Category: Class 10

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Here are the list of items that you can use for making a table on social movements. Draw a table based on them and find out similarities and differences amongst movements:
Main area of focus of the movement; location, main demands, modes of protest, important leaders; response from the state; possible impact on society.
Answer:

Question 2.
Kanayya, Ramya and Salma have a debate. They have different expectations. Whom would you agree with and give reasons, from the context of human rights? Ramya argues it is okay to restrict the freedom of the press, etc. but ensure people do not live in poverty. Salma argues it is food alone is not important but equally important to have freedom of press because there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country. Kanayya says, how will it make a difference if press belongs to the rich and powerful people, why would they cover things that ordinary people expect.
Answer:

1. I agree with Ramya.
2. She argues that food alone is not important but also to have freedom of press.
3. If we do not have freedom of press, there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country.
4. Now with globalization, world has become a tiny village.
5. People are coming to know and responding quickly in social media.
6. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
7. No one shall be subjected to inhuman or degrading treatment.
8. Protection of most human rights is important.

Question 3.
What are the basic features of social movements?
Answer:
The basic features of social movements :

1. They are based on values of justice, democracy and civil rights.
2. Protection of the cultural sphere.
3. The prevention of a change in societies structure and values.
4. Protection of livelihood and health.
5. Equal treatment in the society.
6. Protection from the consumption of alcohol and drugs.
7. Protection of the environment.
8. Protection of agricultural lands.

Question 4.
How is the role of the ordinary individuals described in the above case studies ?
Answer:

1. Without the participation of ordinary individuals any social movement cannot be a successful one.
2. They were the ones, who suffered and dejected.
3. They make their voices heard through their leaders.
4. They actively participate in marches, boycotts, processions planned by their leaders.
5. Nowadays they are making use of internet and social media to mobilise and fight for their cause.
6. They not only think of personal profits, hope for better future and sustainable environment.
7. They even oppose their own government and support the human rights of the sufferers.
8. Most movements involved them are peaceful in nature.

Question 5.
How are the rights of black people in the USA and Meira Paibi movements similar or different?
Answer:

1. The rights of black people in the USA are violated by law.
2. They are met with inhuman treatment.
3. They are discriminated in schools, transport facilities, job, housing and even in voting righ/s.
4. But they are given right to freedom of movement.
5. In Meira Paibi movements, the most suffered are women.
6. Their right to life, liberty and security of person are taken away by special protection law.
7. They are subjected to cruel and degrading treatment.
8. Their men and children are detained on no fair cause.
9. They are not even given the right to freedom of movement.
10. Government has yet to take a decision on Meira Paibi’s demands.

Question 6.
Democracies have been identified as most prominent political systems across the world.
Do you think it has been able to take care of all expectations of people. Based on the examples cited in these chapters, write a short note on ‘democracy and social movements’.
Answer:
Democracy and Social Movements :

1. Social movements are mostly the outcome of dissatisfactions in the society.
2. The ruling democracies are not able to fulfil the expectations of people.
3. Some section or the other in the society is suffering with denial of human rights or social justice.
4. Their ire is augmented and shapes into a movement.
5. When governments are after nuclear arms and not providing peace and security to people usually people resent it and movements come up.
6. When people are discriminated, they revolt against administration. Likewise, whenever there is lack of social justice and when there is a threat to environmental system also movements come out.

Question 7.
Discuss and find out how movements mobilise people from across the globe like in the above instance of campaign to protest in the context of Bhopal gas tragedy.
Answer:

1. Movements seek a vision that is different.
2. Movements mobilise people from across the globe to protest various issues.
3. Black Americans organised themselves against the segregation and discrimination they faced.
4. People of Russia fought for human rights there, when free multiparty elections were not allowed, Press freedom was not allowed.
5. Massive protests took place against the policies of the govemments, which are war mongering.
6. Greenpeace movement in the USA protested the conduct of nuclear tests under water in the USA.
7. Many such movements related to environment were taken up and people supported them.
8. There are various platforms for them like, Facebook, twitter, e-mails, Internet newspaper, etc.

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 299

Question 1.
Try to read the famous speech of Dr King and write an essay on the ideals he set for American society and how he planned to achieve it.
Answer:
Martin Luther king set many ideals for the American society. Some of them are,
а) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Unalienable rights of life
e) Pursuit of happiness
f) freedom
g) Democracy etc.

He plans to achieve the ideals in the following ways:

1. Negroes should not relax until their demands are met.
2. Shaking the foundations of the government with revolt until the bright day of justice emerges.
3. The struggle should be filled with dignity and discipline.
4. By avoiding physical violence.
5. Trusting some white people who sympathize with the blacks.
6. He says that with faith all will be able to work together, pray together, struggle together, to go to jail together, to stand up for freedom together, knowing that there will be freedom one day.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 300

Question 2.
Make a table and list the demands of civil rights movement and possible solutions in your opinion.
Answer:

Question 3.
The USA claims to be a democracy, yet it kept certain groups of people segregated, till middle of last century. Discuss how the idea of democracy need to be more inclusive in our context.
Answer:

1. The USA claims to be a democracy.
2. It practised segregation, till the middle of last century.
3. Democracies cannot afford to alienate their subjects.
4. They cannot judge a person by the colour of the skin.
5. They cannot shy away the protection of equal rights to all subjects.
6. Democracy in this context needed to be more inclusive.
7. All the black people are to be treated on same footing with others.

Question 4.
Why do we hear different voices within a movement? Can you identify differences in them?
Answer:

1. People have differences of opinions, hence we hear different voices within a movement.
2. In American Civil Rights Movement two voices arose. They were –
   a) Many people agreed with Dr King that it was possible to achieve equality for all people through peaceful means.
   b) Many others like “Malcom X” thought that Blocks should fight for independence from white rule and for that they have to use all means including armed conflict.

Question 5.
Can you think of similarity or differences in the nature of political system in the USA and the USSR and how was their response to people’s rights?
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 301

Question 6.
“We Won’t Go”
America has a law which requires all able bodied citizens to enroll in the army for a short period. During the Vietnam War, thousands of citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam. Let us read about one such protest refusal. This is a statement that appeared in a newspaper, Harvard Crimson:

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences. We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Some thought that these people were being un-patriotic while others thought that they were justified in refusing to participate in an unjust war. Discuss the two points of view in the class and write a short note of arguments of both sides and your own viewpoint.
Answer:

1. Vietnam conflict was the outcome of the Cold War between the USA and the USSR.
2. Citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam.
3. The US war with Vietnam was inhuman, hence the majority of the people opposed it.
4. People who hate “Socialistic Society” and “Communism” supported the decision of the US to continue the war with Vietnam.
5. In my opinion, I oppose the war with Vietnam as it was against democratic principles and human rights.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 303

Question 7.
What were the different types of responses to the weaponisation?
Answer:

1. Nuclear arms race intensified after the end of Vietnam war in 1975.
2. More and more countries competed with each other to stock pile nuclear arms.
3. Arms producing companies and governments created a war panic among the people.
4. They created war like situation.
5. People believed that war mongering and arms race made the world more unsafe.
6. It also increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
7. Massive protests took place against these policies of governments.

Question 8.
If people from different countries meet each other, there would be less chances of war, than the governments alone deciding the policy with each other. Would you agree with this statement? Give reasons for the answer.,
Answer:

1. Usually countries formulate their policies.
2. People of countries meet together and avoiding war is distant from reality.
3. Most countries in the world are democracies.
4. People vest their powers through vote to their representatives who could administer them.
5. It may be looking simple but, it definitely may not be feasible.
6. So, I cannot agree with this statement.

Question 9.
Explain how environmental issues can affect people of nations who may have no role in deciding the location of nucelar plants, polluting factories, etc. How do you deal with such situation?
Answer:

1. Usually people of the nation are suffering lot, whenever there is a nuclear tragedy.
2. They really do not have any role in deciding the nuclear plant’s location or pollution factory.
3. That will be decided by their representatives and their secretaries.
4. They decide the locations taking into consideration, a lot of things like infrastructure, raw material, technology, etc.
5. To deal with these situations the governments should take all the protective measures.
6. In case of any adversity, they should respond well in time to support the people.
7. They should see that proper care is taken about the affected and fair compensations were distributed among the suffered people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 304

Question 10.
Look up the website of Greenpeace movement (http : //www.greenpeace.org/international) to find out about the issues they have been fighting for and how the methods they have used for fighting. Find out about the debates and controversies about this movement too.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 307

Question 11.
Is it impossible to build factories or mines or power plants without throwing out farmers or tribal people? What can be the alternatives? Discuss in your family and school on these issues.
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is impossible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material availability, they are to be set up like this.
3. Governments should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the farmers and tribals is also lied with the government.
5. They should plan of no damage to these sectors of people or the minimum.
6. In case of a compulsion, they must be given compensations like land, lump sums and employment.
7. More importantly, government should concentrate on viable alternatives to protect the environment also.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 308

Question 12.
What were the various strategies used by the social movement?
Answer:

1. Social Movements throughout the world used various strategies.
2. Civil Rights Movement in the USA used civil disobedience (Violating discriminatory laws peacefully) and boycott of discriminatory services (like buses which segregate whites and blacks)
3. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons.
4. Volunteers in the USA setout in a smallship “Green Peace’ in protest to underwater nuclear test of the USA.
5. People used international laws to fight against the problems that factory workers and women affected in Bhopal gas disaster.
6. Women led movements for social justice and human rights.
7. People organised movements in protest to pollution, global warming and environmental degradation.

Question 13.
How do the people in movement see the process of resettlement promises?
Answer:

1. People who stood to be displaced from the project, demanded a fair compensation not just to those who own land, but all those who lived there.
2. People realised that there was actually no adequate land available to compensate for the loss.
3. They alsobelieved that it was really not possible to rehabilitate the displaced people properly.
4. People began to realise that the problem was not compensation or rehabilitation but one of faulty notion of development.
5. A development which was based on unsustainable use of natural resources, only paved way for setting up industries and commercial farms at the cost of farming and tribal communities.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 310

Question 14.
Find out about more recent such struggles in West Bengal (Nandigram), Odisha (Niyamagiri) and Andhra Pradesh (Polavaram, Sompeta etc). Prepare a poster explaining the main features of the struggle in each of these cases.
Answer:
Nandigram (West Bengal):

1. Nandigram is a place on the bank of Haldia and quite far from Kolkata.
2. In 2007, March the state government of West Bengal sanctioned the land there to set up Special Economic Zone by Salim Group.
3. People of Nandigram resented it and led mass processions and struggle and 14 people died.

Niyamgiri (Odisha):

1. Niyamagiri hills in Odisha state are famous for their bauxite reserves. Odisha government gave permission to British mining company Vedanta to mine bauxite from there in July 2013.
2. People resented this, especially the tribals and organised many processions and later courts involved in this matter and by January 2014 the mining was disallowed.

Sompeta, Polavaram in combined (Andhra Pradesh):

1. Sompeta was a mandal in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and government at the state permitted Nagarjuna Company Limited to set up a thermal plant there in 2010.
2. People supported by many opposition party leaders protested the decision of government and for three years there were long drawn struggles.
3. Polavaram project is to be constructed on Godavari river spreading in East, West Godavari’s and Khammam. Government obtained permissions and started it in 2004.
4. It has submerging areas and affecting, zones in Chattisgarh and Odisha also. Many conflicts were there to complete it.

Question 15.
Fill in the para and line in the section below which you think is related to the violation or are in conflict with provisions of Human rights.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his [or her]rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him [or her]. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy,family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her] honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para ——– line ——–.
Articl e 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state [state here means country], Para ——– line ——–.
(2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his[or her country. Para ——– line ——–.
Answer:
Violations
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para 3 line 13.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para 3 line 6 and 7.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para 3 line 4.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her]honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para 3 line 10

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Answer:

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Production and Employment.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Production and Employment

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is under employment?
Answer:
Under employment is the situation, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.

Question 2.
In which sector is the disguised unemployment found predominantly in India today? Why?
Answer:
In agricultural sector we find disguised unemployment, because more than the required persons are engaged in the work of agriculture.

Question 3.
Suggest the reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers.
Answer:
Reforms for the betterment of unorganized sector workers:

1. Increase in wages.
2. Security in jobs.
3. Overtime work should be paid.
4. Facilities and safety at work places.
5. Medical facilities.
6. Sick leave provision.

Question 4.
Write examples for intermediate goods.
Answer:

1. Paddy
2. Rice
3. Yarn
4. Rubber

Question 5.
Give an example for underemployment.
Answer:

1. Though there is no sufficient work, many agricultural labourers work less than their potential.
2. In the service sector – painters, plumbers, repair persons, etc.

Question 6.
What does the unorganized sector consist of?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector. It consists of low wages, no job security, no paid leaves, no health facilities, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions.
Sectoral shares of employment, 2011 – 12
(a) Which sector provides less employment?
Answer:
Industry (24%)

(b) Mention any two reasons for more employment in the agriculture sector.
Answer:

1. Not enough jobs were created in the industry and service sector.
2. Irrespective of the literacy rate rural people depend on agriculture.
3. Easy employment opportunities.

Observe the information given in the table and answer questions 8 and 9.
Table: Share of Employment and Gross Domestic Product in Three Sectors

Question 8.
What was the share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The share of the agricultural sector in Gross Domestic Product is 16%.

Question 9.
What was the reason for low employment in service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The reason for low employment In service sector though it has a major contribution to Gross Domestic Products is

• Lack of skill
• Lack of access to employment opportunities

Question 10.
Give any two examples for final goods.
Answer:
Idli, Dosa, Gar, Computer, Notebook, etc.

Question 11.
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector ?
Answer:
Security of employment Regular salary Paid Holiday, safe working environment Gets provident fund, etc.

Question 12.
Define service sector.
Answer:
Services like transportation, communication, financing, insurance, banking, etc. are auxi¬liaries to trade or aid to trade. These services constitute service sector of trade.

Question 13.
What is primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector is the sector which involves agricultural activities, and related activities like mining, poultry, etc.

Question 14.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
It is the sector which is engaged in the manufacturing of goods from the raw material provided by the primary sector.

Question 15.
Define unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to get work. They are not engaged in any productive activity.

Question 16.
What is employment?
Answer:
Employment is a situation where the able-bodied persons are willing to work and are engaged in some productive activity to earn an income.

Question 17.
What is the other name of underemployment?
Answer:
The other name of underemployment is disguised unemployment.

Question 18.
What is GDP?
Answer:
The value of goods and services produced in an economy in a financial year is known as GDP.

Question 19.
Which sector is called organised sector?
Answer:
The sector which covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular and they have assured work is called organised sector.

Question 20.
Which sector is called unorganized sector?
Answer:
The sector in which small and scattered units are outside the control of the government is called unorganized sector.

Question 21.
Which sector is also called the service sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector is also called service sector.

Question 22.
Which is called disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment which exists when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative is called disguised unemployment.

Question 23.
Why does small scale industry need government’s support?
Answer:
Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw-material and mar¬keting of output.

Question 24.
In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas? Write any two suggestions.
Answer:
Suggestions:

1. Heavy investments should be created in basic industries.
2. Means of transportation and communi¬cation should be developed.

Question 25.
Which sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973 to 2000?
Answer:
The agricultural sector is continued to prove the largest employer between 1973-2000.

Question 26.
Write any two activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
Answer:
Health and Education.

Question 27.
What is meant by “final goods and services”?
Answer:
Final goods and services refer to the goods and services which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms or organizations.

Question 28.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
Intermediate goods are those goods that are used in producing final goods and services.

Question 29.
Which sector is growing fast in India?
Answer:
Service sector is growing fast in India.

Question 30.
By whom is the task of measuring GDP done?
Answer:
The task of measuring GDP is done by the Ministry of Central government.

Question 31.
What does the GDP record?
Answer:
The GDP records the market value of final goods and services produced.

Question 32.
Name some acts of organized sector.
Answer:

1. Factories Act
2. Minimum Wages Act
3. Shops and Establishments Act, etc.

Question 33.
Who are in the organized sector?
Answer:
People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organized sector.

Question 34.
Name some organizations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Indian Railways
2. Postal & Telegraphs
3. Indian Airlines
4. All India Radio
5. BSNL, MTNL.

Question 35.
How do we count the various goods and services of each economic sector?
Answer:
We count the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year. This provides the total production of the sector for that year.

Question 36.
Why should we worry about underemployment?
Answer:
We should worry about underemployment as it decreases the standard of living of the people.

Question 37.
What do you mean by underemployment?
Answer:
Everyone is engaged in working, but no one is working to his full capacity, such employ¬ment Is underemployment.

Question 38.
Into how many sectors economic activities are divided?
Answer:
The economic activities are divided into 3 sectors primary, secondary and services.

Question 39.
What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The money value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country borders during the year.

Question 40.
What is the main source of income to your family? Among the three sectors, under which can it be categorized?
Answer:

1. My father is a farmer.
2. Hence we can say he works in the primary sector.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the Organised sector different from an Unorganised sector?
Answer:
1) The organised sector is the enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2) The unorganised sector s characterised by small and scattered units which have remained largely outside the control of the Government. In this way the organised sector is different from the unorganised sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below,
Contribution of organised and unorganised sectors

a) What percentage of labour in the unorganized sector get employment?
Answer:
92%
b) Which sector get decent job security?
Answer:
Organized sector

Question 3.
What are the facilities provided to workers in the organised sector?
Answer:

1. Job security
2. Limited working hours.
3. Paid holidays.
4. Safe working environment.

Question 4.
Which measures do you suggest to improve the employment opportunities in rural area?
Answer:

1. Agriculture should be supported by the government.
2. Household industries should be encouraged.
3. Rural employment schemes should be implemented effectively.

Question 5.
Study the following pie-charts and answer the questions given below:
Shares of three sectors in GDP

a) Which sector got tremendous increase?
Answer:
Service sector.
b) Why did the share of agricultural sector decrease in G.D.P?
Answer:
Production in agriculture has not developed as per the expectations.

Question 6.
Draw the bar graph on the basis of information given in the table below.

Answer:

It shows how people depend upon these sectors for employment.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

The table shows the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and 2009-10.

a) What are the major changes you observe from the above table?
Answer:

1. The agriculture sector is decreased.
2. Industry and services are increased.
3. Industry is increased two times.
4. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sectors.

b) What would be the reasons for the changes?
Answer:
Employment opportunities in the agricultural sector are reduced from 74% to 53%. In industrial sector employment opportunities are increased from 11% to 22%. Like that service sector employment opportunities are also increased from 15% to 25%.
Reasons:

1. Decline in agriculture (Problems of seeds, rainfall, MSP, power cut, water.)
2. Privatization is increased.
3. IT increased.
4. Opportunities in the second and third sector.

Question 8.
Observe below ‘Pie’ chart and analyse it.

Employment in three sectors in 2011-12
Answer:

1. There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to the industrial and service sector, (or)
2. The major changes like the percentage of workers employed decrease in agriculture and increased both in industry and ser¬vice sector are observed from the above pie chart compare with before years.
   Reasons :
3. The important reasons like change in farming methods setting up of new industries, and factories, mass production of goods by factories of lower rates than agricultural goods, high payment for workers in other sectors compared to agriculture led to employment shift from agriculture sector to service and manufacturing sectors.

Question 9.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Shares of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product

A – Agriculture
B – Industry
C – Trade, hotels, transport and communications.
D – Finance, insurance, real estate.
E – Community, social and personal services.
Answer:
The graph explains about the share of different sectors in Gross Domestic Product in the year of 1972 – 73.
The share of Agriculture is 43%.
The share of Industry is 22%.
The share of service sector joined together is 35%.
When compared to 1972 – 73 the share of different sectors in 2011 -12 changed,
In 2011 -12 the agriculture share is only 16%. Industrial sector share is 26%. The share of service sector joined together is – 58%. Totally in 2011 & 12 the share of agriculture is reduced. The Industrial sector share is increasing. Finally service sector share increases very high.
Suggestions: To increase the share in the agriculture sector the government should take the following measures.

1. Provide seeds, fertilizers, pesticides motors to the farmers with the subsidy.
2. The government should see that the people who are engaged in Industrial and Service sectors more than required are shifted to the agricultural sector so that the share of the agricultural sector in GDP increases.
3. The government should implement welfare schemes so that the agricultural sector flourishes.

Question 10.
Name the facilities enjoyed by the workers in the organised sector.
Answer:
Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages ] Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment, They are expected to work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from the employers, They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, j under the laws, the employer has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment. When they retire, many of j these workers get pensions as well. People j who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector.

Question 11.
Based on the pie charts given below write how the share of agriculture sector in the GDP has changed between 1972-73 and 2009-10?

Answer:
The share of agriculture sector in GDP has reduced from 43% to 26% from the period 1972 – 73 to 2009 -10.
The main reason is the secondary and service sector’s both gradually increase in their employment and production activities.

Question 12.
Observe the pie diagrams and answer the following.

Analyse the above two diagrams.
Answer:

1. The pie diagrams depict the sectorial share of employment.
2. The people who depend on agriculture has reduced from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10,
3. The employment in service sector has increased from 15% to 25%.
4. The employment in the industrial sector is doubled, i.e., increased from 11% to 22%.

Question 13.
Study the following table and prepare a paragraph describing it.

Answer:

1. This table tells about the employment in organized and unorganized sector and its contribution in GDP.
2. Employment in organized sector is only 8% whereas it is 92% in unorganized sector.
3. The share in GDP is the same.
4. It focuses on the conditions of the work-force depend on the unorganized sector in which the wages are low, security and respect is not observed.
5. In organized sector the employees get regular salaries, they have specific work-ing hours and they avail leaves, medical benefits and other facilities.
6. These are not available in the unorganized sector.

Question 14.
Discus different sectors of Economy.
Answer:
People are engaged in different activities to earn their livelihoods. These activities are broadly categorized into three:

1. Agriculture and related activities such as fishing, forestry, mining where nature has a dominant role in the production process.
2. Manufacture processes and other industries where goods are produced by people using tools or machines.
3. Those activities that don’t directly produce a good but provide services that are required in production and other services for people.
4. These three different sectors of the economy contribute to the national income.

Question 15.
How many types are there in services? Explain.
Answer:
Services are seen to comprise of three types.
They are a) Community, social and personal services b) Finance, insurance and real estate services and Trades, hotels, transport and communication services.

1. Community, social and personal services include public administration, defence, education, health, veterinary activities, media, library, museums and other cultural activities, etc.
2. Finance, insurance and real estate servi-ces include services of banks, post office savings accounts, non-bank financial companies, Life Insurance and General Insurance Corporation, services of brokers and real estate companies, etc.
3. Trades, hotels, transport and communication services include business, exports and imports, hotels, resorts, rail, road, water ways and airways and radio, tele¬vision, newspapers, magazines and satel¬lite services, etc.

Question 16.
Table : Read the following pie charts and answer the question.

What changes do you observe in these two pie diagrams?
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams show the share of different sectors in GDP.
2. The share of agriculture sector has fallen from 43% to 17%.
3. The share of industrial sector has increa-sed from 22% to 26%.
4. The share of service sector has increased from 35% to 57%.
   i.e., trade and hotels from 15% to 27%, finance, insurance and real estate from 8% to 17% and community, social and personal services from 12% to 13%.

Question 17.
What is the relation between population and employment?
Answer:
The Gross Domestic Product of a country has a close relation with the total number of work¬ing people in that country. In every country, as population increases, it is essential that the country provides opportunities for those who are looking for work.

Question 18.
“The workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped” – support this statement.
Answer:
There are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if a few people move out, 1 production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underdeveloped.

Question 19.
Explain GDP. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted in GDP?
Answer:

1. GDP is the sum of the money value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year within a country.
2. Only the value of final goods and services are counted in GDP because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
3. To avoid double-counting we take up only intermediate goods.
4. Animal husbandry and dairy are to be encouraged. :

Question 20.
Where are most of the people employed? Why did not a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment?
Answer:

1. Most of the working people are still employed in primary sector.
2. There had not been a similar shift out of agricultural sector in case of employment. The reason is:
   Secondary and tertiary sectors did not create enough jobs.

Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to create more employment in rural India.
Answer:
Some measures to create more employment in rural India :

1. Irrigation facilities should be improved.
2. Roads should be constructed.
3. More education and health facilities should be provided.
4. Agro-based industries should be encouraged.

Question 22.
Describe any three problems faced by workers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:

1. This sector follows no government rules and regulations.
2. There is no regular employment.
3. They have no job security.

Question 23.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Economic activities are classified into two sectors on the basis of employment conditions:

1. Organised sector
2. Unorganised sector.

In the organised sector, the rules and regulations of employment are given to employees and everyone has to follow these rules.
In the unorganised sector, there are no rules and regulations.

Question 24.
Write any two differences between intermediate goods and final goods.
Answer:

Question 25.
How is the unorganised sector in the rural areas?
Answer:
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector: mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, share croppers and artisans.

Question 26.
How is the unorganised sector in the urban areas?
Answer:
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in the small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade I and transport, etc. and those who work as steel vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc.

Question 27.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are they?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:

1. The people involved in such services that man directly help in the production of goods, e.g.: people involved in transportation, communication, etc.
2. The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods, e.g: teachers, lawyers, etc.

Question 28.
“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Support your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement.
Over the last 5 decades, the most production has increased in the tertiary sector. It replaced the primary sector. The basic services are also provided by the government and; private sector. As the income levels of the people raised, people are able to enjoy many more services like shopping, tourism, etc.
Therefore it is disputable that the tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian economy.

Question 29.
Classify the Service Sector.
Answer:

1. Services sector comprises of community, social and personal services like public administration, defence, education, etc.
2. They also comprise finance, insurance and real estate services like banks, post-offices, LIC, etc.
3. It also comprises of services like trades, hotels, transports and communication.

Question 30.
How is gross domestic product is calculated? Give example.
Answer:

1. The total value of goods and services produced in a country is the Gross Domestic Product.
2. The value of intermediate goods is not considered for GDP.
3. Economists take the value of goods and services rather than adding the number of goods.
4. People engaged in various economic activities in the three sectors viz, primary, secondary and services produce large number of goods and services whose total is GDP.

Question 31.
What are the aims and objectives of land-less rural labourers or workers?
Answer:

1. More days of work.
2. Better wages.
3. Provision of Educational and health facilities by the government.
4. Infrastructural facilities like transportation communication, etc.

10th Class Social 3rd Lesson Production and Employment 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State why the organized sector is better than the unorganized sector.
(OR)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
Do you think organised sector is better than unorganised sector? Give your opinion.
Answer:
Organised sector is better sector. The reasons are:

1. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.
2. They are registered by the government 3 and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
3. It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.
4. Workers in the organised sector enjoy j security of employment. They are expected to work only for a fixed number of j hours. If they work more, they have to be j paid overtime by the employer.
5. They also get several other benefits from the employers. They get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, etc.
6. They are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the employer has j to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
7. When they retire, many of these workers get pensions as well.
8. People who work in the government or with companies or large establishments are all in the organised sector

Question 2.
What is GDP ? How do we estimate GDP?
Answer:
G.D.P. (Gross Domestic Product):

1. For the country as a whole, we use the total value of goods and services produced in a country as the indicator of income for the country.
2. The technical term to denote this value is Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Estimation of G.D.P.:

1. G.D.P. records the market value of all final goods and services produced.
2. G.D.P. records all of public and private consumption, government outlays, investments and exports less imports that occur within a defined territory.
3. Many items/services that are not sold /purchased in the market are not recorded in the G.D.P.
   Ex : Household works done by women.

Question 3.
“In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms I of total production. Most of the working people have also shifted and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.”

Is there a similar pattern observed for India or is it different? Write your opinion.
Answer:

1. The pattern in India is somehow similar to that of developed countries.
2. But, there are some main differences also.
3. In India also, service sector is becoming more important nowadays.
4. But, even today the largest employer in India is the agricultural sector only.

Question 4.
“While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well. The service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.”

“The life conditions of all the people in ser¬vice sector are not the same.” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Regarding service sector, limited number of skilled workers in organised sector are getting higher wages.
2. On the other hand, the large number of unskilled workers in unorganised sector are not able to get minimum wages. They are living in miserable conditions.
3. Self employed, shop keepers, migrant labourers etc., do not have better working conditions, regular employment and other allowances.
4. They are being forced to continue in the same job due to the lack of required skills and alternative employment sources.
5. By considering these situations, the government has to plan suitable programmes for the balanced development of service sector.

Question 5.
Based on the information given below, write your observations:

Answer:

1. Most of the rural workers are employed in agriculture.
2. Most of the urban workers are employed in service sector.
3. Most of the agricultural labourers are women.
4. Female workers are very less in service sector.
5. Agriculture sector offers the largest employment on the whole.
6. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

(OR)
Plot the information given below on a rough bar-graph and analyse it:
Employment in different sectors

Answer:

1. Agricultural sector is the largest employer In 2009-10.
2. Service sector is the second largest employer.
3. Industrial sector offers the least employment.

Question 6.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions:

1.  What does this graph explain about?
2. Which sector is the largest employer in India?
3. In which sector do most of the people want to be employed today?
4. Which sector offers the least employment?

Answer:

1. The graph explains about the shares of different sectors of employment in the years of 1972-73 and 2009-2010
2. The agriculture sector is the largest employer in India.
3. Service sector
4. Industrial sector.

Question 7.
Nowadays in which economic sector the job opportunities are increasing? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Nowadays employment opportunities are available more in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(ii) Last 50 years onwards the changes are occurred in GDP in all sectors, but employment is not increased. Yet, employment opportunities are increased in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Reasons:

1. Establishment of industries in public and private sectors.
2. Increasing of technological methods.
3. Increasing of educational facilities.
4. Due to globalisation, Multi-national companies are entered and industrial and service sectors are developed.
5. Transportation facilities are developing.
6. Migrations are increased.
7. Increasing of local foreign investment.

Question 8.
Suggest to improve labour conditions in unorganized sector.
Answer:

1. Wages to be increased
2. Regular payment of wages
3. Overtime work should be paid
4. Sick leave provision and paid leave.
5. Better working conditions
6. Retirement benefits to be provided
7. Security in jobs
8. Medical and health facilities

Question 9.
What are the differences between organised and unorganised sectors in Employment.
(OR)
How is unorganised sector different from organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

Question 10.
What measures should be taken to create employment in your area?
Answer:
I should implement some steps to create employment in my area.

1. At first, in which the various non-farming activities are performed in a location which falls with in a designated rural area.
2. Promoting dairy industry.
3. Should give more important to local handicrafts.
4. The second way hints at labour intensive use.
5. For self employment:
   Should provide bank loans with low rate of interests.
6. By creating cost effective school. Cyber cafes, retail outlets, transport systems etc.
7. Linking with industrial enterprises to rural citizens, better policies such as limit on work capacity and payment of minimum wages, etc.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.
In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries. The service sector has become the most important sector in terms of total production. Most of the working people have also made a shift and are now employed in the service sector and most of the production activities are those of services and not manufactured goods.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph many workers are shifting from industries to service sectors in developed countries.
2. The service sector plays an important and key role in economy.
3. Most of the production activities are now in service sector.
4. There are three sectors in the economy. They are agriculture, industrial and service sectors.
5. In developing countries many people depend upon agriculture sector whereas In developed countries it is the industrial sector which gives more work but recently we observe the trend that many people are shifting from industrial sector to service sector for their livelihoods.
6. I think that the people want to work in the sector which is providing more opportunities and where security, safety and respect are available.
7. Job in service sector provides these to some extent better than the other sectors the people shift toward service sector.

Question 12.
Observe the given table and analyse the share of GDP.

Answer:
The given table is about share of GDP. The GDP is taken from 2012 to 2017. The sectors of economy are analysed In data form. The share of GDP from agriculture is very less and it has been reducing year by year. Industries are slightly decreasing from 2013. it is 29% only in 2012. But service sector is gradually increasing.
Many people nowadays are interested in working with service sector as they feel that it is white collar job. Nobody Is interested in agriculture. No farmer is interested to make his son a farmer because in agriculture more distress is seen. Irregular rainfall, low prices (MSP), shortage of seeds, pesticides problem, fertiliser problem and so many problems, the agriculture sector is facing. In Industries also work conditions are not supportive. Agriculture is technologically up¬graded. Agriculture labourers are shifting to service, industrial sectors. Though 92% of workers are there In unorganised sector, they are contributing about 50% in GDP, Government should support the farmers and agriculture should be made a benefitable one.

Question 13.
Read the passage and comment on it.
While service sector has grown, all service sector activities are not growing equally well, Service sector In India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers,repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector Is growing in Importance.
Answer:

1. The contribution of service sector to GDP has grown considerably.
2. But all service activities are not grown equally.
3. Only highly skilled and educated workers, which are limited in number, are earning good income.
4. Whereas a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. are a part of service sector.
5. But they barely manage to earn a good income.
6. They have no other alternative opportunity for work.
7. Hence, we can conclude that only a part of the service sector is growing.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret it.
GDP records the market value of all final goods and services produced. But there are many items that are not sold/ purchased in the market. One important example is the work that is done at home like cooking, cleaning, organizing, bringing up children, tending to plants and cattle, etc. In most instances, these do not involve any monetary transaction and therefore remain outside the GDP measure, though they are extremely important for the economy. Also, the unpaid work is done mostly by women even today, in India and across the globe.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the domestic work done by mainly women is not calculated under GDP and it is ignored. Women are mostly engaged in this work.
2. These services of women are not included in the GDP. The women’s work is unpaid work.
3. Woman is the nucleus of the family in India. In our country we give much importance to woman.
4. The woman in a family discharges her duties as a mother, wife and daughter in law and so on but not as an employee.
5. Employees can be paid for their work but the work of a woman in a family cannot be paid.
6. I agree with this because families depend on this work. It is not monitorial work but a work of responsibility and affection.
7. The work of the woman also can be considered as a part of GDP.
8. The economists should consider their work and calculate in GDP.
9. The work done by women at home is not worthless.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this or not.
It means that there are more people in agriculture but everyone may not be fully occupied.
So, even if few people move out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph there is no full employment in agriculture.
2. Partial employment is there. It means many people depend on agriculture but they are not fully employed.
3. If some of them move to another sector it will not affect the production.
4. In other words, it is called disguised unemployment. There are so many farmers like Gayathri owning about 2 or less acres of land.
5. All the five members are working in the same fields though they don’t have sufficient work.
6. My suggestion is that the government should collect data of this situation throughout the state and prepare plans to provide work by implementing programmes like MGNREGA, Watershed Development Program, Water Conservation Movement (Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam), and other activities.
7. Thus the people are engaged in some useful work and so they get sufficient work and improve their living conditions.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
There are lakhs of farmers like Gayathri in India. This means that even if several people from agricultural sector are provided with proper work elsewhere, agricultural production will not suffer. The incomes of the people who take up other work would increase the total family income.
Answer:

1. It is explained in this paragraph that the small farmers in India have not sufficient work in the fields but they are not getting sufficient work as well as income.
2. There is a suggestion for the families like Gayathri to go elsewhere for additional work so as to earn more income.
3. Lakhs of families in India are small families having less than two acres of cultivable land.
4. All the family members depend on the small piece of land.
5. They get less work and they don’t work up to their potentials.
6. This condition is called underemployment.
7. According to my opinion the government should identify these people and plan to design various schemes to be implemented.
8. In villages many people have no sufficient work. Many developmental works are needed for villages and towns.
9. These people will be involved in that works and so they earn some income.
10. People also think to work by organizing small shops, working as repair persons, transport persons and so on.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, we not only have to generate new employment opportunities but also train many workers to work efficiently and with machines, We should invest in many industries, in both rural and semi-urban areas, so that we are able to produce many more goods and services. 
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are very important.
2. They are providing employment opportunities and giving training to them to work with machines.
3. Without skill the workers and employees do not work efficiently.
4. One more point is that the industries are to be opened in rural and semi-urban areas to increase in production of goods and services.
5. My opinion is that it is better to provide quality and skill oriented training before generating employment to the people.
6. If skill is provided they can work at any place it demands. Many industries are being established in urban areas only.
7. Technology is bringing many changes in our daily life.
8. In agriculture, industry and service sectors technology is used.
9. Even in agriculture many machines like tractors, Combined Harvesters are there.
10. Everyone should learn how to deal with these. For that training is necessary.
11. If skill in performing jobs and access to various opportunities are provided by establishing industries in rural and semi-urban areas.

Question 18.
Observe the following table and answer the questions that follow.

1. What are the major changes that you observe from the above table?
   Answer:
   There is a great shift from the agricultural sector to industrial and service sectors.
2. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about the percentage of workers employed in different sectors in India in 1972-73 and in 2009-10.
3. Which sector is providing more employment in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is providing more employment in 1972-73. It is about 74%.
4. Which sector has doubled in providing employment?
   Answer:
   The sector which has doubled in providing employment is industrial sector. 11% has become 22% from 1972-73 to 2009-10.
5. What percentage of employment is decreased in agriculture sector?
   Answer:
   21% of employment is decreased in agriculture sector. (74% – 53%)
6. Why is the employment in agriculture decreasing?
   Answer:
   The employment in agriculture is decreasing because the workers are shifting to other sectors as there is no prosperity in agriculture.

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   The graph is about GDP by agriculture, industry and service sector.
2. Which was the largest producing sector in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector was the largest producing sector with Rs. 2,43,082 crore.
3. Which was the largest producing sector in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   Service sector was the largest producing sector in 2009-10 with Rs. 25,78,165 crore.
4. What is the aggregate GDP in 2009-10?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 2009-10 is Rs. 45,16, 071 crore.
5. What is the aggregate GDP in 1972-73?
   Answer:
   The aggregate GDP in 1972-73 is Rs. 5,86, 346 crore.
6. Mention any two service activities.
   Answer:
   Tailoring, courier service, etc.

Question 20.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Distribution of Workers in India, 2009-10 (%)

1. What does this table tell us ?
   Answer:
   This table tells us about the distribution of workers in India.
2. In which sector the female workers are more ?
   Answer:
   The female workers are more in agriculture sector.
3. Which sector is prosperous in rural areas ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is prosperous in rural areas.
4. Why is agriculture sector very low in urban areas ?
   Answer:
   In urban areas many people depend upon service sector and industries and there is no scope for agriculture.
5. Which sector is decreasing gradually ?
   Answer:
   Agriculture sector is decreasing gradually.
6. What have you observed in industrial sector with regard to place of residence ?
   Answer:
   Industrial sector in urban areas is double in comparison to rural areas.

Question 21.
Discuss the changes in importance of different sectors over a period of time.
Answer:

1. At the beginning as the methods of farming changed and agriculture began to prosper, it produced much more food than before.
2. After Industrial Revolution, the mass production by factories were at much lower rates and these goods reached markets all over the world.
3. So, for these countries industrial production gradually became the most important sector.
4. Hence, in overtime a shift took place.
5. In the past 50 years, there has been a further shift from industry to service sector for developed countries.
6. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total production.
7. Most of the working people also shifted and are now employed in the service sector.
8. This is the general pattern observed for developed countries.

Question 22.
Who do constitute the unorganised sector ?
Answer:

1. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans, etc.
2. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, etc. those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment workers, rag pickers, etc.
3. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward communities find themselves In the unorganised sector,
4. It is worse if one is a woman from these communities,
5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.

Question 23.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. The monsoons first enter into India into this state.
   Answer:
   Kerala
2. Locate the Jammu Hills.
   Answer: Jammu
3. The dun which is in Uttarakhand.
   Answer: Patli Dun
4. The wettest place in India.
   Answer: Mawsynram
5. The Great Indian Desert.
   Answer: Thar desert
6. The submerged point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
   Answer: Indira Point,
7. The capital of Andhra Pradesh.
   Answer: Amaravathi
8. The second largest river in South India.
   Answer: Krishna
9. Mahadev hills.
10. Maikal plateau.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Indian Rivers and Water Resources.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 1 India: Relief Features.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson India: Relief Features

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the given table below, which area is the eastern side?

Answer:
According to the given table, Imphal is the eastern side.

Question 2.
What is the time In India when it is 8 am in London?
Answer:
The time is 1.30 pm in India when It is 8 am in London.

Question 3.
Which Indian islands are of volcanic origin?
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar islands are of volcanic origin.
(OR)
Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.

Question 4.
Give examples for Himalayan hill stations.
Answer:
Examples for the Himalayan hill stations are

1. Simla
2. Mussoorie
3. Raniket
4. Nainital

Question 5.
Read the map given and answer the questions.

a) Name the latitude that divides India into two parts.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer / 23°30′ Northern latitude.
b) On which longitude, is Indian Standard Time based upon?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude.

Question 6.
Mention any one difference between the physical features of the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep.
Answer:

Question 7.
Mention any two differences between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write any two unique features of Eastern Coastal Plain?
Answer:
Unique features of East Coastal Plain

1. East Coastal Plains are very wide.
2. The rivers which are flowing in this area are formed deltas.
3. These plains are agriculturally developed.
4. These Plains has lakes.

Question 9.
Name the landform from which the World originated.
Answer:
World originated from two giant lands namely Angara Land (Laurasia) and Gondwana Land.

Question 10.
What is the location of India?
Answer:
India is located between 8°4’ and 37°6′ north latitudes and 68°7′ and 97°25′ east longitudes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “Doab”?
Answer:
The fertile land between two rivers is known as the Doab feature. ‘Do’ means two, ‘ab’ means water.

Question 12.
Name three parallel ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:
Three parallel ranges are there in the Himalayas. They are

1. the Himadri
2. the Himachal
3. the Shivalik.

Question 13.
Name the tributaries of Indus.
Answer:
The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej are the tributaries of Indus.

Question 14.
Name the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ghaggar, the Teesta, the Sone, the Kosi and the Yamuna are the tributaries of the Ganga.

Question 15.
Expand IST.
Answer:
Indian Standard Time.

Question 16
Expand GMT.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 17.
What do you mean by “Dun”? Give one example.
Answer:
The valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and Shivalik ranges are called “Duns’’, e.g. Dehra Dun.

Question 18.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
India, South Africa, Australia and South America were part of the Gondwana land.

Question 19.
Name three major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South.
Answer:

1. The Greater Himalayas or Himadri.
2. The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal.
3. The Shivaliks or Outer Himalayas.

Question 20.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 21.
What is the peninsular plateau composed of?
Answer:
The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 22.
Identify the regional division of the Northern plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab plain
2. Ganga plain
3. Brahmaputra plain.

Question 23.
What are the relief features that are found in the Northern plains?
Answer:

1. Bhabar
2. Terai
3. Bhangar
4. Khadar

Question 24.
Which landform feature was a part of Gondwana land?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau.

Question 25.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalis and the Vindhya range?
Answer:
Malwa Plateau.

Question 26.
Where are the Aravali hills located?
Answer:
The Aravali hills are located on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular plateau in Rajasthan.

Question 27.
What is Bhangar?
Answer:
Bhangar is the largest part of the northern plains and is formed by the oldest alluvium.

Question 28.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium deposit is called Khadar.

Question 29.
What is a reef?
Answer:
A ridge of jagged rock formed from coral secretions and skeletons.

Question 30.
Name some kinds of reefs.
Answer:
Barrier reef, coral reef and fringing reef.

Question 31.
What was called Angara land?
Answer:
The northern part of Pangaea was called Angara land.

Question 32.
What are known as Purvanchal?
Answer:
The Himalayas in the north-eastern states are known as the Purvanchal hills.

Question 33.
Where is the Kanchenjunga peak?
Answer:
The Kanchenjunga peak is in Sikkim.

Question 34.
Which is the second highest peak in the Himalayas?
Answer:
K₂, in the Karakoram range, is the second-highest peak after Mount Everest.

Question 35.
Name the valleys in the Himachal range.
Answer:
Kangra, Kulu and Kashmir valley.

Question 36.
What are Duns?
Answer:
The longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are known as Duns,
e.g.: Dehradun, Patli dun and Kotli dun.

Question 37.
Where is Bhabar located?
Answer:
Bhabar is located at the foot of the Shivaliks.

Question 38.
What are the two divisions in the Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Question 39.
Which is the easternmost part of the central highlands?
Answer:
The Chotanagapur Plateau is the eastern-most part of the central highlands.

Question 40.
What is the other name of Ooty?
Answer:
Udagamandalam.

Question 41.
Which is a narrow coastal plain?
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is a narrow plain.

Question 42.
Name the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention the major relief divisions of Indian landmass.
Answer:
The relief divisions of Indian landmass can be divided into following groups :

1. The Himalayas
2. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Plains
5. The Desert
6. The Islands

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below:
a) Name the two countries that share their land boundaries with India.
b) In between which latitudes, is India located?
Answer:
a) Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
b) 8°4′ – 37°6′ Northern latitudes.

Question 3.
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions.
a) What is the distance between the eastern and western most points of India?
b) Name any two countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
a) The distance between the eastern and the western most points of India is 2933 kms.
b) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, China and Bhutan.

Question 4.
Discuss the significant differences between the Himalayan Rivers and the Peninsular Rivers.
Answer:

Question 5.
Discuss the various islands in India.
Answer:

1. There are 2 groups of islands – Andaman and Nicobar Islands stretched in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea.
2. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are volcanic origin.
3. The southernmost tip of India found in Nicobarlsland is called Indira point which was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
4. Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.
5. It is famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 6.
Himalayas play a vital role in India’s development. How?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from Siberia and Central Asia.
2. They are reason for the monsoon type of climate in India.
3. Without the Himalayas India would have remained drier.
4. The rivers originating in the glaciers of the Himalaya are perennial and caused the economic growth of the northern plains.
5. The Himalayan valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
6. The rivers of the Himalayas for the formation of fertile.

Question 7.
How are the Himalayas divided regionally or on the basis of river valleys?
Answer:

1. Punjab Himalayas between rivers Indus and Sutlej.
2. Kumaon Himalayas between rivers Sutlejjind Kali.
3. Nepal Himalayas between rivers Kali and Teesta.
4. Assam Himalayas between rivers Teesta and Brahmaputra.

Question 8.
Look at the picture and comment on it.
Answer:
It is a sketch of different levels of vegetation in the Himalayas. There are 5 levels in that vegetation.
Level I: On the top of the mountains there is no vegetation.
Level II: On the hill slopes – there is only grass.
Level III: Next to the level II – this area is covered with conifers.
Level IV: Next to level III – this area is covered with broadleaf trees.
Level V: At the feet of the mountains. It is Terai with tree cover.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the Great Indian Desert.
Answer:
The Great Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
The region gets scanty rainfall. Hence the climate is arid and vegetation is scanty. Luni is the only large river. Some streams appear during rainy season. Crescent-shaped duns are formed around in this area.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Describe any four of major relief divisions of Indian land mass.
Answer:
I. Himalayas:

1. To the north of India, Himalayan mountains extend from west to east at a length around 2400 Kms.
2. There are three parallel ranges viz. Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks.

II. Indo-Gangetic Plains:

1. Indo-Gangetic Plain is formed with the interaction of the rivers Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
2. These fertile alluvial plains are suitable for agriculture.

III. Peninsular Plateau:

1. The Indian plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounding by the sea on the three sides.
2. It is broadly divided into two parts : Malwa plateau and Deccan plateau.

IV. Coastal Plains:

1. The Western coastal plain is extended between Western Ghats and Arabian Sea. The East coastal plain is extended between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. These coastal plains are known locally by different names.
   Eg: Coast of AP – Circar Coast
   Coast of Kerala – Malabar coast etc.

V. Thar Desert:

1. Thar desert lies in the rain shadow region of Aravali mountains.
2. Luni is the only river in this region.

VI. Islands:

1. Andaman and Nicobar islands are in Bay of Bengal. They are of volcanic origin.
2. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea. They are of coral origin.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Himalayas act as natural barriers on the northern side of India.
2. They protect India from the cold winds from Central Asia during severe winter
3. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains.
4. The himalayas are responsible for monsoon type of climate.
5. If there are no Himalayas, India will remain as a desert.
6. They are the origin for many perennial rivers.
7. They attract tourists from all over the world.
8. Himalayan rivers bring a lot of silt, making the northern plains very fertile.

Question 3.
Describe the Indian Islands.
Answer:

1. There are two groups of islands in India.
2. They are Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in Bay of Bengal.
4. Lakshadweep islands are in Arabian Sea.
5. In Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Narkondam and Barren islands are of volcanic origin.
6. Lakshadweep islands are of coral origin.
7. Indira point, the southernmost tip of India is found in Nicobar Island.
8. Lakshadweep islands are famous for great variety of flora and fauna.

Question 4.
In what ways is the Indo-Gangetic plain different from the Peninsular plateau?
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and comment on Indian climate and the Himalayas.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type of climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier.
Answer:

1. The Himalayas affect the climate of India by blocking cold air blowing from the North that comes from Siberia.
2. Without the Himalayas, India would get cold temperatures in the winter months.
3. The Himalayas form a natural barrier that prevents monsoon winds from going further north.
4. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in the regions that are beyond the western ghats of India.
5. In its absence this region would have remained drier.
6. India would have been a tropical desert.
7. The Himalayas are the birthplace of so many rivers.
8. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.

Question 6.
How the Himalayas are influencing the climate of India and agriculture?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas are obstructing cold winds.
2. The Himalayas are reason for rains in summer.
3. They are cause for seasonal climate.
4. If there is no Himalayas the northern region becomes dry.
5. The flow of the Himalayan rivers, making the plains very fertile.

Question 7.
Write about the similarities and differences between East Coastal Plains and West Coastal Plains.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. They are the physical features of India. 2) They both lie in the southern part of India.
2. They both lie near to the coast.

Differences:

Question 8.
Explain the differences between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats,
Answer:

Question 9.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of The Indo-Gangetic Plain with that of The Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are :

1. The Great Himalayas,
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Indian Desert
4. The Peninsular Plateau
5. The Eastern and Western Coastal plains and
6. The Island Group

Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the particulars of different mountain ranges of the Himalayas.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is the importance of the Himalayas?
Answer:

1. The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways.
2. These act as barriers protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter.
3. The Himalayas are reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India.
4. The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers.
5. These rivers bring a lot of silt, making these plains very fertile.
6. There are famous hill stations like Simla, Mussorie, Nainital, Raniket, etc. covered by evergreen forests.
7. The valleys are known for the cultivation of fruits.
8. There are passes in the Himalayas which act as great exchange of culture and commerce.

Question 12.
Write about the coastal plains.
Answer:

1. The southern part of the peninsular plateau is bordered by narrow coastal strips along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
2. Western plain is uneven and broken by hilly terrain.
3. It is divided into 3 parts.
   a) Konkan coast-northern part comprising Maharashtra and Goa coast.
   b) The second is Canara Coast – the middle part includes coastal plain of Karnataka.
   c) The last part is Malabar coast – the southern part, mostly in the state of Kerala.
4. Bay of Bengal plains are wide and have large surface structure.
5. It stretches from Mahanadi in Odisha to Cauvery deltas in Tamil Nadu.
6. These coastal plains are known locally by different names as Utkal coast in Odisha, Circar coast in Andhra Pradesh and Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on its content.
The formation of the Himalayas influences the climate in various ways. These act as hornets protecting the great plains of India from the cold winds of central Asia during severe winter. The Himalayas are the reason for summer rains and monsoon type climate in regions that are beyond the Western Ghats of India. In its absence, this region would have remained drier. The Himalayan Rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by the glaciers and bring a fat of silt, making these plains very fertile.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it is dearly understood that the Himalayas are useful to India in many ways.
2. It means that because of the Himalayas only there are fertile soils, sufficient rainfall, and perennial rivers and so it is useful to agriculture which is the backbone of our economy.
3. I agree with this paragraph because every point discussed here is correct.
4. The Himalayas are extending in the north of our country from Jammu Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh for about 2400 kilometers.
5. Automatically they stop the cold winds blowing from central Asia because our cultivable lands are in the south.
6. If the Himalayas were not there, India would become dry land or a desert.
7. Though we have many benefits from the Himalayas, the passes of the Himalayas caused for foreigners to invade our country and these helped in exchanging business and culture.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the condition of the area as well as people living there.
The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side afAravalis and receives very low amount of rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops. It occupies much of western Rajasthan. It has an arid climate with very law vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season and disappear soon after. ‘Luni’ is the only river in this area. These internal drainage rivers fill into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
Answer:

1. This paragraph says that much of western Rajasthan is sandy and without adequate rainfall.
2. Without sufficient rainfall we can’t expect proper cultivation and production of crops.
3. Though Rajasthan ranks first in the area it has maximum desert area.
4. According to this paragraph, there are a few streams which can be seen during rainy season.
5. The unfortunate thing of the people living there is that the area is in the leeward side of the Aravali Mountains.
6. The southwest monsoons remain empty by reaching there.
7. My opinion is that the people should make a few changes in their livelihoods.
8. They should grow more crops during rainy season. It would be better for them to go for multiple cropping.
9. They grow food crops with the help of Indira Gandhi canal water irrigation.
10. Government should provide their commodities at subsidized prices.
11. Along with the Indira Gandhi canal, there should be many more schemes like that till their needs are fulfilled.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on the geographical location of India.
The geographical location of India provides its vast diversity in climatic conditions. This has led to a variety of vegetation and life forms along with advantages for growing many kinds of crops. Its long coastline and location in the Indian Ocean enabled trade routes as well as fishing.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, the geographical location of India is very prosperous.
2. India has ocean water on the three sides whereas the high Himalayan Mountains in the north.
3. These Himalayas give birth to various perennial rivers because of glaciers so as to grow more crops and this led to a variety of vegetation.
4. In my opinion, there are a few benefits as well as losses to the people living in coastal plains and hilly areas.
5. The coastal people face some drastic situations when there is a tsunami or cyclones.
6. The people living in hilly areas face the problem of landslides.
7. Nowadays global warming is increasing. It may lead to submerge of coastal cultivable lands.
8. People may face many problems.
9. Along with these problems they have the opportunity of maintaining foreign trade with the help of sea routes.
10. Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Mumbai and Cochin are some of the examples for the trade cen¬ters of sea routes.

Question 16.
Observe the table and answer the questions.

Answer the following questions.

1. What are the names of the three Himalayan ranges?
   Answer:
   The three names of the Himalayan ranges are the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
2. Which of the ranges have hill stations?
   Answer:
   The hill stations are found in the Lesser Himalayan ranges.
3. Where do we find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun?
   Answer:
   We find Dehra Dun and Patli Dun in the valleys in between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks.
4. What is the difference in between the ranges of the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas with regard to the composition?
   Answer:
   The Greater Himalayas are composed of ice and snow cover whereas the Lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed rocks.

Question 17.
Describe the formation and divisions of Indo-Gangetic plains.
Answer:

1. The interaction of three Himalayan rivers the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries resulted in the formation of great northern plain.
2. In the beginning it was a shallow basin later gradually filled with alluvial soil from these rivers.
3. The western part of Indo-Gangetic plains was formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej flowing from the Himalayas.
4. Doab features dominate the fertile land between the two rivers.
5. The central part is known as Ganga plain extending from the rivers the Ghaggar to the Teesta. 6} The eastern part of the plain exists mostly in the Brahmaputra valley of Assom and the river
   Brahmaputra is mainly responsible for its formation.

Question 18.
Describe the vairous aspects of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:

1. The Indian Plateau is also known as the peninsular plateau as it is surrounded by the sea on three sides.
2. Large amounts of metallic and non-metallic mineral resources are found here.
3. Its topography is slightly tilted towards east.
4. Its two divisions are central high lands (Malwa plateau) and the Deccan Plateau.
5. The rivers here are not perennial.
6. The triangular landmass to the south of Narmada is called Deccan Plateau.
7. The structure of Western Ghats is continuous with a few passes as the gateways to the coastal plains.
8. The Eastern Ghats are not continuous.
9. One of the remarkable features of the peninsular plateau is black soils formed due to volcanic activity.

Question 19.
Write about the Thar desert.
Answer:

1. The Thar Desert is located on the leeward side of Aravalisand receives very low rainfall, ranging from 100 to 150 mm per year.
2. The desert consists of an undulating sandy plain and rocky outcrops.
3. It occupies much of western Rajasthan.
4. It has an arid climate with very low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during rainy season and disappear soon after.
6. Luni is the only river in this area.
7. The internal drainage rivers fall into the lakes and don’t reach the sea.
8. Indira Gandhi canal is watering part of Thar desert.
9. Several hectares of desert land have been brought under cultivation.

Question 20.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which hills are spread continuously from North to South?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats spread continuously from North to South.
2. Which Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers?
   Answer:
   Western Ghats are the birthplace of many rivers.
3. Which river flows westwards?
   Answer:
   The river which flows westwards is Narmada. (Tapti also)
4. Which plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali?
   Answer:
   Malwa plateau is there on the windward side of the Aravali.
5. Where do the eastern and western Ghats join?
   Answer:
   The eastern and western Ghats join Nilgiris near Gudalur.
6. Which ocean is located in the south of India?
   Answer:
   The Indian Ocean is located in the south of India.
7. Which plateau is there in between Ms s and Chotanagpur plateau?
   Answer:
   Central plateau is there in between Malwa and Chotanagpur plateau.

Question 21.
Read the given map and answer the following questions.

1. Which is the standard meridian in India?
   Answer:
   82° 30′ Eastern Longitude is the standard meridian in India.
2. Name the latitude that moves from the centre of India.
   Answer:
   23% northern latitude moves from the centre of India. This is called Tropic of Cancer.
3. What is the distance between north and south tip of India?
   The distance between north and south tips is 3214 kms.
4. Mention the location of India.
   Answer:
   India is located in between the latitudes of 8°4′ and 37°6′ N and longitudes of 68°7′ and 97°25′ E.
5. Name any two frontier countries of India.
   Answer:
   Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and Nepal. ( any two can be written)
6. Which islands are located in the southeast corner of India?
   Answer:
   Andaman Nicobar islands are located in the southeast corner of India.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

• Locate the Highest plateau in the world.
  Answer: Tibet
• Capital of Himachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Simla
• Highest peak in India.
  Answer: Mt-K₂
• Locate the Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.
  Answer: Mishmi Hills
• This plateau has rich variety of mineral resources.
  Answer:
  Chotanagpur
• Rajmahal hills
  Triangular plateau.
  Answer:
  Deccan Plateau Circar Coast
• The southernmost tip of India.
  Answer:
  Kanya Kumari
• Mashy Swampy region of Gujarath.
  Answer:
  Rann of Kutch

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Using the following case study, explain the role of different Departments of the Government and citizens in the context of RTI. Also write how can the the RTI make functioning of the governments more transparent.

Following incident occurred in Chinnashankarampet of Medak district. Members of the Self Help Groups joined in Abhaya Hastam, Aam Aadmi schemes of the Rural Welfare Ministry of the State Government. Under this scheme their children who were students of classes 9 to 12 were eligible for scholarship of Rs. 1200. However for 3 years students have not been receiving the amount for the years during 2008-11. The students went to the IKP (Indira Kranthi Pathakam) office and enquired about it but the officers ignored their requests.

This came to the notice of the local newspapers. Now they applied to the officers concerned for the information with regard to the scholarships sanctioned. They asked about the number of beneficiaries and the amount sanctioned during 2008-09, 09-10 and 10-11. They got rqply in one week. The amount was 7 lakh rupees. It became clear from the RTI records that even though the amount was sanctioned, it was not distributed. When it was published in the newspapers the amount was distributed to 1167 children within 15 days.

Answer:
Following the case study above we can assess the role of the departments handling different schemes like SHG, IKP, Abhaya Hastam and Aam Aadmi, etc.
Having learnt of the knowledge of RTI and applying for information of the scholarships sanctioned helped the beneficiaries.
The RTI can make the functioning of the Government more transparent. Students who did not receive scholarships for 3 long years were given the same within 15 days. Not only that not providing information asks for punishment on the part of PIOs.

Question 2.
How do you think RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments?
“RTI would help in improving and monitoring the work of the governments”- Do you agree with this? Support your answer.
Answer:

1. In any democratic system, governments are responsible and accountable to people.
2. Earlier accountability of government departments and its functionaries were mostly limited to the elected representatives of people.
3. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
4. So, if there are any discrepancies, they will be brought out and who are responsible will be given punishments.
5. So, in this way government functioning can be bettered and monitored well.

Question 3.
What is identified as information? How is this generated in Government Departments? Would it include oral communication between senior and junior officers?
Answer:

1. According to RTI Act, information is defined as material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
2. Enactment of the RTI effectively means that individual government departments now have a responsibility to maintain records and make them available to any citizen who may ask for it.
3. The oral instructions or oral communication between senior and junior officers do not fall in this category.

Question 4.
Why are the State and Central Information Offices given autonomy?
Answer:

1. Every government offices have a Public Information Officer (PIO) and Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) and appellate authority in department.
2. All PIOs and APIOs of all departments and departmental appellate authorities are under autonomous appellate State Public Information Office with a State Public Information Commissioner (SPIC).
3. If a government department fall under Central government, PIOs are accountable to autonomous Central Information Office with a Central Public Information Commissioner (CPIC).
4. They are given autonomy because they need to deal with the PIOs who rejected to provide information.
5. They should not yield under any pressure that is why they must be independent.

Question 5.
This (RTI 2005) Act resembles the true spirit of democracy. How do you justify?
Answer:

1. In a democracy, it is the people’s money that is used for their welfare and therefore people have every right to know how this is being used.
2. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
3. In situations where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
4. Information is crucial to human development, and democratic rights.
5. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning and check the possibility of corrupt practices.
6. Thus, this Act (RTI Act of 2005) resembles the true spirit of democracy.

Question 6.
What steps have been taken to ensure that any citizen can access information from the different government departments in the country?
Answer:
Under the provisions of 2005 Act of RTI, public authorities are obliged to
a) maintain all information in a computerised format
b) publish all detailed information pertaining to the information some of it fbitn the Act as follows:

1. Every public authority shall
   a) Maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed.
   b) The authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation, functions and duties.
2. The powers and duties of its officers and employees to be published.
3. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability;
4. The rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees for discharging its functions.

Question 7.
How do you think the Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under the Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002, legal services authorities are constituted to provide free and legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities and to organize Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on an equal opportunity basis.
4. In this way, Legal Services Authority would help the people in seeking legal aid.

Question 8.
What is the purpose of Lok Adalat?
Answer:

1. Lok Adalat meahs people’s court.
2. All are equal before law.
3. The Article 39A of the Constitution of India contains various provisions for settlement of disputes.
4. It is an act to constitute legal services, authorities to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
5. It is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice or not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
6. To organise Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity.
7. This is the purpose of Lok Adalat.

(OR)

1. The main aim of Lok Adalat is to provide free legal aid to poor and weaker sections and also faster settlement of long pending cases on mutual consent.
2. Lok Adalat facilitates the peaceful, amicable, compromise or settlement of cases.
3. It is meant to reduce the burden of the courts.

Question 9.
What do you think on the eligible criteria for free legal services and nature of cases under this Act?
Answer:
i) Persons entitled to get free legal support are

1. A member of scheduled caste or scheduled tribe.
2. A victim of trafficking in human being or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. Persons who are victims of mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought earthquake and industrial disaster.
6. Industrial workers.
7. Persons in custody.
8. Persons with annual income of not more than Rs. 1 lakh

ii) Nature of cases under this Act.
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husbands and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

Question 10.
Compare and contrast the procedures of conflict/case resolution by the Village Community elders and by courts. Which do you prefer and why?
Answer:

1. In our country, it is common that conflicts in the villages and in the communities are addressed by the village/community elders.
2. They settle them in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing the various issues and concerns.
3. The nature of conflict and disputes and their origin are mostly known to the local people and village elders.
4. This facilitates to find out amicable solutions in a transparent way.
5. Now Lok Adalats are functioning to settle disputes/cases in an amicable atmosphere by mutual consent in the presence of legal experts, officials and non-officials, dignitaries.
6. People are now using it for expeditious and inexpensive justice.
7. It is an opportunity to settle long pending court cases through Lok Adalat in short time and without any expenses.
8. It is an old form of dispute/ conflict resolution system valid now also.

10th Class Social Studies 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 316

Question 1.
Discuss what could be the reason information would not include oral (instruction of a headmaster to a teacher.
Answer:

1. RTI Act has defined information as the following:
2. Material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models.
3. Data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be assessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
4. In this, the oral instructions are not included as they were not in written form.
5. Thus, the oral instruction of a headmaster to a teacher would not be included in information.

Question 2.
Imagine how would government departments would become more accountable when rules and regulations are followed within prescribed manner.
Answer:

1. Government departments have the responsibility to use the people’s money for their welfare.
2. For every department there are rules and regulations that are to be followed within a prescribed manner.
3. If all the departments follow them, automatically they will be more accountable to people.
4. Not only that their functioning would become transparent and free from corruption.
5. Machinery to monitoring them is essential and they must be given applause if they are behaving accountable to people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 318

Question 3.
According to this Act (RTI 2005), if any officer fails to give the specified information, she/he will have to pay the fine. Do you agree with this? Why?
Answer:

1. According to this Act, if any officer fails to give the specified information she/he will have to pay fine.
2. I do agree with it.
3. It prevents corruption.
4. It provides for accountability and transparency.
5. It prevents PIOs from shying away of information.
6. If a fine is imposed on one PIO then it acts as deterrent and most PIOs realise the impact of not giving information.
7. Apart from making the PIOs responsible in case of not providing information, they should be appreciated.

Question 4.
What type of information is not accessible to the citizens? What is the argument in favour of this?
Answer:

1. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. Matters that could be of strategic economic on scientific interest of the state in the context of foreign powers.
3. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commission.
4. It is correct on the part of government not to share the information that is vital and affect the country,. . . . ..
5. If information of strategic importance was disclosed and reached the hands of foreign powers, the damage that could be caused cannot be estimated.
6. Citizens should also have some self restraint and not to seek the information which causes the worry to National Government.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 320

Question 5.
What sort of opportunities are existing in our country for free legal services to the poor people who cannot afford to pay court fees and other related expenses?
Answer:

1. There is a system in our country to provide free legal service to the people.
2. Under Legal Services Authority (amendment) Act, 2002 Legal Services Authorities are constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society.
3. This is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
4. To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on equal opportunity basis.

Question 6.
What is the nature of cases and conflicts that can be addressed through free legal services?
Answer:

1. The legal services authority through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time without any expenses.
2. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases can be addressed through free legal service.
3. All types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc. can be settled amicably and permanently by Lok Adalats without any fees or expenses through free legal services.

Question 7.
Is there any mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts?
Answer:

1. There is one mechanism for alternate dispute resolution outside the courts.
2. Conflicts in villages/ communities are addressed by village/ community elders.
3. They resolute conflicts in a peaceful and amicable way by discussing various issues/ concerns.
4. The nature of conflicts/disputes and their origin are mostly known to village elders.
5. This facilitates to find out an amicable solution in a transparent way.
6. Thus outside the courts the conflicts/disputes are addressed and resoluted by village elders.

Question 8.
Do you support the Lok Adalats? If so, why?
Answer:

1. I support Lok Adalats because there is no court fee, if paid it will be refunded if the dispute is settled.
2. It has procedural flexibility and speedy trial of the disputes.
3. The parties of the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their council.
4. The Award by Lok Adalat is binding on the parties with a status of decree of civil court.
5. Provides free legal advice form the advocates.
6. Provides photocopies of judgements on free of cost.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer: Which among the following statements about the Cold War is wrong?
a) Rivalry between the US and the USSR,
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war,
c) Triggering off an arms race,
d) An ideological war between the two super powers.
Answer:
b) The USA and the USSR engaged in direct war.

Question 2.
Who amongst the following is not involved in The West Asian crisis?
a) Egypt
b) Indonesia
c) Britain
d) Israel
Answer:
b) Indonesia.

Question 3.
What was the nature of shift in power in the world after the Second World War?
Answer:

1. The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and imperialism.
2. After the war colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial powers exclusive access to the colonies.
3. In fact, Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the great depression.
4. Far from War theatres, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered.
5. The USSR coming out of its destruction was emerging as a Champion of anticolonial struggle.
6. In the post-war period the USA and the USSR have emerged as super powers.
7. The USA is the leader of the capitalist nations and the USSR is the leader of the communist nations.

(OR)
After the Second World War, the major shift in power is observed between two power blocs of USA and USSR.

1. The USA led an Anti – communist bloc based on capitalistic principles. It tried to prevent other countries from adopting communism.
2. The USSR led a communist bloc. It tried to bring other countries into its communist influence.
3. Both USA and USSR tried to expand their ideologies and check each other, resulted in the situation of cold war.
4. Newly independent countries formed an alliance called NAM that stood independently in international aspects away from both military blocs.

Question 4.
What are the different roles done by United Nations in order to build peace in the world?
Answer:

1. The UN started with a twin objectives of ensuring peace ever lasting and human development.
2. Charter emphasised on the need to preserve peace and prevent wars.
3. It recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affairs of country.
4. In cases of serious human rights violation or threat to world peace, the UN interferes.
5. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council.
6. UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
7. The special powers to great powers is a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
8. UN has been less successful in preventing wars.

Question 5.
Given the idea of democracy do you think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions?
Answer:

1. Given the idea of democracy, also, I think a few countries should have special powers in making decisions.
2. The very existence of forums like UN has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.
3. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
4. At times, these powers may be used to block any action against them.
5. Sometimes these powers save many countries and territories of theirs. As all four permanent members intended to annex Kashmir to Pakistan. Russia used veto power to stop it and did the favour to India.

(OR)
Given the idea of democracy, I think a few countries should have special powers in making the decisions is not correct. This is opposite to concept of democracy.

Question 6.
How were the super powers benefited by military alliances?
Answer:

1. Super powers strengthened themselves by creating military alliances.
2. They maintained a constrained relationship acting as a deterrent on each other.
3. With alliances they expanded their influence.
4. They gained the access to the vital resources like oil and minerals.
5. They have markets for their products and places to invest safely their capital.
6. They got military bases to launch their troops and weapons.
7. They could spread their ideology.
8. They gain economic support to pay huge military expenses.

Question 7.
How did Cold War produce arms race as well as arms control?
Answer:

1. Both the USSR and the USA spent huge amounts of money to conduct research into weapons.
2. They build arsenals of devastating nuclear arms and missiles.
3. They could strike across the continents.
4. They had enough nuclear arms to destroy the entire earth many times over.
5. Gradually their allies like Britain, France and China too built nuclear arsenals.
6. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.
7. Many times war looked imminent but got defused somehow through diplomacy.
8. There were many flash points which made everyone believe of the triggering off another world war.
9. But when both ultimately realised the implication of a nuclear war both started working for arms control and many arms control treaties were signed like CTBT, NPT, etc.
10. Both decided to follow the logic of deterrence which meant that both have the capacity to attack and cause so much destruction to threaten the existence of the other. But neither is willing to start the war due to the amount of destruction.

Question 8.
Why did West Asia become a center of tensions in the world?
Answer:

1. West Asia became a center of tensions in the world.
2. The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are the main cause for it.
3. In Palestine is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
4. Jews and Arabs want it at any cost.
5. Matters were also complicated by the discovery of massive oil reserves.
6. Both the US and the USSR wanted to bring it under their sphere of influence.
7. In 1947, UN created Jerusalem for Jews from Palestine.
8. Arabs refused to recognize it as a legitimate state.
9. Israel took policies that insulted Arabs.
10. Arabs formed suicide squads for causing explosions in public places.
11. The region has been constantly in a state of war and terrorist attacks.

Question 9.
By the end of the 20th century there is only one single power that dominates the world. In this context what do you think would be the role of NAM?
Answer:

1. In the current scenario the USA remains a major super-power and China is in the process of becoming the biggest threat to the US supremacy of world affairs. Russia is also slowly climbing back, for its joint policy of respecting anti-US policy in the security council, by the use of the veto along with China.
2. The Nam has in recent years often criticised the USA while backing self-determination of Puerto Rico and Western Sahara. It can play a strong role in devising methods to foster co-operation among these nations.
3. The Nam can also act as a guide and over seen of the condition of Human Rights in some of the member states who have rather poor human rights records.
4. NAM is a great way to ensure that issues like Palestine and crises in Somalia and Sudan get a fair and long-lasting solution and that the super-powers don’t unduly interfere in these issues to meet their vested interest. Thus NAM exists and will continue to exist as a strong organisation to reckon with.

Question 10.
“Formation of NAM was not merely in the context of military alliances but also in the context of economic policies” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Non Alignment was established as an international organisation with an aim to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.
2. NAM helped the newly independent nations assert their autonomy in international affairs in a world torn between the two super powers.
3. NAM summit at Algiers in 1973 resolved to constitute 5 different trusts to strengthen the economic development of non aligned countries and assist in their reconstruction activities.
4. In the Hawana summit conference in 1979 it also appealed to take measures to minimise the economic differences between the developed and under developed countries.
5. Thus, it also worked for economical development of NAM countries.
6. During 1970s and early 1980s, the NAM also sponsored campaigns for restructuring commercial relations between developed and developing nations, namely the NIEO.
7. The Djakarta Summit 1992 allowed the movement to shift its focus in a direction that also enabled it to work a cross to grouping such as the G-7 and the EU.

Question 11.
Make a table to show relation between India and neighbouring countires with following items :
Answer:

Question 12.
“The ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.” Justify.
Answer:

1. Since times immemorial, India and Sri Lanka have cultural, ethnic and economic relations.
2. A major irritant in the relation between the two countries has been the treatment of Tamil speaking minorities by the Sri Lankan government.
3. The large scale influx of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees into India posed a special problem.
4. India made an agreement with Sri Lanka and Tamil militants to maintain peace on the land.
5. India sent its armies to keep peace in Sri Lanka and it caused the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.
6. Thus, ethnic conflicts affected India’s relations with Sri Lanka.

10th Class Social Studies 20th Lesson Post – War World and India InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 283

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘decolonization’?
Answer:

1. During the 18th and 19th centuries, some European countries set up colonies in Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
2. They used those colonies as cheap raw material suppliers and markets for their finished goods.
3. They waged World War keeping control over their colonies.
4. After the Second World War, colonial powers like Britain and France could no longer justify their old colonial policies.
5. Under these conditions, old powers like Britain had no choice but to grant freedom to their old colonies.
6. This granting of freedom to old colonies is called ‘decolonisation1.

Question 2.
How do you think the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War, colonial states granted freedom to their colonies.
2. As these countries became free they faced a world greatly torn between Capitalism and Communism.
3. They were continuously under the pressure to choose between the two rather than follow their own paths of development.
4. They also got an opportunity to negotiate by playing one power against the other.
5. Thus, the newly free countries would have been influenced by the competition between the two power blocs.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 284

Question 3.
Do you think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries?
Answer:
Yes, I think that wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchange between countries.
(OR)

1. I don’t think wars are related to poverty, lack of equitable development, and cultural exchanges between countries.
2. Most of the wars are fought for ideological differences, colonial advantages, and occupation of other territories as an achievement.
3. Every country fought or allied with it has its own calculations and agenda.
4. Though with the central groups, Italy fought against Germany in the 1st World War.
5. Though made a peace treaty with Russia, Hitler invaded it during the Second World War.
6. Wars may to some extent help for the cultural exchanges between the countries.

Question 4.
According to some the special powers given to the five powers is undemocratic and should be abolished while some others feel that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Decisions relating to war and peace are taken in Security Council and five nations have special status within it.
2. Any decision taken by council can be vetoed by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
3. However, the very existence of UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self control.
4. The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
5. So, I support the view that if these powers do not have special powers the UNO cannot function smoothly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 289

Question 5.
What was the main purpose of 1955 Bandung conference?
Answer:

1. The leaders of newly independent states felt the need for a change from the insecure and tense situation caused by power blocs.
2. So in 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
3. It was the first Afro-Asian conference represented by 29 nations.
4. Its aim was to promote cultural and economic cooperation among the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America.

Question 6.
How did super powers react for the principles of Non-alignment?
Answer:

1. NAM helped the newly emerging countries to bargain for space and assistance from the super powers by playing one against the other.
2. To some extent it also ease tensions amongst the NAM countries.
3. Both the blocs looked at NAM with suspicion.
4. The US regarded the NAM as being closer to the USSR on wider international issues.
5. When Soviet invaded Afghanistan NAM could not stop it.
6. Thus, the super powers reacted for the principles of Non Alignment Movement.

Question 7.
Why were Non-Aligned Nations called third world countries?
Answer:

1. After the Second World War the world divided into 2 power blocs under the USA and the USSR.
2. So these two are considered two different worlds.
3. Many countries were newly emerged as countries, which were before the colonies of colonial states.
4. All of these countries joined Non-Alignment Movement.
5. So these Non Aligned Nations were called ‘third world’.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 291

Question 8.
What were the reasons for the conflict between Arabs and Israelites?
Answer:

1. The conflict between Arabs and Jews is mainly related to the occupation of Palestine.
2. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.
3. The Jews considered Palestine as their Promised Land.
4. In Europe they were the persecuted community as Christians considered them responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
5. The Jews through ‘Zionist Movement’ trying to unite Jews over the world.
6. The discovery of massive oil reserves made the US and the USSR to enter the dispute.

Question 9.
Why did Egypt support the Palestinians during the conflict?
Answer:

1. In 1947 UN divided Palestine and created Israel for Jews.
2. The Arabs did not agree to giving up their homeland.
3. The Arabs were forced to leave their homes and properties in Israel and refugees to Arab states.
4. Egypt formed suicide squads to cause explosion in Israel.
5. Egyptians are also Arabs, that’s why they are vengeful.

Question 10.
Why do you think some Palestinians adopted the path of terrorism? What was its outcome?
Answer:

1. Israelites forced Arabs out of their homes and properties.
2. Egyptians caused explosions in public places in Israel to support Arabs.
3. These were attacks and counter attacks between Israel and Egypt.
4. Israel occupied the territories of Gaza, Golan Heights and the West Bank.
5. Palestinian Liberation Organisation led by Yasser Arafat started in Jordan carried out plane hijacking holding hostage of Israeli Olympic squad and killing many of the sportspersons.
6. The result is Israel used such attacks to mount further attacks on them and refused to implement the promises it had made.

Question 11.
Find out about the condition of Palestinians who are living in refugee camps and constantly facing warfare and poverty.
Answer:

1. The condition of Palestinians who are living in refuge camps are very pitiable.
2. They are constantly facing warfare and poverty.
3. Refugee camps are not providing them sufficient facilities to lead a happy life.
4. Palestinians became the victims of world politics, especially of the super powers.
5. The Palestinian are still fighting for their homeland and peace under very difficult conditions of exile and warfare.
6. Though with the intervention of UN, the problems are not yet solved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 292

Question 12.
What are the similarities and difference between Arab Socialist Nationalism and Religious Nationalism?
Answer:

Question 13.
Find out more about the developments in Iran and Afghanistan under the Taliban to understand how religious states work.
Answer:
Afghanistan:

1. The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops established an extremist Islamic state.
2. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts.
3. In many cases they meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.
4. The beginning of the 21st century witnessed growing discontent among the Arabs which resulted in the growth of religious terrorism.
5. Some Arab terrorists hijacked 2 aircrafts in the US and crashed into the World Trade Centre in New York killing thousands of people.

Iran:
The offical religion of the Islamic Republic of Iran is “Shiaism”. Iran explicitly aims to support and lead the entire Muslim world. The Shariah provides all the laws needed for the Islamic state from Allah.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 293

Question 14.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. The term polarity refers to the world that was divided between two power blocs.
2. It was the period between 1945 and 1991.
3. The two power blocs are Communist power block under USSR and democratic Capitalist power bloc under USA. This, situation is called as bipolarity.
4. But in the year 1991 USSR was disintegrated and Russia was no more a super power.
5. From 1991 the world became unipolar i.e., one super power, America.
6. These are the different terms of bipolarity and unipolarity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 294

15. Read the passage on Page 293 (During the colonial resolved till today.) and answer the following questions.
a. Do you think it was correct for India to give refuge to the Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers?
Answer:

1. I think it is correct for India to give refuge to Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers.
2. China overpowered the Tibet and eschewed its sovereignty.
3. Dalai Lama and his Tibetan followers are fighting for their autonomy.
4. According to Panchsheel, China agreed to not interfere into the sovereignty of other countries.
5. It violated the agreement and annexed Tibet.

b. Do you think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet?
Answer:

1. I don’t think China was justified in wanting to control Tibet.
2. It may believe that a small sovereign country in the neighborhood may be a threat.
3. Opponents may bring it in their control or under their sphere of influence.
4. So it might have overpowered it and annexed.
5. Its action, anyway, was not justified.

Question 16.
To what extent do you think both the countries can forget about their past conflicts over the boundaries and develop meaningful cooperation and friendship?
Answer:

1. After the 1962 Indo-Chinese war, it took more than a decade to restore diplomatic normalcy.
2. Being rising powers of Asia, both have strategic as well as economic advantages.
3. Both are ambitious to be major world economic and political powers.
4. They also see each other as economic and political competitors.
5. Both have taken measure to maintain peace and tranquility at the borders.
6. So they have to forget about their post conflicts over borders and develop meaningful friendship and cooperation.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 296

Question 17.
What steps do you think both India and Pakistan should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. First India and Pakistan should leave the conflicts behind which were perpetual right from the partition.
2. They should seek the help of UN over the issue of Kashmir and agree for mutual amicable settlement.
3. Pakistan should stop her religious terrorism and trained militant infiltration into India.
4. Pakistan should keep herself away from theocratic rule and military coups and belief should be kept in elections and democracy.
5. Both countries should continue with all present trade, economic, cultural, sports, film, etc. relations. In addition to, help each other in combating terrorism, eradication of poverty, assistance in technology, medicine, etc.

Question 18.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both the countries?
(Or)
Why the peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries? Explain, keeping in view the recent developments.
Answer:

1. Peace between India and Pakistan is necessary for the development of both the countries.
2. Both of them are spending huge amounts on defence and strategic nuclear arsenal.
3. The division of the country itself created mistrust among the countries and it is mounted now.
4. For social, political and economical development of the both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 19.
Many small countries feel that their larger neighbours act like ‘big brothers’. What do you think is meant by this?
Answer:

1. Many small countries feel that their neighbours act like ‘big brothers’.
2. They meant that larger neighbours are trying to control them.
3. They feel that neighbours are doing this to pretend that they are doing it for the benefit of small country.
4. They meant that ‘Big brother’ is watching them i.e., Big brother knew what small countries did.
5. Thus, small countries treat their larger neighbours as’Big brothers’.

(OR)

This means the larger neighbouring countries will work for the good of the small countries as a family members.

Question 20.
Look at the map of India and Bangladesh and see why cooperation between the two countries is of vital importance to both.
Answer:

1. Bangladesh is surrounded by Indian states.
2. In between many Indian states there is Bangladesh.
3. So there should be cooperation between the two countries.
4. It is of vital importance for both the countries.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 297

Question 21.
Compare the support of India to Bangladesh and its role in Sri Lanka – Do you think the situation was similar or different?
Answer:

1. Bangladesh, erstwhile East Pakistan is physically distant from parent West Pakistan.
2. The people led a liberation movement nearly for 8 months and then India supported her cause.
3. Thus, Bangladesh was formed as new nation.
4. Whereas the situation in Sri Lanka is different.
5. Indian Tamils, an integral part of Sri Lanka but were meted out injustice based on their language and race.
6. The interference of India was not appreciated by both Sri Lanka government and the Tamils fighting for their rights.
7. So, the situation in Sri Lanka is different from that of Bangladesh.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Find the odd one out.
a) Indian Constitution adopts from experiences of freedom struggle.
b) Indian Constitution adopts from already existing Constitutions.
c) Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.
d) Indian Constitution provides principles and provisions for ruling the country.
Answer:
The odd one is ‘c’. It is: Indian Constitution has remained the same since its drafting.

Question 2.
Correct the false statements:
a) There was unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented only certain regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution may also be amended.
Answer:
a) There was no unanimity of opinion on all provisions during CA debates.
b) The makers of Constitution represented all the regions of the country.
c) Constitution provides certain provisions to amend articles in it.
d) The Supreme Court of India has said that basic features of Constitution cannot be amended.

Question 3.
Describe the unitary and federal principles of Indian government as discussed in the CA debates.
(OR)
Distinguish between federal and unitary systems. June 2017)
Answer:
Our Constitution reaffirms that India is a unitary and a federal state. The following principles represent the unitary and federal characters.
Unitary Principles :

1. Single citizenship,
2. The supremacy of the Constitution,
3. Residual powers to central governments,
4. Single Judiciary,
5. Uniformity of fundamental rights,
6. Provision for All India Services.

Federal Principles :

1. Dual Polity,
2. Sovereign Powers to States,
3. State Services.

Question 4.
How does the Constitution reflect the political events of the time? Draw from previous chapters on the freedom struggle.
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution adopts from the experience of the freedom struggle.
2. It reflects the political events of time.
3. It provides for equality, liberty, justice and fraternity.
4. It promises adult universal franchise, fundamental rights which were most sought after during freedom struggle.
5. It grants single citizenship and independent judiciary to protect the integrity of the country and the rights and liberties of people.
6. A reference to the history of British rule and Indian independence struggle provides basic idea of self-governance that emerged into a people’s participative democracy.
7. The representatives of princely states declared the First Round table conference that they would join an ‘All India Federation with a Self-Governing British India’. This prefered creation of All India Federation.

Question 5.
What differences would it have made to the making of our Constitution if the Assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise?
Answer:

1. It would not have made any difference to the making of our Constitution even if the assembly had been elected through Universal Adult Franchise.
2. At that time nearly 86% of the population is illiterate.
3. Most of the population was under the poverty line.
4. Nothing substantial benefit would have made.
5. The Draft Committee chairman himself was one of the greatest intellectuals of all the time in the world.
6. So, a better Constitution was already made.

(OR)

1. It would be more democratic if the constituent assembly had been elected through universal adult franchise.
2. If the assembly members had been elected through universal adult franchise intellectuals would not be elected and better constitution was also not prepared.

Question 6.
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.
Sovereignty:

1. India is a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
2. The Indian people has sovereign (or) supreme power.

Fundamental Rights:
Indian Constitution provide basic fundamental rights to all citizens without discrimination.

Directive Principles:
These are guidelines to frame laws. These are not enforceable by the courts.

Cabinet Government (or) Parliamentary Type of Government:
A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

Secularism:
Secularism is the basic structure of Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

Socialism:
The world Socialism was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment- It implies social and economic equality.

Fedaralism:
The Constitution provides a federal structure. The powers are specifically divided between central and state government.

Independent judiciary:
India has an independent and integrated judiciary.

Question 7.
How has the Constitution defined and changed political institutions in the country?
Answer:

1. The Constitution has defined and changed political institutions in the country.
2. It provided federal system with union and state government of sovereign power.
3. It made the Constitution as the supreme law of land.
4. It paves way for strong centre during an emergency.
5. It supports multiparty democracy with elections in definite intervals.
6. It provided universal Adult Franchise.
7. It set up Election Commission for smooth conduct of free and fair elections.
8. It adopts single citizenship.
9. It provides fundamental rights.
10. It adopts directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties.

Conclusion: It defines India as a sovereign, democratic, socialist and secular republic. It has provisions for bringing about social change and defining the relationship between Individual citizen and the state.

Question 8.
While Constitution provides basic principles it is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change. Do you agree with this statement, give reasons.
Answer:

1. Constitution provides basic principles like fundamental rights, the supremacy of the Constitution, etc.
2. It is the engagement of people with the system that brings in social change.
3. People get good and transparent governance only if they elect good and corrupt free representatives.
4. All the schemes of government would be fruitful if they reach genuine beneficiaries.
5. Thus, people’s participation brings social change.

10th Class Social Studies 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 232

Question 1.
Complete the following tasks regarding the Indian Constitution.
Task 1: Some significant contributors to the Indian Constitution were:
———-, ———-, ———-.
Answer:
Sri Babu Rajendra Prasad, Acharya Kripalani, Pandit Nehru, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Task 2: What are the basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in its Preamble?
Answer:
Basic ideals of Indian Constitution as reflected in the Preamble:

1. Justice : Every citizen will have social, economical and political justice.
2. Liberty : Every citizen will have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Equality : Every citizen will be provided with the equality of status and of opportunity.
4. Fraternity : Citizens of India have been assured about the dignity of the individual and unity, integrity of the nation.

Task 3: Read the following two preambles along with the Indian Preamble and see how they are similar or different. Remember each Constitution also reflects political events around the making of their nations. Try to relate to the political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution. (You can re-read the background of Japan in chapter 13 and look at page 234 to understand the background of Nepal.)
Answer:

The political events that may have influenced the thought that went into the Constitution:
India: The differences in traditional India and disparities in colonial India and political movements shaped the Indian Constitution.
Nepal: The political movements against Monarchy formed the Nepal Constitution.
Japan: The results of World War – II shaped the Japanese Constitution so.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 233 & 234

Question 2.
Read the Preambles of Nepal and Japan given on Pages 232 and 233 in Textbook and answer the following questions.
a) What do you think is similar or different in the political context of these nations? What were the immediate prior events? Who were the previous rulers?
Answer:

1. These nations restrict the monarchy and other forms of governance.
2. They are committed to form the government by those who were given mandate in elections.
3. They believe their representatives make policies whose fruits are enjoyed by people.
4. There were mass movements for democracy in Nepal.
5. Japan started new lease of life after war torn image.
6. Nepal was ruled by the Monarch.
7. Japan was ruled by Pan Asianic rulers.

b) Which Preamble refers to the word gender?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Constitution of Nepal refers to the word gender.
2. It promises to solve the problems relating gender.

c) Which Preamble reflects the desire for peace?
Answer:

1. The Preamble of the Japanese Constitution reflects the desire for peace.
2. It promises to never visit the horrors of war.

d) How are people’s movements reflected in the Preamble?
Answer:
The Nepalese Constitution reflects the historic struggles and peoples’ movements launched by the people of Nepal at various times since 1951.

e) What is similar or different for Preambles in their reflection of the past?
Answer:

1. The Nepalese Constitution refers to abolition of monarchy.
2. It also refers to historical struggles and people’s movements.
3. The Japanese Constitution refers to the horrors of war.
4. It would never like to repeat them and promises to world peace.

f) What types of promises are made up about the future society in the three countries?
Answer:

1. In India social, economical, political justice is promised.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship also promised.
3. Equality of status and opportunity also promised.
4. Japanese promised a peaceful world.
5. They desire to occupy an honoured place in an international society.
6. Nepal guaranteed basic rights of the people.
7. Nepal expressed full commitment to democratic values.

g) What promises are made about the nature of political system?
Answer:

1. Nepal will allow competitive multi-party democratic system, human rights, adult franchise, periodic elections, etc.
2. Japan referred Government as a sacred trust of the people who give power to representatives and enjoy benefits of power’
3. They try for the banishment of tyranny and slavery, oppression and intolerance for all time from the earth.
4. Every Indian get the right to vote at the age of 18 years without discrimination.

h) What promises are made to the citizen of these nations?
Answer:

1. Nepal pledges to accomplish the progressive restructuring of the state.
2. It also promises to solve the problems relating to class, ethnicity, region and gender.
3. Japan desires peace for all time.
4. It desires to occupy an honoured place in international society.
5. India promised to provide equality, fraternity, justice and fundamental rights to all the people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 236

Question 3.
The Constitution of India begins with the statement, “We the people of India…”. Do you think this claim to represent all the people of India was justified?
Answer:

1. The claim to represent all the people of India was definitely justified.
2. The Constitution was made by the people for the people.
3. The draft was printed and made available to the 40 crore people of the country for 8 months.
4. There were more than 7,000 changes proposed by the people.
5. Out of them above 2000 changes were accepted.
6. Thus, the claim is justified.

Question 4.
Do you think all the people of India can participate in the formulation of Constitution for the entire country? Was it important for all people to participate actively in this process or could it have been left to some wise people?
Answer:

1. As you can see the Constituent Assembly was not elected through universal adult franchise.
2. Only 10% of the population could vote in the provincial election.
3. All the people were not necessary to participate actively in the formulation of constitution.
4. Because majority of our people are illiterate and they have no knowledge about the constitution.
   So, in this situation elites participation is necessary to frame our constitution.

Question 5.
If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted, who all should be involved in it and how?
Answer:

1. If a Constitution for the entire school had to be drafted the head teacher and all the other teachers should be involved.
2. The representative of all classes of the school should also be involved.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 237

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks.
a) Drafting Committee was appointed roughly ———- days after the Independence.
b) The Assembly first appointed special committees on specific issues like, ———-, ———-, and ———-.
c) The reports of these committees were discussed by the ———- and key decisions were taken by it.
d) The ———- Committee headed by Dr. Ambedkar had to incorporate these decisions.
e) The Draft also drew upon provisions of the ———- passed by the British Government.
f) It was then made available to public for ———- months so that they could criticise and give their suggestions on it.
g) In the Draft Constitution there were ———- Articles and ———- Schedules.
Answer:
a) fifteen,
b) Fundamental rights, Minorities, Tribal Areas,
c) Constituent Assembly,
d) Drafting,
e) Government of India Act, 1935,
f) eight,
g) 395,8.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 238

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks.
a) The powers given to Indian President are more similar to ———-.
b) Constituent Assembly visualised that the Indian President follows the advice of ———-, than ———- of ———-.
Answer:
a) King; England; President; the USA
b) Ministers

Question 8.
What do you think was the difference between the position of the British King and the President of India?
Answer:

1. President occupies the same position as the king under the English Constitution.
2. His position is not hereditary like king but elected.
3. He represents the nation but not rule the nation.
4. He generally bound by the advice of Ministers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 239

Question 9.
Under federal polity there are more than one government and in the Indian context we have  them at ———- and ———- levels. You belong to ———- state while you belong to ———- nation.
Answer:
Central; State; Andhra Pradesh; Indian.

Question 10.
Which type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the Centre?
Answer:

1. Unitary type of Constitution gives more powers to the governments at the centre.
2. Two essential characteristics of a unitary Constitution are the supremacy of the central polity and the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
Which type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments?
Answer:

1. Federal type of Constitution gives definite powers to both Central and State governments.
2. A Federal Constitution is marked by the existence of a central polity and subsidiary polities side by side and by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it.

Question 12.
In what ways are Indian states not “administrative units or agencies of the Union Government”?
Answer:

1. Indian states are not administrative units or agencies of the union government.
2. Because states have sovereign power assigned to them by the Constitution.
3. They have elected representatives and they are not the agencies of the union, government.
4. They are peripheral entities in the federal system.

Question 13.
Why do you think the framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship (of India and of the state)?
Answer:

1. The framers of the Indian Constitution rejected the idea of dual citizenship.
2. When there is dual citizen, one is for India and other for the state.
3. In such a federal system, rules and laws differ for union and each state.
4. It may not be possible to keep them united.
5. Our Constitution framers showed uniformity in all basic matters which are essential to maintain the unity of the country.
6. So they did not recommend dual citizenship.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 242

Question 14.
Can you point out the main differences between Indian federalism and American federalism?
Answer:

Question 15.
Does the Indian Constitution allow the states to have their own civil servants (officers)?
Answer:

1. The Constitution provides that without depriving the states of their right to form their own civil services, there shall be All Indian Service recruited.
2. It is recruited on All India basis with common qualifications, with the uniform scale of pay and the members of which alone could be appointed to the strategic posts throughout the Union.

Question 16.
Are all officials of a state from the state’s civil services?
Answer:

1. No. All officials of a state are not from the state’s civil services.
2. Constitution provides for an All India Services for every state in strategic posts.
3. They are like Collectors, Superintendents of Police, Secretary, Principle Secretary and Chief Secretary, etc.

Question 17.
In America the judiciary of the Central Government and the judiciary of the states are distinct and separate. In India we have a judiciary in the centre and the states – Explain.
Answer:

1. In America the judiciary of the Central Government and that of states are distinct and separate.
2. Whereas we have a single judiciary in our country.
3. Our judiciary is integrated which is formed with the Supreme Court, all High Courts and other courts.
4. We have one jurisdiction and providing remedies in all cases under civil, criminal and constitutional laws.

Question 18.
How were the ideas of Seth and Draft Committee similar or different?
Answer:

1. The ideas of Seth and Draft Committee were different.
2. He argues that members of CA were not elected by Adult Franchise.
3. He says that our Constitution ignores the centrality of villages.
4. He opposes Centralization of power as it leads to totalitarian power.
5. He desires the decentralization of power to a large extent.
6. He believes centralization of power by law leads to Fascism.

Question 19.
Find out what form of autonomy is now being made available to villages after the 73rd amendment of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. Villages were provided with the autonomy of forming Grampanchayat.
2. Now they are self administered units.
3. State Governments shall ensure that direct elections to all seats of Panchayat are conducted.
4. The reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion to their population and for women reservation seats are not less 1/3 of the total seats.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 244

Question 20.
Observe the newspaper cutting and answer the following question. What Hems can you read on this page?
Answer:

1. This was the first page of ‘The Statesman’ newspaper of January 26th 1950.
2. Nehru stated that India emerged as a republic.
3. Nehru called for unity and tolerance.
4. Soekarno congratulated Indian MPsforthe birth of the republic.
5. The preamble of our Constitution is printed.
6. Photo of Nehru who was signing on the cabinet assembly was also printed.
7. “Today’s programme in Calcutta” was also printed.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 245

Question 21.
What are the differences of opinion that are being raised in the above debate (‘Debate on Fundamental Rights’ on Page 243 in Textbook)?
Answer:

1. The above discussion is about the abolition of untouchability to provide equality as fundamental rights
2. Some say untouchability is not a disease itself, but the symptom of disease of caste system.
3. So caste system is to abolished.
4. Untouchability means different things to different people. So it should be defined clearly.
5. Unable to come to a conclusion on definition, it was left for future law makers.

Question 22.
If you were given the choice to participate in the debate, what solution would you suggest?
Answer:
If I have a chance to participate in the debate about untouchability, I will suggest untouchability is a crime however it is in any form in the society. It creates harmess to right to equality. So we should uproot casteism from our society which is main responsible to the untouchability.

Question 23.
Do you think it was a good idea to leave the term undefined in the Constitution? Give reasons for your argument.
Answer:
It was good idea to leave the term “Untouchability” in undefined manner in the Constitution. Because, the word untouchability has different meanings in different places.
So when we are going to use the word ‘untouchability’, we should be in clear manner.
That’s why Article 17 (untouchability is a crime), what says it is correct.

Question 24.
Do you agree with the view that the Constitution should have put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability? How do you think it could have been done ?
Answer:

1. It would be better if the Constitution had put an end to all aspects of the caste system instead of just ending untouchability.
2. Caste system is so deep rooted that to end all the aspects of it may not be that easy.
3. But austere efforts and stern action against the practicers of caste system would end it.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 246

Question 25.
What are the examples and explanations you can identify with basic features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Identify at least ten food items that you consume and find out how far they have travelled from their place of production to reach your plate.
Many people have argued for localisation of food production rather than food travelling long distances. How is localisation of food connected to the environment ? Find out more about the localisation movement in food and organise a discussion and debate in the classroom.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why did the people of Jalsindhi village refuse to move out of the village?
Answer:

1. The people of Jalsindhi were asked to leave the place as it would be the first village in Madhya Pradesh to be submerged by Sardar Sarovar dam.
2. They have lived there for generations, cleared the forests, worshipped Gods, improved the soil, domesticated animals and settled in villages.
3. In hard times they went to the forest and used its produce.
4. They live with their clan, their relatives.
5. They are all alike and they share a common understanding.
6. Their village gods were all there.
7. The land in Gujarat was not acceptable to them.
8. The compensation to be given by Madhya Pradesh government was not acceptable to them.
9. They were born from the belly of the Narmada and they were not afraid to die in her lap.
10. That’s why they were not ready to leave their village.

Question 3.
“This is the land of our forefathers. We have a right to it. If this is lost, then we will only get spades and pickaxes, nothing else ” says Bava Mahalia. Can you explain the statement?
Answer:

1. Bava Mahaliya belonged to Jalsindhi, a village on the banks of river Narmada.
2. When government decided to construct Sardar Sarovar dam, it would be the first village in Madhya Pradesh to be submerged.
3. They lived there for generations.
4. Their ancestors cleared the forest, worshipped Gods, improved the soil, domesticated the animals and settled in villages.
5. They had flowing water of the river Narmada and fodder in the forest.
6. In hard times they depended on forest produce.
7. Their children played on the banks of the river Narmada.
8. They were all alike there and shared a common understanding.
9. Thus, they say that was their forefathers’ land and they won’t leave it. They will try to protect it by hook or crook.

Question 4.
“Last, but not the least, the key to the environmental problem lies in changing lifestyles that will minimise waste and pollution.”
(i) What are the various ways in which our lifestyles affect the environment? Use examples from your own context to explain.
Answer:

1. There are various ways in which our lifestyles affect the environment.
2. Nowadays people are using polythene covers as carry bags for almost every household chore.
3. After usage they are thrown into waste.
4. It takes many years for them to completely decay into land.
5. Everyone is using vehicles to travel, they emit carbon monoxide and a few other gases which cause damage to environment.
6. The usage of air-conditioners and refrigerators is also increasing, the gases emitted by them cause the destruction or holes to ozone layer.
7. Thus, our lifestyle is the key to environmental problems.
8. So we need to change our lifestyle and minimize the waste and reduce the pollution.

(ii) Find out about the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Answer:

1. The problems of garbage and emissions are dealt In i
2. The garbage is divided into dry waste and wet waste and thus channelized to be used In production of electricity.
3. Much research is underway in waste management.
4. United Nations organs are working on the emission of gases and their management.
5. Euro standards were set up and the production of vehicles also was made compatible.
6. In many places conversion from the usage of petroleum or diesel to Natural Gas Compressed (CNG) was also advocated.
7. Making products that are more durable, repairable, re-usable and recyclable would help out down on the amount of waste being created.
8. Encouraging people and business to re-use goods via charity shops or other re-use networks would help boost markets for second hand items.

Question 5.
Rapid extraction of minerals and other natural resources would adversely impact the future development prospects. Do you agree?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be deploted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may Induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 6.
Why do you think the effects of ‘climate change’ may be felt by all countries?
Answer:
Many global issues are climate-related, including basic needs such as food, water, health and shelter.
Changes in climate may threaten these needs with increased temperatures, rise of sea level, changes in precipitation, etc. Climate change also threatens key natural resources, affecting water and food security.
So conflicts, mass migrations, health Impacts and environmental stresses happened.
So, I think the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries.

Question 7.
Should the average temperature of the earth be treated as a natural resource for all people?
Answer:

1. The average temperature of the earth should be treated as a natural resource for all people.
2. The complete radiation of the heat received by the sun Is important.
3. If the CO₂ proportion in the atmosphere Increases, then less heat will be radiated.
4. This causes an increase in global temperatures called Global Warming.
5. So the average temperature of the earth is treated as natural resource for all people.
6. People can use this temperature for different types of solar energy operated equipment.

(OR)

Yes, the average temperature of the earth can be treated as a natural resource for all people. Taking the advantage of this renewable resource in the form of solar energy, people can reduce their dependency on non – renewable sources like coal, petroleum etc.

Question 8.
What are the lessons to be drawn from the alternate PDS initiative at Zaheerabad mandal in Telangana?
Answer:

1. Many lessons can be drawn from the alternate PDS initiative of Zaheerabad mandal In Telangana.
2. We have to reverse the dependence on crops like wheat and rice.
3. We can adapt to crops like millets.
4. Millets are hardy crops and nutritious.
5. Community can cultivate and start community grain banks.
6. Manage local grain and ensure food security in the village.

Question 9.
“Environment is crucially important for the lives and livelihoods of the local communities and the lifestyles of local communities are harmonious with the environment.” Explain.
Answer:

1. For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of people is very strong.
2. Access to environment serves their needs like food, firewood, fodder, commercially valuable articles, etc.
3. They lose out all if they are displaced.
4. The environment is denuded of its rich biodiversity and rich traditional knowledge.
5. With It they can make good contributions to environment when it is endangered.
6. So, environment is crucially important for the lives and livelihoods of the local communities.
7. The lifestyle of local communities also should be in harmony with the environment.

10th Class Social Studies 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 159 & 160

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graphs and figures.
Graph: Distribution of households in India based on annual income (2010 survey)


Answer:
Graph 1 shows the distribution of households in India based on annual income. It gives the details of rich people, middle class, below middle class and poor people. We can see a lot of difference in terms of inequality. There are 135 million households with annual income Rs. 1.5 lakhs, 71 million households with income between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakhs, 31 million households with income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakhs whereas 3 million households are there with annual income above Rs. 17 lakhs.
Graph 2 depicts that the total wealth held by Billionaires. When compared to 1996 and 2004, the total wealth by Billionaires had an enormous increase in 2011.
Graph 3 shows an increase in the number of Billionaires. There were 3 billionaires in 1996, 9 billionaires in 2004 but the number of billionaires was 56 in 2011 which shows an enormous increase between 2004 and 2011.

1. The figures show the living conditions of the rich and the poor. The rich are getting richer and richer whereas the poor are getting poorer and poorer.
2. The rich are leading comfortable lives and the poor are living in pitiable conditions without even basic amenities.
3. People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of opportunities.
4. On the other hand, there are many people who have not shared the benefits.
5. Such wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 161

Question 2.
Revisit the class IX chapters on Indian Agriculture and industry.
How have they discussed issues of disparity and distribution and access to resources in these two contexts?
Answer:

1. There are disparities in cultivating various crops and areas under such crop cultivation.
2. The land distribution was not equitable, more land was concentrated in the hands of large farmers and landlords.
3. Small landholdings were there for many small and marginal farmers.
4. There were irrigation facilities for only 40% of the total land cultivated.
5. When it comes to Industries, we lack in sophisticated technologies and in the adaption of them.
6. The capital required did not meet through mobilization and expansions of industries were not in large scale.
7. There is shortage of skilled labourers and the wages paid were also low.
8. Post globalisation era, changed these situations to some extent of improvement.

Question 3.
Identify how the idea of development has been contested through problems of the environment.
Answer:

1. The Idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The ground water levels fell rapidly and ground water recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialization has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.
5. Industrialization has resulted in disruption of climate.
6. Economic development focussed narrowly on GDP springs from its neglect of the environment.
7. Environmental resources have been used up and damaged to an unprecedented extent.
8. There occurred long-term damages to the environment.

Question 4.
What kind of environmental problems did the spread of ‘green revolution’ create? What lesson does this have for the future?
Answer:

1. The ‘Green Revolution’ has brought in several environmental imbalances.
2. The High Yielding Variety seeds usage required plenty of water.
3. The number of tubewells were increased over the years, the groundwater level fell rapidly which meant that less groundwater is available for future use.
4. Green Revolution resulted in a loss of soil fertility.
5. The soil was deprived of the normal production of micro-organisms.
6. Chemical fertilizers polluted groundwater, rivers, lakes, etc.
7. Thus, it resulted in ever-increasing costs for farmers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 162

Question 5.
Why do you think has the modern method of lifting water proved to be unsustainable?
Answer:

1. The modern method of lifting water has proved to be unsustainable.
2. Initially, there was relief from drudgery, and lifting of water with pumps was easy.
3. With the lifting of groundwater by electric and motor pumps, the water table started going down.
4. Nearly 1/3 of the country is pumping out groundwater than what goes in as recharge.
5. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 mts during the past 20 years.
6. Groundwaters are also becoming unsafe and being contaminated by chemical industrial waste.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 164

Question 6.
The environment is also called ‘natural capital’. Recall the definition of capital from Chapter 9. Why do you think the environment is called natural capital?
Answer:

1. Capital from chapter 9 defines as the money needed to meet the inputs of agriculture and the raw materials for production.
2. They also included factors of production like land, labour on which money is to be spent.
3. Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production processes.
4. All the sectors of economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees i.e., environment’s source function.
5. Thus, we can say that environment is natural capital.

Question 7.
Why should water be considered as common property?
Answer:

1. Water is available to us through the nature.
2. We can have access to it from different sources like underground water, canals, tanks and rivers, etc.
3. It is a compulsory part of living.
4. Thus it is common for all and is called common property.
5. We shall have it and retain it for the future generations.
6. We have used up it and this extra use is causing a concern of future availability.
7. Underground waters are to be recharged and we should see that they are not contaminated.
8. For a better quality of life to everyone, water is necessary. So water is considered as common property.

Question 8.
Why was it considered necessary to go to court to stop the use of endosulfan?
Answer:

1. In 1976, to protect cashew crop the government sprayed the pesticide endosulfan by helicopter over 15,000 acres of land in Kasaragod in the northen part of Kerala.
2. The air, water and entire environment was suffused with the pesticide.
3. Caused serious health problems to local people, especially agricultural labourers.
4. At least 5,000 people died and for countless life became miserable.
5. So, it was necessary to go to court to stop the use of endosulfan.
6. In recent years, the use of endosulfan was banned by court order.

Question 9.
The court order banning the use of endosulfan argued that the pesticide violated the Right to Life (Article 21 of the Constitution). Can you describe how use of endosulfan had violated people’s Right to Life?
Answer:

1. The Constitution gaurantees Right to Life under Article 21 of it.
2. It states that every individual has the right to lead life which is secured.
3. But the spraying of pesticide, endosulfan claimed the lives of 5,000 people.
4. Apart from this it has caused cancer and deformities which made life worse than death.
5. The treatment was continued for 25 years.
6. Thus, the use of endosulfan had violated people’s Right to Life.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 167

Question 10.
“In the chapter ideas on Development, we read that what is development for one might not be development for another”. Use Bava Mahaiiya’s letter to explain this statement.
Answer:

1. Bava Mahaliya in his letter brings out different ideas of development.
2. The idea that the government took was different from him.
3. Government says their lands were not hospitable but they say they are satisfied with living there.
4. As government calls them, they say that they own houses and have prosperous agriculture.
5. They have traditional knowledge of every tree and herb and shrub, which would be lost if they are to be dislocated.
6. They say they pool together and construct a house in one day and are living alike with sharing a common understanding.
7. Thus, we can say ‘what is development for one might not be development for another’.

Question 11.
Create a table identifying the current aspects of living and changes that will occur if the tribal people are re-settled in a different state on the following aspects:
Food habits; Farming; Finance; Relation with forest; Religious practices; House making; Social relations.
Answer:

Question 12.
How is the loss of biodiversity being expressed in the letter?
Answer:

1. The loss of biodiversity is expressed in different ways in the letter.
2. The forest will be submerged and cannot be seen.
3. The various trees, shrubs and herbs are not seen and their traditional knowledge will be forgotten.
4. Many different kinds of crops that were not grown outside the forest will not be cultivated.
5. Channels made from streams will be washed away.
6. Thus, the loss of biodiversity was discussed.

Question 13.
For the tribal people livelihood, cultural practices and social relations are deeply connected to the local environment. Can you explain?
Answer:

1. They get their livelihood from local cultivation of own seeds, manure from livestock.
2. For irrigation water they make channels from stream in the local environment.
3. They live with their clan, their relatives and their kin.
4. All of them pool together to any individual’s work needs.
5. Their village gods were all there and their ancestors memorial stones were there.
6. People come from all over to celebrate their festivals.
7. All of them go to market where the youth choose their spouses.
8. Thus, tribal people’s livelihood, cultural practices and social relations are deeply connected to the local government.

Question 14.
Do you think that the people of Jalsindhi village are food secure in their present location?
Answer:

1. I think the people of Jalsindhi village are not food secure in their present location.
2. As far as the various crops they grew, nothing insecure of food.
3. They eat the leaves of forest trees like hegva, mahia, amli, etc. It does not refer to food security.
4. In times of famine they are survived by eating roots and tubers which is not food secure.
5. When they fall sick, their medicine was leaves, roots and bark from forest, this is also not
   food secure.

Question 15.
If you lived in the above situation, how would you have responded to the demand for resettlement?
Answer:

1. If I lived in the above situation, I would have accepted the demand for resettlement.
2. At the place of resettlement, one may get schooling to their children.
3. In place of tribal medicine treatments governments provide with public health.
4. The food taken there may at times prove to be health hazardous.
5. Government pay provide with alternate land to practice modern agriculture, etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 168

Question 16. Observe the following figure.
Write your caption in the context of the environment.
Answer:
FOR BETTER FUTURE – SAVE THE NATURE
Man is overusing natural resources indiscriminately
Creating severe problems ecologically
For our future generations we should work collectively
To conserve these invaluable resources judiciously
And take measures that are eco-friendly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 169

Question 17.
You have read about the protests against the Kudankulam nuclear power plant in the Chapter on Ideas of Development. Can you interpret the protest in view of what you have read here?
Answer:

1. Kudankulam was a peaceful village in Tamil Nadu.
2. Most people from there depend on fishing for livelihood.
3. With the setting up Kudankulam nuclear power plant all of them have to vacate that place.
4. They lost their livelihood.
5. Not only they have allayed the fears of the accidents in Nuclear plants.
6. A recent accident jn Nuclear plant in Japan created a havoc in the minds of people.
7. They have protested on large scale.

Question 18.
“Environment protection is not just crucial for those communities directly affected but for all of us.” Explain with a few examples.
Answer:

1. Climate change affects all countries and people, some may be more than the others.
2. Even a country is trying to reduce emission of greenhouse gases, its environment would continue to deteriorate if other countries do not regulate their emissions.
3. As more and more ground water is pumped out through electric and motor power pumps the water tables deplete.
4. In 59% of the districts of India, water from hand pumps and wells are unsafe for drinking.
5. Thus, environment protection is not just crucial for those communities directly affected but for ail of us.

Question 19.
Revisit the class VIII chapters on Mines and Minerals in the context of Andhra Pradesh. What issues of conflict emerge between industrialists and people living in regions of minerals?
Answer:

1. People living in regions of minerals face cutting down of forests, destroying fields and habitations, creating large pits and mounds.
2. Nearby rivers and water sources are polluted.
3. This results in people leaving the land like that as the older use of land cannot be continued.
4. Even people who live nearby face problems created by mining.
5. Uncontrolled mining by the private companies far in excess of the permits given to them and disregarded safety measures.
6. Minerals taken by private companies without paying royalty to the government- thus people do not get anything.

Question 20.
There has been rapid increase in the extraction of minerals for domestic use and for exports to other countries since liberalisation and globalisation of Indian economy. Using figures from the table here substantiate the observation.
Answer:

1. The extraction of Bauxite is raised from 6108 thousand tonnes in 1997-98 to 15250 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
2. The extraction of Coal is raised from 297000 in 1997-98 to 493000 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
3. The extraction of Iron ore is raised from 75723 in 1997-1998 to 225544 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.
4. The extraction of Chromite is raised from 1515 thousand and tonnes in 1997-1998 to 3976 thousand tonnes in 2008-2009.

Question 21.
What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Such rapid growth in mining would have a negative impact on the environment as well as at the human cost.
2. Mines are dug deep, so the layers of earth become weak.
3. They may cause landslides, avalanches, earthquakes, etc.
4. Most of the water is used in the process of digging and later process also.
5. Post liberalisation era brought private people (companies) into mining activities.
6. Accidents may occur, tunnel may fall down, or get flooded with water or there can be fire and suffocation due to gases – these dangers may be faced in mining.
7. With the motto of earning profits, these companies do not take proper measures of safety.
8. Thus, there may be many human losses in rapid extractions of minerals.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 170

Question 22.
Observe the following picture.
Write your caption in the context of development.
Answer:
On the name of development, man is causing nature’s destruction, So for the flora and fauna where is the protection ?

Project work

You have read about composting in the context of organic farming. Here is a simple method that you can try out in your school and home.

• Take a large size container and make several holes for water drainage.
• Layer it with coconut fibres for drainage.
• Cover it with a thin layer of soil.
• Add vegetable wastes in a layer.
• Add another layer of soil.
• Again add vegetable wastes in a layer.
• Cover with soil.
• After one week, introduce earthworms in it.
• After decomposition, use the soil to make a small garden with plants of your choice.

Answer:
Self Activity.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Make a table and show how different groups, and individuals in India responded to World War II. What dilemmas were faced by these groups?
Answer:

Question 2.
Given the brutal manner in which particular communities like Jews and others were treated in Germany, do you think it would have been morally right to support Germany or Japan?
Answer:

1. Hitler propagated Nazism in Germany.
2. They killed lakhs of Jews.
3. Even though Japan is a small country in Asia, has been competing with powerful European nations and started colonialism in the name of Pan Asianism.
4. So, morally it is not right to support Germany or Japan.

Question 3.
Make a list of various reasons for the Partition of the country.
(OR)
Write a short note on various consequences of partition of India.
Answer:

1. The Muslim League thought of reserved seats for Muslims, where they are the majority.
2. Congress accepted this logic, so, from 1909 separate electorates were implemented.
3. League pointed out many issues and blamed Congress of insensitivity to the needs of Muslims.
4. The fears of League were fueled by British ‘Divide and Rule Policy’.
5. League was able to convince Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separation.
6. When Cabinet Mission recommended India was to be united, League opposed it.
7. They asked people to come out on the streets and riots and violence and thousands of people were dead.
8. So it was inevitable for the partition of India.

Question 4.
What were the different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised before Partition?
Answer:

1. Before the Partition there were different ways in which power sharing among different communities was organised.
2. There were too many organizations like the Muslim League, Congress, Hindu Maha Jana Sabha, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, etc. in function in India.
3. There were separate electorates for Muslims both provincial assemblies and in central assembly.
4. In 1946, Muslim League won all 30 seats in the Centre and 442 out of 509 seats in the provinces.
5. It had got more than 86% of the Muslim votes.
6. In 1946 the Congress swept the general constituencies, capturing over 91% of the non-Muslim vote.

Question 5.
How did British colonialists practise their ‘divide and rule’ policy in India? How was it similar or different from what you have studied about Nigeria? (OR)
How did the British implement “Divide and rule” policy in India ?
Answer:

1. The British colonialists practised their Divide and Rule Policy in India.
2. They encouraged Muslims to set up a separate party Muslim League in 1906.
3. They set separate electorate for Muslims from 1909.
4. They gave communal electorate to Sikhs also in 1932.
5. They also extended separate electorate to Dalits.
6. Thus, all the time they wanted to weaken the hold of Congress on people, which is fighting hard against them for Independence.

Comparison :
In Nigeria, in 1939 the British separated the Yoruba and Igbo regions into Western and Eastern Nigeria and encouraged competition and conflict between the three major tribal groups so as to be able to “divide and rule” the country.
(OR)

1. In the Indian context, the basic truth is that the British did rule and, they did try to divide opposition.
2. Divide and rule was seen in the following actions :
   a) Partition of Bengal
   b) Encouraging formation of Muslim League,
   c) Separate electorates for Muslims and for SC.
3. The idea that ‘Divide and Rule’ was such a set and evil strategy that it actively, logically led on to partition of our country.
4. To solve the minority question, the British imperialists, implementing their policy of divide and rule, separated the continent into a Hindu and a Muslim state.

Question 6.
What were the different ways in which religion was used in politics before Partition? (Or)
Trace out role of religion before the Partition of India.
Answer:

1. Religion played a crucial role in politics before Partition.
2. To weaken Congress’s hold over the people, the British vigorously followed ‘Divide and Rule’ policy.
3. So with support and encouragement of British, Muslim League for Muslims was started.
4. Separate electorate and reserved seats for Muslims were there from 1909.
5. Hindu Maha Sabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh wished to unite all Hindus overcoming caste divisions.
6. As minorities, Muslims made a demand to carve out a new state from regions where they were majorities.
7. The League created an impression that Congress was basically a Hindu party.
8. There were riots broke out and several thousand people dead after Cabinet Mission plan was rejected.

Question 7.
How were workers and peasants mobilised during the last years of freedom struggle? (Or)
“Peasants were also restless during British rule.” Give your opinion.
Answer:

1. On Feb. 22,1946,3 lakh mill workers put down their tools in Bombay and fought violently for two days.
2. Small and poor peasants agitated in Bengal for 2/3 of the crop for them instead of 1/2 crop then.
3. This was called ‘Tebhaga’ movement and was led by Provincial Kisan Sabha.
4. In Telangana farmers opposed land owners and demanded their debts to be cancelled.
5. They also demanded that bonded labour should be stopped and land be distributed to those who worked on it.
6. Peasants took up arms to fight against the rulers and their armies.
7. Armed revolt of peasants took place in Travancore in Punnapra-Vayalar.

Question 8.
How did Partition affect the lives of ordinary people? What was the political response to mass migration following Partition?
(OR)
Read the following paragraph and answer the question given below.
Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood. This was not the freedom and Swaraj he had worked so hard to achieve. The Father of the Nation fasted and did not celebrate on the first Independence Day.
Comment on the conditions that the people had to face on both sides of the newly drawn border with the creation of Pakistan.
Answer:

1. They felt anger and hatred against each other for being forced to move out of their homes, villages and cities.
2. Around 1-5 crore people both Hindus and Muslims were displaced.
3. They were killed, looted and burnt.
4. Between 2 to 5 lakh both Hindus and Muslims were killed.
5. They became refugees, lived in relief camps and hospitals, moved out in trains to find new homes.
6. Gandhiji moved amongst riot hit people, in camps and hospitals, spreading the message of peace and brotherhood.
7. The Congress now passed a resolution on the rights of minorities.
8. Thus, while the nation was celebrating its first independence day, the father of the nation was on fasting.

Question 9.
Integration of various Princely states into the new Indian nation was a challenging task. Discuss.
(OR)
How were the princely states integrated?
(OR)
“Integration of various princely state in newly independent India was a challenging task”.
Answer:

1. At the time of withdrawal of British from India, there were around 550 princely states in Indian territory.
2. They become independent after the British rule.
3. They were asked by the British to decide if they wanted to join India, Pakistan or remain independent.
4. In Hyderabad and Travancore peasants were revolting with arms against the ruling Zamindars.
5. Sardar Vallabhai Patel was given charge of this matter of merging Princely states into Indian Union in July 1947.
6. He began discussing with princes the necessity to join India.
7. All Princely States agreed to join Indian Union except Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagadh.
8. In Hyderabad and Junagadh, the rulers were Muslims and majority of population were Hindus, rulers want to join Pakistan people want to Join India, a conflict.
9. In Kashmirthe ruler was a Hindu and majority population were Muslims, so a difficulty in consensus.
10. Thus it was difficult, but thr^e states were also made to join in the next two years.
11. Junagadh was merged after conducting referendum.
12. Kashmir was merged after receiving a letter from the ruler.
13. But Hyderabad was merged after a police action.
14. With great efforts of Patel, this challenging task was completed by merging these states.

(OR)

1. The 550 princely states were given freedom to decide their future. The ordinary people did not want princely states to continue.
2. They started movements and revolts.
3. Guided by the masterful diplomacy of Sardar Patel, the home minister, most of them acceded to India.
4. However, the Nawab of Junagadh, the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maharaja of Jammu & Kashmir did not accept to unite with India.
5. Sardar Patel made it clear that if they do not join India, the army would have to be sent to complete the process of unification.
6. With the military action on these, the work of integration of princely states had been completed.

10th Class Social Studies 16th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 218

Question 1.
Do you think Indians should have felt grateful to the British government for the powers given by the Act of 1935 ?
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act was passed in 1935 by the British parliament.
2. According to this right to vote was given to a small section of population.
3. Winning Prime Minister should work under the supervision of a British Governor.
4. Indians made a pledge to have complete swaraj in the Lahore session of INC in 1929.
5. So, they may not be greatful to British, but they grabbed the opportunity with eagerness.
6. It is our country, so we need to elect our representatives.

Question 2.
Do you think the rise of Hitler was such a big threat to the freedom of humanity that Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British and concentrated on the fight for a free world ?
Answer:

1. The rise of Hitler was a big threat to the freedom of humanity.
2. He believes in his ‘Nordic’ racial supremacy.
3. He was the root cause of the deaths of lakhs of Jews.
4. He has the attitude of vengeance. He also hates Communism.
5. Indians should have set aside their fight for freedom from the British.
6. Indians should have concentrated on the fight for a free world.

Question 3.
According to you, what would be the reasons for and against supporting the British in World War II?
Answer:
Reason for supporting the British:

1. Most congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini, and the ideology of fascism.
2. They were determined to resist the Fascist drive to conquer other sovereign nations.
3. So India had no other choice it was better to support the British.

Reasons for against the British:

1. It is vindicative that they are showing double standards.
2. On one side they say they are protecting sovereign nations and on the other, they occupied India.
3. They did not even consult Indians before announcing that India would support them.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 219

Question 4.
Do you think Congress could have taken some other steps to protest against the attitude of the British?
Answer:

1. A difficult question arose before the Congress leaders.
2. Should they support the British in fighting a war against Germany?
3. The Congress was torn in its mind over this question.
4. The British were willing to give India Dominion Status.
5. Congress wanted a promise of full freedom.
6. The Congress was upset with the British and walked out of the provincial governments.
7. There was no other alternative.

Question 5.
Why did the British not make the promise and win the support of the Indians? After all, in 1939 only a promise was being asked for ? Discuss together in class.
Answer:

1. During the Second World War the British intended to have the support of Indians.
2. But Indians demanded full freedom after the War, at least a promise to that effect.
3. It was hard for the British to accept that they will really have to dismantle the empire they had built.
4. The British objected to this by saying that they have to also protect the interests of several other communities in India.
5. With this they implied that congress did not represent all Indians, like Muslims.
6. They also implied that congress may be Ignoring the interests of many Indians and the British were required to protect these interests.

Question 6.
When ministers resign, who continues to conduct the day to day affairs of governance ?
Answer:
When ministers resign, now, the government officials continue to conduct the day to day affairs of governance.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 220

Question 7.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
“Through 1940 and 1941, the Congress organised a series of individual satyagrahas to pressure ; the rulers to promise freedom once the war had ended. No major protest was launched.”
Imagine what would happen if Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this point of time ? Would it make the fight for freedom stronger?
Answer:

1. If Congress leaders stepped up protests against the British government at this time, the British would severely punish our leaders and imprison them.
2. It would not make the fight form freedom stronger.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 221

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of addressing the concerns of minorities. Why is it felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities ?
Answer:

1. The traditional notion of democracy has always upheld the voice of the majority over the minority.
2. So it is the fundamental importance that the minority is protected against discrimination and exploitation.
3. Basically India is a democratic state. In any democracy there is always a danger that the interest of majority conflicts with the interest of minorities. It may not be also.
4. If there is such a conflict, it is the interest of majority which will override the interest of the minority even if it happens to an unjust interest.
5. So it is felt that majority based elections are not enough to help minorities.

Question 9.
Separate electorate was one method to protect minority interests. Can you think of some other methods that can be helpful for this purpose? For example, would it help if there was a rule that a non Muslim member of a council must consult the Muslim population of his/her constituency before voting on an issue that concerned them? When would such a method work and under what conditions would it fail to be effective ?
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution paved a way – ‘reservations’ to the minorities. It is a wonderful solution for the problems of minorities.
2. It would not help.
3. Such a method would work in small village panchayats. In minorities also there may be difference of opinion.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 223

Question 10.
How would people assess the possible benefits from the politics of Muslim League? Would they have any doubts? What kind of questions will they have? Discuss.
Answer:

1. League was able to convince the Muslim masses of the benefits and need for a separate nation.
2. Peasants could think of a state where Hindu Zamindars and Moneylenders did not exploit them.
3. Traders, businessmen and job seekers could think of a state where competition from Hindu traders, businessmen and job seekers would not be there.
4. There would be greater religious freedom.
5. Muslims had the fears of Hindu domination.
6. Their doubt was that it is difficult to protect their interests in an Indian Government.
7. i) What about their future in Independent India ?
   ii) How would be their conditions as minorities ? etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 224

Question 11.
Why did the Japanese allow Bose to recruit soldiers whom they had imprisoned?
Answer:

1. Japan and Southeast Asia were major refuges for Indian nationalists living in exile before the start of World War-II.
2. Japan has sent an intelligence mission to gain support from the Indian movement.
3. These missions were successful in establishing contacts with indian nationalists in exile supporting the establishment and organisation of the indian Independence league.
4. At the outbreak of World War – II, in Southeast Asia, 70,000 Indian troups were stationed in Malaya and later imprisoned by Japan after the fall of Malasia and Singapore.
5. From these prisoners of war, the first Indian National Army was formed and received considerable Japanese aid and support.
6. In 1943 the Japanese invited Bose to lead the Indian Nationalist Movement in East Asia.
7. Bose accepted and reached Japan and took the lead.

Question 12.
Why did the Indian soldiers join INA?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, they were soldiers in the British Army.
2. They were captured by the Japanese when the British were defeated in Burma and Malaya.
3. They were prisoners of war.
4. Bose convinced Japan to allow them to form an Army.
5. This army would fight alongside of Japan and against the British.
6. The soldiers joined Indian National Army with patriotism and national consciousness.

Question 13.
Why were Indian soldiers not scared of losing the war and falling into the hands of the British? What would the British do to them ?
Answer:

1. The Indian soldiers felt very proud to fight for the country, so they didn’t scare of losing the war and felling into the hands of the British.
2. They hope, that if the Britishers were defeated in the war we would get independence.
3. But in the war Indian army was defeated and punishments were imposed by British.

Question 14.
Review the period 1942-45. How can you say that the resistance of Indian people to the British rule had become more powerful than ever before?
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch ‘Quit India’ campaign in 1942.
2. Although he was jailed at once, young activists organised strikes all over the country.
3. Students^eft their colleges to go to jail.
4. Socialist resistance was very active.
5. Independent Governments were formed in several districts.
6. Bose waged war for 3 years with his INA against mighty British Army.
7. All the masses of the country were active against the British.
8. So we can say during 1942-45 resistance to British rule had become more powerful than ever before.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 225

Question 15.
Imagine the tragic turn of events and how these must have affected the lives of these people.
Answer:
The soldiers of INA were imprisoned and the British decided to punish them. A trial of INA soldiers was began – to court martial them for being traitors to the army and hanging them to death in punishment.
Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trails proceeded.
In this popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness, the issue of Hindu-Muslim identity and separatist politics often became unimportant.

People were restless with food shortages, rationing of food, high prices, black marketing and hoarding. Railway and postal employees and other government employees were planning to go on India wide strike against prices.

Question 16.
What horror would the other Indians have felt at the thought that the INA soldiers who were like heroes to them were being tried and hanged as traitors by the British ?
Answer:

1. The INA soldiers were like heroes to other Indians.
2. They weret^ing tried and hanged as traitors by the British.
3. Unrest and unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India as the INA trials proceeded.
4. Nationalist consciousness was growing and separatist politics became unimportant.
5. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 226

Question 17.
Review the actions of ordinary masses in the country. What were they demanding ?
Answer:

1. On 18th February 1946, Royal INDIAN NAVY in Bombay came out from harbour on hunger strike.
2. The strike committee demanded better food, equal pay for white and Indian sailors release of INA and other political prisoners, withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.
3. In 1946 the workers of factories and mills stoppages their work and demand for better wages and solving their problems.
4. CPI and the Socialist parties were active in these movements.
5. In Bengal small and poor peasants who took land for rental purpose demanded that their share of harvest should be increased.
6. The Telangana farmers demanded that debts of farmers be written off, bonded labour be stopped and land be distributed to those who tilled it.

Question 18.
It was noted that religious divisions were not important in many of these mass movements mentioned above. What could be the reason for the unity of the people in these movements?
Answer:

1. Unrest, unhappiness and discontent kept erupting in different parts of India.
2. Popular upsurge of nationalist consciousness did not allow separatist religious politics.
3. The people’s anger and sympathy gave no thought to the religion of the soldiers.
4. All were taking part in movements unitedly.

Question 19.
What were the demands of the Muslim League that were not acceptable to the Congress? Do you agree with the reasons of the Congress ?
Answer:

1. League should have an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members of the Executive Council.
2. The separate nation of Pakistan to be carved out of Punjab, NWFP, Sindh, Baluchistan, Afghan and Kashmir.
3. These were the demands that were not acceptable to the Congress made by League.
4. Congress was correct as sizable Muslim representatives are there from Congress and other party like Unionist Party of Punjab.

Question 20.
According to you, what did the election results of 1946 indicate about public mood ?
Answer:

1. In 1946, elections were held for the Provincial Governments and Central Assembly.
2. Muslim League got more than 86% of Muslim votes.
3. Congress captured 91% of non-Muslim vote.
4. Public mood is vindicative that there is great hope in the Congress in non-Muslim people and, in Muslim League in Muslim people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 228

Question 21.
Newspaper report on Indian Independance. What different items can you identify in it ? Discuss.
Answer:

1. This was the first page of “The Statesman” Newspaper dated Friday, August 15,1947.
2. There is political freedom for the fifth of Human race as Two Dominions are born.
3. Nehru’s reply to Mr. Attlee that there will be close friendship with the Britain.
4. The excellency MnC. Rajagopalachari Sworn as first Governer of West Bengal.
5. We can see joyful sceffnes in Calcutta celebrations by Hindus and muslims.
6. First Cabinet of India begins to function headed by Pandit Nehru.
7. The meeting of Mahatma was listened without interruption.
8. And some ad like OMEGA watch is seen here.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 11th Lesson Food Security Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 11th Lesson Food Security

10th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson Food Security Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Correct the false statements.
(a) Increase in food production alone ensures food security.
Answer:
It is not sufficient that there is increase in food production. Everyone should be able to buy them for consumption.

(b) It is important to encourage mono-crop cultivation to ensure food security.
Answer:
Encouraging mono-crops will not serve the purpose of food secuirty. It makes the soil lose its ife&ility. Care must be taken to encourage farmers to go for agricultural diversification.

(c)
Low-calorie intake is higher among people with low income.
Answer:
It is correct.

(d) Legislations have an important role to play in ensuring food security.
Answer:
It is correct. Those legislations are needed to be executed in a heartful manner.

(e) PDS system could be used to address the issue of child nutrition.
Answer:
To address the issue of child nutrition PDS could be used. Anganwadis and Mid-day meals are. serving the needs of children. Their parents shall be made to have the purchasing power to sufficient food with secured access.

Question 2.
The consumption of calories has consistently ——– in rural areas. The average per capita calorie consumption in 2004-05 is ——– than the required calories. The minimum calorie consumption for persons living in urban areas is 2100 calories. The difference between actual calorie consumption in 2004-05 and the required calorie consumption in urban areas is ——–.
Answer:
(i) decreased
(ii) less
(iii) 300 calories

Question 3.
Supposing the foodgrain production has been affected in a particular year, because of a natural calamity. In what ways can the government ensure higher availability of foodgrains for the year?
Answer:

1. The food production has been affected in a particular year, because of natural calamity.
2. The government ensures higher availability of foodgrains for the year in different ways.
3. It could arrange from stocks with it.
4. It could arrange from imports i.e., increasing the amount of foodgrains compared to the exports.
5. Encouraging the farmers who suffered in calamity with waiver of taxes and providing free inputs.
6. Insuring the crops all the time by paying the premium by government itself.

Question 4.
Use an imaginary example from your context to describe the relationship between underweight
and access to food.
Answer:

1. There is some relationship between underweight and access to food.
2. If we have access to sufficient food with required calorific values, there is no question of underweight.
3. No one would have a lower weight if he/she had access to adequate food.
4. The purchasing power of people is also related with weight.
5. Madhavaiah and his family earns monthly Rs. 6000 and with a rented house and medication to parents, he can only afford less amount on food apart from educating his children.
6. Thus, all his family members do not consume sufficient calories food, which resulted in underweight.
7. They are even prone to diseases.

Question 5.
Analyse a week’s food habit of your family. Create a table to explain nutrition elements included in it.
Answer:

Question 6.
Describe the relationship between increase in food production and food security.
Answer:

1. Producing a sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of food security.
2. The government creates conditions so that farmers are able to produce an increasing amount of foodgrains.
3. The necessary inputs to agriculture are to be provided in a judicious manner.
4. To expand the irrigation and water is to be made available to all.
5. It is not sufficient to produce food grains and other items.
6. Everyone should be able to buy them for consumption.

Question 7.
Give reasons to argue for the following statement “Public Distribution system can ensure better food security for people”.
(OR)
“Central and State Governments purchase one-third of food grains from farmers. Through different programmes, these food grains are distributed to people.”
Do you think that the public distribution system managed by the government is providing proper food security? Express your opinion in an elaborate manner.
Answer:

1. The Indian government came out with a new law in 2013 called the National Food Security Act to legalise peoples’ Right to Food.
2. This food security bill covers nearly 70% of people of the country.
3. They will be given rice, wheat and millets at subsidised prices of Rs. 3. Rs. 2 and Rs. 1 respectively.
4. Every person of low income families is entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains at subsidised price.
5. Among poor families, the poorest ones are entitled to 35 kilograms of foodgrains.
6. 75% of rural population and 50% of urban population will be covered under this scheme.
7. It will provide cooked meals for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children between 1-6 years and mid-day meals to children of 6-14 years.
8. If the government is not able to arrange foodgrains, it will give cash for the people to buy food grains. Thus, public food distribution can ensure better food security for people.

Question 8.
Below poster what indicates about food security.
Answer:
The above poster indicates :

1. Every night one in seven of us goes to bed with hungry.
2. We know that it doesn’t have to be happend in this way.
3. We wake up with this situation.
4. So food security is very important in our life.

Question 9.
Make similar posters about food security.
Answer:

10th Class Social Studies 11th Lesson Food Security InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 146

Question 1.
Examine the given graph and fill in the blanks.
The food grains production has grown over the period 1970-71 to ——–. Paddy production increased from about 40 million tonnes in 1970-71 to about ——– million tonnes in 2010-11. Another important food crop that witnessed rapid increase in production during this 40 years period was ——–. Compared to paddy and wheat the production of ——– did not increase during 1970-2011. This could be due to ——–.
Answer:
The food grains production has grown over the period of 1970-71 to 2010-11. Paddy production increased from about 40 million tonnes in 1970-71 to about 96 million tonnes in 2010-11. Another important food crop that witnessed rapid increase in production during this 40 years period was wheat. Compared to paddy and wheat the production of jowar did not increase during 1976-2011. This could be due to dry land agriculture.

Question 2.
Read again the section on “Land and other natural resources” In chapter 9, What are the possible ways of increasing production of crops from land?
Answer:

1. After going through “Land and other natural resources” in chapter 9, there are a few possible ways of increasing production of crops from land.
2. One way is to grow more than one crop on the same piece of land.
3. It is the most common way of increasing production from land.
4. The other way is to grow three different crops in a year due to the well-developed irrigation system.
5. Electric tubewells could irrigate much larger area of land easily.
6. Increasing the production with intensive use of natural resources like land and water.

(OR)
The possible ways of increasing production of crops from land.

1. Mechanization
2. High yield varieties, which were the basis of the green revolution.
3. Fertilizers
4. HW of seeds
5. Increased plant density.
6. Growing three different crops in a year due to the well developed irrigation system.
7. Electric tube wells could irrigate much larger area of land easily.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 147

Question 3.
Describe the per hectare yield of paddy and wheat by filling the following passage.
Two crops ——– and ——– always had low yield when compared with paddy and wheat. Yet both these crops have shown slow increase in yield in recent years.
Answer:
Two crops jowar and oil seeds always had low yield when compared with paddy and wheat. Yet both these crops have shown slow increase in yield in recent years.

Question 4.
Why should attention be given to increase the yield of jowar? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Jowar is the poor man’s food.
2. It is the third most important food crop ranking next to rice and wheat in both area and production.
3. It is a rainfed crop mostly grown in moist areas which hardly need irrigation.
4. Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar, followed by Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh.
5. Only half of the jowar crop area is being cultivated with High Yielding Varieties seeds.
6. As it does not need irrigation, use of HYVs can be increased, thus we should give attention to increase the yield of jowar.

(OR)

1. Jowar is a highly nutritious food.
2. To increase the availability of food grains, and food security.
3. Not necessary to use of pesticides, fertilizers and insecticides.
4. Even though where the water availability is very low this crop is also suitable.
5. Jowar has more demand in the market.

Question 5.
What factors have contributed to the high growth of paddy and wheat yields over a long period?
Answer:

1. Many factors have contributed to the growth of paddy and wheat yields over the long period.
2. The rice and wheat are cultivated in India by intensive and unscientific application of chemical fertilizers and insecticides have led to the continuous increase in the yield levels.
3. Development of a dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells helped the growth in yieds of rice and wheat.
4. The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds under Green Revolution helped the growth in yields of rice and wheat.
5. They provide for larger amounts of grains as the stalks are short and a short period of maturity of the crop in most cases.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 148

Question 6.
Complete the following table.
Answer:

Question 7.
Based on your calculations, fill in the blanks:
The per person availability of food grains _____ (increased/decreased) between 1971 and 1991 but was _____ lower/higher) in 2011. This happened despite shown in population growth in recent decades. In the future, the government must ensure higher availability through _____.
Answer:
The per person availability of food grains increased between 1971 and 1991 but was lower in 2011. This happened despite slowdown in population growth in the recent decades. In future, the government must ensure higher availability through selling from its existing stocks.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 150

Question 8.
Underline words and sentences that deal with agricultural diversification and explain why are these essential for Indian farmers.
Answer:
Water development – technology – cash crops – vegetables – dairying – best pulse seeds – second crop – yields – a plan and government effort.

• The bank gave credit to them for water development.
• The technology is fairly good.
• They take more money from cash crops and it is vegetables all the way.
• A great thing that happened on the way was dairying.
• Farmers know the best pulse seeds come from Maharashtra.
• The second crop, if any, depending on the rains.
• Yields are low.
• Without a plan and government effort it would be a cruel joke to talk about diversification to them.

Question 9.
Write a description about agricultural diversification for your own village or any village that you know about.
Answer:
Velpur has most of the lands with black cotton soils. There are a few rainfed streams for irrigation water. Rice is cultivated as the primary crop. Cotton is cultivated as the second crop. The seeds for these crops are collected from corporate seed companies. Most of the villagers own few buffaloes. They are much interested in dairying. Some part of the land is used to keep grass which is to be used as the fodder to the cattle.
When there was a shortage of rainfall, the crops are damaged and they do not yield good crop. Along with cotton, chillies are also grown in large scale. People are taking up the works of agriculture with much of the usage of technology. A proper plan from the government and its efforts are enabling this village to experience the agricultural diversification.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 151

Question 10.
Recall the discussion on Public Distribution System in Class VIII. How is PDS related to food security of the people in the country ?
Answer:

1. PDS has played a crucial role in reaching food to everyone both in the rural and urban areas.
2. Around 1997, government decided that ration shops should cater mainly to the poor.
3. Governments buy foodgrains from farmers and supply these to the ration shops.
4. Ration shops keep stocks of foodgrains and these items are then sold to people.
5. Prices at the ration shops are meant to be lower than the prices in the market.
6. The government is trying to provide food to all.
7. The government stakes a lot of amount in purchasing food from farmers and wholesalers and selling them at subsidised prices.
8. Thus, PDS is thriving for food security of the people in the country.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and fill in the blanks.
Percentage Share of Purchases from PDS, rice and wheat, 2009-10.

(a) Fill in the blanks.
For all India, —— percent of peoples’ total consumption of rice and —— percent of peoples total consumption of wheat are purchased from the ration shops. This shows that people have to buy most of their foodgrain requirements from ——. However, there are several well-performing states like —— and ——. And some states like ——, ——, —— where PDS hardly seems to be fulfilling peoples’ needs for food grains.
Answer:
For all India, 39 percent of peoples’ total consumption of rice and 28 percent of people’s consumption of wheat are purchased from the ration shops. This shows that people have to buy most of their food grain requirements from market. However, there are several well-performing states like Tamil Nadu and combined Andhra Pradesh. And some states like Bihar, Rajasthan and Punjab where PDS hardly seems to be fulfilling peoples’ needs for food- grains.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 155

Question 12.
How can an effective Anganwadi center deal with such a situation for a locality? Discuss.
Answer:

1. Out of 7000 children, in the age group of 1 – 5 years, examined in the survey of NIN (National Institute of Nutrition) from many states in the country, 45% of children are underweight.
2. Their weight was less than what is expected by normal standards.
3. These children are in fact hungry and not getting adequate food.
4. Unless they are severely underweight it may not be easily visible or identifiable.
5. In such circumstances an effective anganwadi center in such locality would provide the children nutritious food.
6. Its teachers are supposed to go to every household where children are present and supply them this food.
7. Make their parents to know about the losses of sustained underweight of children and educate them to provide their children with nutritious food.

Question 13.
What overall conclusions can you draw from these statistics? Write a paragraph.

Answer:
When weight is plotted against age nearly 45% of children in the country are under weight. It means that they cannot study, work or perform physical activities. They do not grow as quickly as healthy children. Their immune system is weakened. When height is plotted against age 41% of children not up to the height they have to be. It seems their growth is affected and short for their age. They are difficult to cover this. When weight is plotted against height 21% children are not with weight they are supposed to be. With sufficient food they can cover this up.

Project work

Read the following poem, Aai. Can you write a poem relating to any aspect of food security?

Answer:
Some Quotes on Food Security:

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 8th Lesson People and Migration Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson People and Migration Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Draw a table with the following items and summarise various examples in the context of migrant labourers.

1. Migrant labour
2. Reasons for the migration
3. Living standards of the migrants
4. Economic impact on their lives
5. Economic impact on the lives of people from where they migrated.

Answer:

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the migration from rural to urban areas and rural to rural areas.
Answer:

Question 3.
Which of the following could be considered as seasonal migration? Why?

1. Women moving from their parents’ house to husband’s house due to marriage
2. Turmeric harvesters moving from one district to another district in Tamil Nadu for three months in a year
3. Cycle rickshaw pullers in Delhi coming from rural parts of Bihar for six months a year
4. Women from Nalgonda district come to work as domestic maids in Hyderabad

Answer:

1. This could not be considered as a seasonal migration. In accordance with our social norms wife is supposed to live permanently in the house of her husband.
2. This could be considered as a seasonal migration. Because duration of the season is three months, which is below the 6 months norm.
3. This could be considered as a seasonal migration as it is not more than 6 months and the migration is done every year.
4. This could not be considered as seasonal migration as the domestic maids need to serve
   throughout the year.

Question 4.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers/trouble shooters in their destinations? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. I think migrants are trouble shooters.
2. In almost all examples from our lesson, migrants served the purpose.
3. They were nowhere trouble makers.
4. But for them, most works cannot be easily completed.
5. Though they lived in inhumane conditions, they worked hard.
6. Apart from these, they eke out a living.

Question 5.
The following are migrants of different types. Classify th into internal and international migrants.
a) People going from India to Saudi Arabia to work as technicians
b) Agricultural labourers going from Bihar to Punjab
c) Brick workers going from Odisha to Andhra Pradesh
d) Teachers going from China to India to teach Chinese to Indian children
Answer:

Question 6.
‘Most children of migrant families become dropouts.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Most children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. I do agree with this statement.
3. Children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities.
4. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new work places.
5. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. They finally become dropouts.
7. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

Question 7.
How does rural to urban migration increase the purchasing power of people in rural areas?
(OR)
How does migration affect the purchasing power of people?
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration increases the purchasing power of people in rural areas.
2. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for the rural families.
3. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
4. The majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Thus, their purchasing power increases.

Question 8.
Why are only professionals able to go to developed countries? Why cannot unskilled workers migrate to these countries?
Answer:

1. Professionals are able to go to developed countries.
2. Unskilled workers cannot migrate to these countries.
3. Developed countries depend a lot on industries and service sector.
4. They require people with technical skills and professionals.
5. So, the unskilled workers cannot serve the purpose.
6. Thus, there is no scope for unskilled workers to migrate to developed countries.

Question 9.
Why are only unskilled workers from India wanted in West Asian countries?
Answer:

1. Only unskilled workers from India are wanted in West Asian countries.
2. Semi-skilled workers also migrate to these countries.
3. They are oil-exporting countries.
4. They employ workers on contract basis.
5. They empldy workers on large scale with lower wages.
6. They do not nekL^technically skilled or professionals for these jobs.
7. Besides, the need to pay handsome perks and emoluments.
8. Thus, only unskilled workers are wanted in West Asian countries.

Question 10.
Why are workers from three states able to go to a considerable extent to work in West Asia?
Answer:

1. Unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrate to West Asian countries.
2. Nearly three fifths of workers going to West Asia are from Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
3. A considerable section of these are engaged in construction projects, maintenance services, transport and telecommunications.
4. Most work in oil exporting work.
5. Nearly 30-40 years back many people from these three states went there.
6. They are using the contacts and network in West Asia and making to migrate others from their birth places.

Question 11.
Describe the similarities and differences between the impacts of internal and international migration.
Answer:
People generally migrate to improve their standard of living. Sometimes it is internal and sometimes internationals. The differences are:

10th Class Social Studies 8th Lesson People and Migration InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 102

Question 1.
Draw a sketch map showing Kurnool district along with Nandyala town. Mark arrow lines linking the names listed in the case study.
Answer:

Question 2.
Here is a list of a few people. Categorise them as migrant or non-migrant. Indicate the pattern and guess the probable reasons for migration.
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 103

Question 3.
Read the following table and complete the required information.
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 105

Question 4.
In the following map, what are the states from which migrant come to Delhi ?
Answer:
From Bihar, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, migrants come to Delhi

Question 5.
In the following map, form which states do the people migrate to Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:

1. From Karnataka, migrants come to Andhra Pradesh.
2. There is no migration from other states to Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 6.
In the following map, look at Tamil Nadu, what could be the reasons for out-migration and in-migration?
Answer:

1. People migrate to Tamil Nadu to acquire new skills, to find new jobs, to find job in the film industry and to earn a better salary.
2. People migrate from Tamil Nadu to Kerala in the tourism industry.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 106

Question 7.
Interview a person who has come to a town to work in the unorganized sector as a labourer or domestic servant and write her story (see the case study of Ramaiah).
Answer:
Seethamma – a domestic helper in Bengaluru.
I hail from Pedavadlapudi village, Mangalagiri Mandal, Guntur District. I am 56 years old. We have two male children. Both of them are married off. My husband used to pull rickshaw. But his untimely death, a few years ago made my life miserable. We have some debts to be repaid.
A woman of acquaintance introduced me to Mr. and Mrs. Rao. Both of them are software professionals. They hail from our village and are working in Bengaluru. They were married two years back. Recently Mrs. Rao gave birth to a male child. As they couldn’t afford to foster him in time, I was asked to take care of the child and work as a domestic helper.
They cleared our debts in advance and deduct them from my wage. I go to my place for some festivals.

Question 8.
If you live in a rural area, interview a person who has come on a vacation from working in a town in the unorganized sector, write his story (see the case study of Ramaiah).
Answer:
Suresh – a salesman in a readymade shop.
I was a resident of Pedakonduru village of Duggirala Mandal in Guntur District. I studied up to 5th class in Pedakonduru elementary school and later up to 10th class in Pedapalem, a 2 km journey upwards. Later I could not continue my studies.
Later I went to Vijayawada, a 17 km distant city in nearby district Krishna. I joined ‘Step-n- Style’ a readymade garment shop at Patamata in Vijayawada. Except salary they do not provide me with any other facility. It is the work under unorganized sector. Our shop works 7 days a week. Each one is allowed to take a weekly off on a different day of the week.
I have been working there for the last 17 years. I had pleasure working there for that much time. At times, we aren’t even given off on festival days. Most of the customers are of friendly nature and we don’t usually have any tensions.

Question 9.
Compare and contrast these two situations.
Answer:

• Both of them do not work in any organised sector.
• Both of them are paid low.
• Both of them are denied of good health and family care programmes.
• Domestic helper’s life took different turn after facing many difficulties.
• Salesman was unable to get well educated.
• He was contented and did not attempt to improve his education.
• Both of them work in different working conditions.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 107

Question 10.
Why are contacts and networks essential for getting jobs in urban areas?
Answer:

1. Contacts and networks are crucial for getting jobs in urban areas.
2. Migration is the survival strategy for many families.
3. Villagers pre-arrange their jobs from rural areas.
4. They come to urban areas through their contacts or networks.
5. Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural masses.
6. So that potential migrants can engage in rural-based job research.

Question 11.
Calculate the total number of persons added to urban population for each period and percentage of each group. Write sentences for each bullet point.
Answer:

1. During 1961-71, there were 31 million (20 + 5 + 6) people added in the urban population. In terms of percentage, 65% increase was due to natural increase, 16% was due to expansion of urban areas and 19% was due to migration.
2. During 1971-81, there were 50 million people added in the urban population. In terms of percentage, 52% increase was due to natural increase, 28 was due to expansion of urban areas and 20 was due to migration.
3. During 1981-1991 there were 56 million people added in the urban population. In terms of percentage, 63% increase was due to natural increase, 14% was due to expansion of urban areas and 23% was due to migration.
4. During 1991-2001, there were 67 million people added in the urban population. In terms of percentage, 60% increase was due to natural increase, 19% was due to expansion of urban areas and 21% was due to migration.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 108

Question 12.
Observe the graph given on page 107 in Textbook and answer the following questions.
a) How would you construct a table to show the effect of migration for the entire period 1961 – 2011?
Answer:

b) When people move out of rural areas which sector of the economy in the rural area loses the most number of people? Why?
Answer:

1. When people move out of rural areas primary sector of economy in the rural area loses the most number of people.
2. Had they not been moved out of rural areas, they would have taken part in agriculture and allied activities.
3. So, primary sector is losing the most number of people.

c) In urban areas, what are the common sector(s) of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. Most urban migrants find employment in the unorganised sector.
2. They work as hawkers, painters, mechanics, rickshaw pullers, construction labour etc.
3. They come to work in industries and other service activities.
4. They have opportunities for education and acquiring skills.
5. Urban areas also appear to offer greater freedom and somewhat less discrimination based on caste and gender.
6. They want to increase their income and they desire better family prospects.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 109

Question 13.
Why is there a shortage of sugarcane cutters in western Maharashtra ?
Answer:

1. There is a shortage of sugarcane cutters in western Maharashtra.
2. Maharashtra produces about 70 % of sugar in the country.
3. It has about 186 cooperative sugar factories.
4. Large scale sugarcane cultivation began here in the early 1970s after the Koina dam was built.
5. Sugarcane cutting requires a lot of workers.
6. It needed to be transported to mills at the earliest.
7. As many of the western Maharashtra farmers are growing sugarcane, there is a shortage of sugarcane cutters.
8. On the contrary, central Maharashtra, i.e., Vidharbha region is less cultivated, so there is scope of migration.

Question 14.
What would happen to children who come with their parents? Is it possible to bring these children to schools? Are there any provisions in the government laws for educating these children?
Answer:

1. The children who come with their parents are engaged in piling the canes that are cut and removed the leaves if they are of working age.
2. As their parents are living in bamboo huts, it is difficult for children to go to school.
3. It is a seasonal migration.
4. There is no provision of schools.
5. It is possible to bring these children to schools.
6. It requires a lot of care and interest on the part of the government.
7. There are provisions like setting up of Bridge schools and seasonal hostels for children of migrated parents.

Question 15.
Why are sugarcane cutters employed only for six months? What work might they do during the other six months of the year?
Answer:

1. Sugarcane cutters are employed only for six months.
2. Because the season ends with it.
3. Sugarcane cutters come there due to distress caused in rural areas.
4. They might do agricultural works or MNREGA works during the other six months of the year.

Question 16.
How could the living conditions of these workers be improved?
Answer:

1. They live in small conical huts.
2. They live together with animals in congested conditions.
3. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
4. The living conditions of these workers have to be improved.
5. The owners of sugarcane cultivating lands, the government at the state and even local self governments should take initiative to develop their living conditions.
6. They should set up health clinics, make shift houses and schools, fix proper wages and work hours.
7. See that children are not engaged in work, but sent to schools.

Question 17.
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the “sugar belt” which extends into Surat (Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum (Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.
Draw arrow lines on a map showing districts of origin and destination of migrants.
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 110

Question 18.
Describe an example of seasonal migration of your region.
Answer:

1. People from our region migrate to Guntur and other towns to work in tobacco barons.
2. With the gap in agricultural activities, many of the landless poor and even marginal farmers migrate there in search of employment.
3. Leaving the children with grandparents, they migrate to work in barons.
4. They bring back their savings.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 111

Question 19.
What can be done so that migrants are able to get food, health and family care programmes?
Answer:

1. Migrants should get good food, health and family care programmes.
2. It should be made possible for them to get food from fair price shops at their work places.
3. Make-shift hospitals with doctors and nurses are to be established at or near the work places.
4. Necessary care must be taken to prevent accidents in work places.
5. Unorganised sector workers are also to be provided with access to various health and family care programmes.

Question 20.
There are some initiatives taken by government and voluntary agencies. Find out if there is any such initiative in your area. Invite some persons from such agencies for a talk in the school.
Answer:
Self Activity.

Question 21.
National boundaries are protected against migrants. Here are examples of
a) USA on Mexican border
b) South Korea on North Korean border
c) India on Bangladesh border.
What do you think of migrants across the border?
Answer:
In the above figures the national boundaries of Mexico – the USA, South Korea – North Korea and India – Bangladesh are shown. It is common to arrange a fence between two countries along the border. The soldiers belonging to both the countries always safeguard the borders. But, due to many reasons different people try to cross the borders and enter the neighbouring countries. Some among them are terrorists who resort to violence and destruction in their enemy countries. They are induced and inspired by respective countries. They are called state sponsored terrorists.

In terms of employment and infrastructure, America is more attractive than Mexico. That is the reason why some people enter that country in illegal ways. Both South Korean and North Korean governments have different doctrines. One is communist whereas the other is capitalist. Those who differ with other countries’ doctrines try to cross the borders and go from one country to other for the sake of spying.

In Bangladesh, the rule has been dictatorial and the life of people there has been pathetic for ages. So some people of that country cross the border and enter the democratic country India. The states such as Paschim Banga and Assam are facing a grave problem with these people.

It’s a crime to cross the borders in an illegal way. And these people become a problem to the country they enter.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 112

Question 22.
Draw arrow lines on a World Map depicting people from India going to different countries mentioned in the above passages.

1. USA
2. Canada
3. United Kingdom
4. Australia
5. Germany
6. Norway
7. Japan
8. Malaysia
9. Saudi Arabia
10. UAE

Answer: