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Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Weather and Climate on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 6th Lesson Weather and Climate with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Weather changes
A) Week after week
B) Day after day
C) Within a short period
D) In any of the above time period
Answer:
D) In any of the above time period

Question 2.
Rain fall is measured by
A) Rain gauge
B) Water level in the ponds
G) Increase in the levels of ground water
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Rain gauge

Question 3.
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally in
A) The morning
B) Evening
C) Noon
D) After noon
Answer:
D) After noon

Question 4.
The quantity of. water vapour in air is
A) Temperature
B) Humidity
C) Climate
D) Weather
Answer:
B) Humidity

Question 5.
Humidity is measured by
A) Rain gauge
B) Anemometer
C) Wind guage
D) Hydrometer
Answer:
D) Hydrometer

Question 6.
The maximum and minimum temperature at a place is measured by
A) Lab thermometer
B) Six’s thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) gas thermometer
Answer:
B) Six’s thermometer

Question 7.
Rain gauge is also called
A) Hydrometer
B) Anemometer
C) Udometer
D) None
Answer:
C) Udometer

Question 8.
Wind speed is measured by
A) Anemometer
B) Hydrometer
C) Speedometer
D) Udometer
Answer:
A) Anemometer

Question 9.
Tsunami in Andaman Nicobar occurred in
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2004
D) 2006
Answer:
C) 2004

Question 10.
Rainfall is measured in
A) mm
B) feet
C) yards
D) meters
Answer:
A) mm

Question 11.
Which of the following statements regarding weather is incorrect?
A) It is highly unpredictable.
B) It is measured on a day-to-day basis.
C) It is measured using factors like rainfall and humidity.
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.
Answer:
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.

Question 12.
Which of the following statements regarding humidity is correct?
A) It is the amount of rain received by a an area.
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.
C) It is measured by determining the . degree of heat of an area.
D) It is measured by determining the speed of wind in a given area.
Answer:
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.

Question 13.
Use the following information to answer the given question. The given table represents the weather data for a day of a place.

Based on the weather data, it can be inferred that the weather on the given day in the area is
A) cold and humid
B) hot and humid
C) cold and dry
D) hot and dry
Answer:
A) cold and humid

Question 14.
The minimum temperature of the day is measured during what time period of the day?
A) Early morning
B) Late night
C) Afternoon
D) Evening
Answer:
A) Early morning

Question 15.
A place with a mean temperature of 38 °C that receives high rainfall has what type of climate?
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
D) cold and wet

Question 16.
Rajasthan receives very little rainfall and its mean temperature is very high. The climate of Rajasthan is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
A) hot and dry

Use the following information to answer the given questions from. 17 to 21.
The given table gives the climate data for Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram.

Question 17.
The climate of Srinagar is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
C) cold and dry

Question 18.
The climate of Thiruvananthapuram is
A) hot and dry
B) hot and wet
C) cold and dry
D) cold and wet
Answer:
B) hot and wet

Question 19.
In which month both the cities are getting cool and dry?
A) December
B) January
C) February
D) November
Answer:
B) January

Question 20.
In which month Thiruvananthapuram is having moderate climate?
A) December
B) January
C) February
D) November
Answer:
B) January

Question 21.
What is the reason behind Srinagar for getting more rainfall during March?
A) Dissolving of glaciers
B) Due to cool breeze
C) Due to hot waves
D) Heavy fog
Answer:
B) Due to cool breeze

Question 22.
In Six max-min thermometer magnet is used
A) to take readings
B) to make indicators at original positions
C) to keep thermometer safe
D) to maintain accuracy
Answer:
B) to make indicators at original positions

Question 23.
Farmers measure rainfall based on
A) wetness of the soil
B) dryness of the soil
C) humidity of the air
D) dryness of the air
Answer:
A) wetness of the soil

Question 24.
PADUNU means
A) rainfall is insufficient
B) rainfall is sufficient
C) rainfall is heavy
D) salinity of the soil
Answer:
B) rainfall is sufficient

Question 25.
Moving back of ocean and making sounds of birds indicates
A) Cyclone
B) Rain
C) Hailes
D) Tsunami
Answer:
D) Tsunami

Question 26.
Anemometer is useful to measure
A) speed
B) direction
C) speed and direction
D) none of these
Answer:
C) speed and direction

Question 27.
If the depth of water in rainguage is 1 cm it indicates the rainfall
A) 10 mm
B) 1 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 100 mm
Answer:
A) 10 mm

Question 28.
During summer morning we will get
A) cool breeze
B) hot waves
C) cool and hot waves
D) thunder storms
Answer:
A) cool breeze

Question 29.
In summer if you are in coastal area, you feel
A) cool
B) sweaty
C) hot
D) sweaty and hot
Answer:
D) sweaty and hot

Question 30.
The weather of Kolkata is
A) humid
B) mild
C) dry
D) cold
Answer:
A) humid

Question 31.
The weather of Rajasthan is
A) humid
B) mild
C) dry
D) cold
Answer:
C) dry

Question 32.
The following is effecting the life of human beings
A) Temperature
B) Rain
C) Wind speed
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
“Sky may be cloudy for the next two days”. It is
A) weather report
B) weather forecast
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) weather forecast

Question 34.
42°C maximum temperature recorded at Rentachintala it is a
A) weather report
B) weather forecast
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) weather report

Question 35.
What is this instrument?

A) Anemometer
B) Thermometer
C) Hygrometer
D) Rainguage
Answer:
D) Rainguage

Question 36.
It shows

A) temperature direction
B) rain direction
C) wind direction
D) tsunami direction
Answer:
C) wind direction

Question 37.
The following city having less humidity
A) Visakapatnam
B) Vijayawada
C) Hyderabad
D) Rajamundry
Answer:
C) Hyderabad

Question 38.
How many years of average temperature and rainfall is considered as climate of a place?
A) 10 years
B) 25 years
C) 50 years
D) 100 years
Answer:
B) 25 years

Question 39.
The quantity of water vapour in air is called
A) rain
B) snow
C) hails
D) humidity
Answer:
D) humidity

Question 40.
Rainfall of a particular place is expressed in
A) centimeters
B) kilometers
C) grams
D) litres
Answer:
A) centimeters

Question 41.
This figure shows

A) Rain
B) Thunder rain
C) Stroms
D) Hailes
Answer:
D) Hailes

Question 42.
Study of rainfall weather forecast is done by
A) Indian Meterio Roids Department
B) Indian Geological Department
C) Indian Meteorological department
D) None
Answer:
C) Indian Meteorological department

Question 43.
In this place the weather is hot and dry
A) Bengaluru
B) Delhi
C) Kolkata
D) Rajasthan
Answer:
D) Rajasthan

Question 44.
We used this to measure the day temperature
A) Six maximum minimum thermometer
B) Anemometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Udometer
Answer:
A) Six maximum minimum thermometer

Question 45.
This symbol indicates

A) Rainfall
B) Heavy rainfall
C) Hailes
D) Thunder stroms
Answer:
D) Thunder stroms

Question 46.
Which one of the following statements regarding weather is incorrect?
A) It is highly unpredictable.
B) It is measured on a day-to-day basis.
C) It is measure of using factors like rainfall and humidity.
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.
Answer:
D) It remains the same throughout the week or even a month.

Question 47.
Which one of the following statements regarding humidity is correct?
A) It is the amount of rain received by an area.
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.
C) It is measured by determining the degree of heat of an area.
D) It is measured by determining the speed of wind in given area.
Answer:
B) It is the amount of moisture present in the air of a given area.

Question 48.
Which of the following is measured with this?

A) Speed of wind
B) Direction of wind
C) Humidity in the air
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Practice the AP 6th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Numbers All Around us on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Maths Bits 1st Lesson Numbers All Around us with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer and write it in the brackets.

Question 1.
How many digits are in our number system?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11
Answer:
C) 10

Question 2.
Which is the least among the digits?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
A) 0

Question 3.
Greatest 6-digit number is ………………
A) 9,99990
B) 900000
C) 999999
D) 9999999
Answer:
C) 999999

Question 4.
Place value of 5 in the number 786054 IS ……………………….
A) 100
B) 10
C) 5
D) 50
Answer:
D) 50

Question 5.
Who invented zero?
A) Romans
B) Indians
C) Britishers
D) Americans
Answer:
B) Indians

Question 6.
What is the smallest number among the following?
A) 777077
B) 770777
C) 707777
D) 977777
Answer:
C) 707777

Question 7.
Smallest number formed by the digits 6, 2, 4, 3, 5, 7 is
A) 234576
B) 245673
C) 234567
D) 765432
Answer:
C) 234567

Question 8.
Total numbers from 100 to 999 are
A) 899
B) 800
C) 900
D) 990
Answer:
C) 900

Question 9.
Place value of 8 in 68435294 is………………
A) 8,00,000
B) 8,00,00,000
C) 80,00,00,000
D) 80,00,000
Answer:
D) 80,00,000

Question 10.
10 crores= millions
A) 10
B) 1000
C) 100
D) 10000
Answer:
C) 100

Question 11.
Numerical form of “eight billion two hundred forty seven million six hundred fifteen thousand one hundred and ninety five” is ……………….
A) 8247615195
B) 8274615195
C) 8426151795
D) 8247516195
Answer:
A) 8247615195

Question 12.
How many zeroes does 100 crores have?
A) 9
B) 8
C) 7
D) 6
Answer:
A) 9

Question 13.
1 TMC = ……………….. litre.
A) 28316000000
B) 2831600000
C) 283160000000
D) 283160000
Answer:
A) 28316000000

Question 14.
1 litre = …………. ml.
A) 100
B) 10
C) 10000
D) 1000
Answer:
D) 1000

Question 15.
1 tonne = kg.
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10000
D) 10
Answer:
B) 1000

Question 16.
1 mega tonne = kg.
A) 100 crores
B) 10 crores
C) 1 crore
D) 1000 crores
Answer:
A) 100 crores

Question 17.
1000 metres = km
A) 1
B) 10
C) 5
D) 2
Answer:
A) 1

Question 18.
1 quintal = grams.
A) 10 lakhs
B) lakh
C) 100 lakhs
D) 1000 lakhs
Answer:
B) lakh

Question 19.
Rounding off 84582 nearest to tens gives
A) 84590
B) 84580
C) 84680
D) 84520
Answer:
B) 84580

Question 20.
Rounding off 65786 nearest to hundreds gives
A) 65800
B) 65700
C) 65600
D) 66700
Answer:
A) 65800

Question 21.
The digit in millions place 634826384.
A) 6
B) 8
C) 4
D) 2
Answer:
C) 4

Question 22.
The National Mathematics day is celebrated on
A) Dec. 22nd
B) Jan. 22nd
C) Feb. 22nd
D) March 22nd
Answer:
A) Dec. 22nd

Question 23.
The symbol which helps us in reading and writing large numbers is …………….
A) Full stop
B) Decimal point
C) Comma
D) Semicolon
Answer:
C) Comma

Question 24.
One billion = crores.
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10
D) 1
Answer:
A) 100

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Greatest digit in our number system is ……………
Answer:
9

2. Smallest 6 – digit number is …………….
Answer:
1,00,000

3. Face value of 8 in 368740 is ……………..
Answer:
8

4. Ramanujan number is ……………
Answer:
1729

5. Greatest number formed by the digits 2, 5, 0, 9, 2, 6 is ……………..
Answer:
965220

6. Total numbers from 1,00,00,000 to 9,99,99,999 are …………….
Answer:
9,00,00,000

7. Number of digits in Ten crores is ………………
Answer:
9

8. Numerical form of “Nine hundred and eighty four crores ninety one lakhs ninety seven thousand six hundred and two” is ………………
Answer:
984,91,97,602

9. 100 crores = …………….. billion/(s).
Answer:
1

10. 100 thousands = ……………….. lakh/(s).
Answer:
1

11. The international system of number name of 8125646682 is ……………….
Answer:
Eight thousand one hundred twenty five millions six hundred forty six thousand six hundred and eighty two.

12. Number of nines in the greatest 10-digit number is ………………
Answer:
10

13. TMC means ………………..
Answer:
One thousand million cubic feet

14. 1,000,000,000,000 litres = ……………….. litres.
Answer:
One trillion litres

15. 1,00,000 centimeters = ………………. kilometers.
Answer:
1

16. 1 meter = ……………….. millimeters.
Answer:
1000

17. 1 trillion litres = ………………. kilometers
Answer:
1 cubic

18. Rounding off 28924 nearest to thousands gives ………………
Answer:
29000

19. Another name of Indian system is ………………
Answer:
Hindu – Arabic system

20. The short form of 20000000 + 200000 + 2000 + 20 is ……………….
Answer:
20202020

21. Ramanujan died on …………………
Answer:
26 – 04 -1920

22. One crore = …………….. millions. .
Answer:
10

III. Match the following:
A)

Answer:
1) Greatest 5-digit number – d) 99999
2) Smallest 4-digit number – a) 1000
3) Greatest digit – e) 9
4) Smelliest 2-digit number – b) 10
5) Greatest 2-digit number – c) 99

B)

Answer:
1) 1 quintal = …………….. kg – c) 1000
2) 10 litres = …………….. ml – e) 10,000
3) 10 lakhs = …………….. million – a) 1
4) 10 c.m = …………………. millimetres – b) 100
5) One tonne = …………….. quintals – d) 10

C)

Answer:
1) Toted number of digits 100 – 999 – d) 900
2) Toted number of digits 1000 – 9999 – e) 9000
3) Total number of digits 0 – 9 – c) 10
4) Total number of digits 10 – 99 – a) 90
5) Total number of digits 10000 to 99999 – b) 90000

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Temperature and Its Measurement on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 5th Lesson Temperature and Its Measurement with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
If we use electric heater to heat water then the energy converted into heat is
A) Electrical
B) Solar
C) Mechanical
D) Chemical
Answer:
A) Electrical

Question 2.
First thermometer was invented by
A) Newton
B) Einstein
C) Galileo
D) JC Bose
Answer:
C) Galileo

Question 3.
Temperature of human body is measured by
A) Laboratory thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Six maximum and minimum thermo¬meter
D) Any one of the above
Answer:
B) Clinical thermometer

Question 4.
Boiling point of water is
A) 0 °C
B) 37 °C
C) 100 °C
D) – 10 °C
Answer:
C) 100 °C

Question 5.
Melting point of ice is
A) 37 °C
B) 100 °C
C) -10°C
D) 0 °C
Answer:
D) 0 °C

Question 6.
Mercury is
A) Opaque
B) Transparent
C) Translucent
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Opaque

Question 7.
Normal temperature of human body is
A) 37 °C
B) 58 °C
C) 48 °C
D) 20 °C
Answer:
A) 37 °C

Question 8.
Kink is present in
A) Lab thermometer
B) Six’s max. & min. thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Gas thermometer
Answer:
C) Clinical thermometer

Question 9.
Thermister thermometer is mainly meant for
A) Adults
B) Infants
C) Women
D) Old People
Answer:
B) Infants

Question 10.
At room temperature mercury is in ………… state.
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Both solid and liquid
Answer:
B) Liquid

Question 11.
Electrical energy is converted into heat by
A) Gas stove
B) Thermometer
C) Bulb
D) Electric Heater
Answer:
D) Electric Heater

Question 12.
Chemical energy converts into heat by
A) Gas stove
B) Thermometer
C) Bulb
D) Electric Heater
Answer:
A) Gas stove

Question 13.
Heat energy con verts in to electricity by
A) Gas stove
B) Electric heater
C) Hot plate
D) Thermal station
Answer:
D) Thermal station

Question 14.
…………. energy transmits from warmer object to cooler object.
A) Light
B) Chemical
C) Heat
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Heat

Question 15.
Heat energy converts into mechanical energy by
A) Steam engine
B) Aeroplane
C) Rocket
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Steam engine

Question 16.
Temperature is a measure of
A) Heat
B) Light
C) Sound
D) Electric power
Answer:
A) Heat

Question 17.
We use ………… to measure temperature.
A) Thermometer
B) Thermostat
C) Boiler
D) Heater
Answer:
A) Thermometer

Question 18.
The bulb of thermometer filled with
A) Water
B) Mercury
C) Air
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 19.
The bulb of thermometer filled by …………. to measure ‘low’ temperature.
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Water
D) Any one
Answer:
B) Alcohol

Question 20.
Markings on thermometer based on boiling and melting points of
A) Water and ice
B) Mercury
C) Alcohol
D) Lead
Answer:
A) Water and ice

Question 21.
Thermometer was invented by
A) Galo
B) Hook
C) Galileo
D) Edison
Answer:
C) Galileo

Question 22.
The lowest temperature recorded in the world
A) Arctic
B) Antarctica
C) Pacific
D) Greenland
Answer:
B) Antarctica

Question 23.
The Six maximum and minimum thermometer measured temperatures of
A) Night
B) Week
C) Day
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Day

Question 24.
………….. prevents falling of mercury level on its own
A) Capillary
B) Cap
C) Knob
D) Kink
Answer:
D) Kink

Question 25.
Fahrenheit scale on clinical ther¬mometer ranges 94 to ………….. degrees.
A) 100
B) 104
C) 106
D) 108
Answer:
D) 108

Question 26.
Celcius scale on clinical thermom¬eter ranges from ……………. to 45 degrees.
A) 34
B) 35
C) 36
D) 40
Answer:
B) 35

Question 27.
On clinical thermometer Fahrenheit scale 1°Fsubdivided into …………..
A) 5
B) 10
C) 8
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 28.
37°C equals to ………. °F.
A) 98.2
B) 98.4
C) 98.6
D) 99
Answer:
C) 98.6

Question 29.
Thermister thermometer only is used for …………..
A) Infants
B) Old age
C) Women
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Infants

Question 30.
Laboratory thermometer used in
A) Laboratory
B) Furnaces
C) Theaters
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 31.
Temperature is a measure of the degree of the following of an object
A) coldness
B) hotness
C) both
D) none
Answer:
C) both

Question 32.
The following one converts the electrical energy into heat
A) Solar heater
B) Electrical heater
C) Gas stove
D) Coal iron box
Answer:
B) Electrical heater

Question 33.

It is a …………
A) Clinical thermometer
B) C° thermometer
C) F° thermometer
D) Thermister thermometer
Answer:
B) C° thermometer

Question 34.

Through this experiment, we can prove that
A) Expansion of gases
B) Expansion of solids
C) Expansion of liquids
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Expansion of liquids

Question 35.
Who invented first thermometer?
A) Edison
B) Newton
C) Graham
D) Galileo
Answer:
D) Galileo

Question 36.
The following is having uniform expansion capacity
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Water
D) Air
Answer:
A) Mercury

Question 37.
What liquids are used in this instrument?

A) Alcohol
B) Mercury
C) Both A and B
D) Water
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 38.
It is used to measure

A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) Atmospheric temperature
D) Used in laboratories
Answer:
A) Body temperature

Question 39.
Human body temperature is
A) 37°F
B) 98.6°C
C) 95°F
D) 98.4°F
Answer:
D) 98.4°F

Question 40.
It is used to measure the temperature of

A) Adults
B) Children
C) Animals
D) Oldage people
Answer:
B) Children

Question 41.
In this instrument to measure temperature we use

A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Air
D) None of the above
Answer:
D) None of the above

Question 42.
We use this to measure the temperature of boiling water.
A) Clinical thermometer
B) Six maximum-minimum thermometer
C) Faboratory thermometer
D) Digital thermometer
Answer:
C) Faboratory thermometer

Question 43.
Low temperature recording thermometer is filled with
A) Mercury
B) Alcohol
C) Air
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Alcohol

Question 44.
The following is used to record the day and night temperature
A) Six maximum-minimum thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Thermister thermometer
D) Laboratory thermometer
Answer:
A) Six maximum-minimum thermometer

Question 45.
Kink is present in this thermometer
A) Laboratory thermometer
B) Digital thermometer
C) Clinical thermometer
D) Thermister thermometer
Answer:
C) Clinical thermometer

Question 46.
Fahrenheit scale has the following divisions
A) 1-100
B) 1-37
C) 1-110
D) 95-110
Answer:
D) 95-110

Question 47.
98.4°F is equal to
A) 35°C
B) 36°C
C) 37°C
D) 38°C
Answer:
C) 37°C

Question 48.
Ice melts at this temperature
A) -1°C
B) 0°C
C) 1°C
D) 100°C
Answer:
B) 0°C

Question 49.
Chemical energy is converted into heat by
A) Electric heater
B) Solar heater
C) Gas stove
D) Iron box
Answer:
C) Gas stove

Question 50.
In first thermometer, this is used as the thermometric substance
A) Air
B) Mercury
C) Alcohol
D) Water
Answer:
A) Air

Question 51.
The apparatus which is made based on the principle “Liquids expands on heating” is
A) Thermometer
B) Bulb
C) Electric stove
D) Raingauge
Answer:
A) Thermometer

Question 52.
If Hari puts the bulb of a clinical thermometer near the fire. What will happen?
1) Mercury level increases
2) Mercury levels decreases
3) No change in mercury level
4) Thermometer will be burst
A) 1 is correct
B) 2 is correct
C) 1, 4 are correct
D) 3 is correct
Answer:
C) 1, 4 are correct

Question 53.
Separation process of solids from liquids is
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Crystallisation
D) Melting
Answer:
C) Crystallisation

Question 54.
Read the following statements.
P. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure.
Q. Due to very hot air, the water in the sea gets evaporated and moves upward and becomes cyclones.
Which of these statements is/are – correct?
A) P and Q are correct
B) P is correct
C) Q is correct
D) P and Q both are wrong
Answer:
A) P and Q are correct

Question 55.
The state of Mercury at the room temperature is
A) Liquid
B) Gaseous
C) Solid
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Liquids

Question 56.
The apparatus used to measure the highest and the lowest temperatures of the day is
A) Thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Thermister thermometer
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer
Answer:
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer

Question 57.
Which of the following is used to know the temperature in infants?
A) Thermister thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Laboratory thermometer
D) Six minimum and maximum thermometer
Answer:
A) Thermister thermometer

Question 58.
Ravi wants to know the temperature of boiling water with clinical thermometer. What may happen? Guess?
A) It will burst
B) Glass tube will expand
C) It will shrink
D) No change
Answer:
A) It will burst

Question 59.
-7° C temperature is 0° C.
A) Greater
B) Lesser
C) Equal
D) Very less
Answer:
B) Lesser

Question 60.
Ravi takes a soapnut seed and rubs it on a stone. What do you observe in it?
A) Heat energy is converted into Mechanical energy
B) Mechanical energy is converted into Heat energy
C) Mechanical energy is converted into Chemical energy
D) Chemical energy is converted into Mechanical energy
Answer:
B) Mechanical energy is converted into Heat energy

Question 61.
The following scales are marked on the clinical thermometer
A) Both millimeter and centimeter
B) Only Celsius
C) Only fahrenheit
D) Both Celsius and fahrenheit
Answer:
D) Both Celsius and fahrenheit

Question 62.
Name of thermometer commonly used to measure body temperature of children is
A) Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
B) Clinical thermometer
C) Laboratory thermometer
D) Alcohol thermometer
Answer:
B) Clinical thermometer

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Symmetry on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 15th Lesson Symmetry with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following figure has axes of symmetry?

Answer:

Question 2.
Number of axes of symmetry for a circle.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) Infinite
Answer:
D) Infinite

Question 3.
The angle of a rotational symmetry of a square
A) 60°
B) 45°
C) 90°
D) 30°
Answer:
C) 90°

Question 4.
What is the angle of a rotational symmetry of a parallelogram?
A) 180°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 120°
Answer:
A) 180°

Question 5.
Which of the following figure has symmetry?
A) Maths box
B) Cricket ball
C) A wheel
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 6.
Which of the following has rotational symmetry?
A) Wheel
B) Square
C) Circle
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 7.
Order of rotational symmetry of ‘X’ is …………….
A) 4
B) 2
C ) 3
D) 6
Answer:
A) 4

Question 8.
Rotational angle of an equilateral triangle is …………….
A) 90°
B) 120°
C) 60°
D) 30°
Answer:
B) 120°

Question 9.
Number of axes of symmetry of a letter ‘M’ is ………………
A) 0
B) 2
C) 1
D) 3
Answer:
C) 1

Question 10.
What are the minimum number of sides of a polygon?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 11.
Which of the following triangle has 2 lines of symmetry?
A) Scalene
B) Right angled
C) Equilateral
D) Isosceles
Answer:
D) Isosceles

Question 12.
Number of lines of symmetry for an equilateral triangle are?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 13.
Number of lines of symmetry for a square are ……………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
Answer:
A) 4

Question 14.
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A) Every square has an axes of symmetry
B) The letter ‘Z’ has no line of symmetry
C) The letter ‘E’ has no rotational symmetry
D) Every figure has an axes of symmetry
Answer:
D) Every figure has an axes of symmetry

Question 15.
Order of rotational symmetry of ‘N’ is ……………….
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 16.
A square has ……………. lines of symmetry.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 17.
A circle has …………… lines of symmetry.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 4
D) inifinity
Answer:
D) inifinity

Question 18.
Which of the following has a line symmetry?
A) P
B) F
C) M
D) Q
Answer:
C) M

Question 19.
The angle of rotational symmetry of an equilateral triangle is
A) 60°
B) 120°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
B) 120°

Question 20.
The order of rotational symmetry of an equilateral triangle is
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
A) 3

Question 21.
The order of rotational symmetry of a regular hexagon is
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
A) 6

Question 22.
Angle between successive axes of symmetry
A) \(\frac{90}{\mathrm{n}}\)
B) \(\frac{90}{2 \mathrm{n}}\)
C) \(\frac{360}{2 \mathrm{n}}\)
D) \(\frac{360}{\mathrm{n}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{360}{2 \mathrm{n}}\)

Question 23.
The line which divides a figure into two identical parts is called
A) axis of symmetry
B) point of symmetry
C) rotational symmetry
D) None
Answer:
A) axis of symmetry

Question 24.
Number of lines of symmetry for ‘H’
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 2

Question 25.
Which letter has no line of symmetry?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) F
Answer:
D) F

Question 26.
Number of axes of symmetry of ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 27.
Number of axes of symmetry of ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 28.
Number of axes of symmetry of ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 29.
Number of axes of symmetry of ?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 30.
Number of axes of symmetry of ?
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
B) 0

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Understanding 3D and 2D Shapes on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 14th Lesson Understanding 3D and 2D Shapes with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The net of is

D) none
Answer:

Question 2.
Identify the net shape of

D) none
Answer:

Question 3.
Identify the net shape of

Answer:

Question 4.
What is the vertical shape of ?

Answer:

Question 5.
The Horizontal cut of

Answer:

Question 6.
When spherical shape seen under the lamp of an overhead projector it seems to
be a shape of ……………..
A) square
B) circle
C) rectangle
D) triangle
Answer:
B) circle

Question 7.
From the above sum cube is ……………….
A) circle
B) square
C) rectangle
D) triangle
Answer:
B) square

Question 8.
Textbook is in the shape of
A) rectangle
B) square
C) circle
D) triangle
Answer:
A) rectangle

Question 9.
A cube has ………………… edges.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 6
Answer:
C) 12

Question 10.
A cuboid has ……………….. faces.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
Answer:
B) 6

Question 11.
The skelton out line of a solid on 2-D surface is called
A) opaque sketch
B) isometric sketch
C) net
D) none
Answer:
C) net

Question 12.
The opposite faces of a dice always have a total of …………….. on them.
A) 9
B) 8
C) 7
D) 6
Answer:
C) 7

Question 13.
Which of the following is a 3-D shape?
A) Triangle
B) Rectangle
C) Cone
D) Square
Answer:
C) Cone

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a 3-D shape?
A) Parallelogram
B) Cylinder
C) Sphere
D) Cone
Answer:
A) Parallelogram

Question 15.
Cricket ball is an example of ………………. shape.
A) sphere
B) cone
C) cylinder
D) none
Answer:
A) sphere

Question 16.
Example for a cube is ……………..
A) pen
B) dice
C) ice cream-cone
D) none
Answer:
B) dice

Question 17.
Example for a cylindrical shape is ……………….
A) Candle
B) Brick
C) Laddoos
D) Tin
Answer:
A) Candle

Question 18.
Number of faces of a cube are ………………
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5
Answer:
A) 6

Question 19.
Number of edges of a pyramid are ………………..
A) 12
B) 10
C) 8
D) 9
Answer:
C) 8

Question 20.
Number of vertices of a cuboid are ……………..
A) 6
B) 4
C) 5
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

II. Matching:

1. Match the following.

Answer:
1) – b
2) – c
3) – d
4) – a

2. Match the following.

Answer:
1. A football – f) Circular
2. A triangular prism – a) Triangular
3. A dice – e) Square
4. A notebook – b) Rectangular
5. A cylindrical pipe – d) Cuboid

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 13 Area and Perimeter on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 13th Lesson Area and Perimeter with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The side of a square is 18cm. Then its area is ……….. cm².
A) 36
B) 384
C) 324
D) 428
Answer:
C) 324

Question 2.
The length and breadth of a rectangle are 25cm and 20cm then its perimeter is ……………. cm
A) 500
B) 90
C) 45
D) 100
Answer:
B) 90

Question 3.
The base of a parallelogram and its corresponding heights are 8cm and 3cm, its
area is …………….. cm².
A) 12
B) 11
C) 48
D) 24
Answer:
D) 24

Question 4.
Area of the given figure ……………. sq. units.

A) 72
B) 36
C) 18
D) 48
Answer:
A) 72

Question 5.
The base and height of a triangle are 10cm and 5cm, its area is
A) 50cm²
B) 25cm²
C) 30 cm²
D) 100cm²
Answer:
B) 25cm²

Question 6.
In the figure BE = ………………

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 7.
Area of the given figure is …………………. cm²

A) 15
B) 30
C) 18
D) 24
Answer:
A) 15

Question 8.
The diametre of a wheel is 35cm then its circumference is
A) 110cm
B) 220cm
C) 95cm
D) 100cm
Answer:
A) 110cm

Question 9.
The radius of a circle is 7cm then its circumference is
A) 44cm
B) 36cm
C) 22 cm
D) 66cm
Answer:
A) 44cm

Question 10.
If the circumference is 22cm, then radius of the circle is
A) 1cm
B) 0.5cm
C) 3.5 cm
D) 14cm
Answer:
C) 3.5 cm

Question 11.
The side of a square is 27 mts, then its area is ………….. sq. mts.
A) 729
B) 629
C) 829
D) 719
Answer:
A) 729

Question 12.
If the side of a square is 7 cms, then its perimeter is ……………… cms.
A) 21
B) 14
C) 28
D) 35
Answer:
C) 28

Question 13.
If the perimeter of a square is 36 cms, then its area is ………….. sq. cms.
A) 64
B) 81
C) 49
D) 18
Answer:
B) 81

Question 14.
If l = 15 cm, b = 12 cm, then the perimeter of a rectangle is ……………… cms.
A) 180
B) 35
C) 27
D) 54
Answer:
D) 54

Question 15.
From the above sum the area of a rectangle is ………………. sq. cm.
A) 150
B) 180
C) 160
D) 170
Answer:
B) 180

Question 16.
If the area of a rectangle is 180 sq.cm its length is 20 cm, then its breadth is ……………. cm.
A) 9
B) 8
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
A) 9

Question 17.
From the given figure, area of a parallelogram is …………….. sq. cm.

A) 40.5
B) 81
C) 40
D) 91
Answer:
D) 91

Question 18.
If the area of a parallelogram is 36 sq.cm, its base is 9 cm, then its height is ……….. cms.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
C) 4

Question 19.
If the base of a parallelogram is twice of its height and area is 98 sq. cms, then its
base is ………… cms.
A) 16
B) 21
C) 7
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 20.
From the given figure the area of a triangle is …………. sq. cms.

A) 45.5
B) 4.55
C) 0.455
D) 5.55
Answer:
B) 4.55

Question 21.
If the height of a triangle is 5 cm, and its area is 40 sq. cms, then its base is ………….. cms.
A) 16
B) 18
C) 20
D) 14
Answer:
A) 16

Question 22.
From the given figure, \(\overline{\mathbf{B E}}\) = ……………… cm

A) 1
B) 5
C) 2
D) 4
Answer:
B) 5

Question 23.
The base of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 220 cm², then its height is ……………….. cms.
A) 12
B) 11
C) 22
D) 14
Answer:
B) 11

Question 24.
The diagonals of a rhombus are (a + b), (a – b), then its area is …………….. sq. units
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (2a)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (a² + b²)
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (a² – b²)
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (a + b) (2a)
Answer:
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (a² – b²)

Question 25.
Find the area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 3 cm, 7 cm is …………….. sq. cms.
A) 10.5
B) 21
C) 10
D) 14
Answer:
A) 10.5

Question 26.
The area of a rhombus is 96 cm², its one of its diagonal length is 12 cm, then the length of second diagonal is ……………….. cm.
A) 24
B) 18
C) 16
D) 8
Answer:
C) 16

Question 27.
The circumference of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm is ……………….. cms.
A) 2.2
B) 44
C) 11
D) 22
Answer:
D) 22

Question 28.
If the circumference of a circle is 55 cm, then its diameter is ………………. cm.
A) 18
B) 17.5
C) 17
D) 16.5
Answer:
B) 17.5

Question 29.
If the circumference of a circle is 44 cm, then its diameter is …………… cms.
A) 16
B) 21
C) 7
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 30.
The ratio of circumference of a circle to its diameter is
A) 7
B) 22
C) π
D) 7/22
Answer:
C) π

Question 31.
How many times will a wheel of radius 7 mts be rotated to travel 880 mts?
A) 30
B) 20
C) 25
D) 24
Answer:
B) 20

Question 32.
How far does the tip of the minute hand move in 1 hour if its length is 14m is ………….. cms?
A) 88 cm
B) 80 cm
C) 98 cm
D) 78 cm
Answer:
A) 88 cm

Question 33.
The area of a circle whose radius is 7 cm ……………..sq. cms.
A) 140
B) 176
C) 154
D) 166
Answer:
C) 154

Question 34.
Which of the following is not true?
A) All parallelograms with equal base and equal heights are same area
B) Area of a parallelogram is related to area of a rectangle
C) A rectangle is a parallelogram
D) A parallelogram is a rectangle
Answer:
D) A parallelogram is a rectangle

Question 35.
A square and a parallelogram have the same area. If a side of the square is 8 cm and the height of a parallelogram is 4 cm, then its base is ……………… cm.
A) 18
B) 16
C) 8
D) 32
Answer:
B) 16

Question 36.
What is the area of a shaded region?

A) Area of square ABCD – area of ΔAPB
B) Area of ΔABC – area of square ABCD
C) Area of square ABCD – area of [ΔAPD + ΔBPC]
D) None
Answer:
A) Area of square ABCD – area of ΔAPB

Question 37.
Formula for area of a parallelogram is ……………… sq. units.
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d (h₁ + h₂)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d₁ d₂
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh
D) bh
Answer:
D) bh

Question 38.
Formula for area of a triangle is ………………. sq. units.
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d (h₁ + h₂)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d₁ d₂
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh
D) bh
Answer:
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh

Question 39.
Area of a rhombus whose diagonals are d₁, d₂ is …………….
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d (h₁ + h₂)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d₁ d₂
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh
D) bh
Answer:
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) d₁ d₂

Question 40.
The area of the shaded path is

A) Area of outer square – Area of inner square
B) Area of inner square – Area Of outer square
C) Area of outer square + Area of inner square
D) None
Answer:
A) Area of outer square – Area of inner square

Question 41.
The circumference of a circle whose diameter is d units is given ………………
A) \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{d}}{2}\)
B) 2 π r
C) π d
D) \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{d}^{2}}{4}\)
Answer:
C) π d

Question 42.
What is the area of a shaded path in the given figure?


D) None
Answer:

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Motion and Time on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 4th Lesson Motion and Time with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Motion and rest are
A) absolute
B) fixed
C) relative
D) None
Answer:
C) relative

Question 2.
The girl on the bicycle is in in relation to the road.
A) rest
B) motion
C) oscillatory motion
D) rotatory motion
Answer:
B) motion

Question 3.
Motion of a mango falling from a tree is
A) oscillatory motion
B) translatory motion
C) at rest
D) rotatory motion
Answer:
B) translatory motion

Question 4.
Ringing of a bell is an example for
A) Rotatory motion
B) Translatory motion
C) Rectilinear motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

Question 5.
A spinning top has
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) Rectilinear motion
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

Question 6.
1 km/h = ………… m/s.
A) 18/5
B) 15/8
C) 5/18
D) 15/18
Answer:
C) 5/18

Question 7.
This goes fast
A) Air plane
B) Train
C) Bus
D) Car
Answer:
A) Air plane

Question 8.
Speedometer is not fixed for this.
A) Car
B) Scooter
C) Bus
D) Bicycle
Answer:
D) Bicycle

Question 9.
In uniform motion the distance is
A) Equal
B) Unequal
C) Zero
D) Maximum
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 10.
In non-uniform motion the body covers distances.
A) Equal
B) Unequal
C) Constant
D) Circular
Answer:
B) Unequal

Question 11.
Movement of housefly shows ………… motion.
A) Non – uniform
B) Rotatory
C) Linear
D) translatory
Answer:
D) translatory

Question 12.
Motion of needle in a running sewing machine shows
A) Oscillatory
B) Circular
C) Rotatory
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Oscillatory

Question 13.
Soldiers marching in a parade is
A) Straight line
B) Curved line
C) Oscillatory
D) Rotatory
Answer:
A) Straight line

Question 14.
Motion of the ball in pin board
A) Curvilinear
B) Rectilinear
C) Both A & B
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 15.
A body moves in a fixed path and centre is called
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Circular
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
B) Rotatory

Question 16.
Motion of wheel of the sewing machine
A) Rotatory
B) Translatory
C) Linear
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
A) Rotatory

Question 17.
The basic unit of time is
A) Month
B) Second
C) Hour
D) Days
Answer:
B) Second

Question 18.
The speed is ………
A) Distance/time
B) Time/distance
C) Distance x Time
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Distance/time

Question 19.
The sticking machine shows the movements of
A) Oscillatory
B) Rotatory
C) Translatory
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 20.
In a sewing machine motion of cloth is
A) Linear
B) Rotatory
C) Circular
D) Oscillatory
Answer:
A) Linear

Question 21.
Units for measuring time
A) Days
B) Weeks
C) Hours
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 22.
Speedometer shows the distance travelled in
A) kilometers
B) meters
C) km/s
D) m/s
Answer:
A) kilometers

Question 23.
The needle of the speedometer explains
A) Velocity
B) Speed
C) Distance
D) Acceleration
Answer:
B) Speed

Question 24.
Name the instrument for measuring distance
A) Odometer
B) Speedometer
C) Altimeter
D) All of these
Answer:
A) Odometer

Question 25.
Total distance travelled / total time indicates
A) Speed
B) Velocity
C) Power
D) Average speed
Answer:
D) Average speed

Question 26.
Hand of clock, tape of tape recorder examples for motion.
A) Oscillatory
B) Translatory
C) Linear
D) Rotatory
Answer:
D) Rotatory

Question 27.
The correct rela tion between speed(v) distance(s) and time(t) is
A) v = s / t
B) v = t/s
C) v = s/2t
D) v = s x t
Answer:
A) v = s / t

Question 28.
One of the following is not showing oscillatory motion
A) Pendulum
B) Sewing needle
C) Cradle
D) Kite
Answer:
D) Kite

Question 29.
If a body covers equal distance in equal intervals it is
A) Rotatory
B) Uniform motion
C) Non-uniform motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
B) Uniform motion

Question 30.
If a body covers an equal distance in equal intervals of time it is
A) Uniform motion
B) Non-uniform motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory motion
Answer:
B) Non-uniform motion

Question 31.
Flying of kite in air shows
A) Non-uniform motion
B) Uniform motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Non-uniform motion

Question 32.
Blades of ceiling fan show the motion of
A) Translatory
B) Oscilatory
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
C) Rotatory

Question 33.
If the translatory motion moves long straight line, it is
A) Rectilinear motion
B) Curvilinear motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Rectilinear motion

Question 34.
Translatory motion moves long a curved path it is
A) Rectilinear motion
B) Curvilinear motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscilatory motion
Answer:
B) Curvilinear motion

Question 35.
Movement of train on tracks is called
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilinear
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
A) Rectilinear

Question 36.
Movement of needle in car speedometer is
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilnear
C) Rotatory
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
B) Curvilnear

Question 37.
Motions of coins on a carrom board is
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilnear
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 38.
Motion of earth around the Sun is
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Oscilatory
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 39.
A bouncing ball movement is
A) Rotatory
B) Curvilinear
C) Oscilatory
D) Rectilinear
Answer:
C) Oscilatory

Question 40.
Month, Season, Ayanam are the units for
A) Time
B) Speed
C) Mass
D) Weight
Answer:
A) Time

Question 41.
The basic unit of time is
A) Day
B) Hour
C) Second
D) Minute
Answer:
C) Second

Question 42.
Unit of speed in S.I system is
A) Meter/second
B) C.M/s
C) M/H
D) All
Answer:
A) Meter/second

Question 43.
Name the instrument shown in the rig

A) Barometer
B) Speedometer
C) Altimeter
D) Thermometer
Answer:
B) Speedometer

Question 44.
Name the instrument shown in the rig

A) Watch
B) Stopwatch
C) Speedometer
D) Alaram
Answer:
B) Stopwatch

Question 45.
The motion shown in the figure is

A) Rotatory
B) Oscilatory
C) Translatory
D) Curveior
Answer:
B) Oscilatory

Question 46.
Motion of a drill bit have
A) Translatory
B) Rotatory
C) Both A and B
D) Oscilatory
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 47.
In the figure the ball shows the movements of

A) Rotatory
B) Translatory
C) Oscilatory
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 48.
The movement of needle in the picture is

A) Rectilinear motion
B) Circulatory motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
D) Oscillatory motion

Question 49.
Motion of air cooler fan
A) Oscillatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Translatory motion
D) Curvilinear motion
Answer:
B) Rotatory motion

Question 50.
Choose the right one.
i) A train runs from Visakhapatnam to Vijayawada. It covers distance of 420 km in 7hrs and next distance of 60 km in one hour.
ii) Gopi takes part in a car race. He drives a distance of 70 km each in time first, second and third hours. Which of the following statements is true?
A) i – is an example uniform motion and ii – is an example of non-uniform motion
B) i – is an example of non-uniform motion and ii – is an example of uniform motion
C) i and ii are examples of uniform motions
D) i and ii are examples of non-uniform motions
Answer:
D) i and ii are examples of non-uniform motions

Question 51.
Hari makes hypothesis about motion.
Which one is right hypothesis?
A) Movements of hands in watch is translatory motion.
B) Motion of a ringing bell is rotatory motion.
C) Motion in top is linear motion.
D) Movement of train on tracks is translatory motion.
Answer:
D) Movement of train on tracks is translatory motion.

Question 52.
John tied a stone to a string and whirled it around. What type of motion do you find in it?
A) Translatory motion
B) Oscillatory motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Linear motion
Answer:
A) Translatory motion

Question 53.
Motion of an arrow from a bow is an example of …………
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Periodic motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
A) Translatory motion

Question 54.
Motion of the Earth around the Sunnis an example of ………..
A) Translatory motion
B) Periodic motion
C) Rotatory motion
D) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
B) Periodic motion

Question 55.
This type of motion is exhibited by the motion of a girl swinging on a
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Oscillatory motion
D) Periodic motion
Answer:
C) Oscillatory motion

Question 56.
The following is an example of a uniform motion
A) Translatory motion
B) Rotatory motion
C) Movement of a pendulum
D) Movement of the hands of a watch
Answer:
C) Movement of a pendulum

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Quadrilaterals on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 12th Lesson Quadrilaterals with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
If the diagonals AC, BD of a parallelogram meet at O, then
A) OA = OC
B) OA = OB
C) OA = OD
D) 2 OA = BD
Answer:
A) OA = OC

Question 2.
ABCD is a parallelogram. ∠A + ∠D =
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 360°
D) 270°
Answer:
B) 180°

Question 3.
From the given figure, ∠x = ……………….?

A) 60°
B) 45°
C) 30°
D) 55°
Answer:
A) 60°

Question 4.
The sum of the 4 angles of Quadrilateral is ……………………
A) 250°
B) 270°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
D) 360°

Question 5.
If ABCD is a rhombus then ……………….
A) AB = CD, BC = AD, AC ≠ BD
B) AB = CD, BC = AD, AC = BD
C) AB = BC = CD = DA, AC ≠ BD
D) AB = BC = CD = DA, AC = BD
Answer:
C) AB = BC = CD = DA, AC ≠ BD

Question 6.
ABCD is a parallelogram then …………………
A) AB = CD, BC = AD, AC ≠ BD
B) AB = CD, BC = AD, AC = BD
C) AB = BC = CD = DA, AC = BD
D) None
Answer:
A) AB = CD, BC = AD, AC ≠ BD

Question 7.
Each of a parallelogram, is 90° then it is …………….
A) rhombus
B) square
C) rectangle
D) trapezium
Answer:
C) rectangle

Question 8.
Three angles of a Quadrilateral are 65°, 120°, 70° then the 4 th angle is ………………..
A) 95°
B) 115°
C) 105°
D) 100°
Answer:
C) 105°

Question 9.
The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 then the largest angle is ……………….
A) 120°
B) 108°
C) 72°
D) 144°
Answer:
D) 144°

Question 10.
Each angle of a square is …………………
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 45°
D) 60°
Answer:
A) 90°

Question 11.
The angles of a quadrilateral are x°, (x + 10°), (x + 20°), (x + 30°) then ∠x = …………….
A) 65°
B) 75°
C) 85°
D) 70°
Answer:
B) 75°

Question 12.
In a parallelogram ABCD ∠A :∠B = 2 : 3 then ∠C = ………………
A) 90°
B) 108°
C) 72°
D) 60°
Answer:
C) 72°

Question 13.
Which of the following is true?
A) All rhombuses are parallelograms
B) All kites are rhombuses
C) Every parallelogram is a square
D) Every square is a parallelogram
Answer:
D) Every square is a parallelogram

Question 14.
A rectangle in which all the sides are equal is called a ……………..
A) parallelogram
B) square
C) rhombus
D) trapezim
Answer:
B) square

Question 15.
In a rhombus ABCD ∠ADC = 45° then the other angles are ……………….
A) 135°, 45°, 135°
B) 45°, 135°, 135°
C) 60°, 120°, 60°
D) 120°, 60°, 120°
Answer:
A) 135°, 45°, 135°

Question 16.
A square is a ………………
A) parallelogram
B) rhombus
C) rectangle
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 17.
If the adjacent angles of a parallelogram are x + 29°, 2x + 31° then ∠x = ……………
A) 30°
B) 40°
C) 60°
D) 120°
Answer:
B) 40°

Question 18.
Sum of the angles in a quadrilateral in right angles
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 19.
Number of independent measurements required for the construction of a quadrilateral
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
B) 5

Question 20.
Sum of the exterior angles of a quadrilateral in right angles
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 21.
A quadrilateral which has one pair of opposite sides parallel is called is called a
A) Rhombus
B) Square
C) Parallelogram
D) Trapezium
Answer:
D) Trapezium

Question 22.
Number of independent measurements for the construction of a trapezium
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 23.
The quadrilateral in which the diagonals bisect each other and they are perpendicular to each other
A) Rectangle
B) Rhombus
C) Parallelogram
D) Trapezium
Answer:
B) Rhombus

Question 24.
The name of the quadrilateral in which the diagonals are equal and perpendicular to each other
A) Parallelogram
B) Rhombus
C) Square
D) Rectangle
Answer:
C) Square

Question 25.
How many measurements are needed for the construction of a square?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 26.
Measurements (Independent) needed for the construction of a rhombus?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 27.
The number of independent measurements required for the construction of a parallelogram are
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 28.
From the given figure given, the diagonals are ………………..

A) AB, BC
B) BC, CD
C) AC, BD
D) AD, CD
Answer:
C) AC, BD

Question 29.
From the above figure, the angles are
A) ∠A, ∠B
B) ∠D
C) ∠C
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
From the above figure, the adjacent sides are
A) AB, BC
B) BC, AD
C) AC, BD
D) AB, CD
Answer:
A) AB, BC

Question 31.
Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are in the ratio of 2 : 1. If its perimeter is 21 cm, then its shortest side is ……………… cm
A) 7
B) 6
C) 3.5
D) 3
Answer:
A) 7

Question 32.
ABCD is a square \(\overline{\mathrm{AC}}\) is the diagonal, then ∠BAC = ……………..
A) 50°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 45°
Answer:
D) 45°

Question 33.
Which of the following is not true?
A) A parallelogram in which two adjacent sides are equal is a rhombus
B) Every diagonal of rectangle divides it into two congruent triangles
C) ABCDisaparallelogram∠A -∠C = 90°.
D) The diagonals of a rhombus bisect at right angles
Answer:
C) ABCDisaparallelogram∠A -∠C = 90°.

Question 34.
FLAG is a rectangle from the given figure x = …………….. cm

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 35.
From the given figure (ABCD is a parallelogram) ∠A = ……………………?

A) 115°
B) 125°
C) 120°
D) 105°
Answer:
A) 115°

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Exponents on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 11th Lesson Exponents with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
x + x + x + ……. + x(mtimes)=
A) x^m
B) m^x
C) m + x
D) mx
Answer:
D) mx

Question 2.
(- 5) × (- 5) × (- 5) × ………………. × (- 5) (16 times) =
A) (- 5)¹⁶
B) 16^-5
C) 16 – 5
D)16 × (- 5)
Answer:
A) (- 5)¹⁶

Question 3.
(\(\frac{-3}{7}\))⁷ × (\(\frac{-3}{7}\)) ⁶ × (\(\frac{-3}{7}\))^-14 =
A) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)

Question 4.
12¹⁶ × 12^-4 =
A) 12¹²
B) 12²⁰
C) 24¹²
D) 12⁶⁴
Answer:
A) 12¹²

Question 5.
\(\frac{x^{17}}{x^{15}}\) =
A) x³²
B) x^-2
C) x²
D) x^1/2
Answer:
C) x²

Question 6.
125 when expressed In exponential form
A) 5²
B) 5³
C) 5⁴
D) 5^-3
Answer:
B) 5³

Question 7.
7^-x = 7^-5 then the value of x is
A) 7
B) – 5
C) – 7
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 8.
(- 1)¹⁰³ =
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) – 103
Answer:
C) -1

Question 9.
(-1)¹⁰⁶ =
A) 1
B) – 1
C) 106
D) 0
Answer:
A) 1

Question 10.
The exponential form of age of earth is 4550 million years is ………………..
A) 4550 × 10,00,000
B) 455 × 10⁷
C) 5 × 7 × 13 × 10⁷
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 11.
Expanded form of 89325 is …………….
A) (8 × 10⁴) + (9 × 10³) + (3 × 10²) + (2 × 10) + (5 × 1)
B) 8 × 10³ + (9 × 10²) + (3 × 10) + 2 × 1 + 5
C) 10⁴ × 8 + 9 × 10² + 3 × 10 + 2 × 10² + 5 × 1
D) None
Answer:
A) (8 × 10⁴) + (9 × 10³) + (3 × 10²) + (2 × 10) + (5 × 1)

Question 12.
r × r × 7 times = ………………?
A) 7^r
B) 7r
C) r⁷
D) None
Answer:
C) r⁷

Question 13.
If a = 3, b = 2 then the value of a^b + b^a = ………………?
A) 1
B) 17
C) 19
D) 15
Answer:
B) 17

Question 14.
From the above sum what is the value of (a – b)^a = ……………?
A) 1
B) 125
C) -1
D) 0
Answer:
A) 1

Question 15.
The exponent of (5 ab)³ is …………..
A) 5
B) 1
C) ab
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 16.
Which of the following is correct?
A) 3⁹ × 3⁷ = 3²
B) a^1/2 × a^3/2 = a³
C) p^-2 × p² = p⁴
D) y³ × y⁵ = y⁸
Answer:
D) y³ × y⁵ = y⁸

Question 17.
If k¹⁵ × k^x = k³¹ ⇒ x = …………..?
A) 16
B) 15
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
A) 16

Question 18.
(2²)³ = ………………
A) 512
B) 64
C) 2²³
D) 256
Answer:
D) 256

Question 19.
Which of the following is not true?
A) x^-7 = \(\frac{1}{x^{7}}\)
B) x⁵ = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{-5}}\)
C) x° = 1
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{-5}}\) = x^1/5
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{-5}}\) = x^1/5

Question 20.
Which of the following is true?
A) \(\frac{13^{8}}{13^{5}}\) = 13¹³
B) (2 × 3)⁴ = 3⁴/2⁴
C) (3²)³ = 3⁶
D) (\(\frac{3}{4}\))⁵ = 3⁵ × 3⁴
Answer:
C) (3²)³ = 3⁶

Question 21.
(- 1)¹⁰¹ + (- 1)¹⁰⁰ = ………………
A) – 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
B) 0

Question 22.

A) 2
B) 1
C) 12
D) – 2
Answer:
D) – 2

Question 23.
7^{x + 5}= 1 ⇒ x = ………….
A) 5
B) 0
C) -5
D) 1
Answer:
C) -5

Question 24.
(\(\frac{3}{5}\))⁴ × (\(\frac{3}{5}\))³ × (\(\frac{3}{5}\))⁷
A) (\(\frac{3}{5}\))⁸⁴
B) (\(\frac{3}{5}\))⁷
C) (\(\frac{3}{5}\))¹⁰
D) (\(\frac{3}{5}\))¹⁴
Answer:
D) (\(\frac{3}{5}\))¹⁴

Question 25.
What should be multiplied with 3^-4we will get 729 is …………..?
A) 3¹⁰
B) 3⁹
C) 3¹¹
D) 3⁸
Answer:
A) 3¹⁰

Question 26.
(4° – 3°) × 2° = ……………
A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) -1
Answer:
C) 0

Question 27.
\(\frac{x^{\mathbf{a}}}{\mathbf{x}^{\mathbf{b}}} \times \frac{\mathbf{x}^{\mathbf{b}}}{\mathbf{x}^{\mathbf{c}}} \times \frac{\mathbf{x}^{\mathbf{c}}}{\mathbf{x}^{\mathbf{a}}}\) = ………………
A) x^{2(a + b + c)}
B) x^{(a + b + c)}
C) 0
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 28.
Which of the following is true?
A) 4³ > 8²
B) 2³ > 3²
C) (15)° = (10000)°
D) (- 2)⁵ = 32
Answer:
C) (15)° = (10000)°

Question 29.
5⁶ x 5^2x = 5²⁰ ⇒ x = ……………..
A) 7
B) -7
C) 6
D) 13
Answer:
A) 7

Question 30.
8536 in standard form is
A) 853.6 × 10
B) 85.36 × 10²
C) 8.536 × 10³
D) 0.8536 × 10⁴
Answer:
C) 8.536 × 10³

Question 31.
The prime factorisation of 210 is
A) 2 × 3 × 3 × 7
B) 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
C) 2 × 5 × 5 × 6
D) 2 × 3 × 7 × 7
Answer:
B) 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

Question 32.
The exponential form of 1296 is
A) 2⁴ × 3⁵
B) 2⁴ × 3⁴
C) 2⁵ × 3⁴
D) 2³ × 3³
Answer:
B) 2⁴ × 3⁴

Question 33.
Exponential form of 625 is ……………..
A) 5⁵
B) 4⁵
C) 5³
D) 5⁴
Answer:
D) 5⁴

Question 34.
Prime factorisation of 72 is ………….?
A) 2³ × 3²
B) 2³ × 3³
C) 3³ × 2²
D) 2 × 3² × 7
Answer:
A) 2³ × 3²

Question 35.
The standard form of 1, 353, 000,000 cubic kms is ……………….
A) 0.1353 × 10⁹ c.c. kms
B) 135.3 × 10⁹ c.c. kms
C) 1.353 × 10⁹ c.c. kms
D) 13.53 × 10⁹ c.c. kms
Answer:
C) 1.353 × 10⁹ c.c. kms

Question 36.
The stand form of the distance between the earth and the moon is aprox. 12,000,000,000 mts
A) 12 × 10¹¹ years
B) 1.2 × 10¹⁰years
C) 0.12 × 10⁹ years
D) 120 × 10¹¹ years
Answer:
B) 1.2 × 10¹⁰years

Question 37.
Standard form of 12345 is ……………….
A) 1.2345 × 10⁴
B) 123.45 × 10³
C) 1.2345 × 10⁵
D) 12.345 × 10⁴
Answer:
A) 1.2345 × 10⁴

Practice the AP 7th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Animal Fibre on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Science Bits 3rd Lesson Animal Fibre with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Eggs of silk moth are called
A) Larva
B) Seeds
C) Pupa
D) Imago
Answer:
B) Seeds

Question 2.
A female moth lays around ………………. eggs in one go.
A) 500
B) 50
C) 5,000
D) 5
Answer:
A) 500

Question 3.
A big silk seed growing centre is at
A) Pochampadu
B) Dharmavaram
C) Horsely Hills
D) Kanchi
Answer:
C) Horsely Hills

Question 4.
The cocoons have to be stiffled to kill ……………. inside.
A) Eggs
B) Larva
C) Pupa
D) The worm
Answer:
B) Larva

Question 5.
Food for silk worms.
A) Mulberry leaves
B) Mango leaves
C) Coconut leaves
D) Jasmine leaves
Answer:
A) Mulberry leaves

Question 6.
The hair of animals collectively called
A) Fur
B) Skin
C) Fibre
D) None
Answer:
A) Fur

Question 7.
Fleece of sheep is removed from its body during …………….. season.
A) Winter
B) Summer
C) Rainy
D) Spring
Answer:
D) Spring

Question 8.
After washing, …………… is passed over the wool to make it softer.
A) Steam
B) Grease
C) Cool air
D) Hot air
Answer:
C) Cool air

Question 9.
Silk is mainly
A) Carbohydrate
B) Worms
C) Protein
D) Cocoon
Answer:
C) Protein

Question 10.
Cotton is mainly
A) Proteins
B) Cellulose
C) Coarse
D) Soft
Answer:
B) Cellulose

Question 11.
………………. useful to make different types of fibres.
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Coconut
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
Eggs of silk moth called …………………
A) Embryo
B) Larvae
C) Seeds
D) Cocoon
Answer:
C) Seeds

Question 13.
“Chilakalu” means
A) Silk moths
B) Butterfly
C) Caterpillar
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Silk moths

Question 14.
Moths are also called ……………….
A) Bombyx mori
B) Insects
C) Butterfly
D) Honey bee
Answer:
A) Bombyx mori

Question 15.
A female moth lays around ………………. number of eggs in one go.
A) 400
B) 500
C) 600
D) 550
Answer:
B) 500

Question 16.
Grinages grow ……………….
A) Embryos
B) Seeds
C) Caterpillar
D) Cocoon
Answer:
B) Seeds

Question 17.
Caterpillars feed by ……………… leaves.
A) Grass
B) Leaves
C) Cocoon
D) Mulberry leaves
Answer:
D) Mulberry leaves

Question 18.
Chandrikalu means …………………..
A) Cane frames
B) Glass tubs
C) Cocoons
D) Mulberry huts
Answer:
A) Cane frames

Question 19.
Caterpillar stops eating at the age of ……………….
A) 25 to 30 days
B) 30 to 35 days
C) 40 days
D) Several months
Answer:
B) 30 to 35 days

Question 20.
Caterpillar secretes …………….. substance.
A) Fibre
B) Cellulose
C) Starch
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Fibre

Question 21.
“Pattu kayalu’ means
A) Silk worm
B) Cocoon
C) Seeds
D) Chandrikalu
Answer:
B) Cocoon

Question 22.
Young moths come out from …………..
A) Eggs
B) Mulberry leaves
C)Seeds
D) Cocoon
Answer:
D) Cocoon

Question 23.
Stiffling helps to store ……………. for a long time.
A) Cocoons
B) Seeds
C) Worms
D) Caterpillar
Answer:
A) Cocoons

Question 24.
Stiffling done in …………….. centres.
A) Seed growing
B) Reeling
C) Weaving
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Reeling

Question 25.
Silk moths that lay eggs on oak plant produce …………….. silk.
A) Moonga
B) Tussar
C),Eri
D) Mulberry
Answer:
B) Tussar

Question 26.
……………. silk is produced in our state Telangana.
A) Mulberry
B) Tasar
C) Desali
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 27.
Silk is made up of ………………….. proteins.
A) Sirisine
B) Fibroin
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 28.
Obtaining silk fibre from cocoon is called
A) Weaving
B) Spinning
C) Reeling
D) Knitting
Answer:
C) Reeling

Question 29.
Special machines like reelers and twisters are used in …………….
A) Reeling
B) Spinning
C) Knitting
D) Weaving
Answer:
A) Reeling

Question 30.
Cotton is made up of cellulose, but silk has
A) Protein
B) Lipids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins
Answer:
A) Protein

Question 31.
……………. is famous for wide boarder and rich buta
A) Potchampally
B) Darmavaram
C) Banaras
D) Bengal
Answer:
B) Darmavaram

Question 32.
2000 to 3000 cocoons alre required to produce ………………. gms of silk
A) 500
B) 600
C) 700
D) 300
Answer:
A) 500

Question 33.
Good quality of wool is given by ……………….
A) Angora goat
B) Merino sheep
C) Llama
D) Camels
Answer:
B) Merino sheep

Question 34.
Rough and coarse hair is produced by
A) Goat
B) Sheep
C) Camel
D) Rabbit
Answer:
C) Camel

Question 35.
Scouring means removing of
A) Dust
B) Grease
C) Dirt
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 36.
Which one of the following is a poor conductor of heat ?
A) Copper
B) Silver
C) Iron
D) Air
Answer:
D) Air

Question 37.
Wool is use as
A) Conductor
B) Insulator
C) Heater
D) Cooler
Answer:
B) Insulator

Question 38.
1) Egg 2) Pupa 3) Adult D) larva
The correct order is
A) 1,2,4, 3
B) 1. 4, 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 2,4
D) 1, 4, 3, 2
Answer:
B) 1. 4, 2, 3

Question 39.
‘Grinages’ are
A) Seed centers
B) Larva centers
C) Adult centers
D) Silk centers
Answer:
A) Seed centers

Question 40.
‘Bombyx mori’ is a
A) Honey bee
B) Warsp
C) Housefly
D) Silk moth
Answer:
D) Silk moth

Question 41.
Name of the sac, where the catterpillar sleeps
A) Stuff
B) Chandrikalu
C) Cocoon
D) Reels
Answer:
C) Cocoon

Question 42.
Killing of the silk moth larva’s is called
A) Reeling
B) Yarn
C) Stiffling
D) Silk
Answer:
C) Stiffling

Question 43.
The stiffling process takes place at
A) Reeling centers
B) Grinages
C) Chandrikalu
D) Horsely Hills
Answer:
A) Reeling centers

Question 44.
‘Desali pattu ‘is
A) Tasar silk
B) Moonga silk
C) Erisilk
D) Mulberry silk
Answer:
A) Tasar silk

Question 45.
The process in the picture is

A) Stiffling
B) Reeling
C) Warping
D) Feeding
Answer:
A) Stiffling

Question 46.
The equipment show in the figure is

A) Cacoon
B) Chandrikalu
C) Reeling
D) Woven
Answer:
B) Chandrikalu

Question 47.
Fill the blank in the life cycle of silk moth

A) Pupa
B) Laren
C) Silk moth
D) Housefly
Answer:
A) Pupa

Question 48.
The country that used the silk for first time
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) America
Answer:
B) China

Question 49.
1) Dying 2) Sorting
3) Scouring 4) Shearing
The correct order is
A) 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 2, 3, 4, 1
C) 4, 3, 1,2
D) 3, 4, 2,1
Answer:
A) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 50.
Removing the colour of wool is
A) Bleaching
B) Sorting
C) Spinning
D) Scouring
Answer:
A) Bleaching

Question 51.
Making threads of yarn is
A) Spinning
B) Carding
C) Dyeing
D) Sorting
Answer:
A) Spinning

Question 52.
Write the correct order of Collecting Wool.
A) Shearing, Scouring, Sorting
B) Scouring, Sarting, Shearing
C) Shearing, Sorting, Scouring
D) Sorting, Shearing, Scouring
Answer:
A) Shearing, Scouring, Sorting

Question 53.
Which city is called silk city in our State?
A) Venkatagiri
B) Dharmavaram
C) Madanapalli
D) Hanuman Junction
Answer:
B) Dharmavaram

Question 54.
The first stage in making of woollen clothes?
A) Scouring
B) Sorting
C) Shearing
D) Bleaching
Answer:
C) Shearing

Question 55.
Fill the blank in the flow chart with the given answer.

A) Stuffing
B) Moths
C) Reeling
D) Chilakalu
Answer:
A) Stuffing

Question 56.
Material present in silk thread
A) Protein
B) Fat
C) Carbohydrate
D) Cellulose
Answer:
A) Protein

Question 57.
If you went to silk showroom to know the quality of silk, what type of exact question do you ask?
A) How you decide the cost
B) These silk clothes have long life
C) Silk is prepared with
D) Silks are how many types
Answer:
D) Silks are how many types

Question 58.
In summer season what type of clothes do you wear?
A) Cotton, light colour
B) Woollen, Silk
C) Cotton, dark colour
D) Silk, Woollen
Answer:
A) Cotton, light colour

Question 59.
Animal fibre: protein :: plant fibre:
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate
D) Mineral
Answer:
C) Carbohydrate

Question 60.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of processes in making woollen fabric?
A) Shearing – scouring – combing – spinning – weaving
B) Scouring – spinning – combing – shearing – weaving
C) Weaving – scouring – shearing – combing – spinning
D) Shearing – weaving – combing – spinning – scouring
Answer:
A) Shearing – scouring – combing – spinning – weaving

Question 61.
Name the stages of silkworm weavers buy from sericulture industury.
A) Larva
B) Pupa
C) Eggs
D) Moth
Answer:
B) Pupa

Question 62.
Identify the process that helps to store the cocoons for a long time.
A) Boiling
B) Stiffling
C) Reeling
D) Weaving
Answer:
A) Boiling

Question 63.
The silk fibres are composed of
A) Siricin & thrombin
B) Fibroin & thrombin
C) Cellulose & fat
D) Siricin & fibroin
Answer:
D) Siricin & fibroin

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Algebraic Expressions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 10th Lesson Algebraic Expressions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The literal coefficient of-y is
A) 1
B) -1
C) y
D) -y
Answer:
C) y

Question 2.
The numerical coefficient of -3z is
A) -3
B) 3
C) z
D) -z
Answer:
A) -3

Question 3.
No. of terms in the expression (19 × 5) ÷ 16
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 4.
Which of the following is a numerical expression?
A) 1 + 2 – 9
B) 9 + (6 – 4)
C) -3 – 5
D) x – \(\frac {11}{3}\)
Answer:
D) x – \(\frac {11}{3}\)

Question 5.
Which of the following is a binomial?
A) 19 × 4
B) 7xyz
C) x – 4a
D) 3x + y – z
Answer:
C) x – 4a

Question 6.
The degree of the monomial 9xy²z³ is
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6

Question 7.
The degree of the algebraic expression ax² + bx + c is
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 2

Question 8.
Sum of 18ab,-5ab, 12ab is
A) 25ab
B) 26ab
C) 30ab
D) 20ab
Answer:
A) 25ab

Question 9.
Subtract 6x²y from 4x²y
A) -2x²y
B) 2x²y
C) 10x²y
D) -10x²y
Answer:
A) -2x²y

Question 10.
Which of the following are like terms?
A) { – 2 xy²,5y² x}
B) {7p, – 2p, 3p}
C) {4 xyz, – 5x² yz}
D) {lmn², l²mn. lm²n}
Answer:
B) {7p, – 2p, 3p}

Question 11.
Which of the following are not like terms?

Answer:
C) {lm, mn, ln}

Question 12.
Which of the following is a Numerical Expression?
A) xy – z² + yz
B) 2 + m + n
C) 9 + 11a² – 5b²
D) 11 ÷ (5 – 6) + 2
Answer:
D) 11 ÷ (5 – 6) + 2

Question 13.
Which of the following is Algebraic Expression?
A) 96
B) 95 ÷ 11 × 3
C) 2 + m + n
D) – 30 + (16 ÷ 4)
Answer:
C) 2 + m + n

Question 14.
The degree of a monomial \(\frac {-5}{2}\) xy² z³ is?
A) 7
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 15.
The degree of a monomial \(\frac {-15}{19}\) l³m⁴n is …………….
A) 8
B) 7
C) 9
D) 12
Answer:
A) 8

Question 16.
The degree of an algebraic expression ax³ + bx² + cx + dx¹¹ + ex⁹ is ……………..
A) 11
B) 9
C) 3
D) 16
Answer:
A) 11

Question 17.
The degree of an algebraic expression lmn + l²m-ln²-m²n is ………………….
A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
B) 3

Question 18.
From the given figure the perimeter is …………….. units.

A) 8x
B) 10x
C) 16x
D) 12x
Answer:
C) 16x

Question 19.
The perimeter of a rectangle is ……………… units.

A) 11xy
B) 22 xy
C) 28 x² y²
D) 28 xy
Answer:
B) 22 xy

Question 20.
Subtract 11p from 2p is ……………….
A) – 9p
B) 9p
C) 13p
D) 7p
Answer:
A) – 9p

Question 21.
If x = – 1 what is the value of x² – 1?
A) 1
B) 0
C) – 1
D) 2
Answer:
B) 0

Question 22.
What is the value of mⁿ – n^m if m = 3, n = 2?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 1
D) 5
Answer:
C) 1

Question 23.
What is the value of xy + 3y – 9 when x = 1, y = 2 is …………….
A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
D) 12
Answer:
B) -1

Question 24.
(2x + 9y – 7z) + (3y + z + 3x) + (2x – 4y – z) = ………………
A) 7x + 8y – 7z
B) – 7x + 8y – 7z
C) 7x – 8y – 7z
D) 7x – 8y + 7z
Answer:
A) 7x + 8y – 7z

Question 25.
Simplification of 2x² + 5x – 1 + 8x + x² + 7 – 6x + 3 – 3x² is ………………
A) 7x – 9
B) – 7x + 9
C) 7x + 9
D) 6x + 9
Answer:
C) 7x + 9

Question 26.
If A = 4x² + y² – 6xy, B = 3y² + 12x² + 8xy then A – B = ?
A) 8x² – 2y² – 14xy
B) – 8x² – 2y² – 14xy
C) – 8x² + 2y² – 14xy
D) – 8x² – 2y² + 14xy
Answer:
B) – 8x² – 2y² – 14xy

Question 27.
(3a² – 8ab – 2b²) – (3a² – 4ab + 6b²) = ……………..
A) – 4ab + 8b²
B) 4ab + 8b²
C) 4ab – 8b²
D) – 4ab – 8b²
Answer:
D) – 4ab – 8b²

Question 28.
A pattern of letter ‘z’ is?
A) 2n
B) 2n + 1
C) 3n
D) 3n + 1
Answer:
C) 3n

Question 29.
A pattern of letter ‘V’ Is
A) n + 1
B) 2n + 1
C) 3n
D) 2n
Answer:
D) 2n

Question 30.
4, 7, 10, 13, ……………… in series n^th term
A) 3n + 1
B) 3n
C) 3n + 2
D) 2n + 2
Answer:
A) 3n + 1

Question 31.
The pattern of the series 5, 9, 13, 17, ………………. is
A) 3n + 2
B) 4n + 1
C) 2n + 3
D) 4n + 2
Answer:
B) 4n + 1

Question 32.
Write an algebraic expression for “p is multiplied by -6”
A) p × 6
B) – 6p
C) \(\frac{-\mathrm{p}}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{-6}{\mathrm{p}}\)
Answer:
B) – 6p

Question 33.
What is the pattern of the letter ‘H’?
A) 4n
B) 2n
C) 3n
D) 3n²
Answer:
C) 3n

Question 34.
The pattern of the letter ‘V’ is ……………..?
A) 2n
B) 2n²
C) n²
D) 3n
Answer:
A) 2n

Question 35.
Which of the following situation is a variable?
A) The cost of Tomatoes in a market
B) The temperature of a day in every hour
C) Rainfall in a year month wise
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
Which of the following situation refers a constant?
A) The height of a children from the age 5 to 15 years
B) Runs done by a cricket player in different matches
C) The length of your classroom is fixed
D) Current bill of your house in various months in a year
Answer:
C) The length of your classroom is fixed

Question 37.
What should be added to 1 + 2x – 3x² we will get x²– x – 1?
A) 4x² – 3x + 2
B) 4x² – 3x – 2
C) 4x² + 3x – 2
D) 4x² + 3x + 2
Answer:
B) 4x² – 3x – 2

Question 38.
Write an algebraic expression for “b is multiplied by x and 5 is added to the product”?
A) bx + 5
B) b + 5x
C) bx – 5
D) b – 5x
Answer:
A) bx + 5

Question 39.
Write the statement for “16 + m”
A) m is multiplied by 6
B) 6 is multiplied by m
C) 16 is added to m
D) None of these
Answer:
C) 16 is added to m

Question 40.
“3m + 5” write the statement for the given algebraic expression.
A) in is multiplied by 3
B) m is multiplied by 3 and 5 is subtracted from the product.
C) m is multiplied by 3 and 5 is added to the product
D) None
Answer:
C) m is multiplied by 3 and 5 is added to the product

Question 41.
Which of the following represents the variable?
A) Length of your pencil box
B) Breadth of your maths textbook
C) Your height
D) Number of hands of a human being
Answer:
C) Your height

Question 42.
Which of the following represents the constant?
A) Your weight
B) Number of students in your class in every year
C) Your age
D) The days in January month
Answer:
D) The days in January month

Question 43.
Which of the following is a Monomial?
A) 7 lm²n²
B) 100 – (98 ÷ 2)
C) 3y² – x²y² + 4x
D) 1 + x + x²
Answer:
A) 7 lm²n²

Question 44.
Which of the following is a trinomial?
A) 101
B) ax + b
C) ax² + bx + c
D) lmn
Answer:
C) ax² + bx + c

Question 45.
5 – 2xy is a ……………. expression.
A) Monomial
B) Binomial
C) Trinomial
D) Multinomial
Answer:
B) Binomial

Question 46.
7x² – 2xy + 9y² – 11 is a …………… expression.
A) Monomial
B) Binomial
C) Trinomial
D) Polynomial
Answer:
D) Polynomial

Question 47.
The algebraic expression for “x is multiplied by 7 and 3 is reduced from the product” is ………………..
A) 7x – 3
B) 7x + 3
C) 7/x— 3
D) x/7 – 3
Answer:
A) 7x – 3

Question 48.
Write an algebraic expression for “one- fifth of product of x & y” is …………….
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{xy}}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{xy}}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{x+y}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{xy}+5}{4}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{xy}}{5}\)

Question 49.
Write a sentence for an algebraic expression “12p-7” is ………………
A) 7 is reduced from twelve times of P
B) 7 is reduced from P
C) 7 is reduced from p and multiplied by 12
D) None
Answer:
A) 7 is reduced from twelve times of P

Question 50.
Write a mathematical sentence for an algebraic expression is “10 lmn” is …………….
A) the product of l, m, n
B) the product of 10, l, m
C) the product of 10, l, m, n
D) None
Answer:
C) the product of 10, l, m, n

Question 51.
The Numerical coefficient of – y² is……………..?
A) 1
B) 2
C) – 1
D) – 2
Answer:
C) – 1

Question 52.
The Numerical coefficient of \(\frac {-3}{2}\) xy²z³?
A) \(\frac {-3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac {3}{2}\)
C) 3
D) 6
Answer:
A) \(\frac {-3}{2}\)

Question 53.
The literal coefficient of \(\frac {7}{5}\) x is ……………..?
A) x
B) 1
C) –\(\frac {7}{5}\)
D) None
Answer:
A) x

Question 54.
The number of terms in the expression – 5 x²yz is ……………..
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 55.
The standard form of an expression 8 – 3x² + 4x is …………….
A) – 3x² + 8 + 4x
B) – 3x² + 4x + 8
C) 4x – 3 x² + 8
D) 8 + 4x – 3x²
Answer:
B) – 3x² + 4x + 8

Question 56.
The standard form of an expression y³ + 1 + y + 3y² is ………….
A) y³ + 3y² + 1 + y
B) 3y² + y³ + y + 1
C) 1 + y + 3y² + y³
D) y³ + 3y² + y + 1
Answer:
D) y³ + 3y² + y + 1

Question 57.
Which of the following expression is in a standard form?
A) ax² + c + bx
B) ax² + bx + c
C) c + bx + ax²
D) ax² + b + ex³
Answer:
B) ax² + bx + c

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. Monomial – F) 4xyz
2. Binomial – E) 2x + 3y
3. Trinomial – A) x² + 2xy + y²
4. Polynomial – B) 5xy – 6y + 4zx + 7 – 5t
5. Second degree algebraic expression – D) ax² + bx + c
6. Numerical expression – H) (6 × 5) ÷ 3

Practice the AP 7th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Construction of Triangles on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 7th Class Maths Bits 9th Lesson Construction of Triangles with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following measurements are correct to construct a triangle?
A) 2 cm, 3 cm, 5 cm
B) 4 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm
C) 1 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm
D) 5 cm, 6 cm, 13 cm
Answer:
B) 4 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm

Question 2.
Which of the following measurements are unable to construct a triangle?
A) 2 cm, 2 cm, 2 cm
B) 1 cm, 2 cm, 2 cm
C) 7 cm, 5 cm, 9 cm
D) 3 cm, 4 cm, 7 cm
Answer:
D) 3 cm, 4 cm, 7 cm

Question 3.
Which of the following is True?
A) a – b > c
B) a + b < c
C) b + c > a
D) c – a = b
Answer:
C) b + c > a

Question 4.
In which of the following situation ΔABC is constructed?
A) AB + BC = AC
B) AB + BC ≯ AC
C) BC + CA < AB
D) AB + AC > BC
Answer:
D) AB + AC > BC

Question 5.
In which of the following situation ΔXYZ is not constructed?
A) XY + YZ > XZ
B) XY + XZ > YZ
C) XY < XZ + ZY
D) XY > XZ + ZY
Answer:
D) XY > XZ + ZY

Question 6.
Winch measurements are able to construct a triangle?
A) 4 cm, 7 cm, 11 cm
B) 2 cm, 3 cm, 6 m
C) 5 cm, 6 m, 8 m
D) 9 cm, 2 cm, 5 cm
Answer:
C) 5 cm, 6 m, 8 m

Question 7.
Which of the following measurements are not able to construct a triangle?
A) 2 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm
B) 11 cm, 7 cm, 18 cm
C) 7 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm
D) 9 cm, 7 cm, 10 cm
Answer:
B) 11 cm, 7 cm, 18 cm

Question 8.
Which of the following measurements are not able to construct a triangle?
A) PQ = 5 cm, ⌊P = 105°, ⌊Q = 95°
B) 6.5 cm, 6.5 cm, 6.5 cm
C) ∠A = 60° AR = 8 cm, ⌊A = 8 cm
D) TE = 3 cm, ⌊E = 90°, NE = 4 cm
Answer:
A) PQ = 5 cm, ⌊P = 105°, ⌊Q = 95°

Question 9.
In which of the following measurements a triangle is constructed?
A) ΔNET, NE = 6.4 cm, ⌊N = 80°, ⌊E = 100°
B) ΔXYZ, XY = 2 cm, YZ = 8 cm, XZ = 4 cm
C) ΔRUN, RN = 5 cm, ⌊R = ⌊N = 45°
D) ΔABC, ⌊B = 90°, AC = 7 cm, AB = 8 cm
Answer:
C) ΔRUN, RN = 5 cm, ⌊R = ⌊N = 45°

Question 10.
A triangle can be drawn in which of the following situations? When
A) three sides of the triangle are given
B) three angles are given
C) three acute angles are given
D) three acute one obtuse angles are given
Answer:
A) three sides of the triangle are given

Question 11.
A triangle can’t be drawn in which of the following situations? When
A) three sides are given
B) two sides and the angle included between them.
C) two angles and the side included between them.
D) two interior angles and one obtuse angle
Answer:
D) two interior angles and one obtuse angle

Question 12.
Number of individual measurements are requited to construct an equilateral triangle?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 13.
Number of individual measurements are required to construct a triangle?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 14.
A triangle has ……………..
A) one right angle
B) two obtuse angles
C) two right angles
D) one right angle and one obtuse angle
Answer:
A) one right angle

Question 15.
In ΔMAN, \(\overline{\mathbf{M A}}=\overline{\mathbf{A N}}\) then it is a ………………. type of triangle.
A) Scalene
B) Isosceles
C) Equilateral
D) Right angled triangle
Answer:
B) Isosceles

Question 16.
In ΔABC, ⌊C = 90° then its hypotenuse is ……………….?
A) AB
B) BC
C) AC
D) None
Answer:
A) AB

Question 17.
In ΔPQR PQ = QR = 5 cm, ⌊Q = 90° then it is a ……………….. triangle.
A) Isosceles
B) Right angled Isosceles
C) Right angled
D) Equilateral
Answer:
B) Right angled Isosceles

Question 18.
In ΔACB, a = 3 cm, b = 4 cm, c = 5 cm then its Hypotenuse is …………….? [⌊C = 90°]
A) AC
B) BC
C) AB
D) None
Answer:
C) AB

Question 19.
Two sides and included angle of the first triangle are correspondingly equal to two sides and included angle of the second triangle then the two triangles are said to be congruent under the property of ………….
A) A.S.A
B) S.A.S
C) R.H.S
D) S.S.S
Answer:
B) S.A.S