Mahesh

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Energy from the Sun on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson Energy from the Sun with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Temperature difference between places also causes winds and
A) Rains
B) Energy
C) Angle of incidence
D) Global warming
Answer:
A) Rains

Question 2.
The solar radiation received on the surface of the Earth is called
A) Radiation
B) Insolation
C) Reflection
D) Angle of incidence
Answer:
B) Insolation

Question 3.
It will get more warmer on the …………… than the regions near the poles.
A) Arctic circle
B) Antarctic circle
C) Equator
D) Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 4.
It Is safer and advisable to use thermometer that has a scale of …………..
A) 10°C -110°C
B) 10°C to 90°C
C) 10°C -100°C
D) 10°C – 120°C
Answer:
A) 10°C -110°C

Question 5.
………… is far away from the sea.
A) Kolkata
B) Panaji
C) Hyderabad
D) Kanyakumari
Answer:
A) Kolkata

Question 6.
Indonesia is in this region of
A) Arctic
B) Antarctic
C) Temperate
D) Equatorial
Answer:
D) Equatorial

Question 7.
……………. decreases with elevation.
A) Temperature
B) Insolation
C) Radiation
D) Reflection
Answer:
A) Temperature

Question 8.
…………… cannot be seen but can be felt.
A) Oceans
B) Continents
C) Mountains
D) The diversity in temperature
Answer:
D) The diversity in temperature

Question 9.
The difference between the temperatures of two places influence these
A) winds
B) rains
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 10.
Trees and animals live by depending on these.
A) heat
B) water
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 11.
The energy which is constantly emitted by the Sun is known as
A) Solar radiation
B) Solar insolation
C) Solar ray
D) Solar energy
Answer:
D) Solar energy

Question 12.
The energy comes from the Sun in this form.
A) Sun’s rays
B) Sunlines
C) Solar radiation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Sun’s rays

Question 13.
The energy comes from the Sun in this form.
A) Ultraviolet rays
B) Radio waves
C) X – rays
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
…………… of the solar energy is reflected back by the Earth’s atmosphere.
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 1/5
Answer:
B) 1/3

Question 15.
Some amount of solar rays are also absorbed or reflected away by
A) Clouds
B) Smoke
C) Dust
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The equatorial region is hot when compared to the poles.
A) The same amount of solar energy falls on a larger area on the equator and on a smaller area as we move north and south of it.
B) The same amount of solar energy falls on a smaller area on the equator and on a larger area as we move north and south of it.
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) The same amount of solar energy falls on a smaller area on the equator and on a larger area as we move north and south of it.

Question 17.
The angle at which the sunrays fall on the earth’s surface.
A) Better angle
B) Angle of incidence
C) Increasing angle
D) None
Answer:
B) Angle of incidence

Question 18.
The angle of incidence increases in the north during the months of
A) May – June
B) November – December
C) September – October
D) June – July
Answer:
B) November – December

Question 19.
The atmosphere or the air around US is heated by the sunrays in this way.
A) heated directly
B) not heated directly
C) mixes in the air
D) all the above
Answer:
B) not heated directly

Question 20.
The gas that objects the radiation of the earth.
A) O₂
B) Organ
C) CO₂
D) All the above
Answer:
C) CO₂

Question 21.
The instrument that measure atmospheric temperature.
A) Barometre
B) Celsius Thermometre
C) Anemometre
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Celsius Thermometre

Question 22.
The highest temperature that is recorded in Azizia in Libya in July 1992.
A) 56°C
B) 57°C
C) 57.8°C
D) 68°C
Answer:
C) 57.8°C

Question 23.
The lowest temperature that was recorded in Vostok in Antarctica in July 1983.
A) – 68°C
B) – 89.2°C
C) – 90°C
D) – 90.2°C
Answer:
B) – 89.2°C

Question 24.
The lowest temperature that is less than zero.
A) – 273°C
B) – 274°C
C) -273.16°C
D) – 264°C
Answer:
C) -273.16°C

Question 25.
The highest temperature in Ananthapuram is recorded in this month.
A) April
B) May
C) July
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 26.
The lowest temperature in Ananthapuram is recorded in this month.
A) September
B) October
C) November
D) December
Answer:
D) December

Question 27.
The highest temperature is recorded in Visakhapatnam in this month.
A) May
B) January
C) September
D) March
Answer:
A) May

Question 28.
The temperatures when moving to high altitudes.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) no change
D) none
Answer:
A) decrease

Question 29.
For ascent of 1000 mtrs. from the sea level the temperature.
A) increases 6°C
B) decreases 6°C
C) no change
D) decreases 4°C
Answer:
B) decreases 6°C

Question 30.
The temperature inversion is recorded in
A) Mountain Valleys
B) The regions where the daytime is less and night time is more with low earth’s radiation
C) Near the earth during winters
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 31.
The temperature in the regions near the equator.
A) more
B) low
C) no change
D) change is present
Answer:
A) more

Question 32.
The regions in India that have average temperature is 30°C in January in India.
A) Many are there
B) No places are there
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Many are there

Question 33.
VOSTOK is a station in
A) Arctic region
B) Antarctica
C) Australia
D) America
Answer:
B) Antarctica

Question 34.
If the insolation received at the equator (0°) is 100 units, then the number of units at 45° (Northern Japan)
A) 50
B) 40
C) 75
D) 100
Answer:
C) 75

Question 35.
If the insolaiton received at the equator (0°) is 100 units, then the number of units at 661/2° (Arctic circle)
A) 40
B) 50
C) 25
D) 45
Answer:
B) 50

Question 36.
The lowest temperature in Visakhapatnam is recorded in this month.
A) January
B) December
C) March
D) May
Answer:
A) January

Question 37.
The energy radiated by the Sun is ……………… throughout the year and year after year.
A) more or less constant with very little variation
B) different
C) increases
D) decreases
Answer:
A) more or less constant with very little variation

Question 38.
Even the rays that reach the ground do not heat the Earth’s surface uniformly.
A) because the earth’s surface is flat
B) because the earth’s surface is curved.
C) because the earth’s surface is up and down
D) all the above
Answer:
B) because the earth’s surface is curved.

Question 39.
If the Earth radiates back more heat than it receives, then it changes like this.
A) cool
B) warm
C) temperate
D) all the above
Answer:
A) cool

Question 40.
The reason for increase of CO₂
A) the increased usage of petrol & diesel, etc.
B) cutting forests
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 41.
The moderating climate influence is on this region.
A) Chennai
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Panaji
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
The moderating climate influence is hot on this region.
A) Delhi
B) Jaipur
C) Simla
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 43.
What is the line to the south of equator?
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Pacific Ocean
C) Tropic of Capricorn
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Tropic of Capricorn

Question 44.
What is the line to the north of equator?
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Arctic Ocean
C) Tropic of Capricorn
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Tropic of Cancer

Question 45.
This is …………. projection.
A) Rachalson
B) Johnson
C) Jackson
D) Robinson
Answer:
D) Robinson

Question 46.
The continents that are near to the equator
A) South America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
The given map is about
A) World mean temperature
B) World mean annual temperature
C) India’s mean temperature
D) India’s mean annual temperature
Answer:
B) World mean annual temperature

Look at the graph of Minimum- Maximum temperature given below and answer the questions.

Question 48.
The average highest temperature in July
A) 28°C
B) 35°C
C) 15°C
D) 40°C
Answer:
A) 28°C

Question 49.
There is a bigger difference between day and night temperatures in the month of
A) November
B) May
C) December
D) January
Answer:
B) May

Question 50.
The minimum temperature in June
A) 28°C
B) 26°C
C) 20°C
D) 15°C
Answer:
C) 20°C

Question 51.
The maximum temperature in December
A) 26°C
B) 18°C
C) 20°C
D) 30°C
Answer:
A) 26°C

Question 52.
This graph shows
A) temperature of Amaravathi
B) temperature of Lucknow
C) temperature of Tamil Nadu
D) temperature of Bengaluru
Answer:
D) temperature of Bengaluru

Observe the following graphs and answer the questions.

Question 53.
The month that receives the highest maximum temperature in Shimla
A) February
B) October
C) August
D) May
Answer:
D) May

Question 54.
The month that receives the lowest minimum temperature in Delhi
A) January
B) November
C) September
D) June
Answer:
A) January

Question 55.
In September, the average maximum temperature in Shimla is 17°C, while in Delhi it is
A) 30°C
B) 26°C
C) 34°C
D) 15°C
Answer:
C) 34°C

Question 56.
The highest maximum temperature in Delhi in the month of May is
A) 28°C
B) 22°C
C) 12°C
D) 40°C
Answer:
D) 40°C

Question 57.
Shimla has temperature in September.
A) 10°C
B) 5°C
C) 20°C
D) 2°C
Answer:
A) 10°C

Question 58.
Some gases like ……………… prevent radiation of heat from the earth.
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Carbon-di-oxide
Answer:
D) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 59.
…………… will take time to heat and cool.
A) Land
B) Oceans
C) Mountains
D) Valleys
Answer:
B) Oceans

Question 60.
The hot regions throughout the year.
A) Temperate regions
B) Polar regions
C) Equatorial regions
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Equatorial regions

Question 61.
…………… influence lives very much.
A) Temperature
B) Rainfall
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 62.
The main source of energy on the earth.
A) Jupiter
B) Mars
C) Moon
D) Sun
Answer:
D) Sun

Question 63.
The Global warming means
A) The earth’s radiation decreases as CO₂ increases.
B) The earth’s radiation increases as CO₂ decreases.
C) Both A & B
D) The CO₂ is constant and the earth’s radiation is also constant
Answer:
A) The earth’s radiation decreases as CO₂ increases.

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Reading and Analysis of Maps on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Anaximander was a ……………. geographer.
A) Greek
B) Italian
C) Indian
D) Canadian
Answer:
A) Greek

Question 2.
One famous Arab mapmaker, Al Idrisi prepared a ………………… map for his king.
A) Arab
B) Indian
C) World
D) Australia
Answer:
C) World

Question 3.
Relief features mean the high and low places on the surface of a
A) Planet
B) Star
C) Ocean
D) Core of a star
Answer:
A) Planet

Question 4.
An/A is a collection of maps.
A) Mapbook
B) Atlas
C) Textbook
D) Notebook
Answer:
B) Atlas

Question 5.
They established a department called “Survey of India.”
A) Dutch
B) French
C) British
D) Polish
Answer:
C) British

Question 6.
In ……………. William Hambton began one of the most important geographical surveys in the world.
A) 1802
B) 1702
C) 1902
D) 1752
Answer:
C) 1902

Question 7.
A map is used by geographers to show features and information that we consider important about a place.
A) Political maps
B) Geographical maps
C) Historical maps
D) None
Answer:
A) Political maps

Question 8.
Some of the earliest surviving maps were made about …………… years ago.
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 4000
D) 5000
Answer:
C) 4000

Question 9.
……………. also made some of the world earliest maps.
A) Sumerians
B) Babylonians
C) Chinese
D) Indians
Answer:
B) Babylonians

Question 10.
They tried to make the maps accurate with the help of longitudes and latitudes.
A) Romans
B) Persians
C) Greeks
D) Indians
Answer:
C) Greeks

Question 11.
A set of places where the midday occurred at the same time were joined together with a line from North to South is
A) Meridian
B) Noon-line
C) Longitude
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
The Chinese showed this cape which was already discovered by the Europeans
A) Kanya Kumari
B) Goodhope
C) Biskae
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Goodhope

Question 13.
The birthplace of Jesus Christ
A) Palestine
B) Jerusalem
C) Arabia
D) America
Answer:
B) Jerusalem

Question 14.
The Europeans rediscovered the books of Ptolemy in
A) 1400
B) 1480
C) 1520
D) 1600
Answer:
B) 1480

Question 15.
The …………… had blocked the trade route to India across the Mediterranean sea.
A) Arabs
B) Europeans
C) Turks
D) Greeks
Answer:
A) Arabs

Question 16.
……………. discovered America.
A) Columbus
B) Vasco-da-Gama
C) Magillan
D) Copernicus
Answer:
A) Columbus

Question 17.
In the 16th century ……………….. emerged as a major trading power.
A) Holland
B) Poland
C) Russia
D) Spain
Answer:
A) Holland

Question 18.
……………. was appointed as Indian Surveyor General.
A) James Rennel
B) James Sanneel
C) James William
D) None
Answer:
A) James Rennel

Question 19.
In our times …………….. are used extensively for planning and development of countries.
A) maps
B) pictures
C) cinemas
D) statues
Answer:
A) maps

Question 20.
Usually, a map focuses only on one aspect which is called as …………….. maps.
A) thematic
B) geographical
C) employment
D) population
Answer:
A) thematic

Question 21.
This colour is used to show the forest in a map.
A) light green
B) dark green
C) wheat colour
D) violet
Answer:
B) dark green

Question 22.
The colour is used to show mountains in maps.
A) violet
B) dark violet
C) light violet
D) dark grey
Answer:
D) dark grey

Question 23.
……………. is used to show tanks, rivers, canals and wells, etc.in maps.
A) Light red
B) Light violet
C) Light blue
D) White
Answer:
C) Light blue

Question 24.
The other name of contour lines.
A) Isobars
B) Isohyets
C) Isolines
D) Isopleths
Answer:
C) Isolines

Question 25.
A science of maps
A) History
B) Cartography
C) Coreography
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Cartography

Question 26.
The Britishers established a department to prepare detailed maps of the interiors of the country. (
A) Indian Forest Department
B) Indian River-based Department
C) Survey of India
D) Indian Soil Department
Answer:
C) Survey of India

Question 27.
……………. is the technique of taking of photographs of the ground from an elevated position using aircrafts, helicopters, hot air balloons, etc.
A) Aerial line
B) Aerial clouds
C) Aerial photography
D) Sea surface
Answer:
C) Aerial photography

Question 28.
Columbus went ……………. and discovered America.
A) Eastward
B) Westward
C) Southward
D) Northward
Answer:
B) Westward

Question 29.
How did the Greeks show the continents in the world?
A) Europe, Libya, Asia
B) Europe, America, Africa
C) Europe, Asia, America
D) Asia, Libya, America
Answer:
A) Europe, Libya, Asia

Question 30.
………………. are the photographs of the earth taken by the artificial satellites launched into the space.
A) Satellite imageries
B) Blue colour imageries
C) Drawn by hand
D) None
Answer:
A) Satellite imageries

Question 31.
The maps which show hills, rivers and plateaus.
A) Geographical maps
B) Political maps
C) Economic maps
D) Population maps
Answer:
A) Geographical maps

Question 32.
Babylonians and Sumerians belonged to present day
A) Iran
B) Iraq
C) Russia
D) America
Answer:
B) Iraq

Question 33.
The symbols on a map to show Post Office, Telegraph Office, Combined Office and Police Station in a line.
A) PO TO PTO PS
B) PO RS GS PS
C) CH PO TO PTO
D) RF PF CH CG
Answer:
A) PO TO PTO PS

Question 34.
The symbol to show roads.

Answer:
A)

Question 35.
The symbols used to show ups and downs, i.e. hills, valleys, plateaus, gardens, river flowing regions on land, lands of stones and sand.
A) contour lines
B) canal lines
C) painting lines
D) all the above
Answer:
A) contour lines

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 36.
Lakshadweep islands are in,
A) Indian ocean
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Arabian sea
D) Pacific ocean
Answer:
C) Arabian sea

Question 37.
Andaman Nicobar islands are in
A) Pacific ocean
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Arabian sea
D) Indian ocean
Answer:
B) Bay of Bengal

Question 38.
The state on the east coast among the following
A) Gujarat
B) Bihar
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 39.
The state on the west coast among the following
A) Maharashtra
B) Odisha
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
A) Maharashtra

Question 40.
The state which is not located on the east coast
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 41.
What type of soil do you find in the Kurnool district?
A) Red
B) Black
C) Alluvial
D) Laterite
Answer:
B) Black

Question 42.
What is the major type of soil in AP?
A) Black
B) Red
C) Laterite
D) Mountain
Answer:
B) Red

Question 43.
What type of soil do you find in Visakhapatnam?
A) Sandy coastal
B) Rocky hill
C) Black
D) None
Answer:
A) Sandy coastal

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 44.
The district which receives low rainfall among the following
A) East Godavari
B) West Godavari
C) Nellore
D) Ananthapur
Answer:
D) Ananthapur

Question 45.
The district which receives high rainfall among the following
A) Ananthapur
B) Kadapa
C) West Godavari
D) Chittoor
Answer:
C) West Godavari

Question 46.
The district which receives moderate rainfall among the following
A) Krishna
B) Guntur
C) Prakasam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
Chittoor district receives this type of rainfall
A) high
B) moderate
C) low
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) moderate

Question 48.
East Godavari receives this type of rainfall
A) low
B) moderate
C) high
D) none of the above
Answer:
C) high

Question 49.
The father of cartography was Gerardus Mercator.
A) Iran
B) Indian
C) Greek
D) Dutch
Answer:
D) Dutch

Question 50.
The earliest maps were made by
A) Sumerians
B) Egyptians
C) Chinese
D) Indians
Answer:
A) Sumerians

Question 51.
The Greek king came to India to conquer the world 2300 years ago.
A) Socrates
B) Alexander
C) Syrus
D) Darius -1
Answer:
B) Alexander

Question 52.
Preparing latitudes and longitudes took about ……………… years.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2000

Question 53.
……………… was one of the most famous geographers of the ancient world.
A) Ptolemy
B) Locke
C) Rousseau
D) Syrus
Answer:
A) Ptolemy

Question 54.
The books were used by the Arab scholars and sailors to prepare maps.
A) Copernicus
B) Galileo
C) Ptolemy
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Ptolemy

Question 55.
…………….. prepared a world map for his king in 1154.
A) Al idrisi
B) Ptolemy
C) Locke
D) None
Answer:
A) Al idrisi

Question 56.
During the 15th century, …………….. inspired a new enthusiasm in the non-Arabic world.
A) Copernicus
B) Ptolemy
C) Al Idrisi
D) Locke
Answer:
B) Ptolemy

Question 57.
The Father of Dutch Cartography
A) Galileo
B) Gerardus Mercator
C) Al Idrisi
D) Copernicus
Answer:
B) Gerardus Mercator

Question 58.
He/who prepared one of the first survey-based maps of India.
A) Sir William
B) Mecauley
C) James Rennel
D) James -1
Answer:
C) James Rennel

Question 59.
This person proved that Everest is the highest peak in the world.
A) Sir George William
B) Me. Mahon
C) Durand
D) Sir George Everest
Answer:
D) Sir George Everest

Question 60.
The population density of Andhra Pradesh according to Census – 2011 is
A) 308
B) 307
C) 1030
D) 1102
Answer:
D) 1102

Question 61.
The state highest density of population according to the Census – 2011.
A) Assam
B) Kerala
C) West Bengal
D) Bihar
Answer:
D) Bihar

Question 62.
The population density of West Bengal
A) 1102
B) 1030
C) 859
D) 828
Answer:
B) 1030

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Movement and Locomotion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following does not have legs, and shows locomotion?
A) frog
B) snake
C) man
D) crow
Answer:
B) snake

Question 2.
These are the organisms that can walk and fly.
A) fish
B) frog
C) birds
D) tiger
Answer:
C) birds

Question 3.
Joints that are present in ankles
A) pivot
B) ball and socket
C) gliding
D) hinge
Answer:
C) gliding

Question 4.
Parts where the smooth bone is located
A) skull
B) nose tip
C) clavicle
D) femur
Answer:
B) nose tip

Question 5.
Rib cage protects
A) stomach
B) heart
C) lungs
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

Question 6.
Backbone is a composition of
A) vertebrae
B) muscles
C) blood
D) metals
Answer:
A) vertebrae

Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. join muscles to bones.
Answer:
Tendon

2. ………………. join one bone to the other bone.
Answer:
ligament

3. The point where two bones meet is called a ……………….
Answer:
joint

4. Different bones of our body combine together to form the ………………..
Answer:
skeleton

5. ………………. work in pairs.
Answer:
Muscles

6. Plants shows ………………. but not locomotion.
Answer:
movements

7. Muscles are attached to ……………….
Answer:
bones

8. Displacement of the entire body from one place to another place ……………….
Answer:
locomotion

9. Shoulders have ………………. joint.
Answer:
ball and socket

10. Total muscles in our body are……………….
Answer:
650

11. Different bones of head corn binéd and form a ……………….
Answer:
skull

12. ………………. is the movable bone in our head.
Answer:
lower jaw

13. Backbone is made of ……………….
Answer:
vertebrae

14. Immovable joints are present in ……………….
Answer:
skull

15. Elbows and knees have ………………. joints.
Answer:
hinge joint

16. Locomotor organ in snail is ……………….
Answer:
foot

17. ………………. joint helps to bear more weight.
Answer:
pivot joint

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                         List-B
A) hinge joint                ( )          1. neck
B) pivot joint                 ( )          2. shoulder
C) ball and socket         ( )          3. backbone
D) gliding joint              ( )         4. knee
Answer:
A – 4,
B – 1,
C – 2,
D – 3

Question 2.
List – A                                   List – B
A) Fish                 ( )             1. Foot
B) Snake              ( )             2. Fins
C) Bird                 ( )             3. Scales
D) Snail                ( )            4. Wings
Answer:
A – 2,
B – 3,
C – 4,
D – 1

Question 3.
List – A                                  List – B
A) Joint                   ( )          1. Skull
B) Tendon               ( )          2. Joints of bones
C) Ligament            ( )          3. Bone to Muscle
D) Fixed Joint          ( )         4. Bone to bone
Answer:
A – 4,
B – 3,
C – 2,
D – 1

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Shadows – Images on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 11th Lesson Shadows – Images with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a light sours?
A) sun
B) candle
C) fan
D) tube light
Answer:
C) fan

Question 2.
Pin-hole camera does not have
A) screen
B) lenses
C) oil paper
D) tube
Answer:
B) lenses

Question 3.
In pinhole camera which act has lenses?
A) hole
B) screen
C) tube
D) oil paper
Answer:
A) hole

Question 4.
How many pipes the pin-hole camera have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
A) 2

Question 5.
Image size in pin-hole camera is
A) big
B) small
C) equal
D) tall
Answer:
B) small

Question 6.
Which of the following does not have colors?
A) object
B) image
C) shadow
D) photograph
Answer:
C) shadow

Question 7.
Which of the following shows complete reflection?
A) ball
B) glass
C) light
D) mirror
Answer:
D) mirror

Question 8.
Which is not need to form a shadow?
A) light
B) object
C) screen
D) glass
Answer:
D) glass

Question 9.
Find the odd one?
A) Balt
B) box
C) glass
D) bag
Answer:
C) glass

Fill in the blanks.

1. When light falls on any ……………… it rebounds back.
Answer:
Object

2. Example for the light source is ………………
Answer:
sun

3. Oil-paper and rough glass are ……………… substances.
Answer:
Translucent

4. ……………….. substances aren’t able to form shadows.
Answer:
transparent

5. ………………. is the art narrating the story with shadows.
Answer:
Puppet show

6. Oil-paper act as ……………… in a pinhole camera.
Answer:
Screen

7. In pinhole camera image is ……………….
Answer:
inverted

8. ……………….. shows the only the outline of an object.
Answer:
Shadow

9. In-plane mirror we saw ………………
Answer:
image

10. ……………… is need to see objects.
Answer:
light

11. ………………. objects form shadows.
Answer:
opaque

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Basic Electric Circuits on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 10th Lesson Basic Electric Circuits with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In a bulb the part which gives us light is:
A) Metal base
B) Glass chamber
C) Filament
D) Terminals
Answer:
C) Filament

Question 2.
Electric non-conductor is
A) Copper
B) Aluminium
C) Iron
D) Rubber
Answer:
D) Rubber

Question 3.
Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A) Paper
B) Plastic
C) Wood
D) Iron
Answer:
D) Iron

Question 4.
In which case will the bulb glow?

Answer:
B)

Question 5.
When small cells are connected in series, we get
A) Big cell
B) Battery
C) Dynamo
D) Generator
Answer:
B) Battery

Question 6.
In a series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs in the series will
A) stop working
B) continuously work
C) few work and other few stop
D) all the above
Answer:
A) stop working

Question 7.
The filament is made up of
A) Copper
B) Iron
C) Tungsten
D) Aluminium
Answer:
C) Tungsten

Question 8.
Electricity requires
A) Open path
B) Filament
C) Open and closed path
D) Closed path to flow
Answer:
D) Closed path to flow

Question 9.
The world’s first experimental electric power plant was opened in
A) USA
B) USSR
C) UK
D) Germany
Answer:
C) UK

Question 10.
The Italian biologist who touched two pieces of metal to a dead frog’s leg and made it jump was
A) Franklin
B) Christian Oersted
C) Faraday
D) Luigi Galvani
Answer:
D) Luigi Galvani

Question 11.
Cell is
A) On / Off
B) Connector
C) Supplies current
D) Filament
Answer:
C) Supplies current

Question 12.
The bulb glows only in
A) closed circuit
B) open circuit
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) closed circuit

Question 13.
A device which produces electricity
A) Eraser
B) Cell
C) Screwdriver
D) None
Answer:
B) Cell

Question 14.
To prevent electric shock, electric wires cover with
A) paper
B) cotton
C) aluminum
D) plastic
Answer:
D) plastic

Question 15.
An electric cell has …….. terminals.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 16.
A device that is used to break an electric circuit is called
A) Switch
B) Bulb
C) Battery
D) Filament
Answer:
A) Switch

Question 17.
………….. glows in the bulb when a current pass through it.
A) switch
B) battery
C) filament
D) wire
Answer:
C) filament

Question 18.
Which is an example of an insulator?
A) water
B) iron
C) copper
D) rubber
Answer:
D) rubber

Question 19.
Which is an example for a conductor?
A) copper
B) wood
C) plastic
D) rubber
Answer:
A) copper

Question 20.
Edison used …………. as the first filament.
A) cotton
B) wood
C) platinum wire
D) bamboo fiber
Answer:
C) platinum wire

Question 21.
The word “electricity” was introduced by
A) Newton
B) William Gilbert
C) Benjamin Franklin
D) Oersted
Answer:
B) William Gilbert

Question 22.
Michael Faraday invented
A) Rubber
B) bulb
C) Cell
D) Electric generatar
Answer:
D) Electric generatar

Question 23.
When small cells are connected in parallel we get
A) Dynamo
B) Generator
C) Battery
D) Big cell
Answer:
A) Dynamo

Question 24.
In house connections, electric’ bulbs are connected in
A) series
B) parallel
C) random
D) series and parallel
Answer:
B) parallel

Question 25.
Who built the first large-scale electric power plants in the USA?
A) Thomas Edison
B) Oersted
C) Faraday
D) Franklin
Answer:
A) Thomas Edison

Question 26.
…………. invented the electric generator.
A) Franklin
B) Oersted
C) Thomas Edison
D) Michael Faraday
Answer:
D) Michael Faraday

Question 27.
………….. discovered static electricity.
A) Thales of Miletus
B) Gilbert
C) Franklin
D) Oersted
Answer:
A) Thales of Miletus

Question 28.
When a switch is off, the circuit becomes
A) closed
B) opens
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) opens

Question 29.
Plastic is an
A) insulator
B) conductor
C) neither insulator nor conductor
D) none
Answer:
A) insulator

Question 30.
Substances through which current can pass are called
A) insulators
B) conductors
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) conductors

Question 31.
Choose the correct option.
1. Source of electricity         A) Flows currently
2. Open circuit                     B) Cell
3. Closed circuit                   C) Doesn’t flow current
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
Answer:
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

Question 32.
Choose the correct option.
1. Thales                    A) Bulb
2. Filament                B) Static electricity
3. Edison                   C) Generator
4. Faraday                  D) Tungsten
A) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
D) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A
Answer:
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 33.
In street line connections, electric bulbs are connected in
A) series
B) parallel
C) random
D) series and parallel
Answer:
A) series

Question 34.
Identify the part ‘X’ symbol in the given figure

A) Metal cap
B) Filament
C) Terminals
D) Glass
Answer:
B) Filament

Question 35.
In the given circuit which acts as switch?

A) Bulb
B) Cell
C) Safety pin
D) Wires
Answer:
C) Safety pin

Question 36.
Choose the odd one in the following figures.

Answer:
A)

Question 37.
The materials required to make a simple circuit is
A) Bulb, wires
B) Bulb, switch, cells
C) Switch, cells, wires
D) Bulb, switch, cell, wires
Answer:
D) Bulb, switch, cell, wires

Question 38.
Which of the following acts as positive terminal in a torch cell?
A) Filament
B) Carbon rod
C) Metal spring
D) Copper wire
Answer:
B) Carbon rod

Question 39.
To prevent electric shock, electric wires cover with
A) Plastic
B) Cotton
C) Iron
D) Cloth
Answer:
A) Plastic

Question 40.
The central part of an electrical cell consists of
A) Copper rod
B) Zinc rod
C) Carbon rod
D) Iron rod
Answer:
C) Carbon rod

Question 41.
Bulb : Glass :: Filament : ………..
A) Tungsten
B) Iron
C) Copper
D) Aluminium
Answer:
A) Tungsten

Question 42.
The signs of terminals of a cell are
A) +, +
B) +, –
C) -, –
D) +, ×
Answer:
B) +, –

Question 43.
Identify the wrong part in figure

A) Glass chamber
B) Filament
C) Metal cap
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Metal cap

Question 44.
A bulb has
A) 2 Terminals and 1 filament
B) 2 Terminals and 2 filaments
C) 1 Terminal and 1 filament
D) Multiple terminals and single filament
Answer:
A) 2 Terminals and 1 filament

Question 45.
A complete electric circuit is called ……………. electric circuit
A) Open
B) Closed
C) Complete
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Closed

Question 46.
When circuit is open current will
A) flow
B) not flow
C) increase
D) Decrease
Answer:
B) not flow

Question 47.
Shortline on battery symbol represents the
A) Positive terminal
B) Negative terminal
C) Resistance
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Negative terminal

Question 48.
In the following arrangement shown in fig. the bulb will not glow if the ends A and B are connected with

A) A copper wire
B) A steel spoon
C) A metal clip
D) A plastic clip
Answer:
D) A plastic clip

Question 49.
Choose the incorrect statement.
A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit
B) A switch help to complete or break the circuit.
C) A switch helps us to use electricity as per our requirement.
D) Cell has two terminals.
Answer:
A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit

Question 50.
Electric cell (Battery) as shown in the figure, pointer ‘A’ indicates.

A) Filament
B) Holder
C) Positive terminal
D) Negative terminal
Answer:
C) Positive terminal

Fill in the blanks.

1. There are ………………. terminals in an electric cell. They are ………………. & ……………….
Answer:
Two, Positive (+) & Negative (- )

2. The substances which do not allow an electric current to flow through them are called ……………….
Answer:
insulator

3. The two metal wires fixed to a torch bulb act as two ……………….
Answer:
terminals

4. ………………. is the source of electric energy in a torchlight.
Answer:
terminals
cell

5. The bulbs which do not ………………. are said to be fused.
Answer:
glow

6. Do not connect the two terminals of a cell with a ……………….
Answer:
single wire

7. The cell consists of ………………. rod at its center.
Answer:
carbon

8. ………………. filament is used finally by Thomas Alva Edison in his bulb.
Answer:
cotton

Match the following:

Question 1.
Group – A                                                Group – B
1) Miletus                            ( )             A) Primitive electric motor
2) William Gilbert                ( )             B) Two kinds of electric charge
3) Benjamin Franklin           ( )             C) Electrical Energy
4) Michael Faraday                ( )            D) Static Electricity
5) Thomas Alva Edison        ( )            E) Used the word ‘electricity’
–                                                          F) 1st large-scale electric power in the U.S.A.
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) A
5) F

Question 2.
Group – A                                     Group – B
1) Cell                          ( )             A) Gives light
2) Filament                  ( )             B) Conductor
3) Switch                      ( )            C) Insulator
4) Copper wire             ( )            D) open/close circuit
5) Rubber coat             ( )            E) Source of electrical energy
Answer:
1) E
2) A
3) D
4) B
5) C

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 9th Lesson Organisms and Habitat with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which among the following is an oviparous organism
A) Rabbit
B) Dog
C) Hen
D) Rat
Answer:
C) Hen

Question 2.
Viviparous animals
A) Lay eggs
B) Give birth to young ones
C) Lay eggs and give birth to young ones
D) None
Answer:
B) Give birth to young ones

Question 3.
We use …………… to see minute organisms.
A) Telescope
B) Periscope
C) Kaleidoscope
D) Microscope
Answer:
D) Microscope

Question 4.
Which of the following is a living thing?
A) Bacteria
B) Table
C) Chair
D) Rock
Answer:
A) Bacteria

Question 5.
Eyepiece is a ……………… component in the microscope.
A) Structural
B) Visual
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
B) Visual

Question 6.
Seed is a …………… thing.
A) Living
B) Non-living
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Living

Question 7.
………………. is the characteristic of Non-living things.
A) Reproduction
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Reproduction

Question 8.
……………. plant shows the response when we touch.
A) Neem
B) Guava
C) Mimosa
D) Mango
Answer:
C) Mimosa

Question 9.
Dead materials decompose to form
A) Living things
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Non-living things
Answer:
D) Non-living things

Question 10.
Aquatic plants live in ………………….
A) Water
B) Land
C) Sand
D) Mud soil
Answer:
A) Water

Question 11.
Which of the following is a desert plant?
A) Guava
B) Aloevera
C) Neem
D) Mango
Answer:
B) Aloevera

Question 12.
In which part we can see the earthworms
A) Roots
B) Trunk
C) Leaves
D) Branch
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 13.
………………. animal is seen in desert.
A) Horse
B) Rat
C) Camel
D) Elephant
Answer:
C) Camel

Question 14.
Pond skater lives on …………….
A) Pond margins
B) Surface of the pond
C) Bottom of the pond
D) None
Answer:
B) Surface of the pond

Question 15.
All the organisms depend on their surroundings for their needs like ………….
A) Food
B) Water
C) Shelter
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
Kondapalli reserve forest is located in
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Nellore
D) Prakasam
Answer:
B) Krishna

Question 17.
Pulicat lake is located in ………………. district.
A) Nellore
B) Krishna
C) West Godavari
D) Kurnool
Answer:
A) Nellore

Question 18.
The organism which is not seen in our house habitat.
A) Birds
B) Dogs
C) Crab
D) Rat
Answer:
C) Crab

Question 19.
In an orchard the farmers grow
A) All variety of fruits
B) All variety of flowers
C) All variety of fruit plants
D) Single variety of fruit plants
Answer:
D) Single variety of fruit plants

Question 20.
Some birds change their habitats for …………..
A) Reproduction
B) Respiration
C) Digestion
D) Excretion
Answer:
A) Reproduction

Fill in the blanks.

1. Get rid of wastes from plants and animals is called ………………
Answer:
Excretion

2. A change in the surrounding environment is ……………..
Answer:
Stimulus

3. …………….. is the abiotic component of a habitat.
Answer:
Soil

4. The body, base and arm are ……………… components of the microscope.
Answer:
Structural

5. …………….. things are intermediate things between living and non-living things.
Answer:
Dead

6. The surrounding which meets the needs of an organism is called ……………….
Answer:
Habitat

7. Mosquito larvae are.found in ……………. position of a pond.
Answer:
Mid water

8. …………….. are partners of our habitat.
Answer:
Animals

9. …………….. mangrove forest located between Visakhapatnam and East Godavari districts.
Answer:
Coringa

10. The dragonfly lives on …………….. portion of a pond.
Answer:
Above the surface

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                                    List – B
1) Living things                  ( )              A) Horse
2) Oviparous                      ( )              B) Rock
3) Non-living things           ( )             C) Microscope
4) Viviparous                      ( )             D) Crow
5) Bacteria                          ( )             E) Plants
Answer:
1) E
2) D
3) B
4) A
5) C

Question 2.
List – A                                                List – B
1) Hydrilla                        ( )            A) Pond margins
2) Cactus                          ( )            B) Orchard
3) Mango                         ( )            C) Between the branches
4) Frog                             ( )            D) Bottom of pond
5) Monkey                       ( )             E) Desert plant
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) A
5) C

Question 3.
List-A                                                      List-B
1) Seeds                            ( )            A) Plants
2) Permanent growth       ( )             B) Non-living thing
3) Stimulus                       ( )             C) Living thing
4) Excretion                      ( )             D) Responding to external force
5) Rock                             ( )             E) Get rid of wastes
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) B

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Organisms and Habitat on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 How Fabrics are Made on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 8th Lesson How Fabrics are Made with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Fibres obtained from plants and animals are called ……………… Fibres.
A) Artificial
B) Synthetic
C) Natural
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Natural

Question 2.
Cotton yarn obtained from
A) Jute
B) Cotton
C) Coconut
D) Peanut
Answer:
B) Cotton

Question 3.
Gandhiji used to wear …………………. cloth
A) Khadi
B) Silk
C) Woolen
D) Polyester
Answer:
A) Khadi

Question 4.
Gunny bags are made of ……………….
A) Coconut
B) Cotton
C) Jute
D) Groundnut
Answer:
C) Jute

Question 5.
Mangalagiri is famous for ……………… industry
A) Kalarnkari
B) Handicrafts
C) Carpets
D) Handlooms
Answer:
D) Handlooms

Question 6.
…………… famous for the carpet industry
A) Machilipatnarn
B) Mangalagiri
C) Pondurti
D) Dharmavaram
Answer:
A) Machilipatnarn

Question 7.
Polyester is made up of ……………….
A) Ethane
B) Alcohol
C) Acid
D) Petroleum
Answer:
D) Petroleum

Question 8.
The hair of …………….. is also useful in making warm clothes, mats and socks
A) Silkworm
B) Yak
C) Pig
D) Cow
Answer:
B) Yak

Question 9.
Choose the different one
A) Silk
B) Wool
C) Cotton
D) Polyester
Answer:
D) Polyester

Question 10.
Which of the following is a natural fibre?
A) Silk
B) Nylon
C) Rayon
D) None
Answer:
A) Silk

Question 11.
Separation of fibres of cotton from its seeds is called
A) Weaving
B) Ginning
C) Knitting
D) Spinning
Answer:
B) Ginning

Question 12.
Choose correct order
A) Fibre – Fabric – Yarn
B) Yarn – Fabric – Fibre
C) Fabric – Yarn – Fibre
D) Fibre – Yarn – Fabric
Answer:
D) Fibre – Yarn – Fabric

Question 13.
Coconut fibre is used to make
A) Shirts
B) Sarees
C) Doormats
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Doormats

Question 14.
……………. cloths were used by warriors in the olden days
A) Metal
B) Wool
C) Nylon
D) Polyester
Answer:
A) Metal

Question 15.
………………. is very difficult to decompose
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Wool
D) Polythene
Answer:
D) Polythene

Fill in the blanks.

1. The small tiny strand-like structures of cotton are called ……………….
Answer:
Fibres

2. Cotton grows in ………………. soils.
Answer:
Black

3. ……………….. fabric is used in bookbinding.
Answer:
Calico

4. Machilipatnam is famous for ……………… industry.
Answer:
Carpet

5. ……………. fibre is called Golden fibre.
Answer:
Jute

6. The artificial fibres give…………….. smell on burning.
Answer:
Pungent

7. ……………. is an instrument using for spinning of cotton.
Answer:
Spindle

8. In India ……………….. state is the highest producer of Jute.
Answer:
West Bengal

9. Coir is producing from ……………… plant.
Answer:
Coconut

10. …………… clothes are used in the summer season.
Answer:
Cotton

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                            List – B
1) Cotton                   ( )           A) Stem of Jute Plant
2) Silk                        ( )           B) Coir
3) Wool                     ( )           C) Petroleum
4) Jute                       ( )           D) Silk Worm
5) Polyester               ( )           E) Sheep
–                                               F) Cotton boll
Answer:
1) F
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) C

Question 2.
List – A                                    List – B
1) Fabric                ( )            A) Tiny Strands
2) Ginning             ( )            B) Yarn to Woven
3) Fibres                ( )            C) Process of removing seeds
4) Calico                ( )            D) Making yarn from fibre
5) Spinning            ( )            E) Fabric used in bookbinding
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) D

Question 3.
Lis t – A                                              List – B
1) Jute                               ( )           A) Calico
2) PVC                               ( )           B) Weaving fabrics
3) Hand & Powerlooms    ( )           C) Golden Fibre
4) Book binding                ( )           D) Linen
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Let us Measure on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 7th Lesson Let us Measure with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The standard unit of the Length is ………..
A) Centimeter
B) Millimeter
C) Kilometer
D) One meter
Answer:
D) One meter

Question 2.
This offers a wide varieties of standardized weights and measures of the time
A) Charaka Samhitha
B) Raja Tarangini
C) Arthshastra
D) Kadamban
Answer:
C) Arthshastra

Question 3.
The distance traveled by aeroplane or ship is measured by
A) Nautical Miles
B) Kilometers
C) Feet
D) Miles
Answer:
A) Nautical Miles

Question 4.
The volume of liquids are written in
A) Ml
B) Cm
C) Mm
D) Kl
Answer:
A) Ml

Question 5.
Which is the correct statement?
A) 1 cm = 100 mm
B) 1m = 100 cm
C) 1km = 100 m
D) All
Answer:
B) 1m = 100 cm

Question 6.
The protractor ranges from
A) 90’ — 180’
B) 0’ — 90’
C) 0’ — 180’
D) 0’ — 360’
Answer:
C) 0’ — 180’

Question 7.
The curved path length is measured with
A) Tape
B) Graph paper
C) Thread
D) Scale
Answer:
C) Thread

Question 8.
The original scale is preserved in the measure in
A) the U.S.A
B) Russia
C) U.K
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 9.
We indicate square millimeters as
A) m²
B) mm²
C) cm²
D) km²
Answer:
B) mm²

Question 10.
Larger distances can be measured in
A) mm
B) km
C) cm
D) All the above
Answer:
B) km

Fill in the blanks.

1. 1 cm = ……………. mm
Answer:
10 mm

2. The thickness of coins is measured with ………………
Answer:
Scale

3. The symbol of a square millimeter is ………………
Answer:
Mm²

4. 1 km = ……………… meters.
Answer:
1000 m

5. ……………… is used to measure the volume of irregularly shaped body.
Answer:
Measuring Cylinder

6. Foot space, hand space, and cubit are ……………… methods to measure the length of objects.
Answer:
Conventional

7. ……………… is the smallest unit in scale.
Answer:
Millimeter/mm

8. ……………… is the symbol of the square meter.
Answer:
M²

9. ……………… is the measure of the extent of space that occupies by body.
Answer:
Volume

10. The volume of liquids is measured in ………………
Answer:
Millilitres/ml

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                    List – B
1) Measuring cylinder           ( )           A) Distance traveled by ship
2) Measuring tape                ( )            B) Volume of liquids
3) Nautical miles                   ( )           C) Tailor
4) Bigha                                ( )            D) Gram
5) Unit of mass                     ( )             E) Cube
–                                                            F) Mughal measurement system
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) D

Question 2.
List-A                                                        List-B
1) Centimeter                          ( )           A) l × b
2) Square millimeter                ( )           B) 3 Feet
3) Yard                                     ( )           C) cm
4) Millimeter                            ( )           D) mm²
5) Area                                     ( )           E) ml
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) E
5) A

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Fun with Magnets on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 6th Lesson Fun with Magnets with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Among the following the natural magnet is
A) Rock stone
B) Lodestone
C) Gold stone
D) None
Answer:
B) Lodestone

Question 2.
Among the following which is not attracted by magnet?
A) Iron
B) Cobalt
C) Gold
D) Nickel
Answer:
C) Gold

Question 3.
Materials that are not attracted to magnet are called
A) Magnet
B) Non-magnetic
C) Pole
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Non-magnetic

Question 4.
A freely suspended bar magnet always aligns in which direction?
A) East-West
B) West-North
C) East-South
D) North-South
Answer:
D) North-South

Question 5.
How many poles does each magnet have?
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Four
Answer:
C) Two

Question 6.
In the olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………………
A) Wood
B) Cloth
C) Stone
D) Natural magnets
Answer:
D) Natural magnets

Question 7.
Like poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Attract and repel
D) None
Answer:
B) Repel

Question 8.
Which poles attract in a magnet?
A) Like poles
B) Unlike poles
C) Both unlike and like poles
D) None
Answer:
B) Unlike poles

Question 9.
Identify the natural magnet shape
A) Bar
B) Disc
C) Needle
D) Don’t definite shape
Answer:
A) Bar

Question 10.
This should be kept away from cassettes, mobiles, television, music system, compact disks (CDS) and the computer
A) plastic
B) wood
C) wire
D) magnet
Answer:
D) magnet

Question 11.
The magnet attracts only ……………….. objects.
A) Non-magnetic
B) Magnetic
C) Plastic
D) Wood
Answer:
B) Magnetic

Question 12.
…………………. property of magnets is used to make a magnetic compass.
A) Pair
B) Pole
C) Directional
D) Induction
Answer:
C) Directional

Question 13.
The instrument used to detect direction is
A) iron bar
B) gold
C) compass
D) magnetic substance
Answer:
C) compass

Question 14.
……………… is an example for non-magnetic material.
A) Paper
B) Iron
C) Steel
D) Nickel
Answer:
A) Paper

Question 15.
Unlike poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Attract

Question 16.
Freely suspended magnet shows
A) pair property
B) pole property
C) induction property
D) directive property
Answer:
D) directive property

Question 17.
The surest test of magnetism is
A) repulsion between poles
B) directive property
C) attraction between poles
D) none
Answer:
A) repulsion between poles

Question 18.
The ore of the magnetic
A) Carnalite
B) Magnetite
C) magnetic induction
D) magnetic dip
Answer:
B) Magnetite

Question 19.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Like poles                                   A) Induction
2. Unlike poles                               B) Repel
3. Artificial magnet                        C) Strong power
4. Iron attracted by a magnet by   D) Attract
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 20.
Electromagnetic train works on the principle of
A) Magnetic attraction
B) Directional property
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic levitation
Answer:
D) Magnetic levitation

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Compass             A) Magnet
2. Earth also            B) Non-magnet
3. N-S poles            C) Magnetic needle
4. Gold                    D) Natural magnet
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 22.
Identify the Horse-shoe magnet in the following.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
D)

Question 23.

In the above diagram, the north and south poles are
A) attract
B) repel
C) neither attract nor repel
D) none
Answer:
A) attract

Question 24.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Lodestone                    A) N – S direction
2. Ring magnet                B) Magnus
3. Nail                              C) Man made
4. Compass                      D) Magnetic material
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

Question 25.
Match the following.

A) P – W, Q – X, R – Y, S – Z
B) P – X, Q – Y, R – Z, S – W
C) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X, S – Y
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y
Answer:
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y

Question 26.
Identify the wrong statement.
A) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
B) Heat can destroy the magnetic properties of a magnet.
C) A freely suspended bar magnet rests in N – S direction.
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.
Answer:
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.

Question 27.
Which two ends of a magnet are called magnetic poles?
A) South pole
B) North and South pole
C) North pole
D) Self demagnetization
Answer:
B) North and South pole

Question 28.
Magnets have a shape
A) horseshoe
B) ring
C) disc
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 29.
Observe the following statements.
i) Magnets are made up of different materials and different shapes.
ii) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
B) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect
C) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct
D) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 30.
The magnetic properties of a magnet cannot be destroyed by
A) heating
B) boiling
C) hammering
D) dropping on a hard surface
Answer:
B) boiling

Question 31.
Ravi: Magnetic poles always do not exist in pairs.
Gopi: Similar poles of two magnets attract each other.
A) Ravi is correct Gopi incorrect
B) Ravi incorrect, Gopi correct
C) Both Ravi and Gopi correct
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect
Answer:
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect

Question 32.
……………. poles of a magnet attract other.
A) Like
B) Opposite
C) South
D) North
Answer:
B) Opposite

Question 33.
Srinu wanted to make a nail into a magnet. He dragged the nail with a magnet* but he dragged the magnet back and forth. What happens?
A) Nail magnetized
B) Nail not magnetized
C) Nail has broken
D) Nail bends
Answer:
B) Nail not magnetized

Question 34.
The picture shows …………… magnet.

A) round
B) disc
C) horseshoe
D) bar
Answer:
C) horseshoe

Question 35.
Match the following.
1. Iron, nickel, cobalt      a) Used to find out N – S directions
2. Compass                     b) Natural magnet
3. Lodestone                   c) Magnetic materials
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 36.
Observe the following statements and choose the right choice.
a) As poles repel
b) Unlike poles attract
A) a and b correct
B) a wrong & b correct
C) a correct & b wrong
D) a and b wrong
Answer:
A) a and b correct

Question 37.
When a ‘S’ pole a magnet in brought near the ‘N’ pole of a freely suspended magnetic needle, then it?
A) rotates
B) attracts
C) repels
D) none
Answer:
B) attracts

Question 38.
Match the following:
1. North pole                       a) Magnetic compass
2. South pole                       b) North direction
3. Directional property        c) South direction
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 39.
When a magnet is placed on a plastic plate with common pins spread on it, then
A) Pins stick all around the magnet
B) Pins stick at the middle of the magnet
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet
D) None
Answer:
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet

Question 40.
The North end of the freely suspended magnet points towards?
A) Geographical North
B) Geographical South
C) Geographical East
D) Geographical West
Answer:
A) Geographical North

Question 41.
Which of the following helps a ship to move it in the right direction?
A) An anchor
B) speedometer
C) A thermometer
D) A compass
Answer:
D) A compass

Question 42.
Attraction is seen between the poles of two bar magnets in the case of
A) N – pole of one magnet with N – pole of other
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
C) S – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
D) all of these cases will show attraction
Answer:
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other

Question 43.
When a bar magnet is brought near iron dust most of the dust sticks
A) equally everywhere
B) near two ends
C) near the middle
D) at the middle and ends
Answer:
B) near two ends

Question 44.
“Magnet” was named after the name of the place
A) Greece
B) Magnus
C) Magnesia
D) Magnetite
Answer:
B) Magnus

Question 45.
Choose the correct statement.
X – Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near cell phones.
Y – Cell phone will get affected by the magnetic field when it is placed near Magnet.
A) Only ‘X’ correct
B) Only ‘Y’ correct
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
Answer:
C) Both are correct

Question 46.
In a bar magnet shown in the fig., the points A and B are called

A) Edges
B) Poles
C) Magnetic directions
D) Magnetic points
Answer:
B) Poles

Question 47.
A suspended bar magnet is resting in a direction as shown in fig.

The geographical direction at that place are

Answer:
D)

Question 48.
A bar magnet is broken into two pieces as shown in the figure the two poles formed at their other ends in two pieces are

A) N, N
B) S, S
C) N, S
D) S, N
Answer:
D) S, N

Question 49.
If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then you can say
A) that is not a magnet, but not a magnetic substance
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance
C) that is a magnet but a magnetic substance
D) that is a magnet but not a magnetic substance
Answer:
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance

Question 50.
A student labeled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c – 1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2
Answer:
A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3

Question 51.
Which property is involved in the diagram?

A) Directional properly
B) Magnetic properly
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic, repulsion
Answer:
D) Magnetic, repulsion

Fill in the blanks.

1. Load stone is a …………………. magnet.
Answer:
natural

2. Man made magnets are called ………………..
Answer:
Artificial magnets

3. ……………… is the ore of magnet.
Answer:
Magnetite

4. Natural magnets are also called as ……………….
Answer:
lode stones

5. The method of changing the piece of iron into a magnet is called ………………
Answer:
magnetization

6. The materials that are attracted by magnets are called …………….
Answer:
magnetic material

7. The materials that are not attracted by magnets are called ………………
Answer:
non-magentic material

8. Attracting capacity is more at the ……………. of a magnet.
Answer:
poles

9. Like poles ………………. each other.
Answer:
repel

10. Unlike poles ……………… each other.
Answer:
attract

11. Magnets always come to rest in the direction. This property is called as ……………….. property.
Answer:
North-South, magnetic

12. Compos was developed based on …………….. property of magnets.
Answer:
directional

13. A compass is used to find ……………….
Answer:
direction

14. Magnetic property possessed by a magnetic substance due to the presence of a magnet near it, is called …………….
Answer:
magnetic induction

15. If an object is attracted by one pole of the bar magnet and repelled by its other pole, then it is a ………………
Answer:
magnet

16. If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then it is not a magnet but a ……………. substance.
Answer:
magnetic

17. If an object is neither attracted by magnet nor repelled by it, then it is neither a …………… nor a ………………. magnetic substance.
Answer:
magnet

18. Magnets lose their properties if they are ………………
Answer:
heated or dropped

19. Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near ………………..
Answer:
cell phone

20. An Electromagnetic train is also called as ……………..
Answer:
suspension train

21. The maglev train runs by using the property of ………………..
Answer:
magnetic levitation

Match the following:

Question 1.
A                                                            B
1) Like poles                     ( )         A) Lode stone
2) Unlike poles                 ( )         B) Chinese sailors
3) Army men                    ( )         C) Magnetic induction
4) Natural magnet           ( )          D) Repel
5) Magnetic compass      ( )          E) Magnetic compass
–                                                    F) Attract
Answer:
1) D
2) F
3) E
4) A
5) B

Question 2.
A                                                                   B
1) North pole                  ( )         A) Magnetic compass
2) South pole                  ( )         B) Magnetic substances
3) Directional property   ( )         C) South direction
4) Iron, cobalt                 ( )         D) Non-magnetic
5) Plastic, wood              ( )         E) Induction .
–                                                  F) North direction
Answer:
1) F
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 3.
A                                                            B
1) Natural magnet         ( )         A) Unlike poles
2) Attraction                  ( )         B) load stone
3) Non-magnetic           ( )        C) Horse shoe magnet
4) Artificial magnet        ( )        D) Like poles
5) Repulsion                   ( )        E) Plastic
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) E
4) C
5) D

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Materials: Separating Methods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 5th Lesson Materials: Separating Methods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Objects that would break
A) Steel glass
B) Steel plate
C) Glass cup
D) Wooden spoon
Answer:
C) Glass cup

Question 2.
Among the following transparent substance is
A) Glass
B) Plastic
C) Metal
D) Wood
Answer:
A) Glass

Question 3.
Oily paper is
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Luminous
D) Translucent
Answer:
D) Translucent

Question 4.
Water has a density of
A) 0.01 g/ml
B) 1 g/ml
C) 10 g/ml
D) 100 g/ml
Answer:
B) 1 g/ml

Question 5.
Among the following opaque substance is
A) Oily paper
B) Glass
C) Cardboard
D) Tracing paper
Answer:
C) Cardboard

Question 6.
Ice is the solid form of
A) Milk
B) Water
C) Petrol
D) Diesel
Answer:
B) Water

Question 7.
This floats on water
A) Sawdust
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Haldi
Answer:
A) Sawdust

Question 8.
When water is heated this is produced
A) Ice
B) Hot water
C) Cool water
D) Water vapour
Answer:
D) Water vapour

Question 9.
These substances allow light
A) Opaque
B) Luminous
C) Transparent
D) None
Answer:
C) Transparent

Question 10.
These can’t change shape
A) Liquids
B) Solids
C) Gases
D) All of three
Answer:
B) Solids

Question 11.
These don‘t have a shape
A) Solids
B) Gases
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Gases

Question 12.
Tables are made from
A) wood
B) plastic
C) steel
D) clay
Answer:
A) wood

Question 13.
Glass is a
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
B) transparent

Question 14.
Which of the following is not soluble in water?
A) Chalk powder
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Chalk powder

Question 15.
Which object shines?
A) stone
B) plastic
C) glass
D) cotton
Answer:
C) glass

Question 16.
Sugar is ……………. substance.
A) liquid
B) solid
C) gases
D) all of these
Answer:
B) solid

Question 17.
Iron nail sinks in water but ships on the water.
A) floats
B) sinks
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) floats

Question 18.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
1. Gold        A) Opaque
2. Wood      B) Metal
3. Glass       C) Transparent
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

Question 19.
The window is made with
A) wood
B) glass
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 20.
Bags are made with
A) plastic
B) Leather
C) stone
D) clay
Answer:
B) Leather

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Pot               A) Paper
2. Book            B) Leather
3. Shoes           C) Clay
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Question 22.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Soluble in water         A) Cork
2. Floats on water          B) Salt
3. Smoke                        C) Made of wax
4. Candle                        D) Gas
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

Question 23.
When white light shines on an object it may be
A) reflected
B) absorbed
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 24.
Which object was made with only one material?
A) Knife
B) Bicycle
C) Door
D) Pot
Answer:
D) Pot

Question 25.
Find the correct set of transparent substances.
A) Oil-paper and stone
B) Glass, polythene cover
C) Stone, tracing paper
D) Water, mirror.
Answer:
B) Glass, polythene cover

Question 26.
Srinu wants to use a mirror in his house for light at the same time the things should not be seen from outside. Which type of mirrors is to be used?
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Translucent
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Opaque

Question 27.
Identify the floating objects in water,
i) Kerosene
ii) Oil
iii) Ghee
iv) Petrol
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 28.
The opaque object of the following.
A) 40w bulb
B) Spectacle
C) Mirror
D) Glass beaker
Answer:
C) Mirror

Question 29.
X: Oil mixes with water V: Chalk dissolves in water
A) Both X and Y are correct
B) Both X and Y are incorrect
C) X correct, Y incorrect
D) X incorrect, Y correct
Answer:
B) Both X and Y are incorrect

Question 30.
The purpose of sorting material into groups is
A) convenience
B) to study their properties
C) both A and B
D) inconvenience
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 31.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Alcohol
B) Sodium chloride
C) Sugar
D) Coconut oil
Answer:
D) Coconut oil

Question 32.
Which is a set of transparent materials?
A) Water and air
B) Water and glass
C) Glass and air
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
Pick out the odd one in the following.
A) Sand settles down in the water
B) Sugar dissolves in water
C) Oil floats on water
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water
Answer:
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water

Question 34.
Which of the following does not float on water?
A) Paper
B) Stone
C) Coconut oil
D) Feather
Answer:
B) Stone

Question 35.
Match the following.
i) Wax                        a) Translucent
ii) Iron sheet              b) Floats on water
iii) Oily paper sheet   c) Opaque
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c., ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 36.
Pick out the odd one following.
A) Air
B) Wood
C) Iron
D) Gold
Answer:
A) Air

Question 37.
Which of the following is a soft material?
A) Diamond
B) Glass
C) Iron
D) Chalk
Answer:
D) Chalk

Question 38.
Oxygen is an example of
A) liquid
B) gas
C) solid
D) emulsion
Answer:
B) gas

Question 39.
Materials exist in states.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 40.
An ice cube floats on water, because
A) Density of ice is < Density of water
B) Density of ice is > Density of water
C) Density of ice is = Density of water
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Density of ice is < Density of water

Question 41.
The white smoke from a candle is
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A and B
Answer:
C) Gas

Question 42.
Match the following.
i) Milk                   a) Transparent
ii) Water vapour   b) Liquid
iii) Glass jar           c) Gas
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 43.
Match the following.
1) Soluble in water a) Iron nail
2) Insoluble in water b) Cork
3) Floats on water c) Salt
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 44.
Door: wood:: clay.
A) Shoes
B) Knife
C) Pot
D) Mirror
Answer:
C) Pot

Question 45.
Vinegar ……………….. in water.
A) dissolves
B) does not dissolve
C) floats
D) both A & B
Answer:
A) dissolves

Question 46.
Classification is essential for
A) sorting of objects
B) identification of objects
C) locating things
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 47.
Mercury is ……………….. at room temperature.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A & B
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 48.
The grouping of various objects can be done on the basis of
A) size
B) solubility in water
C) transparency
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 49.
Milk: Miscible in water:: …………………. : Immiscible in water
A) Soft drink
B) Glycerine
C) Petrol
D) Lemon juice
Answer:
C) Petrol

Question 50.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Oxygen
B) Sugar
C) Salt
D) Sawdust
Answer:
D) Sawdust

Question 51.
As you cannot see through objects made from materials, such materials are called
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
A) opaque

Question 52.
A material that does not dissolve completely into water is called
A) soluble
B) insoluble
C) opaque
D) translucent
Answer:
B) insoluble

Question 53.
Butter paper is
A) oily
B) opaque
C) transparent
D) translucent
Answer:
D) translucent

Question 54.
Find the odd one.
A) Sand
B) sugar
C) salt
D) water
Answer:
A) Sand

Question 55.
Which one of the following will float on water?
A) Stone
B) Steel
C) Dry leaves
D) Iron nails
Answer:
C) Dry leaves

Question 56.
The solid form of carbon dioxide is
A) Ice
B) Dry Ice
C) Wet Ice
D) Gas
Answer:
B) Dry Ice

Question 57.
In the Middle Ages, salt is referred to as
A) Platinum
B) Gold
C) Weight gold
D) Silver
Answer:
C) Weight gold

Question 58.
A solid directly changing into vapour
A) Solidification
B) Cooling
C) Sublimation
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Sublimation

Question 59.
A substance is obtained by mixing two or more pure substances
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
C) mixture

Question 60.
A clear liquid obtained after filtration
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
A) filtrate

Question 61.
A method for removing the husk from the grain
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) sedimentation
D) decantation
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 62.
Removing insoluble Impurities from muddy water by allowing it to settle
A) Sublimation
B) Filtration
C) Winnowing
D) Decantation
Answer:
D) Decantation

Question 63.
From saltwater, salt can be obtained by
A) crystallization
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) decantation
Answer:
A) crystallization

Question 64.
Doctors mix injection powder with
A) water
B) saline
C) distilled water
D) mineral water
Answer:
C) distilled water

Question 65.
Among the following pure water is
A) seawater
B) river water
C) pond water
D) distilled water
Answer:
D) distilled water

Question 66.
Among the following, this dissolves in water
A) sawdust
B) Haldi
C) iron nails
D) sand
Answer:
B) Haldi

Question 67.
For separating larger and smaller substances in a mixture we use
A) distillation
B) decantation
C) sedimentation
D) sieving
Answer:
D) sieving

Question 68.
An insoluble substance in a liquid can be separated by
A) handpicking
B) sieving
C) sedimentation
D) chromatography
Answer:
C) sedimentation

Question 69.
If a mixture has light and heavy substances we use
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) decantation
D) uilteration
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 70.
This is free from impurities
A) distilled water
B) seawater
C) well water
D) river water
Answer:
A) distilled water

Question 71.
Salt and camphor mixture can be separated by
A) filtration
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) sublimation

Question 72.
Tea leaves are separated from tea by
A) sieve
B) strainer
C) sedimentation
D) none
Answer:
B) strainer

Question 73.
The mud particles which settle down at the bottom of gas are called
A) filtrate
B) mud
C) sediment
D) sieve
Answer:
C) sediment

Question 74.
What property helps In separating husk from grains?
A) winnowing
B) handpicking
C) sieving
D) filtration
Answer:
A) winnowing

Question 75.
The stones are separated from pulses and rice by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) filtration
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 76.
The mixture of common salt and camphor is separated by
A) sublimation
B) evaporation
C) filtration
D) sedimentation
Answer:
A) sublimation

Question 77.
The compounds of solution are separated by
A) decantation
B) filtration
C) evaporation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) evaporation

Question 78.
The process used for separating grains from the stalk is called
A) sieving
B) decanting
C) winnowing
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 79.
Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) decanting
D) threshing
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 80.
Transferring the clear liquid into another container using a glass rod is called
A) filtration
B) decantation
C) condensation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
B) decantat ion

Question 81.
Hand-picking method is effective in
A) solid mixture
B) liquid mixture
C) gaseous mixture
D) None of these
Answer:
A) solid mixture

Question 82.
Which of the following method was used to separate two miscible liquids?
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) separating funnel
D) sublimation
Answer:
C) separating funnel

Question 83.
The process of setting down of particles of a solid in a liquid is known as
A) precipitation
B) decantation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
D) sedimentation

Question 84.
Air is a ……………
A) compound
B) mixture
C) pure substance
D) None of these
Answer:
B) mixture

Question 85.
The solubility of water ……………… with an increase in water.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
Answer:
A) increases

Question 86.
“Combine” is used In which of the following?
A) winnowing
B) sieving
C) filtration
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 87.
The spinner in the washing machine dries clothes works on the principle of
A) filtration
B) centrifugation
C) sedimentation
D) evaporation
Answer:
B) centrifugation

Question 88.
The method of separating substances based on size, colour and shape is called
A) sieving
B) handpicking
C) threshing
D) None of these
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 89.
Sand from water is separated by
A) condensation
B) filtration
C) sedimentation & decantation
D) sublimation
Answer:
B) filtration

Question 90.
Butter is separated from milk by
A) filtration
B) sedimentation
C) churning
D) decantation
Answer:
C) churning

Question 91.
A ………………. is a substance that makes you Ill if you don’t eat it.
A vitamin
B) ice
C) bread
D) Rice
Answer:
A vitamin

Question 92.
When few plants are infected …………….. is an excellent method of controlling pests.
A) filtration
B) sieving
C) winnowing
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 93.
An example of sublimation is
A) camphor
B) water
C) salt
D) sugar
Answer:
A) camphor

Question 94.
India’s largest saltwater lake is
A) Pulicot
B) Chilaka
C) Kolleru
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Chilaka

Question 95.
Distilled water is produced by …………………. method.
A) sublimation
B) crystallization
C) filtration
D) solidification
Answer:
C) filtration

Question 96.
…………… separates single colour to mixing colour.
A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Wirmowing
D) Filtrate
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 97.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Sublimation        A) Stone and grain
2. Sieve                   B) Saltwater
3. Dead sea            C) Iodine
4. Hand-picking     D) Filter paper
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A

Question 98.
Sita bought some vegetables such as lady’s finger, green chillies, brinjals and potatoes, all mixed in a bag.
Which of the following method of separation would be most appropriate for her to separate them?
A) Sieving
B) Threshing
C) Handpicking
D) Winnowing
Answer:
C) Handpicking

Question 99.
Ramu’s grandmother is suffering from fever. His doctor advised him to take “lassi” with less fat content.
Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for Ramu to prepare it?
A) Winnowing
B) Churning
C) Filtration
D) Decantation
Answer:
B) Churning

Question 100.
Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration?
A) Salt in water
B) Oil in water
C) Sugar in milk
D) Cornflakes in milk
Answer:
D) Cornflakes in milk

Question 101.
Which of these can be separated by the method of winnowing?
i) beans and chick peas.
ii) pulses and rice
iii) rice flakes and corn
iv) potato wafers and biscuits
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iii
D) iii & iv
Answer:
D) iii & iv

Question 102.
While preparing chapatis, Gopi found that the flour to be used was mixed with wheat grains.
Which of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour?
A) Filtration
B) Sieving
C) Threshing
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Sieving

Question 103.
You might have observed the preparation of ghee from butter and cream at home. Which method can be used to separate ghee from the residue?
i) Evaporation
ii) Decantation
iii) Filtration
iv) Churning
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) ii & iv
D) iv only
Answer:
D) iv only

Question 104.
The method that is used to obtain pure salt from impure salt
A) Crystallization
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) Decantation
Answer:
A) Crystallization

Question 105.
Rainwater is a kind of
A) Distilled water
B) Saline water
C) Saturated water
D) Carbonated water
Answer:
A) Distilled water

Question 106.
Separating the insoluble suspended solids of various sizes from a liquid is called
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Filtration
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Filtration

Question 107.
The principle behind winnowing is
A) Difference in shapes of components
B) Difference in densities of components
C) Difference in colours of components
D) Difference in the appearance of components
Answer:
B) Difference in densities of components

Question 108.
Paneer is separated from curdled milk by
A) Filtration
B) Evaporation
C) Sedimentation
D) Condensation
Answer:
A) Filtration

Question 109.
Separation of Kerosene oil and water is done by
A) Crystallization
B) Condensation
C) Decantation
D) Filtration
Answer:
C) Decantation

Question 110.
The rate of sedimentation is increased by adding ……………. to the water.
A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Soap
D) Alum
Answer:
D) Alum

Question 111.
Tiny pieces of stones are usually separated from pulses before cooking by the method
A) Handpicking
B) Sieving
C) Winnowing
D) Threshing
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 112.
Which of the following method is involved in the picture?

A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Crystallization
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 113.
Camphor: Sublimation:: Cream from milk: …………………
A) Winnowing
B) Evaporation
C) Filteration
D) Centrifugation
Answer:
D) Centrifugation

Question 114.
Observe the following and identify what “P” study for

A) Handpicking
B) Winnowing
C) Sublimation
D) Sieving
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 115.
A student labelled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a -1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c -1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3
Answer:
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3

Question 116.
The property which forms the basis of sieving.
A) difference in weight
B) difference in size.
C) difference in colour
D) difference in shape
Answer:
B) difference in size.

Question 117.
P: A mixture of milk and water can be separated by filtration.
Q: Separation of sugar from tea can be done with nitration.
A) Both P and Q are correct
B) Both P and Q are incorrect
C) P is correct and Q incorrect
D) P is incorrect and Q is correct
Answer:
B) Both P and Q are incorrect

Question 118.
Wrongly labelled part in the above diagram is

A) Cotton
B) Test tube
C) China dish
D) Stand
Answer:
B) Test tube

Question 119.
The apparatus which is not required in the experiment of distilling water is
A) Cork
B) Conical flask
C) Plastic tube
D) Candle
Answer:
D) Candle

Fill in the blanks.

1. The universal solvent is …………………
Answer:
water

2. Impurities from water can be removed by ………………..
Answer:
distillation

3. The process involved in preparation of salt is ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

4. …………….. method is used to separate larger and smaller substances.
Answer:
Sieving

5. An insoluble substances in a liquid can be separated by ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

6. We can separate colours from a mixture of colours by ……………….
Answer:
Chromatography

7. The mixture of powdered salt and camphor can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Sublimation

8. We can separate salt from salt water by ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

9. Mud from mud water can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Filtration

10. Sand from gravel is separated by ………………
Answer:
Sieving

11. Separation of husk from flour can be done by ……………….
Answer:
Sieving

12. Vinegar and oil are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

13. Kerosene and water are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

14. Tea leaves falling to the bottom in a tea cup is an example for ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation

15. Rotten fruits are separated from fresh fruits by the method of ……………….
Answer:
hand picking

16. Farmers use ………………. method to separate grains from husk.
Answer:
Winnowing

17. Stones from rice are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Hand picking

18. Cleaning of rice and pulses involved ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

19. Example for Natural mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Soil

20. Examples for Artificial mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Lemon juice

21. Door is made from ………………. materials.
Answer:
Wood, metal

22. Chairs are made from ……………….
Answer:
Iron, wood, plastic

23. Potato ………………. in water.
Answer:
Sinks

24. Smoke is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Gaseous

25. Table salt is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Solid

26. Kerosene is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Liquid

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                              List-B
1) Grains and Husk                   ( )         A) Crystallization
2) Kerosene and water             ( )         B) Filtration
3) Mud from mud water          ( )         C) Decantation
4) Salt from saltwater              ( )         D) Winnowing
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) B
4) A

Question 2.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Stones from Rice              ( )          A) Chromatogram
2) Impurities from water      ( )          B) Sieving
3) Colours from a mixture    ( )         C) Distillation
4) Flour from wheat             ( )          D) Hand picking
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B

Question 3.
List-A                                              List-B
1) Universal solvent         ( )         A) Wood
2) Gas                              ( )         B) Smoke
3) Solid                            ( )         C) Sugar
4) Door                            ( )         D) Water
Answer:
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) A

Question 4.
List-A                                                 List-B
1) Iron Nail                    ( )         A) Lemon juice
2) Iron boat                   ( )         B) Soil
3) Natural mixture         ( )         C) Sinks
4) Man made mixture    ( )        D) Floats
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Question 5.
List-A                                                             List-B
1) Sublimatiop                            ( )            A) Mud water
2) Filtration                                 ( )            B) Camphor
3) Strainer                                   ( )            C) Hand picking
4) Mangoes from oranges          ( )            D) Tea leaves
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) D
4) C

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Water on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 4th Lesson Water with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The human body requires ……………. of water
A) 1-2 litres
B) 2-3 litres
C) 4-5 litres
D) 5-6 litres
Answer:
B) 2-3 litres

Question 2.
The specific unit of measurement of the volume of water
A) Metres
B) Centimetres
C) Litres
D) Sq.metre
Answer:
C) Litres

Question 3.
Which of the following is comes under Agriculture use of water?
A) Germination of seed
B) Bathing
C) Cleaning
D) Washing
Answer:
A) Germination of seed

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a stable water resource?
A) Pond
B) River
C) Tank
D) Well
Answer:
B) River

Question 5.
Our body contains of water by weight
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 70%

Question 6.
Identify the juicy fruit from the following.
A) Cucumber
B) Snake gourd
C) Tomato
D) Watermelon
Answer:
D) Watermelon

Question 7.
How much of the earth’s surface is occupied by water?
A) 3/4
B) 1/2
C) 5/6
D) 4/5
Answer:
A) 3/4

Question 8.
We depend on ………….. for water.
A) Groundwater
B) Rains
C) Rivers
D) Seas
Answer:
B) Rains

Question 9.
Solid-state of water is present in …………………..
A) Oceans
B) Rivers
C) Glaciers
D) Mountains
Answer:
C) Glaciers

Question 10.
Which of the following process convert water into ice?
A) Condensation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Transpiration
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 11.
The liquid form of water is available in ……………………
A) Glaciers
B) Polar regions
C) Snow covered mountains
D) Rivers
Answer:
D) Rivers

Question 12.
The following vegetable contains a lot of water
A) Lady’s finger
B) Cucumber
C) Brinjal
D) Pumpkin
Answer:
B) Cucumber

Question 13.
Clouds in the sky are formed by the process of ………………………..
A) Distillation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation
Answer:
C) Evaporation

Question 14.
Water drops on the leaves of grass is the early morning due to ……………………..
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 15.
The weather condition where rain, snow, sleet or hail fall from the sky is called …………………
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
D) Precipitation

Question 16.
The water cycle revolves around the following
A) Earth
B) Oceans
C) Atmosphere
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 17.
Which of the following disturbs the water cycle?
A) Deforestation
B) Pollution
C) Global warming
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
Deforestation generally decreases the ………………….
A) Soil erosion
B) Drought
C) Rainfall
D) Global warming
Answer:
C) Rainfall

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a water-related disaster?
A) Floods
B) Earthquake
C) Tsunami
D) Drought
Answer:
B) Earthquake

Question 20.
The rise in water level of rivers leads to ……………………
A) Flood
B) Drought
C) Water scarcity
D) Dryland
Answer:
A) Flood

Question 21.
Among the following is the drought-prone district
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Kurnool
D) Chittoor
Answer:
C) Kurnool

Question 22.
Which among the following are water management techniques?
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation
B) Pollution of water
C) Using chemical fertilizers in agriculture
D) Digging several borewells
Answer:
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation

Fill in the blanks.

1. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of ………………. from the body.
Answer:
Toxins

2. Water and other liquids are measured in ……………….
Answer:
Litres

3. The fruits that contain more water are called ……………….
Answer:
Juicy fruits

4. ………………. is an example of a juicy vegetable.
Answer:
Cucumber

5. Of the water available on the earth, only ………………. is freshwater.
Answer:
3%

6. The water that is used by us for our daily purposes is called ……………….
Answer:
Freshwater

7. When water is ………………. it converts into water vapour.
Answer:
Heated

8. The amount of ………………. absorbed by water affects its evaporation.
Answer:
Heat

9. The process of conversion of water vapour into water is called ……………….
Answer:
Condensation

10. The ………………. in the upper layers of the atmosphere cools the clouds.
Answer:
Colder air

11. Big drops of water solidify into ice and fall as pieces of ice known as ……………….
Answer:
Hailstones

12. South-West Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
June-September

13. North-East Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
Nov-Dec

14. The circulation of water between the earth surface and the air is called ……………….
Answer:
Water cycle

15. Expand NDRF ……………….
Answer:
National Disaster Relief Force

16. Expand SDRF ……………….
Answer:
State Disaster Relief Force

17. Direct collection and use of rainwater is called ……………….
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting

18. Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses and buildings are called ……………….
Answer:
Roof water harvesting

19. The best irrigation water management method used in agriculture is ……………….
Answer:
Drip irrigation / Sprinkler irrigation

20. The only method of preventing scarcity of water is ……………….
Answer:
Conservation of water

21. Long periods of fewer rainfall causes ……………….
Answer:
Droughts & famines

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Water on earth          ( )               A. 70%
2) Fresh water                ( )               B. Monsoon
3) Water in our body     ( )               C. 75%
4) Hail stones                ( )                D. 3%
5) Rains                         ( )                E. Precipitation
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) B

Question 2.
List-A                                                  List-B
1) Solid form                   ( )           A. South-West Monsoon
2) Liquid form                 ( )           B. Ice
3) Gaseous form             ( )           C. North-East Monsoon
4) June-Sept                   ( )           D. Water
5) Nov-Dec                     ( )           E. Water vapour
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) C

Question 3.
List-A                                                                 List-B
Condensation                     ( )              A. Water vapour released from plants
Evaporation                        ( )              B. Gas becomes liquid
Transpiration                      ( )              C. Liquid changes to gas
Precipitation                       ( )              D. Water soaks into the ground
Collection & Runoff           ( )               E. Waterfalls on earth
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) D

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Animals and their Food on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 3rd Lesson Animals and their Food with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Identify the producer.
A) Fox
B) Deer
C) Green plant
D) Tiger
Answer:
C) Green plant

Question 2.
Choose the secondary consumer.
A) Buffalo
B) Deer
C) Rabbit
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 3.
Identify the primary consumer.
A) Lion
B) Cow
C) Fish
D) Crane
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 4.
Choose the tertiary consumer.
A) Sheep
B) Goat
C) Squirrel
D) Lion
Answer:
D) Lion

Question 5.
Choose the decomposer.
A) Bull
B) Rabbit
C) Rat
D) Bacteria
Answer:
D) Bacteria

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a ruminant?
A) Rat
B) Cow
C) Cat
D) Dog
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 7.
Find the natural scavenger.
A) Deer
B) Snake
C) Crow
D) Dog
Answer:
C) Crow

Question 8.
Sharp claws are present in ………….
A) Crow
B) Crane
C) Hen
D) Vultures
Answer:
D) Vultures

Question 9.
Choose the nocturnal animal.
A) Sheep
B) Bat
C) Goat
D) Cow
Answer:
B) Bat

Question 10.
Which of the following is a pet animal?
A) Dog
B) Tiger
C) Lion
D) Fox
Answer:
A) Dog

Question 11.
Which among the following is a frugivory animal?
A) Cat
B) Wolf
C) Dog
D) Elephant
Answer:
D) Elephant

Question 12.
Give an example of an animal that uses sight to sense food.
A) Bat
B) Dog
C) Eagle
D) Elephant
Answer:
C) Eagle

Question 13.
What are the animals that use taste to sense food?
A) Insects
B) Fishes
C) Birds
D) Reptiles
Answer:
D) Reptiles

Question 14.
These can detect ripples produced in water by insects.
A) Frogs
B) Whales
C) Pond skaters
D) Fishes
Answer:
C) Pond skaters

Question 15.
The bird that feeds on nectar is
A) Hummingbird
B) Vulture
C) Parrot
D) Eagle
Answer:
A) Hummingbird

Question 16.
Animals that depend only on plants for food are called
A) Carnivores
B) Herbivores
C) Omnivores
D) Producers
Answer:
B) Herbivores

Question 17.
These animals suck the blood of cattle
A) Spiders
B) Lizards
C) Leeches
D) Earthworms
Answer:
C) Leeches

Question 18.
The bird has a long and strong beak are
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Eagle
D) Crow
Answer:
A) Wood pecker

Question 19.
Ducks use their teeth for food.
A) Sucking
B) Churning
C) Filtering
D) Masticating
Answer:
C) Filtering

Question 20.
This bird uses sharp claws and a strongly hooked beak to tear the flesh (
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Vulture
D) Duck
Answer:
C) Vulture

Question 21.
Identify the odd one from the following
A) Cow
B) Tiger
C) Buffalo
D) Camel
Answer:
B) Tiger

Question 22.
Identify the animal that hunts other animals for their food.
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Camel
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 23.
In an ecosystem, the food chain always starts with
A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Decomposers
Answer:
A) Producers

Question 24.
The other name of decomposers
A) Producers
B) Recyclers
C) Consumers
D) Herbivores
Answer:
B) Recyclers

Question 25.
Name of the insect kept by ants for honeydew.
A) Mosquitos
B) Flees
C) Aphids
D) Spiders
Answer:
C) Aphids

Question 26.
Fill the blank X in the given food chain.
Tree → Rabbit → X → Lion
A) Mouse
B) Snake
C) Goat
D) Wild cat
Answer:
D) Wild cat

Question 27.
Complete the following food chain.
Grains → Rat → Cat → ?
A) Deer
B) Fox
C) Rabbit
D) Man
Answer:
B) Fox

Fill in the blanks.

1. Animals that depend on both plants and animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Omnivores

2. Animals that depend only on plants for food are called …………………
Answer:
Herbivores

3. Animals that depend only on animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Carnivores

4. The animals that feed on mostly on raw fruits, succulent fruits like vegetable roots, etc ………………… Animals.
Answer:
Frugivorous

5. Dogs use the sense of ………………… to get the food.
Answer:
Smell

6. Frog captures and swallow food with its …………………
Answer:
Tongue

7. Hen scratch the ground with feet and eat …………………
Answer:
Worms

8. The ………………… has a long beak to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Crane

9. The parrot eats fruits and cracks nuts with ………………… beak.
Answer:
Hooked

10. Camel, cow, buffalo etc are called as …………………
Answer:
Ruminants

11. ………………… are plants that make their own food.
Answer:
Producers

12. A ………………… is an organism that eats living plants or animals.
Answer:
Consumers

13. Based on their ………………… there are different types of consumers.
Answer:
Food habits

14. The organisms that feed on producers are called …………………
Answer:
Primary consumers

15. The organisms that feed on primary consumers are called …………………
Answer:
Secondary consumers

16. The organisms that feed on ………………… are called Tertiary consumers.
Answer:
Secondary consumers

17. In an ………………… there is a chain-like relationship between the organisms that live there.
Answer:
Ecosystem

18. A ………………… shows the relationship between producers and consumers.
Answer:
Food chain

19. Leech gets its food through …………………
Answer:
Suckers

20. In ………………… teeth act as filters to get food from the water.
Answer:
Duck

21. In ………………… animal Sharp teeth are useful to tear the flesh of other animals.
Answer:
Tiger / lion

22. Hooked beak is present in …………………
Answer:
Parrot

23. A frog throws out its sticky ………………… towards an insect.
Answer:
Tongue

24. ………………… bird has a long and strong beak.
Answer:
Woodpecker

25. ………………… animal licks the food with its tongue.
Answer:
Dog

26. Crane has ………………… to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Long beak

27. vultures have ………………… beaks to tear the flesh of animals.
Answer:
Strong hooked

28. Bacteria and fungi are examples of …………………
Answer:
Decomposers

29. The ………………… help in the cycling of materials between producers, consumers, and soil.
Answer:
Decomposers

30. Branched with several food chains connected to each other to form a …………………
Answer:
food web

31. In ant’s colony the ………………… collect and maintain food stock for others.
Answer:
Worker

32. Example for a natural scavenger …………………
Answer:
Crow

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
List-A                                        List-B
A) Taste                 ( )          1. Vulture
B) Hearing            ( )          2. Dog
C) Smell                ( )          3. Pond skater
D) Vision               ( )          4. Bat
E) Touch                ( )          5. Some reptiles
Answer:
A – 5
B – 4
C – 2
D – 1
E – 3

Question 2.
List-A                                        List – B
A) Woodpecker       ( )        1. Strongly hooked beak
B) Crane                  ( )         2. Hooked beak
C) Vulture                ( )        3. Long beak
D) Parrot                 ( )         4. Long thin beak
E) Hummingbird     ( )         5. Long and strong beak
Answer:
A – 5
B – 3
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 3.
List-A                                               List-B
A) Ant and pests            ( )        1. Hummingbird
B) Fruits and nuts           ( )        2. Vulture
C) Flesh of animals         ( )        3. Crane
D) Fish                            ( )        4. Wood pecker
E) Nectar                        ( )        5. Parrot
Answer:
A – 4
B – 5
C – 2
D – 3
E – 1

Question 4.
List-A                                          List-B
A) Frog                      ( )        1. Natural scavenger
B) Cow                      ( )         2. Suckers
C) Crow                     ( )        3. Sticky tongue
D) Leech                    ( )        4. Hunting animal
E) Lion                       ( )        5. Ruminant
Answer:
A – 3
B – 5
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 5.
List-A                                                               List-B
A) Producers                         ( )               1. Frog
B) Primary consumers           ( )               2. Plants
C) Secondary consumers      ( )               3. Crow
D) Tertiary consumers           ( )              4. Bacteria
E) Decomposers                    ( )              5. Grass hopper
Answer:
A – 2
B – 5
C – 1
D – 3
E – 4