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AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Weather and Climate

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 6th Lesson Weather and Climate

7th Class Science 6th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do elders predict rain?
Answer:

1. It is a common experience for everybody to hear elder people talking about the possible weather on a day before planning to celebrate a function of the family.
2. They do it by observation of different seasons.
   
3. Farmers listen to radio or watch T.V. for weather forecast.
4. They depend on these weather predictions to plan their agricultural activities.
5. These weather predictions effect our daily life.

Question 2.
How does the meteorological department make weather predictions?
Answer:

1. The meteorological department collects data and uses it to make predictions.
2. This is about weather of Hyderabad for three consecutive days.
   
3. We find that these aspects of weather keep changing.
4. The humidity, changes, the wind changes, the temperature changes the sunrise and sunset times change too.
5. Keeping all these things in consideration the department make weather predictions.

Question 3.
What aspects do you see in the weather record?
Answer:

1. We find that there are some changes in a day. But most of the day is normal.
2. The weather is a complex phenomenon that it can vary over very short periods of time.
3. Sometimes its sunny in the morning but clouds appear from somewhere and it starts raining.
4. Within a matter of a few minutes this gives way to bright sunshine.
5. We must have had several such experiences. The temperature, humidity, rain, wind speed change.
6. All this effects the life of human beings and other living organisms. This constitutes weather.

Question 4.
Describe the construction and working of six’s maximum and minimum thermometer.
Answer:
Description – and working:

1. Six invented the maximum minimum thermometer (MMT) thermometer to measure highest and lowest temperatures of’a place.
2. This consists of a cylindrical bulb A, connected through a U-shaped tube to spherical bulb B that contains alcohol.
   
3. When the temperature increases, the alcohol in the bulb A expands.
4. The mercury in the U tube goes up to the bulb B side and the indicatorfl^also moves up.
5. This indicates maximum temperature of the day.
6. If the temperature decreases,alcohol in the bulb A contracts then the mercury in the U-tube goes to the A bulb side and the indicator (I₂ ) also moves up.
7. This indicates the minimum temperature of the day.
8. After taking readings the indicators I₂ and I₁ are brought to their original places by using a magnet.

Question 5.
How do you find the magnitude of rain fall?
Answer:

1. Take a 10cm wide beaker and insert a funnel of the same width.
2. Keep the apparatus in an open place when it is raining.
   
3. The rain water would be collected through the funnel into the beaker.
4. After the rain is over, measure the amount of water collected in the beaker.
5. If the depth of water is 1 cm then that the magnitude of rainfall is 1 cm.

Question 6.
Observe the weather report (temperature and rain fall) of two places in our state. The average temperature and rain fall for the last 25 years of the particular month is given in the table.

Answer the following questions:
a) In which month was maximum temperatures recorded? Why?
Answer:
In the month of may maximum temperatures were recorded.
b) Comparatively which place is hot? Why?
Answer:
Rentachintala is comparatively hot because the average rainfall is less compared to Arogyavaram.
c) How can you say Arogyavaram is cooler than Rentachintala in summer?
Answer:

1. In Arogyavaram, in the mid summer, the maximum temperature recorded was only 33°C as against 41°C recorded in Rentachintala.
2. So Arogyavaram is cooler than Rentachintala.

Question 7.
What is meant by climate?
Answer:

1. The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called climate of that place.
2. Broadly, the same patterns of temperature, rainfall, humidity wind speed that have been generally continuing for a long time, say the last 25 years, at a place gives the climate of that place.
3. If we find that temperature at a place is generally high for large part of the year, we say the climate of that place is hot.

Question 8.
How do we compare a place which is hot with a place which is cool?
Answer:
With the help of six’s maximum and minimum thermometer we compare a place which is hot with a place which is cool.

Question 9.
How do meteorologists measure the rain fall? What are its units?
Answer:
Meteorologists measure the rainfall using a ‘Rain gauge’. It is also called Udometer or Pulviometer or Ombrometer. They can measure exact amount of rainfall. Rainfall is expressed in centimeters or millimeters.

Question 10.
Why is it sweaty in Vijayawada and relatively less in Hyderabad in summer?
Answer:

1. Even though it is hotter, we do not sweat as much in Hyderabad.
2. In places near a river or in coastal regions the weather in summer is sweaty.
3. If we are in coastal region in summer we would feel very sweaty in addition to feeling hot winds.
4. That is why Vijaywada is more humid than Hyderabad.

Question 11.
Which region on the globe is very hot and which region is very cold?
Answer:
We know that in the equatorial region it is very hot and in the polar region, it is very cold.

Question 12.
Take a newspaper or watch the TV news and record the maximum and minimum temperature, rainfall, humidity and wind pattern of any 3 cities or towns in a table. Do this over a week.
Answer:

1. Here the maximum temperature recorded over a week in Hyderabad is taken.
2. We will plot the graph.
   
3. Graph showing the variation of maximum temperature during 10-14 Dec. 2011 at Hyderabad.

Question 13.
Collect weather reports of a nearby city from newspapers. Tabulate your Observations for a week and compare them.
Answer:

1. For guidance sample tabular form is given.
2. The student has to perform this activity.
   

Question 14.
Answer the following questions from the data collected.
a) When was the maximum temperature recorded?
b) When was the minimum temperature recorded? Why?
c) Is there any similarity in temperatures between your school and the nearest city?
Answer:
a) …………………………………..
b) …………………………………..
c) …………………………………..

Question 15.
a) Pravin has measured temperature of his village with the help of MMT (Maximum, Minimum thermometer.)
b) He expressed his observations through a graph.
c) The observations are also tabulated.
d) Look into them and answer the following questions.
a) For how many days did Pravin observe the temperature of his village?
b) On which day was the highest temperature recorded?
c) On which days did the lowest temperature fall?
d) Do you find any relation between 10th and 14th of December 2011? What is that?
e) Make a graph with your observations of maximum and minimum temperatures.

Answer:
a) For five days.
b) On 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days the highest temperature was recorded.
c) On the 1st day the lowest temperature fall.
d) There is an increase in temperature and the rise in temperature was maintained for four days.
e) The student can do this activity.

Question 16.
How do you find the direction of the wind? Describe an activity.
Answer:

1. Let us find the direction of wind by using card board pieces and a thin nail.
2. Take two cardboard pieces and cut them the shape of an arrow and paste them together.
   
3. Insert a thin needle or iron wire as shown the figure in the middle of the arrow.
4. The needle must be long enough to be fixed on a strong base and should allow the arrow to move along the direction of the wind.

Question 17.
With the help of an anemometer observe the directions of the wind and tabulate your observations in the table given here.

Now answer the following questions:
a) Does the wind move in the same direction the whole day?
Answer:
The student can answer this by observing the data collected by him / her.
b) In which direction does it move in the morning?
Answer:
This question also can be answered by the student.

Question 18.
What is humidity? Explain it with an activity.
Answer:
Humidity: The quantity of moisture in the air is the ’humidity’ of the place. If the humidity is high when it is hot, we feel sweaty.
Activity:

1. Take about 10 ml. of water in a test tube. Heat it on a Bunsen burner or a candle.
2. When water is heated, it changes into water vapour. The vapour enters into the air.
3. In the same way sea water changes into vapour due to heating by the sun.
4. That water vapour in the atmosphere is the humidity.

Question 19.
What happend during the tsunami in Andaman and Nicobar islands in 2004?
Answer:

1. Many people died during the tsunami in Andaman and Nicobar islands in 2004.
2. But the tribals who observed the ocean moving back and birds making sounds moved away from danger.
3. They could predict the danger and save their lives.

Question 20.
Write a weather report similar to the weather report given in Television.
Answer:

1. Isolated rain or thunder showers are lightly to occur over Chittoor, Nellore, Prakasham and some parts of Kadapa districts.
2. Mainly dry weather will prevail over southern Telangana districts and northern coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh.
3. Sky should be cloudy for the next two days in Kurnool and Ananthapur districts.

Question 20.
Describe a weather report actually given by the department.
Answer:

1. According to meteorological department report 42°C maximum temperature recorded at Ramagundam of Karimnagar district and 29°C minimum temperature recorded at Aarogyavaram of Chittore district.
2. Because of cumulonimbus clouds 2mm of rainfall was recorded in Hyderabad.
3. Scattered rainfall recorded in some parts of interior Rayalaseema.
4. Remaining part of the state was dry.

Question 21.
What is the difference between a weather forecast and a weather report?
Answer:

1. The report that explains future conditions is a weather forecast.
2. The report that explains about past conditions is a weather report.
3. In common conversation we often refer to both as weather report.

Question 22.
What are the weather components?
Answer:
Temperature, rain fall, wind speed, humidity…. etc., are the weather components.

Question 23.
How do farmers estimate the rain fall?
Answer:

1. Farmers estimate the rainfall based on the wetness of the soil after the rain.
2. They call-it as “PADUNU”.
3. This much of rainfall is sufficient to start agriculture activities like ploughing.
4. This is an approximate measure.

Question 24.
Draw the diagram of an Anemometer what is its use?
Answer:
We can measure wind speed and direction with an Anemometer.

Question 25.
Observe features of the following states, and specific places in India from an ATLAS. Try to write down something about the climate in these areas.

Answer:
The student with the help of the teacher can write something about the climate in those areas.

Question 26.
Describe the climate of our country as per the studies of IMD.
Answer:

1. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) studies climate of our country.
2. Climate describes the weather condition occurring over a relatively longer period of time in a given place.
3. For example in the month of June.
4. We expect the weather to be mild in Bangalore, humid in Kolkata, hot and dry in parts of Rajasthan, cold in Kashmir and rainy in Coastal Kerala.
5. Does it mean that in coastal Kerala it is always rainy in the month of June or if it would be always humid in Kolkata?
6. Nowadays there is a complaint that climate is not as ordered as it was .
7. Seasonal climatic condition do not appear as predictable and known.

Question 27.
How do people adjust to the climate? Why in 2010 Kurnool and other parts in Rayalaseema submerged infloods?
Answer:

1. The people living in an area adjust to the conditions of climate.
2. For example the rain fall has being relatively less for the past two decades.
3. Even in Rayalaseema during rainy season the tanks and canals remain dry.
4. The dried canals and tanks are now used for other purposes.
5. The less rainfall has also led to developing ways to use less water.
6. The change in rainfall pattern shows there may be shifts in climate over long periods of time.
7. In areas which do not have a climate of rain when it rains heavily there is no way to drain out the water.
8. As a result many areas were flooded and submerged in Kurnool in 2010 and also in other parts of Rayalaseema.

Question 28.
How does climate effect our life style?
Answer:

1. Climate mostly effects on our daily life. We change our life style to suit that climate.
2. We wear cotton clothes in summer.
3. We want to drink cool water also.
4. We take care to protect ourselves from rain.
5. We take many precautions we need to take if we were going to visit Kashmir or Ooty during winter.

Question 29.
a) The students of Sanjamala village collected the information about the temperature of their village in 5 days and reported in the table. Observe the table.

Answer the following questions:
i) On which day was Maximum Temperature recorded?
ii) On which day was Minimum Temperatrue recorded?
iii) What is the average Minimum Temperature of 5 days?
iv) What changes did you observe in the Temperature?
b) Draw a graph based on the information in the table.
Answer:
a) i) 02-01-2018
ii) 05-01-2018
iii) 19°C
iv) Lowest and highest temperatures.
b)

Question 30.
What aspects should you observe to predict the weather of your village, by watching sky?
Answer:
The time of sunrise and sunset, wind flow, percentage rainfall in that area should be taken into consideration to estimate the type of weather in that given area.

Question 31.
Table showing the variation of maximum and minimum temperature during the period between 10 and 14 September 2017 at Guntur. Based on this draw a graph.
Answer:

Question 32.
Observe the table and write answers for the following questions.

i) This table indicates ………….
ii) In which month was maximum rainfall recorded?
iii) Least temperature was recorded in which month?
iv) Why is maximum temperature recorded in the month of May?
Answer:
i) The above table tells us about the temperature and rainfall from May to November.
ii) November.
iii) November.
iv) Because May falls in summer.

Question 33.
Observe the below table and write answers for the following questions.

i) What aspects did you see in the weather record?
ii) Rainfall was recorded on which day?
iii) On which day was maximum temperature recorded?
iv) Among these three days, long day is observed on?
Answer:
i) Maximum temperature, minimum temperature, rainfall, sky, air, humidity, sunrise, and sunset.
ii) Second day
iii) Third day
iv) First day

Question 34.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

i) What is the name of the apparatus in the picture?
ii) Name the liquid present in bulb – A.
iii) Name the liquid present in U-shaped tube.
iv) How is it useful in daily life?
Answer:
i) Six’s maximum minimum thermometer
ii) Alcohol
iii) Mercury
iv) To measure the maximum and minimum temperature of a day.

Question 35.
Observe the graph showing rainfall of a place from August to December. Write down the observations from it and answer the following questions.

i) Name the month in which minimum rainfall was recorded.
ii) Name the month in which maximum rainfall was recorded.
iii) Name the months in which less than 50 mm rainfall I was recorded.
iv) In which months was the rainfall recorded more than 50 nun?
Answer:
i) September.
ii) November.
iii) August, September and October.
iv) November and December.

Question 36.
Ritwik observed the temperature of his village and drew the following graph Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

a) How many days does Ritwik observe temperature?
b) On which day the lowest temperature is recorded?
c) In which days does the temperature remain same?
d) What apparatus is used to measure the temperature?
Answer:
a) 5 days.
b) First day
c) 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days.
d) Six’s maximum-minimum thermometer.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Air, Winds and Cyclones

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones

7th Class Science 8th Lesson Air, Winds and Cyclones Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you prove that air exerts pressure?
Answer:

1. We know that a bicycle tube or tube of any other vehicle can burst when it is over filled with air.
2. Take a balloon and fill it with air. Keep blowing more and more air into it.
3. The balloon expands and after a point bursts.
4. The reason for the burst is the increase in air pressure inside them.
5. For example a balloon being filled with air, the air filled football that becomes hard, water rising through a hand pump, the tubes of cycle, scooter or car are all due to the pressure exerted by air.

Question 2.
How do you show that air exerts pressure by a simple experiment?
Answer:

1. Take a syringe and draw out its plunger (piston) to the limit.
   
2. Close the nozzle of the syringe with a finger and press the piston.
3. The finger experiences the pressure exerted by air.

Question 3.
What happens on heating air? How is pressure related to this?
Answer:

1. It is important to remember that on heating the air expands and occupies more space.
2. When something occupies more space, it becomes less dense.
3. The warm air is therefore less dense than cold air. Thus smoke and hot air go up.
4. Similar to observations of activities done so far, numerous factors contribute to heat air.
5. When the air rises up, air pressure at the place becomes low and we have many kinds of winds as air comes into occupying areas of lower pressure.
6. The differential heating of land and water by the sun leads to land and sea breeze.

Question 4.
How are land breeze and sea breeze developed?
Answer:

1. The land heats up faster than the sea, so warm air rises over the land during the day as it is warmed by the Sun.
2. At certain times of a year, this can create a sea breeze which is a gentle breeze blowing into the land.
   
3. At night, the land cools faster than the sea, reversing the air flow.
4. This creates a land breeze that blows out to sea.

Question 5.
How are we getting monsoon winds? In which months do they come?
Answer:

1. We have read about the sea breeze and the land breezes.
2. In summer, near the equator the land heats up faster and during the day the temperature of the land is higher than the water in the ocean.
3. The air over the land gets heated and rises.
4. This causes the winds to flow from the oceans towards the land.
5. These are monsoon winds.
6. This is usual during the months of June to September.

Question 6.
How are winds useful in our life?
Answer:

1. The direction of the wind flow gets usually reversed in the months from December to early March.
2. The wind flows from the land to ocean as the sea cools more slowly.
3. The winds from the oceans carry water and bring rains.
4. Farmers in our country depend mainly on rains for their harvests.
5. We can also generate energy from high-speed wind.
6. Thus we can see the usefulness of winds in our life.

Question 7.
Describe how cyclones are formed.
Answer:

1. Tropical cyclones are like giant engines that use warm moist air as fuel.
2. The warm moist air rises upward from near the surface.
3. The warm air rises causing an area of lower air pressure below.
   
4. Air from surrounding areas of high air pressure pushes into the low pressure area.
5. Then this “new” air becomes warm and rises too.
6. As the warm air continues to rise, the surrounding air swirls – into take its place and the water from the sea surface also comes up with the air.
7. As the warmed moist air rises and cools off, the water in the air forms clouds.
8. The whole system of clouds and winds spins and grows, fed by the ocean’s heat and water evaporating from the surface. See the figure.
9. These kinds of satellite images help us to predict the path of the cyclones to some extent.

Question 8.
Write the Do’s and Don ‘ts during cyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones – Do’s and Don’ts:

1. We should not ignore the warnings issued by the meteorological department through T.V., Radio or newspapers: Pass on the information to others and ignore rumors.
2. When a cyclone alert is on for your area, continue normal working but stay alert to the radio warnings.
3. We should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc. to safer places.
4. Switch off electrical mains in your house.
5. Keep ready the phone numbers of all emergency services like police, fire brigade, and medical centres.
6. Pack essentials for yourself and your family to last few days, including medicines, special food for those who would need it. This may include babies and elders.

Question 9.
Write the precautions to be taken before the cyclone.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken before a cyclone:

1. We should be cautious about rumours.
2. If we feel that houses are not safe at the time of cyclone, we have move into a pucca building in the vicinity.
3. We should keep mobile phones in a waterproof bag, fully charged. If we have more than one mobile phone, we have to use one phone at a time, leaving the other phones switched off and using them one after the other to ensure communication to the longest possible period.
4. If we have to vacate the house close the toilet seat with sandbags.
5. We should close the drainage holes to prevent reverse flow of sewage.
6. The trained students should cooperate with the response teams.
7. We should make necessary arrangements to shift essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc. to safer places.

Question 10.
What are the post-cyclone measures?
Answer:
Post cyclone measures :
If you are staying in a cyclone hit area-

1. Strictly avoid any loose and dangling wires.
2. Do not drink water that could be contaminated. Always store drinking water for emergencies.
3. Whenever there is an outbreak of dysentery, we should take tea, decoction and starch solution (Ganji).
4. We should not go near to bunds of tanks, streams, the river banks, fallen trees, buildings, poles and seashores to play or sight-seeing and taking selfies.
5. Cooperate and help your neighbours and friends. First aid should be provided to the injured.
6. At the time of cyclones, some people lose their beloved family members and children or pets. In such situations, we should give assurance, guidance and counselling in order not to go to a depressed state.

Question 11.
Establish the fact that moving air creates low pressure.
Answer:

1. Take a glass and a postcard.
2. Keep the glass on a table and the postcard on the glass.
   
3. Wave our hand or note book above the postcard to displace the air just above the postcard.
4. As the card moves, it moves the air there creating low pressure.
5. Due to this low pressure the card on the glass rises up.
6. It means moving air creates low pressure.

Question 12.
What are the reasons that different areas have different temperatures? How does this help in getting rain?
Answer:

1. Uneven heating takes place on the surface of the earth.
2. We know that regions close to the equator gets more heat from the sun.
3. This is because of the direction of the sunlight being straighter close to the equator.
4. The air in these regions gets warmer.
5. The warm air rises, and the cooler air from the regions in the 0 – 30° latitude belt on either side of the equator moves in.
6. This movement of air sets forth winds that move over the earth.
7. We have also seen that the increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced air pressure and this aids rains.

Question 13.
Do winds cause harm? Explain.
Answer:

1. We are familiar with the word cyclone.
2. During the months of May – June or October – November reports about them can be seen in the Newspapers and TV.
3. This way winds cause harm.

Question 14.
Where do we And air? Explain it with an activity.
Answer:

1. Take a bucket full of water and transparent glass.
2. Take a paper, crumple it into a ball and push it to the bottom of the glass.
3. Invert this glass and immerse it into the bucket of water. Keep the glass straight and press it so that the glass is completely under water.
   
4. Take it out and observe what happens.
5. The paper in the glass did not wet.
6. However if the glass is tilted air in the glass escapes as bubbles through water and water enters the glass.

Question 15.
Describe a simple activity to show the presence of air.
Answer:

1. Fill a bucket with water.
2. Take a bottle with a narrow mouth and immerse it in the bucket till it fills with water.
   
3. During the time the bottle is filling with water bubbles of air come out of the glass.
4. This air is earlier filled in the glass. So the glass is not empty but full of air.
5. Any bottle, glass or any other container that appears empty is actually full of air.
6. Nothing can be added to it unless the air inside is removed.
7. It is only when some air is removed that something else can enter.
8. Air occupies the space around us.

Question 16.
Show by a simple experiment that air expands on heating.
Answer:

1. Take an empty injection bottle and one empty ball point refill.
2. Remove the pin of the refill and insert one of its ends in the cork of the injection bottle as shown in Fig.
3. Put a water drop on the upper end of the refill.
   
4. Rub your hands together so that they become warm.
5. Carefully pick up the bottle and hold it in both your hands for sometime.
6. So that the bottle also becomes warm.
7. The water drop inflate in the refill.
8. This is because air in the bottle expands due to the heat supplied by the hands.

Question 17.
‘Hot air is lighter than cold air’. How do you prove it?
Answer:

1. Take two paper bags or empty paper cups of the same size.
2. Take a broomstick. Hang the two bags in the inverted position on the two ends of the broomstick.
3. Tie a piece of thread in the middle of the stick. Hold the stick by the thread, like a weighing balance.
   
4. Put a burning candle below one of the bags as shown in the figure (b) and observe what happens.
5. Note that we have used paper bags or cups as they are of a light weight and it would be easier to see the results of this experiment if we take any such light objects to hang on the thread.
6. The balance of the bags is disturbed.
7. This proves that hot air is lighter than cold air.

Question 18.
‘Air moves from a region of higher pressure to a lower pressure’. Prove this statement by a simple experiment.
Answer:

1. Take a balloon. Blow air into it. As we fill it up, it expands and it becomes harder to press the walls of the balloon. The inside air exerts pressure on the walls of the balloon.
2. Open the mouth of the balloon slightly. Air from the balloon comes out.
3. We can open the mouth less or more and control the flow of air.
4. The air in the balloon is at high pressure and it goes towards low pressure area.
5. We already know that when air moves, it is called wind. Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.

Question 19.
How can you demonstrate that warm air rises up?
Answer:

1. Take an incense stick (agarbati) and light it. Observe the smoke of the incense stick.
2. When something occupies more space, it becomes less dense. The warm air is therefore less dense than cold air.
3. The smoke rises up indicating that warm air rises up.

Question 20.
Write an activity to prove that moving air creates low pressure.
Answer:

1. Wet the edges of glass and put a postcard on it, and hold it inverted with our left hand as shown in figure and move your right hand or note book to move the air form under the paper.
   
2. Due to the movement of the hand or note book, air there moves fast.
3. This moving air creates low pressure and the postcard is pushed out by the air inside the glass.

Question 21.
Prove by an activity that increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced pressure.
Answer:

1. Take a glass containing water and two straws. Keep one straw in the water and another in horizontal direction as shown in figure and blow through the horizontal straw.
   
2. When you blow over the straw the water comes out due to low pressure which forms inside the straw.
3. So the water from the glass reaches up in the straw due to high pressure.
4. We see that the increased wind speed is accompanied by a reduced air pressure.

Question 22.
What is a cyclone? What are the other names for it?
Answer:

1. Cyclones are a form of violent storms on earth.
2. People call these storms by names such as typhoons, hurricanes, etc. depending on where they occur.

Question 23.
What factors contribute to cyclone? When and where do they likely to occur?
Answer:

1. Factors like wind speed, wind direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.
2. In India cyclones usually occur in the month of May – June and October – November.
3. More cyclones tend to occur on the eastern side i.e. towards Bay of Bengal.

Question 24.
What are the effects of cyclone? On what factors the destruction of a cyclone depends?
Answer:

1. Cyclones can be very destructive.
2. The main effects of cyclones include heavy rain and strong wind.
   
3. The destruction of a cyclone depends mainly on its intensity, its size and its location.

Question 25.
What are the steps needed to use a dropper? Explain its functioning.

Answer:
Fig. (a): The air present in the tube of the dropper is removed by pressing the rubber head.
Fig. (b): Putting the open end of the tube of the dropper in water and releasing the pressed rubber head.
Due to low pressure in the tube water enters into it.
Fig. (c): Rubber head is made free from pressing. Water entered in to the tube of the dropper as air there was already sent out.

Question 26.
What is wind?
Answer:

1. The air around us is rarely still. It moves continuously from one direction to another.
2. The movement is in many directions.
3. This is what we call winds.
4. So we know that wind is moving air.

Question 27.
What are the advantages of advanced technology with regard to cyclones? How do you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Advanced Technology has helped and these days we are better protected.
2. In the early part of last century, coastal residents may have had less than a day to prepare or evacuate their homes from an oncoming cyclone.
3. The world today is very different.
4. Thanks to satellites and radars, a cyclone alert or cyclone watch is issued 48 hours in advance of any expected storm and a cyclone warning is issued 24 hours in advance.
5. The message is broadcast every hour or half an hour when a cyclone is near the coast.
6. Information about cyclones will be given by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD).

Question 28.
What are the post cyclone measures we have to take?
Answer:
Post cyclone measures: If you are staying in a cyclone hit area

• Strictly avoid any loose and dangling wires.
• Do not drink water that could be contaminated. Always store drinking water for emergencies.
• Do not go out for the sake of fun.
• Cooperate and help your neighbors and friends.

Question 29.
Observe the experiment and answer the following questions.

1. What happens to the water drop in the refill?
2. Why is the position of water drop changed?

Answer:

1. The water drop inflates in the refill.
2. Because we know that air expands on heating. So. the water drop is moved upwards. Hence, there is a change in the position of the water drop.

Question 30.
Observe the experiment and answer the following question. When two identical, inverted paper bags are hung on a balance, they balance each other as shown in right figure.

i) After a burning candle is placed under one of the bags as shown in the left figure, why is the balance of the bags disturbed?
Answer:
As the air beneath the cup heats up and moves, the cup of the balance raises up.

Question 31.
What measures will you take to protect your village from an approaching cyclone?
Answer:
I would follow the below methods to protect my village during cyclone.

1. I would convey the information of cyclone throughout the village.
2. I would store all the food grains, medicines, first aid things sufficient for a few days.
3. I would help people to move to a safe place.
4. I would make sure to keep a radio and batteries along with me.
5. I would keep necessary phone numbers of fire, police, etc. to get emergency services.
6. I would help people whenever they are in danger.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Acids and Bases

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 2nd Lesson Acids and Bases

7th Class Science 2nd Lesson Acids and Bases Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the names of food substances that you know in the appropriate column, based on their taste.
Answer:

Question 2.
Take solutions of some juices of fruits, vegetables, cold drinks and various solutions and test them with blue and red litmus papers. List out results in the table, by marking (S) in the relevant column.
Answer:

Question 3.
How are hydroxides prepared? What is their nature?
Answer:

1. Oxides of Magnesium when dissolved in water form Magnesium Hydroxide.
2. Similarly oxides of Potassium and Sodium form Potassium Hydroxide and Sodium Hydroxide when dissolved in water.
3. All these are basic in nature.
4. They would be soapy when touched.

Question 4.
Classify the substances given in the table under question 2 into the following categories. Acidic substances, Basic substances, and Neutral substances.
Answer:

Question 5.
When do you get a neutral solution from acids and bases?
Answer:
When acids and bases are mixed in definite proportions they give a neutral solution.

Question 6.
How are salts produced? Give an example.
Answer:

1. We have seen in the process of neutralization, both the acidic and the basic qualities are destroyed.
2. Actually when an acid and a base are mixed, a chemical reaction takes place and salts are produced.
3. For example by neutralizing Hydrochloric acid solution with Caustic soda (Sodium Hydroxide) solution, a salt Sodium Chloride is produced.
4. Production of salt depends on the quantity of acid and base by proportion in a very specific manner.

Question 7.
Write the uses of acids, bases and salts.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are indicators? How are they useful?
Answer:

1. The paper strips like litmus paper strips change colour based on the nature of the material put on them.
2. These are all indicators.
3. They tell us whether a substance is acidic or basic.
4. They are used extensively in studying substances and their properties.

Question 9.
Are there any acids apart from natural acids? What are they?
Answer:
Apart from natural acids, there are certain acids like Hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid and Nitric acid etc., that are prepared from minerals.

Question 10.
You might have touched soap water or lime water. How do you feel? What is your conclusion?
Answer:

1. When I have touched soap water and lime water, they are soapy to touch.
2. These substances are basic in nature.

Question 11.
Who discovered Hydrogen? What is its colour?
Answer:

1. Henry Cavendish, an Italian Scientist.
2. He discovered a colourless gas called Hydrogen.

Question 12.
Write the properties of acids and bases from your observations with the experiments done by you.
Answer:

Question 13.
Are all neutral solutions salts? Give examples.
Answer:

1. All neutral solutions are not salt solutions.
2. Sugar or Starches are neutral but they are not salts.

Question 14.
How do you draw a red flower using indicators to get the desired colour?
Answer:

1. We should take some turmeric powder. Add a bit of water to it and prepare turmeric paste.
2. We should rub the turmeric paste on a white paper.
3. And draw a flower on that paper with a pencil.
   
4. Colour the flower with soap water using a brush.
5. We notice that the colour of the flower changes to red.
6. Similarly take some lime water.
7. Add a few drops of it on a piece of turmeric paper.
8. The colour changes to red.

Question 15.
Turmeric paper is a natural indicator, along with turmeric indicator paper, we can also prepare other natural indicators mentioned in the table below. Carry on tests and note your observations.
Answer:

Question 16.
How can you prepare a base by doing a simple experiment?
Answer:

1. We should burn a small piece of Magnesium ribbon by holding it with tongs.
2. Collect the white ash and dissolve it in a little water.
   
3. Touch the solutions formed and test this solution with blue litmus and red litmus.
4. This solution turns red litmus blue.
5. Oxides of Magnesium when dissolved in water form Magnesium Hydroxide.
6. Magnesium Hydroxide is a base.

Question 17.
Take the following substances and test them with Phenolphthalein and Methyl orange solutions. Draw a table and record your observations. Substances Orange, Tomatoes, Baking soda, Mineral water, Vinegar, Saltwater, Shampoo, Washing soda.
Answer:

Question 18.
What changes in colour take place in the indicators Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange when you test with the following substances. Spirit, Saliva, Cucumber, Ridge gourd, Kheera, Buttermilk, Milk.
Answer:

Question 19.
Record your observations when you test the following substances with the indicators Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange.
Substances: Cold drink, Lemon Juice, Grape Juice, Bathing soap, detergent soap, Lime water and Sugar.
Answer:

Question 20.
How can you prepare Hydrogen in the laboratory by a simple experiment? With which test do you confirm the presence of Hydrogen?
Answer:

1. Take a natural acid say lemon juice in six test tubes and add Copper, Zinc, Magnesium, Iron, Brass, Aluminium pieces to each one of the test tubes separately.
2. Note the observations.
3. Light a matchstick and introduce it into the test tubes.
4. The gas releasing catches fire with a sound.
5. This gas is Hydrogen. This is the test for the presence of Hydrogen.

Question 21.
How do you prepare carbondioxide? What substances do you need for its preparation? How is it tested?
Answer:
Preparation of carbondioxide:

1. Take lemon juice in two test tubes and add some pieces of marble to one test tube and egg shells to another.
2. Bring a burning match stick near the test tube.
   
3. The flame of the burning match stick is put off.
4. This is due to release of carbon dioxide gas.
5. Pass the gas into lime water. Lime water turns milky white.
6. This is the test for carbondioxide.
   
7. Lemon juice and pieces of marble or egg shells are the substances needed for the preparation of carbondioxide.

Question 22.
When is the solution made by mixing an acid and a base, a neutral solution? Describe a small activity.
Answer:

1. Take a clean test tube using a clean dropper and put 10 drops of Hydrochloric acid carefully in it and also add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator solution.
2. The solution becomes colourless as the indicator phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic medium.
3. Now add Caustic soda solution (whose concentration is equal to Hydrochloric acid) drop by drop to the test tube.
   
4. After each drop shake the test tube well and see if there is any change in the colour of the solution.
5. Keep adding the Caustic soda drop by drop until the colour begins to turn pink.
6. Now the test tube has basic solution.
7. Add one drop of Hydrochloric acid and see if it changes back to its original (colourless) state.
8. If not, then add one more drop of Hydrochloric acid.
9. Keep doing this until the solution in the test tube becomes colourless again.
10. Now the solution in the test tube is neutral. It can be tested with litmus paper.

Question 23.
What are your conclusions from the experiment done in the above question no. 9?
Answer:

1. On the basis of the experiment done above, we can conclude that adding excess of base to acidic solution we can turn acidic solution into basic solution.
2. If we are given basic solution we can similarly convert it into acidic solution.
3. In the above experiment, if we add excess of base (caustic soda) to acidic solution it converts into a base.
4. Similarly we can change base into an acid.

Question 24.
Test the following salt substances with red litmus and blue litmus papers. Record your observations in the table.
Answer:

Question 25.
Collect some salt substances with the help of your teacher. Make their salt solutions. Test the salt solutions with blue litmus and red litmus papers. Classify these salts and record your observations in the table.
Answer:

Question 26.
What acids are present in the following substances? Collect the information and write. Substances: Vinegar, Lemon or orange, State cheese Buttered milk or curd, Spinach or Tomato.
Answer:

Question 27.
You are asked to find out the acids present in the substances, placed in front of you. Write the names of the acids present in them by collecting information from any source available to you.
Substances placed in front of you : Apples, Tea, Olive oil and fats.
Answer:

Question 28.
Grapes, Palm oil, Amla (emblica fruit) and Urine are put before you. You are asked to give the information about the acids that are present in those substances. Collect the information and record in a table.
Answer:

Question 29.
Write the names of some substances that contain bases that we use in our daily life.
Answer:

Question 30.
Methyl orange and Phenolphthalein are indicators. Collect the information about their colour change in Acid and Basic solutions.
Answer:
Methyl orange gives red colour with acids and yellow colour with bases. Phenol¬phthalein remains colourless in acidic solution while it turns pink in basic solution.

Question 31.
What sort of food do we eat?
Answer:

1. We eat food of different tastes.
2. The food will be a balanced diet.

Question 32.
What kind of tastes do food substances we eat have?
Answer:
Sweet, Sour, Bitter, Salty and Spicy tastes of food we eat.

Question 33.
Do you find any difference in the taste of a ripe and a raw fruit?
Answer:

1. Ripe fruit is sweet to eat.
2. Raw fruit is also sweet to eat but is hard relative to ripe fruit.

Question 34.
Do some substances change their taste when cooked?
Answer:
Some substances change their taste when cooked.

Question 35.
Add sugar to lemon juice. What change do you notice in the taste?
Answer:
The lemon juice becomes sweet to taste when sugar is added.

Question 36.
Is there any difference in the taste without sugar?
Answer:
Without sugar lemon juice will be sour to taste.

Question 37.
Do some substances change colour when added to other substances?
Answer:
Yes. Some substances change colour when added to other substances.

Question 38.
Have you observed any change when lime water is added to turmeric?
Answer:
When lime water is added to turmeric the colour changed to red.

Question 39.
What are indicators?
Answer:
Those substances that indicate a change in colour when some substances are added to them are known as indicators.

Question 40.
How do you prepare lime water? In what way is this useful to you in day to day life?
Answer:

1. Take half a beaker full of water. Add about 5 gm of lime that we apply to betel leaves.
2. Stir the beaker well and let it stand overnight.
3. Filter this solution the following day.
4. This filtrate is lime water. This solution should be transparent.
5. We use this filterate in our experiments.
6. Lime is used when we consume betel leaves.

Question 41.
You are given a substance. What do you do to identify it as an acid, a base or neutral in nature?
Answer:

1. The substance that turns blue litmus to red is acidic in nature.
2. The substance that is soapy to touch and turns red litmus to blue is basic in nature.
3. If the substance given did not change the colour of either blue or red litmus, then it is said to be neutral in nature.

Question 42.
Take things which are sour in taste and used as food. Eg. Curd, lemon juice. If you check these substances with blue and red litmus what happens?
Answer:

1. When a drop of curd is put on blue litmus paper the colour changed to red indicating the acidic nature of curd.
2. When a drop of lemon juice is put on the blue litmus paper, the colour of the paper changed to red indicating the acidic nature of lemon juice.

Question 43.
Why have you experienced a burning sensation when bitten by an ant?
Answer:

1. I have experienced a burning sensation when bitten by an ant.
2. The sensation is due to the presence of formic acid that the ant releases.

Question 44.
How is it possible to make-believe Blood comes out of a lemon?
Answer:

1. When a magician or a juggler cuts a lemon, blood flows out of it. Actually, he uses a knife dipped in Methyl Orange or hibiscus solution to cut the lemon.
   
2. When Methyl Orange is mixed with citric acid (lemon juice) it turns red.
3. But it is not blood.
4. In many of our places we find people doing this and presenting it as magic.

Question 43.
Why are the inner sides of vessels made up of brass and copper coated?
Answer:

1. When some substances are kept in a copper container for a long time then a blue-green layer is formed in the inner walls of the container.
2. Copper reacts with the acids present in the substances and forms a blue-green compound.
3. To avoid this reaction the inner walls of these vessels are coated with Tin.

Question 44.
Why are pickles, jams, jellies preserved in glass, porcelain and plastic containers?
Answer:

1. The acidic or basic nature of the substances pickles, jams, jellies react with the material of the containers if they are preserved in metallic containers.
2. These corrode the metal of the container.
3. To avoid this these are preserved in glass, porcelain or plastic containers.
4. The material of these containers do not react with the substances preserved.

Question 45.
Ravi said that acid rains are causing damage. Do you agree with his statement?
What are acid rains? Where do you witness such rains in our state?
Answer:
Yes. I agree with his statement because

1. Acid rains are the combination of Carbonic acid, Sulphuric acid and Nitric acid with rain water.
   
2. Acid rains cause damage to buildings and to our skin.
3. Industrial waste gases contain Sulphur dioxide,
   Nitrogen Oxide, Carbon dioxide.
4. When they get mixed with moisture they change to acids.
5. Acid rains are also witnessed in our State in the Visakhapatnam district.

Question 46.
You are given Hydrochloric acid. How can you make it into a solution which is neither acidic nor basic?
Answer:

1. 10 drops of Hydrochloric acid is taken in a clean test tube.
2. A drop of methyl orange indicator input is that acid in the test tube.
3. The colour of the solution becomes red due to the indicator.
4. With the help of a dropper carefully drop drops of caustic soda into the test tube and shake it.
5. When an additional drop is put in the solution, the colour changes to yellow, indicating that the solution becomes a base.
6. If we add only one drop of Hydrochloric acid in the test tube, the colour of the solution almost disappears indicating that the solution in the test tube is neutral.

Question 47.
You are asked to make the given caustic soda solution into neither acidic nor basic. What would you do?
Answer:

1. In a clean test tube 10 drops of caustic soda solution is taken.
2. One drop of Methyl orange indicator is added to it.
3. The solution turns to yellow colour indicating that the solution is basic in nature.
4. With the help of a dropper drops of hydrochloric acid are added to the solution in the test tube.
5. By the drop of a drop of Hydrochloric acid in the process, the yellow colour of the solution disappears.
6. The solution in the test tube is now neutral in nature.

Question 48.
Why is the use of natural organic manure becoming more preferred?
Answer:

1. In recent years the use of chemical fertilizers has increased.
2. Though the use of chemical fertilizers increases production it changes the nature of the soil.
3. Some fertilizers increase the acidity of the soil and some its basicity.
4. Thus use of natural organic manure is becoming more preferred these days.

Question 49.
Why is our sweat like salt?
Answer:

1. Our body needs many types of salts.
2. We lose some salts through excretion.
3. So sweat is salty.

Question 50.
Charitha sprinkled lime water on turmeric idol. It turned into red colour. Guess and write the reasons.
Answer:
Turmeric is a natural indicator. When we sprinkle lime water (calcium hydroxide) which is a base, turmeric indicates red colour in the basic medium.

Question 51.
If Hibiscus, Turmeric, Rose petals are given to you, mention the use of the above materials for investigating Acids and Bases in the school lab. MiiKiitaa
Answer:
Rose, turmeric and hibiscus are natural indicators. Hence, we can use them to identify the chemical nature of different substances.

Question 52.
a) You have tested the following materials with litmus paper. Fill the table according to that and answer the following questions.

b) In the above table
Acids are: ……………….
Bases are: ……………….
Neutral solutions are: ……………….
Answer:

From the above table
The Acids are – Lemon juice, Grape juice and Orange.
The Bases are – Lime water, Soap water.
The Neutral solutions are – Milk, Sugar solution and Salt water.

Question 53.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

i) Which substances will change blue litmus to red?
ii) Which substances will change red litmus to blue?
iii) Which substances will not be affected by blue litmus or red litmus?
iv)What kind of substances are litmus papers?
Answer:
i) Acids like orange juice, vinegar turn blue litmus red.
ii) Basic substances like baking soda solution turn red litmus blue.
iii) Sugar solution will not be affected by either red litmus or blue litmus.
iv) Litmus papers are called indicators.

Question 54.
Burn a small piece of Magnesium ribbon by holding it with tongs.

Collect the white ash formed and dissolve it in little water.
Test the solution formed with blue litmus and red litmus.
Now answer the the questions given below,
i) What is the aim of this experiment?
ii) Is the composition of the ash formed different from Magnesium ribbon? If so, how?
iii) What substance is formed when the ash is mixed with water?
iv) What inference can be made on the basis of this experiment?
Answer:
i) To test the effect of basic substances on red litmus paper.
ii) Yes, the substance formed after burning looks like ash.
iii) Magnesium Hydroxide.
iv) Basic substances (or) Magnesium Hydroxide.

Question 55.
Observe the experiment and answer the following questions.
Mix a spoon of vinegar and a pinch of baking soda in a test tube. Pass the gas that is released into another test tube containing lime water as shown here.
i) What is the aim of this experiment?
ii) Name the apparatus used to conduct this experiment.
iii) Name the gas released in the test tube that on mixing vinegar with baking soda.
iv) What is the change observed in the lime water on passing the gas?
Answer:
i) Test tubes, rubber cork, delivery tube.
ii) Vinegar, baking soda, water, lime water.
iii) Carbon dioxide.
iv) Lime water turns milky.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 11 Respiration in Organisms

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 11th Lesson Respiration in Organisms

7th Class Science 11th Lesson Respiration in Organisms Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is breathing?
Answer:
The process by which air goes in and out of our body is called breathing.

Question 2.
What is inspiration and expiration ?Explain the term ‘respiration rate’.
Answer:

1. The process of breathing in air is called inspiration and that of breathing out air is called expiration.
2. The number of times we breathe in and breathe out air in a minute is called the respiration rate.

Question 3.
What does our breath contain?
Answer:

1. We know that we inhale and exhale air.
2. The exhaled air is warm and has moisture in it.
3. What we do not know is about the gases our body takes from the inhaled air and throws out in exhaled air.
4. We know that air is a mixture of several gases not only Oxygen and Carbon dioxide, there are others as well. Air also contains several suspended particles.
5. We inhale all these.
6. We exhale Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Nitrogen and other gases.

Question 4.
How does a fish breathe?
Answer:

1. Observe fishes in an aquarium. Fishes continuously open and close their mouth in water.
2. Why do the flaps on both sides of the head alternately open and close?
   
3. If you look below the flaps, you will see gills. These are the respiratory organs of the fish.
4. The water that enters the mouth flows through both the gills as it comes out of the flaps.
5. The gills absorb the oxygen that is dissolved in the water. This oxygen is carried to different parts of the body.

Question 5.
Describe how does a frog take its breathe.
Answer:

1. We know that frog is able to stay on land, in water and even underground.
2. To breathe on land it has lungs while it goes deep underground and sleeps twice every year, its moist skin takes over the function of its lungs.
   
3. In baby frogs or tadpoles there are special organs like that of fishes called gills.
4. These gills help them to breathe in water by taking in the air dissolved in water.
5. Tadpoles of the frog live only in water but the frog lives either on land or in water. Sometimes you may see frogs under the soil also.
   

Question 6.
Explain the breathing process in cockroach.
Answer:

1. A cockroach has small openings on the sides of its body.
2. Other insects have similar openings.
   
3. On the underside of the cockroach in each segment, there are small holes which are connected through respiratory tubes in a network.
4. These help the cockroach to breathe. These holes are called spiracles.
5. The network of respiratory tubes called trachea take air from these spiracles, circulate it throughout the body, collect it back and send it out through these spiracles.
   
6. To know more about this process you may observe a live cockroach by keeping it covered by a transparent bottle or glass.

Question 7.
Describe how does an earthworm breathe.
Answer:

1. Earthworms breathe through their skin.
2. It is thin and moist with minute holes.
   
3. Through the skin, air passes in and out.
4. The earthworm thus breathes through its whole body surface.

Question 8.
How do plants respire?
Answer:

1. In human beings gaseous exchange with the surroundings takes place through nose and mouth.
2. We know the parts in plants that help in gaseous exchange.
3. They are stomata present on surface of leaves and lenticels present on the surface of stems.
4. They respire through them.

Question 9.
At what time plants respire and photosynthesize?
Answer:

1. In day time plants respire as well as photosynthesize.
2. At night only part of the process of photosynthesis takes place and carbon dioxide is not used up completely by this process.
3. Respiration continues at night also.

Question 10.
What is use of oxygen in hospitals?
Answer:

1. You may have heard of big hospitals keeping cylinders filled with oxygen.
2. When a person has breathing problems he is given oxygen.
3. An oxygen mask is fitted to the nose and mouth of the person and a rubber tube connects the mask to the oxygen cylinder.
4. Sometimes a patient is given oxygen during an operation.

Question 11.
In your opinion does the expiration rate increase or decrease after exercising?
Answer:

1. The air we breathe in fills our lungs that are located in our chest.
2. Exercise and running increase the rate of our breathing.

Question 12.
What happens to your chest when you take a breath?
Answer:

1. Take a length of twine or a measuring tape. Wrap the tape around the chest of one of your friends and measure the width of her / his chest.
   
2. Hold the tape lightly and ask your friend to breathe in and out deeply a few seconds.
3. You find that the chest expands when air is inhaled, it reaches the lungs and chest expands.

Question 13.
What is the difference between inhaled and exhaled air?
Answer:

1. Exhaled air is warm and contains moisture and carbon dioxide.
2. Inhaled air is at room temperature and contains oxygen along with other gases.

Question 14.
How long a person can hold his / her breath? How do you find?
Answer:

1. Use a watch with a seconds needle to time our breathing.
2. If we don’t have a watch, then practice counting at a uniform rate.
   
3. We can measure the time by counting.
4. Close our mouth and close our nose with our fingers so that air cannot pass through it.
5. We can find the time for how long could we keep our mouth and nose closed.

Question 15.
How many breathes do you have in a minute?
Answer:

1. Hold a finger under the nose of one of your friends.
2. The side with the fingernail should face the nostrils.
   
3. Ask your friend to breathe in and out normally.
4. When your friend exhaled your finger felt the warmness of the air.
5. Using this method you can find out how many times your friend inhales and exhales in a minute.

Question 16.
How much air do you breath? Do a simple activity to know it?
Answer:

1. Make a measuring cylinder with a two-litre plastic bottle and 100 ml injection bottle.
2. To do this, pour 100 ml of water at a time in the bottle and mark the water level after each addition.
3. Now fill the bottle to the brim and invert it in a bucket or a large container of water.
4. But remember, no air bubbles should remain in the bottle after you invert it.
   
5. Insert one end of a rubber tube into the mouth of the bottle under water.
6. Hold the other end of the tube in your hand. Inhale as much air as you can and blow the air into the measuring cylinder through the rubber tube.
7. Don’t breathe in while blowing the air out.
8. Blow out as much air as you can in a single breath.
9. This air will collect in the measuring cylinder.
10. As a result,-the water level in the cylinder will fall.
    The reduction in water level is equal to the air you breath.

Question 17.
How do you find the gases that are present in our breath? Describe the activity you perform.
Answer:

1. Set up the apparatus shown in Figure (a) for this experiment. Be careful while inserting the glass tube in the cork. It could break. So take the help of your teacher to do this.
   
2. Fill both boiling tubes one fourth with phenolphthalein solution. Mark them A and B.
3. Now repeatedly blow in and suck out air in this apparatus as shown in Figure (b).
   
4. Note the boiling tube in to which air flows when you suck in air.
5. Note the boiling tube through which air flows out when you blow out air.
6. You find that there is a difference between inhaled air and exhaled air.
7. Repeat the experiment by replacing the boiling tubes with lime water filled one fourth in them.
8. You will find that the lime water in the tube through which exhaled air passed turned milky.
9. This indicates that the exhaled air contains carbon dioxide.
10. The table given here under shows the components in the inhaled air and exhaled air.
    

Question 18.
How can you find out the respiration in plants by an experiment?
Answer:

1. Take a conical flask. Fit a two-holed rubber cork tightly into its mouth and insert glass tubes into the two holes.
2. Fit a rubber tube on one of the glass tubes and a funnel on the other. If the funnel does not sit tightly on the glass tube, make a funnel with an ink dropper.
3. Fill a test tube about one-fourth with lime water and dip the rubber tube into it.
4. Now add water to the funnel drop by drop. Keep adding water till the conical flask is filled one-fourth with water. Observe the test tube carefully while you add water.
5. You find no change in the colour of lime water.
6. Now remove the water from the conical flask and put some flowers and buds in it. Fit a cork on the flask and let it stand for half an hour.
7. Now add water drop by drop to the conical flask through the funnel as you did in the previous experiment. Look carefully at the test tube while doing so.
8. The lime water turns milky indicating the release of carbon dioxide.
9. This is how plants respire. They take oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

Question 19.
How do you find respiration in sprouted seeds?
Answer:

1. Take sprouted seeds is the conical flask.
2. Pour water drop by drop in to the funnel through the funnel.
   
3. The released gases are allowed to pass through lime water.
4. Lime water turns milky indicating the release of carbon dioxide.
5. Sprouted seeds respire taking oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.

Question 20.
Write a note on the discovery of carbon dioxide.
Answer:

1. The first step towards trying to find out what air contained was carried out by Von Helmont.
   
2. He conducted an experiment of burning charcoal which leads to the formation of ash.
3. He found the weight of ash to be much less as compared to charcoal.
4. On the basis of this, he concluded that the decrease in mass was due to the formation of an invisible substance which he named “gas”.
5. In the year 1756, Joseph Black studied this gas in more detail.
   
6. He found that when limestone is heated or reacted with acids, it gives rise to a gas which he called “fixed air”.
7. He studied several properties of this gas. One of the properties was, lime water turned milky when this gas was passed through it.
8. Now we know this gas as carbon dioxide.

Question 21.
How is oxygen discovered? Write the history of its discovery.
Answer:

1. After nearly two decades of discovery of carbon dioxide, oxygen was discovered.
2. Joseph Priestley, published his“Experiments and observations on different kinds of air” and was the first to prove the different qualities of the gases released by plants and the one’s exhaled by animals (mice).
   
3. He discovered that, although a candle burned out in a closed container, when he added a living sprig of mint to the container, the candle would continue to burn.
4. At the time, Priestley did not know of Oxygen, but he correctly concluded that the mint sprig “restored” the air that the burning candle (or mice which he used in a similar set of experiments) had spoiled.
5. Priestley shared his observations with Lavoiser.
   
6. Lavoiser had also conducted several experiments on atmospheric air and knew that it contained many gases, and he identified Priestley’s discovery as the active component of air for which he had been searching.
7. He called it oxygen (Greek: acid former), in the belief that all acids contained it.

Question 22.
Do plants respire?
Answer:

1. Plants respire like us.
2. But it is difficult to observe this through experiments.
3. Both plants and animals use oxygen during respiration.

Question 23.
Read the table and answer the following questions.

1. Which animals respire through the trachea?
2. Why does fish respire only in water?
3. In how many ways does frog respire?
4. Give some more examples for animals that respire with lungs.

Answer:

1. Scorpion, Cockroach, Grasshopper.
2. Gills are the respiratory organs of the fish. The gills absorb the oxygen that is dissolved in water. Hence, fish respire only in water.
3. Gills, Lungs, Skin.
4. Frog, Monkey, Man.

Question 24.
Name the respiratory organs of the following animals,
a) Fish b) Earthworm
Answer:
a) Fish ——– Gills.
b) Earthworm ——– Skin.

Question 25.
Read the table. Answer the questions given below.

a) Which gas is more in inhaled air?
b) What changes do you observe in the percentage of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air? Where does it come from?
c) How much Oxygen is retained in our body?
d) Which gas is more useful in our respiration process?
Answer:
a) Nitrogen
b) The volume of carbon dioxide is increased. CO₂ is released during respiration.
c) 45 ml
d) Oxygen.

Question 26.
Latha’s teacher conducted an experiment in the classroom. Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

1. What is the aim of this experiment?
2. Which equipment is required to conduct this experiment?
3. Which gas is released during the experiment?
4. What other material can be used in this experiment instead of seeds?

Answer:

1. To prove that respiration takes place in plants.
2. Conical flask, a two-holed rubber cork, test tube, funnel, rubber tube and lime water.
3. CO₂ (Carbon dioxide)
4. Moong, Bengal gram.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Electricity – Current and Its Effect

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect

7th Class Science 7th Lesson Electricity – Current and Its Effect Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Series and Parallel electric circuits?
Answer:
A) Series circuits:

1. In a series circuit, electricity has only one path to flow through.
2. All the electrical components are connected in this path.
3. If any one of them is removed or is not functioning properly, the circuit will be incomplete.

B) Parallel circuits:

1. A parallel circuit has more than one path for the flow of electricity.
2. Each bulb in the circuit is connected in a separate path through which electricity can flow.

Question 2.
Describe the effect of connecting electrical cells in series. How would you connect them in series?
Answer:
Connecting Electrical cells in series:

1. Take a dry cell and torch bulb.
2. Connect the bulb to a cell using copper wires shown in figure-a. Observe the intensity of light.
   
3. Now take one more dry cell and connect two cells as shown in figure-b.
   
4. In this method the positive terminal of the first cell and the negative terminal of the second cell are connected to the bulb.
5. .When the cells are connected in series more electricity flows in the circuit and the bulb glows with greater brightness.

Question 3.
Describe the connection of cells in parallel. Draw the circuit diagram also.
Answer:
Connecting Electric Cells in Parallel:

1. Take three dry cells and connect them as shown in figure-a.
   
2. That is all the positive terminals of the three cells are connected together and all the three negative terminals are connected together.
3. These three positives and three negatives are connected together to a bulb.
4. There is no difference in the intensity of the bulb glow compared to that in the case of only one cell.
   

Question 4.
How are electric bulbs connected in series? Where do you find such connections in your daily life? What is the disadvantage with this arrangement?
Answer:
Connecting electric bulbs in series:

1. Connect three torch bulbs in series as shown in figure.
   
2. Connect this to a dry cell. Observe the brightness of each of the three bulbs.
3. Now connect one more dry cell in series with the first cell.
4. Observe the brightness of each of the bulb.
5. Then connect one more dry cell in series with the first two cells. Again observe the bulbs. The brightness of the bulbs increases with the addition of cells.
6. In series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs in the series will stop glowing.
7. It means that if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs do not glow. This is the disadvantage.
8. This can be observed in serial bulbs used in decorative items at the time of marriages and other festivals.

Question 5.
a) How are electric bulbs connected in parallel?
b) What is, the advantage with this type of connection?
c) Where do you find such connections?
Answer:
Connecting bulbs in parallel:
a)

1. Connect three bulbs in parallel as shown in figure.
   
2. That is, one end of each of the three bulbs are connected to one wire.
3. The other ends of the three bulbs are connected to another wire.
4. These two wires are connected to a cell. All the three bulbs glow dimly.
5. Now disconnect one of the bulbs.

b)

1. It means that if one bulb is disconnected the other bulbs continue to glow.
2. This is the advantage with this type of connection.
3. This can be observed in our household electric circuit. All components in our houses are connected in parallel.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of using tube lights and compact fluorescent lamps.
Answer:

1. Wastage of electricity can be reduced by using fluorescent tube lights in place of the bulbs, as shown in figure, (a).
   
2. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFLs) shown in figure, (b) also reduces wastage and can be fixed in ordinary bulb holders.
   
3. The ISI mark of a lamp ensures that the appliance is safe.

Question 7.
What is an electric fuse? Explain its importance. How does it work?
Answer:
Electric Fuses:

1. When excessive electric current flows through a circuit the wires or the appliances may get heated and can catch fire.
2. To avoid fire, a safety device known as a fuse is connected in series in the circuit.
3. A fuse is a small piece of wire as shown in figure.
   
4. It is made of a special alloy that gets heated quickly and melts.
5. If the current in the circuit is too high, the fuse wire gets hot and melts.
6. This leaves a gap in the circuit. Automatically the circuit is broken and flow of electricity is stopped.
7. This protects appliances from getting burnt due to the passage of too large a current through them.

Question 8.
What is a Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB)? What is its advantage? For which mark should we look at it?
Answer:
Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB):

1. These days Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) is increasingly being used in place of fuses.
2. These are switches which automatically turn off when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.
3. It has a switch which goes OFF automatically if there is overheating.
   
4. This breaks the circuit. If we turn them on, the circuit is once Miniature Circuit again complete.
5. The advantage miniature circuit breakers have over fuses is that they can be reset (manually or automatically) to restore normal operation, whereas fuses need to be replaced after every single operation.
6. The MCB can be reset by hand and the circuit becomes complete once again.
7. Look for ISI mark on MCBs.

Question 9.
What are the inventions of Michael Faraday?
Answer:
Michael Faraday (1791-1867): Michael Faraday observed that by moving a magnet in and out of a coil we can make electric current flow through the coil. Using this he built the first electric generator or dynamo in 1831. He also invented the transformer.

Question 10.
What is the importance of symbols? What role do they play in our life?
Answer:

1. We know about symbols. We do indicate to our teacher that we wish to go out to drink water.
2. We know the signs for addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
3. We might have used the symbols for ‘greater than’, ‘less than’, ‘equal to’ etc.
4. Symbols play an important role in our life.
5. They convey precise meaning with few descriptions.
6. Some common electric components can be represented by standard symbols.

Question 11.
What happens to the electric bulb when the current is passed?
Answer:

1. The bulb becomes hot when we put it on for some time.
   
2. It is the filament of the bulb that heats up due to current flowing through it.

Question 12.
What do you understand by the term ‘the filament of an electrical appliance’?
Answer:

1. We have seen an electric iron, electric cooker and electric heater.
   
2. All these contain a coil of wire made up of Nichrome.
3. This coil is called a filament of the appliance.

Question 13.
What happens when electrical appliances like electric iron, electric heater etc., are switched on?
Answer:

1. We have noticed that when these appliances electric heater, electric iron are switched on, their filaments become red hot and give out heat.
2. The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on its materials, length and thickness.
3. Thus, for different requirements, the wires of different materials, lengths and thicknesses are used.

Question 14.
What happens when an electric current passes through wires used for making electric circuits and through the elements of some electric appliances?
Answer:

1. The wires used for making electric circuits do not normally become hot.
2. On the other hand, the elements of some electric appliances become so hot that they are easily visible.
3. The filament of an electric bulb gets heated to such a high temperature that is starts glowing and giving out light.

Question 15.
Describe how can you make your own cell. Explain how do you test the working condition of that cell.
Answer:

1. We will need a few things to make a cell.
2. First get two injection bottles. Then cut two 3 cm long bits of thick copper wire. Use sandpaper to scrape about 1 cm of the coating off both ends of the wires.
3. Break open a discharged dry cell and remove its outer metal covering (made of Zinc). Cut two 2 mm wide and 3 cm long strips from this zinc plate.
4. Insert the copper wires and zinc strips separately into the rubber caps of the injection bottles as shown in Fig.
   
5. Ensure that the copper wires and zinc strips do not touch each other.
6. Now take a wire and connect the zinc plate of one bottle with the copper wire of the other bottle.
7. Fill both bottles with sulphuric acid. Carefully close the bottles with the caps in which the copper wires and zinc strips are inserted.
8. The cell is ready. To test its working take a LED.
9. Attach two wires to its two terminals. Touch the wire from one terminal to the copper wire of the first bottle and the wire from the other terminal to the zinc plate of the second bottle.
10. The LED lights up. It means the cell is working.

Question 16.
What can you see inside a dry cell when it is cut open?
Answer:

1. With the help of your teacher cut open a dry cell.
   
2. Observe the chemical components in the dry cell.
3. Inside a dry cell there are certain chemicals which react with one another to produce electric energy.

Question 17.
Think of the main use of electrical appliances and write their names in a table.
Answer:

Question 18.
How is electricity supplied to our houses ? Are we getting it free of cost?
Answer:

1. Most of the electricity that we use at home and at school is alternating current.
2. The main electricity that is supplied to our houses comes from power stations and sub-stations distribute electricity.
3. Electricity is not free of cost.
4. We have to pay for it according to how much we consume.

Question 19.
How can you know the current consumed in your house?
Answer:

1. We notice that a person belonging to the electricity department, the meter reader, visits houses every month and takes the meter readings.
   
2. If we look at the meter in our house we will notice a wheel that goes around and the numbers in the window keep changing.
3. Modern meters have digital displays.

Question 20.
What does the term ’one unit’ mean? How is the usage of electricity measured?
Answer:

1. If we look at the bulbs used in our home, we will notice that they are marked in watts 25 W, 40W, 60W, 100W.
2. The wattage measures how ‘powerful’ the bulb is.
3. The brighter the bulb, the higher its wattage and the more the electricity used by it.
4. 1 kilowatt (KW) is 1000 watts (W).
5. When any appliance of 1 Kilo Watt is used for one hour, it uses up one Kilo Watt – hour (KWH) or ‘one unit’ of electricity.
6. If it runs for two hours it will use up two units of electricity.

Question 21.
Draw a neat diagram of the dry cell and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 22.
Describe the construction of a dry cell.
Answer:
Description of a dry cell:

1. A dry cell consists of a container made up of zinc metal.
2. The container also serves as the negative terminal in the centre.
3. A carbon (graphite) rod with a metal cap serves as a positive terminal.
4. The carbon rod is surrounded by a mixture of carbon particles and a chemical called ammonium chloride.
5. The cell is sealed from the top.
6. The dry cell can supply electric current in a circuit for a certain time.
7. After that/its chemicals get exhausted and it cannot be used any more.
8. Dry cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

Question 23.
Write the symbols of some common electric components and describe their use.
Answer:

Question 24.
Draw a simple switch to close the circuit. For that draw the circuit diagram.
Answer:

1. See figure (a). A bulb, battery and switch are connected as shown.
2. Can we make this drawing simpler using symbols ?
3. The picture of circuit using symbols is called a circuit diagram.
4. Figure (b) shows a circuit diagram of the same circuit as shown in figure (a).

Question 25.
What is a circuit diagram? Explain it appreciating the simplification.
Answer:
Circuit Diagram: The picture of a circuit using symbols is called a circuit diagram.

1. There should be a source, which is one or more electric cells (battery).
2. The switch can be placed anywhere in the circuit. If the switch is in the ON position, the circuit is complete from the positive terminal of the battery to its negative terminal.
   
3. The circuit is then said to be closed and the current flows throughout the circuit constantly.
4. The wires should not have any discontinuity (gaps).
5. When the switch is in the OFF position, the circuit is incomplete. It is said to be open. No current flows through any part of the circuit.
6. Observe the sequence in which the cell, bulb and switch are connected in the circuit.
7. The sequence of components is as follows:
   Positive terminal of the cell → Wire → Switch → Wire → Bulb → Wire → Negative terminal of the cell

Question 26.
Why does the bulb glow brighter and brighter when electric cells are connected in series?
Answer:

1. The electricity can flow through one path when electric cells are connected in series.
2. Addition of a cell in such a circuit adds strength to the electricity flowing.
3. As more electricity flows into the bulb its glow becomes brighter.

Question 27.
Does electric bulb in your house glow with dry cell? Why?
Answer:

1. The electric bulb in our house does not glow with dry cell.
2. The electric bulb in our houses glows with the supply of A.C. at high voltage.
3. Dry cell supplies only D.C. at a low voltage.

Question 28.
Are the cells used in a torch light and wrist watch the same?
Answer:
They are not the same.

Question 29.
What is the reason for connecting electric bulbs in parallel in household electric appliances?
Answer:

1. In the house every bulb should glow independently without depending upon the working condition of other bulbs.
2. This is possible only with parallel connection.
3. So electric bulbs or electric appliances are connected in parallel in household electric connections.

Question 30.
How do we get a battery?
Answer:
By connecting small cells in series we get a battery.

Question 31.
The meter reading in Ayub’s house in January is 400 units, February 580 units. Calculate how much his parents would have to pay towards electricity bill of February. The unit cost is Rs. 3.05.
Answer:

Question 32.
Suppose in a house there are four bulbs of 100 W each, six of 60 W each and six of 40 W each. All of them are used for two hours a day. How many units of electricity will be used up in 30 days? How much will they have to pay at Rs. 2.80/- per unit.
Answer:

1. Total power used = (4 × 100 W) + (6 × 60 W) + (6 × 40 W) = 1000 W = 1 KW
2. Total power used every day = 2 hrs × 1 KW = 2 KWH
   In 30 days, power used = 2 × 30 KWH = 60 KWH
3. The cost of the power is = Rs. 2.80 × 60 = Rs. 168/-

Question 33.
Why should we use electricity carefully and only when needed?
Answer:

1. Our country faces a shortage of electricity.
2. So wasting electricity means we are depriving someone else of electricity.
3. Our bill also goes up.
4. So use electricity carefully and only when it is needed.

Question 34.
a) Look at the diagram, correct it and redraw.

b) Guess the reasons why the bulb did not glow in the circuit.
Answer:
a)

b)

1. The wires are not properly connected.
2. The battery lost its efficiency
3. The battery is not set properly.
4. The bulb has lost its filament.

Question 35.
Fill the table with suitable symbol of electric components listed in the table.

Answer:

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 4 Motion and Time

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 4th Lesson Motion and Time

7th Class Science 4th Lesson Motion and Time Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give few examples of motion you observe in day to day life.
Answer:

1. Motion is a common experience in our life. We observe birds flying in air, buses, autos, cars, bullock carts, moving on roads, trains on railway tracks and many other objects around us in motion.
2. Apart from observing motions of objects around us, we ourselves experience motion while we are walking, running, playing, riding a bicycle etc.
3. Similarly, we observe many objects like trees, buildings, display boards, electric poles etc., at rest while we walk to school.

Question 2.
How do you explain the terms motion and rest? Give an illustrative answer.
Answer:

1. We know that the position of the car has changed with respect to the tree in ‘2’ seconds. But there is no change in the position of the tree with respect to its surroundings.
   
2. An object is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings in a given time.
3. An object is said to be at rest if there is no change in its position with respect to its surroundings in a given time.
4. Thus, we can say that the tree is at rest and the car is in motion while we observe them over a period of time (2 seconds in this case).

Question 3.
Explain the terms uniform and non-uniform motions and define them.
Answer:
Uniform and non-uniform motion:

1. A body is said to be in motion if its position keeps on changing with time (with respect to the observer).
2. But in our daily life we experience certain motions in which, the change in position of objects remains the same for a time interval, in some other motions, the change in position of the object will not be the same for a given time interval.
3. Uniform motion (Definition): If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time it is said to be in uniform motion.
4. Non – Uniform motion (Definition): If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non – uniform motion.

Question 4.
Explain the types of motion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Types of Motions:

1. When we discuss about motion, it is important to be aware that there exist different types of motions and each type is dependent on a particular situation.
2. Let us consider the following examples.
3. A car travelling along a straight road.
4. Motion of blades of a ceiling fan.
5. Motion of needle in a running sewing machine.
6. Motion of pendulum in an old wall clock.
7. Considering the direction of motion what differences do we notice in above examples?
8. The motions in the above examples are different in terms of direction of motion.
   a) Car is moving in same direction along a straight line.
   
   b) Blades of ceiling fan rotate about a fixed line in a circular path.
   
   c) Needle of sewing machine moves up and down about a fixed point.
   
   d) Pendulum of the wall clock oscillates ‘to’ and ‘fro’ about a fixed point.
   
9. Based on the path taken by the bodies in motion we classify motion of bodies as,
   1) Translatory motion
   2) Rotatory motion
   3) Oscillatory motion

Question 5.
Define rectilinear motion and curvilinear motion.
Answer:

1. Rectilinear motion (Definition): If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then motion is called rectilinear motion.
2. Curvilinear motion (Definition): If a body in translatory motion moves along a curved path then motion is called curvilinear motion.

Question 6.
Identify the types of motion in the examples given below.
We notice everyday some motions which are rectilinear and curvilinear at a time. Some examples of motions are given below; Label them as rectilinear (R) or curvilinear (C) or Rectilinear and curvilinear (RC) motions.
1. Seconds hand of a watch. ( )
2. Movement of a train on tracks. ( )
3. Movement of a tape in a tape recorder. ( )
4. Movement of a needle in a speedometer of car. ( )
5. Movement of a bus on hill station road. ( )
6. Motion of coins on a carrom board. ( )
7. Motion of the ball in pin board. ( )
8. Motion of a mango falling from tree.  ( )
Answer:
1. Seconds hand of a watch. ( C )
2. Movement of a train on tracks. ( R )
3. Movement of a tape in a tape recorder. ( C )
4. Movement of a needle in a speedometer of car. ( C )
5. Movement of a bus on a hill station road. ( RC )
6. Motion of coins on a carrom board. ( R )
7. Motion of ball in pinboard. ( RC )
8. Motion of a mango falling from tree. ( R )

Question 7.
Explain Rotatory motion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Observe the following diagrams.


1. What similarity do we find in all the motions?
Answer:
We find all the bodies rotating around an axis.

2. What is the path of motion of each particle of the body that moves?
Answer:
The path of motion of each particle of the body that moves is circular.

3. Is there any change in the position of a body while it is in motion?
Answer:
Except car there is no change in the position of the bodies while they are in motion.
The motion of all these bodies is rotatory motion.

Question 8.
Explain rotatory motion by taking the blades of a fan moving as an example. Define rotatory motion.
Answer:

1. While the blade of a fan is moving, the points A, B, and C on the blade move to Av Br Cj first and then move to A2, B, and C2 position,
2. Thus when a fan is in motion, each point on the blade moves in a circular path around the centre of the fan which is fixed.
3. Here, we observe that the position of a fan is not changing.
   Only the blades of fan are changing their position continuously and moving in circular path around a fixed point.
   
4. The imaginary line passing through this fixed point is called axis of rotation.
5. This type of motion is called Rotatory Motion.
6. Rotatory motion (Definition) : Rotatory motion means that, motion of all particles of a moving body follow a circular path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation.

Question 9.
Explain the terms ‘slow’ and ‘fast motions’.
Answer:

1. We observe many objects in motion in our daily life.
2. In some cases objects move slowly and in other cases they move fast.
3. To know whether the motion is slow or fast

Let us assume that you started to school on a bicycle and your friend started in a bus at the same time from a place.
a) Who reaches the school first? Why?
b) Do you find any difference in the time taken by bicycle and bus to reach the school?
Answer:
a) My friend reached the school first. Because he started in a bus and I started on a bicycle.
b) Bus reaches the school fast. It means bus took less time to reach the school. Bicycle took more time to reach the school.

Question 10.
Observe following pairs of objects that are in motion. Compare their motions and decide which moves slower and which move faster. Mark (S) in relevant box.
a) Whether the motion of a body is slow or fast?
Answer:

a) The body is said to be moving fast if it takes less time to travel the given distance as compared to another body.

Question 11.
Do we need to know about distance covered, time taken by the body in motion to decide whether the motion is slow or fast?
Answer:
Yes, we need to know about distance covered, time taken by the body in motion, to decide whether the motion is slow or fast.

Question 12.
Priya, Karthik, Divya and Kiran participated in a 100 m. running race. They took 20 s, 22s, 25s and 28s respectively to reach the finishing line. Who do you think ran the fastest and whose running is slowest? Why?
Answer:

1. Obviously we can see that all of them ran the same distance of 100 m but time taken to cover the distance was different.
2. Priya took the shortest time of 20 seconds which shows that she was the fastest.
3. Kiran took the longest time of 28 seconds which shows that he was the lowest.

Question 13.
Write the units of time.
Answer:
The basic unit of time is a second(s). Larger units of time are minutes (min) and hours (h).
Table: Units of time

Question 14.
What is the need to know the speed? How do we know it?
Answer:

1. Many objects in the world around us are moving.
2. To compare how fast they are moving, we need to know their speed.
3. You may have observed the speedometer in motor cars which tells us how fast the car is travelling.
4. Usually, the speedometer in a vehicle shows the distance travelled in kilometers and the needle shows the speed of the journey in kilometers per hour.
5. Look at the speedometers of two vehicles shown here and decide which vehicle is slower.
   Car – 1 is slower.
   

Question 15.
How do you calculate the average speed of any object?
Answer:

1. Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time taken to travel the distance.
2. Thus we can define speed of an object as the distance travelled by it in a unit of time.

Question 16.
What are the units of speed?
Answer:
Units of speed.

1. Depending on the need and context, speed is measured in different units.
2. Unit of speed in S.I. system is meter per second (m/s)
3. Another unit commonly used for speed is kilometer per hour (Km/h).
4. The basic unit of speed is m/s.

Question 17.
Observe motion of the car.

1. The distance between the driver and the car changes. ( )
2. The distance between the car and gate of the house is changed. ( )
3. There is no change in the position of gate of the house with respect to its surroundings. ( )
4. There is no change in the position of the car with respect to its surroundings. ( )

Answer:

1. The distance between the driver and the car does not change.
2. The distance between the car and gate of the house is changed. (Correct statement)
3. There is no change in the position of the gate of the house with respect to its sourroundings (Correct statement)
4. There is change in the position of the car with respect to its surroundings.

Question 18.
Show that 1 km/h = 5/18 m/s.
Answer:
1 km = 1000 m
and 1 h = 3600 s
1 km / h = 1000 m/3600 s = 5/18 m/s

Question 19.
Consider a car driven on a road. A person seated beside the driver recorded the distance travelled after every 10 minutes by noting the distance reading in the
speedometer. The distance travelled by the car at different instances of time is as follow.
a) What is the total distance travelled by the car?
b) What is the time taken to travel the distance?

c) How do you find the speed of the car?
d) Is the speed of the car uniform throughout the journey?
Answer:
a) Total distance travelled by the car = 60 km.
b) Time taken = 40 min.
c) To find the speed of the car in the journey we should calculate total distance travelled by the car and the total time taken to cover that distance.
Total distance travelled by the car = 60 km
Time taken = 40 min.
The distance must be either in meters or kilometers and time in seconds or hours. We express the speed either in m/s or in km/h. In this example distance is 60 km and time is 40 min.
1 hour = 60 min

Thus, the car travelled with an average speed of 90 km/h.
d) From the table, we notice that the car has covered unequal distances in equal intervals of time (10 min), which shows the speed of the car is not uniform.

Question 20.
The speed of a bus is 72 km/h, whereas the speed of a car is 12.5 m/s. Which vehicle moves faster?
Answer:
1) The speed of the bus is = 72 km/h
= 72 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 20 m/s
2) The speed of the car is = 12.5 m/s
3) As the speed of the bus is more than the speed of the car, the bus moves faster.
Note: To compare two speeds. They must be expressed in the same units. In the above example, speed of a bus is expressed in km/h and the speed of a car in m/s, tp compare these speeds, one of them must be converted to other.
Speed of a bus = 72 km/h = 20 m/s

Question 21.
How can you prove that motion is relative to the observer?
Answer:
Observing motion of the car.
Look at the pictures.

1. Imagine that you sat in the moving car beside the driver.
2. As the car moves, the distance between you and the landmarks like buildings, trees, poles etc., outside the car changes.
3. This change in the scene you view through the window indicates that the car is moving.
4. However your position with respect to the driver of the car remains the same.
5. That is you and the driver of the car are at rest with respect to each other, but both of you are in motion with respect to the surroundings outside the car.
6. A body may be at rest with respect to one set of surroundings and at the same time be in motion with respect to another set of the surroundings.
   Thus motion is relative to the observer.

Question 22.
Observe the following pictures. Read the statement below the first picture and write similar statements about other pictures.
a) 1) The man in the boat is moving in respect to the bank of river.

2) He is at rest with respect to the boat.

b) 1) The girl on the swing is with respect to the to seat of the swing.

A) The girl on the swing is at rest with respect to the seat of the swing.
2) She is with respect to the garden.
A) She is moving with respect to the garden.

c) 1) The girl on the bicycle is in respect to the road.

A) The girl on the bicycle is in motion in respect to the road.
2) She is in respect to the bicycle.
A) She is at rest in respect to the bicycle.

Question 23.
How are the hands of wall clock and the movement of a butterfly in a garden described?
Answer:

1. Imagine the movement of hands in a wall clock and the movement of a butterfly in a garden.
   
2. In these two cases hands of wall clock and the butterfly are in motion.
3. They change their positions with time.

Question 24.
a) What difference do you find in the movement of hands of clock and the body of butterfly?
b) In which case is the change of position with time constant?
Answer:
a)

1. We observe that in case of the wall clock, Change in position of minute hand is same for every minute.
2. How do we know this?
3. Measuring the angle between two positions of the minute hand is the way.

b) 1) But in the case of the butterfly, the change in its position is not constant while it is flying from one flower to another in the garden.

Question 25.
Observe the following tables, showing distances travelled by two different cars for different instances of time.

1) Which car has travelled equal distances in equal intervals of time?
2) Which car has travelled unequal distances in equal intervals of time?
Answer:

1. Obviously we notice that for car – A, the change in position in every 10 seconds is 150 m. But for car – B, the change in position is not constant.
2. For 1st 10 seconds, it is 50 m, for 2nd 10 seconds, it is 40 m, for 3rd 10 seconds it is 90 m, and for 4th 10 seconds it is 50 m.
3. Thus motion of car – A is uniform and motion of car – B is non – uniform.

Question 26.
Define uniform motion and non- uniform motion.
Answer:

1. Uniform motion : If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform motion.
2. Non – uniform motion : If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in non – uniform motion.

Question 27.
Observe the following motions of objects, State whether they are in rotatory motion? Draw a line showing axis of rotation by using pencil.
Answer:

Question 28.
Take a table tennis ball, and keep it on the surface of a table. Push the ball with your finger and observe its motion. Is it in Rotatory motion or in Translatory motion?
Answer:

1. When you push the ball on the surface of a table, it moves from one end to the other end and all the particles of the ball also move along the direction of motion of the ball.
   
2. Hence the balls is in translatory motion.
3. Similarly, each particle of the ball moves in a circular path about a particular line, when the ball rolls on the surface.
4. Therefore it is in rotatory motion.
5. Thus in the above example the ball possesses both translatory and rotatory motions.

Question 29.
Observe following motions of bodies and label them as Rotatory (R), Translatory(T), Translatory and Rotatory (TR).
Answer:

Question 30.
Take a cell phone. Go to ‘setting’ and open ‘stop clock’ option. If you are not able to do this take help from your friend or teacher. Measure the time taken for the events mentioned in the table.

Which event has taken more time to complete? Think! How much time does it take to sing the national anthem?
Answer:
The student is advised to do this activity in the school and fill up the columns.

Question 31.
Write the motion of different parts of a bicycle while it is in motion.
Answer:
a) The wheel: Rotatory and Translatory motion.
b) The cycle chain: Rotatory motion.
c) The pedal with its arm: Rotatory.
d) The movement of feet pedaling Rotatory.
e) The rider along with the bicycle; Translatory.

Question 32.
Identifying Uniform and Non – Uniform motion.
Identify uniform and non uniform motions among the following examples and mark Uniform as (U) and Non-Uniform as (NU).
Answer:
1. Movement of hands of a clock. ( U )
2. A boy cycling in a crowded place. ( NU )
3. Movement of a housefly. ( NU )
4. The fan in an air cooler running at fixed speed. ( U )
5. A train entering into a railway station,. ( NU )
6. Kite in the air ( NU )
7. Rotation of the earth. ( U )

Question 33.
Look at the following pictures.

The bus moved from point ‘A’ to ‘B’ in a certain interval of time.
Think and answer the following questions:
1. Do all the parts of bus (like wheels, head lights, windows etc., move along from point A’ to B’?
2. Is the direction of motion of bus along straight line or curved line?
Answer:

1. Yes all parts of bus (like wheels, head lights, windows … etc.,) move along from point A to B.
2. The direction of motion of bus is along straight line.
3. If all parts of a moving body move in the direction of motion then the motion is said to be translatory motion.

Question 34.
Observe the following table, and state the paths of motion for each case by putting (✓) mark in the relevant column.

Answer:

Question 35.
Identify oscillatory motion among the following and put (✓) mark in the brackets given.
Answer:
A spinning top (- )
Bullet from a gun (-)
Typewriter key (✓)
Motion of a potter’s wheel. (-)
Motion of a vibrating sitar string. (✓)
Motion of a car taking a turn while moving. (-)
Ringing of a bell (✓)
A bouncing belli (✓)

Question 36.
Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions.

1. What similarity do you find in the motions of the above given situations?
2. Are the objects in motion following the same path again and again?
3. Is the direction of motion constant?
4. What type of motion is this?
5. Define oscillatory motion.

Answer:

1. If we critically examine the above mentioned motions, we understand that in each case the objects move backwards and forwards or upward and downward, on the either side of a fixed point or a line.
2. Yes. For example, the girl on a swing moves backwards and forwards, on either side of the rest position of the swing.
3. Similarly in other cases also the body is in ‘to’ and ‘fro’ motion along the same path of motion.
4. This type of motion is called oscillatory motion.
5. Oscillatory motion: (Definition)
   The ‘to’ and ‘fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point always following the same path is called oscillatory motion.

Question 37.
How do you communicate the meaning of the terms ‘faster’ and ‘slower’ with the help of situation showing drawings?
Answer:
We understand that the distance travelled by an object in a given interval of time can help us to decide which one is faster and which one is slower.

1. We use the word time very often in our daily life. Look at the following examples.
2. If we observe the above examples, we use the word ‘time’ for different purposes.
3. In some situations, without using the word ‘time’, we express the duration of time like ‘so late’, so early’ etc.

Question 38.
How do we measure or estimate time? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. Ravi and Sathish started for school at 8.00 a.m. from their houses which are side by side. Ravi started on a bicycle and Sathish by walk.
   • Who will reach the school first? How much earlier will he be compared to the other?
   • How do you measure ‘early’ or ‘late’ arrival at school?
     
2. You can easily estimate that Ravi reaches the school earlier than Sathish.
3. But to answer the question of how early Ravi reached, we need to measure the times taken by both Ravi and Sathish and find the difference of time between both the cases.
4. For this we need time measuring instruments like watches, clocks etc.
5. Nowadays, we use different instruments like electronic clocks, digital clocks, quartz clocks etc. to measure time.
6. A few decades ago people used pendulum clocks that have now become rare.

Question 39.
What are the different units for measuring time?
Answer:
Like minutes and hours, week, fortnight, month, season, ayanam are also units for measuring time.

Question 40.
How is the measurement of time done?
Answer:

1. Stop Clocks are used to measure time accurately.
2. We have seen stop clocks in the laboratory.
   
3. We use stop clocks in the laboratory to measure short intervals of time like time taken for completion of chemical reaction, time taken by the pendulum for one oscillation etc.
4. Nowadays we find stop clocks almost in all cell phones.
5. In our daily life stop clocks help measure pulse rate etc.
6. Apart from this, they also help us to accurately measure the times in running races, swimming races, etc.

Question 41.
Travel on a motor vehicle with your father to market or any other place and observe the changes in speedometer reading.
Note the exact time when you started from home and observe the speedometer reading carefully and note it and the corresponding time in the table. Some examples are given in the table.

a) Does the speed of the vehicle remain the same throughout the journey?
b) If not, what can you say about the speed of the vehicle during the journey?
Answer:

1. We experience in our everyday life that most of the objects in motion do not have the same speed throughout the journey.
2. To express the speed of the object, we consider its average speed.
   a) The speed of the vehicle is not the same throughout the journey.
   b) If such is the case, we consider its average speed.

Question 42.
We can classify motion based on the path taken by the bodies during motion. What are translatory motion and rotatory motion?
Answer:
Translatory motion: If all parts of a moving body move in the direction of motion, then the motion is said to be translatory motion.
Rotatory motion: Movement of any object about an axis.

Question 43.
i) How many types of motions are there and what are they?
ii) Read the table and identify the motion.
If the motion is Rotatory, put (R), Translatory (T), both Rotation and Translatory (RT), Oscillatory (O).

Answer:
a) There are 3 types of motions.
They are: 1) Translatory motion; 2) Rotatory motion and 3) Oscillatory motion.

b)

Question 43.
Why do you think the objects like trees, buildings, electric poles, etc. appear to be moving when you are sitting inside a moving bus or train?
Answer:

1. An object may be in the state of movement and at the state of rest at the same time.
2. It happens when the objects compared with different surroundings.

Question 44.
Write the motion of different parts of a bicycle while it is in motion.
i) The wheel
ii) The cycle chain
iii) The pedal with its arm
iv) The movement of the rider along with the bicycle
Answer:
1) The wheel – Rotatory motion
2) The cycle chain – Rotatory and transverse motion
3) The pedal with its arm – Rotatory motion
4) The movement of the rider along with the bicycle – Transverse motion

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 10 Nutrition in Plants

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants

7th Class Science 10th Lesson Nutrition in Plants Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the process of photosynthesis carried on in plants?
Answer:

1. We know that plants take water through their roots and air though the stomata of their leaves. (There are some other parts like loose tissues and lenticels present on the bark of plant through which exchange of air takes place).
2. We also know that leaves contain the green substance, chlorophyll.
3. In the presence of sun light the process of photosynthesis takes place as follows. Green parts of plants use carbon dioxide in the presence of sunlight along with water to make glucose starch and other food materials.
   

Question 2.
What effect light has on the formation of starch in leaves? Describe an activity to find out.
Answer:

1. We need to find out if starch is present in leaves. We already know how to test for starch, but a problem arises if we try this test with leaves.
2. Leaves are green in colour. When iodine solution is put on a leaf, it should turn blue if starch is present.
3. However, the green colour of the leaf disguises the blue colour.
4. So we must first remove the green colour of the leaves if we want to test whether they contain starch.
5. The way to do this is to first put the leaves in a boiling tube and boil them in alcohol.
6. 4 to 5 leaves of a plant were plucked in the afternoon.
7. After removing their green colour in the way described above, they were put in diluted iodine solution.
8. The leaves turned black.
   
9. It means the leaves has starch in them.
10. In the second part of the experiment, 4 to 5 leaves of the same plant were covered with black paper without removing them from the plant.
11. The way the black paper was cut and fixed to the leaves is shown in the figure.
12. These leaves were plucked two days later. Their green colour was removed and they were dipped in iodine solution.
13. The leaves turned black in the pattern shown in the figure.
14. We will notice with the iodine solution test that starch was not present in the portion of the leaves covered with black paper.
15. This experiment confirms that light is essential for the formation of startch in plants.

Question 3.
Do plants produce only starch? If not, what are the other compounds it could produce? explain.
Answer:

1. We know that starch, fats and proteins are present in food.
2. They are also present in plants.
3. Plants produce sugar first, which is converted to starch and then another compound as well.
4. But plants need other nutrient elements to do this.

Question 4.
What are the main nutrients for plants ? What do you mean by micronutrients?
Answer:

1. The main nutrients needed are nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus.
2. Plants require many other nutrient elements as well, but these are needed only in minute quantities.
3. Hence, they are called micronutrients.
4. Plants absorb these nutrient elements from the soil through their roots.

Question 5.
What is Cuscuta? Explain what is meant by hetero trophic nutrition.
Answer:

1. We see yellow thread-like structures twining around the stem, branches and leaves of some trees.
2. Figure shows such a plant.
3. This thread-like plant is Cuscuta. It neither has leaves nor Chlorophyll.
4. Cuscuta takes food from the plant on which it is climbing.
   
5. Like humans and animals such plants depend on the food produced by other plants.
6. This mode of nutrition is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 6.
What are saprophytes? Where do they grow?
Answer:

1. Often after rains we find umbrella like structures growing from the ground.
2. Such plants are called saprophytes.
3. They grow on dead / decaying matter.
4. Mushrooms belong to this type of plants.

Question 7.
What is fungi? Where do you find it?
Answer:

1. Black and white spots appearing on bread pieces, pickles, when kept in moist places. These spots develop due to the growth of fungi, which is a type of plant.
2. All these types of plants do not contain chlorophyll so they simply absorb organic material usually from decaying matter.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on ‘insectivorous plants’.
Answer:

1. A few plants manufacture their own food but also obtain a part of their nutrition from insects.
2. Leaves of these plants are specially modified to trap insects.
   
3. These plants grow in areas deficient in nitrogen.
4. Hence they meet their nitrogen requirements from insects.
5. Being green in colour, they can manufacture their own food.
6. Droseras, Utricularia, Venusflytrap are examples of some such insectivorous plants.
7. These are also called as carnivorous plants.

Question 9.
Mention some plants on whose roots bacteria grow.
Answer:
Some plants like those of the Dal family have a type of bacteria growing on their roots in nodules. The bacteria fixes nitrogen for the plant while it gets shelter in the roots of these plants. Such an association is beneficial to both groups and called symbiosis.

Question 10.
What are Lichens? Write a note about it.
Answer:
There are colonies of algae and fungi living together in a symbiotic relationship. These colonies are known as Lichens. This relationship starts with the attack of the algal colony by a type of fungus. It is an example of balanced parasitism then. Later as algae survive, they are given protection from intense light and conditions of drying up due to the presence of fungus colony. The fungus gets food from its partner.

Question 11.
Describe the experiment conducted by Jan Baptista Von Helmont and discuss his results.
Answer:

1. In the year 1648 a Belgian scientist Jan Baptista Von Helmont conducted an experiment that continued for five years.
   
2. He took a small willow tree and planted it in a large pot of soil.
3. Before he did this he carefully measured the mass of the dry soil and the mass of the tree.
4. He covered the soil with a lid so that nothing could fall onto the surface of the soil and add to its mass.
5. There were holes in the lid so that the tree could grow out of the soil and so that air and water could reach the roots. Von Helmont left the tree for five years, giving it only rain water to drink.
   
6. At the end of the five years he measured the mass of the tree and the mass of the dry soil for a second time.
7. The results of this experiment are shown below.
8. This experiment changed the belief of hundreds of years. This was because Von Helmont arrived at a result that –
9. 
   a) The substances needed for the growth of a plant do not come from the soil only.
   b) The plant grow because of the water it gets.

Question 12.
Who was the first to point out a possible role of light in plant nutrition?
Answer:

1. People tried to check the conclusions of Von Helmont and thus experiment after experiment followed.
   
2. Stephan Hales described the leaves as organs of transpiration (loss of excess water from plant body) and he said that plants exchange gases with their surrounding air.
3. Furthermore, he was the first to point out a possible role of light in plant nutrition.

Question 13.
List the four major things needed by plants to carry out the process of photosynthesis.

Answer:

1. In nature, the presence of the green substance in leaves is essential for photosynthesis to take place.
2. This green substance is called chlorophyll. Plants get water from the soil through their roots while the process of photosynthesis takes place in the leaves.
   

Question 14.
Why is it necessary to irrigate the fields after sprinkling urea?
Answer:

1. Farmers sprinkle urea in rice or wheat fields whenever the leaves turn yellow.
2. The leaves soon become green again.
3. After sprinkling urea, farmers irrigate their fields.
4. Urea dissolves in water and stay near the roots of the rice plants.
5. The plants absorb this urea dissolved in water through their roots.
6. This is the reason why farmers irrigate the fields after sprinkling urea.
7. The rice or wheat plants get water and other nutrients dissolved in it thus.

Question 15.
How does the exchange of air take place in plants?
Answer:

1. Plants get water from the soil through their roots.
   They use carbon dioxide of air. This job is done by the leaves.
2. The leaves have tiny holes through which the exchange of air takes place.
   
3. These holes are so minute we can only see them with the help of a microscope.
4. They are called stomata.
5. It is through the stomata that the exchange of air in leaves takes place continuously.

Question 16.
Draw a diagram of mango tree and write its soliloquy.
Answer:

Question 17.
How do parasitic plants get food from the host plants?
Answer:
Parasitic plants develop special roots called haustoria, which penetrate into the tissues * of the host plant and absorb food materials from them.

Question 18.
What is herberium? How is it useful to us?
Answer:

1. Preservation of plant parts like leaves, flowers or whole plant is a traditional designery art.
2. If the plants are not available in a particular place then the plant physiologists collect those plants where they available and make them in the preservative form.
3. This is commonly known as herberium.
4. They study those plants, and these preserved plants also helpful for the future studies.

Question 19.
Read the para and answer the quesions given below.
Cascuta is a parasitic plant. This receives nutrients from the host plant. It has a finger like structure called haustoria. It inserts it into the stem of the host and receives nutrients.

1. Why do we call Cascuta a parasitic plant?
2. What helps to receive nutrients in Cascuta?
3. Why does Cascuta depend on host for nutrition?
4. Give some more examples of parasitic plants.

Answer:

1. Because Cascuta depends on other plants for food.
2. Haustoria.
3. As Cascuta has no chloroplasts to perform photosynthesis, it depends on other plants for food.
4. a) Corpse flower (Rafflesia plant)
   b) Hydnora plant
   c) Thurber’s stem sucker.

Question 20.
What happens if the stomata is absent in the plants?
Answer:

1. If there are no stomata in plant, transpiration will not occur.
2. Moreover, the gaseous exchange (CO₂, O₂) will not take place in plants.
3. Photosynthesis will not occur in plants.

Question 21.
In human beings respiratory organs are lungs. What are the respiratory organs of plants?
Answer:
Stomata act as respiratory organs in plants.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Using the following case study, explain the role of different Departments of the Government and citizens in the context of RTI. Also write how can the the RTI make functioning of the governments more transparent.

Following incident occurred in Chinnashankarampet of Medak district. Members of the Self Help Groups joined in Abhaya Hastam, Aam Aadmi schemes of the Rural Welfare Ministry of the State Government. Under this scheme their children who were students of classes 9 to 12 were eligible for scholarship of Rs. 1200. However for 3 years students have not been receiving the amount for the years during 2008-11. The students went to the IKP (Indira Kranthi Pathakam) office and enquired about it but the officers ignored their requests.

This came to the notice of the local newspapers. Now they applied to the officers concerned for the information with regard to the scholarships sanctioned. They asked about the number of beneficiaries and the amount sanctioned during 2008-09, 09-10 and 10-11. They got rqply in one week. The amount was 7 lakh rupees. It became clear from the RTI records that even though the amount was sanctioned, it was not distributed. When it was published in the newspapers the amount was distributed to 1167 children within 15 days.

Answer:
Following the case study above we can assess the role of the departments handling different schemes like SHG, IKP, Abhaya Hastam and Aam Aadmi, etc.
Having learnt of the knowledge of RTI and applying for information of the scholarships sanctioned helped the beneficiaries.
The RTI can make the functioning of the Government more transparent. Students who did not receive scholarships for 3 long years were given the same within 15 days. Not only that not providing information asks for punishment on the part of PIOs.

Question 2.
How do you think RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments?
“RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments”- Do you agree with this? Support your answer.
Answer:

1. In any democratic system, governments are responsible and accountable to people.
2. Earlier accountability of government departments and its functionaries were mostly limited to the elected representatives of people.
3. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
4. So, if there are any discrepancies, they will be brought out and who are responsible will be given punishments.
5. So, in this way government functioning can be bettered and monitored well.

Question 3.
What is identified as information? How is this generated in Government Departments? Would it include oral communication between senior and junior officers?
Answer:

1. According to RTI Act, information is defined as material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
2. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
3. The oral instructions or oral communication between senior and junior officers do not fall in this category.

Question 4.
Why are the State and Central Information Offices given autonomy?
Answer:

1. Every government offices have a Public Information Officer (PIO) and Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) and appellate authority in department.
2. All PIOs and APIOs of all departments and departmental appellate authorities are under autonomous appellate State Public Information Office with a State Public Information Commissioner (SPIC).
3. If a government department fall under Central government, PIOs are accountable to autonomous Central Information Office with a Central Public Information Commissioner (CPIC).
4. They are given autonomy because they need to deal with the PIOs who rejected to provide information.
5. They should not yield under any pressure that is why they must be independent.

Question 5.
This (RTI 2005) Act resembles the true spirit of democracy. How do you justify?
Answer:

1. In a democracy, it is the people’s money that is used for their welfare and therefore people have every right to know how this is being used.
2. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
3. In situations where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
4. Information is crucial to human development, and democratic rights.
5. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning and check the possibility of corrupt practices.
6. Thus, this Act (RTI Act of 2005) resembles the true spirit of democracy.

Question 6.
What steps have been taken to ensure that any citizen can access information from the different government departments in the country?
Answer:
Under the provisions of 2005 Act of RTI, public authorities are obliged to
a) maintain all information in a computerised format
b) publish all detailed information pertaining to the information some of it fbitn the Act as follows:

1. Every public authority shall
   a) Maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed.
   b) The authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation, functions and duties.
2. The powers and duties of its officers and employees to be published.
3. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability;
4. The rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees for discharging its functions.

Question 7.
How do you think the Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under the Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002, legal services authorities are constituted to provide free and legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities and to organize Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on an equal opportunity basis.
4. In this way, Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid.

Question 8.
What is the purpose of Lok Adalat?
Answer:

1. Lok Adalat meahs people’s court.
2. All are equal before law.
3. The Article 39A of the Constitution of India contains various provisions for settlement of disputes.
4. It is an act to constitute legal services, authorities to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
5. It is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice or not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
6. To organise Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.
7. This is the purpose of Lok Adalat.

(OR)

1. The main aim of Lok Adalat is to provide free legal aid to poor and weaker sections and also faster settlement of long pending cases on mutual consent.
2. Lok Adalat facilitates the peaceful, amicable, compromise or settlement of cases.
3. It is meant to reduce the burden of the courts.

Question 9.
What do you think on the eligible criteria for free legal services and nature of cases under this Act?
Answer:
i) Persons entitled to get free legal support are

1. A member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribe.
2. A victim of trafficking in human being or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. Persons who are victims of mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought earthquake and industrial disaster.
6. Industrial workers.
7. Persons in custody.
8. Persons with annual income of not more than Rs. 1 lakh

ii) Nature of cases under this Act.
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husbands and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

Question 10.
Compare and contrast the procedures of conflict/case resolution by the Village Community elders and by courts. Which do you prefer and why?
Answer:

1. In our country, it is common that conflicts in the villages and in the communities are addressed by the village/community elders.
2. They settle them in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing the various issues and concerns.
3. The nature of conflict and disputes and their origin are mostly known to the local people and village elders.
4. This facilitates to find out amicable solutions in a transparent way.
5. Now Lok Adalats are functioning to settle disputes/cases in an amicable atmosphere by mutual consent in the presence of legal experts, officials and non-officials, dignitaries.
6. People are now using it for expeditious and inexpensive justice.
7. It is an opportunity to settle long pending court cases through Lok Adalat in short time and without any expenses.
8. It is an old form of dispute/ conflict resolution system valid now also.

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 316

Question 1.
Discuss what could be the reason information would not include oral (instruction of a headmaster to a teacher.
Answer:

1. RTI Act has defined information as the following:
2. Material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models.
3. Data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
4. In this, the oral instructions are not included as they were not in written form.
5. Thus, the oral instruction of a headmaster to a teacher would not be included in information.

Question 2.
Imagine how would government departments would become more accountable when rules and regulations are followed within prescribed manner.
Answer:

1. Government departments have the responsibility to use the people’s money for their welfare.
2. For every department there are rules and regulations that are to be followed within a prescribed manner.
3. If all the departments follow them, automatically they will be more accountable to people.
4. Not only that their functioning would become transparent and free from corruption.
5. Machinery to monitoring them is essential and they must be given applause if they are behaving accountable to people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 318

Question 3.
According to this Act (RTI 2005), if any officer fails to give the specified information, she/he will have to pay the fine. Do you agree with this? Why?
Answer:

1. According to this Act, if any officer fails to give the specified information she/he will have to pay fine.
2. I do agree with it.
3. It prevents corruption.
4. It provides for accountability and transparency.
5. It prevents PIOs from shying away of information.
6. If a fine is imposed on one PIO then it acts as deterrent and most PIOs realise the impact of not giving information.
7. Apart from making the PIOs responsible in case of not providing information, they should be appreciated.

Question 4.
What type of information is not accessible to the citizens? What is the argument in favour of this?
Answer:

1. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. Matters that could be of strategic economic on scientific interest of the state in the context of foreign powers.
3. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commission.
4. It is correct on the part of government not to share the information that is vital and affect the country,. . . . ..
5. If information of strategic importance was disclosed and reached the hands of foreign powers, the damage that could be caused cannot be estimated.
6. Citizens should also have some self restraint and not to seek the information which causes the worry to National Government.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 320

Question 5.
What sort of opportunities are existing in our country for free legal services to the poor people who cannot afford to pay court fees and other related expenses?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002 Legal Services Authorities are constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
4. To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on equal opportunity basis.

Question 6.
What is the nature of cases and conflicts that can be addressed through free legal services?
Answer:

1. The legal services authority through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time without any expenses.
2. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases can be addressed through free legal service.
3. All types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc. can be settled amicably and permanently by Lok Adalats without any fees or expenses through free legal services.

Question 7.
Is there any mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts?
Answer:

1. There is one mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts.
2. Conflicts in villages/ communities are addressed by village/ community elders.
3. They resolute conflicts in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing various issues/ concerns.
4. The nature of conflicts/disputes and their origin are mostly known to village elders.
5. This facilitates to find out an amicable solution in a transparent way.
6. Thus outside the courts the conflicts/disputes are addressed and resoluted by village elders.

Question 8.
Do you support the Lok Adalats? If so, why?
Answer:

1. I support Lok Adalats because there is no court fee, if paid it will be refunded if the dispute is settled.
2. It has procedural flexibility and speedy trial of the disputes.
3. The parties of the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their council.
4. The Award by Lok Adalat is binding on the parties with a status of decree of civil court.
5. Provides free legal advice form the advocates.
6. Provides photocopies of judgements on free of cost.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Choose the correct answer: Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong?
a) Rivalry between the US and the USSR,
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war,
c) Triggering off an arms race,
d) An ideological war between the two super powers.
Answer:
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war.

Question 2.
Who amongst the following is not involved in The West Asian crisis?
a) Egypt
b) Indonesia
c) Britain
d) Israel
Answer:
b) Indonesia.

Question 3.
What was the nature of shift in power in the world after the Second World War?
Answer:

1. The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and imperialism.
2. After the war colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial powers exclusive access to the colonies.
3. In fact, Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the great depression.
4. Far from War theatres, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered.
5. The USSR coming out of its destruction was emerging as a Champion of anticolonial struggle.
6. In the post-war period the USA and the USSR have emerged as super powers.
7. The USA is the leader of the capitalist nations and the USSR is the leader of the communist nations.

(OR)
After the Second World War, the major shift in power is observed between two power blocs of USA and USSR.

1. The USA led an Anti – communist bloc based on capitalistic principles. It tried to prevent other countries from adopting communism.
2. The USSR led a communist bloc. It tried to bring other countries into its communist influence.
3. Both USA and USSR tried to expand their ideologies and check each other, resulted in the situation of cold war.
4. Newly independent countries formed an alliance called NAM that stood independently in international aspects away from both military blocs.

Question 4.
What are the different roles done by United Nations in order to build peace in the world?
Answer:

1. The UN started with a twin objectives of ensuring peace ever lasting and human development.
2. Charter emphasised on the need to preserve peace and prevent wars.
3. It recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affairs of country.
4. In cases of serious human rights violation or threat to world peace, the UN interferes.
5. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council.
6. UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
7. The special powers to great powers is a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
8. UN has been less successful in preventing wars.

Question 5.
Given the idea of democracy do you think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions?
Answer:

1. Given the idea of democracy, also, I think a few countries should have special powers in making decisions.
2. The very existence of forums like UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
3. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
4. At times, these powers may be used to block any action against them.
5. Sometimes these powers save many countries and territories of theirs. As all four permanent members intended to annex Kashmir to Pakistan. Russia used veto power to stop it and did the favour to India.

(OR)
Given the idea of democracy, I think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions is not correct. This is opposite to concept of democracy.

Question 6.
How were the super powers benefited by military alliances?
Answer:

1. Super powers strengthened themselves by creating military alliances.
2. They maintained a constrained relationship acting as a deterrent on each other.
3. With alliances they expanded their influence.
4. They gained the access to the vital resources like oil and minerals.
5. They have markets for their products and places to invest safely their capital.
6. They got military bases to launch their troops and weapons.
7. They could spread their ideology.
8. They gain economic support to pay huge military expenses.

Question 7.
How did Cold War produce arms race as well as arms control?
Answer:

1. Both the USSR and the USA spent huge amounts of money to conduct research into weapons.
2. They build arsenals of devastating nuclear arms and missiles.
3. They could strike across the continents.
4. They had enough nuclear arms to destroy the entire earth many times over.
5. Gradually their allies like Britain, France and China too built nuclear arsenals.
6. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.
7. Many times war looked imminent but got defused somehow through diplomacy.
8. There were many flash points which made everyone believe of the triggering off another world war.
9. But when both ultimately realised the implication of a nuclear war both started working for arms control and many arms control treaties were signed like CTBT, NPT, etc.
10. Both decided to follow the logic of deterrence which meant that both have the capacity to attack and cause so much destruction to threaten the existence of the other. But neither is willing to start the war due to the amount of destruction.

Question 8.
Why did West Asia become a center of tensions in the world?
Answer:

1. West Asia became a center of tensions in the world.
2. The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are the main cause for it.
3. In Palestine is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
4. Jews and Arabs want it at any cost.
5. Matters were also complicated by the discovery of massive oil reserves.
6. Both the US and the USSR wanted to bring it under their sphere of influence.
7. In 1947, UN created Jerusalem for Jews from Palestine.
8. Arabs refused to recognize it as a legitimate state.
9. Israel took policies that insulted Arabs.
10. Arabs formed suicide squads for causing explosions in public places.
11. The region has been constantly in a state of war and terrorist attacks.

Question 9.
By the end of the 20th century there is only one single power that dominates the world. In this context what do you think would be the role of NAM?
Answer:

1. In the current scenario the USA remains a major super-power and China is in the process of becoming the biggest threat to the US supremacy of world affairs. Russia is also slowly climbing back, for its joint policy of respecting anti-US policy in the security council, by the use of the veto along with China.
2. The Nam has in recent years often criticised the USA while backing self-determination of Puerto Rico and Western Sahara. It can play a strong role in devising methods to foster co-operation among these nations.
3. The Nam can also act as a guide and over seen of the condition of Human Rights in some of the member states who have rather poor human rights records.
4. NAM is a great way to ensure that issues like Palestine and crises in Somalia and Sudan get a fair and long-lasting solution and that the super-powers don’t unduly interfere in these issues to meet their vested interest. Thus NAM exists and will continue to exist as a strong organisation to reckon with.

Question 10.
“Formation of NAM was not merely in the context of military alliances but also in the context of economic policies” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Non Alignment was established as an international organisation with an aim to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
2. NAM helped the newly independent nations assert their autonomy in international affairs in a world torn between the two super powers.
3. NAM summit at Algiers in 1973 resolved to constitute 5 different trusts to strengthen the economic development of non aligned countries and assist in their reconstruction activities.
4. In the Hawana summit conference in 1979 it also appealed to take measures to minimise the economic differences between the developed and under developed countries.
5. Thus, it also worked for economical development of NAM countries.
6. During 1970s and early 1980s, the NAM also sponsored campaigns for restructuring commercial relations between developed and developing nations, namely the NIEO.
7. The Djakarta Summit 1992 allowed the movement to shift its focus in a direction that also enabled it to work a cross to grouping such as the G-7 and the EU.

Question 11.
Make a table to show relation between India and neighbouring countires with following items :
Answer:

Question 12.
“The ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.” Justify.
Answer:

1. Since times immemorial, India and Sri Lanka have cultural, ethnic and economic relations.
2. A major irritant in the relation between the two countries has been the treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by the Sri Lankan government.
3. The large scale influx of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees into India posed a special problem.
4. India made an agreement with Sri Lanka and Tamil militants to maintain peace on the land.
5. India sent its armies to keep peace in Sri Lanka and it caused the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.
6. Thus, ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 283

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘decolonization’?
Answer:

1. During the 18th and 19th centuries, some European countries set up colonies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
2. They used those colonies as cheap raw material suppliers and markets for their finished goods.
3. They waged World War keeping control over their colonies.
4. After the Second World War, colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial policies.
5. Under these conditions, old powers like Britain had no choice but to grant freedom to their old colonies.
6. This granting of freedom to old colonies is called ‘decolonisation1.

Question 2.
How do you think the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War, colonial states granted freedom to their colonies.
2. As these countries became free they faced a world greatly torn between Capitalism and Communism.
3. They were continuously under the pressure to choose between the two rather than follow their own paths of development.
4. They also got an opportunity to negotiate by playing one power against the other.
5. Thus, the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 284

Question 3.
Do you think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries?
Answer:
Yes, I think that wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchange between countries.
(OR)

1. I don’t think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries.
2. Most of the wars are fought for ideological differences, colonial advantages, and occupation of other territories as an achievement.
3. Every country fought or allied with it has its own calculations and agenda.
4. Though with the central groups, Italy fought against Germany in the 1st World War.
5. Though made a peace treaty with Russia, Hitler invaded it during the Second World War.
6. Wars may to some extent help for the cultural exchanges between the countries.

Question 4.
According to some the special powers given to the five powers is undemocratic and should be abolished while some others feel that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council and five nations have special status within it.
2. Any decision taken by council can be vetoed by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
3. However, the very existence of UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self control.
4. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
5. So, I support the view that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 289

Question 5.
What was the main purpose of 1955 Bandung conference?
Answer:

1. The leaders of newly independent states felt the need for a change from the insecure and tense situation caused by power blocs.
2. So in 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
3. It was the first Afro-Asian conference represented by 29 nations.
4. Its aim was to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.

Question 6.
How did super powers react for the principles of Non-alignment?
Answer:

1. NAM helped the newly emerging countries to bargain for space and assistance from the super powers by playing one against the other.
2. To some extent it also ease tensions amongst the NAM countries.
3. Both the blocs looked at NAM with suspicion.
4. The US regarded the NAM as being closer to the USSR on wider international issues.
5. When Soviet invaded Afghanistan NAM could not stop it.
6. Thus, the super powers reacted for the principles of Non Alignment Movement.

Question 7.
Why were Non-Aligned Nations called third world countries?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War the world divided into 2 power blocs under the USA and the USSR.
2. So these two are considered two different worlds.
3. Many countries were newly emerged as countries, which were before the colonies of colonial states.
4. All of these countries joined Non-Alignment Movement.
5. So these Non Aligned Nations were called ‘third world’.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 291

Question 8.
What were the reasons for the conflict between Arabs and Israelites?
Answer:

1. The conflict between Arabs and Jews is mainly related to the occupation of Palestine.
2. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
3. The Jews considered Palestine as their Promised Land.
4. In Europe they were the persecuted community as Christians considered them responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
5. The Jews through ‘Zionist Movement’ trying to unite Jews over the world.
6. The discovery of massive oil reserves made the US and the USSR to enter the dispute.

Question 9.
Why did Egypt support the Palestinians during the conflict?
Answer:

1. In 1947 UN divided Palestine and created Israel for Jews.
2. The Arabs did not agree to giving up their homeland.
3. The Arabs were forced to leave their homes and properties in Israel and refugees to Arab states.
4. Egypt formed suicide squads to cause explosion in Israel.
5. Egyptians are also Arabs, that’s why they are vengeful.

Question 10.
Why do you think some Palestinians adopted the path of terrorism? What was its outcome?
Answer:

1. Israelites forced Arabs out of their homes and properties.
2. Egyptians caused explosions in public places in Israel to support Arabs.
3. These were attacks and counter attacks between Israel and Egypt.
4. Israel occupied the territories of Gaza, Golan Heights and the West Bank.
5. Palestinian Liberation Organisation led by Yasser Arafat started in Jordan carried out plane hijacking holding hostage of Israeli Olympic squad and killing many of the sportspersons.
6. The result is Israel used such attacks to mount further attacks on them and refused to implement the promises it had made.

Question 11.
Find out about the condition of Palestinians who are living in refugee camps and constantly facing warfare and poverty.
Answer:

1. The condition of Palestinians who are living in refuge camps are very pitiable.
2. They are constantly facing warfare and poverty.
3. Refugee camps are not providing them sufficient facilities to lead a happy life.
4. Palestinians became the victims of world politics, especially of the super powers.
5. The Palestinian are still fighting for their homeland and peace under very difficult conditions of exile and warfare.
6. Though with the intervention of UN, the problems are not yet solved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 292

Question 12.
What are the similarities and difference between Arab Socialist Nationalism and Religious Nationalism?
Answer:

Question 13.
Find out more about the developments in Iran and Afghanistan under the Taliban to understand how religious states work.
Answer:
Afghanistan:

1. The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops established an extremist Islamic state.
2. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts.
3. In many cases they meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.
4. The beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs which resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.
5. Some Arab terrorists hijacked 2 aircrafts in the US and crashed into the World Trade Centre in New York killing thousands of people.

Iran:
The offical religion of the Islamic Republic of Iran is “Shiaism”. Iran explicitly aims to support and lead the entire Muslim world. The Shariah provides all the laws needed for the Islamic state from Allah.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 293

Question 14.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. The term polarity refers to the world that was divided between two power blocs.
2. It was the period between 1945 and 1991.
3. The two power blocs are Communist power block under USSR and democratic Capitalist power bloc under USA. This, situation is called as bipolarity.
4. But in the year 1991 USSR was disintegrated and Russia was no more a super power.
5. From 1991 the world became unipolar i.e., one super power, America.
6. These are the different terms of bipolarity and unipolarity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 294

15. Read the passage on Page 293 (During the colonial resolved till today.) and answer the following questions.
a. Do you think it was correct for India to give refuge to the Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers?
Answer:

1. I think it is correct for India to give refuge to Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers.
2. China overpowered the Tibet and eschewed its sovereignty.
3. Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers are fighting for their autonomy.
4. According to Panchsheel, China agreed to not interfere into the sovereignty of other countries.
5. It violated the agreement and annexed Tibet.

b. Do you think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet?
Answer:

1. I don’t think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet.
2. It may believe that a small sovereign country in the neighborhood may be a threat.
3. Opponents may bring it in their control or under their sphere of influence.
4. So it might have overpowered it and annexed.
5. Its action, anyway, was not justified.

Question 16.
To what extent do you think both the countries can forget about their past conflicts over the boundaries and develop meaningful cooperation and friendship?
Answer:

1. After the 1962 Indo-Chinese war, it took more than a decade to restore diplomatic normalcy.
2. Being rising powers of Asia, both have strategic as well as economic advantages.
3. Both are ambitious to be major world economic and political powers.
4. They also see each other as economic and political competitors.
5. Both have taken measure to maintain peace and tranquility at the borders.
6. So they have to forget about their post conflicts over borders and develop meaningful friendship and cooperation.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 296

Question 17.
What steps do you think both India and Pakistan should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. First India and Pakistan should leave the conflicts behind which were perpetual right from the partition.
2. They should seek the help of UN over the issue of Kashmir and agree for mutual amicable settlement.
3. Pakistan should stop her religious terrorism and trained militant infiltration into India.
4. Pakistan should keep herself away from theocratic rule and military coups and belief should be kept in elections and democracy.
5. Both countries should continue with all present trade, economic, cultural, sports, film, etc. relations. In addition to, help each other in combating terrorism, eradication of poverty, assistance in technology, medicine, etc.

Question 18.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both the countries?
(Or)
Why the peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries? Explain, keeping in view the recent developments.
Answer:

1. Peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries.
2. Both of them are spending huge amounts on defence and strategic nuclear arsenal.
3. The division of the country itself created mistrust among the countries and it is mounted now.
4. For social, political and economical development of the both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 19.
Many small countries feel that their larger neighbours act like ‘big brothers’. What do you think is meant by this?
Answer:

1. Many small countries feel that their neighbours act like ‘big brothers’.
2. They meant that larger neighbours are trying to control them.
3. They feel that neighbours are doing this to pretend that they are doing it for the benefit of small country.
4. They meant that ‘Big brother’ is watching them i.e., Big brother knew what small countries did.
5. Thus, small countries treat their larger neighbours as’Big brothers’.

(OR)

This means the larger neighbouring countries will work for the good of the small countries as a family members.

Question 20.
Look at the map of India and Bangladesh and see why cooperation between the two countries is of vital importance to both.
Answer:

1. Bangladesh is surrounded by Indian states.
2. In between many Indian states there is Bangladesh.
3. So there should be cooperation between the two countries.
4. It is of vital importance for both the countries.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 297

Question 21.
Compare the support of India to Bangladesh and its role in Sri Lanka – Do you think the situation was similar or different?
Answer:

1. Bangladesh, erstwhile East Pakistan is physically distant from parent West Pakistan.
2. The people led a liberation movement nearly for 8 months and then India supported her cause.
3. Thus, Bangladesh was formed as new nation.
4. Whereas the situation in Sri Lanka is different.
5. Indian Tamils, an integral part of Sri Lanka but were meted out injustice based on their language and race.
6. The interference of India was not appreciated by both Sri Lanka government and the Tamils fighting for their rights.
7. So, the situation in Sri Lanka is different from that of Bangladesh.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 5 Temperature and Its Measurement

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement

7th Class Science 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the different clothes we wear in different seasons?
Answer:

1. We wear woolen and dark coloured clothes during winter when it is cold outside.
2. Woolen and dark coloured clothes keep us warm.
   
3. We prefer to wear light coloured cotton clothes when it is hot.
4. They give us a feeling of coolness.
5. It is a wonder why a particular type of cloth is suitable for a particular season.

Question 2.
When rice is being cooked you observe the plate on the rice bowl jumps! Why is it happening?
Answer:
The heat energy converts water into steam and the pressure of steam throws away the lid.

Question 3.
Have you observed water boiling in a vessel with a lid on it? What do you notice? How can you establish that heat is a form of energy?
Answer:

1. We know that boiled water is being converted to water vapour.
2. The volume of the water vapour increases.
3. The increased volume of vapour tries to go out. In this process it tries to lift the lid up.
4. We need energy to lift any object. This energy comes from the heated water.
5. Water gets the energy from the heat of the fire. Thus heat is a form of energy:

Question 4.
What is heat?
Answer:

1. We feel hot when we sit in sunlight or near fire. We feel cold when we put a piece of ice on our palm.
2. We know that heat is a form of energy that is transferred from an object at higher temperature to one at lower temperature.
   
3. When we stand in the sun or near fire, heat energy enters our body and we feel hot. When ice is put on our palm, heat energy moves from our body to the piece of ice.
4. That’s why we feel cold.
5. “The energy which makes an object appear hot or cold is called heat.”.

Question 5.
What happens in the following?
a) Rub your palms together. How do you feel?
b) Have you ever observed that iron becomes hot when it is beaten with a hammer?
c) Take a soapnut seed. Rub it on a stone and touch it. How do you feel?
Answer:
In above cases mechanical energy is converted into heat energy.

Question 6.
Explain the terms ‘heat’ and ‘temperature’.
Answer:

1. If we stand close to fire, we feel warm.
2. When a warm object is placed close to a cooler object, heat energy moves from the warmer object to the cooler one until both objects attain the same temperature.
3. Often we think that heat and temperature are the same things. This is wrong.
4. Temperature is a measure of the heat energy in a body which indicates the ability of a body to give heat to another body or absorb heat from another body.
5. We use thermometers to measure temperature.

Question 7.
What are the properties of mercury?
Answer:
Properties of Mercury:

1. Its expansion is uniform. (For equal amounts of heat it expands by equal lengths.)
2. It is opaque and shining.
3. It does not stick to the sides of the glass tube.
4. It is a good conductor of heat.
5. It is easily available in pure state.

Question 8.
Write the properties of alcohol.
Answer:
Properties of Alcohol:

1. It can record very low temperatures.
2. Its expansion per degree Celsius rise in temperature is very large.
3. It can be coloured brightly and hence is easily visible.

Question 9.
Who first designed the thermometer? What do you know about it?
Answer:

1. First thermometer was invented by Galileo in 1593 AD.
   
2. In this thermometer air was used as the thermometric substance as air rapidly expands on heating and contracts on cooling.
3. Further, the substance that is used in the thermometer has uniform expansion or contraction with the rise or fall in temperature.

Question 10.
Do you find any difference in temperature of air in shadow and in the sun?

Measure temperature of air using a thermometer. What will you do to keep a thermometer in close contact with air?
Answer:

1. The temperature of air will be more as it receives heat directly from the sun and from reflected radiations.
2. The temperature in the shadow will be relatively less as only reflected radiant heat reaches there.

Question 11.
Is there any difference in temperature with variation of time or place?
Answer:
There is difference in temperature with variation of time or place.

Question 12.
Why do you use an umbrella in the hot sun during summer?
Answer:
To avoid direct heat radiations from the sun.

Question 13.
Write a note on the variations of temperature on different occasions and at different places over the globe?
Answer:

1. In Lybia (Africa) on a particular day in the year 1922, it became so hot that the temperature of air even in shade was as high as 58 °C.
2. At some places (Rentachintala of Guntur District) in Andhra Pradesh, the maximum temperature of air sometimes reaches 48 °C and more.
3. When it is so hot we feel extremely uncomfortable as the normal temperature of the human body is 37 °C.
4. The lowest temperature in the world has been measured in Antarctica where it once went down to about -89 °C.
5. The minus sign is used for temperature which is less than 0 °C. Water freezes at 0 °C, just think how cold -89 °C must be.
6. In winter when the atmospheric temperature around us becomes 15 °C – 20 °C we begin to feel cold.

Question 14.
What is a clinical thermometer ? Describe its construction.
Answer:

1. Thermometer which is used to find out the temperature of our bodies is called Clinical Thermometer.
   If we observe Thermometer carefully. There are two types of scales marked on the clinical thermometer one that starts with 35 degrees and ends at 45 degrees is Celsius scale. While the other that starts with 95 degrees and ends at 110 degrees is the Fahrenheit scale.
2. We see a kink in the capillary near the bulb.
   
3. This kink prevents Mercury level from falling on its own.

Question 15.
What is the value of one division on the fahrenheit scale on thermometer?
Answer:

1. Note the temperature difference indicated between the two bigger marks.
2. Also note down the number of divisions between these marks.
   
3. Suppose two consecutive bigger marks differ by one degree and there are five divisions between them.
4. Then one small division reads
   1/5 = 0.2 °F

Question 16.
Describe how do we use a clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. We should wash the thermometer preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Holding it firmly by the end and give it a few jerks. These jerks will bring the level of mercury down. Ensure that it falls below 35 °C (95 °F).
3. Now we should plape the thermometer under our tongue or arm pit.
4. After one minute, we have to take the thermometer out and note the reading. It tells our body temperature.

Question 17.
How can you decide whether one has fever or not?
Answer:
The normal temperature of human body is 37°C (98.6°F). If one has body more than 98.6°F can consider as fever.

Question 18.
Write a note on a) Thermister thermometer and b) Digital thermometer.
Answer:
a) Thermister thermometer:
It is available in market to measure the human body tempera¬tures, particularly for infants and children.

b) Digital thermometer:

1. There is a lot.of concern over the use of Mercury in thermometer.
   
2. Mercury is a toxic substance and is very difficult to dispose of if a thermometer breaks.
3. These days digital thermometers are also available which do not use Mercury.

Question 19.
What precautions are suggested in using a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

1. We are advised not to use a clinical thermometer for measuring the temperature of any object other than human body.
   
2. Also we are advised to avoid keeping it in the sun or near a flame.

Question 20.
Measure the temperature of a person with clinical and digital thermometers.
Are the temperature readings same or different? Explain your observations.
Answer:
The temperature readings in both clinical and digital thermometers are the same.

Question 21.
What is value of one small division on the Celsius scale?
Answer:
Reading the Celsius scale on thermometer.

1. Temperature difference is indicated between two bigger marks.
2. Between these two bigger marks divisions are there.
   
3. Suppose two consecutive bigger marks differ by one degree and there are 10 divisions between them then one small division reads
   1/10 = 0.1°C
   ∴ The value of one small division on the Celsius scale is 0.1 °C.

Question 22.
How do you measure the temperature of other objects?
Answer:

1. To measure the temperature of other objects there are other thermometers.
2. One such thermometer is known as the laboratory thermometer used to measure temperature of water.
3. Six’s maximum and minimum therometer is used to measure maximum and minimum temperatures of a day.

Question 23.
Can you make use of laboratory thermometer like a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

1. We should take some hot water in a beaker, dip thermometer in it for one minute.
2. Record the temperature while the thermometer is in water.
   
3. Take out the thermometer from water. Observed the mercury thread carefully.
4. As there is no kink in the laboratory thermometer mercury falls down in the glass tube of its own when taken out of the water. So we cannot use a laboratory thermometer like a clinical thermometer.

Question 24.
Measure the temperature of different students by touching them and noting in the clinical thermometer.
Make sure that you have cleaned the thermometer before each measurement.

Compare the values in the table after completion of recording.
a) What do you observe in the table?
b) Are the estimated temperature and measured temperature same?
c) Is the body temperature of every person 37 °C (98.6 °F)?
d) What is the average body temperature of your friends?
The average body temperature of a large number of healthy persons is known as normal temperature (98.6 °F).
Answer:
The student is advised to do this work as a project work.

Question 25.
Some of the objects are given in the table. Mark these objects as hot or cold. What is your conclusion?

Answer:

1. We see that some objects are cold and some are hot.
2. We also know that some objects are hotter than others while some are colder than
   others.
3. To decide which object is hotter than the other, and which object is colder than the other.
4. We need a reliable method to decide the hotness/coldness of an object.
5. Generally, hotness or coldness is expressed in terms of temperature.
6. Temperature is a measure of the degree of hotness or coldness of an object.

Question 26.
How can find out the hotness or coldness of a substance by touch? Explain.
Answer:

1. By touching with our hands, we can guess whether a cup of milk is still worth sipping or has become too cold, whether milk is hot enough for making curds etc.
2. But estimating temperature with our hands can, sometimes mislead or confuse us.
3. Take some cold water, luke-warm water and hot water in three different vessels.
   
4. Immerse your left hand in the cold wa¬ter vessel and right hand in hot water vessel simultaneously. Wait for two or three minutes.
5. Take off both your hands and dip them in the luke-warm water vessel.
6. Though both hands are in the same glass of water, one hand feels it cold and the other feels it hot! Look how our hands are confused!
7. We can not exactly decide the hotness/coldness of a substance just by touching it?. It is not possible to guess the hotness of a substance only on the basis of feel/touch.
8. It is certain that water in different tubs has different degrees of hotness which can¬not be exactly determined simply by touching.

Question 27.
How do we establish by experiment that liquids expand due to heat?
Answer:

1. We should take a flat bottom flask and fill it with coloured water.
2. Fix a cork, having a capillary tube, in the mouth of flask such that level of water is as shown (fig).
   
3. We should place the flask in a metal trough.
4. We should pour boiling hot water into the trough and carefully observe the level of coloured water. The level rises.
5. If we take the flask out of the trough and keep it outside for some time, the level of coloured water decreases.
6. In the above activity we see that water expands on heating and contracts on cooling.

Question 28.
Record your observations in the following.

Answer:
Do the above observation independently.

Question 29.
Did you ever bathe with cold water during winter? What happens?
Answer:

1. I have taken bathe with cold water during winter.
2. My body shivered with chill.

Question 29.
What do you do to protect yourself from cold?
Answer:

1. I wear woolen and dark coloured clothes to protect myself from cold.
2. I will cover my body with a blanket to protect myself from cold in the night.

Question 30.
How do you get hot water in winter?
Answer:
By heating water, I get hot water in winter.

Question 31.
Generally we heat water to get hot water. How do you heat water? What sources do you use?
Answer:
By converting electrical energy, chemical energy and mechanical energy into heat we heat water. We use electric heaters, gas stoves and solar heaters to heat water.

Question 32.
Give examples of conversion of energy from one form to another.
Answer:

1. Different kinds of energies can be converted to heat.
2. In the same way heat energy can be converted to other forms of energy.
3. We have heard that in a thermal power station, heat energy is converted to electrical energy.
4. In a steam engine, heat energy is converted to mechanical energy which helps in moving the engine.
5. In electrical heater electrical energy, in gas stove chemical energy and in solar heaters solar energy are converted to heat.

Question 33.
What are the liquids used as thermometer liquids?
Answer:

1. Mercury is used as liquid for indicating temperature in thermometers.
2. Apart from Mercury we also use alcohol as thermometer liquid.

Question 34.
Describe the construction of a thermometer with a neat diagram.
Answer:

1. At one end of the tube we observe a bulb. It is filled with Mercury.
2. The other end of the tube is sealed after removing air from it.
   
3. We find a scale which is marked to express temperature in degree Celsius.
4. We read the temperature with the help of these markings.
5. The readings range from 0° to 100°
6. This arrangement of the marks is called scale of temperature.
7. All thermometers are based on the fact that matter expands on heating.

Question 35.
Draw a neat diagram of Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer. What is its importance.
Answer:
1) The maximum (highest) and minimum (lowest) temperatures of a day are measured by a thermometer called the Six’s maximum-minimum thermometer.

Question 36.
How do you use a thermometer? Write an example.
Answer:

1. To find the temperature of an object, the bulb of the thermometer needs to be in close contact with that object.
2. Watch the shiny line of mercury in the tube. .
3. The highest point on the scale, at which the rise of mercury stops, shows the temperature of the object.
4. Example: To find the temperature of your palm, place the bulb of thermometer in contact with palm for two minutes and see the mercury rise.
5. When mercury stops rising and its level becomes steady, note the position of its upper end.
6. This is the temperature of your palm.

Question 37.
If markings on thermometer are wiped out, how do we create new markings?
Answer:

1. Take some ice in a beaker. Immerse a thermometer in ice for two minutes. Mark the Mercury level. Now let the ice melt.
2. The level of Mercury remains same while ice melts. This means that temperature is constant.
3. This constant temperature at which ice melts is called melting point of ice and mark it 0 °C.
4. Take some water in a beaker. Immerse the thermometer in it and start heating the water. It will start boiling while getting converted into steam.
5. Mercury level starts rising and reaches a point beyond which it doesn’t rise. Mark the level of mercury at this point.
6. Observe the constant level at which Mercury stays while water is boiling, this constant temperature is called boiling point of water. We mark the level of mercury at this point as 100 °C.
7. Thus temperature at which ice melts or water boils is constant. These values are fixed as 0 °C and 100 °C respectively. Like water, all substances in pure form melt and boil at certain fixed temperatures.
8. To create a scale, we need two fixed points. Let us choose the melting point (0 °C) and boiling point (100 °C) as two fixed points for the scale of thermometer. Now divide the distance between these two points on the thermometer into 100 equal parts.
9. Each of the 100 equal parts represents 1 °C. We further divide 1 °C into 10 small divisions. It can be read as 1/10 = 0.1 °C.

Question 38.
Feel the body temperature of some of your friends by placing your hand on their forehead. Estimate the temperature and record it in the table.

Answer:
The student is advised to do this with the help of the teacher.

Question 39.
How do you note the temperature of water taken in a beaker?
Answer:

1. Take some tap water in a beaker.
2. Dip the thermometer in water so that the bulb is immersed in water but does not touch the bottom or side of the beaker.
3. Hold thermometer vertically, wait till the mercury thread becomes steady.
4. Note the reading. That is the temperature of water at that time.

Question 40.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. What is the aim of the experiment?
2. Write down the apparatus required.
3. What are your observations?
4. Where do you find this type of phenomenon in your daily life?

Answer:

1. Liquids expand on heating.
2. A flat bottom flask, cork, coloured water, metal trough, boiling hot water.
3. Water expands on heating and the level in coloured water is increased.
4. We can observe this phenomenon in the thermometer in our day to day life.

Question 41.
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions:
Heat is a type of Energy. It is transferred from hot object to cold object. We know the hotness and coolness of an object due to the transformation of energy. It is called “Heat”. If you want to heat the water with electric heater, Electric Energy is turned into Heat Energy. If you heat the water on gas stove, Chemical Energy is turned into Heat Energy.
i) What is Heat?
ii) How is heat transferred from one object to other?
iii) Which equipment is used to turn Electric Energy into Heat Energy?
iv) When we heat water on the gas stove, which energy is turned into Heat Energy?
Answer:
i) It is a form of energy. The energy which makes an object appear hot or cold is called heat.
ii) Heat flows from an object at high temperature to another at lower temperature.
iii) Electric heater.
iv) Chemical energy.

Question 42.
What questions would you ask the doctor to clarify your doubts on the usage of the thermometer?
Answer:

1. Why do we use thermometer in our daily life?
2. Why is mercury used in thermometers?
3. How do we measure the temperature in thermometer?
4. How many types of scales are marked on the thermometer?

Question 43.
Read the paragraph given below and answer the following questions.
Temperature is a measure of the heat energy in a body. We use thermometers to measure temperature. Mercury is a good conductor of heat and is a liquid at room
temperature. It is used in most thermometers. In some thermometers, alcohol is used. Alcohol can record very, low temperatures.
i) What is temperature?
ii) Name the device used to measure the temperature.
iii) Name the liquid used commonly in the thermometers.
iv) Name the liquid used in thermometers to measure low temperature.
Answer:
i) Temperature is a measure of heat energy in a body.
ii) The device used to measure temperature is thermometer.
iii) Mercury is the liquid used in thermometers.
iv) Alcohol is used in thermometers to measure low temperature.

Question 44.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.

i) Name the month and date when the minimum temperature was recorded.
ii) On which date was the maximum temperature recorded?
iii) Between which two consecutive months, the difference in temperature was the highest?
iv) In which month people could most likely have used air-conditioner to get relief from heat?
Answer:
i) 1st January, 2019.
ii) 15th May, 2019
iii) April and May
iv) In May month