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SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 7th Lesson Money and Banking

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Fill in the following table with some examples of transactions.

Transactions involving rupee notes and coins	Transactions not involving rupee notes and coins

Answer:

Transactions involving rupee notes and coins	Transactions not involving rupee notes and coins
1) Train journey	1) Crossing the canal on boat in villages.
2) Purchase of Electricals e.g.: 1. I travel from Khazipet to Hyderabad by paying for a ticket. 2. We purchase a tubelight for Rs. 45.	2) Purchase of salt and ‘Muggu powder”, e.g.: 1. We pay two bags of paddy to the person who helps us to cross the Godavari in his boat. 2. My grandmother purchases salt and ‘Muggu Powder’ by giving handful of paddy.

Question 2.
Can there be any difficulties or disadvantages in keeping money in a bank? Think and write.
Answer:
There will be no problems in keeping money in a bank. But there may be problems due to computers, ATMs and the negligence of employes, e.g.:

1. Many problems may arise while withdrawing amount from ATMs.
2. Deducting the EMis of loans twice a month by overlook.
3. Blocking the accounts.

Question 3.
In what ways have cheques made exchange of money more convenient?
Answer:
Nowadays cheques are widely used for making payments and receiving money. When you want to give money to someone, you write a cheque on that person’s name. When you want to send money to someone who lives in a different place, you can send a cheque to her by post. You can also use your cheque to transfer money electronically into the other person’s account through a bank. For business purposes, where money is frequently received and paid, cheques are very important as a medium for transactions.

Thus cheques have made exchange of money more convenient.

Question 4.
Only a part of the total deposits is kept as cash in the bank-safe. Why is this so and how does this benefit the bank ?
Answer:
Banks keep only a part of the total deposits as cash in the bank of safe. This is so because it helps the daily cash transactions of the bank.
The banks lend the remaining amount to their customers on interest. Thus the banks earn profits.

Question 5.
If a very large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank, how will it affect the bank s working?
Answer:
If a large number of account – holders do not wish to keep their money in the bank.
This affects the reserves of a bank.
The bank cannot lend loans to customers. This affects their income. As a result it is impossible to run a bank.

Question 6.
If many loans are written off (that is, borrowers are not required to pay back the money), how will this affect the working of the bank?
Answer:
A bank is a business enterprise. It has to pay interest to its depositors, pay salary to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipment, pay rent and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit.
If the loans are written off, the bank cannot perform all these activities. So the banks cannot write off the loans. In any case if the government writes off the loans, then the government should bear the losses.

Question 7.
People have to pay a higher interest on loans than the interest they receive on a fixed deposit for the same time-period. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Bank trade with money.
2. Fixed deposits means money that is to be kept with the bank for agreed and specified period. When one has to disturb this arrangement, he has to pay penalty for the same.
3. Hence banks charge more interest on fixed deposit loans than what they give.
4. An other important aspect is discouraging loans on fixed deposits.
5. Not only that, the banks should reach number of expenses such as payment of salaries to its employees, has to buy and maintain equipments, pay rents and bear all the cost of running a bank and also make profit. That’s why we should pay more interest on loans.

Question 8.
Suppose this year the rains are poor and the crop yield is only half as much as was originally expected. Some people say that if this happens the farmers should be asked to pay back only half the amount they have taken as loans. However, other people say that full amount should be repaid, keeping in view the next year’s crop. In your opinion, what should the bank do and why?
Answer:

1. Whatever the situation, normally banks ask for full payment of loan.
2. When there is a crop failure or less yield, farmers are unable to repay their loans.
3. In such situation banks have to reschedule the repayment procedure and has to provide crop loans to the farmers for the next season.
4. Government shall support the farmers by waiving interest component and directing the banks to provided necessary loans for next crop.

Question 9.
Read the Paragraph under the header ‘Types of Loans’ and answer the following question:
Types of Loans
Banks give loans and advances to different sections of the public like traders, industrialists, students (educational loans), farmers, artisans, SHG, etc. Let us examine some of them.
“What sort of loans are more common in your area?”
Answer:

1. Crop loans
2. Housing loans
3. SHG loans

Question 10.
Do you feel that the loans taken from SHGs are helpful to the members? How?
Answer:
These are very useful to them.

1. They need not ensure the bank with securities.
2. The group will ensure that loans are paid back by its members.
3. Interest is also nominal.
4. The loan can be repaid in easy monthly installments.

8th Class Social Studies 7th Lesson Money and Banking InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Are you aware of any exchanges that are done without money?
Answer:
I know about Barter System. In this system goods are directly exchanged for each other without the use of money.

Question 2.
You may have bought things in exchange of old clothes, plastic, newspapers, hair, paddy, etc. Discuss the transaction. (Textbook Page No. 77)
Answer:

1. Old clothes : We usually exchange old clothes with steel utensils. This depends mostly on the seller.
2. Plastic and Newspapers : We usually exchange these with onion traders. He gives 11/2 kg onions for 1 kg plastic or newspaper.
3. Hair: They offer money for hair.
4. Paddy: In our village paddy is exchanged for services rendered by washerman, barber etc.

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
a)

	Gopal	Seenu	Ramu
Wishes to buy
Wishes to sell

b) What can we conclude from the above table?
(Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
a)

	Gopal	Seenu	Ramu
Wishes to buy	rice	goat	wheat
Wishes to sell	goat	wheat	rice

b)

1. Trading between these three people is impossible.
2. Gopal needs rice. Srinu does not need goat.
3. Money helps this transaction.

Question 4.
Explain in your own words why exchange is not possible between Gopal and Seenu. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Gopal needs rice. Seenu has rice. But he doesn’t need goat. He needs wheat. So the transaction between Gopal and Srinu is not possible.

Question 5.
a) Will the use of money help? Fill in the blanks. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
The use of money helps this type of transaction.
b) If Gopal exchanges for money, his goat with —–(i)—– then Gopal uses this —–(ii)—– to buy rice from —–(iii)—– Now —–(iv)—– can use this money to buy —–(v)—– from Seenu.
Answer:
i) Seenu
ii) money
iii) Ramu
iv) Ramu
v) wheat

Question 6.
Ask your parents how washermen, barbers, neeti kaavalikaru were paid for their work in villages and towns. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Nowadays they are paid money only. But 15 years back our parents paid them in the form of paddy.

Question 7.
How can money be used in the transactions between Gopal, Seenu and Ramu ?
Explain with the help of a flow chart. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:

Gopal should sell his goat for money.
↓
He should purchase rice with that.
↓
Seenu should sell wheat for money.
↓
He should purchase goat with that.
↓
Ramu should sell rice for money.
↓
He should purchase wheat with that.

Question 8.
If the role of money as described above were stated as a medium of exchange, would you agree? Explain. (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement. In the barter system the calculation of valuation is not logical and scientific. So I agree with this.

Question 9.
For how much rice should Gopal exchange his goat? (Textbook Page No. 78)
Answer:
This depends on the demand of goat. If the demand is high, the rice should be in the quantity demanded by Gopal. Otherwise he should accept the offer of the seller.

Question 10.
In a barter system how do you pay to a person who cuts your hair? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
In barter system I give one kg of rice to the person who cuts my hair. At present the price of one kg of rice is Rs.30/-. The rate of hair cut is also equal to it.

Question 11.
In the above example, complete the conversation, so that they are able to trade. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Gopal: How many bags of rice will you give for this goat?
Seetaiah: Two bags.
Gopal: I was offered 4 bags for it in other village.
Seetaiah: And I can get a goat for just one bag in that village.
Gopal: ……………………………………..
Seetaiah: …………………………………….
Answer:
Gopal: I can give this at least for 3 bags.
Seetaiah: Okay. Take it.

Question 12.
If money was not used by you or any of the traders in your santhalu or weekly market what would happen? Describe in a paragraph. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Nowadays money is mostly used as medium of exchange. No one can decide the value of the commodities. Employees and other workers have money only for exchange. The conditiion is unpredictable.

Question 13.
Do you think money can act as a measure of value of goods and services? Explain.
(Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
Yes, money can act as a measure of value of goods and services. Public services and private services can be measured. But we cannot and should not measure the values of services of our parents and blood relations.
e.g.: Public Services : Transportation – APSRTC
Medical facilities – Government hospitals.
Private Services : Transportation – Private buses
Medical facilities – Private hospitals

Question 14.
Can you think of situations when this trust of the goldsmith could break? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The trust of the goldsmith could break in the following situations:

1. debasing the coins
2. maintaining difference in the quality of coins
3. fail to give the coins whenever they asked
4. and any action of cheating

Question 15.
What was the problem faced by the traders in Amsterdam and how did they find a way out? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in Europe. Here, there were 846 silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could be accepted for exchange. However, traders were always suspicious of each other – everyone would doubt the purity and weight of these coins. The merchants of Amsterdam got together and solved this problem in a unique manner. They created a bank owned by the city.

Question 16.
Draw the picture of a bank cheque in your notebook and pay Rs.1,50,000/- to your friend sitting next to you. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:

Question 17.
a) If Suresh Babu wants to deposit 1,75,000, electronically into Kancharla Sujatha’s account through his bank, how can this be done ?
b) What more information would he require ? Visit a bank and find out. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
a) This can be done through NEF transfers. According to this process any account holder can transfer to another account holder of any other bank in the country without any charges. The maximum limit is Rs.2,00,000.
b) For this she needs the account number, name of the receiver, branch name and city of Sujatha.

Question 18.
Discuss and make a list of the payments that people make electronically without using a cheque. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
People can make payments electronically without using cheques by using internet.

1. Sale and purchase of goods
2. Raising capitals
3. Repaying debts
4. Paying electricity and Phone bills
5. Transfer of money
6. Paying income tax
7. Paying house taxes etc.

Question 19.
What is the difference between a savings account and a current account? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Savings account: The savings account holders are mostly employees and common people. They get interest on their amount in the account. Money wil be safe. The account holder can withdraw it at any time he/she wants. The bank promises to pay on demand. Current Account : Business people and traders maintain this account. There are no restrictions on the number of times you can deposit or withdraw the money from a current account. Transactions can be made by way of cheque. The bank does not pay any interest on money deposited in a current account but will collect service charges.

Question 20.
Match the statement in column A with the word(s) / terms in column B. (Textbook Page No. 86)

Answer:
a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii

Question 21.
When should one opt fixed deposits for savings? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
The money invested in fixed deposits should not be withdrawn in the given period. Then only one can use fixed deposits for savings.

Question 22.
How is an SHG loan different from an individual loan? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
One should mortgage one’s property when he/she takes individual loan. The SHG will ensure that loans are paid back by its members. They need not mortgage any asset.

Question 23.
a) Hari cultivates vegetables like tomatoes, okra, green leaves etc. He wants to buy fertiliser after three months. He can’t keep these vegetables with him to pay for the fertiliser after three months. If he does not use money what arrangement will he get into with the person supplying fertilisers?
b) Do you find any such arrangements in villages around you?
c) Many a times farmers may not benefit from such arrangements. Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
a) Hari should sell his vegetables to the trader of fertilisers. Then in future he can get the fertilisers for the same rate. Thus they should enter into an agreement.
b) We have no such arrangements in our village.
c) These arrangements are beneficial to the farmers. Values differ in different seasons. So government should plan the substitutes.

Question 24.
Have you ever been inside a bank? What are the names of some banks you know? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Yes. I have visited the banks many times.
Names of Banks:

1. Kotak Mahindra
2. State Bank of India
3. Andhra Bank
4. Indian Bank
5. Vijaya Bank
6. Dena Bank
7. Kanakadurga Grameena Bank

Question 25.
If you step inside a Bank, you will find some employees sitting at different counters with their computers/ ledgers and dealing with the customers. You can also observe people depositing money at some counters and withdrawing money at other counters. There is one cabin where the manager sits. What do these bank employees do? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
My name is Subba Rao. Once I went to the State Bank of India branch in Mudinepalli One gentleman sat inside a cabin. There is a name plate before him.

ANASINGARAJU VENKATA CHALAPATHI RAO – B.M.

He was going through some documents and discussing with some others. My mother came there to withdraw some amount. She filled up the withdrawal form and handed over it to the person in counter no. 2. The person in the counter verified the form and the book. He signed it and gave us a token no. 4. We waited there for sometime. In the meanwhile one known person Sri K. Yagnaiah came there and deposited some amount. He wished my mother and went away. Rama Krishna, my brother’s friend, came to the bank to open a new account. He was enquiring about it. Bank people were drafting D.D.s, verifying accounts, opening new accounts and helping the locker holders etc. After 40 minutes there was a call from No. 6 counter. We went to the counter and took our money. I was told by my mother that the Manager looks after the bank management issues and any other problems.

Question 26.
Read the promise on paper notes used today. Who is making the promise and to whom? Why is this important? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
I find the following promise on the hundred rupee note.

“I PROMISE TO PAY THE BEARER THE SUM ON ONE HUNDRED RUPEES.”
– GOVERNOR.

This promise is given by the Reserve Bank Governor, Dr. Raghuram Rajan. This promise is given to the owner of the note. Without this promise this note can be treated as a paper. So this is important.

Question 27.
Visit a commercial bank which is near to your locality and fill up the following table. (Textbook Page No. 88)

S.No.	Type of loan	Loan amount	Duration of loan	Documents required	Interest rate	Mode of payment	Security, if any
1.	Vehicle
2.
3.

Answer:

S.No.	Type of loan	Loan amount	Duration of loan	Documents required	Interest rate	Mode of payment	Security, if any
1.	Vehicle	6,00,000	84 months	1) Six months bank state­ment etc. 2) 2 photos	10.50% p.a.	Monthly EMI
2.	Housing Loan	15,00,000	15 years	1) IT Pancard Address proof	10% p.a.	“	Government employee’s signature or any other security
3.	Educa­tion loan	4,00,000	3 years	“	13.50% p.a.	After getting job or 6 months after completion of the education	Signature of a government official or any other security

Question 28.
Why were metals preferred for use as money? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Copper, bronze, silver and gold are durable, can be divided into parts and be carried around Since they were scarce they became acceptable by all. So the metals were preferred for use as money.

Question 29.
Do you think minting of coins was a good idea? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:
Yes, I think so. But the quality and measurement should be perfect as per norms.

Question 30.
In what ways would minting of coins benefit the rulers? Can you think of three different reasons? (Textbook Page No. 80)
Answer:

1. The trade transactions in their kingdom will be perfect. This strengthens their treasury.
2. Minting coins is an industry. The income through this also strengthens their treasury.
3. They print their favourite designs on the coins. This act enables the future generation to know about the interest of the past people.
   Eg. : If we find any musical instrument on the coin, it tells us that they were the lovers of music.

Question 31.
Why do the receipts of the goldsmith work as money? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
The goldsmiths charged fees for keeping their valuables safe and making them available whenever they wanted. This practice became popular and the trust in some of the goldsmiths or shroffs grew. These goldsmiths would also give loans and had branches in many cities leading to a new system of paper money or hundis. With the great confidence on the goldsmiths, the people treated the receipts as money.

Question 32.
Why is a crossed cheque safe? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
The crossed cheque can be deposited and cashed in the account holder’s account only. No other person can cash it. This system can create confidence in the customers. Otherwise it can be misused.

Question 33.
Why do banks ask for security while lending? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
There is no personal relation and identification between the bank people and their customers. If the bank people failed to recollect the debts, it leads to bankrupt. So banks ask for security while lending.

Question 34.
Which is a better source of loans — banks or money lenders? Why? (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
Banks are a better source of loans.
Reasons:

1. The Bank interest is nominal.
2. The loan can be paid in easy instalments.
3. If any customer fails to repay, the bank gives reasonable time for the repayment.

Question 35.
After two centuries, this bank collapsed. Can you guess what could have been the reasons for this? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
Amsterdam Bank opened many branches in many European countries. It was called ‘Wissel Bank’ in Dutch. There was debasement problem in Dutch. It was often. Due to that the customers of the Bank usually repaid the coins of lesser values. So the customers were dissatisfied. As Dutch was a small country, the problem raises many times. Due to this the name of the bank was defamed.

The decline of the Bank accelerated with the fourth Anglo-Dutch war (1780-84). The British blockade of Holland and the capture of many Asian colonies put tremendous pressure on the Dutch East India Company. Loans were issued to all. The metallic stock of the bank was dropped from 20 million to 6 millions (1780-84). The French revolution led the bank towards failure. At last it was closed in 1819.

Question 36.
How would she (Geeta) withdraw the money from an ATM? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
1) Geeta would follow the instructions displayed on the screen of the ATM.

Instructions :
a) Insert the card/Remove the card
b) Feed the PIN number
c) Feed the amount, press ok
d) Take the money
e) Take the receipt
f) Press the ‘Clear’ Button
g) Leave the room
2) By following the given instructions Geetha would withdraw the money from an ATM.

Question 37.
What would she (Geeta) do if she went to her bank branch? (Textbook Page No. 82)
Answer:
She would stand in a queue for 30 to 40 minutes to get the amount. She had to fill the withdrawal slip and stand in the queue. When her turn comes she gives the slip and passbook in the counter. Then she gets token. After a few minutes she will be paid in another counter.

Question 38.
How much money will Manaswini get from her Fixed Deposit till five years, if the rate of interest is 8%? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
Manaswini gets Rs. 15000/- approximately after the period of 5 years.

Question 39.
Suppose she needs the money urgently for some medical treatment. Can she withdraw it from the Fixed Deposit at the bank? What will happen? (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
She can withdraw her deposit whenever she wants. But she will not receive 8% of interest. She receives less percentage as per bank norms.

Question 40.
Will the same rate of interest be charged for all types of borrowers from a bank? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The rate of interest changes from loan to loan.
For e.g.: They charge 8% on housing loans and 14% on personal loans.

Question 41.
What will happen if some borrowers do not repay the bank loan? (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
The bank collects the loan from the guarantors or disposes the mortgage.
For e.g.: If any customer fails to repay the housing loan, the bank sells the house in auction. It takes the loan amount and gives the remaining amount to the customer.

Classroom Activity

Suppose you need Rs. 2,000. You fill a cheque and give it to your sister and send her to get the money in cash.
Answer:
Self cheque:

1. I will write a cheque for Rs. 2,000/- on my friend’s name and ask her to get cash from the bank.
2. I will sign on the down and back of the cheque.
3. I will give her instructions where to handover the cheque in the bank and how to receive cash in counter.
4. No need of any account to my friend in the bank.

Cross cheque: If I wrote an amount on cross cheque, my sister needs an account in any of the banks to change the check into cash.

Project
Question 1.
Visit a bank or invite a bank employee to the school and find out:
a) How to open a saving account in your name?
b) How are cheques cleared by the banks?
c) How do banks make NEFTransfers? (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
d) What security precautions are necessary for an ATM to work? What does the computer check?
e) Apart from cheques, people can also exchange money through Bank Drafts/online transaction etc. Find out.
f) For the person receiving the money, what is the advantage of online transaction compared to a cheque?
g)

The following Interest rates on saving deposit.
Interest rate on fixed deposit
Interest rate for loans given to farmers
Interest rate for loan given to housing
Interest rate for loans given for education

Answer:
a) The person should take two photographs, address proof, income proof, personal identifi¬cation to the bank. He/she should fill the application form and get the introduction signa¬ture. He/she should handover these papers in the counter, his/her account can be opened.

b) Cheques are cleared by the banks in the Clearing Bank.

c) All the banks in the country are interconnected with computers and internet. A person can transfer a particular amount (less than 2,00,000/-) from his account to others account in other bank. This transaction can be done through NEFT. The Bank will not charge any rate for this.

d) Security precautions necessary, for an ATM to work :

1. Computer should be checked whether working properly or not.
2. Receipt system and printer should be checked.
3. The machine should understand the orders of the user.
4. The count of notes should be proper.
5. There must be a watchman.
6. A camera should be fixed in the ATM room.
7. In addition to the PIN number, a system should be improved which records the thumb prints. Computer checks the PIN number and balances in the accounts.

e) Yes, there are bank drafts and online transactions etc., to exchange money.
Drafts take sometime to be encashed. But online transactions take no time. One can withdraw the amount immediately after a click.

f) When compared to a cheque, online transaction is the best. The person can receive the money without any delay. But a cheque takes 2 to 4 days time to be encashed. So the receiver can save his time.

g)

Interest rate on savings deposit	4%
Interest rate on fixed deposit	1 year – 8.50%. 3 to 6 months: 6.50%
Interest rate for loans given to farmers	I year 8% II year – 9%
Interest rate for loan given to housing	10 .50%
Interest rate for loans given to education	13.50% – 14%

Question 2.
Please visit www.rbi.org.in and read comics on financial inclusion / financial literacy themes.
Answer:
Student Activity.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 People and Settlement.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson People and Settlement

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which decade had the population of Delhi increased unusually? According to your opinion, what might be the main reason for the population increase?
Population of Delhi City

Year	Population (in lakhs)
1951	20
1961	35
1971	48
1981	68
1991	100
2001	120

Answer:
The population of Delhi increased mostly in the decades of 1981 and 1991.
I think the reasons are:

1. It is our national capital.
2. Its development.

Question 2.
Why do certain places attract more people as settlements? Mention the reasons.
Answer:
Water resources, security, employment opportunities etc.

Question 3.
What are called Mega cities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Mega cities.

Question 4.
What is called a Metropolitan city? Give examples.
Answer:

1. A city having population between one million to 10 million is called a metropolitan city.
2. Examples: Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad.

Question 5.
State any two problems caused due to urbanization.
Answer:

1. Traffic problem will arise.
2. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
3. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
4. Air, water, sound pollutions are increased.

Question 6.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, religious, commercial, etc.

Question 7.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 8.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food-gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 9.
What tools did they use initially?
Answer:
Initially they used the tools made of stone. With these tools they were able to hunt more effectively and efficiently.

Question 10.
What happened as agriculture progressed?
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed in nature. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movement of heavenly bodies.

Question 11.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

1. site
2. situation and
3. the history of the place.

Question 12.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural t forces, and so on.

Question 13.
Name any two cities which were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 14.
Which kind of villages has the most vibrant markets and fairs?
Answer:
The villages that are best connected have the most vibrant markets and fairs.

Question 15.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 16.
Name the three cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 17.
What are the problems in urbanization?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing, e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity, water and public facilities.

Question 18.
What are aerotropolis ?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around c large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 19.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 20.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can fly in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with ail ‘ the comfort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 21.
Name some form of aerotropolises that are emerging in India.
Answer:

1. Kempegowda International Airport – Bengaluru
2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 22.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having a population between 5000 to 1 lakh are called Towns.

Question 23.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Though there has been an increase in urbanization, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing.’
What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanization, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them are working in the unorganized sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.
Usually, they are occupying government unorganized (porambok) areas for their residences. Govt, also building colonies for them. Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are living are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in unhealthy conditions.

Question 2.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
(OR)
Taking into consideration the past history and the present timings, state the causes for the escalation of population in Visakhapatnam according to your observation.
Answer:

1. Over the decades, Visakhapatnam’s population has grown significantly.
2. Visakhapatnam is a port city.
3. It developed industrially.
4. Many people came for work and settled in Visakhapatnam.
   So the population increased in Visakhapatnam.

Question 3.
Answer the questions by studying the data given below.

Population of Visakhapatnam

Year	Population	% change
1951	1,08,042	+ 53.8%
1961	2,11,190	+ 95.5%
1971	3,63,467	+ 72.1%
1981	6,03,630	+ 66.1%
1991	7,52,031	+ 24.6%
2001	13,45,938	+ 78.97%
2011	20,35,690	+ 51.2%

1. In which decade, the change in the population percentage is less?
   Answer:
   1981-91
2. What are the reasons for increasing population in Visakhapatnam ?
   Answer:
   1. Visakhapatanm is a port city.
   2. Employment opportunities.
   3. Migration from other places.

Question 4.
Describe the adverse impacts of urbanisation on environment.
Answer:

1. Air pollution increases.
2. Climate changes occur.
3. Drainage problems arise.
4. Non degradable garbage accumulates.

Question 5.
Delhi is the second biggest city in the country. Explain the reasons for it.
Answer:

1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that rilled India.
2. When India gained independence, the city remained its capital.
3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices there are people from all parts living in the city.
5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed. ,
6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 6.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation. Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 7.
What is an Aerotropolis ? Mention any two advantages of an aerotropolis over other cities?
Answer:
An aerotropolis is an urban plan in which the layout, infrastructure and economy is centered on an airport, existing as an airport city.
(or)
The settlements which centered around large airports are called aerotropolis.
Advantages:

1. People can fly to conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out – with all the comfort of a city.
2. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business, conferencing, etc, are provided right there.
   People ead Settlement

Question 8.
What happened as the population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftpersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 9.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there. These ports would enable export of raw materials to the colonizing country.

Question 10.
What happened in early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example, Chhatrapati Shivaji built a fort in Pratapgad, Maharashtra. This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 11.
Describe an annual fair in villages.
Answer:
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along with many cultural elements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.

Question 12.
Why did most of the population increase in cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 13.
What happened as settlements became larger?
Answer:
As settlements became larger, they also became more complex because there were more functions to be performed – food production was not the qjily cOncem.Within each settlement, people specialised in certain skills. Many goods were produced for the market and sold to traders who carried them to far off places.

Question 14.
What does situation describe? Give one example.
Answer:
Places do not exist in isolation. They are in some way connected to other places. Situation describes the connections with other places. For example Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.

Question 15.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 16.
How does urban India contribute to Indians economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.

Question 17.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

1. Suvarnabhoomi International Airport (Bangkok, Thailand)
2. Dubai International Airport (Dubai, UAE)
3. Cairo International Airport (Cairo, Egypt)
4. London Heathrew Airport (London, UK)

Question 18.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things.
3. Vehicle use Increases.

10th Class Social 7th Lesson People and Settlement 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the changes in your settlement during the past twenty years, and find out the reasons for this.
Answer:
During the past 20 years, In our area :

1. Population Increased.
2. Transportation facilities extended.
3. The area of agricultural land has decreased.
4. The residential and shopping area has Increased.
5. Slums formed.
6. Environmental pollution Increased.
   Migrations and urbanisation are the main reasons for all these changes.

Question 2.
Increasing urbanization is not just about greater opportunities for people and economy. It also results in many problems.
– Express your attitude on the consequences of urbanization.
Answer:
There are a lot of problems occurring In the urban areas. They are:

• Scarcity of space and housing problem
• Increase of air, water, soil pollution
• Shortage of food items
• Increase of Plastic waste
• Increase of slum areas
• Increase of traffic problem
• Increase of sewage problem
• Pressure on the environment

Urbanisation is one of the Indicators of development. The governments hive to take necessary precautionary measures to avoid the problems while Increasing of towns and cities. Otherwise It may lead even to under development.

Question 3.
Explain the expansion of agriculture and emergence of towns.
Answer:
As agriculture progressed, people organised their life around patterns observed In nature.
For example, the seasonal cycles, how to predict climatic conditions how to plan the timing of cropping practices etc. They also had time to speculate on other things – the movements of heavenly bodies.
As population Increased, there was more specialisation – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged, The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle In urban areas. Due to this towns were emerged.

Question 4.
‘Urbanisation results in environmental stress’ – Do you agree with this statement? Support your answer.
Answer:
Urbanization results in environmental stress -1 agree with this statement because.

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed In these places.
2. The decrease In rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are Increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are Increased.
7. The unemployment increases In urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Study the paragraph given below and answer the following questions:
A new kind of settlement Is occurring In many countries, Including India. These settlements are centred around large airports. Hence the name aerotropolis.

1. What is called a settlement?
2. What is located at the centre of an aerotropolis?
3. What facilities are provided in an aerotropolis?
4. Give two example of aerotropolises in India.

Answer:

1. The way we organise ourselves and our living spaces in a place Is called a settlement.
2. Airport.
3.  In an aerotropolis the airport functions as a city In Its own right. Many facilities like hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing etc. are provided.
4. (i) Bengaluru International Airport
   (ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) and
   (iii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).

Question 6.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.
Causes of urbanisation:

1. Natural growth
2. Inclusion of rural areas and
3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production due to shortage of workers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problem will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
2. Recycling of waste materials.
3. Provide more employment opportunities in villages.
4. Eradicate the use of plastic.

Question 7.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

1. Proper maintenance of sewage water.
2. Proper supply of drinking water.
3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
4. Giving importance to Agriculture.
5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
6. Widening of urban roads.
7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
8. Co-ordination among different wings or departments.

Question 8.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

1. Good transport facilities: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution free environment naturally attract more people.
3. Education, job opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.
4. Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful life style are some of the other factors contributing attracting people.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population Increased, there was more specialization-weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade In them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e., towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encourage the crafts persons to settle in urban area. Slowly the facilities are increasing In urban areas. People who are not having land they are migrating to towns & cities and improve their living conditions. After some years industrials are established they left their occupations and joined in industries for better life.
Slowly town areas are increasing, population also increasing and the people who depends on agriculture Is also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 10.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years, early humans lived in bands as hunter gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

Basic concepts of settlements are site; situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist in isolation. Elevated place are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. Historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The formers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment. Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work. Many people in cities and towns choose seif employed work. Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, How Site, Situation and the History of a place plays a vital role in human settlement?
Answer:
To understand what kind of places attracted settlements, we need to look at these basic concepts.

1. Site
2. Situation
3. The history of the place.

Site: Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.

In early settlement periods, places which had favorable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. Ex: Chatrapathi Shivaji built a fort inPratapghad, Maharashtra. Situation: Situation describes the connections with other places.
For Example: Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India. The history of the place: Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial times coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
In fact, cities such as Mumbai and Chennai were further developed by the colonial powers to better exploit the natural resources of India. The fight for Visakhapatnam was for similar reasons. Visakhapatnam as we now know it, is made up of several other places. After the British took it over, its boundaries were redrawn several times and have been constantly expanding.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that when the British people came to India a few dries like Mumbai and Chennai were developed for the sake of exploiting our natural resources.
2. Visakhapatnam is also one of the cities developed like that.
3. Much development is seen in Visakhapatnam once it came under the control of the British.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that the colonial rulers concentrated on their profits and benefits but not the development of India.
5. They did the same in Africa and Asian countries.
6. I conclude with this suggestion that after Independence our rulers should have concentrated on the development of many cities and towns.
7. Now Visakhapatnam is expanding in all comers. Other cities also should be developed similar way.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As populations increased, there was more specialization – weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craft persons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e. towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph, it is understood that the increase in population leads to different professions.
2. Different goods and services are, produced. In cities and towns there is no agriculture but new sources of employment are seen.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that many new sorts of livelihoods are started.
4. When there is a scope for new profession emerging, the people should acquire new skills based on the new technology.
5. When there is new profession, new goods or services are produced and so market changes its nature.
6. In conclusion I would like to say that when there is much demand one should understand the trend in the society and shift accordingly.
7. For better employment, people need skill. Though they are not educated enough, they should be skilled in some area.
8. In which profession they have skill, they should go for that.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
Some villages also host an annual fair which is a larger market along With many cultural dements. Many events are held including music, dance, theatre, etc. Both the weekly markets and such fairs are also important to plant and animal genetics in the area because local seeds and livestock breeds are traded here. These fairs also often result in intermarriage among people from different villages.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here the village fairs are very important. Many activities take place there.
2. They play very crucial and key role in the development of the villages and cultural exchanges.
3. Some entertainment programmes are also there.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that the village fairs are useful to the farmers but there is a problem of mediators.
5. Many of the remote villages are not connected to major villages.
6. They still face problems of roads and transportation.
7. Nowadays connectivity is the major theme.
8. It is considered internationally and many of the countries are trying to improve the connectivity.
9. At the village fairs it is necessary to provide various facilities to the farmers those who come from distant places.

Question 15.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural -to – urban migration.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns.
2. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town.
3. The migration from rural areas is very less.
4. My opinion is that it is not common in all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns it may be correct but in many areas the migrants are more in number.
5. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons like livelihood, employment, children education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and other.
6. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.
7. Government should take care of these problems and find solutions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There is no major growth of industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph it is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development.
2. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India.
4. Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sec-tors.
5. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and indus¬tries also.
7. Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector.
8. They should be taken care of.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has to be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue.
2. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumping of waste leads to pollu¬tion in rural areas.
3. My opinion on this paragraph is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization.
4. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live.
5. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town.
6. I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanism to collect the waste and poliu- tion free programmes are to be taken up.
7. Dumping in out skirts of towns and cities is not the solution but it creates new problem.
8. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 18.
How are slums formed?
Answer:

1. There is growing population in the cities.
2. People who migrate to the city looking for work occupy land without necessary permission and build on it in the way they can afford with no help or facility from anyone.
3. In the plan these places may be demarked for a different purpose. Thus they won’t get the status of colonies.
4. These may not receive many public amenities. People here are poor.
5. Thus slums are formed.
6. When government evict the people from there, the compensation paid may not be sufficient.
7. Again they occupy new location without necessary permission and these slums go on increasing.

Question 19.
What kind of places attract settlement?
Answer:

1. To understand this, we need to look at these basic concepts:
   (i) site(ii) situation (iii) the history of the place.
2. Sites refer to the characteristics of the place its topography, altitude, water characteristics (the places with lakes, rivers, underground water, etc., types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces, and so on.
3. Shivaji chose Pratapgadh because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen.
4. Situation describes the connections with other places.
5. Visakhapatnam is located on the coast and connects Andhra Pradesh to many places in and outside of India.
6. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build ports there.

Question 20.
What are the problems of urbanization?
Answer:

1. Increasing urbanization is not only providing opportunities to people and more productivity J but also resulting in many problems.
2. The growing urban population has to be housed. 1
3. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and many other things. .
4. These result in environmental stress.
5. As vehicle use increases urban air pollution increases causing health problems and localized
   climate change.
6. Improper sewage disposal can also lead to greater threat of infectious diseases.
7. Use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so.
8. This produces waste that has to be disposed of.

Question 21.
How did the settlements begin? Discuss.
Answer:

1. For about 1.8 lakh years humans lived in bands as hunter-gatherers.
2. They did not practise agriculture.
3. However owing to changes in obtaining food, some bands took to the deliberate production of food-agriculture, some 10,000 years ago.
4. It brought many changes in human lifestyles.
5. People did not have to travel over large areas to obtain food.
6. They could now increasingly stay in one place.
7. As hunter-gatherers, they were nomadic.
8. But as agriculturists, they were increasingly sedentary.
9. Thus the settlements began.

Question 22.
‘Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.’ Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:

1. In 1951, the population of Delhi was only 20,00,000. Today it is more than 1,60,00,000. During the last 60 years it has grown 8 times.
2. Over decades its attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of jobs and livelihood, etc.
3. As the capital of the country, with the parliament and central government offices, there are people from all parts living in the city.
4. Every city usually has a master plan to design and allocate different types of areas and Delhi had three such plans.
5. But they have not been implemented.
6. On one hand there is growing population in the city and on the other hand there is a long delay In planning and announcing how the areas are to be used.
7. In fact, Delhi has grown in an unplanned manner.

Question 23.
How does the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development?
Answer:

1. Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities.
2. Most of the poor live in non metropolitan towns work in the unorganized sector.
3. Most of the public enterprises are either located in urban settlements or their surroundings.
4. Most of the state of art equipment is located in urban settlements.
5. Most of the Information Technology industries or parks are operating in urban areas.
6. The exports of many of these contribute a lot to GDP of our country.
7. Thus, the urban settlements contribute to India’s economic development.

Question 24.
Feel that you are living in urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complain-ing about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Sainagar colony,
Vijayawada,
xx xx xxxx.

To
The Commissioner,
Vijayawada Municipal Corporation,
Vijayawada.

Respected sir,

I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H. No. ———–, ) of Bavajipeta. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for your kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and another waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, an unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make city clean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………,
………………………….

Question 25.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
   Answer:
   Luni
2. The state which has Malabar coast.
   Answer:
   Kerala
3. The state which has Utkal coast.
   Answer:
   Odisa
4. The capital of India.
   Answer:
   Delhi
5. Godavari Delta.
6. Kaveri Delta.
7. Mahanadi Delta.
8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.
9. Bhimbedka
   Answer:
   MP (Near – Bhopal)
10. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
    Answer:
    Hyderabad.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 17 Changes Around Us

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 17th Lesson Changes Around Us

7th Class Science 17th Lesson Changes Around Us Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are periodic changes?
Answer:

S.No.	Name of the Change
1.	Change of day and night
2.	Withering of leaves
3.	Rising of the pole star
4.	Change of Seasons
5.	Change of Greenery in the fields of cultivation
6.	Changes in lengths of shadows
7.	Appearance of Full Moon

1. If we observe that every change mentioned is the table repeats after some period of time.
2. Such changes are known as periodic changes.
3. The events which repeat at regular intervals of time are called periodic events.

Question 2.
Mention some physical changes you observe in your daily life.
Answer:

1. In our daily life we observe many changes.
2. In the changes like melting of ice, solidification of ghee or coconut oil in winter etc., there is a change in state of the substance.
3. In certain processes like filling balloons with air and pumping of cycle tubes etc., we notice change in shape.
4. These are all physical changes. On these changes no new substance is formed.

Question 3.
Explain what are physical and chemical changes. Give examples.
Answer:
Physical change: When the material undergoes a change in shape, size, colour or state, it is called a physical change.
Eg: Heating ice, filling air into Balloons
Chemical change: When a material undergoes a change in shape and size and a new material is formed, then we call it a chemical change.
Eg:

1. Burning of crackers
2. Change of milk into curd
3. Burning a piece of wood.

Question 4.
Some changes are given in the table. Write possible changes you notice for each case and put (✓) in the appropriate column.
Answer:

1. In the above activity we notice that only in some examples like burning of paper, burning of crackers, change of milk to curd, boiling of egg, etc., a new substance is formed.
2. But in other examples of changes, we notice a change in state or colour or size or shape etc but the substance remains the same and no new substance is formed.

Question 5.
In the above table which changes do you consider physical changes or chemical changes?
Answer:

1. When a material undergoes a change in shape, size, colour, or state, it is called a physical change.
2. So I consider the following as physical changes.
   Heating a coloured candle, Heating ice, Heating water, Melting of Gold ornaments, Filling of air into Balloons, Cutting a piece of wood, Drying of clothes in sunlight, Drying of wet coconut, change is the cut apple; Change in the mouth due to pan chewing.
3. When a material undergoes a change in its composition, it is called a chemical
   change. In a chemical change, a new substance is formed.
4. So I consider the following as chemical changes. Burning of Newspaper, Burning of crackers, change of milk to curd, Boiling egg.

Question 6.
What is rust and rusting? Why does iron rust? What type of change is this?
Answer:

1. When iron nails, iron gates, iron benches or pieces of iron are left is the open ground for a long time, we find a brown layer on the surface of iron articles.
2. This is called ‘rust’, and the process of forming this layer is called rusting.
3. When iron is exposed to air for a long time, the Oxygen present in air reacts with it in the presence of moist air and forms a new substance called iron oxide as rust on iron articles.
4. This process is known as rusting.
   Iron + Oxygen (from air) + Water → rust (Iron oxide).
5. As a new substance is formed in this change, we call it a chemical change.

Question 7.
What is Galvanisation? Explain its importance.
Answer:

1. Some articles made up of iron, don’t get rusted even they are exposed to air.
2. To prevent iron articles from coming into contact with oxygen in air or water or both, we deposit a layer of a metal like Chromium or Zinc on them.
3. This process of depositing a layer of zinc or Chromium on Iron is called Galvanisation.
4. Generally we use Zinc for such type of coatings.
5. We find in our house that water pipe lines are without rust on them.
6. If we observe carefully, we notice that there is some metallic coating on these pipes to prevent rusting.
7. They do not get rusted even after a long time since they are galvanized.
8. The process of depositing one metal on another metal is called galvanisation.

Question 8.
What happens when you burn camphor?
Answer:

1. Initially Camphor changes into liquid and then evaporates into air.
2. It is also considered to be a chemical change.

Question 9.
What happens when you put a small quantity of Camphor in a dish and place it in the open air?
Answer:

1. Take a small quantity of Camphor in a dish and place it in the open air.
2. Observe it after some time. Its quantity reduces and we sense the smell of it.
3. It happens because the camphor gets evaporated. Since it has strong smell, it is used to keep insects and flies away. It is also used in medicines.

Question 10.
Describe what changes occur in a chemical change.
Answer:

1. In a chemical change, the material undergoes a change in its composition and a new substance is formed.
2. Heat, light or any other radiation may be given out or absorbed.
3. Loud sound may be produced.
4. A change in smell may take place or a new smell may be produced.
5. A colour change may take place.
6. A change in the state may occur. All chemical changes do not have all the 2 to 6 traits mentioned above.

Question 11.
How do you make crystallization of urea?
Answer:

1. Take some water in a test tube and add urea to it. Heat the test tube till all the urea dissolves.
2. Add more urea to it. Keep on adding to it until no more urea can be dissolved in it.
3. Let the solution cool down for sometime.
4. Observe the test tube after about half an hour.
5. We get large size crystals of urea.

Question 12.
What is crystallization? How do you make crystallization of copper sulphate?
Answer:
Crystallization (Definition): The process of separating a soluble solid from the solution by heating or evaporating is called crystallization.
Crystallization of copper sulphate:

1. Take some hot, saturated solution of Copper sulphate in a test tube.
2. Pour some of it in an evaporating dish.
3. Allow the solution to cool quickly.
4. Observe with a magnifying glass, the size, colour and shape of the crystals formed.

Question 13.
Think about the following changes and decide whether they are physical or chemical changes. Write the type of change and reasons for that in the table.
Answer:

Question 14.
Do copper articles get rust? When rusting becomes faster? What change is this?
Answer:

1. When Copper utensils are exposed to air we find a greenish coat on them.
2. This greenish coat is formed when Copper reacts with Oxygen and Carbon dioxide present in the air.
3. This coat also protects Copper from getting further corroded. It is also an example of rusting.
4. Rusting becomes faster when there is more humidity in the air.
5. Rusting is a chemical change.

Question 15.
How can you say that rusting is a chemical change? What factors are favourable for speed rusting?
Answer:

1. In case when the metal is changed to its oxide, that is rusting a new substance is formed.
2. Hence rusting is a Chemical Change.
3. The speed of rusting depends on the amount of moisture available to it for a long time.
4. That is more the humidity in air, the faster is the rusting of iron.

Question 16.
What are the methods you suggest to prevent the rusting of iron?
Answer:

1. The problem of rusting of iron and other metal articles is common experience in almost every home.
2. It spoils beautiful articles and makes them look ugly.
3. The following are some of the ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
   a) Do not allow the iron articles to come in direct contact with Oxygen in the air, water or both.
   b) Apply a coat of paint or grease on an iron article.

Question 17.
Do all the materials get rusted or react with oxygen in the air?
Answer:

1. Observe Gold and Silver, we wear them in the form of ornaments.
2. Even if they get exposed to air for a long time, they do not change colour or get rusted.
3. It means that they are resistant to corrosion which is the reason why we use them in making ornaments.

Question 18.
What changes do you notice when few pieces of ice in a beaker are heated? What do you mean by a physical change ?
Answer:

1. Take few pieces of ice in a beaker and heat them as shown in the following figure.
   
2. We notice that ice slowly melts and becomes water and on further heating.
3. If we reduce the temperature, the water vapour changes back to water and when the temperature is further reduced it changes to ice.
4. In the above activity we notice the change of the state of ice to water and to vapour but the substance, water, remains the same.
5. Changes of this type where no new substance is formed are known as physical changes.
6. When a material undergoes a change in shape, size, color or state it is called a Physical Change.
7. Generally, no new substance is formed in a physical change.

Question 19.
What changes do you observe when some material is burning? What do you mean by a chemical change?
Answer:

1. Take a piece of wood, a piece of paper and a ball of cotton. Burn them and observe the changes.
   
2. Record your observations in the following Table.
   
3. In the above activity we notice that when a piece of wood, paper, and cotton are burnt a new material is formed.
4. This is black in colour and in powder form which is different from the original material.
5. We also notice change in shape and size of new material.
6. This type of change that leads to form a new substance is known as Chemical change.

Question 20.
What happens when magnesium ribbon is burnt in air? What type of substance is formed when it is dissolved in water?
Answer:

1. Take a small piece of Magnesium ribbon. Burn it on a flame of candle.
2. We will find brilliant white dazzling light leaving a powdery substance behind.
3. When Magnesium burns in the presence of Oxygen, it forms Magnesium Oxide in the form of powder ash, which is a new substance.
4. Thus there is a change in the composition.
5. Magnesium + Oxygen → Magnesium Oxide.
6. Collect the ash and mix it with a small quantity of water and dissolve it. Another new substance is formed.
7. Magnesium Oxide + Water → Magnesium Hydroxide
8. Test the dissolved mixture with blue and red litmus papers to decide whether it is a acid or a base.
9. We notice that the litmus paper turns blue.
10. This means that magnesium hydroxide is basic in nature.
11. As all these are new substances all these changes are chemical changes.

Question 21.
What happens if you put an iron nail in copper sulphate solution? Describe how do you perform this activity.
Answer:

1. Take a glass tumbler half – filled with water and add a teaspoonful of Copper sulphate to it.
2. Now add a few drops of Sulphuric Acid to the Copper Sulphate solution.
3. Take some sample solution of it in another beaker and keep it aside.
   
4. Add an Iron nail to the solution in the first beaker and keep it undisturbed for half an hour.
5. Compare the colour of the solution in which iron nail is dropped to that of sample solution kept aside.
6. We notice that the blue coloured solution changes into green colour and a brown coloured deposit is seen on the iron nail.
7. The change in colour of the solution is due to the formation of Iron Sulphate, a new substance.
8. The brown deposit on the Iron nail is copper, another new substance.
9. Copper Sulphate (Blue) + Iron → Iron Sulphate (green) + Copper (brown deposit).
10. This is a chemical change.

Question 22.
Describe how do you perform the activity to observe the reaction of vinegar with baking soda.
Answer:

1. First set up the apparatus has shown in Fig.
   
2. Take a teaspoon of vinegar (acetic acid) in a test tube and add a pinch of baking soda (Sodium bicarbonate) to it.
3. You observe bubbles coming out with a hissing sound. Pass this gas through freshly prepared Limewater (Calcium Hydroxide).
4. Limewater changes to milky white showing that the gas sent into the test tube is Carbon dioxide.
5. Vinegar + Baking Soda → Carbon dioxide + other substance.
6. Carbon dioxide + Lime Water → Calcium Carbonate + Water
7. In these reactions, the new substances like Carbon dioxide and Calcium Carbonate are formed. Hence it is a chemical change.
8. When a material undergoes a change in its composition it is called a chemical change.

Question 23.
How do you produce large size of sugar crystals? What type of change is it?
Answer:

1. Take a big size test tube. Fill half if it with water. Add some sugar to it and stir it.
2. Keep adding sugar and stirring until saturation is attained. Then heat this sugar solution and add some more sugar to it while stirring
3. Continue adding sugar till no more sugar can be dissolved in it.
   
4. Now filter the solution and allow it cool for half an hour.
5. We notice formation of large size crystals of sugar at the bottom of the beaker. Thus sugar the small granules of sugar added changed into large size sugar crystals.
6. This is a physical change.

Question 24.
What do you observe on the cut pieces of fruits and vegetables? Why do they change their colour?
Answer:

1. Take an apple, brinjal, a potato, a tomato, a cucumber, a banana; cut each into small pieces; place them in separate plates and expose them to open air for sometime.
   
2. We notice a brown colour in some of these pieces.
3. Some fruits and vegetables, when cut, react with Oxygen in the air.
4. This makes them to get a brown layer on the surface.

Question 25.
What do you do to prevent browning of cut vegetables and fruits.
Answer:

1. Cold water prevents the outer surface of the potato and brinjal from colouring.
2. Small quantities of acids like vinegar or lemon juice in water will also prevent browning of vegetables.
   
3. We can also rub the surface of the cut fruits with juices of citrus fruits like lemon to avoid their browning.
4. The layer of lemon juice reduces the reaction on the surface of the fruit.
5. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can also be used to prevent browning.

Question 26.
Look at the experiment given below which was already conducted in your laboratory. Answer the following.

a) Which chemical was used in this experiment?
b) What is the change of colour you observed, after putting the iron nail into the solution?
Answer:
a) Copper Sulphate solution (CuSO₄).
b) The solution turns into green colour.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 12th Lesson Reproduction in Plants

7th Class Science 12th Lesson Reproduction in Plants Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the flowers that are classified on the basis of parts present in them.
Answer:
Flowers are classified as:
a) Complete flower
b) Incomplete flower
c) Unisexual flower and
d) Bisexual flower on the basis of parts present in them.
a) Complete flower:
A flower that has four or more whorls – at least one each of calyx (sepals), corolla (petals), Androecium (stamens) and Gynoecium (pistil) is called a Complete flower.

Eg: Datura, ipomea, hibiscus.

b) Incomplete flower:
A flower in which any of these four whorls is missing is an Incomplete flower.

Eg: Cucumber, bottlegourd, papaya.

c) Unisexual flower:
A flower which has either stamens (androecium) or pistil (gynoecium) is called unisexual flower.

Eg: Cucumber, bottle gourd, bitter gourd etc.,

d) Bisexual flower :
A flower that has both stamens and pistil (androecium and gynoecium).

Eg: Datura, hibiscus, ipomoea, is called bisexual.

Question 2.
What is pollination? What happens to pollinated and non-pollinated flowers?
Answer:

1. The process of pollen grains reaching the stigma from anther is known as pollination.
2. After one week if we observe both pollinated and non – pollinated flowers. We find polinated flowers develop into fruits where as non – pollinated flowers do not.

Question 3.
What are the agents that help, in pollination? Describe how it takes place by taking an example.
Answer:

1. Air, water, animals, insects, humans act as agents of pollination.
2. They carry pollen grains from anther to the stigma.
3. Insects like butterflies suck nectar from flowers.
4. At that time pollen grains of that flower stick to the legs of the butterfly.
5. When the butterfly goes to another flower for nectar, the pollen grain that have stuck to it’s legs fall on that flower.

Question 4.
What is fertilization? What happens after fertilization?
Answer:

1. Fertilization: Fusion of units of male and female parts to form a structure called as zygote is called fertilization.
2. After fertilization seed develops from the ovule and the ovary usually develops into a fruit.
3. The entire process of fertilization and formation of zygote is known as Sexual reproduction.
4. For the formation of a seed sexual reproduction is essential.
5. The seed thus formed are dispersed to different places by agents like air, water, birds and animals and by human beings as well.
6. These seeds grow into new plants under favorable conditions.

Question 5.
What is sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Production of baby plants or offsprings from the zygote is called sexual reproduction.

Question 6.
What is vegetative reproduction? Write an example for such reproduction.
Answer:
Vegetative reproduction: Production of new plants from vegetative parts of a plant i.e. root, stem and leaf is known as vegetative reproduction.
Example:

1. Potato has a number of small depressions on its surface.
2. These are known as eyes. Cut the potato into pieces such that there is an eye in each piece.
3. Remove the eyes from some of these pieces. Fill two cups with soil.
4. Plant the piece with eyes in one cup and label the cup as ‘with eyes” and those without eyes in another cup named as “Without eyes”.
5. Water both cups daily and observe potato plants sprout in the cup where pieces with eyes are kept.

Question 7.
How does reproduction take place in Bryophyllum?
Answer:

1. See the picture of the plant called Bryophyllum.
   
2. We can see baby plants on the edge of the leaves.
3. We can say that the Bryophyllum plant reproduces through its leaves.

Question 8.
Name some plants which can reproduce when a small branch of them is cut and planted in the soil.
Answer:
In our garden we grow plants like rose, hibiscus, and jasmine by cutting a small branch and planting them in the soil.

Question 9.
Do all flowers have four parts?
Answer:
The student can do this with the help of the teacher. Collect as many flowers from your surroundings as you can. See that you have at least a type of melon or gourd flower as well. Now observe different parts in each flower. Record your observations in the table given below.

Question 10.
How do you identify the sexual parts of a flower?
Answer:

1. Now take a stamen (androecium) from the datura flower, tap the stamen gently on a slide.
2. We can see some grains fallen on the slide.
   
3. Put a drop of water and observe these grains under the microscope.
4. These grains are called pollen grains. Collect pollen grains from other flowers and observe under the microscope as well.
5. Take the pistil of a datura flower as it is big enough to observe the internal parts.
6. Cut the sections of the ovary of pistil as shown in figures a and b.
   
   With the help of hand lens study the internal parts.
7. We see some small ball like structures called “ovules” can be seen arranged in different chambers.

Question 11.
How do you notice which flower part develops into fruit?
Answer:

1. Collect a pistil and fruit from datura plant. Cut the transverse section of both ovary of pistil and fruit.
2. Observe the internal structure of both the section cuttings with the help of a handlens.
   
3. Collect pistil and fruit of cucumber, bhendi (Ladies finger), cotton and beans and do the above activity.
4. Observe the similarities between the ovary and fruit of the same species.
5. It is reasonable to conclude that an ovary develops into a fruit while the ovules develop into seeds. The seeds further produce new plants.

Question 12.
How do you observe ‘Self Pollination ‘and ‘Cross PollinationWhat role is played by male flower?
Answer:

1. Observe a bottle-gourd plant in a garden. It has unisexual flowers i.e. male and female flowers separately.
2. Select 10 female buds of bottle guard, cover with a polythene bag loosely tying the bag on a stalk.
   
3. Make some tiny holes in the bag with the help of a pin.
4. Two days later observe the buds blooming. (Now collect the pollen grains from a male flower of the Bottlegourd plant).
5. Pluck the stamens of male flower and shake to collect pollen grain in a sheet of paper. Twisting cotton wool over the tip of a match stick prepares a brush.
6. Now uncover five of the ten female flowers. Apply the pollen grain on to the stigma of these flowers with the brush.
7. The pollen grains stick to the stigma.
8. Cover the flowers again with polythene bag. Remove all male flowers from the plant.
9. So that no pollen grain reaches the remaining female flowers.
10. By this experiment we come to know that significant role is played by male flower in the formation of fruit.
11. If transfer of pollen grains take place within the flower it is known as Self Pollination. Transfer of pollen grain from anther of one flower to stigma of another flower of same species is called Cross Pollination.

Question 13.
What happens to the pollen grain after pollination? What is fertilization?
Answer:

1. Take two slides. Put 2-3 drops of water on them. Add some sugar grains to water on one side.
   
2. Now put some pollen grains of Hibiscus flower on both the slides. After one hour observe under microscope. We find pollen grains germinate on the slide containing sugar grain.
3. There are some substances present on the stigma which promote the germination of the pollen grains.
4. During germination a tube grows from the pollen grain.
5. This tube ultimately reaches the ovary through the style with the male part.
6. This male part fuses with the female part in the ovule of the ovary.
7. Fusion of units of male and female parts to form a structure called as zygote is called Fertilization.

Question 14.
What is budding? How do you demonstrate it?
Answer:
1) Yeasts grow with the help of a small bulb like outgrowth which increases in size and • breaks off from the parent plant to live independently.
2) This process of reproduction is called budding.

Demonstration:

1. Take some water in a glass tumbler. Mix a tablespoon of sugar and half spoon of yeast powder you get in the market, in the glass tumbler.
2. Cover the glass and leave it undisturbed for a day.
   
3. On the next day place a drop of the solution on a slide and cover it with a cover slip and examine it under a microscope.
4. We can see budding yeast cells as shown in the figure, (they look like water bubbles growing new ones on them).

Question 15.
What is mould? How can you do an activity to show it?
Answer:

1. Take a slice of bread cover it with a vessel and leave it undisturbed for two or three days.
2. Thereafter you will find the slice covered with grey coloured fungus called bread mould.
   
3. Let it stand for three or four days. The whole growth appears like a black powder like matter.
4. Transfer this powder with a thin stick on a fresh slice of moist bread.
5. Observe what happens after every day and note your observation.
6. The black powdery portion of bread mould contains several spores.

Question 16.
What is thalamus in a flower?
Answer:
Let us hold a Dhatura flower by its stalk. This stalk is green in colour and has a slightly swollen head. This is called thalamus. It is the seat on which the parts of a flower are present.

Question 17.
Explain what are calyx and sepals in a flower.
Answer:

1. Now let us observe the part that comes just above the thalamus.
2. There is a green tube like structure called Calyx.
   
3. The edges on the part towards the petals have thin leaf like structures called sepals.
4. The lower ends of-sepals are fused to form the tube like structure.

Question 18.
Write about corolla.
Answer:

1. If we remove the tube of fused sepals in the flower carefully we see
2. There is a funnel shaped corolla. This is formed of fused petals.

Question 19.
What is the male part or Androecium of a flower?
Answer:

1. After removing the petals we can see soft elongated structures attached to these petals.
2. They are called stamens.
3. There is a bulb like structure at the top of each stamen that is called pollen sac or anther.
4. Just below it a fine whitish thread like structure called filament attaches the anther to the petal (in Datura).
5. So stamen has an elongated filarftent and a bulb like pollen sac.
6. Stamens of the flowers are together called the male part or androecium.

Question 20.
What is Gynoecium? How do you find it is a flower?
Answer:

1. As we remove petals, right on the thalamus is seated a bulb like structure called ovary.
2. Just above it a fine tube like structure called style goes up ending in a somewhat flat bead like structure called stigma.
3. This whole structure from ovary to stigma is the pistil or one female reproductive part.
4. All the parts present on the pistil together called as gynoecium.

Question 21.
What do you see in sun flower?
Answer:

1. Sun flower looks like a single flower.
2. But is actually a bunch of flowers.
3. The small flowers in the bunch are called ‘florets’.
4. The florets in the centre are called disc florets.
5. The florets along the rim are called ray flowers.

Question 22.
How are flowers classified on the basis of number of parts present in them?
Answer:
Flowers are classified as
a) Complete flower b) Incomplete flower c) Unisexual flower d) Bisexual flower

Question 23.
What is Penicillin? Who discovered it?
Answer:
Alexander Fleming a Scottish scientist, discovered that a certain kind of mould (Penicillium) produces a substance, named after the mould, called Penicillin, which can destroy many kinds of disease causing bacteria. Penicillin came to be know as an antibiotic and saved the lives of many soldiers in World War – II.

Question 24.
Observe various types of stamens of different flowers.
Answer:

Question 25.
Observe the different types of pistil drawn below.
Answer:

Question 26.
Write the differences between pollination and fertilization.
Answer:

Pollination	Fertilization
1) It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.	1) It is the fusion of a male and female gametes.
2) External agents like water, wind and insect are needed.	2) It does not require external agent.

Question 27.
Draw a flow chart for Reproduction in plants.
Answer:

Question 28.
What is asexual production- How do you appreciate this?
Answer:

1. Reproduction of plants from all such parts other than the flower is asexual reproduction.
2. It is a great thing in nature because reproduction in plants is not confined only to sexual reproduction.
3. By way of such processes, we could get good vegetation.

Question 29.
Write the importance of flowers. Name some of them.
Answer:

1. Flowers are usually the most attractive part of any plant.
2. Flowers are so attractive and colourful. Because they attract insects, human beings, etc. to get cross – pollination.
3. Reproduction is possible through flowers also.
4. Datura, Chinarose (Hibiscus), Cucumebr, Bottlegourd, Tridax, Sun flower, Ipomea etc.

Question 30.
The student is advised to complete the table given below taking the help of the teacher.
Answer:

Question 31.
How are the pesticides causing destruction to our beautiful nature?
Answer:

1. Birds and insects are the natural agents for pollination.
2. Nowadays farmers use pesticides to control pests on crops.
3. The enormous use of pesticides kills insects also.
4. It effects pollination.
5. Crop yield become reduced particularly in sun flower crop.
6. The rate of pollination is reduced because of lack of insects in the fields.
7. Think! How we destroy our beautiful nature.

Question 32.
We often find that some plants grow from their cuttings or some other parts. Can you name some such plants?
Answer:

S.No.	Name of the Plant	Plant part from which new plant produced
1.	Potato	New plants grow from eyes in the tuber
2.	Onion	New plants grow from bulbs
3.	Sugarcane	Stem grows roots at the nodes
4.	Bryophyllum	New plants grow from buds on the leaf.

Question 33.
Look at the picture.

1. Identify the parts A, B, C.
2. Name the type of reproduction seen here.
3. Which part is converted into seed?
4. What is meant by Fertilization?

Answer:

1. A – Pollen grain; B – Pollen tube; C – Ovary
2. Sexual reproduction.
3. Ovules develop into seeds.
4. Fusion of units of male and female parts (Pollen grain and Ovules) to form a structure called zygote is called fertilization.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 10 Globalisation.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Globalisation

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term I.B.R.D.
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. (OR) World Bank.

Question 2.
Explain SEZ.
Answer:

1. The full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone.
2. They are meant for free establishment of industries.

Question 3.
What is the difference between foreign trade and foreign investment ?
Answer:
Foreign trade Foreign trade is any kind of trade (exports and imports) with other countries of the world.
Foreign investment: Private capital invest-ment by firms of one country into those of another country is called foreign investment.

Question 4.
Expand WTO.
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 5.
What is the Arab Spring?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors which led to Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization is a process of connecting countries across the globe.
Technology, Liberalisation of foreign trade and investment, foreign investment policy, WTO and other global institutions led to this globalization.

Question 7.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC is a multinational corporation, owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 8.
What do you mean by foreign investment?
Answer:
Investments made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 9.
What is the investment?
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Question 10.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade is any kind of trade with other countries of the world.

Question 11.
What do you mean by trade barrier?
Answer:
It is called a barrier since some restrictions have been set up by the Indian government on foreign trade and foreign investment. It can be tax on imports.

Question 12.
What is Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.

Question 13.
What was called ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 14.
Where do MNCs set up offices and factories for production? Give reason.
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.
This is done so that cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 15.
Define Economic reforms of NEP 1991.
Answer:
The economic policy adopted by the Government of India since July, 1991 is termed as new economic policy or economic reforms.

Question 16.
What is Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatization means reduced government intervention and increased private investment in production activities.

Question 17.
What is Outsourcing?
Answer:
Outsourcing means going out to a source outside the company to buy regular service.

Question 18.
How many countries are currently members of the WTO?
Answer:
The WTO has 164 member countries as on 29th July 2016.

Question 19.
In which year, the government started to remove barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 20.
Why are Chinese toys popular in the world?
Answer:
Chinese toys are comparatively cheaper and have new designs. So they are popular in the world.

Question 21.
Why are the MNCs making investments in India?
Answer:
In India labour cost is very low when compared to rest of the world. So, many MNCs are making investments in India.

Question 22.
Which organization lay emphasis on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment in India?
Answer:
The WTO.

Question 23.
When was the WTO established?
Answer:
The WTO was established On 01-01-1995.

Question 24.
Where is the main head office of the WTO?
Answer:
It is in Geneva – Switzerland.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. They can sell their products in other countries also.

Question 26.
State a positive aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.
Answer:
The strategy has helped India in creating a large industrial base and an increase in industrial production.

Question 27.
What do you mean by export quotas?
Answer:
For the protection of local consumers, the government restricts giving limit of export of particular goods. This is called an export quota.

Question 28.
What is an import quota?
Answer:
For the protection of local manufacturers from the competition of producers of another country, the government imposes taxes on imported goods. This is called an import quota.

Question 29.
State any two impacts of liberalization and globalization in India.
Answer:

1. There are better services in the communication sector.
2. Many food processing companies have taken over the market.

Question 30.
State the new strategies of NEP.
Answer:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Question 31.
What is meant by modernization of the economy?
Answer:
The NEP accords top priority to modern techniques and technologies. It also promotes computers and electronics industries. It has made the Indian industries dynamic.

Question 32.
What is Joint Venture?
Answer:
At times MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of the countries where they established their MNC operations.

Question 33.
Expand W.T.O. How does it work?
Answer:

1. WTO-World Trade Organisation. It lays emphasis on the liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investments.
2. It was established in 1995 with headquarters in Geneva – Switzerland.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the effects of Globalisation in India.
Answer:

1. The impact of globalization in India is not uniform.
2. It has benefited well-off consumers.
3. It has also benefited the producers with skill, education and huge wealth.
4. Certain services enabled with technology have expanded.
5. Some new jobs are created.
6. Some large Indian companies have grown as M.N.C.s.
7. On the other hand, most of the small producers and workers are not happy with globalization.

Question 2.
Estimate the impact of globalization on local industries of India.
Answer:
Impact of globalization:
Positive effect:

1. Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
2. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards.
3. Some have gained from a successful collaboration with foreign companies.

Negative effect:

1. Some of the small industries have been hit hard due to competition.
2. Several units have been shut down rendering many workers jobless.

Question 3.
“Globalisation by connecting countries results in greater competition among producers.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.
2. An MNC does different operations related to its business at different locations across the globe.
3. An MNC is able to take advantage of cost-benefit and also of easier access to important markets.
4. There is a greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products.
5. Competition held between local producers and foreign companies.

Question 4.
Write about the problems of Urbanization.
Answer:
Problems of urbanization:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to the housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population affects agricultural production due to a shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problems will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Give four reasons to the factors that helped Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means interconnecting the markets and countries also. Factors that helped globalization are:

1. Technology: The development in Information and Communication Technology have been even more remarkable and rapid.
   Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process.
2. Transportation: As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail and talk across the world at negligible costs.
3. Liberalization of Foreign Trade: With the liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
4. Liberalization of Foreign Investment: Due to this so many companies are going to invest on new products.
5. Political climate: We must remember that political decisions are taken in a particular context, which accounts for the economic and technological change that has already taken place.

Question 6.
How are the Indian companies benefited from Globalisation at present?
Answer:
Benefit for Indian companies with globalization at present

1. Invested in newer technology and production methods
2. Raised their production standards
3. Gained from collaboration with foreign companies

Question 7.
What will be the consequences of Globalisation, if it spreads to all sectors in future?
Answer:
More products will be available if globalization process is continued and spread. Quality of goods will be increased prices come down. Foreign investment is increased. Many new jobs will come up. IT services will be increased. Technology will be more used. Small scale industries will be closed. Culture and nationalism are also affected. Soil lose its fertility.

Question 8.
What do you understand by globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is a process associating with increasing openness, growing economic independence and deepening economic integration with the world economy. In other words, it means opening up of the domestic economy for foreign countries.

Question 9.
What is the role of media in ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
Media played a crucial role during the Arab Spring. Television Channels that were owned and run by people from other countries supported such mobilization which resulted in regulating the powers of local leaders. While events like Civil War or natural disasters like Tsunami are discussed within the national boundaries they also receive support and sympathy from around the world.

Question 10.
Give a picture of ‘Production across countries before large MNCs’.
Answer:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organized within countries. Raw materials, food grains and finished products only crossed the boundaries of these countries. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food grains and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Question 11.
What is important regarding MNCs?
Answer:
MNCs not only sell their finished products globally but more important, the goods and services are produced globally. As a result, production is organized in increasingly complex ways. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

Question 12.
“Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market player and forces”. Comment with an example.
Answer:

1. Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market players and forces.
2. In fact many of the MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments.
3. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and the influence of these MNCs.
4. This is how the decision making powers of sovereign governments are at a risk.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the influence of globalization on the Indian economic system? What are the advantages of extending globalization to India? Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The Globalization has benefited both the customers and the industrialists.
2. There are greater choices for the customers, who now enjoying quality items at lower prices.
3. As such, their standard of living is improved.
4. Among producer and workers, the influence has not been uniform.
5. The MNCs have invested in Indian Companies.
6. New jobs have been created and local companies supplying raw materials etc. to these companies prospered.
7. Top Indian companies have been benefited as new technology is implemented.
8. Some large Indian companies emerged as MNCs.
9. The Globalization has also created new opportunities for companies providing services.
10. Besides, a host of services, such as data entry, accounting, engineering etc. are now done cheaply in India.

Question 2.
Do you support or oppose the setting up of the Special Economic Zones? Why?
Answer:
I strongly oppose the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. Accumulation of land for SEZs disturb the livelihood of agricultural dependents.
2. SEZs are not offering as much employment as they have assured.
3. They disturb the ecological balance in certain cases.

(OR)

I support the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. They provide more employment opportunities.
2. They provide world-class infrastructural facilities in a particular place.
3. They attract foreign investments and help to the establishment of industries.

Question 3.
“Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Write your opinions on it.
Answer:

1. The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed.
2. It has benefited the producers with huge wealth and well-off consumers.
3. But the small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode.
4. Globalisation should be fair. It has to create opportunities for all.
5. The government has to play a major role in making this possible.
6. The government has to ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.

Question 4.
Explain the factors that have enabled Globalisation.
Answer:

1. Technology has been improved rapidly.
2. Due to this, many revolutionary changes occurred in the fields of production, trade and especially in information and communication.
3. Nowadays computer and internet has made the world a hamlet.
4. After 1991, the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India.
5. This had speeded up the process of globalisation in India.
6. The policies implemented by international organisations like WTO, promoted the interests of MNCs, all over the world.

Question 5.
Explain with examples, how small and cottage industries are extinct because of multinational companies.
Answer:
Small and cottage industries are going the extinct because of multinational companies due to the following reasons.

1. Small industries are not having the capacity to compete with M.N.C.’s
2. Imported goods quality is high and the cost is low.
3. People are attracted to machine-made goods. But cottage industries are not following.

Example:
a) Basket making:

1. Small industries did not get good quality of plastic, because its cost is high.
2. Instead of traditional baskets MNC’s imported steel and metal baskets.

b) Weaving:

1. Small and cottage industries using old traditional methods for weaving, only handlooms.
2. MNC’s using power looms for weaving and using machines and imported machine-made cloth.

Question 6.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of Multi-National Companies.
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Multinational Companies :
Advantages:

1. Competition among countries increased.
2. Quality improvement.
3. The decrease in prices.
4. Increase in production.
5. Increase in access of goods and services.
6. Development in research and technology.
7. Increase in employment opportunities.

Disadvantages:

1. The decline in small scale industries.
2. No employment opportunities for unskilled labourers.
3. Agriculture is affected.
4. The environment is affected.
5. The exploitation of natural resources.
6. Value of currency is determined internationally.
7. Indigenous languages and culture is affected.

Question 7.
How can flexibility in labour laws support the present companies?
Answer:

1. Flexibility in labour laws can help the companies to decrease their production cost by employing labourers only for a short period of time when there is need instead of employing them for long period of time or yearly basis.
2. By easing upon labour laws, company heads can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

The developments in information and communication technology have been even more remarkable and rapid. Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world to access information instantly and to communicate from remote areas.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about developments in technology especially with regard to information and communication technology. It has various effects on society and made the task of many people easy.

In the fast-growing world, every field is being updated and upgraded. There are so many reasons for these changes in technology. Due to globalization, getting and sending information should be fast. Email, Google, Internet, Wikipedia all these made our task easy. People also changed their lifestyles. Even in mobile phones various activities like e-banking, different payments like electricity bill, phone bill are paid. Many of the GOs and Memos are sent by mail.

It has negative effects also. Some youth are attracted by abscence films and pornographic videos are watched. Students can utilise it for their study. The government should take necessary action.

Question 9.
Read the paragraph given below and comment.

The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed. It has benefited well-off consumers and also producers with skill, education and huge wealth. Certain services, enabled with technology, have expanded. On the other hand, thousands of small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode. It is important to understand the two¬sided nature of globalisation.

Answer:

1. The costs and benefits of globalization are unevenly distributed both within and in between cities.
2. Homeless people are living in cardboard boxes on sidewalks of gleaming corporate skyscrapers, whose budgets exceed those of many countries.
3. In many countries real incomes have fallen, the costs of living gone up and the number of poor households has grown, particularly in urban areas.
4. More urban inhabitants live in inadequate housing, mostly in the slums and scattered settlements in developing countries.

Conclusion: Finally developed countries and rich people are benefited and poor people are not benefited.

Question 10.

Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this paragraph or not. Mention why/why not.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of these countries. The local company benefits by the additional investments and the latest technology that the MNCs bring.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it says that the multinational companies invest for the production of goods jointly with the local companies.
2. This additional investment is a sort of benefit for the local companies as they have access to technology.
3. To some extent it is true.
4. When foreign companies want to establish a new factory they bring some new technology and provide job opportunities for the local people.
5. They utilize the local resources along with the human resource.
6. The companies keep the local companies in their grip and gradually they lose their control on their own production.
7. Some people say that multinational companies are helpful to local companies.
8. It is true in the initial stage but in due course, it leads to downfall.
9. So I don’t fully agree with this paragraph.
10. The government should put barriers which are useful for the local companies.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

For a long time trade has been the main channel of connecting countries. In history, you would have read about the trade routes connecting India and South Asia to markets both in the East and West and the extensive trade that took place along these routes. You would also remember that it was trading interests which attracted various trading companies such as the East India Company to India.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, trade is the main channel bringing the nations together.
2. East India Company came to India in such a way. In the name of trade, the Europeans tried to find out new sea routes and in the series of efforts, they explore many countries and estab¬lished markets.
3. The exploration doesn’t stop with spreading the markets.
4. It leads to the exploitation of natural resources.
5. East India Company came to India and looted the country. Trade doesn’t mean exploitation.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that it is not so easy to decide whether the trade is really linking the markets and leading to exploitation.
7. Every country should think whether foreign companies are useful to their country or not.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.

To put it simply, foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. Similarly, for the buyers, trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that because of foreign companies opportunities are created and
   the producers send their goods to other markets also.
2. The buyers also have the choice to select the commodities or goods whatever they like.
3. Foreign trade helps in connecting markets of the globe. The international market system will be increased.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that many of the foreign products like Coca-cola, Pepsi and other cool drinks are available in our country.
5. Local coconuts and buttermilk are not being utilized.
6. Though there is a choice for buyers, they should think of their domestic market also.
7. Foreign trade connects the markets in different countries.
8. The integration of the market system doesn’t collapse the domestic economic system.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write’ your opinion on it.

Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements in transporta¬tion technology. As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph technology is one major factor in the process of globalization.
2. Recently there are many changes in transportation technology.
3. It led to faster movement in reaching the destination.
4. My opinion is that technology is a part of globalization.
5. Many multinational companies use different technology for various purposes.
6. In this paragraph, it is discussed about transportation technology.
7. Improved transportation makes travel easy. Construction and management of roads including vehicle maintenance are to be concentrated.
   8) Better roads help in minimizing the prices because of fuel consumption.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Let us return to the example of imports of Chinese toys in India. Suppose the Indian government puts a tax on the import of toys. And because of the tax, buyers will have to pay a higher price on imported toys. Chinese toys will no longer be as cheap in the Indian markets and imports from China will automatically reduce. Indian toy-makers will prosper.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the government has to put barriers on Chinese toys.
2. Thus the prices of the Chinese toys rise.
3. Automatically Indian toys will have positive market. Indian toy makers will get benefits. My comments on this paragraph are as follows. This is only an example.
4. Like Chinese toys, there are so many goods coming from abroad and making good business.
5. They are getting good profits.
6. The same Indian manufacturers face many troubles.
7. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should take necessary steps to strengthen the Indian companies and small scale industries along with artisans and handicrafts.

Question 15.
Identify these countries on an outline map of world.

1. United States of America
2. China
3. Mexico
4. Eastern European countries
   i) Poland
   ii) Ukraine
   iii) Romania
   iv) Bulgaria
   v) Czech Republic
   vi) Slovakia
5. India

Answer:

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study

8th Class Social Studies 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements.

1. An F.I.R. is filed in the court.
2. Being arrested by the police is equal to being punished.
3. A bail is given on the basis of sureties.
4. Supreme Court is the apex court in the country.

Answer:

1. The account of the crime should be entered in the Station House Register on the basis of the FIR.
2. Being arrested by the police means inquiry started.
3. Correct.
4. Correct.

Question 2.
Describe in a table what happened in Ravi’s case from its first hearing and session court.

Role of witness	Punishment given	Requirement of Ravi’s presence

Answer:

	Role of witness	Punishment given	Requirement of Ravi’s presence
Magistrate Court	Some withnesses are taken for one day.	4 years imprisonment	compulsory
Sessions Court	need not attend	1 year imprisonment	should attend once
High Court	need not attend	1 year imprisonment	need not attend.

Question 3.
In the context of the differences between a criminal and a civil case, write a sentence each about (a) punishment and jail; (b) government lawyers; (c) filing FIR.
Answer:

Subject	Criminal	Civil
Punishment and jail	In case of criminal disputes people are often punished with a jail term.	In civil cases they may not be sent to jail.
Government lawyers	He/She must conduct the prosecution on behalf of the state.	They play no role.
Filing FIR	FIR should be recorded in the concerned Police Station.	No FIR is filed.

Question 4.
Can the Session’s or District court change the decision of a High Court? Why?
Answer:
No. The decision of a High Court cannot be changed by the Session’s court or District court. These two are lower level courts to High Court.

Question 5.
If someone is not satisfied with the decision of a Session’s Court or a High court, what can be alone.
(Or)
If she/he is dissatisfied with the decision of High Court, what can be done?
Answer:
If someone is not satisfied with the decision of a Session’s court, he/she can appeal to the High Court.
If she/he is dissatisfied with the decision of High Court, she/he can appeal to the Supreme Court.

Question 6.
What are the differences between the role of the S.H.O. and the magistrate?
Answer:
S.H.O is the officer at P.S. level. Magistrate is still higher level.
S.l. should present the arrested person before the Magistrate before 24 hours.

Question 7.
In your view, what should have been the verdict in Ravi’s case?
Answer:
I appreciate the judgement in Ravi’s case. It would be better if it would have been completed earlier.

Question 8.
A person confessed his crime at the police station and the police locked him in jail for 6 months. Is this the correct procedure? Explain your answer.
Answer:
This is not the correct procedure. He should be handed over to the court for further prosecution. The judiciary decides if the accused person is guilty or not and what punishment is to be given.

Question 9.
Can you identify different roles of the Executive and Judiciary given in this chapter?
Answer:
The police comes under the Executive. They register cases and conduct enquiry in the initial stage. Trials, evidences of witnesses, judgement all these are the duties of Judiciary.
These will not interfere in each other’s matter.

Project

In a town called Peace Land, the supporters of the Fiesta football team learnt that the supporters of the Jubilee football team in the city about 40 km away have damaged the ground on which the final between both teams was to be held the following day. A crowd of Fiesta fans armed with deadly weapons attacked the homes of the supporters of the Jubilee football team in the town. In the attack 10 men were killed, 5 women were gravely hurt, many homes were destroyed and over 50 people injured.
Imagine that you and your classmates are now part of the criminal justice system. First divide the class into the following four groups of persons:

1. Police
2. Public Prosecutor
3. Defence lawyer
4. Judge

Roles	Functions
Police	Hear the witness
	Record the statements of the witness
	Take photographs of burnt homes
Public Prosecutor	Record evidence
	Arrest the Fiesta fans
	Write the judgement
Defence lawyer	Argue the case for the victims
	Decide for how many years the accused will be put in jail
	Examine the witness in the court
Judge	Pass the judgement
	Get the assaulted women medically examined
	Conduct a fair trail
	Meet the accused persons

a) The column on the right provides a list of functions. Match these with the roles that are listed on the left. Have each group pick the functions that it needs to perform to bring justice to those who were affected by the violence of the Fiesta fans. In what order, will these functions be performed?

b) Now take the same situation and ask one student who is a supporter of the Fiesta Club to perform all the functions listed above. Do you think the victims would get justice if only one person performed all of the functions of the criminal justice system? Why not?

c) State two reasons why you believe that different persons need to play different roles as part of the criminal justice system.
Answer:
a) Order of the functions.

Roles	Functions
1) Police	a)     Hear the witness b)    Record the statements of the witness c)    Take photographs of burnt homes d)    Arrest the Fiesta fans
2) Public Prosecutor	a)    Argue the case for the victims b)    Examine the witness in the court
3) Defence lawyer	a)     Meet the accused persons b)    Examine the witness in the court
4) Judge	a)     Conduct a fair trail b)    Get the assaulted women medically examined c)     Record evidence d)     Decide for how many years the accused will be put in jail e)    Write the judgement f)    Pass the judgement

b) All the functions should not be performed by only one person. The judgement will be one¬sided. So the functions should be divided.
e.g.: If the fan of Fiesta performs all the functions, the judgement will be in their favour.

c) Two reasons:

1. The police enquire only primary evidences and lodges the police report.
2. The judiciary observes the case in all the angles and gives judgement after a clear enquiry.
   So these both should be different.

8th Class Social Studies 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you write the imaginary details of Ravi and Samba as given below:
The complaint should contain ……………. address and details. (Refer to Textbook on Page 173 and Page 174)
(Textbook Page No. 174)
Answer:

1. To
   The SHO
   Police Station – IV Town
2. Criminal Complaint
3. Date – 10.4.2013
   Time : 8.30 A.M.
   Place of offence: Ravi’s house
4. Case: Ravi beat up Samba
5. Name of the accused – Ravi
   Gender: Male
   Details: Real estate broker
   Address: x x x x
   x x x x
   x x x
6. Name of witnesses: Neighbour of Ravi,
   Friend of Ravi,
   Son of Samba.
7. Prayer: To punish the accused according to the law.
8. Signature of the complainant – Samba
   Address : x x x
   x x x x
   x x x
   Details: Peon in Co-operative Society.

Question 2.
Who investigated the offence and how? (Textbook Page No. 175)
Answer:
S.l. investigated the offence.

In this case, the S.l. went to the village and began his investigation by examining the injuries suffered by Samba. The report of the hospital doctor established quite clearly that the injuries were serious. Then he questioned Ravi’s neighbours. The neighbours gave him a full account of the incident that had taken place. This established beyond doubt that Samba was assaulted and injured by Ravi.

The S.l. then went to Ravi’s house and informed him that he was being arrested on the charge of causing grievous injury to another person. He arrested Ravi and took him to the Mandal Police Station and questioned him there. Ravi flatly denied ever assaulting Samba. They tried hard to make Ravi accept his offence, but he stuck to his denial. Ravi was detained in the police lockup, so that he could be produced before the magistrate, the next day.

Question 3.
What is meant by ‘an accused’ ? In this story, who is the accused ? (Textbook Page No. 175)
Answer:
‘Someone that has done something wrong or taken part in illegal activity is known as accused. In this story ‘Ravi’ is accused.

Question 4.
What were the charges levelled against the accused? (Textbook Page No. 175)
Answer:
Cheating, causing grievous injury to another person – were the charges levelled against the accused.

Question 5.
Samba thought that the SHO arrested Ravi to punish him for the crime. Was he right? (Textbook Page No. 175)
No, he was not right. To punish’ is the duty of court only but not of the police. Ravi was arrested to be submitted to the court.
a) When Ravi sold Samba’s plot to another person it was …. offence, (criminal or civil)
Answer:
Civil
b) When Ravi beat up Samba it was a offence, (criminal or civil) (Textbook Page No. 176)
Answer:
Criminal

Question 6.
What is an independent judiciary? (Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:
The Legislature and the Executive cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary. The courts are not under the government and do not act on behalf of government. The police is also not part of judiciary.
In this way the judiciary works independently. This is known as independent judiciary.

Question 7.
Fill in the table given below based on what you have understood about criminal and civil law. (Textbook Page No. 177)
Answer:

Description of Violation	Branch of Law	Procedure to be Followed
While walking to school, a group of girls are continuously harassed by a group of boys.
A tenant who is being forced to vacate files a case in court against the landlord.
1) While walking to school, a group of girls are continuously harassed by a group of boys.	Criminal Law	Police book a case on the group of boys. If the crime is proved, they will be sent to jail.
2) A tenant who is being forced to vacate files a case in court against the landlord.	Civil Law	The tenant files a case in the civil court against the landlord. Court provides relief to the tenant.

Question 8.
Is there any scope for political power to influence the judgement? Why? (Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:
No. There is no scope for political power to influence the judgement.
Reason:
Our Constitution provided us with an independent judiciary. The Legislature and the Executive cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary. The judge also conducts the trial impartially and in an open court.

Question 9.
Kranthi says, “My Father got justice but too late.” Do you agree with him? (Textbook Page No. 182)
Answer:
Yes. I agree with Kranthi. It took 3 years for justice. This is not a reasonable period.

Question 10.
Every police station covers certain area. Find out under which particular police station’s area (Jurisdiction) does your house fall. (Page -174)
Answer:
Our house falls under Satyanarayana puram Police Station, Vijayawada Urban.

Question 11.
Which court was hearing the case of Ravi? (Textbook Page No. 178)
Answer:
Judicial Magistrate court was hearing the case of Ravi.

Question 12.
What happened in the first hearing? (Textbook Page No. 178)
Answer:
The S.l. had given a copy of the FIR and the police report to Ravi’s lawyer so that he could know the exact charges levelled against his client. From these reports, Ravi’s lawyer could also know the kind of evidence that the police had collected against Ravi. All this information would enable him to prepare a defence for Ravi, who was the accused in this case.
In the first hearing, the judicial magistrate accused Ravi of inflicting grievous injury to Samba. This offence, if proved, would entail imprisonment for 4 years. Ravi did not accept the charges. So, the magistrate ordered a second hearing of the case after 15 days.

Question 13.
What is the lawyer who deals with the case on behalf of the government called? (Textbook Page No. 178)
Answer:
Public Prosecutor, is the lawyer who deals with the case on behalf of the government called.

Question 14.
Identify the location of these courts for your area with the help of your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:
Our district court is in Machilipatnam and High Court is in Hyderabad.

Question 15.
Why did they wait for the SHO / S.l. to return? If you were to file such a report, what would you write in it? (Textbook Page No. 174)
Answer:
SHO/S.I. is the head of the police station. To record the F.I.R. his presence is must. So they waited for him. If I were to file such a report, I would write all the issues in the report like- What happened? How did it happen? Who was the accused? etc, I would write their names, witnesses’ names, and their addresses etc.

Question 16.
Why do you think it is important for the person who makes an FIR to take a copy of the report? (Textbook Page No. 174)
Answer:
The complaint should have the acknowledgement for his complaint. After the F.I.R. is filed it becomes the duty of the police to investigate and solve the problem.

Question 17.
What is a Fair Trial? Is it necessary? Why? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 178)
Answer:
The rule of law says that everyone is equal before the law. Before deciding if someone is guilty she/he will be allowed to a fair and impartial public hearing. Criminal prosecution starts with ‘presumption of innocence’ and the guilt must be proved beyond reasonable doubt.
This kind of trial is known as Fair Trial. It is necessary. If the trial is not fair, the victims may lose their confidence in the judiciary. This confidence only leads the people to judiciary.

Question 18.
Discuss why is it necessary to hear the evidences given by the witnesses in any case. (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:
In any case the victims and the accused, support their own words in the court. So the truth may be under cover. Being third person, the witnesses uncover these truths. So it is neces¬sary to hear the evidences given by them in any case.

Question 19.
Can you think of the reasons why the session’s court may have reduced Ravi’s punishment? (Textbook Page No. 181)
Answer:
In any country the penal code is to change the attitude of the accused. The district magistrate court imposed an imprisonment of 4 years. Then he appealed to the session’s court. It took 2 years for judgement in this court. He spent half of his punishment period awaiting court decision. There is a chance of change in the behaviour of any person. So the court considered all these issues and reduced his punishment to one year.

Question 20.
High Court does not summon the accused or witnesses before it. Why? (Textbook Page No. 182)
Answer:
The accused and witnesses are all appeared before the court at lower level. So it is not necessary to attend before the High Court. So it does not summon them.

Question 21.
Imagine that there is a big company cutting down forest and tribal cutting wood for fuel. Is impartiality a good thing? Debate. (Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:
The tribals have natural right on forest. So they can be permitted to cut wood. They do no harm to the forests.
So we can support the tribals.
Cutting down forest by a big company is an illegal activity. So we cannot suppoi; them.

Question 22.
The structure of the court from lower to highest level resembles a pyramid. Can you fill the information about it in a diagram? (Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 11th A Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements:
a. In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included only people from Bombay.
b. Indian industrialist began to establish companies in different parts of India.
c. People in India expected that India would become democratic after the First World War.
Answer:
a) In the early phase of Indian National Congress it included the intellectuals all over the Nation.
b) Swadeshi Movement gave tremendous impetus to Indian industry.
c) Everyone expected that the British would accept the just demands for democratic rule in India and bring in the constitutional reforms.

Question 2.
Write an imaginary dialogue between the extremist and moderate activists of Indian National Congress in the context of their a) main demands; and b) mode of mobilisation.
Answer:

Lucknow Meeting

Moderates: We will request them to increase our representation in our ‘Imperial Ligislative Council.
Extremists: Why should we request them ? Choice is ours. We need not request them. We should chose them and send out from our country.
Moderates: Let us agree it. But upto that we should pass our time. Our people should be in authority for our safety. So we are requesting to conduct civil services in our country.
Extremists: We cannot have independence with the policy of pray, petition and protest. We cannot get the support of our people also. Let us unite together and fight. Let us take the problem to the public. Let us have their support. We will neck out the British soon.
Moderates: Okay. We change our way as peoples’ way. Let us join our hands to them and have our independence.
All: “Vande Mataram” “Vande Mataram”.

Question 3.
After reading this chapter, Mariamma thinks that the early phase of national movement was largely participated by educated Indians. And many of their ideas were of western origin. Would you agree with her? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with her.
Reasons:

1. With the growth of English education in some major cities, a new consciousness, began to develop.
2. They opposed the inequalities and injustices of the old social system.
3. They pointed out the exploitation and injustice caused by the British rule and fought to end it. Thus they sprouted the nationalism in the minds of common people.

Question 4.
Why was it important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India?
Answer:
It was important to understand the economic impact of British rule in India to understand

1. how they were draining our resources.
2. how our crafts lost their status.
3. the reasons for our poverty.

Question 5.
What do you understand by swadeshi? What were the major areas of its impact?
Answer:
I understood Swadeshi ‘as goods produced in our own country’.
The major areas of its impact were:

1. Political
2. Social
3. Industrial
4. Foreign trade
5. Spiritual
6. Business (national trade)
7. Education
8. Cultural
9. Judicial

Question 6.
How did different parts of the country and people respond to division of Bengal ?
Answer:
One major trigger for the movement was the proposal for partition of Bengal into East and West Bengal in 1903 by Lord Curzon. The Nationalists immediately saw this as a political act by the government to divide the Bengali people and also weaken the national movement. Even the ordinary people of Bengal were enraged by this act and took to streets to protest against it. There were massive protests, petitions and campaigns but they were not heeded to and the government partitioned Bengal in 1905. Several protest meetings were held and together they decided to boycotting English cloth and salt. There was a tremendous mass response to this call. Boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, picketing of shops selling foreign goods became common in remote corners of Bengal as well as in many important towns and cities throughout the country. Women refused to wear foreign bangles and use foreign utensils, washermen refused to wash foreign clothes and even priests declined offerings which contained foreign sugar. This spontaneous unity of diverse social groups was the basis of Indian nationalism. The early nationalists were successful in germinating this nationalism.
There was also a call for boycott of all government institutions like schools, colleges, courts etc. People set up Swadeshi schools and colleges and parallel courts in which they settled their mutual disputes. Thus the people responded to division of Bengal.

Question 7.
Locate the following in map India:

1. Calcutta (Kolkata)
2. Madras (Chennai)
3. Bombay (Mumbai)
4. Lucknow

Answer:

Question 8.
Locate the following in the World map:

1. Britain
2. France
3. Russia
4. Germany

Answer:

Question 9.
A few leaders like Gandhiji, Tilak, Subhash Chandra Bose, Bhagat Singh sacrificed their lives for the sake of our nation.
What would have happened, if they did not do so?
Answer:
The British would have plundered our nation’s wealth more and more. The people of our country would have been suffered as slaves under the British rule and India would have become a very poor country.

Question 10.
Are there any movements taken place in your region recently? Why?
Answer:
Recently ‘Jai Andhra’ movement took place in our region on the occasion of separating Telangana from Andhra Pradesh.
Reasons:

1. Regional imbalances
2. Political ill healthness
3. Lack of broad outlook

Project

Question 1.
Collect photos of national leaders who participated in freedom struggle and prepare an album. Make a report on it and present in the class.
Answer:
Report :

1. The National Movement in India was an important epoch in the history of India and it helped to weld diverse people and sections of society into one nation. Ail the sections came together to not only fight aganist the British rule but also to build a new country.
2. The seeds of a new consciousness were sown in the second half of 19th century.
3. The educated Indians, after understanding the nature of British rule and enter into free-dom movement.
4. The early leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, W.C Banerjee, etc, they realised that the unity of all people could be built only by accommodating the special requirements of different regions and religious communities of India.
5. The famous leaders they left their jobs and families and move throughout the country given speeches and create awareness about Indian Independence and to send out the British from India.
6. They promote democratic ideas among the people.
7. They gave call for Swadeshi and boycott for foreign goods.
8. After First World War they raised their voice against British and started movements very actively.
9. Like this so many of our leaders participated in the freedom movement and sacrifice their lives and given a great freedom for us now we are enjoying that.
10. If they did not sacrifice their lives for the sake of our nation, then we would not have achieved freedom from the British rule and would have continued to be their slaves till date.

8th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Imagine yourself as a student participating in a burning of foreign cloth. Describe what all would have happened on that day and your feelings at that time. (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
My name is Sarath Chandra Chatterji. I was studying B.A. – I year in Calcutta College. Britishers occupied our country. They were trying to cut it into pieces as a cake. Till now we, the Indians, are in faith of Law of ‘Karma’. But we wanted to teach them a lesson. We planned to burn the foreign goods in our area.

It is our centre. The roads were clear upto 2 p.m. But all of sudden they were crowded. In the junction we lit a fire. We, all our neighbourhood, threw the foreign cloths and all the foreign goods into the fire. The fire brightened the sky. We gave our slogan ‘Vande Mataram’ and it sounded as ‘Om’. Our eyes were flooded with tears. The light of the fire revealed our attitude towards freedom to the world. Our anger frightened the British.

We decided to attain freedom even by sacrificing our lives.

“Vande Mataram”
“Vande Mataram”

Question 2.
If authorities do not agree to the just requests of people, what do you think the people should do? (Textbook Page No. 126)
Answer:
The requests should be not only just but also legal. If the authorities do not agree, one should oppose them democratically and attain them.

Question 3.
During that period there were massive movements of people who opposed the war
and asked their governments to cease fighting with other countries and restore peace. Do you think it was correct? (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
Yes, I think it was correct.
The reason:
India had no rivalry with Germany or its alliance. We were appealing and fighting with the British to quit India. So it seemed jovial to fight for them. So I think it was correct.

Question 4.
Do you know of any association in your village or town which discusses problems faced by all the people (not just of one caste or community)? What do they discuss? What suggestions do they have for solving those problems? Discuss some examples in the class. (Textbook Page No. 122)
Answer:
Yes, we have one such association in our village. It is ‘Mytri Sangham’. It has its members from all the levels and categories. This association looks after the law and order in our village. They conduct discussions at the time of critical problems. They intimate the issues to police authorities in time. If the people fail to receive, protection or just, they would question the authorities also.

Their suggestions: If the enemy is strong and foolish, we should make him to listen to our words with our own tricks. Later we should gather our own majority. Then only we should fight with him.
e.g.: A tiger puts three steps backward when it starts its trial for hunt. That is the technique.

Question 5.
Find out more about the First World War and its impact on the lives of ordinary people. (Textbook Page No. 127)
Answer:
We can say that World War – I broke out between the capitalists and communists. It continued for nearly 5 years. All the nations with its people took part in it. More than 10,000,000 people lost their lives. 6,500,000 were injured. 6,000,000 were missed. Many nations suffered a lot. Whole world shivered with the feeling of insecurity.

Question 6.
Why did the early nationalists believe that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Early nationalists were educated and intellectuals. They studied the economic impact of the British rule. They understood that the British was draining the Indian wealth in many ways.
e.g.: Enabling cheap selling of British goods in India and retraining Indian crafts and industries.
So they believed that the British were responsible for the poverty and famines in India.

Question 7.
Why do you think the early nationalists did not want to re-establish the rule of the old kings of India? Would it not have been better than the British rule? (Textbook Page No. 124)
Answer:
Yes. It would not have been better than the British rule.
Reasons:

1. Early nationalists treated India as a nation. Old kings divided India into small kingdoms.
2. The British rule was like hot pan, the old kings’ was like stove.
3. Many old kings were foreigners. ‘Swadeshi’ was their goal.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 The People.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson The People

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is sex-ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sex ratio can be calculated with the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 2.
As 2011 Census, the population has increased to 121 crores approximately in India. Write any two reasons for it.
Answer:

1. Early marriages.
2. Illiteracy.
3. Superstitions.
4. Advancement in Medical Science.

Question 3.
Give the main reason for decreasing the death rate during the last decade in India.
Answer:

1. Decline in the death rate is due to effective control of dreadful epidemic diseases through the advancement of medical technology and the health-care delivery system.
2. Spread of education, development of science and technology and effective use of the resources have given greater scope and prospects for sustainability.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.

Male, Female Literacy rate in India.

Year	Female Literacy	Male Literacy	Literacy rate
1961	15.35%	40.45%	28.30%
1971	21.97%	45.96%	34.45%
1981	29.76%	56.38%	43.57%
1991	39.29%	63.13%	52.21%
2001	54.67%	75.26%	64.84%
2011	65.46%	82.14%	74.04%

(a) By what percentage is male literacy more than that of female in 2011?
Answer:
Male literacy is more than that of female in 2011 is 16.68%.

(b) What information does the above table give us?
Answer:
The above table gives us the information about male and female literacy rate in India during 1961 – 2011.

(c) In which period is the literacy rate increased more?
Answer:
The literacy rate increased more during the period 1991 – 2001.

(d) How do you understand female literacy?
Answer:

1. When compared with male literacy, female literacy rate is low.
2. In 1961 female literacy is very low. But it is an increasing level. During 1991 – 2001 female literacy is highly increased.

Question 5.
Observe the given bar graph and answer the questions.

(a) What does the above graph tell about?
Answer:
The above graph tells about India Population – Sex Ratio (1951 – 2011).

(b) What does the change in sex ratio show when compared with 1991 year to that of 2011 year ?
Answer:
The sex ratio is increased (929 to 940)

(c) What do you mean by sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

(d) Mention the reason behind the low female population in India.
Answer:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Illiteracy
3. Lack of Medical facilities
4. Not providing nutritious food.
5. Parental attitude

Question 6.
What processes influence the change in population size?
Answer:
The processes that influence the change in population size are

1. births
2. deaths
3. migrations

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer questions a and b.
Census 2011 – Data related to literacy rate in Kerala and Bihar

Rank	State	Literacy rate	Male literacy rate	Female literacy rate
1	Kerala	94%	96%	92%
2	Bihar	64%	73%	53%

(a) What is table about?
Answer:
The table is about literary rate in Kerala and Bihar considering census 2011.

(b) Mention one reason for low literacy rate among the women.
Answer:
Reasons for low literacy rate among the women:

• Following traditions and conventions
• Less priority to girl education

Question 8.
How much percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
Ninety-two percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
What is important regarding population study?
Answer:
It is important to understand population numbers, its distribution and characteristics that provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating the other aspects.

Question 10.
What does the Census of India provide?
Answer:
The Census of India provides us with infor-mation regarding the population of our country.

Question 11.
What is a census?
Answer:
A census is a procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.

Question 12.
Who collects the census?
Answer:
A central government institution, the Census of India, organizes the collection and record¬ing of this information.

Question 13.
What does the age structure of a population refer to?
Answer:
The age structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups in a country.

Question 14.
How can we group the population of a nation?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:

1. Children (Below 15 years),
2. Working-age (15-59 years),
3. Aged (Above 59 years)

Question 15.
Who gets retirement pension?
Answer:
Those who work and retire in organised sector may get retirement pension.

Question 16.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 17.
What does the sex ratio indicate?
Answer:
The sex ratio indicates a hidden form of discrimination.

Question 18.
What does medical research show?
Answer:
Medical research shows that given similar circumstances girl children survive much better than boys.

Question 19.
What does the census show regarding child births? Give reasons for that.
Answer:
The census shows that in the age group 0-5, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.

Question 20.
Which tend towards unequal sex ratios? Give reason for that.
Answer:
Regions that have unequal gender relations that favour the males and discriminate against the females tend towards unequal sex ratios. This can happen even though they have high incomes.

Question 21.
Give an example of the state which has positive sex ratio.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for female foetus infanticide?
Answer:
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child before birth. Many adults consider female children as a burden.

Question 23.
Write about women’s education.
Answer:
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.

Question 24.
Who is treated as literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 25.
What is literacy?
Answer:
Literacy: Literacy is key for socio-economic progress.

Question 26.
Write an account of literacy rate.
Answer:
At independence in 1947,12% of the population was literate. In 2001, it was 64.84%.lt grew to 74.04% by 2011. However, the 2011 Census shows that there is a wide disparity in literacy rates for men (82.14%) and women (65.46%).

Question 27.
Write the equation of population change.
Answer:
Population change (absolute numbers) = (Population at later date) – (Population at earlier date)

Question 28.
Write the equation of population change in a place.
Answer:
Population change in a place = (number of births + number of in-migrants) -(number of deaths + number of out-migrants). A positive number means the population has increased by that number. A negative number shows it has decreased by that number.

Question 29.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.

Question 30.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
What is the change in birth rate and death rate at present?
Answer:
There has been the rapid decline in death rates but till recent times, birth rates were not decreasing substantially.

Question 32.
Why did the famines decline after 1900?
Answer:
After 1900 famines declined because of famine relief, movement of grain, ration shops and an active public voice in a democracy.

Question 33.
Why are some children forced to work?
Answer:
Some children are forced to work because of economic conditions.

Question 34.
Why does the population size change?
Answer:
The population is dynamic. The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are always changing. This is because of the interaction of the three processes:

1. births,
2. deaths and
3. migrations.

Question 35.
What is the change in population size? How it can be expressed?
Answer:
The change in the size of a population is the difference in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in two ways, (1) as absolute numbers, or (2) as a percentage change.

Question 36.
Write some reasons for population growth in India.
Answer:

1. High birth rate
2. Low death rate
3. Improvement in medical facilities.
4. High fertility rate in young couples.
5. A decline in fancies
6. Illiteracy.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence population densities in states like Assam?
Answer:
Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.

Question 38.
Why do the plains have very high density of population?
Answer:
The northern Plains and the plain in the south have, high to very high population, densities, because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph.
A distressing aspect of gender bias in India that shows little sign of going away is the preference for boys over girls. One of the worst manifestations of this pro-male bias is the relatively high mortality rates of girls compared with boys. Many families consider female children as a burden. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
“Due to the difference in sex ratio, what would be the impact on society ?” Explain.
Answer:

1. Female population will decrease.
2. In future male population may not get marriages.
3. Family system may collapse.
4. Gender bias may increase in the society.
5. The problem of criminality in our society will increase.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given question.
India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
What are the reasons for high population density in West Bengal and low population density in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. West Bengal is located in fertile deltas of River Ganga.
2. It supports agriculture and industrial development and suitable for living.
3. Arunachal Pradesh is in hilly terrain and covered by snow in vast areas.
4. So, it is not suitable for human habitation and have low density of population.

Question 3.
“Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population. In 1951 there were 946 females per 1000 males in India. In 1991 there were 929 per 1000 males and 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011 respectively.”
Draw a table based on the information given below:
Answer:

S.No.	Year	Sex ratio
1.	1951	946
2.	1991	929
3.	2001	933
4.	2011	940

Question 4.
Study the following graph and answer the given questions.
a) In which year, the highest sex-ratio was recorded?
Answer: 1951.
b) Identify the reasons for low sex-ratio in India.
Answer:

1. Gender Bias.
2. Superstitions

Question 5.
People often talk of population growth in alarmed tones. Why?
Answer:

1. It population increases, availability of infrastructural facilities will become less.
2. It may also leads to food shortage.
3. Deforestation and global natural destruction is one of the problem.
4. A huge population causes huge demands like foods, water, clothes etc. As per the population growth the trees were cut down for construction of the house and factories.
5. Due to this natural resources will be depleted.

Question 6.
Write your observations about the population growth in india, from the graph given below:
Answer:
I observed the following reasons:

1. Population census have been taken for every 10 years.
2. From the year 1921 onwards population increases very highly due to the following reasons.
   1. Improved medical facilities.
   2. Declination of the impact of famines.

The other factors which are responsible for high growth rate of population:

1. Contact with western nations, in particular Great Britain, brought with it western medicine.
2. The infant mortality rate dropped.
3. The life expectancy rose.
4. As the largest democratic nation in the world, India has been unable to force population controls.
5. High fertility rate due to early marriages.
6. Some religious superstitions, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:

1. The bar graph is about male, female sex ratio of India.
2. It gives the sex ratio in 1991, 2001 and 2011.
3. Sex ratio is increasing from 1991 to 2011.
4. The sex ratio in India is a cause of concern. Ever since independence, it has been constantly decreasing and with 940 in 2011 it is also alarming.

Question 8.
Prepare two slogans on ‘Control of popula-tion growth’.
Answer:

1. Slogan should reflect the theme of controlling population growth.
2. Slogan should be divided around two equal halves.

Examples:

1. More Population – More problems.
2. Control the Population – Enjoy nature.
3. Small family – Happy family.
4. Reduce the crowd – Have a better future.

Question 9.
Give some examples of gender discrimination.
Answer:
Women and girls in particular face unequal opportunities for education and development. In the most basic needs of nutrition, child care and health also they are discriminated against – they get less of these things than males. This can happen even within the same family. This discrimination is not always obvious. Nor is it accepted.

Question 10.
What is rate or pace of population increase?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase is important. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g.: a rate of increase of 2 per cent per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base year. This works like compound interest. This is referred to as the annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing.

Question 11.
Describe the categories of the working population.
Answer:
The Census of India, groups the working population into four categories. Cultivators are farmers, who farm or supervise the land that they own or take on rent. Agricultural labourers are those who work on another’s farm for wages in cash or kind. Workers in household industries would be those who are manufacturing or repairing some product at home such as dehusking of paddy, bidi workers, potters, weavers, repair of footwear, manufacture of toys, matches, etc. Other workers would be those who are employed in factories, trading, casual labour and all other occupations.

Question 12.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period?
Answer:
One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people.
The other reason is the number of children that couples wish to have. This in turn is related to how many children survive, what social security people have and the preference of male child in society.

Question 13.
Prepare a rough bar diagram using the following information.

Area	Haryana	Punjab	A.P	Kerala	USA
Sex Ratio	870	880	970	1040	1050

Answer:

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
The Census of India provides us with information regarding the population of our country. A’ census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. Once in ten years information is collected about all people living in India. The people who do this survey go from house to house and find out the number of people living in every house in every village,town and city. This census provides us with a lot of information such as how old people are, their occupation, houses, education, religion, etc. The Registrar General & Census Commission of India, organises the collection and recording of this information.
Answer:
A census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. It is a regularly occurring and official count of a particular population. In India this information is collected once in ten years. This census provides us a lot of information. The census is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commission of India.

Question 15.
It is noted that within India certain parts like Kerala have a positive sex ratio. How can you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Kerala have a positive sex ratio while some other states are extremely biased against women.
2. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
3. Women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
4. As Kerala worked on these front, remaining states need to follow its footsteps.

Question 16.
“Over population creates many problems” Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc., to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following of questions based on the graph given below.

1. From which year did the population increase continuously?
   Answer:
   From the year 1921 the population increased continuously.
2. What is the present population of India?
   Answer:
   The present population of India is 121 crores.
3. In which decade is the population growth less?
   Answer:
   The population growth is less in the decade 1911-21.
4. For how many years is the census being taken in India?
   Answer:
   The census is being taken in India for ten years once.

Question 2.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions that given below.

1. How many times census was taken up after independence ?
   Answer:
   7 times.
2. What do you mean by sex ratio ?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per every 1000 males in the population.
3. Give two reasons for low sex ratio.
   Answer:
   1. Traditionally our society is male-dominated. Gender discrimination is one cause.
   2. Women are getting inequal opportunities for education and development.
4. In which year the sex ratio is better ?
   Answer:
   1951

Question 3.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   It explains the Sex ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. In which year, the least sex ratio is recorded ?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio recorded in 1991.
3. How was the sex ratio calculated?
   Answer:
   The sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
4. How many times the female number is recorded more than 935?
   Answer:
   3 times.

Question 4.
Study the graph and answer the following.

1. In which year, did the population decrease?
   Answer:
   1921
2. For how many years, census have been held regularly?
   Answer:
   10 years
3. Why was the population of India increasing after independence?
   Answer:
   Improved medical facilities
   Declination of the impact of famines.
4. What problems would arise with the population explosion?
   Answer:
   1. Stress on environment.
   2. Unemployment.
   3. Scarcity of resources.
   4. Lock of food.

Question 5.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.
In India, 103 female babies are born as against 100 male babies. However, more female babies die than the male babies. The census shows that in the age group 0-5 years, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition because otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.
Answer:
More female babies are born, yet at the age of 0-5 years the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys.
The following reasons give us why the sex ratio has been declining.

1. Most of the women are illiterate, so they are unable to realise the importance of a girl child.
2. Most of the families in India are patriarchal, so men dominate the women and force them to abort against for a girl child.
3. Most of the families give importance for a boy child to increase their clan.
4. Even though they have high income, parents give less importance for girl child in all spheres.

Question 6.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. Which year has the least number of females?
   Answer:
   In the year 1991, the number of females is least.
2. What do you mean by Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   The number of females per 1000 males is called sex ratio.
3. Since 1951, what changes do you observe in Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   During 1951-1971 the sex ratio is decreasing whereas 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, the sex ratio is high.
4. What is to be done to prevent a decrease in female number?
   Answer:
   Concept of equality between male and female is to be developed by organizing campaigns.
   • The laws related to pre-natal diagnostic tests should be brought out.
   • They should be implemented in true spirit.

Question 7.
What is the influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio?
Answer:
Influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio:

1. Marriage related problems.
2. Crimes related to sexual assault increase.
3. Kanyasulkam may revive.
4. Gender discrimination reduces.
5. Mankind struggles to survive.
6. Population decreases.
7. Family relations may be affected
8. Human relations get disturbed.
9. Importance to women – increased.

Question 8.
Plot the below information on a bar-graph. Write your observation.
Table : India Population: Sex Ratio 1951 – 2011

SI. No.	Year	No. of females for 1000 males
1.	1951	946
2.	1961	941
3.	1971	930
4.	1981	934
5.	1991	929
6.	2001	933
7.	2011	943

Answer:

1. The above graph explains the Sex Ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. During 1951 -1971 the Sex Ratio is decreasing whereas in 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, but the Sex Ratio is high.
3. The least Sex Ratio recorded in 1991.
4. The female ratio is very low in India due to gender discrimination, illiteracy, lack of medical facilities, not providing nutritious food, parental attitude etc.

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because there are too many people who have to share very few resources.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, the population growth affects many ways people should aware of this and the literate people talk about the benefits share of resources is not balancing. Very few people are using more resources whereas many people are using very less resources.
Countries like USA are using more natural resources though its population is less than 5% of the world population. In India, it is less than 16% of the population of the world is using less natural resources. In India population is steadily increasing. If population increases in this way, one day India would be the first in world population. Population is not a curse to the country development, it is a boon for the development of the country. People in any country can be divided into three categories. They are skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. The Government has to utilise the services of the skilled for the nation’s development. The semi skilled should be made skilled. The unskilled should be provided with some training and so they would be doing some sort of productive work which would be strengthening Gross Domestic Product. Equal distribution of resources should be the target of the Government. The underdeveloped countries should focus on improving the qualities of work force. So population is not a problem. It’s a boon.

Question 10.
Observe the population pyramids and answer the questions.

a) What are group in India has the largest percentage of people?
b) What is the total percentage of the population in the 90 and above age group?
c) What is the total percentage of the population between 0-14 age group?
d) Based on the population pyramid given above, how do you think.the population of the India will grow? Will it grow quickly or slowly? Why?
Answer:
a) 10-14 years.
b) 0.1 % .
c) 4.7 + 4.7 + 4.9 + 4.3 + 4.3 + 4.4 = 27.3
d) Quickly. Because young pouplation currently is high in number. So for future the population of the India will grow.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
The third component of population change is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
Answer:

1. Migration is the third component of population growth.
2. Migration plays a significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
3. Migration is the movement of people from one region to another.
4. Migration is both internal and international.
5. Internal migration does not affect the size of the population but changes the composition of the population.
6. Internal migration includes movement of people from rural to urban and from urban to rural.
7. Whereas international migration changes the size of the population.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Think of various ways in which the government should have special schemes for different groups. Examples could be midday meal schemes; Anganwadi programmes, etc. Why are they necessary?
Answer:

1. The given paragraph focuses on special schemes suggestive for the sake of the poor and the needy people.
2. According to my opinion the midday meal scheme came out with the initiation of the Su¬preme Court of India.
3. Many of the poor students are not attending schools in the afternoon. Their parents may go to fields for work.
4. As the people are poor many programmes are to be taken up. In many of the schools it is not functioning well.
5. They should be provided with sufficient mechanism so as to make them lead their lives with satisfaction.
6. Whatever the programme or scheme taken up, it should be worked out in a right way with the true spirit.
7. The objective is not fulfilled in many of the schemes.
8. How many schemes are running is different from how they are running. So implementation is important.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduces child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
Answer:

1. It is very important to educate the girls. Their literacy and schooling should be increased so as to bring social change with regard to discrimination against women.
2. My comments on this paragraph are that the village people are mostly illiterates and they don’t want to send their daughters to schools and colleges for education.
3. In this decade, we observe that many of the parents in villages changed their notions and started sending them even to cities and towns and encouraging in getting higher education.
4. An educated mother can take care of both male and female child in a better way.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period? One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population, the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people. 
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the young people are more in number and in due course of time, they get married and have children.
2. This adding of population is going on over the period.
3. There are so many reasons for high birth rate in our country.
4. Early marriages also cause for population growth. The family planning programmes are not successfully implemented.
5. They understand that they may not provide sufficient food, clothes, education and health facilities to their children.
6. Awareness programmes should be initiated among the people.
7. People also should participate in the campaign. Everyone should take responsibility. Increase in population is not the problem of the nation but it affects the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   This graph is about sex ration of Indian Population during 1951-2011.
2. In which year is the least sex ratio recorded?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio is recorded in 1991.
3. How often does the Census take place?
   Answer:
   Once in ten years.
4. How many times it is recorded less than 940?
   Answer:
   It is recorded four times (1971,1981,1991,2001).
5. What do you mean by sex ratio?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per one thousand males in the total population.
6. From which year onwards is sex ratio constantly increasing?
   Answer:
   It is increasing constantly from 1991.
7. In which year the ratio is high?
   Answer:
   The ratio is high in 1951.

Question 16.
Observe the graph and describe it.
Answer:

1. The above graph depicts the fertility rate in India.
2. The fertility rate is nothing but total births per women.
3. The fertility rate in India has been decreasing.
4. That means the number of children a family wants is decreasing.
5. In 1961, the fertility rate was 5.9 that means an average women is likely to bear five to six children.
6. Now the outlook is completely changed.
7. The present fertility rate as per 2011 census is 2.7.

Question 17.
What are the steps to be taken restrict the overgrowth of population in India?
Answer:
The following are the steps to be taken to restrict the over growth of population in India :

1. Family planning measures should be implemented by the government.
2. Child marriages must be stopped.
3. Education should be provided to all women in the country.
4. Family planning counselling centres must be maintained.
5. Newly married couples should wait at least three years to get children.
6. They should maintain 3 years gap between two children.

Question 18.
“Over population creates many problems”. Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc. to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of the occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Aila super cyclone affected the Delta Region.
   Answer: Sunderban
2. Capital of Lakshadweep Islands.
   Answer: Kavaratti
3. The density of population is very high in this state.
   Answer: Bihar
4. The density of population is very low in this state.
   Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
5. The highest populous state.
   Answer: Uttar Pradesh
6. The lowest populous state.
   Answer: Sikkim
7. Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on.
   Answer: Narmada River
8. The capital of Tamilnadu.
   Answer: Chennai
9. Cardamom hills.
10. The capital of West Bengal.
    Answer: Kolkata

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Create a flow chart showing the visit to the underground mining.
Answer:

Visit to a mine
↓
Seeking permission
↓
Meeting safety officer
↓
Taking safety kit
↓
Report at muster point for online registration
↓
Getting into Hollage, Bell signal
↓
Mine shaft
↓
Coal seam
↓
Dolomited walls
4
Reaching face
↓
Ready for blasting, blasting
↓
Observing the blasted area
↓
Transport through conveyor belts
↓
Trucks & trains
↓
Sent for sale

Question 2.
Create a table to classify major health challenges; precautions; and care taken towards protecting mine workers as follows: 1. While working in the mines 2. While being employed.
Answer:
The people, who work in mines, mainly have a chance of getting lung problems, knee pains and eyesight. There is a chance of occurring accidents also.
While being employed they may get diseases according to the nature of their work, e.g.:

1. Throat problems to teachers.
2. eyesight and joint pains to drivers.
3. backbone pains to coolies.

There is a chance of mental problems to workers who work with tension and stress. Doing pranayama, meditation, and walking etc., are some steps to be followed by them.

The workers in mines should wear mask (nasal), shoes, gloves. The machines in the mines should be checked daily, properly and thoroughly.
Doctors and oxygen cylinders should be in reach.

Question 3.
Janaki is currently a farm labourer. She wants to become a miner. Can you explain what changes will occur in her nature of work; employment scenario; health risks etc.
Answer:
Nature of work: “Janaki, now you are working in green fields, and in pleasant situation. Here you are working during day time. But in mines it is too dangerous and in shift system. Night shift may be a hurdle to you. When compared to farm work, mining work is difficult.”

Employment scenario : “Janaki, to get a job in mines is difficult. You will be selected as a daily labour. You have to go to a long distance, where the mine is located. Even though both are in the agriculture sector, the nature of works is totally different. Sometimes you have to prepare for a blast also.”

Health problems: “Janaki, working in mines is a health hazard. You should work in dust. You should wear helmet, gloves and socks/shoes. Your life might be at risk, if any accident occurs.” “Please think yourself in all the angles and take a decision. Have a nice time. All the Best”.

Question 4.
Narrate the difference in requirement of labour in mine while using machines and human labour.
Answer:
If the mines are not provided with machines, human labour is needed more. If they are provided with machines, vice-versa, e.g.: In recent past the coal in mines was taken to lifts in trolleys. At present it is through conveyor belt. Because of the usage of machines, the percentage of recruitments in mines is decreased.

Question 5.
How has been the contribution of mining to economy identified in this chapter?
Answer:
India is underdeveloped country immediately after independence. These mines yield income to the government and also get royalty, when the mines were given to others. So I think this is the contribution of mining to economy.
(Note: The bove given answer is an example. Students can write the minerals found in their own districts by seeing the map.)

Question 6.
See the map of Andhra Pradesh showing minerals in this chapter and identify the minerals found in your district.
Answer:
Our district is Kurnool Lime stone is available in our district.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph under the heading. To whom do the minerals belong’ and answer the following:

Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. They in fact do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. That is why all mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the government. The government uses the minerals keeping in mind the interests of all people of the country.

The minerals do not belong to any particular person but they belong to all people. How do you justify?
Answer:
Minerals usually occur deep in the earth. The things which we get from the earth is property of government. They, in fact, do not belong to any particular owner but belong to all people of the country and have to be used in everyone’s interest. So government uses the minerals by keeping this in view.

Question 8.
Look at the image below. There are two different statements made by two different people. What aspect of mining are they talking about?
Answer:
We cannot live because of minerals: This person lost his land, house etc., for these mines. So he said this.
We cannot live without minerals: This person took the land for mine on lease. So he said these words.

Question 9.
How are minerals helping the country in development?
Answer:

1. There are different types of resources, who supports to a country’s development.
2. Human resources take a vital role by the usage of natural resources.
3. Mineral resources is the most precious transfer for the economy.
4. Extraction of minerals is a good source of employment opportunities.
5. Many basic minerals are necessary to run industries.
6. Minerals are useful for the development of agricultural sector.
7. Minerals are also help to develop transport facilities.

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing different minerals and their uses.
Answer:

Minerals	Uses
1) Aluminium	Transportation, packaging, building, electrical and machinery.
2) Copper	Construction, electrical & electronic products, transportation equipment, roofing, chemical & pharmaceutical machinery and alloys etc.
3) Gold	Jewellery adarts, dentistry and medicine, in medallions and coins etc.
4) Iron ore	Manufacture of steels of various types, magnets, high frequency cores etc.
5) Silver	Coins, medals, electrical & electronic devices, industrial application etc.

8th Class Social Studies 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you think of some mineral which renews itself and we can help to increase it? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Underground water renews itself. We can help to increase it in the following ways.

1. Rainwater harvesting pits should be dug.
2. Trees also increase underground water, so trees should be grown.
3. The excess water in fields should be collected in a pond and makd them to absorb in the ground.
4. Unused drainage canals can be modified to increase recharge.

Question 2.
Can you think of some source of energy which will not diminish with our use of it which will keep renewing itself even if we don’t do anything? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
Classify the following natural objects into renewable and non-renewable resources. Put a tick (✓) against those which are minerals and cross (✕) which are not minerals.
Bamboo, Coal, Sea water, Mud, Ants, Sand, Iron Ore, Diamond, Trees, Petroleum, Grass, Air, Marble rock, Fishes, Well water, Sunshine.

Renewable resource	Non-renewable resource	Minerals
Bamboo		✕
	Coal	✓

Answer:

Renewable resource	Non-renewable resource	Minerals
Bamboo		✕
	Coal	✓
Sea water		✕
	Mud	✕
Ants		✕
	Sand	✕
	Iron ore	✓
	Diamond	✓
Trees		✕
	Petroleum	✓
Grass		✕
Air		✕
	Marble rock	✕
Fishes		✕
	Well water	✕
Sunshine		✓

Question 4.
Can you classify the following minerals into metallic, non-metallic and energy source? (Textbook Page No. 64)

Metallic	Non- metallic	Energy Source
Iron ore

Answer:
Iron ore, bauxite (aluminum ore), coal, copper ore, limestone, gypsum, mica, groundwater petroleum, rock salt, sand, gem stones.

Metallic	Non- metallic	Energy Source
Iron ore	Coal	Coal
Bauxite	Limestone	Petroleum
Copper	Ground water
	Petroleum
	Rock Salt
	Sand
	Gem stones
	Gypsum
	Mica

Question 5.
How does the government use the minerals?
Answer:

1. In 1970s the government took over all the mines.
2. Then it owned and operated most of the mines and sold the minerals to various factories or traders or exported them.
3. The income thus received by the government is being spent on developmental activities of the people.

Question 6.
a) Discuss the pros and cons of allowing private companies to mine our minerals.
b) How do you think they can be regulated?
c) How do you think can the environmental concerns can be taken care of? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
a) Pros: A New National Mineral Policy was announced in 1993, and the government allowed private companies to lease mines and operate them. The companies were to pay a royalty to the government for the minerals they extracted and sold. In this way the govern¬ment could retain regulatory control over the mining, get income from them and at the same time encourage private companies to invest money and bring in new technologies.
Cons: On the other hand, there has also been uncontrolled mining by the private companies far in excess of the permits given to them and disregard for environmental and safety measures. Excess mining means that more quantity is mined than is sustainable on a long term. It also means that the minerals are taken away by companies without paying royalty to the government – thus the people to whom the minerals really belong to do not get anything. It can also be environmentally very harmful.

b) Mines should be under the control of the government. If they are given to others, there should be the supervision of higher officials and local people.

c) Preference should be given to the mining people, who are interested in underground mining. The pit and the mound of rubble which is created should be properly disposed of.
Necessary steps should be taken to control the sand pits.

Question 7.
If all people of the country are the real owners of the mineral resources, how can we ensure that they are used for the benefit of all? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
The income received through this should be spent on developmental activities of transport facilities, health facilities, and other subsidies to the people.

Question 8.
Do you think the generations to come, that is our children and our grand children too should be able to use these resources? How can we ensure that they are available to them too and not exhausted? (Textbook Page No. 68)
Answer:
I think so. Our future generations too should be able to use these resources.
We should invent and use substitutes. The usage of minerals should be minimised.
Then we can ensure the future generations.

Question 9.
Can you imagine a world in which we cannot run motors or trains? (Textbook Page No. 63)
Answer:
If the trains and cars are not invented, that would be different. But when we cannot run motors or trains, it seems critical. The distance on the globe would increase.

Question 10.
Look at the following pictures and guess which of them is open cast mine, underground mine and drill mining for oil. (Textbook Page No. 66)

Answer:
(i) Drill mining for oil
(ii) Open cast mine
(iii) Underground mining

Question 11.
a) Can you name these instruments? (Textbook Page No. 69)

Answer:
Yes. Helmet, Lanthern, Safety belts etc. are the instruments in safety kit used in coal mines.

b) What is the use of the stick?
Answer:
The stick is used to check the blasted place in the mine by tapping.

c) Why is there a light on the helmet?
Answer:
It is too dark in the mine. To see the forth covering area there is a light on the helmet,

d) Did you identify the lamp in the picture? What purpose does it serve?
Answer:
Yes. Its a Lantern. T1 lantern is used in mines. Lantern gives indications of dangers like leakage of poisonous gases etc.

Question 12.
Find out about the uses of Barytes from the box given in page 64. Why do you think demand for Barytes is increasing? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
Barium obtained from Barytes is used for industrial and medical purposes. Barytes is used in drilling deep holes for petroleum and natural gas.
Nowadays, extracting these petroleum and natural gas is increased. The industrial sector is also developed. So the use of Barytes is also increased.

Question 13.
a) Describe what is happening in the following figure.

b) How many people do you think would be employed for this operation?
c) Can you see the collection of underground water in the top left corner of the picture? What will happen to this water?
Answer:
a) The truck is being loaded with Barytes by using crane.
b) 10 to 15 people may be needed for this.
c) This may be absorbed in the ground or may be pumped to another place.

Question 14.
If there is mining activity in your area, find out about the people who work and live there and also about how it affects the environment around it. Also find out how many people benefit from it. (Textbook Page No. 66)
Answer:
My father, Sri M. Rama Chandra Rao, is working in G.M’s office SCCL in Bhupalpalli, Bhupalpaili mandal near Parakal, Warangal district. Here are 6 underground mines and one open cast. The population of Bhupalpalli is 70,000 to 80,000. Out of these 60% to 70% belong to the families of SCCL. Here the mines were inaugurated by our ex -Chief Minister, late Sri N. T. Rama Rao in 1989. The names of these mines are like ‘Kakatiya Incline I, II, III, V, VI, VII etc. SCCL has a sentiment regarding number IV. So they never use ‘4’. The number of trees is very less here. Summers are too hot. No crops are found while we travel from Parakala to Bhupalpalli. If we take Kakatiya Incline -1 as our example, there are 2000 workers and official staff in this. SCCL takes necessary steps like plantation etc., to protect environment. In this district mines are only in Bhupalpalli.

Question 15.
a) How do you think this dilemma can be resolved?
b) Is it fair to produce coal at a low price when it causes the loss of livelihood, lands and damages the environment? (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
a) We should invent and use the substitutes for the production of electricity, e.g.: Sea water, sunlight etc.
b) This is not fair. Due to this we feel no difference between the public sector and private sector.

Question 16.
Compare the mining in the coal belt with the mining in Mangampeta. What are the similarities and what are the differences? (Textbook Page No. 75)
Answer:
Similarities:

1. Both are minerals.
2. Both are under government supervision.
3. Detonators are used for blasting purpose in both the places.
4. For quality, the minerals are collected from deep layers.
5. Necessary steps are taken for the safety of the workers.

Differences:

Mining in coal belt	Mining in Mangampeta
1) These are extended in a large area – 4 districts.	1) These are at only one place – Mangampeta.
2) These are of 2 types – underground mines and open cast.	2) These are open cast.
3) The employees are in thousands.	3) The employees are in hundreds.
4) Men only work in these mines.	4) Both men and women work in these mines.
5) These were working prior to independence.	5) These were started in 1967.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 15 National Liberation Movements in the Colonies.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by “Pan Africanism”?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 2.
Write down the ill effects of reckless oil extraction in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Environment got polluted.
2. The Mangrove forests have been destroyed.
3. Crops have been destroyed through contamination of ground water and soils.
4. Local fish production was declined.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for not establishing sustainable Democracy in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Civil War
2. Military Rule
3. Support of Multi-National Oil Corporations

Question 4.
Why was the Civil war started in Nigeria?
Answer:
The Civil war was started in Nigeria because a just and democratic balance could not happen. Soon Civil war started in Nigeria. The corruption of rulers and Multi-National Oil Corporations suppressed human rights in Nigeria.

Question 5.
Why did America interfere into the Vietnam war?
Answer:
America interfered into Vietnam war because it was worried that communists would become powerful in Vietnam.

Question 6.
What were the twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists?
Answer:
The twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists were:

1. Fighting the British
2. Unifying the diverse and conflicting ethnic group of Nigeria.

Question 7.
Why did US intervene in the Vietnam War?
Answer:
With the help of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF fought for the unification
of the country. The US watched this alliance with fear. Worried about communists gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively, sending in troops and arms.
(OR)
To arrest the spread of Communism from Vietnam, US intervene in the Vietnam war.

Question 8.
How did the oil extraction affect agriculture in Nigeria?
Answer:
Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the ground water and soils.

Question 9.
Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.
Answer:

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. (any two)

Question 10.
Who was Ken Saro Wiwa?
Answer:
Ken Saro Wiwa was an eminent human rights activist and environmentalist and was executed by the military government despite international protests.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern China?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 12.
When was a republic established in China?
Answer:
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic was established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen who is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 13.
Who ruled China at the turn of the 20th century?
Answer:
The emperors of the Manchu dynasty ruled China at the turn of the 20th century.

Question 14.
What was the programme of Sun-Yat-sen?
Answer:
The programme of Sun Yat-sen was called the three principles – (San min chui)
San means – nationalism
Min means – democracy
Chui means – socialism

Question 15.
Who were called warlords?
Answer:
Regional military powers of China were called warlords. China came to be controlled by them.

Question 16.
What happened on 4th May 1919 in China?
Answer:
On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.

Question 17.
What was called the May Fourth Movement?
Answer:
Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan. The pro-test became a movement, called the “May- Fourth Movement”.

Question 18.
What emerged as major forces striving to unite China and bring stability?
Answer:
The Guomindang and the Chinese Commu¬nist Party emerged as major forces striving to unite the country and bring stability.

Question 19.
Where was the social base of Guomindang?
Answer:
The Guomindang’s social base was in urban areas.

Question 20.
When was Peking University established?
Answer:
Peking University was established in 1902.

Question 21.
What were the four virtues that the women had to cultivate?
Answer:
Chastity, appearance, speech, and work.

Question 22.
What was the practice of foot-binding?
Answer:
Foot-binding was a cruel practice of not allowing women to have fully grown feet.

Question 23.
Who invaded China in 1937?
Answer:
Japan invaded China in 1937.

Question 24.
When had the CCP (Chinese Communist Party) been founded?
Answer:
The CCP had been founded in 1921, soon after the Russian Revolution.

Question 25.
Why did Lenin go on to establish the Comintern?
Answer:
Lenin went on to establish the Comintern in March 1918 to help bring about a world government that would end exploitation.

Question 26.
Who emerged as a major CCP leader?
Answer:
Mao Zedong.

Question 27.
Where can Mao Zedong’s radical approach be seen?
Answer:
Mao Zedong’s radical approach can be seen in Jiangxi, in the mountains, where they camped from 1928 to 1934, secure from Guomindang attacks.

Question 28.
What was the three-fold strategy of the French?
Answer:

1. Improving irrigation network.
2. Encouraging landlords and
3. Facilitating the marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 29.
Who was called ‘colons’?
Answer:
The French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 30.
Who established Vietnam Cong San Dang (the Vietnamese Communist Party)?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh established Vietnam Cong San Dang.

Question 31.
Who took power in North and South Vietnam?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in the north.
An old emperor took power in the south who was soon ousted by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 32.
How was the new era of land reforms after 1954 in North Vietnam?
Answer:

1. After 1954 a new era of land reforms was started in North Vietnam.
2. The land of the landlords was confiscated and distributed among the land-hungry landless peasants and poor peasants.

Question 33.
What is Agent Orange and why is it so-called?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant plant killer, so-called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band.

Question 34.
Name some chemical weapons used by the US.
Answer:

1. Napalm
2. Agent Orange and
3. Phosphorous Bombs

Question 35.
Explain the formation of Nigeria.
Answer:
The country we know as Nigeria today was actually created by the British by bringing together distinct regions inhabited by different tribal groups around the Niger river system.

Question 36.
How is the region of river Niger?
Answer:
The region of river Niger is one of the most populous countries of Africa, which has been suffering from different kinds of colonial rule.

Question 37.
Expand NNDP.
Answer:
The Nigerian National Democratic Party.

Question 38.
Expand A.G.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 39.
When did Nigeria become independent?
Answer:
Nigeria became independent on 1st October, 1963.

Question 40.
When did Nigerians elect a democratic government?
Answer:
Nigerians elected a democratic government in 1999.

Question 41.
When was oil discovered in the Niger Delta?
Answer:
Oil was discovered in 1950s in the Niger Delta.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the May Fourth movement in China.
Answer:

1. On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.
2. Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan.
3. The protest became a movement, called the “May Fourth Movement”.
4. The revolutionaries called for driving out of foreigners, who were controlling the country’s resources, to remove inequalities and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Study the map given below and answer the question that follows.
How were the British able to implement their ‘divide and rule’ policy in Nigeria?
Answer:

1. There are three major tribal groups in Nigeria.
   1. Hausa-Fulani,
   2. Yoruba,
   3. Igbo.
2. The British were able to implement the divide and rule policy in Nigeria by encouraging competition and conflict among these three groups.

Question 3.
How did the education system in Vietnam contribute to the emergence of nationalist ideas?
Answer:

1. In Vietnam, teachers and students did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.
3. The students were inspired by patriotic feelings.
4. The primary objective of the students who went to Japan for modern education was to drive out the French from Vietnam.

Question 4.
Why does the oil spillage from oil wells have a major impact on the ecosystem?
(OR)
What are the environmental problems faced by independent Nigeria?
Answer:

1. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
2. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
3. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
4. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water.
5. Offshore spills, which are usually much greater in scale, contaminate coastal environments and cause a decline in local fish production.

Question 5.
What is the impact of over-extraction of oil in Nigeria?
Answer:
Destruction of mangrove forests destroyal of :

1. Ecosystem
2. Crops
3. Agriculture
4. Soil
5. Water contamination
6. The decline in fish production
7. Cause for cancer

Question 6.
Explain the ‘Pan Africanism’.
(OR)
What do you know about Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 7.
Observe the below map and answer the following questions.

1. Which country colonized Nigeria?
Answer:
The country of Nigeria was colonized by the British.

2. South-eastern Nigeria was dominated by which tribe?
Answer:
The South-Eastern part of Nigeria is dominated by Igbo tribes.

Question 8.
How can you appreciate the role of teachers in the Emergence of Vietnamese Nationalism?
Answer:
I appreciate the teachers by the following reasons.

1. Blindly they did not follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. Teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.

Question 9.
Based on the chart given below answer the question.
Which aspect of the Communist approach do you think led to Mao’s victory? Explain.
Answer:
Strong due to promised land reform for peasants.
The above aspect introduces equality among all and distributes the lands to landless poor confiscated from rich landlords.
With this programme majority of people enjoy their own lands and lived happily without pressure.

Question 10.
What do you know about Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:
After the death of Sun, Chiang Kai-shek emerged as the leader of the Guomindang as he launched a military campaign to control the ‘warlords’, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. He sought to militarise the nation. The people, he said, must develop a ‘habit and instinct for unified behavior’.

Question 11.
What were the evil practices against women in China?
Answer:

1. Practice of foot-binding.
2. The subordination of women and
3. Equality in marriage
4. Four virtues:
   1. Chastity,
   2. Appearance,
   3. Speech and
   4. Work and
   5. Length of hemlines were also prescribed

Question 12.
What were the two crises faced by rural China?
Answer:
Rural China faced two crises:

1. Ecological, with soil exhaustion deforestation and floods and
2. A socio-economic one caused by exploitative land-tenure systems, indebtedness, primitive technology and poor communications.

Question 13.
What was the massive effort to spread literacy?
Answer:
A massive effort for setting up adult peasant schools to spread literacy and political education was undertaken along with the land reforms. This was also accompanied by the setting up of primary schools for both young children and adults in all the villages.

Question 14.
Why did the standard of living for the peasant’s decline in Vietnam?
Answer:
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and few Vietnamese elites. Bonded labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. The French did little to industrialize the economy. In the rural areas landlordism, spread and large landlords took over the lands of small peasants and made them work as tenant farmers. As a result, the standard of living for the peasants declined.

Question 15.
What were the conditions of the peasants in Vietnam who rented the land of landlords?
Answer:
The peasants who rented the land of landlords had to pay rent in both share of produce and also by working on the fields and homes of the landlords and also pay different kinds of taxes imposed at will by the landlords. This forced them to borrow rice and money from the landlords and push them further into debt bondage.

Question 16.
Why did the Vietnamese students go to Japan in early 20th century?
Answer:
In early 20th century, Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modern education. For many of them, the primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.

Question 17.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s?
Answer:
The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment, and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Question 18.
What were the challenges faced by the New Republic of Vietnam?
Answer:
The new republic faced a number of challenges. The French tried to regain control by using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. Faced with the French offensive, the Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu and over 16000 French soldiers and officers were taken, prisoners.

Question 19.
Write about China at the turn of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the turn of the 20th century, China was ruled by emperors of the Manchu dynasty, which had become powerless to defend the interests of China vis a vis the western colonial powers. These powers had carved out their ‘spheres of influence’ in different parts of China and had forced the emperors to give them economic and political concessions like low import taxes, immunity from Chinese laws, maintaining armed forces, etc. Both the common people and administrators of the empire were unhappy with this state of affairs. There were several revolts by the people and attempts at reform by the administrators.

Question 20.
Why did the Guomindang fail?
Answer:

1. The Guomindang, despite its attempts to unite the country, failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
2. A major plank in Sun Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalizing land was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
3. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 21.
‘Mao was unlike other leaders’ – Why?
Answer:

1. Mao stressed the need for an independent government and army.
2. He had become aware of women’s problems and supported the emergence of rural women’s associations.
3. He promulgated a new marriage law that forbade arranged marriages, stopped purchase or sale of marriage contracts and simplified divorce. So Mao was unlike other leaders.

Question 22.
Write about the Peoples Republic of China government.
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China government was established in 1949.
2. It was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
3. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
4. Once in power the CCP carried out large-scale land reform measures which meant taking away the land of landlords and distributing them among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and the abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various
   fields.

Question 23.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Why did the fall in price of rice lead to the rise of rural indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Two-thirds of the rice production in Vietnam is exported.
2. By that time it was the third-largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Great depression of 1929-30 has a great negative impact on Vietnam.
4. The prices of Rice and Rubber has fallen drastically and there is rise in rural indebtedness.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the reforms implemented after the formation of democracy in China?
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
2. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
3. They carried out large scale and reform measures.
4. They took away the land of landlords and distributed among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various fields.

Question 2.
Explain the role of schooling played in Vietnam national movements.
(OR)
Explain the role of education in the national movement by taking Vietnam as an example.
Answer:

1. The teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticised what was stated.
3. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs.
4. They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.

Question 3.
Explain the policies followed by the French in Vietnam.
Answer:

1. French colonial rule influenced all aspects of Vietnamese life.
2. The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice.
3. They improved irrigation net work by building canals.
4. They encouraged landlords and facilitated marketing of agricultural produce.
5. The French did little to industrialise the economy.
6. Vietnamese peasants became entrenched in a cycle of debt.
7. There was no access for all to get good education.
8. All the higher education was in French only.

Question 4.
How were the Land reforms implemented in China?
Answer:
Land reforms of China.

1. Land reforms were launched in 1950-51.
2. The major steps involved were,
   1. Identification of all village inhabitants.
   2. Confiscation of all village lands and redistribution of land lord’s land and other productive property.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

Racism became common in the British colonial empire in late 19th and early 20th centuries. Educated Africans were excluded from the civil service, and there was discrimination against African entrepreneurs. At the same time, the authorities from ruling country gave control to the tribal chiefs and elite and promoted them.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about Racial Discrimination between the Black and the White people. It is related to Africa. One more point is that tribal chiefs were given control and the government promoted them.

Nigeria is an African country. It was a colony of the British. The British created Nigeria by bringing together different regions around the Niger river system where people of different tribes lived.

Before bringing all together, they faced many problems. Hausa-Fulani, Igbo and Yoruba tribes were there. Due to long years of missionary activity, many people still practice tribal religious beliefs.

The British implemented their divide and rule policy. A section of the people were educated and developed. If all the people were united in Nigeria, then the British would face the problem. The British always wanted to divide the Vietnamese based on colour or religious practices. That Was what the Britishers followed in India to divide Indians. All the Indians came together and fought against the British. Then the Britishers encouraged the Muslims to form a separate party for Muslims. They emphasised that Indian National Congress was the party of Brahmins and of upper caste. Gradually Hindus and Muslims were separated and so the national movement was weakened.

Now all the Independent countries should give equal opportunities to all and equality is to be maintained. There will be no racial discrimination at any level.

Question 6.
“America was very cruel in the Vietnam war” – Comment.
Answer:

1. America behaves very wild manner on Vietnam.
2. America with the fear of Communism to stop the spread of Communism in Vietnam, it declared war on Vietnam.
3. It uses chemical bombs and weapons like Agent Orange – B 52s. and Napalm.
4. Agent Orange destroyed plants & trees and made the land barren for a long time.
5. Phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles.
6. Civilians died in large numbers.
7. Thousands of troops were used by America.
8. Due to cruelty of America, America got agitation from world wide and from their mother land also.
9. Finally, America made a peace settlement and withdrawn from the war.

Question 7.
Answer the questions with the help of the given information.
a) Which nation was ruled by the Manchu Dynasty?
Answer:
China was ruled by the Manchu dynasty.

b) Who is considered as the ‘founder of modern China’?
Answer:
Sun-Yat-Sen was regarded as the founder of modern China.

c) Who was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria?
Answer:
Ken – Saro- Wiwa was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria.

d) What is meant by the Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 8.
Read the given paragraph and write your Opinion.

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.

Answer:
The given paragraph emphasises that the coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because the oil companies extracted more than their share. It is talking about the consequences of over spillage of oil.

Over spillage of oil has various negative consequences:
Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem. Large areas of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil, have been destroyed. This is mainly because oil is stored in the soil and re-released annually. Around 5-10% of Nigerian mangrove ecosystems have been destroyed either by clearing or oil. Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the groundwater and soil. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. Even if there is no immediate health effect of this water contamination, it can cause cancer in the long term. Offshore spills, which are usually much bigger in scale, contaminate the coastal environments and cause a decline in the local fish production.

If the same is continued the whole world be affected. Oil is a natural resource. So natural resources are to be saved.

Question 9.
“The United States approach in Vietnamese’s struggle was brutal.” Do you agree with this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:
“Yes, I agree with this statement. Because:

1. Until 1950’s Vietnamese were under the control of French.
2. And in some years it was under control of Japan.
3. People were suffered with high rents and taxes.
4. They did not get proper food also.
5. Ho-Chi-Minh’s idea land distribution in North Vietnam provide something to them and they lived happily.
6. So the North Vietnam peasants fulfilled their long cherished dream.
7. At the same manner South Vietnam people also wished that reforms introduced in that area and established Communism and get happy life.

Conclusion: But America brutally declare war on them to fulfill its desire.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph given below and answer the questions.

Agent Orange: The Deadly Poison

Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer, so called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band. Between 1961 and 1971, some 11 million gallons of this chemical was sprayed from cargo planes by US forces. Their plan was to destroy forests and fields, so that it would be easier to kill if there was no jungle cover for people to hide in. Over 14 percent of the country’s farmland was affected by this poison. Its effect has been staggering, continuing to affect people till today. Dioxin, an element of Agent Orange, is known to cause cancer and brain damage in children and according to a study, is also the cause of the high incidence of deformities found in the sprayed areas.
The tonnage of bombs, including chemical arms, used during US intervention (mostly against civilian targets) in Vietnam exceeds that used throughout the Second World War.

a) What is Agent Orange ?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer.

b) How does Agent Orange affect the children?
Answer:
Agent Orange causes cancer, brain damage and deformities in children.

c) Why did they destroy forests and fields?
Answer:
That it would be easier to kill if there were no forests and fields cover for people to hide in.

d) Do you think America was justified in using chemical weapons and civilian population and forests?
Answer:
No, it was not justified.

Question 11.
What do you know about the administration of Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:

1. Chiang was a conservative and he encouraged women to cultivate the four virtues of ‘chastity,
   appearance, speech and work’ and recognize their role as confined to the household.
2. He also tried to suppress the trade union movement to encourage factory owners.
3. The Guomindang was failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
4. A major plank in Sun-Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalising land – was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
5. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 12.
How was the French education system in Vietnam?
Answer:

1. The French colonisers like the British were convinced that the people of the colony were uncivilised and the objective of their rule was to bring the benefits of modern civilisation. Education was seen as one way to civilize the ‘natives’.
2. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.
3. Once educated, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
4. Even though Vietnamese language was taught in the primary level, all higher education was in French.
5. Only the Vietnamese elite -comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school-leaving examination.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925) who is regarded as the founder of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. He studied the problems of China and worked out a programme of action. His programme was called the Three Principles (San min chui). These were: “nationalism”- this meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well as other foreign imperialists; “democracy” or establishing democratic government; and “socialism” regulating industries and land reforms to distribute land to the landless peasants. Even though the Manchu dynasty was overthrown and a republic was declared, the republican government led by Sun-Yat-sen could not consolidate itself. The country came to be controlled by regional military powers called “warlords”.

a) Why was Sun Yat-sen regarded as the founder of modern China?
Answer:
Because he established a republic in China by overthrowing the Manchu empire.

b) What were the Three Principles?
Answer:
San min chui (Nationalism, Democracy, Socialism)

c) What is meant by Nationalism here?
Answer:
Nationalism meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as foreign dynasty as well as other foreign imperialists.

d) What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Regulating industries and land reforms.

e) Who were war lords?
Answer:
The regional military powers were called warlords.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Japan attacked and occupied much of China between 1937 and 1945. They tried to impose a barbaric colonial militaristic rule over China which had a disastrous impact on the Chinese society and economy. Both Guomindang and CCP now tried to join forces to fight Japanese occupation. After the surrender of Japan to the US in August 1945, Guomindang and CCP engaged with each other in an all out warfare for control over China. Eventually CCP was successful in establishing its rule over mainland China while Guomindang was forced to set up its government on the island of Taiwan.

a) How was the Japanese rule over China?
Answer:
It was a barbaric colonial militaristic rule.

b) Name the two political parties.
Answer:
Guomingdang and CCP.

c) To whom did Japan surrender?
Answer:
Japan surrendered to the US.

d) Which party was successful?
Answer:
The CCP was successful.

e) Which party established rule in Taiwan?
Answer:
The Guomindang.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice and for this purpose they adopted a threefold strategy – improving irrigation network, encouraging landlords and facilitating marketing of agricultural produce like rice and rubber. The French began by building canals and draining lands fa the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world. This was followed by infrastructure projects (roads and railways) to help transport goods for trade, move military garrisons and control the entire region. Construction of a trans- Indo-China rail network that would link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China was begun.

a) Why were the French keen to develop Vietnam?
Answer:
Because it was an exporter of rice.

b) What was the other crop?
Answer:
Rubber plantations.

c) Which Delta was developed?
Answer:
The Mekong Delta was developed.

d) exported two-thirds of its rice production.
Answer:
Vietnam.

e) Who developed Vietnam?
Answer:
The French developed Vietnam.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

This phase of struggle with the US was brutal. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks and backed by the most powerful bombers of the time – B52s. The wide spread attacks and use of chemical weapons – Napalm (a deadly bomb which caused intense damage to humans), Agent Orange (which destroyed plants and trees and made the land barren for a long time), and phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

a) Which struggle was brutal?
Answer:
The struggle with the US was brutal.

b) What were B52s?
Answer:
B52s were powerful bombers.

c) What was “Napalm’?
Answer:
It was a chemical weapon.

d) Which was used on forest areas?
Answer:
Agent Orange was used on forest areas.

e) How were phosphorous bombs?
Answer:
They destroyed many villages and decimated jungles, civilians died in large numbers.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Nigerian nationalism had the twin task of fighting the British and also welding the. very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups. The national movement was stronger in the more developed south rather than in the north and this created a north-south divide. Even in the south, nationalism was plagued by ethnic conflict between the Yoruba and the Igbos. By the 1950s these three regions also had their own anti-colonial movements led by regional parties: the conservative Northern People’s Congress (NPC) in the north; the National Council for Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) in the east, and the Action Group (AG) in the west.

a) What were the two tasks?
Answer:

1. Fighting the British
2. Welding the very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups.

b) In which region was the national movement stronger?
Answer:
It was strong in south.

c) What were the two tribes?
Answer:
Yoruba and Igbos.

4) Expand NPC.
Answer:
Northern People’s Congress.

e) Expand AG.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 18.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
The effect of the war was felt within the US as well. Many were critical of the government for getting involved in a war that they saw as indefensible.
How do you appreciate the role of the people of the USA in ending the war?
Answer:

1. Vietnam was a small country.
2. The USA was very brutal in the war.
3. It used even chemical weapons.
4. The effects of the war was felt within the US as well.
5. When youth were drafted for the war, the anger spread.
6. People opposed the war.
7. They questioned the government’s policy.
8. Finally the people were instrumental in ending the war.
9. A peace settlement was signed in Paris in 1974.

Question 19.
Read the following text and interpret it.

Pan Africanism

Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe. This unity was to be used not only to fight colonialism and racial discrimination, but also to build unity among tribes and communities inhabiting the continent based on principles of equality, social justice and human dignity. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah, a freedom^ghter from Ghana.

Answer:

1. Africa was colonized by the European imperialistic powers and different tribes were residing in Africa.
2. The European powers plundered the resources of Africa both the mineral and agricultural resources.
3. Slave trade was also carried in this region.
4. Pan Africanism promoted the idea of the unity of all the Africans.
5. It helped them to fight against colonization and racial discrimination.
6. Pan Africanism has a higher sphere and it breaks the limits of nationalism.
7. It unites all the tribes living on the continent based on the principles of equality, social justice and human dignity.

Question 20.
Locate the following on the outline map of the world.

1. China
2. USA
3. Vietnam
4. France
5. Nigeria
6. Russia

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of world.
1) The third largest exporter of rice in the world.
Answer: Vietnam

2) These country people were called colons.
Answer: France

3) Manchu dynasty rule this country.
Answer: China

4) Yoruba people are belongs to this country.
Answer: Nigeria

5) America used agent orange on this country.
Answer: Vietnam

6) Washington

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Why were the first elections difficult to conduct ? List as many reasons as you can.
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to conduct the elections in a free and fair manner. Making arrangements for the first elections was a large and complex task. First, a house-to- house survey was carried out to register the eligible voters.

People who contested elections belonged to political parties or were Independents. Election Commission gave a symbol to each of these candidates. These symbols were painted on the ballot boxes in which the votes had to be cast. The voters had to put their ballot paper into the box of the candidate they wanted to vote for. Screens were set up so that the voting (ballot) was secret.

Over 2,24,000 polling booths were set up across the country. Over 25,00,000 steel ballot boxes were made. Nearly 62,00,00,000 ballot papers were printed. About 10 lakh officials supervised the polls. Nearly 17,500 candidates had contested the elections across the coun¬try. Finally, 489 people were elected to the first Lok Sabha. The elections were conducted in a fair, free, impartial and orderly manner, with very little violence.
So we can say that the first elections were a large and complex task.

Question 2.
Why do you think elections need to be free and fair?
Answer:
The winners in the elections are the writers of our future. So the elections should not be influenced by any issue. They should be free and fair.

Question 3.
For which of the following subjects can laws be made by the Members of Parliament, which by the state assembly, and which can be made by both: agriculture, railways, village hospitals, police, posts and telegraph, electricity, factories?
Answer:

1. Agriculture – State
2. Railways – Centre
3. Village hospitals – State
4. Police – State
5. Posts and telegraph – Centre
6. Electricity – State and Centre both
7. Factories – State and Centre both

Question 4.
Name the two houses of the Parliament. Draw a table to show the similarities/ differences between them on the following aspects: term, number of members, more or less powerful, election process, voting for the President.
Answer:
There are two houses in the Parliament – Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Similarities / Differences

Aspect	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1) Term	5 years	6 years
2) No. of members	545	250
3) More or less powerful	More powerful	Less powerful
4) Election process	Direct	Indirect
5) Voting for the President	All the elected members have the right	All the elected members have the right

Question 5.
In the 2009 Parliamentary Elections, no single party won a majority. How was the government formed? Discuss with the help of your teacher and write a paragraph.
Answer:
The ‘Like-minded Parties’ who won in the elections formed as a Front ‘UNITED PROGRESSIVE ALLIANCE’. This front formed the government. In this Front INC has a majority.

Question 6.
Who is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country?
Answer:
Parliament is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country.

Question 7.
There are some gaps in the information given in the Table below. Discuss with your teacher to find the missing information and fill in the blanks.

Position	Who elects	Length of term	Eligibility (min. age, residence, etc)
MLA		5 years
MP Lok Sabha			Minimum age: 25 years
MP Rajya Sabha
Chief Minister	Members of each state majority Party
Prime Minister			Must be an M.P.
President			Minimum age: 35 years

Answer:

Position	Who elects	Length of term	Eligibility (min. age, residence, etc)
MLA	Voters in state	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the state.
MP Lok Sabha	Voters in country	5 years	Minimum age: 25 years, must be a resident of the country.
MP Rajya Sabha	MPs, MLAs of all states	6 years	30 years; must be a resident of the nation
Chief Minister	Members of each state majority Party	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the state. Must be an M.L.A.
Prime Minister	Majority of the members in the Lok Sabha	5 years	25 years; must be a resident of the nation. Must be an M.P.
President	MLAs, MPs of both the houses (Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha)	5 years	Minimum age: 35 years, Must be a resident of the nation.

Question 8.
Do you think the parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections? Why?
Answer:
Nowadays women are participated in all activities along with the men equally. They also thinking globally.
Parties should be made to put up more women candidates for elections in order to promote women’s participation in the electoral process. Women, too can express their problems and get them discussed.
A number of countries are exploring measures that may increase women’s participation in government at all levels, from the local to the national.

Question 9.
Following is a study of women’s representation in Parliament houses including that of India and other nations:
Based on the above information write an essay analysing the following aspects:
i) Is there an adequate representation of women in our legislative houses?
ii) How is the idea of representation important to the idea of democracy?
iii) What solution can be achieved for the above? How will you address this issue if you are member of the Parliament? How do you think have certain countries achieved better representation of women in Parliament?
Answer:
i) No.
ii) ‘Democracy’ means people’s government. So the idea of representation is important.
‘People’s means ‘all the nation’, but not only one.
iii) Encouraging women in politics is the only solution for this.
If I were the parliamentarian I support reservations for women in the houses of law and solve this problem. I think certain countries have achieved better representation of women in Parliament in this way.

Project

When the Parliament is in session, listen to the news on the radio or television or look in the newspapers and make a list of the events that take place. Write a page on any issue discussed in the Parliament, or draw a picture of the scene in Parliament when it is being discussed.
Answer:
The issue is belongs to separation of Telangana state. Separate Telangana state bill was introduced in the Loksabha. There was a long discussions and debates conducted in the Loksabha.

On the basis of petitions of Telangana people the government was decided to separate the Telangana people from A.P State. But in the Parliament majority of members were not accepted. During this time the members of the house joined together and conducted voting among them. And this was introduced in the Rajyasabha also and conducted voting in that house and was the final decision taken about the separate Telangana state.

8th Class Social Studies 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you think are the advantages of having a Parliamentary form of government in which the government members are answerable to the Parliament? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It is faster and easier to pass legislation.
2. Power is more divided.
3. Easy to remove the executive.
4. It feels more responsibility.

Question 2.
Should the Parliament only make laws and not control the government in its functioning? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
There should be government control on laws made by government. Otherwise the implementation of it will be questionable. So the condition is framed.

Question 3.
Can you identify the basic difference between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha? (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
The basic difference is –
The election for the Lower House or Lok Sabha is direct election.
The election for the Upper House or Rajya Sabha is indirect election.

Question 4.
Discuss the meaning of the following with your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. Candidate
2. Constituency
3. Ballot
4. EVM
5. Election campaign
6. Election Commission
7. Voters’ List
8. Procedure of voting
9. Free and fair elections

Answer:

1. Candidate: The person who contests in the election.
2. Constituency: States and Union territories are divided into constituencies.
3. Ballot: The paper which is used in election for voting. It contains the symbols of the contestants.
4. EVM: Electronic Voting Machine.
5. Election campaign: The constants request the voters to vote for them. This procedure is called election campaign.
6. Election Commission: It is an independent institution which conducts free and fair elections.
7. Voters’ list: A list with the names of voters.
8. Procedure of voting: The voters give their votes secretly.
9. Free and fair elections: The elections in which the voters give their vote without any influence or pressure.

Question 5.
Discuss with your teachers and parents to learn about how elections are conducted today. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
At present the elections are conducted peacefully and in a democratic way.
Elections:

Nowadays, the elections are conducted in a procedure as mentioned above.

Question 6.
Write down some differences between the first elections and elections held today – ballot box and sheets, age of voting.
Answer:

Subjects	First Elections	Present Elections
1) Ballot Box	used sealed iron boxes.	using electronic voting machines.
2) Ballot papers	used printed ballot papers.	votes are printed and recorded in EVMs.
3) Age of voting	21 years	18 years.

Question 7.
Recall the laws about which we studied last year. Find out the new laws that are being discussed in state legislative houses and Parliament during their last meeting. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:

1. Establishment of women courts,
2. If any minor, aged 16 years, is accused in sexual harassment cases, he should be trailed by the criminal court instead of Juvenile courts.

These two bills, are discussed by the Parliament during the last meeting.

Question 8.
Correct the false statements: (Textbook Page No. 166)

1. The President and the Vice-President are both elected by the same set of people.
2. Every voter in India elects the President.
3. All the MLAs of the Vidhan Sabha of Andhra Pradesh participate in the election of the President.
4. All the MLAs of all the Vidhan Sabhas and Delhi and Pondicherry and all the MPs of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha elect the President.

Answer:

1. The MLAs of all the states and the members of both houses of the Parliament elect the President. Both the houses of the Parliament elect the Vice-President.
2. Every voter, who participated in election, elects the President indirectly.
3. Correct statement.
4. The MLAs of all Assemblies and the elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha elect the President.

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct about formation of government? (Textbook Page No. 170)
A) Party or coalition that has support of the President forms the government.
B) Party/Coalition with most number of seats forms the government.
C) Party or coalition with more than half the seats forms the government.
D) Election Commission selects the party that will form the government.
E) The person who has won with the largest number of votes in the Lok Sabha election will be the Prime Minister.
Answer:
‘B’ is correct.

Question 10.
Azhar feels that it is better to give more powers to Rajya Sabha because they are mostly wiser people belonging to different political parties.
Mumtazfeels Rajya Sabha should not be given any more powers because they are not directly elected by people. What do you think about their feelings ? (Textbook Page No. 164)
Answer:
I support both the arguments. The thoughts of wiser people are always to be supported. So they should be given more powers. Likewise it is true that they are not elected by the people directly. So we should elect the wise people directly in election.

Question 11.
Can you think why the following illustration has Parliament on one side and people on the other ?
Answer:
The population of the country and the number of members of Parliament are in proportionate. If there is no support of the people, the parliament would be weakened. So it is shown like that.

Question 12.
How many Lok Sabha elections have been held? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
16 Lok Sabha elections have been held.

Question 13.
A survey showed that among the uneducated and poor, the percentage of people who voted in 1996 was 61 %. However, it was only 53% among graduates. What could be the reasons for this difference? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
The winners in the elections are doing no favour to the people. They are interested in improving their financial balances, assets and developing their personal relations. This may be the feeling of the graduates.

Question 14.
Find out about some important policies and laws made by the Parliament. Make a presentation about it in the class. (Textbook Page No. 161)
Answer:
The important laws made by the Parliament:
1) The Dowry Prohibition Act -1961
2) The Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act – 2002.

Procedure relating to any ordinary bill in the Union Parliament
↓
First reading/introduction stage
↓
Second reading/Discussion stage
↓
Third readingA/oting stage
↓
Bill in the other house
↓
In case deadlock between the two houses – A joint-session of both houses
↓
President approval
↓
Act

Question 15.
Find out if there are other kinds of government where the government is not answerable to the Parliament or legislature. (Textbook Page No. 162)
Answer:
Monarchial and dictatorial form of governments are not responsible to the Parliament or legislature.

Question 16.
See the map and tables given in Text book P.No. 163 and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 164)

1. What is the number of Lok Sabha Constituencies in your state and two neighbouring states?
2. Which states have more than 30 Lok Sabha Constituencies?
3. Why do so many states have such large number of Constituencies?
4. Why are some Constituencies small in area while others are very big?
5. Are the Constituencies reserved for the SCs and STs evenly spread all over the entire country or are there more in some areas?

Answer:

1. In our state Andhra Pradesh: 25
   Telangana: 17
   Tamilnadu: 39
2. Bihar, Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
3. The population is high in many states. So the Constituencies are also high.
4. Some Constituencies are large and some are small in accordance with the population and extent they have.
5. Schedule castes are spread all over the country equally.
   Schedule tribes are there more in some areas.

Question 17.
Who is the Lok Sabha member from your area? Name a few other MPs from your state or neighbouring states. Find out which political parties they belong to. (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
The Lok Sabha member from our area: Kesineni Srinivas (Nani) – TDP.
Names of a few other M.P.s from our state :

1. Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju – TDP
2. Maganti Venkateswara Rao (Babu) – TDP
3. Nirmala Sitharaman – BJP
4. Y. Avinash Reddy – YSRCP

Question 18.
Find out the symbols used by different political parties
Answer:

1. Congress Party – ‘Hastam’
2. BJP – Lotus
3. BSP – Elephant
4. Communists – Hammer, Sickle/Kanki, Sickle
5. TRS – Car
6. T.D.P. – Cycle

Question 19.
Collect the photos of the current ones of the following and paste in the given boxes. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:

Question 20.
Who is the current Prime Minister? Can you name a few earlier Prime Ministers?
Answer:
Our present Prime Minister is Hon’ble Dr. Narendra Modi. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Some of our earlier Prime ministers :

1. Dr. Manmohan Singh
2. Sri Atal Bihari Vajpai
3. Sri Rajiv Gandhi
4. Smt. Indira Gandhi
5. Sri Lai Bahadur Sastry
6. Sri Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 21.
Find out if there are any ministers from your state in the current Central government. (Textbook Page No. 170)
Answer:
Sri P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju – Minister of Civil Aviation.

Question 22.
Identify few important ministries and government.
Answer:

Important ministries	Their incharges
1) Defence	Rajnath Singh
2) Agriculture	Narendra Singh Tomar
3) Finance	Nirmala Sitharaman
4) External affairs	Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
5) Home affairs	Amit Shah
6) Communication and Information Technology	Ravi Sankar Prasad
7) Railways	Piyush Goyal
8) Prime Minister	Narendra Modi
9) Women and Child Development	Smriti Zubin Irani

Question 23.
If you had been living at that time, which side would you have agreed with? Would you have considered it a good idea for India to try to have universal adult franchise and conduct elections? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 165)
Answer:
If I had been living at that time, I would have agreed with the optimists. There may be some obstacles to any positive work. We should not deviate from it. So I would have considered it a good idea for India.

Question 24.
Why were the first elections a large and complex task”? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
Refer answer (1) In Improve your learning.

Question 25.
Why should the voting be secret? (Textbook Page No. 166)
Answer:
To maintain the self-confidence in the voters, the voting should be secret.

Question 26.
Why do you think it is important to look at the percentage of people who cast their votes? What does it tell us? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
It shows the confidence of people in elections and also the pattern of voting. So it is important.

Question 27.
Why do you think many eligible voters vote? Discuss the possible reasons. (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Many of the voters are less interested or uninterested in the election procedure. They feel that whoever may be the winners, the living conditions of the voters remain the same. So many eligible voters did not vote.

Question 28.
What were the opinions expressed by different people at the time of the first elections? (Textbook Page No. 167)
Answer:
Some people said, “The elections are ‘a leap in the dark’, not suitable for a country like India. India is a caste-based society in which many people do not accept the idea that everyone is equal. So it won’t be possible to have a democratic election.”

There were other people who were very hopeful. They said, “Indians have participated in the National Movement to gain freedom from the British. They want to elect a government of their own choice. They want the government to work towards creating a society where every¬one is treated equally. They also want the government to improve the living conditions of the people. Thus everyone should have an equal opportunity to elect a government of their choice.” To such people, the elections were ‘an act of faith’.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Rampur: A Village Economy.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

Question 2.
Why were usually men paid more wages than women for the same work?
Answer:

1. Because ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Women are paid less wages because of gender bias.

Question 3.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

1. In Rampur no land is left idle.
2. The non-agricultural sector also developed.
3. Due to the development of the transport sector, other sectors of the economy also developed.

Question 4.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 5.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Dairy farming
3. Brick making
4. Carpentry
5. Basket making
6. Poultry
7. Shopkeeping
8. Fishing, etc.

Question 6.
Who are called as labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force, (or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 7.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

1. Large farmers
2. Moneylenders
3. The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

Question 8.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:
Without agriculture – there is no future.
No farmer-No food.

Question 9.
Which is the main production activity in villages across India?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 10.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 11.
Who owns the majority of land in Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper-caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 12.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 13.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 14.
What is the main aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 15.
What is a marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a farmer produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called a marketable surplus.

Question 16.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 17.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 18.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

Question 19.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint in raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 20.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs. 60/- per day.

Question 21.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 22.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Another part may be utilized for lending to small farmers who require a loan.

Question 23.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:
a) Electricity helped farmers in running tubewells in the fields.
b) It is also used for carrying out various small scale business in the village.

Question 24.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:

1. Canals
2. Tubewells
3. Tanks and
4. Rains.

Question 25.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are called ‘fixed’ capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 26.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money form part of working capital. The capital which is used for production is known as working capital.

Question 27.
Classify the capital investment on various items in production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

1. Physical or fixed capital
2. Working capital

Question 28.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

1. land 2
2. labour
3. capital and
4. organisation.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

1. Some more days of work.
2. Still better wages.
3. Better education to their children in the local govt, schools.
4. No social discrimination.
5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

Question 2.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. 87% of the farmers are small farmers are holding only 48% of the cultivated land.
2. 13% are the medium and large farmers.
3. There is unequal land distribution in India.

Question 3.
Convert the information given below into a pie-chart (rough diagram). Write your observation.

Type of farmers	Percentage of cultivated area
Small farmers	48%
Medium and large farmers	52%

Answer:
Cultivated Area

Observation: While a major part of the land (52%) is under control of medium and large farmers, minor part of land (48%) is under the control of small farmers.

Question 4.
Write a letter to the Tahasildar (MRO), explaining the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Kalyandurg,
Date : xx xx xxxx.

To,
The Tahsildar,
Mandal Revenue office,
Anantapur

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine – request for write off old loans.

Respected Sir,

I am from Kalyandurg I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less in the before year. So, crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from bank.

Hence, I request you place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
x x x x x

Question 5.
Mention the factors of production.
(OR)
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working capital: The requirement of raw material and money which are used up in the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital = Tools, machine and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process.
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 6.
Today, why is there a need for expansion of non-farm activities in rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why the expansion of non – farm activities in rural areas is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land. Banks provide loans to self-employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to village goods.
Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 7.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 8.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages?
Answer:

1. At present, non-farm production activities engage less number of people in villages.
2. Many things can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages.
3. It is important to see that loan available to people, who are interested in setting up non-farm production activities, at low rate of interest.
4. It is good to have markets where these goods and services produced can be sold.
5. To connect more and more villages to towns and cities through good roads.
6. As these require little land and some capital, entrepreneurs should be encouraged.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:

1. The farmer with 1 hectare of land is considered as a small farmer.
2. He usually keeps large share of production for household needs.
3. He does not have much saving for capital.
4. When he thinks of inputs expenditure, he may borrow money from large farmer or moneylender.
5. In case of borrowing from large farmer, he not only pays high rate of interest but he is also forced to work as a labourer in the large farmer’s fields.
6. In case of borrowing from money lender, he has to pay high rates of interests.

Question 10.
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc. require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.

Question 11.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it is not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modern farming methods in those areas.

Question 12.
Give the characteristics of Rural industries.
Answer:

1. Rural industries are small scale manufacturing units.
2. They involve very simple production methods.
3. The output is very small.
4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 13.
Explain ‘Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:

1. Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.
2. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land.
3. All farmers in Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 14.
Which changes have taken place in the way of farming practised in India?
Answer:

1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
3. Use of pesticides.
4. Use of farm machinery.
5. Use of tubewells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 15.
“Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land”.
Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

1. Experience shows fertility of the land is declining due to overuse, excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
2. The situation of water is equally alarming.
3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
4. The use of natural resources also not always been judicious while increasing production.

Question 16.
“Labour in an essential item for production”. Read the statement and interpretate.
Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Question 17.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called as physical capital. Ex¬plain why.
Answer:

1. The expenditure on tools, machines and building is called physical capital.
2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
3. They help to produce goods over many years.
4. They require some repair and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 18.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
2. To conserve water schemes like a watershed, soaking pit, check dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc., should be taken up.
3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

Question 19.
Name some Dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra, etc., is used to feed the cattle.
3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 20.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman in your area.
Answer:

1. Once Mr. Venkateswara Rao organised a cloth business in my region.
2. At the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell cloths and collects money weekly.
3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.

1. Which kind of houses are more in Rampur Village?
   Answer:
   Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.
2. In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
   Answer:
   60% of Rampur village belong to the poor class.
3. State approximately, the number of middle-class people in Rampur village.
   Answer:
   25% people of Rampur belong to the middle class.
4. Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
   Answer:
   Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 2.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.

Workers	Ploughing	Sowing	Weeding	Transplanting	Harvesting	Winnowing	Threshing	Picking Cotton
Male	214	197	215	–	164	168	152	–
Female	–	152	130	143	126	124	118	136

1. What are the works done only by male workers?
   Answer:
   Ploughing.
2. What are the works done only by female workers?
   Answer:
   Transplanting, Picking cotton.
3. In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
   Answer:
   Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting, Winnowing, Threshing.
4. What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
   Answer:
   The concept existing in the society is that, the women do less work than men.

Question 3.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non – farm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agriculture purpose, motor pumpsets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
2. There are four requirements for the production of goods and services.

They are:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital – (a) Physical or fixed capital (b) Working capital
4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals.
It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.
2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to per¬form the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers).

Type of farmers	Size of plots	% of farmers	% of cultivated area
Small farmers	Less than 2 hectares	87%	48%
Medium and Large farmers	More than 2 hectares	13%	52%

Answer:

1. The given data refers to the land cultivated by farmers.
2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in India.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however^practically fixed. In Rampur, since 1921 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village Were converted to cultivable land. There is no further scope to increase agriculture production by longing new land under cultivation.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture.
2. The cultivable land is not expanding.
3. In some areas a few forest lands are cleared and the waste land is being converted to agriculture land. There is no other way of expansion of land.
4. My opinion is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct. The basic factor of production is land.
5. The population is increasing day by day.
6. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching for new ways of increasing the production of food grains.
7. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.
8. Rampur village is a model for us.
9. In conclusion I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation.
10. Due to some other reasons like power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of ground water the farmers are not able to involve in farm activities.
11. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a great distress to repay the loan.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the moneylenders.
2. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities.
3. As they are charged a high rate of interest, they are put to distress.
4. This is the real situation of small farmers.
5. I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows.
6. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop.
7. Small farmers depend on others for loans.
8. The government should concentrate on providing a loan facility to the small farmers without collateral.
9. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged.
10. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

There is often a loss inform activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in price of agricultural produce. In such situations, farm¬ers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given it is clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk.
2. In those conditions, they hardly survive.
3. Many of the farmers commit suicide because of this situation.
4. Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains.
5. They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture.
6. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes. Due to the pests, floods or drought, they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survival.
7. Many a time, they commit suicides.
8. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand.
9. They should be saved from losing their lives.
10. New schemes should be launched for the sake of farmers who lose because of these natural hazards.

Question 9.
From your field visit find out at what rate of interest do farmers borrow when they need money for inputs. Compare with interest charged by the bank.
Answer:

1. Farmers need money for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and repair of tools, etc.
2. Small farmers cannot mobilise that money.
3. They borrow from medium and large farmers or moneylenders.
4. They charge higher rate of interest, usually 36% per annum.
5. Whereas banks provide crop loan to farmers.
6. But banks charge only 8% per annum.
7. Thus there is great variation in the rate of interest.

Question 10.
Groundwater levels are deplected dangerously day by day. If this is continued, what would be the consequences?
Answer:

1. The groundwater levels are depleted dangerously day by day.
2. Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation and industrial purposes has resulted in a decrease of groundwater levels.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. We will face the problem of scarcity of water.
5. Water will not be available for domestic purposes also.
6. Hence we should not over-extract water from tube wells.
7. Water should be allowed to sink into the ground.
8. Under any cost we should conserve groundwater for future generations.

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
   Answer:
   Mumbai
2. The birth place of river Godavari.
   Answer:
   Triyambak
3. The birth place of river Krishna.
   Answer:
   Mahabaleswar
4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
   Answer:
   Odisha
5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Jammu & Kashmir
9. Assam
10. Tripura