Mahesh

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Globe – Model of the Earth on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson Globe – Model of the Earth with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A globe is the
A) Model of the Mars
B) Model of the Earth
C) Model of the Jupiter
D) Model of the Saturn
Answer:
B) Model of the Earth

Question 2.
A globe shows the
A) The shape of the Earth
B) Water and Masses
C) Oceans
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 3.
The total number of latitudes in both the hemispheres is
A) 90
B) 100
C) 180
D) 360
Answer:
C) 180

Question 4.
The globe and the earth are different in
A) shape
B) size
C) continents and oceans
D) None of these
Answer:
B) size

Question 5.
The longest latitude
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Tropic of Capricorn
C) Equator
D) Arctic circle
Answer:
C) the Equator

Question 6.
The imaginary horizontal lines on the globe are ……………….
A) latitudes
B) longitudes
C) parallels
D) both A & C
Answer:
A) latitudes

Question 7.
The hemisphere that lies between the Equator and the North pole is ……………….
A) Southern hemisphere
B) Northern hemisphere
C) Eastern hemisphere
D) Western Hemisphere
Answer:
B) Northern hemisphere

Question 8.
The hemisphere that lies between the Equator and the South pole is ……………….
A) Southern hemisphere
B) Northern hemisphere
G) Eastern hemisphere
D) Western Hemisphere
Answer:
A) Southern hemisphere

Question 9.
India is located in ……………….
A) Northern hemisphere
B) Eastern hemisphere
C) Southern hemisphere
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 10.
An imaginary line that connects the North and South poles on the earth is called
A) Latitude
B) Longitude
C) Axis
D) Orbit
Answer:
B) Longitude

Question 11.
The other name of 0° longitude ……………….
A) Greenwich longitude
B) The longest longitude
C) 180° western longitude
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Greenwich longitude

Question 12.
The value of the Prime meridian is
A) 90°
B) 0°
C) 60°
D) 180°
Answer:
B) 0°

Question 13.
The Antarctic Circle is located in
A) 6654° N
B) 2354° S
C) 2354° N
D) 6654° S
Answer:
D) 6654° S

Question 14.
The Antarctic Circle is located in
A) the Northern hemisphere
B) the Southern Hemisphere
C) the Eastern Hemisphere
D) the Western Hemisphere
Answer:
B) the Southern Hemisphere

Question 15.
The Tropic of Cancer is located at
A) 2354° N
B) 6654°N
C) 2354° S
D) 6654° S
Answer:
A) 2354° N

Question 16.
The Earth moves at a speed of
A) 1610 KMPH
B) 1160 KMPH
C) 1810 KMPH
D) 1060 KMPH
Answer:
A) 1610 KMPH

Question 17.
The Earth moves on its own axis from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North to East
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 18.
A: The globe moves around the axis from East to West.
B: The imaginary line which runs horizontally on the globe divides it into two equal halves.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) B is correct

Question 19.
A: the Equator is 0° latitude.
B: India is located in the Southern hemisphere.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
A) A is correct

Question 20.
A: Latitudes are parallel to each other.
B: Latitudes are equal in length.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
A) A is correct

Question 21.
A: Longitudes run parallel to the equator.
B: Longitudes never meet.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A and B are wrong

Question 22.
A: Planets rotate themselves while revolving around the Sun.
B: Earth’s movement from West to East is called rotation.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A and B are correct

Question 23.
Arrange the latitudes from South to North.
Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle, Equator
A) Arctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Antarctic Circle
B) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle
C) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Antarctic Circle
D) Antarctic Circle, Arctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
B) Antarctic Circle, Tropic of Capricorn, Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle

Question 24.
Match the following.,
1) Longitudes                                                   a) Prime Meridian
2) 0° Latitude                                                   b) Tropic of Cancer
3) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude   c) Antarctic Circle
4) 0° longitude                                                 d) Meridians
5) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude   e) Equator
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – c
C) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
Answer:
C) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 25.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Solar eclipse – when Earth comes in between the Sun and Moon
2) Lunar Eclipse – when Earth comes in between the Sun and the moon
3) Earth’s Rotation – Earth’s movement around itself
4) Earth’s revolution – Earth’s movement around the Sun
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 26.
Sun’s rays fall directly on the Earth on
A) 21st June and 22nd December
B) 21st March and 22nd December
C) 21st March and 23rd September
D) 21st June and 23rd September
Answer:
C) 21st March and 23rd September

Question 27.
Christmas is celebrated in summer in Australia due to
A) Earth’s rotation
B) Earth’s revolution
C) Moon’s rotation
D) Moon’s revolution
Answer:
B) Earth’s revolution

Question 28.
Match the following.
1) Earth’s rotation                       a) 0° longitude
2) Earth’s revolution                   b) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude
3) International date line            c) Day and night
4) Tropic of Cancer                     d) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude
5) Tropic of Capricorn                e) Seasons
6) Greenwich line                       f) 180° East and west longitude
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b, 6 – f
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – f, 5 – e, 6 – d
C) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – f, 4 – b, 5 – d, 6 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – f, 5 – c, 6 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – f, 4 – b, 5 – d, 6 – a

Question 29.
India is located in
A) Northern Hemisphere
B) Southern Hemisphere
C) Both Southern and Western Hemisphere
D) Both Northern and Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
D) Both Northern and Eastern Hemisphere

Question 30.
A: Europe and the Arctic Ocean are in Northern Hemisphere.
B: Australia and the Southern Ocean are in Southern Hemisphere.
A) A is correct
B) B is correct
C) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A and B are correct

Fill in the blanks.

1. The ocean on both sides of a world map ……………….
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

2. The word Globe came from …………….. language.
Answer:
Latin

3. The Globe is a true model of the …………….
Answer:
Earth

4. The needle fixed through the globe is called ……………….
Answer:
Axis

5. The oldest terrestrial globe was made in ………………..
Answer:
1492

6. The world’s first seamless celestial globe was built by Mughal scientists under the patronage during ……………… empire.
Answer:
Mughal

7. The horizontal imaginary line that divides the globe into two equal halves is ………………
Answer:
the Equator

8. The halve that lies north of the Equator is known as ……………….
Answer:
Northern Hemisphere

9. The halve that lies south of the Equator is known as ……………….
Answer:
Southern Hemisphere

10. The horizontal lines drawn parallel to the Equator are ……………….
Answer:
latitudes

11. The 90° latitude that lies to the north Of the Equator ……………….
Answer:
North Pole

12. The 90° latitude that lies to the south of the Equator ……………….
Answer:
South Pole

13. The Tropic of Capricorn is located at ……………….
Answer:
231/2° S

14. The imaginary lines drawn perpendicular to the latitudes are ……………….
Answer:
longitudes

15. The 0° Meridian is also known as ……………….
Answer:
Prime Meridian/Greenwich

16. The line opposite Greenwich is called ……………….
Answer:
International Date Line

17. The hemisphere that lies East to the Greenwich ……………….
Answer:
Eastern Hemisphere

18. The hemisphere that lies West to the Greenwich ……………….
Answer:
Western Hemisphere

19. The distance between the longitudes decreases towards ……………….
Answer:
Prime Meridian

20. The Arctic Circle is located in the ………………. hemisphere.
Answer:
Northern

21. To locate a point, we need to know its latitude, as well as ……………….
Answer:
longitude

22. Day and night are caused due to the Earth’s ……………….
Answer:
rotation

23. When half portion of the Earth receives Sun’s rays, the remaining half remains in, ……………….
Answer:
Dark

24. A leap year has ……………….
Answer:
366 Days

25. Seasons are caused due to the Earth’s ……………….
Answer:
revolution

26. When Sun, Moon and the Earth comes into a straight line ……………….
Answer:
Solar eclipse

Match the following:

Column A                                                                Column B
1) Globe                            ( )                A) Sun, Earth, Moon comes into one line
2) Seasons                         ( )                B) Sun, Moon, Earth comes into one line
3) Day and night               ( )                C) 90° Northernmost part of the earth
4) Solar eclipse                  ( )                D) Model of the earth
5) Lunar eclipse                 ( )                E) 66VS° North latitude
6) Arctic circle                   ( )                F) 90° Southernmost part of the earth
7) South Pole                    ( )                G) Rotation of the earth
–                                                           H) 6614° North latitude
–                                                           I) Revolution of Earth
Answer:
1 – D
2 – I
3 – G
4 – B
5 – A
6 – E
7 – F

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Our Earth in the Solar System on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Our Earth in the Solar System with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Celestial bodies are made up of
A) Gas
B) Water
C) Light
D) Wax
Answer:
A) Gas

Question 2.
The nearest star to the Earth is
A) Venus
B) Saturn
C) Sun
D) Mars
Answer:
C) Sun

Question 3.
Moon moves around
A) Sun
B) Earth
C) Mercury
D) Jupiter
Answer:
B) Earth

Question 4.
The center of the solar system is
A) Sun
B) Moon
C) Earth
D) Mars
Answer:
A) Sun

Question 5.
The surface temperature of the Sim is about
A) 7600°C
B) 6700°C
C) 6000°C
D) 7200X
Answer:
C) 6000°C

Question 6.
The nearest planet to the Sun is
A) Mars
B) Earth
C) Mercury
D) Saturn
Answer:
C) Mercury

Question 7.
Fifth largest planet in size is
A) Earth
B) Venus
C) Mars
D) Mercury
Answer:
A) Earth

Question 8.
The layer of the air that surrounds the Earth
A) Hydrosphere
B) Atmosphere
C) Lithosphere
D) Biosphere
Answer:
B) Atmosphere

Question 9.
Planets that do not have any satellites are
A) Mercury and Venus
B) Mars and Jupiter
C) Saturn and Earth
D) Venus & Jupiter
Answer:
A) Mercury and Venus

Question 10.
The moon moves around the Earth in
A) 28 days
B) 25 days
C) 27 days
D) 30 days
Answer:
C) 27 days

Question 11.
Mangalyan was launched in
A) 28th September 2014
B) 29th September 2014
C) 24th September 2014
D) 28th September 2020
Answer:
C) 24th September 2014

Question 12.
The Pole Star indicates the direction to the
A) South
B) North
C) East
D) West
Answer:
B) North

Question 13.
The Sun is
A) a star
B) a celestial body
C) the head of the solar system
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 14.
The term “Blue Planet” indicates the presence of
A) land
B) water
C) oxygen
D) all of these
Answer:
B) water

Question 15.
A: Bright light of the Sun does not allow us to see the objects in the sky.
B: Bright light of the Moon does not allow to see dead objects in the sky.
A) Only.A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
A) Only A is correct

Question 16.
A: Celestial bodies are very big and hot.
B: Celestial bodies are made up of gases.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 17.
A: Earth is the companion of the Sun and moves around the Earth.
B: Moon is the companion of Earth and moves around the Earth.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
B) Only B is correct

Question 18.
A: North Star indicates north direction.
B: North star is also called pole star.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 19.
A: Earth is the third largest planet to the Sun.
B: Earth is the fifth nearest planet to the Sun.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
D) Both A & B are wrong

Question 20.
Match the following.
1) Earth                       [ ]       a) made up of head and tail
2) Galaxy                     [ ]       b) small pieces of rocky or metallic bodies
3) Comet                     [ ]       c) Huge cluster of stars
4) Meteoroids             [ ]       d) Part of the Solar System
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
C) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b

Question 21.
Match the following.
1) Asteroids                              [ ]         a) Moon
2) Man made satellite              [ ]         b) Small rocky objects
3) Natural satellite                    [ ]         c) Sun
4) Closest star to the Earth       [ ]         d) An artificial body
A) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c

Question 22.
The given picture shows

A) The Sun
B) The Globe
C) The spheres of the Earth
D) Solar system
Answer:
C) The spheres of the Earth

Question 23.
Arrange the planets from the Sun.
Mars, Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, Earth
A) Mars, Jupiter, Earth, Venus, Mercury
B) Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter
C) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth, Jupiter
D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter
Answer:
D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter

Question 24.
Choose the wrong statement.
A) Constellations – Groups of stars
B) North star – Pole star
C) Outer planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
D) Mercury – Smallest planet
Answer:
C) Outer planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

Question 25.
Match the following:
1. The Sun                      [ ]               a) Blue Planet
2. The Moon                   [ ]               b) Inner Planets
3. The Earth                    [ ]               c) 3.84 km away from the earth
4. Saturn and Uranus     [ ]                d) 150 million Kilometers away from the earth
5. Mercury and Venus    [ ]                e) Outer planets
Answer:
1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – b

Fill in the Blanks.

1. A group of ……………….. forming various patterns is called a …………….
Answer:
stars, constellation

2. Celestial bodies are made up of …………….
Answer:
gases

3. ……………. is the closest celestial body to our earth.
Answer:
The moon

4. ……………. is the third nearest planet to the Sun.
Answer:
The earth

5. Stars are celestial bodies that are ……………… and ……………..
Answer:
big, hot

6. Planets do not possess their own ………………, ………………
Answer:
heat, light

7. People determine North direction with the help of ………………
Answer:
North Star/Pole Star

8. Saptarshi constellation is a group of ………………
Answer:
seven stars

9. ……………… are elongated fixed paths in which a celestial body always remains.
Answer:
Orbits

10. Venus is similar to the earth in its ……………… and ………………
Answer:
size ; shape

11. The shadows on the moon’s surface are due to ………………, ……………… and ………………
Answer:
mountains, plains; depressions

12. Meteoroids heat up and burn due to ………………
Answer:
friction

13. Earth receives light and heat from the ………………
Answer:
Sun

14. The Sun is the center of the ………………
Answer:
Solar system

15. Man-made satellite is a ………………
Answer:
artificial body

16. India is the …………. country to reach Mars.
Answer:
fourth

17. MOM ……………
Answer:
Mars Orbiter Mission

18. No. of days the Moon takes to complete its spin around itself …………….
Answer:
27

19. No. of days the Moon takes to complete to move around the Earth ………………
Answer:
27

20. Sun can include ……………… Earths in it.
Answer:
13 lakhs

21. Biggest planet in Solar system ………………
Answer:
Jupiter

22. Smallest planet in Solar system ………………
Answer:
Mercury

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 22 Rulers and Buildings on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 22nd Lesson Rulers and Buildings with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who started the construction of Qutb Minar?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Iltutmish
C) Alauddin Khilji
D) Akbar
Answer:
A) Qutbuddin Aybak

Question 2.
Who finished the construction of Qutb Minar?
A) Alauddin Khilji
B) Akbar
C) Iltutmish
D) Qutbuddin Aybak
Answer:
C) Iltutmish

Question 3.
When was the construction of Qutb Minar completed?
A) 1129 AD.
B) 1199 A.D.
C) 1229 A.D.
D) 1429 A.D.
Answer:
C) 1229 A.D.

Question 4.
When was the Kandariya Mahadeva temple constructed?
A) In 899 A.D.
B) In 909 A.D
C) In 999 A.D.
D) In 919 A.D.
Answer:
C) In 999 A.D.

Question 5.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple was built by
A) Dhangadeva
B) Dhanunjayadeva
C) Dharmadeva
D) Dharma Pala
Answer:
A) Dhangadeva

Question 6.
Which temple had the tallest Shikhara amongst all the temples of its time?
A) Brihadiswara temple
B) Kandariya Mahadeva temple
C) Virupaksha temple
D) Ramachandra temple
Answer:
A) Brihadiswara temple

Question 7.
Brihadiswara temple (or) Raja Rajeswara temple was built by
A) Raja Raja Chola
B) Rajendra Chola
C) Kulottunga Chola
D) Rajaraja Narendra
Answer:
A) Raja Raja Chola

Question 8.
To which dynasty Khajuraho temples belong to
A) Chandela
B) Pala
C) Chola
D) Pandya
Answer:
A) Chandela

Question 9.
Rajarajeswara (or) Brihadeshwara temple is at
A) Madurai
B) Chennai
C) Tanjore
D) Sri Rangam
Answer:
C) Tanjore

Question 10.
Which court chronicles described the sultan as the ‘Shadow of God’?
A) Indian
B) Turkish
C) Persian
D) Arabian
Answer:
C) Persian

Question 11.
According to the inscription in the Delhi mosque which sultan was chosen by God?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Iltutmish
C) Balban
D) Alauddin Khilji
Answer:
D) Alauddin Khilji

Question 12.
‘Hauz – i – Sultani’ or the ‘King’s Res-ervoir’ was constructed by
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Balban
C) Iltutmish
D) Alauddin Khilji
Answer:
C) Iltutmish

Question 13.
Which Sultan had the qualities of Solomon and Moses?
A) Qutbuddin Aybak
B) Alauddin Khilji
C) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
D) iltutmish
Answer:
B) Alauddin Khilji

Question 14.
What is the popular name of Harminder Sahib?
A) Golden Temple
B) Lotus Temple
C) Kali Temple
D) Sikh Temple
Answer:
A) Golden Temple

Question 15.
Golden Temple (Harminder Sahib) is at
A) Amritsar
B) Jalandhar
C) Chandigarh
D) Ludhiana
Answer:
A) Amritsar

Question 16.
Which Pandyan King invaded Srilanka and defeated the King Sena -1?
A) Shrimara Shrivallabha
B) Nedunjalian
C) Karikala
D) Jalandhar
Answer:
A) Shrimara Shrivallabha

Question 17.
The Sinhalese ruler defeated by the Pandyan King Shrimara Srivallabha was
A) Sena I
B) Sena II
C) Sena III
D) Sena IV
Answer:
A) Sena I

Question 18.
Which Sinhalese ordered his general to invade Madurai?
A) Sena II
B) Sena
C) Sena III
D) Ser
Answer:
A) Sena II

Question 19.
The capital of Pandyas was ……..
A) Kanchi
B) Coimbatore
C) Madurai
D) Tanjore
Answer:
C) Madurai

Question 20.
Which dynasty was the statue of Bhairavi seized from?
A) Palas of Bengal
B) Kalingas of Odisha
C) Eastern Chalukyas from Vengi
D) From Chalukyas.
Answer:
B) Kalingas of Odisha

Question 21.
From which dynasty was the Statue of Nandi seized by the Cholas?
A) Chalukyas
B) Kalingas of Odisha
C) Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi
D) Palas of Bengal
Answer:
C) Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi

Question 22.
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a con-temporary of which Chola king?
A) Raja Raja
B) Rajendra -1
C) Kulottunga Chola
D) Rajaraja Narendra
Answer:
B) Rajendra -1

Question 23.
The Sultan who looted Somnath temple was
A) Mahmud of Ghazni
B) Mahmud of Ghori
C) Taimur
D) Nadir Shah
Answer:
A) Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 24.
Which city was developed to act as the imperial capital of entire South India?
A) Tanjore L
B) Vengi
C) Orugallu
D) Vijayanagara
Answer:
D) Vijayanagara

Question 25.
“Mahanavami Dibba” was the structure belonged to
A) Vijayanagara Kings
B) Kakatiya Kings
C) Chalukya Kings
D) Chola Kings
Answer:
A) Vijayanagara Kings

Question 26.
Diwan – i – aam or Diwan – i – klias was constructed by
A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Shah Jahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Shah Jahan

Question 27.
Who constructed the Red Fort at Delhi?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Jahangir
D) Babur
Answer:
B) Shah Jahan

Question 28.
Who built the Tajmahal?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Jahangir
D) Babur
Answer:
B) Shah Jahan

Question 29.
The grandest architectural accomplishment of Shah Jahan was
A) Taj Mahal
B) Peacock Throne
C) Red Fort
D) Diwan – i – aam
Answer:
A) Taj Mahal

Question 30.
The Taj Mahal is on the banks of the river
A) Ganges
B) Yamuna
C) Ravi
D) Son
Answer:
B) Yamuna

Question 31.
Qutubuddin-Aibak build Qutub Minar in the year ……….. A.D.
A) 1190
B) 1195
C) 1199
D) 1200
Answer:
C) 1199

Question 32.
The no. of stairs in Qutub Minar.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 33.
The construction of Qutub Minar was completed by lltutmish in the year
A) 1200
B) 1220
C) 1229
D) 1250
Answer:
C) 1229

Question 34.
Roofs, doors and windows were still made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns, a style of architecture called
A) Trabeate
B) Corbelled
C) Both A&B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A&B

Question 35.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated to Shiva was constructed in 999 A.D. by
A) Ganga Deva
B) Dhanga Deva
C) Ramachandra Deva
D) Bhuthala Raju
Answer:
B) Dhanga Deva

Question 36.
The Khajuraho complex contained temples where common people were not allowed to enter
A) royal
B) ministerial
C) samanthas
D) parganadhipathas
Answer:
A) royal

Question 37.
The weight of the superstructure above the doors and windows was sometimes carried by arches. The roof too used this principle and was converted into vaults and domes. This architectural form is called
A) arcuate
B) achyuate
C) gummatam
D) dome
Answer:
A) arcuate

Question 38.
Arches, domes and limestone mortar were used extensively in the buildings after ……….. A.D.
A) 1190
B) 1290
C) 1390
D) 1490
Answer:
A) 1190

Question 39.
The Raja Rajeswara temple was built by:
A) Rajarajadeva
B) Rajendradeva
C) Gangadeva
D) Dhangadeva
Answer:
A) Rajarajadeva

Question 40.
The Swayambhu Siva Temple is here
A) Hyderabad
B) Ranga Reddy
C) Orugallu
D) Sultanpur
Answer:
C) Orugallu

Question 41.
Most of the temples had become elaborate institutions, because
A) they employed hundreds of artisans.
B) they lend money on interest to traders.
C) they organised fairs and markets and celebrations.
D) all the above.
Answer:
D) all the above.

Question 42.
Who built a large reservoir just outside Delhi-i-kuhna?
A) lltutmish
B) Qutubuddin – Aibak
C) Deshpond
D) Balban
Answer:
A) lltutmish

Question 43.
The reason behind the construction of temples by kings.
A) Bhakti
B) To exhibit their wealth
C) To exhibit their power
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
In the early ninth century, the Pandyan king Shrimara Shrivallabha invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the king.
A) Sena -1
B) Sena – II
C) Sena – III
D) Sena – IV
Answer:
A) Sena -1

Question 45.
The period of Sena I
A) 999-1000
B) 831-851
C) 821-851
D) None
Answer:
B) 831-851

Question 46.
The chola king Rajendra – built a temple in his capital
A) Shiva
B) Vishnu
C) Brahma
D) None
Answer:
A) Shiva

Question 47.
By destroying temples – especially the one at Somnath tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam.
A) Mahmud Ghazni
B) Mahmud Ghori
C) Akbar
D) Babur
Answer:
A) Mahmud Ghazni

Question 48.
The Vijayanagara kings built large temples for Sri Virupaksha, Ramachandra, Krishna and Vitthala using a style that had been developed by emperors.
A) Chola
B) Pandya
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 49.
The Virupaksha temple was built over many centuries while inscriptions suggest that the earliest shrine dated to the ……….. century.
A) 9 – 10
B) 10 – 11
C) 11 – 12
D) 8 – 9
Answer:
A) 9 – 10

Question 50.
The buildings that were built for the secular works of the Vijayanagara kings.
A) Raja Mandiras
B) Grama Panchayats
C) Trade organisations
D) None
Answer:
A) Raja Mandiras

Question 51.
The Padma Mahal was built by
A) Sri KrishnadeVaraya
B) Devaraya – II
C) Virupaksharaya
D) Atchyutharaya
Answer:
A) Sri KrishnadeVaraya

Question 52.
The famous construction of the Vijayanagara kings.
A) Maha Mandap
B) Mahanavami Dibba
C) Maharaja Mandir
D) Raja Prasad
Answer:
B) Mahanavami Dibba

Question 53.
The Vijayanagara kings held their………….. on Mahanavami dibba.
A) Navarathri Puja
B) Dussehra Darbar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 54.
This Mughal empower or declared his interest on gardens.
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Babur

Question 55.
The other name of Mughal gardens.
A) Char Mahal
B) Charbagh
C) Panchbagh
D) None
Answer:
B) Charbagh

Question 56.
The constructions of Akbar are like these constructions.
A) Timur’s
B) Nadirshah’s
C) Iltutmish’s
D) Babur’s
Answer:
A) Timur’s

Question 57.
The Humayun tomb was placed in the centre of a huge formal chahar bagh and built in the tradition known as
A) Aridwar
B) Hasht bihisht
C) Nava bihisht
D) Nawadwar
Answer:
B) Hasht bihisht

Question 58.
Diwan-i-khas or diwan-i-aain was built by
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Shahjahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
C) Shahjahan

Question 59.
The pedestal on which their throne was placed was known as
A) Qubla
B) Qibla
C) Jeehad
D) Haz
Answer:
B) Qibla

Question 60.
Behind the balcony of the emperor’s throne, in Red Fort in Delhi, there were a series of
A) Pietra dura inlays
B) the legendary Greek god Orpheus playing the flute
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 61.
In the early years of his reign, Shahjahan’s capital was at Agra, a city where the nobility had constructed their homes on the banks of the river.
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Narmada
D) Sindhu
Answer:
B) Yamuna

Question 62.
The charbagh was described by the historians as
A) river-front garden
B) Mughal gardens
C) Navaneeth gardens
D) All the above
Answer:
A) river-front garden

Question 63.
The world famous Tajmahal was built by Shahjahan in the garden which is infront of this river.
A) Ganga
B) Sindh
C) Yamuna
D) Godavari
Answer:
C) Yamuna

Question 64.
The eldest son of Shahjahan
A) Dara Shukoh
B) Aurangazeb
C) Murad
D) Humayun
Answer:
A) Dara Shukoh

Question 65.
Quwaat al – Islam is in Delhi : : Brihadeeswara temple is at
A) Kanchi
B) Tanjore
C) Madurai
D) Rameswaram
Answer:
B) Tanjore

Question 66.
Qutubminar : Delhi : : Alai Darwaza at
A) Delhi
B) Agra
C) Kolkata
D) Bombay
Answer:
A) Delhi

Question 67.
This picture is

A) Tajmahal
B) Golden temple
C) Brihadeeswara temple
D) Qutub Minar
Answer:
B) Golden temple

Question 68.
Find the correct statement.
1. Qutub Minar construction was completed by Iltutmish.
2. Qutub Minar construction was completed by Qutubuddin Iraq.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 69.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
A. Qutub Minar
B. Kandariya Mahadev temple
C. Taj Mahal
D. Destruction of Somanath Temple
A) D, C, B, A
B) B, D, A, C
C) A, B, C, D
D) C, B, A, D
Answer:
B) B, D, A, C

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Devotional Paths to the Divine on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Devotional Paths to the Divine with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
According to Ramanuja, the best way, to attain salvation through intensive devotion of
A) Siva
B) Shakti
C) Vishnu
D) Brahma
Answer:
C) Vishnu

Question 2.
Who propounded the doctrine of Visishtadvaita?
A) Kabir
B) Guru Nanak
C) Ramanuja
D) Tukaram
Answer:
C) Ramanuja

Question 3.
Virashaiva movement was initiated by
A) Allama Prabhu
B) Akkamahadevi
C) Basavanna
D) Bijjala
Answer:
C) Basavanna

Question 4.
Virashaiva movement began in …..
A) Karnataka
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Tamilnadu
D) Kerala
Answer:
A) Karnataka

Question 5.
Virashaiva movement began in ….
A) 13th century
B) 12th Century
C) 11th Century
D) 10th Century
Answer:
B) 12th Century

Question 6.
The Saints Jnaneshwar, Eknath, Tukaram, and Sakkubai belonged to the state, of ……………
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Tamilnadu
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 7.
The saints belonged to the untouchable Mahar caste of Maharashtra.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Tukaram
C) Sakkubai
D) Chokhamela
Answer:
D) Chokhamela

Question 8.
Maharashtra tradition of bhakti focused on the God …………
A) Siva
B) Sakthi
C) Vitthala
D) Tryambakeshwar
Answer:
C) Vitthala

Question 9.
Vitthala is an incarnation of
A) Siva
B) Subrahmanya Swami
C) Vishnu
D) Brahma
Answer:
C) Vishnu

Question 10.
Vitthala temple is in …………
A) Shirdi
B) Amaravathi
C) Pandharpur
D) Tryambakeswar
Answer:
C) Pandharpur

Question 11.
Narsi Mehta was a ……….. saint.
A) Marathi
B) Telugu
C) Kannada
D) Gujarathi
Answer:
D) Gujarathi

Question 12.
Who said, “Vaishnavas are those who understand the pain of others”?
A) Ramanuja
B) Namdev
C) Narsi Mehta
D) jnaneshwar
Answer:
C) Narsi Mehta

Question 13.
Who advocated the renunciation of the world?
A) Saints of Maharashtra
B) Kabir
C) Siddhacharas and Nathpanthis
D) Ramanuja
Answer:
C) Siddhacharas and Nathpanthis

Question 14.
Islam propagated
A) monotheism
B) Polytheism
C) Idol worship
D) Outward religiosity
Answer:
A) monotheism

Question 15.
The holy law developed by Muslim scholars was
A) Zikr
B) Shariat
C) Tariqa
D) Raqs
Answer:
B) Shariat

Question 16.
Ghazzali, Rumi and Sadi were Sufi saints of
A) Central India
B) Central Asia
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Central Asia

Question 17.
‘Zikr’ means
A) Contemplation
B) Singing
C) Dancing
D) Chanting of a name
Answer:
D) Chanting of a name

Question 18.
A genealogy of Sufi teachers is called
A) Silsila
B) Tariqa
C) Panthi
D) Khanqah
Answer:
A) Silsila

Question 19.
Which Of the following matching is wrong? Write the correct answer.
Matchings
(A) (B)
A) ‘Khwaja Moinuddin – Ajmer
B) Qutbuddin Bhakhtiar Kaki – Delhi
C) Baba Farid – Allahabad
D) Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya – Delhi
E) Bandanawaz Gisudaraz – Gulbarga
Answer:
C) Baba Farid – Allahabad

Question 20.
The tomb of a Sufisaint is called
A) Khanqah
B) Dargah
C) Silsila
D) Shariat
Answer:
B) Dargah

Question 21.
Pothana was a
A) priest
B) peasant
C) teacher
D) farm labour
Answer:
B) peasant

Question 22.
Mahabhagavatham in Telugu was written by
A) Pothana
B) Nannayya
C) Tikkana
D) Errana
Answer:
A) Pothana

Question 23.
………….. was called a Sahaja Kavi.
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Pothana
D) Shankaradeva
Answer:
C) Pothana

Question 24.
‘Ramacharithamanas’ was composed by
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Pothana
D) Shankaradeva
Answer:
B) Tulasidas

Question 25.
Mirabai was a …………. princess.
A) Mughal
B) Rajput
C) Maratha
D) Ahmednagar
Answer:
B) Rajput

Question 26.
Gurugranth Sahib was written by
A) Surdas
B) Tulasidas
C) Kabir
D) Nanak
Answer:
C) Kabir

Question 27.
Mirabai was a disciple of
A) Dadu Dayal
B) Ravidas
C) Chokhamela
D) Surdas
Answer:
B) Ravidas

Question 28.
Mirabai was a devotee of
A) Rama
B) Krishna
C) Siva
D) Shakti
Answer:
B) Krishna

Question 29.
Kabir was a
A) Tailor
B) Weaver
C) Potter
D) Blacksmith
Answer:
B) Weaver

Question 30.
Kabir lived in the city of
A) Allahabad
B) Varanasi
C) Madhura
D) Agra
Answer:
B) Varanasi

Question 31.
The vast collection of verses are called
A) Dohas
B) Sakhis or pads
C) Slokas
D) Chantings
Answer:
B) Sakhis or pads

Question 32.
‘Bijak’ was written by
A) Tulasidas
B) Surdas
C) Kabir
D) Nanak
Answer:
C) Kabir

Question 33.
Panchvani was written by
A) Kabir
B) Guru Nanak
C) Ravidas
D) Dadu Dayal
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 34.
Guru Nanak was born at
A) Amritsar
B) Patiala
C) Talwandi
D) Ludhiana
Answer:
C) Talwandi

Question 35.
Where did Nanak establish a center?
A) at Talwandi
B) at Kartarpur
C) at Amritsar
D) at Dharmasala
Answer:
B) at Kartarpur

Question 36.
The sacred space, ‘where people of all creed, caste or gender ate together created by Nanak was called
A) Pavitrasthal
B) Langar
C) Dharmsal
D) Karmasala
Answer:
C) Dharmsal

Question 37.
Yogi Vemana lived in the
A) 16th Century
B) 17th Century
C) 18th Century
D) 15th Century
Answer:
B) 17th Century

Question 38.
Sankaracharya took his birth in this state.
A) Karnataka
B) Kerala
C) Tamilnadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 39.
Who taught ‘Advaita’ principle?
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Vallabhacharya
Answer:
A) Sankaracharya

Question 40.
He who taught that Brahman, the only or Ultimate Reality, was formless and without any attributes was
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Vallabhacharya
D) None
Answer:
A) Sankaracharya

Question 41.
Ramanuja, born in South India in the eleventh century, was deeply influenced by the
A) Nayanars
B) Alvars
C) Saivas
D) Veerasaivas
Answer:
B) Alvars

Question 42.
According to him, the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu.
A) Sankaracharya
B) Madhwacharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Vallabhacharya
Answer:
C) Ramanujacharya

Question 43.
………… ensured a place for people of lower castes in temple worship.
A) Ramanujacharya
B) Nimbarka
C) Ramananda
D) None
Answer:
A) Ramanujacharya

Question 44.
He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita.
A) Nimbarka
B) Kabir
C) Ramananda
D) Ramanujacharya
Answer:
D) Ramanujacharya

Question 45.
………… ‘s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti.
A) Kabir
B) Gurunanak
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Sankaracharya
Answer:
C) Ramanujacharya

Question 46.
…………. was a notable proponent for the Vaishnava school of Bhakti yoga.
A) Chaitanya
B) Boppana
C) Somanatha
D) Nimbarka
Answer:
A) Chaitanya

Question 47.
Dasarathi Shatakamu, a collection of nearly …………. poems.
A) 116
B) 108
C) 128
D) 150
Answer:
B) 108

Question 48.
Dasarathi Shatakamu was written by.
A) Ramadasu
B) Potanna
C) Nannaya
D) Tikanna
Answer:
A) Ramadasu

Question 49.
The popular saint poets in Maharashtra.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Namdev
C) Eknath, Tukaram
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 50.
The main God in the temple of Pandharipur.
A) Siva
B) Vishnu
C) Durga
D) Bhavani
Answer:
B) Vishnu

Question 51.
This saint – poets rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth.
A) Jnaneshwar, Tukaram
B) Namdev, Eknath
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 52.
Her songs openly challenged the norms of upper castes.
A) Jnaneshwar
B) Tukaram
C) Anamacharya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
D) Mirabai

Question 53.
Who started criticizing the rituals and other aspects of conventional religion and social order using simple, logical arguments?
A) Nathpanthis
B) Siddhacharas
C) Yogis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
They advocated renunciation of the world. To them, the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realization of oneness with it. To achieve this, they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises and
meditation.
A) Nathpanthis
B) Siddhacharas
C) Yogis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 55.
Who emphasized love and devotion to God and compassion towards all fellow human beings?
A) Sufi Sanyasis
B) Yogis
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
………….. drew his followers from among both Hindus and Muslims.
A) Annamacharya
B) Kabir
C) Gurunanak
D) None
Answer:
B) Kabir

Question 57.
The terms nam, dan and isnan for the essence of his teachings were used by
A) Annamacharya
B) Kabir
C) Potana
D) Gurunanak
Answer:
D) Gurunanak

Question 58.
A large number of Sufis from Central Asia settled in from the 11 century onwards.
A) Pakistan
B) Afghanisthan
C) Hindustan
D) Turkmenisthan
Answer:
C) Hindustan

Question 59.
Identify the mismatches from the below.
1) Ajmer – Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
2) Delhi – Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
3) Punjab – Baba Farid
4) Gulbarga – Bandanawaz Gesudaraz.
A) Both 1 & 2
B) Both 2 & 3
C) Both 1 & 3
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 60.
Who accepted existing beliefs and
practices but wanted to make them accessible to all?
A) Bammera Potana
B) Annamacharya
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 61.
Who translated the Mahabha- gavatamu into Telugu?
A) Tikkana
B) Nannaya
C) Errana
D) Potana
Answer:
D) Potana

Question 62.
This vaggeyakara and pada kavita pitamaha was belonged to Andhra Pradesh
A) Bammera Potana
B) Thallapaka Annamacharya
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Srinatha
Answer:
B) Thallapaka Annamacharya

Question 63.
In ‘Annamacharya Charitramu’, it is said that Annamayya composed a thousand Keertanas on Lord Venkateswara.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 36
Answer:
B) 32

Question 64.
This was the first who opposed social evils like ‘Untouchability’.
A) Annamayya
B) Potana
C) Tikkana
D) Nannaya
Answer:
A) Annamayya

Question 65.
Who wrote ‘Brahmam Okkate, Parabrahmam Okkate’ song
A) Potana
B) Nannaya
C) Tikkana
D) Annamayya
Answer:
D) Annamayya

Question 66.
This Vaishnava Sadhu belonged to the Eastern India
A) Kancherla Gopanna
B) Bammera Potana
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Tikkana
Answer:
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Question 67.
This person belonged to the 17th century, and popularly known as Bhakta Ramadasu
A) Kancherla Gopanna
B) Bommera Pothana
C) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
D) Tikkana
Answer:
A) Kancherla Gopanna

Question 68.
This person wrote ‘the Dasarathi Shatakamu’ with 108 poems and dedicated to Sri Rama.
A) Potana
B) Gopanna
C) Tikkana
D) Nannaya
Answer:
B) Gopanna

Question 69.
…………… conceived of God in the form of Rama.
A) Tulsidas
B) Ramdas
C) Gopaldas
D) Krishnadas
Answer:
A) Tulsidas

Question 70.
Who wrote ‘Ramcharitmanas’?
A) Tulsidas
B) Sankaracharya
C) Ramanujacharya
D) Madhwacharya
Answer:
A) Tulsidas

Question 71.
This person emphasized on devotion to Vishnu and composed poems and plays in Assamese.
A) Vishnudeva
B) Shankaradeva
C) Bhavani
D) Tarabhai
Answer:
B) Shankaradeva

Question 72.
……….. was a Rajput princess married into the royal family of Mewar in the sixteenth century.
A) Mirabai
B) Tarabai
C) Ahalyabai
D) Ramabai
Answer:
A) Mirabai

Question 73.
A unique feature of most of the saints is that their works were
A) composed in regional languages
B) could be sung
C) immensely popular
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 74.
………….. who probably lived in the 15, 16 centuries, was one of the most influential saints.
A) Kabir
B) Mirabai
C) Ramananda
D) Sankaracharya
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 75.
Some of Kabir’s ideas were collected and preserved in the
A) Guru Granth Sahib
B) PanchVani
C) Bijak
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 76.
…………… believed in a formless Supreme God.
A) Kabir
B) Nanak
C) Chaitanya
D) Tarabai
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 77.
Who preached that the only path to salvation was through bhakti or devotion?
A) Nanak
B) Kabir
C) Chaitanya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
B) Kabir

Question 78.
This person was born in Talwandi village in Pakistan.
A) Nanak
B) Kabir
C) Chaitanya
D) Mirabai
Answer:
A) Nanak

Question 79.
The sacred space created by Guru Nanak was known as
A) Vijayapuri
B) Dharmsal
C) Viharayatra
D) Pradayini
Answer:
B) Dharmsal

Question 80.
Guru Nanak insisted that his followers must be
A) householders
B) should adopt productive occupation
C) should adopt useful occupations
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 81.
He insisted that caste, creed or gender was irrelevant for attaining liberation.
A) Nanak
B) Tilak
C) Tukaram
D) Namdev
Answer:
A) Nanak

Question 82.
Guru Nanak teachings are now remembered as

A) nam-japna
B) kirt-karna
C) vand-chhakna
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 83.
The person in the picture is
A) Kabir
B) Gurunanak
C) Annamayya
D) Ramadasu
Answer:
A) Kabir

Question 84.
Sankaracharya: Advaita:: Ramanuja Charya: …………
A) Bhakti
B) Vishishtadvaita
C) Veerashaiva
D) Vaishnava
Answer:
B) Vishishtadvaita

Question 85.
Nayanar : Shaiva : : Vaishnava : ………….
A) Alwars
B) Gurus
C) Mahars
D) Yogis
Answer:
A) Alwars

Question 86.
Annamacharya : Keertanas : : Chaitanya Maha Prabhu : …………….
A) Bhajanas
B) Poems
C) Novels
D) Stories
Answer:
A) Bhajanas

Question 87.
Find the correct statement.
1. Mahabharatam was written in Sanskrit by Vedavyasa.
2. Mahabhagavatam was written in Telugu by Potana.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 88.
The Sufis often rejected this ……….
A) Codes of behavior by religious scholars
B) The guidance of a master
C) Submission to one God
D) Compassion towards all fellow human beings
Answer:
A) Codes of behaviour by religious scholars

Question 89.
What is the core theme of the sankeerthana “brahmamokkate parabrah mamokkate….” written by Annamacharya?
A) Education of women
B) Eradication of poverty
C) Idol worship
D) Equality of all people related to
Answer:
D) Equality of all people related to

Question 90.
Zikr, raqs, silsila …………. these words are
A) VeeraSiva
B) Sufism
C) Path of nath Panthi
D) Sikhism
Answer:
B) Sufism

Question 91.
Shankaracharya was an advocate of
A) Dwaita
B) Adwaita
C) Visistadvaita
D) Sufism
Answer:
B) Adwaita

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Folk Religion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Folk Religion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………… is the most popular folk goddess of Andhra Pradesh.
A) Ganganamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Renuka
Answer:
B) Pochamma

Question 2.
The Goddess is believed to protect the cattle.
A) Maisamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Ganganamma
Answer:
A) Maisamma

Question 3.
……….. is worshipped as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Katta Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katta Maisamma

Question 4.
With whose blessings crops flourish?
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Somalamma
D) Katta Maisamma
Answer:
D) Katta Maisamma

Question 5.
Fishermen worship ………….. as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 6.
………….. is also called Polimeramma.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Maritemma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 7.
…………….. guards the boundaries of the village.
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 8.
People mainly pray to …………… to prevent epidemics like cholera.
A) Maisamma
B) Ganganamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 9.
……………… is the famons fair celebrated in Northern Andhra Pradesh.
A) Medaram Jathara
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara
C) Yellamma Jatara
D) Ammavari Jatara
Answer:
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara

Question 10.
The deity, who looks after agricultural lands, is
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 11.
The deity who protects the crops from dreadful diseases
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Yellamma
D) Gangamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 12.
…………. is sacrificed as an offering to Potharaju when the crop is harvested.
A) Cock
B) Goat
C) Buffalo
D) Sheep
Answer:
A) Cock

Question 13.
……………….. and ……………. are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities.
A) Potharaju and Pydithalli
B) Potharaju and Yellamma
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju
D) Potharaju and Beerappa
Answer:
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju

Question 14.
……………… fought for the grazing rights of the animal herders.
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Katama raju
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katama raju

Question 15.
………….. and …………….. laid down their lives in defense of the tribal people.
A) Yellamma and Pydithalli
B) Beerappa and Potharaju
C) Sammakka and Sarakka
D) Pochamma and Pydithalli
Answer:
C) Sammakka and Sarakka

Question 16.
This should be taken to please the Gods.
A) Bonalu
B) Plants
C) Birds
D) Animals
Answer:
A) Bonalu

Question 17.
The village deities particularly belong to these
A) castes
B) villages
C) families
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
Sirimanu Utsavam is celebrated during the month of
A) Sept. (or) Oct.
B) Dec. (or) Jan.
C) Jan. (or) Feb
D) Oct. (or) Nov.
Answer:
A) Sept. (or) Oct.

Question 19.
There is a temple in every village in Andhra Pradesh
A) Renukamma
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pochamma

Question 20.
Pochamma temple is almost near this tree
A) Marri
B) Maredu
C) Neredu
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

Question 21.
How do people worship Pochamma in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Through Pujari
B) Through Brahmin
C) Through customs and traditions of local people
D) Through Sanyasis
Answer:
C) Through customs and traditions of local people

Question 22.
“Mother, keep away all infectious diseases and evils from our family” – This is the prayer of Andhra Pradesh people to this goddess.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Poleramma
Answer:
A) Pochamma

Question 23.
……………. Utsavam is an important aspect in Sirimanu Utsavam.
A) Jatara
B) Tollela
C) Toranam
D) None
Answer:
B) Tollela

Question 24.
Among the cattle sheds, a niche is whitewashed and decorated with ’Kumkuma’ and called as ……………..
A) Pasuvula goodu
B) Gangamma goodu
C) Maisamma goodu
D) Yellamma goodu
Answer:
C) Maisamma goodu

Question 25.
In many places, ……………… is also worshipped as a goddess of water in the form of a small stone on the tank bund.
A) Pochamma
B) Katta-maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Katta-maisamma

Question 26.
Poor and Orphans are protected by this goddess
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 27.
She is a goddess who protects fishermen who go out into the sea.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Gangamma

Question 28.
This goddess is also called as Polimeramma, Mariaemma, Renuka, Mahankali, Jogamma, Somalamma and by other names.
A) Yellamma
B) Jogulamba
C) Gangamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
A) Yellamma

Question 29.
It is believed that she will ensure that the tank is full.
A) Jogulamba
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Maisamma
Answer:
D) Maisamma

Question 30.
The farmers of Andhra Prade&h believe that …………. looks after their agricultural land and crops and protects the crops from dreadful diseases, thieves and animals.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 31.
The farmers keep a small stone painted in white in a corner of their field and worshipped it as
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Beerappa
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 32.
They are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju
B) Sivudu, Parvathi
C) Sri Rama, Sita
D) Mallappa, Somasekhar
Answer:
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju

Question 33.
It is a general practice to offer in most of the folk festivals.
A) human sacrifice
B) animal sacrifice
C) eating neem flowers
D) wearing leaves of trees
Answer:
B) animal sacrifice

Question 34.
Many of the folk gods and goddesses were actually
A) local heroes
B) local kings
C) who died fighting in defence of their people
D) both A & C
Answer:
D) both A & C

Question 35.
Two folk heroines who laid down their lives in defence of the tribal people were
A) Sammakka, Sarakka
B) Achamamba, Lakkamamba
C) Tirupatamba, Gopaiah
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Sammakka, Sarakka

Question 36.
Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara was celebrated by the Girijans of this village
A) Sirisilla
B) Bhadrachalam
C) Medaram
D) Jupalli
Answer:
C) Medaram

Question 37.
Sirimanu Utsavam : Vijayanagaram :: Chengalamma Jatara: ………….
A) Sullurupet
B) Nellore
C) Renigunta
D) Tirupati
Answer:
A) Sullurupet

Question 38.
Siri means …………. and ………….
A) Stump and out
B) lean and small
C) stick and loose
D) None
Answer:
B) lean and small

Question 39.
Manu means ………….. and …………….
A) stump or stick
B) lean and small
C) big and small
D) None
Answer:
A) stump or stick

Question 40.
…………. is placed on Sirimanu during the celebration of the festival.
A) Srimanu
B) Pyditalli
C) Flowers
D) None
Answer:
B) Pyditalli

Question 41.
Srlmanu Utsavam is also known as ………… utsavam.
A) Gangamma
B) Poleramma
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pyditalli

Question 42.
This festival is celebrated on the death of the grandson of Prophet Mohammad.
A) Abdullah
B) Ramzan
C) Moharram
D) None
Answer:
C) Moharram

Question 43.
Anniversaries of Muslim saints, who lie buried in various parts of the state are celebrated.
A) Vardhanthotsavam
B) Urs Utsav
C) Flag Utsav
D) Flower Utsav
Answer:
B) Urs Utsav

Question 44.
This Utsavas stand good for religious tolerance.
A) Moharram, Urs
B) Ouliya Utsavas
C) Urdu Utsavas
D) Salim, Allah Utsavas
Answer:
A) Moharram, Urs

Question 45.
People believe that these masters have miraculous powers.
A) Shia
B) Sufi
C) Ouliya
D) Allah
Answer:
B) Sufi

Question 46.
The place where the Ameen Peer Dargah is located.
A) YSR Kadapa District
B) Siripur-Kagaj Nagar (Adilabad)
C) Bhadrachalam (Khammam)
D) Begumpeta (Ranga Reddy)
Answer:
A) YSR Kadapa District

Question 47.
Every year annual Urs celebrations are held for three days beginning on Thursday coming after this festival.
A) Diwali
B) Dussehra
C) Sankranthi
D) Ugadi
Answer:
C) Sankranthi

Question 48.
During Bonalu, women folk participate in the procession carrying on their heads.
A) Brass vessels
B) Ande
C) Bonam
D) Ghatam
Answer:
D) Ghatam

Question 49.
The worship of nagas, trees, yakshas and yakshinis even some years ago.
A) 2000
B) 2500
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2500

Question 50.
The written by Srinatha around 1450s mentions the worship of Potharaju.
A) Palnati Virula Katha
B) Rudra Vijayam
C) Rasa Ratnakaram
D) Gangadhara Vijayam
Answer:
A) Palnati Virula Katha

Question 51.
Vallabharaya’s Kridabhiramamu written around the same time describes in detail the worship of the ………..
A) Palnati Veeras
B) Mailara in Warangal
C) Many mother Goddesses in Warangal
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 52.
These farmers also participate in the prayers of folk Goddesses.
A) Jat
B) Muslim
C) Christian
D) Jewish
Answer:
B) Muslim

Question 53.
The high religious traditions too worship.
A) Peepul tree
B) Snakes
C) Mother goddesses
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
A very strong tradition of to darghas and urs developed in which people of all faiths participate.
A) Pilgrimages
B) Prayers
C) Urs
D) Philosophical thinking
Answer:
A) Pilgrimages

Question 55.
These poems of great wisdom were composed 300 years ago in Telugu.
A) Sumathi Satakam
B) Vemana Satakam
C) Kunalamma Patalu
D) Yenki geethalu
Answer:
B) Vemana Satakam

Question 56.
A) Hindu : Bhagavadgita:: Christian : ………..
A) Zend Avesta
B) Quran
C) Bible
D) Ramayana
Answer:
C) Bible

Question 57.
Find the correct statement.
1. Pocharnma is the most popular folk goddess of Adi
2. Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara is also called Medaram Jatara.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 58.
Gangamma : Fishermen : : KatamaRaju: …………..
A) Shepherd
B) Lawyers
C) Fanners
D) Agriculture
Answer:
A) Shepherd

Question 59.
This picture shows

A) Yellamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potha Raju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potha Raju

Question 60.
The belief behind conducting Bonalu
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature
B) To eat well
C) To clean tanks
D) To go foreign trips
Answer:
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature

Question 61.
The picture shows

A) Sammakka Jatara
B) Yellamma Jatara
C) Sirimanu Utsavam
D) Maisamma Jatara
Answer:
C) Sirimanu Utsavam

Question 62.
Rottela Panduga : Nellore : : Ameen- peer Dargah : …………
A) Guntur
B) Prakasam
C) Chittoor
D) YSR Kadapah
Answer:
D) YSR Kadapah

Question 63.
Amin peer Darga located in this district
A) SPSR Nellore
B) YSR Kadapa
C) Chittoor
D) Guntur
Answer:
B) YSR Kadapa

Practice the AP 0th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 2nd Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

CONCEPT – I Properties Of Acids and Bases

Question 1.
Indicators are used to detect the nature of the solution for
A) Acidity
B) Basicity
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 2.
……………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solutions
A) Sour
B) Bitter
C) Salty
D) Sweet
Answer:
A) Sour

Question 3.
Bases tend to taste …………….. and feel …………
A) sour, pleasant to touch
B) bitter, slippery to touch
C) sour, slippery to touch
D) None of these
Answer:
B) bitter, slippery to touch

Question 4.
Acids turn …………… litmus to ………………..litmus
A) red, red
B) blue, red
C) red, blue
D) blue, blue
Answer:
B) blue, red

Question 5.
Natural indicators are prepared from…..
i) plants
ii) petrochemicals
iii) living organisms
iv) minerals
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both i and iii
D) both ii and iv
Answer:
C) both i and iii

Question 6.
Natural indicators among these
i) litmus
ii) extract of red cabbage
iii) methyl orange
iv) turmeric
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iv
D) All
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Question 7.
The colour of turmeric in basic solutions is………
A) blue
B) red
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
B) red

Question 8.
Synthetic indicator among these
A) Methyl red
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Methyl orange
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 9.
Match the following.
a) hydrochloric acid — i) H₂SO₄
b) sulphuric acid — ii) CH₃COOH
c) nitric acid — iii) HCl
d) acetic acid — iv) HNO₃
A) a → i, b→ii, c →iii, d → iv
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii
C) a →i, b →iii, c →iv, d → ii
D) a → i, b → iv, c →iii, d → ii
Answer:
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii

Question 10.
As aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as
A) electrolytes
B) bad conductors
C) good conductors
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 11.
Acids turn methyl orange into ……………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
A) red

Question 12.
Bases turn methyl orange into …………………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
C) yellow

Question 13.
Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct …………, and are identified as ………………
A) heat, electrolytes
B) electricity, electrolytes
C) electricity, nonelectrolytes
D) heat, partial electrolytes
Answer:
B) electricity, electrolytes

Question 14.
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is ………………….
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

Question 15.
Match the following.
a) Sodium hydroxide — i) Ca(OH)₂
b) Calcium hydroxide — ii) NH₄OH
c) Magnesium hydroxide — iii) Mg(OH)₂
d) Ammonium hydroxide — iv) NaOH
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → i,b → iii,c → ii,d → iv
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii
D) a → iv,b → iii,c → ii,d → i
Answer:
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii

Question 16.
Olfactory indicators are those indicators whose …….. change in acidic or basic media.
A) colour
B) odour
C) state
D) taste
Answer:
B) odour

Question 17.
The following will act as olfactory indicator.
A) onion
B) vanilla essence
C) clove oil
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 18.
The gas released in this experiment is.,

A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) chlorine
D) carbon dioxide
Answer:
B) hydrogen

Question 19.
More reactive metals react with acids and liberate …………….. gas.
A) O₂
B) H₂
C) Cl₂
D) C0₂
Answer:
B) H₂

Question 20.
Complete the reaction
2NaOH + Zn → ………………… + ………………………
A) NaCZ, H₂
B) ZnO₂, NaH₂
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂
D) Na₂O, H₂O
Answer:
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂

Question 21.
Name the parts in the diagram.

A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube
B) 1 – Cork, 2 – stand
C) 1 – Test tube, 2 – boiling tube
D) 1 – Sodium carbonate,
2 – hydrochloric acid
Answer:
A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube

Question 22.
Active metals react with acids and form
A) salt, hydrogen
B) salt, water
C) salt, nitrogen
D) salt, oxygen
Answer:
A) salt, hydrogen

Question 23.
A solution reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution contains
A) NaCZ
B) HCZ
C) LiCZ
D) KCZ
Answer:
B) HCZ

Question 24.
What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) No gas is produced
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

Question 25.
Metal oxides are generally …………… in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 26.
Non metal oxides are generally……. in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
A) Acidic

Question 27.
Identify the odd one.
A) Glucose
B) Alcohol
C) Acetone
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

Question 28.
………… is common to all adds.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) H₃O⁺
C) OH^–
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 29.
…….. does not change colour of dry blue litmus.
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulphuric acid
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas

Question 30.
……. is common for all bases.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) OH^–_(aq)
C) H₃O⁺
D) OH⁺
Answer:
B) OH^–_(aq)

Question 31.
In water H⁺ ions exists as
A) H₃O⁺
B) hydroniumion
C) OH^–
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 32.
If a base dissolves in wafer by what name it is better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

Question 33.
The process of dissolving an acid or base in water is ………….. process.
A) endothermic
B) exothermic
C) isothermal
D) adiabatic
Answer:
B) exothermic

Question 34.
Mixing of an acid or base with water result in decrease in the concentration of H₃O⁺ /0H ^– per unit volume is called
A) hydration
B) dehydration
C) hydrolysis
D) dilution
Answer:
D) dilution

Question 35.
……………….. is slightly soluble in water
A) NaOH
B) KOH
C) Be(OH)₂
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Be(OH)₂

Question 36.
The nature of substance that converts blue litmus to red, but no change of colour with red litmus is
A) Base
B) Neutral
C) Acid
D) Can’t decide
Answer:
C) Acid

Question 37.
Phenolphthalein indicator gets pink colour with
A) HCl solution
B) NaOH solution
C) H₂ SO₄ solution
D) CH₃ COOH solution
Answer:
B) NaOH solution

Question 38.
HCl solution with Na₂ CO₃ and NaHCO₃ produces
A) H₂ gas
B) NaH (sodium hydride)
C) H₂ CO₃
D) CO₂ gas
Answer:
D) CO₂ gas

Question 39.
Which of the following solutions convert red litmus paper to blue
A) HCl
B) HNO₂
C) NaOH
D) None
Answer:
C) NaOH

Question 40.
Which of the following solutions give yellow colour with methyl orange indicator.
A) NaOH
B) CH₃ COOH
c) Ha
D) H₂ SO₄
Answer:
A) NaOH

Question 41.
The formula of sodium zincate is
A) 2NaZnO
B) Na₂ ZnO₂
C) NaZnO₂
D) NaZnO
Answer:
B) Na₂ ZnO₂

Question 42.
Olfactory indicator from the following is oaEaga
A) turmeric
B) onion
C) methyl orange
D) litmus paper
Answer:
B) onion

Question 43.
Pair of strong acid and strong base from the following is
A) HCl, NH₄
B) CH₃COOH, NH₄OH
C) CH₃COOH, NaOH
D) HCl, NaOH
Answer:
D) HCl, NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following produces more OH^– ions ?
A) HCl solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NH₄OH solution
D) NaOH solution
Answer:
D) NaOH solution

Question 45.
Which one of the following produces more number of H₃O<sup+ ions
A) HCZ solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NaOH solution
D) Mg(OH)₂ solution
Answer:
A) HCZ solution

Question 46.
Which of the following is a weak base?
A) KOH
B) NaOH
C) NH₄OH
D) None of these
Answer:
C) NH₄OH

Question 47.
When Zn is added to aqueous NaOH and on heating it forms
A) ZnO
B) Na₂ZnO₂
C) O₂
D) Na₂O
Answer:
B) Na₂ZnO₂

Question 48.
Which one of the following is an acid?
A) NaCZ
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) HNO₃
D) NaNO₃
Answer:
C) HNO₃

Question 49.
Which of the following indicators gives red colour-in acid solution ?
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Bromothymol blue
Answer:
A) Methyl orange

Question 50.
Which of the following is a mineral acid?
A) Oxalic add
B) Citric acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Phosphoric acid
Answer:
D) Phosphoric acid

Question 51.
A student added dil. HCZ to a test tube containing zinc granules and made the following observations.
i) The zinc surface becomes dull and black
ii) The gas evolved is burnt with a pop sound
iii) The solution remains colourless The correct observations are
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
D) i, ii and iii

Question 52.
A student added few drops of universal indicator to a given colourless sample and observed the sample turning to red. The nature of sample is
A) neutral’solution
B) acid
C) base
D) either acid or base
Answer:
B) acid

CONCEPT – II Neutralization Reactions

Question 53.
When metal carbonate reacts with acid the products foiled are
A) salt
B) water
C) carbon dioxide
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 54.
Lime water turns into milky white due to the formation of
i) CaO
ii) Ca(OH)₂
iii) CaCO₃
iv) Ca(HCO₃)₂
A) only i
B) only ii
C) only iii
D) both ii and iii
Answer:
C) only iii

Question 55.
Statement I : When carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into milky.
Statement II : When excess of carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into colourless.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and statement II is false
C) Statement I is false statement II is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 56.
The colourless solution formed when excess of CO₂ is passed through slaked lime is
A) CaO
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) CaCO₃
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂

Question 57.
When acid reacts with base it forms salt and water then the reaction is called
A) Hydrolysis
B) Esterification
C) Neutralization
D) Dehydration
Answer:
C) Neutralization

Question 58.
Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid – base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base »neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

Question 59.
Whichofthefollowingsubstanceswhen mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

Question 60.
Base reacts with…………….. to produce salt and
A) base, water
B) acid, water
C) salt,water
D) base, salt
Answer:
B) acid, water

Question 61.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating irritation in stomach ?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

Question 62.
The following are neutralization reactions.
i) Acid reacts with base to form salt and water
ii) Acid reacts with metal oxide to form salt and water
iii) Base reacts with non-metal oxide to form salt and water.
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 63.
Antacids are
A) strong acids
B) weak acids
C) strong bases
D) weak bases
Answer:
D) weak bases

Question 64.
The chemical name of milk of magnesia is…….
A) calcium hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) potassium hydroxide
D) magnesium carbonate
Answer:
B) magnesium hydroxide

Question 65.
Family of chloride salts are
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) MgCl₂
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 66.
Milk of magnesia is
A) MgO
B) Mg(OH)₂
C) MgCl₂
D) Mg(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
B) Mg(OH)₂

Question 67.
The pH of milk of magnesia is
A) 7 – 8
B) 6 – 7
C) 10 – 11
D) 4 – 5
Answer:
A) 7 – 8

Question 68.
HCl + H₂O → X⁺ + Cl^– Then X may be
A) H₃O⁺
B) OH^–
C) HOCl
D) H₂O⁺
Answer:
A) H₃O⁺

Question 69.
Which of the following bases is used in antacids ?
A) Ca(OH)₂
B) NaOH
C) Mg(OH)₂
D) NH₄OH
Answer:
C) Mg(OH)₂

Question 70.
…………….. is used for treating indigestion.
A) Antibiotic
B) Analgesic
C) Antacid
D) Antiseptic
Answer:
C) Antacid

Question 71.
Antacids are used
A) to produce acid in the stomach
B) to produce water in the stomach
C) to neutralise the excess base in the Stomach
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach
Answer:
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach

CONCEPT – III : pH and Its Applications

Question 72.
…………… can be used to know the strength of acid or base
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Universal indicators
Answer:
D) Universal indicators

Question 73.
The ‘p’ in pH stands for
A) potential
B) pressure
C) momentum
D) potenz
Answer:
D) potenz

Question 74.
Match the following.
a) acids — i) pH < 7 b) bases — ii) pH = 7 c) neutral — iii) pH > 7
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii
B) a → i, b →ii, c → iii
C) a → iii, b → ii, c → i
D) a → ii, b →i, c → iii
Answer:
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii

Question 75.
Match the following.
a) acid rain — i) pH below 5.5
b) tooth decay — ii) Milkof magnesia
c) antacid — iii) pH below 5.6
d) bee sting — iv) Methanoic acid
A) a → ii, b →i, c →iii, d → iv
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv
C) a →i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
D) a → i, b →iii, c →ii, d → iv
Answer:
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv

Question 76.
If the soil is acidic it is treated with……
A) Calcium hydroxide
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Acetic acid
D) A or B
Answer:
D) A or B

Question 77.
If the pH of a solution is 13.8 then it is
A) weak acid
B) weak base
C) strong acid
D) strong base
Answer:
D) strong base

Question 78.
Salt formed from a weak acid and strong base pH value is ……………..
A) < 7 B) > 7
C) 7
D) ≤ 7
Answer:
B) > 7

Question 79.
pH scale is introduced by
A) Sorensen
B) Mosley
C) Schrodinger
D) C.V. Raman
Answer:
A) Sorensen

Question 80.
A solution turned pink when a drop of phenolphthalein was added to it. The probable pH .of that solution is
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 81.
Which of the following solutions has pH greater than 7 ?
A) CH₃COOH
B) NH₄Cl
C) NaCl
D) CH₃COONa
Answer:
D) CH₃COONa

Question 82.
Dissociation of ions in aqueous acetic acid is reversible process because it is a
A) weak acid
B) strong, acid
C) weak base
D) strong base
Answer:
A) weak acid

Question 83.
Tooth decay start when the pH value of mouth is
A) 5.4
B) 5.6
C) 5.7
D) 5.8
Answer:
A) 5.4

Question 84.
If a solution turns blue litmus to red then its pH is likely to be
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Answer:
A) 5

Question 85.
Metal oxide + Acid → ……………..
A) salt + metal
B) salt + water
C) base + water
D) Non metallic oxide + base
Answer:
B) salt + water

CONCEPT – IV: Sortie Common Chemicals

Question 86.
The example for salt having acidic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
C) NH₄Cl

Question 87.
The example for salt having basic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
D) CH₃COONA

Question 88.
Brine solution among these is ……………….
A) NaCl(_aq )
B) KCl(_aq)
C) NH₄Cl(_aq )
D) MgCl₂(_aq )
Answer:
A) NaCl(_aq )

Question 89.
The products formed in chlor-alkali process are
i) H₂
ii) Cl₂
iii) NaOH
iv) Na₂CO₃
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 90.
The gases released at cathode and anode during chlor-alkali process
A) H₂/Cl₂
B) Cl₂,H₂
C) H₂, O₂
D) O₂, H₂
Answer:
A) H₂/Cl₂

Question 91.
Match the following
a) Bleaching powder i) NaHCO₃
b) Baking soda ii) CaOCl₂
c) Washing soda iii) HCOOH
d) Formic acid iv) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii
C) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
D) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
Answer:
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii

Question 92.
……………. is used for disinfecting prinking water to make it free from germs.
A) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
B) NaHCO₃
C) CaOCl₂
D) Mg(OH)₂
Answer:
C) CaOCl₂

Question 93.
Baking powder is mixture of…………….and …………….
A) Baking soda, citric acid
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid
C) Washing soda, tartaric acid
D) Washing soda, citric acid
Answer:
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid

Question 94.
……………. is used in soda – acid extinguishers
i) Baking soda
ii) NaHCO₃
iii) CaOCl₂
iv) H₂SO₄
A) only i
B) Both i and ii
C) only iii
D) Both iii and iv
Answer:
B) Both i and ii

Question 95.
Washing soda is……………salt.
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Neutral
D) Amphoteric
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 96.
The water of crystallisation of hydrous copper sulphate is
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 5

Question 97.
The colour of hydrous copper sulphate is …………………
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
C) blue

Question 98.
The colour of anhydrous copper sulphate is. …………..
A) white
B) blue
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
A) white

Question 99.
Match the following. .
a) Gypsum — i) CuSO₄. 5H₂O
b) Plaster of pans — ii) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
c) Hydrous copper sulphate — iii) CaSO₄[latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]H₂O
d) Anhydrous copper sulphate — iv) CuSO₄
A) a → i, b →ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv
D) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv

Question 100.
Which of the following is an antiseptic
A) Na₂CO₃
B) NaHCO₃
C) NaCl
D) Na₂SO₄
Answer:
B) NaHCO₃

Question 101.
Match the following.
i) Milk of magnesia — CaOCl₂
ii) Gypsum — Mg(OH)₂
iii) Bleaching powder — Na₂CO₃
iv) Washing soda — CaSO₄. 2H₂O
A) i → a, ii → c, iii → d, iv → b
B) i → d, ii → b, iii → a,iv → c
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c
C) i → b, ii → d, iii → a, iv → c
Answer:
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c

Question 102.
Which of the following salt solutions are basic in nature
A) NaiCl
B) NH₄Cl
C) Na₂CO₃
D) KCl
Answer:
C) Na₂CO₃

Question 103.
Which of the following compound is used in glass, paper and soap industry?
A) Washing soda
B) Baking soda
C) Calcium hydroxide
D) Plaster of pads
Answer:
A) Washing soda

Question 104.
The formula of gypsum is
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O
B) CaSO₄,3H₂O
C) CaOCl₂
D) CaSO₄.[latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]H₂O
Answer:
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O

Question 105.
The chemical formula of plaster of pans is
A) CuSO₄.5H₂O
B) CuSO₄.H₂O
C) CUSO₄.[latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]H₂O
D) CaSO₄. [latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]H₂O
Answer:
D) CaSO₄. [latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]H₂O

Question 106.
The difference of the water molecules between gypsum and plaster of paris is
A) [latex]\frac { 3 }{ 2 }[/latex]
B) [latex]\frac { 1 }{ 2 }[/latex]
C) 2
D) [latex]\frac { 5 }{ 2 }[/latex]
Answer:
A) [latex]\frac { 3 }{ 2 }[/latex]

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Ever since the Industrial Revolution, workers have been fighting for
A) a dignified life
B) share of their produce
C) several kinds of securities and rights
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Which department is concerned with the rights and securities of the workers?
A) Welfare Department
B) Labour Department
C) Department of Industry
D) Department of Employment
Answer:
B) Labour Department

Question 3.
The workers who enjoy rights and se¬curities are called ………..
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract labour
Answer:
C) Regular workers

Question 4.
The workers who do not have any securities and rights are
A) Casual workers
B) Badli workers
C) Contract labour
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
The workers who replace permanent workers in case of their absence are called
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract workers
Answer:
A) Badli workers

Question 6.
Most of the benefits are available to the ………… workers.
A) badli workers
B) permanent workers
C) casual labour
D) contract workers
Answer:
B) permanent workers

Question 7.
How long does a worker in a brick kiln work per day?
A) 10 hours a day
B) 8 hours a day
C) 12 hours a day
D) 14 to 16 hours a day
Answer:
D) 14 to 16 hours a day

Question 8.
How much money is paid to the worker of brick kiln per 1000 bricks?
A) Rs. 1000
B) Rs. 1500
C) Rs. 108
D) Rs. 1080
Answer:
C) Rs. 108

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belong to the informal sector?
A) selling vegetables
B) working in tea stalls
C) working as regular labour in factories
D) making bidis
Answer:
C) working as regular labour in factories

Question 10.
In the sector, in which workers are not registered as employees, there is no agreement and no protection of law or rules and regulations is called
……….. sector.
A) Formal
B) Organised
C) Informal
D) Small scale
Answer:
C) Informal

Question 11.
Which of the following may be called as bonded labourers’?
A) Permanent workers in a factory
B) Contract labourers in a factory
C) Workers who work in brick kilns
D) Casual labourers in factories
Answer:
C) Workers who work in brick kilns

Question 12.
………. are also made to protect the welfare of workers employed in fields, factories, private and government offices.
A) Laws
B) Reforms
C) Changes
D) Uses
Answer:
A) Laws

Question 13.
The department which makes laws for labour
A) Labour Department
B) Welfare Department
C) Social Welfare Department
D) Home Department
Answer:
A) Labour Department

Question 14.
The heavy industry Fibrotex was established in
A) 1974
B) 1976
C) 1980
D) 1984
Answer:
B) 1976

Question 15.
The facilities are achieved by the Trade Unions.
A) Medical tests in big hospital & leaves for treatment
B) Safety measures at the workplace
C) Protected water and transport facilities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main function of Tras Union.
A) labour welfare
B) state welfare
C) country welfare
D) all the above
Answer:
A) labour welfare

Question 17.
Many owners will not give permission to form Trade Unions – The reason is
A) more wages to be paid.
B) they may demand working hours, proper wages to work.
C) they have to provide bonuses and health insurance.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
The problem faced by labour even today.
A) the workers are taken too far off places.
B) the workers have to go to the regions of different languages and hard work throughout the day and night.
C) continuous work for months together with family members.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Workers work according to their skill and efficiency in conditions where there is no harm to their health
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
A) Right to productive and safe employment

Question 20.
The workers have time to rest from their tiring work and also have time to attend to other cultural and social interests.
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
B) Right to leisure and rest

Question 21.
The workers can improve their skills and capabilities while at work.
A) Collective voice
B) Work security
C) Skill improvement
D) Income security
Answer:
C) Skill improvement

Question 22.
Daily wage workers work mostly in this sector.
A) Formal sector
B) Informal sector
C) Industrial sector
D) None
Answer:
B) Informal sector

Question 23.
This belongs to the informal sector.
A) Making of Bidis, Papads
B) Embroidery work
C) Making of Agarbattis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
This cannot get employment as permanent workers like in factories and offices
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
There are ho trade unions for this kind of workers rights.
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
Some trade unionists of …………… formed what is considered the largest trade union of the informal workers in the world.
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Telangana
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Question 27.
Mahatma Gandhi worked with this trade union
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
B) Bombay Handloom Workers Association
C) Kanchi Handloom Workers Association
D) Chirala-Perala Handloom Workers Association
Answer:
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association

Question 28.
SEWA was formed with the help of TLA in
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1973
Answer:
B) 1971

Question 29.
SEWA became a trade union in
A) 1971
B) 1970
C) 1972
D) 1969
Answer:
C) 1972

Question 30.
SEWA means
A) Self Employed Women’s Association
B) Self Employment Women Association
C) Soldier Employment Women Association
D) Self Employment Widow Association
Answer:
A) Self Employed Women’s Association

Question 31.
As women are employs
A) can solve their problems
B) can improve their work culture
C) can stand economically
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 32.
The members of SEWA were
A) Handloom workers
B) Old/new cloth sellers
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
At present SEWA is in existence in nine states, then the members in it are ………… lakhs.
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 16
Answer:
B) 13

Question 34.
The workers enjoy rights and securities like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory.
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Contract labour
D) Regular workers
Answer:
D) Regular workers

Question 35.
The work comes under

A) Underemployment
B) Disguised unemployment
C) Self-employment
D) Seasonal employment
Answer:
C) Self-employment

Question 36.
Industrial Revolution first started in this country
A) the U.S.A
B) England
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
B) England

Question 37.
TLA abbreviation
A) Textile Labour Association
B) Textile law Amendment
C) Three-letter abbreviation
D) Three letter Acronym
Answer:
A) Textile Labour Association

Question 38.
SEWA : 1971:: MNREGA :
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer:
D) 2005

Question 39.
This type of worker get benefits like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory
i) Regular worker
ii) Temporary workers
iii) Casual workers
A) i only
B) i and ii only
C) i, ii and iii
D) iii only
Answer:
A) i only

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The chairperson of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
A) Dr.Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Sardar Vallabai Patel
D) Sucheta Krupalani
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
The first Union Law minister was
A) Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawahar Lai Nehru
C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

Question 3.
‘Joothan’ is one autobiography of
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jyothiba Phule
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 4.
The four major caste groups, Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vysya and Sudra emerged in the times of
A) Vedas
B) Indus valley civilisation
C) Guptas
D) Mauryas
Answer:
A) Vedas

Question 5.
Mahatma Jyothiba Phule was a social reformer of ……..
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Gujarat
Answer:
A) Maharashtra

Question 6.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded by:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Narayana Guru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Periyar
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 7.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded in:
A) 1875
B) 1873
C) 1874
D) 1871
Answer:
B) 1873

Question 8.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened at:
A) Bombay
B) Calcutta
C) Pune
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Pune

Question 9.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened by
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Savitri Bai Phule
C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 10.
Who was the first headmistress of the country’s first school for girls?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Jyothi Bai Phule
C) Nirmala Bai
D) Sarojini Bai
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 11.
Narayana Guru was born in
A) Tamilnadu
B) Kerala
C) Maharashtra
D) West Bengal
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 12.
Who preached ‘one God, one Caste, one religion for all people?
A) Periyar
B) Jyothirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayana Guru
D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
C) Narayana Guru

Question 13.
The first social and religious movement in India was:
A) Buddhism
B) Jainism
C) Hinduism
D) Judaism
Answer:
A) Buddhism

Question 14.
……….. was the first state to start a mid-day meal program.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 15.
In ……… the Supreme Court asked all the state governments to start ‘Mid-day Meal’ program in their schools.
A) 2000
B) 2001
C) 2002
D) 2004
Answer:
B) 2001

Question 16.
Many people follow the caste rules only within their own caste.
A) marry
B) occupy
C) employ
D) traditions and customs
Answer:
A) marry

Question 17.
Caste system
A) creates a relation between some classes of people
B) separates some classes of people
C) caste discrimination increases in society
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
These works are treated as low
A) washing clothes
B) barbering
C) removing garbage
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Facing discrimination means
A) no permission to education
B) no right to do work as per their willing
C) no entry into school and houses of the rich
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 20.
This famous Indian leader faced caste discrimination at nine years of age in 1901.
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Abdul Kalam
C) Narendranath Dutt
D) Babu Jagajjevanram
Answer:
A) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 21.
The famous Dalit writer
A) Somasekhar
B) Prakash Badal
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Siddhendra Yogi
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 22.
The no. of Varnas in Vedas
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 23.
The philosophers who visioned some as great by birth
A) Buddha
B) Mahavira, Ramanuja
C) Basava, Kabir, Vemana
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
In 19, 20 centuries many social reformers tried to frame a new society based on these.
A) freedom, equality
B) fraternity, respect to individual
C) economical justice
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 25.
In 19, 20 centuries these reformers tried to create a new social system based on freedom, equality, etc.
A) Jfyotirao Govindarao Phule
B) SavitriBai Phule, Periyar E.V. Rama-Sami Naickar
C) Sri Narayana Guru, Ayyankali
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The government adopted to attain equality
A) Making and executing laws
B) Hardworking for the upliftment of suppressed through
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
The Mid Day Meals Scheme was first introduced in this state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 28.
The Mid Day Meals is maintained by ………. in all the village schools in Andhra Pradesh
A) Women SHGs
B) Children SHGs
C) Old people SHGs
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Women SHGs

Question 29.
“One caste, One Religion, One God for all men” who said these
A) J.V Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 30.
The first state to introduce a mid-day meal scheme in our country.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Maharashtra
D) Gujarat
Answer:
B) Tamil Nadu

Question 31.
The person in the picture is

A) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 32.
Which institution asked all the state governments to introduce mid – day meal scheme
A) Parliament
B) Planning Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) Food Commission
Answer:
C) Supreme Court

Question 33.
An appreciating work of Ramasami
A) He made people realize that all are equal
B) He preached that enjoying liberty and equality are birthrights of everyone
C) Developed rationalist ideas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
Om Prakash Valmiki: Joothan:: Satya Sodhak Samaj: ………….
A) Ambedkar
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayan
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

Question 35.
Find the correct statement.
1. Savithri Bhai Phule was the first headmistress.
2. Narayana Guru preached brotherhood.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 36.
Match the following :
A B
1. Ambedkar [ ] A) First Union Law Minister
2. Om Prakash [ ] B) Rationalist Leader
3. Periyar [ ] C) Dalit Writer
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
Answer:
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B

Question 37.
This is not related to Ambedkar
A) First law Minister
B) Drafting Committee Chairman of Indian Constitution
C) He was born in Maharashtra
D) First Prime Minister of India
Answer:
D) First Prime Minister of India

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 17 Implementation of Laws in the District on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 17th Lesson Implementation of Laws in the District with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The capital of Andhra Pradesh is
A) Vijayawada
B) Amaravathi
C) Tirupathi
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
B) Amaravathi

Question 2.
How many districts are there in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 10
B) 23
C) 13
D) 22
Answer:
C) 13

Question 3.
Who coordinates the work of all departments in the district?
A) District Collector
B) Superintendent of police
C) Joint Collector
D) District Panchayat Officer
Answer:
A) District Collector

Question 4.
Who is called the District Magistrate?
A) Judge of the District Sessions Court
B) Judge of the District Civil court
C) Superintendent of Police
D) District Collector
Answer:
D) District Collector

Question 5.
Who conducts the meetings with the heads of all the departments in the district?
A) District Collector
B) Superintendent of Police
C) Chief Minister
D) MLA
Answer:
A) District Collector

Question 6.
The district is divided into
A) Mandals
B) Villages
C) Talukas
D) Zilla Parishads
Answer:
A) Mandals

Question 7.
Who keeps the records of all lands in Mandal?
A) Mandal Revenue Officer
B) Mandal Development Officer
C) Mandal Educational Officer
D) Sub Registrar
Answer:
A) Mandal Revenue Officer

Question 8.
Who keeps the records of the lands at the village level?
A) Village Revenue Officer
B) Village Development Officer
C) Village Revenue Assistant
D) Village Servant
Answer:
A) Village Revenue Officer

Question 9.
Andhra Pradesh Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act was made in the year
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2012
D) 2001
Answer:
B) 2002

Question 10.
When was the Water Land and Trees protection Act implemented?
A) 19 – 4 – 2001
B) 19 – 4 – 2003
C) 19 – 4- 2002
D) 19 – 4 – 2000
Answer:
C) 19 – 4- 2002

Question 11.
Whose permission is essential to dig new well?
A) District Collector’s
B) Mandal Revenue Officer’s
C) Head of the Ground Water Department
D) Mandal Development Officer’s
Answer:
B) Mandal Revenue Officer’s

Question 12.
The authority to implement the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act was:
A) LAWTA
B) WALTA
C) TAWLA
D) MALTA
Answer:
B) WALTA

Question 13.
Which department deals with the registration of Rigs?
A) Ground Water Department
B) Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department
C) Mines and Geology Department
D) Forest Department
Answer:
A) Ground Water Department

Question 14.
Which department takes up the construction of Rainwater harvesting structures?
A) Mines and Geology Department
B) Forest Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department

Question 15.
Which department monitors sand mining in water bodies?
A) Forest Department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
B) Mines and Geology Department

Question 16.
Which department grants permission for felling trees?
A) Forest Department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
A) Forest Department

Question 17.
The imaginary district in the lesson.
A) Nallavaram
B) Subbavaram
C) Pallavaram
D) Mallavaram
Answer:
A) Nallavaram

Question 18.
The District Collector in Nallavaram district in the lesson.
A) Manisha Tiwari
B) Manisha Wagley
C) Manisha Koyirala
D) Manisha Nagle
Answer:
D) Manisha Nagle

Question 19.
People from all the villages come to meet Nallavaram District Collector with their problems at this time.
A) 10.30 AM to 11.30 AM
B) 11.30 AM to 12.30 AM
C) 3.00 PM to 4.30 PM
D) 4.30 PM to 5.30 PM
Answer:
C) 3.00 PM to 4.30 PM

Question 20.
After the law was passed, the government formed an authority to implement the act. It is
A) WALTA
B) WAAPA
C) WATPA
D) All of the above
Implementation of Laws in the District
Answer:
A) WALTA

Question 21.
Collector : District: : Commissioner : ……………
A) Village Panchayat
B) Zilla Parishat
C) Corporation
D) None
Answer:
C) Corporation

Question 22.
Find the wrong statement.
1. Collector is an IAS Officer.
2. Collector is appointed by Mandal Parishat.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 23.
Find the correct statement.
1. WALTA Act-2002
2. Forests Rights Act – 2006
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 24.
VRO : Village:: Mandal: ………
A) Village Assistant
B) MRO
C) MDO
D) None
Answer:
B) MRO

Question 25.
The district is divided into Mandals:: State is divided into ………..
A) Villages
B) Cities
C) Districts
D) Mandals
Answer:
C) Districts

Question 26.
Tehsildar is also called as
A) VRO
B) VA
C) VS
D) MRO
Answer:
D) MRO

Question 27.
Suresh is building a new house and wants to get sand from the river flowing near by his house. Which department should Suresh approach for obtaining permission for this?
A) Forest department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Irrigation department
D) Municipality
Answer:
B) Mines and Geology Department

Question 28.
If you need correction in your ration card you have to consult
A) Mandal Education Officer
B) Village Revenue Officer
C) Sarpanch
D) President of Mandal Parishad
Answer:
B) Village Revenue Officer

Question 29.
Which currency notes are demonetized recently?
A) 100, 50
B) 1000, 2000
C) 500, 1000
D) 100, 1000
Answer:
C) 500, 1000

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 16 Making of Laws in the State Assembly on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 16th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a body for making the laws for the state?
A) Cabinet
B) Legislative Assembly
C) High Court
D) Constitution
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly

Question 2.
Which body is responsible for implementing the laws in the state?
A) The Legislative Assembly
B) High Court
C) Cabinet
D) Supreme court
Answer:
C) Cabinet

Question 3.
Our state has MLAs.
A) 110
B) 274
C) 175
D) 284
Answer:
C) 175

Question 4.
MLAs are elected by
A) ZPTCs
B) MPTCs
C) the people directly
D) MLCs
Answer:
C) the people directly

Question 5.
When do men and women get the right to vote in our country?
A) at the age of 21
B) at the age of 24
C) at the age of 18
D) at the age of 20
Answer:
C) at the age of 18

Question 6.
Elections to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha) are held once in ……….. years.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
A) 5

Question 7.
The number of constituencies in a state will depend upon
A) Its area
B) Its population
C) Its resources
D) Its geographical features
Answer:
B) Its population

Question 8.
Nominal tenure of an elected MLA.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 9.
The normal tenure of the legislative assembly of every state is of fine but it may be dissolved earlier by the
A) Speaker
B) Governer
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
B) Governer

Question 10.
The minimum age required for a person to contest in the elections is
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
C) 25 years

Question 11.
The leader of the leading party in the assembly is called
A) Minister
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Question 12.
The leader of the second-largest party in the house is called
A) Chief Minister
B) Minister
C) Speaker
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
D) Opposition leader

Question 13.
The Chief Minister is appointed by
A) The Chief Justice of the High Court
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) President of India
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 14.
Which of the following is also called the Government?
A) The legislative Assembly
B) Cabinet
C) Chief Minister
D) Governor
Answer:
B) Cabinet

Question 15.
The Cabinet is responsible to
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) The legislative Assembly
Answer:
D) The legislative Assembly

Question 16.
Who elects the speaker of the Assembly?
A) The majority party MLAs
B) The opposition party MLA
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly
D) Speaker will not be elected.
He will be nominated by the Governor
Answer:
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly

Question 17.
Before law is passed, the proposed law is called a
A) Draft
B) Bill
C) Proposal
D) Act
Answer:
B) Bill

Question 18.
After the Bill is passed by both the Chambers it should be approved by:
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) Chief Justice of High Court
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 19.
When the Governor approves a Bill, It will be called
A) A Bill
B) A Draft
C) A Gazette
D) An Act
Answer:
D) An Act

Question 20.
How many houses do the Andhra Pradesh Legislature have?
A) One
B) two
C) three
D) Four
Answer:
B) two

Question 21.
The lower house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)

Question 22.
The upper house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)

Question 23.
The Andhra Pradesh Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) was created again in
A) 2005
B) 2009
C) 2007
D) 2004
Answer:
C) 2007

Question 24.
Which of the following is a permanent house?
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Legislative Council
C) Both A & B
D) Vidhan Sabha
Answer:
B) Legislative Council

Question 25.
The term of the members of the Legislative Council (Vidhana Parishad)
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 26.
The minimum age required for a person to contest as MLC (Vidhana Parishad) is
A) 21 years
B) 25 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
Answer:
C) 30 years

Question 27.
AP Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) has members in total.
A) 294
B) 100
C) 50
D) 120
Answer:
C) 50

Question 28.
How many MLCs & are elected by the MLAs?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 29.
How many MLCs are elected by the members of local bodies?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 30.
How many MLCs are elected by the graduates?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 31.
How many MLCs are elected by the teachers?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 32.
How many members are nominated by the Governor to the Legislative Council?
A) 8
B) 30
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
A) 8

Question 33.
Governor of state is appointed by
A) The Chief Minister
B) The Prime Minister
C) The President of India
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
C) The President of India

Question 34.
How many constituencies are reserved for SCs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 54
D) 21
Answer:
A) 29

Question 35.
How many constituencies are reserved for STs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 22
D) 21
Answer:
B) 07

Question 36.
Who do the MLA s address while speaking in Assembly?
A) The Chief Minister
B) The leader of the opposition party
C) The speaker
D) To the MLA. or the Minister he wants to speak
Answer:
C) The speaker

Question 37.
The contestant of the assembly who belongs to no political party
A) Political party contestants
B) Independents
C) Long term contestants
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Independents

Question 38.
The age limit to contest for state assembly is years.
A) 18
B) 21
C) 25
D) 30
Answer:
C) 25

Question 39.
The voter ID cards are observed by
A) Returning Officer
B) Polling Booth Officer
C) Election officer
D) None
Answer:
B) Polling Booth Officer

Question 40.
The majority of party members elect one of their members as
A) leader
B) team leader
C) woman officer
D) none
Answer:
A) leader

Question 41.
All the executive powers of the state government vests in the hands of
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 42.
Who appoints the Council of ministers and allots portfolios?
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.

Question 43.
In Andhra Pradesh, laws are made by the state legislature, which has ……….. chambers
A) two
B) one
C) three
D) None
Answer:
A) two

Question 44.
The place the problems of the people before the assembly.
A) MLAs
B) Legislative Assemblies
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) MLAs

Question 45.
………….. conducts the Assembly meetings.
A) Speaker
B) CM
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
A) Speaker

Question 46.
Both Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are declared as two states
A) 2010 June 2nd
B) 2014 June 2nd
C) 2016 June 2nd
D) 2015 June 1st
Answer:
B) 2014 June 2nd

Question 47.
The no. of members to Vidhana Parishad (legislative council) who are elected by the graduates.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/2
C) 1/6th
D) 1/10th
Answer:
B) 1/2

Question 48.
The governor nominates persons to Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/12th
C) 1/6th
D) 1/8th
Answer:
C) 1/6th

Question 49.
The no. of Indo-Indians that are appointed to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
C) 1

Question 50.
The no. allotted to schedule caste people to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 10
B) 29
C) 12
D) 1
Answer:
B) 29

Question 51.
This share is elected by the MLAs to Andhra Pradesh Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/6th
C) 1/12 th
D) None
Answer:
A) 1/3rd

Question 52.

Once upon a time the picture is
A) A.P Assembly
B) T.S Assembly
C) Kerala Assembly
D) None
Answer:
A) A.P Assembly

Question 53.

What does the map show?
A) Districts
B) Regions
C) Legislating constituencies
D) None
Answer:
C) Legislating constituencies

Question 54.
How many, constituencies are there at present in A.P Assembly?
A) 294
B) 175
C) 180
D) 194
Answer:
B) 175

Question 55.

• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the MLA’s.
• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the members who were elected to Local Bodies like panchayats and municipalities.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Graduates.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Teachers.
• 8 members (1/6) are nominated by the Governor.

Q. Who nominated members to Legislative Council?
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Governor
D) Vice President
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 56.
What is the share of MLCs elected by the MLAs?
A) 1/2
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 3/4
Answer:
C) 1/3

Question 57.
What is the share MLCs elected by teachers?
A) 1/4
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/12
Answer:
D) 1/12

Question 58.
The Indian President is elected by
A) Prime Minister
B) Vice President
C) An Electoral college
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
C) An Electoral college

Question 59.
A bill introduced in the State Assembly can become an act only with the approval of
A) Governor
B) Speaker
C) Chief Minister
D) Finance Minister
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 60.
To consider the bill as an Act, it should get
A) Approval of Chief Minister
B) Approval of Governor
C) Approval of Vidhana Sabha and Vidhana Parishad
D) B and C
Answer:
B) Approval of Governor

Question 61.
Different ministries are allotted to the members of the state cabinet by
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) High court Chief justice
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Establishment of the British Empire in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When did the East India company acquire a charter from the ruler of England?
A) In 1600 AD
B) In 1606 AD
C) In 1611 AD
D) In 1616 AD
Answer:
A) In 1600 AD

Question 2.
Which European country first established its trade relationship with India?
A) England
B) France
C) Holland
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 3.
Where did Portugal have their trade base in India?
A) Madras
B) Machilipatnam
C) Goa
D) Calcutta
Answer:
C) Goa

Question 4.
Vasco da Gama was a ………… explorer.
A) French
B) English
C) Portuguese
D) Dutch
Answer:
C) Portuguese

Question 5.
……………. discovered the sea route to India.
A) Maegallan
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Columbus
D) Captain cook
Answer:
B) Vasco da Gama

Question 6.
Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India in the year.
A) In 1452 AD
B) In 1492 AD
C) In 1498 AD
D) In 1600 AD
Answer:
C) In 1498 AD

Question 7.
The correct chronological order of the arrival of European companies into India to have trade relations with it.
A) English, Portuguese, French, and Dutch
B) English, French, Dutch and Portuguese
C) English, Dutch, French, and Portuguese
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English
Answer:
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English

Question 8.
The last European country to enter into India to have trade relations with it was
A) Portugal
B) France
C) Holland
D) England
Answer:
D) England

Question 9.
Who defeated Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot?
A) Portuguese
B) French
C) English
D) Dutch
Answer:
B) French

Question 10.
When did the Battle of Arcot take place between the Nawab of Arcot and the French?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1763 AD
D) In 1762 AD
Answer:
B) In 1764 AD

Question 11.
Dupleix was the governor of
A) English East India Company
B) French East India Company
C) Dutch East India Company
D) Portuguese East India Company
Answer:
B) French East India Company

Question 12.
Who was Muzaffar Jang?
A) The Nizam of Deccan
B) The Nawab of Arcot
C) The Nawab of Bijapur
D) The Nawab of Bedar
Answer:
A) The Nizam of Deccan

Question 13.
Which port town was gifted to the French by the Nizam of Deccan?
A) Machilipatnam
B) Madras
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Krishnapatnam
Answer:
A) Machilipatnam

Question 14.
When did the Battle of Plassey take place?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1769 AD
D) In 1763 AD
Answer:
A) In 1757 AD

Question 15.
Who was the Nawab of Bengal who fought with the English in the battle of Plassey?
A) Sirajuddaula
B) Mir Jaffer
C) Mir Khasim
D) Anwaruddin Khan
Answer:
A) Sirajuddaula

Question 16.
Who defeated Sirajuddaula in the battle of Plassey?
A) The English
B) The French
C) The Portuguese
D) The Dutch
Answer:
A) The English

Question 17.
Who was the founder of English rule in India?
A) Robert dive
B) Warren Hastings
C) Wellesly
D) Cornwallis
Answer:
A) Robert dive

Question 18.
Which battle was the beginning for the English to conquer many Indian kingdoms?
A) Battle of Plassey
B) Battle of Wandwasi
C) Battle of Buxar
D) Battle of Arcot
Answer:
A) Battle of Plassey

Question 19.
Who gave away the Northern sarkars to the English?
A) Nizam of Hyderabad
B) Nawab of Bengal
C) Nawab of Mysore
D) Nawab of Bijapur
Answer:
A) Nizam of Hyderabad

Question 20.
Which kingdom did Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan belong to?
A) Mysore
B) Hyderabad
C) Arcot
D) Maratha
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 21.
When did the revolt of Sipahis take place?
A) In 1857
B) In 1757
C) In 1763
D) In 1858
Answer:
A) In 1857

Question 22.
Where did the 1857 revolt start first?
A) In Meerut
B) In Delhi
C) In Paniput
D) In Barrackpur
Answer:
A) In Meerut

Question 23.
On which date of 1857 the revolt started in Meerut?
A) May 11
B) May 09
C) May 10
D) May 21
Answer:
C) May 10

Question 24.
After the rebellion at Meerut was over, the rebellions soldiers marched towards
A) Mathura
B) Aligarh
C) Jhansi
D) Delhi
Answer:
D) Delhi

Question 25.
Who was the last Mughal emperor?
A) Shah Alam
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar
C) Aurangazeb
D) Akbar – II
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Question 26.
After the 1857 revolt, Bahadur Shah Zafar was imprisoned in …………
A) Lai Quila
B) Rangoon
C) Andaman
D) Tihar
Answer:
B) Rangoon

Question 27.
When was the declaration by Queen Victoria made?
A) In 1857
C) In 1858
B) In 1859
D) In I860
Answer:
C) In 1858

Question 28.
The Mughal ruler, ……….. granted Robert dive the right to rule Bengal.
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Alam
P) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer:
C) Shah Alam

Question 29.
Anrangpzeh died in
A) 1700
B) 1707
C) 1709
D) 1711
Answer:
B) 1707

Question 30.
The English East India Company was established in
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1650
D) 1750
Answer:
A) 1600

Question 31.
The East India Company was mainly a trade organization that depended on the profits
A) industries
B) trade
C) agriculture
D) none
Answer:
B) trade

Question 32.
Bahadur Shah Zafar and his sons being arrested by
A) Cap Williamson
B) Captain Hodson
C) Cap William
D) None
Answer:
B) Captain Hodson

Question 33.
These Indian goods had the best demand in Europe.
A) cotton
B) silk
C) spices
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 34.
These two companies fought for many years to capture trade in India.
A) The English & French
B) The Portugese & Dutch
C) The English & Dutch
D) The French & Portugese
Answer:
A) The English & French

Question 35.
The wealth that was accumulated in this way one of the most important factors that enabled England to devleop industries and establish
A) their dominance in the country
B) dominance in the world
C) dominance over shipping
D) all of the above
Answer:
B) dominance in the world

Question 36.
As long as this empire was strong, it had not been possible for the European companies to establish their own military power in India.
A) Delhi Sultans
B) Mughals
C) Sivaji
D) Qutub Shahis
Answer:
B) Mughals

Question 37.
Some years after the death of Aurangazeb, these different provinces of the empire became almost independent and were ruled by their respective governors which nominally acknowledged, the Mughal emperor as their supreme.
A) Bengal
B) Awadh
C) Hyderabad
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
In …………… AD, Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot sent his army to fight against the French company.
A) 1760
B) 1764
C) 1780
D) 1784
Answer:
B) 1764

Question 39.
The rulers also gifted the companies large amounts of ………….. in return for their military help.
A) cash
B) capital
C) investment
D) trade
Answer:
A) cash

Question 40.
Barrackpur was nearer to this city
A) Bombay
B) Agra
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Kolkata

Question 41.
The English East India Company also forced the Nizam of Hyderabad to handover the Northern Sarkars with these districts
A) Krishna
B) East & West Godavari districts
C) Visakhapatnam, Vijayanagaram
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
An English official is known as the would-be assigned to stay in the court of the kings and Nawabs.
A) Resident
B) Government executive
C) Official ruler
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Resident

Question 43.
The English lost their power in North India during the war in this year.
A) 1860
B) 1857
C) 1880
D) 1864
Answer:
B) 1857

Question 44.
The royal families revolted in 1857.
A) Nana Sahib
B) Tantia Tope
C) Jhansi Lakshmi Bai
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
This was declared as the Indian emperor during the 1857 revolution
A) Bahadur Shah – II
B) Bahadur Shah – I
C) Khasikhan
D) Jalandhar Shah
Answer:
A) Bahadur Shah – II

Question 46.
One of the revolts against the British in Hyderabad during the 1857 revolt
A) Chengiz Khan
B) Turrebaz Khan
C) Shaistha Khan
D) None
Answer:
B) Turrebaz Khan

Question 47.
The main reason for the failure of the 1857 revolt
A) It was not widespread throughout the country
B) All did not participate in the revolution
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
C) All the above

Question 48.
The fires of the revolution spread to all the villages in these states
A) U.P.
B) Bihar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 49.
The emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was arrested and sent to here in 1857 revolution
A) Rangoon
B) Delhi
C) Lucknow
D) Dhaka
Answer:
A) Rangoon

Question 50.
The picture is

A) Red fort
B) Gol Gumboz
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London
D) The headquarters of Portuguese East India Company in India
Answer:
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London

Question 51.

What is the specialty of the person in the picture?
A) He made good relations with India
B) He discovered a sea route to India
C) He was the founder of the Mughal empire
D) He was a viceroy of Britain
Answer:
B) He discovered a sea route to India

Question 52.

What was the historical incident shown in the picture?
A) Zagirdars revolted against Mughals
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857
C) Polygars revolts
D) Razakars movement
Answer:
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857

Question 53.

Who was arrested in the picture?
A) Aurangzeb and his sons
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons
C) Shivaji and his son
D) None
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons

Question 54.
‘The Europeans discovered a sea route to India”. The reason is
A) To conquer India
B) To develop their trade
C) Indians asked them to do trade
D) All the above
Answer:
B) To develop their trade

Question 55.
The Indian ruler gifted the companies large amounts of money” because
A) For their military help
B) For their trading activities
C) For paying taxes on goods
D) All the above
Answer:
A) For their military help

Question 56.
The Revolt of 1857 suppressed by the English easily”. The reason is
A) They did not fight together
B) The Siphis revolt only one place
C) It was spread only in villages
D) None
Answer:
A) They did not fight together

Question 57.
Delhi: …………..:: Tajmahal: Agra
A) Lai Quila
B) Rama Mandir (Ramajanma Bhoomi)
C) St. Peters Church
D) Mecca Masjid
Answer:
A) Lai Quila

Question 58.

Which area is not under British rule?
A) Mysore
B) Calcutta
C) Benaras
D) Bombay
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 59.
Battle of Plassey: 1757 A.D:: Battle of Buxar: ……………..
A) 1857
B) 1864
C) 1762
D) 1764
Answer:
D) 1764

Question 60.
1857 : Queen Victoria : : 2018 : ……………
A) Princes
B) William
C) Queen Elizabeth
D) Princes Dayana
Answer:
C) Queen Elizabeth

Question 61.
The Battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Question 62.
The following person does not relate with sepoys revolt
A) Gandhiji
B) Rani of Jhansi
C) Nana Saheb
D) Tantiya Tope
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 63.
The battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because :
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D.
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Mughal Empire on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson Mughal Empire with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Originally Mughals belonged to these countries in central Asia.
A) Iran
B) Arabia
C) Egypt
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan
Answer:
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan

Question 2.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Babur
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 3.
When did Babur become the ruler of Delhi?
A) 1504 A.D.
B) 1523 A.D.
C) 1526 A.D.
D) 1530 A.D.
Answer:
C) 1526 A.D.

Question 4.
Who was the Sultan of Delhi, when Babur captured it?
A) Secunder Lodi
B) Ibrahim Lodi
C) Dahir
D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Answer:
B) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 5.
Who established the Mughal empire in Delhi?
A) Jahangir
B) Sher Shah
C) Babur
D) Akbar
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 6.
Which Mughal emperor introduced guns and cannons to the Indian war fare?
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Jahangir
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Babur

Question 7.
Which of the following was not a Mughal ruler?
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Sher Shah
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
C) Sher Shah

Question 8.
When did Humayun recapture Delhi from Sher khan?
A) 1530 A.D
B) 1555 A.D
C) 1556 A.D
D) 1540 A D
Answer:
B) 1555 A.D

Question 9.
Who was the youngest to become a Mughal ruler?
A) Humayun
B) Akbar
C) Aurangazeb
D) ShahJahan
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 10.
In whose reign the war of succession took place?
A) Shah Jahan’s
B) Jahangir’s
C) Akbar’s
D) Aurangazeb’s
Answer:
A) Shah Jahan’s

Question 11.
Which Mughal emperor was imprisoned for the rest of his life?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
C) Shah Jahan

Question 12.
Who established the Maratha kingdom?
A) Shivaji
B) Balaji Viswanath
C) Sambhaji
D) Baji Rao
Answer:
A) Shivaji

Question 13.
Shivaji was the contemporary of
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Babur
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 14.
“As the Mughals became powerful many other rulers joined them voluntarily” – Who was the best example for this?
A) Sikhs
B) Marathas
C) Rajputs
D) Bahmani Sultans
Answer:
C) Rajputs

Question 15.
Which Mughal officials were given the tasks of guarding the palace, governing a province, conquering a new kingdom?
A) Jagirdars
B) Mansabdars
C) Zamindars
D) Chieftains
Answer:
B) Mansabdars

Question 16.
Mansabdars should maintain a specified number of
A) Cavalry
B) Elephantry
C) Infantry
D) Cannon operators
Answer:
A) Cavalry

Question 17.
In whose reign were jagirs carefully assessed?
A) Sher Shah’s
B) Akbar’s
C) Shah Jahan’s
D) Jahangir’s
Answer:
B) Akbar’s

Question 18.
Officers of revenue assignments – nayankaras in the Vijayanagara kingdom were called
A) Mansabdars
B) Jagirdars
C) Nayakas
D) Amirs
Answer:
C) Nayakas

Question 19.
Todar Mai was the revenue minister of
A) Sher Shah
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 20.
‘Zabt’ means:
A) confiscation of property of a farmer who could not pay his taxes
B) maintenance of cavalry by mansabdars
C) the revenue system of Mughals
D) the religious tradition of Muslims
Answer:
C) the revenue system of Mughals

Question 21.
‘Jagirdars’ in Mughal administration were
A) Policemen
B) Revenue officials
C) Military officers
D) Village headmen
Answer:
B) Revenue officials

Question 22.
Who wrote the book ‘Akbar Nama’?
A) Akbar
B) Abul Fazl
C) Amir Khiisro
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 23.
Which Mughal ruler started the discussions on religion with the scholars of all religions?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 24.
‘Sulh-i-kul’ means:
A) honesty
B) Justice
C) Truthfulness
D) Universal peace
Answer:
D) Universal peace

Question 25.
Which Mughal emperor first got the idea of Sulh-i-kul?
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Aurangazeb
D) Shah Jahan
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 26.
Which of the Mughal rulers deviated from the policy of ‘Sulh-i-kul’?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 27.
Which Mughal emperor framed the vi¬sion of governance?
A) Akbar
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 28.
Which Mughal emperor showed favour to Sunni Muslims?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
A) Aurangazeb

Question 29.
The founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty.
A) Muzafar Jung
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk
C) Nasar Jung
D) Sikander Jah
Answer:
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk

Question 30.
Nizam-ul-Mulk ruled for ……. years.
A) 24
B) 34
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
A) 24

Question 31.
Who of the following was the Prime Minister of the Nizams between 1853 and 1883?
A) Mir Mahabub Ali Pasha
B) Nasar Jung
C) Salabat Jung
D) Salar Jung
Answer:
D) Salar Jung

Question 32.
Musi floods occurred in
A) 1938
B) 1928
C) 1918
D) 1908
Answer:
D) 1908

Question 33.
Sisodiya Rajputs belong to
A) Uzbekistan
B) Magnolia
C) Chittoor
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Chittoor

Question 34.
…………. started a revenues system known as zabt
A) Todarmal
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Todarmal

Question 35.
The year in which Babur conquered Kabul.
A) 1500 AD
B) 1504 AD
C) 1520 AD
D) 1526 AD
Answer:
B) 1504 AD

Question 36.
The year in which Babur defeated the Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodi and occupied Delhi & Agra.
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1535
Answer:
B) 1526

Question 37.
The year of the first Panipat war.
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1527
D) 1528
Answer:
A) 1526

Question 38.
The person who defeated Humayun.
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Sher khan
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
C) Sher khan

Question 39.
The Iranian emperor that helped Humayun.
A) Dara-Shukoa
B) Safavid Shah
C) Shershah
D) Akbar
Answer:
B) Safavid Shah

Question 40.
Humayun died in ………
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1555
D) 1556
Answer:
D) 1556

Question 41.
Humayun re-occupied Delhi in
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1555
Answer:
D) 1555

Question 42.
The age of Akbar at the time of his crowning.
A) 12 years
B) 13 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
B) 13 years

Question 43.
The Mughal rule was expanded in Deccan region by
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Humayun
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
D) Shahjahan

Question 44.
There was a conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan’s sons in
A) 1657-58
B) 1667-68
C) 1677-78
D) 164748
Answer:
A) 1657-58

Question 45.
Sivaji established an independent Maharashtra empire during the rule of this Mughal emperor
A) Akbar
B) Shajahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 46.
Identify the mismatch.
1) Babur – 1526-1530 AD
2) Humayun – 1530 – 1556 AD
3) Akbar – 1556 – 1605 AD
4) Jahangir -1605 – 1627 AD
5) Shahjahan – 1627 – 1658 AD
6) Aurangazeb – 1658 – 1707 AD
A) 1,2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 5
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 47.
These Rajputs of Chittore did not accept or recognize the supremacy of Mughals for many days.
A) Pala dynasty
B) Prathihara dynasty
C) Sisodiya dynasty
D) None
Answer:
C) Sisodiya dynasty

Question 48.
This princess was the mother of Jahangir
A) Amber
B) Jodhpur
C) Gujarat
D) Ahmed Nagar
Answer:
A) Amber

Question 49.
This princess was the mother of Shahjahan
A) Jaipur
B) Jodhpur
C) Malavi
D) Ahmed N.agar
Answer:
B) Jodhpur

Question 50.
During the Mughal rule, the ………….. ‘s military responsibilities required him to maintain a specified number of horse riders or cavalrymen.
A) Mansabdar
B) Shiqdar
C) Mukthi
D) DIWAN – E – Rasalat
Answer:
A) Mansabdar

Question 51.
The no. of mansabdars increased during the rule of this Mughal emperor.
A) Akbar
B) Aurangazeb
C) Shahjahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Aurangazeb

Question 52.
The main source of income to the Mughal ruler.
A) tax on traders
B) tax on artists
C) tax on agricultural products
D) tax on beggars
Answer:
C) tax on agricultural products

Question 53.
The finance minister of Akbar.
A) Necker
B) Taylor
C) Ranapratap
D) Todar Mai
Answer:
D) Todar Mai

Question 54.
Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops. This revenue system was known as
A) Zabt
B) Mabt
C) Jalabandi
D) Jaumabandi
Answer:
A) Zabt

Question 55.
The broad features of administration were laid down by Akbar land were elaborately discussed by his friend and member of his court, Abul Fazl in
his book the …………..
A) Akbar-Nama
B) Ain-I-Akbari
C) Padshah-Nama
D) None
Answer:
A) Akbar-Nama

Question 56.
Akbar felt in his mind
A) religious intolerance
B) Sulh-i-kul
C) Racial discrimination
D) None
Answer:
B) Sulh-i-kul

Question 57.
…………… helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-ikul
A) Jahangir
B) Abul Fazl
C) Khusru
D) Amir Khusru
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 58.
The religious policy followed by Aurangazeb
A) Shia
B) Sunni
C) Hindu
D) Persian
Answer:
B) Sunni

Question 59.
The no. of higher grade Mansabdars out of 8000 in the Mughal empire.
A) 440
B) 450
C) 445
D) 455
Answer:
C) 445

Question 60.
The reason to get the idea of Sulh – i – Kul by Akbar is
A) To create harmony among the various religious people
B) To create discrimination among the people
C) To impress Abul Fazal, his friend
D) To conquer the whole of India
Answer:
A) To create harmony among the various religious people

Question 61.
The cause of rebellions of Zamindars during the reign of Mughals
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator
B) Shortage of Jagirdars
C) The campaigns of Mughal kings
D) The generosity of Mughals
Answer:
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator

Question 62.
Din -1 – Ilahi was belongs to
A) Jahangir
B) Akbar
C) Shabjahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 63.

What does the map show?
A) Cholas kingdom
B) Pandyas kingdom
C) Chalukyas kingdom
D) Akbar’s kingdom
Answer:
D) Akbar’s kingdom

Question 64.
The present state is nearer to the Tropic of Cancer.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisa
C) Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) Bengal

Question 65.
The mother of Jahangir was a daughter Of the Rajput ruler of
A) Sindh
B) Amber
C) Chittor
D) Ajmer
Answer:
B) Amber

Question 66.
The Sisodiya Rajputs who refused to accept Mughal authority for a long time belonged to
A) Multan
B) Bijapur
C) Chittor
D) Gondwana
Answer:
C) Chittor

Question 67.
Find out the correct statement
1. Those who joined the Mughal service were enrolled as Mansabdars.
2. Those who look after the administration of Mughals were known as Amaranayakas.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 68.
Mughals : Mansabdars : : Kakatiyas : …………
A) Nayankaras
B) Jagirdars
C) Zamindars
D) None
Answer:
A) Nayankaras

Question 69.
Match the following:
A) Humayun        [ ]        1) 1556 -1605 A.D
B) Akbar              [ ]        2) 1530- 1556 A.D
C) Aurangzeb      [ ]        3) 1658 – 1707 A.D
A) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
Answer:
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3

Question 70.
Put the following in chronological order
1. Akbar captured Sisodiya.
2. Aurangzeb campaigned against the Yasufzai.
3. Babar defeated the Rajputs at Chanderi.
A) 3, 1, 2
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3, 2, 1
Answer:
A) 3, 1, 2

Question 71.
Akbar was ………… years old when he became the emperor
A) 15
B) 14
C) 12
D) 13
Answer:
D) 13

Question 72.
Din – I – Ilahi: Akbar:: ……………. : Shahjahan
A) Red fort
B) Kakatiya toranam
C) Hawa Manzil
D) Dharma saala
Answer:
A) Red fort

Question 73.
Who introduced cannons and guns in Indian warfare?
A) Muhammad Ghori
B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
C) Sri Krishna Devaraya
D) Babur
Answer:
D) Babur

Question 74.
The Arabic book “Kitab-al-Hind” is written by
A) Abul Fazal
B) Al-Biruni
C) Jahangir
D) Mohammad of Ghazni
Answer:
B) Al-Biruni

Question 75.
Which of the following show the correct chronological order of the Mughal emperors.
A) Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Akbar – Jahangir
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb
C) Akbar – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Jahangir
D) Shah Jahan – Akbar – Jahangir – Aurangzeb
Answer:
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb

Question 76.
Mansabdari system belongs to
A) Mughals
B) Delhi Sultans
C) Cholas
D) Vijayanagara rulers
Answer:
A) Mughals

Question 77.
Which monument belongs to Mughals?
A) Virupaksha temple
B) Padma Mahal
C) Alai darwaja
D) Taj Mahal
Answer:
D) Taj Mahal

Question 78.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Babar
C) Humayun
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Babar