Mahesh

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Folk Religion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Folk Religion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………… is the most popular folk goddess of Andhra Pradesh.
A) Ganganamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Renuka
Answer:
B) Pochamma

Question 2.
The Goddess is believed to protect the cattle.
A) Maisamma
B) Pochamma
C) Yellamma
D) Ganganamma
Answer:
A) Maisamma

Question 3.
……….. is worshipped as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Katta Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katta Maisamma

Question 4.
With whose blessings crops flourish?
A) Pochamma
B) Renuka
C) Somalamma
D) Katta Maisamma
Answer:
D) Katta Maisamma

Question 5.
Fishermen worship ………….. as a goddess of water.
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 6.
………….. is also called Polimeramma.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Maritemma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 7.
…………….. guards the boundaries of the village.
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 8.
People mainly pray to …………… to prevent epidemics like cholera.
A) Maisamma
B) Ganganamma
C) Yellamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
C) Yellamma

Question 9.
……………… is the famons fair celebrated in Northern Andhra Pradesh.
A) Medaram Jathara
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara
C) Yellamma Jatara
D) Ammavari Jatara
Answer:
B) Pydithalli Ammavari Jatara

Question 10.
The deity, who looks after agricultural lands, is
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 11.
The deity who protects the crops from dreadful diseases
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Yellamma
D) Gangamma
Answer:
B) Potharaju

Question 12.
…………. is sacrificed as an offering to Potharaju when the crop is harvested.
A) Cock
B) Goat
C) Buffalo
D) Sheep
Answer:
A) Cock

Question 13.
……………….. and ……………. are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities.
A) Potharaju and Pydithalli
B) Potharaju and Yellamma
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju
D) Potharaju and Beerappa
Answer:
C) Beerappa and Katamaraju

Question 14.
……………… fought for the grazing rights of the animal herders.
A) Beerappa
B) Potharaju
C) Katama raju
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Katama raju

Question 15.
………….. and …………….. laid down their lives in defense of the tribal people.
A) Yellamma and Pydithalli
B) Beerappa and Potharaju
C) Sammakka and Sarakka
D) Pochamma and Pydithalli
Answer:
C) Sammakka and Sarakka

Question 16.
This should be taken to please the Gods.
A) Bonalu
B) Plants
C) Birds
D) Animals
Answer:
A) Bonalu

Question 17.
The village deities particularly belong to these
A) castes
B) villages
C) families
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
Sirimanu Utsavam is celebrated during the month of
A) Sept. (or) Oct.
B) Dec. (or) Jan.
C) Jan. (or) Feb
D) Oct. (or) Nov.
Answer:
A) Sept. (or) Oct.

Question 19.
There is a temple in every village in Andhra Pradesh
A) Renukamma
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pochamma

Question 20.
Pochamma temple is almost near this tree
A) Marri
B) Maredu
C) Neredu
D) Neem
Answer:
D) Neem

Question 21.
How do people worship Pochamma in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Through Pujari
B) Through Brahmin
C) Through customs and traditions of local people
D) Through Sanyasis
Answer:
C) Through customs and traditions of local people

Question 22.
“Mother, keep away all infectious diseases and evils from our family” – This is the prayer of Andhra Pradesh people to this goddess.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Yellamma
D) Poleramma
Answer:
A) Pochamma

Question 23.
……………. Utsavam is an important aspect in Sirimanu Utsavam.
A) Jatara
B) Tollela
C) Toranam
D) None
Answer:
B) Tollela

Question 24.
Among the cattle sheds, a niche is whitewashed and decorated with ’Kumkuma’ and called as ……………..
A) Pasuvula goodu
B) Gangamma goodu
C) Maisamma goodu
D) Yellamma goodu
Answer:
C) Maisamma goodu

Question 25.
In many places, ……………… is also worshipped as a goddess of water in the form of a small stone on the tank bund.
A) Pochamma
B) Katta-maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Katta-maisamma

Question 26.
Poor and Orphans are protected by this goddess
A) Pochamma
B) Maisamma
C) Gangamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Gangamma

Question 27.
She is a goddess who protects fishermen who go out into the sea.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Maisamma
D) Yellamma
Answer:
B) Gangamma

Question 28.
This goddess is also called as Polimeramma, Mariaemma, Renuka, Mahankali, Jogamma, Somalamma and by other names.
A) Yellamma
B) Jogulamba
C) Gangamma
D) Pochamma
Answer:
A) Yellamma

Question 29.
It is believed that she will ensure that the tank is full.
A) Jogulamba
B) Gangamma
C) Pochamma
D) Maisamma
Answer:
D) Maisamma

Question 30.
The farmers of Andhra Prade&h believe that …………. looks after their agricultural land and crops and protects the crops from dreadful diseases, thieves and animals.
A) Pochamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 31.
The farmers keep a small stone painted in white in a corner of their field and worshipped it as
A) Maisamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potharaju
D) Beerappa
Answer:
C) Potharaju

Question 32.
They are worshipped by cowherd and shepherd communities
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju
B) Sivudu, Parvathi
C) Sri Rama, Sita
D) Mallappa, Somasekhar
Answer:
A) Beerappa, Katam Raju

Question 33.
It is a general practice to offer in most of the folk festivals.
A) human sacrifice
B) animal sacrifice
C) eating neem flowers
D) wearing leaves of trees
Answer:
B) animal sacrifice

Question 34.
Many of the folk gods and goddesses were actually
A) local heroes
B) local kings
C) who died fighting in defence of their people
D) both A & C
Answer:
D) both A & C

Question 35.
Two folk heroines who laid down their lives in defence of the tribal people were
A) Sammakka, Sarakka
B) Achamamba, Lakkamamba
C) Tirupatamba, Gopaiah
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Sammakka, Sarakka

Question 36.
Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara was celebrated by the Girijans of this village
A) Sirisilla
B) Bhadrachalam
C) Medaram
D) Jupalli
Answer:
C) Medaram

Question 37.
Sirimanu Utsavam : Vijayanagaram :: Chengalamma Jatara: ………….
A) Sullurupet
B) Nellore
C) Renigunta
D) Tirupati
Answer:
A) Sullurupet

Question 38.
Siri means …………. and ………….
A) Stump and out
B) lean and small
C) stick and loose
D) None
Answer:
B) lean and small

Question 39.
Manu means ………….. and …………….
A) stump or stick
B) lean and small
C) big and small
D) None
Answer:
A) stump or stick

Question 40.
…………. is placed on Sirimanu during the celebration of the festival.
A) Srimanu
B) Pyditalli
C) Flowers
D) None
Answer:
B) Pyditalli

Question 41.
Srlmanu Utsavam is also known as ………… utsavam.
A) Gangamma
B) Poleramma
C) Pyditalli
D) Yellamma
Answer:
C) Pyditalli

Question 42.
This festival is celebrated on the death of the grandson of Prophet Mohammad.
A) Abdullah
B) Ramzan
C) Moharram
D) None
Answer:
C) Moharram

Question 43.
Anniversaries of Muslim saints, who lie buried in various parts of the state are celebrated.
A) Vardhanthotsavam
B) Urs Utsav
C) Flag Utsav
D) Flower Utsav
Answer:
B) Urs Utsav

Question 44.
This Utsavas stand good for religious tolerance.
A) Moharram, Urs
B) Ouliya Utsavas
C) Urdu Utsavas
D) Salim, Allah Utsavas
Answer:
A) Moharram, Urs

Question 45.
People believe that these masters have miraculous powers.
A) Shia
B) Sufi
C) Ouliya
D) Allah
Answer:
B) Sufi

Question 46.
The place where the Ameen Peer Dargah is located.
A) YSR Kadapa District
B) Siripur-Kagaj Nagar (Adilabad)
C) Bhadrachalam (Khammam)
D) Begumpeta (Ranga Reddy)
Answer:
A) YSR Kadapa District

Question 47.
Every year annual Urs celebrations are held for three days beginning on Thursday coming after this festival.
A) Diwali
B) Dussehra
C) Sankranthi
D) Ugadi
Answer:
C) Sankranthi

Question 48.
During Bonalu, women folk participate in the procession carrying on their heads.
A) Brass vessels
B) Ande
C) Bonam
D) Ghatam
Answer:
D) Ghatam

Question 49.
The worship of nagas, trees, yakshas and yakshinis even some years ago.
A) 2000
B) 2500
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2500

Question 50.
The written by Srinatha around 1450s mentions the worship of Potharaju.
A) Palnati Virula Katha
B) Rudra Vijayam
C) Rasa Ratnakaram
D) Gangadhara Vijayam
Answer:
A) Palnati Virula Katha

Question 51.
Vallabharaya’s Kridabhiramamu written around the same time describes in detail the worship of the ………..
A) Palnati Veeras
B) Mailara in Warangal
C) Many mother Goddesses in Warangal
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 52.
These farmers also participate in the prayers of folk Goddesses.
A) Jat
B) Muslim
C) Christian
D) Jewish
Answer:
B) Muslim

Question 53.
The high religious traditions too worship.
A) Peepul tree
B) Snakes
C) Mother goddesses
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
A very strong tradition of to darghas and urs developed in which people of all faiths participate.
A) Pilgrimages
B) Prayers
C) Urs
D) Philosophical thinking
Answer:
A) Pilgrimages

Question 55.
These poems of great wisdom were composed 300 years ago in Telugu.
A) Sumathi Satakam
B) Vemana Satakam
C) Kunalamma Patalu
D) Yenki geethalu
Answer:
B) Vemana Satakam

Question 56.
A) Hindu : Bhagavadgita:: Christian : ………..
A) Zend Avesta
B) Quran
C) Bible
D) Ramayana
Answer:
C) Bible

Question 57.
Find the correct statement.
1. Pocharnma is the most popular folk goddess of Adi
2. Sammakka, Sarakka Jatara is also called Medaram Jatara.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 58.
Gangamma : Fishermen : : KatamaRaju: …………..
A) Shepherd
B) Lawyers
C) Fanners
D) Agriculture
Answer:
A) Shepherd

Question 59.
This picture shows

A) Yellamma
B) Gangamma
C) Potha Raju
D) Katama Raju
Answer:
C) Potha Raju

Question 60.
The belief behind conducting Bonalu
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature
B) To eat well
C) To clean tanks
D) To go foreign trips
Answer:
A) To show gratefulness towards mother nature

Question 61.
The picture shows

A) Sammakka Jatara
B) Yellamma Jatara
C) Sirimanu Utsavam
D) Maisamma Jatara
Answer:
C) Sirimanu Utsavam

Question 62.
Rottela Panduga : Nellore : : Ameen- peer Dargah : …………
A) Guntur
B) Prakasam
C) Chittoor
D) YSR Kadapah
Answer:
D) YSR Kadapah

Question 63.
Amin peer Darga located in this district
A) SPSR Nellore
B) YSR Kadapa
C) Chittoor
D) Guntur
Answer:
B) YSR Kadapa

Practice the AP 0th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 2nd Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

CONCEPT – I Properties Of Acids and Bases

Question 1.
Indicators are used to detect the nature of the solution for
A) Acidity
B) Basicity
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 2.
……………….. taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solutions
A) Sour
B) Bitter
C) Salty
D) Sweet
Answer:
A) Sour

Question 3.
Bases tend to taste …………….. and feel …………
A) sour, pleasant to touch
B) bitter, slippery to touch
C) sour, slippery to touch
D) None of these
Answer:
B) bitter, slippery to touch

Question 4.
Acids turn …………… litmus to ………………..litmus
A) red, red
B) blue, red
C) red, blue
D) blue, blue
Answer:
B) blue, red

Question 5.
Natural indicators are prepared from…..
i) plants
ii) petrochemicals
iii) living organisms
iv) minerals
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both i and iii
D) both ii and iv
Answer:
C) both i and iii

Question 6.
Natural indicators among these
i) litmus
ii) extract of red cabbage
iii) methyl orange
iv) turmeric
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iv
D) All
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Question 7.
The colour of turmeric in basic solutions is………
A) blue
B) red
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
B) red

Question 8.
Synthetic indicator among these
A) Methyl red
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Methyl orange
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 9.
Match the following.
a) hydrochloric acid — i) H₂SO₄
b) sulphuric acid — ii) CH₃COOH
c) nitric acid — iii) HCl
d) acetic acid — iv) HNO₃
A) a → i, b→ii, c →iii, d → iv
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii
C) a →i, b →iii, c →iv, d → ii
D) a → i, b → iv, c →iii, d → ii
Answer:
B) a → iii, b →i, c →iv, d → ii

Question 10.
As aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity, they are identified as
A) electrolytes
B) bad conductors
C) good conductors
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 11.
Acids turn methyl orange into ……………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
A) red

Question 12.
Bases turn methyl orange into …………………
A) red
B) blue
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
C) yellow

Question 13.
Like acids, aqueous basic solutions conduct …………, and are identified as ………………
A) heat, electrolytes
B) electricity, electrolytes
C) electricity, nonelectrolytes
D) heat, partial electrolytes
Answer:
B) electricity, electrolytes

Question 14.
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is ………………….
A) yellow
B) green
C) pink
D) orange
Answer:
C) pink

Question 15.
Match the following.
a) Sodium hydroxide — i) Ca(OH)₂
b) Calcium hydroxide — ii) NH₄OH
c) Magnesium hydroxide — iii) Mg(OH)₂
d) Ammonium hydroxide — iv) NaOH
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → i,b → iii,c → ii,d → iv
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii
D) a → iv,b → iii,c → ii,d → i
Answer:
C) a → iv, b → i, c →iii, d → ii

Question 16.
Olfactory indicators are those indicators whose …….. change in acidic or basic media.
A) colour
B) odour
C) state
D) taste
Answer:
B) odour

Question 17.
The following will act as olfactory indicator.
A) onion
B) vanilla essence
C) clove oil
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 18.
The gas released in this experiment is.,

A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) chlorine
D) carbon dioxide
Answer:
B) hydrogen

Question 19.
More reactive metals react with acids and liberate …………….. gas.
A) O₂
B) H₂
C) Cl₂
D) C0₂
Answer:
B) H₂

Question 20.
Complete the reaction
2NaOH + Zn → ………………… + ………………………
A) NaCZ, H₂
B) ZnO₂, NaH₂
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂
D) Na₂O, H₂O
Answer:
C) Na₂ZnO₂, H₂

Question 21.
Name the parts in the diagram.

A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube
B) 1 – Cork, 2 – stand
C) 1 – Test tube, 2 – boiling tube
D) 1 – Sodium carbonate,
2 – hydrochloric acid
Answer:
A) 1 – Thirstle funnel, 2 – Delivery tube

Question 22.
Active metals react with acids and form
A) salt, hydrogen
B) salt, water
C) salt, nitrogen
D) salt, oxygen
Answer:
A) salt, hydrogen

Question 23.
A solution reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution contains
A) NaCZ
B) HCZ
C) LiCZ
D) KCZ
Answer:
B) HCZ

Question 24.
What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) No gas is produced
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

Question 25.
Metal oxides are generally …………… in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 26.
Non metal oxides are generally……. in nature
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Amphoteric
D) Neutral
Answer:
A) Acidic

Question 27.
Identify the odd one.
A) Glucose
B) Alcohol
C) Acetone
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

Question 28.
………… is common to all adds.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) H₃O⁺
C) OH^–
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 29.
…….. does not change colour of dry blue litmus.
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulphuric acid
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
C) Dry hydrogen chloride gas

Question 30.
……. is common for all bases.
A) H⁺_(aq)
B) OH^–_(aq)
C) H₃O⁺
D) OH⁺
Answer:
B) OH^–_(aq)

Question 31.
In water H⁺ ions exists as
A) H₃O⁺
B) hydroniumion
C) OH^–
D) both A and B
Answer:
D) both A and B

Question 32.
If a base dissolves in wafer by what name it is better known?
A) neutralization
B) basic
C) acid
D) alkali
Answer:
D) alkali

Question 33.
The process of dissolving an acid or base in water is ………….. process.
A) endothermic
B) exothermic
C) isothermal
D) adiabatic
Answer:
B) exothermic

Question 34.
Mixing of an acid or base with water result in decrease in the concentration of H₃O⁺ /0H ^– per unit volume is called
A) hydration
B) dehydration
C) hydrolysis
D) dilution
Answer:
D) dilution

Question 35.
……………….. is slightly soluble in water
A) NaOH
B) KOH
C) Be(OH)₂
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Be(OH)₂

Question 36.
The nature of substance that converts blue litmus to red, but no change of colour with red litmus is
A) Base
B) Neutral
C) Acid
D) Can’t decide
Answer:
C) Acid

Question 37.
Phenolphthalein indicator gets pink colour with
A) HCl solution
B) NaOH solution
C) H₂ SO₄ solution
D) CH₃ COOH solution
Answer:
B) NaOH solution

Question 38.
HCl solution with Na₂ CO₃ and NaHCO₃ produces
A) H₂ gas
B) NaH (sodium hydride)
C) H₂ CO₃
D) CO₂ gas
Answer:
D) CO₂ gas

Question 39.
Which of the following solutions convert red litmus paper to blue
A) HCl
B) HNO₂
C) NaOH
D) None
Answer:
C) NaOH

Question 40.
Which of the following solutions give yellow colour with methyl orange indicator.
A) NaOH
B) CH₃ COOH
c) Ha
D) H₂ SO₄
Answer:
A) NaOH

Question 41.
The formula of sodium zincate is
A) 2NaZnO
B) Na₂ ZnO₂
C) NaZnO₂
D) NaZnO
Answer:
B) Na₂ ZnO₂

Question 42.
Olfactory indicator from the following is oaEaga
A) turmeric
B) onion
C) methyl orange
D) litmus paper
Answer:
B) onion

Question 43.
Pair of strong acid and strong base from the following is
A) HCl, NH₄
B) CH₃COOH, NH₄OH
C) CH₃COOH, NaOH
D) HCl, NaOH
Answer:
D) HCl, NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following produces more OH^– ions ?
A) HCl solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NH₄OH solution
D) NaOH solution
Answer:
D) NaOH solution

Question 45.
Which one of the following produces more number of H₃O<sup+ ions
A) HCZ solution
B) CH₃COOH solution
C) NaOH solution
D) Mg(OH)₂ solution
Answer:
A) HCZ solution

Question 46.
Which of the following is a weak base?
A) KOH
B) NaOH
C) NH₄OH
D) None of these
Answer:
C) NH₄OH

Question 47.
When Zn is added to aqueous NaOH and on heating it forms
A) ZnO
B) Na₂ZnO₂
C) O₂
D) Na₂O
Answer:
B) Na₂ZnO₂

Question 48.
Which one of the following is an acid?
A) NaCZ
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) HNO₃
D) NaNO₃
Answer:
C) HNO₃

Question 49.
Which of the following indicators gives red colour-in acid solution ?
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Bromothymol blue
Answer:
A) Methyl orange

Question 50.
Which of the following is a mineral acid?
A) Oxalic add
B) Citric acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Phosphoric acid
Answer:
D) Phosphoric acid

Question 51.
A student added dil. HCZ to a test tube containing zinc granules and made the following observations.
i) The zinc surface becomes dull and black
ii) The gas evolved is burnt with a pop sound
iii) The solution remains colourless The correct observations are
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
D) i, ii and iii

Question 52.
A student added few drops of universal indicator to a given colourless sample and observed the sample turning to red. The nature of sample is
A) neutral’solution
B) acid
C) base
D) either acid or base
Answer:
B) acid

CONCEPT – II Neutralization Reactions

Question 53.
When metal carbonate reacts with acid the products foiled are
A) salt
B) water
C) carbon dioxide
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 54.
Lime water turns into milky white due to the formation of
i) CaO
ii) Ca(OH)₂
iii) CaCO₃
iv) Ca(HCO₃)₂
A) only i
B) only ii
C) only iii
D) both ii and iii
Answer:
C) only iii

Question 55.
Statement I : When carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into milky.
Statement II : When excess of carbon dioxide passes through lime water it will turn into colourless.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and statement II is false
C) Statement I is false statement II is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 56.
The colourless solution formed when excess of CO₂ is passed through slaked lime is
A) CaO
B) Ca(OH)₂
C) CaCO₃
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
D) Ca(HCO₃)₂

Question 57.
When acid reacts with base it forms salt and water then the reaction is called
A) Hydrolysis
B) Esterification
C) Neutralization
D) Dehydration
Answer:
C) Neutralization

Question 58.
Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid – base solution
B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
D) Acid + base »neutral solution
Answer:
B) Acid + base → salt + water

Question 59.
Whichofthefollowingsubstanceswhen mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen
D) Nitric acid
Answer:
B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

Question 60.
Base reacts with…………….. to produce salt and
A) base, water
B) acid, water
C) salt,water
D) base, salt
Answer:
B) acid, water

Question 61.
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating irritation in stomach ?
A) antibiotic
B) analgesic
C) antacid
D) antiseptic
Answer:
C) antacid

Question 62.
The following are neutralization reactions.
i) Acid reacts with base to form salt and water
ii) Acid reacts with metal oxide to form salt and water
iii) Base reacts with non-metal oxide to form salt and water.
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) both ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 63.
Antacids are
A) strong acids
B) weak acids
C) strong bases
D) weak bases
Answer:
D) weak bases

Question 64.
The chemical name of milk of magnesia is…….
A) calcium hydroxide
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) potassium hydroxide
D) magnesium carbonate
Answer:
B) magnesium hydroxide

Question 65.
Family of chloride salts are
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) MgCl₂
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 66.
Milk of magnesia is
A) MgO
B) Mg(OH)₂
C) MgCl₂
D) Mg(HCO₃)₂
Answer:
B) Mg(OH)₂

Question 67.
The pH of milk of magnesia is
A) 7 – 8
B) 6 – 7
C) 10 – 11
D) 4 – 5
Answer:
A) 7 – 8

Question 68.
HCl + H₂O → X⁺ + Cl^– Then X may be
A) H₃O⁺
B) OH^–
C) HOCl
D) H₂O⁺
Answer:
A) H₃O⁺

Question 69.
Which of the following bases is used in antacids ?
A) Ca(OH)₂
B) NaOH
C) Mg(OH)₂
D) NH₄OH
Answer:
C) Mg(OH)₂

Question 70.
…………….. is used for treating indigestion.
A) Antibiotic
B) Analgesic
C) Antacid
D) Antiseptic
Answer:
C) Antacid

Question 71.
Antacids are used
A) to produce acid in the stomach
B) to produce water in the stomach
C) to neutralise the excess base in the Stomach
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach
Answer:
D) to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach

CONCEPT – III : pH and Its Applications

Question 72.
…………… can be used to know the strength of acid or base
A) Methyl orange
B) Phenolphthalein
C) Litmus
D) Universal indicators
Answer:
D) Universal indicators

Question 73.
The ‘p’ in pH stands for
A) potential
B) pressure
C) momentum
D) potenz
Answer:
D) potenz

Question 74.
Match the following.
a) acids — i) pH < 7 b) bases — ii) pH = 7 c) neutral — iii) pH > 7
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii
B) a → i, b →ii, c → iii
C) a → iii, b → ii, c → i
D) a → ii, b →i, c → iii
Answer:
A) a → i, b → iii, c →ii

Question 75.
Match the following.
a) acid rain — i) pH below 5.5
b) tooth decay — ii) Milkof magnesia
c) antacid — iii) pH below 5.6
d) bee sting — iv) Methanoic acid
A) a → ii, b →i, c →iii, d → iv
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv
C) a →i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
D) a → i, b →iii, c →ii, d → iv
Answer:
B) a →iii; b → i, c →ii, d →iv

Question 76.
If the soil is acidic it is treated with……
A) Calcium hydroxide
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Acetic acid
D) A or B
Answer:
D) A or B

Question 77.
If the pH of a solution is 13.8 then it is
A) weak acid
B) weak base
C) strong acid
D) strong base
Answer:
D) strong base

Question 78.
Salt formed from a weak acid and strong base pH value is ……………..
A) < 7 B) > 7
C) 7
D) ≤ 7
Answer:
B) > 7

Question 79.
pH scale is introduced by
A) Sorensen
B) Mosley
C) Schrodinger
D) C.V. Raman
Answer:
A) Sorensen

Question 80.
A solution turned pink when a drop of phenolphthalein was added to it. The probable pH .of that solution is
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 81.
Which of the following solutions has pH greater than 7 ?
A) CH₃COOH
B) NH₄Cl
C) NaCl
D) CH₃COONa
Answer:
D) CH₃COONa

Question 82.
Dissociation of ions in aqueous acetic acid is reversible process because it is a
A) weak acid
B) strong, acid
C) weak base
D) strong base
Answer:
A) weak acid

Question 83.
Tooth decay start when the pH value of mouth is
A) 5.4
B) 5.6
C) 5.7
D) 5.8
Answer:
A) 5.4

Question 84.
If a solution turns blue litmus to red then its pH is likely to be
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Answer:
A) 5

Question 85.
Metal oxide + Acid → ……………..
A) salt + metal
B) salt + water
C) base + water
D) Non metallic oxide + base
Answer:
B) salt + water

CONCEPT – IV: Sortie Common Chemicals

Question 86.
The example for salt having acidic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
C) NH₄Cl

Question 87.
The example for salt having basic nature
A) NaCl
B) KCl
C) NH₄Cl
D) CH₃COONA
Answer:
D) CH₃COONA

Question 88.
Brine solution among these is ……………….
A) NaCl(_aq )
B) KCl(_aq)
C) NH₄Cl(_aq )
D) MgCl₂(_aq )
Answer:
A) NaCl(_aq )

Question 89.
The products formed in chlor-alkali process are
i) H₂
ii) Cl₂
iii) NaOH
iv) Na₂CO₃
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 90.
The gases released at cathode and anode during chlor-alkali process
A) H₂/Cl₂
B) Cl₂,H₂
C) H₂, O₂
D) O₂, H₂
Answer:
A) H₂/Cl₂

Question 91.
Match the following
a) Bleaching powder i) NaHCO₃
b) Baking soda ii) CaOCl₂
c) Washing soda iii) HCOOH
d) Formic acid iv) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii
C) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
D) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
Answer:
B) a → ii, b →i, c → iv, d → iii

Question 92.
……………. is used for disinfecting prinking water to make it free from germs.
A) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
B) NaHCO₃
C) CaOCl₂
D) Mg(OH)₂
Answer:
C) CaOCl₂

Question 93.
Baking powder is mixture of…………….and …………….
A) Baking soda, citric acid
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid
C) Washing soda, tartaric acid
D) Washing soda, citric acid
Answer:
B) Baking soda, tartaric acid

Question 94.
……………. is used in soda – acid extinguishers
i) Baking soda
ii) NaHCO₃
iii) CaOCl₂
iv) H₂SO₄
A) only i
B) Both i and ii
C) only iii
D) Both iii and iv
Answer:
B) Both i and ii

Question 95.
Washing soda is……………salt.
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Neutral
D) Amphoteric
Answer:
B) Basic

Question 96.
The water of crystallisation of hydrous copper sulphate is
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 5

Question 97.
The colour of hydrous copper sulphate is …………………
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
C) blue

Question 98.
The colour of anhydrous copper sulphate is. …………..
A) white
B) blue
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
A) white

Question 99.
Match the following. .
a) Gypsum — i) CuSO₄. 5H₂O
b) Plaster of pans — ii) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
c) Hydrous copper sulphate — iii) CaSO₄\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
d) Anhydrous copper sulphate — iv) CuSO₄
A) a → i, b →ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv
D) a → i, b → iii, c → ii, d → iv
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iii, c → i, d → iv

Question 100.
Which of the following is an antiseptic
A) Na₂CO₃
B) NaHCO₃
C) NaCl
D) Na₂SO₄
Answer:
B) NaHCO₃

Question 101.
Match the following.
i) Milk of magnesia — CaOCl₂
ii) Gypsum — Mg(OH)₂
iii) Bleaching powder — Na₂CO₃
iv) Washing soda — CaSO₄. 2H₂O
A) i → a, ii → c, iii → d, iv → b
B) i → d, ii → b, iii → a,iv → c
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c
C) i → b, ii → d, iii → a, iv → c
Answer:
D) i → b, ii → a, iii → d, iv → c

Question 102.
Which of the following salt solutions are basic in nature
A) NaiCl
B) NH₄Cl
C) Na₂CO₃
D) KCl
Answer:
C) Na₂CO₃

Question 103.
Which of the following compound is used in glass, paper and soap industry?
A) Washing soda
B) Baking soda
C) Calcium hydroxide
D) Plaster of pads
Answer:
A) Washing soda

Question 104.
The formula of gypsum is
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O
B) CaSO₄,3H₂O
C) CaOCl₂
D) CaSO₄.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
Answer:
A) CaSO₄.2H₂O

Question 105.
The chemical formula of plaster of pans is
A) CuSO₄.5H₂O
B) CuSO₄.H₂O
C) CUSO₄.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
D) CaSO₄. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O
Answer:
D) CaSO₄. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O

Question 106.
The difference of the water molecules between gypsum and plaster of paris is
A) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
B) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
C) 2
D) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Livelihood and Struggles of Urban Workers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Ever since the Industrial Revolution, workers have been fighting for
A) a dignified life
B) share of their produce
C) several kinds of securities and rights
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Which department is concerned with the rights and securities of the workers?
A) Welfare Department
B) Labour Department
C) Department of Industry
D) Department of Employment
Answer:
B) Labour Department

Question 3.
The workers who enjoy rights and se¬curities are called ………..
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract labour
Answer:
C) Regular workers

Question 4.
The workers who do not have any securities and rights are
A) Casual workers
B) Badli workers
C) Contract labour
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
The workers who replace permanent workers in case of their absence are called
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Regular workers
D) Contract workers
Answer:
A) Badli workers

Question 6.
Most of the benefits are available to the ………… workers.
A) badli workers
B) permanent workers
C) casual labour
D) contract workers
Answer:
B) permanent workers

Question 7.
How long does a worker in a brick kiln work per day?
A) 10 hours a day
B) 8 hours a day
C) 12 hours a day
D) 14 to 16 hours a day
Answer:
D) 14 to 16 hours a day

Question 8.
How much money is paid to the worker of brick kiln per 1000 bricks?
A) Rs. 1000
B) Rs. 1500
C) Rs. 108
D) Rs. 1080
Answer:
C) Rs. 108

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belong to the informal sector?
A) selling vegetables
B) working in tea stalls
C) working as regular labour in factories
D) making bidis
Answer:
C) working as regular labour in factories

Question 10.
In the sector, in which workers are not registered as employees, there is no agreement and no protection of law or rules and regulations is called
……….. sector.
A) Formal
B) Organised
C) Informal
D) Small scale
Answer:
C) Informal

Question 11.
Which of the following may be called as bonded labourers’?
A) Permanent workers in a factory
B) Contract labourers in a factory
C) Workers who work in brick kilns
D) Casual labourers in factories
Answer:
C) Workers who work in brick kilns

Question 12.
………. are also made to protect the welfare of workers employed in fields, factories, private and government offices.
A) Laws
B) Reforms
C) Changes
D) Uses
Answer:
A) Laws

Question 13.
The department which makes laws for labour
A) Labour Department
B) Welfare Department
C) Social Welfare Department
D) Home Department
Answer:
A) Labour Department

Question 14.
The heavy industry Fibrotex was established in
A) 1974
B) 1976
C) 1980
D) 1984
Answer:
B) 1976

Question 15.
The facilities are achieved by the Trade Unions.
A) Medical tests in big hospital & leaves for treatment
B) Safety measures at the workplace
C) Protected water and transport facilities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main function of Tras Union.
A) labour welfare
B) state welfare
C) country welfare
D) all the above
Answer:
A) labour welfare

Question 17.
Many owners will not give permission to form Trade Unions – The reason is
A) more wages to be paid.
B) they may demand working hours, proper wages to work.
C) they have to provide bonuses and health insurance.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
The problem faced by labour even today.
A) the workers are taken too far off places.
B) the workers have to go to the regions of different languages and hard work throughout the day and night.
C) continuous work for months together with family members.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Workers work according to their skill and efficiency in conditions where there is no harm to their health
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
A) Right to productive and safe employment

Question 20.
The workers have time to rest from their tiring work and also have time to attend to other cultural and social interests.
A) Right to productive and safe employment
B) Right to leisure and rest
C) Right to employment security
D) Income security
Answer:
B) Right to leisure and rest

Question 21.
The workers can improve their skills and capabilities while at work.
A) Collective voice
B) Work security
C) Skill improvement
D) Income security
Answer:
C) Skill improvement

Question 22.
Daily wage workers work mostly in this sector.
A) Formal sector
B) Informal sector
C) Industrial sector
D) None
Answer:
B) Informal sector

Question 23.
This belongs to the informal sector.
A) Making of Bidis, Papads
B) Embroidery work
C) Making of Agarbattis
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
This cannot get employment as permanent workers like in factories and offices
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
There are ho trade unions for this kind of workers rights.
A) Paperboys
B) Workers in tea shops
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
Some trade unionists of …………… formed what is considered the largest trade union of the informal workers in the world.
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Telangana
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Question 27.
Mahatma Gandhi worked with this trade union
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
B) Bombay Handloom Workers Association
C) Kanchi Handloom Workers Association
D) Chirala-Perala Handloom Workers Association
Answer:
A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association

Question 28.
SEWA was formed with the help of TLA in
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1973
Answer:
B) 1971

Question 29.
SEWA became a trade union in
A) 1971
B) 1970
C) 1972
D) 1969
Answer:
C) 1972

Question 30.
SEWA means
A) Self Employed Women’s Association
B) Self Employment Women Association
C) Soldier Employment Women Association
D) Self Employment Widow Association
Answer:
A) Self Employed Women’s Association

Question 31.
As women are employs
A) can solve their problems
B) can improve their work culture
C) can stand economically
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 32.
The members of SEWA were
A) Handloom workers
B) Old/new cloth sellers
C) Housemaids
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
At present SEWA is in existence in nine states, then the members in it are ………… lakhs.
A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 16
Answer:
B) 13

Question 34.
The workers enjoy rights and securities like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory.
A) Badli workers
B) Casual labour
C) Contract labour
D) Regular workers
Answer:
D) Regular workers

Question 35.
The work comes under

A) Underemployment
B) Disguised unemployment
C) Self-employment
D) Seasonal employment
Answer:
C) Self-employment

Question 36.
Industrial Revolution first started in this country
A) the U.S.A
B) England
C) Japan
D) Germany
Answer:
B) England

Question 37.
TLA abbreviation
A) Textile Labour Association
B) Textile law Amendment
C) Three-letter abbreviation
D) Three letter Acronym
Answer:
A) Textile Labour Association

Question 38.
SEWA : 1971:: MNREGA :
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer:
D) 2005

Question 39.
This type of worker get benefits like medical insurance and paid holidays from a factory
i) Regular worker
ii) Temporary workers
iii) Casual workers
A) i only
B) i and ii only
C) i, ii and iii
D) iii only
Answer:
A) i only

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Caste Discrimination and the Struggle for Equality with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The chairperson of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
A) Dr.Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Sardar Vallabai Patel
D) Sucheta Krupalani
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
The first Union Law minister was
A) Babu Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawahar Lai Nehru
C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

Question 3.
‘Joothan’ is one autobiography of
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jyothiba Phule
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 4.
The four major caste groups, Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vysya and Sudra emerged in the times of
A) Vedas
B) Indus valley civilisation
C) Guptas
D) Mauryas
Answer:
A) Vedas

Question 5.
Mahatma Jyothiba Phule was a social reformer of ……..
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Gujarat
Answer:
A) Maharashtra

Question 6.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded by:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Narayana Guru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Periyar
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 7.
‘Satyasodhak Samaj’ was founded in:
A) 1875
B) 1873
C) 1874
D) 1871
Answer:
B) 1873

Question 8.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened at:
A) Bombay
B) Calcutta
C) Pune
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Pune

Question 9.
The country’s first girls’ school was opened by
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule
B) Savitri Bai Phule
C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
A) Jyothirao Govindarao Phule

Question 10.
Who was the first headmistress of the country’s first school for girls?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Jyothi Bai Phule
C) Nirmala Bai
D) Sarojini Bai
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 11.
Narayana Guru was born in
A) Tamilnadu
B) Kerala
C) Maharashtra
D) West Bengal
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 12.
Who preached ‘one God, one Caste, one religion for all people?
A) Periyar
B) Jyothirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayana Guru
D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
C) Narayana Guru

Question 13.
The first social and religious movement in India was:
A) Buddhism
B) Jainism
C) Hinduism
D) Judaism
Answer:
A) Buddhism

Question 14.
……….. was the first state to start a mid-day meal program.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 15.
In ……… the Supreme Court asked all the state governments to start ‘Mid-day Meal’ program in their schools.
A) 2000
B) 2001
C) 2002
D) 2004
Answer:
B) 2001

Question 16.
Many people follow the caste rules only within their own caste.
A) marry
B) occupy
C) employ
D) traditions and customs
Answer:
A) marry

Question 17.
Caste system
A) creates a relation between some classes of people
B) separates some classes of people
C) caste discrimination increases in society
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 18.
These works are treated as low
A) washing clothes
B) barbering
C) removing garbage
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 19.
Facing discrimination means
A) no permission to education
B) no right to do work as per their willing
C) no entry into school and houses of the rich
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 20.
This famous Indian leader faced caste discrimination at nine years of age in 1901.
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Abdul Kalam
C) Narendranath Dutt
D) Babu Jagajjevanram
Answer:
A) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 21.
The famous Dalit writer
A) Somasekhar
B) Prakash Badal
C) Omprakash Valmiki
D) Siddhendra Yogi
Answer:
C) Omprakash Valmiki

Question 22.
The no. of Varnas in Vedas
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 23.
The philosophers who visioned some as great by birth
A) Buddha
B) Mahavira, Ramanuja
C) Basava, Kabir, Vemana
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
In 19, 20 centuries many social reformers tried to frame a new society based on these.
A) freedom, equality
B) fraternity, respect to individual
C) economical justice
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 25.
In 19, 20 centuries these reformers tried to create a new social system based on freedom, equality, etc.
A) Jfyotirao Govindarao Phule
B) SavitriBai Phule, Periyar E.V. Rama-Sami Naickar
C) Sri Narayana Guru, Ayyankali
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The government adopted to attain equality
A) Making and executing laws
B) Hardworking for the upliftment of suppressed through
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
The Mid Day Meals Scheme was first introduced in this state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamilnadu
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Tamilnadu

Question 28.
The Mid Day Meals is maintained by ………. in all the village schools in Andhra Pradesh
A) Women SHGs
B) Children SHGs
C) Old people SHGs
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Women SHGs

Question 29.
“One caste, One Religion, One God for all men” who said these
A) J.V Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 30.
The first state to introduce a mid-day meal scheme in our country.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Maharashtra
D) Gujarat
Answer:
B) Tamil Nadu

Question 31.
The person in the picture is

A) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
B) S.B Phule
C) E.V Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
D) Narayana Guru

Question 32.
Which institution asked all the state governments to introduce mid – day meal scheme
A) Parliament
B) Planning Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) Food Commission
Answer:
C) Supreme Court

Question 33.
An appreciating work of Ramasami
A) He made people realize that all are equal
B) He preached that enjoying liberty and equality are birthrights of everyone
C) Developed rationalist ideas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
Om Prakash Valmiki: Joothan:: Satya Sodhak Samaj: ………….
A) Ambedkar
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
C) Narayan
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

Question 35.
Find the correct statement.
1. Savithri Bhai Phule was the first headmistress.
2. Narayana Guru preached brotherhood.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 36.
Match the following :
A B
1. Ambedkar [ ] A) First Union Law Minister
2. Om Prakash [ ] B) Rationalist Leader
3. Periyar [ ] C) Dalit Writer
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
Answer:
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B

Question 37.
This is not related to Ambedkar
A) First law Minister
B) Drafting Committee Chairman of Indian Constitution
C) He was born in Maharashtra
D) First Prime Minister of India
Answer:
D) First Prime Minister of India

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 17 Implementation of Laws in the District on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 17th Lesson Implementation of Laws in the District with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The capital of Andhra Pradesh is
A) Vijayawada
B) Amaravathi
C) Tirupathi
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
B) Amaravathi

Question 2.
How many districts are there in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 10
B) 23
C) 13
D) 22
Answer:
C) 13

Question 3.
Who coordinates the work of all departments in the district?
A) District Collector
B) Superintendent of police
C) Joint Collector
D) District Panchayat Officer
Answer:
A) District Collector

Question 4.
Who is called the District Magistrate?
A) Judge of the District Sessions Court
B) Judge of the District Civil court
C) Superintendent of Police
D) District Collector
Answer:
D) District Collector

Question 5.
Who conducts the meetings with the heads of all the departments in the district?
A) District Collector
B) Superintendent of Police
C) Chief Minister
D) MLA
Answer:
A) District Collector

Question 6.
The district is divided into
A) Mandals
B) Villages
C) Talukas
D) Zilla Parishads
Answer:
A) Mandals

Question 7.
Who keeps the records of all lands in Mandal?
A) Mandal Revenue Officer
B) Mandal Development Officer
C) Mandal Educational Officer
D) Sub Registrar
Answer:
A) Mandal Revenue Officer

Question 8.
Who keeps the records of the lands at the village level?
A) Village Revenue Officer
B) Village Development Officer
C) Village Revenue Assistant
D) Village Servant
Answer:
A) Village Revenue Officer

Question 9.
Andhra Pradesh Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act was made in the year
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2012
D) 2001
Answer:
B) 2002

Question 10.
When was the Water Land and Trees protection Act implemented?
A) 19 – 4 – 2001
B) 19 – 4 – 2003
C) 19 – 4- 2002
D) 19 – 4 – 2000
Answer:
C) 19 – 4- 2002

Question 11.
Whose permission is essential to dig new well?
A) District Collector’s
B) Mandal Revenue Officer’s
C) Head of the Ground Water Department
D) Mandal Development Officer’s
Answer:
B) Mandal Revenue Officer’s

Question 12.
The authority to implement the Water, Land, and Trees Protection Act was:
A) LAWTA
B) WALTA
C) TAWLA
D) MALTA
Answer:
B) WALTA

Question 13.
Which department deals with the registration of Rigs?
A) Ground Water Department
B) Municipal Administration & Urban Development Department
C) Mines and Geology Department
D) Forest Department
Answer:
A) Ground Water Department

Question 14.
Which department takes up the construction of Rainwater harvesting structures?
A) Mines and Geology Department
B) Forest Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department

Question 15.
Which department monitors sand mining in water bodies?
A) Forest Department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
B) Mines and Geology Department

Question 16.
Which department grants permission for felling trees?
A) Forest Department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Ground Water Department
D) Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department
Answer:
A) Forest Department

Question 17.
The imaginary district in the lesson.
A) Nallavaram
B) Subbavaram
C) Pallavaram
D) Mallavaram
Answer:
A) Nallavaram

Question 18.
The District Collector in Nallavaram district in the lesson.
A) Manisha Tiwari
B) Manisha Wagley
C) Manisha Koyirala
D) Manisha Nagle
Answer:
D) Manisha Nagle

Question 19.
People from all the villages come to meet Nallavaram District Collector with their problems at this time.
A) 10.30 AM to 11.30 AM
B) 11.30 AM to 12.30 AM
C) 3.00 PM to 4.30 PM
D) 4.30 PM to 5.30 PM
Answer:
C) 3.00 PM to 4.30 PM

Question 20.
After the law was passed, the government formed an authority to implement the act. It is
A) WALTA
B) WAAPA
C) WATPA
D) All of the above
Implementation of Laws in the District
Answer:
A) WALTA

Question 21.
Collector : District: : Commissioner : ……………
A) Village Panchayat
B) Zilla Parishat
C) Corporation
D) None
Answer:
C) Corporation

Question 22.
Find the wrong statement.
1. Collector is an IAS Officer.
2. Collector is appointed by Mandal Parishat.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
B) 2 only

Question 23.
Find the correct statement.
1. WALTA Act-2002
2. Forests Rights Act – 2006
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 24.
VRO : Village:: Mandal: ………
A) Village Assistant
B) MRO
C) MDO
D) None
Answer:
B) MRO

Question 25.
The district is divided into Mandals:: State is divided into ………..
A) Villages
B) Cities
C) Districts
D) Mandals
Answer:
C) Districts

Question 26.
Tehsildar is also called as
A) VRO
B) VA
C) VS
D) MRO
Answer:
D) MRO

Question 27.
Suresh is building a new house and wants to get sand from the river flowing near by his house. Which department should Suresh approach for obtaining permission for this?
A) Forest department
B) Mines and Geology Department
C) Irrigation department
D) Municipality
Answer:
B) Mines and Geology Department

Question 28.
If you need correction in your ration card you have to consult
A) Mandal Education Officer
B) Village Revenue Officer
C) Sarpanch
D) President of Mandal Parishad
Answer:
B) Village Revenue Officer

Question 29.
Which currency notes are demonetized recently?
A) 100, 50
B) 1000, 2000
C) 500, 1000
D) 100, 1000
Answer:
C) 500, 1000

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 16 Making of Laws in the State Assembly on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 16th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a body for making the laws for the state?
A) Cabinet
B) Legislative Assembly
C) High Court
D) Constitution
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly

Question 2.
Which body is responsible for implementing the laws in the state?
A) The Legislative Assembly
B) High Court
C) Cabinet
D) Supreme court
Answer:
C) Cabinet

Question 3.
Our state has MLAs.
A) 110
B) 274
C) 175
D) 284
Answer:
C) 175

Question 4.
MLAs are elected by
A) ZPTCs
B) MPTCs
C) the people directly
D) MLCs
Answer:
C) the people directly

Question 5.
When do men and women get the right to vote in our country?
A) at the age of 21
B) at the age of 24
C) at the age of 18
D) at the age of 20
Answer:
C) at the age of 18

Question 6.
Elections to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha) are held once in ……….. years.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
A) 5

Question 7.
The number of constituencies in a state will depend upon
A) Its area
B) Its population
C) Its resources
D) Its geographical features
Answer:
B) Its population

Question 8.
Nominal tenure of an elected MLA.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 9.
The normal tenure of the legislative assembly of every state is of fine but it may be dissolved earlier by the
A) Speaker
B) Governer
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
B) Governer

Question 10.
The minimum age required for a person to contest in the elections is
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
C) 25 years

Question 11.
The leader of the leading party in the assembly is called
A) Minister
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Question 12.
The leader of the second-largest party in the house is called
A) Chief Minister
B) Minister
C) Speaker
D) Opposition leader
Answer:
D) Opposition leader

Question 13.
The Chief Minister is appointed by
A) The Chief Justice of the High Court
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) President of India
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 14.
Which of the following is also called the Government?
A) The legislative Assembly
B) Cabinet
C) Chief Minister
D) Governor
Answer:
B) Cabinet

Question 15.
The Cabinet is responsible to
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) The legislative Assembly
Answer:
D) The legislative Assembly

Question 16.
Who elects the speaker of the Assembly?
A) The majority party MLAs
B) The opposition party MLA
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly
D) Speaker will not be elected.
He will be nominated by the Governor
Answer:
C) All the MLAs of the Assembly

Question 17.
Before law is passed, the proposed law is called a
A) Draft
B) Bill
C) Proposal
D) Act
Answer:
B) Bill

Question 18.
After the Bill is passed by both the Chambers it should be approved by:
A) The Chief Minister
B) Speaker
C) Governor
D) Chief Justice of High Court
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 19.
When the Governor approves a Bill, It will be called
A) A Bill
B) A Draft
C) A Gazette
D) An Act
Answer:
D) An Act

Question 20.
How many houses do the Andhra Pradesh Legislature have?
A) One
B) two
C) three
D) Four
Answer:
B) two

Question 21.
The lower house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)

Question 22.
The upper house of the A.P. Legislature is called
A) House of Lords
B) Legislative Assembly (Vidhana Sabha)
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)
D) House of Commons
Answer:
C) Legislative Council (Vidha Parishad)

Question 23.
The Andhra Pradesh Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) was created again in
A) 2005
B) 2009
C) 2007
D) 2004
Answer:
C) 2007

Question 24.
Which of the following is a permanent house?
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Legislative Council
C) Both A & B
D) Vidhan Sabha
Answer:
B) Legislative Council

Question 25.
The term of the members of the Legislative Council (Vidhana Parishad)
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 26.
The minimum age required for a person to contest as MLC (Vidhana Parishad) is
A) 21 years
B) 25 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
Answer:
C) 30 years

Question 27.
AP Legislative council (Vidhana Parishad) has members in total.
A) 294
B) 100
C) 50
D) 120
Answer:
C) 50

Question 28.
How many MLCs & are elected by the MLAs?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 29.
How many MLCs are elected by the members of local bodies?
A) 24
B) 17
C) 15
D) 7 or 8
Answer:
B) 17

Question 30.
How many MLCs are elected by the graduates?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 31.
How many MLCs are elected by the teachers?
A) 3 or 4
B) 15
C) 30
D) 8
Answer:
A) 3 or 4

Question 32.
How many members are nominated by the Governor to the Legislative Council?
A) 8
B) 30
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
A) 8

Question 33.
Governor of state is appointed by
A) The Chief Minister
B) The Prime Minister
C) The President of India
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer:
C) The President of India

Question 34.
How many constituencies are reserved for SCs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 54
D) 21
Answer:
A) 29

Question 35.
How many constituencies are reserved for STs in Andhra Pradesh?
A) 29
B) 07
C) 22
D) 21
Answer:
B) 07

Question 36.
Who do the MLA s address while speaking in Assembly?
A) The Chief Minister
B) The leader of the opposition party
C) The speaker
D) To the MLA. or the Minister he wants to speak
Answer:
C) The speaker

Question 37.
The contestant of the assembly who belongs to no political party
A) Political party contestants
B) Independents
C) Long term contestants
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Independents

Question 38.
The age limit to contest for state assembly is years.
A) 18
B) 21
C) 25
D) 30
Answer:
C) 25

Question 39.
The voter ID cards are observed by
A) Returning Officer
B) Polling Booth Officer
C) Election officer
D) None
Answer:
B) Polling Booth Officer

Question 40.
The majority of party members elect one of their members as
A) leader
B) team leader
C) woman officer
D) none
Answer:
A) leader

Question 41.
All the executive powers of the state government vests in the hands of
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 42.
Who appoints the Council of ministers and allots portfolios?
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.
D) None
Answer:
C) Governor on the advice of C.M.

Question 43.
In Andhra Pradesh, laws are made by the state legislature, which has ……….. chambers
A) two
B) one
C) three
D) None
Answer:
A) two

Question 44.
The place the problems of the people before the assembly.
A) MLAs
B) Legislative Assemblies
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) MLAs

Question 45.
………….. conducts the Assembly meetings.
A) Speaker
B) CM
C) MLA
D) None
Answer:
A) Speaker

Question 46.
Both Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are declared as two states
A) 2010 June 2nd
B) 2014 June 2nd
C) 2016 June 2nd
D) 2015 June 1st
Answer:
B) 2014 June 2nd

Question 47.
The no. of members to Vidhana Parishad (legislative council) who are elected by the graduates.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/2
C) 1/6th
D) 1/10th
Answer:
B) 1/2

Question 48.
The governor nominates persons to Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/12th
C) 1/6th
D) 1/8th
Answer:
C) 1/6th

Question 49.
The no. of Indo-Indians that are appointed to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
C) 1

Question 50.
The no. allotted to schedule caste people to Andhra Pradesh assembly.
A) 10
B) 29
C) 12
D) 1
Answer:
B) 29

Question 51.
This share is elected by the MLAs to Andhra Pradesh Vidhana Parishad.
A) 1/3rd
B) 1/6th
C) 1/12 th
D) None
Answer:
A) 1/3rd

Question 52.

Once upon a time the picture is
A) A.P Assembly
B) T.S Assembly
C) Kerala Assembly
D) None
Answer:
A) A.P Assembly

Question 53.

What does the map show?
A) Districts
B) Regions
C) Legislating constituencies
D) None
Answer:
C) Legislating constituencies

Question 54.
How many, constituencies are there at present in A.P Assembly?
A) 294
B) 175
C) 180
D) 194
Answer:
B) 175

Question 55.

• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the MLA’s.
• 17 members (1/3) are elected by the members who were elected to Local Bodies like panchayats and municipalities.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Graduates.
• 3 or 4 members (1/12) are elected from Teachers.
• 8 members (1/6) are nominated by the Governor.

Q. Who nominated members to Legislative Council?
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Governor
D) Vice President
Answer:
C) Governor

Question 56.
What is the share of MLCs elected by the MLAs?
A) 1/2
B) 1/6
C) 1/3
D) 3/4
Answer:
C) 1/3

Question 57.
What is the share MLCs elected by teachers?
A) 1/4
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/12
Answer:
D) 1/12

Question 58.
The Indian President is elected by
A) Prime Minister
B) Vice President
C) An Electoral college
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
C) An Electoral college

Question 59.
A bill introduced in the State Assembly can become an act only with the approval of
A) Governor
B) Speaker
C) Chief Minister
D) Finance Minister
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 60.
To consider the bill as an Act, it should get
A) Approval of Chief Minister
B) Approval of Governor
C) Approval of Vidhana Sabha and Vidhana Parishad
D) B and C
Answer:
B) Approval of Governor

Question 61.
Different ministries are allotted to the members of the state cabinet by
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chief Minister
D) High court Chief justice
Answer:
C) Chief Minister

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Establishment of the British Empire in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson Establishment of the British Empire in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When did the East India company acquire a charter from the ruler of England?
A) In 1600 AD
B) In 1606 AD
C) In 1611 AD
D) In 1616 AD
Answer:
A) In 1600 AD

Question 2.
Which European country first established its trade relationship with India?
A) England
B) France
C) Holland
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 3.
Where did Portugal have their trade base in India?
A) Madras
B) Machilipatnam
C) Goa
D) Calcutta
Answer:
C) Goa

Question 4.
Vasco da Gama was a ………… explorer.
A) French
B) English
C) Portuguese
D) Dutch
Answer:
C) Portuguese

Question 5.
……………. discovered the sea route to India.
A) Maegallan
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Columbus
D) Captain cook
Answer:
B) Vasco da Gama

Question 6.
Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India in the year.
A) In 1452 AD
B) In 1492 AD
C) In 1498 AD
D) In 1600 AD
Answer:
C) In 1498 AD

Question 7.
The correct chronological order of the arrival of European companies into India to have trade relations with it.
A) English, Portuguese, French, and Dutch
B) English, French, Dutch and Portuguese
C) English, Dutch, French, and Portuguese
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English
Answer:
D) Portuguese, Dutch, French, and English

Question 8.
The last European country to enter into India to have trade relations with it was
A) Portugal
B) France
C) Holland
D) England
Answer:
D) England

Question 9.
Who defeated Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot?
A) Portuguese
B) French
C) English
D) Dutch
Answer:
B) French

Question 10.
When did the Battle of Arcot take place between the Nawab of Arcot and the French?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1763 AD
D) In 1762 AD
Answer:
B) In 1764 AD

Question 11.
Dupleix was the governor of
A) English East India Company
B) French East India Company
C) Dutch East India Company
D) Portuguese East India Company
Answer:
B) French East India Company

Question 12.
Who was Muzaffar Jang?
A) The Nizam of Deccan
B) The Nawab of Arcot
C) The Nawab of Bijapur
D) The Nawab of Bedar
Answer:
A) The Nizam of Deccan

Question 13.
Which port town was gifted to the French by the Nizam of Deccan?
A) Machilipatnam
B) Madras
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Krishnapatnam
Answer:
A) Machilipatnam

Question 14.
When did the Battle of Plassey take place?
A) In 1757 AD
B) In 1764 AD
C) In 1769 AD
D) In 1763 AD
Answer:
A) In 1757 AD

Question 15.
Who was the Nawab of Bengal who fought with the English in the battle of Plassey?
A) Sirajuddaula
B) Mir Jaffer
C) Mir Khasim
D) Anwaruddin Khan
Answer:
A) Sirajuddaula

Question 16.
Who defeated Sirajuddaula in the battle of Plassey?
A) The English
B) The French
C) The Portuguese
D) The Dutch
Answer:
A) The English

Question 17.
Who was the founder of English rule in India?
A) Robert dive
B) Warren Hastings
C) Wellesly
D) Cornwallis
Answer:
A) Robert dive

Question 18.
Which battle was the beginning for the English to conquer many Indian kingdoms?
A) Battle of Plassey
B) Battle of Wandwasi
C) Battle of Buxar
D) Battle of Arcot
Answer:
A) Battle of Plassey

Question 19.
Who gave away the Northern sarkars to the English?
A) Nizam of Hyderabad
B) Nawab of Bengal
C) Nawab of Mysore
D) Nawab of Bijapur
Answer:
A) Nizam of Hyderabad

Question 20.
Which kingdom did Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan belong to?
A) Mysore
B) Hyderabad
C) Arcot
D) Maratha
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 21.
When did the revolt of Sipahis take place?
A) In 1857
B) In 1757
C) In 1763
D) In 1858
Answer:
A) In 1857

Question 22.
Where did the 1857 revolt start first?
A) In Meerut
B) In Delhi
C) In Paniput
D) In Barrackpur
Answer:
A) In Meerut

Question 23.
On which date of 1857 the revolt started in Meerut?
A) May 11
B) May 09
C) May 10
D) May 21
Answer:
C) May 10

Question 24.
After the rebellion at Meerut was over, the rebellions soldiers marched towards
A) Mathura
B) Aligarh
C) Jhansi
D) Delhi
Answer:
D) Delhi

Question 25.
Who was the last Mughal emperor?
A) Shah Alam
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar
C) Aurangazeb
D) Akbar – II
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Question 26.
After the 1857 revolt, Bahadur Shah Zafar was imprisoned in …………
A) Lai Quila
B) Rangoon
C) Andaman
D) Tihar
Answer:
B) Rangoon

Question 27.
When was the declaration by Queen Victoria made?
A) In 1857
C) In 1858
B) In 1859
D) In I860
Answer:
C) In 1858

Question 28.
The Mughal ruler, ……….. granted Robert dive the right to rule Bengal.
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Alam
P) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer:
C) Shah Alam

Question 29.
Anrangpzeh died in
A) 1700
B) 1707
C) 1709
D) 1711
Answer:
B) 1707

Question 30.
The English East India Company was established in
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1650
D) 1750
Answer:
A) 1600

Question 31.
The East India Company was mainly a trade organization that depended on the profits
A) industries
B) trade
C) agriculture
D) none
Answer:
B) trade

Question 32.
Bahadur Shah Zafar and his sons being arrested by
A) Cap Williamson
B) Captain Hodson
C) Cap William
D) None
Answer:
B) Captain Hodson

Question 33.
These Indian goods had the best demand in Europe.
A) cotton
B) silk
C) spices
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 34.
These two companies fought for many years to capture trade in India.
A) The English & French
B) The Portugese & Dutch
C) The English & Dutch
D) The French & Portugese
Answer:
A) The English & French

Question 35.
The wealth that was accumulated in this way one of the most important factors that enabled England to devleop industries and establish
A) their dominance in the country
B) dominance in the world
C) dominance over shipping
D) all of the above
Answer:
B) dominance in the world

Question 36.
As long as this empire was strong, it had not been possible for the European companies to establish their own military power in India.
A) Delhi Sultans
B) Mughals
C) Sivaji
D) Qutub Shahis
Answer:
B) Mughals

Question 37.
Some years after the death of Aurangazeb, these different provinces of the empire became almost independent and were ruled by their respective governors which nominally acknowledged, the Mughal emperor as their supreme.
A) Bengal
B) Awadh
C) Hyderabad
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
In …………… AD, Nawab Anwaruddin Khan of Arcot sent his army to fight against the French company.
A) 1760
B) 1764
C) 1780
D) 1784
Answer:
B) 1764

Question 39.
The rulers also gifted the companies large amounts of ………….. in return for their military help.
A) cash
B) capital
C) investment
D) trade
Answer:
A) cash

Question 40.
Barrackpur was nearer to this city
A) Bombay
B) Agra
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Kolkata

Question 41.
The English East India Company also forced the Nizam of Hyderabad to handover the Northern Sarkars with these districts
A) Krishna
B) East & West Godavari districts
C) Visakhapatnam, Vijayanagaram
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
An English official is known as the would-be assigned to stay in the court of the kings and Nawabs.
A) Resident
B) Government executive
C) Official ruler
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Resident

Question 43.
The English lost their power in North India during the war in this year.
A) 1860
B) 1857
C) 1880
D) 1864
Answer:
B) 1857

Question 44.
The royal families revolted in 1857.
A) Nana Sahib
B) Tantia Tope
C) Jhansi Lakshmi Bai
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
This was declared as the Indian emperor during the 1857 revolution
A) Bahadur Shah – II
B) Bahadur Shah – I
C) Khasikhan
D) Jalandhar Shah
Answer:
A) Bahadur Shah – II

Question 46.
One of the revolts against the British in Hyderabad during the 1857 revolt
A) Chengiz Khan
B) Turrebaz Khan
C) Shaistha Khan
D) None
Answer:
B) Turrebaz Khan

Question 47.
The main reason for the failure of the 1857 revolt
A) It was not widespread throughout the country
B) All did not participate in the revolution
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
C) All the above

Question 48.
The fires of the revolution spread to all the villages in these states
A) U.P.
B) Bihar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 49.
The emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was arrested and sent to here in 1857 revolution
A) Rangoon
B) Delhi
C) Lucknow
D) Dhaka
Answer:
A) Rangoon

Question 50.
The picture is

A) Red fort
B) Gol Gumboz
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London
D) The headquarters of Portuguese East India Company in India
Answer:
C) The headquarters of East India Company in London

Question 51.

What is the specialty of the person in the picture?
A) He made good relations with India
B) He discovered a sea route to India
C) He was the founder of the Mughal empire
D) He was a viceroy of Britain
Answer:
B) He discovered a sea route to India

Question 52.

What was the historical incident shown in the picture?
A) Zagirdars revolted against Mughals
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857
C) Polygars revolts
D) Razakars movement
Answer:
B) Sipahi revolt at Meerut in 1857

Question 53.

Who was arrested in the picture?
A) Aurangzeb and his sons
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons
C) Shivaji and his son
D) None
Answer:
B) Bahadur Shah and his sons

Question 54.
‘The Europeans discovered a sea route to India”. The reason is
A) To conquer India
B) To develop their trade
C) Indians asked them to do trade
D) All the above
Answer:
B) To develop their trade

Question 55.
The Indian ruler gifted the companies large amounts of money” because
A) For their military help
B) For their trading activities
C) For paying taxes on goods
D) All the above
Answer:
A) For their military help

Question 56.
The Revolt of 1857 suppressed by the English easily”. The reason is
A) They did not fight together
B) The Siphis revolt only one place
C) It was spread only in villages
D) None
Answer:
A) They did not fight together

Question 57.
Delhi: …………..:: Tajmahal: Agra
A) Lai Quila
B) Rama Mandir (Ramajanma Bhoomi)
C) St. Peters Church
D) Mecca Masjid
Answer:
A) Lai Quila

Question 58.

Which area is not under British rule?
A) Mysore
B) Calcutta
C) Benaras
D) Bombay
Answer:
A) Mysore

Question 59.
Battle of Plassey: 1757 A.D:: Battle of Buxar: ……………..
A) 1857
B) 1864
C) 1762
D) 1764
Answer:
D) 1764

Question 60.
1857 : Queen Victoria : : 2018 : ……………
A) Princes
B) William
C) Queen Elizabeth
D) Princes Dayana
Answer:
C) Queen Elizabeth

Question 61.
The Battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Question 62.
The following person does not relate with sepoys revolt
A) Gandhiji
B) Rani of Jhansi
C) Nana Saheb
D) Tantiya Tope
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 63.
The battle of Plassey is an important event in Indian history because :
A) The British were defeated in the war
B) British rule started in India with that war
C) Nawab of Arcot was defeated in the war
D) The war occurred in 1764 A.D.
Answer:
B) British rule started in India with that war

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Mughal Empire on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson Mughal Empire with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Originally Mughals belonged to these countries in central Asia.
A) Iran
B) Arabia
C) Egypt
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan
Answer:
D) Mongolia and Uzbekistan

Question 2.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Babur
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 3.
When did Babur become the ruler of Delhi?
A) 1504 A.D.
B) 1523 A.D.
C) 1526 A.D.
D) 1530 A.D.
Answer:
C) 1526 A.D.

Question 4.
Who was the Sultan of Delhi, when Babur captured it?
A) Secunder Lodi
B) Ibrahim Lodi
C) Dahir
D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Answer:
B) Ibrahim Lodi

Question 5.
Who established the Mughal empire in Delhi?
A) Jahangir
B) Sher Shah
C) Babur
D) Akbar
Answer:
C) Babur

Question 6.
Which Mughal emperor introduced guns and cannons to the Indian war fare?
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Jahangir
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Babur

Question 7.
Which of the following was not a Mughal ruler?
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Sher Shah
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
C) Sher Shah

Question 8.
When did Humayun recapture Delhi from Sher khan?
A) 1530 A.D
B) 1555 A.D
C) 1556 A.D
D) 1540 A D
Answer:
B) 1555 A.D

Question 9.
Who was the youngest to become a Mughal ruler?
A) Humayun
B) Akbar
C) Aurangazeb
D) ShahJahan
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 10.
In whose reign the war of succession took place?
A) Shah Jahan’s
B) Jahangir’s
C) Akbar’s
D) Aurangazeb’s
Answer:
A) Shah Jahan’s

Question 11.
Which Mughal emperor was imprisoned for the rest of his life?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
C) Shah Jahan

Question 12.
Who established the Maratha kingdom?
A) Shivaji
B) Balaji Viswanath
C) Sambhaji
D) Baji Rao
Answer:
A) Shivaji

Question 13.
Shivaji was the contemporary of
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Babur
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 14.
“As the Mughals became powerful many other rulers joined them voluntarily” – Who was the best example for this?
A) Sikhs
B) Marathas
C) Rajputs
D) Bahmani Sultans
Answer:
C) Rajputs

Question 15.
Which Mughal officials were given the tasks of guarding the palace, governing a province, conquering a new kingdom?
A) Jagirdars
B) Mansabdars
C) Zamindars
D) Chieftains
Answer:
B) Mansabdars

Question 16.
Mansabdars should maintain a specified number of
A) Cavalry
B) Elephantry
C) Infantry
D) Cannon operators
Answer:
A) Cavalry

Question 17.
In whose reign were jagirs carefully assessed?
A) Sher Shah’s
B) Akbar’s
C) Shah Jahan’s
D) Jahangir’s
Answer:
B) Akbar’s

Question 18.
Officers of revenue assignments – nayankaras in the Vijayanagara kingdom were called
A) Mansabdars
B) Jagirdars
C) Nayakas
D) Amirs
Answer:
C) Nayakas

Question 19.
Todar Mai was the revenue minister of
A) Sher Shah
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 20.
‘Zabt’ means:
A) confiscation of property of a farmer who could not pay his taxes
B) maintenance of cavalry by mansabdars
C) the revenue system of Mughals
D) the religious tradition of Muslims
Answer:
C) the revenue system of Mughals

Question 21.
‘Jagirdars’ in Mughal administration were
A) Policemen
B) Revenue officials
C) Military officers
D) Village headmen
Answer:
B) Revenue officials

Question 22.
Who wrote the book ‘Akbar Nama’?
A) Akbar
B) Abul Fazl
C) Amir Khiisro
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 23.
Which Mughal ruler started the discussions on religion with the scholars of all religions?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Humayun
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 24.
‘Sulh-i-kul’ means:
A) honesty
B) Justice
C) Truthfulness
D) Universal peace
Answer:
D) Universal peace

Question 25.
Which Mughal emperor first got the idea of Sulh-i-kul?
A) Akbar
B) Humayun
C) Aurangazeb
D) Shah Jahan
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 26.
Which of the Mughal rulers deviated from the policy of ‘Sulh-i-kul’?
A) Akbar
B) Shah Jahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 27.
Which Mughal emperor framed the vi¬sion of governance?
A) Akbar
B) Jahangir
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Akbar

Question 28.
Which Mughal emperor showed favour to Sunni Muslims?
A) Aurangazeb
B) Akbar
C) Shah Jahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
A) Aurangazeb

Question 29.
The founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty.
A) Muzafar Jung
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk
C) Nasar Jung
D) Sikander Jah
Answer:
B) Nizam-ul-Mulk

Question 30.
Nizam-ul-Mulk ruled for ……. years.
A) 24
B) 34
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
A) 24

Question 31.
Who of the following was the Prime Minister of the Nizams between 1853 and 1883?
A) Mir Mahabub Ali Pasha
B) Nasar Jung
C) Salabat Jung
D) Salar Jung
Answer:
D) Salar Jung

Question 32.
Musi floods occurred in
A) 1938
B) 1928
C) 1918
D) 1908
Answer:
D) 1908

Question 33.
Sisodiya Rajputs belong to
A) Uzbekistan
B) Magnolia
C) Chittoor
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Chittoor

Question 34.
…………. started a revenues system known as zabt
A) Todarmal
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
A) Todarmal

Question 35.
The year in which Babur conquered Kabul.
A) 1500 AD
B) 1504 AD
C) 1520 AD
D) 1526 AD
Answer:
B) 1504 AD

Question 36.
The year in which Babur defeated the Delhi Sultan Ibrahim Lodi and occupied Delhi & Agra.
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1535
Answer:
B) 1526

Question 37.
The year of the first Panipat war.
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1527
D) 1528
Answer:
A) 1526

Question 38.
The person who defeated Humayun.
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Sher khan
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
C) Sher khan

Question 39.
The Iranian emperor that helped Humayun.
A) Dara-Shukoa
B) Safavid Shah
C) Shershah
D) Akbar
Answer:
B) Safavid Shah

Question 40.
Humayun died in ………
A) 1526
B) 1530
C) 1555
D) 1556
Answer:
D) 1556

Question 41.
Humayun re-occupied Delhi in
A) 1520
B) 1526
C) 1530
D) 1555
Answer:
D) 1555

Question 42.
The age of Akbar at the time of his crowning.
A) 12 years
B) 13 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
B) 13 years

Question 43.
The Mughal rule was expanded in Deccan region by
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Humayun
D) Shahjahan
Answer:
D) Shahjahan

Question 44.
There was a conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan’s sons in
A) 1657-58
B) 1667-68
C) 1677-78
D) 164748
Answer:
A) 1657-58

Question 45.
Sivaji established an independent Maharashtra empire during the rule of this Mughal emperor
A) Akbar
B) Shajahan
C) Aurangazeb
D) Jahangir
Answer:
C) Aurangazeb

Question 46.
Identify the mismatch.
1) Babur – 1526-1530 AD
2) Humayun – 1530 – 1556 AD
3) Akbar – 1556 – 1605 AD
4) Jahangir -1605 – 1627 AD
5) Shahjahan – 1627 – 1658 AD
6) Aurangazeb – 1658 – 1707 AD
A) 1,2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 5
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 47.
These Rajputs of Chittore did not accept or recognize the supremacy of Mughals for many days.
A) Pala dynasty
B) Prathihara dynasty
C) Sisodiya dynasty
D) None
Answer:
C) Sisodiya dynasty

Question 48.
This princess was the mother of Jahangir
A) Amber
B) Jodhpur
C) Gujarat
D) Ahmed Nagar
Answer:
A) Amber

Question 49.
This princess was the mother of Shahjahan
A) Jaipur
B) Jodhpur
C) Malavi
D) Ahmed N.agar
Answer:
B) Jodhpur

Question 50.
During the Mughal rule, the ………….. ‘s military responsibilities required him to maintain a specified number of horse riders or cavalrymen.
A) Mansabdar
B) Shiqdar
C) Mukthi
D) DIWAN – E – Rasalat
Answer:
A) Mansabdar

Question 51.
The no. of mansabdars increased during the rule of this Mughal emperor.
A) Akbar
B) Aurangazeb
C) Shahjahan
D) Jahangir
Answer:
B) Aurangazeb

Question 52.
The main source of income to the Mughal ruler.
A) tax on traders
B) tax on artists
C) tax on agricultural products
D) tax on beggars
Answer:
C) tax on agricultural products

Question 53.
The finance minister of Akbar.
A) Necker
B) Taylor
C) Ranapratap
D) Todar Mai
Answer:
D) Todar Mai

Question 54.
Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops. This revenue system was known as
A) Zabt
B) Mabt
C) Jalabandi
D) Jaumabandi
Answer:
A) Zabt

Question 55.
The broad features of administration were laid down by Akbar land were elaborately discussed by his friend and member of his court, Abul Fazl in
his book the …………..
A) Akbar-Nama
B) Ain-I-Akbari
C) Padshah-Nama
D) None
Answer:
A) Akbar-Nama

Question 56.
Akbar felt in his mind
A) religious intolerance
B) Sulh-i-kul
C) Racial discrimination
D) None
Answer:
B) Sulh-i-kul

Question 57.
…………… helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-ikul
A) Jahangir
B) Abul Fazl
C) Khusru
D) Amir Khusru
Answer:
B) Abul Fazl

Question 58.
The religious policy followed by Aurangazeb
A) Shia
B) Sunni
C) Hindu
D) Persian
Answer:
B) Sunni

Question 59.
The no. of higher grade Mansabdars out of 8000 in the Mughal empire.
A) 440
B) 450
C) 445
D) 455
Answer:
C) 445

Question 60.
The reason to get the idea of Sulh – i – Kul by Akbar is
A) To create harmony among the various religious people
B) To create discrimination among the people
C) To impress Abul Fazal, his friend
D) To conquer the whole of India
Answer:
A) To create harmony among the various religious people

Question 61.
The cause of rebellions of Zamindars during the reign of Mughals
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator
B) Shortage of Jagirdars
C) The campaigns of Mughal kings
D) The generosity of Mughals
Answer:
A) To exploitation of Mughal administrator

Question 62.
Din -1 – Ilahi was belongs to
A) Jahangir
B) Akbar
C) Shabjahan
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Akbar

Question 63.

What does the map show?
A) Cholas kingdom
B) Pandyas kingdom
C) Chalukyas kingdom
D) Akbar’s kingdom
Answer:
D) Akbar’s kingdom

Question 64.
The present state is nearer to the Tropic of Cancer.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisa
C) Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) Bengal

Question 65.
The mother of Jahangir was a daughter Of the Rajput ruler of
A) Sindh
B) Amber
C) Chittor
D) Ajmer
Answer:
B) Amber

Question 66.
The Sisodiya Rajputs who refused to accept Mughal authority for a long time belonged to
A) Multan
B) Bijapur
C) Chittor
D) Gondwana
Answer:
C) Chittor

Question 67.
Find out the correct statement
1. Those who joined the Mughal service were enrolled as Mansabdars.
2. Those who look after the administration of Mughals were known as Amaranayakas.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 only

Question 68.
Mughals : Mansabdars : : Kakatiyas : …………
A) Nayankaras
B) Jagirdars
C) Zamindars
D) None
Answer:
A) Nayankaras

Question 69.
Match the following:
A) Humayun        [ ]        1) 1556 -1605 A.D
B) Akbar              [ ]        2) 1530- 1556 A.D
C) Aurangzeb      [ ]        3) 1658 – 1707 A.D
A) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
Answer:
B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3

Question 70.
Put the following in chronological order
1. Akbar captured Sisodiya.
2. Aurangzeb campaigned against the Yasufzai.
3. Babar defeated the Rajputs at Chanderi.
A) 3, 1, 2
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3, 2, 1
Answer:
A) 3, 1, 2

Question 71.
Akbar was ………… years old when he became the emperor
A) 15
B) 14
C) 12
D) 13
Answer:
D) 13

Question 72.
Din – I – Ilahi: Akbar:: ……………. : Shahjahan
A) Red fort
B) Kakatiya toranam
C) Hawa Manzil
D) Dharma saala
Answer:
A) Red fort

Question 73.
Who introduced cannons and guns in Indian warfare?
A) Muhammad Ghori
B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
C) Sri Krishna Devaraya
D) Babur
Answer:
D) Babur

Question 74.
The Arabic book “Kitab-al-Hind” is written by
A) Abul Fazal
B) Al-Biruni
C) Jahangir
D) Mohammad of Ghazni
Answer:
B) Al-Biruni

Question 75.
Which of the following show the correct chronological order of the Mughal emperors.
A) Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Akbar – Jahangir
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb
C) Akbar – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb – Jahangir
D) Shah Jahan – Akbar – Jahangir – Aurangzeb
Answer:
B) Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan – Aurangzeb

Question 76.
Mansabdari system belongs to
A) Mughals
B) Delhi Sultans
C) Cholas
D) Vijayanagara rulers
Answer:
A) Mughals

Question 77.
Which monument belongs to Mughals?
A) Virupaksha temple
B) Padma Mahal
C) Alai darwaja
D) Taj Mahal
Answer:
D) Taj Mahal

Question 78.
The first Mughal emperor was
A) Akbar
B) Babar
C) Humayun
D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
B) Babar

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Structure of Atom on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 6th Lesson Structure of Atom with Answers

CONCEPT -I: Electromagnetic ctrum

Question 1.
Match the following:
a) Electron — ii) Negatively charged particle
c) Neutron — iii) Neutral particle
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii
B) c → i, b → ii, a → iii
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iii
D) a → ii, b → iii, c → i
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → i, c → iii

Question 2.
The sub atomic particles present in an atom……………
i) electron
ii) proton
iii) neutron
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 3.
The number of colours in rainbow
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
C) 7

Question 4.
A vibrating charge produces ………………..
A) MechMhical wave
B) Stationary wave
C) Longitudinal wave
D) Electromagnetic wave
Answer:
D) Electromagnetic wave

Question 5.
Electromagnetic wave travels with a speed of …………….
A) 3 x 10⁷ m/s
B) 3 x 10⁶ m/s
C) 3 x 10⁸ m/s
D) 3 x 10⁹ m/s
Answer:
C) 3 x 10⁸ m/s

Question 6.
Electromagnetic energy is charecterized by………………
i) wavelength
ii) amplitude
iii) frequency
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
C) both i and iii

Question 7.
The distance between two successive peaks of a wave is …………….
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Wavelength
D) Speed
Answer:
C) Wavelength

Question 8.
The relation between frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic wave
A) λ ∝ υ
B) λ = υ
C) λ ∝ 1/υ
D) none of these
Answer:
C) λ ∝ 1/υ

Question 9.
Formation of rainbow is example of …………….. spectrum.
A) UV
B) IR
C) RADIO
D) Visible
Answer:
D) Visible

Question 10.
V = υλ, is applicable for……………..
A) longitudinal waves
B) transverse waves
C) electromagnetic waves
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 11.
Red has …………………. wavelength and …………………. frequency.
A) maximum, maximum
B) minimum, maximum
C) maximum, minimum
D) minimum, minimum
Answer:
C) maximum, minimum

Question 12.
Quantum theory was proposed by……………….
A) Einsteiry
B) Maxwell
C) Max Planck
D) Newton
Answer:
C) Max Planck

Question 13.
Planck’s equation is …………..
A) E = hυ
B) E = h/υ
C) E = υ/h
D) None of these
Answer:
A) E = hυ

Question 14.
Which of the following are correct statements:
P: E = ko is called Planck’s equation
Q: ‘h’ is called Planck’s constant
R: ‘h’ value is 6.626 x 10^-34J
S: According to Planck electro-magnetic energy is always emitted in multiples of h/υ
A) onlyP
B) PandQ
C) P, Q and R
D) All of these
Answer:
C) P, Q and R

Question 15.
When an iron rod is heated first it turns to
A) violet
B) red
C) green
D) orange
Answer:
B) red

Question 16.
Cupric chloride produces ………….. colour flame.
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
B) green

Question 17.
Strontium chloride produces……………… colour flame.
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer:
A) red

Question 18.
…………….. vapours produce yellow light in street lamps.
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer:
B) Sodium

Question 19.
Elements emit characteristic colours correspond to certain discrete wave¬lengths of light are called ……………..
A) bond spectra
B) absorption spectra
C) line spectra
D) both A and B
Answer:
C) line spectra

Question 20.
Line spectra is formed by ………………
A) atoms
B) molecules
C) ions
D) protons
Answer:
A) atoms

Question 21.
From the figure, the wavelength of Cosmic rays is………

A) 10^-3 m
B) 10^-9 m
C) 10³ m
D) 10^-12 m
Answer:
D) 10^-12 m

Question 22.
The wavelength range of. visible spectrum is……….
A) <400 nm B) >700 nm
C) 400 nm – 700 nm
D) 1mm-lm
Answer:
C) 400 nm – 700 nm

Question 23.
In this figure magnetic field and electric field are………. each other.

A) parallel to
B) perpendicular to
C) intersect
D) None of these
Answer:
B) perpendicular to

Question 24.
From the figure match the following:
a) X-rays — i) 700nm-1000nm
b) IRrays — ii) lm to 1 km
c) Radio rays — iii) Above 1 km
d) Broadcast — iv) 0.01 to 10 nm bond
A) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii
B) a →i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → n
D) a → iii, b → iv, c →i, d → ii
Answer:
A) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii

Question 25.
…………. are used in Radar.
A) UVrays
B) IRrays
C) Microwaves
D) X-rays
Answer:
C) Microwaves

Question 26.
An emission spectrum consists of , bright spectral lines on a dark back ground. Which one of the following does not correspond to the bright j spectral lines ?
A) Frequency of emitted radiation
B) Wavelength of emitted radiation
C) Energy of emitted radiation
D) Velocity of light
Answer:
D) Velocity of light

Question 27.
The colour in the sequence VIBGYOR that has least wavelength is …………….
A) yellow
B) red
C) green
D) violet
Answer:
D) violet

Question 28.
Which electromagnetic waves are sensitive to our eyes ?
A) X – rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) Visible rays
D) Microwaves
Answer:
C) Visible rays

Question 29.
Rainbow is a …………….. spectrum.
A) continuous
B) discontinuous
C) visible
D) both A and C
Answer:
D) both A and C

CONCEPT – II :Atomic model Bohr’s model & Sommer feld’s model

Question 30.
Stationary orbits are proposed by
A) Rutherford
B) Thomson
C) Newton
D) Neils Bohr
Answer:
D) Neils Bohr

Question 31.
The energies of an electron in an orbit of atom can have only certain values. These orbits are called……………..
i) stationary orbits
ii) stationary states
iii) energy level,
A) only i
B) only ii
C) only iii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 32.
The energy is quantized means ………………
A) Energy is fixed
B) Energy would increase
C) Energy would decrease
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Energy is fixed

Question 33.
Lowest energy state of an electron is known as ……..
A) excited states
B) ground state
C) fixed state
D) rest state
Answer:
B) ground state

Question 34.
Higher energy state of an electron is known as ………..
A) ground state
B) excited state
C) neutral state
D) fixed state
Answer:
B) excited state

Question 35.
The spectrum formed due to excited electron come back to ground state is ………………….
i) absorption spectrum
ii) emission spectrum
iii) fine spectrum
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all
Answer:
B) only ii

Question 36.
When electron absorbs energy from surroundings and moves to excited state the spectrum formed is ……………..
A) Emission spectrum
B) Absorption spectrum
C) Fine spectrum
D) Continuous spectrum
Answer:
B) Absorption spectrum

Question 37.
In the following statements which is not correct for Bohr’s model
A) It explains the spectrum of hydrogen
B) It unable to explain spectra of elements having more than one electron
C) It explains fine spectrum of hydrogen atom
D) Unable to explain Zeeman effect
Answer:
C) It explains fine spectrum of hydrogen atom

Question 38.
Elliptical orbits were introduced by ……………..
A) Neils Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Planck
D) Maxwell
Answer:
B) Sommerfeld

Question 39.
The number of elliptical orbits present in Bohr’s third orbit
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 40.
Quantum mechanical model was proposed by ………………..
A) Neils Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Erwin Schrodinger
D) Lande
Answer:
C) Erwin Schrodinger

Question 41.
If n = 4 then the orbit is represented as ………………….
A) K
B) L
C) M
D) N
Answer:
D) N

Question 42.
The maximum number of electrons that can be occupied in a given shell is………………
A) n²
B) n
C) 2n
D) 2n²
Answer:
D) 2n²

Question 43.
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the L- shell of an atom is …………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
B) 8

Question 44.
Maximum number of electrons M shell contain is …………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
C) 18

Question 45.
Match the following:
a) n = 1 — i) L
b) n = 2 — ii) N
c) n = 3 — iii) K
d) n = 4 — iv) M
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iii, b→ i, c → iv, d → ii
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d→i
D) a → ii, b→ i, c → iii, d → iv
Answer:
B) a → iii, b→ i, c → iv, d → ii

Question 46.
Bohr’s model explain the line spectra of ………
A) H⁺ ion
B) Hatom
C) He atom
D) Li⁺ ion
Answer:
D) Li⁺ ion

Question 47.
If an element has 3 electrons in the M-shell then the element is …………………
A) Mg
B) Al
C) Si
D) Na
Answer:
B) Al

Question 48.
If number of electrons in M-shell is half of K-shell then atomic number and name of element.
A) 12, Magnesium
B) 11, Sodium
C) 13, Aluminium
D) 14, Silicon
Answer:
B) 11, Sodium

Question 49.
When an electron jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit in an atom the energy is …………….
A) absorbed
B) emitted
C) not changed
D) depends on atom
Answer:
B) emitted

CONCEPT – III: Quantum

Question 50.
The region of space around the nucleus where the probability of finding electron is maximum is called…………..
A) orbit
B) sub orbit
C) orbital
D) none of these
Answer:
C) orbital

Question 51.
The information given by principal quantum number……………….
i) size of the orbit
ii) energy of the orbit
iii) orientation of orbitals in space
iv) spin of electrons
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
B) both i and ii

Question 52.
For’n’the minimum value is . and the maximum value is….
A) 1, ∝
B) 0, n-1
C) -n, +n
D) 0, n+1
Answer:
A) 1, ∝

Question 53.
The quantum number which explains about size and energy of the orbit or shell is ……………
A) n
B) l
C) m_l
D) m_s
Answer:
A) n

Question 54.
For l the minimum value is ……………… and the maximum value is
A) 0, l
B) 0,n-1
C) -l, +l
D) -n, n
Answer:
B) 0,n-1

Question 55.
Match the following:
a) l = 0 — i) d – sub shell
b) 1 = 1 — ii) s – sub shell
c) 7 = 2 — iii) f – sub shell
d) 7 = 3 — iv) p – sub shell
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → mi, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii
Answer:
C) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 56.
For ml the minimum value is ………….. and the maximum value is………….
A) 0, n
B) 0, n-1
C) \(-\frac{1}{2},+\frac{1}{2}\)
D) -l , +l
Answer:
D) -l , +l

Question 57.
If l = 1 for an atom then the number of orbitals in its sub shell:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 0
Answer:
C) 3

Question 58.
Number of orbitals in a sub shell is given by the formula
A) 2n²
B) n²
C) l + l
D) 2l + 1
Answer:
D) 2l + 1

Question 59.
Match the following:
Sub shell — Number of degenerate orbitals
a) s — i) 7
b) p — ii) 1
c) d — iii) 3
d) f — iv) 5

A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→h
C) a—ii, b→iii, c→iv, d→i
D) a→iv, b→ii, o→iii, d→i
Answer:
C) a—ii, b→iii, c→iv, d→i

Question 60.
Match the following:
a) s – orbital — i) dumbell ,
b) p – orbital — ii) spherical
c) d – orbital — iii) double dumbell
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii
B) a→iii, b→ii, c→h
C) a→ii, b→i, c→iii
D) a→ii, b→iii, c→i
Answer:
C) a→ii, b→i, c→iii

Question 61.
Statement I: Fdi p sub shell the m_l values are-1,0,1
Statement II: For d sub shell the m_l values are -2, -1,0,1, 2
A) Both statements are correct
B) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
C) Statement I is. incorrect and II is correct
D) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
A) Both statements are correct

Question 62.
a) s – sub shell i) Maximum number of electrons is 6
b) p – sub shell ii) Maximum number of electrons is 14
c) d – sub shell iii) Maximum number of electrons is 2
d) f – sub shell iv) Maximum number of electrons is 10
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→i
C) a→iii, b→i, c→iv, d→ii
D) a→iv, b→i, c→ii, d→iii
Answer:
C) a→iii, b→i, c→iv, d→ii

Question 63.
Find the odd one.
A) Principal quantum number – n
B) Angular momentum quantum number – l
C) Magnetic quantum number – m_l
D) Spin quantum number – k
Answer:
D) Spin quantum number – k

Question 64.
The value of in m_s for an electron spinning in clockwise direction is ………….. and for anti clockwise direction is …………..
A) \(-\frac{1}{2},+\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(+\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}\)
C) 1,-1
D) -1,1
Answer:
B) \(+\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 65.
The clockwise spin in an orbital is represented by …………..
A) →
B) ←
C) ↑
D) ↓
Answer:
C) ↑

Question 66.
Anti clockwise spin of electron is represented by ……………
A) ↑
B) →
C) ←
D) ↓
Answer:
D) ↓

Question 67.
If two electrons have positive spin values,, then their spins are …………………..
A) perpendicular
B) intersected
C) parallel
D) anti parallel
Answer:
C) parallel

Question 68.
If two electrons have positive and negative spin values then their spins are ………………..
A) parallel
B) anti parallel
C) perpendicular
D) intersected
Answer:
B) anti parallel

Question 69.
During writing electronic configuration the electrons are distributed into
A) shells
B) sub shells
C) orbitals
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 70.
“No two electrons of same atom have same set of four quantum numbers”. This principle is known as ……………..
A) Hund’s principle
B) Aufbau principle
C) Pauli’s exclusion principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
C) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question 71.
Orbitals are filled with electrons in the order of increasing energy is given by ………….. principle.
A) Hund
B) Aufbau
C) Pauli’s exclusion
D) Heisenberg
Answer:
B) Aufbau

Question 72.
……………… means building up.
A) Quanta
B) Photon
C) Aufbau
D) Orbital
Answer:
C) Aufbau

Question 73.
Which of the following orbital has greater n + l value ?
A) 4p
B) 5s
C) 3d
D) 4f
Answer:
D) 4f

Question 74.
The n + l value of 3d orbital is ………………
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
C) 5

Question 75.
The filling order of atomic orbitals is given by.
A) Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Pauli
D) Moeller
Answer:
D) Moeller

Question 76.
The rule violated in this electron configuration is 1s², 2s°, 2p³
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
C) Aufbau principle

Question 77.
The rule violated in the following electronic configuration is………….

A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenburg uncertainty principle
Answer:
B) Hund’s rule

Question 78.
The principle is violated in the given information about Helium atom.

A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
B) Hund’s rule
C) Aufbau principle
D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Answer:
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question 79.
According to Pauli’s exclusion principle the maximum number of electrons filled in an orbital is ………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 80.
The valence electron configuration of electron for the following quantum numbers.

A) 4s¹
B) 4s²
C) 4p²
D) 4p²
Answer:
B) 4s²

Question 81.
The valance electron configuration of electron for following quantum numbers.

A) 3d⁵
B) 3d⁶
C) 3d⁷
D) 3d¹⁰
Answer:
D) 3d¹⁰

Question 82.
The following orbitals have n+l value 6
i) 5p
ii) 6s
iii) 4d
iv) 4f
A) only i
B) both i and ii
C) i, ii and iii
D) all of these
Answer:
C) i, ii and iii

Question 83.
What are set of quantum numbers for electron configuration of element is 3d⁷?
A) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = -1, m_s = -1/2
B) n = 3, l =2, m_l = -2, m_s = -1/2
C) n = 3, l =2, m_l= -1, m_s = +1/2
D) n = 3, l = 2, m_l= -2, m_s = +1/2
Answer:
A) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = -1, m_s = -1/2

Question 84.
The quantum number which says about size and energy of orbit is
A) n
B) l
C) m_l
D) m_s
Answer:
A) n

Question 85.
Match the following:
a) Principal quantum number (n) — i) Orientation of orbital in space
b) Angular momentum quantum number (l) — Size and energy of orbit
c) Magnetic quantum number (m_l) — iii) Shape of sub shell
d) Spin quantum number (m_s )– Spin of electron
A) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
B) a→ii, b→iii, c→i, d→iv
C) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→i
D) a→iv, b→ii, c→iii, d→i
Answer:
B) a→ii, b→iii, c→i, d→iv

Question 86.
If n = 3 and Z = 2 the energy level is represented as
A) 3s
B) 3p
C) 3d
D) 3f
Answer:
C) 3d

Question 87.
To which boundary surface diagram of d – orbital does indicate ?
A) d_xy
B) d_yz
C) d_z2
D) d_x²-y²

Answer:
D) d_x²-y²

Question 88.
The number of possible orbitals in a sub shell with angular momentum quantum number (1) is
A) l +1
B) 2l + 1
C) 2 (21 + 1)
D) 0 ton-1
Answer:
B) 2l + 1

Question 89.
The maximum number of electrons in n = 3 main energy level is ………………….
A) 8
B) 16
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
C) 18

Question 90.
Which of the following quantum number describes the orientation of orbital in space around the nucleus of atom?
A) Magnetic quantum number
B) Spin quantum number
C) Angular momentum quantum number
D) Principal quantum number
Answer:
A) Magnetic quantum number

Question 91.
The correct electron configuration of Copper is……….
A) [Ar] 4s² 3d¹⁰
B) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁹
C) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵
D) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
Answer:
D) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰

Question 92.
The correct electron configuration of Chromium is………..
A) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵
B) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁵
C) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
D) [Ar] 4s² 3d¹⁰
Answer:
A) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

Question 93.
The rule violated in electron configurations of Chromium and Copper is ………….
A) Aufbau
B) Hund
C) Pauli’s exclusion
D) Heisenberg uncertainty
Answer:
A) Aufbau

Question 94.
Atoms having these orbitals are stable
A) half filled
B) completely filled
C) both A and B
D) none of these
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 95.
The maximum number of electrons accommodated in a sub shell with Azimuthal quantum number (angular momentum quantum number) l is ………………….
A) 2l + 1
B) 4l + 2
C) l(l+1)
D) 4l – 1
Answer:
B) 4l + 2

Question 96.
The four quantum numbers for valance electron of Sodium atom are ………………
A) n = 1, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
B) n = 2, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
C) n = 3, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2
D) n = 3, l = 1, m_l= 0, m_s= +1/2
Answer:
C) n = 3, l = 0, m_l= 0, m_s = +1/2

Question 97.
Degenerate orbitals have
A) same l value and same n value
B) different l value and same n value
C) same l value and different n value
D) same n+l value
Answer:
A) same l value and same n value

Question 98.
When l = 3 the maximum number of electrons that can occupy in the corresponding sub shell is ……………
A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 99.
The number of orbitals present in a given shell is …………
A) n
B) n²
C) 2n²
D) 2l + 1
Answer:
B) n²

Question 100.
The orbital that is having least energy among 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p is ……………………..
A) 3p
B) 4s
C) 3d
D) 4p
Answer:
A) 3p

Question 101.
Which of the following is the correct configuration of O^2- …………….
A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
C) 1s² 2s² 2p²
D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
Answer:
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

Question 102.
The impossible set of quantum numbers for any electron of an atom is ……………………
a) n = 1, l = 1, m_l = 0, m_s = +1/2
b) n = 2, l =2, m_l = 1, m_s = -1/2
c) n = 3, l = 2, m_l = 1, m_s = +1/2
d) n = 3, l = 0, m_l = 0, m_s = -1/2
A) a only
B) a, b only
C) c, d only
D) d only
Answer:
B) a, b only

Question 103.
The orbitalwhich does not lie along the axis is………………
A) P_x
B) d_{² – y²}
C) d_xy
D) p_y
Answer:
C) d_xy

Question 104.
Which one of the following has the electronic configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶?
A) Ne
B) Na⁺
C) F^–
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 105.
Magnetic quantum number of the last electron of Sodium is ………………….
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 106.
The following is shape of …………… orbital.
A) s
B) p
C) d
D) f

Answer:
A) s

Practice the AP 10th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physical Science Bits 7th Lesson Classification of Elements- The Periodic Table with Answers

Question 1.
Number of elements discovered to till date.
A) 24
B) 63
C) 90
D) more than 115
Answer:
D) more than 115

Question 2.
……………. defined an element as any substance that cannot be decomposed into further simple substance by physical or chemical change.
A) Charles
B) Robert Boyle
C) Avagadro
D) Madam Curie
Answer:
B) Robert Boyle

Question 3.
Lithium, …………………… and Potassium constitute a Dobereiner triad
A) Magnesium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Rubidium
Answer:
C) Sodium

Question 4.
Louis Proust stated that……………….. atom is the building material.
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) Hydrogen

Question 5.
Group of three elements with similar chemical properties is called …………….
A) diad
B) triad
C) tetrad
D) pentad
Answer:
B) triad

Question 6.
Dobereiner triad is based on
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic weight
C) Atomic volume
D) Atomic size
Answer:
B) Atomic weight

Question 7.
According to this every 8th element has similar properties starting from a, given element
A) Dobereiner triad
B) Newlands’ law
C) Mendeleeff’s periodic table
D) Modem periodic table
Answer:
B) Newlands’ law

Question 8.
Newlands’ periodic table was restricted to …………….. elements.
A) 40
B) 56
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
B) 56

Question 9.
Dobereiner triad failed for …………………..
i) low mass
ii) equal mass
iv) neutral mass
A) Only i
B) both i and iii
C) both i and iv
D) all
Answer:
B) both i and iii

Question 10.
The number of periods and groups in Mendeleeff’s periodic table is
A) 7,8
B) 7,18
C) 10,18
D) 7,12
Answer:
A) 7,8

Question 11.
Mendeleeff’s periodic table is based on
A) atomic number
B) atomic weight
C) atomic volume
D) atomic size
Answer:
B) atomic weight

Question 12.
Match the following
a) eka boron — i) gallium
b) eka aluminium — ii) germanium
c) eka silicon — iii) scandium
A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
B) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
D) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
Answer:
B) a – iii, b – i, c – ii

Question 13.
Atomic weight = ……………….. x equivalent weight
A) atomic number
B) combining capacity
C) valency
D) both B and C
Answer:
C) valency

Question 14.
Mendeleeff corrected atomic weights of
i) Beryllium
ii) Indium
iii) Gold
A) only i
B) only ii
C) both i and ii
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 15.
Element with atomic number 101 is
A) Barium
B) Fermium
C) Mendelevium
D) Einsteinium
Answer:
C) Mendelevium

Question 16.
Example for anomalous pair
A) Tellurium, Iodine
B) Cobalt, Nickel
C) Argon, Potassium
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 17.
The number of positive charges (protons) in the atom of an element is called………………
A) Atomic number
B) Mass number
C) Atomic weight
D) Atomic volume
Answer:
A) Atomic number

Question 18.
The atomic weight of a bivalent element is 9. The equivalent weight of same element is
A) 18
B) 13.5
C) 4.5
D) 3
Answer:
C) 4.5

Question 19.
Which pair of elements fits into same slot in Newlands’ table of elements ?
A) F, Cl
B) Co, Ni
C) Mg, Ca
D) C, Si
Answer:
B) Co, Ni

Question 20.
Law of octaves was proposed by
A) Dobereiner
B) Newlands
C) Neils Bohr
D) Mendeleeff
Answer:
B) Newlands

Question 21.
The predicted properties of elements Eka boron, Eka aluminium and eka silicon were close to the observed properties of the following elements respectively.
A) scandium, gallium, germanium
B) gallium, germanium, scandium
C) gallium, scandium, germanium
D) germanium, gallium, scandium
Answer:
A) scandium, gallium, germanium

Question 22.
The abnormal pair of elements in the following is
A) H and He
B) NeandAr
C) KrandK
D) K and Ar
Answer:
D) K and Ar

Question 23.
The set of elements that is not Dobereiner triad from the following
A) Ca, Sr, Ba
B) Cl ,Br, I
C) Mn, Cr, Fe
D) S, Si, Te
Answer:
D) S, Si, Te

Question 24.
Mendeleeff’s eka aluminium is
A) scandium
B) gallium
C) germanium
D) indium
Answer:
B) gallium

Question 25.
A Dobereiner triad in the following is
A) Cl, Br, I
B) H, He, Li
C) H, Na, Cl
D) C,N, O
Answer:
Answer:
A) Cl, Br, I

CONCEPT – 2 : Modern Periodic Table

Question 26.
……………….. found that each element emits a characteristic pattern of X ^ rays when subjected to bombardment by high energy electrons.
A) Bohr
B) Sommerfeld
C) Mendeleeff
D) Mosley
Answer:
D) Mosley

Question 27.
Modem periodic table is based on
A) atomic number
B) electron negativity
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
A) atomic number

Question 28.
The number of periods and groups in modern periodic table ………………..
A) 7, 8
B) 7,18
C) 6,7
D) 5,6
Answer:
B) 7,18

Question 29.
Match the following
i) Sodium — a) p – block
ii) Aluminium — f -block
iii) Scandium — s – block
iv) Cerium — d) d-block
A) i → a, ii → b, iii → c, iv → d
B) i → a, ii → d, iii → b, iv →c
C) i → c, ii → a, iii → d, iv → b
D) i → d, ii → c,i ii → b, iv → a
Answer:
C) i → c, ii → a, iii → d, iv → b

Question 30.
Match the following

A) a → ii, b → i, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b →ii, c → i, d →iii
C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
D) a → iv, b → ii, c → iii, d → i
Answer:
B) a → iv, b →ii, c → i, d →iii

Question 31.
Match the following
a) Alkali metals i) VIA or 16
b) Alkaline earthmetals — i) I A or 1
c) Chalcogens — iii) VIIA or 17
d) Halogens — iv) II A or 2
A) a → i, b → ii, c iii, d →iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → ii, b →iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a →iv, b → ii, c → iii, d → i
Answer:
C) a → ii, b →iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 32.
These are noble gases.
i) He
ii) Ne
iii) Ar
iv) Kr
A) i only
B) ii only
C) ii and iii
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
…………….. elements are called Lanthanides.
A) 2f
B) 3f
C) 4f
D) 5f
Answer:
C) 4f

Question 34.
Lanthanides having atomic numbers from ……………… to ………………
A) 58, 71
B) 90,103
C) 60, 80
D) 90,110
Answer:
A) 58, 71

Question 35.
5 f elements are called ………………..
A) representative elements
B) transition elements
C) lanthanides
D) actinides
Answer:
D) actinides

Question 36.
Noble gases belong to ……………… group of periodic table.
A) IA
B) IIA
C) VIIA
D) VIIIA
Answer:
D) VIIIA

Question 37.
The elements present in 2nd period of long form of periodic table :
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
B) 8

Question 38.
……………….. period of periodic table is incomplete.
A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 6th
D) 7th
Answer:
D) 7th

Question 39.
The number of elements present in 6th period is ………………
A) 2
B) 8
C) 18
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

Question 40.
Match the following
a) Shortest period — i) 7
b) Longest period — ii) 1
c) Incomplete period — iii) 5
d) Period having 18 elements — iv) 6
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d →iv
B) a → iv, b →iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a →ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
D) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d → iii
Answer:
C) a →ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii

Question 41.
Nitrogen is the element of group-VA of the periodic table. Which of the following is the atomic number of the next element in the group?
A) 9
B) 14
C) 15
D) 17
Answer:
C) 15

Question 42.
Electron configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 7. Which of the following elements would it be chemically similar ?
A) Nitrogen (Z = 7)
B) Fluorine (Z = 9)
C) Phosphorous (Z = 15 )
D) Argon (Z = 18)
Answer:
B) Fluorine (Z = 9)

Question 43.
‘s’, ‘p’ block elements are collectively called as
A) Transition elements
B) Inner transition elements
C) Representative elements
D) Noble gases
Answer:
C) Representative elements

Question 44.
Statement I : d – block elements are called transition elements.
Statement II : f – block elements are called inner transition elements.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both statements are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 45.
Inner transition elements belong to ………………
A) III B
B) IV B
C) V B
D) VI B
Answer:
A) III B

Question 46.
The element which is not metal in s – block is ………………..
A) Hydrogen
B) Chlorine
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Answer:
A) Hydrogen

Question 47.
Match the following.
a) valence of group IA — i) 4
b) valence of group IVA — ii) 0
c) valence of group VIA — iii) 1
d) valence of group VIIIA — iv) 2
A) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv
B) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i
C) a → iv, b → i, c → ii, d →iii
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii
Answer:
D) a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii

Question 48.
Modern periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their
A) atomic weight
B) atomic number
C) electron configuration
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 49.
Which of the following is the p block element ?
A) Ti
B) Ce
C) Ga
D) K
Answer:
C) Ga

Question 50.
How many s – block and p block elements are there in the third period of the periodic table ?
A) 2, 8
B) 8, 2
C) 4,4
D) 2, 6
Answer:
D) 2, 6

Question 51.
Metalloids are
A) s – block elements
B) d – block elements
C) f – block elements
D) p – block elements
Answer:
D) p – block elements

Question 52.
The ionization energy in the periodic table
A) decreases going down the group
B) increases going down the group
C) decreases from left to right in the period
D) remains same going down the group
Answer:
B) increases going down the group

Question 53.
As per modern periodic law, the properties of the elements are periodic functions of their
A) atomic weights
B) mass numbers
C) atomic numbers
D) valencies
Answer:
C) atomic numbers

Question 54.
Elements of which group are called halogens?
A) VA
B) VIA
C) VII A
D) IV A
Answer:
C) VII A

Question 55.
Which of the following elements belongs to d block ?
A) Cl
B) Cr
C) Sr
D) Ar
Answer:
B) Cr

Question 56.
The longest period in the modern periodic table is
A) 7th
B) 6th
C) 5th
D) 4th
Answer:
B) 6th

Question 57.
The valency of an element which belongs to 3rd period and 2nd group of periodic table is
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 58.
The general electron configuration of inert gases
A) ns²
B) ns²np¹
C) ns²np²
D) ns²np⁶
Answer:
D) ns²np⁶

Question 59.
The elements a, b, c, d have the following electron configurations. Then the elements that belong to the same group of periodic table is
a) 2,3
b) 2,8,3
c) 2,8,5
d) 2,8,7
A) a, b
B) b, c
C) c, d
D) d, a
Answer:
A) a, b

Question 60.
The inert gas element which does not have octet configuration in the outer
most orbit is
A) Ar
B) Kr
C) Rn
D) He
Answer:
D) He

Question 61.
The element belongs to 3rd period and 17th group is
A) F
B) Cl
C) Br
D) I
Answer:
B) Cl

Question 62.
The element with atomic number 13 belongs to ……………. period and …………….. group.
A) 3,13
B) 3, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3,14
Answer:
A) 3,13

Question 63.
Where do Na and N belong ?
A) s-block
B) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to d – block
C) p-block
D) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to p – block
Answer:
D) Na belongs to s – block and N belongs to p – block

Question 64.
The atomic numbers of actinide series elements are
A) 58 to 71
B) 90 to 103
C) 92 to 105
D) 60 to 73
Answer:
B) 90 to 103

Question 65.
Which of the following group elements are known as chalcogens ?
A) 16
B) 6
C) 1
D) 17
Answer:
A) 16

Question 66.
The number of electrons that are present in Cl ion is
A) 6
B) 5
C) 11
D) 18
Answer:
D) 18

Question 67.
Which one of the following has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
A) Ne
B) Na⁺
C) F^–
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 68.
Potassium and calcium belong to
A) s – block elements
B) p – block elements
C) d – block elements
D) f – block elements
Answer:
A) s – block elements

Question 69.
Which of the following are lanthan ides?
A) K to Kr
B) Cs to Lu
C) CetoLu
D) ThtoLr
Answer:
B) Cs to Lu

Question 70.
The element with highest electro – negativity belongs to
A) 3rd period and 17th group
B) 2nd period and 17th group
C) 2nd period and 16th group
D) 2nd period and 18th group
Answer:
B) 2nd period and 17th group

Question 71.
The general electron configuration of s – block elements are
A) ns¹
B) ns²
C) ns¹ to ns²
D) none of these
Answer:
C) ns¹ to ns²

Question 72.
The general electron configuration of p – block elements are
A) ns¹
B) ns³²
C) ns2np1
D) ns² np¹ to ns² np⁶
Answer:
D) ns² np¹ to ns² np⁶

Question 73.
Cl belongs to …………… family.
A) Noble gases
B) Boron
C) Carbon
D) Halogen
Answer:
D) Halogen

Question 74.
Number of elements present in period 1 are
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 75.
Which of the following element is electronegative?
A) Sodium
B) Oxygen
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 76.
Number of vertical columns in the modern periodic table are
A) 7
B) 8
C) 10
D) 18
Answer:
D) 18

Question 77.
Choose the correct answer for the following matching.
Group A — Group B
1) Alkali metal — P) Calcium
2) Chalcogen — Q) Potassium
3) Alkaline earth metal — R) Sulphur
A) 1-Q,2-R, 3-P
B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R
C) 1-P, 2-0,3-R
D) 1 – P, 2 – R, 3 – Q
Answer:
A) 1-Q,2-R, 3-P

CONCEPT – 3 : Periodic Properties

Question 78.
The elements which have both metallic and non metallic properties are called
A) Metalloids
B) Semiconductors
C) Semi metals
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 79.
The examples for metalloids
A) Li, Na, K, Rb
B) Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba
C) B, Si, As, Ge
D) F, Cl, Br, I
Answer:
C) B, Si, As, Ge

Question 80.
The distance from the centre of the nucleus of the atom to its outermost shell is
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic volume
C) Atomic radius
D) Atomic density
Answer:
C) Atomic radius

Question 81.
Atomic radius is measured in
A) m
B) mm
C) km
D) pm
Answer:
D) pm

Question 82.
1 pm = ……………. m
A) 10^-3
B) 10^-9
C) 10^-12
D) 10^-6
Answer:
C) 10^-12

Question 83.
The correct ascending order of atomic size for the following elements C, Li, N, Be :
A) C, Li, N, Be
B) Li, Be, C, N
C) C, N, Be, Li
D) Be, Li, N, C
Answer:
B) Li, Be, C, N

Question 84.
Which among these have greater size?
A) Na
B) Na⁺
C) Mg²⁺
D) Al³⁺
Answer:
A) Na

Question 85.
Which of the following has greater size?
A) F
B) F
C) Cl
D) Cl^–
Answer:
D) Cl^–

Question 86.
Statement I: Positive ion of an element has less size than its neutral atom.
Statement II : Negative ion of an element has bigger size than the neutral atom.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 87.
The energy required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit or shell of a neutral gaseous atom is
A) atomic size
B) ionization energy
C) electron gain enthalpy
D) oxidation potential
Answer:
B) ionization energy

Question 88.
Choose the correct order of ionization energies.
A) I₁ > I₂ > I₃
B) I₃ > I₂ > I₁
C) I₃ > I₁ > I₂
D) I₁= I₂ = I₃
Answer:
B) I₃ > I₂ > I₁

Question 89.
Which of the following statements is wrong ?
A) As screening effect increases ionization energy decreases
B) As atomic size increases ionization energy decreases
C) Ionization energy is expressed in KJ mol^-1
D) Nitrogen has less ionization energy compared to oxygen because it has stable half filled configuration.
Answer:
D) Nitrogen has less ionization energy compared to oxygen because it has stable half filled configuration.

Question 90.
The energy liberated when an electron is added to neutral gaseous atom is
A) ionization energy
B) electron affinity
C) electron gain enthalpy
D) both B and C
Answer:
D) both B and C

Question 91.
Alkaline earth metals have electron gain enthalpy values as
A) negative
B) positive
C) zero
D) all of these
Answer:
B) positive

Question 92.
Statement I: Electron affinity of atom is negative.
Statement II : Electron affinity of uninegative ion is positive.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement I is true and II is false
C) Statement I is false and II is true
D) Both are false
Answer:
A) Both statements are true

Question 93.
The tendency of bonded atom to attract the electron pair towards itself is……………
A) electro positivity
B) electronegativity
C) electron affinity
D) ionization energy
Answer:
B) electronegativity

Question 94.
……………. proposed electronegativity of an element as average value of ionization energy and electron affinity.
A) Milliken
B) Pauling
C) Sommerfeld
D) Planck
Answer:
A) Milliken

Question 95.
……………….. assigned the electronegativity values for elements on the basis of bond energies.
A) Milliken
B) Pauling
C) Maxwell
D) Planck
Answer:
B) Pauling

Question 96.
The most electronegative element and its electronegativity value is
A) Cl, 4.0
B) F, 2.0
C) F, 4.0
D) Br, 4.0
Answer:
C) F, 4.0

Question 97.
The tendency of an atom to lose electrons is …………..
A) Metallic character
B) Electronegative character
C) Electropositive character
D) Both A and C
Answer:
D) Both A and C

Question 98.
The tendency of an atom to gain electrons is ……………..
A) Non-metallic character
B) Electropositive character
C) Metallic character
D) Both B and C
Answer:
A) Non-metallic character

Question 99.
The element at the bottom of a group would be expected to show ……………… metallic character than the element at the top
A) less
B) more
C) same
D) can’t say
Answer:
B) more

Question 100.
Which of the following is the most active metal ?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Rubidium
Answer:
D) Rubidium

Question 101.
Which of the following ions is larger in size ?
A) Na⁺
B) Mg²⁺
C) Al³⁺
D) H⁺
Answer:
A) Na⁺

Question 102.
Correct ionization energy order in following set of elements is ………………
A) C > O > N
B) N > O > C
C) O > N > C
D) N > C > O
Answer:
B) N > O > C

Question 103.
The element with negative charge having the electronic configuration 2,8, 8 is
A) O^2-
B) O^–
C) S^2-
D) P^–
Answer:
C) S^2-

Question 104.
The pair of atomic numbers which belongs to the p-block elements is
A) 3,5
B) 11,12
C) 7,8
D) 12,13
Answer:
C) 7,8

Question 105.
Which one of the following decreases in a group from top to bottom ?
A) Atomic size
B) Metallic nature
C) Electropositivity
D) Electronegativity
Answer:
D) Electronegativity

Question 106.
The least electronegative element is
A) Cs
B) F
C) CZ
D) H
Answer:
A) Cs

Question 107.
Which of the following elements has larger atomic size ?
A) Na
B) Mg
C) Ca
D) K
Answer:
D) K

Question 108.
The correct order of electronegativity in the following elements is
A) F > Cl > O
B) F > O > Cl
C) O > F > Cl
D) Cl > F > O
Answer:
B) F > O > Cl

Question 109.
WZhich of the following elements has the highest electronegativity ?
A) CZ
B) F
C) Br
D) I
Answer:
B) F

Question 110.
As we go from left to right in a period the atomic number and atomic radius
A) both increase
B) both decrease
C) atomic number increases and atomic radius decreases
D) atomic number decreases and atomic radius increases
Answer:
C) atomic number increases and atomic radius decreases

Question 111.
Which of the following elements has more atomic radius
A) Be
B) Mg
C) Ca
D) Sr
Answer:
D) Sr

Question 112.
Which one of the following elements is electronegative ?
A) Na
B) O
C) Mg
D) Ca
Answer:
B) O

Question 113.
The biggest and smallest atoms from the following respectively are
A) N, Si
B) Si, N
C) C, N
D) N, P
Answer:
B) Si, N

Question 114.
The order of second ionization energy values of O and N is
A) O > N
B) N > O
C) 0 = N
D) IE₂ is lessthan IE₁
Answer:
B) N > O

Question 115.
Generally the order of electronegativity in group
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains same
D) initially decreases then increases
Answer:
A) decreases

Question 116.
The correct order of atomic sizes of K, Ca, Na, Cl is
A) K > Ca > Na > CZ
B) K < Ca < Na < CZ C) Ca > K > CZ > Na
D) Na > CZ > K > Ca
Answer:
A) K > Ca > Na > CZ

Question 117.
Generally metallic character in period from left to right
A) increases
B) decreases
C) is equal for all elements
D) none
Answer:
B) decreases

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 13 The Kings of Vijayanagara on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson The Kings of Vijayanagara with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The city of Vijayanagara was located on the banks of the river
A) Krishna
B) the Godavari
C) Tungabhadra
D) Kaveri
Answer:
C) Tungabhadra

Question 2.
The kingdom of Vijayanagara was founded in the year
A) 1339 A.D
B) 1347 A.D
C) 1336 A.D
D) 1346 A.D
Answer:
C) 1336 A.D

Question 3.
The sage with whose blessings Hari Hara and Bukka founded the Vijayanagara kingdom was
A) Vidyananda
B) Ramanuja
C) Vidyaranya
D) Vijayaranya
Answer:
C) Vidyaranya

Question 4.
The name of the Lord worshipped by Vijayanagara kings was
A) Hazara Rama
B) Vithala
C) Virupaksha
D) Raghunatha
Answer:
C) Virupaksha

Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara kingdom?
A) Tuluva, Saluva, Sangama and Araviti
B) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva and Araviti
C) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Araviti
D) Araviti, Sangama, Saluva and Tuluva
Answer:
C) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Araviti

Question 6.
The capital of the Bahmani kingdom was
A) Bijapur
B) Mysore
C) Golkonda
D) Gulbarga
Answer:
D) Gulbarga

Question 7.
The Sultans of Bahmani Kingdom originally belonged to
A) Prussia
B) Egypt
C) Turkey
D) Arabia and Iran
Answer:
D) Arabia and Iran

Question 8.
The traveller Nicolo Conti who visited Vijayanagara came from
A) Italy
B) Persia
C) Portugal
D) Arabia
Answer:
A) Italy

Question 9.
The Portuguese traveller, who visited Krishnadevaraya’s court was
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Paes
C) Nuniz
D) Razzak
Answer:
B) Paes

Question 10.
The person who visited the Vijayanagara kingdom in 1537 A.D was
A) Nuniz
B) Marco Polo
C) Alberuni
D) Amir Khusro
Answer:
A) Nuniz

Question 11.
The rulers of Vijayanagara imported horses from
A) Arabia
B) Iran
C) Portugal
D) All the three countries
Answer:
D) All the three countries

Question 12.
Which Vijayanagara ruler started recruiting Muslims to train his soldiers in the new modes of warfare?
A) Harihara Raya – II
B) Krishnadevaraya
C) Devaraya – II
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Devaraya – II

Question 13.
Which Vijayanagara ruler permitted the construction of mosques in the capital city?
A) Krishnadevaraya
B) Devaraya – II
C) Harihararaya – II
D) Aliyaramaraya
Answer:
B) Devaraya – II

Question 14.
The revenue assignments given to the nobles in the Sultanate period were called?
A) Iqtas
B) Subahs
C) Paraganas
D) Jagirs
Answer:
A) Iqtas

Question 15.
The nayaka who challenged the Vijayanagara kings was
A) Narasanayaka
B) Achyutaraya
C) Devaraya – II
D) Harihararaya-II
Answer:
A) Narasanayaka

Question 16.
In the Vijayanagara Empire, the village administration was done by
A) Gramani
B) Nayaka
C) Amir
D) Mukti
Answer:
B) Nayaka

Question 17.
The main imports of Vijayanagara rulers were ………..
A) Horses
B) Guns
C) Cannons
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
When did Krishnadevaraya ascend the throne?
A) 1509 AD
B) 1519 AD
C) 1529 AD
D) 1520 AD
Answer:
A) 1509 AD

Question 19.
How long had Krishnadevaraya ruled the Vijayanagara Kingdom?
A) 40 years
B) 25 years
C) 20 years
D) 30 years
Answer:
C) 20 years

Question 20.
The European country which had es¬tablished their power in India by the Krishnadevaraya was
A) England
B) Spain
C) France
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 21.
In India where did the Portuguese establish their power?
A) Mumbai
B) Calicut
C) Goa
D) Koehin
Answer:
C) Goa

Question 22.
Which Vijayanagara ruler personally visited the temples Tirupathi, Srisailam and Ahobilam?
A) Devaraya – II
B) Harihararaya
C) Harihararaya – II
D) Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Krishnadevaraya

Question 23.
Which of the following rulers was a great patron of Telugu literature?
A) Devaraya -II
B) Harihararaya
C) Saluva Narasimha
D) Sri Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Sri Krishnadevaraya

Question 24.
‘Amuktamalyada’ was written by
A) Allasani Peddana
B) Mukku Timmana
C) Dhurjati
D) Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Krishnadevaraya

Question 25.
‘Ashtadiggajas’ – eight poets adorned the court of
A) Saluva Narasimha
B) Devaraya – II
C) Krishnadevaraya
D) Aliya Rama Raya
Answer:
C) Krishnadevaraya

Question 26.
The battle of Rakkasi tangadi was held in the year
A) 1556 AD
B) 1546 AD
C) 1555 AD
D) 1565 AD
Answer:
D) 1565 AD

Question 27.
The Vijayanagara ruler who was defeated in the Rakkasi tangadi war was
A) Achyutaramaraya
B) Aliya Rama Raya
C) Harihara Raya – II
D) Saluva Narasimha
Answer:
B) Aliya Rama Raya

Question 28.
After the war of Tallikota, the capital of Vijayanagara was shifted to
A) Hampi
B) Anegondi
C) Chandragiri
D) Tirupathi
Answer:
C) Chaodragiri

Question 29.
Vijayanagara means
A) city of heavens
B) city of victories
C) city on the land
D) all the above
Answer:
B) city of victories

Question 30.
Vijayanagar was built on the banks of this river
A) Krishna
B) Tungabhadra
C) the Godavari
D) Vamsadhara
Answer:
B) Tungabhadra

Question 31.
…………… says that the city had seven rings of fortifications.
A) Archaeologists
B) Abdul Razak
C) Paes
D) None
Answer:
B) Abdul Razak

Question 32.
…………. Kings adopted guns and canons in their forces.
A) Vijayanagara
B) Cholas
C) Pallavas
D) None
Answer:
A) Vijayanagara

Question 33.
Most of the Amaranayakas were ………….. warriors.
A) English
B) Telugu
C) Muslims
D) None
Answer:
B) Telugu

Question 34.
The Vijayanagara empire lasted for about years.
A) 200
B) 250
C) 300
D) 350
Answer:
B) 250

Question 35.
The dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara empire
A) Sangama, Saluva
B) Tuluva, Araviti
C) Both A & B
D) Slave
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
The king gave due importance of the Telugu language.
A) Harihararaya
B) Bukkaraya
C) Narasimharaya
D) Srikrishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) Srikrishnadevaraya

Question 37.
Krishna Devaraya paid special attention to the ………….. of his kingdom.
A) Church
B) Mosques
C) Temples
D) None
Answer:
C) Temples

Question 38.
The Bahamani kingdom was divided into 5 small kingdoms.
A) 1489 -1520 AD
B) 1500 -1530 AD
C) 1540 -1550 AD
D) 1550 – 1560 AD
Answer:
A) 1489 -1520 AD

Question 39.
Identify mismatches.
1) Harihararaya -1336 – 1357 AD
2) Devaraya – II -1426 -1446 AD
3) Srikrishnadevaraya – 1509 – 1529 AD
4) Aliya Ramaraya – 1543 – 1565 AD
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1,2, 3, 4
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 40.
The Italian pilgrim visited Vijayanagara in 1420 AD.
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nuniz
Answer:
A) Nicolo Conti

Question 41.
The Persian trader visited Vijayanagara in 1443 AD.
A) Abdul Salani
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nunico
Answer:
B) Abdul Razzak

Question 42.
The Portuguese traveller visited Vijayanagara in 1520 AD.
A) Nuniz
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
C) Domingo Paes

Question 43.
“The king has made a very strong city; fortified with walls and towers …. These walls are not made like those of other cities, but are made of strong masonry…. and inside, very beautiful rows of building with flat roofs …………
A) Nuniz
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Domingo Paes
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
C) Domingo Paes

Question 44.
In the view of archaeologists, the city was divided into parts.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 45.
Devaraya – II started recruiting ………….. fighters to train his Soldiers in the new modes of warfare.
A) Hindu
B) Muslim
C) Christians
D) None
Answer:
B) Muslim

Question 46.
“This king has a million fighting troops, Which include 35,000 cavalries, ready to be dispatched to any quarter whenever necessary….. He is the most feared king in these parts”…. who said these words?
A) Abdul Razzak
B) Domingo Paes
C) Nuniz
D) Nicolo Conti
Answer:
B) Domingo Paes

Question 47.
Besides the troops supplied by the captains, the king has his own troops whom he pays were called as
A) Nayakas
B) Amaranayakas
C) Swarga Dhamakas
D) Army captains
Answer:
B) Amaranayakas

Question 48.
‘Amaram’ in Vijayanagara kingdom means
A) Dandanayakas
B) Army
C) The power of collecting Revenue in a particular region
D) The administrative officer of a particular region
Answer:
C) The power of collecting Revenue in a particular region

Question 49.
The administrative period of Sri Krishnadevaraya
A) 1509 – 1529 AD
B) 1530 -1559 AD
C) 1508 -1509 AD
D) 1500 – 1529 AD
Answer:
A) 1509 – 1529 AD

Question 50.
Srikrishnadevaraya maintained a friendly relation with these Europeans
A) The Portuguese
B) The British
C) The French
D) The Dutch
Answer:
A) The Portuguese

Question 51.
Srikrishnadevaraya got these from the Portuguese
A) Horses
B) Explosives
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 52.
Srikrishnadevaraya visited these places of his own ………….
A) Tirupati
B) Srisailam
C) Ahobilam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 53.
Srikrishnadevaraya explained the biography of this god in ‘Amukta- malyada’
A) Srikrishna
B) Srirama,
C) Andal
D) Meenakshi
Answer:
C) Andal

Question 54.
This person was not in Ashtadiggajas of Srikrishnadevaraya court.
A) Pingali Surana
B) Ramaraja Bhushana
C) Bhattumurthy
D) Ayyalaraju Ramabadhrudu
Answer:
C) Bhattumurthy

Question 55.
The year of Thallikota war
A) 1560
B) 1565
C) 1570
D) 1575
Answer:
B) 1565

Question 56.
Who won the Thallikota war?
A) Aliya Ramaraya
B) Achyutadevaraya
C) Bahmani Sultans
D) None
Answer:
C) Bahmani Sultans

Question 57.
The towering temple gateway is called.
A) Raja gopuram
B) Goparam
C) Raja
D) None
Answer:
A) Raja gopuram

Question 58.
Find out the correct statement.
A. Sri Krishnadevaraya was the founder of the Vijayanagara empire.
B. Hari Hara Raya, Bukkaraya were the founders of the Vijayanagara empire.
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) B only

Question 59.
Bukkaraya: Sangama dynasty: : Sri Krishnadevaraya: ………………
A) Araviti
B) Saluva
C) Tulava
D) Sangama
Answer:
C) Tulava

Question 60.
Nicolo Conti: Italy:: Abdul Razzak: ……………….
A) Portuguese
B) Spain
C) Germany
D) Persia
Answer:
D) Persia

Question 61.
The city of Vijayanagara was looked at and destroyed in this war.
A) Battle of Khanwa
B) Battle of Bauxes
C) Battle Plassey
D) Rokkasi Tangadi
Answer:
D) Rokkasi Tangadi

Question 62.
He was permitted the construction of mosques in the capital city where the Muslim soldiers were garrisoned.
Q. Who permitted to the construction of mosques in the capital city?
A) Sri Krishnadevaraya
B) Rama Raya
C) Devaraya II
D) Achyutharaya
Answer:
C) Devaraya II

Question 63.
The picture is

A) Thousand Pillar Temple
B) Konark Surya Chariot
C) Stone Chariot of Hazara Rama temple
D) Bronze Palanquin
Answer:
C) Stone Chariot of Hazara Rama temple

Question 64.
The power of the Vijayanagara kings grew further during the time of Krishnadevaraya’s successors Achyutadeva Raya and Aliya Rama Raya. As the Bahamani rulers were unable to fight the Vijayanagara individually, by 1565 AD, all the five Bahmahi kingdoms joined together and defeated Rama Raya in Rakkasi tangadi war also known as Tallikota war, looted, and destroyed the city of Vijayanagara.
Q. Who defeated the Vijayanagara empire?
A) Bahamani Sultans
B) Deccan Sardars
C) Mangols
D) Chihalgani Sardars
Answer:
A) Bahamani Sultans

Question 65.
Rakkasi Tangadi is also known as
A) Kalinga
B) Somanadh
C) Tallikota
D) None
Answer:
C) Tallikota

Question 66.
The founder of Bahmani Sultans Kingdom was
A) Alauddin Bahman Shah
B) Abdul Razzak
C) Ghazani
D) Ghori
Answer:
A) Alauddin Bahman Shah

Question 67.
The most important poetic work of Sri Krishnadevaraya is
A) Vani Na Rani
B) Bhagavatam
C) Amuktamalyada.
D) Devi Chandra Gupta
Answer:
C) Amuktamalyada.

Question 68.
The base of Amuktamalyada was
A) The life of Kannagi
B) The life of Gowthami
C) The life of Meer Bai
D) The life of Andal
Answer:
D) The life of Andal

Question 69.

The statue belongs to ………….. metal
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Bronze
D) Copper
Answer:
C) Bronze

Question 70.
The statue is installed at
A) Sri Rangam
B) Tirumala
C) Sri Sailam
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
B) Tirumala

Question 71.
Ashtadiggajas: Sri Krishnadevaraya:: Navaralnas : …………….
A) Ashoka
B) Kanishka
C) Raja Raja
D) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya II
Answer:
D) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya II

Question 72.

Tallikota war took place during these period
A) Devaraya II
B) Aliya Rama Raya
C) Venkatapathi Raya
D) Achyutaraya
Answer:
B) Aliya Rama Raya

Question 73.
Who selected Muslim fighters in his army?
A) Hari Hara Raya
B) Achyutha Raya
C) Aliya Rama Raya
D) Devaraya – II
Answer:
D) Devaraya – II

Question 74.

The Gopuram is in …………
A) Madras
B) Tirupathi
C) Kanchipuram
D) Madurai
Answer:
C) Kanchipuram

Question 75.
The following travellers visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom.
Find the wrong statement.
1) Nicolo Conti in 1420 A.D
2) Abdul Razzak in 1443 A.D
3) Paes in 1520 A.D
4) Nuniz in 1620 A.D
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4 only
Answer:
D) 4 only

Question 76.
“Ashtadiggajas” were
A) A group of emperors in the Vijayanagara Dynasty
B) A group of administrators during the period of Shivaji
C) A group of Sabha members in the Chola Dynasty
D) A group of poets during the period of Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
D) A group of poets during the period of Krishnadevaraya

Question 77.
Under which ruler did the style of temple architecture include Vimanas and Gopurams?
A) Moughal Ruler
B) British Ruler
C) Delhi Sultan Ruler
D) Vizayanagara Ruler
Answer:
D) Vizayanagara Ruler

Question 78.
Vijayanagara dynasty lies on the bank of the river
A) Krishna
B) the Godavari
C) Tungabhadra
D) Penna
Answer:
C) Tungabhadra

Question 79.
Which of the following is appreciable regarding Srikrishna Devaraya
A) A patron of Telugu literature
B) Administration
C) Construction of thanks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 80.
According to Paes, pearls and diamonds are sold in streets in which kingdom?
A) Kakatiya
B) Chola
C) Vijayanagara
D) Bahamani
Answer:
C) Vijayanagara

Practice the AP 7th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson The Kakatiyas – Emergence of the Regional Kingdom with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Sammakka and Sarakka were …………
A) Tribal women
B) Spiritualists
C) Queens
D) Sisters
Answer:
A) Tribal women

Question 2.
The first poetic work in Telugu.
A) Srimad Andhra Ramayana
B) Srimad Andhra Mahabharatam
C) Sundara Kanda
D) Andhra Bhagavatam
Answer:
B) Srimad Andhra Mahabharatam

Question 3.
Rudramadevi ruled for ……….. years.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 27
D) 22
Answer:
C) 27

Question 4.
A woman ruler killed by her nobles was …………
A) Rudrama Devi
B) Jhansi Laxmi Bai
C) Chand Bibi
D) Raziya Sultana
Answer:
D) Raziya Sultana

Question 5.
The language of the court in Kakatiya kingdom.
A) Telugu
B) Kannada
C) Kannada, Telugu
D) Tamil
Answer:
A) Telugu

Question 6.
Village heads were called
A) Patlas
B) Rattadis
C) Chairpersons
D) Mukthis
Answer:
B) Rattadis

Question 7.
Thousand Pillared Temple is in
A) Aleru
B) Raghunafhapalli
C) Anmakonda
D) Parakala
Answer:
C) Anmakonda

Question 8.
The city was divided into
A) Iqtas
B) Valnadus
C) Panchs
D) Vadas
Answer:
D) Vadas

Question 9.
A Sasana of Ganapatideva was found in …………..
A) Khammam
B) Karimnagar
C) Motupalli
D) Bhupal Palli
Answer:
C) Motupalli

Question 10.
The first books in ……….. were written during Kakatiyas.
A) Hindi
B) Marathi
C) Kannada
D) Telugu
Answer:
D) Telugu

Question 11.
The last important ruler of Kakatiya dynasty was ………..
A) Prola
B) Rudradeva
C) Prataparudra
D) Gariapatideva
Answer:
C) Prataparudra

Question 12.
Marco Polo was an …………. traveller.
A) American
B) Russian
C) Italian
D) Iranian
Answer:
C) Italian

Question 13.
Vinukonda Vallabharaya wrote ………….
A) Kridabhiramamu
B) Prataparudra Charitramu
C) Raja Tarangini
D) Katha Sagaram
Answer:
A) Kridabhiramamu

Question 14.
During …………. rule the capital was shifted from Anmakonda to Orugallu.
A) Rudradeva
B) Rudramadevi
C) Prola-II
D) Ganapatideva
Answer:
A) Rudradeva

Question 15.
Svayambhu Siva Temple was in the …………. of the city.
A) North side
B) South side
C) Centre
D) North East side
Answer:
C) Centre

Question 16.
Palanati Virulakatha was written by
A) Rudramadevi
B) Srinadha
C) Ganpati Deva
D) None
Answer:
B) Srinadha

Question 17.
Who wrote Srimadandhra Mahabharatam?
A) Nannaya
B) Tikkana
C) Errapragada
D) AH the above
Answer:
D) AH the above

Question 18.
The Kavitrayamu belonged to this period.
A) 1000 AD – 1400 AD
B) 1400 AD- 1600 AD
C) 1600 AD-1800 AD
D) 1800 AD – 2000 AD
Answer:
A) 1000 AD – 1400 AD

Question 19.
Vidyanatha wrote the book
A) Ramabhyudayam
B) Prataparudra Yashobhushanam
C) Kridabhiramamu
D) Prataparudra Charitramu
Answer:
B) Prataparudra Yashobhushanam

Question 20.
Ruling period of Rudrama Devi
A) 1262-1289 AD
B) 1289-1323 AD
C) 11584195 AD
D) 1116-1157 AD
Answer:
A) 1262-1289 AD

Question 21.
The Kakatiyas traced their lineage to certain
A) Durjaya
B) Prolaraja
C) Rudradeva
D) Ganapathi Deva
Answer:
A) Durjaya

Question 22.
Kakatiyas adopted this language as the favoured language of the court.
A) Telugu
B) Tamil
C) Kannada
D) Malayala.
Answer:
A) Telugu

Question 23.
Identify the mismatch.
1) Prola Raja – II – AD -1116 -1157
2) Rudradeva – AD -1158 -1195
3) Ganapathi Deva – AD – 1199 -1262
4) Rudramadevi – AD – 1262 – 1289
5) Prataparudra – AD – 1289 – 1323
A) 1,2, 3, 4
B) 1,2, 3
C) 3, 4, 5
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 24.
Kakatiyas were Samanthas to these in the beginning
A) Rashtrakutas & Chalukyas
B) Rulers of Vijayanagara
C) Kakatiyas
D) Pallavas
Answer:
A) Rashtrakutas & Chalukyas

Question 25.
The Kakatiyas emerged as indepen¬dent rulers after the fall of the ……………
A) Reddy Rajulu
B) Rulers of Vijayanagara
C) Western Chalukyas
D) Pallavas
Answer:
C) Western Chalukyas

Question 26.
This person changed the capital from Anmakonda to Orugallu
A) Prolaraju
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapati Deva
D) Rudramadevi
Answer:
B) Rudradeva

Question 27.
Palanati Virulakatha written by Srinatha around
A) 1350s
B) 1450s
C) 1550s
D) 1650s
Answer:
A) 1350s

Question 28.
The woman ruler that ruled from her capital Warangal in the medieval period.
A) Razia Sultana
B) Rudramadevi
C) Peramba
D) Ramabai
Answer:
B) Rudramadevi

Question 29.
The Italian pilgrim Marco Polo visited this court
A) Prolaraju – II
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapati Deva
D) Rudramadevi
Answer:
D) Rudramadevi

Question 30.
In inscriptions Rudramadevi was known as
A) Rudradeva
B) Rudradeva Maharaja
C) Razia Sultana
D) Prataprudra
Answer:
B) Rudradeva Maharaja

Question 31.
This revolted during the rule of Rudramadevi
A) Manumasiddhi
B) Ambadeva
C) Veerabhadra
D) Kumaradeva
Answer:
B) Ambadeva

Question 32.
Nayankara with Nayak title, were appoin ted by ………… to encourage the skilled warriors.
A) Rudramadevi
B) Prataparudra
C) All the above
D) None
Answer:
C) All the above

Question 33.
The Kakatiyas brought large tracts of land under cultivation by building
A) Tanks
B) Wells
C) Both A & B
D) Canals
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
The Kakatiya women who donated lands on a large scale for building temples.
A) Muppamamba
B) Mailamma
C) Both A & B
D) Ganapamba
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 35.
The main source of income in the Kakatiya period.
A) land cess
B) trade tax
C) property tax
D) wealth tax
Answer:
B) trade tax

Question 36.
The famous shipyard during the Kakatiya period.
A) Motupalli
B) Kayal
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Nijampatnam
Answer:
A) Motupalli

Question 37.
The new’ kingdom, with Delhi as its centre, was established in ………
A) 1190
B) 1180
C) 3170
D) 1160
Answer:
A) 1190

Question 38.
This Sultan defeated Prataparudra
A) Mohammad-bin-Tugluq
B) Alladin-Khilji
C) Mubarak-Khilji
D) None
Answer:
A) Mohammad-bin-Tugluq

Question 39.
The Kakatiya dynasty ruled out in the year
A) 1300 AD
B) 1320 AD
C) 1323 AD
D) 1350 AD
Answer:
C) 1323 AD

Question 40.
The history of Palanati Warriors was written by
A) Bara
B) Nannaya
C) Tikkana
D) Srinadha
Answer:
D) Srinadha

Question 41.
The Palanati Warrior who said the caste must be set aside when one goes to war.
A) Brahmanayudu
B) Balachandra
C) Nalagama Raju
D) Nagamma
Answer:
B) Balachandra

Question 42.

The picture belongs to
A) Cholas
B) Chalukyas
C) Kakatiyas
D) Pandyas
Answer:
C) Kakatiyas

Question 43.

The coin belongs to
A) Vijayanagaras
B) Bahmanis
C) Pallavas
D) Kakatiyas
Answer:
D) Kakatiyas

Question 44.
One appreciable feature of Rudrama devi
A) She was fearless and subdued enemies
B) She encouraged poets
C) She collected heavy taxes
D) She gave freedom to Nayakas
Answer:
A) She was fearless and subdued enemies

Question 45.
An important appreciable feature of Kakatiyas to agriculture
A) They brought vast forest lands to agriculture
B) They built tanks
C) They encouraged tribes
D) They introduced new crops
Answer:
B) They built tanks

Question 46.
Read the information and answer the following question.
Srimad – Andhra Mahabharatamu is the first poetic work in Telugu which was compose by Kavitrayamu.
Q. These are called Kavitrayamu
A) Pothana, Nannaya, Singana
B) Nannaya, Tikkana, Errapragada
C) Srinadha, Durjati, Tenali Rama- krishna
D) Peddana, Mallana, Tikkana
Answer:
B) Nannaya, Tikkana, Errapragada

Question 47.
Delhi Sultans : …………. :: Kakatiyas : Rudramadevi
A) Kannamba
B) Raziya Sulthana
C) Nagama
D) Padmini
Answer:
B) Raziya Sulthana

Question 48.
Sultan Mohammed bin Tughlaq was able to defeat Kakatiya Pratapa- rudra in 1323 A.D.
Q. When did Kakatiya kingdom ended?
A) 1200 A.D
B) 1100 A.D
C) 1327 A.D
D) 1323 A.D
Answer:
D) 1323 A.D

Question 49.
Prola -11 – 1116- 1157 A.D
Rudradeva – 1158 – 1195 A.D
Ganapati Deva – 1199 – 1262 A.D
Rudramadevi – 1262- 1289 A.D
Prataparudra – 1289 – 1323 A.D
Q. Thousand Pillared Temple was built by
A) Rudradeva
B) Ganapathi deva
C) Rudramadevi
D) Prataparudra
Answer:
A) Rudradeva

Question 50.
During this period capital was shifted from Anmakonda to Orugallu.
A) Rudramadevi
B) Rudradeva
C) Ganapathi Deva
D) None
Answer:
B) Rudradeva

Question 51.
Rudrama Devi calls herself as
A) Rudradeva Maharaj
B) Rudra
C) Ganapathideva
D) Prataparudra
Answer:
A) Rudradeva Maharaj

Question 52.
The famous port of Kakatiyas
A) Motupalli
B) Kolleru
C) Nizampatnam
D) Srirangam
Answer:
A) Motupalli

Question 53.
Rudrama and her grandson …………… faced many revolts and took several steps to control these chiefs.
A) Rudradeva
B) Ganapatideva
C) Prataparudra
D) Prola
Answer:
C) Prataparudra

Question 54.
The Motupalli port is connected with which of the following dynasties?
A) Vijayanagara
B) Cholas
C) Kakatiyas
D) Western Chalukyas
Answer:
C) Kakatiyas

Question 55.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) Saluva Narasimharaya – Abdul Razzak
B) Devaraya II – Domingo Paes
C) Rudrama Devi – Marco Polo
D) Krishnadevaraya – Nuniz
Answer:
C) Rudrama Devi – Marco Polo

Question 56.
Kakatiyas adopted which one among the following as the favoured language of the court?
A) Sanskrit
B) Telugu
C) Tamil
D) Kannada
Answer:
B) Telugu