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Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 23 Sports: Nationalism and Commerce on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 23rd Lesson Sports: Nationalism and Commerce with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Cricket was born in
A) England
B) India
C) West Indies
D) Australia
Answer:
A) England

Question 2.
‘Ranji Trophy’ is related to
A) Football
B) Cricket
C) Hockey
D) Volleyball
Answer:
B) Cricket

Question 3.
Indian cricket was born in
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Lucknow
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 4.
Parsi team defeated Bombay Gymkhana for the first time in
A) 1885
B) 1886
C) 1887
D) 1889
Answer:
D) 1889

Question 5.
In 1970 ………………. was excluded from the International Cricket.
A) South Africa
B) England
C) Australia
D) India
Answer:
A) South Africa

Question 6.
The ICC headquarters was changed from London to
A) America
B) Dubai
C) Canada
D) Moscow
Answer:
B) Dubai

Question 7.
Kabaddi became an International game before ……………. years ago.
A) 8
B) 7
C) 10
D) 14
Answer:
C) 10

Question 8.
This increases mental health and physical development
A) Cinemas
B) Dramas
C) Games
D) Literature
Answer:
C) Games

Question 9.
An example for our Indian traditional game
A) Khokho
B) Cricket
C) Hockey
D) Football
Answer:
A) Khokho

Question 10.
Till 1930 the cricket competitions were held in India between
A) States
B) Religious communities
C) Castes
D) Districts
Answer:
B) Religious communities

Question 11.
A crazy game
A) Kabaddi
B) Hockey
C) Cricket
D) Golf
Answer:
C) Cricket

Question 12.
The birth place of cricket
A) England
B) Italy
C) India
D) China
Answer:
A) England

Question 13.
Football and hockey belonged to this country
A) Italy
B) England
C) India
D) America
Answer:
B) England

Question 14.
The Indian team was not given chance in the test matches till this year
A) 1930
B) 1931
C) 1932
D) 1933
Answer:
C) 1932

Question 15.
The Indian played cricket origin in
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 16.
Who started cricket in India first?
A) Arabs
B) Parsis
C) Marathas
D) Gujaratis
Answer:
B) Parsis

Question 17.
The first Indian cricket club of Parsis was established in this year.
A) 1846
B) 1845
C) 1848
D) 1850
Answer:
C) 1848

Question 18.
There was a small dispute between …………in using parking place in Bombay Zymkhana.
A) Parsis, Whites
B) Parsis, Marathas
C) Punjabis, Marathas
D) Gujaratis, Whites
Answer:
A) Parsis, Whites

Question 19.
Which of the following played in Pentagon Cricket Match.
A) Europeans, Parsis, Hindus, Muslims others
B) Europeans, Parsis, Buddhists, Jains, others
C) Americans, Australians, Buddhists, Jains, others
D) Europeans, Americans, Australians, Hindus others
Answer:
A) Europeans, Parsis, Hindus, Muslims others

Question 20.
………….. believed that a sport was essential for a balance between the body and the mind.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
Answer:
B) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 21.
Cricket was born in England in ………….
A) 1870
B) 1875
C) 1877
D) 1879
Answer:
C) 1877

Question 22.
South Africa was banned from International Cricket in
A) 1960
B) 1962
C) 1965
D) 1970
Answer:
D) 1970

Question 23.
The first One day International between these countries in Melbourne in 1971
A) England, India
B) England, Australia
C) Australia, Newzealand
D) Australia, India
Answer:
B) England, Australia

Question 24.
In 1997, even as cricket celebrated years of test matches, the game was changed forever.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
Answer:
D) 100

Question 25.
………………, an Australian television tycoon who saw the moneymaking potential of cricket as a televised sport, signed up fifty-one of the world’s leading cricketers.
A) Monohar Parikar
B) Kerry Packer
C) William Karie
D) John Packer
Answer:
B) Kerry Packer

Question 26.
…………. drove home the lesson that cricket was a marketable gave which could generate huge revenues.
A) Ande Murray
B) Winston Churchill
C) William Karie
D) Kerry Packer
Answer:
D) Kerry Packer

Question 27.
…………. develop international understanding, cultural development and universal brotherhood.
A) Cinemas
B) Games
C) Libraries
D) Dramas
Answer:
B) Games

Question 28.
The shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC head quarters from London to tax free
A) Sydney
B) Dubai
C) Bombay
D) New Delhi
Answer:
B) Dubai

Question 29.
………….. has pioneered two great advances in bowling.
A) Pakistan
B) Afghanistan
C) India
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
A) Pakistan

Question 30.
The two great advances in bowling
A) Doosra
B) Reverse swing
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 31.
…………….. to move the ball in on dusty, unresponsive wickets under clear skies.
A) Doosra
B) Reverse swing
C) Finger spin
D) None
Answer:
B) Reverse swing

Question 32.
Another prominent crazy game India.
A) Hockey
B) Kabaddi
C) Foot ball
D) Throw ball
Answer:
A) Hockey

Question 33.
This country has upperhand in 1980 in International Hockey
A) Pakistan
B) India
C) England
D) Germany
Answer:
B) India

Question 34.
Another traditional crazy game in India
A) Hockey
B) Football
C) Volleyball
D) Kabaddi
Answer:
D) Kabaddi

Question 35.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                     Group – B
1) Donald Bradman          ( )        a) England
2) Zaheer Abbas               ( )        b) Australia
3) Glen Turner                  ( )        c) West Indies
4) Viv Richards                 ( )        d) New Zealand
5) Geoffrey Boycott          ( )       e) Pakisthan
A) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – d
D) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – a

Question 36.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                       Group – B
1) Dhyan Chand                           ( )               a) Chess
2) Sania Mirza                              ( )               b) Shooting
3) Koneru Hampi                          ( )              c) Hockey
4) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathod     ( )              d) Football
5) Subratha Pal                             ( )              e) Tennis
A) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d

Question 37.
India won the World Cup in
A) 1985
B) 1984
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer:
D) 1983

Question 38.
The reason behind the increase in the income of cricket players
A) High payments by cricket board
B) Giving commercial ads
C) An increase in the figures of cricket lowers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
‘Doosara’ ‘Reverse swing’ are introduced by
A) South Africa
B) West Indies
C) Pakisthan
D) India
Answer:
C) Pakisthan

Question 40.
First World Cup being successfully staged in the year.
A) 1970
B) 1972
C) 1975
D) 1976
Answer:
C) 1975

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Construction of Quadrilaterals on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 3rd Lesson Construction of Quadrilaterals with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Number of vertices in a Quadrilateral is …………………..
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 2.
Number of diagonals in a Quadrilateral is ……………….
A) 3
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 3.
Number of angles in a Quadrilateral is …………………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Answer:
B) 4

Question 4.
Each angle in a square is ………………….
A) 90°
B) 70°
C) 80°
D) 100°
Answer:
A) 90°

Question 5.
Number of sides in a Quadrilateral is …………………
A) 4
B) 6
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
A) 4

Question 6.
Sum of 4 angles in a Quadrilateral is ………………..
A) 160°
B) 300°
C) 180°
D) 360°
Answer:
D) 360°

Question 7.
The sum of adjacent angles in a parallelogram is …………………….
A) 190°
B) 180°
C) 200°
D) 300°
Answer:
B) 180°

Question 8.
Identify the correct among the following.
A) Each angle in a rectangle is 90°
B) Rhombus will have 5 sides
C) A Quadrilateral has two diagonals
D) Each angle in a square is 50°
Answer:
A) Each angle in a rectangle is 90°

Question 9.
If each angle of 90° is to be bisected then the measure of each angle is
A) 60°
B) 70°
C) 80°
D) 45°
Answer:
D) 45°

Question 10.
The perimeter of the given Quadrilateral is ………………….

A) a + b – c – d
B) a + b + c + d
C) a – b – c – d
D) a – b +2c + d
Answer:
B) a + b + c + d

Question 11.
The diagonals of a Rhombus will intersect at ………………..
A) 60°
B) 90°
C) 110°
D) 80°
Answer:
B) 90°

Question 12.
Identify Trapezium among the following:

Answer:

Question 13.
In order to make the given Quadri¬lateral as a parallelogram ……………. should
happen.

A) PQ = RS
B) RQ = PS
C) PQ || SR
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
A line segment of length 7.8 cm is bisected then the length of each part is …………….. cm.
A) 7.4
B) 3.8
C) 7.8
D) 3.9
Answer:
D) 3.9

Question 15.
In the parallelogram ABCD the area of ΔABC is 10 sq.cm then the area of ABCD
= ………………. sq.cm

A) 15
B) 40
C) 20
D) 10
Answer:
C) 20

Question 16.
Identify acute angle from the following.
A) 60°
B) 180°
C) 90°
D) 210°
Answer:
A) 60°

Question 17.
Angles like 0°, 30°, 45°, 60°, 90°, 120° and 180° are called ………………. angles.
A) Dependant
B) Standard
C) Equal
D) Perpendicular
Answer:
B) Standard

Question 18.
In the Quadrilateral BELT, ∠B = 80°, ∠E = 100°, ∠L = 120° then ∠T = ………………
A) 90°
B) 40°
C) 70°
D) 60°
Answer:
D) 60°

Question 19.
In Rhombus PQRS ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R + ∠S = ………………
A) 180°
B) 300°
C) 360°
D) 190°
Answer:
C) 360°

Question 20.
In the parallelogram ABCD, ∠A – ∠C = ……………….
A) 0°
B) 10°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 21.
The side of a Rhombus is 5 cm then its perimeter is ………………..cm.
A) 16
B) 19
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
D) 20

Question 22.
In the square ABCD, ∠A = ……………..

A) 70°
B) 45°
C) 80°
D) 60°
Answer:
B) 45°

Question 23.
In the parallelogram SOAP, ∠S = 100° then ∠A = ………………
A) 80°
B) 60°
C) 70°
D) 30°
Answer:
A) 80°

Question 24.
The length and breadth of a rectangle is 3 cm and 4 cm then the length of its diagonal is ……………….. cm.
A) 9
B) 10
C) 6
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 25.
In a parallelogram ……………….
A) Opposite sides are parallel
B) Diagonals are not equal
C) Sum of adjacent angles is 180°
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
How many pairs of sides are parallel in a Trapezium ?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 6
D) 3
Answer:
B) 1

Question 27.
In a Quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A + ∠B = 200° then ∠C + ∠D = ………………
A) 110°
B) 180°
C) 160°
D) 300°
Answer:
C) 160°

Question 28.
Identify kite among the following :

Answer:

Question 29.
If the diagonals of a Rhombus are equal then it is a ………………
A) Kite
B) Rhombus
C) Square
D) None
Answer:
C) Square

Question 30.
Number of Independent measurements required to construct a Quadrilateral is ………………
A) 9
B) 5
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
B) 5

Question 31.
Number of Independent measurements required to construct a square is ……………….
A) 5
B) 6
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 32.
To construct a rectangle we need …………… independent measurements.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 33.
Opposite angles of a parallelogram are ………………….
A) Equal
B) Parallel
C) 100°
D) None
Answer:
A) Equal

Question 34.
Diagonals are equal in …………………..
A) Kite
B) Trapezium
C) Rhombus
D) Square
Answer:
D) Square

Question 35.
The diagonals of a Rhombus PQRS will intersect at ‘0’ then ∠SOR = ………………..

A) 50°
B) 60°
C) 80°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

Question 36.
identify Isosceles Trapezium from the following :

Answer:

Question 37.
The perimeter of a Rhombus is 40 cm then the length of its side …………….. is cm.
A) 10
B) 16
C) 32
D) 70
Answer:
A) 10

Question 38.
The diagonal AC is drawn in a square ABCD then Δ ABC is a ………………….
A) Equilateral
B) Isosceles
C) Scalene
D) None
Answer:
B) Isosceles

Question 39.
Area of rectangle is ………………
A) l + b
B) 2 (l + b)
C) l² b²
D) lb
Answer:
D) lb

Question 40.
The given figure indicates …………….

A) Quadrilateral
B) Parallelogram
C) Rectangle
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Parallelogram

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Linear Equations in One Variable on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 2nd Lesson Linear Equations in One Variable with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The form of a two – digit number ?
A) 10 × ten’s digit + unit’s digit
B) 10 × unit’s digit + ten’s digit
C) 10 × ten’s digit – unit’s digit
D) 10 × unit’s digit – ten’s digit
Answer:
A) 10 × ten’s digit + unit’s digit

Question 2.
Which of the following is a linear equation ?
A) 2x² + 5 = 0
B) 4x + 5 = 1
C) 2xy + z = 5
D) All the above
Answer:
B) 4x + 5 = 1

Question 3.
If 2x – 7 = 35 then x =
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 19
Answer:
A) 21

Question 4.
The slim of two numbers is 29. If one number is 5 greater than the other, then the bigger number is
A) 12
B) 15
C) 17
D) 14
Answer:
C) 17

Question 5.
If 2x – 3 = 4x + 5 ⇒ x =
A) -4
B) 2
C) 3
D) -3
Answer:
A) -4

Question 6.
If 5 is subtracted from 4 times of number gives 19, then the number is
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 5
Answer:
B) 6

Question 7.
The length of a rectangular park is 17m more than the breadth. If its perimeter is 178 m, then the length is (in mts)
A) 53
B) 36
C) 17
D) 49
Answer:
A) 53

Question 8.
If \(\frac{\mathbf{x}}{-\mathbf{5}}\) = -1 ⇒ x =
A) 5
B) – 5
C) \(\frac{-1}{5}\)
D) -6
Answer:
A) 5

Question 9.
The difference of two linear angles is 34 then the smaller angle is
A) 49°
B) 107°
C) 73°
D) 83°
Answer:
C) 73°

Question 10.
Present age of Rajesh is x years. After 5 years his age will be
A) x/5 years
B) (x – 5) years
C) (x + 5) years
D) (5 – x) years
Answer:
C) (x + 5) years

Question 11.
If 2t = 0 then’t’=
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
B) 0
C) -3
D) can’t be determine
Answer:
B) 0

Question 12.
If 5(p – 3) = 3(p – 2) then p =
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{-9}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{-2}{9}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)

Question 13.
If \(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{x}{3}\) = 5 then x =
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 30
Answer:
B) 6

Question 14.
If \(\frac{x+7}{3 x+16}=\frac{4}{7}\) then x =
A) – 1
B) – 2
C) – 3
D) – 4
Answer:
C) – 3

Question 15.
\(\frac{4}{5}\) times of a number is 4 greater than \(\frac{3}{4}\) times of the same number. Then the number is
A) 20
B) 30
C) 60
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 16.
2015 k = 2016 – 2016 then k = ………………..
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2015}\)
C) 0
D) 9
Answer:
C) 0

Question 17.
In a fraction the denominator is 6 more than the numerator. If 3 is added to numerator the fraction equals to 2/3 then the fraction is ……………………..
A) 3/9
B) 2/9
C) 2/6
D) 3/6
Answer:
A) 3/9

Question 18.
\(\frac{x-4}{7}-\frac{(x+4)}{5}=\frac{x+3}{7}\) then x = ………………..
A) 14
B) 7
C) 9
D) – 9
Answer:
D) – 9

Question 19.
3y + 39 = 8 then y = …………………
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{-31}{3}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{-31}{3}\)

Question 20.
3 (t – 3) = 5 (2t – 1) then t =
A) \(\frac{-4}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-4}{7}\)

Question 21.
If \(\frac{x}{2}-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{x}{3}+\frac{1}{2}\) then X = ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{9}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{9}{2}\)

Question 22.
If \(\frac{5 x+2}{2 x+3}=\frac{12}{7}\) then x = ………………..
A)-3
B) – 1
C) 4
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 23.
If the product of two consecutive numbers is 7 2 then the smaller number is ………………..
A) \(\frac{-3}{2}\) or 19
B) -4 or 6
C) -8 or 6
D) 8 or -9
Answer:
D) 8 or -9

Question 24.
3x + \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 5 then x = ………………
A) \(\frac {3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) 1
D) \(\frac {6}{7}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac {3}{2}\)

Question 25.
3x – 4 = 5x – 2 then x = ……………….
A) – 3
B) 4
C) 1
D) – 1
Answer:
D) – 1

Question 26.
P – \(\frac{p-1}{2}\) = 1 – \(\frac{p-2}{3}\) then p = ………………..
A) \(\frac{7}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{7}{5}\)

Question 27.
\(\frac{1}{4}\) x = 30 then x = ……………….
A) 340
B) 710
C) 120
D) 110
Answer:
C) 120

Question 28.
\(\frac{2 x+3}{3+x}=\frac{5}{2}\), x = ……………….
A) -9
B) 10
C) 3
D) – 1
Answer:
A) -9

Question 29.
Three consecutive numbers can be considered as ……………
A) x, x², x³
B) x, x + 1, x + 2
C) x, x², x – 1
D) x, x – 1, 2x
Answer:
B) x, x + 1, x + 2

Question 30.
2.45x + 1.5 = 3.7x – 2.25 then x = ………………
A) 4
B) 7
C) 3
D) – 1
Answer:
C) 3

Question 31.
6 – \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{x-2}{3}+\frac{3-x}{4}\) x = …………………..
A) 11
B) 10
C) – 6
D) – 4
Answer:
A) 11

Question 32.
3x – x = 0 then x = ……………………..
A) -4
B) -3
C) -1
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 33.
\(\frac{\mathbf{x}}{5}\) + 11 = \(\frac{1}{15}\) then x = …………………….
A) 1
B) -1
C) 3
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 34.
If we divide a number by 7 we get the result as 5, then the number is ……………….
A) 35
B) 10
C) 16
D) 70
Answer:
A) 35

Question 35.
Which of the following is true ?
A) 3x = 10, x = 1
B) 2m = 1, m = 0
C) \(\frac {2}{3}\)x² = 1, x = \(\frac {3}{2}\)
D) 2x – x = 9, x = 9
Answer:
D) 2x – x = 9, x = 9

Question 36.
ax + c = 0 then x = …………………..
A) \(\frac{-c}{a}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{-b}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{c}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-c}{a}\)

Question 37.
3z – 1 = 1 then z = ………………………
A) -1
B) \(\frac {3}{2}\)
C) \(\frac {2}{3}\)
D) 1
Answer:
C) \(\frac {2}{3}\)

Question 38.
Which of the following equation has the natural number as solution ?
A) 8x – 3 = 4
B) 2x = 1
C) 9x = 9
D) 3x + 1 = 0
Answer:
C) 9x = 9

Question 39.
3x + 7 = – 20, x = ………………..
A) – 3
B) – 91
C) – 4
D) – 9
Answer:
D) – 9

Question 40.
If x is 3 more then it becomes 7 the equation form of this is ……………………
A) x = 3 + 7
B) x – 1 = 1
C) x – 3 = 4
D) x + 3 = 7
Answer:
D) x + 3 = 7

Question 41.
43 k = 0.086 then k = ………………..
A) 0.02
B) 0.7
C) 0.2
D) 0.002
Answer:
D) 0.002

Question 42.
If y – 15 and 2y + 1 are to be equal then the value of y is ……………..
A) – 16
B) 16
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
A) – 16

Question 43.
Which of the following equation has ‘5’ as solution ?
A) x – 5 = 1
B) 10x = 50
C) bx = 2
D) 50x = 5
Answer:
B) 10x = 50

Question 44.
The equation x = 6 can be obtained from …………………..
A) 4x = 6
B) x – 1 = 5
C) x + 6 = 7
D) 5x = 66
Answer:
B) x – 1 = 5

Question 45.
-6 + k = – 12 then k = ………………..
A) 3
B) 10
C) – 6
D) 1
Answer:
C) – 6

Question 46.
\(\frac{x}{2}\) = -31 then x = ……………………..
A) 33
B) 11
C) – 60
D) – 62
Answer:
D) – 62

Question 47
…………….. is a solution to 3x = – 1
A) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
B) 3
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)

Question 48.
2x + 3 = 5 then 4x + 6 = ………………….
A) 10
B) 16
C) 13
D) 9
Answer:
A) 10

Question 49.
3x = 15 then x – 4 = ………………………
A) 16
B) 7
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 50.
4x – 7 = 11 then x = ……………………..
A) 10
B) 6
C) 9
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 51.
3 (x – 5) = 8x – 6. In this equation the number of variables are ………………….
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
C) 1

Question 52.
x – \(\frac {1}{2}\) = \(\frac {-1}{2}\) then x = ………………..
A) – 1
B) 0
C) 9
D) 1
Answer:
B) 0

Question 53.
If we add 4 to 8 times of a number we get 60 then the number is ………………..
A) 7
B) 6
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
A) 7

Question 54.
If we subtract 11 from the double of a number we get 15 then the number is ………………….
A) 18
B) 11
C)10
D) 13
Answer:
D) 13

Question 55.
Krishna Kishore took one number. If he subtracts 7 from the \(\frac {5}{2}\) th value of
the number, he gets \(\frac {11}{2}\) as result then the number is ………………….
A) 9
B) 10
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
C) 5

Question 56.
In a cricket match Sachin scored double the runs than Sehwag scored. Both were short by 2 runs to the double century then how many runs scored by Sachin ?
A) 132
B) 66
C) 16
D) 98
Answer:
A) 132

Question 57.
The age of Rani’s father was 49 years and he was 4 years more than 3 times the age of Rani, then what is the age of Rani ?
A) 16 years
B) 15 years
C) 9 years
D) 10 years
Answer:
B) 15 years

Question 58.
\(\frac{\mathbf{x}}{5}\) – 1 = 2 then x = ……………….
A) 16
B) 10
C) 19
D) 15
Answer:
D) 15

Question 59.
\(\frac {2}{3}\) y = 1 then y = …………………..
A) \(\frac {3}{2}\)
B) 1
C) \(\frac {2}{3}\)
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac {3}{2}\)

Question 60.
The sum of 3 consecutive multiples of 7 was 357 then the smaller number is ………………
A) 112
B) 116
C) 135
D) 171
Answer:
A) 112

Question 61.
\(\frac{-4 y}{7}=\frac{-4}{9}\) then y = ……………………
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{7}{9}\)

Question 62.
\(\frac{1}{3}\) – s = \(\frac{1}{9}\) then s = …………………..
A) 1
B) – 1
C) 2
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 63.
An equation in one variable will have ……………… solution (s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 64.
2 (a – 3) = 2 then a = ………………….
A) 14
B) – 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
C) 4

Question 65.
\(\frac{x+2}{x-2}=\frac{7}{3}\) then x = ……………………
A) 5
B) -5
C)10
D) 6
Answer:
A) 5

Question 66.
0.18 (5x – 4) = 0.5x + 0.8, x = ………………
A) 3
B) 3.8
C) 8
D) 1.9
Answer:
B) 3.8

Question 67.
\(\frac {1}{2}\) P = \(\frac {1}{2}\) then p = ……………….
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
B) -1
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 68.
\(\frac {3}{4}\) (8x – 1) = 0 then x = ……………………
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
[B) latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex]
C) \(\frac {1}{8}\)
D) -1
Answer:
C) \(\frac {1}{8}\)

Question 69.
If we add 9 to a positive number we get 45, then the number is ……………….
A) 23
B) 35
C) 40
D) 36
Answer:
D) 36

Question 70.
The sum of two consecutive positive numbers is 10 then the smallest one is ………………..
A) 6
B) 7
C) 9
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 71.
\(\frac{4 x}{4}=\frac{3}{4}\), x = ………………
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 72.
0.3x. + 0.4 = 0.28x + 1.16, x = …………………………
A) 10
B) 38
C) 19
D) 29
Answer:
B) 38

Question 73.
– 5 (x + 4) = 0, x = …………………
A) 41
B) – 4
C) – 3
D) 7
Answer:
B) – 4

Question 74.
Identify linear equation among the following.
A) 3x² y + 7 = 0
B) x² y² + 1 = 0
C) ax + 3y + 7z = 0
D) 9xy²z + 6yz = 0
Answer:
C) ax + 3y + 7z = 0

Question 75.
The degree of a Linear equation is …………
A) 1
B) 3
C) – 2
D) – 1
Answer:
A) 1

Question 76.
Identify a Linear equation in one variable among the following .
A) 2x + y = 0
B) 7x – 3z + 4p = 0
C) 2 (x – 1) + 7 = 9
D) 8x = 3y + 4
Answer:
C) 2 (x – 1) + 7 = 9

Question 77.
\(\frac {4}{3}\) x – x = 1 \(\frac {1}{2}\) then x …………………
A) 0
B) 5
C) 3
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 78.
In \(\frac {1}{2}\) (t + 3) = 2 (t + 7), LHS = ………………….
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (t + 3)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (t – 3)
C) t – 3
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (t – 1)
Answer:
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (t + 3)

Question 79.
In an equation LHS ……………….. RHS.
A) >
B) <
C) =
D) ≠
Answer:
C) =

Question 80.
2x = 1 + x, x = …………………..
A) 0
B) 1
C) – 3
D) – 7
Answer:
B) 1

Question 81.
After 12 years the age of Ramu is 3 times the age before he was 4 years then his present age is ………………. years.
A) 16
B) 10
C) 9
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 82.
The difference between two complementary angles is 10° then the largest angle is …………………..
A) 40°
B) 50°
C) 70°
D) 60°
Answer:
B) 50°

Question 83.
x – 1 = \(\frac{7}{4}\) then x = ………………
A) \(\frac{11}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{11}\)
C) \(\frac{8}{41}\)
D) \(\frac{9}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{11}{4}\)

Question 84.
If we add half a number to it we get 72 then the number is …………………
A) 38
B) 48
C) 64
D) 90
Answer:
B) 48

Question 85.
One person sold a radio at 10% profit then he gets ? 714 then the C.P of that radio was …………………..
A) ₹ 160
B) ₹ 140
C) ₹ 120
D) ₹ 680
Answer:
D) ₹ 680

Question 86.
\(\frac{6}{7}-\frac{5}{4}-\frac{1}{3}\) x + 2x = 0 then x = ………………….
A) \(\frac{133}{196}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{194}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{196}\)
D) n0ne
Answer:
D) n0ne

Question 87.
\(\frac{7}{4}\) – p = 11, p = ………………
A) \(\frac{-7}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{-3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{-37}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-37}{4}\)

Question 88.
In the figure x + y = ………………

A) 100°
B) 180°
C) 110°
D) 170°
Answer:
B) 180°

Question 89.
If we subtract 5 from 4 times of a number we get 19 then the number is ………………
A) 34
B) 29
C) 44
D) 39
Answer:
D) 39

Question 90.
In the figure x° = ………………

A) 115°
B) 130°
C) 120°
D) 160°
Answer:
C) 120°

Question 91.
In the figure a + b = ……………….

A) 180°
B) 90°
C) 188°
D) 110°
Answer:
B) 90°

Question 92.
In the figure x = ………………..

A) 60°
B) 20°
C) 80°
D) 40°
Answer:
D) 40°

Question 93.
In 5 (2x + 1) = x – \(\frac {9}{2}\) RHS = ……………………
A) 10x + 1
B) x – \(\frac {9}{2}\)
C) 10x – x
D) 8x + 1
Answer:
B) x – \(\frac {9}{2}\)

Question 94.
\(\frac{3 x+16}{x+7}=\frac{7}{4}\), x =
A) 4
B) 3
C) 8
D) – 3
Answer:
D) – 3

Question 95.
\(\frac{x-4}{7}\) = 7 – 7, x = ……………..
A) 4
B) 6
C) – 14
D) -3
Answer:
A) 4

Question 96.
We can ……………….. the variables from one side to another side like constants.
A) transpose
B) balance
C) property
D) none
Answer:
A) transpose

Question 97.
If we double 2x we get ……………….
A) 3x
B) x
C) 4x
D) \(\frac{x}{4}\)
Answer:
C) 4x

Question 98.
The number of variables in x² + y = z + 7 is ………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 99.
3x + 4 = 2 (x – x) then x = ……………..
A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
C) 3
D) -4
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-4}{3}\)

Question 100.
In a fraction numerator is 6 less than the denominator. If 3 is added to the fraction it becomes \(\frac {2}{3}\) then the fraction is …………………..
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac {3}{8}\)
D) \(\frac {3}{9}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac {3}{9}\)

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 22 Film and Print Media on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 22nd Lesson Film and Print Media with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
William Friese – Green of …………….. invented camera in 1887.
A) England
B) Germany
C) Russia
D) Iran
Answer:
A) England

Question 2.
The first Talkie cinema released in 1931 was
A) Alam Ara
B) Bhishma Pratigna
C) Gandhi
D) Mala Pilla
Answer:
A) Alam Ara

Question 3.
He who built a cinema studio named ‘Gaity’ in Madras
A) Ardeshan Irani
B) Raghupathi Venkaiah
C) Sri Sri
D) Naseeruddin Shah
Answer:
B) Raghupathi Venkaiah

Question 4.
Bhakta Prahlada was released in
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1931
D) 1932
Answer:
C) 1931

Question 5.
Urdu magazine ………….. edited by Mandumula Narasing Rao, highlighted the peasant problems.
A) Rayyat
B) Prapat
C) Imroj
D) Kakaj
Answer:
A) Rayyat

Question 6.
The ………….. Rebellion of 1922 was very popular.
A) Rampa
B) Adilabad
C) Both the above
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Rampa

Question 7.
Shoiabulla Khan’s …………….. published articles that criticized the dictotorial rule of Nizam and gundaism of the land lords.
A) Royyat
B) Imroz
C) Golkonda
D) Nilagiri
Answer:
B) Imroz

Question 8.
The Peking Gazette’ was published in …………….
A) 614
B) 618
C) 626
D) 630
Answer:
B) 618

Question 9.
The editor of the ‘Amrith Bazar’ was ……………..
A) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
B) Surendranath Banerjee
C) Subramaniya Iyer
D) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
A) Sisir Kumar Ghosh

Question 10.
‘Navjeevan’was started in …………. state.
A) Maharashtra
B) Rajasthan
C) Gujarath
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Gujarath

Question 11.
The birth of cinema in India can be attributed to the Lumiere brother’s first – public show at Watson Hotel in Mumbai on
A) 7-7-1896
B) 7-8-1896
C) 15-8-1896
D) 31-8-1896
Answer:
A) 7-7-1896

Question 12.
In ……………….. William Friese – Green of England invented camera capable of taking upto 10 photographs per second using perforated celluloid film
A) 1880
B) 1885
C) 1887
D) 1890
Answer:
C) 1887

Question 13.
In …………… Woodwill Latham invented cinema projector capable of exhibiting lengthy film reels without break.
A) 1890
B) 1895
C) 1900
D) 1905
Answer:
B) 1895

Question 14.
The famous drama in Telugu.
A) Varavikrayam
B) Satya Harischandra
C) Kanyasulkam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 15.
Even though they are famous cine artistes they work for dramas.
A) Gollapudi Maruthi Rao
B) Naseeruddin Shah
C) Both A and B
D) Tenali Rama Krishna
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 16.
The first mooki in Telugu was
A) Bhakta Prahalada
B) Bheeshma Pratigna
C) Satya Harischandra
D) Kanyasulkam
Answer:
B) Bheeshma Pratigna

Question 17.
The first talkie in Telugu
A) Bheeshma Prathigna
B) Bhakta Prahlada
C) Sampoorna Ramayanam
D) Vara Vikrayam
Answer:
B) Bhakta Prahlada

Question 18.
The producer of Bhaktha Prahlada
A) Ramoji Rao
B) Kannappa
C) H.M. Reddy
D) B.N. Reddy
Answer:
C) H.M. Reddy

Question 19.
The first talkies film in Hindi in 1931.
A) Abrakadabra
B) Alam Ara
C) Namasthe Britian
D) Gulamgiri
Answer:
B) Alam Ara

Question 20.
The producer of Alam Ara film
A) Satyajit Ray
B) Amitab Bachan
C) Ardeshar Irani
D) Birbal Sahani
Answer:
C) Ardeshar Irani

Question 21.
The first person of Telugu film industry
A) N.T. Rama Rao
B) S.V. Ranga rao
C) H.M. Reddy
D) Raghupathi Venkayya
Answer:
C) H.M. Reddy

Question 22.
The producer of Gaity studio in Madras
A) N.T.R
B) A.N.R
C) S.V.R
D) Raghupathi Venkaiah
Answer:
D) Raghupathi Venkaiah

Question 23.
The then government of A.P awards …………… award every year along with Nandi to artistes for their contributions to Telugu film industry
A) Nagarjuna Award
B) Venkatesh Award
C) Raghupathi Venkaiah Award
D) Balakrishna Award
Answer:
C) Raghupathi Venkaiah Award

Question 24.
The form of entertainment before cinema.
A) folk art forms
B) folk dances
C) classical dances
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
‘Mala Pilla1 and ‘Rythu Bidda’ released in these years
A) 1938, 1939
B) 1940, 1941
C) 1941, 1942
D) 1942, 1943
Answer:
A) 1938, 1939

Question 26.
Mahatma Gandhi took over the ‘Young India’ in
A) 1915
B) 1916
C) 1917
D) 1918
Answer:
D) 1918

Question 27.
The Gandhi cinema of Richard Atten Borough was released in
A) 1980
B) 1981
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer:
C) 1982

Question 28.
In which picture the theme was a movement against land lordism?
A) Maabhumi
B) Kathalu – Kalpanikalu
C) Raja – Harischandra
D) Munasabagari Abbayi
Answer:
A) Maabhumi

Question 29.
The director of ‘Komaram Bheem’
A) Rajamouli
B) Puri Jagannath
C) K. Raghavendra Rao
D) Allani Sridhar
Answer:
D) Allani Sridhar

Question 30.
Who fought against the Njzams government for Girijans
A) Komaram Bheem
B) Rajanna
C) Chandranna
D) Venkanna
Answer:
A) Komaram Bheem

Question 31.
Komaram Bheem was killed on.
A) 1-10-1940
B) 20-10-1940
C) 27-10-1940
D) 1-12-1940
Answer:
C) 27-10-1940

Question 32.
Who started the sons ‘Vedalipo Thelladora Vedalipo?
A) Komaram Bheem
B) Rajayya
C) Rangaiah
D) Chandrayya
Answer:
C) Rangaiah

Question 33.
‘Bhale Taata Mana Bapuji’ sons is in this picture of 1955.
A) Adavi Ramudu
B) Donga Ramudu
C) Konte Ramudu
D) Jebu Donga
Answer:
B) Donga Ramudu

Question 34.
Navajeevan was started by
A) Rajendra prasad
B) Bala Gangadhar tilak
C) M.K. Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
C) M.K. Gandhi

Question 35.
The cinema scenes influence the minds of youth.
A) Smoking
B) Drinking Alcohol
C) Both A & B
D) Constructing dams
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 36.
Which film industry produces averaging about 200 films every year?
A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) Malayalam
D) Kanada
Answer:
B) Telugu

Question 37.
Number of cinema theatres in our state.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Answer:
B) 2000

Question 38.
People wrote on this first
A) Palm Leaves
B) Bark
C) Cloth
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
The printing machine was invented in 15th century
A) John-Gutenberg
B) Copernicus
C) Gelileo
D) John Madom
Answer:
A) John-Gutenberg

Question 40.
Which one of the following play an important role in giving information and knowledge?
A) Print media
B) Games
C) Entertainment programmes
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Print media

Question 41.
Many researchers consider this as first newspaper.
A) Bengal Gazette (India)
B) The Peking Gazetta (China)
C) Roiters (Britain)
D) All the above
Answer:
B) The Peking Gazetta (China)

Question 42.
The first newspaper with the modern concept was published at Oxford in London in
A) 1555
B) 1600
C) 1655
D) 1700
Answer:
C) 1655

Question 43.
In USA, the first newspaper ‘Public Occurences’ was launched in
A) 1600
B) 1680
C) 1690
D) 1695
Answer:
C) 1690

Question 44.
It was from Calcutta that the first newspaper was published in India in …….
A) 1770
B) 1780
C) 1790
D) 1800
Answer:
B) 1780

Question 45.
The first newspaper in Telugu
A) Andhra Patrika
B) Krishna Patrika
C) Andhra Bhoomi
D) Andhra Jyothi
Answer:
B) Krishna Patrika

Question 46.
During the British period, social reformers began actively compaigning for radical changes in the society.
A) Abolition of sati
B) Encouraging widow re-marriage
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 47.
Find out the mismatch.
i) Amrit Bazar Pathrika (1868) – Sisir Kumar Ghosh
ii) Bengali (183C) – Surendranath Benerjee
iii) The Hindi (1878) – G. Subramaniya Iyer
iv) Kesari (188A) – B.G.Tilak
A) i, ii
B) iii, iv
C) i, iv
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 48.
The pamphlet ‘Vettichakiri was printed by
A) Andhra Mahila Sabha
B) Andhra Mahasabha
C) Andhra Jana Sangham
D) Andhra Abhyudaya Sangham
Answer:
B) Andhra Mahasabha

Question 49.
The editor of Nilgiripathrika
A) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
B) Sabdavishu Veesu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao
C) Kodanda Rama Rao
D) Gollapudi Maruthi Rao
Answer:
B) Sabdavishu Veesu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao

Question 50.
………. edited by Suravaram Pratapa Reddy began with the objective to create nationalist feelings.
A) Krishna Pathrika
B) Andhra Pathrika
C) Gokonda Patrika
D) Nilagiri Patrika
Answer:
B) Andhra Pathrika

Question 51.
Choose the correct matching
Group – A                                              Group – B
1) Bengalee                           ( )             a) Rajgond
2) The Hindu                         ( )             b) S.V. Narasimha Rao
3) Kesari                                ( )             c) Talkie
4) Krishna Patrika                  ( )             d) Surendranadh Banerjee
5) Komaram Bheem              ( )             e) Mookie
6) Telugu Veera Levara         ( )              f) Subramaniya Iyer
7) Nilagiri Pathrika                ( )             g) The birth of cinema in India
8) Lumiere brothers              ( )             h) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
9) Vaddiraju brothers            ( )             i) Sri Sri
10) Bhakta Prahlada              ( )             j) Tilak
–                                            ( )             k) Tenugu Pathrika
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – e, 6 – f, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – j
B) 1 – c, 2 – k, 3 – g, 4 – b, 5 – i, 6 – a, 7 – d, 8 – f, 9 – j, 10 – h
C) 1 – d, 2 – f, 3 – j, 4 – h, 5 – a, 6 – i, 7 – b, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – c
D) 1 – h, 2 – k, 3 – i, 4 – j, 5 – a, 6 – b, 7 – c, 8 – g, 9 – f, 10 – d
Answer:
C) 1 – d, 2 – f, 3 – j, 4 – h, 5 – a, 6 – i, 7 – b, 8 – g, 9 – k, 10 – c

Question 52.
In Telugu the first mooki was ‘Bhishma Pratigna’. The first talkie movie was Bhakta Prahalada’ released in 1931, produced by H. M. Reddy.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Now there are talkie movies.
B) Once there were mooki movies.
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 53.
“We are the trustees of our properties” – these are the words of
A) Nehru
B) Sri Sri
C) Venkayya
D) Gandhi
Answer:
D) Gandhi

Question 54.

This award is given to
A) Best Telugu movie
B) Best Kannada movie
C) Best Tamil movie
D) Best Hindi movie
Answer:
A) Best Telugu movie

Question 55.
Which infiuence the feelings and opinions of individuals in society?
A) Dramas
B) Cinemas
C) Stories
D) Novels
Answer:
B) Cinemas

Question 56.
The first newspaper published in India in 1780 was from
A) Mumbai
B) Calcutta
C) Chennai
D) Lucknow
Answer:
B) Calcutta

Question 57.
The theme of Mala Pilla
A) Hero was the follower of Gandhi and suggests all to study
B) Pujari’s son tell in love with a dalit girl
C) A dalit boy saved Pujari’s wife
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Rational Numbers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 1st Lesson Rational Numbers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a rational number ?
A) 1
B) 1.\(\overline{3}\)
C) √5
D) √9
Answer:
C) √5

Question 2.
Which of the following is true ?
A) N ⊂ W ⊂ Q ⊂ Z
B) N ⊂ Z ⊂ W ⊂ Q
C) W ⊂ N ⊂ Q ⊂ Z
D) N ⊂ W ⊂ Z ⊂ Q
Answer:
D) N ⊂ W ⊂ Z ⊂ Q

Question 3.
Set of rational numbers under addition which of the following properties is hold ?
A) Closure
B) Associative
C) Commutative
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 4.
Set of rational numbers is not hold which of the following with respect to closure property ?
A) Addition
B) Subtraction
C) Multiplication
D) Division
Answer:
D) Division

Question 5.
Which of the following is an additive identity element ?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) -1
Answer:
A) 0

Question 6.
Which of the following is a multiplicative identity element ?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) -1
Answer:
B) 1

Question 7.
Which of the following is a multiplicative inverse of \(\frac{-3}{4}\) ?
A) 1
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{-4}{3}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{-4}{3}\)

Question 8.
What is the additive inverse of \(\frac{5}{6}\) ?
A) \(\frac{-5}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{-6}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
D) 0
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-5}{6}\)

Question 9.
Which of the following is commutative property under multiplication ?
A) a × b = c
B) a × b = b × a
C) a × (b × c) = (a × b) × c
D) a × (b + c) = ab + ac
Answer:
B) a × b = b × a

Question 10.
Which of the following is a multipli-cative distributive property over addition ?
A) \(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{1}{5}=\frac{2}{15}\)
B) 2 + 3 = 3 + 2
C) 2 × (3 × 4) = (2 × 3) × 4
D) 2 × (3 + 4) = (2 × 3) + (2 × 4)
Answer:
D) 2 × (3 + 4) = (2 × 3) + (2 × 4)

Question 11.
Which of the following is not true ?
A) Every natural number is a whole number
B) Every whole number is an integer
C) Every rational number is an integer
D) Every whole number is a rational number
Answer:
C) Every rational number is an integer

Question 12.
× \(\frac{7}{8}=\frac{7}{8}\)
A) 0
B) 1
C) \(\frac{8}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
Answer:
B) 1

Question 13.
(-\(\frac {1}{2}\)) + ………………. = 0
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
B) 0
C) –\(\frac {1}{2}\)
D) 2
Answer:
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 14.
The product of multiplicative inverses of \(\frac{-9}{2}\) and \(\frac{5}{18}\) is?
A) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
B) –\(\frac{5}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
D) –\(\frac{4}{5}\)
Answer:
D) –\(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 15.
Which of the following has no multiplication inverse ?
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
Answer:
A) 0

Question 16.
Which of the following is a non – terminating repeating decimal ?
A) \(\frac{22}{7}\)
B) 1.3
C) \(\frac{20}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{20}{3}\)

Question 17.
The \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) form of 0.35 is ………………
A) \(\frac{16}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{35}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{0.35}{100}\)
D) \(\frac{35}{1000}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{35}{100}\)

Question 18.
The \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) form of 4.\(\overline{\mathbf{7}}\) is ……………….
A) \(\frac{33}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{43}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{16}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{43}{9}\)

Question 19.
If we write 0.\(\overline{4}\) in \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) from the value of p + q is ………………..
A) 14
B) – 9
C) 10
D) 13
Answer:
D) 13

Question 20.
The \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) form of – 8.005 is …………………..
A) \(\frac{-1601}{200}\)
B) \(\frac{-701}{40}\)
C) \(\frac{-812}{117}\)
D) \(\frac{-314}{819}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-1601}{200}\)

Question 21.
Periodicity of 1.\(\overline{\mathbf{2 5}}\) is ………………..
A) 5
B) 25
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
C) 2

Question 22.
Period of 1.\(\overline{156}\) is ……………………
A) 156
B) 15.6
C) 1.56
D) 15600
Answer:
A) 156

Question 23.
\(\frac{5}{3}\) = …………………
A) 2.\(\overline{1}\)
B) 1.\(\overline{8}\)
C) 1.\(\overline{5}\)
D) 1.\(\overline{6}\)
Answer:
D) 1.\(\overline{6}\)

Question 24.
– (-(\(\frac{-2}{3}\))) = …………………..
A) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)

Question 25.
\(\frac{8}{5}\) + 0 = 0 + \(\frac{8}{5}\) = …………………
A) \(\frac{6}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{8}{5}\)

Question 26.
\(\frac{2}{5} \times\left(\frac{-1}{9}\right)+\frac{23}{180}-\frac{1}{9} \times \frac{3}{4}\) = ……………….
A) 3
B) 0
C) 10
D) 16
Answer:
B) 0

Question 27.
\(\frac{2}{5}+\frac{3}{7}-\frac{6}{5}-\frac{13}{7}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{-8}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{-78}{35}\)
D) \(\frac{78}{35}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-78}{35}\)

Question 28.
1 × ……………….. = \(\frac{91}{11}\)
A) \(\frac{9}{11}\)
B) \(\frac{91}{11}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{1121}\)
D) \(\frac{11}{91}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{91}{11}\)

Question 29.
2 <\(\frac{17}{8}\) <\(\frac{9}{4}\) < K < 3, K = ………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 30.
\(\frac{10}{7}\) = ………………….
A) 0.1428
B) 0.1328
C) 0.7418
D) 0.1923
Answer:
A) 0.1428

Question 31.
\(\frac{1575}{100}\) = ……………………
A) \(\frac{4}{63}\)
B) \(\frac{60}{19}\)
C) \(\frac{63}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{31}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{63}{4}\)

Question 32.
0.\(\overline{\mathbf{9}}\) = ………………..
A) 9
B) 1
C) 1.9
D) 7.5
Answer:
B) 1

Question 33.
\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\) + ……………….. 10 times = …………………
A) 6
B) 5
C) 20
D) 4
Answer:
B) 5

Question 34.
1 ÷ ………………… = \(\frac {1}{2}\)
A) 2
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) 4
D) 6
Answer:
A) 2

Question 35.
2016 ÷ 0 = ……………………….
A) 0
B) 2
C) 16
D) can’t be determine
Answer:
D) can’t be determine

Question 36.
Which number is not a prime number nor a composite number ?
A) 16
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
B) 1

Question 37.
The number of Rational numbers between 16 and 17 is ………………..
A) 10
B) 4
C) 20
D) Infinite
Answer:
D) Infinite

Question 38.
\(\frac{3}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\) = ………………….
A) – 4
B) 2
C) -2
D) 6
Answer:
C) -2

Question 39.
x(p – q) = …………………
A) px – q
B) p – xq
C) xp – ql
D) xp – xq
Answer:
D) xp – xq

Question 40.
\(\frac{5}{9}-\frac{3}{4}\) = ……………….
A) \(\frac{-9}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{-7}{36}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-7}{36}\)

Question 41.
\(\frac{-2}{3} \div \frac{2}{3}\) = ……………..
A) 10
B) -1
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
B) -1

Question 42.
The multiplicative inverse of 1 is ……………………..
A) 7
B) 3
C) 1
D) 10
Answer:
C) 1

Question 43.
The product of two numbers is \(\frac{-\mathbf{2 0}}{9}\) and one of the numbers is 4 then the other number is …………………
A) \(\frac{-1}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{-5}{9}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{-5}{9}\)

Question 44.
\(\frac{-16}{21}\) ÷ \(\frac{-4}{3}\) = ……………..
A) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{4}{7}\)

Question 45.
\(\frac{5}{12}\) ÷ X = \(\frac{-35}{18}\)
A) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{-3}{14}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{-1}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-3}{14}\)

Question 46.
Which of the following rational number is in standard form?
A) \(\frac{26}{78}\)
B) \(\frac{-9}{20}\)
C) \(\frac{14}{12}\)
D) \(\frac{-48}{16}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-9}{20}\)

Question 47.
If we subtract ……………… from \(\frac{-3}{4}\) we get \(\frac{5}{6}\).
A) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{-19}{12}\)
D) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-19}{12}\)

Question 48.
Identify the bigger one among the following: \(\frac{-4}{9}, \frac{-5}{12}, \frac{-7}{18}, \frac{-2}{3}\)
A) \(\frac{-7}{18}\)
B) \(\frac{-5}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{-4}{9}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-7}{18}\)

Question 49.
Kishore bought 5\(\frac{3}{4}\) kg apples and 4\(\frac{1}{2}\)kg oranges then find the total weight in kgs.
A) 3\(\frac {1}{3}\) kg
B) 10\(\frac {1}{4}\) kg
C) 7\(\frac {1}{2}\) kg
D) 9\(\frac {1}{4}\) kg
Answer:
B) 10\(\frac {1}{4}\) kg

Question 50.
Krishna read \(\frac {1}{3}\) of a book in 1 hour. Then how much he will read in 3\(\frac {1}{3}\) hrs?
A) \(\frac{16}{15}\)
B) \(\frac{6}{11}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{16}{15}\)

Question 51.
\(\frac{11}{2} \times \frac{3}{10}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{9}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{20}\)
C) \(\frac{30}{20}\)
D) \(\frac{33}{20}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{33}{20}\)

Question 52.
1 – \(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) -1
D) 10
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

Question 53.
\(\frac{3}{5}\) ÷ \(\frac{1}{3}\) = ……………….
A) 9
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{9}{5}\)

Question 54.
Reciprocal of 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 55.
51.36 + 87.35 = …………………
A) 131.71
B) 138.71
C) 108.71
D) 81.789
Answer:
B) 138.71

Question 56.
\(\frac{-24}{84}\) = ………………
A) \(\frac{-7}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{-2}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-2}{7}\)

Question 57.
Equivalent fraction to \(\frac{3}{5}\) is ………………….
A) \(\frac{12}{20}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{20}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{12}{20}\)

Question 58.
\(\frac{-4}{9}=\frac{x}{-27}\) then x = ……………….
A) 13
B) 16
C) 10
D) 12
Answer:
D) 12

Question 59.
\(\frac{-2}{5}\left(\frac{-7}{10}+\frac{1}{6}\right)\) = ……………………..
A) \(\frac{-11}{75}\)
B) \(\frac{-16}{75}\)
C) \(\frac{-14}{75}\)
D) \(\frac{-15}{75}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-16}{75}\)

Question 60.
(\(\frac{3}{4}\)) ÷ 0 = ………………….
A) 0
B) -3
C) -4
D) Not defined
Answer:
D) Not defined

Question 61.
\(\frac{8}{-5}+\frac{-5}{-6}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{-23}{30}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{23}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{30}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-23}{30}\)

Question 62.
\(\frac{3}{8}+\frac{-2}{5}+\frac{7}{8}-\frac{4}{5}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{20}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{-1}{20}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{20}\)

Question 63.
If we subtract \(\frac{3}{5}\) from \(\frac{7}{20}\) we get …………………
A) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)

Question 64.
The sum of two Rational numbers is \(\frac{1}{2}\) and one of the numbers is \(\frac{-8}{19}\) then the second number is ………………
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{31}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{38}\)
D) \(\frac{35}{38}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{35}{38}\)

Question 65.
How much can be added to -2 to get \(\frac{7}{9}\)?
A) \(\frac{25}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{25}{9}\)

Question 66.
4 – (2\(\frac{2}{3}\) + 3\(\frac{1}{5}\)) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{-2}{15}\)
B) \(\frac{-28}{15}\)
C) \(\frac{8}{15}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-28}{15}\)

Question 67.
\(\frac{2}{3}\) × \(\frac{-5}{6}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{-1}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{-5}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{-5}{9}\)

Question 68.
\(\frac{7}{9}\) × 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8\(\frac{1}{17}\) × (\(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\)) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{189}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
C) 0
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
C) 0

Question 69.
\(\left(\left(\frac{5}{9}\right)^{-1}\right)^{-1}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{81}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Question 70.
(\(\frac{1}{-8}\))^-1 = …………………..
A) 4
B) 1
C) 8
D) -8
Answer:
D) -8

Question 71.
x = \(\frac{-1}{5}\) y = \(\frac{2}{7}\) then xy = ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{35}\)
D) \(\frac{-2}{35}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{-2}{35}\)

Question 72.
The multiplicative inverse of \(\frac{-2}{7} \times \frac{-17}{15}\) is …………………
A) \(\frac{105}{34}\)
B) \(\frac{15}{34}\)
C) \(\frac{115}{27}\)
D) \(\frac{105}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{105}{34}\)

Question 73.
\(\frac{16}{35}\) ÷ \(\frac{3}{7}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{6}{17}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{15}\)
D) \(\frac{16}{15}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{16}{15}\)

Question 74.
If we (\(\frac{-5}{6}\)) is multiply by …………….. we get the product as \(\frac{8}{9}\)
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{-16}{15}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-16}{15}\)

Question 75.
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × (\(\frac{-2}{3}+\frac{1}{4}\)) = ………………….
A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 76.
\(\left|\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\right|\) = …………………
A) \(\frac {-1}{2}\)
B) 1
C) 0
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
C) 0

Question 77.
4\(\frac{2}{7}\) ÷ 2\(\frac{2}{5}\) = …………………..
A) 1\(\frac{11}{14}\)
B) 1\(\frac{1}{7}\)
C) 12\(\frac{3}{4}\)
D) 11\(\frac{1}{7}\)
Answer:
A) 1\(\frac{11}{14}\)

Question 78.
Thecostof 5\(\frac{2}{5}\) litres of milk is ₹ 101\(\frac{1}{4}\) then find the cost of 1 litre.
A) ₹ 9\(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) ₹ 6\(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) ₹ 8\(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) ₹ 18\(\frac{3}{4}\)
Answer:
D) ₹ 18\(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 79.
If we multiply 7\(\frac{5}{9}\) by \(\frac{3}{2}\) we get ………………..
A) 1\(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) 11\(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) 7\(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) 1\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
B) 11\(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 80.
3\(\frac{1}{5}\) – \(\frac{1}{5}\) + 1 = ……………….
A) 7
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
C) 4

Question 81.
\(\frac{13}{14}+\frac{27}{35}\) = ………………….
A) 1\(\frac{7}{10}\)
B) 2\(\frac{7}{31}\)
C) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\)
D) 1\(\frac{1}{35}\)
Answer:
A) 1\(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 82.
\(\frac{5}{9}-\frac{7}{12}+\frac{1}{2}\) = ………………
A) \(\frac{7}{36}\)
B) \(\frac{17}{36}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{9}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{17}{36}\)

Question 83.
\(\frac{4}{5}\) the of 1 hour = ………………..minutes.
A) 48
B) 84
C) 42
D) 13
Answer:
A) 48

Question 84.
The measurements of a rectangular park are 41\(\frac{2}{3}\) m and 18\(\frac{3}{5}\) m then the area = ……………… m².
A) 114
B) 192
C) 775
D) 275
Answer:
C) 775

Question 85.
\(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{y}-\mathbf{z}}=\frac{\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{z}-\mathbf{x}}=\frac{\mathbf{c}}{\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{y}}\) = then ax + by + cz = ………………
A) -a
B) – b
C) 0
D) -1
Answer:
C) 0

Question 86.
2a + (-2a) = ……………….
A) – 4a
B) – 4a²
C) – a
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 87.
x² × = \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) ……………… (x ≠ 0) = …………………
A) x²
B) x
C) x⁴
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 88.
-2 – \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\) – 7 = ………………..
A) – 9
B) 9
C) 7
D) 16
Answer:
A) – 9

Question 89.
\(\frac{25}{16}\) = …………………
A) 1.6521
B) 2.532
C) 1.5625
D) 10.56
Answer:
C) 1.5625

Question 90.
4.\(\overline{\mathbf{7}}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{43}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{12}{31}\)
D) \(\frac{47}{10}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{43}{9}\)

Question 91.
The natural number 5 can be written as …………………
A) \(\frac{10}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{50}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{15}{3}\)
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 92.
(2 – 3) – 2 = ………………..
A) 3
B) – 3
C) – 4
D) 6
Answer:
B) – 3

Question 93.
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{3}{4}\right)-\left(\frac{-5}{4}\right)\) = ………………..
A) 0
B) 1
C) – 1
D) 4
Answer:
B) 1

Question 94.
– \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 3
A) \(\frac {3}{2}\)
B) 4
C) 3
D) 3\(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
D) 3\(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 95.
(b – c) a = …………………….
A) ab – c
B) ac – ba
C) ba – ca
D) b – ac
Answer:
C) ba – ca

Question 96.
A rational number between a and b is …………………
A) \(\frac{a+b}{2}\)
B) ab
C) \(\sqrt{a b}\)
D) \(\frac{b}{2}\) – a
Answer:
A) \(\frac{a+b}{2}\)

Question 97.
\(\frac{5}{-22}+\frac{13}{33}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 98.
The perimeter of given figure is………………

A) \(\frac{110}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{17}{32}\)
C) \(\frac{177}{20}\)
D) \(\frac{190}{41}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{177}{20}\)

Question 99.
The sum of two rational numbers is -7 the second number is \(\frac{-15}{7}\) then the second number is …………………
A) 1
B) 4
C) -1
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 100.
If we multiply the addition of \(\frac{91}{12}\) and \(\frac{11}{3}\) with their difference we get ……………………
A) \(\frac{111}{40}\)
B) \(\frac{135}{47}\)
C) \(\frac{119}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{35}{47}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{135}{47}\)

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The tribals of Arakuloya perform the dance.
A) Dhimsa
B) Sadir
C) Gusadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
A) Dhimsa

Question 2.
Lambadi are a semi-nomadic tribe in
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer:
B) Andhra Pradesh

Question 3.
Gusadi was performed by ………… of Adilabad.
A) the Chenchus
B) the Koyas
C) the Raj Gonds
D) Lambadi
Answer:
C) the Raj Gonds

Question 4.
Burrakatha is called …………… in coastal Andhra.
A) Burrakatha
B) Tambura katha
C) Thandhana katha
D) Jangam Katha
Answer:
D) Jangam Katha

Question 5.
Progressive artistes of the Communist Party set up the Praja Natya Mandali in
A) 1943
B) 1944
C) 1945
D) 1946
Answer:
A) 1943

Question 6.
The popularised Burrakatha artist, who awarded Padmasri was
A) Ramanjaneyulu
B) Nazar Vali
C) Ayodhya Ram
D) Sunkara Satyanarayana
Answer:
B) Nazar Vali

Question 7.
The row of lights the screen help in projecting the shadow of the screen.
A) on the backside of
B) above
C) in front of
D) by the side of
Answer:
A) on the backside of

Question 8.
The chuttuukamudu in one of the art form of ………… region.
A) Telangana
B) Andhra
C) Rayalaseema
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
A) Telangana

Question 9.
Natya Sastra was written by
A) Charaka
B) Siddhendra Yogi
C) Koutilya
D) Bharatha
Answer:
D) Bharatha

Question 10.
In 1935 the first stage performance given by ……………. was a mile stone.
A) Rukmini Devi
B) Bala Saraswathi
C) Naga Ratnamma
D) Anna Pavlov
Answer:
A) Rukmini Devi

Question 11.
Those who perform dance, sing, perform plays etc are called
A) Artistes
B) Singers
C) Dancers
D) Drama artists
Answer:
A) Artistes

Question 12.
…………… participate in Janapada arts.
A) Farmers
B) Ladies and gents of Girijanas
C) Form labourers
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 13.
The is one of the art form of Telangana that came out of the daily labour of the peasants.
A) Chuttarikam
B) Harikatha
C) Chuttukamudu
D) Deerghakama
Answer:
C) Chuttukamudu

Question 14.
Usually Chuttukamudu is performed by women who gather under the …………. sing chuttukamudu songs and dance to the rythm of clapping.
A) newmoon day
B) dark
C) moonlight
D) all the above
Answer:
C) moonlight

Question 15.
An example for famous Telugu Janapada Kalaroopa
A) Yakshagana
B) Jakula Bhagavatam
C) Veedhi Bhagavatam
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
Chindu Bhagavatam became popular from 13th century – These words are in the book.
A) Panditharadhya Charitra
B) Basava Puranam
C) Both A & B
D) Kreedaabhiraman
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 17.
The main issue in Yakshaganam
A) Conversations
B) Songs
C) Poems
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 18.
The artistes who perform ‘Sugreeva Vijayam, Bala Nagamma katha, Rambha Rampala, Chitrangada Vilasam and Krishnarjuna Yuddham.
A) Yakshaganas
B) Kinneras
C) Kimpurushulu
D) Kuravanjis
Answer:
A) Yakshaganas

Question 19.
The Rajgonds of Adilabad perform Gusadi dance on the occassion of this festival.
A) Dussehra
B) Bathukamma
C) Deepavali
D) Sankranthi
Answer:
C) Deepavali

Question 20.
The dance performed by Devadasi in temples from centuries together.
A) Gusadi
B) Sadir
C) Lambadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
A) Gusadi

Question 21.
……………….. wear clothes stitched with glass beads and mirrors.
A) Gonds
B) Devadasis
C) Lambadis
D) Kuravanjis
Answer:
B) Devadasis

Question 22.
A group dance by women, interpreting literary or poetic compositions, typically on the theme of fulfilment of the love of a girl for her beloved.
A) Gusadi
B) Sadir
C) Kuchipudi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
D) Kuravanji

Question 23.
Which dance is related to Kuchipudi in AP?
A) Bharatha Natyam
B) Yakshaganam
C) Kuchipudi Natyam
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
C) Kuchipudi Natyam

Question 24.
The kalaroopam that was formed in the background of Veerasaivam in 12th & 13th
A) Burrakatha
B) Harikatha
C) Jangala katha
D) Tholubommalata
Answer:
A) Burrakatha

Question 25.
The drummer to the right of the performer comments on issue
A) Mythological
B) Janapada
C) Political
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The writer of Nritya Ratnavali
A) Jayapa Senani
B) Rudra Senani
C) Veerabhadrudu
D) Vidyanathudu
Answer:
A) Jayapa Senani

Question 27.
Burrakatha is performed mostly during this festival.
A) Dussehra
B) Sankranthi
C) Deepavali
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 28.
………….. performed may Burrakathas during the Telangana movement.
A) Narayana
B) Salim
C) Nazar
D) Gokuldas
Answer:
C) Nazar

Question 29.
Sunkara Satyanarayana’s ‘Telangana’ was written in
A) 1940
B) 1944
C) 1948
D) 1952
Answer:
B) 1944

Question 30.
Burrakatha mainly focussed on
A) the oppression of the feudal landlord, Vishnuru Deshmukh
B) the heroism of Bandagi, a Muslim peasant
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 31.
Presently, government uses Burrakatha to advertise these issues.
A) Literacy
B) Aids
C) Railway
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 32.
Puppets are made of ………….
A) sealing vax
B) glass beads
C) bangles
D) animal skins
Answer:
D) animal skins

Question 33.
The size of puppets
A) 1 to 3 feet
B) 1 to 4 feet
C) 1 to 5 feet
D) 1 to 6 feet
Answer:
D) 1 to 6 feet

Question 34.
Number of Artistes in Tolubommalata
A) 8 to 10
B) 10 to 12
C) 8 to 12
D) No limit
Answer:
C) 8 to 12

Question 35.
The main topic in Tolubommalata
A) Ramayana
B) Mahabharatam
C) Local Veeragadhas
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
……………. a well known dancer brought Perini dance into lime light.
A) Bhanumathi Rama Krishna
B) Nataraj Rama Krishna
C) Yamini Purnima
D) Yamini Krishna Murthy
Answer:
B) Nataraj Rama Krishna

Question 37.
The writer of Natyasastra
A) Natyamuni
B) Bharata
C) Narada
D) Tumbura
Answer:
B) Bharata

Question 38.
Bharatanatyam belongs to this state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Telangana
C) Tamilnadu
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) Tamilnadu

Question 39.
Bharatanatyam springs flow
A) Tholubommalata
B) Gusadi
C) Sadir dance
D) Burrakatha
Answer:
C) Sadir dance

Question 40.
Devadasis have skills in this
A) Music
B) Dance
C) Both A & B
D) Sahityam
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 41.
The Gurus who teach dance
A) Sahitivettalu
B) Nattuvanars
C) Vedantists
D) Kala Brindas
Answer:
B) Nattuvanars

Question 42.
Which system was banned by an act in Bombay, Madras Presidency during 1934-1947?
A) Devadasi
B) Vetti
C) Slave
D) woman marraiges
Answer:
A) Devadasi

Question 43.
The musical instrument made with the hide of the goa attracts and makes the people to dance when it is played with two sticks.
A) Dappu
B) Tambura
C) Sitara
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Dappu

Question 44.
………….. was a freedom fighter and lawyer who had also learnt Bharatanatyam.
A) Bharathendru Harischandra
B) E. Krishna Iyer
C) N.T. Rama Rao
D) A. Nageswara Rao
Answer:
B) E. Krishna Iyer

Question 45.
……………… person a main role in establishing Music Academy in Madras.
A) N.T. Rama Rao
B) A. Nageswara Rao
C) E. Krishna Iyer
D) Chiranjeevi
Answer:
C) E. Krishna Iyer

Question 46.
…………..,Western artist started taking interest in the artistic heritage of India.
A) Ballerina Anna Parlova
B) William Jones
C) Maxmuller
D) Haimen darf
Answer:
A) Ballerina Anna Parlova

Question 47.
The spiritual heritage of India was being promoted by Westerners in the ……………..
A) Alwars movement
B) Theosophical movement
C) Nayanars movement
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Theosophical movement

Question 48.
……………. advised Rukmini Devi to learn Indian classical dance.
A) Anna Pavlova
B) Arundhathi Adangal
C) Vasanth male
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Anna Pavlova

Question 49.
Rukmini Devi’s debut performance in …………. was a mile stone.
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1940
D) 1945
Answer:
B) 1935

Question 50.
…………… encouraged the Devadasis tradition art.
A) Bala Saraswathi
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Durgabhai Deshmukh
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Bala Saraswathi

Question 51.
A diversity of styles from which the nattuvaranas being recognised.
A) Pandanallur
B) Vazhuvur
C) Thanjavur
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 52.
…………. acheived esteem that by the late 20th century.
A) Tholubommalata
B) Gusadi
C) Sadir
D) Bharata Natya
Answer:
D) Bharata Natya

Question 53.
The generation that protected the traditional dance is declined due to
A) nattuvanars were changed as teachers
B) without Nattuvanars many others came as teachers
C) changed as Janapada Kalarupam
D) none
Answer:
B) without Nattuvanars many others came as teachers

Question 54.
The dance was performed to worship Lord Siva aggressively in front of a Nataraj idol at the Siva temples and to motivate soldiers before going to wars.
A) Kuchipudi
B) Bharatha Natyam
C) Perini Nrityam
D) Sadir
Answer:
C) Perini Nrityam

Question 55.
Only men perform this dance.
A) Kuchipudi
B) Bharata Natyam
C) Perini Nrityam
D) Sadir
Answer:
C) Perini Nrityam

Question 56.
This dance form has been in practice since 13th century.
A) Perini Nrityam
B) Kuchipudi
C) Bharatanatyam
D) Gusadi
Answer:
A) Perini Nrityam

Question 57.
Choose the correct matching
1) Burrakatha                   ( )              a) Moscow Polimeralona
2) SK. Nazar Vali               ( )              b) The story of Tambura
3) Travelling artists           ( )              c) Natya Sastra
4) Bharatha                       ( )              d) Tholubommalata
5) Sadir                             ( )              e) The gurus of devadasis
6) Nattuvanars                  ( )              f) Devadasi
7) Anna Pavlov                  ( )             g) Odisha
8) Kathak                           ( )             h) Interested in artistic heritage of India
9) Bala Saraswathi             ( )             i) Rukmini Devi
10) Kalakshetra                  ( )             j) Devadasi lineage
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 -f, 4 – e, 5 – c, 6 – h, 7 – i, 8 – j, 9 – d, 10 – g
B) 1 – g, 2 – h, 3 – i, 4 – j, 5 – a, 6 – b, 7 – c, 8 – f, 9 – d, 10 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – f, 6 – e, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – j, 10 – i
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – h, 6 – i, 7 – j, 8 – e, 9 – f, 10 – g
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – f, 6 – e, 7 – h, 8 – g, 9 – j, 10 – i

Question 58.
The person looks like

A) a seller
B) a travelling fakir
C) a travelling bairagi
D) Both B and C
Answer:
A) a seller

Question 59.
‘Vinara Bharata Veera Kumara Vijayam Manadera’. ‘Tandana Tana’ is the popular refrain of the …………..
A) Burrakatha
B) Harikatha
C) Suggukatha
D) Oggukatha
Answer:
A) Burrakatha

Question 60.
Name the dance.

A) Dhimsa
B) Lambadi
C) Gusadi
D) Kuravanji
Answer:
B) Lambadi

Question 61.
‘Thandana Thana’ is the popular refrain of our art
A) Tholubommalata
B) Burrakatha
C) Oggukatha
D) None
Answer:
B) Burrakatha

Question 62.
We see this kind of dance in this film ………..

A) Bahubali
B) Rudramadevi
C) Goutamiputra Satakarni
D) None
Answer:
A) Bahubali

Question 63.
Why are the traditional forms of arts turning away?
A) Due to Cinemas
B) Due to Television programmes
C) Landlords and headmen no longer patronise them
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 64.
………………….. led a campaign against Devadasi system in Hyderabad.
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Kandukuri Veerasalingam Pantulu
C) Chilakamarthi Laxmi Narasimham Panthulu
D) None
Answer:
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Understanding Secularism on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Understanding Secularism with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Hitler persecuted the Jews in ………….. and killed them.
A) Germany
B) France
C) the Netherlands
D) England
Answer:
A) Germany

Question 2.
Israel is a …………….. country.
A) Muslim
B) Jewish
C) Christian
D) Buddhist
Answer:
B) Jewish

Question 3.
In Saudi Arabia ………………. are not allowed to build a temple or church.
A) Non-Hindus
B) Non-Christians
C) Non-Muslims
D) Non-Jains
Answer:
C) Non-Muslims

Question 4.
The Indian Constitution contains that protect us against State power as well as against the tyranny of the majority.
A) directive principles
B) civil laws
C) criminal laws
D) fundamental rights
Answer:
D) fundamental rights

Question 5.
The Indian Constitution is distancing itself from ……………
A) religion
B) people
C) leaders
D) parties
Answer:
A) religion

Question 6.
The Indian Constitution gives ………….. to religious community educational institutions.
A) political rights
B) financial aid
C) moral support
D) social rights
Answer:
B) financial aid

Question 7.
In America, the government school children begin their school day reciting the ……………
A) prayer
B) poems
C) pledge of Allegiance
D) none of the above
Answer:
C) pledge of Allegiance

Question 8.
The Indian Constitution guarantees the
A) People properties
B) Directive principles
C) Civil laws
D) Fundamental rights
Answer:
D) Fundamental rights

Question 9.
Indian state is a ………… state.
A) Secular
B) Religious
C) Above two
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Secular

Question 10.
In Feb, 2004 …………. passed a law banning any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols.
A) Germany
B) France
C) America
D) Russia
Answer:
B) France

Question 11.
Jews were persecuted and killed in Germany by …………..
A) Benitho Mussolini
B) Adolf Hitler
C) Winston Churchill
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Adolf Hitler

Question 12.
The nation of Jews.
A) America
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Israel
D) Palestina
Answer:
C) Israel

Question 13.
In this country, Non-Muslims are not permitted to construct temples and prayer halls.
A) Saudi Arabia
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) Kuwait
Answer:
A) Saudi Arabia

Question 14.
If any government gives official status to a religion it is a ………….
A) Secular state
B) Non religious state
C) Religious state
D) Anti religious state
Answer:
C) Religious state

Question 15.
In keeping with this idea (secularism) of religious freedom for all, ………….. also adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the state.
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Afghanistan
Answer:
A) India

Question 16.
Separation of religion from the government is
A) Nonreligious
B) Religious
C) Secular
D) Non related to religion
Answer:
C) Secular

Question 17.
This country faced several shortages of labour in 1960s
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Bangladesh
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 18.
The main objective of a Secular state as per the belief of India.
A) One religious community should not dominate another.
B) Some members of a religion do not dominate the other members of the same religious community.
C) The state should not enforce any particular religion on individuals nor takes away the religious freedom of individuals.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
The Indian Union
A) Stays away from religion
B) Stays near to the religion
C) Gives any type of importance to the religion
D) All the religion
Answer:
A) Stays away from religion

Question 20.
The Indian Constitution
A) encourages the untouchability
B) bans the untouchability
C) ignores the untouchability
D) none
Answer:
B) bans the untouchability

Question 21.
This is one of the rights provided by the Indian Constitution
A) encouraging violence
B) establishing own schools, colleges by the religious institutions
C) creating opportunities for robberies etc.
D) encouraging the persons who are anti-social elements
Answer:
B) establishing own schools, colleges by the religious institutions

Question 22.
The first amendment to the American Constitution
A) Prohibits the free exercise or establishment of the religion
B) Opposing the religion
C) Transparency
D) None
Answer:
A) Prohibits the free exercise or establishment of the religion

Question 23.
The nation which does not interfere in the religion
A) America
B) India
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Pakistan
Answer:
A) America

Question 24.
In Indian secularism, though the state is not strictly separate from religion, it does maintain a distance vis-a-vis religion.
A) Principled
B) Rajyabaddha
C) Samajabaddha
D) None
Answer:
A) Principled

Question 25.
In Feb 2004 passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols such as Islamic headscarf, Jewish skullcaps, or large Christian crosses.
A) India
B) Pakistan
C) Saudi Arabia
D) France
Answer:
D) France

Question 26.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                              Group – B
1) Fundamental Rights                              ( )      a) Civil laws
2) Germany                                                ( )      b) Pledge of Allegiance
3) Suspension of Fundamental Rights       ( )      c) that have guarantees
4) Equal inheritance rights                         ( )      d) In emergency
5) Under God                                             ( )      e) Hitler
A) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – e
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b
Answer:
D) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 27.
Separation of religion from the government.
A) gives protection to the minorities
B) opposes the domination of the majorities
C) takes care in not violating the fundamental rights.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
India can be called Secular
A) It neglects the fundamental rights
B) The Constitution guarantees the fundamental rights
C) Not giving religious freedom
D) Suffers the individuals with religious issues.
Answer:
B) The Constitution guarantees the fundamental rights

Question 29.
‘The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to set up their own schools even though it is secular.’
Pick the correct comment.
A) India is neither secular nor religious.
B) The intervention of the state can also be in the form of support.
C) Both A and B
D) A only
Answer:
B) The intervention of the state can also be in the form of support.

Question 30.

The flag is of ………….
A) the U.S.A.
B) the U.K.
C) the U.A.E.
D) Canada
Answer:
A) the U.S.A.

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Social and Religious Reform Movements on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…………… introduced the printing press in India.
A) Europeans
B) Americans
C) Africans
D) Chinese
Answer:
A) Europeans

Question 2.
Rammohan Roy was a ……………
A) Gujarathi
B) Bengali
C) Maharashtrian
D) Karnatic
Answer:
B) Bengali

Question 3.
Keshav Sen was the disciple of
A) Dayanada
B) Vivekananda
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

Question 4.
Arya Samaj was established in
A) 1864
B) 1876
C) 1874
D) 1875
Answer:
D) 1875

Question 5.
Gurukul Kangri University is in
A) Haridwar
B) Rishikesh
C) Badrinath
D) Kedaranath
Answer:
A) Haridwar

Question 6.
MAO was established in
A) Lucknow
B) Aligarh
C) Kashmir
D) Allahabad
Answer:
B) Aligarh

Question 7.
‘Sati’ was banned officially in
A) 1821
B) 1820
C) 1829
D) 1825
Answer:
C) 1829

Question 8.
‘Brahma Samaj’ was founded by
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Gurajada Appa Rao
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
Answer:
D) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 9.
Sharada Sadan in Mumbai was set up by
A) Ramabai
B) Savitri bai
C) Sarada mother
D) Jyothiba pule
Answer:
A) Ramabai

Question 10.
The person who said ‘Daliths were Adi Andhras’
A) Narayana guru
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Ambedkar
D) Kandukuri
Answer:
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 11.
…………. criticised orthodoxy among both Hindus and Muslims and pointed out oneness of God and equality of all human beings.
A) Non-Athiests
B) Bhakthi Saints
C) Ajeevakas
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Bhakthi Saints

Question 12.
The Christians used for religious propoganda
A) Educational institutions
B) Hospitals
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
Several European scholars studied the ancient literature of India, translated them, published them as books, and also influenced by them, therefore they were called
A) Paschatya pandits
B) Orientalists
C) Nation scholar
D) Foreign scholars
Answer:
B) Orientalists

Question 14.
Raja Rama Mohan Roy born in Bengal in the year
A) 1770
B) 1771
C) 1772
D) 1774
Answer:
C) 1772

Question 15.
The main concepts of Raja Rama Mohan Roy
A) God is only one
B) Idol worship and sacrificing is not correct
C) Rejecting the supremacy of the priests
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The Brahma Samaj was established by Raja Rama Mohan Roy in
A) 1825
B) 1826
C) 1827
D) 1828
Answer:
D) 1828

Question 17.
Raja Ramo Mohan Roy died in Bristal in
A) 1830
B) 1831
C) 1832
D) 1833
Answer:
D) 1833

Question 18.
Who lead the Brahmo Samaj after the death of Raja Rama Mohana Roy?
A) Devendranath Tagore
B) Keshav Chandrasen
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 19.
Who established the Prarthana Samaj?
A) R.G. Bhandarkar
B) M.G. Ranade
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 20.
The Brahma Samaj was established in A.P.
A) Veeresalingam Panthulu
B) Janga Reddy
C) Bhagya Varma
D) Chilakamarthi Laxmi Narasimham Panthulu
Answer:
A) Veeresalingam Panthulu

Question 21.
At last Keshavsen became the disciple of this person.
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Dayananda Saraswathi
D) Raja Rama Mohan Roy
Answer:
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa

Question 22.
The Rama Krishna Mission was established by
A) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
B) Swamy Vivekananda
C) Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi
D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer:
B) Swamy Vivekananda

Question 23.
Vivekananda wanted to adopt positive qualities of the European culture like.
A) Freedom
B) Respect for women
C) Work ethic, technology
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi was a social reformer during time
A) 1820 – 1880
B) 1824 – 1883
C) 1880 – 1903
D) 1857 – 1907
Answer:
B) 1824 – 1883

Question 25.
The Arya Samaj was established in 1875 by
A) Ram Mohan Roy
B) Dayananda Saraswathi
C) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
D) Swamy Vivekananda
Answer:
B) Dayananda Saraswathi

Question 26.
The book written by Dayananda Saraswathi
A) Satyartha Prakash
B) Rigveda Bhashya
C) Both A & B
D) Kadambari
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 27.
His basic aim was to become “Part of Hindu society rather than to remain outside of it”.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Naryana Guru
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma
D) Arige Rama Swamy
Answer:
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 28.
These were rejected by Maulvis
A) Modern science
B) Philosophy
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 29.
The person that wished the end of the enemity between the Muslims and the Britishers.
A) Sri Syed Ahmed Khan
B) Fazal Ali
C) Rehmat Ali
D) Abdul Latif
Answer:
A) Sri Syed Ahmed Khan

Question 30.
The movement started by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan for social reforms and spreading of modern education. ( )
A) Brahma Samaj
B) Arya Samaj
C) Theosophical Society
D) Aligarh Movement
Answer:
D) Aligarh Movement

Question 31.
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan started scientific society in
A) 1860
B) 1864
C) 1870
D) 1872
Answer:
B) 1864

Question 32.
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan estabiised Mohammada Anglo Oriented college in Aligarh
A) 1870
B) 1872
C) 1875
D) 1880
Answer:
C) 1875

Question 33.
The burning herself with the dead body of her husband is called
A) Pathi
B) Pathni
C) Sati
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Sati

Question 34.
In ……….. year, a law was passed to disallow marriage of girls below 10 years.
A) 1840
B) 1846
C) 1850
D) 1856
Answer:
B) 1846

Question 35.
In which year disallow marriage of girls was raised to 12 years?
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1890
D) 1891
Answer:
D) 1891

Question 36.
Which Act enhanced the age of marriage of girl children to 14 years in 1929?
A) Saraswathi Act
B) Sarada Act
C) Marriage Limitation Act
D) Education Act
Answer:
B) Sarada Act

Question 37.
The marriage age for girls is 18 years and for boys is 21 years’. This was fixed in the year.
A) 1978
B) 1980
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer:
A) 1978

Question 38.
“The Jagan Mitra Mandali’ was established by Bhagya Reddy Varma in the year
A) 1906
B) 1926
C) 1936
D) 1946
Answer:
A) 1906

Question 39.
………….. promoted the adoption of Buddhism by Dalits.
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Arige Rama Swamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
A) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 40.
The first widow remarriage was celebrated in Calcutta
A) 1856
B) 1857
C) 1855
D) 1858
Answer:
A) 1856

Question 41.
During Nizam rule under the British Paramountcy, social reformers like Mohib Hussain started a journal for writing on women’s
issues.
A) Mullim – e – Niswan
B) Shamsher
C) Gora
D) Rajak
Answer:
A) Mullim – e – Niswan

Question 42.
……………… encouraged women to participate in non-co-operation and Satyagraha movements.
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehru
C) Patel
D) Bhagya Reddy Varma
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 43.
“Our nation is most conservative and adament in nature, it adheres to the oldest customs and habits”. Who said these words?
A) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B) Mohib Hussain
C) Abdul Latif
D) Md. Gayyum
Answer:
B) Mohib Hussain

Question 44.
Who is the person played a key role in attaining Women’s rights in Maharashtra?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Durgabhai Deshmukh
C) Sarojini Naidu
D) None
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 45.
She is the first teacher in the school established by Jyothiba Phule for girls of untouchables in Pune in 1848.
A) Durgabhai Deshmukh
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Savitribai Phule
D) Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
Answer:
C) Savitribai Phule

Question 46.
The ‘Satya Sodhak Samaj’ was founded by
A) Jyothiba Phule
B) Raja Rama Mohan Roy
C) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D) Madan Mohan Malaviya
Answer:
A) Jyothiba Phule

Question 47.
Who worked hard for the diseased people due to plague in Maharashtra?
A) Savitri Bai Phule
B) Meerabai
C) Tulasi Bai
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Savitri Bai Phule

Question 48.
………………. person worked with Savitri bai.
A) Meerabai
B) Ahalya bai
C) Tarabai
D) Tulasi bai
Answer:
C) Tarabai

Question 49.
Ramabai was born in this state.
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Gao
D) U.P.
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 50.
“The men behave with ladies like as with animals” – Who said these words.
A) Tara Bai
B) Rama bai
C) Savitribai
D) Tulasi bai
Answer:
B) Rama bai

Question 51.
The ‘Sarada Sadan’ school and Ashram was established in Mumbai by
A) Ramabai
B) Tarabai
C) Savitribai
D) Meerabai
Answer:
A) Ramabai

Question 52.
Who opened schools in Kolkata and Patna for Muslim girls?
A) Ramabai
B) Tarabai
C) Both A & B
D) Begam Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
Answer:
D) Begam Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Question 53.
These persons played a keyrole in educating the children of lower castes
A) Christian Missionaries
B) Islam religious heads
C) Popes
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Christian Missionaries

Question 54.
Jyothiba Phule was born in the state of
A) West Bengal
B) Utter Pradesh
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
D) Maharashtra

Question 55.
The main principles of ‘Satya Sodhak Samaj’
A) Truth
B) Equality
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
The book written by Jyothiba Phule
A) Salam
B) Gulamgiri
C) Vandemataram
D) Untouchability
Answer:
B) Gulamgiri

Question 57.
Who called upon the low castes to conduct marriage and death ceremonies without Brahmins?
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Jyothiba Phule
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B) Jyothiba Phule

Question 58.
Who preached the idea of ‘One Jathi, One God and One Religion for all?
A) Jyothiba Phule
B) Narayana Guru
C) Sukhdev
D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
B) Narayana Guru

Question 59.
…………… called upon the Ezhava community to give up making liquor and animal sacrifices.
A) Naryana Guru
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Jyothiba Phule
D) Savitribai Phule
Answer:
A) Naryana Guru

Question 60.
……………. said that building schools for children was more important than building temples.
A) Narayana Guru
B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Savitri bai
D) Jyothiba Phule
Answer:
A) Narayana Guru

Question 61.
……………. was one of the first dalits to obtain college education in India.
A) B.R. Ambedkar
B) Naryana Guru
C) Jyothi baphule phule
D) None
Answer:
A) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 62.
In ………………. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar began public movements for the rights to dalits to use public drinking water resources and to enter Hindu temples.
A) 1920
B) 1927
C) 1930
D) 1932
Answer:
B) 1927

Question 63.
He was invited in 1932 by the colonial government to a conference on political future of India.
A) Narayana Guru
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Bhagya Reddy Varma
D) Jyothiba Phule
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 64.
Who named the untouchables as ‘Harijans’ or ‘people of God’?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Arige Ramaswammy
Answer:
C) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 65.
The first law minister of Independent India.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Muthaiah
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyer
Answer:
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 66.
The President of the Drafting Committee of our Indian Constitution.
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R, Ambedkar
C) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 67.
………….. fought for women extensive economic and social rights.
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Babu Jagjeevan Ram
D) Eswari bai
Answer:
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 68.
Who fought for the Rights of dalits in Andhra Pradesh?
A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma
C) Arige Ramaswamy
D) Narayana Guru
Answer:
B) Bhagya Reddy Varma

Question 69.
The original name of Bhagya Reddy Varna.
A) Gorati Venkayya
B) Medari Bagaiah
C) Arige Rama Swamy
D) Naryana Guru
Answer:
B) Medari Bagaiah

Question 70.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                Group – B
1) Raja Rammohan Roy        ( )               a) Arya Samaj
2) Vivekananda                     ( )               b) Brahmo Samaj
3) Keshav Sen                       ( )               c) Satya Shodhak Samaj
4) Dayananda Saraswathi     ( )               d) Ramakrishna Mission
5) Jyotiba Phule                    ( )               e) Prarthana Samaj
A) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – c

Question 71.
Group – A                                                     Group – B
1) 1875                                      ( )               a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
2) 1856                                      ( )               b) The death of Rammohan Roy
3) 1833                                      ( )               c) MAO
4) Satyartha Prakash                 ( )               d) First widow remarriage
5) A Scientific Society 1864      ( )               e) Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a, 5 – e
D) 1 – a, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – b
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – a

Question 72.
‘Many Christian Missionaries came to India along with the European companies’
A) To preach Christianity
B) To spread Christianity
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 73.
In 1846, a law was passed to disallow marriage of girls below ten years. In 1891 this was raised to 12 years. In 1929, through the Sharada Act, the minimum age was raised to 14 years. The limit was raised in 1978 to 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The age is raised for the mental and physical maturity.
B) Child marriages are failures.
C) I don’t know.
D) All the above
Answer:
A) The age is raised for the mental and physical maturity.

Question 74.
Name the picture.

A) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
B) Narayana Guru
C) Jyothiba Phule
D) Raja Ramamohan Roy
Answer:
A) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 75.
Connect Jyothiba Phule with one of the following.
A) Arya Samaj
B) Satya Sodhak Samaj
C) Brahma Samaj
D) None
Answer:
B) Satya Sodhak Samaj

Question 76.
The person connected to the Constitution at present in the hearts of people
A) Dr. B.R. Prasad
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) All the above
Answer:
C) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 77.
The followers of Dayananda Saraswathi established after his death in 1883.
A) National Educational Institutions
B) Dayanand Anglo Vedic Schools
C) Guru Kulas
D) Judicial Educational Institutions
Answer:
B) Dayanand Anglo Vedic Schools

Question 78.
The ‘Sati’ was banned officially in
A) 1820
B) 1829
C) 1830
D) 1835
Answer:
B) 1829

Question 79.
The year of Widow Remarriage Act passed.
A) 1850
B) 1855
C) 1860
D) 1865
Answer:
B) 1855

Question 80.
Who fought against the practice of polygamy?
A) Vivekananda
B) Vidyasagar
C) Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
D) Dayananda Saraswathi
Answer:
B) Vidyasagar

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Statistics on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths Bits 14th Lesson Statistics with Answers

Question 1.
The mode of the values sin 0°, cos 0°, sin 90° and tan 45° is
A) 0
B) √3
C) 1
D) \(\)
Answer:
C) 1

Question 2.
Match the following.
Set – A
1. If the median of \(\frac{x}{5}, \frac{x}{3}, \frac{x}{4}\) is 5, then x =………………
2. Mean of the scores 1 – x, 1, x + 1 is …………………
3. If the mode of x, \(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{x}{2}, \frac{x}{3}, \frac{x}{3}, \frac{x}{3}\) is 5, then x = …………………

Set – B
(P) 15
(q) 20
(r) 1
A) 1 → r, 2 → p, 3 → q
B) 1 → q, 2 → r, 3 → p
C) 1 → q, 2 → p, 3 → r
D) 1 → p, 2 → r, 3 → q
Answer:
B) 1 → q, 2 → r, 3 → p

Question 3.
Median of the scores 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, …………………… 99 is …………………..
A) 51
B) 50
C) 49
D) 48
Answer:
B) 50

Question 4.
Which one of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency ?
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) Mode
Answer:
C) Range

Question 5.
For the terms, x + 1, x + 2, x – 1, x + 3 and x – 2(x ∈ N), if the median of the data is 12, then x = ………………….
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 13
Answer:
C) 11

Question 6.
3, 2, 4, 3, 5, 2, x, 6. If the mode of this data is 3, then x = ………………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 7.
Median of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is ……………….
A) 2
B) 5.5
C) 5
D) 4.5
Answer:
D) 4.5

Question 8.
To elect the leader of your class from 3 contestants, which of the following measures are to be considered ?
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Range
Answer:
B) Mode

Question 9.
From the given graph of Ogives, median is ………………..

A) 15
B) 10
C) 40
D) 20
Answer:
C) 40

Question 10.
Mid values are used to find
A) mean
B) median
C) mode
D) range
Answer:
A) mean

Question 11.
The mean df first five prime numbers is
A) 4
B) 4.6
C) 5.6
D) 5
Answer:
C) 5.6

Question 12.
Median of the data 6, 10, 20, x, 12, 14 is 12, then x =
A) 6
B) 10
C) 4
D) 14
Answer:
B) 10

Question 13.
The A.M of a + 2, a, a – 2 is ……………….
A) a + 2
B) a
C) a – 2
D) 3a
Answer:
B) a

Question 14.
The midvalue of the class 10 – 19 is ………………….
A) 24.5
B) 20.5
C) 23.5
D) 14.5
Answer:
D) 14.5

Question 15.
Cumulative frequency are used in ……………… calculations.
A) A.M.
B) median
C) range
D) mode
Answer:
B) median

Question 16.
While drawing ogive curve we take on X-axis and Y-axis the following respectively.
A) class interval, frequency
B) lower boundary, upper boundary
C) boundaries, cumulative frequency
D) upper boundary, lower boundary
Answer:
C) boundaries, cumulative frequency

Question 17.
The mean of 10 observations is 16.3. By an error, one observation is registered as 32 instead of 23, the correct mean is …………………..
A) 16.1
B) 18.5
C) 15.4
D) 14.8
Answer:
C) 15.4

Question 18.
The mean of data is. 10. If each observation is multiplied by 2 and 1 is subtracted from each result, the mean of the new observation is ………………..
A) 21
B) 19
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
B) 19

Question 19.
The mean of 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 4 is m. The numbers 3, 2, 2, 4, 3, 3, p have mean m – 1 and median q, then p + q = …………………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) 6
D) 7
Answer:
D) 7

Question 20.
If the median of the data : 24, 25, 26, x + 2, x + 3, 30, 31, 34 is 27.5, then (Data in the ascending order) is ………………..
A) 27
B) 25
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
B) 25

Question 21.
Constructing of a cumulative frequency table is useful in finding………………..
A) median
B) mean
C) mode
D) mean, median, mode
Answer:
A) median

Question 22.
The abscissa of the point of inter section of less than type and more than type ogive curves gives ………………….
A) median
B) mean
C) mode
D) standard deviation
Answer:
A) median

Question 23.
The mode of data 3, 3, 4, 5, 3, 5, 6, 3, 7, 9, 11, 7
A) 3
B) 7
C) 3 or 7
D) does not exist
Answer:
A) 3

Question 24.

In the above distribution the modal class is
A) 10-20
B) 20-30
C) 30-40
D) 40-50
Answer:
C) 30-40

Question 25.
The mean of n observations X₁, X₂, ………………., X_n repeated f₁, f₂, …………….., f_n times respectively is

D) None
Answer:

Question 26.
The sum of lower limit of median class and upper limit of model class is

A) 60
B) 40
C) 90
D) 50
Answer:
B) 40

Question 27.
A data has 13 observations arranged in descending order. Which observation presents the median of the data ?
A) 17th
B) 6th
C) 7th
D) None
Answer:
C) 7th

Question 28.
Cummulative frequency is used to calculate
A) median
B) mode
C) mean
D) None
Answer:
A) median

Question 29.
Under the usual notations the formula for calculating mode for grouped frequency distribution is

Answer:

Question 30.
Themean of a + 1,a + 3,a + 4 and a + 8 is
A) a + 7
B) a + 4
C) a – 3
D) None
Answer:
C) a – 3

Question 31.
If 5 is added to each and every item of a data, then the arithmetic mean is
A) 5 times to the first arithmetic mean
B) increased by 5 to the first arithmetic mean
C) equal to the first arithmetic mean
D) None
Answer:
B) increased by 5 to the first arithmetic mean

Question 32.
The median of 24, 20, 32, 18, 28, 16, 25 is
A) 18
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
Answer:
C) 24

Question 33.
The median of the following distribution is

A) 23.75
B) 23.25
C) 25.125
D) None
Answer:
C) 25.125

Question 34.
For the data 9, 8, 7, 7, 6, 3, 7, 2, 1, 7, 9 the mode is
A) 9
B) 7
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
B) 7

Question 35.
The modal class of following distribution is

A) 1 – 3
B) 3 – 5
C) 5 – 7
D) None
Answer:
B) 3 – 5

Question 36.
The arithmetic mean of 12, 15, 13, 20, 25 is
A) 17
B) 20
C) 18
D) None
Answer:
A) 17

Question 37.
The width of the class in the distribution having class intervals 1 – 20, 21 – 40,41 – 60 is
A) 19
B) 19.5
C) 20
D) 20.5
Answer:
C) 20

Question 38.
The arithmetic mean of the following data is

A) 18.4
B) 19.4
C) 12.4
D) 15.4
Answer:
D) 15.4

Question 39.
If mean = 44 and median = 42, then mode =
A) 34
B) 36
C) 38
D) 40
Answer:
C) 38

Question 40.
Which of the following is more consistent ?
A) AM
B) Median
C) Mode
D) None
Answer:
A) AM

Question 41.
The mode of 5, \(\frac{x}{2}\), 6,7, \(\frac{x}{2}\), 3, \(\frac{x}{2}\) is 9. Then the value of x is
A) 3
B) 4.5
C) 2
D) 18
Answer:
B) 4.5

Question 42.
Find the mean of the marks of the students from the given table :

A) 20
B) 25
C) 15
D) 10
Answer:
C) 15

Question 43.
The median of the grouped data can be calculated using the formula

Answer:

Question 44.
The median of 5, 3, 10, 7, 2, 9, 11, 2 is
A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 2
Answer:
C) 7

Question 45.
The median of 5, 6, 9,10, 8,4, 3, 7,11 is
A) 8
B) 7
C) 9
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 46.
If the Arithmetic mean of 8, 6,4, x, 3, 6, 0 is 4; then the value of x = ……………..
A) 7
B) 6
C) 1
D) 4
Answer:
C) 1

Question 47.
Extreme values in the data affect …………………
A) Arithmetic mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
A) Arithmetic mean

Question 48.
Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency ?
A) Range
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Mean
Answer:
A) Range

Question 49.
Length of the class 11-20 is ………………
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 20
Answer:
B) 10

Question 50.
In “More than Ogive curve”, we consider in drawing ……………………
A) more than cumulative frequency, lower limits
B) more than cumulative frequency, upper limits
C) less than cumulative frequency, lower limits
D) less than cumulative frequency, upper limits
Answer:
A) more than cumulative frequency, lower limits

Question 51.
Observe the following tables :

For finding Arithmetic Mean by Direct method, the suggested frequency distribution table is ………………..
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) (1) and (2) are true
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Only (1) is true

Question 52.
Median = l + \(\left[\frac{\left(\frac{n}{2}-c f\right)}{f}\right]\) h, where cf = ………………….
A) Cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class.
B) Cumulative frequency of the median class.
C) Cumulative frequency of the class succeeding the median class.
D) Sum of the frequencies.
Answer:
A) Cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class.

Question 53.
Observe the following graphs.

Which of the above given figures represents ‘less than’ Ogive curve ?
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Only (2) is true

Question 54.
Range of first 5 natural numbersds
A) 0
B) 4
C) 5
D) 9
Answer:
B) 4

Question 55.
Class interval of 1 – 10 is
A) 8
B) 12
C) 11
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 56.
In a data maximum value = x; minimum value = y. Then range
A) x + y
B) x – 1
C) x – y
D) x + 1
Answer:
C) x – y

Question 57.
Mid value of the class 10 – 20 is
A) 15
B) 13
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
A) 15

Question 58.
The class interval of the classes 0 – 7, 7 – 14,14 – 21 ………………….etc.,is
A) 0
B) 7
C) 9
D) 8
Answer:
B) 7

Question 59.
The mean of a – 2, a, a + 2 is …………………
A) 3a
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{3}\)
C) 1
D) a
Answer:
D) a

Question 60.
The sum of all deviations taken from Mean =
A) 0
B) -1
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
A) 0

Question 61.
A data arranged in descending order has 25 observations. Which observation represents the median ?
A) 15^th
B) 14^th
C) 13^th
D) 12^th
Answer:
C) 13^th

Question 62.
The median of 3, 6, 1, 16, 8, 12 is …………………
A) 12
B) 6
C) 9
D) 8
Answer:
B) 6

Question 63.
Mode of the data 1, 1, 1, 1, 5, 5, 5, 5 is …………………….
A) 5
B) 1
C) 3
D) doesn’t exist
Answer:
D) doesn’t exist

Question 64.
Mean of 3, 5, 0, x, 11 is 7, then x =
A) 3
B) 4
C) 7
D) 5
Answer:
C) 7

Question 65.
Range = 25; Maximum value = 30, then the Minimum value is ………………….
A) 9
B) 8
C) 5
D) 7
Answer:
C) 5

Question 66.
The sum of 12 observations is 240, then mean is ……………….
A) 10
B) 12
C 16
D) 20
Answer:
D) 20

Question 67.
If the mean and mode of a grouped data is 24 and 26.5 respectively then the median is …………………
A) 24. 38
B) 24. 83
C) 23. 48
D) 23. 84
Answer:
B) 24. 83

Question 68.
The median of the ungrouped data 2, 12, 7, 5, 10 and 6 is
A) 5.5
B) 6
C) 13
D) 6.5
Answer:
D) 6.5

Question 69.
Median = 52.5; Mean = 54 then mode
A) 49.5
B) 48.5
C) 40. 5
D) 60.1
Answer:
A) 49.5

Question 70.
Mode = 24.5, Mean = 29.75, then Median = ………………….
A) 28
B) 16
C) 20
D) 82
Answer:
A) 28

Question 71.
Σ f (x) = 200; n = 20, then \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\) =
A) 29
B) 20
C) 16
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 72.
The AM of 10 numbers is 20, AM of 30 numbers is 60. AM of combined data is ………………………
A) 40
B) 12
C) 13
D) 50
Answer:
D) 50

Question 73.
Mean of 8, 6, 4, x, 3, 6, 0 is 4, then x =
A) 0
B) 1
C) 4
D) 14
Answer:
B) 1

Question 74.
Mean of -3, -2, -1,0, 1, 2, 3 is
A) 0
B) -1
C) -2
D) 3
Answer:
A) 0

Question 75.
The median of 8, 10, 4, 3, 2, 11, 1 is
A) 4
B) 3
C) 7
D) 8
Answer:
A) 4

Question 76.
The median of scores x₁, x₂ and 2x₁, is 6 and x₁ < 2x₁ < x₂ then x₁ = ………………….
A) 7
B) 13
C) 3
D) 6
Answer:
C) 3

Question 77.
The range of first n natural numbers is …………………
A) n + 1
B) n – 1
C) n
D) 2n -1
Answer:
B) n – 1

Question 78.
Median of 1 to 9 natural numbers is …………………
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 79.
Median of \(\frac{3}{4}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{2}{3}, \frac{1}{6}, \frac{7}{12}\) is
A) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{12}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{7}{12}\)

Question 80.
Mean of a – 2d, a – d, a + d and a + 2d is
A) -a
B) 3a
C) a
D) 5a
Answer:
C) a

Question 81.
The mean of first 5 odd multiples of 5 is
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 35
Answer:
C) 25

Question 82.
The mean of 10 numbers is 7. The mean of 15 numbers is 12 then the mean of all observations is ……………………
A) 9
B) 10
C) 12
D) 11
Answer:
B) 10

Question 83.
Mode of 2004, 2005, 2006, ………………… 2015 is ………………….
A) 2004
B) 2015
C) 2009
D) no mode
Answer:
D) no mode

Question 84.
The sum of the lower limit and upper limit of the modal class from the above distribution table.
A) 90
B) 110
C) 70
D) 50
Answer:
C) 70

Question 85.
Mean of first ‘n’ natural numbers is ……………………
A) n
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)

Question 86.
The mean of a data is 9. If each observation is multiplied by 3 and then 1 is added to each result, then the mean of new observation is…………………….
A) 19
B) 20
C) 28
D) 30
Answer:
C) 28

Question 87.
Average of 11 scores is 10.5. If one score 9 is deleted, then the average of the remaining scores is ………………….
A) 10.16
B) 10.06
C) 10.65
D) 13.6
Answer:
C) 10.65

Question 88
……………… is effected by extreme values.
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Mean and Median
Answer:
A) Mean

Question 89.
If each observation of data is increased by ‘a’ then mean is increases by………………….
A) a
B) \(\frac{a}{2}\)
C) a²
D) a + 1
Answer:
A) a

Question 90.
To find median, classes should be ……………….
A) of same frequencies
B) of same length
C) continuous
D) discontinuous
Answer:
C) continuous

Question 91.
For a distribution with odd number (n) of observations, the median is ……………… observation
A) \(\frac{n^{\text {th }}}{2}\)
B) (\(\frac{n+1}{2}\))^th
C) \(\frac{n-1}{2}\))^th
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\) – 1) ^th
Answer:
B) (\(\frac{n+1}{2}\))^th

Question 92.
Mean of n – observations x₁, x₂ ……………… x_n repeated f₁, f₂ …………….. f_n times is

Answer:

Question 93.
In the class 0 – 10,10 – 20,20 – 30,30 – 40 ……………….. lower limit of 10 – 20 is
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 15
Answer:
A) 10

Question 94.
Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency ?
A) Mean
B) Range
C) Mode
D) Median
Answer:
B) Range

Question 95.
Which of the following is same as representative of the whole class ?
A) Lower limit
B) Length of the class
C) Upper limit
D) Midpoint
Answer:
D) Midpoint

Question 96.
The information collected is called
A) Data
B) Mean
C) Median
D) Mode
Answer:
A) Data

Question 97.
Which of the following measures do you use to find average of marks obtained by a student in the class
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
A) Mean

Question 98.
For a symmetrical distribution, which is correct ?
A) Mean > Median > Mode
B) Mean < Median < Mode
C) Mean = Median = Mode
D) \(\frac{\text { Mean }+\text { Median }}{2}\) = Mode
Answer:
C) Mean = Median = Mode

Question 99.
For a continuous grouped frequency distribution, the median is given by

Answer:

Question 100
For a distribution with even number (n) of observations the median is ……………… terms.

Answer:

Question 101.
Mode of a continuous grouped distribution is

Answer:

Question 102.
If x_i and f_i are sufficiently small, then which method is an appropriate choice to find mean
A) Assumed – Mean method
B) Step deviation method
C) Direct method
D) Class interval method
Answer:
C) Direct method

Question 103.
If assumed mean is ‘a’, then mean =

Answer:

Question 104.
In the formula of Mode in the grouped data ‘l’ represents
A) lower limit of the class with highest frequency
B) lower limit of the class with lowest frequency
C) upper boundary of the class with highest frequency
D) lower boundary of the class with low frequency
Answer:
A) lower limit of the class with highest frequency

Question 105.
………………… of all bars is same in bargraph.
A) Length
B) Width
C) Circle
D) Height
Answer:
B) Width

Question 106.
In the formula of median in the grouped data ‘l’ represents
A) upper limit of the median class
B) lower limit of the median class
C) upper boundary of the median class
D) lower boundary of the median class
Answer:
B) lower limit of the median class

Question 107.
The class mark of a class interval is
A) upper boundary + lower boundary
B) upper boundary – lower boundary
C) \(\frac{\text { upper boundary + lower boundary }}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{\text { upper boundary – lower boundary }}{2}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\text { upper boundary + lower boundary }}{2}\)

Question 108.
|| represents
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
C) 7

Question 109
………………… is known as Father of Statistics.
A) Thales
B) Fisher
D) Cayley
D) Thompson
Answer:
B) Fisher

Question 110.
Number of items in a class interval is called
A) Range
B) Class
C) Frequency
D) Raw data
Answer:
C) Frequency

Question 111.
Mid values are used to calculate
A) Median
B) Mode
C) Mean
D) Range
Answer:
C) Mean

Question 112.
Mode is the value of variable which occurs ………….. number of times.
A) Minimum
B) Zero
C) Maximum
D) 2
Answer:
C) Maximum

Question 113.
We use ……………… to conclude which school has a better performance in an examination.
A) Median
B) Mean
C) Mode
D) Cumulative frequency
Answer:
B) Mean

Question 114.
Representing data with the help of pictures is called
A) bargraph
B) data
C) pictograph
D) line graph
Answer:
C) pictograph

Question 115.
Histograms consists of
A) circles
B) rectangles
C) sectors
D) squares
Answer:
B) rectangles

Question 116.
Pie diagram consists of
A) rectangles
B) squares
C) circles
D) sectors
Answer:
D) sectors

Question 117.
If the mean of x₁, x₂, x₃ ………………… x_n is \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\) then the mean of \(\frac{\mathbf{x}_{1}}{\mathbf{a}}, \frac{\mathbf{x}_{\mathbf{2}}}{\mathbf{a}}\) ……………… \(\frac{\mathbf{x}_{\mathrm{n}}}{\mathrm{a}}\) is
A) a . \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\)
B) \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\) – a
C) \(\frac{\overline{\mathbf{x}}}{\mathbf{a}}\)
D) \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\) + a
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\overline{\mathbf{x}}}{\mathbf{a}}\)

Question 118.
Empirical relation among Mean, Median and Mode is
A) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
B) Mode = 2 Median – 3 Mean
C) Mode = 3 Median – Mean
D) Mode = Median – Mean
Answer:
A) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

Question 119.
x – coordinate of point of inter-section of the cumulative frequency ogive is
A) Range
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Mode
Answer:
B) Median

Question 120.
We use ………………. to conclude average IQ (Intelligent Quotient)of a students in a class
A) Median
B) Mean
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
A) Median

Question 121.
Construction of cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
B) Median

Question 122.
The mean of the following data is

A) 15. 0
B) 15. 1
C) 15. 9
D) 16. 2
Answer:
B) 15. 1

Question 123.
Mode from the following data is

A) 5
B) 25
C) 15
D) 10
Answer:
C) 15

Question 124.

The mean of the above data is 3.55 then k =
A) 10
B) 12
C) 31
D) 41
Answer:
A) 10

Question 125.
The mean class of the following distribution is

A) 60 – 70
B) 50 – 60
C) 40 – 50
D) 30 – 40
Answer:
D) 30 – 40

Question 126.
For a given data with observation the ‘less than Ogive’ and ‘more than Ogive’ intersect
at (15.5, 20). The median of the data is
A) 20
B) 15.5
C) 10.5
D) 4.5
Answer:
B) 15.5

Question 127.
The modal class in the following frequency distribution is

A) 30 – 40
B) 40 – 50
C) 50 – 60
D) 20 – 30
Answer:
A) 30 – 40

Question 128.
The abscissa of the point of inter-section of the less than type and greater than type cumulative frequency curves of a grouped data gives its …………………….
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
B) Median

Question 129.
Which of the following graph represents LCF curve

Answer:

Question 130.
Identify GCF curve from the following

Answer:

Question 131.
The adjancent figure represents ………………

A) Histogram
B) Pie chart
C) Picto graph
D) Range
Answer:
A) Histogram

Question 132.
In a pie chart we communicate the data with the figures which are in the form of …………………….
A) Circles
B) Sectors
C) Lines
D) Rectangles
Answer:
B) Sectors

Question 133.
Which of the following is difficult to construct always ?
A) Pie chart
B) Bar graph
C) Range
D) Picto graph
Answer:
D) Picto graph

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 13 Probability on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths Bits 13th Lesson Probability with Answers

Question 1.
If P(E) = 0.09, then P (not E) in percentage is …………………
A) 9.1%
B) 91%
C) 0.91%
D) 0.091%
Answer:
B) 91%

Question 2.
Let E and \(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\) be the complementary events. If P(\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) = 0.65, then P(E) = ……………….
A) 0.40
B) 0.45
C) 0.35
D) 0.30
Answer:
C) 0.35

Question 3.
Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event ?
A) 0.2
B) \(\frac {2}{5}\)
C) 0.72
D) 1.\(\overline{3}\)
Answer:
D) 1.\(\overline{3}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following situations have equally likely events ?
1) Getting 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 when a dice is rolled.
2) Winning or loosing a game.
3) Head or Tail, when a coin is tossed.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) All
Answer:
D) All

Question 5.
The probability of picking a letter from the set of English alphabets is \(\frac {5}{26}\) .
That alphabet can be ………………….
A) consonant
B) vowel
C) any alphabet
D) none
Answer:
B) vowel

Question 6.
Probability of getting 7, when a dice is rolled, is ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 7.
If P(E) = 0.26, then P(\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) = ………………..
A) 0.74
B) 0
C) 0.26
D) 1
Answer:
A) 0.74

Question 8.
If a die is rolled, then the probability of getting a prime number is …………………..
A) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
At what value of ‘x’, \(\frac{5}{x}\) may be possible probability of an event ?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 10.
On random selection, the probability of getting a composite number among the numbers from 51 to 100.
A) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 11.
Probability of impossible event is …………………
A) 0
B) 1
C) 1.0 (or) 0.5
D) 0.5
Answer:
A) 0

Question 12.
From the 50 cards numbered from 1 to 50, a card is drawn at random, then the probability that the number on the card is divisible by 8 is
A) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{20}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{25}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{3}{25}\)

Question 13.
If a dice is rolled, then the probability of getting an even number is
A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 14.
Probability of sure event is …………………..
A) 0
B) -1
C) +1
D) ∞
Answer:
C) +1

Question 15.
Which one of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
A) 0.3
B) -1.5
C) 15%
D) 0.7
Answer:
B) -1.5

Question 16.
When two coins tossed simultaneously, the probability of getting at least one head is……………………
A) 1
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac {3}{4}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac {3}{4}\)

Question 17.
The probability of any given day in the month of May not being a Monday if the 1st day of May is a Monday is …………………
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{31}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{26}{31}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{31}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{26}{31}\)

Question 18.
Three unbiased coins are tosseed. The probability of getting at most two heads is ………………
A) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 19.
A box contains 12 balls out of which x are black. If 6 more black balls are put in the box, the probability of drawing a balck ball now is double of what it was before. The value of x is …………………
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
C) 3

Question 20.
If K₁ ≤ P ≤ K₂ where P is probability of any event of random experiment, then the possible maximum K₂ + possible least value of K₁ is ………………..
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) cannot be determined
Answer:
A) 1

Question 21.
The probability that year 2016 to have 53 Mondays is
A) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 22.
The probability of getting score greater than 9 slove added together on faces of two dice rolled at one time.
A) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{13}{36}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{36}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 23.
A bag contains cards nuinbers from 11 to 30. A card is taken out the bag at random, the probability that the drawn card is a multiple of 5 on it.
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{19}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{20}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{18}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 24.
When three fair coins are tossed simultaneously, the probability that at least one head appears is
A) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 25.
A bag contains 6 red, 3 black and 6 white balls. A ball is selected at random from the bag, what is the probability that the selected ball is not red?
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 26.
Under the usual notation in probability, P(E) + P (\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) =
A) 0
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) 1
D) None
Answer:
C) 1

Question 27.
Two dice are thrown at the same time. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is 8 ?
A) \(\frac{31}{36}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{36}\)
C) \(\frac{8}{36}\)
D) 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac{5}{36}\)

Question 28.
A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken out of the box at random, the probability that the marble taken out will be white is ………………..
A) \(\frac{5}{17}\)
B) \(\frac{8}{17}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{17}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{9}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{8}{17}\)

Question 29.
The probability of getting a head when a coin is tossed once is
A) 0
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac {1}{3}\)
D) 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 30.
Rahim takes out all the hearts from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of picking a diamond is
A) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{39}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{52}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 31.
The probability of an impossible event is
A) 0
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) 1
Answer:
A) 0

Question 32.
The probability of getting 53 Fridays in a Leap year is
A) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 33.
The set of all possible events is called
A) event
B) impossible event
C) sample space
D) None
Answer:
C) sample space

Question 34.
From a deck of 52 cards, a card is drawn atrandom then the probability of getting a red king is ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{26}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{13}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{26}\)
D) None
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{26}\)

Question 35.
If P (A) = \(\frac{4}{15}\) then P ( \(\overline{\mathbf{A}}\) ) =
A) \(\frac{19}{15}\)
B) \(\frac{11}{15}\)
C) \(\frac{13}{15}\)
D) None
Answer:
B) \(\frac{11}{15}\)

Question 36.
Rama and Reshma are playing a chess game. If the probability of Rama winning is 0.52, then the probability of winning chess game by Reshma is
A) 1.38
B) 0.62
C) 0.48
D) 1.62
Answer:
A) 1.38

Question 37.
A number x is chosen at random from the numbers -4, -3, -2, -1,0,1,2,3,4. The probability that x < 1 is
A) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{4}{9}\)

Question 38.
From the letters of the word ‘MOTHER’, a letter is selected. The probability that the letter is a vowel is
A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{6}\)

Question 39.
The probability of getting a total of 13 when two dice and thrown at the same time is
A) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
B) 0
C) \(\frac{5}{36}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{36}\)

Question 40.
Karishma and Reshma are playing Chess. The probability of winning Karishma is 0.59. Then probability of Reshma winning the match is …………………..
A) 1
B) 0.46
C) 0.5
D) 0.41
Answer:
D) 0.41

Question 41.
If a coin is tossed, then the probability that a head turns up is ……………………
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 42.
If one side is chosen at random from the sides of a right triangle, then the probability that it is hypotenuse is ………………..
A) 2
B) 3
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) 1
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 43.
If P(E) = 0.82, then P(\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) = ……………………
A) 0.18
B) 0.28
C) 0.38
D) P(E)=P( \(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\))
Answer:
A) 0.18

Question 44.
When an unbiased die is rolled once, what is the probability of getting a prime number out of all possible outcomes ?
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 45.
Probability of getting no head when 3 coins are tossed is
A) \(\frac{3}{2^{3}}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{2^{3}}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3^{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{2^{3}}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{2^{3}}\)

Question 46.
A sample space consists of 80 elementary events that are equally likely. Probability of each of them is
A) \(\frac{1}{80}\)
B) 80
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{80}\)

Question 47.
If an individual is selected at random, probability that he has a birthday in July in 2012 is
A) \(\frac{30}{365}\)
B) \(\frac{31}{365}\)
C) \(\frac{30}{366}\)
D) \(\frac{31}{366}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{31}{366}\)

Question 48.
A bag contains 6 red marbles, 3 blue marbles and 7 green marbles. If a marble is randomly selected from the bag, probability that it is blue
A) \(\frac{3}{16}\)
B) \(\frac{13}{16}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{16}\)

Question 49.
On a multiple choice test each question has 4 possible choices. If you make a random guess probability that you are correct is
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) 1
C) 0
D) 4
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 50.
The probability of getting a perfect square number from the numbers 1 to 10 is
A) \(\frac{3}{11}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{3}{10}\)

Question 51.
From the month of August, a day is selected whose firstday is Tuesday. Find the probability that the day selected is not a Tuesday
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{31}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{26}{31}\)
D) \(\frac{15}{6}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{26}{31}\)

Question 52.
Three coins are tossed simultaneously once, find the probability of getting atleast one tail is
A) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 53.
A box contains 90 discs numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, the probability that it bears a prime number less than 23 is
A) \(\frac{4}{17}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{45}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{19}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{4}{45}\)

Question 54.
If a two digit number is choosen at random, what is the probability that the number choosen is a multiple of 3?
A) \(\frac{2}{99}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{25}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 55.
A social studies text book contains 250 pages. A page is selected at random. What is the probability that the number on the page selected is a perfect square?
A) \(\frac{6}{53}\)
B) \(\frac{8}{51}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{50}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{50}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{50}\)

Question 56.
A Jar contains 3 mangoes and x guavas. Two fruits are pulled from the jar without replacement. An expression that represents the probability one fruit is mango and the next fruit is guava is
A) \(\left(\frac{3}{x+3}\right)\left(\frac{x-1}{x+2}\right)\)
B) \(\left(\frac{3}{x+3}\right)\left(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\right)\)
C) \(\frac{3 \times 2}{(x+3)(x+2)}\)
D) \(\left(\frac{3}{x+3}\right)\left(\frac{x}{x-2}\right)\)
Answer:
D) \(\left(\frac{3}{x+3}\right)\left(\frac{x}{x-2}\right)\)

Question 57.
In a lucky dip of 30 tokens Ravi purchased two tokens. Then the probability of getting the first prize is
A) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{30}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{30}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{30}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{2}{30}\)

Question 58.
In a simultaneous toss of two coins, the probability of atleast one head is
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 59.
When a dice is rolled the probability of getting a composite number is
A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 60.
The event of getting a number less than or equal to 6 is a
A) base event
B) element
C) possible event
D) sure event
Answer:
D) sure event

Question 61.
Three different greeting cards and their corresponding covers are randomly strewn about on a table. If Ravi puts the greetingcardsintothecoversatrandom, the probability of correctly matching of all greeting cards and covers is
A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 62.
In a box there are 28 marbles of which x are green and the rest are white. If the probability of getting a green marble is 2 then the number of white marbles is
A) 20
B) 16
C) 12
D) 8
Answer:
A) 20

Question 63.
If one side is chosen at random from the sides of a right triangle, then the probability that it is hypotenuse is
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac {1}{3}\)
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
B) \(\frac {1}{3}\)

Question 64.
The probability of raining in a day is
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac {1}{2}\)

Question 65.
There are 50 cards numbered from 1 to 50. A card is drawn at random. Then the probability that the number on the card is divisible by 8 is
A) \(\frac{4}{19}\)
B) \(\frac{19}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{25}\)
D) \(\frac{25}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{25}\)

Question 66.
In a single throw of two dice the probability of getting distinct numbers is
A) \(\frac{4}{36}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{36}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{5}{6}\)

Question 67.
A box contains pencils and pens. The probability of picking out a pen at random is 0.65. Then the probability of not picking a pen is
A) 0.35
B) 0.45
C) 0.65
D) 0.55
Answer:
A) 0.35

Question 68.
Collection of outcomes of an experiment is
A) Event
B) Trial
C) Probability
D) Random experiment
Answer:
A) Event

Question 69.
A month having 4 Sundays is …………………. event.
A) unlikely
B) certain
C) impossible
D) most likely
Answer:
B) certain

Question 70.
Possible value for probability of an event is
A) 1.25
B) – 0.3
C) -0.99
D) 0.6
Answer:
D) 0.6

Question 71.
Drawing a red ball from 4 white balls is …………….. event.
A) certain
B) unlikely
C) most likely
D) impossible
Answer:
D) impossible

Question 72.
When a card is picked up from a deck of cards, it should be either a red or a black card because these events are
A) Equally likely
B) Mutually exclusive
C) Complementary
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Complementary

Question 73.
Getting a cold Wave in your village in December is …………… event
A) unlikely
B) certain
C) most likely
D) impossible
Answer:
C) most likely

Question 74.
When a dice is thrown, the probability of getting neither a prime nor composite number is
A) 0
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 75.
Two unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. Probability of getting at most two heads is
A)\(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
D) 1
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 76.
The probability of a sure event is
A) 0
B) 9
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 77.
P(\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) =
A) 1 – P(E)
B) 1 + P(E)
C) \(\frac{1}{P(E)}\)
D) P(E) – 1
Answer:
A) 1 – P(E)

Question 78.
Buying a lottery ticket and win the Jackpot is ………………… event.
A) certain
B) impossible
C) unlikely
D) most likely
Answer:
C) unlikely

Question 79.
When we roll a dice ‘3’ times, the number of possible outcomes is
A) 3⁶
B) 6³
C) 18
D) 9
Answer:
B) 6³

Question 80.
Probability of getting 2 or 3 when we throw a die is
A) \(\frac{2}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{2}{6}\)

Question 81.
Suppose there are “8” equally likely events then probability of each event is
A) 0
B) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{8}\)
D) 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 82.
If I calculate the probability of an event as – 0.5 then
A) the probability of not happening is 0.5
B) the probability of happening is 0.5
C) the event is not going to happen
D) I made a mistake
Answer:
D) I made a mistake

Question 83.
From the letters of the word “MOBILE”, if a letter is selected, what is the probability of getting the letter vowel ?
A) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 84.
Gita said that the probability of impossible event is 1. Pravallika said that probability of sure event is 0 and Atiya said that the probability of any event lies between 0 arid 1. In the above with whom you will agree ?
A) Gita
B) Pravallika
C) Atiya
D) All the three
Answer:
C) Atiya

Question 85.
A baby is born the probability that it is a boy or girl is
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 86.
Probability of switching on a bulb in a dark room is 0.35 then the probability of not switching the bulb is
A) 6.5
B) 65.1
C) 0.65
D) 0.065
Answer:
C) 0.65

(87 – 90:) A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes of rest pointing at one of the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7,8 (adjoiningfigure) and these are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that it will point at

Question 87.
8 ?
A) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 88.
on odd number?
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 89.
a number greater than 2 ?
A) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 90.
a number less than 9 ?
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
A) 1

(91 – 93) : One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability
of getting

Question 91.
A red face card
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{26}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{26}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{26}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{26}\)

Question 92.
A spade
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{4}{3}\)

Question 93.
Either king or black cards
A) \(\frac{13}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{7}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{7}{13}\)

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Applications of Trigonometry on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths Bits 12th Lesson Applications of Trigonometry with Answers

Question 1.
If the angle of elevation of sun is 45°, then the length of the shadow of a 12 m
high tree is …………………
A) 12 √3 m
B) 16 m
C) 12 m
D) \(\frac{12}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
Answer:
C) 12 m

Question 2.
Observe the figure. Length of the ladder = ……………………

A) 5 cm
B) 10 √3 cm.
C) 20 m.
D) 2.5 m
Answer:
B) 10 √3 cm.

Question 3.
The angle of depression from the top of a tower 12 m height, at a point on the ground is 30°. The distance of the point from the top is ……………….
A) 12 m
B) 12 √3 m
C) 7. 5 m
D) 6 m
Answer:
A) 12 m

Question 4.
If the shadow of the tree is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) times the height of the tree, then the angle of elevation of the sun is …………………..
A) 45°
B) 30°
C) 70°
D) 60°
Answer:
D) 60°

Question 5.
The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet plane is flying at a constant height of 1500 √3 meter, then the speed of the plane is ……………….. m/sec.
A) 200
B) 300
C) 400
D) 100
Answer:
A) 200

Question 6.
The angle of elevation of top of a tower at a distance of 500 m from the foot is 30°. Then the height of the tower is ………………..
A) \(\frac{500}{\sqrt{3}}\)
B) 500 √3
C) \(\frac{3}{500}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{500}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{500}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 7.
If altitude of the sun is 60°. Then the height of the tower which is casting a shadow of 30 m. is ………………… m.
A) 61.69
B) 51.69
C) 51.96
D) 41.69
Answer:
C) 51.96

Question 8.
If a 6m height pole casts a shadow 2√3 m long on the ground, then the sun’s angle of elevation is
A) 60°
B) 45°
C) 30°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 60°

Question 9.
From a point 30m from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of the top is 30°. Then the height of the tower is
A) 10 m
B) 10√3 m
C) 15 m
D) 19 m
Answer:
B) 10√3 m

Question 10.
From a ship masthead 150 ft high, the angle of depression of a boat is observed to 45°. Its distance from the ship is
A) 150 ft
B) 75 ft
C) 150√3 ft
D) \(\frac{150}{\sqrt{3}}\) ft
Answer:
A) 150 ft

Question 11.
A ladder of 19m is leaning to a wall making an angle of 60° with the ground. The distance from the foot of the wall to the foot of the ladder is
A) 18m
B) 19m
C) 9m
D) 9.5m
Answer:
D) 9.5m

Question 12.
A boy observes the top of an electronic pole at an angle of elevation of 60°, when the observation point is 8m away from the foot of the pole. Then the height of the pole is
A) 6√3 m
B) 8√3m
C) 10√3m
D) 16√3 m
Answer:
B) 8√3m

Question 13.
Raj ender observes a person standing on the ground from a helicopter at an angle of depression 45°. If the helicopter flies at a height of 50 m from ground, then the distance of the person from Raj ender is
A) 25 √2 m
B) 50 √2 m
C) 75 √2 m
D) None
Answer:
B) 50 √2 m

Question 14.
The angle of elevation of the top of the cliff from a point 300m from its foot is 60°. Then the height of the cliff is
A) 200 √3 m
B) \(\frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
C) 300√3 m
D) \(\frac{300}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
Answer:
C) 300√3 m

Question 15.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from the top and foot of a pole of height 10m are 30° and 60°. Then the height of the tower is
A) 5 m
B) 10 m
C) 15 m
D) 20 m
Answer:
C) 15 m

Question 16.
A 1.5m tall boy casts 2m shadow. At the same instance, a lamppost casts a shadow of 10 m. Then the height of the lamppost is
A) 6.5 m
B) 7.5 m
C) 8.5 m
D) None
Answer:
B) 7.5 m

Question 17.
The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 : √3 Then the angle of elevation of the sun is …………………..
A) 45°
B) 30°
C) 75°
D) 90°
Answer:
B) 30°

Question 18.
A ladder ‘x’ meters long is laid against a wall making an angle ‘θ ‘ with the ground. If we want to directly find the distance between the foot of the ladder and the foot of the wall, which trigonometrical ratio should be considered ?
A) sin θ
B) cos θ
C) tan θ
D) cot θ
Answer:
B) cos θ

Question 19.
Two persons A and B observe the top of a pole at an angle of elevation α and β respectively. If α > β, then ………………..
A) A is nearer to the pole than B.
B) B is nearer to the pole than A.
C) A, B are at the same distance from the pole.
D) Can’t compare their distances
Answer:
C) A, B are at the same distance from the pole.

Question 20.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point at a distance 40 m from the foot of the tower is 45°. Then the height of the tower is
A) 20 m
B) 40 m
C) 40 √2 m
D) 40 √3 m
Answer:
B) 40 m

Question 21.
The length of the shadow of a tower is equal to its heights, then the angle of elevation of the sun is
A) 90°
B) 70°
C) 60°
D) 45°
Answer:
D) 45°

Question 22.
What is the angle of elevation of the top of a temple of height 10 m. At a point whose distance from the base of the tower is 10 √3 m
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 45°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 30°

Question 23.
From the top of a 10 m height tree, the angle of depression of a point on the ground is 30°. Then the distance of the point from the foot of the tree is
A) 10m
B) 10 √3 m
C) \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
D) 5 √3 m
Answer:
B) 10 √3 m

Question 24.
The angle of elevation of the sun is 45° then the length of the shadow of a 12 m high tree is ………………
A) 12√3
B) 16
C) 12
D) 16 √3
Answer:
C) 12

Question 25.
The length of the shadow is of 5 m height tree whose angle of elevation of the sun is 30° is
A) 5 m
B) √3 m
C) 5 √3 m
D) 10 m
Answer:
C) 5 √3 m

Question 26.
A man observed the top point of a flag staff with an angle of elevation of 45° standing at a distance away from the bottom of the staff . Find the distance between the man and the staff, if the height of the staff is 50 m.
A) 50 m
B) 60 m
C) 30 m
D) 22.5 m
Answer:
A) 50 m

Question 27.
A man observed the top point of a chimney with angle of elevation 60° standing at a distance 90 m. away from the bottom of the chimney. Then the height of the chimney is …………………..
A) \(\frac{90}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
B) \(\frac{45}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
C) 90 √3 m
D) 45 √3 m
Answer:
C) 90 √3 m

Question 28.
A man observed the top of a hill with an angle of elevation of 50° standing at a distance away from the bottom of the hill. If another man stands on the hill, at what angle of depression did he see the first man ?
A) 60°
B) 50°
C) 70°
D) 80°
Answer:
B) 50°

Question 29.
When the sun rays are falling on the earth at an inclination of 45 0 the shadow of a man is 1.5 metres. Man’s height is …………………
A) 1.2 m
B) 1 m
C) 1.5 m
D) 1.732 m
Answer:
C) 1.5 m

Question 30.
Two towers of heights X and Y. A person standing in between X and Y, he observed the top of the tower at an angles of elevation 30° and 60°. Then the value of X : Y is ……………….
A) 3 : 1
B) 1 : √3
C) √3 : 1
D) 1 : 3
Answer:
D) 1 : 3

Question 31.
The length of the shadow of wall of height 8 m is 5 m. At the same time the tower of height is 50 m its length of the shadow is
A) 200 m
B) 80 m
C) 40 m
D) 20 m
Answer:
B) 80 m

Question 32.
If the angle of elevation of the sun is 60° then the ratio of height of a tree with its shadow is
A) 1 : 1
B) 1 : √3
C) √3 : 1
D) 1 : 3
Answer:
C) √3 : 1

Question 33.
The angle of elevation of a top of the tower from a point 120 m. from its foot is 45°. How much the tower is to be raised when the elevation is to be 60° at the same point ?
A) 120 √3 m
B) 120 m
C) 120(√3 + 1) m
D) 120(√3 – 1) m
Answer:
D) 120(√3 – 1) m

Question 34.
A ladder 19 m leaning to wall at 60° with the ground, the distance from foot to the wall is
A) 18 m
B) 19m
C) 9 m
D) 9.5 m
Answer:
D) 9.5 m

Question 35.
From a ship mast head 150 m high the angle of depression of a boat is observed to be 60° its distance from the ship is ………………..
A) 75.5 m
B) 86.55 m
C) 92.55 m
D) 120.5 m
Answer:
B) 86.55 m

Question 36.
a) Srinu said “Angle of elevation is equal to the angle of depression.”
b) Srikanth said “Angle of depression is equal to the angle of elevation.”
A) Only A is True
B) Only B is True
C) Both A and B are True
D) Both A and B are False
Answer:
C) Both A and B are True

Question 37.
Sin (2 × 30°) = 2 Sin 30° statement is
A) True
B) False
C) Can’t say
D) Not defined
Answer:
B) False

Question 38.
Sin a = \(\frac{x}{y}\) ; cos a = \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{b}}\) then \(\frac{\text { bx }}{\text { ay }}\) represent
A) Tan α
B) cot α
C) sec α
D) cosec α
Answer:
A) Tan α

Question 39.
The length of shadow of a tree of 8 m long. When the son’s angle of elevation is 45° is ……………… m.
A) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{3}}\)
B) 8 √3
C) 8
D) 16 √3
Answer:
C) 8

Question 40.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 30°. Then the height of the tower is
A) 10 √3 m
B) \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{10}\)
D) \(\frac{10}{2 \sqrt{3}}\) m
Answer:
A) 10 √3 m

Question 41.
In the adjacent figure ‘θ’ is called as angle of

A) elevation
B) distance
C) depression
D) length
Answer:
C) depression

Question 42.
The height of the tower, in the given figure.

A) 45 m
B) 60 m
C) 50 m
D) 90 m
Answer:
B) 60 m

Question 43.
From the adjacent figure

a) Ravi said ‘y = √3’
b) Ramu said ‘y = V3 ‘
c) Kiran said ‘ y = \(\frac {1}{2}\) ‘
Do you agree with whom ? (Or)
With whom do you agree ? ………………..
A) Ravi
B) Kiran
C) Ramu
D) All of them
Answer:
B) Kiran

Question 44.
“A person is flying a kite at an angle of elevation ‘ α ‘ and the length of the thread from his hand to kite is ‘l’ diagram shows this information is

Answer:

Practice the AP 10th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Trigonometry on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths Bits 11th Lesson Trigonometry with Answers

Question 1.
If cosec θ + cot θ = 2, then cos θ =
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 2.
If 4 cos² θ – 3 = 0, then sin θ =…………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 3.
If cos (A + B) = 0, cos B = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) then A =
A) 15°
B) 60°
C) 30°
D) 45°
Answer:
B) 60°

Question 4.
If sec θ + tan θ = \(\frac{1}{3}\), then sec θ – tan θ = …………………
A) 3
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
A) 3

Question 5.
If sin x = \(\frac{5}{7}\) , then cosec x = …………………….
A) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{7}{5}\)

Question 6.
Given ∠A = 75°, ∠B = 30°, then tan (A-B) = …………………
A) √3
B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
C) 1

Question 7.
Which one of the following is NOT defined?
A) sin 90°
B) cos 0°
C) sec 90°
D) cos 90°
Answer:
C) sec 90°

Question 8.
………………….
A) sin A
B) \(\sqrt{\sin A}\)
C) sin²A
D) sin⁴A
Answer:
C) sin²A

Question 9.
tan 36°. tan 54° + sin 30° = ………………..
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) 2
D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 10.
If sin A = \(\frac{24}{25}\), then sec A = ………………………
A) \(\frac{7}{25}\)
B) \(\frac{25}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{24}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{24}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{25}{7}\)

Question 11.
Values of sin 30°. sin 90°. sec 60° are in …………………
A) A.P.
B) G.P.
C) a
D) (A)or(C)
Answer:
B) G.P.

Question 12.
From the figure : Sin A =

A) \(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{BC}}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AC}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AB}}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{AB}}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AC}}\)

Question 13.
The value of tan θ in terms of sinθ is
A) \(\frac{\sin \theta}{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}\)
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{\sin ^{2} \theta-1}}{\sin \theta}\)
C) \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}}{\sin \theta}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}}\)

Question 14.
If cosec θ = 2 and cot θ = \(\sqrt{3 \mathbf{p}}\) where ‘θ’ is an acute angle, then p =
A) 2
B) 1
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) √3
Answer:
B) 1

Question 15.
If sec θ = 3K and tan θ = \(\frac{3}{K}\), then K² – \(\frac{\mathbf{1}}{\mathbf{K}^{2}}\) =
A) 9
B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
C) 3
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 16.
tan θ is not defined when ‘θ’ is
A) 0°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

Question 17.
It tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), then 7 sin²θ + 3 cos²θ =
A) \(\frac{16}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
D) 1
Answer:
A) \(\frac{16}{4}\)

Question 18.
If cos 2θ = sin 4θ, here 2θ, 4θ are acute angles, then the value of ‘θ’ =
A) 60°
B) 30°
C) 45°
D) 15°
Answer:
D) 15°

Question 19.
Values of cos²0° + cos² 60° is
A) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{5}{4}\)

Question 20.
If Sin A = Cos B then A + B = ……………………..
A) 60°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 120°
Answer:
B) 90°

Question 21.
If 5 tan α = 4, then \(\frac{5 \sin \alpha-3 \cos \alpha}{5 \sin \alpha+2 \cos \alpha}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{7}\))
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 22.
\(\sqrt{1+\sin ^{2} \theta+\cos ^{2} \theta}\) = …………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) \(\sqrt{21}\)
D) √2
Answer:

Question 23.
tan 2A = 1 then A = …………………..
A) 45.5
B) 60.5
C) 22.5
D) 30.5
Answer:
C) 22.5

Question 24.
If x = a secθ cosΦ, y = b secθ sinΦ. z = c tan θ, then \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = ………………….
A) \(\frac{z^{2}}{c^{2}}\)
B) 1 – \(\frac{z^{2}}{c^{2}}\)
C) \(\frac{z^{2}}{c^{2}}\) – 1
D) 1 + \(\frac{z^{2}}{c^{2}}\)
Answer:
D) 1 + \(\frac{z^{2}}{c^{2}}\)

Question 25.
If 7sin²θ + 3 cos²θ = 5, then tan θ = ……………………
A) √3
B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
C) 1

Question 26.
If sinθ + sin²θ = 1, then cos²θ + cos⁴θ = ……………..
A) -1
B) 1
C) 0
D) None of these
Answer:
B) 1

Question 27.
If cotθ + cosecθ = 5, then cosθ = ………………..
A) \(\frac{12}{13}\)
B) \(\frac{26}{24}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{13}{12}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{12}{13}\)

Question 28.
\(\frac{\cos \theta}{1-\tan \theta}+\frac{\sin \theta}{1-\cot \theta}\) = ………………
A) cos θ – sin θ
B) tan θ – cot θ
C) cos θ – sin θ
D) tan θ + cot θ
Answer:
A) cos θ – sin θ

Question 29.
If tanθ = \(\frac{7}{8}\), then the value of \(\frac{(1+\sin \theta)(1-\sin \theta)}{(1+\cos \theta)(1-\cos \theta)}\) ……………….
A) \(\frac{64}{49}\)
B) \(\frac{49}{64}\)
C) \(\frac{8}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{64}{49}\)

Question 30.
If cosecθ + cotθ = P, then value of cosθ = ……………………
A) \(\frac{1-P^{2}}{1+P^{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{1-\mathrm{P}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{P}}\)
C) \(\frac{2 P}{1+P^{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{P}}{1-\mathrm{P}^{2}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1-P^{2}}{1+P^{2}}\)

Question 31.
If x > y and \(\frac{2 x y}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\) = cosθ, then sinθ = ………………….
A) \(\frac{x^{2}-y^{2}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{x^{2}+y^{2}}{x^{2}-y^{2}}\)
C) \(\frac{x^{2}-y^{2}}{2 x y}\)
D) \(\frac{2 x y}{x^{2}-y^{2}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{x^{2}-y^{2}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\)

Question 32.
If secθ + tanθ = 3, then cosθ = ………………..
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 33.
In ΔABC, if BC = 3, CA = 4, AB = 5, then cos ∠BAC =
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 34.
sin⁶ A + cos⁶ A + 3sin²A cos²A =
A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
D) None
Answer:
A) 1

Question 35.
sin²2 30°, sin² 45° and sin² 60° are in
A) AP
B) GP
C) HP
D) AGP
Answer:
A) AP

Question 36.
If sinθ . cosθ = \(\frac {1}{2}\), then θ = …………………
A) 0°
B) 30°
C) 45°
D) 60°
Answer:
C) 45°

Question 37.
If tanθ \(\frac {3}{4}\) , then the value of \(\frac{1-\cos \theta}{1+\cos \theta}\) =
A) 9
B) \(\frac {1}{9}\)
C) 4
D) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac {1}{9}\)

Question 38.
If A, B and C are interior angles of atriangle ABC, then tan (\(\frac{\mathbf{A}+\mathbf{B}}{2}\)) =
A) sin(\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{2}\))
B) cos(\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{2}\))
C) tan(\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{2}\))
D) cot(\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{2}\))
Answer:
D) cot(\(\frac{\mathrm{C}}{2}\))

Question 39.
If cos A = \(\frac{12}{13}\), then sin A =
A) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{12}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{13}{5}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{5}{13}\)

Question 40.
=
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
B) 1

Question 41.
If tan2A = cot (A – 18°), where 2A is an acute angle, then A =
A) 6°
B) 18°
C) 36°
D) 54°
Answer:
C) 36°

Question 42.
If x = a cosecθ and y = bcotθ, then b²x² – a²y² =
A) a² + b²
B) a²b²
C) \(\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{a^{2}-b^{2}}\)
D) None
Answer:
B) a²b²

Question 43.
tan 30°, tan 45°, tan 60° are in
A) AP
B) GP
C) HP
D) None
Answer:
B) GP

Question 44.
cos⁴θ – sin⁴θ =
A) 1 – 2sin²θ
B) 2sin²θ
C) secθ
D) cosecθ
Answer:
A) 1 – 2sin²θ

Question 45.
Sin 0°. Tan 60°. Cos 30°. cosec 45° =
A) 1
B) 0
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
D) ∝
Answer:
B) 0

Question 46.
Ifsin(A + B) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) and cos (A – B) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) then ∠B =
A) 60°
B) 45°
C) 30°
D) 0°
Answer:
D) 0°

Question 47.
If sinθ + cosθ = √2 then θ =
A) 0°
C) 45°
B) 30°
D) 60°
Answer:
C) 45°

Question 48.
\(\frac{1-\tan ^{2} 30^{\circ}}{1+\tan ^{2} 30^{\circ}}\) = ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
D) 1
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 49.
cos⁴ θ – sin⁴ θ =
A) cos² θ – sin² θ
B) 2cos² θ – 1
C) 1 – 2sin² θ
D) None
Answer:
A) cos² θ – sin² θ

Question 50.
If x = cos θ + sin θ and y = cos θ – sin θ, then x² + y² =
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 51.
sin (A + B) cos (A – B) + sin (A – B) cos (A + B) =
A) sin 2A
B) sin 2B
C) cos 2A
D) cos 2B
Answer:
A) sin 2A

Question 52.
If sin A = cos B, then A + B =
A) 45°
B) 60°
C) 90°
B) 75°
Answer:
C) 90°

Question 53.
The value of cos 36° cos 54° – sin 36° sin 54° =
A) 1
B) 0
C) 2
D) -1
Answer:
B) 0

Question 54.
The value of \(\frac{1}{1+\cos \theta}+\frac{1}{1-\cos \theta}\) =
A) 2 sec²θ
B) 2secθ
C) 2cosec²θ
D) 2cosecθ
Answer:
C) 2cosec²θ

Question 55.
The value of tan²θ + tan⁴θ
A) sec⁴θ – sec²θ
B) sec²θ – sec⁴θ
C) sin²θ – cos²θ
D) sec²θ – tan²θ
Answer:
A) sec⁴θ – sec²θ

Question 56.
The value of cos 45° . cos 30° . cos 90° . cos 60° =
A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4 \sqrt{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)
C) 0
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
C) 0

Question 57.
If x = a cosecθ and y = a cotθ, then which of the following is true ?
A) x² + y² = a²
B) x² – y² = a²
C) x + y = a
D) xy = a
Answer:
D) xy = a

Question 58.
If sin A = \(\frac{7}{25}\),then cot A =
A) \(\frac{25}{7}\)
B) 1
C) \(\frac{24}{25}\)
D) \(\frac{24}{7}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 59.
cos 12° – sin 78° = ………………
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 0
D) -1
Answer:
C) 0

Question 60.
If x = cosce θ + cot θ,.y = cosec θ – cot θ, then which of the following is true ?
A) x + y = 0
B) x – y = 0
C) \(\frac{x}{y}\) = 1
D) xy = 1
Answer:
D) xy = 1

Question 61.
Tan²θ – Sec²θ = ………………..
A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
D) ∞
Answer:
B) -1

Question 62.
In Δ ABC, Sin C = \(\frac{3}{5}\). Then Cos A = ……………………..
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 63.
If cot A = \(\frac{5}{12}\), then sin A + cos A is ……………….
A) \(\frac{17}{13}\)
B) \(\frac{12}{13}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
D) \(\frac{20}{13}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{17}{13}\)

Question 64.
Which of following values is not a possible value of sin x ?
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{5}{4}\)

Question 65.
Which of the following is not defined ?
A) Tan0°
B) Tan 90°
C) Cot 90°
D) Sec 0°
Answer:
B) Tan 90°

Question 66.
If Sin A = \(\frac{24}{25}\) then Cot A = ………………………
A) \(\frac{25}{24}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{24}\)
C) \(\frac{24}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{25}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{7}{24}\)

Question 67.
In ΔPQR, ∠Q = 90°; PQ = 5 cm; PR = 13 cm then QR =
A) 5 cm
B) 12 cm
C) 13 cm
D) 25 cm
Answer:
B) 12 cm

Question 68.
If Sin A = \(\frac{3}{5}\) then Cos A =
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 69.
8 Tan A = 15 then Sin A – Cos A =
A) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{7}{17}\)
C) \(\frac{9}{14}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{7}{17}\)

Question 70.
Sin2 60° + Cos2 30° + Tan2 60° =
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{2}{9}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
D) 1
Answer:
A) \(\frac{9}{2}\)

Question 71.
Sin θ = \(\frac{20}{29}\) then Sin² θ + cos² θ =
A) \(\frac{144}{841}\)
B) \(\frac{41}{841}\)
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
C) 1

Question 72.
If θ = 45° then the value of is
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) ∞
Answer:
B) 1

Question 73.
In ΔABC if Sin A = \(\frac{9}{15}\) then Cosec² A – Cot² A =
A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
A) 1

Question 74.
(1 + Tan² 45°)² =
A) 1
B) 7
C) 4
D) 9
Answer:
C) 4

Question 75.
Sin²105° + Cos²105° =
A) – 1
B) 1
C) 3
D) 0
Answer:
B) 1

Question 76.
Tan (B + 15°) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) then B =
A) 60°
B) 80°
C) 70°
D) 15°
Answer:
D) 15°

Question 77
Maximum value of Sin θ =
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
A) 1

Question 78.
If Sec 2A = Cosec (A – 27°), then the value of ∠A is
A) 35°
B) 37°
C) 39°
D) 21°
Answer:
C) 39°

Question 79.
Sin (A – B) = \(\frac {1}{2}\); Cos (A + B) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) then ∠A is
A) 60°
C) 30°
B) 15°
D) 45°
Answer:
D) 45°

Question 80.
Tan² 60° + 2 Tan² 45° = x Tan 45° Then x =
A) 0
B) 5
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
B) 5

Question 81.
Sin θ = Cos θ then θ =
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
B) 45°

Question 82.
Sec θ + Tan θ = p then Sin θ =
A) \(\frac{p^{2}-1}{p^{2}+1}\)
B) \(\frac{p}{p^{2}+1}\)
C) \(\frac{p^{2}-1}{p}\)
D) \(\frac{p^{2}+1}{p^{2}-1}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{p^{2}-1}{p^{2}+1}\)

Question 83.
2 . Sin 30° . Cos 30° =
A) 1
B) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Question 84.
Sin 18° = Cos x, then x =
A) 73°
B) 37°
C) 72°
D) 84°
Answer:
C) 72°

Question 85.
Tan θ + Cot θ = 2, then Sin θ =
A) 3
B) 1
C) √2
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 86.
The value of Cos 0° + Sin 90° + √2 Sin 45° =
A) 5
C) 1
B) 4
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 87.
Sin θ = \(\frac {1}{2}\) then cot θ =
A) 3
B) 7
C) √3
D) 2√3
Answer:
C) √3

Question 88.
In ΔABC, a = 3 units; b = 4 units; c = 5 units. Then cos A =
A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
D) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 89.
Cos (A – B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\); Sin B = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) , then the value of A.
A) 15°
B) 105°
C) 90°
D) 60°
Answer:
B) 105°

Question 90.
Sin 60° Cos 30° + Cos 60° Sin 30° Value is ……………………
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) 1
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
B) 1

Question 91.
√3 Tan θ = 1, then θ =
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Answer:
A) 30°

Question 92.
In a ΔABC if ∠B = 90° and Tan C = \(\frac {5}{12}\) , then the length of the hypotenuse is
A) 6
B) 13
C) 21
D) 17
Answer:
B) 13

Question 93.
Tan² 60° + 4 Cos² 45° + 3 Sec² 30° + 5 Cos² 90° =
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
B) 10
Answer:
A) 7

Question 94.
Sec² 27° – Cot² 63° =
A) 3
B) 0
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
B) 0

Question 95.
=
A) Sin θ
B) Cos θ
C) Sec θ
D) Cosec θ
Answer:
D) Cosec θ

Question 96.
Sin² θ (1 + Cot²θ) =
A) Cos² θ
B) Sec² θ
C) Tan² θ
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 97.
If A = 45°, then (1 + Tan A) (1 + Tan²A) (1 + Tan³ A) =
A) 6
B) 8
C) 4
D) 2
Answer:
B) 8

Question 98.
Sin² θ . Cot² θ + Cos² θ . Tan² θ =
A) 0
B) 2
C) 1
D) -1
Answer:
C) 1

Question 99.
Tan 45° + 2 Tan² 60° =
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Answer:
B) 7

Question 100.
Sin 2A = 2 Sin A, then ∠A =
A) 0°
B) 30°
C) 45°
D) 60°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 101.
If x Sin (90° – θ) Cot (90° – θ) = Cos (90° – θ) then x =
A) 0
B) 1
C) – 1
D) 2
Answer:
B) 1

Question 102.
If Tan θ + Cot θ = 5, then the value of Tan² θ + Cot² θ =
A) 25
B) 23
C) 27
D) 15
Answer:
B) 23

Question 103.
If Cosec θ – Cot θ = \(\frac {1}{4}\) then the value of Cosec θ + Cot θ is
A) 1
B) -1
C) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 104.
Sin 40°=
A) Sin × 40°
B) Sin + 40°
C) Sin 20° + Sin 20°
D) A real number
Answer:
D) A real number

Question 105.
If ΔXYZ is a right angled isosceles triangle and ∠Y = 90° then XZ =
A) √2 XY
B) √3 XY
C) 2 XY
D) XY²
Answer:
A) √2 XY

Question 106.
Tan θ is not defined, then θ =
A) 50°
B) 60°
C) 180°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

Question 107.
Sin (90° – θ) =
A) Sin θ
B) Cos θ
C) Cosec θ
D) Sec θ
Answer:
B) Cos θ

Question 108.
Tan 81° =
A) Cos 9°
B) Sin 9°
C) Cot 9°
D) Tan 9°
Answer:
C) Cot 9°