Category: Class 10

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 8th Lesson ప్రజలు – వలసలు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 8th Lesson ప్రజలు – వలసలు

10th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson ప్రజలు – వలసలు Textbook Questions and Answers

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ప్రశ్న 1.
కింది వాటితో ఒక పట్టిక తయారుచేసి వలస కార్మికుల వివిధ ఉదాహరణలను క్రోడీకరించండి. (AS3)
1) వలస కార్మికులు
2) వలసల కారణాలు
3) వలస వెళ్లిన వాళ్ల జీవన ప్రమాణాలు
4) వాళ్ల జీవితాల ఆర్థిక స్థితిపై ప్రభావం
5) వాళ్లు వలస వచ్చిన ప్రాంత ప్రజల జీవితాల ఆర్థిక స్థితిపై ప్రభావం.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 2.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలకు, గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలకు వలసల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు రాయండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 3.
వీటిల్లో దేనిని కాలానుగుణ వలసగా పరిగణించవచ్చు? ఎందుకు? (AS1)
అ) వివాహం కారణంగా తల్లిదండ్రుల ఇంటినుంచి భర్త ఇంటికి స్త్రీ వెళ్లటం.
ఆ) తమిళనాడులో పసుపుదుంప తీయటానికి ఒక జిల్లా నుంచి మరొక జిల్లాకి మూడు నెలలపాటు వెళ్లటం.
ఇ) సంవత్సరంలో ఆరునెలల కోసం ఢిల్లీలో రిక్షా తోలటానికి బీహారు గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి వెళ్లటం.
ఈ) హైదరాబాదులో ఇళ్లల్లో పనిచెయ్యటానికి నల్గొండ జిల్లా నుంచి ఆడవాళ్లు రావటం.
జవాబు:
(ఆ) దీనిని మనం కాలానుగుణమైన వలసగా పరిగణించవచ్చు. ఎందువలననగా వీరి వలస కాలం ఆరు నెలలలోపు ఉండుటే.

ప్రశ్న 4.
వలస వెళ్లిన వాళ్లు ఆ ప్రాంతంలో సమస్యలు సృష్టిస్తారా / సమస్యలకు కారణం అవుతారా? మీ, సమాధానానికి కారణాలు ఇవ్వండి. (AS4)
జవాబు:
వలస వెళ్లిన వారు ఆ ప్రాంతాలలో సమస్యలు సృష్టించరు. సమస్యలకు కారణం అవ్వరు. ఎందువలననగా వీరు కేవలం ఉపాధి కోసం వలస వెళ్లిన వారు. అయితే శాశ్వత వలసలు వెళ్లి వ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలో స్థిరపడిన కార్మికులు తమ హక్కుల కోసం పోరాటాలు చేస్తారు. కొన్నిసార్లు ఈ పోరాటాలు ఆయా పరిశ్రమలు లాకౌట్లకు కూడా దారితీస్తాయి.

ప్రశ్న 5.
కింద వివిధ రకాల వలన ఉదాహరణలు ఉన్నాయి. వాటిని అంతర్గత, అంతర్జాతీయ వలసలుగా వర్గీకరించండి.
అ) సాంకేతిక పనివాళ్లుగా పనిచెయ్యటానికి భారతదేశం నుంచి సౌదీ అరేబియాకి వెళ్లటం.
ఆ) బీహారు నుంచి పంజాబ్ కి వెళ్లే వ్యవసాయ కూలీలు.
ఇ) ఒడిశా నుంచి ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ కి ఇటుక బట్టీలలో పనిచెయ్యటానికి వెళ్లటం.
ఈ) భారతీయ పిల్లలకు చైనీస్ భాష నేర్పటానికి చైనా నుంచి వచ్చే టీచర్లు.
జవాబు:
అ) అంతర్జాతీయ వలస
ఆ) అంతర్గత వలస
ఇ) అంతర్గత వలస
ఈ) అంతర్జాతీయ వలస

ప్రశ్న 6.
వలస కుటుంబాలలోని అధికశాతం పిల్లలు బడి మధ్యలోనే మానేస్తారు. దీనితో మీరు ఏకీభవిస్తారా? మీ సమాధానానికి కారణాలు పేర్కొనండి. (AS2)
జవాబు:
వలస కుటుంబాలలోని అధికశాతం మంది పిల్లలు బడి మధ్యలోనే మానేస్తారు. దీనితో నేను ఏకీభవిస్తున్నాను. ఎందుకంటే – వలస వెళ్లినప్పుడు తల్లిదండ్రులతో పాటు వెళ్లే చిన్నపిల్లలకు శిశు సంరక్షణ కేంద్రాలు ఉండవు. పెద్ద పిల్లలు కొత్త ప్రదేశంలో చదువు కొనసాగించే వీలు ఉండదు. వాళ్లు స్వగ్రామాలకు తిరిగి వెళ్లినప్పుడు అక్కడి పాఠశాలలు కూడా వాళ్లని మళ్లీ చేర్చుకోవు. చివరికి వాళ్లు బడికి వెళ్లటం మానేస్తారు. కుటుంబంలో కేవలం మగవాళ్లే వలసకి వెళ్లినప్పుడు కుటుంబ బాధ్యతలు, వృద్ధుల సంరక్షణ భారం అంతా ఆడవాళ్ల మీద పడుతుంది. ఇటువంటి కుటుంబాలలోని ఆడపిల్లల మీద తమ్ముళ్లు, చెల్లెళ్లను, చూసుకోవాల్సిన భారం ఉండి చివరికి చాలామంది బడి మానేస్తారు.

ప్రశ్న 7.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలకు వలస వెళ్లటం వల్ల గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల ప్రజల కొనుగోలు శక్తి ఎలా పెరుగుతుంది? (AS1)
జవాబు:
భారతదేశంలోని కొన్ని ప్రాంతాలలో మూడింట ఒక వంతు కుటుంబాలు వలస సభ్యులు పంపించే డబ్బుపై ఆధారపడి ఉన్నాయి. కాలానుగుణంగా వలస వెళ్లే వాళ్లల్లో చాలామంది ఇంటికి డబ్బు పంపిస్తారు, లేదా మిగుల్చుకున్న డబ్బు తమతో తీసుకెళతారు. వలస వెళ్లటం వల్ల ఆస్తులు అమ్ముకోకుండా అప్పులు తీర్చటానికి, ఇతర కార్యక్రమాలకు డబ్బు సమకూరుతుంది. వలస వెళ్లిన కుటుంబాలు ఇల్లు, భూమి, వ్యవసాయ పరికరాలు, వినియోగ వస్తువులు కొనటం సాధారణంగా చూస్తూ ఉంటాం.

ప్రశ్న 8.
వృత్తి నైపుణ్యం ఉన్నవాళ్లే అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలకు ఎందుకు వలస వెళ్లగలుగుతున్నారు? నైపుణ్యం లేని కార్మికులు ఈ దేశాలకు ఎందుకు వెళ్లలేరు? (AS1)
జవాబు:
అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలకు సాంకేతిక నైపుణ్యం, వృత్తి అనుభవం ఉన్న వ్యక్తుల కొరత ఎక్కువగా ఉంది. అందువలనే భారతదేశం నుండి ఐ.టి. నిపుణులు, డాక్టర్లు, మేనేజ్మెంట్ నిపుణులు అమెరికా, కెనడా, ఇంగ్లాండు, ఆస్ట్రేలియా వంటి దేశాలకు వలస వెళుతున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 9.
పశ్చిమ ఆసియా దేశాలలో భారతదేశం నుంచి నైపుణ్యం లేని కార్మికులనే ఎందుకు కోరుకుంటున్నారు? (AS1)
జవాబు:
పశ్చిమ ఆసియా దేశాలైన సౌదీ అరేబియా, యు.ఏ.ఇ వంటి దేశాలలో భవన నిర్మాణం, మరమ్మతుల నిర్వహణ, సేవలు, రవాణా టెలికమ్యూనికేషన్ రంగాలలో కార్మికుల కొరత ఎక్కువగా ఉంది. అందుచే వీరు భారతదేశం నుండి నైపుణ్యంలేని కార్మికులనే కోరుకుంటున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
మూడు రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజలు చాలా దూరంలోని పశ్చిమ ఆసియాకు ఎలా వెళ్లగలుగుతున్నారు? (AS1)
జవాబు:
పశ్చిమ ఆసియా దేశాలకు భారతదేశంలోని కేరళ, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్, తమిళనాడు రాష్ట్రాల నుండి ప్రతి ఏడాది 3 లక్షల మంది కార్మికులు తాత్కాలిక వలసలు వెళ్లి తిరిగి వస్తుంటారు. నైపుణ్యంలేని కార్మికులు మధ్యవర్తుల సహకారంతో , సుదూర ప్రాంతాలకు వెళ్ళగలుగుతున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 11.
అంతర్గత, అంతర్జాతీయ వలసల ప్రభావాల మధ్య పోలికలను, తేడాలను పేర్కొనండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
అంతర్గత వలసలు అంతర్జాతీయ వలసలు పోలికలు : రెండింటిలోను శాశ్వత, తాత్కాలిక వలసలుంటాయి. విద్య, ఉపాధి, వివాహం, మంచి ఆదాయం కొరకే రెండింటిలోను వలసలుంటాయి.
తేడాలు :

10th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson ప్రజలు – వలసలు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.108

ప్రశ్న 1.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి వలస వచ్చిన వాళ్లు పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలో ఉపాధి పొందే ఆర్థిక రంగాలు ఏవి ? దీనికి కొన్ని – కారణాలను పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుండి పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలకు ఎక్కువగా నైపుణ్యం లేని కార్మికులు తాత్కాలిక వలసలకు వెళుతుంటారు. వీరు ఉపాధి పొందే ఆర్థిక రంగాలు – గృహనిర్మాణ రంగం, పరిశ్రమలు, మెకానిక్ షాపులు మొదలగునవి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.102

ప్రశ్న 2.
ఇక్కడ కొంతమంది జాబితా ఉంది. వాళ్లని వలస వెళ్లిన వాళ్లు, వెళ్లని వాళ్లుగా వర్గీకరించండి. వలస తీరుని పేర్కొని, వలసకు కారణం ఏమై ఉంటుందో చెప్పండి.

జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.103

ప్రశ్న 3.
కింది పటం పరిశీలించి ఢిల్లీకి ఏ ఏ రాష్ట్రాల నుండి వలసలు వస్తున్నారు?
జవాబు:
1) బీహార్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్ నుండి ఢిల్లీకి వలసలు వస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.105

ప్రశ్న 4.
కింది పటం పరిశీలించి ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్, కర్ణాటక రాష్ట్రాలకు ఏ ఏ రాష్ట్రాల నుండి ప్రజలు వలస వస్తున్నారు?
జవాబు:

ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ కు కర్ణాటక నుండి వలస వస్తున్నారు. కర్ణాటకకు ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ నుండి వలసలు లేవు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.105

ప్రశ్న 5.
కింది పటం పరిశీలించి తమిళనాడు రాషంలో. పటం : ప్రధాన అంతర రాష్ట్ర వలస మార్గాల అంచనా, 2001-2011 అంతర, బాహ్య వలసలకు కారణాలు కనుగొనండి.

జవాబు:

1. కొత్త నైపుణ్యాలు సాధించటానికి, కొత్త ఉద్యోగాలు, చలనచిత్ర పరిశ్రమలో ఉపాధి అవకాశాలు మరియు మెరుగైన వేతనాలు పొందటానికి ప్రజలు తమిళనాడుకు ‘వలస వెళ్ళారు.
2. పర్యాటక పరిశ్రమ (టూరిజం ఇండస్ట్రీ) లో ఉపాధి అమలుచేసిన స్థానం – వన గమ్యస్థానం అవకాశాల కోసం ప్రజలు తమిళనాడు నుండి కేరళకు వలస వెళ్ళారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.106

ప్రశ్న 6.
పట్టణంలో అసంఘటిత రంగంలో రోజుకూలీగా లేదా ఇంటి పనులు చేసే మహిళగా పట్టణానికి వలస వచ్చిన ఒక వ్యక్తిని ఇంటర్వ్యూ చేసి ఆమె కథ రాయండి. (పైన ఇచ్చిన రామయ్య కథనాన్ని చూడండి).
జవాబు:
శ్రీమతి బూరా సరోజిని హైదరాబాదులో ఒక ఆఫీసర్ గారి ఇంట్లో పని చేయడానికి వచ్చింది. ఆమె భూపాలపల్లి (మండలం) వరంగల్ లో జన్మించింది. అక్కడ 8వ తరగతి వరకు చదివిన తరువాత ప|గోదావరికి నర్సాపురానికి చెందిన రంగాజీతో వివాహం జరిగింది. తరువాత 25 సం||రాలకి ఆమె భర్త చనిపోయారు. ఆమె ఇద్దరి కుమార్తెలకు వివాహం చేసి, ఆ అప్పులు తీర్చే నిమిత్తం పనికి చేరింది. ఆమె సంపాదించిన దానిలో ఖర్చులు పోగా మిగిలినవి. తన సోదరునికి పంపి అతని ద్వారా అప్పు తీర్చింది. ఆమె తన స్వంత ఊరును 6 నెలల కొకసారి దర్శిస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.106

ప్రశ్న 7.
మీరు గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలో ఉంటుంటే పట్టణంలో అసంఘటిత రంగంలో పనిచేస్తూ పండగకు ఊరొచ్చిన ఒక వ్యక్తిని ఇంటర్వ్యూ చేసి అతడి కథ రాయండి. (పైన ఇచ్చిన రామయ్య కథనాన్ని చూడండి).
జవాబు:
చోరగుడి పద్మనాభం (20 సం||రాలు) భిలాయ్ ఛత్తీషుడు తాపీ పని చేస్తున్నాడు. అతను మా ఊరు నందమూరు టంగుటూరు మండలానికి వచ్చాడు. పద్మనాభం మా జిల్లాలోనే గుడివాడలో జన్మించాడు. అతను సెలవులకి తన నాయనమ్మ యింటికి వచ్చాడు. అతని తల్లి ఆరోగ్యానికి చెల్లెలి వివాహానికి చాలా అప్పు చేశాడు. ఆ అప్పులన్నీ పద్మనాభమే తీర్చాలి. అందుకే అతను భిలాయ్ వెళ్ళాడు. అతనికి రోజుకి రూ. 300/- ఉచిత వసతి, భోజన సౌకర్యాలు కల్పించారు. ఆరోగ్య భీమా కూడా కల్పించారు. కాబట్టి అతను ఆనందంగానే కొంత భాగాన్ని సాగిస్తున్నాడు. తన సంపాదనలో కొంత భాగాన్ని తన తండ్రికి పంపి అప్పులు తీరుస్తున్నాడు. అతను తన కుటుంబానికి దూరంగా ఉండటానికి దిగులు పడుతున్నాడు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.106

ప్రశ్న 8.
పైన పేర్కొన్న రెండు పరిస్థితుల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
పోలికలు, తేడాలు :
వీరిరువురూ వేర్వేరు ప్రాంతాలకి వలసకి వెళ్ళారు. ఇద్దరు అవ్యవస్థీకృత రంగంలోనే పని చేస్తున్నారు. ఇద్దరూ వారి జీవనానికి, అప్పులు తీర్చడానికి పని చేస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.107

ప్రశ్న 9.
పట్టణ ప్రాంతాల్లో ఉద్యోగాలు దొరకటానికి పరిచయాలు, సంబంధాలు ఎందుకు అవసరం?
జవాబు:
పట్టణాలలో ఉద్యోగాలు దొరకటానికి పరిచయాలు, సంబంధాలు చాలా కీలకమైనవి. ఒక్కొక్కసారి తమ పరిచయాలు, సంబంధాల ద్వారా ముందుగా ఉద్యోగం దొరకబుచ్చుకున్న తరువాతే గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల ప్రజలు పట్టణాలకు వస్తారు. అనేక కారణాల వల్ల వాళ్లు తమ గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలతో సన్నిహిత సంబంధాలు పెట్టుకుంటారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.108

ప్రశ్న 10.
1961-2011 మధ్యకాలంలో వలసల ప్రభావాన్ని చూపటానికి ఒక పట్టిక తయారుచేయండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.108

ప్రశ్న 11.
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాల నుంచి ప్రజలు వలస వెళ్లినప్పుడు గ్రామీణ రంగంలోని ఏ ఆర్థిక రంగం ఎక్కువ మందిని కోల్పోతుంది? ఎందుకని?
జవాబు:
గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతం నుంచి ప్రజలు వలస వెళ్లినప్పుడు గ్రామీణ రంగంలోని వ్యవసాయరంగం ఎక్కువ మందిని కోల్పోతుంది. ఎందుకనగా వ్యవసాయం నుండి వచ్చే ఆదాయం కన్నా పట్టణ ప్రాంతంలో పనిచేయడం వలన వచ్చే ఆదాయం ఎక్కువ. కాబట్టి పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలలో పనిచేయుటకు గ్రామీణులు వలసలు పోతున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.109

ప్రశ్న 12.
పశ్చిమ మహారాష్ట్రలో చెరకు కొట్టేవాళ్ల కొరత ఎందుకుంది?
జవాబు:

1. భారతదేశానికి స్వతంత్ర్యం వచ్చిన తరువాత పంచవర్ష ప్రణాళికల ద్వారా మిశ్రమ ఆర్థిక వ్యవస్థ అభివృద్ధి చెందినది.
2. వ్యవసాయ రంగంలో సరియైన ప్రణాళికలు అమలు కాకపోవటం మూలంగా వ్యక్తుల కూలీల వలసలు ఎక్కువయ్యాయి.
3. మహారాష్ట్రలో ప్రాంతీయ అసమానతలు అనేవి రాజకీయ ఆర్థిక, సాంఘిక పరమైనవి. రాజకీయంగా ఉన్నతిని సాధించిన
4. పశ్చిమ మహారాష్ట్ర ప్రాంతంలో నీటి పారుదల వసతులు, పరపతి అవకాశాలు ఇతర వ్యవసాయానూకూల అంశాలు అభివృద్ధి చెందినవి. కాని ఇతర ప్రాంతాలు ఈ అంశాలలో చాలా వెనుకబడి ఉన్నాయి.
5. కాబట్టి ప్రతి సం||రం కొన్ని వేల మంది వ్యక్తులు ఈ ప్రాంతానికి పని కొరకు వలస పోవుచున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.109

ప్రశ్న 13.
తల్లిదండ్రులతో పాటు వలస వచ్చిన వాళ్ల పరిస్థితి ఏమిటి ? వీళ్లను బడిలో చేర్పించవచ్చా? ఇటువంటి పిల్లలకు చదువు చెప్పటానికి ప్రభుత్వ చట్టాలలో ఏమైనా అంశాలు ఉన్నాయా?
జవాబు:
తల్లిదండ్రులు వలస వచ్చినపుడు సాధారణంగా బడి ఈడు గల వీరి పిల్లలను కూడా తమతో తీసికొని వస్తారు. అయితే తాత్కాలిక వలసల కారణంగా వీరు తమ పిల్లలను పాఠశాలల్లో చేర్పించక బాల కార్మికులుగా ఆదాయం వచ్చే మార్గాల వైపు మళ్ళిస్తారు. కానీ విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం 2009 ప్రకారం 14 సం||లోపు పిల్లలు తప్పనిసరిగా పాఠశాలలో ఉండాలి. వలస ప్రాంతాల్లోని విద్యార్థులు తమకు దగ్గరలోని పాఠశాలలో చేరాలి. లేదా ఆడపిల్లలైతే కస్తూరిబా గాంధీ విద్యాలయాల్లో చేరవచ్చు. వీటిలో విద్యాబోధనతో పాటు వసతి, భోజన సదుపాయాలుంటాయి. భాషా సమస్య ఏర్పడితే వీరి కోసం విద్యాశాఖాధికారులు తాత్కాలిక రెసిడెన్షియల్ బ్రిడ్జి కోర్సులను ఏర్పాటు చేస్తారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.109

ప్రశ్న 14.
చెరకు నరికే వాళ్లకు ఆ పనిలో ఆరు నెలలు మాత్రమే ఎందుకు ఉపాధి లభిస్తుంది ? మిగిలిన ఆరునెలల్లో వాళ్లు ఏ పనులు చేస్తూ ఉంటారు?
జవాబు:
చెరకు సంవత్సరకాల పంట. మహారాష్ట్రలో చెరుకు విస్తారంగా పండటం వలన చెరుకు నరికే కాలం సుమారుగా ఆరు నెలలు మాత్రమే ఉంటుంది. పంచదార మిల్లులు, బెల్లం క్రషర్లు ఈ సీజన్లోనే పనిచేస్తాయి. అందుకే వలస కూలీలకు ఈ ప్రాంతంలో 6 నెలలు మాత్రమే పని లభిస్తుంది. మిగతా ఆరు నెలలు వీరు తమ స్వగ్రామాలకు పోయి ఉపాధి పొందుతారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.109

ప్రశ్న 15.
ఇటువంటి కూలీల జీవన పరిస్థితులను ఏ విధంగా మెరుగుపరచవచ్చు?
జవాబు:
ఆరు నెలలు మాత్రమే కూలీ లభించే చెరుకు వలస కూలీల జీవనస్థితి మెరుగుపరచడానికి ప్రభుత్వం, స్వచ్ఛంద సంస్థలు, విద్యాశాఖవారు అనేక కార్యక్రమాలు అమలుచేయాలి. వీరు పనిచేసే చోట నివసించేందుకు గృహ సముదాయాలను ఏర్పాటు చేసి విద్యుత్, త్రాగునీటి సదుపాయాలు కల్పించాలి. వీరి పిల్లల కోసం పాఠశాలలను ఏర్పాటు చేయాలి. మిగతా 6 నెలలు వీరికి ఉపాధి పథకాలను అమలుచేయాలి. వైద్య సదుపాయాలను కల్పించాలి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.111

ప్రశ్న 16.
వలస వెళ్లిన వాళ్లకు ఆహారం, వైద్య కుటుంబ సంరక్షణ కార్యక్రమాలు అందటానికి ఏం చెయ్యాలి?
జవాబు:
వలస వెళిన వారు కొత ప్రాంతంలో, కొత వాతావరణంలో పనిచేయవలసి ఉంటుంది. మరోవైపు వృదులైన తల్లిదండ్రులు చదువుకొనే పిల్లలకు దూరంగా వీరు సంపాదనకోసం, జీవన భృతి కోసం వలస వచ్చినవారు. వీరికి యజమానులు, గుత్తేదారులు కొన్ని మౌలిక సదుపాయాలను కల్పించాలి. ఉదయం, మధ్యాహ్నం పనిచేసే చోటనే పౌష్టికాహారం కల్పించాల్సిన అవసరం ఎంతైనా ఉంది. వీరి నివాసాల సమీపంలో వైద్య సదుపాయం కల్పించాలి. పని గంటలు నిర్ణయం వారంలో కనీసం ఒక రోజు సెలవు, వైద్య ఖర్చులు యజమానులే భరించడం, వీరి పిల్లలకు పాఠశాల ఏర్పాటు వంటి చర్యలు తీసుకోవాలి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.102

ప్రశ్న 17.
నంద్యాల పట్టణంతో కర్నూలు జిల్లాను చూపించే పటం గీయండి. ఈ ఉదాహరణలలో పేర్కొన్న గ్రామాలను కలుపుతూ బాణం గుర్తులు గీయండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.103

ప్రశ్న 18.
క్రింది పట్టికను పరిశీలించండి. భారతదేశంలో వలస (2001 జనాభా లెక్కలు)

జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.109

ప్రశ్న 19.
పశ్చిమ మహారాష్ట్రలోని ఏడు జిల్లాలయిన నాసిక్, అహ్మద్ నగర్, పూనా, సతారా, సాంగ్లి, కొల్హాపూర్, షోలాపూర్లు “పంచదార పట్టి”గా పిలవబడతాయి. ఈ పట్టీ ఉత్తరాన సూరత్ (గుజరాత్)లోకి, దక్షిణాన బెల్గాం (కర్నాటక)లోకి విస్తరిస్తుంది. వర్షాధార మెట్ట భూములున్న మరట్వాడాలోని అయిదు జిల్లాలయిన బీడ్, జల్గావ్, అహ్మద్ నగర్, నాసిక్, జల్నాలు చెరకు నరకటానికి సంవత్సరంలో ఆరు నెలలపాటు వలస కార్మికులను పంపిస్తాయి.
ఒక పటంలో వలస మొదలయిన జిల్లాలు, వలస చేరుకునే జిల్లాలను చూపిస్తూ బాణం గుర్తులు గీయండి.
జవాబు:

కార్మికుల వలస ప్రాంతాలు
1) బీడ్
2) జల్గావ్
3) అహ్మద్నగర్
4) నాసిక్
5) జల్నా

కార్మికులు వలస వెళ్లిన ప్రాంతాలు
1) నాసిక్
2) అహ్మద్ నగర్
3) పూనా
4) సతారా
5) సాంగ్లి
6) కొల్హాపూర్
7) షోలాపూర్

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.110

ప్రశ్న 20.
మీ ప్రాంతంలో కాలానుగుణ వలస వెళ్లే వాళ్ల పరిస్థితిని వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
సాధారణంగా మా ప్రాంతంలో వ్యవసాయ పనులు లేని కాలంలో బహుళ పంటలు వేసే ప్రాంతాలకు లేదా పట్టణాలకు వలసలు పోతుంటారు. మా ప్రాంతంలోని కొందరు గుత్తేదార్లు వలస వెళ్ల వలసిన ప్రాంతంలోని పెద్ద రైతులు, గుత్తేదార్లుతో ముందుగా ఒప్పందం కుదుర్చుకుంటారు. గుత్తేదారులు చెప్పిన నిబంధనలు నచ్చితే వారితో పాటు వలసలు పోతారు. సాధారణంగా వీరు వృద్ధులైన తల్లిదండ్రుల వద్ద చదువుకుంటున్న తమ పిల్లలను వదిలి వెళతారు. గుత్తేదారు నుండి తీసుకున్న ముందస్తు సొమ్మును కొంత తల్లిదండ్రులకు ఇస్తారు. ప్రధానమైన పండుగలు, గ్రామంలో బంధువుల వివాహాలు వంటి శుభకార్యాలకు వీరు వచ్చి పోతుంటారు. మా ప్రాంతంలో వ్యవసాయ పనులు ప్రారంభం కాగానే తిరిగి వీరు మా గ్రామానికి వస్తారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.111

ప్రశ్న 21.
కింది చిత్రాలలో చూపిన విధంగా వలస వ్యక్తులు రాకుండా జాతీయ సరిహద్దులను కాపాడుతుంటారు. ఇక్కడ కొన్ని ఉదాహరణలు చూద్దాం :
1) మెక్సికో సరిహద్దు వెంట అమెరికాలో,
2) ఉత్తర కొరియా సరిహద్దు వెంట దక్షిణ కొరియాలో
3) బంగ్లాదేశ్ సరిహద్దు వెంట భారతదేశంలో ఇలా దేశ సరిహద్దులను దాటేవాళ్ల గురించి మీ అభిప్రాయం ఏమిటి?

జవాబు:
ఈ చిత్రాలలో మెక్సికో – అమెరికా, ఉత్తర కొరియా – దక్షిణ కొరియా, బంగ్లాదేశ్ – భారతదేశం సరిహద్దులు చూపబడ్డాయి. అంతర్జాతీయ రేఖ వెంబడి ఇరు దేశాల మధ్య కంచె వేయడం, ఇరు దేశాల సైనికులు వారి సరిహదులలో నిరంతరం పహారా కాయడం జరుగుతుంటుంది. అయితే అనేక కారణాల వలన విభిన్న రకాల వ్యక్తులు సరిహద్దులు దాటి ప్రక్క దేశాలు వెళ్ళడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తుంటారు. వీరిలో కొందరు ఆయా దేశాల ప్రేరణతో శత్రు దేశాలలో హింసాకాండ నిర్వహించడానికి సరిహద్దులు దాటే ఉగ్రవాదులు. వీరిని స్టేట్ స్పాన్సర్డ్ టెర్రరిస్టులంటాం.

మెక్సికో కంటే అమెరికా ఉపాధి, సదుపాయాలు పరంగా ఆకర్షణీయమైన దేశం. అందుకనే కొందరు దొడ్డి దారిలో ఆ దేశంలో ప్రవేశిస్తుంటారు. దక్షిణ, ఉత్తర కొరియాలు భిన్న సైద్ధాంతికతలను కలిగిన ప్రభుత్వాలు. ఒకటి కమ్యూనిస్టు అయితే, మరొకటి కేపటలిస్ట్ ఆయా దేశాలతో సిద్ధాంతాలు నచ్చనివారు, గూఢచర్య నిమిత్తం కొందరు ఒక దేశం నుండి మరో దేశానికి దొంగతనంగా సరిహద్దులు దాటుతుంటారు.

బంగ్లాదేశ్ లో సుదీర్ఘకాలం నియంతృత్వ పాలన సాగుతుండటంతో, ప్రజలు దుర్భర జీవనం సాగిస్తుండటంతో ప్రజాస్వామ్య దేశమైన భారతదేశానికి సరిహద్దులు దాటి వస్తుంటారు. పశ్చిమ బెంగాల్, అస్సాం వంటి రాష్ట్రాలలో బంగ్లా వలస జీవుల సమస్య అధికంగా ఉంది.

ఈ రకంగా అనధికారంగా సరిహద్దులు దాటి వెళ్ళటం చట్టరీత్యా నేరం. మరియు వీరు చేరిన దేశానికి సమస్యగా మారుతున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.112

ప్రశ్న 22.
పై పేరాలలో పేర్కొన్న భారతదేశం నుంచి ఇతర దేశాలకు వెళుతున్న వలసలను చూపిస్తూ ప్రపంచ పటంలో బాణం గుర్తులు గీయండి.
జవాబు:

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 5th Lesson భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 5th Lesson భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు

10th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning (మీ అభ్యసనాన్ని మెరుగుపడుచుకోండి)

ప్రశ్న 1.
భారతదేశంలోని ప్రధాన నదీవ్యవస్థలను వివరించటానికి కింది అంశాల ఆధారంగా ఒక పట్టిక తయారుచేయండి. నది ప్రవహించే దిశ, అవి ఏ రాష్ట్రాలు లేదా దేశాల గుండా ప్రవహిస్తున్నాయి, ఆ ప్రాంత భౌగోళిక పరిస్థితులు. (AS3)
(లేదా)
భారతదేశంలోని ఏవేని నాలుగు ప్రధాన నదీ వ్యవస్థలను పట్టిక రూపంలో వివరించండి.

జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 2.
వ్యవసాయం, పరిశ్రమలు వంటి వివిధ సందర్భాలలో భూగర్భజలాల వినియోగాన్ని సమర్థించే, వ్యతిరేకించే వాదనలను పేర్కొనండి. (AS2)
జవాబు:

1. పట్టణ, గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో ప్రధాన నీటివనరు భూగర్భజలమే.
2. వ్యవసాయం, పరిశ్రమలు మరియు ఇతర అవసరాలకు కూడా ఈ నీరే ప్రధాన వనరు.

భూగర్భజల వినియోగాన్ని సమర్థించే వాదనలు :

1. అధిక ఉత్పత్తికి, అన్ని రకాల రైతులకు సమానస్థాయిలో నీరు అందడానికి, కరవు పరిస్థితులను అధిగమించడానికి, వ్యవసాయ ఉత్పత్తిని క్రమబద్ధం చేయడానికి మరియు ఉద్యోగాల కల్పనకు భూగర్భజల వినియోగం అవసరం.
2. యంత్రాలను చల్లబరచడానికి, ఇతర పారిశ్రామిక అవసరాలకి కూడా ఇది అవసరం.
3. భారతదేశ ఆర్థిక ప్రగతికి ఈ నీరే అధిక అవసరం.

భూగర్భ జల వినియోగాన్ని వ్యతిరేకించే వాదనలు :

1. భారతదేశం భూగర్భజల వినియోగంలో ప్రపంచంలోనే మొదటిస్థానంలో ఉన్నది.
2. ఈ వినియోగం భూగర్భ జలాలను తగ్గించివేస్తుంది. సముద్రపు నీరు తీరప్రాంతాలలోనికి చొచ్చుకుని వచ్చేలా చేస్తుంది.
3. పరిశ్రమలలో ఉపయోగించిన నీరు భూగర్భజలాలను కలుషితం చేస్తుంది.

ప్రశ్న 3.
నీటి వనరుల విషయంలో అంతర్గత, బాహ్య ప్రవాహాల ప్రక్రియలను వివరించండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
అంతర్గత ప్రవాహాలు : ఏ ప్రాంతానికైనా. అంతర్గత ప్రవాహాలు = అవపాతం + ఉపరితల ప్రవాహం + భూగర్భ ప్రవాహం. ఉపరితల ప్రవాహం అంటే భూమి మీద వాగులు, కాలువలు, నదులు వంటి వాటిల్లోని నీటి ప్రవాహం. భూగర్భ జల ప్రవాహాన్ని అంచనా వేయవచ్చు కానీ అది కొంచెం కష్టమైన పని. అవపాతం అంటే వాన ఒక్కటే కాకుండా వడగళ్లు, హిమము, పొగమంచు కూడా ఉంటాయి. అవపాతం అన్ని సంవత్సరాలు ఒకేలాగా కాకుండా ప్రతీ సంవత్సరం మారుతూ ఉంటుంది. అందువలన అవపాతాన్ని లెక్కించడానికి కొన్ని సంవత్సరాల అవపాతం యొక్క సగటును పరిగణలోనికి తీసుకుంటారు.

ఉపరితల, భూగర్భ నీటి ప్రవాహాలు :
మీ ప్రాంతానికి, అది చిన్న గ్రామమైనా, పట్టణమైనా నదులు, సాగునీటి పథకాల కాలువలు వంటి వాటి ద్వారా దిగువకు వచ్చే నీటి ప్రవాహాల జాబితా తయారుచేయండి.

ఒక గ్రామంలాంటి ఒక చిన్న ప్రాంతానికి కాలువలు, పైపులు వంటి వాటి ద్వారా నీళ్లు రావచ్చు – ఇటువంటి బయటి వనరులన్నింటినీ పేర్కొనండి. అవపాతానికి దీనిని జోడిస్తే ఆ ప్రాంతం లోపలికి మొత్తం ఎంత నీళ్లు వస్తాయో తెలుసుకోవచ్చు. భూగర్బం ద్వారా లోపలికి వచ్చే నీటిని అంచనా వేయటం కొంచెం కష్టం. అయితే నేల వాలుని బట్టి భూగర్భ జలం ఎటు ప్రవహిస్తుందో కొంత ఊహించవచ్చు.

బాహ్య ప్రవాహాలు :

బాష్పోత్సేకం :
అన్ని నీటి మడుగుల నుంచి నీరు ఆవిరిగా మారుతుంటుంది. చెరువులు, నదులు, సముద్రాలు వంటి అన్ని ఉపరితల నీటి వనరుల నుంచి నీరు ఆవిరి అవుతుంది. అన్ని జీవులు శ్వాస ప్రక్రియ ద్వారా గాలిలోకి నీటిని విడుదల చేస్తాయి.

ఉపరితల ప్రవాహాల ద్వారా, భూగర్భ ప్రవాహాల ద్వారా బయటకుపోయే నీళ్లు :
ఒక గ్రామంలాంటి ప్రాంతాన్ని ఊహించుకోండి. కొంత నీళ్లు వాగులగుండా ఉపరితల ప్రవాహం ద్వారా బయటకు ప్రవహిస్తాయి. వానాకాలంలో ఈ ఉపరితల ప్రవాహం గణనీయంగా పెరుగుతుంది. వర్షపాతంలో కొంత నేలలోకి, భూమి లోపలి పొరల్లోకి ఇంకి భూగర్భ జలాలను’ తిరిగి నింపుతాయి. దీంట్లో కొంత బావులు, బోరు బావులలోకి ప్రవహించి తిరిగి వినియోగానికి వస్తుంది, కొంత చాలా లోతైన నీటి ఊటలను చేరి మళ్లీ అందుబాటులోకి రాదు. భూగర్భ జలంలో కొంత భూగర్భ ప్రవాహాలను చేరి తిరిగి బయటకు వచ్చి వాగులు, నదులలో కలుస్తుంది.

వ్యవసాయానికి నీళ్లు :
పంటల వేళ్లు ఉండే ప్రాంతంలోకి నీళ్లు వర్షపాతం ద్వారాగానీ, సాగునీటి ద్వారాగానీ చేరుతుంది. నేలకి తేమని నిల్వ చేసుకునే సామర్థ్యం ఉంటుంది. వరద వంటి పరిస్థితుల్లో ఎక్కువ నీళ్లు ఉండి, అది నేల లోపలి పొరల్లోకి ఇంకకపోతే మొక్కల వేళ్లు దెబ్బతింటాయి. ఇంకొకవైపు కరవు పరిస్థితులలో వేళ్ల ప్రాంతంలో తగినంత తేమ లేకపోతే పంటలు వడిలిపోతాయి.

గృహ అవసరాలకు, పశువులకు నీటి వినియోగం :
తాగునీటికి, వంటకి, స్నానానికి, శుభ్రపరచడానికి, పశువులకు ఉపయోగించే నీరు చాలా ముఖ్యమైనది. ఆదాయాలతో సంబంధం లేకుండా అందరికీ ఈ అవసరాల కోసం తగినంత నీళ్లు అందేలా చూడటానికి ప్రణాళికలు తయారుచేయాలి.

పారిశ్రామిక అవసరాలకు నీటి వినియోగం :
ఉత్పత్తి ప్రక్రియలకు కూడా నీళ్లు అవసరమవుతాయి. అయితే దీనికీ వ్యవసాయ, గృహ వసతి అవసరాలకూ మధ్య వైరుధ్యం ఉంది. ఈ వైరుధ్యం పెరుగుతోంది, కాబట్టి దీనిని పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోవాలి. పారిశ్రామిక అవసరాల కోసం నీటి వినియోగంలో కాలుష్య నివారణ, నీటిని తిరిగి వినియోగించుకోవడం అన్నవి ముఖ్యమైన సవాళ్లు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
భూగర్భ జల వనరులను అంతర్గత, బాహ్య ప్రవాహాలలో ఏ ప్రక్రియ ఎక్కువగా ప్రభావితం చేస్తుంది? (AS1)
జవాబు:
భూగర్భ జల వనరులను వర్షపాతం ఎక్కువగా ప్రభావితం చేస్తుంది.

ప్రశ్న 5.
తుంగభద్ర నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాంతంలో నీటి వనరులకు సంబంధించి ఎదుర్కొంటున్న సవాళ్ల జాబితా తయారుచేయండి. ఈ అధ్యాయంలో కానీ, లేదా ఇతర తరగతులలో కానీ ఈ సమస్యలకు సంబంధించి చర్చించిన పరిష్కారాలను పేర్కొనండి. (AS4)
జవాబు:
ద్వీపకల్ప నదులలో ఒకటైన కృష్ణానదికి ఉపనది తుంగభద్ర.

తుంగభద్ర నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాంతంలో నీటి వనరులకు సంబంధించి ఎదుర్కొంటున్న సవాళ్ళ జాబితా :

1. పట్టణీకరణ, పెరుగుతున్న నీటి అవసరాలు : ఈ నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాంతంలో జనాభా పెరుగుదల, పారిశ్రామిక అవసరాలు పెరగడం మొదలైన వాటి వలన నీటి అవసరం పెరిగింది.
2. తక్కువగా లభించే తాగునీటిని సరిగా వినియోగించుకోలేకపోవడం.
3. పరిశ్రమల నుంచి వచ్చే కాలుష్యం.
4. అన్ని వర్గాల వారికి పారిశుద్ధ్యం, తాగునీరు అందించడం.
5. అంతరాష్ట్ర వివాదాలు.
6. జలాశయాలు పూడికకు గురి అవడం.
7. నీటి వనరుల పంపకానికి సరైన ప్రణాళికలు లేకపోవడం మొదలగునవి.

ప్రశ్న 6.
నీటి వనరులలో అనేక రకాల మార్పులు సంభవించాయి. ఈ అధ్యాయంలో చర్చించిన సానుకూల, ప్రతికూల మార్పులను వివరించండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 7.
నీటి సంరక్షణను మెరుగుపరచటానికి హి బజారులో వ్యవసాయంలో ఏ పద్ధతులపై నియంత్రణలు విధించారు? (AS1)
జవాబు:
గ్రామ పరీవాహక, సమగ్రాభివృద్ధికి ‘ఆదర్శ గ్రామ పథకం’ కింద హివారే బజారుని మహారాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వం ఎంపిక చేసింది. మహారాష్ట్రలోని అహ్మద్ నగర్ జిల్లాలో హివారే బజార్ ఉంది. మహారాష్ట్ర నుంచి కోస్తా కొంకణ తీర ప్రాంతాన్ని వేరు చేస్తూ ఉత్తర-దక్షిణంగా ఉన్న సహ్యాద్రి పర్వత శ్రేణికి (వర్షచ్ఛాయ ప్రాంతంలో) తూర్పువైపున గల వర్షచ్ఛాయా ప్రాంతంలో ఈ జిల్లా ఉంది. అందుకే అహ్మద్ నగర్ జిల్లా 400 మి.మీ వర్షపాతంతో కరువు పీడిత ప్రాంతంగా ఉంది. అందువల్ల ఆ గ్రామంలో కొన్ని నిషేధాలు విధించారు. అవి : సాగునీటికి బోరు బావులు తవ్వటం, చెరకు, అరటి సాగు చేయటం, బయటి వాళ్లకు భూమి అమ్మటం మొదలగునవి.

ప్రశ్న 8.
నీటి వనరుల విషయంలో ప్రజల కార్యాచరణ, చట్టాల ప్రాముఖ్యత ఏమిటి ? ఈ అధ్యాయంలోని చివరి రెండు భాగాలలో చర్చించిన అంశాలను క్లుప్తంగా రాయండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. నీటి వనరులకు సంబంధించి ప్రస్తుతం ఉన్న చట్టాలన్నీ అసంబద్ధమైనవి, చెల్లనివి అని చెప్పుకోవచ్చు.
2. భూమిపై యాజమాన్యానికి ఆ నేలలో లభ్యమయ్యే నీటి వనరులకు మధ్య సరియైన సంబంధం లేదు. భూమి యజమాని నీరు తోడటంపై ఎటువంటి నియంత్రణ లేదు.
3. నీరు అందరికీ చెందిన వనరుగా గుర్తించబడాలి.
4. ఇలా గుర్తించి నియంత్రించడానికి సరియైన చట్టాలు, నియమాలు రూపొందించాలి.
5. నీటి వనరుల వినియోగ నియంత్రణకు స్థానిక స్థాయిలోనూ, జాతీయ స్థాయిలోనూ చట్టాలను చేయాలి.

ప్రశ్న 9.
మీకు ఇంటర్నెట్ అందుబాటులో ఉంటే www.aponline.gov.in కి వెళ్లి ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ నీళ్లు, భూమి, చెట్ల సంరక్షణ (Andhra Pradesh WALTA Act.) చట్టం గురించి మరింత తెలుసుకోండి. (AS3)
జవాబు:
ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ నీళ్ళు, భూమి, చెట్ల సంరక్షణ చట్టం 2002 :
ఇది ఒక సమగ్రమైన చట్టం. ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ ప్రభుత్వం అమలుచేస్తోంది. ఈ చట్టం 19.04.2002 నుండి అమలులోనికి వచ్చింది. ఈ చట్టంలో 6 చాప్టర్లు, 47 సెక్షన్లు, 30 నియమాలు ఉన్నాయి.

లక్ష్యాలు :

1. నీటి సాగును, చెట్లున్న ప్రాంతాన్ని పెంచడం.
2. నీటి వనరుల సాగును అభివృద్ధిపరిచి, రక్షించడానికి భూమికి సంబంధించిన విషయాలను సరిచూచుట,
3. భూగర్భ, భూ ఉపరితల నీటి వినియోగాన్ని క్రమబద్దీకరించుట.

ప్రశ్న 10.
మీ ప్రాంతంలో ఏ ఏ అవసరాలకు నీటి కొనుగోలు, అమ్మకం జరుగుతోంది? దీనిపై ఏమైనా నియంత్రణలు ఉండాలా? చర్చించండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. మా ప్రాంతంలో నీరు ఎక్కువగా మా కార్పొరేషన్ చే సరఫరా చేయబడుతుంది. వారు నీటిని పంపుల ద్వారా సరఫరా చేస్తారు. ఈ నీరు త్రాగడానికి, ఇతర గృహ వినియోగాలకు ఉపయోగపడుతుంది.
2. శుభ్రపరచబడిన త్రాగునీరు ఇతర ప్రైవేటు కంపెనీలచే బాటిల్ నీరును (2లీ.) రూ. 15/-ల నుండి రూ. 30/-ల వరకు తీసుకుని సరఫరా చేస్తారు.

వీటి మీద కొన్ని నియంత్రణలు ఉండాలని నేను భావిస్తున్నాను. కార్పొరేషను ట్యాంకులు తరుచూ శుభ్రం చేయాలి. నీటిని వివిధ మార్గాల ద్వారా శుద్ధి చేయాలి. సరఫరా చేయబడే సీసాలను శుభ్రపరచాలి. వారి యూనిట్ తరచూ సందర్శించి శుభ్రపరిచే విధానాన్ని పరిశీలించాలి.

10th Class Social Studies 5th Lesson భారతదేశ నదులు, నీటి వనరులు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.61

ప్రశ్న 1.
వాటర్ షెడ్ అన్న పదాన్ని చర్చించండి.
జవాబు:
ఒక ఎత్తైన ప్రాంతంలో ఒక వైపు నీటి ప్రవాహాలు ఒక నదిలోనూ, మరో వైపు నీటి ప్రవాహాలు మరో నదిలోనూ కలిస్తే . దానిని “వాటర్ షెడ్” అని అంటారు. ఈ నీటిని భూమిలోకి ఇంకేలా చేయడానికి చెట్లు నాటవచ్చు లేదా చెరువులు లాంటివి త్రవ్వించవచ్చు. ఇలా చేయడాన్ని “వాటర్ షెడ్ అభివృద్ధి పథకం” అని అంటారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.61

ప్రశ్న 2.
మొక్కలు వేళ్లనుంచి తీసుకున్న నీరు ఏమవుతుందో విజ్ఞానశాస్త్ర పాఠాలలో తెలుసుకుని ఉంటారు. అది మరొకసారి గుర్తుకు తెచ్చుకోండి.
జవాబు:
చెట్ల వేర్లు నీటిని సమతుల్యం చేసే లక్షణాన్ని కలిగి ఉంటాయి. అవి అవసరమైనపుడు మాత్రమే నీటిని తీసుకుంటాయి. అవసరం లేనపుడు వాటిని తీసుకోవు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.69

ప్రశ్న 3.
హివారే బజారులాగానే భూగర్భజలాల నియంత్రణ ప్రధానంగా ప్రజలే చేయాలా?
జవాబు:
హివారే బజారులలో భూగర్భజలాల నియంత్రణ చాలా విజయవంతం అయింది. దీనికి కారణం ప్రజల సహకారమే కాబట్టి ప్రజలు పూనుకొని భూగర్భజలాల నియంత్రణ చేయటమే సరియైన పని.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.69

ప్రశ్న 4.
‘భూగర్భజలాల చట్టాలు పాతబడిపోయాయి మరియు ప్రస్తుత కాలానికి తగవు’. వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
ప్రస్తుతం నీటి వినియోగంపై ఉన్న చట్టాలు బ్రిటీషు వారి కాలంనాటివి. అవి ఈ కాలానికి సరిపోయేవి కావు. పైగా అసంబద్ధమైనవి కూడా, అవి భూగర్భజలాలను అన్ని వనరులతో కలిపి వాడుకున్నపుడు తయారుచేసినవి. అవి ఇప్పటి వాడకానికి సరిపోవు. కాబట్టి అవి పాతపడిపోయాయి అని చెప్పవచ్చు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.58

ప్రశ్న 6.
భారతదేశంలో 40 మిలియన్ల ఎకరాల భూమి వరదకు గురయ్యే ప్రమాదం ఉంది. అంతే విస్తీర్ణం కరవుకి గురయ్యే అవకాశం ఉంది. దీనికి కారణాలు ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:

1. భారతదేశంలో అత్యధిక వర్షపాతం నైఋతి ఋతుపవనాల మూలంగా వస్తుంది.
2. ఈ ఋతుపవనాలలోని అనిశ్చితే వరదలకు, కరవుకు ప్రధాన కారణం.
3. వరదలు అధిక వర్షం మూలంగా సంభవిస్తే, కరవులు వర్షాలు లేకపోవడం వలన సంభవిస్తాయి.
4. అడవుల నిర్మూలన, నేలకోత మొదలైనవి ఈ విపత్తులకు మూల కారణాలు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.60

ప్రశ్న 7.
ఇక్కడ ఇచ్చిన పటం, అట్లాన్ల సహాయంతో ఈ కిందివి వివరించండి.
1) గోదావరి …………….. వద్ద పుడుతుంది.
2) తూర్పుకి ప్రవహించే ద్వీపకల్ప నదులలో కృష్ణానదికి రెండవ స్థానం. ఇది ………….. వద్ద పుడుతుంది.
3) మహానది ఛత్తీస్ గఢ్ లోని నిహావా దగ్గర పుట్టి …………… గుండా ప్రవహిస్తుంది.
4) నర్మదానది మధ్యప్రదేశ్ లోని …………… వద్ద పుడుతుంది.
5) తపతీనది …………… వద్ద పుట్టి ………… దిశగా పయనిస్తుంది.
జవాబు:
1) నాసిక్, త్రయంబకం
2) మహాబలేశ్వరం
3) ఒడిశా
4) అమరకంటక్
5) ముల్తాయ్, పశ్చిమ

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.61

ప్రశ్న 8.
మీ సమీప మండల కార్యాలయం నుంచి గత 5 సంవత్సరాలకు మొత్తం వార్షిక వర్షపాతం ఎంతో తెలుసుకోండి.
జవాబు:
నేను కృష్ణాజిల్లా పెనమలూరు గ్రామంలో నివసిస్తున్నాను. మా ఊరిలో సరాసరి వర్షపాతం ఈ క్రింది విధంగా ఉన్నది.
2013 – 107 సెం.మీ.
2014 . 103 సెం.మీ.
2015 – 100 సెం.మీ.
2016 – 98 సెం.మీ.
2017 – 104 సెం.మీ.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.65

ప్రశ్న 9.
నీటి వినియోగ ప్రణాళికల కోసం ప్రభుత్వ నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాధికార సంస్థ ఉంటే ఎలా ఉపయోగకరంగా ఉంటుంది?
జవాబు:

1. నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాధికార సంస్థ గనక ఉన్నట్లయితే ఆ సంస్థ ఆ నది నీటి వినియోగదారులందరికీ న్యాయం చేస్తుంది.
2. నీటి వనరుల అభివృద్ధికి, పర్యవేక్షణకు అన్ని స్థాయిల్లోనూ సహకరిస్తుంది.
3. కమ్యూనిటీ సహకారాన్ని కూడా పెంపొందిస్తుంది.
4. నీటి వనరుల కొరత వలన రాబోయే రోజుల్లో ఏర్పడే ఇబ్బందులను అధిగమించేలా చూస్తుంది.
5. నీటి సాగును, నిర్వహణను సాంప్రదాయక పద్ధతులలో జరిగేలా చూస్తుంది. నీరు అందరికి చెందినదని గ్రహించేలా చేస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.65

ప్రశ్న 10.
తుంగభద్ర నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాంతంలో నీటికి పరస్పర విరుద్ధ వినియోగాలు ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:

1. గత కొన్ని దశాబ్దాల నుండి నీటి నిల్వ సామర్థ్యం తగ్గుతోంది.
2. ఈ నదీ పరీవాహక ప్రాంతంలో నేలకోత ఎక్కువయ్యి సాంప్రదాయ చెరువులు, చిన్న జలాశయాలు, తుంగభద్ర జలాశయాలు పూడికకు గురి అవుతున్నాయి.
3. అంతరాష్ట్ర జల వివాదాలు కూడా వీటిని ప్రభావితం చేస్తున్నాయి.
4. జనాభా పెరుగుదల వలన, పారిశ్రామికీకరణ వలన కాలుష్యం పెరిగింది. వీటి మూలంగా ప్రజల జీవన ప్రమాణాలు, కొన్ని కమ్యూనిటీల జీవితాలు దెబ్బతింటున్నాయి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.67

ప్రశ్న 11.
నీటి అందుబాటును బట్టి వ్యవసాయ ప్రణాళిక తయారు చేయటానికి ఎటువంటి ప్రయత్నం జరిగింది?
జవాబు:

1. భారతదేశం లాంటి దేశాలలో దాదాపు 70% నీటి వినియోగం వ్యవసాయ రంగంలోనే జరుగుతోంది. ఇది అధిక వినియోగం అని చెప్పుకోవచ్చు.
2. ఆనకట్టలు, చెక్ డ్యామ్ లు మొదలైనవి నీటిని సద్వినియోగం చేయడానికి రైతులకు సహకరిస్తాయి. పంట దిగుబడులను అధికం చేస్తాయి.
3. బిందు సేద్యము లాంటి ఆధునిక పద్ధతులు నీటిని మరింత సమర్థవంతంగా ఉపయోగించుకోవడానికి ఉపయోగపడతాయి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.58

ప్రశ్న 12.
గృహ అవసరాలకు 5% నీటిని ఉపయోగిస్తున్నారు. అయినా కానీ జనాభాలో ఎక్కువ మందికి నీళ్లు అందటం లేదు. దీని గురించి చర్చించండి.
జవాబు:

1. నీటిని సరఫరా చేయడం అనేది ప్రభుత్వ బాధ్యత.
2. భారతదేశంలో ప్రభుత్వం దీనికి సంబంధించి ఎన్నో ప్రయత్నాలు చేసింది.
3. భూగర్భజల వనరులు తగ్గిపోవడం, వాటి నాణ్యత క్షీణించిపోవడం మొదలగునవి గ్రామీణ, పట్టణ ప్రాంతాలలో నీటి సరఫరాను దెబ్బతీస్తున్నది.
4. భూ ఉపరితల నీటి వనరులను కాలుష్యం వలన, కొరత వలన, జల వివాదాల వలన సరిగా సరఫరా చేయలేకపోతున్నారు.
5. తీర ప్రాంతాలలో సముద్రపు నీరును ఉప్పును తొలగించి మంచినీరుగా మార్చుటకు అనేక ప్రయత్నాలు జరుగుతున్నాయి.
6. భారతదేశంలో జనాభా పెరుగుదల, పరిశ్రమల పెరుగుదల మూలంగా నీటి అవసరాలు పెరిగాయి. దీని మూలంగా నీటి సరఫరా అనేక యిబ్బందులను ఎదుర్కొంటుంది.
7. వీటన్నింటి రీత్యా భారతదేశంలో నదుల అనుసంధానం అత్యంత ఆవశ్యకం.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.58

ప్రశ్న 13.
ఉపరితల నీటి వనరులలో 70% కలుషితం అయ్యా యి. కారణాలు ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:
అనేక వ్యర్థాలను నీటిలోనికి వదలడం వలన నీటి వనరులు కాలుష్యం అవుతున్నాయి. ఈ కాలుష్యం నీటిలోని మొక్కలను, జంతువులనే కాక, వాటిని ఉపయోగించే మానవులను కూడా నష్టపరుస్తోంది. ఈ కాలుష్యం పర్యావరణాన్ని దెబ్బ తీస్తున్నది.

నీటి కాలుష్యానికి కారణాలు :

1. మురికినీరు, వ్యర్థ పదార్థాలు, చెత్త, చెదారం నీటిలో కలవటం మూలంగా నీరు విషతుల్యమవుతుంది.
2. నీటి వనరులున్న ప్రాంతాలలో మలవిసర్జన చేయటం నీటిని కలుషితం చేస్తోంది.
3. పారిశ్రామిక వ్యర్థాలు నీళ్ళలోకి వదలడం మూలంగా నీరు అధికస్థాయిలో కలుషితమవుతుంది.
4. సముద్రంలో ప్రయాణం చేసే ఓడలు, ట్యాంకర్లు చమురును వదిలి ఆ నీటిని కలుషితం చేస్తున్నాయి.
5. ఆమ్ల వర్షాల మూలంగా ఉపరితల నీరు కలుషితమవుతుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.58

ప్రశ్న 14.
భారతదేశ పటంలో హిమాలయాలను, పశ్చిమ కనుమలను గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.58

ప్రశ్న 15.
పటంలోని రంగుల సూచికను బట్టి నదులు పుట్టిన పర్వతాలు ఎంత ఎత్తులో ఉన్నాయో తెలుసుకోండి. అట్లాస్, ఉబ్బెత్తు భౌగోళిక పటం సహాయంతో నదీ గమనాన్ని అనుసరిస్తూ వాటి ప్రవాహ దిశను గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.59

ప్రశ్న 16.
అట్లాస్ సహాయంతో భారతదేశం, పాకిస్తాన్ లో సింధూనది ప్రవాహ మార్గాన్ని గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.59

ప్రశ్న 17.
గంగానది పటాన్ని (5.2) చూసి అది ఏ ఏ రాష్ట్రాల గుండా ప్రవహిస్తుందో చెప్పండి.

గంగా, బ్రహ్మపుత్రల సంగమం
జవాబు:
గంగానది ప్రవహించే రాష్ట్రాలు :

1. ఉత్తరాఖండ్
2. ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్
3. బీహార్
4. జార్ఖండ్
5. పశ్చిమబెంగాల్

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.59

ప్రశ్న 18.
పై పటం చూసి గంగానది ఉపనదులలో ఉత్తర దిశగా ప్రవహించేవి ఏవో, దక్షిణ దిశగా ప్రవహించేవి ఏవో చెప్పండి.
జవాబు:
ఉత్తరంగా ప్రవహించే ఉపనదులు : కోసి, గండక్, గాగ్రా, గోమతి, శారద, యమున, రామ్ గంగా నదులు.

దక్షిణంగా ప్రవహించే ఉపనదులు : సన్, రిహార్డ్, కెన్, బెట్వా, తన్నా నదులు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.63

ప్రశ్న 19.
భారతదేశ పటంలో తుంగభద్ర నది ప్రవాహ మార్గాన్ని గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.67

ప్రశ్న 20.
సవారే బజారులో నీటి సంరక్షణకు చేపట్టిన పనులను సూచించే వాక్యాల కింద గీత గీయండి.
జవాబు:
స్వయం కృత్యం.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.67

ప్రశ్న 21.
మీకు ఇంటర్నెట్ అందుబాటులో ఉంటే హివారే బజారుకు సంబంధించిన వీడియో చిత్రాన్ని ఈ లింకులో చూడండి. http://bit.ly/koth LI
జవాబు:
స్వయం కృత్యం.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.69

ప్రశ్న 22.
భూగర్భజలాలు అందరికీ చెందిన వనరులు – మీ అభిప్రాయాన్ని వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
భూమిమీద హక్కుకి, భూగర్భ జలాలమీద హక్కుకి సంబంధం ఉన్నప్పుడు నీటిని సక్రమంగా వినియోగించటంపై వ్యక్తిగత భూ యజమానులపై ఎటువంటి ఒత్తిడి ఉండదు. అదే విధంగా పర్యావరణానికి, విస్తృత ప్రజానీకానికి ప్రయోజనం కలిగించేలా విధానాలను అమలు చేసే మార్గమేమీ లేదు. దాదాపుగా ఎటువంటి నియంత్రణలేని ఈ వ్యవస్థలో ఒక ప్రాంతంలో ఎన్ని చేతి పంపులు, బావులు, బోరుబావులు ఉండవచ్చో నిర్ణయించే అధికారం ఎవరికీ లేదు. కాబట్టి నీటిని ప్రజలందరికీ ఉద్దేశించిన ఉమ్మడి వనరుగా పరిగణించాలి. రోడ్లు, నదులు, ఉద్యానవనాలు, అంతర్భూజలం అందరికీ చెందే ‘ప్రజా ఆస్తి’ గా భావించాలి. దీనిని ప్రస్తుతం కొన్ని రాష్ట్ర ప్రభుత్వాలు గుర్తిస్తున్నాయి, కాని అంతగా విస్తృతం కాలేదు.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 19 Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term AIADMK.
Answer:
All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazagam.

Question 2.
Give any two examples for Regional Political parties.
Answer:
TDP, YSRCP, JANA SENA, TRS, AIADMK, DMK, etc.

Question 3.
Which welfare schemes initiated by N.T. Rama Rao are still continuing with some changes in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Mid-day meal scheme in government schools.
2. Sale of rice at subsidy rates to the poor.

Question 4.
Identify at least any two states presently ruled by regional parties in India on the given Indian political map.
Answer:

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Telecom revolution?
Answer:
The contribution of Telecom Revolution:
A network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology increased.

Question 6.
Mention any two initiations of N.T. Rama Rao.
Answer:

1. Sale of rice at Rs. 2/- kg
2. Mid day meal scheme in government schools.
3. Liquor prohibition

Question 7.
Write about the 73rd amendment of the constitution.
Answer:
73rd amendment: The 73rd constitutional amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level and so Gram Panchayat, Mandal Parishad and Zilla Parishad are formed.

Observe the table given below and answer the questions 8 & 9.
Results of Telangana State Assembly and Parliament Elections – 2014

Question 8.
Name the two parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.
Answer:
Parties that secured more than 15 Assembly seats.

1. TRS
2. Congress Party
3. T.D.P

Question 9.
Why did TRS secure more seats in 2014 elections?
Answer:
TRS secured more seats in 2014 elections because it played a key role in Telangana agitation.

Question 10.
What is meant by the Coalition government?
Answer:
During the time of General Election to the Assembly and Lok Sabha, no party gain the majority to form the government at the centre or state at that time. Two or more than two political parties come together to form a single government.
(OR)
A number of national and regional parties had to come together to form governments at the centre.

Question 11.
Name some non-political movements.
Answer:
Environmental movements, the feminist movement, civil liberties movement, literacy movements.

Question 12.
Which became powerful motors of social change?
Answer:
A number of non-political movements emerged and became powerful motors of social change.

Question 13.
Which parties decided to merge together and form the Janata Party?
Answer:
The Congress, Swatantra Party, Bharatiya Jan Sangh, the Bharatiya Lok Dal and the Socia¬list Party decided to merge together and form the Janata Party.

Question 14.
Who supported the Janata Party?
Answer:
The DMK, the SAD and the CPI (M) chose to maintain their separate identities but supported the Janata Party in a common front against the Congress.

Question 15.
Who played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties?
Answer:
Senior leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya JB Kriplani played an important role in bringing together all the anti-Congress and anti-Emergency parties to fight the elections.

Question 16.
What was the argument of the Janata Party regarding the dismiss of nine state governments?
Answer:
The Janata Party argued that the Congress party had lost its mandate to rule in the States as it had been defeated.

Question 17.
Which created a bad state in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.

Question 18.
Who moved to Assom and Bengal?
Answer:
The Bangladeshis moved to Assom and Bengal.

Question 19.
Name some communities of Assom.
Answer:
Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis.

Question 20.
Who was Bhindtanwale and what was his demand?
Answer:
Bhindranwale, the leader of the group of militant Sikhs began to preach separatism and also demanded the formation of a Sikh State- Khalistan.

Question 21.
What did the militants try?
Answer:
The militants tried to impose an orthodox life code on all Sikhs and even non-Sikhs of Punjab.

Question 22.
Who made a declaration in April 1986?
Answer:
In April 1986, an assembly at the Akal Takht, made a declaration of an independent state of Khalistan.

Question 23.
Where were the militants engaged in?
Answer:
The militants were also engaged in large scale kidnapping and extortion to raise funds for their work.

Question 24.
How were the methods used by the govern¬ment for the suppression of militancy in Punjab?
Answer:
The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of. Constitutional rights of citizens.

Question 25.
What did Rajiv Gandhi begin?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi began a peace initiative in Punjab, Assam and Mizoram and also in the neighbouring country of Sri Lanka.

Question 26.
What is called the telecom revolution?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated what is called the ‘telecom revolution’ in India which speeded up and spread the network of telephonic communication in the country using satellite technology.

Question 27.
What had been under dispute for some time regarding Babri Masjid?
Answer:
Some sections of the Hindus had begun a campaign for building a temple for Lord Rama in Ayodhya in the place of Babri Masjid.

Question 28.
What is the speciality of Elections held in 1989?
Answer:
The issue of corruption in administration and in political circles became the main plank of the election campaign for non-Congress political forces in the next elections held in 1989.

Question 29.
What is Policy Paralysis?
Answer:
Policy Paralysis means the coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 30.
Which was the first coalition to be re-elected?
Answer:
The UPA was the first coalition to be re-elected.

Question 31.
Who led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977?
Answer:
Jyoti Basu of CPM led the Left Front Government in West Bengal in 1977.

Question 32.
On what did the Operation Barga depend?
Answer:
Operation Barga depended heavily on collective action by the share croppers and Panchayati Raj Institutions thus avoiding bureaucratic delays and domination of the landowning classes.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

The Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab, many of which were seen as a violation of the constitutional rights of citizens. Many observers felt that such violations of constitutional rights and human rights were justified.as the constitutional machinery was on the edge of collapse due to militant activity.
Express your views on the information given above.

Answer:
There was a threat to the integration of the Indian nation due to the militancy in Punjab. If the government had not taken such actions, the map of India would be different today. So I think the government was correct.

Question 2.
Read the given data to answer the questions.

A) Which were the parties that participated in the governments of the National Front and United Front and supported the government from the outside?
Answer:
To National Front: CPM, CPI, and BJP.
To United Front: CPM.

B) Mention the name of the party that participated in the above three governments.
Answer:
J.K.N.C.

Question 3.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

a) Name the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.
Answer:
Janata Party is the first non-Congress party which formed the government at the centre.

b) Who is the founder of Telugu Desam Party?
Answer:
Nandamuri Taraka Rama Rao (NTR) is the founder of Telugu Desam Party.

Question 4.
Which are the newest states of India, when they created?
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the table and answer the given equations.

a) Which party won in 1996 elections and formed government?
Answer:
National Front.

b) Name the Coalition Governments mentioned in the above table.
Answer:
National Front and NDA Governments.

Question 6.
Write about people’s welfare schemes started by present Governments.
Answer:

1. Supply of rice at the cost of Rs. 1 per Kg to the white ration cardholders.
2. Pensions for the old age people and widows.
3. Free textbooks, uniforms and Midday meal scheme in government schools.
4. Housing schemes for the poor people.
5. Health scheme for the poor people.
6. Fees reimbursement to the poor for higher education, etc.

Question 7.
Read the following text and answer the questions given below.

The Congress returned to power in 1980. The Congress immediately paid back the Janatb in the same coin by dismissing the Janata and non-Congress governments in nine States. The Congress was victorious in all the States except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

A) Which party ruled before 1980s?
Answer:
Janata Party.

B) In which two states, the Congress party was defeated?
Answer:
Tamilnadu and West Bengal.

Question 8.
Prepare a table by classifying the given political parties into National and Regional Parties. “BJP, YSRCP, TDP, CPM, CPI, DMK, Congress-1, AGP”.

Answer:

Question 9.
Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.

i) Who was the Prime Minister at the time of demolition of Babri Masjid?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao.

ii) Give two examples of the Coalition government.
Answer:

1. Janata Dal government.
2. National Front government.
3. National Democratic Alliance (NDA).

Question 10.
Sometimes coalition governments cause ‘Policy Paralysis’. Do you agree with this statement?
Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement. The coalition could not implement any policy which called for serious change for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners.

Question 11.
“Coalition Governments cause political instability.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Sometimes no single party wins a majority of seats to form a government of its own. In such the situation, a number of political parties come together and form coalition governments.
2. A common agreement between these parties has to be arrived at, but this is not so easy.
3. Different parties put pressure on the government for their different interests.
4. The government cannot implement any policy for fear of withdrawal of support by one or the other partners. The governments become instable.
5. This is called policy paralise which is frequent in the coalition government.

Question 12.
What are the situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties in present days?
Answer:
The situations that paved to strengthen the regional parties

1. Regional aspirations – regional movements.
2. Intermediate castes strengthening – gaining political power.
3. To gain political power.
4. Defections and corruption.

Question 13.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Protest against the domination of Bangladesh.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 14.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Table: Seat share of various Political parties in 2014 (lok Sabha)

Answer:

1. In 2014 General elections BjP got with 282 seats and form the largest party and form the government also.
2. Indian National Congress got only 45 seats.
3. Left parties CPI + CPI (M) joined together got 10 seats.
4. The Regional parties like TDP 16 seats 8i TRS 11 seats gained In Lok’Sabha elections.

Question 15.
What are the important changes that occured in India between 1975-85?
Answer:
Many changes occurred In India between 1975-85. Some of them are:

1. Emergency was declared by smt. Indira Gandhi as she was asked to quit her Prime Minister post by Allahabad high court.
2. Janatha Government came into power in 1979.
3. Congress Party came to power in the elections after Janatha govt, failure.
4. Non-political movements like environment movements, feminist movements, civil liberties movement and literacy movements came up.

Question 16.
At present, what is the necessity of coalition politics?
Answer:
In the present multiparty system in India it is impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own but in 2019 elections BJP has won the election as single party. It went as coalition.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

In Andhra Pradesh, the frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central Congress leadership and the imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national Congress leadership. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people. N.T. Rama Rao(NTR), popular film actor, chose to take up this cause. He began the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) on his 60th birthday in 1982. He said that the TDP stood for the honour and self respect of the Telugu speaking people (Teluguvari atma gauravam). He argued that the state could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.

Answer:

1. The Congress government frequently changed the Chief Ministers.
2. The Congress was not giving respect to Andhra Pradesh leadership.
3. The TDP was formed for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
4. He introduced welfare schemes like midday meals to government schools, liquor prohibition and the sale of rice for Rs. 2/- per kg.
5. These populist measures helped the TDP sweep the 1982 elections.
6. TDP emerged as a strong regional party, and challenged the Congress domination.

Question 18.
What are the effects of changes of the Telecom Revolution on the Human lifestyles.
Answer:

1. Telecom Revolution is the result of privatization of Telecommunications.
2. Number of industries invested in telecommunications.
3. “Mobiles” and Smart phones have created sensation.
4. They reduced the distance between the buyers and sellers.
5. Every family has a mobile in India.
6. Telemarketing is a creative innovation.
7. Smartphones have internet access and due to that internet facility is accessible to villagers through telephones.

Question 19.
What was Operation Blue Star?
Answer:

1. Sikhs became militant in Punjab under Bhindranwale.
2. People belonging to non-Sikhs were subjected to communal attack.
3. Sikh separatist groups hid in the Golden Temple.
4. Army had to intervene to vacate the campus.
5. This was called ‘Operation Blue Star’.

Question 20.
What factors influenced central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the North Eastern Region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Mynmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large-scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 21.
Read the given information.

Now answer the following questions.
a) Which party was included in “Governing parties” in all the above coalition governments?
Answer:
Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (JKNC)

b) Which party gave support to NDA government?
Answer:
TDP.

c) Which party gave support to National Front and United Front from outside?
Answer:
CPM.

Question 22.
What did the emergence of competitive alternatives ensured?
Answer:
The emergence of competitive alternatives ensured that Indian voters could always exercise a reasonable choice. This also allowed many different political viewpoints and sectional interests to become active in state level and national politics.

Question 23.
How was the rule of the first non-Congress government?
Answer:
The Janata Party had come to power promising a restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule. However, the disunity among the partners had a serious effect on the governance and its rule is most often remembered for internal squabbles and defections. The factional struggle in the party soon culminated in the fall of the government within three years leading to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 24.
What happened whenever there was any political instability?
Answer:
Whenever there was any political instability or natural calamity in the neighbouring country, thousands of people moved into the State creating huge discomfort for the locals. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be outnumbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Question 25.
What was there besides culture and demographics?
Answer:
Besides culture and demographics, there was also an economic dimension. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities. The major resources of the State, including tea and oil were again not benefitting the locals.

Question 26.
What was the dominant thrust of the movement?
Answer:
The dominant thrust of the movement was that Assam was being treated as an “internal colony” and this had to stop. The main demands were that the local people should be given greater preference in employment, the “outsiders” should be removed and the resources should be used for the benefit of the locals.

Question 27.
Which has led to violent attempts of ethnic cleansing in Assam?
Answer:
Too much emphasis on ethnic identities had a negative impact on other communities of Assam like the Bodos, Khasis, Mizos and Karbis. Many of them too demanded autonomous status. They began to assert themselves and wanted to drive out people of other communities from their areas.

Question 28.
What did Punjab claim?
Answer:
It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the Centre. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.

Question 29.
Write about the resolution of Akali Dal.
Answer:
The Akali Dal had passed a set of resolutions in 1978 during the Janata Party rule in the centre, calling upon the central government to implement them. Its most significant demand was to amend the Constitution to give more powers to the states and ensure greater decentralisation of powers.

Question 30.
What happened after Rajiv Gandhi’s entrance?
Answer:
After Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister, he held talks with SAD and entered into an agreement with Sant Langowal, the SAD president. Though fresh elections were held in Punjab and SAD won them, the peace was short-lived as Langowal was assassinated by the militants.

Question 31.
What did Rajiv Gandhi say in his speech?
Answer:
In a famous speech Rajiv Gandhi said that out of every Rupee spent on the poor barely 15 paise reaches them I It highlighted the fact that despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.

Question 32.
Which factors influenced the central government to use armed forces to reduce tensions in Assam?
Answer:

1. Three factors influenced the use of armed forces in the Northeastern region.
2. Firstly, it was a sensitive border area adjacent to China, Myanmar and Bangladesh.
3. Secondly, rebel groups demanding separation from India, procured arms from outside.
4. Thirdly, they indulged in large scale ethnic violence against minority communities.
5. The government thought this was the only way to bring about peace in the area.

Question 33.
What was meant by liberalization?
Answer:

1. It meant a lot of things put together like the drastic reduction of government expenditure, reducing restrictions and taxes on imports, etc.
2. It proved for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India and allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
3. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
4. It brought in foreign goods and Indian businessmen were forced to compete with them.
5. It had many positive and negative impacts on India.

Question 34.
“One of the greatest weakness was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health”. Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The post-Independence era is marked with less priority to education and health.
2. The optimum development of country depends mostly on the education and health levels of the population of it.
3. It further forms part of Human Development Indicators also.
4. So, I suggest more priority should be given to education and health now.

Question 35.
Read the given information.

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes.

Answer the following questions.
a) Which constitutional amendment created institution of local self-government?
b) According to which amendment general elections were conducted in towns and cities?
c) How many seats are reserved for women in local bodies?
Answer:
a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self-governments for villages.
b) According to 74th Constitutional Amendment general elections were conducted in towns/cities.
c) 1/3 seats were reserved for women in local self-government elections.

Question 36.
“Do you think that the reservations will promote the social development” ? Express your ideas.
Answer:

1. Reservations will definitely promote social development.
2. Scheduled castes and tribes were drowtodden and suffered in the social stature for centuries.
3. To develop themselves and to question the injustice they meted out, reservations will of great help.
4. Reservations both in education, jobs, and legislature help them.

Question 37.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to first Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of constitution.
4. Still there is same feeling in Tamil Nadu.

Question 38.
“Some people think that Social Welfare Schemes do not reach eligible persons”. Express your suggestions.
Answer:

1. Despite all the attention to development in the country, much of it did not reach the real beneficiaries.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure the story of the poor remained the same.
3. The main reasons were political and beaurocratic corruption.
4. Enlistment of various beneficiaries also plagued by officialdom and political pressures.

Question 39.
“India needed to adapt itself to the new technologies emerging in the world, especially computer and telecommunication technologies”. Comment.
Answer:

1. Technologies like computer and communication technology are thursting the world.
2. It is believed that we should also adopt them without fail.
3. With initiatives of Rajiv Gandhi now called ‘Telecom Revolution1 was introduced in India.
4. With the help of satellite technology communications spread widely and extensively.
5. Everyone has access to mobile phones, the internet, email, facebook, Twitter, etc.

10th Class Social 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the text given and answer the questions.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th Amendment

In 1992, Government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an Important amendment to the Constitution to provide Local Self Governments a Constitutional status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created Institutions of local self-government at the village level, while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were pathbreaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be developed to their respective local self-governments. Consequently, the powers of local self-governments vary across the country.

i) What is Local Self Government?
Answer:
The Government that formed by the people at the village, town and city level to solve the local needs is Local Self Government.

ii) Which government recognised the Constitutional status of Local self Government?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao or Congress Government.

iii) What does the 73rd Constitutional Amendment say?
Answer:
Creation of Local Self government at the village level.

iv) 1/3 of seats were to be reserved for women in Local Self Governments. Comment.
Answer:
Women need political equality and they should Involve actively In the Local Governments.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Liberalization measures brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with global manufacturers. It also led to the setting up of industries and business by foreign companies in India. However, it also meant a lot of hardship for the common people as the government was forced to cut subsidies to the people and as many factories closed down due to Influx of cheap foreign goods. This also led to privatization of many public amenities tike education, health, and transport and people had to pay high prices to private service providers.

Write your opinion on the consequences of liberalization.
(OR)
What are the consequences of economic Liberalization?
Answer:

1. India was drawn into the world market.
2. Liberalization paved the way to telecom revolution.
3. Liberalization forced Indian business to compete with global manufactures.
4. The government was forced to cut subsidies which results a great loss to people and local industries.
5. It also led to the privatization of many public amenities like education, health and transport.
6. It led to globalization.
7. The policies of liberalisation have been of advantage particularly to well of sections only.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of regional parties in Democracy.
Answer:

1. Multi-party system which includes national parties and regional parties strengthens the democracy.
2. Regional parties reflect the spirit of the federalism.
3. Regional parties have good understanding of the problems and needs of the respective states.
4. They focus mainly on the development of their states.

Question 4.
Telecom revolution has brought several changes in human life nowadays. Explain them.
Answer:
Changes brought by the telecom revolution:

1. Saves time
2. Fast communication
3. Online services
4. Prosperous life
5. Addiction
6. Obesity
7. Cost of living increased
8. Affected human relations

Question 5.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India was forced to open up and ‘liberalise’ its economy by allowing free flow of foreign capital and goods Into India. On the other hand, new social groups asserted themselves politically for the first time, and finally, religious nationalism and communal political mobilisation became Important features of our political life. All this put the Indian society into great turmoil, we are still coming to grips with these changes and adapting ourselves to them.

Answer:

1. Liberalisation means relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policy.
2. The twentieth century ended with India’s drawing into the world free market.
3. India was forced to open up and liberalise its economy. It allowed free flow of foreign capital and goods into India.
4. On the other hand, India seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which divisive and communal political mobilisation was threatening to destroy social peace.
5. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics.
6. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Question 6.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 -Indian General Elections

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections the NDAgot 31% of the votes whereas the UPAgot 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction.

Question 7.
Explain the effects along with the reasons for the emerging era of coalition politics.
Answer:
Reasons for the emergence of coalition era of politcs:

1. Multi party system
2. No single party securing required majority.
3. Significance of regional parties increased.
4. Congress party gradually lost people’s mandate after 1960s.

Effects:

1. No political stability
2. Isolating the ideologies
3. Giving importance to party’s interest at the cost of nation’s interest.
4. Coming to power in spite of securing less mandate.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The twentieth century closed with India which was drawn into the world market, India which seemed to have a thriving democracy in which voices of different sections of the population were making themselves heard and in which, divisive and communal political mobilisation were threatening to destroy social peace. It had stood the test of time for over fifty years and had built a relatively stable economy and deeply rooted democratic politics. It still had not managed to solve the problem of acute poverty and gross inequality between castes, communities, regions and gender.

Answer:
The given paragraph depicts about divisive and communal politics. These may destroy the social peace. After independence in India, stable government continued for 30, 40 years and unstability began. Main problem of solving poverty and inequalities with regard to caste, region is not yet solved.

My opinion is that the politics are only vote bank based. Sometimes the political leaders are there behind the communal riots. To throw out some Chief Minister of the same party, their party leaders encourage these riots. Caste based politics are shown at the time of tickets given to party candidates. Caste unions, and the caste group heads are distributed money to lure them to get their votes. Some constituencies are fixed for some religion because of their dominance in number. It is really a threat to democracy. Holy places of worship are also in some cases used to spread communal message. That destroys social peace.
My suggestion is that people should get awarness about this and act accordingly.

Question 9.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
The trend of Coalition Governments, 1989 – 2004

Answer:

1. The given table is about the trend of Coalition Governments during the period of the years from 1989 to 2004.
2. The details of three coalition governments and their duration, etc. are given in the table.
3. During 1989-1990 Janata Dal-led National Front formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JD, DMK, AGP, TDP, JKNC. CPM, CPI and BJP supported this government.
4. United Front formed the coalition government during 1996-1998. JKNC, TDP, TMC, CPI, AGP, DMK, MGP were the governing parties in this government. CPM supported this government.
5. During 1998-2004 BJP-led National Democratic Alliance formed the government. The governing parties in this government were JDU, SAD, AIADMK, JKNC, TMC, BJD and Shiva Sena. TDP rendered support to the NDA government.
6. The 1990s were years of very significant change in the post-Independence India.
7. With the transformation to a competitive multi-party system, it became near impossible for any single party to win a majority of seats and form a government of its own.
8. Since 1989, all governments that had formed at the national level have been either coalition or minority governments.

Question 10.
Explain about Assam movement in detail.
Answer:

Assam movement:

It is the struggle between Assamese and non-Assamese. These non-Assamese were none other than the people of Bangladesh. The youth of Assam formed All Assam Students Union (AASU) and was in the forefront of agitation. It led a number of strikes, agitations and marches to remove the so called outsiders. The problem of outsiders is not a cultural one but of economic issue. Every country or state wants to protect their cultural roots. The Assamese were most of them, Hindus and the outsiders were Muslims. The local people were afraid of their cultural roots.
Now they affect the trade and so the livelihoods of the locals had been in trouble. It is not only the problem of Assam, it happens at many states. Outsiders dominate a few areas of business and so the locals lose opportunities. In Assam the locals were not given priority or preference in employment. This was the demand of the Assamese. Gradually these demands led to communal polarisation as most of the outsiders are from Bangladesh Muslims. The movement between the Assamese and outsider Muslim led to form an idea of anti Indian stand.

Central Government took initiation and went on for talks for three years. An agreement was signed by the central government and the students union. In the next elections Assam Gana Parishad (an offshoot of AASU) came to power.

In conclusion, the formation of Bangladesh erstwhile Pakistan was taken place on the basis of religion. One’s religion can be given respect by all but it led to many disturbances. The Muslims, the outsiders of Assam occupied most of the areas of trade and business and there was distress and disappointment among the Assamese. The outsiders would have settled in Bangladesh only. They wanted their country to be separated and still they are coming to India illegally. Recently both the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh sat together and solved a few problems. If any problem arises, they should sit together and problems can be solved.

Question 11.
Prepare an album by collecting the photos of Prime Ministers of India and write their specialities.
Answer:

Question 12.
You may notice how simple and genuine demands of the people of Punjab were hijacked by religious and anti-national extremists. What steps do you think would have prevented this?
Answer:

1. The simple and genuine demands of Punjab were
   a) the contribution of state was ignored
   b) received unfair bargain when it was created
   c) capital remain UT
   d) more water from Bhakra Nangal and
   e) greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
2. Akali Dal government was dismissed by Congress.
3. A series of untoward incidents increased distance between Sikhs and the central government.
4. Militant Sikhs demanded separate state.
5. They occupied Golden Temple, then Congress used army to vacate.
6. A fallout led to the assassination of Indira.
7. Rioting in Delhi against Sikhs was followed.
8. Later Langowal made an agreement with centre but was killed by militants.
9. Militants engaged in extortion and kidnapping and lost faith of the people

Question 13.
Understand the table and answer the following questions.
Some opposition parties of 1970’s

a) Which political party fiercely opposes Hindi in the state ?
Answer:
DMK is the party which opposes Hindi in the state.

b) What is the place of activity for Jan Sangh?
Answer:
Jan Sangh is active in Northern States.

c) What is the ideology of CPI (M)?
Answer:
The ideologies of CPI (M) are radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

d) Where is the political party which shows special attention to farmers, active ?
Answer:
The political party, which shows special attention to farmers is active in Uttar Pradesh.

e) Which party is of semireligious nature?
Answer:
SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal is of semireligious nature.

Question 14.
What were the implications of 1977 general elections?
Answer:

1. It was a historical election for democracy.
2. The Congress party was defeated at the national level for the first time.
3. Janata Party became victorious and tried to consolidate itself.
4. It dismissed nine Congress governments in states.
5. It argued that Congress had lost its mandate to rule in the states as it had been defeated.
6. Its stand somewhat proved correct by the results.
7. Except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, Janata Party came to power in states.
8. The disunity among the partners had a serious effect on governance.
9. The government fell within three years.
10. It led to fresh elections in 1980.

Question 15.
Why was the public sympathy to Punjab militant Sikhs declined?
Answer:

1. They formed armed attachments and engaged in terrorist activities.
2. They clashed with police and other religious groups.
3. Those who were not confirmed to militant approved behaviour were killed.
4. There were civil casualities in derailing trains, exploding bombs, etc.
5. They were engaged in kidnapping, extortion to raise funds.
6. All this gradually alienated them from masses and even Sikhs.
7. Over a period, public sympathy declined rapidly.
8. Peace was finally returned to Punjab by the end of 1990s.

Question 16.
‘Coalition governments induce political instability’ – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. Since 1989, all governments at national level were coalition/minority governments.
2. A number of national and regional parties had come together.
3. So political ideologies and programmes of all parties had to be accommodated.
4. A common agreement had to be arrived at.
5. No party could pursue extreme agendas.
6. They needed to tone down their approaches.
7. It caused considerable instability.
8. Many coalitions did not last their full time.

Question 17.
How do political parties reap on communal polarisation? Provide an example.
Answer:

1. The Hindus are led by Bharatiya Janata Party.
2. In the year 1984 LokSabha elections they won only 2 seats.
3. It made great strides when it took up the Ayodhya issue.
4. It decided to campaign for the building of a temple at the site of mosque.
5. It claimed that was the birthplace of Lord Rama.
6. L.K. Advani in 1990, led a ‘Rath Yatra’ from Somanath to Ayodhya.
7. This campaign was accompanied by intense communal polarisation.
8. It caused a large number of communal conflicts.
9. In 1991 General elections BJP’s strength went up to 120.
10. It was then Rajiv was killed and sympathy wave followed the Congress, still, BJP withstood it.

Question 18.
What is meant by liberalisation?
Answer:

1. It means a lot of things put together.
2. It proposes drastic reduction of government expenditure.
3. It asks for reducing restrictions and taxes on import of foreign goods.
4. It provides for reducing restrictions on foreign investments in India.
5. It is required to the opening of many sectors of the economy to private investors.
6. It brought in foreign goods and forced Indian business to compete with them.
7. It allowed foreign countries to set up companies in India.
8. Common people suffered with cut of subsidies.
9. Many factories were closed down due to influx of cheap foreign goods.

Question 19.
Study the timeline given below and answer the following questions.
a) Who was the Prime Minister that initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi initiated peace agreements with Sri Lanka.

b) Which government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report?
Answer:
Janata Dal government tried to implement Mandal Commissions report.

c) Name two important incidents occurred during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Answer:
Economic liberalization and the demolition of the Babri Masjid took place during the period of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

d) When was Indira Gandhi assassinated?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi was assassinated in 1984.

e) Who were the Prime Ministers of National Front Government?
Answer:
Deve Gowda and I.K. Gujral were the Prime Ministers of the National Front Government.

f) Who were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government?
Answer:
V.P. Singh and Chandrasekhar were the Prime Ministers of Janata Dal Government.

g) Who led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi?
Answer:
P.V. Narasimha Rao led the Congress party after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.

h) Who led the NDA government?
Answer:
A.B. Vajpayee led the NDA government.

i) When was the NDA Government formed?
Answer:
NDA formed the government in 1998.

Question 20.

Read the following information and answer the questions.

Some opposition parties of 1970s

BLD – Bharatiya Lok Dal – A party which was formed of socialists who called for special attention to Indian farmers, based mainly in Uttar Pradesh.

Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress which had opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

CPI (M) – Communist Party of India (Marxist)-a party with a national presence, which strove for radical land reforms, trade unionism and socialist policies.

DMK – Dravida Munnetra Kazagam – a party based mainly in Tamil Nadu which sought greater autonomy and powers for the state.

Jan Sangh – A Hindu nationalist party largely confined to the northern States.

SAD – Shiromani Akali Dal – a party based in Punjab catering specially to the Sikhs and organised around Gurudwaras. It therefore had a semi-religious character. It was also in favour of greater autonomy to the States.

a) Which party fought for autonomy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Dravida Munnetra Kazagam fought for greater autonomy in Tamil Nadu.

b) Which party showed special attention to Indian farmers mainly in UP?
Answer:
Bharatiya Lok Dal showed special attention to farmers mainly in U.P.

c) Name the regional party of Punjab.
Answer:
Shiromani Akali Dal is the regional party of Punjab.

d) Name one Hindu nationalist party.
Answer:
“Jan Sangh” is one Hindu nationalistic party.

e) Which opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:
Congress (O) – The conservative section of the Congress opposed the policies of Indira Gandhi.

f) What was the main aim of SAD?
Answer:
It sought for greater autonomy to Punjab.

g) Which party was confined to North India only?
Answer:
Jan Sangh was confined to North India only.

Question 21.

Read the following passage and interpret it.

Panchayati Raj & 73rd, 74th amendment

In 1992 government led by P.V. Narasimha Rao passed an important amendment to the Constitution to provide local self-governments a Constitutional Status. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment created institutions of local self government at the village level while the 74th Constitutional Amendment did the same in towns and cities. These were path-breaking amendments. They sought to usher in for the first time, office bearers at the local level elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.

One-third of the seats were to be reserved for women. Seats were also reserved for , scheduled castes and tribes. The concerns of the State governments were taken into j account and it was left to the States to decide on what functions and powers were to be devolved to their respective local self governments. Consequently, the powers of local self governments vary across the country.

Answer:

1. In 1992 P.V. Narasimha Rao s government passed the important amendments of 73rd and 74th.
2. The 73rd amendment created institutions of local self governments at the village levels.
3. The 74th amendment created institutions of local self-governments at the town and city levels.
4. They are path-breaking as the office bearers at the local level are elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.
5. Seats are reserved for women and Scheduled Castes and Tribes too.
6. Powers were devolved to their respective local self-governments.
7. Hence we can say that these two amendments were path-breaking.

Question 22.
On the outline map of India locate the On the outline map of India locate the following.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assom
3. Punjab
4. Tamil Nadu
5. West Bengal
6. Uttar Pradesh
7. Nagaland
8. Mizoram
9. Bihar
10. Gujarat
11. Maharashtra
12. Ayodhya

Answer:

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Madagascar Island
2. Nigeria
3. Holland
4. Amsterdam
5. Brazil
6. Jordan
7. Israel
8. Spain
9. Palestine
10. Bangladesh

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 16 National Movement in India–Partition & Independence.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why did the Indian soldiers join the INA?
Answer:
The Indian soldiers were against to the British government. They were motivated by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and joined the INA to fight against the British.

Question 2.
What was the wish of the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS?
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS wished to unite all Hindus; overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life.

Question 3.
Who was the Prime Minister that abolished Privy Purses?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi.

Question 4.
What is the two-nation theory?
Answer:
Partition of India based on religions – Hindus and Muslims is called two-nation theory.

Question 5.
Write any two differences between the Russian Revolution (1917) and the Indian freedom movement.
Answer:

Question 6.
This map depicts an event of India’s struggle for Independence. What could be that event?

Answer:
This is the incident that happened on the partition of India.

Question 6.
Observe the following table. It has certain events shown by letters
Write the suitable ENGLISH LETTER for each event listed above in the boxes against each on the timeline.

Answer:

Question 7.
“India is a secular state.” Justify this statement by giving two examples.
Yes, India is a secular state. There is no state religion.
Example

1. Every Indian has right to follow, propagate and conduct processions on the basis of religion.
2. The constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

Question 8.
Expand RSS.
Answer:
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.

Question 9.
How was the name “Pakistan” coined?
Answer:
The name “Pakistan” or “Pakistan” was derived from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sindh and Baluchistan and was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali.

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

Question 11.
Expand “NWFP”.
Answer:
North-West Frontier Province.

Question 12.
Name the Muslim majority states of the British in India.
Answer:
Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan and East Bengal.

Question 13.
Which princely states experienced peasant revolt against ruling zamindars?
Answer:
Travancore and Hyderabad peasants revolted against ruling zamindars.

Question 14.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as it was possible.

Question 15.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The labour party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 16.
What was the Congress demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the centre.

Question 17.
How did Congress argue?
Answer:
The Congress argued that Hindus and Muslims were not people of two different nations but part and parcel of one Indian nation.

Question 18.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
Sir Stafford Cropps.

Question 19.
What was called privy purse?
Answer:
The government of the princely states was taken over and the princes were given pension funds called privy – purse to meet their personal expenses.

Question 20.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plants of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhiji did not agree with the plants of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 21.
What did the Congress expect before World War – II?
Answer:
The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the fascists but not giving India full freedom.

Question 22.
Who was the Prime Minister in Britain at the time of the war?
Answer:
At the time of the war, Britain had an all-party government headed by Prime Minister Winston Churchill of the Conservative Party.

Question 23.
Who were keen to retain the empire in India?
Answer:
The Conservatives were keen to retain the empire for as long as was possible.

Question 24.
Who were more willing to help Indians attain freedom?
Answer:
The Labour Party was more willing to help Indians attain freedom.

Question 25.
What did Congress also demand?
Answer:
The Congress also demanded that an immediate national government should be set up at the Centre.

Question 26.
Why did the British object Congress demand?
Answer:
The British objected to this by saying that they had to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.

Question 27.
Why had the government had given itself special war time powers?
Answer:
The government had given itself special war time powers to maintain law and order to be able to focus on winning the war.

Question 28.
How were the special war time powers?
Answer:
Anyone who opposed the government could be jailed without much delay and kept imprisoned for a long time without going to court. Freedom of speech was also curtailed.

Question 29.
Who was sent to India in 1942?
Answer:
sir Stafford Cripps.

Question 30.
Where were the independent governments proclaimed?
Answer:
In several districts, such as Satafra in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.

Question 31.
Who won the World War-ll?
Answer:
The Allied powers.

Question 32.
What happened on 18th February 1946?
Answer:
On 18th February 1946, the guards or Ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Bombay harbour came out on hunger strike to protest against bad food and behaviour of their British officers.

Question 33.
Who was the head of Naval Central Strike Committee?
Answer:
M.S. Khan.

Question 34.
What happened on 30th January 1948?
Answer:
Less than six months after independence, the Father of the Nation fell to three bullets while going out for his all-religion prayer in the evening of 30 January 1948.

Question 35.
How many princely states were there in India?
Answer:
There existed around 550 princely states which enjoyed different levels of sovereignty but were under British paramount power.

Question 36.
What happened in Travancore and Hyderabad?
Answer:
In Travancore and Hyderabad peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling zamindars.

Question 37.
Name the three princely states which joined the Indian Union in the next two years to 1947.
Answer:
Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.

Question 38.
Who was the famous leader of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Mohammad Ali Jinnah was the famous leader of the Muslim League.

Question 39.
What was Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s third major movement against British rule was Quit India Movement in 1942.

Question 40.
Did Gandhiji agree with the plans of Bose to form INA? Why?
Answer:
Gandhi did not agree with the plans of Bose and felt that the Japanese cannot be the liberators of India.

Question 41.
Who wrote ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’?
Answer:
The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal was the writer of ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“India is a land of many religions and many races and must remain so.” Comment.
Answer:

1. India is a land of many religions and many races.
2. Even though, it is continuing as a democratic secular state.
3. It gives protection to all the citizens irrespective of their religions.
4. All citizens have equal rights.

Question 2.
Write about the Indian National Army formulated by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. When the British were defeated by Japan, some Indian soldiers were captured as prisoners by Japan.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose raised the Indian National Army with these soldiers.
3. Later other Indians also joined the army including many women.
4. INA fought against the British for almost three years.
5. Finally INA was defeated by the British army.

Question 3.
Which qualities do you like in Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:
Qualities of Mahatma Gandhi:

1. Truthful,
2. Non-violence,
3. Simplicity.

Question 4.
Which qualities of Sardar Patel do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
The qualities that I like the most in Sardar Patel are:

1. Patriotism
2. Commitment

Question 5.
Explain the causes that led to partition of India?
Answer:

1. Anti-thinking of the Muslims and their communalism.
2. Activities of the Muslim League.
3. Congress’s policy of Appeasement.
4. Communal reaction.
5. Congress policy of strengthening India.
6. Formation of weak Pakistan in the minds of Indian leaders.
7. Development transfer of power. 8) Provisions of the Indian Independent Act.
8. British’s policy of divide and rule. 10) Mount Batten Plan.

Question 6.
What was the political picture in India in 1939?
Answer:
When the war started in 1939, most of the provinces of Indian were governed by Congress ministries. The British government had accepted the principle that the right to rule themselves must be given to Indians to an extent.

Question 7.
Write about the Govt, of India Act 1935.
Answer:
The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British Parliament. According to this, elections may be held in provinces and governments may be formed by parties that won in the elections.

Question 8.
Why did the British object the Congress’s demand of full freedom?
Answer:
By objecting they implied that Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 9.
Why did all Congress ministries resign in October 1939?
Answer:
The Congress was upset at the obstinacy of the British and decided to walk out of the provincial governments. All Congress ministers resigned in October 1939 after having come to power in 1937.

Question 10.
Write about the Muslim League.
Answer:
This was a party formed in 1906. Till 1930, it mainly represented the interests of Muslim landlords of UP and did not have much mass support. It had demanded that the British should create separate seats in all councils for which only Muslims would vote.

Question 11.
What was the agreement of the Muslim League?
Answer:
The Muslim League had argued that since the majority people in many areas were Hindus, more Hindus are likely to get elected to councils to and Muslims will find it difficult to protect their interests in government. But, if a certain number of seats were reserved for Muslims for which only the Muslims population of an area would vote, the Muslim members reaching the councils will be able to raise the concerns of Muslims.

Question 12.
Where was the Muslim League popular and weak?
Answer:
The Muslim League was popular in the United Provinces, Bombay and Madras. However, it was quite weak in the three provinces from which Pakistan was to be carved out just ten years later, viz. Bengal, the NWFP and Punjab. Even in Sind it failed to form a government.

Question 13.
How could the League create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu Party and did not want to share power with Muslims?
Answer:
The League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity. The Congress refused to form a coalition government with the League in the United Provinces where it too had won many seats. The Congress had banned its members from taking membership of the League Congress members could be members of the Hindu Mahasabha before. But this was also banned from 1938, only after objections were raised by Muslim Congressmen like Maulana Azad. The League could thus create the impression that the Congress was basically a Hindu party and did not want to share power with the Muslims.

Question 14.
Write about the Hindu Mahasabha and the RSS.
Answer:
The Hindu Mahasabha and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) were engarged in active mobilisation. These organisations wished to unite all Hindus, overcome the divisions of caste and sect and reform their social life. They also gave out the message that India was the land of the Hindus who were in a majority. Many Congressmen were also impressed with the activities of these organisations.

Question 15.
Who coined the name Pakistan?
Answer:
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali. In pamphlets written in 1933 and 1935, this young student desired a separate national status for this new entity.

Question 16.
What did the resolution demand?
Answer:
On 23 March 1940, the League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan. However, in later years it came to be called the Pakistan Resolution.

Question 17.
What were the dreams of different sections from 1940 to 1946?
Answer:
From 1940 to 1946, the League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation. Peasants could think of state where Hindu zamindars and moneylenders did not exploit them. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there. There would be freedom for the Muslim elite to run the government the way they wanted.

Question 18.
Which was the ‘Quit India’ campaign?
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third majority movement against British rule. This was the “Quit India” campaign, which began in August 1942.

Question 19.
What impressions did the victories of Japan create on the people in India?
Answer:
The victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively. The myth of the racist superiority of the British was smashed.

Question 20.
How were the Indian people after World War – II?
Answer:
People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketeering and hoarding. Workers were angry about low wages. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 21.
What did the strike committee demand?
Answer:
The Naval Central Strike Committee was elected with M S Khan as its head. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors, the release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the year 1946?
Answer:
The year 1946 was a year of strikes and work stoppages in factories and mills in many parts of the country. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements. The countryside was also on the boil.

Question 23.
Why did the small and poor peasants start an agitation in Bengal?
Answer:
Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the Tebhaga movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Question 24.
Write about the Direct Action Day.
Answer:
The Muslim League decided that its demands cannot be met through discussions and it must ask people to come out on the streets. It decided on”Direct Action” for winning its Pakistan demand and announced 16 August 1946 as “Direct Action Day”. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947, violence spread to many parts of northern India.

Question 25.
Why didn’t Gandhiji celebrate the first Independence Day?
Answer:
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.

Question 26.
Why did Congress organise individual satyagrahas through 1940 and 1941?
Answer:
Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended.

Question 27.
Why did the British resort to the ‘Divide and Rule Policy’?
Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They looked for ways to punish Congress and weaken its hold over the people.
3. The British actively raised doubts about the right of Congress to represent the people of the country.
4. Then they followed “Divide and Rule Policy” more vigorously.

Question 28.
Write any features liked by you in Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

1. Gandhi took the national movement to masses.
2. Gandhiji all the time depended upon the weapons of Truth and Non – violence.
3. He worked for the welfare of Harijans.
4. He introduced the concept Satyagraha.

10th Class Social 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Religions have been playing a prominent role since the partition of India.” Write your evidences.
Answer:

1. The growth of Muslim separation from the late 19th century and the rise of communal violence from 1920s to the virulent outbreaks of 1946-1947.
2. Muslims, as a religious community, comprised only 20% of the population and represented great diversity in economic, social and political terms.
3. From the late 19th century, some of its political elites in northern India felt increasingly threatened by British devolution of power. Due to this, the logic of numbers would mean the dominance of the majority Hindu community.

Question 2.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the act of 1935? Write your opinion.
Answer:
No, we need not have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 because of the following reasons:

1. India is meant for Indians only.
2. We have right to freedom.
3. To British were forced by Indian freedom fighters.
4. That’s why the British passed the Act of 1935.

So we should be grateful to our national leaders and freedom fighters, not to the Britishers.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on the assassination of Gandhiji.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was unhappy with the communal riots in north-western India and tried to calm the fears and anger of the people.
2. Yet, some sections of people were annoyed with Gandhi for his role in Indian politics.
3. They disturbed his all-religion prayer meetings many times.
4. An unsuccessful attempt on his life was made two days before his actual assassination.
5. Finally, less than six months after Independence, on the evening of 30th January 1948, Gandhi was shot with three bullets while going for his all-religion prayer meeting. As desired by him, before dying Gandhi reportedly said, ‘Hey, Ram’.
6. His assassin, Nathuram Godse ran off from the scene of the crime and was later arrested in Bombay.
7. He was once a member of Hindu Mahasabha and because of his actions, many became against this organisation.

Question 4.
Read the following text and interpret.

The British government, even without the consultation of the Congress government, decided that India will participate in the war. The Congress was torn in its mind over the question. Most Congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini and the ideology of Fascism. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not give (or at least promise) India full freedom.

Comment on the double standard role of the British.
Answer:

1. The Congress expected that the British would see their double standards in the expectation that India should support them in fighting the Fascists but not giving India full freedom.
2. The British realised this but at the same time, it was hard for them to accept that they would really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
3. The British were willing to give Indian Dominion status under the British crown some time after the War, but the Congress wanted a promise of full freedom for India.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India. With this they implied that the Congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
5. They also implied that Congress may be ignoring the interests of many Indians. So, the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.

Agitation was started in Bengal by small and poor peasants who took land of the bigger landowners to cultivate. They demanded that their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less, that was given to them at that time. This was called the ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by the Provincial Kisan Sabha.

Do you support small and poor peasants’ demands? How?
Answer:
I do agree with the small and poor peasants demands because –

1. They demanded their share of harvest should be increased to two portions out of three instead of half or even less.
2. Although they invested on the production of crops they did not get reasonable remuneration of share harvest.
3. They were forced to pay more land tenure. Due to this they faced more economic crises and failed to repay their debts.

Question 6.
How did the Indian National Army fight for Indian freedom? Explain.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose recruited the prisoners of war, captured by Japan in the Indian National Army.
2. Later other Indians also joined in the Army including women.
3. Though Gandhi was not interested in encouraging INA for waging a war, Subhash Chandra Bose persisted in the path and led Indian soldiers to fight against the British.
4. With that intention he took help from Germany also.
5. Thousands of soldiers joined Indian National Army.
6. In view of the Britishers, the soldiers of INA were traitors but in view of the Indians they are National Heroes.
7. The INA soldiers sacrificed their lives for the sake of Indian Independence.
8. The British suppressed them.
9. Subhash Chandra Bose continued his struggle against the British for almost three years but unfortunately his army was defeated.
10. The British decided to court martial the soldiers of Indian National Army for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.

Question 7.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The initial victories of Japan against the Americans and Europeans created a strong impression on the people in India. Firstly, it seemed that the European colonialists would get defeated very soon. Secondly, Japan was an Asian country and could stand up against the European colonialists. Indians felt that they too can stand up and fight against Britain decisively.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. In my view, Japan a tiny nation defeated Russia in 1905 and China.
2. With this courage during Second World War in the initial period Japan was victorious against the allies.
3. By seeing this victory of Japan we got a strong impression that we Indians can decisively fight against our colonial masters.
4. We also thought that wherever European colonists occupied Afro-Asian countries would also liberate from the clutches of the colonists.
5. Japan an Asian country was against the Europian colonists. So India took an opportunity stand on the side of Japan and fought against dominance in India.
6. From this we can understand an example of Subash Chandra Bose who wanted to take support of Japanese to overthrow the British rule.

Question 8.
Explain the circumstances that arouse after the partition of India.
Answer:
Circumstances that arouse after the partition of India :

When India was divided, there was a problem of fear and threat among the Hindus and Muslims. Pakistan was separated as a new country and it was separated on the basis of religion. If Pakistan was separated on the basis of religion, all Muslims should go to Pakistan and all Hindus should be in Hindustan such discussions were also taken place but practically there were many problems for all this. This two religious people suffered of anger and hatred. Many were killed looted, and burnt each other. From Pakistan thousands of Hindus came to India as refugees. Many stayed on roads. Gradually they were settled relief camps. Insecurity feeling was developed among the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 9.
Look at the picture given below

Answer the following:
a) Identify the leader given in the picture.
b) Name the Military Organization that he formed.
c) State any two objectives of that organisation.
Answer:
a) The leader in the picture is Subhash Chandra Bose,
b) He formed India Nation Army a Military Organisation.
c) Objectives:

1. India’s independence was the utmost important.
2. Should take the help of the Japanese to throw out the British.

Question 10.
Appreciate the role of Subhash Chandra Bose.
Answer:

1. Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the greatest freedom fighters of India.
2. He wanted to take up the opportunity created by the difficulties of the British.
3. He believed that India’s independence was of utmost important.
4. For that he took the help of the enemies of the British, i.e., Japan and Germany.
5. Bose recruited “Prisioners of war” into his Indian National Army.
6. Bose continued in his chosen path though opposed by many.
7. His INA fought against the British for three years.
8. Though defeated, he has become immortal for his bravery.

Question 11.
Read the following para and comment on “Divide and Rule of British.”

Towards this end, the British government supported and encouraged the plans of the Muslim League and downplayed the importance of the Congress. It is in these years that the Muslim League and its leaders like M A Jinnah became more active in mass politics.

Answer:

1. The British were desperate with the Indian people revolting against their rule.
2. They wanted to finish Congress.
3. They looked for the ways to weaken its hold over the people of India.
4. They created doubt among Muslims and adopted and implemented their age-old policy of “Divide and Rule”.
5. They encouraged the plans of the Muslim League.
6. During early years “it” did not receive much support.
7. By 1937 and in 1946 elections it succeeded. .
8. The British followed “Divide and Rule” policy and they are successful in dividing India into two countries.

Question 12.
Read the letter of Gandhiji to Hitler and answer the following question.

LETTER TO ADOLF HITLER

HERR HITLER
BERLIN
GERMANY

DEAR FRIEND,
Friends have been urging me to write to you for the sake of humanity. But I have resisted their request, because of the feeling that any letter from me would be an impertinence. Something tells me that I must not calculate and that I must make my appeal for whatever it may be worth.

It is quite clear that you are today the one person in the world who can prevent a war which may reduce humanity to the savage state.

Must you pay that price for an object however worthy it may appear to you to be? Will you listen to the appeal of one who has deliberately shunned the method of war not without considerable success?
Any way I anticipate your forgiveness if I have erred in writing to you.

I remain,

Your sincere friend,
M. K. GANDHI

What was the appeal of Gandhi to Hitler?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji wrote the letter to Hitler for the sake of humanity.
2. Gandhiji thought that Hitler was the only one person who could prevent world war.
3. Gandhiji was saying that the price for the war however not worth the benefit that Hitler was expecting.
4. Gandhiji felt that Hitler should save the world from the disastrous war.

Question 13.
A few incidents of National movement are described here. Study them and answer the given questions.

a) Who founded Indian National Army?
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose founded Indian National Army.

b) Which movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission?
Answer:
Quit India movement was organised after the failure of Cripps Mission.

c) When did the Congress ministries resign?
Answer:
The Congress ministries resigned in October 1939.

d) Which incident took place in the year 1946?
Answer:
A strike by Royal Indian Navy Guards at Mumbai was the incident took place in the year 1946.

e) When were individual satyagrahas organised?
Answer:
Individual satyagrahas were organised from 1940 to 1941.

Question 14.
Identify the following places related to National Movement in the given map of India.

1. Punjab
2. Sindh
3. Kashmir
4. Baluchistan
5. Bengal
6. Hyderabad
7. Junagadh
8. Assom
9. Afghan

Answer:

Question 15.
Locate the following in the given map of World.
1. Pakistan

2. This country ruled India for two hundred years
Answer: Great Britain

3. This country was ruled by Dutch people
Answer: Indonesia

4. This is called tear drop of Indian Ocean
Answer: Sri Lanka

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 22 Citizens and the Governments.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two benefits of Lok Adalat in respect of entertaining disputes.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. Speedy trail of disputes
3. Procedural flexibility
4. The parties can directly interact with the judge.

Question 2.
When was the Right to Information Act passed by the Central Government?
Answer:
Right to Information Act was passed in 2005 by the Central Government.

Question 3.
How does the government department function?
Answer:
Every government department functions on the basis of certain rules and regulations.

Question 4.
What does Lok Adalat mean?
Answer:
Lok Adalat means people’s court.

Question 5.
Which two roles does RTI play?
Answer:
The first one is the role of the government departments and the second is that of the citizens.

Question 6.
Write about NALSA.
Answer:
Act and to frame the most effective and economical schemes for legal services.

Question 7.
What legal aid facilities are available under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc.

Question 8.
When are the Lok Adalats constituted?
Answer:
The Lok Adalats are constituted in every state under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.

Question 9.
Write about District Legal Services Authority.
Answer:
District Legal Services Authority is constituted in every district to implement Legal Aid Programmes and Schemes in the district. The District Judge of the district is its Ex-Officio Chairman and the members are nominated by State Government.

Question 10.
Who is responsible officials in the information commission?
Answer:
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the apex body constituted to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the provisions of the State Public Information Commissioner is the responsible official in the information commission along with Information Commissioners.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA Act was enacted to constitute legal services authority for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society. 
To ensure that opportunities for securing justice were not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promoted justice on Q basis of equal opportunity.
To develop an effective, alternative, innovative dispute resolution mechanism outside the courts.

Who are entitled to get free legal support?
(OR)
Who are eligible for benefit under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
As per LSA Act and its objectives to give free legal support on an equality basis to economically backward. The following are entitled or eligible to get free legal support.

1. A member of a SC or ST.
2. A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. A person who is a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, etc.

Question 2.
Write about the Right to Information Act.
Answer:

1. Right to Information Act was passed by the Central Government in 2005.
2. The Act was passed as a result of people’s mobilization as well as in recognition of the provisions in the constitution.
3. Two roles that need to be played for getting the benefits of RTI to the people.

Question 3.
Explain how RTI Act enriches Democracy.
Answer:

1. It ensures the availability of all types of information to the citizen.
2. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
3. Information should be transparent.
4. This can help to control corruption and make the governments accountable.
   Thus RTI act enriches democracy.

Question 4.
What are the provisions there for people to seek information under RTI?
Answer:

1. Any individual can get documents like government orders, reports, advice, logbooks, rules and regulations, attendance list, letters, etc.
2. People seeking information have to pay a small amount to meet a copy of the document.
3. If the person is below the poverty line he/she need not pay this amount.
4. This information request can be sent through a handwritten letter or electronic mail.
5. Information will be given in the official language of the state or in English or in Hindi.
6. Individuals collecting the information can remain anonymous.

Question 5.
Read the following case study and give an explanation of how Swetha had benefited from RTI.

Gattu Swetha was a student of M.Sc at Kakatiya University in 2013. She completed her B.Sc. exams in March 2011. She got good marks in all subjects but in Chemistry she got 21 marks. On revaluation, she got only 9 marks. With RTI activists help she requested for a photocopy of her answer sheet. University refused to do so. She went to the State Chief Information Commissioner and later the university gave a photocopy and awarded 51 marks. Thus, she joined M.Sc.

Answer:
Swetha could not have accessed the photocopy of her answer sheet without the RTI enabling Act. She could not have got an entry into M.Sc. Earlier photostats of answer sheets were not given to students. They have only informed marks. Now students like Swetha can get a photocopy of their answer sheets even for competitive examinations that provide jobs. She did not stop even when the Public Information Officer of the University did not provide her with information. She went to the highest appellate authority in the state and was able to secure a photocopy. Thus, she made the best use of RTI enabling Act.

Question 6.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time and without any expenses. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

What kind of cases can be settled through Lok adalats?
Answer:
The following cases can be settled through Lok adalats.

1. Matrimonial disputes.
2. Maintenance cases.
3. Harassment cases by husband and in-laws.
4. Domestic violence cases.
5. Long pending all civil cases, land disputes and compoundable criminal cases.

Question 7.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in the RTI Act 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government. “
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.

Question 8.
Provide an example where any citizen benefited from using RTI Act.
Answer:
T.AIIuga has 1 acre and 20 kuntas land in Vadali village of Mudinepalli mandal in Krishna district. After his death, his son Nallanna cultivated that land. But the untimely death of him left his kid unaware of land. Few years later his kid, Naresh recognized that their land was encroached. He requested the Tahsildar to survey his land with documents he had, which was of no use. Later, even he complained the same in grievance cell with the collector, but was of no use. With the suggestion of a representative of RTI Act, he applied to Information Officer. He has asked for the reason why his land was not surveyed. Later his land was identified, surveyed and shown to the applicant, Naresh.

Question 9.
When was RTI Act made? What was its constitutional prominence?
Answer:

1. The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed by the Parliament in 2005.
2. Today the Right to Information is recognized within the Constitution under two Fundamental Rights as freedom of expression and the right to life.

Question 10.
Why do you think checking the information can help In improving accountability?
Answer:

1. Information can be collected with the help of officials.
2. Master rolls and paid amounts can be verified.
3. This would bring out the corruption in practices.
4. Officials are given the opportunity to defend and talk about the details of documents.
5. When corruption was identified, cases were registered against concerned persons.
6. Thus checking the information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.

Question 11.
What information shall be declared by every government office even without being asked by the people?
Answer:

1. Under the RTI, it is also compulsory for every government office to declare certain information in public even without being asked by the people.
2. One can identify them on the walls of these office buildings.
3. They are the names, designations and phone numbers of Public Information Officer, Assistant Public Information Officer and First Appellate Authority.

Question 12.
What are the public authorities to follow the right to Information Act?
Answer:

1. The institution created under the constitution.
2. Made under the laws of Parliament or State legislature.
3. Created through a notification of the appropriate government.
4. It may include any body owned, controlled or substantially funded or Non-Governmental organizations substantially funded by the government either directly or indirectly through the funds.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are the Lok-adalats helping the common people? Explain.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. The procedural flexibility and speedy trial of disputes are provided.
3. The parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge.
4. Free Legal advice is provided.
5. Delay will be avoided in the settlement of disputes.

Question 2.
“Right to Information Act resembles the true spirit of Democracy”. Explain.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
2. It needs transparency of information.
3. Through R.T.I. Act, all the citizens can get such information.
4. This Act can help to contain corruption.
5. This also makes governments accountable to individual citizens also.
6. Earlier various departments of the government responded only to the elected representatives.
7. But today, they respond even to the common citizens.

Question 3.
Why is there a need for information to fight corruption?
Answer:

1. Programmes that are undertaken to benefit the poor and remove poverty often do not reach the needy and the funds get diverted.
2. A major reason for this is corruption.
3. The reason is common people do not have proper information about the programmes and how they are being implemented.
4. The people themselves had no way to verify how the money was spent by government.
5. The information was not shared with the people.
6. Yet, in a democracy, the money used for the welfare of people is theirs, so they have every right to know how this is being used.
7. Earlier elected representatives checked the corruption.
8. Now with the enactment of RTI, people can check the corruption.

Question 4.
Why do you think the information needed to be shared?
Answer:

1. People believe that the information was crucial to their own welfare.
2. Information is crucial to the human development and democratic rights.
3. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
4. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.
5. Then only it is possible to monitor the functioning and check possibility of corrupt practice.
6. In a situation where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
7. Information is crucial to the survival of the poor.

Question 5.
Collect the information of the movement which began for the information.
Answer:

1. A group of people in Rajasthan organized themselves under the banner of Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan (MKSS) and demanded information.
2. There was no legal provision to take information from the government to the people.
3. Initially, these documents were collected with the help of officials.
4. People evaluated these documents through public meetings.
5. Soon officials began to resist the idea of disclosing the information,
6. This led to people’s movement, with rallies and marches for the next 3 years.
7. People demanded that the information was crucial to their own welfare.

Question 6.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in RTI Act, 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government.
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 21 Social Movements in Our Times.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given may and answer the question:
In which state, Indira Sagar Project is located and on which river?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, River Narmada.

Question 2.
Identify one state for each movement in given India’s political map relating to the following social movements.
Answer:

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Chipko Movement

Question 3.
Why did the black Americans begin the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s?
Answer:
The blank Americans began the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s

1. Segregation of the Blacks and Whites (in schools, buses and public places).
2. Discrimination in appointments, housing and in voting rights.

Question 4.
Name the two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement
Answer:
The two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement are

1. Movement of Indigenous people.
2. Movement against neo-liberal policies.

Question 5.
What did the American Civil Rights Movements fight for?
Answer:
The American Civil Rights Movement fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans against permitting segregation.

Question 6.
When was Washington March conducted?
Answer:
Washington March was conducted on 28th August 1963.

Question 7.
Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
In Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 8.
Who led Narmada Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
Medha Patkar led Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 9.
Where was the Chernobyl nuclear plant?
Answer:
The Chernobyl nuclear plant was in the USSR.

Question 10.
In which year was arrack officially banned?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 11.
Which dominated the world during the first half of the 20th century?
Answer:
The world during the first half of the 20th century was dominated by great wars, revolutions, the emergence of German Fascism, Soviet Socialism, Western liberalism, national liberation movements, etc.

Question 12.
Name two anti-Communist countries.
Answer:
The USA and the UK.

Question 13.
Which decades saw a new kind of movement – the movement against war and nuclear arms?
Answer:
The 1970s and 1980s.

Question 14.
When was START signed?
Answer:
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed in 1991.

Question 15.
When was the total arrack prohibition imposed in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 16.
When was Manipur made a part of India?
Answer:
The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India.

Question 17.
When did the Greenpeace Movement start in Europe?
Answer:
The Greenpeace movement initially started as a protest in 1971 against the American underwater nuclear tests near Alaska.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1
Do you agree with the view that equal participation of men and women and equal opportunity for them is necessary for freedom and development of the country?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this view.
2. Because the women contribute nearly half of the participants in all aspects.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the American civil rights movement?
Answer:

1. One of the most important civil rights movements was the American Civil Rights Movement.
2. It fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans of Black Americans and against rules that permitted segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses, and public places and discriminated against them in appointments, housing, and even voting rights.

Question 3.
Read the map given below and answer the following questions.

i) In which state, was Sardar Sarovar Project constructed?
Answer:
Gujarath.

ii) Name the movement that was held against the construction of dams on river Narmada.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 4.
Create two slogans on ‘Environmental Protection.
Answer:

1. No chemicals – Go organic.
2. Conserve water – Conserve life.
3. Grow trees – Save earth.

Question 5.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Domination of Bengalis.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 6.
What would you do, if you were to solve the problem of liquor prohibition?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness among the people.
2. Proper implementation of the laws.
3. Formation of village committees.
4. Making involvement of women.

Question 7.
During the last few decades, why is the pollution increasing day by day?
Answer:

1. Nowadays industries are increasing due to that they release more chemicals and pollution is increasing.
2. Nowadays every person has a power-driven vehicle due to that pollution is increasing.
3. Farmers are using more pesticides and fertilizers, due to that pollution increases. Due to de-forestation, CO₂ reaches more in the atmosphere then pollution increases very highly.

Question 8.
What were the four main demands of Bhopal gas victims?
Answer:

1. Proper medical treatment of the victims.
2. Adequate compensation for them based on international standards.
3. Fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the multinational company.
4. Steps to prevent disasters in the future.

Question 9.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of the Environment.
Answer:

Importance of Environment

1. The surroundings in which living and non-living things are present is known as the environment.
2. For living things environment provides basic needs for staying alive.
3. We get food, shelter and cloth from the environment.
4. Tourism people go the jungle to observe animals and for their different characteristics.
5. The forest, ocean and sky environment provides shelter to various animals.
6. It also provides home for us.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

“A large section of people who actively participated in the civil rights movement were black women, who felt that their voice was not being heard even within the movement which was dominated by men. In fact, no woman was allowed to speak in the famous Washington March. They felt that women needed to assert themselves for the equality of women.”

Answer:
This paragraph is about the inequalities in the society. Women discrimination is discussed. Their voice was not being heard. It means they were not allowed to say what they demand. Many of the black women participated in the Civil rights movement but not even a single woman was allowed to speak is the March. The women came to know that they should fight for their rights.

There was strong discrimination between the Whites and the Blacks. Especially the black women had no rights. The Americans purchased the black people from Nigeria and other African countries as if they purchase different commodities. They were treated as slaves. In 1960s there was a segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses and public places. The blacks were discriminated against in appointments, housing and even in voting rights. So there was a movement against this discrimination.

White Aryan supremacy was the reason for this segregation. The Americans, the English, and French, and the Germans feel that they are Nordic race and their race is the supreme one. Dr. Martin Luther King delivered a speech that he had a dream that his children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of skin.

Discrimination is there in different forms. At the time of Second World War, in Germany, millions of Jews were killed.Caste based discrimination was there in India. Nowadays this discrimination is reduced.

Special status is being given to some people based on their birth or position. In these days, everyone is coming out for study and employment. As this was not there, the movements began. Nowadays the women occupied many high positions. Banks, political parties are also being run by the women. About five states in India are being ruled by the women. Many IAS, IPS officers are there from women.

In conclusion, the women should be given priority, even in family matters. The head of the family may be the women. She could play a crucial role in taking decisions. Equal rights are to be given to women. They should be encouraged for higher education. There voice is to be given respect. In political scenario the wives of leaders occupied some positions but their husbands are ruling. This shouldn’t happen. Let the elected rule of themselves. I hope to see the world without any sort of discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster?
Answer:
The losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster:

1. Thousands of people lost their lives.
2. Many people became homeless.
3. Still people are suffering from its ill effects.
4. It caused damage to the environment.

Question 12.
What is the result of the anti-nuclear movement?
Answer:

1. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons and insisted that USA and USSR come to an agreement to end the Arms Race.
2. Massive protests took place against the governments weaponisation policies and demanded them to reduce nuclear arms and work towards peace on a long term.
3. The USA and the USSR began the race to cut down their nuclear arsenal.
4. Strategic Arms Limitation talks were unsuccessful.
5. A Treaty was signed in 1991 called Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
6. In late 2001, according to this treaty, 80% of the all strategic weapons then in existence were removed.

Question 13.
What is the effect of globalisation on people?
Answer:

1. Tribal and marginal farmers are being threatened by commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc.
2. As large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population.
3. This led to the destruction of tribal cultures.
4. So they became most vulnerable section of the society.
5. These gave rise to environmental movements.
6. Poor families, landless workers, women, industrial workers, and workers in unorganized sectors have been worst hit.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences.

We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Give your opinion on the above article.
Answer:

1. Here the people in the USA were refusing to be drafted into the army to fight in the Vietnam war.
2. They were saying that they had examined the history and the nature of the war.
3. Participation was contrary to the dictates of their consciences.
4. So they are refusing to join into military services.
5. They signed on the statement in order to create political opposition to the war.
6. The article was a trendsetter as people’s rejection to war was established in the statement.

Question 15.
Why have social movements arised?
Answer:

1. Social movements have raised diverse demands of environment or human rights or equality.
2. In some contexts, these resist changes that are forced on them.
3. In some contexts, these demand for change.
4. These often distant from individual political parties and more united under a single cause.
5. Their programmes are envisaged through participatory and democratic manner.
6. Social movements arise when people feel that their expectations were unmet by political systems.

Question 16.
‘The second half of the 20th -century was an era of growth, prosperity and growing tensions’ – Comment.
Answer:

1. With the end of the Second World War and the independence of colonies and semi-colonies like India, China, Indonesia, Nigeria and Egypt by mid 1950s a new era began in the world.
2. This was an era of economic growth and prosperity for most of the countries, but also of growing tensions in many countries.
3. Sections of societies which had long been denied equal rights came out asserting their rights.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two important treaties among the nations to prevent nuclear weapons.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race began talks to cut down their nuclear arsenal.

1. SALT – Strategic Arms Limitation Talks.
2. START – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Question 18.
Read the given passage.

Manipur today is composed of two distinctive geographical terrains: the valley and the hills. Before independence, the valley was under princely rule and the hill areas were relatively autonomous, mainly inhabited by the tribal population. In 1891 the British established their I control over the region though the king continued to rule the kingdom. The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India. This agreement was disputed by many tribes which argued that they had been autonomous and did not agree to be a part of India.

Answer the following questions.
a) When did the British establish their control over the Manipur?
Answer:
British established their control oyer Manipur in 1891.

b) When has Manipur signed a merger agreement with India?
Answer:
Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949.

c) Name the two distinctive geographical terrains of Manipur.
Answer:
Two distinctive geographical terrains in Manipur are 1) Hills and 2) Valleys.

Question 19.
The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect the social life-Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect social life.
2. The raise in the price levels of oil will lead to raise in the transportation costs.
3. It’s raise leads to raise in the prices of essential commodities.
4. As we depend a lot on oil imports, it’s cost raise will charge a lot on our exchequer.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an essay on ‘Appreciating the prominence of the basic features of Social Movements”.
Answer:

1. Social movements have been a powerful means for ordinary people to participate directly in creating positive social change.
2. There are deeply grounded in our founding values of security, culture, justice, democracy, civil rights, etc.
3. Social movements have raised diverse demands cutting across the strict boundary of environment establishing equality.
4. Most of the social movements are non-violent and often a distance from individual political parties and are more united under a single cause.
   For all these conditions we can appreciate the basic features of the Social Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the Meira Paibi Movement.
Answer:

1. Meira Paibi (in Meitei language) literally can be translated as ‘torch bearers’.
2. Meira Paibi originated as a movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the late 1970s.
3. But, it soon became a movement for human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces to counter the armed movement in the early 1980s.
4. This resulted in frequent military operations and human rights violations. The Meira Paibi responded instantly with protest demonstrations.
5. The Meira Paibi took to patrolling the streets at night.
6. Women of every leikai or ward of every town and village participated in the daily patrolling.
7. Bearing no weapons but only the bamboo and rag kerosene torches.
8. These are not activists or politically inclined women, Meira Paibi group has also been demanding that AFSPA be revoked.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of globalisation and neo-liberalism on the lives of marginalised people.
Answer:

1. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women and the workers in the unorganised sector have been worst hit.
2. They have no access to better education and skills.
3. As a result, they are not able to get better-paying jobs or legal or other constitutional remedies.
4. Due to the activities such as mining and construction of major projects, many tribal people and farmers are being displaced.

Question 4.
Estimate the pros and cons of building Multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Pros:

1. Huge amounts of water could be stored.
2. Agriculture could be developed.
3. A large amount of electricity could be generated.
4. Floods and droughts could be controlled.

Cons:

1. Local people will be displaced.
2. It is not really possible to rehabilitate all the displaced people properly.
3. Bio-diversity will be damaged.
4. Water storage and electricity generation were actually less than those were assumed.
5. Sometimes the construction of dams may cause earthquakes.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:

1. The above table shows that how many million tonnes of carbon dioxide is emitted in 2011 by some of the countries like China, USA, Russia, India, UK & Indonesia while they are using energy resources.
2. According to this, they are given ranks also to the countries on the base of emission of carbon dioxide.
3. In the above table, over all China emitted more million tonnes, but in percapita USA emitted more metric tonnes.
   In this one China, USA, Russia occupies first three places in the emission of carbon dioxide which are highly industrialised countries. These are the main responsible for global warming in the world and creating natural hazards and disasters in the world. Due to that climatic changes are taken place very rapidly and causes to destroy life at present and future also.
4. If it continues the whole world will suffer very highly, that’s why every country takes the responsibility and reduce the emission of carbon dioxide more and follow the safe and scientific measure and protect the atmosphere, environment and human beings also.

Question 6.
Write about the advantages and problems the people faced, due to the construction of Dams.
Answer:
Advantages: They do not only help in irrigation but also in electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Disadvantages: Due to the Dam construction people lost their fertile land. Tribal people lost the forest land and their livelihood. People are displaced from their native place to other places. It maintains more expenditure also. It also induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The economic and political changes happening world wide since 1990s, which go by the name pf ‘globalisation’ or ‘neo-liberalism’ have deeply impacted the lives of the underprivileged and poor. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women, urban poor working in the unorganised sector and industrial workers have been the worst hit. By and large these are also the people without access to formal education or adequate nutrition and health.

Answer:
This paragraph is about the consequences of globalisation. It mainly influences the poor people and tribal people and it affects workers working in the unorganised sector. The people who are illiterates and under-nutritious are mostly affected.

Due to technological advancement, various machinery came out. The developed technology is influencing all the sectors. In agriculture combined harvesters, threshers are used. Tractors and transplantation machines are used and so labourers lost their livelihoods Due to railways and dams the tribal people are affected. When railways are taken up for extension many of the trees are cut for keeping under the rails. Hence the forest dwellers face problems of displacement. When government plans for constructing dams to increase irrigation facilities it is compulsory to
construct near forests. These lead to the displacement of tribal people. Many of these people are illiterates. Many tribal people lost their livelihoods such as collecting honey, nuts and seeds. Industrial belts also increased near the outskirts of cities and towns. This leads to pollution. Many rural illiterates are affected by this. Computers, IT,

Telecommunication, transportation increased and so the poor and the tribals are impacted.
My suggestion to the government is that it should take care of the people about their displacement. Proper compensation is to be given on time. Officers also should implement existing laws.

Question 8.
What are the ways in which the Black Americans protested with the government?
Answer:

1. The Black Americans suffered a lot as the government permitted segregation in schools and buses.
2. There was discrimination against them in appointments, housing, and even in voting rights.
3. They took up the Civil Rights Movement.
4. It Is of non-violent nature.
5. They gave massive demonstrations, marches, civil disobedience and boycott of discriminatory services.
6. They boycotted the buses for one year long.
7. More than two lakh people conducted the Washington March.
8. These are the ways in which they protested.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

Initially, the Sardar Sarovar Project was expected to be built with money borrowed from World Bank. After Intense protests, mobilisation, marches, hunger fasts and an international campaign World Bank decided to withdraw its funding.

Is it possible to build factories or projects or powerplants without throwing out farmers or tribal people?
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is possible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material.
3. .For that Government should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the interests of the farmers and tribals also lies with the government.
5. The government should see that no damage is done to any sections of people.
6. Compensations in terms of land, money or job are to be properly calculated.
7. Government has to go for alternatives if the interests of any section of people are hurt.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

a) Which state witnessed anti-arrack movement?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the state which witnessed anti-arrack movement.

b) Which movement was led by Med ha Patkar?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by Medha Patkar.

c) Who led the Civil Rights Movement in America?
Answer:
Dr. Martin Luther King led the Civil Rights Movement in America.

d) Name the movement that took place in Manipur.
Answer:
Anti AFSPA is the movement that took place in Manipur.

e) Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was taken place in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

a) What is the war technique of Vietnam?
Answer:
The war technique of Vietnam is Guerrilla warfare.

b) What are the inventions of the USA Arsenal?
Answer:
Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs are the inventions of U.S.A Arsenal.

c) Why were there no civilian deaths in war for the USA?
Answer:
The war was fought in Vietnam. So, none of the USA civilian deaths occurred there.

d) How many military deaths were there for the USA?
Answer:
There were 58000 military deaths for the USA.

e) How many civilian deaths were there for Vietnam?
Answer:
There were 8 to 30 lakh civilian deaths for Vietnam.

Question 12.
Read the following information.

Read the passage and answer the following questions.
a) Which article protests, against the arbitrary arrest?
Answer:
Article 9.

b) What are the provisions of Article 10?
Answer:
According to article 10 everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.

c) Why are the above articles framed?
Answer:
The above articles are framed to protect civil and human rights.

d) Which article insists on equality before Saw?
Answer:
“Article 7” insists on equality before law.

Question 13.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

a) Write about civil rights movement of the USA.
Answer:
It was a movement to protest against discrimination of blacks in the USA in 1960s.

b) In which place Anti-Arrack movement in A.P. occurred?
Answer:
In Nellore District.

c) Name the movement that banned under water nuclear tests.
Answer:
Green Peace movement.

d) Who were the leaders of Human Rights Movement of the USSR.
Answer:
Alexander Solzhenitsyn and Andrei Sakharov.

Question 14.
What were the demands of the people of Bhopal regarding the great tragedy?
Answer:

1. The worst industrial disaster in the world happened in Bhopal in 1984.
2. Thousands of people lost their lives and many more are still suffering from its ill effects till date.
3. Right from the beginning, the people of Bhopal have been fighting for four main demands.
4. Proper medical treatment of the victims is the first.
5. As the company was a multinational company, the compensation for them based on international standards.
6. Third one is fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the company.
7. The fourth demand is to find steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
8. While they have succeeded to some measure, they are still a long way to achieve all these demands.

Question 15.
Locate the following points on the outline map of world.

1. USA
2. USSR
3. Vietnam
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Andhra Pradesh
6. Manipur
7. Gujarat
8. Hungary
9. Poland.

Answer:

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Estonia
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Finland
4. Hungary
5. Europe
6. Norway
7. Sweden
8. Greenland
9. River Niger
10. Turkey

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 18 Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77).

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at the time of the creation of the states in 1956?
Answer:
The languages spoken by dominant or powerful populations were considered at that time, so the tribal language were ignored.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Panchsheel policy?
Answer:
To establish a foreign policy on the basis of Gandhian principles like peace and non-violence.

Question 3.
What were the main challenges before the leaders of the country in the early years after Independence?
Answer:

1. To maintain unity and integrity.
2. Reorganization of states without disturbing unity and integrity.
3. To bring about social and economic transformation
4. Poverty
5. Unemployment
6. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Write any two rural development programmes of Nehru.
Answer:
The rural development programmes are:
The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.

1. Land reforms,
2. Agricultural co-operatives and
3. Local self-government.

Three types of land reforms were contemplated, a) abolition of Zamindari system, b) tenancy reform and c) land ceilings.

Question 5.
Why is the Green Revolution Compulsory in India?
Answer:
Green Revolution in India is compulsory because.

1. To meet the needs of the increasing population by increasing food production.
2. To use better water management.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a single-party system and multi-party system?
Answer:

1. Single party system – prevailing only one party
2. Multi-party system – prevailing many parties.

Question 7.
What was the main reason behind introducing symbols to represent political parties and candidates by Election Commission?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise:
All the people who attain the age of 18 years, irrespective of caste, creed, religion gender language have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What are the land reforms proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
According to Nehru’s proposal of land reforms are:

1. Abolition of Zamindari System
2. Tenancy reforms
3. Land ceiling. Some land is fixed. No one should hold more than that extent.

Question 10.
What did the Election Commission of India do for the illiterates to cast their vote?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India introduced symbols for the political parties and contesting candidates for the sake of illiterates to cost their vote easily.

Question 11.
What is the Constitution sought for?
Answer:
The Constitution is sought to fulfil multiple goals simultaneously, including making democracy work, unification and creation of a single political community and bringing about massive social and economic changes.

Question 12.
What was a great achievement?
Answer:
The setting of national goals and putting in place institutional mechanisms to achieve them within a relatively short span of time was undoubtedly a great achievement for a people who had been ruled by a foreign power for more than two centuries.

Question 13.
How can you say that first general elections were immensely significant for Indian democracy?
Answer:
The first elections were difficult because of the social dimensions also.

Question 14.
Why was an Election Commission set up?
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to take care of the practical matters of conducting elections across the length and breadth of the country.

Question 15.
What was called the Congress System?
Answer:
The Congress party formed the government in many of the states as well. This inaugurated what some observers called the Congress System.

Question 16.
Write about the groupism in Congress.
Answer:
Congress always had within small groups. Though these groups originated on the basis of personal competition between leaders, they shared in the overall goals of the party but differed on some policy issues.

Question 17.
What enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy?
Answer:
It was the strength of the Constitutional framework and the democratic foundations laid by the freedom movement which enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy.

Question 18.
Write a challenge of the new nation.
Answer:
Among the first challenges the new nation faced was the demand for the reorganization of states on the basis of language.

Question 19.
How was the country divided during British rule?
Answer:
During the British period, the country was divided into Presidencies (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) and a number of very large states like Central Provinces and Berar. A large part of the country was under princely states.

Question 20.
What was the fear regarding the language reorganisation?
Answer:
The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganization would lead to breaking up of the country.

Question 21.
When were the A.P. and Tamil Nadu state created?
Answer:
Potti Sriramulu demanding the formation of a separate Telugu speaking state died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952. Consequently, the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were created.

Question 22.
What was at the top of the agenda of modern India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity, it put social and economic change at the top of the agenda of modern India.

Question 23.
What were the two questions that divide a political opinion?
Answer:
The two main questions that divided political opinion were:

1. What place agriculture should have in the larger development strategy?
2. How should resources be allocated between industry and agriculture?

Question 24.
What did the planners feel?
Answer:
The planners felt that for the country to develop it was essential to develop industries so that more people can shift to towns to work in factories and in the service sector. Hence from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, the emphasis shifted to industries.

Question 25.
Who formulated Panchsheel and for what?
Answer:
As for the immediate neighbours Nehru formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

Question 26.
Who succeeded Sastri?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister after his untimely death in 1966.

Question 27.
Name some assemblies in which the Congress defeated.
Answer:
It was defeated in assemblies like Bihar, U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala.

Question 28.
Who was MGR?
Answer:
He was a popular hero in Tamil Nadu.

Question 29.
How were SVD governments?
Answer:
Many of these SVD governments were short-lived. Their life was marked by defections and corruption. Power seemed to be the only thing that united them. These governments had nothing to showcase.

Question 30.
What was the regional sentiment in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, there was a demand for the separation of Telangana. The movement was spearheaded by students of Osmania University, whose main grouse was that the benefits of development were going to only some sections of the state.

Question 31.
What was Bangladesh?
Answer:
It was East Pakistan.

Question 32.
What was popular slogan in 1971 election?
Answer:
The popular slogan in 1971 election was “Garibi Hatao”.

Question 33.
What were the important legislations during the period of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:

1. Nationalisation of many private banks.
2. Abolition of princely pensions.

Question 34.
What happened in 1973?
Answer:
In 1973, the Court came up with the landmark decision on the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which put a checkon the governmental power to amend the Constitution.

Question 35.
Write any two ill effects of the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights were suspended.
2. There were also instances of arbitrary arrests, torture and violation of civil liberties.

Question 36.
How was Meghalia formed?
Answer:

1. Meghalaya was formed in 1969; Meghalaya formerly belonged to Assam.
2. It was formed out of the tribal districts of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo hills.

Question 37.
Expand SRC.
Answer:
State Reorganization Committee.

Question 38.
Write two important events occurred during Lai Bahadur Shastry period.
Answer:

1. Official language Act in 1963 and anti-Hindi agitation.
2. War with Pakistan in 1965.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the given Pie diagram and discuss the 2014 General Elections.

Answer:

1. B.J.P. is the largest party with 282 seats.
2. INC got only 44 seats.
3. AIADMK got 37 seats
4. TDP got 16 seats.
5. Others got 140 seats.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the given question.

With this democracy was put on hold. The government began a series of repressive measures, claiming that this was necessary to bring order in the country. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended. There were also instances of arbitrary detention, torture and other violations of civil liberties. While people welcomed control over prices rise and the campaign against black marketing and bonded labour many programmes undertaken by the emergency government such as demolition of slums and forced sterilisation in the name of population control became very unpopular. However, in the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.

What were the changes taken place in an emergency?
Answer:

1. Democracy was put on hold.
2. The government began a series of repressive measures in the name of law and order.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. Forced sterilization in the name of population control.
5. In the absence of civil rights, people could not express their discontent.

Question 3.
What are the aims of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:

1. To exclude the courts from election disputes.
2. To strengthen the central government vis-a-vis the State Governments.
3. To provide maximum protection from judicial challenges towards social and economic transformation legislation.
4. To make the judiciary subservient to the parliament.

Question 4.
Read the following paragraph and comment in your own words.

One of the greatest weaknesses was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health. This was going to hurt India for a long time to come. Other countries like China and Korea which also began a new inning around the same time, did much better on these two counts as compared to India.

Answer:

1. Primary education and public health are the most important aspects.
2. They have to be given utmost priority in any state.
3. Unfortunately in India, both these sectors could not develop as per expectations.
4. The government had to play a key role in these sectors to achieve the targets.

Question 5.
How were the land reforms implemented in India? How far did these reforms benefit the people?
Answer:

1. Land reforms were however implemented in a half-hearted manner across India.
2. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land.
4. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret the changes taken place in the social and economic fields in India.

Land reforms were implemented in a halfhearted manner across India. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity as its agenda.

1. For that the Planning Commission was set up within a month. The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
2. The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.
   1. Landforms
   2. Agricultural co-operatives
   3. Local Self Government
3. Three types of land reforms were contemplated:
   1. Abolition of Zamindari system
   2. Tenancy reforms and
   3. Land Ceilings.
4. Local self-government would ensure that the land reforms were carried out and the coopera¬tives run according to the collective interests of the village.
5. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and industrial sector.
6. The Second Five Year Plan shifted emphasis to industries. As a result, the service sector also would develop.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Lai Bahadur Shastri do you like? Why?
Answer:
After the death of Nehru in 1964, Congress managed a successful transition with the choos¬ing of Lai Bahadur Sastri as its leader in government. Sastri was immediately put to test with a series of issues which challenged the fundamental values and goals of the Indian nation. These included the Anti-Hindi agitation led by the DMK in the South, which threatened the goals of unity and integrity, the shortage of food which came in the way of social and economic transformation, besides a war with Pakistan in 1965.

Question 8.
Draw an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the results of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Results of Green Revolution:

1. Increase in net sown area
2. Increase in double-cropped area
3. Progress in the irrigation sector
4. Increase in per hectare yield level
5. Increase in the area under High Yielding Varieties
6. Increase in the use of fertilizers.

Question 10.
Write the differences between Regional party and the National Party.
Answer:
State Party: In a state, if a party wins 3% of valid votes or 3 Assembly seats, it is declared as a regional/state party. A party can be recognised in more than one state.
National Party: If a party is recognized in four states with 6% of valid votes or 11 Loksabha M.P seats from 4 different states, it is called a national party.

Question 11.
Create two slogans on “the importance of voting”.
Answer:
Your vote – Your weapon
Cast your vote – Change your fate
Vote is valuable – Don’t sell it

Question 12.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

A few days later, with the JP movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency and justified it as necessary to preserve order, save democracy, protect the social and economic transformation and preserve national integrity.

Comment on the above text.
Answer:

1. When J.P. movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency.
2. Democracy was put on hold.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. There were instances of arbitrary arrests and the violation of civil liberties.
5. The emergency period weakened the democratic fabric of our country.

Question 13.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the states that are bordering Hyderabad state.
Answer:
Bombay State, Andhra state and Mysore state were surrounding the Hyderabad state.

b) How many states were there in the southern peninsula?
Answer:
There were eight states in the southern peninsula. They are

1. Bombay state
2. Hyderabad state,
3. Mysore state,
4. Andhra state,
5. Madras state,
6. Coorg state,
7. Pondicherry state,
8. Travancore-Cochin state.

Question 14.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.
a) What was the smallest state that is there between Madras and Mysore state?
Answer:
“Coorg” was the smallest state between Madras and Mysore states.

b) Name the southernmost state from the above map.
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southern most state.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

Jawaharlal Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states; he only believed that this was not the time for it. It was also the consensual position among the leaders of the day. They believed that India was in the process of consolidating Itself and there should be no distraction.

Was Nehru opposing “Liquistic reorganization of states”?
Answer:

1. No. Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states.
2. He thought it was not a right time for reorganization.
3. Still India was consolidating itself.
4. At this moment there should not be any distraction.
5. Hence Nehru thought that it was not the right time to reorganization.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When India became independent the Cold War had just begun and the world was being polarised into countries in the US or USSR camp. Jawaharlal Nehru followed a policy of not joining either camp and tried to maintain an equidistant and independent position in foreign policy. He also joined hands with several other countries that had become independent around the same time and wanted to follow a similar policy – Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and so on. Together they built the Non Aligned Movement. As for the immediate neighbours he formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs. However, India had to face two wars during this period, first with Pakistan over Kashmir in 1948 and with China in 1962. India was not well prepared for the wars, especially the war in 1962 and sustained heavy losses of human life and money.

Answer:
What was our foreign policy and did that policy help us to avoid wars with our neighbours?

1. We became independent in the bipolarized world.
2. We followed a policy of not joining in the US or the USSR camp.
3. Along with other countries like Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia we built the Non-Alignment movement
4. In spite of our policy of Non-Alignment, we had to face two wars with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971 and one war with China, i.e. in 1962.
5. These wars ended with heavy losses of human life and money.
6. We have always been peace-loving and follow our policy in spite of hurdles.

Question 17.
What were the challenges before the leadership?
Answer:
The main challenges before the leadership were the need to maintain unity and integrity, bring about a social and economic transformation and to ensure the working of the democratic system. These challenges are interrelated and great care had to be taken to ensure that the system did not get imbalanced.

Question 18.
Mention the social dimension time of the first general elections.
Answer:
A large section of the population did not know how to read and write. In some parts of the country, women were known by their father’s or husband’s name, they did not have an independent identity. This has to change if women were to have equal rights and take the country towards greater social equality.

Question 19.
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy, the Election Commission came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political parties and candidates. This creative innovation dispensed with elaborate instructions and required only visual identification. This basic idea continues even today. To make it even easier, in the first election each candidate had a separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside; the voter only had to drop their ballot paper in the box of their preferred candidate.

Question 20.
How were the first three general elections?
Answer:
In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962, the Indian National Congress won reducing other participants to almost nothing. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India. None of the other parties individually got more than 11% of the votes polled.

Question 21.
What was the result of groupism in Congress party?
Answer:
The groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as if it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. At times, these groups also tied up with other political parties to pressurise the leadership. This also acted as an inbuilt corrective mechanism within the ruling party. Political competition in the one- party dominant system, therefore, took place within the Congress. The opposition parties therefore only posed a latent and not a real threat.

Question 22.
What was the planning for Nehru?
Answer:
For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well. He hoped that planned development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and region as well as other disruptive and disintegrative tendencies and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.

Question 23.
Write about the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and stressed on the need for increased food production, development of transport and communications and the provision of social services. It also stressed the need to industrialise India as quickly as possible. Given that food was a basic requirement, there was a consensus on increasing food production but there was no agreement on how this should be achieved.

Question 24.
How were land reforms implemented?
Answer:
Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner across India. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefitted from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 25.
Write about laws during the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on improving agriculture by building large dams to irrigate and produce electricity. Dams benefitted both the agriculture and the industrial sector. Though there was an increase in agricultural production, it was still not sufficient to meet the needs of the population.

Question 26.
Explain the need of Green revolution.
Answer:
The existing strategy was not increasing food production, there was a shift to different strategy between the years 1964-67. This attempted to secure the cooperation of the state governments as well as increase food production. In a way it also reflected the changes in economic policy after the death of Nehru and also the changes in economic thinking as well.

Question 27.
Explain the reason for the given statement: The new governments are important markers.
Answer:
The new governments are an important marker in India’s political history because it was in a way the first democratic upsurge. It was for the first time the intermediate castes; the groups who had first benefitted from the land reforms and acquired some degree of economic standing gained political power. They were the dominant castes in their respective states and also had a significant numerical presence.

Question 28.
What were the reactions of government before emergency?
Answer:
The government reacted harshly with a series of laws which violated civil rights in the name of maintaining order. The opposition also criticised the Prime Minister for personalising the government. Meanwhile, due to a decision of Allahabad High Court Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha for violating some of the provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act during the 1971 elections. However, she got a stay from the Supreme Court.

Question 29.
In the west, franchise was extended in stages, first to propertied and only subsequently to other sections of society. But independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise at one go. Why was it so?
Answer:

1. The first general elections in independent India were immensely significant for Indian democracy.
2. It represented India’s determination to take the path of democracy.
3. Earlier British provided franchise to propertied and educated as well as taxpayers only.
4. But independent India wanted every adult to indicate his choice.
5. That is how democracy would be more meaningful.
6. So, independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise immediately.

Question 30.
Why were many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments short-lived ?
Answer:

1. Many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments were short-lived.
2. Their life was marked by defections and corruptions.
3. Power seems to be the only thing united them.
4. These governments had nothing to showcase.
5. Even today, the regional or state parties are evaluated from this standpoint.

Question 31.
“The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is useful for Local Self Government”. Explain reasons.
Answer:

1. 73rd Constitutional amendment definitely useful for local self-government.
2. State governments decide on what functions were to be devolved to local self-governments.
3. Women and scheduled caste and tribes are provided with reservation of seats in local self-governments.

Question 32.
“Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyse it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals. ,
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, rising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed emergency.
5. During Emergency, Democracy was put on hold.

Question 33.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti-Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi. This was called anti- Hindi agitation.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of Constitution.
4. The government made English and Hindi as official languages.
5. Till now, Tamilians have anti feelings towards Hindi.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

i) Which two countries were signed on Panchasheela pact?
Answer:
China and India.

ii) When did Planning begin in India?
Answer:
1951

iii) Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in India.
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

iv) What is green revolution?
Answer:
A large increase in the production of food grains due to the introduction of high yielding varieties, to the use of pesticides and to better management techniques.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the following questions.

i) From which state, Jharkhand was separated?
Answer:
Bihar.

ii) Mention one special feature of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Sanskrit is one of the official languages.

iii) Which state was formed on 1st November 2000?
Answer:
Jharkhand.

iv) Which state was separated from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chattisgarh.

Question 3.
Write your comments on the opinion of Ambedkar given below.

On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.

Answer:

1. This opinion of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is very much true.
2. As everyone has his right tp vote and each vote has the same value, we can say that there is political equality.
3. As there is discrimination in many aspects, social equality is becoming a question
4. As there are wide inequalities in incomes of the people, there is no economic equality.
5. These inequalities need to be addressed at the earliest possible moment.

Question 4.
Describe the situation of India during the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The democracy was put on hold.
2. Many Fundamental rights were suspended.
3. Civil liberties were violated.
4. People could not even express their discontent.
5. Slums were demolished.
6. Forced sterilization went on the name of population control.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions:

Questions:

1. When was first linguistic state formed?
Answer:
1953.

2. Mention one of the challenges faced by Election Commission in conducting First General Elections.
Answer:
Illiteracy.

3. In which Five Year Plan, was agriculture given importance?
Answer:
Agriculture was given importance is the First Five Year Plan.

4. What party dominated Indian politics in first 3 decades of independent India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

Table showing the parliamentary seat sharing of various political parties
a) Which political parties got their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Communist Party.

b) Which political parties had disappeared till 1962?
Answer:

1. Jana Sangh
2. Praja Socialist Party
3. DMK

c) Which political parties lost their seats in 1952 and in 1962?
Answer:
1962: Kisan Mazdur Party, People’s Democratic Front, Ganatantra Parishad

d) Which political parties lost their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Others, Independents, Congress.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India has been extremely successful in holding together and maintaining Its unity and integrity. India was seen a fit case for breakup given Its extreme diversities and the fact that It has not done so, Is a valuable lesson has many other countries.

Answer:

1. India is a vast country with diversity.
2. There are a good number of religious, castes, tribes and languages.
3. People speaking a particular language have a culture and they identify themselves as a separate entity.
4. But National Integrity lies on the fact of “one nation and one race”.
5. In India all communities people joined together and celebrate all festivals.
6. India gave Right to vote to all eligible citizens without discrimination.
7. Even the highest post President of India is also elected from different communities.
8. This shows India follows, unity and integrity.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 – Indian General Elections

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections, the NDA got 31% of the votes whereas the UPA got 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the Pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave a mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During the Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was a fear that language reorganisation would lead to break down of the country.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph:

The given paragraph says that our country was divided on the basis of religion. So some doubts are created about the security and stability of India. Language reorganisation was another fear. Congress promised to restructure the country on the lines of language.

Everyone knows that India was divided and Pakistan was formed on the basis of religion. Bengal and Punjab were divided into East Bengal – West Bengal and East Punjab – West Punjab. East Bengal became East Pakistan and West Punjab became West Pakistan. In 1970s East Pakistan declared itself independence after the war. Then Bangladesh was formed. The two newly formed countries are of the Muslim majority. Many leaders are afraid about the security and stability of the country. In Pakistan and Bangladesh, a few Hindus are there and in India there are Muslims. Now the position of Hindus in Pakistan and Bangladesh is worst. They have no minority status and rights, but in India minorities are given special attention under Article 29 and 30. The demand of language-based reorganisation was also a problem. At last the States Reorganisation Committee worked out and the States are formed based on the language. Though the States are formed based on language, nothing was weakened as expected but it helped India integrated. Based on the language someone is a Tamilian or Telanganite, he/she is an Indian. Such a feeling is there in all the states. There is a criticism that tribal languages are ignored but they also live in the states safely.

Besides religion, language is also a predominant issue. In erstwhile Andhra Pradesh the language problem was there. Andhra language is greater than Telangana was a feeling. In cinemas, books, cultural programmes and songs Telangana language was degraded and humiliated in many ways. It has become one of the reasons for Telangana separate state movement. Finally, separate Telangana was formed.

In conclusion, I would say, whatever the religion or language is everyone is a human being first next he/she is an Indian. Religion is one’s personal. One can follow the religion he/she likes. The feeling such as one’s religion is greater than others, destroys and destructs the other. Gradually it degrades the country at international level. We hope and wish universal brotherhood. We got independence with lot of stress and strain. We should not spoil its spirit.

Question 10.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Seat share of various political parties in 1952 and 1962

Answer:
Table Analysis:
From the given table we understand how the national parties gained seats in 1952 and 1962 general elections.

1. Comparing 1952 & 1962, we come to know that INC lost three seats; Communist Party of India gained 13 more seats than previous election.
2. Independent parties lost 17 seats.
3. Socialist Party drowned to half of its previous seats.
4. Others too lost 11 seats when compared to previous election.

In my opinion, the other parties which contested were not able to win enough seats to challenge the Congress Party.

Question 11.
Observe the given table and analyse the data of Electors.

Election Commission of India

Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 (16th Lok Sabha)

Answer:
The given table is about the details of Lok Sabha Elections 2014, (16th Lok Sabha) Turn out of the voters issued by Election Commission of India. In the given table male, female and other voters number and their casting of vote particulars are given. Male voters are 43.7 crores whereas 39.7 crores female voters are listed out. Polling percentage in male is 67% and in female it is 65.54%, others only 7%. Out of 83 crore voters 55 crore voters cast their vote.
In democracy voting decides the rulers. Before elections many malpractices are going on the voters are lured with money, liquor, sarees, cricket kits what not many more. Surprising thing is that educated voters are also not excepted.

It is sad in democracy. If all educated and uneducated voters cast their vote by not inclining to any attractions and cast their vote for real leaders then we can say democracy is alive.

In cities like Hyderabad, recent election voting percentage is below 50%. Government should think, why these people are not turning out to cost their vote. In most IT companies they enjoy the day of polling will be a holiday. Rural people turn a lot of costing their vote.

For urban people, Election Commission should come out with a proposal of online voting or evoting. Then percentage will be increased. It is my suggestion.

Question 12.
Analyse the advantages and problems faced by the people due to the Multi-party system in India.
Answer:

1. In the first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress Party won and led to single party dominance.
2. It was a kind of undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
3. To strengthen the democratic foundations multi-party system emerged.
4. It almost checked the single party dominance of Congress.
5. The oppositions started critisizing the government.
6. People now have chance to choose the right party.
7. Multi-party system strengthens the constitutional frame work and democracy.

Question 13.
Observe the following pie diagram and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which political party secured less seats ?
Answer:
Ganatantra Parishad party secured less number of seal

2. What are the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected are 489.

3. How many seats were secured by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Indian National Congress Secured the maximum 364 seats.

4. Which political party secured 16 seats?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 16 seats.

5. How many seats were secured by Kissan Majdoor Party?
Answer:
Kissan Majdoor Party secured 9 seats.

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram and answer the following questions.

a) What were the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected were 494.

b) Which party secured maximum number of seats?
Answer:
Indian National Congress secured maximum number of seats.

c) How many seats were secured by Communist Party of India?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 29 seats.

d) Which party secured minimum of seats?
Answer:
Socialists Party secured minimum number of seats.

e) How many seats were secured by others?
Answer:
Others secured 27 seats.

Question 15.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

Compare the above Pie diagrams.
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams reveal the fact that there was an undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
2. In both the election the Congress won maximum seats, i.e., 364 in 1952 and 361 in 1962 election.
3. Other parties were unable to challenge the Congress.
4. Ganatantra Parishad Party secured less seats in 1952 whereas Socialist Party secured less seats in 1962 elections.
5. The Communist Party of India secured more seats in 1962 i.e., 29 when compared with 16 in 1952 elections.

Question 16.
Read the following and comment on it.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganisation would lead to break up of the country. Hence, even though the Congress itself was organised on the linguistic lines and had promised to restructure the country on those lines, it developed cold feet when independence came.

Answer:

1. The partition of India created a lot of insecurity in the minds of the people.
2. How to maintain the integrity of the country became a burning topic.
3. There was a fear that the language reorganization would lead to breakup of the country.
4. But state reorganization committee was established.
5. Reorganization Act was passed in 1956.
6. Our leaders took initiative in this direction and regional languages were recognized as state official language.
7. English was given the status of communicating language.
8. Hence linguistic reorganization did not create any problem.

Question 17.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) Which was the smallest area shown in the map?
Answer:
Pondicherry was the smallest area shown in the map.

b) Which small state was there in between Madras and Mysore states?
Answer:
Coorg was the small state in between Madras and Mysore states.

c) Which was the southernmost state from the map ?
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southernmost state.

d) Which was the eastern state?
Answer:
Andhra state was the eastern state.

e) Name the boundaries of Andhra State.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Hyderabad, Mysore and Tamil Nadu were the boundaries of Andhra State.

Question 18.
Locate the following on the outline map of India.

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Jammu-Kashmir
6. Nagaland
7. Punjab
8. Meghalaya

Answer:

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Kenya
2. Suez canal belongs to this country
   Answer: Egypt
3. Algeria
4. Libya
5. China
6. Kyrguzstan
7. Uzbekistan
8. Ukraine
9. Phillippine
10. New Zealand

Answer:

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు

10th Class Social Studies 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning (మీ అభ్యసనాన్ని మెరుగుపడుచుకోండి)

ప్రశ్న 1.
వివిధ దేశాలను వర్గీకరించటంలో ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికాలు ఏమిటి? పై ప్రామాణికాలలో ఏమైనా పరిమితులు ఉంటే వాటిని పేర్కొనండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
వివిధ దేశాలను వర్గీకరించటంలో ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికాలు.

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (అమెరికన్ డాలర్లలో) ను ముఖ్య ప్రామాణికంగా తీసుకుంది.
2. దేశం మొత్తం ఆదాయాన్ని (జాతీయాదాయం ) దేశ జనాభాతో భాగిస్తే తలసరి ఆదాయం వస్తుంది.
3. తలసరి ఆదాయంను ‘సగటు ఆదాయం ” అని కూడా అంటారు.

పరిమితులు:
ఎ) పోలికకు “సగటు” ఉపయోగకరంగా ఉన్నా అది ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.
బి) ప్రజల మధ్య ఈ ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ అయిందో తెలియదు.
సి) వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధిని తెలియచేయకపోవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
ప్రతి సామాజిక అంశం వెనుక ఒకటి కాక అనేక కారణాలు ఉంటాయి. ఇక్కడ కూడా అది వర్తిస్తుంది. మీ అభిప్రాయంలో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ఏ ఏ అంశాలు పాఠశాల విద్యకు దోహదం చేశాయి? (AS1)
(లేదా)
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో మెరుగైన అక్షరాస్యతను సాధించడానికి దోహదపడిన అంశాలు ఏవి?
జవాబు:
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో పాఠశాల విద్యకు లేదా మెరుఅక్షరాస్యతకు దోహదం చేసిన అంశాలు.

1. పాఠశాలలు తెరిచి చాలా వరకు విద్య ఉచితంగా ఉండేలా లేదా తల్లిదండ్రులకు నామమాత్రపు ఖర్చు అయ్యేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూసింది.
2. పాఠశాలలో ఉపాధ్యాయులు, తరగతి గదులు, మరుగుదొడ్లు, త్రాగునీరు వంటి కనీస సదుపాయాలు ఉండేలా చూసింది.
3. భారతదేశ రాష్ట్రాలలో ప్రభుత్వ బడ్జెటులో ప్రతి విద్యార్థి చదువుపై ఎక్కువ మొత్తం ఖర్చు పెడుతున్న రాష్ట్రాలలో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ ఒకటి.
4. ఆడపిల్లల పట్ల అంతగా వివక్షత లేకపోవటం అనేది హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో చెప్పుకోదగిన విషయం
5. కొడుకుల లాగానే కూతుళ్లు కూడా చదువుకోవాలని అక్కడి తల్లిదండ్రులు కోరుకుంటున్నారు.
6. లింగ వివక్షత తక్కువగా ఉండటం.
7. మహిళా సాధికారిత (మహిళలు బయట ఉద్యోగాలు చేయటం).
8. సామాజిక జీవితంలోనూ, గ్రామ రాజకీయాలలోనూ మహిళల పాత్ర ఎక్కువగా ఉండటం.

ప్రశ్న 3.
అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి ప్రపంచ బ్యాంకు ఉపయోగించే ప్రామాణికాలకూ, ఐక్యరాజ్యసమితి అభివృద్ధి కార్యక్రమం ఉపయోగించే వాటికి తేడా ఏమిటి? (AS1)
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 4.
మానవ అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి మీ దృష్టిలో ఇంకా ఏ అంశాలను పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోవాలి? (AS4)
(లేదా)
మానవాభివృద్ధిని కొలవడానికి ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలను ఉదహరించుము.
జవాబు:
మానవ అభివృద్ధిని కొలవటానికి పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకున్న అంశాలు :

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (కొనుగోలు శక్తి తెలుసుకోవటం కోసం)
2. విద్యాస్థాయి
3. ఆరోగ్య స్థితి

పరిగణనలోకి తీసుకోవాల్సిన మరికొన్ని అంశాలు :

1. సామాజిక న్యాయం
2. పంపిణీ న్యాయం
3. త్రాగునీటి సౌకర్యాల ఏర్పాటు
4. విద్యుత్ సౌకర్యం
5. ఉద్యోగిత స్థాయి
6. జీవన ప్రమాణ స్థాయి
7. పర్యావరణం, పరిశుభ్రత
8. అవినీతి రహితం
9. సాంకేతిక ప్రగతి
10. మెరుగైన రవాణా వ్యవస్థ

ప్రశ్న 5.
‘సగటు’ ఎందుకు ఉపయోగిస్తాం? దీనిని ఉపయోగించటంలో ఏమైనా పరిమితులు ఉన్నాయా? అభివృద్ధికి సంబంధించి మీ సొంత ఉదాహరణను తీసుకుని దీనిని వివరించండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. పోలికకు ‘సగటు’ను ఉపయోగిస్తాం.
2. జాతీయాదాయం (మొత్తం) కన్నా తలసరి ఆదాయం (సగటు) మెరుగైన సూచిక.
3. “సగటు” ను లెక్కించటం సులువు.

పరిమితులు :

1. సగటు ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.
2. ఇది పరిమాణాత్మకమైనదే కాని గుణాత్మకమైనది కాదు.
3. పంపిణీ ఎలా జరిగిందో తెలియదు.
4. వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధి తెలియజేయకపోవచ్చు.
5. జీవన ప్రమాణ స్థాయిని ఖచ్చితంగా నిర్వచించలేకపోవచ్చు

1. పై ఉదాహరణలో రెండు దేశాల సగటు (20,000) ఒకే విధంగా ఉంది. అయితే,
2. రెండు దేశాల అభివృద్ధి స్థాయి ఒకే విధంగా లేదు.
3. ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో ఒక వ్యక్తి అత్యంత ధనవంతుడు, మిగతా నలుగురు పేదలు కాని సగటును తీసుకుంటే ఈ విషయం వెల్లడి కాదు. అంటే ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ అయిందో తెలియదు.
4. సగటును తీసుకుంటే ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో వాస్తవ అభివృద్ధి జరిగిందో లేదో తెలియకపోవచ్చు.
5. సగటును తీసుకుని ‘ఇ’ దేశంలో వ్యక్తులందరి కొనుగోలు శక్తి ఒకేలా ఉందని అనుకోవచ్చు కాని వాస్తవంలో అది కరెక్ట్ కాకపోవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో తలసరి ఆదాయం తక్కువ ఉన్నప్పటికీ పంజాబ్ కంటే మానవ అభివృద్ధి సూచికలో ముందుండటం అన్న వాస్తవం నేపథ్యంలో ఆదాయం యొక్క ప్రాముఖ్యత గురించి ఎటువంటి నిర్ధారణలు చేయవచ్చు? (AS1)
జవాబు:

1. పౌరులు ఉపయోగించుకోగల భౌతిక వస్తువులు, సేవలను కేవలం ఆదాయం సూచించలేదు.
2. డబ్బు కాలుష్యం లేని వాతావరణాన్ని కొనివ్వలేదు. కలీలేని మందులు దొరుకుతాయన్న హామీ ఇవ్వలేదు.
3. ప్రజలందరూ నివారణ చర్యలు చేపడితే తప్పించి అంటురోగాల నుంచి (ఆదాయం) రక్షించలేకపోవచ్చు.
4. మానవ అభివృద్ధి సూచికలో దిగువన ఉండటం ప్రజల జీవితాలలోని కొన్ని అంశాలపై దృష్టి కేంద్రీకరించాలన్న సంకేతాన్ని ఇస్తోంది.
5. ప్రభుత్వమూ, ప్రజలూ అభివృద్ధి (మానవ వనరులు) పై ఆసక్తి కలిగి ఉంటే ఆదాయం (తలసరి) అంత ప్రాముఖ్య అంశం కాకపోయినప్పటికీ, అవసరమైన మేర ఉండాలి.
   ఉదా : హెచ్.పి. ప్రభుత్వం విద్యపై సగటున 2,005 రూపాయలు ఖర్చు పెడుతోంది, ఇది భారతదేశ సగటు (1049) కన్నా ఎక్కువ.
6. తలసరి ఆదాయ అభివృద్ధి కన్నా, మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధికి అధిక ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వడం వలన హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ఇది (HDI లో ముందుండటం) సాధ్యమయ్యింది.
7. సామాజిక అంశాలు (లింగ వివక్షత, పురుషాధిక్యత మొదలయినవి) మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధిలో ఆదాయం కన్నా ముఖ్యపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి.
   ఉదా : లింగ వివక్షత లేకపోవడం వలన హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో బాలికలు అందరూ చదువుకోవడం జరుగుతుంది.
8. మహిళా సాధికారత మానవాభివృద్ధిలో ప్రముఖ అంశంగా తోడ్పడుతుంది.
   ఉదా : హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో సామాజిక జీవితంలో, గ్రామ రాజకీయాలలోను మహిళల పాత్ర ఎక్కువ. అలాగే పలు గ్రామాలలో చురుకుగా పనిచేస్తున్న మహిళా మండలులు ఉన్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 7.
పట్టిక : హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రగతి

పై పట్టికలో ఉన్న వివరాల ఆధారంగా కింది వాటిని పూరించండి : (AS3)
ఆరు సంవత్సరాలు పైబడిన ప్రతి 100 మంది ఆడపిల్లల్లో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో 1993లో ….. ఆడపిల్లలు ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివారు. 2006 నాటికి ఇది వందలో ………… మందికి చేరుకుంది. భారతదేశం మొత్తం మీద 2006లో ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివిన మగపిల్లల సంఖ్య వందలో …….. మాత్రమే.
జవాబు:
ఆరు సంవత్సరాలు పైబడిన ప్రతి 100 మంది ఆడపిల్లల్లో హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో 1993లో …. 39 మంది…. ఆడపిల్లలు ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివారు. 2006 నాటికి ఇది వందలో …60 ….. మందికి చేరుకుంది. భారతదేశం మొత్తం మీద 2006లో ప్రాథమిక స్థాయి దాటి చదివిన మగపిల్లల సంఖ్య వందలో … 57….. మాత్రమే.

ప్రశ్న 8.
హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో తలసరి ఆదాయం ఎంత? అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్నప్పుడు పిల్లల్ని బడికి పంపటం తల్లిదండ్రులకు తేలిక అవుతుందా? చర్చించండి. హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రభుత్వం పాఠశాలలు నడపటం ఎందుకు అవసరమయ్యింది? (AS1)
జవాబు:
ఎ) హిమాచల్‌ ప్రదేశ్ తలసరి ఆదాయం (2012 సం||లో) 74,000 రూపాయలు.
బి)

1. అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్నప్పుడు పిల్లల్ని బడికి పంపటం తల్లిదండ్రులకూ ఖచ్చితంగా తేలిక అవుతుంది. అయితే తలసరి ఆదాయం అధికంగా ఉన్నప్పుడు ఈ విషయాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా చెప్పలేం. ఎందుకంటే ఆదాయ పంపిణీ ఎలా జరిగిందో చెప్పలేం కనుక.
2. తక్కువ ఆదాయం కలిగి ఉన్న తల్లిదండ్రులు విద్యపై డబ్బు ఖర్చు పెట్టడం కష్టం. అలాగే పిల్లలను కూడా చదువు మాన్పించి కూలీకి (బాలకార్మికులుగా) పంపటం జరుగుతుంది.
3. అధిక ఆదాయం ఉన్న తల్లిదండ్రులకు ఆ అవసరం ఉండదు కనుక పిల్లలను చక్కగా చదివిస్తారు.

సి) హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో ప్రభుత్వం పాఠశాలలు నడపటం ఎందుకు అవసరమయ్యిందంటే.

1. భారతదేశానికి స్వాతంత్ర్యం వచ్చినపుడు హిమాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో విద్యాస్థాయి తక్కువగా ఉండటం.
2. కొండ ప్రాంతం కావటంతో జనసాంద్రత చాలా తక్కువ. పాఠశాల విస్తరణ, ప్రత్యేకించి గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతాలలో విస్తరించటం పెద్ద సవాలుగా ఉండింది.
3. చాలావరకు విద్య ఉచితంగా లేదా తల్లిదండ్రులకు నామమాత్రపు ఖర్చు అయ్యేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూసింది.
4. అక్కడి ప్రజలు విద్యపై ఎంతో ఆసక్తి చూపడం వలన.
5. విద్యకు అత్యధిక ప్రాధాన్యతను ఇవ్వడం వలన.

ప్రశ్న 9.
అబ్బాయిలతో పోలిస్తే అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తల్లిదండ్రులు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఎందుకు ఇస్తారు? తరగతిలో చర్చించండి. (AS4)
జవాబు:
అబ్బాయిలతో పోలిస్తే అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తల్లిదండ్రులు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇస్తున్నారు.

కారణాలు :

1. అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వటానికి ప్రధాన కారణం “లింగ వివక్షత”.
2. “బాల్య వివాహాలు” (అమ్మాయిలకు తొందరగా పెళ్ళి చేసి పంపించేయాలని భావించటం),
3. అమ్మాయిలను అబ్బాయిలకంటే తక్కువగా చూస్తూ వారిని ఇంటిపని, వంట పనులకు బాధ్యుల్ని చేయటం, చిన్నపిల్లల సంరక్షణను అప్పగించటం.
4. అమ్మాయి ఎక్కువగా చదువుకుంటే తగిన పెళ్ళి సంబంధం కుదర్చాలంటే ఎక్కువ ఖర్చు మరియు కష్టంతో కూడుకున్నదని పెద్దలు అభిప్రాయపడటం.
5. ఉద్యోగం పురుషలక్షణం అంటూ, అమ్మాయి చదివి ఏం ఉద్యోగం చేయాలని అంటూ అమ్మాయిల విద్యను నిరుత్సాహపరచటం. (ఒక విధమైన ‘పురుషాధిక్యత’)
6. మనది “పితృస్వామ్య కుటుంబా”లవ్వటం వలన అబ్బాయిలకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఎక్కువగా ఉంటుంది.
7. అమ్మాయిలను “సరైన భద్రత” లేకుండా బయటకు (పాఠశాలలు మొ||నవి) పంపటం శ్రేయస్కరం కాదని భావించడం. సరైన సౌకర్యాలు (రవాణా, మరుగుదొడ్లు మొ||నవి) అందుబాటులో లేకపోవటం.
8. మగపిల్లల చదువు (ఖర్చును) పెట్టుబడిగా, బాలికల చదువు (ఖర్చు) ఖర్చుగాను భావించడం. అబ్బాయిలకయ్యే ఖర్చును ఇతరత్రా రూపంలో తిరిగి పొందవచ్చని భావించడం.
9. కొన్ని సామాజిక దురాచారాలు, పురుషాధిక్య సమాజం, మహిళా సాధికారత లోపించడం వలన అమ్మాయిల చదువుకు తక్కువ ప్రాధాన్యత ఇస్తున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
ఆడవాళ్ళు ఇంటిబయట పనిచెయ్యటానికి, లింగ వివక్షతకూ మధ్య గల సంబంధం ఏమిటి? (AS1)
జవాబు:
ఆడవాళ్ళు ఇంటిబయట పనిచెయ్యటానికి, లింగ వివక్షతకూ విలోమ (వ్యతిరేక) సంబంధం ఉంది.

1. బయట ఉద్యోగాలు చేసే మహిళలు స్వతంత్రంగా ఉంటారు, ఆత్మవిశ్వాసం కనబరుస్తారు.
2. ఇంటిలో తీసుకునే నిర్ణయాలలో అంటే పిల్లల చదువు, ఆరోగ్యం, పిల్లల సంఖ్య, గృహ నిర్వహణ వంటి వాటిల్లో ఆడవాళ్ళ మాటకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఉంటుంది.
3. ఉద్యోగాల్లో ఉన్న మహిళలు పెళ్ళి అయిన తరువాత తమ కూతుళ్లు ఉద్యోగాలు చేయాలని తల్లులు కోరుకుంటారు, కాబట్టి చదువుకు ప్రాధాన్యత ఇవ్వటం సహజం.
4. ఆడవాళ్లు ఉద్యోగం (బయటపని) చేయటం వలన ఆర్థిక స్వాతంత్ర్యం పొందుతారు, అలాగే ఆర్థికంగా స్థిరత్వం పొందుతారు. తద్వారా మహిళా సాధికారత పొందుతారు.
5. మహిళలు సాధికారత సాధించిన తర్వాత లింగ వివక్షతకు అసలు చోటే ఉండదు. (పూర్తి అనాగరిక సమాజాలలో తప్ప) ఈ విషయాన్ని మనం అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశాలలో చూస్తున్నాం కూడా !

ప్రశ్న 11.
ఎనిమిదవ తరగతి పాఠ్యపుస్తకంలో మీరు విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం (వి.హ.చ) గురించి చదివారు. 6-14 సంవత్సరాల బాలలకు ఉచిత విద్యకు హక్కు ఉందని ఈ చట్టం పేర్కొంటోంది. పరిసర ప్రాంతాలలో తగినన్ని పాఠశాలలు నిర్మించేలా, అర్హులైన టీచర్లను నియమించేలా, అవసరమైన సదుపాయాలు కల్పించేలా ప్రభుత్వం చూడాలి. మీరు ఈ అధ్యాయంలో చదివినది, మీకు తెలిసిన దాన్నిబట్టి (1) బాలలకు (II) మానవ అభివృద్ధికి ఈ చట్టం ఎలాంటి ప్రాధాన్యత కలిగి ఉందో చర్చించండి, గోష్టి నిర్వహించండి. (AS2)
జవాబు:
(i) విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం – బాలలకు కలిగి ఉన్న ప్రాధాన్యత.

1. దీని ప్రకారం 6 నుండి 14 సం|| మధ్య వయస్సు గల పిల్లలందరికీ ఉచిత, నిర్బంధ విద్యను ప్రభుత్వం అందిస్తుంది.
2. పిల్లల పరిసరాలలోనే తగిన సంఖ్యలో కనీస సౌకర్యాలు కలిగిన పాఠశాలలు నిర్మించడం, తగినంతమంది ఉపాధ్యాయుల నియామకం చేయడం జరుగుతుంది.
3. పిల్లలకు భయం, ఆందోళన లేకుండా (శారీరక, మానసిక హింసలేకుండా) కృత్యాల ద్వారా బోధన ద్వారా పిల్లల సర్వతోముఖాభివృద్ధికి కృషి చేస్తుంది.
4. బాలల హక్కులు (అభివృద్ధి, భూస్వామ్య హక్కు మొ॥నవి) కాపాడబడటానికి ఈ చట్టం ఎంతో అవసరం.
5. బాలకార్మిక వ్యవస్థ, వెట్టిచాకిరి, బాల్య వివాహాలు మొ||న సామాజిక దురాచారాల నుండి (బాలలను) విముక్తి కల్పిస్తుంది.

(II) మానవ అభివృద్ధికి ప్రాధాన్యత :

1. మానవాభివృద్ధి సూచికలో ‘విద్యాస్థాయి’ ప్రధానమైన సూచిక. విద్యాస్థాయిని పెంపొందించటానికి ఈ విద్యాహక్కు చట్టం ఎంతో ఉపయోగపడుతుంది.
2. సగటున బడిలో గడిపే సంవత్సరాలు ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా ఖచ్చితంగా పెరుగుతాయి.
3. అలాగే పాఠశాల విద్యలో ఉండే సంవత్సరాలు, ప్రాథమిక, మాధ్యమిక, ఉన్నత విద్యలో నమోదు నిష్పత్తి కూడా ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా గణనీయంగా పెరుగుతుంది.
4. ఈ చట్టం ద్వారా విద్యాభివృద్ధి తద్వారా మానవాభివృద్ధి ఆశించిన రీతిలో జరుగుతుంది.
5. విద్యాభివృద్ధి అనేది ఆదర్శవంతమైన (మానవాభివృద్ధి) సూచిక.

10th Class Social Studies 2nd Lesson అభివృద్ధి భావనలు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 1.
ప్రపంచ అభివృద్ధి నివేదిక 2012 ప్రకారం మధ్య ఆదాయ దేశాల తలసరి ఆదాయం ఎంతో పైన ఉన్న భాగం చదివి చెప్పండి.
జవాబు:
ప్రపంచ అభివృద్ధి నివేదిక 2012 ప్రకారం మధ్య ఆదాయ దేశాల తలసరి ఆదాయం 1,035 అమెరికన్ డాలర్ల కంటే ఎక్కువ, 12,600 అమెరికన్ డాలర్ల కంటే తక్కువ.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.14 & 15

ప్రశ్న 2.
పట్టిక : వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు, అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు

జవాబు:
పట్టిక : వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు, అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజలు

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.16 & 17

ప్రశ్న 3.
క్రింద ఇచ్చిన వార్తాపత్రిక కథనం చూడండి.
“ఒక ఓడ 500 టన్నుల విషపూరిత వ్యర్థ ద్రవ పదార్థాలను చెత్త పడవేసే బహిరంగ ప్రదేశంలోనూ, పక్కన ఉన్న సముద్రంలోనూ పారబోసింది. ఆఫ్రికాలోని ఐవరీకోస్ట్ దేశంలోని అబిద్ జాన్ అనే పట్టణంలో ఇది జరిగింది. అత్యంత విషపూరితమైన ఈ వ్యర్థ పదార్థాల నుండి వెలువడిన వాయువుల వల్ల తల తిప్పటం, చర్మంపై దద్దురులు, స్పృహతప్పి పడిపోవటం, విరోచనాలు వంటి సమస్యలు ఏర్పడ్డాయి. ఒక నెల రోజులలో ఏడుగురు చనిపోయారు. ఇరవై మంది ఆసుపత్రిలో ఉన్నారు. విష ప్రభావానికి గురైన లక్షణాలకు 26,000 మంచి చికిత్స పొందారు. లోహాలు, ముడి చమురులతో వ్యాపారం చేసే ఒక బహుళజాతి కంపెనీ తన ఓడలోని వ్యర్థ పదార్థాలను పడవెయ్యటానికి ఐవరీకోస్టు చెందిన ఒక స్థానిక కంపెనీతో కాంట్రాక్టు కుదుర్చుకుంది.” (ది హిందూ పత్రికలో 2006 సెప్టెంబరు 16న వైజు నరవనె రాసిన వార్త ఆధారంగా)
ఎ) దీనివల్ల ప్రయోజనం పొందినవాళ్లు ఎవరు, పొందని వాళ్లు ఎవరు?
జవాబు:

1. దీనివల్ల (కుడంకుళం అణు విద్యుత్ కేంద్రం) ప్రయోజనం పొందినవాళ్లు భారతదేశ ప్రజలు అందరూ. దీని ప్రధాన ఉద్దేశం నిరంతరం పెరుగుతున్న దేశ విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీర్చడం.
2. ఈ ప్రాంతం ప్రజలు, మత్స్యకారులు వారి భద్రత, రక్షణ, జీవనోపాధులు దెబ్బతింటాయని దీనివల్ల తమకు ప్రయోజనం ఉండదని భావించారు.
3. రెండో ఉదాహరణలో బహుళ జాతి కంపెనీ లాభం పొందింది, ఐవరీకోస్ట్ తీరప్రాంత ప్రజలు నష్టపోయారు.

బి) ఈ దేశానికి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ఎలా ఉండాలి?
జవాబు:
ఈ దేశానికి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ఎలా ఉండాలి అంటే –

1. అవసాపనా సౌకర్యాల (రోడు, రవాణా, విద్యుత్, నీరు మొ||నవి) లోటు లేకుండా ఏర్పాటు చేయడం.
2. ఆధునిక సమాచార, సాంకేతిక రంగాలలో స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించుట.
3. దేశ అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు ప్రజలందరి అభివృద్ధికి, అభ్యున్నతికి కృషి చేసేవిలా, దేశం స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించేలా, సుస్థిరమైన అభివృద్ధి సాధించేలా ఉండాలి.

సి) మీ గ్రామానికి, పట్టణానికి లేదా ప్రాంతానికి కొన్ని అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలను పేర్కొనంది.
జవాబు:
మా గ్రామానికి / పట్టణానికి / ప్రాంతానికి కొన్ని అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు :

1. రక్షిత మంచినీటి సౌకర్యం (అందరికి) కల్పించటం.
2. విద్యా సౌకర్యాలు ఏర్పాటు చేయటం.
3. పర్యావరణం, పరిశుభ్రతను కాపాడటం.
4. వైద్య, ఆరోగ్య సదుపాయాలు కల్పించటం.
5. మెరుగైన (రోడ్లు) రవాణా సౌకర్యాలను కల్పించటం.
6. 100%, విద్యుదీకరణ, కోతలు లేని విద్యుత్ సౌకర్యం ఏర్పాటు.
7. వ్యవసాయ కూలీలకు, ఇతర నిరుద్యోగులకు సంవత్సరమంతా ఉపాధి కల్పించే ప్రణాళికలు చేయడం.
8. వ్యవసాయంతో పాటు పారిశ్రామికంగా అభివృద్ధి చేయటం.

డి) ప్రభుత్వానికి, అణువిద్యుత్ కేంద్ర ప్రాంతాలలో నివసించే ప్రజలకు మధ్య గల వివాదాలేవి?
జవాబు:

1. భారత ప్రభుత్వం అణువిద్యుత్ కేంద్రాన్ని పెరుగుతున్న దేశ విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీర్చు ప్రధాన ఉద్దేశముతో స్థాపించింది.
2. కాని ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు వారి భద్రత, రక్షణ, జీవనోపాధుల పరిరక్షణ కోసం ఉద్యమించారు.
3. పెరుగుతున్న విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి అవసరాలు తీరాలంటే అణువిద్యుత్ శక్తి ఉత్పత్తి తప్పనిసరి అని ప్రభుత్వం భావిస్తోంది.
4. కాని ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు తీరప్రాంతం, దేశం రేడియోధార్మిక వినాశక ప్రమాదం నుండి రక్షించబడాలని కోరుకుంటు ఉద్యమిస్తున్నారు.
5. ఆ ప్రాంత ప్రజలు ప్రత్యామ్నాయ ఇంధన వనరుల (సౌర విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి, పవన విద్యుచ్ఛక్తి మొ||నవి) గురించి ఆలోచించమంటూ, ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణాన్ని ఆపాలంటున్నారు.
6. ప్రభుత్వం ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణానికి తగిన భద్రతా చర్యలన్నీ తీసుకుంటున్నామని ప్రకటించి, ఉద్యమాలకు అతీతంగా నిర్మాణం కొనసాగిస్తోంది.

ఇ) ఇటువంటి అభివృది విధానాలకు చెందిన వివాదాలు మీకేమైనా తెలుసా? ఇరుపక్షాల వాదనలు పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:

1. పశ్చిమగోదావరి జిల్లా (ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్) లో గోదావరి నదిపై నిర్మిస్తున్న బహుళార్థ సాధక ప్రాజెక్ట్ పై అనేక వివాదాలు ఉన్నాయి.
2. ఈ ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణం పూర్తయితే అనేక లక్షల ఎకరాలకు సాగునీరు అందుతుంది, అలాగే జలవిద్యుచ్ఛక్తి కూడా ఉత్పత్తవుతుంది.
3. అయితే ఈ ప్రాజెక్ట్ నిర్మాణం వలన అనేక గ్రామాలు ముంపునకు గురవుతాయి. పెద్ద మొత్తంలో అటవీ ప్రాంతం మునిగిపోతుంది, పర్యావరణం దెబ్బతింటుందని అక్కడి ప్రజలు పెద్ద ఎత్తున నిరసన తెలుపుతున్నారు.
4. మరో ఉదాహరణ నర్మదానదిపై నిర్మించతలపెట్టిన (సర్దార్ సరోవర్) ప్రాజెక్ట్ విషయంలో కూడా ఇలాంటి వివాదాలే తలెత్తితే, మేధాపాట్కర్ నాయకత్వాన ‘నర్మదా బచావో’ ఆందోళన సాగిస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.19

ప్రశ్న 4.
ఉదాహరణకు క, గ అనే రెండు దేశాలను తీసుకుందాం. సంక్లిష్టంగా లేకుండా ఉండటానికి రెండు దేశాలలోనూ అయిదుగురే ప్రజలు ఉన్నారనుకుందాం. పట్టికలో ఇచ్చిన వివరాల ఆధారంగా రెండు దేశాల సగటు ఆదాయాన్ని లెక్కగట్టండి.
పట్టిక : రెండు దేశాలను పోల్చటం

జవాబు:
ఎ) దేశం ‘క’ సగటు ఆదాయం = 10000
బి) దేశం ‘గ’ సగటు ఆదాయం = 10000

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఇక్కడ ఇచ్చిన ఉదాహరణ కాకుండా పోలికకు సగటును ఉపయోగించే మరో మూడు ఉదాహరణలు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక పరిశ్రమలోని ఉత్పత్తి, ఉద్యోగులు (ధరలు, వ్యయం) అనుసరించి సగటు ఉత్పత్తి, సగటు వ్యయం మొదలైనవి ఉపయోగించి పోలుస్తారు.
2. తరగతిలోని వివిధ మార్కుల సగటు. .
   ఉదా : తరగతి మార్కుల సగటు, సబ్జెక్ట్ మార్కుల సగటు, జి.పి.ఎ. (గ్రేడ్ పాయింట్ సగటు)
3. జనాభాను పోల్చుటకు “సగటు జనసాంద్రత” (ఒక చదరపు కిలోమీటరులో నివసించే జనాభా) ను ఉపయోగిస్తున్నారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 6.
విభిన్న వ్యక్తులకు అభివృది పట్ల విభిన్న భావనలు ఎందుకుంటాయి? కింద ఇచ్చిన వివరణల్లో ఏది ముఖ్యమైనది, ఎందుకు?
(అ) వ్యక్తులు వేరు కాబట్టి
(ఆ) వ్యక్తుల జీవన పరిస్థితులు వేరు కాబట్టి
(లేదా)
వివిధ వర్గాల ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు భిన్నంగా ఉంటాయనడానికి ఉదాహరణలివ్వండి.

జవాబు:

1. విభిన్న వ్యక్తులకు అభివృద్ధి పట్ల విభిన్న భావనలు ఎందుకుంటాయంటే వ్యక్తుల జీవన పరిస్తితులు వేరు కాబట్టి.
2. వ్యక్తులు వారి వారి పరిస్థితులను బట్టి వారి అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు, ఆకాంక్షలు కలిగి ఉంటారు.
3. ఇద్దరు వ్యక్తులకు లేదా బృందాలకు పరస్పర విరుద్ధమైన కోరికలు ఉండవచ్చు.
4. వ్యక్తులు తామున్న జీవన పరిస్థితుల్లో వివిధ కోరికలు లక్ష్యాలు/ఆకాంక్షలు కలిగి ఉంటారు. ఇవి వారి జీవన పరిస్థితులకు అనుగుణంగానే ఉంటాయి.
5. ఒకరికి అభివృద్ధి అయినది మరొకరికి అభివృద్ధి కాకపోవచ్చు, అది విధ్వంసం కూడా కావచ్చు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 7.
కింది రెండు వాక్యాల అర్థం ఒకటేనా ? మీ సమాధానాన్ని ఎలా సమర్థించుకుంటారు?
(అ) ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వేరు వేరుగా ఉంటాయి.
(ఆ) ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు పరస్పర విరుద్ధంగా ఉంటాయి.
జవాబు:

1. రెండు వాక్యాల అర్థం ఒకటి కాదు, వేరు వేరు.
2. ప్రజల అభివృద్ధి లక్ష్యాలు వేరువేరుగా ఉంటాయి అంతేకాని పరస్పర విరుద్ధంగా ఉండాలని లేదు.
3. కొన్ని సందర్భాలలో ఒకరికి అభివృద్ధి అనుకున్నది మరొకరికి (కాకపోవచ్చు) విధ్వంసం కావచ్చు కాని అన్ని సందర్భాలలో కాదు.
   ఉదా : విద్యుత్ కోసం పారిశ్రామికవేత్తలు మరిన్ని ఆనకట్టలు కోరుకోవచ్చు. కాని ముంపునకు గురయ్యే నిర్వాసితులు ఆనకట్టలకు బదులు చెక్ డ్యాములు కోరుకోవచ్చు. కాని ప్రజలందరూ ఇలా కోరుకోటం లేదు కదా !
4. ఒక అమ్మాయి తన సోదరుడికి లభించే స్వేచ్చ తనకూ కావాలని ఆశించవచ్చు. ఈ కోరిక సోదరుడి కోరికకు విరుద్ధం కాదు కదా !

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 8.
మన జీవితంలో ఆదాయం కంటే ముఖ్యమైన ఇతర అంశాలకు కొన్ని ఉదాహరణలు ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:
మన జీవితంలో ఆదాయం కంటే ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలు చాలానే ఉన్నాయి.

1. డబ్బు లేదా అది కొనగలిగిన వస్తువులు మన జీవితంలో ఒక అంశం మాత్రమే.
2. భౌతికం కాని అంశాలపైన జీవన నాణ్యత ఆధారపడి ఉంటుంది.
3. సమానత, స్వేచ్ఛ, భద్రత, ఇతరుల నుంచి గౌరవం పొందడం.
4. ఇతరుల స్నేహాన్ని కోరుకోవటం, అభిమానాన్ని పొందడం.
5. మన కుటుంబానికి ఉండే సదుపాయాలు, పని పరిస్థితులు, నేర్చుకోవటానికి గల అవకాశాలు.
6. ఉద్యోగ భద్రత ఉండటం.
7. కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా పనిచేయడం.
8. సురక్షితమైన వాతావరణం.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.18

ప్రశ్న 9.
పై భాగంలోని ముఖ్యమైన అంశాలను మీ సొంత మాటలలో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
1) ఉద్యోగ భద్రత :
తక్కువ జీతమైనా క్రమం తప్పకుండా పని దొరికి అది భద్రతా భావాన్ని కలిగిస్తుంది. మరొక ఉద్యోగంలో ఎక్కువ జీతం ఉండవచ్చు కానీ అందులో ఉద్యోగ భద్రత లేకపోతే (అభద్రతాభావం) దానిని కోరుకోకపోవచ్చు.

2) కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా ఉండటం :
వ్యక్తులు ఎక్కువగా తమ కుటుంబాలతో సమయం గడపాలని ఆశిస్తారు. తక్కువ జీతం అయినా, కుటుంబానికి దగ్గరగా ఉండే ఉద్యోగాలవైపు మొగ్గు చూపుతారు.

3) సురక్షిత వాతావరణం :
భద్రతతో కూడిన సురక్షితమైన వాతావరణం ఉంటే మహిళలు అనేక రకాల ఉద్యోగాలు చేపట్టటానికి, వ్యాపారాలు నిర్వహించటానికి అవకాశం ఉంటుంది.

4) సమానత (వివక్షతలు లేకపోవడం) :
వివక్షత లేని సమానత్వ వాతావరణంలో పనిచేయటానికి ఇష్టపడతారు, ఆదాయం కోసం వివక్షతను ఎదుర్కొనటానికి ఇష్టపడరు.

5) స్వేచ్ఛా వాతావరణం :
అభివృద్ధి చెందటానికి అవకాశం ఉన్న స్వేచ్ఛా వాతావరణంలో పనిచేయటానికి యువకులు ఇష్టపడతారు, ఆదాయం ముఖ్యమని భావించకపోవచ్చు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 10.
అభివృద్ధికి సగటు ఆదాయం ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికమని ఎందుకంటున్నారు? వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
ఒక దేశ (ప్రాంత, రాష్ట్ర అభివృద్ధిని తెలుసుకునేందుకు సగటు ఆదాయం (తలసరి ఆదాయం ) ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికంగా భావిస్తున్నారు.

1. తలసరి ఆదాయం (సగటు ఆదాయం ) ఆ దేశ ప్రజల కొనుగోలు శక్తిని తెలియజేస్తుంది.
2. సగటు ఆదాయం , దేశం మొత్తం ఆదాయము (ఉత్పత్తుల మొత్తం) ను కూడా తెలియజేస్తుంది.
3. ఒక దేశంలోని ప్రజలు మరో దేశ ప్రజల కంటే మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారా లేదా అనే విషయం తెలుసుకోవడానికి మనం సగటు ఆదాయాన్ని పోలుస్తాం.
4. ప్రజలు తమకు ఇష్టమైనవి, అవసరమైనవి ఎక్కువ ఆదాయాలతో సమకూర్చుకోగలుగుతారు. కాబట్టి అధిక ఆదాయం ఉండటం ఒక ముఖ్యమైన ప్రామాణికంగా పరిగణిస్తారు.
5. మొత్తం ఆదాయంలో పెరుగుదల దేశాలను పోల్చటానికి అంతగా ఉపయోగపడదు ఎందుకంటే వివిధ దేశాల జనాభాలో తేడా ఉంటుంది కాబట్టి.
6. అయితే పోలికకు “సగటు” ఉపయోగకరంగా ఉన్నా అది ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 11.
కొంతకాలంగా ఒక దేశ సగటు ఆదాయం పెరుగుతోందని గణాంకాలు చెబుతున్నాయని అనుకుందాం. సమాజంలోని అన్ని వర్గాల ప్రజల జీవితం మెరుగయ్యిందని దీని ఆధారంగా చెప్పగలమా ? మీ జవాబుకు ఒక ఉదాహరణ ఇవ్వండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఒక దేశ సగటు ఆదాయం పెరుగుతోందని గణాంకాలు చెబుతున్నా, సమాజంలోని అన్ని వర్గాల ప్రజల జీవితం మెరుగయ్యిందని దీని ఆధారంగా “చెప్పలేం*.
2. ఉదాహరణకు దేశంలోని కొన్ని ఉన్నత వర్గాల ప్రజల (ధనవంతుల) ఆదాయం పెరిగినా సగటు ఆదాయం పెరిగినట్లు గణాంకాలు చెబుతాయి, కాని నిజంగా ప్రజలందరి ఆదాయం (పేద, బి.పి.ఎల్. వర్గాలందరి) పెరిగి ఉండకపోవచ్చు.
3. అలాగే ఒక దేశంలోని మొత్తం ఆదాయం పెరగకపోయినా దానికంటే జనాభా తగ్గినట్లయితే (పెరుగుదల రేటు) తలసరి (సగటు) ఆదాయం పెరిగినట్లుగా గణాంకాలు చూపుతాయి. కాని ఇక్కడ ఆదాయాలు పెరగలేదు, జనాభా తగ్గరు.
4. సగటు ఆదాయం పెరిగినా ప్రజల మధ్య ఈ ఆదాయం ఎలా పంపిణీ జరిగిందో తెలియదు.
5. సగటు ఆదాయం ప్రజల మధ్య అంతరాలను వెల్లడి చేయదు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.20

ప్రశ్న 12.
అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశంగా మారటానికి మీకు గల ఆలోచన ప్రకారం భారతదేశం ఏం చెయ్యాలో, లేదా ఏం సాధించాలో ఒక పేరా రాయండి.
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం అభివృద్ధి చెందిన దేశంగా మారాలంటే ఇవి సాధించాలి.

1. సంపూర్ణ (100%) అక్షరాస్యత సాధించాలి.
2. వైద్యం, ఆరోగ్యం అందరికి అందుబాటులో ఉండాలి.
3. వ్యవసాయంలో అధిక దిగుబడి (ఆధునిక వ్యవసాయ పద్ధతులు, హరిత విప్లవం) సాధించేలా కృషి చేయాలి.
4. దేశంలో ఉన్న వనరులను సక్రమంగా ఉపయోగించుకుని పారిశ్రామిక వృద్ధి (ఉత్పత్తి) సాధించాలి.
5. శాస్త్ర, సాంకేతిక, సమాచార రంగంలో స్వయం సమృద్ధి సాధించాలి.
6. మెరుగైన రవాణా మరియు ఆధునిక సమాచార (వ్యవస్థలు) సౌకర్యాలు కల్పించాలి.
7. విద్యుత్, త్రాగునీరు, రోడ్లు మొదలైన అవస్థాపనా సౌకర్యాలు మెరుగుపర్చాలి.
8. పొదుపు, పెట్టుబడుల సక్రమ నిర్వహణకై పటిష్టమైన బ్యాంకింగ్, ద్రవ్య వ్యవస్థ కలిగి ఉండాలి.
9. పటిష్టమైన, పారదర్శకమైన, అవినీతిరహిత పాలన వ్యవస్థ కలిగి ఉండాలి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 13.
క్రింది పట్టికలలోని వివరాలు చూడండి. తలసరి ఆదాయాలలో బీహార్ కంటే పంజాబు ముందున్నట్లుగా అక్షరాస్యత వంటి వాటిల్లో కూడా ఉందా?
పట్టిక : కొన్ని రాష్ట్రాల తలసరి ఆదాయం

పట్టిక : కొన్ని రాష్ట్రాలకు సంబంధించి కొన్ని తులనాత్మక గణాంకాలు

జవాబు:

1. తలసరి ఆదాయంలో పంజాబు (₹ 78,000) బీహార్ (₹ 25,000) కంటే ముందుంది.
2. అక్షరాస్యత పంజాబులో 77% ఉంటే బీహార్లో 64% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
3. నికర హాజరు పంజాబులో 76% ఉంటే బీహార్‌లో 56% మాత్రమే ఉంది.
4. అలాగే శిశుమరణాలరేటు పంజాబులో 42 ఉంటే బీహార్ 62 కలిగి ఉంది. ఈ వివరాలు గమనించినట్లైతే పంజాబు, బీహార్ కంటే తలసరి ఆదాయాలలోనే కాకుండా అక్షరాస్యత మొదలైన వాటిల్లో కూడా ముందు ఉందని అవగాహనవుతుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 14.
వ్యక్తులుగా సమకూర్చుకోవటం కంటే సామూహికంగా వస్తువులు, సేవలు సమకూర్చుకోవటానికి తక్కువ ఖర్చు అయ్యే మరికొన్ని ఉదాహరణలు పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
వాస్తవానికి ఎన్నో ముఖ్యమైన వాటిని అందించటానికి (సమకూర్చుకోవటానికి), తక్కువ ఖర్చుతో చెయ్యాలంటే వస్తువులను,
సేవలను సామూహికంగా అందించాలి. ఉదాహరణకు

1. ఇంటి ముందు (రహదారి) రోడ్డు ఒక్కరే వేసుకోవాలంటే చాలా ఖర్చవుతుంది, రోడ్డులోని ఇళ్ళవారందరూ కలసి వేసుకుంటే తక్కువ ఖర్చు అవుతుంది (విద్యుత్ లైన్, డ్రైనేజి వ్యవస్థ మొదలైనవి కూడా).
2. అపార్ట్మెంట్లో ప్రతి ఒక్కరు ఒక లిఫ్ట్ పెట్టుకోవాలంటే ఖర్చు పెరుగుతుంది. కనుక సామూహికంగా ఒక లిఫ్ట్ ఏర్పాటు చేసుకుంటున్నారు (మంచినీటి సరఫరా, భద్రత సిబ్బంది మొదలైనవి కూడా).
3. ప్రతి ఒక్కరూ అన్నీ పుస్తకాలు కొనుక్కొని చదవాలంటే ఖర్చు పెరుగుతుంది. అదే లైబ్రరీ ఏర్పాటు చేసుకుని సామూహికంగా వాడుకుంటే ఖర్చు చాలా తగ్గుతుంది.
4. ఆట స్థలమును వ్యక్తిగతంగా ఏర్పాటు చేసుకోవటం వ్యయంతో కూడుకున్నది, సామూహికంగా అయితే ఖర్చు తగ్గుతుంది. (స్విమ్మింగ్ పూల్, పార్క్ మొదలైనవి కూడా)
5. ‘షేర్ ఆటో’ దగ్గర నుంచి ‘ఎయిర్ బస్’ వరకు సామూహికంగా వినియోగించుకోవటం వల్ల వాటి వినియోగ సేవల ఖర్చు తగ్గుతుందని తెలుస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 15.
ఆరోగ్యం, విద్యపై ప్రభుత్వం ఖర్చు పెట్టే డబ్బుపైనే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుబాటులో ఉండటం ఆధారపడి ఉందా? ఇంకా ఏయే అంశాలు ప్రధానపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి?
జవాబు:

1. అభివృద్ధి చెందుతున్న, తక్కువ అభివృద్ధి చెందిన (వెనకబడిన) దేశాలలో ఆరోగ్యం, విద్యపై ప్రభుత్వం ఖర్చుపెట్టే డబ్బుపైనే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుబాటులో ఉండటం ఆధారపడి ఉంది.
2. అలాగే ప్రభుత్వ ప్రోత్సాహంతో పాటు ఇతర సామాజిక అంశాలు కూడా ప్రధానపాత్ర పోషిస్తాయి.
3. ప్రజల యొక్క చైతన్యం, సేవా దృక్పథం. (విద్యను పొందాలని, ఆరోగ్యం బాగుండాలని ప్రజల్లో చైతన్యం వస్తే ప్రజలు సేవా దృక్పథం కలిగి ఉంటే మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుతాయి.)
4. మానవ వనరుల అభివృద్ధి, అందుబాటు. (డాక్టర్లు, ఉపాధ్యాయులు ఎక్కువగా లభ్యమయితే, మెరుగైన సేవలు అందుతాయి.)
5. స్వచ్చంద సంస్థలు, (NGOS) (వీరి సేవలు అందించుట వల్ల మెరుగైన ఆరోగ్యం , విద్య అందుతుంది)
6. యువజన సంఘాలు, మత సంస్థలు మొదలైనవి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.22

ప్రశ్న 16.
తమిళనాడు, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని కుటుంబం 2009-10 లో చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి తమకు అవసరమైన దాంట్లో 53 శాతం, 33 శాతం కొనుక్కున్నాయి. మిగిలిన బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటారు. పశ్చిమ బెంగాల్, అసోంలలో 11 శాతం, 6 శాతం బియ్యం మాత్రమే పౌర సరఫరా దుకాణాల నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటున్నాయి. ఏ రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజలు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు? ఎందుకు?
జవాబు:
పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, అసోం రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజలు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు. కారణం :

1. తమిళనాడు, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ లోని గ్రామీణ ప్రాంతంలోని కుటుంబాలు 2009-10 లో చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి 53% మరియు 33% వరుసగా కొనుక్కున్నాయి.
2. అంటే 47% మరియు 67% (బియ్యం) బజారు నుంచి కొనుగోలు చేశారు.
3. పశ్చిమ బెంగాల్, అస్సాంలు చౌకధరల దుకాణాల నుంచి 11 శాతం, 6 శాతం బియ్యం మాత్రమే కొనుక్కుంటున్నాయి.
4. అంటే 89% మరియు 94% బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి కొనుక్కుంటున్నారు.
5. బియ్యం బజారు నుంచి పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, అసోం రాషాల కుటుంబాలు ఎక్కువగా కొంటున్నాయి. కాబట్టి ఈ రెండు రాష్ట్రాల ప్రజల కొనుగోలు శక్తి అధికంగా ఉంది. కనుక వీరు మెరుగ్గా ఉన్నారు.

SCERT AP 10th Class Social Study Material Pdf 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social Solutions 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning (మీ అభ్యసనాన్ని మెరుగుపడుచుకోండి)

ప్రశ్న 1.
పశ్చిమాన ఉన్న గుజరాత్ లో కంటె అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో సూర్యోదయం రెండు గంటల ముందు అవుతుంది. కానీ, గడియారాలు ఒకే సమయం చూపిస్తాయి. ఎందుకని? (AS1)
జవాబు:
సూర్యుడు తూర్పున ఉదయించి, పడమరన అస్తమిస్తాడు. ఒక్కో రేఖాంశం పశ్చిమం నుండి తూర్పునకు తిరగటానికి ‘4’ నిమిషాలు పడుతుంది. గుజరాత్ లోని కచ్ 68°7′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం వద్ద, అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లోని తూర్పు ప్రాంతం 97°25′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం వద్ద కలదు. అంటే దాదాపు 30 డిగ్రీల మేర విస్తరించి ఉంది. కావున, రెండు ప్రదేశాల మధ్య రెండు గంటలు (30 x 40 ని = 120 ని||) తేడా ఉంటుంది.

కానీ భారత స్థానిక కాలరేఖగా 82° 30′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశం తీసుకోవటం జరిగింది. దేశంలో వివిధ ప్రదేశాల స్థానిక కాలాల్లోని భేదాన్ని తొలగించడానికిగాను దీనివద్ద కాలాన్ని లెక్కించి, దానినే భారతదేశ ప్రామాణిక కాలం (IST- Indian Standard Time) గా వ్యవహరిస్తున్నారు. కావున సూర్యుడు తూర్పున, పశ్చిమం కన్నా రెండు గంటలు ముందుగా ఉదయించినా గడియారాలు ఒకే సమయం చూపిస్తాయి.

ప్రశ్న 2.
హిమాలయాలు ప్రస్తుతం ఉన్న స్థానంలో లేకపోతే భారత ఉపఖండ శీతోష్ణస్థితులు ఎలా ఉండేవి? (AS1)
(లేదా)
భౌగోళికంగా భారతీయ శీతోష్ణస్థితి హిమాలయ పర్వతాల వల్ల ఏ విధంగా ప్రభావితమౌతున్నది?
జవాబు:
హిమాలయాలు ప్రస్తుతం ఉన్న స్థానంలో లేనట్లయితే భారత ఉపఖండ శీతోష్ణస్థితులు ఇలా ఉండేవి –

1. హిమాలయాల వల్ల శీతోష్ణస్థితి అనేక విధాలుగా ప్రభావితం అవుతుంది.
2. భారతదేశ ఉత్తర సరిహద్దులో రక్షణ కవచాలుగా ఉండి తీవ్ర చలికాలంలో మధ్య ఆసియా నుండి వచ్చే చల్లటిగాలులను అడ్డుకుంటాయి. ఇవే లేనట్లయితే తీవ్ర చలిగాలులు వీస్తాయి.
3. వేసవిలో వర్షాలకు, పశ్చిమ కనుమలు దాటిన తరువాత ప్రాంతంలో ఋతుపవన తరహా శీతోష్ణస్థితికి హిమాలయాలే కారణం. ఇవే లేకపోతే ఉత్తర ప్రాంతం పొడిగా ఉండేది. ఋతుపవన శీతోష్ణస్థితి లేనట్లయితే భారతదేశం ఉష్ణమండల ఎడారిగా మారి ఉండేది.
4. హిమాలయాలలోని సతతహరిత అరణ్యాలు ఆవరణ సమతౌల్యతను కాపాడటానికి దోహదం చేస్తున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 3.
ఇక్కడ పేర్కొన్న వాటిల్లో ఏ ఏ రాష్ట్రాలలోనికి హిమాలయాలు విస్తరించి లేవు? (AS1)
మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్, సిక్కిం, హర్యానా, పంజాబ్, ఉత్తరాంచల్,
జవాబు:
మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఉత్తరప్రదేశ్, హర్యానా రాష్ట్రాలలోనికి హిమాలయాలు విస్తరించి లేవు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
భారతదేశ ప్రధాన భౌగోళిక విభజనలు ఏవి? హిమాలయ ప్రాంత భౌగోళిక పరిస్థితులతో ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమిని పోల్చండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
A) భారతదేశ ప్రధాన భౌగోళిక విభజనలు :
i) హిమాలయాలు
ii) గంగా-సింధూనది మైదానం
iii) ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమి
iv) తీరప్రాంత మైదానాలు
v) ఎడారి ప్రాంతం
vi) దీవులు

B) హిమాలయ ప్రాంత భౌగోళిక పరిస్థితులతో ద్వీపకల్ప పీఠభూమిని పోల్చుట :

ప్రశ్న 5.
భారతీయ వ్యవసాయాన్ని హిమాలయాలు ఏ రకంగా ప్రభావితం చేస్తున్నాయి? (AS1)
జవాబు:
భారతీయ వ్యవసాయాన్ని హిమాలయాలు ఎంతో ప్రభావితం చేస్తున్నాయి :

1. భారతదేశ ఉత్తర సరిహద్దులో సహజ రక్షణ కవచాలుగా ఉండి తీవ్ర చలికాలంలో మధ్య ఆసియా నుండి వచ్చే చల్లటి గాలులను గంగా-సింధూ మైదానాలకు తగలకుండా అడ్డుకుంటున్నాయి. ఆ ప్రాంతంలోని పంటలకు నష్టం వాటిల్లకుండా చేస్తున్నాయి.
2. రుతుపవన తరహా శీతోష్ణస్థితికి హిమాలయాలే కారణం. రుతుపవనాలే లేకపోతే భారతదేశం ఉష్ణమండల ఎడారిగా మారిపోయేది. ఏ పంటలు పండే అవకాశం ఉండేది కాదు.
3. హిమనీనదాల నుంచి నీళ్లు అందటంతో హిమాలయ నదులు సం||రం పొడవునా నీళ్లు కలిగి ఉండి సంవత్సరంలో అన్ని పంటకాలాల్లో కూడా నీరు సమృద్ధిగా అందిస్తున్నాయి.
4. హిమాలయ నదులు కొండల నుంచి కిందికి తెచ్చే ఒండ్రు మట్టి వల్ల, మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు చాలా సారవంతంగా మారి అధిక దిగుబడికి కారణమవుతున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 6.
గంగా-సింధూ నది మైదానంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువ. కారణాలను తెలపండి. (AS1)
జవాబు:
గంగా-సింధూ నది మైదానంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువగా ఉండుటకు కారణాలు :

1. భారతదేశంలో సుమారు 70%. మందికి వ్యవసాయమే ప్రధాన వృత్తి. కావున అధిక ఉత్పత్తులనిచ్చే సారవంతమైన ‘ఒండ్రు మృత్తికలు’ కలిగి ఈ ప్రాంతంలో జనసాంద్రత ఎక్కువ.
2. మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు ‘ప్రాచీన కాలం నుండి’ (సింధూ నాగరికత) మానవ ఆవాసాలకు నిలయం.
3. ఆ మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు బాగా అభివృద్ధి చెందిన ‘నగరాలకు’ ప్రసిద్ధి.
   ఉదా : చండీగఢ్, లక్నో, పాట్నా, 4) మైదాన ప్రాంతం బాగా అభివృద్ధి చెందిన ‘సాగునీరు, తాగునీరు’ వసతులు కలిగి ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 7.
భారతదేశ సరిహద్దులను చూపించే పటంలో కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి. (AS5)
i) కొండలు, పర్వత శ్రేణులు – కారకోరం, జస్కార్, పాట్ కాయ్, జైంతియా, వింధ్య పర్వతాలు, ఆరావళి, కార్డమం కొండలు.
ii) శిఖరాలు – K2, కాంచనగంగ, నంగ పర్వతం, అనైముడి.
iii) పీఠభూములు – చోటానాగ్ పూర్, మాల్వా.
iv) భారత ఎడారి, పశ్చిమ కనుమలు, లక్షద్వీప దీవులు.
జవాబు:

ప్రశ్న 8.
అట్లాసు ఉపయోగించి కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి. (AS5)
i) అగ్నిపర్వతాల విస్ఫోటనం వల్ల ఏర్పడిన దీవులు
ii) భారత ఉపఖండంలోని దేశాలు
iii) కర్కటరేఖ పోయే రాష్ట్రాలు
iv) భారత భూభాగంలో అన్నిటికంటే ఉత్తరాన ఉన్న అక్షాంశం, డిగ్రీలలో
v) భారత భూభాగంలో అన్నిటికంటే దక్షిణాన ఉన్న అక్షాంశం, డిగ్రీలలో
vi) అన్నిటికంటే తూర్పున, పడమరన ఉన్న రేఖాంశాలు, డిగ్రీలలో
vii) మూడు సముద్రాలు ఉన్న ప్రదేశం
viii) భారతదేశం నుండి శ్రీలంకను వేరుచేస్తున్న జలసంధి
ix) భారతదేశ కేంద్రపాలిత రాష్ట్రాలు
జవాబు:
i) అండమాన్, నికోబార్ దీవులు
ii) భారత్, పాకిస్థాన్, ఆఫ్ఘనిస్థాన్, నేపాల్, భూటాన్, బంగ్లాదేశ్, మయన్మార్, శ్రీలంక, మాల్దీవులు.
iii) గుజరాత్, మధ్యప్రదేశ్, ఛత్తీస్ గఢ్, జార్ఖండ్, పశ్చిమబెంగాల్, త్రిపుర, మిజోరం, రాజస్థాన్.
iv) 37°6
v) 8°4
vi) 97°25′ మరియు 68°7′
vii) కన్యాకుమారి
viii) పాక్ జలసంధి
ix) ఢిల్లీ, చండీగఢ్, పాండిచ్చేరి, అండమాన్ & నికోబార్, లక్షద్వీప్, డామన్ & డయ్యు, దాద్రానగర్ హవేలి.

ప్రశ్న 9.
తూర్పు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు, పడమటి మైదాన ప్రాంతాల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు ఏమిటి ? (AS1)
జవాబు:
తూర్పు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు, పడమటి మైదాన ప్రాంతాల మధ్య పోలికలు, తేడాలు :

ప్రశ్న 10.
భారతదేశంలోని మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు వ్యవసాయానికి దోహదపడినంతగా పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు తోడ్పడవు – దీనికి కారణాలు ఏమిటి ? (AS3)
జవాబు:
భారతదేశంలోని మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు వ్యవసాయానికి దోహదపడినంతగా పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు తోడ్పడవు – దీనికి కారణాలు :

1. పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలు మైదాన ప్రాంతాలంత సారవంతమైనవి కావు. మైదాన ప్రాంతాల్లోని ఒండ్రునేలలు అధిక దిగుబడికి, భూసారానికి పెట్టింది పేరు.
2. పీఠభూమి ప్రాంతాలలోని నదులు జీవనదులు కావు. గంగా మైదాన ప్రాంతంలోని నదులు జీవనదులు కావటం వలన సంవత్సరమంతా సాగునీరు అందుతుంది. వ్యవసాయానికి అనుకూలం.
3. మైదాన ప్రాంతాలు నదులు తీసుకువచ్చిన మెత్తని, సారవంతమైన మట్టితో ఏర్పడినవి. పీఠభూములు అగ్నిపర్వత శిలలతో ఏర్పడినవి.

10th Class Social Studies 1st Lesson భారతదేశం: భౌగోళిక స్వరూపాలు InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 1.
అట్లాసులో ‘ఇందిరా పాయింటీ’ ని గుర్తించండి. దీని ప్రత్యేకత ఏమిటి?
జవాబు:
అట్లాసులో, భారతదేశ పటంలో ఇందిరా పాయింట్ ని గుర్తించాము. దీని ప్రత్యేకత : ఇది భారతదేశపు దక్షిణ అంచు, -నికోబార్ దీవుల్లో ఉంది. 2004లో సంభవించిన సునామీలో ఇది ముంపునకు గురి అయ్యింది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 2.
ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ ……. ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల మధ్య, …….. తూర్పు రేఖాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.
జవాబు:
12°41′ – 19°07′ ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాలు,
77° – 84°40′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాలు

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 3.
మీ అట్లాసులో ఇచ్చిన స్కేలు ఆధారంగా ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్ తీర పొడవును కనుక్కోండి.
జవాబు:
దాదాపు 970 కి.మీ.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.4

ప్రశ్న 4.
హిమాలయాలు ఎ) ……. కోట్ల సంవత్సరాల క్రితం ఏర్పడగా, వేట- సేకరణపై ఆధారపడిన తొలి మానవులు బి) ………. లక్షల సం||రాల క్రితం భూమి మీద ఆవిర్భవించారు.
జవాబు:
ఎ) 20
బి) 5

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.1 & 2

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఒక ప్రదేశాన్ని లేదా ప్రాంతాన్ని ఖచ్చితంగా సూచించటానికి అక్షాంశ, రేఖాంశాలను ఉపయోగిస్తారు. అట్లాసు ఉపయోగించి కింది వాక్యాన్ని సరిచేయండి.
“భారతదేశం చాలా విశాలమైన దేశం, ఇది పూర్తిగా దక్షిణార్ధ గోళంలో ఉంది. దేశం 8° – 50° ఉత్తర రేఖాంశాల మధ్య 68° – 9° తూర్పు అక్షాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.”
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం చాలా విశాలమైన దేశం, ఇది పూర్తిగా ‘ఉత్తరార్ధ’ గోళంలో ఉంది. 8° – 4′ ‘ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల’ మధ్య 68° -7′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాల మధ్య ఉంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 6.
“భారతదేశ ద్వీపకల్పం” అన్న పదాన్ని తరచుగా ఎందుకు ఉపయోగిస్తాం?
జవాబు:
భారతదేశానికి తూర్పున బంగాళాఖాతం, పడమరన అరేబియా సముద్రం మరియు దక్షిణం వైపున హిందూ మహాసముద్రం ఉన్నాయి. మూడువైపులా నీరు ఉండి ఒకవైపు భూభాగం ఉన్న భూభాగాన్ని “ద్వీపకల్పం” అంటారు. భారతదేశానికి మూడువైపులా సముద్రాలు (నీరు) ఉన్నాయి కాబట్టి భారతదేశ ద్వీపకల్పం అన్న పదాన్ని తరచుగా (దక్షిణ భారతదేశాన్ని ఉద్దేశించి) ఉపయోగిస్తారు.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 7.
కింద ఇచ్చిన పరిశీలనలలో అహ్మదాబాద్, ఇంఫాల్ సూర్యోదయ, సూర్యాస్తమయాలను తెలిపేవి ఏవి ? కారణాలను వివరించండి.

జవాబు:
ప్రదేశం : ఇంఫాల్ ప్రదేశం : అహ్మదాబాద్
కారణాలు :

1. ఇంఫాల్ భారతదేశానికి తూర్పుగా, అహ్మదాబాద్ పశ్చిమంగా ఉన్నాయి.
2. ఇంఫాల్ 93°54′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశంపై, అహ్మదాబాద్ 72° 36′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశంపై ఉన్నాయి. ముందుగా 93°54 తూ.రే. పై సూర్యోదయం జరుగుతుంది. తర్వాత 72° 36′ పై సూర్యోదయం అవుతుంది.

(లేదా)

1. భూమి పడమర నుండి తూర్పుకు తిరుగుతుంది. కనుక సూర్యోదయం భూగోళానికి తూర్పున, సూర్యాస్తమయం పడమర అవుతుంది.
2. భారతదేశానికి తూర్పున ఉన్న ఇంఫాల్ లో పడమర ఉన్న అహ్మదాబాద్ కంటే ముందుగా సూర్యోదయం అవుతుంది. అలాగే సూర్యాస్తమయం ఇంఫాల్ లో ముందుగాను, అహ్మదాబాయ్ తరువాత అవుతుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.4

ప్రశ్న 8.
భారతదేశ ఉత్తర మైదానాల ఏర్పాటుకు దోహదపడిన హిమాలయ, ద్వీపకల్ప నదులను పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
భారతదేశ ఉత్తర మైదానాల ఏర్పాటుకు దోహదపడిన నదులు :
1) హిమాలయ నదులు : గంగా, సింధు, బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదులు మరియు వాటి ఉపనదులు.

2) ద్వీపకల్ప నదులు : నర్మదా, మహానది మొ||వి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.1

ప్రశ్న 9.
పైన ఇచ్చిన ప్రపంచ పటాన్ని పరిశీలించి భారతదేశ ఉనికిని గురించి కొన్ని వాక్యాలు రాయండి.

జవాబు:
భారతదేశం ఆసియా ఖండంలో దక్షిణభాగాన ఉంది.

1. భారతదేశం ఉత్తరార్ధ, పూర్వార్ధ గోళాలలో పాక్షికంగా విస్తరించి ఉంది.
2. భౌగోళికంగా 8°4′ – 37°6′ ఉత్తర అక్షాంశాల మధ్య, 68°7′ – 97°25′ తూర్పు రేఖాంశాలకు మధ్యన ఉంది.
3. అక్షాంశాల పరంగా ఉత్తర, దక్షిణాలుగా 30 డిగ్రీల పొడవున, రేఖాంశాల పరంగా కూడా తూర్పు, పడమరలుగా అన్నే డిగ్రీల వెడల్పున వ్యాపించి ఉంది.
4. భూగోళంపై భారత ఉపఖండం హెచ్చు భూభాగ విస్తీర్ణంతో వ్యాపించి ఉంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 10.
పై పటం చూసి ఆర్కిటిక్ వృత్తంలో భారతదేశం ఉందని ఊహించుకోండి. అప్పుడు మీ జీవితంలో ఏ ఏ తేడాలు ఉంటాయి?
జవాబు:
భారతదేశం ఆర్కిటిక్ వృత్తంలో ఉందనుకుంటే మా జీవితంలో ఉండే తేడాలు :
1) ఆహారం : తీసుకునే ఆహారంలో తేడా ఉంటుంది. ధ్రువప్రాంత ప్రజలు ఎక్కువగా మాంసం, చేపలు తీసుకుంటారు. కనుక మేము కూడా అవే తీసుకోవాల్సి ఉంటుంది. (వరి, గోధుమ పంటలు పండవు కనుక)

2) ఆవాసం : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతవాసులు మంచుతో నిర్మించిన ‘ఇగ్లూ’లలో, జంతుచర్మాలతో నిర్మించిన గుడారాలలో నివసిస్తారు. మేము ఇప్పటిలాగా డాబాల్లో ఉండలేము. కనుక ఆవాసంలో తేడా ఉంది.

3) దుస్తులు : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతవాసులు చలి నుండి రక్షణకై జంతు చర్మాలతో తయారైన బట్టలను ధరిస్తారు. మనలాగా నూలు, సిల్కు దుస్తులు ధరించరు. కనుక వేసుకునే దుస్తులలో తేడా ఉంటుంది.

4) వృత్తి : ప్రస్తుతం మేము వ్యవసాయం, పరిశ్రమలు, వాణిజ్యం మొ||న వృత్తులలో ఉపాధి పొందుతున్నాం. కానీ ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతంలో వేట, చేపలు పట్టడమే ప్రధాన వృత్తులు. కాబట్టి ఎంచుకునే వృత్తిలో కూడా తేడా ఉంటుంది.

5) వినోదం : ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతంలో ఇక్కడిలా సినిమాలు, టీవీలూ, కంప్యూటర్లు, ఇంటర్నెట్లు లేవు. కావున వినోద సాధనాల్లో, వినోద కార్యక్రమాల్లో తేడా ఉంటుంది.

6) కాలాలు : ఇప్పటిలాగా వేసవి, వర్ష, చలికాలం వంటివి ఉండవు. ఆర్కిటిక్ ప్రాంతం 6 నెలలు వేసవి, 6 నెలలు శీతాకాలం. కావున కాలాల్లో కూడా తేడా ఉంటుంది.

7) రవాణా సాధనాలు : ఇప్పుడు మేము వాడుతున్న రవాణా సాధనాలు (కారు, బైక్, బస్సు, విమానం మొ||నవి) ఇవి అక్కడ అందుబాటులో ఉండవు. స్లెడ్జ్ బండ్లు లాంటివి తప్ప.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.2

ప్రశ్న 11.
ఈ కింది పటాన్ని పరిశీలించండి. భారతదేశ సరిహద్దును గుర్తించండి. రంగులతో నింపండి.

పటంలో ఉన్న స్కేలు ఆధారంగా బంగ్లాదేశ్ తో భారతదేశ సరిహద్దు పొడవును అంచనా వేయండి.
జవాబు:
బంగ్లాదేశ్ తో భారతదేశ సరిహద్దు పొడవు సుమారు 4,096.70 కి. మీ.లు

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.3

ప్రశ్న 12.
పటం 2 ను, మీ పాఠశాలలోని ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటాన్ని చూడండి. మీ వేలితో కింద పేర్కొన్న వాటిని గుర్తించండి :

ఎ) దక్కను పీఠభూమి వాలు ఎటు ఉందో : తెలుసుకోటానికి గోదావరి, కృష్ణా నదుల ప్రవాహం వెంట మీ వేలు పోనివ్వండి.
బి) భూస్వరూపాలు, ఎత్తులు, దేశాలను పేర్కొంటూ బ్రహ్మపుత్ర నదీ మార్గం మొత్తాన్ని వర్ణించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎ) దక్కన్ పీఠభూమి కొద్దిగా తూర్పునకు వాలి ఉంది. గోదావరి, కృష్ణా నదులు పశ్చిమం నుండి తూర్పు వైపునకు ప్రవహించి బంగాళాఖాతంలో కలుస్తున్నాయి.

బి) బ్రహ్మపుత్రానది టిబెట్ పీఠభూమి లోని ‘మానస సరోవరం’ (సరస్సు) దగ్గర కైలాస్ పర్వతాలలో జన్మించింది. (సింధు, సట్లెజ్ నదులు కూడా ఇక్కడే జన్మించాయి).

1. టిబెట్లో బ్రహ్మపుత్రానదిని ‘సాంగ్ పో’ (Tsangpo) అంటారు.
2. హిమాలయాలకు సమాంతరంగా తూర్పు వైపునకు ప్రవహిస్తుంది.
3. అరుణాచల్ ప్రదేశ్ లో నైరుతి దిశగా పెద్దమలుపు తిరుగుతుంది. ఇక్కడ దీనిని “సియాంగ్” అనీ, “దిహాంగ్” అనీ అంటారు.
4. తరువాత అసోం లోయలోకి వచ్చినపుడు దిబంగ్, లోహిత్ అనే రెండు ఉపనదులు కలుస్తున్నాయి.
5. అసోం లోయ నుండి బంగ్లాదేశ్ లోకి ప్రవేశించి, పద్మానదితో కలిసి బంగాళాఖాతంలో కలుస్తుంది.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.5

ప్రశ్న 13.
ఎ) మీ అట్లాసులో ఈ మూడు (హిమాద్రి, నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు, పిరే పంజాల్) పర్వతశ్రేణులను గుర్తించండి.
బి) ఉబ్బెత్తు పటంలో అత్యంత ఎత్తైన పర్వత శిఖరాలను కొన్నింటిని గుర్తించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎ) 1) ఉన్నత హిమాలయాలు ( హిమాద్రి)
2) నిమ్న హిమాలయాలు ( హిమాచల్)
3) శివాలిక్ శ్రేణి

బి) ఎవరెస్ట్ శిఖరం, K2 శిఖరం, కాంచనగంగ, గౌరీశంకర్, నంగపర్బత్, ధవళగిరి మరియు నందాదేవి

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.5

ప్రశ్న 14.
ఎ) కింద పేర్కొన్న ప్రాంతాలపైన గోడ పటంలోనూ, ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలోనూ మీ వేలిని పోనివ్వండి.
బి) మీ అట్లాసులోని భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో కింద పేర్కొన్న ప్రాంతాలను గుర్తించండి. సిమ్లా, ముస్సోరి, నైనిటాల్, రాణిఖేత్.
జవాబు:
ఎ) విద్యార్థి కృత్యము.
బి)

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.7

ప్రశ్న 15.
మీ అట్లాసులోని భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో ఈ కింది వాటిని గుర్తించండి.

జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.9

ప్రశ్న 16.
మీ అట్లాసులోని, భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలోనూ, ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలోనూ ఈ కిందివాటిని గుర్తించండి.
1. మాల్వా పీఠభూమి, 2. బుందేల్‌ఖండ్, 3. భాగేల్ ఖండ్, 4. రాజమహల్ కొండలు, 5. చోటానాగపూర్ పీఠభూమి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.9

ప్రశ్న 17.
అట్లాసు సహాయంతో టిబెట్ పీఠభూమితో పోలిస్తే పైన పేర్కొన్న పీఠభూములు ఎంత ఎత్తులో ఉన్నాయో పేర్కొనండి.
జవాబు:
టిబెట్ పీఠభూమి – 4950 మీటర్లు
మాల్వా పీఠభూమి – 300 – 600 మీ||
బుందేల్ ఖండ్ పీఠభూమి – 2 150 – 300 మీ||
భాగేఖండ్ పీఠభూమి – 300 – 600 మీ||
చోటానాగపూర్ – 600 – 900 మీ||
టిబెట్ పీఠభూమితో పోలిస్తే మిగతా పీఠభూములు అన్నీ తక్కువ ఎత్తులోనే ఉన్నాయి.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.10

ప్రశ్న 18.
భారతదేశ ఉబ్బెత్తు నిమ్నోన్నత పటంలో తూర్పు, పశ్చిమ కనుమల ఎత్తులను టిబెటన్ పీఠభూమి, హిమాలయ శిఖరాలతో పోల్చండి.
జవాబు:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No.12

ప్రశ్న 19.
భారతదేశ భౌతిక పటంలో డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలను గుర్తించండి. వాటి ఎత్తులలో తేడాలు ఏమిటి ? గంగా-సింధూ మైదానాలతో వీటిని పోల్చండి.
జవాబు:
డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలన్నీ దాదాపు ఒకే ఎత్తులో ఉన్నాయి.

గంగా-సింధు మైదానాలతో డెల్టా ప్రాంతాలను పోల్చడం :

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 20 Post – War World and India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 17 The Making of Independent India’s Constitution.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Food Security.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the two ways which you would suggest for the eradication of malnutrition among the children?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Sufficient food should be given to children.
2. Children should be given nutritious food with low cost.

Question 2.
What is the active role of the judiciary in implementing food security in India? How is this role useful to children?
Answer:
In recent time, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through judicial verdict on court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide Mid-day-meals to all the young children studying in schools. The court also set up monitoring mechanisms and provided suggestions for better Implementation.

Question 3.
What is meant by Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
Answer:

1. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Govern¬ment of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fail in farm prices.
2. With this price the government procures food grains through the FCI.

Question 4.
Give any two examples for ‘Nutricereals.
Answer:
Examples for the Nutri-cereals are

1. Jowar,
2. Ragi,
3. Bajra.

Question 5.
Give any two examples, which give vitamins.
Answer:
Fruits, Leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.

Question 6.
Expand the term F.C.I.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India.

Question 7.
What is the reason for providing mid-day meals in government schools?
Answer:

1. To increase the literacy rate in India and enroll more children in schools.
2. To provide one meal for all the poor young children studying in government schools.

Question 8.
Write any two reasons for better implementation of the Public Distribution System in southern states.
Answer:
A universal Public Distribution System is there in southern states. Specific cards are issued to the needy people. Low cost foodgrains are available for them in the ration shops.

Question 9.
What is the need of food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed for various purposes. The main purpose of food security is ‘no person should go to bed with an empty stomach’.

Question 10.
Which caused large scale starvation deaths in pre-independent India?
Answer:
In pre-independent India, famines – situations of extreme scarcity of food, were a common cause of large-scale starvation deaths.

Question 11.
What was the loss of the Bengal famine?
Answer:
The Bengal famine in 1943-45, took away about 3 to 5 million people lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa.

Question 12.
Why did the famines occur in Indian history?
Answer:
The famines occurred in Indian history because food grains supply was not organized by the rulers.

Question 13.
Name some organizations through which government today ensures food security.
Answer:
Ration shops and Anganwadis.

Question 14.
What is an important requirement of food security?
Answer:
Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.

Question 15.
What are the results of this method?
Answer:
Soil degradation and depletion of groundwater resources.

Question 16.
How is the availability of foodgrains per person per day estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows:
Availability of foodgrains per person per day = (Availability of foodgrains for the year T population)/ 365

Question 17.
What do consumers need?
Answer:
Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet.

Question 18.
What can farmers do to increase their incomes?
Answer:
Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.

Question 19.
Give any one reason for farmers’ distress and even suicides.
Answer:
The conversation of food grain fields into cash crops such as cotton in Andhra Pradesh during the last two decades.

Question 20.
What do the nutritionists suggest?
Answer:
Nutritionists suggest that every person in India should eat 300 gms of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day whereas per person availability of these food materials 180 and 58 gms respectively.

Question 21.
What do farmers require?
Answer:
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items. They may have to. be supported and guarded against market risks that they face in the new situation.

Question 22.
Why may the foodgrain production come down?
Answer:
Since resources are diverted to non-food grain uses, foodgrain production may come down.

Question 23.
What is something to be worried about for India’s food security?
Answer:
The decline in the level of per capita availa¬bility of food grains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.

Question 24.
How are the national average calorie levels?
Answer:
The national average calorie levels in both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements.

Question 25.
What are used to examine the nutritional status of children?
Answer:
To examine the nutritional status of children, simple but accurate measurements of height and weight are used.

Question 26.
Why is buffer stock created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock has been created to meet any exigencies. The buffer stock can be utilized in case of drought or flood or any natural calamity.

Question 27.
What are Fair price shops?
Answer:
The ration shops which come under the PDS are called fair price shops.

Question 28.
Write short notes on MSP.
Answer:
MSP means Minimum Supportive Price. The FCI procures foodgrains and other farm produce by giving MSP for their produce. This ensures farmers of a minimum guarantee for their produce.

Question 29.
How many grams of vegetables and fruits every person eat a day?
Answer:
Every person in India should eat 300 grams of vegetables and 100 grams of fruits in a day.

Question 30.
Today what are called as “nutri-cereals”?
Answer:
The coarse cereals like jowar, ragi, bajra, etc., are today called as nutri-cereals.

Question 31.
What is meant by PDS system?
Answer:
PDS system means the government supplying low-cost foodgrains to people with ration cards.

Question 32.
What is meant by Nutrition Food?
Answer:
Nutritious food is that food that provides for energy, growth and capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.

Question 33.
How is BMI derived?
Answer:
BMI = Weight in legs/height in meters squared.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalize people’s right to food. What do you suggest to implement this Act?
Answer:
My suggestions:

1. Subsidy rice should be given to the people of the low-income group.
2. More rice should be given to very poor people.
3. Dal, oil, tamarind and jaggery, etc. also should be supplied to these people through PDS.
4. MDM scheme should be implemented with more efforts.

Question 2.
Our country could not achieve self-sufficiency in the production of foodgrains even today. Illustrate your reasons.
Answer:

1. Foodgrain production is not proportional when compared to the rate of population growth.
2. There is no proper water management.
3. Farmers are following traditional methods.
4. Fragmentation of landholdings.
5. Improper manuring and low application of fertilizers.

Question 3.
State any two defects, which you find in the organization of the Public Distribution System.
Answer:

1. Selling with higher prices.
2. Cheating in the process of weighing.
3. Selling ration goods in the black markets.
4. Ineligible candidates holding white cards.
5. Only few days distribution is following.

Question 4.
If the food grain production is affected because of natural calamity, in what ways can the Government ensure higher availability of food grains?
Answer:

1. The FCI releases the buffer stock.
2. By bringing supplies from other areas.
3. Through a universal PDS system, low-cost food grains would be available.
4. The Anthyodaya Cardholders are entitled to get 35 Kgs. of food grains per month per family.

Question 5.
“The Supreme Court of India directed to all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day-meal to the children studying in all schools.”
Prepare a pamphlet on better implementation of the Mid-day-meal program.
Answer:
Pamphlet on Mid-day-meal programme.

1. Foodgrains available in local areas are to be used.
2. Follow the menu regularly that meets the need of nutritional requirements of the children.
3. Cooking in clean and hygienic environment.
4. Involvement of staff and children for effective implementation.

Question 6.
Appreciate the benefits of the Mid-day meal programme implemented in Government schools.
Answer:

1. It ensures food security.
2. It provides nutritious food.
3. It helps to increase net attendance rate.

Question 7.
Write suggestions to avoid food waste in Mid-day meal in your school.
Answer:

1. Meals cooked should be tasty and healthy.
2. Children should be educated on the consequences of food wastage.
3. Teachers should supervise the programme.

Question 8.
Observe the bar diagram and answer the questions.
a) What percentage of people in rural India are consuming more calories than are required?
Answer:
20%
b) What is the reason for consuming less calories than are required in rural India?
Answer:

1. The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of purchasing power of the people.
2. People don’t have adequate incomes to buy food.
3. The reasons are poverty, unemployment, etc.

Question 9.
What are the measures you suggest for improving the present public distribution system?
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Provide ration cards only to the poor and vulnerable groups.
2. Check every month whether they are rationed in an effective manner or not.
3. Quantity supplied by the government should be increased.
4. Remove the fake cards.

Question 10.
Analyze a week’s food habits of your family. And write how it impacts on Agriculture sector and the environment.
Answer:
Family food habits:

1. Rice and redgram, vegetables, milk, curd, eggs, etc.
2. For breakfast – idly, dosa, chapati, etc.
3. Sometimes some members take non-vegetarian food.

Impact on agriculture:

1. For increase of food grains and vegetables production farmers are using pesticides and fertilizers. Due to this soil loses its fertility.
2. For increasing of milk production farmers follow artificial methods. Those methods cause harm to animals.

Impact on the environment:

1. Excessive use of chemicals causes water, air pollutions.
2. Bio-diversity is effected very highly.
3. Deforestation.

Question 11.
Write a letter to the concerned officer for the proper implementation of the Public Distribution System in your area.
Answer:

Siricilla.
31st March 2017.

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Siricilla.

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Subhashnagar, Siricilla. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer. They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
………………….
………………….

Question 12.
Prepare a pamphlet to bring awareness among the people on food security in India
Answer:
Pamphlet

Food Security in India

National Food Security Act 2013 legalizes the people’s right to food. According to this Act White, Pink, Anthyodaya cards are distributed to the needy on identification. Free cooked meal for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children 1-5 in Anganwadi is supplied.

Many ration shops are not open on proper timings. There will be no display of prices list and the stock of commodities. The card holders come to ration shops, and as they are closed, they get back to their home without commodities. They lose their wages for that day also. The shop dealers are diverting commodities to other shops in the market. Many times it is seen in newspapers and channels but no change is found with the dealers.

Mid day meals in schools is also like that. The minimum quantity of pulses and oil are not used. The watery curries are served. No one cares about it.

People should get aware about this. Many non Government organizations are working for the benefit of society. The government should organize a campaign about this.

No. of copies
5000

Published by
Society for people

Question 13.
What is the position of India’s per capita availability of foodgrains compared to other countries?
Answer:

1. India’s per capita availability of foodgrains in 2010-11 was 463 grams.
2. It was very low when compared to the same of countries in Europe (700grams) and USA (850 grams).
3. Since resources are diverted to non-foodgrain uses, food grain production has come down.
4. The decline in the level of per capita availability of foodgrains is something to be worried about for India’s food security.
5. To avoid this, the policy of the government should aim to increase the production of foodgrains and other types of food simultaneously.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the question.

The State and Central Governments procure nearly one-third of foodgrains from farmers. These food grains are distributed to people through various mechanisms. In recent times, government agencies are procuring more foodgrains than what is required to meet the public distribution system. If government stocks keep increasing year after year, less is available (see year 2011 in Table on foodgrain availability). The government has been criticized that it is not distributing these foodgrains to the needy people. Sometimes, governments also exported these foodgrains to other countries.

Do you support this, when a large section of people within the country are not able to access to food grains?
Answer:

1. The state government should procure foodgrains to distribute through PDS at lower prices.
2. Needs of our people are to be considered.
3. So I do not support the concept of exporting foodgrains to foreign countries.
4. Instead, the foodgrains should be kept available to the needy of our country.

Question 15.
Read the passage and answer the question

“The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency (BMI<18.5) among men was about 35%, while overweight/obesity (BMI >25) was 10% …….
“About 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency andl4% were overweight/obese.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was highest in the States of Odisha, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh, followed by 33-38% in Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal…”

How is this related to food security?
Answer:

1. The above information says that 35% of adult women had chronic energy deficiency.
2. The prevalence of CED in our state is between 33% and 38%.
3. The above information proves that people do not have access to good food.
4. Hence “food security” should be implemented to avoid chronic energy deficiency.

Question 16.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security is being ensured in India by using the following methods:

1. By improving production
2. By maintaining buffer stock
3. By the Public Distribution System.

Question 17.
What has to be done in order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop?
Answer:

1. In order to increase the per hectare yield of a crop, necessary inputs have to provided in a judicious manner.
2. One way is to expand irrigation but use water in a manner so that this vital resource is shared and made available to all.
3. Modern methods of farming are to adopted.

Question 18.
Which have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels?
Answer:
Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to a continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.

Question 19.
How is the availability of foodgrains for the year estimated?
Answer:
It is estimated as follows.
Availability of foodgrains for the year = Production of foodgrains during the year (production – seed, feed and wastage) + net imports (imports-exports)-change in stocks with the government (closing stock at the year end – opening stock at the beginning)

Question 20.
Write your comments on the Food Security Bill.
Answer:
The Food Security Bill promises to alleviate hunger and guarantee very cheap food to India’s poor people. But there are concerns it has not been properly thought through and become unsustainable.
Under the programme everyone who qualifies for the subsidy will be entitled to 5 kg in total of rice, wheat, etc. The government intends to use the PDS for delivering subsidies to the poor.

Question 21.
Write your comments on P.D.S.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) has helped in stabilizing food prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has helped in avoiding hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to deficient regions. The share of PDS in the consumption of rice and wheat has risen steeply. I think this PDS is working effectively throughout the nation.

10th Class Social 11th Lesson Food Security 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and answer the question.

Studies indicate that Southern states of India have a good record in the public distribution system. Notably, these are the states that have followed a universal PDS system which means that low cost food grains would be available to all. This Is in contrast to other states where poor families have been Identified and foodgrains are sold to at different prices to poor and non-poor. Even among the poor, the very poor have different entitlements, or guarantees for access.

Interpret the relation between the PDS and food security.
Answer:

1. People get food grains at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
2. The government ensures it through Food Corporation of India.
3. The Government should take suitable measures to reduce lapses in distribution and ensures benefit to the target groups.
4. The various concepts of PDS like Anganwadis. Mid-day meals and fair price shops etc., provide food security to the different low income groups.

Thus there is a close relation between the PDS and food security.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“While Indian Parliament enacts various laws such as National Food Security Act and implements schemes such as Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) in recent times, the Indian Judiciary also has become pro-active in ensuring food security. Through Judicial verdict as court cases filed by non-governmental organizations, the Supreme Court directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals to all the young children studying in schools.

Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act1 to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, It will give cash for the people to buy food grains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 3.
Observe the given table and answer the question that follows.
Crop Production (Kilograms per Hectare)

Write an analysis on the yielding trends of different crops.
Answer:

1. The above table explains the crop production in 1950-51 and 2000-2001 kgs per hectare.
2. Paddy production increases highly, wheat production also increased. Pulses production increased 100 kgs only. Oil seeds production increased double. Cotton production also increased double. Jute production also increased.

Due to Green Revolution, crop production increased gradually within the 50 years. Among the all wheat & paddy production increased because of both are benefited with Green Revolution. Food grain production also increased.

Question 4.
How far is ‘Food Security’ required today in India?
Answer:
Due to the increase of more population food security Is need nowadays. The following factors are responsible.

1. Per person availability of food grain has actually not rise but declined in the recent years.
2. Most people are in fact consuming fewer calories than required. This gap is severe for the poorest.
3. Lack of employment or with low salaries majority of people are not able to purchase require food grains.
4. In some areas PDS system is not working properly.
5. A large section of people are malnourished, even when we have adequate food in the country.
6. Majority of children and adults as being underweight in a chronic way.

On above issues food security is need today.

Question 5.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Per person availability of food grains in India

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. In 1951 the population of India was 361 million and the food grains production was 50.8 million and 395 grams of food grains were available to a person per a day.
2. The population increased in 1961. It was 78 million. At the same time food grains production increased 32 million tons. The availability of food grains per person per a day was 469 grams.
3. In 1971,1991 and 2011 the population increased. At the same time the food grains production also increased. But in 1961,1971 the availability of food grains was the same; not increased.
4. From 1991 to 2011 the availability of food grains decreased due to floods, famines, natural calamities. More population was also another cause.

Till 1991 the population, food grains production and availability of food grains per person per day increased. But in 2011 only the population and food grains production increased. Availability of food grains drastically decreased.

The first requirement for a country is to be able to produce food grains for the whole population. Per person availability of food grains should be sufficient and also increasing over the years. From the information given above, it is evident that per person availability of food grains is decreasing since 2011.

So Government should take necessary measures in this regard. It should encourage farmers to produce more food grains. There should be control on exports also. Sometimes local people suffer for food grains but the government exports the food grains to other countries to import what they need. It is the minimum duty of the welfare government to keep food grains available to its people that to especially the poor.

Question 6.
Analyse how the Public Distribution System provides access to food to the poor?
Answer:
It is a joint responsibility of central government, state government and union territory administration to ensure the smooth functioning of the PDS.

While the responsibility of central government is to procure, store and transport it from purchase points to central godowns, the responsibility of state government and union territory administrations is to lift these commodities from the central godowns and distribute them to consumers through the network of fair price shops. FCI procures and distributes foodgrains, to provide subsidized food to the poor to mitigate regional inequalities through moving the surplus food to deficit areas and to stabilize agricultural prices.

The universal coverage of PDS was replaced by Targeted Real Public Distribution System in 1997 in order to achieve the objective of food security through sale of foodgrains to APL householders at economic cost and confirming the food subsidy bill toward the identified BPL families whose number crossed 97 million families in 2007.

Access to food through Public Distribution System :

1. National Food Security Act legalizes people’s right to food.
2. It is applicable to 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. PDS ensures the availability of foodgrains to the poor at subsidized rates.
4. Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice or wheat) per month per family.
5. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5 kilograms of foodgrains per month at subsidized rates.
6. 75% of people living in rural areas purchase foodgrains through PDS.
7. 50% of the urban population purchases foodgrains through PDS.
8. PDS helps in maintaining the nutrition status of the people.
9. Studies indicate that the southern states of India have a good record in PDS.

Question 7.
What would be the impact of the availability of other food items and food security?
Answer:

1. It is said that there is a change in consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries.
2. This is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers.
3. Farmers producing foodgrains can go in for crop diversification in order to increase their incomes.
4. Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other food items.
5. Over the years, although there has been increasing in the production of other food items, it is not sufficient to meet the minimum dietary requirements.
6. The policies should aim at increasing food crop production and other food items simultaneously.
7. It will fill the gap and make food security more viable.

Question 8.
What are the salient features of Food Security Bill?
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called ‘the National Food Security Act’ to legalise people’s Right to Food.
2. It applies to approximately 2/3rd of the population of India.
3. Every person of low-income families is entitled to 5kgs of foodgrains per month at subsidised rates.
4. The poorest families are entitled to 35 kgs of foodgrains.
5. For a few years, the central government supply rice, wheat and millets for Rs. 3/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 1/- respectively.
6. If government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy foodgrains.
7. Providing free cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children aged 1-6 coming to anganwadis and mid-day meals for children aged 6-14 years in schools.

Question 9.
Why do we require food? How do we classify the food that we consume?
Answer:

1. Food is required by the body for all its functions for energy, growth and the capacity to remain healthy and fight illness.
2. The food that we consume is normally classified as –
   1. Carbohydrates: that provide energy, through wheat, rice, ragi, jo war, oils, sugar, fats, etc.
   2. Proteins: that help growth and regeneration of body tissues through beans, dais, meat, eggs, rice, wheat, etc.
   3. Vitamins: that provide protection and ensure the working of many vital systems of the body through foods such as fruits, leafy vegetables, sprouts, unpolished rice, etc.
   4. Minerals are required in small quantities for many important functions such as iron and blood formation. This is provided through green leafy vegetables, ragi, etc.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
It is also important to ensure that soil and other natural resources are not damaged or depleted in the process. Some scientists and people working in the field of agriculture report that the way rice and wheat are cultivated in India – by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides – have led to a continuous but unsustainable Increase in the yield levels. In fact, these methods have led to soil degradation and depletion of ground water resources. If this continues, we may soon come to a situation that yields start falling rather than going up.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that improper usage of chemical fertilizers and insecticides causes for damage of cultivable soil and depletion of ground water levels.
2. If these methods are followed continuously there will be no ground water resources.
   My comments on this paragraph are as follows:
3. The population is growing day by day.
4. Cultivable land is not increasing in that proportion.
5. The food grain production is to be increased.
6. A part of green revolution it has become compulsory for the farmers to use fertilizers and pesticides to grow more crops.
7. Instead of using chemical fertilizers, the farmers should use go for organic farming.
8. Compost is to be encouraged. Multiple cropping is also one alternate.
9. Cultivable land is to be expanded by changing the wastelands as farming lands.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

If a country is to able to produce food grains for the whole of its population this would be considered as the first requirement. How do we measure whether if there is food for all ? Whether this food reaches families would be examined later. We are at first estimating what is available. This means that per person (or per capita) availability of foodgrains in the country should be sufficient and also increased over the years. Is the increase in foodgrain availability really happening?

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph every country should produce the foodgrains how much it needs.
2. Every country should examine two things.
3. The first one is how much foodgrains are produced in the country and the second one is how it is reaching to the people.
4. Many countries don’t concentrate on this sensitive issue.
5. It is very primary thing to look into the matter of food grain production and its availability.
6. When the production is less than the need or demand, automatically the prices go up.
7. Government should encourage the farmers to produce more foodgrains.
8. There should be control on exports also.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

It Is said that there Is a change In consumption pattern with people demanding more fruits, vegetables, milk, meat, poultry and fisheries. This Is a good sign for the consumers as well as producers. Consumers need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. Farmers producing food grains can go In for crop diversification In order to increase their Incomes.

Answer:

1. The paragraph says that the people demand different types of food like vegetarian and non-vegetarian food.
2. Taking this type of food is a good sign.
3. By utilizing this diverse food, the people maintain good health.
4. Where Is a lot of gap between the production of foodgrains and its availability.
5. The pattern mentioned in this paragraph is good for health but the problem is its availability.
6. The access of food is very less when it is compared to the Nutritionists suggestions.
7. In Agriculture, there is a shift from food crops to commercial crops.
8. Many farmers are concentrating on commercial crops.
9. Consequently, there will be scarcity of foodgrains.
10. Food grains are to be grown to what extent it is necessary.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

The national average calorie levels In both rural and urban areas are below the needed calorie requirements. Also, the consumption of calories has gone down between 1983 and 2004. This Is shocking since as we have seen our economy Is growing at a rapid rate. Production of goods and services has Increased many times.

Answer:

1. This paragraph tells us that the people in rural and urban areas are not taking sufficient calories intake in their diet.
2. It is surprising that the economy is growing but calorie intake Is decreasing.
3. Production is increasing but consumption Is decreasing.
4. According to the reports of nutritionists it is clearly understood that the people are not consuming as per requirements.
5. Irrespective of caste, religion, region and gender the rich people take more than requirement but the problem is with the poor people.
6. Government should take new steps to help the poor people.
7. The PDS functioning should be made correct.
8. Quality commodities are to be provided at cheaper prices.

Question 14.
Write a letter to the Tahsildar about irregular functioning of ration shop in your area.

Tadepalli,
Date : xx xx xxxx

To
The Tasildar,
Mandal Revenue Office,
Tadepalli

Sub: PDS – irregular functioning of ration shop in our locality – Request for take action to regularize the functioning of the shop -reg.

Respected sir,

I am from Prakashnagar, Tadepalli. I would like to bring the following to your notice and favourable action. The ration shop under the Public Distribution System running in our locality is not functioning well.

In our locality the ration shop is always kept closed. Many cardholders come eager to get their commodities. As the shop is closed they return scolding the government and the dealer.

They are going to open market and purchase their commodities there. They lose the wages for that day also. Very often the shop is open but not all the commodities are given. Sometimes they are collecting more prices. Kerosene is being sold in open market.

Hence I request you to take necessary action to regulate the functioning of the ration shop and make it useful to the rural poor people. By doing so, the real purpose of PDS is served. I hope you take immediate and favourable action.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
………………….
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