Mahesh

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Basic Electric Circuits on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 10th Lesson Basic Electric Circuits with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In a bulb the part which gives us light is:
A) Metal base
B) Glass chamber
C) Filament
D) Terminals
Answer:
C) Filament

Question 2.
Electric non-conductor is
A) Copper
B) Aluminium
C) Iron
D) Rubber
Answer:
D) Rubber

Question 3.
Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A) Paper
B) Plastic
C) Wood
D) Iron
Answer:
D) Iron

Question 4.
In which case will the bulb glow?

Answer:
B)

Question 5.
When small cells are connected in series, we get
A) Big cell
B) Battery
C) Dynamo
D) Generator
Answer:
B) Battery

Question 6.
In a series connection of bulbs, if one bulb gets fused, all the other bulbs in the series will
A) stop working
B) continuously work
C) few work and other few stop
D) all the above
Answer:
A) stop working

Question 7.
The filament is made up of
A) Copper
B) Iron
C) Tungsten
D) Aluminium
Answer:
C) Tungsten

Question 8.
Electricity requires
A) Open path
B) Filament
C) Open and closed path
D) Closed path to flow
Answer:
D) Closed path to flow

Question 9.
The world’s first experimental electric power plant was opened in
A) USA
B) USSR
C) UK
D) Germany
Answer:
C) UK

Question 10.
The Italian biologist who touched two pieces of metal to a dead frog’s leg and made it jump was
A) Franklin
B) Christian Oersted
C) Faraday
D) Luigi Galvani
Answer:
D) Luigi Galvani

Question 11.
Cell is
A) On / Off
B) Connector
C) Supplies current
D) Filament
Answer:
C) Supplies current

Question 12.
The bulb glows only in
A) closed circuit
B) open circuit
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) closed circuit

Question 13.
A device which produces electricity
A) Eraser
B) Cell
C) Screwdriver
D) None
Answer:
B) Cell

Question 14.
To prevent electric shock, electric wires cover with
A) paper
B) cotton
C) aluminum
D) plastic
Answer:
D) plastic

Question 15.
An electric cell has …….. terminals.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 16.
A device that is used to break an electric circuit is called
A) Switch
B) Bulb
C) Battery
D) Filament
Answer:
A) Switch

Question 17.
………….. glows in the bulb when a current pass through it.
A) switch
B) battery
C) filament
D) wire
Answer:
C) filament

Question 18.
Which is an example of an insulator?
A) water
B) iron
C) copper
D) rubber
Answer:
D) rubber

Question 19.
Which is an example for a conductor?
A) copper
B) wood
C) plastic
D) rubber
Answer:
A) copper

Question 20.
Edison used …………. as the first filament.
A) cotton
B) wood
C) platinum wire
D) bamboo fiber
Answer:
C) platinum wire

Question 21.
The word “electricity” was introduced by
A) Newton
B) William Gilbert
C) Benjamin Franklin
D) Oersted
Answer:
B) William Gilbert

Question 22.
Michael Faraday invented
A) Rubber
B) bulb
C) Cell
D) Electric generatar
Answer:
D) Electric generatar

Question 23.
When small cells are connected in parallel we get
A) Dynamo
B) Generator
C) Battery
D) Big cell
Answer:
A) Dynamo

Question 24.
In house connections, electric’ bulbs are connected in
A) series
B) parallel
C) random
D) series and parallel
Answer:
B) parallel

Question 25.
Who built the first large-scale electric power plants in the USA?
A) Thomas Edison
B) Oersted
C) Faraday
D) Franklin
Answer:
A) Thomas Edison

Question 26.
…………. invented the electric generator.
A) Franklin
B) Oersted
C) Thomas Edison
D) Michael Faraday
Answer:
D) Michael Faraday

Question 27.
………….. discovered static electricity.
A) Thales of Miletus
B) Gilbert
C) Franklin
D) Oersted
Answer:
A) Thales of Miletus

Question 28.
When a switch is off, the circuit becomes
A) closed
B) opens
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) opens

Question 29.
Plastic is an
A) insulator
B) conductor
C) neither insulator nor conductor
D) none
Answer:
A) insulator

Question 30.
Substances through which current can pass are called
A) insulators
B) conductors
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) conductors

Question 31.
Choose the correct option.
1. Source of electricity         A) Flows currently
2. Open circuit                     B) Cell
3. Closed circuit                   C) Doesn’t flow current
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
Answer:
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

Question 32.
Choose the correct option.
1. Thales                    A) Bulb
2. Filament                B) Static electricity
3. Edison                   C) Generator
4. Faraday                  D) Tungsten
A) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
D) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A
Answer:
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 33.
In street line connections, electric bulbs are connected in
A) series
B) parallel
C) random
D) series and parallel
Answer:
A) series

Question 34.
Identify the part ‘X’ symbol in the given figure

A) Metal cap
B) Filament
C) Terminals
D) Glass
Answer:
B) Filament

Question 35.
In the given circuit which acts as switch?

A) Bulb
B) Cell
C) Safety pin
D) Wires
Answer:
C) Safety pin

Question 36.
Choose the odd one in the following figures.

Answer:
A)

Question 37.
The materials required to make a simple circuit is
A) Bulb, wires
B) Bulb, switch, cells
C) Switch, cells, wires
D) Bulb, switch, cell, wires
Answer:
D) Bulb, switch, cell, wires

Question 38.
Which of the following acts as positive terminal in a torch cell?
A) Filament
B) Carbon rod
C) Metal spring
D) Copper wire
Answer:
B) Carbon rod

Question 39.
To prevent electric shock, electric wires cover with
A) Plastic
B) Cotton
C) Iron
D) Cloth
Answer:
A) Plastic

Question 40.
The central part of an electrical cell consists of
A) Copper rod
B) Zinc rod
C) Carbon rod
D) Iron rod
Answer:
C) Carbon rod

Question 41.
Bulb : Glass :: Filament : ………..
A) Tungsten
B) Iron
C) Copper
D) Aluminium
Answer:
A) Tungsten

Question 42.
The signs of terminals of a cell are
A) +, +
B) +, –
C) -, –
D) +, ×
Answer:
B) +, –

Question 43.
Identify the wrong part in figure

A) Glass chamber
B) Filament
C) Metal cap
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Metal cap

Question 44.
A bulb has
A) 2 Terminals and 1 filament
B) 2 Terminals and 2 filaments
C) 1 Terminal and 1 filament
D) Multiple terminals and single filament
Answer:
A) 2 Terminals and 1 filament

Question 45.
A complete electric circuit is called ……………. electric circuit
A) Open
B) Closed
C) Complete
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Closed

Question 46.
When circuit is open current will
A) flow
B) not flow
C) increase
D) Decrease
Answer:
B) not flow

Question 47.
Shortline on battery symbol represents the
A) Positive terminal
B) Negative terminal
C) Resistance
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Negative terminal

Question 48.
In the following arrangement shown in fig. the bulb will not glow if the ends A and B are connected with

A) A copper wire
B) A steel spoon
C) A metal clip
D) A plastic clip
Answer:
D) A plastic clip

Question 49.
Choose the incorrect statement.
A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit
B) A switch help to complete or break the circuit.
C) A switch helps us to use electricity as per our requirement.
D) Cell has two terminals.
Answer:
A) A switch is the source of electric current in a circuit

Question 50.
Electric cell (Battery) as shown in the figure, pointer ‘A’ indicates.

A) Filament
B) Holder
C) Positive terminal
D) Negative terminal
Answer:
C) Positive terminal

Fill in the blanks.

1. There are ………………. terminals in an electric cell. They are ………………. & ……………….
Answer:
Two, Positive (+) & Negative (- )

2. The substances which do not allow an electric current to flow through them are called ……………….
Answer:
insulator

3. The two metal wires fixed to a torch bulb act as two ……………….
Answer:
terminals

4. ………………. is the source of electric energy in a torchlight.
Answer:
terminals
cell

5. The bulbs which do not ………………. are said to be fused.
Answer:
glow

6. Do not connect the two terminals of a cell with a ……………….
Answer:
single wire

7. The cell consists of ………………. rod at its center.
Answer:
carbon

8. ………………. filament is used finally by Thomas Alva Edison in his bulb.
Answer:
cotton

Match the following:

Question 1.
Group – A                                                Group – B
1) Miletus                            ( )             A) Primitive electric motor
2) William Gilbert                ( )             B) Two kinds of electric charge
3) Benjamin Franklin           ( )             C) Electrical Energy
4) Michael Faraday                ( )            D) Static Electricity
5) Thomas Alva Edison        ( )            E) Used the word ‘electricity’
–                                                          F) 1st large-scale electric power in the U.S.A.
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) A
5) F

Question 2.
Group – A                                     Group – B
1) Cell                          ( )             A) Gives light
2) Filament                  ( )             B) Conductor
3) Switch                      ( )            C) Insulator
4) Copper wire             ( )            D) open/close circuit
5) Rubber coat             ( )            E) Source of electrical energy
Answer:
1) E
2) A
3) D
4) B
5) C

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 9th Lesson Organisms and Habitat with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which among the following is an oviparous organism
A) Rabbit
B) Dog
C) Hen
D) Rat
Answer:
C) Hen

Question 2.
Viviparous animals
A) Lay eggs
B) Give birth to young ones
C) Lay eggs and give birth to young ones
D) None
Answer:
B) Give birth to young ones

Question 3.
We use …………… to see minute organisms.
A) Telescope
B) Periscope
C) Kaleidoscope
D) Microscope
Answer:
D) Microscope

Question 4.
Which of the following is a living thing?
A) Bacteria
B) Table
C) Chair
D) Rock
Answer:
A) Bacteria

Question 5.
Eyepiece is a ……………… component in the microscope.
A) Structural
B) Visual
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
B) Visual

Question 6.
Seed is a …………… thing.
A) Living
B) Non-living
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Living

Question 7.
………………. is the characteristic of Non-living things.
A) Reproduction
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Reproduction

Question 8.
……………. plant shows the response when we touch.
A) Neem
B) Guava
C) Mimosa
D) Mango
Answer:
C) Mimosa

Question 9.
Dead materials decompose to form
A) Living things
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Non-living things
Answer:
D) Non-living things

Question 10.
Aquatic plants live in ………………….
A) Water
B) Land
C) Sand
D) Mud soil
Answer:
A) Water

Question 11.
Which of the following is a desert plant?
A) Guava
B) Aloevera
C) Neem
D) Mango
Answer:
B) Aloevera

Question 12.
In which part we can see the earthworms
A) Roots
B) Trunk
C) Leaves
D) Branch
Answer:
A) Roots

Question 13.
………………. animal is seen in desert.
A) Horse
B) Rat
C) Camel
D) Elephant
Answer:
C) Camel

Question 14.
Pond skater lives on …………….
A) Pond margins
B) Surface of the pond
C) Bottom of the pond
D) None
Answer:
B) Surface of the pond

Question 15.
All the organisms depend on their surroundings for their needs like ………….
A) Food
B) Water
C) Shelter
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
Kondapalli reserve forest is located in
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Nellore
D) Prakasam
Answer:
B) Krishna

Question 17.
Pulicat lake is located in ………………. district.
A) Nellore
B) Krishna
C) West Godavari
D) Kurnool
Answer:
A) Nellore

Question 18.
The organism which is not seen in our house habitat.
A) Birds
B) Dogs
C) Crab
D) Rat
Answer:
C) Crab

Question 19.
In an orchard the farmers grow
A) All variety of fruits
B) All variety of flowers
C) All variety of fruit plants
D) Single variety of fruit plants
Answer:
D) Single variety of fruit plants

Question 20.
Some birds change their habitats for …………..
A) Reproduction
B) Respiration
C) Digestion
D) Excretion
Answer:
A) Reproduction

Fill in the blanks.

1. Get rid of wastes from plants and animals is called ………………
Answer:
Excretion

2. A change in the surrounding environment is ……………..
Answer:
Stimulus

3. …………….. is the abiotic component of a habitat.
Answer:
Soil

4. The body, base and arm are ……………… components of the microscope.
Answer:
Structural

5. …………….. things are intermediate things between living and non-living things.
Answer:
Dead

6. The surrounding which meets the needs of an organism is called ……………….
Answer:
Habitat

7. Mosquito larvae are.found in ……………. position of a pond.
Answer:
Mid water

8. …………….. are partners of our habitat.
Answer:
Animals

9. …………….. mangrove forest located between Visakhapatnam and East Godavari districts.
Answer:
Coringa

10. The dragonfly lives on …………….. portion of a pond.
Answer:
Above the surface

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                                    List – B
1) Living things                  ( )              A) Horse
2) Oviparous                      ( )              B) Rock
3) Non-living things           ( )             C) Microscope
4) Viviparous                      ( )             D) Crow
5) Bacteria                          ( )             E) Plants
Answer:
1) E
2) D
3) B
4) A
5) C

Question 2.
List – A                                                List – B
1) Hydrilla                        ( )            A) Pond margins
2) Cactus                          ( )            B) Orchard
3) Mango                         ( )            C) Between the branches
4) Frog                             ( )            D) Bottom of pond
5) Monkey                       ( )             E) Desert plant
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) A
5) C

Question 3.
List-A                                                      List-B
1) Seeds                            ( )            A) Plants
2) Permanent growth       ( )             B) Non-living thing
3) Stimulus                       ( )             C) Living thing
4) Excretion                      ( )             D) Responding to external force
5) Rock                             ( )             E) Get rid of wastes
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) B

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Organisms and Habitat on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 8 How Fabrics are Made on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 8th Lesson How Fabrics are Made with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Fibres obtained from plants and animals are called ……………… Fibres.
A) Artificial
B) Synthetic
C) Natural
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Natural

Question 2.
Cotton yarn obtained from
A) Jute
B) Cotton
C) Coconut
D) Peanut
Answer:
B) Cotton

Question 3.
Gandhiji used to wear …………………. cloth
A) Khadi
B) Silk
C) Woolen
D) Polyester
Answer:
A) Khadi

Question 4.
Gunny bags are made of ……………….
A) Coconut
B) Cotton
C) Jute
D) Groundnut
Answer:
C) Jute

Question 5.
Mangalagiri is famous for ……………… industry
A) Kalarnkari
B) Handicrafts
C) Carpets
D) Handlooms
Answer:
D) Handlooms

Question 6.
…………… famous for the carpet industry
A) Machilipatnarn
B) Mangalagiri
C) Pondurti
D) Dharmavaram
Answer:
A) Machilipatnarn

Question 7.
Polyester is made up of ……………….
A) Ethane
B) Alcohol
C) Acid
D) Petroleum
Answer:
D) Petroleum

Question 8.
The hair of …………….. is also useful in making warm clothes, mats and socks
A) Silkworm
B) Yak
C) Pig
D) Cow
Answer:
B) Yak

Question 9.
Choose the different one
A) Silk
B) Wool
C) Cotton
D) Polyester
Answer:
D) Polyester

Question 10.
Which of the following is a natural fibre?
A) Silk
B) Nylon
C) Rayon
D) None
Answer:
A) Silk

Question 11.
Separation of fibres of cotton from its seeds is called
A) Weaving
B) Ginning
C) Knitting
D) Spinning
Answer:
B) Ginning

Question 12.
Choose correct order
A) Fibre – Fabric – Yarn
B) Yarn – Fabric – Fibre
C) Fabric – Yarn – Fibre
D) Fibre – Yarn – Fabric
Answer:
D) Fibre – Yarn – Fabric

Question 13.
Coconut fibre is used to make
A) Shirts
B) Sarees
C) Doormats
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Doormats

Question 14.
……………. cloths were used by warriors in the olden days
A) Metal
B) Wool
C) Nylon
D) Polyester
Answer:
A) Metal

Question 15.
………………. is very difficult to decompose
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Wool
D) Polythene
Answer:
D) Polythene

Fill in the blanks.

1. The small tiny strand-like structures of cotton are called ……………….
Answer:
Fibres

2. Cotton grows in ………………. soils.
Answer:
Black

3. ……………….. fabric is used in bookbinding.
Answer:
Calico

4. Machilipatnam is famous for ……………… industry.
Answer:
Carpet

5. ……………. fibre is called Golden fibre.
Answer:
Jute

6. The artificial fibres give…………….. smell on burning.
Answer:
Pungent

7. ……………. is an instrument using for spinning of cotton.
Answer:
Spindle

8. In India ……………….. state is the highest producer of Jute.
Answer:
West Bengal

9. Coir is producing from ……………… plant.
Answer:
Coconut

10. …………… clothes are used in the summer season.
Answer:
Cotton

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                            List – B
1) Cotton                   ( )           A) Stem of Jute Plant
2) Silk                        ( )           B) Coir
3) Wool                     ( )           C) Petroleum
4) Jute                       ( )           D) Silk Worm
5) Polyester               ( )           E) Sheep
–                                               F) Cotton boll
Answer:
1) F
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) C

Question 2.
List – A                                    List – B
1) Fabric                ( )            A) Tiny Strands
2) Ginning             ( )            B) Yarn to Woven
3) Fibres                ( )            C) Process of removing seeds
4) Calico                ( )            D) Making yarn from fibre
5) Spinning            ( )            E) Fabric used in bookbinding
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) D

Question 3.
Lis t – A                                              List – B
1) Jute                               ( )           A) Calico
2) PVC                               ( )           B) Weaving fabrics
3) Hand & Powerlooms    ( )           C) Golden Fibre
4) Book binding                ( )           D) Linen
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Let us Measure on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 7th Lesson Let us Measure with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The standard unit of the Length is ………..
A) Centimeter
B) Millimeter
C) Kilometer
D) One meter
Answer:
D) One meter

Question 2.
This offers a wide varieties of standardized weights and measures of the time
A) Charaka Samhitha
B) Raja Tarangini
C) Arthshastra
D) Kadamban
Answer:
C) Arthshastra

Question 3.
The distance traveled by aeroplane or ship is measured by
A) Nautical Miles
B) Kilometers
C) Feet
D) Miles
Answer:
A) Nautical Miles

Question 4.
The volume of liquids are written in
A) Ml
B) Cm
C) Mm
D) Kl
Answer:
A) Ml

Question 5.
Which is the correct statement?
A) 1 cm = 100 mm
B) 1m = 100 cm
C) 1km = 100 m
D) All
Answer:
B) 1m = 100 cm

Question 6.
The protractor ranges from
A) 90’ — 180’
B) 0’ — 90’
C) 0’ — 180’
D) 0’ — 360’
Answer:
C) 0’ — 180’

Question 7.
The curved path length is measured with
A) Tape
B) Graph paper
C) Thread
D) Scale
Answer:
C) Thread

Question 8.
The original scale is preserved in the measure in
A) the U.S.A
B) Russia
C) U.K
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 9.
We indicate square millimeters as
A) m²
B) mm²
C) cm²
D) km²
Answer:
B) mm²

Question 10.
Larger distances can be measured in
A) mm
B) km
C) cm
D) All the above
Answer:
B) km

Fill in the blanks.

1. 1 cm = ……………. mm
Answer:
10 mm

2. The thickness of coins is measured with ………………
Answer:
Scale

3. The symbol of a square millimeter is ………………
Answer:
Mm²

4. 1 km = ……………… meters.
Answer:
1000 m

5. ……………… is used to measure the volume of irregularly shaped body.
Answer:
Measuring Cylinder

6. Foot space, hand space, and cubit are ……………… methods to measure the length of objects.
Answer:
Conventional

7. ……………… is the smallest unit in scale.
Answer:
Millimeter/mm

8. ……………… is the symbol of the square meter.
Answer:
M²

9. ……………… is the measure of the extent of space that occupies by body.
Answer:
Volume

10. The volume of liquids is measured in ………………
Answer:
Millilitres/ml

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                    List – B
1) Measuring cylinder           ( )           A) Distance traveled by ship
2) Measuring tape                ( )            B) Volume of liquids
3) Nautical miles                   ( )           C) Tailor
4) Bigha                                ( )            D) Gram
5) Unit of mass                     ( )             E) Cube
–                                                            F) Mughal measurement system
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) F
5) D

Question 2.
List-A                                                        List-B
1) Centimeter                          ( )           A) l × b
2) Square millimeter                ( )           B) 3 Feet
3) Yard                                     ( )           C) cm
4) Millimeter                            ( )           D) mm²
5) Area                                     ( )           E) ml
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) E
5) A

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Fun with Magnets on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 6th Lesson Fun with Magnets with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Among the following the natural magnet is
A) Rock stone
B) Lodestone
C) Gold stone
D) None
Answer:
B) Lodestone

Question 2.
Among the following which is not attracted by magnet?
A) Iron
B) Cobalt
C) Gold
D) Nickel
Answer:
C) Gold

Question 3.
Materials that are not attracted to magnet are called
A) Magnet
B) Non-magnetic
C) Pole
D) All of these
Answer:
B) Non-magnetic

Question 4.
A freely suspended bar magnet always aligns in which direction?
A) East-West
B) West-North
C) East-South
D) North-South
Answer:
D) North-South

Question 5.
How many poles does each magnet have?
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Four
Answer:
C) Two

Question 6.
In the olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of ………………
A) Wood
B) Cloth
C) Stone
D) Natural magnets
Answer:
D) Natural magnets

Question 7.
Like poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Attract and repel
D) None
Answer:
B) Repel

Question 8.
Which poles attract in a magnet?
A) Like poles
B) Unlike poles
C) Both unlike and like poles
D) None
Answer:
B) Unlike poles

Question 9.
Identify the natural magnet shape
A) Bar
B) Disc
C) Needle
D) Don’t definite shape
Answer:
A) Bar

Question 10.
This should be kept away from cassettes, mobiles, television, music system, compact disks (CDS) and the computer
A) plastic
B) wood
C) wire
D) magnet
Answer:
D) magnet

Question 11.
The magnet attracts only ……………….. objects.
A) Non-magnetic
B) Magnetic
C) Plastic
D) Wood
Answer:
B) Magnetic

Question 12.
…………………. property of magnets is used to make a magnetic compass.
A) Pair
B) Pole
C) Directional
D) Induction
Answer:
C) Directional

Question 13.
The instrument used to detect direction is
A) iron bar
B) gold
C) compass
D) magnetic substance
Answer:
C) compass

Question 14.
……………… is an example for non-magnetic material.
A) Paper
B) Iron
C) Steel
D) Nickel
Answer:
A) Paper

Question 15.
Unlike poles
A) Attract
B) Repel
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Attract

Question 16.
Freely suspended magnet shows
A) pair property
B) pole property
C) induction property
D) directive property
Answer:
D) directive property

Question 17.
The surest test of magnetism is
A) repulsion between poles
B) directive property
C) attraction between poles
D) none
Answer:
A) repulsion between poles

Question 18.
The ore of the magnetic
A) Carnalite
B) Magnetite
C) magnetic induction
D) magnetic dip
Answer:
B) Magnetite

Question 19.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Like poles                                   A) Induction
2. Unlike poles                               B) Repel
3. Artificial magnet                        C) Strong power
4. Iron attracted by a magnet by   D) Attract
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C

Question 20.
Electromagnetic train works on the principle of
A) Magnetic attraction
B) Directional property
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic levitation
Answer:
D) Magnetic levitation

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Compass             A) Magnet
2. Earth also            B) Non-magnet
3. N-S poles            C) Magnetic needle
4. Gold                    D) Natural magnet
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
Answer:
B) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 22.
Identify the Horse-shoe magnet in the following.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
D)

Question 23.

In the above diagram, the north and south poles are
A) attract
B) repel
C) neither attract nor repel
D) none
Answer:
A) attract

Question 24.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Lodestone                    A) N – S direction
2. Ring magnet                B) Magnus
3. Nail                              C) Man made
4. Compass                      D) Magnetic material
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
D) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A

Question 25.
Match the following.

A) P – W, Q – X, R – Y, S – Z
B) P – X, Q – Y, R – Z, S – W
C) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X, S – Y
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y
Answer:
D) P – Z, Q – W, R – X, S – Y

Question 26.
Identify the wrong statement.
A) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
B) Heat can destroy the magnetic properties of a magnet.
C) A freely suspended bar magnet rests in N – S direction.
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.
Answer:
D) North and South poles are found to exist separately.

Question 27.
Which two ends of a magnet are called magnetic poles?
A) South pole
B) North and South pole
C) North pole
D) Self demagnetization
Answer:
B) North and South pole

Question 28.
Magnets have a shape
A) horseshoe
B) ring
C) disc
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 29.
Observe the following statements.
i) Magnets are made up of different materials and different shapes.
ii) Compass needle is made of a magnet.
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
B) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect
C) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct
D) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 30.
The magnetic properties of a magnet cannot be destroyed by
A) heating
B) boiling
C) hammering
D) dropping on a hard surface
Answer:
B) boiling

Question 31.
Ravi: Magnetic poles always do not exist in pairs.
Gopi: Similar poles of two magnets attract each other.
A) Ravi is correct Gopi incorrect
B) Ravi incorrect, Gopi correct
C) Both Ravi and Gopi correct
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect
Answer:
D) Both Ravi and Gopi incorrect

Question 32.
……………. poles of a magnet attract other.
A) Like
B) Opposite
C) South
D) North
Answer:
B) Opposite

Question 33.
Srinu wanted to make a nail into a magnet. He dragged the nail with a magnet* but he dragged the magnet back and forth. What happens?
A) Nail magnetized
B) Nail not magnetized
C) Nail has broken
D) Nail bends
Answer:
B) Nail not magnetized

Question 34.
The picture shows …………… magnet.

A) round
B) disc
C) horseshoe
D) bar
Answer:
C) horseshoe

Question 35.
Match the following.
1. Iron, nickel, cobalt      a) Used to find out N – S directions
2. Compass                     b) Natural magnet
3. Lodestone                   c) Magnetic materials
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 36.
Observe the following statements and choose the right choice.
a) As poles repel
b) Unlike poles attract
A) a and b correct
B) a wrong & b correct
C) a correct & b wrong
D) a and b wrong
Answer:
A) a and b correct

Question 37.
When a ‘S’ pole a magnet in brought near the ‘N’ pole of a freely suspended magnetic needle, then it?
A) rotates
B) attracts
C) repels
D) none
Answer:
B) attracts

Question 38.
Match the following:
1. North pole                       a) Magnetic compass
2. South pole                       b) North direction
3. Directional property        c) South direction
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 39.
When a magnet is placed on a plastic plate with common pins spread on it, then
A) Pins stick all around the magnet
B) Pins stick at the middle of the magnet
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet
D) None
Answer:
C) Pins stick at the ends of the magnet

Question 40.
The North end of the freely suspended magnet points towards?
A) Geographical North
B) Geographical South
C) Geographical East
D) Geographical West
Answer:
A) Geographical North

Question 41.
Which of the following helps a ship to move it in the right direction?
A) An anchor
B) speedometer
C) A thermometer
D) A compass
Answer:
D) A compass

Question 42.
Attraction is seen between the poles of two bar magnets in the case of
A) N – pole of one magnet with N – pole of other
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
C) S – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other
D) all of these cases will show attraction
Answer:
B) N – pole of one magnet with S – pole of other

Question 43.
When a bar magnet is brought near iron dust most of the dust sticks
A) equally everywhere
B) near two ends
C) near the middle
D) at the middle and ends
Answer:
B) near two ends

Question 44.
“Magnet” was named after the name of the place
A) Greece
B) Magnus
C) Magnesia
D) Magnetite
Answer:
B) Magnus

Question 45.
Choose the correct statement.
X – Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near cell phones.
Y – Cell phone will get affected by the magnetic field when it is placed near Magnet.
A) Only ‘X’ correct
B) Only ‘Y’ correct
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
Answer:
C) Both are correct

Question 46.
In a bar magnet shown in the fig., the points A and B are called

A) Edges
B) Poles
C) Magnetic directions
D) Magnetic points
Answer:
B) Poles

Question 47.
A suspended bar magnet is resting in a direction as shown in fig.

The geographical direction at that place are

Answer:
D)

Question 48.
A bar magnet is broken into two pieces as shown in the figure the two poles formed at their other ends in two pieces are

A) N, N
B) S, S
C) N, S
D) S, N
Answer:
D) S, N

Question 49.
If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then you can say
A) that is not a magnet, but not a magnetic substance
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance
C) that is a magnet but a magnetic substance
D) that is a magnet but not a magnetic substance
Answer:
B) that is not a magnet, but a magnetic substance

Question 50.
A student labeled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c – 1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2
Answer:
A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3

Question 51.
Which property is involved in the diagram?

A) Directional properly
B) Magnetic properly
C) Magnetic induction
D) Magnetic, repulsion
Answer:
D) Magnetic, repulsion

Fill in the blanks.

1. Load stone is a …………………. magnet.
Answer:
natural

2. Man made magnets are called ………………..
Answer:
Artificial magnets

3. ……………… is the ore of magnet.
Answer:
Magnetite

4. Natural magnets are also called as ……………….
Answer:
lode stones

5. The method of changing the piece of iron into a magnet is called ………………
Answer:
magnetization

6. The materials that are attracted by magnets are called …………….
Answer:
magnetic material

7. The materials that are not attracted by magnets are called ………………
Answer:
non-magentic material

8. Attracting capacity is more at the ……………. of a magnet.
Answer:
poles

9. Like poles ………………. each other.
Answer:
repel

10. Unlike poles ……………… each other.
Answer:
attract

11. Magnets always come to rest in the direction. This property is called as ……………….. property.
Answer:
North-South, magnetic

12. Compos was developed based on …………….. property of magnets.
Answer:
directional

13. A compass is used to find ……………….
Answer:
direction

14. Magnetic property possessed by a magnetic substance due to the presence of a magnet near it, is called …………….
Answer:
magnetic induction

15. If an object is attracted by one pole of the bar magnet and repelled by its other pole, then it is a ………………
Answer:
magnet

16. If an object is attracted by both the poles of a bar magnet and not repelled by any pole, then it is not a magnet but a ……………. substance.
Answer:
magnetic

17. If an object is neither attracted by magnet nor repelled by it, then it is neither a …………… nor a ………………. magnetic substance.
Answer:
magnet

18. Magnets lose their properties if they are ………………
Answer:
heated or dropped

19. Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near ………………..
Answer:
cell phone

20. An Electromagnetic train is also called as ……………..
Answer:
suspension train

21. The maglev train runs by using the property of ………………..
Answer:
magnetic levitation

Match the following:

Question 1.
A                                                            B
1) Like poles                     ( )         A) Lode stone
2) Unlike poles                 ( )         B) Chinese sailors
3) Army men                    ( )         C) Magnetic induction
4) Natural magnet           ( )          D) Repel
5) Magnetic compass      ( )          E) Magnetic compass
–                                                    F) Attract
Answer:
1) D
2) F
3) E
4) A
5) B

Question 2.
A                                                                   B
1) North pole                  ( )         A) Magnetic compass
2) South pole                  ( )         B) Magnetic substances
3) Directional property   ( )         C) South direction
4) Iron, cobalt                 ( )         D) Non-magnetic
5) Plastic, wood              ( )         E) Induction .
–                                                  F) North direction
Answer:
1) F
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 3.
A                                                            B
1) Natural magnet         ( )         A) Unlike poles
2) Attraction                  ( )         B) load stone
3) Non-magnetic           ( )        C) Horse shoe magnet
4) Artificial magnet        ( )        D) Like poles
5) Repulsion                   ( )        E) Plastic
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) E
4) C
5) D

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Materials: Separating Methods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 5th Lesson Materials: Separating Methods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Objects that would break
A) Steel glass
B) Steel plate
C) Glass cup
D) Wooden spoon
Answer:
C) Glass cup

Question 2.
Among the following transparent substance is
A) Glass
B) Plastic
C) Metal
D) Wood
Answer:
A) Glass

Question 3.
Oily paper is
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Luminous
D) Translucent
Answer:
D) Translucent

Question 4.
Water has a density of
A) 0.01 g/ml
B) 1 g/ml
C) 10 g/ml
D) 100 g/ml
Answer:
B) 1 g/ml

Question 5.
Among the following opaque substance is
A) Oily paper
B) Glass
C) Cardboard
D) Tracing paper
Answer:
C) Cardboard

Question 6.
Ice is the solid form of
A) Milk
B) Water
C) Petrol
D) Diesel
Answer:
B) Water

Question 7.
This floats on water
A) Sawdust
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Haldi
Answer:
A) Sawdust

Question 8.
When water is heated this is produced
A) Ice
B) Hot water
C) Cool water
D) Water vapour
Answer:
D) Water vapour

Question 9.
These substances allow light
A) Opaque
B) Luminous
C) Transparent
D) None
Answer:
C) Transparent

Question 10.
These can’t change shape
A) Liquids
B) Solids
C) Gases
D) All of three
Answer:
B) Solids

Question 11.
These don‘t have a shape
A) Solids
B) Gases
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Gases

Question 12.
Tables are made from
A) wood
B) plastic
C) steel
D) clay
Answer:
A) wood

Question 13.
Glass is a
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
B) transparent

Question 14.
Which of the following is not soluble in water?
A) Chalk powder
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Chalk powder

Question 15.
Which object shines?
A) stone
B) plastic
C) glass
D) cotton
Answer:
C) glass

Question 16.
Sugar is ……………. substance.
A) liquid
B) solid
C) gases
D) all of these
Answer:
B) solid

Question 17.
Iron nail sinks in water but ships on the water.
A) floats
B) sinks
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) floats

Question 18.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
1. Gold        A) Opaque
2. Wood      B) Metal
3. Glass       C) Transparent
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

Question 19.
The window is made with
A) wood
B) glass
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 20.
Bags are made with
A) plastic
B) Leather
C) stone
D) clay
Answer:
B) Leather

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Pot               A) Paper
2. Book            B) Leather
3. Shoes           C) Clay
A) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B

Question 22.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Soluble in water         A) Cork
2. Floats on water          B) Salt
3. Smoke                        C) Made of wax
4. Candle                        D) Gas
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
C) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
D) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

Question 23.
When white light shines on an object it may be
A) reflected
B) absorbed
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 24.
Which object was made with only one material?
A) Knife
B) Bicycle
C) Door
D) Pot
Answer:
D) Pot

Question 25.
Find the correct set of transparent substances.
A) Oil-paper and stone
B) Glass, polythene cover
C) Stone, tracing paper
D) Water, mirror.
Answer:
B) Glass, polythene cover

Question 26.
Srinu wants to use a mirror in his house for light at the same time the things should not be seen from outside. Which type of mirrors is to be used?
A) Transparent
B) Opaque
C) Translucent
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Opaque

Question 27.
Identify the floating objects in water,
i) Kerosene
ii) Oil
iii) Ghee
iv) Petrol
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 28.
The opaque object of the following.
A) 40w bulb
B) Spectacle
C) Mirror
D) Glass beaker
Answer:
C) Mirror

Question 29.
X: Oil mixes with water V: Chalk dissolves in water
A) Both X and Y are correct
B) Both X and Y are incorrect
C) X correct, Y incorrect
D) X incorrect, Y correct
Answer:
B) Both X and Y are incorrect

Question 30.
The purpose of sorting material into groups is
A) convenience
B) to study their properties
C) both A and B
D) inconvenience
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 31.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Alcohol
B) Sodium chloride
C) Sugar
D) Coconut oil
Answer:
D) Coconut oil

Question 32.
Which is a set of transparent materials?
A) Water and air
B) Water and glass
C) Glass and air
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 33.
Pick out the odd one in the following.
A) Sand settles down in the water
B) Sugar dissolves in water
C) Oil floats on water
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water
Answer:
D) Sugar does not dissolve in water

Question 34.
Which of the following does not float on water?
A) Paper
B) Stone
C) Coconut oil
D) Feather
Answer:
B) Stone

Question 35.
Match the following.
i) Wax                        a) Translucent
ii) Iron sheet              b) Floats on water
iii) Oily paper sheet   c) Opaque
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c., ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 36.
Pick out the odd one following.
A) Air
B) Wood
C) Iron
D) Gold
Answer:
A) Air

Question 37.
Which of the following is a soft material?
A) Diamond
B) Glass
C) Iron
D) Chalk
Answer:
D) Chalk

Question 38.
Oxygen is an example of
A) liquid
B) gas
C) solid
D) emulsion
Answer:
B) gas

Question 39.
Materials exist in states.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 40.
An ice cube floats on water, because
A) Density of ice is < Density of water
B) Density of ice is > Density of water
C) Density of ice is = Density of water
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Density of ice is < Density of water

Question 41.
The white smoke from a candle is
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A and B
Answer:
C) Gas

Question 42.
Match the following.
i) Milk                   a) Transparent
ii) Water vapour   b) Liquid
iii) Glass jar           c) Gas
A) i – a, ii – b, iii – c
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – c
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – a

Question 43.
Match the following.
1) Soluble in water a) Iron nail
2) Insoluble in water b) Cork
3) Floats on water c) Salt
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 44.
Door: wood:: clay.
A) Shoes
B) Knife
C) Pot
D) Mirror
Answer:
C) Pot

Question 45.
Vinegar ……………….. in water.
A) dissolves
B) does not dissolve
C) floats
D) both A & B
Answer:
A) dissolves

Question 46.
Classification is essential for
A) sorting of objects
B) identification of objects
C) locating things
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 47.
Mercury is ……………….. at room temperature.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both A & B
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 48.
The grouping of various objects can be done on the basis of
A) size
B) solubility in water
C) transparency
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 49.
Milk: Miscible in water:: …………………. : Immiscible in water
A) Soft drink
B) Glycerine
C) Petrol
D) Lemon juice
Answer:
C) Petrol

Question 50.
Which one of the following is insoluble in water?
A) Oxygen
B) Sugar
C) Salt
D) Sawdust
Answer:
D) Sawdust

Question 51.
As you cannot see through objects made from materials, such materials are called
A) opaque
B) transparent
C) translucent
D) None of these
Answer:
A) opaque

Question 52.
A material that does not dissolve completely into water is called
A) soluble
B) insoluble
C) opaque
D) translucent
Answer:
B) insoluble

Question 53.
Butter paper is
A) oily
B) opaque
C) transparent
D) translucent
Answer:
D) translucent

Question 54.
Find the odd one.
A) Sand
B) sugar
C) salt
D) water
Answer:
A) Sand

Question 55.
Which one of the following will float on water?
A) Stone
B) Steel
C) Dry leaves
D) Iron nails
Answer:
C) Dry leaves

Question 56.
The solid form of carbon dioxide is
A) Ice
B) Dry Ice
C) Wet Ice
D) Gas
Answer:
B) Dry Ice

Question 57.
In the Middle Ages, salt is referred to as
A) Platinum
B) Gold
C) Weight gold
D) Silver
Answer:
C) Weight gold

Question 58.
A solid directly changing into vapour
A) Solidification
B) Cooling
C) Sublimation
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Sublimation

Question 59.
A substance is obtained by mixing two or more pure substances
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
C) mixture

Question 60.
A clear liquid obtained after filtration
A) filtrate
B) residue
C) mixture
D) component
Answer:
A) filtrate

Question 61.
A method for removing the husk from the grain
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) sedimentation
D) decantation
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 62.
Removing insoluble Impurities from muddy water by allowing it to settle
A) Sublimation
B) Filtration
C) Winnowing
D) Decantation
Answer:
D) Decantation

Question 63.
From saltwater, salt can be obtained by
A) crystallization
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) decantation
Answer:
A) crystallization

Question 64.
Doctors mix injection powder with
A) water
B) saline
C) distilled water
D) mineral water
Answer:
C) distilled water

Question 65.
Among the following pure water is
A) seawater
B) river water
C) pond water
D) distilled water
Answer:
D) distilled water

Question 66.
Among the following, this dissolves in water
A) sawdust
B) Haldi
C) iron nails
D) sand
Answer:
B) Haldi

Question 67.
For separating larger and smaller substances in a mixture we use
A) distillation
B) decantation
C) sedimentation
D) sieving
Answer:
D) sieving

Question 68.
An insoluble substance in a liquid can be separated by
A) handpicking
B) sieving
C) sedimentation
D) chromatography
Answer:
C) sedimentation

Question 69.
If a mixture has light and heavy substances we use
A) handpicking
B) winnowing
C) decantation
D) uilteration
Answer:
B) winnowing

Question 70.
This is free from impurities
A) distilled water
B) seawater
C) well water
D) river water
Answer:
A) distilled water

Question 71.
Salt and camphor mixture can be separated by
A) filtration
B) distillation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) sublimation

Question 72.
Tea leaves are separated from tea by
A) sieve
B) strainer
C) sedimentation
D) none
Answer:
B) strainer

Question 73.
The mud particles which settle down at the bottom of gas are called
A) filtrate
B) mud
C) sediment
D) sieve
Answer:
C) sediment

Question 74.
What property helps In separating husk from grains?
A) winnowing
B) handpicking
C) sieving
D) filtration
Answer:
A) winnowing

Question 75.
The stones are separated from pulses and rice by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) filtration
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 76.
The mixture of common salt and camphor is separated by
A) sublimation
B) evaporation
C) filtration
D) sedimentation
Answer:
A) sublimation

Question 77.
The compounds of solution are separated by
A) decantation
B) filtration
C) evaporation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
C) evaporation

Question 78.
The process used for separating grains from the stalk is called
A) sieving
B) decanting
C) winnowing
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 79.
Pebbles and stones are removed from sand by
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) decanting
D) threshing
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 80.
Transferring the clear liquid into another container using a glass rod is called
A) filtration
B) decantation
C) condensation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
B) decantat ion

Question 81.
Hand-picking method is effective in
A) solid mixture
B) liquid mixture
C) gaseous mixture
D) None of these
Answer:
A) solid mixture

Question 82.
Which of the following method was used to separate two miscible liquids?
A) sieving
B) winnowing
C) separating funnel
D) sublimation
Answer:
C) separating funnel

Question 83.
The process of setting down of particles of a solid in a liquid is known as
A) precipitation
B) decantation
C) sublimation
D) sedimentation
Answer:
D) sedimentation

Question 84.
Air is a ……………
A) compound
B) mixture
C) pure substance
D) None of these
Answer:
B) mixture

Question 85.
The solubility of water ……………… with an increase in water.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
Answer:
A) increases

Question 86.
“Combine” is used In which of the following?
A) winnowing
B) sieving
C) filtration
D) threshing
Answer:
D) threshing

Question 87.
The spinner in the washing machine dries clothes works on the principle of
A) filtration
B) centrifugation
C) sedimentation
D) evaporation
Answer:
B) centrifugation

Question 88.
The method of separating substances based on size, colour and shape is called
A) sieving
B) handpicking
C) threshing
D) None of these
Answer:
A) sieving

Question 89.
Sand from water is separated by
A) condensation
B) filtration
C) sedimentation & decantation
D) sublimation
Answer:
B) filtration

Question 90.
Butter is separated from milk by
A) filtration
B) sedimentation
C) churning
D) decantation
Answer:
C) churning

Question 91.
A ………………. is a substance that makes you Ill if you don’t eat it.
A vitamin
B) ice
C) bread
D) Rice
Answer:
A vitamin

Question 92.
When few plants are infected …………….. is an excellent method of controlling pests.
A) filtration
B) sieving
C) winnowing
D) handpicking
Answer:
D) handpicking

Question 93.
An example of sublimation is
A) camphor
B) water
C) salt
D) sugar
Answer:
A) camphor

Question 94.
India’s largest saltwater lake is
A) Pulicot
B) Chilaka
C) Kolleru
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Chilaka

Question 95.
Distilled water is produced by …………………. method.
A) sublimation
B) crystallization
C) filtration
D) solidification
Answer:
C) filtration

Question 96.
…………… separates single colour to mixing colour.
A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Wirmowing
D) Filtrate
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 97.
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Sublimation        A) Stone and grain
2. Sieve                   B) Saltwater
3. Dead sea            C) Iodine
4. Hand-picking     D) Filter paper
A) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
B) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
Answer:
D) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A

Question 98.
Sita bought some vegetables such as lady’s finger, green chillies, brinjals and potatoes, all mixed in a bag.
Which of the following method of separation would be most appropriate for her to separate them?
A) Sieving
B) Threshing
C) Handpicking
D) Winnowing
Answer:
C) Handpicking

Question 99.
Ramu’s grandmother is suffering from fever. His doctor advised him to take “lassi” with less fat content.
Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for Ramu to prepare it?
A) Winnowing
B) Churning
C) Filtration
D) Decantation
Answer:
B) Churning

Question 100.
Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration?
A) Salt in water
B) Oil in water
C) Sugar in milk
D) Cornflakes in milk
Answer:
D) Cornflakes in milk

Question 101.
Which of these can be separated by the method of winnowing?
i) beans and chick peas.
ii) pulses and rice
iii) rice flakes and corn
iv) potato wafers and biscuits
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iii
D) iii & iv
Answer:
D) iii & iv

Question 102.
While preparing chapatis, Gopi found that the flour to be used was mixed with wheat grains.
Which of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour?
A) Filtration
B) Sieving
C) Threshing
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Sieving

Question 103.
You might have observed the preparation of ghee from butter and cream at home. Which method can be used to separate ghee from the residue?
i) Evaporation
ii) Decantation
iii) Filtration
iv) Churning
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) ii & iv
D) iv only
Answer:
D) iv only

Question 104.
The method that is used to obtain pure salt from impure salt
A) Crystallization
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) Decantation
Answer:
A) Crystallization

Question 105.
Rainwater is a kind of
A) Distilled water
B) Saline water
C) Saturated water
D) Carbonated water
Answer:
A) Distilled water

Question 106.
Separating the insoluble suspended solids of various sizes from a liquid is called
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Filtration
D) Crystallization
Answer:
C) Filtration

Question 107.
The principle behind winnowing is
A) Difference in shapes of components
B) Difference in densities of components
C) Difference in colours of components
D) Difference in the appearance of components
Answer:
B) Difference in densities of components

Question 108.
Paneer is separated from curdled milk by
A) Filtration
B) Evaporation
C) Sedimentation
D) Condensation
Answer:
A) Filtration

Question 109.
Separation of Kerosene oil and water is done by
A) Crystallization
B) Condensation
C) Decantation
D) Filtration
Answer:
C) Decantation

Question 110.
The rate of sedimentation is increased by adding ……………. to the water.
A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Soap
D) Alum
Answer:
D) Alum

Question 111.
Tiny pieces of stones are usually separated from pulses before cooking by the method
A) Handpicking
B) Sieving
C) Winnowing
D) Threshing
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 112.
Which of the following method is involved in the picture?

A) Sublimation
B) Chromatography
C) Crystallization
D) Winnowing
Answer:
B) Chromatography

Question 113.
Camphor: Sublimation:: Cream from milk: …………………
A) Winnowing
B) Evaporation
C) Filteration
D) Centrifugation
Answer:
D) Centrifugation

Question 114.
Observe the following and identify what “P” study for

A) Handpicking
B) Winnowing
C) Sublimation
D) Sieving
Answer:
A) Handpicking

Question 115.
A student labelled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

A) a -1, b – 2, c – 3
B) a – 2, b – 3, c -1
C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3
Answer:
D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3

Question 116.
The property which forms the basis of sieving.
A) difference in weight
B) difference in size.
C) difference in colour
D) difference in shape
Answer:
B) difference in size.

Question 117.
P: A mixture of milk and water can be separated by filtration.
Q: Separation of sugar from tea can be done with nitration.
A) Both P and Q are correct
B) Both P and Q are incorrect
C) P is correct and Q incorrect
D) P is incorrect and Q is correct
Answer:
B) Both P and Q are incorrect

Question 118.
Wrongly labelled part in the above diagram is

A) Cotton
B) Test tube
C) China dish
D) Stand
Answer:
B) Test tube

Question 119.
The apparatus which is not required in the experiment of distilling water is
A) Cork
B) Conical flask
C) Plastic tube
D) Candle
Answer:
D) Candle

Fill in the blanks.

1. The universal solvent is …………………
Answer:
water

2. Impurities from water can be removed by ………………..
Answer:
distillation

3. The process involved in preparation of salt is ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

4. …………….. method is used to separate larger and smaller substances.
Answer:
Sieving

5. An insoluble substances in a liquid can be separated by ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

6. We can separate colours from a mixture of colours by ……………….
Answer:
Chromatography

7. The mixture of powdered salt and camphor can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Sublimation

8. We can separate salt from salt water by ………………..
Answer:
Crystallization

9. Mud from mud water can be separated by ………………..
Answer:
Filtration

10. Sand from gravel is separated by ………………
Answer:
Sieving

11. Separation of husk from flour can be done by ……………….
Answer:
Sieving

12. Vinegar and oil are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

13. Kerosene and water are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Decantation

14. Tea leaves falling to the bottom in a tea cup is an example for ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation

15. Rotten fruits are separated from fresh fruits by the method of ……………….
Answer:
hand picking

16. Farmers use ………………. method to separate grains from husk.
Answer:
Winnowing

17. Stones from rice are separated by ……………….
Answer:
Hand picking

18. Cleaning of rice and pulses involved ……………….
Answer:
Sedimentation and Decantation

19. Example for Natural mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Soil

20. Examples for Artificial mixture is ……………….
Answer:
Lemon juice

21. Door is made from ………………. materials.
Answer:
Wood, metal

22. Chairs are made from ……………….
Answer:
Iron, wood, plastic

23. Potato ………………. in water.
Answer:
Sinks

24. Smoke is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Gaseous

25. Table salt is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Solid

26. Kerosene is in ………………. state.
Answer:
Liquid

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                              List-B
1) Grains and Husk                   ( )         A) Crystallization
2) Kerosene and water             ( )         B) Filtration
3) Mud from mud water          ( )         C) Decantation
4) Salt from saltwater              ( )         D) Winnowing
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) B
4) A

Question 2.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Stones from Rice              ( )          A) Chromatogram
2) Impurities from water      ( )          B) Sieving
3) Colours from a mixture    ( )         C) Distillation
4) Flour from wheat             ( )          D) Hand picking
Answer:
1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B

Question 3.
List-A                                              List-B
1) Universal solvent         ( )         A) Wood
2) Gas                              ( )         B) Smoke
3) Solid                            ( )         C) Sugar
4) Door                            ( )         D) Water
Answer:
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) A

Question 4.
List-A                                                 List-B
1) Iron Nail                    ( )         A) Lemon juice
2) Iron boat                   ( )         B) Soil
3) Natural mixture         ( )         C) Sinks
4) Man made mixture    ( )        D) Floats
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Question 5.
List-A                                                             List-B
1) Sublimatiop                            ( )            A) Mud water
2) Filtration                                 ( )            B) Camphor
3) Strainer                                   ( )            C) Hand picking
4) Mangoes from oranges          ( )            D) Tea leaves
Answer:
1) B
2) A
3) D
4) C

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Water on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 4th Lesson Water with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The human body requires ……………. of water
A) 1-2 litres
B) 2-3 litres
C) 4-5 litres
D) 5-6 litres
Answer:
B) 2-3 litres

Question 2.
The specific unit of measurement of the volume of water
A) Metres
B) Centimetres
C) Litres
D) Sq.metre
Answer:
C) Litres

Question 3.
Which of the following is comes under Agriculture use of water?
A) Germination of seed
B) Bathing
C) Cleaning
D) Washing
Answer:
A) Germination of seed

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a stable water resource?
A) Pond
B) River
C) Tank
D) Well
Answer:
B) River

Question 5.
Our body contains of water by weight
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 70%

Question 6.
Identify the juicy fruit from the following.
A) Cucumber
B) Snake gourd
C) Tomato
D) Watermelon
Answer:
D) Watermelon

Question 7.
How much of the earth’s surface is occupied by water?
A) 3/4
B) 1/2
C) 5/6
D) 4/5
Answer:
A) 3/4

Question 8.
We depend on ………….. for water.
A) Groundwater
B) Rains
C) Rivers
D) Seas
Answer:
B) Rains

Question 9.
Solid-state of water is present in …………………..
A) Oceans
B) Rivers
C) Glaciers
D) Mountains
Answer:
C) Glaciers

Question 10.
Which of the following process convert water into ice?
A) Condensation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Transpiration
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 11.
The liquid form of water is available in ……………………
A) Glaciers
B) Polar regions
C) Snow covered mountains
D) Rivers
Answer:
D) Rivers

Question 12.
The following vegetable contains a lot of water
A) Lady’s finger
B) Cucumber
C) Brinjal
D) Pumpkin
Answer:
B) Cucumber

Question 13.
Clouds in the sky are formed by the process of ………………………..
A) Distillation
B) Precipitation
C) Evaporation
D) Condensation
Answer:
C) Evaporation

Question 14.
Water drops on the leaves of grass is the early morning due to ……………………..
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 15.
The weather condition where rain, snow, sleet or hail fall from the sky is called …………………
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Transpiration
D) Precipitation
Answer:
D) Precipitation

Question 16.
The water cycle revolves around the following
A) Earth
B) Oceans
C) Atmosphere
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 17.
Which of the following disturbs the water cycle?
A) Deforestation
B) Pollution
C) Global warming
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
Deforestation generally decreases the ………………….
A) Soil erosion
B) Drought
C) Rainfall
D) Global warming
Answer:
C) Rainfall

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a water-related disaster?
A) Floods
B) Earthquake
C) Tsunami
D) Drought
Answer:
B) Earthquake

Question 20.
The rise in water level of rivers leads to ……………………
A) Flood
B) Drought
C) Water scarcity
D) Dryland
Answer:
A) Flood

Question 21.
Among the following is the drought-prone district
A) Guntur
B) Krishna
C) Kurnool
D) Chittoor
Answer:
C) Kurnool

Question 22.
Which among the following are water management techniques?
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation
B) Pollution of water
C) Using chemical fertilizers in agriculture
D) Digging several borewells
Answer:
A) Adopting drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation

Fill in the blanks.

1. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of ………………. from the body.
Answer:
Toxins

2. Water and other liquids are measured in ……………….
Answer:
Litres

3. The fruits that contain more water are called ……………….
Answer:
Juicy fruits

4. ………………. is an example of a juicy vegetable.
Answer:
Cucumber

5. Of the water available on the earth, only ………………. is freshwater.
Answer:
3%

6. The water that is used by us for our daily purposes is called ……………….
Answer:
Freshwater

7. When water is ………………. it converts into water vapour.
Answer:
Heated

8. The amount of ………………. absorbed by water affects its evaporation.
Answer:
Heat

9. The process of conversion of water vapour into water is called ……………….
Answer:
Condensation

10. The ………………. in the upper layers of the atmosphere cools the clouds.
Answer:
Colder air

11. Big drops of water solidify into ice and fall as pieces of ice known as ……………….
Answer:
Hailstones

12. South-West Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
June-September

13. North-East Monsoon occurs in the months of ……………….
Answer:
Nov-Dec

14. The circulation of water between the earth surface and the air is called ……………….
Answer:
Water cycle

15. Expand NDRF ……………….
Answer:
National Disaster Relief Force

16. Expand SDRF ……………….
Answer:
State Disaster Relief Force

17. Direct collection and use of rainwater is called ……………….
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting

18. Collecting water from the rooftops of the houses and buildings are called ……………….
Answer:
Roof water harvesting

19. The best irrigation water management method used in agriculture is ……………….
Answer:
Drip irrigation / Sprinkler irrigation

20. The only method of preventing scarcity of water is ……………….
Answer:
Conservation of water

21. Long periods of fewer rainfall causes ……………….
Answer:
Droughts & famines

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                                       List-B
1) Water on earth          ( )               A. 70%
2) Fresh water                ( )               B. Monsoon
3) Water in our body     ( )               C. 75%
4) Hail stones                ( )                D. 3%
5) Rains                         ( )                E. Precipitation
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) B

Question 2.
List-A                                                  List-B
1) Solid form                   ( )           A. South-West Monsoon
2) Liquid form                 ( )           B. Ice
3) Gaseous form             ( )           C. North-East Monsoon
4) June-Sept                   ( )           D. Water
5) Nov-Dec                     ( )           E. Water vapour
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) C

Question 3.
List-A                                                                 List-B
Condensation                     ( )              A. Water vapour released from plants
Evaporation                        ( )              B. Gas becomes liquid
Transpiration                      ( )              C. Liquid changes to gas
Precipitation                       ( )              D. Water soaks into the ground
Collection & Runoff           ( )               E. Waterfalls on earth
Answer:
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) E
5) D

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Animals and their Food on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 3rd Lesson Animals and their Food with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Identify the producer.
A) Fox
B) Deer
C) Green plant
D) Tiger
Answer:
C) Green plant

Question 2.
Choose the secondary consumer.
A) Buffalo
B) Deer
C) Rabbit
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 3.
Identify the primary consumer.
A) Lion
B) Cow
C) Fish
D) Crane
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 4.
Choose the tertiary consumer.
A) Sheep
B) Goat
C) Squirrel
D) Lion
Answer:
D) Lion

Question 5.
Choose the decomposer.
A) Bull
B) Rabbit
C) Rat
D) Bacteria
Answer:
D) Bacteria

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a ruminant?
A) Rat
B) Cow
C) Cat
D) Dog
Answer:
B) Cow

Question 7.
Find the natural scavenger.
A) Deer
B) Snake
C) Crow
D) Dog
Answer:
C) Crow

Question 8.
Sharp claws are present in ………….
A) Crow
B) Crane
C) Hen
D) Vultures
Answer:
D) Vultures

Question 9.
Choose the nocturnal animal.
A) Sheep
B) Bat
C) Goat
D) Cow
Answer:
B) Bat

Question 10.
Which of the following is a pet animal?
A) Dog
B) Tiger
C) Lion
D) Fox
Answer:
A) Dog

Question 11.
Which among the following is a frugivory animal?
A) Cat
B) Wolf
C) Dog
D) Elephant
Answer:
D) Elephant

Question 12.
Give an example of an animal that uses sight to sense food.
A) Bat
B) Dog
C) Eagle
D) Elephant
Answer:
C) Eagle

Question 13.
What are the animals that use taste to sense food?
A) Insects
B) Fishes
C) Birds
D) Reptiles
Answer:
D) Reptiles

Question 14.
These can detect ripples produced in water by insects.
A) Frogs
B) Whales
C) Pond skaters
D) Fishes
Answer:
C) Pond skaters

Question 15.
The bird that feeds on nectar is
A) Hummingbird
B) Vulture
C) Parrot
D) Eagle
Answer:
A) Hummingbird

Question 16.
Animals that depend only on plants for food are called
A) Carnivores
B) Herbivores
C) Omnivores
D) Producers
Answer:
B) Herbivores

Question 17.
These animals suck the blood of cattle
A) Spiders
B) Lizards
C) Leeches
D) Earthworms
Answer:
C) Leeches

Question 18.
The bird has a long and strong beak are
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Eagle
D) Crow
Answer:
A) Wood pecker

Question 19.
Ducks use their teeth for food.
A) Sucking
B) Churning
C) Filtering
D) Masticating
Answer:
C) Filtering

Question 20.
This bird uses sharp claws and a strongly hooked beak to tear the flesh (
A) Wood pecker
B) Parrot
C) Vulture
D) Duck
Answer:
C) Vulture

Question 21.
Identify the odd one from the following
A) Cow
B) Tiger
C) Buffalo
D) Camel
Answer:
B) Tiger

Question 22.
Identify the animal that hunts other animals for their food.
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Camel
D) Wolf
Answer:
D) Wolf

Question 23.
In an ecosystem, the food chain always starts with
A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Decomposers
Answer:
A) Producers

Question 24.
The other name of decomposers
A) Producers
B) Recyclers
C) Consumers
D) Herbivores
Answer:
B) Recyclers

Question 25.
Name of the insect kept by ants for honeydew.
A) Mosquitos
B) Flees
C) Aphids
D) Spiders
Answer:
C) Aphids

Question 26.
Fill the blank X in the given food chain.
Tree → Rabbit → X → Lion
A) Mouse
B) Snake
C) Goat
D) Wild cat
Answer:
D) Wild cat

Question 27.
Complete the following food chain.
Grains → Rat → Cat → ?
A) Deer
B) Fox
C) Rabbit
D) Man
Answer:
B) Fox

Fill in the blanks.

1. Animals that depend on both plants and animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Omnivores

2. Animals that depend only on plants for food are called …………………
Answer:
Herbivores

3. Animals that depend only on animals for food are called …………………
Answer:
Carnivores

4. The animals that feed on mostly on raw fruits, succulent fruits like vegetable roots, etc ………………… Animals.
Answer:
Frugivorous

5. Dogs use the sense of ………………… to get the food.
Answer:
Smell

6. Frog captures and swallow food with its …………………
Answer:
Tongue

7. Hen scratch the ground with feet and eat …………………
Answer:
Worms

8. The ………………… has a long beak to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Crane

9. The parrot eats fruits and cracks nuts with ………………… beak.
Answer:
Hooked

10. Camel, cow, buffalo etc are called as …………………
Answer:
Ruminants

11. ………………… are plants that make their own food.
Answer:
Producers

12. A ………………… is an organism that eats living plants or animals.
Answer:
Consumers

13. Based on their ………………… there are different types of consumers.
Answer:
Food habits

14. The organisms that feed on producers are called …………………
Answer:
Primary consumers

15. The organisms that feed on primary consumers are called …………………
Answer:
Secondary consumers

16. The organisms that feed on ………………… are called Tertiary consumers.
Answer:
Secondary consumers

17. In an ………………… there is a chain-like relationship between the organisms that live there.
Answer:
Ecosystem

18. A ………………… shows the relationship between producers and consumers.
Answer:
Food chain

19. Leech gets its food through …………………
Answer:
Suckers

20. In ………………… teeth act as filters to get food from the water.
Answer:
Duck

21. In ………………… animal Sharp teeth are useful to tear the flesh of other animals.
Answer:
Tiger / lion

22. Hooked beak is present in …………………
Answer:
Parrot

23. A frog throws out its sticky ………………… towards an insect.
Answer:
Tongue

24. ………………… bird has a long and strong beak.
Answer:
Woodpecker

25. ………………… animal licks the food with its tongue.
Answer:
Dog

26. Crane has ………………… to catch fish in water.
Answer:
Long beak

27. vultures have ………………… beaks to tear the flesh of animals.
Answer:
Strong hooked

28. Bacteria and fungi are examples of …………………
Answer:
Decomposers

29. The ………………… help in the cycling of materials between producers, consumers, and soil.
Answer:
Decomposers

30. Branched with several food chains connected to each other to form a …………………
Answer:
food web

31. In ant’s colony the ………………… collect and maintain food stock for others.
Answer:
Worker

32. Example for a natural scavenger …………………
Answer:
Crow

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
List-A                                        List-B
A) Taste                 ( )          1. Vulture
B) Hearing            ( )          2. Dog
C) Smell                ( )          3. Pond skater
D) Vision               ( )          4. Bat
E) Touch                ( )          5. Some reptiles
Answer:
A – 5
B – 4
C – 2
D – 1
E – 3

Question 2.
List-A                                        List – B
A) Woodpecker       ( )        1. Strongly hooked beak
B) Crane                  ( )         2. Hooked beak
C) Vulture                ( )        3. Long beak
D) Parrot                 ( )         4. Long thin beak
E) Hummingbird     ( )         5. Long and strong beak
Answer:
A – 5
B – 3
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 3.
List-A                                               List-B
A) Ant and pests            ( )        1. Hummingbird
B) Fruits and nuts           ( )        2. Vulture
C) Flesh of animals         ( )        3. Crane
D) Fish                            ( )        4. Wood pecker
E) Nectar                        ( )        5. Parrot
Answer:
A – 4
B – 5
C – 2
D – 3
E – 1

Question 4.
List-A                                          List-B
A) Frog                      ( )        1. Natural scavenger
B) Cow                      ( )         2. Suckers
C) Crow                     ( )        3. Sticky tongue
D) Leech                    ( )        4. Hunting animal
E) Lion                       ( )        5. Ruminant
Answer:
A – 3
B – 5
C – 1
D – 2
E – 4

Question 5.
List-A                                                               List-B
A) Producers                         ( )               1. Frog
B) Primary consumers           ( )               2. Plants
C) Secondary consumers      ( )               3. Crow
D) Tertiary consumers           ( )              4. Bacteria
E) Decomposers                    ( )              5. Grass hopper
Answer:
A – 2
B – 5
C – 1
D – 3
E – 4

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Knowing About Plants on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 2nd Lesson Knowing About Plants with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The smaller roots that arise from the taproot are known as ……………….
A) Tuberous roots
B) Aerial roots
C) Lateral roots
D) Fibrous roots
Answer:
C) Lateral roots

Question 2.
A cluster of thin and uniform sized roots are seen in
A) Tap root system
B) Fibrous root system
C) A & B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Fibrous root system

Question 3.
The root that grows above the ground to perform additional functions is called
A) Tuberous roots
B) Aerial roots
C) Taproots
D) Fibrous roots
Answer:
B) Aerial roots

Question 4.
Tuberous roots are found in
A) Carrot
B) Radish
C) Beetroot
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Beetroot

Question 5.
The main axis of the shoot system is called …………………
A) Stem
B) Root
C) Flower
D) Fruit
Answer:
A) Stem

Question 6.
The part of the stem between two successive nodes is
A) Terminal bud
B) Auxiliary bud
C) Internode
D) Cotyledon
Answer:
C) Internode

Question 7.
Choose the edible stem.
A) Neem
B) Banana
C) Sugarcane
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Sugarcane

Question 8.
Name the plant that stores food in the root.
A) Radish
B) Potato
C) Ginger
D) Turmeric
Answer:
A) Radish

Question 9.
The broad green part of the leaf is
A) Leaf base
B) Petiole
C) Sepals
D) Lamina
Answer:
D) Lamina

Question 10.
Read the followings statements. Choose the correct option.
i) Fibrous root system is present in plants that have reticulate venation.
ii) Tap root system is present in plants that have reticulate venation.
A) Only i is correct
B) ii is correct and i is wrong
C) both i & ii are correct
D) both i & ii are wrong
Answer:
B) ii is correct and i is wrong

Question 11.
Petals which are in different colors are the parts of …………………
A) Roots
B) Flower
C) Leaves
D) Fruit
Answer:
B) Flower

Question 12.
Green leaves prepare food by the process of ………………..
A) Respiration
B) Reproduction
C) Photosynthesis
D) Transpiration
Answer:
C) Photosynthesis

Question 13.
To perform photosynthesis plants, need
A) Water
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Sunlight and chlorophyll
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 14.
The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as
A) Stem
B) Root
C) Bud
D) Leaf
Answer:
B) Root

Question 15.
Identify the plant that has fibrous roots
A) Rice
B) Mango
C) Neem
D) Amla
Answer:
A) Rice

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a part of the Taproot system?
A) Taproot
B) Lateral roots
C) Fibrous roots
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 17.
Dicot plants have these root systems and venation
A) Taproot & parallel venation
B) Taproot system and Reticulate venation
C) Fibrous roots & Parallel venation
D) Fibrous roots & Reticulate venation
Answer:
B) Taproot system and Reticulate venation

Question 18.
Aerial roots are helpful for the respiration in ………………..
A) Aquatic plants
B) Terrestrial plants
C) Mangroves
D) Desert plants
Answer:
C) Mangroves

Question 19.
The plant that has aerial roots to give additional support is ……………….
A) Banyan tree
B) Sugar cane
C) Maize
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
The bud present at the axis of the leaf
A) Terminal bud
B) Auxiliary bud
C) Epiphyllous bud
D) Apical bud
Answer:
B) Auxiliary bud

Question 21.
Conduction of food from leaves to other parts takes place by
A) Root
B) Leaf
C) Stem
D) Flower
Answer:
C) Stem

Question 22.
Example of Tuberous stem
A) Potato
B) Mangrove
C) Beetroot
D) Cabbage
Answer:
A) Potato

Question 23.
A stalk-like structure of a leaf
A) Lamina
B) Petiole
C) Leaf base
D) Veins
Answer:
B) Petiole

Question 24.
Which one is not a part of the leaf?
A) Lamina
B) Petiole
C) Midrib
D) Axis
Answer:
D) Axis

Question 25.
The arrangement of veins in the lamina is called
A) Conduction
B) Transpiration
C) Venation
D) Respiration
Answer:
C) Venation

Question 26.
Food is prepared for the plant by the process of
A) Photosynthesis
B) Respiration
C) Transpiration
D) Conduction
Answer:
A) Photosynthesis

Question 27.
This one acts as a nose in the leaf
A) Midrib
B) Stomata
C) Lamina
D) Veins
Answer:
B) Stomata

Question 28.
Which part of the plant produces fruits?
A) Stem
B) Leaf
C) Flower
D) Root
Answer:
C) Flower

Question 29.
Which of the following attract insects for pollination?
A) Petals
B) Midrib
C) Lamina
D) Petiole
Answer:
A) Petals

Fill in the blanks.

1. The underground part of the main axis of a plant is known as ………………..
Answer:
root

2. Tap root system consists of a single root, called …………………
Answer:
Taproot

3. Water absorbed through the ………………… in plants.
Answer:
Roots

4. Roots which store food materials are called ………………… roots.
Answer:
Taproot

5. Seed leaf within the seed is called …………………
Answer:
Cotyledon

6. ………………. is an example of the tuberous stem.
Answer:
Potato/ ginger

7. The buds present at the axils of the leaves are called …………………
Answer:
auxiliary bud

8. ………………… connects leaf lamina with the stem.
Answer:
Petiole

9. Prominent lines that appear on the leaf are called …………………
Answer:
Veins

10. The arrangement Of veins in the lamina is called …………………
Answer:
Venation

11. Plants with fibrous roots possess ………………… venation in their leaves.
Answer:
parallel

12. Loss of water in the form of vapour by leaves is called …………………
Answer:
Transpiration

13. Dicot plants have ………………… root system.
Answer:
Tap

14. Leaves loss excess water by the process of …………………
Answer:
Transpiration

15. The ………………… transports the water absorbed by the roots to different parts of the plant.
Answer:
stem

16. A traditional food of Konaseema of Godavari dist is …………………
Answer:
Pottikkalu

17. Pottikkalu is healthy and delicious with ………………… flavour.
Answer:
Jack fruit

18. Preparation1 of food in the plants by the process of …………………
Answer:
Photosynthesis

19. The exchange of gases between the plant and atmosphere takes place by …………………
Answer:
stomata

20. ……………….. are present in the outer surface layer of the leaf.
Answer:
Stomata

21. The plants with taproot system have leaves with ………………… venation.
Answer:
Reticulate

22. The plants with ………………… system have leaves with parallel venation.
Answer:
Fibrous

23. The long vein that presents in the middle of the lamina is …………………
Answer:
midrib

24. ………………… acts as a skeleton of the leaf.
Answer:
Veins

25. The part of the stem between two successive nodes is called …………………
Answer:
Internode

26. The stems that stores the food materials are known as ………………… Stems.
Answer:
Tuberous

27. The main root of a plant is …………………
Answer:
taproot

28. Finger millet has only one cotyledon. So it is a ………………… Plant.
Answer:
Monocot

Match the following:

Question 1.
List-A                                    List-B
A) Root               ( )          1. Gives beauty of nature
B) Stem               ( )          2. Preparation of food
C) Leaf                ( )          3. Contain cotyledons
D) Flower            ( )          4. Water transport from root to leaves
E) Seed               ( )          5. Absorption of water
Answer:
A – 5
B – 4
C – 2
D – 1
E – 3

Question 2.
List-A                                            List-B
A) Black gram                ( )        1. Parallel venation
B) Tomato                      ( )        2. Tap root system
C) Finger millets            ( )        3. Monocot
D) Banyan                     ( )        4. Dicot
E) Grass                         ( )        5. Aerial roots
Answer:
A – 2
B – 4
C – 3
D – 5
E – 1

Question 3.
List-A                                           List-B
A) Radish                ( )               1. Leaves
B) Sugarcane          ( )               2. Flower
C) Mangroves         ( )               3. Stem
D) Stomata             ( )               4. Root
E) Pollination          ( )               5. Aerial roots
Answer:
A – 4
B – 3
C – 5
D – 1
E – 2

Question 4.
List-A                                      List-B
A) Stomata              ( )       1. Long vein
B) Lamina                ( )       2. Branches of midrib
C) Petiole                ( )       3. Green flat portion
D) Midrib                ( )       4. Stalk part of a leaf
E) Veins                   ( )       5. The nose of the plant
Answer:
A – 5
B – 3
C – 4
D – 1
E – 2

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 The Food we Need on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 1st Lesson The Food we Need with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When do you celebrate ‘World food day’?
A) August 15
B) October 16
C) March 22
D) January 26
Answer:
B) October 16

Question 2.
Identify the correct expansion of FAO.
A) Food and Authority Officer
B) Farmer and Agricultural Organization
C) Food and Agricultural Organization
D) Food Alternative Office
Answer:
C) Food and Agricultural Organization

Question 3.
Table salt is obtained from
A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Sea
D) A & B
Answer:
C) Sea

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a leafy vegetable?
A) Coriander
B) Spinach
C) Lettuce
D) Potato
Answer:
D) Potato

Question 5.
Method of preparing bread
A) Boiling
B) Steaming
C) Fermentation
D) Roasting
Answer:
C) Fermentation

Question 6.
Preparing different types of designs and decorating with vegetables is called …
A) Carving
B) Canning
C) Drying
D) Sharping
Answer:
A) Carving

Question 7.
This is not used in the preparation of pickles
A) Salt
B) Oil
C) Water
D) Chilli powder
Answer:
C) Water

Question 8.
Identify the correct pair of natural preservatives.
A) Nitrates and Benzoates
B) Turmeric Powder and Salt
C) Salts and Sulphates
D) Turmeric and Nitrates
Answer:
B) Turmeric Powder and Salt

Question 9.
Junk food causes
A) Obesity
B) Drowsiness
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 10.
Staple food of Andhra Pradesh is..
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Jotoar
D) Corn
Answer:
B) Rice

Question 11.
The materials that are required to prepare food are
A) Condiments
B) Dry fruits
C) Indian Spices
D) Ingredients
Answer:
D) Ingredients

Question 12.
The ingredients need to prepare pulihora
A) Rice, Tamarind, Salt
B) Vermicelli, Sugar, Miilk
C) Vegetables, Oil, Salt
D) Egg, Rice, Water
Answer:
A) Rice, Tamarind, Salt

Question 13.
Eggs, Chilli powder, Onion, Salt, Oil, …these ingredients are used to prepare the recipe…
A) Aloo kurma
B) Mixed Curry
C) Egg curry
D) Tomato curry
Answer:
C) Egg curry

Question 14.
Identify the ingredient obtained from plant
A) Fruit
B) Egg
C) Milk
D) Salt
Answer:
A) Fruit

Question 15.
Which ingredient is not obtained neither plants nor animals?
A) Vegetables
B) Salt
C) Condiments
D) Milk
Answer:
B) Salt

Question 16.
What are the products of the milk?
A) Butter
B) Cheese
C) Ghee
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 17.
Name the ingredient obtained from animal which is used in ayurvedic medicines.
A) Milk
B) Meat
C) Egg
D) Honey
Answer:
D) Honey

Question 18.
The meat of a pig is called
A) Pork
B) Mutton
C) Chicken
D) Beat
Answer:
A) Pork

Question 19.
Which part of a plant is edible in carrots?
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Flower
Answer:
A) Root

Question 20.
Give one example of the edible part of a flower.
A) Cabbage
B) Cauliflower
C) Onion
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
B) Cauliflower

Question 21.
Identify the plant which stores food in the stem.
A) Carrot
B) Beetroot
C) Ginger
D) Radish
Answer:
C) Ginger

Question 22.
What is an edible part in the Mint plant?
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Flower
D) Leaf
Answer:
D) Leaf

Question 23.
Identify the Indian Spice.
A) Black pepper
B) Cashew nut
C) Dates
D) Kismis
Answer:
A) Black pepper

Question 24.
Why spices are added to a variety of Indian dishes?
A) For flavouring
B) For colouring
C) To preserve
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
Which one of the following is a natural preservative obtained from animals?
A) Turmeric powder
B) Sugar
C) Honey
D) Oil
Answer:
C) Honey

Question 26.
Which of the following preservative is harmful to health?
A) Benzoate
B) Salt
C) Sugar
D) Honey
Answer:
A) Benzoate

Question 27.
Which crop is suitable for our state climatic conditions?
A) Pineapple
B) Wheat
C) Saffron
D) Rice
Answer:
D) Rice

Question 28.
Give example for cereals.
A) Rice
B) Wheat
C) Maize
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
Which of the following food material is preserved by drying?
A) Pickle
B) Fish
C) Idly
D) Eggs
Answer:
B) Fish

Question 30.
In coastal areas the common method for preservation of fish is
A) Smoking
B) Fermentation
C) Boiling
D) Steaming
Answer:
A) Smoking

Question 31.
Identify the junk food from the following:
A) Vegetable Dal
B) Boiled egg
C) Icecream
D) Jack fruit
Answer:
C) Icecream

Question 32.
Which of the following is a Millet?
A) Rice
B) Sajjalu
C) Wheat
D) Maize
Answer:
B) Sajjalu

Question 33.
Which of the following is a good habit?
A) Wasting the food
B) Cooking in large quantities
C) Throwing away the excess food
D) To serve the food for the needy
Answer:
D) To serve the food for the needy

Fill in the blanks.

1. Expand UN …………………
Answer:
United Nations

2. Food is prepared by using one or more …………………
Answer:
Ingredients

3. Milk and meat are obtained from …………………
Answer:
Animals

4. Mango : Fruit :: Potato : …………………
Answer:
Stem

5. ………………… are used to flavour the food.
Answer:
Spices

6. Food is very useful for the and ………………… of life.
Answer:
Growth, survival

7. The taste of food depends on its and the …………………
Answer:
Ingredients, Method of preparation

8. Homemade food is always and …………………
Answer:
Healthy, hygienic

9. Andhra Pradesh state’s geographical and climatic conditions are more suitable for growing ………………… crop.
Answer:
Rice

10. World Food Day is celebrated every year across the world on …………………
Answer:
16th October

11. World Food Day is celebrated every year in honour of the founding date of the …………………
Answer:
FAO

12. Expand F. A. O: …………………
Answer:
Food and Agriculture Organization

13. Expand UNDP …………………
Answer:
United Nations Development Programme

14. Butter, cheese, ghee and curd are the derivatives of …………………
Answer:
Milk

15. ……………….. is an ingredient from another source.
Answer:
Salt

16. We eat the leaves of ………………… Plant.
Answer:
Mint / Spinach

17. Honey is a good ingredient obtained from …………………
Answer:
Honeybees/animals

18. The part of a plant that we eat in sugarcane is …………………
Answer:
Stem

19. ………………… are included in a variety of food dishes for flavour.
Answer:
Spices

20. Cardamom, black pepper, cumin, bay leaves etc. are called …………………
Answer:
Indian spices

21. Making of different types of designs and decorations with fruits are known as …………………
Answer:
Fruit carving

22. Pickles are prepared by the method of …………………
Answer:
Cutting and mixing

23. Salt, oil, turmeric powder, sugar, honey etc are …………………
Answer:
Natural preservatives

24. ………………… preservatives are harmful to our health.
Answer:
Chemical

25. If food is not preserved properly, it can be attacked by …………………
Answer:
Germs / Microorganisms

26. Spoiling of food may lead to ………………… and pollute the environment also.
Answer:
Food shortage

27. To preserve the fruit, we generally use …………………
Answer:
Honey/sugar syrup

28. The very common preservative method for vegetables and fruits is …………………
Answer:
Freezing

29. Eating of spoiled food causes ………………… / ………………… / …………………
Answer:
abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vomiting

30. Junk food cause …………………
Answer:
Obesity

31. Fried fast food, noodles, samosa, ice cream, cool drinks are known as …………………
Answer:
Junk foods.

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                            List – B
A) Vegetables          ( )              1. Animal
B) Milk                     ( )              2. Rice
C) Colouring            ( )              3. Plant
D) Boiling                ( )               4. Preservative
E) Sugar syrup         ( )               5. Spices
Answer:
A – 3
B – 1
C – 5
D – 2
E – 4

Question 2.
List – A                                                List – B
A) Plant                             ( )        1. Sulphate
B) Animals                        ( )         2. Fruit
C) Others                          ( )         3. Honey
D) Natural preservative    ( )         4. Eggs
E) Chemical preservative   ( )        5. Salt
Answer:
A – 2
B – 4
C – 5
D – 3
E – 1

Question 3.
List – A                                List – B
A) Hen            ( )           1. Honey comb
B) Honey        ( )           2. Cow
C) Milk           ( )           3. Pork
D) Goat          ( )           4. Chicken
E) Pig             ( )           5. Mutton
Answer:
A – 4
B – 1
C – 2
D – 5
E – 3

Question 4.
List – A                                    List – B
A) Spinach             ( )            1. Flower
B) Mango              ( )            2. Root
C) Cauliflower       ( )            3. Leaves
D) Ginger              ( )            4. Fruit
E) Radish               ( )            5. Stem
Answer:
A – 3
B – 4
C – 1
D – 5
E – 2

Question 5.
List – A                                 List – B
A) Seeds            ( )          1. Sea water
B) Stem              ( )          2. Groundnut
C) Leaf               ( )          3. Beetroot
D) Root              ( )          4. Mint
E) Salt                ( )          5. Potato
Answer:
A – 2
B – 5
C – 4
D – 3
E – 1

Question 6.
List – A                                      List – B
A) Boiling                  ( )           1. Fish
B) Steaming              ( )           2. Eggs
C) Fermentation        ( )           3. Cake
D) Roasting               ( )           4. Idly
E) Drying                   ( )           5. Meat
Answer:
A – 2
B – 4
C – 3
D – 5
E – 1

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 The Food we Need on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Towards Equality on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson Towards Equality with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Dr. Abdul Kalam was the President of India.
A) 13
B) 12
C) 11
D) 10
Answer:
C) 11

Question 2.
Mariyappan Thangavelu won gold medal in
A) 2016
B) 2018
C) 2017
D) 2010
Answer:
A) 2016

Question 3.
Mariyappan Thangavelu won the gold medal in which sport?
A) Cricket
B) Hockey
C) Basketball
D) Paralympics
Answer:
D) Paralympics

Question 4.
Who was the first female doctor?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Gargi
C) Lopamudra
D) Anandibai Joshi
Answer:
D) Anandibai Joshi

Question 5.
A book written by Dr. Abdul Kalam was
A) Charaka Samhita
B) Wings of Fire
C) The Unity of India
D) India of my dreams
Answer:
B) Wings of Fire

Question 6.
No of awards Sindhutai was awarded
A) 570
B) 670
C) 750
D) 740
Answer:
C) 750

Question 7.
The practice of Sati was banned in
A) 1829
B) 1929
C) 1949
D) 1947
Answer:
A) 1829

Question 8.
Choose the correct statement.
A: Equality means the state of being equal. The term inequality refers to a condition of being unequal.
B: People have equal access to certain social goods and social services. All are equal before the law.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 9.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar       A) Racial discrimination
2) Savitribai Phule           B) Caste discrimination
3) Mahatma Gandhi        C) Gender discrimination
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
D) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

Question 10.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Mother of Indian Feminism     A) Nelson Mandela
2) First Indian female doctor       B) Savitribai Phule
3) Fought for Human Rights       C) Anandibai Joshi
A) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
C) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B
Answer:
B) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

Question 11.
Identify the person given below.

A) Narayana guru
B) Dayananda Saraswathi
C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D) Jyotirao Phule
Answer:
C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 12.
Identify the person given below.

A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B) Dayananda Saraswathi
C) Narayan guru
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
Answer:
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 13.
Identify the person given below.

A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B) Narayan guru
C) Jyotirao Phule
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Narayan guru

Question 14.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam               A) An inspirational personality
2) Mariyappan Thangavelu         B) Bharat Ratna in 1990.
3) Sindhutai                                C) 11th President of India
4) Dr. Nelson Mandela               D) Paralympic high jumper
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – D
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Fill in the blanks.

1. The state of being equal is ………………
Answer:
equality

2. All are equal before ………………
Answer:
law

3. The condition of being unequal is ………………
Answer:
inequality

4. Differences in earnings created ………………
Answer:
rich and poor

5. Barriers to the development of society are ……………… and ………………
Answer:
inequality, discrimination

6. Inequality threatens long term ……………… development and ……………… development.
Answer:
social, economic

7. With inequality we cannot achieve ……………… development.
Answer:
sustainable

8. Gender inequality is a ……………… right.
Answer:
fundamental human

9. One of the most negative features in the caste system is ………………
Answer:
untouchability

10. No. of women MLAs elected in our state is ………………
Answer:
14

11. Total number of MLAs in our state ………………
Answer:
175

12. the Total number of women MPs in 17th Lok Sabha ………………
Answer:
78

13. Percentage of women MPs in 17th Lok Sabha ………………
Answer:
14.5

14. …………….. of India provided equal opportunities for all without any discrimination.
Answer:
Constitution

15. Savitribai Phule belongs to ……………… state.
Answer:
Maharashtra

16. First female teacher in India ………………
Answer:
Savitribai Phule

17. Savitribai Phule was regarded as ………………
Answer:
Mother of Indian

18. Gender discrimination is between ………………
Answer:
men and women

19. Religious discrimination is an unequal treatment basing on ………………
Answer:
religious beliefs

20. Discrimination based on the skin, color or race is ………………
Answer:
racial discrimination

21. Gandhi of South Africa ………………
Answer:
Dr. Nelson Mandela

22. Book written by Dr. Abdul Kalam was ………………
Answer:
racial discrimination

23. Sindhutai was honored with ………………
Answer:
Nari Shakti Award

24. Dr. Nelson Mandela spent ……………… years in prison.
Answer:
27

Practice the AP 6th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Indian Culture, Languages and Religions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson Indian Culture, Languages and Religions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The special feature of India.
A) Socialism
B) Communism
C) Unity in Diversity
D) Diversity in Unity
Answer:
C) Unity in Diversity

Question 2.
Jesus Christ was born in
A) Raj agriha
B) Kunda
C) Bethlehem
D) Pataliputra
Answer:
C) Bethlehem

Question 3.
……………. is the holy book of Christians.
A) The Bible
B) Gita
C) Vedas
D) Quran
Answer:
A) The Bible

Question 4.
The religious books of the Hindu religion
A) Vedas
B) Upanishads
C) Ramayana, Mahabharata, Bhagavath geetha
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 5.
The religion that started in Arabia
A) Christianity
B) Islam
C) Hindu
D) Jainism
Answer:
B) Islam

Question 6.
The holy book of Islam
A) Quran
B) Bible
C) Bhagavadgeeta
D) Ramayan
Answer:
A) Quran

Question 7.
…………… wrote the book called Aryabhattiyam.
A) Aryabhatta
B) Ramanujan
C) Varahamihirudu
D) Sakuntala Devi
Answer:
A) Aryabhatta

Question 8.
Mahabharata was composed by
A) Viswamitra
B) Valmiki
C) Buddha
D) Vyasa
Answer:
D) Vyasa

Question 9.
The Vedas were taught in this form
A) Oral tradition
B) written
C) both A & B
D) None of them
Answer:
A) Oral tradition

Question 10.
“Ten Gurus” are related to which religion?
A) Hinduism
B) Sikhism
C) Christianity
D) Jainism
Answer:
B) Sikhism

Question 11.
Who is the head of the Roman Catholic Church?
A) Pope
B) Archana
C) Tirthankara
D) Prophet
Answer:
A) Pope

Question 12.
It is not a teaching of Jesus Christ.
A) We are the children of God
B) Lead a pure life without committing sins
C) Love your neighbor as yourself
D) All devotees of Muslims attempt a Hajj (pilgrimage) to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.
Answer:
D) All devotees of Muslims attempt a Hajj (pilgrimage) to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 13.
The Tripitikas are the holy books of
A) Islam
B) Christianity
C) Jainism
D) Buddhism
Answer:
D) Buddhism

Question 14.
The Indian sub-continent is the birthplace of
A) Hinduism
B) Buddhism & Jainism
C) Sikhism
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
How many languages are recognized by the Constitution of India?
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Answer:
C) 23

Question 16.
Ashoka used ……………….. script in all his inscriptions.
A) Picture script
B) Kharosthi script
C) Telugu script
D) Brahmi script
Answer:
D) Brahmi script

Question 17.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Aryabhattiyam                 A) Valmiki
2) Charaka Samhita              B) Vedavyasa
3) Ramayanam                     C) Aryabhatta
4) Mahabharata                    D) Charaka
A) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A.
B) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – A
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
D) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
Answer:
C) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B

Question 18.
Choose the correct statement.
A: Language is a medium of communication.
B: Man is the only living being on the earth who uses language.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 19.
A: We think, understand, and communicate with the help of the language.
B: Learning became easier with the evolution of language.
A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & Eyire wrong
Answer:
C) Both A & B are correct

Question 20.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Jainism                          A) Guru Nanak
2) Buddhism                      B) Vardhamana
3) Islam                             C) Jesus Christ
4) Sikhism                         D) Siddhartha
5) Christianity E) Prophet Muhammad
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C
B) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C
C) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A, 5 – E
D) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – E, 5 – C
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – C

Question 21.
Choose the wrong statement.
1) Religion – the belief in God
2) Script – the symbolic representation of language
3) Tirthankara – spiritual teacher of Dharma in Buddhism
4) Upanishads – a series of Hindu sacred written works
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 22.
Choose the correct matching.
1) Tirumala                                A) Saudi Arabia
2) Sanchi Stupa                         B) Amritsar
3) Roman Catholic Church        C) Madhya Pradesh
4) Mecca                                   D) Seshachalam Hills
5) Golden Temple                      E) Vatican city in Rome
A) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – C, 5 – B
B) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – B, 5 – A
C) 1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – C, 4 – A, 5 – B
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – B
Answer:
D) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – E, 4 – A, 5 – B

Fill in the blanks.

1. Indian culture began about ……………….. years ago.
Answer:
5000

2. With the arrival of ………………… a new culture emerged in India.
Answer:
Aryans

3. In olden days people used pins to write on ………………….
Answer:
dried leaves

4. Valmiki’s Ramayana and Vyasa’s Mahabharata were written in ………………..
Answer:
Sanskrit

5. Aryabhatta wrote ……………….
Answer:
Aryabhattiyam

6. ………………, ……………….. books laid the foundation of Ayurvedam.
Answer:
Charaka Samhita and Sushruta Samhita

7. People who follow Jainism are known as ………………..
Answer:
Jains

8. Main goal of Jainism is to reach ………………..
Answer:
Moksha

9. In Jainism state of happiness is known as ………………..
Answer:
Nirvana

10. Texts which are MahaVtfa’s preachings are known as ………………..
Answer:
Angas

11. Spiritual Gurus for Jains are ………………..
Answer:
Tirthankaras

12. Height of Gomateshwara statue in Shravanabelagola is ……………….. feet.
Answer:
57

13. Gautama Buddha was bqrn in ……………….. and in ………………..
Answer:
Lumbini, Nepal

14. Gautama Buddha name when born was ………………..
Answer:
Siddhartha

15. Gautama Buddha got married at the age of ………………..
Answer:
18

16. Gautama Buddha’s son name was ………………..
Answer:
Rahul

17. The tree where Gautama Buddha got enlightenment is named as ………………..
Answer:
Bodhi Vruksha

18. According to Gautama Buddha final goal is ………………..
Answer:
attaining Nirvana

19. The holy books of Buddhism are ………………..
Answer:
Tripitikas

20. ……………….. and ……………….. are the important festivals of Hindus.
Answer:
Sankranthi, Diwali

21. Tirumala is located in ……………….. hills.
Answer:
Seshachalam

22. Unit of administration to maintain Tirumala is ………………..
Answer:
TTD

23. Founder of Christianity was ………………..
Answer:
Jesus Christ

24. Holy book of Christians is ………………..
Answer:
Bible

25. Famous church in the world is …………………
Answer:
Roman Catholic Church

26. Head of the Roman Catholic Church is ………………..
Answer:
Pope

27. Jesus was born in ………………..
Answer:
Bethlehem

28. ……………….. was the founder of Islam.
Answer:
Prophet Mohammed

29. Prophet Mohammed was born in ………………..
Answer:
Mecca

30. Mecca was in ………………..
Answer:
Arabia

31. The ……………….. is the holy book of Muslims.
Answer:
Quran

32. Prophet Mohammed left to ……………….. from Mecca.
Answer:
Madina

33. The followers who follow Sikhism are called ………………..
Answer:
Sikhs

34. The word Sikh means ………………..
Answer:
Student or disciple

35. The holy book of Sikhs is ………………..
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib

36. The first Tirthankara was ………………..
Answer:
Bahubali

37. India is a land of ………………..
Answer:
diversities

38. ……………….. is the implying unity among the people of India.
Answer:
Unity in diversity

39. Dominant cultural trait of India is ……………
Answer:
Unity in diversity

Match the following:

Question 1.
1. Aryans                           [ ]             A) Ayurvedam
2. Valmiki                          [ ]             B) Jainism
3. Charaka Samhitha         [ ]             C) Yagnas
4. Mahavira                       [ ]             D) Homeopathy
5. Gautam Buddha            [ ]             E) GuruNanak
–                                                         F) Rahul
–                                                         G) Ramayana
Answer:
1. C
2. G
3. A
4. B
5. F

Question 2.
Religions                                      Books
1. Hinduism              [ ]                A) Bible
2. Islam                     [ ]                B) Bhagavath Geetha
3. Christianity            [ ]               C) Quran
Answer:
1. B
2. C
3. A.

Question 3.
God                                                 Religions
1. Jesus Christ           [ ]               A) Hinduism
2. Siddhartha            [ ]               B) Christianity
3. Lord Krishna         [ ]               C) Buddhism
Answer:
1. B
2. C
3. A