Category: Bit Bank

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Let us Measure on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 7th Lesson Let us Measure with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The standard unit of the Length is ………..
A) Centimeter
B) Millimeter
C) Kilometer
D) One meter
Answer:
D) One meter

Question 2.
This offers a wide varieties of standardized weights and measures of the time
A) Charaka Samhitha
B) Raja Tarangini
C) Arthshastra
D) Kadamban
Answer:
C) Arthshastra

Question 3.
The distance traveled by aeroplane or ship is measured by
A) Nautical Miles
B) Kilometers
C) Feet
D) Miles
Answer:
A) Nautical Miles

Question 4.
The volume of liquids are written in
A) Ml
B) Cm
C) Mm
D) Kl
Answer:
A) Ml

Question 5.
Which is the correct statement?
A) 1 cm = 100 mm
B) 1m = 100 cm
C) 1km = 100 m
D) All
Answer:
B) 1m = 100 cm

Question 6.
The protractor ranges from
A) 90’ — 180’
B) 0’ — 90’
C) 0’ — 180’
D) 0’ — 360’
Answer:
C) 0’ — 180’

Question 7.
The curved path length is measured with
A) Tape
B) Graph paper
C) Thread
D) Scale
Answer:
C) Thread

Question 8.
The original scale is preserved in the measure in
A) the U.S.A
B) Russia
C) U.K
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 9.
We indicate square millimeters as
A) m²
B) mm²
C) cm²
D) km²
Answer:
B) mm²

Question 10.
Larger distances can be measured in
A) mm
B) km
C) cm
D) All the above
Answer:
B) km

Fill in the blanks.

1. 1 cm = ……………. mm
Answer:
10 mm

2. The thickness of coins is measured with ………………
Answer:
Scale

3. The symbol of a square millimeter is ………………
Answer:
Mm²

4. 1 km = ……………… meters.
Answer:
1000 m

5. ……………… is used to measure the volume of irregularly shaped body.
Answer:
Measuring Cylinder

6. Foot space, hand space, and cubit are ……………… methods to measure the length of objects.
Answer:
Conventional

7. ……………… is the smallest unit in scale.
Answer:
Millimeter/mm

8. ……………… is the symbol of the square meter.
Answer:
M²

9. ……………… is the measure of the extent of space that occupies by body.
Answer:
Volume

10. The volume of liquids is measured in ………………
Answer:
Millilitres/ml

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                    List – B
1) Measuring cylinder           ( )           A) Distance traveled by ship
2) Measuring tape                ( )            B) Volume of liquids
3) Nautical miles                   ( )           C) Tailor
4) Bigha                                ( )            D) Gram
5) Unit of mass                     ( )             E) Cube
–                                                            F) Mughal measurement system
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) D

Question 2.
List-A                                                        List-B
1) Centimeter                          ( )           A) l × b
2) Square millimeter                ( )           B) 3 Feet
3) Yard                                     ( )           C) cm
4) Millimeter                            ( )           D) mm²
5) Area                                     ( )           E) ml
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) E
5) A

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Fun with Magnets on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 6th Lesson Fun with Magnets with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Among the following the natural magnet is
A) Rock stone
B) Lodestone
C) Gold stone
D) None
Answer:
B) Lodestone

Question 2.
Among the following which is not attracted by magnet?
A) Iron
B) Cobalt
C) Gold
D) Nickel
Answer:
C) Gold

Question 3.
Materials that are not attracted to magnet are called
A) Magnet
B) Non-magnetic
C) Pole
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Non-magnetic

Question 4.
A freely suspended bar magnet always aligns in which direction?
A) East-West
B) West-North
C) East-South
D) North-South
Answer:
D) North-South

Question 5.
How many poles does each magnet have?
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Four
Answer:
C) Two

Question 6.
In the olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………………
A) Wood
B) Cloth
C) Stone
D) Natural magnets
Answer:
D) Natural magnets

Question 7.
Like poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Attract and repel
D) None
Answer:
B) Repel

Question 8.
Which poles attract in a magnet?
A) Like poles
B) Unlike poles
C) Both unlike and like poles
D) None
Answer:
B) Unlike poles

Question 9.
Identify the natural magnet shape
A) Bar
B) Disc
C) Needle
D) Don’t definite shape
Answer:
A) Bar

Question 10.
This should be kept away from cassettes, mobiles, television, music system, compact disks (CDS) and the computer
A) plastic
B) wood
C) wire
D) magnet
Answer:
D) magnet

Question 11.
The magnet attracts only ……………….. objects.
A) Non-magnetic
B) Magnetic
C) Plastic
D) Wood
Answer:
B) Magnetic

Question 12.
…………………. property of magnets is used to make a magnetic compass.
A) Pair
B) Pole
C) Directional
D) Induction
Answer:
C) Directional

Question 13.
The instrument used to detect direction is
A) iron bar
B) gold
C) compass
D) magnetic substance
Answer:
C) compass

Question 14.
……………… is an example for non-magnetic material.
A) Paper
B) Iron
C) Steel
D) Nickel
Answer:
A) Paper

Question 15.
Unlike poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Attract

Question 16.
Freely suspended magnet shows
A) pair property
B) pole property
C) induction property
D) directive property
Answer:
D) directive property

Question 17.
The surest test of magnetism is
A) repulsion between poles
B) directive property
C) attraction between poles
D) none
Answer:
A) repulsion between poles

Question 18.
The ore of the magnetic
A) Carnalite
B) Magnetite
C) magnetic induction
D) magnetic dip
Answer:
B) Magnetite

Question 19.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Like poles                                   A) Induction
2. Unlike poles                               B) Repel
3. Artificial magnet                        C) Strong power
4. Iron attracted by a magnet by   D) Attract
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 20.
Electromagnetic train works on the principle of
A) Magnetic attraction
B) Directional property
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic levitation
Answer:
D) Magnetic levitation

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Compass             A) Magnet
2. Earth also            B) Non-magnet
3. N-S poles            C) Magnetic needle
4. Gold                    D) Natural magnet
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 22.
Identify the Horse-shoe magnet in the following.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
D)

Question 23.

In the above diagram, the north and south poles are
A) attract
B) repel
C) neither attract nor repel
D) none
Answer:
A) attract

Question 24.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Lodestone                    A) N – S direction
2. Ring magnet                B) Magnus
3. Nail                              C) Man made
4. Compass                      D) Magnetic material
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

Question 25.
Match the following.

A) P – W, Q – X, R – Y, S – Z
B) P – X, Q – Y, R – Z, S – W
C) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X, S – Y
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y
Answer:
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y

Question 26.
Identify the wrong statement.
A) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
B) Heat can destroy the magnetic properties of a magnet.
C) A freely suspended bar magnet rests in N – S direction.
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.
Answer:
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.

Question 27.
Which two ends of a magnet are called magnetic poles?
A) South pole
B) North and South pole
C) North pole
D) Self demagnetization
Answer:
B) North and South pole

Question 28.
Magnets have a shape
A) horseshoe
B) ring
C) disc
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 29.
Observe the following statements.
i) Magnets are made up of different materials and different shapes.
ii) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
B) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect
C) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct
D) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 30.
The magnetic properties of a magnet cannot be destroyed by
A) heating
B) boiling
C) hammering
D) dropping on a hard surface
Answer:
B) boiling

Question 31.
Ravi: Magnetic poles always do not exist in pairs.
Gopi: Similar poles of two magnets attract each other.
A) Ravi is correct Gopi incorrect
B) Ravi incorrect, Gopi correct
C) Both Ravi and Gopi correct
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect
Answer:
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect

Question 32.
……………. poles of a magnet attract other.
A) Like
B) Opposite
C) South
D) North
Answer:
B) Opposite

Question 33.
Srinu wanted to make a nail into a magnet. He dragged the nail with a magnet* but he dragged the magnet back and forth. What happens?
A) Nail magnetized
B) Nail not magnetized
C) Nail has broken
D) Nail bends
Answer:
B) Nail not magnetized

Question 34.
The picture shows …………… magnet.

A) round
B) disc
C) horseshoe
D) bar
Answer:
C) horseshoe

Question 35.
Match the following.
1. Iron, nickel, cobalt      a) Used to find out N – S directions
2. Compass                     b) Natural magnet
3. Lodestone                   c) Magnetic materials
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 36.
Observe the following statements and choose the right choice.
a) As poles repel
b) Unlike poles attract
A) a and b correct
B) a wrong & b correct
C) a correct & b wrong
D) a and b wrong
Answer:
A) a and b correct

Question 37.
When a ‘S’ pole a magnet in brought near the ‘N’ pole of a freely suspended magnetic needle, then it?
A) rotates
B) attracts
C) repels
D) none
Answer:
B) attracts

Question 38.
Match the following:
1. North pole                       a) Magnetic compass
2. South pole                       b) North direction
3. Directional property        c) South direction
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 39.
When a magnet is placed on a plastic plate with common pins spread on it, then
A) Pins stick all around the magnet
B) Pins stick at the middle of the magnet
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet
D) None
Answer:
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet

Question 40.
The North end of the freely suspended magnet points towards?
A) Geographical North
B) Geographical South
C) Geographical East
D) Geographical West
Answer:
A) Geographical North

Question 41.
Which of the following helps a ship to move it in the right direction?
A) An anchor
B) speedometer
C) A thermometer
D) A compass
Answer:
D) A compass

Question 42.
Attraction is seen between the poles of two bar magnets in the case of
A) N – pole of one magnet with N – pole of other
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
C) S – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
D) all of these cases will show attraction
Answer:
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other

Question 43.
When a bar magnet is brought near iron dust most of the dust sticks
A) equally everywhere
B) near two ends
C) near the middle
D) at the middle and ends
Answer:
B) near two ends

Question 44.
“Magnet” was named after the name of the place
A) Greece
B) Magnus
C) Magnesia
D) Magnetite
Answer:
B) Magnus

Question 45.
Choose the correct statement.
X – Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near cell phones.
Y – Cell phone will get affected by the magnetic field when it is placed near Magnet.
A) Only ‘X’ correct
B) Only ‘Y’ correct
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
Answer:
C) Both are correct

Question 46.
In a bar magnet shown in the fig., the points A and B are called

A) Edges
B) Poles
C) Magnetic directions
D) Magnetic points
Answer:
B) Poles

Question 47.
A suspended bar magnet is resting in a direction as shown in fig.

The geographical direction at that place are

Answer:
D)

Question 48.
A bar magnet is broken into two pieces as shown in the figure the two poles formed at their other ends in two pieces are

A) N, N
B) S, S
C) N, S
D) S, N
Answer:
D) S, N

Question 49.
If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then you can say
A) that is not a magnet, but not a magnetic substance
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance
C) that is a magnet but a magnetic substance
D) that is a magnet but not a magnetic substance
Answer:
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance

Question 50.
A student labeled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c – 1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2
Answer:
A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3

Question 51.
Which property is involved in the diagram?

A) Directional properly
B) Magnetic properly
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic, repulsion
Answer:
D) Magnetic, repulsion

Fill in the blanks.

1. Load stone is a …………………. magnet.
Answer:
natural

2. Man made magnets are called ………………..
Answer:
Artificial magnets

3. ……………… is the ore of magnet.
Answer:
Magnetite

4. Natural magnets are also called as ……………….
Answer:
lode stones

5. The method of changing the piece of iron into a magnet is called ………………
Answer:
magnetization

6. The materials that are attracted by magnets are called …………….
Answer:
magnetic material

7. The materials that are not attracted by magnets are called ………………
Answer:
non-magentic material

8. Attracting capacity is more at the ……………. of a magnet.
Answer:
poles

9. Like poles ………………. each other.
Answer:
repel

10. Unlike poles ……………… each other.
Answer:
attract

11. Magnets always come to rest in the direction. This property is called as ……………….. property.
Answer:
North-South, magnetic

12. Compos was developed based on …………….. property of magnets.
Answer:
directional

13. A compass is used to find ……………….
Answer:
direction

14. Magnetic property possessed by a magnetic substance due to the presence of a magnet near it, is called …………….
Answer:
magnetic induction

15. If an object is attracted by one pole of the bar magnet and repelled by its other pole, then it is a ………………
Answer:
magnet

16. If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then it is not a magnet but a ……………. substance.
Answer:
magnetic

17. If an object is neither attracted by magnet nor repelled by it, then it is neither a …………… nor a ………………. magnetic substance.
Answer:
magnet

18. Magnets lose their properties if they are ………………
Answer:
heated or dropped

19. Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near ………………..
Answer:
cell phone

20. An Electromagnetic train is also called as ……………..
Answer:
suspension train

21. The maglev train runs by using the property of ………………..
Answer:
magnetic levitation

Match the following:

Question 1.
A                                                            B
1) Like poles                     ( )         A) Lode stone
2) Unlike poles                 ( )         B) Chinese sailors
3) Army men                    ( )         C) Magnetic induction
4) Natural magnet           ( )          D) Repel
5) Magnetic compass      ( )          E) Magnetic compass
–                                                    F) Attract
Answer:
1) D
2) F
3) E
4) A
5) B

Question 2.
A                                                                   B
1) North pole                  ( )         A) Magnetic compass
2) South pole                  ( )         B) Magnetic substances
3) Directional property   ( )         C) South direction
4) Iron, cobalt                 ( )         D) Non-magnetic
5) Plastic, wood              ( )         E) Induction .
–                                                  F) North direction
Answer:
1) F
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 3.
A                                                            B
1) Natural magnet         ( )         A) Unlike poles
2) Attraction                  ( )         B) load stone
3) Non-magnetic           ( )        C) Horse shoe magnet
4) Artificial magnet        ( )        D) Like poles
5) Repulsion                   ( )        E) Plastic
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) E
4) C
5) D

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Heredity on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 9th Lesson Our Environment with Answers

Concept – 1 : Introduction – Food Chain – Food web

Question 1.
Which of the following do plants not compete for ?
A) Water
B) Food
C) Space
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 2.
……………… denotes the animal’s position and its food.
A) Trophic level
B) Niche
C) Estuary
D) Cutch
Answer:
B) Niche

Question 3.
Insectivores feed on Aphids, Grasshopper. We can represent the statement through one of the following.
A) Food level
B) Food chain
C) Trophic level
D) Food web
Answer:
D) Food web

Question 4.
The graphic representation of the feeding level of an ecosystem is …………………..
A) Pyramid
B) Biosphere
C) Ecological pyramid
D) Food chain
Answer:
C) Ecological pyramid

Question 5.
Any type of plant or animal material , that can be converted into energy is called …………………..
A) Bio energy
B) Biomass
C) Bio evolution
D) Bio quantity
Answer:
B) Biomass

Question 6.
The sum of physical and biological factors along with their chemical interactions that effect an organism is called ……………………
A) Ecosystem
B) Atmosphere
C) Environment
D) Food chain
Answer:
C) Environment

Question 7.
Air, water, soil, sunlight are called ………………… factors.
A) Biotic
B) Abiotic
C) Chemical
D) Physical
Answer:
B) Abiotic

Question 8.
The region of the world of living things is termed as:
A) Biosphere
B) Atmosphere
C) Environment
D) Ecqsystem
Answer:
A) Biosphere

Question 9.
The missing organism in food chain of grass → ? → frog → snake is :
A) Grasshopper
B) Lion
C) Goat
D) Amoeba
Answer:
A) Grasshopper

Question 10.
Charles Elton relates to
A) Embryology
B) Physiology
C) Ecology
D) Geology
Answer:
C) Ecology

Question 11.
Identify the correct food chain.
A) Plant → frog → snake → grosshopper
B) Plant → grasshopper frog → snake
C) Grasshopper → plant → snake → frog
D) Frog → plant → grasshopper → snake
Answer:
B) Plant → grasshopper frog → snake

Question 12.
Which of the following constitutes a food chain?
A) Grass, Wheat and Mango
B) Grass, Goat and Human
C) Goat, Cow and Elephant
D) Grass, Fish and Goat
Answer:
D) Grass, Fish and Goat

Question 13.
An ecosystem includes
A) all living organisms
B) non-living objects
C) both living organisms and non-living objects
D) all living organisms and input of sun’s energy
Answer:
C) both living organisms and non-living objects

Question 14.
What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below ? Grass → Deer → Tiger
A) The population of tigers increases
B) The population of grass decreases
C) Tigers will start eating grass
D) The population of tigers decreases and the population of grass increases.
Answer:
D) The population of tigers decreases and the population of grass increases.

Question 15.
Which one of the following is not a consumer ?
A) Giraffe
B) Antelope
C) Algae
D) Alligator
Answer:
C) Algae

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a producer?
A) Grass
B) Zooplankton
C) Phytoplankton
D) Paddy
Answer:
B) Zooplankton

Question 17.
In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by :
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) decomposers
D) producers
Answer:
A) carnivores

Question 18.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding producers ?
A) All green plants and blue green algae are producers.
B) Producers prepare their own food from ready made organic compounds.
C) Producers prepare their own food from inorganic compounds.
D) Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy.
Answer:
B) Producers prepare their own food from ready made organic compounds.

Question 19.
Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates by using radiant energy are called:
A) decomposers
B) producers
C) herbivores
D) carnivores
Answer:
B) producers

Question 20.
A network of several food chains is known as :
A) ecosystem
B) food web
C) ecological pyramid
D) food chain
Answer:
B) food web

Question 21.
Choose the right one for the empty box.

A) Grasshopper
B) Snake
C) Frog
D) Hawk
Answer:
B) Snake

Question 22.
Which of the following is biotic factor ?
A) Air
B) Soil
C) Plant
D) Sunlight
Answer:
C) Plant

Question 23.
……………. forms food web.
A) Chains
B) Food chains
C) Abotic factors
D) Biotic factors
Answer:
B) Food chains

Question 24.
The type of forests are determined by ………………..
A) Temperature, sunlight
B) Sunlight, plants
C) Temperature, rainfall
D) Light, surroundings
Answer:
A) Temperature, sunlight

Question 25.
……………… indicates the relationship of food.
A) Food web
B) Food chain
C) Niche
D) Habitat
Answer:
A) Food web

Question 26.
………………. denotes the mode of life of an organism in the food web.
A) Niche
B) Food chain
C) Pyramid of biomass
D) Pyramid of numbers
Answer:
A) Niche

Question 27.
In the food chain which shows the human being, big fish and the small fish, the last place is occupied by …………………….
A) Fish
B) Moss
C) Human being
D) Whale
Answer:
C) Human being

Question 28.
Which of the following should be less, so that the top most carnivores will get more energy ?
A) Producers
B) Trophic levels
C) Consumers
D) Moss
Answer:
B) Trophic levels

Question 29.
The material which the organism can’t digest …………………
A) Cellulose
B) Fats
C) Cellulose, lignin
D) Proteins
Answer:
C) Cellulose, lignin

Question 30.
The flow of materials between organisms and their environment is called ……………………..
A) Nitrogen cycle
B) Carbon cycle
C) Bio geochemical cycle
D) Hydrogen cycle
Answer:
C) Bio geochemical cycle

Question 31.
Which of the following can convert the absorbed (Solar energy) sunlight into chemical energy ?
A) Animals
B) Decomposers
C) Producers
D) Carnivores
Answer:
C) Producers

Question 32.
The pyramid of numbers is always upright. If it changes …………………..
i) the number of producers will be more in the trophic level.
ii) a tree is the producer.
iii) it is always upright. Change does not occur.
iv) Producers are at the base only though the pyramid is in any form.
A) i only
B) i, ii, iii
C) i, ii, iv
D) All are correct
Answer:
C) i, ii, iv

Question 33.
Consider the following.
a) Photosynthesis is the important life process for all plants.
b) Abiotic factors such as CO₂, light and water are not necessary for organisms.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
B) a is true, b is false

Question 34.
Consider the following.
a. It would be better to reduce the reproductive capacity of male insect organisms.
b. Crop rotation method is the best practice.
A) a, b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) a, b both are true

Question 35.
What does a food chain always start with ?
A) Herbivore
B) Carnivore
C) Producer
D) Predator
Answer:
C) Producer

Question 36.
The food chain ends with ………………..
A) Producer
B) Saprophyte
C) Decomposer
D) Consumer
Answer:
D) Consumer

Question 37.
The number of levels in a food chain comprises mostly
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 2
Answer:
B) 4

Question 38.
……………… denotes the relationship between the biotic factors.
A) Food pyramid
B) Food quantity
C) Food chain
D) Producers
Answer:
C) Food chain

Question 39.
Which of the following indicates the transfer of energy from one organism to the other ?
A) Food pyramid
B) Path of energy flow
C) Path of energy loss
D) Food chain
Answer:
D) Food chain

Question 40.
Correct statement of Charles Elton.
A) Carnivores at the top of the pyramid.
B) Energy trapping is high at the top of the pyramid
C) No producers at the top of the pyramid
A) A only
B) Both A and B
C) C only
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 41.
Between grass and grasshopper food chain ends with
A) Producer
B) Saprophyte
C) Decomposers
D) Consumers
Answer:
D) Consumers

Question 42.
You have prepared a work sheet for collecting information on observing different food chains. One of the following is important component in the work sheet.
A) Details of group members
B) Food relationship
C) Names of animals
D) Number of carnivores
Answer:
B) Food relationship

Question 43.
Consider the following.
a. The place of organism in a food web is called “Niche”
b. Niche explains the living habits and food habits of organism
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a & b are false
D) a is true, b is false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 44.
The primary consumer is …………………
A) Rabbit
B) Tiger
C) Frog
D) Snake
Answer:
A) Rabbit

Question 45.
Choose the right one for the empty box.

A) Grasshopper
B) Snake
C) Frog
D) Hawk
Answer:
B) Snake

Question 46.
Grass, grass hopper, snake, frog, eagle – find out the correct flow chart.
A) grass → grass hopper → frog → snake → eagle
B) grass ← grass hopper ← frog ← snake ← eagle
C) grass hopper → eagle → frog → grass → snake
D) eagle → snake → grass hopper → frog → grass
Answer:
A) grass → grass hopper → frog → snake → eagle

Concept – 2 : Ecological Pyramids

Question 47.
……………… denotes the relationship among the organisms in a food chain.
A) Giza pyramid
B) Food web
C) Ecological pyramid
D) Trophic level
Answer:
C) Ecological pyramid

Question 48.
A grass land ecosystem had grass, grasshopper, snake, rabbit, frog and eagle. Then what are the primary consumers ?
A) Grasshopper and frog
B) Grasshopper and snake
C) Grasshopper and rabbit
D) Grasshopper and eagle
Answer:
C) Grasshopper and rabbit

Question 49.
Pyramid: Egypt:: Ecological pyramids:
A) Odum
B) Francis Bacon
C) Charles Darwin
D) Charles Elton
Answer:
D) Charles Elton

Question 50.
By which of the following processes, biomass will be formed in organisms?
A) Respiration
B) Light respiration
C) Photosynthesis
D) Carbon cycle
Answer:
C) Photosynthesis

Question 51.
When biomass is used for energy production, that is called ………………….
A) Bio fuel
B) Bio utilisation
C) Biosphere
D) Food pyramid
Answer:
A) Bio fuel

Question 52.
The transfer of energy from one trophic level to other trophic level
A)20 – 30%
B) 30 – 40 %
C) 50 – 70 %
D) 10 – 20 %
Answer:
D) 10 – 20 %

Question 53.
The ……………. feed on phytoplanktons.
A) Zoo planktons
B) Producers
C) Biomass
D) Insectivorous plants
Answer:
A) Zoo planktons

Question 54.
What happens if plants shed their leaves in Autumn season ?
A) Loss of energy occur
B) Plants will die
C) Decomposers will be destroyed
D) Loss of biomass occur
Answer:
D) Loss of biomass occur

Question 55.
Observe a and b statements.
a. The number of organisms in a food chain can be represented graphically in a pyramid.
b. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each trophic level in the food chain.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 56.
In the figure given below, the various trophic levels are shown in the form of a pyramid. At which trophic level the maximum energy is available ?

A) T₄
B) T₂
C) T₁
D) T₃
Answer:
C) T₁

Question 57.
The organic material of biological origin that is ultimately derived from the fixation of carbon dioxide by trapping solar energy during photosynthesis is called:
A) Biomass
B) Biofuel
C) Both A and B
D) Pyramid
Answer:
A) Biomass

Question 58.
Which of the following represents a food chain in a pond ecosystem ?

Answer:
D) Green algae mosquito larvae fish

Question 59.
In an aquatic ecosystem, the biomass of phytoplankton is :
A) quite negligible
B) greater
C) lesser
D) none of these
Answer:
C) lesser

Question 60.
Observe the a and b statements.
a. In the pyramid of numbers, as we move to top position the number of organisms decreases.
b. As the number of organisms decrease, the quantity of organisms also decrease.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a arid b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 61.
Find out the wrong one in the given flow chart.

A) 1, 2 correct
B) 2, 3, 4 correct
C) 2, 4 correct
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 62.

In this food chain, the organism which belongs to the second trophic level is………………
A) Snake
B) Plant
C) Grasshopper
D) Frog
Answer:
C) Grasshopper

Question 63.
Consider the following.
a) Aphids are small in size but their number is more.
b) Wood peckers eat aphids. Their number is less, but size is large.
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 64.
According to Charles Elton
A) carnivores are atthe top ofthe pyramid
B) energy trapping is high at the top of the pyramid
C) no producers at the top of the pyramid
D) A and C
Answer:
D) A and C

Question 65.
If we invert the pyramid of numbers …………… is formed.
A) Pyramid of biomass
B) Pyramid of energy
C) Pyramid of Egypt
D) Biomass
Answer:
A) Pyramid of biomass

Question 66.
The plants float on the surf ace water of the sea ……………………
A) Phytoplanktons
B) Zoo planktons
C) Producers
D) Pyramid of number
Answer:
A) Phytoplanktons

Question 67.
Phytoplanktons means
A) Plants growing on river side
B) Plants growing on surface of water
C) Plants submerged in water
D) Plants growing on trees
Answer:
B) Plants growing on surface of water

Question 68.
Match the items of first line with second line.
First line :
1. Charles Elton
2. Charles Darwin
3. Lavoisier

Second line:
a) Respiration is a combustion process
b) Ecosystem
c) Evolution
A) 1 – b, 2 – c 3 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – a 3 – c
C) 1 – c 2 – a 3 – b
D) 1 – c 2 – b 3 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – b, 2 – c 3 – a

Question 69.
Consumers are divided based on the factors given below in an ecosystem .
A) Consumed food
B) Trophic level
C) Consumed food, trophic level
D) Energy
Answer:
C) Consumed food, trophic level

Question 70.
Consider the following.
a. Carnivores are on the top of pyramid of number.
b. These are large in number and size.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) Both a and b are false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
B) a is true, b is false

Question 71.
Consider the following.
a. Biomass is prominent in terrestrial ecosystem
b. Pyramid of biomass is always upright
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
C) b is true, a is false

Question 72.
Observe the following a and b statements:
a) The number of organisms decrease as we move from producers to consumers.
b) Theconsumersareplacedinthefront position in a food chain.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
B) a is true, b is false

Question 73.
Observe the a and b statements.
a. The less energy will be available for the higher consumers.
b. Producers will get more energy.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 74.
Observe the a and b statements :
a) Producers are represented atthebase of ‘the pyramid’.
b) The top of the pyramid is represented as empty.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 75.
If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from :
A) producer to decomposer
B) producer to primary consumer
C) primary consumer to secondary consumer
D) primary consumer to tertiary consumer
Answer:
C) primary consumer to secondary consumer

Question 76.
In the food chain below, if the amount of energy available at fourth trophic level is 5 KJ, what is the energy available at the producer level ?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
A) 500 KJ
B) 50 KJ
C) 5000 KJ
D) 5 KJ
Answer:
C) 5000 KJ

Question 77.
The concept of ‘Ecological Pyramid’ was first proposed by……………….
A) Lindemann
B) Lamarck
C) Steel
D) Charles Elton
Answer:
D) Charles Elton

Question 78.
Fill the empty box choosing the right one from the following.

A) Geographical pyramid
B) Pyramid of energy
C) Pyramid of biomass
D) Giza pyramid
Answer:
B) Pyramid of energy

Question 79.
Consider the following.
a. The amount of bio-mass decreases from producers to carnivores in: terrestrial ecosystem.
b. The amount of bio-mass decreases from producers to carnivores in aquatic ecosystem.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) Both a and b are false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 80.
Find out the missing thing from the table

A) Ecological pyramid
B) Flow of energy
C) Flow of biomass
D) Giza pyramid
Answer:
B) Flow of energy

Question 81.
Find out the pyramid with right position of the organisms.

A) i only
B) i, ii,
C) All are correct
D) ii, iii.
Answer:
B) i, ii,

Question 82.
Herbivores disappeared from ecosystem. Find the pyramid related to that.

Answer:

Question 83.
Consider the following.
a) Biomass in each trophic level is always less than the trophic level below.
b) Biomass is a measure of the amount of food available.
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Concept – 3 : The Story of Kolleru Lake

Question 84.
In an industrial area so many industrial effluents are released into the water. If the residues are found in the organisms of food chain it is ……………..
A) Bio – accumulation
B) Bio – oxygen
C) Bio – pollution
D) Bio – magnification
Answer:
A) Bio – accumulation

Question 85.
Rotation of crops, Genetic strains, Sterility are the ……………… methods to prevent the pests.
A) Bio – accumulation
B) Bio – magnification
C) Biological control
D) Environmental ethics
Answer:
C) Biological control

Question 86.
Kolleru lake discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal through the ………………. channel.
A) River Narmada
B) River Godavari
C) Maddileru channel
D) Upputeru channel
Answer:
D) Upputeru channel

Question 87.
Kolleru lake attracts migrating birds from Asia and Eastern Europe of about ……………. birds per year.
A) 25,00,000 birds
B) 20,00,000 birds
C) 35,00,000 birds
D) 15,00,000 birds
Answer:
B) 20,00,000 birds

Question 88.
Expand BOD.
A) Biological Oxygen Deficiency
B) Basic Organic Dominance
C) Biological Oxygen Demand
D) Basal Organic Demand
Answer:
C) Biological Oxygen Demand

Question 89.
In 1999 November, the Government of Andhra Pradesh had declared the Kolleru lake as …………………
A) Bird sanctuary
B) Wild life sanctuary
C) National park
D) Pisciculture centre
Answer:
A) Bird sanctuary

Question 90.
The Mercury, Arsenic and Lead in pesticides ………………
A) do not break down
B) break down
C) increases purity
D) can’t accumulate
Answer:
A) do not break down

Question 91.
Entry of pollutants into a food chain is …………………….
A) Bio-accumulation
B) Bio-magnification
C) Bio-mass
D) Bio-degradation
Answer:
A) Bio-accumulation

Question 92.
The bio indicators of heavy metal pollutants
A) Cadmium
B) Fishes
C) Aquatic animals
D) Mercury
Answer:
B) Fishes

Question 93.
The tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next is ……………………
A) Bio – control
B) Bio – magnification
C) Bio – accumulation
D) Bio – remediation
Answer:
B) Bio – magnification

Question 94.
The common scale carp which is used as food in Edulabad Water Reservoir is
A) Cyprinus Carpio
B) Mrigala Mrigala
C) Cutla Cutla
D) Cyprinus Cyprinus
Answer:
A) Cyprinus Carpio

Question 95.
What happened in Kolleru lake due to over alkalinity and mud formation?
The percentage of O₂ decrease b. More increase in Biological Oxygen Demand and impact on aquatic organisms.
A) a is true
B) b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
C) Both a and b are true

Concept – 4 : Edulabad Water Reservoir

Question 96.
The metal which causes Minamata disease is ………………….
A) Iron
B) Mercury
C) Zinc
D) Arsenic
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 97.
Which of the following is not an alternative to pesticides ?
A) Rotation of crops
B) Sterility
C) Genetic strains
D) Spray of pesticides
Answer:
D) Spray of pesticides

Question 98.
Many pollutants are released into water from an industrial area. If residue appears in living organisms of a food chain, then it is called
A) Bio remediation
B) Bio mimicry
C) Bio pollution
D) Bio magnification
Answer:
D) Bio magnification

Question 99.
The aquatic biota is being contaminated with heavy metals due to industrialization and anthropogenic activities.
The above statement is ……………………..
A) Correct
B) Wrong
C) Not accurate
D) Can’t say
Answer:
A) Correct

Question 100.
You observed fish in the industrial areas. Some of the following heavy metals are found in them.
i) lead
ii) cadmium
iii) nickel
A) i only
B) i, ii only
C) i, iii only
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 101.
Arsenic elements are seen in milk of cow. The correct word that explains it.
A) Bio control
B) Bio accumulation
C) Bio remediation
D) Bio magnification
Answer:
D) Bio magnification

Question 102.
The following is not a reason for imbalance in ecosystem.
A) Deforestation
B) Same crop harvest
C) Crop rotation
D) Constructing dams
Answer:
C) Crop rotation

Question 103.
Latha says excessive nutrient addition, especially from anthrppogenic sources, led to explosive weed growth. Sarala denied Latha’s hypothesis.
A) Latha is wrong
B) Sarala is wrong
C) Both are wrong
D) Latha is correct
Answer:
D) Latha is correct

Question 104.
The bio-accumulated components of pesticides which entered the food chain are :
A) Arsenic
B) Mercury
C) Lead
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 105.
Which of the following is not a biodegradable substance ?
A) Cotton
B) Animal bones
C) Aluminuim foil
D) Wood
Answer:
C) Aluminuim foil

Question 106.
The physiological disorder due to accumulation of heavy metals into human beings through food chain is
A) Renal damage
B) Tooth decay
C) Loss of eye sight
D) Heart diseases
Answer:
A) Renal damage

Question 107.
In Japan in 1956, the Minamata disease was caused by this highly toxic chemical in water.
A) Methyl Isocyanide
B) Mercury Isocyanide
C) Potassium Isocyanide
D) Methyl Mercury
Answer:
D) Methyl Mercury

Concept – 5 : Sparrow Campaign

Question 108.
The cruel campaign against which bird is initiated in 1958 in China ?
A) Parrots
B) Sparrows
C) Crows
D) Vultures
Answer:
B) Sparrows

Question 109.
“Sparrow Campaign” incident occurred in
A) China
B) Japan
C) Korea
D) India
Answer:
A) China

Question 110.
These insects population grew due to killing of sparrows in China in 1958.
A) Cockroach
B) Locusts
C) Earthworm
D) B & C
Answer:
B) Locusts

Question 111.
Killing of sparrows resulted in
A) Controlling of locusts
B) Controlling of human population
C) Great Chinese famine
D) Production of food
Answer:
C) Great Chinese famine

Question 112.
What did people do in Sparrowg Campaign in China ?
A) Nests were torn down
B) Eggs were broken
C) Nestlings were killed
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Concept – 6 : Steps towards Prevention

Question 113.
Ban all pesticides, this means that
A) Control on usage of pesticides
B) Prevention of pesticides
C) Promote eco friendly agricultural practices
D) Stop bio chemical factories
Answer:
C) Promote eco friendly agricultural practices

Question 114.
The correct way for facilitating shelter for growing population.
A) Destruction of forests and making shelter
B) Building shelters at sea – shore area
C) Making habitat without destructing eco-system
D) Converting marshy land into habitat
Answer:
C) Making habitat without destructing eco-system

Question 115.
Sujatha asked to cut grass and green plants to keep the surroundings clean. This is opposed by Raffee. Why ?
A) Need more labour
B) Takes more time
C) Disturbs equilibrium
D) Artificial environment
Answer:
C) Disturbs equilibrium

Question 116.
A farmer introduced lizards in his field. The phenomenon is …………………..
A) The method of environmental ethics
B) Bio – control
C) Bio – accumulation
D) Bio – magnification
Answer:
B) Bio – control

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Heredity on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 8th Lesson Heredity with Answers

Concept – 1 : Introduction – New Characters and Variations

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a variation in rose plant ?
A) Coloured petals
B) Spines
C) Tendrils
D) Leaf margin
Answer:
C) Tendrils

Question 2.
Observe the following a and b statements.
a : All the family members have identical characters,
b : Differences in character within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
A) a and b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) a and b both are false
Answer:
C) a is false, b is true

Question 3.
The process of transmission of varied characters to offspring from parents
A) Inheritance
B) Mutations
C) Diversity
D) Environment
Answer:
A) Inheritance

Question 4.
The exchange of genetic material takes place in:
A) vegetative reproduction
B) asexual reproduction
C) sexual reproduction
D) budding
Answer:
C) sexual reproduction

Question 5.
Passing of characters from parents to offsprings is called
A) Heredity
B) Natural selection
C) Variations
D) Acquired characters
Answer:
A) Heredity

Concept – 2 : Mendelian Characters

Question 6.
Father of Genetics
A) Darwin
B) Morgan
C) Wallace
D) Mendel
Answer:
D) Mendel

Question 7.
According to Mendel, alleles have the following character
A) Pair of genes
B) Responsible for character
C) Production of gametes
D) Recessive factors
Answer:
A) Pair of genes

Question 8.
Gregor Mendel, a scientist belongs to ……………… country. He used ……………….. as a laboratory.
A) Germany, Science lab
B) Austria, Monastery garden
C) Austria, Royal science lab
D) Germany, Monastery garden
Answer:
B) Austria, Monastery garden

Question 9.
Which of the following is a unique identification to each individual ?
A) Iris of eye
B) Marking on thumb
C) Ear lobes
D) Only A & B
Answer:
D) Only A & B

Question 10.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Mendel’s selection of garden pea for his experiment ?
A) Well defined characters
B) Bisexual flowers
C) Predominantly self fertilisation
D) Cheap is cost
Answer:
D) Cheap is cost

Question 11.
According to Mendel, each character is expressed due to a pair of alleles or traits, which are known as
A) Genes in pairs
B) Response for the character
C) Production of gametes
D) Inherent character
Answer:
A) Genes in pairs

Concept – 3 : Examples of Experiments Performed by Mendel

Question 12.
The genotypic ratio in F₁ generation when crossed the tall and short plants.
A) 1 : 2: 1
B) 3 : 1
C) 9 : 3 : 3 :1
D) 1 : 2 : 3
Answer:
A)1 : 2: 1

Question 13.
From which of the following F₂ generation is produced ?
A) Parental generation
B) F₂ generation
C) F₁ generation
D) From F₂ generation only
Answer:
C) F₁ generation

Question 14.
The % of short character in F₂ generation is ………………..
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
Answer:
D) 25%

Question 15.
If the % of long plants is 75, then it should be represented in ………………….
A) Genotype
B) Phenotype
C) General
D) Can’t say
Answer:
B) Phenotype

Question 16.
According to Mendel, for one character there is a pair of
A) Traits
B) Factors
C) Genes
D) Homozygous
Answer:
B) Factors

Question 17.
The long plants always produce long plants only
A) Yes
B) No
C) Can’t say
D) Short plants also produced
Answer:
D) Short plants also produced

Question 18.
The plants where the dominant character is maintained for successive generations is …………………
A) Pure breed
B) Cross breed
C) Heterozygous
D) Dominants
Answer:
A) Pure breed

Question 19.
Which of the following is not the reason for choosing of pea plant by Mendel for his experiments ?
A) Having bisexual flower
B) Annual plant
C) Self – Pollination
D) Not suitable for crossing
Answer:
D) Not suitable for crossing

Question 20.
Observe the a, b statements.
a : Yellow colour YY is pure breed.
b : Green colour yy is also pure breed.
A) Both a and b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Answer:
A) Both a and b are true

Question 21.
In F₁ generation, if Y is dominated over y, thfcn y is called …………….. character.
A) Recessive
B) Dominant
C) Phenotype
D) Genotype
Answer:
A) Recessive

Question 22.
The alleles or factors which were named by Mendel are known as …………….
A) Genes
B) Heritable factors
C) Factors
D) Traits
Answer:
A) Genes

Question 23.
Why did Mendel select pea plants for his experiments ?
A) Consists of unisexual flowers
B) Consists of bisexual flowers
C) Conducting self fertilisation
D) B and C
Answer:
D) B and C

Question 24.
In F₁ generation the character which is expressed is ……………… and not expressed one is ……………………
A) Recessive, Dominant
B) Dominant, Recessive
C) Pure breed, Dominant
D) Dominant, Pure breed
Answer:
B) Dominant, Recessive

Question 25.
The visible characteristic in an organism is known as:
A) prototype
B) stereotype
C) phenotype
D) genotype
Answer:
C) phenotype

Question 26.
1 : 2 : 1 of F₂ generation is ……………….
A) Phenotypic ratio
B) Genotypic ratio
C) Homozygous
D) Heterozygous
Answer:
B) Genotypic ratio

Question 27.
We indicate yellow or green as ……………. and round or wrinkled as ………………
A) YYRR
B) YyYy
C) Yy-Rr
D) yy-rr
Answer:
C) Yy-Rr

Question 28.
Which of the following is not related to the character which was observed by Mendel ?
A) Colour of the flower
B) Colour of the seed
C) Colour of unripen pod
D) Colour of root
Answer:
D) Colour of root

Question 29.
Which of the following may be used to obtain F₂ generation ?
A) allowirig flowers in a parent plant to be self-pollinated
B) allowing flowers in F₁ plant to be self- pollinated
C) cross-pollinating F₁ plant with a parent plant
D) cross-pollinating two parent plants
Answer:
B) allowing flowers in F₁ plant to be self- pollinated

Question 30.
If Yy represents yellow colour, then which colour will be dominant ?
A) Green
B) White
C) Yellow
D) Red
Answer:
C) Yellow

Question 31.
Read the following information
A pea plant having two copies of the gene for tallness (TT) pollinates with a pea plant having two copies of the gene for dwarf ness (tt). The resulting offspring produced after pollination, was found to be tall.
What genetic combination is predicted in the offspring?
A) only tt
B) Only Tt
QTt or TT
D)tt or TT
Answer:
B) Only Tt

Question 32.
From the results, it can be concluded that in F₂ generation the actual number of round seeds Mendel obtained were:
A) 1881
B) 22572
C) 2508
D) 5643
Answer:
D) 5643

Question 33.
If there are two identical factors for a character, it is called ………………..
A) Heterozygous
B) Homozygous
C) Allele
D) Genetic form
Answer:
B) Homozygous

Question 34.
If there are two different factors for a character, it is called …………………..
A) Heterozygous
B) Homozygous
C) Independent assorts
D) Dominant
Answer:
A) Heterozygous

Question 35.
The pair of genes for each character is represented as
A) Heterozygous
B) Homozygous
C) Alleles
D) Factors
Answer:
C) Alleles

Question 36.
Passing of traits independently is known as ………………….
A) Law of Dominance
B) Law of Segregation
C) Formula of Gene factor
D) Law of Independent Assortment
Answer:
D) Law of Independent Assortment

Question 37.
The law which states that “Among two factors, one is passed to or expressed in the progeny” is called ………………
A) Law of Dominance
B) Law of Segregation
C) Formula of Gene factor
D) Law of Independent assortment
Answer:
A) Law of Dominance

Question 38.
The receiving of one allele each from both parents is called ………………….
A) Law of Dominance
B) Law of Segregation
C) Formula of Gene factor
D) Law of Independent assortment
Answer:
B) Law of Segregation

Question 39.
The characters that transmit from parent to offspring are …………………..
A) Genetic characters
B) Heritable characters
C) Heridital characters
D) Intellect, cleverness
Answer:
B) Heritable characters

Question 40.
The transmission of character or traits from parents to offsprings is called
A) Heredity
B) Inheritance
C) Heir
D) Respect of family
Answer:
A) Heredity

Question 41.
In order to ensure that he had pure-breeding plants for his experiments, Mendel:
A) cross-fertilised each variety with each other
B) let each variety self fertilise for several – generations
C) removed the female parts of the plants
D) removed the male parts of the plants.
Answer:
B) let each variety self fertilise for several – generations

Question 42.
A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because :
A) tallness is the dominant trait
B) shortness is the dominant trait
C) tallness is the recessive trait
D) height of plant is not governed by gene T or t
Answer:
A) tallness is the dominant trait

Question 43.

The above box indicates
A) Gross pollination in F₁ – generation
B) Self pollination in F₁ – generation
C) Cross pollination in F₂ – generation
D) Self pollination in F₂ – generation
Answer:
B) Self pollination in F₁ – generation

Question 44.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Malthus theory was written in ‘An essay on the principles of population’.
B) The ‘Origin of Species’ was written by Charles Lyell.
C) The theory of ‘Natural Selection’ was proposed by Charles Darwin.
D) Jean Baptist Lamark proposed a theory of ‘Inheritance of acquired characters’.
Answer:
B) The ‘Origin of Species’ was written by Charles Lyell.

Question 45.
What is genotypic ratio of monohybrid crdss between homozygous tall pea plant with homozygous dwarf pea plant?
A) 2 : 1 : 1
B) 1 : 1 : 2
C) 1 : 2 :1
D) 2 : 2 : 1
Answer:
C) 1 : 2 :1

Question 46.
Study the following:
a) Phenotype ratio 3 : 1
b) Genotype ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Identify the correct ones.
A) a, b
B) a is correct and b is not correct
C) a is incorrect and b is correct
D) Both a, b incorrect
Answer:
B) a is correct and b is not correct

Question 47.
Yellow and round seeded pea plant has ‘ genotype YyRr. The gametes produced shall be ………………….
A) Yy, Rr
B) YR, yR, Yr, yr
C) YR, yr
D) Y, y, R, r
Answer:
D) Y, y, R, r

Question 48.
When a pure yellow seed plant is crossed with a pure green seed plant in F₁ generation, the seeds are ……………….
A) all yellow seeds
B) all green seeds
C) 75% yellow, 25% green seeds
D) 50% yellow, 50% green seeds
Answer:
C) 75% yellow, 25% green seeds

Question 49.
Pheotypic ratio of Fj generation in Mendel’s monohybrid cross
A) 1 : 2 : 1
B) 2 : 1
C) 3 : 1
D) 1 : 5 : 2
Answer:
C) 3 : 1

Question 50.
In pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plant in F₁ generation will be …………………
A) 1 : 3
B) 3 : 1
C) 1 : 1
D) 2 : 1
Answer:
B) 3 : 1

Concept – 3 : Parent to Progeny

Question 51.
The sexual chromosome will be represented as ……………. in males and as ………. in females.
A) XX, XY
B) YY, XX
C) XXX, XY
D) XY, XX
Answer:
D) XY, XX

Question 52.
Girl: XX Chromosomes :: Boy:………………
A) XY Chromosomes
B) LX Chromosomes
C) XL Chromosomes
D) XX Chromosomes
Answer:
A) XY Chromosomes

Question 53.
In human beings DNA controls the characters whereas in viruses ………….. controls the character.
A) RNA
B) ABA
C) Synthetic DNA
D) Retro RNA
Answer:
A) RNA

Question 54.
The structure of ,DNA is …………………..
A) Spherical
B) Double helix
C) Straight
D) Circular
Answer:
B) Double helix

Question 55.
Which of the following is not the base of Nitrogen in DNA ?
A) Adenine
B) Guanine
C) Uracil
D) Thymine
Answer:
C) Uracil

Question 56.
The number of autosomes in human beings
A) 23 pairs
B) 22 pairs
C) 1 pair
D) 46 pairs
Answer:
B) 22 pairs

Question 57.
The allosome in males is ………………..
A) XX
B) XXX
C) XY
D) XO
Answer:
C) XY

Question 58.
Raju’s chromosomes are 44 + XY and his wife Rani’s chromosomes are 44 + XX. Then their first male child will have these chromosomes
A) 44 + XX
B) 22 + XX
C) 44 + XY
D) 44 + YY
Answer:
C) 44 + XY

Question 59.
The bodily changes …………………..
A) bring changes in DNA
B) help in evolution
C) do not bring changes in DNA
D) bring changes in RNA
Answer:
C) do not bring changes in DNA

Question 60.
Scientist who discovered the structure of DNA is
A) Watson
B) Crick
C) Both
D) None of them
Answer:
C) Both

Question 61.
Gene : DNA:: Virus : ……………….. ?
A) DNA
B) NAA
C) RNA
D) IAA
Answer:
C) RNA

Question 62.
Who, in the following is not related to the discovery of DNA ?
A) James Watson
B) Francis Crick
C) Mouris Wilkinse
D) James Douglas
Answer:
D) James Douglas

Question 63.
The following picture depicts the DNA. What is the structure of DNA ?

A) Spherical
B) Double Helix
C) Dumbell
D) Round and longitudinal
Answer:
B) Double Helix

Question 64.
During the following, variation occurs.
i) During reproduction
ii) Changes in DNA transcription
iii) Changes in RNA transcription
iv) Synthesis of protein
A) i, ii, iii only
B) i only
C) i and ii only
D) i and iv only
Answer:
C) i and ii only

Question 65.
In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/ these unpaired chromosomes is/are :
i) large chromosome
ii) small chromosome
iii) Y chromosome
iv) X chromosome
A) i and ii
B) iii only
C) iii and iv
D) ii and iv
Answer:
C) iii and iv

Question 66.
Wfliich of the following statements is incorrect with respect to variations ?
A) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival
B) Change in genetic compositionresults in variations
C) Selection of variations by environmental factors is the basis of evolutionary process
D) Variations are minimum in asexual reproduction
Answer:
A) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival

Question 67.
New species may be formed if :
i) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells .
ii) Chromosome number changes in the gamete
iii) There is no change in the genetic material
iv) Mating does not take place
A) i and ii
B) i and ii
C) i, iii and iv
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
B) i and ii

Question 68.
Observe the pictorial representation of sex determination in human beings. The A and B in the below given picture respectively represents :

A) Male, Female
B) Female, Male
C) Male, Male
D) Female, Female
Answer:
B) Female, Male

Question 69.
Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes :
i) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
ii) A gene does not code for proteins
iii) In individuals of a given species, gene is located on a particular chromosome
iv) Each chromosome has only one gene.
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) i and iv
D) ii and iv
Answer:
B) i and iii

Concept – 5 : Evolution

Question 70.
Weak deer cannot live long in a forest according to Darwin’s principle.
What concept does it show ?
A) Evolution
B) Acquired character
C) Ecosystem
D) Survival of the fittest
Answer:
D) Survival of the fittest

Question 71.
In Galapagos Islands, Darwin observed variations in structure in …………………….
A) Elephants
B) Giraffes
C) Rats
D) Finch birds
Answer:
D) Finch birds

Question 72.
Finch birds are found in ……………. island.
A) Java, Sumitra
B) Andaman, Nicobar
C) Galapagos
D) Hawai
Answer:
C) Galapagos

Question 73.
Natural selection means
A) Nature selects desirable characters
B) Nature rejects undesirable characters
C) Nature reacts with an organism
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 74.
The scientist who defined the Heredity basing on the Giraffe ………………
A) Charles Darwin
B) Lamarck
C) William Harvey
D) Beagle
Answer:
B) Lamarck

Question 75.
The scientist who proved that the bodily changes are not inherited is …………………..
A) Charles Darwin
B) Weissmann
C) Lamarck
D) Harvey
Answer:
B) Weissmann

Question 76.
The organisms which have the patagium (skin folds) is …………………
A) Bat
B) Owl
C) Fish
D) Aves
Answer:
A) Bat

Question 77.
Evolution is a :
A) Slow process
B) Discontinuous process
C) Continuous process
D) Both A and C
Answer:
A) Slow process

Question 78.
Slow and stable process is ………………….
A) Evolution
B) Quantity
C) Mutation
D) Variation
Answer:
A) Evolution

Question 79.
The change occurring suddenly or spontaneously is …………………….
A) Evolution
B) Variation
C) Mutation
D) Genetic change
Answer:
C) Mutation

Question 80.
The fly on which Morgan experimented …………………
A) Musca Domestica
B) Apis Meliphera
C) Oenotheora
D) Drosophila Melanogastor
Answer:
D) Drosophila Melanogastor

Question 81.
The small changes in the frequency of genes in small population is called
A) Genetic change
B) Alleles
C) Natural selection
D) Genetic drift
Answer:
D) Genetic drift

Question 82.
The scientist who proposed the Evolution Theory
A) Charles Darwin
B) August Weismann
C) Alfred Wallace
D) Jean Lamarck
Answer:
D) Jean Lamarck

Question 83.
According to theory of Lamarck ………………………
A) inheritable traits are not useful for heredity
B) acquiring the traits is so difficult
C) the acquired traits passed onto its progeny
D) the bodily changes inherit
Answer:
C) the acquired traits passed onto its progeny

Question 84.
Which is not the contrasting character Mendel chose in pea plant ?
A) Shape and colour of pod
B) Colour and position of flower
C) Shape and colour of seed
D) Length and thickness of stem
Answer:
D) Length and thickness of stem

Question 85.
The “Origin of Species” is written by …………………….
A) Charles Darwin
B) Baptiste Lamarck
C) Charles Lyell
D) Gregor Johann Mendel
Answer:
A) Charles Darwin

Question 86.
Find the correct statement(s) regarding Darwin :
A) He was born in England.
B) He proposed natural selection theory
C) He observed birds diversity in the Galopagos Islands.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 87.
Travelling by the ship HMS Beagle Charles Darwin landed on one of these islands.
A) Maldives
B) Andaman, Nicobar islands
C) Galapagos islands
D) Fiji islands
Answer:
C) Galapagos islands

Question 88.
The book “Principles of Geology” was written by
A) Charles Darwin
B) Charles Lyell
C) Malthus
D) J.B. Lamarck
Answer:
B) Charles Lyell

Question 89.
Theory of natural selection is influenced by the theory of;
A) Darwin
B) Malthus
C) Lyell
D) Lamarck
Answer:
B) Malthus

Concept – 6 : Acquired and Inherited Characters and Evolution

Question 90.
The scientist who studied on rats by cutting their tails and disproved Lamarck theory is ………………..
A) Darwin
B) Watson
C) Weismann
D) Mendel
Answer:
C) Weismann

Question 91.
The propounder of Natural Selection is …………………
A) August Weismann
B) Charles Darwin
C) Malthus
D) Charles Lyell
Answer:
B) Charles Darwin

Question 92.
The scientist who proposed the Theory of Population is ………………………
A) Malthus
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Weismann
Answer:
A) Malthus

Question 93.
The scientist who suggested the geological changes occurred in a uniform rate …………………….
A) Malthus
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Weismann
Answer:
C) Charles Lyell

Question 94
……………. influences whether the organism should survive or perish in nature.
A) Growth of organism
B) Genes
C) Nature
D) Variations
Answer:
C) Nature

Question 95.
The scientist who also proposed like Darwin that the new organisms formed due to the natural selection.
A) T. S. Huxley
B) A. R. Wallace
C) Charles Lyell
D) August Weismann
Answer:
B) A. R. Wallace

Question 96.
Match the following.

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Concept – 7 : Speciation and Evidences of Evolution

Question 97.
The small changes within the species are called ……………….
A) Macro evolution
B) Variation
C) Mutation
D) Micro evolution
Answer:
D) Micro evolution

Question 98.
The changes in large species leading to formation of new species is called
A) Macro evolution
B) Variation
C) Mutation
D) Micro evolution
Answer:
A) Macro evolution

Question 99.
The fore limb (fins) of a whale, wings of a bat, legs of a cheetah are the examples of ………………….
A) Homologous organs
B) Divergent evolution
C) Analogous organs
D) Convergent evolution
Answer:
A) Homologous organs

Question 100.
Which of the following are Analogous organs ?
A) Wings of birds, leg of a cheetah
B) Wings of bat, fins of whale
C) Wings of birds, wings of bat
D) Wings of bat, legs of horse
Answer:
C) Wings of birds, wings of bat

Question 101.
In which of the following patagium is found?
A) Birds
B) Wings of Bat
C) Tail of Monkey
D) Fin of Whale
Answer:
B) Wings of Bat

Question 102
……………… is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult stage.
A) Biogeology
B) Science of Evolution
C) Embryology
D) Cell science
Answer:
C) Embryology

Question 103.
The larva of frog resembles to ……………….
A) Frog
B) Aves
C) Fish
D) Reptile
Answer:
C) Fish

Question 104.
The science which revealed that there is a common ancestor from which all the vertebrates are evolved
A) Palaeontology
B) Embryology
C) Morphology
D) Science of Evolution
Answer:
B) Embryology

Question 105.
Organs having same anatomical structure but differ in their function are called homologous organs. Organs having different anatomical structure but perform same functions are called analogous organs. Then what are the homologous organs among the following ?
1. Leg of a cheetah
2. Wing of a bat
3. Wing of a bird
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) All the above
Answer:
C) 1 and 2

Question 106.
Find the odd one out as per homologous organs.
A) Blue whale(whale)
B) Pigeon
C) Bat
D) Man
Answer:
B) Pigeon

Question 107.
What phenomenon is depicted in the below given picture ?

A) Natural selection
B) Variation
C) Speciation
D) Segregation
Answer:
C) Speciation

Question 108.
Macro evolution is:
A) The process of species formation
B) The process of genus formation
C) The process of formation of family
D) The process of order formation
Answer:
A) The process of species formation

Question 109.
The following diagrams are examples of ………………

A) Analogous organs
B) Homologous organs
C) Catalogous organs
D) Anabolic organs
Answer:
B) Homologous organs

Question 110.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A) Forelimbs of a whale, wings of a bat, legs of a cheetah, hands of a man are the examples of homologous organs.
B) The study of fossils is called paleontology.
C) Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult.
D) There are nearly 150 vestigial organs in human beings.
Answer:
C) Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult.

Question 111.
The wings of bats have skin folds
stretched between elongated fingers is called……………….
A) Adipose
B) Patagium
C) Blupper
D) Malphigium
Answer:
B) Patagium

Concept – 8 : Fossils

Question 112.
The method of determining the age of fossils.
A) Potassium dating
B) Radium dating
C) Carbon dating
D) Uranium dating
Answer:
C) Carbon dating

Question 113.
The age of fossils is determined by calculating the half life period of
A) Isobars
B) Isotopes
C) Radio activitiy
D) Carbon dating
Answer:
D) Carbon dating

Question 114.
The connecting link between aves and reptiles is ………………….
A) Dinosaurs
B) Lizard
C) Omithorinchus
D) Archeopteryx
Answer:
D) Archeopteryx

Question 115.
Some unused organs remain in the body are called
A) Homologous organs
B) Vestigial organs
C) Analogous organs
D) Convergent organs
Answer:
B) Vestigial organs

Question 116.
The fossil found in Adilabad of Telangana state is ……………….
A) Ecthyosaurs
B) Boronchiosaurs
C) Ketosaurs
D) Condricthes
Answer:
C) Ketosaurs

Question 117.
Amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals indicate a common ancestry as they have

Answer:

Question 118.
In which of the following rocks the fossils were formed ?
A) Magnus rocks
B) Sediments
C) Modified rocks
D) All of the above
Answer:
B) Sediments

Question 119.
Reason for dying of red colour beetles and increase of green coloured beetles …………………….
A) Green beetles have more resistance
B) Less life time in red coloured beetles
C) Variation in the colour
D) Crows like red coloured beetles
Answer:
C) Variation in the colour

Question 120.
Palaeontologist deals with
A) Embryological evidences
B) Fossil evidences
C) Vestigial organ evidences
D) All
Answer:
B) Fossil evidences

Question 121.
Appendix ………………..
A) Essential in the human digestive system
B) Not useful for digestive system
C) The main part of small intestine
D) The part of large intestine
Answer:
B) Not useful for digestive system

Question 122.
The moving museum of vestigial organs is …………………..
A) Homoerectus
B) Existing man
C) Chimpanzee
D) Neanderthal man
Answer:
B) Existing man

Question 123.
The study of fossils is ………………….
A) Geology
B) Embryology
C) Palaeontology
D) Science of Evolution
Answer:
C) Palaeontology

Question 124.
Which of the following diagrams represent the fossils ?

A) 1
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 125.
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about human evolution ?
A) All humans are a single species the Homo sapiens.
B) Skin colour is the most common way of identifying the races.
C) The genetic foot prints of humans, (Homo sapiens), show that all human beings have evolved
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 126.
The organs which perform different functions but have the same basic structure are known as
A) homologous organs
B) analogous organs
C) homoloytic organs
D) analytic organs
Answer:
A) homologous organs

Question 127.
The appearance of vestigial organs in human beings is called :
A) Darwinism
B) Lamarckism
C) Atavism
D) Both A and B
Answer:
C) Atavism

Question 128.
Homosapiens appeared about these years ago.
A) 1.8 million
B) 40,000
C) 3,00,000
D) 2.5 million
Answer:
B) 40,000

Question 129.
Number of vestigial organs present in human beings is ………………………
A) 95
B) 120
C) 180
D) 240
Answer:
C) 180

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Materials: Separating Methods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 5th Lesson Materials: Separating Methods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Objects that would break
A) Steel glass
B) Steel plate
C) Glass cup
D) Wooden spoon
Answer:
C) Glass cup

Question 2.
Among the following transparent substance is
A) Glass
B) Plastic
C) Metal
D) Wood
Answer:
A) Glass

Question 3.
Oily paper is
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Luminous
D) Translucent
Answer:
D) Translucent

Question 4.
Water has a density of
A) 0.01 g/ml
B) 1 g/ml
C) 10 g/ml
D) 100 g/ml
Answer:
B) 1 g/ml

Question 5.
Among the following opaque substance is
A) Oily paper
B) Glass
C) Cardboard
D) Tracing paper
Answer:
C) Cardboard

Question 6.
Ice is the solid form of
A) Milk
B) Water
C) Petrol
D) Diesel
Answer:
B) Water

Question 7.
This floats on water
A) Sawdust
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Haldi
Answer:
A) Sawdust

Question 8.
When water is heated this is produced
A) Ice
B) Hot water
C) Cool water
D) Water vapour
Answer:
D) Water vapour

Question 9.
These substances allow light
A) Opaque
B) Luminous
C) Transparent
D) None
Answer:
C) Transparent

Question 10.
These can’t change shape
A) Liquids
B) Solids
C) Gases
D) All of three
Answer:
B) Solids

Question 11.
These don‘t have a shape
A) Solids
B) Gases
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Gases

Question 12.
Tables are made from
A) wood
B) plastic
C) steel
D) clay
Answer:
A) wood

Question 13.
Glass is a
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
B) transparent

Question 14.
Which of the following is not soluble in water?
A) Chalk powder
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Chalk powder

Question 15.
Which object shines?
A) stone
B) plastic
C) glass
D) cotton
Answer:
C) glass

Question 16.
Sugar is ……………. substance.
A) liquid
B) solid
C) gases
D) all of these
Answer:
B) solid

Question 17.
Iron nail sinks in water but ships on the water.
A) floats
B) sinks
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) floats

Question 18.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
1. Gold        A) Opaque
2. Wood      B) Metal
3. Glass       C) Transparent
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

Question 19.
The window is made with
A) wood
B) glass
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 20.
Bags are made with
A) plastic
B) Leather
C) stone
D) clay
Answer:
B) Leather

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Pot               A) Paper
2. Book            B) Leather
3. Shoes           C) Clay
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Question 22.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Soluble in water         A) Cork
2. Floats on water          B) Salt
3. Smoke                        C) Made of wax
4. Candle                        D) Gas
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

Question 23.
When white light shines on an object it may be
A) reflected
B) absorbed
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 24.
Which object was made with only one material?
A) Knife
B) Bicycle
C) Door
D) Pot
Answer:
D) Pot

Question 25.
Find the correct set of transparent substances.
A) Oil-paper and stone
B) Glass, polythene cover
C) Stone, tracing paper
D) Water, mirror.
Answer:
B) Glass, polythene cover

Question 26.
Srinu wants to use a mirror in his house for light at the same time the things should not be seen from outside. Which type of mirrors is to be used?
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Translucent
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Opaque

Question 27.
Identify the floating objects in water,
i) Kerosene
ii) Oil
iii) Ghee
iv) Petrol
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 28.
The opaque object of the following.
A) 40w bulb
B) Spectacle
C) Mirror
D) Glass beaker
Answer:
C) Mirror

Question 29.
X: Oil mixes with water V: Chalk dissolves in water
A) Both X and Y are correct
B) Both X and Y are incorrect
C) X correct, Y incorrect
D) X incorrect, Y correct
Answer:
B) Both X and Y are incorrect

Question 30.
The purpose of sorting material into groups is
A) convenience
B) to study their properties
C) both A and B
D) inconvenience
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 31.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Alcohol
B) Sodium chloride
C) Sugar
D) Coconut oil
Answer:
D) Coconut oil

Question 32.
Which is a set of transparent materials?
A) Water and air
B) Water and glass
C) Glass and air
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
Pick out the odd one in the following.
A) Sand settles down in the water
B) Sugar dissolves in water
C) Oil floats on water
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water
Answer:
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water

Question 34.
Which of the following does not float on water?
A) Paper
B) Stone
C) Coconut oil
D) Feather
Answer:
B) Stone

Question 35.
Match the following.
i) Wax                        a) Translucent
ii) Iron sheet              b) Floats on water
iii) Oily paper sheet   c) Opaque
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c., ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 36.
Pick out the odd one following.
A) Air
B) Wood
C) Iron
D) Gold
Answer:
A) Air

Question 37.
Which of the following is a soft material?
A) Diamond
B) Glass
C) Iron
D) Chalk
Answer:
D) Chalk

Question 38.
Oxygen is an example of
A) liquid
B) gas
C) solid
D) emulsion
Answer:
B) gas

Question 39.
Materials exist in states.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 40.
An ice cube floats on water, because
A) Density of ice is < Density of water
B) Density of ice is > Density of water
C) Density of ice is = Density of water
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Density of ice is < Density of water

Question 41.
The white smoke from a candle is
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A and B
Answer:
C) Gas

Question 42.
Match the following.
i) Milk                   a) Transparent
ii) Water vapour   b) Liquid
iii) Glass jar           c) Gas
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 43.
Match the following.
1) Soluble in water a) Iron nail
2) Insoluble in water b) Cork
3) Floats on water c) Salt
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 44.
Door: wood:: clay.
A) Shoes
B) Knife
C) Pot
D) Mirror
Answer:
C) Pot

Question 45.
Vinegar ……………….. in water.
A) dissolves
B) does not dissolve
C) floats
D) both A & B
Answer:
A) dissolves

Question 46.
Classification is essential for
A) sorting of objects
B) identification of objects
C) locating things
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 47.
Mercury is ……………….. at room temperature.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A & B
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 48.
The grouping of various objects can be done on the basis of
A) size
B) solubility in water
C) transparency
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 49.
Milk: Miscible in water:: …………………. : Immiscible in water
A) Soft drink
B) Glycerine
C) Petrol
D) Lemon juice
Answer:
C) Petrol

Question 50.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Oxygen
B) Sugar
C) Salt
D) Sawdust
Answer:
D) Sawdust

Question 51.
As you cannot see through objects made from materials, such materials are called
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
A) opaque

Question 52.
A material that does not dissolve completely into water is called
A) soluble
B) insoluble
C) opaque
D) translucent
Answer:
B) insoluble

Question 53.
Butter paper is
A) oily
B) opaque
C) transparent
D) translucent
Answer:
D) translucent

Question 54.
Find the odd one.
A) Sand
B) sugar
C) salt
D) water
Answer:
A) Sand

Question 55.
Which one of the following will float on water?
A) Stone
B) Steel
C) Dry leaves
D) Iron nails
Answer:
C) Dry leaves

Question 56.
The solid form of carbon dioxide is
A) Ice
B) Dry Ice
C) Wet Ice
D) Gas
Answer:
B) Dry Ice

Question 57.
In the Middle Ages, salt is referred to as
A) Platinum
B) Gold
C) Weight gold
D) Silver
Answer:
C) Weight gold

Question 58.
A solid directly changing into vapour
A) Solidification
B) Cooling
C) Sublimation
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Sublimation

Question 59.
A substance is obtained by mixing two or more pure substances
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
C) mixture

Question 60.
A clear liquid obtained after filtration
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
A) filtrate

Question 61.
A method for removing the husk from the grain
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) sedimentation
D) decantation
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 62.
Removing insoluble Impurities from muddy water by allowing it to settle
A) Sublimation
B) Filtration
C) Winnowing
D) Decantation
Answer:
D) Decantation

Question 63.
From saltwater, salt can be obtained by
A) crystallization
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) decantation
Answer:
A) crystallization

Question 64.
Doctors mix injection powder with
A) water
B) saline
C) distilled water
D) mineral water
Answer:
C) distilled water

Question 65.
Among the following pure water is
A) seawater
B) river water
C) pond water
D) distilled water
Answer:
D) distilled water

Question 66.
Among the following, this dissolves in water
A) sawdust
B) Haldi
C) iron nails
D) sand
Answer:
B) Haldi

Question 67.
For separating larger and smaller substances in a mixture we use
A) distillation
B) decantation
C) sedimentation
D) sieving
Answer:
D) sieving

Question 68.
An insoluble substance in a liquid can be separated by
A) handpicking
B) sieving
C) sedimentation
D) chromatography
Answer:
C) sedimentation

Question 69.
If a mixture has light and heavy substances we use
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) decantation
D) uilteration
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 70.
This is free from impurities
A) distilled water
B) seawater
C) well water
D) river water
Answer:
A) distilled water

Question 71.
Salt and camphor mixture can be separated by
A) filtration
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) sublimation

Question 72.
Tea leaves are separated from tea by
A) sieve
B) strainer
C) sedimentation
D) none
Answer:
B) strainer

Question 73.
The mud particles which settle down at the bottom of gas are called
A) filtrate
B) mud
C) sediment
D) sieve
Answer:
C) sediment

Question 74.
What property helps In separating husk from grains?
A) winnowing
B) handpicking
C) sieving
D) filtration
Answer:
A) winnowing

Question 75.
The stones are separated from pulses and rice by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) filtration
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 76.
The mixture of common salt and camphor is separated by
A) sublimation
B) evaporation
C) filtration
D) sedimentation
Answer:
A) sublimation

Question 77.
The compounds of solution are separated by
A) decantation
B) filtration
C) evaporation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) evaporation

Question 78.
The process used for separating grains from the stalk is called
A) sieving
B) decanting
C) winnowing
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 79.
Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) decanting
D) threshing
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 80.
Transferring the clear liquid into another container using a glass rod is called
A) filtration
B) decantation
C) condensation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
B) decantat ion

Question 81.
Hand-picking method is effective in
A) solid mixture
B) liquid mixture
C) gaseous mixture
D) None of these
Answer:
A) solid mixture

Question 82.
Which of the following method was used to separate two miscible liquids?
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) separating funnel
D) sublimation
Answer:
C) separating funnel

Question 83.
The process of setting down of particles of a solid in a liquid is known as
A) precipitation
B) decantation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
D) sedimentation

Question 84.
Air is a ……………
A) compound
B) mixture
C) pure substance
D) None of these
Answer:
B) mixture

Question 85.
The solubility of water ……………… with an increase in water.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
Answer:
A) increases

Question 86.
“Combine” is used In which of the following?
A) winnowing
B) sieving
C) filtration
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 87.
The spinner in the washing machine dries clothes works on the principle of
A) filtration
B) centrifugation
C) sedimentation
D) evaporation
Answer:
B) centrifugation

Question 88.
The method of separating substances based on size, colour and shape is called
A) sieving
B) handpicking
C) threshing
D) None of these
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 89.
Sand from water is separated by
A) condensation
B) filtration
C) sedimentation & decantation
D) sublimation
Answer:
B) filtration

Question 90.
Butter is separated from milk by
A) filtration
B) sedimentation
C) churning
D) decantation
Answer:
C) churning

Question 91.
A ………………. is a substance that makes you Ill if you don’t eat it.
A vitamin
B) ice
C) bread
D) Rice
Answer:
A vitamin

Question 92.
When few plants are infected …………….. is an excellent method of controlling pests.
A) filtration
B) sieving
C) winnowing
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 93.
An example of sublimation is
A) camphor
B) water
C) salt
D) sugar
Answer:
A) camphor

Question 94.
India’s largest saltwater lake is
A) Pulicot
B) Chilaka
C) Kolleru
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Chilaka

Question 95.
Distilled water is produced by …………………. method.
A) sublimation
B) crystallization
C) filtration
D) solidification
Answer:
C) filtration

Question 96.
…………… separates single colour to mixing colour.
A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Wirmowing
D) Filtrate
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 97.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Sublimation        A) Stone and grain
2. Sieve                   B) Saltwater
3. Dead sea            C) Iodine
4. Hand-picking     D) Filter paper
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A

Question 98.
Sita bought some vegetables such as lady’s finger, green chillies, brinjals and potatoes, all mixed in a bag.
Which of the following method of separation would be most appropriate for her to separate them?
A) Sieving
B) Threshing
C) Handpicking
D) Winnowing
Answer:
C) Handpicking

Question 99.
Ramu’s grandmother is suffering from fever. His doctor advised him to take “lassi” with less fat content.
Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for Ramu to prepare it?
A) Winnowing
B) Churning
C) Filtration
D) Decantation
Answer:
B) Churning

Question 100.
Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration?
A) Salt in water
B) Oil in water
C) Sugar in milk
D) Cornflakes in milk
Answer:
D) Cornflakes in milk

Question 101.
Which of these can be separated by the method of winnowing?
i) beans and chick peas.
ii) pulses and rice
iii) rice flakes and corn
iv) potato wafers and biscuits
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iii
D) iii & iv
Answer:
D) iii & iv

Question 102.
While preparing chapatis, Gopi found that the flour to be used was mixed with wheat grains.
Which of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour?
A) Filtration
B) Sieving
C) Threshing
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Sieving

Question 103.
You might have observed the preparation of ghee from butter and cream at home. Which method can be used to separate ghee from the residue?
i) Evaporation
ii) Decantation
iii) Filtration
iv) Churning
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) ii & iv
D) iv only
Answer:
D) iv only

Question 104.
The method that is used to obtain pure salt from impure salt
A) Crystallization
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) Decantation
Answer:
A) Crystallization

Question 105.
Rainwater is a kind of
A) Distilled water
B) Saline water
C) Saturated water
D) Carbonated water
Answer:
A) Distilled water

Question 106.
Separating the insoluble suspended solids of various sizes from a liquid is called
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Filtration
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Filtration

Question 107.
The principle behind winnowing is
A) Difference in shapes of components
B) Difference in densities of components
C) Difference in colours of components
D) Difference in the appearance of components
Answer:
B) Difference in densities of components

Question 108.
Paneer is separated from curdled milk by
A) Filtration
B) Evaporation
C) Sedimentation
D) Condensation
Answer:
A) Filtration

Question 109.
Separation of Kerosene oil and water is done by
A) Crystallization
B) Condensation
C) Decantation
D) Filtration
Answer:
C) Decantation

Question 110.
The rate of sedimentation is increased by adding ……………. to the water.
A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Soap
D) Alum
Answer:
D) Alum

Question 111.
Tiny pieces of stones are usually separated from pulses before cooking by the method
A) Handpicking
B) Sieving
C) Winnowing
D) Threshing
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 112.
Which of the following method is involved in the picture?

A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Crystallization
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 113.
Camphor: Sublimation:: Cream from milk: …………………
A) Winnowing
B) Evaporation
C) Filteration
D) Centrifugation
Answer:
D) Centrifugation

Question 114.
Observe the following and identify what “P” study for

A) Handpicking
B) Winnowing
C) Sublimation
D) Sieving
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 115.
A student labelled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a -1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c -1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3
Answer:
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3

Question 116.
The property which forms the basis of sieving.
A) difference in weight
B) difference in size.
C) difference in colour
D) difference in shape
Answer:
B) difference in size.

Question 117.
P: A mixture of milk and water can be separated by filtration.
Q: Separation of sugar from tea can be done with nitration.
A) Both P and Q are correct
B) Both P and Q are incorrect
C) P is correct and Q incorrect
D) P is incorrect and Q is correct
Answer:
B) Both P and Q are incorrect

Question 118.
Wrongly labelled part in the above diagram is

A) Cotton
B) Test tube
C) China dish
D) Stand
Answer:
B) Test tube

Question 119.
The apparatus which is not required in the experiment of distilling water is
A) Cork
B) Conical flask
C) Plastic tube
D) Candle
Answer:
D) Candle

Fill in the blanks.

1. The universal solvent is …………………
Answer:
water

2. Impurities from water can be removed by ………………..
Answer:
distillation

3. The process involved in preparation of salt is ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

4. …………….. method is used to separate larger and smaller substances.
Answer:
Sieving

5. An insoluble substances in a liquid can be separated by ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

6. We can separate colours from a mixture of colours by ……………….
Answer:
Chromatography

7. The mixture of powdered salt and camphor can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Sublimation

8. We can separate salt from salt water by ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

9. Mud from mud water can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Filtration

10. Sand from gravel is separated by ………………
Answer:
Sieving

11. Separation of husk from flour can be done by ……………….
Answer:
Sieving

12. Vinegar and oil are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

13. Kerosene and water are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

14. Tea leaves falling to the bottom in a tea cup is an example for ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation

15. Rotten fruits are separated from fresh fruits by the method of ……………….
Answer:
hand picking

16. Farmers use ………………. method to separate grains from husk.
Answer:
Winnowing

17. Stones from rice are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Hand picking

18. Cleaning of rice and pulses involved ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

19. Example for Natural mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Soil

20. Examples for Artificial mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Lemon juice

21. Door is made from ………………. materials.
Answer:
Wood, metal

22. Chairs are made from ……………….
Answer:
Iron, wood, plastic

23. Potato ………………. in water.
Answer:
Sinks

24. Smoke is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Gaseous

25. Table salt is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Solid

26. Kerosene is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Liquid

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                              List-B
1) Grains and Husk                   ( )         A) Crystallization
2) Kerosene and water             ( )         B) Filtration
3) Mud from mud water          ( )         C) Decantation
4) Salt from saltwater              ( )         D) Winnowing
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) B
4) A

Question 2.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Stones from Rice              ( )          A) Chromatogram
2) Impurities from water      ( )          B) Sieving
3) Colours from a mixture    ( )         C) Distillation
4) Flour from wheat             ( )          D) Hand picking
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B

Question 3.
List-A                                              List-B
1) Universal solvent         ( )         A) Wood
2) Gas                              ( )         B) Smoke
3) Solid                            ( )         C) Sugar
4) Door                            ( )         D) Water
Answer:
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) A

Question 4.
List-A                                                 List-B
1) Iron Nail                    ( )         A) Lemon juice
2) Iron boat                   ( )         B) Soil
3) Natural mixture         ( )         C) Sinks
4) Man made mixture    ( )        D) Floats
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Question 5.
List-A                                                             List-B
1) Sublimatiop                            ( )            A) Mud water
2) Filtration                                 ( )            B) Camphor
3) Strainer                                   ( )            C) Hand picking
4) Mangoes from oranges          ( )            D) Tea leaves
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) D
4) C

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Water on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 4th Lesson Water with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The human body requires ……………. of water
A) 1-2 litres
B) 2-3 litres
C) 4-5 litres
D) 5-6 litres
Answer:
B) 2-3 litres

Question 2.
The specific unit of measurement of the volume of water
A) Metres
B) Centimetres
C) Litres
D) Sq.metre
Answer:
C) Litres

Question 3.
Which of the following is comes under Agriculture use of water?
A) Germination of seed
B) Bathing
C) Cleaning
D) Washing
Answer:
A) Germination of seed

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a stable water resource?
A) Pond
B) River
C) Tank
D) Well
Answer:
B) River

Question 5.
Our body contains of water by weight
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 70%

Question 6.
Identify the juicy fruit from the following.
A) Cucumber
B) Snake gourd
C) Tomato
D) Watermelon
Answer:
D) Watermelon

Question 7.
How much of the earth’s surface is occupied by water?
A) 3/4
B) 1/2
C) 5/6
D) 4/5
Answer:
A) 3/4

Question 8.
We depend on ………….. for water.
A) Groundwater
B) Rains
C) Rivers
D) Seas
Answer:
B) Rains

Question 9.
Solid-state of water is present in …………………..
A) Oceans
B) Rivers
C) Glaciers
D) Mountains
Answer:
C) Glaciers

Question 10.
Which of the following process convert water into ice?
A) Condensation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Transpiration
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 11.
The liquid form of water is available in ……………………
A) Glaciers
B) Polar regions
C) Snow covered mountains
D) Rivers
Answer:
D) Rivers

Question 12.
The following vegetable contains a lot of water
A) Lady’s finger
B) Cucumber
C) Brinjal
D) Pumpkin
Answer:
B) Cucumber

Question 13.
Clouds in the sky are formed by the process of ………………………..
A) Distillation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation
Answer:
C) Evaporation

Question 14.
Water drops on the leaves of grass is the early morning due to ……………………..
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 15.
The weather condition where rain, snow, sleet or hail fall from the sky is called …………………
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
D) Precipitation

Question 16.
The water cycle revolves around the following
A) Earth
B) Oceans
C) Atmosphere
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 17.
Which of the following disturbs the water cycle?
A) Deforestation
B) Pollution
C) Global warming
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
Deforestation generally decreases the ………………….
A) Soil erosion
B) Drought
C) Rainfall
D) Global warming
Answer:
C) Rainfall

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a water-related disaster?
A) Floods
B) Earthquake
C) Tsunami
D) Drought
Answer:
B) Earthquake

Question 20.
The rise in water level of rivers leads to ……………………
A) Flood
B) Drought
C) Water scarcity
D) Dryland
Answer:
A) Flood

Question 21.
Among the following is the drought-prone district
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Kurnool
D) Chittoor
Answer:
C) Kurnool

Question 22.
Which among the following are water management techniques?
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation
B) Pollution of water
C) Using chemical fertilizers in agriculture
D) Digging several borewells
Answer:
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation

Fill in the blanks.

1. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of ………………. from the body.
Answer:
Toxins

2. Water and other liquids are measured in ……………….
Answer:
Litres

3. The fruits that contain more water are called ……………….
Answer:
Juicy fruits

4. ………………. is an example of a juicy vegetable.
Answer:
Cucumber

5. Of the water available on the earth, only ………………. is freshwater.
Answer:
3%

6. The water that is used by us for our daily purposes is called ……………….
Answer:
Freshwater

7. When water is ………………. it converts into water vapour.
Answer:
Heated

8. The amount of ………………. absorbed by water affects its evaporation.
Answer:
Heat

9. The process of conversion of water vapour into water is called ……………….
Answer:
Condensation

10. The ………………. in the upper layers of the atmosphere cools the clouds.
Answer:
Colder air

11. Big drops of water solidify into ice and fall as pieces of ice known as ……………….
Answer:
Hailstones

12. South-West Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
June-September

13. North-East Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
Nov-Dec

14. The circulation of water between the earth surface and the air is called ……………….
Answer:
Water cycle

15. Expand NDRF ……………….
Answer:
National Disaster Relief Force

16. Expand SDRF ……………….
Answer:
State Disaster Relief Force

17. Direct collection and use of rainwater is called ……………….
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting

18. Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses and buildings are called ……………….
Answer:
Roof water harvesting

19. The best irrigation water management method used in agriculture is ……………….
Answer:
Drip irrigation / Sprinkler irrigation

20. The only method of preventing scarcity of water is ……………….
Answer:
Conservation of water

21. Long periods of fewer rainfall causes ……………….
Answer:
Droughts & famines

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Water on earth          ( )               A. 70%
2) Fresh water                ( )               B. Monsoon
3) Water in our body     ( )               C. 75%
4) Hail stones                ( )                D. 3%
5) Rains                         ( )                E. Precipitation
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) B

Question 2.
List-A                                                  List-B
1) Solid form                   ( )           A. South-West Monsoon
2) Liquid form                 ( )           B. Ice
3) Gaseous form             ( )           C. North-East Monsoon
4) June-Sept                   ( )           D. Water
5) Nov-Dec                     ( )           E. Water vapour
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) C

Question 3.
List-A                                                                 List-B
Condensation                     ( )              A. Water vapour released from plants
Evaporation                        ( )              B. Gas becomes liquid
Transpiration                      ( )              C. Liquid changes to gas
Precipitation                       ( )              D. Water soaks into the ground
Collection & Runoff           ( )               E. Waterfalls on earth
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) D

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Coordination in Life Processes on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 7th Lesson Coordination in Life Processes with Answers

Concept – 1 : Feeling Hungry

Question 1.
When the ………………. level in the blood falls, we feel hunger.
A) Glycogen
B) Plasma
C) Blood cells
D) Glucose
Answer:
D) Glucose

Question 2.
The factor for hunger pangs
A) Leptin
B) HCl
C) Ghrelin
D) Peristalsis
Answer:
C) Ghrelin

Question 3.
The hormone which suppresses the hunger is …………………….
A) Pepsin
B) Leptin
C) Trypsin
D) Ghrelin
Answer:
B) Leptin

Question 4.
The Japanese savory is …………………
A) Bitter
B) Umami
C) Uhani
D) Mirchi powder
Answer:
B) Umami

Question 5.
i) The hormone that stimulates hunger pangs.
ii) The hormone secreted when stomach is full.
A) i – Leptin; ii – Ghrelin
B) i – Ghrelin; ii – Leptin
C) i – Ghrelin; ii – Ptyalin
D) i – Ptyalin; ii – Leptin
Answer:
B) i – Ghrelin; ii – Leptin

Question 6.
When we are hungry, the hunger pangs arise ip our stomach. These hunger pangs are controlled by …………………..
A) diencephalon and 10^th cranial nerve
B) medulla oblongata
C) diencephalon and 5^th cranial nerve
D) peripheral nerves
Answer:
A) diencephalon and 10^th cranial nerve

Question 7.
The duration of hunger pangs in the stomach
A) 1 – 3 hrs
B) 30 – 45 hrs
C) 30 – 45 min
D) 4 – 5 hrs
Answer:
C) 30 – 45 min

Question 8.
Which of the following is not concerned with Ghrelin ?
A) This hormones secreted when the stomach is empty.
B) Certain cells in the walls of stomach secretes Ghrelin.
C) Due the Ghrelin, hunger signals generate.
D) Ghrelin suppresses the hunger.
Answer:
D) Ghrelin suppresses the hunger.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not concerned with hunger pang signals ?
A) Ghrelin
B) Vagus nerve
C) Diencephelon
D) Umami
Answer:
D) Umami

Question 10.
If ghrelin is not secreted ………………….
A) No hunger pangs
B) Hunger pdngs occur
C) Severe hunger pangs
D) No secretion of enzymes
Answer:
A) No hunger pangs

Question 11.
The system which controls the levels of glucose in the blood is …………………
A) Digestive system
B) Circulation system
C) Respiratory system
D) Excretory’systetti
Answer:
A) Digestive system

Question 12.
The region in brain portion that controls hunger signals
A) medulla
B) diencephalon
C) cerebrum
D) mid brain
Answer:
B) diencephalon

Question 13.
The nerve that carries hunger signals to brain ……………..
A) Coronary nerve
B) Vagus nerve
C) 13^th cranial nerve
D) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
B) Vagus nerve

Question 14.
Sireesha is suffering with serious headache. It is known that she didn’t eat from the morning. Give the correct reason for headache.
A) The level of Glucose in blood decreased.
B) The level of Glucose in blood increased.
C) Got hurt in the head.
D) She is acting.
Answer:
C) Got hurt in the head.

Concept – 2 : Taste and Smell are Closely Related

Question 15.
Who discovered the relation of lunch bell and water mouthing ?
A) Head Master
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) Flemming
D) Engleman
Answer:
B) Ivan Pavlov

Question 16.
Consider the following.
a) Taste and smell are related with each other
b) The sense organs which detect taste and smell work with each other
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a ‘& b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 17.
The receptors which send the signals of smell to brain ………………
A) Chemo receptors
B) Olfactory receptors
C) Auditory receptors
D) Optic receptors
Answer:
B) Olfactory receptors

Question 18.
Who conducted experiments on conditional reflexes ?
A) Thorndaike
B) Charles Laveran
C) Ivan Holy Fied
D) Ivan Pavlov
Answer:
D) Ivan Pavlov

Question 19.
The papillae which are at the end of tongue are ……………………
A) Villate papillae
B) Folliate papillae
C) Fungi form papillae
D) Taste receptors
Answer:
C) Fungi form papillae

Question 20.
The recognition of taste is done by the ……………… cells present in the taste buds
on the tongue.
A) Secretive cells
B) Receptor cells
C) Taste buds
D) Olfactory receptors
Answer:
B) Receptor cells

Question 21.
Tongue is a taste receptor. Which nerve helps to identify the taste?
A) 6th cranial nerve
B) 5th cranial nerve
C) 10th cranial nerve
D) optic nerve
Answer:
B) 5th cranial nerve

Concept – 3 : Taste connects the tongue and the Palate

Question 22.
In which of the following situations you can taste quickly ?
A) Put sugar crystals on tongue
B) Put sugar solution on tongue
C) Press the tongue slowly against the palate
D) Swallow directly without grinding and shredding
Answer:
C) Press the tongue slowly against the palate

Question 23.
Find out the wrong in the flow chart.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 24.
The following diagram shows papillae on tongue. The correct labelling of parts i, ii and iii is :

A) i – villate papillae, ii – foliate papillae, iii- fungi form papillae
B) i – foliate papillae, ii – villate papillae, iii – fungi form papillae
C) i – villate papillae, ii – fungi papillae, iii – foliate papillae
D) i – fungi papillae, ii – villate papillae, iii – foliate form papillae
Answer:
A) i – villate papillae, ii – foliate papillae, iii- fungi form papillae

Question 25.
Any food substance when placed on the P gets dissolved in the Q secreted by R in the mouth.
Find out the parts P, Q & R
A) P – salivary glands, Q – saliva, R – mouth
B) P – mouth, Q – salivary glands, R – saliva
C) P – mouth, Q – salivary glands, R – saliva
D) P – saliva, Q – salivary glands, R – mouth
Answer:
D) P – saliva, Q – salivary glands, R – mouth

Concept – 4 : Mouth -The Munching Machine

Question 26.
The long teeth present in carnivores are …………………
A) Incisors
B) Canines
C) Molars
D) Premolars
Answer:
B) Canines

Question 27.
Human dental formula is ………………….
A) 2/2, 1/1, 2/2, 1/2
B) 2/2, 1/1, 1/1, 2/2
C) 2/2, 2/2, 1/1, 1/1
D) 2/2, 1/1, 2/2, 3/3
Answer:
D) 2/2, 1/1, 2/2, 3/3

Question 28.
The teeth which are used for tearing the food are
A) Incisors
B) Molars
C) Canines
D) Premolars
Answer:
C) Canines

Question 29.
The teeth which are useful for grinding the food are
A) Incisors
B) Molars
C) Canines
D) Premolars
Answer:
B) Molars

Question 30.
Janani wrote the dental formula like this 2/2, 1/1, V2,2/2. Which teeth lacked in this ?
A) Premolars
B) Incisors
C) Canine
D) Molars
Answer:
D) Molars

Question 31.
The nerve which controls the inner muscles of jaw …………………..
A) 10^th Cranial nerve
B) 9^th Cranial nerve
C) 5^th Cranial nerve
D) 1^st Cranial nerve
Answer:
C) 5^th Cranial nerve

Question 32.
Observe the following a, b statements.
a) Teeth help in chewing, and grinding the food.
b) Tongue mixes the food with saliva and spreads out the food evenly in the oral cavity.
A) a, b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) a, b both are false
Answer:
A) a, b both are true

Question 33.
The type of teeth used to tear a sugarcane
A) Incisors
B) Canines
C) Premolars
D) Molars
Answer:
B) Canines

Question 34.
You were given two pieces of chalk. To prove the activity on breaking of food material one of the following is used.
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Formic acid
D) Vinegar
Answer:
D) Vinegar

Question 35.
Which nerve controls the movement of jaw ?
A) 6^th cranial nerve
B) 5^th cranial nerve
C) 7^th cranial nerve
D) 8^th cranial nerve
Answer:
B) 5^th cranial nerve

Question 36.
The muscle that helps the mouth enable the food to be pushed into oral cavity are
A) Pharyngeal muscles
B) Longitudinal muscles
C) Circular muscles
D) Sphincter muscles
Answer:
D) Sphincter muscles

Question 37.
The jaw muscles of mouth help in biting and chewing actions, and move the jaw up down, forward and backward during food mastication
A) Surface muscles
B) Longitudinal muscles
C) Circular muscles
D) Short muscles
Answer:
A) Surface muscles

Question 38.
a – Incisors have sharp edge, canines have sharp and pointed edges,
b – Molars and premolars are blunt and flat.
A) Both a and b are false
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true a is false
D) Both a and b are true
Answer:
D) Both a and b are true

Concept – 5 : Importance of Saliva

Question 39.
The enzyme present in saliva :
A) Ptyalin
B) Pepsin
C) Trypsin
D) Lipase
Answer:
A) Ptyalin

Question 40.
If the pH value of a solution is below 7 then it is ………………
A) Acidic
B) Alkaline
C) Neutral
D) Salt
Answer:
A) Acidic

Question 41.
The apparatus used for action of saliva on carbohydrates
i) Test tube
ii) Starch powder
iii) Iodine
iv) Watch glass
A) i & ii only
B) ii & iii only
C) iii only
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 42.
Litmus test on our tongue gives the following range of colour
A) 1 – 4
B) 2 – 13
C) 10 – 14
D) 7 only
Answer:
D) 7 only

Question 43.
Consider the following.
a. Saliva has an important hormone
b. 1 -1.5 litres of saliva is secreted per day
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
C) a is false, b is true

Question 44.
pH tests reveal
A) Acidic, basic conditions
B) Only acidic conditions
C) Only basic conditions
D) Acidic, basic, neutral conditions
Answer:
D) Acidic, basic, neutral conditions

Question 45.
The animals which are active during day time, take rest at night time are called
A) Nocturnals
B) Amphibians
C) Protozoans
D) Diurnals
Answer:
D) Diurnals

Question 46.
The animals which are active during night time and collect food are called
A) Nocturnals
B) Amphibians
C) Sponges
D) Diurnals
Answer:
A) Nocturnals

Question 47.
If saliva is lacking the salivary amylase, which of the following process in the buccal cavity will be affected ?
A) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
B) Breakdown of starch into sugars
C) Breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol
D) Breakdown of cells in intestinal layer
Answer:
B) Breakdown of starch into sugars

Question 48.
The saliva secretion in human is under the control of:
A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Autonomous nervous system
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Autonomous nervous system

Question 49.
The number of salivary glands present in the mouth.
A) 5 pairs
B) 3 pairs
C) 4 pairs
D) 2 pairs
Answer:
B) 3 pairs

Question 50.
Saliva secreted by us per day is …………………
A) 1 – 1.5 liters
B) 2 – 2.25 liters
C) 1 – 1.25 liters
D) 1.75 liters
Answer:
A) 1 – 1.5 liters

Concept – 6 : Travel of food through Oesophagus

Question 51.
The process which occurs to push the food into the alimentary canal in man is ……………………
A) Mastication
B) Chewing
C) Swallowing
D) Mixing
Answer:
C) Swallowing

Question 52.
The slippery secretion which is secreted by the walls of oesophagus
A) Peristalsis
B) Bolus
C) Chyme
D) Mucus
Answer:
D) Mucus

Question 53.
Observe the picture :

What is the function of “Muscle contraction” ?
A) smooth muscle relaxation
B) starts digestion
C) prevents backward movement of bolus
D) smooth pushing of bolus downwards
Answer:
D) smooth pushing of bolus downwards

Question 54.
Which of the following is not correct one regarding oesophagus ?
A) Oesophagus comprises two smooth layers.
B) Inner layer comprises vcircular muscles.
C) Outer layer comprises longitudinal muscles.
D) Oesophagus is easily folded.
Answer:
D) Oesophagus is easily folded.

Question 55.
Peristalsis is …………… action.
A) Voluntary
B) Involuntary
C) Voluntary – involuntary
D) Motivated
Answer:
B) Involuntary

Question 56.
The given picture depicts

A) The peristaltic movement of food
B) The structure of oesophagus
C) Various reactions in stomach
D) Peristaltic movement in stomach
Answer:
A) The peristaltic movement of food

Question 57.
Find the correct statement regarding the experiment done for proving “crushing of chalkpiece due to vinegar in ‘ beaker”.
A) To show crushing of chalkpiece by vinegar
B) Food is digested very fast only after breaking into pieces
C) Vinegar is needed to digest the food
D) Vinegar is added to food without breaking
Answer:
B) Food is digested very fast only after breaking into pieces

Concept – 7 : Stomach – The mixer and grinder

Question 58.
The direction of peristaltic movement is
A) only clockwise
B) only anti-clockwise
C) both clockwise and anti-clockwise
D) single direction only
Answer:
C) both clockwise and anti-clockwise

Question 59.
Due to the clockwise movement of peristalsis, the food bolus
A) moves forward
B) moves backward
C) remains stable
D) oscillates back and front
Answer:
A) moves forward

Question 60.
Sphincter that helps in opening of stomach into duodenum.
A) Cardiac
B) Pyloric
C) Anal
D) Gastric
Answer:
B) Pyloric

Question 61.
When does peristalsis occur in anti-clockwise ?
A) When bolus moves forward
B) When we drink water
C) When vomiting
D) When we are in fasting.
Answer:
C) When vomiting

Question 62.
Mohan took lunch at 1 o’ clock. How much time does it take to digest 100%?
A) 2 – 5 hours
B) 2 – 3 hours
C) 4 – 7 hours
D) 4 – 5 hours
Answer:
D) 4 – 5 hours

Question 63.
The food turns into a smooth porridge like consistency called chyme. This is formed in ………………
A) Oesophagus
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Small Intestine
Answer:
B) Stomach

Question 64.
a) While ruminating, food bolus moves from stomach to mouth,
b) In the cow, peristalsis occurs in clock-wise direction.
A) a and b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
Answer:
B) a is true, b is false

Question 65.
Suma said that peristalsis involves the contraction of the muscle behind the food. Uma said that during peristalsis relaxation of the muscle in front of the food gives rise to a thrust that pushes the food.
A) Suma is correct
B) Uma is correct
C) Both are wrong
D) Both are right
Answer:
D) Both are right

Question 66.
In which of the following peristaltic movements occur ?
1) Large intestine to rectum
2) Stomach to liver
3) Stomach to small intestine
4) Large intestine to small intestine.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 4
Answer:
C) 1, 3

Question 67.
What can you prove by the experiment in leaves with jelly ?
A) Smell receptors in nose
B) Mucus on the inner wall of stomach
C) Acidity of food
D) Observing taste buds
Answer:
B) Mucus on the inner wall of stomach

Question 68.
Bolus : Oral Cavity :: Chyme : …………………
A) Oesophagus
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
B) Stomach

Question 69.
Peristalsis is
A) contraction of longitudinal muscles
B) contraction of circular muscles
C) under control of autonomous nervous system
D) relaxation of circular muscles
Answer:
C) under control of autonomous nervous system

Question 70.
The acid that comes out from the stomach is called
A) Belching
B) Vomit
C) Gas
D) Burning Sensation
Answer:
A) Belching

Question 71.
In the stomach, the food is digested to smooth mixture called chyme. But it is not affected by the acid. The reason is
A) Alkaline state of chyme
B) Chyme is a hard material
C) The mucus present in the walls of stomach
D) The enzymes in digestive juices
Answer:
C) The mucus present in the walls of stomach

Question 72.
This is secreted in the stomach.
A) H₂SO₄
B) HNO₃
C) HCl
D) NaOH
Answer:
C) HCl

Question 73.
If the chyme is pushed backwards in small quantity, then it reaches to ………………
A) Oesophagus
B) Small intestive
C) Duodenum
D) Digestion
Answer:
C) Duodenum

Question 74.
Reverse peristalsis is seen in
A) Tiger
B) Squirrel
C) Cow
D) Cat
Answer:
C) Cow

Question 75.
Example for the reflexes in stomach is …………………..
A) Peristaltic movement
B) Assimilation
C) Vomiting
D) Digestion
Answer:
C) Vomiting

Question 76.
Small amounts of chyme is pushed into the duodenum, simultaneously forcing most of it back into the stomach is called retropulsion.
Find the correct illustration for above information.

Answer:

Question 77.
Churning of food is done by
A) Canine
B) incisor
C) A & B
D) Molars
Answer:
D) Molars

Question 78.

The destiny of food in the given picture
A) From stomach to oesophagus
B) From oesophagus
C) From small intestine to large intestine
D) From stomach to duodenum
Answer:
D) From stomach to duodenum

Question 79.
In human digestive system, the enzymes pepsin and trypsin are respectively secreted by:
A) Pancreas and liver
B) Stomach and salivary glands
C) Pancrease and gall bladder
D) Stomach and pancreas
Answer:
D) Stomach and pancreas

Question 80.
Name the arrow part of the diagram.

A) Oesophagus
B) Duodenum
C) Stomach
D) Appendix
Answer:
B) Duodenum

Question 81.
Manju suffered from vomitings soon after having breakfast. Why ?
A) Unknown disease
B) Food is unpalatable
C) Food poisoning
D) Pain in throat
Answer:
C) Food poisoning

Question 82.
Ravi has the habit of hurrying over meals. What may happen to him ?
A) He may get indigestion problem
B) He may get stomach and duodenal ulcers
C) Both A and B
D) He may have good digestion
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 83.
Which one of the following is the correct order of peristalsis in human digestive system ?
A) Grinding → Propulsion → Retropulsion
B) Retropulsion → Grinding → Propulsion
C) Propulsion → Retropulsion → Grinding
D) Propulsion → Grinding → Retropulsion
Answer:
D) Propulsion → Grinding → Retropulsion

Question 84.
Which of the following correctly represents the three parts of stomach ?

Answer:

Question 85.
Protein digestion starts in :
A) Rectum
B) Stomach
C) Gut
D) Colon
Answer:
B) Stomach

Concept – 8 : Travel of Food from the Stomach to the Intestine

Question 86.
The tank like structure which stores stool in large intestine is ………………
A) the right side of colon
B) the left side of tolon
C) rectum
D) anus
Answer:
B) the left side of tolon

Question 87.
The number of sphincter muscles present in anus ………………..
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 6
Answer:
C) 2

Question 88.
The bad smelled faecal mass waste which is stored in rectum is ……………….
A) Urine
B) Stool
C) Ammonia
D) Urea
Answer:
B) Stool

Question 89.
The inner sphincter in anus works under ………………. control.
A) voluntary
B) involuntary
C) motivated
D) voluntary – involuntary.
Answer:
D) voluntary – involuntary.

Question 90.
If there are no villi in the small intestine, what may happen ?
A) Absorption surface of the intestine decreases
B) Food never gets digested properly
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Food never gets digested properly

Question 91.
Human being is an internal combustion machine because of
A) assimilation of energy from food
B) liberate CO₂ during respiration
C) expel waste food at the end state digestion
D) secrete powerful digestive juices
Answer:
B) liberate CO₂ during respiration

Question 92.
……………….. joins the oesophagus with small intestine.
A) Pharynx
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Liver
Answer:
B) Stomach

Question 93.
Which of the following is not secreted in digestive system?
A) Secretin
B) Adrenalin
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Leptin
Answer:
B) Adrenalin

Question 94.
The muscle present at the opening of the stomach and first part of the small intestine is ………………
A) Smooth muscle
B) Circular muscle
C) Longitudinal muscle
D) Pyloric sphincter
Answer:
B) Circular muscle

Question 95.
Glucose and amino acids are absorbed through the following part of villus
A) Epithelial cells
B) Blood capillary
C) Lymphatic vessel
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 96.
Enteric nervous system is called second brain. But it doesn’t perform …………………..
A) A role in determination of disease
B) Intelligence
C) Hunger signals
D) Mental status
Answer:
B) Intelligence

Question 97.
Succus entericus is the name given to :
A) Junction between ileum and large intestine
B) Intestinal juice
C) Swelling in the gut
D) Gastric juice
Answer:
B) Intestinal juice

Question 98.
Which of the following system co-ordinates with digestive system ?
i) Circulatory system
ii) Nervous system
iii) Skeletal system
iv) Reproductive system
A) i and iii
B) i and ii
C) ii and iii
D) i and iv
Answer:
B) i and ii

Question 99.
Microvilli are present in ‘P’ and they work as Q. The ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are
A) P = intestine, Q = Absorber of nutrients into organs
B) P = Absorber of nutrients, Q = Intestine
C) P = Small intestine, Q = Absorber of nutrients into blood
D) All of these
Answer:
C) P = Small intestine, Q = Absorber of nutrients into blood

Question 100.
Consider the following.
a) Second brain has 100 million neurons
b) Second brain has neurons twice to that of neurons in spinal cord.
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 101.
A. In all the body systems, the brain is so important.
R. Brain co-ordinates all the systems.
A) A and R both are correct. R is the correct explanation to A .
B) A is correct R is wrong.
C) A is wrong R is correct.
D) A and R both are wrong.
Answer:
A) A and R both are correct. R is the correct explanation to A .

Question 102.
a) We breathe air through inspiration and expiration. It is an involuntary action.
b) Medulla oblongata controls inhalation and exhalation.
A) a, b both are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) a, b both are false
Answer:
A) a, b both are true

Question 103.
Find out the correct pair in the given table.

A) 1 only
C) 1, 3
B) 2 only
D) 2, 3
Answer:
C) 1, 3

Question 104.
A person took spoiled food. This would happen in him.
A) Vomiting sensation
B) Belching
C) Burning in chest and throat
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Vomiting sensation

Question 105.
Identify the function of part ‘A’ in the below given diagram.

A) Reabsorption of water from the faeces
B) Completes the digestion of food materials
C) Generating contractions
D) Storage of waste hard mass
Answer:
A) Reabsorption of water from the faeces

Question 106.
Name this structure of the human body.

A) Nerve ending
B) Villi
C) Tongue
D) Nephron
Answer:
B) Villi

Question 107.
This is nicknamed as ‘second brain’
A) Nerves associated with lungs
B) Nerves associated with digestive tract
C) Nerves associated with kidney
D) Nerves associated with heart
Answer:
B) Nerves associated with digestive tract

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Animals and their Food on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 3rd Lesson Animals and their Food with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Identify the producer.
A) Fox
B) Deer
C) Green plant
D) Tiger
Answer:
C) Green plant

Question 2.
Choose the secondary consumer.
A) Buffalo
B) Deer
C) Rabbit
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 3.
Identify the primary consumer.
A) Lion
B) Cow
C) Fish
D) Crane
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 4.
Choose the tertiary consumer.
A) Sheep
B) Goat
C) Squirrel
D) Lion
Answer:
D) Lion

Question 5.
Choose the decomposer.
A) Bull
B) Rabbit
C) Rat
D) Bacteria
Answer:
D) Bacteria

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a ruminant?
A) Rat
B) Cow
C) Cat
D) Dog
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 7.
Find the natural scavenger.
A) Deer
B) Snake
C) Crow
D) Dog
Answer:
C) Crow

Question 8.
Sharp claws are present in ………….
A) Crow
B) Crane
C) Hen
D) Vultures
Answer:
D) Vultures

Question 9.
Choose the nocturnal animal.
A) Sheep
B) Bat
C) Goat
D) Cow
Answer:
B) Bat

Question 10.
Which of the following is a pet animal?
A) Dog
B) Tiger
C) Lion
D) Fox
Answer:
A) Dog

Question 11.
Which among the following is a frugivory animal?
A) Cat
B) Wolf
C) Dog
D) Elephant
Answer:
D) Elephant

Question 12.
Give an example of an animal that uses sight to sense food.
A) Bat
B) Dog
C) Eagle
D) Elephant
Answer:
C) Eagle

Question 13.
What are the animals that use taste to sense food?
A) Insects
B) Fishes
C) Birds
D) Reptiles
Answer:
D) Reptiles

Question 14.
These can detect ripples produced in water by insects.
A) Frogs
B) Whales
C) Pond skaters
D) Fishes
Answer:
C) Pond skaters

Question 15.
The bird that feeds on nectar is
A) Hummingbird
B) Vulture
C) Parrot
D) Eagle
Answer:
A) Hummingbird

Question 16.
Animals that depend only on plants for food are called
A) Carnivores
B) Herbivores
C) Omnivores
D) Producers
Answer:
B) Herbivores

Question 17.
These animals suck the blood of cattle
A) Spiders
B) Lizards
C) Leeches
D) Earthworms
Answer:
C) Leeches

Question 18.
The bird has a long and strong beak are
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Eagle
D) Crow
Answer:
A) Wood pecker

Question 19.
Ducks use their teeth for food.
A) Sucking
B) Churning
C) Filtering
D) Masticating
Answer:
C) Filtering

Question 20.
This bird uses sharp claws and a strongly hooked beak to tear the flesh (
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Vulture
D) Duck
Answer:
C) Vulture

Question 21.
Identify the odd one from the following
A) Cow
B) Tiger
C) Buffalo
D) Camel
Answer:
B) Tiger

Question 22.
Identify the animal that hunts other animals for their food.
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Camel
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 23.
In an ecosystem, the food chain always starts with
A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Decomposers
Answer:
A) Producers

Question 24.
The other name of decomposers
A) Producers
B) Recyclers
C) Consumers
D) Herbivores
Answer:
B) Recyclers

Question 25.
Name of the insect kept by ants for honeydew.
A) Mosquitos
B) Flees
C) Aphids
D) Spiders
Answer:
C) Aphids

Question 26.
Fill the blank X in the given food chain.
Tree → Rabbit → X → Lion
A) Mouse
B) Snake
C) Goat
D) Wild cat
Answer:
D) Wild cat

Question 27.
Complete the following food chain.
Grains → Rat → Cat → ?
A) Deer
B) Fox
C) Rabbit
D) Man
Answer:
B) Fox

Fill in the blanks.

1. Animals that depend on both plants and animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Omnivores

2. Animals that depend only on plants for food are called …………………
Answer:
Herbivores

3. Animals that depend only on animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Carnivores

4. The animals that feed on mostly on raw fruits, succulent fruits like vegetable roots, etc ………………… Animals.
Answer:
Frugivorous

5. Dogs use the sense of ………………… to get the food.
Answer:
Smell

6. Frog captures and swallow food with its …………………
Answer:
Tongue

7. Hen scratch the ground with feet and eat …………………
Answer:
Worms

8. The ………………… has a long beak to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Crane

9. The parrot eats fruits and cracks nuts with ………………… beak.
Answer:
Hooked

10. Camel, cow, buffalo etc are called as …………………
Answer:
Ruminants

11. ………………… are plants that make their own food.
Answer:
Producers

12. A ………………… is an organism that eats living plants or animals.
Answer:
Consumers

13. Based on their ………………… there are different types of consumers.
Answer:
Food habits

14. The organisms that feed on producers are called …………………
Answer:
Primary consumers

15. The organisms that feed on primary consumers are called …………………
Answer:
Secondary consumers

16. The organisms that feed on ………………… are called Tertiary consumers.
Answer:
Secondary consumers

17. In an ………………… there is a chain-like relationship between the organisms that live there.
Answer:
Ecosystem

18. A ………………… shows the relationship between producers and consumers.
Answer:
Food chain

19. Leech gets its food through …………………
Answer:
Suckers

20. In ………………… teeth act as filters to get food from the water.
Answer:
Duck

21. In ………………… animal Sharp teeth are useful to tear the flesh of other animals.
Answer:
Tiger / lion

22. Hooked beak is present in …………………
Answer:
Parrot

23. A frog throws out its sticky ………………… towards an insect.
Answer:
Tongue

24. ………………… bird has a long and strong beak.
Answer:
Woodpecker

25. ………………… animal licks the food with its tongue.
Answer:
Dog

26. Crane has ………………… to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Long beak

27. vultures have ………………… beaks to tear the flesh of animals.
Answer:
Strong hooked

28. Bacteria and fungi are examples of …………………
Answer:
Decomposers

29. The ………………… help in the cycling of materials between producers, consumers, and soil.
Answer:
Decomposers

30. Branched with several food chains connected to each other to form a …………………
Answer:
food web

31. In ant’s colony the ………………… collect and maintain food stock for others.
Answer:
Worker

32. Example for a natural scavenger …………………
Answer:
Crow

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
List-A                                        List-B
A) Taste                 ( )          1. Vulture
B) Hearing            ( )          2. Dog
C) Smell                ( )          3. Pond skater
D) Vision               ( )          4. Bat
E) Touch                ( )          5. Some reptiles
Answer:
A – 5
B – 4
C – 2
D – 1
E – 3

Question 2.
List-A                                        List – B
A) Woodpecker       ( )        1. Strongly hooked beak
B) Crane                  ( )         2. Hooked beak
C) Vulture                ( )        3. Long beak
D) Parrot                 ( )         4. Long thin beak
E) Hummingbird     ( )         5. Long and strong beak
Answer:
A – 5
B – 3
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 3.
List-A                                               List-B
A) Ant and pests            ( )        1. Hummingbird
B) Fruits and nuts           ( )        2. Vulture
C) Flesh of animals         ( )        3. Crane
D) Fish                            ( )        4. Wood pecker
E) Nectar                        ( )        5. Parrot
Answer:
A – 4
B – 5
C – 2
D – 3
E – 1

Question 4.
List-A                                          List-B
A) Frog                      ( )        1. Natural scavenger
B) Cow                      ( )         2. Suckers
C) Crow                     ( )        3. Sticky tongue
D) Leech                    ( )        4. Hunting animal
E) Lion                       ( )        5. Ruminant
Answer:
A – 3
B – 5
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 5.
List-A                                                               List-B
A) Producers                         ( )               1. Frog
B) Primary consumers           ( )               2. Plants
C) Secondary consumers      ( )               3. Crow
D) Tertiary consumers           ( )              4. Bacteria
E) Decomposers                    ( )              5. Grass hopper
Answer:
A – 2
B – 5
C – 1
D – 3
E – 4

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Knowing About Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 2nd Lesson Knowing About Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The smaller roots that arise from the taproot are known as ……………….
A) Tuberous roots
B) Aerial roots
C) Lateral roots
D) Fibrous roots
Answer:
C) Lateral roots

Question 2.
A cluster of thin and uniform sized roots are seen in
A) Tap root system
B) Fibrous root system
C) A & B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Fibrous root system

Question 3.
The root that grows above the ground to perform additional functions is called
A) Tuberous roots
B) Aerial roots
C) Taproots
D) Fibrous roots
Answer:
B) Aerial roots

Question 4.
Tuberous roots are found in
A) Carrot
B) Radish
C) Beetroot
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Beetroot

Question 5.
The main axis of the shoot system is called …………………
A) Stem
B) Root
C) Flower
D) Fruit
Answer:
A) Stem

Question 6.
The part of the stem between two successive nodes is
A) Terminal bud
B) Auxiliary bud
C) Internode
D) Cotyledon
Answer:
C) Internode

Question 7.
Choose the edible stem.
A) Neem
B) Banana
C) Sugarcane
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Sugarcane

Question 8.
Name the plant that stores food in the root.
A) Radish
B) Potato
C) Ginger
D) Turmeric
Answer:
A) Radish

Question 9.
The broad green part of the leaf is
A) Leaf base
B) Petiole
C) Sepals
D) Lamina
Answer:
D) Lamina

Question 10.
Read the followings statements. Choose the correct option.
i) Fibrous root system is present in plants that have reticulate venation.
ii) Tap root system is present in plants that have reticulate venation.
A) Only i is correct
B) ii is correct and i is wrong
C) both i & ii are correct
D) both i & ii are wrong
Answer:
B) ii is correct and i is wrong

Question 11.
Petals which are in different colors are the parts of …………………
A) Roots
B) Flower
C) Leaves
D) Fruit
Answer:
B) Flower

Question 12.
Green leaves prepare food by the process of ………………..
A) Respiration
B) Reproduction
C) Photosynthesis
D) Transpiration
Answer:
C) Photosynthesis

Question 13.
To perform photosynthesis plants, need
A) Water
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Sunlight and chlorophyll
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 14.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as
A) Stem
B) Root
C) Bud
D) Leaf
Answer:
B) Root

Question 15.
Identify the plant that has fibrous roots
A) Rice
B) Mango
C) Neem
D) Amla
Answer:
A) Rice

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a part of the Taproot system?
A) Taproot
B) Lateral roots
C) Fibrous roots
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 17.
Dicot plants have these root systems and venation
A) Taproot & parallel venation
B) Taproot system and Reticulate venation
C) Fibrous roots & Parallel venation
D) Fibrous roots & Reticulate venation
Answer:
B) Taproot system and Reticulate venation

Question 18.
Aerial roots are helpful for the respiration in ………………..
A) Aquatic plants
B) Terrestrial plants
C) Mangroves
D) Desert plants
Answer:
C) Mangroves

Question 19.
The plant that has aerial roots to give additional support is ……………….
A) Banyan tree
B) Sugar cane
C) Maize
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
The bud present at the axis of the leaf
A) Terminal bud
B) Auxiliary bud
C) Epiphyllous bud
D) Apical bud
Answer:
B) Auxiliary bud

Question 21.
Conduction of food from leaves to other parts takes place by
A) Root
B) Leaf
C) Stem
D) Flower
Answer:
C) Stem

Question 22.
Example of Tuberous stem
A) Potato
B) Mangrove
C) Beetroot
D) Cabbage
Answer:
A) Potato

Question 23.
A stalk-like structure of a leaf
A) Lamina
B) Petiole
C) Leaf base
D) Veins
Answer:
B) Petiole

Question 24.
Which one is not a part of the leaf?
A) Lamina
B) Petiole
C) Midrib
D) Axis
Answer:
D) Axis

Question 25.
The arrangement of veins in the lamina is called
A) Conduction
B) Transpiration
C) Venation
D) Respiration
Answer:
C) Venation

Question 26.
Food is prepared for the plant by the process of
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Transpiration
D) Conduction
Answer:
A) Photosynthesis

Question 27.
This one acts as a nose in the leaf
A) Midrib
B) Stomata
C) Lamina
D) Veins
Answer:
B) Stomata

Question 28.
Which part of the plant produces fruits?
A) Stem
B) Leaf
C) Flower
D) Root
Answer:
C) Flower

Question 29.
Which of the following attract insects for pollination?
A) Petals
B) Midrib
C) Lamina
D) Petiole
Answer:
A) Petals

Fill in the blanks.

1. The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ………………..
Answer:
root

2. Tap root system consists of a single root, called …………………
Answer:
Taproot

3. Water absorbed through the ………………… in plants.
Answer:
Roots

4. Roots which store food materials are called ………………… roots.
Answer:
Taproot

5. Seed leaf within the seed is called …………………
Answer:
Cotyledon

6. ………………. is an example of the tuberous stem.
Answer:
Potato/ ginger

7. The buds present at the axils of the leaves are called …………………
Answer:
auxiliary bud

8. ………………… connects leaf lamina with the stem.
Answer:
Petiole

9. Prominent lines that appear on the leaf are called …………………
Answer:
Veins

10. The arrangement Of veins in the lamina is called …………………
Answer:
Venation

11. Plants with fibrous roots possess ………………… venation in their leaves.
Answer:
parallel

12. Loss of water in the form of vapour by leaves is called …………………
Answer:
Transpiration

13. Dicot plants have ………………… root system.
Answer:
Tap

14. Leaves loss excess water by the process of …………………
Answer:
Transpiration

15. The ………………… transports the water absorbed by the roots to different parts of the plant.
Answer:
stem

16. A traditional food of Konaseema of Godavari dist is …………………
Answer:
Pottikkalu

17. Pottikkalu is healthy and delicious with ………………… flavour.
Answer:
Jack fruit

18. Preparation1 of food in the plants by the process of …………………
Answer:
Photosynthesis

19. The exchange of gases between the plant and atmosphere takes place by …………………
Answer:
stomata

20. ……………….. are present in the outer surface layer of the leaf.
Answer:
Stomata

21. The plants with taproot system have leaves with ………………… venation.
Answer:
Reticulate

22. The plants with ………………… system have leaves with parallel venation.
Answer:
Fibrous

23. The long vein that presents in the middle of the lamina is …………………
Answer:
midrib

24. ………………… acts as a skeleton of the leaf.
Answer:
Veins

25. The part of the stem between two successive nodes is called …………………
Answer:
Internode

26. The stems that stores the food materials are known as ………………… Stems.
Answer:
Tuberous

27. The main root of a plant is …………………
Answer:
taproot

28. Finger millet has only one cotyledon. So it is a ………………… Plant.
Answer:
Monocot

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                    List-B
A) Root               ( )          1. Gives beauty of nature
B) Stem               ( )          2. Preparation of food
C) Leaf                ( )          3. Contain cotyledons
D) Flower            ( )          4. Water transport from root to leaves
E) Seed               ( )          5. Absorption of water
Answer:
A – 5
B – 4
C – 2
D – 1
E – 3

Question 2.
List-A                                            List-B
A) Black gram                ( )        1. Parallel venation
B) Tomato                      ( )        2. Tap root system
C) Finger millets            ( )        3. Monocot
D) Banyan                     ( )        4. Dicot
E) Grass                         ( )        5. Aerial roots
Answer:
A – 2
B – 4
C – 3
D – 5
E – 1

Question 3.
List-A                                           List-B
A) Radish                ( )               1. Leaves
B) Sugarcane          ( )               2. Flower
C) Mangroves         ( )               3. Stem
D) Stomata             ( )               4. Root
E) Pollination          ( )               5. Aerial roots
Answer:
A – 4
B – 3
C – 5
D – 1
E – 2

Question 4.
List-A                                      List-B
A) Stomata              ( )       1. Long vein
B) Lamina                ( )       2. Branches of midrib
C) Petiole                ( )       3. Green flat portion
D) Midrib                ( )       4. Stalk part of a leaf
E) Veins                   ( )       5. The nose of the plant
Answer:
A – 5
B – 3
C – 4
D – 1
E – 2

Practice the AP 10th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Reproduction on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology Bits 6th Lesson Reproduction with Answers

Concept – 1 : Introduction – Asexual Mode of Reproduction

Question 1.
Fission , budding and fragmentation are the types of …………………….
A) Binary fission
B) Sexual reproduction
C) Multiple fission
D) Asexual reproduction
Answer:
D) Asexual reproduction

Question 2.

Identify the mis – matched pairs
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
B) 2, 3

Question 3.
In ants king ant along with queen ant and labour ants exist in numerous numbers
1) These are formed by division of ovule
2) Parthenogenesis is the reason
Choose the correct statement.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 4.
Cut end tail in lizard regenerates.But it doesn’t happen in monkey. Why ?
A) Tail of lizard is important
B) Monkey can survive even without tail
C) Regeneration capacity is less in monkey
D) Regeneration capacity is less in lizard.
Answer:
C) Regeneration capacity is less in monkey

Question 5.
One of the following sentences is not correct about fission
A) This occurs in unicellular organism
B) Rarely occurs in man
C) Fragmentation shows identical characters
D) Binary and multiple fission are the types of fissions.
Answer:
B) Rarely occurs in man

Question 6.
Fragmentation is a common method of reproduction in :
A) Algae & Fungi
B) Yeast
C) Paramoecium
D) Amoeba
Answer:
A) Algae & Fungi

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement regarding budding.
A) Organism divides from parental organism by fission
B) Body divides into pieces
C) Occurs with fusion of gametophytes
D) Some projections grow from the body which are identical
Answer:
D) Some projections grow from the body which are identical

Question 8.
Find out the organisms that perform budding.
i) Amoeba
ii) Hydra
iii) Yeast
iv) Bacteria
A) i only
B) iii only
C) ii, iii
D) All
Answer:
C) ii, iii

Question 9.
Find out the organisms which undergo fragmentation
i) Lichens
ii) Spirogyra
iii) Flatworms
iv) Moulds
A) ii only
B) iii only
C) i,ii,iii
D) All
Answer:
B) iii only

Question 10
Reproduction is a necessary life process in plants and animals because it helps in:
A) Growth of an organism
B) Continuation of life
C) Energy production
D) Providing nutrients
Answer:
B) Continuation of life

Question 11.
Name the adjacent plant.

A) Aspergillus
B) Rhizopus
C) Bryophyllum
D) Agaricus
Answer:
B) Rhizopus

Question 12.
Which of the following organisms do not reproduce by spores?
A) Rhizopus
B) Mucor
C) Yeast
D) Bacteria
Answer:
C) Yeast

Question 13.
Spirogyra undergoes one of these types of sexual reproduction.
A) Fission
B) Fragmentation
C) Budding
D) A or C
Answer:
B) Fragmentation

Question 14.
…………………………. leads to development of zygote without fertilisation.
A) Parthenogenesis
B) Regeneration
C) Cutting
D) Layering
Answer:
A) Parthenogenesis

Question 15.
One of the following is not concerned with parthenogenesis.
A) Parthenogenesis occurs even in sexually reproducing organisms.
B) Daughter organism dies,
C) It occurs in the organisms belonging to Rotiferous.
D) Sexual and asexual reproduction occur at the same time.
Answer:
B) Daughter organism dies.

Question 16.
External fertilisation occurs in
A) frog – snake
B) fish – snake
C) frog – fish
D) fish – rat
Answer:
C) frog – fish

Question 17.
Which of the following statements is not true about budding in yeast ?
A) A bud may arise from any part of the parent cell
B) Before detaching from the parent body, a bud may form another bud.
C) A bud may separate from the parent body and develops into a new individual.
D) A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
Answer:
B) Before detaching from the parent body, a bud may form another bud.

Question 18.
In which of the following both sexual and asexual reproduction can be seen ?
A) Crocodile
B) Cheetah
C) Honey bees
D) Fluman beings
Answer:
C) Honey bees

Question 19.
Amoeba undergoes cystation and divides into many organisms in unfavourable conditions. This is called
A) Binary fission
B) Longitudinal binary fission
C) Budding
D) Multiple fission
Answer:
D) Multiple fission

Question 20.

Find out the correct pairs.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
C) 1, 3

Question 21.
Sneha went to market to buy the seedless fruits. Her daughter astonished how seedless fruits generate. How are seedless fruits produced ?
A) Remove the seeds from fruits
B) Parthenogenesis
C) Androgenesis
D) No such fruits
Answer:
B) Parthenogenesis

Question 22.
The organism which reproduces through conjugation is ……………………………..
A) Amoeba
B) Euglena
C) Paramoecium
D) Bacteria
Answer:
C) Paramoecium

Question 23.
The process that is performed by paramoecium to attain the lost energy
A) Conjugation
B) Vegetative propagation
C) Production of spores
D) Internal fertilization
Answer:
A) Conjugation

Question 24.
The process in which the organisms produce their generation :
A) Reproduction
B) Respiration
C) Endocrine system
D) Growth
Answer:
A) Reproduction

Question 25.
In which of the following organisms binary fission does not occur ?
A) Amoeba
B) Leech
C) Paramoecium
D) Euglena
Answer:
B) Leech

Question 26.
Which of the following material changes in paramoecium during conjugation ?
A) Protoplasm
B) Nucleic material
C) Sap of vacuoles
D) Chromatin material
Answer:
B) Nucleic material

Question 27.
What does this diagram represent ?

A) Budding in Hydra
B) Multiple fission in Bacterial
C) Regeneration in Planaria
D) Fragmentation in Spirogyra
Answer:
C) Regeneration in Planaria

Question 28.
Example for Hermaphrodites:
A) Prawn
B) Cockroach
C) Snail
D) Earthworm
Answer:
D) Earthworm

Question 29.
This organism reproduces by budding,
A) Paramoecium
B) Euglena
C) Yeast
D) Amoeba
Answer:
C) Yeast

Concept – 2: Vegetative Propagation

Question 30.
The part called ………………… (i) ……………….. growing in the soil is grafted with …………………………. (ii) ………………….. of the plant.
A) i – stock, ii – branch
B) i – scion, ii – bud
C) i – stock, ii – scion
D) i – branch, ii – bud
Answer:
C) i – stock, ii – scion

Question 31.
The best method for extracting desirable characters in the plants
i) Grafting
ii) Layering
iii) Laboratory method
iv) Genetic engineering
A) i – only
B) ii – only
C) iii – only
D) iv – only
Answer:
A) i – only

Question 32.
Find out vegetative propagation depicted in the picture.

A) Cutting
B) Grafting
C) Ground layering
D) Root buds
Answer:
A) Cutting

Question 33.
In grafting the plant part which supplies% nutrients from soil is called
A) Scion
B) Graft
C) Stock
D) Branch
Answer:
C) Stock

Question 34.
Modern technology of artificial propagation of plants ……………………
A) Tissue culture
B) Fragmentation
C) Layering
D) Grafting
Answer:
A) Tissue culture

Question 35.
“Nerium” is propagated by …………………….
A) Stolon
B) Layering
C) Corn
D) Bulbs
Answer:
B) Layering

Question 36.
1. Stolon
2. Bulbs
3. Corns
Pick out the right option for above methods of vegetative propagation.
a) Vallisnaria
b) Onion
c) Potato
d) Colacasia
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d
C) 2 – b, 3 – c, 1- a
D) 1 – a, 2- b, 3 – d
Answer:
D) 1 – a, 2- b, 3 – d

Question 37.
Stock and scion are attached. Which type of characters will come in the offspring?
A) Characters of stock
B) Characters of scion
C) Special desired characters
D) Can’t say
Answer:
C) Special desired characters

Question 38.
The most useful reproductive process in the development of ornamental and horticulture field.
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Vegetative propagation
D) Multiple fission
Answer:
C) Vegetative propagation

Question 39.
The plant that propagates through root cuttings
A) Rose
B) Carrot
C) Mango
D) Hibiscus
Answer:
B) Carrot

Question 40.
Which of the following reproduces through leaves ?
A) Bryophyllum
B)) Rose
C) Watermelon
D) Marigold
Answer:
A) Bryophyllum

Question 41.
The vegetative propagation in weak aerial stem plant is by
i) Runner
ii) Stolon
iii) Tuber
iv) Corn
A) i only
B) iv only
C) i, iii only
D) i, ii only
Answer:
D) i, ii only

Question 42.
The plants species generally propagated by layering.
A) Nerium
B) Jasmine
C) Bryophyllum
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

Question 43.
The scientist who discovered tissue culture is
A) M.S. Swaminathan
B) O. Maheswari
C) Haberlandt
D) Ion Wilmont
Answer:
C) Haberlandt

Question 44.
Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time in …………………….. method.
A) Cloning
B) Tissue culture
C) Hybridization
D) Crossing
Answer:
B) Tissue culture

Question 45.
The type of vegetative reproduction in strawberry is ……………
A) bulbs
B) stolons
C) tubers
D) corms
Answer:
B) stolons

Concept – 3 : Spore Formation

Question 46.
Which of the following is correct regarding the functions of Lactobacillus?
1. Making of curd
2. To luke – warm milk
3. To make sweet
4. To make hot milk cool
A) 1,2
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3,4
D) 1 only
Answer:
A) 1,2

Question 47.
Tilak left a piece of bread on the table. Next day it became black. The reason
i) Fungal growth appears
ii) Rhizopus appears on the bread
iii) Bacterial growth appears
iv) Virus affects the bread
A) i, ii, iii correct
B) ii, iii correct
C) iii, iv correct
D) i, ii correct
Answer:
D) i, ii correct

Question 48.
Which of the following reproduce througe spores?
i) Mucor
ii) Bacteria
iii) Rhizopus
iv) Fern
A) i only
B) ii, iii, iv only
C) ii, iii only
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 49.
Which of the following is not Concerned with stored bread mould.?
A) Blackish material forms on the bread
B) Formed fungi is Rhizopus
C) The fungi Rhizopus keeps the bread fresh
D) Spores are formed in Rhizopus
Answer:
C) The fungi Rhizopus keeps the bread fresh

Question 50.
The functions of Lactobacillus
i) curdling of milk
ii) boiling milk
iii) kova preparation
iv) cooling of milk
A) i, ii
B) i, ii, iii
C) ii, iii, iv
D) i only
Answer:
D) i only

Question 51.
To obtain fungal structures we use one of the food material
A) Dry seeds
B) Roti
C) Smoked fish
D) A or B
Answer:
B) Roti

Question 52.
Find out the given picture.

A) Spores in neem leaf
B) Sori infern
C) Fungi
D) Spores in mango
Answer:
B) Sori infern

Question 53.
The acid present in milk is
A) Citric acid
B) Asteric acid
C) Lactic acid
D) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
C) Lactic acid

Concept – 4 : Male Reproduction System

Question 54.
Which part of the male reproductive system produces (human) the sperm cells ?
A) Seminiferous tubule
B) Epididymis
C) Bladder
D) Scrotum
Answer:
A) Seminiferous tubule

Question 55.
Name the part ‘X’ in the given diagram.

A) Acrosome
B) Head
C) Nucleus
D) Tail
Answer:
A) Acrosome

Question 56.
The ……………………. supplies nutrients to sperm.
a) Prostate gland
b) Cowper gland
c) Testosterone
d) Adrenal gland
A) a, c
B) c, b
C) b, d
D) a, b
Answer:
D) a, b

Question 57.
The fertilisation which occurs outside the body is
A) External fertilisation
B) Internal fertilisation
C) Tissue culture
D) Oviparous
Answer:
A) External fertilisation

Question 58.
Find out the incorrect sentence regarding fertilisation in fish
A) External fertilisation
B) Female produces numerous ova
C) Male produces only one sperm
D) Fertilisation is influenced by nature
Answer:
C) Male produces only one sperm

Question 59.
Consider the statements a & b.
a – Vasa efferentia forms epididymis
b – Sperms are produced in millions
A) Both a & b are true
B) a is true, b is false
C) b is true, a is false
D) Both a & b are false
Answer:
A) Both a & b are true

Question 60.
Semen is a gelatinous substance. It is secreted by ………………
A) Salivary and cowper’s glands
B) Cowper’s and gastric glands
C) Seminal vesicles
D) Cowper’s glands
Answer:
C) Seminal vesicles

Question 61.
In which of the following reproduction processes fusion of gametophytes occur?
A) Vegetative propagation
B) Sexual reproduction
C) Asexual reproduction
D) Multiple fission
Answer:
B) Sexual reproduction

Question 62.
The sperms enter into ……………….. from seminal vesicles.
A) Epididymis
B) Seminal duct
C) Prostate gland
D) Urethra
Answer:
A) Epididymis

Question 63.
The development of male reproductive organs is regulated by
A) Testosterone
B) Vasopressin
C) Progesterone
D) Oestrogen
Answer:
A) Testosterone

Question 64.
Sperm cells of human male reproductive system are produced from ………………..
A) seminiferous tubules
B) epididymis
C) scrotum
D) prostate gland
Answer:
A) seminiferous tubules

Question 65.

Consider the given picture.
What will be consequence if vasa deferentia is detached ?
A) Sperms are not produced
B) Sperms do not reach seminal vesicle
C) Person will die
D) Cowper’s gland becomes inactive
Answer:
B) Sperms do not reach seminal vesicle

Question 66.
Which of the following is concerned with male reproductive system ?
A) Fallopian tubes
B) Testes
C) Placenta
D) Umbilical cord
Answer:
B) Testes

Question 67.
The main function of acrosome in sperm is
A) Respiration
B) Movement
C) Excretion
D) Helps in entry into egg cell
Answer:
D) Helps in entry into egg cell

Question 68.
The sending out of semen from male’s body is called
A) reproduction
B) ejaculation
C) ovulation
D) fertilisation
Answer:
B) ejaculation

Question 69.
The reason for growth of beard and moustache in males is
A) Secondary sexual characters
B) Sexual hormones
C) Growth of muscles
D) Inheritance
Answer:
B) Sexual hormones

Question 70.
Which of the following gland belongs to male reproductive system ?
A) Salivary gland
B) Sebacious gland
C) Gastro enteron
D) Cowper’s gland
Answer:
D) Cowper’s gland

Question 71.
Which of the following is not concerned with male reproductive system?
A) Testes
B) Seminal ducts
C) Prostate gland
D) Graffian follicles
Answer:
D) Graffian follicles

Question 72.
The term that we use to describe a sperm cell fusing with an egg cell
A) Fragmentation
B) Fermentation
C) Fertilisation
D) Fusion
Answer:
C) Fertilisation

Question 73.
Which part of human male reproductive system stores sperms temporarily?
A) Epididymis
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Vasa efferentia
D) Penis
Answer:
A) Epididymis

Question 74.
Identify the function of semen.
A) Keep the sperms alive by providing nutrients
B) Provides medium for the movement of sperms
C) Helps in the production of sperms
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Concept – 5 : Female Reproduction System

Question 75.
How does sperm enter ovum ?
A) By making hole on ovum
B) Dissolves the membrane of ovum
C) Crushing the membrane with teeth
D) Enter through the gaps of ovum
Answer:
B) Dissolves the membrane of ovum

Question 76.
After fertilisation implantation of zygote takes place in the uterine walls of females after
A) some months
B) three weeks
C) month
D) 7 – 10 days
Answer:
D) 7 – 10 days

Question 77.
The hormone responsible for secondary sexual characters in female is …………………
A) Adrenaline
B) Testosterone
C) Vasopressin
D) Estrogen
Answer:
D) Estrogen

Question 78.
Which of the following follicle ruptures to release ova ?
A) Graffian follicle
B) Leiberhan follicle
C) Islets of langerhans
D) Scrotum
Answer:
A) Graffian follicle

Question 79.
Incorrect statement about post fertilization changes in the uterus
A) Uterus remains small in size with thin layer of cells
B) Walls of uterus become thick and smooth
C) Blood circulation increases in the uterus
D) Embryonic layers develop in the uterus
Answer:
A) Uterus remains small in size with thin layer of cells

Question 80.
The outermost layer that encloses embryo
A) Chorion
B) Amnion
C) Allantois
D) Umbilical cord
Answer:
A) Chorion

Question 81.
The chorion and tissue of uterus combine and form
A) Chorion
B) Allantois
C) Amnion
D) Placenta
Answer:
D) Placenta

Question 82.
The layer formed at around 12^th week of pregnancy
A) Umbilical cord
B) Allantois
C) Placenta
D) Amnion
Answer:
C) Placenta

Question 83.
The tube which, connects the embryo with placenta is
A) Fallopian tube
B) Seminal vesicle
C) Epididymis
D) Umbilical cord
Answer:
D) Umbilical cord

Question 84.
The 3 months of embryo is called ………………
A) New born child
B) Foetus
C) Baby
D) Nucleoid
Answer:
B) Foetus

Question 85.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the human life cycle ?
A) Babyhood, childhood, adolescence, adulthood
B) Childhood, babyhood, adulthood, adolescence
C) Adolescence, babyhood, adulthood, childhood
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Childhood, babyhood, adulthood, adolescence

Question 86.
Which of these things will affect the way a foetus grows ?
A) Chemicals in cigarette smoke
B) Alcohol
C) Drugs
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 87.
The gestation period in man is …………………..
A) 330 days
B) 20 days
C) 280 months
D) 280 days
Answer:
D) 280 days

Question 88.
The tube which have widened funnel
A) Seminal duct
B) Fallopian tube
C) Umbilical cord
D) Chorion
Answer:
B) Fallopian tube

Question 89.
The number of ova released once in females periodically is
A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 90.
The structure which joins the embryo to the walls of uterus is ………………
A) Chorion
B) Umbilical cord
C) Fallopian tubule
D) Epididymis
Answer:
B) Umbilical cord

Question 91.
The correct statement about the membrane grows itself around the embryo
i) It is filled with a fluid
ii) It nourishes humidity to the developed embryo
iii) It protects the embryo from mechanical shocks.
iv) It is called chorion
A) i only
B) ii & iii
C) i, ii, iii
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 92.
Immediately after the delivery, the mammary glands of the mother secrete ………………………
A) Milk
B) Colostrum
C) Blood
D) water
Answer:
B) Colostrum

Question 93.
When the foetus is in its mother’s womb, the blood cells are generated from ……………………..
A) bone marrow
B) liver and spleen
C) kidneys
D) brain and spinal cord
Answer:
B) liver and spleen

Question 94.
Why are egg cells larger than sperm cells?
A) Have larger nucleus
B) Have thicker cell membrane
C) Egg cells have more nuclei in them
D) They store food to help foetal growth after fertilisation
Answer:
D) They store food to help foetal growth after fertilisation

Question 95.
Doctors separate the baby from mother by detaching
A) intestine of mother
B) chorion
C) umbilical cord
D) allantios
Answer:
C) umbilical cord

Question 96.
Arrange the sequence of steps of human life cycle.
1. Adolescence
2. Babyhood
3. Adulthood
4. Childhood
A) 1, 3, 4, 2
B) 4, 2, 3, 1
C) 2, 4, 1, 3
D) 3, 4, 2, 4
Answer:
C) 2, 4, 1, 3

Question 97.
Pathway of ovum in female reproductive system is
A) Ovary → Oviduct →Uterus → Vagina
B) Vagina → Uterus → Oviduct → Ovary
C) Ovary → Ovid’uct → Uterus
D) Uterus → Vagina → Oviduct
Answer:
A) Ovary → Oviduct →Uterus → Vagina

Question 98.
The gestation period of horse is …………………….
A) 300 days
B) 330 days
C) 380 days
D) 365 days
Answer:
B) 330 days

Question 99.
Identify which membrane forms the umbilical cord.
A) Chorion
B) Allantois
C) Amnion
D) Placenta
Answer:
A) Chorion

Question 100.
Gestation period is 63 days for the animals like
A) cat and dog
B) cat and rat
C) cat and rabbit
D) rat and mouse
Answer:
A) cat and dog

Question 101.
Consider the sentences a & b.
a – Gestation period is different in different organisms.
b – The rate of reproduction is more during favourable conditions
A) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are true
B) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is false
C) ‘a’ is false, ‘b’ is true
D) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are false
Answer:
A) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are true

Question 102.
Ovary → →Ovum → Ovulation → Fallopian tube → Uterus.
What will be in the box ?
A) Ovary
B) Graffian follicle
C) Cavity of ovule
D) Canal
Answer:
B) Graffian follicle

Question 103.
Which of the following is not concerned with female reproduction system?
A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tube
C) Leiberhan follicles
D) Graffian follicles
Answer:
C) Leiberhan follicles

Question 104.
How are the ova fertilized in mammals?
A) Externally
B) In the organs
C) Internally
D) By division
Answer:
C) Internally

Question 105.
In which structure we can find Graffian follicles?
A) Fallopian tube
B) Corpus leutium
C) Ovule
D) Ovary
Answer:
D) Ovary

Question 106.
The part of the female reproductive system produces the eggs …………………..
A) Ovary
B) Epididymis
C) Cervix
D) Fallopian tube
Answer:
A) Ovary

Question 107.
Find out the incorrect statement regarding child birth.
A) Child will be healthy only after completion of gestation period
B) Delivery will be easy if the head of foetus comes out first
C) Labour pains occur due to injection given by doctor
D) Delivery of baby becomes tough if legs come out of mother’s womb
Answer:
C) Labour pains occur due to injection given by doctor

Question 108.
The symbol for easy delivery process is
A) Not having labour pains
B) Amniotic fluid flows out due to the rupture of Amnion
C) The contractions of the walls of uterus are weak
D) The child turns crossand comes out
Answer:
B) Amniotic fluid flows out due to the rupture of Amnion

Question 109.
The base for the formation of navel in human beings
A) Umbilical cord
B) Placenta
C) Chorion
D) Body structure
Answer:
A) Umbilical cord

Question 110.
The muscular contractions of the uterus result in
A) Not good
B) Disorder of birth
C) Child birth
D) Not happens
Answer:
C) Child birth

Question 111.
The fluid that is secreted at the end of the gestation period
A) Colostrum
113) Lymph
C) Blood
D) Saliva
Answer:
A) Colostrum

Concept – 6 : Sexual Reproduction in Plants

Question 112.
Fine powdery material that is observed on the anther lobes
A) Pollen grains
B) Ova
C) Ovules
D) Stigma
Answer:
A) Pollen grains

Question 113.
Bottle gourd, Papaya have the …………………. flowers.
A) unisexual
B) bisexual
C) cyclic
D) ray
Answer:
A) unisexual

Question 114.
Find the odd one out.
A) Calyx
B) Corolla
C) Pistil
D) Follicle
Answer:
D) Follicle

Question 115.
The condition of pollen mother cell
A) n
B) 2n
C) 3n
D) 4n
Answer:
B) 2n

Question 116.
These figures are related to …………………….

A) transpiration
B) reproduction
C) excretion
D) photosynthesis
Answer:
B) reproduction

Question 117.
Identify the unisexual flowers.
A) Bottle gourd
B) Papaya
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 118.
Read the paragraph given below and answer.
Most of the plants are flowering plants. Their characters are quite remarkable. A sal tree grows in Himalayan mountains, a giant cactus in the Sahara desert.
Flowering plants possess
A) Bisexual flowers
B) Unisexual flowers
C) A or B r
D) Only Heterozygous flowers
Answer:
B) Unisexual flowers

Question 119.

See the picture of pollen grain. What sort of division helps in its formation?
A) Mitosis
B) Unequal division
C) Meiosis
D) Unnatural division
Answer:
C) Meiosis

Question 120.
The terminal part of the style
A) Ovary
B) Stigma
C) Androecium
D) Anther lobe
Answer:
C) Androecium

Question 121.
The female reproductive part of a flower
A) Thalamus
B) Stamen
C) Gynoecium (Ovary)
D) Pollen grain
Answer:
B) Stamen

Question 122.
The male part of flower is
A) Ovules
B) Stamen
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
D) Sepals

Question 123.
Which of the following is not concerned with pollination ?
A) The falling of pollen grains on the stigma is pollination.
B) The pollen grains of one flower do not fall on the same flower.
C) The pollen grains of one flower fall on the another flower.
D) Pollination helps in fertilization.
Answer:
B) The pollen grains of one flower do not fall on the same flower.

Question 124.
The student observes the pollen grain under the microscope. It appears as below. ‘X’ indicates …………………..

A) Matured nucleus
B) Pollen tube
C) Stigma
D) Tube cell
Answer:
B) Pollen tube

Question 125.
The type of flowers you observed in Datura.
A) Unisexual flowers
B) Bisexual flowers
C) Heterosexual flowers
D) Heterozygous flowers
Answer:
C) Heterosexual flowers

Question 126.
The number of cells present in pollen grain
A) One
B) Three
C) Four
D) Two
Answer:
A) One

Concept – 7 : Structure of Ovule & Seed Germination

Question 127.
Embryo sac
A) comprises 7 cells, 6 nuclei
B) comprises 7 cells, 8 nuclei
C) comprises 6 cells, 6 nuclei
D) comprises 8 cells, 8 nuclei
Answer:
B) comprises 7 cells, 8 nuclei

Question 128.
The cells in embryo sac are
i) Antipodals
ii) Synergids
iii) Polar nuclei
iv) Female gametophyte
A) iv only
B) iii, iv only
C) i, ii only
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 129.
At the time of fertilisation in embryo sac b the cell which is in diploid state :
A) Polar nuclei
B) Zygote
C) Endosperm
D) Intra ovular tissue
Answer:
A) Polar nuclei

Question 130.
What will you find out at the inner part of separated cotyledons of seed ?
A) Embryo
B) Leaves
C) Flower
D) Radicle
Answer:
A) Embryo

Question 131.
What is the need of sprinkling water on ground nut germinating seeds in order to observe the phenomenon of seed germination ?
A) To keep the seeds wet in condition
B) To enhance dormancy
C) To destroy germination
D) To bring out leaves
Answer:
A) To keep the seeds wet in condition

Question 132.
The number of layers that protect ovule
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 133.
Pollen tube bears
A) one male, one female nuclei
B) 2 male nuclei
C) 2 female nuclei
D) 2 male, 2 female nuclei
Answer:
B) 2 male nuclei

Question 134.
The given picture depicts ……………………….

A) Female gametophyte
B) Antipodal cells
C) Secondary nucleus
D) Helper cells
Answer:
A) Female gametophyte

Question 135.
Name the part which is asked as a question mark (?).

A) Granular cell
B) Polar cell
C) Egg cell
D) Hard cell
Answer:
C) Egg cell

Question 136.
Find out the correct sentence.
A) Double fertilization occurs in Angiosperms
B) Double fertilization occurs in Gymnosperms
C) Asexual reproduction occurs in all flowering plants
D) Single fertilization occurs in flowering plants
Answer:
A) Double fertilization occurs in Angiosperms

Question 137.
Which of the following plant does not have the endosperm ?
A) Coconut
B) Groundnut
C) Castor
D) Mango
Answer:
D) Mango

Question 138.
Which of the following seeds have endosperm ?
A) Castor
B) Pea
C) Red gram
D) Green gram
Answer:
A) Castor

Question 139.
After fertilization, ovary forms into …………………
A) seeds
B) bud
C) fruit
D) flower
Answer:
A) seeds

Question 140.
The second sperm fuses with the polar nuclei and
A) Zygote forms
B) Fertilisation starts
C) Endosperm forms
D) Female gametophyte activates
Answer:
C) Endosperm forms

Question 141.
In plants, the fusion of male gamate with secondary nucleus results in …………………
A) Embryo sac
B) Endosperm
C) Cotyledons
D) Spores
Answer:
B) Endosperm

Question 142.
The conditions required for germination of seeds are
A) moist
B) temperature
C) light
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 143.
Find out the correct sentence.
a – Endosperm is formed from the fusion of male nucleus with secondary nucleus
b – Endosperm converts into a seed
A) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are true
B) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is false
C) ‘a’ is false, ‘b’ is true
D) Both ‘a & ‘b’ are false
Answer:
B) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is false

Question 144.
Which one of the following seeds does not have endosperm ?
A) Maize
B) Rice
C) Wheat
D) Red gram
Answer:
D) Red gram

Question 145.
The state of endospermic nucleus is
A) n
B) 2n
C) 3n
D) 4n
Answer:
C) 3n

Question 146.
Non-endospermic seed is seen in this plant
A) Maize
B) Paddy
C) Castor
D) Groundnut
Answer:
D) Groundnut

Question 147.
The reason for the enlarged cotyledons in beans is ………………
A) Pericarp
B) Endosperm
C) Swelling in water
D) Artificial one
Answer:
B) Endosperm

Question 148.
Cotyledons are present in
A) Stamens
B) Ovary
C) Ovule
D) Seeds
Answer:
D) Seeds

Question 149.
The parts of flower useful even after fertilisation
A) Ovule
B) Androecium
C) Style, Stigma
D) Calyx
Answer:
A) Ovule

Question 150.
This part indicates future root in matured embryo
A) Plumule
B) Radicle
C) Chalaza
D) Cotyledons
Answer:
B) Radicle

Question 151.
The name of the part on which pollen tube enters into embryo sac
A) Intra ovular tissue
B) Chalaza
C) Micropyle
D) Tissue
Answer:
C) Micropyle

Question 152.
Endosperm forms due to fertilization of …………………
A) male gamete + synergids
B) male gamete + antipodal cells
C) male gamete + female gamete
D) male gamete + second nucleus
Answer:
D) male gamete + second nucleus

Question 153.
Double fertilization is seen only in
A) Cycas
B) Pinus
C) Angiosperms
D) Bryophytes
Answer:
C) Angiosperms

Question 154.
Fertilization of fusion nucleus stimulates the formation of :
A) Endosperm
B) Zygote
C) Exospefm
D) Cotyledons
Answer:
A) Endosperm

Concept – 8 : Cell Division and Configuration of Life

Question 155.
The scientist who discovered the mitosis is
A) Wilhelm Roux
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Walther Flemming
D) Robert Remak
Answer:
C) Walther Flemming

Question 156.
The scientist who discovered that production of new cells occur through cell division is
A) Robert Remak
B) Virchow
C) Walther Flemming
D) Gregor Mitos
Answer:
B) Virchow

Question 157.
The scientist who told about the information of meiosis
A) Walther Flemming
B) Theodor Boveri
C) August Weismann
D) Wilhelm Roux
Answer:
B) Theodor Boveri

Question 158.
Mitos means
A) Division
B) Fine threads
C) Chromosomes
D) Nucleus
Answer:
B) Fine threads

Question 159.
In which of the following part meiosis occurs ?
A) Stamen
B) Pollen sac
C) Pollen grain
D) Part of stamen
Answer:
B) Pollen sac

Question 160.
The period between two cell divisions is called
A) Prophase
B) Anaphase
C) Interphase
D) Metaphase
Answer:
C) Interphase

Question 161.
Stages of interphase
1) G₁ phase
2) S phase
3) G₂ phase
4) M phase
A) 1 Only
B) 1 & 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2 only
Answer:
C) 1, 2, 3

Question 162.
Nuclear membrane disappears in one of the stages of cell division
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Telophase
D) Anaphase
Answer:
A) Prophase

Question 163.
Identify the mitotic phase shown in the diagram

A) Prophase
B) Anaphase
C) Metaphase
D) Telophase
Answer:
B) Anaphase

Question 164.
Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao from Guntur is a renowned scholar and eminent
A) Cytology
B) Physiology
C) Psychology
D) Embryology
Answer:
A) Cytology