Mahesh

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Our Earth on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Our Earth with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an environmental crisis?
A) Global warming
B) Air pollution
C) Collision of asteroids
D) The rise of water levels in oceans
Answer:
C) Collision of asteroids

Question 2.
Which of the following is the biggest of all?
A) Galaxies
B) Milky way
C) Sun
D) Universe
Answer:
D) Universe

Question 3.
The universe started ……………… ago.
A) 18.7 billion years
B) 13.7 billion years
C) 16.7 billion years
D) 15.7 billion years
Answer:
B) 13.7 billion years

Question 4.
……………… is the path of the earth around the sun.
A) The axis
B) The orbit
C) The tract
D) The milky way
Answer:
B) The orbit

Question 5.
Earth travels around the sun at a speed of …………….. per hour.
A) 1,07,200 kms
B) 6,200 kms
C) 152 millions kms
D) 1,02,700 kms
Answer:
A) 1,07,200 kms

Question 6.
Earth takes ………………. days to complete one revolution.
A) 28 days
B) 30 days
C) 366 days
D) 365[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] days
Answer:
D) 365[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] days

Question 7.
Which of the following causes seasons on the earth?
A) Daily rotation of the earth on its axis
B) Monthly movement of the Moon around the Earth
C) Revolution of the Earth around the Sun
D) Tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation to its orbital plane
Answer:
D) Tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation to its orbital plane

Question 8.
The Earth began to form around years ago.
A) 13.7 billion
B) 1,07,200
C) 4[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] billion
D) 6 billion
Answer:
C) 4[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] billion

Question 9.
Which of the following came into existence first?
A) Human beings
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Ocean species
Answer:
D) Ocean species

Question 10.
The radius of the earth is ………….
A) 1,07,200 kms
B) 9000 kms
C) 8848 kms
D) 6000 kms
Answer:
D) 6000 kms

Question 11.
Top layer of the earth is called
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 12.
Which of the following layers of the earth is very thin?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 13.
Which of the following layers is the thickest?
A) Outer core
B) Mantle
C) Crust
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Outer core

Question 14.
Which of the following layers consists of silicons?
A) Outer core
B) Mantle
C) Crust
D) Inner core
Answer:
B) Mantle

Question 15.
Which of the following layers consists of iron and nickel?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Outer core

Question 16.
Which of the following layers consists of gold?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Inner core
D) Outer core
Answer:
C) Inner core

Question 17.
Who introduced the theory of continental drift?
A) Alfred Nobel
B) Alfred Wagener
C) John Dalton
D) Galileo Galilei
Answer:
B) Alfred Wagener

Question 18.
We can locate places on the earth with the help of
A) latitudes
B) longitudes
C) grid
D) equator
Answer:
C) grid

Question 19.
Latitudes are
A) circles
B) straight lines
C) semi-circles
D) curves
Answer:
A) circles

Question 20.
Longitudes are
A) circles
B) semi-circles
C) straight lines
D) curves
Answer:
B) semi-circles

Question 21.
Which latitude is called Tropic of Cancer?
A) 0° latitude
B) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude
C) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude
D) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude
Answer:
C) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude

Question 22.
Which latitude is called Tropic of
A) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude
B) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude
C) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude
D) 0° latitude
Answer:
A) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude

Question 23.
0° meridian is called
A) Greenwich meridian
B) Anti-meridian
C) UTC
D) Equator
Answer:
A) Greenwich meridian

Question 24.
180° meridian is called
A) Greenwich meridian
B) Anti-meridian
C) UTC
D) Equator
Answer:
B) Anti-meridian

Question 25.
How much time does the earth take to move 1° longitude?
A) 24 hours
B) one hour
C) 4 minutes
D) 4 hours
Answer:
C) 4 minutes

Question 26.
The earth is divided into
A) 36
B) 24
C) 30
D) 60
Answer:
B) 24

Question 27.
Standard meridian of India is
A) 0° longitude
B) 82° 30′ Eastern longitude
C) 82° 30′ Western latitude
D) 90° Eastern longitude
Answer:
B) 82° 30′ Eastern longitude

Question 28.
The Indian standard time is
A) 12 hours before Greenwich time
B) 12 hours after Greenwich time
C) 5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° hours before Greenwich time
D) 5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° hours after Greenwich time
Answer:
C) 5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° hours before Greenwich time

Question 29.
Universe started some …………… billion years ago.
A) One Lakh
B) 472
C) 152
D) 13.7
Answer:
D) 13.7

Question 30.
Earth travels around the sun at a speed of ………….. kmph.
A) 2,07,100
B) 7,02,100
C) 1,07,200
D) 1,02,700
Answer:
C) 1,07,200

Question 31.
Human beings arrived on earth ………….. years ago.
A) 10,00,000
B) 1,00,000
C) 1 crore
D) 1 billion
Answer:
B) 1,00,000

Question 32.
First life appeared on planet Earth in
A) oceans
B) plants
C) animals
D) plains
Answer:
A) oceans

Question 33.
Heavy substance gold most prevalent in
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
D) Inner core

Question 34.
Alfred Wagener a geophysicist of
A) Italy
B) Austria
C) France
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 35.
The largest latitude is
A) North pole
B) Arctic circle
C) Equator
D) Tropic of cancer
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 36.
………….. longitude is Standard Meridian of India.
A) 83°20’E
B) 82°30’E
C) 83°20’W
D) 82°30’W
Answer:
B) 82°30’E

Question 37.
The world is divided in …………. time zones.
A) four
B) twenty four
C) twelve
D) eight
Answer:
B) twenty four

Question 38.
Earth’s farthest point from Sun is ………. km.
A) 152 mn
B) 125 mn
C) 174 mn
D) 147 mn
Answer:
A) 152 mn

Question 39.
Earth’s closest point from Sun is ………… km.
A) 147 mn
B) 174 mn
C) 125 mn
D) 152 mn
Answer:
A) 147 mn

Question 40.
Earth takes day(s) to complete a rotation.
A) 365[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]
B) 1
C) 30
D) 31
Answer:
B) 1

Question 41.
The shape of the orbit is ……….
A) a circular path
B) an elongated oval path
C) a scaled oval path
D) a triangular path
Answer:
C) a scaled oval path

Question 42.
…………. is the cause of the formation of seasons on earth.
A) Rotation of the earth
B) Revolution of the earth
C) Tilt of earth’s axis
D) Shape of earth.
Answer:
B) Revolution of the earth

Question 43.
………… is the top most layer of the earth.
A) Crust
B) Core
C) Mantle
D) Centre
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 44.
……………… proposed continental drift theory.
A) Newton
B) Darwin
C) Wagener
D) Alexander
Answer:
C) Wagener

Question 45.
The super continent is …………
A) Panthalsa
B) Pangaea
C) Tethys
D) Laurasia
Answer:
A) Panthalsa

Question 46.
The network of latitudes and longitudes is …………
A) atlas
B) map
C) grid
D) equator
Answer:
C) grid

Question 47.
0° longitude is known as
A) Prime Meridian
B) Equator
C) Tropics
D) International Date Line
Answer:
A) Prime Meridian

Question 48.
The width of each time zone is …………. longitudes.
A) 10° of longitudes
B) 5° of longitudes
C) 15° of longitudes
D) 20° of longitudes
Answer:
C) 15° of longitudes

Question 49.
Let us look at the internal structure of the Earth we live on. We can see the continuity from the early days of the formation of the earth as we try to look deep inside the Earth! It took us years of scientific investigation and analysis of data to form an understanding of the interior of the Earth. The main reason for this is that even the deepest mines we have dug do not go beyond a few kilometres under the surface white the radius or the distance to the centre of the earth is over 6000 kilometres!
Read the paragraph and answer the question.
The radius of the earth is
A) 5000 kms
B) 6000 kms
C) 7000 kms
D) 8000 kms
Answer:
B) 6000 kms

Question 50.
Look at the pictures of the Earth, Sun and the orbit given below. Which one do you think is the correct picture?

Answer:
C)

Question 51.
See the picture and answer the following questions.

i) The depth of the crust is
A) 20 – 80 kms
B) 30 – 100 kms
C) 40 – 100 kms
D) 50 – 100 kms
Answer:
B) 30 – 100 kms

ii) The thickness of the mantle is
A) 100 – 1000 kms
B) 200 – 2000 kms
C) 100 – 2900 kms
D) 200 – 3900 kms
Answer:
C) 100 – 2900 kms

iii) The depth of the core is
A) 2,500 – 5,500 kms
B) 4,500 – 8,000 kms
C) 2,900 – 6,376 kms
D) 5,000 – 9,000 kms
Answer:
C) 2,900 – 6,376 kms

iv) The core is divided into
A) 2 sub layers
B) 3 sub layers
C) different parts
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) 2 sub layers

v) Which layer is supposed to have more gold?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Core
D) Inner core
Answer:
D) Inner core

vi) Which is the uppermost layer of the earth?
A) Mantle
B) Crust
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
B) Crust

vii) Silicates are in
A) Core
B) Crust
C) Mantle
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Mantle

viii) Ferrous is in
A) Outer core
B) Inner core
C) Mantle
D) Crust
Answer:
A) Outer core

Question 52.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.

i) The latitudinal value of Equator is
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 360°
D) 0°
Answer:
D) 0°

ii) In which hemisphere is the Arctic circle situated?
A) Southern
B) Northern
C) Eastern
D) Western
Answer:
B) Northern

iii) 90° North and South latitudes are called
A) Meridians
B) Parallels
C) Poles
D) Circles
Answer:
C) Poles

iv) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]°N latitude is also called as
A) Arctic circle
B) Tropic of cancer
C) Tropic of capricorn
D) Antarctic circle
Answer:
B) Tropic of cancer

v) The value of North pole is
A) 66°
B) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]°
C) 23°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

vi) The Southern and Northern Hemispheres are divided by
A) Greenwich
B) Equator
C) Tropic of cancer
D) Tropic of capricorn
Answer:
B) Equator

Question 53.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions given below.

i) “Whole land” as having existed in ………….. million years ago.
A) 600
B) 500
C) 200
D) 220
Answer:
D) 220

ii) Continental drift theory was introduced by
A) Aristotle
B) Alfred Wagener
C) Plato
D) Galileo
Answer:
B) Alfred Wagener

iii) Pangaea means
A) Whole land
B) Ocean
C) Mountain
D) River
Answer:
A) Whole land

iv) Panthalassa means
A) Whole land
B) Ocean
C) Hill
D) Canyon
Answer:
B) Ocean

v) Pangaea is divided into ………… parts.
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five
Answer:
C) Two

vi) Laurensia and Gondwana lands were divided by
A) Arabian Sea
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Tethys Sea
D) Indian Ocean
Answer:
C) Tethys Sea

Question 54.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0)°, what is the time in India?
A) 5.30 pm
B) 5.00 pm
C) 4.30 pm
D) 6.00 pm
Answer:
A) 5.30 pm

Question 55.
If it is 12.00 hours at midnight of Sunday at Greenwich, the time in India is
A) 5.30 am on Monday
B) 5.30 am on Sunday
C) 6.30 pm on Sunday
D) 6.30 am on Monday
Answer:
A) 5.30 am on Monday

Observe the map and answer questions 56 & 57.

Question 56.
If you travel from New Delhi to Paris to which time zone are you moving?
A) 0°
B) 10°
C) 20°
D) 30°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 57.
If you are traveling from Hyderabad to Tokyo which time zone are you moving?
A) 9 – 10 time zone
B) 1 – 2 time zone
C) 4 – 5 time zone
D) 3 – 4 time zone
Answer:
A) 9 – 10 time zone

Match the following:

Question 58.
Group – A                                       Group – B
1) Equator                        ( )            A) 90° North latitude
2) Tropic of Cancer          ( )            B) 0° North latitude
3) Tropic of Capricorn     ( )            C) 90° South latitude
4) Northern Pole             ( )            D) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° South latitude
5) Southern Pole             ( )            E) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° North latitude
Answer:
1) B
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) C

Question 59.
Group – A                                              Group – B
1) Parallels                              ( )            A) 0° longitude
2) Meridians                           ( )            B) 180° longitude
3) Greenwich meridian           ( )            C) Latitudes
4) Anti-meridian                     ( )            D) 82° 30′ East longitude
5) Indian standard meridian   ( )            E) Longitudes
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 60.
Group – A                                                     Group – B
1) Radius of earth                          ( )           A) 13.7 billion years ago
2) No.of longitudes                       ( )           B) 180
3) No.of latitudes                          ( )           C) 1,07,200 kms
4) Speed of earth round the sun   ( )          D) 6000 kms
5) Birth of universe                        ( )          E) 360
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) C
5) A

Question 61.
Group – A                           Group – B
1) Latitudes            ( )            A) Nearly circular
2) Longitudes         ( )            B) Circles
3) Orbit                  ( )            C) Universal time co-ordinated
4) Grid                   ( )             D) Semi-circles
5) UTC                   ( )             E) A pattern of square on a map
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) C

Question 62.
Group – A                         Group – B
1) Big Bang           ( )            A) The northern break up part of Pangaea
2) Laurensia          ( )            B) The sourthern break up part of Pangaea
3) Pangaea           ( )             C) The single large explosion that created the universe
4) Tethys               ( )            D) The massive super continent that existed 220 million years ago
5) Gondwana        ( )            E) A long shallow inland sea that separated Laurensia and Gondwana
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) B

Question 63.
The world is divided into 24 time zones. Number of longitudes in each one are ………….
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Answer:
B) 15

Question 64.
The exact time difference between Greenwich and IST is
A) +5 Hours
B) -5 Hours
C) +5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] Hours
D) -5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] Hours
Answer:
C) +5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] Hours

Question 65.
The longitude taken as Indian Standard Time is:
A) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° N
B) 82[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° E
C) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° S
D) 82[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° W
Answer:
B) 82[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° E

Question 66.
Most of the life on Earth is:
A) On the floor
B) In the air
C) Under the water
D) In the space
Answer:
A) On the floor

Question 67.
Total number of longitudes
A) 180
B) 120
C) 360
D) 0
Answer:
C) 360

Examine given map and answer the question 68 and 69.

Question 68.
Indian standard time (Longitude) passes through from which of the following.
A) Mumbai
B) Alahabad
C) Bangalore
D) Ahmedabad
Answer:
B) Alahabad

Question 69.
Tropic of cancer passes through from which of the following.
A) Gujarath
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer:
A) Gujarath

Question 70.
The number of longitudes in a time zone
A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 20
Answer:
B) 15

Question 71.
The percentage of Earth Crust in the volume of the earth
A) 83%
B) 16%
C) 1%
D) 42%
Answer:
C) 1%

Question 72.
India is located within the …………… and the ………….. hemispheres?
A) Eastern and Western
B) Northern and Southern
C) Eastern and Northern
D) Southern and Eastern
Answer:
C) Eastern and Northern

Question 73.
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Stars can live for millions of years.
B) All stars are part of our solar system.
C) Stars appear in the same place in the sky every night.
D) All stars are of the same size.
Answer:
B) All stars are part of our solar system.

Answer questions 74 and 75 based on the map given below.

Question 74.
A ship is at point C in the map. What is the exact position of the ship?
A) 60°W and 60° E
B) 60°W and 30° E
C) 60° E and 30° S
D) 60° E and 60° S
Answer:
C) 60° E and 30° S

Question 75.
What is the difference in degrees, between points B and D in the map ?
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Answer:
C) 120°

Question 76.
Which of the following continent completely lies in the Northern hemisphere.
A) Australia
B) South America
C) Asia
D) Europe
Answer:
D) Europe

Question 77.
Which number on the image forms the crust of the Earth?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 78.
In the Atlas, the location of Agra is shown like this;

What information about Agra does the circled part denotes?
A) Page Number
B) Latitude
C) Longitude
D) Altitude
Answer:
C) Longitude

Question 79.
The latest technology that has been used to know the latitudes and longitudes of a place is:
A) Atlas
B) Compass
C) Google Earth
D) Map
Answer:
C) Google Earth

Question 80.
“Unless we exploit the natural resources, development is not at all possible:
A) Though it is unjust, it is the fact only.
B) This is unjust and unreal too. Development is possible without destroying the nature also.
C) Development is first. Everything including environment is next.
D) This opinion is unjust.
Answer:
A) Though it is unjust, it is the fact only.

Instruction: Observe below Map and answer 81 to 87 questions:

Question 81.
Which country has ‘0’ time zone:
A) Srilanka
B) USA
C) England
D) India
Answer:
C) England

Question 82.
How many time zones the world is divided?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 360
D) 24
Answer:
D) 24

Question 83.
Which time zone India lies in?
A) 5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]
B) -5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]
C) -5
D) 5
Answer:
A) 5[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]

Question 84.
If 2.00 pm in London, what is the time in Delhi, the capital of India?
A) 12:00 pm
B) 7.30 pm
C) 2.00 pm
D) 7:30 am
Answer:
B) 7.30 pm

Question 85.
South Africa lies in which time zone?
A) 6
B) 1
C) 5
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 86.
Why some countries has more that one time zone?
A) In this countries so many languages are in use.
B) Many climatic conditions.
C) These countries has many Governments.
D) These countries lies among many longitudes.
Answer:
D) These countries lies among many longitudes.

Question 87.
What is the base to calculate time in a country?
A) Longitudes
B) Equator
C) Tropic of cancer
D) Latitudes
Answer:
A) Longitudes

Question 88.
Consider the following statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ and find out which of them is/ are true. During the last hundred years people have understood that:
A. Stars are born an they grow.
B. They even dies.
A) A is false, B is true.
B) A is true and B is also true.
C) A is false and B is also false.
D) A is true, B is false.
Answer:
B) A is true and B is also true.

Question 89.
In the depth of 150 kms from the surface, the layer of the Earth consists
A) Silicates
B) Liquid metallic material like Nickel and Iron
C) Heavy substances like Gold
D) Various kinds of rocks
Answer:
A) Silicates

Question 90.
Rani has a Globe. Among the following which can’t she know about a place with the help of that globe?
A) In which direction should we go to reach it?
B) How much the cost of living would be there?
C) What time it would be there at any moment?
D) How hot or cold it would be there?
Answer:
A) In which direction should we go to reach it?

Question 91.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct one among the options given below.
A. Though several countries tries to fix a longitude that passes through their own territory as the 0° longitude, the Greenwich longitude was accepted as the 0° longitude.
B. England ruled a large part of the world at that time.
A) Both A and B are true. A was a reson to make B possible.
B) Both A and B are true. There is no relation between A and B.
C) Only A is true. There is no relation between A and B.
D) Both A and B are true. B was a reason to make A possible.
Answer:
B) Both A and B are true. There is no relation between A and B.

Question 92.
Which of the following is not part of Gondwana?
A) Africa
B) Australia
C) India
D) North America
Answer:
D) North America

Question 93.
Find out the wrongly shown latitude among the following
A) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° N
B) 0°S
C) 66[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° S
D) 23[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]° N
Answer:
B) 0°S

Question 94.
Location of Delhi:
A) 28.7°N, 77.1°E
B) 28.7°S, 77.1°W
C) 28.7°E, 77.1°W
D) 28.7°E, 77.1°N
Answer:
A) 28.7°N, 77.1°E

Question 95.
All of us live on the Earth. Related to Earth, which among the following statements is not true?
A) Half of the Earth’s history remained lifeless.
B) The Earth has reached its present form through several phases.
C) Now the Earth has reached a fixed stage that doesn’t go through any change.
D) The Earth is made up of three main layers.
Answer:
C) Now the Earth has reached a fixed stage that doesn’t go through any change.

The location of a few cities is shown on the map given below. Read the map carefully to answer questions 96 and 97.

Question 96.
Which of the following cities is located 60 degrees north and 60 degrees East?
A) City A
B) City B
C) City C
D) City D
Answer:
C) City C

Question 97.
When it is 12 Noon at Greenwich meridian (0), What will be the local time at CITY ‘C’?
A) 4 AM
B) 4 PM
C) 2 AM
D) 2 PM
Answer:
B) 4 PM

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 24 Disaster Management on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 24th Lesson Disaster Management with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
East and South – East egions of India are frequently affected by …………..
A) cylones
B) earthquakes
C) famines
D) volcanoes
Answer:
A) cylones

Question 2.
The region that experiences severe drought …………
A) Andhra
B) Rayalaseema
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Rayalaseema

Question 3.
Pest infection is an example of ………….. disaster.
A) rapid onset disaster
B) natural disaster
C) slow-onset disaster
D) human-induced disaster
Answer:
C) slow-onset disaster

Question 4.
Find the odd one from the following.
A) Cyclones
B) Floods
C) Tsunami
D) Famine
Answer:
D) Famine

Question 5.
The gas that was leaked in the Bhopal accident
A) Methane
B) O₂
C) CO₂
D) N₂
Answer:
A) Methane

Question 6.
Kumbakonam is in …………… state.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Kerala
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
B) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
‘Tsunami’ is a word of ………… country.
A) India
B) Sri Lanka
C) Japan
D) Russia
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 8.
Tsunami can move at ………….. km per hour on coastal plain.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
D) 50

Question 9.
Tsunamis are dangerous to the people of this region
A) Sea coast
B) Plateau
C) Hilly
D) Both B & C
Answer:
A) Sea coast

Question 10.
Excess or deficient rainfall is determined by the per cent of variation from the average rainfall of ……………… years.
A) 20 – 40
B) 70 – 100
C) 60 – 90
D) 40 – 80
Answer:
B) 70 – 100

Question 11.
Which one of the following country suffers from vast population and unique geophysical characteristics is one of the worlds most disaster – prone.
A) India
B) Russia
C) America
D) Britian
Answer:
A) India

Question 12.
The disaster occurs due to lack of rainfall
A) Flood
B) Famine
C) Earthquake
D) Drawing crops
Answer:
B) Famine

Question 13.
Which area in Andhra Pradesh faces drought for two years in every 5 years?
A) North Andhra
B) South Andhra
C) Rayalaseema
D) None
Answer:
C) Rayalaseema

Question 14.
In urban areas, ail the rain water should be harvested as it falls over roofs of houses.
A) Sending to driange
B) Sink holes
C) Taking no action
D) None
Answer:
B) Sink holes

Question 15.
Floods frequently occur in India in these regions
A) Plateau regions
B) Ganga – Brahmaputra plain
C) Himalaya regions
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Ganga – Brahmaputra plain

Question 16.
The regions in which famines occur frequently in India.
A) Rajasthan on the West
B) Rayalaseema in the South
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Rayalaseema in the South

Question 17.
Multi Hazard Zone means
A) Floods, cyclones caused regions
B) Earthquakes caused regions
C) Both A & B
D) Regions where famine & droughts occur
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
Disasters can be categorized into types based on the speed
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 19.
An example for slow onset disaster
A) Famine
B) Environmental degardation
C) Pest infection
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
An example for rapid onset disaster
A) Earthquake
B) Cyclone
C) Flash floods, Volcanic eruptions
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The main work in Watershed Programme
A) Harvesting rain water in the fields
B) Afforestation
C) Promotion of crops / trees that require less water and alternative livelihoods
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 22.
The year of fire accident in Kumbakonam school (Tamilnadu)
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer:
B) 2003

Question 23.
The year of serial blastings in Jaipur
A) 2005
B) 2006
C) 2007
D) 2008
Answer:
D) 2008

Question 24.
Who plays a key-role in creating understanding in parents and other people?
A) Students
B) Girls and Boys
C) Youth
D) Old people
Answer:
A) Students

Question 25.
“Tsu” in Japanese language means
A) Boat
B) Harbour
C) Tide
D) Wave
Answer:
B) Harbour

Question 26.
“Nami” in Japanese language means
A) Boats
B) Ships
C) Waves
D) Earthquakes
Answer:
C) Waves

Question 27.
………… are huge waves generated by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or underwater landslides which devastate the coastal communities.
A) Floods
B) Cyclones
C) Tsunami
D) None
Answer:
C) Tsunami

Question 28.
Choose the correct matching
Group – A                                                   Group – B
1) Environmental degradation         ( )       a) Human induced disaster
2) Earthquake                                   ( )       b) Rapid onset disaster
3) Tsunami                                        ( )       c) Slow onset disaster
4) Fire accident                                 ( )       d) Delhi
5) Uphaar                                          ( )      e) Natural disaster
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – d
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – e
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – d
D) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – d

Question 29.
Thoofans and cyclones, earthquakes, floods, land slides are called as
A) human made disasters
B) animals made disasters
C) natural disasters
D) all the above
Answer:
C) natural disasters

Question 30.
The government is implementing …………… in drought prone areas to reduce the impact of droughts.
A) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP)
B) Irrigation Project
C) Integrated Water Storage Scheme
D) Flood Control Scheme.
Answer:
A) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP)

Question 31.
The areas which often effect by cyclones in India.
A) East, South – East places
B) North, North – East places
C) West, North – West places
D) South, South – West places
Answer:
A) East, South – East places

Question 32.
Earthquakes frequently occurs in India
A) Plateau, Himalaya regions
B) Ganges, Brahmaputra plain
C) Western – Costal plain
D) floods frequently occured in India
Answer:
A) Plateau, Himalaya regions

Question 33.
An example for human induced disaster
A) 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy
B) 1997 Uphaar cinema fire in Delhi
C) Rajdhani Express train derailment in 2002
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 23 Sports: Nationalism and Commerce on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Cricket was born in
A) England
B) India
C) West Indies
D) Australia
Answer:
A) England

Question 2.
‘Ranji Trophy’ is related to
A) Football
B) Cricket
C) Hockey
D) Volleyball
Answer:
B) Cricket

Question 3.
Indian cricket was born in
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Lucknow
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 4.
Parsi team defeated Bombay Gymkhana for the first time in
A) 1885
B) 1886
C) 1887
D) 1889
Answer:
D) 1889

Question 5.
In 1970 ………………. was excluded from the International Cricket.
A) South Africa
B) England
C) Australia
D) India
Answer:
A) South Africa

Question 6.
The ICC headquarters was changed from London to
A) America
B) Dubai
C) Canada
D) Moscow
Answer:
B) Dubai

Question 7.
Kabaddi became an International game before ……………. years ago.
A) 8
B) 7
C) 10
D) 14
Answer:
C) 10

Question 8.
This increases mental health and physical development
A) Cinemas
B) Dramas
C) Games
D) Literature
Answer:
C) Games

Question 9.
An example for our Indian traditional game
A) Khokho
B) Cricket
C) Hockey
D) Football
Answer:
A) Khokho

Question 10.
Till 1930 the cricket competitions were held in India between
A) States
B) Religious communities
C) Castes
D) Districts
Answer:
B) Religious communities

Question 11.
A crazy game
A) Kabaddi
B) Hockey
C) Cricket
D) Golf
Answer:
C) Cricket

Question 12.
The birth place of cricket
A) England
B) Italy
C) India
D) China
Answer:
A) England

Question 13.
Football and hockey belonged to this country
A) Italy
B) England
C) India
D) America
Answer:
B) England

Question 14.
The Indian team was not given chance in the test matches till this year
A) 1930
B) 1931
C) 1932
D) 1933
Answer:
C) 1932

Question 15.
The Indian played cricket origin in
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 16.
Who started cricket in India first?
A) Arabs
B) Parsis
C) Marathas
D) Gujaratis
Answer:
B) Parsis

Question 17.
The first Indian cricket club of Parsis was established in this year.
A) 1846
B) 1845
C) 1848
D) 1850
Answer:
C) 1848

Question 18.
There was a small dispute between …………in using parking place in Bombay Zymkhana.
A) Parsis, Whites
B) Parsis, Marathas
C) Punjabis, Marathas
D) Gujaratis, Whites
Answer:
A) Parsis, Whites

Question 19.
Which of the following played in Pentagon Cricket Match.
A) Europeans, Parsis, Hindus, Muslims others
B) Europeans, Parsis, Buddhists, Jains, others
C) Americans, Australians, Buddhists, Jains, others
D) Europeans, Americans, Australians, Hindus others
Answer:
A) Europeans, Parsis, Hindus, Muslims others

Question 20.
………….. believed that a sport was essential for a balance between the body and the mind.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
Answer:
B) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 21.
Cricket was born in England in ………….
A) 1870
B) 1875
C) 1877
D) 1879
Answer:
C) 1877

Question 22.
South Africa was banned from International Cricket in
A) 1960
B) 1962
C) 1965
D) 1970
Answer:
D) 1970

Question 23.
The first One day International between these countries in Melbourne in 1971
A) England, India
B) England, Australia
C) Australia, Newzealand
D) Australia, India
Answer:
B) England, Australia

Question 24.
In 1997, even as cricket celebrated years of test matches, the game was changed forever.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
Answer:
D) 100

Question 25.
………………, an Australian television tycoon who saw the moneymaking potential of cricket as a televised sport, signed up fifty-one of the world’s leading cricketers.
A) Monohar Parikar
B) Kerry Packer
C) William Karie
D) John Packer
Answer:
B) Kerry Packer

Question 26.
…………. drove home the lesson that cricket was a marketable gave which could generate huge revenues.
A) Ande Murray
B) Winston Churchill
C) William Karie
D) Kerry Packer
Answer:
D) Kerry Packer

Question 27.
…………. develop international understanding, cultural development and universal brotherhood.
A) Cinemas
B) Games
C) Libraries
D) Dramas
Answer:
B) Games

Question 28.
The shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC head quarters from London to tax free
A) Sydney
B) Dubai
C) Bombay
D) New Delhi
Answer:
B) Dubai

Question 29.
………….. has pioneered two great advances in bowling.
A) Pakistan
B) Afghanistan
C) India
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
A) Pakistan

Question 30.
The two great advances in bowling
A) Doosra
B) Reverse swing
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 31.
…………….. to move the ball in on dusty, unresponsive wickets under clear skies.
A) Doosra
B) Reverse swing
C) Finger spin
D) None
Answer:
B) Reverse swing

Question 32.
Another prominent crazy game India.
A) Hockey
B) Kabaddi
C) Foot ball
D) Throw ball
Answer:
A) Hockey

Question 33.
This country has upperhand in 1980 in International Hockey
A) Pakistan
B) India
C) England
D) Germany
Answer:
B) India

Question 34.
Another traditional crazy game in India
A) Hockey
B) Football
C) Volleyball
D) Kabaddi
Answer:
D) Kabaddi

Question 35.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                     Group – B
1) Donald Bradman          ( )        a) England
2) Zaheer Abbas               ( )        b) Australia
3) Glen Turner                  ( )        c) West Indies
4) Viv Richards                 ( )        d) New Zealand
5) Geoffrey Boycott          ( )       e) Pakisthan
A) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – d
D) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a

Question 36.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                       Group – B
1) Dhyan Chand                           ( )               a) Chess
2) Sania Mirza                              ( )               b) Shooting
3) Koneru Hampi                          ( )              c) Hockey
4) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathod     ( )              d) Football
5) Subratha Pal                             ( )              e) Tennis
A) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d

Question 37.
India won the World Cup in
A) 1985
B) 1984
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer:
D) 1983

Question 38.
The reason behind the increase in the income of cricket players
A) High payments by cricket board
B) Giving commercial ads
C) An increase in the figures of cricket lowers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
‘Doosara’ ‘Reverse swing’ are introduced by
A) South Africa
B) West Indies
C) Pakisthan
D) India
Answer:
C) Pakisthan

Question 40.
First World Cup being successfully staged in the year.
A) 1970
B) 1972
C) 1975
D) 1976
Answer:
C) 1975

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 22 Film and Print Media on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 22nd Lesson Film and Print Media with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
William Friese – Green of …………….. invented camera in 1887.
A) England
B) Germany
C) Russia
D) Iran
Answer:
A) England

Question 2.
The first Talkie cinema released in 1931 was
A) Alam Ara
B) Bhishma Pratigna
C) Gandhi
D) Mala Pilla
Answer:
A) Alam Ara

Question 3.
He who built a cinema studio named ‘Gaity’ in Madras
A) Ardeshan Irani
B) Raghupathi Venkaiah
C) Sri Sri
D) Naseeruddin Shah
Answer:
B) Raghupathi Venkaiah

Question 4.
Bhakta Prahlada was released in
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1931
D) 1932
Answer:
C) 1931

Question 5.
Urdu magazine ………….. edited by Mandumula Narasing Rao, highlighted the peasant problems.
A) Rayyat
B) Prapat
C) Imroj
D) Kakaj
Answer:
A) Rayyat

Question 6.
The ………….. Rebellion of 1922 was very popular.
A) Rampa
B) Adilabad
C) Both the above
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Rampa

Question 7.
Shoiabulla Khan’s …………….. published articles that criticized the dictotorial rule of Nizam and gundaism of the land lords.
A) Royyat
B) Imroz
C) Golkonda
D) Nilagiri
Answer:
B) Imroz

Question 8.
The Peking Gazette’ was published in …………….
A) 614
B) 618
C) 626
D) 630
Answer:
B) 618

Question 9.
The editor of the ‘Amrith Bazar’ was ……………..
A) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
B) Surendranath Banerjee
C) Subramaniya Iyer
D) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
A) Sisir Kumar Ghosh

Question 10.
‘Navjeevan’was started in …………. state.
A) Maharashtra
B) Rajasthan
C) Gujarath
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Gujarath

Question 11.
The birth of cinema in India can be attributed to the Lumiere brother’s first – public show at Watson Hotel in Mumbai on
A) 7-7-1896
B) 7-8-1896
C) 15-8-1896
D) 31-8-1896
Answer:
A) 7-7-1896

Question 12.
In ……………….. William Friese – Green of England invented camera capable of taking upto 10 photographs per second using perforated celluloid film
A) 1880
B) 1885
C) 1887
D) 1890
Answer:
C) 1887

Question 13.
In …………… Woodwill Latham invented cinema projector capable of exhibiting lengthy film reels without break.
A) 1890
B) 1895
C) 1900
D) 1905
Answer:
B) 1895

Question 14.
The famous drama in Telugu.
A) Varavikrayam
B) Satya Harischandra
C) Kanyasulkam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
Even though they are famous cine artistes they work for dramas.
A) Gollapudi Maruthi Rao
B) Naseeruddin Shah
C) Both A and B
D) Tenali Rama Krishna
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 16.
The first mooki in Telugu was
A) Bhakta Prahalada
B) Bheeshma Pratigna
C) Satya Harischandra
D) Kanyasulkam
Answer:
B) Bheeshma Pratigna

Question 17.
The first talkie in Telugu
A) Bheeshma Prathigna
B) Bhakta Prahlada
C) Sampoorna Ramayanam
D) Vara Vikrayam
Answer:
B) Bhakta Prahlada

Question 18.
The producer of Bhaktha Prahlada
A) Ramoji Rao
B) Kannappa
C) H.M. Reddy
D) B.N. Reddy
Answer:
C) H.M. Reddy

Question 19.
The first talkies film in Hindi in 1931.
A) Abrakadabra
B) Alam Ara
C) Namasthe Britian
D) Gulamgiri
Answer:
B) Alam Ara

Question 20.
The producer of Alam Ara film
A) Satyajit Ray
B) Amitab Bachan
C) Ardeshar Irani
D) Birbal Sahani
Answer:
C) Ardeshar Irani

Question 21.
The first person of Telugu film industry
A) N.T. Rama Rao
B) S.V. Ranga rao
C) H.M. Reddy
D) Raghupathi Venkayya
Answer:
C) H.M. Reddy

Question 22.
The producer of Gaity studio in Madras
A) N.T.R
B) A.N.R
C) S.V.R
D) Raghupathi Venkaiah
Answer:
D) Raghupathi Venkaiah

Question 23.
The then government of A.P awards …………… award every year along with Nandi to artistes for their contributions to Telugu film industry
A) Nagarjuna Award
B) Venkatesh Award
C) Raghupathi Venkaiah Award
D) Balakrishna Award
Answer:
C) Raghupathi Venkaiah Award

Question 24.
The form of entertainment before cinema.
A) folk art forms
B) folk dances
C) classical dances
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
‘Mala Pilla1 and ‘Rythu Bidda’ released in these years
A) 1938, 1939
B) 1940, 1941
C) 1941, 1942
D) 1942, 1943
Answer:
A) 1938, 1939

Question 26.
Mahatma Gandhi took over the ‘Young India’ in
A) 1915
B) 1916
C) 1917
D) 1918
Answer:
D) 1918

Question 27.
The Gandhi cinema of Richard Atten Borough was released in
A) 1980
B) 1981
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer:
C) 1982

Question 28.
In which picture the theme was a movement against land lordism?
A) Maabhumi
B) Kathalu – Kalpanikalu
C) Raja – Harischandra
D) Munasabagari Abbayi
Answer:
A) Maabhumi

Question 29.
The director of ‘Komaram Bheem’
A) Rajamouli
B) Puri Jagannath
C) K. Raghavendra Rao
D) Allani Sridhar
Answer:
D) Allani Sridhar

Question 30.
Who fought against the Njzams government for Girijans
A) Komaram Bheem
B) Rajanna
C) Chandranna
D) Venkanna
Answer:
A) Komaram Bheem

Question 31.
Komaram Bheem was killed on.
A) 1-10-1940
B) 20-10-1940
C) 27-10-1940
D) 1-12-1940
Answer:
C) 27-10-1940

Question 32.
Who started the sons ‘Vedalipo Thelladora Vedalipo?
A) Komaram Bheem
B) Rajayya
C) Rangaiah
D) Chandrayya
Answer:
C) Rangaiah

Question 33.
‘Bhale Taata Mana Bapuji’ sons is in this picture of 1955.
A) Adavi Ramudu
B) Donga Ramudu
C) Konte Ramudu
D) Jebu Donga
Answer:
B) Donga Ramudu

Question 34.
Navajeevan was started by
A) Rajendra prasad
B) Bala Gangadhar tilak
C) M.K. Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
C) M.K. Gandhi

Question 35.
The cinema scenes influence the minds of youth.
A) Smoking
B) Drinking Alcohol
C) Both A & B
D) Constructing dams
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
Which film industry produces averaging about 200 films every year?
A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) Malayalam
D) Kanada
Answer:
B) Telugu

Question 37.
Number of cinema theatres in our state.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2000

Question 38.
People wrote on this first
A) Palm Leaves
B) Bark
C) Cloth
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
The printing machine was invented in 15th century
A) John-Gutenberg
B) Copernicus
C) Gelileo
D) John Madom
Answer:
A) John-Gutenberg

Question 40.
Which one of the following play an important role in giving information and knowledge?
A) Print media
B) Games
C) Entertainment programmes
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Print media

Question 41.
Many researchers consider this as first newspaper.
A) Bengal Gazette (India)
B) The Peking Gazetta (China)
C) Roiters (Britain)
D) All the above
Answer:
B) The Peking Gazetta (China)

Question 42.
The first newspaper with the modern concept was published at Oxford in London in
A) 1555
B) 1600
C) 1655
D) 1700
Answer:
C) 1655

Question 43.
In USA, the first newspaper ‘Public Occurences’ was launched in
A) 1600
B) 1680
C) 1690
D) 1695
Answer:
C) 1690

Question 44.
It was from Calcutta that the first newspaper was published in India in …….
A) 1770
B) 1780
C) 1790
D) 1800
Answer:
B) 1780

Question 45.
The first newspaper in Telugu
A) Andhra Patrika
B) Krishna Patrika
C) Andhra Bhoomi
D) Andhra Jyothi
Answer:
B) Krishna Patrika

Question 46.
During the British period, social reformers began actively compaigning for radical changes in the society.
A) Abolition of sati
B) Encouraging widow re-marriage
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 47.
Find out the mismatch.
i) Amrit Bazar Pathrika (1868) – Sisir Kumar Ghosh
ii) Bengali (183C) – Surendranath Benerjee
iii) The Hindi (1878) – G. Subramaniya Iyer
iv) Kesari (188A) – B.G.Tilak
A) i, ii
B) iii, iv
C) i, iv
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 48.
The pamphlet ‘Vettichakiri was printed by
A) Andhra Mahila Sabha
B) Andhra Mahasabha
C) Andhra Jana Sangham
D) Andhra Abhyudaya Sangham
Answer:
B) Andhra Mahasabha

Question 49.
The editor of Nilgiripathrika
A) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
B) Sabdavishu Veesu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao
C) Kodanda Rama Rao
D) Gollapudi Maruthi Rao
Answer:
B) Sabdavishu Veesu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao

Question 50.
………. edited by Suravaram Pratapa Reddy began with the objective to create nationalist feelings.
A) Krishna Pathrika
B) Andhra Pathrika
C) Gokonda Patrika
D) Nilagiri Patrika
Answer:
B) Andhra Pathrika

Question 51.
Choose the correct matching
Group – A                                              Group – B
1) Bengalee                           ( )             a) Rajgond
2) The Hindu                         ( )             b) S.V. Narasimha Rao
3) Kesari                                ( )             c) Talkie
4) Krishna Patrika                  ( )             d) Surendranadh Banerjee
5) Komaram Bheem              ( )             e) Mookie
6) Telugu Veera Levara         ( )              f) Subramaniya Iyer
7) Nilagiri Pathrika                ( )             g) The birth of cinema in India
8) Lumiere brothers              ( )             h) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
9) Vaddiraju brothers            ( )             i) Sri Sri
10) Bhakta Prahlada              ( )             j) Tilak
–                                            ( )             k) Tenugu Pathrika
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – e, 6 – f, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – j
B) 1 – c, 2 – k, 3 – g, 4 – b, 5 – i, 6 – a, 7 – d, 8 – f, 9 – j, 10 – h
C) 1 – d, 2 – f, 3 – j, 4 – h, 5 – a, 6 – i, 7 – b, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – c
D) 1 – h, 2 – k, 3 – i, 4 – j, 5 – a, 6 – b, 7 – c, 8 – g, 9 – f, 10 – d
Answer:
C) 1 – d, 2 – f, 3 – j, 4 – h, 5 – a, 6 – i, 7 – b, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – c

Question 52.
In Telugu the first mooki was ‘Bhishma Pratigna’. The first talkie movie was Bhakta Prahalada’ released in 1931, produced by H. M. Reddy.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Now there are talkie movies.
B) Once there were mooki movies.
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 53.
“We are the trustees of our properties” – these are the words of
A) Nehru
B) Sri Sri
C) Venkayya
D) Gandhi
Answer:
D) Gandhi

Question 54.

This award is given to
A) Best Telugu movie
B) Best Kannada movie
C) Best Tamil movie
D) Best Hindi movie
Answer:
A) Best Telugu movie

Question 55.
Which infiuence the feelings and opinions of individuals in society?
A) Dramas
B) Cinemas
C) Stories
D) Novels
Answer:
B) Cinemas

Question 56.
The first newspaper published in India in 1780 was from
A) Mumbai
B) Calcutta
C) Chennai
D) Lucknow
Answer:
B) Calcutta

Question 57.
The theme of Mala Pilla
A) Hero was the follower of Gandhi and suggests all to study
B) Pujari’s son tell in love with a dalit girl
C) A dalit boy saved Pujari’s wife
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The tribals of Arakuloya perform the dance.
A) Dhimsa
B) Sadir
C) Gusadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
A) Dhimsa

Question 2.
Lambadi are a semi-nomadic tribe in
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer:
B) Andhra Pradesh

Question 3.
Gusadi was performed by ………… of Adilabad.
A) the Chenchus
B) the Koyas
C) the Raj Gonds
D) Lambadi
Answer:
C) the Raj Gonds

Question 4.
Burrakatha is called …………… in coastal Andhra.
A) Burrakatha
B) Tambura katha
C) Thandhana katha
D) Jangam Katha
Answer:
D) Jangam Katha

Question 5.
Progressive artistes of the Communist Party set up the Praja Natya Mandali in
A) 1943
B) 1944
C) 1945
D) 1946
Answer:
A) 1943

Question 6.
The popularised Burrakatha artist, who awarded Padmasri was
A) Ramanjaneyulu
B) Nazar Vali
C) Ayodhya Ram
D) Sunkara Satyanarayana
Answer:
B) Nazar Vali

Question 7.
The row of lights the screen help in projecting the shadow of the screen.
A) on the backside of
B) above
C) in front of
D) by the side of
Answer:
A) on the backside of

Question 8.
The chuttuukamudu in one of the art form of ………… region.
A) Telangana
B) Andhra
C) Rayalaseema
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
A) Telangana

Question 9.
Natya Sastra was written by
A) Charaka
B) Siddhendra Yogi
C) Koutilya
D) Bharatha
Answer:
D) Bharatha

Question 10.
In 1935 the first stage performance given by ……………. was a mile stone.
A) Rukmini Devi
B) Bala Saraswathi
C) Naga Ratnamma
D) Anna Pavlov
Answer:
A) Rukmini Devi

Question 11.
Those who perform dance, sing, perform plays etc are called
A) Artistes
B) Singers
C) Dancers
D) Drama artists
Answer:
A) Artistes

Question 12.
…………… participate in Janapada arts.
A) Farmers
B) Ladies and gents of Girijanas
C) Form labourers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
The is one of the art form of Telangana that came out of the daily labour of the peasants.
A) Chuttarikam
B) Harikatha
C) Chuttukamudu
D) Deerghakama
Answer:
C) Chuttukamudu

Question 14.
Usually Chuttukamudu is performed by women who gather under the …………. sing chuttukamudu songs and dance to the rythm of clapping.
A) newmoon day
B) dark
C) moonlight
D) all the above
Answer:
C) moonlight

Question 15.
An example for famous Telugu Janapada Kalaroopa
A) Yakshagana
B) Jakula Bhagavatam
C) Veedhi Bhagavatam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
Chindu Bhagavatam became popular from 13th century – These words are in the book.
A) Panditharadhya Charitra
B) Basava Puranam
C) Both A & B
D) Kreedaabhiraman
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 17.
The main issue in Yakshaganam
A) Conversations
B) Songs
C) Poems
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
The artistes who perform ‘Sugreeva Vijayam, Bala Nagamma katha, Rambha Rampala, Chitrangada Vilasam and Krishnarjuna Yuddham.
A) Yakshaganas
B) Kinneras
C) Kimpurushulu
D) Kuravanjis
Answer:
A) Yakshaganas

Question 19.
The Rajgonds of Adilabad perform Gusadi dance on the occassion of this festival.
A) Dussehra
B) Bathukamma
C) Deepavali
D) Sankranthi
Answer:
C) Deepavali

Question 20.
The dance performed by Devadasi in temples from centuries together.
A) Gusadi
B) Sadir
C) Lambadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
A) Gusadi

Question 21.
……………….. wear clothes stitched with glass beads and mirrors.
A) Gonds
B) Devadasis
C) Lambadis
D) Kuravanjis
Answer:
B) Devadasis

Question 22.
A group dance by women, interpreting literary or poetic compositions, typically on the theme of fulfilment of the love of a girl for her beloved.
A) Gusadi
B) Sadir
C) Kuchipudi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
D) Kuravanji

Question 23.
Which dance is related to Kuchipudi in AP?
A) Bharatha Natyam
B) Yakshaganam
C) Kuchipudi Natyam
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
C) Kuchipudi Natyam

Question 24.
The kalaroopam that was formed in the background of Veerasaivam in 12th & 13th
A) Burrakatha
B) Harikatha
C) Jangala katha
D) Tholubommalata
Answer:
A) Burrakatha

Question 25.
The drummer to the right of the performer comments on issue
A) Mythological
B) Janapada
C) Political
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The writer of Nritya Ratnavali
A) Jayapa Senani
B) Rudra Senani
C) Veerabhadrudu
D) Vidyanathudu
Answer:
A) Jayapa Senani

Question 27.
Burrakatha is performed mostly during this festival.
A) Dussehra
B) Sankranthi
C) Deepavali
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 28.
………….. performed may Burrakathas during the Telangana movement.
A) Narayana
B) Salim
C) Nazar
D) Gokuldas
Answer:
C) Nazar

Question 29.
Sunkara Satyanarayana’s ‘Telangana’ was written in
A) 1940
B) 1944
C) 1948
D) 1952
Answer:
B) 1944

Question 30.
Burrakatha mainly focussed on
A) the oppression of the feudal landlord, Vishnuru Deshmukh
B) the heroism of Bandagi, a Muslim peasant
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
Presently, government uses Burrakatha to advertise these issues.
A) Literacy
B) Aids
C) Railway
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 32.
Puppets are made of ………….
A) sealing vax
B) glass beads
C) bangles
D) animal skins
Answer:
D) animal skins

Question 33.
The size of puppets
A) 1 to 3 feet
B) 1 to 4 feet
C) 1 to 5 feet
D) 1 to 6 feet
Answer:
D) 1 to 6 feet

Question 34.
Number of Artistes in Tolubommalata
A) 8 to 10
B) 10 to 12
C) 8 to 12
D) No limit
Answer:
C) 8 to 12

Question 35.
The main topic in Tolubommalata
A) Ramayana
B) Mahabharatam
C) Local Veeragadhas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
……………. a well known dancer brought Perini dance into lime light.
A) Bhanumathi Rama Krishna
B) Nataraj Rama Krishna
C) Yamini Purnima
D) Yamini Krishna Murthy
Answer:
B) Nataraj Rama Krishna

Question 37.
The writer of Natyasastra
A) Natyamuni
B) Bharata
C) Narada
D) Tumbura
Answer:
B) Bharata

Question 38.
Bharatanatyam belongs to this state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Tamilnadu
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) Tamilnadu

Question 39.
Bharatanatyam springs flow
A) Tholubommalata
B) Gusadi
C) Sadir dance
D) Burrakatha
Answer:
C) Sadir dance

Question 40.
Devadasis have skills in this
A) Music
B) Dance
C) Both A & B
D) Sahityam
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 41.
The Gurus who teach dance
A) Sahitivettalu
B) Nattuvanars
C) Vedantists
D) Kala Brindas
Answer:
B) Nattuvanars

Question 42.
Which system was banned by an act in Bombay, Madras Presidency during 1934-1947?
A) Devadasi
B) Vetti
C) Slave
D) woman marraiges
Answer:
A) Devadasi

Question 43.
The musical instrument made with the hide of the goa attracts and makes the people to dance when it is played with two sticks.
A) Dappu
B) Tambura
C) Sitara
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Dappu

Question 44.
………….. was a freedom fighter and lawyer who had also learnt Bharatanatyam.
A) Bharathendru Harischandra
B) E. Krishna Iyer
C) N.T. Rama Rao
D) A. Nageswara Rao
Answer:
B) E. Krishna Iyer

Question 45.
……………… person a main role in establishing Music Academy in Madras.
A) N.T. Rama Rao
B) A. Nageswara Rao
C) E. Krishna Iyer
D) Chiranjeevi
Answer:
C) E. Krishna Iyer

Question 46.
…………..,Western artist started taking interest in the artistic heritage of India.
A) Ballerina Anna Parlova
B) William Jones
C) Maxmuller
D) Haimen darf
Answer:
A) Ballerina Anna Parlova

Question 47.
The spiritual heritage of India was being promoted by Westerners in the ……………..
A) Alwars movement
B) Theosophical movement
C) Nayanars movement
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Theosophical movement

Question 48.
……………. advised Rukmini Devi to learn Indian classical dance.
A) Anna Pavlova
B) Arundhathi Adangal
C) Vasanth male
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Anna Pavlova

Question 49.
Rukmini Devi’s debut performance in …………. was a mile stone.
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1940
D) 1945
Answer:
B) 1935

Question 50.
…………… encouraged the Devadasis tradition art.
A) Bala Saraswathi
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Durgabhai Deshmukh
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Bala Saraswathi

Question 51.
A diversity of styles from which the nattuvaranas being recognised.
A) Pandanallur
B) Vazhuvur
C) Thanjavur
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 52.
…………. acheived esteem that by the late 20th century.
A) Tholubommalata
B) Gusadi
C) Sadir
D) Bharata Natya
Answer:
D) Bharata Natya

Question 53.
The generation that protected the traditional dance is declined due to
A) nattuvanars were changed as teachers
B) without Nattuvanars many others came as teachers
C) changed as Janapada Kalarupam
D) none
Answer:
B) without Nattuvanars many others came as teachers

Question 54.
The dance was performed to worship Lord Siva aggressively in front of a Nataraj idol at the Siva temples and to motivate soldiers before going to wars.
A) Kuchipudi
B) Bharatha Natyam
C) Perini Nrityam
D) Sadir
Answer:
C) Perini Nrityam

Question 55.
Only men perform this dance.
A) Kuchipudi
B) Bharata Natyam
C) Perini Nrityam
D) Sadir
Answer:
C) Perini Nrityam

Question 56.
This dance form has been in practice since 13th century.
A) Perini Nrityam
B) Kuchipudi
C) Bharatanatyam
D) Gusadi
Answer:
A) Perini Nrityam

Question 57.
Choose the correct matching
1) Burrakatha                   ( )              a) Moscow Polimeralona
2) SK. Nazar Vali               ( )              b) The story of Tambura
3) Travelling artists           ( )              c) Natya Sastra
4) Bharatha                       ( )              d) Tholubommalata
5) Sadir                             ( )              e) The gurus of devadasis
6) Nattuvanars                  ( )              f) Devadasi
7) Anna Pavlov                  ( )             g) Odisha
8) Kathak                           ( )             h) Interested in artistic heritage of India
9) Bala Saraswathi             ( )             i) Rukmini Devi
10) Kalakshetra                  ( )             j) Devadasi lineage
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 -f, 4 – e, 5 – c, 6 – h, 7 – i, 8 – j, 9 – d, 10 – g
B) 1 – g, 2 – h, 3 – i, 4 – j, 5 – a, 6 – b, 7 – c, 8 – f, 9 – d, 10 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – f, 6 – e, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – j, 10 – i
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – h, 6 – i, 7 – j, 8 – e, 9 – f, 10 – g
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – f, 6 – e, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – j, 10 – i

Question 58.
The person looks like

A) a seller
B) a travelling fakir
C) a travelling bairagi
D) Both B and C
Answer:
A) a seller

Question 59.
‘Vinara Bharata Veera Kumara Vijayam Manadera’. ‘Tandana Tana’ is the popular refrain of the …………..
A) Burrakatha
B) Harikatha
C) Suggukatha
D) Oggukatha
Answer:
A) Burrakatha

Question 60.
Name the dance.

A) Dhimsa
B) Lambadi
C) Gusadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
B) Lambadi

Question 61.
‘Thandana Thana’ is the popular refrain of our art
A) Tholubommalata
B) Burrakatha
C) Oggukatha
D) None
Answer:
B) Burrakatha

Question 62.
We see this kind of dance in this film ………..

A) Bahubali
B) Rudramadevi
C) Goutamiputra Satakarni
D) None
Answer:
A) Bahubali

Question 63.
Why are the traditional forms of arts turning away?
A) Due to Cinemas
B) Due to Television programmes
C) Landlords and headmen no longer patronise them
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 64.
………………….. led a campaign against Devadasi system in Hyderabad.
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Kandukuri Veerasalingam Pantulu
C) Chilakamarthi Laxmi Narasimham Panthulu
D) None
Answer:
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Understanding Secularism on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Understanding Secularism with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Hitler persecuted the Jews in ………….. and killed them.
A) Germany
B) France
C) the Netherlands
D) England
Answer:
A) Germany

Question 2.
Israel is a …………….. country.
A) Muslim
B) Jewish
C) Christian
D) Buddhist
Answer:
B) Jewish

Question 3.
In Saudi Arabia ………………. are not allowed to build a temple or church.
A) Non-Hindus
B) Non-Christians
C) Non-Muslims
D) Non-Jains
Answer:
C) Non-Muslims

Question 4.
The Indian Constitution contains that protect us against State power as well as against the tyranny of the majority.
A) directive principles
B) civil laws
C) criminal laws
D) fundamental rights
Answer:
D) fundamental rights

Question 5.
The Indian Constitution is distancing itself from ……………
A) religion
B) people
C) leaders
D) parties
Answer:
A) religion

Question 6.
The Indian Constitution gives ………….. to religious community educational institutions.
A) political rights
B) financial aid
C) moral support
D) social rights
Answer:
B) financial aid

Question 7.
In America, the government school children begin their school day reciting the ……………
A) prayer
B) poems
C) pledge of Allegiance
D) none of the above
Answer:
C) pledge of Allegiance

Question 8.
The Indian Constitution guarantees the
A) People properties
B) Directive principles
C) Civil laws
D) Fundamental rights
Answer:
D) Fundamental rights

Question 9.
Indian state is a ………… state.
A) Secular
B) Religious
C) Above two
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Secular

Question 10.
In Feb, 2004 …………. passed a law banning any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols.
A) Germany
B) France
C) America
D) Russia
Answer:
B) France

Question 11.
Jews were persecuted and killed in Germany by …………..
A) Benitho Mussolini
B) Adolf Hitler
C) Winston Churchill
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Adolf Hitler

Question 12.
The nation of Jews.
A) America
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Israel
D) Palestina
Answer:
C) Israel

Question 13.
In this country, Non-Muslims are not permitted to construct temples and prayer halls.
A) Saudi Arabia
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) Kuwait
Answer:
A) Saudi Arabia

Question 14.
If any government gives official status to a religion it is a ………….
A) Secular state
B) Non religious state
C) Religious state
D) Anti religious state
Answer:
C) Religious state

Question 15.
In keeping with this idea (secularism) of religious freedom for all, ………….. also adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the state.
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Afghanistan
Answer:
A) India

Question 16.
Separation of religion from the government is
A) Nonreligious
B) Religious
C) Secular
D) Non related to religion
Answer:
C) Secular

Question 17.
This country faced several shortages of labour in 1960s
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Bangladesh
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 18.
The main objective of a Secular state as per the belief of India.
A) One religious community should not dominate another.
B) Some members of a religion do not dominate the other members of the same religious community.
C) The state should not enforce any particular religion on individuals nor takes away the religious freedom of individuals.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
The Indian Union
A) Stays away from religion
B) Stays near to the religion
C) Gives any type of importance to the religion
D) All the religion
Answer:
A) Stays away from religion

Question 20.
The Indian Constitution
A) encourages the untouchability
B) bans the untouchability
C) ignores the untouchability
D) none
Answer:
B) bans the untouchability

Question 21.
This is one of the rights provided by the Indian Constitution
A) encouraging violence
B) establishing own schools, colleges by the religious institutions
C) creating opportunities for robberies etc.
D) encouraging the persons who are anti-social elements
Answer:
B) establishing own schools, colleges by the religious institutions

Question 22.
The first amendment to the American Constitution
A) Prohibits the free exercise or establishment of the religion
B) Opposing the religion
C) Transparency
D) None
Answer:
A) Prohibits the free exercise or establishment of the religion

Question 23.
The nation which does not interfere in the religion
A) America
B) India
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Pakistan
Answer:
A) America

Question 24.
In Indian secularism, though the state is not strictly separate from religion, it does maintain a distance vis-a-vis religion.
A) Principled
B) Rajyabaddha
C) Samajabaddha
D) None
Answer:
A) Principled

Question 25.
In Feb 2004 passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols such as Islamic headscarf, Jewish skullcaps, or large Christian crosses.
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Saudi Arabia
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 26.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                              Group – B
1) Fundamental Rights                              ( )      a) Civil laws
2) Germany                                                ( )      b) Pledge of Allegiance
3) Suspension of Fundamental Rights       ( )      c) that have guarantees
4) Equal inheritance rights                         ( )      d) In emergency
5) Under God                                             ( )      e) Hitler
A) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 27.
Separation of religion from the government.
A) gives protection to the minorities
B) opposes the domination of the majorities
C) takes care in not violating the fundamental rights.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
India can be called Secular
A) It neglects the fundamental rights
B) The Constitution guarantees the fundamental rights
C) Not giving religious freedom
D) Suffers the individuals with religious issues.
Answer:
B) The Constitution guarantees the fundamental rights

Question 29.
‘The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to set up their own schools even though it is secular.’
Pick the correct comment.
A) India is neither secular nor religious.
B) The intervention of the state can also be in the form of support.
C) Both A and B
D) A only
Answer:
B) The intervention of the state can also be in the form of support.

Question 30.

The flag is of ………….
A) the U.S.A.
B) the U.K.
C) the U.A.E.
D) Canada
Answer:
A) the U.S.A.

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Social and Religious Reform Movements on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…………… introduced the printing press in India.
A) Europeans
B) Americans
C) Africans
D) Chinese
Answer:
A) Europeans

Question 2.
Rammohan Roy was a ……………
A) Gujarathi
B) Bengali
C) Maharashtrian
D) Karnatic
Answer:
B) Bengali

Question 3.
Keshav Sen was the disciple of
A) Dayanada
B) Vivekananda
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

Question 4.
Arya Samaj was established in
A) 1864
B) 1876
C) 1874
D) 1875
Answer:
D) 1875

Question 5.
Gurukul Kangri University is in
A) Haridwar
B) Rishikesh
C) Badrinath
D) Kedaranath
Answer:
A) Haridwar

Question 6.
MAO was established in
A) Lucknow
B) Aligarh
C) Kashmir
D) Allahabad
Answer:
B) Aligarh

Question 7.
‘Sati’ was banned officially in
A) 1821
B) 1820
C) 1829
D) 1825
Answer:
C) 1829

Question 8.
‘Brahma Samaj’ was founded by
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Gurajada Appa Rao
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
Answer:
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 9.
Sharada Sadan in Mumbai was set up by
A) Ramabai
B) Savitri bai
C) Sarada mother
D) Jyothiba pule
Answer:
A) Ramabai

Question 10.
The person who said ‘Daliths were Adi Andhras’
A) Narayana guru
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Ambedkar
D) Kandukuri
Answer:
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 11.
…………. criticised orthodoxy among both Hindus and Muslims and pointed out oneness of God and equality of all human beings.
A) Non-Athiests
B) Bhakthi Saints
C) Ajeevakas
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Bhakthi Saints

Question 12.
The Christians used for religious propoganda
A) Educational institutions
B) Hospitals
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
Several European scholars studied the ancient literature of India, translated them, published them as books, and also influenced by them, therefore they were called
A) Paschatya pandits
B) Orientalists
C) Nation scholar
D) Foreign scholars
Answer:
B) Orientalists

Question 14.
Raja Rama Mohan Roy born in Bengal in the year
A) 1770
B) 1771
C) 1772
D) 1774
Answer:
C) 1772

Question 15.
The main concepts of Raja Rama Mohan Roy
A) God is only one
B) Idol worship and sacrificing is not correct
C) Rejecting the supremacy of the priests
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The Brahma Samaj was established by Raja Rama Mohan Roy in
A) 1825
B) 1826
C) 1827
D) 1828
Answer:
D) 1828

Question 17.
Raja Ramo Mohan Roy died in Bristal in
A) 1830
B) 1831
C) 1832
D) 1833
Answer:
D) 1833

Question 18.
Who lead the Brahmo Samaj after the death of Raja Rama Mohana Roy?
A) Devendranath Tagore
B) Keshav Chandrasen
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
Who established the Prarthana Samaj?
A) R.G. Bhandarkar
B) M.G. Ranade
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 20.
The Brahma Samaj was established in A.P.
A) Veeresalingam Panthulu
B) Janga Reddy
C) Bhagya Varma
D) Chilakamarthi Laxmi Narasimham Panthulu
Answer:
A) Veeresalingam Panthulu

Question 21.
At last Keshavsen became the disciple of this person.
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Dayananda Saraswathi
D) Raja Rama Mohan Roy
Answer:
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa

Question 22.
The Rama Krishna Mission was established by
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
B) Swamy Vivekananda
C) Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi
D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer:
B) Swamy Vivekananda

Question 23.
Vivekananda wanted to adopt positive qualities of the European culture like.
A) Freedom
B) Respect for women
C) Work ethic, technology
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi was a social reformer during time
A) 1820 – 1880
B) 1824 – 1883
C) 1880 – 1903
D) 1857 – 1907
Answer:
B) 1824 – 1883

Question 25.
The Arya Samaj was established in 1875 by
A) Ram Mohan Roy
B) Dayananda Saraswathi
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
D) Swamy Vivekananda
Answer:
B) Dayananda Saraswathi

Question 26.
The book written by Dayananda Saraswathi
A) Satyartha Prakash
B) Rigveda Bhashya
C) Both A & B
D) Kadambari
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
His basic aim was to become “Part of Hindu society rather than to remain outside of it”.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Naryana Guru
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma
D) Arige Rama Swamy
Answer:
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 28.
These were rejected by Maulvis
A) Modern science
B) Philosophy
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
The person that wished the end of the enemity between the Muslims and the Britishers.
A) Sri Syed Ahmed Khan
B) Fazal Ali
C) Rehmat Ali
D) Abdul Latif
Answer:
A) Sri Syed Ahmed Khan

Question 30.
The movement started by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan for social reforms and spreading of modern education. ( )
A) Brahma Samaj
B) Arya Samaj
C) Theosophical Society
D) Aligarh Movement
Answer:
D) Aligarh Movement

Question 31.
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan started scientific society in
A) 1860
B) 1864
C) 1870
D) 1872
Answer:
B) 1864

Question 32.
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan estabiised Mohammada Anglo Oriented college in Aligarh
A) 1870
B) 1872
C) 1875
D) 1880
Answer:
C) 1875

Question 33.
The burning herself with the dead body of her husband is called
A) Pathi
B) Pathni
C) Sati
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Sati

Question 34.
In ……….. year, a law was passed to disallow marriage of girls below 10 years.
A) 1840
B) 1846
C) 1850
D) 1856
Answer:
B) 1846

Question 35.
In which year disallow marriage of girls was raised to 12 years?
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1890
D) 1891
Answer:
D) 1891

Question 36.
Which Act enhanced the age of marriage of girl children to 14 years in 1929?
A) Saraswathi Act
B) Sarada Act
C) Marriage Limitation Act
D) Education Act
Answer:
B) Sarada Act

Question 37.
The marriage age for girls is 18 years and for boys is 21 years’. This was fixed in the year.
A) 1978
B) 1980
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer:
A) 1978

Question 38.
“The Jagan Mitra Mandali’ was established by Bhagya Reddy Varma in the year
A) 1906
B) 1926
C) 1936
D) 1946
Answer:
A) 1906

Question 39.
………….. promoted the adoption of Buddhism by Dalits.
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Arige Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 40.
The first widow remarriage was celebrated in Calcutta
A) 1856
B) 1857
C) 1855
D) 1858
Answer:
A) 1856

Question 41.
During Nizam rule under the British Paramountcy, social reformers like Mohib Hussain started a journal for writing on women’s
issues.
A) Mullim – e – Niswan
B) Shamsher
C) Gora
D) Rajak
Answer:
A) Mullim – e – Niswan

Question 42.
……………… encouraged women to participate in non-co-operation and Satyagraha movements.
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehru
C) Patel
D) Bhagya Reddy Varma
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 43.
“Our nation is most conservative and adament in nature, it adheres to the oldest customs and habits”. Who said these words?
A) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B) Mohib Hussain
C) Abdul Latif
D) Md. Gayyum
Answer:
B) Mohib Hussain

Question 44.
Who is the person played a key role in attaining Women’s rights in Maharashtra?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Durgabhai Deshmukh
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) None
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 45.
She is the first teacher in the school established by Jyothiba Phule for girls of untouchables in Pune in 1848.
A) Durgabhai Deshmukh
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Savitribai Phule
D) Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
Answer:
C) Savitribai Phule

Question 46.
The ‘Satya Sodhak Samaj’ was founded by
A) Jyothiba Phule
B) Raja Rama Mohan Roy
C) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D) Madan Mohan Malaviya
Answer:
A) Jyothiba Phule

Question 47.
Who worked hard for the diseased people due to plague in Maharashtra?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Meerabai
C) Tulasi Bai
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 48.
………………. person worked with Savitri bai.
A) Meerabai
B) Ahalya bai
C) Tarabai
D) Tulasi bai
Answer:
C) Tarabai

Question 49.
Ramabai was born in this state.
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Gao
D) U.P.
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 50.
“The men behave with ladies like as with animals” – Who said these words.
A) Tara Bai
B) Rama bai
C) Savitribai
D) Tulasi bai
Answer:
B) Rama bai

Question 51.
The ‘Sarada Sadan’ school and Ashram was established in Mumbai by
A) Ramabai
B) Tarabai
C) Savitribai
D) Meerabai
Answer:
A) Ramabai

Question 52.
Who opened schools in Kolkata and Patna for Muslim girls?
A) Ramabai
B) Tarabai
C) Both A & B
D) Begam Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
Answer:
D) Begam Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Question 53.
These persons played a keyrole in educating the children of lower castes
A) Christian Missionaries
B) Islam religious heads
C) Popes
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Christian Missionaries

Question 54.
Jyothiba Phule was born in the state of
A) West Bengal
B) Utter Pradesh
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
D) Maharashtra

Question 55.
The main principles of ‘Satya Sodhak Samaj’
A) Truth
B) Equality
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
The book written by Jyothiba Phule
A) Salam
B) Gulamgiri
C) Vandemataram
D) Untouchability
Answer:
B) Gulamgiri

Question 57.
Who called upon the low castes to conduct marriage and death ceremonies without Brahmins?
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jyothiba Phule
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B) Jyothiba Phule

Question 58.
Who preached the idea of ‘One Jathi, One God and One Religion for all?
A) Jyothiba Phule
B) Narayana Guru
C) Sukhdev
D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
B) Narayana Guru

Question 59.
…………… called upon the Ezhava community to give up making liquor and animal sacrifices.
A) Naryana Guru
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Jyothiba Phule
D) Savitribai Phule
Answer:
A) Naryana Guru

Question 60.
……………. said that building schools for children was more important than building temples.
A) Narayana Guru
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Savitri bai
D) Jyothiba Phule
Answer:
A) Narayana Guru

Question 61.
……………. was one of the first dalits to obtain college education in India.
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Naryana Guru
C) Jyothi baphule phule
D) None
Answer:
A) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 62.
In ………………. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar began public movements for the rights to dalits to use public drinking water resources and to enter Hindu temples.
A) 1920
B) 1927
C) 1930
D) 1932
Answer:
B) 1927

Question 63.
He was invited in 1932 by the colonial government to a conference on political future of India.
A) Narayana Guru
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma
D) Jyothiba Phule
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 64.
Who named the untouchables as ‘Harijans’ or ‘people of God’?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Arige Ramaswammy
Answer:
C) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 65.
The first law minister of Independent India.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Muthaiah
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyer
Answer:
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 66.
The President of the Drafting Committee of our Indian Constitution.
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R, Ambedkar
C) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 67.
………….. fought for women extensive economic and social rights.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
D) Eswari bai
Answer:
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 68.
Who fought for the Rights of dalits in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Arige Ramaswamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 69.
The original name of Bhagya Reddy Varna.
A) Gorati Venkayya
B) Medari Bagaiah
C) Arige Rama Swamy
D) Naryana Guru
Answer:
B) Medari Bagaiah

Question 70.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                Group – B
1) Raja Rammohan Roy        ( )               a) Arya Samaj
2) Vivekananda                     ( )               b) Brahmo Samaj
3) Keshav Sen                       ( )               c) Satya Shodhak Samaj
4) Dayananda Saraswathi     ( )               d) Ramakrishna Mission
5) Jyotiba Phule                    ( )               e) Prarthana Samaj
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 71.
Group – A                                                     Group – B
1) 1875                                      ( )               a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
2) 1856                                      ( )               b) The death of Rammohan Roy
3) 1833                                      ( )               c) MAO
4) Satyartha Prakash                 ( )               d) First widow remarriage
5) A Scientific Society 1864      ( )               e) Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – e
D) 1 – a, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a

Question 72.
‘Many Christian Missionaries came to India along with the European companies’
A) To preach Christianity
B) To spread Christianity
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 73.
In 1846, a law was passed to disallow marriage of girls below ten years. In 1891 this was raised to 12 years. In 1929, through the Sharada Act, the minimum age was raised to 14 years. The limit was raised in 1978 to 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The age is raised for the mental and physical maturity.
B) Child marriages are failures.
C) I don’t know.
D) All the above
Answer:
A) The age is raised for the mental and physical maturity.

Question 74.
Name the picture.

A) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
B) Narayana Guru
C) Jyothiba Phule
D) Raja Ramamohan Roy
Answer:
A) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 75.
Connect Jyothiba Phule with one of the following.
A) Arya Samaj
B) Satya Sodhak Samaj
C) Brahma Samaj
D) None
Answer:
B) Satya Sodhak Samaj

Question 76.
The person connected to the Constitution at present in the hearts of people
A) Dr. B.R. Prasad
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) All the above
Answer:
C) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 77.
The followers of Dayananda Saraswathi established after his death in 1883.
A) National Educational Institutions
B) Dayanand Anglo Vedic Schools
C) Guru Kulas
D) Judicial Educational Institutions
Answer:
B) Dayanand Anglo Vedic Schools

Question 78.
The ‘Sati’ was banned officially in
A) 1820
B) 1829
C) 1830
D) 1835
Answer:
B) 1829

Question 79.
The year of Widow Remarriage Act passed.
A) 1850
B) 1855
C) 1860
D) 1865
Answer:
B) 1855

Question 80.
Who fought against the practice of polygamy?
A) Vivekananda
B) Vidyasagar
C) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Vidyasagar

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Rights Approach to Development on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Like the idea of ………….. the idea of human rights has gained ground all over the world during the last 300 years.
A) Democracy
B) Dictatorship
C) Monarchy
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Democracy

Question 2.
Providing resources to the ………….. by government is a fundamental right.
A) People
B) Poor people
C) Rich
D) Foreigners
Answer:
B) Poor people

Question 3.
U.N.O. was formed in the year
A) 1954
B) 1964
C) 1945
D) 1956
Answer:
C) 1945

Question 4.
If the people are not able to enjoy the fundamental rights, they can approach the ……………. to get them.
A) Raj Bhavan
B) Assembly
C) Parliament
D) Court
Answer:
D) Court

Question 5.
Programmes which are undertaken to benefit the poor and remove poverty do not reach the needy due to
A) corruption
B) their number
C) improper planning
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) corruption

Question 6.
Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) was started in the ………… state.
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Bihar
D) Gujarat
Answer:
B) Rajasthan

Question 7.
At the national level RTI was passed by the Parliament in ………….
A) 1995
B) 2002
C) 2005
D) 2009
Answer:
C) 2005

Question 8.
The ……………. don’t withhold the information for a very long period.
A) Politicians
B) Opposition
C) Agents
D) Government departments
Answer:
D) Government departments

Question 9.
………….. demanded the British colonial government to make a law for free and compulsory education for all children of the country.
A) Gokhale
B) Tilak
C) Gandhi
D) Nehru
Answer:
A) Gokhale

Question 10.
The 86th Amendment was made in the year
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2005
D) 2012
Answer:
B) 2002

Question 11.
Like the idea of democracy, the idea 0f ………… has gained ground all over the world during the last 300 years.
A) human rights
B) human duties
C) directive principles
D) single citizen ship
Answer:
A) human rights

Question 12.
The most important points in human rights.
A) The right to dignified life
B) The right to liberty and freedom
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
It also declares that the education should ensure all the round development of the children.
A) tearing through activities
B) discovery and research
C) exploration
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
The UNO was established in
A) 1944
B) 1945
C) 1946
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1945

Question 15.
The government system is very
A) Large
B) Complex
C) Both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
Under which banner, a group of people organised themselves and demanded information?
A) Kisan Sakthi
B) Mazdoor Kisan Sakthi Sangathan
C) All India Kisan Mazdoor Union
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Mazdoor Kisan Sakthi Sangathan

Question 17.
A law making it compulsory to give official information was made in the state of Rajasthan in
A) 1990
B) 1992
C) 1993
D) 1995
Answer:
D) 1995

Question 18.
The year of Right to Information Act by Parliament at National level is
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2003
D) 2005
Answer:
D) 2005

Question 19.
MKSS used to conduct meetings called
A) Jan Sunvayi
B) Janvayi
C) Vayizan
D) Voice of the people
Answer:
A) Jan Sunvayi

Question 20.
In every government office there should be an officer incharge to respond to these questions, he or she is known as
A) Information Officer
B) Co-ordination Officer
C) Health Officer
D) Related department head
Answer:
A) Information Officer

Question 21.
Under the Act, it is also compulsory for every government office to declare certain information in public even without being asked by the people.
A) Right to Freedom
B) Right to Information
C) Right to Equality
D) Right to Independance
Answer:
B) Right to Information

Question 22.
People’s agitations are happened to attain these
A) Right to Employment
B) Right to Food
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 23.
………….. demanded the British colonial government that they make a law for free and compulsory education for all children of the country.
A) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
B) Surendranath Benarjee
C) Dada Bhai Naoroji
D) Swamy Dayanand Saraswathi
Answer:
A) Gopalakrishna Gokhale

Question 24.
The Parliament recognised education as fundamental right in this year
A) 2000
B) 2001
C) 2002
D) 2003
Answer:
C) 2002

Question 25.
The Constitutional ammendment in which the education is declared as fundamental right.
A) 80
B) 69
C) 74
D) 86
Answer:
D) 86

Question 26.
The year of 86th Constitutional ammendment.
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer:
A) 2002

Question 27.
According to this (education as fundamental right) act by the government ‘the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages
A) 6 to 14 years
B) 7 to 15 years
C) 5 to 15 years
D) 6 to 12 years
Answer:
A) 6 to 14 years

Question 28.
This law was finally passed in ……………. and is called the Right to Children to Free and compulsory education act.
A) 2009
B) 2010
C) 2011
D) 2012
Answer:
A) 2009

Question 29.
It also declares that the education should ensure of the children.
A) like a burden
B) all round development
C) dictator like
D) encouraging the violence
Answer:
B) all round development

Question 30.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A Group -B
1) JanSunvayi ( ) a) A Fundamental right
2) Website ( ) b) 2005
3) RTI ( ) c) 2009
4) RTE ( ) d) People’s hearings
5) Education ( ) e) Internet
A) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – b
B) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
C) 1- a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – e
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a

Question 31.

Pick the correct comment.
A) The monsoon failed this year.
B) This is a year of famine.
C) No food grains are avilable.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
‘Right to Information Act.
Pick the correct comment.
A) No board examinations till 5th Class
B) Free and compulsory education to 614 years children
C) More accountability to the governments
D) All the above
Answer:
C) More accountability to the governments

Question 33.
Who is Andhra Pradesh R.T.I commissioner?
A) Dr. Imtiyaz Ahmed
B) Smt. Lam Thantiya Kumari
C) M. Vijaya Nirmala
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
In which of the following cases children can complain to the courts against the authorities.
A) The neighbourhood schools are not available
B) Sufficient no. of teachers are not available in the schools
C) If a child is beaten or terrorised
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
Who is the information officer in a High School?
A) Social Studies teacher
B) Science teacher
C) Headmaster
D) P.D.
Answer:
C) Headmaster

Question 36.
Poverty means.
A) lack of resources like land or education to make a living.
B) it means lack of gainful employment, health services, education, food etc.
C) lack of voice to be heard and ability to influence the formulation of policies or implementation of programmes by the government.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 17 Understanding Poverty on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
To perform our daily duties we need
A) energy
B) bravery
C) money
D) cleverness
Answer:
A) energy

Question 2.
One tea spoon of oil gives us k.cal.
A) 50
B) 90
C) 100
D) 150
Answer:
B) 90

Question 3.
In the urban areas ………….. of the persons have food that is deficient in calories.
A) 2/5ths
B) 1 /5th
C) 3/5ths
D) 4/5ths
Answer:
C) 3/5ths

Question 4.
The people intake 1624 k.cal. food as daily average.
A) Rich
B) Middle class
C) Poor
D) Poorest
Answer:
D) Poorest

Question 5.
More than of people in India still depend upon agricultural activities for their livelihood.
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 75%
D) 80%
Answer:
A) 50%

Question 6.
The Indian Constitution refers to the right to work under the ……….. of state policy.
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Directive Principles
C) Preamble
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Directive Principles

Question 7.
The Right to Work is stated in ………. Article.
A) 40
B) 42
C) 41
D) 39
Answer:
C) 41

Question 8.
The writer of Arthashastra was
A) Charaka
B) Chandra Gupta
C) Bana
D) Koutilya
Answer:
D) Koutilya

Question 9.
The ………. in the villages were asked to conduct surveys called BPL.
A) Panchayats
B) Peoples
C) Officers
D) Leaders
Answer:
A) Panchayats

Question 10.
The people who have ………….. cards, will get food grains at a lowest price.
A) White
B) Antyodaya
C) Pink
D) Adhaar
Answer:
B) Antyodaya

Question 11.
Which of the following should be given to escape from poverty and hunger ?
A) Right to work
B) Right to food
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 12.
More than workers migrated out of the village looking for work.
A) 250
B) 300
C) 350
D) 400
Answer:
A) 250

Question 13.
Who is the person lives in slum area by pulling a cart in the town market in the lesson.
A) Ramayya
B) Chandrayya
C) Surayya
D) Kanakayya
Answer:
B) Chandrayya

Question 14.
If one eats low calarie food or without adequate nutrition.
A) reduces the resistance power
B) sapping energy
C) looks like older then the real age
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
The National Calorie Standard was established as ………… k.cal. per day for rural areas.
A) 2,400
B) 2,100
C) 2,000
D) 2,500
Answer:
A) 2,400

Question 16.
The K.calories required for the people in urban areas.
A) 2,400
B) 2,100
C) 2,000
D) 1,900
Answer:
B) 2,100

Question 17.
…………… % of people in rural areas in India. Consume food that is below the calorie standard.
A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 60
Answer:
B) 80

Question 18.
The poor actually consume less calories today than ………… years back.
A) 20
B) 22
C) 24
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 19.
People with very low income can spend very little and consume …………. k.cal on an average.
A) 1600
B) 1610
C) 1624
D) 1660
Answer:
C) 1624

Question 20.
In 2004, every person in the bottom quarter could spend less than Rs. ……….. per month per person.
A) 300
B) 350
C) 340
D) 320
Answer:
C) 340

Question 21.
One way to find out if adults are under nourished is to calculate what Nutrition scientists called ………..
A) Body Mass Index
B) Body Dharmic Index
C) Body Dharma Index
D) Body Class Index
Answer:
A) Body Mass Index

Question 22.
…………. and depend more on agricultural activities.
A) Small farmers
B) Agricultural labourers
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 23.
The Right to food is a part of the right to ………..
A) Life
B) Religious freedom
C) Freedom
D) Constitutional remedy
Answer:
A) Life

Question 24.
The percentage of landless families and less land families in rural areas in Andhra Pradesh.
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer:
B) 40%

Question 25.
The number of days of agricultural work that labourers can manage to get in a normal year varies from to days.
A) 120-180
B) 180-220
C) 130-180
D) 220-240
Answer:
A) 120-180

Question 26.
The Indian Constitution refers to the right to work under the
A) Fundamental rights
B) Directive principles of state policy
C) Fundamental duties
D) Single citizen ship
Answer:
B) Directive principles of state policy

Question 27.
Article ………. stresses that the state, shall available to everyone both in the rural and urban areas.
A) 40
B) 41
C) 42
D) 43
Answer:
B) 41

Question 28.
The year of MNREGA Act passed.
A) 2004
B) 2005
C) 2006
D) 2007
Answer:
B) 2005

Question 29.
“From this granary the king should set apart one half for the people in the countryside in times of distress, and use the other half and he should replace old stock for new” This was revealed in this book.
A) Indica
B) Raja Tarangini
C) Arthasastra
D) Neetisaram
Answer:
C) Arthasastra

Question 30.
The supply of food grains and daily essentials is done through.
A) Public Co-operation System
B) Public Distribution System
C) Public Health System
D) Public News System
Answer:
B) Public Distribution System

Question 31.
PDS means
A) Public Distribution System
B) Public Division System
C) Public Distribution Salinity
D) People Distribution System
Answer:
A) Public Distribution System

Question 32.
“The fair price shops should sell the goods to the poor only” This decision was taken in the year.
A) 1990
B) 1997
C) 2000
D) 2002
Answer:
B) 1997

Question 33.
These cards are issued to the very poor families
A) Anna cards
B) Amma cards
C) Antyodaya cards
D) Sampradaya cards
Answer:
C) Antyodaya cards

Question 34.
The food grains issued to the Anthyodaya card holders
A) 30 kgs
B) 32 kgs
C) 35 kgs
D) 40 kgs
Answer:
C) 35 kgs

Question 35.
The food grains issued to the BPL card holders per month in Andhra Pradesh.
A) 5 kgs
B) 6 kgs
C) 4 kgs
D) 7 kgs
Answer:
C) 4 kgs

Question 36.
The rice issued to the very poor old people who have Annapurna Scheme card.
A) 5 kgs
B) 10 kgs
C) 15 kgs
D) 20 kgs
Answer:
B) 10 kgs

Question 37.
According to this National Sample Survey, in rural areas, not even three families out of ten families have Antyodaya or BPL cards. ( )
A) 2002
B) 2001
C) 1999
D) 2004
Answer:
D) 2004

Question 38.
The Right to life is enshrined in this article.
A) 20
B) 21
C) 22
D) 24
Answer:
B) 21

Question 39.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                       Group – B
1) 2400 k.cal.                          ( )     a) Minimum 100 days employment in a year
2) 2100 k.cal.                          ( )     b) For rural people
3) National Sample Survey    ( )     c) White cards
4) MNREGA                           ( )     d) 2004
5) BPL                                    ( )     e) For urban people
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 -e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1- b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – e
Answer:
C) 1- b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 40.
The most important contributor to poverty, as you would have guessed by now, is the lack of regular employment.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Irregular employment is not poverty.
B) Regular employment is poverty.
C) Lack of regular employment lessens the purchasing power of people to fulfil their basic needs.
D) None
Answer:
C) Lack of regular employment lessens the purchasing power of people to fulfil their basic needs.

Question 41.
In Andhra Pradesh, nearly two-fifths of all rural families are mainly agricultural labourers.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The main occupation in A.P. is in industrial sector.
B) The primary occupation in A.P. is in service sector.
C) The primary occupation in rural A.P. is in agricultural sector.
D) None
Answer:
C) The primary occupation in rural A.P. is in agricultural sector.

Question 42.
This is related to
A) MNREGA
B) Right to work
C) Right to water
D) All the above
Answer:
A) MNREGA

Question 43.
This is …………..

A) Rural picture
B) Urban picture
C) Forest area picture
D) Mining area picture
Answer:
B) Urban picture

Question 44.
We get our rice for MDM (Mid Day Meal) from this system
A) FPS
B) PDS
C) TDS
D) PAN
Answer:
B) PDS

Question 45.
For many small farmers in the village, farming was getting more and more difficult in the village of Ramachari in the lesson. The reason behind this is
A) dried canals
B) more expenditure for digging borewells
C) borrowing on high interest rates for purchasing seeds, fertilisers, pesticides
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 46.
The main problem faced by Indian agriculture.
A) Irrigation problem
B) Lack of loans on low-interest rate
C) Farmers lack of availability of seeds of good quality and fertilizers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 16 Abolition of Zamindari System on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 16th Lesson Abolition of Zamindari System with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The agitations during rule focused attention on the problems, demands, and hopes of the peasants.
A) British
B) Kings
C) Emperors
D) Nizam
Answer:
A) British

Question 2.
The law to abolish the zamindari system was passed in ………… by all state governments.
A) 1960
B) 1950
C) 1940
D) 1980
Answer:
B) 1950

Question 3.
‘Khudkasht’ means
A) Lands of farmers
B) Lands of kings
C) Lands of zamindars
D) Lands of the poor
Answer:
C) Lands of zamindars

Question 4.
Andhra region was in ………….. state in 1950.
A) Karnataka
B) Odisha
C) Maharashtra
D) Madras
Answer:
D) Madras

Question 5.
‘Vetti’ was abolished in the year
A) 1927
B) 1928
C) 1929
D) 1930
Answer:
A) 1927

Question 6.
The Inam Lands Abolition Act was promulgated in 1955.
A) Kurnool
B) Hyderabad
C) Temples
D) Cuddapah
Answer:
B) Hyderabad

Question 7.
The leader of ‘Sarvodaya’
A) Gandhiji
B) Netaji
C) Vinobaji
D) Tilak
Answer:
C) Vinobaji

Question 8.
The Chailapalli Zamindar showed 2650 acres under his factory.
A) Cotton Textile
B) Iron & Steel
C) Oil refinery
D) Sugar
Answer:
D) Sugar

Question 9.
The Land Ceiling Act came into force in
A) 1975
B) 1976
C) 1977
D) 1978
Answer:
A) 1975

Question 10.
The other form of Vetti was
A) Vegar
B) Begar
C) Berur
D) Merur
Answer:
B) Begar

Question 11.
The main problem faced by India at the time of independence
A) Poverty
B) Unemployment
C) Irrigation
D) None
Answer:
A) Poverty

Question 12.
The poor people in the rural population at the time of independance
A) 17.6 crores
B) 18.6 crores
C) 19.6 crores
D) 20.6 crores
Answer:
B) 18.6 crores

Question 13.
The landlords escaped from the Land Ceiling Act by doing the following.
A) Transferred their lands in the names of their close relatives, friends and even farm servants.
B) Fictitious divorces were taken in law courts to show husband and wife as separate families.
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
The law of abolishing the Zamindari system was passed in
A) 1940
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1970
Answer:
B) 1950

Question 15.
Which type of control of the landlords was identified?
A) Collection of land revenue
B) Control over cultivated land
C) Control over forests and waste lands
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The number of tenants who became the owners of land after the government rule that the tenants would be given land only if they paid some price for it.
A) 2 to 2.5 crores
B) 3 to 3.5 crores
C) 1 to 1.5 crores
D) 5 to 5.5 crores
Answer:
A) 2 to 2.5 crores

Question 17.
Even before independence, in forced labour or vetti had been abolished ( )
A) 1925
B) 1927
C) 1929
D) 1931
Answer:
B) 1927

Question 18.
In areas where the Telangana armed struggle was strong, the practice of vetti was put to an end in
A) 1940
B) 1945
C) 1948
D) 1950
Answer:
C) 1948

Question 19.
In …………… when the Telangana movement was beginning, the Nizam had made many laws to protect the tenants at will
A) 1940
B) 1945
C) 1948
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1945

Question 20.
On ………….. Jagirs, which were like small kingdoms in Hyderabad state were abolished.
A) 15-8-1949
B) 20-8-1950
C) 15-8-1947
D) 2-9-1950
Answer:
A) 15-8-1949

Question 21.
Which government formed the Hyderabad Agrarian Reforms Committee?
A) Nizam government
B) Dictatorial government
C) The new government that was formed in Hyderabad
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The new government that was formed in Hyderabad

Question 22.
The famous Hyderabad Tenancy Act was passed in protecting all types of tenants.
A) 1940
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1970
Answer:
B) 1950

Question 23.
The Hyderabad Inam Lands Abolition Act was promulgated in
A) 1950
B) 1955
C) 1960
D) 1965
Answer:
B) 1955

Question 24.
As there was no limit on land holding, thousands of acres of fertile land also remained with them as ………… lands.
A) Khudkasht
B) Kudhaye Khidmatgars
C) Khidmatgars
D) Inam
Answer:
A) Khudkasht

Question 25.
The Bhudan movement was started by Vinobha Bhave on …………
A) 1-1-1951
B) 18-1-951
C) 1-5-1951
D) 1-12-1951
Answer:
B) 18-1-951

Question 26.
In West Bengal the government taken over 12,94,000 acres of land and 10,64,000 acres were distributed to about ………… families.
A) 20,51,000
B) 25,51,000
C) 26,51,000
D) 27,51,000
Answer:
C) 26,51,000

Question 27.
The first person who received land as donation.
A) Mysamma
B) Maisaiah
C) Rangamma
D) Ramayya
Answer:
B) Maisaiah

Question 28.
The total land which was received as donation during the Bhudan movement of Vinobha Bhave
A) 40 lakhs of acres
B) 44 lakhs of acres
C) 50 lakhs of acres
D) 55 lakhs of acres
Answer:
B) 44 lakhs of acres

Question 29.
The Challapalli Zamindar showed the land for sugar factory
A) 2000 acres
B) 2600 acres
C) 2650 acres
D) 3000 acres
Answer:
C) 2650 acres

Question 30.
The landlords of Telangana continued their domination even into the ………… century.
A) 20
B) 21
C) 19
D) 18
Answer:
B) 21

Question 31.
After the land reforms were completed in 1955-56 more than half the peasant families had less than hectares of land.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 32.
After this year many states passed Land Ceiling Acts for 2nd phase land reforms.
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1974
Answer:
C) 1972

Question 33.
The Land Ceiling Act was passed by A.P. Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council in
A) September 1972
B) October 1972
C) November 1972
D) December 1972
Answer:
A) September 1972

Question 34.
The Land Ceiling Act came into implementation in AP in
A) January 1975
B) February 1975
C) March 1975
D) April 1975
Answer:
A) January 1975

Question 35.
The Land Ceiling Act defined a family with …………….. members as a unit.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer:
B) 5

Question 36.
According to the Land Ceiling Act a family can have a maximum of …………… acres of irrigated land.
A) 10 – 15
B) 10 – 17
C) 10 – 27
D) 10 – 30
Answer:
C) 10 – 27

Question 37.
According to Land Ceiling Act a family can have …………… acres of dryland.
A) 30 – 50
B) 35 – 54
C) 40 – 54
D) 40 – 60
Answer:
B) 35 – 54

Question 38.
In Andhra Pradesh about ………… lakhs acres were declared surplus as per the Land Ceiling Act.
A) 7
B) 7.5
C) 8
D) 9
Answer:
C) 8

Question 39.
Out of the 8 lakhs of acres of surplus land …………… acres were taken over by the government.
A) 6,00,000
B) 6,41,000
C) 6,22,000
D) 7,00,000
Answer:
B) 6,41,000

Question 40.
Out of the land taken our by the government and it distributed about 5,82,000 acres to about ………… families of landless and poor peasants.
A) 5,00,000
B) 5,40,000
C) 6,00,000
D) 6,40,000
Answer:
B) 5,40,000

Question 41.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                                     Group – B
1) Land Ceiling Act came into force in           ( )          a) Abolition of Vetti
2) Vedire Ramachandra Reddy                       ( )          b) West Bengal
3) 1948                                                           ( )          c) Abolition of Jagirdars
4) 1949                                                           ( )          d) The first receiver of the land
5) Maisaiah                                                    ( )           e) The first land donor
A) 1 – a, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – d
B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – d
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – d

Question 42.
The lands of zamindars which were cultivated by recognized tenants was taken over by the government and the tenants were declared the owners of the land.
Pick the correct slogan.
A) Land to the owner
B) Land to the lords
C) Land to the tiller
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Land to the tiller

Question 43.
The Madras Estate Bill came into force in 1950.
A) It affected A.P.
B) It didn’t affect A.P.
C) I don’t know
D) All the above
Answer:
A) It affected A.P.

Question 44.
Name of this famous personality

A) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
B) V.R. Reddy
C) Maisaiah
D) Surendranath Benerjee
Answer:
A) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

Question 45.
‘A family of 5 members can have maximum of 10 to 27 acres of irrigated land’ – The act is
A) The land filling act
B) The land seizing act
C) The land ceiling act
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The land ceiling act

Question 46.
What could be done to eradicate rural poverty at the time of independence?
A) Zamindari system or Landlordism should be abolished
B) Government would reduce taxes
C) Problems of Rythu coolies would be solved
D) Land to the tiller
Answer:
A) Zamindari system or Landlordism should be abolished

Question 47.
Bhoodan, Gramdan and The land ceiling act are not successful in our country. This is due to
A) Several landlords gave false declarations.
B) Several landlords transferred the lands to their kith and kin.
C) 44 lakhs of acres is not a big figure in our country.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 48.
The first farmer that participated in Bhudan movement of Vinobha Bhave in Pochampalli village in Nalgonda district
A) V. Ramachandra Reddy
B) S. Ramachandra Reddy
C) Marri Chenna Reddy
D) Kadiri Rama Chandra Reddy
Answer:
A) V. Ramachandra Reddy

Question 49.
This state implemented the Land Ceiling Act more effectively.
A) West Bengal
B) Maharashtra
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Punjab
Answer:
A) West Bengal

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Law and Justice: A Case Study on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Along with the certificate, Kranthi proceeded to the police station to file a report.
A) Doctor
B) Police
C) Samba
D) Ravi
Answer:
A) Doctor

Question 2.
FIR is written by ……………… in Police station.
A) S.I.
B) Writer
C) C.I.
D) Homeguard
Answer:
B) Writer

Question 3.
If we want to lodge a complaint in Police station, this should be given
A) Address
B) Details
C) FIR
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) FIR

Question 4.
The police record the statements of
A) Lawyer
B) Petitioner
C) Accused
D) Witnesses
Answer:
D) Witnesses

Question 5.
Ravi was put in
A) Lockup
B) House
C) Guest House
D) Jail
Answer:
A) Lockup

Question 6.
An example for a crime
A) Bribery
B) Occupying another’s land
C) Divorce
D) Run away from debts
Answer:
A) Bribery

Question 7.
Agreement between two people breaks in ………… cases.
A) Criminal
B) Criminal and Civil
C) Civil
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Civil

Question 8.
To get bail certain sureties should be given in ………….
A) Police Station
B) Lockup
C) Jail
D) Court
Answer:
D) Court

Question 9.
In bailable offences only ………… can give bail.
A) SHO
B) Judge
C) Magistrate
D) Lawyer
Answer:
A) SHO

Question 10.
The laws are executed by
A) Legislative
B) Executive
C) Judiciary
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Executive

Question 11.
Ravi’s work in the lesson
A) Provisional stores
B) Real estate business
C) Money lending
D) Tobacco merchant
Answer:
B) Real estate business

Question 12.
The work of Samba in the lesson
A) Attender in Co-operative Society
B) Attender in industry
C) Vegetable vendor
D) Retail trader
Answer:
A) Attender in Co-operative Society

Question 13.
To whom we have to complaint in police station?
A) Police
B) Head Constable
C) Station House Officer
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
C) Station House Officer

Question 14.
The report of writer as per the information given in the complaint
A) First Information Report
B) Last Information Report
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) First Information Report

Question 15.
FIR means
A) First Information Report
B) First Interest Report
C) First Intellectual Report
D) First Information Relevant
Answer:
A) First Information Report

Question 16.
The following person have power to punish the accused.
A) Police
B) Justice
C) Legislative Assembly
D) Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
B) Justice

Question 17.
Which case can be opened on Ravi for beating Samba?
A) Civil case
B) Criminal case
C) Both A & B
D) Related to the constitution
Answer:
B) Criminal case

Question 18.
The property disputes come under this category of cases
A) Civil
B) Criminal
C) Constitutional
D) None
Answer:
A) Civil

Question 19.
The following should be submitted in the Judiciary to get bail
A) Assets
B) A person stands as surety
C) Bond
D) All the above or some of the above
Answer:
D) All the above or some of the above

Question 20.
Who is the representative of government interests in court?
A) Lawyer
B) Public Prosecutor
C) Judge
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Public Prosecutor

Question 21.
Which one of the following fells that ‘All are equal before law’?
A) Accused
B) Non accused
C) President
D) Law
Answer:
D) Law

Question 22.
He / She must conduct the prosecution on behalf of the state.
A) Asst officer
B) Co-lawyer
C) Asst. Public Prosecutor
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Asst. Public Prosecutor

Question 23.
Umpire like person in the game.
A) Lawyer
B) Complaintant
C) Police
D) Justice
Answer:
D) Justice

Question 24.
The main topic in the Constitution
A) Executive
B) Law framers
C) Differentiating executive, judiciary and legislative powers
D) Controlling police
Answer:
C) Differentiating executive, judiciary and legislative powers

Question 25.
The Officer of Law and Order at the district level.
A) Collector
B) The district level police officer Assisting the Collector
C) Chief executive officer
D) Education officer
Answer:
B) The district level police officer Assisting the Collector

Question 26.
The Police department works under this control.
A) Finance
B) Defence
C) Home
D) Agriculture
Answer:
C) Home

Question 27.
One who feels dissatisfaction with the judgment in the lower court, can ………… to the higher court with this.
A) Appeal
B) Permission
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer:
A) Appeal

Question 28.
The Court at the National level
A) Civil Court
B) Criminal Court
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer:
D) Supreme Court

Question 29.
This court inquires the civil cases at the district level
A) Session Court
B) Zilla Court
C) Court at division level
D) High Court
Answer:
B) Zilla Court

Question 30.
Which court enquires criminal cases district level?
A) District Court
B) Sessions Court
C) Asst. Sessions Judge
D) Jr. Civil Judge
Answer:
B) Sessions Court

Question 31.
The judgement given by the sessions court can be appealed in this court
A) District Court
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) All the above
Answer:
B) High Court

Question 32.
The judgement of the High court can be appealed in this court
A) District Court
B) First Class Magistrate Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Sessions Court
Answer:
C) Supreme Court

Question 33.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                            Group -B
1) High Court              ( )           a) First Information Report
2) Supreme Court       ( )           b) Bail
3) FIR                           ( )           c) Division or town level
4) Accused                   ( )          d) Hyderabad
5) District Court           ( )          e) Delhi
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – d
D) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c

Question 34.
In case the SHO refuses to file the report, the person can go directly to the DSP or Magistrate and file the report. The report can also be sent by post to them.
Pick the correct comment.
A) SHO is the authorised person to file FIR.
B) DSP is the only authorised person for this.
C) Magistrate is the only authorised person for this.
D) None
Answer:
A) SHO is the authorised person to file FIR.

Question 35.
A criminal offence is registered as a public wrong.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The crime is committed against the victims.
B) The crime is committed against the whole family.
C) It is a civil case.
D) The crime is committed not only against the victims but also against society as a whole.
Answer:
D) The crime is committed not only against the victims but also against society as a whole.

Question 36.
Court provides relief to the offended like a house may be vacated by the tenant or dues get paid.
This is related to
A) Civil Law
B) Criminal Law
C) Moral Law
D) Nature’s Law
Answer:
A) Civil Law

Question 37.
‘He is like an umpire in a game and conducts the trial impartially and in an open court.’
He is
A) Public Prosecutor
B) Advocate
C) Judge
D) Law Minister
Answer:
C) Judge

Question 38.
Who is our high court chief Justice ?
A) Ramesh Ranganathan
B) Gopal Ballav
C) Altamas Kabir
D) K.G. Balakrishnan
Answer:
A) Ramesh Ranganathan

Question 39.
The main function of Police
A) Listens to the witnesses
B) Record the witnesses
C) Takes photos of burned houses
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
The main function of Judge
A) Delivers judgment
B) Orders to conduct medical tests to the women
C) Conducts judicial inquiry, meets the accused
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Parliament and Central Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. provides for parliamentary form of government to our country.
A) Constitution
B) Congress
C) British
D) Judiciary
Answer:
A) Constitution

Question 2.
Lok Sabha TV Channel in Delhi telecasts the discussing, taking place in the ……………. House.
A) Prime Minister’s
B) Parliament
C) President’s
D) Speaker’s
Answer:
B) Parliament

Question 3.
In ………….. the Parliament adopted a National Policy on education.
A) 1985
B) 1984
C) 1986
D) 1987
Answer:
C) 1986

Question 4.
While discussions are going on in the Parliament any of the may ask questions for clarification.
A) Press
B) Visitors
C) Members
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Members

Question 5.
Maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha
A) 250
B) 260
C) 200
D) 230
Answer:
A) 250

Question 6.
If there is any difference of opinion, the final decision will be taken in ………….. session.
A) Party
B) Joint
C) Cabinet
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Joint

Question 7.
………….. has special powers.
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Parliament
C) Lok Sabha
D) Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
C) Lok Sabha

Question 8.
Number of seats in Lok Sabha
A) 525
B) 530
C) 585
D) 545
Answer:
D) 545

Question 9.
Number of elections conducted for our Lok Sabha
A) 16 times
B) 10 times
C) 8 times
D) 6 times
Answer:
A) 16 times

Question 10.
……….. acts as Chairman to Rajya Sabha.
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Governor
Answer:
B) Vice-President

Question 11.
The is the highest law making body.
A) Assembly
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) High Court
Answer:
B) Parliament

Question 12.
Our Parliament building is here
A) New Delhi
B) Old Delhi
C) Simla
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
A) New Delhi

Question 13.
The National Educational Policy was designed in the year
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1986
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1986

Question 14.
In the year ……………. the Parliament passed the “Right of children to free and compulsory education Act.
A) 2008
B) 2009
C) 2010
D) 2012
Answer:
B) 2009

Question 15.
Every year, the government presents the …………….. for the approval of the Parliament.
A) Annual budget
B) Annual report
C) Economical finance
D) None
Answer:
A) Annual budget

Question 16.
The maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha
A) 255
B) 250
C) 245
D) 238
Answer:
B) 250

Question 17.
The tenure of Rajya Sabha members
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 9 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 18.
The tenure of Rajya Sabha
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) Permanent Sabha
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Permanent Sabha

Question 19.
………….. Controls council of Ministers
A) Lok sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Lok sabha

Question 20.
If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say that they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers have to quit.
A) Prime minister
B) Parliament members
C) All ministers including the Prime Minister
D) All the above
Answer:
C) All ministers including the Prime Minister

Question 21.
This state has maximum number of Lok Sabha members
A) Bihar
B) A.P.
C) W. Bengal
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 22.
This state has lowest number of Lok Sabha members
A) Mizoram
B) Nagaland
C) Sikkim
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 23.
The term of Lok sabha
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 4 years
Answer:
A) 5 years

Question 24.
The number of Parliament constituencies in Andhra Pradesh
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 25.
The first General elections to the Loksabha
A) 1951
B) 1951-52
C) 1953
D) 1954
Answer:
B) 1951-52

Question 26.
The number of voters in the first Lok Sabha election
A) 17,30,00,000
B) 18,30,00,000
C) 19,30,00,000
D) 20,00,00,000
Answer:
A) 17,30,00,000

Question 27.
“The election are “a leap in the dark” to India” The reason behind this.
A) India is a caste – based society
B) India is a religion – based society
C) India is formed on liguistic base
D) None
Answer:
A) India is a caste – based society

Question 28.
An …………… was set up to conduct the elections in a free and fair.
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Society
C) Comptroller and Auditor General
D) Attorney General
Answer:
A) Election Commission

Question 29.
The number of polling center’s in the first general elections.
A) 2,20,000
B) 2,24,000
C) 3,20,000
D) 3,24,000
Answer:
B) 2,24,000

Question 30.
The Election Officers who observed the first Indian elections
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs
D) 20 lakhs
Answer:
B) 10 lakhs

Question 31.
The percentage of women that took part in first general elections and used their voting right.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
C) 40

Question 32.
The …………% of people who used voting right in general elections in 2014.
A) 58%
B) 66.4%
C) 59%
D) 60%
Answer:
B) 66.4%

Question 33.
The number of contestant parties in 201 general elections.
A) 400
B) 450
C) 464
D) 500
Answer:
C) 464

Question 34.
The ………….% of women contestants in 2014 general elections
A) 89%
B) 11 %
C) 91 %
D) 9%
Answer:
B) 11 %

Question 35.
The number of voters in 2014 general elections.
A) 93,00,00,241
B) 83,00,00,000
C) 83,41,01,479
D) 83,14,10,974
Answer:
C) 83,41,01,479

Question 36.
One of the following does not related to the Central list.
A) Telegraph
B) Telephone
C) Defence
D) Agriculture
Answer:
D) Agriculture

Question 37.
One of the following does not related to the State list.
A) agriculture
B) police
C) Medical services
D) Army
Answer:
D) Army

Question 38.
One of the following does not related to the concurrent list.
A) Electricity
B) Factories or industries
C) Labourers
D) Medical services
Answer:
D) Medical services

Question 39.
Who elects president?
A) All the elected members of all state assemblies
B) The elected members of both parliament houses
C) The elected members of state vidhana parishads
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 40.
Rajya Sabha Chairman
A) President
B) Vice-president
C) Speaker
D) Deputy speaker
Answer:
B) Vice-president

Question 41.
Council of Ministers are elected from.
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both the Sabhas
D) None
Answer:
C) Both the Sabhas

Question 42.
The head of the Executive
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Council of Minister
D) Speaker
Answer:
A) President

Question 43.
All the decisions of the government are on the name of the head of the state
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Vice President
D) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer:
B) President

Question 44.
Who elects Prime Minister?
A) Members of Lok Sabha
B) Members of Rajya Sabha
C) Members of Both in Sabhas
D) Members of Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
A) Members of Lok Sabha

Question 45.
The Executive in the government
A) Ministry
B) Prime Minister
C) Lok Sabha
D) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
A) Ministry

Question 46.
Who works in the Ministry with minister?
A) Secretary
B) Joint Secretary
C) Official Staff
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
The number of Lok Sabha seats that won buy the Congress Party in 1952 first general elections
A) 300
B) 350
C) 364
D) 370
Answer:
C) 364

Question 48.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                                             Group – B
1) Free and compulsory universal education           ( )         a) 6 years
2) The term of office of Rajya Sabha members       ( )          b) A leap in the dark, a large and complex task
3) Andhra Pradesh                                                   ( )          c) 489 members
4) Elections (1951-5B)                                              ( )          d) 25 Constituencies
5) First Lok Sabha                                                     ( )          e) 2009
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – c
B) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – e, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
D) 1 – e, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c

Question 49.
The Parliament passed the ‘Right of children to free and compulsory education Act’ in 2009.
Pick the correct comment.
A) This is a meaningless act.
B) This is to attract the voters of the nation.
C) This is to ensure that all children get quality education.
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) This is to ensure that all children get quality education.

Question 50.
‘Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected.
B) The members of Lok Sabha are indirectly elected.
C) The members of I ok ??.bha are nominated.
D) The members of Lok Sabha are appointed.
Answer:
A) The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected.

Question 51.
The response of the people to the new opportunity was tremendous. They participated in the polls, fully aware that their vote was a prized possession.
These lines tell us about
A) The elections of the Constituent Assembly
B) The house to house survey
C) The elections in 1935-36
D) The elections in 1951-52
Answer:
D) The elections in 1951-52

Question 52.
Name of the President of India
A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B) Ramnath Kovind
C) Pranab Mukherjee
D) K.R. Narayanan
Answer:
B) Ramnath Kovind

Question 53.
Why are the Andhra Pradesh Parliament constituencies reduced to 25 from 42?
A) Population decreased
B) Centre decision
C) State bifurcation
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) State bifurcation

Question 54.
The party next to the Congress Party won the majority of seats in 1952 first general elections.
A) Bharathiya Jana Sangh
B) Janata Dal
C) Communists and Allies
D) Kisan Majdoor Praja Party
Answer:
C) Communists and Allies