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AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 12 Sustainable Development with Equity.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 People and Migration.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution

8th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

Improve your learning

Question 1.
Damanpur is ruled by its king based on a set of rules written down by the priest and ministers. He has also divided his kingdom into 16 provinces to which he appoints his officers as governors. Can we say that this is democratic country? Is it a constitutional country? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
I cannot say it as democratic country and a constitutional country.
Reasons:

1. The king came to throne on heredity.
2. Purohits and ministers were not elected but selected.
3. The officials were selected and appointed by the king.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Constitution determines the relationship between people and government.
b. Democratic countries generally contain a Constitution.
c. To make a Constitution to a diverse country like India is not an easy task.
d. All are correct.
Answer:
d (All are correct).

Question 3.
Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:
a. Motilal Nehru         [ ]   i) President of the Constituent Assembly
b. B. R. Ambedkar       [ ]  ii) Member of the Constituent Assembly
c. Rajendra Prasad      [ ]  iii) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
d. Sarojini Naidu         [ ]  iv) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
Answer:
a) iv
b) iii
c) i
d) ii

Question 4.
Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech and answer the following:
a. What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?
b. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye.” Who was he referring to?
Answer:
a) The pledge he wanted the makers of the Indian Constitution to take was ‘incessant striving’.
b) He was referring to Mahatma Gandhiji.

Question 5.
Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.
a) Sovereign   i) Government will not favour any religion.
b) Republic     ii) People have the supreme right to make decisions.
c) Fraternity    iii) Head of the state is an elected person.
d) Secular       iv) People should live like brothers and sisters.
Answer:
a) ii
b) iii
c) iv
d) i

Question 6.
What values are embedded in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble of the Indian Constitution: The values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the ‘Preamble’ of the Indian Constitution, which is a short statement of its basic principles and objectives. They guide all the provisions of Indian Constitution.

Question 7.
“All are equal before law”- Explain this with examples.
Answer:
EQUALITY: Our Constitution does not promise equality in all respects (like income or property) but it seeks to ensure that all people will enjoy the same status – that is, everyone will be governed by the same laws. Secondly, it promises equality of ‘opportunity’. This means that all public offices shall be open to all, irrespective of caste or religion. If an office requires special qualification, access to that qualification too will be made equal to all.

Question 8.
Identify correct statements from the following:
a. The Constitution defines powers of the Legislative houses.
b. The Constitution cannot be changed under any circumstances.
c. Ideals that are in the preamble are reflected in the design of institutions.
d. Laws for the entire country are designed centrally.
Answer:
a and c are correct statements.

Question 9.
On what occasions equal justice is seen? Mention with examples.
Answer:
No discrimination will be made to any citizen. On account of his/her, birth, beliefs, wealth or status.
eg:

1. Right to vote
2. Right to freedom of religious
3. Right to equality etc.

Project

Question 1.
Compare the preambles to the Constitutions of the United States of America, India and South Africa.
a. Make a list of ideals that are common to all these three.
b. Note down at least one major difference among these.
c. Which of the three makes a reference to the past?
d. Which of these does not invoke God?
Answer:

Preamble of Constitution of United States of America
We the people of the United States in order to form a more perfect union establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity do or dain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

Preamble of Constitution of South Africa
We the people of South Africa, Recognize the injustices of our past; Honour those who suffered for justice and freedom in our land; Respect those who have worked to build and develop our country; and Believe that South Africa belongs to all who live in it, united in our diversity. We therefore, through our freely elected representatives, adopt this Constitution as the Supreme law of the republic so as to- heal the divisions of the past and establish a society based on democratic values, social justice and fundamental human rights; Lay the founda¬tions for a democratic and open society in which government is based on the will of the people and every citizen is equally protected by law; Improve the quality of life of all citizens and free the potential of each person; and Build a united and democratic South Africa able to take its rightful place as a sovereign state in the family of nations.

May God protect our people.
God bless South Africa.

Preambles to the Constitutions:

a) List of ideals: Sovereign, socialism, secular, democratic.
b) The date is mentioned in the Indian Constitution but not others.
c) South Africa makes a reference to the past.
d) Indian Constitution and American Constitution do not invoke God.

8th Class Social Studies 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If you and your classmates were asked to formulate five goals for the country – what would they be? How would you arrive at those five goals? Discuss in the class and work with the help of your teacher. (Textbook Page No. 150)
Answer:

1. Universal Education
2. Universal Health
3. Economic development
4. Peace and Living together
5. Non-violence, opportunities to all

I create awareness in the officials and rulers about these goals. I will make the people believe in peace, non-violence and living together.
I will bring the change in the society.

Question 2.
Can you list out some of the inequalities and discriminations prevalent in our society at the time of Independence? (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
Inequalities:

1. Economic inequalities
2. Social inequalities

Discriminations :

1. Racial discrimination
2. Gender discrimination

Question 3.
Here is a set of statements that is put in pairs, but some of it has wrong information. Can you correct them?
a) A model constitution was drafted + Motilal Nehru
b) Leaders agreed that illiterate people should not vote
c) Provincial legislature + Constitution adopted some colonial laws
d) Partition + large number of people were killed and forced to migrate
e) Restriction on women voting + commitment to social reform in India. (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
a) Motilal Nehru and eight other Indian National Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India.
b) The government would be built by general elections based on the principles of ‘universal adult franchise or right of every adult citizen irrespective of gender, caste, religion, education or wealth to vote in elections.
c) Correct
d) Correct
e) Voting right to women + commitment to social reform in India.

Question 4.
What were the sources of inspiration and ideas for framing our Constitution? (Or)
What thoughts inspired the framing of our Constitution? (Textbook Page No. 152)
Answer:
First of all, the framers were inspired by the struggle waged by the diverse kinds of Indian people and their aspiration for a better world to live in. They knew that it was their sacred duty to help build an India in which all these diverse kinds of people may realise their aspirations. They were also deeply influenced by the thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi and other national leaders.

Secondly, many of our leaders were inspired by the ideals of French Revolution, the prac-tice of parliamentary democracy in Britain and the Bill of Rights in the USA. The socialist revolution in Russia and China had inspired many Indians to think of shaping a system based on social and economic equality. All these factors influenced the making of our Constitution.

Thirdly, the British too had introduced some basic institutions of democratic rule in India. However, only certain categories of people could vote in the elections. British had introduced very weak legislatures. Elections were held in 1937 to Provincial Legislatures and Ministries all over British India. These were not fully democratic governments. But the experience gained by Indians in the working of the legislative institutions proved to be very useful for the country in setting up its own institutions and working in them. That is why the Indian Constitution adopted many institutional details and procedures from colonial laws.

Question 5.
The people of India decided (resolved) to achieve two objectives. What were these? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
The following objectives were resolved by the Indian people.

1. To establish a republican country.
2. To secure to all its citizens, justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.

Question 6.
What did they do in order to achieve these objective?
Answer:

1. To achieve the objectives, we incorporated the objectives in our constitution.
2. For republican country we are electing the head of the nation.
3. To secure the remaining objectives we added secularism, socialism in our constitution.
4. Provide justice and equal opportunities to all people without discrimination.
5. To achieve these universalising literacy and education, protection of environment, reducing inequalities etc. are kept infront of the government.
6. Maintain brotherhood nature among all people.
7. To achieve these, we are following parliamentary system and federal system.

Question 7.
Can you identify one idea that is common to all these three? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
‘Equality’ is the common idea to all these three.

Question 8.
What are the differences in their ways of expressing that common idea? (Textbook Page No. 155)
Answer:
A) Mahatma Gandhi: There shall be no high class and low class of people.
B) B.R. Ambedkar: How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions?
C) Jawaharlal Nehru: It means the ending of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity.
The three expressed the same idea in different words.

Question 9.
Discuss why the leaders who fought for freedom did not want India to be ruled by kings and queens. (Textbook Page No. 150)
Answer:
Kings and queens ruled the country mostly dictatorially. They ruled India by dividing it into small kingdoms. They failed in answering foreign invasions.
The freedom fighters were all nationalists. They prayed and dreamed India as a huge nation. They wished democratic rule.
So they did not want India to be ruled by kings and queens.

Question 10.
Find out from your grandparents or old neighbours who were there at the time of independence about how things were at that time and what they felt about the future of the country. (Textbook Page No. 151)
Answer:
Things at the time of independence :

1. Apart from social and cultural diversity, there were huge differences between rich and poor, upper and lower castes, men and women.
2. Literacy levels and education were very low.
3. There was acute poverty.
4. There were sharp differences of opinion among the leaders of the national movement, about how we could make a better society after Independence.

Our grandparents/Old neighbours felt about the future of the country in the following way.

1. The dreams of Gandhiji would be true.
2. There would be a plenty of food in the country.
3. People would be happy with their shelters and clothes.
4. There would be no inequalities.
5. There would be no discriminations.
6. All would be equal before law etc.

Question 11.
Why do you think the kings were allowed to nominate members to the Constituent Assembly? (Textbook Page No. 153)
Answer:
The kings were familiar with the ideas of their people. They could integrate the ideas of their people. So the kings were allowed to nominate members to the Constituent Assembly.

Question 12.
Why do you think there were so few women members? Do you think it would have been better if there had been more women members? (Textbook Page No. 153)
Answer:
At that time the educated women and the women politicians were very less in number. Even today we are fighting for 33% of women reservations. So there were so few women members. Yes, I think it would have been better if there had been more women members.

Question 13.
Which of the guiding principles in the Objective Resolution, do you think is the most important? Give your reasons for it. Do other students have a different opinion about this? (Textbook Page No. 154)
Answer:
“Welfare of all mankind” – This guiding principle in the Objective Resolution is the most important.
Reasons:
The welfare of all mankind is the welfare of the Earth.
This leads to world peace. Other students have no different opinions.

Question 14.
Why is it necessary for an elected parliament to make laws? Why can’t they be made by learned lawyers and judges? (Textbook Page No. 157)
Answer:
Our Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of government. The Parliament, consisting of representatives of the people makes laws. These laws are according to the needs and views of the citizens/people. Judiciary comments on this.
Learned lawyers and judges can make laws legally but not for the welfare of the people. They don’t have the support of the people. So they cannot make laws.

Question 15.
Why do you think the Prime Minister and his Cabinet should get their decisions and actions approved by the Parliament and answer the questions raised by the members of Parliament? Will it be better if they were answerable only to the President? (Textbook Page No. 157)
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Cabinet are answerable to the Parliament. The members of Parliament are the representatives elected by the civilians directly. So they are answerable to them.
It will not be better if they are answerable only to the President as it is against the democracy.
So they should get their decisions approved by the Parliament.

Question 16.
Some countries have a different structure in which there is only a central government that makes laws for the entire country and governs all the provinces or states. Do you think such a system is suited for India? Discuss in the class. (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
India is a land of many diversities. The laws of only central government are not correct to this kind of nation. Different regions have different cultures. All these things should be taken into consideration to make laws. So such system is not suited for India.

Question 17.
Discuss why the courts and judges should be independent of the state and central government authorities. (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
To safeguard the Constitution, the courts and judges should be independent. Otherwise there is a chance of sidetrack. So they should be independent.

Question 18.
Why should the Election Commission be autonomous? (Textbook Page No. 158)
Answer:
The Election Commission should be autonomous to conduct free and fair elections.

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 14 Water – Too Little To Waste

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 14th Lesson Water – Too Little To Waste

7th Class Science 14th Lesson Water – Too Little To Waste Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is water distributed on the globe? How much of freshwater is available to us?
Answer:

1. If the total water on earth be 100%, the percent fresh water available to us is only 1%.
2. 

Question 2.
When was the international decade for action on ‘water for life’ declared?
Answer:

1. On World Water Day, that is 22 March 2005, the period 2005 – 2015 was declared as the International Decade for action on “Water for Life”.

Question 3.
What would you do for the cause ‘water for life”?
Answer:

1. Normally a lot of water flows out of the kitchen as well as bathrooms in our houses.
2. Many of us do not know that water is being wasted in this way.
3. We must make a channel of water to flow from kitchen to the garden around.
4. We cannot wastewater from the bathroom also. It could be used after purification.

Question 4.
Why do we need proper drainage system?
Answer:

1. We dispose of wastewater in our daily life in different ways and means.
2. We often see water stagnated near bore wells or beside houses.
3. Sometimes human and animal excretions also mix with this water.
4. We get a foul smell when we walk near those areas.
5. To prevent this we need a proper drainage system.

Question 5.
How do you find out what realty happens to waste water at treatment plants?
Answer:

1. Fill a large glass jar 3/4 full of water. Add some dirty organic matter such as grass pieces or orange peels, a small amount of detergent, and a few drops of an ink or any colour.
2. Cap the jar, shake it well and let the mixture stand in the sun for two days.
3. After two days, shake the mixture and pour a small sample into test tube. Label this test tube “Before treatment; Sample 1”. How does it smell?
4. Use an aerator from an aquarium to bubble air through the sample in the glass jar. Allow several hours for aeration; leave the aerator attached overnight. If you do not have an aerator, use a mechanical stirrer or a mixer. You may have to stir it several times. This actually works like a skimmer of the wastewater treatment plant.
5. Aeration causes organisms that break down waste to grow faster thus it leads to what is called as “Biological Process”.
   
6. The next day when aeration is complete, pour another sample into a second test tube. Label it “After aeration; Sample 2”.
7. Fold a piece of filter paper to form a cone. Wet the paper with tap water and then insert the cone in a funnel. Mount the funnel on a support.
8. Place layers of sand, fine gravel and finally medium gravel in the funnel.
9. Pour the remaining aerated liquid through the filter into the beakers. Do not allow the liquid to spill over the filter. If the filtered liquid is not clear, filter it a few times till you get clear water. This is “physical process”.
10. Pour a sample of the filtered water into a third test tube labeled “Filtered’ Sample 3”.
11. Pour another sample of the filtered water into a fourth test tube. Add a small piece of a chlorine tablet. Mix well until the water is clear. Labe! the test tube “Chlorinated; Sample 4”.
12. This is a “Chemical Process” of treatment.
13. Observe carefully the samples in all the test tubes. Do not taste! Just smell them!
14. We can easily under stand how the wastewater is recycled in the treatment plant.

Question 6.
For which purposes are we using freshwater?
Answer: Freshwater has been the constant and essential companion of human beings throughout history. Water is used in great quantities in agriculture and industries.

Question 7.
How is freshwater distributed over the globe?
Answer:

1. Our globe is poorly endowed with fresh water.
2. Most water is rendered useless to humans by dilution with salt in the oceans.
3. Only 2.5 percent is available as freshwater of which 2/3 is locked up in Ice and snow.
4. Nature is unkind in depositing almost eighty percent of rain over the sea.
5. The rain that falls over the land has a great potential value.

Question 8.
What is causing water scarcity? Write the principle ways which are degrading the quality and quantity of natural supply of fresh water.
Answer:

1. Unsustainable extraction of fresh water causes water scarcity.
2. Due to the over-extraction of fresh water underground reserves are falling rapidly.
3. In India, the water table has fallen more than 300 meters’.
4. Human interventions which degrade the quality and quantity of the natural supply of fresh water occur, in 3 principal ways.
5. Firstly dams alter the natural flow of rivers often leading to water scarcity.
6. Secondly, soil moisture is lost by land degradation due to poor farming practices
   and deforestation.
7. Thirdly, surface water is polluted by run-off chemicals used in industries and households.

Question 9.
How can you say that the next cold war could be over water?
Answer:

1. The world population is projected to grown 9.3 Billion by 2050.
2. In addition to safe drinking water and sanitation, the rising pressure on freshwater will be felt most severely in the energy and food sectors.
3. Two out of three people will be living with water shortage by 2025.
4. The growth of demand the decline in freshwater availability, the adverse health effects from poor water quality and scarcity will result in violence and water wars.
5. The next cold war could be over water.

Question 10.
How can we conserve water? Write some practices that can be adopted.
Answer:
a)

1. We perform many activities in our daily life using water.
2. We can conserve water by adopting certain good practices,

b) Some practices that can be adopted:

1. Water is precious. We should not waste it.
2. Collect water in a bucket after cleaning rice, dal and vegetables in the kitchen which contains peels of vegetables.
3. We can use this water for our cattle.
4. We should not throw solid food remains, tea leaves and oily wastes down the drain.
5. We must make a channel so that the kitchen and bathroom water flows to the coconut and banana plants in our garden.
6. We should use only mild soaps and detergents so that this water may not harm our plants.
7. Any leakage of water from any tap must be repaired immediately.

SCERT AP Board 8th Class Social Solutions 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Studies Solutions 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government

8th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Correct the false statements.
a. Most rural areas have trained doctors.
b. There are more facilities in hospitals of private sector than the public sector.
c. Nutritious food helps in improving the health scenario.
d. Some doctors may involve in unnecessary treatments to make money.
Answer:
a) Most rural areas have trained doctors. (False)
Correction: Most rural areas have untrained doctors.
b) True
c) True
d) True

Question 2.
Jayamma uses the following. Which of these will you include in basic public facilities?
a. Drives Scooter to school,
b. Sends her child to Anganwadi.
c. Owns a television set.
d. Has a mobile phone,
e. Sends letters by post office.
Answer:
b. Sends her child to Anganwadi.
c. Sends letters by post office.

Question 3.
Identify the sentences in this chapter that discuss the role of the government in providing public health.
Answer:
“Self exercise” – The student should underline the sentences in this chapter.

Question 4.
Discuss which among the following measures will you consider as instances – OR not an instance of improving the healthcare. Write down the reasons for your answer.
a. TB patients are given free medicines.
b. In some villages clean drinking water facilities are arranged.
c. Shopkeepers selling medicines for cold, fever, headache etc.
d. The government provides foodgrains in Fair Price shops.
Answer:
I consider a, b, d as instances of improving the health care. Selling medicines by shop-keepers is trade.

Question 5.
Priyamvada runs a private hospital. This has more facilities than that are available in a government hospital. Satyanarayana works as a government doctor in a Mandal. Can you write an imaginary dialogue between them about access to health services?
Answer:
Priyamvada: Hello Doctor, how are you?
Satyanarayana: Fine doctor. You are working in?
Priyamvada: I run my own hospital in the town. You?
Satyanarayana: I am working in the government Mandai Hospital here?
Prlyamvada: Oh I am very sorry. All of our friends opened many super specialty hospitals and are running them successfully. But you…?
Satyanarayana: Oh I Don’t say sorry. This is my ambition.
Priyamvada: What is this doctor? We are working regularly in one hospital while visiting four to five others daily. A handful of income, sophisticated facilities. We have everything what we need. Operation theatres, oxygen facilities, ambulances etc. All the facilities are in our reach. Why
are you missing them?
Satyanarayana: Sorry Miss. Pnyamvada. I like my profession and this job. The people in villages are approaching untrained persons for treatment. We are in this profession to serve the people only.
It is the same either in villages or in towns. We have also many facilities in our hospitals.
Priyamvada: Very sorry doctor, very sorry. I misunderstand you. You are rendering more services to the people who are in need.
Now onwards I also will come and treat the patients without fees. All the best doctor.

Question 6.
Health is not limited to providing medicines. In this chapter there are other aspects of health that are mentioned (like clean water etc). Bring them together and write a paragraph about such aspects.
Answer:
Health is not limited to providing medicines only. The people should be given nutritious food. Safety Drinking water facilities should be arranged. First aid should be provided to the needy. Proper housing facilities, healthy environment should be created. Through these steps alone we can get good health.

Question 7.
Following figure shows how people get money for hospitalization in Andhra Pradesh. Nearly 65% of the people below poverty line have to borrow money. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage. Those above poverty line spend 45% of the hospitalization expenditure from their savings. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage. Those above poverty line borrow only 35%. Identify this in the chart and mark the percentage.
Can you also roughly estimate share of other means through which people meet their hospitalization expenses in the chart below?
Answer:

They find their money for hospitalization as above.

Question 8.
Conduct a survey on government welfare schemes on health. List the beneficiaries in your area.
Answer:

1. Aarogya Sri Scheme: White card holders.
2. ESI: People working in public & private companies, factories etc.
3. Reimbursement facilities: To State/Central government employees.

Question 9.
To know about the prevention of contageous diseases, what questions do you ask your region’s Health worker?
Answer:

1. How can we prevent Malaria?
2. What is the preventive medicine for Typhoid?
3. Is there any preventive drug for Cholera?
4. What are the preventive steps of govt, to control eye diseases?

Question 10.
What type of services would be rendered by ‘108′ during emergencies?
Answer:
All types of emergency cases are handled by 108 services, including pregnancy cases, accidental, unconscious, paralysis, inflation, fever, heart attack and all types of emergencies.

Project

Consult any five of your friends and fill the table with the following particulars, then analyse and discuss In the class.

Answer:
“Health is wealth”. Everyone knows about this. If we maintain cleanliness of our hands and nails we can protect ourselves from epidemic diseases. If we keep our surrounding clean & neat we will protect ourselves from mosquitoes and other insects and be safe from dangerous diseases, If we are in healthy manner we will develop ourselves and our country will also be in prosperous.

That’s why Indian Government introduced Swatch Bharat Programme and protect our people from dangerous diseases like Dengue, Swineflu, Zika, etc.,
Finally everyone will be habituate for cleanliness.

8th Class Social Studies 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What steps can be taken to prevent Malaria?
Answer:

1. Necessary preventive measures should be taken from mosquito bites.
2. We should use mosquito nets.
3. Creams like Odomos.
4. We should take care of drainage canals and small kuntas. Stagnated water should be dried.
5. The smoke of Neem and Tulasi sticks should be spread in houses during the evenings.
6. Water tanks should be cleaned once a month.
   With these, we can prevent malaria.

Question 2.
Why are children given food in the anganwadis? Do they get adequate food to eat in the anganwadis of your area? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh about 33% of children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight. This is due to hunger and malnutrition. So the government decided to feed these children through Anganwadis.

We have two Anganwadi Kendras in our village. They provide nutrition in a certain quantities like Soya powder, Soya granules, Chips etc., to the children below 5 years.

Question 3.
What problems did Kiran face in the Government Hospital? How do you think could the hospital could work in a better manner? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:

1. Kiran had to spend 3 hours standing in a queue for consultation.
2. Again he spent two hours for blood test.
3. He had to come on the second day for blood report by consultation.
4. He took week days to go to his school regularly.

These hospitals can work in a proper manner. They can create more facilities to the patients. Seating arrangements can be provided. The test reports also can be issued on the same day.

Question 4.
What problems do we face in private hospitals? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Problems in private hospitals:

1. We should pay more money here.
2. Medicines also cost very high.
3. Some may cause unnecessary tensions to the patient families.

Question 5.
Where do you go when you are ill? Are there any problems that you face? Write a paragraph based on your experience. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Once I suffered from Typhoid. My father is a Railway employee. He joined me in Railway hospital. I stayed there for 10 days. Several blood tests were done. They treated me well. But they never disclose the results of any report. The patients were given a hospital uniform. I didn’t like wearing this uniform. On the whole I hate that atmosphere.

Question 6.
Why do you think do people in the rural areas go to untrained practitioners, even though they know that they are not properly trained? Keep in mind the following aspects in discussion- trained doctors do not work in villages; people have faith in injection; treat on credit; accepts payments like grains or chicken. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
Even though they are untrained practioners, they treat small diseases like fever, cold, cough etc., well. Some may have undergone RMP training, some may have worked under a trained doctor. Many of the people have faith on injections. They call it as ‘Soodi Mandu’. Many practitioners take the benefit of this belief. The fee can be paid in instalments or in barter system. These practitioners help the rural people by introducing them to specialists in the time of need and urgency. Due to all these reasons, the medical practitioners are treated as small gods in villages.

Question 7.
In India about one lakh women die each year of complications from pregnancy, it was observed that poor maternal health and nutritional status and inappropriate management of labour during delivery were responsible for many of the deaths of children. Do you think that 104 and 108 services have made a difference to the above situation? Discuss. (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
I think 104 and 108 services have made a difference to the above situation.
Hiring an Ambulance from private is very expensive. But 108 reaches the patient within a short time, takes him/her to the nearest hospital by providing medical aid.
104 service creates awareness in the rural people. And they give medical assistance to needy people.

Question 8.
What should be available in every village as part of the public health system? (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
Asha worker, nutrition, immunisation facilities, weighing machine etc., should be available in every village as part of the public health system.

Question 9.
List some public health centres or hospitals near your place. From your experience (or by visiting any one of them) find out the facilities provided and people who run the centre. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
1. Government General Hospital. 2. Primary Health Care Centre.

Facilities:

1. Laboratory
2. UltraSound Scanning.
3. X-ray
4. Pharmacy etc.

Government employees run the centre.

Question 10.
Mark sentences that highlight the relationship between public health and expectations from the government. (Textbook Page No. 106)
Answer:
“Self exercise” – The student should identify the sentences from this chapter.

Question 11.
Is the water you drink at school clean? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:
Yes, the water at our school is clean. Our school is in Vijayawada Municipal Corporation. We have a water tank near our school. We get clean water from that tank. We clean our school tank once a month.

Question 12.
Private health services can mean many things. Explain with the help of some examples from your area. (Textbook Page No. 104)
Answer:
We live in Vijayawada. Many types of hospitals are presented here. Those are:

1. Multispeciality Hospitals: The treatment is available for all kinds of diseases.
   For e.g.: Ramesh Multispeciality Hospital.
2. Special Hospitals: The treatment here is related to some particular part/organ/body.
3. Private Hospitals: Those are our family hospitals. They treat us for normal diseases. For e.g.: Dr. Prakash’s Hospital.
4. Medical Centres: These are run by Medical Practitioners.
   For e.g.: M.B. Sarada Medical Centre.

Question 13.
Write a short note on the health facilities available in your village or town. What are the problems that people of your neighborhood face when they go to government/ private hospitals? (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
Ours is Tenali town. It is in Guntur district. Once here was only one doctor Dr. Sri- Buddhavarapu Krishna Rao. But we have many at present. The facilities in government hospital are a bit little than those in private hospitals.

More facilities are available in private hospitals. Here we have visited “Kanaka Durga Nursing Home”. The doctor is Buddhavarapu Satyanarayana, M.S. Ortho. This is in a single storeyed building. X-ray, blood test, medical shop – all facilities are available here. Sophisticated operation theatre is an asset to this hospital. The doctor is dedicated and service oriented. The premises is very neat and clean. The consultation fees is also in the reach of middle class ‘people. They render free service to the poor people.

The patients who approach government hospital are losing their valuable time. Corruption is also a curse on this department. The people who approach private hospitals are losing money.

Question 14.
Use the following questions to do a small survey on immunisation of children in your area (in five households having children under 2 years).
a. Do you have an immunization card for the child?
b. Did your child get a vaccine on the left arm that has left a mark? (Look for a scar if you can.)
c. Did your child get vaccination on the buttock?
d. Did your child get polio drops? How many times?
e. Did your child get a vaccination on the thigh at 9 months along with a spoon of medicine?
f. Did your child get any vaccination at 18 months of age (if the child is older than this)? Did she/ he get any medicine to drink also?
For each question, answer with Yes / No; No. of doses (where applicable); DK (for don’t know)/ NA (not applicable; for example, question ‘V will not be applicable if the baby is 1 year old). Discuss your results. (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
1) Family of Sai Kanaka Durga:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 4 times e) Yes f) Yes – Deepa – 4 years – Yes.

2) Family of Krishnarao & Durgamba:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 4 times e) Yes f) Yes – Babji – Age : 1 year Yes.

3) Family of Madhavarao & Rajya Lakshmi:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes 3 times e) Not applicable – Bobby – 6 months – Yes.

4) Rambabu & Subbha Lakshmi Family:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 2 times e) Yes f) Yes

5) Hanumantharao & Kameswari’s family:
a) Yes b) Yes c) Yes d) Yes, 5 times e) Yes f) Yes
After my sincere observation I came to a conclusion that all parents are caring for their children’s health.

Question 15.
The Aarogyasri scheme was started as a medical insurance scheme to white card holding families, for treatment that requires hospitalisation. The scheme covers very large number of illnesses and includes many private hospitals as providers. Discuss with some people in your neighbourhood and write a short note on the effectiveness of the scheme. (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
‘Aarogyasri’ scheme is really helpful to the poor people. Once my father joined in a private hospital. Then I noticed that many people had undergone free treatment. But at present many diseases are outlisted. So this is not useful to all in all times.

Question 16.
In your opinion, what is one most important improvement that should be made for the mid-day meal being served at your school? (Textbook Page No. 109)
Answer:
The quality of rice should be changed. Better quality should be maintained.

Question 17.
What are the reasons for doctors not accepting rural posting? (Textbook Page No. 101)
Answer:

1. Rural backwardness.
2. Lack of modern facilities.
3. More financial benefits are not available.
4. Lack of medical facilities.
5. Interest in private practice. These are the reasons behind it.

Question 18.
Why did Saritha have to spend so much money? Give reasons. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Soon after Saritha got viral fever, her father took her to a private hospital and got her tested.
The doctor recommended a number of blood tests and a chest X-ray. He also prescribed several medicines. She had to spend money for all these tests and medicines to get well soon. She became healthy within 3 days and went to school.

Question 19.
Most of the medical facilities in both the private and public sectors are located in urban areas. A study conducted during 2003 based on a sample survey in selected areas found that most of the qualified private doctors (79 per cent) were in the urban areas. The actual availability of doctors in rural areas, though officially posted in these areas, may be negligible, given the widespread prevalence of absenteeism. Discuss the reasons for this situation. Talk to people in your area about this problem and in what ways this be can tackled. (Textbook Page No. 108)
Answer:
Reasons:

1. Medical education is very costly.
2. The persons, who incur expenditure on studies, try to get back the same.
3. There is a rapid growth in urbanization.
4. All the facilities for treatment are cheap in cities and towns.

Transport facilities, housing facilities and drinking water facilities are nominal in the rural areas.
So these conditions arise.
This can be tackled by creating social awarness in the medical students. “Villages and villagers are the backbone of the nation”. This concept should be injected into their minds.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
i) Economic liberalisation        A) restriction in foreign import tax
ii) Arbitrary dismissal               B) of state governments by central government
iii) Ethnic cleansing                  C) towards people who are different from themselves
iv) Federal principle                 D) greater autonomy for state governments
Answer:
i) A
ii) B
iii) C
iv) D

Question 2.
Identify the major changes in party system during the second phase of Independence.
Answer:

1. The second phase of Independence is from 1977 to 2000.
2. There were many major changes in party system during the second phase of independence.
3. It prevented India from sliding into a single party democracy.
4. A new system of coalition governments are introduced at the central level.
5. Coalition succumbed to fractional struggles.
6. Parties acted in a manner which weakened federal principles.
7. From a time when the term regional party was considered not a very respectable one, now they are much sought after. The state parties also entered into national politics.
8. They form common front to resist the misuse of powers of Governor and arbitrary imposition of President’s rule.
9. They also demanded greater say in national-level decision making, greater financial autonomy and low interference in state matters.

Question 3.
What are the major economic policies discussed in this (chapter) and the previous chapters of various governments at the centre and the state? How are they similar or different?
Answer:
Similarities :

1. Green Revolution was implemented with the co-operation of state governments to increase food grain production.
2. Reservations which are announced by V.P. Singh government to OBC’s are already Implemented in South Indian States.

Differences:

Question 4.
How did regional aspirations lead to the formation of regional parties? Compare the similarities and differences between the two different phases.
Answer:
Regional aspirations have a major role in the formation of regional parties. We can show the following reasons to prove this.
The history of so many states like Andhra Pradesh, Assom shows that the emergence of new regional parties was mainly due to regional aspirations.

Andhra Pradesh:

1. The frequent change of Chief Ministers by the central congress leadership and imposition of leaders from above created a bad taste.
2. There was a feeling that the Andhra Pradesh leadership was not getting respect from the national congress leadership.
3. This was perceived as an insult to the pride of the Telugu people.

Assom:

1. From the British time, Bengalis occupied the lower and middle rungs of the administration in the state.
2. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equals but as second class citizens.
3. Not only this, Bangladesh people also migrated to Assom.
4. The local people felt that they would lose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the ‘outsiders’.

Punjab:

1. In Punjab the difference in language and religion of the dominant population became a point of mobilisation.
2. They also believed that the state had received an unfair bargain when it was created.
3. It laid claims to the new capital city of Chandigarh which remained a union territory directly administered by the centre.
4. Punjab also claimed more water from Bhakra Nangal dam and greater recruitment of Sikhs in the Army.

Question 5.
In order to form governments, it becomes necessary for political parties to attract people from different sections of society. How did different political parties raise these objectives in the
second phase after Independence?
Answer:

1. At the end of emergency Indira Gandhi removed censorship on freedom of movement, campaigns and meetings.
2. Janata Party promised freedom from authoritarian rule and restoration of democracy.
3. Telugu Desam Party promised sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor, mid-day meals in government schools and liquor prohibition.
4. Assam Gana Parishad promised to remove the outsiders i.e., Bengalis and migrants from Bangladesh.

Question 6.
What were the developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity? How is the ability to accommodate different communities and regional aspirations changing?
Answer:

1. There were a few developments that weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
2. After emergency the victorious Janata Party dismissed nine Congress governments in the states.
3. In 1980, when Congress came to power, it dismissed nine Janata governments in the states.
4. The actions of both these, weakened the inclusive nature of Indian polity.
5. The people of many states felt alienated and wanted either greater autonomy or decision making.
6. They demanded centre’s lower interfence in state matters, stopping the misuse of the powers of governor and imposition of President Rule arbitrarily.

Question 7.
How do different types of regional aspirations draw from cultural, and economic dimensions?
Answer:

1. In combined Andhra Pradesh, N.T.Ramarao set up Telugu Desam party and stood for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu speaking people.
2. State could not be treated as a lower office of the Congress party.
3. The Assamese speaking people felt that Bengali officialdom did not treat them as equal but as second class citizens.
4. The local people felt that they would loose their cultural roots and soon be out numbered by the outsiders.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of non-Assamese communities.
6. The major resources of state, including tea and oil were not benefitting the locals but people from Calcutta.
7. In Punjab, people asked for greater recruitment of Sikhs in the army.
8. They belive that the contribution of the state was ignored.
9. They laid claim to the new capital city of Chandigarh, which remained a union territory.

Question 8.
In the early half of India after independence there was importance given to planned development. In the later part emphasis was given to liberalisation. Discuss and find out how does it reflect political ideals.
Answer:

1. In the early half of India after independence Prime Minister was Nehru.
2. For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well.
3. He hoped that planning development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.
4. After that, Indira Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ and decimated the opposition.
5. She tried to achieve the goal of social and economic transformation.
6. In 1992, when P.V. Narasimha Rao formed Government faced a dearth of reserves of foreign currency due to political instability.
7. So he was forced to accept the policy of Economic liberalism.
8. It demanded cuts in subsidies, reduction in restrictions and taxes on import and this period faced still competition to India from global foreign industries.
9. Thus the above economic implications reflected the various political ideas discussed above.

Question 9.
Study newspapers and magazines to identify at least one example each of moderation in policies due to the coalition and how does different political parties in coalition emphasise their regional demands?
Answer:

1. United Progressive Alliance government, led by Congress brought Women Reservation Bill.
2. It was unable to make it pass, as it got stern opposition from partners of a coalition like Samajwadi Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal.
3. So under policy paralysis, though many times it was introduced, it had to be repeated.
4. Another such bill was Lok Pal, which was primarily aimed to bring all the rulers of state and centre to be brought under it.
5. But later due to the opposition from its coalition partners UPA let a number of dignatories outside its purview. The bill was passed.
6. It is an example of moderation in principles.

10th Class Social Studies 19th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 264

Question 1.
Write a brief summary of political events discussed about in the previous chapter on independent India.
Answer:

1. Congress party’s dominance in politics in first three general elections.
2. Planning Commission introduced five year plans to bring socio-ecohomic change in the country.
3. Land reforms, agriculture cooperatives and local self governments served the purpose.
4. First challenge was demand for reorganisation of states on the basis of language.
5. Have to face few wars with Pakistan and China.
6. Green Revolution marked substantial growth in food production.
7. There was a tendency of regional movements and regional parties.
8. This phase ended with the imposition of emergency.
9. Panchsheel Treaty was held between India and China.
10. India followed Non-alignment policy.
11. Meghalaya state was formed in 1969.
12. Indo-Pak war was held in 1971 on the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
13. In 1973 Arab-lsraeli was raised oil prices, and increased inflation in India.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 265

Question 2.
Do you think ‘single party democracy’ would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy ?
Answer:

1. I don’t think single-party democracy would have been a better alternative to multi-party democracy.
2. Single Party keeps on winning takes decisions which are arbitrary and not in compliance with Constitution.
3. They may become authoritarian and overpower the democratic system, itself.
4. There was a greater threat to civil liberties and freedoms in single-party democracies.

Question 3.
In what ways does a multi-party democracy create favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change?
Answer:

1. A multi-party democracy creates favourable conditions for social movements of protest and change.
2. JP movement supported the restoration of democracy and freedom from authoritarian rule got support from Janata Party.
3. Anti-outsiders movement for change got support from Assam Gana Parishad.
4. The movement for autonomy in Punjab was supported by Shiromani Akali Dal.
5. Political viewpoints of Socialists, Hindu nationalists, Communists, as well as sectional interests like those of farmers, Dalits, backward castes, and regions among others now came to the fore ‘ and asserted their claims.
6. A number of non-political movements like environmental movements, the feminist movements, civil liberties movements, literacy movements and so on also emerged and became powerful motors of social change.
7. Protects against the constructions of dams, nuclear power projects, etc.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 267

Question 4.
There have been many instances in which governments at centre removed governments at the state, if they are from different political parties. Discuss how does it violate democratic principles.
Answer:

1. There have been many instances in which government at the centre removed governments at state, if they are from different political parties.
2. It completely violates the democratic principles.
3. When there is a majority government functioning in the state it is not fair to dismiss it.
4. Government at the centre misuses the powers of governors and Article 356.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 268

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of the following factors in the politics of NTR:
i. Background of being a filgi hero.
ii. Fight for self-respect of the state.
iii. Popular welfare schemes for the poor.
iv. Alliance with other regional parties.
Answer:

1. NTR was a popular film actor with nearly 300 movies to his credit.
2. He had vast following and fan base.
3. Congress leadership at the centre frequently changing Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh, people believed not getting respect.
4. He stood for the honour and self rgspect of Telugu speaking people and started Telugu Desam Party.
5. He promised mid-day meal scheme in government schools, sale of rice at ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
6. In his struggle against arbitrary dismissal he was supported by CPI(M), DMK, SAD and National Conference.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 270

Question 6.
In what ways do you think the Assom movement is similar or different from the movement of NTR in Andhra Pradesh ?
Answer:

1. Both the movements are of regional nature.
2. Both the movements set up political parties.
3. Both of them secured political power.
4. Movement of NTR stood for the honour and self respect of Telugu speaking people.
5. Whereas movement in Assom is against Bengalis officialdom and outsiders influx.
6. NTR promised welfare measures such as midday meal scheme in schools, sale of rice ₹ 2 per kg to the poor and liquor prohibition.
7. In Assom,- the movement paved the way for many such movements and even to ethnic cleansing.

Question 7.
Organise a debate in your class on the following themes:
Only one community should live in a region and all posts and trade-business should be in the hands of the people of that specific community only. (OR) All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in places of their choice.
Answer:

1. All people of India should be free to move from one part to another and settle and work in place of their choice.
2. Constitution guarantees us the above right.
3. There were nearly 6,748 castes in India.
4. Organise only one community in a region is almost impossible.
5. All posts and trade business cannot be taken up by same community.
6. India fs a country which has unity in diversity and diversity in unity.

Question 8.
Will an open policy of free movement of people cause rich and powerful outsiders to buy up all land and resources and leave the original people of a locality poor and impoverished ?
Answer:

1. Open policy of free movement may cause some rich and powerful outsiders to buy land and own resources.
2. Original people of a locality may also have some native people who are rich and powerful.
3. So it does never happen that outsiders leave original people of a locality poor and impoverished.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 272

Question 9.
What was the role of anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 in fuelling Sikh separatism and extremism?
Answer:

1. 4 thousand Sikhs were killed and state government seemed to do little to stop the violence.
2. To apprehend and punish the guilt also took many years.
3. This created anguish and anger among the Sikhs.
4. Militant Sikhs killed Longoyyal, who made agreement with centre.
5. Akal Takht made declaration of Khalistan.
6. Several groups engaged in terrorist activities for separate state.
7. This anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984 fuelled Sikh separation and extremism.

Question 10.
Compare the similarities and differences between Assam and Punjab movements. What kind of challenge did they pose to our political system ?
Answer:

1. Assam movement was first anti-outsiders movement then transformed into anti-Bengali, anti¬left and anti-non-Assamese movement and even anti-India stand.
2. It did not subside, even led to ethnic cleansing.
3. Punjab movement went into the hands of militant Sikhs.
4. Anti-Sikh riots and after effected culminated the movement into extremist way.
5. These two movements needed army to restore peace.
6. Military powers were used and civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. They posed a great threat to our unity and integrity.

Question 11.
The way the government handled the two problems, did it strengthen our democratic polity or weaken it ?
Answer:

1. The way the government handled the two problems, it did not strengthen our democratic polity, it weakens it.
2. Government used very harsh methods for the suppression of militancy in Punjab.
3. There were thousands of suspected militants executed.
4. Many were disappeared in police custody.
5. In Assam also army was deployed to reduce tension and bring peace.
6. Civil liberties and freedoms were suspended.
7. Government resorted to undemocratic methods to survive democracy.
8. It would strengthen undemocratic tendencies in the polity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 273

Question 12.
Looking back from the present, what do you think were the lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country ?
Answer:

1. There were many lasting contributions of Rajiv Gandhi to the country.
2. He was instrumental in initiating peace process in Assam, Punjab and even in Sri Lanka.
3. He was the best supporter of Panchayat Raj institutions.
4. His government’s first budget moved towards more liberalised system.
5. He invited telecom revolution in India.
6. He believed poor are not successful in getting access to the fruits of development.

Question 13.
Discuss in your class why the poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them. What long-term steps should be taken to ensure that such benefits really reach the poor ?
Answer:

1. The poorest people often do not get to benefit from schemes intended for them.
2. Despite huge increases in development expenditure, the story of the poor remained the same.
3. They have no access to the schemes or knowledge of them.
4. There exists inbuilt corruption at higher level.
5. Participation of mass in governance is very low.
6. So Panchayat Raj Institutions were introduced.
7. Right Information Act was made available.
8. Whistle blowers were given complete protection.

Question 14.
Find out and list all the benefits students of your school are entitled to. Do they manage to get them properly? Discuss in both the class and outside the school in your homes or playground.
Answer:
Benefits of our school:

1. Free textbooks
2. Free uniform
3. Library facility
4. Play ground facility
5. Lab facilities
6. Mid-day meals.

They do manage to get them properly.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 274

Question 15.
Read the following and answer the given questions.

The Prime Ministers Apology

Dr. Manmohan Singh’s statement in the Rajya Sabha
… Four thousand people were killed in this great national tragedy that took place in 1984. This should be an occasion for introspection, how working together as a united nation, we can find new pathways to ensure that such ghastly tragedies never again take place in our country. … / have no hesitation in apologising not only to the Sikh community but the whole Indian nation because what took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our Constitution. So, I am not standing on any false prestige. On behalf of our Government, on behalf of the entire people of this country, I bow my head in shame that such a thing took place. But, Sir, there are ebbs, there are tides in the affairs of nations. The past is with us. We cannot rewrite the past. But as human beings, we have the willpower and we have the ability to write better future for all of us….

a) What is the most important message in this speech?
Answer:
Prime Minister apologises for what happened to Sikhs in 1984.
b) What signals does this speech send out?
Answer:
The speech sends out the signals such tragedies could never repeat, we can make our future better by letting this behind us.
c) Why is it important that the Prime Minister made this speech?
Answer:
What took place in 1984 is the negation of the concept of nationhood and what is enshrined in our constitution. So it is important that Prime Minister made this speech.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 276

Question 16.
While some people feel that coalition politics has weakened the government others feel that it has prevented any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country. Discuss this with examples.
Answer:

1. It became mere impossible for any single party to win a majority of the seats to form government on its own.
2. No party could pursue its extreme agendas and tone down their approaches.
3. Early coalitions were instable.
4. Now coalitions are getting re-elected.
5. So keeping ail in the view coalitions are must.
6. They are preventing any party from steamrolling its agenda on the country.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 277

Question 17.
Compare the land reforms in West Bengal and the land reforms in Vietnam or China. In what ways were they similar or different ?
Answer:
Land Reforms in China: The major steps in land reforms were a class identification of all village inhabitants, followed by the confiscation and redistribution of landlord land and other properties. Land Reforms in Vietnam : A reduction of 25% in land rents, the cancellation of all secondary rents and the cancellation of all areas in rent owed by tenants before August, 1945.

Land Reforms in West Bengal: Operation Barga was introduced. West Bengal Government recorded the names of the sharecroppers and secured their rights. All the legal documents were issued and distributed on the spot immediately. As a result the sharecroppers felt secured.
In all the three issues the governments created a security feeling in the winds of the tenants. They controlled the inhumane acts of the landlords.

Question 18.
Why do you think the protection of sharecroppers led to an increase in production?
Answer:
As a result of Operation Barga, the landlords were largely prevented from forcibly throwing the bargadars off the land. In fact, the bargadar rights were made hereditary and thus perpetual. Secondly, the State guaranteed that the bargadars would receive a fair share of the crop (75 per cent if the bargadar provided the non-labour inputs and 50 per cent if the landlord provides those inputs). In all, approximately half of rural households in West Bengal have received land reform benefits.
As a result of these measures, agricultural production in West Bengal had increased.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) Textbook Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Identify statements or statements in the bracket that are relevant to statements in italics on left.
(a) Political equality can be identified with (right to get admission in any school, principle of one person one vote, right to enter any religious worship place)
Answer:
Political equality can be identified with the principle of one person one vote.

(b) Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant (allowing all people to vote for any political party, allowing all people to vote in elections, allowing all people to vote for Congress party)
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise in the Indian context meant both allowing all people to vote for any political party and allowing all people to vote in elections.

(c) Congress dominance would include (being able to attract people from various ideologies; being able to win most states assembly seats after elections; being able to use police force during election)
Answer:
Congress dominance would include being able to win most states assembly seats after elections.

(d) Emergency imposed (restrictions on people’s rights; ensured eradication of poverty; accepted by all political parties)
Answer:
Emergency imposed restrictions on people’s rights.

Question 2.
What measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence?
Answer:

1. Many measures were taken to bring in socio-economic change during the initial years after independence.
2. The Planning Commission was set up.
3. The Fifst five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
4. The components of socio-economic change were
   a) land reforms b) agriculture cooperatives c) local self-government.
5. Planners felt that it was essential to develop industries and increase employment in service sectors.
6. In Second Five Year Plan focus shifted to industries.
7. Three types of land reforms were contemplated.
   a) Abolition of Zamindari System,
   b) Tenancy reforms and land ceilings.
8. Co-operatives were to bring economies of scale and also provide valuable inputs.
9. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and Industrial sectors.

Question 3.
What do you understand about one party dominance? Would you consider it as dominance only in elections ot also in terms of ideology? Discuss with reasons.
Answer:
One party dominance means the party not only win in elections either in state or in central, but also it has in term of ideology. Due to the following reason.
Internally, the Congress party has small groups. This is the benefit to the Congress party. Because the groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. This also acts as an inbuilt corrective mechanism with in the ruling party.

Question 4.
Language became a central rallying point Hi Indian politics on many occasions, either as a unifying force or as a divisive element. Identify these instances and describe them.
Answer:
Language as a unifying force:

1. The northern states have accepted Hindi as the national language.
2. They have their own mother tongues but they have no problem jn accommodating Hindi.
3. There is a common uniformity upto some extent in the north which has been brought about , by Hindi.

Language as a divisive element:

1. The official Languages Act was passed in 1963.
2. It made Hindi as the national language.
3. The DMK party of Tamilnadu believed that it wps an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
4. Strikes, dharnas and hartals started all over the state.
5. The Congress itself was divided between the pro-Hindi and anti-Hindi camps.
6. Some felt that the unity of the country was at stake.
7. Telugu, Kannada, Marathi and Gujarathi languages speaking people started a movement for separate states on the basis of their language.

Question 5.
What were the major changes in political system after 1967 elections?
Answer:

1. There were many major changes in political system after 1967 elections.
2. Elections had become to be taken seriously arid had life of their own.
3. Democracy had taken roots in India.and country was moving towards a competitive multi¬party system.
4. There were basically a coalition of legislators against the Congress in many states.
5. Intermediate caste, who had first benefited from land reforms gained political power.
6. Many of the coalition of legislators were marked by defection and corruption.
7. This period saw a renewal of a regional sentiment in different parts of the country.
8. This was also a period of communal tension.

Question 6.
Think of other ways in which states could have been created and how would they be better than language based reorganization?
Answer:

1. In India state reorganisation was done on the basis of linguistic principle.
2. Other ways in which we could form states may be culture, ethnicity and economy.
3. But history provides proof that even nations could not survive on cultural, ethnicity and economy bases.
4. Nationalist movement leaders accepted the principle of territorial organisation of the country on a linguistic basis.
5. The diverse elements of Indian culture are chiefly represented by the languages of India.
6. So no other basis of reorganisation would not have fared better than linguistic reorganisation.

Question 7.
What measures of Indira Gandhi are called ‘left turn’? How do you think this was different from policies of previous decades? Based on your economics chapters describe how it is different from the current policies.
Answer:

1. Immediately after the victory in 1971 Bangladesh War, using Indira Gandhi’s popular slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ the Congress won with record majority in 1971 general elections.
2. In the legislative assembly elections held subsequently in 1972, Congress did well.
3. She then had control over both the party as well as the Parliament.
4. She nationalised banks, abolished princely pensions which were challenged in courts.
5. Constitution was being amended rapidly in the name of socio-economic change, feared the Supreme Court.
6. This was called ‘Left turn’.
7. In 1973, oil prices rose to an all time high, rise in prices, scarcity of food, and unemployment increased.
8. Current policies are different from them.
9. Government is encouraging private banking and non-banking finance corporations, reducing subsidies, etc.

Question 8.
In what ways was the Emergency period a set back to the Indian democracy?
Answer:
On 25th June 1975, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi imposed an Emergency in the country. Due to this Emergency –

1. General Elections were postponed.
2. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended.
3. The press was censored.
4. Most of political opponents were imprisoned.
5. Demolition of slums and forced sterilisation on the name of population control became very unpopular.
6. In the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.
7. Thus, the Emergency period was a setback to the Indian democracy.

Question 9.
What were the institutional changes that came up after the Emergency?
Answer:

1. With this emergency, democracy was put on hold.
2. Many fundamental rights were suspended.
3. There were instances of detention and torture beyond mere violation of civil liberties.
4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment brought about a series of changes
   a) Excluding the courts from election disputes,
   b) Strengthening the central government vis-a-vis the state governments.
5. Other changes were c) Protection from judiciary challenges to socio-economic legislations, d) Made judiciary subservient to Parliament.
6. These weakened the democratic fabric of this country.

10th Class Social Studies 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 248

Question 1.
In your opinion have we been able to achieve social equality: think of instances that you would identify as examples of social equality and inequality.
Answer:

1. We have not been able to achieve social equality.
2. Our social structure continues to deny us the principle of one man one value.
3. Caste system interrelated economic structure is never allowing us the achievement of social equality.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 249

Question 2.
How do you think illiteracy affects elections, especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting? How do you think this problem can be solved? (OR)
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy in the conduct of the first General Election in India.
Answer:

1. Illiteracy causes difficulty in elections especially when it comes to exercising the choice of voting.
2. They cannot read the name in the Ballot paper, to whom he/she wishes to vote.
3. This problem was solved by the Election Commission initially by sticking the symbol outside the Ballot box separately.
4. Again it allotted symbols of daily life for every contestant for visual identification of the voter.
5. We can also print his photo against his name.

Question 3.
Could we have considered that our country was democratic if all people did not have voting rights?
Answer:

1. We could not have considered that our country was democratic if all the people did not have voting rights.
2. All eligible people shall be given franchise and elections at definite intervals are the tenets of democracy.
3. If Universal Adult Franchise was not accepted, then we cannot say ourselves as a democracy.

Question 4.
Given the literacy rate of tyomen being low, if women were not allowed to vote bow would it affect our policies?
Answer:

1. Literacy rate of women was low.
2. They were not given right to vote.
3. Then our policies will not do justice to them.
4. Their requirements and difficulties will not be known to us.
5. We cannot prepare the bills that suit their needs.

Question 5.
Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish democracy. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Being able to conduct regular elections can be considered a clear sign of being able to establish Democracy.
2. I do agree with this statement.

Reasons:

1. Indian democracy rests on the idea of representation.
2. Every adult citizen of above 18 years is given the right to vote regardless of education, property
   and gender.
3. Elections are held periodically to the various representative institutions of a democratic state at three different levels (The centre, the state and the local levels) to facilitate effective functioning.
4. Any registered voter who completed 25 years can contest for elections t6 the Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha.
5. Entire country or state is divided into territorial units called constituencies.
6. The work of conducting election to the Parliament and Legislature is entrusted to the Election Commission.
7. The procedure for elections is laid down in the Representation of People’s Act.
8. Elections are therefore held in a free and fair manner.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 251

Question 6.
Summarise the features that could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.
Answer:

1. In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress won, reducing other participants to almost nothing.
2. The Congress consistently won over 70% of seats by obtaining about 45% of the total votes cast.
3. The Congress formed the government in many states as well.
4. The opposition parties only posed a latent and not a real threat.
5. The above features could explain the Congress was able to dominate the political system.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 253

Question 7.
Do you think unity nf India wou|d have been better served if linguistic states were not formed?
Answer:

1. I don’t think that the unity of India would have been better without linguistic states.
2. Language unites people and it represents the diverse elements of our culture.
3. There was popular will for linguistic states.
4. Leaders of national movement also accepted linguistic states.
5. Moreover, now these states are of great help in consolidating India.

Question 8.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at this time?
Answer:

1. When linguistic states were formed dominant languages were considered.
2. Tribal languages were not considered. Tribal language have no script.
3. Because the population of these tribal language users is very less and sparsely spread.
4. Apart from this there was popular will.
5. People of dominant languages demanded seperate states.

Question 9.
Do you know how many states and union territories are there in India today?
Answer:
Today, in India there are 29 states and 7 union territories.

Question 10.
Which are the newest states of India and when were they created?
Answer:

1. The newest states of India are
   1. Chhattisgarh
   2. Jharkhand
   3. Uttarakhand
   4. Telangana.
2. Chattisgarh, the 26th state of India was carved out of Madhya Pradesh on Nov. 1, 2000.
3. Uttaranchal, the 27th state of India was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on Nov. 9,2000.
4. Later it had changed;its name to be Uttarakhand.
5. Jharkhand, the 28th state of India was carved of Bihar on November 15, 2000.
6. Telangana, the 29th state of India was formed on 2nd June, 2014.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 255

Question 11.
If you live in a rural area, find out if institutions like cooperatives were established before 1970’s and who became members in it?
Answer:

1. In rural areas there were institutions like cooperatives.
2. Important among them were Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies.
3. Farmers who are practising agriculture were joined as members in it.

Question 12.
Compare the land reforms carried out in India with that of China or Vietnam.
Answer:

1. Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner in India.
2. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. Whereas land reforms were implemented in China and Vietnam in a whole-hearted manner.
4. They were able to redistribute the land to the landless.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 256

Question 13.
How did the language policy help foster national unity and integrity?
Answer:

1. The language policy states the right of each state to have a language of its own (which could be the regional language or English).
2. Communications in states could be in regional languages with English translations.
3. English would continue to be the communication language between the centre and the states.
4. Civil Service Examinations would be conducted in English rather than in Hindi alone.
5. With these all provisions, no state has a problem with the centre, so promoted national unity and integrity.

Question 14.
Is there a need for a national language ?
Answer:
Yes, there is a need for national language to achieve national integrity.

1. We are such a vast country with many regional languages.
2. Language policy is of help in fostering national unity and integrity.

Question 15.
Should all languages in India have equal status ? Reflect.
Answer:

1. In India there are as many as 1,652 languages.
2. All languages in India don’t have equal status.
3. Indian Constitution recognises 22 languages as statutory.
4. Many languages have no script.
5. Some tribal languages were neglected. Ex : Oravan.
6. Many languages were spoken by few people.
7. Taking all things into consideration it will be difficult to accord equal status to all languages.
8. According to the Constitution, the citizens have right to protect their language and culture.
9. If they provide equal status to all languages, we should protect integrity and unity of our country.

(OR)

1. Yes, all languages should be accorded equal status.
2. No regional language should be ignored.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Ideas of Development.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State reason for protesting against the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Kudankulam people have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
2. They also want their coast and country protected from the radio active peril.

Question 2.
Why did the people oppose the establishment of Kudankulam Nuclear Power project in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
On the grounds of safety, security and livelihood, the people protested against the project.
(OR)
To protect their cost from radio active peril people opposed it.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.
Answer:

a) Which two countries have more average schooling years?
Answer:
Norway, America.

b) Which two Asian countries have better HDI rank than that of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, China.

c) Which countries are lacking behind to the average life expectancy of World?
Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Pakistan.

d) What are the reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for having less average schooling in India, Bangladesh and Pakistan are

1. Poverty,
2. More rural population,
3. No awareness with regard to literacy.

Question 4.
In the context of development, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. Give one example for this.
Answer:
Example – 1: To get more electricity industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people such as the tribals who are dis-placed.
Example – 2: A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. But brother may not like this.

Question 5.
What idea is the poster promoting?

Answer:
Importance of Education.

Question 6.
State any two goals of development other than income.
Answer:
Equal treatment, freedom, security and respect from others.

Question 7.
What is HDI?
Answer:
The index developed for comparing coun¬tries for measuring human development is called HDI (Human Development Index). It generally includes income, educational levels and health status of the people.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is “the total income of the country divided by its total population”.

Question 9.
Expand IMR.
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate.

Question 10.
Which organization publishes HDR?
Answer:
UNDP publishes Human Development Report.

Question 11.
What is the main criteria for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
The main criteria for comparing the development of different countries are per capita income, life expectancy, average years of schooling, expected years of schooling, etc.

Question 12.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of couple soundness – physical and mental.

Question 13.
Why do people look at a mix of goals?
Answer:
People look at a mix of goals for development.

Question 14.
Why are dams opposed?
Answer:
Dams are opposed because they will disrupt the lives of the people and submerge their own lands.

Question 15.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the homes are economically independent and self¬confident.

Question 16.
What is adult literacy rate?
Answer:
The rate of percentage of people aged 15 and above, who can understand, read and write a short and simple statement in their regional languages is known as adult literacy rate.

Question 17.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:
Average income is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries.

Question 18.
Explain the calculation of BMI.
Answer:
BMI can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 19.
What is educational development?
Answer:
Education attained by the people of a country on an average basis is referred as educational development.

Question 20.
What isthe percentage of population living in the rural India?
Answer:
70% of the Indian population is living in rural India.

Question 21.
What is Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
The rate at which children in a country die within an age of 0-1 year is known as “Infant Mortality Rate.”

Question 22.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors of production.
Technology is also added to the factors of production.

Question 23.
How is the standard of living measured?
Answer:
Standard of living is measured by real GDP per capita.

Question 24.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle.

Question 25.
What is PDS?
Answer:
PDS is a system to distribute ration to the poor at a reasonable rate through govern¬ment ration shops. PDS – Public Distribution System.

Question 26.
A girl from a rich urban family has some development goals for her. State any one such goal.
Answer:
She can get as much freedom as a boy has.

Question 27.
Write any one advantage of public facilities.
Answer:
It develops national feelings and a sense of collective responsibility. Reduces expenditure.

Question 28.
What is NAR?
Answer:
Net Attendance Rate: Out of the total num¬ber of children in age group 6-17, the per¬centage of children attending schools.

Question 29.
Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing coun¬tries?
Answer:
Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing countries.

Question 30.
Which is not a useful measure for comparison between countries?
Answer:
Total income is not such a useful measure for comparison between countries.

Question 31.
What are called developed countries?
Answer:
The rich countries, excluding countries of West Asia and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.

Question 32.
Why, in some areas, children, particularly girls are not able to achieve secondary level schooling?
Answer:
Due to social restrictions imposed on girl child i.e., gender bias.

Question 33.
Why have some states lesser Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Some states have a lesser Infant Mortality Rate because they have adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 34.
What is the major consideration of Himachali women?
Answer:
One major consideration is that many Himachali women are themselves employed outside the home and hence show lesser gender bias.

Question 35.
How are the women who work outside the homes?
Answer:
Women who work outside the home are economically independent and self-confident.

10th Class Social 1st Lesson India: Relief Features 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you learn from the schooling revolution in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government and the people of Himachal Pradesh were keen on education.
2. They started many schools.
3. They made sure that education was largely free.
4. They allocated a good share to education in the government budget.
5. They tried to ensure that the schools had all the facilities.
6. Most of the students enjoy their schooling experience.

Question 2.
People generally do not like to work in unorganised sector. Why?
Answer:

1. Unorganised sector is largely outside the control of the government.
2. Rules and regulations are often not followed.
3. Jobs are not regular.
4. Jobs are low paid.
5. It is difficult to avail the leaves.
6. No provision for paid leave.
7. Job is not secure.
8. Working conditions are generally poor.
9. No safety measures followed in work places.
10. Health hazards would be there.
11. No insurance
12. No welfare schemes.

Question 3.
Give examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development.
Answer:
The examples of the criterion for the measurement of human development:

1. Per capita income
2. The education levels of people and health status.
3. Standard of life of the people
4. Availability of electricity
5. Transportation
6. Sanitation facilities
7. Expected years of schooling
8. Average years of schooling, etc.
   Ex: Sri Lanka, one of our neighbours is much ahead of India in every respect.

Question 4.
What are the different indicators in which development is measured? Which one do you agree with ?
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling 4) Expected years of schooling
4. Life expectancy at birth 6) Health status
5. Employment status 8) Equal distribution
6. I agree with all the above things because those are useful for measuring the complete development.

Question 5.
Give examples for different persons can have different developmental goals.
Answer:

Question 6.
What do the people desire other than income?
Answer:
People desire the following other than income.

1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
4. Respect from others.

Question 7.
Prepare a pamphlet on making mahila mandals active in villages.
Answer:
Mahila Mandals are voluntary service organizations that work for the betterment of women in the villages of India. To better their life the village women should have their say in the active involvement of Mahila Mandals’ activities. Active Mahila Mandals can be found In many villages. Suggestions to make Mahila Mandals active in the villages:

• First priority should be given to girl education and to eradicate illiteracy.
• Vocational training and credit facilities to women for self-employment should be provided.
• Mahila Mandals should collectively work for the betterment of women who need nutrition, education and family welfare.
• They should help the women in immunization of children, small savings, provision of bathrooms, women crafts centres and balwadis.
• They should work towards the elimination of discrimination, inequality, intolerance, and violence-both, within and outside the home.
• They should have comparatively high involvement in social life and village politics.

The government should provide basic equipment and stationery, etc. to the Mahila Mandals. It should create awareness among women regarding the Mahila Mandals.

Women empowerment leads to a strong nation.

Copies: 2000

Surya Printers.

Question 8.
What is Development ? Why do different people have different developemntal goals? Explain with two Examples.
Answer:
Meaning of Development:

1. Growth plus change is called development. .
2. All the persons may not have the same notion of development or progress.
3. Each one of them seeks different things.
   Examples:
   i) A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
   ii) To get more electricity, industrialists, may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced as the tribals.

Question 9.
Create a few slogans on promoting girl education.
Answer:

1. Girl with education – helpful to the family.
2. Educate a girl – she educates a family.
3. Encourage girl education – save the nation.
4. An educated girl – serves the nation well.
   (Students can sit together and discuss to prepare a few slogans of their own.)

Question 10.
Observe the following table and prepare a paragraph on it.
Answer:
Progress in Himachal Pradesh
The comparison across two different years is indicative of development that has happened. Clearly, there has been greater development in schooling and spread of education in Himachal Pradesh than India as a whole. Though there is still a lot of difference in the average levels of education among boys and girls, i.e., across genders, there has been some progress towards greater equal¬ity in the recent years.

Question 11.
Why was it necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The rich children can get the education in private sector schools. But the majority of Indian chil¬dren are enrolled in the government schools. Education has also been made free for children from 6 to 14 years of age or up to VIII class under the R.T.E. Act 2009. So, it was necessary for government to run schools in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 12.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. Human development focuses on the people.
2. It is concerned with the well-being of the people, their needs, choices and aspirations. All these help in building a right kind of society.
3. It is all about the enlarging or widening the choices for the people. It is the building of human capabilities, such as education, information and knowledge, to have opportunities of livelihood.
4. Human development focuses on the expansion of basic choices.

Question 13.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:

1. Even though per capita income is high in many states, education and health facilities are still lacking.
2. Money or high per capita income cannot buy a pollution-free environment or good health.
3. Money cannot buy peace and democracy.

10th Class Social 2nd Lesson Ideas of Development 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the following table and answer the questions that given below.
(a) What do you mean by literacy rate?
Answer:
The number of literates per every 100 persons in the population is known as literacy rate.

(b) In which state the net attendance is highest?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

(c) What could be the reason for the highest, Literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. Both the government of Himachal Pradesh and the people of the state were keen on education.
2. The government started schools and made sure that education was largely free, or costs very little for parents.
3. Further, it tried to ensure that these schools had at least the minimum facilities of teach¬ers, classrooms, toilets, drinking water, etc.

(d) In which state the IMR is least?
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph :
“In many parts of the country, girls’ are still given less priority by parents compared to boys.”
Comment on the gender bias in India.
Answer:

1. Ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Female literacy rate is low.
3. Women who work outside their homes are less in number.
4. Traditionally, in our society, women have less involvement in social life.
5. Because of all these reasons, gender bias is still continuing.
6. This is a hurdle for the development of society.
7. Boys and girls should be treated equally.

Question 3.
“We should be able to integrate environmental concerns with the idea of progress”. Explain.
Answer:

1. We must show concern on environmental issues while achieving development.
2. The environmental source function will deplete while using the sources in a speedy way.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit, it will cause long-term damage to the environment.
4. The big projects may harm bio-diversity.
5. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in modern agriculture leads to a big loss to the environment.
6. The fuel used as a part of industrial development causes a lot of air pollution.
7. Ground water levels are being depleted.
8. Deforestation is being occurred.
9. The rights of low-income countries, future generations also should be viewed.

Question 4.
Plot the below information on a bar graph. Write your observation.

Answer:
Observation:
As Himachal Pradesh has high literacy rate, it can be considered as developed state.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by the parents as compared to boys’ education. While girls may study for a few years, they may not complete their schooling.
Answer:
According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country and the second one is only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
My opinion on these two issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many places. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study in a school.
He hopes his daughter becomes a professional. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools irrespective of their income and status. It shows their interest. A little bit fear about girls is there among them because of other reasons. They are afraid of the safety of their daughters. Just like in Himachal Pradesh other states are also spending much amount on education and schooling. It is accepted that the Himachal Pradesh state has taken the step earlier. I don’t say that other states are not taking steps to improve the conditions of schools for providing good education for the girls.
It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admit in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls in schools.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

1. Which country stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI ?
   Answer:
   The country Sri Lanka stands ahead of India in all aspects in HDI.
2. Mention the aspects that are considered in making Human Development Index.
   Answer:
   1. Percapita income
   2. Literacy Rate
   3. Average years of schooling
   4. Expected years of schooling
   5. Life expectancy at birth
   6. Health status, etc. are the aspects considered in making Human Development Index.
3. Name the country that has the lowest per capita income.
   Answer:
   The country Nepal has the lowest per capita income.
4. Give two suggestions for the improvement of the rank of India in HDI.
   Answer:
   1. Education should be improved and more skill development centres should be established.
   2. The poor and needy people should be provided cheap and better health facilities.

Question 7.
Observe the given table and analyse the HDI data of India and its neighbours.
Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2016

Answer:
The given table is about Human Development data of India and some of the neighbouring countries pertaining to 2016. In this table per capita income in dollars, life expectancy at birth and literacy rate are considered and HDI Ranking is given. In per capita income Sri Lanka stands high and in the same of life expectancy but in literacy Myanmar is better than Srilanka. Pakistan is very poor in literacy rate and so Bangladesh. These countries do not show interest on literacy. In over all ranking Srilanka stands well, Pakistan’s ranking is least. Countries should concentrate on what (the people need proper medication, medical facilities to the poorer people, wide availabiltiy of
104,108 services are essential in rural areas. In Telangana to some extent these services are provided. Each one teach one programme is to be maintained so that all people will be literated. Schooling should be strengthened. Per capita income should be spent on Health facilities and education. Priorities are to be set first and proper planning for its implementation is essential. So that countries can be developed.

Question 8.
Read the text and interpret it.
The ongoing protest over the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project in theTirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu is one such conflict. The government of India set up the nuclear power plant in this quiet coastal town of fisher folks. The aim is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the country. The people in the region have protested on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
Answer:

1. The Government of India is going on with the Nuclear Power Project of the Kundankulum.
2. The aim of the project is to generate nuclear power to meet the growing energy needs of the people.
3. The fisher folks of this area are protesting against the project on the grounds of safety, security and livelihood.
4. Hence the ideas on development are different for different people.
5. Development for one may not be the development for other.
6. Here the ideas on development of government is conflicting with the interests of the local people.

Question 9.
Read the following text and state your opinion on it.

Human Development Report

When we realise that even though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita Income.

Answer:

1. The income is not the correct criteria to measure the level of development.
2. Most of the time it hides disparities.
3. So we begin to think of another criterion.
4. There could be a long list of criteria.
5. We selected some such as “health and education”.
6. Health and Education indicators were used to compare Punjab and Kerala.
7. Human Development Report was published by UNDP.
8. The countries were compared on the basis of the education levels of the people, health status and per capita income.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
If you get a job in afar off place, you would try to consider many factors, apart from income.
This could be facilities for your family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph, people give preference to income as well as facilities.
2. They also want to spend time with their families.
3. They need job security and freedom. It is not possible in all the cases.
4. Many workers from India are migrating even to foreign countries for getting work so as to earn something for their livelihoods.
5. Some people are working in cities like Hyderabad by keeping their families at their hometowns.
6. They are losing the opportunity of spending their time with their families. Their living conditions are also not good.
7. Many of them are leading sedentary life. In some cases pay is less but job is secure. In some other cases payment may be high but job security is not there.
8. Whatever it is, I am coming to the conclusion that there are many factors that affect livelihoods.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
When we looked at Individual aspirations and goals, we found that people not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect of others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. In mind. Similarly, when we think of a nation or a region, we may, besides average income, think of other equally important attributes.
Answer:

1. This paragraph is about the aspirations and goals of the individuals.
2. The people want their income and they want to be treated well.
3. Though the wages are well and good, they don’t want to be ill-treated.
4. Everyone in the society wants to live with dignity which our Constitution promises.
5. Many of the labourers are now looking towards prestige.
6. Some states in our country are getting more per capita income but they are lacking in providing other facilities to the people.
7. Nowadays schooling is very importing to its children.
8. For nations and states the literacy rate, net attendance rate, infant mortality rate are also considered in its development.
9. They have to provide schools, pollution-free atmosphere, unadulterated medicines, to its people for better living.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
In many parts of the country, girls’ education is still given less priority by parents compared to
boys’ education. While girls may study for a few classes, they may not complete their schooling.
A welcome trend in Himachal Pradesh is the lower gender bias. Himachali parents have ambitious educational goals for their girls, just as for their boys.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph two things are clearly mentioned that there is a gender bias with regard to giving education to boys and girls among the people of the country.
2. Only the Himachali Pradesh Government is concentrating on girl education.
3. My opinion on these two,issues is that the gender bias was there once in the society.
4. As there is a vast awareness in the parents they send their daughters to the schools in many
   places.
5. Even a rickshaw puller also wants to make his daughter study In a school.
6. He hopes his daughter becomes a professional.
7. The parents are interested to send their children to English medium schools Irrespective of their income and status.
8. It is a sensitive issue and it is to be taken seriously to bring awareness among people to make their daughters admitted in schools and the governments should consider the problems of girls in schools.
9. Sufficient toilets and other facilities are to be provided so as to enroll all the girls In schools.

Question 13.
Table: Read the following table and answer the following questions.
Some Comparative data of Selected States

1.  What does the table tell us?
   Answer:
   The table tells us about some comparative data of selected states.
2. What are the three states compared here?
   Answer:
   The three states compared are Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
3. What does IMR mean?
   Answer:
   IMR means Infant Mortality Rate.
4. Which state ranks best in literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks best in literacy rate with 84%.
5. What is the Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006?
   Answer:
   The Net Attendance Rate of Bihar in 2006 is 56.
6. What is the position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate?
   Answer:
   The position of Punjab in 2011 with regard to literacy rate is next to Himachal Pradesh.
7. What is literacy rate?
   Answer:
   Literacy rate is that the percentage of literate people in the 7 and above years age group.
8. Why is the number of children below the age of 6 not considered for counting of Net Atten¬dance Rate?
   Answer:
   The children below the age of 6 do not go to school.
9. Which state ranks first when we consider the above data ?
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh ranks first.
10. How do you say Bihar is an underdeveloped state ?
    Answer:
    Bihar has high infant mortality rate i.e., 62. It has less literacy rate and Net attendance rate i.e., 64 and 56 respectively. Hence we can say Bihar is a backward state.

Question 14.
Study the table given and answer the following questions.
Table: Some data regarding India and its neighbours for 2013

1. What is the table about?
   Answer:
   The table is about some data regarding India and its neighboring countries for 2013.
2. What is the life expectancy at birth in India?
   Answer:
   The life expectancy at birth in India is 65.8 years.
3. What components are considered in this table?
   Answer:
   The components considered in the table are per capita income, life expectancy at birth, aver¬age years of schooling, expected years of schooling and HDI.
4. Which country ranks best in HDI?
   Answer:
   Sri Lanka ranks best in HDI with 92nd rank.
5. Which country is lacking in expected years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Pakistan is lacking in expected years of schooling.
6. Per capita income is shown in some symbol. What does it mean?
   Answer:
   The symbol given means dollar.
7. Which country has the lowest average years of schooling?
   Answer:
   Nepal has the lowest average years of schooling.
8. What is the per capita income of India ?
   Answer:
   The per capita income of India is $ 3,285.
9. What is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table?
   Answer:
   65.7 years is the lowest life expectancy at birth in the table.
10. What is the difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling
    for India?
    Answer:
    The difference between expected years of schooling and average years of schooling for India is 6.3 years.

Question 15.
By studying the given map answer the following questions.

1. Name two countries which have low income.
   Answer:
   Zimbabwe and Kenya are the two countries with low income.
2. Which two countries have very high income?
   Answer:
   USA and Canada are the two countries which have very high income.
3. Name two countries with high income.
   Answer:
   Brazil and Russia are the two countries with high income.
4. Which two countries have medium income?
   Answer:
   India and Egypt are the two countries which have medium income.

Question 16.
Prepare a pamphlet on Promoting Girl Education.
Answer:

PROMOTING GIRL EDUCATION

Girls and boys in the society are equal but many of the parents give less importance to girl education compared to boys. This treatment of girls and boys in different ways is called gender bias. Some parents feel that boy is income and girl is expenditure. After marriage also the in-law’s family of the bride normally gives very less importance to her education. This is the wrong notion that the people have. It is to be removed.
The notion is to be changed. Many women have come forward to discharge their duties in political, educational and administrative areas. They are proving that they can do everything. In education also many girls are getting good results and ranks. Their number in civil services and other competitive examinations is rapidly increasing. If a girl is educated, she can manage her family herself well.
She can educate her children.
Many women now are district collectors or police officers and administrative officers and a few banks are being run under the leadership of female authorities. Many departments are under their control. For many years it has been a custom that the women have to work at kitchen but it is disproved, if they were given choice to do something they can do it as we expected.
All the parents should send their daughters to schools to study. They should be given an opportunity to show their intellect. All the parents should understand that their notion is to be
changed and think positively about their daughters’ future.

Question 17.
Write a paragraph after reading the table.
Answer:
Comparison of two countries

According to this table in the country ‘A’, all the five persons are earning mostly equal monthly income. In the country ‘B’ the first four persons are earning only five hundred each but the fifth person is earning forty eight thousand rupees per month. If you are the fifth one it is OK but if you are one among the first four it will be worst to live in. If we consider the average, it will be the same as ten thousand per person per month. In these two countries the country A has more equitable distribution of income.
In many countries more income is there with a few persons. Many people in the countries are poor. They don’t have minimum amount of income for their livelihoods. In the above table the average income of the two countries is the same but in B it is not equally distributed. The Gross Domestic Product is to be distributed among the people of the country that means the poor also have to get their share in the country. The gap between the poor and the rich is to be removed and so the society of equality emerged.

Question 18.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu.
   Answer:
   Kudankulam
2. Schooling Revolution took place in the state.
   Answer:
   Himachal Pradesh
3. Draw the Indian standard time.
   Answer:
   82 1/2° E longitude.
4. Sahyadri Range.
5. Islands in Bay of Bengal.
   Answer:
   Andoman & Nicobar
6. Locate any one of Hill station.
   Answer:
   Nainital
7. River which is flowing through a rift valley.
   Answer:
   Narmada
8. The Hill Station located near Nilgiris.
   Answer:
   Ooty
9. The largest river in South India.
   Answer:
   Godavari
10. The largest river in India.
    Answer:
    Ganga

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 9 Reflection of Light

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 9th Lesson Reflection of Light

7th Class Science 9th Lesson Reflection of Light Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When will you be able to see clear image of yourself in a plane mirror?
Answer:

1. Point a torch towards the mirror so that it’s light falls on the mirror which we hold up as shown in figure (a), and try to see our image in the mirror.
   
2. Now turn the torch towards our face as shown in figure (b), and see our image in the mirror.
   
3. We will find that when light is focused on our face we can see our image clearly in the mirror.
4. We also notice that when light is focused on the mirror we find a dim image of our face in the mirror.

Question 2.
Explain by a simple activity what are incident and reflected rays of light. What is reflection of light?
Answer:

1. Place a blank sheet of paper on the ground such that part of it is in the sunlight and other part of it is in the shadow.
2. Hold the mirror strip with the slit facing the sun.
3. Let a ray of light from the slit fall on the paper.
4. Now take another mirror strip and place it in the path of this light ray such that the ray coming from first mirror falls on the second mirror as shown in figure.
   
5. We did not see any other ray of light, apart from the one from the mirror slit, on the paper.
6. This effect of the mirror strip on the ray of light is called reflection.
7. The ray of light falling on the mirror is called the incident ray and the ray returning from it is called the reflected ray.

Question 3.
Explain the terms ‘Angle of incidence’, ‘Angle of reflection’ and ‘Normal at the point of incidence.’
Answer:

1. Take a sheet of blank paper. Draw a line segment AC across the middle.
2. Draw another straight fine at right angles (90 degrees) to segment AC.
3. The second line should bisect segment AC at point B. We shall call this line as Normal. See in figure, (a)
   
4. Draw two lines from point B on the left side of the normal and two on the right side. The lines should be at angles of 30° and 60° respectively from the normal. Number these lines 1, 2, 3, 4 as shown in figure, (b)
   
5. Place a mirror strip vertically on segment AC with its reflecting surface facing the normal.
6. See that the back of the mirror coincides with segment with a slit and let its light ray fall along line 4.
7. Now this ray is the incident ray for the mirror.
8. The angle between the normal and the incident ray is called the Angle of Incidence (∠i).
9. The angle between normal and the reflected ray (along line 1) is called the Angle of Reflection (∠r).
10. Adjust the mirror strip with the slit so that its light ray falls along line 3 and we find that the reflected ray falls along line 2.
11. Adjust the mirror strip with the slit so that its light ray falls along normal, then the angle of incidence is 0° (the angle between normal and incident ray “that is also normal here”, is 0°)
12. The reflected light reflects back along the normal itself.

Question 4.
What relationship exists between angle of incidence and angle of reflection? State it and prove the relation by a simple activity.
Answer:

1. In the case of reflection on mirrors the law of reflection is Angle of incidence ∠i = Angle of reflection ∠r.
2. Proof : by a simple activity.
   • Take a sheet of blank paper. Draw a line AC on it.
   • Draw another straight line at right angles to AC.
   • This line should bisect AC. This line is normal.
   • Draw two lines from point B on the left side of the normal and two lines on the right side of the normal.
   • The lines should make angles of 30° and 60° respectively from the normal. Number these lines as 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in figure.
     
   • Place the mirror strip vertically on AC. With its reflecting surface facing the normal.
   • Take the mirror strip with a slit and let its light ray fall along line 4.
   • We find the reflected ray coming along the line 1.
   • Note the angle of incidence and angle of reflection.
   • Repeat the experiment by sending the light ray along line 3.
   • The reflected ray is found to be along line 2.
   • Record the observations.
     
     It is clear from the above activity that angle of incidence ∠i = angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 5.
Describe a small activity to prove that it is possible to see the image of an object only when the incident ray, reflected ray and normal are at the same plane.
Answer:

1. Place a mirror (1ft. × 1ft.) on the floor. You and your friends A, B, C stand on four sides of the mirror as shown in figure.
2. Adjust your places of standing, in such a way that each one of you can see the image of the person opposite to you in the mirror kept on the floor.
3. Your friends A, C are able to see images of each other in the mirror.
4. Ask your friend – B, who is in front of you to move a feet aside from his place. You cannot see his image in the mirror.
   
5. Imagine a normal to the mirror. It would be perpendicular to the mirror as well as to the floor.
6. Imagine an incident ray coming from your friend B, falls on the mirror then the reflected ray from mirror reaches you.
7. Observe that the incident ray, reflected ray and normal lie in the same plane.
8. Now think why the image of your friend B is not visible to you when he moves aside. Where should.you stand to see his image? Once again imagine the incident, reflected rays and normal and assumed plane.
9. It is evident that the incident ray, reflected ray and normal should be in same plane, then only you can see your friend.

Question 6.
How would you get an image in a mirror?
Answer:

1. We see our image in a mirror many times. How it is formed?
2. During day time the light which falls on us gets reflected and a number of reflected light rays from us that fall on the mirror also get reflected back.
3. These reflected rays reach your eye and make us see our image.
4. See figure (a). Thus formation of image in mirrors is due to reflection of light rays from the mirror.
   
5. See the figure (b) and observe the lines. They will explain how the image of a candle is formed in the mirror and how we are able to see the image of the candle in the mirror.
   

Question 7.
What is the difference between you and your image in a mirror?
Answer:

1. Stand in front of a mirror as shown in figure (a) and observe on which side of you does the pocket on your shirt appear, when you look into the mirror.
   
2. Raise your right hand infront of a mirror as shown in figure (b). Which hand of your image appears raised?
3. To make your image to comb hair with its right hand, what will you have to do?
4. What do these observations suggest?
5. In a mirror, right of an object appears as left and left of the object appears as right.
6. Note that only sides are interchanged. This is called lateral inversion.

Question 8.
How can you make a garden in a box ? Describe the procedure.
Answer:

1. Take an empty shoe box. Place two plane mirrors along the edges.
2. See that the pair of mirrors are parallel to each other and their reflecting surfaces face each other as shown in figure.
   
3. Scratch the centre part of a mirror at its back and make a hole to the wall of the box such that it coincides with the scratched portion of the mirror.
4. Put some flowers in the box. Make a few holes in the lid before closing the box so that light enters into the box.
5. Now look through the hole. You can see a wonderful and beautiful vast garden.

Question 9.
Why does the small area look like a vast garden?
Answer:

1. The light which enters the box falls on the flowers, gets reflected and travels in all directions.
2. The rays which fall on the mirrors reflect back to the opposite mirror.
3. This process happens again and again.
4. Due to this multiple reflection we can see that small area as a big garden.

Question 10.
Explain what do you understand by regular reflection and irregular reflection.
Answer:

1. Reflection from a smooth surface like that of a mirror is called regular reflection (see figure a).
2. Clear images are formed in case of regular reflection.
3. Reflection from a rough or irregular surface is called irregular reflection or diffused reflection (see figure b).
4. Images are not clear in case of irregular reflection.
5. In some cases we can’t find the image at all.
   

Question 11.
Can we use rear view mirror in place of plain mirror? Yes /No give the reason.
Answer:
No. We cannot use rear view mirror in place of plane mirror. The reasons are:

1. In plane mirror we can see our images.
2. But in rear view mirror we cannot see our images. So there is no use to use rear view mirror.

Question 12.
A mirror is hanging in your room. Your friend is sitting in the same room in a chair. If your friend wants to see you in a mirror, how will you adjust your position? Explain. ’
Answer:
I will adjust my position according to the laws of reflection. According to the laws of reflection Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection. If my friend wants to see me in a mirror, I will adjust my position (i.e) the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. Then my friend will see me in that mirror.

Question 13.
What are rays of light? How do you produce rays of light?
Answer:

1. Take a mirror strip and a black paper as shown in figure, (a)
2. Cover the mirror strip with black paper and cut a 1 mm wide slit in the black paper, as shown in figure b.
3. Hold the mirror strip with the slit facing the sun as shown in figure, (c).
   
4. We will see some light coming through the slit. Let this light fall on a sheet of paper spread on the ground.
5. Light coming from such a slit or any other small hole looks like a ray of light.

Question 14.
Why should we keep mirror strips parallel to each other in periscope? What happens if they are not parallel?
Answer:

1. In a periscope the incident ray for the second mirror is the reflected ray of the first mirror.
2. When these two mirrors are parallel to each other, only then the rays lie in the same plane and can pass through the windows of the periscope.
3. If these mirrors make some angle with each other, then the reflected ray of the first mirror may not reach the second mirror or the reflected ray of second mirror may not pass through the window of periscope.
4. In both cases we can’t see the object with the periscope.

Question 15.
Can you spell your name as it appears in a mirror? Spelling of my name is …………………..  It appears in the mirror as ……………
Answer:
The student has to do it.

Question 16.
Show that the size of an object and its image are same.
Answer:

1. Stand in front of a big mirror. Observe your image.
2. Step back two feet and step forward one foot. Observe your image while you move to and fro.
3. You notice that your image also move.
4. Estimate the distance from you to the mirror and the distance from the mirror to the image.
5. Is the size of your image equal to your size? Place an object in front of the mirror. Compare the size of the object with its image.
6. We notice that irrespective of the size of mirrors, the size of image and the size of object are equal.

Question 17.
How are multiple images of an object formed?
Answer:

1. Take two plain mirrors of same size and join them with a cellophane tape as shown in figure.
   
2. Fold the mirrors through certain angle and place an object between them. We see multiple images of the object.
3. Count the number of images after changing the angle between the mirrors.
4. If we change the angle between the mirrors the number of images of the object also changes.

Question 18.
Explain the formation of images with spherical mirrors.
Answer:

1. Place the concave and convex mirrors on two different V – stands.
2. Put two candles of same size in front of them as shown in figure.
   
3. Adjust the position of candles, to form clear images in the mirrors.
4. Observe the sizes of images.

Question 19.
What are real and virtual images? Explain with the help of an activity.
Answer:

1. Place a concave mirror on a V-stand.
2. Place a lighted candle in front of it. Place a thick white paper or white drawing sheet behind the candle.
3. This acts as a screen. See figure.
   
4. Adjust distances between candle and mirror, screen and mirror by moving them either forward or backward till a clear image appear on the screen.
5. Repeat the activity using a convex mirror and plane mirror in place of concave mirror.
6. The image that can be obtained on a screen is called a Real Image. We can see this image in the mirror too.
7. The image that can’t be obtained on a screen but can be seen only in the mirror is
   called a virtual image.

Question 20.
Explain how are we able to see the objects around us in day time?
Answer:

1. We already know that, to see any object, light should fall on it.
2. In daytime we are able to see all objects which are in our room even though sunlight does not fall directly on those objects.
3. The multiple reflection of sunlight from surfaces like wall, floor, ceiling etc, finally falls on the object and gets reflected by it and reaches us.
4. This enables us to see the object.

Question 21.
How do you make a periscope?
Answer:

1. We have to secure the following materials to make a periscope. Empty agarbatti box, two mirror strips, scale, pencil, blade, match box, candle, glue.
2. Close both ends of the agarbatti box. Draw squares at both ends.
3. Draw the diagonal to these squares as shown in figure.
4. Slit the diagonals with a blade. The slits should equal to the length of the mirror strips.
5. Fix the mirror strips in these slits as shown in figure (b). Take care to see that these mirror strips lie parallel to each other, with their reflecting surfaces facing each other.
   
6. Fix the mirror strips firmly to the box with a few drops of molten wax from a burning candle. We can also use glue or fevicol instead of wax.
7. Cut out two windows on the narrow sides of the box as shown in figure (c). The windows should open directly on the reflecting surfaces of the mirror strips.
8. Now the periscope is ready.

Question 22.
How would you use the periscope?
Answer:

1. When we look through window 2, We will be able to see things lying in front of window 1.
2. We hide behind a tree, we can easily see that is happening on the other side of the tree with this periscope.
   
3. Observe in figure the girl is viewing objects outside the room through the window while hiding herself in the room, with the help of a periscope.

Question 23.
Keep the mirrors in such a way that the angle between the mirrors is 90 degrees and observe the images and compare them with the object. What do you notice? Is there any difference between those images? Imagine the reason for that.
Answer:

1. We observe 5 images of the object .
2. The intensity of the images decreases.

Question 24.
What are spherical mirrors?
Answer:

1. We have seen the mirrors whose reflecting surfaces look like the head of a steel spoon.
2. The mirrors which contain curved reflecting surfaces are called spherical mirrors.

Question 25.
Why do we call concave and convex mirrors as spherical mirrors?
Answer:

1. Take a rubber ball and cut a portion of it with knife as shown in figure. Be careful. Ask your teacher to help you in cutting the ball).
   
2. The inner surface of the cut piece of ball is called concave surface and the outer surface of it is called convex surface.
3. If the reflecting surface of a mirror is concave, it is called a concave mirror see figure (a)
   
4. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called as convex mirror. See figure (b).
   
5. Any concave or convex mirror is a part of a sphere. Hence these mirrors are called spherical mirrors.

Question 26.
How is the image of a candle is seen in a mirror. Draw a diagram to explain.
Answer:

1. See the diagram below.
2. The ray of light from the candle is reflected at the mirror, and bounces off at the same angle as it come to the mirror.
   
3. Our eye does not know that the light has been reflected.
4. Our eye sees the object (the candle) in the mirror, and feels that light is coming from that candle which seems to be behind the mirror.
5. In this way we see an image of the candle.

Question 27.
Take a drawing sheet and cut it into a few pieces. Write an English letter in capitals on each piece of drawing sheet. Observe the images of the letters formed in the mirror as shown in figure.

1. Which of the images appear same as the original letter?
2. Which of them appear reversed? Why?

Repeat above activity with Telugu / Hindi / Urdu letters and also with numbers 1 to 9, then try to answer the above questions.
Answer:
This can be done by the student.

Question 28.
On the front side of ambulances, the word AMBULANCE is written like why?
Answer:

1. All vehicles should give way to an Ambulance.
2. When the driver has seen the vehicle behind it, letters written on it must be clearly visible.
3. So the letters Ambulance are written on the vehicle with lateral inversion.
4. When the image of these letters are seen in the rear mirror, they will be laterally inverted and the name Ambulance will be clearly visible to him.
5. The driver immediately gives way to that Ambulance.

Question 29.
Every day we see our image in a plane mirror. Is it a real or virtual image? How can you decide?
Answer:

1. It is a virtual image.
2. The image formed in a plane mirror cannot be caught on a screen.

Question 30.
Keep a mirror close to your face and look into it. Move the mirror backward and observe the image. What change do you observe? Try this activity using Convex, Concave mirrors. In which mirror do you get an inverted image ?At what distance does it happen?
Answer:

1. When the mirror moves by a distance of minimum 25 cm. then only we can see our image in the plane mirror.
2. If it is a concave mirror, as long as our face it with in the focus of the concave mirror a small virtual image of the face is seen.
3. When the concave mirror is at a distance beyond its focus, then the image formed will be bigger in size.
4. In the case of convex mirror a virtual, small image is formed in it when it is kept at a suitable distance form the face.

Question 31.
Why are rearview mirrors arranged for vehicles?
Answer:

1. The mirrors at both sides of driver in motor vehicles like bus, car, motor vehicles are rearview mirrors.
   
2. These are used by drivers to see vehicles which are moving behind or beside of the vehicle without turning
   their heads.

Question 32.
Take a plane mirror. Go to a vehicle. Observe your image in the rearview mirror and as well as in the plane mirror. What difference do you find?
Answer:
We have noticed that the image formed by the rearview mirror is smaller than the image in a plane mirror.

Question 33.
a) How is the image on the outer portion of the spoon?
b) How is the image on the inner portion of the spoon?
Answer:
a) The image on the outer portion of the spoon is small in size.

b) The image on the inner portion of the spoon is reversed.

Question 34.
Have you noticed the surface of reflection in a torch light or in a head light of a vehicle? What is its specialty?
Answer:

1. Observe the torch light or headlight of a vehicle.
2. We notice a concave mirror behind the bulb (see figure)
3. Due to this concave surface the brightness of a small bulb is increased.
   

Question 35.
What happens if the surface of reflection in the torch or in a head light of a vehicle is convex like in figure?

Answer:

1. The intensity of light totally decreases.
2. A convex mirror diverges the light rays.
3. So the rays of light from the bulb diverge out. Giving small intensity of light on the road.

Question 36.
How is concave mirror useful to dentists?
Answer:

1. Dentists use concave mirrors to examine our teeth (See figure).
   
2. These concave mirrors used by doctor help to see a bigger image of teeth.

Question 37.
In our daily life while we stand in front of windows we observe our images on the glass of some windows but don’t find images on the glass of some other windows. Why?
Answer:

1. Our image is clear when we stand in front of certain types of glass as shown in figure (a).
   
2. Our image is not clear when we stand in front of some other types of glass as shown in figure (b).
3. If the surface of the window glass is smooth, due to the regular reflection we are able to see our image in that glass.
4. But if the surface of the window glass is rough, due to the irregular reflection we can’t find our image or we find unclear images in that glass.

Question 38.
Observe the image of the sun or a tree in still water. Later, disturb the water by throwing a pebble. How does the image of the Sun or the tree appear now? Why?
Answer:

1. When the water is still, its surface will be smooth and regular reflection takes place on it.
2. The image of an object formed due to still water will be clear.
3. When water is disturbed, the surface of water becomes rough and irregular reflection takes palce.
4. Due to this irregular reflection the image of an object may not be formed, if formed it will not be clear.

Question 39.
How many images are formed if two mirrors are kept in 60° angle to each other?
Answer:
The angle between two plane mirrors = 60°
Number of images formed

5 images are formed.

Question 40.
Sasi asked her father to fix mirrors on her new house for elevation. But her father did not accepted. Imagine why he said like that.
Answer:

1. If we decorate the front portion of the house, accidents may happen.
2. Because sunlight falls on these mirrors and reflects back.
3. This reflected light may fall on the men and vehicles, leading to accidents.

Question 41.
You are given a mirror. How can you identify whether it is convex mirror or concave mirror?
Answer:
A)

1. If the reflecting surface of a mirror is concave, it is called a concave mirror.
2. These mirrors form real and inverted images.
3. These are used in headlights of vehicles. ENT doctors also use these mirrors for their observations.

B)

1. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called a convex mirror.
2. They always form erect and virtual images.
3. These are used in rear view mirrors of the vehicles.

Question 42.
The following experiment has been conducted in your laboratory.

Answer the following questions based on this.

1. Which mirror is used in this experiment?
2. How does the image of candle appear on the screen?
3. Since the image is caught on the screen, what is the name of the image?
4. What are the apparatus required to conduct this experiment?

Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. Inverted
3. Real image
4. U-stand, mirrors, candle, matchbox, screen, scale.

Question 43.
List out the properties of a convex mirror.
Answer:
Properties of a convex mirror :

1. If the reflecting surface is convex, then it is called a convex mirror.
2. Always form erect and virtual images.
3. These are used in rear view mirrors of the vehicles.

SCERT AP Board 10th Class Social Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Solutions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Here are the list of items that you can use for making a table on social movements. Draw a table based on them and find out similarities and differences amongst movements:
Main area of focus of the movement; location, main demands, modes of protest, important leaders; response from the state; possible impact on society.
Answer:

Question 2.
Kanayya, Ramya and Salma have a debate. They have different expectations. Whom would you agree with and give reasons, from the context of human rights? Ramya argues it is okay to restrict the freedom of the press, etc. but ensure people do not live in poverty. Salma argues it is food alone is not important but equally important to have freedom of press because there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country. Kanayya says, how will it make a difference if press belongs to the rich and powerful people, why would they cover things that ordinary people expect.
Answer:

1. I agree with Ramya.
2. She argues that food alone is not important but also to have freedom of press.
3. If we do not have freedom of press, there is no other way people would know if there is violation of dignity of people in different parts of the country.
4. Now with globalization, world has become a tiny village.
5. People are coming to know and responding quickly in social media.
6. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
7. No one shall be subjected to inhuman or degrading treatment.
8. Protection of most human rights is important.

Question 3.
What are the basic features of social movements?
Answer:
The basic features of social movements :

1. They are based on values of justice, democracy and civil rights.
2. Protection of the cultural sphere.
3. The prevention of a change in societies structure and values.
4. Protection of livelihood and health.
5. Equal treatment in the society.
6. Protection from the consumption of alcohol and drugs.
7. Protection of the environment.
8. Protection of agricultural lands.

Question 4.
How is the role of the ordinary individuals described in the above case studies ?
Answer:

1. Without the participation of ordinary individuals any social movement cannot be a successful one.
2. They were the ones, who suffered and dejected.
3. They make their voices heard through their leaders.
4. They actively participate in marches, boycotts, processions planned by their leaders.
5. Nowadays they are making use of internet and social media to mobilise and fight for their cause.
6. They not only think of personal profits, hope for better future and sustainable environment.
7. They even oppose their own government and support the human rights of the sufferers.
8. Most movements involved them are peaceful in nature.

Question 5.
How are the rights of black people in the USA and Meira Paibi movements similar or different?
Answer:

1. The rights of black people in the USA are violated by law.
2. They are met with inhuman treatment.
3. They are discriminated in schools, transport facilities, job, housing and even in voting righ/s.
4. But they are given right to freedom of movement.
5. In Meira Paibi movements, the most suffered are women.
6. Their right to life, liberty and security of person are taken away by special protection law.
7. They are subjected to cruel and degrading treatment.
8. Their men and children are detained on no fair cause.
9. They are not even given the right to freedom of movement.
10. Government has yet to take a decision on Meira Paibi’s demands.

Question 6.
Democracies have been identified as most prominent political systems across the world.
Do you think it has been able to take care of all expectations of people. Based on the examples cited in these chapters, write a short note on ‘democracy and social movements’.
Answer:
Democracy and Social Movements :

1. Social movements are mostly the outcome of dissatisfactions in the society.
2. The ruling democracies are not able to fulfil the expectations of people.
3. Some section or the other in the society is suffering with denial of human rights or social justice.
4. Their ire is augmented and shapes into a movement.
5. When governments are after nuclear arms and not providing peace and security to people usually people resent it and movements come up.
6. When people are discriminated, they revolt against administration. Likewise, whenever there is lack of social justice and when there is a threat to environmental system also movements come out.

Question 7.
Discuss and find out how movements mobilise people from across the globe like in the above instance of campaign to protest in the context of Bhopal gas tragedy.
Answer:

1. Movements seek a vision that is different.
2. Movements mobilise people from across the globe to protest various issues.
3. Black Americans organised themselves against the segregation and discrimination they faced.
4. People of Russia fought for human rights there, when free multiparty elections were not allowed, Press freedom was not allowed.
5. Massive protests took place against the policies of the govemments, which are war mongering.
6. Greenpeace movement in the USA protested the conduct of nuclear tests under water in the USA.
7. Many such movements related to environment were taken up and people supported them.
8. There are various platforms for them like, Facebook, twitter, e-mails, Internet newspaper, etc.

10th Class Social Studies 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times InText Questions and Answers

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 299

Question 1.
Try to read the famous speech of Dr King and write an essay on the ideals he set for American society and how he planned to achieve it.
Answer:
Martin Luther king set many ideals for the American society. Some of them are,
а) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Equality
d) Unalienable rights of life
e) Pursuit of happiness
f) freedom
g) Democracy etc.

He plans to achieve the ideals in the following ways:

1. Negroes should not relax until their demands are met.
2. Shaking the foundations of the government with revolt until the bright day of justice emerges.
3. The struggle should be filled with dignity and discipline.
4. By avoiding physical violence.
5. Trusting some white people who sympathize with the blacks.
6. He says that with faith all will be able to work together, pray together, struggle together, to go to jail together, to stand up for freedom together, knowing that there will be freedom one day.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 300

Question 2.
Make a table and list the demands of civil rights movement and possible solutions in your opinion.
Answer:

Question 3.
The USA claims to be a democracy, yet it kept certain groups of people segregated, till middle of last century. Discuss how the idea of democracy need to be more inclusive in our context.
Answer:

1. The USA claims to be a democracy.
2. It practised segregation, till the middle of last century.
3. Democracies cannot afford to alienate their subjects.
4. They cannot judge a person by the colour of the skin.
5. They cannot shy away the protection of equal rights to all subjects.
6. Democracy in this context needed to be more inclusive.
7. All the black people are to be treated on same footing with others.

Question 4.
Why do we hear different voices within a movement? Can you identify differences in them?
Answer:

1. People have differences of opinions, hence we hear different voices within a movement.
2. In American Civil Rights Movement two voices arose. They were –
   a) Many people agreed with Dr King that it was possible to achieve equality for all people through peaceful means.
   b) Many others like “Malcom X” thought that Blocks should fight for independence from white rule and for that they have to use all means including armed conflict.

Question 5.
Can you think of similarity or differences in the nature of political system in the USA and the USSR and how was their response to people’s rights?
Answer:

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 301

Question 6.
“We Won’t Go”
America has a law which requires all able bodied citizens to enroll in the army for a short period. During the Vietnam War, thousands of citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam. Let us read about one such protest refusal. This is a statement that appeared in a newspaper, Harvard Crimson:

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences. We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Some thought that these people were being un-patriotic while others thought that they were justified in refusing to participate in an unjust war. Discuss the two points of view in the class and write a short note of arguments of both sides and your own viewpoint.
Answer:

1. Vietnam conflict was the outcome of the Cold War between the USA and the USSR.
2. Citizens refused to get drafted into the army to fight in Vietnam.
3. The US war with Vietnam was inhuman, hence the majority of the people opposed it.
4. People who hate “Socialistic Society” and “Communism” supported the decision of the US to continue the war with Vietnam.
5. In my opinion, I oppose the war with Vietnam as it was against democratic principles and human rights.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 303

Question 7.
What were the different types of responses to the weaponisation?
Answer:

1. Nuclear arms race intensified after the end of Vietnam war in 1975.
2. More and more countries competed with each other to stock pile nuclear arms.
3. Arms producing companies and governments created a war panic among the people.
4. They created war like situation.
5. People believed that war mongering and arms race made the world more unsafe.
6. It also increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
7. Massive protests took place against these policies of governments.

Question 8.
If people from different countries meet each other, there would be less chances of war, than the governments alone deciding the policy with each other. Would you agree with this statement? Give reasons for the answer.,
Answer:

1. Usually countries formulate their policies.
2. People of countries meet together and avoiding war is distant from reality.
3. Most countries in the world are democracies.
4. People vest their powers through vote to their representatives who could administer them.
5. It may be looking simple but, it definitely may not be feasible.
6. So, I cannot agree with this statement.

Question 9.
Explain how environmental issues can affect people of nations who may have no role in deciding the location of nucelar plants, polluting factories, etc. How do you deal with such situation?
Answer:

1. Usually people of the nation are suffering lot, whenever there is a nuclear tragedy.
2. They really do not have any role in deciding the nuclear plant’s location or pollution factory.
3. That will be decided by their representatives and their secretaries.
4. They decide the locations taking into consideration, a lot of things like infrastructure, raw material, technology, etc.
5. To deal with these situations the governments should take all the protective measures.
6. In case of any adversity, they should respond well in time to support the people.
7. They should see that proper care is taken about the affected and fair compensations were distributed among the suffered people.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 304

Question 10.
Look up the website of Greenpeace movement (http : //www.greenpeace.org/international) to find out about the issues they have been fighting for and how the methods they have used for fighting. Find out about the debates and controversies about this movement too.
Answer:
Students’ Activity.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 307

Question 11.
Is it impossible to build factories or mines or power plants without throwing out farmers or tribal people? What can be the alternatives? Discuss in your family and school on these issues.
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is impossible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material availability, they are to be set up like this.
3. Governments should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the farmers and tribals is also lied with the government.
5. They should plan of no damage to these sectors of people or the minimum.
6. In case of a compulsion, they must be given compensations like land, lump sums and employment.
7. More importantly, government should concentrate on viable alternatives to protect the environment also.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 308

Question 12.
What were the various strategies used by the social movement?
Answer:

1. Social Movements throughout the world used various strategies.
2. Civil Rights Movement in the USA used civil disobedience (Violating discriminatory laws peacefully) and boycott of discriminatory services (like buses which segregate whites and blacks)
3. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons.
4. Volunteers in the USA setout in a smallship “Green Peace’ in protest to underwater nuclear test of the USA.
5. People used international laws to fight against the problems that factory workers and women affected in Bhopal gas disaster.
6. Women led movements for social justice and human rights.
7. People organised movements in protest to pollution, global warming and environmental degradation.

Question 13.
How do the people in movement see the process of resettlement promises?
Answer:

1. People who stood to be displaced from the project, demanded a fair compensation not just to those who own land, but all those who lived there.
2. People realised that there was actually no adequate land available to compensate for the loss.
3. They alsobelieved that it was really not possible to rehabilitate the displaced people properly.
4. People began to realise that the problem was not compensation or rehabilitation but one of faulty notion of development.
5. A development which was based on unsustainable use of natural resources, only paved way for setting up industries and commercial farms at the cost of farming and tribal communities.

10th Class Social Textbook Page No. 310

Question 14.
Find out about more recent such struggles in West Bengal (Nandigram), Odisha (Niyamagiri) and Andhra Pradesh (Polavaram, Sompeta etc). Prepare a poster explaining the main features of the struggle in each of these cases.
Answer:
Nandigram (West Bengal):

1. Nandigram is a place on the bank of Haldia and quite far from Kolkata.
2. In 2007, March the state government of West Bengal sanctioned the land there to set up Special Economic Zone by Salim Group.
3. People of Nandigram resented it and led mass processions and struggle and 14 people died.

Niyamgiri (Odisha):

1. Niyamagiri hills in Odisha state are famous for their bauxite reserves. Odisha government gave permission to British mining company Vedanta to mine bauxite from there in July 2013.
2. People resented this, especially the tribals and organised many processions and later courts involved in this matter and by January 2014 the mining was disallowed.

Sompeta, Polavaram in combined (Andhra Pradesh):

1. Sompeta was a mandal in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and government at the state permitted Nagarjuna Company Limited to set up a thermal plant there in 2010.
2. People supported by many opposition party leaders protested the decision of government and for three years there were long drawn struggles.
3. Polavaram project is to be constructed on Godavari river spreading in East, West Godavari’s and Khammam. Government obtained permissions and started it in 2004.
4. It has submerging areas and affecting, zones in Chattisgarh and Odisha also. Many conflicts were there to complete it.

Question 15.
Fill in the para and line in the section below which you think is related to the violation or are in conflict with provisions of Human rights.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 10: Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his [or her]rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him [or her]. Para ——– line ——–.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy,family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her] honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para ——– line ——–.
Articl e 13: (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state [state here means country], Para ——– line ——–.
(2) Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his[or her country. Para ——– line ——–.
Answer:
Violations
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Para 3 line 13.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Para 3 line 6 and 7.
Article 9: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Para 3 line 4.
Article 12: No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his [or her] privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his [or her]honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks. Para 3 line 10

AP State Syllabus AP Board 7th Class Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Animal Fibre

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Important Questions 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre

7th Class Science 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How silk weaving began ? Write the story behind it.
Answer:

1. Chinese traditions, along with the writings of Confucius tell the same 2700 BC tale. It states that the empress Leizu (Hsi – ling – shi) was having tea one day under a mulbery tree with her husband, emperor Huang-ti, when a silk worm’s cocoon fell into her cup.
2. In an attempt to take it out, the thread of the cocoon began to unroll. So the Empress thought of weaving the thread.
3. The Emperor encouraged his wife to study the life of silk worm, and so she learned the art of raising silk worms or what is called sericulture. Her finding was taught as well and thus the advent of the silk industry.
4. However, archaeological evidences show that the origin of silk industry traces back to 3000 and 5000 BC.
5. The sites of Yangshao culture in Xia Country; Shanxi reveal a cocoon of a bombyx mori or a domesticated silk worm along with silk weaving looms.

Question 2.
Write a note on The world of wool.
Answer:
Woolen fabrics are as ancient as human civilization. According to archeological evidences domestication of woolly sheep may have started around 6000 BC by early Iranians. Earliest woven woolen garments are dated 2000 – 3000 years later. In 15th century, British made laws to control wool smuggling and at one time they punished people by cutting off their hands ! The industrial revolution introduced mass production of wool. Leaders of wool production are Australia and China.

Question 3.
What is the historical record of spinning and weaving?
Answer:
Spinning and Weaving:
The spinning of animal or vegetable fibres into thread dates from about 7000 BC, from the Middle East; the earliest tools used were a distaff (a cleft stick holding a bundle of fibres) with a weighted spindle to twist them together. The oldest known textile, from Asia Minor, dates from around 7000 BC. The first looms for weaving wool dates from about 5000 BC.

Family Scene A Hittite lady spins wool in a bas-relief from the 8th century B.C.

Question 4.
Are caterpillars dangerous?
Answer:
All caterpillars are not dangerous. Some are useful too.

Question 5.
From where do we get fibres? Explain.
Answer:

1. We get fibres from plants and animals.
2. Cotton, Jute, Gongoora, Coconut plant fibres are useful to make different kinds of fabrics.
3. In the same way we get fibres of silk and wool from animals like silk worms, sheep, goat, camel, and yak etc.

Question 6.
Who will purchase the tiny silk worms?
Answer:
Farmers from Kurnool, Kadapa, Chittoor and some other places of our state come and purchase these tiny worms.

Question 7.
Why do farmers buy silk moths ? What is the name of the centres?
Answer:

1. Sometimes farmers buy silkmoths because to produce eggs from them.
2. The eggs are produce by thermselves (by farmers) in their own centres.
3. The egg producing centres are called Grinages’.

Question 8.
Narrate the stages of transformation from egg to cocoon in the sericulture. What do you do in this process?
Answer:

1. Large tray with leaves and larva feeding on them could be seen.
2. Some trays had white and yellowish egg like structures.
3. Farmers grow silk worms to get cocoons. They get 5-6 harvests of worms in a year.
4. Farmers bought mulberry twigs from Palamaneru of Chittoor district, where sericulture (the whole process of obtaining silk starting from silk moth) is carried out.
   
5. Farmers plant the twigs to get the mulberry crop.
6. We purchased tiny white coloured silk worms (caterpillars) from seed growing centres at Horsely Hills.
7. We place these worms in trays. We chop Mulberry leaves into small pieces to feed them.
8. 
9. These worms eat leaves day and night. They need good hygienic conditions and proper light to grow.
10. When they grow biggerin size, we transfer the worms into big sized cane frames called “Chandrikalu”.
11. After 30-35 days the caterpillar stops eating and settles at a particular place. It weaves a net to hold itself.
12. Caterpillar moves its mouth from side to side and secretes fibre-like substance.
13. When it is exposed to air and heat it becomes strong.
14. The net is woven completely to cover the body of the caterpillar. This seems to be a closed sack. This is called Pattukayalu’ (Cocoon).
15. The larva of silk worm undergoes changes in the cocoon to change into a moth. After 2-3 weeks young moths come out from the cocoons and fly away.
16. So we have to be very careful. Within 2-3 days of formation fo cocoon, we start removing them from the tray.

Question 9.
How is the process of reeling, fibre to yarn is done? Describe.
Answer:

1. Some people will attend to boiling and stirring something in large pots. (Fig. )
   
2. Cocoons are being boiled in water.
3. Cocoons are boiled to get silk fibre.
4. Caterpillar of silk worm spins fibre which is mainly made up of two types of protein (sirisine and fibroin) and is very strong.
5. The cocoons have to be boiled to loosen the fibre to be able to reel it.
6. Obtaining silk fibre from cocoon is called reeling. It is done with special machines called reelers and twisters.
7. The silk fibre is carefully collected from the cocoon and nearly 3 to 18 of such threads are wound together to make yarn from it which is reeled (Fig. )
   

Question 10.
How is silk yarn woven to fabrics?
Answer:

1. The reeled yarn is cleaned, bleached and coloured.
   
2. The yarn is ready to be woven into a variety of designed fabrics, on looms.
3. We can see reeling centres at Nandikotkur, Hindupur, Dharmavaram and Madanapalli etc.

Question 11.
Describe the process of scouring of wooL Why is cool air passed over it after washing?
Answer:

1. Sheared skin with hair is dipped in such tanks and stirred with a spade.
2. Often it may be washed under a stream of water as well.
3. This water contains some chemicals to remove grease, dirt and dust.
4. This process ¡s called washing or scouring.
5. Alter washing, cool air is Passed over the wool to makes it softer.

Question 12.
Explain the process of sorting wool.
Answer:

1. People sorting coarse and soft ones as well as broken and long ones and making separate piles of them.
2. Unwanted materials like twigs or hits of leaves etc., that may he present with the wool are also separated out.
3. This process is called sorting or wool classing. Fleece is the soft mass of wool.

Question 13.
How do these woolen fibres get different colours? What is there in the tubs? Explain the process of spinning.
Answer:

1. There are beaches and dyes in the tubs. Woolen fibres are bleached and then dyed with different colours.
2. The coloured fibres are used to make yarn. These fibres are then combed.
3. There is a machine for combing or carding wool. Wool is pulled through many teeth of the combing machine (Fig. )
   
4. From there, a machine rolls and pulls it out into a thick rope and still another pulls and twists it into a long thread.
5. This is the process of spinning.
6. Flere you can see it being wound on whirling spools as well. (Fig. )
   
7. Thus we get the yarn which may be dyed before weaving.

Question 14.
What is the advantage of stiffling?
Answer:

1. Stiffling helps to store the cocoons for a long period.
   
2. This process is usually done in reeling centres.

Question 15.
Where are the cocoons sold ? In which places rfites of cocoon are usually enquired ?
Answer:

1. These cocoons are kept in sealed bags and sold at the cocoon market.
2. If not stiffled, we sell them off within a week.
3. Usually enquiries about rates of cocoons are made in the market at Hindupur, Madanapally, Dharmavaram, Kadiri, Palamaneru and Raychoti.

Question 16.
What are the different silks produced in our state ? What is tasar silk ? Where do the silk plantation is mainly concentrated?
Answer:

1. Apart from Mulberry, Tasar silk (Desali Pattu) is produced in our State.
2. Some species of silk moths that lay eggs on termanalia (oak) plantation produce tasar silk.
3. Mostly tribal people rear these kind of cocoons.
4. This silk plantation is concentrated in coastal regions of East Godavari and Visakhapatnam.

Question 17.
What are the different places famous for silk? What are the different types of silk available to us?
Answer:

1. Dharmavaram – silk city of Andhrapradesh.
2. People weave silk fabric by using silk yarn on handlooms.
3. For there people, weaving is a traditional occupation.
4. They get silk yarn from reeling centres to weave a variety of sarees.
5. Venkatagiri pattu and Dharmavaram are famous types produced by our state.
6. Dharmavaram is famous for its wide border and rich buta or dots.
7. Banaras, Kanchipuram, Dharmavaram, Narayanpet, Kothakota, Pochampally are all types of silk fabrics.
   
8. They get their names from the places where they are made.
9. We also have heard the names of tasar silk, mooga silk, kosa silk, eri silk etc.
10. These are all several varieties of silk. Some chemicals add strength to silk fibres.
11. Silk is used to make other products as well like satin and crepe. We have both handlooms and power looms to weave silk.

Question 18.
What is the difference between silk and cotton?
Answer:

Question 19.
How are we protected from heat and cold by wool?
Answer:

1. Wool is a poor conductor of heat. Air trapped in between the woolen fibres and our body prevents the flow of heat from our body to our surroundings.
2. So we feel hot and are protected from cold.
3. Woolen cloth also helps to douse fire.
4. That is why it is good to wrap a person, who is caught in fire, with a blanket.

Question 20.
How much of yarn do we get from cocoons? How many people are involved in this process? Are they safe with this?
Answer:

1. The thread you get from the average cocoon ranges from about 1,000 to 3,000 feet, and about 2,000 to 3,000 cocoons are required to make 500 gm of silk.
2. That is about 5,000,000 feet or more than 1,000 miles!
3. That’s not all. People involved in the process suffer from skin as well as respiratory problems due to continuous handling of the silk worm and the silk fibres.

Question 21.
From where wool is obtained?
Answer:

1. Clothes like sweaters, mufflers, hats, long coats, table covers etc. are some woolen varieties.
2. There were different types of animals like sheep, goat, yak, llama, camel, alpaca etc.
3. Wool is obtained from hair of all the animals.
4. It is also called fleece or fur collectively.
5. It is mainly a protein. Good quality wool is obtained from Merino sheep.
6. They are specially reared. The fleece is 3-5 inches long and very fine and most valuable.
7. A merino sheep may yield about 5 to IS kg of wool per year.

Question 22.
Do we find any difference between hairs of all animals?
Answer:

1. Certainly, hair of camel that lives in Rajasthan is not same as Angora goat that lives in Kashmir.
2. Camels have rough and coarse hair.
3. Under this rough hair some animals usually have soft hair as well.
4. Angora goat or the Merino sheep have soft hair.

Question 23.
Where do we find sheep or goat that give us wool?
Answer:
In Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Haryana, Punjab. Rajasthan and Gujarat. They are often reared on large farms.

Question 24.
What do the people do with scissor in removing fleece of sheep?
Answer:

1. A shear is used to cut fleece from sheep.
2. During spring season fleece of sheep is removed from its body using this type of razor.
3. This process is called shearing (Fig.). To prevent damage to skin, grease is used.
   

Question 25.
If you are going to visit Ooty, a hill station in the month of November, which type of clothes would you carry
Answer:

1. Ooty is the cold place as it is a hill area.
2. I would like to keep woolen clothes in my luggage in order to protect myself from cold condition.
3. I would carry sweaters, gloves, scarfs and shoes to protect myself during cold days.

AP State Board Syllabus AP SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Climate of India.

AP State Syllabus SSC 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Climate of India

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Deforestation happens in all areas in India. Suggest two remedies to stop deforestation.
Answer:

1. Control over cutting of forests.
2. Effective implementation of WALTA Act.

Question 2.
What is the reason for October heat?
Answer:
Reasons for October heat: High temperature, high humidity.

Question 3.
The rise of 2°C in average temperature results in a rise of one meter in sea level by early next century. Write any two slogans on the control of global warming.
Answer:

1. Grow trees – save the earth.
2. Avoid plastic bags – encourage cloth bags.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Western Disturbances?
Answer:
Cyclonic depressions coming from Mediterranean sea are called Western disturbances.

Question 5.
Observe the map of India and answer the following question.

Mention the names of any two states in which the average temperature of January is 10°C.
Answer:

1. Jammu Kashmir
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Sikkim
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 6.
In which monsoon season does the Coromandel coast receive less rainfall?
Answer:
The Coromandel coast receives less rainfall in the South-west monsoon season.

Question 7.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) When do monsoons reach Maharashtra?
Answer:
On June 10th monsoons reach Maharashtra.
b) When do monsoons reach Kerala?
Answer:
On June 1st monsoons reach Kerala.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Why do winds always blow towards low-pressure regions?
Answer:

1. In low-pressure regions temperature is high and evaporation is more.
2. Warm air rises, so cool air replaces it.

b) When do the south-west monsoons blow in India?
Answer:
Beginning of June, July.

Question 9.
Write down the reason for the low temperature in India in the months of December and January.
Answer:

1. Pleasant and clear sky
2. Low humidity 3) Angle of incidence

Question 10.
Mention any two actions that you would take if you were the officer, to prevent deforestation.
Answer:

1. I would strictly implement the existing forest laws.
2. I would bring awareness among the people on the need for the protection of forests.

Question 11.
Why does Coromandel Coast get high rain¬fall during North-east monsoons?
Answer:
Coromandel coast gets high rainfall during Northeast monsoons, because of cyclones and depression. The low pressure conditions of North-western India move far south.

Question 12.
“An international effort to form an agreement whereby all countries try to reduce their emission of greenhouse gases has so far not been achieved.” What is the reason for this disagreement among the countries of the world?
Answer:
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities and developing countries say that their economic development will be seriously damaged if they don’t burn fossil fuels.

Question 13.
Which refers to weather?
Answer:
The state of atmospheric conditions over an area at a particular time refers to weather.

Question 14.
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements of weather and climate are :

1. temperature
2. atmospheric pressure,
3. wind,
4. humidity and
5. precipitation.

Question 15.
What are called climatographs?
Answer:
The pattern of the elements of weather and climate for a place can be shown using pictures called climographs or climatographs.

Question 16.
What do climographs show?
Answer:
Climographs show average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a given place.

Question 17.
What are called climatic controls?
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls.

Question 18.
What are the factors that are influencing climate and weather?
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

Question 19.
Name some hill stations.
Answer:
Shimla, Gulmarg, Nainital Darjeeling, Kodaikanal and Udagamandalam.

Question 20.
Which is the coldest month in India?
Answer:
January is usually the coldest month. Day temperature sometimes drops below 10°C in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
Which areas enjoy a moderate climate?
Answer:
The coastal areas enjoy a moderate climate as the temperature remains well above 20°C.

Question 22.
How is India during winter?
Answer:
During winter, the weather is generally pleasant with clear sky, low humidity and cool breeze.

Question 23.
What are called ‘Loo’?
Answer:
The northern plain of India experiences dry and hot winds called ‘Loo’.

Question 24.
What are the two branches of the south-west monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 25.
Which is more powerful in these two gases – Methane or Carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think that, the effects of climate change may be felt by all countries?
Answer:

1. The effects of climate change like global warming, increase of mean sea level, degradation of Ozone layer, etc. are not limited to one particular country.
2. No country can escape from the negative impacts of climate change. Hence the effects of climatic change may be felt by all countries.

Question 2.
Study the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) In which state, the south-west monsoon enter first?
Answer:
Kerala.
b) When do the south-west monsoons reach Gujarat?
Answer:
June 15.

Question 3.
Suggest some measures to reduce global warming.
Answer:
Measures to reduce global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of the burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal, the use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.

Question 4.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions given below:

1. What is the relation between atmospheric pressure and winds?
   Answer:
   The winds blow from a high-pressure area to low pressure area.
2. Which monsoon winds are mainly responsible for the bulk of Indian rainfall?
   Answer:
   South-West Monsoon.

Question 5.
Classify the seasons according to Indian calendar and write the months
Answer:

Question 6.
Write briefly about South-West monsoons.
(OR)
Describe the Monsoon mechanism in India.
Answer:

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘onset’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to western ghats and northeast India except in Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the coramandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 7.
Keeping the warning of scientists in mind warming.
Answer:
To minimise the Global warming quarrying, mining are to be reduced and afforestation should be increased. Burning of coal should be decreased. Fossil fuel burning is also de-creased electronic appliances usage should be minimised so as to minimize the global warming.

Question 8.
Observe the map and answer the questions.

a) Identify the onset of the monsoon shown in the map below.
b) When does this monsoon reach Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
a) South-West Monsoon,
b) 15th June.

Question 9.
Fill the following table. It contains factors that influence climate and weather. Use words like higher/lower, closer/farther.

Answer:

Question 10.
Study the following map and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which states experience high average temperature in January?
Answer:
Kerala and Tamil Nadu experience high average temperature in January.
b) What is the average temperature experienced by the North-eastern states in January?
Answer:
The North-eastern states experience 15°C average temperature in January.

Question 11.
What is the relation between the temperature of a location and insolation?
Answer:
The temperature of the atmosphere at a particular place near the Earth’s surface depends upon the insolation (heat from sun rays) received at that location. This is more intense in the low latitudes than in the high latitudes. As we move away from the equator towards the poles, the average annual temperature decreases.

Question 12.
Read the paragraph and answer the question that follows.
“In India, the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. There-fore this region has higher average temperature than the northern part, this is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi, India is situated roughly between 8° and 37PN latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical tone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.”
Why is the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi?
Answer:
In India the southern part lies in the tropical belt closer to the equator. Therefore this region has a higher average temperature than the northern part. This is one reason for the climate of Kanyakumari being entirely different from Bhopal or Delhi.

Question 13.
Explain the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated roughly between 8° and 37° N latitudes and the country is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer. The part south of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the tropical zone. The part north of the Tropic of Cancer lies in the temperate zone.

Question 14.
What are called western disturbances and what do they cause?
Answer:
Cyclone depressions coming from Mediterranean Sea called Western Disturbances and cause low to moderate rainfall over northern India. This rainfall is boon to the wheat crop which is generally cultivated in ‘Rabi’ season.

Question 15.
What is the effect of north-east trades on India?
Answer:
India lies in the trade wind belt of Northern Hemisphere – north-east trades blow over India from land to sea and are therefore dry. However, some amount of rainfall occurs on the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu from these winds, as they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal while crossing it.

Question 16.
Write about ‘mango showers’ in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
What is known as “Onset of monsoon”?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves northward. Both the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as ’Onset of monsoon1.

Question 18.
What is known as “October heat”?
Answer:
October-November is a period of transition from a hot wet condition to dry winter condition. The retreat of the monsoons is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the con¬ditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as October heat.

Question 19.
Write about the Indian traditional seasons.
Answer:
In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six two-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons that the people in north and central India follow is based on their practical experience and age-old perception of weather phenomena. There is a slight variation in the timing of the seasons between northern and southern India.
The seasons are

1. Vasantha
2. Grishma
3. Varsha
4. Sharad
5. Hemantha
6. Shishira.

Question 20.
What is called Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Keeping us warm is one of the most impor¬tant things that the atmosphere does for us.
It is like a light, but effective, blanket envelo¬ping Earth. The atmosphere traps a lot of the solar energy that reaches. Earth by preventing it from totally escaping back into space. This is called the Greenhouse effect.

Question 21.
What is called AGW?
Answer:
Earlier cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities. Hence, the current global warming trend is called AGW (Anthropo-genic Global Warming anthropogenic means caused by humans).

Question 22.
What does climate refer to?
Answer:
Climate refers to such conditions over a large area and follows a similar general pattern over many years. What has been the general conditions, year after year, over thirty years or more, gives us the climate.

Question 23.
Explain the word ‘monsoon’.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

Question 24.
Read the following paragraph and comment on ‘bursting monsoon’.
“Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers (‘bursting monsoon’) are common in the Deccan Plateau. These help in the early ripening of mangoes and other plantation crops in peninsular India. Hence they are locally known as mango showers in Andhra Pradesh.”
Answer:
It is the sudden onset of rainfall in the first week of June. Around the time of arrival of monsoon, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as burst of monsoon.

10th Class Social 4th Lesson Climate of India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Indian agriculture depends completely on the monsoon.” Describe the cycle of the monsoon patterns.
Answer:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India during the olden days noticed the regular periodic reversal of winds. They used these winds to sail towards the Indian coast. Arab traders named this seasonal reversal of wind system ‘monsoon’.

1. The monsoon forms in the tropical area at approximately between 20°N and 20°S latitudes.
2. The heating of land creates low pressure on the landmass of Indian subcontinent.
3. Southwest monsoon ‘on set’ reaches Kerala and gives rain to Western ghats and Northeast India except in the Coromandel coast.
4. It is operated in two branches, Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
5. Retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
6. Lower pressure conditions move to Bay of Bengal by early November.
7. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 2.
Observe the following Climographs and answer.
a) Why is there a difference between the rainy season of Chennai and Jaipur?
Answer:
Jaipur receives rainfall by the South-West monsoons.
Chennai receives rainfall by the North-East monsoons.

b) In which month is the highest temperature recorded in Jaipur?
Answer:
May.

c) Among these two, which area gets the highest rainfall?
Answer:
Chennai.

d) Both the areas are rain shadow regions. Is it? How would you justify it?
Answer:
Yes. In the South-West monsoon season Jaipur and Chennai areas are rain shadow regions.
(OR)
No. Only in the South-West monsoon season Chennai is rain shadow region. But not in North-East monsoon.

Question 3.
Read the given para and answer the question given below.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Read the text given above and comment on the climate change.
Answer:

1. The drastic changes in climate influence the life on Earth.
2. The raise in average temperature leads to the raise in sea levels.
3. The habitations in coastal areas will be drowned.
4. People may lose their livelihood.
5. Unexpected changes may occur in rainfall.
6. Droughts and floods may occur.
7. Agriculture will be influenced.
8. Climate change happens at a global level and therefore, it affects all of us.

Question 4.
Developed countries want developing countries to cut down on burning coal and other activities that add greenhouse gases to the atmosphere. Is this justified? Explain your opinion.
Answer:
This is justified because activities that increase greenhouse gases are increased. The net effect is that these gases lead to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere.
When the ozone layer is depleted what happens is that radiation pertaining to ultraviolet rays reaches the earth’s surface and this radiation may cause cancer.
OR
It is not justified because

1. Developing countries argue that the developed countries have developed by burning fossil fuels.
2. They also argue that they cannot develop without burning fossil fuels.
3. They also want the developed countries to show alternative sources for their development.

Question 5.
Analyze the relationship between the population density and geographical conditions of a particular area.
Answer:

1. India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world.
2. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq. km.
3. Densities vary from 1102 persons per sq. km. in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Assom and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities.
5. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.
6. The Northern plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW (Anthropogenic Global Warming; anthropogenic means caused by humans) is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming:

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisher folk.

Measures to minimize the influence of the global warming:

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction of burning of fossil fuels.
3. Instead of coal use of solar energy to be encouraged.
4. Reduction in the use of vehicles and encouragement of public transport system.
5. Release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere should be reduced.

Question 7.
Name the factors influencing climate. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The factors that affect climate are called climatic controls. These include:

1. Latitude
2. Land-water relationship
3. Relief
4. Upper air circulation

1. Latitude:

1. Intensity of temperature depends on the latitude. It is more intense in lower latitudes than at higher latitudes.
2. In India, the southern part lies in the tropical zone, closer to the equator; it has a higher average temperature than that in the northern part.
   Ex: The climate of Kanyakumari is different from that of Delhi.

2. Land-water relationship:

1. The water bodies absorb and lose heat more slowly than land.
2. Due to this the formation of land and sea breezes influence the climate of coastal region. Ex: As Visakhapatnam is on the seashore, it is cooler than Guntur which is not on the seashore.

Question 8.
Observe the following graph and analyze it.
Answer:

1. This climograph shows the details of Mean Maximum Temperature, Mean Minimum Temperature and Mean Rainfall of Chennai.
2. Chennai receives 38°C to 28°C maximum temperature during the year.
3. It receives 20°C to 28°C minimum temperature during the year.
4. The wettest months for Chennai are October and November.
5. It is because it receives rainfall during the retreat of the southwest monsoon or during the north-east monsoon.
6. The driest month for Chennai is February / March and the rainfall for the month is 15 mm.
7. The hottest months for Chennai are May and June.
8. Chennai has a moderate climate with 38°C as the highest and 20°C as the lowest temperature.
9. The weather in Chennai is mostly hot and humid.
10. The close proximity of ocean and equator makes the climate and weather in Chennai relatively
    consistent with less variation in the seasonal temperature.

Question 9.
Classify the monsoon winds in India and explain them.
Answer:

Monsoon winds

Climate of country is determined by various factors like Latitude, Relief, Land water relationship and upper air circulation. Climate in India is influenced by monsoons. The Arab traders named the term monsoon. The monsoons in the tropical area are strong as low pressure forms here. The Southeast monsoon winds from the Southern hemisphere carry moisture as they flow over the Indian ocean and towards the equatorial low-pressure zones.
After crossing the equator, these winds deflect towards the low pressure formed in the Indian sub-continent. The heating of land creates low pressure on the land mass of Indian sub-conti¬nent, especially over central India and the Gangetic plain. Along with this, the Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated and causes strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at above 9 kms altitude.

They then flow as the southwest monsoon. The Indian peninsula divides them into two branches – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the Bengal coast and the southern face of the Shillong plateau. Then, it gets deflected and flows westward along the Gangetic valley. The Arabian Sea branch arrives at the west coast of India and moves north ward. Both the branches reach India by the beginning of June, which is known as the ‘onset of monsoon’. They gradually spread over the entire country in four to five weeks. The bulk of annual rainfall in India is received from south-west monsoon. The amount of rainfall is very high along the west coast due to the Western ghats, and in north-east India due to the high peaked hills. Tamil Nadu coast (Coromandel), however, remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

The low pressure conditions which once prevailed over north-western India move far South to the centre of the Bay of Bengal by early November. During this period,cyclonic depressions are common which originate over the Andaman area. These tropical cyclones are often very destruc¬tive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Cauveri are their targets. No year ever goes disaster-free. Occasionally, these tropical cyclones visit Sundarbans and Bangladesh too. Bulk of the rainfall of the Coramandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

Question 10.
“Human activities are the main cause for global warming” comment.
Answer:
Global warming: It refers to an unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of Earth’s climate system.
Human activities contributing to global warming:

1. Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth’s atmosphere in the amount of greenhouse gases, aerosols and cloudliness.
2. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
3. Greenhouse gases and aerosols effect climate by altering incoming solar radiation and out going infrared radiation that are part of Earth’s energy balance.
4. Due to industrial revolution, industrial pollution increases day by day.
5. Increasing of over population and using of power driven vehicles.
6. New methods of agricultural practices.
7. Mining, the establishment of nuclear power plants and reckless deforestation, etc.

Evil effects of global warming :

1. The earlier changes of cooling and warming are more rapid and leading to catastrophic changes.
2. If the climate is raised by 2° C, it leads to one meter raise in the sea levels.
3. The faster melting of Himalayan glaciers would disturb the livelihood of fisherfolk.

Question 11.
Observe the graph and answer the question below
a) In which longitude does Chennai lie?
b) What are the elements of climate shown in this graph?
c) What are the warmest months in Chennai?
d) Give a reason for Chennai experiencing the highest rainfall in the months of October and November.
Answer:
a) 80.3° East.
b) Temperature and rainfall.
c) May and June.
d) During South – West Monsoon Chennai is the Rainshadow region. But during the time of North-East monsoon due to depression in Bengal, Chennai also have low pressure, that’s why Chennai receives high rainfall in the months October – November.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on human activities with regard to the industrial revolution.
Earlier, cycles of cooling and warming happened over very long periods of time. This allowed much of the life on Earth the time to adapt to the changes. The problem now is that the heating is much more rapid and could lead to catastrophic changes. Much of the warming that has been occurring since the Industrial Revolution is because of human activities.
Answer:

1. The issue discussed in this paragraph is that the industrial revolution causes for many changes related to the atmosphere. Warming is increased over the period.
2. Human activities are the reasons for these changes.
3. Heating is gradually increasing because of human activities like using of vehicles, plastic, refrigerators, cell phones and releasing of industrial effluents.
4. Deforestation is also one of the major reasons.
5. The trees are helpful in maintaining the weather cool.
6. More and more green house gases are released due to industrialization.
7. Development and modernization should not become the hurdle to the human life.
8. The pollution and damage to the nature affect human life.
9. So human beings should think of their activities keeping the future in mind.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on the effect of deforestation.
Most scientists from around the world agree on this much: AGW is real, it is happening, and it is leading to rapid and drastic climate change. They warn that severe weather and other changes will increase in the coming years and threaten life as we know it. One of the human activities that contribute to global warming is deforestation.
Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the Anthropogenic Global Warming is increasing and it is affecting the climate change.
2. If it is not stopped there will be a threat to the next coming generation.
3. The main focus is there on deforestation.
4. In our country major portion of employment is from agriculture.
5. For leading a better life, everyone is trying to exploit the nature.
6. The farmers are cutting the trees for making agricultural implements and for the construction of houses.
7. Many other people are also cutting trees for making various types of furniture.
8. I suggest the government to take necessary steps to control deforestation.
9. For that various awareness programmes are to be taken up.
10. Necessary acts are to be implemented in a right way.

Question 14.
Read the following text and interpret it.
More recently, scientists are discovering large volumes of methane under the frozen tundras of the far northern latitudes (mainly in the vast expanses of northern Russia). As global tem¬perature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperatures. In turn, this causes even more ice to melt, releasing even more methane, and so on. Methane is said to be even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
Answer:

1. Global warming has been increasing.
2. As global temperature increases, the ice in the tundra melts more.
3. The methane that is trapped under the ice escapes into the atmosphere, increasing the global temperature.
4. Methane is even more powerful than carbon dioxide as a green house gas.
5. Then it is our responsibility to reduce global warming.
6. This global warming leads to climatic changes.
7. Hence human activities that lead to global warming are to be reduced.

Question 15.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which latitude is passing through the centre of India?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer is passing through the centre of India.

b) Which part of India lies in the tropical zone ?
Answer:
Southern India lies in the tropical zone.

c) Which part of India lies in the temperate zone ?
Answer:
Northern India lies in the temperate zone.

d) Which part of India experiences higher average temperatures? Why?
Answer:
South India experiences higher average temperature as it is close to the equator.

e) What conclusion can you draw from the above picture?
Answer:
The temperature decreases as we move away from the equator.

Question 16.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) In which state south-west monsoons enter first in India?
Answer:
In our country the south-west monsoons enter Kerala first.

b) Into which state do the south-west monsoons enter on 15 July?
Answer:
The south-west monsoons enter Rajasthan on 15 July.

c) In which state there is no effect of south-west monsoons in India?
Answer:
In our country, the south-west monsoons are ineffective in Tamil Nadu.

d) Which parts of India experience the onset of the south-west monsoon first?
Answer:
Kerala and the north-east states of India, Tripura and Mizoram.

e) Which Indian region remains mostly dry during the south-west monsoon season ?
Answer:
Coramandel coast of Tamil Nadu remains mostly dry during this season as it is in the rain shadow region of the Arabian sea branch and is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 17.
Study the given climograph and answer the questions that follow.
a) Where is Hyderabad located?
Answer:
Hyderabad is located on the 17.4° North Latitude and 78.5° East Longitude.

b) What is the mean maximum temperature recorded in Hyderabad?
Answer:
38°C.

c) In which month does it rain maximum in Hyderabad?
Answer:
In August.

d) Which is the coldest month in Hyderabad?
Answer:
December.

Question 18.
Observe the below picture and answer the following questions.
a) In which direction are the winds blowing?
Answer:
Winds are blowing from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

b) During which month the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During July the South-west monsoons reach Indian subcontinent.

c) Which areas experience low pressure during January?
Answer:
Oceans around Indian subcontinent experience low pressure.

d) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of January.
Answer:
Retreating monsoons (or) Northeast monsoons.

e) Name the monsoons that blow during the month of July.
Answer:
South-west monsoons.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of India.
   Answer:
   New Delhi
2. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh.
   Answer:
   Itanagar
3. The Dam which is on the Tungabhadra River.
   Answer:
   Tungabhadra
4. Darjeeling
5. The river-based port in India.
   Answer:
   Kolkata
6. The capital of Rajasthan.
   Answer:
   Jaipur
7. The old fold mountains of India.
   Answer:
   Aravalis
8. This latitude divided the India into two equal parts.
   Answer:
   Tropic of Cancer
9. The highest peak in Western Ghats.
   Answer:
   Anaimudi
10. Jaintia Hills.