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Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Changes Around Us on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 10 Changes Around Us with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer and write its letters in the brackets.

1. Change in the shape of the balloon is done by blowing air into it. This is a……
A) manmade change
B) natural change
C) chemical change
D) periodic change.
Answer:
A) manmade change

2. Which of the following is not a man made-change?
A) preparation of bricks
B) making of paper
C) weaving of clothes
D) growing of nails
Answer:
D) growing of nails

3. Which of the following is not a fast change?
A) burning of paper
B) firing of crackers
C) making of a cake
D) spinning of a top
Answer:
C) making of a cake

4. The change happens in less time is.
A) slow change
B) fast change
C) periodic change
D) non periodic change.
Answer:
B) fast change

5. Which of the following is not reversible?
A) Weight suspended from a spring
B) Water changed to water vapour
C) Inflating of a balloon
D) Burning of a coal
Answer:
D) Burning of a coal

6. On …………… ice converts to water
A) heating
B) cooling
C) freezing
D) evaporating
Answer:
A) heating

7. some changes we cannot regain the original substance, these are.
A) manmade change
B) natural change
C) irreversible change
D) reversible change
Answer:
C) irreversible change

8. Limewater
A) Calcium Hydroxide
B) Sodium hydroxide
C) Potassium hydroxide
D) Carbonic acid
Answer:
A) Calcium Hydroxide

9. Which of the following is an irreversible change?
A) burning of wood
B) burning of Diwali crackers
C) ripening of fruits
D) all
Answer:
D) all

10. Which gas is released when lemon juice reacts with baking soda?
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrogen
D)water vapour
Answer:
B) carbon dioxide

11. These changes are repeating at regular intervals of time.
A) slow change
B) fast change
C) periodic change
D) non periodic change.
Answer:
C) periodic change

12. Changes which do not occur at regular intervals of time and which cannot be predicted are called
A) slow change
B) fast change
C) periodic change
D) non periodic change
Answer:
D) non periodic change

13. Crystallization requires
A) heating
B) cooling
C) evaporating
D) A or C
Answer:
A) heating

14. In crystallization….
A) no new substances are formed.
B) new substances are formed.
C) no heating is required
D) none
Answer:
A) no new substances are formed.

15. Crystallization is
A) chemical change
B) physical change
C) periodic change
D) non periodic change
Answer:
B) physical change

16. Choose correct answer.
S: Crystallization is a Physical Change.
R: In crystallization no new substances are formed.
A) S and R are correct.
B) S and R are incorrect.
C) S is correct and R is incorrect.
D) S is incorrect and R is correct.
Answer:
A) S and R are correct.

17. Which change takes place when ice cube melts?
A) colour
B) phase
C) chemical
D) all
Answer:
B) phase

18. When a piece of gold is melted?
A) no new substances are formed.
B) new substances are formed.
C) chemical composition changes
D) none
Answer:
A) no new substances are formed.

19. When a piece of gold is melted, its chemical composition in the Solid form and also in the liquid form.
A) changes
B) varies
C) remains same
D) different
Answer:
C) remains same

20. In physical change ……….. changes.
A) shape
B) colour
C) size
D) all
Answer:
D) all

21. It is not a characteristic of a physical change…
A) No new substances are formed
B) Temporary and reversible in nature.
C) The chemical properties of a substance do not change.
D) It is a periodic change.
Answer:
D) It is a periodic change.

22. In curdling of milk is
A) a physical change
B) reversible change
C) chemical change
D) temporary change
Answer:
C) chemical change

23. When magnesium burns in the presence of oxygen, it forms magnesium oxide
A) magnesium oxide
B) magnesium chloride
C) carbon dioxide
D) none
Answer:
A) magnesium oxide

24. Magnesium Hydroxide is…..
A) an acid
B) a base
C) a neutral
D) none
Answer:
B) a base

25. Characteristic of a chemical change
A) During chemical change new substances are formed.
B) It is a permanent change and irreversible in nature.
C) Chemical composition of the substance changes.
D) All
Answer:
D) All

26. In chemical change which is not happens.
A) Heat, light may be released or absorbed.
B) A colour change may take place and sound may be produced.
C) Original substances may be formed on reversing the process
D) None
Answer:
C) Original substances may be formed on reversing the process

27. Rusting of iron requires
A) moisture
B) air
C) both
D) none
Answer:
C) both

28. Rust is…
A) iron oxide
B) calcium chloride
C) iron peroxide
D) above all
Answer:
A) iron oxide

29. Oxidization is observed in
A) iron articles
B) apples
C) brinjal
D) none
Answer:
D) none

30. Which of the following is used to prevent browning of the outer surface of the potato and brinjal?
A) cold water
B) lemon juice
C) ascorbic acid
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

31. Which of the following is used in galvanizing?
A) zinc
B) chromium
C) A & C
D) none
Answer:
C) A & C

32. This process of deposition of a layer of zinc on iron is called
A) oxidation
B) galvanization
C) crystallization
D) none
Answer:
B) galvanization

33. Due to this process of brown layer is formed on the surface of fruits and vegetables.
A) oxidation
B) galvanization
C) crystallization
D) none
Answer:
A) oxidation

34. Which of the following is a useful change?
A) global warming
B) acid rain
C) plastic decomposition
D) fermentation
Answer:
D) fermentation

35. Which of the following occurs due to drastic increase in the emission of carbon dioxide by the burning of fossil fuels
A) global warming
B) floods
C) earth quakes
D) fermentation
Answer:
A) global warming

36. Ice converting to water, water converting to steam are ………. changes.
A) reversible
B) chemical
C) periodic
D) all
Answer:
A) reversible

37. Ripening of fruits is ………….. change.
A) reversible
B) physical
C) periodic
D) irreversible
Answer:
D) irreversible

38. The change occurs only in Size, colour and shape of the substance and no change in chemical composition are called ………….. changes
A) chemical
B) physical
C) periodic
D) irreversible
Answer:
B) physical

39. ………. change occurs with the formation of new substance in different chemical composition.
A) Reversible
B) Physical
C) Periodic
D) Chemical
Answer:
D) Chemical

40. The process of depositihg zinc on iron metals is called
A) oxidation
B) galvanization
C) rusting
D) crystallization
Answer:
B) galvanization

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The changes which were taken place by the involvement of human beings are called ………………. change.
2. Changes which occur in ………………. duration of time are called fast changes.
3. Changes which takes longer duration of time to happen are called ………………. Change.
4. Changing of vegetable to curry : slow reaction:: changing of acid into vapour ………………. .
5. On ………………. water converts to ice.
6. The changes in which the formed substance can be converted into their ………………. are called reversible changes.
7. ………………. changes Limewater into milky white.
8. Vinegar + Baking Soda → Sodium acetate + ………………. + water
9. ………………. + Lime water → Calcium carbonate + water
10. Changes in which we cannot get the original substance by reversing the experimental conditions are called ………………. Changes.
11. ………………. changes are repeating at regular intervals of time .
12. The process of separating a soluble solid from the solution by heating or evaporating is called ………………. .
13. A ………………. is usually temporary and reversible in nature.
14. The substances which undergo change in colour or state or size or shape are ………………. .
15. When a Magnesium ribbon burns it gives ………………. light leaving a powdery substance behind.
16. ………………. + Water → Magnesium Hydroxide
17. Changes that occur with the formation of new substance with different chemical composition or transformation of a substance into another substance with the evolution or absorption of heat or light energy are termed as ………………. .
18. Iron + Oxygen (from air) + Water → ……………….
19. Apply a coat of paint or grease on iron articles. Prevents ………………. .
20. To prevent iron articles from coming contact with oxygen in air and water, a layer of another metal like ………………. is coated on them.
21. The process of deposition of a layer of zinc on iron is called ………………. .
22. Browning is not only observed on iron articles but also on cut fruits and ………………. .
23. Rubbing of the surface of cut fruits with ………………. to avoid from browning.
24. The process of reaction with ………………. is called oxidation.
25. ………………. waste is a widely recognized source of pollution.
26. ………………. gases are produced when fossil fuels such as coal and oil are burned in power station, factories and homes.
27. Oil spills occur when ………………. is released into the environment.
28. Formation of day and night, occurrence of seasons are ………………. changes.
29. Curding of milk : useful changes :: ………………. : harmful change.
Answer:

1. 1. man-made
2. short
3. slow
4. fast reaction
5. cooling
6. original substance
7. Carbon dioxide
8. carbon dioxide
9. Carbon dioxide
10. irreversible
11. periodic changes
12. crystallization
13. physical change
14. physical changes
15. brilliant white dazzling
16. Magnesium Oxide
17. chemical change
18. rust (Iron oxide)
19. rusting of iron
20. chromium or zinc
21. Galvanization
22. vegetables
23. juices of citrus fruits
24. oxygen
25. Plastic
26. Acidic
27. liquid petroleum
28. periodic
29. global warming

III. Match the following.

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

5.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Heat, Temperature and Climate on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 9 Heat, Temperature and Climate with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer and write its letters in the brackets.

1. It is a form of energy that flows from a hotter body to a cooler body.
A) Heat
B) Light
C) Sound
D) Electricity
Answer:
A) Heat

2. When heat energy flows from our body to Lassi. Here,
A) Lassi loss Heat energy
B) Body lose heat energy
C) Body gain heat energy
D) A and C
Answer:
B) Body lose heat energy

3. Joules are units of
A) Humidity
B) Climate
C) Heat
D) Air pressure
Answer:
C) Heat

4. The degree of hotness or coldness is called ………..
A) Humidity
B) Temperature
C) Heat
D) Air pressure
Answer:
D) Air pressure

5. Temperature is measured in…….
A) Degrees of Celsius
B) Degrees of Fahrenheit
C) Kelvin
D) All
Answer:
D) All

6. The SI unit of temperature is ………….
A) Degrees of Celsius
B) Degrees of Fahrenheit
C) Kelvin
D) All
Answer:
C) Kelvin

7. Kelvin is written as
A) °C
B) °F
C) °K
D) K
Answer:
D) K

8. Which is correct?
i) Heat is the degrees of hotness or coldness.
ii) Heat is measured in joules
A) i only
B) ii only
C) both i & ii
D) both are incorrect
Answer:
B) ii only

9. Cooking utensils are made of ………..
A) conductors
B) insulators
C) fuels
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) conductors

10. Handles of cooking vessels are made of …………….
A) conductors
B) insulators
C) fuels
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) insulators

11. A: Metals are used to make cooking vessels.
R: Metals allow heat through them.
Which is correct?
A) A & R are correct and R supports A
B) A & R are correct but R does not support A
C) A is correct but R is wrong
D) R is Correct but A is wrong
Answer:
A) A & R are correct and R supports A

12. The ability of a material to conduct heat is called …………..
A) Thermal conductivity
B) Thermal resistivity
C) Thermometer
D) None
Answer:
A) Thermal conductivity

13. It is not a good conductor.
A) Copper
B) Steel
C) Plastic
D) Cast iron
Answer:
C) Plastic

14. Insulator is….
A) Water
B) Glass
C) Plastic
D) All
Answer:
D) All

15. Heat cannot pass in the mode of
A) Conduction
B) Convection of heat
C) Radiation of heat
D) None
Answer:
D) None

16. In which heat is transferred from one end to another end by the mode of conduction.
A) Steel spoon
B) Water
C) A and B
D) Sun to earth
Answer:
A) Steel spoon

17. This mode of transfer of heat happens more in solid conductors
A) Conduction
B) Convection of heat
C) Radiation of heat
D) None
Answer:
A) Conduction

18. This process of transfer of heat from source of heat to surface by the motion of particles
A) Conduction
B) Convection of heat
C) Radiation of heat
D) all
Answer:
B) Convection of heat

19. This is not a medium of heat energy.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) None
Answer:
D) None

20. This mode of transfer of heat doesn’t require any media.
A) Conduction
B) Convection of heat
C) Radiation of heat
D) All
Answer:
C) Radiation of heat

21. The process of transfer of heat in the form of waves is called
A) Conduction
B) Convection of heat
C) Radiation of heat
D) All
Answer:
C) Radiation of heat

22. Which instrument can control the transfer of heat (loss of heat)?
A) Thermos flask
B) Thermometer
C) Thermal scanner
D) All
Answer:
A) Thermos flask

23. The flask retains hot inside the flask for
A) a few hours
B) ever
C) never
D) a few weeks.
Answer:
A) a few hours

24. Thermos flask was invented by
A) Sir James cook
B) Sir James Chadwick
C) Sir James Dewar
D) Sir James watts
Answer:
C) Sir James Dewar

25. Which of the following expands on heating and contracts on cooling?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All
Answer:
D) All

26. Air on cooling
A) contracts
B) occupy less space.
C) expand
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

27. Warm air is lighten than cold air. This property of air is used in
A) hot air balloons
B) kites
C) rockets
D) all
Answer:
A) hot air balloons

28. Thermometer contains bulb of
A) mercury
B) alcohol
C) A or B
D) silver
Answer:
C) A or B

29. Mercury is a in room temperature.
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) all
Answer:
A) solid

30. This is not a property of the mercury .
A) Its expansion is uniform.
B) It is a good conductor of heat.
C) It easily sticks to the sides of glass tube.
D) It has a high boiling point.
Answer:
C) It easily sticks to the sides of glass tube.

31. The boiling point and a freezing point of the mercury are
A) -39°C and 357°C
B) 357°C and-39°C
C)100°C and 0°C
D) none
Answer:
B) 357°C and-39°C

32. A: The freezing point of alcohol is more than -100°C.
R: Alcohol can be used to measure very low temperatures.
A) A & R are correct and R supports A
B) A & R are correct but R does not support A
C) A is correct but R is wrong
D) R is correct but A is wrong
Answer:
D) R is correct but A is wrong

33. Number of divisions in Fahrenheit scale is
A) 100
B) 212
C) 180
D) 32
Answer:
C) 180

34. Number of divisions in Kelvin scale is
A) 100
B) 212
C) 180
D) 32
Answer:
A) 100

35. Number of divisions in Celsius scale is
A) 100
B) 212
C) 180
D) 32
Answer:
A) 100

36. Which prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb in clinical thermometer.
A) Capillary
B) Kink
C) Bulb
D) Magnet
Answer:
B) Kink

37. Laboratory thermometer can measure higher temperatures than clinical thermometer because, it has
A) long bulb
B) long stem
C) short bulb
D) short stem
Answer:
B) long stem

38. This thermometer can work without Mercury.
A) Six max and min thermometer
B) Digital Thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D)All
Answer:
B) Digital Thermometer

39. Who invented Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer in 1780?
A) Sir James cook
B) James watt
C) Sir James Dewar
D) James Six
Answer:
D) James Six

40. The correct order is
i) After one or two minutes, take the thermometer out and note the reading,
ii) Place the bulb of the thermometer under your friend’s tongue.
iii) Wash the clinical thermometer properly with an antiseptic solution.
iv) To lower the mercury level, hold the thermometer firmly and give some jerks.
A) iv, ii, i, iii
B) iv, iii, ii, i
C) iii, iv, ii, i
D) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer:
C) iii, iv, ii, i

41. The normal temperature of the human body is
A) 37°C
B) 98.4°F
C) 310K
D) all
Answer:
D) all

42. Ventilators are working on
A) Air expands on heating
B) Air contracts on heating
C) Metal expands on heating
D) Air contracts on cooling
Answer:
A) Air expands on heating

43. Which is used to measure the air pressure?
A) Hygrometer
B) Thermometer
C) Barometer
D) Rain gauge
Answer:
C) Barometer

44. A: If roofs were weak, they could be lifted and blown away.
R: The moving air creates high pressure.
A) A & R are correct and R supports A
B) A & R are correct but R does not support A
C) A is correct but R is wrong
D) R is correct but A is wrong
Answer:
C) A is correct but R is wrong

45. Rain fall is measured with a
A) hygrometer
B) thermometer
C) barometer
D) rain gauge
Answer:
D) rain gauge

46. This is not a measuring component of weather
A) humidity
B) temperature
C) wind speed
D) none
Answer:
D) none

47. Humidity is measured in
A) g/cubic meter
B) mm/cubic meter
C) °C
D) m/°C
Answer:
A) g/cubic meter

48. In summer, the humidity of air is
A) low
B) high
C) no change
D) zero
Answer:
B) high

49. High temperatures, along with humidity sometimes may cause
A) kwashiorkor
B) beriberi
C) corona
D) sunstroke
Answer:
D) sunstroke

50. It gives the information about atmospheric conditions in a specific area and time.
A) Weather
B) Climate
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
A) Weather

51. This deals with a long period.
A) Weather
B) Climate
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
B) Climate

52. It affects our lifestyle
A) Weather
B) Climate
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
B) Climate

53. Which phenomenon measures atmospheric conditions in a specific area and time?
A) Weather
B) Climate
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
A) Weather

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Heat is a form of energy that flows from a ………………. body to a ………………. body.
2. Heat is measured in ………………. with calorimeter
3. Heat flows from a body of high temperature to a body of low temperature. This direction is determined by ………………. .
4. The degree of ………………. is called ‘temperature’.
5. Degree of Celsius is written as ………………. .
6. Degree of Fahrenheit is written as ………………. .
7. Some materials allow heat through them, this property is called ………………. .
8. Water, air, clothes, glass, cork, plastic, wood etc. are some examples of ………………. .
9. This process of transfer of heat from hotter to colder end through the conductor’ is called ………………. .
10. The contact which transfers heat by any mode is called ………………. .
11. Water is a ………………. of heat.
12. Heat is transferred by means of ………………. called convectional currents.
13. The materials which help in transfer of heat from one place to another are called ………………. .
14. Sun’s heat transfers to earth in the form of ………………. .
15. The thermal scanner receives the heat in the form of ………………. to measure our body temperature.
16. The inner ………………. in thermos flask protects the contents (tea, coffee, milk) poured in the flask from losing heat through radiation.
17. As there is ………………. between the walls of the flask; neither conduction nor convection of heat takes place.
18. Particles of substances occupies ………………. space when they get heated.
19. Small gaps left between rails in railway tracks, because metal ………………. on heat
20. ………………. are used to measure temperature.
21. The principle involved in working of a thermometer is ………………. .
22. The melting point of ice is ………………. °C
23. The melting point of ice and boiling point of water in Fahrenheit are ………………. .
24. The melting point of ice and boiling point of water in SI units are ………………. .
25. The formula to convert Celsius to Kelvin is ………………. .
26. The formula to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit is ………………. .
27. ………………. is used in hospitals to measure the temperature of the human body.
28. Clinical Thermometer has a ………………. that prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when it was taken out of the patient’s mouth.
29. After taking readings in six max and min thermometer the indicators I₂ and I₁ are brought to their original places by using ………………. .
30. The normal temperature of the human body is ………………. .
31. Smoke and hot air moves up because it ………………. on heating and becomes lighter.
32. The force applied by air oh any surface in contact is called ………………. .
33. The air pressure becomes ………………. when it is compressed.
34. When air expands and raises up it creates ………………. .
35. ………………. drives the air high pressure from surrounding to move and occupy that place.
36. Air pressure is measured in height of ………………. level in centimeters
37. ………………. is measured in millimeters by using a rain gauge.
38. The water vapour present in the air is called ………………. .
39. ………………. is used to measure humidity in air and it is expressed in grams per cubic meter.
40. Evaporation of ………………. from our body makes us cool to maintain our body temperature.
41. The day-to-day variations in the components like temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed are called ………………. .
42. ………………. forecasting is the application of science and technology to predict the conditions of the atmosphere using components of weather for a given location and time.
43. It is easier to know about weather with the help of ………………. than tables.
44. ………………. study and work on weather and record weather every day.
45. The average weather pattern taken over a long period, say 25 years or more, is called the ………………. of the place.
46. Expansion of IMD is ………………. .
47. The abnormal variation in the components of climate is called ………………. .
Answer:

1. hotter, cooler
2. Joules or calories
3. temperature
4. hotness or coldness
5. °C
6. °F
7. conductivity
8. insulators
9. conduction
10. Thermal contact
11. poor conductor
12. currents
13. medium
14. radiation
15. radiation
16. silver coating
17. no medium or vacuum
18. more
19. expand
20. Thermometers
21. expansion of liquids on heating
22. 0
23. 32°F, 212°F
24. 273K, 373K
25. K °C + 273
26. 
27. Clinical Thermometer
28. kink
29. a magnet
30. 37°C or 98.4°F
31. expands
32. air pressure
33. more
34. low pressure
35. Low pressure
36. mercury
37. Rainfall
38. Humidity
39. Hygrometer
40. Sweat
41. weather
42. Weather
43. graphs
44. Meteorologists
45. Climate
46. Indian Meteorological Department
47. climate change

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

5.

Answer:

6.

Answer:

7.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Wonders of Light on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 8 Wonders of Light with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer and write its letters in the brackets.

1. This is not a natural source of light.
A) sun
B) stars
C) moon
D) none
Answer:
C) moon

2. Example to human involvement is needed to release light
A) sun
B) stars
C) candle
D) none
Answer:
C) candle

3. Light rays which travel from a source moving in different directions are called as of light rays.
A) parallel
B) converge
C) diverge
D) B and C
Answer:
C) diverge

4. Which of the following does not give regular reflection?
A) mirror
B) cloth
C) new steel plate
D) polished marble
Answer:
B) cloth

5. In case of irregular reflection images cure
A) not clear
B) cannot form
C) clear
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

6. These are in the same plane.
i. The incident ray
ii. normal to the surface
iii. The reflected ray
A) i,ii
B) i,iii
C) ii, iii
D) i,ii,iii
Answer:
D) i,ii,iii

7. Angle between normal and the incident ray
A) angle of incidence
B) angle of reflection
C) angle of vision
D) A & B
Answer:
A) angle of incidence

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the image of the plane mirror?
A) Object distance is equal to image distance.
B) Size of the object is equal to size of the image.
C) The image formed is always real and erect.
D) Laterally inverted image is formed.
Answer:
C) The image formed is always real and erect.

9. The distance of the object from the mirror is …………….. the distance of image from the mirror.
A) is equal to
B) is greater than to
C) is less than to
D) A & C
Answer:
A) is equal to

10. The size of image is not equal to that of the object in any situation.
A) plane mirror
B) convex mirror
C) concave mirror
D) none
Answer:
B) convex mirror

11. The distance of the image from the mirror is called
A) Image distance
B) Object distance
C) Normal
D) None
Answer:
A) Image distance

12. This type of image can catch on the screen
A) real
B) virtual
C) both
D) none
Answer:
A) real

13. Image formed by a plane mirror
A) erect & real
B) inverted & virtual
C) erect & virtual
D) inverted & real
Answer:
C) erect & virtual

14. No. of images formed when the angle between two plane mirrors is 60°
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer:
B) 5

15. No. of images formed when the angle between two plane mirrors is 90°
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

16. No. of images formed when the angle between two plane mirrors is 0°
A) infinity
B) 5
C) 6
D) 0
Answer:
A) infinity

17. No. of images formed is 1, then the angle between two plane mirrors is
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
C) 180°

18. The instrument which is used in submarines to see the objects or persons above the water level.
A) microscope
B) telescope
C) kaleidoscope
D) periscope
Answer:
D) periscope

19. Angle between two plane mirrors in periscope is
A) 0°
B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
A) 0°

20. The steel spoon can act as …
A) plane mirror
B) convex mirror
C) concave mirror
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

21. The mirror forms all types of images
A) plane mirror
B) convex mirror
C) concave mirror
D) B & C
Answer:
C) concave mirror

22. The mirror is used as rear view mirror
A) plane mirror
B) convex mirror
C) concave mirror
D) B & C
Answer:
B) convex mirror

23. Which rule we should follow to protect eyes while watching TV or computer?
A) 20-20-20
B) 40-4-40
C) 10-10-10
D) 12-12-12
Answer:
A) 20-20-20

24. Which light is not dangerous to our eye?
A) yellow
B) red
C) blue
D) violet
Answer:
A) yellow

25. Which colour of light is composition of all colours?
A) yellow
B) red
C) blue
D) white
Answer:
D) white

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Light is a form of ………………. that helps us to see all the things around us.
2. Light comes from different objects called ………………. .
3. Objects that emit light are known as ………………. .
4. Sources that release light artificially [with human involvement] are called ………………. sources of light or artificial sources of light.
5. ………………. source emit light on their own.
6. The direction or path along which light travels is called ………………. .
7. The straight line indicates the of light and arrow mark indicates the ………………. of light from the source.
8. A bundle of light rays are called ………………. of light rays.
9. Light rays which travel parallel to each other are called ………………. of light rays.
10. Light rays which travel from different directions to meet at a point are called as ………………. of light rays.
11. Light rays which travel from a source moving in different directions are called as ………………. of light rays.
12. The process of bouncing back of light rays into the same medium after falling on a smooth or rotigh surface from the light source is called ………………. .
13. Objects are visible only when ………………. falls on the objects and bounces back to the eye.
14. Light rays from the sun fall on the mirror and bounced back and formed a spot of light on the wall. It is the image of ………………. .
15. The light rays that fall on the objects are called ………………. .
16. The light rays that bounce back from the objects are called ………………. .
17. Reflection from a ………………. surface is called regular reflection.
18. Reflection from an irregular or uneven surface is called ………………. reflection.
19. Clear images are formed in case of ………………. reflection.
20. Angle of ………………. is equal to Angle of reflection.
21. Incident and reflected rays are on either side of ………………. .
22. The angle made by incident ray with the normal is called ………………. .
23. The angle made by the reflected ray with the ………………. is called the angle of reflection.
24. The distance of the object from the mirror is called ………………. .
25. The distance of the image from the is called image distance.
26. When you are eating food with right hand it appears to be eating with left hand. This characteristic is called ………………. .
27. The image which cannot catch on the screen is called ………………. .
28. Plane mirror forms ………………. image.
29. The relation between number of images formed and the angle between two plane mirrors is ………………. .
30 . ………………. is an instrument used in submarines to see the objects or persons above the water level.
31. ………………. mirror reflect the light in different directions.
32. ………………. mirror reflect the light to one point.
33. A ………………. mirror forms real and virtual images, erect and inverted images, smaller, same size and bigger images depending on the position of object infront of it.
34. Ophthalmoscope is fitted with a ………………. mirror having a small hole near its center.
35. Dentists also use ………………. mirrors to get a bigger image of the teeth.
36. ………………. mirrors are used in head lights of the vehicles.
37. A piece of glass or any other transparent material with curved sides is called ………………. .
38. Lens which is thick in center and thin at the edges is called ………………. lens.
39. Lens which is thin in the centre and thick at the edges is called ………………. lens.
40. ………………. light has been proven effective in protecting retina than blue light which causes damage to retina.
41. Splitting of white light into seven colours is called ………………. .
Answer:

1. energy
2. sources of light
3. sources of light
4. man made
5. natural
6. a ray of light
7. path, direction
8. beam
9. parallel beam
10. Converging beam
11. Diverging beam
12. reflection of light
13. Light
14. sun
15. incident rays
16. reflected rays
17. smooth and shiny
18. irregular or diffused
19. regular
20. incidence
21. normal
22. angle of incidence
23. normal
24. object distance
25. mirror
26. lateral inversion
27. virtual image
28. virtual
29. 360°/θ -1
30. periscope
31. convex
32. concave
33. concave
34. concave
35. concave
36. concave
37. a lens
38. convex
39. concave
40. Yellow
41. dispersion

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

5.

Answer:

6.

Answer:

7.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Reproduction in Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 7 Reproduction in Plants with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer and write its letters in the brackets.

1. Seeds are related to
A) stem
B) root
C) flower
D) leaf
Answer:
C) flower

2. Sugarcane propagates through
A) nodes
B) leaf
C) root
D)suckers
Answer:
A) nodes

3. Ground layering is seen in
A) Jasmine
B) Bougainvillea
C) Strawberry
D) All
Answer:
D) All

4. Which one is formed from layering branch?
A) Roots
B) Leaves
C) Nodes
D) Fruits
Answer:
A) Roots

5. The rooted plant in grafting is called as
A) Scion
B) Stock
C) Node
D) Cutting
Answer:
B) Stock

6. In grafting which have desirable characters
A) Scion
B) Stock
C) Root
D) Leaf
AnsA) Scionwer:

7. This symbol represents
A) Female
B) Male
C) Both
D) Flower
Answer:
B) Male

8. This symbol represents
A) Male
B) Female
C) Both
D) Pollination
Answer:
B) Female

9. This diagram indicates
A) Pistil
B) Corolla
C) Stamens
D) Sepals
Answer:
A) Pistil

10. How many whorls that the complete flower has
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

11. Complete flowers also called as
A) Male flower
B) Female flower
C) Unisexual flower
D) Bisexual flower
Answer:
D) Bisexual flower

12. Ipomea have
A) Unisexual flower
B) Bisexual flower
C) Male flower
D) Female flower
Answer:
B) Bisexual flower

13. The zygote develops into
A) Embryo
B) Fruit
C) Flower
D) Stem
Answer:
A) Embryo

14. Which of the flower colour change after fertilization?
A) Mango
B) Rose
C) Cotton
D) Neam
Answer:
C) Cotton

15. Seeds compitect for
A) Soil
B) water
C) light
D) All
Answer:
D) All

16. Which process makes life immortal?
A) Reproduction
B) Digesion
C) Respiration
D) Circulation
Answer:
A) Reproduction

17. Transfer of pollen to stigma is
A) Pollination
B) Fertilization
C) Germination
D) Growth
Answer:
A) Pollination

18. Assertion (A) : A stamen has 2 parts.
Reason (R) : Filament and anther are parts of a stamen.
A) Both ’A’ and R’ are true and R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
B) Both A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A‘.
C) ‘A’ is true but R’ is false.
D) A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Answer:
A) Both ’A’ and R’ are true and R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.

19. Assertion (A) : Parts of pistil are anther and filament.
Reason (R) : Bisexual flowers are those which contain both stamen ahd pistil.
A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is. not the correct explanation of ‘A’.
C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Answer:
D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

20. Assertion (A) : A flower may either have a male or a female part.
Reason (R) : A flower having both male and female parts is called bisexual flower.
A) Both A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.
C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Answer:
B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.

21. Statement (I): After fertilization the ovary becomes the fruit and ovules the seeds.
Statement (ii) : Study of pollen grains is called polynology.
A) Statement (i) is correct while statement (ii) is incorrect.
B) Statement (ii is correct while statement (i) is correct.
C) Both statements are correct.
D) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer:
C) Both statements are correct.

22. It is the seat on which the parts of a flower are present.
A) Corolla
B) Thalamus
C) Calyx
D) Androecium
Answer:
B) Thalamus

23. It has funnel shape.
A) Corolla
B) Sepals
C) Calyx
D) Thalamus
Answer:
A) Corolla

24. This is the male part of the flower.
A) Gynoecium
B) Androecium
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
B) Androecium

25. This is the female part of a flower.
A) Petals
B) Calyx
C) Gynoecium
D) Androecium
Answer:
C) Gynoecium

26. An example for unisexual flower.
A) Bittergourd
B) Datura
C) Ipomea
D) Hibiscus
Answer:
A) Bittergourd

27. This is a bisexual flower.
A) Papaya
B) Cucumber
C) Bottlegourd
D) Hibiscus
Answer:
D) Hibiscus

28. The fleshy base to which all the floral parts are attached to is
A) Pedicel
B) Sepals
C) Thalamus
D) Petals
Answer:
C) Thalamus

29. The pollen grains are found in
A) Ovule
B) Anthers
C) Ovary
D) Stigma
Answer:
B) Anthers

30. The number of stamens present in Datura :
A) 5
B) 3
C) 6
D) 10
Answer:
A) 5

31. Ovules develop into :
A) flowers
B) plants
C) leaf
D) seeds
Answer:
D) seeds

32. The pollen grains contain
A) male garnets
B) female garnets
C) filaments
D) Stigma
Answer:
A) male garnets

33. It is a ……………
A) Unisexual flower
B) Bisexual flower
C) Female flower
D) Male flower
Answer:
C) Female flower

34. In which type of flower this part is present?
A) Male flower
B) Bisexual flower
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

35. Identify the part of flower
A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
A) Stamen

36. Identify the part of flower.
A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Petals
D) Sepals
Answer:
B) Pistil

37. It shows that
A) T.S of flower
B) L.S of flower
C) T.S of stem
D) T.S of root
Answer:
B) L.S of flower

38. Pollen grains are formed from
A) Stamen
B) Pistil
C) Ovary
D) Sepals
Answer:
A) Stamen

39. In the pollination what is transfer from anther to stigma?
A) Ovule
B) Zygote
C) Seed
D) Pollengrain
Answer:
D) Pollengrain

40. Agents of pollination
A) Birds
B)Insects
C) Air
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

41. New plants grow from the following part of a plant is not a vegetative reproduction
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Flower
Answer:
D) Flower

42. This develops as fruit.
A) Ovary
B) Ovule
C) Petals
D) Flower
Answer:
A) Ovary

43. Ovules develop into
A) fruit
B) seed
C) flower
D) plant
Answer:
B) seed

44. Dispersal of this seed is by water.
A) Coconut
B) Soap nut
C) Neem
D) Milk weed
Answer:
A) Coconut

45. Dispersal of calotropis is through
A) Water
B) Animals
C) Wind
D) Humans
Answer:
C) Wind

46. These seeds are dispersed by animals.
A) Fleshy fruits
B) Coconut
C) Neem
D) Balsam
Answer:
A) Fleshy fruits

47. Neem seed is dispersed to other places by
A) Animals
B) Human beings
C) Birds
D) Water
Answer:
C) Birds

48. Dispersal by bursting of these fruits is done.
A) Neem
B) Coconut
C) Fleshy fruits
D) Bhendi
Answer:
D) Bhendi

49. People transferred these seeds across the globe.
A) Coconut
B) Neem
C) Soap nut
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
D) Sugarcane

50. Among the following dispersal of seed occurs through wind in
A) Coconut
B) Lotus
C) Milkweed
D) Mango
Answer:
C) Milkweed

51. Seeds of Lotus travel by
A) Birds
B) Insects
C) Animals
D) Water
Answer:
D) Water

52. These are carried by birds
A) Maple
B) Milkweed
C) Lotus
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

53. On drying the pod explodes releases seeds with great force in
A) Mustard
B) Sugarcane
C) Pears
D) Tomato
Answer:
A) Mustard

54. These seeds are dispersal through
A) Water
B) Wind
C) Animals
D) Birds
Answer:
B) Wind

55. These seeds are dispersal through
A) Wind
B) Water
C) Animals
D) Birds
Answer:
B) Water

56. Seeds of sweet and fleshy fruits can dispersal through
A) Human beings
B) Birds
C) Animals
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Animals

57. Seed dispersal is essential for survival of
A) Plants
B) Animals
C) Birds
D) Human beings
Answer:
A) Plants

58. Cotton seeds have the following structures
A) Wing like outer growths
B) Hooks
C) Hairy parts
D) Thorns
Answer:
C) Hairy parts

59. The following seeds dispersal through human beings
A) Bhendi
B) Coconut
C) Tomato
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Tomato

60. Identify the wrong statement.
A) All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate
B) Some seeds germinate but plants die before maturation
C) Some seeds never germinate
D) All seeds do not germinate
Answer:
A) All the seeds of a fruit should be able to germinate

61. This seed is dispersed by
A) Water
B) Air
C) Animals
D) Bursting
Answer:
C) Animals

62. Dispersal of seeds by bursting of fruits happens in
A) Sugarcane
B) Coconut
C) Lotus
D) Ladies finger
Answer:
D) Ladies finger

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The propagation of Banana is through ………………………. .
2. The propagation of sugarcane is done by planting ………………………. .
3. Mint is propagated through ………………………. .
4. In potatoes, ………………………. are used for propagation.
5. In onions ………………………. are used for propagation.
6. Example for rhizome is ………………………. .
7. Example for corm is ………………………. .
8. Example for stem cutting is ………………………. .
9. Examples for ground layering are ………………………. .
10. Artificial propagation method used for getting plants with desired characters is ………………………. .
11. Sepals of a flower collectively called as ………………………. .
12. Petals of a flower are are collectively known as ………………………. .
13. Calyx is present in ………………………. whorl.
14. Corolla is present in ………………………. whori.
15. The male reproductive part of the flower is ………………………. .
16. The female reproductive part of the flower is ………………………. .
17. Androecium consists of ………………………. .
18. Gynoecium consists of ………………………. .
19. Androecium is present in ………………………. whorl of the flower.
20. Gynoecium is present in ………………………. whorl of the flower.
21. The smooth yellow coloured powder in anther is called ………………………. .
22. Transferring pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower is
23. Transferring of pollen grains from anther of one flower to stigma of another flower is known as ……………….. .
24. When pollen grains fall on stigma is ………………………. formed.
25. The fusion of pollen grains with ovules in ovary is known as ………………………. .
26. Fertilization results in the formation of ………………………. .
27. After fertilization, ovary ripes and turn into a ………………………. .
28. After fertilization, ovules turn into ………………………. .
29. Seeds with wings are carried away by ………………………. .
30. Example for seed dispersal through water is ………………………. .
31. Seeds of calotropis dispersed with the help of ………………………. .
32. Seeds of fleshy fruits are dispersed through ………………………. .
33. Seeds having hooks are dispersed with the help of ………………………. .
34. Neem seeds are dispersed with the help of ………………………. .
35. Seeds having hairs dispersed through ………………………. .
36. Dispersal of seed take place by bursting of fruits can be seen in ………………………. .
37. Lotus seeds are dispersed through ………………………. .
38. In Mustard, seeds dispersal takes place through ………………………. .
39. Seeds dispersed through aeroplanes and ships are ………………………. .
40. Flower shown in the picture is ………………………. .
41. Grafting technique is used in the plants like ………………………. for getting desired characters.
Answer:

1. suckers
2. nodes of sugarcane
3. cut the twigs with nodes and sow them
4. eyes
5. Bulb
6. Ginger
7. colocasia
8. rose
9. Jasmine, Jaji
10. grafting
11. Calyx
12. Corolla
13. 1st
14. 2nd
15. Androecium
16. Gynoecium
17. Stamens
18. Ovary with style and stigma
19. 3rd
20. 4th
21. pollen grains
22. Self – pollination
23. cross – pollination
24. pollen tube
25. fertilization
26. zygote
27. fruit
28. seeds
29. wind
30. coconut, louts
31. wind
32. animals, birds and man
33. animals
34. birds
35. wind
36. bhendi, balsam
37. water
38. bursting mechanism
39. pulses, wheat, paddy
40. Unisexual flower (or) incomplete flower
41. mango, guava etc.

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

5.

Answer:

6.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Electricity on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 6 Electricity with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. The positive electrode in a cell is called
A) Electrolyte
B) Anode
C) Cathode
D) Filament
Answer:
B) Anode

2. Which of the following converts chemical energy into electrical energy?
A) Cell
B) Bulb
C) Fan
D) Switch
Answer:
A) Cell

3. The container of a dry cell works as
A) Anode
B) Cathode
C) Electrolyte
D) None
Answer:
B) Cathode

4. A carbon rod with a metal cap in a cell works as
A) Anode
B) Cathode
C) Electrolyte
D) None
Answer:
A) Anode

5. Generally the chemical used in a dry cell is
A) Copper sulphate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Ammonium chloride
D) Potassium hydride
Answer:
C) Ammonium chloride

6. The lemon juice in a cell is acts as a
A) Anode
B) Cathode
C) Electrolyte
D) None
Answer:
C) Electrolyte

7. Dry cell is not used in
A) Torch light
B) Wall clock
C) Radio
D) Mobiles
Answer:
D) Mobiles

8. Assertion (A) : Dry cell is easy to move any where.
Reason (R) : Dry cell consists of also electrolyte in dried form.
A) A and R are correct and R is a correct reason to A
B) A and R are correct but R is not a correct reason to A
C) A is correct but R is incorrect
D) A is incorrect but R is correct
Answer:
A) A and R are correct and R is a correct reason to A

9. Generally, button cells are used in
A) Torch lights
B) Mobile phones
C) Wrist watches
D) Vehicles
Answer:
C) Wrist watches

10. 1) When switch is in ‘off position the circuit is a closed.
2) When switch is in’off position the bulb does not glow.
A) 1 is correct
B) 2 is correct
C) 1 and 2 are correct
D) 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
B) 2 is correct

11. Which of the following consumes more power than others?
A) Incandescent bulb
B) Fluorescent bulb
C) CFL
D) LED
Answer:
A) Incandescent bulb

12. Fuse wire is made of
A) Low melting point wire
B) High melting point wire
C) No melting point wire
D) A or B
Answer:
A) Low melting point wire

13. Which of the follow device prodect the electrical home appliances?
A) Fuse
B) MCB
C) A and B
D) Filament
Answer:
C) A and B

14. A siaifsie decftfc circuit amwBlmg of
A) a battery
B) a bulb
C) a switch
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

15. This is the symbol of
A) a cell
B) a battery
C) two switches
D) fuse
Answer:
B) a battery

16. This symbol represents
A) a cell
B) an open switch
C) a closed switch
D) an open cell
Answer:
B) an open switch

17. WMADftefofloif mg represents a glowing bulb?

Answer:
A

18. On series connection has
A) Only two paths
B) Only one path
C) More than one path
D) None
Answer:
B) Only one path

19. If a number of cells are connected in series the brightness of the bulb is
A) Enhanced
B) Reduced
C) As usual
D) A or B
Answer:
A) Enhanced

20. If a number of cells are connected in parallel the brightness of the bulb is
A) Enhanced
B) Reduced
C) As usual
D) A or B
Answer:
C) As usual

21. In which connection one of the cells are removed the circuit does not open?
A) Series
B) Parallel
C) A and B
D) None
Answer:
B) Parallel

22. If a number of bulbs are connected in series the brightness of the bulb is
A) Enhanced
B) Reduced
C) Sanafe issmre
D) Aor B
Answer:
B) Reduced

23. If a number of bulbs are connected in parallel the brightness of the bulb is
A) Enhanced
B) Reduced
C) Remains same
D)A or B
Answer:
C) Remains same

24. Household devices are connected in
A) Series
B) Parallel
C) A or B
D) None
Answer:
B) Parallel

25. Which of the following gives light by glowing in Bulbs?
A) Nichrome
B) Tungsten
C) Alnico
D) Copper
Answer:
B) Tungsten

26. Generally filament in iron boxes are made up of
A) Nichrome
B) Tungsten
C) Alnico
D) Copper
Answer:
A) Nichrome

27. The devices which acts as magnets when electricity passes through them
A) Electric kettles
B) Electric heaters
C) Electromagnets
D) MCB
Answer:
C) Electromagnets

28. Which of the following works on principle of magnetic effect of electricity?
A) Electric rice cooker
B) Thermometer
C) Electric bell
D) Electric bulb
Answer:
C) Electric bell

29. Which of the following is required to make an electromagnet?
A) Coiled copper wire
B) Nail
C) Electricity
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

30. Which of the following property can levitate a magnetic object?
A) Heat effect of electricity
B) light effect of electricity
C) Chemical effect of electricity
D) Magnetic effect erf etedtricity
Answer:
D) Magnetic effect erf etedtricity

31. Electromagnets are
A) permanent magnets
B) temporary msassets
C) not the magnets
D) bad conductors
Answer:
A) permanent magnets

32. 1 kilo watt =
A) 1000 watts
B) 100 watts
C) 1/1000 watts
D) 1/100 watts
Answer:
A) 1000 watts

33. 1 unit of electricity means
A) 1 WH
B) 1 KWH
C) 1000 KWH
D) 1/1000 KWH
Answer:
B) 1 KWH

34. Immediate action to be tacken when an electric shock occurs is
A) pouring erf water
B) danger with the device
C) Cut off power supply
D) Expiry date of the device
Answer:
C) Cut off power supply

35. Indicates
A) Power saving erf the device
B) Danger with the device
C) Quality erf the device
D) Expiry date of the device
Answer:
C) Quality erf the device

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………………. is a device used to generate electricity
2. The chemical componesrf that conducts electricity is called …………………. .
3. The negative electrode is called …………………. .
4. The …………………. electrode is called anode.
5. A cell converts the …………………. energy into …………………. energy.
6. The positive and negative terminals are called …………………. .
7. A group of …………………. is called a battery.
8. When switch is in ‘ON’ mode, the circuit is …………………. .
9. An ordinary bulb gives …………………. and …………………. .
10. CFL means …………………. .
11. LED means …………………. .
12. The electrical appliance with more stars consumes …………………. electricity.
13. …………………. protects home appliances from the excess of electricity flows through them.
14. Generally, fuse wire made of …………………. melting point.
15. MCB means …………………. .
16. …………………. is better, when compared to electric fuse.
17. A …………………. is a graphical representation of an electrical circuit.
18. The electrical symbol of fuse is …………………. .
19. In …………………. connection of cells life of battery increases.
20. Nichrome wire gets …………………. when electricity passed through it.
21. The production of …………………. due to the flow of electricity through a wire is called heating effect of electricity.
22. Household electricity is measured in …………………. .
23. 1 …………………. = 1000 watts.
24. KWH means …………………. .
25. A …………………. occurs when a person comes into contact with an electrical source.
26. Electricity flows through a portion of the body causing a
27. CPR means …………………. .
28. ISI means …………………. .
29. ISI mark ensures …………………. of the appliances.
Answer:

1. A cell
2. Electrolyte
3. Cathode
4. positive
5. chemical, electrical
6. electrodes
7. cells
8. closed
9. heat, light
10. Compact Fluorescent Lamp
11. Light Emitting Diode
12. less
13. Fuse
14. Low
15. Miniature Circuit Breaker
16. MCB
17. circuit diagram
18. 
19. parallel
20. heated up
21. heat
22. KWH or units
23. kilo watt
24. kilo watt hour
25. Electric
26. shock
27. Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation
28. Indian Standards Institutions
29. quality

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:
A – 7, B – 3, C – 1, D – 5, E – 6, F – 2, G – 4.

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Motion and Time on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 5 Motion and Time with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. The number of satellites launched in a single rocket and created a world record by ISRO.
A) 20
B) 104
C) 99
D) 100
Answer:
B) 104

2. SDSC – SHAR is located in
A) Chittoor
B) Nellore
C) Ananthapur
D) Guntur
Answer:
B) Nellore

3. The use of Rocket
A) to launch a space cratt
B) to launch a satellite
C) to shoot a missile
D) all
Answer:
D) all

4. The man made object around the earth is
A) Moon
B) Artificial satellite
C) Comet
D) Meteor
Answer:
B) Artificial satellite

5. An object is said to be in motion if……….
A) it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
B) it does not changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
C) it changes the position of its particles with in the object.
D) till the above
Answer:
A) it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.

6. Force is required
A) to change the object from rest into motion
B) to change its direction
C) to change from motion to rest
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

7. The total length of the path travelled by an object between two places is called….
A) Displacement
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Track
Answer:
C) Distance

8. S.I units of distance is
A) Centimeter
B) Metre
C) Kilometre
D) Miles
Answer:
B) Metre

9. Hie shortest distance between two places along the straight-line path is called…
A) Displacement
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Track
Answer:
A) Displacement

10. The basic unit of time is.
A) Minute
B) Second
C) Hour
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Second

11. Find the correct statement
i) 365 days is a year
ii) 100 year is a decade
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
B) i only correct

12. These are used to measure shorter time intervals between two events accurately.
A) Wall clock
B) Sand clock
C) Stop clocks
D) Water clock
Answer:
C) Stop clocks

13. The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the sun.
A) Day
B) Month
C) Year
D) Hour
Answer:
C) Year

14. A mean solar day contains
A) 24 days
B) Year
C) 24 minutes
D) 24 hours
Answer:
D) 24 hours

15. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be.
A) Translator motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Translator motion

16. Find the odd one
A) coconut falling from a tree
B) movement of lift
C) motion of light rays
D) movement of body of snake
Answer:
D) movement of body of snake

17. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in …..
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

18. Which of the following is not in rotatory motion?
A) Fan
B) Top
C) Cycle chain
D) Cycle wheel
Answer:
C) Cycle chain

19. Motion of cycle tyre
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) A & B
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

20. Sewing machine wheel :Rotatory motion :: Sewing machine needle : ?
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

21. The ’to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the samepath is called
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Circulatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

22. In this motion, the direction of motion of the objects changes alternatively along the same path about a fixed point.
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

23. Uniform motion : Minute hand in a wall clock:: Non uniform motion: ?
A) Movement of butterfly
B) Revolution of Earth
C) A train going at a steady speed
D) The blades of a fan
Answer:
A) Movement of butterfly

24. What we need to know to decide whether{he motion is slow or fast?
A) distance covered
B) time taken
C) direction of motion
D) A & B
Answer:
A) distance covered

25. Odometer shows……
A) Speed of the vehicle
B) Distance travelled by the vehicle
C) Direction of the vehicle
D) A & B
Answer:
B) Distance travelled by the vehicle

26. The Speedometer shows
A) Speed of the vehicle
B) distance travelled by the vehicle
C) Direction of the vehicle
D) A & B
Answer:
A) Speed of the vehicle

27. The Speedometer shows the speed in……
A) m/s
B) km/s
C) m/h
D) km/h
Answer:
D) km/h

28. At a particular instant of time, we can find speed of a vehicle using
A) Odometer
B) Barometer
C) Speedometer
D) Both A & C
Answer:
C) Speedometer

29. 1 Km/h = ?
A) 5/60 m/s
B) 5/18 m/s
C) 60/5 m/s
D) 18/5 m/s
Answer:
B) 5/18 m/s

30. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in this district
A) SPSR Nellore
B) Guntur
C) Chittoor
D) East godavari
Answer:
A) SPSR Nellore

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The ……………… by an object in a given interval of time can helps to decide whether it is faster or slower.
2. ……………… of an object can be defined as the distance travelled by it in a unit time.
3. Present chairman of iSRO ……………… .
4. ……………… are the devices that produce force or push to move an object forward into the space.
5. The movement of rocket is in a ……………… motion.
6. The movement of artificial satellites is in ……………… motion.
7. An object is said to be in ……………… if it changes its position with respect to its surroundings.
8. An object is said to be at ……………… if there is no change in its position with respect to its surroundings.
9. ……………… makes an object to move or tendio move.
10. The total length of the path travelled by an object between two places is called ……………… .
11. The basic unit of distance is ……………… .
12. S.I units of distance is ……………… .
13. The length of the straight-line path which is the shortest distance between two places is called ……………… .
14. The measurable period between two incidents is called ……………… .
15. The basic unit’of time is ……………… .
16. 1 minute = ……………… seconds
17. 10 years : 1 ………………
18. ……………… arA the most common time measuring devices.
19. ……………… are used to measure shorter time intervals between two events accurately.
20. The time between one new moon to the next is ……………… .
21. If all points of a moving object move through the same distance in same direction, then the motion is said to be ……………… .
22. If a body in translatory motion moves along a straight line then the motion is called ……………… .
23. If a body in translatory motion move along a curved path then the motion is called ……………… .
24. The motion of light rays is ……………… .
25. The movement of body of snake is in ……………… motion.
26. If all the parts of a moving body follow a curved path with respect to a fixed centre or axis of rotation, it is said to be in ……………… .
27. The imaginary line passing through the fixed centre is called ……………… .
28. ……………… is a special type of rotatory motidn, where the distance between the object and the axis of rotation remains fixed.
29. The to and fro’ motion of an object about a fixed point that always following the same path is called ……………… .
30. If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in ……………… .
31. If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in ……………… .
32. The distance travelled by an object in a unit time is called ……………… .
33. ……………… shows the distance travelled by a vehicle.
34. At a particular instant of time, we can find speed of a vehicle using ……………… .
35. 1 Km / h = ……………… m/s
36. In a distance time graph, distance is usually plotted along ……………… axis, while time is usually plotted along
37. If the distance-time graph is a straight line, it indicates that the object is moving with ……………… .
38. From the distance-time graph we can find the ……………… of object.
39. Indian Space Research Organization, formed in ……………… .
40. ISRO maintains ……………… satellite for fast and reliable communication.
41. ISRO maintains remote sensing IRS satellites for ……………… .
42. On 18th June 2016 ISRO launched ……………… satellites in a single vehicle.
43. On 15th February 2017 ISRO launched ……………… satellites in a single rocket.
44. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) is located in ……………… .
Answer:

1. distance travelled
2. Speed
3. K. Sivan
4. Rockets
5. translatory
6. rotatory
7. motion
8. rest
9. Force
10. distance
11. centimeter
12. metre
13. displacement
14. time.
15. second
16. 60
17. decade
18. Clocks /watches
19. Stop clocks
20. month
21. translatory motion
22. rectilinear motion
23. curvilinear motion.
24. rectilinear motion
25. curvilinear
26. rotatory motion.
27. axis of rotation motion
28. Circular motion
29. oscillatory or vibratory
30. uniform motion
31. non-uniform motion
32. Speed
33. Odometer
34. speedometer
35. 5/18
36. Y-axis or the vertical, X-axis or the horizontal
37. a constant speed
38. speed
39. 1969
40. INSAT
41. earth observation
42. 20
43. 104
44. Sriharikota

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Respiration and Circulation on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 4 Respiration and Circulation with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. In which process accumulated semisolid wastes come out?
A) Sneezing
B) Yawning
C) Coughing
D) Apnea
Answer:
C) Coughing

2. Which of the following is occured when food enters in the wind pipe?
A) Sneezing
B) Yawning
C) Coughing
D) Apnea
Answer:
D) Apnea

3. First aid for bleeding is
A) Create pressure on the diaphragm
B) Cover with bandage
C) Upside down
D) Above all
Answer:
B) Cover with bandage

4. Which of the following requires oxygen?
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Anaerobic respiration
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Aerobic respiration

5. The process of inhaling air is called
A) Breathing
B) Inspiration
C) Expiration
D) Respiration
Answer:
B) Inspiration

6. The opening of the nose is called
A) Nostrils
B) Nasal cavity
C) Pharynx
D) wind pipe
Answer:
A) Nostrils

7. Inspiration occurs due to
A) Ribcage move upward
B) Diaphragm move upward
C) Air enters the lungs
D) A & B
Answer:
A) Ribcage move upward

8. Quantity of nitrogen present in the inhaled air …………%.
A) 21
B) 25
C) 78
D) 0.4
Answer:
C) 78

9. Quantity of water vapour in exhaled air 0.4 …………%.
A) 15
B) 4
C) 78
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

10. This gas turns lime water into milky white
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
C) Carbon dioxide

11. Find the correct statement
i) In the lungs, Carbon dioxide from the inhaled air is absorbed by the blood vessels present in the lungs.
ii) Oxygen collected by the blood vessels from all parts of the body enters into the Lungs.
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
D) both are wrong

12. This will help to quit smoking.
A) Will power
B) support of the family and friends
C) medical and psychological treatment
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

13. Nicotine is present in this leaf
A) Neem
B) Pipal
C) Tobacco
D) Betel
Answer:
C) Tobacco

14. Find the odd one
A) Grasshopper
B) Cockroach
C) Earthworm
D) Honey bee
Answer:
C) Earthworm

15. Frogs respires through
A) Lungs
B) Skin
C) Tracheae
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

16. Fish respire through
A) Gills
B) Skin
C) Lung
D) Both A & B
Answer:
A) Gills

17. Marine animal that respire through lung is
A) Fish
B) Dolphins
C) Prawn
D) Star fish
Answer:
B) Dolphins

18. Respiration in plants occurs through
A) Stomata
B) Lenticles
C) Root hairs
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

19. Honey bee : Tracheae :: Earth worm : ?
A) Gill
B) Lung
C) Skin
D) None of, these
Answer:
C) Skin

20. In this process, energy released in our body
A) Photosynthesis
B) Digestion
C) Respiration
D) Circulation
Answer:
C) Respiration

21. This process helps in the supply of digested food and oxygen to all parts of the body
A) Digestion
B) Circulation
C) Excretion
D) Photosynthesis
Answer:
B) Circulation

22. This is not a part of circulatory system ….
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Blood vessels
D) Blood
Answer:
A) Lungs

23. Upper two chambers of the heart are called
A) Arteries
B) Ventricles
C) Atria
D) Veins
Answer:
C) Atria

24. The fluid portion of the blood is
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
D) Plasma

25. They protect us from the harmful, disease causing micro organisms that enter into our body.
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
B) WBC

26. They play an important role in coagulation of blood…….
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
C) Blood platelets

27. They plays a key role in respiration.
A) RBC
B) WBC
C) Blood platelets
D) Plasma
Answer:
A) RBC

28. Which of the following does not have blue coloured blood
A) Prawns
B) Snails
C) Cockroach
D) Crabs
Answer:
D) Crabs

29. This life processes play an important role in release of energy in organisms.
A) Digestion
B) Respiration
C) Circulation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Digestion

30. Which of the following is not a non communicable diseases?
A) Heart attack
B) COVID – 19
C) Cancer
D) Paralysis
Answer:
B) COVID – 19

31. Identify the bacterial disease
A) Common cold
B) Polio
C) Tuberculosis
D) HIV
Answer:
C) Tuberculosis

32. Identify the viral, disease
A) Typhoid
B) Common cold
C) Cholera
D) Tuberculosis
Answer:
B) Common cold

33. SMS protocol is for this disease
A) Polio
B) COVID
C) Cancer
D) Paralysis
Answer:
B) COVID

34. This is caused due to insufficient supply of Oxygen to the brain.
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Yawning
Answer:
D) Yawning

35. This process prevents the food from entering into the windpipe.
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Yawning
Answer:
C) Deglutition

36. This occurs when the wind pipe is obstructed by an object leading to blocking of air….
A) Coughing
B) Sneezing
C) Deglutition
D) Choking
Answer:
D) Choking

II. Fill in the blanks

1. COVID -19 is caused by a virus called …………………… .
2. SARS means …………………… .
3. Giving assistance before a doctor attending is called …………………… .
4. The temporary arrest of respiration is called …………………… .
5. The process of inhalation and exhalation of air is called …………………… .
6. The process of inhaling air is called …………………… .
7. The process of exhalation of air is called …………………… .
8; The number of times we inhale and exhale air in a minute is called the
9. We breathe about …………………… times per minute normally.
10. One inhalation and one exhalation together called one
11. …………………… is the first part of the Wind pipe.
12. …………………… is the process which helps in the release of energy in our body.
13. …………………… are the respiratory organs in human beings.
14. The …………………… lung is slightly larger than the …………………… one.
15. Wind pipe is kept in its shape by …………………… .
16. Lungs are protected by …………………… .
17. …………………… is the thin muscular sheet attached to the lower side of the ribcage.
18. …………………… forms the floor of the chest cavity.
19. …………………… play key role in the respiratory movements in man.
20. …………………… play key role in the respiratory movements in woman.
21. …………………… are the only part of the human body which floats on water
22. …………………… is the gas produced in photosynthesis.
23. Percentage of carbon dioxide in the inhaled air is …………………… .
24. Percentage of oxygen in the inhaled air is …………………… .
25. Percentage of carbon dioxide in the exhaled air is …………………… .
26. Percentage of oxygen in the exhaled air is …………………… .
27. Lime water turns milky white when it reacts with …………………… .
28. Glucose + Oxygen → …………………… + water + Energy
29. Tobacco smoke contains a highly dangerous substance called
30. …………………… respiration is present in insects.
31. Breathing through the skin is called …………………… respiration.
32. Respiration carried out by gills is called …………………… .
33. Respiration through is called Pulmonary respiration.
34. Plants respire through on the leaf and on the stem.
35. …………………… is the pumping organ in the blood circulatory system.
36. Upper two chambers of the heart are called and lower two chambers are called …………………… .
37. The rhythmic contraction followed by its relaxation of the heart is called …………………… .
38. Heart beat can be felt and measured by an instrument called …………………… .
39. …………………… carry blood with more oxygen from heart to body parts.
40. …………………… carry blood with more carbon dioxide from the body parts to the heart.
41. …………………… connect the arteries with the Veins
42. …………………… is the fluid portion of the blood.
43. …………………… act like police force of our body.
44. Red blood cells have a colouring pigment called …………………… .
45. …………………… acts as a carrier for oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood.
46. …………………… play an important role in coagulation of blood …………………… .
47. Blood present in cockroach is
48. …………………… is the storage point for undigested food.
49. Blood in snails is …………………… in colour.
50. …………………… was the new disease that created a global impact recently.
51. …………………… is the inbuilt capacity of the body to fight and overcome the effects of disease-causing germs.
52. The entry of disease-causing germs into our body is called ……………… .
53. COVID-19 virus spreads primarily through …………………… of infected person.
Answer:

1. SARS CoV – 2
2. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
3. First aid.
4. Apnea
5. breathing
6. inspiration
7. expiration
8. Respiratory Rate
9. 14 to 20
10. breath
11. Larynx
12. Respiration
13. Lungs
14. right
15. C Shaped rings
16. ribcage
17. Diaphragm
18. Diaphragm
19. Diaphragm
20. Ribcage
21. Lungs
22. Oxygen
23. 0.04%
24. 21%
25. 4%
26. 15%
27. carbon dioxide
28. Carbon dioxide
29. Nicotine
30. Tracheal
31. cutaneous
32. branchial respiration
33. lungs
34. stomata, lenticels
35. Heart
36. atria, ventricles
37. heartbeat
38. Stethoscope
39. Arteries
40. Veins
41. Blood capillaries
42. Plasma
43. White blood cells
44. Haemoglobin
45. Haemoglobin
46. Blood platelets
47. colourless
48. Rectum
49. bluish
50. COVID-19
51. Immunity
52. infection
53. droplets of saliva or nasal discharges

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Nutrition in Organisms on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 3 Nutrition in Organisms with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Carbohydrates digest first in
A) Buccal cavity
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
A) Buccal cavity

2. Proteins digestion starts in
A) Buccal cavity
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
B) Stomach

3. Chocolates, sweets, soft drinks and other sugar products cause of
A) Acidity
B) Constipation
C) Tooth decay
D) Diarrhea
Answer:
C) Tooth decay

4. The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called ……
A) Digestion
B) Absorption
C) Nutrition
D) Excretion
Answer:
C) Nutrition

5. Nutrition in green plants is
A) Autotrophic
B) Saprophytic
C) Parasitic
D) Holozoic
Answer:
A) Autotrophic

6. This is not a requirement of photosynthesis
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) light
D) water
Answer:
A) Oxygen

7. Product of photosynthesis
A) Oxygen
B) Water
C) Glucose
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

8. Presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of…..
A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Digestion
D) Excreton
Answer:
B) Photosynthesis

9. This works as food factory of the plant
A) Stem
B) Leaf
C)Flower
D) Root
Answer:
B) Leaf

10. Function of stomata is
A) Gaseous exchange
B) Transport of water
C) Food production
D) Digestion
Answer:
A) Gaseous exchange

11. Find the correct statement
i) Nepenthes is a insectivorous plant.
ii) It grow in phosphorous deficient soils.
A) both are correct
B) i only correct
C) ii only correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
B) i only correct

12. Example for saprophyte
A) Amoeba
B) Utricularia
C) Cuscuta
D) Bread mould
Answer:
D) Bread mould

13. Chlorophyll-containing partner in the lichens is
A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Bacteria
D) Amoeba
Answer:
A) Algae

14. Cuscuta absorbs its food from host through
A) Tap root
B) Fibrous root
C) Haustoria
D) prop roots
Answer:
C) Haustoria

15. National Deworming Day is observed on
A) February 10
B) August 10
C) Both A & B
D) December 10
Answer:
C) Both A & B

16. Albendazole tablet is a…
A) Antibiotic
B) Antiviral drug
C) Antifungal drug
D) Deworming drug
Answer:
D) Deworming drug

17. Taking of food into the body is called…..
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
A) Ingestion

18. Conversion of food into simple soluble forms is called …
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
B) Digestion

19. Transfer of food to the blood is called …..
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
C) Absorption

20. Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body
A) Ingestion
B) Digestion
C) Absorption
D) Egestion
Answer:
D) Egestion

21. Amoeba collects its food with the help of
A) Pseudopodia
B) Nucleolus
C) Food vacuole
D) Cytoplasm
Answer:
A) Pseudopodia

22. This is not digestible in human being is …..
A) Starch
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Cellulose
Answer:
D) Cellulose

23. Nutrition in human being is …
A) Autotrophic
B) Parasitic
C) Saprophytic
D) Holozoic
Answer:
D) Holozoic

24. The total length of alimentary canal is about
A) 3 meters
B) 6 meters
C) 9 meters
D) 12 meters
Answer:
C) 9 meters

25. Tofal number of teeth in the adult is
A) 8
B) 16
C) 20
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

26. Teeth that help to cut the food….
A) incisors
B) canines
C) premolars
D) molars
Answer:
A) incisors

27. Hardest part of the human body is
A) Bone
B) Teeth
C) Cartilage
D) Muscle
Answer:
B) Teeth

28. The major culprits of tooth decay ….
A) Chocolates
B) Sweets
C) Soft drinks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

29. Common chamber for both digestive track and respiratory track is
A) Pharynx
B) Duodenum
C) Esophagus
D) Buccal cavity
Answer:
A) Pharynx

30. The muscular tubular structure that connects pharynx with Stomach is
A) Buccal cavity
B) Oesophagus
C) Duodenum
D) Small intestine
Answer:
B) Oesophagus

31. Hydrochloricacid in the stomach kills Bacteria in the food.
A) Lactic acid
B) Sulphuric acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

32. Digestion of food completes in this part
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Answer:
C) Small intestine

33. Digested food absorbed in to blood through
A) Stomach
B) Duodenum
C) Villi
D) Large intestine
Answer:
C) Villi

34. Large intestine absorbs….
A) Water
B) Digested food
C) Minerals
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

35. Reason for acidity…
A) Stress
B) Irregular meals
C) Drinking too much alcohol
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

36. The only asana that can be done on full stomach.
A) Padmaasan
B) Vajrasana
C) Bhujangasana
D) shirshaasana
Answer:
B) Vajrasana

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Liver produces …………… juice.
2. Expand NDD ……………
3.
4. The process of intake and utilization of food by organisms is called …………… .
5. The mqde of nutrition in which organisms make food by themselves is called …………… .
6. The mode of nutrition in which organisms depend on other organisms, for food is called …………… .
7. Green plants are …………… .
8. Humans and animals are directly or indirectly dependent on …………… for food.
9. …………… are the special structures present only in plant cells and absent in animal cells.
10. Chlorophyll is present in the …………… of plant cell.
11. …………… is the pigment responsible for the greenery of the plants.
12. The process-by which green plants make their own food from carbon dioxide and water by using light energy in the presence of chlorophyll is called …………… .
13. Glucose formed in photosynthesis is converted and stored in the form of …………… .
14. The presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of …………… .
15. Occurrence of photosynthesis can be confirmed by testing the leaf extract with …………… solution.
16. …………… work as “food factories of plants”.
17. …………… captures the energy of the sunlight.
18. …………… is the source of energy in the process of photosynthesis.
19. …………… is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms.
20. Gaseous exchange occurs in the leaves through …………… .
21. …………… is the gas required for photosynthesis.
22. …………… is the gas produced in photosynthesis.
23. Nutrients needed ip minute quantities are called …………… .
24. Insectivorous plants meet their requirements from insects.
25. Saprophytes grow on …………… .
26. The mode of nutrition in which organisms take in nutrients in the form of solution from dead and decaying matter is called …………… nutrition.
27. …………… play key role in cleaning,up the earth surface.
28. Chlorophyll-containing partner in lichen is
29. An association between two organisms for food in which one organism get benefited and other is vitiated is called ……………
30. The organism that get benefited in parasitism is …………… .
31. Organism on which parasite is growing is called …………… .
32. …………… is the mode of heterotrophic nutrition in which the food is taken in solid or liquid form from the outside and is digested inside the body.
33. Pseudopodia are food collecting, organs in …………… .
34. Humans cannot digest …………… .
35. The digestive system consists Of the …………… and …………… .
36. The total length Of alimentary canal is about …………… meters.
37. Teeth in the human beings are of …………… types.
38. …………… is the hardest part of the human body.
39. …………… is the only asana that can be done on full stomach.
40. Damage of teeth due to acids is called …………… .
41. Carbohydrate digestion starts in …………… .
42. …………… is the common chamber for both digestive track and respiratory track.
43. Proteins digestions starts in the …………… .
44. …………… in the stomach kills Bacteria in the food.
45. Inner wall of the small intestine have thousands of finger-like outgrowths called …………… .
46. Villi absorb the …………… .
47 …………… absorbs water and minerals from the undigested food.
48. …………… is the storage;point for undigested food.
49. Fecal matter removed through …………… .
Answer:

1. bile
2. National Deworming Day
3. carbondioxide, oxygen
4. nutrition
5. autotrophic nutrition
6. heterotrophic nutrition
7. autotrophs
8. plants
9. Chloroplasts
10. chloroplast
11. Chlorophyll
12. Photosynthesis
13. starch.
14. photosynthesis
15. Iodine
16. Leaves
17. Chlorophyll
18. Sunlight
19. Sun
20. stomata.
21. Carbon dioxide
22. Oxygen
23. micronutrients
24. nitrogen
25. dead and decaying matter
26. saprophytic
27. Saprophytes
28. algae
29. parasitism.
30. parasite
31. host
32. Holozofc Nutrition
33. amoeba
34. cellulose
35. Tooth
36. Vajrasana
37. tooth decay
38. buccal cavity
39. Pharynx
40. stomach
41. Hydrochloric acid
42. villi.
43. digested food
44. Large Intestine
45. Rectum
46. anus.

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Nature of Substances on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 2 Nature of Substances with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Table salt contains
A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Potassium chloride
D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
A) Sodium chloride

2. Baking soda contains
A) Sodium chloride
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Potassium chloride
D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
B) Sodium bicarbonate

3. Gastric juice means
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Citric acid
C) Antacid
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

4. Sulphuric acid reacts with eggshell and releases
A) Carbondioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) None
Answer:
A) Carbondioxide

5. Substance/s formed in a neutralization reaction is/are
A) Water
B) Salt
C) A and B
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
C) A and B

6. Which of the following does not contain acid?
A) lemon
B) Bitter gourd
C) Amla
D) Tomato
Answer:
B) Bitter gourd

7. This acid is present in cool drinks
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Carbonic acid
D) Vinegar
Answer:
C) Carbonic acid

8. Bath soap is prepared using
A) Sodium hydroxide
B) Aluminum hydroxide
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Potassium hydroxide
Answer:
D) Potassium hydroxide

9. Olfactory indicator from the following
A) Hibiscus
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Clove oil
D) Methyl orange
Answer:
C) Clove oil

10. lichens are used in the preparation of
A) Litmus
B) Methyl blue
C) Phenolphthalein
D) Olfactory indicators
Answer:
A) Litmus

11. Phenolphthalein shows colour change with
A) Acids
B) Bases
C) both A & B
D) Neutral substances
Answer:
B) Bases

12. Which of the following is a strong acid?
A) Citric acid
B) Acetic acid
C) Sulphuric acid
D) Malic acid
Answer:
C) Sulphuric acid

13. This gas is lighter than air
A) Hydrogen
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

14. Product of neutralisation
A) Salt
B) Water
C) Both A & B
D) Acid
Answer:
C) Both A & B

15. Example for salt
A) Common salt
B) Antacid
C) Tooth paste
D) Clove oil
Answer:
A) Common salt

16. Acid produced in stomach
A) Sulphuric acid
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Nitric acid
D) Carbonic acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid

17. This can be used to treat ant bite
A) Baking soda
B) Common salt
C) Vinegar
D) Turmeric
Answer:
A) Baking soda

18. pH of bases
A) 0-14
B) 7
C) more than 7
D) less than 7
Answer:
C) more than 7

19. This is responsible for acid rains
A) Sulphur dioxide
B) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Both A & B
D) Oxygen
Answer:
C) Both A & B

20. Flowers that change their colour according to the nature of soil
A) Hydrangea
B) Marigold
C) Hibiscus
D) Jasmine
Answer:
A) Hydrangea

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Rain with slight ………….. nature is called acid rains.
2. Wash the affected burning area on skin with ………….. .
3. ………….. will be prepared by adding fatty acids to alkalis.
4. ………….. are used in making soaps.
5. ………….. are used to test the nature of substances.
6. ………….. acid is also called as Vitamin C.
7. ………….. acid is used for bath room cleaning.
8. ………….. acid is used in batteries.
9. Soda water and cool drinks contain ………….. acids.
10. Bases are ………….. to taste.
11. Bath soap is prepared using ………….. .
12. Detergent soap is prepared using
13. Bases that can dissolve in water are called ………….. .
14. The substance which is neither an acid nor a base is known as ………….. .
15. Purewater is a ………….. substance.
16. Substances which are used to test acids or bases are called ………….. .
17. Indicators obtained from natural sources are called as ………….. .
18. The most commonly used natural indicator is ………….. .
19. The colour of turmeric strip will change into ………….. in soap water.
20. Soda water turns into ………….. on adding hibiscus indicator.
21. Soap solutions turns ………….. on adding hibiscus indicator.
22. An indicator prepared from artificialsources is known as ………….. .
23. Methyl orange turns in acids and ………….. in bases.
24. Phenolphthalein turns ………….. in bases, but ………….. in acids.
25. Substances which change their smell when mixed with acid or base are known as ………….. .
26. ………….. is a mixture of different indicators and shows different colours in different solutions.
27. ………….. can show the strength of acid or alkaline substance.
28. Strength of acid or base solution is measured in ………….. scale.
29. pH of acids is ………….. .
30. pH of bases is ………….. .
31. pH of neutral substance is ………….. .
32. Natural acids are ………….. acids.
33. Acids react with metals and release gas.
34. Acids react with ………….. and release carbon dioxide gas.
35. Reaction of an acid and a base is called ………….. reaction.
36. The substances formed in neutralization reaction are ………….. and ………….. .
37. Antacids contain ………….. .
38. When an ant bites, it injects acid into the skin.
39. When soil becomes too acidic, farmers treat it by adding
40. When soil becomes too basic,farmers treat it with
41. Rain water with slight acidic nature is called
42. ………….. acid is used in the preservation of pickles and other food substances.
43. ………….. acid is used in the production of ink and leather.
44. Base used in windows cleaner is ………….. .
45. Magnesium hydroxide is used in ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:

1. acidic
2. plenty of water
3. Soap
4. Bases
5. Indicators
6. Ascorbic
7. Hydrochloric
8. Sulphuric
9. carbonic
10. bitter
11. potassium hydroxide
12. Sodium hydroxide
13. alkalis
14. neutral substance
15. Neutral
16. acid base indicators
17. Natural indicators.
18. litmus
19. reddish brown
20. pink
21. green
22. Synthetic indicator.
23. red, yellow
24. pink, does not change
25. olfactoryin dicators.
26. Universal indicatoris
27.  Universal indicator
28. pH
29. less than 7
30. more than 7
31. 7
32. weak
33. hydrogengas.
34. calcium carbonate
35. neutralization reaction.
36. water, salt
37. bases.
38. formic
39. quick lime/ potassium hydroxide.
40. compost.
41. Acid rain.
42. Acetic
43. Tannic
44. Ammonium hydroxide
45. antacid and laxative

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Food for Health on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP 7th Class Science Bits Chapter 1 Food for Health with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is good for health?
A) Sprouts
B) Packaged cool drinks
C) Junk foods
D) Above all
Answer:
A) Sprouts

2. Chikki (Chickpea) contains
A) Proteins
B) Iron
C) Calcium
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

3. Street food have
A) rich in fibre
B) rich in fat
C) rich in minerals
D) above all
Answer:
B) rich in fat

4. Which water is better to drink?
A) Packaged drinking water
B) Tap water
C) Boiled water
D) Above all
Answer:
C) Boiled water

5. Ascorbic acid is called as
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin E
Answer:
B) Vitamin C

6. This gives instant energy to the body.
A) Chicken
B) Egg
C) Glucose
D) Ghee
Answer:
C) Glucose

7. Which of the following is the main source of energy for our body?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Answer:
A) carbohydrates

8. Identify the energy giving food.
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

9. Identify the food item rich in carbohydrates.
A) Pulses
B) Groundnut
C) Potato
D) Almond
Answer:
C) Potato

10. Reagent used to test the presence of starch
A) Benedict’s reagent
B) Iodine
C) Copper sulphate solution
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Iodine

11. Starch turn in to this colour when it come in contact with iodine solution
A) Blue black
B) Violet
C) Pink
D) Reddish green
Answer:
A) Blue black

12. Which of the following food sample gives blue black colour with iodine solution?
A) Jowar
B) Rice
C) Maize
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

13. Reagent used to test the presence of sugar
A) Benedict’s reagent
B) Iodine
C) Copper sulphate solution
D) Sodium hydroxide solution
Answer:
A) Benedict’s reagent

14. Which of the following are called body building nutrients?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) A & C
Answer:
B) proteins

15. Identify the functions of proteins from the following.
A) Helps in the formation of muscles and other body organs.
B) Regulate biochemical reactions in the body.
C) Repair and heal the wounds on the body.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

16. Find the odd one out.
A) Meet
B) Maize
C) Egg
D) Soya been
Answer:
B) Maize

17. Animal source of protein ….
A) Milk
B) Fish
C) Pulses
D) A & B
Answer:
D) A & B

18. What colour change will you observe when egg white reacts with 2% copper sulphate and 10% sodium hydroxide solutions
A) White to blue black
B) White to violet
C) White to pink
D) White to reddish green
Answer:
B) White to violet

19. Which of the following gives more energy when they are taken in equal quantities?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Answer:
C) fats

20. Groundnuts paste turns white paper in to
A) Transparent
B) Translucent
C) Opaque
D) Violet colour
Answer:
B) Translucent

21. What tablets will you suggest to an anaemia patient?
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Vitamin D
D) Phosphorus
Answer:
B) Iron

22. Minerals and vitamins are called
A) Energy giving nutrients
B) Body building nutrients
C) Protective nutrients
D) Anutritive components
Answer:
C) Protective nutrients

23. Mineral element responsible for strong bones and teeth
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) A & C
Answer:
D) A & C

24. Mineral element responsible for blood production and transfer of oxygen
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium
Answer:
B) Iron

25. Deficiency of this mineral causes Goitre disease.
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
C) Iodine

26. Milk, curd are rich in
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
A) Calcium

27. This mineral helps in retaining the water needed for our body.
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium
Answer:
D) Sodium

28. Common salt is the major source for
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Phosphorus
D) Iron
Answer:
B) Sodium

29. Iodized salt helps in preventing
A) Anaemia
B) Goitre
C) Night blindness
D) Scurvy
Answer:
B) Goitre

30. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
B) Vitamin – B

31. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – K
C) Vitamin – E
D) Vitamin – C
Answer:
D) Vitamin – C

32. Deficiency of vitamin – A causes
A) Dry Eyes
B) Night blindness
C) Cornea failure
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

33. Which of the following is not a deficiency disease of vitamin – B complex?
A) Beri-Beri
B) Scurvy
C) Fits
D) Pellagra
Answer:
B) Scurvy

34. Deficiency of vitamin – D causes
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Fertility disorders
Answer:
A) Rickets

35. Scurvy caused due to the deficiency of
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

36. Fertility disorders may be due to the deficiency of
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
D) Vitamin – E

37. Somu is suffering from delay in blood clotting during injuries. What might be the reason?
A) Vitamin – A deficiency
B) Vitamin – K deficiency
C) Vitamin – D deficiency
D) Vitamin – E deficiency
Answer:
B) Vitamin – K deficiency

38. This vitamin is responsible for health of the bone and teeth.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
D) Vitamin – D

39. Function of vitamin A
A) Health of Nerves
B) Formation of RBC
C) Health of Bone and teeth
D) Health of eye, hair and skin
Answer:
D) Health of eye, hair and skin

40. This vitamin is responsible for the health of gums.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

41. Vitamin – E is responsible for
A) Health of Nerves
B) Formation of RBC
C) Health of Bone and teeth
D) Health of eye, hair and skin
Answer:
A) Health of Nerves

42. Citrus fruits are the rich source of this vitamin.
A) Vitamin – C
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – A
D) Vitamin – K
Answer:
A) Vitamin – C

43. Sunlight is required to form this vitamin in our body.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – E
Answer:
C) Vitamin – D

44. Eating carrots can prevent
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Fertility disorders
Answer:
C) Night blindness

45. This vitamin plays an important role in increasing immunity.
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – C
C) Vitamin – D
D) Vitamin – K
Answer:
B) Vitamin – C

46. Which vitamin discolourises the iodine paper?
A) Vitamin – A
B) Vitamin – B
C) Vitamin – C
D) Vitamin – D
Answer:
C) Vitamin – C

47. Dietary fibres prevent
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Night blindness
D) Constipation
Answer:
D) Constipation

48. Anutritive component of our food is
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) water
Answer:
D) water

49. Weight of the water in our body is nearly
A) 2/3 of our body weight
B) 3/2 of our body weight
C) 1/5 of our body weight
D) 14 of our body weight
Answer:
A) 2/3 of our body weight

50. Function of water in our body
A) Maintains the temperature of our body
B) Helps in excretion of wastes
C) Helps in easy movement of the food in digestive track
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

51. Irregular bowel movements refer to
A) Rickets
B) Constipation
C) Night blindness
D) Scurvy
Answer:
B) Constipation

52. This may be the cause for constipation
A) poor diet with insufficient fibre
B) poor fluid intake
C) side effect of certain medication blindness
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

53. Food component present more in Black gram
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) all the above
Answer:
B) proteins

54. Jaggery is a rich source of
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Iodine
D) Sodium
Answer:
B) Iron

55. National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) is located at
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Pune
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
D) Hyderabad

56. Inadequate proteins in children’s diet for a long-time cause
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
C) Kwashiorkor

57. Inadequate carbohydrates and proteins in children’s diet for a long-time cause
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
A) Marasmus

58. Taking food containing too much fat leads to
A) Marasmus
B) Constipation
C) Kwashiorkor
D) Obesity
Answer:
D) Obesity

59. Which of the following should be taken more in our diet?
A) Cereals
B) Pulses
C) Vegetables
D) Obesity
Answer:
C) Vegetables

60. Which of the following should be taken in very less quantity in our diet?
A) Cereals
B) pulses
C) Vegetables
D) Oils
Answer:
D) Oils

61. How much quantity of milk /curd should be taken every day?
A) 300 ml
B) 100 ml
C) 500 ml
D) 1000 ml
Answer:
A) 300 ml

62. Grains like bajra and ragi are rich in
A) Calcium
B) iron
C) Both A&B
D) Calcium
Answer:
C) Both A&B

63. Which of the following is not a C from the 7 C’s prescribed by FSSAI?
A) Check
B) Clean
C) Control
D) Cover
Answer:
C) Control

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Eating junk food on a regular basis damages our ………….. system.
2. Grains like bajra and ragi are rich in ………….. and ………….. .
3. Packaged cold drinks contain high amounts of ………….., which is bad for the teeth and bones.
4. Drinking of tea/ coffee less than one hour before and after eating food impairs the absorption of ………….. in the body.
5. Jaggery is a good source of ………….. .
6. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in ………….. quantity. Hence, they are called ………….. .
7. Minerals and Vitamins are required in very ………….. quantity. So, they are called ………….. .
8. Carbohydrates and fats mainly provide ………….. to our body.
9. Sports persons take glucose as it gives ………….. .
10. Carbohydrates are usually present in the form of ………….. and ………….. in the food.
11. Presence of starch is confirmed by doing test.
12. Starch turns into in colour when it come in contact with Iodine solution.
13. ………….. test confirms the presence of sugars.
14. ………….. are needed for the growth and maintenance of our body.
15. ………….. are called body building nutrients.
16. repair and heal the wounds on the body.
17. Proteins turn into ………….. colour when they react with 2% copper sulphate solution and 10% sodium hydroxide solution.
18. Pulses are rich in ………….. .
19. ………….. give more energy when compared to the same amount of carbohydrates.
20. Fats turn the white paper ………….. .
21. ………….. and ………….. help in protecting our body against diseases.
22. ………….. and ………….. are required for strong bones and teeth.
23. ………….. is the mineral responsible for blood production and transfer of oxygen.
24. ………….. is the mineral required for the thyroid hormone secretions.
25. Sea foods are rich source of ………….. .
26. ………….. is the mineral that helps to retain water needed for the body.
27. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Scheme was launched to prevent
28. Vitamins – A, D, E, K are ………….. soluble Vitamins.
29. Vitamins – C, B complex are ………….. soluble Vitamins.
30. Health of eye, hair and skin is maintained by the vitamin ………….. .
31. Dry eyes is caused due to the deficiency of the vitamin ………….. .
32. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of the vitamin ………….. .
33. Health of skin, teeth, gums and blood cells is maintained by the vitamin ………….. .
34. Eating Citrus fruits can prevent the diseases ………….. .
35. Sun light is required to form the vitamin in our body.
36. ………….. is the disease caused due to the deficiency of vitamin D.
37. Vitamin E is responsible for the health of ………….. .
38. Deficiency of Vitamin E causes ………….. .
39. Vitamin ………….. helps in the clotting of blood when we get wounded.
40. Vitamin ………….. plays an important role in increasing disease resistant or immunity.
41. ………….. paper gets discoloured with vitamin C.
42. The substances which made the iodine paper more discoloured contains more vitamin ………….. .
43. ………….. help in free bowel movement in the digestive tract and prevent the constipation.
44. Water constitutes nearly ………….. of our body weight.
45. ………….. refers to bowel movements that are irregular.
46. A diet that contains all the nutrients in required quantity is called ………….. .
47. NIN is located at ………….. .
48. According to ‘My plate for the day’ by NIN quantity of nuts and seeds recommended is ………….. .
49. Diseases caused by deficiency of certain nutrients are called ………….. .
50. Healthy eating habits and also play a key role in maintaining of health.
51. If the proteins are inadequate in children’s diet for a long time it causes ………….. .
52. If the proteins and carbohydrates are not taken adequately for a long time it causes ………….. .
53. If we take food containing too much fats daily, it leads to ………….. .
Answer:

1. digestive
2. Calcium and iron
3. acid
4. iron
5. iron
6. More, Macro nutrients
7. Less micro nutrients
8. energy
9. instant energy
10. Starch and sugars
11. iodine
12. black blue
13. Benedict’s reagent
14. Proteins
15. Proteins
16. Proteins
17. violet
18. Proteins
19. fat
20. translucent
21. Minerals and Vitamins
22. Calcium and Phosphate
23. Iron
24. Iodine
25. Iodine
26. Sodium
27. Anemia
28. Fat
29. water
30. A
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. scurvy
35. D
36. rickets
37. nerves and blood cells
38. Fertility disorders
39. K
40. C
41. iodine
42. C
43. Dietary fibres / roughage
44. 2/3
45. Constipation
46. balanced diet
47. Hyderabad
48. 30 gms/day
49. Deficiency diseases
50. hygiene
51. Kwashiorkor
52. Marasmus
53. obesity

III. Match the following

1.

Answer:

2.

Answer:

3.

Answer:

4.

Answer:

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers 3rd Lesson బహుపదులు on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP Board 10th Class Maths Bits 3rd Lesson బహుపదులు

ప్రశ్న 1.
రేఖీయ బహుపది ax + b యొక్క శూన్య విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
ax + b = 0 ⇒ ax = -b ⇒ x = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
∴ ax + b యొక్క శూన్య విలువ \(\frac{-b}{a}\)

ప్రశ్న 2.
ax² + bx + c యొక్క శూన్యాల లబ్దం ‘0’ అయిన
(A) a = 0
(B) b = 0
(C) c = 0
(D) a = c.
జవాబు.
(C) c = 0

ప్రశ్న 3.
x³ – 5x² + 6x యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు 2, 3 అయిన మూడవ శూన్యము ఏది ?
సాధన.
x³ – 5x² + 6x యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు 2, 3.
α = 2, β = 3 అనుకొనుము. γ = \(\frac{-b}{-a}\)
∴ శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + β + γ = 2
2 + 3 + γ = \(\frac{-(-5)}{1}\) = 5
γ = 0
(లేదా)
x³ – 5x² + 6x లో స్థిరపదం లేదు కావున ‘O’ ఒక శూన్యం అవుతుంది.
∴ కావున మూడవ శూన్యం = ‘0’

ప్రశ్న 4.
5x⁷ – 6x⁵ + 7x – 6 బహుపది పరిమాణం ఎంత?
జవాబు.
7

ప్రశ్న 5.
2x² – 8x + 6 బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తంను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-8)}{2}\) = 4

ప్రశ్న 6.
3x³ – 5x² – 11x – 3 ఘన బహుపది శూన్యాల లబ్ధం ఎంత ?
సాధన.
ఘనబహుపది శూన్యాల లబ్ధం = \(\frac{-d}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-3)}{2}\) = 1

ప్రశ్న 7.
p(x) = 4x² + 3x + 1 బహుపది x = – 1 వద్ద బహుపది విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(- 1) = 4(- 1)² + 3(- 1) + 1
= 4 – 3 + 1 = 2

ప్రశ్న 8.
px + q రేఖీయ బహుపది యొక్క శూన్య విలువను రాయండి.
సాధన.
px + q = 0 ⇒ px = – q ⇒ x = \(\frac{-\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{p}}\)
∴ px + q యొక్క శూన్య విలువ \(\frac{-\mathrm{q}}{\mathrm{p}}\)

ప్రశ్న 9.
4y² – 5y + 1 ఒక ……………….
(A) రేఖీయ బహుపది
(B) ఘన బహుపది
(C) స్థిర బహుపది
(D) వర్గ బహుపది
జవాబు.
(D) వర్గ బహుపది

ప్రశ్న 10.
4x + 6y = 18 యొక్క రేఖా చిత్రం ఒక ……………. అది మూల బిందువు గుండా వెళ్ళదు.
(A) వక్రరేఖ
(B) కర్ణము
(C) సరళరేఖ
(D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు.
(C) సరళరేఖ

ప్రశ్న 11.
x² – x – 6 బహుపది శూన్యాలు α, β అయిన α² + β² విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
α, β = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = \(\frac{-6}{1}\) = – 6
∴ α²β² = (αβ)² = (- 6)² = 36

ప్రశ్న 12.
p(x) = x² – 8x + kను (x – 1) తో భాగించగా శేషం ‘6’ అయిన ఓ విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 8x + kను (x – 1) చే భాగించగా
శేషం p(1) = 6
∴ p(1) = (1)² – 8(1) + k = 6
⇒ 7 + k = 6
⇒ k = 13
(లేదా)

లెక్క ప్రకారం, శేషం = 6
∴ k – 7 = 6 ⇒ k = 13

ప్రశ్న 13.
రేఖీయ బహుపది ax – b శూన్య విలువ ఏది ?
సాధన.
ax – b = 0 ⇒ ax = b ⇒ x = \(\frac{b}{a}\)
∴ ax – b యొక్క శూన్య విలువ = \(\frac{b}{a}\)

ప్రశ్న 14.
2x² – 3x + 6 యొక్క శూన్యాల లబ్ధంను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
శూన్యాల లబ్ధం = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3

ప్రశ్న 15.
bx² + ax + c యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తంను రాయండి.
సాధన.

ప్రశ్న 16.
x³ + 3x² – x + 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయిన αβγ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
αβγ = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{a}}\) = \(\frac{-2}{1}\) = 2

ప్రశ్న 17.
2, 3 లను శూన్యాలుగా కలిగిన వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
2, 3 లను శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
k[x² – (α + β)x + αβ] = k[x² – (5)x + 6]
k = 1,
∴ కావలసిన వర్గబహుపది = x² – 5x + 6

ప్రశ్న 18.
ఈ క్రింది వాటిలో ఒకే ఒక శూన్య విలువ కలిగిన బహుపది ఏది ?
(A) p(x) = 2x² – 3x + 4
(B) p(x) = x² – 2x + 1
(C) p(x) = 2x + 3
(D) p(x) = 5
సాధన.
B, C [ఒకే శూన్యం ఉంటే b² – 4ac = 0 కావాలి]
Aలో p(x) = 2x² – 3x + 4,
= 9 – 4(2) (4) = 9 – 32 < 0
Bలో p(x) = x² – 2x + 1,
= 4 – 4(1) (1) = 0
∴ B సరైన సమాధానం.
(C)లో p(x) = 2x + 3.
⇒ 2x + 3 = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{-3}{2}\) (ఒకే శూన్య విలువ).

ప్రశ్న 19.
క్రింది పటంలో దీర్ఘ చతురస్రంను పరిశీలించిన, దాని వైశాల్యానికి బహుపది ప్రమేయంను కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
వైశాల్య బహుపది A(x) = (10 – x) (x + 3)
= 10x + 30 – x² – 3x
= – x² + 7x + 30

ప్రశ్న 20.
7x¹⁷ – 17x¹¹ + 27x⁵ – అను బహుపదిలో x⁷ యొక్క గుణకం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
0

ప్రశ్న 21.
x² + x + 1 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β అయిన \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) విలువను లెక్కించండి.
సాధన.
x² + x + 1 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β.

ప్రశ్న 22.
x³ – 2x² + 3x – 4 బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
సాధన.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-2)}{1}\) = 2

ప్రశ్న 23.
p(x) = x² + kx – 8 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము 4 అయిన k విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² + kx – 8 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యం α = 4
∴ p(4) = 0
⇒ (4)² + k(4) – 8 = 0
⇒ 16 + 4k – 8 = 0
⇒ 4k + 8 = 0
⇒ 4k = – 8
⇒ k = \(\frac{-8}{4}\) =-2.

ప్రశ్న 24.
√2x² – 3x + 1 అనే బహుపది పరిమాణం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
2

ప్రశ్న 25.
f(x) = 5x² + 13x + k యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము రెండవ శూన్యానికి విలోమమైన k = 5 అని చూపుము.
సాధన.
f(x) = 5x² + 13x + k యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\) అనుకొనుము. (ఒకదానికొకటి విలోమాలు).

Short cut: ax² + bx + c వర్గ బహుపది శూన్యాలు ఒకదానికొకటి. గుణకార విలోమాలు (వ్యుత్ర్కమాలైన) అయిన a = c.
∴ k = 5

ప్రశ్న 26.
p(x) = x² + kx – 9 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము ‘3’ అయిన kవిలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² + kx – 9 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యం 3
కావున, p(3) = 0.
∴ p(3) = (3)² + k(3) – 9 = 0
⇒ 9 + 3k – 9 = 0 ⇒ 3k = 0
∴ k = 0

ప్రశ్న 27.
α, β, γలు ఘనబహుపది ax³ + bx² + cx + d, (a ≠ 0) యొక్క శూన్యాలు అయిన αβγ =
జవాబు.
αβγ = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{a}}\)

ప్రశ్న 28.
√2 మరియు – √2 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
√2 మరియు – √Z శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
= x² – (α + β)x + αβ

= x² – 2

ప్రశ్న 29.
5x⁷ – 6x⁵ + 7x – 4 అనే బహుపది యొక్క పరిమాణం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
7

ప్రశ్న 30.
ఈ క్రింది పటంలోని రేఖాచిత్రము సూచించు శూన్య విలువల సంఖ్య ఎంత ?

జవాబు.
0

ప్రశ్న 31.
x² + 5x + 6 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తము ఎంత ?
సాధన.
బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-5}{1}\) = 5

ప్రశ్న 32.
జతపరుచుము:
ax³ + bx² + cx + d, (a ≠ 0) అనే ఘన బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయితే

(A) (i) – c, (ii) — b, (iii) – a
(B) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – C
(C) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c
(D) (i) – c, (ii) – a, (iii) – b
జవాబు.
(A) (i) – c, (ii) — b, (iii) – a

ప్రశ్న 33.
5x – 3 అనునది ………… బహుపది.
(A) రేఖీయ
(B) వర్గ
(C) ఘన
(D) A మరియు B
జవాబు.
(A) రేఖీయ

ప్రశ్న 34.
రేఖాచిత్రములోని బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల సంఖ్య ……………………….

జవాబు.
3

ప్రశ్న 35.
α, βలు x² + 5x + k బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాలు మరియు α – β = 3 అయిన kవిలువ ఎంత ?
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 4
సాధన.
x² + 5x + k యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β మరియు α – β = 3
∴ α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-5}{1}\)= – 5

(- 1)² + 5(- 1) + k = 0
1 – 5 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 4
(లేదా)
α + β = – 5, αβ = k మరియు α – β = 3
(α + β)² = (α – β)² + 4αβ
(- 5)² = 3² + 4k
25 – 9 = 4k
⇒ k = \(\frac{16}{4}\) = 4

ప్రశ్న 36.
క్రింది వానిలో బహుపది కానిది ఏది
(A) x² + √2x + 4
(B) x² + 2√x + 4
(C) x² + 2x – √2
(D) √2 x² + 2x + 4
జవాబు.
(B) x² + 2√x + 4

ప్రశ్న 37.
క్రింది వానిలో బహుపది ఏది ?
(A) 2x³ + 4x² + 5
(B) \(\frac{2}{x^{3}}\) + 4x² + 4x + 9
(C) 2x³ + 4x² + 5√x + 9
D) 2x^{– 3} + 4x² + 5
జవాబు.
A

ప్రశ్న 38.
5x² – 4x³ + x – 1 యొక్క పరిమాణమును తెల్పండి.
జవాబు.
3

ప్రశ్న 39.
వర్గ బహుపది యొక్క పరిమాణము ఎంత?
జవాబు.
2

ప్రశ్న 40.
ఘన బహుపది యొక్క పరిమాణము ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
3

ప్రశ్న 41.
p(x) = x² – 5x – 6 అయిన p(- 2) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(- 2) = (- 2)² – 5(- 2) – 6
= 4 + 10 – 6 = 8

ప్రశ్న 42.
p(m) = m² – 3m + 1 అయిన p(1) + p(- 1) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(m) = m² – 3m + 1
∴ p(1) + p(- 1) = [(1)² – 3(1) + 1] + [(- 1)² – 3(- 1) + 1]
= (- 1) + (5) = 4

ప్రశ్న 43.
p(x) = 3x⁴ – 5x³ + 7x² – 9x + 2 అయిన p(x) కు చెందిన క్రింది వానిని జతపరుచుము.

(A) i-b, ii – c, iii-d, iv – a
(B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
(C) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv-d
(D) i – b, ii-d, iii – a, iv-c
జవాబు.
(B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

ప్రశ్న 44.
p(x) = x² – 9 యొక్క శూన్యాలను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 9 = x² – 9 = 0.
⇒ x² = 9 ⇒ x = √9 = ± 3.
శూన్యాలు = 3, -3

ప్రశ్న 45.
p(x) = x² – 2x – 3 నకు 3 ఒక శూన్యం అవుతుందని నిరూపించుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 2x – 3
= (3)² – 2(3) – 3 = 9 – 9 = 0
p(3) = 0
కావున p(x)కు 3 ఒక శూన్యం అవుతుంది.

ప్రశ్న 46.
క్రింది పటంలో \(\overleftrightarrow{A B}\) ను సూచించే రేఖీయ బహుపది – యొక్క శూన్య విలువను తెల్పండి.

జవాబు.
– 2

ప్రశ్న 47.
p(x) = x² – 10x + 25 యొక్క శూన్య విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
x² – 10x + 25 = x² – 2 ∙ x ∙ 5 + 5²
= (x – 5)²
⇒ (x – 5)² = 0
∴ x = 5
శూన్య విలువ = 5

ప్రశ్న 48.
బహుపది x³ – x² యొక్క ఒక శూన్యం ‘0’ అవుతుందని చూపుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x³ – x²
p(0) = (0)³ – (0)² = 0
p(0) = 0 కావున ‘0’ ఒక శూన్యము.
(లేదా)
x³ – x² = 0 ⇒ x² (x – 1) = 0
x² = 0 (లేదా) x – 1 = 0
x = 0 (లేదా) x = 1
x³ – x² యొక్క శూన్యాలు 0, 1.
కావున ‘0’ ఒక శూన్యము.
(లేదా)
x³ – x² బహుపదిలో స్థిరపదం లేదు. కావున ‘0’ ఒక శూన్యం అవుతుంది.

ప్రశ్న 49.
బహుపది x³ – 4x యొక్క శూన్యాల సమితి ఏది ?
(A) {0, 2, -2}
(B) {0, 4, – 4}
(C) {0, 12, 12 }
(D) {1, -1, 2)
సాధన.
(A) {0, 2, -2}

వివరణ
x³ – 4x = 0 = x(x³ – 4) = 0
x = 0 (లేదా) x² – 4 = 0.
⇒ x² = 4 ⇒ x = √4 = ± 2
∴ శూన్యాలు 0, 2, – 2.

ప్రశ్న 50.
2 మరియు – 3 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
α = 2, β = – 3
α + β = -1, αβ = – 6
వర్గబహుపది. = x² – (α + β)x + αβ
= x² – (- 1)x + (- 6)
= x² + x – 6

ప్రశ్న 51.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం (α + β) = 3, లబ్ధం (αβ) = – 10 గా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
x² – (α + β)x + αβ = x² – 35 – 10.

ప్రశ్న 52.
x² + \(\frac{1}{6}\)x – 2 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తంను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-\frac{1}{6}}{1}\) = – \(\frac{1}{6}\)

ప్రశ్న 53.
\(\frac{1}{4}\) మరియు – 1 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α = \(\frac{1}{4}\), β = – 1
∴ α + β = \(\frac{1}{4}\) + (- 1) = \(\frac{-3}{4}\)
αβ = (\(\frac{1}{4}\)) (- 1) = \(\frac{- 1}{4}\)
కావలసిన వర్గబహుపది
= k[x² – (α + β)x + αβ]
p(x) = k(x² – \(\left(\frac{-3}{4}\right)\)x – \(\frac{1}{4}\))
k = 4 అయిన p(x) = 4x² + 3x – 1.

ప్రశ్న 54.
y = ax² + bx + c రేఖాచిత్రం సూచించే పరావలయం పైవైపుకు వివృతం (తెరచుకొని)గా ఉంటే
(A) a < 0 (B) a = 0 (C) a > 0
(D) a = – 1
జవాబు.
(A) a < 0

ప్రశ్న 55.
ax² + bx + c యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం ‘0’ అయిన
(A) a = 0
(B) b = 0
(C) c = 0
(D) a = c
జవాబు.
(B) b = 0

ప్రశ్న 56.
x² – 4x + 3 యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం క్రింది వానిలో దేనికి సమానం?
(A) log₂16
(B) log₂8
(C) log₂4
(D) log₂2
జవాబు.
(A) log₂16

ప్రశ్న 57.
x² – 4 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
సాధన.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{0}{1}\) = 0.

ప్రశ్న 58.
α, β లు x² – x – 6 యొక్క శూన్యా α + β విలువను రాయండి.
సాధన.
α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-1)}{1}\) = 1

ప్రశ్న 59.
α, β లు x² + 2x – 8 యొక్క శూన్యా లైతే α²β + αβ² విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² + 2x – 8
∴ α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-2}{1}\) = – 2
αβ = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = – 8
∴ α²β + αβ² = αβ(α + β)
= (-8) (-2) = 16

ప్రశ్న 60.
α, β లు x² – 3x + 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలైతే α³ + β³ విలువను లెక్కించండి.
సాధన.
α + β = 3, αβ = 2
α³ + β³ = (α + β)³ – 3αβ (α + β)
= (3)³ – 3(2) (3)
= 27 – 18 = 9
(లేదా)
p(x) = x² – 3x + 2 = 0
= x² – 2x – x + 2 = 0
= x(x – 2) – 1 (x – 2) = 0
= (x – 2) (x – 1) = 0
∴ x = 2 (లేదా) x = 1
α = 2, β = 1 అనుకొనుము.
α³ + β³ = (2)³ + (1)³ = 8 + 1 = 9

ప్రశ్న 61.
α, β లు 3x² + 125 – 12 కు శూన్యా లైతే క్రింది వానిలో ఏది సత్యం?
(A) α + β < αβ (B) α + β = αβ (C) α + β > αβ
(D) α + β = – αβ
సాధన.
(B) α + β = αβ

వివరణ
α + β = \(\frac{-12}{3}\) = – 4, αβ = \(\frac{-12}{3}\) = – 4
∴ α + β = αβ.

ప్రశ్న 62.
kx² – (k + 1) x – 3 బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తం \(\frac{7}{6}\) అయిన ఓ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
kx² – (k + 1) x – 3
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{7}{6}\)
\(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-[-(k+1)]}{k}\) = \(\frac{7}{6}\) ⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{k}+1}{\mathrm{k}}\) = \(\frac{7}{6}\)
⇒ 7k = 6k + 6 ⇒ k = 6

ప్రశ్న 63.
x² + (a + 1) x + b యొక్క శూన్యాలు 3 మరియు 4 అయిన a, b విలువలు కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α = 3, β = 4 అనుకొనుము.
α + β = – (a + 1)
7 = – a – 1 ⇒ a = – 1 – 7 = – 8
αβ = \(\frac{\mathrm{b}}{1}\) ⇒ 12 = b
∴ a = – 8, b = 12.

ప్రశ్న 64.
x² – 2kx + 8 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము 2 అయిన k విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 2kx + 8 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము 2
అయిన p(2) = 0
∴ p(2) = (2)² – 2k(2) + 8
⇒ 4 – 4k + 8 = 0
⇒ 12 = 4k
∴ k = 3

ప్రశ్న 65.
0 మరియు √5 లు శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
x² – (α + β)x + αβ
= x² – (0 + √5)x + 0(√5)
∴ 0, √5 లు శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
= x² – √5 x

ప్రశ్న 66.
6x² – 5x + 1 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β అయితే \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) విలువను గణించండి.
సాధన.

ప్రశ్న 67.
2x³ + kx² – 14x + 8 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం \(\frac{5}{2}\) అయిన ఓ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = 2x³ + kx² – 14x + 8 యొక్క శూన్యాల
మైతం \(\frac{5}{2}\)
\(\frac{-b}{a}=\frac{-k}{2}=\frac{5}{2}\) ⇒ k = – 5

ప్రశ్న 68.
x³ + 4x² + 5x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయిన αβ + βγ + γα విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
αβ + βγ + γα = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{5}{1}\) = 5

ప్రశ్న 69.
4x³ + 8x² – 6x – 2 యొక్క శూన్య విలువలు α, β, γ అయిన α + β + γ విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
α + β + γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-8}{4}\) = – 2

ప్రశ్న 70.
x³ + 5x² + kx + 4 యొక్క శూన్య విలువలు α, β, γ మరియు αβ + βγ + γα = 0 అయిన k విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
αβ + βγ + γα = 0
\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{a}}\) = \(\frac{\mathbf{k}}{1}\) = 0 ⇒ k = 0

ప్రశ్న 71.
x³ + 3x² – x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయితే \(\frac{1}{\alpha^{3} \beta^{3} \gamma^{3}}\) విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.

ప్రశ్న 72.
ఘన బహుభుజి ax³ + bx² + cx + d యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు ‘0’ అయిన మూడవ శూన్య విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
ax³ + bx² + cx + d బహుపది యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు ‘0’
α = β = 0 అనుకొనుము.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = α + β + γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
0 + 0 + γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
∴ మూడవ శూన్యము = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)

ప్రశ్న 73.
భాగహార నియమానికి సంబంధించి క్రింది వానిలో ఏది సత్యం ?
(A) అన్ని సందర్భాలలోను r(x) = 0
(B) r(x) పరిమాణం > g(x) పరిమాణం
(C) r(x) = 0 లేదా r(x) పరిమాణం < g(x) పరిమాణం
(D) r(x) = g(x)
జవాబు.
(D) r(x) = g(x)

ప్రశ్న 74.
x² – 5x + 6 నుx – 2 చే భాగించగా వచ్చు శేషము ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 5x + 6 ని (x – 2) చే భాగించగా
వచ్చు శేషము = p(2)
p(2) = 2² – 5(2) + 6 = 4 – 10 + 6 = 0
(లేదా)

ప్రశ్న 75.
p(x) = x² – 5x + 6, q(x) = x – 2 మరియు r(x) = 0 అయిన g(x) ను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 5x + 6, g(x) = x – 2 మరియు
r(x) = 0, g(x) = ?
భాగహార నియమం: p(x) = g(x) q(x) + r(x) x2 – 5x + 6 = g(x) (x – 2) + 0
∴ \(\frac{x^{2}-5 x+6}{x-2}\) = g(x) = x – 3.
(లేదా)

ప్రశ్న 76.
ప్రవచనం X: వర్గ బహుపది గరిష్ఠంగా 2 శూన్యాలను కలిగి ఉంటుంది.
ప్రవచనం Y: వర్గ బహుపది గరిష్ఠంగా 4 పదాలను కలిగి ఉంటుంది.
(A) X మాత్రమే సత్యం
(B) Y మాత్రమే సత్యం
(C) X, Y లు రెండూ సత్యం
(D)X, Y లు రెండూ అసత్యం
జవాబు.
(A) X మాత్రమే సత్యం

→ గమనిక: ఇవ్వబడిన వర్గ బహుపది p(x) యొక్క ను పరిశీలించి 77-79 వరకు గల ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 77.
p(x) యొక్క శూన్యాలను తెల్పండి.
జవాబు.
p(x) శూన్యాలు = – 2, 3,

ప్రశ్న 78.
p(x) బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α = -2, β = 3
p(x) = x² – (-2 + 3)x + (- 2) (3)
= x² – x – 6

ప్రశ్న 79.
p(x) గ్రాఫ్ యొక్క ఆకారం పేరును తెల్పండి.
జవాబు.
పరావలయము.

ప్రశ్న 80.
p(x) = 2x – 5 యొక్క శూన్య విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = 2x – 5 = 0 ⇒ 2x = 5 ⇒ x = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
p(x) యొక్క శూన్యము = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

ప్రశ్న 81.
p(x) = x² – 3x – 4 వక్రము x – అక్షాన్ని ఖండించే బిందువులలో ఒకటి (- 1, 0) అయిన మరొక బిందువును రాయండి.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 3x – 4 వక్రము X-అక్షాన్ని (- 1, 0) వద్ద ఖండిస్తున్నది.
కావున ఒక శూన్యం α = – 1
శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
(-1) + β = \(\frac{-(-3)}{1}\)
⇒ β = 3 + 1 = 4
రెండవ శూన్యము = 4. కావున x – అక్షాన్ని ఖండించే ‘మరొక బిందువు (4, 0).
(లేదా)
αβ= – 4 = (- 1)β = – 4
∴ β = 4
(లేదా) .
p(x) = x² – 3x – 4 = 0
⇒ x² – 4x + x – 4 = 0
⇒ x(x – 4) + 1 (x – 4) = 0
⇒ (x – 4) (x + 1) = 0.
∴ శూన్యాలు 4, – 1
∴ X-అక్షాన్ని వక్రం ఖండించే బిందువులు (-1, 0), (4, 0).

ప్రశ్న 82.
x² – 2x – 15 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము – 3 అయిన మరొక శూన్యమును కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
x² – 21 – 15 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము α = – 3.
α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-2)}{1}\)
(- 3) + β = 2 ⇒ β = 5
αβ = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = – 15 ⇒ (- 3)β = – 15
∴ β = 5
రెండవ శూన్యము = 5.
(లేదా )
x² – 5x + 3x – 15 = 0
⇒ (x – 5) (x + 3) = 0
∴ శూన్యాలు 5, – 3.
రెండవ శూన్యము = 5.

ప్రశ్న 83.
క్రింది వానిలో, ఏది log₃27 మరియు log₃3 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది అవుతుంది?
(A) x² + 4x + 3
(B) x² – 4x + 3
(C) x² – 3x + 4
(D) x² + 3x – 4
సాధన.
(B) x² – 4x + 3

వివరణ
α = log₃ 27 = log₃3³ ⇒ 3 log₃ 3 = 3
β = log₃ 3 = 1
3, 1 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గబహుపది
= x² – 4x + 3.

ప్రశ్న 84.
p(x) బహుపది యొక్క పరిమాణం n అయిన p(x) లోని పదాల సంఖ్య గరిష్ఠంగా …………
(A) n – 1
(B) n
(C) n + 1
(D) 2n
జవాబు.
(C) n + 1

ప్రశ్న 85.
x² + 6x + k వక్రము X – అక్షాన్ని ఒకే ఒక బిందువు వద్ద స్పర్శిస్తుంటే ఓ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
x² + 6x + k వక్రము X – అక్షాన్ని ఒకే ఒక బిందువు
వద్ద స్పర్శిస్తుంటే శూన్యాలు సమానము.
∴ α = β
సమాన శూన్యాలు, α, α
శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + α = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
2α = – 6 ⇒ α = – 3
శూన్యాల లబ్దం α∙α = k
⇒ (-3)∙(- 3) = k ⇒ k = 9
(లేదా)
శూన్యాలు సమానం అయిన
b² – 4ac = 0
6² – 4(1) (k) = 0
36 – 4k = 0
36 = 4k
∴ k = 9

ప్రశ్న 86.
క్రింది రేఖాచిత్రం సూచించు బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల సంఖ్య ఎంత?

జవాబు.
4

ప్రశ్న 87.
క్రింది రేఖాచిత్రాన్ని సూచించే p(x) బహుపది యొక్క శూన్య విలువను రాయండి.

జవాబు.
1

ప్రశ్న 88.
x² + 7x + 10 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
– 7

ప్రశ్న 89.
√3 మరియు – √3 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α = √5 , β = – √3
α + β = 0, αβ = – 3
వర్గబహుపది = x² – (α + β)x + αβ
= x² – 0x + (-3)
= x² – 3

ప్రశ్న 90.
4x² – 4x + k ఒకే ఒక శూన్యాన్ని కలిగి ఉంటే k విలువ log లో తెలుపగా
(A) log₁₀100
(B) log₁₀1
(C) log₁₀10
(D) log₁₀\(\frac{1}{10}\).
సాధన.
(C) log₁₀10

వివరణ
4x² – 4x + k ఒకే ఒక శూన్యాన్ని కలిగి ఉంటే
b² ⇒ 4ac = 16 = 16 k
⇒ k = 1 = log₁₀10

ప్రశ్న 91.
ఘన బహుపది యొక్క వక్రము X-అక్షాన్ని ఖండించే గరిష్ఠ బిందువుల సంఖ్య ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
3

ప్రశ్న 92.
స్థిరపదం లోపించిన ఘనబహుపది శూన్యాల లబ్దం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
0

ప్రశ్న 93.
BC = 2x, AD = x + 4 గా గల త్రిభుజ వైశాల్యానికి వర్గ బహుపది A(x) ని కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
∆ABC వైశాల్యం A(x) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) BC × AD

A(x) = x² + 4x

ప్రశ్న 94.
2x³ – 3kx² + 4x + 8 యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం 6 అయితే k విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
α + β + γ = 6
\(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-3 k)}{2}\) = 6
⇒ 3k = 12
∴ k = 4

ప్రశ్న 95.
x³ + 3x² – x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయిన αβγ విలువను రాయండి.
సాధన.
αβγ = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{a}}=\frac{-(-2)}{1}\) = 2

ప్రశ్న 96.
x³ + 4x² – 5x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయిన αβ + βγ + γα విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
αβ + βγ + γα = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = \(\frac{-5}{1}\) = – 5

ప్రశ్న 97.
p(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β, γ అయిన α³ + β³ + γ³ విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
p(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3)
శూన్యాలు, α = 1, β = 2, γ= 3
α³ + β³ + γ³ = (1)³ + (1)³ + (1)³
= 1 + 8 + 27 = 36

ప్రశ్న 98.
(x – 1) (x² – x – 6) యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు 3, – 2 అయిన మూడవ శూన్యము విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
(x – 1) (x² – x – 6) యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు
3, – 2.
∴ x – 1 ఒక కారణాంకము కావున,
3వ శూన్యము = 1

ప్రశ్న 99.
α, β లు శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
k (x² – (α + β)x + αβ) (లేదా)
x² – (α + β)x + αβ

ప్రశ్న 100.
వర్గ బహుపదిలో x పదము లేకుంటే ఆ వర్గ బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తము ఎంత?
జవాబు.
0

ప్రశ్న 101.
p(x) = g(x) . q(x) + r(x) లో g(x) రేఖీయ బహుపది మరియు q(x) ఘన బహుపది అయిన p(x) పరిమాణము ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) పరిమాణం = g(x) పరిమాణం + q(x) పరిమాణం
= 1 + 3 = 4

ప్రశ్న 102.
p(x) = g(x) . q(x) + r(x) లో p(x) పరిమాణం 5 మరియు q(x) పరిమాణం 3 అయిన g(x) పరిమాణము ఎంత?
సాధన.
g(x) పరిమాణం = 5 – 3 = 2

ప్రశ్న 103.
p(x) = g(x) . q(x) + r(x) లో g(x), p(x) కు కారణాంకం అయితే r(x) గురించి నీవు ఏమి చెప్పగలవు ?
జవాబు.
r(x) = 0.

ప్రశ్న 104.
p(x) = x³ – 9x + k ను x – 1 తో భాగించగా శేషం 10 అయిన kవిలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
p(1) = 0 ⇒ (1)³ – 9(1) + k = 0 ⇒ k = 8
(లేదా)

లెక్క ప్రకారం, శేషం = 0.
k-8 = 0
∴ k = 8

ప్రశ్న 105.
ax² + bx + c వర్గ బహుపది యొక్క గ్రాఫ్ X-అక్షాన్ని ఒకే ఒక బిందువు వద్ద స్పర్శిస్తుంటే ఆ స్పర్శ బిందువును తెల్పండి.
సాధన.
\(\left(\frac{-b}{2 a}, 0\right)\), [గ్రాఫ్ X – అక్షాన్ని ఒకే బిందువు వద్ద స్పర్శిస్తుంటే శూన్యాలు సమానాలు మరియు శూన్యాలు, \(\frac{-b}{2 a}, \frac{-b}{2 a}\), అవుతాయి.]

ప్రశ్న 106.
ఇచ్చిన దీర్ఘచతురస్రము యొక్క వైశాల్య బహుపది A(x) ను కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
A(x) = పొడవు × వెడల్పు
= (x² + 1) (x) = x³ + x

ప్రశ్న 107.
α, β లు x² – 5x + k యొక్క శూన్యాలు మరియు α – β= 1 అయిన ఓ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 5x + k యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β
∴ α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = 5, αβ = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = k మరియు
α – β = 1, k = ?

3 + β = 5 ⇒ β = 2
∴ k = αβ = (3) (2) = 6

ప్రశ్న 108.
ఘన బహుపదిలో x² పదము లోపించిన ఆ ఘన బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
0

ప్రశ్న 109.
ax² – x + 6 యొక్క పరావలయం క్రింది వైపుకు తెరచుకొని ఉంటే క్రింది వానిలో ఏది a విలువ కావచ్చును ?
(A) – 1
(B) – 2
(C) – 4
(D) పైవి అన్నీ కావచ్చు
జవాబు.
(D) పైవి అన్నీ కావచ్చు

ప్రశ్న 110.
ఇచ్చిన పటానికి చుట్టుకొలతకు బహుపది p(x) ను కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
చుట్టుకొలత p(x) = 2 (పొడవు + వెడల్పు)
= 2(x² + 1 + x).
p(x) = 2x² + 2x + 2

ప్రశ్న 111.
క్రింది వానిలో – శూన్యముగా గల బహుపది
(A) 2x – 3
(B) 4x – 6
(C) 81 – 12
(D) పైవి అన్ని
జవాబు.
(D) పైవి అన్ని

ప్రశ్న 112.
2 మరియు -5 లు శూన్యాలుగా గల బహుపది
(A) x² – 3x – 10
(B) x² + 3x – 10
(C) x² – 2x – 5
(D ) x² + 2x + 5.
జవాబు.
(B) x² + 3x – 10

ప్రశ్న 113.
√2 – 1 మరియు √2 + 1 లు శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
(A) 2x² – 4√2x + 2
(B) x² + – 2√2 x + 1
(C) 3x² – 6√2 x + 3
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
(D) పైవన్నీ

ప్రశ్న 114.
0, 1 మరియు – 1 లు శూన్యాలుగా గల బహుపది
(A) x³ – x² + 1
(B) x³ + x²
(C) x³ – x²
(D) x³ – x
జవాబు.
(D) x³ – x

ప్రశ్న 115.
3x² – 10x + p యొక్క శూన్యాలు ఒకదానికొకటి వ్యుత్ర్కమాలైతే 2 విలువ ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
p = 3

ప్రశ్న 116.
ఇచ్చిన పటంలో ‘0’ వృత్త కేంద్రము, వ్యాసార్ధం OA = x + 1 అయిన వృత్త వైశాల్యంను సూచించు వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
r = OA = x + 1
∴ వృత్త వైశాల్యం A(x) = πr²
= π(x + 1)²
= π(x² + 2x + 1)
= πx² + 2πx + π

ప్రశ్న 117.
ax³ + bx² + Cx + d ఘన బహుపదిని సూచించా లంటే a, b, c ∈ R మరియు
(A) a = 0
(B) a ≠ 0
(c) b = 0
(D) d ≠ 0
జవాబు.
(B) a ≠ 0

ప్రశ్న 118.
α, β లు బహుపది శూన్యాలు మరియు α + β = 7, αβ = 10గా గల బహుపదుల సమితి
(A) శూన్య సమితి
(B) ఏకమూలక సమితి
(C) అపరిమిత సమితి
(D) నిర్ణయించలేము
జవాబు.
(C) అపరిమిత సమితి

ప్రశ్న 119.
క్రింది వానిలో ఏది సత్యం ?
(A) x² – 49 యొక్క శూన్యాలు 7, -7
(B) x² – 49 యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రం X-అక్షాన్ని (7, 0), (-7, 0) వద్ద ఖండిస్తుంది.
(C) A మరియు B
(D) x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యము – 2
జవాబు.
(C) A మరియు B

ప్రశ్న 120.
రేఖీయ బహుపది యొక్క సాధారణ రూపాన్ని రాయండి.
జవాబు.
ax + b, a ≠ 0

ప్రశ్న 121.
ఘన బహుపది యొక్క సాధారణ రూపాన్ని తెల్పండి.
జవాబు.
ax³ + bx² + cx + d, a ≠ 0

ప్రశ్న 122.
p(x) = x³ – 36x యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు 6, – 6 అయిన మూడవ శూన్యం ఎంత ?
సాధన.
p(x) = x³ – 36x యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు,
6, – 6, మూడవ శూన్యం γ అనుకొనుము.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + β + γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
= 6 + (- 6) + γ = 0
∴ γ = 0
(లేదా) శూన్యాల లబ్ధం ABy = \(\frac{-d}{a}\)
= 6 (-6) γ = \(\frac{0}{1}\) = 0
∴ γ = 0
(లేదా)
x³ – 36x = 0 ⇒ x (x² – 36) = 0
x = 0, x² – 36 = 0
⇒ x² = 36 ⇒ x = √36 = ± 6
∴ శూన్యాలు = 0, 6, – 6
∴ మూడవ శూన్యం = 0

ప్రశ్న 123.
క్రింది పటంలో చూపిన సరళరేఖ \(\overleftrightarrow{X Y}\)ని సూచించు రేఖీయ బహుపది ఏది?

(A) p(x) = x – 3
(B) p(x) = 2 – \(\frac{2}{3}\)x
(C) p(x) = 2 + \(\frac{2}{3}\)x
(D) p(x) = x + 3
సాధన.
(B) p(x) = 2 – \(\frac{2}{3}\)x

వివరణ:
యత్న-దోష పద్ధతిలో సాధించాలి.
(A) p(x) = x – 3 ⇒ y = x – 3, (0, 2) బిందువు గుండా పోదు.
∴ A సరైన సమాధానం కాదు.

(B) p(x) = 2 – \(\frac{2}{3}\)x ⇒ y = 2 – \(\frac{2}{3}\)x,
(0, 2) మరియు (3, 0) బిందువు గుండా. పోతుంది.
∴ B సరైన సమాధానము.

→ క్రింది రేఖాచిత్రంను పరిశీలించి, 124-127 వరకు గల ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 124.
p(x) = ax² + bx + c అయితే క్రింది వానిలో ‘ ఏది సత్యం ?
(A) a > 0
(B) a < 0
(C) a = 0
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
(B) a < 0

ప్రశ్న 125.
p(x) యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
2 + 4 = 6

ప్రశ్న 126.
p(x) యొక్క శూన్యాల లబ్ధం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
2 × 4 = 8

ప్రశ్న 127.
ఈ క్రింది వానిలో ఏది p(x) యొక్క బహుపది ? ,
(A) x² – 6x -8 .
(B) – x² – 6x + 8
(C) – x² + 6x – 8
(D) x² + 6x – 8
జవాబు.
C

ప్రశ్న 128.
x² – 15x + p యొక్క ఒక శూన్యం -5 అయిన ‘p’ విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 15x + p యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము = – 5
p(- 5) = 0 ⇒ (- 5)² – 15 (- 5) + p = 0
⇒ 25 + 75 + p = 0 ⇒ p = – 100

ప్రశ్న 129.
p(x) = 9x^a + 10x^b – 7x^c + x ఒక బహుపది. a, b, c యొక్క ఏ విలువలకైన క్రింది వానిలో ఏది p(x) యొక్క ఒక శూన్యం అవుతుంది ?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) – 1
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
B (∵ స్థిరపదం లేదు కావున ‘O’ ఒక శూన్యము)

ప్రశ్న 130.
p(x) = x^a – 2x^b + 3x^c – 2x అనే బహుపదికి a, b, cఏ విలువలకైనా క్రింది వానిలో ఏది శూన్యము?
(A) 1.
(B) 0.
(C) A మరియు B
(D) -1
సాధన.
C (∵ స్థిరపదం, లేదు కావున ‘O’ ఒక శూన్యము)
p(1) = 1 – 2 + 3 – 2 = 0 కావున 1 ఒక శూన్యము

ప్రశ్న 131.
క్రింది ఏ బహుపది యొక్క గ్రాఫ్ మూలబిందువు గుండా పోవు సరళరేఖను సూచిస్తుంది ?
(A) p(x) = 2x
(B) p(x) = x
(C) p(x) = – x
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
(D) పైవన్నీ

(∵ p(x) = y = mx రూపంలో గల బహుపది మూలబిందువు గుండా పోతుంది.)

ప్రశ్న 132.
p(x) = x² + kx + 9 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము 3 అయిన kవిలువ ఎంత?
(A) – 6
(B) – 3
(C) 6
(D) 3
సాధన.
(A) – 6

వివరణ:
p(x) = x² + kx + 9 యొక్క ఒక శూన్యము 3.
p(3) = (3)² + 3k + 9 = 0
⇒ 3k + 18 = 0 ⇒ k = – 6

ప్రశ్న 133.
p(x) = ax⁴ + bx³ + cx² + dx + e నకు ‘1’ ఒక శూన్యం అయిన క్రింది వానిలో ఏది ఎల్లప్పుడు సత్యం?
(A) a + b + c + d + e = 0
(B) a + c + e = b + d
(C) e = 0
(D ) a = e = 0
సాధన.
(A) a + b + c + d + e = 0

వివరణ:
p(x) = ax⁴ + bx³ + cx² + dx + e ఆ యొక్క
ఒక శూన్యము = 1.
p(1) = a(1)⁴ + b(1)³ + c(1)² + d(1) + e = 0
∴ a + b + c + d + e = 0.

ప్రశ్న 134.
వర్గ బహుపది p(x) గ్రాఫ్ X-అక్షాన్ని OA = OB = 3 యూనిట్లు అవునట్లు ఖండించిన p(x) క్రింది వానిలో ఏది కావచ్చును ?
(A) x² – 9x + 27
(B) x² – 6x
(C) x² – 4x + 4
(D) x² – 9
సాధన.
(D) x² – 9

వివరణ:

వర్గబహుపది గ్రాఫ్ లో OA = OB = 3.
∴ శూన్యాలు – 3, 3 అవుతాయి.
∴ వర్గ బహుపది = x² – 9.

ప్రశ్న 135.
3x² – 5x + 6 యొక్క శూన్యాల విలోమాలను శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
3x² – 5x + 6 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β అనుకొనుము.
కావలసిన వర్గబహుపది శూన్యాలు \(\frac{1}{\alpha}, \frac{1}{\beta}\).
3x² – 5x + 6 యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β

Short cut:
ax² + bx + c బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాలు α, β అయిన \(\frac{1}{\alpha}, \frac{1}{\beta}\) శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
= cx² + bx + a
∴ కావలసిన వర్గబహుపది = 6x² – 5x + 3.

ప్రశ్న 136.
ax² + bx + c వర్గ బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాలు ఒకదానికొకటి వ్యుత్తమాలైతే a = c అని చూపుము.
సాధన.
ax² + bx + c వర్గబహుపది శూన్యాలు ఒకదాని కొకటి వ్యుత్ప్రమాలు.
α ఒక శూన్యం అయిన, \(\frac{1}{\alpha}\) మరొక శూన్యం అవుతుంది.
∴ శూన్యాల లబ్ధం = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
\(\alpha \cdot \frac{1}{\alpha}=\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{a}}\) ⇒ 1 = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
∴ a = c

ప్రశ్న 137.
x² – 12x + p యొక్క శూన్యాలు 1 : 2 నిష్పత్తిలో ఉండాలంటే ‘p’ విలువ ఎంత ?
సాధన.
x² – 12x + p యొక్క శూన్యాలు 1 : 2 నిష్పత్తిలో కలవు.
∴ శూన్యాలు α, 2α అనుకొనుము.
శూన్యాల మొత్తం = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
α + 2α = \(\frac{-(-12)}{1}\)
3α = 12 ⇒ α = 4
శూన్యాల లబ్దం = \(\frac{c}{a}\)
α ∙ 2α = \(\frac{p}{1}\) ⇒ 2α² = 2
2(4)² = p ⇒ p = 32

ప్రశ్న 138.
α, β, γలు శూన్యాలుగా గల ఘన బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
x³ – (α + β + γ)x² + (αβ + βγ + γα)x + αβγ

ప్రశ్న 139.
p పరిమాణం గల బహుపదిని (పరిమాణం గల ఒక బహుపదిచే భాగించినపుడు శేషం సున్నా అయిన భాగఫలం యొక్క పరిమాణం ఎంత ?
జవాబు.
p – q

ప్రశ్న 140.
ప్రవచనం-I: x² – 4x + 8 యొక్క శూన్యాల మొత్తం 4.
ప్రవచనం-II: ax²+ bx + c బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యాల లబ్ధం \(\frac{c}{\mathbf{a}}\).
(A) I సత్యం , II అసత్యం
(B) I సత్యం , II అసత్యం , I & II సరైన వివరణ’
(C) I సత్యం, II సత్యం, I & II సరైన వివరణ కాదు
(D) I మరియు II లు రెండూ అసత్యం
జవాబు.
(C) I సత్యం, II సత్యం, I & II సరైన వివరణ కాదు

ప్రశ్న 141.
సమాన శూన్యాలు కలిగిన ఒక వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
(లేదా)
ఒకే ఒక వాస్తవ శూన్యాన్ని కలిగిన వర్గబహుపదికీ ఉదాహరణనిమ్ము.
సాధన.
ఒకే ఒక శూన్యవిలువ కలిగిన వర్గ బహుపదికి ఉదాహరణ p(x) = (x – 2)² = x² – 4x + 4.

ప్రశ్న 142.
p(x) శూన్యాల మొత్తం సున్న మరియు అందులో ఒక శూన్యం. 4గా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
α + β = 0 మరియు α = 4 ∴ β = – 4
∴ αβ = – 16
∴ p(x) = x² – 16

ప్రశ్న 143.
ఈ క్రింది వానిలో సత్యమేది ?
(A) ఒక బహుపది యందు స్థిర విలువ లేకుంటే దానికి – సున్న ఒక శూన్య విలువ
(B) శూన్య విలువ వద్ద బహుపది విలువ సున్న
(C) ఒక బహుపది (p, 0) వద్ద X – అక్షాన్ని ఖండించిన దాని శూన్య విలువ ‘p’
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
(D) పైవన్నీ

ప్రశ్న 144.
క్రింది వానిలో ఏది. x³ – 6x² + 11x – 6 నకు శూన్యం కాదు?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
జవాబు.
(A) 0

(∵ స్థిరపదం – 6 కలదు. కావున ‘O’ ఒక శూన్యము కాదు.)

ప్రశ్న 145.
ax + b బహుపది గ్రాఫ్ X – అక్షాన్ని ఖండించే బిందువు ఏది ?
(A) \(\left(-\frac{b}{a}, 0\right)\)
(B) \(\left(\frac{b}{a}, 0\right)\)
(C) \(\left(0,-\frac{b}{a}\right)\)
(D) \(\left(0, \frac{b}{a}\right)\)
జవాబు.
(A) \(\left(-\frac{b}{a}, 0\right)\)

ప్రశ్న 146.
బహుపదుల భాగహార అల్ గారిథమ్ (భాగహార నియమం)ను రాయండి.
సాధన.
p(x) = g(x) ∙ q(x) + r(x)
r(x) = 0 లేదా r(x) పరిమాణం < g(x) పరిమాణం

ప్రశ్న 147.
p(x) = 2x² – 5x + 6 అయిన p(1) + p(2) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = 2x² – 5x + 6
∴ p(1) + p(2) = [2(1)² – 5(1) + 6] + [2(2)² – 5(2) + 6]
= (2 – 5 + 6) + (8 – 10 + 6)
= 3 + 4 = 7

ప్రశ్న 148.
శూన్యాలు సమానంగా గల వర్గ బహుపది యొక్క రేఖాంతం (గ్రాఫ్) చిత్తుపటాన్ని గీయండి.
(లేదా)
b² – 4ac = 0 అయ్యే సందర్భానికి వర్గ బహుపది చిత్తుపటాన్ని గీయండి.
సాధన.

ప్రశ్న 149.
(x – 3) (x – 5) లచే సూచించబడిన బహుపది శూన్యం కానిది
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) పైవన్నీ
జవాబు.
(C) 4

ప్రశ్న 150.
ఒక రేఖీయ బహుపదికి ఒక శూన్య విలువ ఉండాలంటే అది ……………………….
(A) X- అక్షాన్ని ఖండించాలి
(B) X- అక్షానికి సమాంతరంగా ఉండరాదు
(C) Y-అక్ష్యానికి సమాంతరంగా ఉండవచ్చు
(D) పైవన్ని
జవాబు.
(D) పైవన్ని

ప్రశ్న 151.
రెండు వాస్తవ మూలాలను కలిగిన వరబహుపది యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రం (గ్రాఫ్) యొక్క చిత్తు పటం గీయండి.
(లేదా)
b² – 4ac > 0 అయ్యే సందర్భంలో వర్గబహుపది యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రం యొక్క చిత్తు పటం గీయండి.
సాధన.

ప్రశ్న 152.
3 శూన్యేతర వాస్తవ శూన్య విలువలు కలిగిన బహుపది పరిమాణం ……………
(A) 3 కంటే తక్కువ
(B) 3 లేదా అంతకంటే ఎక్కువ
(C) 3 లేదా అంతకంటే తక్కువ
(D) ఏదీకాదు
జవాబు.
(B) 3 లేదా అంతకంటే ఎక్కువ

ప్రశ్న 153.
x³ – 12x² + px + q నందు రెండు శూన్యాలు సమానం మరియు 3వ శూన్యం 2 అయిన ‘q’ విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
x³ – 12x² + px + q యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు
సమానం మరియు 3వ శూన్యము 2.
∴ శూన్యాలు α, α, 2 అనుకొనుము. –
శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + α + 2 = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(-12)}{1}\) = 12
∴ 2α + 2 = 12 ⇒ 2α = 10 ⇒ α = 5
శూన్యాల లబ్దం α ∙ α ∙ 2 = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{a}}=\frac{-\mathrm{q}}{1}\)
∴ 5(5)2 = – q ⇒ 50 = – q ⇒ q = – 50

ప్రశ్న 154.
క్రింది వానిలో ఒకే ఒక శూన్యం గల బహుపది యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రం
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

జవాబు.
(B)

ప్రశ్న 155.
x² – px + q నందు గల రెండూ శూన్యాల విలువ సమానం కావలెనన్నా ……………. కావలెను.
(A) p² = q
(B) p² = 2q
(C) p² = 3q
(D) p² = 49
జవాబు.
(D) p² = 49

ప్రశ్న 156.
p(x) = x² – px + 5 అను బహుపది యొక్క p(2) విలువ 3 అయిన ‘p’ విలువ ఎంత?
సాధన.
p(2) = 3 ⇒ (2)² – 2p + 5 = 3
⇒ 9 – 2p = 3
⇒ – 2p = 3 – 9 = – 6 ⇒ p = 3

ప్రశ్న 157.
x² – 5√5 అను బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తం ఎంత ?
(A) 5√ 5
(B) 5 + √5
(C) 0
(D) 5 – √5
జవాబు.
(C) 0

ప్రశ్న 158.
క్రింది వానిలో ఏది రెండు వాస్తవ శూన్యాలు కలిగిన వర్గ బహుపది యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రము కావచ్చును?

జవాబు.
D

ప్రశ్న 159.
క్రింది వానిలో ఏది α, – α, α శూన్యాలుగా గల బహుపది?
(A) x³ – αx² – α²x – α³
(B) x³ – αx² – α²x + α³
(C) x³ + αx² – α²x – α³
(D) x³ – αx² + α²x – α³
జవాబు.
(B) x³ – αx² – α²x + α³

ప్రశ్న 160.
α, -α శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
జవాబు.
x² – α²

ప్రశ్న 161.
క్రింది రేఖాచిత్రంను సూచించు వర్గ బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.

సాధన.
రేఖాచిత్రం సూచించు వర్గబహుపది శూన్యాలు 3, 5.
3, 5 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గ బహుపది
= x² – (3 + 5)x + (3) (5)
= x² – 8x + 15

→ గమనిక: α, β లు p(x) = x² – 3x + 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు.
పై సమాచారం ఆధారంగా 162 – 169 వరకు గల ప్రశ్నలకు జవాబులు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 162.
x² – 3x + 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
p(x) = x² – 3x + 2
∴ α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}=\frac{-(-3)}{1}\) = 3
∴ α + β = 3 ………… (1)
∴ αβ = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = 2 ……. (2)
(లేదా)
x² – 3x + 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు కనుగొని అందు నుండి కూడా సాధించవచ్చును.
x² – 3x + 2 = x² – 2x – x + 2 = 0 .
⇒ (x – 2) (x – 1) = 0
శూన్యాలు α = 2, β = 1 గా తీసుకొని సాధించ వచ్చును.

ప్రశ్న 163.
\(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
\(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) = \(\frac{\beta+\alpha}{\alpha \beta}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

ప్రశ్న 164.
α2 + β2 విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α² + β² = (α + β)² – 2αβ
= (3)² – 2(2) = 9 – 4 = 5

ప్రశ్న 165.
α – β విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
(α – β)² = (α + β)² – 4αβ
= (3)² – 4(2) = 9 – 8 = 1
α – β = √1 = ± 1

ప్రశ్న 166.
α³ + β³ విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α³ + β³ = (α + β)³ – 3αβ(α + β)
= (3)³ – 3(2) (3) = 27 – 18 = 9

ప్రశ్న 167.
α²β + αβ² విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α²β + αβ² = αβ(α + β) = 2(3) = 6

ప్రశ్న 168.
\(\frac{1}{\alpha^{2}}+\frac{1}{\beta^{2}}\) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
\(\frac{1}{\alpha^{2}}+\frac{1}{\beta^{2}}\) = \(\frac{\beta^{2}+\alpha^{2}}{\alpha^{2} \beta^{2}}\) = \(\frac{5}{2^{2}}=\frac{5}{4}\)
(∵ α² + β² = (α + β)² – 2αβ
= (3)² – 2(2) = 9 – 4 = 5)

ప్రశ్న 169.
α³ + β³ = 3αβ(α + β) విలువను కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
α³ + β³ = 3αβ(α + β)
= (α + β)³ = 3³ = 27.

ప్రశ్న 170.
α, β, γలు x³ + 3x² – x – 2 యొక్క శూన్యాలు అయిన క్రింది వానిని జతపరుచుము.

(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-
(d) i-b, ii-c, iii-a .
జవాబు.
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c

ప్రశ్న 171.
p(x) = x³ + 3x² – x – 3 యొక్క రెండు శూన్యాలు – 1 మరియు – 3 అయిన మూడవ శూన్యం ఎంత?
సాధన.
రెండు శూన్యాలు α = – 1, β = – 3
శూన్యాల మొత్తం α + β + γ = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
(- 1) + (- 3) + γ = \(\frac{-3}{1}\)
– 4 + γ = – 3 ⇒ γ = – 3 + 4 = 1
(లేదా)
శూన్యాల లబ్ధం αβγ = \(\frac{-d}{a}\)
(-1) (-3)γ = \(\frac{-(-3)}{1}\)
γ = 1
∴ మూడవ శూన్యము = 1

ప్రశ్న 172.
ఘనబహుపది యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రము ‘చిత్తుపటాన్ని గీయండి.
జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 173.
p(x) = 2x + 4 యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రం (గ్రాఫ్)ను గీయండి.
సాధన.
p(x) = y = 2x + 4

ప్రశ్న 174.
రేఖీయ బహుపది యొక్క చిత్తుపటాన్ని గీయండి.
జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 175.
ప్రవచనం P: ax² + bx + c వర్గ బహుపది శూన్యాల మొత్తం \(\frac{c}{a}\)కి సమానము.
ప్రవచనం Q: ఘన బహుపది
ax³ + bx² + cx + d యొక్క శూన్యాల లబ్దము –\(\frac{b}{a}\) కి సమానము.
(A) P సత్యం, Q అసత్యం
(B) P అసత్యం, Q సత్యం
(C) P, Q లు రెండూ అసత్యం
(D) P, Q లు రెండూ సత్యం
జవాబు.
(C) P, Q లు రెండూ అసత్యం

గమనిక: p(x) = ax² + bx + c వర్గ బహుపదికి క్రింది సందర్భాలలో 176-179 వరకు గల ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 176.
a < 0 మరియు రెండు వాస్తవ శూన్యాలు గల సందర్భంలో p(x) రేఖాచిత్రము చిత్తుపటం గీయండి.
జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 177.
a < 0 మరియు సమాన వాస్తవ శూన్యాలు కలిగిన సందర్భం యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రము చిత్తుపటం గీయండి.
జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 178.
a < 0 మరియు వాస్తవ శూన్యాలు లేనటువంటి సందర్భం యొక్క రేఖాచిత్రము (గ్రాఫ్) చిత్తుపటం గీయండి. జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 179.
a > 0 మరియు వాస్తవ శూన్యాలు లేనటువంటి ‘ సందర్భంనకు రేఖాచిత్రము (గ్రాఫ్) చిత్తుపటం గీయండి.
జవాబు.

ప్రశ్న 180.
sin 90°, tan² 60° విలువలను శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గబహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
sin 90° = 1, tan² 60° = (√3)² = 3
∴ 1, 3 శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్తబహుపది
p(x) = x² – (1 + 3)x + 1(3)
= x² – 4x + 3

→ గమనిక: ABCD ఒక చతురస్రం మరియు దాని భుజము (x + 3) యూ॥ అయిన క్రింది 181-183 , ప్రశ్నలకు సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 181.
చతురస్రం యొక్క చుట్టుకొలతను సూచించు బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
చుట్టుకొలత p(x) = 4s
= 4(x + 3) = 4x + 12

ప్రశ్న 182.
చతురస్రం ABCD వైశాల్యాన్ని సూచించే బహుపదిని కనుగొనుము.
సాధన.
వైశాల్యము A(x) = s²
= (x + 3)² = x² + 6x + 9

ప్రశ్న 183.
కర్ణం AC పొడవును సూచించు రేఖీయ బహుపదిని రాయండి.
సాధన.
కర్ణము D(x) = √2s = √2 (x + 3)
= √2 x + 3√2

ప్రశ్న 184.
“ఒకే శూన్య విలువలను కలిగిన అనేక వర్గబహుపదులు/ బహుపదులు వ్యవస్థితం” అవుతాయని రంజని, కాదు ఏకైకంగా వ్యవస్థితం అవుతుందని హరి అంటున్నారు. ఎవరి వాదనతో నీవు ఏకీభవిస్తావు ? నీ సమాధానాన్ని సమర్థించుము.
సాధన.
రంజని వాదనతో ఏకీభవిస్తాను.
కారణం: α, β శూన్యాలుగా గల వర్గబహుపది
= k(x² – (α + β) x + αβ); k ∈ R
k యొక్క వేర్వేరు విలువలకు వేర్వేరు బహుపదులు వ్యవస్థితం అవుతాయి.

ప్రశ్న 185.
క్రింది బహుపదుల రేఖాచిత్రాలను, బహుపదుల వివిధ సందర్భాలకు జతపరుచుము.

(A) i-e, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(B) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(C) i-e, ii – a, iii – b, iv – C
(D) i – c, ii-e, iii – d, iv – a
జవాబు.
(B) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b

ప్రశ్న 186.
α, β, γలు బహుపది px³ + qx² + rx + s యొక్క శూన్యాలైన, క్రింది వాటిలో సరైన మ్యాచింగ్ ఏది?

(a) A(i), B(ii), C(iii)
(b) A(ii), B(iii), C(i)
(c) A(iii), B(i), C(ii),
(d) A(ii), B(i), C(iii)
జవాబు.
(b) A(ii), B(iii), C(i)

ప్రశ్న 187.
3x – 2 బహుపది యొక్క శూన్యవిలువ ఏమిటి ?
సాధన.
f(x) = 3x – 2; f(x) = 0
3x – 2 = 0 ⇒ 3x = 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

ప్రశ్న 188.
– \(\frac{\mathbf{k}}{\mathbf{a}}\) శూన్యముగా గల బహుపదిని చలరాశి ‘X’ లో వ్రాయుము.
సాధన.
x – \(\left(-\frac{k}{a}\right)\) = 0 ⇒ x + \(\frac{\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{a}}\) = 0
⇒ ax + k = 0
∴ పరిమాణము ‘1’ మరియు ‘x’ చలరాశిగా గల
ax + k = 0 బహుపది శూన్య విలువ –\(\frac{\mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{a}}\)

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers 12th Lesson త్రికోణమితి అనువర్తనాలు on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP Board 10th Class Maths Bits 12th Lesson త్రికోణమితి అనువర్తనాలు

ప్రశ్న1.
ఒక స్థూపము యొక్క పొడవు, నీడల నిష్పత్తి 1 : √3 అయిన సూర్యుని ఊర్ధ్వకోణము విలువ ఎంత ?
జవాబు :

tan θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
θ = 30.
సూర్యుని కిరణాల ఊర్థ్వకోణం = 30°

ప్రశ్న2.
20 మీ. పొడవు గల నిచ్చెన 10 మీ. ఎత్తు వద్ద గోడను తాకుచు క్షితిజ సమాంతరంతో నిచ్చెన చేసే కోణమును కనుగొనుము.
జవాబు :

sin θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AC}}=\frac{10}{20}=\frac{1}{2}\)
θ = 30°