Category: Class 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

Minerals	1997-1998	2008-2009
Bauxite	6,108	15,250
Coal	2,97,000	4,93,000
Iron ore	75,723	2,25,544
Chromite	1,515	3,976

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Source function	Sink function
1. The sectors of the economy are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.	1. It is (environment) to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities.
2. The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an environment’s source function.	2. Unwanted byproducts of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Causes	%
Natural Increases	44%
Expansion of Urban Area	32%
Migration	24%

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Migration by place of birth	Census 1991 (excluding J & K in millions)	Census 2001 (including J & K in millions)	Variation (%) 1991-2001
Total population	838.5	1028.6	21.5
Total migrations	229.8	307.1	32.9
Migrants from within the districts	136.2	181.7	32.6
Migrants from other districts of state	59.1	76.8	29.5
Migrants from other states in India	27.2	42.3	54.5
Migrants from other countries	6.9	6.1	(-) 11.6

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
i) Economic liberalisation        A) restriction in foreign import tax
ii) Arbitrary dismissal               B) of state governments by central government
iii) Ethnic cleansing                  C) towards people who are different from themselves
iv) Federal principle                 D) greater autonomy for state governments
Answer:
i) A
ii) B
iii) C
iv) D

Question 2.
Identify the major changes in party system during the second phase of Independence.
Answer:

1. The second phase of Independence is from 1977 to 2000.
2. There were many major changes in party system during the second phase of independence.
3. It prevented India from sliding into a single party democracy.
4. A new system of coalition governments are introduced at the central level.
5. Coalition succumbed to fractional struggles.
6. Parties acted in a manner which weakened federal principles.
7. From a time when the term regional party was considered not a very respectable one, now they are much sought after. The state parties also entered into national politics.
8. They form common front to resist the misuse of powers of Governor and arbitrary imposition of President’s rule.
9. They also demanded greater say in national-level decision making, greater financial autonomy and low interference in state matters.

Question 3.
What are the major economic policies discussed in this (chapter) and the previous chapters of various governments at the centre and the state? How are they similar or different?
Answer:
Similarities :

1. Green Revolution was implemented with the co-operation of state governments to increase food grain production.
2. Reservations which are announced by V.P. Singh government to OBC’s are already Implemented in South Indian States.

Differences:

Central Level Economic Policies	State Level Economic Policies
Nehru’s governmnet policies:	Jyothi Basu:
1. Implementation of Five Year Plans.	1. In West Bengal Jyothi Basu government launched operation Barga.
2. Land reforms, agricultural co-operatives and localself government etc.	2. As a result of operation Barga, the landlords were largely prevented from forcibly throwing the bargadars off the land.
3. Abolition of Zamindari system, tenancy reform and land ceilings etc.	3. The Bargadar rights were made hereditary and thus perpetual.
4. Green Revolution for increasings of Food-grain production.	In Andhra Pradesh N.T.R. Governments policies
Indira Gandhi’s policies:	1. Sale of rice at Rs. 2 per kg to poor.
1. Nationalisation of Private Banks and abolishing princely pensions.	2. Liquor prohibition.
V.P. Singh’s policies: OBC reservations.	3. Mid-day meal scheme in government schools.
P.V. Narasimha Rao policies: Liberalisation of Economic policies.	4. Provide the loans to the poor farmers through the banks.

Question 4.
How did regional aspirations lead to the formation of regional parties? Compare the similarities and differences between the two different phases.
Answer:
Regional aspirations have a major role in the formation of regional parties. We can show the following reasons to prove this.
The history of so many states like Andhra Pradesh, Assom shows that the emergence of new regional parties was mainly due to regional aspirations.

Andhra Pradesh:

1. The frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central congress leadership and imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.
2. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national congress leadership.
3. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people.

Assom:

1. From the British time, Bengalis occupied the lower and middle rungs of the administration in the state.
2. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equals but as second class citizens.
3. Not only this, Bangladesh people also migrated to Assom.
4. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Punjab:

1. In Punjab the difference in language and religion of the dominant population became a point of mobilisation.
2. They also believed that the state had received an unfair bargain when it was created.
3. It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the centre.
4. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the Army.

Question 5.
In order to form governments, it becomes necessary for political parties to attract people from different sections of society. How did different political parties raise these objectives in the
second phase after Independence?
Answer:

1. At the end of emergency Indira Gandhi removed censorship on freedom of movement, campaigns and meetings.
2. Janata Party promised freedom from authoritarian rule and restoration of democracy.
3. Telugu Desam Party promised sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor, mid-day meals in government schools and liquor prohibition.
4. Assam Gana Parishad promised to remove the outsiders i.e., Bengalis and migrants from Bangladesh.

Question 6.
What were the developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity? How is the ability to accommodate different communities and regional aspirations changing?
Answer:

1. There were a few developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
2. After emergency the victorious Janata Party dismissed nine Congress governments in the states.
3. In 1980, when Congress came to power, it dismissed nine Janata governments in the states.
4. The actions of both these, weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
5. The people of many states felt alienated and wanted either greater autonomy or decision making.
6. They demanded centre’s lower interfence in state matters, stopping the misuse of the powers of governor and imposition of President Rule arbitrarily.

Question 7.
How do different types of regional aspirations draw from cultural, and economic dimensions?
Answer:

1. In combined Andhra Pradesh, N.T.Ramarao set up Telugu Desam party and stood for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
2. State could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.
3. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equal but as second class citizens.
4. The local people felt that they would loose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the outsiders.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities.
6. The major resources of state, including tea and oil were not benefitting the locals but people from Calcutta.
7. In Punjab, people asked for greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
8. They belive that the contribution of the state was ignored.
9. They laid claim to the new capital city of Chandigarh, which remained a union territory.

Question 8.
In the early half of India after independence there was importance given to planned development. In the later part emphasis was given to liberalisation. Discuss and find out how does it reflect political ideals.
Answer:

1. In the early half of India after independence Prime Minister was Nehru.
2. For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well.
3. He hoped that planning development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.
4. After that, Indira Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ and decimated the opposition.
5. She tried to achieve the goal of social and economic transformation.
6. In 1992, when P.V. Narasimha Rao formed Government faced a dearth of reserves of foreign currency due to political instability.
7. So he was forced to accept the policy of Economic liberalism.
8. It demanded cuts in subsidies, reduction in restrictions and taxes on import and this period faced still competition to India from global foreign industries.
9. Thus the above economic implications reflected the various political ideas discussed above.

Question 9.
Study newspapers and magazines to identify at least one example each of moderation in policies due to the coalition and how does different political parties in coalition emphasise their regional demands?
Answer:

1. United Progressive Alliance government, led by Congress brought Women Reservation Bill.
2. It was unable to make it pass, as it got stern opposition from partners of a coalition like Samajwadi Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal.
3. So under policy paralysis, though many times it was introduced, it had to be repeated.
4. Another such bill was Lok Pal, which was primarily aimed to bring all the rulers of state and centre to be brought under it.
5. But later due to the opposition from its coalition partners UPA let a number of dignatories outside its purview. The bill was passed.
6. It is an example of moderation in principles.

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 264

Question 1.
Write a brief summary of political events discussed about in the previous chapter on independent India.
Answer:

1. Congress party’s dominance in politics in first three general elections.
2. Planning Commission introduced five year plans to bring socio-ecohomic change in the country.
3. Land reforms, agriculture cooperatives and local self governments served the purpose.
4. First challenge was demand for reorganisation of states on the basis of language.
5. Have to face few wars with Pakistan and China.
6. Green Revolution marked substantial growth in food production.
7. There was a tendency of regional movements and regional parties.
8. This phase ended with the imposition of emergency.
9. Panchsheel Treaty was held between India and China.
10. India followed Non-alignment policy.
11. Meghalaya state was formed in 1969.
12. Indo-Pak war was held in 1971 on the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
13. In 1973 Arab-lsraeli was raised oil prices, and increased inflation in India.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 265

Question 2.
Do you think ‘single party democracy’ would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy ?
Answer:

1. I don’t think single-party democracy would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy.
2. Single Party keeps on winning takes decisions which are arbitrary and not in compliance with Constitution.
3. They may become authoritarian and overpower the democratic system, itself.
4. There was a greater threat to civil liberties and freedoms in single-party democracies.

Question 3.
In what ways does a multi-party democracy create favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change?
Answer:

1. A multi-party democracy creates favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change.
2. JP movement supported the restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule got support from Janata Party.
3. Anti-outsiders movement for change got support from Assam Gana Parishad.
4. The movement for autonomy in Punjab was supported by Shiromani Akali Dal.
5. Political viewpoints of Socialists, Hindu nationalists, Communists, as well as sectional interests like those of farmers, Dalits, backward castes, and regions among others now came to the fore ‘ and asserted their claims.
6. A number of non-political movements like environmental movements, the feminist movements, civil liberties movements, literacy movements and so on also emerged and became powerful motors of social change.
7. Protects against the constructions of dams, nuclear power projects, etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 267

Question 4.
There have been many instances in which governments at centre removed governments at the state, if they are from different political parties. Discuss how does it violate democratic principles.
Answer:

1. There have been many instances in which government at the centre removed governments at state, if they are from different political parties.
2. It completely violates the democratic principles.
3. When there is a majority government functioning in the state it is not fair to dismiss it.
4. Government at the centre misuses the powers of governors and Article 356.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 268

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of the following factors in the politics of NTR:
i. Background of being a filgi hero.
ii. Fight for self-respect of the state.
iii. Popular welfare schemes for the poor.
iv. Alliance with other regional parties.
Answer:

1. NTR was a popular film actor with nearly 300 movies to his credit.
2. He had vast following and fan base.
3. Congress leadership at the centre frequently changing Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh, people believed not getting respect.
4. He stood for the honour and self rgspect of Telugu speaking people and started Telugu Desam Party.
5. He promised mid-day meal scheme in government schools, sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
6. In his struggle against arbitrary dismissal he was supported by CPI(M), DMK, SAD and National Conference.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 270

Question 6.
In what ways do you think the Assom movement is similar or different from the movement of NTR in Andhra Pradesh ?
Answer:

1. Both the movements are of regional nature.
2. Both the movements set up political parties.
3. Both of them secured political power.
4. Movement of NTR stood for the honour and self respect of Telugu speaking people.
5. Whereas movement in Assom is against Bengalis officialdom and outsiders influx.
6. NTR promised welfare measures such as midday meal scheme in schools, sale of rice ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
7. In Assom,- the movement paved the way for many such movements and even to ethnic cleansing.

Question 7.
Organise a debate in your class on the following themes:
Only one community should live in a region and all posts and trade-business should be in the hands of the people of that specific community only. (OR) All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in places of their choice.
Answer:

1. All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in place of their choice.
2. Constitution guarantees us the above right.
3. There were nearly 6,748 castes in India.
4. Organise only one community in a region is almost impossible.
5. All posts and trade business cannot be taken up by same community.
6. India fs a country which has unity in diversity and diversity in unity.

Question 8.
Will an open policy of free movement of people cause rich and powerful outsiders to buy up all land and resources and leave the original people of a locality poor and impoverished ?
Answer:

1. Open policy of free movement may cause some rich and powerful outsiders to buy land and own resources.
2. Original people of a locality may also have some native people who are rich and powerful.
3. So it does never happen that outsiders leave original people of a locality poor and impoverished.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 272

Question 9.
What was the role of anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 in fuelling Sikh separatism and extremism?
Answer:

1. 4 thousand Sikhs were killed and state government seemed to do little to stop the violence.
2. To apprehend and punish the guilt also took many years.
3. This created anguish and anger among the Sikhs.
4. Militant Sikhs killed Longoyyal, who made agreement with centre.
5. Akal Takht made declaration of Khalistan.
6. Several groups engaged in terrorist activities for separate state.
7. This anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 fuelled Sikh separation and extremism.

Question 10.
Compare the similarities and differences between Assam and Punjab movements. What kind of challenge did they pose to our political system ?
Answer:

1. Assam movement was first anti-outsiders movement then transformed into anti-Bengali, anti¬left and anti-non-Assamese movement and even anti-India stand.
2. It did not subside, even led to ethnic cleansing.
3. Punjab movement went into the hands of militant Sikhs.
4. Anti-Sikh riots and after effected culminated the movement into extremist way.
5. These two movements needed army to restore peace.
6. Military powers were used and civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. They posed a great threat to our unity and integrity.

Question 11.
The way the government handled the two problems, did it strengthen our democratic polity or weaken it ?
Answer:

1. The way the government handled the two problems, it did not strengthen our democratic polity, it weakens it.
2. Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab.
3. There were thousands of suspected militants executed.
4. Many were disappeared in police custody.
5. In Assam also army was deployed to reduce tension and bring peace.
6. Civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. Government resorted to undemocratic methods to survive democracy.
8. It would strengthen undemocratic tendencies in the polity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 273

Question 12.
Looking back from the present, what do you think were the lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country ?
Answer:

1. There were many lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country.
2. He was instrumental in initiating peace process in Assam, Punjab and even in Sri Lanka.
3. He was the best supporter of Panchayat Raj institutions.
4. His government’s first budget moved towards more liberalised system.
5. He invited telecom revolution in India.
6. He believed poor are not successful in getting access to the fruits of development.

Question 13.
Discuss in your class why the poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them. What long-term steps should be taken to ensure that such benefits really reach the poor ?
Answer:

1. The poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.
3. They have no access to the schemes or knowledge of them.
4. There exists inbuilt corruption at higher level.
5. Participation of mass in governance is very low.
6. So Panchayat Raj Institutions were introduced.
7. Right Information Act was made available.
8. Whistle blowers were given complete protection.

Question 14.
Find out and list all the benefits students of your school are entitled to. Do they manage to get them properly? Discuss in both the class and outside the school in your homes or playground.
Answer:
Benefits of our school:

1. Free textbooks
2. Free uniform
3. Library facility
4. Play ground facility
5. Lab facilities
6. Mid-day meals.

They do manage to get them properly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 274

Question 15.
Read the following and answer the given questions.

The Prime Ministers Apology

Dr. Manmohan Singh’s statement in the Rajya Sabha
… Four thousand people were killed in this great national tragedy that took place in 1984. This should be an occasion for introspection, how working together as a united nation, we can find new pathways to ensure that such ghastly tragedies never again take place in our country. … / have no hesitation in apologising not only to the Sikh community but the whole Indian nation because what took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our Constitution. So, I am not standing on any false prestige. On behalf of our Government, on behalf of the entire people of this country, I bow my head in shame that such a thing took place. But, Sir, there are ebbs, there are tides in the affairs of nations. The past is with us. We cannot rewrite the past. But as human beings, we have the willpower and we have the ability to write better future for all of us….

a) What is the most important message in this speech?
Answer:
Prime Minister apologises for what happened to Sikhs in 1984.
b) What signals does this speech send out?
Answer:
The speech sends out the signals such tragedies could never repeat, we can make our future better by letting this behind us.
c) Why is it important that the Prime Minister made this speech?
Answer:
What took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our constitution. So it is important that Prime Minister made this speech.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 276

Question 16.
While some people feel that coalition politics has weakened the government others feel that it has prevented any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country. Discuss this with examples.
Answer:

1. It became mere impossible for any single party to win a majority of the seats to form government on its own.
2. No party could pursue its extreme agendas and tone down their approaches.
3. Early coalitions were instable.
4. Now coalitions are getting re-elected.
5. So keeping ail in the view coalitions are must.
6. They are preventing any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 277

Question 17.
Compare the land reforms in West Bengal and the land reforms in Vietnam or China. In what ways were they similar or different ?
Answer:
Land Reforms in China: The major steps in land reforms were a class identification of all village inhabitants, followed by the confiscation and redistribution of landlord land and other properties. Land Reforms in Vietnam : A reduction of 25% in land rents, the cancellation of all secondary rents and the cancellation of all areas in rent owed by tenants before August, 1945.

Land Reforms in West Bengal: Operation Barga was introduced. West Bengal Government recorded the names of the sharecroppers and secured their rights. All the legal documents were issued and distributed on the spot immediately. As a result the sharecroppers felt secured.
In all the three issues the governments created a security feeling in the winds of the tenants. They controlled the inhumane acts of the landlords.

Question 18.
Why do you think the protection of sharecroppers led to an increase in production?
Answer:
As a result of Operation Barga, the landlords were largely prevented from forcibly throwing the bargadars off the land. In fact, the bargadar rights were made hereditary and thus perpetual. Secondly, the State guaranteed that the bargadars would receive a fair share of the crop (75 per cent if the bargadar provided the non-labour inputs and 50 per cent if the landlord provides those inputs). In all, approximately half of rural households in West Bengal have received land reform benefits.
As a result of these measures, agricultural production in West Bengal had increased.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Identify statements or statements in the bracket that are relevant to statements in italics on left.
(a) Political equality can be identified with (right to get admission in any school, principle of one person one vote, right to enter any religious worship place)
Answer:
Political equality can be identified with the principle of one person one vote.

(b) Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant (allowing all people to vote for any political party, allowing all people to vote in elections, allowing all people to vote for Congress party)
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant both allowing all people to vote for any political party and allowing all people to vote in elections.

(c) Congress dominance would include (being able to attract people from various ideologies; being able to win most states assembly seats after elections; being able to use police force during election)
Answer:
Congress dominance would include being able to win most states assembly seats after elections.

(d) Emergency imposed (restrictions on people’s rights; ensured eradication of poverty; accepted by all political parties)
Answer:
Emergency imposed restrictions on people’s rights.

Question 2.
What measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence?
Answer:

1. Many measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence.
2. The Planning Commission was set up.
3. The Fifst five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
4. The components of socio-economic change were
   a) land reforms b) agriculture cooperatives c) local self-government.
5. Planners felt that it was essential to develop industries and increase employment in service sectors.
6. In Second Five Year Plan focus shifted to industries.
7. Three types of land reforms were contemplated.
   a) Abolition of Zamindari System,
   b) Tenancy reforms and land ceilings.
8. Co-operatives were to bring economies of scale and also provide valuable inputs.
9. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and Industrial sectors.

Question 3.
What do you understand about one party dominance? Would you consider it as dominance only in elections ot also in terms of ideology? Discuss with reasons.
Answer:
One party dominance means the party not only win in elections either in state or in central, but also it has in term of ideology. Due to the following reason.
Internally, the Congress party has small groups. This is the benefit to the Congress party. Because the groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. This also acts as an inbuilt corrective mechanism with in the ruling party.

Question 4.
Language became a central rallying point Hi Indian politics on many occasions, either as a unifying force or as a divisive element. Identify these instances and describe them.
Answer:
Language as a unifying force:

1. The northern states have accepted Hindi as the national language.
2. They have their own mother tongues but they have no problem jn accommodating Hindi.
3. There is a common uniformity upto some extent in the north which has been brought about , by Hindi.

Language as a divisive element:

1. The official Languages Act was passed in 1963.
2. It made Hindi as the national language.
3. The DMK party of Tamilnadu believed that it wps an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
4. Strikes, dharnas and hartals started all over the state.
5. The Congress itself was divided between the pro-Hindi and anti-Hindi camps.
6. Some felt that the unity of the country was at stake.
7. Telugu, Kannada, Marathi and Gujarathi languages speaking people started a movement for separate states on the basis of their language.

Question 5.
What were the major changes in political system after 1967 elections?
Answer:

1. There were many major changes in political system after 1967 elections.
2. Elections had become to be taken seriously arid had life of their own.
3. Democracy had taken roots in India.and country was moving towards a competitive multi¬party system.
4. There were basically a coalition of legislators against the Congress in many states.
5. Intermediate caste, who had first benefited from land reforms gained political power.
6. Many of the coalition of legislators were marked by defection and corruption.
7. This period saw a renewal of a regional sentiment in different parts of the country.
8. This was also a period of communal tension.

Question 6.
Think of other ways in which states could have been created and how would they be better than language based reorganization?
Answer:

1. In India state reorganisation was done on the basis of linguistic principle.
2. Other ways in which we could form states may be culture, ethnicity and economy.
3. But history provides proof that even nations could not survive on cultural, ethnicity and economy bases.
4. Nationalist movement leaders accepted the principle of territorial organisation of the country on a linguistic basis.
5. The diverse elements of Indian culture are chiefly represented by the languages of India.
6. So no other basis of reorganisation would not have fared better than linguistic reorganisation.

Question 7.
What measures of Indira Gandhi are called ‘left turn’? How do you think this was different from policies of previous decades? Based on your economics chapters describe how it is different from the current policies.
Answer:

1. Immediately after the victory in 1971 Bangladesh War, using Indira Gandhi’s popular slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ the Congress won with record majority in 1971 general elections.
2. In the legislative assembly elections held subsequently in 1972, Congress did well.
3. She then had control over both the party as well as the Parliament.
4. She nationalised banks, abolished princely pensions which were challenged in courts.
5. Constitution was being amended rapidly in the name of socio-economic change, feared the Supreme Court.
6. This was called ‘Left turn’.
7. In 1973, oil prices rose to an all time high, rise in prices, scarcity of food, and unemployment increased.
8. Current policies are different from them.
9. Government is encouraging private banking and non-banking finance corporations, reducing subsidies, etc.

Question 8.
In what ways was the Emergency period a set back to the Indian democracy?
Answer:
On 25th June 1975, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi imposed an Emergency in the country. Due to this Emergency –

1. General Elections were postponed.
2. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended.
3. The press was censored.
4. Most of political opponents were imprisoned.
5. Demolition of slums and forced sterilisation on the name of population control became very unpopular.
6. In the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.
7. Thus, the Emergency period was a setback to the Indian democracy.

Question 9.
What were the institutional changes that came up after the Emergency?
Answer:

1. With this emergency, democracy was put on hold.
2. Many fundamental rights were suspended.
3. There were instances of detention and torture beyond mere violation of civil liberties.
4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment brought about a series of changes
   a) Excluding the courts from election disputes,
   b) Strengthening the central government vis-a-vis the state governments.
5. Other changes were c) Protection from judiciary challenges to socio-economic legislations, d) Made judiciary subservient to Parliament.
6. These weakened the democratic fabric of this country.

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 248

Question 1.
In your opinion have we been able to achieve social equality: think of instances that you would identify as examples of social equality and inequality.
Answer:

1. We have not been able to achieve social equality.
2. Our social structure continues to deny us the principle of one man one value.
3. Caste system interrelated economic structure is never allowing us the achievement of social equality.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 249

Question 2.
How do you think illiteracy affects elections, especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting? How do you think this problem can be solved? (OR)
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy in the conduct of the first General Election in India.
Answer:

1. Illiteracy causes difficulty in elections especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting.
2. They cannot read the name in the Ballot paper, to whom he/she wishes to vote.
3. This problem was solved by the Election Commission initially by sticking the symbol outside the Ballot box separately.
4. Again it allotted symbols of daily life for every contestant for visual identification of the voter.
5. We can also print his photo against his name.

Question 3.
Could we have considered that our country was democratic if all people did not have voting rights?
Answer:

1. We could not have considered that our country was democratic if all the people did not have voting rights.
2. All eligible people shall be given franchise and elections at definite intervals are the tenets of democracy.
3. If Universal Adult Franchise was not accepted, then we cannot say ourselves as a democracy.

Question 4.
Given the literacy rate of tyomen being low, if women were not allowed to vote bow would it affect our policies?
Answer:

1. Literacy rate of women was low.
2. They were not given right to vote.
3. Then our policies will not do justice to them.
4. Their requirements and difficulties will not be known to us.
5. We cannot prepare the bills that suit their needs.

Question 5.
Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish democracy. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish Democracy.
2. I do agree with this statement.

Reasons:

1. Indian democracy rests on the idea of representation.
2. Every adult citizen of above 18 years is given the right to vote regardless of education, property
   and gender.
3. Elections are held periodically to the various representative institutions of a democratic state at three different levels (The centre, the state and the local levels) to facilitate effective functioning.
4. Any registered voter who completed 25 years can contest for elections t6 the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha.
5. Entire country or state is divided into territorial units called constituencies.
6. The work of conducting election to the Parliament and Legislature is entrusted to the Election Commission.
7. The procedure for elections is laid down in the Representation of People’s Act.
8. Elections are therefore held in a free and fair manner.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 251

Question 6.
Summarise the features that could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.
Answer:

1. In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress won, reducing other participants to almost nothing.
2. The Congress consistently won over 70% of seats by obtaining about 45% of the total votes cast.
3. The Congress formed the government in many states as well.
4. The opposition parties only posed a latent and not a real threat.
5. The above features could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 253

Question 7.
Do you think unity nf India wou|d have been better served if linguistic states were not formed?
Answer:

1. I don’t think that the unity of India would have been better without linguistic states.
2. Language unites people and it represents the diverse elements of our culture.
3. There was popular will for linguistic states.
4. Leaders of national movement also accepted linguistic states.
5. Moreover, now these states are of great help in consolidating India.

Question 8.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at this time?
Answer:

1. When linguistic states were formed dominant languages were considered.
2. Tribal languages were not considered. Tribal language have no script.
3. Because the population of these tribal language users is very less and sparsely spread.
4. Apart from this there was popular will.
5. People of dominant languages demanded seperate states.

Question 9.
Do you know how many states and union territories are there in India today?
Answer:
Today, in India there are 29 states and 7 union territories.

Question 10.
Which are the newest states of India and when were they created?
Answer:

1. The newest states of India are
   1. Chhattisgarh
   2. Jharkhand
   3. Uttarakhand
   4. Telangana.
2. Chattisgarh, the 26th state of India was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on Nov. 1, 2000.
3. Uttaranchal, the 27th state of India was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on Nov. 9,2000.
4. Later it had changed;its name to be Uttarakhand.
5. Jharkhand, the 28th state of India was carved of Bihar on November 15, 2000.
6. Telangana, the 29th state of India was formed on 2nd June, 2014.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 255

Question 11.
If you live in a rural area, find out if institutions like cooperatives were established before 1970’s and who became members in it?
Answer:

1. In rural areas there were institutions like cooperatives.
2. Important among them were Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies.
3. Farmers who are practising agriculture were joined as members in it.

Question 12.
Compare the land reforms carried out in India with that of China or Vietnam.
Answer:

1. Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner in India.
2. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. Whereas land reforms were implemented in China and Vietnam in a whole-hearted manner.
4. They were able to redistribute the land to the landless.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 256

Question 13.
How did the language policy help foster national unity and integrity?
Answer:

1. The language policy states the right of each state to have a language of its own (which could be the regional language or English).
2. Communications in states could be in regional languages with English translations.
3. English would continue to be the communication language between the centre and the states.
4. Civil Service Examinations would be conducted in English rather than in Hindi alone.
5. With these all provisions, no state has a problem with the centre, so promoted national unity and integrity.

Question 14.
Is there a need for a national language ?
Answer:
Yes, there is a need for national language to achieve national integrity.

1. We are such a vast country with many regional languages.
2. Language policy is of help in fostering national unity and integrity.

Question 15.
Should all languages in India have equal status ? Reflect.
Answer:

1. In India there are as many as 1,652 languages.
2. All languages in India don’t have equal status.
3. Indian Constitution recognises 22 languages as statutory.
4. Many languages have no script.
5. Some tribal languages were neglected. Ex : Oravan.
6. Many languages were spoken by few people.
7. Taking all things into consideration it will be difficult to accord equal status to all languages.
8. According to the Constitution, the citizens have right to protect their language and culture.
9. If they provide equal status to all languages, we should protect integrity and unity of our country.

(OR)

1. Yes, all languages should be accorded equal status.
2. No regional language should be ignored.

 

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Ideas of Development.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State reason for protesting against the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kudankulam people have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
2. They also want their coast and country protected from the radio active peril.

Question 2.
Why did the people oppose the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power project in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
On the grounds of safety, security and livelihood, the people protested against the project.
(OR)
To protect their cost from radio active peril people opposed it.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.
Answer:

Country	H.D.I. Ranking 2012	Average Life Span in 2012	Average years of Schooling
Norway	1	81.3	12.6
America	3	78.7	13.3
Sri Lanka	92	75.1	9.3
China	101	73.7	7.5
India	136	65.8	4.4
Bangladesh	146	69.2	4.8
Pakistan	146	65.7	4.9
World Average	–	70.1	7.5

a) Which two countries have more average schooling years?
Answer:
Norway, America.

b) Which two Asian countries have better HDI rank than that of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, China.

c) Which countries are lacking behind to the average life expectancy of World?
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan.

d) What are the reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan are

1. Poverty,
2. More rural population,
3. No awareness with regard to literacy.

Question 4.
In the context of development, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. Give one example for this.
Answer:
Example – 1: To get more electricity industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people such as the tribals who are dis-placed.
Example – 2: A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. But brother may not like this.

Question 5.
What idea is the poster promoting?

Answer:
Importance of Education.

Question 6.
State any two goals of development other than income.
Answer:
Equal treatment, freedom, security and respect from others.

Question 7.
What is HDI?
Answer:
The index developed for comparing coun¬tries for measuring human development is called HDI (Human Development Index). It generally includes income, educational levels and health status of the people.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is “the total income of the country divided by its total population”.

Question 9.
Expand IMR.
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate.

Question 10.
Which organization publishes HDR?
Answer:
UNDP publishes Human Development Report.

Question 11.
What is the main criteria for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
The main criteria for comparing the development of different countries are per capita income, life expectancy, average years of schooling, expected years of schooling, etc.

Question 12.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of couple soundness – physical and mental.

Question 13.
Why do people look at a mix of goals?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 14.
Why are dams opposed?
Answer:
Dams are opposed because they will disrupt the lives of the people and submerge their own lands.

Question 15.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the homes are economically independent and self¬confident.

Question 16.
What is adult literacy rate?
Answer:
The rate of percentage of people aged 15 and above, who can understand, read and write a short and simple statement in their regional languages is known as adult literacy rate.

Question 17.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
Average income is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

Question 18.
Explain the calculation of BMI.
Answer:
BMI can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 19.
What is educational development?
Answer:
Education attained by the people of a country on an average basis is referred as educational development.

Question 20.
What isthe percentage of population living in the rural India?
Answer:
70% of the Indian population is living in rural India.

Question 21.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
The rate at which children in a country die within an age of 0-1 year is known as “Infant Mortality Rate.”

Question 22.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors of production.
Technology is also added to the factors of production.

Question 23.
How is the standard of living measured?
Answer:
Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita.

Question 24.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle.

Question 25.
What is PDS?
Answer:
PDS is a system to distribute ration to the poor at a reasonable rate through govern¬ment ration shops. PDS – Public Distribution System.

Question 26.
A girl from a rich urban family has some development goals for her. State any one such goal.
Answer:
She can get as much freedom as a boy has.

Question 27.
Write any one advantage of public facilities.
Answer:
It develops national feelings and a sense of collective responsibility. Reduces expenditure.

Question 28.
What is NAR?
Answer:
Net Attendance Rate: Out of the total num¬ber of children in age group 6-17, the per¬centage of children attending schools.

Question 29.
Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing coun¬tries?
Answer:
Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing countries.

Question 30.
Which is not a useful measure for comparison between countries?
Answer:
Total income is not such a useful measure for comparison between countries.

Question 31.
What are called developed countries?
Answer:
The rich countries, excluding countries of West Asia and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.

Question 32.
Why, in some areas, children, particularly girls are not able to achieve secondary level schooling?
Answer:
Due to social restrictions imposed on girl child i.e., gender bias.

Question 33.
Why have some states lesser Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Some states have a lesser Infant Mortality Rate because they have adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 34.
What is the major consideration of Himachali women?
Answer:
One major consideration is that many Himachali women are themselves employed outside the home and hence show lesser gender bias.

Question 35.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the home are economically independent and self-confident.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you learn from the schooling revolution in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government and the people of Himachal Pradesh were keen on education.
2. They started many schools.
3. They made sure that education was largely free.
4. They allocated a good share to education in the government budget.
5. They tried to ensure that the schools had all the facilities.
6. Most of the students enjoy their schooling experience.

Question 2.
People generally do not like to work in unorganised sector. Why?
Answer:

1. Unorganised sector is largely outside the control of the government.
2. Rules and regulations are often not followed.
3. Jobs are not regular.
4. Jobs are low paid.
5. It is difficult to avail the leaves.
6. No provision for paid leave.
7. Job is not secure.
8. Working conditions are generally poor.
9. No safety measures followed in work places.
10. Health hazards would be there.
11. No insurance
12. No welfare schemes.

Question 3.
Give examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development.
Answer:
The examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development:

1. Per capita income
2. The education levels of people and health status.
3. Standard of life of the people
4. Availability of electricity
5. Transportation
6. Sanitation facilities
7. Expected years of schooling
8. Average years of schooling, etc.
   Ex: Sri Lanka, one of our neighbours is much ahead of India in every respect.

Question 4.
What are the different indicators in which development is measured? Which one do you agree with ?
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling 4) Expected years of schooling
4. Life expectancy at birth 6) Health status
5. Employment status 8) Equal distribution
6. I agree with all the above things because those are useful for measuring the complete development.

Question 5.
Give examples for different persons can have different developmental goals.
Answer:

Category of persons	Developmental goals
Landless rural labourers:	More days of work and better wages, quality education for their children, no social discrimination.
Prosperous farmers:	Higher support prices for crops, should be able to settle their children abroad.
Farmers who depend only on rains for growing crops:	Adequate rainfall.
Urban unemployed youth:	High salaried jobs
An Adivasi from mining fields :	To protect their livelihoods.
Persons from fishing community in the coastal area.	Good weather and a good catch of fisher.

Question 6.
What do the people desire other than income?
Answer:
People desire the following other than income.

1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
4. Respect from others.

Question 7.
Prepare a pamphlet on making mahila mandals active in villages.
Answer:
Mahila Mandals are voluntary service organizations that work for the betterment of women in the villages of India. To better their life the village women should have their say in the active involvement of Mahila Mandals’ activities. Active Mahila Mandals can be found In many villages. Suggestions to make Mahila Mandals active in the villages:

• First priority should be given to girl education and to eradicate illiteracy.
• Vocational training and credit facilities to women for self-employment should be provided.
• Mahila Mandals should collectively work for the betterment of women who need nutrition, education and family welfare.
• They should help the women in immunization of children, small savings, provision of bathrooms, women crafts centres and balwadis.
• They should work towards the elimination of discrimination, inequality, intolerance, and violence-both, within and outside the home.
• They should have comparatively high involvement in social life and village politics.

The government should provide basic equipment and stationery, etc. to the Mahila Mandals. It should create awareness among women regarding the Mahila Mandals.

Women empowerment leads to a strong nation.

Copies: 2000

Surya Printers.

Question 8.
What is Development ? Why do different people have different developemntal goals? Explain with two Examples.
Answer:
Meaning of Development:

1. Growth plus change is called development. .
2. All the persons may not have the same notion of development or progress.
3. Each one of them seeks different things.
   Examples:
   i) A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
   ii) To get more electricity, industrialists, may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced as the tribals.

Question 9.
Create a few slogans on promoting girl education.
Answer:

1. Girl with education – helpful to the family.
2. Educate a girl – she educates a family.
3. Encourage girl education – save the nation.
4. An educated girl – serves the nation well.
   (Students can sit together and discuss to prepare a few slogans of their own.)

Question 10.
Observe the following table and prepare a paragraph on it.
Answer:
Progress in Himachal Pradesh
The comparison across two different years is indicative of development that has happened. Clearly, there has been greater development in schooling and spread of education in Himachal Pradesh than India as a whole. Though there is still a lot of difference in the average levels of education among boys and girls, i.e., across genders, there has been some progress towards greater equal¬ity in the recent years.

Question 11.
Why was it necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The rich children can get the education in private sector schools. But the majority of Indian chil¬dren are enrolled in the government schools. Education has also been made free for children from 6 to 14 years of age or up to VIII class under the R.T.E. Act 2009. So, it was necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 12.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. Human development focuses on the people.
2. It is concerned with the well-being of the people, their needs, choices and aspirations. All these help in building a right kind of society.
3. It is all about the enlarging or widening the choices for the people. It is the building of human capabilities, such as education, information and knowledge, to have opportunities of livelihood.
4. Human development focuses on the expansion of basic choices.

Question 13.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:

1. Even though per capita income is high in many states, education and health facilities are still lacking.
2. Money or high per capita income cannot buy a pollution-free environment or good health.
3. Money cannot buy peace and democracy.

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the following table and answer the questions that given below.
(a) What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The number of literates per every 100 persons in the population is known as literacy rate.

(b) In which state the net attendance is highest?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

(c) What could be the reason for the highest, Literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government of Himachal Pradesh and the people of the state were keen on education.
2. The government started schools and made sure that education was largely free, or costs very little for parents.
3. Further, it tried to ensure that these schools had at least the minimum facilities of teach¬ers, classrooms, toilets, drinking water, etc.

(d) In which state the IMR is least?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph :
“In many parts of the country, girls’ are still given less priority by parents compared to boys.”
Comment on the gender bias in India.
Answer:

1. Ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Female literacy rate is low.
3. Women who work outside their homes are less in number.
4. Traditionally, in our society, women have less involvement in social life.
5. Because of all these reasons, gender bias is still continuing.
6. This is a hurdle for the development of society.
7. Boys and girls should be treated equally.

Question 3.
“We should be able to integrate environmental concerns with the idea of progress”. Explain.
Answer:

1. We must show concern on environmental issues while achieving development.
2. The environmental source function will deplete while using the sources in a speedy way.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit, it will cause long-term damage to the environment.
4. The big projects may harm bio-diversity.
5. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in modern agriculture leads to a big loss to the environment.
6. The fuel used as a part of industrial development causes a lot of air pollution.
7. Ground water levels are being depleted.
8. Deforestation is being occurred.
9. The rights of low-income countries, future generations also should be viewed.

Question 4.
Plot the below information on a bar graph. Write your observation.

SI. No.	State	Literacy rate (%)
1.	Punjab	77
2.	Himachal Pradesh	84
3.	Bihar	64

Answer:
Observation:
As Himachal Pradesh has high literacy rate, it can be considered as developed state.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by the parents as compared to boys’ education. While girls may study for a few years, they may not complete their schooling.
Answer:
According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country and the second one is only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
My opinion on these two issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many places. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study in a school.
He hopes his daughter becomes a professional. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools irrespective of their income and status. It shows their interest. A little bit fear about girls is there among them because of other reasons. They are afraid of the safety of their daughters. Just like in Himachal Pradesh other states are also spending much amount on education and schooling. It is accepted that the Himachal Pradesh state has taken the step earlier. I don’t say that other states are not taking steps to improve the conditions of schools for providing good education for the girls.
It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admit in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls in schools.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per capita  Income in $	Life Expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Development Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. Which country stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI ?
   Answer:
   The country Sri Lanka stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI.
2. Mention the aspects that are considered in making Human Development Index.
   Answer:
   1. Percapita income
   2. Literacy Rate
   3. Average years of schooling
   4. Expected years of schooling
   5. Life expectancy at birth
   6. Health status, etc. are the aspects considered in making Human Development Index.
3. Name the country that has the lowest per capita income.
   Answer:
   The country Nepal has the lowest per capita income.
4. Give two suggestions for the improvement of the rank of India in HDI.
   Answer:
   1. Education should be improved and more skill development centres should be established.
   2. The poor and needy people should be provided cheap and better health facilities.

Question 7.
Observe the given table and analyse the HDI data of India and its neighbours.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2016

Country	Per capita income in $	Life expectancy at birth	Literacy rate	Human Development Index (HDI)
Sri Lanka	10,789	74.9	92.6	70
India	5,663	68.3	74.04	131
Pakistan	5,031	66.2	60.0	148
Myanmar	4,943	65.9	93.1	146
Bangladesh	3,341	71.6	61.5	140
Nepal	2,337	69.6	64.7	144

Answer:
The given table is about Human Development data of India and some of the neighbouring countries pertaining to 2016. In this table per capita income in dollars, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate are considered and HDI Ranking is given. In per capita income Sri Lanka stands high and in the same of life expectancy but in literacy Myanmar is better than Srilanka. Pakistan is very poor in literacy rate and so Bangladesh. These countries do not show interest on literacy. In over all ranking Srilanka stands well, Pakistan’s ranking is least. Countries should concentrate on what (the people need proper medication, medical facilities to the poorer people, wide availabiltiy of
104,108 services are essential in rural areas. In Telangana to some extent these services are provided. Each one teach one programme is to be maintained so that all people will be literated. Schooling should be strengthened. Per capita income should be spent on Health facilities and education. Priorities are to be set first and proper planning for its implementation is essential. So that countries can be developed.

Question 8.
Read the text and interpret it.
The ongoing protest over the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in theTirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu is one such conflict. The government of India set up the nuclear power plant in this quiet coastal town of fisher folks. The aim is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the country. The people in the region have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
Answer:

1. The Government of India is going on with the Nuclear Power Project of the Kundankulum.
2. The aim of the project is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the people.
3. The fisher folks of this area are protesting against the project on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
4. Hence the ideas on development are different for different people.
5. Development for one may not be the development for other.
6. Here the ideas on development of government is conflicting with the interests of the local people.

Question 9.
Read the following text and state your opinion on it.

Human Development Report

When we realise that even though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita Income.

Answer:

1. The income is not the correct criteria to measure the level of development.
2. Most of the time it hides disparities.
3. So we begin to think of another criterion.
4. There could be a long list of criteria.
5. We selected some such as “health and education”.
6. Health and Education indicators were used to compare Punjab and Kerala.
7. Human Development Report was published by UNDP.
8. The countries were compared on the basis of the education levels of the people, health status and per capita income.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
If you get a job in afar off place, you would try to consider many factors, apart from income.
This could be facilities for your family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, people give preference to income as well as facilities.
2. They also want to spend time with their families.
3. They need job security and freedom. It is not possible in all the cases.
4. Many workers from India are migrating even to foreign countries for getting work so as to earn something for their livelihoods.
5. Some people are working in cities like Hyderabad by keeping their families at their hometowns.
6. They are losing the opportunity of spending their time with their families. Their living conditions are also not good.
7. Many of them are leading sedentary life. In some cases pay is less but job is secure. In some other cases payment may be high but job security is not there.
8. Whatever it is, I am coming to the conclusion that there are many factors that affect livelihoods.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
When we looked at Individual aspirations and goals, we found that people not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect of others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. In mind. Similarly, when we think of a nation or a region, we may, besides average income, think of other equally important attributes.
Answer:

1. This paragraph is about the aspirations and goals of the individuals.
2. The people want their income and they want to be treated well.
3. Though the wages are well and good, they don’t want to be ill-treated.
4. Everyone in the society wants to live with dignity which our Constitution promises.
5. Many of the labourers are now looking towards prestige.
6. Some states in our country are getting more per capita income but they are lacking in providing other facilities to the people.
7. Nowadays schooling is very importing to its children.
8. For nations and states the literacy rate, net attendance rate, infant mortality rate are also considered in its development.
9. They have to provide schools, pollution-free atmosphere, unadulterated medicines, to its people for better living.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by parents compared to
boys’ education. While girls may study for a few classes, they may not complete their schooling.
A welcome trend in Himachal Pradesh is the lower gender bias. Himachali parents have ambitious educational goals for their girls, just as for their boys.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country.
2. Only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
3. My opinion on these two,issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society.
4. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many
   places.
5. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study In a school.
6. He hopes his daughter becomes a professional.
7. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools Irrespective of their income and status.
8. It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admitted in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools.
9. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls In schools.

Question 13.
Table: Read the following table and answer the following questions.
Some Comparative data of Selected States

state	IMR per 1000 (2006)	Literacy rate (%) {2011)	Net Attendance Rate (2006)
Punjab	42	77	76
Himachal Pradesh	36	84	90
Bihar	62	64	56

1.  What does the table tell us?
   Answer:
   The table tells us about some comparative data of selected states.
2. What are the three states compared here?
   Answer:
   The three states compared are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
3. What does IMR mean?
   Answer:
   IMR means Infant Mortality Rate.
4. Which state ranks best in literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks best in literacy rate with 84%.
5. What is the Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006?
   Answer:
   The Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006 is 56.
6. What is the position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate?
   Answer:
   The position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate is next to Himachal Pradesh.
7. What is literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Literacy rate is that the percentage of literate people in the 7 and above years age group.
8. Why is the number of children below the age of 6 not considered for counting of Net Atten¬dance Rate?
   Answer:
   The children below the age of 6 do not go to school.
9. Which state ranks first when we consider the above data ?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks first.
10. How do you say Bihar is an underdeveloped state ?
    Answer:
    Bihar has high infant mortality rate i.e., 62. It has less literacy rate and Net attendance rate i.e., 64 and 56 respectively. Hence we can say Bihar is a backward state.

Question 14.
Study the table given and answer the following questions.
Table: Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

Country	Per Capita Income in $	Life expectancy at birth (Years)	Average years of schooling	Expected years of schooling	Human Develop­ment Index (HDI) rank in the world
Sri Lanka	5170	75.1	9.3	12.7	92
India	3285	65.8	4.4	10.7	136
Pakistan	2566	65.7	4.9	7.3	146
Myanmar	1817	65.7	3.9	9.4	149
Bangladesh	1785	69.2	4.8	8.1	146
Nepal	1137	69.1	3.2	8.9	157

1. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about some data regarding India and its neighboring countries for 2013.
2. What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
   Answer:
   The life expectancy at birth in India is 65.8 years.
3. What components are considered in this table?
   Answer:
   The components considered in the table are per capita income, life expectancy at birth, aver¬age years of schooling, expected years of schooling and HDI.
4. Which country ranks best in HDI?
   Answer:
   Sri Lanka ranks best in HDI with 92nd rank.
5. Which country is lacking in expected years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Pakistan is lacking in expected years of schooling.
6. Per capita income is shown in some symbol. What does it mean?
   Answer:
   The symbol given means dollar.
7. Which country has the lowest average years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Nepal has the lowest average years of schooling.
8. What is the per capita income of India ?
   Answer:
   The per capita income of India is $ 3,285.
9. What is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table?
   Answer:
   65.7 years is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table.
10. What is the difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling
    for India?
    Answer:
    The difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling for India is 6.3 years.

Question 15.
By studying the given map answer the following questions.

1. Name two countries which have low income.
   Answer:
   Zimbabwe and Kenya are the two countries with low income.
2. Which two countries have very high income?
   Answer:
   USA and Canada are the two countries which have very high income.
3. Name two countries with high income.
   Answer:
   Brazil and Russia are the two countries with high income.
4. Which two countries have medium income?
   Answer:
   India and Egypt are the two countries which have medium income.

Question 16.
Prepare a pamphlet on Promoting Girl Education.
Answer:

PROMOTING GIRL EDUCATION

Girls and boys in the society are equal but many of the parents give less importance to girl education compared to boys. This treatment of girls and boys in different ways is called gender bias. Some parents feel that boy is income and girl is expenditure. After marriage also the in-law’s family of the bride normally gives very less importance to her education. This is the wrong notion that the people have. It is to be removed.
The notion is to be changed. Many women have come forward to discharge their duties in political, educational and administrative areas. They are proving that they can do everything. In education also many girls are getting good results and ranks. Their number in civil services and other competitive examinations is rapidly increasing. If a girl is educated, she can manage her family herself well.
She can educate her children.
Many women now are district collectors or police officers and administrative officers and a few banks are being run under the leadership of female authorities. Many departments are under their control. For many years it has been a custom that the women have to work at kitchen but it is disproved, if they were given choice to do something they can do it as we expected.
All the parents should send their daughters to schools to study. They should be given an opportunity to show their intellect. All the parents should understand that their notion is to be
changed and think positively about their daughters’ future.

Question 17.
Write a paragraph after reading the table.
Answer:
Comparison of two countries

Name of the country	Monthly incomes of citizens in 2014 (in Rupees)
Country A	1	II	III	IV	V	Average
	9,500	10500	9,800	10000	10200	10,000
Country B	500	500	500	500	48000	10,000

According to this table in the country ‘A’, all the five persons are earning mostly equal monthly income. In the country ‘B’ the first four persons are earning only five hundred each but the fifth person is earning forty eight thousand rupees per month. If you are the fifth one it is OK but if you are one among the first four it will be worst to live in. If we consider the average, it will be the same as ten thousand per person per month. In these two countries the country A has more equitable distribution of income.
In many countries more income is there with a few persons. Many people in the countries are poor. They don’t have minimum amount of income for their livelihoods. In the above table the average income of the two countries is the same but in B it is not equally distributed. The Gross Domestic Product is to be distributed among the people of the country that means the poor also have to get their share in the country. The gap between the poor and the rich is to be removed and so the society of equality emerged.

Question 18.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu.
   Answer:
   Kudankulam
2. Schooling Revolution took place in the state.
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh
3. Draw the Indian standard time.
   Answer:
   82 1/2° E longitude.
4. Sahyadri Range.
5. Islands in Bay of Bengal.
   Answer:
   Andoman & Nicobar
6. Locate any one of Hill station.
   Answer:
   Nainital
7. River which is flowing through a rift valley.
   Answer:
   Narmada
8. The Hill Station located near Nilgiris.
   Answer:
   Ooty
9. The largest river in South India.
   Answer:
   Godavari
10. The largest river in India.
    Answer:
    Ganga

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Here are the list of items that you can use for making a table on social movements. Draw a table based on them and find out similarities and differences amongst movements:
Main area of focus of the movement; location, main demands, modes of protest, important leaders; response from the state; possible impact on society.
Answer:

Question 2.
Kanayya, Ramya and Salma have a debate. They have different expectations. Whom would you agree with and give reasons, from the context of human rights? Ramya argues it is okay to restrict the freedom of the press, etc. but ensure people do not live in poverty. Salma argues it is food alone is not important but equally important to have freedom of press because there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country. Kanayya says, how will it make a difference if press belongs to the rich and powerful people, why would they cover things that ordinary people expect.
Answer:

1. I agree with Ramya.
2. She argues that food alone is not important but also to have freedom of press.
3. If we do not have freedom of press, there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country.
4. Now with globalization, world has become a tiny village.
5. People are coming to know and responding quickly in social media.
6. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
7. No one shall be subjected to inhuman or degrading treatment.
8. Protection of most human rights is important.

Question 3.
What are the basic features of social movements?
Answer:
The basic features of social movements :

1. They are based on values of justice, democracy and civil rights.
2. Protection of the cultural sphere.
3. The prevention of a change in societies structure and values.
4. Protection of livelihood and health.
5. Equal treatment in the society.
6. Protection from the consumption of alcohol and drugs.
7. Protection of the environment.
8. Protection of agricultural lands.

Question 4.
How is the role of the ordinary individuals described in the above case studies ?
Answer:

1. Without the participation of ordinary individuals any social movement cannot be a successful one.
2. They were the ones, who suffered and dejected.
3. They make their voices heard through their leaders.
4. They actively participate in marches, boycotts, processions planned by their leaders.
5. Nowadays they are making use of internet and social media to mobilise and fight for their cause.
6. They not only think of personal profits, hope for better future and sustainable environment.
7. They even oppose their own government and support the human rights of the sufferers.
8. Most movements involved them are peaceful in nature.

Question 5.
How are the rights of black people in the USA and Meira Paibi movements similar or different?
Answer:

1. The rights of black people in the USA are violated by law.
2. They are met with inhuman treatment.
3. They are discriminated in schools, transport facilities, job, housing and even in voting righ/s.
4. But they are given right to freedom of movement.
5. In Meira Paibi movements, the most suffered are women.
6. Their right to life, liberty and security of person are taken away by special protection law.
7. They are subjected to cruel and degrading treatment.
8. Their men and children are detained on no fair cause.
9. They are not even given the right to freedom of movement.
10. Government has yet to take a decision on Meira Paibi’s demands.

Question 6.
Democracies have been identified as most prominent political systems across the world.
Do you think it has been able to take care of all expectations of people. Based on the examples cited in these chapters, write a short note on ‘democracy and social movements’.
Answer:
Democracy and Social Movements :

1. Social movements are mostly the outcome of dissatisfactions in the society.
2. The ruling democracies are not able to fulfil the expectations of people.
3. Some section or the other in the society is suffering with denial of human rights or social justice.
4. Their ire is augmented and shapes into a movement.
5. When governments are after nuclear arms and not providing peace and security to people usually people resent it and movements come up.
6. When people are discriminated, they revolt against administration. Likewise, whenever there is lack of social justice and when there is a threat to environmental system also movements come out.

Question 7.
Discuss and find out how movements mobilise people from across the globe like in the above instance of campaign to protest in the context of Bhopal gas tragedy.
Answer:

1. Movements seek a vision that is different.
2. Movements mobilise people from across the globe to protest various issues.
3. Black Americans organised themselves against the segregation and discrimination they faced.
4. People of Russia fought for human rights there, when free multiparty elections were not allowed, Press freedom was not allowed.
5. Massive protests took place against the policies of the govemments, which are war mongering.
6. Greenpeace movement in the USA protested the conduct of nuclear tests under water in the USA.
7. Many such movements related to environment were taken up and people supported them.
8. There are various platforms for them like, Facebook, twitter, e-mails, Internet newspaper, etc.

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 299

Question 1.
Try to read the famous speech of Dr King and write an essay on the ideals he set for American society and how he planned to achieve it.
Answer:
Martin Luther king set many ideals for the American society. Some of them are,
а) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Unalienable rights of life
e) Pursuit of happiness
f) freedom
g) Democracy etc.

He plans to achieve the ideals in the following ways:

1. Negroes should not relax until their demands are met.
2. Shaking the foundations of the government with revolt until the bright day of justice emerges.
3. The struggle should be filled with dignity and discipline.
4. By avoiding physical violence.
5. Trusting some white people who sympathize with the blacks.
6. He says that with faith all will be able to work together, pray together, struggle together, to go to jail together, to stand up for freedom together, knowing that there will be freedom one day.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 300

Question 2.
Make a table and list the demands of civil rights movement and possible solutions in your opinion.
Answer:

Demands of Civil Rights movements	Possible solutions
1. Passage of Civil Rights Act	1. All forms of segregation has to be repealed.
2. Programme for generation of employment	2. Government should look for promoting industries.
3. Full and fair employment.	3. Along with whites, Black Americans are also to be considered for employment.
4. Decent Housing	4. Government shall help the Blacks with construction of houses.
5. Right to vote	5. All the adults must be given right to vote.

Question 3.
The USA claims to be a democracy, yet it kept certain groups of people segregated, till middle of last century. Discuss how the idea of democracy need to be more inclusive in our context.
Answer:

1. The USA claims to be a democracy.
2. It practised segregation, till the middle of last century.
3. Democracies cannot afford to alienate their subjects.
4. They cannot judge a person by the colour of the skin.
5. They cannot shy away the protection of equal rights to all subjects.
6. Democracy in this context needed to be more inclusive.
7. All the black people are to be treated on same footing with others.

Question 4.
Why do we hear different voices within a movement? Can you identify differences in them?
Answer:

1. People have differences of opinions, hence we hear different voices within a movement.
2. In American Civil Rights Movement two voices arose. They were –
   a) Many people agreed with Dr King that it was possible to achieve equality for all people through peaceful means.
   b) Many others like “Malcom X” thought that Blocks should fight for independence from white rule and for that they have to use all means including armed conflict.

Question 5.
Can you think of similarity or differences in the nature of political system in the USA and the USSR and how was their response to people’s rights?
Answer:

Political System in the USA	Political System in the USSR
1. Democratic Government.	1. Socialist system of Government.
2. Freedom of press / media present.	2. Freedom of press/media is not present
3. Movement of ordinary people is allowed.	3. Movement of ordinary people is not allowed.
4. No control over people activities.	4. Kept close control of people activities.
5. Segregation laws are followed.	5. No such laws in force.
6. Civil Rights Act was passed and successfully implemented.	6. Glasnost brought greater freedom for the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 301

Question 6.
“We Won’t Go”
America has a law which requires all able bodied citizens to enroll in the army for a short period. During the Vietnam War, thousands of citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam. Let us read about one such protest refusal. This is a statement that appeared in a newspaper, Harvard Crimson:

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences. We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Some thought that these people were being un-patriotic while others thought that they were justified in refusing to participate in an unjust war. Discuss the two points of view in the class and write a short note of arguments of both sides and your own viewpoint.
Answer:

1. Vietnam conflict was the outcome of the Cold War between the USA and the USSR.
2. Citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam.
3. The US war with Vietnam was inhuman, hence the majority of the people opposed it.
4. People who hate “Socialistic Society” and “Communism” supported the decision of the US to continue the war with Vietnam.
5. In my opinion, I oppose the war with Vietnam as it was against democratic principles and human rights.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 303

Question 7.
What were the different types of responses to the weaponisation?
Answer:

1. Nuclear arms race intensified after the end of Vietnam war in 1975.
2. More and more countries competed with each other to stock pile nuclear arms.
3. Arms producing companies and governments created a war panic among the people.
4. They created war like situation.
5. People believed that war mongering and arms race made the world more unsafe.
6. It also increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
7. Massive protests took place against these policies of governments.

Question 8.
If people from different countries meet each other, there would be less chances of war, than the governments alone deciding the policy with each other. Would you agree with this statement? Give reasons for the answer.,
Answer:

1. Usually countries formulate their policies.
2. People of countries meet together and avoiding war is distant from reality.
3. Most countries in the world are democracies.
4. People vest their powers through vote to their representatives who could administer them.
5. It may be looking simple but, it definitely may not be feasible.
6. So, I cannot agree with this statement.

Question 9.
Explain how environmental issues can affect people of nations who may have no role in deciding the location of nucelar plants, polluting factories, etc. How do you deal with such situation?
Answer:

1. Usually people of the nation are suffering lot, whenever there is a nuclear tragedy.
2. They really do not have any role in deciding the nuclear plant’s location or pollution factory.
3. That will be decided by their representatives and their secretaries.
4. They decide the locations taking into consideration, a lot of things like infrastructure, raw material, technology, etc.
5. To deal with these situations the governments should take all the protective measures.
6. In case of any adversity, they should respond well in time to support the people.
7. They should see that proper care is taken about the affected and fair compensations were distributed among the suffered people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 304

Question 10.
Look up the website of Greenpeace movement (http : //www.greenpeace.org/international) to find out about the issues they have been fighting for and how the methods they have used for fighting. Find out about the debates and controversies about this movement too.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 307

Question 11.
Is it impossible to build factories or mines or power plants without throwing out farmers or tribal people? What can be the alternatives? Discuss in your family and school on these issues.
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is impossible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material availability, they are to be set up like this.
3. Governments should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the farmers and tribals is also lied with the government.
5. They should plan of no damage to these sectors of people or the minimum.
6. In case of a compulsion, they must be given compensations like land, lump sums and employment.
7. More importantly, government should concentrate on viable alternatives to protect the environment also.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 308

Question 12.
What were the various strategies used by the social movement?
Answer:

1. Social Movements throughout the world used various strategies.
2. Civil Rights Movement in the USA used civil disobedience (Violating discriminatory laws peacefully) and boycott of discriminatory services (like buses which segregate whites and blacks)
3. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons.
4. Volunteers in the USA setout in a smallship “Green Peace’ in protest to underwater nuclear test of the USA.
5. People used international laws to fight against the problems that factory workers and women affected in Bhopal gas disaster.
6. Women led movements for social justice and human rights.
7. People organised movements in protest to pollution, global warming and environmental degradation.

Question 13.
How do the people in movement see the process of resettlement promises?
Answer:

1. People who stood to be displaced from the project, demanded a fair compensation not just to those who own land, but all those who lived there.
2. People realised that there was actually no adequate land available to compensate for the loss.
3. They alsobelieved that it was really not possible to rehabilitate the displaced people properly.
4. People began to realise that the problem was not compensation or rehabilitation but one of faulty notion of development.
5. A development which was based on unsustainable use of natural resources, only paved way for setting up industries and commercial farms at the cost of farming and tribal communities.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 310

Question 14.
Find out about more recent such struggles in West Bengal (Nandigram), Odisha (Niyamagiri) and Andhra Pradesh (Polavaram, Sompeta etc). Prepare a poster explaining the main features of the struggle in each of these cases.
Answer:
Nandigram (West Bengal):

1. Nandigram is a place on the bank of Haldia and quite far from Kolkata.
2. In 2007, March the state government of West Bengal sanctioned the land there to set up Special Economic Zone by Salim Group.
3. People of Nandigram resented it and led mass processions and struggle and 14 people died.

Niyamgiri (Odisha):

1. Niyamagiri hills in Odisha state are famous for their bauxite reserves. Odisha government gave permission to British mining company Vedanta to mine bauxite from there in July 2013.
2. People resented this, especially the tribals and organised many processions and later courts involved in this matter and by January 2014 the mining was disallowed.

Sompeta, Polavaram in combined (Andhra Pradesh):

1. Sompeta was a mandal in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and government at the state permitted Nagarjuna Company Limited to set up a thermal plant there in 2010.
2. People supported by many opposition party leaders protested the decision of government and for three years there were long drawn struggles.
3. Polavaram project is to be constructed on Godavari river spreading in East, West Godavari’s and Khammam. Government obtained permissions and started it in 2004.
4. It has submerging areas and affecting, zones in Chattisgarh and Odisha also. Many conflicts were there to complete it.

Question 15.
Fill in the para and line in the section below which you think is related to the violation or are in conflict with provisions of Human rights.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his [or her]rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him [or her]. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy,family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her] honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para ——– line ——–.
Articl e 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state [state here means country], Para ——– line ——–.
(2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his[or her country. Para ——– line ——–.
Answer:
Violations
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para 3 line 13.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para 3 line 6 and 7.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para 3 line 4.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her]honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para 3 line 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Seasons	Months according to the Indian calendar
Vasantha	Chaitra – Vaishaka
Grishma	Jyestha- Ashadha
Varsha	Sravana – Bhadra
Sharad	Aswayuja – Karthika
Hemantha	Margashira – Pushya
Shishira	Magha – Phalguna

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
a) Latitude		Closer to equator and has more rainfall
b) Relief	Even though place Y is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences low temperatures.

Answer:

Factors	Impact on weather Higher/Lower	Closer/Farther
1. Latitude	Higher latitudes cause temperature’s decrease. Lower latitudes cause increase in temperatures.	Closer to the equator and has more rainfall.
2. Relief	Even though place V is closer to the equator because of its higher altitude it experiences lower temperatures,	Closer to the equator does not affect much If the elevation of relief is more,

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Sector	Employment (%) 2011-12	Gross Domestic Product (%) 2011-12
Agriculture	49	16
Industry	24	26
Services	27	58

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Sectors	Employment (%)
	1972 – 73	2009 -10
Agriculture	74	53
Industrial	11	22
Service	15	25

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Year	Agriculture	Industry	Services
1972-73	74%	11%	15%
2008-09	53%	22%	25%

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Sector	Contribution (% of total)
	Employment	Gross Domestic Product
Organised	8	50
Unorganised	92	50
Total	100	100

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Intermediate goods	Final goods
1. These goods are meant for further production.	1. These are used for final consumption.
2. These are not included in GDP.	2. These are included in GDP.

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Service Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Sector	Employment
Agriculture	53%
Industry	22%
Service	25%

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Organised Sector Center	Unorganised Sector Center
1. It has some formal processes and procedures.	1. It has small and scattered units largely outside the control of government.
2. It gives security of employment.	2. Rules and regulations are not enforced here.
3. It has fixed number of work hours, overtime will be paid by the employer.	3. Jobs here are low-paid and non-regular.
4. It provides paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, medical benefits, etc.	4. There is no provision of overtime, paid leave, holidays leave due to sickness, etc.
5. It also ensures pensions.	5. When there is less work, some people are asked to leave.
6. It has workers of government, companies and large establishment.	6. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer or changes in the market situation.

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Sectors	2012	2013	2014	2015	2016	2017
Agriculture	16.85%	17.15%	16.79%	16.17%	16.28%	15.45%
Industry	29.4%	28.4%	27.66%	27.22%	26.58%	26.16%
Services	46.3%	46.7%	47.82%	47.91%	47.88%	48.93%

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

Sector	Employment (%)		Gross Domestic Product (%)
	1972- 73	2009-10	1972-73	2009-10
Agriculture	74%	53%	43%	17%
Industry	11%	22%	22%	26%
Services	15%	25%	35%	57%

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

Sector	Place of Residence		Sex		All workers
	Rural	Urban	Male	Female
Agriculture Sector	68	8	47	69	53
Industry Sector	17	34	34	16	22
Services Sector	15	58	19	15	25
Total	100	100	100	100	100

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Sl No.	Nameof the River	Origin or Birth place	Direction of Flow	Tributaries	Flow through which States

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Date	Area: Imphal		Area: Dwaraka
	Sunrise	Sunset	Sunrise	Sunset
Jan 3	05.53	16.34	07.19	18.07

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

1. Simla
2. Mussoorie
3. Raniket
4. Nainital

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Andaman and nicobar Islands	Lakshadweep Islands
Stretched in Bay of Bengal Some of these are of volcanic origin	Stretched in Arabian Sea Coral origin

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Eastern ghats	Western ghats
Less height	More height
Not continuous ranges	Continuous ranges
No origin of rivers	Rivers originate
Highest peak is Aroma Konda	Highest peak is Anaimudi

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
4. These Plains has lakes.

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

1. the Himadri
2. the Himachal
3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab plain
2. Ganga plain
3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

1. Bhabar
2. Terai
3. Bhangar
4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K₂, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

1. The Himalayas
2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Plains
5. The Desert
6. The Islands

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

The Himalayan Rivers	The Peninsular Rivers
1. The Himalayan Rivers are Perennial.	1. The Peninsular rivers are seasonal in nature.
2. They originated in Glaciers.	2. They originated in Western ghats and highlands.
3. Himalayan Rivers changes their way frequently.	3. These rivers has fixed course.
4. These rivers irrigate the northern plains.	4. These rivers irrigate the Deccan Plateau.
5. They made the northern plains fertile.	5. These rivers are straight.

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
   Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
   Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

1. There are two groups of islands in India.
2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Indo – Gangetic plain	Peninsular plateau
1. This plain area was formed due to deposition of sediments brought by rivers.	1. Plateau region was formed due to volcanic eruption.
2. It consists of alluvial soil.	2. It is mainly composed of the old crystalline, hard igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks.
3. It has fertile alluvial soils and flat surface.	3. It has a rugged surface.
4. It provides much irrigation facilities.	4. It also provides much irrigation facilities.
5. Plain regions have perennial rivers. ,	5. Plateau region does not have any perennial river.
6. Plains are rich in agriculture practice.	6. Plateau region is rich in mineral resources.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
6. India would have been a tropical desert.
7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Eastern Coastal Plains	Western Coastal Plains
1. Eastern coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the east between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.	1. Western coastal plains is a belt of plain region lying towards the west between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.
2. Eastern coastal plains are comparatively wider.	2. This belt of plains is narrow in width.
3. Eastern coastal plains are very fertile because rivers like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery deposit their sediments during delta formation.	3. Western coastal plains are less fertile because no major river is engaged in sediment deposition.
4. Eastern plains receive comparatively lesser rainfall.	4. Western plains receive more rainfall.
5. From north to south, Eastern coastal plains are divided into Utkal coast, Sircar coast and Coramandal coast.	5. From north to south, Western coastal plains are divided into Konkan coast, Canara coast and Malabar coast.

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Eastern Ghats	Western Ghats
1. The Eastern Ghats start from Bhuvaneswar in Odisha.	1. The Western Ghats start from Khandesh in Maharashtra.
2. They end at Nilgiris in the south.	2. They end at Kanyakumari.
3. They run parallel to some extent in the east coast.	3. They run parallel to the west coast.
4. They are nearer to the Bay of Bengal keeping away some distance.	4. They are nearer to the Arabian sea.
5. They have more number of gaps.	5. They have gaps.
6. They are less strongly built.	6. These are strongly built.
7. The coastal plain of the Eastern Ghats is wider than that of the Western Ghats.	7. The coastal plain of the Western Ghats is not as broad as that of the Eastern Ghats.
8. There are no dense forests in the Eastern Ghats when compared to those of the Western Ghats.	8. There are dense forests in the Western Ghats.
9. There are no rivers originating in Eastern Ghats.	9. The rivers Godavari and Krishna take origin in the Western Ghats.
10. The Eastern Ghats are dissected by rivers.	10. The Western Ghats are not dissected by rivers.
11. They have structural level and uniformity.	11. They have more rugged topography.
12. In Nilgiris they join the Western Ghats.	12. In Nilgiris they join the Eastern Ghats.

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

1. The Great Himalayas,
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Indian Desert
4. The Peninsular Plateau
5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Himalayan region	Peninsular region
1. The Himalayas are located in the northern region of our country.	1. The Peninsular region is located in the southern region of our country.
2. The Himalayas are young fold mountains.	2. The central Highlands are formed of low hills and plateaus.
3. Many great perennial rivers like the Indus, the Ganges and the Brahmaputra originate from the Himalayas.	3. Some great rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, the Mahanadi, the Tapati and the Narmada originate from these hills.
4. These are formed of the sedimentary rocks.	4. The central highlands are formed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
5. They are formed at the edge of the Indo- Gangetic plain.	5. They are formed at the edge of the Deccan plateau.
6. Important hill stations like – Shimla, Mussorie, Darjeeling, Nainital are found on the Himalayas.	6. Udagamandalam, Araku – Harsley hills are hill stations found in the Peninsula plateau region.
7. There are three parallel ranges a) Himadri b) Himachal and c) Shivaliks.	7. They consist of two divisions – Central high lands, Deccan plateau.
8. They run in west – east direction in the form of an arch.	8. The plateau is tilted towards east.

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
3. It is divided into 3 parts.
   a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
   b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
   c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
8. People may face many problems.
9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Ranges	Direction	Uaiaht	Speciality
Himadri	The Northernmost range	Above 6100 mts	Covered with snow Glacier are present Birth place of many rivers
Himachal	Situated to the South of Himadri	Between 3700­4500 mts.	Number of hill stations are located. Famous valleys like Kulu, Kangra are located.
Shivalik	The Southernmost range of the Himalayas	900-1100 mts.	Known as Jammu hills in Jammu and Kashmir and Mishmi hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
Purvanchal	The Easternmost range	Act as the Eastern boundary of India	Patkai hills, Naga hills Manipuri hills, Khasi hills and Mizo hills are part of the Purvanchal range.

Answer the following questions.

1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
   Answer:
   The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
   Answer:
   The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
   Answer:
   We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
   Answer:
   The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
   Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
5. The rivers here are not perennial.
6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
6. Luni is the only river in this area.
7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
3. Which river flows westwards?
   Answer:
   The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
   Answer:
   Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
   Answer:
   The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
   Answer:
   The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
   Answer:
   Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
   Answer:
   82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
   Answer:
   23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
   The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
4. Mention the location of India.
   Answer:
   India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
   Answer:
   Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
   Answer:
   Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

• Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
  Answer: Tibet
• Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Simla
• Highest peak in India.
  Answer: Mt-K₂
• Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Mishmi Hills
• This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
  Answer:
  Chotanagpur
• Rajmahal hills
  Triangular plateau.
  Answer:
  Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
• The southernmost tip of India.
  Answer:
  Kanya Kumari
• Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
  Answer:
  Rann of Kutch

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Using the following case study, explain the role of different Departments of the Government and citizens in the context of RTI. Also write how can the the RTI make functioning of the governments more transparent.

Following incident occurred in Chinnashankarampet of Medak district. Members of the Self Help Groups joined in Abhaya Hastam, Aam Aadmi schemes of the Rural Welfare Ministry of the State Government. Under this scheme their children who were students of classes 9 to 12 were eligible for scholarship of Rs. 1200. However for 3 years students have not been receiving the amount for the years during 2008-11. The students went to the IKP (Indira Kranthi Pathakam) office and enquired about it but the officers ignored their requests.

This came to the notice of the local newspapers. Now they applied to the officers concerned for the information with regard to the scholarships sanctioned. They asked about the number of beneficiaries and the amount sanctioned during 2008-09, 09-10 and 10-11. They got rqply in one week. The amount was 7 lakh rupees. It became clear from the RTI records that even though the amount was sanctioned, it was not distributed. When it was published in the newspapers the amount was distributed to 1167 children within 15 days.

Answer:
Following the case study above we can assess the role of the departments handling different schemes like SHG, IKP, Abhaya Hastam and Aam Aadmi, etc.
Having learnt of the knowledge of RTI and applying for information of the scholarships sanctioned helped the beneficiaries.
The RTI can make the functioning of the Government more transparent. Students who did not receive scholarships for 3 long years were given the same within 15 days. Not only that not providing information asks for punishment on the part of PIOs.

Question 2.
How do you think RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments?
“RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments”- Do you agree with this? Support your answer.
Answer:

1. In any democratic system, governments are responsible and accountable to people.
2. Earlier accountability of government departments and its functionaries were mostly limited to the elected representatives of people.
3. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
4. So, if there are any discrepancies, they will be brought out and who are responsible will be given punishments.
5. So, in this way government functioning can be bettered and monitored well.

Question 3.
What is identified as information? How is this generated in Government Departments? Would it include oral communication between senior and junior officers?
Answer:

1. According to RTI Act, information is defined as material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
2. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
3. The oral instructions or oral communication between senior and junior officers do not fall in this category.

Question 4.
Why are the State and Central Information Offices given autonomy?
Answer:

1. Every government offices have a Public Information Officer (PIO) and Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) and appellate authority in department.
2. All PIOs and APIOs of all departments and departmental appellate authorities are under autonomous appellate State Public Information Office with a State Public Information Commissioner (SPIC).
3. If a government department fall under Central government, PIOs are accountable to autonomous Central Information Office with a Central Public Information Commissioner (CPIC).
4. They are given autonomy because they need to deal with the PIOs who rejected to provide information.
5. They should not yield under any pressure that is why they must be independent.

Question 5.
This (RTI 2005) Act resembles the true spirit of democracy. How do you justify?
Answer:

1. In a democracy, it is the people’s money that is used for their welfare and therefore people have every right to know how this is being used.
2. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
3. In situations where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
4. Information is crucial to human development, and democratic rights.
5. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning and check the possibility of corrupt practices.
6. Thus, this Act (RTI Act of 2005) resembles the true spirit of democracy.

Question 6.
What steps have been taken to ensure that any citizen can access information from the different government departments in the country?
Answer:
Under the provisions of 2005 Act of RTI, public authorities are obliged to
a) maintain all information in a computerised format
b) publish all detailed information pertaining to the information some of it fbitn the Act as follows:

1. Every public authority shall
   a) Maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed.
   b) The authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation, functions and duties.
2. The powers and duties of its officers and employees to be published.
3. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability;
4. The rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees for discharging its functions.

Question 7.
How do you think the Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under the Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002, legal services authorities are constituted to provide free and legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities and to organize Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on an equal opportunity basis.
4. In this way, Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid.

Question 8.
What is the purpose of Lok Adalat?
Answer:

1. Lok Adalat meahs people’s court.
2. All are equal before law.
3. The Article 39A of the Constitution of India contains various provisions for settlement of disputes.
4. It is an act to constitute legal services, authorities to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
5. It is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice or not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
6. To organise Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.
7. This is the purpose of Lok Adalat.

(OR)

1. The main aim of Lok Adalat is to provide free legal aid to poor and weaker sections and also faster settlement of long pending cases on mutual consent.
2. Lok Adalat facilitates the peaceful, amicable, compromise or settlement of cases.
3. It is meant to reduce the burden of the courts.

Question 9.
What do you think on the eligible criteria for free legal services and nature of cases under this Act?
Answer:
i) Persons entitled to get free legal support are

1. A member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribe.
2. A victim of trafficking in human being or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. Persons who are victims of mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought earthquake and industrial disaster.
6. Industrial workers.
7. Persons in custody.
8. Persons with annual income of not more than Rs. 1 lakh

ii) Nature of cases under this Act.
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husbands and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

Question 10.
Compare and contrast the procedures of conflict/case resolution by the Village Community elders and by courts. Which do you prefer and why?
Answer:

1. In our country, it is common that conflicts in the villages and in the communities are addressed by the village/community elders.
2. They settle them in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing the various issues and concerns.
3. The nature of conflict and disputes and their origin are mostly known to the local people and village elders.
4. This facilitates to find out amicable solutions in a transparent way.
5. Now Lok Adalats are functioning to settle disputes/cases in an amicable atmosphere by mutual consent in the presence of legal experts, officials and non-officials, dignitaries.
6. People are now using it for expeditious and inexpensive justice.
7. It is an opportunity to settle long pending court cases through Lok Adalat in short time and without any expenses.
8. It is an old form of dispute/ conflict resolution system valid now also.

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 316

Question 1.
Discuss what could be the reason information would not include oral (instruction of a headmaster to a teacher.
Answer:

1. RTI Act has defined information as the following:
2. Material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models.
3. Data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
4. In this, the oral instructions are not included as they were not in written form.
5. Thus, the oral instruction of a headmaster to a teacher would not be included in information.

Question 2.
Imagine how would government departments would become more accountable when rules and regulations are followed within prescribed manner.
Answer:

1. Government departments have the responsibility to use the people’s money for their welfare.
2. For every department there are rules and regulations that are to be followed within a prescribed manner.
3. If all the departments follow them, automatically they will be more accountable to people.
4. Not only that their functioning would become transparent and free from corruption.
5. Machinery to monitoring them is essential and they must be given applause if they are behaving accountable to people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 318

Question 3.
According to this Act (RTI 2005), if any officer fails to give the specified information, she/he will have to pay the fine. Do you agree with this? Why?
Answer:

1. According to this Act, if any officer fails to give the specified information she/he will have to pay fine.
2. I do agree with it.
3. It prevents corruption.
4. It provides for accountability and transparency.
5. It prevents PIOs from shying away of information.
6. If a fine is imposed on one PIO then it acts as deterrent and most PIOs realise the impact of not giving information.
7. Apart from making the PIOs responsible in case of not providing information, they should be appreciated.

Question 4.
What type of information is not accessible to the citizens? What is the argument in favour of this?
Answer:

1. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. Matters that could be of strategic economic on scientific interest of the state in the context of foreign powers.
3. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commission.
4. It is correct on the part of government not to share the information that is vital and affect the country,. . . . ..
5. If information of strategic importance was disclosed and reached the hands of foreign powers, the damage that could be caused cannot be estimated.
6. Citizens should also have some self restraint and not to seek the information which causes the worry to National Government.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 320

Question 5.
What sort of opportunities are existing in our country for free legal services to the poor people who cannot afford to pay court fees and other related expenses?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002 Legal Services Authorities are constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
4. To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on equal opportunity basis.

Question 6.
What is the nature of cases and conflicts that can be addressed through free legal services?
Answer:

1. The legal services authority through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time without any expenses.
2. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases can be addressed through free legal service.
3. All types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc. can be settled amicably and permanently by Lok Adalats without any fees or expenses through free legal services.

Question 7.
Is there any mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts?
Answer:

1. There is one mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts.
2. Conflicts in villages/ communities are addressed by village/ community elders.
3. They resolute conflicts in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing various issues/ concerns.
4. The nature of conflicts/disputes and their origin are mostly known to village elders.
5. This facilitates to find out an amicable solution in a transparent way.
6. Thus outside the courts the conflicts/disputes are addressed and resoluted by village elders.

Question 8.
Do you support the Lok Adalats? If so, why?
Answer:

1. I support Lok Adalats because there is no court fee, if paid it will be refunded if the dispute is settled.
2. It has procedural flexibility and speedy trial of the disputes.
3. The parties of the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their council.
4. The Award by Lok Adalat is binding on the parties with a status of decree of civil court.
5. Provides free legal advice form the advocates.
6. Provides photocopies of judgements on free of cost.

 

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer: Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong?
a) Rivalry between the US and the USSR,
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war,
c) Triggering off an arms race,
d) An ideological war between the two super powers.
Answer:
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war.

Question 2.
Who amongst the following is not involved in The West Asian crisis?
a) Egypt
b) Indonesia
c) Britain
d) Israel
Answer:
b) Indonesia.

Question 3.
What was the nature of shift in power in the world after the Second World War?
Answer:

1. The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and imperialism.
2. After the war colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial powers exclusive access to the colonies.
3. In fact, Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the great depression.
4. Far from War theatres, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered.
5. The USSR coming out of its destruction was emerging as a Champion of anticolonial struggle.
6. In the post-war period the USA and the USSR have emerged as super powers.
7. The USA is the leader of the capitalist nations and the USSR is the leader of the communist nations.

(OR)
After the Second World War, the major shift in power is observed between two power blocs of USA and USSR.

1. The USA led an Anti – communist bloc based on capitalistic principles. It tried to prevent other countries from adopting communism.
2. The USSR led a communist bloc. It tried to bring other countries into its communist influence.
3. Both USA and USSR tried to expand their ideologies and check each other, resulted in the situation of cold war.
4. Newly independent countries formed an alliance called NAM that stood independently in international aspects away from both military blocs.

Question 4.
What are the different roles done by United Nations in order to build peace in the world?
Answer:

1. The UN started with a twin objectives of ensuring peace ever lasting and human development.
2. Charter emphasised on the need to preserve peace and prevent wars.
3. It recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affairs of country.
4. In cases of serious human rights violation or threat to world peace, the UN interferes.
5. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council.
6. UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
7. The special powers to great powers is a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
8. UN has been less successful in preventing wars.

Question 5.
Given the idea of democracy do you think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions?
Answer:

1. Given the idea of democracy, also, I think a few countries should have special powers in making decisions.
2. The very existence of forums like UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
3. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
4. At times, these powers may be used to block any action against them.
5. Sometimes these powers save many countries and territories of theirs. As all four permanent members intended to annex Kashmir to Pakistan. Russia used veto power to stop it and did the favour to India.

(OR)
Given the idea of democracy, I think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions is not correct. This is opposite to concept of democracy.

Question 6.
How were the super powers benefited by military alliances?
Answer:

1. Super powers strengthened themselves by creating military alliances.
2. They maintained a constrained relationship acting as a deterrent on each other.
3. With alliances they expanded their influence.
4. They gained the access to the vital resources like oil and minerals.
5. They have markets for their products and places to invest safely their capital.
6. They got military bases to launch their troops and weapons.
7. They could spread their ideology.
8. They gain economic support to pay huge military expenses.

Question 7.
How did Cold War produce arms race as well as arms control?
Answer:

1. Both the USSR and the USA spent huge amounts of money to conduct research into weapons.
2. They build arsenals of devastating nuclear arms and missiles.
3. They could strike across the continents.
4. They had enough nuclear arms to destroy the entire earth many times over.
5. Gradually their allies like Britain, France and China too built nuclear arsenals.
6. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.
7. Many times war looked imminent but got defused somehow through diplomacy.
8. There were many flash points which made everyone believe of the triggering off another world war.
9. But when both ultimately realised the implication of a nuclear war both started working for arms control and many arms control treaties were signed like CTBT, NPT, etc.
10. Both decided to follow the logic of deterrence which meant that both have the capacity to attack and cause so much destruction to threaten the existence of the other. But neither is willing to start the war due to the amount of destruction.

Question 8.
Why did West Asia become a center of tensions in the world?
Answer:

1. West Asia became a center of tensions in the world.
2. The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are the main cause for it.
3. In Palestine is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
4. Jews and Arabs want it at any cost.
5. Matters were also complicated by the discovery of massive oil reserves.
6. Both the US and the USSR wanted to bring it under their sphere of influence.
7. In 1947, UN created Jerusalem for Jews from Palestine.
8. Arabs refused to recognize it as a legitimate state.
9. Israel took policies that insulted Arabs.
10. Arabs formed suicide squads for causing explosions in public places.
11. The region has been constantly in a state of war and terrorist attacks.

Question 9.
By the end of the 20th century there is only one single power that dominates the world. In this context what do you think would be the role of NAM?
Answer:

1. In the current scenario the USA remains a major super-power and China is in the process of becoming the biggest threat to the US supremacy of world affairs. Russia is also slowly climbing back, for its joint policy of respecting anti-US policy in the security council, by the use of the veto along with China.
2. The Nam has in recent years often criticised the USA while backing self-determination of Puerto Rico and Western Sahara. It can play a strong role in devising methods to foster co-operation among these nations.
3. The Nam can also act as a guide and over seen of the condition of Human Rights in some of the member states who have rather poor human rights records.
4. NAM is a great way to ensure that issues like Palestine and crises in Somalia and Sudan get a fair and long-lasting solution and that the super-powers don’t unduly interfere in these issues to meet their vested interest. Thus NAM exists and will continue to exist as a strong organisation to reckon with.

Question 10.
“Formation of NAM was not merely in the context of military alliances but also in the context of economic policies” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Non Alignment was established as an international organisation with an aim to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
2. NAM helped the newly independent nations assert their autonomy in international affairs in a world torn between the two super powers.
3. NAM summit at Algiers in 1973 resolved to constitute 5 different trusts to strengthen the economic development of non aligned countries and assist in their reconstruction activities.
4. In the Hawana summit conference in 1979 it also appealed to take measures to minimise the economic differences between the developed and under developed countries.
5. Thus, it also worked for economical development of NAM countries.
6. During 1970s and early 1980s, the NAM also sponsored campaigns for restructuring commercial relations between developed and developing nations, namely the NIEO.
7. The Djakarta Summit 1992 allowed the movement to shift its focus in a direction that also enabled it to work a cross to grouping such as the G-7 and the EU.

Question 11.
Make a table to show relation between India and neighbouring countires with following items :
Answer:

Neighbouring Country	Issues of Conflicts	Events of War	Events of Help and Cooperation
China	Tibet to be a buffer zone but China annexed India gave an asy­lum to Dalai Lama Aksai-Chin area and much of Arunachal Pradesh – China claims it is its.	1962 October China invaded unilaterally Even declared unila­teral ceasefire.	Strategic as well as economic advantages. Two are rising powers of Asia. Ambitious major world economic power. Peace and tranquility at borders.
Pakistan	Kashmir is the main bone of contention.	1947-48 regarding Kashmir. 1965 regarding Kashmir. Dec. 1971 Liberation of East Pakistan 1999 Kargil War.	Build bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges. Secularism, demo­cracy and freedom will enable a greater understanding and cooperation between the people of two countries.
Bangladesh	Sharing of river waters of Ganga and Brahmaputra.Large scale illegal migration from Bangladesh to India. Bangladesh opposed fencing of border	No war	Cooperation in economic front. Indian look East policy makes Bangladesh integral part. Cooperation on disaster manage­ment. Bangladesh rewar­ded many Indians helped in war.
Sri Lanka	Treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by Sri Lanka. Influx of Sri Lanka Tamils to India.	No war	Cultural, ethnic and economic relations. Peace maintenance agreement between India & Sri Lanka.

Question 12.
“The ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.” Justify.
Answer:

1. Since times immemorial, India and Sri Lanka have cultural, ethnic and economic relations.
2. A major irritant in the relation between the two countries has been the treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by the Sri Lankan government.
3. The large scale influx of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees into India posed a special problem.
4. India made an agreement with Sri Lanka and Tamil militants to maintain peace on the land.
5. India sent its armies to keep peace in Sri Lanka and it caused the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.
6. Thus, ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 283

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘decolonization’?
Answer:

1. During the 18th and 19th centuries, some European countries set up colonies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
2. They used those colonies as cheap raw material suppliers and markets for their finished goods.
3. They waged World War keeping control over their colonies.
4. After the Second World War, colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial policies.
5. Under these conditions, old powers like Britain had no choice but to grant freedom to their old colonies.
6. This granting of freedom to old colonies is called ‘decolonisation1.

Question 2.
How do you think the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War, colonial states granted freedom to their colonies.
2. As these countries became free they faced a world greatly torn between Capitalism and Communism.
3. They were continuously under the pressure to choose between the two rather than follow their own paths of development.
4. They also got an opportunity to negotiate by playing one power against the other.
5. Thus, the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 284

Question 3.
Do you think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries?
Answer:
Yes, I think that wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchange between countries.
(OR)

1. I don’t think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries.
2. Most of the wars are fought for ideological differences, colonial advantages, and occupation of other territories as an achievement.
3. Every country fought or allied with it has its own calculations and agenda.
4. Though with the central groups, Italy fought against Germany in the 1st World War.
5. Though made a peace treaty with Russia, Hitler invaded it during the Second World War.
6. Wars may to some extent help for the cultural exchanges between the countries.

Question 4.
According to some the special powers given to the five powers is undemocratic and should be abolished while some others feel that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council and five nations have special status within it.
2. Any decision taken by council can be vetoed by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
3. However, the very existence of UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self control.
4. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
5. So, I support the view that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 289

Question 5.
What was the main purpose of 1955 Bandung conference?
Answer:

1. The leaders of newly independent states felt the need for a change from the insecure and tense situation caused by power blocs.
2. So in 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
3. It was the first Afro-Asian conference represented by 29 nations.
4. Its aim was to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.

Question 6.
How did super powers react for the principles of Non-alignment?
Answer:

1. NAM helped the newly emerging countries to bargain for space and assistance from the super powers by playing one against the other.
2. To some extent it also ease tensions amongst the NAM countries.
3. Both the blocs looked at NAM with suspicion.
4. The US regarded the NAM as being closer to the USSR on wider international issues.
5. When Soviet invaded Afghanistan NAM could not stop it.
6. Thus, the super powers reacted for the principles of Non Alignment Movement.

Question 7.
Why were Non-Aligned Nations called third world countries?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War the world divided into 2 power blocs under the USA and the USSR.
2. So these two are considered two different worlds.
3. Many countries were newly emerged as countries, which were before the colonies of colonial states.
4. All of these countries joined Non-Alignment Movement.
5. So these Non Aligned Nations were called ‘third world’.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 291

Question 8.
What were the reasons for the conflict between Arabs and Israelites?
Answer:

1. The conflict between Arabs and Jews is mainly related to the occupation of Palestine.
2. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
3. The Jews considered Palestine as their Promised Land.
4. In Europe they were the persecuted community as Christians considered them responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
5. The Jews through ‘Zionist Movement’ trying to unite Jews over the world.
6. The discovery of massive oil reserves made the US and the USSR to enter the dispute.

Question 9.
Why did Egypt support the Palestinians during the conflict?
Answer:

1. In 1947 UN divided Palestine and created Israel for Jews.
2. The Arabs did not agree to giving up their homeland.
3. The Arabs were forced to leave their homes and properties in Israel and refugees to Arab states.
4. Egypt formed suicide squads to cause explosion in Israel.
5. Egyptians are also Arabs, that’s why they are vengeful.

Question 10.
Why do you think some Palestinians adopted the path of terrorism? What was its outcome?
Answer:

1. Israelites forced Arabs out of their homes and properties.
2. Egyptians caused explosions in public places in Israel to support Arabs.
3. These were attacks and counter attacks between Israel and Egypt.
4. Israel occupied the territories of Gaza, Golan Heights and the West Bank.
5. Palestinian Liberation Organisation led by Yasser Arafat started in Jordan carried out plane hijacking holding hostage of Israeli Olympic squad and killing many of the sportspersons.
6. The result is Israel used such attacks to mount further attacks on them and refused to implement the promises it had made.

Question 11.
Find out about the condition of Palestinians who are living in refugee camps and constantly facing warfare and poverty.
Answer:

1. The condition of Palestinians who are living in refuge camps are very pitiable.
2. They are constantly facing warfare and poverty.
3. Refugee camps are not providing them sufficient facilities to lead a happy life.
4. Palestinians became the victims of world politics, especially of the super powers.
5. The Palestinian are still fighting for their homeland and peace under very difficult conditions of exile and warfare.
6. Though with the intervention of UN, the problems are not yet solved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 292

Question 12.
What are the similarities and difference between Arab Socialist Nationalism and Religious Nationalism?
Answer:

Arab Socialist Nationalism	Religious Nationalism
1. In 1968 a coup took place in Iraq in which Saddam Hussein came to power.	1. In many cases the opposition to the US and the US backed regimes took religious colours.
2. They meant by socialism, the nationa­lization of oil resources and the use of revenues by the state to fund welfare measures for the citizens.	2. Nationalist forces fostered the idea of establishing religious orthodaxy in those countries.
3. These combined welfare measures with autocratic and dictatorial rule of a ruler or a smail group.	3. In 1979 in Iran a new joint government of Shia Islamic clerics and elected leaders started.
4. These regimes did not allow opposi­tion or democratic protest against themselves.	4. Beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.

Question 13.
Find out more about the developments in Iran and Afghanistan under the Taliban to understand how religious states work.
Answer:
Afghanistan:

1. The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops established an extremist Islamic state.
2. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts.
3. In many cases they meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.
4. The beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs which resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.
5. Some Arab terrorists hijacked 2 aircrafts in the US and crashed into the World Trade Centre in New York killing thousands of people.

Iran:
The offical religion of the Islamic Republic of Iran is “Shiaism”. Iran explicitly aims to support and lead the entire Muslim world. The Shariah provides all the laws needed for the Islamic state from Allah.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 293

Question 14.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. The term polarity refers to the world that was divided between two power blocs.
2. It was the period between 1945 and 1991.
3. The two power blocs are Communist power block under USSR and democratic Capitalist power bloc under USA. This, situation is called as bipolarity.
4. But in the year 1991 USSR was disintegrated and Russia was no more a super power.
5. From 1991 the world became unipolar i.e., one super power, America.
6. These are the different terms of bipolarity and unipolarity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 294

15. Read the passage on Page 293 (During the colonial resolved till today.) and answer the following questions.
a. Do you think it was correct for India to give refuge to the Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers?
Answer:

1. I think it is correct for India to give refuge to Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers.
2. China overpowered the Tibet and eschewed its sovereignty.
3. Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers are fighting for their autonomy.
4. According to Panchsheel, China agreed to not interfere into the sovereignty of other countries.
5. It violated the agreement and annexed Tibet.

b. Do you think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet?
Answer:

1. I don’t think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet.
2. It may believe that a small sovereign country in the neighborhood may be a threat.
3. Opponents may bring it in their control or under their sphere of influence.
4. So it might have overpowered it and annexed.
5. Its action, anyway, was not justified.

Question 16.
To what extent do you think both the countries can forget about their past conflicts over the boundaries and develop meaningful cooperation and friendship?
Answer:

1. After the 1962 Indo-Chinese war, it took more than a decade to restore diplomatic normalcy.
2. Being rising powers of Asia, both have strategic as well as economic advantages.
3. Both are ambitious to be major world economic and political powers.
4. They also see each other as economic and political competitors.
5. Both have taken measure to maintain peace and tranquility at the borders.
6. So they have to forget about their post conflicts over borders and develop meaningful friendship and cooperation.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 296

Question 17.
What steps do you think both India and Pakistan should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. First India and Pakistan should leave the conflicts behind which were perpetual right from the partition.
2. They should seek the help of UN over the issue of Kashmir and agree for mutual amicable settlement.
3. Pakistan should stop her religious terrorism and trained militant infiltration into India.
4. Pakistan should keep herself away from theocratic rule and military coups and belief should be kept in elections and democracy.
5. Both countries should continue with all present trade, economic, cultural, sports, film, etc. relations. In addition to, help each other in combating terrorism, eradication of poverty, assistance in technology, medicine, etc.

Question 18.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both the countries?
(Or)
Why the peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries? Explain, keeping in view the recent developments.
Answer:

1. Peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries.
2. Both of them are spending huge amounts on defence and strategic nuclear arsenal.
3. The division of the country itself created mistrust among the countries and it is mounted now.
4. For social, political and economical development of the both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 19.
Many small countries feel that their larger neighbours act like ‘big brothers’. What do you think is meant by this?
Answer:

1. Many small countries feel that their neighbours act like ‘big brothers’.
2. They meant that larger neighbours are trying to control them.
3. They feel that neighbours are doing this to pretend that they are doing it for the benefit of small country.
4. They meant that ‘Big brother’ is watching them i.e., Big brother knew what small countries did.
5. Thus, small countries treat their larger neighbours as’Big brothers’.

(OR)

This means the larger neighbouring countries will work for the good of the small countries as a family members.

Question 20.
Look at the map of India and Bangladesh and see why cooperation between the two countries is of vital importance to both.
Answer:

1. Bangladesh is surrounded by Indian states.
2. In between many Indian states there is Bangladesh.
3. So there should be cooperation between the two countries.
4. It is of vital importance for both the countries.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 297

Question 21.
Compare the support of India to Bangladesh and its role in Sri Lanka – Do you think the situation was similar or different?
Answer:

1. Bangladesh, erstwhile East Pakistan is physically distant from parent West Pakistan.
2. The people led a liberation movement nearly for 8 months and then India supported her cause.
3. Thus, Bangladesh was formed as new nation.
4. Whereas the situation in Sri Lanka is different.
5. Indian Tamils, an integral part of Sri Lanka but were meted out injustice based on their language and race.
6. The interference of India was not appreciated by both Sri Lanka government and the Tamils fighting for their rights.
7. So, the situation in Sri Lanka is different from that of Bangladesh.