AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 6th Lesson Work, Energy and Power Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 6th Lesson Work, Energy and Power

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the conditions under which a force does no work. [T.S. Mar. 15]
Answer:

  1. When the displacement is zero,
  2. When the displacement is perpendicular to the direction of the force,
  3. When the body moves under the action of a conservative force over a closed path.

Question 2.
Define : Work, Power and Energy. State their SI units.
Answer:
Work : The product of magnitude of displacement (S) and component of force (F cos θ) along the direction of displacement is called work, ie., W = \(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{S}\) = F S cos θ.
Unit: Joule

Power : The rate of doing work by a force is called power, i.e., P = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Unit: watt or J/S

Energy : The ability or the capacity to do work is called energy.
Unit: Joule

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
State the relation between the kinetic energy and momentum of a body.
Answer:
Kinetic energy (EK) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\); where P = momentum of a body, m = mass of the body

Question 4.
State the sign of work done by a force in the following.
a) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
b) Work done gravitational force in the above case.
Answer:
a) To lift a bucket out of a well, force equal to the weight of the bucket has to be applied by the man along the vertical in upward direction. Since the displacement is also in upward direction θ = 0 and hence the workdone is positive.

b) The angle between the gravitational force and the displacement is 180°. Therefore workdone by the gravitational force is negative.

Question 5.
State the sign of work done by a force in the following.
a) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
b) Work done by gravitational force in the above case.
Answer:
a) Friction always acts in a direction, opposite to the direction of motion. Hence work done is negative.
b) The work done is positive.

Question 6.
State the sign of work done by a force in the following.
a) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
b) Work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Answer:
a) The applied force and the displacement are in same direction. Work is positive.
b) The direction of resistive force is opposite to the direction of motion of the pendulum. Hence work done is negative.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 7.
State if each of the following statements is true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
a) Total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external forces on the body are present.
b) The work done by earth’s gravitational force in keeping the moon in its orbit for its one revolution is zero.*
Answer:

  1. False
  2. True. Because gravitational force is conservative force.

Question 8.
Which physical quantity remains constant

  1. in an elastic collision
  2. in am. inelastic collision ?

Answer:

  1. In elastic collision : Both momentum and kinetic energy is constant.
  2. In an inelastic collision : Momentum remains constant.

Question 9.
A body freely falling from a certain height h, after striking a smooth floor rebounds and h rises to a height W2. What is the coefficient of restitution between the floor and the body? [T.S. – Mar.’18]
Answer:
h1 = h, h2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2}\)
e = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{h}_2}{\mathrm{~h}_1}}=\sqrt{\frac{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2}}{\mathrm{~h}}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 10.
What is the total displacement of a freely falling body, after successive rebounds from the same place of ground, before it comes to stop ? Assume that ‘e’ is the coefficient of restitution between the body and the ground.
Answer:
Total distance = \(\frac{h\left(1+e^2\right)}{\left(1-e^2\right)}\), where h is the height through it has fallen and e is the coefficient of restitution.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is potential energy ? Derive an expression for the gravitational potential energy.
Answer:
Potential energy: Definition : The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or state is called potential energy.
e.g. : 1) Energy possessed by water stored in a dam.
2) A stretched rubber card.
Formula for P.E = mgh : The potential energy is measured by the work done in lifting a body through a height ‘h’ against gravitational force. Consider a body of mass m on the body against gravitational force.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 1
∴ Gravitational force F = Weight of the body
Minimum force needed to lift the body = F in upwards direction
F = mg
Height lifted = h
Work done W = gravitational force × height lifted
W = mgh
This work done is stored as potential energy.
∴ Potential energy P.E = mgh.

Question 2.
A lorry and a car moving with the same momentum are brought to rest by the application of brakes, which provide equal retarding forces. Which of them will come to rest in shorter time ? Which will come to rest in less distance ?
Answer:
F1 = F2 and P1 = P2; W = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2; \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\)
∴ W = F.S = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\)
∴ S ∝ \(\frac{1}{m}\)
The heavier body (lorry) comes to rest in shorter time. The lorry will come to rest in less distance.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
Distinguish between conservative and non-conservative forces with one example each.
Answer:
Forces can be classified into two types.

  1. Conservative force,
  2. Non conservative force.

1) Conservative force : Conservative forces are the forces under the action of which a body returns to its starting point with same K.F. with which it is projected work done by conservative force is path independent.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 2
Explanation : If work done along path I, path II, path III are w1, w2, w3 respectively and w1 = w2 = w3 then the force involved in the work is conservative force.
Workdone by a conservative force along a closed path is zero.
Ex. : Gravitational force, electrostatic force, spring force etc.

2) Non-conservative force : Non-conservative force are the forces under the action of which the work done depends upon the path followed and the K.E changes work done by non¬conservative force is path dependent.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 3
Explanation : If workdone along path I, path II, path III are w1, w2, w3 respectively and w1 ≠ w2 ≠ w3, then the force involved in the work is non conservative. Workdone by a non conservative force along a closed path is not zero.
Ex. : Frictional force, viscous force etc.

Question 4.
Show that in the case of one dimensional elastic collision, the relative velocity of approach of two colliding bodies before collision is equal to the relative velocity of – separation after collision. [T.S. Mar. 18]
Answer:
Consider two spheres (bodies) which have smooth, non-rotating of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are moving along the straight line joining the centres of mass with initial velocities u1 and u2 (u1 > u2). They undergo head on collision and move along the same line after collision with final velocities of v, and v2. These two bodies exert forces on each other during collision.
Let the collision be elastic, then both momentum and K.E are conserved.
According to law of conservation of linear momentum, Momentum of the system before collision = Momentum of the system after collision.
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m1v2
m1(u1 – v1) = m2 (v2 – u2) ……………….. (1)
According to law of conservation of kinetic energy, K.E of the system before collision = K.E of the system after collision.
\(\frac{1}{2}\)m1u12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2u22 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1v12 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2v22
m1u12 + m2u22 = m1v12 + m2v22
m1(u12 – v12) = m2(v22 – u22) ……………….. (2)
\(\frac{\text { (2) }}{(1)} \Rightarrow \frac{m_1\left(u_1^2-v_1^2\right)}{m_1\left(u_1-v_1\right)}=\frac{m_2\left(v_2^2-u_2^2\right)}{m_2\left(v_2-u_2\right)}\)
\(\frac{\left(u_1-v_1\right)\left(u_1+v_1\right)}{\left(u_1-v_1\right)}=\frac{\left(v_2-u_2\right)\left(v_2+u_2\right)}{\left(v_2-u_2\right)}\)
(u1 – v1) = u2 + v2
u1 – u2 = v2 – v1
Relative velocity of approach from the above equation before collision = Relative velocity of separation after collision.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
Show that two equal masses undergo oblique elastic collision will move at right angles after collision, if the second body initially at rest.
Answer:
Oblique elastic collision : If the centres of mass of the colliding bodies are not initially moving along the line of impact, then the impact is called oblique collision.

Two equal masses undergo oblique elastic collision will move at right angles after collision, if the second body initially at rest:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 4
Consider two smooth and perfectly elastic spheres of masses m1 and m2. Let u1 and u2 be their initial velocities before collission. Let v1 and v2 be their final velocities after collision, (α, β) and (θ, Φ) are the angles, the directions of motion make with the line of impact before collision and after collision.

Since the spheres are smooth, there is no (impulse) change of velocities perpendicular to the line of impact. Hence the resolved parts of velocity of the two spheres in the direction perpendicular to the line of impact remain unchanged.
∴ v1 sinθ = u1 sinα ……………………. (1)
and v2 sinΦ = u2 sin β …………………. (2)
According to the principle of conservation of momentum, the sum of the moment of the two spheres along the line of impact before collision and after collision are equal.
∴ m1u1 cosα + m2u2 cosβ = m1v1 cosθ + m2v2 cosΦ ……………… (3)
⇒ m1(u1 cosα – v, cosθ) = m2 (v2 cosΦ – u2 cosβ) ……………….. (4)
According to the principle of conservation of kinetic energy, the sum of the K.E along the line of impart before and after are equal.
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 (u1cosα)2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2 (u2cosβ)2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 (v1cosθ)2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2(v2cos126,Φ)2
⇒ m1 [(u1cosα)2 – (v1cosθ)2 ] = m2 [(v2cosΦ)2 – (u2cosβ)2] …………….. (5)
\(\frac{(5)}{(4)}\) ⇒ u1 cosα + v1 cosθ = v2 cosΦ + u2 cosβ
v1cosθ = v2 cosΦ + u2 cosβ – u1 cosα ……………… (6)
and v2 cosΦ = v1 cosθ + u1 cosα – u2 cosβ ……………….. (7)
sub. equation (7) in equation (3), we get
v1 cosθ = \(\left(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right)\) u1 cosα + \(\left(\frac{2 m_u u_2}{m_1+m_2}\right)\) cosβ ……………… (8)
Sub-equation (6) in equation (3), we get
and v2 cosΦ = \(\left(\frac{m_2-m_1}{m_1+m_2}\right)\) u2 cosβ + \(\left(\frac{2 m_1 u_1}{m_1+m_2}\right)\) cosα ………………. (9)
If u2 = 0 and m1 = m2 then equation (2), we get Φ = 0 and from equation (8), θ = 90°. This means that if a sphere of mass ‘m’ collides obliquely on another perfectly elastic sphere of the same mass at rest, the directions of motions of the spheres after impact will be at right angles.

Question 6.
Derive an expression for the height attained by a freely falling body after ‘n’ number of rebounds from the floor.
Answer:
Consider a small sphere fall freely at a height ‘h’ onto the floor. It strikes the floor with a velocity of ‘u’
So that u1 = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) …………….. (1)
At the time of collision between the sphere and the floor, the initial and final velocities of floor are zero i.e., u2 = 0 and v2 = 0
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 5
Let ‘v1‘ be the final velocity of the sphere after the first collision.
∴ e = \(\frac{v_2-v_1}{u_1-u_2}=\frac{0-v_1}{\sqrt{2 g h}-0}=\frac{-v_1}{\sqrt{2 g h}}\)
∴ v1 = -e\(\sqrt{2 g h}\) ……………… (2)
(-) indicates that the sphere rebounds
∴ The height (h1) attained by the sphere after first rebound is
h1 = \(\frac{v_1^2}{2 g}=\frac{(e \sqrt{2 g h})^2}{2 g}\) = e2h
h1 = (e2)1 h ………………… (3)
Similarly we can that velocity attained by the sphere after second rebound.
v2 = -e2 \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) …………………. (4)
and maximum height attained by the sphere after second rebound
h2 = (e2)2 h ………………… (5)
From the (2) and (4) equations
velocity of the sphere rebounds after ‘n’ collisions
vn = en \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
From the (3) and (5) equations, maximum height attained by the sphere after n rebounds hn = (e2)n h

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 7.
Explain the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
The total mechanical energy of the system is conserved if the forces doing work on it are conservative. If some of the forces involved are non-conservative, part of the mechanical energy may get transformed into other forms such as heat, light and sound. However, the total energy of an isolated system does not change, as long as one accounts for all forms of energy. Energy may be transformed from one form to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant. Energy can neither be created, nor destroyed.

Since the universe as a whole may be viewed as an isolated system, the total energy of the universe is constant. If one part of the universe looses energy, another part must gain an equal amount of energy.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Develop the notions of work and kinetic energy and show that it leads to work energy theorem. [A.P. Mar. 17; T.S. Mar. 15, 14]
Answer:
Statement : The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the workdone on it by the net force, i.e., kf – ki = W
Proof : Consider a particle of mass ‘m’ is moving with initial speed ‘u’ to final speed ‘v’. Let ‘a’ be its constant acceleration and S be its distance traversed. The kinematic relation is given by
v2 – u2 = 2as ………………. (1)
Multiplying both sides by \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{2}\), we have 11
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 mas = FS …………….. (2)
Where the last step follows from Newton’s second law.
We can generalise Equation (1) to three dimensions by employing vectors
v2 – u2 = 2 \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}\)
Once again multiplying both sides by \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{2}\), we obtain
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 = m \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}\) – \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}\) …………………. (3)
The above equation provides a motivation for the definitions of work and kinetec energy.
In equation (3), \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 = kf – ki
Where ki, kf are initial and final kinetic energies and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d}}\) = W, where W refers workdone by a force on the body over a certain displacement.
kf – ki = W ……………….. (4)
Equation (4) is also a special case of the work-energy (WE) theorem.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 2.
What are collisions ? Explain the possible types of collisions ? Develop the theory of one dimensional elastic collision. [T.S. Mar. 18]
Answer:
Collisions : A strong interactions between bodies that occurs for a very short interval during which redistribution of momenta occur ignoring the effect of other forces are called collisions.
Collisions are of two types :
i) Elastic collision : The collision in which both momentum and kinetic energy is constant is called elastic collision.
ii) Inelastic collision: The collision in which momentum remains constant but not kinetic energy is called Inelastic collision.
One dimensional elastic collision : Consider two spheres (bodies) which have smooth, non-rotating of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are moving along the straight line joining their centres of mass with initial velocities u1and u2 (u1 > u2). They undergo head on collision and move along the same line after collision with final velocities v1 and v2. These two bodies exert forces on each other during collision.
Hence both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved. According to law of conservation of linear momentum.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 6
From the above equation, in one dimensional elastic collision, the relative velocity of approach before collision is equal to the relative velocity of separation after collision.
From equation (3) u1 – u2 = v2 – v1, v2 = u1 – u2 + v1 ………………… (4)
Sub equation (4) in equation (1) we get
m1 (u1 – v1) = m2 (u1 – u2 + v1 – u2), m1 u1 – m1v1 = m2 u1 – m2 u2 + m2 v1 – m2 u2
m1 u1 – m2 u1 + 2 m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v1 (m1 – m2) u1 + 2 m2 u2 = (m1 + m2) u1
vi = \(\left(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) u_1+\left(\frac{2 m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) u_2\) ………………… (5)
From the equation (4), v1 = v2 – u1 + u2
Sub. this value in equation (1) we get
m1 (u1 – v2 + u1 – u2) = m2 (v2 – u2), m1 u1 – m1 v2 + m1 u1 – m1 u2 = m2 v2 – m2 u2
2m1 u1 + u2 (m2 – m1) = (m2 + m2)v2
v2 = \(\frac{2 m_1 u_1}{\left(m_1+m_2\right)}+\frac{\left(m_2-m_1\right)}{\left(m_1+m_2\right)}\) u2

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
State and prove law of conservation of energy in case of a freely falling body. [AP – Mar. ’18, ’16, ’15, ’13; TS – Mar. ’17, ’16]
Answer:
Statement: “Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. But it can be converted from one form to another form. The total energy of a closed system always remains constant”. This law is called law of conservation of energy.

Proof : In case of freely falling body : A body of mass’m’ is dropped or freely falling at a height ‘H‘ from the ground. The total mechanical energy of the body E = K + U.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 7
Where k = kinetic energy; U = potential energy.
Suppose A, B and C are the points at heights H, h and ground respectively.
At ‘A’ : At the highest point, velocity u = 0
Kinetic energy K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 = 0
Potential energy P.E. = mgH
Total mechanical energy of the body = EA = P.E. + K.E. = mgH + 0
∴ EA = mgH ………………. (1)

At ‘B’: When the body falls from A to B, which is at a height ‘h’ from the ground. The velocity of the body at ‘B’ is VB.
At ‘B’ the body possesses both P.E and K.E
S = H – h
u = 0
a = g
v = vB = ?
vB2 – u2 = 2as
a = g
v = vB = ?
vA2 – 0 = 2g (H – h)
VB = 2g(H – h)
Kinetic energy of the body (K) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mvB2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m 2g(H – h)
K = mg (H – h)
Potential energy (u) = mgh
∴ Total mechanical energy at B = k + u
EB = mg (H – h) + mgH
EB = mgh ……………… (2)

At ‘C’ : When the body reaches the point ‘c’ on the ground. The velocity of the body at ‘c is ‘vc’ can be found by using v2 – u2 = 2as equation.
S = H
u = 0
a = g
v = vc = ?
vc2 – 0 = 2gH
vc2 = 2gH
vc = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gH}}\)
Kinetic energy of the body (k) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mvc2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m 2gH = mgH
Potential energy (u) = 0
Total energy at c = k + u
∴ EC = mgH ………………. (3)
From the above three equations (1), (2) and (3), the mechanical energy of the body remains constant under the action of gravitational force. Hence, law of conservation of energy is proved incase of freely falling body.

Problems

Question 1.
A test tube of mass 10 grams closed with a cork of mass 1 gram contains some ether. When the test tube is heated the cork flies out under the pressure of the ether gas. The test tube is suspended horizontally by a weight less rigid bar of length 5cm. What is the minimum velocity with which the cork should fly out of the tube, so that test tube describing a full vertical circle about the point O. Neglect the mass of ether.
Answer:
Mass of test tube M = 10g; Mass of ether m = 1g ;
Length of rigid bar = radius of circle (r) = 5cm
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 8
∴ r = 5 × 10-2 m, g = 10 ms2
[∴ action = – reaction]
Given the minimum velocity of cork flies out (= -v) (v) = The minimum velocity of test tube right
v = \(\sqrt{5 r g}=\sqrt{5 \times 5 \times 10^{-2} \times 10}\)
= 5 × \(\sqrt{10^{-1}}\) m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 2.
A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute and each bullet travels with a velocity of 600 ms-1. If the mass of each bullet is 5 gm, find the power of the machine gun ? [A.P. – Mar. ’18, ’16; Mar. ’13]
Answer:
Here n = 360; t = 60 sec; V = 600 ms-1; m = 5g = 5 × 10-3 kg; Power,
P = \(\frac{\text { K.E of n} \text { bullets }}{t}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mnV}^2}{t}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times 10^{-3} \times 360 \times 600 \times 600}{60}\)
∴ P = 5400, W = 5.4 KW.

Question 3.
Find the useful power used in pumping 3425 m3 of water per hour from a well 8 m deep to the surface, supposing 40% of the horse power during pumping is wasted. What is the horse power of the engine ?
Answer:
Here V = 3425 m3; d = 103 kg m-3; h = 8m;
g = 9.8ms-2; t = 1 hour = 60 × 60s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 9
166.6 HP [1 hp = 746 Watt]

Question 4.
A pump is required to lift 600 kg of water per minute from a well 25 m deep and to eject it with a speed of 50 ms-1. Calculate the power required to perform the above task ? [Mar. 16 (TS), A.P (Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Here m = 600kg; h = 25m; V = 50ms-1; t = 60s;
Power of the motor,
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{mgh}+\frac{1}{2} m \mathrm{~V}^2}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{m}\left(\mathrm{gh}+\frac{\mathrm{V}^2}{2}\right)}{\mathrm{t}}\)
= \(\frac{600}{60}\left(9.8 \times 25+\frac{50 \times 50}{2}\right)\)
= 10 (245 + 1250) = 14950 = 14.95 KW.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
A block of mass 5 kg initially at rest at the origin is acted on by a force along the X-positive direction represented by F = (20 + 5x)N. Calculate the work done by the force during the displacement of the block from x = 0 to x = 4 m.
Answer:
Given m = 5kg;
F = (20 + 5x)
W = \(\int_{x=0}^{x=4} F d x\)
= \(\int_0^4(20+5 x) d x\)
= \([20 x]_0^4+\left[5 \frac{x^2}{2}\right]_0^4\)
= 20 × 4 + 5 × \(\frac{16}{2}\)
= 120 J.

Question 6.
A block of mass 2.5 kg is sliding down a smooth inclined plane as shown. The spring arranged near the bottom of the inclined plane has a force constant 600 N/m. Find the compression in the spring at the moment the velocity of the block is maximum?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 10
Answer:
Here m = 2.5 kg
µ = 0; K = 600 N/m
Let ‘x’ be the compression of the spring.
According to Newton’s third law, we have
Force due to block on spring
FB = – Restoring force of spring (FR)
In magnitude FB = FR = mg sinθ = Kx
2.5 × 10 × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = 600 × x
⇒ x = \(\frac{15}{600}\)
= 0.025 cm.

Question 7.
A force F = –\(\frac{K}{x^2}\)(x ≠ 0)acts on a particle along the X-axis. Find the work done by the force in displacing the particle from x = C +a to x = +2a. Take K as a positive constant.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 11

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 8.
A force F acting on a particle varies with the position x as shown in the graph. Find the work done by the force in displacing the particle from x = -a to x = +2a.
Answer:
Average force, F = \(\frac{+2 b-b}{2}=\frac{b}{2}\)
⇒ x = -a to x = 2a
W = \(\int_{-a}^{+2 a} F d x=F[x]_a^{+2}=\frac{b}{2}[2 a-(-a)]=\frac{3 a b}{2}\)

Question 9.
From a height of 20m above a horizontal floor, a ball is thrown down with initial velocity 20 m/s. After striking the floor, the ball bounces to the same height from which it was thrown. Find the coefficient of restitution for the collision between the ball and the floor.
Answer:
Here u = 20 mIs; s = h = 20m; g = 10m/s2;
v = u1
using, v2 – u2 = 2as
u12 = 202 = 2 × 10 × 20
u12 = 202 + 400 = 800
∴ u1 = \(\sqrt{800}\)
And v1 = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}=\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 20}=\sqrt{400}\)
Since floor is at rest u2 = 0; v2 = 0
e = \(\frac{v_2-v_1}{u_1-u_2}=\frac{0-\sqrt{400}}{800-0}=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
∴ e = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) […. -ve sign indicates, if rebounds]

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 10.
A Ball falls from a height of 10 m on to a hard horizontal floor and repeatedly bounces. If the coefficient of restitution is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). What is the total distance travelled by the ball before it ceases to rebound ?
Solution:
Given h = 10m; e = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
d = h\(\left[\frac{1+\mathrm{e}^2}{1-\mathrm{e}^2}\right]=10\left[\frac{1+\frac{1}{2}}{1-\frac{1}{2}}\right]=10\left[\frac{\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{1 / 2}\right]\)
∴ d = 30 m

Additional Problems

Question 1.
The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative:
a) Work done by a man ¡n lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
b) Work done by gravitational force in the above case,
c) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane,
d) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
e) Work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Answer:
Workdone W = \(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{S}\) = FS cosθ where θ is smaller angle between force j and displacement \(\vec{S}\).
a) To lift the bucket, force equal to weight of b

b) The bucket moves in a direction opposite to the gravitational force which acts vertically downwards.
θ = 180°
W = FS cos 180° = -FS. It is negative

c) Friction always opposite the relative motion.
∴ θ = 180°, W = FS cos 180° = -FS. It is negative.

d) As the body moves along the direction of applied force θ = 0, W = FS cos 0° = FS. It is positive.

e) The direction of resistive face is opposite to the direction of motion of the bob i.e. θ = 180°. Hence workdone, in this case, is negative.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 2.
A body of mass 2kg initially at rest moves under the action of an applied horizontal force of 7 N on a table with coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1. Compute the
a) Work done by the applied force in 10s,
b) Work done by friction in 10s,
c) Work done by the net force on the body in 10s.
d) Change in kinetic energy of the body in 10s. and interpret your results.
Answer:
Here, m = 2kg, u = 0, F = 7N; µ = 0.1,
W = 2, t = 10s
Acceleration produced by applied force;
a = –\(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{7}{2}\) = 3.5 m/s2
force of friction, f = µR = µmg = 0.1 × 2 × 9.8 = 1.96 N
Retardation produced by friction
a2 = –\(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-1.96}{2}\) = 0.98 m/s2
Net acceleration with which body moves,
a = a1 + a2
= 3.5 – 0.98 = 2.52m/s2
Distance moved by the body in 10 second from
S = Ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2.52 × (10)2 = 126m.
a) Workdone by the applied force = F × S
W1 = 7 × 126 = 882J

b) Workdone by force of friction W2
= -f × s = -1.96 × 126 = 246.9J

c) Workdone by the net force W3 = Net force × distance
= (F – f)s = (7 – 1.96)126 = 635 J.

d) From v = u + at
v = 0 + 2.52 × 10 = 25.2 mS-1
Final K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2 × (25.2)2
= 635J
Initial K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mu2 = 0
∴ Change in K.E = 635 – 0 = 635 J.
This shows that change in K.E of the body is equal to workdone by the net force on the body.

Question 3.
Given in Fig. are examples of some potential energy functions in one dimension. The total energy of the particle is indicated by a cross on the ordinate axis. In each case, specify the regions, if any, in which the particle cannot be found for the given energy. Also, indicate the minimum total energy the particle must have in each case. Think of simple physical contexts for which these potential energy shapes are relevant.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 12
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 13
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 14
Answer:
We know that total energy E = P.E + K.E (or) K.E = E – P.E and K.E can never be negative. The object cannot exist in the region where its K.E would become negative.

  1. For x > a, P.E (v0) > E
    ∴ K.E becomes negative. Hence the object cannot exist in the region x > a.
  2. For x < a and x > b, P.E (v0) > E
    ∴ K.E becomes negative. Hence the object cannot be present in the region x < a and x > b.
  3. Object cannot exist in any region because P.E (v0) > E in every region.
  4. On the same basis, the object cannot exist in the region -b/2 < x < – a/2 and a/2 < x < b/2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 4.
To potential energy function for a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by V(x) = kx2/ 2, where k is the force constant of the oscillator. For k= 0.5 N m-1, the graph of V(x) versus x is shown in Fig. Show that a particle of total energy 1 J moving under this potential must ‘turn back’ when it reaches x = ± 2m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 15
Answer:
At any instant, the total energy of an oscillator is the sum of K.E and P.E i.e.
E = K.E + P.E, E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mu2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx2
The particles turns back at the instant, when its velocity becomes zero i.e. u = 0.
∴ E = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) kx2 as E = 1 Joule and K = \(\frac{1}{2}\) N/m
∴ 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) x2 (or) x2 = 4, x = ± 2m.

Question 5.
Answer the following :
a) The casing of a rocket in flight burns up due to friction. At whose expense is the heat energy required for burning obtained ? The rocket or the atmosphere ?
b) Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on the comet due to the sun is not normal to the comet’s velocity in general. Yet the work done by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero. Why ?
c) An artificial satellite orbiting the earth in very thin atmosphere loses its energy gradually due to dissipation against atmospheric resistance, however small. Why then does its speed increase progressively as it comes closer and closer to the earth ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 16
d) In fig. (i) the man walks 2 m carrying a mass of 15 kg on his hands. In Fig. (ii), he walks the same distance pulling the rope behind him. The rope goes over a pulley, and a mass of 15 kg hangs at its other end. In which case is the work done greater ?
Answer:
a) The total energy of a rocket in a flight depends on its mass i.e. P.E + K.E = mgh + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2. When the casing burns up, its mass decreases. The total energy of the rocket decreases Hence heat energy required for burning is obtained from the rocket itself and not from the atmosphere.

b) This is because gravitational force is a conservative force. Work done by the gravitational force of the sun over a closed path in every complete orbit of the comet is zero.

c) When the artificial satellite orbiting the earth comes closer and closer to the earth, its potential energy decreases as sum of potential energy and kinetic energy is constant, therefore K.E of satellite and hence its velocity goes on increasing. However total energy of satellite decreases a little on account of dissipation against atmospheric resistance.

d) In fig. (a), force is applied on the mass, by the man in vertically upward direction but distance is moved along the horizontal.
∴ θ = 90°, W = FS cos 90° = zero.
In fig. (b), force is applied along the horizontal and the distance moved is also along the horizontal. Therefore v = 0°.
W = FS cosθ = mg × S cos0°
W = 15 × 9.8 × 2 × 1 = 294 Joule.
workdone in 2nd case is greater.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 6.
Underline the correct alternative :
a) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body increases / decreases / remains unaltered.
b) Work done by a body against friction always .results in a loss of its kinetic / potential energy.
c) The rate of change of total momentum of a many-particle system is proportional to the external force / sum of the internal forces on the system.
d) In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision are the total kinetic energy/total linear mometum. total energy of the system of two bodies.
Answer:
a) Potential energy of the body decreases. The conservative force does positive work on a body, when it displaces the body in the direction of force. The body, therefore, approaches the center of force, decreasing x. Hence P.E decreases.

b) Workdone by a body against friction at the expense of its kinetic energy. Hence K.E of the body decreases.

c) Internal forces cannot change the total (or) net momentum of a system. Hence the rate of change of total momentum of many particle system is proportional to the external force on the system.

d) In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision are total linear momentum and total energy of the system of two bodies. The total K.E changes as some energy appears in other forms.

Question 7.
State if each of the following statements is true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
a) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is conserved.
b) Total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external forces on the body are present.
c) Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.
d) In an inelastic collision/the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy of the system.
Answer:
a) False. The total momentum and total energy of the system are conserved and not of each body.
b) False. The external forces on the body may change the total energy of the body.
c) False. Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero only the body is moving under the action of conservative forces (like gravitational (or) electrostatic faces).
It is not zero when the forces are non conservative, e.g. frictional forces etc.
d) True, because in an inelastic collision, some kinetic energy usually changes into some other form of energy.

Question 8.
Answer carefully, with reasons ;
a) In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, is the total kinetic energy conserved during the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact) ?
b) Is the total linear momentum conserved during the short time of an elastic collision of two balls ?
c) What are the answer to (a) and (b) for an inelastic collision ?
d) If the potential energy of two billiard balls depends only on the separation distance between their centres, is the collision elastic or inelastic ? (Note, we are talking here of potential energy corresponding to the force during collision, not gravitational potential energy).
Answer:
a) No, K.E is not conserved during the given elastic collision. K.E. before and after collision is the same. Infact during collision, K.E of the balls gets converted into potential energy.
b) Yes, the total linear momentum is conserved during the short time of an elastic collision of two balls.
c) In an in elastic collision, total K.E is not conserved during collision.
d) The collision is elastic, because the forces involved are conservative.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 9.
A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to
i) t1/2
ii) t
iii) t3/2
iv) t2
Answer:
From v – u + at, v = 0 + at = at
As power, p = F × v = (ma) × at = ma2t
As m and a are constants, therefore, p ∝ t.

Question 10.
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Its displacement in time t is proportional to
i) t1/2
ii) t
iii) t3/2
iv) t2
Answer:
As power, P = force × velocity
∴ P = [MLT-2] [LT-1] = [mL2 T-3]
As P = [mL-2 T-3] = constant
∴ L2 T-3 = constant
∴ L2 ∝ T3 (or) L ∝ T3/2
(or) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}^2}{\mathrm{~T}^3}\) = constant

Question 11.
A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a coordinate system is subject to a constant force F given by F = \(-\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\) N where \(\hat{i}, \hat{j}, \hat{k}\) are unit vectors along the x-, y- and z-axis of the system respectively. What is the work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 4 m along the z-axis ?
Answer:
Here, F = \(-\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\)N
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}=4 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\) (∵ 4m distance is along z-axis)
W = 2; As W = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{S}}\)
∴ W = \((-\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+3 \hat{\mathrm{k}}) \cdot(4 \hat{\mathrm{k}})=12 \hat{\mathrm{k}} \cdot \hat{\mathrm{k}}\) = 12J.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 12.
An electron and a proton are detected in a cosmic ray experiment, the first with kinetic energy 10 keV and the second With 100 keV. Which is faster, the electron or the proton ? Obtain the ratio of their speeds, (electron mass = 9.11 × 10-31 kg, proton mass = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10-19 J).
Answer:
E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) meve2 = 10 × 1.6 × 10-16 ……………… (i)
E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mpvp2 = 100 × 1.6 × 10-16 ……………… (ii)
Divide (i) by (ii) \(\frac{m_v v_v^2}{m_p v_p^2}=\frac{1}{10}\)
\(\frac{v_{\mathrm{e}}}{v_\rho}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{10}} \frac{m \rho}{m_e}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{1.67 \times 10^{-27}}{10 \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31}}}=10^2 \sqrt{\frac{1.67}{91.1}}\) = 13.53

Question 13.
A rain drop of radius 2 mm falls from a height of 500 m above the ground. It falls with decreasing acceleration (due to viscous resistance of the air) until at half its original height, it .attains its maximum (terminal) speed and moves with uniform speed thereafter. What is the work done by the gravita-tional force on the drop in the first and second half of its journey ? What is the work done by the resistive force in the entire journey if its speed on reaching the ground is 10 ms-1 ?
Answer:
Here, r = 2mm = 2 × 10-3m
Distance moved in each half of journey,
s = \(\frac{500}{2}\) = 250 m
Density of water, ρ = 103 kg/m3
Mass of rain drop
= Volume of drop × Density
m = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3 × ρ = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) (2 × 10-3)3 × 103
= 3.35 × 10-5 kg
w = mg × s = 3.35 × 10-5 × 9.8 × 250 = 0.082J
It should be clearly understood that whether the drop moves with decreasing acceleration (or) with uniform speed, work done by the gravitational force on the drop remains the same.
If there were no resistive forces, energy of drop on reaching the ground.
E1 = mgh = 3.35 × 10-5 × 9.8 × 500 = 0.164J
Actual energy, E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3.35 × 10-5 × (10)2 = 1.675 × 10-3 J.
∴ Workdone by the resistive forces,
W = E1 – E2 = 0.164 – 1.675 × 10-3
W = 0.1623 Joule.

Question 14.
A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 m s-1 and angle 30° with the normal and rebounds with the same speed. Is momentum conserved in the collision ? Is the collision elastic or inelastic ?
Answer:
We know that momentum is conserved in all collisions, elastic as well as inelastic. Let us now check if K. E is conserved (or) not.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 17+
If the wall is too heavy, the recoiling molecule produces no velocity in the wall.
If m is mass of the gas molecule and M is mass of wall, then total K.E after collision
E2 = – m(200)2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) M(0)2
E2 = 2 × 104 mJ
Which is the K.E. of the molecule before collision.
[E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m(200)2 = 2 × 104 mJ]
Hence the collision is elastic.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 15.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump ?
Answer:
Here, volume of water = 30 m2, t = 15 min = 15 × 60 = 900s.
height h = 40m, efficiency η = 30%
As density of water = ρ = 103 kg /m3
∴ Mass of water pumped, m = volume x density = 30 × 103 kg
Actual power consumed (or) out power
P0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{mgh}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
= \(\frac{30 \times 10^3 \times 9.8 \times 40}{900}\) = 10370 watt.
If Pi is input power (required), then as η = \(\frac{P_0}{P_i}\)
∴ Pi =\(\frac{P_0}{\eta}=\frac{10370}{\frac{30}{100}}\) = 43567 watt = 43.567 KW.

Question 16.
Two identical ball bearings in contact with each other and resting on a frictionless table are hit head-on by another ball bearing of the same mass moving initially with a speed V. If the collision ¡s elastic, which of the following (Fig.) is a possible result after collision ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 18
Answer:
Let m be the mass of each ball bearing
Before collision, total K.E of the system =
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mV2 + 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV2
After collision K.E of the system is
Case I, E1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2m) (V/2)2 = \(\frac{1}{4}\) mV2
Case II, E2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV2
Case III, E3 = – (3m) (V/3)2 = \(\frac{1}{6}\)mV2
We observe that is conserved only in Case II. Hence the Case II is the only possibility.

Question 17.
The bob A of a pendulum released from 30° to the vertical hits another bob B of the same mass at rest on a tables as shown in Fig. How high does the bob A rise after the collision ? Neglect the size of the bobs and assume the collision to be elastic.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 19
Answer:
The bob A shall not rise. This is because when two bodies of same mass undergo an elastic collision, their velocities are interchanged. After collision, ball a will come to rest and the ball B would move with the velocity of A.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 18.
The bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal position, If the length of the pendulum is 1.5 m, what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point, given that it dissipated 5% of its initial energy against air resistance ?
Answer:
Here, h = 1.5m, V = ?
Energy dissipated = 5%
Taking B as the lowest position of the bob, its potential energy at B is zero. At the horizontal position, A total potential energy of the bob is mgh.
In going from A to B, P.E of the bob is converted into K.E
Energy conserved = 95% (mgh)
If V is velocity acquired at B, then K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
= \(\frac{95}{100}\)mgh
V = \(\sqrt{\frac{95}{100} \times 2 \mathrm{gh}}=\sqrt{\frac{19}{20} \times 2 \times 9.8 \times 1.5}\)
= 5.285ms-1.

Question 19.
A trolley of mass 300 kg carrying a sandbag of 25 kg is moving uniformly with a speed of 27 km/ h oh a frictionless track. After a while, sand starts leaking out of a hole on the floor of the trolley at the rate of 0.05 kg s-1. What is the speed of the trolley after the entire sand bag is empty ?
Answer:
As the trolley carrying the sane bag is moving uniformly, therefore, external force on the system = zero.
When the sand leaks out, it does not lead to the application of any external force on the trolley. Hence the speed of the trolley shall not change.

Question 20.
A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = ax3/2 where a = 5m-1/2 s-1. What is the workdone by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m ?
Answer:
Here, m = 0.5 kg; v = ax3/2, a = 5m-1/2 s-1,
w = ?
Intial vel. at x = 0, v1 = a × 0 =0
Final vel, at x = 2, v2 = a23/2 = 5 × 23/2
Workdone = increase in K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m
(v22 – v12), W = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.5 [(5 × 23/2)2) – 0]
= 50 J

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 21.
The blades of a windmill sweep out a circle of area A.
(a) If the wind flows at a velocity v perpendicular to the circle, what is the mass of the air passing through it in time t ?
(b) What is the kinetic energy of the air ?
(c) Assume that the windmill converts 25% of the wind’s energy into electrical energy and that A = 30 m2, v = 36 km/h and the density of air is 1.2 kg m-3. What is the electrical power produced ?
Answer:
a) Volume of wind flowing /sec = AV
Mass of wind flowing / sec = AVρ
Mass of air passing in t sec = AVρt

b) K.E of air = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (AVρt)
v2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) av3ρt.

c) Electrical energy produced = \(\frac{25}{100}\)
K.E of air = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × Av3ρt
Electrical power = \(\frac{1}{8} \frac{A v^3 \rho t}{t}=\frac{1}{8} A v^3 \rho t\)
P = \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 30 × (10)3 × 1.2 = 4500 watt
= 4.5 Kw.

Question 22.
A person trying to lose weight (dieter) lifts a 10kg mass, one thousand times, to a height of 0.5 m ech time. Assume that the potential energy lost each time she lowers the mass is dissipated,
(a) How much work does she do against the gravitational force ?
(b) Fat supplies 3.8 × 107J of energy per kilo-gram which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. How much fat will the dieter use up ?
Answer:
Here, m = 10 kg, h = 0.5 m, n = 1000
a) Workdone against gravitational force W = n(mgh)
= 1000 × (10 × 9.8 × 0.5 = 49000 J

b) Mechanical energy supplied by 1 kg of fat
= 3.8 × 10 × \(\frac{20}{100}\) = 0.76 × 107 J/kg
∴ Fat used up by the dieter
= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~kg}}{0.76 \times 10^7}\) = 4000 = 6.45 × 10-3 kg.

Question 23.
A family uses 8 kW of power,
(a) Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface at an average rate of 200 W per square meter. If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful electrical energy, how large an area is needed to supply 8 kW ?
(b) Compare this area to that of the roof of a typical house.
Answer:
Let area be A’ square meter
∴ Total power = 200A
Useful electrical energy produced/sec = \(\frac{20}{100}\)
(200A) = 8KW = 40A = 8000 (watt)
Therefore, A = \(\frac{8000}{40}\) = 200 sq.m
This area is comparable to the roof of a large house of 250 sq.mt.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 24.
A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 ms-1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by means of thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the amount of heat produced in the block.
Answer:
Here m1 = 0.012kg. u1 = 70 m/s m2 = 0.4 kg, u2 = 0
As the bullet comes to rest w.r. to the block, the two behave as one body. Let v be the velocity acquired by the combination. Applying principle of conservation of linear momentum, (m1 + m2)v
= m1u1 + m2u2 = m1u1
V = \(\frac{m_1 u_1}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{0.012 \times 70}{0.012+0.4}=\frac{0.84}{0.412}\)
= 2.04 m/s.
Let the block rise to a height h.
RE of combination = K.E. of the combination
(m1 + m2)gh = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (m1 + m2)v2
h = \(\frac{v^2}{2 g}=\frac{2.04 \times 2.04}{2 \times 9.8}\) = 0.212m.
For calculating heat produced. We calculate energy lost (W). where
W = intial K.E of bullet – final K.E of combination
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1u12 \(\frac{1}{2}\) (m1 + m2)v2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.012 (70)2 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (0.412) (2.04)2
W = 29.4 – 0.86 = 28.54 Joule.
∴ heat produd. H = \(\frac{W}{j}=\frac{28.54}{4.2}\) = 6.8 cal.

Question 25.
A 1kg block situated on a rough incline is connected to a spring of spring constant 100 N m-1 as shown in Fig. The block is released from rest with the spring in the unstretched position. The block moves 10 cm down the incline before coming to rest. Find the coefficient of friction between the block and the incline. Assume that the spring has a negligible mass and the pulley is frictionless.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 20
Answer:
From Fig.
R = mg cosθ
F = μR = μmg cosθ
Net force on the block down the incline
= mg sin θ – F = mg sin θ – μ mg cos θ
= mg (sin – μ cos θ)
Distanced moved, x = 10cm = 0.1m.
In equilibrium, work done = P.E of streched spring
mg (sin θ – μ cos θ) x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Kx2
2mg (sin θ – μ cos θ) = Kx
2 × 1 × 10 (sin 37° – μ cos 37°) = 100 × 0.1
20(0.601 – μ 0.798) = 10
∴ μ = 0.126

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 26.
A bob of mass 0.3 kg falls from the ceiling of an elevator moving down with an uniform speed of 7 ms-1. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of the elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound. What is the heat produced by the impact ? Would your answer be different if the elevator were stationary ?
Answer:
Here, m 0.3kg, v = 7 m/s h = length of elevator = 3m
As relative of the bob w.r.t elevator is zero, therefore, in the impact, only potential energy of the fall is converted into heat energy.
Amount of heat produced = P.E lost by the bob = mgh = 0.3 × 9.8 × 3 = 8.82 J.
The answer shall not be different, if the elevator were stationary as the bob too in that cause would start from stationary position, i.e. relative velocity of the ball w.r.t elevator would continue to be zero.

Question 27.
A trolley of mass 200 kg moves with a uniform speed of 36 km / h on a frictionless track. A child of mass 20 kg runs on the trolley from one end to the other (10 m away) with a speed of p m s-1 relative to the trolley in a direction opposite to the its motion and jumps out of the trolley. What is the final speed of the trolley ? Flow much has been trolley moved from the time the child begins to run ?
Answer:
Here, mass of trolley, m1 = 200 kg
speed of the trolley v = 36 km/h = 10m/s
mass of the child, m2 = 20 kg
Before the child starts running, momentum of the system.
P1 = (m1 + m2)v = (200 + 20)10
= 2200kg ms-1.
∴ Momentum of the system when the child is running
P2 = 200v1 + 20 (v1 – 4) = 220v1 – 80
As no external force is applied on the system.
∴ P2 = P1
220v1 – 80 = 2200
220v1 = 2200 + 80 = 2280
v1 = \(\frac{2280}{220}\) = 10.36 ms-1
Time taken by the child to run a distance of 10m over the trolley, t = \(\frac{10 \mathrm{~m}}{4 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}}\) = 2.5 s
Distance moved by the trolley in this time = Velocity of trolley × time = 10.36 × 2.5 = 25.9 m

Question 28.
Which of the following potential energy curves in Fig. cannot possibly describe the elastic collision of two billiard balls ? Here r is the distance between centres of the balls.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 21
Answer:
The potential energy of a system of two masses varies inversely as the distance (r) between them i.e,
v(r) ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{r}}\).
When the two billiard balls touch each other, P.E become zero i.e. at r = R + R = 2R;
v(r) = 0. Out of the given graphs, curve (v) only satisfies these two conditions.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 29.
Consider the decay of a free neutron at rest : n → p + e Show that the two-body decay of this type must necessarily give an electron of fixed energy and, therefore, cannot account for the observed continuous energy distribution in the β-decay of a neutron or a nucleus (Fig.).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 22
(Note : The simple result of this exercise was one among the several arguments advanced by W. Pauli to predict the existence of a third particle in the decay products of β-decay. This particle is known as neutrino. We now know that it is a particle of intrinsic spin 1/2 (like e-, p or n), but is neutral, and either masslessor having an extremely small mass (compared to the mass of electron) and which interacts very weakly with matter. The correct decay process of neutron is: n → p + e- + v
Answer:
In the decay process, n → p + e
energy of electrons is equal to (∆m)c2
Where ∆m = mass defect = mass of neutron – mass of proton and electron;
which is fixed. Therefore, two body decay of this type cannot explain the observed continuous energy distribution in the β-decay of a neutron or a nucleus.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Find the angle between force F = \((3 \bar{i}+4 \bar{J}-5 \bar{k})\) unit and displacement d = \((3 \bar{i}+4 \bar{J}-5 \bar{k})\) unit. Also find the projection of F on d.
Answer:
F.d = Fxdx + Fydy + Fzdz = 3(5) + 4(4) + (-5)
(3) = 16 unit
Hence F.d = F d cos θ = 16 unit
Now F.F = F2 – Fx2 + Fy2 + Fz2
= 9 + 16 + 25 = 50 unit
and d.d = d2 = dx2 + dy2 + dz2
= 25 + 16 + 9 = 50 unit
∴ cosθ = \(\frac{16}{\sqrt{50} \sqrt{50}}=\frac{16}{50}\) = 0.32
= θ = cos-1 0.32.

Question 2.
It is well known that a raindrop falls under the influence of the downward gravitational force and the opposing resistive force. The latter is known to be proportional to the speed of the drop but is otherwise undetermined. Consider a drop of mass 1.00 g falling from a height 1.00 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50.0 ms-1. (a) What is the work done by the gravitational force? What is the work done by the unknown resistive force?
Answer:
(a) The change in kinetic energy of the drop is
∆k = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 – 0
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10-3 × 50 × 50 = 1.25 J
where we have assumed that the drop is initially at rest.
Assuming that g is a constant with a value 10 m/s2, the work done by the gravitational force is,
Wg = mgh = 10-3 × 10 × 10-3 = 10.0 J

(b) From the work-energy theorem
∆K = Wg + Wr
Where Wr is the work done by the resistive force on the raindrop. Thus
Wr = ∆K – Wg = 1.25 – 10 = -8.75 J in negative.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 3.
A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10 m. During this process, the force on the cycle due to the road is 200 N and is directly opposed to the motion,
(a) How much work does the road do on the cycle ?
(b) How much work does the cycle do on the road ?
Answer:
Work done on the cycle by the road is the work done by the stopping (frictional) force on the cycle due to the road.
(a) The stopping force and the displacement make an angle of 180° (π rad) with each other.
Thus, work done by the road,
Wr = Fd cosθ = 200 × 10 × cos π
= -2000 J
It is this negative work that brings the cycle to a halt in accordance with WE theorem.

(b) From Newton’s Third Law an equal and opposite force acts on the road due to the cycle. Its magnitude is 200 N. However, the road, undergoes no displacement. Thus work done by cycle on the road is zero.

Question 4.
In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fires a bullet of mass 50.0g with speed 200 ms-1 (Bullet of mass = 5 × 10-2, Bullet of speed = 200; Bullet of K(J) = 103; on soft plywood of thickness 2.00 cm. The bullet emerges with only 10% of its initial kinetic energy. What is the emergent speed of the bullet ?
Answer:
The initial kinetic energy of the bullet is mv2 / 2 = 1000 J. It has a final kinetic energy of 0.1 × 1000 = 100 J. If vf is the emergent speed of the bullet,
\(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2f = 100 J
vf = \(\frac{\sqrt{2 \times 100 \mathrm{~J}}}{0.05 \mathrm{~kg}}\) = 63.2 ms-1
The speed is reduced by approximately 68% (not 90%).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 5.
A woman pushes a trunk on a railway platform which has a rough surface. She applies a force of 100 N over a distance of 10 m. Thereafter, she gets progressively tired and her applied force reduces linearly with distance to 50 N. The total distance through which the trunk has been moved is 20 m. Plot the force applied by the woman and the frictional force, which is 50 N versus displacement. Calculate the work done by the two forces over 20m.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 23
Plot of the force F applied by the woman and the opposing frictional force f versus displacement.
The plot of the applied force is shown in Fig. At x = 20 m, F = 50 N (≠ 0). We are given that the frictional force f is |f| = 50N. It opposes motion and acts in a direction opposite to F. It is therefore, shown on the negative side of the force axis.
The work done by the woman is
WF → area of the rectangle ABCD + area of the trapezium CEID
WF = 1000 × 10 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)(100 + 50) ×10
= 1000 + 750 = 1750 J
The work done by the frictional force is
Wf → area of the rectangle AGHI
Wf → (-50) × 20 = -1000 J
The area on the negative side of the x- axis has a negative sign.

Question 6.
A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of length L. It is imparted a horizontal velocity v0 at the lowest point A such that it completes a semi circular trajectory in the vertical plane with the string becoming slack only on reaching the topmost point, C. This is shown in Fig. Obtain an expression for (i) v0 (ii) the speeds at points B and C; (iii) the ratio of the kinetic energies (KB/K) at B and C. Comment on the nature of the trajectory of the bob after it reaches the point C.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 24
Answer:
Thus, at A:
E = \(\frac{1}{2} {\mathrm{mv}_0^2}\) ………………… (1)
TA – mg = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}_0^2}{\mathrm{~L}}\) [Newtons Second Law]
where TA is the tension in the string at A. At the highest point C, the string slackens, as the tension in the string (Tc) becomes zero.
E = – \(\frac{1}{2} {\mathrm{mv}_c^2}\) + 2mgL ………………… (2) .
mg = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}_c^2}{\mathrm{~L}}\) [Newtons Second law] ……………… (3)
where vc is the speed at C. From equations (2) & (3)
E = \(\frac{5}{2}\)mgL
Equating this to the energy at A
\(\frac{5}{2}\) mgL = \(\frac{m}{2} v_0^2\) or, v0 = \(\sqrt{5 \mathrm{gL}}\)

(ii) It is clear from Equation (3)
vc = \(\sqrt{ \mathrm{gL}}\)
At B, the energy is
E = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_B^2\) + mgL
Equating this to the energy at A and empLoying the result from (i),
namely v02 = 5gL
\(\frac{1}{2} m v_B^2+m g L=\frac{1}{2} m v_0^2\)
= \(\frac{5}{2}\)mgl ∴ vB = \(\sqrt{3\mathrm{gL}}\)

(iii) The ratio of the kinetic energies at Band C is :
\(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{C}}}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{B}}^2}{\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{c}}^2}=\frac{3}{1}\)
At point C, the string becomes slack and the velocity of the bob is horizontal and to the left.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 7.
To simulate car accidents, auto manufactures study the collisions of moving cars with mounted springs of different spring constants. Consider a typical simulation with a car of mass 1000 kg moving with a speed 18.0 km / h on a smooth road and colliding with a horizontally mounted spring of spring constant 6.25 × 103 N m1. What is the maximum compression of the spring ?
Answer:
At maximum compression the kinetic energy of the car is converted entirely into the potential energy of the spring.
The kinetic energy of the moving car is 11
K = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 103 × 5 × 5
K = 1.25 × 104 J
where we have converted 18 km h-1 to 5ms-1 [It is useful to remember that 36 km h-1 = 10 ms-1]. At maximum compression xm, the potential energy. V of the spring is equal to the kinetic energy K of the moving car from the principle of conservation of mechanical energy.
V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) K xm2 = 1.25 × 104 J
We obtain xm = 2.00 m

Question 8.
Consider example 8 taking the coefficient of friction, μ, to be 0.5 and calculate the maximum compression of the spring.
Answer:
In presence of friction, both the spring force and the frictional force act so as to oppose the compression of the spring as shown in Fig.
We invoke the work-energy theorem, rather than the conservation of mechanical energy.
The change in kinetic energy is
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power 25
∆K = Kf – Ki = 0 – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2
The work done by the net force is
W = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Kxm2 – μm g xm
Equating we have
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)K xm2 + μm g xm
Now μmg = 0.5 × 103 × 10 = 5 × 103 N
(taking g = 10.0 ms-2]. After rearranging the above equation we obtain the following quadratic equation in the unknown xm.
K xm2 + 2μm gxm – mv2 = 0
xm = \(\frac{-\mu m g+\left[\mu^2 m^2 g^2+m k v^2\right]^{1 / 2}}{k}\)
where we take the positive square root since xm is positive. Putting in numerical values we obtain
xm = 1.35 m
which, as expected, is less than the result in example 7
If the two forces on the body consist of a conservative force Fc and a non- conservative force Fnc, the conservation of mechanical energy formula will have to be modified. By the WE theorem
But Hence, (Fc + Fnc) ∆x = ∆K
Fc ∆x = ∆V
∆ (K + V) = Fnc ∆x
∆E = Fnc ∆x
where E is the total mechanical energy. Over the path this assumes the form Ef – Ei = Wnc
Where Wnc is the total work done by the non-conservative forces over the path. Note that unlike the conservative force. Wnc depends on the particular path i to f.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 9.
Examine express
(a) The energy required to break one bond in DNA in eV(1.6 × 10-19J);
(b) The kinetic energy of an air molecule (10-21J) in eV;
(c) The daily in take of a human adult in kilocalories (107).
Answer:
(a) Energy required to break one bond of DNA is \(\frac{10^{-20} \mathrm{~J}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{eV}}\) ; 0.06 eV
Note 0.1 eV = 100 meV (100 millielectron volt).

(b) The kinetic energy of an air molecule is
\(\frac{10^{-21} \mathrm{~J}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{eV}}\); 0.0062 eV
This is the same as 6.2 meV.

(c) The average human consumption in a day
is \(\frac{10^7 \mathrm{~J}}{4.2 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{kcal}}\); 2400 kcaL

Question 10.
An elevator can carry a maximum load of 1800 kg (elavator + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 2ms-1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 4000 N. Determine the minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator in watts as well as in horse power.
Answer:
The downward force on the elevator is F = mg + Ff = (1800 × 10) + 4000 = 22000 N
The motor must supply enough power to balance this force. Hence,
P = F.v = 22000 × 2 = 44000 W = 59 hp

Question 11.
Slowing down of neutrons : In a nuclear reactor of high speed (typically 107ms-1) must be slowed to 103 ms-1 so that it can have a high probability of interacting with isotope \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) and causing it to fission. Show that a neutron can lose most of its kinetic energy in an elastic collision with a light nuclei like deuterium or carbon which has a mass of only a few times the neutron mass. The material making up the light nuclei, usually heavy water (D2O) or graphite, is called a moderator.
Answer:
The initial kinetic energy of the neutron is
K1i = \(\frac{1}{2}\) m1 v1i2
While its final kinetic energy from
V1f = \(\frac{\left(m_1-m_2\right)}{m_1+m_2}\) v1i2
K1f = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m1 v12f = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m1 \(\left(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right)^2\) v1i2
The fractional kinetic energy lost is
f1 = \(\frac{K_{1 f}}{k_{1i}}\left(\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right)^2\)
while the fractional kinetic energy gained by the moderating nuclei K2f/ K1i is f2 = 1 – f1
elastic collision = \(\frac{4 m_1 m_2}{\left(m_1+m_2\right)^2}\)
One canalso verify this result by substituting from
v2f = \(\frac{2 m_1 v_1i}{m_1+m_2}\)
For deuterium m2 = 2m1 and we obtain f1 = 1/9 while f2 = 8/9. Almost 90% of the neutron’s energy is transferred to deuterium. For carbon f1 = 71.6% and f2 = 28.4%. In practice, however, this number is smaller since head-on collisions are rare.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Question 12.
Consider the collision depicted in Fig. to be between two billiard balls with equal masses m1 = m2. The first bail is called the cue while the second bail is called the target. The billiard player wants to ‘sink’ the target ball in a corner pocket, which is at an angle θ2 = 37°. Assume that the collision is elastic and that friction and rotational motion are not important. Obtain θ1.
Answer:
From momentum conservation, since the masses are equal
v1i = v1f + v2f
(or) v1i2 = (v1f + v2f). (v1f + v2f)
= v1f2 + V2f2 + 2v1fv2fcos (θ1 + 37°) …………….. (1)
Since the collision is elastic and m1 = m2 it follows from conservation of kinetic energy that
v1i2= v1f2 + v2f2 ………………. (2)
Comparing equations (1) and (2), we get
cos (θ1 + 37°) = 0
or θ1 +37° = 90°
Thus, θ1 = 53°
This proves the following results : When two equal masses undergo a glancing elastic collision with one of them at rest, after the collision, they will move at right angles to each other.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 5th Lesson Laws of Motion Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 5th Lesson Laws of Motion

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is inertia? What gives the measure of inertia? [T.S. Mar. 17]
Answer:
The resistance of the body to change its state of rest the state of uniform motion in a straight line is called inertia of the body.
Acceleration = \(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Mass }}\)
∴ The more the mass, the less acceleration and the more inertia. The mass of a body is a quantitative measure of its inertia.

Question 2.
According to Newton’s third law, every force is accompanied by an equal and opposite force. How can a movement ever take place?
Answer:
Because both action and reaction are taking place on different bodies.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 3.
When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun gives a kick in the backward direction. Explain. [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Due to law of conservation of momentum, Recoil of the gun V = \(\frac{\mathrm{mu}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Where M – mass of the gun; m = mass of the bullet; u = velocity of the bullet

Question 4.
Why does a heavy rifle not recoil as strongly as a light rifle using the same cartridges ?
Answer:
Recoil of the Gun V = \(\frac{\mathrm{mu}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Due to heavy mass of rifle the recoil is less.

Question 5.
If a bomb at . _st explodes into two pieces, the pieces must travel in opposite directions. Explain. [T.S. Mar. 16, 15]
Answer:
According to law of conservation of momentum,
Mu = m1v1 + m2v2
Initially the bomb is at rest u = 0
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
or m1v1 – m2v2
(Negative sign indicates that the pieces must travel in opposite direction)

Question 6.
Define force. What are the basic forces in nature ?
Answer:
The force is on which changes or tends to change the state of rest or motion of a body. Basic forces :

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Electromagnetic force
  3. Nuclear force
  4. Weak interaction force

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 7.
Can the coefficient of friction be greater than one ?
Answer:
Yes, coefficient of friction may be greater than one. In some particular cases it is possible. They are

  1. Due to increase the inner molecular attractive forces between surfaces when the contact surfaces are highly polished.
  2. When the contact surfaces of the bodies are inter locking the coefficient friction may be greater than one.

Question 8.
Why does the car with a flattened tyre stop sooner than the one with inflated tyres ?
Answer:
Flattened deforms more than the inflated tyre. Due to greater deformation of the type rolling friction is large nence it stops soon.

Question 9.
A horse has to pull harder during the start of the motion than later. Explain. [Mar. 13]
Answer:
We know the limiting frictional force is greater than kinetic frictional force. For starting motion of the cart, the limiting friction is to be overcome. Once motion is set, frictional force reduces. Therefore, the horse has to pull harder during starting of the cart.

Question 10.
What happens to the coefficient of friction if the weight of the body is doubled? [A.P. – Mar. 16]
Answer:
If weight of a body is doubled, coefficient of friction does not change. Coefficient of friction is independent of normal reaction. If weight is doubled, normal reaction doubled and correspondingly frictional force doubled. So, coefficient of friction does not change.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
A stone of mass 0.1 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force on the stone
(a) during its upward motion.
(b) during the downward motion.
(c) at the highest point, where it momentarily comes to rest.
Answer:
Given that, mass of stone, m = 0.1 kg, g = 9.8 ms-2.
a) During upward motion: Magnitude of net force on the stone,
F = |-mg|; F = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N.
Direction of net force is in upward direction.

b) During downward motion: Magnitude of net force on the stone,
F = ma = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N.
Direction of net force is in downward direction.

c) At the heighest point : Magnitude of net force, F = mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98N..
At highest point of stone, direction is indeterminate.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
Define the terms momentum and impulse. State and explain the law of conservation of linear momentum. Give examples.
Answer:
Momentum : The product of mass and velocity of a body is called momentum momentum p = mv .
Impulse : The product of force and time that produces finite change in momentum of the body is called impulse.
Impulse (I) = Force × time duration = mat = \(m \frac{(v-u)}{t} t\)
= (mv – mu)
Law of conservation of linear momentum : The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting particles remains constant it there is no resultant external force acting on it.

Explanation : Consider two smooth, non-rotating spheres of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2). Let u1 and u2 be their initial velocities. Let v1 and v2 be final velocities after head on collision. According to law of conservation of linear momentum, we have
Momentum of the system before collision = Momentum of the system after collision.
t.e., m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
Examples :

  1. Motion of a Rocket
  2. Bullet-Gun motion

Question 3.
Why are shock absorbers used in motor cycles and cars ?
Answer:
When a scooter or a car moves on a rough road it receives an impulse due to the Jerkey motion. In case the shockers are used in the vehicle, the time of impact increases, and decreases the impulsive force, due to increased value of the time of impact the force of impact is reduced. So it saves the vehicle and its occupants from experiencing reverse jerks.

Question 4.
Explain the terms limiting friction, dynamic friction and rolling friction.
Answer:
Limiting friction : The maximum value of static friction is called “Limiting friction”.
It is denoted by FL = Fs(max) [∵ Fs ≤ μsN]
Dynamic friction (Kinetic friction) : The resistance encountered by a sliding body on a surface is called kinetic or dynamic friction Fk.
If the applied force overcomes the limiting friction and sets the body into motion. Then motion of the body is resisted by another friction called “Dynamic friction” or “Kinetic friction”.

Rolling friction : ‘The resistance encountered by a rolling body on a surface is called “Rolling friction”.
If a wheel or a cylinder or a spherical body like a marble rolls on horizontal surface, the speed of rolling gradually decreases and it finally stops.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of friction. [T.S., A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Advantages of friction :

  1. Safe walking on the floor, motion of vehicles etc., are possible only due to friction.
  2. Nails, screws are driven into walls (or) wooden surfaces due to friction.
  3. Friction helps the fingures hold the things (or) objects like pen, pencil and water tumbler etc.
  4. Speed running vehicles etc. can be stopped suddenly when friction is present, otherwise accidents become large. Due to friction vehicles move on the roads without slipping and they can be stopped.
  5. The mechanical power transmission of belt drive is possible due to friction.

Disadvantages of friction:

  1. Due to friction there is large amount of power loss in machines and engines.
  2. Due to friction wear and tear of the machines increases and reducing their life.
  3. Due to friction some energy gets converted into heat which goes as waste.

Question 6.
Mention the methods used in decrease friction [A.P. Mar. 18; T.S. Mar. 16, Mar. 14]
Answer:

  1. Polishing : By polishing the surfaces of contact, friction can be reduced.
  2. Bearings : The rolling friction.is less than the sliding friction hence free wheels of a cycle, motor
    car, dynamos etc., are provided with ball bearings to reduce friction. Bearings convert sliding motion into rolling motion.
  3. Lubricants: The lubricant forms a thin layer between surfaces of contact. It reduces the friction. In light vehicles or machines, oils like “three in one” are used as lubricants. In heavy machines greasure is used. In addition to this they guard the mechanical parts from over heating.
  4. Streamlining : Automobiles and aeroplanes are streamlined to reduce the friction due to air.

Question 7.
State the laws of rolling friction.
Answer:
Laws of friction – rolling friction :

  1. The smaller the area of contact, the lesser will be the rolling friction.
  2. The larger the radius of the rolling body, the lesser will be the rolling friction.
  3. The rolling friction is directly proportional to the normal reaction.
    If FR is the rolling friction and ‘N’ is the normal reaction at the contact, then FR ∝ N
    FR = μRN; where μR is the coefficient of rolling friction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 8.
Why is pulling the lawn roller preferred in pushing it ?
Answer:
Pulling of lawn roller : Let a lawn roller be pulled on a horizontal road by a force ‘F, which makes an angle θ with the horizontal, to the right as shown in the figure. The weight of the body “mg” acts vertically downwards.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 1
Let the force ‘F’ be resolved into two mutually perpendicular components F sin θ, vertically upwards and F cos θ horizontally along the road.
∴ The normal reaction N = mg – F sin θ
Then the frictional force acting towards left is FR = μRN, where μR is the coefficient of rolling friction between he roller and the road, or FR= μR (mg – F sin θ)
∴ The net pulling force on roller is P = F cos θ – FR = F cos θ – (μR mg – F sin θ)
or P = F(cos θ + μR sin θ) – μR mg ………………(1)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 2
Pushing of lawn roller : When a lawn roller is pushed by a force ‘F1, which makes an angle ‘θ’ with the horizontal, the component of force acting vertically downwards is F sin θ. The horizontal component F cos θ pushes the roller to the right as shown in figure.
The weight ‘mg’ of the lawn roller acts vertically downwards. Therefore the normal reaction N of the surface on the roller
N = mg + F sin θ
Then the frictional force acting towards left.
FR = μRN = μR (mg + F sin θ)
The net pushing force on roller is
P’ = F cos θ – FR = F cos θ – μR (mg + F sin θ)
or P’ = F(cos θ – μR sin θ) – μR mg ……………… (2)
From equations (1) and (2) that it is easier to pull than push a lawn roller.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
a) State Newton’s second law of motion. Hence derive the equation of motion F = ma from it. [T.S. Mar. 18; A.P. Mar. 16, Mar. 13]
b) A body is moving along a circular path such that its speed always remains constant. Should there be a force acting on the body ?
Answer:
a) Newton’s Second of motion : “The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the external force applied and takes place in the same direction”.
To show F = ma : Let a body of mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity ‘v’ under the action of an external force F in the direction of velocity.
Momentum ‘P’ of a body is the product of the mass and velocity V.
∴ P = mv ……………… (1)
According to Newton’s second law of motion, we have
\(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) ∝ F, where F = external force
(or)F = K\(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) ………………. (2)
From equations (1) and (2) we have
F = \(K \frac{d(m v)}{d t}=K \cdot m \frac{d v}{d t}\)
= Kma …………………. (3)
Since the rate of change of velocity \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) is the acceleration ‘a’ of the body.
In SI system the unit of force is Newton and is defined as that force which when acting on a body of mass 1 kg produces in it an acceleration of 1 ms-2.
i.e., from equation (3),
If F = 1, m = 1 and a = 1
we get K = 1
Hence F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dx}}\) = ma .
∴ F = ma

b) Suppose a body is moving along a circular part though its speed always remains constant its velocity changes at every point and resultant force acts on the body.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
a) Define angle of friction and angle of repose. Show that angle of friction is equal to angle of repose for a rough inclined place.
Answer:
Angle of friction : The angle of friction is defined as the angle made by the resultant of the normal reaction and the limiting friction with the normal reaction is called angle of friction.

Angle of repose : The angle of repose is defined as the angle of inclination of a plane with respect to horizontal for which the body will be in equilibrium on the inclined plane is called angle of repose.

Angle of friction is equal to angle of repose for a rough inclined plane : Let us consider a body of mass’m1 on a rough inclined plane. The angle of inclination of the rough surface is ‘θ’. By increasing the angle of inclination at one end, the body tends to slide on the surface. Then the angle of inclination ’0′ is called angle of repose.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 3
The weight (mg) of the body resolved into two components, the component mg cos 0 acts perpendicular to the inclined surface, which is equal to normal reaction ‘N‘.
i.e., N = mg cos θ ……………. (1)
The other component mg sin θ acts parallel to inclined plane and opposite to the frictional force ‘f’.
fs = my sin θ ……………… (2)
From \(\frac{(2)}{(1)} \Rightarrow \frac{f_s}{N}=\frac{m g \sin \theta}{m g{con} \theta}\)
= \(\frac{f_s}{N}\) = tan θ = µs
∴ µs = tan θ …………………. (3)
when ‘α’ is angle of friction then from the definition of co-efficient of static friction,
µs = tan α ………………… (4)
from (3) and (4)
⇒ tan θ = tan α
θ = α
Hence angle of friction is equal to angle of repose.

b) A block of mass 4 kg is resting on a rough horizontal plane and is about to move when a horizontal force of 30 N is applied on it. If g = 10 m/s2. Find the total contact force exerted by the plane on the block.
Solution:
Given m = 4kg
F = 30 N
g = 10 ms-2
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{30}{4}\) = 7.5 ms-2
µ = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{g}}=\frac{7.5}{10}=\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ Contact force = Frictional force
= µ mg
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 4 × 10 = 30 N.

Problems

Question 1.
The linear momentum of a particle as a function of time t is given by p = a + bt, where a and b are positive constants. What is the force acting on the particle ?
Answer:
Linear momentum of a particle p = a + bt
Force F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)(a + bt) = 0 + b
∴ F = b

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
Calculate the time needed for a net force of 5 N to change the velocity of a 10 kg mass by 2 m/s.
Answer:
F = 5N, m = 10kg; (v-u) = 2m s-1, t = ?
F = \(m \frac{(v-u)}{t} \Rightarrow 5=\frac{10 \times 2}{t}\)
∴ t = 4s.

Question 3.
A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward from the ground and reaches a height h before momentarily coming to rest. If g is acceleration due to gravity. What is the impulse received by the ball due to gravity force during its flight ? (neglect air resistance).
Answer:
mass = m
Initial velocity of a ball to reach h is,
u = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 4
On return journey, velocity of a ball to reach the ground, v = –\(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
Impluse I = m (u – v) = m [\(\sqrt{2 g h}\) – (-\(\sqrt{2 g h}\))]
= m 2 \(\sqrt{2 g h}\) = 2m \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)
∴ I = \(\sqrt{8 m^2 g h}\)

Question 4.
A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 in m s-1 to 3.5 m s-1 in 25 s. The direction of motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force ?
Answer:
m = 3.0 kg; u = 2.0 ms-1,
v = 3.5ms-1, t = 25 s;
F = m \(\left(\frac{v-u}{t}\right)\) = 3\(\left(\frac{3.5-2}{25}\right)\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 15}{25}=\frac{0.9}{5}\) = 0.18 N
This force acts in the direction of change in velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
A man in a lift feels an apparent weight W when the lift is moving up with a uniform acceleration of 1/3rd of the acceleration due to gravity. If the same man were in the same lift now moving down with a uniform acceleration that is 1/2 of the acceleration due to gravity, then what is his apparent weight ?
Answer:
When the lift is moving up, a = \(\frac{g}{3}\)
Apparent weight W = m(g + a)
= m(g + \(\frac{g}{3}\)) = \(\frac{4mg}{3}\)
⇒ mg = \(\frac{3 W}{4}\) …………….. (1)
When the lift is moving down, a = \(\frac{g}{2}\)
Apparent weight W1 = m(g – a)
= m(g – \(\frac{g}{2}\)) = \(\frac{mg}{2}\)
∴ |W1| = \(\frac{\left[\frac{3 W}{4}\right]}{2}=\frac{3 W}{8}\)

Question 6.
A container of mass 200 kg rests on the back of an open truck, if the truck accelerates at 1.5 m/s2, what is the minimum coefficient of static friction between the container and the bed of the truck required to prevent the container from sliding off the back of the truck ?
Answer:
m = 200kg, a = 1.5 ms-2, g = 9.8 ms-2
ma = μsmg
μs = \(\frac{a}{g}=\frac{1.5}{9.8}\) = 0.153

Question 7.
A bomb initially at rest at a height of 40 m above the ground suddenly explodes into two identical fragments. One of them starts moving vertically down- wards with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. What is the separa-tion between the fragments 2s after the explosion ?
Answer:
Bomb explodes into two fragments say 1 and 2.
For 1st fragment, u1 = 10m/s, t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s-2, s1 = ?
Now displacement of 1st fragment,
s1 = u1t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 10 × 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 22 = 40m
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 5
2nd fragment is move opposite to 1st fragment like an object from a tower.
For 2nd fragment u2 = – u1 = 10m/s
t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s2
Now displacement of 2nd fragment
s2 = u2t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 10 × 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 22 = 0
∴ The seperation of two fragments
= s1 + s2 = 40 + 0 = 40 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 8.
A fixed pulley with a smooth grove has a light string passing over it with a 4 kg attached on one side and a 3 kg on the other side. Another 3 kg is hung from the other 3 kg as shown with another light string. If the system is released from rest, find the common acceleration ? (g = 10 m/s2).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 6
Answer:
From fig,
m1 = 3 + 3
= 6 kg
m2 = 4 kg
g = 10ms-2
Acceleration of the system,
a = \(\left(\frac{\dot{m}_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g=\left(\frac{6-4}{6+4}\right) \times 10\) = 2 ms-2

Question 9.
A block of mass of 2 kg slides on an inclined plane that makes an angle of 30% with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\).
(a) What force should be applied to the block so that it moves up without any acceleration ?
(b) What force should be applied to the block so that it moves up without any acceleration ?
Answer:
m = 2kg; θ = 30°; µ = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
i) Fdown = mg (sinθ – µ cosθ)
= 2 × 9.8 (sin30° – \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)cos30°)
= 2 × 98 [\(\frac{1}{2}\) – \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)] = 49 N

ii) Fup = mg (sinθ + µ cosθ)
= 2 × 9.8 [sin30° + \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × cos30°]
= 2 × 9.8 [\(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)] = 24.5 N

Question 10.
A block is placed on a ramp of parabolic shape given by the equation g = \(\frac{x^2}{20}\), see If is = 0.5, what is the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping ? (tan θ = µs = \(\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{~d} x}\))
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 7
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 8

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 11.
A block of metal of mass 2 kg on a horizontal table is attached to a mass of 0.45 kg by a light string passing over a frictionless pulley at the edge of the table. The block is subjected to a horizontal force by allowing the 0.45 kg mass to fall. The coefficient of sliding friction between the block and table is 0.2.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 9
Calculate (a) the initial acceleration, (b) the tension in the string, (c) the distance the block would continue to move if. after 2 s of motion, the string should break.
Answer:
Here, m1 = 0.45kg
m2 = 2kg
µ = 0.2
a) Initial acceleration.
a = \(\left(\frac{m_1-\mu m_2}{m_1+m_2}\right) g=\left[\frac{0.45-0.2 \times 2}{0.45+2}\right] \times 9.8\)
a = 0.2ms-2

b) From fig, we have
T – f = m2 a
T – 3.92 = 2 × 0.2
[∵ f = µm2g = 0.2 × 2 × 9.8] = 3.92 N
⇒ N = 0.4 + 3.92 = 4.32 N

c) Velocity of string after 2 sec
= u in this case: µ’ = 0
Stoping distance s = \(\frac{\mu^2}{2 \mu g}=\frac{0.4 \times 0.4}{2 \times 0.2 \times 9.8}\) = 0.0408 m

Question 12.
On a smooth horizontal . surface a block A of mass 10 kg is kept. On this block a second block B of mass 5 kg is kept. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.4. A horizontal force of 30 N is applied on the lower block as shown.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 10
The force of friction between the blocks is (take g = 10 m/s2).
Answer:
Here mA = 10kg; mB = 5kg;
F = 30N; µ = 0.4
F = (mA + mB)a
⇒ a = \(\frac{F}{\left(m_A+m_B\right)}\)
= \(\frac{30}{10+5}\) = 2ms-2
f = mBa = 5 × 2 = 10 N

Additional Problems

(For simplicity in numerical calculations, take g = 10 ms-2)

Question 1.
Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on
a) a drop of rain falling down with a constant speed,
b) a cork of mass 10 g floating on water,
c) a kite skillfully held stationary in the sky,
d) a car moving with a constant velocity of 30 km/h on a rough road,
e) a high-speed electron in space far from all material objects and free of electric and magnetic fields.
Answer:
a) As the rain drop is falling with a constant speed, its acceleration a = 0. Hence net force F = ma = 0.
b) As the cork is floating on water, its weight is being balanced by the upthrust (equal-to weight of water displaced). Hence net force on the cork is zero.
c) As the kite is held stationary, net force on the kite is zero, in accordance with Newton’s first law.
d) Force is being applied to overcome the force of friction. But as velocity of the car is constant, its acceleration, a = 0. Hence net force on the car F = ma = 0.
e) As no field (gravitational / electric / magnetic) is acting on the electron, net force on it is zero.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the direction and magnitude of the net force on the pebble.
a) during its upward motion,
b) during its downward motion
c) at the highest point where it is momentarily at rest. Do your answers change if the pebble was thrown at ah angle of 45° with the horizontal direction ?
Ignore are resistance.
Answer:
When a body is thrown vertically upwards (or) it moves vertically downwards, gravitational pull of earth gives it a uniform acceleration a = + g = + 9.8 ms-2 in the downward direction. Therefore, the net force on the pebble in all the three cases is vertically downwards.
As m = 0.05 kg and a = + 9.8 m/s2
In all the three cases,
∴ F = ma
= 0.05 × 9.8 = 0.49 N, vertically downwards.
If the pebble were thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction, it will have horizontal and vertical components of velocity. These components do not affect the force on the pebble. Hence our answers do not alter in any case. However in each case (C), the pebble will not be at rest. It will have horizontal component of velocity at highest point.

Question 3.
Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on a stone of mass 0.1 kg.
a) just after it is dropped from the window of stationary train,
b) just after it is dropped from the window of a train running at a constant velocity of 36 km/h,
c) just after it is dropped from the window of a train accelerating with 1 ms-2,
d) lying on the floor of a train which is accelerating with 1 ms-2, the stone being at rest relative to the train.
Answer:
a) Here, m – 0.1 kg, a = +g = 9.8 m/s2
Net force, F = ma = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N This force acts vertically downwards.

b) When the train is running at a constant velocity its acc. = 0. No force acts on the stone due to this motion.
Therefore, force on the stone F = weight of stone mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N
This force also acts vertically downwards.

c) When the train is accelerating with 1m/s2, an additional force F1 = ma = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 N acts on the stone in the horizontal direction. But once the stone is dropped from the train, F1 becomes zero and the net force on the stone is F = mg = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 N, acting vertically downwards.

d) As the stone is lying on the horizontal direction of motion of the train. Note the weight of the stone in this case is being balanced by the normal reaction.

Question 4.
One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed towards the centre) is ;
i) T,
ii) T – \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{l}\),
iii) T + \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{l}\),
iv) 0
T is the tension in the string. (Choose the correct Answer)
Answer:
The net force on the particle directed towards the center is T. This provides the necessary centripetal force to the particle moving in the circle.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms-1. How long does the body take to stop ?
Answer:
Here, F = -50 N, m = 20 kg
μ = 15 m/s, v = 0, t = ?
From F = ma,
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-50}{20}\) = -2.5 m/s2
From v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2.5t
t = \(\frac{15}{2.5}\) = 6s.

Question 6.
A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 ms-1 to 3.5 ms-1 in 25 s. The direction of the motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force ?
Answer:
Here m = 3.0 kg
μ = 2.0 m/s
v = 3.5 m/s,
t = 25s, F = ?
F = ma = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}=\frac{3.0(3.5-2.0)}{25}\)
= 0.18 N.
The force is along the direction of motion.

Question 7.
A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. Give the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the body ?
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 11
θ = 36° 52
This the direction of resultant force and hence the direction of acceleration of the body, fig.
Also a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{10}{5}\) = 2ms-2

Question 8.
The driver of a three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36 km/h sees a child standing in the middle of the road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force on the vehicle ? The mass of the three wheeler is 400 kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg.
Answer:
Here, u = 36km/h = 10 m/s, v = 0, t = s
m = 400 + 65 = 465 kg
Retarding force
F = ma = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}=\frac{465(0-10)}{4}\) = -1162 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 9.
A rocket with a lift-off mass 20,000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0 ms-2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.
Answer:
Here m = 20,000 kg = 2 × 104 kg
Initial ace = 5 m/s2
Thrust, F = ?
Clearly, the thrust should be such that it overcomes the force of gravity besides giving it an upward acceleration of 5 m/s2. Thus the force should produce a net acceleration of 9.8 + 5.0 = 14.8 m/s2 As thrust = force = mass × acceleration
∴ F = 2 × 104 × 14.8 = 2.96 × 105N

Question 10.
A body of mass 0.40 kg moving initially with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 to the north is subject to a constant force of 8.0 N directed towards the south for 30 s. Take the instant the force is applied to be t = 0, the position of the body at the time to be x = 0 and predict its position at t = -5 s, 25 s, 100 s.
Answer:
Here, m = 0.40 kg, µ = 10m/s due N
F = – 8.0 N
a = \(\frac{F}{m}=\frac{-8.0}{0.40}\) = -20 m/s2
for 0 ≤ t ≤ 30s.
i) At t = -5s, x = Ut = 10 × (-5) = -50 m

ii) At t = 25s, x = Ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 10 × 25 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-20) (25)2 = – 6000m

iii) At t = 100s, The problem is divided into two parts, upto 30s, there is force/acc.
∴ from x1 = Ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= 10 × 30 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-20) (30)2
= -8700
At t = 30s, v = U + at = 10 – 20 × 30 = – 590 m/s,
∴ for motion from 30s to 100s
x2 = vt = – 590 × 70 = – 41300 m
x = x1 + x2 = -8700 – 41300
= -50,000 m = – 50km.

Question 11.
A truck starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2.0 ms-2. At t = 10 s, a stone is dropped by a person standing on the top of the truck (6 m high from the ground). What are the (a) velocity and (b) acceleration of the stone at t = 11 s ? (Neglect air resistance).
Answer:
Here, u = 0, a = 2 m/s2, t = 10s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 12
Let v be the velocity of the truck when the stone is dropped.
From v = u + at
v = 0 + 2 × 10 = 20m/s
a) Horizontal velocity of stone, when it is dropped, vx = v = 20 m/s.
As air Resistance is neglected, vx remains constant.
In the vertical direction, initial velocity of stone, µ = 0, a = g = 9.8 m/s2,
time t = 11 – 10 = 1s
From v = u + at
vy = 0 + 9.8 × 1 = 9.8 ms-1
Resultant velocity of stone, OC is given by
v = \(\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}=\sqrt{20^2+(9.8)^2}\)
v = 22.3 m/s.
Let θ is the angle with the resultant velocity OC of stone makes with the horizontal direction OA, then from fig.
tan θ = \(\frac{v_y}{v_x}=\frac{9.8}{20}\) = 0.49
∴ θ = 29°

b) The moment the stone is dropped from the car, horizontal force on the stone = 0. The only acceleration the path followed by the stone is, however parabolic.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 12.
A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling of a room by a string 2 m long is set into oscillation. The speed of the bob at its mean position is 1 ms-1. What is the trajectory of the bob if the string is cut when the bob is (a) at one of its extreme positions, (b) at its mean position.
Answer:
a) We shall study in unit x that at each extreme position, velocity of the bob is zero. If the string is cut at the extreme position, it is only under the action of ‘g’. Hence the bob will fall vertically downwards.

b) At the mean position, velocity of the bob is 1m/s. along the tangent to the arc, which is in the horizontal direction. If the string is let at mean position, the bob will be have as a horizontal projectile. Hence it will follow a parabolic path.

Question 13.
A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving
a) upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms-1
b) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2
c) upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2
What would be the readings on the scale in each case ?
d) What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it hurtled down freely under gravity ?
Answer:
Here, m = 70 kg, g = 9.8 m/s2
The weighing machine in each case measures the reaction R i.e. the apparent weight.
a) When lift moves upwards with a uniform speed, its accelerations is zero.
R = mg = 70 × 9.8 = 686N

b) When the lift moves downwards with a = 5 m/s2
R = m(g – a) = 70 (9.8 – 5) = 336 N

c) When the lift moves upwards with a = 5 m/s2
R = m(g + a) = 70 (9.8 + 5) = 1036 N
If the lift were to come down freely under gravity, downward acc. a = g
∴ R = m (g – a) = m(g – g) = zero

Question 14.
Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. What is the (a) force on the particle for t < 0, t < 4 s, 0 < t < 4s ? (b) impulse at t = 0 and t = 4 s ?
(Consider one-dimensional motion only)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 13
Answer:
i) For t < 0, the position time graph is OA which means displacement of the particle is zero.
i.e. particle is at rest at the origin. Hence force on the particle must be zero.

ii) For 0 < t < 4s, s, the position time graph OB has a constant slope. Therefore, velocity of the particle is constant in this interval i.e. particle has zero acceleration. Hence force on the particle must be zero. iii) For t > 4s, the position time graph BC is parallel to time axis. Therefore, the particle remains at a distance 3m from the origin, i.e. it is at rest. Hence force on the particle is zero.

iv) Impulse at t = 0 :
We know. Impulse = change in linear momentum, Before t = 0 particle is at rest i.e. u = 0. After t = 0, particle has a constant velocity v = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= 0.75 m/s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 14
∴ Impulse = m(v – u)
= u (0.75-0)
= 3kg m/s
∴ Impulse at t = 4s
Before t = 4s, particle has a constant velocity u = 0.75 m/s
After t = 4s, particle is at rest i.e. v = 0
Impulse = m(v – u) = 4 (0 – 0.75) = 3kg m/s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 15.
Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are tied to the ends of a light string, a horizontal force F = 600 N is applied to (i) A, (ii) B along the direction of String. What is the tension in the string in each case ?
Answer:
Here, F = 500 N
m1 = 10kg, m2 = 20kg
Let T be the tension in the string and a be the acceleration of the system, in the direction of the force applied.
a = \(\frac{F}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{500}{10+20}=\frac{50}{3}\) m/s2
a) When force is applied on heavier block,
T = m1 a = 10 × \(\frac{50}{3}\) N
T = 166.66 N

b) When force is applied on lighter block,
T = m2a = 20 × \(\frac{50}{3}\) N
= 333.33 N
Which is different from value T in case (a) Hence our answer depends on which mass end, the force is applied.

Question 16.
Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light inextensible string that goes over a frictionless pulley. Find the acceleration of the masses, and the tension in the string when the masses are released.
Answer:
Here, m2 = 8 kg, m1 = 12kg
as a = \(\frac{\left(m_1-m_2\right) g}{m_1+m_2}\)
a = \(\frac{(12-8) 9.8}{12+8}=\frac{39.2}{20}\)
= 1.96 m/s2
Again
T = \(\frac{2 m_1 m_2 g}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{2 \times 12 \times 8 \times 9.8}{(12+8)}\) = 94.1 N

Question 17.
A nucleus is at rest in the laboratory frame of reference. Show that if it disintegrates into two smaller nuclei the products must move in opposite directions.
Answer:
Let m1m2 be the masses of products and \(\vec{v}_1, \vec{v}_2\) be their respective velocities. Therefore total linear momentum after disintegration = \(m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\). Before disintegration, the nucleus is at rest. There, its linear momentum before dis-integration is zero. According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
\(m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\) (Or) \(\vec{v}_2=\frac{-m_1 \vec{v}_1}{m_2}\)
Negative sign shows that \(\overrightarrow{v_1}\) and \(\overrightarrow{v_2}\) are in opposite direction.

Question 18.
Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving in opposite directions with speed 6 ms-1 collide and rebound with the same speed. What is the impulse imparted to each ball due to the other ?
Answer:
Here, initial momentum of the ball,
A = 0.05 (6) = 0.3 kg m/s
As the speed is reversed on collision, final momentum of the ball A = 0.05 (-6)
= – 0.3 kg ms-1
Impulse imparted to ball A = Change in momentum of ball A = Final momentum – Intial momentum = – 0.3 – 0.3 = – 0.6 kg m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 19.
A shell of mass 0.020 kg is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 80 ms-1, what is the recoil speed of the gun ?
Answer:
Here, mass of shell m = 0.02 kg
Mass of gun M = 100 kg
Muzzle speed of shell v = 80 m/s
Recoil speed of gun V = ?
According to the principle of conservation of linear momentum mv + MV = 0
(Or) V = \(\frac{-\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{M}}=\frac{-0.02 \times 80}{100}\) = 0.016 m/s

Question 20.
A batsman deflects a ball by the angle of 45° without changing its initial speed which is equal to 54 km/h. What is the impulse imparted to the ball ? (Mass of the balls is 0.15 kg).
Answer:
In fig. the ball hits the bat KL along AO and is deflected by the bat along OB. Where LAOB = 45°. ON is normal to the portion of the bat KL deflecting the ball.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 15
∴ θ = LNOA
= 45°/2 = 22.5°
Intial vel along AO = u = 54 km/h
= 15 m/S1 and mass of ball m = 0.15 kg Intial velocity along AO has the two rectangular components : u cos θ along NO produced and u sin 6 along the horizontal OL.
Final velocity along OB has the same magnitude = u
It is resolved into two rectangular components u cos 6 along ON and u sin θ along OL. We observe that there is no change in velocity along the horizontal, but velocity along vertical is just reserved.
∴ Impulse imparted to the ball
= Change in linear momentum of the ball
= m u cos θ – (- m u cos θ)
= 2 m u cos θ
= 2 × 0.15 × 15 cos 22.5°
= 4.5 × 0.9239
= 4.16 kg m/s

Question 21.
A stone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 m with a speed of 40 rev./ min in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the string ? What is the maximum speed with which the stone can be whirled around if the string can withstand a maximum tension of 200 N?
Answer:
Here, m = 0.25 kg, r = 15m
n = 40 rpm = \(\frac{40}{60}\), rps = \(\frac{2}{3}\), T = ?
T = mrw2 = mr(2 π)2 = 4 π2m2
T = 4 × \(\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)^2\) × 0.25 × 1.5 × \(\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2\) = 6.6N
If Tmax = 200 N. then from
Tmax = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2}{r}\)
\(v_{\max }^2=\frac{T_{\max } \times r}{m}=\frac{200 \times 1.5}{0.25}\) = 1200
vmax = \(\sqrt{1200}\) = 34.6 m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 22.
If, in Exercise 5.21, the speed of the stone is increased beyond the maximum permissible value, and the string breaks suddenly, which of the following correctly describes the trajectory of the stone after the string breaks :
a) the stone moves radially outwards,
b) the stone flies off tangentially from the instant the string breaks,
c) the stone flies off at an angle with the tangent whose magnitude depends on the speed of the particle ?
Answer:
The instant the string, breaks, the stone flies off tangentialy, as per Newton’s first law of motion.

Question 23.
Explain why
a) a horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space,
b) passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly,
c) it is easier to pull a lawn mower than to push it.
d) a cricketer moves his hands back-wards while holding a catch.
Answer:
a) While trying to pull a cart, a horses pushes the ground backwards with a certain force at an angle. The ground offers an equal reaction in the opposite direction on the feet of the horse. The forward component of this reaction is responsible for the motion of the cart. In empty space, there is no reaction and hence a horse cannot pull the cart and run.

b) This is due to inertia of motion. When the speeding bus stops suddenly, lower part of the body in contact with the seats stops. The upper part of the body of the passengers tend to maintain its uniform motion. Hence the passengers are thrown forward.

c) While pulling a lawn roller, force is applied upwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is upwards and reduces the effective weight of the roller, fig. (a) while pushing a lawn roller. Face is applied downwards along the handle. The vertical component of this force is downwards and increases the effective weight of the roller, fig. (b). As the effective weight is lesser in case of pulling than in a case of pushing, therefore pulling is easier than pushing.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 16
d) While holding a catch, the impulse receives by the hands F × t = Change in linear momentum of the ball is constant. By moving his hands, backwards, the cricketer increases the time of impact (t) to complete the catch. As t increases, F decreases and as a reaction, his hands are not hurt severly.

Question 24.
Figure shows the position-time graph of a body of mass 0.04 kg. Suggest a suitable physical context for this motion. What is the time between two consecutive impulses received by the body ? What is the magnitude of. each impulse ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 17
Answer:
Here, m = 0.04 kg. position time graph shows that the particle moves from x = 0 at 0 to x = 2 cm at A in 2 sec.
As x – t graph is a st. line, the motion is with a constant velocity.
μ = \(\frac{(2-0) \mathrm{cm}}{(2-0) \mathrm{s}}\) = 1 cm s-1
= 10-2 ms-1
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 18
From x = 2 cm at A, particle goes to x = 0 at B in 2 sec.
As AB is a stline, motion is with constant velocity v = 1 cm/s = 10-2 m/s
Negative sign indicates the reversal of direction of motion. This is being repeated. We can visualise a ball moving between two walls located at x = 0 and x = 2 cm, getting rebounded repeatedly on striking against each wall on every collision with a wall, linear momentum of the ball changes. Therefore, the ball receives impulse after every two seconds. Magnitude of impulse = Total change in linear momentum.
= mu -(mv) = mu – mv = m(u – v)
= 0.04(10-2 + 10-2)
= 0.08 × 10-2
= 8 × 10-4 kg m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 25.
Figure shows a man standing stationary with respect to a horizontal conveyor belt that is accelerating with 1 ms-2. What is the net force on the man ? If the coefficient of static friction between the man’s shoes and the belt is 0.2, up to what acceleration of the belt can the man continue to be stationary relative to the belt ? (Mass of the man = 65 kg).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 19
Answer:
Here, acceleration of conveyer belt, a = 1 m/s2
As the man is standing stationary w.r.t the belt, acceleration of the man = Acceleration of belt = a = 1 m/s2
As m = 65 kg
∴ Net force on the man, F = ma = 65 × 1 = 65 N
Now, µ = 0.2
Force of limiting friction- F = µR = µmg
It the man remains stationary upto max.acc. a of the belt, then F = ma1 = g mg
a1 = mg = 0.2 × 9.8 = 1.96 ms-2

Question 26.
A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string revolves in a vertical circle of radius R. The net forces at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically downwards are : (Choose the correct alternative)
Lowest Point – Highest Point
a) mg – T1 – mg + T2
b) mg + T1 – mg – T2
c) mg + T1 – (mυ12)/R – mg – T2 + (mυ12)/R
d) mg – T1 – (mυ12/R – mg + T2 + (mυ12)/R
T1 and υ1 denote the tension and speed at the lowest point T2 and υ2 denote corresponding values at the highest point.
Answer:
The net force at the lowest point α is
FL = (mg – T1) and the net force at the highest point H is FH = mg + T2. Therefore, alternative (a) is correct.

Question 27.
A helicopter of mass 1000 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 15 ms-2. The crew and the passengers weight 300 kg. Give the magnitude and direction of the
a) force on the floor by the crew and passengers,
b) action of the rotor of the helicopter on the surrounding air,
c) force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air.
Answer:
Here, mass of the helicopter, m1 = 100 kg
Mass of the crew and passengers m2 = 300 kg
Upward acceleration a = 15 ms-2 and g = 10 ms-2
a) Force on the floor of helicopter by the crew and passengers = appeard weight of crew and passengers = m2(g + a)
= 300(10 + 15) = 7500 N

b) Action of rotor of helicopter on surrounding air is obviously vertically downwards because helicopter rises on account reaction to this force. Thus, force of action F = (m1 + m2) (g + a)
= (1000 + 300) (10 + 15)
= 1300 × 25 = 32500 N

c) Force on the helicopter due to surrounding air is the reaction. As action and reaction are equal and opposite, therefore, force of reaction F1 = 32500 N, vertically upwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 28.
A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 ms-1 gushes out of a tube of cross-sectional area 10-2m2 and hits a vertical wall nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by the impact of water, assuming it does not rebound ?
Answer:
Here v = 15 ms-1
Area of cross section a = 102 m-2, F = ?
Volume of water pushing out/sec
= a × v = 10-12 × m3 s-1
As density of water is 103 kg/m2, therefore, mass of water striking the wall per sec.
m = (15 × 10-2) × 103 = 150 kg/s
Change in linear momentum
As F = \(\frac{\text { Change in linear momentum }}{\text { Time }}\)
∴ F = \(\frac{m \times v}{t}=\frac{150 \times 15}{1}\) = 2250 N

Question 29.
Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. Give the magnitude and direction of
a) the force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top
b) the force on the 7th coin by the eighth coin,
c) the reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin.
Answer:
a) The force on 7th coin is due to weight of the three coins lying above it. Therefore,
F (3m) kgf = (3mg)N
Where g is acceleration due to gravity. This force acts vertically downwards.

b) The eighth coin is already under the weight of two coins above it and it has its own weight too. Hence force on 7th coin due to 8th coin is sum of the two forces i.e.,
F = 2m + m = 3(m) kgf = (3mg)N
The force acts vertically downwards.

c) The sixth coin is under the weight of four coins above it.
Reaction, R = – F = -4m(kgf) = -(4 mg)N
Minor sign indicates that the reaction acts vertically upwards, opposite to the weight.

Question 30.
An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km/h with its wings banked at 15°. What is the radius of the loop ?
Answer:
Here θ = 15°
v = 720 km/h =\(\frac{720 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 200 ms-1
g = 9.8 ms-2
From tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{rg}}\)
v2 = rg tan θ
r = \(\frac{v^2}{g \tan \theta}=\frac{(200)^2}{9.8 \times \tan 15^{\circ}}\)
= 15232 m = 15.232 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 31.
A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius 30 m at a speed of 54 km/h. The mass of the train is 106 kg. What provides the centripetal force required for this purpose – The engine or the rails ? What is the angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rail ?
Answer:
The centripetal force is provided by the lateral thrust exerted by the rails on the wheels. By Newton’s 3rd law, the train exerts an equal and opposite thrust on the rails causing its wear and tear.
Obviously, the outer rail will wear out faster due to the larger force exerted by the train on it.
Here v = 54 km/h =\(\frac{54 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 15 m/s
g = 9.8 ms-2
As tan θ = \(\frac{v^2}{r g}=\frac{15 \times 15}{30 \times 9.8}\) = 0.76
∴ θ = tan-1 0.76 = 37.4°

Question 32.
A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown in Fig. What is the action on the floor by the man in the two cases ? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 20
Answer:
Here, mass of block m = 25 kg
Mass of man M = 50 kg
Force applied to lift the block
F = mg = 25 × 9.8 = 245 N
Weight of Man W = mg = 50 × 9.8 = 490 N
a) When block is raised by man as shown in Fig. force is applied by the man in the upward direction. This increases the apparent weight of the man. Hence action on the floor.
W1 = W + F
= 490 + 245
= 735 N

b) When block is raised by man as shown in Fig. force is app ed by the man in the downward direction. This decreases the apparent weight of the man. Hence action on the floor in this case would be
W1 = W – F = 490 – 245 = 245 N
As the floor yeilds to a normal force of 700 N, the mode (b) has to be adopted by the man to lift the block

Question 33.
A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope (Fig.) which can stand a maximum tension of 600 N. In which of the following cases will the rope break : the money
a) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m s-2
b) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 ms-2
c) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1
d) falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity ?
(ignore the mass of the rope)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 21
Answer:
Here, mass of monkey m = 40 kg
Maximum tension the rope can stand T = 600 N
In each case, actual tension in the rope will be equal to apparent weight of money (R). The rope will break when R exceeds T.
a) When monkey climbs up with a = 6 ms-2
R = m(g + a)
= 40(10 + 6)
= 640 N (Which is greater than T)
Hence the rope will break.

b) When monkey climbs down with a = 4 ms-2,
R = m(g – a) = 40(10 – 4) = 240 N
Which is less than T.
∴ The rope will not break.

c) When monkey climbs up with a uniform speed v = 5 ms-1.
Its acceleration, a = 0
∴ R = mg = 40 × 10 = 400 N,
which is less than T.
∴ The role will not break

d) When monkey falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity
a = g
∴ R = m(g – a) = m(g – g) = zero
Hence the rope will not break.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 34.
Two bodies A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall (Fig.). The coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.15. A force of 200 N is applied horizontally to A. What are (a) the reaction of the partition (b) the action-reaction forces between A and B ? What happens when the wall is removed ? Does the answer to (b) change, when the bodies are in motion? Ignore the difference between μs and μk.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 22
Answer:
Here, mass of body A, m1 = 5 kg
Mass of body B, m2 = 10 kg
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 23
Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table, μ = 0.15
Horizontal force applied on A,
F = 200 N

a) Force of limiting friction acting to the left
f = μ (m1 + m2)g
= 0.15(5 + 10) × 9.8 = 22.05 N
∴ Net force to the right exerted on the partition
F’ = 200 – 22.05 = 177.95 N
Reaction of partition = 177.95 N to the left.

b) Force of limiting friction acting on body A
f1 = μm1g = 0.15 × 5 × 9.8
= 7.35 N
∴ Net force exerted by body A on body B.
F” = F -f1 = 200 – 7.35
= 19265 N
This is to the right
Reaction of body B on body A = 192.65
N to the left when the portion is removed, the system of two bodies will move under the action of net force.
F1 = 177.95 IM
Acceralation produced in the system
a = \(\frac{F^1}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{177.95}{5+10}\)
= 11.86 ms-2
Force producing motion in body A
F1 = m1 a = 5 × 11.86
= 59.3 N
∴ Net force exerted by A on body B, when partition is removed
= F” – F1 = 192.65 – 59.3
= 133.35 N.
Hence the reaction of body B on A, when partition is removed = 133.35 N to the left.
Thus answers to (b) do change.

Question 35.
A block of mass 15 kg is placed on a long trolley. The cofficient of static friction between the block and the trolley is 0.18. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 ms-2 for 20 s and then moves with uniform velocity. Discuss the motion of the block as viewed by (a) a stationary observer on the ground, (b) an observer moving with the trolley.
Answer:
a) Flere, m = 15 kg;
μ = 0.18,
a = 0.5 ms-2
t = 20 s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 24
Force on the block due to motion of the trolly F’ = ma = 15 × 0.5 = 7.5 N
Force of limiting friction on the block
= F = μR = μmg
= 0.18 × 15 × 9.8 = 26.46 N
This opposes the motion of the block. The block shall not move. The force of static friction F will adjust itself equal and opposite to F’, the applied force.

Flence to a stationary observer on the ground, the block will appear to be at rest relative to the trolly. When trolly moves with uniform velocity, the block will continue to be stationary. Because in that case, forward force is zero. Force of friction alone is acting on the block.

b) An observer moving with the trolly has accelerated motion. The observer is therefore non-inertial.. The law of inertia is no longer valid.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 36.
The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as shown in Fig. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 ms-2. At what distance from the starting point does the box fall of the truck?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 25
Answer:
Here mass of the box m = 40 kg
Acceleration of truck a = 2 ms-2
Distance of box from open end S = 5m
Coeff. of friction μ = 0.15
Force on the box due to accelarated motion of the truck, F = ma = 40 × 2 = 80 N
This force F is in the forward direction Reaction F’ on the box is equal to F = 80 N in the backward direction. This is opposed by force of limiting friction
f = μ R = μ mg
= 0.15 × 40 × 9.8
= 58.8 N in the forward direction
∴ Net force on the box in the backward direction is p = F’ – F = 80 – 58.8 = 21.2 N
Backward acceleration produced in the box
a = \(\frac{p}{m}=\frac{21.2}{40}\) = 0.53 ms-2
It t is time taken by the box to travel S = 5 metre and fall off the truck, then from
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
5 = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.53 t2
t = \(\frac{\sqrt{5 \times 2}}{0.53}\) = 4.345
If the truck travels a distance x during this time, then again from
S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
x = 0 × 4.34 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2(4.34)2 = 18.84 m

Question 37.
A disc revolves with a speed of 33\(\frac{1}{3}\) rev/min, and has a radius of 15 cm. Two coins are placed at 4 cm and 14 cm away from the centre of the record. If the co-efficient of friction between the coins and the record is 0.15, which of the coins will revolve with the record ?
Answer:
The coin revolves with the record in the case when the force of friction is enough to provide the necessary centripetal force. If this force is not sufficient to provide centripetal force, the coin slips on the record.
Now the frictional force is µR where R is the
normal reaction and R = mg
Hence force of friction = µ mg and centripetal force required is \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) or mrw2
µ1w are same for both the coins and we have different values of r for the two coins.
So to prevent slipping i.e., causing coins to rotate µ mg > mrω2 or µg > rω2 …………….. (1)
For 1st coin
r = 4 cm = \(\frac{4}{100}\) m
n = 33 \(\frac{1}{2}\) rev/min = \(\frac{100}{3 \times 60}\) rev/sec
w = 2πn = 2π × \(\frac{100}{180}\) = 3.49 S-1
∴ rw2 = \(\frac{4}{100}\) × (3.49)2 = 0.49 ms-2 and
µg = 0.15 × 9.8 = 1.47 ms-2
As µg > rw2, there fore this coin Will revolve with the record.
Note: We have nothing to do with the radius of the record = 15 cm

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 38.
You may have seen in a circus a motor-cyclist driving in verticle loops inside a ‘death-well’ (a hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the spectators can watch from outside). Explain clearly why the motorcyclist does not drop down when he is at the uppermost point, with no support from below. What is the minimum speed required at the uppermost position to perform a verticle loop if the radius of the chamber is 25 m ?
Answer:
At the uppermost point of the death well, with no support from below, the motorcyclist does not drop down. This is because his weight is being balance by the centrifugal force. Infact, the weight of the motorcyclist is spent up in providing the necessary centripetal force to the motorcyclist and hence he does not drop drown.

At the uppermost point, R + mg = \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\),
where R is the normal reaction (downwards) on the motor cyclist by the ceiling of the chamber.
Speed will be minimum, when N = 0
∴ mg = \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) or
v = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{rg}}=\sqrt{25 \times 10}\)
= 15.8 m/s

Question 39.
A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about its vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of friction between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. What is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to enable the man to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) when the floor is suddenly removed ?
Answer:
Here m = 70 kg, r = 3
n = 200 rpm = \(\frac{200}{60}\) rps
µ = 0.15
w = ?
The horizontal force N by the wall on the man provides the necessary centripetal force = mrω2. The frictional force (f) in this case is vertically upwards opposing the weight (mg) of the man.
After the floor is removed, the man will remain stuck to the wall, when
mg = f < µ N i.e., mg < µ mr ω2 or g < µ r ω2
∴ Minimum angular speed of rotation of the cylinder is ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{g}{\mu \mathrm{r}}}=\sqrt{\frac{10}{0.15 \times 3}}\)
= 4.7 rad/s

Question 40.
A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency no. Show that a small bead on the wire loop remains at its
lowermost point for ω ≤ \(\sqrt{g / R}\) . What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = 2g/R ?
Answer:
In fig. we have show that radius vector joining the bead to the centre of the wire makes as angle θ with the vertical downward direction. It N is normal reaction, then as it is clear from the figure,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 26
mg = N cos θ ………… (1)
m rω2 = N sin θ …………….. (2)
Or m(R sin θ) ω2 = N sin θ
Or mRω2 = N
From (i) mg = mRω2 cos θ
Or cos θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{R} \omega^2}\) ……………….. (3)
As |cos θ| ≤ 1, therefore, bead will remain at its lower most point for
\(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{R} \omega^2}\) ≤ 1 or w ≤ \(\sqrt{\frac{g}{R}}\)
When ω = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 g}{R}}\), from (iii),
cos θ = \(\frac{g}{R}\left(\frac{R}{2 g}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ θ = 60°

Textual Examples

Question 1.
An astronaut accidentally gets separated out of his small spaceship accelerating in inter stellar space at a constant rate of 100 ms-2. What is the acceleration of the astronaut the instant after he is outside the spaceship ? (Assume that there are no nearby stars to exert gravitational force on him).
Answer:
Since there are no nearby starts to exert gravitational force on him and the small spaceship exerts negligible gravitational attraction on him, the net force acting on the astronaut, once he is out of the spaceship, is zero. By the first law of motion the acceleration of the astronaut is zero.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 2.
A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with a speed of 90 m s-1 enters a heavy wooden block and is stopped after a distance of 60 cm. What is the average resistive force exerted by the block on the bullet ?
Answer:
The retardation ‘a’ of the bullet (assumed constant) is given by
a = \(\frac{-u^2}{2 s}=\frac{-90 \times 90}{2 \times 0.6}\) m s-2 = -6750 m s-2
The retarding force, by the second law of motion, is = 0.04 kg × 6750 ms-2 = 270 N
The actual resistive force, and therefore, retardation of the bullet may not be uniform. The answer therefore, only indicates the average resistive force.

Question 3.
The motion of a particle of mass m is described by y = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at2. Find the force acting on the particle.
Answer:
We know, y = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
Now, υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dy}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)u + gt
acceleration, a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = g
Then the force is given by F = \(\frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = ma
F = ma = mg

Question 4.
A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 12 m s-1. If the mass of the ball is 0.15 kg determine the impulse imparted to the ball. (Assume linerar motion of the ball) [A.P. Mar. 17]
Answer:
Change in momentum
= 0.15 × 12-(-0.15 × 12) = 3.6 N s
Impulse = 3.6 N s, in the direction from the batsman to the bowler.
This is an example where the force on the ball by the batsman and the time of contact of the ball and the bat are difficult to know, but the impulse is readily calculated.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 5.
Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid wall with the same speed but at different angles and get reflected without any change in speed, as shown in Fig. What is (i) the direction of the force on the wall due to each ball ? (ii) the ratio of the magnitudes of impulses imparted to the balls by the wall ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 27
Answer:
An instinctive answer to (i) might be that the force on the wall in case (a) is normal to the wall, while that in case (b) is inclined at 30° to the normal. This answer is wrong. The force on the wall is normal to the wall in both cases. How to find the force on the wall ? The trick . is to consider the force on the wall ? The trick is to consider the force (or impulse) on the ball due to the wall using the second law, and then use the third law to answer (i). Let u be the speed of each ball before and after collision with the wall and m the mass of each bah. Choose the x and y axes as shown in the figure, and consider the change in momentum of the ball in each case :
Case (a) :
(Px)initial = mu
(Px)initial = 0
(Px)final = – mu
(Py)final = 0
Impulse is the change in momentum vector.
Therefore,
x-component of impulse = -2mu
y-component of impulse – 0
Impulse and force are in the same direction. Clearly, from above, the force on the ball due to the wall is normal to the wall, along the negative x-direction. Using Newton’s third law of motion, the force on the wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along the positive x-direction. The magnitude of force cannot be ascertained since the small time taken for the collision has not been specified in the problem. .
Case (b) :
(Px)initial = mu cos 30°
(Py)initial = – m u sin 30°
(Px)final = – mu cos 30°
(Py)final = -m u sin 30°
Note, while px changes sign after collision, py does not. Therefore,
x-component of impulse = -2 m u cos 30°
y-component of impulse 0
The direction of impulse (and force) is the same as in (a) and is normal to the wall along the negative x direction. As before, using Newton’s third law, the force on the wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along the positive x direction.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the impulses imparted to the balls in(a) and (b) is
2 mu / (2 m u cos 30°) = \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\) ≈ 1.2

Question 6.
See Fig. A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2 m from the ceiling. A force of 50 N in the horizontal direction is applied at the mid point P of the rope, as show. What is the angle the rope makes with the vertical in equilibrium ? (Take g = 10 ms-2). Neglect the mass of the rope.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 28
Answer:
Figures (b) and (c) are known as free-body diagrams. Figure (b) is the free-body diagram of W and Fig. (c) is the free-body diagram of point P.
Consider the equilibrium of the weight W.
Clearly, T2 = 6 × 10 = 60 N.
Consider the equilibrium of the point P under the action of three forces – the tensions T1 and T2, and the horizontal force 50 N. The horizontal and vertical components of the resultant force must vanish separately :
T1 cos θ = T2 = 60N
T2 sin θ = T2 = 50N
which gives that tan θ = \(\frac{5}{6}\) or
θ = tan-1 (\(\frac{5}{6}\)) = 40°
Note the answer does not depend on the length of the rope (assumed massless) nor on the point at which the horizontal force is applied.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 7.
Determine the maximum acceleration of the train in which a box lying on the floor will remain stationary, given that the coefficient of static friction between the box and the train’s floor is 0.15.
Answer:
Since the acceleration of the box is due to the static friction,
ma = fs ≤ μs N = μs m g
i.e. a ≤ μs g
∴ amaximum = μs g = 0.15 × 10m s-2
= 1.5 ms-2

Question 8.
See Fig. A mass of 4 kg rests on a horizontal plane. The plane is gradually inclined unti at an angle θ = 15° with the horizontal, the mass just begins to slide. What is the coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 29
Answer:
The forces acting on a block of mass …. at rest on an inclined plane are (i) the weight mg acting vertically downwards (ii) the normal force N of the plane on the block, and (iii) the static frictional force fs opposing the impending motion. In equilibrium, the resultant of these forces must be zero. Resolving the weight mg along the two directions shown, we have
m g sin θ = fs, m g cos θ = N
As θ increases, the self-adjusting frictional force fs increases until at θ = θmax, fs achieves its maximum value, (fs)max = μs N.
Therefore,
tan θmax = μs, or θmax = tan-1 μs
When θ becomes just a little more than there is a small net force on the block and θnm begins to slide. Note that θmax depends only on μs and is independent of the mass of the block
θmax = 15°, μs = tan 15° = t = 0.27

Question 9.
What is the acceleration of the book and trolley system shown in the Fig., if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley and the suriace is 0.04 what is the tension in the string. Take g 10 ms-2). Neglect the mass of the string.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 30
Answer:
As the string is inextensible, and the pully is smooth, the 3 kg block and the 20 kg trolley both have same magnitude of acceleration. Applying second law to motion of the block (Fig. (b).
30 – T = 3a
Apply the second law to motion of the trolley (Fig. (c))
T – fk = 20a
Now fk = μk N,
Here μk = 0.04
N = 20 × 10 = 200N
Thus the equation for the motion of the trolley is
T – 0.04 × 200 = 20 a or T – 8 = 20a
These equations give a = \(\frac{22}{23}\) m s-2 = 0.96 m s-2 and T = 27.1 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 10.
A cyclist speeding at 18 km/h on a level road takes a sharp circular turn of radius 3 m without reducing the speed. The co-efficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is 0.1. Will the cyclist slip while taking the turn ?
Answer:
On an unbanked road, frictional force alone can provide the centripetal force needed to keep the cyclist moving on a circular turn without slipping. If the speed is too large, or if the turn is too sharp (i.e. of too small a radius) or both, the frictional force is not sufficient to provide the necessary centripetal force, and the cyclist slips. The condition for the cyclist not to slip is given by
vmax = \(\sqrt{\mu_s R_g}\) v2 ≤ μs Rg
Now, R = 3m, g = 9.8 m s-2, μs = 0.1.
That is, μs R g = 2.94 m2 s-2. v = 18 km/h = 5 m s-1; i.e., = 25 v2. The condition is not obeyed. The cyclist will slip while taking the circular turn.

Question 11.
A circular racetrack of radius 300 m is banked at an angle of 15°. If the coefficient of friction between the wheels of a race-car and the road is 0.2, what is the(a) optimum speed of the race-car to avoid wear and tear on its tyres, and (b) maximum permissible speed to avoid slipping?
Answer:
On a banked road, the horizontal component of the normal force and the frictional force contribute to provide centripetal force to keep the car moving on a circular turn without slipping. At the optimum speed, the normal reaction’s component is enough to provide the needed centripetal force, and the frictional force is not needed. The optimum speed v0 is given by
v0 = (R g tan θ)1/2-
Here R = 300 m, θ = 15°, g = 9.8 m s-2; we have
v0 = 28.1 ms-1
The maximum permissible speed vmax is given by
vmax = R g\(\left(\frac{\mu_s+\tan \theta}{1-\mu_s \tan \theta}\right)^{1 / 2}\) = 38.1 m s-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion

Question 12.
See (Fig.) A wooden block of mass 2 kg rests on a soft horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder of mass 25 kg is placed on top of the block, the floor yields steadily and the block and the cylinder together go down with an acceleration of 0.1 ms-2. What is the action of the block on the floor (a) before and (b) after the floor yields ? Take g = 10 m s-2. Identify the action- reaction pairs in the problem.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 5 Laws of Motion 31
Answer:
(a) The block is at rest on the floor. Its free- body diagram shows two forces on the block, the force of gravitational attraction by the earth equal to 2 × 10 = 20 N; and the normal force R of the floor on the block. By the First Law, the net force on the block must be zero i.e., R = 20 N. Using third law the action of the block (i.e. the force exerted on the floor by the block) is equal to 20 N and directed vertically downwards.

(b)The system (block cylinder) accelerates downwards with 0.1 ms-2. The free – body diagram of the system shows two forces on the system : the force of gravity due to the earth (270 N); and the normal force R’ by the floor. Note, the free-body diagram of the system does not show the internal forces between the block and the cylinder. Applying the second law to the system,
270 – R’ = 27 × 0.1 N
i.e, R’ = 267.3 N
By the third law, the action of the system on the floor is equal to 267.3 N vertically downward.
Action-reaction pairs
For (a) :
(i) the force of gravity (20N) on the block by the earth (say, action); the force of gravity on the earth by the block (reaction) equal to 20 N directed upwards (not shown in the figure).
(ii) the force on the floor by the block (action); the force on the block by the floor (reaction).

For (b):
(i) the force of gravity (270 N) on the system by the earth (say, action), the force of gravity on the earth by the system (reaction), equal to 270 N, directed upwards (not shown in the figure).

(ii) the force on the floor by the system (action); the force on the system by the floor (reaction). In addition, for (b), the force on the block by the cylinder and the force on the cylinder by the block also constitute an action-reaction pair.

The important thing to remember is that an action-reaction pair consists of mutual fortes which are always equal and opposite between two bodies. Two forces on the same body which happen to be. equal and opposite can never constitute an action-reaction pair. The force of gravity on the mass in (a) or (b) and the normal force on the mass by the floor are not action-reaction pairs. These forces happen to be equal and opposite for (a) since the mass is at rest. They are not so for case (b), as seen already. The weight of the system is 270 N, while the normal force R’ is 267.3 N.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 4th Lesson Motion in a Plane Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 4th Lesson Motion in a Plane

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The vertical component of a vector is equal to its horizontal component. What is the angle made by the vector with the x-axis?
Answer:
The horizontal component is equal to the vertical component of a vector.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 1
F cos θ = F sin θ.
Tan θ = 1 .
θ = tan-1(1) = 45°.

Question 2.
A vector V makes an angle 0 with the horizontal. The vector is rotated through an angle 0. Does this rotation change the vector V ?
Answer:
Yes, it changes the vector.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 3.
Two forces of magnitudes 3 units and 5 units act at 60° with each other. What is the magnitude of their resultant ? [A.P. Mar. 15]
Answer:
Let P = 3 units, Q = 5 units, θ = 60°
Resultant (R) = \(\sqrt{p^2+Q^2+2 P Q \cos \theta}\)
= \(\sqrt{3^2+5^2+2 \times 3 \times 5 \times \cos 60^{\circ}}\)
= \(\sqrt{9+25+30 \times \frac{1}{2}}=\sqrt{49}\) = 7 units

Question 4.
A = \(\vec{i}+\vec{j}\). What is the angle between the vector and X-axis ? [T.S., A.P. Mar. 17; Mar. 14, 13]
Answer:
A = \(\vec{i}+\vec{j}\)
cos α = \(\frac{A x}{|A|}\) (∵ Ax = 1)
= \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1^2+1^2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
α = cos-1 \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\) = 45°

Question 5.
When two right angled vectors of magnitude 7 units and 24 units combine, what is the magnitude of their resultant ? [A.P. Mar. 16]
Answer:
θ = 90°, P = 7 units, Q = 24 units
R = \(\sqrt{P^2+Q^2+2 P Q \cos \theta}\)
R = \(\sqrt{7^2+24^2+2 \times 7 \times 24 \times \cos 90^{\circ}}=\sqrt{49+576}=\sqrt{625}\) = 25 units.

Question 6.
If p = 2i + 4j + 14k and Q = 4i + 4j + 10k find the magnitude of P + Q. [T.S. – Mar. ‘16, ‘15]
Answer:
P = 2i + 4j + 14k, Q = 4i + 4j + 10k,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{Q}}\) = 2i + 4j + 14k + 4i + 4j + 10k
= 6i + 8j + 24k
|\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{Q}}\)| = \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2+24^2}=\sqrt{676}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 7.
Can a vector of magnitude zero have non-zero components?
Answer:
No, the components of a vector of magnitude zero have non-zero components..

Question 8.
What is the acceleration projectile at the top of its trajectory?
Answer:
The acceleration of a projectile at the top of its trajectory is vertically downwards.

Question 9.
Can two vectors of unequal magnitude add up to give the zero vector? Can three unequal vectors add up to give the zero vector?
Answer:
No, two vectors of unequal magnitude cannot be equal to zero. According to triangle law, three unequal vectors in equilibrium can be zero.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State parallelogram law of vectors. Derive an expression for the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector. [T.S. – Mar. 16; Mar. 14, 15]
Answer:
Statement: If two vectors acting d a point are represented by the adjacent sides of a parallelogram in magnitude and direction, then their resultant is represented by the diagonal of the parallelogram in magnitude and direction dawn from the same vector.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 3
Explanation L Let two forces \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{Q}}\) point O. Let θ be the angle between two nrces. Let the side O = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) and OB = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{Q}}\). The parallelogram OACB is completed. The points O and C are joined. Now OC = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Resultant magnitude :
In fig \(\overrightarrow{O A}=\vec{p}, \overrightarrow{O B}=\vec{Q}, \overrightarrow{O C}=\vec{R}\)
In the triangle COD. OC2 = OD2 + CD2
0C2 = (OA + AD)2 + CD2 (: OD = OA + AÐ)
OC2 = OA2 + AD2 + 2OA. AD + CD622
OC2 = OA2 + AC2 + 2OA. AD …………… (1)
From ∆le CAD, AD2 + CD2 = AC2
From ∆le CAD, cos θ = \(\frac{A D}{A C}\)
AD = AC cos θ ……………. (2)
∴ R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2 PQ cosθ
R = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2+2 \mathrm{PQ} \cos \theta}\) ………….. (3)

Resultant direction:
Let (L be the angle made by the resultant vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) with \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\)
Then tan α = \(\frac{C D}{O D}\)
tan α = \(\frac{C D}{O A+A D}\) ……………… (4)
In the triangle CAD, sinO = \(\frac{C D}{A C}\)
CD = AC sin θ
CD = Q sin θ ……………… (5)
∴ tan α = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q} \sin \theta}{\mathrm{P}+\mathrm{Q} \cos \theta}\) (∵ AD = Q COS θ)
α = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{Q \sin \theta}{P+Q \cos \theta}\right)\) ……………….. (6)

Question 2.
What is relative motion ? Explain It.
Answer:
Relative velocity is defined as the velocity of one body with respect to another body.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 2
Let us consider two observers A and B are making measurements of an event P in space from two frames of reference as shown in figure. At the beginning let the two origins of the two reference frames coincide and are on the same line.

Let the observer B is moving with a constant velocity VBA with respect to A. Now we can connect the positions of the event P as measured by A with the position of P as measured by B.

As B is moving with constant velocity at the time of observation of event P, the frame B has moved a distance XBA with respect to A.
XPA = XPB + XBA …………….. (1)
“The position of P as measured by observer A is equal to the position of P as measured by B plus the position of B as measured by A”.
eq (1) can also be written as VPA = VPB + VBA …………….. (2)

Question 3.
Show that a boat must move at an angle with respect to river water in order to cross the river in minimum time.
Answer:
If the boat has to move along the line AB, the resultant velocity of VBE should be directed along AB and the boat reaches the point B directly. For this to happen, the boat velocity with respect to water VBW should be directed such that it makes an angle a with the line AB upstream as shown in the figure.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 4
\(\frac{V_{W E}}{V_{B W}}\) = sin α ⇒ α = sin-1 \(\left(\frac{V_{\mathrm{WE}}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{BW}}}\right)\)
and VBE = \(\sqrt{V_{B W}^2-V_{W E}^2}\)
The minimum time taken by the boat to cross the river
t = \(\frac{A B}{V_{B E}}\)
t = \(\frac{A B}{\sqrt{V_{B W}^2-V_{W E}^2}}\)

Question 4.
Define unit vector, null vector and position vector.
Answer:
Unit Vector : A vector having unit magnitude is called unit vector.
\(\hat{A}=\frac{A}{|A|}\) where \(\hat{A}\) is unit vector.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 5
Null vector : A vector having zero magnitude is called null vector.
Position vector : The position of a particle is described by a position vector which is drawn from the origin of a reference frame. The position vector helps to locate the particle in space.
The position of a particle P is represented by
\(\overrightarrow{O P}=\vec{r}=x \vec{i}+y \vec{j}+z \vec{k}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 5.
If \(|\vec{a}+\vec{b}|=|\vec{a}-\vec{b}|\) prove that the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) is 90°.
Answer:
\(|\vec{a}+\vec{b}|=|\vec{a}-\vec{b}|\)
\(\sqrt{a^2+b^2+2 a b \cos \theta}=\sqrt{a^2+b^2-2 a b \cos \theta}\)
2 ab cos θ = – 2ab cos θ
4 ab cos θ = 0
cos θ = 0 but 4ab ≠ 0
∴ θ = 90°
Hence angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) is 90°.

Question 6.
Show that the trajectory of an object thrown at certain angle with the horizontal is a parabola. [A.P. Mar. 18, 16, 15; T.S. Mar. 18, 15]
Answer:
Consider a body is projected with an initial velocity (u) making an angle 0 with the horizontal. The body does not experience acceleration in horizontal direction. The velocity of the projectile can be resolved in to (i) u cos θ, horizontal component (ii) u sin θ, vertical component. The horizontal component of velocity remains constant through out the motion. Only its vertical component changes due to acceleration due to gravity (g).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 6
The distance travelled along OX in time t is given by
x = u cos θ × t
t = \(\frac{x}{u \cos \theta}\) ………………. (1)
The distance travelled along oy in time t is given by
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 7
Y = Ax – Bx2 Where A and B are constants.
This is the equation of parabola.
∴ The trajectory of a projectile is parabola.

Question 7.
Explain the terms the average velocity and instantaneous velocity. When are they equal ?
Answer:
Average velocity :
The average velocity of the particle is defined as the ratio of displacement (∆x) to the time interval ∆t
\(\bar{v}=\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t}=\frac{x_2-x_1}{t_2-t_1}\)
Average velocity is independent of the path followed by the particle between the initial and final positions. It gives the result of the motion.

Instantaneous velocity:
The velocity of a particle at a particular instant of time is known as instantaneous velocity.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 8
The instantaneous velocity may be positive (or) negative in straight line motion.
In uniform motion the instantaneous velocity of a body is equal to the average velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 8.
Show that the maximum height and range of a projectile are \(\frac{U^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\) and \(\frac{U^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) respectively where the terms have their regular meanings. [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Maximum height:
When the projectile is at the maximum height, its vertical component of velocity vy = 0
Initial velocity (u) = u sin θ
Distance (s) = H = maximum height
Acceleration (a) = – g
using v2 – u2 = 2as,
0 – u2 sin2 θ = – 2gH
∴ H = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 9
Horizontal range (R) .
The horizontal distance travelled by the projectile from the point of projection during the time of flight is called range. . .
Range (R) = Horizontal velocity × Time of flight
R = u cos θ × T = u cos θ × \(\frac{2 u \sin \theta}{g}\)
R = \(\frac{u^2 \times 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)
R = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)
If θ = 45°, RMax = \(\frac{u^2}{g}\)

Question 9.
If the trajectory of a body is parabolic in one reference frame, can it be parabolic in another reference frame that moves at constant velocity with respect to the first reference frame ? If the trajectory can be other than parabolic, what else can it be ?
Answer:
No, when a stone is thrown from a moving bus, the trajectory of the stone is parabolic in one reference frame. That is when a man observes out side foot path.
In another frame of reference, the trajectory is a vertical straight line.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 10.
A force 2i + j – k newton d’ts on a body which is initially at rest. At the end of 20 seconds the velocity of the body is 4i + 2j – 2k ms-1. What is the mass of the body ?
Answer:
F = (2i + j – k) N
t = 20 sec, u = 0
v = (4i + 2j – 2k) m/s
a = \(\frac{v-u}{t}=\frac{(4 i+2 j-2 k)-0}{20}\)
a = \(\frac{2 i+j-k}{10}\) m/s2
F = ma
mass (m) = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
= \(\frac{2 i+j-k}{\left(\frac{2 i+k}{10}\right)}\)
m = 10 kg

Problems

Question 1.
Ship A is 10 km due west of ship B. Ship A is heading directly north at a speed of 30 km/h. while ship B is heading in a direction 60° west of north at a speed of 20 km/h.
i) Determine the magnitude of the velocity of ship B relative to ship A.
ii) What will be their distance of closest approach ?
Answer:
i) VA = 30 kmph, VB = 20 kmp, θ = 60°
Relative velocity of ship B w.r.to ship A is
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 10

Question 2.
If θ is the angle of projection, R the range, h the maximum height of the floor. Then show that (a) tan θ = 4h/R and (b) h = gT2/8
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 44

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 3.
A projectile is fired at an angle of 60° to the horizontal with an initial velocity of 800 m/s:
i) Find the time of flight of the projectile before it hits the ground.
ii) Find the distance it travels before it hits the ground (range)
iii) Find the time of flight for the projectile to reach its maximum height.
Answer:
θ = 60°, u = 800 m/s
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 12

Question 4.
For a particle projected slantwise from the ground, the magnitude of its position vector with respect to the point of projection, when it is at the highest point of the path is found to be \(\sqrt{2}\) times the maximum height reached by it. Show that the angle of projection is tan-1 (2)
Answer:
Range (R) = \(\frac{u^2 \times 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\) ………… (1)
Maximum height (h) = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\) ……………….. (2)
Given R = \(\sqrt{2}\) h
\(\frac{u^2 \times 2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{g}=\sqrt{2} \times \frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)
tan θ = 2 \(\sqrt{2}\)
θ = tan-1 (2\(\sqrt{2}\))

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 5.
An object is launched from a cliff 20m above the ground at an angle of 30° above the horizontal with an initial speed of 30 m/s. How far horizontally does the object travel before landing on the ground ? (g = 10 m/s2)
Answer:
h = 20m, θ = 30°, u = 30m/s,
g = 10m/s2
h = -(u sin θ) t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
20 = – 30 sin 30° × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × t2
20 = – 30 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × t2
4 = – 3t + t2
t2 – 3t – 4 = 0
(t – 4) (t + 1) = 0
t = 4 sec (or) t = -1 sec
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 13
∴ Range (R) = u cos θ × t
= 30 cos 30° × 4
= 30 × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × 4
R = 60\(\sqrt{3}\) m

Question 6.
O is a point on the ground chosen as origin. A body first suffers a displacement of 10 \(\sqrt{2}\) m North-East, next 10 m North and finally North-West. How far it is from the origin ?
Answer:
Given OB = 10 \(\sqrt{2}\) m, BC = 10m.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 14
∴ Total displacement (OD) = | OF | + |FE| + || ED ||
OD = 10 + 10 + 10
OD = 30m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 7.
From a point on the ground a particle is projected with initial velocity u, such that its horizontal range is maximum. Find the magnitude of average velocity during its ascent.
Answer:
S = \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{R}{2}\right)^2+\left(\frac{R}{4}\right)^2}=\sqrt{\frac{R^2}{4}+\frac{R^2}{16}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{4 R^2+R^2}{16}}=\frac{\sqrt{5} R}{4}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 15

Question 8.
A particle is projected from the ground with some initial velocity making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. It reaches a height of 7.5 m above the ground while it travels a horizontal distance of 10m from the point of projection. Find the initial speed of projection, (g = 10m/s2)
Answer:
θ = 45°, g = 10 m/s2
Horizontal distance (x) = 10m.
Vertical distance (y) = 7.5 m.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 16

Additional Problems

Question 1.
State, for each of the following vector quantities, if it is a scalar are vector : volume, mass, speed, acceleration, density, number of mass, velocity, angular frequency. Displacement, angular velocity.
Answer:
Scalars, volume, mass, speed, density, number of moles, angular frequency vectors, acceleration, velocity, displacement, angular velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 2.
Pick out the two scalar quantities in the following list  angular momentum, work, current, linear momentum, electric field, average velocity, magnetic moment, relative velocity.
Answer:
Work and current are scalar quantities in the given list.

Question 3.
Pick out the only vector quantity in the following list : Temperature, pressure, impulse time, power, total path length, energy, gravitational potential, coefficient of friction, charge.
Answer:
Since, Impulse = change in momentum = force × time. A momentum and force are vector quantities hence impulse is a vector quantity.

Question 4.
State with reasons, whether the following algebraic operations with scalar and vector physical quantities are meaningful :
a) adding any two scalars,
b) adding a scalar to a vector of the same dimensions,
c) multiplying any vector by any scalar,
d) multiplying any two scalars,
e) adding any two vectors,
f) adding a component of a vector to the same vector.
Answer:
a) No, because only the scalars of same dimensions can be added.
b) No, because a scalar cannot be added to a vector.
c) Yes, when acceleration \(\vec{A}\) is multiplied by mass m, we get a force \(\vec{F}=m \vec{A}\), which is a meaningful operation.
d) Yes, when power P is multiplied by time t, we get work done = Pt, which is a useful operation.
e) No, because the two vectors of same dimensions can be added.
f) Yes, because both are vectors of same dimensions.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 5.
Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons, if it is true of false :
a) The magnitude of a vector is always a scalar,
b) each component of a vector is always a scalar,
c) the total path length is always equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector of a particle,
d) the average speed of a particle (defined as total path length divided by the time taken to cover the path) is either greater or equal to the magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the same interval of time,
e) Three vectors not lying in a plane can never add up to give a null vector.
Answer:
a) True, because magnitude is a pure number.
b) False, each component of a vector is also a vector.
c) True only if the particle moves along a straight line in the same direction, otherwise false.
d) True; because the total path length is either greater than or equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector.
e) True, as they cannot be represented by three sides of a triangle taken in the same order.

Question 6.
Establish the following vector inequalities geometrically or otherwise :
(a) |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b|
(b) |a + b| ≥ ||a| – |b||
(c) |a  – b| ≤ |a| + |b|
(d) |a – b| ≥ ||a| – |b||
When does the equality sign above apply ?
Answer:
Consider two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) be represented by the sides \(\vec{OP}\) and \(\vec{OQ}\) of a parallelogram OPSQ. According to parallelogram law of vector addition; (\(\vec{A}+\vec{B}\)) will be represented by \(\vec{OS}\) as shown in figure. Thus OP = \(|\vec{A}|\), OQ = PS = \(|\vec{B}|\) and OS = \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 17

a) To prove |\(\vec{A}+\vec{B}\) | ≤ \(|\vec{A}|\) + \(|\vec{B}|\)
we know that the length of one side of a triangle is always less than the sum of the lengths of the other two sides. Hence from ∆OPS, we have OS < OP + PS or OS < OP + OQ or|\(\vec{A}+\vec{B}\)|< |\(\vec{A}+\vec{B}\)| ………………. (i) If the two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are acting along a same straight line aind in same directions, then \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|=|\vec{A}|+|\vec{B}|\) …………….. (ii) combining the conditions mentioned in (i) and (ii) we get \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|=|\vec{A}|+|\vec{B}|\) b) To prove \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}| \geq\|\vec{A}|+| \vec{B}\|\) From ∆OPS, we have OS + PS> OP or OS > |OP – PS| or OS > (OP – OQ) ………………. (iii)
(∵ PS = OQ)
The modulus of (OP – PS) has been taken because the LH.S is always positive but the R.H.S may be negative if OP < PS. Thus from (iii) we have \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|>\|\vec{A}|-| \vec{B}\|\) ………………. (iv)
If the two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are acting along a straight line in opposite directions, then
\(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|=\vec{A}-\vec{B}\) ……………. (v)
combining the conditions mentioned in (iv) and (v) we get
\(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}| \geq \vec{A}-\vec{B}\)

c)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 18
combining the conditions mentioned in (vi) and (vii) we get
\(|\vec{A}-\vec{B}| \leq|\vec{A}|+|\vec{B}|\)

d) To prove \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \geq|| \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}|-| \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \mid\)
From ∆OPR, we note that OR + PR > OP or OR > |OP – PR| or OR > |OP – OT| ………………. (viii)
(∵ OT = PR)
The modulus of (OP – OT) has been taken because L.H.S. is positive and R.H.S. may be negative of OP < OT From (viii), \(|\vec{A}-\vec{B}|>|| \vec{A}|-| \vec{B} \|\) …………….. (ix)
If the two vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are acting along the straight line in the same direction, then \(|\vec{A}-\vec{B}|\)
= \(|\vec{A}|-|\vec{B}|\) ………………. (x)
Combining the conditions mentioned in (ix) and (x) we get
\(\vec{A}-\vec{B} \geq \vec{A}-\vec{B}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 7.
Given a + b + c + d = 0. Which of the following statements are correct:
a) a, b, c and d must each be a null vector,
b) The magnitude of (a + c) equals the magnitude of (b + d),
c) The magnitude of a can never be greater than the sum of the magnitudes of b, c, and d,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 19
d) b + c must lie in the plane of a and d if a and d are not collinear, and in the line of a and d, if they are collinear ?
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 20
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 21

Question 8.
Three girls skating on a circular ice ground of radius 200 m start from a point P on the edge of the ground and reach a point Q diametrically opposite to P following different paths as shown in Fig. 4.20. What is the magnitude of the displacement vector for each ? For which girl is this equal to the actual length of path skate ?
Answer:
Displacement for each girl = \(\vec{PQ}\)
∴ Magnitude of the displacement of each girl = PQ
= diameter of circular ice ground
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 22
= 2 × 200 = 400 m
For girl B, the magnitude of displacement is equal to the actual length of path skated.

Question 9.
A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius km, reaches the edge p of the pa’rk, then cycles along the circumference, and returns to the centre along QO as shown in Fig. 4.21. If the round trip takes 10 min, what is the
(a) net displacement,
(b) average velocity and
(c) average speed of the cyclist ?
Answer:
a) Here, net displacement = zero
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 23

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 10.
On an open ground, a motorist follows a track that turns to his left by an angle of 60° after every 500m. Starting from a given turn, specify the displacement of the motorist at the third, sixth and eighth turn. Compare the magnitude of the displacement with the total path length covered by the motorist in each case.
Answer:
In this problem, the path is regular hexagon ABCDEF of side length 500m let the motorist start from A.
Third turn : The motor cyclist will take the third turn at D. Displacement vector at D = \(\overrightarrow{A D}\) Magnitude of this displacement
= 500 + 500 = 1000 m
Total path length from A to D
= AB + BC + CD = 500 + 500 + 500 = 1500 m.
Sixth turn : The motor cyclist takes the sixth turn at A. So displacement vector is null vector – Total path length
= AB + BC + CD + DE + EF + FA = 6 × 500 = 3000 m.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 24
Eighth turn : The motor cyclist takes the eighth turn at C. The displacement vector = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AC}}\), which is represented by the diagonal of the parallelogram ABCG.
So, |\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AC}}\)|
= \(\sqrt{(500)^2+(500)^2+2 \times 500 \times 500 \times \cos 60^{\circ}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(500)^2+(500)^2+250000}\)
= 866.03 m
tan β = \(\frac{500 \sin 60^{\circ}}{500+500 \sin 60^{\circ}}=\frac{500 \times \sqrt{3} / 2}{500(1+1 / 2)}\)
= \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30° or β = 30°
It means \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AC}}\) makes an angle 30° with the initial direction.
Total path length = 8 × 500 = 4000 m.

Question 11.
A passenger arriving in a new town wishes to go from the station to a hotel located 10 km away on a straight road from the station. A dishonest cabman takes him along a circuitous path 23 km long and reaches the hotel in 28 min. What is (a) the average speed of the taxi, (b) the magnitude of average velocity ? Are the two equal ?
Answer:
Here, actual path length travelled, S = 23 km, displacement = 10 km, time taken, t = 28min = 28/60h
a) Average speed of a taxi
= \(\frac{\text { actual path length }}{\text { time taken }}=\frac{23}{28 / 60}\)
= 49.3 km/hr
b) Magnitude of average velocity
= \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time taken }}=\frac{10}{(28 / 60)}\)
= 21.4 km/hr
The average speed is not equal to the magnitude of the average velocity. The two are equal for the motion of taxi along a straight path in one direction.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 12.
Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 ms-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a- speed of 10 m s-1 in the north to south direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella ?
Answer:
The rain is falling along OA with speed 30 ms-1 and woman rider is moving along OS with speed 10 ms-1 i.e OA = 30 ms-1 & OB = 10ms-1. The woman rider can protect herself from the rain if she holds her umbrella in the direction of relative velocity of rainfall of woman. To draw apply equal and opposite velocity of woman on the rain i.e impress the velocity 10 ms-1 due to North on which is represented by OC. Now the relative velocity of rain w.r.t woman will be represented by diagonal OD of parallelogram OADL. if ∠AOD = θ, then
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 45
= tan 18°26′ or β = 18°26′ with vertical in forward direction.

Question 13.
A man can swim with a speed of 4.0 km/h in still water. How long does he take to cross a river 1.0 km wide if the river flows steadily at 3.0 km/h and he makes his strokes normal to the river current ? How far down the river does he go when he reaches the other bank ?
Answer:
Time to cross the river, t = \(\frac{\text { width of river }}{\text { speed of man }}\)
= \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~km}}{4 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{h}}=\frac{1}{4}\)h = 15min
Distance moved along the river in time
t = vr × t = 3 km/h × \(\frac{1}{4}\) h = 750 m.

Question 14.
The ceiling of a long hall is 25m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with a speed of 40 m s-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall ?
Answer:
Here, u = 40 ms-1, H = 25 m; R = ?
Let θ be the angle of projection with the horizontal direction to have the maximum range, with maximum height 25m.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 26

Question 15.
A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100m. How much high above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball ?
Answer:
Let u be the velocity of projection of the ball. The ball will cover maximum horizontal distance when angle of projection with horizontal, θ = 45°. Then, Rmax = u2/g Here u2/g = 100m ………………………….. (i)
In order to study the motion of the ball along vertical direction, consider a point on the surface of earth as the origin and vertical upward direction as the positive direction of Y – axis. Taking motion of the ball along vertical upward direction we have.
uy = u, ay = -g, vy = 0, t = ? y0 = 0, y = ?
As uy = uy + ayt
∴ 0 = u + (-g)t or t = u/g
Also y = y0 + uyt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a0t2
∴ y = 0 + u(u/g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-g) u2 /g2
= \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{\mathrm{~g}}-\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{\mathrm{~g}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{\mathrm{~g}}=\frac{100}{2}\)= 50m [from (i)]

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 16.
A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25s. What is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone ?
Answer:
Here, r = 80 cm = 0.8 m ; v = 14/25s-1
∴ ω = 2πV
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{14}{25}=\frac{88}{25}\) rad s-1
The centripetal accerlation, a = ω2r
= \(\left(\frac{88}{25}\right)^2\) × 0.80
= 9.90 m/s2
The direction of centripetal acceleration is along the string directed towards the centre of circular path.

Question 17.
An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1.00 km with a steady speed of 900 km/h. Compare its centripetal acceleration with the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
Here, r = 1 km = 1000 m; v = 900 kmh-1
= 900 × (1000) m × (60 × 60 s)-1
= 250 ms-1
Centripetal acceleration, a = \(\frac{v^2}{r}\)
= \(\frac{(250)^2}{1000}\)
Now, a/g = \(\frac{(250)^2}{1000} \times \frac{1}{9.8}\) = 6.38.

Question 18.
Read each statement below carefully and state, with reasons, if it is true of false :
a) The net acceleration of a particle in circular motion is always along the radius of the circle towards the centre.
b) The velocity vector of a particle at a point is always along the tangent to the path of the particle at that point.
c) The acceleration vector of a particle in uniform circular motion averaged over one cycle is a null vector
Answer:
a) False, the net acceleration of a particle is towards the centre only in the case of a uniform circular motion.
b) True, because while leaving the circular path, the particle moves tangentially to the circular path.
c) True, the direction of acceleration vector in a uniform circular motion is directed towards the centre of circular path. It is constantly changing with time, the resultant of all these vectors will be a zero vector.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 19.
The position of a particle is given by r = 3.0 t \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) – 2.0t2 \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) + 4.0 \(\overline{\mathrm{k}}\) m where t is in seconds and the co-efficients have the proper units for r to be in metres, (a) Find the v and a of the particle ? (b) What is the magnitude and direction of velocity of the particle at t = 2.0 s ?
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 27
∴ θ = 69.5° below the x – axis

Question 20.
A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 s with a velocity of 10.0 \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) m/s and moves in the x – y plane with a constant acceleration of (8.0i + 2.0\(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\)) m s-2. (a) At what time is the x – coordinate of the particle 16 m? What is the y – coordinate of the particle at that time ? (b) What is the speed of the particle at the time ?
Answer:
Here, \(\vec{u}\) = 10.0 \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) ms-1 at t = 0
\(\vec{a}=\frac{\overrightarrow{d v}}{d t}=(8.0 \hat{i}+2.0 \hat{j}) \mathrm{ms}^{-2}\)
So \(d \vec{v}=(8.0 \hat{i}+2.0 \hat{j}) d t\)
Integrating it with in the limits of motion i.e. as time changes from 0 to t, velocity changes is from u to v, we have
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 28
Integrating it within the conditions of motion i.e as time changes from 0 to t, displacement is from 0 to r, we have
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 29

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 21.
\(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) are unit vectors along x – and y – axis respectively. What is the magnitude and direction of the vectors \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) – \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) ? What are the components of a vector A = 2 \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) + 3 \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) along the directions of \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{i}}\) – \(\overline{\mathrm{j}}\)? [You may use graphical method]
Answer:
a) Magnitude of \((\hat{i}+\hat{j})=|\hat{i}+\hat{j}|\)
= \(\sqrt{(1)^2+(1)^2}=\sqrt{2}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 30

b) Here, \(\vec{B}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}\)
To find the component vectors of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) along the vectors \((\hat{i}+\hat{j})\) we first find the unit vector along the vector \((\hat{i}+\hat{j})\). Let be the unit vector along the direction of vector \((\hat{i}+\hat{j})\).
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 31
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 32

Question 22.
For any arbitrary motion in space, which of the following relations are true :
a) vaverage = (1/2) (v (t1) + v(t2))
b) vaverage = [r (t2) – r(t1)] / (t2 – t1)
c) v(t)average = v(0) + a t
d) r (t) = r (0) + v(0) t + (1/2) a t2
e) aaverage = [v (t2) – v(t1)] / (t2 – t1)
(The ‘average’ stands for average of the quantity over the time interval t1 to t2)
Answer:
The relations (b) and (e) are true; others are false because relations (a), (c) and (d) hold only for uniform acceleration.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 23.
Read each statement below carefully arid state, with reasons and examples, if it is true or fa1 e :
A scalar quantity is one that
a) is conserved in a process
b) can never take negative values
c) must be dimensionless
d) does not vary from one point to another in space
e) has the same value for observers with different orientations of axes.
Answer:
a) False, because energy is not conserved during inelastic collisions.
b) False, because the temperature can be negative.
c) False, because the density has dimensions.
d) False, because gravitational potential vary from point to point in space.
e) True, because the value of scalar does not change with orientation of axes.

Question 24.
An aircraft is flying at a height of 3400 m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a ground observation point by the aircraft positions 10.0 s apart is 30°, what is the speed of the aircraft ?
Answer:
In figure O is the observation point at the ground. A and B are the positions of aircraft for which ∠AOB = 30°. Draw a perpendicular OC on AB. Here OC = 3400m and ∠AOC = ∠COB = 15°
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 33
Time taken by aircraft from A to B is 10s
In ∆AOC, AC = OC tan 15° = 3400 × 0.2679
= 910.86m
AB = AC + CB = AC + AC = 2AC
= 2 × 910.86 m
Speed of the aircraft, v = \(\frac{\text { distance } A B}{\text { time }}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 910.86}{10}\)
= 182.17 ms-1 = 182.2 ms-1

Question 25.
A vector has magnitude and direction. Does K have a location in space ? Can it vary with time? Will two equal vectors a and b at different locations in space necessarily have identical physical effects ? Give examples in support of your answer. .
Answer:
i) A vector in general has no difinite location in space because a vector remains uneffected whenever it is displaced anywhere in space provided its magnitude and direction do not change. However a position vector has a definite location in space.
ii) A vector can vary with time eg the velocity vector of an accelerated particle varies with time.
iii) Two equal vectors at different locations in space do not necessarily have some physical effects. For example two equal forces acting at two different points on a body with can cause the rotation of a body about an axis will not produce equal turning effect.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 26.
A vector has both magnitude and direction. Does it mean that any thing that has magnitude and direction is necessarily a vector ? The rotation of a body can be specified by the direction of the axis of rotation, and the angle of rotation about the axis. Does that make any rotation a vector ?
Answer:
No. There are certain physical quantities which have both magnitude and direction, but they are not vectors as they do not follow the laws of vectors addition, which is essential for vectors. The finite rotation of a body about an axis is not a vector because the finite rotations do not abey the laws of vectors addition. However, the small rotation of a body is a vector quantity as it obey the law of vector addition.

Question 27.
Can you associate vectors with (a) the length of a wire bent into a loop, (b) a plane area, (c) a sphere ? Explain.
Answer:
a) We cannot associate a vector with the length of a wire bent into a loop.
b) We can associate a vector with a plane area. Such a vector is called area vector and its direction is represented by outward drawn normal to the area.
c) we can not associate a vector with volume of sphere however a vector can be associated with the area of sphere.

Question 28.
A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. By adjusting its angle of projection, can one hope to hit a target 5.0 km away ? Assume the muzzle speed to be fixed, and neglect air resistance.
Answer:
Horizontal range R = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^2 \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)
3 = \(\frac{u^2 \sin 60^{\circ}}{g}=\frac{u^2}{g} \sqrt{3} / 2\) or \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^2}{\mathrm{~g}}=2 \sqrt{3}\)
Since the muzzle velocity is fixed, therefore, Max, horizontal range.
Rmax = \(\frac{u^2}{g}=2 \sqrt{3}\) = 3.464m.
So, the bullet cannot hit the target.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 29.
A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed 720 km/h passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical should the gun be fired for the shell with muzzle speed 600 m s-1 to hit the plane ? At what minimum altitude should the pilot fly the plane to avoid being hit ? (Take g = 10m s-2).
Answer:
In Fig. 0 be the position of gun and A be the position of plane. The speed of the plane,
v = \(\frac{720 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 200 ms-1
The speed of the shell, u = 600 m/s
Let the shell will hit the plane at B after time t if fired at an angle 0 with the vertical from O then the horizontal distance travelled by shel in time t is the same as the distance covered by plane.
i.e. ux × t = vt or u sin θ t = vt .
or sin θ = \(\frac{v}{u}=\frac{200}{600}\) = 0.3333 = sin 19.5°. or θ = 19.5°.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 34
The plane will not be hit by the bullet from the gun if it is flying at a minimum height which is maximum height (H) attained by bullet after firing from gun.
Here H = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2(90-\theta)}{2 g}=\frac{u^2 \cos ^2 \theta}{g}\)
= \(\frac{(600)^2 \times(\cos 19.5)^2}{2 \times 10}\)
= 16000 m
= 16 km

Question 30.
A cyclist is riding with a speed of 27 . km/h. As he approaches a circular turn on the road of radius 80m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant rate of 0.50 m/s every second. What is the magnitude and direction of the net acceleration of the cyclist on the circular turn ?
Answer:
Here v = 27 km/h-1 = 27 × (1000 m) × (60 × 60s)-1 = 7.5 ms-1, r = 80m centripetal acceleration
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 35
Let the cyclist applies the brakes at the point P of the Circular turn, then tangential acceleration aT will act opposite to velocity. Acceleration along the tangent, aT = 0.5 ms-2 Angle between both the acceleration is 90° Therefore, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration.
a = \(\sqrt{a c^2+a_T^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{(0.7)^2+(0.5)^2}\)
= 0.86 ms-2
Let the resultant acceleration make an angle β with the tangent i.e. the direction of velocity of the cyclist, then,
tan β = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{c}}}{\mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{T}}}=\frac{0.7}{0.5}\) = 1.4
or β = 54° 28′

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 31.
a) Show that for a projectile the angle between the velocity and the x-axis as a function of time is given by
b) Shows that the projection angle θ for a projectile launched from the origin is given by θ(t) = tan-1 \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
v_{\theta y} & -g t \\
v_{0 x}
\end{array}\right]\)
θ0 = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{4 h_m}{R}\right)\)
Where the symbols have their usual meaning
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 36
Answer:
a) Let vox and voy be the initial component velocity of the projectile at O along OX direction and OY direction respectveIy, where OX is horizantal and oy is vertical

Let the projectile go from o to p in time t and vx, vy be the component velocity of projectile at P along horizantal and vertical directions respectively. Then vy = voy – gt. and vx = vox
If θ is the angle which the resultant velocity \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}\) makes with horizontal direction, then
tan θ = \(\frac{v y}{v x}=\frac{v_{o y}-g t}{v_{o x}}\) or
θ = tan-1 \(\left[\frac{v_{\mathrm{oy}}-g t}{v_{o x}}\right]\)

b) In angular projection, maximum vertical height,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 37

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35 m s-1. Winds starts blowing after sometime with a speed of 12 m s-1 in east to west direction. In which direction should a boy waiting at bus stop hold his umbrella?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 38
Answer:
The velocity of the rain and the wind are represented by the vectors vr and vw in Fig. a e in the direction specified by the problem. Using the rule of vector addition, we see that the resultant of vr and vw is R as shown in the figure. The magnitude of R is
R = \(\sqrt{v_{\mathrm{r}}^2+v_{\mathrm{w}}^2}=\sqrt{35^2+12^2}\) m s-1 = 37 m s-1
The direction θ that R makes with the vertical is given by
tan θ = \(\frac{v_w}{v_r}=\frac{12}{35}\) = 0343
Or, θ = tan-1 (0.343) = 19°
Therefore, the boy should hold his umbrella in the vertical plane at an a glass about 19° with vertical towards the east.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 2.
Fine, the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two vectors A and B in terms of their magnitudes and angle θ between them.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 39
Answer:
Let OP and OQ represent the two vectors A and B making an angle θ (fig.). Then using the parallelogram method of vector addition, OS represents the vector R :
R = A + B
SN is normal to OP and PM is normal to OS.
From the geometry of the figure,
OS2 = ON2 + SN2
but ON = OP + PN = A + B cos θ
SN = B sin θ
OS2 = (A + B cos θ)2 + (B sin θ)2
or, R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
R = \(\sqrt{A^2+B^2+2 A B \cos \theta}\) …………….. (1)
In ∆ OSN, SN = OS sin α = R sin α, and in ∆ PSN, SN = PS sin θ = B sin θ
Therefore, R sin θ = B sin θ
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 40
Equation (1) gives the magnitude of the resultant and Eqs. 5 & 6 its direction. Equation ((1) a) is known as the Law of ‘ cosines and Eq. (4) as the Law of sines.

Question 3.
A motorboat is racing towards north at 25 km/h and the water current in that region is 10 km/h in the direction of 60° east of south. Find the resultant velocity of the boat.
Answer:
The vector vb representing the velocity of the motorboat and the vector vc representing the water current are shown in Fig. in directions specified by the problem. Using the parallelogram method of addition, the resultant R is obtained in the direction shown in the figure.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 41
We can obtain the magnitude of R using the Law of cosine :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 42

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 4.
The position of a particle is given by r =\(3.0 t \overline{\mathrm{i}}+2.0 \overline{\mathrm{j}}^2 \mathrm{j}+5.0 \overline{\mathrm{K}}\) where t is in seconds and the coefficients have the proper units for r to he in metres. (a) Find v(t) and a(t) of the particle. (b) Find the magnitude and direction of v(t) at t = 1.0 s.
Answer:
v(t) = \(\frac{d r}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\left(3.0 t \hat{i}+2.0 t^2 \hat{j}+5.0 \hat{k}\right)\)
= \(3.0 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4.0 t \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
a(t) = \(\frac{d v}{d t}=+4.0 \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
a = 4.0 ms-2 along y-direction
At t = 1.0 s, v = \(3.0 \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4.0 \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
It’s magnitude is v = \(\sqrt{3^2+4^2}\) = 5.0 m s-1 and direction is
θ = tan-1\(\left(\frac{v_{\mathrm{y}}}{v_{\mathrm{x}}}\right)\) = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\) ≅ 53° with x-axis.

Question 5.
A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity 5.0 \(\hat{\mathrm{i}}\) m/s and moves in x-y plane under action of a force which produces a constant acceleration of (3.0 \(\hat{\mathrm{i}}\) + 2.0\(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)) m/s2.
(a) What is the y- coordinate of the particle at the instant its x-co-ordinate is 84 m ?
(b) What is the speed of the particle at this time?
Answer:
The position of the particle is given by
r(t) = v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
= \(5.0 \hat{i} t+(1 / 2)(3.0 \hat{i}+2.0 \hat{j}) t^2\)
= \(\left(5.0 t+1.5 t^2\right) \hat{i}+1.0 t^2 \hat{j}\)
Therefore, x(t) = 5.0t + 1.5 t2
y(t) = + 1.0t2
Givn x(t) = 84m, t =?
5.0 t + 1.5 t2 = 84 ⇒ t = 6s
At t = 6 s, y = 1.0 (6)2 = 36.0 m
Now the velocity v = \(\frac{\mathrm{dr}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
= (5.0 + 3.0t)\(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2.0 \mathrm{t} \hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
At t = 6s, v = \(23.0 \hat{i}+12.0 \hat{j}\)
speed = |v| = \(\sqrt{23^2+12^2}\) ≅ 26 m s-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 6.
Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35 m s-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 12 m s-1 in east to west direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella?
Answer:
In Fig. vr represents the velocity of rain and vb, the velocity of the bicycle, the woman is riding. Both these velocities are with respect to the ground. Since the woman is riding a bicycle, the velocity of rain as experienced by
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane 43
her is the velocity of rain relative to the velocity of the bicycle she is riding. That is
vrb = vr – vb
This relative velocity vector as shown in Fig. makes an angle θ with the vertical. It is given by
tan θ = \(\frac{v_{\mathrm{b}}}{v_{\mathrm{r}}}=\frac{12}{35}\) = 0.343 or, θ ≅ 19°
Therefore, the woman should hold her umbrella at an angle of about 19° with the vertical towards the west.

Note carefully the difference between this example and the Example 1. In Example 1, the boy experiences the resultant (vector sum) of two velocities while in this example, the woman experiences the velocity of rain relative to the bicycle (the vector difference of the two velocities).

Question 7.
Galileo, in his book Two new sciences, stated that “for elevations which exceed or fall short of 45° by equal amounts, the ranges are equal”. Prove this statement.
Answer:
For a projectile launched with velocity v0 at an angle θ0, the range is given by
R = \(\frac{v_0^2 \sin 2 \theta_0}{g}\)
Now, for angles, (45° + α) and (45° – α), 2θ0 is (90° + 2α) and (90° – 2α), respectively. The values of sin (90° + 2α) and sin (90° – 2α), are the same, equal to that of cos 2a. Therefore, ranges are equal for elevations which exceed or fall short of 45° by equal amounts α.

Question 8.
A hiker stands on the edge of a cliff 490 m above the ground and throws a stone horizontally with an initial speed of 15 ms-1. Neglecting air resistance, find the time taken by the stone to reach the ground and the speed with which it hits the ground. (Take g = 9.8m s-2).
Answer:
We choose the origin of the x , and y – axis at the edge of the cliff and t = 0 s at the instant the stone is thrown. Choose the positive direction of x-axis to be along the initial velocity and the positive direction of y-axis to be the vertically upward direction. The x, and y- components of the motion can be treated independently. The equations of motion are :
x (t) = x0 + υ0xt
y (t) = y0 + υ0y t + (1/2) ay t2
Here, x0 = y0 = 0, υ0y = 0, ay = – g = -9.8m s-2, υ0x = 15 m s-1.
The stone hits the ground when y(t) = – 490 m.
– 490 m = – (1/2) (9.8) t2.
This gives t = 10 s.
The velocity components are υx = υ0x and υy = υ0y – g t
so that when the stone hits the ground :
u0x = 15 m s-1
u0y = 0 – 9.8 × 10 = -98 m s-1
Therefore, the speed of the stone is
\(\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}=\sqrt{15^2+98^2}\) = 99 m s-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Question 9.
A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 m s-1 in a direction 30° above the horizontal. Calculate (a) the maximum height, (b) the time taken by the ball to return to the same level and (c) the distance from the thrower to the point where the ball returns to the same level.
Answer:
a) The maximum height is given by
hm = \(\frac{\left(v_0 \sin \theta_0\right)^2}{2 g}=\frac{\left(28 {in} 30^{\circ}\right)^2}{2(9.8)}\) m
= \(\frac{14 \times 14}{2 \times 9.8}\) = 10.0 m
(u0 sin0o)2 (28 in 30°)2 . hm ~ 2g “ 2(9.8) m

b) The time taken to return to the same level is
Tf = (2 υ0 sinθ0)/g = (2 × 28 × sin30°)/9.8
= 28 / 9.8 s = 2.9 s

c) The distance from the thrower to the point where the ball returns to the same level is
R = \(\frac{\left(v_0^2 \sin 2 \theta_0\right)}{g}=\frac{28 \times 28 \times \sin 60^{\circ}}{9.8}\)
= 69 m

Question 10.
An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm moves along the groove steadily and completes 7 revolutions in 100 s, (a) What is the angular speed and the linear speed of the motion ? (b) Is the acceleration vector a constant vector ? What is its magnitude ?
Answer:
This is an example nf uniform circular motion. Here R = 12 cm. The angular speed ω is given by
ω = 2π/T = 2π × 7/100 = 0.44 rad/s ,
The linear speed υ is :
υ = ω R = 0.44 s-1 × 12 cm = 5.3 cm s-1
The direction of velocity v is along the tangent to the circle at every point. The acceleration is directed towards the centre of the circle. Since this direction changes continuously, acceleration here is not a constant vector. However, the magnitude of acceleration is constant :
a – ω2 R = (0.44 s-1)2 (12 cm)
= 2.3 cm s-2

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 3rd Lesson Motion in a Straight Line Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 3rd Lesson Motion in a Straight Line

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The states of motion and rest are relative. Explain.
Answer:
Rest and motion are relative. They are not absolute. A body can be in the rest or in motion w.r.t. reference frame. A man in a moving train is a rest w.r. to a co-passenger, but he is in motion w.r.t a man on the ground.

Question 2.
How is average velocity different from instantaneous velocity? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
The average velocity does not give any details of the motion of the particle. It gives only the result of the motion. The instantaneous velocity defines how fast the particle moves at a particular instant of time.
In uniform motion, the instantaneous velocity is equal to the average velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 3.
Give an example where the velocity of an object is zero but its acceleration is not zero.
Answer:
When the body is projected vertically upwards, at the highest point, its velocity is zero. But its acceleration (a = g) is not equal to zero.

Question 4.
A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1 and the other half with speed v2. What is the average speed ?
Answer:
Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total length of the path }}{\text { Total time taken }}=\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\right)}{\mathrm{V}_1}+\frac{\left(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\right)}{\mathrm{V}_2}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~V}_1 \mathrm{~V}_2}{\mathrm{~V}_1+\mathrm{V}_2}\)

Question 5.
A lift coming down is just about to reach the ground floor. Taking the ground floor as origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct
a) x < 0, v < 0, a > 0, b) x > 0, v < 0, a < 0, c) x > 0, v < 0, a > 0, d)x > 0, V > 0, a > 0
Answer:
While lift is moving towards ground floor (origin), position x decreases, velocity decreases. Hence x < 0, v < 0. But a > 0. So(a) is correct option.

Question 6.
A uniformly moving cricket ball is hit with a bat for a very short time and is turned back. Show the variation of its acceleration with time taking the acceleration in the backward direction as positive.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 1

Question 7.
Give an example of one-dimensional motion where a particle moving along the positive x-direction comes to rest periodically and moves forward.
Answer:
When simple harmonic oscillator starts from left extreme position and comes to rest at that point periodically and moves forward.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 8.
An object falling through a fluid is observed to have an acceleration given by a = g – bv where g is the gravitational accelaration and b is a constant. After a long time it is observed to fall with a constant velocity. What would be the value of this constant velocity ?
Answer:
Given acceleration a = g – bv
\(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = g – bv [∵ a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)]
If an object is moving through fluid with constant velocity, dv = 0
0 = g – bv ∴ v = \(\frac{\mathrm{g}}{\mathrm{b}}\)

Question 9.
If the trajectory of a body is parabolic in one frame, can it be parabolic in another frame that moves with a constant velocity with respect to the first frame ? If not, what can it be ?
Answer:
No. the trajectory is a vertical straight line.

Question 10.
A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a rigid support is stretched and released. When is the magnitude of acceleration a maximum ?
Answer:
The magnitude of acceleration is maximum at Extreme Positions.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Can the equations of kinematics be used when the acceleration varies with time ? If not, what form would these equations take ?
Answer:
No, the equations of kinematics be used when the acceleration varies with time.
If an object moves along a straight line with uniform acceleration (a), equations of kinematics are

  1. v = v0 + at;
  2. x = v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2;
  3. v2 = v02 + 2ax

Where x is displacement, v0 is velocity at t = 0, v is velocity at time t, a is acceleration.
These are kinematic equations of rectilinear motion for constant acceleration.
If an object moves with non-uniform acceleration, the equations of motion are,

  1. v = v0 + at
  2. x = x0 + v0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at2
  3. v2 = v02 + 2a (x – x0)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
A particle moves in a straight line with uniform acceleration. Its velocity at time t = 0 is v1 and at time t = t is v2. The average velocity of the particle in this time interval is (v1 + v2)/2. Is this correct ? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Consider a particle moving with uniform acceleration a.
At t = 0, the (initial) velocity = v1
At t = t, the (final) velocity = v2
time = t
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 2
∴ The given statement is true.

Question 3.
Can the velocity of an object be in a direction other than the direction of acceleration of the object ? If so, give an example.
Answer:
Yes, the velocity of an object be in a direction other than the direction of acceleration of the object.

Ex. : In the case of the upward motion of a projectile, the angle between velocity and acceleration is 180°. During its journey, the direction of velocity is in upwards and the direction of acceleration is in downwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A parachutist flying in an aeroplane jumps when it is at a height of 3 km above ground. He opens his parachute when he is about 1 km above ground. Describe his motion.
Answer:

  1. A parachutist is jumping from an air-plane at a height of 3 km from the ground. Upto 1 km above the ground, his motion is like a freely falling body. He falls with constant acceleration 9.8 ms-2.
  2. At a height of 1 km above the ground, when he opened the parachute, the air drag opposes the force of gravity resultant on it. The acceleration of parachutist gradually decreases since velocity increases (a = g – bv) and becomes zero.
  3. Further, the parachutist attains terminal speed (constant speed), where air drag (in upward direction) is equal to force of gravity (in downward).
  4. Hopefully this terminal speed is slow enough, so he can touch the ground without much difficulty.

Question 5.
A bird holds a fruit in its beak and flies parallel to the ground. It lets go of the fruit at some height. Describe the trajectory of the fruit as it falls to the ground as seen by
(a) the bird
(b) a person on the ground.
Answer:
A bird holds a fruit in its beak and flies parallel to the ground.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 3
It lets go of the fruit at some height, the trajectory of the fruit as it falls to the ground as seen by (a) the bird is a straight line (b) a person on the ground is a parabola.

Question 6.
A man runs across the roof of a tall building and jumps horizontally on to the (lower) roof of an adjacent building. If his speed is 9 ms-1 and the horizontal distance between the buildings is 10 m and the height difference between the roofs is 9 m, will he be able to land on the next building ? (take g = 10 ms-2).
Answer:
Difference of heights between two buildings h = 9 m; g = 10 ms-2
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 4
Time of flight of a man t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 9}{10}}\)
= 1.341 sec
Horizontal speed of a man u = 9 ms-1
Horizontal distance travelled by a man dm
= Horizontal speed × Time of flight
= u × t = 9 × 1.341 = 12.07 m
Given, the horizontal distance between the buildings db = 10 m
Since dm > db, the man can able to land on the next building.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 7.
A ball is dropped from the roof of a tall building and simultaneously another ball is thrown horizontally with some velocity from the same roof. Which ball lands first? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Let height of the building = Displacement of ball = h
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 5
For first ball u = 0; S = h. a = g; t = t1
Substituting these values in S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
⇒ h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt12
∴ t1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) …………… (1)
For second ball, ux = u (say) uy = 0, aY = g, SY = h; t = t2
Substituting these values in
SY = uYt + \(\frac{1}{2}\) aYt2
h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt22
∴ t2 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)
From equation (1) and equation (2), t1 = t2
∴ Two balls will reach the ground in same time.

Question 8.
A ball is dropped from a building and simultaneously another ball is projected upward with some velocity. Describe the change in relative velocities of the balls as a function of time.
Answer:
For first ball u = u1; v = v1; a = g; t = t
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 6
Substituting these values in equation
v = u + at, we get
v1 = u1 + gt1
For second ball u = u<sub2; v = v2; a = – g; t = t2
Substituting these values in equation, v = u + at,
We get, v2 = u2 + gt2 ………………. (2)
(1) – (2) ⇒ (v1 – v2) = (u1 – u2) + g(t1 + t2)
∴ (v1 – v2) – (u1 – u2) = g(t1 + t2)
[∵ u1 = 0]
∴ (v1 – v2) – (0 – u2) = g(t1 + t2)
∴ The change in final relative velocity and initial relative velocity of two balls = Function of time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 9.
A typical raindrop is about 4 mm in diameter. If a raindrop falls from a cloud which is km above the ground, estimate its momentum when it hits the ground.
Answer:
Diameter of rain drop, D = 4 mm
Radius of ram drop r = 2 mm = 2 × 10-3 m
Volume of the rain atop, V = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3 = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (2 × 10-3)3
Density of water drop = 103 kg/m3
Mass of water drop M = Vd = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 8 × 10-9 × 103
= 33.5 × 2 × 10-6 kg
The height of raindrop falls from a cloud, h = 1 km = 1000 m
Velocity of raindrop just before touching the ground V = \(\sqrt{2 g h}=\sqrt{2 \times 9.8 \times 1000}\) = 140 ms-1
Momentum of raindrop when it hits the ground P = mV = 33.52 × 10-6 × 140 = 469.28 × 10-5
= 0.004692 kg ms-1

Question 10.
Show that the maximum height reached by a projectile launched at an angle of 45° is one quarter of its range.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 7

Problems

Question 1.
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the (a) magnitude of average velocity and (b) average speed of the man over the time interval 0 to 50 min.
Answer:
From home to market:
X1 = 2.5 km; v1 = 5 km h-1;
t1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{X_1}}{\mathrm{v_1}}=\frac{2.5}{5}=\frac{1}{2}\) h = 30 min.
From market to home:
X2 = 2.5 km; v2 = 7.5 km h-1
t2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{X_2}}{\mathrm{v_2}}=\frac{2.5}{7.5}=\frac{1}{3}\) h = 20 min.
a) Magnitude of average velocity
= \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{X}_1-\mathrm{X}_2}{\mathrm{t}_1+\mathrm{t}_2}=\frac{2.5-2.5}{50}\) = 0
b) Average speed
= \(\frac{X_1+X_2}{t_1+t_2}=\frac{2.5-2.5}{(30+20) \min }=\frac{5 \mathrm{~km}}{50 \times \frac{h}{60}}\)
= 6 km h-1

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
A car travels the first third of a distance with a speed of 10 kmph, the second third at 20 kmph and the last third at 60 kmph. What is its mean speed over the entire distance ? [T.S. Mar 16]
Answer:
v1 = 10 km ph; v2 = 20 km ph; v1 = 60 km ph; v = ?
\(\frac{3}{v}=\frac{1}{v_1}+\frac{1}{v_2}+\frac{1}{v_3}\)
\(\frac{3}{v}=\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{60}, \frac{3}{v}=\frac{6+3+1}{60}=\frac{3}{v}=\frac{10}{60}\)
∴ v = 18 km ph

Question 3.
A bullet moving with a speed of 150 ms-1 strikes a tree and penetrates 3.5 cm before stopping. What is the magnitude of its retardation in the tree and the time taken for it to stop after striking the tree ?
Answer:
u = 150 m/s, s = 3.5 cm = 0.035 m, v = 0
v2 – u2 = 2as
0 – 1502 = 2 × a × 0.035
a = \(\left|\frac{-150 \times 150}{2 \times 0.035}\right|\)
= -3.214 × 105 m/s2 = -3.214 × 105 m/s2
Time = \(\frac{v-u}{a}=\frac{0-150}{3.214 \times 10^5}=\frac{-150}{3.214 \times 10^5}\)
= 4.67 × 10-4 sec.

Question 4.
A motorist drives north for 30 min at 85 km/h and then stop for 15 min. He continues travelling north and covers 130 km in 2 hours. What is his total displacement and average velocity ?
Answer:
v1 = 85 kmph, t = 35.0 min, S2 = 130 km
S1 = Displacement = \(\frac{85}{60}\) × 30 = 42.5 km
S2 = 130 km
a) S = S1 + S2 = 42.5 + 130 = 172.50 km
b) Avg.velocity = \(\frac{S_1+S_2+S_3}{t_1+t_2+t_3}\)
= \(\frac{42.5+0+130}{\frac{30}{60}+\frac{15}{60}+2}\)
= \(\frac{172.5 \times 60}{165}\)
= 62.7 km/hr

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 5.
A ball A is dropped from the top of a .building and at the same time an identical ball B is thrown vertically upward from the ground. When the balls collide the speed of A is twice that of B. At what fraction of the height of the building did the collison occur ?
Answer:
Let height of the building =H
Let two balls collide at a height = h
For ball A, u = 0; V = VA s = H – h; t = t; a = g
Substituting these values in s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
H – h = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
H – h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 …………. (1)
and VA = gt ……………… (2)
For ball B, u = u; v = vB; s = h; a = -g
Substituting these values in s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
⇒ h = ut – \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 ………. (3)
and VB = u – gt ……….. (4)
given VA = 2VB
gt = 2(u – gt)
u = \(\frac{3}{2}\) gt …………… (5)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 8

Question 6.
Drops of water fall at regular intervals from the roof of abuilding of height 16 m. The first drop strikes the ground at the same moment as the fifth drop leaves the roof. Find the distances between successive drops.
Answer:
H = 16 m
Time taken by the first drop to touch the ground t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 16}{9.8}=\sqrt{3.26}}\)
sec = 1.8 sec
Time interval between two successive drops
= \(\frac{t}{n-1}\) Where n = no. of drops
= \(\frac{1.8}{5-1}=\frac{1.8}{4}\) = 0.45 sec
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 9
For second drop h2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 1.35 × 1.35 = 8.93 m
d12 = 16 – 8.93 = 7.06 = 7 m
For 3rd drop h3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 0.90 × 0.90
= 3.97
d23 = 8.93 – 3.97 = 4.961 = 5 m
For 4th drop h4 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 0.45 × 0.45
= 0.9922
d34 = 3.97 – 0.9922
d34 = 2.9778 = 3 m
Similarly for d45 = 0.9922 – 0 = 0.9922 = 1 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 7.
A hunter aims a gun at a monkey hanging from a tree some distance away. The monkey drops from the branch at the moment he fires the gun hoping to avoid the bullet. Explain why the monkey made a wrong move.
Answer:
Suppose a hunter aims the gun at a monkey hanging from a high tree branch some distance away d. The instant the monkey observes the flash of the gun it drops from the tree.
Here the time taken by the monkey from the tree to the ground is t1 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) ……………. (1)
The path of bullet from the gun is like a horizontal Projectile, vertical velocity uy = 0, Let S = h. Let t2 be the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground.
∴ S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)a t22
S = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\)a t22
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\)g t22
t2 = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\) …………….. (2)
It is observed from equation (1) and (2),
t1 = t2
Both bullet and monkey reach the ground simultaneously.
Hence the bullet hits the monkey. Therefore Monkey made a wrong move.

Question 8.
A food packet is dropped from an aeroplane, moving with a speed of 360 kmph in a horizontal direction, from a height of 500 m. Find (i) its time of descent (ii) the horizontal distance between the point at which the food packet reaches the ground and the point above which it was dropped.
Answer:
Velocity of aeroplane v = 360 kmph
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 10
v = 360 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 100 m/s
h = 500 m
i) Time of descent =
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 500}{10}}\) = 10 sec
ii) Horizontal range R = u × \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
= 100 × 10 sec = 1000 sec

Question 9.
A ball is tossed from the window of a buliding with an initial velocity of 8 ms-1 at an angle of 20° below the horizontal. It strikes the ground 3 s later. From what height was the ball thrown ? How far from the base of the building does the ball strike the ground ?
Answer:
u = 8 m/s, θ = 20°, t = 35
a) Horizontal distance = (u cos θ) t = 8 cos 20° × 3 = 8 × 0.9397 × 3 = 22.6 m

b) Height h = (u sin θ)t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2
= 8 sin 20° × 3 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × 9
= 8.208 + 44.1 = 52.31 m

c) The ball is thrown from a height of 44.1 m 1
h1 = (u sin θ)t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt12
10 = (8 sin 20°)t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) 9.8% t12
= 2.736 t1 + 4.9 t12
⇒ 4.9 t12 + 2.736 t1 – 10 = 0
t1 = \(\frac{-2.736 \pm \sqrt{(2.736)^2+4 \times 4.9 \times 10}}{2 \times 4.9}\)
⇒ t1 = \(\frac{-2.736 \pm \sqrt{203.48}}{9.8}\)
t1 = \(\frac{-2.736+14.265}{9.8}=\frac{11.5288}{9.8}\)
= 1.176 = 1.18 sec

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 10.
Two balls are projected from the same point in directions 30° and 60° with respect to the horizontal. What is the ratio of their initial velocities if they
(a) attain the same height ?
(b) have the same range 1
Answer:
θ1 = 30°, θ2 = 60°
a) First ball maximum height H1
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 11

Additional Problems

Question 1.
In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered approximately a point object:
a) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
b) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
c) a spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
d) a tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.
Solution:
a) The carriage can be considered a point object because the distance between two stations is very large as compared to the size of the railway carriage.

b) The monkey can be considered as a point object if the cyclist describes a circular track of very large radius because in that case the distance covered by the cyclist is quite large as compared to the size of monkey. The monkey can not be considered as a point object. If the cyclist describes a circular track of small radius, because in that case the distance covered by the cyclist is not very large as compared to the size of the monkey.

c) The cricket ball can not be considered as a point object because the size of the spinning cricket ball is quite appreciable as compared to the distance through which the ball may turn on hitting the ground.

d) A beaker sleeping off the edge of a table cannot be considered as a point, object because the size of the beaker is not negligable as compared to the height of the table.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
The position-time (x – t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes P and Q respectively are shown in fig. Choose the correct entries in the brackets below :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 12
a) (A/B) lives.closer to the school than (B/A).
b) (A/B) starts from the school earlier than (B/A).
c) (A/B) walks faster than (B/A).
d) A and B reach home at the (same/ different) time.
e) (A/B) overtakes (B/A) on the road (once/twice).
Solution:
a) As OP < OQ, A lives closer to the school than B.

b) For x = 0, t = 0 for A; while t has some finite value for B.
Therefore, A starts from the school earlier than B.

c) Since the velocity is equal to slope of x -1 graph in case of uniform motion and slope of x -1 graph for B is greater than for A, hence B walks faster than A.

d) Corresponding to points P and Q, the value of t from x – t graph for A and B is same, which can be checked by drawing lines through P and Q parallel to x axis. Thus both A and B reach home at the same time.

e) The x – t graph for A and B intersect each other only once. Since B starts from the school after- wards, therefore B overtakes A on the road once.

Question 3.
A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks with a speed of 5 km h-1 on a straight road up to her office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm and returns home by an auto with a speed of 25 km h-1. Choose suitable scales and plot the x-t graph of her motion.
Answer:
Time taken in reaching office
= \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{2.5}{5}\) = 0.5 hr.
Time taken in returning from office = \(\frac{2.5}{25}\)
= 0.1 hr = 6 min
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 13
It means the woman reaches the office at 9.30 am and returns home at 5.06 p.m. The x – t graph of this motion will be as shown in fig.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A man walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. Plot the x-t graph of his motion. Determine graphically and otherwise how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start.
Answer:
The effective distance travelled by drunkard in 8 steps = 5 – 3 = 2 m.

Therefore he take 32 steps to walk 8 meters. Now he will have to cover 5 mt more to reach the pit, for which he has to take only 5 forward steps.

Therefore he will have to take = 32 + 5 = 37 steps to move 13 mts. Thus he will fall into pit after taking 37 steps i.e., after 37 seconds from the start.

Question 5.
A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an observer on the ground ?
Answer:
Lt vp be the velocity of the products w.r.to ground
Lt us consider the direction of motion of airplane to be positive direction of x-axis.
Here, speed of jet plane vA = 500 km h-1
Relative speed of products of combustion w.r.to jet plane vρA = -1500 km h-1
Relative velocity of the products w.r.to air plane is
vPA – vP – vA = -1500
(Or)
vP = vA – 1500 = 500 – 1500
= – 1000 km h-1
Here -ve sign shows the direction of products of combustion is opposite to that of airplane. Thus the magnitude of relative velocity is 1000 km h-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 6.
A car moving along a straight highway with speed of 126 km h-1 is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform) and how long does it take for the car to stop ?
Answer:
Here, u = 126 km h-1 = \(\frac{126 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) ms-1
= 35 ms-1; v = 0, S = 200 m, a = ?
and t = ?
We know v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = (35)2 + 2 × a × 200 (Or)
a = \(\frac{-(35)^2}{2 \times 200}=\frac{-49}{16}\)
= -3.06 ms-2
As v = u + at
0 = 35 + \(\left(\frac{-49}{16}\right) \mathrm{t}\) (Or)
t = \(\frac{35 \times 16}{49}=\frac{80}{7}\) = 11.43s

Question 7.
Two trains A and B of length 400 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 72 km h-1 in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 1 m s-2. If after 50 s, the guard of B just moves past the driver of A, what was the original distance between them ?
Solution:
For train A; u = 72 km h-1 = \(\frac{72 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\)
= 20 m s-2; t = 50s; a = 0, S = SA;
As S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
∴ SA = 20 × 50 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0 × 502
= 1000 m
For train B; u = 72 kms-1 = 20 ms-2;
a = 1 ms-2, t = 50/S, S = s-B
As, S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
∴ SB = 20 × 50 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1 × 502 = 2250 m
Taking the guard of the train B in the last compartment of the train B, it follows that original distance between two trains + length of train A + length of train B = SB – SA.
(Or) Original distance between the two trains
400 + 400 = 2250 – 1000 = 1250
(Or) Original distance between the two trains
= 1250 – 800 = 450 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 8.
On a two-lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 km h-1. Two cars B and C approach car A in opposite directions with a speed of 54 km h-1 each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration of car B is required to avoid an accident ?
Solution:
Velocity of car A = 36 km h-1 = 10 ms-1
Velocity of car B or C = 54 km h-1 = 15 ms-1
Relative velocity of B w.r.to
A = 15 – 10 = 5 ms-1
Relative velocity of C w.r.to
A = 15 + 10 = 25 ms-1
As, AB = AC = 1 km = 1000 m
Time available to B (Or) C for crossing
A = \(\frac{1000}{25}\) = 40s
If car B accelerates with acceleration a, to cross A before car C does, then
u = 5 ms-1, t = 40s, s = 1000 m, a = ?
Using s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
1000 = 5 × 40 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × a × 402 (Or)
1000-200 = 800 a (Or)
a = 1 m/s2

Question 9.
Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion and every 6 min in the opposite direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on the road ?
Solution:
Let v km h-1 be the constant speed with which the buses ply between the towns A and B.
The relative velocity of the bus (for the motion A to B) w.r.to the cyclist C i.e., in the direction in which the cyclist is going = (v – 20) kmh-1.
The relative velocity of the bus from B to A W r to the cyclist = (v + 20) kmh-1.
The distance travelled by the bus in time T(min) = vT
As per question \(\frac{v T}{v-20}\) = 18 (Or) vT
= 18v – 18 × 20 ………………… (i)
and \(\frac{v T}{v+20}\) = 6 (Or) vT = 6v + 20 × 6 …………….. (ii)
Equations (i) and (ii) we get
18v- 18 × 20 = 6v + 20 × 6 (Or)
12v = 20 × 6 + 18 × 20 = 480
(Or) v = 40 kmh-1
Putting this value of v in (i) we get 40
T = 18 × 40- 18 × 20 = 18 × 20
(Or) T = 18 × 20/40 = 9 min.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 10.
A player throws a ball upwards with an initial speed of 29.4 ms-1.
a) What is the direction of acceleration during the upward motion of the ball ?
b) What are the velocity and accele-ration of the ball at the highest point of its motion ?
c) Choose the x = 0 m and t = 0 s to be the location and time of the ball at its highest point, vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of x-axis and give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration of the ball during its upward and downward motion.
d) To what height does the ball rise and after how long does the ball return to the player’s hands ?
(Take g = 9.8 ms-2 and neglect air resistance).
Solution:
a) Since the ball is moving under the effect of gravity, the direction of acceration due the gravity is always vertically downwards.

b) At the highest point, the velocity of the ball becomes zero and acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 ms-2 in vertically downward direction.

c) When the highest point is chosen as the location for x = 0 and t = 0 and vertically downward direction to be positive direction of x- axis and upward direction as negative direction of x-axis.
During upward motion, sign of position is negative, sign of velocity is negative and sign of acceleration is positive.
During downward motion, sign of position is positive, sign of acceleration is also positive.

d) Let the t be time taken by the ball to reach the highest point where height from ground to be S.
Taking vertical upward motion of the ball,
we have
u = -29.4 m/s-1, a = 9.8 m/s-2,
v = 0, S = 5, t = 2
As v2 – u2 = 2as
0 – (29.4)2 = 2 × 9.8 × s (Or)
S = \(\frac{-(29.4)^2}{2 \times 9.8}\) = -44.1 m
Here -ve sign shows that distance is covered in upward direction.
As v = u + at
∴ 0 = -29.4 + 9.8 × t (or) t = \(\frac{-29.4}{9.8}\) = 3s
It means time of ascent = 3s
When an objective move under the effect of gravity alone, the time of ascent is always equal to time of descent.
Therefore total time after which the ball returns the player’s hand = 3 + 3 = 6s

Question 11.
Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons and examples, if it is true or false :
A particle in one-dimensional motion
a) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant
b) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity.
c) with constant speed must have zero acceleration.
d) with positive value of acceleration must be speeding up.
Solution:
a) True, when a body is thrown vertically upwards in the space. Then at the highest point, the body has zero speed but has downward acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity.

b) False, because velocity is the speed of body in a given direction. When speed is zero, the magnitude of velocity of body is zero, hence velocity is zero.

c) True, when a particle is moving along a strait line with a constant speed, its velocity remains constant with time. Therefore, acceleration ( = Change in velocity/time) is zero.

d) The statement depends upon the choice of instant of time as origin, when the body is moving along a strait line with positive acceleration. The velocity of the body at on instant of time is v = u + at.

The given statement is not correct. If a is positive and μ is negative, at the instant of time taken as origin. Then for all times before the time for which v vanishes, there is slowing down of the particle i.e., The speed of the particle keeps on decreasing with time. It happens when body is projected vertically upwards. However the given statement is true if u is positive, at the instant of time as origin. When the body is moving along a straight line with positive acceleration. The velocity of body at any instant of time t is v = u + at.

The given statement is not correct if a is positive and u is negative, at the instant of time taken as origin. Then for all times before the time for which v vanishes, there is slowing down of the particle i.e., the speed of particle keeps on decreasing with time. It happens when body is projected vertically upwards. However, the given statement is true if u is positive and a is positive, at the instant of time taken as origin. It is so when the body is falling vertically upwards.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 12.
A ball is dropped from a height of 90 m on a floor. At each collision with the floor, the ball loses one tenth of its speed. Plot the speed-time graph of its motion between t = 0 to 12 s.
Solution:
Taking vertical downward motion of ball from a height 90 m We have
u = 0, a = 10 m/s2, S = 90 m, t = ?, v = ?
t = \(\sqrt{\frac{25}{a}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 90}{10}}=3 \sqrt{25}\) = 4.245
V = \(\sqrt{2 a \mathrm{~s}}=\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 30}=30 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 14
Rebound velocity of ball,
u1 =\(\frac{9}{10} v=\frac{9}{10} \times 30 \sqrt{2}=27 \sqrt{2}\) m/g
Time to reach the highest point is
t1 = \(\frac{u^1}{a}=\frac{27 \sqrt{2}}{10}=2.7 \sqrt{2}\) = 3.81 S
Total time = t + t1 = 4.24 + 3.81 = 8.05 S
The ball will take further 3.1 S to fall back to floor, where its velocity before striking the floor = 2.7\(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Time to reach the highest point is,
t1 = \(\frac{u^1}{a}=\frac{27 \sqrt{2}}{10}=2.7 \sqrt{2}\) = 3.81 S
Total time = t + t1 = 4.24 + 3.81 = 8.05 S
The ball will take further 3.81 S fall back to floor, where its velocity before striking the
floor = 2.7\(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Velocity of ball after striking the floor
= \(\frac{9}{10}\) \(\sqrt{2}\) = 24.3 \(\sqrt{2}\) m/s.
Total time elapsed before upward motion of ball.
= 8.05 + 3.81 = 11.86 S
Thus the speed – time graph of this motion will be as shown in fig.

Question 13.
Explain clearly, with examples, the distinction between :
a) magnitude of displacement (sometimes called distance) over an interval of time and the total length of path covered by a particle over the same interval:
b) magnitude of average velocity over an interval of time and the average speed over the same interval. [Average speed of a particle over an interval of time is defined as the total path length divided by the time interval]. Show in both (a) and (b) that the second quantity is either greater than or equal to the first. When is the equality sign true ? [For simplicity, consider one-dimensional motion only].
Answer:
a) Magnitude of displacement of a particle in motion for a given time is shortest distance between the initial and final position of the particle in that time, where as the total length of the path covered by particle is actual path traversed by the particle in the given time. If particle goes from A to B and B to C in time t as shown in fig. Then magnitude of displacement = Distance AC.
Total path length = Distance AB + Distance AC
From the above we note that total path length (AB + AC) is greater than magnitude of displacement (AC).

If there is motion of the particle in one dimension i.e., along a straight line, then magnitude of displacement becomes equal to totalpath length transversed by the particle in the given time.

b) Magnitude of average velocity
= \(\frac{\text { Magnitude of displacement }}{\text { Time interval }}\)
= \(\frac{A C}{t}\) and average speed
= \(\frac{\text { Total path length }}{\text { Time interval }}=\frac{(A B+B C)}{t}\)
As, (AB + BC) AC, So average speed is greates than the magnitude of average velocity. If the particle is moving along a straight line, then in a given time the magnitude of displacement is equal to total path length transvered by particle in that time, so average speed is equal to magnitude of average velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 14.
A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the
a) magnitude of average velocity and
b) average speed of the man over the interval of time (i) 0 to 30 min, (ii) 0 to 50 m in, (iii) 0 to 40 min ? [Note: You will appreciate from this exercise why it is better to define average speed as total path length divided by time and not as magnitude of average velocity. You would not like to tell the tired man on his return home that his average speed was zero !]
Solution:
Time taken by man to go from his home to market t1 = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{2.5}{5}=\frac{1}{2}\) h
Time taken by man to go from market to his home t2 = \(\frac{2.5}{7.5}=\frac{1}{3}\) h
Total time taken = t1 + t2 = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{5}{6}\)
h = 50 min.
i) 0 to 30 min
a) Average velocity
= \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{2.5}{1 / 2}\) = 5 km/h
b) Average speed
= \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{2.5}{1 / 2}\) = 5 km/h

ii) 0 to 50 min
Total distance travelled
= 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 km
Total displacement = zero
a) Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { Time }}\) = 0
b) Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{5}{5 / 6}\) = 6 km/h

iii) 0 to 40 min
Distance moved in 30 min (from home to market) = 2.5 km
Distance moved in 10 min (from market to home) with speed 7.5 km/h = 7.5 × \(\frac{10}{60}\)
= 12.5 km
So displacement = 2.5 – 1.25 = 1.25 km
Distance travelled = 2.5 + 1.25 = 3.75 km
a) Avg velocity = \(\frac{1.25}{(40 / 60)}\) = 1.875 km/h
b) Avg speed = \(\frac{3.75}{(40 / 60)}=\) = 5.625 km/h

Question 15.
In Exercises 3.13and 3.14, we have carefully distinguished between average speed and magnitude of average velocity. No such distinction is necessary when we consider in ‘antaneous speed and magnitude of velocity. The instantaneous speed is alway equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity. Why ?
Solution:
Instaneous speed (vins) of the particle at an instant is the first derivative of the distance w.r.to time at that instant of time
i.e., vins = \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
Since in instantaneous speed we take only a small interval of time (dt) during which direction of motion of a body is not supposed to change, here there is no difference between total path length and magnitude of displacement for small interval of time dt. Hence instantaneous speed is always equal to magnitude of instantaneous velocity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 16.
Look at the graphs (a) to (d) (fig.) carefully and state, with reasons, which of these cannot possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 15
Solution:
a) This graph does not represent one dimensional motion because, at the given instant of time, the particle will have two positions, which is not possible in one dimensional motion.

b) This graph does not represent one dimensional motion because, at the given instant of time, particle will have velocity in positive as well as in negative direction which is not possible in one dimensional motion.

c) It also does not represent one dimensional motion, because this graph tells that the particle can have the negative speed but the speed of the particle can never be negative.

d) It also does not represent one dimensional motion, because this graph tells that the total path length decreases after certain time but total path length of a moving particle can never decrease with time.

Question 17.
Figure shows the x – t plot of one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to say from the graph that the particle moves In a straight line for t < 0 and on a parabolic path for t > 0 ? If not, suggest a suitable physical context for this graph.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 16
Solution:
No, because the x – t graph does not represent the trajectory of the path followed by a particle.

From the graph, it is noted that at t = 0, x = 0 context. The above graph can represent the motion of a body falling freely from a tower uncles gravity.

Question 18.
A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1 with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car ? (Note : Obtain that speed which is relevant for damaging the thief’s car),
Solution:
Muzzle speed of bullet, υB = 150 m/s = 540 km h-1
Speed of police van, υp = 30 km/h
Speed of theif car, υT = 192 km/h
Since the bullet is sharing the velocity of the police van, its effective velocity is
υB = υB + υP = 540 + 30 = 570 km/h
The speed of bullet w.r.to the theifs car moving in the same direction.
vBT = vB – vT = 570 – 192 = 378 378 km/h
= \(\frac{378 \times 1000}{60 \times 60}\) = 105 m/s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 19.
Suggest a suitable physical situation for each of the following graphs (Fig.):
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 17
Solution:
In fig(a) : The x – t graph shows that intially x is zero i.e, at rest, then it increases with time, attains a constant value and again reduces to zero with time, then it increases in opposite direction till it again attains a constant value i.e., comes to rest. The similar In fig(b) : The velocity changes sign again and again with passage of time and every time some similar speed is lost. The similar physical situation arises when a ball is thrown up with some velocity, returns back and falls freely on striking the floor, it rebounds with reduced speed each it strikes against the floor.

Question 20.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle executing one-dimensional simple harmonic motion. (You will learn about this motion in more detail in Chapter 14). Give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration variables of the particle at t = 0.3 s, 1.2 s, -1.2 s.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 18
Solution:
In the S.H.M. acceleration a = ω2x, where co (i.e., angular frequency) is constant.

i) At time t = 0.35, x is negative, the slope of x -1 graph plot is negative, hence position and velocity are negative, Since a =ω2x, hence, acceleration is positive.
ii) At time t = 1.25, x is positive, the slope of x – t plot is also positive hence position and velocity are positive. Since a = -ω2x, hence acceleration is negative.
iii) At t = 1.2S, x is negative, the slope of x – t plot is also negative. But since both x and t are negative here, hence velocity is positive. Finally acceleration ‘a’ is also positive.

Question 21.
Figure gives the x – t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest and in which is it the least ? Give the sign of average velocity for each interval.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 19
Solution:
We know that average speed in a small interval of time is equal to slope of x -1 graph in that interval of time. The avg speed is the greatest in the interval 3 because slope is greatest and the average speed is least in interval 2 because slope is last three.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 22.
Figure gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude ? In which interval is the average speed greatest ? Choosing the positive direction as the constant direction of motion, give the signs of v and a in the three intervals. What are the accelerations at the points A, B, C and D ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 20
Solution:
We know that average acceleration in a small interval of time is equal to slope of velocity-time graph in that interval. As the slope of v – t graph is maximum in interval 2 as compared to other intervals 1 and 3, hence the magnitude of average acceleration is greatest in interval 2.
The average speed is greatest in interval 3 for obvious reasons.
In interval 1, the speed of v – t graph is positive. Hence acceleration a is positive. The speed u is positive in this interval due to obvious reasons.

In interval 2, the slope of v – t graph is negative, hence acceleration a is negative. The speed u is positive in this interval due to obvious reasons.

In interval 3, the v – t graph is parallel to time axis, therefore acceleration a is zero in this interval but u is positive due to obvious reasons. At points A, B, C and D the v – t graph is parallel to time axis. Therefore acceleration is zero at ail the four points.

Question 23.
A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 ms-2 on a straight road for 10 s and then moves with uniform velocity. Plot the distance covered by the vehicle during the nth second (n = 1, 2, 3 ) versus n. What do you expect this plot to be during accelerated motion : a straight line or a parabola ?
Solution:
Here u = 0, a = 1 m/s2
Distance covered in n th second is
Dn = u + \(\frac{a}{2}\)(2n-1) = 0 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2n – 1) = 0.5 (2n – 1)
Putting n = 1, 2, 3, …………… we can find the value of Dn. The various values of n and corresponding values of Dn are shown below :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 21
On plotting a graph between Dn and n, we get a st. line AB as shown in fig. From (1) Dnn so the graph is a straight line. After 10S the graph is straight line BC parallel to time axis.

Question 24.
A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 ms-1. How much time does the ball take to return to his hands ? If the lift starts moving up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1 and the boy again throws the ball up with the maximum speed he can how long does the ball take to return to his hands ?
Solution:
Taking vertical upward direction as the positive direction of x-axis.
When lift is stationary, consider the motion of the ball going vertically upwards and coming down to the hands of the body. We have
u = 49 m/s, a = 9.8 m/s2, t = ? x – x0 = S = 0
As S = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
0 = 49 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-9.8)t2 (Or) 49t = 4.9 t2 (Or)
t = 49/4.9 = 10 sec
When lift starts moving with uniform speed. As the lift starts moving upwards with uniform speed of 5 m/s, there is no change in the relative velocity of the ball w.r.to the boy which remains 49 m/s. Hence even in the case, the ball will return to the boys hand after 10 sec.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 25.
On a long horizontally moving belt a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 km h-1 (with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. For an observer on a stationary platform outside, what is the
a) speed of the child running in the direction of motion of the belt ?
b) speed of the child running opposite to the direction of motion of the belt ?
c) time taken by the child in (a) and (b) ?
Which of the answer alter if motion is viewed by one of the parents ?
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 22
Solution:
Let us consider left to right to be the positive direction of x-axis.
a) Here, the velocity of belt υB = + 4 km/h; Speed of child w.r. to belt υC
= + 9 Km/h = \(\frac{5}{2}\) m/s
Speed of the child w.r.to stationary observer,
υC1 = υC + υB = 9 + 4 = 13 km/h

b) Here, υB = + 4 km/h, υC = -9 km/h
Speed of the child w.r.to stationary observer
υC1 = υC + υB = -9 + 4 = -5 km/h
Here negative sign shows that the child will appears to run in a opposite to the direction f motion of the belt.

c) Distance between the parents S = 540 m Since parents and child are located on the same belt, the speed of the child as observed by stationary observer in either direction (Either from mother to father (or) from father to mother) will be 9 km/h.
Time taken by child in case (a) and (b) is
t = \(\frac{50}{(5 / 2)}\) = 20 S
If motion is observed by one of the parents, answer to case (a) (Or) case (b) will be altered.
It is so because speed of child w.r. to either of mother (or) father is 9 km/h. But answer (c) remains unaltered due to the fact that parents and child are on the same belt and such all are equal affected by the motion of the belt.

Question 26.
Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 200 m high with initial speeds of 15 ms-1 and 30 ms-1. Verify that the graph shown in Fig. correctly represents the time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first. Neglect air resistance and assume that the stones do not rebound after hitting the ground. Take g = 10 ms-2. Give the equations for the linear and curved parts of the plot.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 23
Solution:
Time vertical upward motion of the first tone for time t, we have
x0 = 200 m, u = 15 m/s, a = -10 m/s2, t = t1, x = x1
As x = x0 + ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
x1 = 200 + 15 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-10)t2 (Or)
x1 = 200 + 15 t – 5 t2 ……………….. (i)
Taking vertical upward motion of the second stone for time t,
We have
x0 = 200 m, u = 30 m/s-1, a = -10 m/s-2, t = t1, x = x2
Then x2 = 200 + 30 t – \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 t2
= 200 + 30 t – 5t2
When the first stone hits the ground x1 = 0,
So t2 – 3t – 40 = 0
(Or) (t – 8) (t + 5) = 0 ……………….. (ii)
∴ Either t = 8 S (Or) – 5S
Since t = 0 corresponds to the instant, when the stone was projected. Hence negative time has no meaning in this case. 50 t = 8S. When the second stone hits the ground, x2 = 0.
0 = 200 + 30 t – 5t2 (Or) t2 – 6t – 40 = 0 (Or) (t – 10) (t + 4) = 0
Therefore, either t = 10 s (Or) t = -4s
Since t = -4s is meaningless, So t = 10s
Relative position of second stone w.r.to first is
= x2 – x1 = 15 t …………………….. (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
Since (x2 – x1) and t are linearly related, therefore the graph is a straight line till t = 8s For maximum separation t = 8 S, so maximum separation = 15 × 8 = 120 m After 8 seconds only second tone would be in motion for 2 seconds, so the graph is in accordance with the aquadratic equation x2 = 200 + 30t – 5t2 for the interval of time 8 seconds to 10 seconds.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 27.
The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in Fig. Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between (a) t = 0 s to 10 s, (b) t = 2s to 6s.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 24
What is the average speed of the particle over the intervals in (a) and (b) ?
Solution:
a) Distance travelled by the particle between 0 to 10s will be
= Area of ∆ OAB, whose base is 10s and height is 12 m/s
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 12 = 60 m 60
Average speed = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6mS-1

b) Let s1 and s2 be the distances covered by the particle in the time interval t1 = 2s to 5s and t2 = 5s to 6s, then total distance covered in time interval t = 2s to 6s will be s = s1 + s2 ……………….. (i)

To find s1: let us consider u1 is the velocity of particle after 2 seconds and a1 is the acceleration of the particle during the time interval zero to 5 seconds.
Then u1 = 0, v = 12 m/s,
a = a , a1 and t = 5s
We have a1 = \(\frac{v-u}{t}=\frac{12-0}{5}=\frac{12}{5}\)
= 2.4 m/s2
∴ u1 = υ + a1t = 0 + 2.4 × 2 = 4.8 m/s-1 Thus for the distance travelled by particle in 3 seconds (i.e, time interval 2s to 5s), we have
u1 = 4.8 m/s, t1 = 3s, a1 = 2.4 m/s2, s1 = ?
As s1 = u1t1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a1t12
S1 = 4.8 + 3 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2.4 × 32 = 25.2 m

To find s2 : let a2 be the acceleration of the particle during the motion t = 5s to t = 10s
We have a2 = \(\frac{0-12}{10-5}\) = -2.4 m/s2
Taking motion of the particle in time interval t = 5s to t = 6s We have
u1 = 12 m/s-1, a2 = -2.4 m/s2, t2 = 1s, s2 = ?
As s2 = u2t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a2t22
s2 = 12 × 1 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-2.4) 12 = 10.8 m
∴ Total distance travelled s = 25.2 + 10.8
= 36m
Average velocity = \(\frac{36}{6-2}=\frac{36}{4}\) = 9 m/s

Question 28.
The velocity-time graph of a particle in onedimensional motion is shown in Fig.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 25
Which of the following formulae are correct for describing the motion of the particle over the time-interval t1 to t2 :
a) x(t2) = x(t1) + v(t1) (t2 – t1) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) a(t2 – t1)2
b) v(t2) = v(t1) + a(t2 – t1)
c) vaverage = (x(t2) – x(t1)) / (t2 – t1)
d) vaverage = (v(t2) – v(t1)) / (t2 – t1)
e) x(t2) = x(t2) + Vaverage (t2 – t2) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) aaverage (t2 – t1)2
f) x(t2) = x(t1) = area under the y – t curve bounded by the t-axis and the dotted line shown.
Solution:
From the graph we note that the slope is not constant and is not uniform, hence the relations (iii), (iv), (v) are correct.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
A car is moving along a straight line. Say OP Fig. 3.1. It moves from O to P in 1 8s and returns from P to Q in 6.0s. What are the average velocity and average speed of the car in going (a) from O to P? arid (b) from O to P and back to Q?
Solution:
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 26
Thus, in this case the average speed is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity.

b) In this case,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 27

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 2.
The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b = 2.5 ms-2 and t is measured in seconds. What is its velocity at t = 0s and t = 2-.0s. What is the average velocity between t = 2.0s and t = 4.0s ?
Solution:
In notation of differential calculus, the velocity is
υ = \(\frac{d x}{d t}=\frac{d}{d t}\)(a + bt2) = 2b t = 5.0 t ms-1
At t = 0s, υ = 0 ms-1 and at t = 2.0s, υ = 10 ms-1
Average velocity = \(\frac{x(4.0)-x(2.0)}{4.0-2.0}\)
= \(\frac{a+16 b-a-4 b}{2.0}\) = 6.0 × b
= 6.0 × 2.5 = 15 ms-1

Question 3.
Obtain equations of motion for cons-tant acceleration using method of calculus.
Answer:
By definition a = \(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dυ = a dt
Integrating both sides
\(\int_{v_0}^v d v=\int_0^t a d t\)
= \(a \int_0^t d t\) (a is constant)
υ – υ0 = at
υ = υ0 + at
Further υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
dx = υ dt
Integrating both sides
\(\int_{x_0}^x d x=\int_0^t v d t=\int_0^t\left(v_0+a t\right) d t\)
x – x0 = υ0 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a t2
x = x0 + υ0 t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a t2
We can write
a = \(\frac{d v}{d t}=\frac{d v}{d x} \frac{d x}{d t}=v \frac{d v}{d x}\)
or, υ dυ = a dx
Integrating both sides,
\(\int_{v_0}^v v d v=\int_{x_0}^x a d x\)
\(\frac{v^2-v_0^2}{2}\) = a(x – x0)
υ2 = υ02 + 2a(x – x0)
The advantage of this method is that it can be used for motion with non-uniform acceleration also.
Now, we shall use these equations to some important cases.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 4.
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 ms-1 from the top of a multistorey building. The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25.0 m from the ground. [T.S. A.P. Mar. 15]
(a) How high will the ball rise ? and
(b) how long will it be before the ball hits the ground ? Take g = 10 ms-2. (Actual valqp is 9.8 ms-2)
Solution:
a) Let us take the y—axis in the vertically upward direction with zero at the vertically upward direction with zero at the ground, as shown in fig. 3.13.
Now υ0 = + 20 ms-1
a = -g = -10 ms-2,
υ = 0 ms-1
If the ball rises to height y from the point of launch, then using the equation
υ2 + υ02 + 2a(y – y0)
we get
0 = (20)2 + 2(-10) (y – y0)
Solving, we get, (y – y0) = 20 m

b) We can solve this part of the problem in two ways. Note carefully the methods used.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 28
First Method : In the first method, we split the path in two parts : the upward motion (A to B) and the downward motion (B to C) and calculate the corresponding time taken t1 and t2. Since the velocity at B is zero, we have :
υ = υ0 + at
0 = 20 – 10 t1
t1 = 2s
Or,
This is the time in going from A to B. From B, or the point of the maximum height, the ball falls freely under the acceleration due to gravity. The ball is moving in negative y direction. We use equation
y = y0 + υ0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
We have, y0 = 45 m, y = 0, υ0 = 0,
a = -g = – 10 ms-2
0 = 45 + (\(\frac{1}{2}\)) (-10) t22
Solving, we get t2 = 3s
Therefore, the total time taken by the ball
before it hits the ground = t1 + t2 = 2s + 3s = 5s.

Second method : The total time taken can also be calculated by nothing the coordinates of initial and final positions of the ball with respect to the origin chosen and using equation.
y = y0 + υ0t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
Now y0 = 25 m, y = 0 m
υ0 = 20 ms-1, a = -10 ms-2, t = ?
0 = 25 + 20t + (\(\frac{1}{2}\))(-10)t2
Or, 5t2 -20t – 25 = 0
Solving this quadratic equation for t, we get t = 5s

Question 5.
Free-fall : Discuss the motion of an object under fall. Neglect air resistance.
Solution:
An object released near the surface of the Earth is accelerated downward under the influence of the force of gravity. The magnitude of acceleration due to gravity is represented by g. If air resistance is neglected, the object is said to be in free fall. If the height through which the object falls is small compared to the earth’s radius, g can be taken to be constant, equal to 9.8 ms-2. Free fall is thus a case of motion with uniform acceleration.

We assume that the motion is in y-direction, more correctly in -y-direction because we choose upward direction as positive Since that acceleration due to gravity is always downward, it is in the negative direction and we have
a = – g = -9.8 ms-2
The object is released from rest at y = 0. Therefore, υ0 = 0 and the equations of motion become :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 29
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 30
Motion of an object under free fall.
a) Variation of acceleration with time.
b) Variation of velocity with time.
c) Variation of distance with time.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 6.
Galileo’s law of odd numbers : The distances traversed, during equal intervals of time, by a body falling from rest, stand to one another in the same ratio as the odd numbers beginning with unity (namely 1:3:5:7 )n Prove it.
Solution:
We have y = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) gt2 Using this equation, we can calculate the position of the object after different time intervals, 0, τ, τ2, τ3 which are given in second column of table 3.2. If we take (-1/2) gτ2 as y0 – the position coordinate after first time interval τ, then third column gives the positions in the unit of y0. The fourth column gives the distances traversed in successive τs. We find that the distances are in the simple ratio 1: 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 :11 as shown in the last column.

Question 7.
Stopping distance of vehicles : When brakes are applied to a moving vehicle, the distance it travels before stopping is called stopping distance. It is an important factor for road safety and depends on the initial velocity (-υ0) and the braking capacity or deceleration, – a that is caused by the braking. Derive an expression for stopping distance of a vehicle in terms of υ0 and a.
Solution:
Let the distance travelled by the vehicle before it stops be ds. Then, using equation of motion υ2 = υ02 + 2 ax and noting that υ = 0, we have the stopping distance
ds = \(\frac{-v_0^2}{2 a}\)
Thus, the stopping distance is proportional to the square of the initial velocity. Doubling the initial velocity increases the stopping distance by a factor of 4 (for the same deceleration).

For the car of a particular make, the braking distance was found to be 10 m, 20 m, 34 m and 50 m corresponding to velocities of 11, 15,20 and 25 m/s which are nearly consistent with the above formula.

Question 8.
Reaction time : When a situation demands our immediate action. It takes some time before we really respond. Reaction time is the time a person takes to observe, think and act. For example, if a person is driving and suddenly a boy appears on the road, then, the time elapsed before he slams the brakes of the car is the reaction time. Reaction time depends on complexity of the situation and on an individual.

You can measure your reaction time by a simple experiment. Take a ruler and ask your friend to drop it vertically through the gap between your thumb and forefinger (Fig. 3.15). After you catch it, find the distance d travelled by the ruler. In a particular case, d was found to be 21.0 cm. Estimate reaction time.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 31
Solution:
The ruler drops under free fall. Therefore υ0 = 0 and a = -g = -9.8 ms-2. The distance travelled d and the reaction time t, are related by d = –\(\frac{1}{2}\) gtr2 Or tr = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \mathrm{~d}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)s.
Given d = 21.0 cm and g = 0.8 ms-2 the reaction time is
tr = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 0.21}{9.8}}\) s ≅ 0.2 s

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Question 9.
Two parallel rail tracks run north- south. Train A moves north with a speed of 54 km h-1 and train B moves south with a speed of 90 kmh-1. What is the
a) velocity of B with respect to A ?
b) velocity of ground with respect to B ?
c) velocity of a monkey running on the roof of the train A against. Its motion (with a velocity of 18 kmh-1 with respect to the train A) as observed by a man standing on the ground ?
Solution:
Choose the positive direction of x-axis to be from south to north. Then,
υA = + 54 km h-1 = 15 ms-1
υB = – 90 km h-1 = -25 ms-1
Relative velocity of B with respect to A = υA – υB = – 40 ms-1, i.e., the train B appears to A to move with a speed of 40 ms-1 from north to souch.
Relative velocity of ground with respect to B = 0 – υB = 25 ms-1
In.(c), let the velocity of the monkey with respect to ground be υM. Relative velocity of the monkey with respect to A,
υMA = υM – υA = – 18 km h = – 5 mh-1
Therefore, υM = (1 5 – 5)mh-1 = 10 mh-1.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 2nd Lesson Units and Measurements Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 2nd Lesson Units and Measurements

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between accuracy and precision. [A.P. Mar. 16, 15; T.S. Mar. 15, 13]
Answer:
Accuracy:

  1. The accuracy of measurement of any physical quantity made by any measuring instrument is a measure of how close the measured value is to the true value of the quantity.
  2. The accuracy depends on errors.

Precision:

  1. The precision of the measuring instrument denotes upto what limit (or) resolution the quantity can be measured with the given instrument.
  2. The precision does not depend on errors.

Question 2.
What are the different types of errors that can occur in a measurement?
Answer:
Mainly there are three types of errors.

  1. Systematic errors
  2. Random errors
  3. Gross errors.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 3.
How can systematic errors be minimized or eliminated? [Mar. 14]
Answer:
Systematic errors can be minimised by improving experimental techniques, selecting better instruments and removing personal bias as far as possible. For a given set up, these errors may be estimated to a certain extent and the necessary corrections may be applied to the readings.

Question 4.
Illustrate how the result of a measurement is to be reported indicating the error involved. [T.S., A.P. – Mar. 17]
Answer:
To measure any physical quantity, we compare it with a standard (unit) of that quantity. No measurement is perfect as the errors involved in the process cannot be removed completely. Hence inspite of our best efforts, the measured value is always some what different from its actual value (or) true value.

Question 5.
What are significant figures and what do they represent when reporting the result of a measurement ? [Mar. 13]
Answer:
The digits of a number that are definitely known plus one more digit that is estimated are called significant digits (or) significant figures.
Example : Time period of a simple pendulum is 1.62, the digits 1 and 6 are reliable while the digit 2 is uncertain. The measured value has three significant figures.

Question 6.
Distinguish between fundamental units and derived units. [T.S. – Mar. 16]
Answer:

  1. Units of fundamental quantities are called fundamental units. Fundamental units can neither derived from one another, nor can they be resolved into other units.
  2. Units of derived quantities are called derived units.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 7.
Why do we have different units for the same physical quantity ?
Answer:
We have different systems like C.G.S system, M.K.S system, F.P.S system and S.l system. Hence we have different physical units for the same physical quantity.

Question 8.
What is dimensional analysis ?
Answer:
Dimensional analysis is the representation of derived physical quantities in terms of units of fundamental quantities.

With the help of dimensional analysis to check the correctness of the equation, convert one system of units into other system and derive certain equations relating physical quantities.

Question 9.
How many orders of magnitude greater is the radius of the atom as compared to that of the nucleus ?
Answer:
Size of atomic nucleus = 10-14 m
Size of atom = 10-10 m
Hence size of atom is 1CT4 m greater the size of the nucleus.

Question 10.
Express unified atomic mass unit in kg.
Answer:
1 unified atomic mass unit = \(\frac{1}{12}\) of the mass of carbon – 12 atom.
1 a.m.u = 1.66 × 10-27 kg

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The vernier scale of an instrument has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm, then using this instrument what would be the minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance ?
Answer:
Value of each main scale division = 0.5 mm
No. of vernier scale divisions = 50
In vernier callipers, L.C = \(\frac{S}{N}=\frac{\text { Value of one main scale division }}{\text { No. of vernier scale divisions }}\)
L.C. = \(\frac{0.5}{50}\) = 0.01 m.m
The minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance is 0.01 m.m. (Or)
Value of 1 MSD = 0.5 m.m
NV.S.D = (N – 1) M.S.D
50 V.S.D – 49 M.S.D
1 V.S.D = \(\) M.S.D. = \(\frac{49}{50}\) × 0.5
L.C = 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D
(0.5 – \(\frac{49}{50}\) × 0.5) = (1 – \(\frac{49}{50}\))0.5 = \(\frac{1}{50}\) × 0.5
L.C. = 0.01 m.
∴ Minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance is 0.01 m.m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
In a system of units, the unit of force is 100 IM. unit of length is 10 m and the unit of time is 100s. What is the unit of mass in this system ?
Answer:
Force (F) = 100 N; Length (L) = 10 m; Time (T) = 100 s F = ma
mass (m) = \(\frac{F}{a}=\frac{F}{L T^{-2}}\); m = \(\frac{\mathrm{FT}^2}{\mathrm{~L}}=\frac{100 \times(100)^2}{10}\) = 105 kg

Question 3.
The distance of a galaxy from Earth is of the order of 1025 m. Calculate the order of magnitude of the time taken by light to reach us from the galaxy.
Answer:
Distance of galaxy from earth = 1025 m
Velocity of light (C) = 3 × 108 m/s
Time taken by the light (t) = \(\frac{\text { Distance of galaxy from earth }}{\text { velocity of light }}\)
t = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{c}}\) ⇒ t = \(\frac{10^{25}}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 0.33 × 1017 s ⇒ t = 3.3 × 1016 sec.

Question 4.
The Earth-Moon distance is about 60 Earth radius. What will be the approximate diameter of the Earth as seen from the Moon?
Answer:
Distance between Earth-Moon = 60 R
Radius of the earth = R
r = 60R = 60 × 6400 × 103 (R = 6400km)
θ = 1 sec = \(\frac{1}{60}\) Min = \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60}\) degree ⇒ θ = \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\) radian
Then r = \(\frac{l}{\theta}\) ⇒ l = rθ ⇒ l = 60 × 6400 × 103 × \(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\)
l = 11.16 × 103 km ⇒ Diamter (l) = 11.16 × 103 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 5.
Three measurements of the time for 20 oscillations of a pendulum give t1 = 39.6 s, t2 = 39.9 s and t3 = 39.5 s. What is the precision in the measurements? What is the accuracy of the measurements?
Answer:
No. of oscillations = 20
t1 = 39.6 sec, t2 = 39.9 sec, t3 = 39.5 sec
Mean value = \(\frac{t_1+t_2+t_3}{3}=\frac{39.6+39.9+39.5}{3}=\frac{119}{3}\) = 39.66
Mean value = 39.7 sec;
Precision = 0.1 sec.
Accuracy is the closeness of measured value with true value.
Hence 39.6 s is accuracy.

Question 6.
1 calorie = 4.2J where 1J = 1 kg m2s2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass is \(\hat{a}\) kg, the unit of length is \(\hat{a}\) m and the unit of time is \(\tilde{a}\) s, show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 \(\hat{\mathrm{a}}^{-1} \hat{a}^{-2} \tilde{\mathrm{a}}^{-2}\) in the new system.
Answer:
1 Calorie = 4. 2J ⇒ 1 J = 1 kg m2 s-2
1 calorie = 4.2 kg m2 s-2
In new system, 1 calorie = 4.2 \(\hat{a} \hat{a}^2 \hat{a}^{-2}\)

Question 7.
A new unit of length is chosen so that the speed of light in vacuum is 1 ms-2. If light takes 8 min and 20 $ to cover this distance, what is the distance between the Sun and Earth in terms of the new unit ?
Answer:
V = Speed of light in vacuum = 1 m/s
Time taken (t) = 8 min 20 sec = 500 sec
Distance between the sun and earth (d) = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}}\) ⇒ d = \(\frac{1}{500}\) = 0.002 m.

Question 8.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair using a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average thickness (as viewed in the microscope) is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate of the thickness of hair ?
Answer:
Magnification of microscope = M = 100
Observed thickness = 3.5 m.m
Magnification (M) = \(\frac{\text { Observed thickness }}{\text { Real thickness }}\) ⇒ 100 = \(\frac{3.5}{\text { Real thickness }(t)}\) ⇒ t = \(\frac{3.5}{100}\) = 0.035 m.m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
A physical quantity X is related to four measureable quantities a, b, c and d as follows. X = a2 b3 c5/2d-2
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. What is the percentage error in X ?
Answer:
X = a2 b3 c5/2d-2
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}\) × 100 = 1%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100 = 2%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{c}}\) × 100 = 3%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\) × 100 = 4%
Percentage error in X is
(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\mathrm{X}}\)) × 100 = 2(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}\) × 100) + 3(\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100) + \(\frac{5}{2}\) (\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}\) × 100) + 2 \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\) × 100
= 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + \(\frac{5}{2}\) × 3 + 2 × 4 = 2 + 6 + \(\frac{15}{2}\) + 8
⇒ (\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{X}}{\mathrm{X}}\) 100 = 23.5 %

Question 10.
The velocity of a body is given by v = At2 + Bt + C. If v and t are expressed in SI what are the units of A, B and C ?
Answer:
Given V = At2 + Bt + C
According to principle of homogeneity,

  1. V = At2 ⇒ A =\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}^2}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}^2}\) = [LT-3] ⇒ A = ms-3
  2. V = Bt ⇒ B = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = [LT-1] ⇒ B = ms-2
  3. V = C ⇒ C = LT-1 ⇒ C = ms-1

Problems

Question 1.
In the expression P = E l2 m-5 G-2 the quantities E, l, m and G denote energy, angular momentum, mass and gravitational constant respectively. Show that P is a dimension-less quantity.
Solution:
P = E L2 m-5 G-2
Energy (E) = [ML2 T-2]
Angular momentum (L) = ML2 T-1
Mass = [M]
Universal gravitational constant
(G) = [M-1L3T-2]
P = [ML2 T-2] [ML2 T-1]2 [M]-5 [M-1 L3 T-2]-2
P = M1+2-5+2 L2+4-6 T-2-2+4
P = [M0 L0 T0]
Hence P is dimensional less quantity.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
If the velocity of light c. Planck’s constant h and the gravitational ‘ constant G are taken as fundamental quantities : then express mass, length and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.
Solution:
i) M ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M1 L0 T0] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M1L0T0] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z = 0
– x + z = 1, 3x + y + 2z = 0, – 2x – y – z = 0
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{-1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
M = G\(\frac{-1}{2}\) C\(\frac{1}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
M = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\mathrm{G}}}\)

ii) Length (l) ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M0 L1 T0] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M0L1T0] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z
Applying principle of homogeneity
-x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 0, -2x – y – z = 0
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{-3}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
From equation (1), l = G\(\frac{1}{2}\) C\(\frac{-3}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Length (l) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{Gh}}{\mathrm{C}^3}}\)

iii) Time (T) ∝ Gx Cy hz
[M0 L0 T1] = [M-1 L3 T-2]x [LT-1]y [ML2 T-1]z
[M0L0T1] = M-x+z L3x+y+2z T-2x-y-z
Applying principle of homogeneity
-x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 0, -2x – y – z = 1
Solving these equations, we get
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{-5}{2}\), z = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
From equation (1), l = G\(\frac{1}{2}\) C\(\frac{-5}{2}\) h\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Length (l) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{Gh}}{\mathrm{C}^5}}\)

Question 3.
An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit of radius r. Using dimensional analysis show that the period of the satellite
T = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)
where k is a dimensionless constant and g is acceleration due to gravity.
Solution:
T = \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}\)
L.H.S. : Time period = [T]
R.H.S. : \(\frac{k}{R} \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{g}}=\frac{1}{L} \sqrt{\frac{L^3}{L T^{-2}}}\) = [T]
∴ L.H.S. = R.H.S.
Above equation is correct.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 4.
State the number of significant figures in the following.
a) 6729
b) 0.024
c) 0.08240
d). 6.032
e) 4.57x
Solution:
a) 6729 – 4     Significant figures
b) 0024 – 2            ”
c) 008240 – 4         ”
d) 6.032 –  4           ”
e) 4.57 × 108 – 3     ”

Question 5.
A stick has a length of 12.132 cm and another has a length of 12.4 cm. If the two sticks are placed end to end what is the total length ? If the two sticks are placed side by side, what is the difference in their lengths?
Solution:
a) Let lengths of the rods are
l1 = 12.132 cm, l2 = 12.4 cm
Here has one decimal place and l1 has to be rounded to have only two decimal places.
l = l1 + l2 = 12.13 + 12.4 = 24.53
This is to be rounded off to have one decimal place only.
∴ The result is 24.5 cm

b) l1 = 12.132 cm, l2 = 12.4 cm
Here l1 is rounded only two decimal places,
l2 – l1 = 12.4 – 12.13 = 0.27
This should be rounded off to have only one decimal place, l2 – l1 = 0.3

Question 6.
Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What is
(i) the total surface area and
(ii) the volume of the cube, to appropriate significant figures ?
Solution:
Length of a side = 7.203 m
(i) Total surface area = 6a2
= 6 × (7.203)2
= 311.29
This should be rounded off to four significant figure as 7.203 as 4 significant figures.
∴ The result = 311.3m2

(ii) Volume of the cube = a3
= (7.203)3
= 373.71
This should be rounded off to four significant figures has 7.203 has four significant figures.
∴ Volume = 373.7 m3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 7.
The measured mass and volume of a body are 2.42 g and 4.7 cm3 respectively with possible errors 0.01 g and 0.1 cm3. Find the maximum error in density.
Solution:
M = 2.42 g, V = 4.7 cm3
∆M = 0.01 g, ∆V = 0.1 cm3
Density (ρ) = \(\frac{M}{V}\)
\(\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}+\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{0.01}{2.42}+\frac{0.1}{4.7}\)
= 0.004 + 0.02 = 0.024
% error is \(\frac{\Delta \rho}{\rho}\) × 100 = 0.024 × 100
= 2.4% ≈ 2%

Question 8.
The error in measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. What is the error in the measurement of volume ?
Solution:
Radius of the sphere \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}}\) × 100 = 1%
Volume (V) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100 = 3 × \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{r}}\) × 100 = 3 × 1% = 3%

Question 9.
The percentage error in the mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. What is the maximum error in kinetic energy calculated using these quantities ?
Solution:
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}\) × 100 = 2%, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100 = 3%;
Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mV2
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{K}}\) × 100 = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}}\) × 100 + 2 \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × 100
= 2 + 2(3) = 2 + 6 = 8%

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 10.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). If the size of the hydrogen molecule is about 1A°, what is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ?
Solution:
Molar volume = 22.4 lit = 22.4 × 1000 c.c.
= 22.4 × 10-3 m3
Diameter of the hydrogen molecule
= 1 A° = 10-10 m
Radius (r) = \(\frac{D}{2}=\frac{10^{-10}}{2}\) = 0.5 × 10-10 m
Volume (V) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14 × (0.5 × 10-10)3
v = \(\frac{1.57}{3}\) × 10-30 = 0.5233 × 10-30 m3
Atomic volume = V × Avagadro’s number (N)
= 0.5233 × 10-30 × 6.023 × 1023 = 3.151 × 10-7
∴ \(\frac{\text { Molar volume }}{\text { Atomic volume }}=\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{3.151 \times 10^{-7}}\)
= 7.108 × 10-4

Additional Problems

Note : In stating numerical answers, take care of significant figures.

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks
a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to …………….. m3
b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to ……………. (mm)2
c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h-1 covers ……………. m in 1 s
d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is …………….. g cm-3 or …………….. kg m-3.
Solution:
a) Here, length of slide L = 1 cm = 10-2 m
Volume of cube = L3 = (10-2 m)3 = 10-6 m3

b) Here, r = 2.0 cm = 20 mm
h = 10.0 cm = 100 mm
Surface area of solid cylinder = (2rcr) × h
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 20 × 100 mm2
= 1.26 × 104 mm2

c) Here, speed V = 18 km
h-1 = \(\frac{18 \times 1000 \mathrm{~m}}{60 \times 60 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 5 ms-1
∴ Distance covered in 1 second = 5 m

d) Here, relative density = 11.3
density = 11.3 g k.c = \(\frac{11.3 \times 10^{-3}}{\left(10^{-2} \mathrm{~m}\right)^3}\)
= 11.3 × 103 kg m-3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units.
a) 1 kg m2 s-2 = ………….. g cm2 s-2
b) 1 m = ………….. 1y
c) 3.0 ms-2 = ………….. km h-2
d) G = 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 (kg)-2 = …………. (cm)3 s-2 g-1.
Solution:
a) 1 kg m2 s2
= 1 × 103 g (102 cm)2s-2 = 107 g cm2 s-2

b) We know, 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
∴ 1 m = \(\frac{1}{9.46 \times 10^{15}}\) light year
= 1.053 × 10-16 light year

c) 3ms-2 = 3 × 10-3 km \(\left(\frac{1}{60 \times 60} h\right)^{-2}\)
= 3 × 10-3 × 3600 × 3600 km h-2

d) G = 6.61 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11 (kg ms-2) m2 kg-2
= 6.67 × 10-11 m3 s-2 kg-1
= 6.67 × 10-11 (100 cm)3 s-2 (1000 g)-1
= 6.67 × 10-8 cm3 s-2 g-1

Question 3.
A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals about 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m2 s-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals a kg, the unit of length equals b m, the unit of time is g s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 a-1b-2 g2 in terms of the new units.
Solution:
Here 1 calorie = 4.2 J = 4.2 Kg m-3S-1 …………… (1)
As new unit of mass = 1kg
∴ 1 kg = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{a}}\) new unit of mass = a-1
similarly, 1m = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{b}}\) = b-1
1s = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{g}}\) = g-1
Putting these values in eq(1), we obtains.
1 calorie = 4.2 (a-1 new unit of mass)
(b-1 new unit of length)2
(g-1 new unit of time)2
1 calorie = 4.2 a-1 b-2 g2.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 4.
Explain this statement clearly :
‘To call a dimensional quantity ‘large1 or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary :
a) atoms are very small objects
b) a jet plane moves with great speed
c) the mass of Jupiter is very large
d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
e) a proton is much more massive than an electron
f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.
Solution:
i) The statement is true. This is because a dimensionless quantity can be large or small only in comparison to some standard. For example, angle is dimensionless ∠θ = 60° is larger than ∠θ = 30°, but smaller than ∠θ = 90°

ii) a) The size of an atom is smaller than the sharp tin of a pin.
b) A jet plane moves faster than a superfast train.
c) The mass of Jupiter is very large compared to the mass of earth.
d) The air inside this room contains more number of molecules than in one mole of air.
e) The statement is already correct.
f) The statement is already correct.

Question 5.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum in unity. What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance ?
Solution:
We are given that velocity of light in vacuum, c = 1 new unit of length s-1
Time taken by light of Sun to reach the Earth,
t = 8 min 20 s = 8 × 60 + 20 = 500 s
∴ Distance between the Sun and the Earth,
x = C × t =1 new unit of length s-1 × 500 s
= 500 new units of length

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 6.
Which of the following is the most
precise device for measuring length :
a) a vernier cuHipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wave-length of light ?
Solution:
The most precise device is that whose least count is minimum. Now
a) Least count of this vernier callipers
= 1 SD – 19 SD = 1 SD = \(\frac{19}{20}\) SD = \(\frac{1}{20}\) SD
= \(\frac{1}{20}\) mm = \(\frac{1}{200}\) cm = 0.005 cm

b) Least count of screw gauge
= \(\frac{\text { Pitch }}{\text { No. of divisions on circular scale }}\)
= \(\frac{1}{100}\) mm = \(\frac{1}{1000}\) cm = 0.01 cm

c) Wavelength of light,
λ = 10-5 cm = 0.00001 cm
Obviously, the most precise measurement is with optical instrument.

Question 7.
A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness of hair ?
Soution:
Magnification m = \(\frac{\text { observed with }(\mathrm{y})}{\text { real width }(\mathrm{x})}\)
x = \(\frac{\mathrm{y}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{3.5 \mathrm{~mm}}{100}\) = 0.035 mm

Question 8.
Answer the following :
a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread ?
b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale ?
c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable estimate than a set of 5 measurements only ?
Solution:
a) The diameter of a thread is so small that it cannot be measured using a metre scale. We wind a number of turns of the thread on the metre scale. So that the turns are closely touching one another. Measure the length (l) of the windings on the scale which contains n number of turns.
∴ Diameter of thread = \(\frac{1}{n}\)

b) As least count
= \(\frac{\text { Pitch }}{\text { Number of divisions on circular scale }}\)
∴ Theoretically speaking, least count decreases on increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale. Hence accuracy would increase. Practically, it may not be possible to take the reading precisely due to low resolution of human eye.

c) A large number of observations will give more reliable result than smaller number of observations. This is because of probability of making a positive random error of certain magnitude is equal to that of making a negative random errors are likely to cancel and the result may be more reliable.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2 on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected on to a screen and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement.
Solution:
Here, area of object = 1.75 cm2 and area of image = 1.55 m2 = 1.55 × 104 cm2
∴ Areal magnification = \(\frac{\text { area of image }}{\text { area of object }}\)
= \(\frac{1.55 \times 10^4}{1.75}\) = 8857
Linear magnification = \(\sqrt{8857}\) = 94.1

Question 10.
State the number of significant figures in the following :
a) 0.007 m2
b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
c) 0.2370 g cm-3
d) 6.320 J
e) 6.032 N m-2
f) 0.0006032 m2
Solution:
The number of significant figures is as given below.
a) one
b) three
c) four
d) four
e) four
f) four

Question 11.
The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and 2.01 cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Solution:
Here, length l = 4.234 m;
Breath, b = 1.005 m
Thickness, t = 2.01 cm = 2.01 × 10-2 m
Area of the sheet = 2(l × b + b × t + t × l)
= 2(4.234 × 1.005 + 1.005 × 0.0201 + 0.0201 × 4.234)
2(4.3604739) = 8.7209478 m2
As area can contain a maximum of three significant digits, therefore, rounding off, we get
Area = 8.72 m2
Also, volume = l × b × t
V = 4.234 × 1.005 × 0.0201
V = 0.0855289
V = 0.855 m3

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 12.
The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.300 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is (a) the total mass of the box, (b) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures ?
Solution:
Here, mass of the box, m = 2.3 kg
Mass of one gold piece,
m1 = 20.15 g = 0.02015 kg
Mass of another gold piece,
m2 = 20.17g = 0.02017 kg
a) Total mass = m + m1 + m1
= 2.3 + 0.02015 + 0.02017
= 2.34032 kg
As the result is correct only upto one place of decimal, therefore, on rounding off total mass = 2.3 kg

b) Difference in masses
= m2 – m1 = 20.17 – 20.15
= 0.02g (correct upto two places of decimal)

Question 13.
A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows :
P = a3b2/ (\(\sqrt{c}\)d )
The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity P ? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result ?
Solution:
Here, P = \(\frac{a^3 b^2}{\sqrt{c} d}\)
Maximum fractional error in P is given by \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
= \(3 \frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{a}}+2 \frac{\Delta \mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{b}}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{\Delta \mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{c}}+\frac{\Delta \mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}}\)
= \(3\left(\frac{1}{100}\right)+2\left(\frac{3}{100}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{100}\right)+\frac{2}{100}\)
= \(\frac{13}{100}\) = 0.13
Percentage error in
P = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{P}}\) × 100 = 0.13 × 100 = 13%
As the result (13% error) has two significant figures, therefore if P turns out to be 3.763, the result would be rounded of to 3.8.

Question 14.
A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion :
a) y = a sin 2 π t/T) b) y = a sin vt,
c) y = (a/T) sin t/a,
d) y = (a\(\sqrt{2}\)) (sin 2πt /T + cos 2 πt/T)
(a = maximum displacement of the particle, v = speed of the particle. T = time- period of motion). Rule out the wrong formulas on dimensional grounds.
Solution:
The argument of a trigonometrical function i.e., angle is dimensionless. Now in
a) \(\frac{2 \pi t}{T}=\frac{T}{T}\) = 1 = (M0L0T0)
…………… dimensionless
b) vt = (LF-1) (T) = L = (M0L1T0)
………….. not dimensionless

c) \(\frac{\mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{a}}=\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{L}}\) = (L-1T-1)
………….. not dimensionless

d) \(\frac{2 \pi t}{\mathrm{~T}}=\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}}\) = 1 = [M0L0T0]
…………… dimensionless

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 15.
A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle in terms of its speed v and the speed of light, c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity due to Albert Einsterin). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but for-gets where to put the constant c. He writes :
m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(1-v^2\right)^{1 / 2}}\)
Guess where to put the missing c.
Solution:
According to the principle of homogenity of dimensions power of M, L, T on either side of the formula must be equal. For this, on RHS, the denominator (1 – v2)1/2 should be dimensionless. Therefore, instead of (1 – v2)1/2,
we should write \(\left(\frac{1-v^2}{c^2}\right)^{1 / 2}\)
Hence the correct formula would be
m = \(\frac{m_0}{\left(\frac{1-v^2}{c^2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

Question 16.
The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted byA° : 1A° = 1010m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 A°. What is the total atomic volume in m3 of a mole of hydrogen atoms ?
Solution:
Here r = 0.5 A° = 0.5 × 10-10 m
Volume of each atom of hydrogen = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 3.14(0.5 × 10-10) = 5.236 × 10-31 m3
Number of hydrogen atoms in one gram mole of hydrogen = Avagadro’s number
= 6.023 × 1023
∴ Atomic volume of one gram mole of hydrogen atom
= 5.236 × 10-31 × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.154 × 10-7 m3

Question 17.
One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L of (molar volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ? (Take the size of hydrogen molecule to about 1A°). Why is this ratio so large ?
Solution:
Atomic volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3 × N
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) (0.5 × 10-10)3 × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.154 × 10-7 m3
Molar volume = 22.4 lit = 22.4 × 10-3 m3
\(\frac{\text { Molar volume }}{\text { Atomic volume }}=\frac{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}{3.154 \times 10^{-7}}\) = 7.1 × 104
The ratio is large due to large intermolecular separations.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 18.
Explain this common observation clearly: If you look out of the window of a fast moving train, the nearby tr6es, houses etc., seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train’s motion, but the distant objects (hill tops, the Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary. (In fact, since you are aware that you are moving; these distant objects seem to move with you).
Solution:
The line joining the object to the eye is called the line of sight. When a train moves rapidly, the line of sight of a near by tree changes its direction of motion rapidly. Therefore, the trees appear to run in opposite direction. On the contrary, the line of sight of far off objects does not change its direction. So much, due to extremely large distance from the eye. Hence distant hill tops, moon, the stars etc., appear stationary.

Question 19.
The principle of ‘parallax’ in section 2.3.1 is used in the determination of distances of very distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart 21. in its orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit 3 × 1011 m. However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show parallax only of the order of 1″ (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on the astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1″ (second) of arc from opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to Sol. the Sun. How much is a parsec in terms of metres ?
Solution:
Here, length of baseline
= distance from each to the sun
= 1 A.U = 1.5 × 1011 m
Parallax angle, θ = 1
\(\frac{1^1}{60}=\frac{1^{\circ}}{60 \times 60}=\frac{\pi}{180} \times \frac{1}{60 \times 60}\) radian
r = 1 par sec = ?; From l = rθ = \(\frac{l}{\theta}\)
= \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{\prime \prime}}{\pi / 180 \times 60 \times 60} \mathrm{~m}\) = 3.1 × 1016 m
Hence 1 parsec = 3.1 × 1016 m

Question 20.
The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light years away. How much is this distance in terms of parasecs ? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha Centauri) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in its orbit around the Sun ?
Solution:
x = 4.29 ly = 4.29 × 9.46 × 1015 m
= \(\frac{4.29 \times 9.46 \times 10^{15}}{3.08 \times 10^{16}}\) par sec
= 1.323 par sec
θ = \(\frac{l}{r}=\frac{2 A u}{x}\)
= \(\frac{2 \times 1.496 \times 10^4}{4.29 \times 9.46 \times 10^{15}}\) radian = 1.512 sec

Question 21.
Precise measurements of physical quantities are a need of science. For example, to ascertain the speed of an aircraft, one must have an accurate method to find its positions at closely separated instants of time. This was the actual motivation behind the discovery of radar in World War II. Think of different examples in modem science where precise measurements of length, time, mass etc., are needed. Also, wherever you can, give a quantitative idea of the precision needed.
Solution:
Precise measurements of physical quantities like length, mass and time are the primary requirements for development of quantitative laws of physics or any other science. For example, in the measurement of distance of moon from earth by laser beam, very accurate measurement of time taken is required. Similarly, for measuring distance, elevation and velocity of an aeroplane by radar method, time measurement has to be accurate. For measuring distances of near by stars, accurate measurement of parallax angle is required.

In the field of crystallography, precise measurement of length is needed to determine interatomic distances using a mass spectrometer, the precision measurement of masses of atoms are made.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 22.
Just as precise measurements are necessary in science, it is equally important to be able to make rough estimates of quantities using rudimentary ideas and common observations. Think of ways by which you can estimate the following (where an estimate is difficult to obtain, try to get an upper bound on the quantity):
a) the total mass of rain-bearing clouds over India during the Monsoon
b) the mass of an elephant
c) the wind speed during a storm
d) the number of strands of hair on * your head
e) the number of air molecules in your classroom.
Solution:
a) During the Monsoon, meteorologist record about 100 cm of rainfall, i.e.,
h – 100 cm = 1m
Area of our country,
A = 3.3 million square km
= 3.3 × 106 (103m2)
= 3.3 × 1012 m6
∴ Volume of rain water,
v = A × h = 3.3 × 1012 1m3
As density of water,
P = 103 km/m3
∴ Mass of rain water
= vP = 3.3 × 1012 × 103 kg
= 3.3 × 1015 kg
This must be the total mass of rain bearing clouds over India.

b) To estimate the mass of an elephant, we take a boat of known base area A. Measure the depth of boat in water. Let it be x1. Therefore, volume of water displaced by the boat , V1 = Ax1 move the elephant into this boat. The boat gets deeper into water. Measure the depth of boat now into water, Let it be x1
∴ Volume of water displaced by boat and elephant V2 = Ax2
∴ Volume of water displaced by the elephant V = V2 – V1 = A(x2 – x1)
If ρ is density of water, then mass of elephant
= mass of water displaced by it
= Vρ = A(X2 – X1) ρ

c) The wind speed during a storm can be estimated using a gas filled balloon. In figure OA is normal position of a gas filled balloon, when there is no wind. As the wind blows to the right, the balloon drifts to position B in one second. The angle of drift ∠AOB = θ is measured, if h is the height of the balloon, then AB = d = hθ This is the distance travelled by the balloon in one second it must be the wind speed.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 1

d) For this, we measure the area of the head . that carrier the hair let it be A. Using a screw guage, we measure thickness of hair, let it bad.
∴ Area of cross section of hair = πd2
Assuming that the distribution of hair over the head is uniform.
The number of strands of hair
= \(\frac{\text { total area }}{\text { area of cross section of each hair }}=\frac{\mathrm{A}}{\pi \mathrm{d}^2}\)
Calculations show that number of strands of hair on human head is of the order of one million.

e) Measure the volume of room. We know that one mole of air at NTP occupies a volume of 22.4 lit i.e., 22.4 × 10-3 m3
∴ Number of air molecules in 22.4 × 10-3 m3 = 6.023 × 1023
Number of air molecules in volume v of room = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{22.4 \times 10^{-3}}\)v

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 23.
The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 107 K and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance remains in a solid of liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, in the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases ? Check if your guess is correct from the following data : mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 108 m.
Solution:
Here, M = 2.0 × 1030 kg; R = 7.0 × 108 m
Density ρ = ?
ρ = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{M}{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3}=\frac{3 M}{4 \pi R^3}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 2.0 \times 10^{30}}{4 \times 3.14 \times\left(7 \times 10^8\right)^3}\)
= 1.392 × 103 kg/m3
This is the order of density of solids and liquids; and not gases.
The high density of Sun is due to inward gravitational attraction on outer layers, due to inner layers of the Sun.

Question 24.
When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometers from the Earth, its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72, of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.
Solution:
Here, r = 824.7 × 106 km
θ = 35.72″ radian
= \(\frac{35.72}{60 \times 60} \times \frac{\pi}{180}\) radian
Diameter, l = ?; As l = rθ
∴ l = 824.7 × 106 × \(\frac{35.72 \times \pi}{60 \times 60 \times 180}\) km
= 1.429 × 105km

Question 25.
A man walking briskly in rain with speed u must slant his umbrella forward making an angle q with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between q and v : tan θ = v and checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v → 0, θ →0, as expected. (We are assuming there is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for a stationary man). Do you think this relation can be correct ? If not, guess the correct relation.
Solution:
The relation tan θ = v has a correct limit, as v → 0, θ → 0.
However, RHS = tan θ = [M0L0T0] and L.H.S = v = [M0L1T-1]
Therefore, the relation is not correct dimensionally.
We shall find the correct relation is
tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{v^2}}{\mathrm{rg}}\)

Question 26.
It is claimed that two cesium clocks, if allowed to run for 100 years, free from any disturbance, may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the standard cesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s ?
Solution:
Error in 100 years = 0.02s
Error in 1 sec
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 2
Hence the accuracy of the standard cesium clock is measuring a time interval of 1s is 10-12 s.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 27.
Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom assuming its size to be about 2.5 A°. (Use the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with the density of sodium in its crystalline phase: 970 kg m-3. Are the two densities of the same order of magnitude ? If so why ?
Solution:
Atomic volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πR3 × N
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) (1.25 × 10-10)3 6.023 × 1023 m
= 4.93 × 10-6 m3
Average mass density
= \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{23 \times 10^{-3}}{4.93 \times 10^{-6}}\)
= 4.67 × 103 kg/m3
The two densities are not of the same order. This is due to interatomic spacing in the crystalline phase.

Question 28.
The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a fermi: 1 f = 10-15 m. Nuclear sizes obey roughly the following empirical relation :
r = r0A1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus. A its mass number, and r0 is a constant equal to about 1.2 f. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant for different density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 27.
Answer:
Let m be the average mass of nucleon (neutron or proton)
As the nucleus contains A nucleons,
∴ mass of nucleus μ = mA
Radius of nucleus r = r0A1/3
Nuclear density ρ = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}=\frac{\mu}{\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3}\)
= \(\frac{3 m A}{4 \pi\left(r_0 A^{1 / 3}\right)^3}=\frac{3 m}{4 \pi r_0^3}\)
As m and r0 are constant, therefore, nuclear density is constant for all nuclei.
using m = 1.66 × 10-27 kg and r0
= 1.2f = 1.2 × 10-15 m
We get ρ = \(\frac{3 m}{4 \pi r_0^3}=\frac{3 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27}}{4 \times 3.14\left(1.2 \times 10^{-15}\right)^3}\)
= 2.29 × 1017 kg m-3
As ρ is constant for all nuclei, this must be the density of sodium nucleus also.
Density of sodium atom
ρ’ = 4.67 × 103 kg m-3
= \(\frac{\rho}{\rho^{\prime}}=\frac{2.29 \times 10^{17}}{4.67 \times 10^3}\) = 4.67 × 10-3

Question 29.
A LASER is a source or very intense, monochromatic and unidirectional beam of light. These properties of a laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the Moon from the Earth has been already determined very precisely using a laser as a source of light. A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon’s surface. How much is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth ?
Solution:
Here, t = 2.56s
Velocity of laser light in vacuum,
c = 3 × 108 m/s
The radius of lunar orbit is the distance of moon from the earth. Let it be x.
As x = \(\frac{c \times t}{2}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8 \times 2.56}{2}\) = 3 84 × 108 m

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 30.
A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and locate objects under water. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR the time delay between generation of a probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from an enemy submarine is found to be 77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine? (Speed of sound in waiter = 1450 ms-1).
Solution:
Here, t = 77.0 s, x = ? V = 1450 ms-1
As x = \(\frac{\mathrm{V} \times \mathrm{t}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1450 \times 77.0}{2}\)m; x = 55825 m

Question 31.
The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as quasars) have many puzzlingn features, which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is the distance in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us ?
Solution:
Here, x = ?
Time taken t = 30 billion years = 3 × 109 yr
= 3 × 109 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Velocity of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s
= 3 × 105 km/s
As distance = velocity × time
x = (3 × 105) × 3 × 109 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 km.
= 2.84 × 1022 km

Question 32.
It is a well known fact that during a total solar eclipse the disk of the moon almost completely covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact and from the information you can gather from examples 3 and 4. determine the approximate diameter of the moon.
Solution:
Distance of moon from earth,
ME = 3.84 × 108 m
Distance of Sun from earth,
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 3
SE = 1.496 × 1011 m
Distance of Sun AB = 1.39 × 109 m
The situation during total solar eclipse is shown in figure.
As ∆s ABE of CDE are similar, therefore,
\(\frac{A B}{C D}=\frac{S E}{M E}\)
CD = AB × \(\frac{M E}{S E}=\frac{1.39 \times 10^9 \times 3.84 \times 10^8}{1.496 \times 10^{11}}\)
= 3.5679 × 106 m = 3567.9 km

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 33.
A great physicist of this century (P.A.M. Dirac) loved playing with numerical values of Fundamental constants of nature. This led him to an interesting observation. Dirac found that from the basic constants of atomic physics (c, e, mass of electron, mass of proton) and the gravitational costant G, he could arrive at a number with the dimension of time. Further, it was a very large number, its magnitude being close to the present estimate on the age of the universe (~ 15 billion years). From the table of fundamental constants in this book, try to see if you too can construct this number (or any other interesting number you can think of). If its coincidence with the age of the universe were significant, what would this imply for the constancy of fundamental constants ?
Solution:
Trying out with basic constants of atomic physics (speed of light c, charge on electron e, mass of electron mc, mass of proton mp) and universal gravitational constant G, we can arrive at a quantity which has the dimensions of time. One such quantity is
t = \(\left(\frac{c^2}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\right)^2 \times \frac{1}{m_p m_{e^2} c^3 G}\)
Put e = 1.6 × 10-19 c
\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\) = 9 × 109,
c = 3 × 10<sup8 m/s and
G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2
t = (1.6 × 10-19)4 × (9 × 109)2 × \(\frac{1}{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times\left(9 \times 10^{-31}\right) \times\left(3 \times 10^8\right)^3 \times 6.67 \times 10^{-11}}\)
t = 2.18 × 1016 sec; This time is of the order of age of universe.

Textual Examples

Question 1.
Calculate the angle at (a) 1° (degree) (b) V (minute of arc or arcmin) and (c) 1″ (second of arc or are second) in radians. Use 360° = 2π rad, 1° = 60′ and 1′ = 60″.
Answer:
(a) We have 360° = 2π rad
1° = (π/180) rad = 1.745 × 10-2 rad

(b) 1′ = 60′ = 1.745 × 10-2 rad
V = 2.908 × 10-4 rad, 2.91 × 10-4 rad

(c) 1′ = 60″ = 2.908 × 10-4 rad
1″ = 4.847 × 10-6 rad, 4.85 × 10-6 rad.

Question 2.
A man wishes to estimate the distance of a nearby tower from him. He stands at a point A in front of the tower C and spots a very distant object O in line with AC. He then walks perpendicular to AC up to B, a distance of 100 m and looks at O and C again. Since O is very distant, the direction BO is practically the same as AO; but he finds the line of sight of C shifted from the original line of sight by an angle θ = 40° (θ is known as parallax’) estimate the distance of the tower C from his original position A.
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 4
Answer:
Parallax angle θ = 40°; AB = AC tan θ
AC = AB/tan θ = 100 m/tan 40°
= 100 m/0.8391 = 119 m.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 3.
The moon is observed from two diametrically opposite points A and B on Earth. The angle 6 subtended at the moon by the two directions of observation is 1°54‘. Given the diameter of the Earth to be about 1.276 × 107 m, compute the distance of the moon from the Earth.
Solution:
We have θ = 1°54′ = 114
= (114 × 60)” × (4.85 × 10-6) rad
= 3.32 × 10-2 rad.
Since 1″ = 4.85 × 10-6,; rad
Also b = AB = 1.276 × 107 m
Hence from D = b/θ, we have the earth-moon distance,
D = b/θ
= \(\frac{1.276 \times 10^7}{3.32 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 3.84 × 108 m.

Question 4.
The Sun’s angular diamater is mea-sured to be 1920″. The distance D of the Sun from the Earth is 1.496 × 10″ m. What is the diameter of the Sun ?
Answer:
Sun’s angular diameter α = 1920”
= 1920 × 4.85 × 10-6 rad
= 9.31 × 10-3 rad
Sun’s diameter d = α
D = (9.31 × 10-3) × (1.496 × 1011) m
= 1.39 × 109 m.

Question 5.
If the size of a nucleus in the range of 10-15 to 10-14 m) is scaled up to the tip of a sharp pin, what roughly is the size of an atom ? Assume tip of the pin to be in the range 10-5 m to 10-4 m.
Answer:
The size of a nucleus is in the range of 10-15m and 10-14 m. The tip of a sharp pin is taken to be in the range of 10-5 m and 10-4 m. Thus we are scaling up by a factor of 1010. An atom roughly of size 10-10 m will be scaled up to a size of 1 m. Thus a nucleus in an atom is as small in size as the tip of a sharp pin placed at the centre of a sphere of radius about a metre long.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 6.
Two clocks are being tested against a standard clock located in a national laboratory. At 12 : 00 : 00 noon by the standard dock, the readings of the two clocks are :
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 5
If you are doing an experiment that requires ‘precision time interval’ measurements, which of the two clocks will you prefer ?
Answer:
The range of variation over the seven days of observations is 162 s for clock 1 and 31 s for clock 2. The average reading of clock 1 is much closer to the standard time than the average reading of clock 2. The important point is that a clock’s zero error is not as significant for precision work as its variation, because a ‘zero-error’ can always be easily corrected. Hence clock 2 is to be preferred to clock 1.

Question 7.
We measure the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum. In successive measurements, the readings turn out to be 2.63 s. 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71 is and 2.80 s. Calculate the absolute errors relative error or percentage error.
Answer:
The mean period of oscillation of the pendulum
T = \(\frac{(2.63+2.56+2.42+2.71+2.80) s}{5}\)
= \(\frac{13.22}{5}\) s = 2.624 s = 2.62 s
As the periods are measured to a resolution of 0.01 s, all times are to the second decimal; it is proper to put this mean period also to the second decimal.
The errors in the measurements are
2.63 s – 2.62 s = 0.01 s
2.56 s – 2.62 s = -0.06 s
2.42 s – 2.62 s = -0.20 s
2.71 s – 2.62 s = 0.09 s
2.80 s – 2.62 s = 0.18 s
Note that the errors have the same units as the quantity to be measured.
The arithmetic mean of all the absolute errors (for arithmetic mean, we take only the magnitudes) is
∆Tmean = [(0.01 + 0.06 + 0.20 + 0.09 + 0.18)s]/5 = 0.54 s/5 = 0.11 s
That means, the period of oscillation of the simple pendulum is (2.62 ± 0.11) s i.e. it lies between (2.62 + 0.11) s and (2.62 – 0.11) s or between 2.73 s and 2.51 s. As the arithmetic mean of all the absolute errors is 0.11 s, there is already an error in the tenth of a second. Hence there is no point in giving the period to a hundredth. A more correct way will be to write T = 2.6 ± 0.1 s

Note that the last numeral 6 is unreliable, since it may be anything between 5 and 7. We indicate this by saying that the measurement has two significant figures. In this case, the two significant figures are 2, which is reliable and 6, which has an error associated with it. You will learn more about the significant figures in section 2.7.
For this example, the relative error or the percentage error is δa = \(\frac{0.1}{2.6}\) × 100 = 4.

Question 8.
The temperatures of two bodies measured by a thermometer are t1 = 20 °C ± 0.5 °C and t2 = 50 °C ± 0.5°C. Calculate the temperature difference and the error therein.
Answer:
t’ = t2 – t1
= (50 °C ± 0.5 °C) – (20 °C ± 0.5 °C)
t’ = 30 °C ± 1 °C.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 9.
The resistance R = V/I where V = (100 ± 5) V and I = (10 ± 0.2) A. Find the percentage error in R.
Answer:
The percentage error in V is 5 and in I it is 2.
The total error in R would therefore be 5 + 2 = 7%.

Question 10.
Two resistors of resistances R1 = 100 ± 3 ohm and R2 = 200 ± 4 ohm are connected (a) in series, (b) in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance of the (a) series combination, (b) parallel combination. Use for (a) the relation R
= R1 + R2 and for (b) \(\frac{1}{R^{\prime}}+\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}\) and \(\frac{\Delta R^{\prime}}{R^{\prime 2}}=\frac{\Delta R_1}{R_1^2}+\frac{\Delta R_2}{R_2^2}\)
Answer:
a) The equivalent resistance of series, combination
R = R1 + R2 = (100 ± 3)
ohm + (200 ± 4) ohm = 300 ± 7 ohm.

b) The equivalent resistance of parallel combination
AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements 6
Then, R’ = 66.7 ± 1.8 ohm
(Here, ∆R is expressed as 1.8 instead of 2 to keep in conformity with the rules of significant figures).

Question 11.
Find the relative error in Z, if Z = A4B1/3/CD3/2.
Answer:
The relative error in Z is ∆Z/Z = 4(∆A/A) + (1/3) (∆B/B) + (∆C/C) + (3/2) (∆D/D).

Question 12.
The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{L / g}\). Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. What is the accuracy in the determination of g ?
Answer:
g = 4π2L/T2; Here, T = \(\frac{t}{n}\) and ∆T = \(\frac{\Delta t}{n}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
The errors in both L and t are the least count errors. Therefore, (∆g/g) = (∆L/L) + 2(∆T/T)
= \(\frac{0.1}{20.0}+2\left(\frac{1}{90}\right)\) = 0.027
Thus, the percentage error in g is 100 (∆g/g)
= 100(∆L/L) + 2 × 100 (∆T/T) = 3.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 13.
Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What are the total surface area and the volume of the cube to appro¬priate significant figures ?
Answer:
The number of significant figures in the measured length is 4. The calculated area and the volume should therefore be rounded off to 4 significant figures.
Surface area of the cube = 6(7.203)2 m2
= 311.299254 m2
= 311.3 m2
Volume of the cube = (7.203)3 m3
= 373.714754 m3
= 373.7 m3

Question 14.
5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm3. Express its density by keeping the significant figures in view.
Answer:
There are 3 significant figures in the measured mass whereas there are only 2 significant figures in the measured volume. Hence the density should be expressed to only 2 significant figures.
Density = \(\frac{5.74}{1.2}\) cm-3 = 4.8 g cm-3.

Question 15.
Let us consider an equation \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = mgh where m is the mass of the body, v its velocity, g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is the height. Check whether this equation is dimensionally correct.
Answer:
The dimensions of LHS are
[M] [LT-1]2 = [M] [L2T-2] = [M L2T-2]
The dimensions of RHS are
[M] [LT-2] [L] = [M] [L2T-2] = [M L2T-2]
The dimensions of LHS and RHS are the same and hence the equation is dimensionally correct.

Question 16.
The SI unit of energy is J = kg m2s-2; that of speed v is ms-1 and of acceleration a is ms-2. Which of the formulae for kinetic energy (K) given below can you rule out on the basis of dimensional arguments (m stands for the mass of the body):
(a) K = m2V3
(b) K = (1/2) mv2
(c) K = ma
(d) K = (3/16) mv2
(e) K = (1/2) mv2 + ma.
Answer:
Every correct formula or equation must have the same dimensions on both sides of the equation. Also, only quantities with the same physical dimensions can be added or subtracted. The dimensions of the quantity on the right side are [M2 L3 T-3] for (a) : [ML2T-2] for (b) and (d); [MLT-2] for (c). The quantity on the right side of (e) has no proper dimensions since two quantities of different dimensions have been added. Since the kinetic energy K has the dimensions of [ML2T-2], formulas (a), (c) and (e) are ruled out. Note that dimensional arguments cannot tell which of the two, (b) or (d), is the correct formula. For this, one must turn to the actual definition of kinetic energy. The correct formula for kinetic energy is given by (b).

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 2 Units and Measurements

Question 17.
Consider a simple pendulum, having a bob attached to a string, that oscillates under the action of the force of gravity. Suppose that the period of oscillation of the simple pendulum depends on its length (l), mass of the bob (m) and acceleration due to gravity (g). Derive the expression for its period using method of dimensions.
Answer:
The dependence of time period T on the quantities l, g and m as a product may be written as :
T = k lx gy mz
Where k is dimensionless constant and x, y and z are the exponents.
By considering dimensions on both sides, we have
[L°M°T1] = [L1]x [L1T-2]y [M1]2 = Lx+yT-2y Mz
On equating the dimensions on both sides, we have
x + y = 0; -2y = 1 and z = 0
So that x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), z = 0
Then, T = kl1/2 g1/2 or T = \(\mathrm{k} \sqrt{\frac{l}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
Note that value of constant k can hot be obtained by the method of dimensions. Here it does not matter if some number multiplies the right side of this formula because that does not affect its dimensions.
Actually, k = 2π so that T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}\)

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 1st Lesson Physical World Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material 1st Lesson Physical World

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Physics?
Answer:
Physics is a branch of science that deals with the study of nature and natural phenomena.

Question 2.
What is the discovery of C.V.Raman? [T.S. Mar. 17, 16; Mar. 14]
Answer:
In the elastic scattering of light by molecules.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 3.
What are the fundamental forces in nature?
Answer:

  1. Gravitational force
  2. Electromagnetic force
  3. strong nuclear force
  4. weak nuclear force

Question 4.
Which of the following has symmetry?
(a) Acceleration due to gravity
(b) Law of gravitation.
Answer:
Law of gravitation. For example, the acceleration due to gravity at the moon is one-sixth that at the earth, but the law of gravitation is same both on the moon and the earth.

Question 5.
What is the contribution of S. Chandra Sekhar to physics ? [AP – Mar. ’17, ’16, ’15; TS – Mar. – ’15]
Answer:
While studying the constitution of the stars, he has proved that the maximum mass that a white dwarf can have is 1.4 times the solar mass. This mass is known as Chandrasekhar limit. If a star crosses this limit, it has to face a catostropic collapse.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Some of the most profound statements on the nature of science have come from Albert Einstein, one of the greatest scientists of all time. What do you think Einstein meant when he said : “The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is comprehensible” ?
Answer:
The physical world when seen by a layman, presents us with such a wide diversity of things. It seems incomprehensible, ie as if it can not be understood. On study and analysis, the scientists find that the physical phenomena from atomic to astronomical ranges can be understood interms of only a few basic concepts i.e., the physical world becomes comprehensible. This is what is meant by Einsteins statement mode above.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 2.
“Every great physical theory starts as a heresy and ends as a dogma”. Give some examples from the history of science of the validity of this incisive remark.
Answer:
The statement is true. For example, in ancient times, ptolemy postulated that earth is stationary and all heavy bodies like sum, stars, planets etc revolve around the earth, Later an Italian Scientist Galileo was postulated that sun is stationary and earth along with other planets is revolving around the sun. Galileo was punished by the authorities for spreading wrong concepts. How ever later on newton and kepler supported Galileo’s theory and now it is no more than a dogma.

Question 3.
“Politics is the art of the possible”. Similarly. “Science is the art of the soluble”. Explain this beautiful aphorism on the nature and practice of science.
Answer:
It is well known that to win over vots, politicians would make anything and everything possible even when they are least sure of the same. The statement that science is the art of the soluble implies that a wide variety of physical phenomena are understood in terons of only a few basic concepts ie there appears to be unity in diversity as if widely different phenomena are soluble and can be explained in terms of only a few fundamental laws.

Question 4.
Though India now has a large base in science and technology, which is fast expanding, it is still a long way from realising its potential of becoming a world leader in science. Name some important factors which in your view have hindered the advancement of science in India.
Answer:
In my view some important factors which have hindered the advancement of science in india are

  1. Lack of education.
  2. Poverty, which leads to lack of resources and lack of infrastructure.
  3. Pressure of increasing population.
  4. lack of scientific planning.
  5. Lack of development of work culture and self discipline.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 5.
No physicist has ever “seen” an electron. Yet, all physicists believe in the existence of electrons. An intelligent but superstitious man advances this analogy to argue that ‘ghosts’ exist even though no one has ‘seen’ one. How will you refute his argument ?
Answer:
No physicist has every seen an electron. This is true. But there is so much of Evidence that establishes the existance of electrons, on the contrary, there is hardly any evidence, direct (or) indirect to establish the existance of ghosts’.

Question 6.
The shells of crabs found around a particular coastal location in Japan seem mostly to resemble that legendary face of Samurai. Given below are two explanations of this observed fact. Which of these strikes you as a scientific explanation ?
(a) A tragic sea accident several centuries ago drowned a young Samurai. As a tribute to his bravery, nature through its inscrutable ways immortalised his face by imprinting it on the crab shells in that area.
(b) After the sea tragedy, fishermen in that area, in a gesture of honour to their dead hero, let free any crab shell caught by them which accidentally had a shape resembling the face of a Samurai. Consequently, the particular shape of the crab shell survived longer and therefore in course of time the shape was genetically propagated. This is an example of evolution by artificial selection.
[Note : This interesting illustration taken from Carl Sagan’s The Cosmos’ highlights the fact that often strange and inexplicable facts which on the first sight appear ‘supernatural’ actually turn out to have simple scientific explanations. Try to think out other examples of this kind).
Answer:
Explanation (b) is a scientific explanation of the observed fact.

Question 7.
The industrial revolution in England and Western Europe more than two centuries ago was triggered by some key scientific and technological advances. What were these advances ?
Answer:
Industrial revolution in England and western Europe in 1750 A.D. was triggered by some key scientific and technological advances. Development of steam engine, blast furnace and cotton gin and power loom are some of the examples.

Question 8.
It is often said that the world is witnessing now a second industrial revolution, which will transform the society as radically as did the first. List some key contemporary areas of science and technology,which are responsible fo this revolution.
Answer:
Some of the key contemparary areas of science and technology which may transform the society radically are

  1. Development of superconducting materials at room temperature –
  2. Development of superfast computers
  3. Information explosion and advances in information technology
  4. Developments in biotechnology
  5. Developments of robots.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 9.
Write in about 1000 words is fiction piece on the science and technology of the twenty second century.
Answer:
Imagine a space ship heading towards a star about 100.light years away. It is propelled by electric current generated by electromagnetic induction, as the space ship crosses the magnetic fields in space the current is given to an electric motor made of super conducting wires. Thus no energy would be required to propagate the space ship over it extire journey.

In a particular region of the space, suppose the temperature becomes so high that the super conducting property of the wires of the motor is destroyed. This causes a panic in the space ship because no power is generated by the motor.

In a split second, another space ship filled with matter and antimatter stored in different compartments to produce energy for the first ship comes to its rescue. And the first ship continues its onward Journey.

Question 10.
Attempt to formulate your ‘moral’ views on the practice of science. Imagine yourself stumbling upon a discovery, which has great academic interest but is certain to have nothing but dangerous consequences for the human society. How, it at all, will you resolve your dilemma ?
Answer:
Science is search for truth. If a discovery is of great academic interest, but is sure to have dangerous consequences for the human society, it must be made public. To reveal the truth and the means to prevent its misuse, both are the responsibilities of the scientist. For example, discovery of nuclear fission led to generation of electric power, and also to the development of an atom bomb, a weapon of mass destruction . The humanity at large has to be educated to use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.

Question 11.
Science, like any knowledge, can be put to good or bad use, depending on the user. Given below are some of the applications of science. Formulate your views on whether the particular application is good, bad or something that cannot be so clearly categorised:
a) Mass vaccination against small pox to curb and finally eradicate this disease from the population. (This has already been successfully done in India).
b) Television for eradication of illiteracy and for mass communication of news and ideas.
c) Prenatal sex determination
d) Computers for increase in work efficiency
e) Putting artificial satellites into orbits around the Earth
f) Development of nuclear weapons
g) Development of new and powerful techniques of chemical and biological warfare).
h) Purification of water for drinking
i) Plastic surgery
j) Cloning
Answer:
a) Mass Vaccination is good
b) Television for eradication of illeteracy and for mass communication of news and ideas is really good.
c) Prenatal sex determination is not bad, but people are misusing it. they must be educated to avoid its misuse in creating inbalance between the male arid female population.
d) computers for increase in work efficiency are good.
e) Putting artificial satellites in to orbits around the earth is a good development.
f) Development of nuclear weapons is bad as they are the weapons of mass destruction.
g) Development of new and powerful techniques of chemical and biological warfare is real bad as these weapons are destruction of mankind.
h) purification of water for drinking is good.
i) Plastic surgery is good.
j) Cloning is also good.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 12.
India has had a long and unbroken tradition of great scholarship – in mathematics, astronomy, linguistics, logic and ethics. Yet, in parallel with this, several superstitious and obscurantistic attitudes and practices flourished in our society and unfortunately continue even today – among many educated people too. How will you use your knowledge of science to develop strategies to counter these attitudes ?
Answer:
Educating the common man is the only way to get rid of superstitious and obscurantistic attitudes. The mass media like news papers, magazines, radio, T.V. etc can play vital role school and colleges curricula can be suitably developed and teachers can take this responsibility.

Question 13.
Though the law gives women equal status in India, many people hold unscientific views on a woman’s innate nature, capacity and intelligence, and in practice give them a secondary status and role. Demolish this view using scientific arguments, and by quoting examples of great women in science and other spheres; and persuade yourself and others that, given equal opportunity, women are on par with men.
Answer:
Given equal opportunity, women are at par with men. Development of human mind depends basically on nutrition content of prenatal and postnatal diet, and also on the care and use of the mind. There is no gender bias involved. Anything which can be achieved by man’s mind can also be achieved by women’s mind. Madam curie won Nobel Prize in physics. Mother teresa proved herself a saint. In politics Mrs. Indira Gandhi, Mr. Margarettheatcher, Mr’s. Bhandarnaike excelled others.

Question 14.
“It is more important to have beauty in the equations of physics than to have them agree with experiments”. The great British physicist. P. A. M. Dirac held this view. Criticize this statement. Look out for some equations and results in this book which strike you as beautiful.
Answer:
The statement of great British physicist P.A.M. Dirac is partially true. For example f = ma; E = mc2 are some of simple and beautiful equations of physics which have universal application.

However, there is not the case always. The equations involved in general theory of relativity, some of the least works of higher physics are neither simple nor beautiful, they are rather difficult to understand.

AP Inter 1st Year Physics Study Material Chapter 1 Physical World

Question 15.
Thought the statement quoted above may be disputed, most physicists do have a feeling that the great laws of physics are at once simple and beautiful. Some of the notable physicists, besides Dirac, who have articulated this feeling, are : Einstein, Bohr. Heisenberg, Chandrasekhar and Feynman: You are urged to make special efforts to get access to the general books and writings by these and other great masters of physics. (See th§ Bibliography at the end of this book.) Their writings are truly inspiring !
Answer:
General books on physics make an interesting reading, students are advised to consult a good library. Surely you are Joking Mr. Feynman by Feynman is one of the books that would amuse the students. Some other interesting books are : physics for the inquiring mind by E.M, Rogers; physics. Foundations and frontiers by G. Gamow; thirty years that shook physics by G. Gamow; physics can be fun by perelman.

Question 16.
Textbooks on science may give you a wrong impression that studying science is dry and all too serious and that scientists are absent-minded introverts who never laugh or grin. This image of science and scientists is patently false. Scientists, like any other group of humans, have their share of humorists, and many have led their lives with a great sense of fun and adventure, even as they seriously pursued their scientific work. Two great physicists of this genre are Gamow and Feynman. You will enjoy reading their books listed in the Bibliography.
Answer:
True, scientists like any other group of humans have their share of humorists ; lively, jovial, fun loving, adventurist people, some of them are absent minded introvert too. Students are advised to go through books by two great physicists, Feynman and Gamow to realise this view.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 16th Lesson Communication Systems Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 16th Lesson Communication Systems

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the basic blocks of a communication system?
Answer:
Basic blocks in a communication system are

  1. Transmitter
  2. Receiver
  3. Channel.

Question 2.
What is “World Wide Web” (WWW) ?
Answer:
Tern Berners -Lee invented the World Wide Web.
It is an encyclopedia of knowledge accessible to every one round the clock through out the year.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Question 3.
Mention the frequency range of speech signals.
Answer:
Speech signals frequency range is 300 Hz to 3100 Hz.

Question 4.
What is sky wave propagation ?
Answer:
In the frequency range from a MHz upto about 30 MHz, long distance communication can be achieved by ionospheric reflection of radio waves back towards the earth. This mode of propagation is called sky wave propagation.

Question 5.
Mention the various parts of the ionosphere ?
Answer:
Parts of ionosphere are

  1. D (Part of stratosphere (65-70 km day only),
  2. E (Part of stratosphere (100 km day only),
  3. F1 (Part of mesosphere (170 km – 190 km),
  4. F2 (Part of thermosphere [300 km at night 250 – 400 km during day time]).

Question 6.
Define modulation. Why is it necessary ? (T.S. Mar.’19, 16, 15; A.P. Mar. 16, 15) (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Modulation : The process of combining low frequency audio signal with high frequency carrier wave is called modulation.

Necessary : Low frequency signals cannot transmit directly. To reduce size of the antenna and to avoid mixing up of signal from different transmitters modulation is necessary.

Question 7.
Mention the basic methods of modulation. (A.P. Mar. ’19, ’16, T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
The basic methods of modulation are :

  1. Amplitude modulation (AM)
  2. Frequency modulation (FM)
  3. Phase modulation (PM)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Question 8.
Which type of communication is employed in Mobile Phones ? (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Space wave mode of propagation is employed in mobile phones.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Draw the block diagram of a generalized communication system and explain it briefly.
Answer:
Every communication system has three essential elements :

  1. Transmitter
  2. Medium / Channel
  3. Receiver.

The block diagram is shown in Fig.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 1
In Communication system, the transmitter and the receiver are located at two different places separate from the transmitter.

The channel is the physical medium that connects. The purpose of transmitter is to convert the message signal produced by the source of information into a form, suitable for transmission through the channel. If the output of the information source is a non-electrical signal like a voice signal, a transducer converts it to electrical form before giving it as an input to the transmitter. When a transmitted signal propagates along the channel it may get distorted due to channel imperfection. Moreover, noise adds to the transmitted signal and the receiver receives a corrupted version of the transmitted signal. The receiver has the task of operating on the received signal. It reconstructs a recognizable form of the original message signal for delivering it to the user of information.

Question 2.
What is a Ground wave ? When is it used for communication ?
Answer:
Ground Wave : To radiate signals with high efficiency, The antennas should have a size comparable to the wavelength λ of the signal (at least ~ λ/4). At longer wavelengths (i.e., at lower frequencies), the antennas have large physical size and they are located on or very near to the ground. In standard AM broadcast, ground based vertical towers are generally used as transmitting antennas. For such antennas, ground has a strong influence on the propagation of the signal. The mode of propagation is called surface wave propagation and the wave glides over the surface of the earth. A wave induces current in the ground over which it passes and it is attenuated as a result of absorption of energy by the earth. The attenuation of surface waves increases very rapidly with increase in frequency. The maximum range of coverage depends on the transmitted power and frequency (less than 2 MHz). Ground waves will propagate long distances over sea water due to its high conductivity.

Question 3.
What are Sky Waves ? Explain Sky Wave propagation, briefly.
Answer:
Sky Waves : Long distance communication between two points on the earth is achieved through reflection of electromagnetic waves by Ionosphere, Such waves are called sky waves.

This mode of propagation is used by short wave broadcast services. The Ionosphere is so called because of the presence of a large number of ions or charged particles. It extends from a height of ~ 65 Km to about 400 km above the earth’s surface.

The degree of ionisation varies with the height. The density of atmosphere decreases with height. At greater heights the solar radiation is intense but there are few molecules to be ionized. Close to the earth, the radiation intensity is low so that the ionization is again low. However at some intermediate heights, there occurs a peak of ionization density. The ionospheric layer acts as a reflector for a certain range of frequencies (3 to 30 MHz).
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than 30 MHz penetrate ionosphere and escape. This phenomenon is shown in the Fig.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 2
The phenomenon of bending of em waves is so that they are diverted towards the earth which is similar to Total Internal Reflection in optics.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Question 4.
What is Space Wave Communication ? Explain.
Answer:
A spcae wave travels in a straight line from transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna. Space waves are used for line – of – sight (LOS) communication as well as satellite communication. At frequencies above 40 MHz, communication is essentially limited to line-of-sight paths. At these frequencies, the antennas are relatively smaller and can be placed at heights of many wavelengths above the ground. Because of line-of-sight nature of propagation, direct waves get blocked at some point by the curvature of the earth as illustrated in Fig. If the signal is to be received beyond the horizon then the receiving antenna must be high enough to intercept the line-of-sight waves.

If the transmitting antenna is at a height hT then it can be shown that the distance to the horizon dT is given as dT = \(\sqrt{\left(2 \mathrm{Rh}_{\mathrm{T}}\right)}\) where R is the radius of the earth (approximately 6400 km). Similarly if the receiving antenna is at a height hR, the distance to the horizon dR is dR = \(\sqrt{\left(2 \mathrm{Rh}_{\mathrm{R}}\right)}\). With reference to Fig. the maximum line-of sight distance dM between the two antennas having heights hT and hR above the earth is given by dM = \(\sqrt{\left(2 \mathrm{Rh}_{\mathrm{T}}\right)}\) = \(\sqrt{\left(2 \mathrm{Rh}_{\mathrm{R}}\right)}\)

Television broadcast, microwave links and satellite communication are some examples of communication systems that use space wave mode of propogation.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 3

Question 5.
What do you understand by modulation ? Explain the need for modulation.
Answer:
The process of combining audio frequency signal with high frequency signal is called modulation.
To transmit an electronic signal in the audio frequency range (20 Hz to 20 KHz) over a long distance directly the following constraints limit the possibility :

  1. Size of the antenna
  2. Effective power radiated by the antenna
  3. Mixing up of signals from different transmitters.

For 20 KHz signal the height of antenna is about 4km, still a large height. This makes antenna length impractical. Even if we transmit the signal, they may combine with low frequency signals present in the atmosphere and it is impossible to distinguish the signals at the receiving end.

In order to avoid these problems a low frequency audio signal is combined with high frequency signal to translate the audio signal to high frequencies.

Question 6.
What should be the size of the antenna or aerial ? How the power radiated is related to length of the antenna and wavelength ?
Answer:
Size of antenna (or) aerial: For trasmitting a signal, we need an antenna. The size of the antenna comparable to the wavelength of the signal (at least λ/4). So that the antenna properly senses the time variation of the signal. For an e.m waves of frequency 20 kHz, the wavelength λ is 15 km. Obviously such a long antenna is not possible to construct and operate. There is a need of translating the information contained in our original low frequency base band signal into high frequencies before transmission.

Effective power radiated by an antenna : A linear antenna (length l) show that the power radiated is proportional to \(\frac{l}{\lambda^2}\). For the same antenna length, the power radiated increases with decreasing λ. i.e., increasing frequency. Hence the effective power radiated by a long wave length base band signal would be small.

Question 7.
Explain amplitude modulation.
Answer:
Amplitude modulation (AM.) : In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of carrier wave varies, but frequency and phase remains constant.
Here we can explain AM using a sinusoidal signal as a modulating signal.

Let C(t) = Ac sin ωc t represent carrier wave
m(t) = Am sin ωm t represent modulating signal.
The modulating Cm(t) can be written as
Cm(t) = (Ac + Am sin ωmt) sin ωCt
Cm(t) = Ac (1 + \(\frac{A_m}{A_c}\) sin ωmt) sin ωct —— (1)
Where ωm = 2πfm is the angular frequency of message signai
Note that the modulated signal now contains the message signal.
Cm(t) = Ac sin ωct + µ Ac sin ωmt sin ωc t —– (2)
Where µ = \(\frac{A_m}{A_c}\) = Modulation index.
To avoid distortion keep . µ ≤ 1
Cm(t) = Ac sin ωt + \(\frac{\mu A_c}{2}\) cos (ωc – ωm) t – \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{c}}}{2}\) cos (ωc + ωm)t —— (3)
Here (ωc – ωm) and (ωc + ωm) are lower side and upper side frequencies.
As long as the broadcast frequencies (camer wave) are sufficiently spaced out the side bands donot over lap.

Question 8.
How can an amplitude modulated wave be generated?
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 4
The modulated signal Am sin ωmt is added to the camer wave signal Ac sin ωct to produce the signal x(t).
x(t) = Am sin ωm t + A sin ωct is passed through a square law device produces an output.
y(t) = B x(t) + Cx2 (t)
where B and C are constant.
This signal is passed through a band pass filter. The output of band pass filter produces AM wave, In band pass filter dc and the sinusoidal frequencies ωm, 2ωm and 2ωc rejects and retains the frequency ωc, (ωc – ωm) and (ωc + ωm)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Question 9.
How can an amplitude modulated wave be detected ?
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 5
A block diagram of a typical receiver is shown in figure. Detection is the process of recovering the modulating signal from the modulated carrier wave.
We just saw that the modulated carrier wave contains the frequencies ωc and ωc ± ωm.. In order to obtain message signal m(t) of angular frequency ωm, a simple method is shown in figure.

The modulated signal is passed through a rectifier produces the output message signal. This message signal is passed through envelope detector (RC circuit).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 6

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following frequencies will be suitable for beyond the horizon communication using sky waves ?
(a) 10 kHz
(b) 10 MHz
(c) 1 GHz
(d) 1000 GHz
Solution:
(b) 10 kHz frequencies cannot be radiated due to large antenna size, 1GHz and 1000 GHz will be generated. So option (b) is correct.

Question 2.
Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of:
(a) Ground waves
(b) Sky waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) Space waves
Answer:
(d). The frequencies in UHF range normally propagate by means.of space waves. The high frequency space does not bend with ground but are ideal for frequency modulation.

Question 3.
Digital signals
(i) do not provide a continuous set of values
(ii) represent values are discrete steps
(iii) can utilize binary system and
(iv) can utilize decimal as well as binary systems.
Which of the above statements are true ?
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)
(d) All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Answer:
(c). A digital signal is a discontinuous function of time in contrast to an analogue signal. The digital signals can be stored as digital data and cannot be transmitted along the telephone lines. Digital signal cannot utilize decimal signals.

Question 4.
Is it necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the same height as that of the receiving antenna for line-of-sight communication ? A TV transmitting antenna is 81m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level ?
Answer:
No, it is not necessary for line of sight communication, the two antennas may not be at the same height.
Given, height of antenna h = 81 m.
Radius of earth R = 6.4 × 106 m.
Area = πd2; Range, d = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{hR}}\)
∴ Service area = π × 2πR = \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 81 × 2 × 6.4 × 106 = 3258.5 km2.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems

Question 5.
A carrier wave of peak voltage 12V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be the peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75% ?
Answer:
Given, Peak voltage V0 = 12V
Modulation index μ = 75% = \(\frac{75}{100}\)
We know that Modulation index (μ)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 7
So, peak voltage of modulating signal Vm = μ × Peak voltage = \(\frac{75}{100}\) × 12 = 9V.

Question 6.
A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in fig.
The carrier wave is given by c(t) = 2 sin (8πt) volts.
(i) Sketch the amplitude modulated waveform.
(ii) What is the modulation index ?
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 8
Answer:
Given, equation of carrier wave c(t) = 2 sin (8πt) —– (1)

(i) According to the diagram
Amplitude of modulating signal Am = 1V
Amplitude of carrier wave Ac = 2V
TM = 1s; Ωm = \(\frac{2 \pi}{T_m}\) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{1}\) = 2π rad/s —– (2)
From equation (1)
c(t) = 2 sin 8πt = Ac sin ωc
From equation (2)
so, ωc = 4ωm
Amplitude of modulated wave A = Am + Ac = 2 + 1 = 3V.
The sketch of amplitude modulated waveform is shown below.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 16 Communication Systems 9

(ii) Modulation index μ = \(\frac{A_m}{A_c}\) = 0.5

Question 7.
For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10V while the ‘ minimum amplitude is found to be 2V. Determine the modulation index, μ. What would be the value of m if the minimum amplitude is zero volt ?
Answer:
Given, maximum amplitude Amax = 10V
Minimum amplitude Amin = 2V
Let Ac and Am be amplitudes of carrier wave and signal wave
Amax = Ac + Am = 10 —— (1)
and Amin = Ac – Am = 2 —– (2)
Adding the equations (1) & (2) we get 2 Ac = 12; Ac = 6V; Am = 10 – 6 = 4V
Modulation index μ = \(\frac{A_m}{A_c}\) = \(\frac{4}{6}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\).
When the minimum amplitude is zero, then i.e., Amin = 0
Ac + Am = 10 —– (3)
Ac – Am = 0 —- (4)
By solving (3) & (4) we get 2 Am = 10; Am = 5; Ac = 5
Modulation index μ = \(\frac{A_m}{A_c}\) = \(\frac{5}{5}\) = 1.

Question 8.
Due to economic reasons, only the upper sideband of an AM wave is transmitted, but at the receiving station, there is a facility for generating the carrier. Show that if a device is available which can multiply two signals, then it is possible to recover the modulating signal at the receiver station.
Answer:
Let ωc be the angular frequency of carrier waves & ωm be the angular frequency of signal waves.
Let the signal received at the receiving station be e = E1. cos (ωc + ωm) t
Let the instantaneous voltage of carrier wave ec = E0 cos ωc t is available at receiving station.
Multiplying these two signals, we get
e × ec = E1Ec cos ωct. cos (ωc + ωm) t
E = \(\frac{E_1 E_c}{2}\) 2. cos ωct. cos (ωc + ωm) t. (Let e × ec = E)
= \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_1 \mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{c}}}{2}\) [cos (ωc + ωc + ωm) t + cos (ωc + ωm – ωc) t]
∵ [2 cos A cos B = cos(A + B) + cos (A – B)]
\(\frac{E_1 E_c}{2}\) = [cos (2 (ωc + ωm)t + cos ωmt]

Now, at the receiving end as the signal passes through filter, it will pass the high frequency (2ωc + ωm)t + cos ωm) but obstruct the frequency ωm. So we can record the modulating signal \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_1 \mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{c}}}{2}\) cos ωmt which is a signal of angular frequency to ωm.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 15th Lesson Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 15th Lesson Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is an n-type semiconductor? What are the majority and minority charge carriers in it?
Answer:
If a pentavalent impurity is added to pure tetravalent semiconductor, it is called n-type semiconductor.
In n-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are electrons and minority charge carriers are holes.

Question 2.
What are intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors? (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Pure form of semiconductors are called intrinsic semiconductors.
When impure atoms are added to increase their conductivity, they are called extrinsic semiconductors.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 3.
What is a p-type semiconductor? What are the majority and minority charge carriers in it?
Answer:
If a trivalent impurity is added to a tetravalent semiconductor, it is called p-type semi-conductor.
In p-type semiconductor majority charge carriers are holes and minority charge carriers are electrons.

Question 4.
What is a p-n junction diode ? Define depletion layer. (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:
When an intrinsic semiconductor crystal is grown with one side doped with trivalent element and on the other side doped with pentavalent element, a junction is formed in the crystal. It is called p-n junction diode.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 1
A thin narrow region is formed on either side of the p-n junction, which is free from charge carriers is called depletion layer.

Question 5.
How is a battery connected to a junction diode in

  1. forward and
  2. reverse bias ?

Answer:

  1. In p-n junction diode, if p-side is connected to positive terminal of a cell and n-side to negative terminal, it is called forward bias.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 2
  2. In a p-n junction diode, p-side is connected to negative terminal of a cell and n-side to positive terminal, it is called reverse bias.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 6.
What is the maximum percentage of rectification in half wave and full wave rectifiers ?
Answer:

  1. The percentage of rectification in half-wave rectifier is 40.6%.
  2. The percentage of rectification in full-wave rectifier is 81.2%.

Question 7.
What is Zener voltage (Vz) and how will a Zener diode be connected in circuits generally ?
Answer:

  1. When Zener diode is in reverse biased, at a particular voltage current increases suddenly is called Zener (or) break down voltage.
  2. Zener diode always connected in reverse bias.

Question 8.
Write the expressions for the efficiency of a full wave rectifier and a half wave rectifier.
Answer:

  1. Efficiency of half wave rectifier (η) = \(\frac{0.406 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
  2. Efficiency of full wave rectifier (η) = \(\frac{0.812 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)

Question 9.
What happens to the width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode when it is
i) forward-biased and
ii) reverse biased ?
Answer:
When a p-n junction diode is forward bias, thickness of depletion layer decreases and in reverse bias, thickness of depletion layer increases.

Question 10.
Draw the circuit symbols for p-n-p and n-p-n transistors. (Mar. 14) (A.P. Mar. 19; T.S. Mar. 16)
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 3

Question 11.
Deflne amplifier and amplification factor.
Answer:

  1. Rising the strength of a weak signal is known as amplification and the device is called amplifier.
  2. Amplification factor is the ratio between output voltage to the input voltage.
    A = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_0}{\mathrm{~V}_{\mathrm{i}}}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 12.
In which bias can a Zener diode be used as voltage regulator ?
Answer:
In reverse bias Zener diode can be used as voltage regulator.

Question 13.
Which gates ae called universal gates ?
Answer:
NAND gate and NOR gates are called universal gates.

Question 14.
Write the truth table of NAND gate. How does it differ from AND gate.
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 4

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are n-type and p-type semiconductors? How is a semiconductor junction formed?
Answer:
n-type semiconductor : When a pure semiconductor is droped with pentavalent atoms like Arsenic, Antimony, Bismuth, then n-type semiconductor is formed.

p-type semiconductor: When a pure semiconductor is doped with trivalent atoms like Indium, Gallium. Al, p-type semiconductor is formed.

Formation of p-n junction diode: When p-type and n-type semiconductors are formed side by side at the junction, holes from p side diffuse to the n -side and electrons from n -side to p-side.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 5
Hence positive charge is built in n-side and negative charge is established at the p-side.
At the junction, the electrons and holes recombine and the region is free from charge carriers. This region which is free from charge carriers is called depletion layer.

The potential developed near the p-n junction is called barrier potential.
The potential barrier stops further diffusion of holes and electrons across the junction.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 2.
Discuss the behaviour of p-n junction. How does a potential barrier develop at the junction ?
Answer:
When p-n junction is formed, the free electrons on n-side diffuse over to p-side, they combine with holes and become neutral. Similarly holes on p-side diffuse over to n-side and combine with electrons become neutral.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 6
This results in a narrow region formed on either side of the junction. This region is called depletion layer. Depletion layer is free from charge carriers.

The n-type material near the junction becomes positively charged due to immobile donor ions and p-type material becomes negatively charged due to immobile acceptor ions. This creates an electric field near the junction directed from n-region to p-region and causes a potential barrier.

The potential barrier stops further diffusion of holes and electrons across the junction. The value of the potential barrier depends upon the nature of the crystal, its temperature and the amount of doping.

Question 3.
Draw and explain the current-voltage (I -V) characteristic curves of a junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
Answer:
A graph is drawn between the applied voltage (V) and the current (I) passing through the p-n junction diode is called characteristics of a diode.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 7
As forward bias voltage is increased potential barrier decreases, but initially increases in current is negligible (region OA). This is due to the potential barrier.

The voltage at which the current starts to increase rapidly is called knee voltage (or) cut in voltage.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 8
In this reverse bias, small current flows in the circuit due to minority charge carriers. 1f the reverse voltage is increased further, after some voltage, there will be a sudden rise of reverse current. This region is named as breakdown region.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 4.
Describe how a semiconductor diode is used as a half wave rectifier. (Mar. ’14) (T.S. & A.P. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 9

  1. A half wave rectifier can be constructed with a single diode. The ac input signal is fed to the primary coil of a transformer. The output .signal is taken across the load resistance RL
  2. During positive half cycle, the diode is forward biased and current flows through the diode.
  3. During negative half cycle, diode is reverse biased and no current flows through the load resistance.
  4. This means current flows through the diode only during positive half cycles and negative half cycles are blocked. Hence in the output we get only positive half cycles.
  5. Rectifier efficiency is defined as the ratio of output dc power to the input ac power.
    η = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{dc}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{ac}}}\) = \(\frac{0.406 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
    where rf = Forward resistance of a diode; RL = Load resistance
    The maximum efficiency of half wave rectifier is 40.6%.

Question 5.
What is rectification ? Explain the working of a full wave rectifier. (T. S. Mar. 19: A.P. & T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Rectification : The process of converting on alternating current into a direct current is called rectification.
The device used for this purpose is called rectifier.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 10

  1. A full wave rectifier can be constructed with the help of two diodes D1 and D2.
  2. The secondary transformer is centre tapped at C and its ends are connected to the p regions of two diodes D1 & D2.
  3. The output voltage is measured across the load resistance RL.
  4. During positive half cycles of ac, the diode D1 is forward biased and current flows through the load resistance RL. At this time D2 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
  5. During negative half cycles of ac, the diode D2 is forward biased and the current flows through RL. At this time D1 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
  6. Hence positive output is obtained for all the input ac signals.
  7. The efficiency of a rectifier is defined as the ratio between the output dc power to the input ac power.
    η = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{dc}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{ac}}}\) = \(\frac{0.812 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
    The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is 81.2%

Question 6.
Distinguish between half-wave and full-wave rectifiers. (A.P. Mar. ’19)
Answer:
Half wave rectifier

  1. Single diode is used.
  2. Only half wave is rectified.
  3. Rectifier efficiency η = \(\frac{0.406 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
  4. Efficiency of half wave rectifier is 40.6%.
  5. Output is discontinuous and pulsative.

Full wave rectifier

  1. Two diodes are used.
  2. Full wave is rectified.
  3. Rectifier efficiency η = \(\frac{0.812 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
  4. Efficiency of full wave rectifier is 81.2%.
  5. Output is continuous and pulsative.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 7.
Distinguish between zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown.
Answer:
Zèner break down

  1. Zener break down occurs at heavily doped diodes.
  2. This occurs at low reverse bias voltages.
  3. This occurs due to field emissîon.
  4. Width of depletion layer is small.

Avalanche break down

  1. Avalanche break down occurs at lightly doped diodes.
  2. This occurs at high reverse bias voltages.
  3. This occurs due to ionisation by collision.
  4. Width of depletion layer is also small.

Question 8.
Explain hole conduction in intrinsic semiconductors.
Answer:
Pure semiconductors are called intrinsic semiconductors. At low temperature, valency band is filled with electrons and conduction band is empty. Hence it acts as an insulator at low temperature.

As temperature increases electrons in valence band get energy and jumps into the conduction band crossing the forbidden band. At their places in the valency band a vacancy is created.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 11
This vacancy of electron in the valency band is called a hole. Hole has positive charge and move only in the valency band; giving hole current.

In this Fermi-energy level will be at the middle of the forbidden band.

Question 9.
What is a photodiode ? Explain its working with a circuit diagram and draw its I-V characteristics.
Answer:
Photodiode : Photodiode is an optoelectronic device in which current carriers are generated by photons through photo excitation.

Working : When visible light of energy greater than forbidden energy gap is incident on a reverse biased p-n juncton photodiode, additional electron-hole pairs are created in the depletion layer (near the junction). These charge carriers will be seperated by the junction field and made to flow across the junction. Creating a reverse current across the junction.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 12
The value of reverse saturation current increases with the increase in the intensity of incident light.
V-I characteristics of photodiode is shown in figure. It is found that reverse saturation current through the photodiode varies almost linearly with the light flux.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 13
Uses :

  1. It is used in switching the light ON and OFF.
  2. It is used in demodulation in optical signals.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 10.
Explain the working of LED and what are its advantages over conventional incandescent low power lamps.
Answer:
Light emitting diode (LED) : It is a photoelectronic device which converts electrical energy into light energy.
It is a heavily doped p-n junction diode which under forward bias emits spontaneous radiation. The diode is covered with a transparent cover so that the emitted light may be come out.

Working ; When p-n junction diode is forward biased, the movement of majority charge carriers takes place across the junction. The electrons move from n-side to p-side through the junction and holes move from p-side to n-side.
As a result of it, concentration of majority carriers increases rapidly at the junction.

When there is no bias across the junction, therefore there are excess minority carriers on either side of the junction, which recombine wito majority carriers near the junction.

On recombination of electrons and hole, die energy is given out in the form of heat and light.

Advantages of LED’S over incandescent lamp:

  1. LED is cheap and easy to handle.
  2. LED has less power and low operational voltage.
  3. LED has fast action and requires no warm up time.
  4. LED can be used in burglar alarm system.

Question 11.
Explain the working of a solar cell and draw Its I-V characteristics.
Answer:
Solar cell is a p-n junction device which converts solar energy into electric energy.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 14
It consists of a silicon (or) gallium – arsenic p-n junction diode packed in a can with glass window on top. The upper layer is of p-type semiconductor. It is very thin so that the incident light photons may easily reach the p-n junction.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 15

Working : When light (E = hv) falls at the junction, electron – hole pairs are generated near 13% junction. The electrons and holes produced move in opposite directions due to junction field. They will be collected at the two sides of the junction giving rise to a photo voltage between top and bottom metal electrodes. Top metal acts as positive electrode and bottom metal acts as a negative electrode. When an external load is connected across metal electrodes a photo current flows.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 16
I – V characteristics : I – V characteristics of solar cell is drawn in the fourth quadrant of the co-ordinate axes. Because it does not draw current.
Uses : They are used in calculators, wrist watches, artificial satellites etc.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 12.
Explain the different transistor configurations with diagrams.
Answer:
There are three configurations. They are

1) Common Base
2) Common emitter
3) Common collector.

1) Common Base configuration :
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 17
In this configuration base is earthed. Base is common both input and output. Input is given across base – emitter and output is taken across base-collector.

2) Common Emitter configuration :
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 18
In this configuration emitter is earthed. Emitter is common both input and output. Input is given across base – emitter and output is taken across collector – emitter.

3) Common collector configuration :
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 19
In this configuration collector is earthed. Collector is common both input and output. Input is given across base collector and output is taken across collector – emitter.

Question 13.
Explain how transistor can be used as a switch?
Answer:
To understand the operation of transistor as a switch.

  1. As long as Vi is low and unable to forward bias the transistor, V0 is high (at VCC).
  2. If Vi is high enough to drive the transistor into saturation then V0 is low, very near to zero.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 20
  3. When the transistor is not conducting it is said to be switched off and when it is driven into saturation it is said to be switched on.
  4. We can say that a low input to the transistor gives a high output and high input gives a low output.
  5. When the transistor is used in the cutoff (or) saturation state it acts as a switch.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 21

Question 14.
Explain how transistor can be used as an oscillator ?
Answer:

  1. In an oscillator, we get ac output without any external input signal.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 22
  2. Here L – C circuit is inserted in emitter-base circuit of transistor winch is forward biased with battery VBB. The collector emitter circuit is reverse biased with battery VCC-.
  3. A coil L1 is inserted in collector emitter circuit. It is coupled with L.

Working:

  1. S we close the key (K), weak collector current start rising with time due to inductance L1. As a resell, increasing magnetic flux is finked with L1 and L.
  2. Due to mutual induction, an emf is induced in L which will charge the upper plate of capacitor (C), consequently there will be support to the forward biasing of emitter base circuit.
  3. This results in an increasing in the emitter current and hence an increase in the collector current.
  4. Due to it, more increasing magnetic flux is linked with L1 & L.
  5. The above process continues till the collector current becomes maximum (or) saturated,
  6. The resonant frequency of tuned circuit at which the oscillator will oscillate.
    v = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 15.
Define WND and NOR gases. Give their truth tables.
Answer:
NAND gate : NAND gate is a combination of AND gate and NOT gate.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 23
NAND gate can be obtained by connecting a NOT gate in the output of an AND gate. NAND gates are called universal gates.

  1. If both inputs are low, output is high
    A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 24
  2. If any input is low, output is high.
    A = 0, B = 1, X = 1
    A = 1, B = 0, X = 1
  3. If both inputs are high, output is low.
    A = 1, B = 1, X = 0

NOR gate : NOR gate is a combination of OR gate and NOT gate when the output of OR gate is connected to NOT gate. It has two (or) more inputs and one output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 25

  1. If both inputs are low, output is high
    A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 26
  2. If input is high, output is low.
    A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
  3. If both inputs are high, the output is low.
    A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
    NOR gate is also a universal gate.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 16.
Explain the operation of a NOT gate and give, its truth table.
Answer:
NOT gate: NOT gate is the basic gate. It has one input and one output. The NOT gate is also called an inverter. The circuit symbol of NOT gate is shown in figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 27

  1. If input is low, output is high.
    A = 0, X = \(\overline{0}\) = 1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 28
  2. If input is high, output is low.
    A = 1, X = \(\overline{1}\) = 0

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a junction diode ? Explain the formation of depletion region at the junction. Explain the variation of depletion region in forward and reverse-biased condition.
Answer:
p-n junction diode: When a p-type semiconductor is suitably joined to n-type semiconductor, a p-n junction diode is formed.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 29
The circuit symbol of p-n junction diode is shown in figure.

Formation of depletion layer at the junction: When p-n junction is formed, the free electrons on n-side diffuse over to p-side, they combine with holes and become neutral. Similarly holes on p-side diffuse over to n-side and combine with electrons become neutral.

This results in a narrow region formed on either side of the junction. This region is called depletion layer. Depletion layer is free from charge carriers.

The n-type material near the junction becomes positively charged due to immobile donor ions and p-type material becomes negatively charged due to immobile acceptor ions. This creates an electric field near the junction directed from n-region to p-region and cause a potential barrier.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 30
The potential barrier stops further diffusion of holes and electrons across the junction. The value of the potential barrier depends upon the nature of the crystal, its temperature and the amount of doping.

Forward bias:
“When a positive terminal of a battery is connected to p-side and negative terminal is connected to n-side; then p-n junction diode is said to be forward bias”.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 31
The holes in the p-region are repelled by the positive polarity and move towards the junction.
Similarly electrons in the n-region are repelled by the negative polarity and move towards the junction.
As a result, the width of the depletion layer decreases. The charge carriers cross the junction and electric current flows in the circuit.

Hence in forward bias resistance of diode is low. This position is called switch on position.

Reverse bias:

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 32

‘When the negative terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and positive terminal of the battery is connected n-side of the p-n junction, then the diode is said to be reverse bias”.

The holes in the p-region are attracted towards negative polarity and move away from the junction. Similarly the electrons in the n-region are attracted towards positive polarity and move away from the junction.

So, width of the depletion layer and potential barrier increases. Hence resistance of p-n junction diode increases. Thus the reverse biased diode is called switch off position.

Question 2.
What is a rectifier ? Explain the working of half wave and full wave rectifiers with diagrams.
Answer:
Rectifier: It is a circuit which converts ac into d.c. A p-n junction diode is used as a rectifier.
Half-wave rectifier:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 33

  1. A half wave rectifier can be constructed with a single diode. The ac input signal is fed to the primary coil of a transformer. The output signal is taken across the load resistance RL.
  2. During positive half cycle, the diode is forward biased and current flows through the diode.
  3. During negative half cycle, diode is reverse biased and no current flows through the load resistance.
  4. This means current flows through the diode only during positive half cycles and negative half cycles are blocked. Hence in the output we get only positive half cycles.
  5. Rectifier efficiency is defined as the ratio of output dc power to the input ac power.
    η = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{dc}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{ac}}}\) = \(\frac{0.406 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
    Where rf = Forward resistance of a diode; RL = Load resistance
    The maximum efficiency of half wave rectifier is 40.6%.

Full wave rectifier: The process of converting an alternating current into a direct current is called rectification.
The device used for this purpose is called rectifier.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 34

  1. A full wave rectifier can be constructed with the help of two diodes D1 and D2.
  2. The secondary transformer is centre tapped at C and its ends are connected to the p regions of two diodes D1 & D2.
  3. The output voltage is measured across the load resistance RL.
  4. During positive half cycles of ac, the diode D1 is forward biased and current flows through the load resistance RL. At this time D2 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
  5. During negative half cycles of ac, the diode D2 is forward biased and the current flows through RL. At this time D1 will be reverse biased and will be in switch off position.
  6. Hence positive output is obtained for all the input ac signals.
  7. The efficiency of a rectifier is defined as the ratio between the output dc power to the input ac power.
    η = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{dc}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{ac}}}\) = \(\frac{0.812 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\)
    The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is 81.2%.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 3.
What is a Zener diode ? Explain how it is used as a voltage regulator.
Answer:
Zener diode : Zener diode is a heavily doped germanium (or) silicon p-n junction diode. It works on reverse bias break down region.

The circuit symbol of zener diode is shown in figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 35
Zener diode can be used as a voltage regulator. In general zener diode is connected in reverse bias in the circuits.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 36

  1. The zener diode is connected to a battery, through a resistance R. The battery reverse biases the zener diode.
  2. The load resistance RL is connected across the terminals of the zener diode.
  3. The value of R is selected in such away that in the absence of load RL maximum safe current flows in the diode.
  4. Now consider that load is connected across the diode. The load draws a current.
  5. The current through the diode falls by the same amount but the voltage drops across the load remains constant.
  6. The series resistance R absorbs the output voltage fluctuations, so as to maintain constant voltage across the load.
  7. The voltage across the zener diode remains constant even if the load RL varies. Thus, zener diode works as voltage regulator.
  8. If I is the input current, IZ and IL are zener and load currents.
    I = IZ + IL; Vin = IR + VZ
    But Vout= VZ
    ∴ Vout= Vin – IR

Question 4.
Describe a transistor and explain its wbking.
Answer:
Transistor: It is a device which consists of two p-n junctions joined back to back. Transistor means transfer of resistance.
Transistor has three regions. They are :

1) Emitter (E)
2) Base (B)
3) Collector (C)

1) Emitter (E) The section at one end of transistor is called emitter. It is heavily doped region. It emitts charge carriers.
2) Base (B) : The middle section off transistor is called base. This is lightly doped and very thin and almost of the charge carriers injected into it to flow into collector with out neutralised.
3) Collector (C) : The section at the other end is called collector. It is moderately doped. It collects the charge carriers. Physically it is large.

Note : Usually the emitter-base junction is forward biased and collector-base junction is reverse biased.

Working of p-n-p transistor : The base part is made of n-type, emitter and collector parts are ‘made of p-type. The circuit symbol of p-n-p transistor is shown in figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 37
The emitter junction is forward biased by connecting positive terminal off battery to the emitter and negative to the base. The collector junction is reverse biased by connecting negative to fee collector and positive to fee base.

The holes in p-region (emitter) are repelled by the positive terminal and crossing the emitter junction, enter the base region causing emitter current IE. Few holes are combined with electrons in base region, this constitute base current (IB). Majority of holes enters through the collector region. The negative terminal battery rapidly sweeps the holes in the collector region causing collector current (IC).
IE = IB – IC
In p-n-p transistor inside the circuit charge carriers are holes and outside the circuit charge carriers are electrons.

n-p-n transistor: If the base part is made of p-type, emitter and collector parts are made of n-type, we get n-p-n transistor. The circuit symbol of n-p-n transistor is shown in figure.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 38
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 39
The emitter junction is forward biased with negative end of a battery connected to emitter and positive to the base. The collector junction is reverse biased with collector positive end of a battery and negative to the base.

The electrons in the emitter (n-region) are repelled by the negative terminal of a battery and cross the base region constituting the emitter current IE. A small number of electrons may recombine with holes in base region constituting base current IB.

Majority charge carriers (electrons) enters into the collector region. The positive terminal of battery rapidly sweeps the electrons in collector, constituting collector current IC.
IE = IB + IC
In n-p-n transistor charge carriers inside and outside the circuit are electrons.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 5.
What is amplification ? Explain the working of a common emitter amplifier with necessary diagram.
Answer:
Amplification : The process of raising the strength of a weak signal is called amplification and the device which accomplishes this job is called an amplifier.
Amplifiers are of two types.

  1. Power amplifier
  2. Voltage amplifier.

Amplification factor: The ratio between output voltage to the input voltage is called amplification factor.
A = \(\frac{v_0}{v_i}\)
Common emitter transistor amplifier:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 40
The n-p-n common emitter amplifier circuit is shown in figure. In this circuit the battery VBB provides the biasing voltage VBE for the base emitter junction. The emitter junction is forward biased and the battery VCC provides the biasing voltage VCE for the emitter collector junction. The junction is reverse biased. Most of the electrons from emitter cross the base region and move into the collector.

The input signal to be amplified is connected in series with the biasing battery (VBB). A load resistance RL is connected in the collector circuit and output voltage is taken across RL.

As the base emitter voltage (VBE) changes due to input signal, the base current changes (IB) . This results in large change in collector current (ΔIC). The change in collector emitter voltage (ΔVCE) is taken across RL. Thus amplified output is obtained across RL.

Current gain (β) : The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current is called current gain (or) current amplification factor.
β = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)

Voltage gain (AV) : It is the ratio of change in output voltage (ΔVCE) to the change in input voltage (ΔVBE).

Power gain : It is defined as the product of current gain and voltage gain.
Power gain (Ap) = Current gain × Voltage gain.

Question 6.
Draw an OR gate using two diodes and explain its operation. Write the truth table and logic symbol of OR gate.
Answer:
OR Gate : It has two input terminals and one output terminal. If both inputs are low the output is low. If one of the inputs is high, or both the inputs are high then the output of the gate is high. The truth tables of OR gate.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 41
In truth table logic function is written as A or B ‘OR’ logic function is represented by the symbol ‘plus’
Q = A + B
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 42
Logic gate ‘OR’ is shown given below.

Implementation of OR gate using diodes:
Let D1 and D2 be two diodes.
A potential of 5V represents the logical value 1
A potential of 0V represents the logical value 0
When A = 0, B = 0 both the diodes are reverse, biased and there no current through the resistance. So, the potential at Q is zero. i.e. Q = 0. When A = 0 or B = O and the other equal to a potential of 5V i.e., Q = 1. When both A and B which is 5V i.e., Q = 1. The output is same as that of the OR gate.

Question 7.
Sketch a basic AND circuit with two diodes and explain its operation. Explain how doping increases the conductivity in semiconductors?
Answer:
AND gate : It has two input terminals and one out terminal

  • If both the inputs are low (or) one of the inputs is low.
    ⇒ The out is low in an AND gate.
  • If both the inputs are high ⇒ The output of the gate is high

Note: If A and B are the inputs of the gate and the output is ‘Q’ then ‘Q‘ is a logical function of A and B.
AND gate Truth Tables
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 43
The logical function AND is represented by the symbol dot so that the output, Q = A.B and the circuit symbol used for the logic gate AND is shown in Fig.
The logical function AND is similar to the multiplication.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 44

Implementation of AND gate using diodes: Let D1 and D2 represents two diodes. A potential of 5 V represents the Logical value 1 and a potential of 0 V represents the logical value zero (O). When A = 0, B = 0 both the diodes D1 and D2 are forward-biased and they behave like closed switches. Hence, the output Q is same as that A or B(equal to zero.) When A = 0 or B = 0, D1 or D2 is forward – biased and Q is zero. When A = 1 and B = 1 both the diodes are reverse – biased and they behave like open switches. There is no current through the resistance R making the potential at Q equal to 5V i.e., Q = 1. The output is same as that of an AND gate.

Doping increases the conductivity in Semiconductors : If a pentavalent impurity (Arsenic) is added to a pure tetravalent semiconductor it is called n-type semiconductor. Arsenic has 5 valence electrons, but only 4 electrons are needed to form covalent bonds with the adjacent Germanium atoms. The fifth electron is very loosely bound and become a free electron. Therefore excess electrons are available for conduction and conductivity of semiconductor increases.

Similarly when a trivalent impurity Indium is added to pure Germanium it is called p-type semiconductor. In this excess holes in addition to those formed due to thermal energy are available for conduction in the valence bând and the conductivity of semiconductor increases.

Problems

Question 1.
In a half wave rectifier, a p-n junction diode with internal resistance 20 ohm is used. If the load resistance of 2 ohm is used in the circuit, then find the efficiency of this half wave rectifier.
Solution:
Internal resistance (rf) = 20Ω
RL = 2kΩ = 2000 Ω
η = \(\frac{0.406 R_L}{r_f+R_L}\) = \(\frac{0.406 \times 2000}{20+2000}\) × 100 = \(\frac{812 \times 100}{2020}\)
η = 40.2%

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 2.
A full wave p-n junction diode rectifier uses a load resistance of 1300 ohm. The internal resistance of each diode is 9 ohm. Find the efficiency of this full wave rectifier.
Solution:
Given that RL = 1300 Ω
rf = 9Ω
η = \(\frac{0.812 \mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{f}}+\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}\) = \(\frac{0.812 \times 1300}{9+1300}\) × 100
η = \(\frac{8120 \times 13}{1309}\)
η = 80.64%

Question 3.
Calculate the current amplification factor β(beta) when change in collector current is 1mA and change in base current is 20μA.
Solution:
Change in collector current (ΔIC) = 1mA = 10-3 A
Change in base current (ΔIB) = 20μA = 20 × 10-6 A
β = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\) = \(\frac{10^{-3}}{20 \times 10^{-6}}\)
β = \(\frac{1000}{20}\)
β = 50

Question 4.
For a transistor amplifier, the collector load resistance RL = 2k ohm and the input resistance Ri = 1 k ohm. If the current gain is 50, calculate voltage gain of the amplifier.
Solution:
RL = 2kΩ = 2 × 103
Ri = 1kΩ = 1 × 103
β = 50.
Voltage gain (AV) = β × \(\frac{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{L}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{i}}}\) = \(\frac{50 \times 2 \times 10^3}{1 \times 10^3}\)
AV = 100.

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
In an n-type silicon, which of the following statement is true :
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
Answer:
(c). In an n-type semiconductor, it is obtained by doping the Ge or Si with pentavalent atoms. In n-type semiconductors, electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers.

Question 2.
Which of the statements given in Exercise 1 is true for p-type semiconductors ?
Answer:
(b) & (d). p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping Ge or Si with trivalent atoms. In p-type semiconductor holes are majority carriers and electrons are minority carriers.

Question 3.
Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterised by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to (Eg)c, (Eg)Si and (g)Ge. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C
(b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge > (Eg)Si
(c) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge
(d) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si = (Eg)Ge
Answer:
(c). The energy band – gap is largest for carbon, less for sillicon and least for Germanium.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 4.
In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them.
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference.
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(c). In an unbiased p-n junction, the diffusion of charge carriers across the junction takes place from higher concentration to lower concentration. Therefore, hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.

Question 5.
When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) raises the potential barrier.
(b) reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(c) lowers the potential barrier.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c). When a forward bias is applied across the p-n junction, the applied voltage opposes the barrier voltage. Due to this, the potential barrier across the junction is lowered.

Question 6.
For transistor action, which of the following statements are correct:
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) The emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased.
(d) Both the emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
Answer:
(b) and (c). For a transistor β = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{B}}}\)
IB = \(\frac{I_C}{\beta}\) (Or) Rinput = \(\frac{V_{\text {input }}}{V_B}\) = \(\frac{V_{\text {input }}}{I_C}\) . β. i.e., Rinput ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{C}}}\)

Therefore Rinput is inversly proportional to the collector current. For high collector current, the Rinput should be small for which the base region must be very thin and lightly doped for a transistor action, the emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased.

Question 7.
For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
(a) remains constant for all frequencies.
(b) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequency range.
(c) is low at high and low frequencies and Constant at mid frequencies.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c). The voltage gain is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid-frequency.

Question 8.
In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency, if the input frequency is 50 Hz. What is the output frequency of a full-wave rectifier for the same input frequency ?
Answer:
A half wave rectifier rectifies only the half of ac input i.e., it conducts once during an ac input cycle while a full wave rectifier rectifies both the half cycles of the ac input i.e., it conducts twice during a cycle.
The output frequency for half-wave is 50Hz.
The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is 2 × 50 = 100Hz.

Question 9.
For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collected resistance of 2 kΩ is 2 V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, find the input signal voltage and base current, if the base resistance is 1 kΩ.
Solution:
Given, collector resistance Routput = 2KΩ = 2000Ω.
Current amplification factor of the transistor βAC = 100.
Audio signal voltage Voutput = 2V
Input (base) resistance Rinput = 1KΩ = 1000Ω
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 45

Question 10.
Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 26. If the input signal is 0.01 volt, calculate the output ac signal.
Solution:
Given, voltage gain of first Amplifier, \(\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{V}_1}\) = 10
Voltage gain of second Amplifier, \(\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{V}_2}\) = 20
Input voltage V1 = 0.01V
Total voltage gain Av = \(\frac{v_0}{v_i}\) = \(\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{V}_1}\) × \(\mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{V}_2}\)
\(\frac{v_0}{0.01}\) = 10 × 20; V0 = 2V

Question 11.
A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a wavelength of 6000 nm ?
Solution:
Energy(E) = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6000 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 2.06 eV.
The band – gap is 2.8 eV and energy E is less than band gap (E < Eg). So p-n junction cannot detect, file radiation of given wavelength 6000 nm.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. This is doped simultaneously with 5 × 1022 atoms per m3 of Arsenic and 5 × 1028 per m3 atoms of Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and boles. Gives that n,sub>i = 1.5 × 1016 m-3. Is the material n-type or p-type ?
Solution:
We know that for each atom doped of arsenic one free electron is received. Similarly, for each- atom doped of Indium a, vacancy is crested So, the number of free electrons introduced by pentavalent impurity added.
ne = NAs = 5 × 1022m3 —- (i)
The number of holes introduced by trivalent impurity added.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 46
As number of electrons ne (= 4.95 × 1022) is greater than number of holes nh (= 45 × 109). So, the material is n-type semiconductor.

Question 2.
In an intrinsic semiconductor the energy gap Eg is 1.2 eV. Its hole mobility is much smaller than electron mobility and independent of temperature. What is the ratio between conductivity at 600K and that at 300 K ? Assume that the temperature dependence of intrinsic carrier concentration ni is given by ni = n0 exp \(\left(-\frac{\mathbf{E}_{\mathbf{g}}}{2 \mathbf{K}_{\mathbf{B}} \mathbf{T}}\right)\) where n0 is a constant.
Solution:
Given, intrinsic carrier concentration ni = \(n_0 e^{-E g / 2 k_B T}\) and Energy gap Eg = 1.2 eV
KB = 8.62 × 10-5 eV/K
For T = 600k
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 47
Let the conductivities are σ600 and σ300 (∵ σ = e n µe)
\(\frac{\sigma_{600}}{\sigma_{300}}\) = \(\frac{n_{600}}{n_{300}}\) = 1.1 × 105.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 3.
In a p-n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as I = I0 exp \(\left(\frac{e V}{2 K_B T}-1\right)\) where I0 is called the reverse saturation current, V is the voltage across the diode and is positive for forward bias and negative for reverse bias, and I is the current through the diode, kB is the Boltzmann constant (8.6 × 10-5 eV/K) and T is the absolute temperature. If for a given diode I0 = 5 × 10-12 A and T = 300 K, then
(a) What will be the forward current at a forward voltage of 0.6 V ?
(b) What will be the increase in the current if the voltage across the diode is increased to 0.7 V?
(c) What is the dynamic resistance ?
(d) What will be the current if reverse bias voltage changes from IV to 2 V ?
Solution:
Given I0 = 5 × 10-12 A, T = 300K
KB = 8.6 × 10-5eV/K = 8.6 × 10-5 × 1.6 × 10-19 J/K
a) Given, voltage V = 0.6V
\(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}} \mathrm{T}}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.6}{8.6 \times 10^{-5} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 300}\) = 23.26
The current I through a junction diode is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 48
= 5 × 10-12(e23.26 – 1) = 5 × 10-12 (1.259 × 1010 – 1)
= 5 × 10-12 × 1.259 × 1010 = 0.063 A
Change in current ΔI = 3.035 – 0.063 = 2.9A

b) Given voltage V = 0.7 V
\(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{\mathrm{K}_B T}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.7}{8.6 \times 10^{-5} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 300}\) = 27.14
Now, I = \(I_0 e^{\frac{e V}{K_B T}}-1\) = 5 × 10-12(e27.14 – 1)
= 5 × 10-12(6.07 × 1011 – 1)
= 5 × 10-12 × 5.07 × 1011 = 0.035 A
Change in current ΔI = 3.035 – 0.693 = 2.9 A

c) ΔI = 2.9A, voltage ΔV = 0.7 – 0.6 = 0.1 V
Dynamic retistance Rd = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\) = \(\frac{0.1}{2.9}\) = 0.0336Ω

d) As the voltage changes from IV to 2V, the current I will be almost equal to
I0 = 5 × 10-12A.
It is due to that the diode possesses practically infinite resistance in the reverse bias.

Question 4.
You are given the two circuits as shown in Fig.Show that circuit (a) acts as OR gate while the circuit (b) acts as AND gate.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 49
Solution:
a) Split the gate, OR gate
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 50
The truth table :
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 51
Here, for given A and B as inputs, C is the output of OR gate and input of NOT gate 1, D is the output of NOT gate 1 and input of NOT gate 2, then Y is finally output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 52
This is same as OR gate. So, this circuit acts as OR gate.

b) Split the gate:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 53
The truth table:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 54
Here, for given A and B as inputs, C is the output of A and D is the output of B, E is the output of OR gate and input of NOT gate 3, then Y is finally output. .
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 55
This is same as AND gate, So the given circuit acts as AND gate

Question 5.
Write the truth table for a NAND gate connected as given in fig.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 56
Hence identify the exact logic operation carried out by the circuit.
Solution:
Split the gate:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 57
Truth table:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 58
B is the output of AND gate and input of NOT gate.
So, for input A and output Y, the table is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 59
Here, it is same as NOT gate, so the logic operation is carried by this circuit as NOT gate

Question 6.
You are given two circuits as shown in fig. which consist of NAND gates. Identify the logic operation carried out by the two circuits.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 60
Solution:
a) Split the gate:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 61
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 62
C is the output of AND gate 1 and input of NOT gate 1, D is the output of NOT gate 1 and input of AND gate 2, E is the õut put of AND gate 2 and input of NOT gate 2, Y is finally output
Truth table:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 63
So, this logic operation is AND gate.

b)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 64
C is the out put of AND gate 1
D is the out put of AND gate 2
E is the out put of NOT gate 1
F is the out put of NOT gate 2
G is the out put of AND gate 3 and input of NOT gate 3
Here, it is same as OR gate. A and B are inputs and Y is output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 65
So, this logic operation resembles to OR gate.

Question 7.
Write the truth table for circuit given in fig. below consisting of NOR gates and identify the logic operation (OR, AND, NOT) which this circuit is performing.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 66
Hint: A = 0, B = 1 then A and B inputs of second NOR gate will be 0 and hence Y = 1. Similarly work out the values of Y for other combinations of A and B. Compare with the truth table of OR, AND, NOT gates and find the correct one.)
Solution:
Split the gate:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 67
C is the output of OR gate 1.
D is the output of NOT gate 1 and input of NOT gate 2. E is the output of OR gate 2 and input of the NOT gate 2. Here, it is same as OR gate. A and B are inputs and Y is output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 68
So, this logic operation resembles to OR gate.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics: Material, Devices and Simple Circuits

Question 8.
Write the truth table for the circuits given in fig. consisting of NOR.gates ònly. Identify the logic operations (OR, AND, NOT) performed by the two circuits.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 69
Solution:
a) Split the gate
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 70
B is the output of OR gate and input of NOT gate. So, the gate resembles to NOT gate as A is input and Y is output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 71

b) a) Split the gate:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 72
C is the output of OR gate 1 and input of NOT gate 1, D is the output of OR gate 2 and input of NOT gate 2, E is the output of NOT gate 1, F is the output of NOT gate 2.

G is the output of OR gate 3 and input of NOT gate 3. The truth table resembles to AND gate as A and B inputs and Y is output.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 15 Semiconductor Electronics Material, Devices and Simple Circuits 73
This operation is AND gate.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 14th Lesson Nuclei Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 14th Lesson Nuclei

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are isotopes and isobars?
Answer:
Isotopes : The nuclei having the same atomic number (Z) but different mass numbers (A) are called isotopes.
E.g.:
\({ }_8^{16} \mathrm{O}\), \({ }_8^{17} \mathrm{O}\), \({ }_8^{18} \mathrm{O}\)

Isobars : The nuclei having the same neutron number (N) but different atomic number (Z) are called isobars.
E.g.: \({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\), \({ }_7^{14} \mathrm{N}\)

Question 2.
What are isotones, and isomers?
Answer:
Isotones : The nuclei having same neutron number (N) but different atomic numbers (Z) are called isotones.
E.g. : \({ }_80^{198} \mathrm{Hg}\), \({ }_79^{197} \mathrm{N}\)

Isomers: Nuclei having the same atomic number (Z) and mass number (A) but with different nuclear properties such as radioactive decay and magnetic moments are called isomers.
E.g. : \({ }_{35}^{80} \mathrm{Br}^{\mathrm{m}}\), \({ }_{35}^{80} \mathrm{Br}^{\mathrm{g}}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 3.
What is a.m.u. ? What is its equivalent energy ?
Answer:
The mass of \(\frac{1}{12}\)th of the mass of \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) atom is called atomic mass unit (a.m.u)
1 a.m.u = \(\frac{1}{12}\) of mass of \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) atom = 1.66 × 10-27 kg
Equivalent energy of a.m.u= 931.5 MeV

Question 4.
What will be the ratio of the radii of two nuclei of mass numbers A1 and A2 ?
Answer:
The ratio of the radii of two nuclei of mass numbers A1 and A2 will be \(\frac{R_1}{R_2}\) = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{A}_1}{\mathrm{~A}_2}\right]^{\frac{1}{3}}\) since R = R0 A1/3.

Question 5.
Natural radioactive nuclei are mostly nuclei of high mass number why ?
Answer:
Natural radioactivity is displayed by heavy nuclei beyond lead in the periodic table because of relatively low binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV Hence to attain greater stability.

Question 6.
Does the ratio of neutrons to protons in a nucleus increase, decrease or remain the same after the emission of an α – particle ?
Answer:
The ratio of neutrons to protons in a nucleus, increases after the emission of an α – particle.
E.g. : Taking,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 1
Before emission, the ratio of neutrons to protons
= \(\frac{\mathrm{A}-\mathrm{Z}}{\mathrm{Z}}\) = \(\frac{238-92}{92}\) = \(\frac{144}{92}\) = 1.57
After emission, the ratio of neutrons to protons
= \(\frac{234-90}{90}\) = 1.6

Question 7.
A nucleus contains no electrons but can emit them. How?
Answer:
When the nucleus disintegrates and radiates β-rays, it is said to be β-decay. β-particles are nothing but electrons. So the nucleus eject electrons.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 8.
What are the units and dimensions of the disintegration constant ?
Answer:
λ = –\(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}}\)
Units = sec-1
Dimensions = -1

Question 9.
Why do all electrons emitted during β-decay not have the same energy ?
Answer:
When a neutron is converted into a proton, an electron and neutron are emitted along with it
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 2
In β – decay proton remains in the nucleus, but electron and neutron are emitted with constant energy. The energy of neutron is not constant. So, all electrons do not have same energy.

Question 10.
Neutrons are the best projectiles to produce nuclear reactions. Why ?
Answer:
Neutrons are uncharged particles. So they do not deflected by the electric and magnetic fields. Hence Neutrons are considered as best projectiles in nuclear reaction.

Question 11.
Neutrons cannot produce ionization. Why ?
Answer:
Because neutrons are uncharged particles and cannot produce ionization.

Question 12.
What are delayed neutrons ?
Answer:
Neutrons are emitted in the fission products after sometime are called delayed neutrons.

Question 13.
What are thermal neutrons ? What is their importance ?
Answer:
Neutrons having kinetic energies approximately 0.025 eV are called as slow neutrons or thermal neutrons. 235U undergoes fission only when bombarded with thermal neutrons.

Question 14.
What is the value of neutron multiplication factor in a controlled reaction and in an uncontrolled chain reaction ?
Answer:
In controlled chain reaction K = 1
In uncontrolled chain reaction K > 1

Question 15.
What is the role of controlling rods in a nuclear reactor ?
Answer:
In nuclear reactor controlling rods are used to absorb the neutrons. Cadmium, boron materials are used in the form of rods in reactor. These control the fission rate.

Question 16.
Why are nuclear fusion reactions called thermo nuclear reactions ?
Answer:
Nuclear fusion occurs at very high temperatures. So it is called as thermo nuclear reaction.

Question 17.
Define Becquerel and Curie.
Answer:
Becquerel: 1 disintegration or decay per second is called Becquerel. It is SI unit of activity.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 3
Curie : 3.7 × 1010 decays per second is called Curie.
1 Curie = 1Ci = \(\frac{3.7 \times 10^{10} \text { decays }}{\text { second }}\) = 3.7 × 1010 Bq.

Question 18.
What is a chain reaction ?
Answer:
Chain reaction: The neutrons produced in the fission of a nucleus can cause fission in other neighbouring nuclei producing more and more neutrons to continue the fission until the whole fissionable material is disintegrated. This is called chain reaction.

Question 19.
What is the function of moderator in a nuclear reactor ?
Answer:
They are used to slow down the fast moving neutrons produced during the fission process.
e.g.: Heavy water, Berilium.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 20.
What is the energy released in the fusion of four protons to form a helium nucleus ?
Answer:
26.7 MeV energy is released.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why is the density of the nucleus more than that of the atom ? Show that the density of nuclear matter is same for all nuclei.
Answer:

  1. Volume of the atom is greater than that of nucleus and it consists of nucleons
  2. Since density ∝ \(\frac{1}{\text { volume }}\)
    ∴ Density of the nucleus more than that of the atom.
  3. Mass of the nucleus = no.of nucleons (A) × mass of nucleon (m)
    = Am
  4. Volume of the nucleus V= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^3\)
    = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\left(R_0 A^{1 / 3}\right)^3\)
    = \(\frac{4 \pi \mathrm{R}_0^3 \mathrm{~A}}{3}\) = 1.2 × 10-45m3.A. [∵ R0 = 1.2 × 10-15m]
    i. e., the volume of the nucleus is proportional to the mass number A.
  5. Density of the nucleus (ρ)
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 4
  6. The above equation represents it clear that the density of the nucleus is independent of the mass number A and is same for all the nuclei.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the discovery of neutron.
Answer:

  1. Bothe and Becker found that when beryllium is bombarded with α – particles of energy 5 MeV, which emitted a highly penetrating radiation.
  2. The equation for above process can be written as
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 5
  3. The radiations are not effected by electric and magnetic fields.
  4. In 1932, James Chadwick, had subjected nitrogen and argon to the beryllium radiation. He interpreted the experimental results by assuming that the radiation is of a new kind of particles which has no charge and its mass is equal to proton. These neutral particles were named as ‘neutrons’. Thus the neutron was discovered.
  5. The experimental results can be represented by the following equation.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 6

Question 3.
What are the properties of a neutron ?
Answer:

  1. Neutron is an uncharged particle and hence it is not deflected by the electric and magnetic fields.
  2. It has very high penetrating power and has very low ionization power.
  3. Inside the nucleus neutrons appear to be stable. The average life of an isolated neutron is about 1000 seconds. A free neutron is unstable and spontaneously decays into a proton, electron and an antineutrino \((\bar{v})\).
  4. If fast neutrons pass through substances like heavy water, paraffin wax, graphite etc., they are slowed down.
  5. Neutrons are diffracted by crystals.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 4.
What are nuclear forces ? Write their properties.
Answer:
The forces which hold the nucleons together in nucleus are called nuclear forces. Properties of Nuclear forces :

  1. Nuclear forces are attractive forces between proton and proton (P – P), proton and neutron (P – N) and neutron and neutron (N – N).
  2. Nuclear forces are independent of charge. It was found that force between proton and proton is same as force between neutron and neutron.
  3. These forces are short range forces i.e., these forces will act upto a small distance only. Generally the range of nuclear forces is upto few Fermi (10-15 m).
  4. These forces are non central forces, i.e., they do not act along the line joining the two nucleons.
  5. These forces are exchange forces. The force between two nucleons is due to exchange of π-mesons.
  6. These forces are spin dependent. These forces are strong when the spin of two nucleons are in same direction and they are weak when they are in opposite direction.
  7. Nuclear forces are saturated forces i.e., the force between nucleons will extend upto the immediate neighbouring nucleons only.
  8. These are the strongest forces in nature. They are nearly 1038 times stronger than gravitational forces and nearly 100 times stronger than Coulombic forces.

Question 5.
For greater stability a nucleus should have greater value of binding energy per nucleon. Why?
Answer:

  1. Uranium has a relatively low binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV Hence to attain greater stability Uranium breaks up into intermediate mass nuclei resulting in a phenomenon called nuclear fission.
  2. Lighter nuclei such as hydrogen combine to form heavy nucleus to form helium for greater stability, resulting in a phenomenon called nuclear fusion.
  3. Iron whose binding energy per nucleon stands maximum at 8.7 MeV is the most stable and will undergo neither fission nor fusion.

Question 6.
Explain α – decay ?
Answer:

  1. It is the phenomenon of emission of an a particle from a radioactive nucleus. When a nucleus emits an alpha particle, its mass number decreases by 4 and charge number decreases by 2.
  2. In general, alpha decay is represented as
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 7
    Where Q is the energy released in the decay.
  3. Thus the total mass energy of the decay products is less than the mass energy of the original nuclide.
  4. The difference between the initial mass energy and the total mass energy of decay products is called disintegration energy (Q) of the process.
  5. This can be calculated using Einstein’s mass energy equivalence relation, E = (Δm). c2
    i-e., Q = (mx – my – mHe) c2
    The energy released (Q) is shared by daughter nucleus y and alpha particle.

Question 7.
Explain β – decay ?
Answer:

  1.  It is the phenomenon of emission of an electron from a radioactive nucleus.
  2. When a parent nucleus emits a β-particle (i.e., an electron), mass number remains same because mass of electron is negligibly low. However, the loss of unit negative charge is equivalent to a gain of unit positive charge. Therefore, atomic number is increased by one.
  3. In general, we can write
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 8
    where Q is the energy released in β-decay.
  4. The basic nuclear process underlying p-decay is the conversion of neutron to proton.
    n → P + \(\overline{\mathrm{e}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{v}}\)
    While for β+ decay, it is the conversion of proton ino neutron.
    P → n + e+ + v
  5. The emission of electron in β-decay is accompained by the emission of an anti neutrino \((\bar{v})\) In β, decay instead, a neutrino (v) is generated. Neutrons are neutral particles with very small mass compared to electrons. They have only weak interactions with other particles.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 8.
Explain γ – decay ?
Answer:

  1. It is the phenomenon of emission of gamma ray photon from a radioactive nucleus.
  2. Like an atom, a nucleus has discrete energy levels in the ground state and excited states.
  3. When a nucleus in an excited state spontaneously decays to its ground state (or to a lower energy state), a photon is emitted with energy equal to the difference in the two energy levels of the nucleus. This is the so called gamma-decay.
  4. The energy (MeV) corresponds to radiation of extremely short wave length, shorter than the hard X-ray region.
  5. A Gamma ray is emitted when a or p decay results in a daughter nucleus in an excited
    state.
  6. The \(\bar{\beta}\) -decay of 27CO60 transforms it into an excited 28Ni60 nucleus. This reaches the ground state by emission of γ-rays of energy 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV. This is shown in figure.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 9

Question 9.
Define half life period and decay constant for a radioactive substance. Deduce the relation between them.
Answer:
Half life period (T) : Time taken for the number of radio active nuclei to disintegrate to half of its original number of nuclei is called Half life period.
Decay constant (λ) : The ratio of the rate of radioactive decay to the number of nuclei present at that instant.
It is a proportional constant and is denoted by ‘λ’.
λ = \(\frac{-\left(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)}{\mathrm{N}}\)

Relation between half the period and decay constant:

  1. The radioactive decay law N = N0 e-λt states that the number of radioactive-nuclei in a radioactive sample decreases exponentially with time. Here λ is called decay constant.
  2. If N0 is the number of nuclei at t = 0 and N is the radioactive nuclei at any instant of time’t’.
  3. Substituting N = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{2}\) at t = T in N = N0e-λt.
    Where T is half life of the radioactive substance.
  4.  \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{2}\) = N0 e-λT
    eλT = 2
    λT = ln2
    T = \(\frac{\ln 2}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{2.303 \log _{10}^2}{\lambda}\)
    ∴ T = \(\frac{0.693}{\lambda}\)

Question 10.
Define average life of a radioactive substance. Obtain the relation between decay constant and average life.
Answer:
Average life \((\tau)\) : It is equal to the total life time of all the N0 nuclei divided by the total number of original nuclei N0. It is denoted by \((\tau)\).

Relation between decay constant and average life :

  1. Let N0 be the radioactive nuclei that are present at t = 0 in the radioactive sample; The no’ of nuclei which decay between t and t + dt is dN.
  2. The total life time of these dN nuclei is t dN. The total life time of all the nuclei present initially in the sample = \(\int_0 \mathrm{t} \mathrm{dN}\)
  3. Average life time \((\tau)\) is equal to the total life time of all the N0 nuclei divided by the total number of original nuclei N0.
  4. Average \((\tau)\) = \(\frac{\int \mathrm{tdN}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\)
    But \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -λN
    dN = -λNdt = N0e-λtdt [∵ N = N0e-λt]
  5. AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 10
    On integrating, we get \(\tau\) = \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
    \(\tau\) = \(\frac{T}{0.693}\) [∵ λ = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}}\)]
  6. From the above equation ‘the reciprocal of the decay constant gives us the average life of a radioactive sample.

Question 11.
Deduce the relation between half life and average life of a radioactive substance.
Answer:
Relation between half life (T) and average life (\(\tau\)) :

  1. We know, the radioactive decay law, N = N0 e-λt —– (1)
  2. Consider, ‘N0‘ is the number of nuclei present at t = 0 and after time T, only \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{2}\) are left and after a time ‘2T’, only \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{4}\) remain and soon.
  3. Substituting N = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{2}\) at t = T in eqn. (1) then
    \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{2}\) = N0 e-λT ⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}^{\lambda \mathrm{T}}}\) ⇒ eλT = 2
    Taking loge on both sides, we get
    λT = \(\log _{\mathrm{e}}^2\) = 2.303 \(\log _{\mathrm{e}}^2\) = 0.693
    ∴ T = \(\frac{0.693}{\lambda}\) —— (2)
  4. Average life \(\tau\) = \(\frac{\int \mathrm{tdN}}{\mathrm{No}}\)
  5. But –\(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = λN dN = -λ.N0 e-λt dt [∵ from eqn. (1)]
  6. AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 11
    on integrating, we get \(\tau\) = \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) —– (3)
  7. From equs (2) and (3) we get \(\tau\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{T}}{0.693}\)
    This is the relation between average life and half life of radioactive substance.

Question 12.
What is nuclear fission ? Give an example to illustrate it.
Answer:
Nuclear fission : The process of dividing a heavy nucleus into two or more smaller and stable nuclei due to nuclear reaction is called nuclear fission.
Ex : The fission reaction is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 12
Where Q is the energy released.
Q = (Total mass of reactants – Total mass of product) C2
= [(Mass of \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) + Mass of \({ }_0^1 n\)) – (Mass of \({ }_{56}^{141} \mathrm{Ba}\) + Mass of \({ }_{36}^{92} \mathrm{Kr}\) + Mass of three neutrons)]C2
= (235.043933 – 140.9177 – 91.895400 – 2 × 1.008665) amu × C2.
= 0.2135 × 931.5 MeV = 198.9 MeV = 200 MeV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 13.
What is nuclear fusion ? Write the conditions for nuclear fusion to occur.
Answer:
Nuclear fusion : The process of combining lighter nuclei to produce a larger nucleus is known as nuclear fusion.
E.g : Hydrogen nuclei (1H1) are fused together to form heavy Helium (2He4) along with 25.71 MeV energy released.

Conditions for nuclear fusion :

  1. Nuclear fusion occurs at very high temperatures such as 107 kelvin and very high pressures. These are obtained under the explosion of an atom bomb.
  2. Higher density is also desirable so that collisions between light nuclei occur quite frequently.

Question 14.
Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
Answer:
Nuclear fission

  1. In this process heavy nucleus is divided into two fragments along with few neutrons.
  2. These reactions will takes place even at room temperature.
  3. To start fission atleast one thermal neutron from out side is compulsory.
  4. Energy released per unit mass of participants is less.
  5. In this process neutrons are liberated.
  6. This reaction can be controlled.
    Ex: Nuclear reactor.
  7. Atom bomb works on principle of fission reaction.
  8. The energy released in fission çan be used for peaceful purpose.
    Ex : Nuclear reactor and Atomic power stations.

Nuclear fusion

  1. In this process lighter nuclei will join together to produce heavy nucleus.
  2. These reactions will takes place at very high temperature such as Kelwin.
  3. No necessary of external neutrons.
  4. Energy released per unit mass of participants is high. Nearly seven times more than fission reaction.
  5. In this process positrons are liberated.
  6. There is no control on fusion reaction.
  7. Hydrogen bomb works on the principle of fusion reaction.
  8. The energy released in fusion cannot be used for peaceful purpose.

Question 15.
Explain the terms tchain reaction’ and multiplication factor’. How is a chain reaction sustained?
Answer:
Chain reaction : In nuclear fission nearly three neutrons are produced when one uranium atom is destoryed. If they again participate in fission reaction nine neutrons are produced. In next generation the neutrons becomes 27. In this process the number of neutrons increases in geometric progression and the whole uranium is destroyed in few seconds. This type of self sustained fission reaction is called chain reaction.

Neutron multiplication factor (K) : Neutron multiplilcation factor is defined as the ratio of number of neutrons produced in one generation to the number of neutrons in previous generation.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 13

Neutron multiplication factor is useful to understand the nature of nuclear reactions in a nuclear reactor.

To sustained chain reaction:
1. Neutron multiplication factor K ≥ 1.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define mass defect and binding energy. How does binding energy per nucleon vary with mass number ? What is its significance ?
Answer:

  1. Mass defect (ΔM) : The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. The nuclear mass M is always less than the total mass, Σm, of its constituents.
    Mass defect, (ΔM) = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M]
  2. Binding energy: The energy required to break the nucleus into its constituent nucleons is called the binding energy.
    Binding Energy, (Eb) = ΔMC2 = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M] 931.5 MeV
    Nuclear binding energy is an indication of the stability of the nucleus.
    Nuclear binding energy per nucleon Ebn = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{b}}}{\mathrm{A}}\).
  3. The following graph represents how the binding energy per nucleon varies with the mass number A.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 14
  4. From the graph that the binding energy is highest in the range 28 < A < 138. The binding energy of these nuclei is very close to 8.7 MeV.
  5. With the increase in the mass number the binding energy per nucleon decreases and consequently for the heavy nuclei like Uranium it is 7.6 MeV
  6. In the region of smaller mass numbers, the binding energy per nucleon curve shows the characteristic minima and maxima.
  7. Minima are associated with nuclei containing an odd number of protons and neutrons such as \({ }_3^6 \mathrm{Li}\), \({ }_5^{10} \mathrm{~B}\), \({ }_7^{14} \mathrm{~N}\) and the maxima are associated with nuclei having an even number of protons and neutrons such as \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\), \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\), \({ }_8^{16} \mathrm{O}\).
    Significance :
  8. The curve explains the relationship between binding energy per nucleon and stability of the nuclei.
  9. Uranium has a relatively low binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV. Hence to attain greater stability Uranium breaks up into intermediate mass nuclei resulting in a phenomenon called fission.
  10. On the other hand light nuclei such as hydrogen combine to form heavy nucleus to form helium for greater stability, resulting in a phenomenon called fusion.
  11. Iron is the most stable having binding energy per nucleon 8.7 MeV and it neither undergoes fission per fusion.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 2.
What is radioactivity ? State the law of radioactive decay. Show that radioactive decay is exponential in nature.
Answer:

  1. Radioactivity : .The nuclei of certain elements disintegrate spontaneously by emitting alpha (α), beta (β) and gamma (γ) rays. This phenomenon is called Radioactivity or Natural radioactivity.
  2. Law of radioactivity decay: The rate of radioactive decay \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)\) (or) the number of nuclei decaying per unit time at any instant, is directly proportional to the number of nuclei (N) present at that instant is called law of radioactivity decay’.
  3. Radioactive decay is exponential in nature : Consider a radioactive substance. Let the number of nuclei present in the sample at t = 0, be N0 and let N be the radioactive nuclei remain at an instant t.
    \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) ∝ N ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = -λN
    dN = -λNdt ——— (1)
    The proportionality constant λ is called decay constant or disintegration constant. The negative sign indicates the decrease in the number of nuclei.
  4. From eq.(1) \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{N}}\) = -λ dt ——- (2)
  5. Integrating on both sides
    \(\int \frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{N}}\) = \(-\lambda \int \mathrm{dt}\)
    In N = -λt + C ——- (3)
    Where C = Integration constant.
  6. At t = O; N = N0. Substituting in eq. (3), we get in ln N0 = C
    ∴ ln N – ln N0 = – λt
    ln \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\right)\) = – λt
    ∴ N = 0e-λt
    The above equation represents radioactive decay law.
  7. It states that the number of radioactive nuclei in a radioactive sample decreases exponentially with time.

Question 3.
Explain the principle and working of a nuclear reactor with the help of a labelled diagram. (A.P.Mar.’19,’16, ’15 & T.S. Mar. ‘15) (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Principle : A nuclear reactor works on the principle of achieving controlled chain reaction in natural Uranium 238U enriched with 235U, consequently generating large amounts of heat.
A nucleàr reactor consists of
(1) Fuel
(2) Moderator
(3) Control rods
(4) Radiation shielding
(5) Coolant.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 15

1. Fuel and clad : In reactor the nuclear fuel is fabricated in the form of thin and long cylindrical rods. These group of rods treated as a fuel assembly. These rods are surrounded by coolant, which is used to transfer of heat produced in them. A part of the nuclear reactor which use to store the nuclear fuel is called the core of the reactor. Natural uranium, enriched uranium, plutonium and uranium – 233 are used as nuclear fuels.

2. Moderator : The average energy of neutrons released in fission process is 2 MeV They are used to slow down the velocity of neutrons. Heavy water or graphite are used as moderating materials in reactor.

3. Control Rods : These are used to control the fission rate in reactor by absorbing the neutrons. Cadmium and boron are used as controlling the neutrons, in the form of rods.

4. Shielding : During fission reaction beta and gamma rays are emitted in addition to neutrons. Suitable shielding such as steel, lead, concrete etc are provided around the reactor to absorb and reduce the intensity of radiations to such low levels that do not harm the operating personnel.

5. Coolant: The heat generated in fuel elements is removed by using a suitable coolant to flow around them. The coolants used are water at high pressures, molten sodium etc.

Working: Uranium fuel rods are placed in the aluminium cylinders. The graphite moderator is placed in between the fuel cylinders. To control the number of neutrons, a number of control rods of cadmium or beryllium or boron are placed in the holes of graphite block: When a few 235U nuclei undergo fission fast neutrons are liberated. These neutrons pass through the surrounding graphite moderator and loose their energy to become thermal neutrons.

These thermal neutrons are captured by 235U. The heat generated here is used for heating suitable coolants which in turn heat water and produce steam. This steam is made to rotate steam turbine and there by drive a generator of production for electric power.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 4.
Explain the source of stellar energy. Explain the carbon – nitrogen cycle, proton – proton cycle occurring in stars.
Answer:
Scientists proposed two types of cyclic processes for the sources of energy in the sun and stars. The first is known as carbon-nitrogen cycle and the second is proton-proton cycle.

1. Carbon-Nitrogen Cycle: According to Bethe carbon – nitrogen cycle is mainly responsible for the production of solar energy. This cycle consists of a chain of nuclear reactions in which hydrogen is converted into Helium, with the help of Carbon and Nitrogen as catalysts. The nuclear reactions are as given below.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 16
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 17

2. Proton – Proton Cycle: A star is formed by the condensation of a large amount of matter at a point in space. Its temperature rises to 2,00,000°C as the matter contracts under the influence of gravitational attraction. At this temperature the thermal energy of the protons is sufficient to form a deuteron and a positron. The deuteron then combines with another proton to form lighter nuclei of helium \({ }_2^3 \mathrm{He}\). Two such helium nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\) and two protons releasing a total amount of energy 25.71 MeV The nuclear fusion reactions are given below.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 18
The net result is
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 19

Problems

Question 1.
Show that the density of a nucleus does not depend upon its mass number (density is independent of mass)
Solution:
Density of nucleus matter =
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 20
No. of nucleons (A) × mass of nucleons (m)
Volume of nucleus V = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3\)
But R = R0A1/3
∴ V = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}_0^3 \mathrm{~A}\)
∴ Density of nucleus matter = \(\frac{\mathrm{Am}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}_0^3 \mathrm{~A}}\) = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~m}}{4 \pi \mathrm{R}_0^3}\)
∴ Density of nucleus is independent of mass.

Question 2.
Compare the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64.
Solution:
A1 = 27; A2 = 64
\(\frac{\mathrm{R}_1}{\mathrm{R}_2}\) = \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{A}_1}{\mathrm{~A}_2}\right]^{1 / 3}\) [∵ R = R0A1/3]
\(\frac{\mathrm{R}_1}{\mathrm{R}_2}\) = \(\left[\frac{27}{64}\right]^{\frac{1}{3}}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ R1 : R2 = 3 : 4

Question 3.
The radius of the oxygen nucleus \({ }_8^{16} \mathrm{O}\) is 2.8 × 10-15m. Find the radius of lead nucleus \({ }_{82}^{205} \mathrm{~Pb}\).
Solution:
R0 = 2.8 × 10-15 m; A0 = 16
APb = 205; RPb = ?
\(\frac{R_{P b}}{R_0}\) = \(\left[\frac{A_{P b}}{A_0}\right]^{1 / 3}\) = \(\left[\frac{205}{16}\right]^{1 / 3}\)
[∵ R = R0A1/3]
\(\frac{R_{P b}}{2.8 \times 10^{-15}}\) = (12.82)1/3 = 2.34
RPb = (2.34) × (2.8 × 10-15)
= 6.55 × 10-15m

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 4.
Find the binding energy of \({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\). Atomic mass of Fe is 55.9349u and that of Hydrogen is 1.00783u and mass of neutron is 1.00876u.
Solution:
Mass of hydrogen atom
mp = 1.00876u; mn = 1.00867u
Z = 26; A = 56
Mass of Iron atom M = 55.9349u

i) Mass defect Δm
= [Zmp + (A – Z) mn – M]
= [26 × 1.00876 + (56 – 26) (1.00867) – 55.9349] u
∴ Δm = 0.55296u

ii) BE of nucleus = ΔMC2
= ΔM × 931.5 MeV
= 0.55296 (931.5) MeV
= 515.08 MeV

Question 5.
How much energy is required to separate the typical middle mass nucleus \({ }_{50}^{120} \mathrm{Sn}\) into its constituent nucleons? (Mass of \({ }_{50}^{120} \mathrm{Sn}\) = 119.902199u, and mass of neutron = 1.008665u)
Solution:
mp = 1.007825u
mn = 1.008665u
For Sn, Z = 50;

A = 120; M = 119.902199u

i) Mass defect Δm
= [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M]u
= 50 (1.007825) + (120 – 50) [(1.008665) – 119.902 199]
= [150 × 1.007825 + 70 × 1.008665 – 119.902199]u
= [50.39125 + 70.60655 – 119.902199]u
ΔM = [120.9978 – 119.902199]
= 1095601u

ii) Energy required to šeparate the nucleons = B.E of the nucleus
BE = ΔMc2 = ΔM × 931.5MeV
= 1.095601 × 931.5 MeV
= 1020.5 MeV

Question 6.
Calculate the binding energy of an α-particle. Given that mass of proton = 1.0073 u, mass of neutron = 1.0087u, and mass of α- particle = 4.0015u.
Solution:
For 2He4, A = 4, Z = 2, mp = 1.0073u
mn = 1.0087u, mn = 4.0015u

i) ΔM
= [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M]
= [2(1.0073) + (4 – 2) (1.0087) – 4.00260]
= [2 × 1.0073 + 2 × 1.0087 – 4.00260]
= (2.0146 + 2.0174) – 4.0015
ΔM = [4.032 – 4.0015] = 0.0305 u

ii) BE = ΔM × c2 = ΔM × 931.5 MeV
= 0.0305 × 931.5
∴ BE = 28.41 MeV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 7.
Find the energy required to split \({ }_8^{16} \mathrm{O}\) nucleus into four α-particles. The mass of an α-particle is 4.002603u and that of oxygen is 15.994915u.
Solution:
The energy required to split O =
[Total mass of the products – Total mass of the reactants] c2
Mass of four \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\) – Mass of \({ }_8^{16} \mathrm{O}\)] × c2
= [(4 × 4.002603) – 15.994915] u × c2
= [16.010412 – 15.994915] u × c2
= (0.015497) 931.5 MeV
= 14.43 MeV

Question 8.
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) nucleus. Given that mass of \({ }_{17}^{35} \mathrm{Cl}\) nucleus = 34.98000 u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.008665u and 1 is equivalent to 931 MeV.
Solution:
For \({ }_{17}^{36} \mathrm{Cl}\), A = 35, Z = 17;
mp = 1.007825 u
mn = 1.008665 u,
M = 34.98u

(i) ΔM = [Zmp + (A – Z) mn – M]
= [17 × 1.007825 + (35 – 17)(1.008665) – 34.98]
= [17.13303 + 18.15597 – 34.98]
ΔM = [35.289 – 34.98]
= 0.3089 u

(ii) BE = ΔMc2
= 0.3089 × 931 MeV = 287.5859 MeV
∴ BE per nucleon
= \(\frac{B \cdot E}{A}\) = \(\frac{287.5859}{35}\) = 8.21 MeV

Question 9.
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\). Given that mass of \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\) nucleus = 39.962589u, mass of a proton = 1.007825 u,; mass of Neutron = 1.008665u and 1u is equivalent to 931 MeV.
Solution:
For \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{C}\), A = 40, Z = 20; mp = 1.007825 u
mn = 1.008665 u; M = 39.962589 u

(i) ΔM = [Zmp + (A – Z) mn – M]
= [(20) (1.007825) + (40 – 20)(1 .008665) – 39.962589]
[(20 × 1.007825) + (20 × 1.008665) – 39.962589]
= [40.3298 – 39.962589] = 0.3672 u

(ii) BE = ΔMc2 = 0.3672 × 931 MeV
= 341.86 MeV
B.E ‘341.86

(iii) B.E per nucleon = \(\frac{B . E}{A}\) = \(\frac{341.86}{40}\)
= 8.547 MeV

Question 10.
Calculate
(i) mass defect,
(ii) binding energy and
(iii) the binding energy per nucleon of \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) nucleus. Nuclear mass of \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) = 12.000000 u; mass of proton = 1.007825 u and mass of neutron = 1.008665 u.
Solution:
For \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\), A = 12; Z = 6; mp = 1.007825u
mn = 1.008665u; M = 12.000000u

(i) ΔM = [Zmp + (A – Z) mn – M]
= [6(1.007825) + (12 – 6)(1.008665) – 12,00]
= [6 × 1.007825 + 6 × 1.008665 – 12]
= [6.04695 + 6.05199 – 12.00]
ΔM = [12.09894 – 12.00] = 0.098944

(ii) BE = ΔM × c2 = 0.09894 × 931.5 MeV
= 92.16 MeV

(iii) BE per nucleon
= \(\frac{B . E}{A}\) = \(\frac{92.16}{12}\) = 7.68 MeV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 11.
The binding energies per nucleon for deuterium and helium are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively. What energy in joules will be liberated when 106 deuterons take part in-the reaction.
Solution:
\(\left[\frac{B \cdot E}{A}\right]_D\) = 1.1 MeV; \(\left[\frac{B . E}{A}\right]_{H e}\) = 7.0 MeV
For deuterium \(\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\),
A = 2
For He \(\left({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right)\), A = 4
\(\left[\frac{B \cdot E}{2}\right]_D\) = 1.1 MeV ⇒ [B.E.]D
= 2 × 1.1 MeV = 2.2 MeV
\(\left[\frac{B . E}{4}\right]_{\mathrm{He}}\) = 70 MeV ⇒ [B.E.]He
= 4 × 7.0 MeV = 28 MeV
We know 1H2 + 1H22He4
Energy released = B.E of 106 deuterons – B.E of \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 106 Helium atoms
B.E = 2.2 × 106 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 106 × 28
= 106(2.2 – 14)
= -11.8 × 106 MeV
= -11.8 × 106 × 1.6 × 10-13J
= -18.88 × 10-7 J
(- ve sign indicates that energy is released)
∴ Energy released = 18.88 × 10-7 J

Question 12.
Bombardment of lithium with protons gives rise to the following reaction :
\({ }_3^7 \mathrm{Li}\) + \({ }_1^1 \mathrm{H}\) → 2 \(\left[{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\right]\) + Q. Find the Q-value of the reaction. The atomic masses of lithium, proton and helium are 7.016u, 1.0084 and 4.004u respectively.
Solution:
Mass of Lithium = 7.0 16 u
mp = 1.008 u
Mass of Helium = 4004 u;
u = 931.5 MeV
Q = [Total mass of the reactants – Total mass of the products] c2
= [Mass of Lithium + mp – (2 × mass of Helium)] × 931.5 MeV
= [7.016+ 1.008 – 2(4.004)] × 931.5MeV
= [18.024 – 8.008] × 931.5 MeV
∴ Energy Q = 0.016 × 931.5
= 14.904 MeV

Question 13.
The half life radium is 1600 years. How much time does lg of radium take to reduce to 0.125 g. (T.S. Mar. ’16)
Solution:
Half life of radium = 1600 years
Initial mass = 1g
Final mass 0.125 g = \(\frac{1}{8}\) g
The quantity remaining after ‘n’ half lifes is \(\frac{1}{2^{\mathrm{n}}}\) of the initial quantity.
In this problem,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 21
∴ Time taken = ’n’ half-lifes = 3 × 1600
= 4,800 years

Question 14.
Plutonium decays with a half – life of 24,000 years. If plutonium is stored for 72,000 years, what fraction of it remains ?
Solution:
Half-life of plutonium = 24,000 years
The duration of the time = 72,000 years
Initial mass = Mg
Final mass = mg
Number of half lifes (n)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 22
Fraction of plutonium that remains
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 23

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 15.
A certain substance decays to 1/232 of its initial activity in 25 days. Calculate its half-life.
Solution:
Fraction of substance decays
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 24
= \(\frac{1}{2^n}\) = \(\frac{1}{32}\) = \(\frac{1}{2^5}\)
∴ n = 5
Duration of time = 25 days
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 25

Question 16.
The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 20 days. What is the time taken for 7/8th of its original mass to disintegrate?
Solution:
Half life period = 20 days
In this problem,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 26
∴ Time taken to disintegrate
= n × Half life time
= 3 × 20 = 60 days

Question 17.
How many disintegrations per second will Occur in one gram of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\), if its half-life against α-decay is 1.42 × 10-17s?
Solution:
T = 1.42 × 1017 sec
Decay constant (λ) = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{1.42 \times 10^7}\)
No. of disintegration (n) in 1 gm
= \(\frac{1}{238}\) × 6.023 × 1023
∴ Activity A = λN
= \(\frac{0.693}{1.42 \times 10^{17}}\) × \(\frac{1}{238}\) × 6.023 × 1023
= 1.235 × 104 disintegrations / sec

Question 18.
The half-life of a radioactive substance is 100 years. Calculate in how many years the activity will decay to 1/10th of its initial value.
Solution:
T = 100 years
λ = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = 0.693 × 10-2 years
N = N0e-λt ⇒ e-λt = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
eλt = 10 ⇒ λt = \(\log _e^{10}\) = 2.303 × \(\log _{10}^{10}\)
t = \(\frac{2.303 \times 1}{0.693 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 3.323 × 102
= 332.3years

Question 19.
One gram of radium is reduced by 2 milligram in 5 years by a-decay. Calculate the half-life of radium.
Solution:
Initial (original) mass (N0) = 1 gram
Reduced mass = 2 mg = 0.002 grams
Final mass (N) = 1 – 0.002 = 0.998 grams
t = 5 years
e-λt = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) ⇒ eλt = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}\) ⇒ λt = \(\log _{\mathrm{e}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}\right]\)
λt = 2.303 log\(\left[\frac{\mathrm{N}_0}{\mathrm{~N}}\right]\)
λt = 2.303 log \(\left[\frac{1}{0.998}\right]\)
= 2.303 × 0.000868
= 0.001999
λ = \(\frac{0.001999}{5}\) = 0.0003998
T = \(\frac{0.693}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{0.0003998}\) = 1733.3 years

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 20.
The half-life of a radioactive substance is 5000 years. In how many years, its activity will decay to 0.2 times a its initial value ? Given log105 = 0.6990.
Solution:
T = 5000 years; t = ?
Activity, A = Nλ = 0.2 times initial value
Initial activity A0 = N0λ
In radioactivity,
N = N0e-λt ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = e-λt = 0.2
Put 0.2 = \(\frac{1}{5}\) ; \(\frac{1}{5}\) = e-λt (or) -λt = \(-\log _e^5\)
(or) t = \(\log _{\mathrm{e}}^5 \frac{5}{\lambda}\)
Radioactive decay constant A = \(\frac{\log _{\mathrm{e}} 2}{\mathrm{~T}}\)
= \(\frac{2.303 \log _{10}^2}{5000}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{5000}\)
Time taken to decay
t = \(\frac{\log _{\mathrm{e}}^5}{\lambda}\) × 5000
∴ t = \(\frac{2.303 \times 0.6990 \times 5000}{0.693}\) = \(\frac{8049}{0.693}\)
= 1.161 × 104 years

Question 21.
An explosion of atomic bomb releases an energy of 7.6 × 1013J. If 200 MeV energy is released of fission of one 235U atom calculate
(i) the number of uranium atoms undergoing fission,
(ii) the mass of uranium used in the bomb.
Solution:
Energy released (E) = 7.6 × 1013 J
Energy released on fissions (E) = 200 MeV
= 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
i) No. of fissions (n) = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{E}}\)
= \(\frac{7.6 \times 10^{13}}{200 \times 10^6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
∴ n = 2.375 × 1024 atoms

But Avogadro number N = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
Mass of uranium (m) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n} \times 235}{\mathrm{~N}}\)
= \(\frac{2.375 \times 10^{24}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 926.66 g

Question 22.
If one microgram of \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) is completely destroyed in an atom bomb, how much energy will be released ? (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Solution:
m = 1μg = 1 × 10-6 g = 1 × 10-6 × 10-3 kg
= 10-9 kg
c = 3 × 108 m/s
E = mc2 = 1 × 10-9 × 9 × 106 = 9 × 107 J

Question 23.
Calculate the energy released by fission from 2g of \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) in kWh. Given that the energy released per fission is 200 MeV.
Solution:
Mass of uranium = 2g
Energy per fission = 200 MeV
No. of atoms in 2g, n = \(\frac{2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235}\)
Total energy released (E’) = nE
= \(\frac{2 \times 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{235}\) × 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10-19J
= \(\frac{2 \times 602.3}{235}\) × 32 × 109
= \(\frac{1640.3 \times 10^8}{36 \times 10^5}\)
∴ E’ = 45.56 × 103 kWh
= 4.556 × 104 kWh

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 24.
200 MeV energy is released when one nucleus of 235U undergoes fission. Find the number of fissions per second required for producing a power of 1 megawatt.
Solution:
E = 200 MeV
P = 1 × 106W
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{nE}}{\mathrm{t}}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{t}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{10^6}{200 \times 10^6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{32}\) × 1018
= 3.125 × 106

Question 25.
How much 235U is consumed in a day in an atomic power house operating at 400 MW, provided the whole of mass 235U is converted into energy ?
Solution:
P = 400 MW = 400 × 106 W, c = 3 × 108 m/s
t = 24 hours = 24 × 60 × 60 sec
E = mc2
\(\frac{\mathrm{Pt}}{\mathrm{c}^2}\) = m [∵ P = \(\frac{E}{t}\)]
m = \(\frac{400 \times 10^{-6} \times 24 \times 60 \times 60}{9 \times 10^6}\)
= 384 × 10-6 kg
∴ Mass required = 384 × 10-6 × 103 g = 0.384 g

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
a) Two stable isotopes of lithium \({ }_3^6 \mathrm{Li}\) and \({ }_3^7 \mathrm{Li}\) have respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u, respectively. Find the atomic mass of lithium.
b) Boron has two stable isotopes, \({ }_5^{10} \mathrm{~B}\) and \({ }_5^{11} \mathrm{~B}\). Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811u. Find the abundances of \({ }_5^{10} B\) and \({ }_5^{11} \mathrm{~B}\).
Solution:
a) Atomic weight
= Weighted average of the isotopes.
= \(\frac{6.01512 \times 7.5+7.01600 \times 92.5}{(7.5+92.5)}\)
= \(\frac{45.1134+648.98}{100}\)
= 6.9414

b) Let relative abundance of 5B10 be x%
∴ Relative abundance 5B11 = (100 – x) %
Proceeding as above
10.811 = \(\frac{10.01294 x+i 1.00931 \times(100-x)}{100}\)
x = 19.9% and (100 – x) = 30.1%

Question 2.
The three stable isotopes of neon : \({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\), \({ }_{10}^{21} \mathrm{Ne}\) and \({ }_{10}^{22} \mathrm{Ne}\) have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99u, 20.99 u and 21.99u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of Neon.
Solution:
The masses of three isotopes are 19.99u, 20.99 u, 21.99u
Their relative abundances are 90.51%, 10.27% and 9.22%
∴ Average atomic mass of Neon is
m = \(\frac{90.51 \times 19.99+0.27 \times 20.99+9.22 \times 21.99}{(90.51+0.27+9.22)}\)
= \(\frac{1809.29+5.67+202.75}{100}\) = \(\frac{2017.7}{100}\) = 20.17u

Question 3.
Obtain the binding energy (in MeV. of a nitrogen nucleus \(\left({ }_7^{14} \mathrm{~N}\right)\), given m \(\left({ }_7^{14} \mathrm{~N}\right)\) = 14.00307 u.
Solution:
7N14 Nucleius contains 7 protons and 7 neutrons
Mass defect (ΔM) = 7mH + 7mn – mN
= 7 × 1.00783 + 7 × 1.00867 – 14.00307
= 7.05481 + 7.06069 – 14.00307
= 0.11243μ
Binding energy = 0.11243 × 931 MeV
= 104.67 MeV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 4.
Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei \({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{~F}\) and \({ }_{83}^{209} \mathrm{Bi}\) in units of MeV from the following data : m\(\left({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\right)\) = 55.934939 u, m\(\left({ }_{83}^{209} \mathrm{Bi}\right)\) = 208.980388 u
Solution:
(i) 26F56 nucleus contains 26 protons and (56 – 26) = 30 neutrons
Mass of 26 protons = 26 × 1.007825
= 26.26345 a.m.u
Mass of 30 neutrons = 30 × 1.008665
= 30.25995 amu
Total mass of 56 nucleons
= 56.46340 a.m.u
Mass of 26Fe56 Nucleus
= 55.934939 a.m.u
Mass defect Δm = 56.46340 – 55.934939
= 0.528461 a.m.u
Total binding energy = 0.524861 × 931.5 MeV
= 492.26 MeV
Average B.E per nucleon = \(\frac{492.26}{56}\)
= 8.790 MeV

(ii) 83Bi209 nucleus contains 83 protons and (209 – 83) = 126 neutrons
Mass of 83 protons = 83 × 1.007825
= 83.649475 a.m.u
Mass of 126 Neutrons = 126 × 1.008665
= 127.09170 a.m.u
Total mass of nucleons = 210.741260 a.m.u
Mass of 83Bi209 nucleus = 208.986388 a.m.u
Mass defect Δm = 210.741260 – 208.980388
= 1.760872
Total B.E = 1.760872 × 931.5 MeV
= 1640.26 MeV
Average B.E. per nucleon = \(\frac{1640.26}{209}\)
= 7.848 MeV
Hence 26Fe56 has greater B.E per nucleon than 83Bi209

Question 5.
A given coin has a mass of 3.0gi Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made of 29Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u.
Solution:
Number of atoms in 3g coin =
\(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 3}{63}\)
= 2.868 × 1022
Each atom of copper contains 29 protons and 34 neutrons. Therefore, mass defect of each atom= [29 × 1.00783 + 34 × 1.00867] – 62.92960 = 0.59225 u
Total mass defect for all the atoms
= 0.59225 × 2.868 × 1022 u
ΔM = 1.6985 × 1022u
As, 1u = 931 MeV
Nuclear energy required
= 1.6985 × 1022 × 931 MeV
= 1.58 × 1025 MeV

Question 6.
Write nuclear reaction equations for
i. α-decay of \({ }_{88}^{226} \mathrm{Ra}\)
ii. α-decay of \({ }_{94}^{242} \mathrm{Pu}\)
iii. β-decay of \({ }_{15}^{32} \mathrm{P}\)
iv. β-decay of \({ }_{83}^{210} \mathrm{Bi}\)
v. β+-decay of \({ }_6^{11} \mathrm{C}\)
vi. β+-decay of \({ }_{43}^{97} \mathrm{Tc}\)
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 27

Question 7.
A radio active isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to
a) 3.125%,
b) 1% of its original value ?
Solution:
a) Here \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\frac{3.125}{100}\) = \(\frac{1}{32}\)
From \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\mathrm{n}}\) = \(\frac{1}{32}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\) ∴ n = 5
From t = nT = 5T

b) Here \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\frac{1}{100}\)
From \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = e-λt = \(\frac{1}{100}\)
-λt = log 1 – \(\log _{\mathrm{e}} 100\)
= 0 – 2.303 \(\log _{10} 100\) = -2.203 × 2
= -4.606
t = \(\frac{4.606}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{4.606}{0.693 / \mathrm{T}}\) = 6.65 T

Question 8.
The normal activity of living carbon-containing matter is found to be about 15 decays per minute for every gram of carbon. This activity arises from the small proportion of radioactive \({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\) present with the stable carbon isotope \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\). When the organism is dead, its interaction with the atmosphere (which maintains the above equilibrium activity, ceases and its activity begins to drop. From the known half-life (5730 years. of \({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\), and the measured activity, the age of the specimen can be approximately estimated. This is the principle of \({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\) dating used in archaeology. Suppose a specimen from Mohenjodaro gives an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram of carbon. Estimate the approximate age of the Indus-Valley civilisation.
Solution:
Here normal activity R0 = 15 decays/min
Present activity R = 9 decays / min
T = 5730 yrs
Age t = ?
As activity is proportional to the number of radio active atoms, therefore
\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{R}_0}\) = \(\frac{9}{15}\)
But \(\frac{N}{N_0}\) = e-λt
e-λt = \(\frac{9}{15}\) = \(\frac{3}{5}\)
e+λt = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
λt \(\log _{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{e}\) = \(\log _e \frac{5}{3}\) = 2.3023 log 1.6667
λt = 2.3026 × 0.2218 = 0.5109
t = \(\frac{0.5109}{\lambda}\)
λ = \(\frac{0.693}{T}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{5730}\)yt-1
∴ t = \(\frac{0.5109}{0.693 / 5730}\) = \(\frac{0.5109 \times 5730}{0.693}\)
t = 4224.3 years

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 9.
Obtain the amount of \({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{Co}\) necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength. The half-life of \({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{Co}\) is 5.3 years.
Solution:
Here, mass of 27Co60 =?
Strength of source, \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 8.0 mci
= 8.0 × 3.7 × 107 disint/sec
Half life, T = 5.3 years
= 5.3 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec
= 1.67 × 108 sec
λ = \(\frac{0.693}{T}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{1.67 \times 10^8}\) = 4.14 × 10-9 s-1
As \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 2N
∴ N = \(\frac{\mathrm{dN} / \mathrm{dt}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{8 \times 3.7 \times 10^7}{4.14 \times 10^{-9}}\)
= 7.15 × 1016
By definition of Avogadros number, Mass of 6.023 × 1023 atoms of 27Co60 = 60 g
Mass of 7.15 × 1016 atoms of 27Co60
= \(\frac{60 \times 7.15 \times 10^{16}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) = 7.12 × 10-6g

Question 10.
The half-life of \({ }_{38}^{90} \mathrm{~Sr}\) is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
Solution:
Here T = 28 years = 28 × 3.154 × 107s
As number of atoms in 90 g of 38Sr90
= 6.023 × 1023
∴ Number of atoms in 15mg of 38Sr90
= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{90}\) × \(\frac{15}{1000}\)
i.e., N = 1.0038 × 1020
Rate of disintegration \(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = λN
= \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}} \mathrm{~N}\)
= \(\frac{0.693 \times 1.0038 \times 10^{20}}{28 \times 3.154 \times 10^7}\)
= 7.877 × 1010 Bq

Question 11.
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope \({ }_{79}^{197} \mathrm{Au}\) and the silver isotope \({ }_{47}^{107} \mathrm{Ag}\).
Solution:
Here A1 = 197 and A2 = 107
\(\frac{\mathrm{R}_1}{\mathrm{R}_2}\) = \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{A}_1}{\mathrm{~A}_2}\right)^{1 / 3}\) = \(\left(\frac{197}{107}\right)^{1 / 3}\) = 1.225

Question 12.
Find the Q-value and the kinetic energy of the emitted α-particle in the α-decay of (a) \({ }_{88}^{226} \mathrm{Ra}\) and (b) \({ }_{86}^{220} \mathrm{Rn}\).
Given m \(\left({ }_{88}^{226} \mathrm{Ra}\right)\) = 226.02540 u,
m \(\left({ }_{86}^{222} R n\right)\) = 222.01750 u,
m \(\left({ }_{86}^{222} \mathrm{Rn}\right)\) =220.01137 u, m \(\left({ }_{84}^{216} \mathrm{Po}\right)\) = 216.00189 u.
Solution:
a) 88Ra22685Rn222 + 2He4 Q value
[m(88Ra226) – m(86Rn222) – mα] × 931.5 MeV
= [226.02540 – 222.0 1750 – 4.00260] × 931.5 MeV
Q = 0.0053 × 931.5 MeV = 4.94 MeV
K.E of a particle =
\(\frac{(A-4) Q}{A}\) = \(\frac{226-4}{226}\) × 4.94 = 4.85 MeV

b) Proceeding as above, in case of
Q = 6.41 MeV
K.E of a particle
= \(\frac{(\mathrm{A}-4) \mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{A}}\) = \(\frac{(220-4)}{220}\) × 6.41 = 6.29 MeV

Question 13.
The radionuclide 11C decays according to AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 28 The maximum energy of the emitted positron is 0.960 MeV. Given the mass values ; m\(\left({ }_6^{11} \mathrm{C}\right)\) = 11.011434u and \(\left({ }_6^{11} \mathrm{~B}\right)\) = 11.009305 u, calculate Q and compare it with the maximum energy of the positron emitted.
Solution:
Mass defect in the given reaction is Δm = m(6C11)
= [m (5B11) + Me]
This is in terms of nuclear masses. If we express the Q value interms of atomic masses we have to subtract 6me from atomic mass of carbon and 5 me from that of boron to get the corresponding nuclear masses
Therefore, we have
Δm = [m(6C11) – 6 me – m(5B11) + 5me – me
= [m(6C11) – m(5B11) – 2 me]
= [11.011434 – 11.009305 – 2 × 0.000548] u
= 0.001033u
As, 1u = 931 MeV
Q = 0.001033 × 931 MeV = 0.961 MeV
Which is the maximum energy of emitted position.

Question 14.
The nucleus \({ }_{10}^{23} \mathrm{Ne}\) decays by β-emission. Write down the β – decay. Write down the β-decay equation and determine the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted. Given that:
\(m\left({ }_{10}^{23} \mathrm{Ne}\right)\) = 22.994466 u
\(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_{11}^{23} \mathrm{Na}\right)\) = 22.089770 u.
Solution:
The β decay of 10Ne23 may be represented as
10Ne2311Na231e0 + v + Q
Ignoring the rest mass of antineutrino and v electron
Mass defect, Δm = m(10Ne23) – m (11Na23)
= 22.994466 – 22.989770
= 0.004696 amu
Q = 0.004696 × 931 MeV
= 4.372 MeV
As 11Na23 is very massive, this energy of 4.3792 MeV is shared by ev pair. The max K.E of e = 4.372 MeV when energy carried by v is zero.

Question 15.
The Q value of a nuclear reaction A + b → C + d is defined by Q = [mA + mb – mc – md] c2 where the masses refer to the respective nuclei. Determine from the given data the Q-value of the following reactions and state whether the reactions are exothermic or endothermic.
i) \(\mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{1}}^{\mathrm{1}}\) + \({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\) → \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\) + \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)
ii) \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) + \({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\) → \({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\) + \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)
Atomic masses are given to be
\(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_{\mathrm{1}}^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\) = 2.014102u
\(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)\) = 3.016049 u
\(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}\right)\) = 12.000000u
\(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_{10}^{20} \mathrm{Ne}\right)\) = 19.992439 u
Solution:
i) \(\mathrm{H}_{\mathrm{1}}^{\mathrm{1}}\) + \({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\) → \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\) + \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\)
Q = Δm × 931 MeV =
[m (1H1 + m(1H3) – 2m (1H2)] × 931 MeV
= [1.007825 + 3.01604 – 2 × 2.014102] × 931 MeV
= -4.03 MeV
∴ This reaction is endothermic,

ii) 6C12 + 6C1210Ne20 + 2He4
Q = Δm × 931 MeV =
[2m(6C12) – m(10Ne20) – m(2He4)] × 931 MeV
= [24.000000 – 19.992439 – 4.002603] × 931 MeV
= ±4.61 MeV
∴ The reaction is exothermic.

Question 16.
Suppose we think of fission of a \({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\) nucleus into two equal fragments, \({ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{Al}\), Is the fission energetically possible ? Argue by working out Q of the process. Given \(\mathrm{m}\left({ }_{26}^{56} \mathrm{Fe}\right)\) = 55.93494 u and \(\mathbf{m}\left({ }_{13}^{28} \mathrm{~A} l\right)\) = 27.98191 u.
Solution:
Q = [m(26Fe56 – 2m (13 Al28.] × 931.5 MeV
= [55.93494 – 2 × 27.9819] × 931.5 MeV
Q = – 0.2886 × 931.5 MeV = – 26.88 MeV
Which is negative.
This fission is not possible energetically.

Question 17.
The fission properties of \({ }_{94}^{239} \mathrm{Pu}\) are very similar to those of \({ }_{92}^{238} U\). The average-energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV is released if all the atoms in 1kg of pure \({ }_{94}^{239} \mathrm{Pu}\) undergo fission?
Solution:
No. of atoms in 1kg of pure .
UP = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{239}\) × 1000 = 2.52 × 1024
As average energy released / fission is 180 MeV, therefore total energy released
= 2.52 × 1024 × 180 MeV = 4.53 × 1026 MeV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 18.
A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel In 5.00 y. How much \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) did it contain initially ? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the energy generated arises from the fission of \({ }_{92}^{235} \mathrm{U}\) and that this nuclide is consumed only by the fission process.
Solution:
In the fission of one nucleus of 92U235 energy generated is 200 MeV
∴ Energy generated in fission of 1 kg of
92U235 = 200 × \(\frac{6 \times 10^{23}}{235}\) × 1000 MeV
= 5.106 × 1026 MeV = 5.106 × 1026 × 1.6 × 10-13J
= 8.17 × 103 J
Time for which reactor operates \(\frac{80}{100}\) × 5
years = 4 years.
Total energy generated in 5 years.
= 1000 × 106 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 365 × 4J
∴ Amount of U consumed in 5 years
= \(\frac{1000 \times 10^6 \times 60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365 \times 4}{8.17 \times 10^{13}} \mathrm{~kg}\)
= 1544 kg
∴ Initial amount of 92U235 = 2 × 1544 kg
= 3088 kg

Question 19.
How long can an electric lamp. of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 20 kg of deuterium ? Take the fusion reaction as \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\) + \({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\) → \({ }_2^3 \mathrm{He}\) + n + 3.27 MeV
Solution:
Number of deuterium atoms in 2.0 kg
\(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23} \times 2000}{2}\) = 6.023 × 1026
Energy released when 2 atoms füse = 3.27 MeV
∴ Total energy released
= \(\frac{3.27}{2}\) × 6.023 × 1026 MeV
= 1.635 × 6.023 × 1026 × 1.6 × 10-13 j
= 15.75 × 103 J
Enery consumed by the bulb/sec = 100 J
∴ Time for which bulb will glow
= \(\frac{15.75 \times 10^{13}}{100} \mathrm{~S}\)
= \(\frac{15.75 \times 10^{11}}{60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365}\) = 4.99 × 107 years

Question 20.
Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head on collision of two deuterons. (Hint : The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the two deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres of radius 2.0 fm.
Solution:
For head on collision distance between centres of two deuterons = r = 2 × radius
r = 4 fm = 4 × 10-15 m
Charge of each deuteron e = 1.6 × 10-10 C
Potential energy
\(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\) = \(\frac{9 \times 10^9\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^2}{4 \times 10^{-15}}\) Joule
= \(\frac{9 \times 1.6 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-14}}{4 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-16}}\)KeV
PE = 360 KeV
P.E = 2 × K.E of each deuteron = 360 KeV
K.E of each deuteron = \(\frac{360}{2}\) = 180 KeV
This is a measure of height of Coulomb barrier

Question 21.
From the relation R = R0A1/3, where R0, is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant (i.e., independent of A.
Solution:
Density of nuclear matter
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 29
ρ = \(\frac{\mathrm{mA}}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \mathrm{R}^3}\), where m is average mass of a nucleon
Using R = R0A1/3 we get
ρ = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~mA}}{4 \pi\left(\mathrm{R}_0 \mathrm{~A}^{1 / 3}\right)^3}\) = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~m}}{4 \pi \mathrm{R}_0^3}\)
As R0 is constant, therefore ρ is constant.

Question 22.
For the β+ (positron) emission from a nucleus, there is another competing process known as electron capture (electron from an inner orbit, say, the K – shell, is captured by the nucleus and a neutrino is emitted).
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 30
Show that if β+ emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is necessarily allowed but not vice-versa.
Solution:
The β+ emission from a nucleus ZXA may be represented as
zXA = z-1YA + 1e0 + v + Q1 —– (i)
The other competing process of electron capture may be represented as
-1e0 + ZXA = Z-1yA + v + Q2 —– (ii)
The energy released in Q1 in (1. is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 31
Note that mN here denotes mass of nucleus and m denotes the mass of atom similarly from (ii)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 32
Ir Q1 > 0 then Q2 > 0
i.e., If positron emission is energetically allowed electron capture is necessarily allowed. But Q2 > 0 does not necessarily mean Q1 > 0. Hence the reverse is not true.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
In a periodic table the average atomic mass of magnesium is given as 24.312 u. The average value is based on their relative natural abundance on earth. The three isotopes and their masses are \({ }_{12}^{24} \mathrm{Mg}\) (23.98504u), \({ }_{12}^{25} \mathrm{Mg}\) (24.98584u) and \({ }_{12}^{26} \mathrm{Mg}\) (25.98259u). The natural abundance of \({ }_{12}^{24} \mathrm{Mg}\) is 78.99% by mass. Calculate the abundances of other two isotopes.
Solution:
Let the abundance of \({ }_{12} \mathrm{Mg}^{25}\) by mass be x% therefore, abundance of 12Mg26 by mass
= (100 – 78.99 – x%)
= (21.01 – x%)
Now average atomic mass of magnesium is
24.312 =
\(\frac{23.98504 \times 78.99+24.98584+25.98529(21.01-\mathrm{x})}{100}\)
on solving we get x = 9.303% for 12Mg25 and for 12Mg26 (21.01 – x) = 11.71%

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 2.
The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy required to remove a neutron from the nucleus. Obtain the neutron separation energies of the nuclei \({ }_{20}^{41} \mathrm{Ca}\) and \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathbf{Al}\) from the following data: .
m(\({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\)) = 39.962591 u
m(\({ }_{20}^{41} \mathrm{Ca}\)) = 40.962278 u
m({ }_{13}^{26} \mathrm{Ca}) = 25.986895 u
m({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{Ca}) = 26.981541 u
Solution:
When a neutron is separated from 20Ca41 we are left with
20Ca40 i.e. 20Ca4120Ca40 + 0n1
Now mass defect
ΔM = m(20Ca40) + mn – m (20Ca41)
= 39.962591 + 1.008665 – 40.962278
= 0.008978 a.m.u
∴ Neutron seperation energy
= 0.008978 × 931MeV
= 8.362 MeV
similarly 13Al2713Al26 + 0n1
∴ Mass defect, ΔM = m (13Al26) + mn – m(13Al27)
= 25.986895 + 1.008665 – 26.981541
= 0.013845 u
∴ Neutron seperation energy. = 0.0138454 × 931MeV
= 12.89 MeV

Question 3.
A source contains two phosphorous radio nuclides \({ }_{15}^{32} \mathbf{P}\) (T1/2 = 14.3d) and \({ }_{15}^{33} P\) (T1/2 = 25.3d). Initially, 10% of the decays come from \({ }_{15}^{33} \mathrm{P}\). How long one must wait until 90% do so ?
Solution:
Suppose initially the source has 90% 15pt32 and 10% \({ }_{15} \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{t}}^{32}\), say 9x gram P2 and x gram of P1.

After t days, suppose the source has 90% \({ }_{15} \mathbf{P}_2^{33}\) and 10% \({ }_{15} \mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{t}}^{32}\) i.e., y gram of P2 and 9y gram of P1
we have to calculate :
from \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_0}\) = \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n\) = \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t / T}\) = 2-i/T
N = N02-t/T
y = 9×2-t/14.3 for P2 and 9y = x 2-t/25.3 for P1
Dividing we get
\(\frac{1}{9}\) = 9 × 2(t/25.3 – t/14.3.)
or \(\frac{1}{81}\) = 2-11t/25.3 × 14.3
log 1 – log 81 = \(\frac{-11 \mathrm{t}}{25.3 \times 14.3}\) log 2
0 – 1 – 9085 = \(\frac{-11 \mathrm{t}}{25.3 \times 14.3}\) × 0.3010.
t = \(\frac{25.3 \times 14.3 \times 1.9085}{11 \times 0.3010}\) = 208.5 days

Question 4.
Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by emitting a particle more massive than an α – particle. Consider the following decay processes :
\({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}\) → \({ }_{82}^{209} \mathrm{~Pb}\) + \({ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}\)
\({ }_{88}^{223} \mathrm{Ra}\) → \({ }_{86}^{219} \mathrm{~Pb}\) + \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\)
Calculate the Q-values for these decays and determine that both are energetically allowed.
Solution:
i) For the decay process
88Ra 22382pb209 + 6C14 + Q
mass defect, ΔM = mass of Ra223 – (mass of pb209 + mass of C14)
= 223.01850 – (208.98107 + 14.00324)
= 0.03419u
Q = 0.03419 × 931 MeV = 31.83 MeV

ii) For the decay process
88Ra2386Rn219 + 2He4 + Q mass defect, ΔM = mass of Ra223 – (mass of Rn219 + mass of He4) = 223.01850 – (219.00948 + 4.00260)
= 0.00642 u
∴ Q = 0.00642 × 931 MeV = 5.98 MeV
As Q values are positive in both the cases, therefore both the decays are energetically possible.

Question 5.
Consider the fission of \({ }_{92}^{238} \mathbf{U}\) by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted and the final end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are \({ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}\) and \({ }_{44}^{99} \mathrm{Ru}\). Calculate Q for this fission process. The relevant atomic and particle masses are
m(\({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U}\)) = 238.05079 u
m(\({ }_{58}^{140} \mathrm{Ce}\)) = 139.90543 u
m(\({ }_{44}^{99} \mathrm{Ru}\))= 98.90594 u
Solution:
For this fission reaction,
92U238 + on1 → 58Ce140 + 44Ru99 + Q
mass defect ΔM = mass of U238 + mass of n – (mass of Ce140 + mass of Ru99.
= 238.05079 + 1.00867 – (139.90543 + 98.90594)
= 0.24809U
∴ Q = 0.24809 × 931 MeV = 230.97 Mev

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei

Question 6.
Consider the D-T reaction (deuterium- tritium fusion)
\({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\) + \({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\) → \({ }_2^4 \mathrm{He}\) + n
a) Calculate the energy released in MeV in this reaction from the data:
m\(\left({ }_1^2 \mathrm{H}\right)\) = 2.014102 u
m\(\left({ }_1^3 \mathrm{H}\right)\) = 3.016049 u
b) Consider the radius of both deuterium and tritium to be approximately 2.0 fm. What is the kinetic energy needed to overcome the Coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei ? To what temperature must the gas heated to
initiate the reaction ?
(Hint : Kinetic energy required for one fusion event = average thermal kinetic energy available with the interacting particles = 2(3kt/2); k = Boltzman’s constant, T = absolute temperature..
Solution:
a) For the process 1H2 + 1H3 + 2He4 + n + Q
Q = [m(1H2) + m (1H3) + m(2He4) – mn] × 931 MeV
= (2.014102 + 3.016049 – 4.002603
1.00867) × 931 MeV
= 0.018878 × 931 = 17.58 MeV

b) Repulsive potential energy of two nuclei when they almost touch each other is
= \(\frac{q^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0(2 r)}\) = \(\frac{9 \times 10^9\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^7}{2 \times 2 \times 10^{-15}}\) Joule
= 5.76 × 10-14 Joule

Classically KE atleast equal to this amount is required to overcome Coulomb repulsion. Using the relation
K.E. = 2 × \(\frac{3}{2}\) KT
T = \(\frac{\mathrm{K} \cdot \mathrm{E}}{3 \mathrm{k}}\) = \(\frac{5.76 \times 10^{-14}}{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23}}\) = 1.39 × 109K
In actual practise the temperature required for trigerring the reaction is somewhat less.

Question 7.
Obtain the maximum kinetic energy of β-particles, and the radiation frequencies of γ decays in the decay scheme shown in Fig. You are given that
m(198Au) = 197.968233 u
m(198Hg) = 197.966760 u.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 14 Nuclei 33
Solution:
Energy corresponding to r1
E1 = 1.088 – 0 = 1.088 MeV
= 1.088 × 1.6 × 10-13 Joule
Frequency v1 = \(\frac{E_1}{h}\)
= \(\frac{1.088 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 2.63 × 1020 HZ
similarly v2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_2}{\mathrm{~h}}\)
= \(\frac{0.412 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-12}}{6.6 \times 10^{10}}\)
= 9.98 × 1013 Hz
and v3 = \(\frac{E_3}{h}\)
= \(\frac{(1.088-0.412) \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{6.6 \times 10^{20} \mathrm{~Hz}}\)
Maximum K.E. of β1 particle
Kmax1)= [m(79Au198 – mass of Second excited state of 80Hg198] × 931 MeV
= [m(79Au198) – m(82Hg198) – \(\frac{1.088}{931}\)] × 931 MeV
= 931 [197.968233 – 197.966760] – 1.088 MeV
= 1.371 – 1.088 = 0.283 MeV
similarly kmax2) – 0.957 MeV

Question 8.
Calculate and compare the energy released by a. fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within Sun and b. the fission of 1.0 kg of 235U in a fission reactor.
Solution:
In sun, four hydrogen nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus with the release of 26 MeV energy.
∴ Energy released by fusion of 1 kg of hydrogen = \(\frac{6 \times 10^{23} \times 26}{4}\) × 103 MeV
As energy released in fission of one atom of 92U236 = 200 MeV
Energy released in fission of 1 kg of 92U238
= \(\frac{6 \times 10^{23} \times 1000}{235}\) × 200 MeV
E2 = 5.1 × 1026 MeV
\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_1}{\mathrm{E}_2}\) = \(\frac{39 \times 10^{26}}{5.1 \times 10^{26}}\) = 7.65
i.e., Energy released in fusion is 7.65 times the energy released in fission.

Question 9.
Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 2,00,000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on an average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e. conversion to electric energy of thermal energy produced in a reactór was 25%.
How much amount of fissionable uranium would our country need per year by 2020 ? Take the heat energy per fission of 235U to be about 200 MeV.
Solution:
Total targeted power = 2 × 105 MW
Total Nuclear power = 10% of 2 × 105 MW
= 2 × 104 MW
Energy produced in fission = 200 MeV
Effeciency of power plant =25%
∴ Energy converted into electrical energy per fission = \(\frac{25}{100}\) × 200 = 50 MeV
= 50 × 1.6 × 10-13 Joule.
Total electrical energy to be produced :
= 2 × 104 MW = 2 × 104 × 106 Watt
= 2 × 1010 Joule/Sec
= 2 × 1010 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 365 Joule / year
No. of fissions in one year
= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{10} \times 60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365}{50 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}\)
= 2 × \(\frac{36 \times 24 \times 365}{8}\) × 1024
Mass of 6.023 × 1023 atoms of U235 = 235 gm = 235 × 10-3 kg
Mass of \(\frac{2 \times 36 \times 24 \times 365}{8}\) × 1024 atoms
= \(\frac{235 \times 10^{-3}}{6.023 \times 10^{23}}\) × \(\frac{2 \times 36 \times 24 \times 365 \times 20^{24}}{8}\)
= 3.08 × 104 Kg
Hence mass of Uranium needed per year = 3.08 × 104 Kg.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Atoms Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 13th Lesson Atoms

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the angular momentum of electron in the second orbit of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ?
Answer:
Angular momentum of electron in second orbit of Hydrogen atom
L = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~h}}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{h}{\pi}\) (∵ L = \(\frac{h h}{2 \pi}\))

Question 2.
What is the expression for fine structure constant and what is its value?
Answer:
Formula for fine structure constant
α = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{2 \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{ch}}\); value of α = \(\frac{1}{137}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 3.
What is the physical meaning of ‘negative energy of an electron’ ?
Answer:
The ‘negative energy of an electron’ indicates that the electron bound to the nucleus due to force of attraction.

Question 4.
Sharp lines are present in the spectrum of a gas. What does this indicate ?
Answer:
Sharp lines in the spectrum of gas indicates bright lines against dark background.

Question 5.
Name a physical quantity whose dimensions are the same as those of angular momentum.
Answer:
Planck’s constant.

Question 6.
What is the difference between α – particle and helium atom ?
Answer:
Alpha particle

  1. It is a + 2e charged Helium nucleus.
  2. It contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons.

Helium atom

  1. It has no charge.
  2. It contains 2 protons, 2 electrons and 2 neutrons.

Question 7.
How is impact parameter related to angle of scattering ?
Answer:
The impact parameter related to angle of scattering is given by b = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \times \frac{\mathrm{Ze}^2}{\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\right)} \cot \theta_2\)

Question 8.
Among alpha, beta and gamma radiations, which get affected by the electric field ?
Answer:
Alpha and Beta radiations are get affected by the electric field.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the ‘phrase ground state atom’ ?
Answer:
If the electron is present in the ground state, it is called ground state atom.

Question 10.
Why does the mass of the nucleus not have any significance in scattering in Rutherford’s experiment ?
Answer:
The size of the atom is 10-10 m and size of the nucleus is 10-15 m. Hence atom has large empty space. So the mass of nucleus has no significance in Rutherford’s scattering experiment.

Question 11.
The Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultraviolet region. Why ? (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
The calculated values of wavelengths lie in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum well agree with the values of wavelengths observed experimentally by Lyman.

Question 12.
Write down a table giving longest and shortest wavelengths of different spectral series.
Answer:
Wavelength limits of some spectral series of hydrogen.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 1

Question 13.
The wavelengths of some of the spectral lines obtained in hydrogen spectrum are 1216 A, 6463 A and 9546A. Which one of these wavelengths belongs to the Paschen series ?
Answer:
The wavelength of spectral line 9546A belongs to the Paschen series.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 14.
Give two drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model.
Answer:
Drawbacks of Rutherford’s atom model:

  1. As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus. But matter is stable, we can not expect the atom collapse.
  2. The atoms should emit continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is impact parameter and angle of scattering ? How are they related to each other ?
Answer:

  1. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the alpha particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.
  2. Scattering angle (θ): The scattering angle (θ) is the angle between the asymtotic direction of approach of the α – particle and the asymptotic direction in which it receeds.
  3. The relation between b and θ is b = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{Z \mathrm{e}^2}{E} \cot \frac{\theta}{2}\) where E = K.E. of α – particle = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\)

Question 2.
Derive an expression for potential and kinetic energy of an electron in any orbit of a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model. How does P.E change with increasing n. (T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:

  1. According fo Bohr electrostatic force of attraction, Fe between the revolving electrons and nucleus provides the necessary centripetal force Fc to keep them in their orbits.
  2. Thus for dynamically state orbit in a hydrogen atom.
    Fc = Fe ⇒ \(\frac{m v^2}{r}\) = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{e^2}{r_2}\)
  3. The relation between the orbit radius and the electron velocity is r = 2
    4e0 (m )
  4. The kinetic energy (K) and electrostatic potential energy (υ) of the electron in hydrogen atom are
    K = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 r}\) and υ = \(\frac{-\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
  5. The total energy E of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
    E = K + U = \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
    ∴ E = \(\frac{-\mathrm{e}^2}{8 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{r}}\)
  6. With increase in ‘nr potential energy (U) also increases.

Question 3.
What are the limitations of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom ? (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Limitations of Bohr’s theory of Hydrogen atom :

  1. This theory is applicable only to simplest atom like hydrogen, with z = 1. The theory fails in case of atoms- of other elements for which z > 1.
  2. The theory does not explain why orbits of electrons are taken as circular, while elliptlical orbits are also possible.
  3. Bohr’s theory does not say anything about the relative intensities of spectral lines.
  4. Bohr’s theory does not take into account the wave properties of electrons.

Question 4.
Explain the distance of closest approach and impact parameter.
Answer:
Distance of closest approach :

  1. Suppose an α-particle with initial kinetic energy (K.E) is directed towards the centre of the nucleus of an atom.
  2. On account of Coulomb’s repulsive force between nucleus and alpha particle, kinetic energy of alpha particle goes on decreasing and in turn, electric potential energy of the particle goes on increasing.
  3. At certain distance ‘d’ from the nucleus, K. E of α-particle reduces to zero. The particle stops and it can not go closer to the nucleus. It is repelled by the nucleus and therefore it retraces its path, turning through 180°.
  4. Therefore, the distance d is known as the distance of closest of approach.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 2
    The closest distance of approach,
    d = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \times \frac{Z e^2}{\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\right)}\)
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 3
  5. Impact parameter (b) : Impact parameter is defined as the ⊥r distance of the initial velocity vector of the α – particle from the central line of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom.

Question 5.
Give a brief account of Thomson model of atom. What are its limitations ?
Answer:
Thomson’s model of atom :

  1. According to Thomson’s model, every atom consists of a positively charged sphere of radius of the order of 10-10 m in which entire mass and positive charge of the atom are uniformly distributed.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 4
  2. Inside this sphere, the electrons are embedded like seeds in a watermelon or like plums in a pudding.
  3. The negative charge of electrons is equal to the positive charge of the atom. Thus atom is electrically neutral.

Limitations :

  1. It could not explain the origin of spectral series of hydrogen and other atoms, observed experimentally.
  2. It could not explain large angle scattering of a-particles from thin metal foils, as observed by Rutherford.

Question 6.
Describe Rutherford atom model. What are the draw backs of this model.
Answer:
Rutherford atom model: The essential features of Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom or planetary model of the atom are as follows :

  1. Every atom consists of tiny central core, called the atomic nucleus, in which the entire positive charge and almost entire mass of the atom are concentrated.
  2. The size of nucleus is of the order of 10-15m, which is very small as compared to the size of the atom which is of the order of 10-10m.
  3. The atomic nucleus is surrounded by certain number of electrons. As atom on the whole is electrically neutral, the total negative charge of electrons surrounding the nucleus is equal to total positive charge on the nucleus.
  4. These electrons revolve around the nucleus in various circular orbits as do the planets around the sun. The centripetal force required by electron for revolution in provided by the electrostatic force of attraction between the electrons and the nucleus.

Draw backs : According to classical E.M. theory.

  1. The revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into the nucleus. As matter is stable, we cannot expect the atoms to collapse.
  2. Since the frequency of radiation emitted is the same as the frequency of revolution, the atom should radiate a continuous spectrum, but what we observe is only a line spectrum.

Question 7.
Distinguish between excitation potential and ionization potential.
Answer:
Excitation Potential:

1) When the electron jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit by absorbing energy is called excited electron and the process is known as excitation. The minimum accelerating potential which provides an electron energy sufficient to jump from the inner most orbit (ground state) to one of the outer orbits is called excitation potential or resonance potential.

2) a) For example, in case of hydrogen atom,
E1 = -13.6 eV. E2 = -3.4 eV E3 = -1.51eV and soon, E = 0
∴ Energy required to raise an electron from ground state (n = 1) to first excited state
(n = 2) is E = E2 – E1 = -3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV.
The corresponding excitation potential = 10.2 Volt,

b) Similarly, energy required to raise an electron from ground state (n = 1) to second excited , state (n = 3) is
E = E3 – E1 = -1.51 – (-13.6) = -1.51 + 13.6 = 12.09 eV
The corresponding excitation potential = 12.09 Volt and so on.

3) The excitation potential of an atom is not one. It can have many values, depending on the state to which the atom is excited.

Ionisation potential:

  1. The energy supplied is so large that it can remove an electron from the outer most orbit of an atom, the process is called Ionisation. Thus ionisation is the phenomenon of removal of an electron from the outer most orbit of an atom.
  2. The minimum accelerating potential which would provide an electron energy sufficient just to remove it from the atom is called Ionisation potential.
  3. For example, total energy of electron in ground state of hydrogen atom, + 13.6 eV energy is required.
    ∴ Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV.
    Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom = 13.6 Volts.
  4. The general expression for ionisation potential of an atom is V = \(\frac{13.6 \mathrm{Z}^2}{\mathrm{n}^2}\) volt, Where Z is the charge number of the atom and n is number of orbit from which electron is to be removed.
  5. For a given element, ionisation potential is fixed, but for different elements, ionisation potentials are different.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 8.
Explain the different types of spectral series in hydrogen atom. (A.P. Mar. ’19, ’15; T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of five series.

  1. Lyman series : v = Rc \(\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 2, 3, 4, ……
  2. Balmer series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 3, 4, 5, ………
  3. Paschen series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 4, 5, 6, …….
  4. Brackett series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{4^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 5, 6, 7, ……
  5. Pfund series : v = Rc\(\left(\frac{1}{5^2}-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\) where n = 6, 7, 8,……..

Question 9.
Write a short note on Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization.
Answer:
Debroglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization :

  1. The second postulate of Bohr atom model says that angular momentum of electron orbiting around the nucleus is quantized i.e., mυr = \(\frac{\text { nh }}{2 \pi}\) where m = 1, 2, 3,….
  2. According to Debroglie, the electron in its circular orbit, as proposed by Bohr, must be seen as a particle wave.
  3. When a string fixed at two ends is plucked, a large number of wavelengths are excited and standing wave is formed.
  4. It means that in a string, standing waves form when total distance travelled by a wave down the string and back is an integral number of wavelengths.
  5. According to Debroglie, a stationary orbit is that which contains an integral number of Debrogile waves associated with the revolving electron.
  6. For an electron revolving in nth circular orbit of radius rn, total distance covered = circumference òf the orbit = 2πrn
    ∴ For permissible orbit, 2πrn = nλ
  7. According to Debrogile, λ = \(\frac{h}{m v_n}\) Where υn is speed of electron revolving in nth orbit
    ∴ mυnrn = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\) = \(\mathrm{n}\left(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \pi}\right)\)
    i.e., angular momentum of electron revolrmg in nth orbit must be an integral multiple of \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \pi}\), which is the quantum condition proposed by Bohr in second postulate.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe Geiger-Marsden Experiment on scattering of α – particles. How is the size of the nucleus estimated in this experiment ?
Answer:

  1. The experimental set up used by Rutherford and his colaborators, Geiger and Marsden is shown in fig.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 5
  2. The α-particles emitted by radio active source contained in a lead cavity are collimated into a narrow beam with the help of a lead slit (collimator).
  3. The collimated beam is allowed to fall on a thin gold foil of thickness of the order of 2.1 × 10-7m.
  4. The α-particles scattered in different directions are observed through a rotatable detector consisting of zinc sulphide screen and a microscope.
  5. The α-particles produce bright flashes or scintillations on the ZnS screen.
  6. These are observed in the microscope and counted at different angles from the direction of incidence of the beam.
  7. The angle θ of deviation of an α-particle from its original direction is called its scattering angle θ.

Observations : We find that

  1. Most of the alpha particles pass straight through the gold foil. It means they do not suffer any collision with gold atoms.
  2. Only about 0.14% of incident α-particles scatter by more than 1°.
  3. About one α-particle in every 8000 α-particles deflect by more than 90°.

Estimation of size of the nucleus :

  1. This led to Rutherford postulate, that the entire positive charge of the atom must be concentration in a tiny central core of the atom. This tiny central core of each atom was called atomic nucleus.
  2. The electrons would be moving in orbits about the nucleus just as the planets do around the sun.
  3. Rutherford’s experiments suggested the size of the nucleus to be about 10-15m to 10-14m. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be 10-10m, about 10,000 to 1,00,000 times larger than the size of the nucleus.

Question 2.
Discuss Bohr’s theory of the spectrum of hydrogen atom.
Answer:

  1. According to Bohr’s model an electron continuous to revolve round the nucleus in fixed, stationary orbits. This is called groupd state of the atom. In ground state there is no emission of radiation.
  2. But when some energy is given to an atom the electron absorbs this energy. This is called excited state of the atom. In this state the electron jumps to the next higher orbit. But it can remain 10-8 sec and it immediatly returns back to its ground state and the balance of the energy is emitted out as a spectral line.
  3. According to Bohr’s third postulate, the emitted energy is given by E = hv = E2 – E1
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 6

Spectral series of Hydrogen atom:

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 7

Hydrogen atom has five series of spectral lines: They are

1. Lyman series: When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the first orbit, the spectral lines are in the ultra – violet region. Here n1 = 1, n2 = 2, 3, 4, 5….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[1-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

2) Balmer Series : When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the second orbit, the
spectral Lines are in the visible region. Here n1 = 2, n2 = 3, 4, 5…
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

3) Paschen series : When an electron jumps from the outer orbits to the third orbit, the spectral lines are in the near infrared region. Here n1 = 3, n2 = 4, 5, 6 ….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2{ }^2}\right]\)

4) Brackett series : When an electron jumps from outer orbits to the forth orbit, the spectral lines are in the infrared region. Here n1 = 4, n2 = 5, 6, 7…….
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{4^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

5) Pfund series : When an electron jumps from outer orbits to the fifth orbit, the spectral lines are in the far infrared region. Here n1 = 5, n2 = 6, 7, 8, ………
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left[\frac{1}{5^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right]\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 3.
State the basic postulates of Bohr’s theory of atomic spectra. Hence obtain an expression for the radius of orbit and the energy of orbital electron in a hydrogen atom.
Answer:
a) Basic postulates of Bohr’s theory are
1) The electron revolves round a nucleus is an atom in various orbits known as stationary orbits. The electrons can not emit radiation when moving in their own stationary levels.

2) The electron can revolve round the nucleus only in allowed, orbits whose angular momentum is the integral multiple of \(momentum is the integral multiple of
i.e., mυnrn = [latex]\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\) ———> (1)
where n = 1, 2, 3…..

3) If an electron jumps from higher energy (E2) orbit to the lower energy (E1) orbit, the difference of energy is radiated in the form of radiation.
i.e., E = hv = E2 – E1 ⇒ v = \(\frac{E_2-E_1}{h}\) ——> (2)

b) Energy of emitted radiation : In hydrogen atom, a single electron of charge — e, revolves around the nucleus of charge e in a ciccular orbit of radius rn.

1) K.E. of electron : For the electron to be in circular orbit, centripetal force = The electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and nucleus,
From Coulomb’s law, \(\frac{\mathrm{m} \dot{v}_n^2}{r_n}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}^2}\) ——> (3)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 8
where K = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\) —–> (4)
\(m v_n^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}}\) —–> (5)
\(m v^2 r_n\) = Ke2 ——-> (6)
Dividing (5) by (1), υn = Ke2 × \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{nh}}\)
From (3), kinetic energy K = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_n^2\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}^2}{2 r_{\mathrm{n}}}\)

2) Potential energy of electron:
P.E. of electron, U = \(\frac{\mathrm{Ke}}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}} \times-\mathrm{e}\) [∵ W = \(\frac{I^{\prime}}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{Q}{d}\) × -Q]
∴ U = \(\frac{-\mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}}\)

3) Radius of the orbit: Substituting the value of (6) in (2),
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 9

4) Total energy (En) : Revolving electron posses K.E. as well as P.E.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 10

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
The radius of the first electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10-11m. What is the radius of the second orbit ?
Solution:
rn ∝ n2
\(\frac{\mathrm{r}_2}{\mathrm{r}_1}\) = \(\frac{2^2}{1^2}\) = \(\frac{4}{1}\) ⇒ r2 = 4r1

Question 2.
Determine the radius of the first orbit of the hydrogen atom. What would be the velocity and frequency of the electron in the first orbit ?
Solution:
Given: h = 6.62 × 10-34 J-s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31kg,
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C,
k = 9 × 109Nm2C-2, n = 1

i)
r1 = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 \mathrm{mke}^2}\)
= \(\frac{(1)^2 \times\left(6.62 \times 10^{-34}\right)^2}{4 \times(3.14)^2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 9 \times 10^9\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^2}\)
∴ r1= 0.529 A \(\simeq\) 0.53 A

ii)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 11

iii)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 12

Question 3.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this state ?
Solution:
In 1st orbit, E = -3.4eV
Total energy E = \(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{2 \mathrm{r}}\) – \(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = U(say)
E = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{2}-\mathrm{U}\) = \(\frac{-\mathrm{U}}{2}\)
U = -2E
∴ U = -2 × -3.4 = 6.8 eV.

Question 4.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state ?
Solution:
In Hydrogen like atom, we know that
K = – Total energy E
Here E = – 3.4eV
∴ K = -(-3.4) = 3.4 eV

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 5.
Find the radius of the hydrogen atom in its ground state. Also calculate the velocity of the electron in n = 1 orbit. Given
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J s, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, K = 9 × 109N m2C-2
Solution:
n = 1, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s,
m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
e = 1.6 × 10-19C,
K = 9 × 109 Nm2C-2
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 13

Question 6.
Prove that the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
Solution:
n = 1 corresponds to ground state.
E = \(\frac{-13.6}{n^2} e V\)
E = \(\frac{-13.6}{1^2} \mathrm{eV}\)
E = -13.6 eV
∴ The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of hydrogen atom
= 13.6 eV.
∴ Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV

Question 7.
Calculate the ionization energy for a lithium atom.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 14
∴ Ionization energy of Lithium = 30.6eV.

Question 8.
The wavelength of the first member of Lyman series is 1216 A. Calculate the wavelength of second member of Balmer series.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(R\left(\frac{1}{n_1^2}-\frac{1}{n_2^2}\right)\)
For 1st member of Lyman series, λ = 1216; n1 = 1, n2 = 2
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 15
For 2nd member of Balmer senes,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 16

Question 9.
The wavelength of first member of Balmer series is 6563 A. Calculate the wavelength of second member of Lyman series.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For 1st member of Balmer senes,
\(\frac{1}{6563}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{6563}\) = \(\frac{5 R}{36}\) —–> (1)
For 2nd member of Lyman senes,
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\frac{8 \mathrm{R}}{9}\) —–> (2)
\(\frac{(1)}{(2)}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\lambda^1}{6563}\) = \(\frac{5 \mathrm{R}}{36} \times \frac{9}{8 \mathrm{R}}\)
λ’ = \(\frac{5}{32} \times 6563\)
∴ λ’ = 1025.5A

Question 10.
The second member of Lyman series in hydrogen spectrum has wavelength 5400 A. Find the wavelength of first member.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For second member of Lyman senes,
\(\frac{1}{5400}\) = \(R\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{5400}\) = \(\frac{8 \mathrm{R}}{9}\) —-> (1)
For first member of Lyman series,
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{2^2}\right)\)
\(\frac{1}{\lambda^1}\) = \(\frac{3 R}{4}\) —–> (2)
\(\frac{(1)}{(2)}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\lambda^1}{5400}\) = \(\frac{8 R}{9} \times \frac{4}{3 R}\)
∴ λ’ = \(\frac{32}{27}\) × 5400 = 6400A.

Question 11.
Calculate the shortest wavelength of Balmer series. Or Calculate the wavelength of the Balmer senes limit. Given : R = 10970000m-1.
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
R = 10970000 = 1.097 × 107 ms-1
For Balmer senes limit n1 = 2 and n2 = ∞
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\mathrm{R}\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{\infty}\right)\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{R}{4}\)
λ = \(\frac{4}{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\frac{4}{1.097 \times 10^7}\) = 3646.3A

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 12.
Using the Rydberg formula, calcûlate the wavelength of the first four spectral lines in the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.
Solution:
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 17

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Choose the correct alternative from the clues given at the end of the each statement:
a) The size of the atom in Thomson’s model is ……… the atomic size in Rutherford’s model. (much greater than / no different from / much less than.)
b) In the ground state of ……. electrons are in stable equilibrium, while in …… electrons always experience a net force. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model.)
c) A classical atom based on …… is doomed to collapse. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model).
d) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a ……. but has a highly non-uniform mass distribution in ………. (Thomson’s model / Rutherford’s model.)
e) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in …….. (Rutherford’s model / both the models.)
Answer:
a) No different from
b) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
c) Rutherford’s model
d) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
e) Both the models.

Question 2.
Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha – particle scattering experiment using a thin sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures below 14 K.) What results do you expect ?
Answer:
The basic purpose of scattering experiment is defeated because solid hydrogen will be much lighter target compared to the alpha particle acting as projectile. According to theory of elastic the collisions, the target hydrogen will move much faster compared to alpha after collision. We cannot determine the size of hydrogen nucleus.

Question 3.
What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines ?
Answer:
From Rydberg’s formula
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 13.6 × 1.6 × 10-19\(\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_1^2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}_2^2}\right)\)
For shortest wavelength in Paschen series n2 = ∞ and n1 = 3
\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 21.76 × 10-19\(\left[\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{\infty^2}\right]\)
= 2.42 × 10-19
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2.42 \times 10^{-19}}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{2.42 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{~m}\)
= 8.1818 × 10-7m = 818.18nm.

Question 4.
A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom make a transition from the upper level to the lower level ?
Answer:
Here E = 2.3eV = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10-19 J
As E = hv
∴ v = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = \(\frac{2.3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 5.6 × 104 Hz

Question 5.
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of the electron in this state ?
Answer:
Total energy E = -13.6 eV
K.E = -E = 13.6 eV
RE. = -2.K.E = -2 × 13.6
= -27.2eV.

Question 6.
A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon.
Answer:
For ground state n1 = 1 and n2 = 4
Energy of photon absorbed E = E2 – E1
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 18

Question 7.
a) Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n = 1, 2 and 3 levels.
b) Calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
Answer:
a) From v = \(\frac{c}{n} \alpha\), where α = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{Ke}^2}{\mathrm{ch}}\) = 0.0073
v1 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{1}\) × 0.0073 = 2.19 × 106 m/s
v2 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{2}\) × 0.0073 = 1.095 × 106 m/s
v3 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{3}\) × 0.0073 = 7.3 × 105 m/s

b) Orbital period, T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{V}\), As r1 = 0.53 × 10-10m
T1 = \(\frac{2 \pi \times 0.53 \times 10^{-10}}{2.19 \times 10^6}\) = 1.52 × 10-16S
As r2 = 4r1 and V2 = \(\frac{1}{2} V_1\)
T2 = 8T2 = 8 × 1.52 × 10-6 S = 1.216 × 10-15S
As r3 = 9r1 and V3 = \(\frac{1}{3} \mathrm{~V}_1\)
T3 = 27T1= 27 × 1.52 × 10-16 S = 4.1 × 10-15S

Question 8.
The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10--11m. What are the radii of the n = 2 and n = 3 orbits?
Answer:
As r = n2r
∴ r2 = 4r1 = 4 × 5.3 × 10-11 m = 2.12 × 10-10m ,
and r3 = 9r1 = 9 × 5.3 × 10-11 = 4.77 × 10-10m.

Question 9.
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What series of wavelengths will be emitted?
Answer:
In ground state, energy of gaseous hydrogen at room temparature = -13.6eV, when it is bombarded with 12.5 eV electron beam, the energy becomes 13.6 + 12.5 = -1.1eV.
The electron would jump from n = 1 to n = 3 where E3 = \(\frac{-13.6}{32}\) = -1.5eV
On de — excitation the electron may jump from n = 3 to n = 2 giving rise to Balmer series. It may also jump from n = 3 to n = 1 giving rise to Lýman series.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 10.
In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterises the earths revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 × 104m/s. (Mass of earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg.)
Answer:
Here r = 1.5 × 1011m, V = 3 × 104m/s, m = 6.0 × 1024kg
According to Bohrs model mvr = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\)
n = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{mvr}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{6.0 \times 10^{24} \times 3 \times 10^4 \times 1.5 \times 10^{11}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\)
= 2.57 × 1074, which is too large.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions, which help you understand the difference between Thomson’s model and Rutherford’s model better.
a) Is the average angle of deflection of α — particles by a thin gold foil predicted by Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than that predicted by Rutherford’s model?
b) Is the probability of backward scattering (i.e., scattering of α – particles at angles greater than 90°) predicted by Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than that predicted by Rutherford’s model ?
c) Keeping other factors fixed, it is found experimentally that for small thickness t, the number of α – particles scattered at moderate angles is proportional to t. What clue does this linear dependence on t provide ?
d) In which model is it completely wrong to ignore multiple scattering for the calculation of average angle of scattering of a – particles by a thin foil ?
Answer:
a) About the same this is because we are talking of average angle of deflection.
b) Much less, because in Thomson’s model there is no such massive central core called the nucleus as in Rutherford’s model.
c) This suggests that scattering is predominantly due to a single collision increases with the number of target atoms which increases linearly with the thickness of the foil.
d) In Thomson model, positive charge is uniformly distributed in the spherical atom. Therefore a single collision causes very little deflection. Therefore average scattering angle can be explained only by considering multiple scattering may be ignored as a first approximation.

Question 12.
The gravitational attraction between electron and proton in a hydrogen atom is weaker than the coulomb attraction by a factor of about 10-40. An alternative way of looking at this fact is to estimate the radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom if the electron and proton were bound by gravitational attraction. You will find the answer interesting.
Answer:
The radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is
r0 = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_0(h / 2 \pi)^2}{m_e \mathrm{e}^2}\)
If we consider the atom bound by the gravitational force
= \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Gm}_{\mathrm{p}} \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{r}^2}\right)\). We should replace \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\) by (Gmpme). In that case radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom would be given by r0 = \(\frac{(\mathrm{h} / 2 \pi)^2}{\mathrm{Gm}_p \mathrm{~m}^2 \mathrm{e}}\)
Putting the standard values we get
r0 = \(\frac{\left(6.6 \times 10^{-34} / 2 \pi\right)^2}{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times\left(9.1 \times 10^{-31}\right)^2}\)
= 1.2 × 1029 metre.
This is much greater than the estimated size of the whole universe!

Question 13.
Obtain an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a hydrogen atom de- excites from level n to level (n – 1). For large n, show that this frequency equals the classical frequency of revolution of the electron in the orbit.
Answer:
The frequency v of the emitted radiation when a hydrogen atom de-excites from level n to level (n – 1) is
E = hv = E2 – E1
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 19
In Bohr’s Atomic model, velocity of electron in nth orbit is v = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi \mathrm{mr}}\)
and radius of nth orbital is v = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 m K e^2}\)
Frequency of revolution of electron v = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi \mathrm{mr}}\)
and radius of nth orbital is r = \(\frac{n^2 h^2}{4 \pi^2 m K e^2}\)
Frequency of revolution of electron
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 20
which is the same as (i) .
Hence for large values of n1 classical frequency of revolution of electron in nth orbit is the same as the frequency of radiation emitted when hydrogen atom de-excites from level (n) to level (n – 1)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms

Question 14.
Classically, an electron can be in any orbit around the nucleus of an atom. Then what determines the typical atomic size ? Why is an atom not, say, thousand times bigger than its typical size ? The question had greatly puzzled Bohr before he arrived at his famous model of the atom that you have learnt in the text. To simulate what he might well have done before his discovery, let us play as follows with the basic constants of nature and see if we can get a quantity with the dimensions of length that is roughly equal to the known size of an atom (~ 1010m).
a) Construct a quantity with the dimensions of length from the fundamental constants e, me, and c. Determine its numerical value.
b) You will find that the length obtained in (a) is many orders of magnitude smaller than the atomic dimensions. Further, it involves c. But energies of atoms are mostly in non- relativistic domain where c is not expected to play any role. This is what may have suggested Bohr to discard c and look for ‘something else’ to get the right atomic size. Now, the ‘Planck’s constant h had already made its appearance elsewhere. Bohr’s great insight lay in recognising that h, me, and e will yield the right atomic size. Construct a quantity with the dimension of length from h, me, and e and confirm that its numerical value has indeed the correct order of magnitude.
Answer:
a) Using fundamental constants e, me and c, we construct a quantity which has the dimensions of length. This quantity is \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{c}^2}\right)\)
Now \(\frac{\mathrm{e}^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{c}^2}\) = \(\frac{\left(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)^2 \times 9 \times 10^9}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}\left(3 \times 10^8\right)^2}\) = 2.82 × 10-15m
This is of the order of atom sizes.

b) However when we drop c and use hc, me and e to construct a quantity which has dimensions of length the quantity we obtain is
\(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_0(\mathrm{~h} / 2 \pi)}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{e}^2}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 13 Atoms 21
= 0.53 × 10-10m
This is of the order of atom sizes.

Question 15.
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about -3.4 eV
a) What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state ?
b) What is the potential energy of the electron in this state ?
c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is changed ?
Answer:
We know kinetic energy of electron = \(\frac{K Z e^2}{2 r}\)
and P.E of electron = \(\frac{-\mathrm{KZe}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
P.E. = -2 (kinetic energy).
In this calculation electric potential and hence potential energy is zero at infinity.
Total energy = PE + KE = -2KE + KE = -KE
a) In the first excited state total energy = -3.4eV
∴ K.E = -(-3.4eV) = + 3.4 eV
b) P. E of electron in this first excited state = -2KE = -2 × 3.4 = -6.8eV.
c) If zero of potential energy is changed, KE does not change and continues to be +3.4 eV However, the P.E. and total energy of the state would change with the choice of zero of potential energy.

Question 16.
If Bohr’s quantisation postulate (angular momentum = nh/2π) is a basic law of nature, it should be equally valid for the case of planetary motion also. Why then do we never speak of quantisation of orbits of planets around the sun ?
Answer:
Bohr’s quantisation postulate is in terms of Plank’s constant (h), But angular momenta associated with planetary motion are = 1070 h (for earth). In terms of Bohr’s quantisation posulate this will correspond to n = 107. For such large values of n the differences in successive energies and angular momenta of the quantised levels are so small, that the levels can be considered as continuous and not discrete.

Question 17.
Obtain the first Bohr’s radius and the ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom [i.e., an atom in which a negatively charged muon (µ) of mass about 207me orbits around a proton].
Answer:
A muonic hydrogen is the atom in which a negatively charged muon of mass about 207 me revolves around a proton.
In Bohr’s atom model as, r ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~m}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{r}_\mu}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{m}_\mu}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{207 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{1}{207}\)
Here re is radius of first orbit of electron in hydrogen atom = 0.53A = 0.53 × 10-10m.
rm = \(\frac{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{e}}}{207}\) = \(\frac{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}{207}\) = 2.56 × 10-13m
Again in Bohr’s atomic model
E ∝ m
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_\mu}{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_\mu}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\) = \(\frac{207 \mathrm{~m}_{\mathrm{e}}}{\mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{e}}}\), Eμ = 207Ee
As ground state energy of electron in hydrogen atom is Ee = -13.6 eV
Eμ = 207(-13.6)eV = -2815.2eV
= -2.8152KeV.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 12th Lesson Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are “cathode rays”?
Answer:
Cathode rays are streams of fast-moving electrons or negatively charged particles.

Question 2.
What important fact did Millikan’s experiment establish?
Answer:
Millikan’s experiment established that electric charge is quantized. That means the charge on anybody (oil drop) is always an integral multiple of the charge of an electron, i.e., Q = ne.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 3.
What is “work function” ? (A.P. Mar. ’19 & T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
The minimum energy required to liberate an electron from photometal surface is called work function, ϕ0.

Question 4.
What is “photoelectric effect” ?
Answer:
When light of sufficient energy is incident on the photometal surface electrons are emitted. This phenomenon is called photoelectric effect.

Question 5.
Give examples of “photosensitive substances”. Why are they called so ?
Answer:
Examples of photosensitive substances are Li, Na, K, Rb and Cs etc.
The work function of alkali metals is very low. Even the ordinary visible light, alkali metals can produce photoelectric emission. Hence they are called photosensitive substances.

Question 6.
Write down Einstein’s photoelectric equation. (A.P. Mar. ’15)
Answer:
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by Kmax = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2\) = hυ – ϕ0.

Question 7.
Write down de-Broglie’s relation and explain the terms there in. (A.P. & T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
The de-Broglie wave length (λ) associated with a moving particle is related to its momentum (p) is λ = \(\frac{h}{p}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\), where h is planck’s constant.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 8.
State Heisenberg’s Uncertainly Principle. (A.P. Mar. ’19) (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
Uncertainity principle states that “it is impossible to measure both position (Δx) and momentum of an electron (Δp) [or any other particle] at the same time exactly”, i.e., Δx . Δp ≈ h where Δx is uncertainty in the specification of position and Δp is uncertainty in the specification of momentum.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of
(i) intensity of light
(ii) potential on photoelectric current ?
Answer:
(i) Effect of intensity of light on photoelectric current:

1) When the intensity (I) of incident light, with frequency greater than the threshold frequency (υ > υ0) is increased then the number of photoelectrons emitted increases i.e. the value of photoelectric current (i) increases, ie. i ∝ I.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 10

ii) The effect of potential on photoelectric current:

  1. On increasing the positive potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current increases. At a particular positive potential, the photocurrent becomes maximum which is known as saturated current.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 11
  2. On increasing the value of negative potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current gradually goes on decreasing. At a particular negative potential the value of photoelectric current becomes zero. This is known as stopping potential.
  3. Stopping potential does not depend on the intensity of incident light. On increasing intensity, the value of saturated current increases, whereas the stopping potential remains unchanged.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment to study the effect of frequency of incident radiation on ‘stopping potential’.
Answer:
Experimental study of the effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential:

  1. The experimental set up is shown in fig.
  2. Monochromatic light of sufficient energy (E = hv) from source ‘s’ is incident on photosensitive plate ‘C’ (emitter), electrons are emitted by it.
  3. The electrons are collected by the plate A (collector), by the electric field created by the battery.
  4. The polarity of the plates C and A can be reversed by a commutator.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 12
  5. For a particular frequency of incident radiation, the minimum negative (retarding) potential V0 given to the plate A for which the photo current stops or becomes zero is called stopping potential.
  6. The experiment is repeated with different frequencies, and their different stopping potential are measured with voltmeter.
  7. From graph, we note that
    1. The values of stopping potentials are different for different frequencies.
    2. The value of stopping potential is more negative for radiation of higher incident frequency.
    3. The value of saturation current depends on the intensity of incident radiation but it is independent of the frequency of the incident radiation.
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13

Question 3.
Summarise the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
We can summarise the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation as follows.

  1. In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons.
  2. Each photon has energy E\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
    =\mathrm{hv} \\
    =\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}
    \end{array}\right]\) and momentum P \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
    =\frac{h v}{c} \\
    =\frac{h}{\lambda}
    \end{array}\right]\) and speed c, the speed of light.
  3. By increasing the intensity of light of given wave length, there is only an increase in the number of photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon having the same energy. Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity of radiation.
  4. Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic field. This shows that photons are electrically neutral.
  5. In a photon-particle collision (such as photo-electron collision), the energy and momentum
    are conserved. However the number of photons may not be conserved in a collision. One photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be created.
  6. The rest mass of photon is zero. According to theory of relativity, the mass of moving particle is given by m = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\) where v is velocity of particle and c is velocity of light.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 4.
What is the deBroglie wavelength of a ball of mass 0.12 Kg moving with a speed of 20 ms-1 ? What can we infer from this result ?
Answer:
Given, m = 0.12 kg; υ = 20 m/s; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s;
λ = \(\frac{h}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.12 \times 20}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{2.4}\) ∴ λ = 2.762 × 10-34 m = 2762 × 10-21 A.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How did Einstein’s photoelectric equation explain the effect of intensity and potential on photoelectric current ? How did this equation account for the effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential ? (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Einstein postulated that a beam of light consists of small energy packets called photons or quanta.
  2. The energy of photon is E = hv. Where ‘h’ is Planck’s constant; v is frequency of incident light (or radiation).
  3. If the absorbed energy of photon is greater than the work function (ϕ0 = hυ0), the electron is emitted with maximum kinetic energy i.e., kmax = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{\max }^2\) = eV0 = hv – ϕ0. This equation is known as Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
  4. Effect of intensity of light on photoelectric current:
    When the intensity (I) of incident light, with frequency greater thanthe threshold frequency (υ > υ0) is increased then the number of photoelectrons emitted decreases i.e. the value of photoelectric current (i) increases, le. i ∝ I.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 14
  5. The effect of potential on photoelectric current:
    1. On increasing the positive potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current increases. At a particular positive potential, the photocurrent becomes maximum which is known as saturated current.
    2. On increasing the value of negative potential on collecting electrode, the photoelectric current gradually goes on decreasing. At a particular negative potential the value of photoelectric current becomes zero. This is known as stopping potential (v0).
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 15
    3. Stopping potential does not depend on the intensity of incident light. On increasing intensity, the value of saturated current increases, whereas the stopping potential remains unchanged.
  6. The effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential:
    On increasing the frequency of incident light, the value of stopping potential goes on increasing gradually as shown in fig. That means kmax increases eV0 also increases.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 16
  7. From the graph, we note that
    1. For a given photosensitive metal, the cut off potential (v0) varies linearly with the frequency of the incident radiation.
    2. For a given photosensitive metal, there is a certain minimum cut off frequency v0 (called threshold frequency) for which the stopping potential is zero.
      AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 17
  8. From the graph we note that
    1. The value of cut-off potential is different for radiation of different frequency.
    2. The value of stopping potential is more negative for radiation of higher incident frequency.
  9. From above experiments, it is found that, if the incident radiation is of higher frequency than that of threshold frequency, the photoelectric emission is possible.

Question 2.
Describe the Davisson and Germer experiment. What did this experiment conclusively prove?
Answer:
Davisson and Germer experiment:

  1. The experimental arrangement is schematically shown in fig.
  2. Electrons from a filament F are rendered into a fine beam by applying a positive potential to the cylinder A.
  3. A fine narrow beam of electrons is incident on the nickel crystal. The electrons are scattered in all directions by the atoms of the crystal.
  4. The intensity of the electron beam scattered in a given direction, is measured by the electron detector (collector). The detector can be moved on a circular scale and is connected to a sensitive galvanometer, which records the current.
  5. The deflection of the galvanometer is proportional to the intensity of the electron beam entering collector.
  6. The apparatus is enclosed in an evacuated chamber.
  7. The experiment was performed by varying the accelerating voltage from 44 V to 68 V. It is found that the intensity is maximum at 50° for a critical energy of 54 V
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 18
  8. For θ = 50°, the glancing angle, ϕ (angle between the scattered beam of electron with the plane of atoms of the crystal) for electron beam will be given by
    ϕ + θ + ϕ = 180°
    ϕ = \(\frac{1}{2}\left[180^{\circ}-50^{\circ}\right]\) = 65°
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 19
  9. According to Bragg’s law for first order diffraction maxima (n = 1), we have 2 d sin ϕ = 1 × λ ⇒ λ = 2 × 0.91 × sin 65° = 1.65A = 0.165 nm. (experimentally).
    [∵ for Nickel crystal interatomic separation d = 0.91 A]
  10. According to de-Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of the wave associated with electron is given by λ = AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 37
    = 1.67A = 0.167 nm, (Theoritically).
  11. The experimentally measured wavelength was found to be in confirmity with proving the existence of de-Broglie waves.

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
Find the
(a) maximum frequency, and
(b) minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons.
Solution:
Given voltage V = 30 kV = 30 × 103 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C; h = 6.63 × 10-34 j-s C = 3 × 108 m/s
a) Maximum frequency, v = \(\frac{\mathrm{eV}}{\mathrm{h}}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 30 \times 10^3}{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 7.24 × 1018 Hz

b) Minimum wavelength of X-ray, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{7.24 \times 10^{18}}\) = 0.414 × 10-10 Hz
∴ λ = 0.0414 × 10-9m = 0.0414 nm.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
(a) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,
(b) stopping potential and
(c) maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons ?
Solution:
Given ϕ0 = 2.14 eV; v = 6 × 1014 Hz
a) KEmax = hv – ϕ0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 6 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) – 2.14 ∴ KEmax = 0.35 eV

b) KEmax = eV0 ⇒ 0.35 eV = eV0 ∴ V0 = 0.35 V
c) KEmax = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\max }^2\) ⇒ \(v_{\max }^2\) = \(\frac{2 K_{\max }}{m}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 0.35 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) (∴ e = 1.6 × 10-19 C)
\(v_{\max }^2\) = 0.123 × 1012 ⇒ υmax = \(\sqrt{1230 \times 10^8}\) = 35.071 × 104 m/s ∴ υmax = 350.71 km/s.

Question 3.
The photoelectric cut-off voltage in certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted ?
Solution:
Given, V0 = 1.5 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, KEmax = eV0 = 1.6 × 10-19 × 1.5 = 2.4 × 10-19 J.

Question 4.
Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9.42 mW.
(a) Find the energy and momentum of each photon in the light beam,
(b) How many photons per second, on the average, arrive at a target irradiated by this beam ? (Assume the beam to have uniform cross-section which is less than the target area), and,
(c) How fast does a hydrogen atom have to travel in order to have the same momentum as that of the photon ?
Solution:
Given, λ = 632.8 nm = 632.8 × 10-9m; p = 9.42 mW = 9.42 × 10-3W
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 10-3 m/s

a) E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10}{632.8 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.14 × 10-19 J.
Momentum of each photon, p = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{632.8 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 1.05 × 10-27kg \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{s}}\)

b) No. of photons per second,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 20
∴ N = 3 × 1016 photons/s
c) Since, PHydrogen = Pphoton
⇒ mυ = p ⇒ υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{1.05 \times 10^{-27}}{1.66 \times 10^{-27}}\) [∴ mH = 1.66 × 10-27 kg] ∴ υ = 0.63 m/s.

Question 5.
The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2. How many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per second ? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
Solution:
Given, P = 1.388 × 103 W/m2; λ = 550 nm = 550 × 10-9 m
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; e = 3 × 108 m/s
Energy of each photon E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{550 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.616 × 10-19 J
No. of photons incident on the earths surface, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{1.388 \times 10^3}{3.66 \times 10^{-19}}\)
∴ N = 3.838 × 1021 photons/m2 – s.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 6.
In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10-15 V s. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant.
Solution:
Given, slope of graph tan θ = 4.12 × 10-15 V — s; .
e = 1.6 × 10-19 c.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 21
For slope of graph, tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
We know that hv = eV
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{h}{e}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\) = 4.12 × 10-15; h = 4.12 × 10-15 × 1.6 × 10-19 = 6.592 × 10-34 J-s

Question 7.
A 100W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is located at the centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. (a) What is the energy per photon associated with the sodium light ?
(b) At what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere ?
Solution:
Given, P = 100 W; λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10,sup>-9 m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – S; c = 3 × 108 m/s
a) E = \(\frac{\text { hc }}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{589 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 3.38 × 10-19J = \(\frac{3.38 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 2.11 eV.
b) No. of photons delivered per second, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{100}{3.38 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 3 × 1020 photons/s

Question 8.
The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission.
Solution:
Given, v0 = 3.3 × 1014 Hz; v = 8.2 × 1014 Hz; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; KE = eV0 = hv – hv0
V0 = \(\frac{h\left(v-v_0\right)}{e}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times(8.2-3.3) \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 10^{14} \times 4.9}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ V0 = 2.03 V.

Question 9.
The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm ?
Solution:
Given, ϕ0 = 4.2 eV = 4.2 × 1.6 × 10-19 J = 6.72 × 10~1S J
λ = 330 nm = 330 × 10-9 m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s ⇒ c = 3 × 108 m/s
E = \(\frac{\text { hc }}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{330 \times 10^{-9}}\) ∴ E = 6.027 × 10-19J
As E < ϕ0, no photoelectric emission takes place.

Question 10.
Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed of 6.0 × 105 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold frequency for photoemission of electrons ?
Solution:
Given, v = 7.21 × 1014 Hz; m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg; υmax = 6 × 105 m/s
KEmax = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}_{\max }^2\) = hv – hv0 = h(v – v0)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 22

Question 11.
Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the photoelectric effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the emitter is made. .
Solution:
Given, λ = 488 nm = 488 × 10-9 m; V0 = 0.38 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s
c = 3 × 108 m/s ⇒ KE = eV0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – ϕ ⇒ 1.6 × 10-19 × 0.38 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{488 \times 10^{-9}}\) – ϕ0
6.08 × 10-20 = 40.75 × 10-20 – ϕ0 ⇒ (40.75 – 6.08) × 10-20 = 34.67 × 10-20 J
= \(\frac{34.67 \times 10^{-20}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\) ∴ ϕ0 = 2.17 eV.

Question 12.
Calculate the
(a) momentum, and
(b) de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V
Solution:
Given, V = 56 V; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c; m = 9 × 10-31 kg
a) As KE = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\) ⇒ 2m (KE) = P2 ⇒ P = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~m}(\mathrm{KE})}\) = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~m} \mathrm{eV}}\) [∵ KE = eV]
∴ P = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-31} \times 56}\) = 4.02 × 10-24 kg – m/s
b) λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{V}}\) A = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{56}}\) A = 0.164 × 10-9m ∴ λ = 0.164 nm.

Question 13.
What is the
(a) momentum,
(b) speed, and
(c) de Brogue wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Solution:
Given, KE = 120 eV; m = 9.1 × 10-3 kg; e = 1.6 × 10-19 c
a) P = \(\sqrt{2 m(K E)}\) = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times\left(120 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\right)}\) ∴ P = 5.91 × 10-24 kg – m/s
b) υ = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 6.5 × 106 m/s .
c) λ = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{\mathrm{V}}}\) A = \(\frac{12.27}{\sqrt{120}}\) A = 0.112 × 10-9 m ∴ λ = 0.112 nm.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 14.
The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm Find the kinetic energy at which (a) an electron, and (b) a neutron, and would have the same de Brogue wavelength.
Solution:
Given, λ = 589 mn = 589 × 10-9 m; me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg.
mn = 1.67 × 10-27 kg; h = 6.62 × 10-34 J – s.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 23

Question 15.
What is the de Brogue wavelength of
(a) a bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the speed of 1.0 km/s
(b) a ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and
(c) a dust particle of mass 1.0 × 10-9 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?
Solution:
a) Given, for bullet m = 0.040 kg and o = 1000 m/s = 103 m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.040 \times 10^3}\) = 1.66 × 10-35m
b)Given, for ball m = 0.060 kg and υ = 1 m/s ⇒ λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{0.060 \times 1}\) = 1.1 × 10-32 m
c) Given, for a dust particle m = 1 × 10-9 kg and υ = 2.2 m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{1 \times 10^{-9} \times 2.2}\) = 3.0 × 10-25 m.

Question 16.
An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find
(a) their momenta,
(b) the energy of the photon, and
(c) the kinetic energy of electron.
Solution:
Given, λ = 1 mm = 10-9m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-S; c = 3 × 108 m/S
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 24

Question 17.
(a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Brogue wavelength be 1.40 × 10-10 m?
(b) Also find the de Brogue wavelength of a neutron, in thermal equilibrium with matter, having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) k T at 300 K.
Solution:
(a) Given, for neutron, λ = 1.40 × 10-10 m and m = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
KE = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}^2}{2 \mathrm{~m}}\) = \(\frac{h^2}{2 \mathrm{~m} \lambda^2}\) = \(\frac{\left(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\right)^2}{2 \times\left(1.40 \times 10^{-10}\right)^2 \times 1.675 \times 10^{-27}}\) ∴ KE = 6.686 × 10-21J

b) Given, T = 300 k and K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K
KE = \(\frac{3}{2}\) KT = \(\frac{3}{2}\) × 1.38 × 10-21 × 300 = 6.21 × 10-21 J
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m(K E)}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{\sqrt{2 \times 1.675 \times 10^{-27} \times 6.21 \times 10^{-21}}}\) ∴ λ = 1.45 × 10-10m = 1.45 A

Question 18.
Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie wavelength of its quantum (photon).
Solution:
The momentum of a photon of frequency v, wavelength λ is given by p = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) ⇒ de-Broglie wavelength of photon, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{h}{p}\) = \(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{hv}}}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
Thus, the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 19.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K ? Assume that the molecule is moving with the root-mean-square speed of molecules at this temperature. (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u)
Solution:
Given, T = 300 k; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/k; m = 28.0152u = 28.0152 × 1.67 × 10-27 kg;
h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js; Mean KE of molecules \(\frac{1}{2}\) mυ2 = \(\frac{3}{2}\) KT
υ = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 \mathrm{KT}}{\mathrm{m}}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{3 \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}{28.0152 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27}}}\)
∴ υ = 516.78 m/s
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{28.0152 \times 1.66 \times 10^{-27} \times 516.78}\) = 2.75 × 10-11 m
∴ λ = 0.0275 × 10-19 m = 0.028 nm.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
(a) Estimate the speed with which electrons emitted from a heated emitter of an evacuated tube impinge on the collector maintained at a potential difference of 500 V with respect to the emitter. Ignore the small initial speeds of the electrons. The specific charge of the electron, i.e., its e/m is given to be 1.76 × 1011 C kg-1.
(b) Use the same formula you employ in (a) to obtain electron speed for an collector potential of 10 MV. Do you see what is wrong ? In what way is the formula to be modified ?
Solution:
a) Given, V = 500 V, \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg; KE = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV

b) V = 10 MV = 107 V; υ = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}} \times 2 \mathrm{~V}}\) = \(\sqrt{1.76 \times 10^{11} \times 2 \times 10^7}\) ∴ υ = 1.8762 × 109 m/s
This speed is greater than speed of light, which is not possible. As o approaches to c, then mass m = \(\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 2.
(a) A monoenergetic electron beam with electron speed of 5.20 × 106 m s-1 is subject to
a magnetic field of 1.30 × 10-4 T normal to the beam velocity. What is the radius of the circle traced by the beam, given e/m for electron equals 1.76 × 1011 C kg-1.
(b) Is the formula you employ in (a) valid for calculating radius of the path of a 20 MeV electron beam ? If not, in what way is it modified ?
[Note : Exercises 20(b) and 21(b) take you to relativistic mechanics which is beyond the scope of this book. They have been inserted here simply to emphasise the point that the formulas you use in part (a) of the exercises are not valid at very high speeds or energies. See answers at the end to know what ‘very high speed or energy’ means.]
Solution:
a) Given, υ = 5.20 × 106 m/s; B = 1.30 × 10-4 T; \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg
Since centripetal force is balanced by Force due to magnetic field, \(\frac{\mathrm{m} v^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = Bυ
[∵ (\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\)) = e υ B sin 90° = Beυ]
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 25

b) Given, E = 20 MeV = 20 × 1.6 × 10-13J; me = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
E = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\)
⇒ v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 E}{m}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 20 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-13}}{9.1 \times 10^{-32}}}\) ∴ v = 2.67 × 109 m/s

As υ > C, the formula used in (a) r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{eB}}\) is not valid for calculating the radius of path of 20 MeV electron beam because electron with such a high energy has velocity in relatistic domain i.e., comparable with the velocity of light and the mass varies with the increase in velocity but we have taken it a constant.
∴ m = \(\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\) ⇒ Thus, the modified formula will be r = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{eB}}\) = \(\left[\frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\right] \frac{v}{e B}\)

Question 3.
An electron gun with its collector at a potential of 100V fires out electrons in a spherical bulb containing hydrogen gas at low pressure (~ 10-2 mm of Hg). A magnetic field of 2.83 × 10-4 T curves the path of the electrons in a circular orbit of radius 12.0 cm. (The path can be viewed because the gas ions in the path focus the beam by attracting electrons and emitting light by electron capture; this method is known as the fine beam tube’ method.) Determine e/m from the data.
Solution:
Given, V = 100 V; B = 2.83 × 10-4 T; m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C;
r = 12 cm = 0.12m; KE = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV ⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.1 × 10-31 × υ2 = 1.6 × 10-19 × 100
υ2 = \(\frac{2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-17}}{9.1 \times 10^{-3.1}}\) = 3.516 × 1013 ∴ υ = \(\sqrt{3.516 \times 10^{13}}\) = 5.93 × 106 m/s
Specific charge of electron, \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = \(\frac{v}{r B}\) [∵ \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^2}{\mathrm{r}}\) = Beυ] = \(\frac{5.93 \times 10^6}{2.83 \times 10^{-4} \times 0.12}\)
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}}\) = 1.74 × 1011 C/kg.

Question 4.
(a) An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with its short wavelength end at 0.45 A. What is the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation ?
(b) From your answer to (a), guess what order of accelerating voltage (for electrons) is required in such a tube ?
Solution:
a) Given, λ = 0.45 A = 0.45 × 10-10 m; E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{0.45 \times 10^{-10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV
∴ E = 27.6 × 103 eV = 27.6 KeV

b) In X-ray tube, accelerating voltage provides the energy to the electrons which produce X-rays. For getting X-rays, photons of 27.51 KeV is required that the incident electrons must posess kinetic energy of 27.61 KeV.
Energy = eV = E; eV = 27.6 KeV; V = 27.6 KV .
So, the order of accelerating voltage is 30 KV.

Question 5.
In an accelerator experiment on high-energy collisions of electrons with positrons, a certain event is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron pair of total energy 10.2 BeV into two γ-rays of equal energy. What is the wavelength associated with each γ-ray ? (1 BeV = 109 eV)
Solution:
Given, energy of 2 γ-rays, 2E = 10.2 BeV
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 27
⇒ 2\(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = 10.2 BeV [∵ E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)] ⇒ λ = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{hc}}{10.2 \mathrm{BeV}}\)
Here h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-S; c = 3 × 108m/s, 1 BeV = 109 eV = 109 × 1.6 × 10-19J
⇒ λ = \(\frac{2 \times 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{10.2 \times 10^9 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ λ = 2.436 × 10-16 m

Question 6.
Estimating the following two numbers should bé interesting. The first number will tell you why radio engineers do not need to worry much about photons ! The second number tells you why our eye can never count photons’, even in barely detectable light.
(a) The number of photons emitted per second by a Medium wave transmitter of 10 kW power, emitting radiowaves of wavelength 500 m.
(b) The number of photons entering the pupil of our eye per second corresponding to the minimum intensity of white light that we humans can perceive (~ 10-10 W m-2). Take the area of the pupil to be about 0.4 cm2, and the average frequency of white light to be about 6 × 1014 Hz.
Solution:
a) Given, P = 10kW = 10 × 103 W; λ = 500m; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s; C = 3 × 108
The no. of photons emitted per second, N = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{E}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{p} \lambda}{\mathrm{hc}}\) = \(\frac{10 \times 10^3 \times 500}{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}\)
∴ N = 2.51 × 1031 photons/s

b) Given, v = 6 × 10-4 Hz; I = \(\frac{E}{A-t}\) = 10-10 W/m2; Area of pupil, A = 0.4 cm2 = 0.4 × 10-4 m2.
Total energy falling on pupil in unit time, E’ = IA = 10-10 × 0.4 × 10-4 ∴ E’ = 4 × 10-155 J/s
Energy of each photon, E” = hv = 6.63 × 10-34 × 6 × 1014 = 3.978 × 10-19 J
No. of photons per second, N = \(\frac{E^{\prime}}{E^{\prime \prime}}\) = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-15}}{3.978 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 1.206 × 104 photons/s
As this number is not so large a: in part (a), so it is large enough for us never to sense the individual photons by our eye.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 7.
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 A from a 1oo W mercury source irradiates a photo cell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is -1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. How would the photo-cell respond to a high intensity (-105 W m-2) red light of wavelength 6328 A produced by a He-Ne laser?
Solution:
Given, for UV light, λ = 2271A = 2271 × 10-10 m
V0 = 1.3 V; P = 100W; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 108 m/s
From Einstein’s equation E = KE + ϕ0, hυ = eV0 + ϕ0
ϕ0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – eV0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{2271 \times 10^{-10}}\) – 1.6 × 10-19 × 1.3 = 8.758 × 10-19 – 2.08 × 10-19
ϕ0 = \(\frac{6.678 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV = 4.17 eV ∴ ϕ0 = 4.2 eV
Given, for red light, λ = 6328Å = 6328 × 10-10m
E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6328 \times 10^{-10}}\) = \(\frac{3.143 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV ∴ E = 1.96 eV
Here, E < ϕ0, So, the photocell will not respond to this red light. (It is independent of intensity).

Question 8.
Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm (1 nm = 10-9 m) from a neon, lamp irradiates photosensitive material made of caesium on tungsten. The stopping voltage is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source and its 427.2 nm line irradiates the same photo-cell. Predict the new stopping voltage.
Solution:
Given, for Neon X = 640.2 nm = 640.2 × 10-9 m ; V0 = 0.54 V
h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s; c = 3 × 108 m/s; e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
ϕ = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – eV0 = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{640.2 \times 10^{-9}}\) – 1.6 × 10-19 × 0.54
= 3.1 × 10-19 – 0.864 × 10-19 = 2.236 × 10-19J = \(\frac{2.236 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV ∴ ϕ = 1.4 eV
For iron; given ϕ0 = 1.4eV; λ = 427.2 nm = 427.2 × 10-9 m
Let V0 be the new stopping potential, eV0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) – ϕ0
eV0’ = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{427.2 \times 10^{-9} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) – 1.4 = 1.51 eV. Required stopping potential V0‘ = 1.51 V.

Question 9.
A mercury lamp is a convenient source for studying frequency dependence of photoelectric emission, since it gives a number of spectral lines ranging from the UV to the red end of the visible spectrum. In our experiment with rubidium photo-cell, the following lines from a mercury source were used:
λ1 = 3650Å, λ2 = 4047Å, λ3 = 4358Å, λ4 = 5461 Å, λ5 = 6907Å,
The stopping voltages, respectively, were measured to be:
V01 = 1.28 V, V02 = 0.95 V, V03 = 0.74 V, V04 = 0.16 V, V05 = 0V.
Determine the value of Plancks constant h, the threshold frequency and work function
for the material.
[Note : You will notice that, to get h from the data, you will need to know e(which you can take to be 1.6 × 10-19 C). Experiments of this kind on Na, Li, K, etc. were performed by Millikan, who, using his own value of e (from the oil-drop experiment) confirmed Einstein’s photoelectric equation and at the same time gave an independent estimate of the value of h.]
Solution:
Given λ1 = 3650 A = 3650 × 10-10 m
λ2 = 4047 A = 4047 × 10-10 m
λ3 = 4358 A = 4358 × 10-10 m
λ4 = 5461 A = 5461 × 10-10 m
λ5 = 6907 A = 6907 × 10-10 m
V01 = 1.28V, V02 = 0.95, V03 = 0.74 V; V05 = 0

a) v1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_1}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{3650 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 8.219 × 1014 Hz
v2 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_2}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{4047 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 7.412 × 1014 Hz
v3 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_3}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{4358 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 6.884 × 1014 Hz
v4 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_4}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{5461 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 5.493 × 1014 Hz
v5 = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\lambda_5}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{6907 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 4.343 × 1014 Hz
As the graph between V0 and frequency v is a straight line.
The slope of this graph gives the values of \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\)
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 28
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{e}}\) = \(\frac{V_{01}-V_{04}}{v_1-v_4}\) = \(\frac{1.28-0.16}{(8.219-5.493) \times 10^{14}}\)
h = \(\frac{1.12 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{2.726 \times 10^{14}}\) = 6.674 × 10-34 J . s

b) ϕ0 = hv0 = 6.574 × 10-34 × 5 × 1014
= 32.870 × 10-20 J = \(\frac{32.870 \times 10^{-20}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
= 2.05 eV

Question 10.
The work function for the following metals is given:
Na : 2.75 eV; K: 2.30 eV; Mo : 4.17 eV; Ni : 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not give photoelectric emission for a radiation of wavelength 3300 A from a He-Cd laser placed 1 m away from the photocell ? What happens if the laser is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away?
Solution:
Given λ = 3300 A = 3300 × 10-10 m
Energy of incident photon, E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{3300 \times 10^{-10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) ∴ E = 3.75 eV
Here Na, K has lesser work function than 3.75 eV. So, they produce photoelectric effect. If the laser is brought nearer then only the intensity change or the number of photoelctrons change.

Question 11.
Light of intensity 10-5 W m-2 falls on a sodium photo-cell of surface area 2 cm2. Assuming that the top 5 layers of sodium absorb the incident energy, estimate time required for photoelectric emission in the wave-picture of radiation. The work function for the metal is given to be about 2 eV. What is the implication of your answer?
Solution:
Given, I = 10-5 W/m2; A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10-4 m2; ϕ0 = 2eV
Let t be the time.
The effective atomic area of Na = 10-20 m2 and it contains one conduction electron per
atom.
No. of conduction electrons m five layers
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 29
We know that sodium has one free electron (or conduction electron) per atom.
Incident power on the surface area of photocell
= Incident intensity × Area on the surface area of photo cell
= 10-5 × 2 × 10-4 = 2 × 10-9 W.
The electron present in all the 5 layers of sodium will share the incident energy equally.
Energy absorbed per second per electron, E = AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 30
= \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-9}}{10^{17}}\) = 2 × 10-26 W.
Time required for emission by each electron,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 31 which is about 0.5 yr.
The answer obtained implies that the time of emission of electron is very large and is not agreement with the observed time of emission. There is no time lag between the incidence of light and the emission of photoelectron.
Thus, it is implied that the wave theory cannot be applied in this experiment.

Question 12.
Crystal diffraction experiments can be performed using X-rays, or electrons accelerated through appropriate voltage. Which probe has greater energy? (For quantitative. comparison. take the wavelength of the probe equal to 1 A, which is of the order of interatomic spacing in the lattice) (me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg).
Solution:
Given λ = 1 A = 10-10 m ; me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg; h = 6.63 × 10-34 J – s; c = 3 × 108 m/s
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 32
Thus, for the same wavelength a X-ray photon has much KE than an electron.

Question 13.
(a) Obtain the de Brogue wavelength of a neutron of kinetic energy 150 eV. As you have seen in Exercise 31, an electron beam of this energy is suitable for crystal diffraction experiments. Would a neutron beam of the same energy be equally suitable ? Explain. (mn = 1.675 × 10-27 kg)
(b) Obtain the de Brogue wavelength associated with thermal neutrons at room temperature (27 °C). Hence explain why a fast neutron beam needs to be thermalised with the environment before it can be used for neutron diffráction experiments.
Solution:
a) Given, KE = 150 eV; m = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 33
The interatomic spacing is 10-10 m, which is greater than this wavelength. So, neutron beam of 150 eV is not suitable for diffraction experiment.

b) T = t + 273 = 27 + 273 = 300 K; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/mol/K
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 34
This wavelength is order of interatomic spacing. So, the neutron beam first thermalised and then used for diffraction.

Question 14.
An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV. Determine the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. If other factors (such as numerical aperture, etc.) are taken to be roughly the same, how does the resolving power of an electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope which uses yellow light?
Solution:
Given, V = 50 KV s 50000 V
λ =
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 38
= 0.055 A ⇒ λ = 5.5 × 10-12 m; For yellow light (λ) = 5.9 × 10-7m
As resolving power (RP) ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 35

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Question 15.
The wavelength of a probe is roughly a measure of the size of a structure that it can probe in some detail. The quark structure of protons and neutrons appears at the minute length-scale of 10-15 m or less. This structure was first probed in early 1970’s using high energy electron beams produced by a linear accelerator at Stanford, USA. Guess what might have been the order of energy of these electron beams. (Rest mass energy of electron = 0.5 11 MeV.)
Solution:
Given λ = 10-15 m; E = 0.5 11 MeV; P = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{10^{-15}}\) = 6.63 × 10-19 kgm/s
Rest mass energy; E0 = m0c2 = 0.511 MeV = 0.511 × 1.6 × 10-13 T.
From relativistic theory, E2 = p2c2 + \(m_0^2 c^4\)
= (3 × 108 × 6.63 × 10-19)2 + (0.511 × 10-13 × 1.6)2 = 9 × (6.63)2 × 10-22.
As the rest mass energy is negligible ∴ Energy E = \(\sqrt{p^2 c^2}\) = pc = 6.63 × 10-19 × 3 × 108
= \(\frac{1.989 \times 10^{-10}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)eV = 1.24 × 109 eV = 1.24 BeV
Thus, to energies the electron beam, the energy should be of the order of BeV.

Question 16.
Find the typical de Brogue wavelength associated with a He atom in helium gas at room temperature (27 °C) and 1 atm pressure; and compare It with the mean separation between two atoms under these conditions.
Solution:
Given T = 27 + 273 = 300 K; K = 1.38 × 10-23 J/mol/K; p = 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 12 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 36
We can see that the wave length with mean separation r, it can be observed (r >> λ) that separation is larger than wave length.

Question 17.
Compute the typical de Broglie wavelength of an electron in a metal at 27 °C and compare it with the mean separation between two electrons in a metal which is given to be about 2 × 10-10 m.
[Note : Exercise 35 and 36 reveal that while the wave-packets associated with gaseous molecules under ordinary conditions are non-overlapping, the electron wave-packets in a metal strongly overlap with one another. This suggests that whereas molecules in an ordinary gas can be distinguished apart, electrons in a metal cannot be distinguished apart from one another. This indistinguishibility has many fundamental implications which you will explore in more advanced Physics courses.]
Solution:
Given, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K; r = 2 × 10-10m
Momentum, P = \(\sqrt{3 \mathrm{mKT}}\) = \(\sqrt{3 \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}\) = 1.06 × 10-25 kg-m/s
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{1.06 \times 10^{-25}}\) = 62.6 × 10-10m; Mean separation, r = 2 × 10-10 m
\(\frac{\lambda}{r}\) = \(\frac{62.6 \times 10^{-10}}{2 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 31.3
We can see that de-Broglie wavelength is much greater than the electron separation.

Question 18.
Answer the following questions :
(a) Quarks inside protons and neutrons are thought to carry fractional charges [(+2/3)e; (-1/3)e]. Why do they not show up in Millikan’s oil-drop experiment ?
Solution:
The quarks have fractional charges. These quarks are bound by forces. These forces become stronger when the quarks are tried to be pulled apart. That is why, the quarks always remain’ together. It is due to this reason that tough fractional charges exists in nature but the observable charges are always integral multiple of charge of electron.

(b) What is so special about the combination e/m ? Why do we not simply talk of e and m separately ?
Solution:
The motion.of electron in electric and magnetic fields are governed by these two equations.
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}^2\) = eV or Beυ = \(\frac{m v^2}{\mathrm{r}}\)
In these equations, e and m both are together i.e. there is no equation in which e or m are alone. So, we always take e/m.

(c) Why should gases be insulators at ordinary pressures and start conducting at very low pressures ?
Solution:
At ordinary pressure, only very few positive ions and electrons are produced by the ionisation of gas molecules. They are not able to reach the respective electrodes and becomes insulators. At low pressure, density decreases and the mean free path becomes large. So, at high voltage, they acquire sufficient amount of energy and they collide with molecules for further ionisation. Due to this, the number of ions in a gas increases and it becomes a conductor.

(d) Every metal has a definite work function. Why do all photoelectrons not come out with the same energy if incident radiation is monochromatic ? Why is there an energy distribution of photoelectrons ?
Solution:
Because all the electrons in the metal do not belong to same level but they occupy a continuous band of levels, therefore for the given incident radiation, electrons come out from different levels with different energies.

(e) The energy and momentum of an electron are related to the frequency and wavelength of the associated matter wave by the relations :
E = h v, p = \(\frac{\mathbf{h}}{\lambda}\)
But while the value of λ is physically significant, the value of v (and therefore, the value of the phase speed v λ) has no physical significance. Why ?
Solution:
As λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{p}}\) = p = \(\frac{h}{\lambda}\) ⇒ E = hv = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
Energy of moving particle E’ = \(\frac{p^2}{2 m}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\left(\frac{h}{\lambda}\right)^2}{m}\) = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{h^2}{\lambda^2 \mathrm{~m}}\). For the relation of E and p, we note that there is a physical significance of λ but not for frequency v.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Andhra Pradesh BIEAP AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Electromagnetic Waves Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material 11th Lesson Electromagnetic Waves

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the average wavelength of X-rays? (A.P. Mar. ’16 )
Answer:
The wavelength range of X-rays is from 10-8m(10nm) to 10-13 m (10-4 nm).
Average wavelength of X – rays = \(\frac{10+0.0001}{2}\) = 5.00005nm.

Question 2.
Give anyone use of infrared rays. (T.S. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the Earth warm.
  2. Infrared lamps are used in physical therapy.
  3. Infrared detectors are used in Earth Satellites.
  4. These are used in taking photographs during conditions of fog, smoke, etc.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.
If the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is doubled, what happens to the energy of photon ? (T.S. Mar. ’16)
Answer:
Photon energy (E) = hv = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}\)
E ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
Given λ1 = λ, λ2 = 2λ, E1 = E
\(\frac{\mathrm{E}_1}{\mathrm{E}_2}\) = \(\frac{\lambda_2}{\lambda_1}\)
\(\frac{E}{\mathrm{E}_2}\) = \(\frac{2 \lambda}{\lambda}\)
E2 = E/2
∴ The energy of photon reduces to half of its initial value.

Question 4.
What is the principle of production of electromagnetic waves ?
Answer:
If the charge is accelerated both the magnetic field and electric field will change with space and time, then electromagnetic waves are produced.

Question 5.
What is the ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum ?
Answer:
The ratio of speed of infrared rays and ultraviolet rays in vacuum is 1 : 1.
All electromagnetic waves travel with same speed 3 × 108 m /s in vacuum.

Question 6.
What is the relation between the amplitudes of the electric and magnetic fields in free space for an electromagnetic wave ?
Answer:
E0 = CB0
Where E0 = Amplitude of electric field.
B0 = Amplitude of magnetic field.
C = velocity of light.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 7.
What are the applications of microwaves ? (T.S. Mar. ’15)
Answer:

  1. Microwaves are used in Radars.
  2. Microwaves are used for cooking purposes.
  3. A radar using microwave can help in detecting the speed of automobile while in motion.

Question 8.
Microwaves are used in Radars, why ? (Mar. ’14)
Answer:
As microwaves are of smaller wavelengths, hence they can be transmitted as a beam signal in a particular direction. Microwaves do not bend around the comers of any obstacle coming in their path.

Question 9.
Give two uses of infrared rays. (A.P. Mar. ’19)
Answer:

  1. Infrared rays are used for producing dehydrated fruits.
  2. They are used in the secret writings on the ancient walls.
  3. They are used in green houses to keep the plants warm.

Question 10.
The charging current for a capacitor is 0.6 A. What is the displacement current across its plates?
Answer:
i = charging current for a capacitor = 0.6 A
i = id = \(\varepsilon_0 \frac{\mathrm{d} \phi_{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
∴ i = i = id = 0.6A
∴ Displacement current (id) = 0.6 A.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What does an electromagnetic wave consists of ? On what factors does its velocity in vacuum depend ?
Answer:
Maxwell concluded that the variation in electric and magnetic field vectors perpendicular to each other leads to the production of electromagnetic waves in space. They can travel in space even without any material medium. These waves are called electromagnetic waves.

According to Maxwell, electromagnetic waves are those waves in which there are sinusoidal variation of electric and magnetic field vectors at right angles to each other as well as at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Thus electomagnetic waves have transverse nature.

Electric field Ex = E0 Sin (kz – ωt)
Magnetic field By = B0 sin (kz – ωt)
Where K is propagation constant (K = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\))
The velocity of electromagnetic waves C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}\)

Velocity of E.M waves depends on

  1. Permeability in free space (μ0).
  2. Permittivity in free space (ε0).

Velocity of e.m waves is 3 × 108 m / s.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.
What is Greenhouse effect and its contribution towards the surface temperature of earth ?
Answer:
Green house effect: Temperature of the earth increases due to the radiation emitted by the earth is trapped by atmospheric gases like CO2, CH4, N2, Chlorofluoro carbons etc is called green house effect.

  1. Radiation from the sun enters the atmosphere and heat the objects on the earth. These heated objects emit infrared rays.
  2. These rays are reflected back to Earth’s surface and trapped in the Earth’s atmosphere. Due to this temperature of the earth increases.
  3. The layers of carbon dioxide (CO2) and low lying clouds prevent infrared rays to escape Earth’s atmosphere.
  4. Since day-by-day the amount of carbondioxide in the atmosphere increases, more infrared rays are entrapped in the atmosphere.
  5. Hence the temperature of the Earth’s surface increases day by day.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the brief history of discovery of knowledge of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:

  1. Faraday from his experimental study of electromagnetic induction magnetic field changing with time, gives rise to an electric field.
  2. Maxwell in 1865 from his theoritical study concluded that, an electric field changing with time gives rise to magnetic field.
  3. It is a consequence of the displacement current being a source of magnetic field.
  4. It means a change in electric (or) magnetic field with time produces the other field.
  5. Maxwell concluded that the variation in electric and magnetic field vectors perpendicular to each other leads to the production of electromagnetic waves in space.
  6. These electromagnetic waves travel in space without any material medium.
  7. Both electric and magnetic fields vary with time and space and have the same frequency.
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 1
  8. The electric field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are vibrating along y and z axis and propagation of electromagnetic waves along x – axis.
  9. Maxwell found that the electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum with a speed is given by
    AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 2
    Where μ0 = 4π × 10-7 H/m = permeability in free space.
    ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 c2 N-1 m-2 = permittivity in free space.
  10. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium is given by v = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
  11. Maxwell also concluded that electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
  12. In 1888 Hertz demonstrated experimentally the production and detection of E.M waves using spark oscillator.
  13. In 1895 Jagadish Chandra Bose was able to produce E.M waves of wavelength 5m.m to 25 m.m.
  14. 1899 Marconi was the first to establish a wireless communication at a distance of about 50 km.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.
State six characteristics of electromagnetic waves. What is Greenhouse effect ?
Answer:
Characteristics (or) properties of electromagnetic waves :

  1. Electromagnetic waves do not require any material medium for their propagation. They propagate in vacuum as well as in a medium.
  2. Speed of E.M. waves in free space (or) vacuum is given by
    C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}}\) = 3 × 108 m/s.
  3. Speed of E.M waves in a medium is given by
    v = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon}}\)
  4. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
    Electric field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) which constitute the E.M waves an mutually perpendicular to each other as well as perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
  5. Electromagnetic waves are self sustaining electric and magnetic field oscillations in space.
  6. Electromagnetic waves transport energy.
    Poynting vector (\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\)) = \(\frac{1}{\mu_0}(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)
  7. Relation between electric field vector E and magnetic field vector g in vacuum is given by
    C = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_0}{\mathrm{~B}_0}\)
  8. Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by magnetic and electric fields.
  9. Electromagnetic waves can be reflected, refracted, interferenced, diffracted and polarised.
  10. Electromagnetic wave follow the superposition principle.
  11. Average electric energy density of E.M wave is given by
    Uav = UE + UB
    Uav = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{E}^2\) + \(\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{B}^2}{\mu_0}\)
    Uav = 2UE = 2UB
  12. Intensity of an E.M waves depends on its average energy density.
    I = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{C} \mathrm{E}_0^2\)
  13. E.M. waves carry momentum and exert radiation pressure is given by
    P = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{A}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~A}} \frac{\mathrm{dp}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\text { Intensity (I) }}{C}\)

Green house effect:
The temperature of the Earth increases due to radiation emitted by the Earth.is trapped by atmospheric gases like CO2, CH4, N2O, chlorofluoro carbons etc is called green house effect.

Textual Exercises

Question 1.
The figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12cm, and separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in the figure). The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15A.
a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of charge of potential difference between the plates.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 3
b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor ? Explain.
Answer:
Given ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
Here, R = 12cm = 0.12m, d = 5.0mm = 5 × 10-3m, I = 0.15A
Area, A = πR2 = 3.14 × (0.12)2m2

a) We know that capacity of a parallel plate capacitor is given by
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 4
b) Displacement current is equal to conduction current i.e., 0.15 A.
c) Yes, Kirchhoffs first rule is valid at each plate of the capacitor provided. We take the current to be the sum of the conduction and displacement currents.

Question 2.
A parallel plate capacitor in the figure made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a (angular) frequency of 300 rad s-1.
a) What is the rms value of the conduction current ?
b) Is the conduction current equal to the displacement current ?
c) Determine the amplitude of B at a point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 5
Answer:
a) Irms = \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{fms}}}{X_c}\) = \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{rms}}}{\frac{1}{\omega C}}\) = Erms × ωC
∴ Irms = 230 × 300 × 100 × 10-12 = 6.9 × 10-6A = 6.9µA

b) Yes, I = Id where I is steady d.c or a.c. This is shown below
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 6

c) We know, B = \(\frac{\mu_0}{2 \pi} \times \frac{\pi}{R^2} \times I_d\)
The formula is valid even if Id is oscillating. As Id = I, therefore
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 r \mathrm{I}}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\)
If I = I0, the maximum value of current, then
Amplitude of B = max. value of B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{rI}_0}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\) = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{r} \sqrt{2} \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{rms}}}{2 \pi \mathrm{R}^2}\)
= \(\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 0.03 \times \sqrt{2} \times 6.9 \times 10^{-6}}{2 \times 3.14 \times(0.06)^2}\) = 1.63 × 10-11T.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.
What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10-10m, red light of wavelength 6800 A and radiowaves of wavelength 500m?
Answer:
The speed in vacuum is same for all the given wavelengths, which is 3 × 108 m/s.

Question 4.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels In vacuum aloñg z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors ? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?
Answer:
In electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and magnetic field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) show their variations perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave as well as perpendicular to each other. As the electromagnetic wave is travelling along z – direction, hence \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) show their variation in x – y plane.
wave length λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{v}}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}{30 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}}\) = 10m

Question 5.
A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12MHz band. What is-the corresponding wavelength band?
Answer:
λ1 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{7.5 \times 10^6}\) = 40m
λ2 = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{12 \times 10^6}\) = 25m
Thus wavelength band is 40m to 25m.

Question 6.
A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator ?
Answer:
The frequency of electromagnetic wave is same as that of oscillating cliarged particle about its equilibrium position; which is 109Hz.

Question 7.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0 = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave ?
Answer:
Here, B0 = 510nT = 510 × 10-9T
E0 = CB0 = 3 × 108 × 510 × 10-9 = 153 NC-1.

Question 8.
Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its frequency is v = 50.0 MHz.
(a) Determine. B0, ω, k, and λ.
(b) Find expressions for E and B.
Answer:
a)
B0 = \(\frac{E_0}{\mathrm{c}}\) = \(\frac{120}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 4 × 10-7 T
ω = 2πv = 2 × 3.14 × (50 × 106) = 3.14 × 108 rad/s
K = \(\frac{\omega}{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{3.14 \times 10^8}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.05 rad/m
λ = \(\frac{C}{V}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{50 \times 10^6}\) = 6.00 m

b) Expression for \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is E = E0 sin (kx – ωt)
= (120 N/c) Sin [(1.05 rad/m) x – (3.14 × 108 rad /s)t] \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)
Expression for \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) is B = B0 sin (kx – ωt)
= (4 × 10-7 T) sin [(1.05 rad/m) x – (3.14 × 108 rad/s)t] \(\hat{\mathrm{k}}\).

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 9.
The terminology of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum is given in the text. Use the formula E = hv (for energy of a quantum of radiation: photon) and obtain the photon energy in units of eV for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, in what way are the different scales of photon energies that you obtain related to the sources of electromagnetic radiation ?
Answer:
Energy of a photon of frequency v is given by E = hv joules = \(\frac{\mathrm{hv}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \mathrm{ev}}\)
Where h = 6.6 × 10-34 J. The energy of photon of different parts of electromagnetic spectrum in joules and eV are shown in table below, along with their sources of origin.
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 7
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 8

Question 10.
In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m-1.
a) What is the wavelength of the wave ?
b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field ?
c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of the B field. [C = 3 × 108 ms-1].
Answer:
Here, v = 2.0 × 1010Hz, E0 = 48 Vm-1, C = 3 × 108 m/s

a) wavelength of the wave, λ = \(\frac{C}{v}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{2.0 \times 10^{10}}\) = 1.5 × 10-2 m

b) Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field,
B0 = \(\frac{E_0}{C}\) = \(\frac{48}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.6 × 10-7T

c) For average energy density
UE = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{E}_0^2\) …… (1)
We know that \(\frac{E_0}{B_0}\) = C
Putting in Eq (1)
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \varepsilon_0 \cdot C^2 \mathrm{~B}_0^2\) …. (2)
Speed of Electro magnetic waves, C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0 \mathrm{E}_0}}\)
Putting in Eq (2) We get.
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \varepsilon_0 B_0^2 \cdot \frac{1}{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}\)
UE = \(\frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{O}}^2}{\mu_0}=\frac{\mathrm{Bo}^2}{2 \mu_0}\) = μB
Thus, the average energy density of E field equals the average energy density of B field.

Additional Exercises

Question 1.
Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = {(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + {5.4 × 106 rad /s} t]} i.
a) What is the direction of propagation ?
b) What is the wavelength λ ?
c) What is the frequency v ?
d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave ?
e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.
Answer:
a) From the given question it is clear that direction of motion of e.m. wave is along negative y direction i.e along – \(\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)

b) Comparing the given question with equation E = E0 cos (ky + ωt).
We have, K = 1.8 rad/m, ω = 5.4 × 108 rad/s, E0 = 3.1 N/C
λ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{k}}\) = \(\frac{2 \times(22 / 7)}{1.8}\) = 3.492 m ≈ 3.5m

c) V = \(\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}\) = \(\frac{5.4 \times 10^8}{2 \times\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)}\) = 85.9 × 106 ≈ 86MHz

d) B0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_0}{\mathrm{C}}\) = \(\frac{3.1}{3 \times 10^8}\) = 1.03 × 10-8T ≈ 10.3nT

e) B = B0 cos (ky + ωt) \(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\) = (10.3nT) cos [(1.8 rad/m/y + (5.4 × 108 rad / s)t] \(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\)

Question 2.
About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What is the average intensity of visible radiation
a) at a distance of lm from the bulb ?
b) at a distance of 10 m ?
Assume that the radiation is emitted isotropically and neglect reflection.
Answer:
a) Intensity,
AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves 9
b) I = \(\frac{100 \times(5 / 100)}{4 \pi(10)^2}\) = 4 × 10-3 W/m2

Question 3.
Use the formula λm T = 0.29 cm K to obtain the characteristic temperature ranges for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. What do the numbers that you obtain tell you ?
Answer:
We know, every body at given temperature T1 emits radiations of all wavelengths in certain range. For a black body, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation at a given temperature.
λm T = 0.29cmk or T = \(\frac{0.29}{\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}}\)
For λm = 10-6m = 10-4cm, T = \(\frac{0.29}{10^{-4}}\) = 2900 k.

Temperature for other wavelengths can be similarly found. These numbers tell us the temperature ranges required for obtaining radiations in different parts of e.m spectrum. Thus to obtain visible radiation, say, λm = 5 × 10-5cm, the source should have a temperature
T = \(\frac{0.29}{5 \times 10^{-5}}\) = 6000 k
It is to be noted that, a body at lower temperature will also produce this wavelength but not with maximum intensity.

Question 4.
Given below are some famous numbers associated with electromagnetic radiations in different contexts in physics. State the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which each belongs.
a) 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space).
b) 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen; known as Lamb shift).
c) 2.7 K [temperature associated with the isotropic radiation filling all space-thought to be a relic of the ‘big-bang’ origin of the universe].
d) 5890 A – 5896 A [double lines of sodium]
e) 14.4 keV [energy of a particular transition in 57Fe nucleus associated with a famous high resolution spectroscopic method (Mossbauer spectroscopy).
Answer:
a) This wavelength corresponds to radiowaves.

b) This frequency also corresponds to radiowaves.

c) Given T = 2.7 K As λm T = 0.29cm °k
∴ λm = \(\frac{0.29}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = \(\frac{0.29}{2.7}\) ≈ 0.11cm
This wavelength corresponds to microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

d) This wavelength lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

e) Here, Energy E = 14.4KeV = 14.4 × 103 × 1.6 × 10-19J
As E = hv
∴ v = \(\frac{E}{h}\) = \(\frac{14.4 \times 10^3 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) ≈ 3 × 1011 MHz
This frequency lies in the X-ray region of electromagnetic spectrum.

AP Inter 2nd Year Physics Study Material Chapter 11 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 5.
Answer the following questions :
a) Long distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands. Why ?
b) It is neccessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmission. Why ?
c) Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground, but X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why ?
d) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why ?
e) If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower than what it is now ?
f) Some scientists have predicted that a global nuclear war on the earth would be followed by a severe ‘nuclear winter’ with a devastating effect on life on earth. What might be the basis of this prediction ?
Answer:
a) It is so because ionosphere reflects the waves in these bands.

b) Yes, television signals being of high frequency are not reflected by ionosphere, Therefore to reflect them satellites are needed. That is why, satellites are used for long distance TV transmission.

c) Optical and radiowaves can penetrate the atmosphere where as X-rays being of much smaller wavelength are absorbed by the atmosphere. That is why we can work with optical and radio telescopes on earth’s surface but X-ray astronomical telescopes must be used on the satellite orbiting above the earth’s atmosphere.

d) The small ozone layer present on the top of the stratosphere absorbs most of ultraviolet radiations from the sun which are dangerous and cause genetic damage to living cells, prevents them from reaching the earth’s surface and thus helps in the survival of life.

e) The temperature of earth would be lower because the green house effect of atmosphere would be absent.

f) The clouds by a global nuclear war would perhaps cover most parts of sky preventing solar light from reaching many parts of globe. This would cause a winter.