Mahesh

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
During the time of Mughal emperors, …………………. collected land revenue from the peasants.
A) emperor
B) revenue department
C) zamindars
D) sirazdars
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 2.
During the British reign, there were great ……………. in India.
A) deeds
B) investments
C) benefits
D) famines
Answer:
D) famines

Question 3.
In ……………… Cornwallis was the Governor General.
A) 1947
B) 1793
C) 1856
D) 1857
Answer:
B) 1793

Question 4.
The barrage in Krishna and Guntur districts …………….
A) Dhawaleshwaram
B) Prakasam
C) Sir Arthur Cotton
D) Keesara
Answer:
B) Prakasam

Question 5.
An anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1820
B) 1800
C) 1849
D) 1856
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 6.
In Mahabubnagar and Nalgonda districts, there were Doras who owned more than a thousand acres of land.
A) 500
B) 550
C) 600
D) 650
Answer:
B) 550

Question 7.
In …………… there was a civil war in America.
A) 1851
B) 1871
C) 1841
D) 1861
Answer:
D) 1861

Question 8.
The number of famines in the second half of the Nineteenth century
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 14
Answer:
B) 11

Question 9.
Patwari was a …………. official.
A) Mandal
B) Village
C) District
D) State
Answer:
B) Village

Question 10.
The peasants formed to carry their agitation forward and demanded abolition of landlordism, reduction of land revenue and control over moneylenders.
A) Rythu Sabha
B) Kisan Sabhas
C) Kisan Mela
D) Kisan Jagruthi
Answer:
B) Kisan Sabhas

Question 11.
The small forts of landlords in Telangana are called as
A) Buruju
B) Forts
C) Gadis
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Gadis

Question 12.
The own lands of Zamindars were called
A) Enams
B) Kudhkhasht
C) Qidmatgars
D) None
Answer:
B) Kudhkhasht

Question 13.
The roles of Zamindars
A) collecting taxes
B) having land
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 14.
In …………….. the peasants of Awadh in Uttar Pradesh took out huge processions to protest against the Zamindars who were extracting money from them.
A) 1920-22
B) 1922-24
C) 1924-26
D) 1926-28
Answer:
A) 1920-22

Question 15.
The famous peasant movements were the Deccan ryots of ……………… s.
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1872
Answer:
B) 1860

Question 16.
The permanent settlement system was introduced by ………………
A) Warren Hastings
B) Corn Wallis
C) Bentinck
D) Wellesly
Answer:
B) Corn Wallis

Question 17.
The Permanent Settlement System was introduced in the year.
A) 1790
B) 1791
C) 1792
D) 1973
Answer:
D) 1973

Question 18.
The Zamindars collected ………….. rather than revenue from them.
A) the income from auction
B) rent
C) riped crop
D) none
Answer:
B) rent

Question 19.
The prices of the grains rose and cultivation slowly expanded in this year.
A) 1800
B) 1810
C) 1820
D) 1840
Answer:
C) 1820

Question 20.
Ceded districts means
A) Bellary, Anantapn
B) Kadapa
C) Kurnool
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name of Ceded districts
A) Stone seema
B) Karnataka
C) Rayalaseema
D) None
Answer:
C) Rayalaseema

Question 22.
In this year Thomas Munro came to Rayalaseema districts as Collector.
A) 1700
B) 1800
C) 1900
D) 1850
Answer:
B) 1800

Question 23.
………….. recognised that there were no Zamindars in South like North.
A) Bentinck
B) Thomas Munro
C) Wellesly
D) Robert Clive
Answer:
B) Thomas Munro

Question 24.
Recognising the importance of the peasants, Munro devised the Ryotwari settlement in entire.
A) South India
B) Western India
C) Both A & B
D) Northern India
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
Ryotwari means
A) Farmer
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation
C) Landcess
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation

Question 26.
Before the cultivation commenced in Munro made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones.
A) 1801 – 02
B) 1802 – 03
C) 1803 – 04
D) 1804 – 05
Answer:
A) 1801 – 02

Question 27.
Due to the untiring efforts of Sir Arthur Cotton, an anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1849
D) 1850
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 28.
Severe Famine was occured in the year.
A) 1800
B) 1830
C) 1833
D) 1836
Answer:
C) 1833

Question 29.
An anicut was constructed on the river Krishna in
A) 1850
B) 1852
C) 1853
D) 1854
Answer:
D) 1854

Question 30.
The Kurnool – Cuddapah (KC) canal was dug in the year.
A) 1850
B) 1855
C) 1857
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1857

Question 31.
The tenants had to pay rent that was times more than the land revenue paid by the ryots to the government.
A) 2 – 5
B) 3 – 7
C) 4 – 8
D) 5 – 9
Answer:
B) 3 – 7

Question 32.
In the first half of 19th century, they tried to collect maximum land revenue through
A) Kudramukh
B) Deshmukh
C) Patwari
D) Patel
Answer:
B) Deshmukh

Question 33.
In Nizams rule the large landlords were called
A) Gadis
B) Doras
C) Landlords
D) Pettandars
Answer:
B) Doras

Question 34.
The Civil war in America was started in
A) 1860
B) 1861
C) 1862
D) 1863
Answer:
B) 1861

Question 35.
The Civil war in America ended in
A) 1865
B) 1867
C) 1873
D) 1877
Answer:
A) 1865

Question 36.
The effect of the Civil war in American showed on India in this way
A) the demand for cotton fell
B) the demand for cotton increased
C) increase in exports of agricultural products
D) exports of agricultural products are as it is
Answer:
A) the demand for cotton fell

Question 37.
In the Hyderabad state there were about 1500 Jagirs spread over 6535 villages and samsthanams over 497 villages.
A) 16
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 38.
During the colonial period, the peasants were forced to do work without wages.
A) Vetti
B) Slavery
C) Getting services
D) None
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 39.
The plight of Vetti can be understood through a government report written in
A) 1800
B) 1870
C) 1878
D) 1880
Answer:
C) 1878

Question 40.
The peasants also had to regularly supply to Zamindars.
A) ghee, milk
B) vegetables, jaggery
C) gross, dung cakes
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
“The ……………. also prevent the peasants from improving their fields because they are afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their nights over the land.
A) farmers
B) landlords
C) zamindars
D) coolies
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 42.
The revenue that was shared to the Nizam was called
A) Hindukhush
B) Peshkash
C) Enam
D) Adangal
Answer:
B) Peshkash

Question 43.
The zamindars also owned land on which the labourers worked. This was called their ‘self-cultivated’ land or Khudkhasht lands.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Zamindars worked on these lands.
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.
C) Zamindars donated these lands to the poor.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.

Question 44.

Pick the correct statement.
A) This barrage connected the Krishna and Guntur districts.
B) This barrage changed the fate of Krishna delta.
C) This is a boon by Sir Arthur Cotton.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
‘The peasants also had to regularly supply ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, straw, cowdung cakes, etc. free of cost to the zamindar’s house.’
This was a form of
A) gifts
B) boons
C) custom
D) exploitation
Answer:
D) exploitation

Question 46.
Famines, or massive food shortages leading to acute distress, were a regular feature of the British rule.
This was a regular feature of the British rule
A) Surplus food
B) Shortage of food grains
C) Low quality of grains
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shortage of food grains

Question 47.
‘Peasants fled the countryside’ – The reason was
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue
B) conducting attacks
C) giving hard punishments
D) All the above
Answer:
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue

Question 48.
This was happened because of land revenue introduced by the Britishers.
A) Farmers suffered from loans
B) Farmers achieved more progress
C) Farmers growed more crops
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Farmers suffered from loans

Question 49.
This is due to decrease in demand of cotton
A) farmers changed as beggers
B) food grains are scarce
C) severe famine
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
This program is introduced to feed the children in our state
A) Annadaata
B) Antyodaya
C) MDM
D) Velugu Project
Answer:
C) MDM

Question 51.
Peasants very often borrowed money from in order to pay their land revenue.
A) Moneylenders
B) Zamindars
C) Banks
D) Organisations
Answer:
A) Money lenders

Question 52.
During the colonial period the peasants were forced to do
A) Vetti
B) Cultivation
C) Work
D) Donations
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 53.
The Britishers raised this tax to increase their income in India
A) Pullari tax
B) Property tax
C) Landcess
D) Ganachari tax
Answer:
C) Landcess

Question 54.
The agricultural products that were exported to England from India
A) Cotton, Blue
B) Sugarcane, Wheat
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 55.
Andhra, like the rest of the country, suffered from severe famines in the centuries.
A) 19
B) 20
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
The severe famine occured in Ganjam
A) 1865 – 66
B) 1867 – 68
C) 1869 – 70
D) 1870 – 71
Answer:
A) 1865 – 66

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Public Health and the Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Approximately …………… new doctors qualify every year.
A) 50,000
B) 20,000
C) 10,000
D) 15,000
Answer:
D) 15,000

Question 2.
At the …………… level, there is a volunteer called ‘ASHA Worker’, who helps people in getting health services.
A) Village
B) Mandal
C) Z.P.
D) District
Answer:
A) Village

Question 3.
Community Health Centre has
A) 50 beds
B) 30 beds
C) 80 beds
D) 100 beds
Answer:
B) 30 beds

Question 4.
In a village, everyone must be involved to see that the water near taps/hand pumps does not form stagnant pools where …………… breed.
A) wildlife
B) flies
C) mosquitoes
D) cattle
Answer:
C) mosquitoes

Question 5.
In A.P. about …………… % of the children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 36
D) 39
Answer:
B) 33

Question 6.
BMI means
A) Body Mass Index
B) Body Dharma Index
C) Body Mentality Index
D) Body Shape Index
Answer:
A) Body Mass Index

Question 7.
…………… is essential for life and good health.
A) Water
B) Money
C) Fast food
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Water

Question 8.
An example of a public facility is
A) Aeroplane journey
B) Private school study
C) Sanitation
D) Private health care
Answer:
C) Sanitation

Question 9.
…………….. must take the responsibility for providing public facilities.
A) Organisations
B) Institutes
C) M.L.A.s and M.P.s
D) Government
Answer:
D) Government

Question 10.
Public facilities relate to people’s
A) basic needs
B) luxuries
C) comforts
D) duties
Answer:
A) basic needs

Question 11.
Which one fulfils the primary needs of the people?
A) People
B) Government
C) Landlords
D) Capitalists
Answer:
B) Government

Question 12.
These are needed to cure diseases and to treat
A) Health centres
B) Laboratories for diagnosis
C) Ambulance services, blood banks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
Medical science achieved good progress in this sector.
A) Technical knowledge
B) Treating procedure
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
Medical colleges are in plenty in this country
A) China
B) India
C) America
D) France
Answer:
B) India

Question 15.
The hospital which has 100 beds at the division level
A) PHC
B) Area hospital
C) Praja Vydhyasala
D) None
Answer:
B) Area hospital

Question 16.
The number of government hospitals in India in 1950
A) 2717
B) 2750
C) 2317
D) 2417
Answer:
A) 2717

Question 17.
The number of government hospitals in 1991 in India
A) 11,000
B) 11,174
C) 11,274
D) 11,374
Answer:
B) 11,174

Question 18.
The number of government hospitals in India by the year 2000
A) 18,218
B) 19,140
C) 20,150
D) 21,150
Answer:
A) 18,218

Question 19.
At the village level, there is a volunteer called …………… who helps people in getting health services.
A) Asha worker
B) Arogya worker
C) Civil health officer
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Asha worker

Question 20.
ASHA means
A) Accredited Social Health Activist
B) Accredited Social Health Association
C) Accredited Service Health Acadamy
D) Accredited Service Health Activist
Answer:
A) Accredited Social Health Activist

Question 21.
The subcentre covers a population of people.
A) 4000
B) 5000
C) 6000
D) 7000
Answer:
B) 5000

Question 22.
Each PHC covers a population of
A) 20,000
B) 25,000
C) 30,000
D) 35,000
Answer:
C) 30,000

Question 23.
For every PHCs, there is a Community Health Centre which is a 30-bed hospital and has some specialists.
A) 2 – 3
B) 3 – 4
C) 4 – 5
D) 5 – 6
Answer:
C) 4 – 5

Question 24.
At the divisional level is the Area Hospital that has …………… beds.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Answer:
B) 100

Question 25.
They do get food to eat but less than what is required, therefore their starvation is not visible.
A) visible starvation
B) invisible starvation
C) more starvation
D) none
Answer:
B) invisible starvation

Question 26.
R.M.P. means
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas
B) Doctors in rural areas
C) Medical students in rural areas
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas

Question 27.
This is needed for our body to be healthy, regular daily work not to be ill-health
A) water
B) oils
C) fat
D) proteins
Answer:
C) fat

Question 28.
The situation in public service at present has changed due to the services of
A) 108
B) 104
C) Both A & B
D) 100
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
…………….. reaches in time to provide first aid in emergency cases and also provide access by taking the victims for further follow-up medication at the nearby health centre.
A) 100
B) 101
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
D) 108

Question 30.
…………… is a vehicle with health personnel and medicines providing monthly visits to rural areas for health checkups providing medicine, etc.
A) 101
B) 103
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
C) 104

Question 31.
…………… of the population can afford the cost of medicines that they require during an illness.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 20%

Question 32.
It was reported in a study that people who are admitted to the hospital for some illness or injury have to borrow money or sell some of their possessions to pay the expenses.
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 33.
This is essential for life and good health
A) water
B) food
C) meat
D) alcohol consumption
Answer:
A) water

Question 34.
Over …………. Indians, reportedly die every day because of water-related diseases.
A) 1500
B) 1600
C) 1700
D) 1800
Answer:
B) 1600

Question 35.
This is related to the basic need
A) Health Services
B) Cleaning
C) Electricity, Civil Transport, School
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
The main aim of private companies.
A) service motto
B) earning profits
C) price fixation
D) none
Answer:
B) earning profits

Question 37.
These are needed for a healthy life
A) Food
B) Protected fresh water
C) Cleaning
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
India is the fourth-largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a large exporter of medicines.
Pick the correct comment.
A) All the Indians are sick people.
B) India only produces medicines.
C) India only exports medicines.
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.
Answer:
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.

Question 39.
But the situation in public service at present is somewhat changed due to the services of ‘108’ and ‘104’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The two services worsened the situation.
B) The two services improved the situation.
C) There is no change.
D) I cannot say.
Answer:
B) The two services improved the situation.

Question 40.
Safe drinking water can prevent many water-related diseases.
Name the water-related disease.
A) Diarrhoea
B) Dysentery
C) Cholera
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 41.
Department of AYUSH: looks after local systems of medicine such as Ayurveda, Homoeopathy, Unani, Siddha and research in them.
This does not come under the department of AYUSH
A) Homoeopathy
B) Naturopathy
C) Allopathy
D) Unani
Answer:
C) Allopathy

Question 42.
The Indian Constitution provides the Right to life to all the people. The reason is
A) Providing respectful life to all
B) lack of self-reliance
C) creating equal facilities for all
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Providing respectfull life to all

Question 43.
Medicine is too expensive for some chronic diseases for ordinary people. So if the public gets they may get qualitative services.
A) Medical education
B) Health insurance
C) Health Facility
D) Health protection
Answer:
B) Health insurance

Question 44.
Name the health programme introduced by our government to help the poor.
A) Arogyasri
B) EHS
C) Health Insurance
D) Star Health
Answer:
A) Arogyasri

Question 45.
India is the largest producer of medicines in the world.
A) 5th
B) 2nd
C) 4th
D) 6th
Answer:
C) 4th

Question 46.
…………. is too expensive for some chronic diseases to the public.
A) Nursing
B) Medicines
C) Transport facilities
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Medicines

Question 47.
The main aim of the Public Health System
A) Health care services to the poor
B) To take action to prevent the spread of diseases such as T.B., Malaria, Jaundice, Cholera, Diarrhoea, Chikungunya, etc.
C) Providing better services to the poor
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 48.
This develops immunity systems
A) better nutrition
B) better proteins
C) better water
D) none
Answer:
A) better nutrition

Question 49.
About ……………. % of the women are undernourished in A.P.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 31
D) 25
Answer:
C) 31

Question 50.
In Andhra Pradesh about …………. % of men are undernourished.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
Answer:
B) 25

Question 51.
India occupies ………….. place in the production of medicines.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Impact of Technology on Livelihoods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There was a tremendous change in the method of production during the ………….. centuries.
A) 18th, 19th
B) 15th, 16th
C) 11th, 12th
D) 8th, 9th
Answer:
A) 18th, 19th

Question 2.
When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time, it is called a/an ……………….
A) discovery
B) invention
C) opening
D) beginning
Answer:
B) invention

Question 3.
In India, when …………… were first introduced, people thought that they would lose their jobs.
A) machines
B) engines
C) cranes
D) computers
Answer:
D) computers

Question 4.
………….. goods were produced mostly for self and some for the market.
A) Industrial
B) Agricultural
C) Mining
D) Electrical
Answer:
B) Agricultural

Question 5.
……………. run on electricity or diesel were used to draw water.
A) Machines
B) Generators
C) Pump sets
D) Buckets
Answer:
C) Pump sets

Question 6.
After independence, the government began building ………………
A) temples
B) palaces
C) farmhouses
D) dams
Answer:
D) dams

Question 7.
………….. began to be used for transportation and many agricultural operations.
A) Rickshaws
B) Tractors
C) Trucks
D) Cars
Answer:
B) Tractors

Question 8.
Use of agricultural machinery made the agricultural workers to work on ………….. basis.
A) monthly
B) annual
C) fort-night
D) daily
Answer:
D) daily

Question 9.
Creation of a new machine or production procedure for the first time.
A) knowing
B) invention
C) finding
D) all the above
Answer:
B) invention

Question 10.
This is used instead of Rubber
A) Fibre
B) Plastic
C) German Silver
D) Silver
Answer:
B) Plastic

Question 11.
This is introduced by Henry Ford to speed up the manufacturing of cars in America.
A) Assembly
B) Assembly express
C) Assembly line
D) Third assembly
Answer:
C) Assembly line

Question 12.
Agricutural system at the time of independence is
A) extensive
B) podu agriculture
C) intensive
D) traditional agriculture
Answer:
D) traditional agriculture

Question 13.
The change in agriculture after independence
A) improvement in irrigation facilities
B) encouraging the usage of Borewells
C) using motor pumps that are run by electricity or diesel
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 14.
Combined Harvestor means
A) It harvests the crop
B) it threshes the crop
C) It cleans the grain from chaff
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
Use of CH saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in the coastal states.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
According to a 2003 study of CH its charge is about Rs. ……………….. per day.
A) 1000 – 1200
B) 1100 – 1400
C) 1300 – 1500
D) 1400 – 1600
Answer:
B) 1100 – 1400

Question 17.
CH harvests paddy fields of about one acre in ………….. hour.
A) one
B) 1/2 an
C) 3/4 th
D) 1/4 th
Answer:
A) one

Question 18.
The number of workers (in crores) in different sections of the textile industry.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer:
B) 10

Question 19.
From this year, there is an increase in the share of textile production through mills.
A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1777
D) 1980
Answer:
D) 1980

Question 20.
The number of employees in Powerlooms.
A) 50 lakh
B) 60 lakh
C) 70 lakh
D) 80 lakh
Answer:
B) 60 lakh

Question 21.
The number of working handlooms in India in 1988 in lakhs.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 33
D) 35
Answer:
C) 33

Question 22.
The number of working handlooms in India in 2009-10 in lakhs.
A) 24
B) 26
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
A) 24

Question 23.
The amount of cloth produced per worker in power looms is about times higher than in handlooms because of the use of mechanised technology.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6

Question 24.
There were only land phones in India up to
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1990

Question 25.
All over India, mobile phones have grown from 50 lakhs subscribers in 2001 to over ……………. crores subscribers by May 2012.
A) 9.9
B) 92.9
C) 95.9
D) 98.4
Answer:
B) 92.9

Question 26.
The mobile connections are …………….. times more than landlines.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
A) 20

Question 27.
Mobile phones were introduced in
A) 1990
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Answer:
B) 1995

Question 28.
Between these years, persons receiving the call and persons making the call were required to pay
A) 1995 – 2002
B) 1996 – 2003
C) 2002 – 2007
D) 2007 – 2009
Answer:
A) 1995 – 2002

Question 29.
In 1994, if somebody wished to talk on a landline phone for 3 mts to a person 500 kms away, one had to spend Rs. …………
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
C) 28

Question 30.
The mobile handsets produced in India are now exporting to more than …………. countries around the world.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 31.
Think of all the complicated machinery and technology used nowadays – in space explorations, in factories, in transport, and so on.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Machinery and technology are complicated.
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.

Question 32.
Combined Harvester (CH) is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from the chaff.
Pick the correct comment.
A) CH is an important machine but not works well.
B) CH is used in all harvests.
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.

Question 33.
Whenever you talk on your mobile phone, switch on the TV or work on your computer, you are using the
A) latest technology
B) very latest technology
C) old traditional technology
D) all the above
Answer:
B) very latest technology

Question 34.
Suppose there are 250 agricultural labourers in a village which has 1000 acres of paddy, if a Combined Harvester is used, it will complete the work in 55 days working 18 hours every day. But each one of the 250 workers will lose days of employment.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 35.
A major difference between a Powerloom Unit and a Mill producing cloth is the scale of operation.
Which one has a large scale of operation?
A) Powerloom unit
B) Mill
C) Both A and B
D) Don’t know
Answer:
B) Mill

Question 36.
In the 1980s there are only land phones. But now we have cell phones. This is a …………….. change.
A) Structural
B) Technological
C) Social
D) Traditional
Answer:
B) Technological

Question 37.
The reason for an increase in agricultural products
A) latest technology in agriculture
B) using agricultural machines
C) improvement of irrigational facilities
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 38.
‘Cell phone / Mobile is an important device in our life.’
A) But it kills our leisure.
B) But it spoils our work.
C) But it disturbs the relations in the society.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
Henry Ford of ………………. started the Assembly Line method of production to produce more cars quickly.
A) Canada
B) Britain
C) the U.S.A.
D) China
Answer:
C) the U.S.A.

Question 40.
Plastic is used instead of
A) rubber
B) copper
C) gold
D) platinum
Answer:
A) rubber

Question 41.
An example of the latest technology
A) Space research
B) Industries
C) Transport
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
In the 19th century these opposed power looms in England.
A) labour
B) peasants
C) craft persons
D) all the above
Answer:
C) craft persons

Question 43.
This creates more employment in India after agriculture.
A) textile industry
B) jute industry
C) tea industry
D) sugar industry
Answer:
A) textile industry

Question 44.
The introduced power looms in India.
A) British
B) French
C) Dutch
D) Portuguese
Answer:
A) British

Question 45.
High quality of clothes are produced by
A) Handlooms
B) Mills
C) Artists
D) Hand skill
Answer:
B) Mills

Question 46.
The main problem faced by the workers in power looms
A) Food insecurity, malnutrition
B) Anaemia, T.B.
C) Asthma, gynaecological illness among women
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
This influences the service sector
A) technological knowledge changes
B) economic progress
C) industries
D) none
Answer:
A) technological knowledge changes

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Money and Banking on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Money and Banking with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In ……………… district children exchange toys made from bamboo in exchange for rice.
A) Karimnagar
B) Warangal
C) Hyderabad
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
D) Srikakulam

Question 2.
If we use ……………., there will be no problem in exchanging commodities.
A) materials
B) money
C) metals
D) grains
Answer:
B) money

Question 3.
‘Pana’ was the standard currency in the …………… period.
A) Mauryan
B) Sindhu
C) Mughal
D) Aryan
Answer:
A) Mauryan

Question 4.
Hundis means ………….
A) coins
B) punched coins
C) paper money
D) gold coins
Answer:
C) paper money

Question 5.
Jagatseths of ………….. were one of the early bankers in India.
A) Gujarath
B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bengal
Answer:
D) Bengal

Question 6.
Bank means
A) Capital organisation
B) Commercial organisation
C) Savings organisation
D) Loan organisation
Answer:
B) Commercial organisation

Question 7.
Money is ………………….. in bank.
A) dangerous
B) safe
C) expensive
D) useless
Answer:
B) safe

Question 8.
Nowadays are widely used for making payments and receiving money.
A) hundis
B) drafts
C) cheques
D) bonds
Answer:
C) cheques

Question 9.
Current account is mostly used by
A) businessmen
B) employees
C) teachers
D) farmers
Answer:
A) businessmen

Question 10.
A fixed deposit is also called
A) credit card
B) term deposit
C) small savings
D) debit card
Answer:
B) term deposit

Question 11.
Exchanging of one good with another good.
A) Barter system
B) Good instead
C) Good purchase
D) None
Answer:
A) Barter system

Question 12.
The deposit has more rate of interest
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 13.
………….. works as a consuming medium.
A) Good
B) Cash
C) Bank
D) None
Answer:
B) Cash

Question 14.
…………….. is treated as wealth in very olden days.
A) Grains
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) Water
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 15.
The golden coin in the Roman period
A) Besant
B) Tanka
C) Dham
D) Punch
Answer:
A) Besant

Question 16.
The silver coin in the Mauryan period
A) Besant
B) Pana
C) karsha
D) Satamana
Answer:
B) Pana

Question 17.
These were developed due to the branches of goldsmiths.
A) Paper money
B) Hundis
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
One cannot withdraw amount in a given period.
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Commercial deposit
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 19.
Online banking services can be gotten through these
A) Debit Card
B) Credit Card
C) Net Banking, Phone banking
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
In 1606 in Amsterdam, there were …………. types of silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could accepted for exchange.
A) 840
B) 846
C) 850
D) 900
Answer:
B) 846

Question 21.
……………. maintained commercial dealing
A) Banking
B) Commerce
C) Loan
D) Saving
Answer:
A) Banking

Question 22.
How many times we can withdraw cash from ATM maximum in a month?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 23.
The norms for getting loans from banks to SHGs
A) no need of guarantee
B) assets should be shown as guarantee
C) the wealthy persons should act as guarantors
D) None
Answer:
A) no need of guarantee

Question 24.
These are extensively used to withdraw and pay money at present
A) Drafts
B) Cheques
C) Debentures
D) Hundis
Answer:
B) Cheques

Question 25.
The age limit to open a savings account is ……………… years.
A) 7
B) 10
C) 15
D) 18
Answer:
B) 10

Question 26.
The account for daily transactions
A) Savings account
B) Current account
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Current account

Question 27.
The special feature of current account
A) countless withdrawals
B) Countless deposits
C) Bank pays no interest
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
ATM means
A) Automatic Teller Machine
B) Automated Teller Machine
C) Automatic Telling Machines
D) Automated Tellers Matchings
Answer:
B) Automated Teller Machine

Question 29.
Money changed its form metal to paper—
Pick the right comment.
A) Metal money has more value.
B) Paper money has more value.
C) Plastic money has more value.
D) Material has no value, only money has value.
Answer:
D) Material has no value, only money has value.

Question 30.
A Fixed Deposit or a Term Deposit cannot be withdrawn from the bank for a fixed period of time. It could be one year, two, five or seven years. The rate of interest is higher on a fixed deposit.
Pick the right comment.
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.
B) Seven years deposit has less interest.
C) Term deposit is totally different from fixed deposit.
D) No interest will be credited if it is drawn early.
Answer:
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.

Question 31.
The system of exchanging goods directly against each other without the use of money is called the Barter system.
Which one of the following comes under Barter system of exchange?
A) A salt vendor sells his salt for grains.
B) A washerman washes clothes for grains.
C) Ramu and Ravi exchanged their clothes.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
A savings/fixed/recurring bank deposit account can be opened by a minor of any age through his/her natural or legally appointed guardian.
Minor means
A) A child aged 10 years
B) A child aged 15 years
C) A child aged 17 years
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
These groups help the women in present society
A) DWCRA
B) Rythu Clubs
C) SMC
D) None
Answer:
A) DWCRA

Question 34.
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in
A) Europe
B) Eurasia
C) Russia
D) the U.S.A.
Answer:
A) Europe

Question 35.
The problems in the Barter System
A) non sinking wishes
B) differences in the values of goods
C) diving some goods is not possible
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 36.
The early bankers in India
A) Bengal – Jagatseths
B) Patna – Shahs
C) Surat – Arunji Nathji, Madras – Chettiars
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 37.
……………… city was main trade centre in Europe in 1606.
A) Paris
B) Moscow
C) Amsterdam
D) Madrid
Answer:
C) Amsterdam

Question 38.
Banks give loans to these
A) Merchants
B) Industrialists
C) Students, farmers, crafts men
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
SHG means
A) Self Help Group
B) Self Heritage Group
C) Self Historical Groupism
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Self Help Group

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Minerals and Mining on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Crude petroleum is a
A) mineral oil
B) metal
C) gas
D) solid
Answer:
A) mineral oil

Question 2.
Kolar Gold Fields are in
A) Sri Lanka
B) India
C) Indonesia
D) Bhutan
Answer:
B) India

Question 3.
Kothagudem is in ………………. valley
A) Krishna
B) Ganga
C) Narmada
D) Godavari
Answer:
D) Godavari

Question 4.
All mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the
A) government
B) company
C) a group of people
D) group of employees
Answer:
A) government

Question 5.
In …………… the government took over all mines.
A) 1980s
B) 1970s
C) 1950s
D) 1920s
Answer:
B) 1970s

Question 6.
In some coal mines the coal transported through
A) conveyor belt
B) trains
C) buses
D) lorries
Answer:
A) conveyor belt

Question 7.
Upper layer barytes are in ……………… colour.
A) red
B) yellow
C) grey
D) brown
Answer:
C) grey

Question 8.
Flooring stones are found in
A) Ranga Reddy
B) Kadapa
C) Warangal
D) Khammam
Answer:
B) Kadapa

Question 9.
The thing that we get from the earth is
A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Mineral
D) Fuel
Answer:
C) Mineral

Question 10.
Resources are classified as
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 11.
Which kind of mineral is Granite stone?
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Non-renewable

Question 12.
An example for non-renewable mineral
A) Coal
B) Crude oil
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
The ore that is used extensively in Electrical & Electronical industries
A) Lime stone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Mica (Abhrakan)
Answer:
D) Mica (Abhrakan)

Question 14.
Limestone is used extensively in these industries
A) Cement
B) Carbide
C) Iron and steel, Soda ash
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
………….. is used for cutting and polish industries.
A) Limestone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Barytes
Answer:
B) Granite

Question 16.
Barium is extracted from this mineral
A) Manganese
B) Barytes
C) Feldspar
D) Granite
Answer:
B) Barytes

Question 17.
…………. is used as raw material to make glass, ceramic goods.
A) Granite
B) Manganese
C) Barytes
D) Feldspar
Answer:
D) Feldspar

Question 18.
The marble stone is exported to these countries.
A) China
B) South-East Asia
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
Open cast mining means
A) blasting and removing granite etc.
B) arranging and blasting bombs at a depth
C) making a large pit and keep extracting the minerals
D) all the above
Answer:
A) blasting and removing granite etc.

Question 20.
To extract oil and natural gas this is to be done into the sea bed.
A) Drilling
B) Crushing
C) Blasting
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Drilling

Question 21.
Mining provides livelihood for nearly ………….. people in India.
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs
D) 20 lakhs
Answer:
B) 10 lakhs

Question 22.
Minerals are the property of
A) individuals
B) some people
C) all the people
D) not a government
Answer:
C) all the people

Question 23.
All the mines are nationalised in the year.
A) 1960
B) 1965
C) 1970
D) 1975
Answer:
C) 1970

Question 24.
A new National Mineral Policy was announced in the year.
A) 1990
B) 1991
C) 1992
D) 1993
Answer:
D) 1993

Question 25.
The SCCL was established by the British in the year.
A) 1880
B) 1886
C) 1890
D) 1892
Answer:
B) 1886

Question 26.
In this year the Nizam of Hyderabad purchased the SCCL
A) 1900
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 27.
We should reach deep for about feet to extract coal.
A) 100 – 150
B) 150 – 250
C) 200 – 300
D) 350 – 450
Answer:
C) 200 – 300

Question 28.
Holes are drilled with air compressor to plant the explosive rods.
A) Oxygen
B) Pneumatic
C) Synthetic
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Pneumatic

Question 29.
………….. packets were inserted to keep them in place.
A) Oxygen
B) Thyroxin
C) Resin
D) Air bubbles
Answer:
C) Resin

Question 30.
The poal reserves come to an end in the areas of open cast mining in these years.
A) 10 – 15
B) 15 – 20
C) 20 – 25
D) 25 – 30
Answer:
A) 10 – 15

Question 31.
When compared to open cast mining, underground mining
A) very costly
B) very less cost
C) no difference in the two
D) all of the above
Answer:
A) very costly

Question 32.
Environmentalists differentiate between two kinds of resources – renewable and non-renewable.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Renewable resources cannot be regenerated.
B) Non-renewable resources can be generated.
C) Wood is a renewable resource.
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Wood is a renewable resource.

Question 33.
Singareni Colleries provides quarters with roads, drinking water, utilization water. It gives electricity at nominal charges. It establishes schools and hospitals.
Pick the correct comment.
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.
B) SCCL employees are very poor.
C) SCCL produces electricity.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.

Question 34.
Since it is not possible to regenerate these resources they are called non¬renewable or finite resources.
Give an example for finite resource.
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Gas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
“Hollage” Means

A) Lift
B) Hall
C) Mine
D) Mike
Answer:
A) Lift

Question 36.
This kind of employees are more in government offices at present.
A) Regular
B) Contract
C) Labour
D) None
Answer:
A) Regular

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 37.
Which district has more mineral resources?
A) Prakasam
B) Nellore
C) Anantapur
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Prakasam

Question 38.
Mica is available in
A) Nellore
B) Guntur
C) Godavari
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
A) Nellore

Question 39.
Guntur district is famous for
A) Barytes
B) Limestone
C) Granite
D) Coal
Answer:
B) Limestone

Question 40.
Granite is available in
A) Chittoor
B) Visakhapatnam
C) East Godavari
D) None
Answer:
A) Chittoor

Question 41.
An example for non-renewable resource
A) Solar energy
B) Sea water
C) Coal
D) Air
Answer:
C) Coal

Question 42.
SCCL is operating 15 open cast and 35 underground mines in ……………. districts of Telangana.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 43.
The one and only gold mine in India
A) Kolar
B) Polar
C) Ramayyapet
D) Singareni
Answer:
A) Kolar

Question 44.
The Iron ore reserves in our state
A) Hematite
B) Magnatite
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
The state which has vast deposits of coal in South India
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Telangana

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Forests: Using and Protecting Them on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A large tract of land covered by trees is
A) Forest
B) Garden
C) Kitchen garden
D) Tundra Vegetation
Answer:
A) Forest

Question 2.
The forests in Kerala and Andaman are
A) Deciduous
B) Thorny
C) Evergreen
D) Monsoon
Answer:
C) Evergreen

Question 3.
Thorny forests grow in very areas.
A) Wet
B) Marshy
C) Semi wet
D) Dry
Answer:
D) Dry

Question 4.
Swamp forests grow mostly in the
A) Sea coasts
B) Deserts
C) Plateaus
D) Hilly regions
Answer:
A) Sea coasts

Question 5.
No one could enter in these forests
A) Reserved
B) Protected
C) Confirous
D) Evergreen
Answer:
B) Protected

Question 6.
Podu cultivation in is a practice in
A) Plateaus
B) Plains
C) Hilly areas
D) Seacoasts
Answer:
C) Hilly areas

Question 7.
Forest Rights Act was introduced in the year
A) 2004
B) 2000
C) 2003
D) 2006
Answer:
D) 2006

Question 8.
The agriculture in forest
A) extensive agriculture
B) shifting agriculture
C) traditional agriculture
D) mixed agriculture
Answer:
B) shifting agriculture

Question 9.
These use forests
A) Human beings
B) Animals, plants
C) Birds, fishes, insects
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 10.
The easy definition of forest
A) the large tract of land covered by trees
B) the thick forest with birds
C) the dense forest with animals
D) none
Answer:
A) the large tract of land covered by trees

Question 11.
The main feature of the forest is
A) large landmass
B) trees and undergrowth bushes
C) considerable bio-diversity
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 12.
Slowly, by the beginning of century, forests were confined to only tracts that were not useful for agriculture.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
C) 20

Question 13.
Forest can be classified on the basis of
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is
B) soil
C) leaves
D) all the above
Answer:
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is

Question 14.
…………….. trees will only grow in very cold climates which also have snowfall.
A) Devdar
B) Brahmajemudu
C) Nagajemudu
D) Teak
Answer:
A) Devdar

Question 15.
The tree that grow in Evergreen forests.
A) Kadambam
B) Bamboo
C) Neredu/Jamun
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main kind of tree family that grow in the Evergreen forests of the Himalayas.
A) Thumma
B) Devadar
C) Jittegi
D) Teak
Answer:
B) Devadar

Question 17.
These forests grow in the regions where it rains only for some months and is warm and dry for most of the year.
A) Evergreen
B) Deciduous
C) Thorny
D) Coastal
Answer:
B) Deciduous

Question 18.
The main kind of tree family in Deciduous forests.
A) Vegi
B) Aegisa
C) Maddi
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
An example for a tree that grow in less rain region.
i) Maddi, Teak
ii) Velaga, Aegisa
iii) Yepi.Tuniki
iv) Billu, Vepa, Dirisena
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 20.
The forests that grow in very dry areas with little rainfall
A) Thumma, Bulusurega
B) Sithapal, Moduga
C) Vepa
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name for sea coast tidal forests
A) Littoral and Swamp forests
B) Thorny forests
C) Evergreen forests
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Littoral and Swamp forests

Question 22.
The main trees in Littoral and swamp forests.
i) Uppu ponna, Boddu ponna
ii) Urada, Mada
iii) Thella Mada, Gundu Mada
iv) Kadili, bella
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii, iii, iv
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 23.
The area of forests in our state is ……………. kms.
A) 15,604
B) 20,064
C) 64,000
D) 30,904
Answer:
C) 64,000

Question 24.
The share of forest land in total land of Andhra Pradesh.
A) 20%
B) 23%
C) 32%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 23%

Question 25.
Only about of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest.
A) 10.05%
B) 16.65%
C) 16%
D) 20.74%
Answer:
C) 16%

Question 26.
Every year about …………….. sq.km, of forests are lost in our state.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
B) 100

Question 27.
About …………… of the people in North coastal Region of our state collect minor forest produce and sell them in local markets for earning a living.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 20%
D) 100%
Answer:
C) 20%

Question 28.
About tribal people in our state today live forests.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 29.
Before this rule tribals treated forests as their own property.
A) Kings
B) Nizam of Hyderabad
C) British rule
D) None
Answer:
C) British rule

Question 30.
Forests are classified as below.
A) Protected
B) Reserved
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 31.
In the name of forest conservation, large scale evictions occurred in the
A) 1910
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 32.
By the govt, had realised that the development of tribal people could not be thought of without giving them any rights over forests.
A) 1980
B) 1988
C) 1990
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1988

Question 33.
The National Forest Policy is declared in the year
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1988
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1988

Question 34.
The year of Forest Rights Act is
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2006
D) 2010
Answer:
C) 2006

Question 35.
In India at least, most forests are inhabited by people who have been living in them by adapting themselves to the conditions of the forests but without changing them too much.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.
B) The people in forests change the situation according to them.
C) The lifestyle of forest people is ultra modern.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.

Question 36.
Deciduous forests grow in the areas like Srikakulam, Visakhapatnam, YSR Kadapa and Kurnool.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more rain.
B) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive less rain.
C) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive no rain.
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.
Answer:
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.

Question 37.
“A large track of land covered by trees”
A) Garden
B) Kitchen garden
C) Forest
D) Lawn
Answer:
C) Forest

Question 38.
About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.
The forest cover in A.P. is this much less than the required.
A) 10% approximately
B) 20% approximately
C) 23% approximately
D) 5% approximately
Answer:
A) 10% approximately

Question 39.
These factors influence forests
A) Soil
B) Sunshine
C) Rainfall
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
The reason behind the declination of forests.
A) construction of railways
B) making of ships
C) factories, mines
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 41.
Present global warming problem arose due to
A) Forestation
B) Deforestation
C) Afforestation
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Deforestation

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 42.
This district has thorny forests
A) Kadapa
B) Chittoor
C) Ananthapur
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 43.
The district which has wet deciduous forests
A) Chittoor
B) Srikakulam
C) Ananthapur
D) Kadapa
Answer:
B) Srikakulam

Question 44.
These forests are more widespread in our state
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
C) Dry deciduous forests

Question 45.
Our state does not have these forests
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
D) Evergreen forests

Question 46.
On which side are more forests located?
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Answer:
A) North

Question 47.
……………. living around the forests use them for a variety of purposes.
A) Wild Animals
B) People
C) Cattle
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) People

Question 48.
……………… of our land is under forests.
A) 26 %
B) 24 %
C) 15 %
D) 18 %
Answer:
B) 24 %

Question 49.
Even today more than of tribal people live in forests.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 50.
The main aim of the Forest Rights Act – 2006 is
A) to conserve the forests and at the same time, ensure livelihood and food security of the forest dwellers
B) the forest dwellers who are integral to the very survival and sustainability of the forests are having forest rights on ancestral lands.
C) It has become necessary to address the long-standing insecurity of land rights and access rights of forest dwellers including those who are forced to relocate their dwelling due to state development interventions
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 51.
The tribal in forests get the permission of and use the forests.
A) govt, officials
B) village heads
C) government
D) Naxalites
Answer:
B) village heads

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 4 The Polar Regions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 4th Lesson The Polar Regions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The region which lies near the poles is called …………….
A) Polar region
B) Tropical belt
C) South temperate region
D) North temperate region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 2.
The Northern part of the continents within the Polar region is known as the
A) Arctic circle
B) Tundra
C) Prairies
D) Pampas
Answer:
B) Tundra

Question 3.
The sun begins to shine in the tundra around
A) September – October
B) June – July
C) February – March
D) August – September
Answer:
C) February – March

Question 4.
Tundra has the summer of …………. months.
A) 5 months
B) 8 months
C) 9 months
D) 3 months
Answer:
D) 3 months

Question 5.
‘Igloo’ means
A) Food
B) Hunt
C) Shelter
D) Dress
Answer:
C) Shelter

Question 6.
In …………. most houses are built of stone slabs.
A) Alaska
B) Labrador
C) Norway
D) Greenland
Answer:
D) Greenland

Question 7.
Mukluks are ………………. of the Eskimos.
A) Jackets
B) Sweaters
C) Boots
D) Helmets
Answer:
C) Boots

Question 8.
Vikings were from
A) Iceland
B) Baffin Island
C) Greenland
D) Sweden
Answer:
A) Iceland

Question 9.
The region at the poles
A) Polar region
B) Nonpolar region
C) Equatorial region
D) Tropical region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 10.
Tundra vegetation means
A ) that grow in the Taiga region
B) that grow in the Tundra region
C) that grow in the desert region
D) all the above
Answer:
B) that grow in the Tundra region

Question 11.
The Sun does not rise in these months in the Tundra Region.
A) November
B) December
C) January
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
The Tundra Region becomes dark, deserted and desolate in this season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy season
D) All the seasons
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 13.
The Sun begins to shine in the Tundra around ……………..
A) February
B) March
C) Both A & B
D) December
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
For almost three months from …………… the sun never sets.
A) May to July
B) January to March
C) November to January
D) August to October
Answer:
A) May to July

Question 15.
The ………………… is the place where the earth appears to meet the sky.
A) horizon
B) equinoxes
C) movement in the atmosphere
D) all the above
Answer:
A) horizon

Question 16.
The ice that floats in water
A) Icebergs
B) Icehytes
C) Icemakers
D) Ice birds
Answer:
A) Icebergs

Question 17.
Due to cold, the upper soil surface of the region is frozen into a rock-like state all through the year is called ……………
A) Icebergs
B) Permafrost
C) Vermicompost
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Permafrost

Question 18.
The region of Eskimos
A) Tundra Region
B) Taiga Region
C) Steppe Region
D) Savannah Region
Answer:
A) Tundra Region

Question 19.
The people that lived in the regions of Greenland, Canada, Alaska, and Siberia.
A) Bedouins
B) Bushmen
C) Eskimos
D) Red hunters
Answer:
C) Eskimos

Question 20.
Eskimo means
A) snow-head
B) snowshoe – netter
C) snow bodied man
D) all the above
Answer:
B) snowshoe – netter

Question 21.
The main groups in Eskimos.
A) Inuit
B) Yupik
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 22.
Inuit means
A) the people
B) the kingdom
C) the government
D) the sovereignty
Answer:
A) the people

Question 23.
The language of the Eskimos
A) Aluet
B) Yupik
C) Inupik
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
The number of Eskimos in Siberia
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 4,000
Answer:
A) 2,000

Question 25.
The number of Eskimos in Greenland
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 43,000
Answer:
D) 43,000

Question 26.
The members in Eskimo group
A) 20 – 40
B) 25 – 45
C) 35 – 45
D) 15 – 40
Answer:
B) 25 – 45

Question 27.
The Eskimos cover a circuit of more than ………………. kms in their nomadic life.
A) 1,000
B) 1100
C) 1200
D) 1300
Answer:
B) 1100

Question 28.
The boats used by Eskimos
A) Umiyans
B) Sledges
C) Umiaks
D) Lopes
Answer:
C) Umiaks

Question 29.
The animal hunted by Eskimos
A) Caribou
B) Whale
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 30.
The main occupation of Eskimos
A) hunting
B) fishing
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
The season of Caribou hunt
A) summer
B) spring
C) both A & B
D) winter
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 32.
The instrument used to catch fish by Eskimos
A) pronged spears
B) 2 pronged spears
C) 3 pronged spears
D) 4 pronged spears
Answer:
C) 3 pronged spears

Question 33.
Eskimos caught seals with this instrument
A) Harpoon
B) Karpoon
C) Tarpoon
D) None
Answer:
A) Harpoon

Question 34.
The main food item of Eskimos
A) Meat
B) Fish
C) Fat
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
Eskimos cook their food with this
A) Glass bottles
B) Oil lamps
C) Fats
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Oil lamps

Question 36.
The meaning of Igloo
A) Shelter
B) Residence
C) Living area
D) None
Answer:
A) Shelter

Question 37.
Eskimos live in tents made of ……………… in summer.
A) Sticks
B) Animal hides
C) Tiles
D) Cloth/Patla
Answer:
B) Animal hides

Question 38.
The shoes of Eskimos
A) Jhalaks
B) Mukluks
C) Lukluks
D) Jharaks
Answer:
B) Mukluks

Question 39.
Coastal groups prefer ……………. skin in late spring and summer.
A) seal
B) caribou
C) whale
D) none
Answer:
A) seal

Question 40.
Eskimos use this in toy making
A) bone
B) tooth
C) wood, soapstone
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
All Eskimos groups believe in a super natural power called
A) sila
B) maternal
C) paternal
D) all the above
Answer:
A) sila

Question 42.
Each group has some major ceremonies performed at birth and death or when hunting is very poor or very successful by
A) Samans
B) Shamans
C) Kamans
D) Shemans
Answer:
B) Shamans

Question 43.
The main competitions of Eskimos
A) Wrestling
B) Racing
C) Harpoon throughing
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
The first Europeans to be seen by Eskimos were
A) Red hunters
B) Vikings
C) Pekings
D) Bushmen
Answer:
B) Vikings

Question 45.
By 1728, the Russians had arrived in
A) Siberia
B) Northern Alaska
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 46.
Match the following.
Group – A                             Group – B
1) Icebergs            ( )        a) Boats
2) Winter hunt      ( )        b) Weapon
3) Umiaks              ( )        c) Ice blocks or mountain like structures in oceans
4) Greenland         ( )        d) Stone slate houses
5) Harpoon            ( )        e) Seal
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
D) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b

Question 47.
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra. Tundra means very cold. Since the Tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the ‘Tundra Vegetation’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The northern part of the globe has Tundra vegetation.
B) There is heavy sunlight in the Tundra region.
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.

Question 48.
The Eskimo word “igloo” means shelter. It can refer to any kind of house, not really the dome-shaped snow houses that many people associate with the word.
A) Igloo means a dome-shaped snow house.
B) Igloo is a European word.
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.
D) Igloos are located only in ice deserts.
Answer:
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.

Question 49.
Find out the mismatch.
1) Whale hunting -1859 -1910 s
2) Modern trade of fur -1925 -1950 s
3) The building of military and defense bases mid -1950 s
4) The building of Urban centers – mid-1960 s
5) Oil exploration and development – 1970 s
A) 1 & 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 4, 5
D) All correct
Answer:
D) All correct

Question 50.
The Eskimos wear boots called mukluks, trousers, and hooded jackets called parkas – all made of animal skins.
The clothes of Eskimos are made of
A) Mukluks
B) Trousers
C) Hooded jackets
D) Animal skins
Answer:
D) Animal skins

Question 51.
Shamans are believed to help establish and keep contact with the spirit world. Shamans use trances, drama, and magic tricks in their performances.
Who are Shamans?
A) Shamans are Purohits.
B) Shamans are Tantriks.
C) Shamans are Gurus.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shamans are Tantriks.

Question 52.
The reason behind the new relationship of Eskimos with different social and economic forces
A) air-travel
B) highways
C) powerful modem ships
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 53.
This change has produced great strains on the Eskimo way of life
A) Air travel
B) Highways
C) Satellite communications
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
The Eskimos first entered North America about …………… years ago, crossing the Bering straits from Asia.
A) 5000
B) 3000
C) 8000
D) 10000
Answer:
A) 5000

Question 55.
………….. hunting is essential for nearly all Eskimo groups.
A) Deer
B) Caribou
C) Bear
D) Fox
Answer:
B) Caribou

Question 56.
After the late’s, large numbers of Europeans began to live year-round
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1750
D) 1800
Answer:
D) 1800

Question 57.
In 1576 – 78 the English Mariner that visited Baffin Island
A) Martin Linlithgo
B) Martin Frosbisher
C) Martin Mao
D) Martin Louis
Answer:
B) Martin Frosbisher

Question 58.
After ………….. the arrival of the Europeans and American whalers and fur traders brought many changes.
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1850
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1850

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Earth Movements and Seasons on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earth rotates from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North to Sourth
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 2.
……………. is called ‘Land of Midnight Sun.
A) India
B) Japan
C) Norway
D) New York
Answer:
C) Norway

Question 3.
The earthlike a top.
A) revolves
B) stands
C) looks
D) spins
Answer:
D) spins

Question 4.
The angle keeps increasing move towards the
A) Two poles
B) Tropic of Cancer only
C) Equator
D) Arctic Circle only
Answer:
A) Two poles

Question 5.
Equinoxes are
A) March 21 and December 23
B) March 21 and September 23
C) March 23 and September 21
D) March 21 and November 23
Answer:
D) March 21 and November 23

Question 6.
0° latitude is called
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Equator
C) Arctic Circle
D) Greenwich meridian
Answer:
B) Equator

Question 7.
The Sun illuminates one of the earth at any given movement.
A) 3/4
B) quarter
C) half
D) and half
Answer:
C) half

Question 8.
The axis of earth is tilted by ………………
A) 13.5°
B) 20.5°
C) 22.5°
D) 23.5°
Answer:
D) 23.5°

Question 9.
Sun on the Tropic of Capricorn
A) December 22
B) February 22
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
A) December 22

Question 10.
Snowfall is high in this region during winter
A) equatorial region
B) the northern region to the equator
C) the southern region to the equator
D) all the above
Answer:
B) the northern region to the equator

Question 11.
The time taken for one rotation of the earth on its own axis
A) 20 hours
B) 22 hours
C) 23 hours
D) 24 hours
Answer:
D) 24 hours

Question 12.
The edge of the sun-lit hemisphere, called the
A) circle of illumination
B) circle of nonlumination
C) circle
D) elongated circle
Answer:
A) circle of illumination

Question 13.
The earth revolves round the Sun. It is known as
A) earth’s rotation
B) earth’s revolution
C) equinoxes
D) all the above
Answer:
B) earth’s revolution

Question 14.
The time for earth’s revolution
A) 365 days
B) 365 days 5 hrs
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts
D) 366 days
Answer:
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts

Question 15.
The Earth revolves round the Sun on a regular path
A) orbit
B) axis
C) face
D) surface
Answer:
B) axis

Question 16.
The Earth’s axis is tilted on it, so as to form a ……….. angle.
A) 66°
B) 66.5°
C) 90°
D) 93°
Answer:
B) 66.5°

Question 17.
As Earth revolves around the Sun, Earth’s axis remains tilted in the same direction throughout the year. It keeps pointing pole star in the Northern sky and this is called the
A) Axis polarity
B) Polarity of axis
C) Both A & B
D) Polarity
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
The Northern and Southern Hemispheres get similar amount of energy from the Sun in these months.
A) March, April
B) March, May
C) March, September
D) September, December
Answer:
C) March, September

Question 19.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Cancer in the Northern hemisphere
A) December
B) March
C) May
D) June
Answer:
D) June

Question 20.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere
A) March
B) May
C) December
D) June
Answer:
C) December

Question 21.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of cancer on this date
A) December 22
B) June 21
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
B) June 21

Question 22.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of capricorn on this date
A) June 21
B) March 21
C) September 23
D) December 22
Answer:
D) December 22

Question 23.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the equator
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) December 22
Answer:
A) March 21

Question 24.
The day of Equinoxes
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) June 21
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
The day time at the poles
A) 24 hrs
B) 1 month
C) 6 months
D) 4 months
Answer:
C) 6 months

Question 26.
Observe the diagram and pick the correct comment.

A) The earth rotates from west to east.
B) All the lines on the globe are real.
C) The horizontal lines are meridians.
D) The line that connects the north and south is orbit.
Answer:
A) The earth rotates from west to east.

Question 27.
On March 21 and September 23 throughout the world day and night are equal in size, so these are called equinoxes.
Pick the right comment.
A) Equinoxes are two imaginary lines.
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.
C) Equinoxes – the days are longer than nights throughout the world.
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.

Question 28.
If it is summer in the northern regions to the equator then in the southern regions there is ………….. season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy
D) None
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 29.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.

When the Earth rotates, the air around us, the clouds and the birds move along with the Earth. That is way we don’t feel the movement in the manner when we travel on a train or bus.
When the Earth rotates, this happens.
A) The clouds only move along with the earth.
B) The birds only move along the with the earth.
C) The human beings only move along with the earth.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.
As we move northwards or southwards of the Tropical Belt we reach a region where it gets warm in summers but also very cold in winters. This is the Temperate Zone. The northern portions of this region get snowfall in winters.
Where is the Temperate Zone located?
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.
B) Temperate zone is to the north of the Tropical Belt only.
C) Temperate zone is to the south of the Tropical Belt only.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.

Question 31.
This influence the seasons
A) The earth is spherical and it has curved surface.
B) The earth rotates on its own axis once in a day.
C) The axis is inclined when compared to its orbit.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
The main result of the earth’s rotation
A) formation of day and night
B) differences occur in temperatures
C) formation of Ocean currents
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 33.
What happens if the earth does not rotate?
A) No day and night formation
B) One side continuous day and one side continuous night
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 34.
Ohio is in ……………
A) Australia
B) the U.S.A.
C) Canada
D) Europe
Answer:
B) the U.S.A.

Question 35.
The Tropical Belt means
A) The region between the equator and northern pole
B) The region between the equator and southern pole
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
D) The region between the two poles
Answer:
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 36.
Which season is there on March 21st on South?
A) Spring
B) Winter
C) Summer
D) Autumn
Answer:
D) Autumn

Question 37.
Earth revolution is from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North west to North east
D) None
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 38.
Which season is there on December 22 on the north?
A) Winter
B) Spring
C) Autumn
D) Summer
Answer:
A) Winter

Question 39.
Human beings live along with a large community of
A) Plants
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 40.
…………… region is frozen throughout the year.
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Arctic
D) Hindu
Answer:
C) Arctic

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Energy from the Sun on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson Energy from the Sun with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Temperature difference between places also causes winds and
A) Rains
B) Energy
C) Angle of incidence
D) Global warming
Answer:
A) Rains

Question 2.
The solar radiation received on the surface of the Earth is called
A) Radiation
B) Insolation
C) Reflection
D) Angle of incidence
Answer:
B) Insolation

Question 3.
It will get more warmer on the …………… than the regions near the poles.
A) Arctic circle
B) Antarctic circle
C) Equator
D) Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 4.
It Is safer and advisable to use thermometer that has a scale of …………..
A) 10°C -110°C
B) 10°C to 90°C
C) 10°C -100°C
D) 10°C – 120°C
Answer:
A) 10°C -110°C

Question 5.
………… is far away from the sea.
A) Kolkata
B) Panaji
C) Hyderabad
D) Kanyakumari
Answer:
A) Kolkata

Question 6.
Indonesia is in this region of
A) Arctic
B) Antarctic
C) Temperate
D) Equatorial
Answer:
D) Equatorial

Question 7.
……………. decreases with elevation.
A) Temperature
B) Insolation
C) Radiation
D) Reflection
Answer:
A) Temperature

Question 8.
…………… cannot be seen but can be felt.
A) Oceans
B) Continents
C) Mountains
D) The diversity in temperature
Answer:
D) The diversity in temperature

Question 9.
The difference between the temperatures of two places influence these
A) winds
B) rains
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 10.
Trees and animals live by depending on these.
A) heat
B) water
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 11.
The energy which is constantly emitted by the Sun is known as
A) Solar radiation
B) Solar insolation
C) Solar ray
D) Solar energy
Answer:
D) Solar energy

Question 12.
The energy comes from the Sun in this form.
A) Sun’s rays
B) Sunlines
C) Solar radiation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Sun’s rays

Question 13.
The energy comes from the Sun in this form.
A) Ultraviolet rays
B) Radio waves
C) X – rays
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
…………… of the solar energy is reflected back by the Earth’s atmosphere.
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 1/5
Answer:
B) 1/3

Question 15.
Some amount of solar rays are also absorbed or reflected away by
A) Clouds
B) Smoke
C) Dust
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The equatorial region is hot when compared to the poles.
A) The same amount of solar energy falls on a larger area on the equator and on a smaller area as we move north and south of it.
B) The same amount of solar energy falls on a smaller area on the equator and on a larger area as we move north and south of it.
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) The same amount of solar energy falls on a smaller area on the equator and on a larger area as we move north and south of it.

Question 17.
The angle at which the sunrays fall on the earth’s surface.
A) Better angle
B) Angle of incidence
C) Increasing angle
D) None
Answer:
B) Angle of incidence

Question 18.
The angle of incidence increases in the north during the months of
A) May – June
B) November – December
C) September – October
D) June – July
Answer:
B) November – December

Question 19.
The atmosphere or the air around US is heated by the sunrays in this way.
A) heated directly
B) not heated directly
C) mixes in the air
D) all the above
Answer:
B) not heated directly

Question 20.
The gas that objects the radiation of the earth.
A) O₂
B) Organ
C) CO₂
D) All the above
Answer:
C) CO₂

Question 21.
The instrument that measure atmospheric temperature.
A) Barometre
B) Celsius Thermometre
C) Anemometre
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Celsius Thermometre

Question 22.
The highest temperature that is recorded in Azizia in Libya in July 1992.
A) 56°C
B) 57°C
C) 57.8°C
D) 68°C
Answer:
C) 57.8°C

Question 23.
The lowest temperature that was recorded in Vostok in Antarctica in July 1983.
A) – 68°C
B) – 89.2°C
C) – 90°C
D) – 90.2°C
Answer:
B) – 89.2°C

Question 24.
The lowest temperature that is less than zero.
A) – 273°C
B) – 274°C
C) -273.16°C
D) – 264°C
Answer:
C) -273.16°C

Question 25.
The highest temperature in Ananthapuram is recorded in this month.
A) April
B) May
C) July
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 26.
The lowest temperature in Ananthapuram is recorded in this month.
A) September
B) October
C) November
D) December
Answer:
D) December

Question 27.
The highest temperature is recorded in Visakhapatnam in this month.
A) May
B) January
C) September
D) March
Answer:
A) May

Question 28.
The temperatures when moving to high altitudes.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) no change
D) none
Answer:
A) decrease

Question 29.
For ascent of 1000 mtrs. from the sea level the temperature.
A) increases 6°C
B) decreases 6°C
C) no change
D) decreases 4°C
Answer:
B) decreases 6°C

Question 30.
The temperature inversion is recorded in
A) Mountain Valleys
B) The regions where the daytime is less and night time is more with low earth’s radiation
C) Near the earth during winters
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 31.
The temperature in the regions near the equator.
A) more
B) low
C) no change
D) change is present
Answer:
A) more

Question 32.
The regions in India that have average temperature is 30°C in January in India.
A) Many are there
B) No places are there
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Many are there

Question 33.
VOSTOK is a station in
A) Arctic region
B) Antarctica
C) Australia
D) America
Answer:
B) Antarctica

Question 34.
If the insolation received at the equator (0°) is 100 units, then the number of units at 45° (Northern Japan)
A) 50
B) 40
C) 75
D) 100
Answer:
C) 75

Question 35.
If the insolaiton received at the equator (0°) is 100 units, then the number of units at 661/2° (Arctic circle)
A) 40
B) 50
C) 25
D) 45
Answer:
B) 50

Question 36.
The lowest temperature in Visakhapatnam is recorded in this month.
A) January
B) December
C) March
D) May
Answer:
A) January

Question 37.
The energy radiated by the Sun is ……………… throughout the year and year after year.
A) more or less constant with very little variation
B) different
C) increases
D) decreases
Answer:
A) more or less constant with very little variation

Question 38.
Even the rays that reach the ground do not heat the Earth’s surface uniformly.
A) because the earth’s surface is flat
B) because the earth’s surface is curved.
C) because the earth’s surface is up and down
D) all the above
Answer:
B) because the earth’s surface is curved.

Question 39.
If the Earth radiates back more heat than it receives, then it changes like this.
A) cool
B) warm
C) temperate
D) all the above
Answer:
A) cool

Question 40.
The reason for increase of CO₂
A) the increased usage of petrol & diesel, etc.
B) cutting forests
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 41.
The moderating climate influence is on this region.
A) Chennai
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Panaji
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
The moderating climate influence is hot on this region.
A) Delhi
B) Jaipur
C) Simla
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 43.
What is the line to the south of equator?
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Pacific Ocean
C) Tropic of Capricorn
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Tropic of Capricorn

Question 44.
What is the line to the north of equator?
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Arctic Ocean
C) Tropic of Capricorn
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Tropic of Cancer

Question 45.
This is …………. projection.
A) Rachalson
B) Johnson
C) Jackson
D) Robinson
Answer:
D) Robinson

Question 46.
The continents that are near to the equator
A) South America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
The given map is about
A) World mean temperature
B) World mean annual temperature
C) India’s mean temperature
D) India’s mean annual temperature
Answer:
B) World mean annual temperature

Look at the graph of Minimum- Maximum temperature given below and answer the questions.

Question 48.
The average highest temperature in July
A) 28°C
B) 35°C
C) 15°C
D) 40°C
Answer:
A) 28°C

Question 49.
There is a bigger difference between day and night temperatures in the month of
A) November
B) May
C) December
D) January
Answer:
B) May

Question 50.
The minimum temperature in June
A) 28°C
B) 26°C
C) 20°C
D) 15°C
Answer:
C) 20°C

Question 51.
The maximum temperature in December
A) 26°C
B) 18°C
C) 20°C
D) 30°C
Answer:
A) 26°C

Question 52.
This graph shows
A) temperature of Amaravathi
B) temperature of Lucknow
C) temperature of Tamil Nadu
D) temperature of Bengaluru
Answer:
D) temperature of Bengaluru

Observe the following graphs and answer the questions.

Question 53.
The month that receives the highest maximum temperature in Shimla
A) February
B) October
C) August
D) May
Answer:
D) May

Question 54.
The month that receives the lowest minimum temperature in Delhi
A) January
B) November
C) September
D) June
Answer:
A) January

Question 55.
In September, the average maximum temperature in Shimla is 17°C, while in Delhi it is
A) 30°C
B) 26°C
C) 34°C
D) 15°C
Answer:
C) 34°C

Question 56.
The highest maximum temperature in Delhi in the month of May is
A) 28°C
B) 22°C
C) 12°C
D) 40°C
Answer:
D) 40°C

Question 57.
Shimla has temperature in September.
A) 10°C
B) 5°C
C) 20°C
D) 2°C
Answer:
A) 10°C

Question 58.
Some gases like ……………… prevent radiation of heat from the earth.
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Carbon-di-oxide
Answer:
D) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 59.
…………… will take time to heat and cool.
A) Land
B) Oceans
C) Mountains
D) Valleys
Answer:
B) Oceans

Question 60.
The hot regions throughout the year.
A) Temperate regions
B) Polar regions
C) Equatorial regions
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Equatorial regions

Question 61.
…………… influence lives very much.
A) Temperature
B) Rainfall
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 62.
The main source of energy on the earth.
A) Jupiter
B) Mars
C) Moon
D) Sun
Answer:
D) Sun

Question 63.
The Global warming means
A) The earth’s radiation decreases as CO₂ increases.
B) The earth’s radiation increases as CO₂ decreases.
C) Both A & B
D) The CO₂ is constant and the earth’s radiation is also constant
Answer:
A) The earth’s radiation decreases as CO₂ increases.

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Reading and Analysis of Maps on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Reading and Analysis of Maps with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Anaximander was a ……………. geographer.
A) Greek
B) Italian
C) Indian
D) Canadian
Answer:
A) Greek

Question 2.
One famous Arab mapmaker, Al Idrisi prepared a ………………… map for his king.
A) Arab
B) Indian
C) World
D) Australia
Answer:
C) World

Question 3.
Relief features mean the high and low places on the surface of a
A) Planet
B) Star
C) Ocean
D) Core of a star
Answer:
A) Planet

Question 4.
An/A is a collection of maps.
A) Mapbook
B) Atlas
C) Textbook
D) Notebook
Answer:
B) Atlas

Question 5.
They established a department called “Survey of India.”
A) Dutch
B) French
C) British
D) Polish
Answer:
C) British

Question 6.
In ……………. William Hambton began one of the most important geographical surveys in the world.
A) 1802
B) 1702
C) 1902
D) 1752
Answer:
C) 1902

Question 7.
A map is used by geographers to show features and information that we consider important about a place.
A) Political maps
B) Geographical maps
C) Historical maps
D) None
Answer:
A) Political maps

Question 8.
Some of the earliest surviving maps were made about …………… years ago.
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 4000
D) 5000
Answer:
C) 4000

Question 9.
……………. also made some of the world earliest maps.
A) Sumerians
B) Babylonians
C) Chinese
D) Indians
Answer:
B) Babylonians

Question 10.
They tried to make the maps accurate with the help of longitudes and latitudes.
A) Romans
B) Persians
C) Greeks
D) Indians
Answer:
C) Greeks

Question 11.
A set of places where the midday occurred at the same time were joined together with a line from North to South is
A) Meridian
B) Noon-line
C) Longitude
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
The Chinese showed this cape which was already discovered by the Europeans
A) Kanya Kumari
B) Goodhope
C) Biskae
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Goodhope

Question 13.
The birthplace of Jesus Christ
A) Palestine
B) Jerusalem
C) Arabia
D) America
Answer:
B) Jerusalem

Question 14.
The Europeans rediscovered the books of Ptolemy in
A) 1400
B) 1480
C) 1520
D) 1600
Answer:
B) 1480

Question 15.
The …………… had blocked the trade route to India across the Mediterranean sea.
A) Arabs
B) Europeans
C) Turks
D) Greeks
Answer:
A) Arabs

Question 16.
……………. discovered America.
A) Columbus
B) Vasco-da-Gama
C) Magillan
D) Copernicus
Answer:
A) Columbus

Question 17.
In the 16th century ……………….. emerged as a major trading power.
A) Holland
B) Poland
C) Russia
D) Spain
Answer:
A) Holland

Question 18.
……………. was appointed as Indian Surveyor General.
A) James Rennel
B) James Sanneel
C) James William
D) None
Answer:
A) James Rennel

Question 19.
In our times …………….. are used extensively for planning and development of countries.
A) maps
B) pictures
C) cinemas
D) statues
Answer:
A) maps

Question 20.
Usually, a map focuses only on one aspect which is called as …………….. maps.
A) thematic
B) geographical
C) employment
D) population
Answer:
A) thematic

Question 21.
This colour is used to show the forest in a map.
A) light green
B) dark green
C) wheat colour
D) violet
Answer:
B) dark green

Question 22.
The colour is used to show mountains in maps.
A) violet
B) dark violet
C) light violet
D) dark grey
Answer:
D) dark grey

Question 23.
……………. is used to show tanks, rivers, canals and wells, etc.in maps.
A) Light red
B) Light violet
C) Light blue
D) White
Answer:
C) Light blue

Question 24.
The other name of contour lines.
A) Isobars
B) Isohyets
C) Isolines
D) Isopleths
Answer:
C) Isolines

Question 25.
A science of maps
A) History
B) Cartography
C) Coreography
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Cartography

Question 26.
The Britishers established a department to prepare detailed maps of the interiors of the country. (
A) Indian Forest Department
B) Indian River-based Department
C) Survey of India
D) Indian Soil Department
Answer:
C) Survey of India

Question 27.
……………. is the technique of taking of photographs of the ground from an elevated position using aircrafts, helicopters, hot air balloons, etc.
A) Aerial line
B) Aerial clouds
C) Aerial photography
D) Sea surface
Answer:
C) Aerial photography

Question 28.
Columbus went ……………. and discovered America.
A) Eastward
B) Westward
C) Southward
D) Northward
Answer:
B) Westward

Question 29.
How did the Greeks show the continents in the world?
A) Europe, Libya, Asia
B) Europe, America, Africa
C) Europe, Asia, America
D) Asia, Libya, America
Answer:
A) Europe, Libya, Asia

Question 30.
………………. are the photographs of the earth taken by the artificial satellites launched into the space.
A) Satellite imageries
B) Blue colour imageries
C) Drawn by hand
D) None
Answer:
A) Satellite imageries

Question 31.
The maps which show hills, rivers and plateaus.
A) Geographical maps
B) Political maps
C) Economic maps
D) Population maps
Answer:
A) Geographical maps

Question 32.
Babylonians and Sumerians belonged to present day
A) Iran
B) Iraq
C) Russia
D) America
Answer:
B) Iraq

Question 33.
The symbols on a map to show Post Office, Telegraph Office, Combined Office and Police Station in a line.
A) PO TO PTO PS
B) PO RS GS PS
C) CH PO TO PTO
D) RF PF CH CG
Answer:
A) PO TO PTO PS

Question 34.
The symbol to show roads.

Answer:
A)

Question 35.
The symbols used to show ups and downs, i.e. hills, valleys, plateaus, gardens, river flowing regions on land, lands of stones and sand.
A) contour lines
B) canal lines
C) painting lines
D) all the above
Answer:
A) contour lines

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 36.
Lakshadweep islands are in,
A) Indian ocean
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Arabian sea
D) Pacific ocean
Answer:
C) Arabian sea

Question 37.
Andaman Nicobar islands are in
A) Pacific ocean
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Arabian sea
D) Indian ocean
Answer:
B) Bay of Bengal

Question 38.
The state on the east coast among the following
A) Gujarat
B) Bihar
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 39.
The state on the west coast among the following
A) Maharashtra
B) Odisha
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
A) Maharashtra

Question 40.
The state which is not located on the east coast
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer:
B) Gujarat

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 41.
What type of soil do you find in the Kurnool district?
A) Red
B) Black
C) Alluvial
D) Laterite
Answer:
B) Black

Question 42.
What is the major type of soil in AP?
A) Black
B) Red
C) Laterite
D) Mountain
Answer:
B) Red

Question 43.
What type of soil do you find in Visakhapatnam?
A) Sandy coastal
B) Rocky hill
C) Black
D) None
Answer:
A) Sandy coastal

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 44.
The district which receives low rainfall among the following
A) East Godavari
B) West Godavari
C) Nellore
D) Ananthapur
Answer:
D) Ananthapur

Question 45.
The district which receives high rainfall among the following
A) Ananthapur
B) Kadapa
C) West Godavari
D) Chittoor
Answer:
C) West Godavari

Question 46.
The district which receives moderate rainfall among the following
A) Krishna
B) Guntur
C) Prakasam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
Chittoor district receives this type of rainfall
A) high
B) moderate
C) low
D) none of the above
Answer:
B) moderate

Question 48.
East Godavari receives this type of rainfall
A) low
B) moderate
C) high
D) none of the above
Answer:
C) high

Question 49.
The father of cartography was Gerardus Mercator.
A) Iran
B) Indian
C) Greek
D) Dutch
Answer:
D) Dutch

Question 50.
The earliest maps were made by
A) Sumerians
B) Egyptians
C) Chinese
D) Indians
Answer:
A) Sumerians

Question 51.
The Greek king came to India to conquer the world 2300 years ago.
A) Socrates
B) Alexander
C) Syrus
D) Darius -1
Answer:
B) Alexander

Question 52.
Preparing latitudes and longitudes took about ……………… years.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2000

Question 53.
……………… was one of the most famous geographers of the ancient world.
A) Ptolemy
B) Locke
C) Rousseau
D) Syrus
Answer:
A) Ptolemy

Question 54.
The books were used by the Arab scholars and sailors to prepare maps.
A) Copernicus
B) Galileo
C) Ptolemy
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Ptolemy

Question 55.
…………….. prepared a world map for his king in 1154.
A) Al idrisi
B) Ptolemy
C) Locke
D) None
Answer:
A) Al idrisi

Question 56.
During the 15th century, …………….. inspired a new enthusiasm in the non-Arabic world.
A) Copernicus
B) Ptolemy
C) Al Idrisi
D) Locke
Answer:
B) Ptolemy

Question 57.
The Father of Dutch Cartography
A) Galileo
B) Gerardus Mercator
C) Al Idrisi
D) Copernicus
Answer:
B) Gerardus Mercator

Question 58.
He/who prepared one of the first survey-based maps of India.
A) Sir William
B) Mecauley
C) James Rennel
D) James -1
Answer:
C) James Rennel

Question 59.
This person proved that Everest is the highest peak in the world.
A) Sir George William
B) Me. Mahon
C) Durand
D) Sir George Everest
Answer:
D) Sir George Everest

Question 60.
The population density of Andhra Pradesh according to Census – 2011 is
A) 308
B) 307
C) 1030
D) 1102
Answer:
D) 1102

Question 61.
The state highest density of population according to the Census – 2011.
A) Assam
B) Kerala
C) West Bengal
D) Bihar
Answer:
D) Bihar

Question 62.
The population density of West Bengal
A) 1102
B) 1030
C) 859
D) 828
Answer:
B) 1030

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Movement and Locomotion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 12th Lesson Movement and Locomotion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following does not have legs, and shows locomotion?
A) frog
B) snake
C) man
D) crow
Answer:
B) snake

Question 2.
These are the organisms that can walk and fly.
A) fish
B) frog
C) birds
D) tiger
Answer:
C) birds

Question 3.
Joints that are present in ankles
A) pivot
B) ball and socket
C) gliding
D) hinge
Answer:
C) gliding

Question 4.
Parts where the smooth bone is located
A) skull
B) nose tip
C) clavicle
D) femur
Answer:
B) nose tip

Question 5.
Rib cage protects
A) stomach
B) heart
C) lungs
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

Question 6.
Backbone is a composition of
A) vertebrae
B) muscles
C) blood
D) metals
Answer:
A) vertebrae

Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. join muscles to bones.
Answer:
Tendon

2. ………………. join one bone to the other bone.
Answer:
ligament

3. The point where two bones meet is called a ……………….
Answer:
joint

4. Different bones of our body combine together to form the ………………..
Answer:
skeleton

5. ………………. work in pairs.
Answer:
Muscles

6. Plants shows ………………. but not locomotion.
Answer:
movements

7. Muscles are attached to ……………….
Answer:
bones

8. Displacement of the entire body from one place to another place ……………….
Answer:
locomotion

9. Shoulders have ………………. joint.
Answer:
ball and socket

10. Total muscles in our body are……………….
Answer:
650

11. Different bones of head corn binéd and form a ……………….
Answer:
skull

12. ………………. is the movable bone in our head.
Answer:
lower jaw

13. Backbone is made of ……………….
Answer:
vertebrae

14. Immovable joints are present in ……………….
Answer:
skull

15. Elbows and knees have ………………. joints.
Answer:
hinge joint

16. Locomotor organ in snail is ……………….
Answer:
foot

17. ………………. joint helps to bear more weight.
Answer:
pivot joint

Match the following:

Question 1.
List – A                                         List-B
A) hinge joint                ( )          1. neck
B) pivot joint                 ( )          2. shoulder
C) ball and socket         ( )          3. backbone
D) gliding joint              ( )         4. knee
Answer:
A – 4,
B – 1,
C – 2,
D – 3

Question 2.
List – A                                   List – B
A) Fish                 ( )             1. Foot
B) Snake              ( )             2. Fins
C) Bird                 ( )             3. Scales
D) Snail                ( )            4. Wings
Answer:
A – 2,
B – 3,
C – 4,
D – 1

Question 3.
List – A                                  List – B
A) Joint                   ( )          1. Skull
B) Tendon               ( )          2. Joints of bones
C) Ligament            ( )          3. Bone to Muscle
D) Fixed Joint          ( )         4. Bone to bone
Answer:
A – 4,
B – 3,
C – 2,
D – 1

Practice the AP 6th Class Science Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Shadows – Images on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 6th Class Science Bits 11th Lesson Shadows – Images with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a light sours?
A) sun
B) candle
C) fan
D) tube light
Answer:
C) fan

Question 2.
Pin-hole camera does not have
A) screen
B) lenses
C) oil paper
D) tube
Answer:
B) lenses

Question 3.
In pinhole camera which act has lenses?
A) hole
B) screen
C) tube
D) oil paper
Answer:
A) hole

Question 4.
How many pipes the pin-hole camera have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
A) 2

Question 5.
Image size in pin-hole camera is
A) big
B) small
C) equal
D) tall
Answer:
B) small

Question 6.
Which of the following does not have colors?
A) object
B) image
C) shadow
D) photograph
Answer:
C) shadow

Question 7.
Which of the following shows complete reflection?
A) ball
B) glass
C) light
D) mirror
Answer:
D) mirror

Question 8.
Which is not need to form a shadow?
A) light
B) object
C) screen
D) glass
Answer:
D) glass

Question 9.
Find the odd one?
A) Balt
B) box
C) glass
D) bag
Answer:
C) glass

Fill in the blanks.

1. When light falls on any ……………… it rebounds back.
Answer:
Object

2. Example for the light source is ………………
Answer:
sun

3. Oil-paper and rough glass are ……………… substances.
Answer:
Translucent

4. ……………….. substances aren’t able to form shadows.
Answer:
transparent

5. ………………. is the art narrating the story with shadows.
Answer:
Puppet show

6. Oil-paper act as ……………… in a pinhole camera.
Answer:
Screen

7. In pinhole camera image is ……………….
Answer:
inverted

8. ……………….. shows the only the outline of an object.
Answer:
Shadow

9. In-plane mirror we saw ………………
Answer:
image

10. ……………… is need to see objects.
Answer:
light

11. ………………. objects form shadows.
Answer:
opaque