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Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products with Answers

Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
The factor responsible for increase in production of a crop
A) Kind of seeds planted
B) Properties of the soil
C) The availability and proper application of irrigation and fertilisers
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 2.
We can increase the food production by
A) Increasing the area of cultivated land
B) Developing high yielding varieties.
C) Alternate crops
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 3.
Alternating of crops preserve the
A) Soil fertility
B) High yielding varieties
C) Soil management
D) Crop management
Answer:
A) Soil fertility

Question 4.
Starch is a
A) Fat
B) Carbohydrate
C) Protein
D) Vitamin
Answer:
B) Carbohydrate

Question 5.
100 gms of water react with 200 grams of carbondioxide to form how many grams of carbohydrate ?
A) 280 grams
B) 360 grams
C) 180 grams
D) 380 grams
Answer:
C) 180 grams

Question 6.
Most of the water released by plants, evaporate from the leaves through
A) Epidermis
B) Mesophyll cell
C) Stomata
D) Xylem
Answer:
C) Stomata

Question 7.
This crop require more quantity of water.
A) Paddy
B) Black gram
C) Ground nut
D) Bajra
Answer:
A) Paddy

Question 8.
The irrigation system helps in preserving water wastage
A) Canal irrigation
B) Pond irrigation
C) Drip irrigation
D) None
Answer:
C) Drip irrigation

Question 9.
Identify the macro nutrient.
A) Iron
B) Nitrogen
C) Copper
D) Manganese
Answer:
B) Nitrogen

Question 10.
Nutrients are added to the soil by
A) Rotating crops
B) Organic manure
C) Chemical fertilizers
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 11.
Crops that take lot of nutrients from the soil are
A) Cereals
B) Pulses
C) Tubers
D) All
Answer:
A) Cereals

Question 12.
Leguminous crop gives about how many kg of nitrogen per hectare
A) 150 to 200 kg
B) 50 to 150 kg
C) 100 to 150 kg
D) 25 to 100 kg
Answer:
B) 50 to 150 kg

Question 13.
Blue green algae culture is applied in
A) Potato fields
B) Drumstick field
C) Ground nut fields
D) Paddy field
Answer:
D) Paddy field

Question 14.
Who suggest the type of crop to be grown after observing the field ?
A) Agricultural officer
B) Soil testing technologist
C) Both A and B
D) Village Development Officer
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 15.
The main ingredients of Panchagavya are
A) Milk, Curd
B) Ghee, Dung
C) Urine of Cow
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
Long term high yielding capacity of soil depends on
A) Availability of nutrients in the soil
B) Suitable physical, chemical and biological characters of soil
C) Both A and B
D) Rainfall
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 17.
In organic farming farmers
A) Use natural manures
B) Use natural pest controlling methods
C) Practise crop rotation and mixed crop system
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 18.
Urea has how much percentage of nitrogen ?
A) 36 %
B) 46 %
C) 56 %
D) 44 %
Answer:
B) 46 %

Question 19.
Insecticides are chemicals used to kill
A) Microorganisms
B) Worm
C) Insects
D) Fungus
Answer:
C) Insects

Question 20.
Pesticides and insecticides are used in large quantities in this district.
A) Guntur
B) Prakasam
C) Nellore
D) A and C
Answer:
D) A and C

Question 21.
Identify the friendly insect.
A) Spider, dragonfly
B) Krisopa, mirids
C) Lady bird beetle
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 22.
Bacterium lives in the eggs of stem borer
A) Bacillum
B) Trachoderma
C) Rhizobium
D) Azotobactor
Answer:
B) Trachoderma

Question 23.
Bacteria that destroy some pests is
A) Bacillus Turingenesis
B) Rhizobium
C) Azotobactor
D) Bacillus Pseudomonos
Answer:
A) Bacillus Turingenesis

Question 24.
After paddy, cultivating black gram prevents
A) Tungro virus on paddy
B) Gram caterpillar
C) Spotted boleworm
D) All
Answer:
A) Tungro virus on paddy

Question 25.
Nitrogen fixing Bacteria
A) Rhizobium
B) Bacillus
C) Micoryza
D) Pencillium
Answer:
A) Rhizobium

Question 26.
Krisopa, lady birds, beetles are the examples of
A) Crop destroyers
B) Friendly insects
C) Crop enemies
D) Insecticides
Answer:
B) Friendly insects

Question 27.
Example of algae as nitrogen fixer
A) Blue green algae
B) Red algae
C) Brown algae
D) Above all
Answer:
A) Blue green algae

Question 28.
Example of phosphorus solubiliser
A) Blue green algae
B) Micorhyza
C) Pencillium
D) Pseudomonas
Answer:
C) Pencillium

Question 29.
The fungi used as biofertilizer
A) Azoto bactor
B) Bacillus
C) Micorhyza
D) Blue green algae
Answer:
C) Micorhyza

Question 30.
Peta and IR – 8 are
A) Sugarcane varieties
B) Orange crop varieties
C) Rice varieties
D) Wheat crops
Answer:
C) Rice varieties

Question 31.
Example for mixed crop ………………………
A) Groundnut + Sugarcane
B) Sugarcane + Beetle
C) Rice + Groundnut
D) Maize + Red gram
Answer:
D) Maize + Red gram

Question 32.
Find the odd one out.
A) Boran
B) Zinc
C) Copper
D) Sulphur
Answer:
D) Sulphur

Question 33.
Find the odd one out.
A) K
B) Ca
C) Mg
D) Cl
Answer:
D) Cl

Question 34.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilizers?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
A) Iron

Question 35.
Xanthium and Parthenium are examples of …………………..
A) Weeds
B) Pesticides
C) Fungicides
D) Crop varieties
Answer:
A) Weeds

Question 36.
Which one of the following is raised as food for the livestock ?
A) Millet
B) Sorghum
C) Lenta
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
C) Lenta

Question 37.
The way of incorporating desirable characters into crop varieties is by
A) Hybridisation
B) Crop rotation
C) Intercropping
D) Multiple cropping
Answer:
A) Hybridisation

Question 38.
NPK ratio in organic fertilizer
A) Above 14%
B) Below 14%
C) Above 40%
D) Below 40%
Answer:
A) Above 14%

Question 39.
Find out the micro nutrient from the following.
A) Boran, Iron, Copper
B) Phosphorus, Potash
C) Potash, Chlorine, Zinc
D) Nitrogen, Zinc, Manganese
Answer:
A) Boran, Iron, Copper

Question 40.
This crop requires very less amount of water.
A) Red gram
B) Sugarcane
C) Wheat
D) Paddy
Answer:
A) Red gram

Question 41.
Identify the weed present in the crop of mirchi.
A) Garika
B) Pulichinta
C) Pogakumalli
D) Varipilla Gaddi
Answer:
B) Pulichinta

Question 42.
This is a nitrogen fixer.
A) Pseudomonas
B) Michorhyza
C) Pencillium
D) Azotobacter
Answer:
D) Azotobacter

Question 43.
The crop that is grown along with cabbage is
A) Sugarcane
B) Maize
C) Groundnut
D) Carrot
Answer:
C) Groundnut

Question 44.
Absorption of CO₂ and evaporation of water occurs through ………………….
A) Leaves
B) Roots
C) Stomata
D) Stem
Answer:
C) Stomata

Question 45.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
List – A     –     List – B
1) Rabi crop – Mustard
2) Kharif crop –  Cotton
3) Mixed crop –  Sugarcane
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1 only
D) 3 only
Answer:
D) 3 only

Question 46.
Identify the mismatched pair from the
following.
List – A        –     List – B
1) Dragon fly – Predator of pests
2) Coconut water – Panchagavya
3) Kulthi – Mixed crop
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1 only
D) 3 only
Answer:
D) 3 only

Question 47.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Bacteria – Rhyzobium
2) Algae – Bluegreen algae
3) Fungi – Pseudomonas
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2 only
D) 3 only
Answer:
D) 3 only

Question 48.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Rice – Wanza
2) Tobacco – Gaddi chamanthi
3) Groundnut – Pogakumalli
A) 1 only
B) 1,2
C) 2,3
D) 3 only
Answer:
C) 2,3

Question 49.
Observe the table and answer the question.
Common weed that grow on all crops is
i) Cynodon dactylon
ii) Portulaca oleracea
iii)Cyperus rotundus
iv) Euphorbia hirta
A) i, ii and iii
B) i, iii and iv
C) ii and iv only
D) i and iii only
Answer:
D) i and iii only

Question 50.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
1) Nitrogen – a) Root penetration
2) Phosphorus – b) Resistance towards pests
3) Potassium – c) Flowers arise fastly
A) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 51.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
1) Azotobactor – a) G.M. seed
2) B.T. cotton – b) Mixed crop
3) Marigold in Mirchi – c) Bio-fertilizer
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

II. Match the following :
1.

Answer:
Group – A
1) Mixed crop – C) Betel
2) Stomata – A) Transpiration
3) Micro nutrient – E) Iron
3) Irrigation – F) Watering the field
5) Aruthadi Pantalu – B) Dry land crops

2.

Answer:
1) Drip irrigation – C) Prevent water wastage
2) Watershed – E) Ground water level
3) Root nodules – A) Legume plants
4) Bacterial culture – F) More nodules on legumes
5) Green manure – B) Plant leaves
6) Synthetic pyrethroids – G) Pesticides, insecticide

Question 52.
Bacillus thuringenisis …………………………….
A) Destroys crops
B) Destroys weeds
C) Destroys pests
D) Supplies nitrogen to crops
Answer:
C) Destroys pests

Question 53.
This is a good example for concentrated organic manure
A) Animal excreta
B) Plastic waste
C) Jatropa seed powder
D) Compost
Answer:
D) Compost

Question 54.
Anwesha found that fruits of her kitchen garden lack quality of smell, colour and taste. If you were an agriculture officer, you would suggest her
A) To nourish the soil with adequate nitrogen
B) To nourish the soil with adequate phosphorous
C) To nourish the soil with adequate potassium
D) Spray pesticides
Answer:
C) To nourish the soil with adequate potassium

Question 55.
A lady-wasp spread pheromone into atmosphere, if it is not diffused then
A) Nothing will happen
B) It cannot find its mate
C) It cannot communicate with the nature
D) Both B and C
Answer:
D) Both B and C

Question 56.
Alexander attended a seminar on Challenges of Agriculture in his school. He wants to create awareness among rural farmers. He should
A) Encourage sustainable agriculture methods
B) Ban chemical fertilisers
C) Call for ban pesticides, insecticides, etc
D) Promote only food crops
Answer:
A) Encourage sustainable agriculture methods

Question 57.
The following mineral is required in small quantities for plants.
A) Nitrogen, Potassium
B) Boron, Nitrogen
C) Both A and B
D) Boron, Zinc
Answer:
D) Boron, Zinc

Question 58.
Insects that feed on other insects, are helpful to farmers
A) heterotrophs
B) friendly insects
C) insecticides
D) attractive inseGts
Answer:
B) friendly insects

Question 59.
The things used in preparation of Panchagavya
1) Cow dung, ghee
2) Coconut water, Alcohol
3) Juice of Sugarcane
4) Urine of Cow
A) Only 1
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) All of these
Answer:
C) 3 and 4

Question 60.
The correct statement for organic farming is
A) Promote usage of natural manure
B) Discourage use of vermi compost
C) Use urea injudiciously
D) More use of insecticides
Answer:
A) Promote usage of natural manure

Question 61.
Identify the micro nutrients which are useful for plant health.
i) Manganese
ii) Boron
iii) Phosphorous
iv) Copper
A) i and ii
B) i, ii and iii
C) i, ii and iv
D) All the above
Answer:
C) i, ii and iv

Question 62.
If a farmer had been using insecticides for a long time, then
A) Soil fertility decreases
B) Insect population decreases initially
C) Insects develop resistance towards the pesticides
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 63.
Ramesh collected the information that his area comes under low rain fall. Identify the crop that is suitable to be grown in that area.
A) Sugarcane
B) Paddy
C) Ragi
D) Wheat
Answer:
C) Ragi

Question 64.
Cultivating Marigold in Mirchi crop is ………………………..
A) To reduce pests on crops
B) Crop – rotation
C) Symbiosis
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) To reduce pests on crops

Question 65.
Friendly insects of farmers is …………………..
A) Dragonfly
B) Mirids
C) Lady bird
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 66.
The bacteria that capable of destroying pests like stemborers of tobacco B )
A) Lactobacillus
B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Rhizobium
D) Azatobactor
Answer:
B) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 67.
Which of the following is the best method to control plant diseases ?
A) Biological control
B) The selection of disease resistant varieties
C) The introduction of disease resistant varieties
D) The breeding of permanent resistant varieties
Answer:
B) The selection of disease resistant varieties

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Public Health and the Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Public Health and the Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Approximately …………… new doctors qualify every year.
A) 50,000
B) 20,000
C) 10,000
D) 15,000
Answer:
D) 15,000

Question 2.
At the …………… level, there is a volunteer called ‘ASHA Worker’, who helps people in getting health services.
A) Village
B) Mandal
C) Z.P.
D) District
Answer:
A) Village

Question 3.
Community Health Centre has
A) 50 beds
B) 30 beds
C) 80 beds
D) 100 beds
Answer:
B) 30 beds

Question 4.
In a village, everyone must be involved to see that the water near taps/hand pumps does not form stagnant pools where …………… breed.
A) wildlife
B) flies
C) mosquitoes
D) cattle
Answer:
C) mosquitoes

Question 5.
In A.P. about …………… % of the children below 5 years of age were characterised as underweight.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 36
D) 39
Answer:
B) 33

Question 6.
BMI means
A) Body Mass Index
B) Body Dharma Index
C) Body Mentality Index
D) Body Shape Index
Answer:
A) Body Mass Index

Question 7.
…………… is essential for life and good health.
A) Water
B) Money
C) Fast food
D) Milk
Answer:
A) Water

Question 8.
An example of a public facility is
A) Aeroplane journey
B) Private school study
C) Sanitation
D) Private health care
Answer:
C) Sanitation

Question 9.
…………….. must take the responsibility for providing public facilities.
A) Organisations
B) Institutes
C) M.L.A.s and M.P.s
D) Government
Answer:
D) Government

Question 10.
Public facilities relate to people’s
A) basic needs
B) luxuries
C) comforts
D) duties
Answer:
A) basic needs

Question 11.
Which one fulfils the primary needs of the people?
A) People
B) Government
C) Landlords
D) Capitalists
Answer:
B) Government

Question 12.
These are needed to cure diseases and to treat
A) Health centres
B) Laboratories for diagnosis
C) Ambulance services, blood banks
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
Medical science achieved good progress in this sector.
A) Technical knowledge
B) Treating procedure
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
Medical colleges are in plenty in this country
A) China
B) India
C) America
D) France
Answer:
B) India

Question 15.
The hospital which has 100 beds at the division level
A) PHC
B) Area hospital
C) Praja Vydhyasala
D) None
Answer:
B) Area hospital

Question 16.
The number of government hospitals in India in 1950
A) 2717
B) 2750
C) 2317
D) 2417
Answer:
A) 2717

Question 17.
The number of government hospitals in 1991 in India
A) 11,000
B) 11,174
C) 11,274
D) 11,374
Answer:
B) 11,174

Question 18.
The number of government hospitals in India by the year 2000
A) 18,218
B) 19,140
C) 20,150
D) 21,150
Answer:
A) 18,218

Question 19.
At the village level, there is a volunteer called …………… who helps people in getting health services.
A) Asha worker
B) Arogya worker
C) Civil health officer
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Asha worker

Question 20.
ASHA means
A) Accredited Social Health Activist
B) Accredited Social Health Association
C) Accredited Service Health Acadamy
D) Accredited Service Health Activist
Answer:
A) Accredited Social Health Activist

Question 21.
The subcentre covers a population of people.
A) 4000
B) 5000
C) 6000
D) 7000
Answer:
B) 5000

Question 22.
Each PHC covers a population of
A) 20,000
B) 25,000
C) 30,000
D) 35,000
Answer:
C) 30,000

Question 23.
For every PHCs, there is a Community Health Centre which is a 30-bed hospital and has some specialists.
A) 2 – 3
B) 3 – 4
C) 4 – 5
D) 5 – 6
Answer:
C) 4 – 5

Question 24.
At the divisional level is the Area Hospital that has …………… beds.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Answer:
B) 100

Question 25.
They do get food to eat but less than what is required, therefore their starvation is not visible.
A) visible starvation
B) invisible starvation
C) more starvation
D) none
Answer:
B) invisible starvation

Question 26.
R.M.P. means
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas
B) Doctors in rural areas
C) Medical students in rural areas
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Health servants who are registered in rural areas

Question 27.
This is needed for our body to be healthy, regular daily work not to be ill-health
A) water
B) oils
C) fat
D) proteins
Answer:
C) fat

Question 28.
The situation in public service at present has changed due to the services of
A) 108
B) 104
C) Both A & B
D) 100
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
…………….. reaches in time to provide first aid in emergency cases and also provide access by taking the victims for further follow-up medication at the nearby health centre.
A) 100
B) 101
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
D) 108

Question 30.
…………… is a vehicle with health personnel and medicines providing monthly visits to rural areas for health checkups providing medicine, etc.
A) 101
B) 103
C) 104
D) 108
Answer:
C) 104

Question 31.
…………… of the population can afford the cost of medicines that they require during an illness.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 20%

Question 32.
It was reported in a study that people who are admitted to the hospital for some illness or injury have to borrow money or sell some of their possessions to pay the expenses.
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 33.
This is essential for life and good health
A) water
B) food
C) meat
D) alcohol consumption
Answer:
A) water

Question 34.
Over …………. Indians, reportedly die every day because of water-related diseases.
A) 1500
B) 1600
C) 1700
D) 1800
Answer:
B) 1600

Question 35.
This is related to the basic need
A) Health Services
B) Cleaning
C) Electricity, Civil Transport, School
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
The main aim of private companies.
A) service motto
B) earning profits
C) price fixation
D) none
Answer:
B) earning profits

Question 37.
These are needed for a healthy life
A) Food
B) Protected fresh water
C) Cleaning
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
India is the fourth-largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a large exporter of medicines.
Pick the correct comment.
A) All the Indians are sick people.
B) India only produces medicines.
C) India only exports medicines.
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.
Answer:
D) Indian pharmaceutical industry is developed.

Question 39.
But the situation in public service at present is somewhat changed due to the services of ‘108’ and ‘104’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The two services worsened the situation.
B) The two services improved the situation.
C) There is no change.
D) I cannot say.
Answer:
B) The two services improved the situation.

Question 40.
Safe drinking water can prevent many water-related diseases.
Name the water-related disease.
A) Diarrhoea
B) Dysentery
C) Cholera
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 41.
Department of AYUSH: looks after local systems of medicine such as Ayurveda, Homoeopathy, Unani, Siddha and research in them.
This does not come under the department of AYUSH
A) Homoeopathy
B) Naturopathy
C) Allopathy
D) Unani
Answer:
C) Allopathy

Question 42.
The Indian Constitution provides the Right to life to all the people. The reason is
A) Providing respectful life to all
B) lack of self-reliance
C) creating equal facilities for all
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Providing respectfull life to all

Question 43.
Medicine is too expensive for some chronic diseases for ordinary people. So if the public gets they may get qualitative services.
A) Medical education
B) Health insurance
C) Health Facility
D) Health protection
Answer:
B) Health insurance

Question 44.
Name the health programme introduced by our government to help the poor.
A) Arogyasri
B) EHS
C) Health Insurance
D) Star Health
Answer:
A) Arogyasri

Question 45.
India is the largest producer of medicines in the world.
A) 5th
B) 2nd
C) 4th
D) 6th
Answer:
C) 4th

Question 46.
…………. is too expensive for some chronic diseases to the public.
A) Nursing
B) Medicines
C) Transport facilities
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Medicines

Question 47.
The main aim of the Public Health System
A) Health care services to the poor
B) To take action to prevent the spread of diseases such as T.B., Malaria, Jaundice, Cholera, Diarrhoea, Chikungunya, etc.
C) Providing better services to the poor
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 48.
This develops immunity systems
A) better nutrition
B) better proteins
C) better water
D) none
Answer:
A) better nutrition

Question 49.
About ……………. % of the women are undernourished in A.P.
A) 30
B) 33
C) 31
D) 25
Answer:
C) 31

Question 50.
In Andhra Pradesh about …………. % of men are undernourished.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
Answer:
B) 25

Question 51.
India occupies ………….. place in the production of medicines.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Animal Behaviour on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Animal behaviour indicates
A) How animals find and defend resources
B) How animals relate to their physical environment
C) Avoid predators, choose mates, reproduce
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 2.
This influence animal behaviour.
A) Animal physiology
B) Anatomy
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 3.
These are inborn behaviours.
A) Instinct
B) Imprinting
C) Conditioning
D) Imitation
Answer:
A) Instinct

Question 4.
These are examples for instinct behaviour.
A) Making nests by birds
B) Choose mates
C) Forming into groups for protection
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
Reflexes are this type of behaviour.
A) Imitation
B) Instinct
C) Conditioning
D) Imprinting
Answer:
B) Instinct

Question 6.
Chickens and ducklings recognise their mother because of a behaviour called
A) Imitation
B) Conditioning
C) Imprinting
D) Instinct
Answer:
C) Imprinting

Question 7.
Students showing different types of behaviour to a school bell as per the time is
A) Conditioning
B) Imitation
C) Imprinting
D) Instinct
Answer:
A) Conditioning

Question 8.
The scientist that conducted experiments on conditioning is
A) Kohler
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) Ervin Pepperberg
D) Hermon
Answer:
B) Ivan Pavlov

Question 9.
Examples for conditioned reflexes are
A) Standing when elder people comes.
B) Standing attention on hearing national anthem.
C) When the school bell rings in the morning students gather for assembly.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 10.
The scientist who observed imitation in chimpanzees ?
A) Kohler
B) Hermon
C) Pepperberg
D) Pavlov
Answer:
A) Kohler

Question 11.
Hungry persons want to eat immediately when they sit at the dining table but waits until everyone is seated and ready to eat because
A) Imitation
B) Instinct
C) Conditioning
D) Imprinting
Answer:
B) Instinct

Question 12.
By associating the product with attractive images the advertisers are trying to setup a response to their product with
A) Imitation
B) Instinct
C) Conditioning
D) Imprinting
Answer:
C) Conditioning

Question 13.
Scientists follow the journeys made by the animals using
A) Tagging
B) Enquiry
C) Both A and B
D) Signals
Answer:
A) Tagging

Question 14.
Searching and communicating nature of ants is because of
A) Hormones
B) Pheromones
C) Enzymes
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Pheromones

Question 15.
The insect that lay its eggs on the food material is
A) Wasp
B) Weaver bird
C) Ants
D) Cockroach
Answer:
A) Wasp

Question 16.
Which animal has great logical thinking power ?
A) Beaver
B) Dolphin
C) Squirrel
D) Scrubjay
Answer:
B) Dolphin

Question 17.
Parrot Alex called apple as
A) Bannery
B) Cherry
C) Banana
D) Orange
Answer:
A) Bannery

Question 18.
This animal releases bad smell to protect from predators.
A) Tasmanian Devil
B) Bombardier Beetle
C) Both A and B
D) Beaver
Answer:
B) Bombardier Beetle

Question 19.
It is the scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.
A) Ecology
B) Ornithology
C) Ethology
D) Anology
Answer:
C) Ethology

Question 20.
This scientist got Nobel prize for his work on animal behaviour in 1973.
A) Konard Lorenz
B) Nikolas Timbergen
C) Karlvon Frisch
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
This helps in learning new skills.
A) Instinct
B) Imitation
C) Conditioning
D) None
Answer:
B) Imitation

Question 22.
Who among the following, got Nobel Prize in Ethology ?
A) Timbergen
B) Konard Lorenz
C) Karlvon Frisch
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 23.
This helps in getting discipline among the students.
A) Imitation
B) Instinct
C) Conditioning
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Conditioning

Question 24.
The worst smelling animal in the animal kingdom
A) Kangaroo
B) Spider
C) Chimpanzee
D) Tasmanian Devil
Answer:
D) Tasmanian Devil

Question 25.
Circus animals do so many feats in the circus. This is possible by
A) Instincts
B) Imitations
C) Conditioning
D) Imprinting
Answer:
C) Conditioning

Question 26.
‘Food stealing bird’ is ……………….
A) Peacock
B) Swift
C) Humming bird
D) Scrubjay bird
Answer:
D) Scrubjay bird

Question 27.
This animal build a dam by big trees.
A) Tasmanian Devil
B) Beaver
C) Squirrel
D) Alex
Answer:
B) Beaver

Question 28.
Reflexes are also examples for
A) Imitation
B) Imprinting
C) Conditioning
D) Instinct
Answer:
D) Instinct

Question 29.
Ducklings will follow the first moving object and treat it as their mother. This is an example for
A) Instinct
B) Imprinting
C) Conditioning
D) Reflex
Answer:
B) Imprinting

Question 30.
Cockroaches prefer the following condition
A) Light and dry
B) Dark and dry
C) Light and damp
D) Dark and damp
Answer:
D) Dark and damp

Question 31.
What type of behaviour involves in response to stimulus ?
A) Instinct
B) Imprinting
C) Conditioning
D) Imitation
Answer:
C) Conditioning

Question 32.
What type of behaviour is responsible for ducklings identifying their mother ?
A) Instinct
B) Conditioning
C) Imitation
D) Imprinting
Answer:
D) Imprinting

Question 33.
This bird builds it’s nest by three broad leaves.
A) Sparrow
B) Tailor Bird
C) Weaver Bird
D) Crow
Answer:
C) Weaver Bird

Question 34.
Identifying and smelling ability in dogs is due to
A) Enzymes
B) Hormones
C) Pheramones
D) Medicines
Answer:
C) Pheramones

Question 35.
Ivan Pavlov belongs to the following country.
A) Austria
B) Australia
C) Russia
D) South Africa
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 36.
Conditioning is an ……………….
A) Imprinting
B) Instinct Behaviour
C) Learned Behaviour
D) All of the above
Answer:
C) Learned Behaviour

Question 37.
Which of the following is not an instinct behaviour ?
A) Spinning of web by a spider
B) Smelling ability of dogs
C) Swimming by fish
D) None of the above
Answer:
D) None of the above

Question 38.
Migration of birds is an example of –
A) Imitation
B) Instinct
C) Imprinting
D) Conditioning
Answer:
B) Instinct

Question 39.
Konard Lorenz received Nobel Prize in the year
A) 1972
B) 1973
C) 1974
D) 1975
Answer:
D) 1975

Question 40.
Moving of bull towards plough when we untie the neck out of the pole is an example for ………………….
A) Instinct
B) Imitation
C) Conditioning
D) Reflex
Answer:
C) Conditioning

Question 41.
This is an example of harmful imitation among adolescent children.
A) Singing
B) Dancing
C) Acting
D) Smoking
Answer:
D) Smoking

Question 42.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Training to parrot – Pepper Berg
2) Experiments on Chimpanzee – Pavlov
3) Condition experiments on dog – Kohler
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3 only
Answer:
C) 2, 3

Question 43.
Read the following statements carefully.
a) Konard Lorenz conducted experiments on imprinting
b) A spider spinning its web is an example for imitation.
A) Both a, b incorrect
B) Both a, b correct
C) b correct, a incorrect
D) a correct, b incorrect
Answer:
D) a correct, b incorrect

Question 44.
Identify the correct matching from the following.

A) (i) – d (ii) – c (iii) – b (iv) – a
B) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – b
C) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – d
D) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – c
Answer:
D) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – c

Question 45.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Instinct
2) Imprinting
3) Imitation

List – B
a) Recognising mother by child
b) Copying one by another
c) Inborn behaviour
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
Answer:
D) 1 -c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 46.
Identify the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Konard Lorenz
2) Copying the behaviour
3) Studying about animal behaviour

List – B
a) Imitation
b) Ethology
c) Imprinting
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

II. Match the following:

1.

Answer:
1) Instinct – C) Inborn behaviour
2) Imprinting – D) Recognising mother by chickens
3) Conditioning – A) Learned behaviour
4) Imitation – E) One animal copies another animal
5) Reflex actions – B) Saves from dangerous situations

2.

Answer:
1) Imitation experiments in chimpanzees – D) Kohler
2) Conditioning experiment with dog – F) Ivan Pavlov
3) Study on Dolphins – E) Hermon
4) Training to parrot – A) Ervin Pepperberg
5) Behavioural study in white geese – B) Konard Lorenz

Question 47.
Ducklings are able to recognise their mother because of
A) Impulse
B) Imprinting
C) Instinct
D) Imitation
Answer:
B) Imprinting

Question 48.
Lavanya stopped her scooty on seeing red light of the traffic signal. This behaviour is known as ……………………
A) Imitation
B) Conditioning
C) Instinct
D) Reflex action
Answer:
B) Conditioning

Question 49.
In Pavlov’s experiment, a dog salivates on hearing a bell. Here, salivation is a ………………….
A) Natural stimulus
B) Conditioned stimulus
C) Natural response
D) Conditioned response
Answer:
D) Conditioned response

Question 50.
Neethu conducts an experiment to know the behaviour of cockroaches. She creates a container with four inter-connected chambers, to allow free movement, as shown below. She keeps 20 cockroaches in the container and observes their movement for 2 days.
Which of the following can be concluded from this experiment ?

A) Do cockroaches prefer damp areas over dry areas ?
B) Do cockroaches become diseased in dark areas ?
C) What kind of food cockroaches prefer ?
D) How long it takes for cockroaches to breed and lay new eggs ?
Answer:
A) Do cockroaches prefer damp areas over dry areas ?

Question 51.
What do you understand by observing the choice box experiment conducted by your teacher ?
A) Behaviour of cockroaches
B) Selection of their pair in cockroaches
C) Food habits of cockroaches
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Behaviour of cockroaches

Question 52.
The scientist who identified imprinting in this animal is

A) Ivan Pavlov
B) Prince Doria
C) Jean Lamarck
D) Kohler
Answer:
D) Kohler

Question 53.
Bombardier beetle spray very foul smell because
A) to get food easily
B) to protect from predators
C) to attract female beetle
D) to kill the prey
Answer:
B) to protect from predators

Question 54.
The scientific study of animal behaviour under natural conditions is
A) Ecology
B) Ethology
C) Embryology
D) Neuro anatomy
Answer:
B) Ethology

Question 55.
In the choice box experiment the cockroach prefers …………………. conditions.
i) Dark conditions
ii) Light conditions
iii) Dry conditions
iv) Damp conditions
A) i and iii
B) i and iv
C) ii and iii
D) ii and iv
Answer:
B) i and iv

Question 56.
Which of the following is an instinctive behaviour ?
A) Wasp making nest
B) Beaver constructing dams across the streams
C) Birds making nests
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 57.

Who conducted the above experiment?
A) Ivan Pavlov – Conditioning
B) Charles Darwin – Imitation
C) Mendel – Imprinting
D) Jean Lamark – Conditioning
Answer:
A) Ivan Pavlov – Conditioning

Use this information to answer the 12 – 13 questions :
There are several types of behaviours in humans and animals which are investigated by researches. They are instinct, imprinting, conditioning, imitation, etc. Ivan Pavlov conducted experiments on dogs and proposed “Conditioning Theory”.
Question 58.
Select the incorrect sentence about conditioning :
a) It involves a response to a stimulus
b) It is not a type of learned behaviour
c) It was discovered by Ivan Pavlov
d) Pavlov used dog in his experiment
A) a, b, c only
B) b only
C) b, c only
D) All are correct
Answer:
B) b only

Question 59.
Choose correct answer about Imitation in the following :
a) Where one animal copies another animal
b) Humans are the only animals that copy each other
A) Both a, b are false
B) Both a, b are true
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
C) a is true, b is false

Question 60.
Will you consider spinning of web by spider as an instinctual behaviour.
Find the correct sentence in the following :
a) The behaviour that need not be learned
b) Reflexes are also a type of instinct behaviour
c) Young ones follow of their mother is instinct behaviour.
A) b only
B) a, b only
C) c only
D) a, c only
Answer:
B) a, b only

Question 61.
Bombardier beetle emits spray with foul smell. It helps
A) to catch the prey
B) to get food easily
C) to protect from predator
D) to attract female beetle
Answer:
C) to protect from predator

Question 62.
Assertion (A) : Human behaviour is affected by many variables.
Reason (R) : It can be very easy to study in the laboratory.
A) Both A and R are false
B) Both A, R are true. R is correct ex-planation for A
C) Both A, R are true, but R is not a cor-rect explanation for A
D) A is true but R is false
Answer:
D) A is true but R is false

Question 63.
Find the incorrect statements about animal behaviour.
a) Our pet dog barks only on strangers
b) Cockroaches come out of their places only when it is dark
c) Birds collect soft and strong materials for nestling
d) Ants which usually go in a tine to reach sugar kept in tin.
A) All are wrong
B) a, b only
C) c, d only
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 64.
Lakshmi wants to know about the behaviour of animal shown in the below picture. Suggest some questions to her that she can use to ask an expert.

a) What is animal behaviour ?
b) What type of behaviour does the animal show ?
c) Why do the ducklings follow the hen ?
d) What are the uses of imprinting ?
e) Is Imitation a learned behaviour ?
A) e only
B) a, b, c
C) c, d, e
D) a, b, c, d
Answer:
D) a, b, c, d

Question 65.
You want to test the behaviour of cockroaches.
You prepare choice box as shown in the picture.
In this experiment cockroaches choose this chamber.

A) Dark and damp
B) Dark and dry
C) Light and dry
D) Light and damp
Answer:
A) Dark and damp

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 8 Impact of Technology on Livelihoods on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Impact of Technology on Livelihoods with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There was a tremendous change in the method of production during the ………….. centuries.
A) 18th, 19th
B) 15th, 16th
C) 11th, 12th
D) 8th, 9th
Answer:
A) 18th, 19th

Question 2.
When a new machine or method of production is created for the first time, it is called a/an ……………….
A) discovery
B) invention
C) opening
D) beginning
Answer:
B) invention

Question 3.
In India, when …………… were first introduced, people thought that they would lose their jobs.
A) machines
B) engines
C) cranes
D) computers
Answer:
D) computers

Question 4.
………….. goods were produced mostly for self and some for the market.
A) Industrial
B) Agricultural
C) Mining
D) Electrical
Answer:
B) Agricultural

Question 5.
……………. run on electricity or diesel were used to draw water.
A) Machines
B) Generators
C) Pump sets
D) Buckets
Answer:
C) Pump sets

Question 6.
After independence, the government began building ………………
A) temples
B) palaces
C) farmhouses
D) dams
Answer:
D) dams

Question 7.
………….. began to be used for transportation and many agricultural operations.
A) Rickshaws
B) Tractors
C) Trucks
D) Cars
Answer:
B) Tractors

Question 8.
Use of agricultural machinery made the agricultural workers to work on ………….. basis.
A) monthly
B) annual
C) fort-night
D) daily
Answer:
D) daily

Question 9.
Creation of a new machine or production procedure for the first time.
A) knowing
B) invention
C) finding
D) all the above
Answer:
B) invention

Question 10.
This is used instead of Rubber
A) Fibre
B) Plastic
C) German Silver
D) Silver
Answer:
B) Plastic

Question 11.
This is introduced by Henry Ford to speed up the manufacturing of cars in America.
A) Assembly
B) Assembly express
C) Assembly line
D) Third assembly
Answer:
C) Assembly line

Question 12.
Agricutural system at the time of independence is
A) extensive
B) podu agriculture
C) intensive
D) traditional agriculture
Answer:
D) traditional agriculture

Question 13.
The change in agriculture after independence
A) improvement in irrigation facilities
B) encouraging the usage of Borewells
C) using motor pumps that are run by electricity or diesel
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 14.
Combined Harvestor means
A) It harvests the crop
B) it threshes the crop
C) It cleans the grain from chaff
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
Use of CH saves the crop from the vagaries of weather in the coastal states.
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
According to a 2003 study of CH its charge is about Rs. ……………….. per day.
A) 1000 – 1200
B) 1100 – 1400
C) 1300 – 1500
D) 1400 – 1600
Answer:
B) 1100 – 1400

Question 17.
CH harvests paddy fields of about one acre in ………….. hour.
A) one
B) 1/2 an
C) 3/4 th
D) 1/4 th
Answer:
A) one

Question 18.
The number of workers (in crores) in different sections of the textile industry.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer:
B) 10

Question 19.
From this year, there is an increase in the share of textile production through mills.
A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1777
D) 1980
Answer:
D) 1980

Question 20.
The number of employees in Powerlooms.
A) 50 lakh
B) 60 lakh
C) 70 lakh
D) 80 lakh
Answer:
B) 60 lakh

Question 21.
The number of working handlooms in India in 1988 in lakhs.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 33
D) 35
Answer:
C) 33

Question 22.
The number of working handlooms in India in 2009-10 in lakhs.
A) 24
B) 26
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
A) 24

Question 23.
The amount of cloth produced per worker in power looms is about times higher than in handlooms because of the use of mechanised technology.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6

Question 24.
There were only land phones in India up to
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1990

Question 25.
All over India, mobile phones have grown from 50 lakhs subscribers in 2001 to over ……………. crores subscribers by May 2012.
A) 9.9
B) 92.9
C) 95.9
D) 98.4
Answer:
B) 92.9

Question 26.
The mobile connections are …………….. times more than landlines.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
A) 20

Question 27.
Mobile phones were introduced in
A) 1990
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Answer:
B) 1995

Question 28.
Between these years, persons receiving the call and persons making the call were required to pay
A) 1995 – 2002
B) 1996 – 2003
C) 2002 – 2007
D) 2007 – 2009
Answer:
A) 1995 – 2002

Question 29.
In 1994, if somebody wished to talk on a landline phone for 3 mts to a person 500 kms away, one had to spend Rs. …………
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
C) 28

Question 30.
The mobile handsets produced in India are now exporting to more than …………. countries around the world.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 31.
Think of all the complicated machinery and technology used nowadays – in space explorations, in factories, in transport, and so on.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Machinery and technology are complicated.
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Even though they are complicated, they lead the world to development.

Question 32.
Combined Harvester (CH) is one of the important machines used for paddy harvest. It harvests the crop, threshes and cleans the grain from the chaff.
Pick the correct comment.
A) CH is an important machine but not works well.
B) CH is used in all harvests.
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) CH affects the rural opportunities of labour.

Question 33.
Whenever you talk on your mobile phone, switch on the TV or work on your computer, you are using the
A) latest technology
B) very latest technology
C) old traditional technology
D) all the above
Answer:
B) very latest technology

Question 34.
Suppose there are 250 agricultural labourers in a village which has 1000 acres of paddy, if a Combined Harvester is used, it will complete the work in 55 days working 18 hours every day. But each one of the 250 workers will lose days of employment.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 35.
A major difference between a Powerloom Unit and a Mill producing cloth is the scale of operation.
Which one has a large scale of operation?
A) Powerloom unit
B) Mill
C) Both A and B
D) Don’t know
Answer:
B) Mill

Question 36.
In the 1980s there are only land phones. But now we have cell phones. This is a …………….. change.
A) Structural
B) Technological
C) Social
D) Traditional
Answer:
B) Technological

Question 37.
The reason for an increase in agricultural products
A) latest technology in agriculture
B) using agricultural machines
C) improvement of irrigational facilities
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 38.
‘Cell phone / Mobile is an important device in our life.’
A) But it kills our leisure.
B) But it spoils our work.
C) But it disturbs the relations in the society.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
Henry Ford of ………………. started the Assembly Line method of production to produce more cars quickly.
A) Canada
B) Britain
C) the U.S.A.
D) China
Answer:
C) the U.S.A.

Question 40.
Plastic is used instead of
A) rubber
B) copper
C) gold
D) platinum
Answer:
A) rubber

Question 41.
An example of the latest technology
A) Space research
B) Industries
C) Transport
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 42.
In the 19th century these opposed power looms in England.
A) labour
B) peasants
C) craft persons
D) all the above
Answer:
C) craft persons

Question 43.
This creates more employment in India after agriculture.
A) textile industry
B) jute industry
C) tea industry
D) sugar industry
Answer:
A) textile industry

Question 44.
The introduced power looms in India.
A) British
B) French
C) Dutch
D) Portuguese
Answer:
A) British

Question 45.
High quality of clothes are produced by
A) Handlooms
B) Mills
C) Artists
D) Hand skill
Answer:
B) Mills

Question 46.
The main problem faced by the workers in power looms
A) Food insecurity, malnutrition
B) Anaemia, T.B.
C) Asthma, gynaecological illness among women
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
This influences the service sector
A) technological knowledge changes
B) economic progress
C) industries
D) none
Answer:
A) technological knowledge changes

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Money and Banking on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Money and Banking with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In ……………… district children exchange toys made from bamboo in exchange for rice.
A) Karimnagar
B) Warangal
C) Hyderabad
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
D) Srikakulam

Question 2.
If we use ……………., there will be no problem in exchanging commodities.
A) materials
B) money
C) metals
D) grains
Answer:
B) money

Question 3.
‘Pana’ was the standard currency in the …………… period.
A) Mauryan
B) Sindhu
C) Mughal
D) Aryan
Answer:
A) Mauryan

Question 4.
Hundis means ………….
A) coins
B) punched coins
C) paper money
D) gold coins
Answer:
C) paper money

Question 5.
Jagatseths of ………….. were one of the early bankers in India.
A) Gujarath
B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bengal
Answer:
D) Bengal

Question 6.
Bank means
A) Capital organisation
B) Commercial organisation
C) Savings organisation
D) Loan organisation
Answer:
B) Commercial organisation

Question 7.
Money is ………………….. in bank.
A) dangerous
B) safe
C) expensive
D) useless
Answer:
B) safe

Question 8.
Nowadays are widely used for making payments and receiving money.
A) hundis
B) drafts
C) cheques
D) bonds
Answer:
C) cheques

Question 9.
Current account is mostly used by
A) businessmen
B) employees
C) teachers
D) farmers
Answer:
A) businessmen

Question 10.
A fixed deposit is also called
A) credit card
B) term deposit
C) small savings
D) debit card
Answer:
B) term deposit

Question 11.
Exchanging of one good with another good.
A) Barter system
B) Good instead
C) Good purchase
D) None
Answer:
A) Barter system

Question 12.
The deposit has more rate of interest
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 13.
………….. works as a consuming medium.
A) Good
B) Cash
C) Bank
D) None
Answer:
B) Cash

Question 14.
…………….. is treated as wealth in very olden days.
A) Grains
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) Water
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 15.
The golden coin in the Roman period
A) Besant
B) Tanka
C) Dham
D) Punch
Answer:
A) Besant

Question 16.
The silver coin in the Mauryan period
A) Besant
B) Pana
C) karsha
D) Satamana
Answer:
B) Pana

Question 17.
These were developed due to the branches of goldsmiths.
A) Paper money
B) Hundis
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
One cannot withdraw amount in a given period.
A) Current deposit
B) Fixed deposit
C) Commercial deposit
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Fixed deposit

Question 19.
Online banking services can be gotten through these
A) Debit Card
B) Credit Card
C) Net Banking, Phone banking
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
In 1606 in Amsterdam, there were …………. types of silver and gold coins recognised by the government that could accepted for exchange.
A) 840
B) 846
C) 850
D) 900
Answer:
B) 846

Question 21.
……………. maintained commercial dealing
A) Banking
B) Commerce
C) Loan
D) Saving
Answer:
A) Banking

Question 22.
How many times we can withdraw cash from ATM maximum in a month?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 23.
The norms for getting loans from banks to SHGs
A) no need of guarantee
B) assets should be shown as guarantee
C) the wealthy persons should act as guarantors
D) None
Answer:
A) no need of guarantee

Question 24.
These are extensively used to withdraw and pay money at present
A) Drafts
B) Cheques
C) Debentures
D) Hundis
Answer:
B) Cheques

Question 25.
The age limit to open a savings account is ……………… years.
A) 7
B) 10
C) 15
D) 18
Answer:
B) 10

Question 26.
The account for daily transactions
A) Savings account
B) Current account
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Current account

Question 27.
The special feature of current account
A) countless withdrawals
B) Countless deposits
C) Bank pays no interest
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
ATM means
A) Automatic Teller Machine
B) Automated Teller Machine
C) Automatic Telling Machines
D) Automated Tellers Matchings
Answer:
B) Automated Teller Machine

Question 29.
Money changed its form metal to paper—
Pick the right comment.
A) Metal money has more value.
B) Paper money has more value.
C) Plastic money has more value.
D) Material has no value, only money has value.
Answer:
D) Material has no value, only money has value.

Question 30.
A Fixed Deposit or a Term Deposit cannot be withdrawn from the bank for a fixed period of time. It could be one year, two, five or seven years. The rate of interest is higher on a fixed deposit.
Pick the right comment.
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.
B) Seven years deposit has less interest.
C) Term deposit is totally different from fixed deposit.
D) No interest will be credited if it is drawn early.
Answer:
A) As the deposit has a guarantee fi; time, the rate of interest is high.

Question 31.
The system of exchanging goods directly against each other without the use of money is called the Barter system.
Which one of the following comes under Barter system of exchange?
A) A salt vendor sells his salt for grains.
B) A washerman washes clothes for grains.
C) Ramu and Ravi exchanged their clothes.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
A savings/fixed/recurring bank deposit account can be opened by a minor of any age through his/her natural or legally appointed guardian.
Minor means
A) A child aged 10 years
B) A child aged 15 years
C) A child aged 17 years
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
These groups help the women in present society
A) DWCRA
B) Rythu Clubs
C) SMC
D) None
Answer:
A) DWCRA

Question 34.
Amsterdam was a major trading centre in
A) Europe
B) Eurasia
C) Russia
D) the U.S.A.
Answer:
A) Europe

Question 35.
The problems in the Barter System
A) non sinking wishes
B) differences in the values of goods
C) diving some goods is not possible
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 36.
The early bankers in India
A) Bengal – Jagatseths
B) Patna – Shahs
C) Surat – Arunji Nathji, Madras – Chettiars
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 37.
……………… city was main trade centre in Europe in 1606.
A) Paris
B) Moscow
C) Amsterdam
D) Madrid
Answer:
C) Amsterdam

Question 38.
Banks give loans to these
A) Merchants
B) Industrialists
C) Students, farmers, crafts men
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
SHG means
A) Self Help Group
B) Self Heritage Group
C) Self Historical Groupism
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Self Help Group

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Sense Organs on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 6th Lesson Sense Organs with Answers

Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Conditions, substances etc in nature that trigger the process of sensing them by our body are called
A) stimulants
B) activation
C) catalysts
D) enzymes
Answer:
A) stimulants

Question 2.
Stimuli from the environment around are received by our body through
A) eye, ear
B) nose, tongue
C) skin
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 3.
This is the centre for all sensitive activities.
A) spinal cord
B) brain
C) heart
D) eyes
Answer:
B) brain

Question 4.
Nerves that bring nerve signals from the sense organs are called
A) motor nerves
B) spinal nerves
C) sensory nerves
D) all
Answer:
C) sensory nerves

Question 5.
A thin layer that covers the front portion of the eye
A) sclera
B) choroid layer
C) lens
D) conjunctiva
Answer:
D) conjunctiva

Question 6.
How much portion of eye ball is visible to us ?
A) 1/4th
B) 1/6th
C) 1/5th
D) 1/7th
Answer:
B) 1/6th

Question 7.
The layer of the eye that contains lot of blood vessels
A) conjunctiva
B) sclera
C) choroid layer
D) retina
Answer:
C) choroid layer

Question 8.
Jelly like fluid is present in this part of the eyeball.
A) aqueous chamber
B) vitreous chamber
C) choroid layer
D) sclera
Answer:
B) vitreous chamber

Question 9.
Eye gathers light through a lens and image is formed on
A) sclera
B) iris
C) pupil
D) retina
Answer:
D) retina

Question 10.
Rods of retina contains a pigment called
A) rhodopsin
B) idopsin
C) photopsin
D) ketopsin
Answer:
A) rhodopsin

Question 11.
Cones help in
A) seeing in the dark
B) cannot make distinction of colour
C) identifying the colours
D) produces tears
Answer:
C) identifying the colours

Question 12.
The part of the retina that has no photoreceptors
A) blind spot
B) yellow spot
C) green spot
D) black spot
Answer:
A) blind spot

Question 13.
The glands present in eye are
A) lachrymal glands
B) ceruminous glands
C) sebaceous glands
D) mucous glands
Answer:
A) lachrymal glands

Question 14.
The adjustable part in the eye is
A) eyelid
B) biconvex lens
C) retina
D) cornea
Answer:
B) biconvex lens

Question 15.
Pinna is
A) external ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) all
Answer:
A) external ear

Question 16.
The chain of bones present in the middle ear
A) malleus
B) incus
C) stapes
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 17.
The ear canal is also called
A) tympanum
B) auditory meatus
C) ear drum
D) middle ear
Answer:
B) auditory meatus

Question 18.
Middle ear opens into the inner ear through
A) spherical window
B) oval window
C) round window
D) elliptical window
Answer:
C) round window

Question 19.
How many taste buds are present on tongue ?
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10,000
D) 5,000
Answer:
C) 10,000

Question 20.
Olfactory receptors are present in
A) skin
B) eye
C) ear
D) nose
Answer:
D) nose

Question 21.
Metallic taste of food is present in
A) natural foods
B) artificial foods
C) raw foods
D) cooked foods
Answer:
B) artificial foods

Question 22.
Taste buds are present in this structures on tongue
A) fungi form papillae
B) foliate papillae
C) fungi form and foliate papillae
D) filiform papillae
Answer:
C) fungi form and foliate papillae

Question 23.
Cutaneous receptors are present in
A) ear
B) tongue
C) nose
D) skin
Answer:
D) skin

Question 24.
Dermis layer of skin contains
A) sweat glands
B) sebaceous glands, blood vessels
C) hair follicles, fats
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 25.
Receptors present in skin for touch
A) tactile receptors
B) pacinial corpuscles
C) nocireceptors
D) all
Answer:
A) tactile receptors

Question 26.
Pellagra is the disease of skin due to the deficiency of
A) proteins
B) vitamins
C) hormones
D) enzymes
Answer:
B) vitamins

Question 27.
Melanin is the pigment present in
A) ear
B) tongue
C) nose
D) skin
Answer:
D) skin

Question 28.
Identify the disease of skin.
B) xeropthalmic
C) leucoderma
D) glaucoma
Answer:
C) leucoderma

Question 29.
The term ‘gustation’ refers to what sense ?
A) Taste
B) Smell
C) Hear
D) Touch
Answer:
A) Taste

Question 30.
The aperture controlling the amount of light entering the eye is called
A) Lens
B) Cornea
C) Pupil
D) Retina
Answer:
C) Pupil

Question 31.
The term “Olfaction” explicitly refers to which sense ?
A) Hear
B) Smell
C) Touch
D) Sight
Answer:
B) Smell

Question 32.
The Fovea is the part of retina that contain photoreceptors called
A )Rods
B) Cones
C) Nerves
D) Blood vessels
Answer:
B) Cones

Question 33.
What structure provides the boundary between the outer and middle ear ?
A) Cochlia
B) Pinna
C) Tympanum
D) Ear drum
Answer:
C) Tympanum

Question 34.
The small bony chamber of the ear which coils about two and half turns is known as
A) Tympanum
B) Cochlia
C) Pinna
D) None
Answer:
B) Cochlia

Question 35.
Sensitive pigment layer of the eye is
A) Cornea
B) Retina
C) Iris
D) Sclerotic
Answer:
B) Retina

Question 36.
Colour vision is due to ……………….
A) cone cells
B) acute in dim light
C) different wavelengths of coloured light stimulating the rods
D) both A and B
Answer:
A) cone cells

Question 37.
Cones in the eye are sensitive to the following colours …………………..
A.) Red, green, amber
B) Red, violet, and yellow
C) Blue, red and yellow
D) Red, green, blue
Answer:
C) Blue, red and yellow

Question 38.
Which of the following provides an attachment point for extrinsic muscles of the eye ball ?
A) Iris
B) Retina
C) Sclera
D) Choroid coat
Answer:
A) Iris

Question 39.
The chief function of the middle ear is-
A) Amplify sound waves
B) Help to move the external pinna
C) Secrete waxy substance which repel insects
D) Keep the basilar membrane separated
Answer:
D) Keep the basilar membrane separated

Question 40.
Retina is most sensitive at ………………
A) Periphery
B) Macula
C) Fovea
D) Optic disc
Answer:
C) Fovea

Question 41.
The photosensitive substance in the eyes of mammals
A) Retinol
B) Rhodopsin
C) Sclerotin
D) Melanin
Answer:
B) Rhodopsin

Question 42.
The other name for eardrum is known as
A) Pinna
B) Auditory canal
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Oval window
Answer:
C) Tympanic membrane

Question 43.
Which of these bones is not found in the middle ear ?
A) Malleus
B) Incus
C) Stapes
D) Ulmar
Answer:
D) Ulmar

Question 44.
Melanin protects us from harmful affects of –
A) bacteria
B) virus
C) allergy
D) light
Answer:
D) light

Question 45.
The largest sense organ of our body
A) Eyes
B) Nose
C) Skin
D) Tongue
Answer:
C) Skin

Question 46.
This is not an eye disease.
A) Pellagra
B) Cataract
C) Glacoma
D) Astigmatism
Answer:
A) Pellagra

Question 47.
This is not a skin disease.
A) Leucoderma
B) Pellagra
C) Ringworm
D) Rickets
Answer:
D) Rickets

Question 48.
The sense organ that regulates the body temperature
A) Nose
B) Skin
C) Ear
D) Eye
Answer:
B) Skin

Question 49.
Vastibular apparatus maintains body is
A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Equilibrium
D) None
Answer:
C) Equilibrium

Question 50.
‘Leprosy’ is related to this organ.
A) Ears
B) Eyes
C) Nose
D) Skin
Answer:
D) Skin

Question 51.
Sebacious glands produce ………………
A) Sweat
B) Sebum
C) Tears
D) Wax
Answer:
B) Sebum

Question 52.
Choroid layer provides the following to the eye ……………….
A) strength
B) colour
C) protection
D) none
Answer:
B) colour

Question 53.
The most important sense organ.
A) Eye
B) skin
C) Ear
D) Tongue
Answer:
A) Eye

Question 54.
This is very harmful to our eyes.
A) Bright light
B) Smoke
C) UV light
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 55.
Middle ear’s main function is
A) Wax production
B) Amplifying the sounds
C) Receiving sound waves
D) A and C
Answer:
B) Amplifying the sounds

Question 56.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Pinna – External
2) Tympanum – Ceruminous gland
3) Wax producing – Ear drum

A) 1 only
B) 3 only
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3
Answer:
C) 2, 3

Question 57.
Read the following statements carefully.
a) The cones are concentrated in fovea, which gives us the sharpest vision.
b) Cornea is the clean window in front of Iris.
A) a correct, b incorrect
B) b correct, a incorrect
C) both a, b incorrect
D) a, b are correct
Answer:
D) a, b are correct

Question 58.
Identify the mismatched pair.
1) Leucoderma – Skin
2) Cataract – Nose
3) Deafness – Ear
A) 1,3
B) 2, 3
C) 1 only
D) 2 only
Answer:
D) 2 only

Question 59.
Read the following statements.
a) Blind spot is the area, where the optic nerves leave the eye
b) Ceruminous glands produce oil in the ear.
A) Both a, b correct
B) Both a, b incorrect
C) a correct, b incorrect
D) b correct, a incorrect
Answer:
C) a correct, b incorrect

Question 60.
Identify the mismatched pair.
1) Smell – Olfactory neui.
2) Tears – Lachrymal giai
3) Wax – Ceruminous gL
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2 only
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 61.
Study the table and answer the following question.
This disease is related to the curvature of retina.
A) Astigmatism
B) Cataract
C) Central retinal vein occlusion
D) Colour blindness

Answer:
A) Astigmatism

Question 62.
Study the table and answer the following question. In this disease images are formed
behind the retina.
A) Xeropthalmia
B) Hypermetropia
C) Glaucoma
D) Kerolitis
Answer:
B) Hypermetropia

Question 63.
Identify this structure.

A) Skin
B) Eye
C) Tongue
D) Ear
Answer:
C) Tongue

Question 64.
The given picture depicts the following statements.

A) It is an illusion where the stimulus pattern is interpreted incorrectly by the mind.
B) It is dispersion where the stimulus pattern is interpreted incorrectly by the mind.
C) It is right interpretation of the stimulus pattern by mind due to diffusion.
D) It is a reflection where there is an accuracy between what we see and the external reality.
Answer:
A) It is an illusion where the stimulus pattern is interpreted incorrectly by the mind.

Question 65.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Fovea
2) Hotline
3) Ear canal
c) Yellow spot

List – B
a) Tongue
b) Auditory meatus
c) Yellow spot
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 66.
Pickout the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1. Cutaneous Receptors
2) Nociceptors
3) Pacinian corpuscles

List – B
a) The sense of touch Nociceptors
b) Pressure Pacinian corpuscles
c) Temperature
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b

II. Match the following :
1.

Answer:
1) Fovia – D) Yellow spot
2) Hotline – C) Tongue
3) Ear canal – F) Auditory meatus
4) Olfactory receptors – B) Nose
5) Cutaneous receptors – A) Skin

2.

Answer:
1) Pinna – D) External ear
2) Tympanum – F) Ear drum
3) Umami – B) Savory flavor
4) Iris – A) Identification
5) Melanin – C) Colour of the skin
6) Wax producing – E) Ceruminous gland

3.

Answer:
1) Myopia – E) Near sightedness
2) Hypermetropia – G) Far sightedness
3) Leucoderma – D) Skin
4) Leprosy – A) Bacterial disease
5) Pellagra – B) Deficiency of vitamins

Question 67.
The eye is divided into aqueous chamber and vitreous chamber by
A) Lens
B) Pupil
C) Iris
D) Choroid
Answer:
A) Lens

Question 68.
Equilibrium of the body, pertaining to the posture and balance are maintained by
A) Utri cuius only
B) Utriculus, Sacculus
C) Utriculus, Sacculus and Semilunar canals
D) Utriculus, Sacculus, Semicircular canals and cochlea
Answer:
C) Utriculus, Sacculus and Semilunar canals

Question 69.
Biologically, the sense of smell begins with
A) Visual perception
B) Thinking of smell
C) Tasting food
D) Chemical events in nose
Answer:
D) Chemical events in nose

Question 70.
Melanin is responsible for
A) Detection of pressure
B) Formation of nails, hair
C) Skin colour
D) Thermo regulation
Answer:
C) Skin colour

Question 71.
The deficiency of pigment melanin leads to………………
A) Leucoderma
B) Pellagra
C) Ringworm
D) Tanning
Answer:
A) Leucoderma

Question 72.
Which of the following is a function of tears secreted by eyes ?
A) To identify colours
B) To control the amount of light entering the eye
C) To keep the eyes moist
D) They do not have any function
Answer:
C) To keep the eyes moist

Question 73.
A student took plastic funnel and stretched a piece of balloon over its widen part. He put some mustard seeds on it and shouted loud. His purpose is
A) Sound is produced from vibration of vocal cords
B) Sound is a kind of energy that vibrates only the mustard seeds
C) Sound is produced due to vibration of particles
D) We can hear sound as the particles of air are vibrated and waves are formed
Answer:
D) We can hear sound as the particles of air are vibrated and waves are formed

Question 74.
A boy of your street is feeling itchy in his ear. As a biology student you would
A) Tell him to take a matchstick and scrap
B) Put some oil in the ear
C) Put some saline water in the ear
D) Consult an ENT
Answer:
D) Consult an ENT

Question 75.
Match the following :

A) c, a, b
B) a, b, c
C) c, b, a
D) b, a, c
Answer:
C) c, b, a

Question 76.
Name of the smallest bone present in the ear
A) Malleus
B) Stapes
C) Incus
D) Tympanum
Answer:
B) Stapes

Question 77.
What will you do to prevent eye diseases.
A) Clean the eyes 3-4 times
B) Consume Vitamin-A food
C) Don’t squeze the eyes
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 78.
P : Ravi cannot identify some colours.
Q : Cones are absent in the eyes of Ravi
A) P, Q both are true
B) Q is not the correct explanation to P
C) There is no relation between P and Q
D) Q is the correct explanation to P
Answer:
A) P, Q both are true

Question 79.
Your Iris is photographed while issuing AADHAR card. Can you guess the reason for it.
A) Iris patterns are individual specific
B) The colour of the eyes are different to each and everyone.
C) To identify the eye – defects.
D) To save time.
Answer:
A) Iris patterns are individual specific

Question 80.
Identify the correct sequence of bones in the structure of ear.
A) Malleus, Incus and Stapes
B) Stapes, Incus and Malleus
C) Incus, Malleus and Stapes
D) Malleus, Stapes and Incus
Answer:
A) Malleus, Incus and Stapes

Question 81.
P : Sense organs recognise stimuli only.
Q : Brain analyses the stimuli and sends proper responses.
A) P only correct
B) Q only corect
C) Both P, Q correct
D) Both P, Q not correct
Answer:
C) Both P, Q correct

Question 82.
Elder people can’t identify different tastes while consuming food. Can you guess the reason for it.
A) Olfactory receptors lost their efficiency
B) Taste receptors lost their efficiency
C) Closure of nasal cavity
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 83.
If a person consumes high salty food then
A) recognises the taste of salt.
B) he likes the taste of salt.
C) he does not like the taste of salt.
D) he does not identify the taste of low salt food.
Answer:
D) he does not identify the taste of low salt food.

Question 84.
You have collected the information about eye diseases from the doctor. Identify the disease that is related to eye
A) Leucoderma
B) Glaucoma
C) Polio
D) Malaria
Answer:
B) Glaucoma

Question 85.
The taste we identify here is ……………….

A) Bitter
B) Sweet
C) Sour
D) Umami
Answer:
A) Bitter

Question 86.
Anitha labelled nose internal structure as shown below.
Nose – Olfactory receptors – Nasal sep-tum – Epiglottis – Mucus membrane Which of the following is incorrect ?
A) Mucus membrane
B) Epiglottis
C) Olfactory receptors
D) Nasal septum
Answer:
B) Epiglottis

Question 87.
What is the function of the part labelled “P” in the given figure ?

A) Protect the epidermis
B) Sensation of touch
C) Produce Sweat
D) Secretion of sebum
Answer:
D) Secretion of sebum

Question 88.
A student labelled the parts as shown in the picture. Choose the correct match.

1. Fungiform papillae
2. Foliate paplllae
3. Vallate paplllae
A) a- 1, b – 3, c – 2
B) a – 1,b – 2,c – 3
C) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1
D) a – 2,b – 3,c – 1
Answer:
C) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1

Question 89.
Read the following :
Infants have heightened taste sensitiv¬ity that is why babies try to sense ev¬erything by taste.
Choose the correct statement in the following :
a) The supersensitivity however de¬creases with age
b) Many elderly people complain that food has lost its taste.
A) Both a, b are incorrect
B) Both a, b are correct
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
B) Both a, b are correct

Question 90.
The lens divides the inner eyeball as (i) chamber and (ii) chamber :
A) i – aqueous, ii – cochlear
B) i – vitreous, ii – vegtibale
C) i – cochlear, ii – aqueous
D) i – aqueous ii – vitreous
Answer:
D) i – aqueous ii – vitreous

Question 91.
The bones in the middle ear serve to amplify sound wave action from the tympanic membrane and transmit to

A) the semicircular canals
B) the oval window
C) the round window
D) the eustachian tube
Answer:
C) the round window

Question 92.
Situation – (i) : Recognise the taste by just keeping the food on tongue.
Situation – (ii) : Recognise the taste by just pressing the food against palate. Which situation makes you recognise the taste ?
A) Applicable only for solid substances
B) i only
C) ii only
D) i and ii
Answer:
C) ii only

Question 93.
Which cells help to identify the colours in eyes ?
A) Melanocytes
B) Rods, Cones
C) Rods only
D) Cones only
Answer:
D) Cones only

Question 94.
Raju rinsed his mouth with high concentrated salt water. What happens to his tongue?
a) Learns to taste salty things better
b) Able to taste less salty things just after the exposure
c) Hates tasting salty things
d) Fails to take a less salty things just after the exposure
A) d only
B) a only
C) b only
D) c only
Answer:
A) d only

Question 95.
If mucus membrane is lost in the nasal cavity, what would be the consequences ?
a) Nasal cavity can’t hold dust-germs
b) Nasal cavity can’t remove dust
c) Nasal cavity fail to allow air
d) Nasal cavity allow more air
A) d only
B) a, b only
C) a only
D) a, c only
Answer:
B) a, b only

Question 96.
Select the suitable questions in the following to conduct a quiz on eye diseases in your school.
a) What is meant by xeropthalmia ?
b) What are the differences between myopia and Hypermetropia ?
c) Name the vitamin which helps the eye
d) Why some people have eye defects by birth ?
e) Is colour-blindness hereditary dis-ease?
A) Only a, d, e correct
B) Only a, b, c correct
C) Only c, d, e correct
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Minerals and Mining on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Minerals and Mining with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Crude petroleum is a
A) mineral oil
B) metal
C) gas
D) solid
Answer:
A) mineral oil

Question 2.
Kolar Gold Fields are in
A) Sri Lanka
B) India
C) Indonesia
D) Bhutan
Answer:
B) India

Question 3.
Kothagudem is in ………………. valley
A) Krishna
B) Ganga
C) Narmada
D) Godavari
Answer:
D) Godavari

Question 4.
All mineral wealth of a state is considered the property of the
A) government
B) company
C) a group of people
D) group of employees
Answer:
A) government

Question 5.
In …………… the government took over all mines.
A) 1980s
B) 1970s
C) 1950s
D) 1920s
Answer:
B) 1970s

Question 6.
In some coal mines the coal transported through
A) conveyor belt
B) trains
C) buses
D) lorries
Answer:
A) conveyor belt

Question 7.
Upper layer barytes are in ……………… colour.
A) red
B) yellow
C) grey
D) brown
Answer:
C) grey

Question 8.
Flooring stones are found in
A) Ranga Reddy
B) Kadapa
C) Warangal
D) Khammam
Answer:
B) Kadapa

Question 9.
The thing that we get from the earth is
A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Mineral
D) Fuel
Answer:
C) Mineral

Question 10.
Resources are classified as
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 11.
Which kind of mineral is Granite stone?
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Non-renewable

Question 12.
An example for non-renewable mineral
A) Coal
B) Crude oil
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
The ore that is used extensively in Electrical & Electronical industries
A) Lime stone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Mica (Abhrakan)
Answer:
D) Mica (Abhrakan)

Question 14.
Limestone is used extensively in these industries
A) Cement
B) Carbide
C) Iron and steel, Soda ash
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
………….. is used for cutting and polish industries.
A) Limestone
B) Granite
C) Manganese
D) Barytes
Answer:
B) Granite

Question 16.
Barium is extracted from this mineral
A) Manganese
B) Barytes
C) Feldspar
D) Granite
Answer:
B) Barytes

Question 17.
…………. is used as raw material to make glass, ceramic goods.
A) Granite
B) Manganese
C) Barytes
D) Feldspar
Answer:
D) Feldspar

Question 18.
The marble stone is exported to these countries.
A) China
B) South-East Asia
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
Open cast mining means
A) blasting and removing granite etc.
B) arranging and blasting bombs at a depth
C) making a large pit and keep extracting the minerals
D) all the above
Answer:
A) blasting and removing granite etc.

Question 20.
To extract oil and natural gas this is to be done into the sea bed.
A) Drilling
B) Crushing
C) Blasting
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Drilling

Question 21.
Mining provides livelihood for nearly ………….. people in India.
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs
D) 20 lakhs
Answer:
B) 10 lakhs

Question 22.
Minerals are the property of
A) individuals
B) some people
C) all the people
D) not a government
Answer:
C) all the people

Question 23.
All the mines are nationalised in the year.
A) 1960
B) 1965
C) 1970
D) 1975
Answer:
C) 1970

Question 24.
A new National Mineral Policy was announced in the year.
A) 1990
B) 1991
C) 1992
D) 1993
Answer:
D) 1993

Question 25.
The SCCL was established by the British in the year.
A) 1880
B) 1886
C) 1890
D) 1892
Answer:
B) 1886

Question 26.
In this year the Nizam of Hyderabad purchased the SCCL
A) 1900
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 27.
We should reach deep for about feet to extract coal.
A) 100 – 150
B) 150 – 250
C) 200 – 300
D) 350 – 450
Answer:
C) 200 – 300

Question 28.
Holes are drilled with air compressor to plant the explosive rods.
A) Oxygen
B) Pneumatic
C) Synthetic
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Pneumatic

Question 29.
………….. packets were inserted to keep them in place.
A) Oxygen
B) Thyroxin
C) Resin
D) Air bubbles
Answer:
C) Resin

Question 30.
The poal reserves come to an end in the areas of open cast mining in these years.
A) 10 – 15
B) 15 – 20
C) 20 – 25
D) 25 – 30
Answer:
A) 10 – 15

Question 31.
When compared to open cast mining, underground mining
A) very costly
B) very less cost
C) no difference in the two
D) all of the above
Answer:
A) very costly

Question 32.
Environmentalists differentiate between two kinds of resources – renewable and non-renewable.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Renewable resources cannot be regenerated.
B) Non-renewable resources can be generated.
C) Wood is a renewable resource.
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Wood is a renewable resource.

Question 33.
Singareni Colleries provides quarters with roads, drinking water, utilization water. It gives electricity at nominal charges. It establishes schools and hospitals.
Pick the correct comment.
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.
B) SCCL employees are very poor.
C) SCCL produces electricity.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) SCCL provides welfare facilities to its employees.

Question 34.
Since it is not possible to regenerate these resources they are called non¬renewable or finite resources.
Give an example for finite resource.
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Gas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
“Hollage” Means

A) Lift
B) Hall
C) Mine
D) Mike
Answer:
A) Lift

Question 36.
This kind of employees are more in government offices at present.
A) Regular
B) Contract
C) Labour
D) None
Answer:
A) Regular

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 37.
Which district has more mineral resources?
A) Prakasam
B) Nellore
C) Anantapur
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Prakasam

Question 38.
Mica is available in
A) Nellore
B) Guntur
C) Godavari
D) Srikakulam
Answer:
A) Nellore

Question 39.
Guntur district is famous for
A) Barytes
B) Limestone
C) Granite
D) Coal
Answer:
B) Limestone

Question 40.
Granite is available in
A) Chittoor
B) Visakhapatnam
C) East Godavari
D) None
Answer:
A) Chittoor

Question 41.
An example for non-renewable resource
A) Solar energy
B) Sea water
C) Coal
D) Air
Answer:
C) Coal

Question 42.
SCCL is operating 15 open cast and 35 underground mines in ……………. districts of Telangana.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 43.
The one and only gold mine in India
A) Kolar
B) Polar
C) Ramayyapet
D) Singareni
Answer:
A) Kolar

Question 44.
The Iron ore reserves in our state
A) Hematite
B) Magnatite
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 45.
The state which has vast deposits of coal in South India
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Telangana

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Diversity in Living Organism on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 5th Lesson Diversity in Living Organism with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Plants having two seed leaves are called
A) Dicotyledons
B) Monocotyledons
C) Protista
D) Monera
Answer:
A) Dicotyledons

Question 2.
The presence of differences between organism of same species is
A) Classification
B) Diversity
C) Variation
D) Lineage
Answer:
C) Variation

Question 3.
‘Origin of species” was written by
A) Lamarck
B) Charles Darwin
C) Linneaus
D) Whittaker
Answer:
B) Charles Darwin

Question 4.
It includes all organisms that are similar enough to interbreed
A) Genera
B) Family
C) Species
D) Class
Answer:
C) Species

Question 5.
Charak and Sushrut has classified plants on the basis of
A) Economic importance
B) Medical importance
C) Yield of Timber
D) Flower structure
Answer:
B) Medical importance

Question 6.
‘Vrikshayurveda’ was written by
A) Charaka
B) Sushruta
C) Parasara
D) Varahamihira
Answer:
C) Parasara

Question 7.
Who proposed a five kingdom system in 1969 ?
A) Haeckel
B) Copeland
C) Whittaker
D) Cavalier-Smith
C) Whittaker

Question 8.
Whittaker classification is based on
A) Whether the organisms are prokaryotes or eukaryotes
B) Mode of acquiring food by organisms
C) Whether the organisms are unicellular or multicellular
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 9.
Organisms that tolerate very high salt concentration are
A) Thermophils
B) Halophiles
C) Haemophils
D) Nanophiles
Answer:
B) Halophiles

Question 10.
The domain evolved from an ancestor cell called an Last Universal Common Ancestor is
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Eukarya
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 11.
The cell walls of these contain a fat like chemical peptidoglycon.
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Eukarya
D) All
Answer:
B) Bacteria

Question 12.
Unicellular, Prokaryotes are included under
A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
Answer:
A) Monera

Question 13.
Ancient bacteria are included in this group of Monera.
A) Eubacteria
B) Cyanobacteria
C) Archaebacteria
D) All
Answer:
C) Archaebacteria

Question 14.
Streptococcus, Rhizobium, e.coli are examples for
A) Archaebacteria
B) Eubacteria
C) Cyanobacteria
D) Eukarya
Answer:
B) Eubacteria

Question 15.
Unicellular or multicellular eukaryotes are included in
A) Protista
B) Fungi
C) Monera
D) Porifera
Answer:
A) Protista

Question 16.
These reproduce by spores.
A) Fungi
B) Monera
C) Protista
D) Gymnosperms
Answer:
A) Fungi

Question 17.
The level of classification among plants depend on
A) Whether the plant body has well differentiated distinct parts
B) Whether the plant body has vascular tissue
C) Ability to bear seeds and whether the seeds are enclosed within fruits
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 18.
Non flowering plants are
A) Cryptogams
B) Phanerogams
C) Gymnosperms
D) Angiosperms
Answer:
A) Cryptogams

Question 19.
Plants do not have seeds enclosed within are
A) Gymnosperms
B) Angiosperms
C) Cryptogams
D) Phanerogams
Answer:
A) Gymnosperms

Question 20.
Porifera organisms are also called as
A) Sponges
B) Whales
C) Protochordates
D) Annelids
Answer:
A) Sponges

Question 21.
Example for sponges
A) Cuplectelea
B) Sycon
C) Spongilla
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 22.
Coral reefs belong to this Phylum
A) Porifera
B) Monera
C) Coelenterata
D) Annelida
Answer:
C) Coelenterata

Question 23.
The body of these animals are bilaterally, symmetrical, triploblastic and segmented
A) Nematoda
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Annelida
D) Coelenterata
Answer:
C) Annelida

Question 24.
Reproductive structure are flowers is
A) Thallophyta
B) Bryophyta
C) Gymnosperm
D) Angiosperms
Answer:
C) Gymnosperm

Question 25.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes disease known as
A) Malaria
B) Cholera
C) Filaria
D) Dengue
Answer:
D) Dengue

Question 26.
The largest group of Animals belongs to this Phylum.
A) Annelida
B) Arthropoda
C) Echinodermata
D) Molluscs
Answer:
C) Echinodermata

Question 27.
The skeleton of Echinoderms is made of
A) Calcium carbonate
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Sodium silicate
D) Magnesium carbonate
Answer:
B) Sodium carbonate

Question 28.
Five fold Radial symmetry with rays of arms in five are seen in
A) Echinodermata
B) Arthropoda
C) Annelida
D) Molluscs
Answer:
A) Echinodermata

Question 29.
The first organisms that possess back bone
A) Protochordata
B) Fishes
C) Aves
D) Amphibians
Answer:
A) Protochordata

Question 30.
Vertebrates are group into these many classes
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
B) 4

Question 31.
Identify the cold blooded animals.
A) Fishes
B) Mammals
C) Aves
D) Marsupials
Answer:
C) Aves

Question 32.
Males carry babies as mothers in
A) Dolphin
B) Whale
C) Hippocampus
D) Man
Answer:
A) Dolphin

Question 33.
The only flying mammal is
A) Bat
B) Crow
C) Peacock
D) Hen
Answer:
C) Peacock

Question 34.
Human beings are included in order
A) Marsupials
B) Primates
C) Rodents
D) Logomorpha
Answer:
A) Marsupials

Question 35.
Duck billed platypus and Echidna are
A) Coelenterals
B) Rodents
C) Marsupials
D) Egg laying mammals
Answer:
B) Rodents

Question 36.
Homo Sapiens is the scientific name of
A) Man
B) Dog
C) Cat
D) Mango
Answer:
D) Mango

Question 37.
Insects are included under
A) Arthropods
B) Aves
C) Annelids
D) Coelenterates
Answer:
A) Arthropods

Question 38.
Peals are produced from
A) Oysters
B) Sea cucumbers
C) Snails
D) Sea horse
Answer:
A) Oysters

Question 39.
Marine living and spine skinned animals are
A) Echinodermata
B) Annelida
C) Coelenterates
D) Nematodes
Answer:
A) Echinodermata

Question 40.
Naked seeds are present in
A) Mango
B) Apple
C) Banana
D) Pinus
Answer:
A) Mango

Question 41.
The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by
A) Haeckel
B) Linneaus
C) Whittaker
D) Wooes
Answer:
D) Wooes

Question 42.
Locomotory organs in Echinodermata are
A) Wings
B) Fins
C) Pseudopodia
D) Tube feet
Answer:
B) Fins

Question 43.
Mammals are
A) Viviparous
B) Skin covered with hair
C) Vertebral column is present
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
The science of classification is
A) Limnology
B) Taxonomy
C) Diversity
D) Ecology
Answer:
D) Ecology

Question 45.
Sea horses (Hippocampus) are used in medicine of
A) Chinese
B) Indian
C) Italian
D) American
Answer:
B) Indian

Question 46.
Hydra belongs to this phylum.
A) Porifera
B) Coelenterata
C) Molluscs
D) Nematoda
Answer:
A) Porifera

Question 47.
Starfish is an example for
A) Annelid
B) Arthropod
C) Molluscs
D) Echinodermata
Answer:
B) Arthropod

Question 48.
Binomial nomenclature of an organism denotes
A) Genus, Species
B) Species, order
C) Family, Genus
D) Order, class
Answer:
D) Order, class

Question 49.
Friend of the farmer –
A) Cockroach
B) Earthworm
C) Snail
D) Roundworm
Answer:
B) Earthworm

Question 50.
Amphioxus belongs to –
A) Echinodermata
B) Mollusca
C) Protochordata
D) Arthropoda
Answer:
C) Protochordata

Question 51.
Expand L.U.C.A ………………..
A) Last Universal Common Ancestor
B) Last Universal Central Animal
C) Last United Central Ancestor
D) Last Universal Common Animal
Answer:
A) Last Universal Common Ancestor

Question 52.
Mushrooms belongs to this phylum.
A) Algae
B) Bryophyta
C) Fungi
D) Fern
Answer:
C) Fungi

Question 53.
Organisms with holes on their body
A) Protozoans
B) Cnidarians
C) Porifers
D) Echinoderms
Answer:
C) Porifers

Question 54.
Egg laying mammals are –
A) Kangaroo and Bat
B) Echidna and Platypus
C) Rat and Echidna
D) Platypus and Whales
Answer:
B) Echidna and Platypus

Question 55.
Cartilaginous skeleton is seen in
A) Shark
B) Exocetus
C) Frog
D) Tuna
Answer:
A) Shark

Question 56.
The largest group of animals is seen in
A) Porifers
B) Annelida
C) Protochordata
D) Arthropoda
Answer:
D) Arthropoda

Question 57.
Calcium carbonate structures from the skeleton of
A) Echinodermata
B) Mollusca
C) Protochordata
D) Nematoda
Answer:
B) Mollusca

Question 58.
“Seed leaves” are –
A) Perisperm
B) Endosperm
C) Radicle
D) Cotyledons
Answer:
D) Cotyledons

Question 59.
Mucus glands in the skin and three chambered heart are seen in
A) Aves
B) Pisces
C) Reptilia
D) Amphibia
Answer:
D) Amphibia

Question 60.
Locomotion in Amoeba is carried by
A) Flagella
B) Pseudopodia
C) Nucleus
D) Contractile vacuole
Answer:
B) Pseudopodia

Question 61.
The animals which can live both on land and water ……………………….
A) Pisces
B) Reptiles
C) Aves
D) Amphibians
Answer:
D) Amphibians

Question 62.
What is the flightless bird ?
A) Duck
B) Cock
C) Pigeon
D) Ostrich
Answer:
D) Ostrich

Question 63.
The following animal is a cold blooded one
A) Snake
B) Gorria
C) Parrot
D) Tiger
Answer:
A) Snake

Question 64.
Pickout the odd one out.
A) Shark
B) Tortoise
C) Crocodile
D) Dolphin
Answer:
D) Dolphin

Question 65.
Pickout the odd one out.
A) Cockroach
B) Earthworm
C) Sycon
D) Frog
Answer:
D) Frog

Question 66.
Identify the mismatched pairs from the following.
1) Haeckel – Divided organisms into three kingdoms
2) Copeland – Divided into six kingdoms
3) Cavalier – Smith – Divided organisms into four kingdoms
A) 1 only
B) 2, 3
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2
Answer:
D) 1, 2

Question 67.
Identify the mismatched pairs from the following.
1) The origin of species – Charles Darwin
2) Vrikshayurveda – Charaka
3) Systema Naturae – Whittaker
A) 1, 2
B) 1 only
C) 2, 3
D) 3 only
Answer:
C) 2, 3

Question 68.
Read the following statements.
a) Exoskeleton of scales, eggs laying outside water …………….. features of Reptelia
b) Exoskeleton of scales, endoskeleton of bones breathing through gills – features of pisces
A) a correct, b incorrect
B) b correct, a incorrect
C) both a, b incorrect
D) both a, b correct
Answer:
D) both a, b correct

Question 69.

Which of the following is correct tabular form of the above the table?

Answer:

Question 70.
Identify the phylum of the shown organism.

A) Protozoa
B) Cnldaria
C) Arthropoda
D) Porifera
Answer:
D) Porifera

Question 71.
Identify the organism in the picture.

A) Jelly fish
B) Hydra
C) Roundworm
D) Tapeworm
Answer:
B) Hydra

Question 72.
Name the organisms that belongs to the following phylum.

A) Annelida
B) Arthropoda
C) Mollusca
D) Echinodermata
Answer:
B) Arthropoda

Question 73.
Identify the phylum of the organism.

A) Arthropoda
B) Mollusca
C) Echinodermata
D) Protochordata
Answer:
B) Mollusca

Question 74.
Name the organism in the picture.

A) Lizard
B) Paramecium
C) Bacteria
D) Virus
Answer:
C) Bacteria

Question 75.
ThIs animal belongs to –

A) Mollusca
B) Arthropoda
C) Echinodermata
D) Amphibia
Answer:
C) Echinodermata

Question 76.
I am an oyster. I produce pears. Which phylum do I belong to ?
A) Arthropoda
B) Annelida
C) Mollusca
D) Echinodermata
Answer:
C) Mollusca

Question 77.
I am a crocodile. I have 4 chambered heart. Which phylum do I belong to?
A) Mammal
B) Pisces
C) Amphibia
D) Reptelia
Answer:
D) Reptelia

Question 78.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Diploblastic
2) Spiny skinned
3) Jointed legs

List – B
a) Echinodermata
b) Arthropoda
c) Porifera
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 79.
Arrange the flow chart in the correct order.

A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D) 1, 2, 3 ,4, 5
Answer:
D) 1,2,3,4,5

II. Match the following:
1.

Answer:
1) Naked seed – D) Gymnosperms
2) Covered seed – C) Angiosperms
3) Sporangium – F) Fungi
4) Unicellular prokaryotes – B) Monera
5) Uni or multicellular eukaryotes – A) Protista

2)

Answer:
1) Jointed legs – C) Arthropods
2) Diploblastic – D) Coelenterates
3) Spiny skinned – B) Echinoderms
4) Round worms – E) Nematodes
5) Protochordates – A) Notochord in its life stage

3)

Answer:
1) Linneaus – D) Divided organisms into two kingdoms
2) Haeckel – C) Divided organisms into three kingdoms
3) Copeland – B) Divided organisms into four kingdoms
4) Whittaker – E) Divided organisms into five kingdoms
5) Cavalier – Smith – A) Divided organisms into six kingdoms

III. Identify the diagrams and name them.

Answer:
a) Bacteria
b) Amoeba
c) Euglena
d) Paramecium
e) Sporangium
f) Pine
g) Tapeworm

Question 80.
Rajani collected many leaves from different plants as shown here. Identify which of the following is useful to you to know diversity by using them ?

A) Leaves undergo photosynthesis.
B) Leaves play a role in development of flowers
C) Shape of leaves varies across plant species
D) Leaves are useful only for respiration in plants?
Answer:
C) Shape of leaves varies across plant species

Question 81.
Shown here is an example of an arthropod. Arthropods can be identified by using the following characteristic feature

A) Spiny skin
B) Jointed legs
C) Vertebral column
D) Tentacles
Answer:
B) Jointed legs

Question 82.
Name the scientist who developed the widely accepted Five kingdom classification.
A) Linnaeus
B) Haeckel
C) Cavalier – Smith
D) Whittaker
Answer:
D) Whittaker

Question 83.
Which of the following are characteristics of phylum Arthropoda
i) Water vascular system
ii) Jointed legs
iii) Open circulatory system
iv) Slimy skin
A) i, ii correct
B) ii, iii correct
C) iii, iv correct
D) i, iv correct
Answer:
B) ii, iii correct

Question 84.
Which one among these is a prokaryote ?
A) Streptococcus
B) Euglena
C) Hydra
D) Yeast
Answer:
A) Streptococcus

Question 85.
Which one among these is a flying mammal ?
A) Owl
B) Kangaroo
C) Bat
D) Seal
Answer:
C) Bat

Question 86.
Bread moulds belong to ………………
A) Protista
B) Bryophyta
C) Fungi
D) Gymnosperms
Answer:
C) Fungi

Question 87.
Which of the following is a characteristic of gymnosperms ?
A) They have outer seed coverings
B) They are not multi-cellular
C) They do not produce flowers
D) They are heterotrophic organisms
Answer:
A) They have outer seed coverings

Question 88.
Which of the following are characteristics of chordates ?
1) Notochord
2) Ventral nerve cord
3) Diploblastic
4) Paired gill pouches
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Answer:
A) 1, 2

Question 89.
Human beings belong to which of the following group ?
A) Rodents
B) Primates
C) Marsupials
D) Reptiles
Answer:
B) Primates

Question 90.
Observe the following diagrams. This figure explains about

A) Difference in higher and lower plants
B) Different types of adaptations
C) Monocot and dicot plants
D) Classification of cryptogams
Answer:
C) Monocot and dicot plants

Question 91.
A researcher found an organism and wrote down its key as following :
Key : spiny skin, radial symmetrical, has water vascular system, triplo blastic, have coelomic cavity, free living.
The organism may be a
A) Porcupine
B) Star fish
C) Snail
D) Scorpion
Answer:
B) Star fish

Question 92.
Following is the base for classification of cell into prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell
A) cell membrane
B) nucleic membrane
C) ribosomes
D) chloroplast
Answer:
B) nucleic membrane

Question 93.
The following traits are taken into consideration during classification.
A) Flowers
B) Seeds arrangement
C) Cotyledons
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 94.
Famous scientist, who wrote the book ‘origin of species’ is
A) Ernest Hackel
B) Carolus Linnaeus
C) August Weisman
D) Charles Darwin
Answer:
D) Charles Darwin

Question 95.

P, Q respectively
A) Animal kingdom, Abiotic kingdom
B) Division, Class
C) Class, Family
D) Family, Class
Answer:
C) Class, Family

Question 96.

Find out the right answer to complete the flow chart.
A) Pteridophyte
B) Angiosperms
C) Cryptogams
D) Bryophyta
Answer:
B) Angiosperms

Question 97.
The correct order of classification is
A) Phylum, order, family, class, genus, species
B) Phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
C) Phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
D) Phylum, class, order, family, species, genus
Answer:
B) Phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

Question 98.
You have observed the specimen of earthworm in lab. It has the characters
A) Bilaterally symmetrical triploblastic
B) True body cavity
C) Has segmented body
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 99.
Match the following

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 100.
Identify the mis-matched pair from the following
a) Non – flowering plants – No seeds
b) Angiosperms – naked seeds
c) Gymnosperms – seeds in a fruit
A) a only
B) b only
C) b and c
D) all the above
Answer:
C) b and c

Question 101.
Thilak prepared a table with the following headings. With the help of this table what can be observed ?
Choose the right answer from the following :

A) Differences in tissues
B) Difference of plants and animals
C) Different characters in monocot and dicot plants
D) Difference of flora and fauna
Answer:
C) Different characters in monocot and dicot plants

Question 102.
Observe the flow chart, choose the correct answer.
a) It shows hierarchy of the classification.
b) It helps to know the five kingdom classification.

A) Both a, b are incorrect
B) Both a, b are correct
C) a is true, b is false
D) a is false, b is true
Answer:
B) Both a, b are correct

Use this information to answer the 24 – 26 questions :

Question 103.
Plant kingdom is divided into Cryptogams, Phanerogams on the basis of
A) seed in a fruit
B) true roots and leaves
C) false roots and leaves
D) flowering/non-flowering
Answer:
D) flowering/non-flowering

Question 104.
Angiosperms are divided into
A) Mosses, fern
B) Monocots, dicots
C) Gymnosperms, dicots
D) Angiosperms, monocot
Answer:
B) Monocots, dicots

Question 105.
The following plants are classified based on seed coat:
A) Gymnosperms – Angiosperms
B) Bryophyta – Pteridophyta
C) Gymnosperms – Bryophyta
D) Angiosperms – Pteridophyta
Answer:
A) Gymnosperms – Angiosperms

Question 106.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about sponges ?
A) Their body is made up of two layers
B) They have the water vascular system
C) They have numerous micropores on their body
D) They have a cavity in the body
Answer:
B) They have the water vascular system

Question 107.
Plants and animals are classified in a systematic way to study.
Identify the correct sequence in the classification of living things.
A) Phylum, kingdom, class, family, order, genus and species
B) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, species and genus
C) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species
D) Kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, species and genus
Answer:
C) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species

Question 108.
Which of these is the largest living invertebrate phylum ?
A) Echinodermata
B) Arthropoda
C) Annelida
D) Mollusca
Answer:
B) Arthropoda

Question 109.
Observe the table and identify the correct sentences:

a) All grass plants are monocots
b) Wheat, Maize, Rice are having single cotyledons
c) Peas, tamarind seeds do not split into half.
d) Peas, beans, tamarind, mango are dicots.
A) a, c, d only
B) a, b only
C) b, d only
D) a, b, d only
Answer:
D) a, b, d only

Question 110.
Which of the following pairs of organisms and their characteristic features is wrongly paired ?

Answer:

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Forests: Using and Protecting Them on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Forests: Using and Protecting Them with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A large tract of land covered by trees is
A) Forest
B) Garden
C) Kitchen garden
D) Tundra Vegetation
Answer:
A) Forest

Question 2.
The forests in Kerala and Andaman are
A) Deciduous
B) Thorny
C) Evergreen
D) Monsoon
Answer:
C) Evergreen

Question 3.
Thorny forests grow in very areas.
A) Wet
B) Marshy
C) Semi wet
D) Dry
Answer:
D) Dry

Question 4.
Swamp forests grow mostly in the
A) Sea coasts
B) Deserts
C) Plateaus
D) Hilly regions
Answer:
A) Sea coasts

Question 5.
No one could enter in these forests
A) Reserved
B) Protected
C) Confirous
D) Evergreen
Answer:
B) Protected

Question 6.
Podu cultivation in is a practice in
A) Plateaus
B) Plains
C) Hilly areas
D) Seacoasts
Answer:
C) Hilly areas

Question 7.
Forest Rights Act was introduced in the year
A) 2004
B) 2000
C) 2003
D) 2006
Answer:
D) 2006

Question 8.
The agriculture in forest
A) extensive agriculture
B) shifting agriculture
C) traditional agriculture
D) mixed agriculture
Answer:
B) shifting agriculture

Question 9.
These use forests
A) Human beings
B) Animals, plants
C) Birds, fishes, insects
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 10.
The easy definition of forest
A) the large tract of land covered by trees
B) the thick forest with birds
C) the dense forest with animals
D) none
Answer:
A) the large tract of land covered by trees

Question 11.
The main feature of the forest is
A) large landmass
B) trees and undergrowth bushes
C) considerable bio-diversity
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 12.
Slowly, by the beginning of century, forests were confined to only tracts that were not useful for agriculture.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
C) 20

Question 13.
Forest can be classified on the basis of
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is
B) soil
C) leaves
D) all the above
Answer:
A) how dense or sparse the vegetation is

Question 14.
…………….. trees will only grow in very cold climates which also have snowfall.
A) Devdar
B) Brahmajemudu
C) Nagajemudu
D) Teak
Answer:
A) Devdar

Question 15.
The tree that grow in Evergreen forests.
A) Kadambam
B) Bamboo
C) Neredu/Jamun
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The main kind of tree family that grow in the Evergreen forests of the Himalayas.
A) Thumma
B) Devadar
C) Jittegi
D) Teak
Answer:
B) Devadar

Question 17.
These forests grow in the regions where it rains only for some months and is warm and dry for most of the year.
A) Evergreen
B) Deciduous
C) Thorny
D) Coastal
Answer:
B) Deciduous

Question 18.
The main kind of tree family in Deciduous forests.
A) Vegi
B) Aegisa
C) Maddi
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
An example for a tree that grow in less rain region.
i) Maddi, Teak
ii) Velaga, Aegisa
iii) Yepi.Tuniki
iv) Billu, Vepa, Dirisena
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 20.
The forests that grow in very dry areas with little rainfall
A) Thumma, Bulusurega
B) Sithapal, Moduga
C) Vepa
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name for sea coast tidal forests
A) Littoral and Swamp forests
B) Thorny forests
C) Evergreen forests
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Littoral and Swamp forests

Question 22.
The main trees in Littoral and swamp forests.
i) Uppu ponna, Boddu ponna
ii) Urada, Mada
iii) Thella Mada, Gundu Mada
iv) Kadili, bella
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii, iii, iv
C) i, iii, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
D) i, ii, iii, iv

Question 23.
The area of forests in our state is ……………. kms.
A) 15,604
B) 20,064
C) 64,000
D) 30,904
Answer:
C) 64,000

Question 24.
The share of forest land in total land of Andhra Pradesh.
A) 20%
B) 23%
C) 32%
D) 40%
Answer:
B) 23%

Question 25.
Only about of our land has tree cover to qualify as forest.
A) 10.05%
B) 16.65%
C) 16%
D) 20.74%
Answer:
C) 16%

Question 26.
Every year about …………….. sq.km, of forests are lost in our state.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
B) 100

Question 27.
About …………… of the people in North coastal Region of our state collect minor forest produce and sell them in local markets for earning a living.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 20%
D) 100%
Answer:
C) 20%

Question 28.
About tribal people in our state today live forests.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 29.
Before this rule tribals treated forests as their own property.
A) Kings
B) Nizam of Hyderabad
C) British rule
D) None
Answer:
C) British rule

Question 30.
Forests are classified as below.
A) Protected
B) Reserved
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 31.
In the name of forest conservation, large scale evictions occurred in the
A) 1910
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1940
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 32.
By the govt, had realised that the development of tribal people could not be thought of without giving them any rights over forests.
A) 1980
B) 1988
C) 1990
D) 1992
Answer:
B) 1988

Question 33.
The National Forest Policy is declared in the year
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1988
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1988

Question 34.
The year of Forest Rights Act is
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2006
D) 2010
Answer:
C) 2006

Question 35.
In India at least, most forests are inhabited by people who have been living in them by adapting themselves to the conditions of the forests but without changing them too much.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.
B) The people in forests change the situation according to them.
C) The lifestyle of forest people is ultra modern.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The people in forests live by following the forest rules.

Question 36.
Deciduous forests grow in the areas like Srikakulam, Visakhapatnam, YSR Kadapa and Kurnool.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more rain.
B) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive less rain.
C) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive no rain.
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.
Answer:
D) Deciduous forests grow in the areas which receive more and less rains.

Question 37.
“A large track of land covered by trees”
A) Garden
B) Kitchen garden
C) Forest
D) Lawn
Answer:
C) Forest

Question 38.
About 64,000 sq kilometres of the state are declared as forest by the government. This is about 23% of all land in the state.
The forest cover in A.P. is this much less than the required.
A) 10% approximately
B) 20% approximately
C) 23% approximately
D) 5% approximately
Answer:
A) 10% approximately

Question 39.
These factors influence forests
A) Soil
B) Sunshine
C) Rainfall
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
The reason behind the declination of forests.
A) construction of railways
B) making of ships
C) factories, mines
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 41.
Present global warming problem arose due to
A) Forestation
B) Deforestation
C) Afforestation
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Deforestation

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 42.
This district has thorny forests
A) Kadapa
B) Chittoor
C) Ananthapur
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 43.
The district which has wet deciduous forests
A) Chittoor
B) Srikakulam
C) Ananthapur
D) Kadapa
Answer:
B) Srikakulam

Question 44.
These forests are more widespread in our state
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
C) Dry deciduous forests

Question 45.
Our state does not have these forests
A) Thorny forests
B) Wet deciduous forests
C) Dry deciduous forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
D) Evergreen forests

Question 46.
On which side are more forests located?
A) North
B) East
C) West
D) South
Answer:
A) North

Question 47.
……………. living around the forests use them for a variety of purposes.
A) Wild Animals
B) People
C) Cattle
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) People

Question 48.
……………… of our land is under forests.
A) 26 %
B) 24 %
C) 15 %
D) 18 %
Answer:
B) 24 %

Question 49.
Even today more than of tribal people live in forests.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer:
C) 60%

Question 50.
The main aim of the Forest Rights Act – 2006 is
A) to conserve the forests and at the same time, ensure livelihood and food security of the forest dwellers
B) the forest dwellers who are integral to the very survival and sustainability of the forests are having forest rights on ancestral lands.
C) It has become necessary to address the long-standing insecurity of land rights and access rights of forest dwellers including those who are forced to relocate their dwelling due to state development interventions
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 51.
The tribal in forests get the permission of and use the forests.
A) govt, officials
B) village heads
C) government
D) Naxalites
Answer:
B) village heads

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 4 The Polar Regions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 4th Lesson The Polar Regions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The region which lies near the poles is called …………….
A) Polar region
B) Tropical belt
C) South temperate region
D) North temperate region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 2.
The Northern part of the continents within the Polar region is known as the
A) Arctic circle
B) Tundra
C) Prairies
D) Pampas
Answer:
B) Tundra

Question 3.
The sun begins to shine in the tundra around
A) September – October
B) June – July
C) February – March
D) August – September
Answer:
C) February – March

Question 4.
Tundra has the summer of …………. months.
A) 5 months
B) 8 months
C) 9 months
D) 3 months
Answer:
D) 3 months

Question 5.
‘Igloo’ means
A) Food
B) Hunt
C) Shelter
D) Dress
Answer:
C) Shelter

Question 6.
In …………. most houses are built of stone slabs.
A) Alaska
B) Labrador
C) Norway
D) Greenland
Answer:
D) Greenland

Question 7.
Mukluks are ………………. of the Eskimos.
A) Jackets
B) Sweaters
C) Boots
D) Helmets
Answer:
C) Boots

Question 8.
Vikings were from
A) Iceland
B) Baffin Island
C) Greenland
D) Sweden
Answer:
A) Iceland

Question 9.
The region at the poles
A) Polar region
B) Nonpolar region
C) Equatorial region
D) Tropical region
Answer:
A) Polar region

Question 10.
Tundra vegetation means
A ) that grow in the Taiga region
B) that grow in the Tundra region
C) that grow in the desert region
D) all the above
Answer:
B) that grow in the Tundra region

Question 11.
The Sun does not rise in these months in the Tundra Region.
A) November
B) December
C) January
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 12.
The Tundra Region becomes dark, deserted and desolate in this season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy season
D) All the seasons
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 13.
The Sun begins to shine in the Tundra around ……………..
A) February
B) March
C) Both A & B
D) December
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 14.
For almost three months from …………… the sun never sets.
A) May to July
B) January to March
C) November to January
D) August to October
Answer:
A) May to July

Question 15.
The ………………… is the place where the earth appears to meet the sky.
A) horizon
B) equinoxes
C) movement in the atmosphere
D) all the above
Answer:
A) horizon

Question 16.
The ice that floats in water
A) Icebergs
B) Icehytes
C) Icemakers
D) Ice birds
Answer:
A) Icebergs

Question 17.
Due to cold, the upper soil surface of the region is frozen into a rock-like state all through the year is called ……………
A) Icebergs
B) Permafrost
C) Vermicompost
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Permafrost

Question 18.
The region of Eskimos
A) Tundra Region
B) Taiga Region
C) Steppe Region
D) Savannah Region
Answer:
A) Tundra Region

Question 19.
The people that lived in the regions of Greenland, Canada, Alaska, and Siberia.
A) Bedouins
B) Bushmen
C) Eskimos
D) Red hunters
Answer:
C) Eskimos

Question 20.
Eskimo means
A) snow-head
B) snowshoe – netter
C) snow bodied man
D) all the above
Answer:
B) snowshoe – netter

Question 21.
The main groups in Eskimos.
A) Inuit
B) Yupik
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 22.
Inuit means
A) the people
B) the kingdom
C) the government
D) the sovereignty
Answer:
A) the people

Question 23.
The language of the Eskimos
A) Aluet
B) Yupik
C) Inupik
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
The number of Eskimos in Siberia
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 4,000
Answer:
A) 2,000

Question 25.
The number of Eskimos in Greenland
A) 2,000
B) 30,000
C) 22,500
D) 43,000
Answer:
D) 43,000

Question 26.
The members in Eskimo group
A) 20 – 40
B) 25 – 45
C) 35 – 45
D) 15 – 40
Answer:
B) 25 – 45

Question 27.
The Eskimos cover a circuit of more than ………………. kms in their nomadic life.
A) 1,000
B) 1100
C) 1200
D) 1300
Answer:
B) 1100

Question 28.
The boats used by Eskimos
A) Umiyans
B) Sledges
C) Umiaks
D) Lopes
Answer:
C) Umiaks

Question 29.
The animal hunted by Eskimos
A) Caribou
B) Whale
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 30.
The main occupation of Eskimos
A) hunting
B) fishing
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
The season of Caribou hunt
A) summer
B) spring
C) both A & B
D) winter
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 32.
The instrument used to catch fish by Eskimos
A) pronged spears
B) 2 pronged spears
C) 3 pronged spears
D) 4 pronged spears
Answer:
C) 3 pronged spears

Question 33.
Eskimos caught seals with this instrument
A) Harpoon
B) Karpoon
C) Tarpoon
D) None
Answer:
A) Harpoon

Question 34.
The main food item of Eskimos
A) Meat
B) Fish
C) Fat
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 35.
Eskimos cook their food with this
A) Glass bottles
B) Oil lamps
C) Fats
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Oil lamps

Question 36.
The meaning of Igloo
A) Shelter
B) Residence
C) Living area
D) None
Answer:
A) Shelter

Question 37.
Eskimos live in tents made of ……………… in summer.
A) Sticks
B) Animal hides
C) Tiles
D) Cloth/Patla
Answer:
B) Animal hides

Question 38.
The shoes of Eskimos
A) Jhalaks
B) Mukluks
C) Lukluks
D) Jharaks
Answer:
B) Mukluks

Question 39.
Coastal groups prefer ……………. skin in late spring and summer.
A) seal
B) caribou
C) whale
D) none
Answer:
A) seal

Question 40.
Eskimos use this in toy making
A) bone
B) tooth
C) wood, soapstone
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
All Eskimos groups believe in a super natural power called
A) sila
B) maternal
C) paternal
D) all the above
Answer:
A) sila

Question 42.
Each group has some major ceremonies performed at birth and death or when hunting is very poor or very successful by
A) Samans
B) Shamans
C) Kamans
D) Shemans
Answer:
B) Shamans

Question 43.
The main competitions of Eskimos
A) Wrestling
B) Racing
C) Harpoon throughing
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
The first Europeans to be seen by Eskimos were
A) Red hunters
B) Vikings
C) Pekings
D) Bushmen
Answer:
B) Vikings

Question 45.
By 1728, the Russians had arrived in
A) Siberia
B) Northern Alaska
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 46.
Match the following.
Group – A                             Group – B
1) Icebergs            ( )        a) Boats
2) Winter hunt      ( )        b) Weapon
3) Umiaks              ( )        c) Ice blocks or mountain like structures in oceans
4) Greenland         ( )        d) Stone slate houses
5) Harpoon            ( )        e) Seal
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – e
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
D) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b

Question 47.
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra. Tundra means very cold. Since the Tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the ‘Tundra Vegetation’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The northern part of the globe has Tundra vegetation.
B) There is heavy sunlight in the Tundra region.
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) The vegetation in the Tundra region is unique.

Question 48.
The Eskimo word “igloo” means shelter. It can refer to any kind of house, not really the dome-shaped snow houses that many people associate with the word.
A) Igloo means a dome-shaped snow house.
B) Igloo is a European word.
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.
D) Igloos are located only in ice deserts.
Answer:
C) We can also call our house ‘Igloo’.

Question 49.
Find out the mismatch.
1) Whale hunting -1859 -1910 s
2) Modern trade of fur -1925 -1950 s
3) The building of military and defense bases mid -1950 s
4) The building of Urban centers – mid-1960 s
5) Oil exploration and development – 1970 s
A) 1 & 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 4, 5
D) All correct
Answer:
D) All correct

Question 50.
The Eskimos wear boots called mukluks, trousers, and hooded jackets called parkas – all made of animal skins.
The clothes of Eskimos are made of
A) Mukluks
B) Trousers
C) Hooded jackets
D) Animal skins
Answer:
D) Animal skins

Question 51.
Shamans are believed to help establish and keep contact with the spirit world. Shamans use trances, drama, and magic tricks in their performances.
Who are Shamans?
A) Shamans are Purohits.
B) Shamans are Tantriks.
C) Shamans are Gurus.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shamans are Tantriks.

Question 52.
The reason behind the new relationship of Eskimos with different social and economic forces
A) air-travel
B) highways
C) powerful modem ships
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 53.
This change has produced great strains on the Eskimo way of life
A) Air travel
B) Highways
C) Satellite communications
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 54.
The Eskimos first entered North America about …………… years ago, crossing the Bering straits from Asia.
A) 5000
B) 3000
C) 8000
D) 10000
Answer:
A) 5000

Question 55.
………….. hunting is essential for nearly all Eskimo groups.
A) Deer
B) Caribou
C) Bear
D) Fox
Answer:
B) Caribou

Question 56.
After the late’s, large numbers of Europeans began to live year-round
A) 1600
B) 1700
C) 1750
D) 1800
Answer:
D) 1800

Question 57.
In 1576 – 78 the English Mariner that visited Baffin Island
A) Martin Linlithgo
B) Martin Frosbisher
C) Martin Mao
D) Martin Louis
Answer:
B) Martin Frosbisher

Question 58.
After ………….. the arrival of the Europeans and American whalers and fur traders brought many changes.
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1850
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1850

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Movement of Materials Across the Cell Membrane on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 4th Lesson Movement of Materials Across the Cell Membrane with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Plasma membrane is
A) Permeable
B) Semipermeable
C) Selectively permeable
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 2.
Plasma membrane is present in
A) Only in plants
B) Only in animals
C) Both plants and animals
D) None
Answer:
C) Both plants and animals

Question 3.
Diffusion occurs in this medium.
A) Solids
B) Liquids
C) Gases
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 4.
Osmosis occurs in this medium.
A) Solids
B) Liquids
C) Gases
D) None
Answer:
B) Liquids

Question 5.
Semipermeable membrane is necessary for
A) Osmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Both osmosis & diffusion
D) None
Answer:
A) Osmosis

Question 6.
Identify the solvent.
A) Sugar
B) Salt
C) Water
D) Cytoplasm
Answer:
C) Water

Question 7.
Dissolved substance in a solution
A) Solvent
B) Solute
C) Mixture
D) Water
Answer:
B) Solute

Question 8.
Function of plasma membrane is
A) Providing definite shape to semifluid contents in the cell
B) Osmosis
C) Provides flow of information among the cells
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 9.
Scientist who worked on diffusion of gases ?
A) Thomas Graham
B) Freddie Mercury
C) David Bowie
D) Bichat
Answer:
A) Thomas Graham

Question 10.
The smell of perfume spread is because of –
A) Osmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Air
D) Endocytosis
Answer:
B) Diffusion

Question 11.
The opening and closing of stomata is due to –
A) Sunlight
B) Osmosis
C) Plasmolysis
D) Endocytosis
Answer:
B) Osmosis

Question 12.
Name the process by which CO₂ ,O₂ move across the cell membrane .
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Plasmolysis
D) None
Answer:
A) Diffusion

Question 13.
Plasmolysis occurs due to –
A) Absorption
B) Endosmosis
C) Osmosis
D) Exosmosis
Answer:
D) Exosmosis

Question 14.
A cell placed in hypotonic solution is will –
A) Shrinks
B) Show plasmolysis
C) Swellup
D) No change in the shape or size
Answer:
C) Swellup

Question 15.
Bulk transport occurs through –
A) Endocytosis
B) Exocytosis
C) Endosmosis
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 16.
Amoeba acquires its food through a process termed as …………………
A) Excytosis
B) Endocytosis
C) Plasmolysis
D) Exocytosis and endocytosis both
Answer:
B) Endocytosis

Question 17.
A cell placed in hypotonic solution bursts up. It is ………………..
A) bacterial cell
B) animal cell
C) fungal cell
D) plant cell
Answer:
B) animal cell

Question 18.
Example for semipermeable membrane …………………..
A) Paper
B) Cloth
C) Egg
D) Plastic
Answer:
C) Egg

Question 19.
Water enters into roots through
A) Exosmosis
B) Endocytosis
C) Osmosis
D) Reverse osmosis
Answer:
C) Osmosis

Question 20.
The principle involved in dialysis …………………
A) Reverse osmosis
B) Endocytosis
C) Osmosis
D) Diffusion
Answer:
C) Osmosis

Question 21.
Osmosis does not takes place in
A) Animal cells
B) Plant cells
C) Bacterial cells
D) Dead cells
Answer:
D) Dead cells

Question 22.
Factor responsible for opening and closing of stomata
A) Temperature
B) Humidity
C) Wind velocity
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 23.
The raisin wrinkles, if kept in salt water because of –
A) Diffusion
B) Exosmosis
C) Endosmosis
D) Osmosis
Answer:
D) Osmosis

Question 24.
The egg placed in salt water …………….
A) Shrinks
B) Swells
C) No change
D) Breaks
Answer:
A) Shrinks

Question 25.
The principle involved in desalination
A) Diffusion
B) Reverse Osmosis
C) Exosmosis
D) None
Answer:
B) Reverse Osmosis

Question 26.
In Greek language, “Osmos” means
A) Pulling
B) Pushing
C) Entering
D) Exit
Answer:
B) Pushing

Question 27.
If the dried vegetables are kept in water they become
A) Shrink
B) Swell
C) Fresh
D) No change
Answer:
C) Fresh

Question 28.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
i) Diffusion – Thomas Graham
ii) Osmosis – Mercury and Bowie
iii) Reverse osmosis – Opening and closing of stomata
A) i, iii
B) ii only
C) i only
D) ii, iii
Answer:
D) ii, iii

Question 29.
If a marine fish is kept in fresh water aquarium then it dies because of
A) Osmosis
B) Exosmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Reverse osmosis
Answer:
A) Osmosis

Question 30.
What happens if fresh grapes put in salt water ?
A) size increases
B) size decreases
C) no change
D) burst
Answer:
B) size decreases

Question 31.
Coffee powder and KMNO₄ experiments are done to prove
A) Osmosis
B) Reverse osmosis
C) Exosmosis
D) Diffusion
Answer:
D) Diffusion

Question 32.
Shrinking of egg placed in the salt water is due to
A) osmosis
B) exosmosis
C) diffusion
D) endosmosis
Answer:
B) exosmosis

Question 33.
Swelling of egg placed in the tap water is due to
A) osmosis
B) exosmosis
C) diffusion
D) endosmosis
Answer:
D) endosmosis

Question 34.
The following figure depicts

A) arrangement for osmosis
B) filtration process equipment
C) it explains diffusion
D) preparation of semipermeable membrane
Answer:
D) preparation of semipermeable membrane

Question 35.
This figure shows

A) Osmosis
B) Exosmosis
C) Filtration
D) Reverse osmosis
Answer:
C) Filtration

Question 36.
This diagram shows

A) Osmosis
B) Exosmosis
C) Filtration
D) Reverse osmosis
Answer:
D) Reverse osmosis

Question 37.
Observe the graph given and choose the right statement.


A) Solution A is more concentrated than B and C.
B) Solution C has less concentration than A and B.
C) Solution B has same concentration to that of A and C.
D) Solution C is more concentrated than A and B.
Answer:
D) Solution C is more concentrated than A and B.

Question 38.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Osmosis
2) Endocytosis
3) Specialization

List – B
a) Amoeba
b) Microvilli
c) Root hairs
A) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 39.
Bhopal gas tragedy happened due to
A) Osmosis
B) Reverse osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Exosmosis
Answer:
C) Diffusion

II. Match the following :

 Answer:
1) Thomas Graham – B) Diffusion of gases
2) Freddie Mercury & David Bowie – C) Reverse osmosis
3) Osmosis – D) Semipermeable membrane
4) Diffusion – E) Opening of scent bottle
5) Solvent – A) Water

Question 40.
Doctors administer saline only not the distilled water so that
A) Required salts are provided.
B) Required antibodies are given
C) To increase blood volume
D) To decrease body temperature
Answer:
A) Required salts are provided.

Question 41.
The process, by which some materials when kept in a medium like air and water spread equally throughout is called ………………
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Reverse osmosis
D) Saturation
Answer:
A) Diffusion

Question 42.
The chemical required to obtain semi permeable membrane from raw egg is
A) Dil. HCl
B) Sugar solution
C) Salt solution
D) Distilled water
Answer:
A) Dil. HCl

Question 43.
What happens when fresh water Amoeba is kept in salt water
A) Exosmosis occurs, Cell bursts
B) Exosmosis occurs, Cell shrinks
C) Endosmosis occurs, Cell bursts
D) Endosmosis occurs, Cell shrinks
Answer:
B) Exosmosis occurs, Cell shrinks

Question 44.
In our body waste materials are filtered from blood by the process of
A) Replication
B) Endocytosis
C) Osmosis
D) Inhalation
Answer:
C) Osmosis

Question 45.
It allows certain solutes to pass through them
A) Dead cells
B) Selectively permeable membrane
C) Bark
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Selectively permeable membrane

Question 46.
We feel more thirsty if we drink cool drink in summer, because
A) The concentration of cytoplasm is more than cool drink
B) The concentration of cytoplasm is less than cool drink
C) The concentration of both are equal
D) None of these
Answer:
A) The concentration of cytoplasm is more than cool drink

Question 47.
In the experiment of preparation of semi permeable membranes ………………. is used to get egg membrane.
A) HCl
B) Iodine
C) CaCO₃
D) Glycerine
Answer:
A) HCl

Question 48.
Name the principle involved in the functioning of the given below apparatus

A) Osmosis
B) Reverse osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) A and C
Answer:
B) Reverse osmosis

Question 49.
Observe the following and identify what “P” study for.

A) Diffusion only
B) Diffusion, filteration
C) Filteration, osmosis
D) Osmosis only
Answer:
D) Osmosis only

Question 50.
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is known as
a) osmosis
b) diffusion
c) active transport
d) phagocytosis
A) d only
B) a, b only
C) b only
D) a, d only
Answer:
C) b only

Question 51.
A cell placed in hypotonic solution it bursts up. It is
A) plant cell
B) animal cell
C) bacterial cell
D) fungal cell
Answer:
B) animal cell

Question 52.
Observe the diagram and find the correct statement:

a) Water molecules leave the cell- Exosmosis
b) Water molecules enter the cell – Endosmosis
c) Water molecules leave the cell – Endosmosis
d) Water molecules enter the cell – Exosmosis
A) c, d only
B) a, b only
C) a only
D) b only
Answer:
B) a, b only

Question 53.
Observe the a, b statements :
a) The flexibility of the membrane to engulf food
b) Amoeba acquires its food by this pro¬cess only
A) Both a, b are incorrect
B) Both a, b correct
C) a correct, b incorrect
D) a incorrect, b correct
Answer:
B) Both a, b correct

Question 54.
What will happen if plasma membrane doesn’t show permeabilility ?
a) Absence of mechanical barrier property to protect the cell
b) It allows all particles into the body
c) It exits in all particles through out the body
A) a, c only
B) a, b, c only
C) c only
D) b, c only
Answer:
B) a, b, c only

Question 55.
You are doing experiments on diffusion in your lab. Find the substance which turns into pink colour when added to water.
A) Silver Nitrate
B) Copper sulphate
C) Potassium permanganate
D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
C) Potassium permanganate

Question 56.
You want to prepare a semi-permeable membrane in the lab, you have to
A) wash the eggs with Sulphuric acid
B) keep the raw eggs in dil. HCL for 4-5 hours
C) keep the raw eggs in dil. HCL for 2-3 days
D) wash the eggs repeatedly under tap water
Answer:
B) keep the raw eggs in dil. HCL for 4-5 hours

Question 57.
You keep dry kishmish in a beaker with 100ml of water in your laboratory. Choose the correct picture that shows the result.

Answer:

Question 58.
After the completion of osmosis experiment in the lab, Keerthi wrote the procedure in her lab record like this :
a) Take the raw potato and boiled potato.
b) Peel-off skins.
c) Pour sugar solution in the potato cup to a level.
d) Cut cube shaped cups from the potato.
e) Keep the potato cup in the bowl with water.
Choose the correct sequence of the above procedure :
A) a, b, c, e, d
B) a, b, c, d, e
C) a, b, e, d, c
D) a, b, d, c, e
Answer:
D) a, b, d, c, e

Question 59.
Observe the diagram and choose what it depicts:

A) Procedure for diffusion
B) Conventional procedure for filtration
C) Alternative procedure for filtration
D) Modern technic for filtration
Answer:
C) Alternative procedure for filtration

Question 60.
You have given coffee powder, crystals of Potassium permanganate, copper sulphate, petridish, water etc. Using this materials which experiment you can conduct in the lab ?
A) Permeability
B) Osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Filtration
Answer:
C) Diffusion

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Earth Movements and Seasons on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earth rotates from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North to Sourth
D) South to North
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 2.
……………. is called ‘Land of Midnight Sun.
A) India
B) Japan
C) Norway
D) New York
Answer:
C) Norway

Question 3.
The earthlike a top.
A) revolves
B) stands
C) looks
D) spins
Answer:
D) spins

Question 4.
The angle keeps increasing move towards the
A) Two poles
B) Tropic of Cancer only
C) Equator
D) Arctic Circle only
Answer:
A) Two poles

Question 5.
Equinoxes are
A) March 21 and December 23
B) March 21 and September 23
C) March 23 and September 21
D) March 21 and November 23
Answer:
D) March 21 and November 23

Question 6.
0° latitude is called
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Equator
C) Arctic Circle
D) Greenwich meridian
Answer:
B) Equator

Question 7.
The Sun illuminates one of the earth at any given movement.
A) 3/4
B) quarter
C) half
D) and half
Answer:
C) half

Question 8.
The axis of earth is tilted by ………………
A) 13.5°
B) 20.5°
C) 22.5°
D) 23.5°
Answer:
D) 23.5°

Question 9.
Sun on the Tropic of Capricorn
A) December 22
B) February 22
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
A) December 22

Question 10.
Snowfall is high in this region during winter
A) equatorial region
B) the northern region to the equator
C) the southern region to the equator
D) all the above
Answer:
B) the northern region to the equator

Question 11.
The time taken for one rotation of the earth on its own axis
A) 20 hours
B) 22 hours
C) 23 hours
D) 24 hours
Answer:
D) 24 hours

Question 12.
The edge of the sun-lit hemisphere, called the
A) circle of illumination
B) circle of nonlumination
C) circle
D) elongated circle
Answer:
A) circle of illumination

Question 13.
The earth revolves round the Sun. It is known as
A) earth’s rotation
B) earth’s revolution
C) equinoxes
D) all the above
Answer:
B) earth’s revolution

Question 14.
The time for earth’s revolution
A) 365 days
B) 365 days 5 hrs
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts
D) 366 days
Answer:
C) 365 days 5 hrs 56 mts

Question 15.
The Earth revolves round the Sun on a regular path
A) orbit
B) axis
C) face
D) surface
Answer:
B) axis

Question 16.
The Earth’s axis is tilted on it, so as to form a ……….. angle.
A) 66°
B) 66.5°
C) 90°
D) 93°
Answer:
B) 66.5°

Question 17.
As Earth revolves around the Sun, Earth’s axis remains tilted in the same direction throughout the year. It keeps pointing pole star in the Northern sky and this is called the
A) Axis polarity
B) Polarity of axis
C) Both A & B
D) Polarity
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 18.
The Northern and Southern Hemispheres get similar amount of energy from the Sun in these months.
A) March, April
B) March, May
C) March, September
D) September, December
Answer:
C) March, September

Question 19.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Cancer in the Northern hemisphere
A) December
B) March
C) May
D) June
Answer:
D) June

Question 20.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern hemisphere
A) March
B) May
C) December
D) June
Answer:
C) December

Question 21.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of cancer on this date
A) December 22
B) June 21
C) March 21
D) September 23
Answer:
B) June 21

Question 22.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the tropic of capricorn on this date
A) June 21
B) March 21
C) September 23
D) December 22
Answer:
D) December 22

Question 23.
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on the equator
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) December 22
Answer:
A) March 21

Question 24.
The day of Equinoxes
A) March 21
B) September 23
C) Both A & B
D) June 21
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
The day time at the poles
A) 24 hrs
B) 1 month
C) 6 months
D) 4 months
Answer:
C) 6 months

Question 26.
Observe the diagram and pick the correct comment.

A) The earth rotates from west to east.
B) All the lines on the globe are real.
C) The horizontal lines are meridians.
D) The line that connects the north and south is orbit.
Answer:
A) The earth rotates from west to east.

Question 27.
On March 21 and September 23 throughout the world day and night are equal in size, so these are called equinoxes.
Pick the right comment.
A) Equinoxes are two imaginary lines.
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.
C) Equinoxes – the days are longer than nights throughout the world.
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Equinoxes – the day and nights are equal throughout the world.

Question 28.
If it is summer in the northern regions to the equator then in the southern regions there is ………….. season.
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Rainy
D) None
Answer:
B) Winter

Question 29.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.

When the Earth rotates, the air around us, the clouds and the birds move along with the Earth. That is way we don’t feel the movement in the manner when we travel on a train or bus.
When the Earth rotates, this happens.
A) The clouds only move along with the earth.
B) The birds only move along the with the earth.
C) The human beings only move along with the earth.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 30.
Read the following lines and answer the given question.
As we move northwards or southwards of the Tropical Belt we reach a region where it gets warm in summers but also very cold in winters. This is the Temperate Zone. The northern portions of this region get snowfall in winters.
Where is the Temperate Zone located?
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.
B) Temperate zone is to the north of the Tropical Belt only.
C) Temperate zone is to the south of the Tropical Belt only.
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Temperate zone is to the north and south of the Tropical Belt.

Question 31.
This influence the seasons
A) The earth is spherical and it has curved surface.
B) The earth rotates on its own axis once in a day.
C) The axis is inclined when compared to its orbit.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 32.
The main result of the earth’s rotation
A) formation of day and night
B) differences occur in temperatures
C) formation of Ocean currents
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 33.
What happens if the earth does not rotate?
A) No day and night formation
B) One side continuous day and one side continuous night
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 34.
Ohio is in ……………
A) Australia
B) the U.S.A.
C) Canada
D) Europe
Answer:
B) the U.S.A.

Question 35.
The Tropical Belt means
A) The region between the equator and northern pole
B) The region between the equator and southern pole
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
D) The region between the two poles
Answer:
C) The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 36.
Which season is there on March 21st on South?
A) Spring
B) Winter
C) Summer
D) Autumn
Answer:
D) Autumn

Question 37.
Earth revolution is from
A) West to East
B) East to West
C) North west to North east
D) None
Answer:
A) West to East

Question 38.
Which season is there on December 22 on the north?
A) Winter
B) Spring
C) Autumn
D) Summer
Answer:
A) Winter

Question 39.
Human beings live along with a large community of
A) Plants
B) Animals
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 40.
…………… region is frozen throughout the year.
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Arctic
D) Hindu
Answer:
C) Arctic