Mahesh

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 9 Reflection of Light

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 9th Lesson Reflection of Light

7th Class Science 9th Lesson Reflection of Light Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When will you be able to see clear image of yourself in a plane mirror?
Answer:

1. Point a torch towards the mirror so that it’s light falls on the mirror which we hold up as shown in figure (a), and try to see our image in the mirror.
   
2. Now turn the torch towards our face as shown in figure (b), and see our image in the mirror.
   
3. We will find that when light is focused on our face we can see our image clearly in the mirror.
4. We also notice that when light is focused on the mirror we find a dim image of our face in the mirror.

Question 2.
Explain by a simple activity what are incident and reflected rays of light. What is reflection of light?
Answer:

1. Place a blank sheet of paper on the ground such that part of it is in the sunlight and other part of it is in the shadow.
2. Hold the mirror strip with the slit facing the sun.
3. Let a ray of light from the slit fall on the paper.
4. Now take another mirror strip and place it in the path of this light ray such that the ray coming from first mirror falls on the second mirror as shown in figure.
   
5. We did not see any other ray of light, apart from the one from the mirror slit, on the paper.
6. This effect of the mirror strip on the ray of light is called reflection.
7. The ray of light falling on the mirror is called the incident ray and the ray returning from it is called the reflected ray.

Question 3.
Explain the terms ‘Angle of incidence’, ‘Angle of reflection’ and ‘Normal at the point of incidence.’
Answer:

1. Take a sheet of blank paper. Draw a line segment AC across the middle.
2. Draw another straight fine at right angles (90 degrees) to segment AC.
3. The second line should bisect segment AC at point B. We shall call this line as Normal. See in figure, (a)
   
4. Draw two lines from point B on the left side of the normal and two on the right side. The lines should be at angles of 30° and 60° respectively from the normal. Number these lines 1, 2, 3, 4 as shown in figure, (b)
   
5. Place a mirror strip vertically on segment AC with its reflecting surface facing the normal.
6. See that the back of the mirror coincides with segment with a slit and let its light ray fall along line 4.
7. Now this ray is the incident ray for the mirror.
8. The angle between the normal and the incident ray is called the Angle of Incidence (∠i).
9. The angle between normal and the reflected ray (along line 1) is called the Angle of Reflection (∠r).
10. Adjust the mirror strip with the slit so that its light ray falls along line 3 and we find that the reflected ray falls along line 2.
11. Adjust the mirror strip with the slit so that its light ray falls along normal, then the angle of incidence is 0° (the angle between normal and incident ray “that is also normal here”, is 0°)
12. The reflected light reflects back along the normal itself.

Question 4.
What relationship exists between angle of incidence and angle of reflection? State it and prove the relation by a simple activity.
Answer:

1. In the case of reflection on mirrors the law of reflection is Angle of incidence ∠i = Angle of reflection ∠r.
2. Proof : by a simple activity.
   • Take a sheet of blank paper. Draw a line AC on it.
   • Draw another straight line at right angles to AC.
   • This line should bisect AC. This line is normal.
   • Draw two lines from point B on the left side of the normal and two lines on the right side of the normal.
   • The lines should make angles of 30° and 60° respectively from the normal. Number these lines as 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in figure.
     
   • Place the mirror strip vertically on AC. With its reflecting surface facing the normal.
   • Take the mirror strip with a slit and let its light ray fall along line 4.
   • We find the reflected ray coming along the line 1.
   • Note the angle of incidence and angle of reflection.
   • Repeat the experiment by sending the light ray along line 3.
   • The reflected ray is found to be along line 2.
   • Record the observations.
     
     It is clear from the above activity that angle of incidence ∠i = angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 5.
Describe a small activity to prove that it is possible to see the image of an object only when the incident ray, reflected ray and normal are at the same plane.
Answer:

1. Place a mirror (1ft. × 1ft.) on the floor. You and your friends A, B, C stand on four sides of the mirror as shown in figure.
2. Adjust your places of standing, in such a way that each one of you can see the image of the person opposite to you in the mirror kept on the floor.
3. Your friends A, C are able to see images of each other in the mirror.
4. Ask your friend – B, who is in front of you to move a feet aside from his place. You cannot see his image in the mirror.
   
5. Imagine a normal to the mirror. It would be perpendicular to the mirror as well as to the floor.
6. Imagine an incident ray coming from your friend B, falls on the mirror then the reflected ray from mirror reaches you.
7. Observe that the incident ray, reflected ray and normal lie in the same plane.
8. Now think why the image of your friend B is not visible to you when he moves aside. Where should.you stand to see his image? Once again imagine the incident, reflected rays and normal and assumed plane.
9. It is evident that the incident ray, reflected ray and normal should be in same plane, then only you can see your friend.

Question 6.
How would you get an image in a mirror?
Answer:

1. We see our image in a mirror many times. How it is formed?
2. During day time the light which falls on us gets reflected and a number of reflected light rays from us that fall on the mirror also get reflected back.
3. These reflected rays reach your eye and make us see our image.
4. See figure (a). Thus formation of image in mirrors is due to reflection of light rays from the mirror.
   
5. See the figure (b) and observe the lines. They will explain how the image of a candle is formed in the mirror and how we are able to see the image of the candle in the mirror.
   

Question 7.
What is the difference between you and your image in a mirror?
Answer:

1. Stand in front of a mirror as shown in figure (a) and observe on which side of you does the pocket on your shirt appear, when you look into the mirror.
   
2. Raise your right hand infront of a mirror as shown in figure (b). Which hand of your image appears raised?
3. To make your image to comb hair with its right hand, what will you have to do?
4. What do these observations suggest?
5. In a mirror, right of an object appears as left and left of the object appears as right.
6. Note that only sides are interchanged. This is called lateral inversion.

Question 8.
How can you make a garden in a box ? Describe the procedure.
Answer:

1. Take an empty shoe box. Place two plane mirrors along the edges.
2. See that the pair of mirrors are parallel to each other and their reflecting surfaces face each other as shown in figure.
   
3. Scratch the centre part of a mirror at its back and make a hole to the wall of the box such that it coincides with the scratched portion of the mirror.
4. Put some flowers in the box. Make a few holes in the lid before closing the box so that light enters into the box.
5. Now look through the hole. You can see a wonderful and beautiful vast garden.

Question 9.
Why does the small area look like a vast garden?
Answer:

1. The light which enters the box falls on the flowers, gets reflected and travels in all directions.
2. The rays which fall on the mirrors reflect back to the opposite mirror.
3. This process happens again and again.
4. Due to this multiple reflection we can see that small area as a big garden.

Question 10.
Explain what do you understand by regular reflection and irregular reflection.
Answer:

1. Reflection from a smooth surface like that of a mirror is called regular reflection (see figure a).
2. Clear images are formed in case of regular reflection.
3. Reflection from a rough or irregular surface is called irregular reflection or diffused reflection (see figure b).
4. Images are not clear in case of irregular reflection.
5. In some cases we can’t find the image at all.
   

Question 11.
Can we use rear view mirror in place of plain mirror? Yes /No give the reason.
Answer:
No. We cannot use rear view mirror in place of plane mirror. The reasons are:

1. In plane mirror we can see our images.
2. But in rear view mirror we cannot see our images. So there is no use to use rear view mirror.

Question 12.
A mirror is hanging in your room. Your friend is sitting in the same room in a chair. If your friend wants to see you in a mirror, how will you adjust your position? Explain. ’
Answer:
I will adjust my position according to the laws of reflection. According to the laws of reflection Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection. If my friend wants to see me in a mirror, I will adjust my position (i.e) the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. Then my friend will see me in that mirror.

Question 13.
What are rays of light? How do you produce rays of light?
Answer:

1. Take a mirror strip and a black paper as shown in figure, (a)
2. Cover the mirror strip with black paper and cut a 1 mm wide slit in the black paper, as shown in figure b.
3. Hold the mirror strip with the slit facing the sun as shown in figure, (c).
   
4. We will see some light coming through the slit. Let this light fall on a sheet of paper spread on the ground.
5. Light coming from such a slit or any other small hole looks like a ray of light.

Question 14.
Why should we keep mirror strips parallel to each other in periscope? What happens if they are not parallel?
Answer:

1. In a periscope the incident ray for the second mirror is the reflected ray of the first mirror.
2. When these two mirrors are parallel to each other, only then the rays lie in the same plane and can pass through the windows of the periscope.
3. If these mirrors make some angle with each other, then the reflected ray of the first mirror may not reach the second mirror or the reflected ray of second mirror may not pass through the window of periscope.
4. In both cases we can’t see the object with the periscope.

Question 15.
Can you spell your name as it appears in a mirror? Spelling of my name is …………………..  It appears in the mirror as ……………
Answer:
The student has to do it.

Question 16.
Show that the size of an object and its image are same.
Answer:

1. Stand in front of a big mirror. Observe your image.
2. Step back two feet and step forward one foot. Observe your image while you move to and fro.
3. You notice that your image also move.
4. Estimate the distance from you to the mirror and the distance from the mirror to the image.
5. Is the size of your image equal to your size? Place an object in front of the mirror. Compare the size of the object with its image.
6. We notice that irrespective of the size of mirrors, the size of image and the size of object are equal.

Question 17.
How are multiple images of an object formed?
Answer:

1. Take two plain mirrors of same size and join them with a cellophane tape as shown in figure.
   
2. Fold the mirrors through certain angle and place an object between them. We see multiple images of the object.
3. Count the number of images after changing the angle between the mirrors.
4. If we change the angle between the mirrors the number of images of the object also changes.

Question 18.
Explain the formation of images with spherical mirrors.
Answer:

1. Place the concave and convex mirrors on two different V – stands.
2. Put two candles of same size in front of them as shown in figure.
   
3. Adjust the position of candles, to form clear images in the mirrors.
4. Observe the sizes of images.

Question 19.
What are real and virtual images? Explain with the help of an activity.
Answer:

1. Place a concave mirror on a V-stand.
2. Place a lighted candle in front of it. Place a thick white paper or white drawing sheet behind the candle.
3. This acts as a screen. See figure.
   
4. Adjust distances between candle and mirror, screen and mirror by moving them either forward or backward till a clear image appear on the screen.
5. Repeat the activity using a convex mirror and plane mirror in place of concave mirror.
6. The image that can be obtained on a screen is called a Real Image. We can see this image in the mirror too.
7. The image that can’t be obtained on a screen but can be seen only in the mirror is
   called a virtual image.

Question 20.
Explain how are we able to see the objects around us in day time?
Answer:

1. We already know that, to see any object, light should fall on it.
2. In daytime we are able to see all objects which are in our room even though sunlight does not fall directly on those objects.
3. The multiple reflection of sunlight from surfaces like wall, floor, ceiling etc, finally falls on the object and gets reflected by it and reaches us.
4. This enables us to see the object.

Question 21.
How do you make a periscope?
Answer:

1. We have to secure the following materials to make a periscope. Empty agarbatti box, two mirror strips, scale, pencil, blade, match box, candle, glue.
2. Close both ends of the agarbatti box. Draw squares at both ends.
3. Draw the diagonal to these squares as shown in figure.
4. Slit the diagonals with a blade. The slits should equal to the length of the mirror strips.
5. Fix the mirror strips in these slits as shown in figure (b). Take care to see that these mirror strips lie parallel to each other, with their reflecting surfaces facing each other.
   
6. Fix the mirror strips firmly to the box with a few drops of molten wax from a burning candle. We can also use glue or fevicol instead of wax.
7. Cut out two windows on the narrow sides of the box as shown in figure (c). The windows should open directly on the reflecting surfaces of the mirror strips.
8. Now the periscope is ready.

Question 22.
How would you use the periscope?
Answer:

1. When we look through window 2, We will be able to see things lying in front of window 1.
2. We hide behind a tree, we can easily see that is happening on the other side of the tree with this periscope.
   
3. Observe in figure the girl is viewing objects outside the room through the window while hiding herself in the room, with the help of a periscope.

Question 23.
Keep the mirrors in such a way that the angle between the mirrors is 90 degrees and observe the images and compare them with the object. What do you notice? Is there any difference between those images? Imagine the reason for that.
Answer:

1. We observe 5 images of the object .
2. The intensity of the images decreases.

Question 24.
What are spherical mirrors?
Answer:

1. We have seen the mirrors whose reflecting surfaces look like the head of a steel spoon.
2. The mirrors which contain curved reflecting surfaces are called spherical mirrors.

Question 25.
Why do we call concave and convex mirrors as spherical mirrors?
Answer:

1. Take a rubber ball and cut a portion of it with knife as shown in figure. Be careful. Ask your teacher to help you in cutting the ball).
   
2. The inner surface of the cut piece of ball is called concave surface and the outer surface of it is called convex surface.
3. If the reflecting surface of a mirror is concave, it is called a concave mirror see figure (a)
   
4. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called as convex mirror. See figure (b).
   
5. Any concave or convex mirror is a part of a sphere. Hence these mirrors are called spherical mirrors.

Question 26.
How is the image of a candle is seen in a mirror. Draw a diagram to explain.
Answer:

1. See the diagram below.
2. The ray of light from the candle is reflected at the mirror, and bounces off at the same angle as it come to the mirror.
   
3. Our eye does not know that the light has been reflected.
4. Our eye sees the object (the candle) in the mirror, and feels that light is coming from that candle which seems to be behind the mirror.
5. In this way we see an image of the candle.

Question 27.
Take a drawing sheet and cut it into a few pieces. Write an English letter in capitals on each piece of drawing sheet. Observe the images of the letters formed in the mirror as shown in figure.

1. Which of the images appear same as the original letter?
2. Which of them appear reversed? Why?

Repeat above activity with Telugu / Hindi / Urdu letters and also with numbers 1 to 9, then try to answer the above questions.
Answer:
This can be done by the student.

Question 28.
On the front side of ambulances, the word AMBULANCE is written like why?
Answer:

1. All vehicles should give way to an Ambulance.
2. When the driver has seen the vehicle behind it, letters written on it must be clearly visible.
3. So the letters Ambulance are written on the vehicle with lateral inversion.
4. When the image of these letters are seen in the rear mirror, they will be laterally inverted and the name Ambulance will be clearly visible to him.
5. The driver immediately gives way to that Ambulance.

Question 29.
Every day we see our image in a plane mirror. Is it a real or virtual image? How can you decide?
Answer:

1. It is a virtual image.
2. The image formed in a plane mirror cannot be caught on a screen.

Question 30.
Keep a mirror close to your face and look into it. Move the mirror backward and observe the image. What change do you observe? Try this activity using Convex, Concave mirrors. In which mirror do you get an inverted image ?At what distance does it happen?
Answer:

1. When the mirror moves by a distance of minimum 25 cm. then only we can see our image in the plane mirror.
2. If it is a concave mirror, as long as our face it with in the focus of the concave mirror a small virtual image of the face is seen.
3. When the concave mirror is at a distance beyond its focus, then the image formed will be bigger in size.
4. In the case of convex mirror a virtual, small image is formed in it when it is kept at a suitable distance form the face.

Question 31.
Why are rearview mirrors arranged for vehicles?
Answer:

1. The mirrors at both sides of driver in motor vehicles like bus, car, motor vehicles are rearview mirrors.
   
2. These are used by drivers to see vehicles which are moving behind or beside of the vehicle without turning
   their heads.

Question 32.
Take a plane mirror. Go to a vehicle. Observe your image in the rearview mirror and as well as in the plane mirror. What difference do you find?
Answer:
We have noticed that the image formed by the rearview mirror is smaller than the image in a plane mirror.

Question 33.
a) How is the image on the outer portion of the spoon?
b) How is the image on the inner portion of the spoon?
Answer:
a) The image on the outer portion of the spoon is small in size.

b) The image on the inner portion of the spoon is reversed.

Question 34.
Have you noticed the surface of reflection in a torch light or in a head light of a vehicle? What is its specialty?
Answer:

1. Observe the torch light or headlight of a vehicle.
2. We notice a concave mirror behind the bulb (see figure)
3. Due to this concave surface the brightness of a small bulb is increased.
   

Question 35.
What happens if the surface of reflection in the torch or in a head light of a vehicle is convex like in figure?

Answer:

1. The intensity of light totally decreases.
2. A convex mirror diverges the light rays.
3. So the rays of light from the bulb diverge out. Giving small intensity of light on the road.

Question 36.
How is concave mirror useful to dentists?
Answer:

1. Dentists use concave mirrors to examine our teeth (See figure).
   
2. These concave mirrors used by doctor help to see a bigger image of teeth.

Question 37.
In our daily life while we stand in front of windows we observe our images on the glass of some windows but don’t find images on the glass of some other windows. Why?
Answer:

1. Our image is clear when we stand in front of certain types of glass as shown in figure (a).
   
2. Our image is not clear when we stand in front of some other types of glass as shown in figure (b).
3. If the surface of the window glass is smooth, due to the regular reflection we are able to see our image in that glass.
4. But if the surface of the window glass is rough, due to the irregular reflection we can’t find our image or we find unclear images in that glass.

Question 38.
Observe the image of the sun or a tree in still water. Later, disturb the water by throwing a pebble. How does the image of the Sun or the tree appear now? Why?
Answer:

1. When the water is still, its surface will be smooth and regular reflection takes place on it.
2. The image of an object formed due to still water will be clear.
3. When water is disturbed, the surface of water becomes rough and irregular reflection takes palce.
4. Due to this irregular reflection the image of an object may not be formed, if formed it will not be clear.

Question 39.
How many images are formed if two mirrors are kept in 60° angle to each other?
Answer:
The angle between two plane mirrors = 60°
Number of images formed

5 images are formed.

Question 40.
Sasi asked her father to fix mirrors on her new house for elevation. But her father did not accepted. Imagine why he said like that.
Answer:

1. If we decorate the front portion of the house, accidents may happen.
2. Because sunlight falls on these mirrors and reflects back.
3. This reflected light may fall on the men and vehicles, leading to accidents.

Question 41.
You are given a mirror. How can you identify whether it is convex mirror or concave mirror?
Answer:
A)

1. If the reflecting surface of a mirror is concave, it is called a concave mirror.
2. These mirrors form real and inverted images.
3. These are used in headlights of vehicles. ENT doctors also use these mirrors for their observations.

B)

1. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called a convex mirror.
2. They always form erect and virtual images.
3. These are used in rear view mirrors of the vehicles.

Question 42.
The following experiment has been conducted in your laboratory.

Answer the following questions based on this.

1. Which mirror is used in this experiment?
2. How does the image of candle appear on the screen?
3. Since the image is caught on the screen, what is the name of the image?
4. What are the apparatus required to conduct this experiment?

Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. Inverted
3. Real image
4. U-stand, mirrors, candle, matchbox, screen, scale.

Question 43.
List out the properties of a convex mirror.
Answer:
Properties of a convex mirror :

1. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called a convex mirror.
2. Always form erect and virtual images.
3. These are used in rear view mirrors of the vehicles.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Here are the list of items that you can use for making a table on social movements. Draw a table based on them and find out similarities and differences amongst movements:
Main area of focus of the movement; location, main demands, modes of protest, important leaders; response from the state; possible impact on society.
Answer:

Question 2.
Kanayya, Ramya and Salma have a debate. They have different expectations. Whom would you agree with and give reasons, from the context of human rights? Ramya argues it is okay to restrict the freedom of the press, etc. but ensure people do not live in poverty. Salma argues it is food alone is not important but equally important to have freedom of press because there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country. Kanayya says, how will it make a difference if press belongs to the rich and powerful people, why would they cover things that ordinary people expect.
Answer:

1. I agree with Ramya.
2. She argues that food alone is not important but also to have freedom of press.
3. If we do not have freedom of press, there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country.
4. Now with globalization, world has become a tiny village.
5. People are coming to know and responding quickly in social media.
6. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
7. No one shall be subjected to inhuman or degrading treatment.
8. Protection of most human rights is important.

Question 3.
What are the basic features of social movements?
Answer:
The basic features of social movements :

1. They are based on values of justice, democracy and civil rights.
2. Protection of the cultural sphere.
3. The prevention of a change in societies structure and values.
4. Protection of livelihood and health.
5. Equal treatment in the society.
6. Protection from the consumption of alcohol and drugs.
7. Protection of the environment.
8. Protection of agricultural lands.

Question 4.
How is the role of the ordinary individuals described in the above case studies ?
Answer:

1. Without the participation of ordinary individuals any social movement cannot be a successful one.
2. They were the ones, who suffered and dejected.
3. They make their voices heard through their leaders.
4. They actively participate in marches, boycotts, processions planned by their leaders.
5. Nowadays they are making use of internet and social media to mobilise and fight for their cause.
6. They not only think of personal profits, hope for better future and sustainable environment.
7. They even oppose their own government and support the human rights of the sufferers.
8. Most movements involved them are peaceful in nature.

Question 5.
How are the rights of black people in the USA and Meira Paibi movements similar or different?
Answer:

1. The rights of black people in the USA are violated by law.
2. They are met with inhuman treatment.
3. They are discriminated in schools, transport facilities, job, housing and even in voting righ/s.
4. But they are given right to freedom of movement.
5. In Meira Paibi movements, the most suffered are women.
6. Their right to life, liberty and security of person are taken away by special protection law.
7. They are subjected to cruel and degrading treatment.
8. Their men and children are detained on no fair cause.
9. They are not even given the right to freedom of movement.
10. Government has yet to take a decision on Meira Paibi’s demands.

Question 6.
Democracies have been identified as most prominent political systems across the world.
Do you think it has been able to take care of all expectations of people. Based on the examples cited in these chapters, write a short note on ‘democracy and social movements’.
Answer:
Democracy and Social Movements :

1. Social movements are mostly the outcome of dissatisfactions in the society.
2. The ruling democracies are not able to fulfil the expectations of people.
3. Some section or the other in the society is suffering with denial of human rights or social justice.
4. Their ire is augmented and shapes into a movement.
5. When governments are after nuclear arms and not providing peace and security to people usually people resent it and movements come up.
6. When people are discriminated, they revolt against administration. Likewise, whenever there is lack of social justice and when there is a threat to environmental system also movements come out.

Question 7.
Discuss and find out how movements mobilise people from across the globe like in the above instance of campaign to protest in the context of Bhopal gas tragedy.
Answer:

1. Movements seek a vision that is different.
2. Movements mobilise people from across the globe to protest various issues.
3. Black Americans organised themselves against the segregation and discrimination they faced.
4. People of Russia fought for human rights there, when free multiparty elections were not allowed, Press freedom was not allowed.
5. Massive protests took place against the policies of the govemments, which are war mongering.
6. Greenpeace movement in the USA protested the conduct of nuclear tests under water in the USA.
7. Many such movements related to environment were taken up and people supported them.
8. There are various platforms for them like, Facebook, twitter, e-mails, Internet newspaper, etc.

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 299

Question 1.
Try to read the famous speech of Dr King and write an essay on the ideals he set for American society and how he planned to achieve it.
Answer:
Martin Luther king set many ideals for the American society. Some of them are,
а) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Unalienable rights of life
e) Pursuit of happiness
f) freedom
g) Democracy etc.

He plans to achieve the ideals in the following ways:

1. Negroes should not relax until their demands are met.
2. Shaking the foundations of the government with revolt until the bright day of justice emerges.
3. The struggle should be filled with dignity and discipline.
4. By avoiding physical violence.
5. Trusting some white people who sympathize with the blacks.
6. He says that with faith all will be able to work together, pray together, struggle together, to go to jail together, to stand up for freedom together, knowing that there will be freedom one day.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 300

Question 2.
Make a table and list the demands of civil rights movement and possible solutions in your opinion.
Answer:

Demands of Civil Rights movements	Possible solutions
1. Passage of Civil Rights Act	1. All forms of segregation has to be repealed.
2. Programme for generation of employment	2. Government should look for promoting industries.
3. Full and fair employment.	3. Along with whites, Black Americans are also to be considered for employment.
4. Decent Housing	4. Government shall help the Blacks with construction of houses.
5. Right to vote	5. All the adults must be given right to vote.

Question 3.
The USA claims to be a democracy, yet it kept certain groups of people segregated, till middle of last century. Discuss how the idea of democracy need to be more inclusive in our context.
Answer:

1. The USA claims to be a democracy.
2. It practised segregation, till the middle of last century.
3. Democracies cannot afford to alienate their subjects.
4. They cannot judge a person by the colour of the skin.
5. They cannot shy away the protection of equal rights to all subjects.
6. Democracy in this context needed to be more inclusive.
7. All the black people are to be treated on same footing with others.

Question 4.
Why do we hear different voices within a movement? Can you identify differences in them?
Answer:

1. People have differences of opinions, hence we hear different voices within a movement.
2. In American Civil Rights Movement two voices arose. They were –
   a) Many people agreed with Dr King that it was possible to achieve equality for all people through peaceful means.
   b) Many others like “Malcom X” thought that Blocks should fight for independence from white rule and for that they have to use all means including armed conflict.

Question 5.
Can you think of similarity or differences in the nature of political system in the USA and the USSR and how was their response to people’s rights?
Answer:

Political System in the USA	Political System in the USSR
1. Democratic Government.	1. Socialist system of Government.
2. Freedom of press / media present.	2. Freedom of press/media is not present
3. Movement of ordinary people is allowed.	3. Movement of ordinary people is not allowed.
4. No control over people activities.	4. Kept close control of people activities.
5. Segregation laws are followed.	5. No such laws in force.
6. Civil Rights Act was passed and successfully implemented.	6. Glasnost brought greater freedom for the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 301

Question 6.
“We Won’t Go”
America has a law which requires all able bodied citizens to enroll in the army for a short period. During the Vietnam War, thousands of citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam. Let us read about one such protest refusal. This is a statement that appeared in a newspaper, Harvard Crimson:

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences. We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Some thought that these people were being un-patriotic while others thought that they were justified in refusing to participate in an unjust war. Discuss the two points of view in the class and write a short note of arguments of both sides and your own viewpoint.
Answer:

1. Vietnam conflict was the outcome of the Cold War between the USA and the USSR.
2. Citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam.
3. The US war with Vietnam was inhuman, hence the majority of the people opposed it.
4. People who hate “Socialistic Society” and “Communism” supported the decision of the US to continue the war with Vietnam.
5. In my opinion, I oppose the war with Vietnam as it was against democratic principles and human rights.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 303

Question 7.
What were the different types of responses to the weaponisation?
Answer:

1. Nuclear arms race intensified after the end of Vietnam war in 1975.
2. More and more countries competed with each other to stock pile nuclear arms.
3. Arms producing companies and governments created a war panic among the people.
4. They created war like situation.
5. People believed that war mongering and arms race made the world more unsafe.
6. It also increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
7. Massive protests took place against these policies of governments.

Question 8.
If people from different countries meet each other, there would be less chances of war, than the governments alone deciding the policy with each other. Would you agree with this statement? Give reasons for the answer.,
Answer:

1. Usually countries formulate their policies.
2. People of countries meet together and avoiding war is distant from reality.
3. Most countries in the world are democracies.
4. People vest their powers through vote to their representatives who could administer them.
5. It may be looking simple but, it definitely may not be feasible.
6. So, I cannot agree with this statement.

Question 9.
Explain how environmental issues can affect people of nations who may have no role in deciding the location of nucelar plants, polluting factories, etc. How do you deal with such situation?
Answer:

1. Usually people of the nation are suffering lot, whenever there is a nuclear tragedy.
2. They really do not have any role in deciding the nuclear plant’s location or pollution factory.
3. That will be decided by their representatives and their secretaries.
4. They decide the locations taking into consideration, a lot of things like infrastructure, raw material, technology, etc.
5. To deal with these situations the governments should take all the protective measures.
6. In case of any adversity, they should respond well in time to support the people.
7. They should see that proper care is taken about the affected and fair compensations were distributed among the suffered people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 304

Question 10.
Look up the website of Greenpeace movement (http : //www.greenpeace.org/international) to find out about the issues they have been fighting for and how the methods they have used for fighting. Find out about the debates and controversies about this movement too.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 307

Question 11.
Is it impossible to build factories or mines or power plants without throwing out farmers or tribal people? What can be the alternatives? Discuss in your family and school on these issues.
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is impossible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material availability, they are to be set up like this.
3. Governments should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the farmers and tribals is also lied with the government.
5. They should plan of no damage to these sectors of people or the minimum.
6. In case of a compulsion, they must be given compensations like land, lump sums and employment.
7. More importantly, government should concentrate on viable alternatives to protect the environment also.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 308

Question 12.
What were the various strategies used by the social movement?
Answer:

1. Social Movements throughout the world used various strategies.
2. Civil Rights Movement in the USA used civil disobedience (Violating discriminatory laws peacefully) and boycott of discriminatory services (like buses which segregate whites and blacks)
3. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons.
4. Volunteers in the USA setout in a smallship “Green Peace’ in protest to underwater nuclear test of the USA.
5. People used international laws to fight against the problems that factory workers and women affected in Bhopal gas disaster.
6. Women led movements for social justice and human rights.
7. People organised movements in protest to pollution, global warming and environmental degradation.

Question 13.
How do the people in movement see the process of resettlement promises?
Answer:

1. People who stood to be displaced from the project, demanded a fair compensation not just to those who own land, but all those who lived there.
2. People realised that there was actually no adequate land available to compensate for the loss.
3. They alsobelieved that it was really not possible to rehabilitate the displaced people properly.
4. People began to realise that the problem was not compensation or rehabilitation but one of faulty notion of development.
5. A development which was based on unsustainable use of natural resources, only paved way for setting up industries and commercial farms at the cost of farming and tribal communities.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 310

Question 14.
Find out about more recent such struggles in West Bengal (Nandigram), Odisha (Niyamagiri) and Andhra Pradesh (Polavaram, Sompeta etc). Prepare a poster explaining the main features of the struggle in each of these cases.
Answer:
Nandigram (West Bengal):

1. Nandigram is a place on the bank of Haldia and quite far from Kolkata.
2. In 2007, March the state government of West Bengal sanctioned the land there to set up Special Economic Zone by Salim Group.
3. People of Nandigram resented it and led mass processions and struggle and 14 people died.

Niyamgiri (Odisha):

1. Niyamagiri hills in Odisha state are famous for their bauxite reserves. Odisha government gave permission to British mining company Vedanta to mine bauxite from there in July 2013.
2. People resented this, especially the tribals and organised many processions and later courts involved in this matter and by January 2014 the mining was disallowed.

Sompeta, Polavaram in combined (Andhra Pradesh):

1. Sompeta was a mandal in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and government at the state permitted Nagarjuna Company Limited to set up a thermal plant there in 2010.
2. People supported by many opposition party leaders protested the decision of government and for three years there were long drawn struggles.
3. Polavaram project is to be constructed on Godavari river spreading in East, West Godavari’s and Khammam. Government obtained permissions and started it in 2004.
4. It has submerging areas and affecting, zones in Chattisgarh and Odisha also. Many conflicts were there to complete it.

Question 15.
Fill in the para and line in the section below which you think is related to the violation or are in conflict with provisions of Human rights.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his [or her]rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him [or her]. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy,family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her] honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para ——– line ——–.
Articl e 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state [state here means country], Para ——– line ——–.
(2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his[or her country. Para ——– line ——–.
Answer:
Violations
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para 3 line 13.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para 3 line 6 and 7.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para 3 line 4.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her]honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para 3 line 10

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Animal Fibre

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre

7th Class Science 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How silk weaving began ? Write the story behind it.
Answer:

1. Chinese traditions, along with the writings of Confucius tell the same 2700 BC tale. It states that the empress Leizu (Hsi – ling – shi) was having tea one day under a mulbery tree with her husband, emperor Huang-ti, when a silk worm’s cocoon fell into her cup.
2. In an attempt to take it out, the thread of the cocoon began to unroll. So the Empress thought of weaving the thread.
3. The Emperor encouraged his wife to study the life of silk worm, and so she learned the art of raising silk worms or what is called sericulture. Her finding was taught as well and thus the advent of the silk industry.
4. However, archaeological evidences show that the origin of silk industry traces back to 3000 and 5000 BC.
5. The sites of Yangshao culture in Xia Country; Shanxi reveal a cocoon of a bombyx mori or a domesticated silk worm along with silk weaving looms.

Question 2.
Write a note on The world of wool.
Answer:
Woolen fabrics are as ancient as human civilization. According to archeological evidences domestication of woolly sheep may have started around 6000 BC by early Iranians. Earliest woven woolen garments are dated 2000 – 3000 years later. In 15th century, British made laws to control wool smuggling and at one time they punished people by cutting off their hands ! The industrial revolution introduced mass production of wool. Leaders of wool production are Australia and China.

Question 3.
What is the historical record of spinning and weaving?
Answer:
Spinning and Weaving:
The spinning of animal or vegetable fibres into thread dates from about 7000 BC, from the Middle East; the earliest tools used were a distaff (a cleft stick holding a bundle of fibres) with a weighted spindle to twist them together. The oldest known textile, from Asia Minor, dates from around 7000 BC. The first looms for weaving wool dates from about 5000 BC.

Family Scene A Hittite lady spins wool in a bas-relief from the 8th century B.C.

Question 4.
Are caterpillars dangerous?
Answer:
All caterpillars are not dangerous. Some are useful too.

Question 5.
From where do we get fibres? Explain.
Answer:

1. We get fibres from plants and animals.
2. Cotton, Jute, Gongoora, Coconut plant fibres are useful to make different kinds of fabrics.
3. In the same way we get fibres of silk and wool from animals like silk worms, sheep, goat, camel, and yak etc.

Question 6.
Who will purchase the tiny silk worms?
Answer:
Farmers from Kurnool, Kadapa, Chittoor and some other places of our state come and purchase these tiny worms.

Question 7.
Why do farmers buy silk moths ? What is the name of the centres?
Answer:

1. Sometimes farmers buy silkmoths because to produce eggs from them.
2. The eggs are produce by thermselves (by farmers) in their own centres.
3. The egg producing centres are called Grinages’.

Question 8.
Narrate the stages of transformation from egg to cocoon in the sericulture. What do you do in this process?
Answer:

1. Large tray with leaves and larva feeding on them could be seen.
2. Some trays had white and yellowish egg like structures.
3. Farmers grow silk worms to get cocoons. They get 5-6 harvests of worms in a year.
4. Farmers bought mulberry twigs from Palamaneru of Chittoor district, where sericulture (the whole process of obtaining silk starting from silk moth) is carried out.
   
5. Farmers plant the twigs to get the mulberry crop.
6. We purchased tiny white coloured silk worms (caterpillars) from seed growing centres at Horsely Hills.
7. We place these worms in trays. We chop Mulberry leaves into small pieces to feed them.
8. 
9. These worms eat leaves day and night. They need good hygienic conditions and proper light to grow.
10. When they grow biggerin size, we transfer the worms into big sized cane frames called “Chandrikalu”.
11. After 30-35 days the caterpillar stops eating and settles at a particular place. It weaves a net to hold itself.
12. Caterpillar moves its mouth from side to side and secretes fibre-like substance.
13. When it is exposed to air and heat it becomes strong.
14. The net is woven completely to cover the body of the caterpillar. This seems to be a closed sack. This is called Pattukayalu’ (Cocoon).
15. The larva of silk worm undergoes changes in the cocoon to change into a moth. After 2-3 weeks young moths come out from the cocoons and fly away.
16. So we have to be very careful. Within 2-3 days of formation fo cocoon, we start removing them from the tray.

Question 9.
How is the process of reeling, fibre to yarn is done? Describe.
Answer:

1. Some people will attend to boiling and stirring something in large pots. (Fig. )
   
2. Cocoons are being boiled in water.
3. Cocoons are boiled to get silk fibre.
4. Caterpillar of silk worm spins fibre which is mainly made up of two types of protein (sirisine and fibroin) and is very strong.
5. The cocoons have to be boiled to loosen the fibre to be able to reel it.
6. Obtaining silk fibre from cocoon is called reeling. It is done with special machines called reelers and twisters.
7. The silk fibre is carefully collected from the cocoon and nearly 3 to 18 of such threads are wound together to make yarn from it which is reeled (Fig. )
   

Question 10.
How is silk yarn woven to fabrics?
Answer:

1. The reeled yarn is cleaned, bleached and coloured.
   
2. The yarn is ready to be woven into a variety of designed fabrics, on looms.
3. We can see reeling centres at Nandikotkur, Hindupur, Dharmavaram and Madanapalli etc.

Question 11.
Describe the process of scouring of wooL Why is cool air passed over it after washing?
Answer:

1. Sheared skin with hair is dipped in such tanks and stirred with a spade.
2. Often it may be washed under a stream of water as well.
3. This water contains some chemicals to remove grease, dirt and dust.
4. This process ¡s called washing or scouring.
5. Alter washing, cool air is Passed over the wool to makes it softer.

Question 12.
Explain the process of sorting wool.
Answer:

1. People sorting coarse and soft ones as well as broken and long ones and making separate piles of them.
2. Unwanted materials like twigs or hits of leaves etc., that may he present with the wool are also separated out.
3. This process is called sorting or wool classing. Fleece is the soft mass of wool.

Question 13.
How do these woolen fibres get different colours? What is there in the tubs? Explain the process of spinning.
Answer:

1. There are beaches and dyes in the tubs. Woolen fibres are bleached and then dyed with different colours.
2. The coloured fibres are used to make yarn. These fibres are then combed.
3. There is a machine for combing or carding wool. Wool is pulled through many teeth of the combing machine (Fig. )
   
4. From there, a machine rolls and pulls it out into a thick rope and still another pulls and twists it into a long thread.
5. This is the process of spinning.
6. Flere you can see it being wound on whirling spools as well. (Fig. )
   
7. Thus we get the yarn which may be dyed before weaving.

Question 14.
What is the advantage of stiffling?
Answer:

1. Stiffling helps to store the cocoons for a long period.
   
2. This process is usually done in reeling centres.

Question 15.
Where are the cocoons sold ? In which places rfites of cocoon are usually enquired ?
Answer:

1. These cocoons are kept in sealed bags and sold at the cocoon market.
2. If not stiffled, we sell them off within a week.
3. Usually enquiries about rates of cocoons are made in the market at Hindupur, Madanapally, Dharmavaram, Kadiri, Palamaneru and Raychoti.

Question 16.
What are the different silks produced in our state ? What is tasar silk ? Where do the silk plantation is mainly concentrated?
Answer:

1. Apart from Mulberry, Tasar silk (Desali Pattu) is produced in our State.
2. Some species of silk moths that lay eggs on termanalia (oak) plantation produce tasar silk.
3. Mostly tribal people rear these kind of cocoons.
4. This silk plantation is concentrated in coastal regions of East Godavari and Visakhapatnam.

Question 17.
What are the different places famous for silk? What are the different types of silk available to us?
Answer:

1. Dharmavaram – silk city of Andhrapradesh.
2. People weave silk fabric by using silk yarn on handlooms.
3. For there people, weaving is a traditional occupation.
4. They get silk yarn from reeling centres to weave a variety of sarees.
5. Venkatagiri pattu and Dharmavaram are famous types produced by our state.
6. Dharmavaram is famous for its wide border and rich buta or dots.
7. Banaras, Kanchipuram, Dharmavaram, Narayanpet, Kothakota, Pochampally are all types of silk fabrics.
   
8. They get their names from the places where they are made.
9. We also have heard the names of tasar silk, mooga silk, kosa silk, eri silk etc.
10. These are all several varieties of silk. Some chemicals add strength to silk fibres.
11. Silk is used to make other products as well like satin and crepe. We have both handlooms and power looms to weave silk.

Question 18.
What is the difference between silk and cotton?
Answer:

Silk	Cotton
1. Mainly protein	1. Mainly a carbohydrate called cellulose

Question 19.
How are we protected from heat and cold by wool?
Answer:

1. Wool is a poor conductor of heat. Air trapped in between the woolen fibres and our body prevents the flow of heat from our body to our surroundings.
2. So we feel hot and are protected from cold.
3. Woolen cloth also helps to douse fire.
4. That is why it is good to wrap a person, who is caught in fire, with a blanket.

Question 20.
How much of yarn do we get from cocoons? How many people are involved in this process? Are they safe with this?
Answer:

1. The thread you get from the average cocoon ranges from about 1,000 to 3,000 feet, and about 2,000 to 3,000 cocoons are required to make 500 gm of silk.
2. That is about 5,000,000 feet or more than 1,000 miles!
3. That’s not all. People involved in the process suffer from skin as well as respiratory problems due to continuous handling of the silk worm and the silk fibres.

Question 21.
From where wool is obtained?
Answer:

1. Clothes like sweaters, mufflers, hats, long coats, table covers etc. are some woolen varieties.
2. There were different types of animals like sheep, goat, yak, llama, camel, alpaca etc.
3. Wool is obtained from hair of all the animals.
4. It is also called fleece or fur collectively.
5. It is mainly a protein. Good quality wool is obtained from Merino sheep.
6. They are specially reared. The fleece is 3-5 inches long and very fine and most valuable.
7. A merino sheep may yield about 5 to IS kg of wool per year.

Question 22.
Do we find any difference between hairs of all animals?
Answer:

1. Certainly, hair of camel that lives in Rajasthan is not same as Angora goat that lives in Kashmir.
2. Camels have rough and coarse hair.
3. Under this rough hair some animals usually have soft hair as well.
4. Angora goat or the Merino sheep have soft hair.

Question 23.
Where do we find sheep or goat that give us wool?
Answer:
In Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Haryana, Punjab. Rajasthan and Gujarat. They are often reared on large farms.

Question 24.
What do the people do with scissor in removing fleece of sheep?
Answer:

1. A shear is used to cut fleece from sheep.
2. During spring season fleece of sheep is removed from its body using this type of razor.
3. This process is called shearing (Fig.). To prevent damage to skin, grease is used.
   

Question 25.
If you are going to visit Ooty, a hill station in the month of November, which type of clothes would you carry
Answer:

1. Ooty is the cold place as it is a hill area.
2. I would like to keep woolen clothes in my luggage in order to protect myself from cold condition.
3. I would carry sweaters, gloves, scarfs and shoes to protect myself during cold days.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Seasons	Months according to the Indian calendar
Vasantha	Chaitra – Vaishaka
Grishma	Jyestha- Ashadha
Varsha	Sravana – Bhadra
Sharad	Aswayuja – Karthika
Hemantha	Margashira – Pushya
Shishira	Magha – Phalguna

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
a) Latitude		Closer to equator and has more rainfall
b) Relief	Even though place Y is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences low temperatures.

Answer:

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
1. Latitude	Higher latitudes cause temperature’s decrease. Lower latitudes cause increase in temperatures.	Closer to the equator and has more rainfall.
2. Relief	Even though place V is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences lower temperatures,	Closer to the equator does not affect much If the elevation of relief is more,

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Weather and Climate

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 6th Lesson Weather and Climate

7th Class Science 6th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do elders predict rain?
Answer:

1. It is a common experience for everybody to hear elder people talking about the possible weather on a day before planning to celebrate a function of the family.
2. They do it by observation of different seasons.
   
3. Farmers listen to radio or watch T.V. for weather forecast.
4. They depend on these weather predictions to plan their agricultural activities.
5. These weather predictions effect our daily life.

Question 2.
How does the meteorological department make weather predictions?
Answer:

1. The meteorological department collects data and uses it to make predictions.
2. This is about weather of Hyderabad for three consecutive days.
   
3. We find that these aspects of weather keep changing.
4. The humidity, changes, the wind changes, the temperature changes the sunrise and sunset times change too.
5. Keeping all these things in consideration the department make weather predictions.

Question 3.
What aspects do you see in the weather record?
Answer:

1. We find that there are some changes in a day. But most of the day is normal.
2. The weather is a complex phenomenon that it can vary over very short periods of time.
3. Sometimes its sunny in the morning but clouds appear from somewhere and it starts raining.
4. Within a matter of a few minutes this gives way to bright sunshine.
5. We must have had several such experiences. The temperature, humidity, rain, wind speed change.
6. All this effects the life of human beings and other living organisms. This constitutes weather.

Question 4.
Describe the construction and working of six’s maximum and minimum thermometer.
Answer:
Description – and working:

1. Six invented the maximum minimum thermometer (MMT) thermometer to measure highest and lowest temperatures of’a place.
2. This consists of a cylindrical bulb A, connected through a U-shaped tube to spherical bulb B that contains alcohol.
   
3. When the temperature increases, the alcohol in the bulb A expands.
4. The mercury in the U tube goes up to the bulb B side and the indicatorfl^also moves up.
5. This indicates maximum temperature of the day.
6. If the temperature decreases,alcohol in the bulb A contracts then the mercury in the U-tube goes to the A bulb side and the indicator (I₂ ) also moves up.
7. This indicates the minimum temperature of the day.
8. After taking readings the indicators I₂ and I₁ are brought to their original places by using a magnet.

Question 5.
How do you find the magnitude of rain fall?
Answer:

1. Take a 10cm wide beaker and insert a funnel of the same width.
2. Keep the apparatus in an open place when it is raining.
   
3. The rain water would be collected through the funnel into the beaker.
4. After the rain is over, measure the amount of water collected in the beaker.
5. If the depth of water is 1 cm then that the magnitude of rainfall is 1 cm.

Question 6.
Observe the weather report (temperature and rain fall) of two places in our state. The average temperature and rain fall for the last 25 years of the particular month is given in the table.

Answer the following questions:
a) In which month was maximum temperatures recorded? Why?
Answer:
In the month of may maximum temperatures were recorded.
b) Comparatively which place is hot? Why?
Answer:
Rentachintala is comparatively hot because the average rainfall is less compared to Arogyavaram.
c) How can you say Arogyavaram is cooler than Rentachintala in summer?
Answer:

1. In Arogyavaram, in the mid summer, the maximum temperature recorded was only 33°C as against 41°C recorded in Rentachintala.
2. So Arogyavaram is cooler than Rentachintala.

Question 7.
What is meant by climate?
Answer:

1. The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called climate of that place.
2. Broadly, the same patterns of temperature, rainfall, humidity wind speed that have been generally continuing for a long time, say the last 25 years, at a place gives the climate of that place.
3. If we find that temperature at a place is generally high for large part of the year, we say the climate of that place is hot.

Question 8.
How do we compare a place which is hot with a place which is cool?
Answer:
With the help of six’s maximum and minimum thermometer we compare a place which is hot with a place which is cool.

Question 9.
How do meteorologists measure the rain fall? What are its units?
Answer:
Meteorologists measure the rainfall using a ‘Rain gauge’. It is also called Udometer or Pulviometer or Ombrometer. They can measure exact amount of rainfall. Rainfall is expressed in centimeters or millimeters.

Question 10.
Why is it sweaty in Vijayawada and relatively less in Hyderabad in summer?
Answer:

1. Even though it is hotter, we do not sweat as much in Hyderabad.
2. In places near a river or in coastal regions the weather in summer is sweaty.
3. If we are in coastal region in summer we would feel very sweaty in addition to feeling hot winds.
4. That is why Vijaywada is more humid than Hyderabad.

Question 11.
Which region on the globe is very hot and which region is very cold?
Answer:
We know that in the equatorial region it is very hot and in the polar region, it is very cold.

Question 12.
Take a newspaper or watch the TV news and record the maximum and minimum temperature, rainfall, humidity and wind pattern of any 3 cities or towns in a table. Do this over a week.
Answer:

1. Here the maximum temperature recorded over a week in Hyderabad is taken.
2. We will plot the graph.
   
3. Graph showing the variation of maximum temperature during 10-14 Dec. 2011 at Hyderabad.

Question 13.
Collect weather reports of a nearby city from newspapers. Tabulate your Observations for a week and compare them.
Answer:

1. For guidance sample tabular form is given.
2. The student has to perform this activity.
   

Question 14.
Answer the following questions from the data collected.
a) When was the maximum temperature recorded?
b) When was the minimum temperature recorded? Why?
c) Is there any similarity in temperatures between your school and the nearest city?
Answer:
a) …………………………………..
b) …………………………………..
c) …………………………………..

Question 15.
a) Pravin has measured temperature of his village with the help of MMT (Maximum, Minimum thermometer.)
b) He expressed his observations through a graph.
c) The observations are also tabulated.
d) Look into them and answer the following questions.
a) For how many days did Pravin observe the temperature of his village?
b) On which day was the highest temperature recorded?
c) On which days did the lowest temperature fall?
d) Do you find any relation between 10th and 14th of December 2011? What is that?
e) Make a graph with your observations of maximum and minimum temperatures.

Answer:
a) For five days.
b) On 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days the highest temperature was recorded.
c) On the 1st day the lowest temperature fall.
d) There is an increase in temperature and the rise in temperature was maintained for four days.
e) The student can do this activity.

Question 16.
How do you find the direction of the wind? Describe an activity.
Answer:

1. Let us find the direction of wind by using card board pieces and a thin nail.
2. Take two cardboard pieces and cut them the shape of an arrow and paste them together.
   
3. Insert a thin needle or iron wire as shown the figure in the middle of the arrow.
4. The needle must be long enough to be fixed on a strong base and should allow the arrow to move along the direction of the wind.

Question 17.
With the help of an anemometer observe the directions of the wind and tabulate your observations in the table given here.

Now answer the following questions:
a) Does the wind move in the same direction the whole day?
Answer:
The student can answer this by observing the data collected by him / her.
b) In which direction does it move in the morning?
Answer:
This question also can be answered by the student.

Question 18.
What is humidity? Explain it with an activity.
Answer:
Humidity: The quantity of moisture in the air is the ’humidity’ of the place. If the humidity is high when it is hot, we feel sweaty.
Activity:

1. Take about 10 ml. of water in a test tube. Heat it on a Bunsen burner or a candle.
2. When water is heated, it changes into water vapour. The vapour enters into the air.
3. In the same way sea water changes into vapour due to heating by the sun.
4. That water vapour in the atmosphere is the humidity.

Question 19.
What happend during the tsunami in Andaman and Nicobar islands in 2004?
Answer:

1. Many people died during the tsunami in Andaman and Nicobar islands in 2004.
2. But the tribals who observed the ocean moving back and birds making sounds moved away from danger.
3. They could predict the danger and save their lives.

Question 20.
Write a weather report similar to the weather report given in Television.
Answer:

1. Isolated rain or thunder showers are lightly to occur over Chittoor, Nellore, Prakasham and some parts of Kadapa districts.
2. Mainly dry weather will prevail over southern Telangana districts and northern coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh.
3. Sky should be cloudy for the next two days in Kurnool and Ananthapur districts.

Question 20.
Describe a weather report actually given by the department.
Answer:

1. According to meteorological department report 42°C maximum temperature recorded at Ramagundam of Karimnagar district and 29°C minimum temperature recorded at Aarogyavaram of Chittore district.
2. Because of cumulonimbus clouds 2mm of rainfall was recorded in Hyderabad.
3. Scattered rainfall recorded in some parts of interior Rayalaseema.
4. Remaining part of the state was dry.

Question 21.
What is the difference between a weather forecast and a weather report?
Answer:

1. The report that explains future conditions is a weather forecast.
2. The report that explains about past conditions is a weather report.
3. In common conversation we often refer to both as weather report.

Question 22.
What are the weather components?
Answer:
Temperature, rain fall, wind speed, humidity…. etc., are the weather components.

Question 23.
How do farmers estimate the rain fall?
Answer:

1. Farmers estimate the rainfall based on the wetness of the soil after the rain.
2. They call-it as “PADUNU”.
3. This much of rainfall is sufficient to start agriculture activities like ploughing.
4. This is an approximate measure.

Question 24.
Draw the diagram of an Anemometer what is its use?
Answer:
We can measure wind speed and direction with an Anemometer.

Question 25.
Observe features of the following states, and specific places in India from an ATLAS. Try to write down something about the climate in these areas.

State	Climatic Condition
Kerala
Andhra Pradesh
Rajasthan
Jammu & Kashmir
West Bengal

Answer:
The student with the help of the teacher can write something about the climate in those areas.

Question 26.
Describe the climate of our country as per the studies of IMD.
Answer:

1. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) studies climate of our country.
2. Climate describes the weather condition occurring over a relatively longer period of time in a given place.
3. For example in the month of June.
4. We expect the weather to be mild in Bangalore, humid in Kolkata, hot and dry in parts of Rajasthan, cold in Kashmir and rainy in Coastal Kerala.
5. Does it mean that in coastal Kerala it is always rainy in the month of June or if it would be always humid in Kolkata?
6. Nowadays there is a complaint that climate is not as ordered as it was .
7. Seasonal climatic condition do not appear as predictable and known.

Question 27.
How do people adjust to the climate? Why in 2010 Kurnool and other parts in Rayalaseema submerged infloods?
Answer:

1. The people living in an area adjust to the conditions of climate.
2. For example the rain fall has being relatively less for the past two decades.
3. Even in Rayalaseema during rainy season the tanks and canals remain dry.
4. The dried canals and tanks are now used for other purposes.
5. The less rainfall has also led to developing ways to use less water.
6. The change in rainfall pattern shows there may be shifts in climate over long periods of time.
7. In areas which do not have a climate of rain when it rains heavily there is no way to drain out the water.
8. As a result many areas were flooded and submerged in Kurnool in 2010 and also in other parts of Rayalaseema.

Question 28.
How does climate effect our life style?
Answer:

1. Climate mostly effects on our daily life. We change our life style to suit that climate.
2. We wear cotton clothes in summer.
3. We want to drink cool water also.
4. We take care to protect ourselves from rain.
5. We take many precautions we need to take if we were going to visit Kashmir or Ooty during winter.

Question 29.
a) The students of Sanjamala village collected the information about the temperature of their village in 5 days and reported in the table. Observe the table.

Date	Minimum Temperature	Maximum Temperature
0101-2018	20°C	32°C
02-01-2018	19°C	33°C
03:01-2018	20°C	32°C
04-01-2018	20°C	32°C
05-01-2018	18°C	31°C

Answer the following questions:
i) On which day was Maximum Temperature recorded?
ii) On which day was Minimum Temperatrue recorded?
iii) What is the average Minimum Temperature of 5 days?
iv) What changes did you observe in the Temperature?
b) Draw a graph based on the information in the table.
Answer:
a) i) 02-01-2018
ii) 05-01-2018
iii) 19°C
iv) Lowest and highest temperatures.
b)

Question 30.
What aspects should you observe to predict the weather of your village, by watching sky?
Answer:
The time of sunrise and sunset, wind flow, percentage rainfall in that area should be taken into consideration to estimate the type of weather in that given area.

Question 31.
Table showing the variation of maximum and minimum temperature during the period between 10 and 14 September 2017 at Guntur. Based on this draw a graph.
Answer:

Question 32.
Observe the table and write answers for the following questions.

Month	Temperature	Rainfall
May	48°C	0 mm
July	39°C	7 mm
October	37° C	10 mm
November	34°C	15 mm

i) This table indicates ………….
ii) In which month was maximum rainfall recorded?
iii) Least temperature was recorded in which month?
iv) Why is maximum temperature recorded in the month of May?
Answer:
i) The above table tells us about the temperature and rainfall from May to November.
ii) November.
iii) November.
iv) Because May falls in summer.

Question 33.
Observe the below table and write answers for the following questions.

Weather	Day 1	Day 2	Day 3
Maximum temperature	28°C	27°C	29°C
Minimum temperature	21 °C	17°C	21°C
Rainfall	None	Light shower	None
Sky may be	Clear	Cloudy	Cloudy
Wind	Very mild breeze	Mild breeze	Good breeze
Humidity	95%	90%	85%
Sunrise	6.25 a.m.	6.30 a.m.	6.31 a.m.
Sunset	5.40 p.m.	5.40 p.m.	5.41 p.m.

i) What aspects did you see in the weather record?
ii) Rainfall was recorded on which day?
iii) On which day was maximum temperature recorded?
iv) Among these three days, long day is observed on?
Answer:
i) Maximum temperature, minimum temperature, rainfall, sky, air, humidity, sunrise, and sunset.
ii) Second day
iii) Third day
iv) First day

Question 34.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

i) What is the name of the apparatus in the picture?
ii) Name the liquid present in bulb – A.
iii) Name the liquid present in U-shaped tube.
iv) How is it useful in daily life?
Answer:
i) Six’s maximum minimum thermometer
ii) Alcohol
iii) Mercury
iv) To measure the maximum and minimum temperature of a day.

Question 35.
Observe the graph showing rainfall of a place from August to December. Write down the observations from it and answer the following questions.

i) Name the month in which minimum rainfall was recorded.
ii) Name the month in which maximum rainfall was recorded.
iii) Name the months in which less than 50 mm rainfall I was recorded.
iv) In which months was the rainfall recorded more than 50 nun?
Answer:
i) September.
ii) November.
iii) August, September and October.
iv) November and December.

Question 36.
Ritwik observed the temperature of his village and drew the following graph Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

a) How many days does Ritwik observe temperature?
b) On which day the lowest temperature is recorded?
c) In which days does the temperature remain same?
d) What apparatus is used to measure the temperature?
Answer:
a) 5 days.
b) First day
c) 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days.
d) Six’s maximum-minimum thermometer.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Air, Winds and Cyclones

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones

7th Class Science 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you prove that air exerts pressure?
Answer:

1. We know that a bicycle tube or tube of any other vehicle can burst when it is over filled with air.
2. Take a balloon and fill it with air. Keep blowing more and more air into it.
3. The balloon expands and after a point bursts.
4. The reason for the burst is the increase in air pressure inside them.
5. For example a balloon being filled with air, the air filled football that becomes hard, water rising through a hand pump, the tubes of cycle, scooter or car are all due to the pressure exerted by air.

Question 2.
How do you show that air exerts pressure by a simple experiment?
Answer:

1. Take a syringe and draw out its plunger (piston) to the limit.
   
2. Close the nozzle of the syringe with a finger and press the piston.
3. The finger experiences the pressure exerted by air.

Question 3.
What happens on heating air? How is pressure related to this?
Answer:

1. It is important to remember that on heating the air expands and occupies more space.
2. When something occupies more space, it becomes less dense.
3. The warm air is therefore less dense than cold air. Thus smoke and hot air go up.
4. Similar to observations of activities done so far, numerous factors contribute to heat air.
5. When the air rises up, air pressure at the place becomes low and we have many kinds of winds as air comes into occupying areas of lower pressure.
6. The differential heating of land and water by the sun leads to land and sea breeze.

Question 4.
How are land breeze and sea breeze developed?
Answer:

1. The land heats up faster than the sea, so warm air rises over the land during the day as it is warmed by the Sun.
2. At certain times of a year, this can create a sea breeze which is a gentle breeze blowing into the land.
   
3. At night, the land cools faster than the sea, reversing the air flow.
4. This creates a land breeze that blows out to sea.

Question 5.
How are we getting monsoon winds? In which months do they come?
Answer:

1. We have read about the sea breeze and the land breezes.
2. In summer, near the equator the land heats up faster and during the day the temperature of the land is higher than the water in the ocean.
3. The air over the land gets heated and rises.
4. This causes the winds to flow from the oceans towards the land.
5. These are monsoon winds.
6. This is usual during the months of June to September.

Question 6.
How are winds useful in our life?
Answer:

1. The direction of the wind flow gets usually reversed in the months from December to early March.
2. The wind flows from the land to ocean as the sea cools more slowly.
3. The winds from the oceans carry water and bring rains.
4. Farmers in our country depend mainly on rains for their harvests.
5. We can also generate energy from high-speed wind.
6. Thus we can see the usefulness of winds in our life.

Question 7.
Describe how cyclones are formed.
Answer:

1. Tropical cyclones are like giant engines that use warm moist air as fuel.
2. The warm moist air rises upward from near the surface.
3. The warm air rises causing an area of lower air pressure below.
   
4. Air from surrounding areas of high air pressure pushes into the low pressure area.
5. Then this “new” air becomes warm and rises too.
6. As the warm air continues to rise, the surrounding air swirls – into take its place and the water from the sea surface also comes up with the air.
7. As the warmed moist air rises and cools off, the water in the air forms clouds.
8. The whole system of clouds and winds spins and grows, fed by the ocean’s heat and water evaporating from the surface. See the figure.
9. These kinds of satellite images help us to predict the path of the cyclones to some extent.

Question 8.
Write the Do’s and Don ‘ts during cyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones – Do’s and Don’ts:

1. We should not ignore the warnings issued by the meteorological department through T.V., Radio or newspapers: Pass on the information to others and ignore rumors.
2. When a cyclone alert is on for your area, continue normal working but stay alert to the radio warnings.
3. We should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc. to safer places.
4. Switch off electrical mains in your house.
5. Keep ready the phone numbers of all emergency services like police, fire brigade, and medical centres.
6. Pack essentials for yourself and your family to last few days, including medicines, special food for those who would need it. This may include babies and elders.

Question 9.
Write the precautions to be taken before the cyclone.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken before a cyclone:

1. We should be cautious about rumours.
2. If we feel that houses are not safe at the time of cyclone, we have move into a pucca building in the vicinity.
3. We should keep mobile phones in a waterproof bag, fully charged. If we have more than one mobile phone, we have to use one phone at a time, leaving the other phones switched off and using them one after the other to ensure communication to the longest possible period.
4. If we have to vacate the house close the toilet seat with sandbags.
5. We should close the drainage holes to prevent reverse flow of sewage.
6. The trained students should cooperate with the response teams.
7. We should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc. to safer places.

Question 10.
What are the post-cyclone measures?
Answer:
Post cyclone measures :
If you are staying in a cyclone hit area-

1. Strictly avoid any loose and dangling wires.
2. Do not drink water that could be contaminated. Always store drinking water for emergencies.
3. Whenever there is an outbreak of dysentery, we should take tea, decoction and starch solution (Ganji).
4. We should not go near to bunds of tanks, streams, the river banks, fallen trees, buildings, poles and seashores to play or sight-seeing and taking selfies.
5. Cooperate and help your neighbours and friends. First aid should be provided to the injured.
6. At the time of cyclones, some people lose their beloved family members and children or pets. In such situations, we should give assurance, guidance and counselling in order not to go to a depressed state.

Question 11.
Establish the fact that moving air creates low pressure.
Answer:

1. Take a glass and a postcard.
2. Keep the glass on a table and the postcard on the glass.
   
3. Wave our hand or note book above the postcard to displace the air just above the postcard.
4. As the card moves, it moves the air there creating low pressure.
5. Due to this low pressure the card on the glass rises up.
6. It means moving air creates low pressure.

Question 12.
What are the reasons that different areas have different temperatures? How does this help in getting rain?
Answer:

1. Uneven heating takes place on the surface of the earth.
2. We know that regions close to the equator gets more heat from the sun.
3. This is because of the direction of the sunlight being straighter close to the equator.
4. The air in these regions gets warmer.
5. The warm air rises, and the cooler air from the regions in the 0 – 30° latitude belt on either side of the equator moves in.
6. This movement of air sets forth winds that move over the earth.
7. We have also seen that the increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced air pressure and this aids rains.

Question 13.
Do winds cause harm? Explain.
Answer:

1. We are familiar with the word cyclone.
2. During the months of May – June or October – November reports about them can be seen in the Newspapers and TV.
3. This way winds cause harm.

Question 14.
Where do we And air? Explain it with an activity.
Answer:

1. Take a bucket full of water and transparent glass.
2. Take a paper, crumple it into a ball and push it to the bottom of the glass.
3. Invert this glass and immerse it into the bucket of water. Keep the glass straight and press it so that the glass is completely under water.
   
4. Take it out and observe what happens.
5. The paper in the glass did not wet.
6. However if the glass is tilted air in the glass escapes as bubbles through water and water enters the glass.

Question 15.
Describe a simple activity to show the presence of air.
Answer:

1. Fill a bucket with water.
2. Take a bottle with a narrow mouth and immerse it in the bucket till it fills with water.
   
3. During the time the bottle is filling with water bubbles of air come out of the glass.
4. This air is earlier filled in the glass. So the glass is not empty but full of air.
5. Any bottle, glass or any other container that appears empty is actually full of air.
6. Nothing can be added to it unless the air inside is removed.
7. It is only when some air is removed that something else can enter.
8. Air occupies the space around us.

Question 16.
Show by a simple experiment that air expands on heating.
Answer:

1. Take an empty injection bottle and one empty ball point refill.
2. Remove the pin of the refill and insert one of its ends in the cork of the injection bottle as shown in Fig.
3. Put a water drop on the upper end of the refill.
   
4. Rub your hands together so that they become warm.
5. Carefully pick up the bottle and hold it in both your hands for sometime.
6. So that the bottle also becomes warm.
7. The water drop inflate in the refill.
8. This is because air in the bottle expands due to the heat supplied by the hands.

Question 17.
‘Hot air is lighter than cold air’. How do you prove it?
Answer:

1. Take two paper bags or empty paper cups of the same size.
2. Take a broomstick. Hang the two bags in the inverted position on the two ends of the broomstick.
3. Tie a piece of thread in the middle of the stick. Hold the stick by the thread, like a weighing balance.
   
4. Put a burning candle below one of the bags as shown in the figure (b) and observe what happens.
5. Note that we have used paper bags or cups as they are of a light weight and it would be easier to see the results of this experiment if we take any such light objects to hang on the thread.
6. The balance of the bags is disturbed.
7. This proves that hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question 18.
‘Air moves from a region of higher pressure to a lower pressure’. Prove this statement by a simple experiment.
Answer:

1. Take a balloon. Blow air into it. As we fill it up, it expands and it becomes harder to press the walls of the balloon. The inside air exerts pressure on the walls of the balloon.
2. Open the mouth of the balloon slightly. Air from the balloon comes out.
3. We can open the mouth less or more and control the flow of air.
4. The air in the balloon is at high pressure and it goes towards low pressure area.
5. We already know that when air moves, it is called wind. Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.

Question 19.
How can you demonstrate that warm air rises up?
Answer:

1. Take an incense stick (agarbati) and light it. Observe the smoke of the incense stick.
2. When something occupies more space, it becomes less dense. The warm air is therefore less dense than cold air.
3. The smoke rises up indicating that warm air rises up.

Question 20.
Write an activity to prove that moving air creates low pressure.
Answer:

1. Wet the edges of glass and put a postcard on it, and hold it inverted with our left hand as shown in figure and move your right hand or note book to move the air form under the paper.
   
2. Due to the movement of the hand or note book, air there moves fast.
3. This moving air creates low pressure and the postcard is pushed out by the air inside the glass.

Question 21.
Prove by an activity that increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced pressure.
Answer:

1. Take a glass containing water and two straws. Keep one straw in the water and another in horizontal direction as shown in figure and blow through the horizontal straw.
   
2. When you blow over the straw the water comes out due to low pressure which forms inside the straw.
3. So the water from the glass reaches up in the straw due to high pressure.
4. We see that the increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced air pressure.

Question 22.
What is a cyclone? What are the other names for it?
Answer:

1. Cyclones are a form of violent storms on earth.
2. People call these storms by names such as typhoons, hurricanes, etc. depending on where they occur.

Question 23.
What factors contribute to cyclone? When and where do they likely to occur?
Answer:

1. Factors like wind speed, wind direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.
2. In India cyclones usually occur in the month of May – June and October – November.
3. More cyclones tend to occur on the eastern side i.e. towards Bay of Bengal.

Question 24.
What are the effects of cyclone? On what factors the destruction of a cyclone depends?
Answer:

1. Cyclones can be very destructive.
2. The main effects of cyclones include heavy rain and strong wind.
   
3. The destruction of a cyclone depends mainly on its intensity, its size and its location.

Question 25.
What are the steps needed to use a dropper? Explain its functioning.

Answer:
Fig. (a): The air present in the tube of the dropper is removed by pressing the rubber head.
Fig. (b): Putting the open end of the tube of the dropper in water and releasing the pressed rubber head.
Due to low pressure in the tube water enters into it.
Fig. (c): Rubber head is made free from pressing. Water entered in to the tube of the dropper as air there was already sent out.

Question 26.
What is wind?
Answer:

1. The air around us is rarely still. It moves continuously from one direction to another.
2. The movement is in many directions.
3. This is what we call winds.
4. So we know that wind is moving air.

Question 27.
What are the advantages of advanced technology with regard to cyclones? How do you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Advanced Technology has helped and these days we are better protected.
2. In the early part of last century, coastal residents may have had less than a day to prepare or evacuate their homes from an oncoming cyclone.
3. The world today is very different.
4. Thanks to satellites and radars, a cyclone alert or cyclone watch is issued 48 hours in advance of any expected storm and a cyclone warning is issued 24 hours in advance.
5. The message is broadcast every hour or half an hour when a cyclone is near the coast.
6. Information about cyclones will be given by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD).

Question 28.
What are the post cyclone measures we have to take?
Answer:
Post cyclone measures: If you are staying in a cyclone hit area

• Strictly avoid any loose and dangling wires.
• Do not drink water that could be contaminated. Always store drinking water for emergencies.
• Do not go out for the sake of fun.
• Cooperate and help your neighbors and friends.

Question 29.
Observe the experiment and answer the following questions.

1. What happens to the water drop in the refill?
2. Why is the position of water drop changed?

Answer:

1. The water drop inflates in the refill.
2. Because we know that air expands on heating. So. the water drop is moved upwards. Hence, there is a change in the position of the water drop.

Question 30.
Observe the experiment and answer the following question. When two identical, inverted paper bags are hung on a balance, they balance each other as shown in right figure.

i) After a burning candle is placed under one of the bags as shown in the left figure, why is the balance of the bags disturbed?
Answer:
As the air beneath the cup heats up and moves, the cup of the balance raises up.

Question 31.
What measures will you take to protect your village from an approaching cyclone?
Answer:
I would follow the below methods to protect my village during cyclone.

1. I would convey the information of cyclone throughout the village.
2. I would store all the food grains, medicines, first aid things sufficient for a few days.
3. I would help people to move to a safe place.
4. I would make sure to keep a radio and batteries along with me.
5. I would keep necessary phone numbers of fire, police, etc. to get emergency services.
6. I would help people whenever they are in danger.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids and Bases

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 2nd Lesson Acids and Bases

7th Class Science 2nd Lesson Acids and Bases Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the names of food substances that you know in the appropriate column, based on their taste.
Answer:

Sweet	Sour	Bitter	Salty	Spicy
Sugar	Lemon Juice	Bittergourd	Common Salt	Red Mirchi
Custard apple	Apple Juice	Bittergouard Snakegourd	Sea water	Chillies
Jack fruit	Citron Juice	Soapnut	Ground water	Pepper
Mango	Grapes Juice	Bitter Almond	Mixture	Green Chillies
Date fruit	Orange Juice	Bitter Ribbedgourds	Rasam	Bar of Cloves
Papaya	Gooseberry	Bitter Cucumber	Iodised salt	Samosa

Question 2.
Take solutions of some juices of fruits, vegetables, cold drinks and various solutions and test them with blue and red litmus papers. List out results in the table, by marking (S) in the relevant column.
Answer:

Question 3.
How are hydroxides prepared? What is their nature?
Answer:

1. Oxides of Magnesium when dissolved in water form Magnesium Hydroxide.
2. Similarly oxides of Potassium and Sodium form Potassium Hydroxide and Sodium Hydroxide when dissolved in water.
3. All these are basic in nature.
4. They would be soapy when touched.

Question 4.
Classify the substances given in the table under question 2 into the following categories. Acidic substances, Basic substances, and Neutral substances.
Answer:

Question 5.
When do you get a neutral solution from acids and bases?
Answer:
When acids and bases are mixed in definite proportions they give a neutral solution.

Question 6.
How are salts produced? Give an example.
Answer:

1. We have seen in the process of neutralization, both the acidic and the basic qualities are destroyed.
2. Actually when an acid and a base are mixed, a chemical reaction takes place and salts are produced.
3. For example by neutralizing Hydrochloric acid solution with Caustic soda (Sodium Hydroxide) solution, a salt Sodium Chloride is produced.
4. Production of salt depends on the quantity of acid and base by proportion in a very specific manner.

Question 7.
Write the uses of acids, bases and salts.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are indicators? How are they useful?
Answer:

1. The paper strips like litmus paper strips change colour based on the nature of the material put on them.
2. These are all indicators.
3. They tell us whether a substance is acidic or basic.
4. They are used extensively in studying substances and their properties.

Question 9.
Are there any acids apart from natural acids? What are they?
Answer:
Apart from natural acids, there are certain acids like Hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid and Nitric acid etc., that are prepared from minerals.

Question 10.
You might have touched soap water or lime water. How do you feel? What is your conclusion?
Answer:

1. When I have touched soap water and lime water, they are soapy to touch.
2. These substances are basic in nature.

Question 11.
Who discovered Hydrogen? What is its colour?
Answer:

1. Henry Cavendish, an Italian Scientist.
2. He discovered a colourless gas called Hydrogen.

Question 12.
Write the properties of acids and bases from your observations with the experiments done by you.
Answer:

Acids	Bases
1)  Acids are sour to taste. 2)   They react with bases forming salts. 3)   These turn blue litmus red.	1)        Bases are bitter to taste. 2)        They react with acids forming salts. 3)        These turn red litmus blue.

Question 13.
Are all neutral solutions salts? Give examples.
Answer:

1. All neutral solutions are not salt solutions.
2. Sugar or Starches are neutral but they are not salts.

Question 14.
How do you draw a red flower using indicators to get the desired colour?
Answer:

1. We should take some turmeric powder. Add a bit of water to it and prepare turmeric paste.
2. We should rub the turmeric paste on a white paper.
3. And draw a flower on that paper with a pencil.
   
4. Colour the flower with soap water using a brush.
5. We notice that the colour of the flower changes to red.
6. Similarly take some lime water.
7. Add a few drops of it on a piece of turmeric paper.
8. The colour changes to red.

Question 15.
Turmeric paper is a natural indicator, along with turmeric indicator paper, we can also prepare other natural indicators mentioned in the table below. Carry on tests and note your observations.
Answer:

Question 16.
How can you prepare a base by doing a simple experiment?
Answer:

1. We should burn a small piece of Magnesium ribbon by holding it with tongs.
2. Collect the white ash and dissolve it in a little water.
   
3. Touch the solutions formed and test this solution with blue litmus and red litmus.
4. This solution turns red litmus blue.
5. Oxides of Magnesium when dissolved in water form Magnesium Hydroxide.
6. Magnesium Hydroxide is a base.

Question 17.
Take the following substances and test them with Phenolphthalein and Methyl orange solutions. Draw a table and record your observations. Substances Orange, Tomatoes, Baking soda, Mineral water, Vinegar, Saltwater, Shampoo, Washing soda.
Answer:

Question 18.
What changes in colour take place in the indicators Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange when you test with the following substances. Spirit, Saliva, Cucumber, Ridge gourd, Kheera, Buttermilk, Milk.
Answer:

Question 19.
Record your observations when you test the following substances with the indicators Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange.
Substances: Cold drink, Lemon Juice, Grape Juice, Bathing soap, detergent soap, Lime water and Sugar.
Answer:

Question 20.
How can you prepare Hydrogen in the laboratory by a simple experiment? With which test do you confirm the presence of Hydrogen?
Answer:

1. Take a natural acid say lemon juice in six test tubes and add Copper, Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Brass, Aluminium pieces to each one of the test tubes separately.
2. Note the observations.
3. Light a matchstick and introduce it into the test tubes.
4. The gas releasing catches fire with a sound.
5. This gas is Hydrogen. This is the test for the presence of Hydrogen.

Question 21.
How do you prepare carbondioxide? What substances do you need for its preparation? How is it tested?
Answer:
Preparation of carbondioxide:

1. Take lemon juice in two test tubes and add some pieces of marble to one test tube and egg shells to another.
2. Bring a burning match stick near the test tube.
   
3. The flame of the burning match stick is put off.
4. This is due to release of carbon dioxide gas.
5. Pass the gas into lime water. Lime water turns milky white.
6. This is the test for carbondioxide.
   
7. Lemon juice and pieces of marble or egg shells are the substances needed for the preparation of carbondioxide.

Question 22.
When is the solution made by mixing an acid and a base, a neutral solution? Describe a small activity.
Answer:

1. Take a clean test tube using a clean dropper and put 10 drops of Hydrochloric acid carefully in it and also add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator solution.
2. The solution becomes colourless as the indicator phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic medium.
3. Now add Caustic soda solution (whose concentration is equal to Hydrochloric acid) drop by drop to the test tube.
   
4. After each drop shake the test tube well and see if there is any change in the colour of the solution.
5. Keep adding the Caustic soda drop by drop until the colour begins to turn pink.
6. Now the test tube has basic solution.
7. Add one drop of Hydrochloric acid and see if it changes back to its original (colourless) state.
8. If not, then add one more drop of Hydrochloric acid.
9. Keep doing this until the solution in the test tube becomes colourless again.
10. Now the solution in the test tube is neutral. It can be tested with litmus paper.

Question 23.
What are your conclusions from the experiment done in the above question no. 9?
Answer:

1. On the basis of the experiment done above, we can conclude that adding excess of base to acidic solution we can turn acidic solution into basic solution.
2. If we are given basic solution we can similarly convert it into acidic solution.
3. In the above experiment, if we add excess of base (caustic soda) to acidic solution it converts into a base.
4. Similarly we can change base into an acid.

Question 24.
Test the following salt substances with red litmus and blue litmus papers. Record your observations in the table.
Answer:

Salt substance	Effect on Blue litmus paper	Effect on Red litmus paper
Copper sulphate	Turns red	No effect
Common salt	No effect	No effect
Sodium carbonate	No effect	Turns blue

Question 25.
Collect some salt substances with the help of your teacher. Make their salt solutions. Test the salt solutions with blue litmus and red litmus papers. Classify these salts and record your observations in the table.
Answer:

Question 26.
What acids are present in the following substances? Collect the information and write. Substances: Vinegar, Lemon or orange, State cheese Buttered milk or curd, Spinach or Tomato.
Answer:

Acid	Substance
Acetic Acid	Vinegar
Citric Acid	Lemon, Orange
Butyric Acid	Stale cheese
Lactic Acid	Battered Milk, Curd
Oxalic Acid	Spinach, Tomato

Question 27.
You are asked to find out the acids present in the substances, placed in front of you. Write the names of the acids present in them by collecting information from any source available to you.
Substances placed in front of you : Apples, Tea, Olive oil and fats.
Answer:

Acid	Substance
Malic Acid	Apples
Tannic Acid	Tea
Oleic Acid	Olive Oil
Stearic Acid	Fats

Question 28.
Grapes, Palm oil, Amla (emblica fruit) and Urine are put before you. You are asked to give the information about the acids that are present in those substances. Collect the information and record in a table.
Answer:

Acid	Substance
Tartaric Acid	Grapes, Tamarind
Palmtic Acid	Palm Oil
Ascorbic Acid	Amla (emblica fruit)
Uric Acid	Urine

Question 29.
Write the names of some substances that contain bases that we use in our daily life.
Answer:

Substance	Base
Lime Water	Calcium Hydroxide
Glass Cleaners	Ammonium Hydroxide
Soaps	Sodium Hydroxide / Potassium Hydroxide
Milk of Magnesium	Magnesium Hydroxide

Question 30.
Methyl orange and Phenolphthalein are indicators. Collect the information about their colour change in Acid and Basic solutions.
Answer:
Methyl orange gives red colour with acids and yellow colour with bases. Phenol¬phthalein remains colourless in acidic solution while it turns pink in basic solution.

Question 31.
What sort of food do we eat?
Answer:

1. We eat food of different tastes.
2. The food will be a balanced diet.

Question 32.
What kind of tastes do food substances we eat have?
Answer:
Sweet, Sour, Bitter, Salty and Spicy tastes of food we eat.

Question 33.
Do you find any difference in the taste of a ripe and a raw fruit?
Answer:

1. Ripe fruit is sweet to eat.
2. Raw fruit is also sweet to eat but is hard relative to ripe fruit.

Question 34.
Do some substances change their taste when cooked?
Answer:
Some substances change their taste when cooked.

Question 35.
Add sugar to lemon juice. What change do you notice in the taste?
Answer:
The lemon juice becomes sweet to taste when sugar is added.

Question 36.
Is there any difference in the taste without sugar?
Answer:
Without sugar lemon juice will be sour to taste.

Question 37.
Do some substances change colour when added to other substances?
Answer:
Yes. Some substances change colour when added to other substances.

Question 38.
Have you observed any change when lime water is added to turmeric?
Answer:
When lime water is added to turmeric the colour changed to red.

Question 39.
What are indicators?
Answer:
Those substances that indicate a change in colour when some substances are added to them are known as indicators.

Question 40.
How do you prepare lime water? In what way is this useful to you in day to day life?
Answer:

1. Take half a beaker full of water. Add about 5 gm of lime that we apply to betel leaves.
2. Stir the beaker well and let it stand overnight.
3. Filter this solution the following day.
4. This filtrate is lime water. This solution should be transparent.
5. We use this filterate in our experiments.
6. Lime is used when we consume betel leaves.

Question 41.
You are given a substance. What do you do to identify it as an acid, a base or neutral in nature?
Answer:

1. The substance that turns blue litmus to red is acidic in nature.
2. The substance that is soapy to touch and turns red litmus to blue is basic in nature.
3. If the substance given did not change the colour of either blue or red litmus, then it is said to be neutral in nature.

Question 42.
Take things which are sour in taste and used as food. Eg. Curd, lemon juice. If you check these substances with blue and red litmus what happens?
Answer:

1. When a drop of curd is put on blue litmus paper the colour changed to red indicating the acidic nature of curd.
2. When a drop of lemon juice is put on the blue litmus paper, the colour of the paper changed to red indicating the acidic nature of lemon juice.

Question 43.
Why have you experienced a burning sensation when bitten by an ant?
Answer:

1. I have experienced a burning sensation when bitten by an ant.
2. The sensation is due to the presence of formic acid that the ant releases.

Question 44.
How is it possible to make-believe Blood comes out of a lemon?
Answer:

1. When a magician or a juggler cuts a lemon, blood flows out of it. Actually, he uses a knife dipped in Methyl Orange or hibiscus solution to cut the lemon.
   
2. When Methyl Orange is mixed with citric acid (lemon juice) it turns red.
3. But it is not blood.
4. In many of our places we find people doing this and presenting it as magic.

Question 43.
Why are the inner sides of vessels made up of brass and copper coated?
Answer:

1. When some substances are kept in a copper container for a long time then a blue-green layer is formed in the inner walls of the container.
2. Copper reacts with the acids present in the substances and forms a blue-green compound.
3. To avoid this reaction the inner walls of these vessels are coated with Tin.

Question 44.
Why are pickles, jams, jellies preserved in glass, porcelain and plastic containers?
Answer:

1. The acidic or basic nature of the substances pickles, jams, jellies react with the material of the containers if they are preserved in metallic containers.
2. These corrode the metal of the container.
3. To avoid this these are preserved in glass, porcelain or plastic containers.
4. The material of these containers do not react with the substances preserved.

Question 45.
Ravi said that acid rains are causing damage. Do you agree with his statement?
What are acid rains? Where do you witness such rains in our state?
Answer:
Yes. I agree with his statement because

1. Acid rains are the combination of Carbonic acid, Sulphuric acid and Nitric acid with rain water.
   
2. Acid rains cause damage to buildings and to our skin.
3. Industrial waste gases contain Sulphur dioxide,
   Nitrogen Oxide, Carbon dioxide.
4. When they get mixed with moisture they change to acids.
5. Acid rains are also witnessed in our State in the Visakhapatnam district.

Question 46.
You are given Hydrochloric acid. How can you make it into a solution which is neither acidic nor basic?
Answer:

1. 10 drops of Hydrochloric acid is taken in a clean test tube.
2. A drop of methyl orange indicator input is that acid in the test tube.
3. The colour of the solution becomes red due to the indicator.
4. With the help of a dropper carefully drop drops of caustic soda into the test tube and shake it.
5. When an additional drop is put in the solution, the colour changes to yellow, indicating that the solution becomes a base.
6. If we add only one drop of Hydrochloric acid in the test tube, the colour of the solution almost disappears indicating that the solution in the test tube is neutral.

Question 47.
You are asked to make the given caustic soda solution into neither acidic nor basic. What would you do?
Answer:

1. In a clean test tube 10 drops of caustic soda solution is taken.
2. One drop of Methyl orange indicator is added to it.
3. The solution turns to yellow colour indicating that the solution is basic in nature.
4. With the help of a dropper drops of hydrochloric acid are added to the solution in the test tube.
5. By the drop of a drop of Hydrochloric acid in the process, the yellow colour of the solution disappears.
6. The solution in the test tube is now neutral in nature.

Question 48.
Why is the use of natural organic manure becoming more preferred?
Answer:

1. In recent years the use of chemical fertilizers has increased.
2. Though the use of chemical fertilizers increases production it changes the nature of the soil.
3. Some fertilizers increase the acidity of the soil and some its basicity.
4. Thus use of natural organic manure is becoming more preferred these days.

Question 49.
Why is our sweat like salt?
Answer:

1. Our body needs many types of salts.
2. We lose some salts through excretion.
3. So sweat is salty.

Question 50.
Charitha sprinkled lime water on turmeric idol. It turned into red colour. Guess and write the reasons.
Answer:
Turmeric is a natural indicator. When we sprinkle lime water (calcium hydroxide) which is a base, turmeric indicates red colour in the basic medium.

Question 51.
If Hibiscus, Turmeric, Rose petals are given to you, mention the use of the above materials for investigating Acids and Bases in the school lab. MiiKiitaa
Answer:
Rose, turmeric and hibiscus are natural indicators. Hence, we can use them to identify the chemical nature of different substances.

Question 52.
a) You have tested the following materials with litmus paper. Fill the table according to that and answer the following questions.

b) In the above table
Acids are: ……………….
Bases are: ……………….
Neutral solutions are: ……………….
Answer:

From the above table
The Acids are – Lemon juice, Grape juice and Orange.
The Bases are – Lime water, Soap water.
The Neutral solutions are – Milk, Sugar solution and Salt water.

Question 53.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

i) Which substances will change blue litmus to red?
ii) Which substances will change red litmus to blue?
iii) Which substances will not be affected by blue litmus or red litmus?
iv)What kind of substances are litmus papers?
Answer:
i) Acids like orange juice, vinegar turn blue litmus red.
ii) Basic substances like baking soda solution turn red litmus blue.
iii) Sugar solution will not be affected by either red litmus or blue litmus.
iv) Litmus papers are called indicators.

Question 54.
Burn a small piece of Magnesium ribbon by holding it with tongs.

Collect the white ash formed and dissolve it in little water.
Test the solution formed with blue litmus and red litmus.
Now answer the the questions given below,
i) What is the aim of this experiment?
ii) Is the composition of the ash formed different from Magnesium ribbon? If so, how?
iii) What substance is formed when the ash is mixed with water?
iv) What inference can be made on the basis of this experiment?
Answer:
i) To test the effect of basic substances on red litmus paper.
ii) Yes, the substance formed after burning looks like ash.
iii) Magnesium Hydroxide.
iv) Basic substances (or) Magnesium Hydroxide.

Question 55.
Observe the experiment and answer the following questions.
Mix a spoon of vinegar and a pinch of baking soda in a test tube. Pass the gas that is released into another test tube containing lime water as shown here.
i) What is the aim of this experiment?
ii) Name the apparatus used to conduct this experiment.
iii) Name the gas released in the test tube that on mixing vinegar with baking soda.
iv) What is the change observed in the lime water on passing the gas?
Answer:
i) Test tubes, rubber cork, delivery tube.
ii) Vinegar, baking soda, water, lime water.
iii) Carbon dioxide.
iv) Lime water turns milky.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Sector	Employment (%) 2011-12	Gross Domestic Product (%) 2011-12
Agriculture	49	16
Industry	24	26
Services	27	58

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Sectors	Employment (%)
	1972 – 73	2009 -10
Agriculture	74	53
Industrial	11	22
Service	15	25

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Year	Agriculture	Industry	Services
1972-73	74%	11%	15%
2008-09	53%	22%	25%

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Intermediate goods	Final goods
1. These goods are meant for further production.	1. These are used for final consumption.
2. These are not included in GDP.	2. These are included in GDP.

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Service Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Sector	Employment
Agriculture	53%
Industry	22%
Service	25%

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Organised Sector Center	Unorganised Sector Center
1. It has some formal processes and procedures.	1. It has small and scattered units largely outside the control of government.
2. It gives security of employment.	2. Rules and regulations are not enforced here.
3. It has fixed number of work hours, overtime will be paid by the employer.	3. Jobs here are low-paid and non-regular.
4. It provides paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, medical benefits, etc.	4. There is no provision of overtime, paid leave, holidays leave due to sickness, etc.
5. It also ensures pensions.	5. When there is less work, some people are asked to leave.
6. It has workers of government, companies and large establishment.	6. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer or changes in the market situation.

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Sectors	2012	2013	2014	2015	2016	2017
Agriculture	16.85%	17.15%	16.79%	16.17%	16.28%	15.45%
Industry	29.4%	28.4%	27.66%	27.22%	26.58%	26.16%
Services	46.3%	46.7%	47.82%	47.91%	47.88%	48.93%

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

Sector	Employment (%)		Gross Domestic Product (%)
	1972- 73	2009-10	1972-73	2009-10
Agriculture	74%	53%	43%	17%
Industry	11%	22%	22%	26%
Services	15%	25%	35%	57%

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Services Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 11 Respiration in Organisms

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 11th Lesson Respiration in Organisms

7th Class Science 11th Lesson Respiration in Organisms Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is breathing?
Answer:
The process by which air goes in and out of our body is called breathing.

Question 2.
What is inspiration and expiration ?Explain the term ‘respiration rate’.
Answer:

1. The process of breathing in air is called inspiration and that of breathing out air is called expiration.
2. The number of times we breathe in and breathe out air in a minute is called the respiration rate.

Question 3.
What does our breath contain?
Answer:

1. We know that we inhale and exhale air.
2. The exhaled air is warm and has moisture in it.
3. What we do not know is about the gases our body takes from the inhaled air and throws out in exhaled air.
4. We know that air is a mixture of several gases not only Oxygen and Carbon dioxide, there are others as well. Air also contains several suspended particles.
5. We inhale all these.
6. We exhale Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Nitrogen and other gases.

Question 4.
How does a fish breathe?
Answer:

1. Observe fishes in an aquarium. Fishes continuously open and close their mouth in water.
2. Why do the flaps on both sides of the head alternately open and close?
   
3. If you look below the flaps, you will see gills. These are the respiratory organs of the fish.
4. The water that enters the mouth flows through both the gills as it comes out of the flaps.
5. The gills absorb the oxygen that is dissolved in the water. This oxygen is carried to different parts of the body.

Question 5.
Describe how does a frog take its breathe.
Answer:

1. We know that frog is able to stay on land, in water and even underground.
2. To breathe on land it has lungs while it goes deep underground and sleeps twice every year, its moist skin takes over the function of its lungs.
   
3. In baby frogs or tadpoles there are special organs like that of fishes called gills.
4. These gills help them to breathe in water by taking in the air dissolved in water.
5. Tadpoles of the frog live only in water but the frog lives either on land or in water. Sometimes you may see frogs under the soil also.
   

Question 6.
Explain the breathing process in cockroach.
Answer:

1. A cockroach has small openings on the sides of its body.
2. Other insects have similar openings.
   
3. On the underside of the cockroach in each segment, there are small holes which are connected through respiratory tubes in a network.
4. These help the cockroach to breathe. These holes are called spiracles.
5. The network of respiratory tubes called trachea take air from these spiracles, circulate it throughout the body, collect it back and send it out through these spiracles.
   
6. To know more about this process you may observe a live cockroach by keeping it covered by a transparent bottle or glass.

Question 7.
Describe how does an earthworm breathe.
Answer:

1. Earthworms breathe through their skin.
2. It is thin and moist with minute holes.
   
3. Through the skin, air passes in and out.
4. The earthworm thus breathes through its whole body surface.

Question 8.
How do plants respire?
Answer:

1. In human beings gaseous exchange with the surroundings takes place through nose and mouth.
2. We know the parts in plants that help in gaseous exchange.
3. They are stomata present on surface of leaves and lenticels present on the surface of stems.
4. They respire through them.

Question 9.
At what time plants respire and photosynthesize?
Answer:

1. In day time plants respire as well as photosynthesize.
2. At night only part of the process of photosynthesis takes place and carbon dioxide is not used up completely by this process.
3. Respiration continues at night also.

Question 10.
What is use of oxygen in hospitals?
Answer:

1. You may have heard of big hospitals keeping cylinders filled with oxygen.
2. When a person has breathing problems he is given oxygen.
3. An oxygen mask is fitted to the nose and mouth of the person and a rubber tube connects the mask to the oxygen cylinder.
4. Sometimes a patient is given oxygen during an operation.

Question 11.
In your opinion does the expiration rate increase or decrease after exercising?
Answer:

1. The air we breathe in fills our lungs that are located in our chest.
2. Exercise and running increase the rate of our breathing.

Question 12.
What happens to your chest when you take a breath?
Answer:

1. Take a length of twine or a measuring tape. Wrap the tape around the chest of one of your friends and measure the width of her / his chest.
   
2. Hold the tape lightly and ask your friend to breathe in and out deeply a few seconds.
3. You find that the chest expands when air is inhaled, it reaches the lungs and chest expands.

Question 13.
What is the difference between inhaled and exhaled air?
Answer:

1. Exhaled air is warm and contains moisture and carbon dioxide.
2. Inhaled air is at room temperature and contains oxygen along with other gases.

Question 14.
How long a person can hold his / her breath? How do you find?
Answer:

1. Use a watch with a seconds needle to time our breathing.
2. If we don’t have a watch, then practice counting at a uniform rate.
   
3. We can measure the time by counting.
4. Close our mouth and close our nose with our fingers so that air cannot pass through it.
5. We can find the time for how long could we keep our mouth and nose closed.

Question 15.
How many breathes do you have in a minute?
Answer:

1. Hold a finger under the nose of one of your friends.
2. The side with the fingernail should face the nostrils.
   
3. Ask your friend to breathe in and out normally.
4. When your friend exhaled your finger felt the warmness of the air.
5. Using this method you can find out how many times your friend inhales and exhales in a minute.

Question 16.
How much air do you breath? Do a simple activity to know it?
Answer:

1. Make a measuring cylinder with a two-litre plastic bottle and 100 ml injection bottle.
2. To do this, pour 100 ml of water at a time in the bottle and mark the water level after each addition.
3. Now fill the bottle to the brim and invert it in a bucket or a large container of water.
4. But remember, no air bubbles should remain in the bottle after you invert it.
   
5. Insert one end of a rubber tube into the mouth of the bottle under water.
6. Hold the other end of the tube in your hand. Inhale as much air as you can and blow the air into the measuring cylinder through the rubber tube.
7. Don’t breathe in while blowing the air out.
8. Blow out as much air as you can in a single breath.
9. This air will collect in the measuring cylinder.
10. As a result,-the water level in the cylinder will fall.
    The reduction in water level is equal to the air you breath.

Question 17.
How do you find the gases that are present in our breath? Describe the activity you perform.
Answer:

1. Set up the apparatus shown in Figure (a) for this experiment. Be careful while inserting the glass tube in the cork. It could break. So take the help of your teacher to do this.
   
2. Fill both boiling tubes one fourth with phenolphthalein solution. Mark them A and B.
3. Now repeatedly blow in and suck out air in this apparatus as shown in Figure (b).
   
4. Note the boiling tube in to which air flows when you suck in air.
5. Note the boiling tube through which air flows out when you blow out air.
6. You find that there is a difference between inhaled air and exhaled air.
7. Repeat the experiment by replacing the boiling tubes with lime water filled one fourth in them.
8. You will find that the lime water in the tube through which exhaled air passed turned milky.
9. This indicates that the exhaled air contains carbon dioxide.
10. The table given here under shows the components in the inhaled air and exhaled air.
    

Question 18.
How can you find out the respiration in plants by an experiment?
Answer:

1. Take a conical flask. Fit a two-holed rubber cork tightly into its mouth and insert glass tubes into the two holes.
2. Fit a rubber tube on one of the glass tubes and a funnel on the other. If the funnel does not sit tightly on the glass tube, make a funnel with an ink dropper.
3. Fill a test tube about one-fourth with lime water and dip the rubber tube into it.
4. Now add water to the funnel drop by drop. Keep adding water till the conical flask is filled one-fourth with water. Observe the test tube carefully while you add water.
5. You find no change in the colour of lime water.
6. Now remove the water from the conical flask and put some flowers and buds in it. Fit a cork on the flask and let it stand for half an hour.
7. Now add water drop by drop to the conical flask through the funnel as you did in the previous experiment. Look carefully at the test tube while doing so.
8. The lime water turns milky indicating the release of carbon dioxide.
9. This is how plants respire. They take oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

Question 19.
How do you find respiration in sprouted seeds?
Answer:

1. Take sprouted seeds is the conical flask.
2. Pour water drop by drop in to the funnel through the funnel.
   
3. The released gases are allowed to pass through lime water.
4. Lime water turns milky indicating the release of carbon dioxide.
5. Sprouted seeds respire taking oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.

Question 20.
Write a note on the discovery of carbon dioxide.
Answer:

1. The first step towards trying to find out what air contained was carried out by Von Helmont.
   
2. He conducted an experiment of burning charcoal which leads to the formation of ash.
3. He found the weight of ash to be much less as compared to charcoal.
4. On the basis of this, he concluded that the decrease in mass was due to the formation of an invisible substance which he named “gas”.
5. In the year 1756, Joseph Black studied this gas in more detail.
   
6. He found that when limestone is heated or reacted with acids, it gives rise to a gas which he called “fixed air”.
7. He studied several properties of this gas. One of the properties was, lime water turned milky when this gas was passed through it.
8. Now we know this gas as carbon dioxide.

Question 21.
How is oxygen discovered? Write the history of its discovery.
Answer:

1. After nearly two decades of discovery of carbon dioxide, oxygen was discovered.
2. Joseph Priestley, published his“Experiments and observations on different kinds of air” and was the first to prove the different qualities of the gases released by plants and the one’s exhaled by animals (mice).
   
3. He discovered that, although a candle burned out in a closed container, when he added a living sprig of mint to the container, the candle would continue to burn.
4. At the time, Priestley did not know of Oxygen, but he correctly concluded that the mint sprig “restored” the air that the burning candle (or mice which he used in a similar set of experiments) had spoiled.
5. Priestley shared his observations with Lavoiser.
   
6. Lavoiser had also conducted several experiments on atmospheric air and knew that it contained many gases, and he identified Priestley’s discovery as the active component of air for which he had been searching.
7. He called it oxygen (Greek: acid former), in the belief that all acids contained it.

Question 22.
Do plants respire?
Answer:

1. Plants respire like us.
2. But it is difficult to observe this through experiments.
3. Both plants and animals use oxygen during respiration.

Question 23.
Read the table and answer the following questions.

Respiratory organ	Name of the organism
Gills	Fish, Tadpole
Skin	Frog, Earthworm
Trachea	Scorpion, Cockroach, Grasshopper
Lungs	Frog, Hen, Man

1. Which animals respire through the trachea?
2. Why does fish respire only in water?
3. In how many ways does frog respire?
4. Give some more examples for animals that respire with lungs.

Answer:

1. Scorpion, Cockroach, Grasshopper.
2. Gills are the respiratory organs of the fish. The gills absorb the oxygen that is dissolved in water. Hence, fish respire only in water.
3. Gills, Lungs, Skin.
4. Frog, Monkey, Man.

Question 24.
Name the respiratory organs of the following animals,
a) Fish b) Earthworm
Answer:
a) Fish ——– Gills.
b) Earthworm ——– Skin.

Question 25.
Read the table. Answer the questions given below.

Gases	Available in Inhaled gas (ml)	Available in Exhaled gas (ml)
Oxygen	210	165
Carbon dioxide	0.4	40
Nitrogen	790	795

a) Which gas is more in inhaled air?
b) What changes do you observe in the percentage of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air? Where does it come from?
c) How much Oxygen is retained in our body?
d) Which gas is more useful in our respiration process?
Answer:
a) Nitrogen
b) The volume of carbon dioxide is increased. CO₂ is released during respiration.
c) 45 ml
d) Oxygen.

Question 26.
Latha’s teacher conducted an experiment in the classroom. Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

1. What is the aim of this experiment?
2. Which equipment is required to conduct this experiment?
3. Which gas is released during the experiment?
4. What other material can be used in this experiment instead of seeds?

Answer:

1. To prove that respiration takes place in plants.
2. Conical flask, a two-holed rubber cork, test tube, funnel, rubber tube and lime water.
3. CO₂ (Carbon dioxide)
4. Moong, Bengal gram.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Electricity – Current and Its Effect

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect

7th Class Science 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Series and Parallel electric circuits?
Answer:
A) Series circuits:

1. In a series circuit, electricity has only one path to flow through.
2. All the electrical components are connected in this path.
3. If any one of them is removed or is not functioning properly, the circuit will be incomplete.

B) Parallel circuits:

1. A parallel circuit has more than one path for the flow of electricity.
2. Each bulb in the circuit is connected in a separate path through which electricity can flow.

Question 2.
Describe the effect of connecting electrical cells in series. How would you connect them in series?
Answer:
Connecting Electrical cells in series:

1. Take a dry cell and torch bulb.
2. Connect the bulb to a cell using copper wires shown in figure-a. Observe the intensity of light.
   
3. Now take one more dry cell and connect two cells as shown in figure-b.
   
4. In this method the positive terminal of the first cell and the negative terminal of the second cell are connected to the bulb.
5. .When the cells are connected in series more electricity flows in the circuit and the bulb glows with greater brightness.

Question 3.
Describe the connection of cells in parallel. Draw the circuit diagram also.
Answer:
Connecting Electric Cells in Parallel:

1. Take three dry cells and connect them as shown in figure-a.
   
2. That is all the positive terminals of the three cells are connected together and all the three negative terminals are connected together.
3. These three positives and three negatives are connected together to a bulb.
4. There is no difference in the intensity of the bulb glow compared to that in the case of only one cell.
   

Question 4.
How are electric bulbs connected in series? Where do you find such connections in your daily life? What is the disadvantage with this arrangement?
Answer:
Connecting electric bulbs in series:

1. Connect three torch bulbs in series as shown in figure.
   
2. Connect this to a dry cell. Observe the brightness of each of the three bulbs.
3. Now connect one more dry cell in series with the first cell.
4. Observe the brightness of each of the bulb.
5. Then connect one more dry cell in series with the first two cells. Again observe the bulbs. The brightness of the bulbs increases with the addition of cells.
6. In series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs in the series will stop glowing.
7. It means that if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs do not glow. This is the disadvantage.
8. This can be observed in serial bulbs used in decorative items at the time of marriages and other festivals.

Question 5.
a) How are electric bulbs connected in parallel?
b) What is, the advantage with this type of connection?
c) Where do you find such connections?
Answer:
Connecting bulbs in parallel:
a)

1. Connect three bulbs in parallel as shown in figure.
   
2. That is, one end of each of the three bulbs are connected to one wire.
3. The other ends of the three bulbs are connected to another wire.
4. These two wires are connected to a cell. All the three bulbs glow dimly.
5. Now disconnect one of the bulbs.

b)

1. It means that if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs continue to glow.
2. This is the advantage with this type of connection.
3. This can be observed in our household electric circuit. All components in our houses are connected in parallel.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of using tube lights and compact fluorescent lamps.
Answer:

1. Wastage of electricity can be reduced by using fluorescent tube lights in place of the bulbs, as shown in figure, (a).
   
2. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFLs) shown in figure, (b) also reduces wastage and can be fixed in ordinary bulb holders.
   
3. The ISI mark of a lamp ensures that the appliance is safe.

Question 7.
What is an electric fuse? Explain its importance. How does it work?
Answer:
Electric Fuses:

1. When excessive electric current flows through a circuit the wires or the appliances may get heated and can catch fire.
2. To avoid fire, a safety device known as a fuse is connected in series in the circuit.
3. A fuse is a small piece of wire as shown in figure.
   
4. It is made of a special alloy that gets heated quickly and melts.
5. If the current in the circuit is too high, the fuse wire gets hot and melts.
6. This leaves a gap in the circuit. Automatically the circuit is broken and flow of electricity is stopped.
7. This protects appliances from getting burnt due to the passage of too large a current through them.

Question 8.
What is a Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB)? What is its advantage? For which mark should we look at it?
Answer:
Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB):

1. These days Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) is increasingly being used in place of fuses.
2. These are switches which automatically turn off when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.
3. It has a switch which goes OFF automatically if there is overheating.
   
4. This breaks the circuit. If we turn them on, the circuit is once Miniature Circuit again complete.
5. The advantage miniature circuit breakers have over fuses is that they can be reset (manually or automatically) to restore normal operation, whereas fuses need to be replaced after every single operation.
6. The MCB can be reset by hand and the circuit becomes complete once again.
7. Look for ISI mark on MCBs.

Question 9.
What are the inventions of Michael Faraday?
Answer:
Michael Faraday (1791-1867): Michael Faraday observed that by moving a magnet in and out of a coil we can make electric current flow through the coil. Using this he built the first electric generator or dynamo in 1831. He also invented the transformer.

Question 10.
What is the importance of symbols? What role do they play in our life?
Answer:

1. We know about symbols. We do indicate to our teacher that we wish to go out to drink water.
2. We know the signs for addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
3. We might have used the symbols for ‘greater than’, ‘less than’, ‘equal to’ etc.
4. Symbols play an important role in our life.
5. They convey precise meaning with few descriptions.
6. Some common electric components can be represented by standard symbols.

Question 11.
What happens to the electric bulb when the current is passed?
Answer:

1. The bulb becomes hot when we put it on for some time.
   
2. It is the filament of the bulb that heats up due to current flowing through it.

Question 12.
What do you understand by the term ‘the filament of an electrical appliance’?
Answer:

1. We have seen an electric iron, electric cooker and electric heater.
   
2. All these contain a coil of wire made up of Nichrome.
3. This coil is called a filament of the appliance.

Question 13.
What happens when electrical appliances like electric iron, electric heater etc., are switched on?
Answer:

1. We have noticed that when these appliances electric heater, electric iron are switched on, their filaments become red hot and give out heat.
2. The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on its materials, length and thickness.
3. Thus, for different requirements, the wires of different materials, lengths and thicknesses are used.

Question 14.
What happens when an electric current passes through wires used for making electric circuits and through the elements of some electric appliances?
Answer:

1. The wires used for making electric circuits do not normally become hot.
2. On the other hand, the elements of some electric appliances become so hot that they are easily visible.
3. The filament of an electric bulb gets heated to such a high temperature that is starts glowing and giving out light.

Question 15.
Describe how can you make your own cell. Explain how do you test the working condition of that cell.
Answer:

1. We will need a few things to make a cell.
2. First get two injection bottles. Then cut two 3 cm long bits of thick copper wire. Use sandpaper to scrape about 1 cm of the coating off both ends of the wires.
3. Break open a discharged dry cell and remove its outer metal covering (made of Zinc). Cut two 2 mm wide and 3 cm long strips from this zinc plate.
4. Insert the copper wires and zinc strips separately into the rubber caps of the injection bottles as shown in Fig.
   
5. Ensure that the copper wires and zinc strips do not touch each other.
6. Now take a wire and connect the zinc plate of one bottle with the copper wire of the other bottle.
7. Fill both bottles with sulphuric acid. Carefully close the bottles with the caps in which the copper wires and zinc strips are inserted.
8. The cell is ready. To test its working take a LED.
9. Attach two wires to its two terminals. Touch the wire from one terminal to the copper wire of the first bottle and the wire from the other terminal to the zinc plate of the second bottle.
10. The LED lights up. It means the cell is working.

Question 16.
What can you see inside a dry cell when it is cut open?
Answer:

1. With the help of your teacher cut open a dry cell.
   
2. Observe the chemical components in the dry cell.
3. Inside a dry cell there are certain chemicals which react with one another to produce electric energy.

Question 17.
Think of the main use of electrical appliances and write their names in a table.
Answer:

Question 18.
How is electricity supplied to our houses ? Are we getting it free of cost?
Answer:

1. Most of the electricity that we use at home and at school is alternating current.
2. The main electricity that is supplied to our houses comes from power stations and sub-stations distribute electricity.
3. Electricity is not free of cost.
4. We have to pay for it according to how much we consume.

Question 19.
How can you know the current consumed in your house?
Answer:

1. We notice that a person belonging to the electricity department, the meter reader, visits houses every month and takes the meter readings.
   
2. If we look at the meter in our house we will notice a wheel that goes around and the numbers in the window keep changing.
3. Modern meters have digital displays.

Question 20.
What does the term ’one unit’ mean? How is the usage of electricity measured?
Answer:

1. If we look at the bulbs used in our home, we will notice that they are marked in watts 25 W, 40W, 60W, 100W.
2. The wattage measures how ‘powerful’ the bulb is.
3. The brighter the bulb, the higher its wattage and the more the electricity used by it.
4. 1 kilowatt (KW) is 1000 watts (W).
5. When any appliance of 1 Kilo Watt is used for one hour, it uses up one Kilo Watt – hour (KWH) or ‘one unit’ of electricity.
6. If it runs for two hours it will use up two units of electricity.

Question 21.
Draw a neat diagram of the dry cell and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 22.
Describe the construction of a dry cell.
Answer:
Description of a dry cell:

1. A dry cell consists of a container made up of zinc metal.
2. The container also serves as the negative terminal in the centre.
3. A carbon (graphite) rod with a metal cap serves as a positive terminal.
4. The carbon rod is surrounded by a mixture of carbon particles and a chemical called ammonium chloride.
5. The cell is sealed from the top.
6. The dry cell can supply electric current in a circuit for a certain time.
7. After that/its chemicals get exhausted and it cannot be used any more.
8. Dry cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

Question 23.
Write the symbols of some common electric components and describe their use.
Answer:

Question 24.
Draw a simple switch to close the circuit. For that draw the circuit diagram.
Answer:

1. See figure (a). A bulb, battery and switch are connected as shown.
2. Can we make this drawing simpler using symbols ?
3. The picture of circuit using symbols is called a circuit diagram.
4. Figure (b) shows a circuit diagram of the same circuit as shown in figure (a).

Question 25.
What is a circuit diagram? Explain it appreciating the simplification.
Answer:
Circuit Diagram: The picture of a circuit using symbols is called a circuit diagram.

1. There should be a source, which is one or more electric cells (battery).
2. The switch can be placed anywhere in the circuit. If the switch is in the ON position, the circuit is complete from the positive terminal of the battery to its negative terminal.
   
3. The circuit is then said to be closed and the current flows throughout the circuit constantly.
4. The wires should not have any discontinuity (gaps).
5. When the switch is in the OFF position, the circuit is incomplete. It is said to be open. No current flows through any part of the circuit.
6. Observe the sequence in which the cell, bulb and switch are connected in the circuit.
7. The sequence of components is as follows:
   Positive terminal of the cell → Wire → Switch → Wire → Bulb → Wire → Negative terminal of the cell

Question 26.
Why does the bulb glow brighter and brighter when electric cells are connected in series?
Answer:

1. The electricity can flow through one path when electric cells are connected in series.
2. Addition of a cell in such a circuit adds strength to the electricity flowing.
3. As more electricity flows into the bulb its glow becomes brighter.

Question 27.
Does electric bulb in your house glow with dry cell? Why?
Answer:

1. The electric bulb in our house does not glow with dry cell.
2. The electric bulb in our houses glows with the supply of A.C. at high voltage.
3. Dry cell supplies only D.C. at a low voltage.

Question 28.
Are the cells used in a torch light and wrist watch the same?
Answer:
They are not the same.

Question 29.
What is the reason for connecting electric bulbs in parallel in household electric appliances?
Answer:

1. In the house every bulb should glow independently without depending upon the working condition of other bulbs.
2. This is possible only with parallel connection.
3. So electric bulbs or electric appliances are connected in parallel in household electric connections.

Question 30.
How do we get a battery?
Answer:
By connecting small cells in series we get a battery.

Question 31.
The meter reading in Ayub’s house in January is 400 units, February 580 units. Calculate how much his parents would have to pay towards electricity bill of February. The unit cost is Rs. 3.05.
Answer:

Reading on January 1st	400 Units
Reading on February 1st	580 Units
Number of units Electricity Used	180 Units
Cost per unit	Rs. 3.05/-
Total Amount to be paid	180 × 3.05 = 549/­

Question 32.
Suppose in a house there are four bulbs of 100 W each, six of 60 W each and six of 40 W each. All of them are used for two hours a day. How many units of electricity will be used up in 30 days? How much will they have to pay at Rs. 2.80/- per unit.
Answer:

1. Total power used = (4 × 100 W) + (6 × 60 W) + (6 × 40 W) = 1000 W = 1 KW
2. Total power used every day = 2 hrs × 1 KW = 2 KWH
   In 30 days, power used = 2 × 30 KWH = 60 KWH
3. The cost of the power is = Rs. 2.80 × 60 = Rs. 168/-

Question 33.
Why should we use electricity carefully and only when needed?
Answer:

1. Our country faces a shortage of electricity.
2. So wasting electricity means we are depriving someone else of electricity.
3. Our bill also goes up.
4. So use electricity carefully and only when it is needed.

Question 34.
a) Look at the diagram, correct it and redraw.

b) Guess the reasons why the bulb did not glow in the circuit.
Answer:
a)

b)

1. The wires are not properly connected.
2. The battery lost its efficiency
3. The battery is not set properly.
4. The bulb has lost its filament.

Question 35.
Fill the table with suitable symbol of electric components listed in the table.

Answer:

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Motion and Time

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 4th Lesson Motion and Time

7th Class Science 4th Lesson Motion and Time Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give few examples of motion you observe in day to day life.
Answer:

1. Motion is a common experience in our life. We observe birds flying in air, buses, autos, cars, bullock carts, moving on roads, trains on railway tracks and many other objects around us in motion.
2. Apart from observing motions of objects around us, we ourselves experience motion while we are walking, running, playing, riding a bicycle etc.
3. Similarly, we observe many objects like trees, buildings, display boards, electric poles etc., at rest while we walk to school.

Question 2.
How do you explain the terms motion and rest? Give an illustrative answer.
Answer:

1. We know that the position of the car has changed with respect to the tree in ‘2’ seconds. But there is no change in the position of the tree with respect to its surroundings.
   
2. An object is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings in a given time.
3. An object is said to be at rest if there is no change in its position with respect to its surroundings in a given time.
4. Thus, we can say that the tree is at rest and the car is in motion while we observe them over a period of time (2 seconds in this case).

Question 3.
Explain the terms uniform and non-uniform motions and define them.
Answer:
Uniform and non-uniform motion:

1. A body is said to be in motion if its position keeps on changing with time (with respect to the observer).
2. But in our daily life we experience certain motions in which, the change in position of objects remains the same for a time interval, in some other motions, the change in position of the object will not be the same for a given time interval.
3. Uniform motion (Definition): If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time it is said to be in uniform motion.
4. Non – Uniform motion (Definition): If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non – uniform motion.

Question 4.
Explain the types of motion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Types of Motions:

1. When we discuss about motion, it is important to be aware that there exist different types of motions and each type is dependent on a particular situation.
2. Let us consider the following examples.
3. A car travelling along a straight road.
4. Motion of blades of a ceiling fan.
5. Motion of needle in a running sewing machine.
6. Motion of pendulum in an old wall clock.
7. Considering the direction of motion what differences do we notice in above examples?
8. The motions in the above examples are different in terms of direction of motion.
   a) Car is moving in same direction along a straight line.
   
   b) Blades of ceiling fan rotate about a fixed line in a circular path.
   
   c) Needle of sewing machine moves up and down about a fixed point.
   
   d) Pendulum of the wall clock oscillates ‘to’ and ‘fro’ about a fixed point.
   
9. Based on the path taken by the bodies in motion we classify motion of bodies as,
   1) Translatory motion
   2) Rotatory motion
   3) Oscillatory motion

Question 5.
Define rectilinear motion and curvilinear motion.
Answer:

1. Rectilinear motion (Definition): If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then motion is called rectilinear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion (Definition): If a body in translatory motion moves along a curved path then motion is called curvilinear motion.

Question 6.
Identify the types of motion in the examples given below.
We notice everyday some motions which are rectilinear and curvilinear at a time. Some examples of motions are given below; Label them as rectilinear (R) or curvilinear (C) or Rectilinear and curvilinear (RC) motions.
1. Seconds hand of a watch. ( )
2. Movement of a train on tracks. ( )
3. Movement of a tape in a tape recorder. ( )
4. Movement of a needle in a speedometer of car. ( )
5. Movement of a bus on hill station road. ( )
6. Motion of coins on a carrom board. ( )
7. Motion of the ball in pin board. ( )
8. Motion of a mango falling from tree.  ( )
Answer:
1. Seconds hand of a watch. ( C )
2. Movement of a train on tracks. ( R )
3. Movement of a tape in a tape recorder. ( C )
4. Movement of a needle in a speedometer of car. ( C )
5. Movement of a bus on a hill station road. ( RC )
6. Motion of coins on a carrom board. ( R )
7. Motion of ball in pinboard. ( RC )
8. Motion of a mango falling from tree. ( R )

Question 7.
Explain Rotatory motion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Observe the following diagrams.


1. What similarity do we find in all the motions?
Answer:
We find all the bodies rotating around an axis.

2. What is the path of motion of each particle of the body that moves?
Answer:
The path of motion of each particle of the body that moves is circular.

3. Is there any change in the position of a body while it is in motion?
Answer:
Except car there is no change in the position of the bodies while they are in motion.
The motion of all these bodies is rotatory motion.

Question 8.
Explain rotatory motion by taking the blades of a fan moving as an example. Define rotatory motion.
Answer:

1. While the blade of a fan is moving, the points A, B, and C on the blade move to Av Br Cj first and then move to A2, B, and C2 position,
2. Thus when a fan is in motion, each point on the blade moves in a circular path around the centre of the fan which is fixed.
3. Here, we observe that the position of a fan is not changing.
   Only the blades of fan are changing their position continuously and moving in circular path around a fixed point.
   
4. The imaginary line passing through this fixed point is called axis of rotation.
5. This type of motion is called Rotatory Motion.
6. Rotatory motion (Definition) : Rotatory motion means that, motion of all particles of a moving body follow a circular path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation.

Question 9.
Explain the terms ‘slow’ and ‘fast motions’.
Answer:

1. We observe many objects in motion in our daily life.
2. In some cases objects move slowly and in other cases they move fast.
3. To know whether the motion is slow or fast

Let us assume that you started to school on a bicycle and your friend started in a bus at the same time from a place.
a) Who reaches the school first? Why?
b) Do you find any difference in the time taken by bicycle and bus to reach the school?
Answer:
a) My friend reached the school first. Because he started in a bus and I started on a bicycle.
b) Bus reaches the school fast. It means bus took less time to reach the school. Bicycle took more time to reach the school.

Question 10.
Observe following pairs of objects that are in motion. Compare their motions and decide which moves slower and which move faster. Mark (S) in relevant box.
a) Whether the motion of a body is slow or fast?
Answer:

a) The body is said to be moving fast if it takes less time to travel the given distance as compared to another body.

Question 11.
Do we need to know about distance covered, time taken by the body in motion to decide whether the motion is slow or fast?
Answer:
Yes, we need to know about distance covered, time taken by the body in motion, to decide whether the motion is slow or fast.

Question 12.
Priya, Karthik, Divya and Kiran participated in a 100 m. running race. They took 20 s, 22s, 25s and 28s respectively to reach the finishing line. Who do you think ran the fastest and whose running is slowest? Why?
Answer:

1. Obviously we can see that all of them ran the same distance of 100 m but time taken to cover the distance was different.
2. Priya took the shortest time of 20 seconds which shows that she was the fastest.
3. Kiran took the longest time of 28 seconds which shows that he was the lowest.

Question 13.
Write the units of time.
Answer:
The basic unit of time is a second(s). Larger units of time are minutes (min) and hours (h).
Table: Units of time

Question 14.
What is the need to know the speed? How do we know it?
Answer:

1. Many objects in the world around us are moving.
2. To compare how fast they are moving, we need to know their speed.
3. You may have observed the speedometer in motor cars which tells us how fast the car is travelling.
4. Usually, the speedometer in a vehicle shows the distance travelled in kilometers and the needle shows the speed of the journey in kilometers per hour.
5. Look at the speedometers of two vehicles shown here and decide which vehicle is slower.
   Car – 1 is slower.
   

Question 15.
How do you calculate the average speed of any object?
Answer:

1. Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time taken to travel the distance.
2. Thus we can define speed of an object as the distance travelled by it in a unit of time.

Question 16.
What are the units of speed?
Answer:
Units of speed.

1. Depending on the need and context, speed is measured in different units.
2. Unit of speed in S.I. system is meter per second (m/s)
3. Another unit commonly used for speed is kilometer per hour (Km/h).
4. The basic unit of speed is m/s.

Question 17.
Observe motion of the car.

1. The distance between the driver and the car changes. ( )
2. The distance between the car and gate of the house is changed. ( )
3. There is no change in the position of gate of the house with respect to its surroundings. ( )
4. There is no change in the position of the car with respect to its surroundings. ( )

Answer:

1. The distance between the driver and the car does not change.
2. The distance between the car and gate of the house is changed. (Correct statement)
3. There is no change in the position of the gate of the house with respect to its sourroundings (Correct statement)
4. There is change in the position of the car with respect to its surroundings.

Question 18.
Show that 1 km/h = 5/18 m/s.
Answer:
1 km = 1000 m
and 1 h = 3600 s
1 km / h = 1000 m/3600 s = 5/18 m/s

Question 19.
Consider a car driven on a road. A person seated beside the driver recorded the distance travelled after every 10 minutes by noting the distance reading in the
speedometer. The distance travelled by the car at different instances of time is as follow.
a) What is the total distance travelled by the car?
b) What is the time taken to travel the distance?

Time	Reading of Distance Covered
0 minute	0 km
10 minute	15 km
20 minute	25 km
30 minute	38 km
40 minute	60 km

c) How do you find the speed of the car?
d) Is the speed of the car uniform throughout the journey?
Answer:
a) Total distance travelled by the car = 60 km.
b) Time taken = 40 min.
c) To find the speed of the car in the journey we should calculate total distance travelled by the car and the total time taken to cover that distance.
Total distance travelled by the car = 60 km
Time taken = 40 min.
The distance must be either in meters or kilometers and time in seconds or hours. We express the speed either in m/s or in km/h. In this example distance is 60 km and time is 40 min.
1 hour = 60 min

Thus, the car travelled with an average speed of 90 km/h.
d) From the table, we notice that the car has covered unequal distances in equal intervals of time (10 min), which shows the speed of the car is not uniform.

Question 20.
The speed of a bus is 72 km/h, whereas the speed of a car is 12.5 m/s. Which vehicle moves faster?
Answer:
1) The speed of the bus is = 72 km/h
= 72 × [latex]\frac{5}{18}[/latex] = 20 m/s
2) The speed of the car is = 12.5 m/s
3) As the speed of the bus is more than the speed of the car, the bus moves faster.
Note: To compare two speeds. They must be expressed in the same units. In the above example, speed of a bus is expressed in km/h and the speed of a car in m/s, tp compare these speeds, one of them must be converted to other.
Speed of a bus = 72 km/h = 20 m/s

Question 21.
How can you prove that motion is relative to the observer?
Answer:
Observing motion of the car.
Look at the pictures.

1. Imagine that you sat in the moving car beside the driver.
2. As the car moves, the distance between you and the landmarks like buildings, trees, poles etc., outside the car changes.
3. This change in the scene you view through the window indicates that the car is moving.
4. However your position with respect to the driver of the car remains the same.
5. That is you and the driver of the car are at rest with respect to each other, but both of you are in motion with respect to the surroundings outside the car.
6. A body may be at rest with respect to one set of surroundings and at the same time be in motion with respect to another set of the surroundings.
   Thus motion is relative to the observer.

Question 22.
Observe the following pictures. Read the statement below the first picture and write similar statements about other pictures.
a) 1) The man in the boat is moving in respect to the bank of river.

2) He is at rest with respect to the boat.

b) 1) The girl on the swing is with respect to the to seat of the swing.

A) The girl on the swing is at rest with respect to the seat of the swing.
2) She is with respect to the garden.
A) She is moving with respect to the garden.

c) 1) The girl on the bicycle is in respect to the road.

A) The girl on the bicycle is in motion in respect to the road.
2) She is in respect to the bicycle.
A) She is at rest in respect to the bicycle.

Question 23.
How are the hands of wall clock and the movement of a butterfly in a garden described?
Answer:

1. Imagine the movement of hands in a wall clock and the movement of a butterfly in a garden.
   
2. In these two cases hands of wall clock and the butterfly are in motion.
3. They change their positions with time.

Question 24.
a) What difference do you find in the movement of hands of clock and the body of butterfly?
b) In which case is the change of position with time constant?
Answer:
a)

1. We observe that in case of the wall clock, Change in position of minute hand is same for every minute.
2. How do we know this?
3. Measuring the angle between two positions of the minute hand is the way.

b) 1) But in the case of the butterfly, the change in its position is not constant while it is flying from one flower to another in the garden.

Question 25.
Observe the following tables, showing distances travelled by two different cars for different instances of time.

1) Which car has travelled equal distances in equal intervals of time?
2) Which car has travelled unequal distances in equal intervals of time?
Answer:

1. Obviously we notice that for car – A, the change in position in every 10 seconds is 150 m. But for car – B, the change in position is not constant.
2. For 1st 10 seconds, it is 50 m, for 2nd 10 seconds, it is 40 m, for 3rd 10 seconds it is 90 m, and for 4th 10 seconds it is 50 m.
3. Thus motion of car – A is uniform and motion of car – B is non – uniform.

Question 26.
Define uniform motion and non- uniform motion.
Answer:

1. Uniform motion : If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform motion.
2. Non – uniform motion : If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non – uniform motion.

Question 27.
Observe the following motions of objects, State whether they are in rotatory motion? Draw a line showing axis of rotation by using pencil.
Answer:

Question 28.
Take a table tennis ball, and keep it on the surface of a table. Push the ball with your finger and observe its motion. Is it in Rotatory motion or in Translatory motion?
Answer:

1. When you push the ball on the surface of a table, it moves from one end to the other end and all the particles of the ball also move along the direction of motion of the ball.
   
2. Hence the balls is in translatory motion.
3. Similarly, each particle of the ball moves in a circular path about a particular line, when the ball rolls on the surface.
4. Therefore it is in rotatory motion.
5. Thus in the above example the ball possesses both translatory and rotatory motions.

Question 29.
Observe following motions of bodies and label them as Rotatory (R), Translatory(T), Translatory and Rotatory (TR).
Answer:

Question 30.
Take a cell phone. Go to ‘setting’ and open ‘stop clock’ option. If you are not able to do this take help from your friend or teacher. Measure the time taken for the events mentioned in the table.

Which event has taken more time to complete? Think! How much time does it take to sing the national anthem?
Answer:
The student is advised to do this activity in the school and fill up the columns.

Question 31.
Write the motion of different parts of a bicycle while it is in motion.
Answer:
a) The wheel: Rotatory and Translatory motion.
b) The cycle chain: Rotatory motion.
c) The pedal with its arm: Rotatory.
d) The movement of feet pedaling Rotatory.
e) The rider along with the bicycle; Translatory.

Question 32.
Identifying Uniform and Non – Uniform motion.
Identify uniform and non uniform motions among the following examples and mark Uniform as (U) and Non-Uniform as (NU).
Answer:
1. Movement of hands of a clock. ( U )
2. A boy cycling in a crowded place. ( NU )
3. Movement of a housefly. ( NU )
4. The fan in an air cooler running at fixed speed. ( U )
5. A train entering into a railway station,. ( NU )
6. Kite in the air ( NU )
7. Rotation of the earth. ( U )

Question 33.
Look at the following pictures.

The bus moved from point ‘A’ to ‘B’ in a certain interval of time.
Think and answer the following questions:
1. Do all the parts of bus (like wheels, head lights, windows etc., move along from point A’ to B’?
2. Is the direction of motion of bus along straight line or curved line?
Answer:

1. Yes all parts of bus (like wheels, head lights, windows … etc.,) move along from point A to B.
2. The direction of motion of bus is along straight line.
3. If all parts of a moving body move in the direction of motion then the motion is said to be translatory motion.

Question 34.
Observe the following table, and state the paths of motion for each case by putting (✓) mark in the relevant column.

Answer:

Question 35.
Identify oscillatory motion among the following and put (✓) mark in the brackets given.
Answer:
A spinning top (- )
Bullet from a gun (-)
Typewriter key (✓)
Motion of a potter’s wheel. (-)
Motion of a vibrating sitar string. (✓)
Motion of a car taking a turn while moving. (-)
Ringing of a bell (✓)
A bouncing belli (✓)

Question 36.
Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions.

1. What similarity do you find in the motions of the above given situations?
2. Are the objects in motion following the same path again and again?
3. Is the direction of motion constant?
4. What type of motion is this?
5. Define oscillatory motion.

Answer:

1. If we critically examine the above mentioned motions, we understand that in each case the objects move backwards and forwards or upward and downward, on the either side of a fixed point or a line.
2. Yes. For example, the girl on a swing moves backwards and forwards, on either side of the rest position of the swing.
3. Similarly in other cases also the body is in ‘to’ and ‘fro’ motion along the same path of motion.
4. This type of motion is called oscillatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion: (Definition)
   The ‘to’ and ‘fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point always following the same path is called oscillatory motion.

Question 37.
How do you communicate the meaning of the terms ‘faster’ and ‘slower’ with the help of situation showing drawings?
Answer:
We understand that the distance travelled by an object in a given interval of time can help us to decide which one is faster and which one is slower.

1. We use the word time very often in our daily life. Look at the following examples.
2. If we observe the above examples, we use the word ‘time’ for different purposes.
3. In some situations, without using the word ‘time’, we express the duration of time like ‘so late’, so early’ etc.

Question 38.
How do we measure or estimate time? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. Ravi and Sathish started for school at 8.00 a.m. from their houses which are side by side. Ravi started on a bicycle and Sathish by walk.
   • Who will reach the school first? How much earlier will he be compared to the other?
   • How do you measure ‘early’ or ‘late’ arrival at school?
     
2. You can easily estimate that Ravi reaches the school earlier than Sathish.
3. But to answer the question of how early Ravi reached, we need to measure the times taken by both Ravi and Sathish and find the difference of time between both the cases.
4. For this we need time measuring instruments like watches, clocks etc.
5. Nowadays, we use different instruments like electronic clocks, digital clocks, quartz clocks etc. to measure time.
6. A few decades ago people used pendulum clocks that have now become rare.

Question 39.
What are the different units for measuring time?
Answer:
Like minutes and hours, week, fortnight, month, season, ayanam are also units for measuring time.

Question 40.
How is the measurement of time done?
Answer:

1. Stop Clocks are used to measure time accurately.
2. We have seen stop clocks in the laboratory.
   
3. We use stop clocks in the laboratory to measure short intervals of time like time taken for completion of chemical reaction, time taken by the pendulum for one oscillation etc.
4. Nowadays we find stop clocks almost in all cell phones.
5. In our daily life stop clocks help measure pulse rate etc.
6. Apart from this, they also help us to accurately measure the times in running races, swimming races, etc.

Question 41.
Travel on a motor vehicle with your father to market or any other place and observe the changes in speedometer reading.
Note the exact time when you started from home and observe the speedometer reading carefully and note it and the corresponding time in the table. Some examples are given in the table.

Speedometer Reading	Corresponding Time
(Speed)	(Time)
0	Started at home 9-10 a.m.
20	9.15 a.m.
30	9.20 a.m.

a) Does the speed of the vehicle remain the same throughout the journey?
b) If not, what can you say about the speed of the vehicle during the journey?
Answer:

1. We experience in our everyday life that most of the objects in motion do not have the same speed throughout the journey.
2. To express the speed of the object, we consider its average speed.
   a) The speed of the vehicle is not the same throughout the journey.
   b) If such is the case, we consider its average speed.

Question 42.
We can classify motion based on the path taken by the bodies during motion. What are translatory motion and rotatory motion?
Answer:
Translatory motion: If all parts of a moving body move in the direction of motion, then the motion is said to be translatory motion.
Rotatory motion: Movement of any object about an axis.

Question 43.
i) How many types of motions are there and what are they?
ii) Read the table and identify the motion.
If the motion is Rotatory, put (R), Translatory (T), both Rotation and Translatory (RT), Oscillatory (O).

1. Motion of ceiling fan
2. Motion of needle in the sewing machine
3. Motion of Earth around the sun
4. Drilling bit while drilling a wood plank
5. Motion of wheels in moving cycle
6. Motion of moving top (Bongaram)
7. Motion of the wire in the harp (Veena)
8. Raising the rubber ball from the floor

Answer:
a) There are 3 types of motions.
They are: 1) Translatory motion; 2) Rotatory motion and 3) Oscillatory motion.

b)

1. Motion of ceiling fan	R
2. Motion of needle in the sewing machine	O
3. Motion of Earth around the sun	TR
4. Drilling bit while drilling a wood plank	TR
5. Motion of wheels in moving cycle	TR
6. Motion of moving top (Bongaram)	R
7. Motion of the wire in the harp (Veena)	T
8. Raising the rubber ball from the floor	O

Question 43.
Why do you think the objects like trees, buildings, electric poles, etc. appear to be moving when you are sitting inside a moving bus or train?
Answer:

1. An object may be in the state of movement and at the state of rest at the same time.
2. It happens when the objects compared with different surroundings.

Question 44.
Write the motion of different parts of a bicycle while it is in motion.
i) The wheel
ii) The cycle chain
iii) The pedal with its arm
iv) The movement of the rider along with the bicycle
Answer:
1) The wheel – Rotatory motion
2) The cycle chain – Rotatory and transverse motion
3) The pedal with its arm – Rotatory motion
4) The movement of the rider along with the bicycle – Transverse motion

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Sl No.	Nameof the River	Origin or Birth place	Direction of Flow	Tributaries	Flow through which States

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal