becomes infinity
R = ∞ (or) R = 1/0
Substitute the above value in the given equation
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 12

Question 4.
Two convex lenses of same focal length are fixed in a PVC pipe at a distance double to their focal length. What happens if a boy sees the moon with that arrangement? (TS March 2017)
Answer:

  • The rays coming from moon are parallel. The first lens converges the rays at focus.
  • The converging point is the focus of second lens. So the second lens convert the diverging rays into parallel.
  • Hence, in the rays of moon, there will be no change when we see moon with this arrangement or without this arrangement.

(OR)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 13
This arrangement does not make any difference in the rays coming from moon.
The moon appears same if we see directly or with this arrangement.

Question 5.
Focal length of the lens depends on its surrounding medium. What happens, if we use a liquid as surrounding media of refractive index, equal to the refractive index of lens? (TS June 2018)
Answer:

  • When the refractive index of surrounding media is equal to the refractive index of lens, the lens looses its characteristics.
  • Lens do not diverge or converge the light.
  • Light do not get refracted when it passes through that lens.

Question 6.
Complete the ray diagram given below (TS March 2018)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 14
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 15

Question 7.
The refractive index of convex lens material is 1.46. The refractive index of Benzene and water is 1.5 and 1.0 respectively. How does the lens behaves when it is kept in Benzene and water? Given and write. (TS March 2018)
Answer:

  • When the convex lens with refractive index 1.46 is kept in Benzene with refractive index 1.5, then the lens acts as a diverging lens.
  • If the same lens is kept in water whose refractive index is 1, then it acts as a converging lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 8.
Write the applications of lenses in day to day life. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
Uses of lenses in day to day life :

  • Lenses are used for correcting eye defects.
  • They are used as magnifying lenses.
  • They are used in microscopes, telescopes, binoculars.
  • They are used in cinema projectors and cameras.

Question 9.
Water lens is made of double convex lens of radius of curvature “R”. Write lens makers formula for water lens. (AP SA-I: 2019-20)
Answer:
1) Radius of curvatures of water lens are R1 = R2 = R and n = 1.5.
2) Sign conversion R1 = + R1, R2 = -R2.
3) Lens makers formula
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 16

Question 10.
Find the focal length of plane convex dens if its radius of curvature is R and its refractive index is n.
Answer:
Given lens is plano-convex lens; radius of curvature = R
Refractive index = n
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 17

Question 11.
In a classroom, four friends found out the focal length of a lens by conducting an experiment. The value came out to be 12.1cm, 12.2cm, 12.05 cm, 12.3 cm. The friends discussed the reasons for the differences or defects. Mention those reasons.
Answer:
Students got different focal lengths.

  1. By observing the values they got all positive values. This indicates they are given by convex lens.
  2. All the students got exact interger but different decimal value.

Reasons :
The difference in values is due to least count errors, parallax errors, random errors and systematic errors, etc.

Question 12.
How will you decide whether a given piece of glass is a convex lens, concave lens or a plane plate?
Answer:
Hold the given piece of glass over some printed matter.

  1. If the letters appear magnified, then the given piece of glass is convex lens.
  2. If the letters appear diminished, then the given piece of glass is concave lens.
  3. If the letters appear to be same size, then it is a plane glass piece.

Question 13.
State the type of lens used as a magnifying glass. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show that the image of the object is magnified.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 18
A single convex lens is used as a magnifying glass, i.e. for seeing small object magnified. When the object to be seen in between the focus and optical centre of the lens, a vertical, erect magnified image of the object is formed as shown and convex lens is and to act as magnifying glass AB’ is the magnified image of AB.

Question 14.
Give conventions used in lenses.
(OR)
Write the signs of convex and concave lens using in drawing ray diagrams.
Answer:

  • All distances are measured from optical centre of the lens.
  • Distances measured along the direction of the incident light are taken as positive.
  • The distances against the incident light are taken as negative.
  • The heights measured vertically above the axis, are taken as positive.
  • The heights measured vertically down the axis, are taken as negative.

Question 15.
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is this a correct statement? If yes, where shall the object be placed in each case for obtaining these images?
Answer:
Yes, the statement is correct.
For magnified virtual image :
The object should be placed between optic centre (C) and focus (F) (< 20)

For magnified real image:
Placed between focus (F) and centre of curvature (2F) (20 – 40)

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 16.
Sudha finds out that the sharp image of the window pane of her science laboratory is formed at a distance of 15 cm from the lens. She now tries to focus the building visible to her outside the window instead of the window pane without disturbing the lens. In which direction will she move the screen to obtain a sharp image of the building ? What is the approximate focal length of this lens?
Answer:
As the image is real, therefore the lens use is convex lens. The distance of the real image formed by a convex lens from the lens decreases as the object distance from the lens increases. Hence, the screen has to be moved towards the lens to obtain the sharp image of the building. Approximate focal length of the lens =15 cm as the rays of light coming the window pane are considered to come from infinity. These rays of light are focussed by the convex lens at its focus, (i.e. on the screen).

Question 17.
What do you see when your friend brings a sheet of paper on which arrow was drawn behind the empty cylindrical shaped transparent vessel? Why do you see a diminished image?
Answer:
We will see a diminished image of the arrow.

When the vessel is empty, light from the arrow refracts at the curved interface, moves through the glass and enters air, then it again undergoes refraction curved surface of the vessel and comes out into the air. In this way, light travels in two media, comes out of the vessel and forms a diminished image.

Question 18.
Using the formula of refraction at curved surfaces, write the formula for plane surfaces.
Answer:
For curved surfaces the formula for refraction is \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{\mathrm{n}_{1}}{\mathrm{u}}=\frac{\left(\mathrm{n}_{2}-\mathrm{n}_{1}\right)}{\mathrm{R}}\)

For plane surface, the radius of curvature (R) approaches infinity. Hence 1/R becomes zero.
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{\mathrm{n}_{1}}{\mathrm{u}}=0 \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{v}}=\frac{\mathrm{n}_{1}}{\mathrm{u}}\)

Question 19.
Explain how a convex lens behaves on converging lens and diverging lens.
Answer:
The convex lens behaves as a converging lens, if it is kept in a medium with refractive index less than the refractive index of the lens. It behaves like a diverging lens when it is kept in transparent medium with greater refractive index than that of lens.
e.g. : Air bubble in water behaves like a diverging lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 20.
When does Snell’s law fail?
Answer:

  • Snell’s law fails when light is incident normally on the surface of refracting medium.
  • Both media have same refractive index.

Question 21.
If on applying sign convention for lens the image distance obtained is negative, state the significance of negative sign.
Answer:

  • Negative sign of image distance means the image is virtual and erect.
  • It is formed on the same side of the object with respect to lens.

Question 22.
Magnification of lens is found to be +2. What type of lens is that?
Answer:
Magnification +ve indicates the image is erect and virtual.
Magnification 2 indicates it is magnified.
Magnified virtual image is formed by only convex lens.

Question 23.
For same angle of incidence in media A, B and C the angle of refractions are 30°, 25° and 20° respectively. In which medium will the velocity of light be minimum?
Answer:
In medium R the velocity of light is minimum because it has greater refractive index. Refractive index and velocity of light in a medium are inversely proportional. So in medium R the velocity is minimum.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 24.
The radius of curvature (twice the focal length) of a convex lens is 40 cm. A student wants to get various images of following types (a) enlarged virtual image, (b) enlarged real image, (c) image of same size, (d) diminished image.
In order to get these images where should the object should be kept in front of convex lens?
Answer:
a) The object should be kept in less than 20 cm (i.e. less than focal length).
b) In order to get enlarged real image, object should be kept between 20 cm to 40 cm in front of lens.
c) In order to get image of same size object should be kept at a distance of 40 cm from the lens.
d) In order to get diminished image the object should be kept beyond 40 cm from the lens.

Question 25.
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is this a correct statement? If yes, where shall the object be placed in each case for obtaining these images.
Answer:

  • Yes, the statement is correct.
  • A convex lens of focal length 20 cm will produce a magnified virtual image if object is placed at a distance less than 20 cm from the lens.
  • A convex lens of focal length 20 cm will produce magnified real image if the object is placed at a distance more than 20 cm and less than 40 cm.

Question 26.
A concave mirror and a convex lensare held in water. What changes, if any, do you expect in their focal length?
Answer:
The focal length of a concave mirror independent of the medium and A convex lens depends on medium when they are placed in water.
The focal length of the mirror – Does not change.
The focal length of the convex lens – Changes (means increases 4 times).

Question 27.
When does a convex lens behave like a diverging lens? Given example.
Answer:
A Convex lens behaves like a diverging lens when it is kept in a tranparent medium with greater refractive index than that of the lens.
Eg : An air bubble in water behaves like a diverging lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 28.
A pond appears to be shallower than it really is when viewed obliquely. Why?
Answer:

  • Suppose two rays are originated from the bottom of the pond.
  • As these rays get refracted into air, they bend away from the normal.
  • When these two refracted rays produced backwards they seem to meet at a point higher than the bottom of the pond.
  • This point gives the apparent position of the bottom of the pond.
  • Thus the pond appears to be shallower.

Question 29.
What happens to the image formed by a convex lens if its lower part is blackened?
Answer:

  1. Every part of lens forms complete image.
  2. If lower part of the lens is blackened, the complete image will be formed.
  3. But its intensity will decrease.

Question 30.
Is it possible for a lens to act as a convergent lens in one medium and a divergent lens in another?
Answer:

  • Yes, the type of lens changes, if it is placed in medium having higher refractive index that of lens.
  • For example, convex lens acts as converging lens when it is placed in a medium of lower refractive index otherwise it behaves like a diverging lens.

Question 31.
Draw the different types of convex and concave lens.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 19

Question 32.
Complete the ray diagram and give reason.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 20
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 21
The light ray which passes through optical centre does not undergo refraction. So it goes straight.

Question 33.
How do you appreciate the refraction at plane surfaces and at curved surfaces?
Answer:
The refraction of curved surfaces are used in various aspects such as

  1. In microscope to enlarge microscopic objects.
  2. In telescopes to see celestial objects.
  3. To correct eye defects like myopia, hypermetropia and presbyopia.

So refraction at curved surfaces is thoroughly appreciated.

Question 34.
An object is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. Find the nature and position of the image.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 22
Image distance is negative that indicates it is a virtual and erect image.

Question 35.
A bird is flying at the height 3m above the river surface while a fish is 4 m below the surface. At what depth would the fish appear to the bird ? At what height the bird would appear to the fish? (given a/w = 4/3)
Answer:
Given that refractive index of air / water = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
The height the bird would appear to fish = 4 + \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3 = 4 + 4 = 8m

10th Class Physics 6th Lesson Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the ray diagram when an object is placed between F2 and 2F2. (AP June 2017)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 23
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 24

Question 2.
An object is placed at the following distances from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
(a) 8 cm.
(b) 15 cm.
(c) 20 cm.
(d) 25 cm.
Which position of the object will produce……. (TS March 2015)
(i) a diminished, real and inverted image?
(ii) a magnified, real and inverted image?
(iii) a magnified, virtual and erect image?
(iv) an image of same size as the object?
Justify your answer in each case.
Answer:
i) d (or) 25 cm
Reason : Object placed between centre of curvature and focal point.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 25

ii) b (or) 15 cm
Reason : Object placed beyond centre of curvature.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 26

iii) a (or) 8cm
Reason : Object placed between focal point and optic centre.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 27

iv) c (or) 20 cm
Reason :Object placed at centre of curvature.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 28

Question 3.
The ray diagrams showing the image formed by a convex lens are given in the following table. From these diagrams complete the table. (TS June 2016)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 29
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 30

Question 4.
Explain the behaviour of light rays in any four situations of their incidence on a convex lens. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
1) A ray passing along the principal axis is undeviated.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 31
2) Any ray passing through optic centre is also undeviated.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 32
3) The rays passing parallel to principal axis converge at focus.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 33
4) The rays passing through the focus will take a path parallel to principal axis.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 34

Question 5.
Draw the ray diagrams to find the images when an object is placed in front of the lens (i) at a distance of 8 cm, and (ii) at a distance of 10 cm on the principal axis of a convex lens whose focal length is 4 cm. Write the characteristics of images in both the cases. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
(i) Ray diagram :
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 35
Characteristics of Image :
i) Size of the image equal to the size of the object,
ii) Inverted image,
iii) Real image,
iv) Image formed at C.

(ii) Ray diagram
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 36
Characteristics of Image :
i) Image size is less than that of object size,
ii) Inverted image,
iii) Real image,
iv) Image is formed between F & C.

Question 6.
A double concave lens with the refractive index (n) = 1.5 is kept in the air. Its two spherical surfaces have radii R1 = 20 cm and R2 = 60 cm. Find the focal length of the lens. Write the characteristics of the lens. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 37
Hence f = – 30 cm (Here minus indicates that the lense is divergent)
Characteristics of the biconcave lens :

  1. It is a diverging lens.
  2. It is thin at the middle and thicker at the edges.

Question 7.
Draw ray diagrams for a double concave lens of focal length 4 cm, when objects are placed at 3 cm and 5 cm on principal axis. Write characteristics of images. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
i)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 38
ii)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 39
Characteristics of images :

  1. Image formed between P and F
  2. Diminished image
  3. Errected image
  4. Virtual image

Question 8.
Write the characteristics of the images which are formed when objects are placed at 50cm and 75cm on the principle axis of a convex lens with focal length of 25 cm. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
i) Object is placed at 50cm.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 40

Characteristics of the image :

  1. Image forms at 2Fp
  2. Image is real,
  3. Image is inverted,
  4. Image is same size

ii) Object is placed at 75cm
f = +25cm; u = -75cm; v = ?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 41

Characteristics of the image :

  1. Image forms between F1 and 2F1
  2. Image is real
  3. Image is inverted
  4. Image is diminished.

Question 9.
Write the role of lenses in our daily life. (AP March 2019)
Answer:
The role of lenses in our daily life :

  1. Used for correcting eye defects.
  2. Used as magnifying lens.
  3. Used in Microscopes.
  4. Used in Telescopes.
  5. Used in Binoculars.
  6. Used in Cinema Projectors.
  7. Used in Cameras.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces

Question 10.
Draw the ray diagrams for the following positions of objects in front of a convex lens mention the characteristics of the image. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
a) Object is placed beyond 2F2.
b) Object is placed between focal point and opint center.
Answer:
a)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 42
b)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 43
a) Characteristics of the Image :

  1. real
  2. inverted
  3. diminished.

b) Characteristics of the Image :
If we place an object between focus and optic centre, we will get an image which is virtual, erect and magnified.

Question 11.
The focal length of a convex lens is 2 cm. Draw the ray diagram of an object placed on principal axis at the ‘C’ of lens and at a distance of 3 cm from its optic centre.
Answer:
1) Object is placed on principal axis of a convex lens at ‘C’.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 44
2) Object is placedon principal axis at a distance of 3 cm from its optic center.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 45

Question 12.
Using biconvex lens, a point image is made on its principal axis S. Let us assume that we know optical centre P and its focus F. We also know PF > PS. Draw the ray diagram to identify the point source and give reasons.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 46
Given lens is biconvex lens and given condition is PF > PS’ means image is formed between optic centre (P) and Focus (F).

According to Snell’s law this condition is possible when the object is also placed between P and F. Because reflected rays are divergent.

Question 13.
Write about the behaviour of light rays when they incident on a lens.
Answer:
1) Situation I:
Ray passing through the principal axis.
⇒ It is not deviated.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 47

2) Situation II:
Ray passing through the pole.
⇒ It is also undeviated.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 48

3) Situation III:
Rays travelling parallel to the principal axis.
⇒ They converge at focus or diverge from the focus.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 49

4) Situation IV :
Ray passing through focus.
⇒ It will take a path parallel to principal axis after refraction.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 50

5) Situation V :
Parallel rays fall on a lens making some angle with principal axis.
⇒ They converge at a point or diverge from a point lying on a focal plane.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 51

Question 14.
Write characteristics of image formed due to convex lens at various distances.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 52

Question 15.
Write characteristics of image formed by a concave lens at various distances.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 53

Question 16.
You are given a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Where would you place an object to get a real inverted and highly enlarged image of the object? Draw a ray diagram.
Answer:
If an object is placed at the focus of the lens it forms real, inverted and highly enlarged image. Thus, the distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is equal to the focal length of the lens =10 cm.
The ray diagram is as shown
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 54

Question 17.
Derive the formula of image formation in refraction at curved surfaces.
Answer:
1) Object at infinity :
The rays coming from the object at infinity are parallel to principal axis and converge to the focal point after refraction. So, a point-sized image is formed at the focal point.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 55

2) Object placed beyond the centre of curvature on the principal axis :
When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature 2F2, a real, inverted and diminished image is formed on the principal axis between F1 and 2F1
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 56

3) Object placed at the centre of curvature :
When an object is placed at the centre of curvature (2F2) on the principal axis, a real, inverted image is formed at 2F1 which is same size as that of the object.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 57

4) Object placed between the centre of curvature and focal point:
When an object is placed between centre of curvature (2F2) and focus (F2), we will get an image which is real, inverted and magnified. This image will form beyond 2F1.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 58

5) Object located at focal point:
When an object is placed at focus (F2), the image will be at infinity.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 59

6) Object placed between focal point and optic centre :
If we place an object between focus and optic centre, we will get an image which in virtual, erect and magnified.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 60

Question 18.
Distinguish between convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Convex lensConcave lens
1. Objects appear to be big in the lens.1. Objects appear to be shrink in the lens.
2. It generally forms real image, (except object is placed between optical centre and focal point)2. It always forms virtual image.
3. Light rays tend to converge after refraction from lens.3. Light rays tend to diverge from lens after refraction.
4. The image due to lens may be enlarged or same size or diminished.4. The image is always diminished.
5. The image due to lens may be inverted or erect.5. The image is always erect.
6. It is used to correct hypermetropia.6. It is used to correct myopia.

Question 19.
The ray diagram given below illustrates the experimental set up for the determination of the focal length of a converging lens using a plane mirror.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 61
1) State the magnification of the image formed.
2) Write the characteristics of the ipiage formed.
3) What is the name given to the distance between the object and optical centre of the lens in the following diagram?
Answer:

  1. The magnification of the image formed is unity (or 1).
  2. The image is a) real and b) inverted is at the same position of the object.
  3. The distance between the object and the optical centre of the lens is called object distance.

Question 20.
A concave lens made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in medium of refractive index n2. A parallel beam of light incident on the lens. Complete the path of rays of light emerging from the concave lens if
i) n1 > n2
ii) n1 = n2
iii) n1 < n2.
Answer:
i) When n1 > n2, light goes from rarer to denser medium. Therefore, in passing through a concave lens it diverges.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 62
ii) When n1 = n2, there is no change in medium. Therefore no bending or refraction occurs.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 63
iii) When n1 < n2, light goes from a denser to rarer medium. Therefore, in passing through a concave lens it converges.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 64

Question 21.
One half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.
Answer:

  • Every part of a lens forms an image.
  • For formation of image we require only two light rays to converge.
  • Therefore, if the lower half of the lens is covered, it will still form a complete image.
  • However the intensity of the image will be reduced.
  • This can be verified experimentally by observing the image of distant object like tree on a screen, when lower half of the lens covered with a black paper.

Question 22.
Complete the following table if the object is placed at various positions in front of a convex lens.

Position of objectPosition of imageNature of image
1. At infinity
2.Between F1 and 2F1
3.Same size, real and inverted
4.Seen in the lens

Answer:

Position of objectPosition of imageNature of image
1. At infinityOn Fj (focal point)Highly diminished, real and inverted
2. Beyond 2F2Between F1 and 2F1Diminished, real and inverted
3. On 2F1On 2F2Same size, real and inverted
4. Between focus and optical centreSeen in the lensEnlarged, virtual and erect

Question 23.
A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen by placing the flame at various distances from a convex lens. He noted his observations.

Distance of flame from the lens (cm)Distance of the screen from the lens (cm)
1. 6020
2. 4024
3. 3030
4. 2440
5. 1570

a) From the above table, find the focal length of lens without using lens formula.
b) Which set of observations is incorrect and why?
c) In which case the size of the object and image will be same? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
a) From the observations, it is clear that for u = 30, v = 30 cm. This means this value must be equal to twice the focal length of the convex lens.
∴ Focal length of convex lens = 30/2 = 15 cm

b) The observation (5) is not correct because if u = 15 cm i.e., the object is kept at focus so the image should be at infinity and not at 70 cm.

c) For twice the focal length we know size of object = size of image. So when object is kept at 30 cm the size of object and image are same.

Question 24.
Draw the ray diagrams when incident ray striking a convex surface or a concave surface moving from one medium to another medium.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 65

Question 25.
Draw ray diagrams of image formed by a convex lens at various distances.
Answer:
1) Object at infinity.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 67
2) Object placed beyond the centre of curvature (2F2).
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 68
3) Object placed at the centre of curvature.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 69
4) Object placed between 2F2 and F2.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 70
5) Object at the focal point.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 71
6) Object placed between F and P
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 72

Question 26.
Write about the focal length of the lens with diagram.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 73

  • A parallel beam of light incident on a lens converges to a point as shown in figure (a) or seems to emanate from a point on the principal axis as shown in figure (b).
  • The point of convergence (or) the point from which rays seem to emanate is called focal point or focus (F).
  • Every lens has two focal points.
  • The distance between the focal point and optic centre is called the focal length of lens denoted by ‘f’
  • To draw ray diagram for lenses, we need two more points in addition to focal points F1 and F2.
  • These points are equidistant from centre of the lens and also equal to double the focal length. So we call them 2F1 and 2F2.
  • For drawing ray diagrams related to lenses, we represent convex lens with a symbol £ and concave lens with J as shown in the figure c and d.

Question 27.
The diagram shows an object OA and its image IB formed by a lens. The image is same size as the object.
a) Complete the ray diagram and locate the focus of lens by labelling it as F.
b) State whether the lens is convex or concave.
Show it in the diagram.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 74
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 75
a)

  1. Optical centre goes undeviated, therefore to find the optical centre, join A to B to meet the line 01 at the point P which gives the position of optical centre of the lens.
  2. Draw a line CP through P perpendicular to the line 01 to represent lens.
  3. Draw another ray AC from the point A parallel to the principal axis 01 to meet the lens line CP at a point C.
  4. This ray AC will reach the image point B while passing through the focus, therefore join C to B to meet line 01 at a point F which is the focus of the lens. The completed ray diagram is shown above.

b) Since the image is real and inverted, the lens is convex.

c) Since the size of object and image of equal, the object must be at a distance of twice the focal length, i.e., at 2F2.

Question 28.
The diagram shows an object AB placed on the principal axis of the lens L. The two foci of lens are F1 and F2. The image formed by the lens is erect, virtual, and diminished.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 76
i) Draw the outline of the lens L used and name it.
ii) Draw a ray of light starting from B and passing through ‘O’. Show the same ray after refraction by the lens.
iii) Draw another ray from B which is incident and parallel to the principal axis. Show how it emerges after refraction from the lens.
iv) Locate the final image formed.
Answer:
i) Since the image formed by the lens is erect, virtual, and diminished, the lens is concave.
ii) The light ray BO incident at the optical centre ‘O’ of the lens, passes undeviated as OC after refraction by the lens.
iii) The light ray BP is incident and parallel to the principal axis. It emerges as PQ after refraction which appears to diverge from the second focus F2 of the lens.
iv) The refracted rays OC and PQ do not actually meet, but they appear to diverge from a point B’ (i.e. they meet at a point B’ when they are produced backwards).
v) Thus, B’ is the complete image A’B’ is obtained by drawing perpendicular from B’ on the line F2OF1. The image is formed between the optical centre O and focus F2 of the lens.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 77

Question 29.
Figure below shows the refracted ray BC through a concave lens and its foci marked as F1 and F2. Complete the diagram by drawing the corresponding incident ray and also give reason.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 78
Answer:

  1. Figure shows the refracted ray parallel to the principal axis. Therefore, the incident ray must be travelling towards the focus F2.
  2. Thus, to find incident ray, F2 is joined to the starting point B of the refracted ray and produced backward as BA.
  3. Then AB is the required incident ray.
  4. The completed diagram is shown below.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 79

Question 30.
State the type of lens used as a simple magnifying glass. Draw a labelled diagram to show that the image of the object is magnified.
Answer:

  • A single convex lens is used as a magnifying glass, i.e. for seeing small object magnified.
  • When the object to be seen between the focus and optical centre of the lens, a virtual, erect and enlarged image is formed.
  • So a convex lens acts as magnifying glass for object AB as shown in the figure.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 80

Question 31.
Radii of biconvex lens are equal. Let us keep an object at one of the centres of curvature. Refractive index of lens is ‘n’. Assume lens is in the air. Let us take R as the radius of the curvature.
a) How much is the focal length of the lens?
b) What is the image distance ?
c) Discuss the nature of the image.
Answer:
Radii of curvatures (R) of biconvex lens are equal, so R1 = R2 = R
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 81
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 82
c) The nature of the image is inverted and v < u.

Question 32.
Refractive index of a lens is 1.5. When an object is placed at 30 cm, image is formed at 20 cm. Find its focal length. Which lens is it? If the radii of curvature are equal, then what is its value?
Answer:
Object distance = u = – 30 cm (Infornt of the lens)
Image distance = v = 20 cm
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 83

Question 33.
A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a wall. How far from the lens should an object be placed so as to form its real image on the wall?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 84
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 85

Question 34.
A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. If image distance is thrice the focal length, find object distance, image distance and nature of image.
Answer:
Given that
Focal length of lens = + 20 cm
Object distance = -u
Image distance (v) = + 3u
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 6 Refraction of Light at Curved Surfaces 86
So the object is between F2 and 2F2. So the image beyond 2F1 it is real, inverted, and magnified.

Question 35.
What are the various applications of lens?
Answer:

  • The objective lens of a telescope, camera, slide projector, etc. is a convex lens which forms real and inverted image of object.
  • Our eye lens is also a convex lens. The eye lens forms the inverted image of the object on the retina.
  • The eye defects are corrected by lenses.
  • A magnifying glass is nothing but a convex lens of short focal length fitted in a steel (or plastic) flame provided with a handle.
  • In spectroscope, convex lenses are used for obtaining a pure spectrum.
  • A concave lens is used as eye lens in a Galilean telescope to obtain an erect final image of the object.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions 4th Acids, Bases and Salts

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Take some water in a test tube and add concentrated H2SO4 to it. Shake the test tube well. If you touch the bottom of the test tube, you feel it as hot. Now, instead of H2SO4, if you add NaOH pellets to water in another test tube and touch the bottom, what do you observe? (TS June 2015)
Answer:
The bottom of test tube is also hot because reactions of acids, bases with water are exothermic reactions.

Question 2.
What happens if the copper sulphate crystals taken into dry test tube are heated? (TS June 2016)
Answer:

  • When copper sulphate crystals are heated, water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.
  • Evaporated water appears as droplets on the walls of the test tube.
  • Blue coloured copper sulphate (CuSO4 5H2O) is turned into white colour because 5H20 molecules are evaporated from crystals.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.
Why does the soil of agricultural lands get tested for pH?
Answer:
Plants require a specific pH range for their healthy growth. So, finding pH of a soil suggested the farmers to treat the fields with acidic or basic substances to maintain the required pH range.

Question 4.
Write the molecular formulae of common salt and baking soda which are widely used at home. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
Common Salt: NaCl; Backing soda : NaHCO3

Question 5.
Mention the precautions to take while conducting an experiment to prove acids produce ions only in aqueous solutions. (TS June 2018)
Answer:

  • Testing of the evolved gas by using dry litmus paper first. Then with wet litmus paper.
  • Use gaurd tube containing calcium chloride.

Question 6.
What are antacids?
Antacids are mild alkalies. These are used for getting relief from acidity and indigestion and sometimes even headache. When taken orally, it reacts with hydrochloric acid present in the stomach and reduces its strength by consuming some of it.
Ex: Milk of magnesia.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not. Why?
Answer:
Tap water contains some impurities in the form of salts. Due to presence of salts, it conducts electricity. Distilled water is free from all kinds of salts and hence does not conduct electricity.

Question 8.
What do you mean by dilution of an acid or base? Why is it done?
Answer:
Dilution of an acid or base means mixing an acid or base with water. This is done to decrease the concentration of ions per unit volume. In this way the acid or the base is said to be diluted.

Question 9.
What is a universal indicator?
Answer:
An indicator which passes through a series of colour changes over a wide range of H3O+ ions concentration is called universal indicator.

Question 10
What is tooth decay?
Answer:
Tooth enamel is chemically calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2. It starts corroding when pH falls below 5.5. Food particles left in the mouth degrade to produce acid which lower the pH of the mouth. This is called tooth decay.

Question 11.
Define Alkalis and give some examples.
Answer:
Alkalis : An alkali is a base that dissolves in water.

Examples :
i) Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH),
ii) Potassium Hydroxide (KOH),
iii) Magnesium Hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)

Question 12.
Why should we not taste or touch alkalis?
Answer:
We should not taste or touch alkali. Because they are corrosive.

Question 13.
Salts conduct electricity. Why?
Answer:
Salts contains ions. So they conduct electricity.

Question 14.
Why are calcium sulphate hemihydrates called Plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Calcium sulphate hemihydrates are used as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right position. So, it is called Plaster of Paris.

Question 15.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
An aqueous solution of acid liberates H+ ions. This makes the aqueous solution of acid to conduct electricity.

Question 16.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
When a solution of an acid is diluted, concentration of H3O+ ions decreases.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 17.
What is pH?
A. pH is a scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. It is the negative logarithm of H+ concentration.
pH = – log [H+].

Question 18.
How is pH of a solution related to the [H3O+] of that solution?
Answer:
The presence of H3O+ ions indicate us whether it is a strong acid or weak acid.

Question 19.
There are two solutions of pH values 6 and 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:

  • The solution whose pH value 6 is acid and has more hydrogen ion concentration.
  • The solution of pH value 8 is basic and has less hydrogen ion concentration.

Question 20.
Can you give example for use of olfactory indicators in daily life?
Answer:
Examples of olfactory indicators : Onion, vanilla extract.

Question 21.
How do acids neutralize bases?
(OR)
How do acids and bases react with each other?
Answer:
According to Arrhenius theory acids produce H+ ions and bases produce OH ions in aqueous media.
The combination of H+ and OH ions is called ‘neutralization’.
Thus acids neutralize bases.

Question 22.
How strong are acids and base solutions?
Answer:
The acids of pH value as much less as possible have more concentration [pH < 7], Basic nature increases as pH value increases.

Question 23.
What do you say about salts of both weak acid and weak base?
Answer:
The pH of aqueous solutions of salt obtained from both weak acid and weak base is nearly 7.

Question 24.
Which base is used for removing permanent hardness of water?
Answer:
Sodium carbonate is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Question 25.
Name two antacids used to get rid of our indigestion problem.
Answer:
Magnesium hydroxide and a mild base (baking soda).

Question 26.
Under what soil conditions would a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quicklime (calcium hydroxide) or calcium carbonate?
Answer:
When the field has acidic nature, the farmer uses quicklime or calcium carbonate to neutralize it.

Question 27.
Write the formulas of Gypsum and Plaster of Paris.
Answer:
The formulae of Gypsum is CaSO4 . 2H2O and Plaster of Paris is CaSO4 . ½H2O.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 28.
Write any two Acid Base indicators.
Answer:

  1. Methyl orange
  2. Phenolphthalein.

Question 29.
Which salt is used in the manufacture of borax?
Answer:
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O)

Question 30.
What is family of salts? Give examples.
Answer:
Salt having the same positive or negative radical is called family of salts.
Eg : Family of sodium salts : NaCl, Na2SO4
Family of chloride salts : NaCl, KCl.

Question 31.
‘A’ is a substance which is acidic and it is added in solution to preserve pickles. What is A and what is the name given to its dilute solution?
Answer:
‘A’ is acetic acid and its dilute solution is called vinegar.

Question 32.
What are the chemical names of the following?
1) Baking soda
2) Gypsum
Answer:

  • The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3).
  • The chemical name of gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate (CaSO4 • 2 H2O).

Question 33.
Write the water of crystallisation of following compound.
a) Hydrous copper sulphate
b) Washing soda
c) Gypsum
d) Plaster of Paris
Answer:

CompoundFormulaWater of crystallisation
1) Hydrous copper sulphateCuSO4 . 5H2O5
2) Washing sodaNa2CO3 . 10 H2O10
3) GypsumCaSO4 . 2 H2O2
4) Plaster of ParisCaSO4 . ½H2O½

Question 34.
Why don’t we use a strong base like NaOH as antacid?
Answer:
Strong bases like potassium hydroxide (KOH), sodium hydroxide (NaOH) are corrosive in nature. So they can harm the internal organs. Therefore we should not use them as antacid.

Question 35.
What do you mean by HsO+ ion?
Answer:
Hydrogen ions cannot exist as base ions. They associate with water molecules and exist as hydrated ions with each H+ attached by 4 to 6 water molecules. For this we represent H+ as hydronium ion, H3O+.
H+ + H2O → H3O+

Question 36.
Which indicator is useful at all pH? Why?
Answer:
Universal indicator is useful to test solutions of all pH because it gives different colours at different pH range.

Question 37.
Which substance is useful in removing permanent hardness of water?
Answer:
The permanent hardness of water is due to chloride and sulphate salts of magnesium and calcium, which can be removed by adding washing soda.

Question 38.
Given two examples for strongest bases.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide – NaOH
Potassium hydroxide – KOH

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 39.
What is the confirmation test for hydrous and anhydrous salt?
Answer:

  • On heating hydrous salt in a test tube it will form water droplets on the sides of test tube.
  • On heating anhydrous salt in a test tube it will not form water droplets on the sides of test tube.

Question 40.
P.O.P, cement, calcium chloride should be stored in moisture proof containers. Why?
Answer:

  • P.O.P, cement and calcium chloride react with moisture (H2O) in the atmosphere and set into hard solid masses.
  • To avoid availability of moisture they should be stored in moisture proof containers.

Question 41.
Give some examples for hydrous and anhydrous salts.
Eg : For hydrous salts :

  1. CuSO4 . 5H2O
  2. Na2CO3 . 10H2O
  3. CaSO4 . 2H2O

Eg : for anhydrous salts :

  1. NaCl
  2. MgCl2
  3. Na2CO3

Question 42.
How are bitter and sour taste substances tested without testing?
Answer:

  • Sour taste substances turn blue litmus to red.
  • Bitter taste substances turn red litmus to blue. By these tests we can test them as acids and bases.

Question 43.
Do the metallic oxides react with acids?
Answer:
Yes, metallic oxides are basic in nature. They react with acids and form salt and water.

Question 44.
Does non-metallic oxide react with base?
Answer:
Yes, non-metallic oxide is acidic in nature. It reacts with base and forms salt and water.

Question 45.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
(OR)
Prove that dry HCl gas is not an acid but HCl aqueous solution is an acid using an activity.
Answer:

  • Dry hydrogen chloride gas is not an acid. Hence it can’t turn blue litmus into red.
  • Hydrochloric acid is an aqueous solution. Hence it can turn blue litmus into red.

Question 46.
Do you know that the atmosphere of Venus is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid? Do you think life can exist on this planet?
Answer:

  1. No, it is not possible.
  2. When pH value decreases, the survival of living organisms becomes difficult.
  3. Hence there is not any possibility of life on Venus.

Question 47.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
Acids don’t show acidic behaviour in the absence of water as H+ ions are absent in them.

Question 48.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH) affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When a base like NaOH (Sodium hydroxide) is dissolved in water, it liberates (OH) ions.
Equation :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 1
OH ion concentration increases.

Question 49.
How does the nature of the solution change with change in concentration of H+(aq) ions?
Answer:
The concentration of H+ ions is responsible for the acidic nature of a substance.
If [H+] > 1 × 10-7 mol/lit the solution is acidic.
If [H+] < 1.0 × 10-7 mol/lit the solution is basic.

Question 50.
Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Yes. Basic solutions have OH(aq) ions and bases have less number of H3O+ ions. H+(aq) ions are less in base. In basic solution [OH] > [H+].

Question 51.
What do acids have in common?
Answer:
(Acids have sour taste and conduct electricity. They release H2 (Hydrogen) gas on reacting with metals). All acids have H+(aq) ions.

Question 52.
What do bases have in common?
Answer:
Bases are slippery to touch and bitter to taste. All bases have OH(aq) ions.

Question 53.
Why does pure acetic acid not turn blue litmus to red?
Answer:
Pure acetic acid is a weak acid so it does not have sufficient H+(aq) ion to change the colour of blue litmus to red.

Question 54.
What will happen if the pH value in your body increases?
Answer:
It affects our digestion system.

Question 55.
A student checked pH of a salt solution and found that its pH is more than 7. How is that type of salt formed?
Answer:

  • When a strong base reacts with weak acid then the solution is basic in nature. So its pH is more than 7.
  • For example when acetic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide the salt formed has basic nature.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 56.
Explain the procedure that you follow to reduce water from a given salt.
Answer:
Procedure to reduce water from a given salt :

  1. Take a boiling test tube.
  2. Drop given salt in the test tube.
  3. Heat the test tube gently.
  4. Water from salt evaporates.
  5. In this way we can reduce the water from salt.

Question 57.
Write the observations, when the hydrated salt or unhydrated salt is heated.
Answer:

  • When hydrated salt is heated water droplets form inside the walls of test tube and sometimes blue or green colour salt turns into white colour.
  • When unhydrated salt is heated it does not form water droplets inside the test tube walls and colour also does not change.

Question 58.
On heating the hydrated salt it loses water molecules present in it. To show this what are the equipment required?
Answer:
1) On heating the hydrated salt it loses water molecules present in it.
2) To show this the given equipment are required

  1. Boiling tube
  2. Test tube holder
  3. Burner

Question 59.
Try to collect the information to reasons for calling calcium sulphate hemihydrates as Plaster of Paris (POP).
Answer:

  • Gypsum plaster (or) Plaster of Paris (POP) is produced by heating gypsum to about 300°F.
  • A large gypsum deposit is found at Montmartre in Paris (France).
  • This gave the name Plaster of Paris to calcium sulphate hemihydrates.
  • The term plaster can refer to gypsum.

Question 60.
Is the substance present in antacid tablet acidic or basis?
Answer:
The substance present antacid is weakly basic.

Question 61.
Give pH of neutral, acid and base.
Answer:

Nature of substancepH range
Neutral7
Acid0 – 7
Base7 – 14

Question 62.
Which nature of Plaster of Paris makes its importance? Appreciate it.
Answer:
Plaster of Paris is a white powder. It is very soft and can be used to make toys, materials for decoration and to make surfaces smooth.

But on mixing with water, it changes to a hard solid mass (Gypsum). This is the important character of Plaster of Paris (POP).

Question 63.
What is acid rain? How does it affect our aquatic life?
Answer:
When the pH of rain water is less than 5.6 it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of the river water. Since our body works within a narrow pH range close to 7 the survival of aquatic life in river water mixed with rain water becomes difficult.

Question 64.
Why are pickles and sour substances not kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Pickles and sour substances contain acidic nature which may react with brass and copper vessels to produce toxic substances.
So, we don’t keep them in brass arid copper vessels.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 65.
Can you suggest some examples of use of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
Uses of pH in everyday life :

  1. pH value helps us to identify acids, bases and neutrals.
  2. If pH value is less in our mouth, it leads to tooth decay. We can find it as the reason for our tooth decay.
  3. pH value helps us to know about acid rain.

Question 66.
Write any two uses of Bleaching powder.
Answer:

  • It is used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
  • It is used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What value of pH in the mouth leads to tooth decay? Why? (TS June 2015)
Answer:

  • Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
  • Tooth enamel, made of calcium phosphate is the hardest substance in the body.
  • It does not dissolve in water, but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
  • Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth.

Preventions :

  1. Clean the mouth after eating food.
  2. Using tooth pastes, which are generally basic neutralize the excess acid and pre¬vent tooth decay.

Question 2.
Equal lengths of Magnesium ribbons are taken in two test-tubes X and Y. Hydro¬chloric acid is added to test-tube X and Acetic acid is added to test-tube Y. In which test-tube, the reaction will be more vigorous? Why? (TS March 2015)
Answer:
The speed of the reactions is higher in X test tube than Y test tube.

Reason :
Due to strong acidic nature, Hydrochloric acid reacts very fast with magnesium ribbon.

Question 3.
Name the four chemicals that are obtained from common salt and write their molecular formulae. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Chemicals that can be obtained from common salt are

  1. Sodium Hydroxide – NaOH
  2. Baking soda / Cooking soda / Caustic soda / Sodium bicarbonate / Sodium Hydrogen carbonate. – NaHCOv
  3. Washing soda / Sodium carbonate – Na2CO3 10H2O
  4. Bleaching powder / Calcium Oxy Chloride – CaOCl2

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the table and answer the questions given below the table. (TS March 2017)

Substance
(in aqueous solution)
Colour change with Blue LitmusColour change with Red Litmus
ARedNo change
BNo changeBlue
CNo changeNo change

i) Which one of them may be the neutral salt among A, B, C?
ii) What may happen when some drops of phenolphthalein is added to the substance B?
Answer:
i) C
ii) Pink Colour

Question 5.
Why do we use antacids? Write it’s nature. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Pain and irritation will be caused in stomach during the acidity problem/indigestion problem. Antacids used to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach and gives relief from acidity Antacids are basic in nature.

Question 6.
Which product will form when CaO is dissolved in water? How do you find the nature of product? (TS March 2018)
Answer:
CaO reacts with water and gives calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH2)]. The nature of the calcium hydroxide will be tested with red litmus paper or pH paper.

Calcium Hydroxide turns red litmus into blue. Thus we can say that ca(OH)2 is basic in nature.

Ca(OH)2 shows pH value more than 7. Thus we can say that Ca(OH)2 is basic in nature.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 7.
How do you test the nature of the solution formed by dissolving CaO in water? What is the nature of the solution? (TS June 2019)
Answer:

  • The solution formed by dissolving CaO in water is tested with red litmus paper, it turns into blue colour, (or) It is tested with methyl orange, it turns into yellow in colour.
  • The solution of CaO and water is basic in nature.

Question 8.
Write the experimental procedure to test carbon dioxide gas. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

  1. Pass the CO2 gas through lime water [Ca(OH)2].
  2. The lime water appears as milky white.
  3. The reaction is Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 ↓ + H2O.
  4. The milky white is caused by CaCO3.

Question 9.
Write two reactions of acids with carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates. (AP SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Reactions :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 10.
What do acids have in common?
Answer:
Common characteristics of acids :

  1. Similar chemical properties.
  2. Acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.
  3. Hydrogen is common to acids.
  4. Acids are sour in taste and turn blue to red when react with bases form salt and water.

Question 11.
What do bases have in common?
Answer:
Common characteristics of bases :

  1. Bitter in taste.
  2. Soapy in nature.
  3. Turn red to blue colour.
  4. On heating decompose into metal oxides and water.
  5. React with acids to form salt and water.
  6. Produce OH ions in aqueous solution.

Question 12.
How is bleaching powder produced?
Production of bleaching powder :
Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime (Ca(OH)2).
Equation :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Question 13.
What can you conclude about the ideal soil pH for the growth of plants in your region?
Answer:
1) Soil is considered the ‘skin of the earth’. The soil pH plays a vital role in the growth of a plant and it influences plant nutrition.
2) Soil pH strongly affects the nutrients required for the plant growth.
3) The nutrients may be stored on soil colloids, and live or dead organic matter, but may not be accessible to plants due to extremes of pH.

Conclusion :
For optimum plant growth, the generalized content of soil components by volume should be roughly 50% solids (45% mineral & 5% organic matter), and 50% voids of which half is occupied by water and half by gas.

Question 14.
How can you prepare turmeric indicator? What is the use of it?
Answer:
i) Turmeric indicator is prepared from turmeric.
ii) It has red colour in basic solution.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 15.
Name two salts and write their formulae which possess water of crystallization.
Answer:

  1. Hydrous copper sulphate. Its formula is CuSO4 . 5H2O
  2. Gypsum. Its formula is CaSO4 . 2H2O

Question 16.
What is neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
When an acid reacts with base it forms salt and water. This reaction is called neutralisation reaction.
e.g.: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
H2SO4(aq) + 2Na0H(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

Question 17.
All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis. Do you agree with the statement? If yes, why?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement. Because alkalis are those bases which are soluble in water. So all alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis.

Question 18.
Why are solutions of acids, bases and salts good conductors of electricity?
Answer:
For passage of electricity through a material or substance charged particles are required. In metals charged particles are electrons whereas in solutions ions are charged particles which carry electrical energy. Solutions of acids, bases and salts undergo ionisation and produce ions. So they are good conductors of electricity.

Question 19.
What is strength of acid ? What are the factors that influence strength of acid?
Answer:
The extent which an acid undergoes ionisation is called strength of acid.
Factors influence strength of acid :

  1. Degree of ionisation.
  2. Concentration of hydronium ions produced by acid.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 20.
Why are organic acids weak acids when compared with mineral acids?
Answer:

  • Strength of acid depends on extent of ionisation.
  • Organic acids do not undergo 100% ionisation. Their ionisation is less than 30%. There is equilibrium between ionised and unionised molecules whereas mineral acids undergo complete ionisation.
  • So mineral acids behave like strong acids when compared with organic acids.

Question 21.
“Acids do not contain OH ions”. Do you agree with this statement? If not, why?
Answer:
No. I do not agree with the statement because all acids also contain OH ions but in acid solutions, H+ ions are more than OH whereas in bases OH ions are more than H+.

Question 22.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 4
If B is calcium chloride, what are A, C, D and E?
Answer:
A is calcium carbonate or calcium hydrogen carbonate.
C is water and D is carbon dioxide.
E is calcium carbonate and F is water.

Question 23.
Some salts are given below. Classify them into hydrous and anhydrous salts. Sodium carbonate, Sodium chloride, Sodium hydrogen carbonate, Copper sulphate, Hypo, Magnesium Sulphate (epsum salt)
Answer:
Hydrous salts :

  1. Hypo (Na2S2O3 • 2H2O)
  2. Epsum (MgSO4 • 7H2O)
  3. Copper sulphate (CuSO4 • 5H2O)

Anhydrous salts :

  1. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
  2. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)
  3. Sodium hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO3)

Question 24.
If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity, which of the following would you suggest as a remedy : lemon juice, vinegar or baking soda solution? Which property do you think of while suggesting the remedy?
Answer:

  • I suggest baking soda solution. As acidity can be neutralized by baking soda solution, we can use it.
  • Neutralizing property of baking soda solution.

Question 25.
Why are curd and sour substances not kept in copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and sour substances contain acids which react with copper vessels and form poisonous substances. So curd and sour substances should not be kept in copper vessels.

Question 26.
Which gas is liberated when acids react with metals? Give one example.
Answer:
When acids react with active metals they release hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → Zncl2(aq) + H2(g)

Question 27.
Why should pickles not be stored in metallic containers?
Answer:
Pickles contain acids which react with metallic containers and form poisonous substance. So they are kept in plastic containers.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 28.
Solution x turned blue litmus red and Solution y turned red litmus blue.
a) What products could be formed when x and y are mixed?
b) Which gas is released when we put magnesium pieces in solution x?
c) Will any chemical reaction take place when zinc pieces are put in solution y?
d) Which of the above solutions contain more hydrogen ions?
Answer:
Given solution Y turned blue litmus into red so, Y is an acid.
Given solution ‘y’ turned red litmus into blue so, ‘y’ is a base.
a) The reaction of an acid (x) with a base to give a salt and water.
b) When we put magnesium pieces in solution releases hydrogen gas.
c) When zinc pieces are put in solution y, a chemical reaction will take place there.
d) Acids contain more H+ ions in the given solutions, Y has more H+ ions because it is an acid.

Question 29.
Acid should be added to water but not water to the acid. Why?
Answer:

  • The dissolving of an acid or base in water is an highly exothermic process. Care must be taken while mixing concentrated HNO3 or concentrated H2SO4 with water.
  • The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring.
  • If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause bums.
  • The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 30.
Explain the procedure to confirm the given salt is a hydrous or anhydrous.
Answer:

  1. Take given salt in a test tube
  2. Observe the colour of salt
  3. Heat the test tube gently
  4. Observe the colour of salt and also moisture (droplets) inside of the test tube walls.
  5. If its colour changes or forms water droplets, it is hydrous salt.
  6. Otherwise, it is anhydrous salt.

Question 31.
Categorize the following as acids, bases, and salts :
Lemon juice, salt water, soap water, tamarind juice, surf water, lime water.
Answer:
Acids :

  1. Lemon juice
  2. Tamarind juice

Bases :

  1. Soap water
  2. Surf water
  3. Lime water

Salts :

  1. Salt water

Question 32.
Classify the following salts as family of salts having same cation or anion and prepare a table.
Potassium sulphate, Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate, Magnesium sulphate, Copper sulphate, Sodium chloride, Sodium nitrate, Sodium carbonate and Ammonium chloride.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 33.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.

SolutionspH value
Blood7.3
Pure water7.0
Gastric fluid1.2
Sodium hydroxide13

1) Which of the solutions among these is a strongest base?
2) Which body fluid has slightly basic nature?
3) What is the nature of pure water?
4) Which body fluid is strongest acid?
Answer:

  1. Sodium hydroxide because its pH is 13.
  2. Blood because its pH is 7.3.
  3. Pure water is neutral in nature because its pH is 7.
  4. Gastric juice because its pH is 1.2.

Question 34.
The diagram given below shows the removal of water crystallisation. Find error in the diagram.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 6
Answer:
Error in the diagram

  1. Test tube is placed towards observer. It causes bums on his hands.
  2. So, test tube should be placed away from the observer.

Question 35.
What are the uses of Plaster of Paris?
Answer:

  • The substance which doctors use as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right position.
  • Plaster of Paris is used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces smooth.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 36.
What are the applications of pH in daily life?
Answer:
1) In medical science :
The pH values of urine and blood are taken for diagnosis of various diseases.

2) In dairies :
Milk has pH of 6.6. A change in the pH of milk indicates that milk has turned sour.

3) In agriculture :
For better growth of crops the pH of the soil is regularly tested.
For examples :

  1. Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil.
  2. Rice requires acidic medium.
  3. Sugarcane requires neutral soil.

4) In technology:
Organic and biochemical reactions are carried out under control pH.

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram showing a base solution in water conducts electricity. Why the solution of sugar/glucose in water do not conduct electricity? (AP March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 7
The solution of sugar/glucose in water do not conduct electricity because there is no H+ ions in the solution.

Question 2.
Explain an activity to show the water of crystallisation in CuSO4 • 5H2O. (AP June 2018)
Answer:

  • Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
  • We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.
  • Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained after heating.
  • We observe the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.

Question 3.
Read the information given in the table and answer the following questions. (TS March 2016)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 8
a) List out the acids in the above table.
Answer:
The acids are HCl and lemon juice.

b) What is the nature of the solution which gives pink colour with Phenolphthalene solution?
Answer:
The nature of the solution which turns pink colour with phenolphthalene solution is basic.

c) List out the neutral solutions in the above table.
Answer:
The neutral solutions are distilled water and NaCl.

d) Name the strongest acid and the strongest base among the given solutions.
Answer:
The strongest acid is HCl and the strongest base is NaOH.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below. (TS June 2o17)
The table contains the aqueous solutions of different substances with the same concentrations and their respective pH values.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 9
i) Which one of the above acid solutions is the weakest acid? Give a reason.
Answer:
Weakest acid is ‘C’. Because its pH value is less than 7 and it is nearer to 7.

ii) Which one of the above solutions is the strongest base? Give a reason.
Answer:
Strongest base is ‘D’. Because it’s pH value is near to 14.

iii) Which of the above two produce maximum heat when they react ? What does that heat energy called?
Answer:
B, D produce maximum heat when they react. This heat energy is known as neutralization energy.

iv) Which one of the above solutions has the pH equal to that of the distilled water? What is the name given to solutions of that pH value?
Answer:
‘G’ has the pH equal to that of the distilled water. These type of solutions are known as neutral solution.

Question 5.
List out the materials required to test whether the solutions of given acids and bases contain ions or not. Explain the procedure of the experiment. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
Required Materials :
Beaker, Bulb, Graphite rods, connecting wires, 230 V AC current, water, different acids, bases.

Experimental Procedure :

  1. Connect the two connecting wires to the graphite rods.
  2. Keep the graphite rods into the beaker, take care that two graphite rods do not touch each other.
  3. Arrange a bulb in the circuit.
  4. Pour dilute acid into the beaker.
  5. Connect the ends of the connectors to 230 V AC.
  6. In this way, change the acid / base and do the experiment.

The bulb glows in the experiment when the beaker contains acid or base. Hence, when the bulb glows we can say that acid or base contain ions.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.
List out the material for the experiment “when Hydrochloric acid reacts with NaHCO3 and evolves CO2“. Write the experimental procedure. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Required material : Stand, test tubes, delivery tube, thistle funnel, two hole rubber corks, Ca(OH)2, NaHCO3, HCl.

Experimental procedure :

  1. Take NaHCO3 in a test tube and fix two hole cork to the test tube.
  2. Fix thistle funnel in one hole of cork and insert delivery tube in the second hole of the cork. Insert the second end of the delivery tube in the other test tube which is containing Ca(OH)2/lime water.
  3. Pour dil. HCl into the test tube using thistle funnel.
  4. Due to chemical reaction, gas is evolved and pass into the Ca(OH)2 through delivery tube. It turns in to milky. We can conclude that it is CO2 gas.

Question 7.
Prepare a table based on the colour responses of acid, base and salt with indicators such as indicators. (AP SA-I:2018-19)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 10

Question 8.
Draw universal pH value indicator and identify different substances. (AP SA-I : 2019-20)
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram showing variation of pH with the chage in concentration of H+(aq) ion and OH(aq) ions.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 11
Variation of pH with the change in concentration of H+(aq) ions and OH(aq) ions.

Question 9.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 12
Answer the following questions by using above information. (TS June 2019)
1) Which of the above is neutral solution?
2) Which of the above is used to neutralize the acidity in stomach?
3) Which is the strong acid among the above solutions?
4) What is the colour of Phenolphthalein indicator in NaOH solution?
Answer:

  1. Distilled water
  2. Milk of Magnesia
  3. Gastric juice
  4. Pink

Question 10.
If the pH values of solutions X, Y and Z are 13, 6 and 2 respectively, then
a) Which solution is a strong acid? Why?
b) Which solution contains ions along with molecules of solution?
c) Which solution is a strong base? Why?
d) Does the pH value of a solution increase or decrease when a base is added to it? Why?
Answer:
The strength of an acid (or) an alkali can be tested by using pH value of a solution. If the value of a pH of a solution is less, then that solution exhibits acidic nature.

If the value of a pH of a solution is more, then that solution exhibits basic nature.
pH value of a solution “X” is 13
pH value of a solution “Y” is 6
pH value of a solution “Z” is 2

a) Solution ‘Z’ is strong acid because its pH is 2.
b) Among given solutions, solution X is weakest acid. Weak solution contains ions along with molecules of solution. So X exhibits like this character.
c) Solution X is strong base. Because its pH is 13.
d) If base is added to solution ‘Z’, then its pH will increase.

Question 11.
Distinguish between acids and bases.
Answer:

AcidsBases
1) They are sour to taste.1) They are better to taste and soapy to touch.
2) When non-metallic oxides dissolved in water they form acids.2) When metallic oxides dissolved in water they form bases.
3) They react with bases to form salt and water.3) They react with acids to form salt and water.
4) They produce aqueous H+ ions.4) They produce aqueous OH- ions.
5) They turn blue litmus into red.5) They turn red litmus into blue.
6) They turn methyl orange indicator to red.6) They turn methyl orange indicator to yellow.
7) The turn phenolphthalein indicator to colourless.7) They turn phenolphthalien indicator to pink.

Question 12.
Explain chlor-alkali process.
Answer:
When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride, it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The process is called chloralkali process because of the products formed chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.
2 NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

Chlorine gas is given off at the anode and hydrogen gas at the cathode and sodium hydroxide is formed near the cathode.

Question 13.
Define the following. Give one example for each.
a) Strong acid
b) Strong base
c) Weak acid
d) Weak base.
Answer:
a) Strong acid :
The acid which undergoes 100% ionisation is called strong acid.
e.g.: HCl, H2SO4

b) Strong base :
The base which undergoes 100% ionisation is called strong base.
e.g.: NaOH, KOH

c) Weak acid:
The acid which undergoes less than 100% ionisation is called weak acid.
e.g.: CH3COOH, H2CO3

d) Weak base:
The base which undergoes less than 100% ionisation is called weak base.
e.g.: NH4OH, Mg(OH)2

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 14.
Write any four chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Chemical properties of acids :
1) Active metals react with acids and liberate hydrogen gas.
Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

2) Acids react with bases to form salt and water.
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

3) Acids react with metallic oxides to form salt and water.
MgO(s)+ 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l)

4) Acids react with carbonates and hydrogen carbonates and release carbon dioxide gas.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq)+ H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Ca(HCO3)2(l) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + 2H20((| + 2CO2(g)

Question 15.
Write the formulae of the following salts.
a) Sodium sulphate
b) Ammonium chloride
Identify the acids and bases for which the above salts are obtained. Also write chemical equations for the reactions between such acids and bases. Which type of chemical reactions are they?
Answer:
a) Formula of sodium sulphate is Na2S04. When sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide it forms sodium sulphate.
H2SO4(aq)+ 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

b) Formula of Ammonium chloride is NH4C/. When Ammonium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid it forms Ammonium chloride.
NH4OH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NH4Cl(aq) + H2O(l)

Question 16.
Write balanced equations to satisfy each statement,
a) Acid + Active metal → Salt + Hydrogen
Answer:
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

b) Acid + Base → Salt + Water
Answer:
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

c) Acid + Carbonate / Hydrogen carbonate → Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide
Answer:
CaCO3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

d) Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Answer:
CaO(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H(2)O(l)

e) Non metal oxide + base → Salt + Water
Answer:
CO2(g) + 2 NaOH(aq) → Na2CO3(aq) + H2O(l)

Question 17.
Give important products obtained from chloralkali process.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 13
Answer:
Result:
Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate. Water of crystallization proves that the crystals contain a fixed quantity of water in them.

Question 18.
Give the equations for the preparation of each of the following.
i) Copper sulphate from copper (II) oxide.
Answer:
CuO + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

ii) Potassium sulphate from potassium hydroxide solution.
Answer:
2 KOH + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2 H2O

iii) Lead chloride from lead carbonate.
Answer:
PbCO3 + 2 HCl → PbCl2 + H2O + CO2

Question 19.
How are the following salts prepared?
1) Calcium sulphate from calcium carbonate
Answer:
When calcium carbonate is treated with sulphuric acid it forms calcium sulphate.
CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2

2) Lead carbonate from lead nitrate
Answer:
When lead nitrate is treated with carbonic acid we will get lead carbonate.
Pb(NO3)2 + H2CO3 → PbCO3 + 2 HNO3

3) Sodium nitrate from sodium hydroxide
Answer:
When sodium hydroxide is reacted with nitric acid it will form sodium nitrate.
NaOH + HNO3 → NaNO3 + H2O

4) Magnesium carbonate from magnesium chloride
Answer:
When magnesium carbonate is reacted with hydrochloric acid it forms magnesium chloride.
MgCO3 + 2 HCl → MgCl2 + H2O + CO2

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 20.
Which of the following reactions are considered as neutralization reactions? Why?
1) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
2) CaO + 2 HCl → CaCl2 + H2O
3) CO2 + 2 NaOH → Na2CO3 + H2O
4) SiO2 + CaO → CaSiO3
Answer:
All of them are considered as neutralization reactions.

  1. An acid (HCl) reacts with base (NaOH) and forms salt and water. So it is a neutralization reaction.
  2. Here metallic oxide which is basic in nature reacts with acid and forms salt and water. So it is also a neutralization reaction.
  3. In third case non-metallic oxide (acidic oxide) reacts with base (NaOH) and forms salt and water. So it is also a neutralization reaction.
  4. In fourth case a metallic oxide (CaO) reacts with non-metallic oxide (SiO2) and forms salt. So it is also a neutralization reaction in the absence 6f water.

Question 21.
Which metals produce hydrogen gas when they are reacted with bases like NaOH and KOH? Write the chemical equations for the reactions.
Answer:
Zinc, aluminium and lead react with bases like NaOH and KOH and produce hydrogen gas.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 14

Question 22.
i) A solution has a pH of 7. How would you increase its pH and decrease its pH? Explain.
Answer;
We can increase the pH of a solution by adding base because we know that bases have pH > 7. We can decrease the pH of a solution by adding an acid because acidic solution have pH < 7.

ii) If a solution changes the colour of litmus from red to blue, then what can you say about its pH?
Answer:
Bases can change red litmus into blue. So the pH of the solution is greater than 7.

iii) What can you say about pH of a solution that liberates carbon dioxide from sodium carbonate?
Answer:
Acids react with carbonates and liberate hydrogen gas. So the pH of the solution is less than 7.

Question 23.
Write the pH values of some solutions.
Answer:

pH valueSolutions
0Battery Acid
1Con. H2S04
2Lemon juice
3Orange juice
4Tomato juice
5Black coffee, Bananas
6Milk, urine
7Pure water
8Sea water, eggs
9Baking soda
10Milk of magnesia
11Ammonia solution
12Soapy water
13Bleach oven cleaner
14Liquid drain cleaner

Question 24.
Fill the following table of results of reactions between some substances (acids, bases, neutral substances) and indicators.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 15
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 16

Question 25.
The pH values of six solutions A, B, C, D, E, F are given as 5,2,1,3,7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is
a) Neutral
b) Strongly alkaline
c) Strongly acidic
d) Weakly acidic?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of Hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
a) Solution E is neutral.
b) Solution F is Alkaline.
c) Solution C is strongly acidic.
d) Solution A is weakly acidic.
e) Solution B is strongly acidic.
f) Solution D is strongly acidic.
g) Ascending order of increase of Hydrogen ion concentration is F, E, A, D, B, C.

Question 26.
Collect information about various organic acids different occurring naturally and prepare a table.
Answer:

1. Acetic acidVinegar (obtained from fruits after fermentation).
2. Citric acidCitrus fruits like orange and lemons.
3. Butyric acidButter gone bad or rancid
4. Lactic acidCurd
5. Malic acidApples
6. Oleic acidOlive oil
7. Tartaric acidFruits such as grapes, apples and tamarind
8. Stearic acidFrom fats
9. Succinic acidFrom vegetables like lettuce and unripe fruits
10. Uric acidFrom urine

Question 27.
Complete the table.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 17
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 18

Question 28.
Fill the table.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 19
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 20

Question 29.
Draw a diagram to show the reaction of acids with metals.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 21
Reaction of Zinc granules with dil. HCl and testing hydrogen gas by a burning candle

Question 30.
Draw a diagram to show that all metal carbonates and react hydrogen carbonates
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts 22

Question 31.
What are the uses of Bleaching powder?
Answer:

  • It is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry for bleaching wood pulp in paper industry and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry.
  • Used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
  • Used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
  • Used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.

Question 32.
What are the uses of Baking soda?
Answer:
1) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place.

Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

2) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralizes excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.

3) It is also used in soda-acid, fire extinguishers.

4) It acts as mild antiseptic.

Question 33.
What are the uses of Washing soda?
Answer:

  • Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soaps and paper industries.
  • It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
  • Sodium carbonate can be used” as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
  • It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 34.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
i) Bleaching powder
ii) Sodium Chloride
iii) Slaked lime
iv) Baking Soda
v) Washing Soda
vi) Gypsum
vii) Plaster of Paris
viii) Acetic acid
ix) Sodium Hydroxide
x) Limestone
Answer:
i) Bleaching powder = CaOCl2
ii) Sodium Chloride = NaCl (Common Salt)
iii) Slaked lime (or) lime water = Ca(OH)2
iv) Baking Soda = NaHCO3
v) Washing Soda = Na2CO3, 10H2O
vi) Gypsum = CaSO4 . 2H2O
vii) Plaster of Paris = CaSO4 . ½H2O
viii) Acetic acid = CH3COOH
ix) Sodium Hydroxide = NaOH
x) Limestone = CaCO3

Question 35.
What are the various applications of neutralization?
Answer:

  • The acidity of soil is reduced by adding slaked lime.
  • The sting of yellow wasps contains alkalis. If acetic acid is rubbed on affected area, they are neutralized.
  • Ants and bees have formic acid in their stings which can be neutralised by applying soap and some other alkali.
  • Antacids tablets contain magnesium hydroxide, persons suffering from acidity are administered these tablets.
  • The affect of nettle plant leaves is neutralized by leaves of dock plant.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 36.
Mention two situations where you use hydrated and unhydrated salts in your daily life.
Answer:

  • NaCl is unhydrated salt. It flows freely when filled in a container.
  • NaHCl (Baking soda) is unhydrated salt. It flows freely when filled in a container.
  • NaCO3 . 10H2O (washing soda) is hydrated salt. It leaves wetness inside the container.
  • CaSO4 . 2H2O (Gypsum) is also hydrated salt. On careful heating of gypsum it loses water molecules partially to become (CaSO4 . ½H2O) P.O.P. It is used in hospitals as plaster for supporting fractured bones in right position.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions 12th Electromagnetism

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the diagram showing the magnetic field lines of bar mannet. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 1

Question 2.
Correct the diagram according to Lenz law and draw it again. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 2

Question 3.
What is the use of slip – ring in AC motor? (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Uses of slip rings :
Slip rings are used to change the direction of current in the coil continuously.

Question 4.
Draw the direction of magnetic lines force, assuming that the current is flowing into the page. (AP SCERT: 2019-20 )
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 3

Question 5.
What happens when a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field? (TS June2019)
Answer:
The rectangular coil comes into rotation in clock – wise direction because of equal and opposite pair of forces acting on the two sides of the coil.

  1. If the direction of the current in the coil unchanged it rotates half clock – wise and comes to half and rotates in anticlock – wise direction.
  2. If the direction of the current in the coil changed after the first half rotation, the coil continuously rotates in a same direction.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 6.
Write the name of the device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. (AP June 2019)
Answer:
Generator.

Question 7.
Name some sources of direct current.
Answer:
Dry cell, lead-acid battery.

Question 8.
Which sources produce alternating current?
Answer:
A.C generator, thermal power station, hydroelectric stations.

Question 9.
What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?
Answer:
The split rings are used to change the direction of current flowing through the coil.

Question 10.
Write one method of inducing current in the coil.
ANswer:
By pushing or pulling a bar magnet into or away from the coil we can induce current. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuit, i) Fuse ii) Earthing

Question 11.
On what factors does the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil depend?
Answer:
It depends on current, number of turns and radius of the coil.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 12.
Which is more dangerous AC or DC?
Answer:
AC is more dangerous.

Question 13.
State two serious hazards of electricity.
Answer:

  • If a person touches the live wire, he gets severe shock which may prove fatal.
  • Short-circuiting can cause a spark which may lead to fire in a building.

Question 14.
Why is earthing of electrical appliances recommended?
Answer:
To protect the user from any accidental electrical shock caused due to leakage of current.

Question 15.
Why is a spark produced at the place of short circuit? Why is the spark in white colour?
The resistance of circuit decreases, and a sudden flow of large current heats up the live wire and vapourises the metal. This causes spark. The metal of wire becomes very hot and naturally emits white light.

Question 16.
What is electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Mechanical energy can be converted into electrical energy by moving a magnet inside a coil.

Question 17.
What is Maxwell’s right hand screw rule?
Answer:
The direction of current is the direction in which the tip of the screw advances and direction of ration of the screw gives the direction of magnetic lines of force.

Question 18.
What type of energy transformation takes place in electric generator?
Answer:
Electrical energy from mechanical energy.

Question 19.
Where are the electromagnets used?
Answer:
In electric generators and televisions.

Question 20.
What is electromagnet?
Answer:
When current carrying conductor is wound over a magnetic material like soft iron it gets magnetized.

Question 21.
What are the different types of power stations?
Answer:
Electrical energy is produced in different power stations from mechanical energy of water, meat energy, and nuclear energy.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 22.
If the current in the coil is in anti-clockwise, then what would be the face of the coil?
Answer:
It behayes as north pole.

Question 23.
If the current in the ceil is in clockwise, then what would be the face of the coil?
Answer:
It behaves as south pole.

Question 24.
What is the frequency of the A.C. supplied in your house?
Answer:
It is approximately 50 Hz.

Question 25.
What type of current is generated in electric power station?
Answer:
Alternating current.

Question 26.
What is the shape of magnetic lines due to straight current carrying conductor?
Answer:
They are concentric circles.

Question 27.
What is a transformer?
Answer:
It is a device which increases or decreases the voltage.

Question 28.
State two ways by which speed or rotation of electric motor can be increased.
Answer:

  1. By increasing strength of the current.
  2. By increasing number of turns in the coil.

Question 29.
What happens if an iron piece is dropped between two poles of strong magnet?
Answer:
Eddy current is produced in it. These eddy currents oppose the motion of the piece of iron. So it falls as it is moving through a viscous liquid.

Question 30.
If a copper rod carries a direct current, then where will be the magnetic field in the conductor?
Answer:
It will be both inside and outside the rod.

Question 31.
In what form is the energy in a current carrying coil stored?
Answer:
It is stored in the form of magnetic field.

Question 32.
What is solenoid?
Answer:
A solenoid is a long wire wound in a close packed helix.

Question 33.
What is the pattern of field lines inside a solenoid around when current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
Parallel to each other.

Question 34.
List any two properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer:

  • Inside the magnet they start from south pole and end at north pole whereas outside the magnet they start at north pole and end at south pole.
  • Two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other.

Question 35.
Why does the picture appear distorted when the bar magnet is brought close to the screen of a television?
Answer:
Picture on a television screen is due to motion of the electrons reaching the screen. These electrons are affected by magnetic field of bar magnet.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 36.
What is meant by electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Whenever there is continuous change of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil, current generated in the coil is called electromagnetic induction.

Question 37.
State the Lenz’s principle.
Answer:
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the changes in the flux in the coil.

Question 38.
What is induced emf?
Answer:
Change in magnetic flux produces emf in the circuit called induced emf.

Question 39.
What do you mean by magnetic effect of current?
Answer:
Current carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. This is called magnetic effect of current.

Question 40.
What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of the coil carrying current in (i) clockwise, (ii) anti-clockwise direction?
Answer:
i) Along the axis of coil inwards.
ii) Along the axis of coil outwards.

Question 41.
Why does a current carrying freely suspended solenoid rest along a particular direction?
Answer:
A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.

Question 42.
What effect will there be on a magnetic compass when it is brought near a current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
The needle of the compass will rest in the direction of magnetic field due to solenoid at that point.

Question 43.
How is magnetic field due to solenoid carrying current affected, if a soft iron bar is introduced inside the solenoid?
Answer:
The magnetic field increases when iron bar is introduced inside the solenoid.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 44.
What happens to magnetic field if we reverse the current direction?
Answer:
The magnetic field also gets reversed.

Question 45.
How do magnetic field lines inside a current carrying solenoid appear?
Answer:
They form along the axis and parallel to each other.

Question 46.
In which of the following cases does the electromagnetic induction occur?
i) A current is started in a wire held near a loop of wire.
ii) The current is stopped in a wire held near a loop of wire.
iii) A magnet is moved through a loop of wire.
iv) A loop of wire is held near a magnet.
Answer:
In first three cases there is a change in magnetic flux. So electromagnetic induction occurs in first three cases.

Question 47.
Why must an induced current flow in such a direction so as to oppose the change producing it?
Answer:
So that the mechanical energy spent in producing the change, is transformed into the electrical energy in form of induced current.

Question 48.
What is the maximum force acting on the current (i) carrying conductor of length (l) in the presence of magnetic field (B)?
Answer:
F = Bil

Question 49.
A charged particle q is moving with a speed v perpendicular to the magnetic field of induction B?
Find the equation of time period of the particle.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{Bq}}\)

Question 50.
Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuit.
Answer:
a) Fuse
b) Earthing

Question 51.
On what factors the magnetic induction at the centre of coil depends?
Answer:
a) Number of turns
b) Radius of the coil.

Question 52.
Write the formula for magnetic flux passing through an Area A with an angle θ.
Answer:
Flux ΦV= BA cos θ

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 53.
Write the Lenz’s law.
Answer:
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the changes in the flux in the coil.

Question 54.
What is the difference between AC and DC generator?
Answer:
In AC generator, ends of coil are connected to two slip rings.
In DC generator ends of coil are connected to two half split rings.

Question 55.
What are the uses of electromagnet?
Answer:
It is used in electric bells, electric motors, telephone diaphragms, etc.

Question 56.
What is the principle of Electric motor?
Answer:
When a rectangular coil is placed in magnetic field and current is passed through it, two equal and opposite forces act on the coil which rotates it continuously.

Question 57.
What factors are influence the speed of rotation of the motor?
Answer:

  1. Strength of current
  2. Number of turns
  3. Area of the coil
  4. Strength of magnetic field

Question 58.
Which two physical quantities are interrelated in Oerstead experiment?
Answer:
Electricity and magnetism are interrelated.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 59.
Which property of proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
Answer:
When a proton (the charge) moves in a magnetic field, then magnetic force is acting on proton. So its momentum changes.

Question 60.
Which type of conductors are producing magnetic field?
Answer:

  1. Long straight current carrying conductor.
  2. Circular loop.
  3. Solenoid.

Question 61.
How much force acting on a neutron particle is moving with velocity V in a mag¬netic field with induction B?
Answer:
Zero, because neutron is charge less particle.

Question 62.
What are the instruments used in A.C Generator?
Answer:
Rectangular coil, brushes, slip rings, and magnetic poles.

Question 63.
What are the ways to produce the induced current in a coil?
Answer:
When a magnet is moved towards or away from coil or there is a relative motion between coil and magnet a current is induced in the coil.

Question 64.
At the time of short circuit, what happens to the current?
Answer:
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit increases heavily becomes the resistance of the conductor becomes almost zero.

Question 65.
A wire with green insulation is usually the line wire of an electric supply. Is it true?
Answer:
It is false, the wire with green insulation is the earth wire, not the line wire.

Question 66.
Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes. current will be induced in coil ‘B’, because flux linked the coil ‘B’ changes with respect to time.

Question 67.
Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Answer:
Electric fuse and Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB).

Question 68.
An attemating current has frequency of 50Hz. How many times does it change its direction in one second?
Answer:
Frequency of AC = 50 Hz ⇒ 50 cycles in one sec. So it reverses its direction 100 times in one second.

Question 69.
Under what orientation, the induced current produced in moving conductor in a magnetic field can be maximum?
Answer:
The current induced in a conductor is maximum when direction of motion of conductor is at right angle to the magnetic field.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 70.
How could you make the coil rotate continuously in motor?
Answer:
The direction of current through the coil is reversed every half rotation, the coil will rotate continuously and the same direction.

Question 71.
What is the formula for induced cmf when change the magnetic flux?
Answer:
Induced EMF = \(-\frac{\Delta \phi}{\Delta t}\)

Question 72.
The magnetic flux is varying with time. Which cases E.M.F is induced?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 4
Answer:
In OA and BC cases, E.M.F is induced.

Question 73.
In above problem, how much EMF is induced in BC curve?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 5

Question 74.
What is the equation of motional E.M.F?
Answer:
Motional E.M.F = Blv;
where B = magnetic induction,
l = length of rod,
v = velocity of rod.

Question 75.
When a magnet and a coil are moving same direction with same speed. Then induced E.M.F in coil is zero. Why?
Answer:
E.M.F = \(\frac{-\Delta \phi}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\), but both moving same direction, so change in flux linked with coil is zero i.e., ∆Φ = 0

Question 76.
What is shape of conductor is drawn when current is passing through conductor?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 6

Question 77.
Draw the symbols of North and South pole when depends on current.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 7

Question 78.
The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 8

Question 79.
Draw the diagram of AC and DC current varying with time.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 9

Question 80.
Where are electric motors used?
Answer:
Electric fans, water-pumps, coolers.

Question 81.
Mention two uses of solenoid.
Answer:
It is used in electric bells, fans, and motors.

Question 82.
Mention applications of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
It is used in devices which convert mechanical energy into electrical energy.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 83.
What are the advantages of an electromagnet over permanent magnet?
Answer:

  1. An electromagnet can produce a strong magnetic field.
  2. The strength of electromagnet can be changed.
  3. The polarity of electromagnet can be changed.

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anand appreciated the law behind the making of ‘generator’. Name the law and state it. (AP June 2017)
Answer:
1) The law behind the making of ‘generator’ is Faraday’s law.

2) Faraday’s Law :
“Whenever there is a continuous change of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil, a current is generated in the coil”.

Question 2.
Explain Oersted experiment to show that Electricity and Magnetism were related phenomena. (AP June 2018)
Answer:

  • Place a compass needle underneath a wire and then turn on electric current.
  • Immediately the needle of compass shows the deflection. By this we can conclude that electricity and magnetism are related phenomena.

Question 3.
With the help of the given figure, the teacher explained that magnetic field lines are closed lines and not open lines. Write the questions which you will ask to rest whether the given statement is right or wrong. (TS June 2015)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism
Answer:

  • Are there any magnetic field lines inside the magnet?
  • If magnetic field lines are there inside the magnet, what is the direction of field lines inside the magnet?
  • What is the direction of field lines outside the magnet?

Question 4.
State Right-hand rule with a labelled diagram. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 10
(OR)

  • Right hand rule indicates the direction of magnetic force acting on a moving charge.
  • It is used when velocity and field are perpendicular to each other. If the fore finger points towards the direction of velocity of charge or current (I), middle finger points to the direction of field (B), then thumb gives the direction of force (F).

Question 5.
A coil of insulated Copper wire is connected to a Galvanometer. (TS March 2015)
What happens, if a bar magnet is ………….
1) pushed into the coil?
2) withdrawn from inside the coil?
3) held stationary inside the coil?
Answer:

  1. If a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer gets deflected. Because current is generated in the coil.
  2. If a bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer gets deflected. Because current is generated in the coil.
  3. If a bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer does not get deflected. Because current is not generated in the coil.

Question 6.
Compare the magnetic field lines of force formed around a current carrying solenoid with the magnetic field lines of force of a bar magnet.
Answer:

Magnetic field lines of a bar magnetMagnetic field lines of a solenoid
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 ElectromagnetismAP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism
2) The direction of the field lines of the outside the magnet is from north to south pole.2) The direction of the field lines of the outside the solenoid is from north to south pole.
3) The direction of the field lines of the inside of the magnet field looks like south to north pole.3) The direction of the field lines of the inside of the solenoid is from south to north pole.
4) These lines are closed loops.4) These lines are also closed loops.
5) We cannot find the field lines inside the bar magnet.5) We can find the field lines inside the solenoid.
6) These field lines are same as field lines formed by a solenoid.6) These field lines are also same as field lines formed by a bar magnet.
7) More field lines are found at poles.7) More field lines are found at poles.

Question 7.
Which energy we get from an electric motor? Write two daily life applications of the electric motor. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

  • We get mechanical energy from electric motor.
  • In our daily life we use motor in
    i) Mixies
    ii) Grinders
    iii) Water Pumps
    iv) Fans / Coolers, etc.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 8.
List out the material required for Oersted experiment and mention the precautions to be taken in the experiment. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
Materials required for Oersted experiment are :

  1. Thermocol sheet.
  2. Wooden sticks.
  3. Copper wire of 24 gauge.
  4. Battery.
  5. Key.
  6. Magnetic compass.

Precautions to be taken are :

  1. Copper Wire is made through the slits of the wooden sticks tightly.
  2. Arrange/complete the circuit correctly.

Question 9.
What happens when magnetic flux passing through a coil changes continuously? Where does this process is used? (TS June 2019)
Answer:
1) When there is a continuous change of magnetic flux passing through a coil a current is generated in the coil.

2) This process is used in

  1. Induction stoves
  2. Security checking entrance/exit doors.
  3. ATM cards scanners.

Question 10.
Distinguish between AC and DC.
Answer:

ACDC
1) AC means alternate current.1) DC means direct current.
2) The current direction changes2) The current direction does not
always.change. It is always a single direction.
3) The magnitude of current changes from minimum to maximum.3) Always it has maximum value.

Question 11.
Distinguish between AC motor and DC motor.
Answer:

AC motorDC motor
1) It works with alternate current.1) It works with direct current.
2) It does not require change in current direction.2) It requires change in current direction which is provided by split rings which act as commutator.

Question 12.
Distinguish between AC generator and DC generator.
Answer:

AC generatorDC generator
1) It generates alternate current.1) It generates direct current.
2) It has two slip rings.2) It has two half slip rings.

Question 13.
What is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction? Write its expression.
(OR)
State the Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Write the equation of this law.
Answer:
The induced EMF generated in a closed loop is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux passing through it.
Induced EMF = Change in flux / time
ε = ∆Φ / ∆t

Let Φ0 be flux linked with single turn. If there are N turns of the coil, the flux linked with the coil is NΦ0.
∴ ε = NAΦ0 / ∆t

Question 14.
State the right-hand thumb rule. How does the rule help us?
Answer:
When you curl your right hand fingers in the direction of current thumb gives the direction of magnetic field.

It is useful to find the magnetic field direction as well as current direction.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 15.
A flat rectangular coil is rotated between the pole pieces of a horseshoe magnet. In which position of coil with respect to magnetic field, will the emf (i) be maximum, (ii) be zero, (iii) change its direction.
Answer:
i) The emf is maximum when the plane of coil is parallel to the magnetic field.
ii) The emf is zero when the plane of coil is normal to the magnetic field.
iii) The emf will change its direction when the plane of coil passes from the position normal to the magnetic field.

Question 16.
State two factors on which the magnitude of induced emf depend?
Answer:
The magnitude of induced emf depends on the following two factors.

  1. The change in the magnetic flux.
  2. The time in which the magnetic flux changes i.e., the rate of change of magnetic flux.

More the change in magnetic flux, more is the emf induced. Further if more rapid the magnetic flux changes, more is the emf induced.

Question 17.
How do you increase the magnetic field of solenoid?
Answer:
The magnetic field of solenoid can be increased by the following two ways.

  1. by increasing the number of turns of winding in the solenoid.
  2. by increasing the current through the solenoid.

Question 18.
State the function of split ring in a DC motor.
Answer:

  • The split ring acts as a commutator in a DC motor.
  • With the split ring, the direction of current through the coil is reversed after every half rotation of coil.
  • Thus the direction of couple rotating the coil remains unchanged and the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.

Question 19.
A DC motor is rotating in a clockwise direction. How can the direction of rotation be reversed?
Answer:
The direction of rotation of motor can be reversed by interchanging the connections at the terminals of the battery joined to the brushes of the motor.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 20.
State the effect of inserting a soft iron core within the coil of DC motor.
Answer:

  • On inserting a soft iron core within the coil of a DC motor, the speed of rotation of coil increases.
  • The reason is that the strength of magnetic field between the pole pieces of magnet increases due to which the deflecting couple on coil increases.

Question 21.
State condition when magnitude of force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is (a) zero, (b) maximum.
Answer:
a) When current in conductor is in direction of magnetic field,
b) When current in conductor is normal to the magnetic field.

Question 22.
A flat coil ABCD Is freely suspended between the pole pieces of a U – shaped permanent magnet with the plane of coil parallel to the magnetic field.
a) What happens when current is passed in the coil?
b) When will the coil come to rest?
c) Name the instrument which makes use of the principle stated above.
Answer:
a) The coil will experience a torque due to which it will rotate.
b) The coil will come to rest when its plane becomes normal to the magnetic field.
c) DC motor.

Question 23.
Why is it more difficult to move a magnet towards a coil which has a large number of turns?
Answer:

  1. Emf induced in the coil becomes more when the number of turns in the coil are made large.
  2. So it is difficult to move a magnet towards a coil which has a large number of turns.

Question 24.
A coil ABCD mounted on an axle is placed between the poles N and S of permanent magnet as shown in figure.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 11
a) In which direction will the coil begin to rotate when the current is passed through the coil in direction ABCD by connecting a battery at the ends A and D of the coil.
b) Why is commutator necessary for continuous rotation of the coil?
Answer:
a) Anti-clockwise direction.
b) Commutator is needed to change the direction of current in the coil after each half rotation of coil.

Question 25.
Draw the magnetic field lines in uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 12

Question 26.
Draw a labelled diagram to make an electromagnet from soft iron bar AB. Mark the polarity at its ends. What precaution would you observe?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 13
The labelled diagram is shown in figure. The polarity at the end A where the current is clockwise, is south (S), while at the end B where the current is anti-clockwise is north (N).
Precaution :
The source of current must be the DC source.

Question 27.
State the principle of an electric motor. Name some appliances in which the Electric motor is used.
Answer:
Current carrying coil rotates when it is kept in a uniform magnetic field. It is the working principle of electric motor.
Appliances containing electric motor are :

  1. Fans,
  2. Mixies,
  3. Grinders,
  4. Machines, etc.

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How can you verify with experiment “The magnetic field lines are closed loops”? (AP March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

  • Place a retort stand on the plank as shown in the figure.
  • Pass a copper wire through hole of the plank and rubber knob of the retort stand in such a way that the wire be arranged in a vertical position and not touch the stand.
  • Connect the two ends of the wire to a battery via switch. Allow the current flows through wire.
  • By sprinkling the iron fillings around the wire, we can observe the magnetic field lines are in circular shape.

Conclusion :
Hence it is proved that “Magnetic field lines are closed loops”.

Question 2.
Name the device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Draw its diagram and label the parts. (AP March 2018)
Answer:
1) The device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is motor.
2) Diagram of motor
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 3.
List out the materials required for the Oersted experiment of electromagnetism. Write the procedure of the experiment. What do you understand by this experiment? (TS March 2016)
Answer:
List of material required for Oersted experiment:
A thermocol sheet, two small sticks, insulated copper wires, 9 V battery, switch, magnetic compass.

Procedure :

  1. Take a thermocol sheet and fix two thin wooden sticks of height 1 cm which have small slit at the top of their ends.
  2. Arrange a copper wire so that it passes through these slits and makes a circuit.
  3. The circuit consists of a 9 V batten’, key, and copper wires connected in series.
  4. Now keep a magnetic compass below the wire.
  5. Now switch on the circuit and observe the compass needle.
  6. Change the directions of current and observe the compass needle.

Observation :

  1. When current is passed through circuit, we observe deflection of compass needle in one direction.
  2. When the direction of current is changed, the compass needle deflects in another direction.
  3. This shows that a current carrying conductor possesses magnetic field around it.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 4.
Write the experimental procedure and observations of the experiment that is to be performed to observe the magnetic field formed due to solenoid. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

  • Fix a white paper on a wooden plank.
  • Make two holes to the plank at appropriate distance.
  • Make some more holes parallel to these two holes.
  • Insert a copper wire through these holes. It looks as a coil.
  • Connect the two ends of the coil to a battery and a switch in series.
  • When swich is on current flows through the wire.
  • Sprinkle some iron filings around the coil and tap the plank.

Observation :
An orderly pattern of iron filing is seen on the paper. These are magnetic field lines. The magnetic field lines set up by solenoid resemble those that of a bar magnet.

Question 5.
Why the current-carrying straight wire which is kept in a uniform magnetic field, perpendicularly to the direction of the field bends aside? Explain this process with a diagram showing the direction of forces acting on the wire. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 14

Uniform magnetic field (due to horse shoe magnet)

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 3
Magnetic field due to current carrying straight wire
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 15
Net field formed due to the above two fields

Explanation :
The net field in upper part is strong and in lower part it is weak. Hence a non-uniform field is created around wire. Therefore the wire tries to move to the weaker field region.

Question 6.
List out the apparatus and experimental procedure for the experiment to observe a current-carrying wire experiences a magnetic force when it is kept in uniform magnetic field. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Required apparatus :
i) Horseshoe magnet,
ii) Conducting wire,
iii) Battery, switch

Experimental procedure :
1) Arrange the circuit :
Take a wooden plank and arrange two wooden sticks with slits and arrange a conductor through the sticks and make a circuits with switch, battery.

2) Put horse shoe magnet:
Arrange the horse shoe magnet on the conductor in such a way that the conductor should be in between the two poles of the magnet.

3) Deflections in conductor :
Allow the current to pass through the circuit. We can find that conductor deflects up wards or down wards.

4)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 7.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism
Answer the following questions by observing above diagram. (TS March 2018)
1. Which device function of working does the above figure gives?
Answer:
Motor

2. What is the angle made by AB and CD with magnetic field?
Answer:
90°

3. What are the directions of magnetic forces on sides AB and CD?
Answer:
By applying right hand rule to get the directions of magnetic force. At ‘AB’, the magnetic force acts inward perpendicular to field of the magnet and on ‘CD’, it acts outwards.

4. What is the net force acting on the rectangular coil?
Answer:
The net force on ‘AB’ is equal and opposite to the force on ‘CD’ due to external magnetic field because they carry equal currents in the opposite direction. Sum of these forces is zero. Similarly, the sum of the forces on sides ‘BC’ and ‘DA’ is also zero.

So, net force on the rectangular coil is zero.

Question 8.
Explain the working process of induction stove. (TS March 2019)
Answer:

  • An induction stove works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
  • A metal coil is kept just beneath the cooling surface.
  • It carries alternating current (AC) so that AC produce an alternating magnetic field.
  • When you keep a metal pan with water on it, the varying magnetic field beneath it crosses the bottom surface of the pan, and EMF is induced in it.
  • Induced EMF produces induced current in the metal pan.
  • The pan has a finite resistance.
  • The flow of induced current produces heat in it.
  • That heat is conducted to the water. In this way, induction stove works and water will be heated.

Question 9.
Which device is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy? Draw a neat diagram and label the parts of this device. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
1) Dynamo is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. They are also called Generators.

2) AC Generator (or) DC Generator
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism
AC Generator
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism
DC Generator

Question 10.
A coil is hung as shown in the figure. A bar magnet with north pole facing the coil is moved perpendicularly
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 16
a) How does the magnetic flux passing through the coil change?
b) State the direction of the flow of the current induced in the coil, keeping the direction of bar magnet in view.
c) Draw the diagrams showing the magnetic field formed due to bar magnet at the surface of the coil and the magnetic field formed due to induced current.
d) Explain the reason for induced current.
Answer:
a) A bar magnet with north pole facing the coil is moved perpendicularly, the magnetic flex increases when passing through the coil.
b) The direction of the flow of the. current induced in the coil, keeping the direction of bar magnet is anti-clockwise due to north pole. KT
c) Φ = 0
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 17
Plane of coil is parallel to ‘B’.
d) Electromagnetic induction is the reason for induced current.

Question 11.
Conductor of length T moves perpendicular to its length with the speed V. Length of the conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field of the conductor. Let us assume that electrons could move freely in the conductor and the charge of an electron is ‘e’.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 18
a) What is the magnetic force acting on electron in the conductor?
b) In which direction does the above force act?
c) What effect does this force have on motion of electrons?
Answer:
a) Magnetic field acting on the electron inside the conductor is = Fm = e (\(\bar{V} \times \bar{B}\)) = BeV
This field acts from P to Q.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 19

b) Consider in the field P and Q are ends of a conductor. ‘Q’ will act as negative end and ‘P’ will act as positive end then flow passes from P to Q means downwards.

c) The force on electrons shows an effect creates a potential difference at the ends of the rods.
∴ BeV = eE ⇒ E = BY

Question 12.
A charged particle q is moving with a speed V perpendicular to the magnetic field induction B. Find the radius of the path and time period of the particle.
Answer:

  1. Let us assume that the field is directed into the page.
  2. Then the force experienced by the particle F = qvB.
  3. We know that this force is always directed perpendicular to velocity.
  4. Hence the particle moves along a circular path and the magnetic force on a charged particle acts like a centripetal force.
  5. Let r be the radius of the circular path.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 20
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 21

Question 13.
Explain different ways to induced current in a coil.
Answer:

  • Moving a north pole of a magnet into a coil.
  • Withdrawing north pole from a coil.
  • Moving a south pole of magnet into a coil.
  • Withdrawing a south pole of a magnet from a coil.
  • Moving a coil towards a magnet.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 14.
What are the similarities between a current-carrying solenoid and a bar magnet?
Answer:
1) The magnetic field lines due to current carrying solenoid are identical to those of bar magnet. Thus a current-carrying solenoid behaves just like a bar magnet with fixed polarities at the ends. The end at which the direction of current is clockwise behaves like a south pole and the end at which current is anti-clockwise behaves like a north pole.

2) A current-carrying solenoid when suspended freely, will set itself in the north south direction exactly in the same manner as a bar magnet does.

3) A current-carrying solenoid also acquires the- attractive property of magnet. If iron filings are brought near the solenoid, it attracts them when current flows through the solenoid.

Question 15.
What are the dissimilarities between a current-carrying solenoid and a bar magnet?
Answer:

  • The magnetic field strength due to solenoid can be altered by altering current in it, while the magnetic field strength of a bar magnet cannot be changed.
  • The direction of magnetic field due to solenoid can be reversed by reversing the direction of current in it, but the direction of magnetic field of the bar magnet cannot be changed.

Question 16.
Compare electromagnet with a permanent magnet.
Answer:

ElectromagnetPermanent Magnet
1) It is made of soft iron.1) It is made of steel.
2) It produces the magnetic field so long as current flows in its coils.2) It produces permanent magnetic field.
3) The magnetic field strength can be changed.3) The magnetic field strength cannot be changed.
4) The electromagnet can be made as strong as needed.4) The permanent magnets are not so strong.
5) The polarity of an electromagnet can be reversed.5) The polarity of permanent magnet cannot be reversed.
6) It can be easily de-magnetised by switching off the current.6) It cannot be easily de-magnetised.

Question 17.
What are the characteristics of magnetic field lines due to current in a loop (or circular coil)?
Answer:

  • The magnetic lines are nearly circular in the vicinity of coil.
  • Within the space enclosed by the wire the magnetic field lines are in the same direction.
  • Near the centre of loop, the magnetic field lines are nearly parallel and the magnetic field may be assumed to be uniform in a small space near the centre.
  • At the centre, the magnetic lines are along the axis of the loop and at right angles to the plane of the loop.
  • The magnetic field lines become denser if the strength of current in the loop is increased and there are more number of turns in the loop.

Question 18.
A straight conductor passes vertically through a cardboard having some iron filings sprinkled on it.
a) Show the setting of iron filings when current is passed in the downward direction and then the cardboard is gently tapped. Draw arrows to represent the direction of magnetic field lines.
b) What changes occur if
i) current is increased ?
ii) the single conductor is replaced by several parallel conductors each carrying same current flowing in the same direction?
c) Name the law used by you to find the direction of magnetic field lines.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 22
a) The figure shoy/s, the pattern in which iron filings will set themselves. The arrows show the direction of magnetic field lines.
b) i) The arrangement of iron filings remains unchanged, but they become denser and Cardboar get arranged up to a larger distance from the conductor when the strength of current is increased and it is effective up to a larger distance from the conductor.
ii) The magnetic field at a point due to each conductor will be in same direction, so they will be added up. Thus the magnetic field strength is increased and it is effective up to a large distance so the magnetic field lines come closer and iron filings get arranged up to a larger distance.
c) Right hand thumb rule.

Question 19.
In figure A and B represent two straight wires carrying equal currents in a direction normal to the plane of paper inwards.
a) Sketch separately the magnetic field lines produced by each current.
b) Give a reason why the magnetic field at K (mid point of the line joining A and B) will be zero.
c) What will be the effect on the magnetic field at the point K if the current in wire B is reversed?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 23
Answer:
a) Figure shows the sketch of magnetic field A and B.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 24
b) The point K is equidistant from the wires A and B, and the wires A and B carry equal currents. So the magnetic fields at K due to wires A and B are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. Due to the wire A, it is downwards in the plane of paper, while due to the wire B, it is upwards in the plane of paper. So the net magnetic field at the point K is zero as the two fields cancel each other.
c) On reversing the direction of current in the wire B, the direction of magnetic field due to current is reversed at the point K, i.e. it becomes downwards in the plane of paper.

Question 20.
The diagram given below shows two coils X and Y. The coil X is connected to a battery S and a key K. The coil Y is connected to a galvanometer G.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism 25
When the key K is closed state the polarity.
i) At the end B of the coil X.
ii) At the end C of the coil Y.
iii) At the end C of the coil Y if the coil Y is (a) moved towards the coil X, (b) moved away from the coil X.
Answer:
i) On closing the key K, the current at the end B of the coil X is anti-clockwise, therefore at this end there is a north pole.

ii) While closing the key, polarity at the end C of the coil Y will be north. But there will be no polarity at the end C of the coil Y when the current becomes steady in the coil X

iii) a) With the key K closed, while the coil Y is moved towards the coil X, the polarity at the end C of the coil Y is north.
b) With the key K closed, while the coil Y is moved away from the coil X, the polarity at the end C of the coil Y is south.

Question 21.
How do you increase the speed of rotation of coil in a DC motor?
Answer:
The speed of rotation of coil can be increased by

  1. Increasing the strength of current.
  2. Increasing the number of turns in coil.
  3. Increasing the strength of magnetic field. To increase the strength of magnetic field a soft iron core can be inserted within the coil.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 12 Electromagnetism

Question 22.
Explain Lenz’s law with an activity.
Answer:
Lenz law :
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the change in the flux in the coil.

Explanation :

  1. We know that when a bar magnet is pushed towards a coil with its north pole facing the coil an induced current is set up in the coil.
  2. Let the direction be clockwise then current carrying loop behaves like a magnet with its south pole facing the north pole of bar magnet.
  3. In such a case, the bar magnet attracts the coil. Then it gains kinetic energy. This is contradictory to conservation of energy.
  4. Hence our assumption is wrong. So correct induced current direction is anti-clockwise.
  5. Let us see a case where the bar magnet is pulled away from the coil with the north pole facing the coil. In such case, the coil opposes the motion of bar magnet to balance the conversion of mechanical energy into electric energy.
  6. It happens only when the north pole of the magnet faces the south pole of the coil.
  7. So, the direction of induced current in the coil must be in anti-clockwise direction.
  8. In simple terms, when flux increases through coil, the coil opposes the increase in the flux and when flux decreases through coil, it opposes the decrease in the flux. This is Lenz law.

Question 23.
What are the uses of electromagnet?
Answer:
Electromagnets are mainly used for the following purposes.

  1. For lifting and transporting the large masses of scrap, girders, plates, etc. especially to the places where it is not convenient to take the help of human labour.
  2. For loading furnaces with iron.
  3. For separating the magnetic substances such as iron from other debris.
  4. For removing pieces of iron from wounds.
  5. In several electrical devices such as electric bell, telegraph, electric thumb, electric motor, relay, microphone, loudspeaker, etc.
  6. In scientific research, to study the magnetic properties of a substance in a magnetic field.

Question 24.
Write the differences between AC generator and DC motor.
Answer:

AC GeneratorDC Motor
1) A generator is a device which converts the mechanical energy into the electrical energy.1) A DC motor is a device which converts electrical energy into the mechanical energy.
2) A generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.2) A DC motor works on the principle of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
3) In a generator, the mechanical energy is used in rotating the armature coil in a magnetic field so as to produce electricity.3) In a DC motor electrical energy is provided by the DC source to flow current in the armature coil placed in a magnetic field due to which coil rotates.
4) A generator makes use of two separate coaxial slip rings.4) A DC motor makes use of two parts of a slip ring (i.e., split rings) which acts as commutator.

 

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions 14th Carbon and its Compounds

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Isomerism. (AP March 2016)
Answer:
The phenomenon of possessing same molecular formula but different properties by the compounds is known as “Isomerism”.

Question 2.
Give the names of the functional groups. (AP March 2018)
a) – COOR
b) – OH
Answer:
a) Ester
b) Alcohol

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 3.
How do you explain the role of Oxygen in combustion process? (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Oxygen helps the combustion (or) No combustion will take place without oxygen.
Ex : C + O2 → CO2

Question 4.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 1 AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 2
Predict and write the products. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 2

Question 5.
Write two uses of nano tubes. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

  1. Nano tubes are used as molecule wires.
  2. In intigrated circuits nano tubes are used to connect the components together.
  3. Nano tubes are used to incert Bio-molecules into the single cell.

Question 6.
Write two uses of Ethanol in day to day life. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Ethanol is used in
i) Preparation of Alchoholic drinks
ii) Preparing tincture iodine
iii) Preparing cough syrup and tonics

Question 7.
Write the atomic structure of the following carbon compound. 3, 7-dibromo-4, -6 dichloro – oct-5-ene-l, 2-diol. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 3

Question 8.
Thanish added acetic acid along with concentrated sulphuric acid to ethanol what would be his observation during the experiment? (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

  1. He may observe that the resulting mixture is a sweet odoured substance.
  2. The substance is ethyl acetate, an ester.

Question 9.
Why do the various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate? Guess the reason. (TS June 2019)
Answer:
The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion.

Question 10.
Mention any two uses of graphite in day to day life. (TS June 2019)
Answer:
Uses of graphite in day to day life :

  1. Pencil lead.
  2. Lubricant.

Question 11.
What is “Allotropy”?
Answer:
The property of an element to exist in two or more different forms due to the difference in their atomic arrangement is called “Allotropy” and the different forms are called allotropes.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 12.
‘Diamond is a bad conductor of heat.’ Why?
Answer:
Diamond is a bad conductor of heat due to lack of free electrons.

Question 13.
What is ‘cleavage’?
Answer:
Cleavage is a property of splitting of crystals of some minerals in certain directions to produce a flat, even surface.

Question 14.
“Diamond is the hardest natural substance but is brittle.” Why?
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest natural substance but is brittle and can be broken due to the property of cleavage.

Question 15.
Explain about high refractive index of diamond.
Answer:
Diamond has a high refractive index, due to which most of the light that enters the diamond gets reflected back internally. This internally reflected light is responsible for the brilliance of a diamond.

Question 16.
What is catenation?
Answer:
Catenation is the phenomenon in which atoms of same element join together to form long chains.

Question 17.
What is an alkyl group?
Answer:
If one hydrogen is removed from an alkane, it is called alkyl group.
Ex : CH4 → methane
CH3 → methyl group

Question 18.
What is polymerization?
Answer:
The reaction in which a large number of identical and simple molecules join together to form a large molecule is called ‘polymerization’.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 4

Question 19.
What do you understand by a ‘Functional group’?
Answer:
A group of atoms in carbon compounds showing characteristic properties is called a functional group.

Question 20.
Name some functional groups.
ANswer:
Alcohol – OH, Aldehyde – CHO, Ketone – > C = O, Carboxylic acid (- GOOH), ester (-COOR), and amine – NH2 are some important functional groups.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 21.
What is pyrolysis?
Answer:
Decomposition of a compound on heating in the absence of air is called pyrolysis.

Question 22.
What is hydrocarbon?
Answer:
Compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen are called ‘hydrocarbons’.
Ex : Alkanes (Saturated hydrocarbons),
Alkenes and Alkynes (Unsaturated hydrocarbons).

Question 23.
What is ‘Saturated hydrocarbon’? (Or) What is an alkane?
Answer:
The valency of carbon is 4, of all the valencies of carbon, are satisfied, the resultant hydrocarbons are referred to as ‘saturated hydrocarbons’ or alkanes. Their general formula is CnH2n+2.

Question 24.
What are ‘Unsaturated hydrocarbons’?
Answer:
The hydrocarbons containing one or more double bonds or triple bonds between two carbon atoms are called ‘unsaturated hydrocarbons’.
Ex : C2H6 and C3H6, etc.

Question 25.
What are alkenes?
Answer:
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons having at least one (C = C) double bond in their structures, Alkenes are also called olefins. Their general formula is CnH2n.
Ex : Ethylene (C2H4) and propene (C3H6), etc.

Question 26.
What are alkynes?
Answer:
Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons having at least one (\(C \equiv C\)) triple bond in their structures. Their general formula is CnH2n-2.
Ex: Acetylene (\(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{HC}\))

Question 27.
Mention the natural sources of carbon compounds.
Answer:
Plants, wood, natural gas, coal, petroleum, etc. are the natural sources of carbon compounds.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 28.
Explain about methanol (or) methyl alcohol.
Answer:
Methanol is the simplest alcohol, It is the first member of the homologous series of alcohol. It is also known as wood alcohol, as it was initially obtained by the destructive distillation of wood.

Question 29.
What is organic chemistry?
Answer:
The chemistry of carbon compounds (excluding the carbonates, bicarbonates, carbides, cyanides, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide) is called organic chemistry. The large number of organic compounds necessitated their study in separate branch of chemistry, known as organic chemistry,

Question 30.
What is halogenation?
Answer:
Alkanes react with halogens in the presence of sunlight. For example, when a mixture of methane and chlorine is exposed to sunlight, a hydrogen atom of methane is replaced by a chlorine atom,
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 5

Question 31.
How many rings are there in buckminsterfullerene?
Answer:
In buckminsterfullerene, there are 32 rings, of them 12 are pentagonal rings and 20 are hexagonal rings.

Question 32.
Give example for homologous series.
Answer:
CH4 and C2H6 → These differ by a – CH2 unit.
and C2H6 and C3H8 → These differ by a – CH2 unit.

Question 33.
What is hybridisation?
Answer:
The intermixing of orbitals to form equivalent new orbitals is called hybridisation.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 34.
What are nanotubes?
Answer:
Nanotubes are allotropic form of carbon.

Question 35.
What are homologous series?
Answer:
The ierles of carbon compound in which successive compounds differ by -CH2 unit is called homologous series.

Question 36.
Write the molecular formula of the fourth member of the homologous series of alcohols.
Answer:
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

Question 37.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
The substance which does not take part in chemical reaction but changes the rate of reaction.

Question 38.
Why are oils liquids at room temperature?
Answer:
Oils are unsaturated compounds so they are in liquid state.

Question 39.
Why are fats solids at room temperature?
Answer:
They are saturated compounds so they are in solid state.

Question 40.
Do you know the police detect whether suspected drivers have consumed alcohol or not? Explain.
Answer:
Orange Cr2O72- changes bluish green Cr3+ during the process of the oxidation of alcohol. The length of die tube that turned into green is the measure of die quantity of alcohol that had been drunk.

Question 41.
What is pka?
Answer:
The negative value of logarithm of dissociation constant of an acid.

Question 42.
What is Saponification?
Answer:
Alkaline hydrolysis of triesters of higher fatty acids producing soaps is called saponification.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 43.
What is a soap?
Answer:
Sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid.

Question 44.
What is micelle?
Answer:
A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in water is called micelle.

Question 45.
What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus papers?
Answer:
Red litmus turns into blue.

Question 46.
Write the valency of carbon in CH3 – CH3, CH2 = CH2 and \(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)?
Answer:
The valency of carbon in CH3 – CH3 is 4.
The valency of carbon in CH2 = CH2 is 3.
The valency of carbon in \(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{C}\) – H is 2.

Question 47.
Out of butter and groundnut oil which is unsaturated in nature?
Answer:
Groundnut oil is unsaturated in nature.

Question 48.
What are hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts in soap?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 6

Question 49.
Name the carboxylic acid used as preservative.
Answer:
Acetic acid is used as preservative.

Question 50.
Why does graphite act as a good conductor of electricity?
Answer:
Graphite is a good conductor of electricity because of delocalized x electron system.

Question 51.
Among objects made of glass and diamond, which one shines more? Why?
Answer:
Diamond shines more because of low conical angle of 24,4° and also high refractive

Question 52.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 7
Answer:
a) 2, 2, 3, 3 – tetra methyl butane
b) 3-chloro butan-l-oic acid.

Question 53.
What is the difference between combustion and oxidation reaction?
Answer:
Combustion is an oxidation reaction where a compound is burnt in the presence of oxygen, whereas oxidation is addition of oxygen which does not require any burning.

Question 54.
Write the order of priority of functional groups for naming carbon compounds.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 8

Question 55.
What is glycerol?
Answer:
The trihydroxy alcohol is called glycerol.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 9

Question 56.
What do you mean by CMC?
Answer:
CMC means Critical Micelle Concentration.

Question 57.
Name the simplest chloride of saturated hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Chloro methane or methyl chloride.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 10

Question 58.
Write the IUPAC name of next homolog of CH3CH2CHO.
Answer:
The next homolog of CH3CH2CHO is CH3CH2CH2CHO (its IUPAC name is butanol). Since homologs differ by – CH2.

Question 59.
How do physical properties like boiling point and melting point vary as the number of carbon atoms increases in a homologous series?
Answer:
There is regular gradation in physical properties of homologous series. So the physical properties like boiling point and melting point vary.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 60.
What is meant by Hybridisation?
Answer:
Mixing two atomic orbitals with the same energy levels to give a degenerated new type of orbitals.

Question 61.
Write any two uses of Graphite.
Answer:
i) Conductor
ii) Lubricant

Question 62.
Write any two examples to Amorphous form of carbon.
Answer:
i) Coke
ii) coal
iii) charcoal.

Question 63.
Write any two examples to crystalline forms of carbon.
Answer:
i) Diamond
ii) graphite

Question 64.
What are the applications of Buckminster fullerene?
Answer:
i) Antioxidants
ii) Anti aging and damage agent in cosmetic sector.

Question 65.
What is meant by catenation?
Answer:
Binding of an element to itself through covalent bonds to form chain or ring molecules.

Question 66.
Write any one use of nanotubes.
Answer:
i) Used as molecular wires.
ii) Used in integrated circuits.

Question 67.
On which reason, graphite is used as lubricant and as the lead in pencils?
Answer:
Graphite has free electrons.

Question 68.
How many isotopes are there for C4H10, what are they?
Answer:
i) n – Butane
ii) Iso – Butane

Question 69.
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3, how many sigma bonds are present in the above compound?
Answer:
11

Question 70.
Write the IUPAC name of Ethyle alcohol.
Answer:
Ethanol.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 71.
Classify the following into alkanes, alkenes and alkynes.
C12 H22, C10 H22, C11 H22
Answer:
i) C10 H22 – Alkanes
ii) C11 H22 -Alkenes
iii) C12 H22-Alkynes

Question 72.
Hi ……… I am carboxylic acid. I am used in the making vinegar, who am I?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 73.
What does IUPAC represent?
Answer:
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Question 74.
Write any one example for esterification reaction.
Answer:
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O

Question 75.
A compound with molecules formula C2H6O is used in cough syrup. Identify the compound.
Answer:
Ethyl Alcohol.

Question 76.
Which substance is added for the denaturation of ethyl alcohol?
Answer:
Pyridine.

Question 77.
What is the abbreviation of CMC?
Answer:
Critical Micelle Concentration.

Question 78.
Write the names of polar end and non-polar end in a soap.
Answer:
Polar end – COO Na+, Non-polar end – R.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 79.
Write the IUPAC name of the alcohol which one carbon atom.
Answer:
Methanol.

Question 80.
Write the chemical equation which indicates the preparation of ethanol industrially?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 11

Question 81.
What is the formula of chloroform? Write its one use.
Answer:
CHCl3, Anesthetic.

Question 82.
Which type of hydrocarbons are participate in addition reaction?
Answer:
Unsaturate Hydrocarbons.

Question 83.
What are the oxidising agents used in oxidisation of C2H5?
Answer:
K2Cr2O7, KMn04.

Question 84.
What is meant by catalyst?
Answer:
To change die rate of reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change.

Question 85.
What are the main constituents of LPG?
Answer:
Butane, Methane.

Question 86.
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Saturated house single bonds, unsaturated have multiple bonds.

Question 87.
Describe a test for carboxylic acid.
Answer:
React with metals liberate hydrogen gas.

Question 88.
What is meant by denatured alcohol?
Answer:
Unfit for human consumption by adding one or more chemicals.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 89.
Complete the following equation.
CH4 + 2O2
Answer:
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 1H2O

Question 90.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 12
i) In the above substance, what is the hybridisation of 3rd carbon?
Answer:
sp²

ii) What is the hybridisation of 4th carbon?
Answer:
sp³

Question 91.
What is the main misuse of Ethanol?
Answer:
Drinking.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 92.
What is gasohol?
Answer:
10% Ethyl alcohol with gasoline.

Question 93.
Write any two uses of Ethyle alcohol.
Answer:
i) Good solvent
ii) Additive to automotive gasoline.

Question 94.
Write two IUPAC name
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 13
Answer:
3 – Chloro 1 – Butane

Question 95.
Name the following functional groups.
i) – COOR
ii) R – COOH
Answer:
i) – COOR (Ester)
ii) R – COOH (Carboxylic acid)

Question 96.
Name the crystalline allotrope of carbon which conducts electricity.
Answer:
Graphite.

Question 97.
Ravi gets confused while understanding the between R – COOH and R – OH functional groups, ask him one question to classify it.
Answer:
i) What is carboxylic acid?
ii) What is Alcohol?

Question 98.
Formic acid (HCOOH)
Farmaldehyde (HCHO)
Methanol (CH3OH), then answer the following questions.
i) Which is present in ants?
Answer:
HCOOH (Formic acid).

ii) Which is used to preservation of dead bodies?
Answer:
HCHO (Farmaldehyde).

Question 99.
Write the symbolic representation showing the functional groups.
i) amine
ii) amide
Answer:
i) R – NH2
ii) R – CONH2

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 100.
How many sigma and pi-bonds present in Acetylene?
Answer:
\(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\) ; σ bonds – 3 ; π bonds – 2

Question 101.
Which of the following will give substitution reactions?
CH4, C3H6, C3H4, C5H12, C4H8
Answer:
CH4, C5 H12

Question 102.
Which of the following will give addition reactions?
CH4, C3H6, C3H4, C5H12, C4H10
Answer:
C3H6, C3H4

Question 103.
What is a homologous series?
Answer:
Same functional group, difference between successive members is a simple structural unit – CH2.

Question 104.
Name the hydrocarbon which is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?
Answer:
C2H4

Question 105.
Define fermentation process.
Answer:
Chemical break down of a substance by bacteria, yeast or other microorganisms.

Question 106.
Define functional group.
Answer:
They are specific substituents within molecules that are responsible for die characteristic chemical reactions.

Question 107.
Which hydrocarbons participate in sp² hybridisation?
Answer:
C2H4

Question 108.
Name the following compounds,
i) CH3 – CH2 – Br
Answer:
1 – Bromo Ethane

ii)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 14
Answer:
Ethanol

iii)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 15
Answer:
2 – Butanone

iv)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 16
Answer:
2, 3 – dichloro Butane

Question 109.
Which constituents are present in tincture Iodine?
Answer:
i) Iodine
ii) Alcohol.

Question 110.
Write the uses of esters in daily life.
Answer:
i) Solvents
ii) Plasticizers

Question 111.
Name the gas evolved when acetic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Answer:
The gas liberated is carbon dioxide.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 112.
Name the organic acid present in vinegar. Write its chemical formula.
Answer:
The acid present in vinegar is acetic acid. Its formula is CH3COOH.

Question 113.
Why is graphite a good conductors’of electricity?
Answer:
Graphite has free electrons.

Question 114.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
Answer:
Tbtravalency.

Question 115.
Why are alkanes called as paraffins?
Answer:
Low reactivity.

Question 116.
Draw two possible structures with formula C3HgO and what they are called?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 17

Question 117.
Draw structure of 3 – methyl pentan-3-ol.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 18

Question 118.
Draw the shape of soap molecule.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 119.
Draw the shape of Micelle.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 19

Question 120.
Draw the shape of methane.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 20

Question 121.
Draw the structure of pentanoic acid.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 21

Question 122.
How do you appreciate the role of diamond in space probes?
Answer:
Since it has the ability to filter out harmful radiations, it is used in making protective windows for space probes.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 123.
How do you appreciate the role of acetic acid as a preservative?
Answer:

  • Dilute acetic acid is used as a food preservative in the preparation of pickles and sauces,
  • As vinegar, it is also used as an appetiser for dressing food dishes.

Question 124.
How do you appreciate the role of diamond in surgery?
Answer:
A sharp edged diamond is used as a tool to remove cataract in eye surgery.

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the simple figure of a soap molecule. (AP March 2016)
Answer:
Structure of soap molecule :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 2.
Draw the structure of the methane molecule. Write its bond angle. (TS June 2015)
Answer:
The bend angle in methane is 109°2 8′.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 22

Question 3.
a) Why are vegetable oils healthy as compared to vegetable ghee? (TS March 2015)
b) Write the IUPAC name of
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 25
Answer:
a) Because vegetable oils contain unsaturated fatty acids or vegetable oils are easily digestible.
b) 3 – Mono chloro butene (or) 3 Chloro butene

Question 4.
What are alkenes? Write the general formula of alkenes. Give an example for alkenes. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

  • Unsaturated hydrocarbons those are having carbon * carbon double bond are known as alkenes.
  • The general formula of Alkenes is CHH2h.
  • Example : Ethelene (C2H4).

Question 5.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 23
Based on the diagram, answer the following.
1) Write the name of the compound.
2) Write the name of functional group in the structure. (AP March 2019)
Answer:

  1. The compound is 2, 3-di ethyl-cycle hexan-1-ol.
  2. Alcohol (OH) is the functional group in the structure.

Question 6.
Identify the functional groups in the following compounds and write IUPAC names.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 24
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 26
The IUPAC name of the compound Is 2 – Chloro-Butan 1-ol.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 27
The IUPAC name of the compound is 3 – Methyl-2-Butan-one.

Question 7.
Draw the structure of butanoic acid C3H7COOH.
Answer:
Formula of butanoic acid is C4H5O2.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 28

Question 8.
What is ‘Isomerism’?
Answer:
Compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers, and the phenomenon is called isomerism.
Ex: C4H10 exists an n-hutane and iso-butane.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 29

Question 9.
How do you detect leakage in the cylinder?
Answer:

  • To detect any leakage of gas from die cylinder, a strong-smelling substance like ethyl mercaptan (C2H5 SH) is added to die gas.
  • Then the leakage can be easily detected by the foul smell of die ethyl mercaptan.

Question 10.
How is LPG gas useful for environment?
Answer:

  • Because of its heat producing capacity (calorific value), it is considered to be a good fuel.
  • It bums without producing smoke. Hence, it does not cause any pollution.
  • It is a dean fuel and can be conveniently handled.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 11.
How is ethanol useful in pharmaceutical industry?
Answer:

  • Solutions in ethanol are often prepared in pharmaceutical industry, these solutions are known as tinctures.
  • For example, a solution of Iodine and potassium iodide in ethanol is called tincture of iodine.
  • It is also used as an important raw material for the synthesis of many organic compounds, for example, ethanol, ethanoic acid, ethanoie anhydride, esters, chloroform, etc.

Question 12.
How are synthetic detergents harmful for environment?
Answer:

  • Some synthetic detergents resist biodegradation, i.e. they are not decomposed by micro-organisms such as bacteria.
  • Hence, they cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
  • They tend to persist for a long time, making the water unfit for aquatic life.

Question 13.
Explain about allotropic forms of carbon.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 30

Question 14.
Diamond is considered to be the purest form of carbon. How can we prove it?
Answer:
When diamond is heated in oxygen alone, it bums at about 800° C and forms carbon dioxide leaving no residue. This proves that diamond to be the purest form of carbon.

Question 15.
Why does carbon not form C4+? Why?
Answer:

  • Electronic configuration of carbon is 1s²2s²2p².
  • If carbon loses four electrons from the outer shell, it will form C4+ ions.
  • This requires huge amount of energy which is not available normally.
  • Therefore C4+ formation is not possible.

Question 16.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
Answer:
Carbon is unable to form C4+ ion as well as C4- ion. So carbon has to satisfy its tetra- valency by sharing electrons with other atoms. So it mainly forms covalent bonding.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 17.
Define Allotropy. What are the allotropic forms of carbon?
Answer:
The property of an element to exist in two or more physical forms having more or less similar chemical properties but different physical properties is called allotropy. The allotropic forms of carbon are graphite, diamond, etc.

Question 18.
Identify the unsaturated compounds of the following.
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2
b) CH3 – CH = CH3
c)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 31
Answer:
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 saturated compound.
b) CH3 – CH = CH3 unsaturated compound.
c)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 32

Question 19.
Define Isomers. Write structural formula of isomers of butane.
Answer:
Compounds having same molecular formula but different properties are called isomers.
Isomers of butane :
1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
Butane
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 33

Question 20.
What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Answer:
When a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol it releases hydrogen gas and forms sodium ethoxide.
2C2H5OH + 2 Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2

Question 21.
What type of reaction takes place between ethane and chlorine?
Answer:
Substitution reaction takes place between ethane and chlorine in die presence erf sunlight
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
CH3Cl +Cl2 → CH2Cl2 + HCl
CH2Cl2 + Cl2 → CHCl3 + HCl
CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl

Question 22.
What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us?
Answer:

  1. Catenation
  2. Isomerism.

Question 23.
How could you name the following compounds?
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2
Answer:
a) Bromo propane
b) Hexyne

Question 24.
Give examples for primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
Primary amine – CH3NH2
Secondary amine – CH3 – NH – CH3
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 34

Question 25.
Write the following conversions.
1) Ethanol to Ethene
2) Ethene to Ethanol
3) Methane to carbon tetra chloride.
Answer:
1) Ethanol reacts with cone. H2SO4 at about 170°C to give ethene.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 35

2) Ethanol is prepared from ethene by the addition of water vapour in the presence of catalyst P2O5.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 36

3) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. Hydrogen atoms of CH4 are replaced by chlorine atAP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 37

Question 26.
Name the following compounds and which one is saturated among them.
a) CH3 – \(\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{H}\) – CH3
b) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
Answer:
a) 2-Butyne
b) 2 – Butene
c) Butane

Butane does not show any double or triple bonds. Its valency is completely satisfied with formation of single bond. So it is a saturated compound.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 27.
How do you identify the given organic compound contains carboxylic acid functional group?
Answer:

  • On adding carbonates and bicarbonates the compound containing carboxylic acid group evolves carbon dioxide gas.
  • When warmed with alcohol and cone. H2SO4 a pleasant fruity smell is produced due to formation of ester.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about the structure of “Diamond”.
Answer:

  • In a diamond, each carbon atom is surrounded by four other carbon atoms.
  • In these carbon atoms, each carbon atom undergoes in its excited state sp3 hybridisation.
  • These are placed at the four corners of a regular tetrahedron.
  • This results in a 3-dimensional network of carbon atoms.
  • So diamond is in three dimensional structure.

Question 29.
Explain briefly about the structure of “Graphite”.
Answer:

  • In graphite, each ‘C’ is surrounded by three other ‘C’ atoms.
  • The ‘C’ atoms are arranged in layers.
  • In the layer structure, the carbon atoms are in trigonal planar environment.
  • Each layer consists of a 2-dimensional hexagonal network.

Question 30.
Diamond is an extremely bad conductor of electricity.” Why?
Answer:
1) In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded with four other carbon atoms.
2) So, the four outermost electrons of a carbon atom are engaged or trapped in the covalent bonds, having no free electrons making it a bad conductor of electricity.

Question 31.
Why is diamond hard but graphite is smooth and slippery?
Answer:
Diamond has sp³ hybridisation with tetrahedral environment. As C – C bonds are very strong any attempt to distort the diamond structure requires large amount of energy. Hence diamond is one of the hardest material.

Whereas graphite has sp² hybridisation with layer structure with trigonal planar environment. The layers tend to slide on one another. So graphite is smooth and slippery.

Question 32.
An organic compound X with a molecular formula C2H6O undergoes oxidation within presence of alkaline KMnO4 to form a compound Y. X on heating in presence of con. H2SO4 at 443 K gives Z. Which on reaction with Br2 and decolorizes it? Identify X, Y, and Z and write the reactions involved.
Answer:
X is ethanol.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 38

Question 33.
Complete the following reactions.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 39
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 40

Question 34.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 41
What are A and B?
Answer:
1) Alkynes undergo addition reaction in the presence of nickel catalyst and hydrogen to form Alkene.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 42

Question 35.
Draw the structure for the following compounds.
a) Propanoic acid
b) Chlorobutane
c) Hexanone
d) Pentanal
Answer:
a) CH3CH2COOH
b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2COCH3
d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 36.
Give IUPAC names of the following compounds. If more than one compound is possible, name all of them.
i) A chloride derived from butane.
ii) A ketone derived from pentane.
Answer:
i) The following chlorides are possible for butane.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 43
ii) The following ketones are possible for pentane.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 44

Question 37.
a) What are the various possible structural formulae of a compound having molecular formula C3H6?
b) Give IUPAC names of the above possible compounds and represent them in structure.
c) What is the difference between those
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 45

b) The IUPAC names of compounds are propene and cycle propane.
c) The main difference Is that the first compound Is alkene-an unsaturated compound and second is cyclo alkane-a saturated compound.

Question 38.
Draw isomeric forms of C6H14.
Answer:
Isomers of hexane :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 46
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 47

Question 39.
How do you appreciate the role of carbon in everyday life?
Answer:

  • Major components of our daily food have carbohydrates, proteins, fats, etc. which are all made up of carbon compounds.
  • The fibres of cloth are made up of cellulose and other types of materials, which are all carbon compounds.
  • Cement and steel form the core of any of the modern buildings. Carbon bestows steel with hardness, while limestone (CaCO3) a major constituent of cement also contains carbon.

Question 40.
How do you appreciate the role of oxygen in combustion process?
Answer:

  • When the oxygen supply is insufficient, the fuels burn incompletely producing mainly a yellow flame.
  • When the oxygen supply is sufficient, the fuels burn completely producing a blue flame.

Question 41.
How do you appreciate the role of Ethanol as a fuel?
Answer:

  • A material which is burnt to obtain heat is called a fuel. Since ethanol burns with a clear flame giving a lot of heat, it is used as a fuel.
  • Some countries add ethanol to petrol to be used as a fuel in cars. Thus ethanol is used as an additive in petrol.
  • Ethanol alone can also be used as a fuel for cars.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 42.
What are the uses of fullerenes?
Answer:
Fullerenes are under study for potential medical use such as specific antibiotics to target resistant bacteria and even target cancer cells such as melanoma.

Question 43.
Write the HJPAC names of the following compounds.
i) CH3 – CH0 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2OH
ii) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH- CH2 – \(\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)
iii) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
iv) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
Answer:

  1. nananol
  2. 4- ene – 1 heptyne
  3. pentanal
  4. pentanoic acid

Question 44.
What are the uses of alcohol?
Answer:

  • Alcohols are goods solvent for resin and gums.
  • Ethanol is used in the thermometers because of its low freezing point.
  • One of the products of ethyl alcohol is chloroform, which is used as an aesthetic.
  • 10% ethanol in gasoline is a good motor fuel.
  • It is used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups and many tonics.

Question 45.
What are the uses of acetic acid?
Answer:

  • 5 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is used widely as a preservative in pickles.
  • Used as a laboratory reagent.
  • Used in the production of perfumes, dyes, esters, etc.
  • Used in medicine.

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names for the following carbon compounds.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 48
Answer:
A) 2 – methyle pentane – 3 – ol
B) 3 – chloro, 4 – Methyle hexanoic acid
C) 2 Bromo – Bute – 2 – ene
D) 2, 5 Dimethyle hexane

Question 2.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 49 (AP June 2017)
Observe the given carbon compound and answer the following questions.
a) Give numbering to the carbons in the given compound according to IUPAC rules.
b) Name the functional group present in the given compound.
c) Name the word root for the given carbon compound.
d) Write the IUPAC name of the given compound.
Answer:
a)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 50
b) The given compound contains functional group – OH. It is an alcohol.
c) Word root: The number of carbon atoms present in the molecules is called word root. Here the word root is (C5) – pent.
d) IUPAC name of the given compound is pent 4 – ene 2 – ol.

Question 3.
Alkanes are considered as Paraffins. So, they undergo substitution reactions but not addition reactions. Explain with suitable example. (AP March 2017)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 51

Question 4.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 52
Observe the structure and answer the following.
a) Write the name of principal functional group present in the compound.
b) Identify the parental chain in the compound.
c) What are the substituents in the above compound?
d) Name the above compound as per IUPAC nomenclature. (AP June 2018)
Answer:
a) Ketone
b)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 53
c) Methyl group ; Hydroxy group
d) 7 – hydroxy – S – methyl heptan – 2 – one

Question 5.
In the table given below, fill the information in the empty boxes and give answers to the following questions. (TS June 2015)
a Write the general formula of alkanes from the table.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 54
b) How many a bonds are there in C3H6?
c) What sequential order did you notice in the molecular formulae?
d) There exist single bonds between carbon atoms of alkanes. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 55
a) The general formula of Alkanes is CnH2n+2
b) The number of o bonds in C2H6 are 7.
c) Two successive alkanes are differed by – CH2 group.
d) Except Methane all other alkanes have single bonds between carbon atmos because it is a saturated hydro carbon.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 6.
Why do we call alkanes as paraffins? Explain the substitution reactions of alkanes. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
a) 1. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with least reactivity.
2. Therefore they are called paraffins.
3. Parum = little and affins = affinity.

b) 1. A reaction in which one atom or a group of atoms in a given compound is replaced by other atom or group of atoms is called a substitution reaction.
2. Alkanes have single bonds and undergo substitution reactions.

3. For example :
Methane (CH4) reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 56

Question 7.
Write the types of Allotropes of Carbon. Give any three examples of each. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
The allotropes of carbon are classified into two types. They are
i) Amorphous forms,
ii) Crystalline forms.
Examples :
Amorphous forms :
Coal, coke, wood charcoal, animal charcoal, lamp black, gas carbon, petroleum coke, sugar charcoal, etc.

Crystalline forms :
Diamond, graphite, and buckminsterfullerene.

Question 8.
Write any 4 characteristic features of homologous series of Organic compounds. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
Homologous series :
The series of carbon compounds in which two successive compounds differ by – CH2 unit is called homologous series.

Characteristic features of homologous series :

  1. They have one general formula.
    Ex : Alkane (C4H2n + 2), Alkene (C4H2n), Alkyne (C4H2n-2)
  2. Successive compounds in their series possess a difference of (- CH2) unit.
  3. They possess similar chemical properties due to the same functional group.
  4. They show a regular gradation in their physical properties.

Question 9.
List out the materials required to conduct the experiment to understand the esterification reaction. Explain the procedure of the experiment. How can you identify that an ester is formed in this reaction?(TS March 2017)
Answer:
Required Material :
Test tube, beaker, tripod* burner, water, wire guage, ethanol (absolute alcohol), glacial acetic acid, concentrated sulphuric acid.

Procedure :

  1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid in the test tube.
  2. Warm it in a water bath or in a beaker containing water for atleast five (5) minutes.
  3. Pour the warm contents into a beaker containing 20-50 ml of water and observe the odour of the resulting mixture.
    If we smell sweet odour from the beaker, we can confirm that ester is formed.

Question 10.
Explain the Isomerism and Catenation properties of carbon. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Catenation properties of carbon :
i) Carbon has ability to form longest chains with its own atoms. This special property of carbon is called catenation.
ii) Due to catenation property of carbon it can form largest chain containing millions of carbon atoms, branches and cyclic compounds.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 57

Isomerism of carbon :
The phenomenon of possessing some molecular formula but different properties by the compounds is known as isomerism.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 58

Molecular formula of above two molecules is C4 H10 but they have different structure. These two are isomers.

By there two special properties of carbon it can make number of compounds.

Question 11.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 59
Observe the above table and answer the following questions. (TS March 2019)
1) Write the general formula of Alkanes.
2) Mention the names of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
3) Write the homologous series of Alkynes.
4) Write the formula of Hexyne.
Answer:
1) General formula for Alkanes : CnH2n+2.
2) Unsaturated Hydrocarbons in the list are :
Propene C3H6, Butene C4H6, Pentyne C5H8, Hexyne C6H10.

3) Homologous series of Alkynes is C2H2 (Ethyne), C3H4 (Propyne), C4H6 (Butyne), C5H8 (Pentyne), C6H10 (Hexyne).

4) Formula of Hexyne is C6H10.

Question 12.
Complete the following table based on functional groups of organic compounds, their structural formulas and respective suffixes. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 60
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 61

Question 13.
Explain the occurrence of carbon.
Answer:
Carbon occurs in nature in free state as well as in combined state.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 62

Question 14.
What is sp hybridisation? Explain.
Answer:

  • Each carbon is only joining to two other atoms rather than four or three.
  • Here the carbon atoms hybridise their outer orbitals before forming bonds, this time they only hybridise two of the orbitals.
  • They use the ‘s’ orbital (2s) and one of the 2p orbitals, but leave the other 2p orbitals unchanged.
  • The new hybrid orbitals formed are called sp-hybrid orbitals, because they are made by an s-orbital and a p-orbital reorganizing themselves.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 15.
Write the characteristics of homologous series of organic compounds.
Answer:
Characteristics of homologous series :

  1. They have one general formula.
    e.g.: Alkanes (CnH2n+2)
  2. Successive compounds in the series possess a difference of – CH2 unit.
  3. They possess similar chemical properties due to same functional group.
    e.g.: C – OH
  4. They show a regular gradation in their physical properties.

Question 16.
What is sp³ hybridisation with diagram? Explain.
Answer:
The excited carbon atom allows its one s-orbital (2s) and three p-orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz) to intermix and reshuffle into four identical orbitals known as sp³ orbitals. Thus, carbon atom undergoes sp³ hybridization. The four electrons enter the new four identical hybrid orbitals known as sp³ hybrid orbitals, one each as per Hu nd’s rule.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 63

1) Since carbon has four unpaired electrons, it is capable of forming bonds with four other atoms.

2) When carbon reacts with hydrogen, four hydrogen atoms allow their ‘s’ orbitals containing one electron each to overlap with four sp³ orbitals of carbon atom which are oriented at an angle of 109°. 28’.

3) Four orbitals of an atom in the outer shell orient along the four corners of a tetrahedron to have minimum repulsion between their electrons. ‘The nucleus of the atom is at the centre of the tetrahedron.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 64

4) This leads to form four sp³ – s sigma bonds between carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms, All these bonds are of equal energy,

Question 17.
What is sp² hybridisation? Explain.
Answer:
Consider ethene molecule
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 65

  • In the formation of CH2 – CH2 each carbon atom in its excited state undergoes sp² hybridisation by intermixing one s-orbital (2s) and two p-orbitals (say 2px and 2py) and reshuffling to form three sp² orbitals.
  • Mow each carbon atom is left with one ‘p’ orbital (say 2pz) unhybridised,
  • The three sp² orbitals having one electron each get separated around the nucleus of carbon atoms at an angle of 120°.
  • When carbon is ready to form bonds one sp² orbital of one carbon atom overlaps the sp² orbital of the other carbon atom to form sp² – sp² sigma (σ) bond,
  • The remaining two sp² orbitals of each carbon atom get overlapped by ‘s’ orbitals of two hydrogen atoms containing unpaired electrons.
  • The unhybridised pz orbitals on the two carbon atoms overlap laterally as shown in figure to form a π (pi) bond.
  • Hence, there exist a sigma (σ) bond and a pi π (pi) bond between two carbon atoms in ethene molecule. Hence, the molecule ethene (C2H4) is

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 66

Question 18.
The list of some organic compounds is given below.
Ethanol, ethane, methanol, methane, ethyne and ethene.
From the above list name the compound …………..
a) formed by the dehydration of ethanol by cone. H2SO4.
b) which forms methanoic acid on oxidation?
c) which forms chloroform on halogination in the presence of light?
d) which are unsaturated compounds?
e) which have compounds containing alcohol group?
Answer:
a) Dehydration ethanol in the presence of Cone. H2SO4 forms ethene,
b) Methanol on oxidation turns to methanoic acid,
c) Methane in the presence of light forms chloroform,
d) Unsaturated compounds are ethene and ethyne.
e) The compounds containing alcohol group are methanol, ethanol,

Question 19.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 67
Answer:

  1. 1 – propyne
  2. 3 – pentanel (or) pentamSml
  3. 2 – methyl propane
  4. 1, 2 dichloro ethane

Question 20.
Give one example of each of the following.
i) Saturated hydrocarbon
ii) Cyclic compounds
iii) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
iv) Functional group
v) Homologous series
Answer:
i) Saturated hydrocarbons are Alkanes, So the examples are methane (CH4), Ethane, (C2H6).
ii) Cyclic compounds are cycle alkanes, eg : Cyclo propane (C3H6), Cycle butane (C4H6).
iii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons are Aikynes, eg : Ethene (C2H4), Propene
iv) The examples for functional groups are ‘ 1. Aldehyde – CHO, 2. Alcohol = OH
v) A series of carbon compounds that differ by – CH2 with similar chemical properties is called homologous series.
eg: 1, Alkane, 2, Alkene

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 21.
Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Answer:

Saturated hydrocarbonsUnsaturated hydrocarbons
1) All the four valencies of each carbon atom are satisfied by forming single covalent bonds with carbon and hydrogen atoms,1) The valencies of at least two carbon atoms are not fully satisfied by the hydrogen atoms.
2) Carbon atoms are joined only by single bonds.2) Carbon atoms are joined by at least one double bond or by a triple bond.
3) They are less reactive due to non­availability of electrons in the single covalent bond therefore they undergo substitution reactions,3) They are more reactive because of the presence of electrons in the double or triple bond and therefore undergo addition reactions.

Question 22.
Answer the following.
a) What are the first three members of carboxylic acid series?
b) Name the compounds which can be oxidised directly or in stages to produce ethanoic acid.
c) Write one equation each when acetic acid reacts with a metal, a base, and a carbonate.
d) Name the organic compound formed when acetic acid and ethanol react together.
Answer:
a) The first three members of carboxylic acids are :
i) Methanoic acid – HCOOH
ii) Ethanoic acid – CH3COOH
iii) Propanoic acid – CH3CH2COOH

b) Ethanol in stages oxidises to acetic acid whereas ethanol directly oxidises to ethanoic acid.

c) i) 2 CH3COOH + 2 Na → 2CH3COONa + H2
ii) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
iii) CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2

d) When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid it forms an ester namely ethyl acetate.

Question 23.
What are the rules to be followed to name a carbon compound?
Answer:
Rules to be followed
i) Longest carbon chain is selected,
ii) Chain is numbered in such a way that the branched chain or substituent gets the smallest number,
iii) If the functional group is present, it is given the. lowest number,
iv) Substituents are named in the alphabetical order,
v) The position of substituents are prefixed with hyphen,
vi) Multiple substituents are written with numerical prefixes such as di or tri,

Question 24.
Write suffixes and prefixes for some important characteristic functional group in a tabular form.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 68

Question 25.
Correct the following statements.
1) Alkenes undergo substitution reactions.
2) Alkanes are polar in nature.
3) When sodium piece is added to ethanol oxygen gas liberates.
4) On complete combustion of carbon compound it gives carbon monoxide and water.
Answer:

  1. Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons. So they undergo addition reactions.
  2. Alkanes are covalent compounds. So they are non-polar in nature.
  3. When sodium piece is added to ethanol it releases hydrogen gas.
  4. On complete combustion of carbon compound it forms carbon dioxide and water.

Question 26.
Copy and complete the following table which relates to three homologous series of hydrocarbons.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 69
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 70

Question 27.
Draw the structures of isomers of butane.
Answer:
Isomers of butane are n-butane, iso butane and cyclo butane :
Structures :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 71

Question 28.
Draw the structures of the following.
a) Ethanoic acid
b) Propanal
c) Propene
d) Chloro propene
Answer:
Structures:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 72

Question 29.
Draw the structures of the following compounds
a) 2 – bromo pentane
b) 2 – methyl propane
c) butanal
d) 1 – hexyne
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 73

Question 30.
Write the molecular formula of the first four compounds of the homologous series of aldehydes.
Answer:
Homologous series of aldehydes ate Formaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Propionaldehyde and Butanaldehyde.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 74
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 75

Question 31.
How many isomers can be drawn for pentane with molecular formula C-H(2? What are they? Draw their structures and mention theii common names.
Answer:
Isomers of pentane are three. These are
1) Pentane
2) Iso pentane
3) Neo pentane.
Structures :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 76

Question 32.
Draw the Allotropes of Carbon. Diamond
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 77

Question 33.
Draw the Graphite.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds

Question 34.
Draw the Buckminsterfullerene (60C).
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 78

Question 35.
Draw the Nanotubes. A.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 79

Question 36.
Draw the structures of Methane :
Answer:
Methane :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 64

Question 37.
Draw the structures of Ethyne :
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 80

Question 38.
Draw structures of the Ethane and electron dot structure of Chlorine.
Answer:
Ethane:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 66
Chlorine:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 81

Question 39.
Draw the electron dot structures of Ethanoic acid arid Ethyne (Acetylene).
Answer:
Ethanoic acid (Acetic acid) :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 82
Structure of Ethyne (Acetylene) :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 80

Question 40.
Draw the electronic dot structure of ethane molecule.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 83

Question 41.
Write the structures of the following compounds.
a) prop-l-ene
b) 2, 3-dimethyl butane
c) 3-hexene
d) 2-methyl prop-l-ene
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 14 Carbon and its Compounds 84

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions 5th Lesson Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

10th Class Physics 5th Lesson Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Take a bright metal ball and make it black with soot on a candle flame. Immerse it in the water. Mention one observation. (AP June 2015)
Answer:
1) The ball shines.
2) The ball appears to raise up in water.

Question 2.
What is critical angle? (AP March 2015)
Answer:
The angle of incidence at which the light ray propagates from denser to rarer graze along interface is called critical angle of denser medium.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 3.
If refractive index of glass is \(\frac{3}{2}\), then what is speed of light in glass? (AP June 2016)
(OR)
Find the speed of light in a transparent medium, whose refractive index is 3/2.
Answer:
The refractive index of glass or transparent medium = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 1

Question 4.
Write any two questions about the ‘formation of mirages’. (AP June 2017)
Answer:

  1. When does a mirage form?
  2. How does a mirage form?

Question 5.
Optical Fibre Cable (OFC) are oftenly used in tele-communications. What is the working principle behind the OFC? (AP March 2017)
Answer:
Total Internal Reflection.

Question 6.
Among objects made of glass and diamond, which one shines more? Why? (AP June 2015)
Answer:
Diamond shines more because of low conical angle of 24.4°.

Question 7.
Suggest reasons for the phenomenon associated with the following : Twinkling of stars. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Refraction of light is the reason for the twinkling of stars.

Question 8.
Draw the diagram showing the path of the ray when it travels from denser medium to rarer medium when the incident angle is more than the critical angle. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 2

Question 9.
Why does the light ray deviate in refraction? (AP SA-1:2019-20)
Answer:
Light ray always chooses the path of least time to travel. Hence speed of light changes at interface of two media. So, the light ray deviate in refraction.

Question 10.
Name the phenomenon involved in the function of optical fibre. (AP SCERT : 2019-20)
Answer:
Total Internal Reflection.

Question 11.
What is Fermat’s principle?
Answer:
The light ray always travels in a path which needs shortest possible time to cover the distance between the two given points.

Question 12.
What happens when light travels from one medium to another medium?
Answer:
It bends towards or away from normal.

Question 13.
When does speed of light decrease?
Answer:
When it travels from rarer to denser medium.

Question 14.
What do you mean by denser medium?
Answer:
The medium which has more optical density.

Question 15.
What is refraction?
Answer:
The process of changing speed when light travels from one medium to another is called refraction of light.

Question 16.
Which quantity will compare the refractive indices of two media?
Answer:
Relative refractive index.

Question 17.
What is relative refractive index?
Answer:
It is the ratio of refractive index of second medium to refractive index of first medium.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 3

Question 18.
When does a light ray bend away from normal?
Answer:
When a light ray moves from denser to rarer medium it bends away from normal.

Question 19.
When will angle of refraction be equal to 90°?
Answer:
When angle of incidence is equal to critical angle then angle of refraction will be equal to 90°.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 20.
When angle of incidence of light ray is greater than critical angle, what happens?
Answer:
Light ray undergoes total internal reflection.

Question 21.
What happens to refractive index of air with height?
Answer:
Refractive index of air increases with height.

Question 22.
Which has greater refractive index between these?
1) cool air at the top
2) hotter air just above the road
Answer:
Cooler air has greater refractive index due to more density.

Question 23.
What is mirage?
Answer:
The virtual images of distant high objects cause the optical illusion called mirage.

Question 24.
What happens to a light ray when it falls perpendicular to one side of the slab surface?
Answer:
It comes out without any duration.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 25.
What are the conditions for total internal reflection?
Answer:

  1. The rays of light must travel from denser to rarer medium.
  2. The angle of incidence of denser medium must be greater than critical angle.

Question 26.
What is meant by a vertical shift?
Answer:
When a ray emerges out of a glass slab, it is parallel to the incident ray but is displaced laterally relative to incident ray. This shift of emergent ray is called vertical shift.

Question 27.
A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Answer:
It bends towards the normal. This is because it travels from an optically rarer to , optically denser medium.

Question 28.
When does Snell’s law fail?
Answer:
Snell’s law fails when light is incident normally on the surface of a refracting medium.

Question 29.
Why does a ray of light bend when it travels into another medium?
Answer:
It bends because its velocity changes when it moves from one medium to the other.

Question 30.
A pencil when dipped in a glass tumbler containing water appears to be bent at the interface of air and water. Explain why.
Answer:

  • When light travels obliquely from one transparent medium to another, the direction of propagation of light changes due to refraction of light.
  • In this case, light travels from denser medium to rarer medium, hence it bends away from the normal and the pencil appears to be bent.

Question 31.
Why does light travel in vacuum?
Answer:
Light travels in vacuum because it does not require medium for its propagation.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 32.
What are the factors on which refractive index depends?
Answer:

  1. Nature of material
  2. Wavelength of light used.

Question 33.
What does the ratio of sine of angle of incidence and sine of angle of refraction give?
Answer:
The ratio of sine of angle of incidence and sine of angle of refraction gives refractive index.

Question 34.
What is the relationship between critical angle and refractive index?
Answer:
The relationship between critical angle and refractive index
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 4

Question 35.
What is the relationship between angle of incidence and shift?
Answer:
As the angle of incidence increases, the shift also increases.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 36.
Why does a coin placed in a water appear to be raised?
Answer:
It is due to refraction of light.

Question 37.
Can you guess what happens when light travels from denser medium to rarer medium?
Answer:
The light ray bends away from normal.

Question 38.
A ray of light falls normally on a face of a glass slab. What are the values of angle of incidence and angle of refraction of this ray?
Answer:
Both angles are zero.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 39.
When does light ray from slab not undergo any deviation?
Answer:
The light ray that incidents perpendicular to one side of the slab surface comes out without any deviation.

Question 40.
What is the factor on which refraction depends?
Answer:
Refraction depends on optical density.

Question 41.
What is absolute refractive index?
Answer:
It is the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in medium.
\(\mathrm{n}=\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\)

Question 42.
In water filled vessel, the coin of the bottom can be seen at a height. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rising of coin when water is poured in a cylindrical transparent vessel.

Question 43.
Write one activity in showing the process of ‘total internal refraction’.
Answer:
Due to refraction of light speed of light changes when it travels from one medium to another medium.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 44.
Define “Glass Slab”.
Answer:
A thin glass slab is formed when a medium is isolated from its surroundings by two plane surfaces parallel to each other.

Question 45.
A ray of light is incident normally on a plane glass slab. What will be the angle of refraction and angle of deviation for the ray?
Answer:
The ray is incident normally on a plane glass slab. So there is no deviation of light ray. Therefore the angle of refraction and angle of deviation both have 0° values.

Question 46.
A light ray in passing from water to a medium (a) speeds up, (b) slows down. In each case get one example of the medium.
Answer:
a) Air, because its optical density is less than water,
b) Glass, because its optical density is more than water.

Question 47.
If an angle of refraction is 90°, what is the corresponding angle of incidence called?
Answer:
The angle of incidence is called critical angle.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 48.
If the angle of incidence is more than critical angle, what happens to light ray if the light ray travels from denser to rarer medium?
Answer:
The light ray undergoes total internal reflection.

Question 49.
The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement in relation to speed of light?
Answer:
It means that light travels 2.42 times faster in vacuum than in diamond.

Question 50.
For the same angle of incidence 45°, the angle of refraction in two transparent media, I and II is 20° and 30° respectively. Out of I and II, which medium is optically denser and why?
Answer:
Medium I is optically dense as angle of refraction is lesser in it, hence light bends towards normal.

Question 51.
For which colour of white light is the refractive index maximum and for which colour of white light is the refractive index minimum?
Answer:
The refractive index is maximum for violet because its wavelength is least.
The refractive index is minimum for red because its wavelength is maximum.

Question 52.
Correct the statement. “If the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle the light is refracted when it falls on the surface from a denser medium to rarer medium”.
Answer:
If the angle df incidence is greater than the critical angle the light undergoes total internal reflection when it falls on the surface from a denser medium to rarer medium.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 53.
A light ray passes from medium 1 to medium 2. Which of the following quantities of refracted ray will differ from that of the incident ray?
Speed, intensity, frequency, wavelength.
Answer:
Speed, intensity and wavelength will differ from that of incident ray.

Question 54.
The refractive indices of alcohol and turpentine oil with respect to air are 1.36 and 1.47 respectively. Find the refractive index of turpentine oil with respect to alcohol. Which one of these permits the light to travel faster?
Answer:
The refractive index of turpentine oil with respect to alcohol = \(\frac{1.47}{1.36}\) = 1.08.

The refractive index increases when the speed of light decreases. So light travels faster in alcohol as its refractive index is less.

Question 55.
Light enters from air to diamond which has refractive index of 2.42. Calculate the speed of light in diamond, if speed of light in air 3 × 108 ms-1.
Answer:
Absolute refractive index = \(\frac{c}{v}\)
2.42 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{\mathrm{v}}\) ⇒ v = 1.24 × 108 ms-1.

Question 56.
A glass block 3.0 cm thick is placed over a stamp. Calculate the height through which image of stamp is raised. Refractive index of glass is 1.54.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 5

Question 57.
The refractive index of water is 4/3. Calculate the critical angle for water – air interface (sin 49 = 3/4).
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 6

10th Class Physics 5th Lesson Reflection of Light by Different Surfaces 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A ray of light enters from air to a medium X. The speed of light in the medium is 1.5 × 108 m/s and the speed of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s.
Find the refractive index of the medium X. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 7

Question 2.
What are the applications of optical fibres?
(OR)
Write two uses of fibre optics in daily life. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
Applications oruses of optical fibres :

  1. Light pipes using optical fibres may be used to see places which are difficult to reach things such as inside of a human body.
  2. The other important application of fibre optics is to transmit communication signals through light pipes.

Question 3.
Focal length of the lens depends on its surrounding medium. What happens, if we use a liquid as surrounding media of refractive index, equal to the refractive index of lens? (TS June 2018)
Answer:

  • When the refractive index of surrounding media is equal to the refractive index of lens, the lens looses its characteristics.
  • Lens do not diverge or converge the light.
  • Light do not get refracted when it passes through that lens.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 4.
Why does the light ray travel slowly in diamond when compared to vacuum? (AP SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:

  • Refractive index of diamond (2.42) is greater than that of vacuum (1).
  • Speed of light is inversely proportional to refractive index of substances.
  • Hence, light ray travel slowly in diamond when compared to vacuum.

Question 5.
Write about laws of refraction.
(OR)
Write the laws of refraction.
Answer:
Laws of refraction :

  1. The incident ray, the refractive ray and the normal to interface of two transparent media at a point of incidence lie in the same plane.
  2. During refraction light follows Snell’s law, i.e., the ratio of sine of angled of incidence to sine of angle of refraction is constant.
    n1 sin i = n2 sin r (OR) \(\frac{\sin \mathrm{i}}{\sin \mathrm{r}}\) = constant.

Question 6.
What is total internal reflection ? What are the applications of total internal reflection?
Answer:
When the angle of incidence is greater than critical angle, the light ray is reflected into denser medium at interface i.e., light never enters rarer medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
1) Brilliance of diamonds :
Total internal reflection is the main cause for brilliance of diamonds. The critical angle of diamonds is very low (24.4°). So if a light ray enters a diamond it is very likely to get total internal reflection which makes the diamond shine brilliant.

2) Optical fibres:
Total internal reflection is the basic principle for working of optical fibre.

Question 7.
What are optical fibres? How do they work?
Answer:

  • An optical fibre is very thin fibre made of glass or plastic having radius about a micrometer.
  • A bunch of such thin fibres forms a light pipe.

Working :

  1. Because of the small radius of the fibre, light going into it makes a nearly glancing incidence on the wall.
  2. The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle and hence total internal reflection takes place.
  3. The light is thus transmitted along the fibre.

Question 8.
How can a patient’s stomach be viewed by using optical fibres?
(OR)
How do you observe patient’s stomach by using a light pipe?
Answer:

  • The patient’s stomach can be viewed by inserting one end of a light pipe into the stomach through the mouth.
  • Light is sent down through one set of fibres in the pipe.
  • This illuminates the inside of the stomach.
  • The light from the inside travels back through another set of fibres in the pipe and the viewer gets the image at the outer end.

Question 9.
State four differences between reflection and total internal reflection.
Answer:

ReflectionTotal internal reflection
1) Smooth polished surface is required for reflection.1) No smooth polished surface is required for total internal reflection.
2) It takes place for all angles of incidence.2) It takes place only, when angle of incidence is greater than critical angle.
3) It takes place when the rays of light travel from rarer to denser medium to an opaque medium.3) It takes place when rays of light travel from denser to rarer medium.
4) Some amount of light is absorbed by reflecting surface.4) No light is absorbed by reflecting surface.

Question 10.
The figure shows refraction and emergence of a ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab. Copy the diagram and mark the lateral displacement of the incident ray. Name the two factors on which the lateral displacement depends.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 8
Answer:
The lateral displacement depends on

  1. The angle of incidence of the incident ray PQ, on the slab and
  2. The thickness of the glass slab.

The perpendicular distance between the emergent forward.

Question 11.
1) What happens to a ray of light when it travels from one equal refractive indices?
2) State the cause of refraction of light.
Answer:
1) No refraction or bending would take place. The light will travel in a straight line.

2) The refraction occurs due to change in speed of light as it enters from one medium to another.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 12.
A coin placed at the bottom of a tank appears to be raised when water is poured into it. Explain.
Answer:

  • It happens due to the phenomenon of refraction of light.
  • When the rays of light from the coin, in the denser medium fall on the interface separating the two media, the rays of light move away from the normal after refraction.
  • The point from which the refracted rays appear to come gives the apparent position of the coin.
  • As the rays appear to come from a point above the coin, therefore, the coin seems to be raised.

Question 13.
Define refractive index. Explain the relationship between the refractive index of the medium and to the speed of light in the medium.
Answer:
The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in that medium is defined as refractive index ‘n’ with respect to the vacuum. It is also called absolute refractive index.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 9
When refractive index of a medium is high, then the speed of light is low and vice-versa.

Question 14.
Explain lateral shift and vertical shift.
Answer:
Lateral shift:
The distance between incident and emergent ray is called lateral shift.

Vertical shift :
The perpendicular distance between object and its image is called vertical shift.

Question 15.
During refraction of light, which of the following quantities does not change.
(1) velocity,
(2) wavelength,
(3) frequency,
(4) amplitude.
Answer:
During refraction of light velocity of light changes and also wavelength and amplitude. Frequency does not change during refraction.

Question 16.
The upper surface of water contained in a beaker and held above the eye level appears silvery. Why?
Answer:
Critical angle for water is 48°. The rays of light entering in water from below, suffer refraction. If these rays strike the water-air surface at an angle which is greater than 48°, they get totally internally reflected. These rays on emerging out of water, appear to come from the upper surface of water, which in turn appear silvery.

Question 17.
Why don’t the planets twinkle?
Answer:

  • The planets are much closer to the earth, and are thus seen as extended sources.
  • We can consider a planet as a collection of a large number of point-sized sources of light.
  • The total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all the individual point-sized sources will average out to zero, thereby nullifying twinkling effect

Question 18.
Why did an empty test tube placed obliquely in water, appears filled with mercury, when seen from above?
Answer:
When the rays of light travelling through water they strike the water glass interface of test tube at an angle, which is more than critical angle for water, they suffer total internal reflection. When these totally reflected rays reach eye, then to the eye they appear as they come from surface of test tube, which in turn appears filled with mercury.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 19.
Why are the bubbles rising up the fish tank appear silvery?
Answer:
When the rays of light travelling through water they strike the water air interface of the bubble at an angle, which is greater than critical angle for water, they get totally internally reflected. These reflected rays on reaching the eye appear to come from air bubble, which in turn appears silvery.

Question 20.
Why does a crack in a window pane appear silvery?
Answer:
There is always some amount of air present in the crack. When the rays of light travelling through glass, strike the glass, the glass air interface at an angle, greater than critical angle of glass, they are totally internally reflected. When these reflected rays reach eye, then to the eye they appear to come from the crack, which in turn appears silvery.

Question 21.
Explain why a straight stick appears to be bent when dipped in water.
Answer:

  • Suppose two rays originate from the end of the stick in water.
  • As these rays get refracted into the air, they bend away from the normal.
  • When these two refracted rays are produced backwards they seem to meet at a point higher than the end of stick.
  • This point gives the apparent position of the end of the stick. Thus, the stick appears to be bent.

Question 22.
A pond appears to be shallower than it really is when viewed obliquely. Why?
Answer:

  • Suppose two rays originate from the bottom of the pond. As these rays get refracted into the air, they bend away from the normal.
  • When these two refracted rays are produced backwards they seem to meet at a point higher than the bottom of the pond.
  • This point gives the apparent position of the bottom of the pond.
  • Thus, the pond appears to be shallower.
  • This effect is absent if the pond is viewed normally.

Question 23.
Frame some questions to know about the formation of mirages.
Answer:

  1. What are mirages?
  2. What is the principle involved in mirages?
  3. Can mirages be photographed?
  4. Where does the water on the road go?

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 24.
A glass slab is placed over a piece of paper on which VIBGYOR is printed with each letter into corresponding colours.
1) Will the image of all the letters be in the same place?
2) The letter of which colour appears to be raised maximum and which colour minimum? Explain your answer.
Answer:

  1. The image of all letters will not be in the same place.
  2. The letter of violet colour appears to be raised maximum, while the letter of red colour appears to be raised minimum because refractive index of glass is most for the violet light while least for the red light, therefore the apparent depth is least for violet and most for red.

Question 25.
Why does sun appear bigger during the sunset or the sunrise?
Answer:

  1. We already know that the apparent position of sun is higher than actual position in the horizon.
  2. Moreover, due to refraction, the apparent image of sun is closer to eye than the actual position. Since during sunset or sunrise, the rays of light travel through maximum length of atmosphere therefore the refraction is also maximum.
  3. Hence apparent image of sun is very much closer to eye. Thus it appears bigger.

Question 26.
Write the material required in finding out the relation between angle of incidence and angle of refraction.
Answer:
Material required :
A plank, white chart, protractor, scale, small black painted plank, a semi-circular glass disc of thickness nearly 2cm, pencil and laser light.

Question 27.
Write the aim and apparatus experiment in finding the refractive index of the glass slab.
Answer:
Aim :
Finding the refractive index of the glass slab.

Apparatus :
Glass slab, white chart, pin.

Question 28.
Observe the following table and answer the following question.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 10
Questions :
1) Find out from the table the medium having highest optical density and the medium with lowest optical density.
2) You are given kerosene, turpentine oil and water. In which of these does the light travel fast? Use the information given in the table.
3) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
4) When light travels from water to crown glass, what happens?
5) When light travels from diamond to air, what happens?
Answer:
1) The medium with highest optical density is diamond as its refractive index is maximum, i.e. 2.42.
The medium with lowest optical density is air, as its refractive index is minimum, i.e. 1.0003.

2) The refractive index of medium is given by the expression, n = \(\frac{c}{v}\) or v = \(\frac{c}{n}\)
This expression shows that light travels faster in the medium whose refractive index is minimum. From the table, we can find that water has the minimum value of refractive index. Therefore light travels faster in water.

3) This statement means that light travels 2.42 times faster in vacuum than in diamond.

4) The light bends towards normal.

5) The light bends away from the normal.

Question 29.
A ray of light enters from a medium A into a slab made up of a transparent substance B. Refractive indices of medium A and B are 2.42 and 1.65 respectively. Complete the path of ray of light till it emerges out of slab.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 11
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 12

Question 30.
A glass slab made of material of refractive index n1 is kept in medium of refractive index n2. A light ray is incident on the slab. Complete the path of rays of light emerging from glass slab, if a) n1 > n2 b) n1 = n2 c) n1 < n2.
Answer:
a) n1 > n2
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 13

b) n1 = n2
There is no deviation of light ray
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 14
c) n1 < n2
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 15

Question 31.
How do you appreciate the process of total internal reflection in nature?
Answer:

  1. Total internal reflection is responsible for brilliance of diamond.
  2. Total internal reflection is basic pruxiplo behind working of optical fibres which are used in getting the images ol internal ouaiis and also used in telecommunications. So the role of total internal reflection is thoroughly appreciated.

Question 32.
Write the application of optical fibres in communication.
Answer:

  • Optical fibres are used to transmit communication signals through light pipes.
  • For example, about 2000 telephone signals, approximately mixed with lightwaves, may be simultaneously transmitted through a typical optical fibre.
  • The clarity of the signals transmitted in this way is much better than other conventional methods.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 33.
Write the applications of total internal reflection.
Answer:
Application of total internal reflection :

  1. Brilliance of diamonds,
  2. Optical fibres.

Question 34.
A monochromatic ray of light strikes the surface of transparent medium at an angle of incidence 60° and gets refracted into the medium at an angle of refraction 45°. What is the refractive index of the medium?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 16

Question 35.
A light ray enters a liquid at an angle of incidence 45° and it gets refracted on liquid at angle of refraction 30°. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 17

Question 36.
Refractive index of water is 4/3. Calculate the speed of light in water.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 18

Question 37.
A postage stamp placed under glass appears raised by 8 mm. If refractive index of glass is 1.5, calculate the actual thickness of glass slab.
Answer:
Let real thickness of glass = x.
Vertical shift = 8 mm.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 19

Question 38.
Refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find its critical angle.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 20

Question 39.
What is the advantage of using prism in place of plane mirror in periscope or binocular?
Answer:

  • When total internal reflection occurs from a prism, the entire incident light is reflected back into the denser medium.
  • Whereas in ordinary reflection from a plane mirror, some light is refracted and absorbed. So the reflection is partial.
  • This is the reasons why total reflecting prism is used in place of a plane mirror to deviate the light ray by 90° in a periscope and 180° in a binocular.

10th Class Physics 5th Lesson Reflection of Light by Different Surfaces 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the angle of deviation produced by the glass slab? Explain with ray diagram. (AP June 2015)
(OR)
Which angle of deviation is produced by glass slab? Write your explanation with a ray diagram.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

  1. Angle of deviation is the angle between incident ray and emergent ray.
  2. The angle of deviation produced by a glass slab is ‘O’, because the incident ray and emergent ray are parallel to each other that can be seen in the figure.

Question 2.
Explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection with two examples. (AP June 2018)
(OR)
What is total internal reflection? Explain with examples. (AP SA-I:2019-20)
Answer:

  • When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the light ray is reflected into denser medium at interface. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
  • Total internal reflection is the main reason for brilliance of diamonds. The critical angle of a diamond is very low. So if a light ray enters a diamond it is very likely to undergo total internal reflection which makes the diamond shine.
  • Total internal reflection is the basic principle behind working of optical fibre. Because of the small radius of the fibre light going into it makes a nearly glancing incidence is greater than the critical angle and hence total internal reflection takes place. The light is thus transmitted along the fibre.

Question 3.
Explain the relation between angle of incidence and angle of refraction with an experiment. (AP March 2018)
Answer:
Aim :
To verify the relation between angle of incidence and angle of refraction.

Material required :
A plank, white chart, protractor, semicircular glass disc, pencil and leser light.

Procedure :

  1. Take a drawing sheet on a cardboard and mark different angles (on both side of MM line)
  2. Place a semi circular glass disc, so that its diameter coincides with the line “MM”.
  3. Send a laser light along a line with makes 15° with NN.
  4. Let it is incident angle.
  5. Measure its corresponding angle of refraction by observing light coming from outside of the glass slab.
  6. Repeat this experiment with various values of angle of incidence, refraction and not in the table.

7.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 21
8. From the above table we observe that \(\frac{\sin \mathrm{i}}{\sin r}\) = constant.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 5AP SSC 10th Class Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 6

Question 4.
Give some daily life consequences of refraction of light.
Answer:

  • A star appears twinkling in the sky.
  • The sun is seen a few minutes before it rises above the horizon in the morning and in the evening few minutes longer after it sets.
  • A coin kept in a vessel not visible when seen from just below the edge of the vessel, can be viewed from the same position when water is poured into the vessel.
  • A print appears to be raised when a glass block placed over it.
  • A piece of paper stuck at the bottom of a glass block appears to be raised when seen from above.
  • A tank appears shallow than its actual depth.
  • A person’s legs appear to be short when standing in a tank.
  • An object placed in a denser medium when viewed from a rarer medium appears to be at a lesser depth.
  • An object in a rarer medium, when viewed from a denser medium, appears to be at a greater distance than its real distance.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 5.
What are the factors which influence refractive index of material?
Answer:

  • Nature of medium, i.e. its optical density. Smaller the speed of light in a medium relative to air, higher is the refractive index of the medium.
  • Physical condition such as temperature. With rise in temperature the speed of light in medium increases, so the refractive index of medium decreases.
  • The colour or wavelength of light (refractive index increases with decrease in wavelength, eg : µv > µR).

Question 6.
What is the advantage of total internal reflection over reflection?
Answer:

  • In the process of total internal reflection, 100% energy is reflected back.
  • No other device such as plane mirror, etc. produces 100% reflection due to absorption and refraction of some part of light.
  • Due to this property the phenomenon total internal reflection is of great practical application in the construction of periscope, binocular and certain type of camera.

Question 7.
The diagram below shows a glass block suspended in a liquid. A beam of light of single colour is incident from liquid on one side of block.
1) Draw diagrams to show how light bends when it travels from liquid to glass and then to liquid if (i) the light slows down in glass (ii) the light speeds up in glass.
2) State two conditions under which the light ray moving from liquid to glass passes straight without bending. Will the glass be visible them?
Answer:
1) If light slows down in going from liquid to glass (i.e., µglass > µliquid), it will bend towards the normal at the point of incidence in passing from liquid to glass at the first surface, while it is bent away from normal at the second surface in passing from glass to liquid. In the ray diagram, the light beam suffers lateral shift.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 22

2) If light speeds up in going from liquid to glass (i.e., µglass < µliquid). It will bend away from the normal at the point of incidence on the first surface in passing from liquid to glass, while it bends towards the normal at the second surface in passing from glass to liquid. The light beam suffers lateral shift in direction opposite to that
Note that in both cases, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 23

Question 8.
A ray of light is incident on a rectangular glass block PQRS, which is silvered at the surface RS. The ray is partly reflected and partly refracted.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 24
1) Trace the path of reflected and refracted rays.
2) Show at least two rays emerging from the surface PQ after reflection from the surface RS.
3) How many images are formed in the above case? Which image is the brightest?
Answer:
1) In the figure OB is reflected ray and OC is the refracted ray for the incident ray AO.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 25
2) Two rays emerging from surface PQ after reflections for the surface RS are labelled as 1 and 2.

3) Multiple (or infinite) images are formed. The second image formed due to first reflection at C at the silvered surface RS is the brightest. It is seen in the direction of ray 1.

Question 9.
What are the factors which affect critical angle? The critical angle for a given pair of media depends on their refractive index which is affected by the following factors.
Answer:
1. Effect of colour of light:
The refractive index of transparent medium is more for violet light and less for red light, therefore the critical angle for pair of media is less for the violet light and more for the red light. Thus critical angle increases with increase in wavelength of light.

2. Effect of temperature :
On increasing the temperature of medium, its refractive index decreases, so the critical angle for that pair of media increases. Thus critical angle increases with increase in temperature.

Question 10.
The table shows the refractive index of some material media.

Material MediumRefractive Index
Air1.0003
Ice1.31
Water1.33
Kerosene1.44
Fused quartz1.46
Turpentine oil1.47
Crown glass1.52
Benzene1.50

Answer the following questions with the help of the above table.
1) Find the speed of light in Benzene.
2) Write the relationship between mass density and optical density of kerosene and water.
3) What are the factors that refractive index depends on?
4) Write the relative refractive index of kerosene with water.
Answer:
1)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 26
Speed of light in benzene = 2 × 108 m/s

2) Optical denser medium may not possess greater mass density. Kerosene with high refractive index is optically denser than water although its mass density is lesser than water.

3) Refractive index depends on
1) nature of material,
2) wavelength of light used.

4) Relative refractive index of kerosene with water = \(\frac{1.44}{1.33}\) = 1.08

Question 11.
Red light of wavelength 6600A travelling in air gets refracted in water. If the speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms-1 and refractive index of water is 4/3, find the
(i) frequency of light in air,
(ii) the speed of light in water,
(iii) the wavelength of light in water.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 27

Question 12.
Draw the ray diagram which shows the ray takes curved path because of total internal reflection.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 28

Question 13.
Give some daily life consequences of total internal reflection?
Answer:

  • On a hot sunny day, a driver may see a pool of water on the road before him. It is the phenomenon of mirage which is often observed in desert.
  • An empty test tube placed in a beaker with mouth outside the water surface shines like a mirror.
  • A crack in a glass vessel often shines like a mirror.
  • A piece of diamond sparkles when viewed from certain directions.
  • An optical fibre is used to transmit a light signal over a long distance with negligible loss of energy.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces

Question 14.
Light travels from air to water, then the refraction index of water is 1.33. Hence find the refractive index when light travels from water to air.
Answer:
Refractive index of water (n21) = 1.33
Refractive index of air (n12) = \(\frac{1}{1.33}\) = 0.75

Question 15.
The refractive index of diamond is 2.42 and the refractive index of glass is 1.5; compare the critical angle between them. (Diamond 24°, glass 42°)
Answer:
Refractive index of diamond (µ1) = 2.42
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 29

Question 16.
A ray of light travels from an optically denser to rarer medium. The critical angle of the two media is ‘C’. What is the maximum possible deviation of the ray?
Answer:
The relation between angle of deviation and angle of incidence, angle of emergence and angle of prism is given by
Angle of deviation = i1 + i2 – A
For maximum deviation, Angle of incidence (i1) = 90°
Angle of emergence (i2) = 90°
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 30
∴ Maximum deviation = i1 + i2 – A = 90 + 90 – 2C = 180 – 2C = n – 2C.

Question 17.
A ray of light strikes a glass slab 5 cm thick making an angle of incidence equal to 30°.
a) Construct the ray diagram showing emergent ray and refracted ray through the glass block. The refractive index of glass is 1.5.
b) Measure the lateral shift of the ray.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 5 Refraction of Light at Plane Surfaces 31

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions 13th Principles of Metallurgy

10th Class Chemistry 13th Lesson Principles of Metallurgy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which method is suitable to enrich sulphide ores? (AP June 2016)
Answer:
Froth flotation method is suitable to enrich sulphide ores.

Question 2.
We use P.V.C. pipes for water supply instead of metal pipes. Why? (AP March 2017)
Answer:
PVC pipes do not rust. So they are used as water pipes instead of metal.

Question 3.
Arrange the metals Fe, Na, Ag and Zn in increasing order of their chemical reactivity. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
Ag < Fe < Zn < Na
(OR)
Ag, Fe, Zn, Na

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 4.
Write the deferences between Roasting and Calcination. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
1) Burning of ore in the presence of air or oxygen is called “Roasting”.
So in the roasting air is present.

2) Burning of ore in the absence of air or oxygen is called “Calcination.”
So in the calcination air is absent.

Question 5.
What are the preventive methods do you take for rusting iron materials? (TS March 2018)
Answer:

  1. Covering the surface of iron materials with paint or by some chemicals.
  2. Electroplating.

Question 6.
Mention the application of thermite process in daily life. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
1) Joining railing of railway tracks,
2) Joining cracked machine parts.

Question 7.
What are the essential condition that iron articles get rust? (TS June 2019)
Answer:
The essential condition that iron articles get rust is presence of water and air both.

Question 8.
What is metallurgy?
Answer:
The process of extraction of metals from their ores is called metallurgy.

Question 9.
What is the Bronze an alloy of?
Answer:
Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 10.
What are ores?
Answer:
The minerals from which the metals are extracted without economical loss are called ores.

Question 11.
What is the percentage of Aluminium oxide in Bauxite?
Answer:
50-70%.

Question 12.
Why is 16th group called chalcogen family?
Answer:
Chaleo means ore and genus means produce. We notice that the ores of many metals are oxides and sulphides. This is why oxygen-sulphur (16th group) group as chalcogen family.

Question 13.
Which metals form oxides, sulphides and carbonates?
Answer:
Moderate reactive metals.

Question 14.
Based on the reactivity arrange the metals.
Answer:
Based on reactivity we can arrange metals in descending order of their reactivity as shown below:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 1

Question 15.
What is gangue?
Answer:
The unwanted material in the ore is called gangue.

Question 16.
What is activity series?
Answer:
Arrangement of the metals in decreasing order of their reactivity is known as activity series.

Question 17.
Why do we add some impurities to ore?
Answer:
We add some suitable impurities to ore in order to decrease its melting point.

Question 18.
What is roasting?
Answer:
Roasting is a pyrochemical process in which ore is heated in the presence of oxygen or air below its melting point.

Question 19.
What is thermite process?
Answer:
The reaction of metal oxides with aluminium is called thermite process.

Question 20.
Write the chemical equations involving thermite reaction.
Answer:
2 Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2 Fe + heat
2 Al + Cr2O3 → Al2O3 + 2 Cr + heat

Question 21.
How do you convert cinnabar into mercury?
Answer:
When cinnabar (HgS) is heated in air, it is first converted into (HgO), then reduced to mercury on further heating.

Question 22.
What is distillation of metals?
Answer:
The extracted metal in the molten state is distilled to obtain the pure metal as distillate by distillation of metals. Here the impurities are high boiling point metals.

Question 23.
What is poling?
Answer:
The molten metal is stirred with logs (poles) of greenwood and impurities are removed either as gases or they get oxidized and form slag over surface of the molten metal is called poling.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 24.
What is liquation?
Answer:
A low melting metal can be made to flow on a slope surface to separate it from high melting impurities is called liquation.

Question 25.
What is calcination?
Answer:
Calcination is a pyrochemical process in which the ore is heated in the absence of air.

Question 26.
What is flux?
Answer:
Flux is a substance added to the ore to remove the gangue from it by reacting with ore.

Question 27.
What are the ores of iron?
Answer:
Haematite (Fe2O3), Magnetite (Fe3O4).

Question 28.
What are the ores of zinc?
Answer:
Zinc blende (ZnS), Zincite (ZnO).

Question 29.
What is the formula of gypsum and metal present in gypsum?
Answer:
The formula of gypsum is CaSO4.2H2O. The metal present in gypsum is calcium.

Question 30.
What is a furnace?
Answer:
The furnace is one which is used to carry out pyrochemical process in metallurgy.

Question 31.
Arrange the following chlorides in ascending order of reactivity of respective metals. MgCl2, NaCl, PbCl2, HgCl2.
Answer:
The ascending order is HgCl2, PbCl2, MgCl2, NaCl.

Question 32.
What are the fuel and flux for haematite ore?
Answer:
The coke is used as fuel and limestone (CaCO3) is used as flux for haematite ore.

Question 33.
Why can copper not displace zinc from its compound?
Answer:
Copper is less reactive than zinc. So copper cannot displace zinc from its compound or salt.

Question 34.
How do various metals in activity series react with chlorine on heating?
Answer:

  1. All the metals react with chlorine on heating to form their respective chlorides.
  2. But the reactivity decreases from top to bottom.

Question 35.
How do you know the reactivity of metals with chlorine decreases from top to bottom?
Answer:
We know that the reactivity of metals with chlorine decreases from top to bottom the heat evolved when the metal reacts with one mole of chlorine gas to form chloride.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 36.
Give some examples for corrosion.
Answer:
Examples for corrosion :

  1. The rusting of iron (Iron oxide)
  2. Tarnishing of silver (Silver sulphide)
  3. Development of green coating on copper (Copper carbonate) and bronze.

Question 37.
Why are potassium, sodium, calcium never found in free state?
Answer:
The metals potassium, sodium and calcium are so reactive that is why they never exist in free state.

Question 38.
How do you extract metals at the top of activity series?
Answer:
The metals at the top of activity series are extracted by electrolysis of their fused compounds.

Question 39.
What is meant by enrichment of ore?
Answer:
Some physical methods are useful in removing unwanted rocky material from ore. It is called enrichment of ore.

Question 40.
How do you extract metal from the crude metal?
Answer:
To extract metal from enriched ore it is converted into metallic oxide by reduction reaction. Then this metallic oxide is further reduced to get metal with certain impurities.

Question 41.
What are the impurities you get in the refining of copper?
Answer:
Antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and platinum.

Question 42.
What is slag?
Answer:
The substance formed due to reaction of gangue and flux,
Eg : CaSiO3, FeSiO3

Question 43.
What is meant by pyrochemical reactions?
Answer:
Pyre means heat. So the chemical reactions involving heat are called pyrochemical reactions.

Question 44.
Can you mention some articles that are made up of metals?
Answer:
Jewellery, conducting wires and utensils.

Question 45.
Why are we mixing small amount of carbon to iron?
Answer:
To make iron hard and strong.

Question 46.
What is the main difference between steel and stainless steel?
Answer:
Steel will rust whereas stainless steel will not rust.

Question 47.
Give some examples for corrosion.
Answer:
The rusting of iron, tarnishing of silver, development of green coating on copper.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 48.
Do metals exist in the same form as that we use in our daily life?
Answer:
No, they exist as ores and minerals and some may exist in the form of metals.

Question 49.
Do you know how metals are obtained?
Answer:
The metals are extracted from their ores.

Question 50.
Have you ever heard the words like ore, mineral and metallurgy?
Answer:
Yes, these words are related to extraction of metal.

Question 51.
Where do we carry out pyrochemical processes in metallurgy?
Answer:
Pyrochemical processes can be carried out inside the furnace.

Question 52.
Which process converts sulphide ore into oxide ore?
Answer:
Roasting is the process which converts sulphide ore into oxide ore.

Question 53.
Is silver mineral or ore? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Silver is neither mineral nor ore. It is a metal.

Question 54.
Give two examples for corrosion.
Answer:
1) Rusting of iron
2) Green coating on copper.

Question 55.
Name the form of carbon used in the blast furnace for the extraction of iron.
Answer:
Carbon is used in the form of coke to reduce iron in blast furnace.

Question 56.
Give name and formulae of sulphide ore of lead and mercury.
Answer:
a) Sulphide ore of lead is Galena. Its formula is PbS.
b) Sulphide ore of mercury is Cinnabar. Its formula is HgS.

Question 57.
What are the various pyrochemical processes used in metallurgy?
Answer:
The various pyrochemical processes used are
a) Smelting,
b) Roasting,
c) Calcination.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 58.
What is the gas released at anode when fused sodium chloride is electrolysed?
Answer:
When sodium chloride is electrolysed, sodium metal is formed at cathode and chlorine gas is formed at anode.
NaCl → Na+ + Cl
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 2

Question 59.
Which pyrochemical process is useful to convert zinc blende into oxide ore?
Answer:
Zinc blende is sulphide ore of zinc. Its formula is ZnS. So it can be converted into oxide ore by heating strongly in excess of air known as roasting.
2 ZnS + 3 O2 → 2 ZnO + 2 SO2

Question 60.
Which pyrochemical process is useful to convert Magnesite into oxide ore?
Answer:
Magnesite is carbonate ore of magnesium. Its formula is MgCO3. So it can be converted into oxide ore by heating in the absence of air.
MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

Question 61.
What is the main impurity present in iron when it is removed from the blast furnace?
Answer:
The main impurity that can be removed is slag because it is formed when gangue in the ore reacts with flux.
CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3

Question 62.
Name two metals normally manufactured by the electrolysis of fused compounds.
Answer:
Metals with high reactivity can be extracted by electrolysis of their fused compounds.
The examples are potassium, sodium and calcium.

Question 63.
What are the examples of corrosion?
Answer:

  1. Rusting of iron.
  2. Tarnishing of silver.
  3. Development of green coating on copper (CuCO3).
  4. Green coating on Bronze.

Question 64.
What is importance of prevention of corrosion?
Answer:

  1. Save the money.
  2. Preventing accidents such as a bridge collapse.
  3. Failure of a key component.

Question 65.
What is meant by galvanisation?
Answer:
Preventing the rust on metals by using layer of zinc. This phenomena is called galvanisation.

Question 66.
Write the example of electroplating in daily life.
Answer:

  1. Rold gold.
  2. Copper coating on cookware.

Question 67.
What is formula and name of iron rust?
Answer:
Iron rust is equal to hydrated ferric oxide.
Formula : Fe2O3 × H2O

Question 68.
What is importance of alloying?
Answer:

  1. Improving the properties of metal.
  2. To avoid the rust.
  3. To increase the hardness.

Question 69.
Which one used as flux extracting of iron from heamatite?
Answer:
Limestone or calcium carbonate (CaCO3).

Question 70.
Marne the two metals which corrode easily?
Answer:
Iron and copper.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 71.
Atmospheric air always contains moisture. Then, how can you protect iron articles from the affect of atmosphere?
Answer:
By painting, oiling and greasing, etc.

Question 72.
Explain the terms gangue and flux.
Answer:
The impurity present in the ore is called gangue. The substance added to the ore to remove gangue from it is called flux.

Question 73.
What are the metals are present in carnallite?
Answer:
Potassium (K) and Magnesium (Mg).

Question 74.
Write the elements are present in high reactivity series.
Answer:
Na, Mg, Al, K, Ca
(11 12 13 19 20)

Question 75.
Write the elements that are in moderate reactivity series.
Answer:
Fe, Cu, Zn, Pb.

Question 76.
Name the two metals which do not corrode easily?
Answer:
Gold and platinum.

Question 77.
Mention some important methods of refining.
a) Distillation
b) Poling
c) Liquation
d) Electrolysis
Answer:
d) Electrolysis

Question 78.
What is the role of furnace in metallurgy?
Answer:
Furnace is the one which is used to carry out pyrochemical process in metallurgy.

Question 79.
What is meant by calcination?
Answer:
It is the process of heating the concentrated ore in the absence of air.

Question 80.
Write the equation of heating of one sulphide ore in the process of roasting.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 3

Question 81.
Mention two methods which produce very pure metals?
Answer:
a) Electrolytic reduction.
b) Smelting.

Question 82.
What are the applications of thermite reaction in daily life?
Answer:
a) To join railings of railway tracks.
b) To join cracked machine parts.

Question 83.
Arrange the metals Ag, Mg, K in reactivity series.
Answer:
K > Mg > Ag.

Question 84.
How do you extract highly reactive metals?
Answer:
Highlyreactive metals can be extracted by electrolysis of their fused compounds.

Question 85.
What is dressing of an ore?
Answer:
The process of removal of impurities from an ore is called dressing of the ore or concentration of the ore.

Question 86.
Write the equation of example of calcination.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 4

Question 87.
Write the some properties of metals.
Answer:
Malleability, Ductility, Sonarity and Electrical conductivity.

Question 88.
Mention the stages involved in extraction of a metal from its ore.
Answer:

  1. Dressing or concentration.
  2. Extraction of crude metal.
  3. Refining or purification of the metal.

Question 89.
How do you extract moderately reactive metals?
Answer:
These metals are generally sulphides and carbonates. They are converted into oxides before reducing them to metals.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 90.
Give an example for reduction of metal oxide with carbon.
Answer:
The oxides are reduced by coke in a furnace which gives the metal and carbon monoxide.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 5

Question 91.
Give an example for reduction of oxide ore with CO.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 6

Question 92.
What is flux?
Answer:
Flux is a substance added to the ore to remove the gangue from it by reacting with ore. If the impurity is acidic substance, basic substance is used as flux and vice – versa.

Question 93.
How do various metals in activity series react with chlorine on heating?
Answer:

  1. All the metals react with chlorine on heating to form their respective chlorides.
  2. But the reactivity decreases from top to bottom.

Question 94.
What are the substances to be added if the gangue is acidic or basic?
Answer:
If the gangue (impurity) is acidic substance like SiO2, basic substance like CaO is used as flux and if the impurity is of basic nature like FeO acidic flux like SiO2 is added to the gangue.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 7

Question 95.
Why will stainless steel not rust?
Answer:
Stainless steel is prepared by mixing iron with nickel and chromium. Nickel and chromium are less reactive with oxygen. So stainless steel will not rust.

Question 96.
Why is sodium metal stored in kerosene?
Answer:
Sodium is highly reactive with both air (oxygen) and water. So it should be stored in kerosene.

Question 97.
Which metal gets covered with protective film of oxide when exposed to air?
Answer:
The metal is aluminium. When aluminium is exposed to air it forms a protective layer of aluminium oxide (Al2O3).

Question 98.
All ores are minerals, but all minerals need not be ores. Why?
Answer:
A mineral from which a metal can be extracted and economical loss is called ore.

Question 99.
Why is carbon not used for reducing aluminium from aluminium oxide?
Answer:
The oxide of Aluminium is very stable and can be reduced by electrolytic process.

Question 100.
Name few metals which occur in native state in nature. Why?
Answer:
Gold, Platinum, Silver are the metals which occur in native state, because of their low chemical reactivity.

Question 101.
Why do we call oxygen – sulphur group is chalcogen family?
Answer:
Chaleo means ore. We know that most of ores of many metals are oxides and sulphides. That’s why oxygen – sulphur group is called chalcogen family.

Question 102.
Aluminium occurs in combined state in nature whereas gold is in free state. Why?
Answer:
Gold has low reactivity and so occurs in free state. Aluminium is electropositive metal and high reactivity. So it is oxide or chloride.

Question 103.
What are the uses of thermite reaction?
Answer:
Thermite reaction is used to join railings of railway tracks or cracked machine parts.

10th Class Chemistry 13th Lesson Principles of Metallurgy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define mineral. Mention any two ores of ‘magnesium’. (AP June 2017)
Answer:
1) Minerals :
The elements or compounds of the metals which occur in nature in the earth crust are called ‘minerals’.

2) Two ores of magnesium :
Magnesite – MgCO3
Carnalite – KCl MgCl2 6H2O

Question 2.
Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium are high reactive metals and occur as chlorides in nature. Suggest and explain the suitable method for the extraction of the above metals from their ores. (AP March 2017)
Answer:

  • The suitable method to extract these metals from their chlorides is electrolysis of their fused compounds.
  • It is not feasible for method of reduction, electrolysis of their aqueous solutions.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 3.
Predict, what happens in the field of domestic use of metals if alloys were not discovered. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
If alloys were not discovered,

  1. All the vessels/utensils made of single metal like iron, copper, aluminium, etc. may be used for cooking purpose.
  2. We may face problems like rusting of iron, tarnishing of silver and copper, etc.
  3. We may face the problems of corrosion of home appliances.
  4. We may face difficulties in cleaning of the vessels due to rusting and tarnishing.
  5. Cost of the utensils may be risen, because of less availability of the metals like copper.
  6. Using of the plastic ware may be risen for storage due to lack of steel containers.
  7. Brass, steel, bronze, etc. utensils are not available to use.
  8. Making of jewellary is also difficult.

Question 4.
Give an example with the chemical equation for the reduction of ores using more reactive metals. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
The reaction of Iron oxide with aluminium.
Fe2O3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O3 + Heat
(Or)
Reaction of Titanium Chloride with Magnesium.
TiCl4 + 2Mg → Ti + 2MgCl2
(Or)
Reaction of Titanium Chloride with Sodium.
HCl4 + 4Na → Ti + 4NaCl
(Or)
Reaction of Cromium oxide with aluminium.
Cr2O3 + 2Al → 2Cr + Al2O3 + Heat

Question 5.
Write two precautions to prevent corrosion of metals in your daily life. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Precautions to be taken to prevent corrosion of metals.
i) Painting the metals.
ii) By keeping the metals in the dry places.
iii) Cover the surface by other metals that are inert or non reactive to the atmosphere.
iv) Applying oil/grease to the metals.
v) Making of alloys.

Question 6.

High reactivityModerate reactivityLow reactivity
K, Na, Ca, Mg, AlZn, Fe, Pb, CuAg, Au

Observe the table and answer the following questions. 4jt*y (June 2019
i) Which of the above metals found even in free state in nature ?
ii) Which of the above metal’s ore are concentrated by using magnetic separation?
Answer:
i) Ag, Au.
ii) Fe.

Question 7.
Silicon is a metalloid. How do you support this?
Answer:
Silicon exhibits following properties, so I conclude that it is a metalloid.

  1. It is metallic lustre in nature.
  2. It exists in several metallic and non-metallic compounds.
  3. It has brittle nature.
  4. All metalloids usually occur in combined states both metals and non-metals.

Question 8.
Explain the reaction of various metals in activity with cold water.
Answer:
1) From potassium to magnesium displace hydrogen from cold water with decreasing reactivity. Potassium reacts with cold water violently but reaction of Magnesium is very slow. The reactivity order is given below.
Mg < Ca < Na < K

2) From aluminium to gold do not displace hydrogen from cold water.

Question 9.
How do various metals in activity series react with steam?
Answer:

  • The metals from potassium to iron displace H2 (Hydrogen gas) from steam with decreasing reactivity. That means the reaction of potassium with steam is voilent but the reaction of iron is very slow.
  • The metals from lead to gold do not displace hydrogen from steam.

Question 10.
How do various metals in activity series react with dilute strong acids?
Answer:
1) The metals from potassium to lead displace hydrogen from dilute strong acids with decreasing reactivity.
a) The reaction of potassium is explosive.
b) The reaction of magnesium is vigorous.
c) The reaction of iron is steady.
d) The reaction of lead is slow.

2) The metals from copper to gold do not displace H2 from strong dilute acids.

Question 11.
What are the preventive techniques used in corrosion of metals?
Answer:
Prevention of corrosion of metals :

  • Covering the surface of metal with paint or by some chemicals like bisphenol which prevent the surface of metallic object to come in contact with atmosphere.
  • Covering the surface of metal by other metals like tin or zinc that are inert or react themselves with atmosphere to save the metal.
  • An electrochemical method in which a sacrificial electrode of another metal like magnesium and zinc, etc. corrodes itself to save the metal.

Question 12.
What are the chemical reactions that take place inside blast furnace?
Answer:
The chemical reactions that take place inside the blast furnace.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 8

Question 13.
What are the various types of furnaces? Explain.
Various types of furnaces :
1) Blast furnace:
Blast furnace has both fire box and hearth combined in big chamber which accommodates both ore and fuel.

2) Reverberatory furnace :
It has both fire box and hearth separated, but the vapours (flame) obtained due to burning of the fuel touch the ore in the hearth and heat it.

3) Retort furnace :
In this furnace there is no direct contact between the hearth or fire box and even the flames do not touch the ore.

Question 14.
Why is alloying preferred for metals? Explain with examples.
Answer:

  • Alloying is a method of improving properties of a metal. We can get desired properties by this method.
  • For example, iron is the most widely used metal. But it is never used in its pure state.
  • This is because pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.
  • But, if it is mixed with a small amount of carbon, it becomes hard and strong.
  • When iron is mixed with nickel and chromium we get stainless steel which will not rust.

Question 15.
What is 22 carat gold? Why is it preferred for making jewellery?
Answer:

  • Pure gold, known as 24 carat gold is very soft.
  • So it is not suitable for making jewellery.
  • It is alloyed with either silver or copper to make it hard.
  • So they use 22 carat gold in which pure gold is alloyed with 2 parts of either silver or copper for making gold jewellery.

Question 16.
Write about electrolysis of NaCl.
Answer:
1) Fused NaCl is electrolysed with steel cathode and graphite anode.

2) The metal sodium (Na) will be deposited at cathode and chlorine gas liberates at the anode.
At Cathode : 2 Na+ + 2e → 2 Na
At Anode : 2 Cl → Cl2 + 2e

Question 17.
Identify the metal present in the following ores.
i) Epsom Salt
ii) Horn Silver
iii) Cinnabar
iv) Galena
Answer:
i) Magnesium
ii) Silver
iii) Mercury
iv) Lead

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 18.
What is meant by extraction of metals? Write the main stages of extraction of metals from its Ore.
Answer:
Separation of metals from ores is called extraction of metals. Extraction of metals involves mainly three stages.

  1. Concentration or dressing
  2. Extraction of crude metal
  3. Refining or purification of the metal.

Question 19.
Write differences between roasting and calcination.
Answer:

RoastingCalcination
1. Ore is heated in the presence of oxygen or air.1 Ore is heated in the absence of air.
2. Sulphide ore is converted into oxide ore.2. Carbonate ore is converted into oxide ore.

Question 20.
What are the differences between minerals and ores?
Answer:

MineralsOres
1) Minerals contain a low percentage of metal.1) Ores contain a large percent of metal.
2) Metals cannot be extracted from minerals.2) Ores can be used for the extraction of metals.
3) All minerals cannot be called ores.3) All ores are minerals.

Question 21.
What are the different types of reduction?
Answer:
The different types of reduction are
a) Chemical reduction,
b)Auto reduction,
c) Electrolytic reduction.

Question 22.
How do potassium and sodium react with oxygen?
Answer:
a) Potassium and sodium form oxides of type M2O in limited supply of oxygen.
4 K + O2 → 2 K2O
4 Na + O2 → 2 Na2O

b) In excess of oxygen they form peroxides of type M2O2.
2 Na + O2 → Na2O2
2 K + O2 → K2O2

Question 23.
How does reactivity of chlorine vary in the reactivity series?
Answer:

  1. All metals react with chlorine on heating to form their respective chlorides but with decreasing reactivity in the reactivity series.
  2. This is understood from the heat evolved when metal reacts with one mole of chlorine gas to form chloride.

Question 24.
Name two ores of calcium and give their formulae.
Answer:
The ores of calcium are

  1. Gypsum (CaSO4 • 2H2O)
  2. Limestone (CaCO3)

Question 25.
Which method is useful to separate sand from iron? Explain.
Answer:

  • Sand can be separated from iron by using magnetic separation method.
  • This can be done by using electromagnet. Iron being a magnetic material is attracted by electromagnet whereas sand is not attracted by electromagnet.
  • So these materials are separated.

Question 26.
Which metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute strong acids?
Answer:

  • Copper, mercury, silver, platinum, gold do not displace hydrogen from dilute strong acids like HCl, H2SO4, etc.
  • The reactivity of these metals are less than hydrogen. So, they are unable to displace hydrogen from dilute acids.

Question 27.
Which metals are not found in free state? Why?
Answer:

  • The metals like potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and aluminium are never found in free state in nature.
  • The reason is that these metals have high reactivity. So, they exist as compounds.

Question 28.
Why do silver and gold exist even in free state?
Answer:

  • Silver and gold are least reactivity metals. So, they are also called noble metals.
  • Due to least reactivity they are unable to react with other elements.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 29.
How do moderately reactive metals occur in nature?
Answer:

  • The metals like zinc, iron, lead are moderately reactive.
  • They are found in the earth’s crust mainly as oxides, sulphides and carbonates.

Question 30.
Mention the most important metals and non-metals from the following products.
a) Annapurna salt
b) Liquid used in thermometer
c) Lead of the pencil
d) Chlorophyll
e) Filament in electric bulb
f) Enamel layer on teeth
Answer:
a) Annapurna salt : Iodine, chlorine – Non-metals
b) Liquid used in thermometer : Mercury – Metal
c) Lead of the pencil : Graphite – Non-metal
d) Chlorophyll : Magnesium – Metal
e) Filament in electric bulb : Tungsten – Metal
f) Enamel layer on teeth : Calcium phosphate – Non-metal

Question 31.
What is a furnace? Explain various parts of furnace.
Answer:
Furnace :
Furnace is the one which is used to cany out pyrochemical processes in metallurgy.

Furnace has mainly three parts :
1) Hearth :
Hearth is the place inside the furnace where the ore is kept for heating.

2) Chimney:
Chimney is the outlet through which flue (waste) gases go out of the furnace.

3) Fire box :
Fire box is the part of the furnace where the fuel is kept for burning.

10th Class Chemistry 13th Lesson Principles of Metallurgy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a furnace? Draw Reverberatory furnace and label it parts. (AP March 2018)
Answer:
1) Furnace :
Furnace is the one which is used to carry out pyrochemical processes in metallurgy.
2) Diagram of Reverberatory furnace.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 9

Question 2.
What are the various techniques used in purification of the crude metals? Explain.
(OR)
State the methods used for the purification of crude metals. Explain in which context these methods are used. (TS June 2015)
Answer:
1) The process of obtaining the pure metal from the impure metal is called refining of the metal.
2) Some of the processes of refining are
i) Distillation
ii) Poling
iii) Liquation
iv) Electrolytic refining.

3) The process that has to be adopted for purification of a given metal depends on the nature of the metal and its impurities.

Various methods adopted in purification of metals :
1) Distillation :
This method is very useful for purification of low boiling metals like zinc and mercury containing high boiling metals as impurities. The extracted metal in the molten state is distilled to obtain the pure metal as distillate.

2) Poling :
The molten metal is stirred with logs (poles) of greenwood. The impurities are removed either as gases or they get oxidized and form slag (Scum) over the surface of molten metal.

3) Liquation :
Low melting metal like tin can be made to flow on a slopey surface to separate it from high melting impurities.

4) Electrolytic refining :

  1. In this method, the impure metal is made to act as anode.
  2. A strip of the same metal in pure form is used as cathode.
  3. They are put in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salt of the same metal.
  4. The required metal gets deposited on the cathode in the pure form.
  5. The metal constituting impurity, goes as the anode mud.

The reactions are :
At anode : M → Mn+ + ne
At cathode : Mn+ + ne → M. ; (M = pure metal, n = 1, 2, 3, …….)

Question 3.
Four metals A, B, C and D are in turn added to the following solutions one by one. The observations made are tabulated below. (TS March 2015)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 10
Answer the following based on the given information.
i) Which is the most reactive metal? Why?
ii) What would be observed, if ‘B’ is added to a solution of Copper (II) sulphate and why?
iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in order of increasing reactivity.
iv) Which one among A, B, C and D metals can be used to make containers that can be used to store any of the above solutions safely?
Answer:
i) Metal ‘B’ is more reactive.
– Metal ‘B’ is replacing iron from iron sulphate.
– Metal ‘A’ is replacing copper from copper sulphate.
– Metal ‘C’ is replacing silver from silver nitrate.

ii) Metal B displaces Cu from CuS04 solution. Because metal B is more reactive than Cu.

iii) D < C < A < B.

iv) The container made up of metal D can be used to store any solution mentioned above.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 4.
Write the physical methods used for the concentration of the ore. Explain the method used for concentration of the sulphide ore. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
Physical methods used for the concentration of the ore is,
i) Hand Picking
ii) Washing
iii) Froth floatation
iv) Magnetic Separation.

Concentration of sulphide ore :

  • Sulphide ore is concentrated by using froth floatation Method.
  • The ore with impurities is tinely powdered and kept in water taken in a flotation cell.
  • Air under pressure is blown to produce froth in water.
  • Froth so produced, taken the ore particles to the surface whereas impurities settle at the buttom.
  • Froth is separated and washed to get ore particles.

Question 5.
Draw a neat diagram of froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ore why we add pine oil to the mixture in this process? (AP SCERT 7201 9-20)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores

  1.  The mineral particles in the ore are preferentially wetted by the oil and float on the top of the froath.
  2. The gangue particles are wetted by water and settle down.
  3. Thus, the minerals can be separated from the gangue by adding pine oil.

Question 6.
Describe the reaction of various metals in activity series with oxygen.
Answer:

  • The metals which are at the bottom of activity series have very low reactivity and do not burn or oxidase even on surface.
    Eg : Ag, Pt, Au.
  • The metals like Pb, Cu and Hg do not burn but only form a surface layer of oxide, i.e., PbO, CuO, HgO.
  • The metals like Al, Zn, Fe react with oxygen to form respective oxides.
  • The metals like Ca and Mg burn with decreasing vigorousity to form oxides.
  • The metals like K, Na burn vigorously to form Na2O, K2O in limited supply of oxygen but form peroxides in excess of oxygen.

Question 7.
How do you reduce purified ore to the metal of the top of activity series? Explain.
Answer:
The reduction of ore to particular metal mainly depends on the position of metal in the activity series.

Extraction of metals at the top of activity series :

  1. Simple chemical reduction methods like heating C, CO, etc. to reduce the ores of the metals are not possible with metals like K, Na, Ca, Mg and Al.
  2. The temperature required for the reduction is too high and more expensive.
  3. The only method available is to extract these metals by electrolysis of their fused compounds.

Question 8.
How do you extract metals in the middle of activity series?
Answer:
Extraction of metals in the middle of the activity series :
The ores of these metals are generally present as sulphides or carbonates. Therefore prior to reduction of ores of these metals, they must be converted into metal oxides.

The metal oxides are then reduced to the corresponding metals by using the following methods :
1) Reduction of metal oxides with carbon :
The oxides are reduced by coke in closed furnace which gives the metal and carbon monoxide (CO).
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 11

2) Reduction of oxide ores with CO :
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 12

3) Auto (Self) reduction of sulphide ores:
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the ore is subjected to partial roasting in air to give its oxide.
2 Cu2S + 3O2 → 2 Cu2O + 2SO2

When the supply of air is stopped and temperature is raised, it results in the reaction of rest of the sulphide ore with oxide to form metal and S02. ‘
2 Cu2O + Cu2S → 6 Cu + SO2

4) Reduction of ores (compounds) by more reactive metals :
When highly reactive metals such as sodium, calcium, aluminium, etc. are used as reducing agents, they displace metals of low reactivity from the compound.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 13

Question 9.
How do you extract metals at the bottom of the activity series?
Answer:
1) Metals at the bottom of the activity series are often found in free state.

2) The oxides of these metals can be reduced to metals by heat alone and sometimes by displacement from their aqueous solutions.

3) When cinnabar (HgS) is heated in air, it is converted into HgO, then reduced to mercury on further heating.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 14

4) Displacement from aqueous solution :
When Ag2S is dissolved in KCN solution, it forms dicyanoargentate ions. When these ions are treated with Zn dust powder then Ag is precipitated.
Eg : Ag2S + 4 CN → 2 [Ag(CN)2] + S2-
2 [Ag(CN)2](aq) + Zn(s) → [Zn(CN)4]2-(aq) + 2 Ag(s)

Question 10.
Explain the process involved in corrosion.
Answer:
1) Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon.
2) In corrosion, a metal is oxidised by loss of electrons generally to oxygen and results in the formation of oxides.
3) During corrosion at a particular spot on the surface of an object made of iron, oxidation takes place and that spot behaves as anode.
Anode : 2 Fe(s) → 2 Fe2+ + 4e
4) Electrons released at this anodic spot move through the metal and go to another spot and reduce oxygen at that spot in the presence of H+.

5) This spot behaves as cathode.
Cathode : O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)
Net reaction : 2 Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + 2 H2O(l)

6) The ferrous ions are further oxidised by atmospheric oxygen to ferric ions which come out as rust in the form of hydrated ferric oxide (Fe2O3 . XH2O) and with further production of hydrogen ions.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 11.
Explain electrolytic refining with an example.
Answer:

  • The impure metal is taken as anode and pure metal is taken as cathode.
  • They are put in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salts of same metal.
  • The required metal gets deposited on the cathode in the pure form.
  • The metal constituting the impurity goes as the anode mud.

Electrode reactions :
At Anode : M → Mn+ + ne
At Cathode : Mn+ + ne → M (M pure metal); where n = 1, 2, 3,………….

Examples :

  1. In order to refine copper, impure copper is taken as anode and pure copper strips are taken as cathode.
  2. The electrolyte is an acidified solution of copper sulphate.
  3. As a result of electrolysis copper in pure form is transferred from anode to cathode.
    At Anode : Cu → Cu2+ + 2e
    At Cathode : Cu2+ + 2e → Cu
  4. The soluble impurities go into the solution, whereas insoluble impurities from the blister copper deposited at the bottom of anode as anode mud.

Question 12.
What is activity series? Give two examples each of them.
i) Low reactivity metals
ii) Moderate reactivity metals
iii) High reactivity metals
Answer:
Arranging metals in descending order of their reactivity is called activity series,
e.g.:
i) Low reactivity : Ag (Silver), Au (Gold)
ii) Moderate reactivity : Zn (Zinc), Fe (Iron)
iii) High reactivity : K (Potassium), Na (sodium)

Question 13.
Write the balanced chemical equations, extraction of iron from haematite in the Blast furnace.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 15

Question 14.
How do you prevent corrosion of various metals?
Answer:
Prevention of corrosion :The corrosion can be prev ented by the following methods.
1) Barrier protection :
In this method the metal surface is not allowed to come in contact with moisture, oxygen and carbon dioxide. This can be achieved by the following.
a) By coating iron with oils, paints, coal tar, grease, pitch, etc.
b) By blowing steam over red hot iron to form protective coating of Fe3O4.
c) By alloying iron with Ni, Cr, Si, etc.

2) Sacrificial protection:
Sacrificial protection means covering the iron surface with a layer of metal which is more electropositive than iron thus prevents iron from losing electrons. It is done by following methods.
a) By galvanisation (by dipping iron in a bath of molten zinc).
b) By tinning (by dipping iron in molten tin).
c) By the coating of copper.
d) Decorative coating : By using Zn, Mg and A/ powders mixed with paints.

3) Electrical protection:
In this method, the iron object to be protected from corrosion is connected to more active metal eg. magnesium, zinc or aluminium directly or through a wire. The iron object acts as cathode and the protective metal acts as anode. The anode is gradually used up to the oxidation of metal to its ions due to loss of electrons. Hydrogen ions collect at cathode and prevent rust formation.

4) Using anti-rust solution:
On applying alkyl phosphates and alkyl chromates to the iron objects corrosion can be prevented.

Question 15.
What are the salient features of the activity series?
Answer:
Salient features:

  1. Any metal which is placed higher up in the series can displace any metal below it in order to from the salt solution of the later metal.
  2. The larger the difference in the position of metals in the series, the more rapidly does the displacement take place.
  3. Metals which are placed above hydrogen in the series have the ability to reduce ions from dilute sulphuric acid to liberate hydrogen gas.
  4. Oxides of metals K, Na, Ca and Mg cannot be reduced by H2, CO or C.
  5. Oxides and nitrates of less reactive metals Hg, Ag and Au decompose to give metals on being strongly heated.
  6. Metals below copper such as mercury, silver, platinum and gold do not rust easily.
  7. Hydrogen though a non-metal, has been included in the series.
    It occupies the position based on its formation of positive ions.

Question 16.
How do you extract metals based on activity series?
Answer:

  • Highly active metals like potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and aluminium are obtained by the electrolysis of their fused halides or oxides, that is, by electrolytic reduction because their oxides cannot be reduced by common reducing agents like carbon, carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
  • Zinc is obtained only by heating its oxide with carbon.
  • Iron, lead and copper are obtained by reduction of their oxides with carbon, carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
  • Copper is obtained by reducing black copper oxide with carbon or by air reduction.
  • Mercury and silver are obtained by heating their respective oxides to temperature above 300°C when they lose oxygen and are reduced to free metals.
  • However, less active mercury can also be obtained by merely heating its sulphide in air.
  • Silver and Gold are obtained by displacement from solutions containing their ions by more electropositive metal zinc.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 17.
X is an element in the form of a powder. X burns in oxygen and the product is soluble in water. The solution is tested with litmus.
Write down the answers for the following questions from the above information and give reasons.
i) If X is a metal, then which colour will litmus turn ?
ii) If X is a non-metal, then which colour will litmus turn ?
iii) If X is a reactive metal, what gas will be released with dilute sulphuric acid ?
Answer:
i) If X is a metal, then the litmus turns into blue because metal reacts with oxygen and forms metallic oxide and aqueous solution of metallic oxide ore basic in nature.

ii) Mf X is a non-metal, then the litmus turns into red because non-metal reacts with oxygen and forms non-metallic oxide and aqueous solution of non-metallic oxide ore acidic in nature.

iii) If X is a reactive metal, then it releases hydrogen gas from sulphuric acid because more reactive metal displaces hydrogen from acid.

Question 18.
Complete the missing statements and give reasons.
i) Metals are ……………………….., while non-metals are poor conductors of heat.
ii) Metals are malleable, while non-metals are ……………………….. .
iii) Metals form positive ions, while non-metals form ……………………….. .
iv) Non-metals form acidic oxides, while metals form ……………………….. .
Answer:
i) Good conductors.
Reason :
Metals containing free electrons are very good conductors of electricity whereas non-metals are bad conductors of electricity because they do not have free electrons.

ii) Non-malleable.
Reason :
Metals are hard. So, they can be beaten into sheets whereas non-metals are soft, so they are non-malleable.

iii) Negative ions.
Reason :
Metals are electropositive in nature. They easily lose electrons to form positive ions, whereas non-metals are electronegative in nature. So, they gain electrons to form negative ions.

iv) Basic oxides.
Reason :
Non-metallic oxide solutions turn blue litmus into red. They are acidic in nature. So, they are called acidic oxides whereas metallic oxide solutions turn red litmus into blue. They are basic in nature. So, they are called basic oxides.

Question 19.
Answer the following questions.
a) i) Name two naturally occurring compounds of zinc other than carbonate and give their formulae.
ii) Give equations for the extraction of zinc from zinc carbonate.
b) Write equations for the action of zinc on the following.
i) dil. H2SO4
ii) Copper (II) sulphate solution.
Answer:
a) i) The ores of zinc other than carbonate ore are zinc blende (ZnS) and Zincite (ZnO).
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 16

b) i) Zn + dil. H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
Zr(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Question 20.
i) The ore zinc blende is an important source of the metal zinc. What is the name of zinc compound in zinc blende?
ii) What is the compound obtained by roasting zinc blende?
iii) What is the type of chemical reaction carried out after roasting in order to obtain zinc?
iv) What is the name of the alloy formed between zinc and copper?
Answer:
i) The zinc compound in zinc blende is ZnS (zinc sulphide).
ii) By roasting zinc blende it converts into zinc oxide.
2 ZnS + 3O2 → 2 ZnO + 2 SO2
iii) The chemical reaction carried out to convert zinc oxide to zinc metal is reduction in the presence of coke.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 17

iv) The alloy of copper and zinc is bronze.

Question 21.
The basic material used for the production of iron in the blast furnace are limestone, coke and air in addition to iron ore.
a) Name one iron ore and write its formula.
b) Hot air is blown at the base of furnace where it reacts with coke. Give the chemical equations for the reactions that take place.
c) Higher up in the furnace the iron ore is reduced to iron by one of the gases produced in the furnace. Give the chemical equation for the reaction by which the gas is produced and give a balanced equation to show how the ore is reduced to iron.
d) Which compound produced from limestone takes part in forming the slag?
Answer:
a) The iron ore is Haematite (Fe2O3).
b) Coke bums partially to produce carbon monoxide gas.
2 C(s) +O2(g) → 2 C0(g)

c) Iron oxide reacts with carbon monoxide gas and reduces to iron.
Fe2O3 + 3 CO → 2 Fe + 3 CO2

d) Calcium carbonate (limestone) undergoes calcination to produce calcium oxide which takes part in the reaction to form slag.
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2
CaC(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(l)

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy

Question 22.
What information do you get from metal activity series given below.
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Ag > Pt > Au
Answer:

  • Metals below hydrogen [H] cannot displace hydrogen from acids and above hydrogen can displace hydrogen from acids.
  • Metals which are higher in the series, can displace metals below it from the salt solution.
  • The higher the position, the more active is the metal.
  • Hydrogen has electropositive character, so it is placed among the metals.

Question 23.
The results of reactions of metals A, B, C, D, E with different solutions are given in the table below. Observe the table and write answers.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 18
1) Which is the highly reactive metal? Why?
2) Which is the least reactive metal? Why?
3) Which metals form brown layer?
4) Arrange the metals A, B, C, D, E in the order of their reactivity?
5) Among these identify the silver, copper, iron, zinc and aluminium.
Answer:

  1. Metal ‘E’ is more reactive among all the metals given because it displaces all the elements from the compounds given in the table,
  2. Metal ‘C’ is the least reactive metal because it does not displace any other metal from the compounds given in the table.
  3. Metals B and E will form brown layer.
  4. The ascending order is as follows C < A < D < B < E.
  5. C is silver, A is copper, D is iron, B is zinc and E is aluminium.

Question 24.
Draw the diagram of blast furnace and label its parts.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 13 Principles of Metallurgy 19

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions 8th Lesson Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
What are variations? How do they help organisms?
Answer:

  1. Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
  2. Variations develop during reproduction in organisms.
  3. Variations are passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
  4. Beneficial variations are selected by the nature in evolution.
  5. Variations increase the survival chance of the organisms.
  6. These variations help the organisms to adapt to their environments.
  7. For example, green colour in the beetles is a variation that gave a survival advantage to the beetles as they cannot be seen by the crows.
  8. Some variations do not help organisms to survive. For example, colour variation occurs in red beetles and some blue beetles are produced instead of red beetles as they are eaten by crows easily.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 2.
One student (researcher) wants to cross pure tall plant (TT) with pure dwarf (tt) plant, what would be the Fj and F2 generations? Explain.
Answer:

  1. Pure tall plant has both the factors of the same type ‘TT’.
  2. Pure dwarf plant has both the factors of the same type ‘tt’.
  3. When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), all the offsprings in Fj generation are tall (Tt).
  4. So all the plants are heterozygous tall, as ‘T’ is the dominating factor.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 1
  5. On self pollination of these F1 generation plants the new breed can have any combination of T and t like TT, Tt, Tt or tt.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 2
  6. So in F2 generation 75% of plants are tall and 25% of plants are dwarf. Thus the phenotype ratio is 3 : 1.
  7. Among 75% of tall plants 25% are pure tall (TT) or homozygous tall, remaining 50% are heterozygous tall (Tt, tT).
  8. The remaining 25% dwarf plants are pure or homozygous dwarf (tt).
  9. So the genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 3.
One experimenter cut the tails of parent rats, what could be the traits in offsprings? Do the daughter rats contain tails or not? Explain your argument.
Answer:

  1. If the tails of parent rats were cut, their offsprings will have normal tails.
  2. Daughter rats do not contain tails because the bodily changes are not inherited.
  3. So the change would not be passed to their offsprings.
  4. This was proved experimentally by Augustus Weisemann and rejected the theory ‘inheritance of acquired characters’ proposed by Lamarck.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 4.
In a mango garden a farmer saw one mango tree with full of mango fruits but with a lot of pests. He also saw another mango tree without pests but with few mangoes. But the farmer wants the mango tree with full of mango fruits and pests free. Is it possible to create new mango tree which the farmer wants? Can you explain how it is possible?
Answer:

  1. Yes, it is possible to create new mango tree which one the former wants with full of mango fruits and pests free.
  2. The former can cross two plants one with full of mangoes and pests and another plant with less mango fruits and without pests,
  3. In F1 generation he may get plants with full of mango fruits and without pests. Such plants are called hybrid plants.
  4. The F1 generation plants can be self pollinated and desired plants can be selected from the mixed population of F2 generation.
  5. The plant with desirable characters can be vegetatively propagated to get required number of plants.

Question 5.
ExplaIn monohybrid experiment with an example. Which law of inheritance can we understand? Explain.
Answer:

  1. We can understand the law of inheritance with an example of monohybrid cross between pure yellow pea seeds with pure green pea seeds.
  2. A pure breed (parental) yellow will have both the factors which denote them by ‘YY’ and pure breed (parental) green seed will have both the factors denote them by ‘yy’.
  3. During reproduction one factor (genes) from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny (off spring).
  4. In F1 generation all pea plants are Yellow.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 3
  5. F1 generation pea plants are self pollinated.
  6. In F2 generation 75% of the plants produced were Yellow seeds and the remaining 25% produced were green seed. It can be represented as
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 4
    In F2 generation the produced plants are YY, Yy; yY or yy.
    From the above example of monohybrid cross we can understand the following laws of inheritance.

1) When pure breed Yellow (YY) and green (yy) seeds were crossed, only Yellow seeds were expressed phenotypically in the F1 generation. It indicates that Yellow seed character is dominent over green seed characters.
This is “LAW OF DOMINANCE”.

2) When F1 plants are self pollinated each parent passes randomly selected allele (Y or y) of one of these factor to offsprings. This is segregation of alleles or genes during production of gametes.
This is “LAW OF SEGREGATION”.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 6.
What is the law of independent assortment? Explain with an example.
Answer:

  1. In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.
  2. If pea plants with two different pairs of characteristics (eg. : Round / yellow and green wrinkled) are breed with each other, the F1 progeny plants would have all round and yellow seeds.
  3. This implies that round and yellow seeds are dominant characters over green and wrinkled seeds.
  4. In F2 progeny there would be some plants with round and yellow seeds and some with green and wrinkled seeds.
  5. However, there would be some plants with mixed characters – yellow and wrinkled seeds and green and round seeds.
  6. This depicts that round/wrinkled trait and yellow / green trait are inherited independent of each other (law of independent assortment).
    The following punnet square explains this.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 5
  7. The different combination of characters resulted from dihybrid cross.
    a) RRYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RrYY, RrYy are having round and yellow seeds.
    b) RRyy, Rryy, Rryy have round and green seeds.
    c) rrYy, rrYy, rrYY have wrinkled and yellow seeds.
    d) rryy have wrinkled and green seeds.
  8. From the result, it can be concluded that the factors for each character or trait remains separate and maintain its identity in the gametes. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 7.
How does sex determination take place in human?
(OR)
Explain sex determination in humans with the help of flow chart.
Answer:

  1. Each human cell contains 23 pairs (46) of chromosomes.
  2. Out of 23 pairs, 22 pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes.
  3. Remaining one pair is called allosomes or sex chromosomes.
  4. There are two types of sex chromosomes – one is ‘X’ and the other is ‘Y’.
  5. These two chromosomes determine the sex of an individual.
  6. Females have two ‘X’ chromosomes in their cells (XX).
  7. Males have one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosomes in their cells (XY).
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 6
  8. All the gametes produced by women (ovum) will be with only X chromosomes.
  9. The gametes produced by man (sperm) will be of two types, one with X chromosomes and other with Y chromosomes.
  10. If the sperm carries X chromosome and fertilizes with the ovum, the resultant baby will have XX condition. So the baby will be a girl.
  11. If the sperm carries Y chromosome and fertilises with the ovum, the resultant baby will have XY condition. So the baby will be a boy.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 8.
Explain Darwin’s theory of ‘Natural selection’ with an example.
(OR)
What do you understand by the term Natural selection? Write Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Answer:

  1. Darwin proposed the theory of Natural selection.
  2. Nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
  3. The organism with useful traits will survive and the organisms having harmful traits are going to perished or eliminated from its environment.
  4. For example, a group of twelve red beetles live in a bush of green leaves.
  5. They will grow their population by sexual reproduction.
  6. So they generate variations in their population. Let us assume crows eat the red beetles more the population of red beetles slowly reduced.
  7. Crows eat these red beetles and their population slowly reduces.
  8. During this time a colour variation arises by the sexual reproduction.
  9. So that there appears one beetle that is green in colour instead of red.
  10. Moreover this green colour beetle passes its colour to its offsprings; so that all its progeny are green.
  11. Crows cannot see the green coloured beetles on green leaves of the bushes and therefore crows cannot eat them.
  12. The crows can see the red beetles and eat them as a result, there are more and more green beetles than red ones which decrease in their number.
  13. The variation of green colour beetle gave a survival advantage to green beetles’ than red beetles. They were naturally selected.

Question 9.
What are variations? Explain with a suitable example.
Answer:

  1. Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
  2. Often a new character in a group may lead to variations that are inherited.
  3. If we observe parents and offsprings, there will be some similar features in the offspring of the parents.
  4. At the same time we find differences between parents and offspring in their features.
  5. These differences are an example of variations.
  6. Variations are quite apparent among closely related groups of organisms.
  7. If we take roses as an another example, we observe number of varieties in them.
  8. But we can still find some characters similar to all plants.
  9. Thus rose plants have similar physical features, at the same time they have differences in characters like flower colour, number of petals, leaf size, stem, spines, etc.
  10. These differences in features are variations.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 10.
What variations generally have you observed in the species of cow?
Answer:
In the species of cow the following contrasting variations can be observed:

  1. White coloured – spotted
  2. Longhorns – short horns
  3. Height – dwarf
  4. Long-tail – short tail
  5. Elongated face – stunted face
  6. More milk giving – less milk giving, etc.

Question 11.
What are the characters that Mendel selected for his experiments on pea plants
(OR)
Write the seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plant identified by Mendel and mention their traits.
Answer:
Mendel selected the following characters on pea plants for his experiment. They are:

CharacterDescription
1. Colour of the flower1. Purple or white.
2. Position of the flower2. Axial or terminal in position
3. Colour of the seed3. Either yellow or green.
4. Shape of the seed4. Either round or wrinkled.
5. Shape of the pod5. Inflated and constricted
6. Colour of the pod6. Yellow or green.
7. Length of the stem7. Tall and dwarf.

Question 12.
In what way Mendel used the word ‘Traits’? Explain with an example.
Answer:

  1. Trait is a separate variant of an organism.
  2. Mendel hypothesized that characters were carried as traits.
  3. An organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
  4. He also hypothesized that distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
  5. He assumed that the traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produce them.
  6. The seeds must have obtained these traits from the parent plants.
  7. The factors which are responsible for the character or trait of an organism, are now named as “genes”.
  8. By all these we can assume that Mendel used the word ‘traits’ for indicating the variant of an organism expressed by a pair of factors or genes.
  9. For example, height is a character of pea plant while the tallness is a trait expressed by a pair of factors either TT or Tt and dwarfness is another trait expressed by a pair of factors tt.

Question 13.
What are the differences that Mendel observed between parent and F2 generation?
Answer:
Mendel identified the following differences between parent and F2 generation.

ParentF2 Generation
1. They are pure breeds.1. They consist of mixed population.
2. They consist of homozygous alleles.2. They consist of homozygous alleles in some plants and heterozygous alleles in some other plants.
3. They have some fixed characteristic features.3. New combination of characters will appear.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 14.
Male is responsible for sex determination of baby – do you agree? If so write your answer with a flow chart.
Answer:

  1. Yes, I agree with the statement that male is responsible for sex determination of baby.
  2. There are two types of sex chromosomes in human beings, one is ‘X’ and other is ‘Y’.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 7
  3. Females have two ‘X’ chromosomes in their cells (XX) whereas males have one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosomes in their cells (XY).
  4. All the gametes produced by woman (ovum) will be with only X chromosomes.
  5. The gametes produced by man (sperm) will be of two types one with X chromosomes and other Y chromosomes.
  6. If the sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resultant baby will have XX condition. So the baby will be a girl.
  7. If the sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resultant baby will have XY condition. So the baby will be a boy.
  8. So the gamete produced by the male is the deciding factor for sex determination of the baby.

Question 15.
Write a brief note on analogous organs.
(OR)
What are analogous organs?
Answer:

  1. The organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as ‘Analogous organs’.
  2. Wings of birds and bats is the example for analogous organs.
  3. The wings of bats are skin folds stretched mainly between elongated fingers.
  4. But the wings of birds are a feathery covering all along the arm.
  5. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different.
  6. They look similar because they have common use for flying, but their origins are not common.
  7. This makes the ‘analogous’ characteristics.
  8. This type of evolution is called convergent evolution.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 16.
How do scientists utilise information about fossils?
(OR)
“Fossils are valuable material that nature had preserved to know about ancient organisms.” Write the information you have collected about fossils.
Answer:

  1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
  2. The scientific study of fossils is called ‘Palaeontology’.
  3. Scientists utilise information about fossils to understand the evolutionary history of life.
  4. This information is also useful to study ecology and environmental history, such as ancient climates.
  5. This also helps to find out how old that certain layer of earth is.
  6. This information is also utilized as indicators of possible fossil fuel deposits which are of great interest to humanity.
  7. Thus scientists utilize the information on fossils to learn more about the earth’s past.

Question 17.
Mendel selected a pea plant for his experiments. Mention the reasons for the selection as these plants.
(OR)
Why did Mendel select the pea plant for his experiment? (OR)
Which characters in the pea plant are selected by Mendel, for his experiments?
What are the reasons for selecting pea plant by Mendel to conduct his experiments?
Answer:
Mendel chose the pea plant (Pisum sativam) for his breeding experiments for the following reasons.

  1. It is sexually reproducing.
  2. Flowers are bisexual.
  3. Predominantly self-pollinated.
  4. Predominantly self-fertilization.
  5. Well developed characters.
  6. Early hybridization.
  7. It is an annual plant.
  8. These plants have short maturity and can produce large number of seeds in a single generation.
  9. Pea plants have short life cycle.
  10. These plants can easy to grow either on the ground or in pots.

Question 18.
If the theory of inheritance of acquired characters proposed by Lamarck was true, how will the world be?
Answer:
If the theory of inheritance of acquired characters proposed by Lamarck was correct,

  1. All the organisms which lost some of their body parts should give birth to the offsprings without the lost parts.
  2. Rat which lost their tail should give birth to tail less rats.
  3. A handicapped who lost their legs in an accident should give birth to babies v without legs.
  4. A body builder’s children should be body builders.
  5. But all these are not happening because bodily changes won’t be passed to its offspring.

Question 19.
Collect information on the inherited traits in your family members and write a note on it.
Answer:

  1. My grandfather and father- had curling hair. I too have curling hair. So it’s an inherited trait in family.
  2. My mother and I both have long noses which appear similar. It’s another inherited trait.
  3. Eyes of my grandmother, my brother and mine are similar. It’s another inherited trait.
  4. Ear lobes of my father, brother and mine are similar. This is another inherited trait.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 20.
With the help of given information write your comment on evidences of evolution.

Mammals have fore limbs as do birds, reptiles and amphibians. The basic structure of the limbs is similar, though it has been modified to perform different functions.

Answer:

  1. The given information gives the evidences of evolution.
  2. Mammals. birds, reptiles and amphibians all these have forelimbs which have similar basic structure.
  3. But they are modified to perform different functions.
  4. This indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor. These organs are called homologous organs. This type of evolution is called divergent evolution.
  5. In case of bat (mammal) and bird the designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different.
  6. They look similar because they have common use for flying, but their origins are not common.
  7. These organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as ‘Analogous organs’. This type of evolution is called “convergent evolution”.
  8. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of above mentioned animals even in their limb formation. These are called embryological evidences.

Question 21.
Collect information about carbon dating method. Discuss with your physical science teacher.
(OR)
Write about the carbon dating method from the information collected by you.
Answer:

  1. Carbon dating is the method used to calculate the age of rocks, minerals or fossils.
  2. The breakdown of radioactive isotopes of certain elements such as carbon, uranium and potassium takes place at a known rate. So the age of rock or mineral containing isotopes can be calculated.
  3. Archaeologists use the exponential, radioactive decay of carbon 14 to estimate the death dates of organic material.
  4. The earth’s atmosphere contains various isotopes of carbon, roughly in constant proportions.
  5. These include the main stable isotope 12C and an unstable istope 14C.
  6. Through photosynthesis, plants absorb both forms from carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
  7. When an organism dies, it contains the standard ratio of 14C to 12C.
  8. But as the 14C decays with no possibility of replenishment, the proportion of carbon 14 decreases at a known constant rate.
  9. The time taken for it to reduce by half is known as the half-life of 14C, which is 5730.
  10. The measurement of the remaining proportion of 14C in organic matter thus an estimation of its age.
  11. As the half life of carbon – 14 is 5,700 years, it is useful for dating objects up (o about 60,000 years old.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 22.
Draw a checker board, show the law of independent assortment with a flowchart and explain the ratio.
Answer:

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 8

  1. The phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. i.e., 9 round and yellow seeds 3 round and green seeds, 3 wrinkled and green seeds and 1 wrinkled and green seed.
  2. RRYY, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RRYy, RrYy, RrYy, RrYY and RrYy are round and yellow seeds.
  3. RRyy, Rryy, Rryy are round and green.
  4. rrYY, rrYy, rrYy are wrinkled and yellow.
  5. rryy are wrinkled and green.

From the above result, it can be concluded that factors for each character or trait remains separate and maintains its identity in the gametes. Thus in the inheritance of more than one pair of characters, the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 23.
Explain the process to understand the monohybrid cross of Mendel experiment with a checker board.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 9

Question 24.
Prepare a chart showing the evolution of man through ages.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 10

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 25.
Nature selects only desirable characters. Prepare a cartoon.
Answer:
Nature selects only desirable characters
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 11

Question 26.
What is your understanding about survival of the fittest? Give some situations or examples that you observe in your surroundings.
Answer:

  1. Nature favours only useful variations.
  2. Each species tends to produce a large number of offspring.
  3. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
  4. In this struggle for existence only the fittest can survive.
  5. When cat tries to catch some rats, the rats which can run fast and hide in its hole can survive and which is slow can become prey for the cat.
  6. When we spray some insecticide on insects, most of them will die but few which can withstand that chemical will escape.
  7. When a pest attacks our garden plants, most of them may die but Which can withstand the pest can survive.
  8. When the dog tries to catch chickens, the chickens which will run fast and escape can survive but the slower ones will become food for the dog.

Question 27.
Write a monologue on the evolution of a human to perform a stage show on the theatre day in your school.
Answer:

  1. Hai, I am a human being. I am going to recall what had happened to me so far, how I had evolved, simply my journey from my origin to till now.
  2. Nearly 1.6 – 2.5 million years ago, during the gelasian pleistocene period, I used to wander in the forest. It is belived that, I evolved from apes.
  3. Between 1-1.8 million years ago, I gradually evolved into Homo erectus. I lived in this stage throughout most of the pleistocene. I used more diverse and sophisticated stone tools than my predecessors and it is belived that I travelled over oceans using rafts.
  4. Around 1,00,000 – 40,000 thousand years ago I evolved into Homo sapiens neanderthalensis. I was stronger than present in those days. I made advanced tools. I had language to communicate.
  5. Around 40 thousand years ago, I reached the present form of human being, the modern humans known as Homo sapiens. I learnt cultivation, construction of houses, cooking, etc. I had invented various things that help me to live comfortably.
  6. But my journey did not stop. It is still continuing. Let us see what may happen? Where can I reach? What changes may come in me? Hope for the best.
    Thank you.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Fill in the blanks.

  1. The process of acquiring change is called ———–.
  2. Mendel’s experiment explains about ———–.
  3. The four characters observed in the experiments on law of independent assortment are ———–.
  4. If we cross pollinate red flower plant with white flower we will get percent of ———– recessive trait plants.
  5. TT or YY, Tt or Yy are responsible for a ———– character.
  6. Female baby having 23 pairs of autosomes at the age of 18 years, has ———– pair autosomes and ———– of sex chromosomes.
  7. The population grows in ———– progression whereas food sources grow in ———– progression.
  8. A goat which walks properly can’t live for a long time. According to Darwin, this represents ———–.
  9. Forelimb of whale is for swimming whereas in horse it is used for ———–.
  10. The study of fossils is called ———–.

Answer:

  1. evolution
  2. heredity
  3. Round, wrinkled, yellow, green
  4. 100
  5. dominant
  6. 22, one pair
  7. geometrical, arithmetic
  8. survival of the fittest
  9. running
  10. palaeontology

Choose the correct answer.

  1. Which of the following is not a variation in rose plant?  [ ]
    A) Coloured petals
    B) Spines
    C) Tendrils
    D) Leaf margin
    Answer: C
  2. According to Mendel, alleles are  [ ]
    A) Pair of genes , Responsible for character
    B) gene
    C) Production of Gametes
    D) Recessive factors
    Answer: B
  3. Natural selection means  [ ]
    A) Nature selects desirable characters
    B) Nature rejects undesirable characters
    C) Nature reacts with an organism
    D) A, B
    Answer: A
  4. Palaeontologists deal with  [ ]
    A) Fossilised Embryological evidences
    B) Fossil evidences
    C) Fossilised Vestigial organ evidences
    D) All
    Answer: D

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 166

Question 1.
How does evolution take place?
Answer:

  1. Evolution takes place through the accumulation of new characters or variations in a species of organisms.
  2. Accumulation of variations occurs only when new characters are passed on from one generation to other and much more new characters are added to the pre-existing once.
  3. So this happens oVer a kirig period of time, sometimes several generations may pass.
  4. Hence it happens in a slow and steady manner.
  5. It is not just about change but producing something new and different.
  6. It is about the formation of new species and their adaptation to their environments.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 168

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 2.
Is variation all about apparent differences? Or is it about some subtle differences as well that we most often overlook?
Answer:

  1. Variations are not always apparent differences.
  2. Sometimes these may be subtle differences that we most often overlook.
  3. When these subtle differences accumulate together they may become apparent.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 171

Question 3.
How do parent plants pass on their traits to the seeds?
Answer:

  1. Every character or trait is controlled by a pair of factors called genes.
  2. At the time of sexual reproduction, one factor or each trait will pass to the gametes.
  3. By the fussion of male and female gametes zygote will form in which factors from both male and female parents get paired again.
  4. This zygote will develop into seed in the later stages.
  5. Thus parent plants pass on their traits to the seeds.

Question 4.
Will the seeds from tall plants always produce new tall plants?
Answer:

  1. No. Tall plants may or may not produce tall plants again.
  2. This is because tallness is a dominant character in most of the plants, especially in peas.
  3. So tall plant may be homozygous tall (TT) or heterozygous tall (Tt).
  4. If the parental plant is homozygous tall (pure breed), then they always produce new tall plants.
  5. If the parental plant is a heterozygous tall plant, then they produce the tall and dwarf plants in the ratio of 3 : 1.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 175

Question 5.
What should be the percentage of each type of plants in F2 generation produced in dihybrid cross between pea plants with yellow, smooth seeds and green wrinkled seeds?
Answer:

  1. In F2 generation of dihybrid cross between pea plants with yellow, smooth seeds and green wrinkled seeds, new plants will produce with the following combination.
    i) Round and yellow
    ii) Round and green and
    iii) Wrinkled and green iv) Wrinkled and yellow
  2. They will produce in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 respectively.
  3. So 56 (56.25%) of plants should be with round and yellow seeds. 19 (18.75%) of plants should be with wrinkled and yellow seeds. 19 (18.75 %) of plants should be with round and green seeds and 6% (6. 25%) of plants should be with wrinkled and green seeds.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 178

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 6.
What will happen if the sperm containing X chromosomes fertilizes the ovum?
Answer:

  1. If the sperm containing X chromosomes fertilizes the ovum which has X chromosome, the baby will have XX condition.
  2. So the baby will be a girl.

Question 7.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 8.
Is the sex also a character or trait? Does It follow Mendels’ law of dominance?
Answer:

  1. Yes, sex is also a character or a trait.
  2. It has two contrasting characters male and female.
  3. Male character is represented by a pair of allosomes ‘XY‘ (heterozygous).
  4. In this, we can consider Y as dominant and X as recessive.
  5. In this, recessive character is expressed only when it is homozygous recessive, i.e. female.
  6. Homozygous dominant is not existing as reproduction occurs between male (heterozygous dominent XY) and female (homozygous recessive XX) only.
  7. As X is not exhibiting its nature when Y is present along with it. it follows Mendel’s law of dominance.

Question 9.
Were all your traits similar to that of your parents?
Answer:

  1. No, all my traits are not similar to my parents.
  2. There are certain traits which differ from my parents.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 185

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 10.
How does the evolution of organisms have taken place?
Answer:

  1. Variations which are beneficial are selected by nature and passed from parents to offspring through heredity.
  2. The same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes common feature.
  3. As the environment changes, the organism within environment adopts and changes to the new living conditions.
  4. Over a long period of time, each species of organisms can acuumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species.
  5. Thus evolution of organisms took place from common pre-existing ancestors.

Question 11.
Are birds and bats more closely related to each other than to squirrels or lizards?
Answer:

  1. No, bats are mammals whereas birds belong to aves.
  2. Squirrels are mammals and lizards belong to reptiles.
  3. So bats and birds are not closely related to each other as they belong to two different groups.
  4. Both bats and birds have wings.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 186

Question 12.
Do embryological evidences indicate that frogs have evolved from ancestors of fish?
Answer:
Yes the embryological evidences indicate that frogs have evolved from ancestors of fish.

Question 13.
Does the life history of every individual exhibit the structural features of their ancestors?
Answer:

  1. Yes. The life history of every individual exhibit the structural features of its ancestors.
  2. The resemblance is so close at an early stage.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 189

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Question 14.
Think why did ancient human beings travelled from one place to other and how did they travelled?
Answer:

  1. Ancient human beings travelled from one place to other in search of better living conditions such as availability of food, water shelter and other facilities.
  2. They did not travel in a single line.
  3. They went forwards and backwards with groups, sometimes separating from each other.
  4. This travel is responsible for the formation of races.

10th Class Biology Textbook Page No. 183

Question 15.
In a forest there are two types of deer, in which one type of deer can run very fast. Whereas second type of deer can not run as fast as the first one. Lions, Tigers hunt deer for their food. Imagine which type of deer are going to survive in the forest and which type of deer population is going to be eliminated? And why?
Answer:

  1. Deer that can run fast can survive in the forest. Because they can escape easily from lions and tigers, when compared to second type.
  2. Deer that run slowly are going to be eliminated. Because they can be caught easily by its predators. So the survival chance will decrease.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity Activities

Activity – 1

Think of your own family, what similarities do you share with your father and mother? Draw a table to represent the similarities of some characters like colour of eye (cornea), colour of hair, shape of nose, shape of face, type of earlobe (attached or free), inner thumb markings, etc. Write your characters in one column and that of your parents in the other columns.
Table – 1

CharactersIn meIn my Mother/FatherIn my Brother/SisterIn my grandma/grandpa

Answer:

S.No.CharactersIn meIn my Mother/FatherIn my Brother/SisterIn my grandma/grandpa
1.Colour of eyeBlackBlackBlackBlack
2.Colour of hairBlackBlackBlackBlack
3.Shape of noseLongLongShortShort
4.Shape of faceOvalRoundOvalOval
5.Type of earlobeFreeFreeFreeFree
6.Type of hairCurlingCurlingStraightStraight
7.Inner thumb markingConicalRoundRoundConical
8.Skin colourFairFairFairFair

1. Is there any character in you similar to that of your mother as well as your grandma?
Answer:
There are four characters in me similar to my mother as well as my grandma. They are

  1. Colour of eye
  2. Colour of hair
  3. Type of earlobe and
  4. Skin colour.

2. Is there any character in you similar only to that of your grandma?
Answer:
Two characters are similar in me and in my grandma. They are

  1. Shape of face and
  2. Inner thumb marking.

3. How do you think these characters may have been inherited by you from grandma?
Answer:
These characters are hereditary from parent to child.

4. Is there any character that is not present in grandma but present in your mother and you?
Answer:
Two characters are not present in grandma which are only present in me and my mother. They are

  1. Shape of nose
  2. Type of hair

5. Think where from your mother got that character?
Answer:
This character is the result of inherited traits transmitted from parent to progeny.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Activity – 2
Observe some of your friends and note their characters in the following table. Fill in yours as well.
Table – 2

Name of your friendColour of skinEarlobes Free / AttachedMarking on inner side of thumbLength of foreheadColour of eyes (Cornea)Any other features

Answer:

Name of your friendColour of skinEarlobes Free / AttachedMarking on inner side of thumbLength of foreheadColour of eyes (Cornea)Any other features
RaviBlackFreeRoundBroadBlueStraight hair, long nose, and face, etc.
GaneshBlackAttachedConicalNarrowBlackStraight hair, short nose, oval face, etc.
Vi jayFairFreeConicalBroadBlackCurling hair, short nose, round face, etc.
KarthikFairFreeRoundBroadBlackStraight hair, long nose, round face, etc.

1. Compare your characters to that of any one of your friend. How many characters did you find were similar among you and your friend?
Answer:
Only few characters such as black hair and black eye were similar among me and my friend.

2. Do you share more similar characters with your parents or with your friends?
Answer:
I share more similar characters with my parents than my friends.

3. Do you think that your differences from parents are same as differences from friends? Why / Why not?
Answer:
My differences from parents are not same as differences from friend. This is because the differences from parents are subtle as there is more genetic relation with parents but the differences from friends are apparent.

Activity – 3

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Observe seeds in a pea or bean pod. You may observe several parts to arrive at a generalisation.

1. Can you find two similar seeds there?
Answer:
No, all the seeds are not similar. They had certain variations.

2. What makes them vary? even though they are in the same pod. (Hint: You know that seeds are formed from ovules).
Answer:

  1. They vary from one another because they are produced from different ovules.
  2. Ovules of a plant are female gametes.
  3. These gametes carry different factors (genes) for different characters randomly.

3. Why variations are important? How are variations useful for an organism or a population?
Answer:

  1. Variations perhaps help a certain group of organisms in a community when conditions would otherwise be unfavourable for other groups.
  2. Desirable variations can be selected by nature.
  3. Desirable variations increase the chance of survival of an organism.
  4. Accumulation of variations after a long period leads to formation of new species.

Activity – 4

Let us do the following activity to understand the Mendelian principles of Heredity. Materials required :
a) 3 cm length and 1cm breadth chart pieces – 4
b) 2 cm length and 1cm breadth chart pieces – 4
c) Red buttons – 4
d) White buttons – 4
e) Chart, scale, sketch pen, pencil, 2 bags.

Method: Prepare a chart with 2×2 boxes along with number and symbol as shown in the figure.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 12

Game 1: Monohybrid cross (starting with hybrid parents)
To start with take 1, 2 or 3, 4 . In case you start 1, 2 pick all the 16 long and short pieces and prepare such pairs in each of which you have a long and short piece.

Take 4 pairs each of long and short strips and put them in two separate bags. Now each bag contains 8 strips (4 long and 4 short).One bag say ‘A’ represents male and the bag ‘B’ represents female. Now randomly pick one strip each from bag A and B and put them together in the 1 on the chart. Keep picking out the strips and arrange them in the same manner till your bags are empty. Same time your boxes in the chart are filled with pairs of strips. You might have got the following combinations, two long strips, one long and one short strip, two short strips.

1. What is the number of long strip pairs?
Answer:
There are four long strip pairs.

2. What is the number of one long and one short pairs?
Answer:
There are eight, one long and one short strip pairs.

3. What is the number of short strips pairs?
Answer:
There are four short strip pairs.

4. What is the percentage of each type? Also find their ratios.
Answer:
The percentage of long strip pairs, one long and one short strip pairs and short strip pairs are 25%, 50% and 25% respectively and the ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

5. What can you conclude from this game?
Answer:
From this game I have concluded that:

  1. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles, for any particular trait.
  2. Each parent passes a randomly selected copy (allele) of these to an offspring.
  3. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.
  4. If the long strip is considered as dominant 75% exhibit dominant and 25% exhibit recessive character. Thus the phenotype ratio is 3 : 1 in monohybrid cross.
  5. The genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Activity – 5

Observe the below diagram showing variation in beetle population and its impact.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 13Let us consider a group of twelve beetles. They live in bushes on green leaves. Their population will grow by sexual reproduction. So they were able to generate variations in population. Let us assume crows eat these red beetles. If the crows eat more Red beetles, their population is slowly reduced. Let us discuss the above three different situations in detail.
Answer:
Situation-1: In this situation, a colour variation arises during reproduction. So that there appears one beetle that is green in colour instead of red.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 14Moreover, this green coloured beetle passes its colour to Its offspring (Progeny). So that all its progeny are green. Crows cannot see the green coloured beetles on green leaves of the bushes and therefore crows cannot eat them. But crows can see the red beetles and eat them. As a result there are more and more green beetles than red ones which decrease in their number.

The variation of colour in beetle ‘green’ gave a survival advantage to’green beetles’ than red beetles. In other words it was naturally selected. We can see that the ‘natural selection’ was exerted by the crows. The more crows there are, the more red beetles would be eaten and the more number of green beetles in the population would be. Thus the natural selection is directing evolution in the beetle population. It results in adaptation in the beetle population to fit in their environment better.

Let us think of another situation.
Situation-2: In this situation a colour variation occurs again in its progeny during reproduction, but now it results in ‘blue’ colour beetles instead of ‘red’colour beetle. This blue colour beetled can pass its colour to its progeny. So that all its progeny are blue.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 15Crows can see blue coloured beetles on the green leaves of the bushes and the red ones as well. And therefore crows can eat both red and blue coloured beetles. In this case there is no survival advantage for blue coloured beetles as we have seen in case of green coloured beetles.

What happens initially in the population, there are a few blue beetles,but most are red. Imagine at this point an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live. This kills most of the beetles. By chance the few beetles survived are mostly blue. Again the beetle population slowly increases. But in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.

Thus sometimes accidents may also result in changes in certain characters of the population. Characters as we know are governed by genes. Thus there is change in the frequency of genes in small populations. This is known as “Genetic drift’, which provides diversity in the population.

Let us think of another situation :
Situation-3: In this case beetles population is increasing, but suddenly bushes were affected by a plant disease in which leaf material were destroyed or in which leaves are affected by this beetles got less food material.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 16So beetles are poorly nourished. So the weight of beetles decrease but no changes take place in their genetic material (DNA). After a few years the plant disease are eliminated. Bushes are healthy with plenty of leaves.

What do you think will be condition of the beetles?
Answer:
The weight of beetles will increase once again as they get plenty of food material again.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity

Activity – 6

Let us observe different stages of development of vertebrate embryos. Try to find out similarities and differences and discuss with your friends.
(OR)
What do you infer about the embroyological evidences of various organisms?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Heredity 17

  1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
  2. The resemblance is so close at an early stage.
  3. Gradually the similarities are decreased when they become babies.
  4. The embryological evidences give us an idea that all the organisms have evolved from a common ancestors.

 

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions 6th Lesson Reproduction

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions you ask the doctor, who visited your school on World AIDS day?
Answer:

  1. How does AIDS disease occurs?
  2. How does the AIDS transmit?
  3. What are the symptoms of AIDS?
  4. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 2.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
The first secretion from the Mammary glands, after giving birth, rich in antibodies.
During the end of pregnancy, a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 3.
Name the types of asexual reproduction in the following organisms:
a) Paramoecium b) Yeast
Answer:
a) Paramoecium : Paramoecium reproduces by splitting into two. (Transverse binary fission)
b) Yeast: Yeast reproduces by Budding.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of grafting method in plants.
Answer:

  1. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
  2. It can be used to produce varieties in seedless fruits.

Question 5.
What measures can be taken to avoid sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

  1. Avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners.
  2. Sex with life partners only.
  3. Follow ethical and healthy life practices because contraceptives always cannot prevent STD’s.
  4. In case of any doubt, consult a qualified doctor for early detection if diagonised with disease take complete treatment.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 6.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
The process of developing zygote from female gametes without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis.

Question 7.
In flowering plants, I am formed as the result of double fertilization. The cotyledons digest and absorb me. Who am I?
Answer:
Endosperm.

Question 8.
In what way does mitotic division help the living organism?
Answer:

  1. growth
  2. cell repair
  3. healing wounds.

Question 9.
Give any two suggestions to create awareness to stop female foeticide.
Answer:

  1. Preparing relevant slogans
  2. Organising rallies
  3. Awareness campaign by using electronic and print media

Question 10.
Write two precautions you take, while observing Rhizopus in the laboratory.
Answer:

  1. Don’t touch the experimental bread with hand.
  2. If you touch the bread, thoroughly wash your hands.
  3. Leave the bread in the open air for about an hour.
  4. Avoid opening of the plastic bag as much as you can.
  5. Sprinkle water over bread.
  6. Place the bag in a dark and warm place.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 11.
Mention two materials you have used to observe Rhizopus on bread mould.
Answer:
Bread mould sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.

Question 12.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during favourable conditions?
Answer:
During favourable conditions paramoecium reproduce asexually by fission.

Question 13.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during unfavourable conditions?
Answer:
During unfavourable conditions paramoecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

Question 14.
Which bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk?
Answer:
Lactobacillus bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk.

Question 15.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The reproduction in which a single parent is involved, without formation of gametes is known as asexual reproduction.

Question 16.
What is fission?
Answer:
Splitting of organisms into two or more offsprings in a symmetrical manner is known as fission. Ex: Paramoecium and bacteria.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 17.
How budding occurs in yeast?
Answer:

  1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at specific site.
  2. These buds develop when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Question 18.
Which animals reproduce through fragmentation?
Answer:
Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in Algae, Fungi and many land plants.

Question 19.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:

  1. Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organism from their body parts.
  2. If the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals. Ex: Hydra and planaria.

Question 20.
In which plant, small plants grow at the edge of leaves?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the edge of leaves.

Question 21.
By means of which plants propagate vegetatively through stem?
Answer:
Plants propagate vegetatively through stem by means of stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 22.
Through which the Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively?
Answer:
Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively through stolons.

Question 23.
Which plants produce the new plants through roots?
Answer:
New plants are produced from the roots of Dahlia, radish, carrot etc.

Question 24.
What are the artificial propagation methods in plants?
Answer:
Cutting, Layering and Grafting are the artificial propagation methods in plants.

Question 25.
Which method is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters?
Answer:
Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.

Question 26.
Which method will you adopt to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant?
Answer:
I will adopt grafting method to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant.

Question 27.
Which fungus is commonly called as bread mould?
Answer:
Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 28.
How bread mould appears when you observe it under microspore?
Answer:
The common bread mould consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin knob like structures called Sporangia.

Question 29.
In which plants leaf is known as Sporophyll? Why?
Answer:
In fern plants leaf is known as Sporophyll. Because on the lower surface of the leaf sporangia are present.

Question 30.
What is fertilisation?
Answer:
Union of male and female gametes is known as fertilisation.

Question 31.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the organism then it is known as external fertilisation. Eg : Frog and fish.

Question 32.
What is internal fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female organism then it is known as internal fertilisation. Eg : Terrestrial animals (Reptiles, Aves, Mammals).

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 33.
What are the parts present in male reproductive system of man?
Answer:
A pair of testis, Accessory glands and System of ducts.

Question 34.
The male reproductive organ testis produces?
Answer:
Testis produces male reproductive cells or spermatozoa.

Question 35.
Sperms are temporarily stored in which part of duct system?
Answer:
Sperms are temporarily stored in epididymis of duct system.

Question 36.
What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system?
Answer:
The accessory glands present in male reproductive system are one prostrate gland . and two cow cowper glands.

Question 37.
The fluid secreted by accessory glands is
Answer:
The fluid secreted by the accessory glands is semen.

Question 38.
What is the function of semen?
Answer:
Semen provide nutrients for sperm to keep alive and helps as a medium for the movement of sperms.

Question 39.
Which hormone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs?
Answer:
The hormone testosterone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 40.
How are the secondary sexual characters are controlled in males?
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males are controlled by the male sex hormone testosterone.

Question 41.
Men produce sperm from the age of about?
Answer:
Men produce sperm from the age of about 13 or 14 years and can go on doing so most their lives.

Question 42.
Which are capable of changing the sex of the organism in which they grow like wasp?
Answer:
Some bacteria and other micro-organisms have been found capable of changing the sex of the organism of wasp in which they live.

Question 43.
The female gamete ovum is produced by
Answer:
The female gamete ovum is produced by graffian follicles of Ovary.

Question 44.
What is ovulation?
Answer:
The release of ovum from graffian follicle is known as ovulation.

Question 45.
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in which part of female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in fallopian tube or oviduct of female reproductive system.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 46.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is the nourishment tissue formed by the outer membrane of the embryo called chorion and the part of the uterine tissue.

Question 47.
When do placenta is formed during the development of embryo?
Answer:
Placenta is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy or during the embryonic development.

Question 48.
What keeps embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury?
Answer:
The embryo develop in amniotic fluid filled cavity which keeps it moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.

Question 49.
Which membrane forms umbilical cord?
Answer:
Allantois membrane which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of tube like structure called umbilical cord.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 50.
What is foetus?
Answer:
From the third month of pregnancy the embryo is called foetus.

Question 51.
What is gestation period?
Answer:
Total time required for the development of embryo and foetus is called gestation period.

Question 52.
What is the gestation period in human beings?
Answer:
The gestation period in human beings is 9 months or 280 days.

Question 53.
Collect the information about gestation periods in different animals.
Answer:
Gestation period in different animals:

AnimalGestation period
Cat and dog63 days
Horse330 days
Cow280 days
Rat and mouse20-22 days

Question 54.
What is after birth?
Answer:
The muscular contractions of the uterus continue until they push out the tissues of the placenta, which are commonly called the ‘after birth’.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 55.
What are labour pains?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle layers of the uterus is known as labour pains.

Question 56.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
Colostrum: During the end of pregnancy a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 57.
What is the importance of feeding colostrum to new born baby?
Answer:
It is very important to feed colostrum to the new born baby because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 58.
What is the need of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction help organisms to develop characters that would be help them to adapt better to their surroundings.

Question 59.
In which mountain regions can Sal trees grow?
Answer:
Sal trees grow in the Himalayan mountains.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 60.
What are the different parts of a flower?
Answer:
Sepals, petals, stamens and carpels are the different parts of a flower.

Question 61.
What are stamens and carpels?
Answer:
The reproductive parts of a flower which possess the sex cells or germ cells are called stamens and carpels.

Question 62.
What are unisexual flowers? Give examples.
Answer:
Flowers having either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers.
Eg: Bottlegourd, papaya.

Question 63.
What are Bisexual flowers? Give some examples.
Answer:
Flowers having both the stamen and carpel are called bisexual flowers. Eg: Datura.

Question 64.
What are the three parts of carpel or gynoecium?
Answer:
The three parts of carpel or gynoecium are ovary, style and stigma.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 65.
What is self pollination?
Answer:
Plants having flowers. Where reproductive cells of stamen of the flower fertilise the female reproductive cells of the carpel of the same flower is called self pollination.
Eg: Plants of pea family.

Question 66.
How cross fertilisation occurs?
Answer:
If the male cells of flower of a plant fertilise the female cells of flowers on the same or different plants of the same species, the type of pollination is called cross pollination.

Question 67.
What did Darwin showed regarding fertilization of plants?
Answer:
Darwin in 1876 showed that plants when isolated had the greatest tendency to self fertilize while when surrounded by varieties of the same flower, they readily cross fertilize.

Question 68.
Which cells are composed the embryosac of ovule?
Answer:
The embryosac of ovule composed of gametophyte cells.

Question 69.
How many cells and nuclei does an embryosac consisting in majority of flowering plants?
Answer:
The majority of flowering plants have an embryosac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

Question 70.
What is double fertilisation?
Answer:
Double fertilisation: Union of one male nucleus with an egg and the second male nucleus with the fusion nucleus is called double fertilisation.

Question 71.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed produced after fertilisation contains the future plant or embryo that develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is called germination.

Question 72.
Who gave the phrase “omnis cellula de cellula”? What does it mean?
Answer:
The ‘phrase omnis cellula de cellula’ means cells arise from pre-existing cells. It was given by Rudolph Virchow who discovered cell division.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 73.
Who stated that the animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells?
Answer:
In 1852 Robert Remak of Germany stated that animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells.

Question 74.
Who discovered the process of mitosis?
Answer:
Mitosis was discovered by Walther Flemming in 1879.

Question 75.
What is the most important discovery of Walther Flemming regarding chromosomes?
Answer:
Walther Flemming’s most important discovery was chromosomes appear double in nature.

Question 76.
Who proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements?
Answer:
Wilhelm Roux proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements.

Question 77.
What are the hypothesis made by August Weiseman on chromosomes?
Answer:

  1. In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
  2. In successive cell division the number of chromosomes always remain constant.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 78.
Who confirmed the scheme of mitotic division?
Answer:
The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.

Question 79.
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
Answer:
The structure of (DNA) deoxy ribonucleic acid was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 80.
The cells in which organ do not divide?
Answer:
Cells present in organs such as heart and brain of an individual never divide.

Question 81.
What is time required for completion of mitosis?
Answer:
The process of mitosis is completed in 40 to 60 minutes.

Question 82.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The period between two cell divisions is called interphase.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 83.
Into how many phases the interphase can be divided?
Answer:
Interphase can be divided into three phases. They are G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase.

Question 84.
What is G1 phase of interphase?
Answer:
G1 phase is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the begining of DNA replication (Gap 1 phase).

Question 85.
What is S phase of interphase?
Answer:
S phase is the period of DNA synthesis leading to duplication of chromosomes.

Question 86.
What is G2 phase of interphase?
Answer:
G2 phase is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis (Gap 2 phase).

Question 87.
Who conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique on phases of interphase?
Answer:
Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of interphase.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 88.
What is cytokinesis?
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 89.
What are the different stages present in mitosis?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase are the different stages present in mitosis.

Question 90.
In which phase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids?
Answer:
In prophase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids.

Question 91.
During which phase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles.

Question 92.
How many haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis?
Answer:
Four haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis.

Question 93.
What are the diseases that can be sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections such as Gonorrhoea and Syphilis and Viral infections such as AIDS.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 94.
In what way the sexually transmitted diseases spread from person to person?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases spread by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices, infected blood transfusion, from an infected mother to child.

Question 95.
Which state has the highest number of HIV patients in the country?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.

Question 96.
Which factors are contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Illiteracy, poor health, unemployment, migration, non-traditional sex practise, unethical contacts and trafficking are some of the factors contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 97.
Expand “ASHA”.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Question 98.
What is Red ribbon express?
Answer:
Red Ribbon express is an AIDS/HIV awareness campaign train by the Indian Railways. The motto of the Red ribbon express is “Embarking on the Journey of Life”.

Question 99.
What is contraception?
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilisation is called contraception.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 100.
Which device not only prevents fertilisation but also transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Condoms and diaphragm (cap) prevents fertilisation and also useful to not transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS.

Question 101.
What are spermicides?
Answer:
Spermicides are the pills used for killing sperms.

Question 102.
What are the surgical methods to birth control in males and females?
Answer:
Vasectomy for males and Tubectomy for female are the surgical birth control methods in human beings.

Question 103.
What is Vasectomy?
Answer:
In males, a small portion of vas deferens is removed by surgical operation ami both ends are tied properly. This method is called vasectomy.

Question 104.
What is Tubectomy?
Answer:
In females, a small portion of oviducts (fallopian tube) is removed by surgical operation and the cut ends are tied. This prevents the ovum from entering into the oviducts. This method is called Tubectomy.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 105.
What is the marriage age for girls in India?
Answer:
The marriage age for girls in India is 18 years.

Question 106.
What is foeticide?
Answer:
Foeticide is the act of destruction or aborting a foetus because it is female.

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the questions you asked the doctor who visited your school to know “the ways of transmission of HIV”?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions to the doctor.

  1. What are the ways of transmission of HIV?
  2. How can we prevent the spread of HIV?
  3. What precautions should we take while doing transfusion of blood:
  4. How does HIV transmit from mother to baby?
  5. Why should we use disposable syrenges?

Question 2.
The chromosomal number is reduced to half in the daughter cells produced by meiosis. What happens if the number is not reduced to half in daughter cells?
(OR)
In Meiosis, the chromosome number in the daughter cells are reduced to half that of their parent cells. Guess, what would happen, if the reduction of chromosome number is not done.
Answer:

  1. If the reduction of chromosomes number is not done, the chromosomal number is doubled in the offsprings.
  2. The change in chromosomal number leads to development of abnormal characters in the individual.
  3. The offspring differs from parental generation.
  4. Abnormal characters will be formed in new generation, which are not useful for the existence of individual.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a doctor to know about different birth control methods?
Answer:

  1. What is family planning?
  2. What is meant by contraception?
  3. How many types of contraceptive methods are there?
  4. What are the contraceptive devices used for female?
  5. What are the contraceptive devices used for male?
  6. What is tubectomy?
  7. What is vasectomy?
  8. What are surgical methods of birth controls?

Question 4.
Apparao and Ramulamma are a newly married illiterate couple. They don’t want children for few years. Suggest some birth control methods for them.
(OR)
Mention any four birth control methods.
Answer:
a) condoms
b) diaphragm (Cap)
c) pills
d) copper – T
e) loop

Question 5.
Why is it important for gametes to have half the number of chromosomes?
Answer:

  1. If gametes have 2 sets of chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be 4 sets in zygote after fertilization because of this the chromosomal number will be doubled in each generation. This results in abnormalities in off-spring.
  2. Hence, to maintain a constant number of chromosomes, garnets should have half set of chromosomes.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 6.
Identify the flower parts a, b, c, d and write their main function.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 1Answer:
a) Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flower. It produces female gametes called ovules.
b) Style: Ovary has a pipe like structure called style. It allows the pollen tube to enter the ovary for fertilization.
c) Stamen: These are male parts called androecium. It has two parts. They are filament and Anther.
d) Anther : Produces male gametes called pollen grain.

Question 7.
Draw and label the diagram of human sperm cell.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 2

Question 8.
How can we get the desired useful triats with the help of two selected triats by using grafting method?
Answer:

  1. Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
  2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
  3. Both stock and scion are tied with the help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
  4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
  5. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of plants with various flowers and fruits. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 9.
Draw the labelled diagram of Embryo-sac A.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 3

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Which phases take same time duration?
Answer:
G1 phase and S phase.
ii) In which phase, DMA synthesis takes place?
Answer:
S Phase.

Question 11.
Write the process involved in seedless fruit development with two suitable examples.
Answer:
In some plants ovary directly develops into fruit without the process of fertilization, this phenomenon is called as parthenocarypy.
Ex: Grapes, water melon.

Question 12.
What precautions will you take to keep away from diseases like AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

  1. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
  2. Use condom every time.
  3. Use disposable syringes and needles.
  4. Transfusion of safe blood to the patients.
  5. HIV mother can have child with doctor’s advice only.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 4i) Name male and female reproductive parts of the above figure.
Answer:
Male reproductive parts – anther / pollen grain / stamen
Female reproductive parts – ovary / ovule / style / stigma.

ii) Write the names of (1) and (2) in the diagram.
Answer:

  1. Sepal or calyx
  2. Petal or corolla

Question 14.
When does Parthenogenesis occur? Write names of two animals in which parthenogenesis takes place.
Answer:
a) Parthenogenesis is a process of reproduction where there is a shift from sexual to asexual mode of reproduction.
b) In this process generally the female garnets develops into zygote without fertilization.
c) This strange kind of reproduction occur in bees, ants and wasps.
d) The parthenocarpic zygote develop into male (Monoploid) while the fertilized one developed into female (Diploid)

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 15.
Draw the figure of metaphase in mitosis, and write about it.
Answer:

  1. Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 5
  2. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.

Question 16.
Prepare 4 questions on meiosis, to conduct a Quiz programme.
Answer:

  1. Where does meiosis occur in?
  2. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
  3. In which phase of meiosis karyokinesis takes place?
  4. Name the scientist who discovered meiosis for the first time.

Question 17.
Write slogans on ‘Child marriages – a social evil’.
Answer:

  1. Child marriage, a loosing game.
  2. She is a child herself, why burden her with another child?
  3. My childhood, my right.
  4. A child should call ‘mother’ but a child should not be called mother.
  5. Good marriages take place slowly. Go slow with children’s marriage.
  6. Say no to child marriage.

Question 18.
Write 5 slogans on the prevention of HIV/AIDS.
Answer:

  1. Open your eyes before AIDS closes them.
  2. Hate the disease but not the diseased.
  3. Spread the knowledge not the virus.
  4. Wear protection to prevent infection.
  5. AIDS brings pain! Girls please obstain.

Question 19.
What is fission? Give examples.
Answer:

  1. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two or more offsprings.
  2. This splitting usually occurs in a symmetrical manner.
  3. When an organism is split into two offsprings it is called binary fission.
  4. When an organism is split into more offsprings, it is called multiple fission.
  5. This is often the only mode of reproduction for single celled organisms.
    Ex : Paramoecium and bacteria.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 20.
Write a short notes on fragmentation.
Answer:

  1. Fragmentation is a reproductive method in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
  2. Some can grow from a separate piece of parent organism. This can be from any part of the body.
  3. This happens only in the simplest such as some flat-worms, moulds, lichens, spirogyra, etc.
  4. Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in algae, fungi and many land plants.

Question 21.
What do you know about parthenogenesis? Explain with examples.
Answer:

  1. Parthenogenesis is an asexual reproduction in which unfertilized eggs develop into offsprings.
  2. In this process generally egg develops into new individual without meiosis and fertilization. So the offsprings are diploid.
  3. In some species of animals reproduction occurs only through parthenogenesis. There are no males known in these species. Ex: Rotifers.
  4. In another type of parthenogenesis meiosis does occur and the egg can develop whether fertilized or not.
  5. The monoploid offsprings develop into males and diploid into females.
    Ex: Bees, Ants and Wasps.
  6. Nowadays we are able to develop seed less fruits like watermelon, grapes, pomegranate etc.

Question 22.
Describe the vegetative propagation through the stem with examples.
Answer:

  1. Production of new plants from the vegetative parts such as stem, root, leaves of the existing plant is called vegetative propagation.
  2. Aerial weak stems like runners and stolons, when they touch the ground, give off adventitious roots.
  3. When the connection with the parent plant is broken, the portion with the newly struck roots develops into an independent plant.
  4. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms and tubers as follows.
    a) Stolons – Vallisneria, Strawberry
    b) Bulbs – Alliumcepa or onion
    c) Corms – Colacasia
    d) Tuber – Potato

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 23.
Write short note on artificial propagation method cutting.
Answer:

  1. Cutting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which new plants are developed from the cut portion of existing plant.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 6
  2. Some plants grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant.
  3. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
  4. After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant.
    Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.

Question 24.
What is layering? Explain briefly about it.
Answer:

  1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is layering.
  2. A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground.
  3. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil.
  4. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant, later it develops roots and grows to become a new plant. Ex: Nerium.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Grafting.
Answer:

  1. Grafting is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in which two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 7
  2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
  3. Both stock and scion are tied with help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
  4. After few days both will unite by forming new tissue and grow as a single one.
  5. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
  6. Plants in which grafting is done more in mango, apple, citrus, plants.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 26.
What are the advantages of grafting?
Answer:

  1. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of the two plants (scion and stock) in its flower and fruits.
  2. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits quite fast when it is grafted to the stock.
  3. Grafting can be used to produce varieties of seedless fruits.

Question 27.
How is tissue culture more beneficial than other traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants? (OR)
What is tissue culture? What are its uses?
Answer:

  1. The traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants are being replaced by the modern methods of artificial propagation of plants involving tissue culture, as it is more beneficial than the traditional methods.
  2. In tissue culture, a few plant cells or plant tissue are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants.
  3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.
  4. There will be no climatic impact on the propagation, so multiplication can be done throughout the year.
  5. It is possible to obtain plants that are free from pathogens.

Question 28.
How does the Rhizopus propagate?
Answer:

  1. Rhizopus propagates by means of spores.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 8
  2. The Rhizopus parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic reproductive units called spores.
  3. When the spore case of the plant bursts, the spores spread into air.
  4. These air borne spores fall on food or soil, under favourable conditions like damp and warm conditions, they germinate and produce new plants.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 29.
Write a short note on spore formation. (OR)
How spores are produced in sporangia of fungi?
Answer:

  1. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which occurs through microscopic reproductive units called spores.
  2. Most of the fungi like rhizopus, mucor etc., bacteria and non-flowering plants such as ferns and mosses reproduce by the method of spore formation.
  3. In fungi like rhizopus spores are produced in some specialised structures called sporangia which bursts and spreads the spores into air. These spores when fall on food or soil under favourable conditions germinate and produce new plants.
  4. In non-flowering plants like fern, the leaves called sporophyll bears clusters of sporangia on their lower side. These sporangia produce the spores which produce the new plant when it falls on ground under favourable conditions.

Question 30.
How is external fertilisation different from internal fertilisation? (OR)
What are the differences between external and internal fertilisation?
Answer:

  1. Fertilisation that takes place outside the body of mother is called external fertilisation. This is most common in animals like fishes and amphibians. As the chance of fertilisation is controlled by nature it becomes necessary to give rise to vast number of eggs and sperms by these animals.
  2. Fertilisation that takes place inside the body of mother is called internal fertilisation. This is common in most of the land animals. As the chance of fertilisation is not controlled by the nature, these animals generally produce less number of eggs.

Question 31.
Write a short note on ovulation. (OR)
What is ovulation? How it occurs?
Answer:

  1. Release of the egg or ovum is called ovulation.
  2. The ova develop in tiny cellular structures in ovary called follicles, which at first look like cellular bubbles.
  3. As a follicle grows, it develops a cavity filled with fluid.
  4. Each follicle contains a single ovum.
  5. When an ovum is mature, the follicle ruptures at the surface of the ovary and the tiny ovum is flushed out.
  6. This release of ovum is called ovulation.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 32.
How does the uterus get adapted to receive the embryo?
Answer:

  1. The uterus at the time of fertilization is beautifully adapted to receive the developing embryo, providing it with food and disposing of its wastes.
  2. A few days prior to this time, the uterus was small, its tissues were thin, and its supply of blood vessels was poor.
  3. When the fertilized egg or zygote is about to enter the uterus become much larger, its inner wall becomes thick, soft and moist with fluid, its blood supply is greatly increased and waiting for an embryonic occupant.

Question 33.
What is colostrum? What is its importance?
Answer:

  1. During the end of pregnancy, a watery lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands.
  2. This is called colostrum.
  3. For the first few days after the baby is born, the mammary glands secrete only colostrum.
  4. It is very important to feed the new born baby with colostrum because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 34.
What is the importance of mitosis in human beings?
Answer:

  1. Mitosis is the cell division that transforms a human fertilized egg into a baby in nine months and into an adult in the next 20 years.
  2. The bone marrow cells actively divide by mitosis to produce red blood cells.
  3. Mitosis helps in replacing the worn out cells in the skin.
  4. Mitotic divisions in the cells surrounding the wound helps in cease the wound and healing.

Question 35.
Collect the information about the significance of the experiments done by Dr Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson.
Answer:

  1. Nearly 4 decades back Dr.P.N. Rao and Johnson did some elegant experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of cell cycle.
  2. These experiments have, for the first time provided evidence that the progression of cells through the cell cycle is sequential and unidirectional and are controlled by a series of chemical signals that can diffuse freely between nucleus and cytoplasm.
  3. These experiments revealed for the first time the structure of interphase chromosomes that are not ordinarily visible under the microscope.
  4. These experiments are considered to be a ‘milestone’ in the cell cycle studies.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 36.
Ramu said that it is very essential to create more awareness in Andhra Pradesh on the risk of HIV infection and AIDS. Do you support him? If so, how can you support his statement?
Answer:
Yes, what Ramu said is right. I support his statement with the following reasons.

  1. Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.
  2. According to official statistics, the state had 5 lakh of the 24 lakh HIV positive patients
    in the country during 2011-12.
  3. While one in every 300 adults is suffering from HIV elsewhere, in Andhra Pradesh one in every 100 adults is a HIV patient, that is almost one per cent.
  4. The prevalence of HIV is 1.07 per cent among males and 0.73 among females in the state, which again is higher than in other states.

Question 37.
Briefly explain about the contraception and contraceptive methods.
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in the woman by preventing fertilisation is called contraception. Any device or chemical which prevents pregnancy in a woman is called a contraceptive. Contraceptive methods are of various types and used by any of the partners as preferable. Some of the contraceptive methods are:

  1. Use of physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm (cap).
  2. Use of hormonal pills which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into oviduct.
    These pills can be induced either orally or inserting into female reproductive organ vagina.
  3. Use of spermicides that kills the sperms.
  4. Use of intra-uterine device called copper – T, loop, etc.
  5. Use of surgical methods such as vasectomy for male and tubectomy for female.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 38.
Classify the given organisms basing on the type of reproduction.
Man, Flatworm, Mould, Dog, Bacteria, Frog, Fern, Datura, Hen, Yeast.
Answer:

Sexually reproducing organismsAsexually reproducing organisms
ManFlat worm
DogMould
FrogBacteria
DaturaFern
HenYeast

Question 39.
What will happen if the amnion is ruptured before the foetus is developed completely?
Answer:

  1. Amnion is the embryonic membrane that grows around the embryo itself.
  2. The cavity within the amnion is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid, which keeps the growing embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.
  3. If the amnion ruptures by accident before the foetus developed completely, the amniotic fluid is released out through vagina.
  4. As there is no protective fluid around the foetus, it starts getting damaged.
  5. So if possible delivery must done immediately by surgerical method, otherwise abortion must be done.
  6. If baby dies inside the uterus which leads to infections in uterus causing problems
    to mother that leads to death.

Question 40.
How will you appreciate the contribution of August Weiseman to the cell biology?
Answer:

  1. Science is not advanced only by the collection of data. Someone must think about and interpret the data. August Weiseman belongs to this category who think and interpret the data.
  2. Even though his poor eyesight not allowed him to use a microscope to study cells, he made great contribution to the cell biology making use of his thinking capacity and interpretation skills.
  3. He hypothesised that
    a) In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
    b) In successive cell division, the number of chromosomes remains constant.
  4. His hypothesis proved right in case of mitosis.
  5. We should take such a great person who overcame his defect with his will as our role model.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 41.
How will you appreciate the contribution of Dr. P.N. Rao to the ceil biology?
Answer:

  1. Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao, a renowned scholar and eminent cytologist came from a poor family in Muppalla village of Guntur district.
  2. He did his research work on the cytogenetics of tobacco plant and cancer cells in culture medium.
  3. He conducted research in cell kinematics and triggering factor of cell division i.e., mitosis.
  4. He observed the interphase and its three phases.
  5. To understand the functional relationship between these phases he did elegant experiments on cell fusion technique along with his research associate Dr.Johnson.
  6. His researches revealed that the cell cycle is sequential, unidirectional and controlled by a series of chemical signals.
  7. His experiments are considered to be a milestone in the cell cycle.
  8. He is an exemplary person who proved that poverty is not a barrier to the talent and wisdom.

Question 42.
Write briefly about natural vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

  1. In natural vegetative propagation new plants are produced from stem, root, leaves of old plants without the help of any reproductive organs.
  2. In bryophyllum small plants grow at the edge of leaves.
  3. Aerial weak stems like runners stolons, when they touch the ground give it adventitious roots.
  4. When the connection with the parent plant is broken the stem portion with the adventitious roots develops into an independent plant.
  5. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 9
  6. Stolons – Vallisneria, strawberry.
    Bulbs – Onion (Alliumcepa)
    Corms – Colacasia
    Tuber – Potato

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 43.
What are sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them?
Answer:

  1. A disease which can be transmitted through sexual contact is called sexually transmitted disease or STD.
  2. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, Herpis and viral infections such as herpes and AIDS.
  3. Lack of hygiene is usually a major factor in providing conditions for spread of STDs.
  4. But unprotected sex with multiple and unknown partners is the highest reason for the spread of STDs.
  5. Some of the ways to prevent STD are as follows.
    a) Being faithful to one’s life partner.
    b) Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
    c) Using condom during sexual intercourse.
    d) Maintaining personal hygiene.

Question 44.
Why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individual through regeneration ?
Answer:

  1. Many organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
  2. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
  3. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
  4. Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible.
  5. Hence complex organisms are not able to give rise to new individuals through regeneration.

Question 45.
How an organism will be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:

  1. Reproduction through spores gives several advantages to an organism like they are produced in very large numbers and it helps in propagation of species.
  2. Spores can remain dormant till favourable conditions become available.
  3. Spores help an organism to overcome unfavourable conditions.
  4. Spores can be spread through water, air or animals and thus is good for the spread of an organism to more places.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 46.
What is the role of the placenta in embryo development?
Answer:

  1. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
  2. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
  3. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.
  4. On the other side mother’s blood spaces are present.
  5. This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients from the mother of the embryo.

Question 47.
Why do we practise vegetative propagation for growing some types of plants?
(OR)
Why vegetative propagation is adopted over other types of propagation?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practised in some plants because

  1. It is the only method of reproduction in seed less plants.
  2. We get more number of matured plants in a very short time.
  3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short time.
  4. This method can help the breeder in preserving the characters he need.
  5. It is very easy and economical method for the multiplication of ornamental plants.

Question 48.
What is Mitosis? Which type of cells it occurs in organisms? Write about the different stages of it.
Answer:

  1. Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei.
  2. Each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
  3. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
  4. Different stages of mitosis:
    1. Prophase
    2. Metaphase
    3. Anaphase
    4. Telophase

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 1.
Explain the changes involved in the formation of seed from Ovule.
(OR)
Pollen grain reached the stigma of a flower. Explain the changes that occurs up to the formation of seeds in a sequence.
Answer:
Process of double fertilization:

  1. At the time of fertilization there will be a total of 7 cells arranged in three groups in a mature embryo sac.
  2. They are one egg (female garnet) two synergids, one central cell (secondary or polar nucleus) and three antipodals.
  3. While all the cells are in haploid (n) condition only the polar nucleus is diploid (2n). This is due to the fusion of two nuclei.
  4. The synergids are also known as helper cells.
  5. Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. For the fusion pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 10
  6. Pollen grain received by the stigma, germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. The pollen tube has two male nuclei.
  7. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through microphyle and discharges the two male gametes into the embryo sac.
  8. One male nucleus (garnet) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form diploid (2n) zygote this is called first fertilization.
  9. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) (polar nucleus) and fuses with it to form endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryosac.
    Changes after double fertilization:
  10. After double fertilization, the ovule increases in size rapidly as a result of formation of endosperm tissue by mitosis and the development of new embryo.
  11. The embryo consists of cotyledons an epicotyl and a hypocotyl. The cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food for the seedling.
  12. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed. The ovary grows to form a fruit.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 2.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 12i) What are the four main parts of a flower?
Answer:
Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium are the main parts of a flower.

ii) Which parts of the flower produces gametes?
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium produces gametes.

iii) Which parts of the flower help in pollination?
Answer:
Petals or corolla help flower in pollination.

iv) Which part protect the flower during its bud stage?
Answer:
Sepals or calyx protect flower in bud stage.

v) Which part of the flower will turn into a fruit in the future?
Answer:
Ovary of the flower will change into fruit.

Question 3.
Organisms reproduce asexually in many ways. Some of the organisms are given below. Fill the below table based on the collected information about the organism and mode of asexual reproduction in it.
a) Onion b) Spirogyra c) Strawberry d) Ginger e) Honey-bee f) Paramoecium g) Planaria h) Yeast

Name of the organismMode of Asexual reproduction

Answer:

Name of the organismMode of Asexual reproduction
a) OnionBulb
b) SpirogyraFragmentation
c) StrawberryStolons
d) GingerRhizome
e) Honey – beeParthenogenesis
f) ParamoeciumBinary fission
g) PlanariaRegeneration
h) YeastBudding

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 4.
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of flower.
ii) What are the sexual parts in the flower ?
Answer:
i)
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 11ii) A. Androecium or Stamen
B. Gynoecium or Pistil

Question 5.
Read carefully and answer the following questions.

According to Weismann prediction, every organism undergoes two kinds of cell divisions. In Mitosis, there is no change in chromosomal number (2n) and in Meiosis, chromosomal number is reduced to half (n).

i) What does ‘n’ and ‘2n’ indicate?
Answer:
‘n’ indicates haploid state. ‘2n’ indicates diploid state.

ii) In which cells, Meiosis takes place?
Answer:
Meiosis occurs in sex cells during the formation of gametes.

iii) What happens, if chromosomal number is not reduced in Meiosis?
Answer:
The chromosomal number not constant in successive generations.

iv) Which type of cell division occurs in the skin cells?
Answer:
Mitosis

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 13
i) Which part produce the female gamete?
Answer:
Ovary

ii) Where does the fertilization takes place in female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fallopian tube

iii) Where does the embryo develops until it is ready to born?
Answer:
Uterus

iv) In some cases doctor’s cut and tie the cut ends of the fallopian tubes. What is the name of surgery?
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 7.
Briefly explain the stages of cell cycle.
Answer:
The process of cell division is called “mitosis”. The period between two cell divisions is called “Interphase”.
This is actually the period when the genetic material makes it’s copy so that it is equally distributed to the daughter cells during mitosis. Interphase can be devided into three phases.
G1 Phase: This is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication (GAP-1 Phase). The cell size increase during this period.
S Phase: This is the period of DNA synthesis (Synthesis phase) leading duplication of chromosomes.
G2 Phase: This is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis. Cell organells devide and prepare chromosome for mitosis.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 8.
i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
ii) What is the function of testosterone?
Answer:
i) Male reproductive system:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 14ii) The function of testosterone hormone is maintaining of secondary sexual chracters in males.

Question 9.
Describe the life cycle of a flowering plant with a help of neat labelled diagrams. (OR) Draw the life cycle of a flowering plant.
Answer:

  1. Adult plant produces flowers:
    When the plant matures and is ready to reproduce, it develops flowers. Flowers are special structures involved in sexual reproduction, which includes pollination and fertilisation.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 15
  2. Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
  3. Fertilisation:
    i) After pollen grains falls on the stigma fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grains joins with the female gametes present in the ovule.
    ii) In the ovary the male nucleus of pollen combines with the nucleus of female gamete or egg present to form zygote.
  4. Formation of fruit and seed: After fertilisation, a combined cell i.e. zygote grows into an embryo within a seed formed by the ovule.
  5. Each seed contains a tiny plant called an embryo which has root, stem and leaf parts ready to grow into a new plant when conditions are favourable.
  6. Another part of the flower (the ovary) grows to form fruit, which protects the seeds and helps them spread away from the parent plant to continue the cycle.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 10.
Analyze the following information and answer the following questions.

S.No.Name of the plantMethod of propagation
1.MangoGrafting
2.Rose, HibiscusCutting
3.JasmineLayering
4.BryophyllumSmall plants grow on edges of leaves
5.ColacasiaCor ms
6.OnionsBulbs

i) What do you call the given reproduction methods?
Answer:
Given reproduction methods are called ‘vegetative propagation’.

ii) What is the major difference between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants?
Answer:
In sexual reproduction gametes form zygote. Plant parts like root, stem and leaf are used in vegetative reproduction. It is one of asexual method.

iii) Potato plants do not produce seeds. How can you propagate this plant?
Answer:
Potato plants propagates through the ‘eyes’.

iv) What are the advantages of propagating plants with the above given methods?
Answer:
In vegetative propagation

  1. More plants are produced in less time
  2. Characters are not changed.
  3. It would be possible to develop new varieties with useful characters.

Question 11.
Explain the methods of artificial propagation in various plants.
Answer:
Artificial propagation:

  1. Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 16
    After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose, Hibiscus.
  2. Layering: A branch of the plant with atleast one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After a few days new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant.
    E.g: Nerium, Jasmine
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 17
  3. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of various flowers and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 18

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 12.
Observe the following figures and find the stages of cell division and explain.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 19Answer:
In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (karyokinesis) followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). Finally brings about the formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in mitosis division.
They are

  1. Prophase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Telophase
1) Prophase1) Chromosomes condense and get coiled. They become visible even in light microscope. Nucleoli become smaller.
2) Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
3) Nuclear membrane disappears.
4) Centrosome, containing rod-like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle
2) Metaphase1) Centrosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached to centromeres.
3) Anaphase1) Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.
2) Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4) Telophase1) Chromatids elongate, replication at this stage to become chromosomes and become invisible.
2) Nuclear membrane form round daughter nuclei.
3) Cell membranes pinches into form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants)
4) Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts.
Two cells are form.

Question 13.
Mention the stages of Mitosis with the help of diagrams. Explain the changes that takes place in Prophase.
Answer:
Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
Different stages of mitosis:
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 20

1) Prophase

  1. In this phase chromosomes condense and get coiled.
  2. They become visible even in light microscope.
  3. Nucleoli becomes smaller.
  4. Chromosome split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
  5. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
  6. Centrosome containing rod like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 14.
Describe the process of double fertilization in plants. Explain the uses of endosperm that is formed.
Answer:
Double fertilization:

  1. In flowering plant germinated pollen grain forms pollen tube.
  2. The end of the pollen tube ruptures and two male garnets are released in the Embryosac.
  3. Out of two male garnets one male garnet fuses with female garnet which is called fertilization.
  4. Another male garnet fuses with the secondary nucleus and forms endosperm.
  5. So in flowering plant fertilization occures twice hence it is called double fertilization.

Uses of Endosperm:

  1. Cotyledons develops by utilizing endosperm.
  2. The Cotyledons utilizes the stored food in the endosperm.
  3. Some of the plants utilizes the endosperm completely and changes in to seed.
  4. Because of the stored food the size of the cotyledons increases.

Question 15.
Explain any two natural and two artificial vegetative propagation methods to produce more number of plants in less time period with examples.
Answer:
Natural propagation:
i) Leaves – Small plant grow at the edge of the leaves. Ex: Bryophyllum
ii) Stems:
a) Stolon – Ex: Jasmine, strawberry b) Bulbs – Ex: Onion
c) Corns – Ex: Colocasia d) Rhizome – Ex: Ginger e) Tuber – Ex: Potato
iii) Root – Ex: Roots of murayya, guava
Artificial propagation:
Cutting: Some plants can grow individual when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plants. Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.
Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground. Ex: Nerium, Jasmine.
Grafting: Two plants are joint together in such a way that stems join and grow as a single plant one which is attached to soil is called stock and stem of another plant without roots is called scion. Both stock and scion are tied with a twine thread and cover by a polythene cover. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 16.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

SI. No.StructureLocation
1.Tricuspid valveRight auriculo-ventricular aperture
2.Guard cellsEpidermis of leaves
3.GlomerulusNephron
4.AlveoliLungs
5.AcrosomeAbove the head of a sperm.

i) Name the structure concerned to the heart.
Answer:
Tricuspid valve

ii) What is the function of acrosome?
Answer:
It helps the sperm in penetrating into ovum.

iii) Name the structures which are helpful for gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli and guard cells

iv) Name the part performing Excretion.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Question 17.
a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Human female reproductive system.
b) What happens when the Fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 21b) If fallopian tubes are closed the sperm can not reach the ova, fertilization will not happen and zygote will not form.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 18.
Observe the following table.

Reproduction systemOrganisms
FissionParamoecium, Bacteria
BuddingYeast, Hydra
FragmentationFlatworms, Spirogyra
RhizomeGinger, Turmeric
CuttingRose, Hibiscus
GraftingCitrus, Apple

On the basis of information given in the table write- the answers to the following questions.
i) Write the names of two organisms that show Asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Yeast, Hydra, Bacteria, Paramoecium (any two you may write)

ii) Write two artificial vegetative propagation methods mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Cutting, Grafting

iii) Write the names of two plants, which undergo natural vegetative propagation mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Ginger, Turmeric

iv) In fission, how many organisms can we get from one organism?
Answer:
Two

Question 19.
Among the following organisms can we see asexual reproduction? Write about the method of asexual reproduction in any of the two organisms.
Answer:
а) Paramoecium b) Yeast c) Spirogyra d) Amoeba e) Planaria
Yes, we can see asexual reproduction in all the following organisms.

Method of asexual reproduction – Organism
Binary fission                                – Paramoecium, amoeba
Budding                                        – Yeast
Fragmentation                              – Spirogyra
Regeneration                                – Planaria

1) Binary fission in Paramoecium: A single cell divides into two equal daughter cells. First the cytoplasm divides into two parts followed by nuclear division.
2) Asexual reproduction in Yeast: Budding is the common method of asexual reproduction in yeast. In this method, yeast cell wall at a particular region becomes soft and bulges into an outgrowth called bud. Cytoplasm enters into this bulge and then nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei, one moves into the bud. Finally bud is detached from the parent cell and grows into an independent yeast cell.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 20.
See the adjacent picture. Which type of pollination will occur in this ? Why do you think so?
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 12Answer:

  1. Self-pollination occurs if stamens and carpels matures at the same time.
  2. If they mature at different times, cross pollination occurs.
  3. Cross pollination occurs in this plant.
  4. For cross pollination the pollen grains are carried from other plants belonging to the same species.
  5. The mechanism of dispersal of pollen grains from one plant to other plant is facilitated mostly by wind and insects.
  6. Cross pollination is believed to be advantageous for the plant.
  7. The seeds produced by the flower will contain another source of genetic material
  8. Which may contain genes which are advantageous to the survival of the seedlings.

Question 21.
What are the consequences if meiosis do not happen in the body cells of the organism?
Answer:

  1. Each organism has a fixed number of chromosomes.
  2. This number has to be maintained in its offspring.
  3. Any sudden change in the number of chromosomes will be harmful to the offspring. Assume parent has 10 chromosomes.
  4. In the absence of meiosis during sexual reproduction gametes will also have the same number of chromosomes as parent i.e., 10 chromosomes.
  5. Union of female and male gametes occur forming zygote during sexual reproduction. The number of chromosomes doubled in zygote will have 10+10 chromosomes.
  6. In the next generation, the offspring will have forty chromosomes. If this continues cells in the offsprings will have thousands of chromosomes within few generation.
  7. This results in formation of abnormalities in each generation. Hence by way of meiotic division, the chromosome number is maintained constant from generation to generation.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 22.
Describe different artificial vegetative methods to produce large scale production of plants.
Answer:

  1. Different artificial vegetative propagation methods are cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture methods.
  2. Cutting: Some plants grow individually when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant. After burying in the soil the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose.
  3. Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant. E.g: Nerium.
  4. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved vari¬eties of various flower and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
  5. Tissue culture: In this method, few plant cells or plant tissues are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.

Question 23.
i) Labelled parts of A, B, C, D above drawn Human female reproductive system.
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 22
ii) In which part fertilization takes place?
iii) Which part is in connection with implantation?
iv) What is ovulation?
Answer:
i) A: Fallopian tube
B: Ovary
C: Uterus
D: Vagina
ii) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube.
iii) Uterus
iv) Release of ovum from graffian follicle of ovary is known as ovulation.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 24.
Write some programmes conducted by you to bring awareness in the people about health and hygeine and family planning?
Answer:

  1. Organising Health camps on World Health day to people of the village.
  2. Conducting immunisation programs for every three months.
  3. Supplying tablets on the deworming day.
  4. Organising seminars by expert doctors on individual health and cleanliness programs.
  5. Propagating small family norms conducting camps for family planning operations.
  6. Educating the masses through pamplets on the needs of taking balanced diet.
  7. Need of using toilets and washing hands and legs before and after meals.
  8. Educating the people by conducting adult education centres. This is basically required for enlightening the people on health aspects.

Question 25.
Government made an act on determining sex through ultrasound scanning and telling it as crime. What do you do to tell this to others?
Answer:

  1. I will educate people knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the act made by government.
  2. The purpose of ultrasound tests are to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments.
  3. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female people are ready for aborting it.
  4. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country.
  5. Children either male or female are equal to parents.
  6. We should see proper development of girl child after her birth.

Question 26.
Write about the embryonic membranes that nourish, protect and support to the embryo?
Answer:

  1. The growing embryo form two membranes – Chorion and Amnion.
  2. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and in the removal of wastes from the embryo.
  3. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo and amniotic fluid is present between layers of Amnion.
  4. Amnion and Amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against mechanical shocks.
  5. Placenta is a tissue formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy by the cells from the embryo and mother.
  6. Embryo receives all the required nutrients and oxygen for its metabolism from the mother through the blood vessels present in the placenta.
  7. Another membrane called allantois, which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of a tube like structure called umbilical cord.
  8. Umbilical cord contains very important blood vessels that connect the embryo with the placenta.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 27.
Write brief history of cell division.
Answer:

  1. In 1852 a German scientist, Robert Remak published his observations on cell division and stated that the binary fission of cells was the means of reproduction of animal cells.
  2. This view was widely publicized by Rudolf Virchow who gave the phrase “Omnis cellulade cellula” means all cells arising from pre existing cells.
  3. In 1879 Walther Flemming reported that there were string like structures in the nucleus which split longitudinally during cell division. He named the process as mitosis means fine threads as the dividing structures resembled threads.
  4. Wilhelm Roux proposed that each chromosome carried a different set of heritable elements and suggested that the longitudinal splitting observed by Flemming ensured the equal division of these elements.
  5. Combined with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s 1866 paper on heritable elements in peas, these results highlighted the central role of the chromosomes in carrying heritable material or genetic material.
  6. The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.
  7. The chemical nature of the genetic material was determined in a series of experiments over the next fifty years.
  8. The structure of DNA – the constituent of the genetic material was determined in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about child birth. (OR) How child birth occurs after gestation period?
Answer:

  1. Total time required for the embryonic and foetal development is about 9 months or 280 days.
  2. After this time, foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother. This is child birth.
  3. Child birth is a complicated process and involves the participation of child and mother.
  4. The foetal hormones produced inside, stimulate the contraction of the muscles present in the walls of uterus.
  5. These contractions called labour pains help in the expulsion of the foetus from the uterus.
  6. During this process the amnion ruptures, placenta is separated from the walls of J the uterus.
  7. At child birth the head usually comes out first.
  8. The foetus is still attached to the mother’s uterus through the umbilical cord, which is later separated by the doctors.

Question 29.
Draw the life history of flowering plant in the form of block diagram.
Answer:
Life history of a flowering plant:
AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 23

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 30.
In a flower self fertilization takes place. Write the process, the flower organs which involve in self fertilization.
Answer:

  1. Fusion of male and female gametes produced by the same individual is called self fertilization.
  2. Self ferlization occurs in bisexual flowering plants.
  3. The flower organs which involve in self fertilization are stamens (androecium) and carpels (Gynoecium).
  4. Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 24
  5. The pollen grains produced by anther of stamen are transferred to the stigma of the same flower by wind or insects.
  6. The stigma of the carpel secretes a sticky substance which promotes the growth of pollen grains.
  7. Under favourable conditions pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give rise to pollen tubes.
    Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo sac.
  8. This pollen tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
  9. One male nucleus (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid zygote. This is first fertilization.
  10. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo sac.
  11. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryo sac which is unique in flowering plants.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 31.
Describe the structure of flower with a neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

  1. A typical flower consists of an outer whorl of green sepals (calyx) which protects the parts with in.
  2. The second whorl has petals (corolla) which are usually brightly coloured. They sometimes emit fragrance also.
  3. Petals are soft and are useful to attract insects to facilitate cross pollination.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 11
  4. The third whorl of the flower consists of stamens (Androecium) which are the male reproductive organs.
  5. Each stamen is made up of a filament and an anther.
  6. Each anther usually has two anther lobes. The anther produces pollen grains (microspores).
  7. The inner most fourth whorl is gynoecium or pistil. It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
  8. Ovary occupies central portion on the thalamus. A swollen ovary is present on the thalamus.
  9. Inside the ovary future seeds, known as ovules are present.
  10. Ovary has a pipe like extension called style. The tip of the style ends in stigma. The stigma receive the pollen grains.

Question 32.
Write a brief note on male reproductive system of human beings.
Answer:

  1. The male reproductive system of human beings consists of a pair of testis, accessory glands and a system of ducts.
  2. Testis are male reproductive organs and produces spermotozoa or sperms and also secretes male sex hormone Testosterone.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 14
  3. Inside each testis several lobules are present. Each lobule has several tubules called seminiferous tubules.
  4. Germinal epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubules undergo meiotic division to produce sperms.
  5. The accessory glands include one prostrate gland and two cowper glands. Secretion of these glands produce semen.
  6. The duct system consists of vasa efferentia.
    They collect spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules.
  7. Vasefferentia continue as epididymis where sperms are stored temporarily.
  8. From epididymis sperms moved into tubule called vas deference and then into urethra.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 33.
Describe the female reproductive system in human beings.
Answer:

  1. A pair of ovaries, oviducts, uterus and vagina are the parts present in female reproductive system.
  2. Ovaries are present just below the Kidneys in the abdominal cavity.
  3. Each ovary has several sac like structures called ovarian follicles or Graffian follicles.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 21
  4. Every time only one follicle matures and release one ovum into the body cavity.
  5. Ovaries secrete two female sex hormones called oestrogen and progesterone which control the development of female reproductive organs, ovulation and menstruation.
  6. Just above the ovaries are the tubes called oviducts or fallopian tubes where fertilisation takes place.
  7. The two oviducts connect to a bag like organ called uterus at their other ends.
  8. The uterus is connected through a narrow opening called cervix to another tube called vagina which opens to the outside of the body.
  9. Vagina is a tubular structure and is also called birth canal because it is through this passage that the baby is born after the completion of development inside the uterus of the mother.

Question 34.
Describe briefly about the reduction division or meiosis.
(OR)
Why meiosis is also known as reduction division? Comment on it.
Answer:

  1. Meiosis occurs only during the formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
  2. During meiosis only one set of chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells. Hence daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes of the mother cells.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 25
  3. In meiosis karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur two times.
  4. During first phase of meiosis the parent cell divides twice, though the chromosomes divide only once.
  5. The second phase meiosis is similar to normal mitosis, but chromosomes do not duplicate more over the chromosome number distributed equally to each cells.
  6. Thus the four daughter cells have just half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells.
  7. These are haploid (containing only one set of chromosomes).
  8. Thus meiotic division is also called reduction division.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

Question 35.
Describe the developmental stages of human embryo after fertilization with the help of neatly labelled diagrams.
Answer:

  1. During fertilization, chromosomes of the ovum and the chromosomes of the sperm make up into pairs and the resulting cell is called zygote.
  2. Fertilization takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 26
  3. The zygote which is diploid travels down the fallopian tube. As it moves it undergoes several mitotic divisions forming the embryonic stage called blastocyst.
  4. Blastocyst moves towards the wall of the uterus and finally gets attached and embedded in the wall of the uterus. This is called implantation.
  5. The growing embryo forms two membranes Chorion and Amnion.
  6. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and removal of wastes from the embryo.
  7. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo. The space between the amnion and embryo is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid.
  8. Amnion and amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against minor mechanical injury.
  9. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy.
  10. Placenta nourishes the growing embryo.
    AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction 27
  11. A tough cord called umbilical cord is also formed by the embryo which is connected to the walls of the uterus through the placenta.
  12. From 3 months of pregnancy, the embryo is called foetus.
  13. Pregnancy lasts on an average 9 months or 280 days. This period is called gestation period.
  14. After this time foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother – this is child birth.
  15. This process is complicated and involves the participation of foetus and mother.

AP SSC 10th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Reproduction

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions 1st Lesson Heat

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is humidity? (AP March 2015)
Answer:
Humidity :
The amount of water vapour present in air is called humidity.

Question 2.
Define latent heat of Fusion. (AP Morch 2016)
Answer:
Latent heat of Fusion :
At constant temperature, the heat energy required to convert one gram of solid completely into liquid is called latent heat of Fusion.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 3.
While drinking water, Rama spilled some water on the floor. After some time, the water disappeared from the floor. What happened to the water? (TS June 2015)
Answer:

  • The water disappeared due to evaporation because we know that as the surface area increases rate of evaporation also increases.
  • So water molecules escape from the floor to air.

Question 4.
Give an example to explain that evaporation is a cooling process. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
The examples to explain that evaporation is a cooling process are

  1. Drying of wet clothes
  2. When the floor is washed with water, the water on the floor disappears.
  3. Sweating, etc.

Question 5.
Let heat is not lost by any other process between two objects in thermal contact, “Net heat lost (by hot body) = Net heat gain (by cold body).” above statement indicates a principle. Write the name of that principle. (AP March 2019)
Answer:
Principle of method of mixtures.

Question 6.
Convert 25°C into Kelvin scale. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
25°C = (273 + 25) K = 298 K

Question 7.
Given a beaker with water, a thermometer and a stand, draw the arrangement of an experiment to measure boiling point of water. (AP SA-1:2019-20)
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 1

Question 8.
Define heat.
Answer:
Heat: Heat is a form of energy which is transferred from one body to the other body due to the difference in their temperature.

Question 9.
What is meant by thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Thermal Equilibrium :
Two bodies are at the same temperature then they are said to be in thermal equilibrium.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 10.
Define dew.
Answer:
Dew :
The water droplets condensed on surface are known as dew.

Question 11.
What is boiling?
Answer:
Boiling is a process in which the substance changes from liquid to gas.

Question 12.
What is melting?
Answer:
Melting :
The process in which the substance changes from solid to liquid state is called melting.

Question 13.
What are the different energies possessed by system (body or material)?
Answer:

  1. Linear kinetic energy
  2. Rotational kinetic energy
  3. Vibrational energy
  4. Potential energy and Internal energy (I.E).

Question 14.
Why does samosa seem to be cool but hot when we eat?
Answer:
Because the curry inside samosa contains ingredients with higher specific heats.

Question 15.
On which factors does rate of evaporation depend?
Answer:

  1. Surface area
  2. temperature
  3. the amount of vapour already present in the surrounding air.

Question 16.
What is the value of latent heat of vapourization of water?
Answer:
Latent heat of vapourization of water = 540 cal/gm. (or) 2.26 × 106 J/kg

Question 17.
What is the value of latent heat of fusion of ice?
Answer:
Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/gm. (or) 3.26 × 105 J/kg

Question 18.
Give some liquids which solidify (convert into solid) in winter season.
Answer:
Coconut oil, ghee are some liquids which solidify in winter season.

Question 19.
What is freezing?
Answer:
Freezing :
The process in which the substance changes from liquid to solid state by losing some energy from it is called freezing.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 20.
Which will have lower temperature when we take out a wooden piece and a metal piece from a fridge?
Answer:
The metal piece will have lower temperature as compared to the wooden piece when they are taken out of the fridge.

Question 21.
When do you say there is thermal equilibrium between two bodies?
Answer:
It is said that there is thermal equilibrium between two bodies when there is no transfer of heat energy between them.
(OR)
When temperature between two bodies is same it is said that there is thermal. equilibrium between them.

Question 22.
What is absolute temperature?
Answer:
Temperature measured in Kelvin scale is called absolute temperature.

Question 23.
What is latent heat of vapourisation?
Answer:
At constant temperature the heat energy required to change one gram of liquid into gaseous state.

Question 24.
What is boiling point?
Answer:
The temperature at which the substance changes from liquid to gaseous state at the fixed temperature is called boiling point.

Question 25.
What is melting point?
Answer:
Melting point :
The temperature at which the substance changes from solid to liquid state at constant temperature is called melting point.

Question 26.
How is aquatic animal able to live at poles?
Answer:
The ice has less density compared to water. So it forms a layer on the top of water which prevents the solidification of water.

Question 27.
What are the phases of water present at 0° C?
Answer:
Two phases namely, ice and water.

Question 28.
What happens if external pressure of liquid increases?
Answer:
The boiling point of the liquid will increase.

Question 29.
Does ice melt below 0° C?
Answer:
Yes, if the external pressure increases it melts at low temperature.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 30.
What happens when two objects of same temperature are in contact with each other?
Answer:
Heat does not flow between two objectives.

Question 31.
What is the principle involved in pressure cooker?
Answer:
Boiling point of liquid increases with external pressure.

Question 32.
What happens to kinetic energy of particles if we increase the temperature?
Answer:
Kinetic energy of particles increases with increase of temperature.

Question 33.
Why does transfer of heat energy take place between systems?
Answer:
When heat energy gives to the system, internal energy increases. Similarly, internal energy decreases when heat energy flows out of the system.

Question 34.
What is internal energy?
Answer:
Internal energy :
It is the energy possessed by the system by virtue of its molecular motion and molecular configuration. It is a stored energy. It depends on the temperature of the system.

Question 35.
What is transit energy?
Answer:
Transit energy:
Energy possessed by a system which can cross its boundary is called transit energy. Heat and work are transit energies.

Question 36.
Where does air get? vapour from?
Answer:
The vapour may come from evaporation of water from the surfaces of rivers, lakes, ponds, and from the drying of wet clothes, sweat, and so on.

Question 37.
Why do pigs toil in the mud during hot summer days?
Answer:
They do not have sweat glands for evaporation process. So pigs toil in the mud.

Question 38.
Why is it easy to cook food in a pressure cooker?
Answer:
We know as the atmospheric pressure increases the boiling point of water increases. So we can increase the boiling point of water to 120°C in a pressure cooker. So it is \ easy to cook in a pressure cooker.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 39.
Why is water used as coolant?
Answer:
Water has the highest specific heat. So it takes lot of time to become hot. So it is used as coolant.

Question 40.
How is fog formed?
Answer:
The water molecules present in vapour condense on the dust particles in air and form small droplets of water which form a thick mist called fog.

Question 41.
Equal amounts of water is kept in a cup and in a disc. Which will evaporate faster? Why?
Answer:
The water present disc evaporates faster because of greater surface area.

Question 42.
Explain why dogs pant during hot summer days using the concept of evaporation.
Answer:
Dog does not have pores on its body. The only place where a dog can sweat is on its foot pads and the rest of the body is covered in a fur coat. So it cannot sweat; that’s why dogs pant to keep cool themselves.

Question 43.
Same amount of heat is supplied to two liquids A and B. The liquid A shows a greater rise in temperature. What can you say about the specific heat of A?
Answer:
The specific heat of A is less than that of B because rise in temperature is inversely proportional to temperature.

Question 44.
What is the specific heat of-water at boiling point?
Answer:

  1. Generally, the specific heat of water is 1. (or) 4.187 KJ / Kg K
  2. Specific heat of water at 100° C = 4.219 KJ / KgK

Question 45.
What is the equation of heat energy when change the state?
Answer:
Q = mL
Where m = mass of body, L = latent heat.

Question 46.
Convert 212°F into Kelvin scale.
Answer:
212°F= 100°C. So 100 + 273 = 373 K.

Question 47.
Convert 310 K into centigrade system.
Answer:
310-273 = 37°C.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 48.
Are the processes of evaporation and boiling the same?
Answer:
No. Evaporation takes place at any temperature, while boiling occurs at a definite temperature called the boiling point.

Question 49.
Define latent heat of vaporization?
Answer:
The heat energy required to change one unit mass of liquid to gas at constant temperature is called latent heat of vaporization.
\(L=\frac{Q}{m}\)
The value of latent heat of vapourization of water is 540 cal/gm.

Question 50.
What is meant by internal energy?
Answer:
Combination of linear kinetic energy, rotational kinetic energy, vibrational energy, and potential energy of molecules is known as internal energy of the system.

Question 51.
Write the formula for resultant temperatures of a mixture, when V1 ml of water at T1°C is mixed with V2 ml of water at T2° C.
Answer:
Resultant temperature \(T=\frac{V_{1} T_{1}+V_{2} T_{2}}{V_{1}+V_{2}}\)

Question 52.
Write the equation of heat energy when change the temperature.
Q = mS∆T
m == mass, S = specific heat, AT = change in temperature

Question 53.
The figure shows change in state of ice from – 5°C to 110°C with temperature. What are the melting and vaporization curves?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 2
Answer:
BC = melting
DE = vaporization curve.

Question 54.
Write principle of method of mixtures.
Answer:
When two or more bodies are brought into thermal contact, then heat lost by hot body is equal to heat gain by cold body. Until they attain thermal equilibrium.

Question 55.
Evaporation is a cooling process. Why?
Answer:
During evaporation process, the energy of the molecules inside the liquid decreases and they slow down.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 56.
Which factors are influence the rate of evaporation of a liquid?
Answer:
Rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on surface area, temperature, pressure, and amount of vapour present in surrounding air.

Question 57.
What is meant by fog?
Answer:
The droplets keep floating in the air and form a thick mist which restricts visibility. This thick mist is called fog.

Question 58.
Why do we sweat while doing a work?
Answer:
When we work our body produces heat. As a result, the temperature of the skin becomes higher and the water in the sweat glands starts evaporating. This evaporation cools the body.

Question 59.
A samosa appears to be cool when touched outside but it is hot when we eat it. Why?
Answer:
A samosa appears to be cool outside but it is hot when we eat it because the curry inside the samosa contain ingredients with higher specific heats. Hence they remain hot for a long time.

Question 60.
Equal amounts of water are kept in a cup and in a dish. Which will evaporates faster? Why?
Answer:
Dish evaporates faster, because dish has large surface area. Evaporation of liquids depends on surface area.

Question 61.
Why water is used as coolant in the cooling system of automobile engines?
Answer:
Due to high specific heat, water absorbs large amount of heat and temperature does not rise quickly. So water used as coolant in cooling system of automobile engines.

Question 62.
Why do pigs toil around in the mud?
Answer:
Pigs do not have sweat glands. Water in the mud evaporates and helps the pig to be cool from heat. So pigs toil in the mud during summer.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 63.
Take small glass bottle with a tight lid. Fill it with water completely without any gaps and fix the lid tightly in such a way that water should not come out of it. Put the bottle into the deep freezer for a few hours. Take it out from the fridge. You observe the glass bottle is broken. Why?
Answer:
We know, the volume of the water poured into the glass bottle is equal to the volume of the bottle. When the water freezes to ice, the bottle is broken. Because the volume of the ice is greater than the volume of the water filled in bottle.

Question 64.
From the given figure, in which the thermometer mercury level is increases and decreases?
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 3
Answer:
Thermometer A(in oil) is increases.
Thermometer B(water) is decreases.

Question 65.
What are the materials are used in to find the specific heat of solid?
Answer:
Calorimeter, thermometer, stirrer, water steam heater, wooden box, and lead shots.

Question 66.
What is the value of following temperatures in Kelvin scale?
(a) 30° C b) 70° C
Answer:
a) 30° C = 30 + 273 = 303 K
b) 70° C = 70 + 273 = 343 K

Question 67.
How much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of unit mass of material by 1° C?
Answer:
1 cal/g – °C = lk cal / kg – K = 4.2 x J/kg – K = 4.2 kJ/kg – K.

Question 68.
How much energy is required to turn 1 g of ice of 0°C into 1 gm of water at 0°C?
Answer:
The energy required to convert 1 g of ice at 0°C into lg of water at 0°C is latent heat of fusion that is 80 cal/g.

Question 69.
What is the temperature of mixture if 10 g of steam at 100°C is mixed with 50 g of ice at 0°C?
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 4

Question 70.
Boiling water at 100°C and cold water at t°C are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 5 and the resultant temperature is 40°C. Find the value of t.
Answer:
Suppose the quantities of water is 3x and 5x.
Given that
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 5

Question 71.
What amount of ice can be melted by 4000 cal of heat?
Answer:
Latent heat of fusion of ice Lf = 80 cal/g
Given that Q = 4000 cal
Q = mLf ⇒ 4000 = m × 80
∴ m = \(\frac{4000}{80}\) = 50 g

Question 72.
5 gm of ice is at (J°C. It is converted into water at same temperature. How much heat energy is required?
Answer:
In change the state Q = mL
m = 5 gm, L = Latent heat of fusion = 80 Cal/gm
Q = mL = 5 × 80 = 400 cal.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 73.
What would be the final temperature of mixture 50 g. of water at 20°C and 50 gm of water at 40°C?
Answer:
If masses are equal, then resultant temperature of mixture = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}+\mathrm{T}_{2}}{2}\)
∴ T = \(\frac{20+40}{2}\) ⇒ T =30

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following table regarding the values of specific heat of substances and answer the following questions : (AP SA-I: 2018-19)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 6
i) Which material is suitable as the base of the cooking vessel?
Answer:
Copper. Because, it has low specific heat value.

ii) Why do we prefer water as a coolant?
Answer:
Due to high specific heat value of water, it can take more time to heat itself and acts as a coolent.

Question 2.
Why do water drops (dew) form on flowers and grass during morning hours of winter season? (AP March 2016)
Answer:
During winter nights, the atmospheric temperature goes down. The flowers, grass, etc. become still colder. The air near them becomes saturated with vapour and condensation begins. The water droplets condensed on such surfaces are known as dew.

Question 3.
Temperatures of two cities at different times are given as follows : (AP March 2019)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 7
On the basis of above table, answer the following questions.
1) In which city, the morning temperature at 6 O’clock is relatively high?
Answer:
In ‘B’ city, the morning temperature at 6 O’clock is relatively high.

2) At what time, both cities are having the equal temperature?
Answer:
At 11 : 30 AM, both cities are having the equal temperature.

Question 4.
A student took the same quantity of water and petrol in two different tumblers. He kept them on a table. When observed after a day there was water in a glass but petrol was completely evaporated. Give reasons why water was not evaporated completely but petrol was completely evaporated.
Answer:
Petrol has a lower vapour point than water. And evaporation depends on the nature of the liquid so petrol evaporates quickly than water at room temperature.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 5.
What are the differences between dew and fog?
Answer:

DewFog
1) Dew is the droplets that appear on the exposed objects in the morning or evening.1) Fog is nothing but cloud on ground.
2) Dew does not effect visibility.2) Due to fog visibility is greatly effected.
3) Dew is formed when relative humidity higher than temperature.3) Fog is formed when island area is warmer than the ocean or large body of water.

Question 6.
Why is spirit evaporated in petri dish quickly under a fan when compared to that kept in closed room?
Answer:

  • The blowing air increases the rate of evaporation.
  • This is because any molecule escaping from the surface is blown away from the vicinity of the liquid.
  • This increases the rate of evaporation.
  • This is the reason why the spirit in petri dish evaporates quickly when compared to that kept in closed room.

Question 7.
Does the temperature of water rise continuously if heat is supplied continuously?
Answer:
Yes. If heat is supplied to water its temperature rises continuously till it reaches 100°C. At 100°C there would be no further rise of temperature, because the heat is sterilized to convert water to water vapour. So if heat is supplied beyond 100°C, all the water is converted into vapour.

Question 8.
Why does the mercury level of thermometer rise up when it is placed in hot water and fall down when it is placed in cold water?
Answer:

  • We know that bodies which are in contact achieve thermal equilibrium due to transfer of heat energy.
  • If we keep thermometer in hot water, its mercury level rises because heat is transformed from hot body to cold body.
  • Similarly, we observe that mercury level comes down when it is placed in cold water.

Question 9.
When we place thermometer in hot water, there is a rise in mercury level, thereafter it stops. What is the reason for steadiness of mercury level? What does reading of thermometer give at that time?
Answer:

  • The steadiness of the mercury column of the thermometer indicates that, flow of heat between the thermometer liquid (mercury) and water has stopped and thermal equilibrium has been attained between the water and thermometer liquid.
  • The reading of thermometer gives thermal equilibrium state that is temperature.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 10.
What is the relationship between temperature and kinetic energy?
Answer:

  • The average kinetic energy of molecules/particles of the hotter body is more than the colder body.
  • So we can say that the temperature of a body is an indicator of the average kinetic energy of molecule of that body.
  • So the average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. [KE<sub>avg</sub> ∝ T]

Question 11.
What is the relationship between rise in temperature and specific heat of material?
Answer:

  • Temperature depends on nature of the material, hence the specific heat depends on its nature.
  • If the specific heat, is high, the rise in temperature is low. [Q = mSΔt]
  • It gives us an idea of degree of reluctance of a material to rise in temperature.

Question 12.
What is the principle of method of mixtures?
Answer:
When two or more bodies at different temperatures are mixed with each other, then net heat lost by the hot bodies, is equal to net heat gained by the cold bodies until they attain thermal equilibrium or equal temperature.

Net heat lost = Net heat gained

This is known as principle of method of mixtures.

Question 13.
Why is evaporation of a liquid faster under a fan?
Answer:

  • If air is blown over the liquid surface in an open petri dish, a number of molecules evaporate from the surface of liquid.
  • Because any molecule escaping from the surface is blown away from the vicinity of liquid.
  • This increases the rate of evaporation.
  • So evaporation of a liquid is faster under a fan.

Question 14.
Why do we get dew on the surface of a cold soft drink bottle kept in open air?
Answer:

  • The temperature of surrounding air is higher than the temperature of cold soft drink.
  • Air contains water molecules in the form of water vapour which tend to condense by losing their kinetic energy to form water droplets.

Question 15.
Why does water take more time to become hot and take more time to become cool?
Answer:
Water has the highest specific heat among all liquids. So it takes more time to become hot and takes more time to become cool.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 16.
What is calorimeter? Name the material of which it is made of. Give two reasons for using the material stated by you.
Answer:

  • The vessel used for measurement of heat is calorimeter.
  • It is made of thin sheet of copper.
  • The reason is that the specific heat of copper is low and by making the vessel thin, its thermal capacity becomes low so that it takes a negligible amount of heat from its contents to attain the temperature of contents.

Question 17.
Why are burns caused by steam at 100°C more painful than that of water at 100°C?
Answer:

  • Water at 100°C takes additional heat energy to convert from liquid state to vapour (steam) state. This energy is called latent heat of vapourisation.
  • Hence, steam at 100°C contains more heat energy than that of water at 100°C.
  • So, burns caused by steam at 100°C are more painful than that of water at 100°C.

Question 18.
Why is cooking fast in a pressure cooker compared to open vessel?
Answer:

  • Boiling point of liquid increases with external pressure.
  • Pressure cooker gives external pressure to the water in it.
  • So, while cooking in pressure cooker it increases boiling point of water more than 100°C.
  • So that, cooking is fast in pressure cooker compared to open vessel.

Question 19.
What happens to the water when wet clothes dry?
Answer:
When wet clothes dry, the water molecules from wet clothes, after evaporation, change into water vapour and mix with water molecules present in surrounding air, in the form of water vapour.

Question 20.
Why do we use hot water bottles for fomentation?
Answer:
The reason is that water does not cool quickly due to its large specific heat, so hot water bottle provides heat energy for fomentation for a long time.

Question 21.
Why do all plants and animals have a high content of water in their bodies?
Answer:
All plants and animals have nearly 80% to 90% of water in their bodies. So it helps in maintaining the body temperature in all seasons due to high specific heat.

Question 22.
Water is used as an effective coolant. Give reason.
Answer:
1) Water is used as an effective coolant because by allowing water to flow in pipes around the heated parts of machine, heat energy from such parts is removed (e.g. radiators in car and generator are filled with water).
2) Water in pipes extracts more heat from surroundings without much rise in its temperature because of its large specific heat.

Question 23.
Why is the base of cooking pan made thick?
Answer:

  • By making the base of cooking pan thick, its thermal capacity becomes large and it imparts sufficient heat energy at a lower temperature to the food for its proper cooking.
  • Further, it keeps the food warm for a long time, after cooking.

Question 24.
Water in lakes and ponds in cold countries does not freeze all at once. Give reason.
Answer:

  • The latent heat of fusion of ice is sufficiently high.
  • So to freeze water, a large quantity of heat has to be withdrawn, hence it freezes slowly and thus keeps the surroundings moderate.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 25.
Why do drinks get more quickly cooled by adding pieces of ice at 0°C than ice-cold water at 0°C?
Answer:

  • This is because 1 g of ice at 0°C takes 336 J of heat energy from the drink to melt into water at 0°C.
  • Thus drink loses an additional 336 J of heat energy for 1 g of ice at 0°C than for 1 g ice cold water at 0°C. Therefore cooling produced by 1 g of ice at 0°C is more than that by 1 g of water at 0°C.

Question 26.
When ice in a frozen lake starts melting, its surroundings become very cold? Why?
Answer:
The reason is that the heat energy required for melting the frozen lake is absorbed from the surrounding atmosphere. As a result, the temperature of surroundings falls and it becomes very cold.

Question 27.
Why is it more cold after the hail-storm than during or before the hail-storm?
Answer:
The reason is that after the hail-storm, the ice absorbs the heat energy required for melting from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings falls further down and we feel more cold.

Question 28.
Which of the substances A, B, and C has the least specific heat? The temperature versus time graph as shown below.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 8
The substance ‘A’ has least specific heat because the rise in temperature is more for substance. We know that specific heat and rise in temperature are inversely proportional. So A has the least specific heat.

Question 29.
Why do we need pressure cooker to cook food at higher altitudes?
Answer:

  • At higher altitudes, such as hills and mountains, atmospheric pressure is low, therefore water boils at a temperature lower than 100°C and so it does not provide the required heat energy for cooking.
  • Thus cooking there becomes very difficult and it takes a much longer time.
  • So we require a pressure cooker to cook the food at a faster rate.

Question 30.
Lalitha wants to determine the specific heat of Aluminium shots. What apparatus of material is required to do this experiment?
Answer:
The apparatus required is calorie meter, thermometer, stirrer, water, steam heater, wooden box, and aluminium shots.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 31.
What are the material required in order to find specific heat of soild?
Answer:
Calorimeter, thermometer, stirrer, water, steam, heater, wooden box, and lead shots.

Question 32.
Your teacher made an experiment to show the formation of dew and frost. Explain how you show the formation of dew and frost.
Answer:
Place a water bottle in a deep fridge of refrigerator. After some time remove bottle from the refrigerator. We can observe ice in the bottle and water droplets are formed outside the bottle. This experiment is useful in formation of dew and frost.

Question 33.
Why a bottle completely filled with water and closed with a tight cap break after freezing?
Answer:

  • Density of ice is less than that of water.
  • This means water expands on freezing and converts into ice.
  • So, excess space is required to expand the water.
  • The bottle completely filled with water and closed with a tight cap has no excess space to expand water.
  • So, bottle breaks while freezing water in it.

Question 34.
Which of the following substances take more time to raise its temperature for a certain degree Celsius? Give reason.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 9
Answer:
Water takes more time to raise temperature because it has greater specific heat is, i. e., 1 cal/g-°C. As the specific heat of substance increases, it takes more time to raise its temperature.

Question 35.
The graph shows variations of temperature (T) of one kilogram of material with the heat (H) supplied to it.
At ‘O’ the substance is in the solid state. From the graph can conclude that
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 10
i) The melting point of the solid is …………….
Answer:
The melting point of the solid is T1

ii) The latent heat of fusion is …………….
Answer:
The latent heat of fusion is (H2 – H1)

iii) The latent heat of vaporisation is …………….
Answer:
The latent heat of vaporisation is (H4 – H3)

iv) The boiling point of the substance is ……………
Answer:
The boiling point of the substance is T3

Question 36.
Which of the substances A, B, and C has the highest specific heat? The temperature versus time graph as shown given below.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 11
Answer:

  • The substance ‘C’ has the highest specific heat.
  • Because ‘C’ does not rise its temperature quickly. In other words ‘C’ takes more time to rise its temperature.

Question 37.
Can the average kinetic energy of a body be even zero?
Answer:
The average kinetic energy of a body can be zero.
Reason :
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
m is never zero
if v = 0; then body is not in the motion.

Question 38.
A slab of ice at -50°C is constantly heated till the steam attains a temperature of 150°C. Draw a graph showing the change in temperature with time. Label the various parts of the graph properly.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 12

Question 39.
Iron of weight 2 kg was supplied with 12000 calories of heat. Initial temperature of iron was 20°C. Its specific heat is 0.1 cal/g-°C. What is the final temperature of iron?
Answer:
Mass of iron (m) = 2 kg = 2 × 1000 g. = 2000 g.
Quantity of heat supplied (Q) = 12,000 cal.
Initial temperature = θ(i) = 20°C
Final temperature = θf = ?
Specific heat of iron (s) = 0.1 cal / g / °C.
Heat = Q = ms∆θ
Q = ms (θf – θi)
θf – θi = Q/ms
θf – 20 = \(\frac{12000}{2000 \times 0.1}=\frac{12}{2 \times 0.1}\) = 60
θf = 60 + 20 = 80°C
∴ The final temperature of iron = θf = 80°C

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 40.
What is the heat energy required to rise 20 kg of water from 25° C to 75° C?
Answer:
Given m = 20 kg = 20,000 gm
t1 = 25° C ; t2 = 75° C ;
S = 1 cal/gm °C.
Q = mS∆T = 20000 × 1 × (75 – 25) = 20000 × 50
Q = 1000000 calories

Question 41.
If you drink 200 ml of water at 20° C, what is the heat gained by water from your body? (Body temperature is 37° C)
Answer:
m = 200 g (1 ml of water = 1 gm of water)
S = 1 cal/gm °C ;
t1 = 20° C; t2 = 37° C
Q = mS∆T (∆T = t2 – t1)
= 200 × 1 × (37 – 20)
= 200 × 17
Q = 3400 calories

Question 42.
What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 60 gm of water at 30°C temperature and 60 gm of water at 60°C temperature?
Answer:
m1 = 60 g ;
T1 = 30°C ;
m2 = 60 g ;
T2 = 60°C
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 13

Question 43.
The quantity of heat which can rise the temperature of ‘x’ gram of a substance through t1°C and the quantity of heat which can rise the temperature of ‘y’ grams of water through t2°C is same. What is ratio of specific heats? What is ratio of specific heats if rise in temperatures are same and if amount of substances are same?
Answer:
Suppose specific heats of substance and water are s1 and s2 respectively.
Heat absorbed by x gram of substance to rise its temperature to t1°C.
Q1 = ms∆T = x × s1 × t1
Heat absorbed by y gram of water to rise its temperature to t2°C.
Q2 = ms∆T2 = y × s2 × t2
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 14

10th Class Physics 1st Lesson Heat 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the factors that effect the process of evaporation. Explain with suitable examples. (AP March 2017)
Answer:
Process of evaporation is effected by surface area, wind speed, humidity, and temperature.
Ex:

  • The water kept in a china dish evaporates faster than in a cup because of more surface area.
  • Water in wet the clothes are kept under fan evaporates faster than in normal conditions.
  • Water in wet clothes evaporates faster on a less humid day than on a more humid day.

Question 2.
A) Write the principle of method of Mixtures.
B) What would be the final temperature of a mixture of 60 gms of water at 50°C and 50 gms of water at 70°C? (AP March 2018)
Answer:
A) Principle of method of mixtures :
Net heat lost by the hot body = Net heat gain by the cold body.

B) m1 = 60 gms.,
T1 = 50°C ;
m2 = 50 gms.,
T2 = 70°C
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 15

Question 3.
Answer the following questions by using the data given in the table. (AP March 2018)

SubstanceSpecific heat (cal / g°C)
Lead0.031
Aluminium0.21
Copper0.095
Water1.00
Iron0.115

a) Write SI units for specific heat.
Answer:
Joule / Kilogram-Kelvin

b) Based on specific heat values, arrange the substances given in the table in ascending order.
Answer:
Lead, Copper, Iron, Aluminium, Water

c) If we supply same quantity of heat, which substance will heat up faster?
Answer:
Lead

d) Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of Iron through 10°C.
Answer:
Q = mS∆T = 1000 × 0.115 × 10 = 1150 cal.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 4.
Suggest an experiment to show that when ice is converted into water, its temperature does not change. How much heat is required to convert 5 grams of ice at 0°C to water, at the same temperature? (Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/gram). (TS June 2015)
Answer:
Procedure :

  1. Take small ice cube in a beaker. Insert the thermometer in the beaker.
  2. Now start heating the beaker and note down readings of thermometer every one minute till the ice completely melts and gets converted into water.
  3. Before heating the temperature of ice is 0° C or less than 0° C.

Observation :

  1. We will observe that the temperature of ice at the beginning is equal to or below 0°C.
  2. If the temperature of ice is below 0°C, it goes on changing till it reaches 0° C.
  3. When ice starts melting, we will observe no change in temperature though you are supplying heat continuously.

Explanation :

  1. Given heat energy is used to break the bonds (H2O) in ice and melts.
  2. So, temperature is constant while melting.

Conclusion :

  1. This process is called melting. In this process heat converts solid phase to liquid phase.
  2. The temperature of the substance does not change until all the ice melts and converts into water.
  3. The heat given to melting is called latent heat of fusion.
  4. The heat required to convert 1 gm of solid completely to liquid at constant temperature is called “latent heat of fusion”.
    m = 5 gm; Lf = 80 cal/g

The amount of heat absorbed Q = MLf = 5 × 80 = 400 cal /g.

Question 5.
The graph shows the values of temperature, when ice is heated till it becomes water vapour. Observe the graph and answer the following questions. (TS March 2016)
(Note that the figure is not completely quantitative and also not to the scale. It is purely qualitative)
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 16
a) At what temperature, ice converts into water?
Answer:
Ice converts into water at 0°C and above.

b) What does \(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) represent?
Answer:
\(\overline{\mathrm{DE}}\) represents the latent heat of vapourisation.

c) What is the range of temperature of liquid water?
Answer:
The range of temperature of liquid water is 0°C to 100°C

d) Which part of the graph represents change of state from ice to water?
Answer:
\(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) represents the change of state of ice to water.

Question 6.
Write the differences between heat and temperature.
Answer:

HeatTemperature
1) It is a thermal energy.1) It is the measurement of hotness or coldness.
2) Heat is an extensive property, means it does not depend on amount of the substance that is present.2) Temperature is an intensive property means that the substance present will not change the specific characteristic.
3) Heat is the amount of energy of the system.3) Temperature is the measure of the average molecular motions in a system.
4) Its S.I unit is Joules.4) Its S.I. unit is degrees C or K.
5) Heat is energy itself that flows.5) It decides the direction of heat flow.

Question 7.
Why is the specific heat different for different substances?
Answer:

  • We know that the temperature of a body is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of particles of the body.
  • The molecules of the system have different forms of energies. The total energy of the system is called internal energy of the system.
  • When we supply heat energy to the system, the heat energy given to it will be shared by the molecules among the various forms of energy.
  • This sharing will vary from substance to substance.
  • The rise in temperature is high for a substance, if the maximum share of heat energy is utilised for its linear K.E.
  • This sharing of heat energy also varies with temperature. That is why the specific heat is different for different substances.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 8.
Explain the process of evaporation.
Answer:

  • The molecules of a liquid that kept in a dish, continuously move with random speeds in various directions. As a result, these molecules collide with other molecules.
  • During this collision they transfer energy to other molecules. Hence, the molecules at the surface acquire energy and may fly off from the surface.
  • Some of these escaping molecules may be directed back into liquid when they collide with the particles of air.
  • If the number of escaping molecules is greater than the number returned, then the number of molecules in the liquid decreases.
  • Thus when a liquid is exposed to air, the molecules at the surface keep on escaping from the surface till the entire liquid disappears into air. This process is called evaporation.

Question 9.
Define evaporation. Explain what are the affecting factors of evaporation and how they effect the rate of evaporation.
Answer:
Evaporation :
The process of escaping of molecules from the surface of liquid at any temperature is called evaporation.

The affecting factors of evaporation :

  1. Temperature,
  2. Surface area,
  3. Wind speed,
  4. Humidity.

The affection on the rate of evaporation :
1) Temperature :
As the temperature increases evaporation increases.

2) Surface area :
As the surface area of liquid increases, more molecules tend to leave the surface. So rate of evaporation increases.

3) Wind speed :
As the wind speed increases rate of evaporation increases.

4) Humidity :
As the humidity increases rate of evaporation decreases.

Question 10.
Why is climate near the seashore moderate?
Answer:

  1. The specific heat of water is very high. It is about five times as that of sand.
  2. Hence the heat energy required for the same rise in temperature by certain mass pf water will be nearly five times than that required by same mass of sand.
  3. Similarly, a certain mass of water will give out nearly five times more heat energy than that given by sand of the same mass for the same fall in temperature.
  4. As such, sand (or earth) gets heated or cooled more rapidly as compared to water under similar conditions.
  5. Thus, a large difference in temperature is developed between the land and sea due to which land and sea breezes are formed.
  6. These breezes make the climate near seashore moderate.

Question 10.
Why do farmers fill their fields with water on a cold winter night?
Answer:

  • In the absence of water, if on a cold winter night, the atmospheric temperature falls below 0°C, the water in the fine capillaries of plants will freeze, so the veins will burst due to the increase in volume of water on freezing.
  • As a result, plants will die and the crop will be destroyed.
  • In order to save crop on such cold nights, farmers fill their field with water because water has high specific heat, so it does not allow the temperature in the plants of surrounding area to fall up to 0°C.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 11.
Explain the factors effecting boiling.
Answer:
The factors effecting boiling are
I) Pressure :

  1. The boiling point of pure water at one atmospheric pressure is 100°C.
  2. Water boils at a temperature higher than 100°C, if the atmospheric pressure is higher than one atmosphere pressure, and boils at a temperature lower than 100°C, if the atmospheric pressure is less than 1 atmosphere.

II) Impurities :
The boiling point of liquid increases by the addition of impurities to it. If a little common salt is added to water, the water boils at a temperature higher than 100°C.

Question 12.
A, B and C are the three liquids at 20°C, 30°C and 40°C respectively. If equal masses of A and B are mixed, the resultant temperature is 26°C. If equal masses of A and C are mixed, the resultant temperature is 33°C. Find the ratio of specific heats of A, B and C.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 17
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 18
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 19

Question 13.
A refrigerator converts 5kg of water at 40°C into ice at 0°C in 20 minutes. Find the power of refrigerator.
Answer:
m = 5kg = 5000gr
∆t = 40°C – 0°C = 40°C
S = 1 (water) .
Q = m.s.∆t = 5000.1.40 = 200000 cal.
We know the relation between heat and work done as
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 20

Question 14.
Snow on mountains does not melt all at once. Why?
Answer:

  • Snow on mountains does not melt all at once because the ice has a high specific latent heat of fusion.
  • It is due to this fact that it changes into water slowly as it gets heat energy from the sun.
  • If latent heat would not have been so high, the snow would have melted quickly even with a small amount of heat energy and there would have been floods in rivers.

Question 15.
Collect specific heats of various substances.
Answer:

SubstanceSpecific heat
In cal/g – °CIn J/kg – K
Lead0.031130
Mercury0.033139
Brass0.092380
Zinc0.093391
Copper0.095399
Iron0.115483
Glass(flint)0.12504
Aluminium0.21882
Kerosene oil0.502100
Ice0.502100
Water14180
Sea water0.953900

Question 16.
The graph given below represents a cooling curve for a substance being cooled from a higher temperature to a lower temperature.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 21
a) What is the boiling point of the substance?
Answer:
The boiling point of the substance is 150°C (because the part BC represents condensation where the vapour changes into the liquid without the change in temperature).

b) What happens in the region DE?
Answer:
The region DE represents freezing of the substance where the liquid changes into solid at a constant temperature that is 100°C.

c) What is the melting point of the substance?
Answer:
The melting point of substance is 100°C.

Question 17.
You’ve taken water in vessel at 0°C and closed it with a glass vessel as shown in the figure. You used and created a vacuum inside.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 22
a) Explain what happens.
b) A part of water condenses; what is the amount of water that gest condensed?
Answer:
a) At 0°C also water is available in liquid state (generally at 0°C ice is also available) because the air in vacuum rise the temperature. Here evacuation is possible so it allows evaporation.

b) Let y ml of water is taken at 0°C.
’x’ ml of water is evaporated
Latent heat of vapourisation = Lsteam = 540 Cal/g.
Latent heat of ice = Lice = 80 Cal/g.
After sometime conversion process stops. So equilibrium is possible.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 23

Question 18.
What are the applications of specific heat capacity?
Answer:
1. The oceans behave like heat store houses for the earth. They absorb large amounts of heat at the equator without rise in temperature due to high specific heat capacity of water. So, oceans moderate the surrounding temperature near the equator. Ocean water transports the heat away from the equator to areas closer to the north and south poles. This transported heat helps moderate the climates in parts of the Earth that are far from the equator.

2. Watermelon brought out from the refrigerator retains its coolness for a long time than any other fruit because it contains a large amount of water (water has greater specific heat).

3. The samosa seems to be cool outside but it is hot when we eat it because the curry inside the samosa contains ingredients with higher specific heats.

AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat

Question 19.
Some hot water Is added to three times its mass of cold water at 10°C. The resulting temperature is found to be 20°C. Find the initial temperature of hot water.
Answer:
Let the initial temperature of hot water be t°C.
Mass of hot water = mg
Mass of cold water = 3 mg
Initial temperature of cold water = 10°C
And resultant temperature = 20°C
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 24
∴ Initial temperature of hot water = 50°C.

Question 20.
40 g of water at 60°C is poured into vessel of 200 g mass containing 50 g of water at 20°C. The final temperature of mixture is 30°C. Calculate the specific heat of vessel.
Answer:
Mass of hot water at 60°C = 40 g
Mass of cold water at 20°C = 50 g
Mass of vessel = 200 g
Suppose the specific heat of vessel is Sv
Heat energy given by hot water = mSw∆T
= 40 × 1 × (60 – 30) [∵ T1 = 60°C, T2 = 30°C]
= 40 × 30 = 1200 cal
Heat energy taken by cold water = mSw∆T
= 50 × 1 × (30 – 20) = 50 × 10 = 500 cal
Heat energy taken by vessel = mSv∆T = 200 × Sv × (30 – 20) = 2000 Sv
According to the principle of method of mixtures,
Heat lost by hot water = heat gained by cold water + heat gained by vessel 1200 = 500 + 2000 Sv
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 25

Question 21.
A, B and C are three liquids at 20°C, 30°C and 40°C respectively. If equal masses of A and B are mixed, the resultant temperature is 29°C. The equal masses of A and C are mixed, the resultant temperature is 33°C. Find the specific heats of A, B and C.
Answer:
Suppose specific heats of liquids A, B and C are s1, s2 and s3 respectively.
Given that the temperatures of liquids are 20°C, 30°C and 40°C.
Given that equal mass of A and B are mixed, the resultant temperature is 29°C.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 26

Further given that equal masses of A and C are mixed, the resultant temperature is 33°C.
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 27

Question 22.
A refrigerator converts 5 kg of water at 40°C into ice at 0°C. Find the total energy released in Joules.
Answer:
m = 5 kg = 5000 g
The heat energy released to convert 5 kg of water at 40°C to 5 kg of water at 0°C.
Q1 = ms∆T
= 5000 × 1 × (40 – 0) = 5000 × 40 = 200000 cal [s = 1 cal/g-°C for water]
The heat energy released to convert 5 kg of water at 0°C to 5 kg of ice at 0°C.
Q2 = mLf
= 5000 × 80 = 400000 cal [∵ Lf = 80 cal/g]
Total energy released = 200000 + 400000
= 600000 cal
= 600 kcal
= 142.86 kJ.

Question 23.
The quantity of heat which can rise the temperature ‘x’ grams of a substance through t1°C can rise the temperature of ‘y’ grams of water through t2°C is same.
What is the ratio of specific heats?
Answer:
Given,
AP SSC 10th Class Physics Important Questions Chapter 1 Heat 28

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Physical Science Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions 9th Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

10th Class Chemistry 9th Lesson Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is modern periodic law? (AP June 2015)
Answer:
Modern periodic law :
The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their electronic configurations.

Question 2.
Define Moseley’s periodic law. (AP June 2015)
Answer:
Moseley’s periodic law: The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

Question 3.
Which group elements are called Carbon family? (AP Mareh 2016)
Answer:
14 (or) IVA Group of elements are called Carbon family.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 4.
Which atom is bigger in size, Ne or Ar? Why? (AP June 2018)
Answer:
Ar. In groups as we go down number of shells increases due to the formation of new shell.

“O Group”
He
Ne
Ar
Kr
Xe
Rn

Question 5.
A and B are two elements. The compound formed with A and B is A2 B. What are the valencies of A and B. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
The valency of A is 1 and B is 2.

Question 6.
A teacher asked to give an example for Dobereiner’s triad. Ramu wrote them as “Li, Na, Mg”. In these three, identify which element does not belongs to this triad? (AP March 2019)
Answer:
Mg or Magnesium do not belongs to this triad.

Question 7.
Write the difference between Mendeleeff’s periodic law and modern periodic law. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
Mendeleeff’s periodic table is prepared based on atomic mass whereas modem periodic table is prepared based on atomic number (electronic configuration).

Question 8.
What is Dobereiner Triad? Give two examples to it.
Answer:
A group of three elements in which atomic weight of middle element is average of first and third element is called Dobereiner triad with similar propertion.
Eg: 1) U, Na, K
2) Cl, Br, I

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 9.
What is Newlands’ law of octaves?
Answer:
When elements are arranged in the ascending order of their atomic weights, every eighth element starting from a given element resembles in its properties to that of starting element. This is called Newlands’ law of octaves.

Question 10.
What is MendeleefFs periodic law?
Answer:
MendeleefFs periodic law:
The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic weight.

Question 11.
What is the name given to horizontal rows and vertical columns in MendeleefFs periodic table?
Answer:
Horizontal rows are periods and vertical columns are groups.

Question 12.
What is the property on which MendeleefFs periodic table depends upon?
Answer:
Mendeleeff’s periodic table depends upon atomic weight.

Question 13.
What is the name given to I(A) group elements?
Answer:
Alkali metal family, because aliquili = plant ashes. Na, K, etc. were obtained from plant ash.

Question 14.
Why are VI A group elements called chalcogens?
Answer:
Chalcogeneous = Ore product. As the elements in group 16 (VI A) form ores with metals, they are called chalcogeneous family.

Question 15.
Why are VII A group elements called halogens?
Answer:
Halos – sea salt, genus – produced. So VII A (17) are obtained from nature as sea salt. So they are called halogen family.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 16.
What are halogens?
Answer:
Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine, and Astatine of VIIA group elements are called halogens, which are obtained from sea salt.

Question 17.
What are noble gases? What is the general electronic configuration of noble gases?
Answer:
The elements of group VIII A (18) are chemically least reactive so they are called noble gases. Their group electronic configuration is ns²np6 (except) for helium it is 1s².

Question 18.
What are Lanthanides?
Answer:
Elements acquiring same properties are called lanthanides, i.e. 4f elements. They are from 58Ce (Cerium) to 71Lu (Lutetium).

Question 19.
What are Actinides?
Elements acquiring different properties are called actinides, i.e. 5f elements. They are from 90Th (Thorium) to 103Lr (Lawrensium).

Question 20.
What are metals and non-metals?
Answer:
The elements with three or less electrons in the outer shell are considered to be metals and the ore with five or more electrons in the outer shell are considered to be non-metals.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 21.
What are metalloids?
Answer:
The properties of elements which are intermediate between the properties of metals and non-metals are called metalloids.

Question 22.
Which will behave like semi-conductors?
Answer:
Metalloids or semi-metals behave like semi-conductors.

Question 23.
What is valency?
Answer:
The combining power of element with respect to hydrogen, oxygen or indirectly any other element through hydrogen and oxygen is called valency.

Question 24.
What is the latest definition of valency?
Answer:
The number of electrons lost or gained or shared during a chemical reaction.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 25.
How do we measure atomic radius of solids?
Answer:
It is half of the distance of radius of each atom.

Question 26.
What is covalent radius?
Answer:
Half of the distance between length of covalent bond is called covalent radius.

Question 27.
In which units is atomic radius measured?
Answer:
Atomic radius is measured in pico meter (pm) units.
1 pm = 10-12 m.

Question 28.
What is the method given by Milliken to calculate electronegativity of an element?
Answer:
According to Milliken, electronegativity of element is average value of its ionization energy and electron affinity.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 1

Question 29.
What is electropositive character?
Answer:
The tendency of metals to remain positive ions in compounds is called electropositive character. (OR) The tendency of an atom to lose electrons to form positive ions.

Question 30.
What is screening effect or shielding effect?
Answer:
More the shells with electrons between the nucleus and the valence shell, they act as screens to decrease nuclear attraction over valence electron. This is called screening effect or shielding effect.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 31.
What do you mean by negative or positive electron gain enthalpy?
Answer:
The negative sign indicates that energy is liberated or lost, and the positive sign indicates that the energy is gained or absorbed.

Question 32.
What is a triad?
Answer:
A group of three elements with similar properties in which atomic weight of middle element is average of other two elements.

Question 33.
Chlorine, bromine, iodine are Dobereiner’s triads. How do you justify?
Answer:
Chlorine, bromine and iodine have similar properties and atomic weight of bromine is average of chlorine and iodine.

Question 34.
Why are lanthanides and actinides placed separately at the bottom of the periodic table?
Answer:
Lanthanides and actinides belong to f – block elements with different properties so they are placed at the bottom of periodic table.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 35.
Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium were put in one group on the basis of their similar properties.
1) What are those similar properties?
2) What is the common name of this group of family?
Answer:

  1. They have same number of valence electrons that is 1 and valency 1. So they have similar chemical properties.
  2. They are called alkali metals.

Question 36.
What are the following groups known as?
1) group VIIA elements
2) Zero group elements.
Answer:

  1. Group VII A elements are called Halogens.
  2. Zero group elements are called Noble gases.

Question 37.
An element Barium lies in 2nd group; then answer the following.
1) What is its valency?
2) What will be the formula of its Phosphate?
Answer:

  1. The element lies in second group. So its valency is 2.
  2. The formula of Phosphate is Ba3(PO4)2 [since the valency of Phosphate is 3],

Question 38.
A, B, C are three elements having their atomic numbers equal to 2,10 and 5 respectively.
a) Which of these elements belong to same period?
b) Which of these elements belong to same group?
Answer:
The electronic configurations of A, B, C are as follows
A – 2, B – 2, 8, C – 2, 3.
a) So, B and C belong to same period because valence electron enters same orbit.
b) A and C belong to same group because both are noble gases.

Question 39.
Which element of 3rd period will form a chloride of Cl4?
Answer:
It would be Silicon because its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 4. So, it lies in third period and its valency is 4.

Question 40.
Which two elements of 3rd period will form a covalent compound?
Answer:
The two elements are phosporous and chlorine.

Question 41.
An element has atomic number 12. State whether it is metal or non-metal. Why?
Answer:
Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 2. It lies in 2nd group. The elements towards left of periodic table are generally metals. So the element is metal.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 42.
Elements X, Y, and Z belong to IA group of the periodic table. Their atomic radii are as follows.
X → 1.33 Å,
Y → 0.95 Å,
Z → 0.60 Å.
Arrange the elements in the increasing order of atomic number by giving reason.
Answer:
As we move from top to bottom in a group, atomic size increases and atomic number also increases.
So the correct increasing order is Z, Y, X.

Question 43.
An element has an atomic number 16. State
i) period to which it belongs
ii) the number of valence electrons.
Answer:
Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 6.
i) So it belongs to 3rd period (orbit number).
ii) The number of valence electrons is 6.

Question 44.
Why is energy absorbed when electron is added to uni-negative ion?
Answer:
It is difficult to add an electron to uni-negative ion. In order to overcome the repulsion between the electrons, actually energy should be supplied to add another electron to uni-negative ion.

Question 45.
When do you observe liberation of energy?
Answer:
Atoms of some elements gain electrons while forming ionic compounds. An atom is able to gain electron when the electron is attracted by the nucleus. Attraction involves the liberation of energy.

Question 46.
Why does nitrogen have less electron affinity value compared to oxygen?
Answer:
The electron affinity of nitrogen is less than oxygen because of stable configuration of nitrogen (i.e., 2p³ configuration).

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 47.
Which one between Na and Na+ would have more size? Why?
Answer:
Na has more size because when one electron is removed from Sodium atom the nucleus attraction over outermost electron increases so atomic size decreases.

Question 48.
Second ionization energy of an element is higher than its first ionization energy. Why?
Answer:
It is difficult to remove an electron from unipositive ion when compared with neutral atom. So second ionization energy is always greater than first ionization energy.

Question 49.
Hydrogen can be placed in group’1 and group 7 periodic table. Why?
Answer:
Hydrogen has both +1 as well as -1 oxidation states. So still there is some ambiguity in position of hydrogen.

Question 50.
Why do inert gases have zero valency value?
Answer:
Inert gases show zero valency because they do not take part in chemical reactions due to stable configuration.

Question 51.
Element ’Z’ belongs to (second) 2nd group in the periodical table. Write the formula of oxide.
Answer:
The formula of oxide of the element is ZO.

Question 52.
Do the atom of an element and its ion have same atomic size?
Answer:
No, generally cation has smaller size and anion has greater size.

Question 53.
The electronegativities of the elements in period 3 of the periodic table are as. follows.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 2
Arrange the elements in which they occur in the periodic table from left to right.
Answer:
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl

10th Class Chemistry 9th Lesson Classification of Elements – The Periodic Table 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An element has atomic number 17. Where would you expect this element in the Periodic Table? Why? (AP June 2018)
Answer:

  • Electronic configuration of the given element is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p5.
  • So, it is in 3rd period and 17th group of periodic table.
  • Due to the valency electronic configuration of 3s² 3p5 it belongs to 3rd period and 17th group.

Question 2.
How do you appreciate the special nature of inert gases?
Answer:
I appreciate the special nature of inert gases because it helps us in explaining the formation of chemical bonds among the atoms of elements and their stability.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 3.
The atomic number of an element is 35. Where would you expect the position of this element in the periodic table? Why? (TS June 2015)
Answer:

  • The Electronic configuration of element with atomic number 35 is 2, 8, 18, 7.
  • So it has seven valence electrons.
  • That’s why it is present in 17th group or VII A group and 4th period.
  • The element is Bromine.

Question 4.
Why were Dobereiner, Newlands and Mendeleeff not 100% successful in their classification of elements? Why is the modern table relatively a better classification? (TS March 2016)
Predict the reason.
Answer:

  • All the known elements at the time of Dobereiner could not be arranged in the form of triads.
  • Newlands’ periodic table was restricted only for 56 elements.
  • As Mendeleeffs classification is based on atomic weight, his classification led to two defects like anomalous pair of elements and dissimilar elements placed together.
  • Modern periodic table was prepared on the basis of atomic number. So the periods and groups are clearly defined.

Hence Dobereiner, Newlands, and Mendeleeffs classifications were not 100% successful, but modern classification is successful.

Question 5.
Observe the electronic configurations given below and write the group and period numbers of those elements. (TS March 2016)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 3
Answer:
a) The period number is 3 and group number is 1.
b) The period number is 3 and group number is 15.

Question 6.
Observe the information provided in the table and answer the questions given below it. (TS June 2017)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 4
i) What are the s-block elements in the table?
ii) What are the ‘p’ block and ‘d’ block elements in the table?
Answer:
i) s-block elements : Na, Ca

ii) p-block elements : C, P
d-block elements : Ti, Ni.

Question 7.
Imagine, which one in each of the following pairs is large in size relatively with other? Explain. (AP March 2019)
(X) Na, Al (Y) Na, Mg+2
Answer:
(X) 1. Na is large in size than Al.
2. Atomic size gradually decreases from left to right in a period.

(Y) 1. Na is large in size than Mg2+.
2. Na is larger than Mg and Mg is larger than Mg2+.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 8.
What are the limitations of Dobereiner triad?
Answer:

  • All the known elements could not be arranged in the form of triads.
  • The law failed for very low mass or for very high mass elements.
    Eg : In case of F, Cl, Br the atomic mass of Cl is not an arithmetic mean of atomic masses of F and Br.
  • As the techniques improved for measuring atomic masses accurately, the law was unable to remain strictly valid.

Question 9.
Distinguish between electron affinity and electronegativity.
Answer:

Electron affinityElectronegativity
1. It is the property of an isolated gaseous atom.1. It is the property of a bonded atom.
2. It is the energy released and is measured in ev/atom or kJ/mole.2. It is relative quantity and has no units.
3. It is the attraction of an atom for a single electron.3. It is the attraction of an atom for a pair of electrons.

Question 10.
What is electronegativity? What are the various methods used to determine electronegativity? Explain.
Answer:
Electronegativity :
The electronegativity of an element is defined as the relative tendency of its atom to attract electrons towards itself when it is bounded to the atom of another elements.

Various methods to calculate Electronegativity :
1) Milliken Scale :
According to Milliken, the electronegativity of an element is the average value of its ionization energy and electron affinity.

2) Pauling Scale :
Pauling scale is based on bond energies. The electronegativity of hydrogen is assumed as 2.20. Electronegativity of other elements is calculated with respect to hydrogen.

Question 11.
Give the electronic configurations of following elements. What do say about these elements by writing their electronic configurations?
a) Na
b) Al
c) Sc
d) Ce
Answer:
a) Na : 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s¹
b) M : 1s² 2s²2 2p6 3s² 3p¹
c) Sc : 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d¹
d) Ce : 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d10 4s² 4p6 4d10 5s² 5p6 6s² 4f²

Inference :
The valence electron enters different orbitals. So these elements belong to different blocks in modern periodic table, i.e. s, p, d, and f respectively.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 12.
Do you think that Newlands’ law of octaves is correct? Justify.
Answer:
No, Newlands’ law of octaves was restricted to only 56 elements and did not leave any room for new elements. Elements that were discovered later could not be filled into Newlands’ table in accordance with properties.

Question 13.
Why did Mendeleeff have to leave certine blank spaces in his periodic table?
Answer:
Mendeleeff predicted that some elements were missing in the table so he left blank spaces at the appropriate places in the table.

Question 14.
Give reason for the need of classification of elements.
Answer:
Classification is necessary because it is difficult to remember the properties of all the elements separately. It is easy to identify the properties of elements by making them groups with similar properties.

Question 15.
x, y, and z are the elements of a Dobereiner’s triad. If the atomic mass of ‘x’ is 7 and that of ‘z’ is 39, what should be the atomic mass of ‘y’?
Answer:
The atomic mass of x = 7 ;
The atomic mass of z = 39
x, y, z form Dobereiner triad
∴ Atomic mass oi y = average of x and z = \(\frac{7+39}{2}\) = \(\frac{46}{2}\) = 23

Question 16.
Name the two elements that would expect to have chemical properties similar to element with atomic number 11. What is the base for your choice?
Answer:
The element with atomic number 11 is sodium and its electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s¹ or 2, 8, 1.

So it has one valence electron, i.e. present in I group. We know that the elements present in same group have same valence electrons. So they show similar properties.

Therefore the other two elements are Lithium and Potassium.

Question 17.
An element X belongs to 3rd period and group 14 of the periodic table. State
a) the number of valence electrons
b) the valency
c) the name of the element.
Answer:
a) The number of valence electrons are 4.
b) Its valency = 8 – 4 = 4.
c) The electronic configuration of element is 2, 8, 4.
(Because 3rd period means third orbit, group 14 has 4 valence electrons). So, the element with atomic number 14 is Silicon.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 18.
Why is it easier to remove 4f electron than 4s?
Answer:
Orbitals belonging to the same main shell have different penetration power towards the nucleus. In fourth main shell the order of penetration is like this 4s > 4p > 4d > 4f. So, it is easier to remove 4f electron than 4s.

Question 19.
How is screening effect responsible for low ionization of cesium?
Answer:

  • More the shells with electrons between the nuclear and the valence shell, they act as screens and decrease nuclear attraction over valence electron. This is called the screening effect.
  • More the screening effect, less is the ionization energy.
  • Cesium with more inner shells has less ionization energy.

Question 20.
Why does Boron have less ionization energy when compared with Beryllium?
Answer:

  • The electronic configuration of Be and B are 1s² 2s² and 1s² 2p² 2p¹.
  • The element Boron has less ionization energy due to less penetration power of 2p compared to 2s.

Question 21.
We know that as we move from left to right ionization energy increases. But ionization energy Nitrogen is more than Oxygen. Why?
Answer:

  • It is easier to remove an electron from Oxygen when compared to Nitrogen.
  • This is because Nitrogen has stable 1s² 2s² 2p³ electronic configuration which contains half filled 2p orbitals whereas Oxygen has 1s² 2s² 2p4 configuration.

Question 22.
Why is it difficult to remove an electron from Mg+ when compared with Mg?
Answer:

  • The energy required to remove the first electron outermost orbit of a neutral gaseous atom of the element is called first ionization energy.
  • The energy required to remove from unipositive ion of the element is called second ionization energy.
  • Second ionization energy is always more than first ionization energy because it is difficult to move electron from unipositive ion due to greater nuclear attraction.
  • So it is difficult to remove an electron from Mg+ when compared with Mg.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 23.
Using the periodic table predict formula of compound formed between an element ‘X’ of group 2 and another element of group 17.
Answer:

  • The element X belongs to group 2. So, the number of valence electrons are 2 and its valency is 2.
  • The element Y belongs to group 17 or VII. So, the number of valence electrons are 7 and its valency = 8 – 7= 1.

During formation compound elements exchange their valencies.
∴ The formula of compound is XY2.

Question 24.
How do electronegativity values vary in period and group?
Answer:
Period :
When we move from left to right in period, the electronegativity increases due to decrease in atomic size.

Group:
When we move from top to bottom in a group, the electronegativity decreases due to increase in atomic size.

Question 25.
How does metallic and non-metallic characters vary in a period and group?
Answer:
Period:
When we move from left to right in a period, the metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases.

Group :
When we move form top to bottom in a group, non-metallic character decreases and metallic character increases.

Question 26.
How do valency vary in period and group?
Answer:
Period :
When we move from left to right in a period, the valency does not follow a regular trend. For example, in second period the valency starts from 1 and increases to 4, then thereafter decreases to ‘O’.

Group :
When we move top to bottom in a group, the valency remains the same because in a group the valence electrons are same.

Question 27.
How does electron affinity vary in a period and group?
Answer:
Period :
When we move from left to right in period, electron affinity increases due to greater nuclear attraction over electron.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Group :
When we move from top to bottom, the electron affinity decreases in atomic size. As the size of the atom increases, the nuclear attraction over outermost electron decreases. So electron affinity decreases.

Question 28.
An element has atomic number 19. Where would you expect this element in the periodic table anti why?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of element is 1s²2s²2p63s²3p64s¹. So the element is in 4th period and I group.

Question 29.
The electronic configuration of the element X, Y, and Z are given below,
a) X = 2, 5
b) Y = 2, 8, 1
c) Z = 2, 8
i) Which element belongs to 18th group?
ii) Which element belongs to 15th or V group?
iii) Which element belongs to third period?
Answer:
i) Z belongs to 18th group because it is a noble gase (i.e. Ne).
ii) X belongs to 15th or V group because it has 5 valence electrons.
iii) Y belongs to 3rd period because the valence electron is present in 3rd orbit.

Question 30.
Referring the part of periodic table given below answer the questions that follow.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 5
1) What happens to the atomic size if moved from left to right? Support your answer.
2) What changes do you observe in the metallic properties of the elements when moved from left to right?
Answer:
1) When we move from left to right in a periodic table atomic radii of elements decrease, as a result the size of the,atom decreases,

2) When we move from left to right in a periodic table electronegativity values of elements increase, as a result the metallic properties of the elements decrease.

Question 31.
State the name of element, number of valence electrons, valency, the group number and the period number of each element given in the following table.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 6
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 7

10th Class Chemistry 9th Lesson Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Ionization Energy? Explain the factors that effect Ionization Energy. (AP June 2017)
(OR)
What is ionization energy? What are the factors which influence ionization energy? Explain.
(OR)
Write the factors that influence ionization energy and explain any three of them. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
Ionization energy :
The energy required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit or shell of a neutral gaseous atom is called ionization energy.
Factors influencing ionization energy :
1) Nuclear charge :
As nuclear charge increases, ionization energy increases.

2) Screening effect or shielding effect:
More the screening effect, less is the ionization energy.

3) Penetrating power of the orbitals :
If the orbitals have less penetrating power, then the ionisation energy is less. Generally, the penetrating power of orbits are like this : s > p > d > f.

4) Stable configuration :
The elements having half-filled or completely filled orbitals have more stability. So the ionization energy is more when the element has stable configuration.

5) Atomic size :
As the atomic size increases, the nucleus attraction over outermost electron decreases. So ionization energy decreases.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 2.
Elements of one short period of the Periodic Table are given below in the order from left to right. (AP March 2017)
Li, Be, B, C, N, F, Ne
Answer the following:
(i) To which period, do these elements belong?
(ii) One element of this period is missing. Which is the missing element and where it should be placed?
(iii) Which of the above elements belong to the family of halogens? What is its electronegativity value?
(iv) How does the metallic character varies in the Period?
Answer:
(i) 2nd period.
(ii) Oxygen.
It should be placed between Nitrogen and Flourine.

(iii) Flourine
Electro negativity 4.0

(iv) Decreases from left to right.

Question 3.
In the table given below, names of some elements of families are given. Based on this, fill the information in the empty boxes. (TS June 2015)
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 8
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 9

Question 4.
Two elements X and Y belong to Groups 1 and 2 respectively in the same period of the Periodic Table. Compare these elements with respect to : (TS March 2015)
i) number of electrons in their outermost orbit.
Answer:
The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of element X = 1
The number of electrons in the outermost orbit of element Y = 2

ii) their atomic size and their valencies.
Answer:
The atomic size of the Y is lesser than X
Valence of X = 1 ; Valence of Y = 2

iii) their ionisation energy and metallic character.
Answer:
The ionization energy of Y is greater than X, X has higher metallic character than Y.

iv) formulae of their chlorides and sulphates.
Answer:
Chloride of X …. XCl
Chloride of Y …. YCl2
Sulphate of X …. X2SO4
Sulphate of Y …. YSO4

Question 5.
How are the elements arranged into groups and periods in the Modern Periodic Table? Elements in a group possess similar properties, but elements in a period do not show similarities in their properties. Why? (TS June 2017)
Answer:

  • The Modern periodic table is arranged in groups and periods based on the electronic configuration of the atoms of elements.
  • Physical and Chemical Properties of elements are related to their electronic con-figurations particularly the outershell configurations.
  • The atoms of the elements in a group posses similar electronic configurations.
  • The elements in a group should have similar chemical properties and there should be regular gradation in their physical properties from top to bottom.
  • Across the table from left to right in any period, elements gets an increase in the atomic number by 1 unit between any two successive elements.
  • Therefore the electronic configuration of valence shell of any two elements in a given period is not same.
  • Due to this reason elements along a period posses different chemical properties with regular gradation in their physical properties from left to right.

Question 6.
Explain any four factors which influence the electron affinity (Electron Gain Enthalpy). (TS March 2017)
Answer:
Factors effecting of electron affinity
1. Nuclear Charge :
If nuclear charge increases electron affinity increases, similarly it decreases if nuclear charge decreases.

2. Screening effect:
If screening effect value increases electron affinity increases, if it decreases electron affinity decreases.

3. Penetration power of the orbitals :
If penetration power of the orbitals increases electron affinity increases. If it decreases electron affinity decreases.

4. Stable configuration :
If an atom has stable electron configuration electron affinity will decreases.

5. Atomic radius :
If atomic radius increases electronic affinity will be increases. If atomic radius decreases electron affinity decreases.

6. Metallic property :
If metallic property increases electron affinity decreases.

7. Non-Metallic property :
Non-Metallic property increases electron affinity value increases.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 7.
Observe the information and answer the following questions. (TS June 2018)

Name of the ElementAtomic NumberElectronic Configuration
Sodium11[Ne] 3s1
Magnesium12[Ne] 3s2
Potassium19[Ar] 4s1
Calcium20[Ar] 4s2

1) What is valency of Magnesium?
Answer:
Valency of magnesium is two.

2) Which element has more electro-positivity?
Answer:
Potassium (K) has more electro-positivity.

3) Write the elements which belongs to (third) 3rd Period.
Answer:
The elements which belongs to 3rd period are Sodium (Na), Magnesium (Mg).

4) Write the elements which belongs to 1st Group.
Answer:
Sodium (Na), Potassium (K) belong to 1st Group.

Question 8.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 10
Answer the following from the above in brmation. (TS March 2018)
i) Which element posses the higher atomic radius in the above table?
Answer:
The element having higher atomic radius is ‘K’ (Potassium)

ii) Mention two plair of element which forms ionic bond.
Answer:
Na, Cl Mg, CL

iii) Name the two elements having valency 2.
Answer:
Elements having valency 2 are Be, Mg, Ca, 0, S, Se.

iv) Which element has electronic configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p4.
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 9.
Explain the significance of three quantum numbers in predicting the position of an electron in an atom. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
Each electron in an atom is described by a set of three quantum numbers n, 1 and ml.
1. Principal quantum number (n):
The principal quantum number is used to describe the size and energy of the main shell. It is denoted by ‘n’. ‘n’ has positive integer values of 1, 2, 3, It is used to know the number of orbitals (n²) and electrons in an orbit. (2n²).
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 11

As ‘n’ increases the shells becomes larger and the electrons in those shells are farther from the nucleus and their energies increases.

2. The angular – momentum quantum number (l) :
‘l’ has integer values from O’ to n – 1, for each value of ‘n’. Each ‘l’ value represents one sub-shell. It is used to describe the shape of an orbit.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 12

3. The magnetic quantum number (ml) :
The magnetic quantum number (ml) has integer values between -l and +l including zero.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 13
If l = 0, the possible ml value is 1.
l = 1, the possible ml value is -1, 0 and 1.
Thus for a certain value of 1, there are (2l + 1) integer values of ml.

These values describe the orientation of the orbital in space relative to the other orbitals in the atom.

Ex: When l = 1, (2l + 1) = 3, that means ml has 3 values namely -1, 0, 1 or three p orbitals, with different orientations along x, y, z axes, labelled as px, py and pz orbitals.

Predicting the position of an electron in an atom :
If the values of n, l, and ml are 2, 1,-1 respectively the electron is present in 2px orbital in L – shell.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 10.
Answer the following question based on the values of the atomic radii of the elements of one of the periods in modern periodic table (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Li (152), Be (111), B (88), C (77), N (74), O (66) and F (64)
a) What is the trend of atomic radii of given elements?
b) In the numerical listing of periods in the modern periodic table, what number was given to above elements?
c) Mention the unit of atomic radius.
d) Why the values of atomic radius varied along the period?
Answer:
a) Atomic radii of elements decrease while going left to right in the periodic table.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 14
b) Period – 2
c) Unit of atomic radius is ‘pm’ (picometer).
d) There should be no change in distance between nucleus and outer most shell for the elements in one period.

But, nuclear charge increases because of the increase in the atomic number of elements in a period.

Hence, the nuclear attraction on the outer shell electrons increases.

As a result the size of the atoms decreases while going left to right in a period.

Question 10.
Mendeleeff classified the then known 63 elements in the form of a periodic table. Mention any two things that benefitted study of chemistry, to support the above statement.
Answer:

  • Mendeleeff accepted minor inversions in the order of increasing atomic weights as these inversions resulted in elements being placed in the correct group.
  • It was the extraordinary thinking of Mendeleeff that made the chemists to accept the periodic table and recognise Mendeleeff more than anyone else as the originator of the periodic law.
  • At the time when Mendeleeff introduced his periodic table even electrons were not discovered.
  • Even then the periodic table was prepared to provide a scientific base for the study of chemistry of elements.
  • In his honour the 101 element was named “Mendelevium”.

Question 11.
How do these properties vary in period and group?
1) Valency
2) Atomic radius
3) Ionisation energy
4) Electron affinity
5) Electronegativity
6) Electropositivity
7) Metallic nature
8) Non-Metallic nature.
Answer:
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 15

Question 12.
Explain the salient features and achievements of the Mendeleeffs periodic table.
Answer:
Mendeleeffs periodic table is based on atomic weight.
1) Periodic law:
The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic weights.

2) Groups and sub-groups :
The vertical columns in Mendeleeffs periodic table are called groups. There are eight groups and elements in each group have similar properties. Each group is divided into sub-groups A and B.

3) Periods :
The horizontal rows are called periods. There are ‘seven’ periods in Mendeleeffs periodic table.

4) Predicting the properties of missing elements :
Based on the arrangement of elements in table, Mendeleeff predicted that some elements were missing and left blank spaces at appropriate places in the table. Later they were discovered.

5) Correction of atomic weight :
It is useful in correcting atomic weights of elements.

6) Anomalous series :
More atomic weight element like Tellurium (Ti) is placed before the less atomic weight element like Iodine in order to place these elements in the correct group.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 13.
How does atomic radius vary la period and group? Explain.
Answer:
Period :

  1. As we move from left to right the atomic radius decreases because the electrons enter the same main shell.
  2. The nuclear charge increases because of increase in atomic number of elements in period.
  3. Hence, the nuclear attraction on the outer shell electron increases. As a result, the size of atom decreases.

Group:

  1. Atomic radius increases from top to bottom in a group of the periodic table.
  2. As we go down in a group, the atomic number of element increases. In order to accommodate more number of electrons, there are more additional shells.
  3. As a result, the distance between the nucleus and the outer shell of atom increases.
  4. So atomic size increases.

Question 14.
What is electron affinity? What are the factors which influence electron affinity?
Answer:
Electron affinity :

  1. The electron affinity of an element is defined as the energy liberated when an electron is added to its neutral gaseous atom.
  2. Electron affinity of an element is also called electron gain enthalpy of that element.
  3. M(g) + e → M(g) + EA1 (M = Atom of element, EA1 = First Electron affinity)
    M(g) + e → M-2(g) + EA2 (EA2 = Second Electron affinity)

Factors influencing Electron affinity :
1) Nuclear charge :
Greater the nuclear charge, greater the electron affinity value because of greater attraction for incoming electron.

2) Atomic size :
As the atomic size increases, the attractive force of the nucleus on the electron decreases. So electron affinity decreases.

3) Electronic configuration :
The elements having stable electronic configurations of half filled or completely filled valence sub-shells show very small tendency to accept additional electron. So the electron affinity is low or almost zero for these elements.

4) Penetrating power of the orbitals :
As the penetrating power of the orbitals increases, the electron affinity increases.

5) Screening effect or shielding effect:
More the screening effect of orbitals, less is the electron affinity value.

Question 15.
How did Mendeleeff correct atomic weights of various elements?
Answer:

  • Atomic weight = Equivalent weight x Valency
  • By using the formula, the atomic weight of Beryllium was calculated as 13.5 (Equivalent weight of Be = 4.5, valency = 3)
  • With this atomic weight the element should be placed in wrong group.
  • So Mendeleeff predicted its valency is only 2. From that he calculated the atomic weight of Beryllium as 9.
  • Now it fitted into correct group.
  • Similarly, Mendeleeff corrected atomic weights of Indium and Gold.

Question 16.
Answer the following questions if atomic number of element is 15.
1) What is the name of the element?
2) What is the electronic configuration of element?
3) Which period and group does it belong to?
4) How many valence electrons are there in the element?
5) What is the valency of the element?
Answer:

  1. The element is phosporous,
  2. The electronic configuration of element is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p³ or 2, 8, 5.
  3. It belongs to 3rd period (orbit number is 3) and V or 15 group (Number of electrons in valence orbit is 5.)
  4. Number of valence electrons are 5.
  5. Its valency is 8 – 5 = 3.

Question 17.
If an element belongs to 3rd period and 17th group, then answer the following questions.
1) What is its electronic configuration?
2) How many valence electrons are there in the element?
3) What is the valency of element?
4) What is atomic number of element?
5) What is the name of the element?
6) Give two more elements which have similar properties as this element?
Answer:

  • The element belongs to 3rd period and 17th group. So the valence orbit is 3rd and number of valence electrons in that orbit is 7. So its electron configuration is 2, 8, 7.
  • The number of valence electrons are 7.
  • The valency of element = 8 – 7 = 1.
  • The atomic number of element is 17.
  • Name of the element is chlorine.
  • Chlorine belongs to Halogen family. So Fluorine, Bromine, Iodine, and Astatine have similar properties as chlorine.

Question 18.
The elements of a periodic table are given below in the order from left to right.
Li Be B C O F Ne
1) To which period do these elements belong?
2) One element of this period is missing. Which is the missing element and where should it be placed?
3) Which one of the elements in this period shows the property of catenation?
4) Place the three elements fluorine, beryllium, and oxygen in the order of increasing electronegativity.
5) Which one of the above elements belongs to halogen series?
Answer:

  1. The elements belong to 2nd period.
  2. The element which is missing is Nitrogen which is placed in between carbon and oxygen.
  3. Carbon shows the property of catenation.
  4. The ascending order of electronegativity for these element is Beryllium < Oxygen < Fluorine.
  5. Fluorine belongs to halogen family.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 19.
A group of elements in periodic table is given below.
Boron, Aluminium, Gallium, Indium, and Thallium.
(Boron is the first element and Thallium is the last element)
Answer the following questions in relation to the above group of elements.
1) Which element has the most metallic character?
2) Which element would be expected to have the highest electronegativity?
3) If the electronic configuration of Aluminium is 2, 8, 3, how many electrons are there in outer shell of thallium?
4) The atomic number of Boron is 5. Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when Boron reacts with Chlorine.
5) Do the elements in the group to the right of this Boron group have more metallic or less metallic character? Justify your answer.
Answer:
1) Thallium has the most metallic character because as we move from top to bottom in a group the metallic character increases.

2) Boron has the highest electronegativity because as we move from top to bottom in a group electronegativity decreases.

3) Thallium is in the same group as Boron. So, the number of electrons in outermost shell of Thallium is 3.

4) The atomic number of Boron is 5. So, its electronic configuration is 2, 3. Therefore its valency is 3.

Whereas the atomic number of Chlorine is 17. So, its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. Therefore its valency is 1.

The formula of compound formed between Boron and Chlorine is BCl3.

5) The elements in the group right to Boron group have lesser metallic character because as we move from left to right in a period metallic character decreases.

Question 20.
The following questions refer to the periodic table.
1) Name the first and the last element in period 2.
2) What happens to the atomic size of elements moving from top to bottom of a group?
3) Which of the elements has the highest electron affinity among the halogens?
4) What is common feature of the electronic configurations of the elements in group 16?
Answer:
1) The first and the last elements of 2nd period or Lithium and Neon.

2) The atomic size decreases as we move from top to bottom in a group because there is an addition of shell each time as we move down the group.

3) Chlorine has the highest electron affinity. We know as move from top to bottom the electron affinity values decrease. But due to small size of fluorine there would be more electron-electron repulsions, if we add electron. So Chlorine has more electron affinity.

4) All these have same general outermost electronic configuration that is ns² np4.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 21.
Answer the following.
1) Elements of which groups have low ionization energy?
2) What is your guess about atomic size of an element with seven electrons among all the elements in the same period?
3) Which element has the highest electronegativity? Why?
4) Which element has the highest electropositivity? Why?
Answer:
1) Group IA, IIA elements have lower ionization energy values because they have metallic character.

2) As we move from left to right in a period atomic size decreases. So element with seven outermost electrons has least size among all the elements in the same period.

3) Fluorine has the highest electronegativity because when we move from left to right in a period atomic size decreases and electronegativity values increase. So Fluorine has the highest electronegativity.

4) Cesium has the highest electropositivity or positive character because when we move from top to bottom in a group atomic size decreases. So electropositive character increases. Therefore Cesium has the highest electropositive character.

Question 22.
Given below is the electronic configuration of A, B, C, D.

A) 1s2 2s2 2p¹a) Which are the elements coming within the same period?
B) 1s2 2s2 2p6b) Which are the elements coming within the same group?
C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6c) Which are the noble gas elements?
D) 1s2d) Which group and period does the element C belong to?

Answer:
a) A and B belong to same period because the valence electrons of both the elements lie in the same orbit.
b) Elements A and C and elements B and D.
c) B and D are noble gas elements.
d) C belongs to 3rd period (orbit number) and III group (Number of valence electrons).

Question 23.
Write down the characteristics of the element having atomic number 16.
i) Electronic configuration
ii) Period number
iii) Group number
iv) Element family
v) Number of valence electrons
vi) Valency
vii) Metal or non-metal
viii) Name of the element
Answer:
i) Electronic configuration of element is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p4 or 2, 8, 6.
ii) Period number is 3 because valence electron lies in 3rd orbit.
iii) Group number is 6 because the number of valence electrons are 6.
iv) Element belongs to chalcogen family.
v) Number of valence electrons are 6.
vi) Valency = 8 – 6 = 2.
vii) It is a non-metal because in a period when we move from left to right non-metallic character increases.
viii) Name of the element is sulphur.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 24.
The second period element ‘F has electron gain enthalpy than the third period elements of same group ‘Cl’. Why?
Answer:

  • In a group of elements, the electron gain enthalpy decreases from top to bottom.
  • But in general the second element in a group, i.e. 3rd period element has greater electron gain enthalpy than the first element, i.e. 2nd period element.
    Ex : E.A of F < E.A of Cl.
  • This is because Fluorine atom is smaller in size than Chlorine atom.
  • F2 also has strong inter electronic repulsions.
  • In the addition of an electron to fluorine atom, the electronic repulsions overcome at the expense of a part of the energy liberated.

Hence the overall energy liberated is less than that of Chlorine atom.

Question 25.
Differentiate the metals and non-metals.
Answer:

MetalsNon-Metals
1. Metals have lustrous surface.1. Non-metals do not have lustrous surface.
2. They show malleability.2. They do not show malleability.
3. They show ductility.3. They do not show ductility.
4. They produce sonorous sound.4. They do not produce sonorous sound.
5. Generally they are hard.5. Generally they are soft.
6. They are good conductors of electricity.6. They are bad conductors of electricity.
7. Generally they liberate hydrogen gas when they are treated with acids.7. They do not liberate hydrogen gas.

Question 26.
The electronic configuration of atom A is 2, 8, 6.
a) What is the atomic number of element A?
b) State whether the atomic size of element A is bigger or smaller than the atom having atomic number 14. Why?
c) Which of the elements exhibits similarity in chemical properties as element A 0(8), C(6), N(7), AV(18). Why?
d) How does the element form inert gas configuration?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of atom – A is 2, 8, 6.
a) Atomic number of element ‘A’ is 16, i.e. Sulphur.

b) The atom which has atomic number – 14 is Silicon (Si).

Atomic size of element decreases across period from left to right. So the atomic size of element ‘A’ is smaller than the atom having atomic number 14.

c) Element oxygen O8 – exhibits similarity in chemical properties as element A, because they belong to the same group.

d) Given element – A becomes inert gas, i.e. Argon configuration by gaining ‘2’ electrons.

AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table

Question 27.
Select the correct answers from the choices A, B, C, D which are given with reference to the variation of properties in the periodic table. Which of the following is generally true?
A : Atomic size increases from left to right across a period.
B : Ionisation energy increases from left to right across a period.
C : Electropositive character increases going down a group.
D : Electronegativity increases going down a group.
Answer:
1) A is wrong because when we move from left to right the atomic number increases. So, the nuclear attraction over outermost orbital increases. Therefore the atomic size decreases.

2) B is correct but it does not follow a regular trend in a period.

3) C is correct. As move from top to bottom in a group atomic size increases. Therefore it is easy to lose electrons. So electropositive character increases.

4) D is wrong because as we move from top to bottom in a group atomic size increases. So electronegativity decreases.

Question 28.
Some elements belonging to second period of periodic table, and their atomic radii are given below. Observe them and write answers.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 16
1) Write the elements in the ascending order of their atomic radii.
2) Which of the 2nd period elements closer to the configuration of inert gas?
3) Which is the outermost orbit of all these elements?
4) Which element’s atomic size is bigger, Beryllium or Carbon? Why?
Answer:

  1. The ascending order of atomic sizes is O, N, C, B, Be and Li.
  2. Lithium has closest inert gas configuration, i.e. 1s² 2s¹. Its nearest inert gas is Helium.
  3. The outermost orbit for all these elements is second orbit.
  4. Beryllium has more atomic size than Carbon. Because when we move across a period the atomic number increases. So nuclear attraction over outermost orbit increases and atomic size decreases. So carbon has lesser size than Beryllium.

Question 29.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 17
Refer the above part of periodic table and answer the following questions.
a) Element with the least atomic size.
b) Write the electronic configuration of the elements B and E.
c) Identify the elements that have similar physical and chemical properties as the element Y.
d) Arranged elements increasing order of their electronegativity values.
Answer:
a) The element with least atomic size is E. Because when we move from left to right in a period the atomic size decreases,

b) Electronic configuration of B is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p¹ Because the element belongs to 13th group its general configuration is ns² np¹ and the element belongs to third period and its atomic number is 13. Similarly electronic configuration of E is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p¹. Because the element belongs to 16th group. Its general configuration is ns2np4 and it is in third period. So its atomic number is 16.

c) The elements which have similar physical and chemical properties with Y are X and Z. Because they lie in a single group, i.e. 1st group. In a group, elements are having similar physical and chemical properties.
d) Z < Y < X < B < C < D < E.

Question 30.
Consider the section of the periodic table given below.
AP SSC 10th Class Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 9 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table 18
1) Which is the most electronegative?
2) How many valence electrons are present in G?
3) Write the formula of the compound between B and H.
4) Which element has similar properties as J?
5) Which element has greater size-either D or E?
Answer:

  1. J is the most electronegative. In a period electronegative values increase.
  2. G is present in V group. So the number of valence electrons is 5.
  3. B is present in first group. So its valency is 1 and hydrogen also has valency 1. Therefore the compound is BH.
  4. K lies in same group as J. Elements belonging to same group have similar properties. So, K has similar properties as J.
  5. E has greater size because as we move from top to bottom the atomic size increases.