Mahesh

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 13 The Indian Constitution on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Our leaders who taught against British rule, wanted the future government of India to be
A) Democratic
B) Anarchical
C) Monarchy
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Democratic

Question 2.
All the civilians have …………. rights.
A) Adult
B) Fundamental
C) Children
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Fundamental

Question 3.
Motilal Nehru and eight other Indian National Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India in ……….
A) 1948
B) 1949
C) 1928
D) 1938
Answer:
C) 1928

Question 4.
In 1931, the resolution at the session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how independent India’s Constitution should look like.
A) Lahore
B) Lucknow
C) Jaipur
D) Karachi
Answer:
D) Karachi

Question 5.
The Socialist Revolution in Russia and had inspired many Indians to think of shaping a system based on social and economic equality.
A) China
B) France
C) Afghanisthan
D) Kajakisthan
Answer:
A) China

Question 6.
There were …………….. women members in our Constituent Assembly.
A) 14
B) 15
C) 16
D) 13
Answer:
B) 15

Question 7.
The first Prime Minister of India was
A) L.B. Sastry
B) Motilal Nehru
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Gandhiji
Answer:
C) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 8.
The members of the Constituent Assembly deliberated for …………. days.
A) 111
B) 142
C) 113
D) 114
Answer:
D) 114

Question 9.
The values that formed the foundation for India’s democracy are embedded in the …………… of the Indian Constitution.
A) Preamble
B) First part
C) Second part
D) Third Part
Answer:
A) Preamble

Question 10.
………….. is the head of the Government.
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Speaker
D) All the above
Answer:
B) President

Question 11.
The government ruled the people by the elected representatives.
A) Kulina rule
B) Democracy
C) Kingship
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Democracy

Question 12.
A …………. is a set of rules about how the country should be governed.
A) Constitution
B) Report
C) Summary
D) Complex, picture
Answer:
A) Constitution

Question 13.
This is mentioned in the Constitution.
A) How to make laws?
B) How to change laws?
C) How the government forms?
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
The amendments that were done to the Indian Constitution till 2011.
A) 90
B) 95
C) 97
D) 100
Answer:
C) 97

Question 15.
The main objective of our national movement.
A) Fighting against foreign rule
B) Eradication of inequalities
C) Eradication of exploitation and discrimination in our society
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The Indian Constitution was drafted in 1928 before independence under the leadership of
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Motilal Nehru
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
B) Motilal Nehru

Question 17.
In 1931, the resolution at the session of the INC dwelt on how independent India’s Constitution should look like.
A) Calcutta
B) Karachi
C) Bombay
D) Pune
Answer:
B) Karachi

Question 18.
The international incidents that inspired the Indian National leaders
A) Ideals of French Revolution
B) Britain Parliamentary democracy
C) American Rights Act
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
Elections were held in …………….. to Provincial Legislatures and Ministries all over British India.
A) 1935
B) 1936
C) 1937
D) 1940
Answer:
C) 1937

Question 20.
Elections were held to the Constituent Assembly.
A) July, 1946
B) July 1947
C) August 1946
D) August, 1947
Answer:
A) July, 1946

Question 21.
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was conducted in
A) December, 1946
B) December, 1947
C) July, 1946
D) July, 1947
Answer:
A) December, 1946

Question 22.
The number of members in the Constituent Assembly.
A) 280
B) 299
C) 300
D) 305
Answer:
B) 299

Question 23.
The Indian Constitution adopted the Constitution on
A) 26-11 -1949
B) 26-09-1949
C) 26-10-1949
D) 26-01-1949
Answer:
A) 26-11 -1949

Question 24.
The Indian Constitution came into existence on
A) 26-11-1949
B) 26-01-1950
C) 15-8-1947
D) 26-11-1948
Answer:
B) 26-01-1950

Question 25.
The Republic day in India
A) 15th August
B) 9th January
C) 26th January
D) 1st November
Answer:
C) 26th January

Question 26.
The handwork of India for world peace and the welfare of human beings is called
A) Ideals resolution
B) Objectives resolution
C) Taking decisions
D) Summary of declarations
Answer:
B) Objectives resolution

Question 27.
Bringing changes in the contents of the Constitution is called
A) constitutional amendment
B) constitutional prerana
C) Peoples change
D) clear change
Answer:
A) constitutional amendment

Question 28.
The recording of each and every word that was spoken in the Constituent Assembly is called ………..
A) Constitutional Amendment
B) Constituent Assembly
C) Constituent Assembly Debates
D) Adoption of Constitution
Answer:
C) Constituent Assembly Debates

Question 29.
Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. But he wrote his vision about the constitution in his ……………. magazine in 1931.
A) Hanizan
B) Young India
C) Amrith Bazar Pathrika
D) Sanjeevani
Answer:
B) Young India

Question 30.
The dream of an India without inequality was shared by
A) Alladi Krishna Swamy Ayyangar
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) D.P. Khaithan
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 31.
“One man one vote and one vote one value” India follows this principle Who said these words?
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Vallabhai patel
Answer:
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 32.
The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer. These words are said by
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 33.
“We the people of India, having resolved to constitute India into a Republic and to secure to all its citizen’s Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity give ourselves this Constitution,” was mentioned in the
A) Preamble
B) Democracy
C) Sovereignty
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Preamble

Question 34.
The state that has an elected head as its head
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialist
Answer:
B) Republic

Question 35.
India will have the supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters and make her own laws.
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialism
Answer:
C) Sovereign

Question 36.
Which country tries to reduce and eradicate all kinds of inequalities?
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialist
Answer:
D) Socialist

Question 37.
Citizens will have complete freedom to follow any religion or no religion at all.
A) Socialism
B) Secularism
C) Democracy
D) Republic
Answer:
B) Secularism

Question 38.
In this type of government, all the people enjoy equal political rights
A) Socialism
B) Secularism
C) Democracy
D) Republic
Answer:
C) Democracy

Question 39.
All citizens should get what is their due in determining what is due to than no discrimination will be made on account of their birth, caste, tribe, community or beliefs, or wealth or status.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Secularism
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
A) Justice

Question 40.
All public offices shall be open to all, irrespective of caste or religion.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Secularism
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
B) Equality

Question 41.
There will be no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what way they think.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Liberty
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
C) Liberty

Question 42.
Our democracy
A) Parliamentary
B) Presidential
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Parliamentary

Question 43.
This issue does not relate to the state list
A) police
B) road transport
C) schools
D) army
Answer:
D) army

Question 44.
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the
A) people
B) government
C) states
D) All the above
Answer:
A) people

Question 45.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the
A) people
B) government
C) state assemblies
D) members of Lok Sabha
Answer:
C) state assemblies

Question 46.
The tiers of Indian democracy
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 47.
The non-political organization
A) Comptroller and Auditor General
B) Election Commission
C) Judicial System
D) Neeti Ayog
Answer:
D) Neeti Ayog

Question 48.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                      Group – B
1) 1946 July                 ( )           a) Constitution came into effect
2) 1947 August            ( )           b) Adoption of Constituent Assembly
3) 1949 Nov, 26           ( )           c) Elections to the Constituent Assembly
4) 1950 Jan, 26            ( )           d) British India Elections
5) 1937                        ( )           e) Division of Constituent Assembly
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – a, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – d
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d

Question 49.

Pick the correct comment.
A) Satyameva Jayathe is a quote from an Upanishad.
B) The four Asiatic lions are symbolizing power, courage, confidence, and pride.
C) The wheel of law is also presented there.
D) All the above Everyone would be equal before the law.
Answer:
D) All the above Everyone would be equal before the law.

Question 50.
Pick the correct comment.
A) There are different punishments for like crimes.
B) All are equal before the law.
C) The elected persons have some privileges in this regard.
D) None
Answer:
B) All are equal before the law.

Question 51.
‘Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first meeting was held in December 1946.’
What was the main change in this period?
A) Muslim League opposed it.
B) Many elected members resigned.
C) Partition of the country
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Partition of the country

Question 52.
“We the people of India, having resolved to constitute India into a Republic and to secure to all its citizen’s Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity give ourselves this Constitution.”
Who gave us the Constitution?
A) The British
B) The leaders
C) Ourselves
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Ourselves

Question 53.
The main reason for the partition of the country
A) caste conflicts
B) regionalism
C) religious conflicts
D) All the above
Answer:
C) religious conflicts

Question 54.
The Constitution of India was drafted under very difficult circumstances. The difficulty was
A) The country was under British rule for many years.
B) Communal conflicts
C) Partition
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 55.
The Chairman of the Indian Drafting Committee
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Durgabai Deshmukh
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 56.
During national movement people died because of
A) Poverty
B) Famine and Epidemics
C) Both A & B
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Mulla Abdul Qayyum of ………… became great champion of the Congress.
A) Hyderabad
B) Gulbarga
C) Vijayawada
D) Goa
Answer:
A) Hyderabad

Question 2.
Arya Samaj was established in Hyderabad in ………………
A) 1891
B) 1892
C) 1893
D) 1894
Answer:
B) 1892

Question 3.
The Nizam rulers of Hyderabad state were
A) Hindus
B) Christians
C) Muslims
D) Parsis
Answer:
C) Muslims

Question 4.
…………… speaking people felt greatly offended.
A) Hindu
B) Urdu
C) Tamil
D) Telugu
Answer:
D) Telugu

Question 5.
Andhra Jana Sangham started ………….. schools.
A) 4000
B) 1000
C) 1500
D) 2000
Answer:
A) 4000

Question 6.
Many ………….. were joined in AMS by 1940.
A) Leaders
B) Communists
C) Doras
D) Students
Answer:
B) Communists

Question 7.
The Indian National Congress only functioned in the …………. India.
A) French
B) Dutch
C) British
D) Nizam
Answer:
C) British

Question 8.
In 1942 Hyderabad State Congress started ………….. in tune with the national Quit India Movement.
A) Satyagraha
B) Vandemataram
C) Non-Cooperation
D) Civil disobedience
Answer:
A) Satyagraha

Question 9.
The Telangana Armed Struggle happened between
A) 1947 – 52
B) 1946 – 51
C) 1942 – 47
D) 1947 – 53
Answer:
B) 1946 – 51

Question 10.
The received the support of Doras and feudalists.
A) Hyderabad State Congress
B) Indian National Congress
C) Rajakars
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Rajakars

Question 11.
……………. was an important princely state under the British paramountcy in Deccan.
A) Hyderabad
B) Mysore
C) Maharashtra
D) Karnataka
Answer:
A) Hyderabad

Question 12.
The Viceroys appointed ……………… in the states which were allied with the British.
A) representatives
B) residents
C) pathaks
D) kulaks
Answer:
B) residents

Question 13.
The languages of people in Hyderabad state
A) Marathi
B) Kannada
C) Telugu, Deccani Urdu
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
The strong supporter of Indian National Congress belonged to this Hyderabad region.
A) Mulla Abdul Qayyum
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Aghornath Chatopadhyaya
D) None
Answer:
A) Mulla Abdul Qayyum

Question 15.
Mulla Abdul Qayyum founded this organisation.
A) Anjumen
B) Islaman
C) Anjumen – e – maref
D) Maref
Answer:
C) Anjumen – e – maref

Question 16.
The newspaper propagated the ideology of nationalism.
A) Deccan standard
B) Musllism – E – Safiq
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 17.
The Arya Samaj was established in Hyderabad in the year
A) 1890
B) 1891
C) 1892
D) 1894
Answer:
C) 1892

Question 18.
The Nizams were initially provincial governors of the
A) Delhi sultans
B) Mughal emperors
C) Afghans
D) Turks
Answer:
B) Mughal emperors

Question 19.
The number of villages under the control of Jagirdars in Hyderabad state.
A) Dozens to Hundred villages
B) 10 -15 villages
C) 20 to 30 villages
D) 30 – 40 villages
Answer:
A) Dozens to Hundred villages

Question 20.
The opposed the Congress led nationalist movement.
A) Nizams
B) Moughal
C) Turks
D) None
Answer:
A) Nizams

Question 21.
The dynasty that ruled Hyderabad state.
A) Mughals
B) Vijayanagara kings
C) Nizam dynasty
D) None
Answer:
C) Nizam dynasty

Question 22.
Which language was medium of instruction from primary level to university level?
A) Telugu
B) Urdu
C) Parseeka
D) Arabbi
Answer:
B) Urdu

Question 23.
Even by 1941, only ………….. % of people of the state were literate.
A) 9
B) 9.3
C) 9.5
D) 9.6
Answer:
B) 9.3

Question 24.
Travancore had ………….. literacy rate.
A) 47.7%
B) 50%
C) 46%
D) 48%
Answer:
A) 47.7%

Question 25.
The percentage of literacy in Baroda in 1941.
A) 12%
B) 12.2%
C) 14%
D) 23%
Answer:
D) 23%

Question 26.
Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam was established in Hyderabad by …………….
A) Komarraju Laxmana Rao
B) Nayani Venkata Ranga Rao
C) Ravichettu Ranga Rao
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 27.
In …………… in a meeting in Viveka Vardhini College in Hyderabad, a person was insulted for bringing up a resolution in Telugu rather than in, English or Urdu.
A) 1920
B) 1921
C) 1922
D) 1923
Answer:
B) 1921

Question 28.
In 1924, ………………… formed the Andhra Jana Sangham.
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Duggirala Gopal Krishnayya
C) Komarraju Laxmana Rao
D) Thenneti Viswanatham
Answer:
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao

Question 29.
The schools established by Andhra Jana Sangham
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 4000
D) 5000
Answer:
C) 4000

Question 30.
Andhra Maha Sabha was formed in
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1936
D) 1939
Answer:
A) 1930

Question 31.
The main person among the founders of AMS
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Ravi Narayana Reddy
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 32.
In the annual conference of AMS in 1935 the demands were identified.
A) Compulsory primary education and Mother tongue should be the medium of instruction
B) Child marriages should be discouraged
C) The legitimate rights of the people in Jagirs should be protected
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
The Editor of the Golkonda Pathrika
A) Suravaram Pratapa Reddy
B) Pidathala Ranga Reddy
C) Marri Chenna Reddy
D) Damodaram Venkata Reddy
Answer:
A) Suravaram Pratapa Reddy

Question 34.
The Hyderabad State Congress was established in
A) 1937
B) 1938
C) 1940
D) 1942
Answer:
B) 1938

Question 35.
Who played a key role in the formation of Hyderabad State Congress?
A) Swami Ramanada Theertha
B) Potti Sree ramulu
C) K.V. Ranga Reddy
D) J.V. Narasinga rao
Answer:
A) Swami Ramanada Theertha

Question 36.
Who is person belonged to the Hyderabad State Congress and later became the Prime Minister of India?
A) Swami Ramananda Theertha
B) K.V. Ranga Reddy
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
D) H.D. Devegowda
Answer:
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 37.
The year of Quit India Movement
A) 1940
B) 1942
C) 1943
D) 1944
Answer:
B) 1942

Question 38.
From 1929, Ryot sangams were established at ……………….. of fight against the exploitation by the Patels, Patwaris, Deshmukhs, Revenue and Police officials.
A) Nalgonda
B) Pillalamarri
C) Karimnagar
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
They gave a radical programme against vetti and put forward the demand of land of tillers.
A) Congress party people
B) Communists
C) Farmers
D) Landlords
Answer:
B) Communists

Question 40.
Doddi Komaraiah was murdered by Visunuru Ramachandra Reddy in
A) July 1946
B) August 1946
C) July 1948
D) August 1947
Answer:
A) July 1946

Question 41.
The fanatic, Muslim enthusiasts formed …………….. an organisation to protect the ‘Muslim domination’ of Hyderabad state and Nizam rule.
A) Ittehadul Muslimeen
B) Ittehadul Fathul
C) Ittehadul Islamic
D) Islamic Socialist Party
Answer:
A) Ittehadul Muslimeen

Question 42.
Who was killed radically by Razakars for hoisting National flag in Warangal fort?
A) Doddi Komaraiah
B) Battini Mogilaiah
C) Ravi Narayana Reddy
D) Ilamma
Answer:
B) Battini Mogilaiah

Question 43.
The Hyderabad state merged in the Indian Union in the year
A) 1947
B) 1948
C) 1949
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1948

Question 44.
Who wanted Hyderabad to be a independent state?
A) Nizam-ul-mulk
B) Osman Ali Khan
C) Burgula Rama Krishna Rao
D) Baddam Yella Reddy
Answer:
B) Osman Ali Khan

Question 45.
Hyderabad merged in India union in ………….
A) September 1948
B) October 1948
C) November 1948
D) December 194b
Answer:
A) September 1948

Question 46.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                           Group – B
1) Mulla Abdul Qayyum       ( )          a) Elections
2) 1901                                 ( )          b) Anjumen – e – maref
3) 1930                                 ( )          c) Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam
4) 1938                                 ( )          d) Andhra Maha Sabha
5) 1952                                 ( )          e) Ban on Vandemataram song
A) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – e
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – e
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a

Question 47.
‘The Nizams opposed the Congress-led nationalist movement and passed several ‘firmans’.
Pick the correct statement.
A) They favored Muslim League.
B) They wanted to rule as per their will.
C) The Congress was anti-Muslims.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) They wanted to rule as per their will.

Question 48.
‘In 1938, seeing the rising tide of nationalism in Hyderabad, the Nizam banned the singing of Vandemataram.’
Pick the correct comment.
A) The acts of Nizam created favourable situation for Congress to enter Hyderabad.
B) Vandemataram is an anti-socialistic song.
C) Both A & B
D) B only
Answer:
A) The acts of Nizam created favourable situation for Congress to enter Hyderabad.

Question 49.
From 1929, Ryot sangams were established at Nalgonda, Pillalamarri, Karimnagar, etc. to fight against the exploitation by the Patels, Patwaris, Deshmukhs, Revenue and Police officials.
All these places are in
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Telangana
D) Rayalaseema
Answer:
C) Telangana

Question 50.
Name the woman in the picture.

A) Durgamma
B) Subbamma
C) Ilamma
D) Kasulamma
Answer:
C) Ilamma

Question 51.
‘Our Constitution considered many demands of AMS annual conference 1935.’ One of them
A) Compulsory primary education
B) Child marriages should be discouraged
C) Untouchability should be eradicated
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 52.
Aurangabad is present in ……………
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) West Bengal
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 53.
The presidency on west side was
A) Madras presidency
B) Junagadh presidency
C) Kashmir presidency
D) Bombay presidency
Answer:
D) Bombay presidency

Question 54.
The presidency on south side was
A) Madras presidency
B) Junagadh presidency
C) Kashmir presidency
D) Bombay presidency
Answer:
A) Madras presidency

Question 55.
The given map is about
A) Bombay presidency
B) Madras presidency
C) Hyderabad state
D) Berar and Central provinces
Answer:
C) Hyderabad state

Question 56.
Hyderabad was in
A) Samsthan
B) Surf-i-khas
C) Paigan
D) Jagir
Answer:
B) Surf-i-khas

Question 57.
The Hyderabad Nizams discouraged the setting up of private medium schools.
A) Telugu
B) Urdu
C) Parsie
D) Arabic
Answer:
A) Telugu

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11B National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa.
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehru
C) Tilak
D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 2.
…………….. in Ahmedabad Gandhiji led a successful mili workers strike in ……………. year.
A) 1915
B) 1919
C) 1922
D) 1927
Answer:
B) 1919

Question 3.
In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on
A) Saudi
B) Italy
C) Turkish Sultan
D) Russia President
Answer:
C) Turkish Sultan

Question 4.
…………… district was at the centre of nationalist activity.
A) Krishna
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Vijayanagaram
D) Guntur
Answer:
D) Guntur

Question 5.
In ………………. a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura.
A) 1922
B) 1920
C) 1912
D) 1915
Answer:
A) 1922

Question 6.
The Indian National Congress met at Lahore in 1929 under the presidentship of
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehruji
C) C.R. Das
D) Bhagat Singh
Answer:
B) Nehruji

Question 7.
The Second World War started in
A) 1934
B) 1935
C) 1939
D) 1915
Answer:
C) 1939

Question 8.
The Indian Movement in 1942
A) Non-Cooperation
B) Quit India
C) Civil disobediance
D) Satyagraha
Answer:
B) Quit India

Question 9.
In March 1944, the Indian Flag was hoisted in Kohima by
A) Bhagat Singh
B) Rajguru
C) SNA
D) Sukhdev
Answer:
C) SNA

Question 10.
The Muslim League decided on mass agitation in support of its demand for
A) Pakisthan
B) Hindusthan
C) Bangladesh
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Pakisthan

Question 11.
Gandhiji returned to India from South Africa
A) 1914
B) 1915
C) 1920
D) 1916
Answer:
B) 1915

Question 12.
The first Satyagraha started by Gandhiji.
A) Champaran
B) Kheda
C) Both A & B
D) Strike of Ahmedabad Mill labourers
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
In Ahmedabad he led a successful mill workers strike in
A) 1915
B) 1918
C) 1919
D) 1920
Answer:
B) 1918

Question 14.
Find out the mismatch.
i) 1917 – Champaran Andolan
ii) 1918 – Kaira Protest Movement
iii) 1918 – Strike of Ahmedabad cotton mill workers
iv) 1919 – The Rowlatt Act
A) i, ii
B) ii & iii
C) iii & iv
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 15.
Who criticised the Rowlatt Act as “devilish”.
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Md. AN Jinnah
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
Gandhiji asked the Indian people to observe 6 April 1919 as a day of …………… and hartal.
A) Self reliance day
B) Prayer and humiliation day
C) Day of Protection
D) Black day
Answer:
B) Prayer and humiliation day

Question 17.
The Muslim League was formed in
A) 1905
B) 1906
C) 1907
D) 1910
Answer:
B) 1906

Question 18.
Separate electorates for Muslims were conceded in
A) 1908
B) 1907
C) 1909
D) 1910
Answer:
C) 1909

Question 19.
The Hindu Mahasabha was formed in
A) 1910
B) 1912
C) 1914
D) 1915
Answer:
D) 1915

Question 20.
The person behind the Jalianwalabagh Massacre
A) Curzon
B) Munroe
C) General ‘O’ Dyer
D) Corn Wallis
Answer:
C) General ‘O’ Dyer

Question 21.
Rabindranath Tagore expressed the pain and anger of the country by renouncing his …………. given to him by the British government.
A) Bhaihood
B) Knighthood
C) League of Nation
D) Brotherhood
Answer:
B) Knighthood

Question 22.
The title of Turkey Sultan
A) Father
B) God Father
C) Khalifa
D) Sir
Answer:
C) Khalifa

Question 23.
The main leader of Khilafat movement
A) Md. AN
B) Shoukat AN
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 24.
In the Nagapur session of the congress in 1920 was acknowledged as the leader of the Congress.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Answer:
B) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 25.
The Non-cooperation movement gained momentum throughout
A) 1921 – 22
B) 1922 – 23
C) 1923 – 24
D) 1924 – 25
Answer:
A) 1921 – 22

Question 26.
Due to participation in Non-Cooperation Movement, these persons gave up their practice
A) Motilal Nehru
B) C.R. Das
C) C. Raja Gopalachari
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 27.
The person who took up Khadi campaign
A) Nehru
B) Gandhi
C) Patel
D) Bose
Answer:
B) Gandhi

Question 28.
He was not the member of the British Ministry
A) Straford Cripps
B) Pethik Lawrence
C) Alexander
D) Federal Castro
Answer:
D) Federal Castro

Question 29.
A highlight of Non-Cooperation movement was the famous
A) Tenali Bomb case
B) Kakinada coup case
C) Chira-Perala movement
D) Kotappa Konda bad incident
Answer:
C) Chira-Perala movement

Question 30.
The Muslim League declared this date as “Direct Action Day”
A) 15-8-1946
B) 16-8-1946
C) 26-8-1946
D) 27-8-1946
Answer:
B) 16-8-1946

Question 31.
The people of Chirala – Perala refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called
A) Rayanampadu
B) Ramnagar
C) Krishna Nagar
D) Vankayala Nagar
Answer:
B) Ramnagar

Question 32.
………………. said, Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.
A) Gandhiji
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) People
Answer:
D) People

Question 33.
The forest Sathyagrahas were began in this districts
A) Guntur
B) Kadapa
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
At the end of a powerful movement, peasants in the united province (now Uttar Pradesh) managed to stop illegal eviction of tenants.
A) Raigarh
B) Chandragarh
C) Pratapgarh
D) Kanpur
Answer:
C) Pratapgarh

Question 35.
The year of Chauri – Chaura incident
A) 1920
B) 1921
C) 1922
D) 1923
Answer:
C) 1922

Question 36.
The Non Co-operation movement was called off due to this
A) Truth
B) Non-violence
C) Violence
D) Non-truth
Answer:
C) Violence

Question 37.
Leader such as argued that they party should fight elections to the councils and enter them in under influence government policies.
A) C.R. Das
B) Motilal Nehru
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
The year of Civil dis-obedience movement
A) 1920
B) 1930
C) 1932
D) 1934
Answer:
B) 1930

Question 39.
Two important developments of the mid-1920s were the formation of the
A) RSS
B) Communist Party of India
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 40.
In this session, Congress declared that the attainment of “Puma Swaraj” was its ultimate goal.
A) Kanpur
B) Calcutta
C) Bombay
D) Lahore
Answer:
D) Lahore

Question 41.
The year of Lahor session
A) 1928
B) 1929
C) 1930
D) 1932
Answer:
B) 1929

Question 42.
This was decided to celebrate as the day of Purna Swaraj
A) Feb’ 1st
B) Jan’ 1st
C) Jan’ 20th
D) Jan’ 26th
Answer:
D) Jan’ 26th

Question 43.
The Dandi Sathyagraha was started on this day
A) 11-3-1930
B) 12-3-1930
C) 18-4-1930
D) 12-4-1930
Answer:
B) 12-3-1930

Question 44.
The number of followers of Gandhiji that participated in the foot-march of dandi sathyagraha with Gandhiji
A) 72
B) 78
C) 62
D) 68
Answer:
B) 78

Question 45.
The distance of Gandhiji foot-march from Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi village
A) 200 kms
B) 300 kms
C) 375 kms
D) 400 kms
Answer:
C) 375 kms

Question 46.
Gandhiji disobeyed the British rules as a part of Salt Sathyagraha
A) 6-4-1930
B) 12-4-1930
C) 28-4-1930
D) 1-5-1930
Answer:
A) 6-4-1930

Question 47.
The number of Sathyagrahis’s that were arrested during Salt Sathyagrahas
A) 80,000
B) 90,000
C) 1,00,000
D) 1,20,000
Answer:
B) 90,000

Question 48.
The main result of Civil disobedience movement
A) 1909 Act
B) 1919 Act
C) Indian Council Act 1935
D) 1950 Act
Answer:
C) Indian Council Act 1935

Question 49.
The Congress formed governments in out of 11 provinces
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
A) 7

Question 50.
The period of World War – II
A) 1939-45
B) 1936-42
C) 1935-45
D) 1950-52
Answer:
A) 1939-45

Question 51.
The number of countries in allied group.
A) England, France, Russia
B) England, Germany, Austria
C) England, Russia, Austria
D) America, Japan, Russia
Answer:
A) England, France, Russia

Question 52.
During the Second World War America dropped atom bomb over these cities
A) Hiroshima
B) Nagasaki
C) Both A& B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A& B

Question 53.
The year of Quit India movement
A) 1946
B) 1942
C) 1943
D) 1944
Answer:
B) 1942

Question 54.
The slogan during the movement is “do or die”.
A) Civil disobedience movement
B) Non Co-operation movement
C) Quit India movement
D) Swadeshi movement
Answer:
C) Quit India movement

Question 55.
Congress Working Committee met on at Bombay and passed a resolution stating clearly that “British Rule in India must end immediately
A) 8-8-1942 – Bombay
B) 8-8-1943 Calcutta
C) 2-9-1944 Kanpur
D) 7-7-1945 Lucknow
Answer:
A) 8-8-1942 – Bombay

Question 56.
The Congress leaders who were arrested during the morning on 9-8-1942
A) Gandhiji, Patel
B) Nehru, Maulana Azad
C) Acharya Kripalani, Rajendra Prasad
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 57.
The people of ……………. formed parallel government between 1942-1944.
A) Kanpur
B) Midnapur
C) Calcutta
D) Bombay
Answer:
B) Midnapur

Question 58.
The number of people that were arrested by the end of 1943.
A) 80,000
B) 85,000
C) 90,000
D) 95,000
Answer:
C) 90,000

Question 59.
India got independence on
A) 15-8-1947
B) 20-8-1947
C) 27-8-1947
D) 28-8-1947
Answer:
A) 15-8-1947

Question 60.
The Slogan of Subhas Chandra Bose on 18-3-1944
A) Dilli Chalo
B) On to Delhi
C) Both A & B
D) Jai Jawan
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 61.
The Indian flag was hoisted in these place in March 1944
A) Itanagar
B) Imphal
C) Kohima
D) Aizwal
Answer:
C) Kohima

Question 62.
This was said as the death day of Subhas Chandra Bose in a plane accident when he travelled from Bangkok to Tokyo is
A) 23-8-1945
B) 25-8-1945
C) 26-8-1945
D) 7-8-1945
Answer:
A) 23-8-1945

Question 63.
In ………….. the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding “Independent States” for Muslims on the north-western and eastern areas of the country.
A) 1935
B) 1940
C) 1945
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1940

Question 64.
From which the Muslim League treated Muslims as a special race different from Hindus?
A) 1920
B) 1925
C) 1930
D) 1935
Answer:
C) 1930

Question 65.
After this year the radical organisations characterized by intensive activities
A) 1930
B) 1940
C) 1950
D) 1960
Answer:
B) 1940

Question 66.
These actively participated in the movements during 1940
A) Malabar tenant cultivators
B) Tebhaga tenant cultivators
C) Telangana Vetti castes
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 67.
Who declared itself as the one and only representative of Indian Muslims?
A) Indian National Congress
B) Muslim League
C) Viswa Hindu Parishad
D) All India Muslim Parishad
Answer:
B) Muslim League

Question 68.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                         Group – B
1. Rash Bihari Bose         ( )        a) Dandi Satyagraha
2. 1935                            ( )        b) Jallianwala Bagh
3. Atom Bomb                ( )        c) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. 1930                            ( )        d) Government of India Act
5. Amritsar                      ( )        e) Hiroshima
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – d
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 69.
Mahatma Gandhi spent his first year in India travelling throughout the country, understanding the people, their needs and the overall situation.
Pick the correct comment.
A) He travelled to visit India.
B) He was a tourist guide.
C) He travelled to estimate the needs of the people and the country.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) He travelled to estimate the needs of the people and the country.

Question 70.
“Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the Non-cooperation Movement in February 1992.”
Pick the correct comment.
A) He was in favour of British rule.
B) The movement turned from Satyagraha to violence.
C) He wanted to take a rest for some time.
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) The movement turned from Satyagraha to violence.

Question 71.
Communal organisations sprang up in India in the early years of the 20th century as the tide of nationalism too was rising.
Name one such organisation.
A) TRS
B) AIML
C) BJP
D) All the above
Answer:
B) AIML

Question 72.
Louis Mountbatten was appointed as Viceroy in early 1947 and was not able to resolve the differences.
Who was the Viceroy when India got freedom?
A) Mountbatten
B) Cripps
C) Lawrence
D) Alexander
Answer:
A) Mountbatten

Question 73.
Whose death is still a mystery in Indian national leaders?
A) Gandhiji
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Sanjay Gandhi
D) N.S.C. Bose
Answer:
D) N.S.C. Bose

Question 74.
Guntur district was at the centre of …………. activity.
A) Local
B) Nationalist
C) Regional
D) None
Answer:
B) Nationalist

Question 75.
Who led the Chirala-Perala movement?
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Tanguturi Prakasam Panthulu
C) Duggirala Gopala Krishnayya
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
C) Duggirala Gopala Krishnayya

Question 76.
Subhash Chandra Bose formed INA with the help of this person in Burma and Andaman.
A) Rash Bihari Bose
B) Bhagat Singh
C) Rajguru
D) Sukhdev
Answer:
A) Rash Bihari Bose

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11A National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
With the growth of …………. Education during the late nineteenth century a new consciousness began to develop.
A) English
B) Old
C) Sanskrit
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) English

Question 2.
East India Association was organized in 1866 by ……………..
A) Gandhiji
B) Naoroji
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Bipin Chandrapal
Answer:
B) Naoroji

Question 3.
The first session of the Indian National Congress at ……………. in 1885.
A) Delhi
B) Lucknow
C) Bombay
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 4.
In 1886, delegates to the Congress numbering ……………. were elected by different local organizations.
A) 536
B) 336
C) 236
D) 436
Answer:
D) 436

Question 5.
Kadambari Ganguli was the first woman graduate from
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Tirupathi
Answer:
A) Calcutta

Question 6.
Naoroji studied the …………….. of the British Rule.
A) Religious impact
B) Financial impact
C) Social impact
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Financial impact

Question 7.
The proposal of the partition of Bengal was in ………………… year.
A) 1900
B) 1901
C) 1903
D) 1905
Answer:
C) 1903

Question 8.
The system introduced by the British in India during the time of First World War
A) raising taxes
B) exporting food and other necessities to the army
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 9.
In 1907 the Indian National Congress split into ………………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 10.
The First World War lasted for …………….. years.
A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 3
Answer:
B) 5

Question 11.
The first revolt against the British rule throughout the country.
A) Rampa revolt
B) Mepla revolt
C) 1857 revolt
D) All the above
Answer:
C) 1857 revolt

Question 12.
A new consciousness began to develop after English education was introduced during the ……………. century, in some major cities like Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
B) 19

Question 13.
The seeds of a new consciousness were sown in ………..
A) the second half of 18th century
B) the first half of 19th century
C) the second half of 19th century
D) the first half of 19th century
Answer:
C) the second half of 19th century

Question 14.
In ……………. Dodabhai Naoroji organized the “East India Association” in London to discuss the Indian question.
A) 1860
B) 1865
C) 1866
D) 1870
Answer:
C) 1866

Question 15.
During …………… various leaders like Surendranath Banerjee, Justice M.G. Ranade, Badruddin Tyabji, K.C. Telang and G. Subramaniam organised associations in Calcutta, pune, Bombay and Madras.
A) 1860 – 80
B) 1866 – 85
C) 1870 – 80
D) 1860 – 85
Answer:
B) 1866 – 85

Question 16.
The Moderate Phase in the history of Indian National Congress.
A) 1885 – 1905
B) 1905 – 1919
C) 1919 – 1947
D) All the above
Answer:
A) 1885 – 1905

Question 17.
The December 1885, session of Indian National Congress was presided over by
A) A.O. Hume
B) W.C. Benarjee
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
B) W.C. Benarjee

Question 18.
The December 1885 session of Indian National Congress was attended by …………… delegates.
A) 70
B) 72
C) 73
D) 74
Answer:
B) 72

Question 19.
The famous leaders of the modern phase
A) Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta
B) Badruddin Tyabji, W.C. Benarjee
C) Surendranath Benerjee, Ramesh Chandra Dutt
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
The founder of the Indian National Congress
A) W.C. Banerjee
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) A.O. Hume
Answer:
D) A.O. Hume

Question 21.
The main objectives of Indian National Congress
A) to create a common political platform
B) by taking up those grievances and fighting for those rights which Indians had in common in relation to the rulers
C) to study the grievances of people and wrote appeals to the government.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 22.
In 1886, ……………. delegates were elected to the Congress by different local bodies.
A) 400
B) 420
C) 430
D) 436
Answer:
D) 436

Question 23.
Who was the first woman graduate from Calcutta?
A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
C) Both A & B
D) Kadambari Ganguli
Answer:
D) Kadambari Ganguli

Question 24.
During first …………… years, the Congress was led by the leaders who are known as Moderate Nationalists.
A) 10
C) 20
B) 15
D) 25
Answer:
C) 20

Question 25.
The main interest of the moderates
A) They wanted the Imperial Legislative Council to be made more representative
B) Civil Services Examinations are to be held in India.
C) Indians are to be placed in higher positions.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The Patrika that carried on Publicity for all the phases of Indian’s struggle for freedom
A) The Hindu
B) The Krishna Patrika
C) Andhra Bhoomi
D) Enaadu
Answer:
B) The Krishna Patrika

Question 27.
The Indian National Congress made resolutions on these issues.
A) Tax on salt
B) Treatment of Indian laborers abroad
C) The sufferings of forest dwellers caused by an interfering forest administration
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
The moderate leaders reached out to people in different parts of the country by holding tours.
A) Lectures
B) Meetings
C) Tours
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
The extremist phase in the history of the Indian National Congress.
A) 1885 – 1905
B) 1905 – 1920
C) 1920 – 1947
D) 1947 – 1950
Answer:
B) 1905 – 1920

Question 30.
Women, students and a large section of the urban and rural population of Bengal and other parts of India became actively involved in politics for the first time.
A) Moderate phase
B) Extremist phase
C) Gandhian phase
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Extremist phase

Question 31.
Curzon proposed the partition of Bengal in
A) 1900
B) 1902
C) 1903
D) 1905
Answer:
C) 1903

Question 32.
The Bengal was divided in
A) 1905
B) 1909
C) 1919
D) 1935
Answer:
A) 1905

Question 33.
Mutnuri Krishna Rao was died in
A) 1905
B) 1940
C) 1945
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 1945

Question 34.
The movement that encouraged Indian industries
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Swarule Movement
C) Non-Cooperation Movement
D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
A) Swadeshi Movement

Question 35.
The movement gave a stimulus to P.C. Ray’s Bengal chemical works
A) Self rule Movement
B) Swadeshi movement
C) Non co-operation movement
D) Civil disobedience movement
Answer:
B) Swadeshi movement

Question 36.
“Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it” – This slogan was given by
A) B.G. Tilak
B) Bipin Chandrapal
C) Lala Lajapathi Rai
D) All the above
Answer:
A) B.G. Tilak

Question 37.
They called the moderate phase as ‘Mendicancy’.
A) B.G. Tilak
B) Bipin Chandrapal
C) Lala Lajapathi Rai
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
The split in congress was in this meeting.
A) Surat meeting
B) Lucknow meeting
C) Bombay meeting
D) Calcutta meeting
Answer:
A) Surat meeting

Question 39.
The year of the Surat session
A) 1906
B) 1907
C) 1909
D) 1911
Answer:
B) 1907

Question 40.
On 16th October 1905, the day the partition of Bengal went into effect, was observed in Bengal as a day of ……………
A) Mourning
B) Very sad
C) being insulted
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Mourning

Question 41.
The other name of Swadeshi movement
A) Vandemataram movement
B) Civil disobedience movement
C) Swarule movement
D) None
Answer:
A) Vandemataram movement

Question 42.
The ‘Krishna Pathrika’ was started in Machilipatnam in 1902 by …………..
A) Raghupathi Venkata Ratnam Naidu
B) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
C) Kandukuri Veeresalingam panthulu
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
B) Mutnuri Krishna Rao

Question 43.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                               Group – B
1) Krishna Patrika                      ( )                     a) Curzon
2) 1905, October 16                  ( )                     b) Beginning of World War – I
3) 1915                                      ( )                     c) Tilak release
4) Partition of Bengal                ( )                     d) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
5) 1914                                      ( )                     e) A Day of Mourning
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 44.
AO. Hume, a retired British official played an important role in establishing the I.N.C.
Pick the correct comment.
A) A.O. Hume is the God Father of INC.
B) He was eagerly waiting for Indian independence.
C) It is his safety value method intended to extend the British rule in India for some more period.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
The extremists called the moderates’ strategy as ‘mendicancy’.
Mendicancy means
A) Fighting
B) Opposing
C) Begging for alms
D) None
Answer:
C) Begging for alms

Question 46.
‘The textile industry of India, in particular received a great impetus from the Swadeshi Movement.’
Swadeshi Movement means
A) Use the goods of our own land
B) Should not touch the mother land goods
C) Use the British goods only
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Use the goods of our own land

Question 47.
The First World War broke out in 1914 with Britain, France, Russia on one side and Germany and its allies on the other side.
India participated in the World War -1 in the favour of
A) Germany
B) Japan
C) Britain
D) Australia
Answer:
C) Britain

Question 48.
The newspaper which was started in Telugu during the Independence movement was
A) Eenadu
B) Krishna Patrika
C) Sakshi
D) Andhra Jyothi
Answer:
B) Krishna Patrika

Question 49.
Jamshedji Tata of Bombay opened his famous in Bihar.
A) Textile factory
B) Cement factory
C) Atom reactor
D) Iron & Steel plant
Answer:
D) Iron & Steel plant

Question 50.
Who studied the economic impact of British Rule?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) R.C. Dutt
C) Mahadev Govinda Ranade
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 51.
The agitation against the Bengal partition
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Self Movement
C) Non-Cooperation Movement
D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
A) Swadeshi Movement

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
During the time of Mughal emperors, …………………. collected land revenue from the peasants.
A) emperor
B) revenue department
C) zamindars
D) sirazdars
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 2.
During the British reign, there were great ……………. in India.
A) deeds
B) investments
C) benefits
D) famines
Answer:
D) famines

Question 3.
In ……………… Cornwallis was the Governor General.
A) 1947
B) 1793
C) 1856
D) 1857
Answer:
B) 1793

Question 4.
The barrage in Krishna and Guntur districts …………….
A) Dhawaleshwaram
B) Prakasam
C) Sir Arthur Cotton
D) Keesara
Answer:
B) Prakasam

Question 5.
An anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1820
B) 1800
C) 1849
D) 1856
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 6.
In Mahabubnagar and Nalgonda districts, there were Doras who owned more than a thousand acres of land.
A) 500
B) 550
C) 600
D) 650
Answer:
B) 550

Question 7.
In …………… there was a civil war in America.
A) 1851
B) 1871
C) 1841
D) 1861
Answer:
D) 1861

Question 8.
The number of famines in the second half of the Nineteenth century
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 14
Answer:
B) 11

Question 9.
Patwari was a …………. official.
A) Mandal
B) Village
C) District
D) State
Answer:
B) Village

Question 10.
The peasants formed to carry their agitation forward and demanded abolition of landlordism, reduction of land revenue and control over moneylenders.
A) Rythu Sabha
B) Kisan Sabhas
C) Kisan Mela
D) Kisan Jagruthi
Answer:
B) Kisan Sabhas

Question 11.
The small forts of landlords in Telangana are called as
A) Buruju
B) Forts
C) Gadis
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Gadis

Question 12.
The own lands of Zamindars were called
A) Enams
B) Kudhkhasht
C) Qidmatgars
D) None
Answer:
B) Kudhkhasht

Question 13.
The roles of Zamindars
A) collecting taxes
B) having land
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 14.
In …………….. the peasants of Awadh in Uttar Pradesh took out huge processions to protest against the Zamindars who were extracting money from them.
A) 1920-22
B) 1922-24
C) 1924-26
D) 1926-28
Answer:
A) 1920-22

Question 15.
The famous peasant movements were the Deccan ryots of ……………… s.
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1872
Answer:
B) 1860

Question 16.
The permanent settlement system was introduced by ………………
A) Warren Hastings
B) Corn Wallis
C) Bentinck
D) Wellesly
Answer:
B) Corn Wallis

Question 17.
The Permanent Settlement System was introduced in the year.
A) 1790
B) 1791
C) 1792
D) 1973
Answer:
D) 1973

Question 18.
The Zamindars collected ………….. rather than revenue from them.
A) the income from auction
B) rent
C) riped crop
D) none
Answer:
B) rent

Question 19.
The prices of the grains rose and cultivation slowly expanded in this year.
A) 1800
B) 1810
C) 1820
D) 1840
Answer:
C) 1820

Question 20.
Ceded districts means
A) Bellary, Anantapn
B) Kadapa
C) Kurnool
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name of Ceded districts
A) Stone seema
B) Karnataka
C) Rayalaseema
D) None
Answer:
C) Rayalaseema

Question 22.
In this year Thomas Munro came to Rayalaseema districts as Collector.
A) 1700
B) 1800
C) 1900
D) 1850
Answer:
B) 1800

Question 23.
………….. recognised that there were no Zamindars in South like North.
A) Bentinck
B) Thomas Munro
C) Wellesly
D) Robert Clive
Answer:
B) Thomas Munro

Question 24.
Recognising the importance of the peasants, Munro devised the Ryotwari settlement in entire.
A) South India
B) Western India
C) Both A & B
D) Northern India
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
Ryotwari means
A) Farmer
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation
C) Landcess
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation

Question 26.
Before the cultivation commenced in Munro made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones.
A) 1801 – 02
B) 1802 – 03
C) 1803 – 04
D) 1804 – 05
Answer:
A) 1801 – 02

Question 27.
Due to the untiring efforts of Sir Arthur Cotton, an anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1849
D) 1850
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 28.
Severe Famine was occured in the year.
A) 1800
B) 1830
C) 1833
D) 1836
Answer:
C) 1833

Question 29.
An anicut was constructed on the river Krishna in
A) 1850
B) 1852
C) 1853
D) 1854
Answer:
D) 1854

Question 30.
The Kurnool – Cuddapah (KC) canal was dug in the year.
A) 1850
B) 1855
C) 1857
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1857

Question 31.
The tenants had to pay rent that was times more than the land revenue paid by the ryots to the government.
A) 2 – 5
B) 3 – 7
C) 4 – 8
D) 5 – 9
Answer:
B) 3 – 7

Question 32.
In the first half of 19th century, they tried to collect maximum land revenue through
A) Kudramukh
B) Deshmukh
C) Patwari
D) Patel
Answer:
B) Deshmukh

Question 33.
In Nizams rule the large landlords were called
A) Gadis
B) Doras
C) Landlords
D) Pettandars
Answer:
B) Doras

Question 34.
The Civil war in America was started in
A) 1860
B) 1861
C) 1862
D) 1863
Answer:
B) 1861

Question 35.
The Civil war in America ended in
A) 1865
B) 1867
C) 1873
D) 1877
Answer:
A) 1865

Question 36.
The effect of the Civil war in American showed on India in this way
A) the demand for cotton fell
B) the demand for cotton increased
C) increase in exports of agricultural products
D) exports of agricultural products are as it is
Answer:
A) the demand for cotton fell

Question 37.
In the Hyderabad state there were about 1500 Jagirs spread over 6535 villages and samsthanams over 497 villages.
A) 16
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 38.
During the colonial period, the peasants were forced to do work without wages.
A) Vetti
B) Slavery
C) Getting services
D) None
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 39.
The plight of Vetti can be understood through a government report written in
A) 1800
B) 1870
C) 1878
D) 1880
Answer:
C) 1878

Question 40.
The peasants also had to regularly supply to Zamindars.
A) ghee, milk
B) vegetables, jaggery
C) gross, dung cakes
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
“The ……………. also prevent the peasants from improving their fields because they are afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their nights over the land.
A) farmers
B) landlords
C) zamindars
D) coolies
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 42.
The revenue that was shared to the Nizam was called
A) Hindukhush
B) Peshkash
C) Enam
D) Adangal
Answer:
B) Peshkash

Question 43.
The zamindars also owned land on which the labourers worked. This was called their ‘self-cultivated’ land or Khudkhasht lands.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Zamindars worked on these lands.
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.
C) Zamindars donated these lands to the poor.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.

Question 44.

Pick the correct statement.
A) This barrage connected the Krishna and Guntur districts.
B) This barrage changed the fate of Krishna delta.
C) This is a boon by Sir Arthur Cotton.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
‘The peasants also had to regularly supply ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, straw, cowdung cakes, etc. free of cost to the zamindar’s house.’
This was a form of
A) gifts
B) boons
C) custom
D) exploitation
Answer:
D) exploitation

Question 46.
Famines, or massive food shortages leading to acute distress, were a regular feature of the British rule.
This was a regular feature of the British rule
A) Surplus food
B) Shortage of food grains
C) Low quality of grains
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shortage of food grains

Question 47.
‘Peasants fled the countryside’ – The reason was
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue
B) conducting attacks
C) giving hard punishments
D) All the above
Answer:
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue

Question 48.
This was happened because of land revenue introduced by the Britishers.
A) Farmers suffered from loans
B) Farmers achieved more progress
C) Farmers growed more crops
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Farmers suffered from loans

Question 49.
This is due to decrease in demand of cotton
A) farmers changed as beggers
B) food grains are scarce
C) severe famine
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
This program is introduced to feed the children in our state
A) Annadaata
B) Antyodaya
C) MDM
D) Velugu Project
Answer:
C) MDM

Question 51.
Peasants very often borrowed money from in order to pay their land revenue.
A) Moneylenders
B) Zamindars
C) Banks
D) Organisations
Answer:
A) Money lenders

Question 52.
During the colonial period the peasants were forced to do
A) Vetti
B) Cultivation
C) Work
D) Donations
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 53.
The Britishers raised this tax to increase their income in India
A) Pullari tax
B) Property tax
C) Landcess
D) Ganachari tax
Answer:
C) Landcess

Question 54.
The agricultural products that were exported to England from India
A) Cotton, Blue
B) Sugarcane, Wheat
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 55.
Andhra, like the rest of the country, suffered from severe famines in the centuries.
A) 19
B) 20
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
The severe famine occured in Ganjam
A) 1865 – 66
B) 1867 – 68
C) 1869 – 70
D) 1870 – 71
Answer:
A) 1865 – 66

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Public Health and the Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Approximately …………… new doctors qualify every year.
A) 50,000
B) 20,000
C) 10,000
D) 15,000
Answer:
D) 15,000

Question 2.
At the …………… level, there is a volunteer called ‘ASHA Worker’, who helps people in getting health services.
A) Village
B) Mandal
C) Z.P.
D) District
Answer:
A) Village

Question 3.
Community Health Centre has
A) 50 beds
B) 30 beds
C) 80 beds
D) 100 beds
Answer:
B) 30 beds

Question 4.
In a village, everyone must be involved to see that the water near taps/hand pumps does not form stagnant pools where …………… breed.
A) wildlife
B) flies
C) mosquitoes
D) cattle
Answer:
C) mosquitoes

Question 5.
In A.P. about …………… % of the children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 36
D) 39
Answer:
B) 33

Question 6.
BMI means
A) Body Mass Index
B) Body Dharma Index
C) Body Mentality Index
D) Body Shape Index
Answer:
A) Body Mass Index

Question 7.
…………… is essential for life and good health.
A) Water
B) Money
C) Fast food
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Water

Question 8.
An example of a public facility is
A) Aeroplane journey
B) Private school study
C) Sanitation
D) Private health care
Answer:
C) Sanitation

Question 9.
…………….. must take the responsibility for providing public facilities.
A) Organisations
B) Institutes
C) M.L.A.s and M.P.s
D) Government
Answer:
D) Government

Question 10.
Public facilities relate to people’s
A) basic needs
B) luxuries
C) comforts
D) duties
Answer:
A) basic needs

Question 11.
Which one fulfils the primary needs of the people?
A) People
B) Government
C) Landlords
D) Capitalists
Answer:
B) Government

Question 12.
These are needed to cure diseases and to treat
A) Health centres
B) Laboratories for diagnosis
C) Ambulance services, blood banks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
Medical science achieved good progress in this sector.
A) Technical knowledge
B) Treating procedure
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
Medical colleges are in plenty in this country
A) China
B) India
C) America
D) France
Answer:
B) India

Question 15.
The hospital which has 100 beds at the division level
A) PHC
B) Area hospital
C) Praja Vydhyasala
D) None
Answer:
B) Area hospital

Question 16.
The number of government hospitals in India in 1950
A) 2717
B) 2750
C) 2317
D) 2417
Answer:
A) 2717

Question 17.
The number of government hospitals in 1991 in India
A) 11,000
B) 11,174
C) 11,274
D) 11,374
Answer:
B) 11,174

Question 18.
The number of government hospitals in India by the year 2000
A) 18,218
B) 19,140
C) 20,150
D) 21,150
Answer:
A) 18,218

Question 19.
At the village level, there is a volunteer called …………… who helps people in getting health services.
A) Asha worker
B) Arogya worker
C) Civil health officer
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Asha worker

Question 20.
ASHA means
A) Accredited Social Health Activist
B) Accredited Social Health Association
C) Accredited Service Health Acadamy
D) Accredited Service Health Activist
Answer:
A) Accredited Social Health Activist

Question 21.
The subcentre covers a population of people.
A) 4000
B) 5000
C) 6000
D) 7000
Answer:
B) 5000

Question 22.
Each PHC covers a population of
A) 20,000
B) 25,000
C) 30,000
D) 35,000
Answer:
C) 30,000

Question 23.
For every PHCs, there is a Community Health Centre which is a 30-bed hospital and has some specialists.
A) 2 – 3
B) 3 – 4
C) 4 – 5
D) 5 – 6
Answer:
C) 4 – 5

Question 24.
At the divisional level is the Area Hospital that has …………… beds.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Answer:
B) 100

Question 25.
They do get food to eat but less than what is required, therefore their starvation is not visible.
A) visible starvation
B) invisible starvation
C) more starvation
D) none
Answer:
B) invisible starvation

Question 26.
R.M.P. means
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas
B) Doctors in rural areas
C) Medical students in rural areas
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas

Question 27.
This is needed for our body to be healthy, regular daily work not to be ill-health
A) water
B) oils
C) fat
D) proteins
Answer:
C) fat

Question 28.
The situation in public service at present has changed due to the services of
A) 108
B) 104
C) Both A & B
D) 100
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
…………….. reaches in time to provide first aid in emergency cases and also provide access by taking the victims for further follow-up medication at the nearby health centre.
A) 100
B) 101
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
D) 108

Question 30.
…………… is a vehicle with health personnel and medicines providing monthly visits to rural areas for health checkups providing medicine, etc.
A) 101
B) 103
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
C) 104

Question 31.
…………… of the population can afford the cost of medicines that they require during an illness.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 20%

Question 32.
It was reported in a study that people who are admitted to the hospital for some illness or injury have to borrow money or sell some of their possessions to pay the expenses.
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 33.
This is essential for life and good health
A) water
B) food
C) meat
D) alcohol consumption
Answer:
A) water

Question 34.
Over …………. Indians, reportedly die every day because of water-related diseases.
A) 1500
B) 1600
C) 1700
D) 1800
Answer:
B) 1600

Question 35.
This is related to the basic need
A) Health Services
B) Cleaning
C) Electricity, Civil Transport, School
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
The main aim of private companies.
A) service motto
B) earning profits
C) price fixation
D) none
Answer:
B) earning profits

Question 37.
These are needed for a healthy life
A) Food
B) Protected fresh water
C) Cleaning
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
India is the fourth-largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a large exporter of medicines.
Pick the correct comment.
A) All the Indians are sick people.
B) India only produces medicines.
C) India only exports medicines.
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.
Answer:
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.

Question 39.
But the situation in public service at present is somewhat changed due to the services of ‘108’ and ‘104’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The two services worsened the situation.
B) The two services improved the situation.
C) There is no change.
D) I cannot say.
Answer:
B) The two services improved the situation.

Question 40.
Safe drinking water can prevent many water-related diseases.
Name the water-related disease.
A) Diarrhoea
B) Dysentery
C) Cholera
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 41.
Department of AYUSH: looks after local systems of medicine such as Ayurveda, Homoeopathy, Unani, Siddha and research in them.
This does not come under the department of AYUSH
A) Homoeopathy
B) Naturopathy
C) Allopathy
D) Unani
Answer:
C) Allopathy

Question 42.
The Indian Constitution provides the Right to life to all the people. The reason is
A) Providing respectful life to all
B) lack of self-reliance
C) creating equal facilities for all
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Providing respectfull life to all

Question 43.
Medicine is too expensive for some chronic diseases for ordinary people. So if the public gets they may get qualitative services.
A) Medical education
B) Health insurance
C) Health Facility
D) Health protection
Answer:
B) Health insurance

Question 44.
Name the health programme introduced by our government to help the poor.
A) Arogyasri
B) EHS
C) Health Insurance
D) Star Health
Answer:
A) Arogyasri

Question 45.
India is the largest producer of medicines in the world.
A) 5th
B) 2nd
C) 4th
D) 6th
Answer:
C) 4th

Question 46.
…………. is too expensive for some chronic diseases to the public.
A) Nursing
B) Medicines
C) Transport facilities
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Medicines

Question 47.
The main aim of the Public Health System
A) Health care services to the poor
B) To take action to prevent the spread of diseases such as T.B., Malaria, Jaundice, Cholera, Diarrhoea, Chikungunya, etc.
C) Providing better services to the poor
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 48.
This develops immunity systems
A) better nutrition
B) better proteins
C) better water
D) none
Answer:
A) better nutrition

Question 49.
About ……………. % of the women are undernourished in A.P.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 31
D) 25
Answer:
C) 31

Question 50.
In Andhra Pradesh about …………. % of men are undernourished.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
Answer:
B) 25

Question 51.
India occupies ………….. place in the production of medicines.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Impact of Technology on Livelihoods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There was a tremendous change in the method of production during the ………….. centuries.
A) 18th, 19th
B) 15th, 16th
C) 11th, 12th
D) 8th, 9th
Answer:
A) 18th, 19th

Question 2.
When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time, it is called a/an ……………….
A) discovery
B) invention
C) opening
D) beginning
Answer:
B) invention

Question 3.
In India, when …………… were first introduced, people thought that they would lose their jobs.
A) machines
B) engines
C) cranes
D) computers
Answer:
D) computers

Question 4.
………….. goods were produced mostly for self and some for the market.
A) Industrial
B) Agricultural
C) Mining
D) Electrical
Answer:
B) Agricultural

Question 5.
……………. run on electricity or diesel were used to draw water.
A) Machines
B) Generators
C) Pump sets
D) Buckets
Answer:
C) Pump sets

Question 6.
After independence, the government began building ………………
A) temples
B) palaces
C) farmhouses
D) dams
Answer:
D) dams

Question 7.
………….. began to be used for transportation and many agricultural operations.
A) Rickshaws
B) Tractors
C) Trucks
D) Cars
Answer:
B) Tractors

Question 8.
Use of agricultural machinery made the agricultural workers to work on ………….. basis.
A) monthly
B) annual
C) fort-night
D) daily
Answer:
D) daily

Question 9.
Creation of a new machine or production procedure for the first time.
A) knowing
B) invention
C) finding
D) all the above
Answer:
B) invention

Question 10.
This is used instead of Rubber
A) Fibre
B) Plastic
C) German Silver
D) Silver
Answer:
B) Plastic

Question 11.
This is introduced by Henry Ford to speed up the manufacturing of cars in America.
A) Assembly
B) Assembly express
C) Assembly line
D) Third assembly
Answer:
C) Assembly line

Question 12.
Agricutural system at the time of independence is
A) extensive
B) podu agriculture
C) intensive
D) traditional agriculture
Answer:
D) traditional agriculture

Question 13.
The change in agriculture after independence
A) improvement in irrigation facilities
B) encouraging the usage of Borewells
C) using motor pumps that are run by electricity or diesel
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 14.
Combined Harvestor means
A) It harvests the crop
B) it threshes the crop
C) It cleans the grain from chaff
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
Use of CH saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in the coastal states.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
According to a 2003 study of CH its charge is about Rs. ……………….. per day.
A) 1000 – 1200
B) 1100 – 1400
C) 1300 – 1500
D) 1400 – 1600
Answer:
B) 1100 – 1400

Question 17.
CH harvests paddy fields of about one acre in ………….. hour.
A) one
B) 1/2 an
C) 3/4 th
D) 1/4 th
Answer:
A) one

Question 18.
The number of workers (in crores) in different sections of the textile industry.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer:
B) 10

Question 19.
From this year, there is an increase in the share of textile production through mills.
A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1777
D) 1980
Answer:
D) 1980

Question 20.
The number of employees in Powerlooms.
A) 50 lakh
B) 60 lakh
C) 70 lakh
D) 80 lakh
Answer:
B) 60 lakh

Question 21.
The number of working handlooms in India in 1988 in lakhs.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 33
D) 35
Answer:
C) 33

Question 22.
The number of working handlooms in India in 2009-10 in lakhs.
A) 24
B) 26
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
A) 24

Question 23.
The amount of cloth produced per worker in power looms is about times higher than in handlooms because of the use of mechanised technology.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6

Question 24.
There were only land phones in India up to
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1990

Question 25.
All over India, mobile phones have grown from 50 lakhs subscribers in 2001 to over ……………. crores subscribers by May 2012.
A) 9.9
B) 92.9
C) 95.9
D) 98.4
Answer:
B) 92.9

Question 26.
The mobile connections are …………….. times more than landlines.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
A) 20

Question 27.
Mobile phones were introduced in
A) 1990
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Answer:
B) 1995

Question 28.
Between these years, persons receiving the call and persons making the call were required to pay
A) 1995 – 2002
B) 1996 – 2003
C) 2002 – 2007
D) 2007 – 2009
Answer:
A) 1995 – 2002

Question 29.
In 1994, if somebody wished to talk on a landline phone for 3 mts to a person 500 kms away, one had to spend Rs. …………
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
C) 28

Question 30.
The mobile handsets produced in India are now exporting to more than …………. countries around the world.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 31.
Think of all the complicated machinery and technology used nowadays – in space explorations, in factories, in transport, and so on.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Machinery and technology are complicated.
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.

Question 32.
Combined Harvester (CH) is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from the chaff.
Pick the correct comment.
A) CH is an important machine but not works well.
B) CH is used in all harvests.
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.

Question 33.
Whenever you talk on your mobile phone, switch on the TV or work on your computer, you are using the
A) latest technology
B) very latest technology
C) old traditional technology
D) all the above
Answer:
B) very latest technology

Question 34.
Suppose there are 250 agricultural labourers in a village which has 1000 acres of paddy, if a Combined Harvester is used, it will complete the work in 55 days working 18 hours every day. But each one of the 250 workers will lose days of employment.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 35.
A major difference between a Powerloom Unit and a Mill producing cloth is the scale of operation.
Which one has a large scale of operation?
A) Powerloom unit
B) Mill
C) Both A and B
D) Don’t know
Answer:
B) Mill

Question 36.
In the 1980s there are only land phones. But now we have cell phones. This is a …………….. change.
A) Structural
B) Technological
C) Social
D) Traditional
Answer:
B) Technological

Question 37.
The reason for an increase in agricultural products
A) latest technology in agriculture
B) using agricultural machines
C) improvement of irrigational facilities
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 38.
‘Cell phone / Mobile is an important device in our life.’
A) But it kills our leisure.
B) But it spoils our work.
C) But it disturbs the relations in the society.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
Henry Ford of ………………. started the Assembly Line method of production to produce more cars quickly.
A) Canada
B) Britain
C) the U.S.A.
D) China
Answer:
C) the U.S.A.

Question 40.
Plastic is used instead of
A) rubber
B) copper
C) gold
D) platinum
Answer:
A) rubber

Question 41.
An example of the latest technology
A) Space research
B) Industries
C) Transport
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
In the 19th century these opposed power looms in England.
A) labour
B) peasants
C) craft persons
D) all the above
Answer:
C) craft persons

Question 43.
This creates more employment in India after agriculture.
A) textile industry
B) jute industry
C) tea industry
D) sugar industry
Answer:
A) textile industry

Question 44.
The introduced power looms in India.
A) British
B) French
C) Dutch
D) Portuguese
Answer:
A) British

Question 45.
High quality of clothes are produced by
A) Handlooms
B) Mills
C) Artists
D) Hand skill
Answer:
B) Mills

Question 46.
The main problem faced by the workers in power looms
A) Food insecurity, malnutrition
B) Anaemia, T.B.
C) Asthma, gynaecological illness among women
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
This influences the service sector
A) technological knowledge changes
B) economic progress
C) industries
D) none
Answer:
A) technological knowledge changes

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Money and Banking on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Money and Banking with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In ……………… district children exchange toys made from bamboo in exchange for rice.
A) Karimnagar
B) Warangal
C) Hyderabad
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
D) Srikakulam

Question 2.
If we use ……………., there will be no problem in exchanging commodities.
A) materials
B) money
C) metals
D) grains
Answer:
B) money

Question 3.
‘Pana’ was the standard currency in the …………… period.
A) Mauryan
B) Sindhu
C) Mughal
D) Aryan
Answer:
A) Mauryan

Question 4.
Hundis means ………….
A) coins
B) punched coins
C) paper money
D) gold coins
Answer:
C) paper money

Question 5.
Jagatseths of ………….. were one of the early bankers in India.
A) Gujarath
B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bengal
Answer:
D) Bengal

Question 6.
Bank means
A) Capital organisation
B) Commercial organisation
C) Savings organisation
D) Loan organisation
Answer:
B) Commercial organisation

Question 7.
Money is ………………….. in bank.
A) dangerous
B) safe
C) expensive
D) useless
Answer:
B) safe

Question 8.
Nowadays are widely used for making payments and receiving money.
A) hundis
B) drafts
C) cheques
D) bonds
Answer:
C) cheques

Question 9.
Current account is mostly used by
A) businessmen
B) employees
C) teachers
D) farmers
Answer:
A) businessmen

Question 10.
A fixed deposit is also called
A) credit card
B) term deposit
C) small savings
D) debit card
Answer:
B) term deposit

Question 11.
Exchanging of one good with another good.
A) Barter system
B) Good instead
C) Good purchase
D) None
Answer:
A) Barter system

Question 12.
The deposit has more rate of interest
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 13.
………….. works as a consuming medium.
A) Good
B) Cash
C) Bank
D) None
Answer:
B) Cash

Question 14.
…………….. is treated as wealth in very olden days.
A) Grains
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) Water
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 15.
The golden coin in the Roman period
A) Besant
B) Tanka
C) Dham
D) Punch
Answer:
A) Besant

Question 16.
The silver coin in the Mauryan period
A) Besant
B) Pana
C) karsha
D) Satamana
Answer:
B) Pana

Question 17.
These were developed due to the branches of goldsmiths.
A) Paper money
B) Hundis
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
One cannot withdraw amount in a given period.
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Commercial deposit
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 19.
Online banking services can be gotten through these
A) Debit Card
B) Credit Card
C) Net Banking, Phone banking
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
In 1606 in Amsterdam, there were …………. types of silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could accepted for exchange.
A) 840
B) 846
C) 850
D) 900
Answer:
B) 846

Question 21.
……………. maintained commercial dealing
A) Banking
B) Commerce
C) Loan
D) Saving
Answer:
A) Banking

Question 22.
How many times we can withdraw cash from ATM maximum in a month?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 23.
The norms for getting loans from banks to SHGs
A) no need of guarantee
B) assets should be shown as guarantee
C) the wealthy persons should act as guarantors
D) None
Answer:
A) no need of guarantee

Question 24.
These are extensively used to withdraw and pay money at present
A) Drafts
B) Cheques
C) Debentures
D) Hundis
Answer:
B) Cheques

Question 25.
The age limit to open a savings account is ……………… years.
A) 7
B) 10
C) 15
D) 18
Answer:
B) 10

Question 26.
The account for daily transactions
A) Savings account
B) Current account
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Current account

Question 27.
The special feature of current account
A) countless withdrawals
B) Countless deposits
C) Bank pays no interest
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
ATM means
A) Automatic Teller Machine
B) Automated Teller Machine
C) Automatic Telling Machines
D) Automated Tellers Matchings
Answer:
B) Automated Teller Machine

Question 29.
Money changed its form metal to paper—
Pick the right comment.
A) Metal money has more value.
B) Paper money has more value.
C) Plastic money has more value.
D) Material has no value, only money has value.
Answer:
D) Material has no value, only money has value.

Question 30.
A Fixed Deposit or a Term Deposit cannot be withdrawn from the bank for a fixed period of time. It could be one year, two, five or seven years. The rate of interest is higher on a fixed deposit.
Pick the right comment.
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.
B) Seven years deposit has less interest.
C) Term deposit is totally different from fixed deposit.
D) No interest will be credited if it is drawn early.
Answer:
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.

Question 31.
The system of exchanging goods directly against each other without the use of money is called the Barter system.
Which one of the following comes under Barter system of exchange?
A) A salt vendor sells his salt for grains.
B) A washerman washes clothes for grains.
C) Ramu and Ravi exchanged their clothes.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
A savings/fixed/recurring bank deposit account can be opened by a minor of any age through his/her natural or legally appointed guardian.
Minor means
A) A child aged 10 years
B) A child aged 15 years
C) A child aged 17 years
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
These groups help the women in present society
A) DWCRA
B) Rythu Clubs
C) SMC
D) None
Answer:
A) DWCRA

Question 34.
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in
A) Europe
B) Eurasia
C) Russia
D) the U.S.A.
Answer:
A) Europe

Question 35.
The problems in the Barter System
A) non sinking wishes
B) differences in the values of goods
C) diving some goods is not possible
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 36.
The early bankers in India
A) Bengal – Jagatseths
B) Patna – Shahs
C) Surat – Arunji Nathji, Madras – Chettiars
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 37.
……………… city was main trade centre in Europe in 1606.
A) Paris
B) Moscow
C) Amsterdam
D) Madrid
Answer:
C) Amsterdam

Question 38.
Banks give loans to these
A) Merchants
B) Industrialists
C) Students, farmers, crafts men
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
SHG means
A) Self Help Group
B) Self Heritage Group
C) Self Historical Groupism
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Self Help Group

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Minerals and Mining on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Crude petroleum is a
A) mineral oil
B) metal
C) gas
D) solid
Answer:
A) mineral oil

Question 2.
Kolar Gold Fields are in
A) Sri Lanka
B) India
C) Indonesia
D) Bhutan
Answer:
B) India

Question 3.
Kothagudem is in ………………. valley
A) Krishna
B) Ganga
C) Narmada
D) Godavari
Answer:
D) Godavari

Question 4.
All mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the
A) government
B) company
C) a group of people
D) group of employees
Answer:
A) government

Question 5.
In …………… the government took over all mines.
A) 1980s
B) 1970s
C) 1950s
D) 1920s
Answer:
B) 1970s

Question 6.
In some coal mines the coal transported through
A) conveyor belt
B) trains
C) buses
D) lorries
Answer:
A) conveyor belt

Question 7.
Upper layer barytes are in ……………… colour.
A) red
B) yellow
C) grey
D) brown
Answer:
C) grey

Question 8.
Flooring stones are found in
A) Ranga Reddy
B) Kadapa
C) Warangal
D) Khammam
Answer:
B) Kadapa

Question 9.
The thing that we get from the earth is
A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Mineral
D) Fuel
Answer:
C) Mineral

Question 10.
Resources are classified as
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 11.
Which kind of mineral is Granite stone?
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Non-renewable

Question 12.
An example for non-renewable mineral
A) Coal
B) Crude oil
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
The ore that is used extensively in Electrical & Electronical industries
A) Lime stone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Mica (Abhrakan)
Answer:
D) Mica (Abhrakan)

Question 14.
Limestone is used extensively in these industries
A) Cement
B) Carbide
C) Iron and steel, Soda ash
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
………….. is used for cutting and polish industries.
A) Limestone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Barytes
Answer:
B) Granite

Question 16.
Barium is extracted from this mineral
A) Manganese
B) Barytes
C) Feldspar
D) Granite
Answer:
B) Barytes

Question 17.
…………. is used as raw material to make glass, ceramic goods.
A) Granite
B) Manganese
C) Barytes
D) Feldspar
Answer:
D) Feldspar

Question 18.
The marble stone is exported to these countries.
A) China
B) South-East Asia
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
Open cast mining means
A) blasting and removing granite etc.
B) arranging and blasting bombs at a depth
C) making a large pit and keep extracting the minerals
D) all the above
Answer:
A) blasting and removing granite etc.

Question 20.
To extract oil and natural gas this is to be done into the sea bed.
A) Drilling
B) Crushing
C) Blasting
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Drilling

Question 21.
Mining provides livelihood for nearly ………….. people in India.
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs
D) 20 lakhs
Answer:
B) 10 lakhs

Question 22.
Minerals are the property of
A) individuals
B) some people
C) all the people
D) not a government
Answer:
C) all the people

Question 23.
All the mines are nationalised in the year.
A) 1960
B) 1965
C) 1970
D) 1975
Answer:
C) 1970

Question 24.
A new National Mineral Policy was announced in the year.
A) 1990
B) 1991
C) 1992
D) 1993
Answer:
D) 1993

Question 25.
The SCCL was established by the British in the year.
A) 1880
B) 1886
C) 1890
D) 1892
Answer:
B) 1886

Question 26.
In this year the Nizam of Hyderabad purchased the SCCL
A) 1900
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 27.
We should reach deep for about feet to extract coal.
A) 100 – 150
B) 150 – 250
C) 200 – 300
D) 350 – 450
Answer:
C) 200 – 300

Question 28.
Holes are drilled with air compressor to plant the explosive rods.
A) Oxygen
B) Pneumatic
C) Synthetic
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Pneumatic

Question 29.
………….. packets were inserted to keep them in place.
A) Oxygen
B) Thyroxin
C) Resin
D) Air bubbles
Answer:
C) Resin

Question 30.
The poal reserves come to an end in the areas of open cast mining in these years.
A) 10 – 15
B) 15 – 20
C) 20 – 25
D) 25 – 30
Answer:
A) 10 – 15

Question 31.
When compared to open cast mining, underground mining
A) very costly
B) very less cost
C) no difference in the two
D) all of the above
Answer:
A) very costly

Question 32.
Environmentalists differentiate between two kinds of resources – renewable and non-renewable.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Renewable resources cannot be regenerated.
B) Non-renewable resources can be generated.
C) Wood is a renewable resource.
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Wood is a renewable resource.

Question 33.
Singareni Colleries provides quarters with roads, drinking water, utilization water. It gives electricity at nominal charges. It establishes schools and hospitals.
Pick the correct comment.
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.
B) SCCL employees are very poor.
C) SCCL produces electricity.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.

Question 34.
Since it is not possible to regenerate these resources they are called non¬renewable or finite resources.
Give an example for finite resource.
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Gas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
“Hollage” Means

A) Lift
B) Hall
C) Mine
D) Mike
Answer:
A) Lift

Question 36.
This kind of employees are more in government offices at present.
A) Regular
B) Contract
C) Labour
D) None
Answer:
A) Regular

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 37.
Which district has more mineral resources?
A) Prakasam
B) Nellore
C) Anantapur
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Prakasam

Question 38.
Mica is available in
A) Nellore
B) Guntur
C) Godavari
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
A) Nellore

Question 39.
Guntur district is famous for
A) Barytes
B) Limestone
C) Granite
D) Coal
Answer:
B) Limestone

Question 40.
Granite is available in
A) Chittoor
B) Visakhapatnam
C) East Godavari
D) None
Answer:
A) Chittoor

Question 41.
An example for non-renewable resource
A) Solar energy
B) Sea water
C) Coal
D) Air
Answer:
C) Coal

Question 42.
SCCL is operating 15 open cast and 35 underground mines in ……………. districts of Telangana.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 43.
The one and only gold mine in India
A) Kolar
B) Polar
C) Ramayyapet
D) Singareni
Answer:
A) Kolar

Question 44.
The Iron ore reserves in our state
A) Hematite
B) Magnatite
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
The state which has vast deposits of coal in South India
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Telangana

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Forests: Using and Protecting Them on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A large tract of land covered by trees is
A) Forest
B) Garden
C) Kitchen garden
D) Tundra Vegetation
Answer:
A) Forest

Question 2.
The forests in Kerala and Andaman are
A) Deciduous
B) Thorny
C) Evergreen
D) Monsoon
Answer:
C) Evergreen

Question 3.
Thorny forests grow in very areas.
A) Wet
B) Marshy
C) Semi wet
D) Dry
Answer:
D) Dry

Question 4.
Swamp forests grow mostly in the
A) Sea coasts
B) Deserts
C) Plateaus
D) Hilly regions
Answer:
A) Sea coasts

Question 5.
No one could enter in these forests
A) Reserved
B) Protected
C) Confirous
D) Evergreen
Answer:
B) Protected

Question 6.
Podu cultivation in is a practice in
A) Plateaus
B) Plains
C) Hilly areas
D) Seacoasts
Answer:
C) Hilly areas

Question 7.
Forest Rights Act was introduced in the year
A) 2004
B) 2000
C) 2003
D) 2006
Answer:
D) 2006

Question 8.
The agriculture in forest
A) extensive agriculture
B) shifting agriculture
C) traditional agriculture
D) mixed agriculture
Answer:
B) shifting agriculture

Question 9.
These use forests
A) Human beings
B) Animals, plants
C) Birds, fishes, insects
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 10.
The easy definition of forest
A) the large tract of land covered by trees
B) the thick forest with birds
C) the dense forest with animals
D) none
Answer:
A) the large tract of land covered by trees

Question 11.
The main feature of the forest is
A) large landmass
B) trees and undergrowth bushes
C) considerable bio-diversity
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 12.
Slowly, by the beginning of century, forests were confined to only tracts that were not useful for agriculture.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
C) 20

Question 13.
Forest can be classified on the basis of
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is
B) soil
C) leaves
D) all the above
Answer:
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is

Question 14.
…………….. trees will only grow in very cold climates which also have snowfall.
A) Devdar
B) Brahmajemudu
C) Nagajemudu
D) Teak
Answer:
A) Devdar

Question 15.
The tree that grow in Evergreen forests.
A) Kadambam
B) Bamboo
C) Neredu/Jamun
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main kind of tree family that grow in the Evergreen forests of the Himalayas.
A) Thumma
B) Devadar
C) Jittegi
D) Teak
Answer:
B) Devadar

Question 17.
These forests grow in the regions where it rains only for some months and is warm and dry for most of the year.
A) Evergreen
B) Deciduous
C) Thorny
D) Coastal
Answer:
B) Deciduous

Question 18.
The main kind of tree family in Deciduous forests.
A) Vegi
B) Aegisa
C) Maddi
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
An example for a tree that grow in less rain region.
i) Maddi, Teak
ii) Velaga, Aegisa
iii) Yepi.Tuniki
iv) Billu, Vepa, Dirisena
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 20.
The forests that grow in very dry areas with little rainfall
A) Thumma, Bulusurega
B) Sithapal, Moduga
C) Vepa
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name for sea coast tidal forests
A) Littoral and Swamp forests
B) Thorny forests
C) Evergreen forests
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Littoral and Swamp forests

Question 22.
The main trees in Littoral and swamp forests.
i) Uppu ponna, Boddu ponna
ii) Urada, Mada
iii) Thella Mada, Gundu Mada
iv) Kadili, bella
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii, iii, iv
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 23.
The area of forests in our state is ……………. kms.
A) 15,604
B) 20,064
C) 64,000
D) 30,904
Answer:
C) 64,000

Question 24.
The share of forest land in total land of Andhra Pradesh.
A) 20%
B) 23%
C) 32%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 23%

Question 25.
Only about of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest.
A) 10.05%
B) 16.65%
C) 16%
D) 20.74%
Answer:
C) 16%

Question 26.
Every year about …………….. sq.km, of forests are lost in our state.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
B) 100

Question 27.
About …………… of the people in North coastal Region of our state collect minor forest produce and sell them in local markets for earning a living.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 20%
D) 100%
Answer:
C) 20%

Question 28.
About tribal people in our state today live forests.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 29.
Before this rule tribals treated forests as their own property.
A) Kings
B) Nizam of Hyderabad
C) British rule
D) None
Answer:
C) British rule

Question 30.
Forests are classified as below.
A) Protected
B) Reserved
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 31.
In the name of forest conservation, large scale evictions occurred in the
A) 1910
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 32.
By the govt, had realised that the development of tribal people could not be thought of without giving them any rights over forests.
A) 1980
B) 1988
C) 1990
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1988

Question 33.
The National Forest Policy is declared in the year
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1988
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1988

Question 34.
The year of Forest Rights Act is
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2006
D) 2010
Answer:
C) 2006

Question 35.
In India at least, most forests are inhabited by people who have been living in them by adapting themselves to the conditions of the forests but without changing them too much.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.
B) The people in forests change the situation according to them.
C) The lifestyle of forest people is ultra modern.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.

Question 36.
Deciduous forests grow in the areas like Srikakulam, Visakhapatnam, YSR Kadapa and Kurnool.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more rain.
B) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive less rain.
C) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive no rain.
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.
Answer:
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.

Question 37.
“A large track of land covered by trees”
A) Garden
B) Kitchen garden
C) Forest
D) Lawn
Answer:
C) Forest

Question 38.
About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.
The forest cover in A.P. is this much less than the required.
A) 10% approximately
B) 20% approximately
C) 23% approximately
D) 5% approximately
Answer:
A) 10% approximately

Question 39.
These factors influence forests
A) Soil
B) Sunshine
C) Rainfall
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
The reason behind the declination of forests.
A) construction of railways
B) making of ships
C) factories, mines
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 41.
Present global warming problem arose due to
A) Forestation
B) Deforestation
C) Afforestation
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Deforestation

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 42.
This district has thorny forests
A) Kadapa
B) Chittoor
C) Ananthapur
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 43.
The district which has wet deciduous forests
A) Chittoor
B) Srikakulam
C) Ananthapur
D) Kadapa
Answer:
B) Srikakulam

Question 44.
These forests are more widespread in our state
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
C) Dry deciduous forests

Question 45.
Our state does not have these forests
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
D) Evergreen forests

Question 46.
On which side are more forests located?
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Answer:
A) North

Question 47.
……………. living around the forests use them for a variety of purposes.
A) Wild Animals
B) People
C) Cattle
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) People

Question 48.
……………… of our land is under forests.
A) 26 %
B) 24 %
C) 15 %
D) 18 %
Answer:
B) 24 %

Question 49.
Even today more than of tribal people live in forests.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 50.
The main aim of the Forest Rights Act – 2006 is
A) to conserve the forests and at the same time, ensure livelihood and food security of the forest dwellers
B) the forest dwellers who are integral to the very survival and sustainability of the forests are having forest rights on ancestral lands.
C) It has become necessary to address the long-standing insecurity of land rights and access rights of forest dwellers including those who are forced to relocate their dwelling due to state development interventions
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 51.
The tribal in forests get the permission of and use the forests.
A) govt, officials
B) village heads
C) government
D) Naxalites
Answer:
B) village heads

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 4 The Polar Regions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 4th Lesson The Polar Regions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The region which lies near the poles is called …………….
A) Polar region
B) Tropical belt
C) South temperate region
D) North temperate region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 2.
The Northern part of the continents within the Polar region is known as the
A) Arctic circle
B) Tundra
C) Prairies
D) Pampas
Answer:
B) Tundra

Question 3.
The sun begins to shine in the tundra around
A) September – October
B) June – July
C) February – March
D) August – September
Answer:
C) February – March

Question 4.
Tundra has the summer of …………. months.
A) 5 months
B) 8 months
C) 9 months
D) 3 months
Answer:
D) 3 months

Question 5.
‘Igloo’ means
A) Food
B) Hunt
C) Shelter
D) Dress
Answer:
C) Shelter

Question 6.
In …………. most houses are built of stone slabs.
A) Alaska
B) Labrador
C) Norway
D) Greenland
Answer:
D) Greenland

Question 7.
Mukluks are ………………. of the Eskimos.
A) Jackets
B) Sweaters
C) Boots
D) Helmets
Answer:
C) Boots

Question 8.
Vikings were from
A) Iceland
B) Baffin Island
C) Greenland
D) Sweden
Answer:
A) Iceland

Question 9.
The region at the poles
A) Polar region
B) Nonpolar region
C) Equatorial region
D) Tropical region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 10.
Tundra vegetation means
A ) that grow in the Taiga region
B) that grow in the Tundra region
C) that grow in the desert region
D) all the above
Answer:
B) that grow in the Tundra region

Question 11.
The Sun does not rise in these months in the Tundra Region.
A) November
B) December
C) January
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
The Tundra Region becomes dark, deserted and desolate in this season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy season
D) All the seasons
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 13.
The Sun begins to shine in the Tundra around ……………..
A) February
B) March
C) Both A & B
D) December
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
For almost three months from …………… the sun never sets.
A) May to July
B) January to March
C) November to January
D) August to October
Answer:
A) May to July

Question 15.
The ………………… is the place where the earth appears to meet the sky.
A) horizon
B) equinoxes
C) movement in the atmosphere
D) all the above
Answer:
A) horizon

Question 16.
The ice that floats in water
A) Icebergs
B) Icehytes
C) Icemakers
D) Ice birds
Answer:
A) Icebergs

Question 17.
Due to cold, the upper soil surface of the region is frozen into a rock-like state all through the year is called ……………
A) Icebergs
B) Permafrost
C) Vermicompost
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Permafrost

Question 18.
The region of Eskimos
A) Tundra Region
B) Taiga Region
C) Steppe Region
D) Savannah Region
Answer:
A) Tundra Region

Question 19.
The people that lived in the regions of Greenland, Canada, Alaska, and Siberia.
A) Bedouins
B) Bushmen
C) Eskimos
D) Red hunters
Answer:
C) Eskimos

Question 20.
Eskimo means
A) snow-head
B) snowshoe – netter
C) snow bodied man
D) all the above
Answer:
B) snowshoe – netter

Question 21.
The main groups in Eskimos.
A) Inuit
B) Yupik
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 22.
Inuit means
A) the people
B) the kingdom
C) the government
D) the sovereignty
Answer:
A) the people

Question 23.
The language of the Eskimos
A) Aluet
B) Yupik
C) Inupik
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
The number of Eskimos in Siberia
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 4,000
Answer:
A) 2,000

Question 25.
The number of Eskimos in Greenland
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 43,000
Answer:
D) 43,000

Question 26.
The members in Eskimo group
A) 20 – 40
B) 25 – 45
C) 35 – 45
D) 15 – 40
Answer:
B) 25 – 45

Question 27.
The Eskimos cover a circuit of more than ………………. kms in their nomadic life.
A) 1,000
B) 1100
C) 1200
D) 1300
Answer:
B) 1100

Question 28.
The boats used by Eskimos
A) Umiyans
B) Sledges
C) Umiaks
D) Lopes
Answer:
C) Umiaks

Question 29.
The animal hunted by Eskimos
A) Caribou
B) Whale
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 30.
The main occupation of Eskimos
A) hunting
B) fishing
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
The season of Caribou hunt
A) summer
B) spring
C) both A & B
D) winter
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 32.
The instrument used to catch fish by Eskimos
A) pronged spears
B) 2 pronged spears
C) 3 pronged spears
D) 4 pronged spears
Answer:
C) 3 pronged spears

Question 33.
Eskimos caught seals with this instrument
A) Harpoon
B) Karpoon
C) Tarpoon
D) None
Answer:
A) Harpoon

Question 34.
The main food item of Eskimos
A) Meat
B) Fish
C) Fat
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
Eskimos cook their food with this
A) Glass bottles
B) Oil lamps
C) Fats
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Oil lamps

Question 36.
The meaning of Igloo
A) Shelter
B) Residence
C) Living area
D) None
Answer:
A) Shelter

Question 37.
Eskimos live in tents made of ……………… in summer.
A) Sticks
B) Animal hides
C) Tiles
D) Cloth/Patla
Answer:
B) Animal hides

Question 38.
The shoes of Eskimos
A) Jhalaks
B) Mukluks
C) Lukluks
D) Jharaks
Answer:
B) Mukluks

Question 39.
Coastal groups prefer ……………. skin in late spring and summer.
A) seal
B) caribou
C) whale
D) none
Answer:
A) seal

Question 40.
Eskimos use this in toy making
A) bone
B) tooth
C) wood, soapstone
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
All Eskimos groups believe in a super natural power called
A) sila
B) maternal
C) paternal
D) all the above
Answer:
A) sila

Question 42.
Each group has some major ceremonies performed at birth and death or when hunting is very poor or very successful by
A) Samans
B) Shamans
C) Kamans
D) Shemans
Answer:
B) Shamans

Question 43.
The main competitions of Eskimos
A) Wrestling
B) Racing
C) Harpoon throughing
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
The first Europeans to be seen by Eskimos were
A) Red hunters
B) Vikings
C) Pekings
D) Bushmen
Answer:
B) Vikings

Question 45.
By 1728, the Russians had arrived in
A) Siberia
B) Northern Alaska
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 46.
Match the following.
Group – A                             Group – B
1) Icebergs            ( )        a) Boats
2) Winter hunt      ( )        b) Weapon
3) Umiaks              ( )        c) Ice blocks or mountain like structures in oceans
4) Greenland         ( )        d) Stone slate houses
5) Harpoon            ( )        e) Seal
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
D) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b

Question 47.
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra. Tundra means very cold. Since the Tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the ‘Tundra Vegetation’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The northern part of the globe has Tundra vegetation.
B) There is heavy sunlight in the Tundra region.
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.

Question 48.
The Eskimo word “igloo” means shelter. It can refer to any kind of house, not really the dome-shaped snow houses that many people associate with the word.
A) Igloo means a dome-shaped snow house.
B) Igloo is a European word.
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.
D) Igloos are located only in ice deserts.
Answer:
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.

Question 49.
Find out the mismatch.
1) Whale hunting -1859 -1910 s
2) Modern trade of fur -1925 -1950 s
3) The building of military and defense bases mid -1950 s
4) The building of Urban centers – mid-1960 s
5) Oil exploration and development – 1970 s
A) 1 & 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 4, 5
D) All correct
Answer:
D) All correct

Question 50.
The Eskimos wear boots called mukluks, trousers, and hooded jackets called parkas – all made of animal skins.
The clothes of Eskimos are made of
A) Mukluks
B) Trousers
C) Hooded jackets
D) Animal skins
Answer:
D) Animal skins

Question 51.
Shamans are believed to help establish and keep contact with the spirit world. Shamans use trances, drama, and magic tricks in their performances.
Who are Shamans?
A) Shamans are Purohits.
B) Shamans are Tantriks.
C) Shamans are Gurus.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shamans are Tantriks.

Question 52.
The reason behind the new relationship of Eskimos with different social and economic forces
A) air-travel
B) highways
C) powerful modem ships
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 53.
This change has produced great strains on the Eskimo way of life
A) Air travel
B) Highways
C) Satellite communications
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
The Eskimos first entered North America about …………… years ago, crossing the Bering straits from Asia.
A) 5000
B) 3000
C) 8000
D) 10000
Answer:
A) 5000

Question 55.
………….. hunting is essential for nearly all Eskimo groups.
A) Deer
B) Caribou
C) Bear
D) Fox
Answer:
B) Caribou

Question 56.
After the late’s, large numbers of Europeans began to live year-round
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1750
D) 1800
Answer:
D) 1800

Question 57.
In 1576 – 78 the English Mariner that visited Baffin Island
A) Martin Linlithgo
B) Martin Frosbisher
C) Martin Mao
D) Martin Louis
Answer:
B) Martin Frosbisher

Question 58.
After ………….. the arrival of the Europeans and American whalers and fur traders brought many changes.
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1850
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1850

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Earth Movements and Seasons on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earth rotates from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North to Sourth
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 2.
……………. is called ‘Land of Midnight Sun.
A) India
B) Japan
C) Norway
D) New York
Answer:
C) Norway

Question 3.
The earthlike a top.
A) revolves
B) stands
C) looks
D) spins
Answer:
D) spins

Question 4.
The angle keeps increasing move towards the
A) Two poles
B) Tropic of Cancer only
C) Equator
D) Arctic Circle only
Answer:
A) Two poles

Question 5.
Equinoxes are
A) March 21 and December 23
B) March 21 and September 23
C) March 23 and September 21
D) March 21 and November 23
Answer:
D) March 21 and November 23

Question 6.
0° latitude is called
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Equator
C) Arctic Circle
D) Greenwich meridian
Answer:
B) Equator

Question 7.
The Sun illuminates one of the earth at any given movement.
A) 3/4
B) quarter
C) half
D) and half
Answer:
C) half

Question 8.
The axis of earth is tilted by ………………
A) 13.5°
B) 20.5°
C) 22.5°
D) 23.5°
Answer:
D) 23.5°

Question 9.
Sun on the Tropic of Capricorn
A) December 22
B) February 22
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
A) December 22

Question 10.
Snowfall is high in this region during winter
A) equatorial region
B) the northern region to the equator
C) the southern region to the equator
D) all the above
Answer:
B) the northern region to the equator

Question 11.
The time taken for one rotation of the earth on its own axis
A) 20 hours
B) 22 hours
C) 23 hours
D) 24 hours
Answer:
D) 24 hours

Question 12.
The edge of the sun-lit hemisphere, called the
A) circle of illumination
B) circle of nonlumination
C) circle
D) elongated circle
Answer:
A) circle of illumination

Question 13.
The earth revolves round the Sun. It is known as
A) earth’s rotation
B) earth’s revolution
C) equinoxes
D) all the above
Answer:
B) earth’s revolution

Question 14.
The time for earth’s revolution
A) 365 days
B) 365 days 5 hrs
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts
D) 366 days
Answer:
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts

Question 15.
The Earth revolves round the Sun on a regular path
A) orbit
B) axis
C) face
D) surface
Answer:
B) axis

Question 16.
The Earth’s axis is tilted on it, so as to form a ……….. angle.
A) 66°
B) 66.5°
C) 90°
D) 93°
Answer:
B) 66.5°

Question 17.
As Earth revolves around the Sun, Earth’s axis remains tilted in the same direction throughout the year. It keeps pointing pole star in the Northern sky and this is called the
A) Axis polarity
B) Polarity of axis
C) Both A & B
D) Polarity
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
The Northern and Southern Hemispheres get similar amount of energy from the Sun in these months.
A) March, April
B) March, May
C) March, September
D) September, December
Answer:
C) March, September

Question 19.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Cancer in the Northern hemisphere
A) December
B) March
C) May
D) June
Answer:
D) June

Question 20.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere
A) March
B) May
C) December
D) June
Answer:
C) December

Question 21.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of cancer on this date
A) December 22
B) June 21
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
B) June 21

Question 22.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of capricorn on this date
A) June 21
B) March 21
C) September 23
D) December 22
Answer:
D) December 22

Question 23.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the equator
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) December 22
Answer:
A) March 21

Question 24.
The day of Equinoxes
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) June 21
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
The day time at the poles
A) 24 hrs
B) 1 month
C) 6 months
D) 4 months
Answer:
C) 6 months

Question 26.
Observe the diagram and pick the correct comment.

A) The earth rotates from west to east.
B) All the lines on the globe are real.
C) The horizontal lines are meridians.
D) The line that connects the north and south is orbit.
Answer:
A) The earth rotates from west to east.

Question 27.
On March 21 and September 23 throughout the world day and night are equal in size, so these are called equinoxes.
Pick the right comment.
A) Equinoxes are two imaginary lines.
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.
C) Equinoxes – the days are longer than nights throughout the world.
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.

Question 28.
If it is summer in the northern regions to the equator then in the southern regions there is ………….. season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy
D) None
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 29.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.

When the Earth rotates, the air around us, the clouds and the birds move along with the Earth. That is way we don’t feel the movement in the manner when we travel on a train or bus.
When the Earth rotates, this happens.
A) The clouds only move along with the earth.
B) The birds only move along the with the earth.
C) The human beings only move along with the earth.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.
As we move northwards or southwards of the Tropical Belt we reach a region where it gets warm in summers but also very cold in winters. This is the Temperate Zone. The northern portions of this region get snowfall in winters.
Where is the Temperate Zone located?
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.
B) Temperate zone is to the north of the Tropical Belt only.
C) Temperate zone is to the south of the Tropical Belt only.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.

Question 31.
This influence the seasons
A) The earth is spherical and it has curved surface.
B) The earth rotates on its own axis once in a day.
C) The axis is inclined when compared to its orbit.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
The main result of the earth’s rotation
A) formation of day and night
B) differences occur in temperatures
C) formation of Ocean currents
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 33.
What happens if the earth does not rotate?
A) No day and night formation
B) One side continuous day and one side continuous night
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 34.
Ohio is in ……………
A) Australia
B) the U.S.A.
C) Canada
D) Europe
Answer:
B) the U.S.A.

Question 35.
The Tropical Belt means
A) The region between the equator and northern pole
B) The region between the equator and southern pole
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
D) The region between the two poles
Answer:
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 36.
Which season is there on March 21st on South?
A) Spring
B) Winter
C) Summer
D) Autumn
Answer:
D) Autumn

Question 37.
Earth revolution is from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North west to North east
D) None
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 38.
Which season is there on December 22 on the north?
A) Winter
B) Spring
C) Autumn
D) Summer
Answer:
A) Winter

Question 39.
Human beings live along with a large community of
A) Plants
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 40.
…………… region is frozen throughout the year.
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Arctic
D) Hindu
Answer:
C) Arctic