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Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Industries in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 7th Lesson Industries in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India began many initiatives to promote industrial activities after …………..
A) 1957
B) 1947
C) 1967
D) 1937
Answer:
B) 1947

Question 2.
Since independence, the electricity production has increased ………… times.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Answer:
B) 100

Question 3.
Organised manufacturing units operating in India today
A) nearly 2 lakhs
B) nearly 5 lakhs
C) nearly 9 lakhs
D) nearly 10 lakhs
Answer:
A) nearly 2 lakhs

Question 4.
Yarn is obtained from
A) paddy
B) sugarcane
C) cotton
D) all of these
Answer:
C) cotton

Question 5.
Roads, transport, communication, etc. are called
A) Industrial sector
B) Agriculture sector
C) Infrastructure
D) All of these
Answer:
C) Infrastructure

Question 6.
Major producer of employment in the country is
A) Industry
B) Service sector
C) Agriculture
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Agriculture

Question 7.
The industry that is not agro-based
A) Cement
B) Textile industry
C) Sugar industry
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Cement

Question 8.
The first oil mill was founded in
A) Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Mumbai
D) Bengaluru
Answer:
C) Mumbai

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a basic industry?
A) transport
B) machine
C) electricity
D) chemical
Answer:
D) chemical

Question 10.
……………. industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy.
A) Automobile
B) Cement
C) Fertiliser
D) Textile
Answer:
D) Textile

Question 11.
Today India has ……………. cotton and manmade fibre textile mills.
A) 1750
B) 960
C) 1600
D) 1200
Answer:
C) 1600

Question 12.
Identify the odd one
A) Spinning
B) Smelting
C) Ginning
D) Weaving
Answer:
C) Ginning

Question 13.
India exports yarn to ………..
A) Bangladesh
B) Japan
C) Pakistan
D) USA
Answer:
B) Japan

Question 14.
There are about ………….. jute mills in India.
A) 60
B) 80
C) 70
D) 90
Answer:
C) 70

Question 15.
Leading Jute producer in India is
A) West Bengal
B) Odisha
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Bihar
Answer:
A) West Bengal

Question 16.
Identify the odd one
A) Bagasse
B) Khandsari
C) White Sugar
D) Jaggery
Answer:
A) Bagasse

Question 17.
India ranks among crude steel producers worldwide.
A) 10th
B) 9th
C) 8th
D) 11th
Answer:
B) 9th

Question 18.
We entirely import element/compounds.
A) Phosphate
B) Nitrogen
C) Potash
D) Ammonium
Answer:
C) Potash

Question 19.
Fertiliser corporation of India Hazira is in ………..
A) Tamilnadu
B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Gujarat
Answer:
D) Gujarat

Question 20.
The first cement plant in India was set up in ………….
A) 1908 in Chennai
B) 1904 in Chennai
C) 1908 in Mumbai
D) 1904 in Mumbai
Answer:
B) 1904 in Chennai

Question 21.
………………. industry has experience quantum jump in 15 years.
A) Cement
B) Fertiliser
C) Chemical
D) Automobile
Answer:
D) Automobile

Question 22.
Expand BPO
A) Business Promotion Organisation
B) Business Processes Outsourcing
C) Business Processes Operations
D) Business Promotion Operations
Answer:
B) Business Processes Outsourcing

Question 23.
In India made new policy for industries.
A) 1980s
B) 2000s
C) 2010s
D) 1990s
Answer:
D) 1990s

Question 24.
Largest exporter of Jute in the world is
A) India
B) Bangladesh
C) Pakistan
D) Italy
Answer:
B) Bangladesh

Study the table and answer the questions 25 – 27.

Question 25.
Which raw material is required for the cement industry?
A) Aluminium
B) Lead
C) Zinc
D) Limestone
Answer:
D) Limestone

Question 26.
Graphite is used in …………
A) Pencils
B) Pens
C) Slates
D) Slate Pencils
Answer:
A) Pencils

Question 27.
Which mineral is used in Electronics industry?
A) Gypsum
B) Limestone
C) Mica
D) Bauxite
Answer:
C) Mica

Observe the map and answer the questions given below.

Question 28.
In which state Gurgaon and Panipat are located?
A) Haryana
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Assom
Answer:
A) Haryana

Question 29.
Name the south Indian state famous for silk textile.
A) Karnataka
B) Tamilnadu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Tripura
Answer:
A) Karnataka

Question 30.
The city which is called the capital of electronics
A) Hyderabad
B) Bangalore
C) Delhi
D) Chennai
Answer:
B) Bangalore

Question 31.
Highest sugar producing state in India is
A) West Bengal
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Gujarat
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
B) Uttar Pradesh

Question 32.
Which of the following is Eco – Friendly?
A) Nylon
B) Polyester
C) Rayon
D) Jute
Answer:
D) Jute

Question 33.
The Industry that is not agro based
A) Tea Manufacturing
B) Iron & Steel
C) Sugar Industry
D) Jute Industry
Answer:
B) Iron & Steel

Question 34.
Raw material used in Aluminium
A) Copper
B) Zinc
C) Bauxite
D) Lead
Answer:
C) Bauxite

Question 35.
Factor for concentrated Jute Textiles Industry in West Bengal
A) Inexpensive water transport
B) Proximity of the Jute producing areas
C) Port facilities
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 36.
India’s first cement industry was setup in
A) 1905-Mumbai
B) 1906-Chennai
C) 1904-Chennai
D) 1906-Mumbai
Answer:
C) 1904-Chennai

Question 37.
India stands in which place as a world producer of sugar
A) 4th
B) 3rd
C) 2nd
D) 6th
Answer:
C) 2nd

Question 38.
Identify the industry based on the features given below.
i) This is the basis for the second most important metallurgical industry in India.
ii) This metal is light and is resistanyo corrosion.
iii) This metal is used in manufacturing aircraft.
A) Iron and steel industry
B) Cement industry
C) Copper smelting industry
D) Aluminum & melting industry
Answer:
D) Aluminum & melting industry

Question 39.
It is light resistant to corrosion good conductor of heat. It is used to manufacture aircraft utensils and wires.
The above sentences are relating to which of the following Metal?
A) Chromium
B) Aluminum
C) Phosphate
D) Manganese
Answer:
B) Aluminum

Question 40.
The largest producer of Jaggery in the world is:
A) India
B) China
C) Pakistan
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
A) India

Question 41.
The largest producer of raw Jute and Jute goods in the world :
A) Sri Lanka
B) Bangladesh
C) England
D) India
Answer:
B) Bangladesh

Question 42.
Which among the following is a rising problem in the context of industrialization?
A) Lack of technology
B) Environmental pollution
C) Employment generation
D) Lack of investment
Answer:
B) Environmental pollution

Question 43.
A discussion class is goihg on an issue in 9th class.
Raju arguing “Industries are neces-sary for development of a country. It provides employment and production of different good which is useful to our daily life
Savithri said “Industries are necessary but it causing pollution and also decreasing natural resources. Industrilization many leads to capitalization too….” From the above, what is the main theme in their discussion?
A) Results at Industrial development.
B) Environmental pollution
C) Time and Value
D) Decreasing Natural resources
Answer:
A) Results at Industrial development.

Question 44.
“All of us must use jute products instead of synthetic products”.
A) Yes. We must use jute products because they are ecofriendly.
B) Yes. We must use jute products for the sake of farmers who cultivate jute.
C) We must use only synthetic products because they are cheap.
D) No. This is not correct.
Answer:
A) Yes. We must use jute products because they are ecofriendly.

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Agriculture in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 6th Lesson Agriculture in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large scale?
A) Shifting Agriculture
B) Plantation Agriculture
C) Horticulture
D) Intensive Agriculture
Answer:
D) Intensive Agriculture

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
A) Rice
B) Millets
C) Wheat
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Wheat

Question 3.
Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
A) Pulses
B) Millets
C) Jowar
D) Sesamum
Answer:
A) Pulses

Question 4.
The largest producer of coffee in India is
A) Karnataka
B) Bihar
C) Assam
D) Punjab
Answer:
A) Karnataka

Question 5.
…………. is known as a golden fibre.
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Rubber
D) Mulberry
Answer:
B) Jute

Question 6.
An example of a beverage crop is
A) Rubber
B) Sugarcane
C) Coffee
D) Maize
Answer:
C) Coffee

Question 7.
This is not the character of commercial farming
A) Use of primitive tools
B) Use of HYV Seeds
C) Use of pesticides
D) Use of chemical fertilisers
Answer:
A) Use of primitive tools

Question 8.
Identify the odd one based on farming.
A) Rice
B) Tea
C) Rubber
D) Sugarcane
Answer:
C) Rubber

Question 9.
Staple food of majority of the people in India is
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Rice
D) Millets
Answer:
C) Rice

Question 10.
…………….. is a coarse grain.
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Rice
D) Jowar
Answer:
D) Jowar

Question 11.
…………… is not a coarse grain.
A) Jowar
B) Maize
C) Bajra
D) Ragi
Answer:
B) Maize

Question 12.
……………. is the largest producer of oil seeds in the world.
A) Indonesia
B) West Indies
C) USA
D) India
Answer:
D) India

Question 13.
India produces about of ………….. the world’s vegetables.
A) 2/5
B) 1/4
C) 2/5
D) 1/6
Answer:
D) 1/6

Question 14.
Rearing of silk worms is
A) Sericulture
B) Silkeulture
C) Epieulture
D) Monoculture
Answer:
A) Sericulture

Question 15.
Second phase of agriculture in India is from
A) 1947 -1965
B) 1950 -1965
C) 1966 -1990
D) post 1991
Answer:
C) 1966 -1990

Question 16.
84% of pulses in India are grown in
A) wet land areas
B) table land area
C) low land area
D) dry land area
Answer:
D) dry land area

Question 17.
Government took protective measures in agriculture prior to
A) 1971
B) 1981
C) 1991
D) 2001
Answer:
C) 1991

Question 18.
………….. is the largest producer of Jowar in India.
A) Rajasthan
B) Maharashtra
C) Gujarath
D) Karnataka
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 19.
…………………. is the largest producer of Groundnut in India.
A) Rajasthan
B) Gujarath
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 20.
…………….. state is not a great producer of mangoes.
A) Kerala
B) Maharashtra
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 21.
…………….. is not practiced during ‘Zaid’ season.
A) Fodder
B) Cucumber
C) Barley
D) Watermelon
Answer:
C) Barley

Question 22.
Rice is a commercial crop in
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Tamilnadu
D) Haryana
Answer:
D) Haryana

Question 23.
Tea bushes require ………….., ………….., …………… climate all through the year.
A) Warm, moist, frost free
B) Warm, moist, frost
C) Cold, dry, frostfree
D) Warm, dry, frostfree
Answer:
A) Warm, moist, frost free

A variety of food and non-food crops are grown in different parts of the coun-try depending upon the variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. Major crops grown in India are paddy, wheat, millets, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, oil seeds, cotton and jute, etc.
Read the text given and answer the questions.

Question 24.
Into how many types of crops are broadly divided?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
B) 2

Question 25.
Which of the following is a food crop?
A) Rice
B) Cotton
C) Sugarcane
D) Jute
Answer:
A) Rice

Question 26.
Which of the following is a non-food crop?
A) Paddy
B) Wheat
C) Cotton
D) Ragi
Answer:
C) Cotton

Study the table and answer the questions given below it.

Question 27.
In which state rice does not grow?
A) AP
B) Assom
C) West Bengal
D) Rajasthan
Answer:
D) Rajasthan

Question 28.
In which state Jowar grow?
A) U.P
B) Punjab
C) Uttarakhand
D) Maharashtra
Answer:
D) Maharashtra

Question 29.
In which state maize grow?
A) U.P
B) M.P
C) Gujarat
D) Kerala
Answer:
A) U.P

Observe the map given and answer the following.

Question 30.
Which state is the largest producer of sugarcane?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Punjab
D) Nagaland
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 31.
Which state is the largest producer of groundnut?
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Kerala
C) Goa
D) Haryana
Answer:
A) Andhra Pradesh

Question 32.
Sesamum is a …………… crop.
A) Kharif
B) Rabi
C) Zaid
D) None
Answer:
A) Kharif

Question 33.
Choose the correct one.
1. Paddy is a Kharif crop
2. Wheat is a Zaid crop
A) 1 is true
B) 2 is true
C) 1 & 2 are true
D) None
Answer:
A) 1 is true

Question 34.
Choose the wrong pair from given below.
A) Bhakra Nangal – Himachal Pradesh
B) Hirakud – Odisha
C) Damodar valley – West Bengal
D) Nagarjuna Sagar-Tamilnadu
Answer:
D) Nagarjuna Sagar-Tamilnadu

Question 35.
One among the below belongs to green revolution
A) HYVs
B) New Technical Methods
C) Irrigation facilities
D) Above all
Answer:
D) Above all

Question 36.
Who is not relate to the Government Administration?
A) Thahasildar (MRO)
B) Beauticians
C) Police
D) Collector
Answer:
B) Beauticians

Question 37.
Who decides the minimum support price for agricultural products ? .
A) Farmers
B) Mediators
C) Buyers
D) Government
Answer:
D) Government

Examine the above given map and answer the 38 and 39 questions.

Question 38.
Paddy is not a major crop in this South Indian state
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Tamilnadu
Answer:
B) Karnataka

Question 39.
Paddy is a major crop in one of the North Indian states
A) Jammu & Kashmir
B) Punjab
C) Rajasthan
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
B) Punjab

Question 40.
Rubber crop needs high rainfall. So it grows well in region.
A) Equatorial
B) Tropical
C) Mediterranean
D) Tundra
Answer:
A) Equatorial

Question 41.
Which among the following is mainly a Kharif crop?
A) Paddy
B) Wheat
C) Barley
D) Gram
Answer:
A) Paddy

Question 42.
This is not cropping season in India.
A) Rabi
B) Kharif
C) Zaid
D) Arabica
Answer:
D) Arabica

Question 43.
Choose the wrong pair from given below.
A) Coffee – Karnataka
B) Tea-Assom
C) Wheat-Andhra Pradesh
D) Rubber – Kerala
Answer:
C) Wheat-Andhra Pradesh

Question 44.
………………… are help in decomposition of plant and animal substances and turns them as organic matter.
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Both A and B

Question 45.
Choose the correct one
1) Wheat is a ‘RABI’ crop
2) Watermelon is ‘ZAID’ crop
A) 1 is true
B) 2 is true
C) 1 & 2 are true
D) 1 & 2 are false
Answer:
C) 1 & 2 are true

Question 46.
Culturing of silk worms is known as
A) Apiculture
B) Horticulture
C) Sericulture
D) Aquaculture
Answer:
C) Sericulture

Question 47.
Original home of cotton Plant
A) Bangladesh
B) India
C) China
D) Italy
Answer:
B) India

Question 48.
High production in crops related to which revolution?
A) Blue Revolution
B) Green Revolution
C) Black Revolution
D) Red Revolution
Answer:
B) Green Revolution

Question 49.
Rearing of silk worms for the produc¬tion of silk is known as
A) Epiculture
B) Sericulture
C) Brown culture
D) Aqua culture
Answer:
B) Sericulture

Question 50.
Which crop is known as the golden fibre?
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Rubber
D) Tea
Answer:
B) Jute

Question 51.
The percentage of irrigated land in the entire cultivable land in India is
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 40%
D) 70%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 52.
Which of the following is not a non-food crop?
A) Rubber
B) Cotton
C) Jute
D) Maize
Answer:
D) Maize

Question 53.
Which of the following practices can help in increasing crop production in dry land areas?
i) rainfall conservation
ii) afforestation
iii) mixed crop farming Choose the correct answer.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All – i, ii and iii
Answer:
D) All – i, ii and iii

Question 54.
Which of these Government of India schemes provides the farmers on-line trading platform for agricultural commodities?
A) National Agriculture Market (NAM)
B) Minimum Support Price (MSP)
C) Goods and Service Tax (GST)
D) Farmer Bazaars (FB)
Answer:
A) National Agriculture Market (NAM)

Question 55.

How does the above image reflect in the context of Indian agriculture?
A) Small farmers hold more land than big land owners.
B) Land available for small farmers is very less.
C) The number of big land owners is more than small farmers.
D) Almost all of the agricultural land is available for small farmers.
Answer:
B) Land available for small farmers is very less.

Question 56.
Which of the following crops are NOT suitable for dry land agriculture?
A) Jute, Paddy
B) Ragi, Gram
C) Groundnut, Bajra
D) Jowar, Soyabean
Answer:
A) Jute, Paddy

Question 57.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Nagarjuna Sagar i) Himachal Pradesh
b) Bhakra – Nangai ii) Andhra Pradesh
c) Hirakud iii) Odisha
A) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
B) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
C) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
D) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
Answer:
B) a – ii, b – i, c – iii

Question 58.
Which of the following crop is related with the ‘Arabica’ variety?
A) Wheat
B) Tea
C) Coffee
D) Cotton
Answer:
C) Coffee

Question 59.
Which of the following States is declared as the first organic farming state of India
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Sikkim
C) Assom
D) Kerala
Answer:
B) Sikkim

Question 60.
A little over 40% of the total cultivable land in India is irrigated. Remaining lands drylands. Which of the following activity increases sustainable production in such dryland areas?
A) Digging many Borewells in that area
B) Increasing usage of pesticides
C) Conserving rainfall that the area receives
D) Extended use of chemical fertilizers
Answer:
C) Conserving rainfall that the area receives

Question 61.
Consider the following statements and find out which of them is / are true.
A) The minerals in organic fertilizers are slowly available to plants.
B) Chemical fertilizers reduce the fertility of the soil in course of time.
A) Only B is true
B) Both A and B are True
C) Both A and B are False
D) Only A is true
Answer:
B) Both A and B are True

Question 62.
Uttar Pradesh : Sugarcane :: ? : Rubber
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Assam
Answer:
B) Kerala

Question 63.
The crop that is known as the ‘golden fiber’ is :
A) Silk
B) Jute
C) Hemp
D) Cotton
Answer:
B) Jute

Question 64.
The important project which is under construction for the development of agriculture in Andhra Pradesh is:
A) Polavaram
B) Dummugudem
C) Ichampalli
D) Pranahitha-chevella
Answer:
A) Polavaram

Question 65.
Observer the picture given below.

Which reality of Indian agriculture does the picture sav about?
A) Fall of prices
B) Uneven land distribution
C) The adverse impact of green revolution
D) Low yielding
Answer:
B) Uneven land distribution

Question 66.
The crop which is being extensively used both as food and fodder is:
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Ragi
D) Paddy
Answer:
B) Maize

Question 67.
Instruction: Observe the following map and answer the questions from 67 to 71:

The state that is denoted by C in the map is:
A) The largest producer of pulses
B) The largest producer of millets
C) The largest producer of paddy
D) The largest producer of groundnut
Answer:
C) The largest producer of paddy

Question 68.
With which letter is Andhra Pradesh denoted?
A) C
B) D
C) E
D) B
Answer:
B) D

Question 69.
True among the following regarding the state shown with ‘D’ is:
X : The largest sugarcane producer
Y : The largest wheat producer
A) Y only
B) Both X and Y
C) Neither X nor Y
D) X only
Answer:
B) Both X and Y

Question 70.
The state that is denoted by E is a famous tea producer.
Find out the name of that state.
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Assam
C) West Bengal
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
B) Assam

Question 71.
Which letter denotes the state of first cement factory?
A) C
B) B
C) A
D) D
Answer:
A) C

Question 72.
“Foreign trade in farm products was proved very much helpful to our farmers.”
A) No, it actually caused farmers income to fluctuate a lot. It helped no farmer in India.
B) It may be helpful for a few big farmers but many small farmers are not happy with that. Government has to be very careful in framing such policies.
C) It is the mistake of the farmers only, if they lose, They have to learn how to save.
D) Yes, it is true, Now all our farmers are happily exporting their products and gaining much profit.
Answer:
B) It may be helpful for a few big farmers but many small farmers are not happy with that. Government has to be very careful in framing such policies.

Question 73.
“Green revolution was very useful to India.”
A) No, it only damaged our agriculture sector.
B) It would be too early to judge the effect of green revolution now.
C) It helped India to become self sufficient in food grains but later it caused several environmental problems too.
D) Yes. It was very useful. It saved the nation from the problem of food shortage.
Answer:
C) It helped India to become self sufficient in food grains but later it caused several environmental problems too.

Question 74.
“We have to think of as future generation about clean India, Swach Bharath.”
A) We should not bother about anything now except our studies and marks.
B) We have to avoid the use of plastic and to habituate growing plants and using toilets etc.
C) Since we are after all students, nothing can we do in this regard.
D) Yes, we have to aim at the cleanest nation.
Answer:
B) We have to avoid the use of plastic and to habituate growing plants and using toilets etc.

Question 75.
Which one among the following features does not relate to Indian agriculture?
A) Cultivation in small plots
B) Highest average yielding
C) Rain fed agriculture
D) Providing employment to majority of the workers.
Answer:
B) Highest average yielding

Question 76.
Which of the following crop requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost – free days and bright sunshine.
A) Jute
B) Cotton
C) Tea
D) Coffee
Answer:
B) Cotton

Question 77.
Tea is a …………. crop.
A) Fiber Crop
B) Food Crop
C) Beverage Crop
D) Industrial Crop
Answer:
C) Beverage Crop

Observe the map and answer the questions 78 and 79.

Question 78.
Which of the following states are ma¬jor cotton producing states?
A) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh
B) West Bengal, Odissa
C) Rajasthan, Karnataka
D) Gujarat, Maharashtra
Answer:
D) Gujarat, Maharashtra

Question 79.
Which of the following states are major sugarcane producing states?
A) Himachal, Odissa
B) Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka
C) Rajasthan, Punjab
D) Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal
Answer:
B) Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka

Read the table carefully to answer questions 80, 81 and 82.
Number of Holding in India over the years

Question 80.
Maximum number of operational land holdings in India is
A) Small
B) Medium
C) Large
D) Marginal
Answer:
A) Small

Question 81.
What is the average size of small land holding in India?
A) Above 2 hectares
B) Between 1 to 2 hectares
C) Between 2 to 4 hectares
D) Above 10 hectares
Answer:
B) Between 1 to 2 hectares

Question 82.
Which of these can be concluded from the information given in the table?
A) The operational landholdings have more than doubled between 1970-71 and 2010-11.
B) Semi-medium holdings are the least in number in India.
C) The large operational landholdings have gradually decreased in India over the years.
D) Almost all of the agricultural land under cultivation is available for small farmers.
Answer:
C) The large operational landholdings have gradually decreased in India over the years.

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Biosphere on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 5th Lesson Biosphere with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The primary food producers are
A) animals
B) birds
C) plants
D) human beings
Answer:
C) plants

Question 2.
Animals which eat food produced by plants are called
A) Herbivores
B) Carnivores
C) Cannibals
D) Omnivores
Answer:
A) Herbivores

Question 3.
The forests which occur in the region near the equator are called
A) Tropical Deciduous forests
B) Temperate Deciduous forests
C) Tropical Evergreen forests
D) Temperate Evergreen forests
Answer:
C) Tropical Evergreen forests

Question 4.
In which of the following forests do the hard wood trees such as rosewood, ebony and mahogany trees grow?
A) Tropical Deciduous forests
B) Tropical Evergreen forests
C) Temperate Evergreen forests
D) Temperate Deciduous forests
Answer:
B) Tropical Evergreen forests

Question 5.
The type of forests found in India are:
A) Tropical Evergreen forests
B) Tropical Deciduous forests
C) Temperate Deciduous forests
D) Tropical grasslands
Answer:
B) Tropical Deciduous forests

Question 6.
……………. are called the monsoon forests.
A) Tropical Deciduous forests
B) Tropical Evergreen forests
C) Temperate Evergreen forests
D) Temperate Deciduous forests
Answer:
A) Tropical Deciduous forests

Question 7.
………………. forests are commonly found along the eastern margin of the continents.
A) Temperate Evergreen
B) Temperate Deciduous
C) Tropical Deciduous
D) Tropical Evergreen
Answer:
A) Temperate Evergreen

Question 8.
The east and the north-east margins of the continents are covered by
A) Coniferous forests
B) Tropical grasslands
C) Temperate grasslands
D) Mediterranean vegetation
Answer:
D) Mediterranean vegetation

Question 9.
Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated in
A) Tropical Deciduous forests
B) Temperate Deciduous forests
C) Mediterranean vegetation
D) Coniferous forests
Answer:
C) Mediterranean vegetation

Question 10.
………….. are also called Taiga forests.
A) Mediterranean vegetation
B) Coniferous forests
C) Tundra vegetation
D) Thorny bushes
Answer:
B) Coniferous forests

Question 11.
…………… forests are found in the Himalayas in abundance.
A) Mediterranean
B) Temperate Deciduous
C) Temperate Evergreen
D) Coniferous
Answer:
D) Coniferous

Question 12.
The trees which are used to make pulp are found in the forests.
A) Temperate grasslands
B) Tropical grasslands
C) Coniferous forests
D) Thorny bushes
Answer:
C) Coniferous forests

Question 13.
Any disturbance in life cycle is called
A) Green house effect
B) Global warming
C) Ecological crisis
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Ecological crisis

Question 14.
The source of chloro fluoro carbons is
A) Aerosols
B) Fossil fuels
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Aerosols

Question 15.
Following is not a herbivore
A) Elephant
B) Dog
C) Goat
D) Deer
Answer:
B) Dog

Question 16.
Identify the odd one based on ‘food chain’.
A) Dogs
B) Cats
C) Birds
D) Goats
Answer:
D) Goats

Question 17.
The effect of ‘diclofenac’ drug on vultures is
A) Kidney failure
B) Heart failure
C) Nervous breakdown
D) Respiration problem
Answer:
A) Kidney failure

Question 18.
Thick canopies of closely spaced trees are found in
A) Tropical deciduous forests
B) Temperate evergreen forests
C) Tropical evergreen forests
D) Temperate deciduous forests
Answer:
C) Tropical evergreen forests

Question 19.
Forests in larger part of India are
A) Tropical deciduous forests
B) Temperate evergreen forests
C) Tropical evergreen forests
D) Temperate deciduous forests
Answer:
A) Tropical deciduous forests

Question 20.
Temperate evergreen forests are found in
A) India
B) Australia
C) South China
D) Congo
Answer:
C) South China

Question 21.
These trees are found in Himalayas in abundance
A) Coniferous
B) Rosewood
C) Sal
D) Eucalyptus
Answer:
A) Coniferous

Question 22.
Tropical deserts are located in …………… margins of continents.
A) Eastern
B) Western
C) Southern
D) Northern
Answer:
B) Western

Question 23.
This does not cause ‘acid rain’.
A) Sulphuric Acid
B) Nitric Acid
C) Carbonic
D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
D) Hydrochloric acid

Question 24.
Kyoto protocal was made in
A) 2008
B) 2012
C) 1997
D) 1999
Answer:
C) 1997

Question 25.
Kyoto protocal aims to bring down the release of Green House Gases to less than
A) 2.5%
B) 5.2%
C) 1.8%
D) 4.8%
Answer:
B) 5.2%

Question 26.
Shrub vegetation is found at
A) Equators
B) Deserts
C) Oceans
D) Temperate regions
Answer:
B) Deserts

Question 27.
Peasants and monals are found in
A) Tropical evergreen forests
B) Tropical deciduous forests
C) Temperate deciduous forests
D) Temperate evergreen forests
Answer:
C) Temperate deciduous forests

Question 28.
Present Union Minister for environ¬ment in India is
A) Prakash Javadekar
B) Manohar Parikar
C) Yaswanth Sinha
D) Arun Jaitley
Answer:
A) Prakash Javadekar

Question 29.
Natural vegetation is classified into broad categories.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
A) 3

Question 30.
Savannah grasslands of Africa are ………… grasslands.
A) Thorny
B) Tropical
C) Temperate
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Tropical

Question 31.
Coniferous forests are also known as
A) Taiga
B) Deciduous
C) Evergreen forest
D) Temperate grasslands
Answer:
A) Taiga

Question 32.
Which of the following is hard wood ?
A) Oak
B) Eucalyptus
C) Sal
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Sal

Vultures feed upon dead animals like cattle. Vultures eating dead carcass used to be a common sight in villages and towns some twenty years ago. However, people started noticing that vultures have virtually disappeared and are sighted very rarely. Investigations suggest that farm¬ers use a particular chemical called Diclofenac to treat cattle. When the cattle die their flesh retains this chemical. When their flesh is consumed by vultures, diclofenac leads to kidney failure in them and they die within a week or so. In this way vultures have come very close to extinction.
Read the para given and answer the questions.

Question 33.
Who are the natural scavengers?
A) Reptiles
B) Vultures
C) Birds
D) Sea animals
Answer:
B) Vultures

Question 34.
What is diclofenac?
A) Chemical for cattle
B) Chemical for humans
C) Chemical for snakes
D) None
Answer:
A) Chemical for cattle

Question 35.
Which living being is affected with diclofenac?
A) Buffalo
B) Dogs
C) Vulture
D) Snakes
Answer:
C) Vulture

See the picture and answer the bellow questions.

Question 36.
What is the name of the forest?

A) Tropical deciduous
B) Tropical evergreen
C) Temperate deciduous
D) Temperate grass lands
Answer:
B) Tropical evergreen

Question 37.
Where the Tropical evergreen forest is located?
A) Polar regions
B) Antarctica
C) Equator
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 38.
What is the other name of tropical evergreen forest?
A) Savannas
B) Tropical rain forest
C) Welds
D) Deciduous
Answer:
B) Tropical rain forest

Question 39.
Which tree is existed here?
A) ebony
B) sal
C) neem
D) shisham
Answer:
A) ebony

Match the following:

Question 40.
Group – A — Group – B
1) Tropical Evergreen forests — A) Taiga
2) Tropical Deciduous forests — B) Savannas
3) Coniferous forests — C) Tropical tain forests
4) Tropical grasslands — D) Steppes
5) Temperate grasslands — E) Monsoon forests
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 41.
Group – A — Group – B
1) Tropical Evergreen forests — A) The eastern margins of the continents
2) Temperate Evergreen forests — B) The west and south-west margins of the continents
3) Mediterranean vegetation — C) Close to the tropics
4) Coniferous forests — D) Western margins of the continents
5) Thorny bushes — E) The Himalayas
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) B
4) E
5) D

Question 42.
Life itself constitutes a sphere called “Biosphere”.
‘Bios’ is derived from …………….. word.
A) Greek
B) Arabic
C) English
D) Latin
Answer:
A) Greek

Question 43.
Which type of forests are found in the large parts of India?
A) Tropical Evergreen
B) Torpical Deciduous
C) Temperate Evergreen
D) Temperate Deciduous
Answer:
B) Torpical Deciduous

Question 44.
These vegetation familiar for soft wood
A) Tundra
B) Coniferrous
C) Mediterranean
D) Tropical Decidous
Answer:
B) Coniferrous

Question 45.
If you want to see animal like silver fox, mink, polar bear in their natural habitat, which of the following forests isthebest?
A) Tropical grass lands
B) Coniferous forests
C) Evergreen forests
D) Tropical deciduous forests
Answer:
B) Coniferous forests

Question 46.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Mediterranean climate and vegetation?
A) Trees in this region have thick barks and wax coated leaves
B) Trees in this region shed their leaves in autumn season.
C) The region experiences hot dry summers and wet winter.
D) Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes and cultivated in this region.
Answer:
B) Trees in this region shed their leaves in autumn season.

Question 47.
Some animals have thick fur and thick skin to protect themselves from cold. In which of the following vegetations can we find these type of animals?
A) Mediterranean
B) Evergreen
C) Tundra
D) Savannah
Answer:
C) Tundra

Question 48.
Why do trees in tropical decidious forests shed their leaves in the dry season?
A) To get manure
B) To conserve water
C) To grow more branches
D) To grow their roots
Answer:
B) To conserve water

Question 49.
Read the following statements.
1) Found in the higher latitudes of Northern hemisphere and also in higher altitudes.
2) Tall and softwood trees -..these woods are useful for making pulp matchboxes and packing boxes.
3) Chir, Pine, Cedar are the important trees in these forests.
Which of the following forests is described above?
A) Mediterranean
B) Tundra
C) Coniferous
D) Evergreen
Answer:
C) Coniferous

Question 50.
The trees do not shed their leaves altogether in Tropical Evergreen Forests because:
A) The sunlight is not allowed there even in the day time.
B) There is no particular dry season.
C) Those trees are hard wood trees.
D) Those are situated at higher latitudes.
Answer:
A) The sunlight is not allowed there even in the day time.

Question 51.
Tropical deserts are located in the western margins of the continents because:
A) After raining in the East, the dry Western winds reach the west.
B) There are low pressure regions in the western margins qf the continents.
C) The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the continents.
D) After raining in the East, the dry trade winds reach the west.
Answer:
C) The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the continents.

Question 52.
Temperate zone : Steppes : : Tropical zone: ?
A) Savannahs
B) Pampas
C) Downs
D) Prairies
Answer:
A) Savannahs

Question 53.
Chir, Pine, Cedar : Coniferous forests :: Rose wood, Ebony, Mahogany : ?
A) Deciduous forests
B) Mediterranean forests
C) Tundra forests
D) Evergreen forests
Answer:
D) Evergreen forests

Question 54.
The primary food producers on the Earth are:
A) Birds
B) Human beings
C) Animals
D) Plants
Answer:
D) Plants

Question 55.
“Today we are making even the oceans dumping ground for our plastic and other forms of waste.”
A) Yes, this is true. Human beings are not leaving the oceans too. They are polluting everything
B) Oceans are so big that they, cannot be polluted.
C) Any how we need not worry because we do not live on oceans.
D) This is only an exaggeration.
Answer:
A) Yes, this is true. Human beings are not leaving the oceans too. They are polluting everything

Question 56.
The main aim of Kyoto Protocol is
A) To prevent the spread of nuclear weapons.
B) To promote the usage of non-renew-able sources of energy
C) To prevent the pollution of the seas from ships
D) To bring down the release of Green House Gases
Answer:
D) To bring down the release of Green House Gases

Question 57.
Given below are the characteristic features of a type of forests.
i) The rainfall is more than 200 cm per year
ii) The mean temperature is more than 20 degrees C
iii) The trees have broad leaves and form canopies
iv) Some tree species found are – rose-wood, ebony, fern etc.
A) Tropical Evergreen Forests
B) Temperate Deciduous Forests
C) Mediterranean Vegetation
D) Coniferous Forests
Answer:
A) Tropical Evergreen Forests

Question 58.
Which group of energy sources are ALL renewable sources?
A) Coal, hydel and natural gas
B) Solar, oil and nuclear
C) Wind, geothermal and tidal
D) Natural gas, solar and tidal
Answer:
D) Natural gas, solar and tidal

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Atmosphere on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 4th Lesson Atmosphere with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………………. % of oxygen in the atmosphere is
A) 78%
B) 21%
C) 0.3%
D) 33%
Answer:
B) 21%

Question 2.
Which gas dominates in atmosphere by volume?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Argon
Answer:
C) Nitrogen

Question 3.
The volume of carbon dioxide in atmosphere is
A) 33%
B) 3.3%
C) 0.3%
D) 0.03%
Answer:
D) 0.03%

Question 4.
The volume of water vapour in the atmosphere is
A) 0.4%
B) 0.04%
C) 4%
D) 4.4%
Answer:
A) 0.4%

Question 5.
…………… layer is characterised by uniformity in composition of gases.
A) Heterosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Homosphere
D) Troposphere
Answer:
C) Homosphere

Question 6.
Lowermost layer of the atmosphere is
A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Exosphere
Answer:
C) Troposphere

Question 7.
…………… layer is free from clouds.
A) Troposphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Ionosphere
Answer:
C) Stratosphere

Question 8.
In which layer conditions are most ideal for flying jet aircrafts?
A) Troposphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
D) Stratosphere

Question 9.
…………….. layer contains ozone layer.
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Ionosphere
Answer:
B) Stratosphere

Question 10.
…………….. layer consists of electrically charged ions.
A) Troposphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer:
C) Thermosphere

Question 11.
…………… is the highest layer in the atmosphere.
A) Mesosphere
B) Ionosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Exosphere
Answer:
D) Exosphere

Question 12.
The Coriolis effect is ‘O’ at the
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Tropic of Capricorn
C) Equator
D) Poles
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 13.
Coriolis effect is maximum at the
A) Equator
B) Poles
C) Tropic of Cancer
D) Tropic of Capricorn
Answer:
B) Poles

Question 14.
The pressure and wind systems are actually the impact of
A) Lithosphere
B) Hydrosphere
C) Atmosphere
D) All the three
Answer:
D) All the three

Question 15.
Foehn – the hot winds blow along the northern slopes of the
A) Rockies
B) Andes
C) Alps
D) Himalayas
Answer:
C) Alps

Question 16.
Water vapour is a
A) liquid
B) solid
C) gas
D) plasma
Answer:
C) gas

Question 17.
Most gaseous matter of atmosphere is present in
A) Mesosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Troposphere
Answer:
D) Troposphere

Question 18.
Stratosphere contains ……………. layer.
A) Plasma
B) Ozone
C) Gas
D) None
Answer:
B) Ozone

Question 19.
…………………. is also called Ionosphere.
A) Thermosphere
B) Exosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Mesosphere
Answer:
A) Thermosphere

Question 20.
Vascoda Gama, who invented sea route to India is from
A) Spain
B) Poland
C) France
D) Portugal
Answer:
D) Portugal

Question 21.
To form dew drops, relative humidity should be
A) 100%
B) 80%
C) 20%
D) 200%
Answer:
A) 100%

Question 22.
Rain bearing and vertical clouds are called as
A) Cirrus
B) Cumulus
C) Stratus
D) Nimbus
Answer:
D) Nimbus

Question 23.
Convectional rainfall is uncommon in
A) high latitudes
B) low latitudes
C) summer days
D) interior parts
Answer:
A) high latitudes

Question 24.
‘Cyclone’ is derived from ‘Kyklon’ in Greek |peans
A) blowing
B) revolving
C) raising
D) raining
Answer:
B) revolving

Question 25.
Between latitudes 100 and 300 N and S
A) heavy rain on eastern coast
B) heavy rain on western coast
C) no rain on eastern coast
D) no rain on western coast
Answer:
A) heavy rain on eastern coast

Question 26.
Identify the odd one
A) Norwester
B) Mistral
C) Simmon
D) Yoma
Answer:
B) Mistral

Question 27.
Identify the odd one
A) Chinook
B) Loo
C) Norwester
D) Puna
Answer:
D) Puna

Question 28.
Electrically charged particles present in
A) Exosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
B) Thermosphere

Question 29.
Meteorites burn up in this layer
A) Exosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
C) Mesosphere

Question 30.
Precipitation derived from ‘Praecipitatio’ of
A) Arabic
B) Greek
C) Hebrew
D) Latin
Answer:
D) Latin

Question 31.
The dust particles present in the air are called
A) particulates
B) water vapour
C) humidity
D) oxygen
Answer:
A) particulates

Question 32.
The average height of the troposphere is
A) 18 km
B) 8 km
C) 13 km
D) 16 km
Answer:
C) 13 km

Question 33.
Radio waves are reflected back to the earth from
A) the troposphere
B) the stratosphere
C) the exosphere
D) the thermosphere
Answer:
D) the thermosphere

Question 34.
If temperature increases, the air pressure
A) decreases
B) increases
C) stable
D) becomes zero
Answer:
A) decreases

Question 35.
If air moves in a slow pace, it is called
A) storm
B) gust
C) breeze
D) cyclone
Answer:
C) breeze

Question 36.
If air moves very fast and blows the things around, it is called
A) storm
B) gust
C) breeze
D) cyclone
Answer:
A) storm

Question 37.
The westerlies are an example of winds.
A) planetary winds
B) seasonal winds
C) cyclonic winds
D) local winds
Answer:
A) planetary winds

Question 38.
Monsoon is derived from the word Mausam.
A) Arabic
B) French
C) Latin
D) Greek
Answer:
A) Arabic

Question 39.
……………. is an example of hot wind.
A) Mistral
B) Puna
C) Pampero
D) Loo
Answer:
D) Loo

Question 40.
……………… is an example of hot local wind.
A) Chinook
B) Puna
C) Mistral
D) Pampero

Answer:
A) Chinook

Question 41.
The height of troposphere at equator is
A) 10 kms
B) 15 kms
C) 18 kms
D) 20 kms
Answer:
C) 18 kms

Question 42.
Jet aircrafts are flying in this sphere
A) Mesosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
D) Stratosphere

Question 43.
Stratosphere layer extends up to a height of ………….. kms.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 90
Answer:
A) 50

Question 44.
Radio waves are transmitted in this sphere
A) Exosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Mesosphere
Answer:
B) Thermosphere

Question 45.
All the weather changes that occurred in

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Ionosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer:
A) Troposphere

Question 46.
The westerlies are blowing towards
A) Sub-polar low-pressure belts
B) Equatorial low-pressure belts
C) Sub tropical high-pressure belts
D) None
Answer:
A) Sub-polar low-pressure belts

Question 47.
Trade winds are blowing towards the
A) Sub tropical high pressure belts
B) The equatorial doldrums
C) Sub polar low pressure belts
D) None
Answer:
B) The equatorial doldrums

Question 48.
The equatorial low pressure belts are also known as
A) ITCZ
B) IPEC
C) ISON
D) None
Answer:
A) ITCZ

Question 49.
What is the local wind name of Canada?
A) Simoon
B) Loo
C) Yoma
D) Chinook
Answer:
D) Chinook

Question 50.
Chinook is a …………. wind.
A) Hot
B) Cool
C) Moderate
D) None
Answer:
A) Hot

Question 51.
Simoon is the local wind of
A) Argentina
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Japan
D) Europe
Answer:
B) Saudi Arabia

Question 52.
Local wind of India is
A) Fohn
B) Mistral
C) Loo
D) Puna
Answer:
C) Loo

Question 53.
Norwester is the focal wind of
A) England
B) Newzealand
C) Australia
D) India
Answer:
B) Newzealand

Match the following.

Question 54.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Troposphere — A) Meteorites burn up
2. Stratosphere — B) Ions
3. Mesosphere — C) Uppermost layer
4. Thermosphere — D) Jet aircrafts
5. Exosphere — E) Weather phenomenon
Answer:
1) E
2) D
3) A
4) B
5) C

Question 55.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Wind — A) Short and fast burst
2. Breeze — B) Moves very fast and blows things around
3. Gust — C) High-speed winds
4. Storm — D) From high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas
5. Cyclone — E) Moves at a slow pace
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) C

Question 56.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Chinook — A) From the Alps to the Mediterranean sea
2. Loo — B) Andes region
3. Mistral — C) Rocky mountains in the U.S.A
4. Puna — D) South America
5. Pampero — E) Plains of northern India
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 57.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Foehn — A) Causes sunstroke to people
2. Simoon — B) Japan
3. Yoma  — C) Europe
4. Norwester — D) Arabian desert
5. Loo  — E) New Zealand
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) E
5) A

Question 58.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Cirrus clouds — A) Rain bearing, vertical clouds
2. Cumulus — B) At a lower level
3. Stratus — C) At a higher level
4. Nimbus — D) At middle level
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) B
4) A

Question 59.
Match the foilowing
1) Troposphere a) Meteorites
2) Stratosphere b) Radio Waves
3) Mesophere c) Life
4) Thermosphere d) Jet aircrafts
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b

Question 60.
The activeness of South West monsoon in India is affected by:
A) El Nino only
B) La Nino only
C) Both El Nino and La Nino
D) None of these two
Answer:
A) El Nino only

Question 61.
Highest waterfall in the world is:
A) Jog Falls
B) Angel Falls
C) Niagara Falls
D) Victoria falls
Answer:
B) Angel Falls

Question 62.
The Greek ‘Pros’ means:
A) Rainfall
B) Mountain
C) Humidity
D) Wind
Answer:
B) Mountain

Question 63.
Stratosphere is most ideal for flying jet aircrafts because:
A) Entire weather phenomenon happens in this sphere
B) Clouds do not exist in this sphere
C) Electrically charged ions exist in this sphere
D) Meteorites burn up in this sphere
Answer:
B) Clouds do not exist in this sphere

Question 64.
The entire weather phenomenon happens in ………….. layer.
A) Mesosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Stratosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer:
B) Troposphere

Question 65.
Choose the wrong paid from given below,
A) Troposphere – Average Height -13 kms.
B) Stratosphere – Extends of 50 Kms.
C) Mesosphere-Extends up to 400 Kms.
D) Exosphere – Upper most layer.
Answer:
C) Mesosphere-Extends up to 400 Kms.

Question 66.
……………. wing helps in ripening grapes in Europe
A) Foehn
B) Chinook
C) pampero
D) Loo
Answer:
A) Foehn

Question 67.
The hot and dry winds blow in north India in the months of May and June.
A) Chinook
B) Loo
C) Simoon
D) Mistrol
Answer:
B) Loo

Question 68.
The winds that blow continuously and regularly above the world pressure belts are known as
A) Monsoon winds
B) Planetary winds
C) Local winds
D) Hot and dry winds
Answer:
B) Planetary winds

Question 69.
Why is the ozone layer important?
A) It increases crop yields and forest growth.
B) It protects living organisms from ultraviolet – B radiation from the Sun.
C) It controls air motion and prevents hurricanes from forming.
D) It slows down global warming.
Answer:
B) It protects living organisms from ultraviolet – B radiation from the Sun.

Question 70.
The coriolis effect is caused by
A) The rotation of the Earth around in the Sun
B) The rotation of Earth on its axis
C) The revolution of moon around the Earth
D) The Gravitational power of the Earth
Answer:
B) The rotation of Earth on its axis

Question 71.
Which of the following is an example of planetary wind?
A) Westerlies
B) South West monsoon
C) See breeze
D) Loo
Answer:
A) Westerlies

Question 72.
The recent floods due to the South West Monsoons mostly affected which of the following States?
A) Rajasthan
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka
Answer:
C) Kerala

Question 73.
The temperature increases with altitude in Stratosphere because:
A) It contains ions.
B) It contains transparent clouds.
C) It is not so far from the Earth.
D) The ozone layer that presents in it absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun.
Answer:
D) The ozone layer that presents in it absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun.

Question 74.
The rainfall in India occurs mainly due to:
A) Seasonal winds
B) Planetary winds
C) Cyclonic winds
D) Local winds
Answer:
A) Seasonal winds

Question 75.
Observe the picture given below.

What kind of rainfall is shown on the picture?
A) Orographic rainfall
B) Cyclonic rainfall
C) Only snowfall
D) Convectional rainfall
Answer:
A) Orographic rainfall

Question 76.
The central part of Deccan Plateau receives low rainfall because:
A) It is situated in rain shadow region
B) It contains less forest area
C) It is becoming a desert
D) It contains no ground water
Answer:
A) It is situated in rain shadow region

Question 77.
Find out the correct statement among the following regarding the rainfall across the globe:
A) Rainfall is heavier in deserts.
B) Low rainfall in equatorial regions.
C) Rainfall is more over the oceans that on the continents.
D) Heavy rains in the polar regions.
Answer:
C) Rainfall is more over the oceans that on the continents.

Instruction: Based on the information given below, answer the questions from 78 to 82.

Question 78.
If the high pressure region is denoted by A and low pressure region is denoted by B, then the winds:
A) Flow from B to A
B) Flow from A to A
C) Flow from B to B
D) Flow from A to B
Answer:
A) Flow from B to A

Question 79.
The winds that flow from West to East are called:
A) Western winds only
B) Either Eastern winds or western winds
C) Eastern and western winds
D) Eastern winds only
Answer:
A) Western winds only

Question 80.
The winds that blow from sub-tropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt are:
A) Eastern winds
B) Western winds
C) Trade winds
D) Polar winds
Answer:
C) Trade winds

Question 81.
Which among the following is called Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone?
A) Sub-polar low-pressure belt
B) Sub-tropical high pressure belt
C) Equatorial low-pressure belt
D) Polar high pressure belt
Answer:
C) Equatorial low-pressure belt

Question 82.
All the winds that are shown in the above picture are:
A) Monsoon winds
B) Planetary winds
C) Cyclonic winds
D) Local winds
Answer:
B) Planetary winds

Question 83.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, the winds slightly blow aside. These winds:
A) blow to the left in Northern hemi-sphere and to the right in Southern hemisphere.
B) blow to the right in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
C) blow to the left in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
D) blow to the right in Northern hemi-sphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere.
Answer:
D) blow to the right in Northern hemi-sphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere.

Question 84.
Which among the following is a false statement regarding El Nino and La Nino?
A. These are influencing South-West monsoons.
B. These are influencing Indian agriculture
C. These lead to the situations of droughts and floods.
D. These are caused by the changes of temperature in the Indian Ocean.
A) C, D
B) C
C) D
D) A, B
Answer:
C) D

Question 85.
We know very little till today about this layer of the atmosphere:
A) Mesosphere
B) Thermosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer:
C) Exosphere

Question 86.
The hot winds which we face in our region in summer are:
A) Seasonal winds
B) Local winds
C) Cyclonic winds
D) Planetary winds
Answer:
B) Local winds

Question 87.
This is not a property of atmosphere:
A) Atmosphere has a specific shape
B) Atmosphere compresses
C) Atmosphere expands
D) Atmosphere is composed of many gases
Answer:
A) Atmosphere has a specific shape

Question 88.
Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause:
A) Forest fires
B) Increased incidence of skin cancer
C) Global warming
D) Extra-terrestrial hazards
Answer:
B) Increased incidence of skin cancer

Question 89.
Winds blowing from the sub-tropical High-Pressure belts to the equatorial Low-Pressure belts are called as
A) The westerlies
B) The polar easterlies
C) The seasonal winds
D) The trade winds
Answer:
D) The trade winds

Question 90.
Look at the diagram below.

Which location shown in the diagram could possibly a desert?
A) Location A
B) Location B
C) Location C
D) Location D
Answer:
D) Location D

Question 91.
Choose the planetary wind
A) South West Monsoon
B) Mistral
C) Loo
D) Westerlies
Answer:
D) Westerlies

Question 92.
Which graph does BEST show the general relationship between altitude and temperature in the troposphere?

Answer:
A)

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 3 Hydrosphere on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………. is a cyclic resource.
A) Water
B) Air
C) Coal
D) Wind
Answer:
A) Water

Question 2.
Losing water vapour to the air by plants is called ……………
A) precipitation
B) condensation
C) transpiration
D) precipitation
Answer:
C) transpiration

Question 3.
Forming tiny droplets and clouds by water vapour is called ……………
A) transpiration
B) condensation
C) evaporation
D) evapotranspiration
Answer:
B) condensation

Question 4.
……………. % of total water on the earth is saline ocean water.
A) 68.7%
B) 2.75%
C) 97.25%
D) 29.9%
Answer:
C) 97.25%

Question 5.
…………….. % of the total amount of fresh water on the earth is in lakes, reservoirs and river systems.
A) 29.9%
B) 68.7%
C) 0.26%
D) 2.75%
Answer:
C) 0.26%

Question 6.
Which ocean separates Asia and Oceania?
A) The Pacific ocean
B) The Atlantic ocean
C) The Indian ocean
D) The Antarctic ocean
Answer:
A) The Pacific ocean

Question 7.
Which ocean separates America and Europe?
A) The Pacific ocean
B) The Atlantic ocean
C) The Indian ocean
D) The Antarctic ocean
Answer:
B) The Atlantic ocean

Question 8.
In which realm of the ocean are rock petroleum and natural gas found?
A) Continental slope
B) Continental shelf
C) Deep sea plain
D) Oceanic deeps
Answer:
B) Continental shelf

Question 9.
Chemical name of the common salt is
A) Hydrogen chloride
B) Sodium chloride
C) Potassium chloride
D) Aluminium chloride
Answer:
B) Sodium chloride

Question 10.
…………… is expressed as parts per thousand (PPT) or %°.
A) Salinity of ocean
B) Density of ocean
C) Temperature of oceans
D) Atmospheric pressure on oceans
Answer:
A) Salinity of ocean

Question 11.
The average salinity of the oceans is …………..
A) 3.5%
B) 35%
C) 35%
D) 3.5%
Answer:
B) 35%

Question 12.
Of all the minerals dissolved in sea water Sodium Chloride or common salt constitutes
A) 35%
B) 3.5%
C) 2%
D) 77.8%
Answer:
D) 77.8%

Question 13.
River water contains ……………… % of sodium chloride.
A) 3.5%
B) 3%
C) 2%
D) 9.2%
Answer:
C) 2%

Question 14.
Which of the following consists the highest salinity?
A) Dead sea
B) Lake van
C) Baltic sea
D) Hudson Bay
Answer:
D) Hudson Bay

Question 15.
Which of the following consists the lowest salinity?
A) Dead sea
B) Hudson Bay
C) Great Salt lake
D) Lake Van
Answer:
B) Hudson Bay

Question 16.
The line, joining the points in the ocean having the same degree of salinity
A) Isobar
B) Isohyets
C) Isohaline
D) Isobaths
Answer:
C) Isohaline

Question 17.
A line joining points on the sea bed at an equal vertical distance beneath the surface
A) Isobar
B) Isotherm
C) Isohyets
D) Isobaths
Answer:
D) Isobaths

Question 18.
The temperature at the foot of the ocean is
A) 29°C
B) -2°C
C) 1.8°C
D) 38°C
Answer:
C) 1.8°C

Question 19.
First successful worldwide deep sea exploration was conducted with
A) Java
B) Naves
C) Horizon
D) Challenger
Answer:
D) Challenger

Question 20.
Largest continental shelf present in
A) Pacific ocean
B) Arctic ocean
C) Atlantic ocean
D) Indian ocean
Answer:
B) Arctic ocean

Question 21.
…………… occupies more ocean area.
A) Continental shelf
B) Continental slope
C) Deep sea plain
D) Trenches
Answer:
C) Deep sea plain

Question 22.
Oceanic temperature range is
A) -2°C to 29°C
B) 2°C to 29°C
C) -4°C to 35°C
D) Volatile
Answer:
A) -2°C to 29°C

Question 23.
World’s deepest trench is
A) Java
B) Naves
C) Mariana
D) Banda Ache
Answer:
C) Mariana

Question 24.
Highest temperature is in ………….. sea.
A) Red
B) Dead
C) Baltic
D) Black
Answer:
A) Red

Question 25.
Submarine canyons are observed in
A) Trenches
B) Deep sea plain
C) Continental slope
D) Continental shelf
Answer:
C) Continental slope

Question 26.
Oceanic deeps so far discovered are
A) 55
B) 77
C) 75
D) 57
Answer:
D) 57

Question 27.
Sodium Chloride constitutes % in oceanic waters.
A) 77.8%
B) 78.8%
C) 87.7%
D) 88.7%
Answer:
A) 77.8%

Question 28.
………….. are very significant in the study of plate movements?
A) Deep sea plains
B) Continental slopes
C) Continental shelves
D) Trenches
Answer:
D) Trenches

Question 29.
……………. % of pure water is present in underground.
A) 29.9
B) 1.4
C) 68.7
D) 67.8
Answer:
A) 29.9

Question 30.
Identify the odd one.
A) Sodium Chloride
B) Table Salt
C) Common Salt
D) Calcium Chloride
Answer:
D) Calcium Chloride

Question 31.
…………. is the circulation of water in different forms.
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Hydrological cycle
D) Precipitation
Answer:
C) Hydrological cycle

Question 32.
Transporting water from the atmo¬sphere to the surface of the earth is
A) Evaporation
B) Precipitation
C) Transportation
D) Condensation
Answer:
B) Precipitation

Question 33.
…………… of water is saline ocean waters.
A) 97.25 %
B) 68.7 %
C) 29.9 %
D) 0.26 %
Answer:
A) 97.25 %

Question 34.
………………. ocean separates America from Europe and Africa.
A) The Pacific
B) The Atlantic
C) The Indian
D) The Arctic
Answer:
B) The Atlantic

Question 35.
The single super Ocean was called
A) Panguea
B) Panthalsa
C) Tetheys
D) The Pacific
Answer:
B) Panthalsa

Question 36.
…………. are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world.
A) The Continental shelf
B) The Continental slope
C) Deep Sea plains
D) Oceanic deeps
Answer:
C) Deep Sea plains

Question 37.
Lowest salinity is found in ………….
A) Lake Van
B) Baltic Sea
C) Dead Sea
D) Great Salt Lake
Answer:
B) Baltic Sea

Question 38.
Which is the largest ocean Among the following?
A) Atlantic
B) The Arctic
C) The Indian
D) The Pacific
Answer:
D) The Pacific

Question 39.
Which ocean is considered as the extension of three important oceans?
A) The Pacific
B) The Antarctic
C) The Atlantic
D) The Indian
Answer:
B) The Antarctic

Question 40.
Which ocean separates America from Europe and Africa?
A) The Atlantic ocean
B) The Pacific ocean
C) The Indian ocean
D) The Antarctic ocean
Answer:
A) The Atlantic ocean

Question 41.
Which is the smallest ocean?
A) The Atlantic
B) The Arctic
C) The Antarctic
D) The Indian
Answer:
B) The Arctic

When compared to land the temperature in oceans does not show much variation. But these little variations show great impact. For example, the activeness of South West monsoon in India is affected by ‘El Nino’ and ‘La Nino’. These are the effects caused by the changes of temperature in The Pacific Ocean. The ocean temperature is influenced by lati¬tudes, winds, ocean currents, unequal distri¬bution of land and change of seasons.

Question 42.
Which wind is beneficial to India?
A) El Nino
B) La Nino
C) Ocean currents
D) None
Answer:
A) El Nino

Question 43.
Global warming in Pacific Ocean was created by
A) El Nino
B) Cyclone
C) La Nino
D) None
Answer:
C) La Nino

Question 44.
Southwest monsoon in India is effected by
A) El Nino
B) La Nino
C) Ocean currents
D) None
Answer:
A) El Nino

Question 45.
The normal temperature of ocean water is
A) 3°C to 30°C
B) – 2°C to 29°C
C) – 4°C to 50°C
D) – 1°C to 18°C
Answer:
B) – 2°C to 29°C

Question 46.
The Highest salinity is in
A) Lake Van
B) Kolleru lake
C) Dal lake
D) Sambar lake
Answer:
A) Lake Van

Question 47.
The lowest salinity is in
A) Great salt lake
B) Lake Van
C) Baltic sea
D) Red sea
Answer:
C) Baltic sea

Question 48.
The salinity of the Dead sea is
A) 330 %
B) 238 %
C) 220 %
D) 240 %
Answer:
B) 238 %

Question 49.
The highest temperature Red sea is
A) 29°C
B) 30°C
C) 38°C
D) 32°C
Answer:
C) 38°C

Observe the map given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 50.
One example of cold current
A) Brazil
B) Agulhas
C) Labrador
D) Norwegian
Answer:
C) Labrador

Question 51.
One example of warm current
A) California
B) West wind drift
C) Benguela
D) Gulf stream
Answer:
D) Gulf stream

Question 52.
Find out the cold current of Indian ocean
A) Humboldt
B) Oyashio
C) Canary
D) West Australian
Answer:
D) West Australian

Question 53.
One warm current which is passing through Atlantic ocean
A) California
B) Gulf stream
C) Agulhas
D) None
Answer:
B) Gulf stream

Match the following:

Question 54.
Group – A                                                          Group – B
1. Average salinity of oceans             ( )            A) Mariana
2. Highest salinity                              ( )            B) Hudson Bay
3. Lowest salinity                               ( )            C) PPT
4. Salinity is expressed as                  ( )            D) 35%
5. The deepest trench                       ( )             E) Lake Van
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) C
5) A

Question 55.
Group – A                                    Group – B
1. The single super ocean  ( )      A) Transpiration
2. Isohaline                         ( )      B) Dandi march
3. Isobath                           ( )      C) The line that connects points on the sea bed at an equal vertical distance
4. Plants                             ( )      D) Panthalsa
5. Mahatma Gandhi           ( )      E) The line that connects the points with same degree of salinity.
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) C
4) A
5) B

Question 56.
Ocean from South and North America.
A) Indian Ocean
B) Arctic Ocean
C) Mediterranean Sea
D) Pacific Ocean
Answer:
D) Pacific Ocean

Question 57.
The Ocean which contains lowest salinity
A) Baltic Sea
B) Arctic Ocean
C) Black Sea
D) Dead Sea
Answer:
A) Baltic Sea

Question 58.
Which ocean separates North America and South America from Europe and Africa
A) Indian
B) Pacific
C) Arctic
D) Atlantic
Answer:
D) Atlantic

Question 59.
Regarding Ocean Currents which among the following is true?
A) Warm and Cold Currents flow towards the poles
B) Warm and Cold Currents flow towards the Equator
C) Warm Currents flow towards the poles and Cold Currents towards Equator
D) Warm Currents flow towards Equator and Cold Currents towards Poles
Answer:
C) Warm Currents flow towards the poles and Cold Currents towards Equator

Question 60.
Find the odd one out
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Salination
D) Precipitation
Answer:
C) Salination

Question 61.
The process in which vapour transform¬ing into tiny droplets and clouds is called
A) Condensation
B) Ground Water
C) Tides
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Condensation

Question 62.
Average salinity of the ocean water
A) 30%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Answer:
C) 35%

Question 63.
Given below are the processes involved in Evaporation.
1. Evaporation form sea
2. Precipitation
3. Transportation
4. Condensation
5. Run off
Which of the following is the correct order of processes starting with evaporation?
A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5
B) 1 – 5 – 3 – 2 -4
C) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 5
D) 1 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 4
Answer:
C) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 5

Question 64.
Consider following statements.
1. Temperature of ocean water remains the same across the globe.
2. The change of temperature in The Pacific Ocean effects South – West monsoon in India.
3. Winds and ocean currents are influencing the ocean temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 2 only
Answer:
B) 2 and 3 only

Question 65.
On the planet earth, most of the fresh water exists as
A) Rivers and lakes
B) Ice and snow
C) Ground water
D) Moisture
Answer:
B) Ice and snow

Question 66.
The largest continental shelf of the world is in:
A) Atlantic Ocean
B) Indian Ocean
C) Arctic Ocean
D) Pacific Ocean
Answer:
C) Arctic Ocean

Instruction: Based on the information given below, answer the questions from 67 to 72:

Question 67.
The continents that do not touch the Pacific Ocean are:
A) Europe, Africa
B) Asia, Australia
C) Antarctica only
D) North America, South America
Answer:
A) Europe, Africa

Question 68.
True statement among the following regarding the Atlantic Ocean is:
A : Eastern boundary of North America
B : Western boundary of Europe
A) B only
B) Both A and B
C) Neither A nor B
D) A only
Answer:
B) Both A and B

Question 69.
Which among the following is called ‘Southern Ocean’?
A) Indian Ocean
B) Atlantic Ocean
C) Pacific Ocean
D) Antarctic Ocean
Answer:
D) Antarctic Ocean

Question 70.
Dharani went to Kanyakumari to see a beautiful Sunrise. Over which ocean does she see the Sunrise there?
A) Atlantic Ocean
B) Indian Ocean
C) Arctic Ocean
D) Pacific Ocean
Answer:
B) Indian Ocean

Question 71.
Which among the following countries does not include Oceania?
A) Philippines
B) Papua, New Guinea
C) New Zealand
D) Australia
Answer:
A) Philippines

Question 72.
The ocean which comes in last place when all the oceans are arranged in an order in terms of their size is:
A) Indian Ocean
B) Atlantic Ocean
C) Pacific Ocean
D) Arctic Ocean
Answer:
D) Arctic Ocean

Question 73.
Sujatha had sprouted seeds, vegetables slices with same salt in her breakfast. In her lunch she had rice and fish curry. In which of the following contexts did Sujatha teacher use ocean products?
A) In lunch
B) In breakfast and in lunch
C) In breakfast, in Lunch and in journey
D) In breakfast
Answer:
B) In breakfast and in lunch

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 2 The Natural Realms of the Earth on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 2nd Lesson The Natural Realms of the Earth with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The solid crust or the hard top part of the Earth is called
A) Biosphere
B) Atmosphere
C) Lithosphere
D) Hydrosphere
Answer:
C) Lithosphere

Question 2.
The realm of is called the biosphere.
A) air
B) life
C) rocks
D) water
Answer:
B) life

Question 3.
Oceans and continents are
A) second order landforms
B) third order landforms
C) first order landforms
D) fourth order landforms
Answer:
C) first order landforms

Question 4.
Mountains, plains and plateaus are called
A) the first order landforms
B) second order landforms
C) the fourth order landforms
D) third order landforms
Answer:
B) second order landforms

Question 5.
……………. mountains were formed by the process of the Indian plate pushing into the Eurasian plate.
A) The Rockie mountains
B) The Andese range
C) The Himalaya
D) The Aravali hills
Answer:
C) The Himalaya

Question 6.
High number of earthquakes and volcanic activity occur generally around the ………..
A) the Indian ocean basin
B) the Atlantic ocean basin
C) the Pacific ocean basin
D) the Arctic ocean basin
Answer:
C) the Pacific ocean basin

Question 7.
The Mount Vesuvius is in
A) Japan
B) Italy
C) Philippines
D) Tanzania
Answer:
B) Italy

Question 8.
The highest waterfall in India
A) Victoria falls
B) Angel falls
C) Jog falls
D) Tugela falls
Answer:
C) Jog falls

Question 9.
Gorges are formed by the work of ………..
A) glaciers
B) winds
C) rivers
D) waves
Answer:
C) rivers

Question 10.
V – shaped valleys are formed by
A) rivers
B) glaciers
C) winds
D) waves
Answer:
A) rivers

Question 11.
Sand dunes are formed by the action of
A) glaciers
B) winds
C) waves
D) rivers
Answer:
B) winds

Question 12.
Which of the following activities is not the part of denudation?
A) Weathering
B) Erosion
C) Plucking
D) Deposition
Answer:
C) Plucking

Question 13.
The largest delta in the world is
A) the Krishna delta
B) the Godavari delta
C) the Indus delta
D) the Sunderbans
Answer:
D) the Sunderbans

Question 14.
U – shaped valleys are formed by
A) glaciers
B) rivers
C) winds
D) waves
Answer:
A) glaciers

Question 15.
Mushroom rock is the erosional form of rock caused by
A) winds
B) waves
C) rivers
D) glaciers
Answer:
A) winds

Question 16.
Loess are ………… in colour.
A) black
B) red
C) yellow
D) pink
Answer:
C) yellow

Question 17.
………… is the realm of water.
A) Biosphere
B) Hydrosphere
C) Lithosphere
D) Atmosphere
Answer:
B) Hydrosphere

Question 18.
Division of earth’s crust into oceans and continents is ………… order landform.
A) 2nd order
B) 3rd order
C) 1st order
D) 4th order
Answer:
C) 1st order

Question 19.
Plates float on the
A) Mantle
B) Crust
C) Core
D) Earth
Answer:
A) Mantle

Question 20.
…………. are the most earthquake prone areas.
A) Plates
B) Valley
C) Plate boundaries
D) Plains
Answer:
C) Plate boundaries

Question 21.
The molten material inside the eath is known as
A) Lava
B) Magma
C) Volcano
D) Plates
Answer:
B) Magma

Question 22.
The landforms formed due to wind and water are called ……………. landforms.
A) 1st order
B) 2nd order
C) 3rd order
D) 4th order
Answer:
C) 3rd order

Question 23.
The Grand Canyon is on river.
A) Ganga
B) Colarado
C) Amazon
D) Nile
Answer:
B) Colarado

Question 24.
The meander loop cuts off from the river and forms
A) Ox-bow lake
B) V-shapped valley
C) U-shapped valley
D) Delta
Answer:
A) Ox-bow lake

Question 25.
The highest waterfall in the world is
A) The Angel fall
B) The Nayagara
C) The Jog water fall
D) The Elephanta
Answer:
A) The Angel fall

Question 26.
The second highest waterfall is
A) The Jog fall
B) The Tugela fall
C) The Angel fall
D) The Nayagara
Answer:
B) The Tugela fall

Question 27.
The highest waterfall in India is
A) The Jog fall
B) The Tugela fall
C) The Angel fall
D) The Nayagara fall
Answer:
A) The Jog fall

Question 28.
…………. is the largest delta in the world.
A) The Cauvery delta
B) The Sunderban delta
C) The Krishna delta
D) The Godavari delta
Answer:
B) The Sunderban delta

Question 29.
Slow maving of mass of ice is called as
A) The glacier
B) The river
C) The waterfall
D) The meander
Answer:
A) The glacier

Question 30.
The gentle turns of the river are called as
A) The glaciers
B) The meanders
C) The waterfalls
D) Lake
Answer:
B) The meanders

Question 31.
The unstable hills of sand are called
A) The sand dunes
B) Loess
C) Inselberg
D) Mushroom rocks
Answer:
A) The sand dunes

Question 32.
The hard top of the earth is
A) Lithosphere
B) Biosphere
C) Hydrosphere
D) Atmosphere
Answer:
A) Lithosphere

Question 33.
Identify the odd one
A) Sea cliff
B) Stack
C) Inselberg
D) Sea Arch
Answer:
B) Stack

Question 34.
Identify the odd one
A) Moraines
B) U – shaped valleys
C) V – shaped valleys
D) Glaciers
Answer:
C) V – shaped valleys

Question 35.
Identify the odd one
A) Plunge pool
B) Canyon
C) Gorge
D) U – shaped valley
Answer:
D) U – shaped valley

Question 36.
Identify the odd one
A) Stack
B) Mushroom rock
C) Inselberg
D) Loess plain
Answer:
A) Stack

Question 37.
A head land cutting out into the sea is
A) Bay
B) Cape
C) Sea Arch
D) Sea Cliff
Answer:
B) Cape

Question 38.
A wide mouthed recess in the line of the coast is
A) Sea Arch
B) Sea Cliff
C) Bay
D) Cape
Answer:
C) Bay

Question 39.
………… are suitable for construction of dams.
A) Canyons
B) Waterfalls
C) Gorges
D) Plunge pools
Answer:
C) Gorges

Question 40.
A glacier erodes through a process called
A) Erosion
B) Abrasion
C) Weathering
D) Plucking
Answer:
B) Abrasion

Question 41.
About of the world’s land is made up of deserts.
A) 1/5th
B) 1/4th
C) 1/6th
D) 1/10th
Answer:
A) 1/5th

In some cases where the rocks are very hard, the river cuts a very narrow valley, the sides are so steep that ‘Gorges’ a re formed. The By son gorge in A.P. on the Godavari, Indus Gorge in Kashmir are examples of this. Another important erosion form is Canyon. A Canyon is characterized by steep like side slopes and may be as deep as a gorge. A gorge is almost equal in width at its top as well as its bottom. In contrast a canyon is wider at its top than at the bottom.
Read the para and answer the questions 42 – 44.

Question 42.
Indus Gorge is in
A) Himachal
B) Punjab
C) Kashmir
D) Delhi
Answer:
C) Kashmir

Question 43.
Byson Gorge is located on
A) Krishna River
B) Godavari River
C) Cauvery River
D) Penna River
Answer:
B) Godavari River

Question 44.
The Biggest Canyon in the world
A) Colarado
B) Zambezi
C) Amazon
D) None
Answer:
A) Colarado

Question 45.
1. Highest waterfall in the world is Angel falls – height is 979 mts, on river Churun, in Venezuela.
2. Second highest waterfall in the world is Tugela falls – height is 947 mts-on river Tugela, in South Africa.
3. Highest waterfall in India is Jog fall (or) Jerosoppa – height is 253 mts – on river Sharavathi, in Karnataka.

Read the data given and answer the questions that follow.
i) Highest waterfall in the world
A) Niagara
B) Katiki
C) Angel
D) Jog
Answer:
C) Angel

ii) The second highest waterfall in the world
A) Angel
B) Tugela
C) Jog
D) None
Answer:
B) Tugela

iii) The Highest waterfall in India
A) Jog
B) Angel
C) Tugela
D) Niagara
Answer:
A) Jog

iv) Jog waterfall is situated on ………… River.
A) Krishna
B) Sharavathi
C) Godavari
D) Narmada
Answer:
B) Sharavathi

v) The height of Tugela waterfall is
A) 900 mts
B) 1000 mts
C) 979 mts
D) 947 mts
Answer:
D) 947 mts

vi) What is the other name of Jog waterfall?
A) Jerosoppa
B) Jasmine
C) Churun
D) None
Answer:
A) Jerosoppa

vii) The height of Jog waterfall is
A) 1000 mts
B) 253 mts
C) 500 mts
D) 426 mts
Answer:
B) 253 mts

viii) What is the height of world’s heighest waterfall?
A) 979 mts
B) 947 mts
C) 253 mts
D) 500 mts
Answer:
A) 979 mts

Question 46.
When did earthquake occur in Nepal recently?
A) 21st August 2017
B) 20th April 2017
C) 19th April 2015
D) 15th April 2015
Answer:
A) 21st August 2017

Observe the given picture and answer the questions.

Question 47.
Nazca plate is located in
A) Atlantic ocean
B) Pacific ocean
C) Indian ocean
D) Southern ocean
Answer:
B) Pacific ocean

Match the following:

Question 48.
Eurasian plate is comes under
A) Europe & Asia
B) Europe & Africa
C) North America
D) South America
Answer:
A) Europe & Asia

Question 49.
Which is the smallest plate?
A) Eurasian
B) Pacific
C) Arabian
D) Indo-Australian
Answer:
C) Arabian

Question 50.
One example of fold mountains
A) Cacasus
B) Ural
C) Himalayas
D) None
Answer:
C) Himalayas

Question 51.
The following is not the benefit of volcanic eruption
A) fertile soil
B) most populous area
C) valuable minerals
D) large rivers
Answer:
D) large rivers

Question 52.
Group – A                                  Group – B
1) U-shaped valley         ( )        A) Winds
2) V-shaped valley         ( )        B) Waves
3) Mushroom rock         ( )        C) River
4) Sea arches                 ( )        D) Plants
5) Cracks or holes          ( )        E) Glacier
Answer:
1) E
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 53.
Group – A                                 Group – B
1) Meanders               ( )          A) Rivers
2) Moraines                ( )          B) Delta
3) Inselberg                ( )          C) Turns like a snake
4) Δ                             ( )          D) Wind
5) Ox-bow lakes          ( )          E) Glacier
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) B
5) A

Question 54.
Group – A                                 Group – B
1) Sunderbans           ( )           A) Sharavathi
2) Grand Canyon       ( )           B) Highest waterfall
3) Byson Gorge         ( )           C) Largest delta in the world
4) Jog falls                 ( )           D) Godavari
5) Angel waterfall      ( )           E) Colorado
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) B

Question 55.
Group – A                                    Group – B
1) Mt. Vesuvius             ( )           A) Equador
2) Fujiyama                   ( )           B) Tanzania
3) Cotopaxi                   ( )           C) India
4) Narcondam              ( )           D) Japan
5) Kilimanjaro               ( )           E) Italy
Answer:
1) E
2) D
3) A
4) C
5) B

Question 56.
Example for second order land forms is
A) Pacific Ocean
B) Asia Continent
C) Himalayan mountains
D) Byson Gorge
Answer:
C) Himalayan mountains

Question 57.
Find out the odd one from the given below.
A) Fujiyama – Japan
B) Mount Vesuvius – Italy
C) Cotopaxi – Equador
D) Narcondem – Tanzania
Answer:
D) Narcondem – Tanzania

Question 58.
One of the land forms given below is formed by river flow
A) ‘V’ Shaped valleys
B) Delta
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 59.
Oceans and continents come under which order of land from
A) First
B) Fourth
C) Second
D) Third
Answer:
A) First

Question 60.
One of the land forms given below is formed by river flow
A) ‘V’ shaped valleys
B) Sand dunes
C) Moraines
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) ‘V’ shaped valleys

Question 61.
Match the following.
1) Land forms by water. A) Loess plains
2) Land forms by wind B) Delta
3) Land forms by Waves C) Sea arches
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C
B) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B
C) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A
D) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
Answer:
A) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

Question 62.
Which of the following is the second order land form?
A) Continents
B) Seas
C) Mountains
D) Sand dunes
Answer:
C) Mountains

Question 63.
Fujiyama Volcanic mountain located in this country
A) France
B) Italy
C) Japan
D) India
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 64.
Indus gorge located in this state
A) West Bengal
B) Punjab
C) Himachal Pradesh
D) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
D) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 65.
Continental shelf a relatively flat part of the continent that is covered by seawater. It lies between the coast and the continental slope. In the figure below identify the number that indicates continental shelf.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 66.
Where are active volcanoes most likely to be found?
A) an area where a large river enters the ocean
B) At tectonic plate boundaries
C) Neat an area where an ocean touches the land
D) Near a low-lying area between mountain ranges and other higher lands.
Answer:
B) At tectonic plate boundaries

Question 67.
The formation of Himalayan mountain range is the result of collision of which of these two continental plates?
B) Indo – African Plates
C) Indo – Arabian Plates
D) Indo – Eurasian Plates
Answer:
D) Indo – Eurasian Plates

Question 68.
Andhra Pradesh lies in the Deccan Plateau. Which of the following was the cause of formation of the Deccan plateau?
A) Weathering of rock by the river
B) Sand deposits by the wind
C) Lava spills from volcanic eruptions
D) Landslides caused by earthquakes
Answer:
C) Lava spills from volcanic eruptions

Question 69.
Mushroom rocks are found in

A) Desert
B) Sea
C) Glaciers
D) River Valleys
Answer:
A) Desert

Question 70.
The shaping of landforms by wind and water is called ‘Third order Landforms’ by geographers.
Which of the following pairs contain only third order landforms?
A) Continents, Oceans
B) Continents, Mountains
C) Plateaus, Waterfall
D) Delta, Loessplain
Answer:
D) Delta, Loessplain

Observe the Map and answer the Q.No. 71-72

Question 71.
Which of the following continent is NOT connected with ‘The Pacific Ring of Fire’
A) South America
B) Asia
C) Africa
D) Australia
Answer:
C) Africa

Question 72.
Most of the active volcanoes are found in ‘Pacific Rim’ because it is in
A) Rivers basin
B) Tectonic plate boundaries
C) Deepest Oceans
D) Meeting point of Land and water
Answer:
B) Tectonic plate boundaries

Question 73.
Find out the wrong statement regarding the power of flowing water:
A) It can slowly wear away the rocks.
B) It can erode a mountain vertically
C) All are correct. There is no wrong statement.
D) It can erode the land
Answer:
C) All are correct. There is no wrong statement.

Question 74.
Observe the figure given below:

The ‘V’ – Shape landform shown in the figure forms due to the:
A) Work of wind
B) Work of rocks
C) Work of human beings
D) Work of water
Answer:
D) Work of water

Question 75.
Find out the correct order:
A) Formation of Rift Valley, Continental cracks, Formation of Ocean
B) Continental cracks, Formation of rift Valley, Formation of Ocean
C) Formation of Ocean, Formation of Rift Valley, Continental cracks
D) Continental cracks, Formation of Ocean, Formation of Rift valley
Answer:
B) Continental cracks, Formation of rift Valley, Formation of Ocean

Question 76.
Which among the following contains the newest Crust formed on the planet?
A) The Mid ocean ridges
B) Highest mountain surfaces
C) Deltas
D) Ocean floor
Answer:
A) The Mid ocean ridges

Question 77.
Geologists have found fossils of sea animals on the Himalayas. These fossils are there on the Himalayas because :
A) Himalayas are formed from sea.
B) Some of such fossils are worshipped in homes as ‘Salagramas’.
C) Himalayas are the highest Mountains.
D) They are formed on the Himalayas.
Answer:
A) Himalayas are formed from sea.

Question 78.
The plates are constantly being pushed. The formation of the mountains is the result of such movements only. Due to which one of the following movements were the Himalaya Mountains formed?
A) Because the Arabian plate pushed the Eurasian plate.
B) Because the Eurasian plate pushed the Indian plate.
C) Because the Arabian plate pushed the Indian plate.
D) Because Eurasian plate pushed the Arabian plate.
Answer:
B) Because the Eurasian plate pushed the Indian plate.

Question 79.
About three quarters of all active Volcanoes in the World, lie within the Pacific Rim because:
A) igneous rocks are found all the way around the Pacific basin.
B) plate boundaries are found all the way around the Pacific basin.
C) earthquakes occur all the way around the Pacific basin.
D) the Pacific Rim is called the pacific ring of fire.
Answer:
B) plate boundaries are found all the way around the Pacific basin.

Question 80.
Match the following in the context of the formation of third Order Landforms :
1. Valley a. Weathering
2. Carved Mountains b. Deposition
3. Delta c. Transportation
4. Sand dunes d. Erosion
A) 1 – b; 2 – c; 3 – d; 4 – a
B) 1 – d; 2 – a; 3 – b; 4 – c
C) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – d; 4 – c
D) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c; 4 – d
Answer:
B) 1 – d; 2 – a; 3 – b; 4 – c

Question 81.
Which of the following statements best describes the tectonic plates that make up the Earth’s surface?
A) They have been moving for million of years but have come to a stop.
B) They remained static for millions of years but have started moving now.
C) They have continuously been moving for millions of years now.
D) These plates are static which do not move.
Answer:
C) They have continuously been moving for millions of years now.

Question 82.
Which landforms were most likely created by the eruption of volcanoes?
A) Plains
B) Mountains
C) Canyons
D) Deltas
Answer:
B) Mountains

Question 83.
Food mountains are formed due to
A) Collision of two continental plates
B) Convergence of two oceanic plates
C) Divergence or pulling away of two continental plates
D) Volcanic eruptions at the oceanic plate boundaries
Answer:
B) Convergence of two oceanic plates

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 7 Frequency Distribution Tables and Graphs on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 7th Lesson Frequency Distribution Tables and Graphs with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following are Central Tendency Measure ?
A) A.M.
B) Median
C) Mode
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 2.
Which of the following Central Tendency values is used frequently ?
A) A.M.
B) Median
C) Mode
D) All the above
Answer:
A) A.M.

Question 3.
The mean of first 10 natural numbers is
A) 55
B) 5.5
C) 4.5
D) 45
Answer:
B) 5.5

Question 4.
The mean of 7 observations is 32. If one observation 48 is added to this then the new mean is
A) 36
B) 32
C) 34
D) 38
Answer:
C) 34

Question 5.
A.M. of 20, 11, 21, 25, 23, 14 is
A) 19
B) 18
C) 17
D) 20
Answer:
A) 19

Question 6.
Which of the following is depend on all the observations ?
A) A.M.
B) Median
C) Mode
D) All the above
Answer:
A) A.M.

Question 7.
Which of the following contains only one value ?
A) A.M.
B) Median
C) Mode
D) All the above
Answer:
A) A.M.

Question 8.
The mean of 9 observations is 45. If 24 is printed wrongly as 42 then the correct mean is
A) 42
B) 44
C) 41
D) 43
Answer:
D) 43

Question 9.
Which of the following is not affected by smallest and largest values of the observations ?
A) A.M.
B) Median
C) Mean
D) None
Answer:
B) Median

Question 10.
The mode of first 10 natural numbers is
A) 0
B) 1
C) 5.5
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 11.
= ……………….
A) Median
B) Frequency
C) Mean
D) None
Answer:
C) Mean

Question 12.
If ‘n’ is odd then median = ………………….
A) \(\frac{\mathbf{n}+1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{n}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{n-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{n}{2}\) + 1
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\mathbf{n}+1}{2}\)

Question 13.
AM (On Deviation Method) = ……………..
A) \(\bar{x}\) = A + \(\frac{\Sigma(\mathrm{xi}-\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{N}}\)
B) Σfx
C) \(\frac{\Sigma f \mathrm{x}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}}\)
D) \(\overline{\mathrm{x}}\) = A – \(\frac{\sum \mathbf{x} \mathrm{i}}{\mathbf{N}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\bar{x}\) = A + \(\frac{\Sigma(\mathrm{xi}-\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{N}}\)

Question 14.
If ‘n’ is even then median is equal to the mean of ……………….
A) \(\frac{n}{2}, \frac{n}{2}\) – 1
B) \(\frac{n}{2}, \frac{n+1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{n-1}{2}\), n
D) \(\frac{n}{2}\), n + 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac{n}{2}, \frac{n+1}{2}\)

Question 15.
Median of 14, 36, 25, 28, 35, 32, 56, 42, 50 is ……………….
A) 16
B) 53
C) 35
D) 45
Answer:
C) 35

Question 16.
The median of first 10 natural numbers is …………..
A) 5.7
B) 5.5
C) 6.5
D) 3.5
Answer:
B) 5.5

Question 17.
Mode of 1, 2, 3, 5, 3, 7, 8, 3, 7, 8, 7 is ……………….
A) 8, 1
B) 1, 5
C) 7, 1
D) 3, 7
Answer:
D) 3, 7

Question 18.
The upper boundary of 1 -10 is …………………..
A) 10
B) 11
C) 13
D) 9
Answer:
A) 10

Question 19.
The upper boundary of 1 – 10 in 1 – 10, 11 – 20 is …………………
A) 13.5
B) 10.5
C) 20.5
D) 11.5
Answer:
B) 10.5

Question 20.
Class interval indicates …………………
A) Length
B) Area of rectangle
C) Perimeter
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 21.
Classes like 1-10,11-20, 21-30 …………….. are called ………….. classes.
A) Inclusive
B) Exclusive
C) Frequency
D) None
Answer:
A) Inclusive

Question 22.
Classes like 0-10, 10-20, 20-30 ………….. are called classes.
A) Maximum
B) Axis
C) Exclusive
D) Inclusive
Answer:
D) Inclusive

Question 23.
The mid value of 10 – 20 is …………………
A) 10
B) 20
C) 15
D) 16
Answer:
C) 15

Question 24.
The upper boundary of a class is 20 and its mid value is 15. Then its lower boundary is ………………..
A) 35
B) 20
C) 10
D) 15
Answer:
C) 10

Question 25.
Maximum value – minimum value = ……………….
A) range
B) curve
C) axis
D) limit
Answer:
A) range

Question 26.
The range of first 100 natural numbers is …………………
A) 98
B) 99
C) 109
D) 110
Answer:
B) 99

Question 27.
= ………………
A) Value
B) Number of classes
C) Items
D) None
Answer:
B) Number of classes

Question 28.
The difference between upper and lower boundaries of class is called ……………..
A) Value
B) Class Interval (C.I.)
C) Frequency
D) None
Answer:
B) Class Interval (C.I.)

Question 29.
The given figure represents …………………

A) Pie chart
B) Histogram
C) Graph
D) None
Answer:
A) Pie chart

Question 30.
Histogram consists of ………………..
A) Square
B) Rectangles
C) Circles
D) Angles
Answer:
B) Rectangles

Question 31.
Which of the following graph represents LCF graph ?

Answer:

Question 32.
Mid value of 24 – 28 is ……………….
A) 13
B) 23
C) 16
D) 26
Answer:
D) 26

Question 33.
65 is the mid value of ……………….
A) 70-80
B) 60-100
C) 60-70
D) 60-80
Answer:
C) 60-70

Question 34.
Range of 1, 2, 3 …………… 10 = …………..
A) 9
B) 10
C) 8
D) 32
Answer:
A) 9

Question 35.
The given figure represents ……………

A) Pie chart
B) Bar graph
C) Observations
D) None
Answer:
B) Bar graph

Question 36.
How many measures of Central tendencies are there ?
A) 2
B) 31
C) 10
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 37.
Which is based on all observations ?
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) None
Answer:
A) Mean

Question 38.
Median of 1, 2, 3 is …………………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 10
Answer:
B) 2

Question 39.
Mode of a, b, c, ……………. z is ………………
A) p
B) c
C) z
D) No mode
Answer:
D) No mode

Question 40.
Which of the following graph represents GCF curve ?

D) None
Answer:

Question 41.
Σ xi = 380, N = 10, \(\bar{x}\) = ……………….
A) 16
B) 10
C) 28
D) 38
Answer:
D) 38

Question 42.
Mean of first 10 natural numbers is ………………….
A) 6.5
B) 55
C) 3.5
D) 5.5
Answer:
D) 5.5

Question 43.
Mean of first 5 prime numbers is ………………
A) 6
B) 5
C) 6.5
D) 5.6
Answer:
D) 5.6

Question 44.
Median of 49, 48, 15, 20, 28, 17, 14 and 110 is ………………….
A) 31
B) 92
C) 24
D) 42
Answer:
C) 24

Question 45.
Sum of the central angles in a pie chart is ………………..
A) 360°
B) 300°
C) 110°
D) 60°
Answer:
A) 360°

Question 46.
| represents ………………….
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Answer:
A) 6

Question 47.
Information collected is called …………………
A) Limit
B) Information
C) Range
D) Class Interval
Answer:
B) Information

Question 48.
Range of first 31 natural number is …………………..
A) 10
B) 21
C) 19
D) 30
Answer:
D) 30

Question 49.
The mean of first 6 multiples of 3 is ………………….
A) 19.5
B) 20.5
C) 10.5
D) 10
Answer:
C) 10.5

Question 50.
Mean of a, b, c is ……………..
A) \(\frac{a b c}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathbf{a}+\mathbf{b}+\mathbf{c}}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{a+b}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{a-b-c}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\mathbf{a}+\mathbf{b}+\mathbf{c}}{3}\)

Question 51.
AM of a – 21, a, a + 21 = ………………..
A) a
B) a – 2
C) a + 2
D) 3a
Answer:
A) a

Question 52.
Mean of 12, 13, 18, 17, x, 10, 15 is 15 then x = ………………..
A) 40
B) 31
C) 20
D) None
Answer:
C) 20

Question 53.
AM of x, x+2, x+4, x+6 and x+8 is ………………….
A) x – 1
B) x + 3
C ) x + 2
D) x + 4
Answer:
D) x + 4

Question 54.
AM of 94, 85, 59, 62, 65, 70, 68, 72 is ……………..
A) 65.7
B) 85.1
C) 71.8
D) 79
Answer:
C) 71.8

Question 55.
Mean of 5, 6, 7, 8, x and 4 is 7 then x = ………………
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 19
Answer:
B) 12

Question 56.
AM of first 9 natural numbers is ……………….
A) 5
B) 6
C) 10
D) 9
Answer:
A) 5

Question 57.
AM of 8 observations is 30. One observation 30 is deleted from the data then the new mean is ………………….
A) 20
B) 30
C) 10
D) 90
Answer:
B) 30

Question 58.
AM of 6, y, 7, x and 16 is 9 then ………………..
A) x + 2y = 1
B) x – y = 16
C) x + 2y = 0
D) x + y = 16
Answer:
D) x + y = 16

Question 59.
Median of 40, 52, 34, 47, 31, 35, 48, 41, 44, 38 is …………………
A) 16.5
B) 40.5
C) 49.5
D) 50
Answer:
B) 40.5

Question 60.
Median of first 15 odd numbers is ……………
A) 32
B) 10
C) 19
D) 15
Answer:
D) 15

Question 61.
Mean of 9, 11, 13, k, 18,19 is k then k = ……………….
A) 16
B) 13
C) 14
D) 10
Answer:
C) 14

Question 62.
Mode of 14, 17, 13, 14, 14, 3, 2, 1, 14 is ……………
A) 19
B) 16
C) 24
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 63.
Median of \(\frac{x}{5}\) x, \(\frac{x}{4}, \frac{x}{2}, \frac{x}{3}\) is 8 (x > 0) then the value of x is = …………
A) 14
B) 33
C) 10
D) 24
Answer:
D) 24

Question 64.
Sum of all deviations taken from AM is …………….
A) 4
B) 3
C) – 1
D ) 0
Answer:
D ) 0

Question 65.
The A.M numbers starting with x + 1 is
A) x + 5.5
B) x – 5.5
C) x + 10
D) x + 5
Answer:
A) x + 5.5

Question 66.
AM of \(\frac{1}{3}, \frac{3}{4}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{7}{12}\) is …………….
A) 12
B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 67.
AM of 11 observations is 17.5 and one observation 15 is deleted from the data them the mean of remaining observations is………
A) 17.75
B) 19.85
C) 19.5
D) 18.15
Answer:
A) 17.75

Question 68.
AM of 8, -2, 9, 6, 13, 17, 12 is …………..
A) 9
B) 10
C) 32
D) 19
Answer:
A) 9

Question 69.
Range of 0, 1, 2, 3 …………… , 9 is …………….
A) 0
B) 9
C ) 12
D) 13
Answer:
B) 9

Question 70.
Median of \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{6}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{3}\) is …………….
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 71.
AM of x, 15x, 2x is ……………….
A) 17x
B) 6x
C) 7x
D) 9x
Answer:
B) 6x

Question 72.
Mode of 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 is ……………..
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
C) 3

Question 73.
AM of 1, 3, 5, 7 …………….. (2n – A) is ………….
A) \(\frac{2 n}{3}\)
B) \(\frac{n}{3}\)
C) n + 1
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 74.
Mode of 20, 30,10, 20, 30, 30, 30, 30, 30, 14, 16, 18, 30, 30 is ………………
A) 30
B) 60
C) 39
D) 38
Answer:
A) 30

Question 75.
AM of -8, -4,+ 4, -3, 1 is …………….
A) – 4
B) – 1
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 76.
Mean of x, \(\frac{1}{x}\) is m then the mean of x³, \(\frac{1}{x^{3}}\) is …………..
A) M (4m² – 3)
B) M³ + 3
C) M
D) 3M
Answer:
A) M (4m² – 3)

Question 77.
AM of first ‘n’ natural numbers is …………..
A) \(\frac{n}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\) – 1
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{3}\) – 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)

Question 78.
Median of 30, 5, 21, 42, 13, 10, 27, 33, 17, 8 …………………
A) 91
B) 19
C) 13
D) 25
Answer:
B) 19

Question 79.
Mode of ………….. 9, 8, 6, 6, 9, 1, 3, 3, 3, 3 is
A) 6
B) 3
C) 1
D) 8
Answer:
B) 3

Question 80.
There are four 20’s in 100 numbers five 40’s, six 30’s and the remaining are 10’s then AM = ………………..
A) 4.6
B) 7.4
C) 8.5
D) 9
Answer:
A) 4.6

Question 81.
Range of 2, 4, 6, …………. 200 is …………….
A) 190
B) 100
C) 100
D) 198
Answer:
D) 198

Question 82.
AM of 1, 2, 3, 4 is
A) 4
B) 6
C) 9
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 83
…………. is known as Father of Statistics.
A) Gole
B) Ronald Fisher
C) Comtor
D) None
Answer:
B) Ronald Fisher

Question 84.
Class Interval is denoted by the letter ………………
A) K
B) C
C) P
D) Σ
Answer:
B) C

Question 85.
In \(\) = A + \(\), A is called ……….
A) Class
B) Table
C) Limit
D) Assumed mean
Answer:
D) Assumed mean

Question 86.
The average lower limit of one class and the upper limit of one preceding class is called as ……………… boundary.
A) Lower
B) Last
C) Class
D) None
Answer:
A) Lower

Question 87.
Median of x, 2x, 4x is 12 then mean is ………………
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Question 88.
In a school all the students weared uniform, from this we observe …………….
A) mode
B) mean
C) median
D) none
Answer:
A) mode

Question 89.
Sum of 20 items is 100 then the mean is………………
A) 16
B) 30
C) 10
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 90.
In 1 – 10, 11 – 20, 21 – 30 ………… Upper Boundary of class 11-20 is …………..
A) 20.5
B) 19.5
C) 29
D) 30
Answer:
A) 20.5

Question 91.
| | | | represents ………..
A) 3
B) 10
C) 13
D) 9
Answer:
D) 9

Question 92.
Mid value of class means ………………
A) Class mark
B) Frequency
C) Average
D) Limit
Answer:
A) Class mark

Question 93.
Lower limit of 5-10 is ……………
A) 10
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Answer:
B) 5

Question 94.
Mid value of class 60-100 is …………….
A) 120
B) 100
C) 30
D) 80
Answer:
D) 80

Question 95.
The shape of ogive curve is ……………….
A) S
B) L
C) ⌉
D) P
Answer:
A) S

Question 96.
Histogram consists of ……………..
A) Squares
B) Rectangles
C) Circles
D) None
Answer:
B) Rectangles

Question 97.
An item which occurs most frequently in a data is called …………..
A) Median
B) Mean
C) Range
D) Mode
Answer:
D) Mode

Question 98.
Mid values are used in the calculation of ……………
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) None
Answer:
B) Median

Question 99.
In a data AM of 7 items is 32 and for this data an item 48 is added then the result of AM = …………….
A) 70
B) 40
C) 34
D) 43
Answer:
C) 34

Question 100.
Which of the following is not a measures of central tendency ?
A) AM
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range
Answer:
D) Range

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 6 Square Roots and Cube Roots on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 6th Lesson Square Roots and Cube Roots with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
If a, b, c are Pythagorean triplets then which of the following is true ?
A) a² – b² = c
B) a² + b² = c²
C) b = c² – a²
D) a² > b² + c²
Answer:
B) a² + b² = c²

Question 2
Which of the following is pythagorean triplet ?
A) (1, 2, 3)
B)(4, 5, 6)
C) (3, 4, 5)
D) (5, 6, 7)
Answer:
C) (3, 4, 5)

Question 3.
Which of the following number is doesn’t lie in the units place of a square number ?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a perfect square number ?
A) 121
B) 1331
C) 1024
D) 367
Answer:
D) 367

Question 5.
\(\sqrt{625}+\sqrt{441}\) =
A) 47
B) \(\sqrt{1066}\)
C) 46
D) 45
Answer:
C) 46

Question 6.
The units digit of (123456)²
A) 6
B) 3
C) 8
D) 4
Answer:
A) 6

Question 7.
111² = …………………..
A) 12341
B) 12321
C) 12312
D) 12221
Answer:
B) 12321

Question 8.
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 =
A) 9²
B) 7²
C) 5²
D) 4²
Answer:
C) 5²

Question 9.
\(\sqrt{10201}\) =
A) 1001
B) 101
C) 111
D) 121
Answer:
B) 101

Question 10.
No. of integers lie between 4² and 5²
A) 8
B) 10
C ) 9
D) 11
Answer:
A) 8

Question 11.
(121)² is a ……………… number.
A) prime
B) odd
C) even
D) none
Answer:
B) odd

Question 12.
Which of the following is a perfect cube number ?
A) 25
B) 64
C) 81
D) 100
Answer:
B) 64

Question 13.
No. of non – perfect square numbers between n² and (n + A)² are …………………
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)
B) 2n
C) n²
D) n
Answer:
B) 2n

Question 14.
If there are no common factors other than’ 1′ among a, b, c then the triplet is called a ………………….
A) Primitive
B) Secondary
C) Triplet
D) None
Answer:
A) Primitive

Question 15.
13² = ………………. + 12²
A) 10
B) 2
C) 5²
D) 10
Answer:
C) 5²

Question 16.
\(\sqrt{225}\) = ……………….
A) 12
B) 16
C) 15
D) 13
Answer:
C) 15

Question 17.
\(\sqrt{2025}\) = ………………….
A) 35
B) 45
C) 54
D) 15
Answer:
B) 45

Question 18.
The least integer should be multiplied to 6000 to become a perfect square number is ……………………
A) 19
B) 16
C) 10
D) 15
Answer:
D) 15

Question 19.
The least number should be multiplied to 720 to become a perfect square number is ………………….
A) 13
B) 9
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
C) 5

Question 20.
…………….. should be subtracted from 4215 to become a perfect square number.
A) 119
B) 120
C) 110
D) 1
Answer:
A) 119

Question 21.
\(\sqrt{42.25}\) =
A) 7
B) 6.5
C) 8.5
D) 5.5
Answer:
B) 6.5

Question 22.
The nearest value of \(\sqrt{\mathbf{3 0 0}}\) = ………………
A) 19
B) 31
C) 17
D) 16
Answer:
C) 17

Question 23.
The side of a square is 19 units then its area is ………………… sq. units.
A) 312
B) 191
C) 163
D) 361
Answer:
D) 361

Question 24.
The area of a square is 1024 sq.units, then its side is ……………… units.
A) 32
B) 22
C) 62
D) 92
Answer:
A) 32

Question 25.
The cube of 11 is …………………..
A) 1131
B) 1331
C) 1231
D) 1431
Answer:
B) 1331

Question 26.
The perfect square and cube number of a two digited number is ………………
A) 32
B) 91
C) 16
D) 64
Answer:
D) 64

Question 27.
7 + 9 + 11 = ………………..
A) 3 ³
B) 3⁴
C) 3⁵
D) 3¹⁰
Answer:
A) 3 ³

Question 28.
\(\sqrt[3]{4913}\) = ………………….
A) 27
B) 13
C) 18
D) 17
Answer:
D) 17

Question 29.
The units digit of (1997)³
A) 10
B) 3
C) 9
D) 4
Answer:
B) 3

Question 30.
The least number should be multi¬plied to 2560 to get a perfect cube number is ………………..
A) 15
B) 40
C) 25
D) 35
Answer:
C) 25

Question 31.
\(\sqrt[3]{9261}\) = ………………
A) 13
B) 21
C) 16
D) 31
Answer:
B) 21

Question 32.
\(\sqrt[3]{x}\) = 12 ⇒ x = ……………….
A) 1728
B) 1928
C) 1314
D) 1628
Answer:
A) 1728

Question 33.
The value of \(\sqrt{97}\) is nearer to ……………….
A) 14
B) 13
C) 11
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 34.
6³ = …………………
A) 161
B) 216
C) 116
D) 117
Answer:
B) 216

Question 35.
The side of a square is 72 cm then its perimeter is ……………. cm.
A) 298
B) 148
C) 288
D) 188
Answer:
C) 288

Question 36.
How many integers are in between the squares of 25, 26 …………………..?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 100
Answer:
A) 50

Question 37.
The units digit in the square of 431 is …………………
A) 3
B) 7
C) 0
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 38.
(2⁴)² = ………………
A) 512
B) 156
C) 258
D) 256
Answer:
D) 256

Question 39.
3⁵ = …………….
A) 243
B) 81
C) 813
D) 432
Answer:
A) 243

Question 40.
If we multiply 8788 by ……………… then we get a perfect cube.
A) 7
B) 4
C) 2
D ) 3
Answer:
C) 2

Question 41.
\(\sqrt[3]{2744}\) = ………………
A) 14
B) 24
C) 34
D) 16
Answer:
A) 14

Question 42.
\(\sqrt{175.2976}\) = ………………
A) 36.15
B) 81.14
C) 11.24
D) 13.24
Answer:
D) 13.24

Question 43.
(√a) = ………………
A) √a
B) 2a
C) \(\frac {a}{2}\)
D) a
Answer:
D) a

Question 44.
\(\sqrt{1471369}\) = ………………….
A) 1213
B) 1321
C) 1132
D) 1141
Answer:
A) 1213

Question 45.
The square root of 6084 = ……………….
A) 87
B) 78
C) 88
D) 68
Answer:
B) 78

Question 46.
√2 = ………………
A) 1.414
B) 1.5
C) 1.814
D) 1.3
Answer:
A) 1.414

Question 47.
\(\sqrt{169}+\sqrt{25}\) = ……………….
A) 18
B) 19
C) 13
D) 12
Answer:
A) 18

Question 48.
\(\sqrt{176+\sqrt{2401}}\) = …………………..
A) 25
B) 15
C) 31
D) 35
Answer:
B) 15

Question 49.
In the expansion of 3¹¹ the units digit is ……………..
A) 3
B) 7
C) 10
D) 16
Answer:
B) 7

Question 50.
Car number of Jaya is 8289 then the square root of that number is ………………
A) 32
B) 70
C) 83
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 51.
\(\sqrt{9025}\) = ……………….
A) 95
B) 59
C) 69
D) 73
Answer:
A) 95

Question 52.
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23 + 25 = ………………
A) 132
B) 168
C) 139
D) 169
Answer:
D) 169

Question 53.
How many cube numbers are there between 1 to 100 ?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 3
D) 13
Answer:
C) 3

Question 54.
How many digits are there in the square of 72?
A) 4 or 3
B) 3 or 6
C) 2 or 7
D) None
Answer:
A) 4 or 3

Question 55.
\(\sqrt{121}\) = …………..
A) 11
B) 16
C) 31
D) 12
Answer:
A) 11

Question 56.
3² + 4² + K², K = ……………..
A) 10
B) 13
C) 5
D) 25
Answer:
C) 5

Question 57.
How many integers are there between 9² and 10² ?
A) 16
B) 13
C) 28
D) 18
Answer:
D) 18

Question 58.
\(\sqrt{55}\) is ……………..
A) not, a square number
B) square number
C) cube number
D) value is 10
Answer:
A) not, a square number

Question 59.
\(\sqrt[3]{64}\) = ……………..
A) 9
B) 16
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 60.
Sum of n odd number is ……………….
A) n²
B) 2n
C) n
D) n-1
Answer:
A) n²

Question 61.
Identify Pythagorean Triplet.
A) 1, 2, 7
B) 8, 9, 6
C) 3, 4, 6
D) 6, 8, 10
Answer:
D) 6, 8, 10

Question 62.
8² + K² – 17² then K = …………….
A) 15
B) 16
C) 19
D) 20
Answer:
A) 15

Question 63.
\(\sqrt{4^{4} \times 5^{4}}\) = ………………
A) 4
B) 4 × 5
C) 4² × 5²
D) 4 × 5
Answer:
C) 4² × 5²

Question 64.
\(\sqrt{\frac{25}{64}}\) = ……………..
A) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
C) \(\frac{15}{31}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{5}{8}\)

Question 65.
√1 = ……………
A) 0
B) 1
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
B) 1

Question 66.
\(\sqrt{\mathbf{3 3 8 8}}\) = ……………
A) \(\sqrt[30]{7}\)
B) \(\sqrt[10]{7}\)
C) \(\sqrt[12]{7}\)
D) \(\sqrt[22]{7}\)
Answer:
D) \(\sqrt[22]{7}\)

Question 67.
\(\sqrt[3]{500} \times \sqrt[3]{686}\) = ……………….
A) 16
B) 30
C) 70
D) 80
Answer:
C) 70

Question 68.
\(\sqrt{0.4489}\) = ………………
A) 0.67
B) 6.7
C) 8.5
D) 7.7
Answer:
A) 0.67

Question 69.
\(\sqrt{12 \frac{169}{676}}\) = ……………….
A) 2\(\frac{4}{5}\)
B) 9\(\frac{3}{7}\)
C) 3\(\frac{1}{26}\)
D) 3\(\frac{13}{26}\)
Answer:
D) 3\(\frac{13}{26}\)

Question 70.
15³ = ………………….
A) 3375
B) 7375
C) 1375
D) 1525
Answer:
A) 3375

Question 71.
\(\sqrt{142884}\) =
A) 144
B) 278
C) 178
D) 378
Answer:
D) 378

Question 72.
\(\sqrt{1156}\) = x then x = ……………..
A) 44
B) 34
C) 84
D) 94
Answer:
B) 34

Question 73.
1, 4, 9, 16, 25 are ………………… numbers.
A) Square
B) Cube
C) Pure
D) None
Answer:
A) Square

Question 74.
21² = ……………….
A) 144
B) 441
C) 141
D) 191
Answer:
B) 441

Question 75.
(0.2)² = …………..
A) 0.4
B) 0.004
C) 0.45
D) 0.04
Answer:
D) 0.04

Question 76.
(-2)³ = ……………..
A) 8
B) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3^{2}}\)
D) -8
Answer:
D) -8

Question 77.
\(\sqrt[3]{\mathbf{p}}\) = 7, p = …………….
A) 416
B) 189
C) 343
D) 143
Answer:
C) 343

Question 78.
If √2 = 1.414 then the value of \(\sqrt{\frac{200}{49}}\) = ………….
A) 2.02
B) 20.2
C) 30.2
D) 21.2
Answer:
A) 2.02

Question 79.
If n³ = 2744 then the value of n² – 11 is ………….
A) 145
B) 175
C) 165
D) 185
Answer:
D) 185

Question 80.
\(\sqrt[3]{1512} \times \sqrt[3]{49000}\) = …………….
A) 160
B) 420
C) 129
D) 120
Answer:
B) 420

Question 81.
\(\sqrt{\frac{0.01}{0.81}}\) = …………….
A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
D) 9
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 82.
\(\sqrt{2 \frac{14}{25}}\) = …………….
A) \(\frac{8}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{8}{5}\)

Question 83.
\(\sqrt[3]{217}\) = …………………
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 84.
In 1, 8, □ 64, □ = …………….
A) 27
B) 25
C) 26
D) 10
Answer:
A) 27

Question 85.
Which of the following number is called Ramanujans number ?
A) 1729
B) 1728
C) 1818
D) 1719
Answer:
A) 1729

Question 86.
\(\) = ………………
A) 0.011²
B) 0.11
C)0.11²
D) 0.11⁴
Answer:
B) 0.11

Question 87.
1³ + 2³ =
A) 10
B) 3³
C) 3²
D) 92
Answer:
C) 3²

Question 88.
\(\) = ………………
A) 0.5
B) 0.2
C) 0.7
D) 0.45
Answer:
B) 0.2

Question 89.
Identify perfect cube among the following:
A) 512
B) 14
C) 100
D) 96
Answer:
A) 512

Question 90.
\(\sqrt[3]{\frac{1}{27}}\) = ………………
A) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 91.
a + b + c = 0 then a³ + b³ + c³ = ………………
A) \(\frac{a b c}{3}\)
B) 3 abc
C) ab+c
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{ab}}{\mathrm{c}}\)
Answer:
B) 3 abc

Question 92.
12³+ 1³ = ……………….
A) 1718
B) 1719
C) 1729
D) 1829
Answer:
C) 1729

Question 93.
1³ + 2³ + 3³ = ………………
A) 5²
B) 6²
C) 8²
D) 9²
Answer:
B) 6²

Question 94.
Cube root of 2545 is ………………..
A) 10
B) 20
C) 25
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 95.
Kishore told “Every number is asquare number”. Krishna told “Every number is a pure number”.
In the above two statements who is correct ?
A) Kishore
B) Krishna
C) Both are correct
D) Both are false
Answer:
D) Both are false

Question 96.
Identify polyndrome number in the following numbers.
A) 15651
B) 16566
C) 15655
D) 165167
Answer:
A) 15651

Question 97.
If y = x³ then ……………….
A) x = \(\sqrt[3]{y}\)
E) x = √y
C) √x = y²
D) None
Answer:
A) x = \(\sqrt[3]{y}\)

Question 98.
\(\sqrt[3]{9261}\) = ………………..
A) 11
B) 41
C) 21
D) 14
Answer:
C) 21

Question 99.
17 < √x < 18, x = ……………….
A) 100
B) 900
C) 300
D) 20
Answer:
C) 300

Question 100.
A solid with 6 equal square faces on all the surfaces is called …………………..
A) Side
B) Cube
C) Complete cube
D) Cuboid
Answer:
B) Cube

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 5 Comparing Quantities Using Proportion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 5th Lesson Comparing Quantities Using Proportion with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a golden ratio?
A) 25 : 1
B) 1.615 : 1
C) 1.5 : 1
D) 1 : 2
Answer:
B) 1.615 : 1

Question 2.
The compound ratio of a : b and c : d is
A) ab : cd
B) be : bd
C) ac : bd
D) ad : bc
Answer:
C) ac : bd

Question 3.
The compound ratio of 5 : 7 and inverse 2 : 9 is
A) 45 : 14
B) 10 : 63
C) 63 : 10
D) 14 : 45
Answer:
A) 45 : 14

Question 4.
30% of 40 =
A) 22
B) 7
C) 12
D) 48
Answer:
C) 12

Question 5.
Increase in percent of 2 times of a number is
A) 200%
B) 100%
C) 300%
D) 50%
Answer:
B) 100%

Question 6.
The cost of one pair of shoes is ₹550, if 10% discount is allowed on, then the SP. of shoes is
A) ₹505
B) ₹495
C) ₹485
D) ₹475
Answer:
B) ₹495

Question 7.
The marked price of a cycle is ₹3600 and it S.P. is ₹3312 then discount% is
A) 8%
B) 9%
C) 6%
D) 7%
Answer:
A) 8%

Question 8.
The cost of one pair of clothes is ₹450. If 6% of sales tax is allowed on it then the bil has to pay
A) ₹ 57
B) ₹ 477
C) ₹ 46
D) ₹ 423
Answer:
B) ₹ 477

Question 9.
In A = P (1 + )ⁿ , ‘R’ stands for
A) Principal
B) Time
C) C.I.
D) Rate of interest
Answer:
D) Rate of interest

Question 10.
Selling Price =
A) M.P – discount
B) Discount – M.P
C) M.P – Profit
D) None
Answer:
A) M.P – discount

Question 11.
The M.P. of an item is ₹ 1600 and allowed adiscountof6%to the purchaser then SP is ……………
A) ₹ 1107
B) ₹ 1105
C) ₹ 504
D) ₹ 1504
Answer:
D) ₹ 1504

Question 12.
Profit Percentage = …………………..
A) \(\) × 100
B) \(\) × 100
C) \(\)
D) None
Answer:
B) \(\) × 100

Question 13.
If two cycles are sold on equal price. He get 10% profit on the first and 10% loss on the second then his overall profit or loss percent = ………………..
A) Loss percentage 1%
B) Profit percentage 2%
C) Loss percentage 3%
D) None
Answer:
A) Loss percentage 1%

Question 14.
Simple Interest, I = …………………
A) \(\frac{100}{\mathrm{PTR}}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{PT}^{2} \mathrm{R}}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{PTR}}{100}\)
D) \(\frac{P}{100 \mathrm{~T}}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{PTR}}{100}\)

Question 15.
S.I on ₹ 500 at the rate of 5% of 2 years is ………………
A) ₹ 16
B) ₹ 50
C) ₹ 20
D) ₹ 90
Answer:
B) ₹ 50

Question 16.
Compound interest = ………………..

Answer:

Question 17.
The number of time periods for compounded every 6 months, for 2\(\frac {1}{2}\) years is …………………
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 10
Answer:
C) 5

Question 18.
The C.I on ₹ 5000 at the rate of 8% for 2 years is ……………….
A) ₹ 832
B) ₹ 238
C) ₹ 161
D) ₹ 169
Answer:
A) ₹ 832

Question 19.
The population of Krosur village in 2012 is 6250. If it increases at rate of 8% then the population of the village in 2014 is ………………
A) 7920
B) 7190
C) 7490
D) 7290
Answer:
D) 7290

Question 20.
P is the principle, R% is rate and time period is T, Simple Interest S and Compound Interest is C then observe the following cases.
(i) C > S
(ii) C = S
(iii) C < S
A) Only (i) is true
B) Either (i) or (ii) is true
C) Either (ii) or (iii) is true
D) Only (ii) is true
Answer:
A) Only (i) is true

Question 21.
The MP of an item is ₹ 80 and it sold is for X 76 then the discount percentage is …………………….
A) 6%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Answer:
B) 5%

Question 22.
Navya bought a scooter for ₹ 36,450 and paid a tax of 9% then how much amount she paid in total ?
A) ₹ 19,370
B) ₹ 39,170.5
C) ₹ 39,0470
D) ₹ 39,730.5
Answer:
D) ₹ 39,730.5

Question 23.
After allowing a discount of 20% the cost of a shirt is ₹ 1,120 then the MP is ………………
A) ₹ 1440
B) ₹ 1410
C) ₹ 2310
D) ₹ 1443
Answer:
A) ₹ 1440

Question 24.
The cost of a T.V with VAT 5% is ₹ 26,250 then the cost of that T.V is
A) ₹ 21,000
B) ₹ 52,000
C) ₹ 25,000
D) ₹ 16,000
Answer:
C) ₹ 25,000

Question 25.
40% of (100 – 20% of 300) = …………………..
A) 19
B) 10
C) 26
D) 16
Answer:
D) 16

Question 26.
The new salary of a person after increasing 10% is ₹ 1,54,000 then the old salary was ………………..
A) ₹ 1,70,001
B) ₹ 1,90,000
C) ₹ 1,30,000
D) ₹ 1,40,000
Answer:
D) ₹ 1,40,000

Question 27.
On a Monday 845 people visited a park and on Tuesday 169 people visited then how much decrease percentage is observed in visitors ?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Answer:
D) 80%

Question 28.
3 : 4 = …………….. %
A) 70
B) 75
C) 65
D) 80
Answer:
B) 75

Question 29.
66 \(\frac {2}{3}\) % = …………………
A) 2 : 3
B) 3 : 2
C) 1 : 4
D) 41
Answer:
A) 2 : 3

Question 30.
72% of 25 students got good narks in Mathematics, then how maiy people did not score good marks ?
A) 13
B) 11
C)10
D) 7
Answer:
D) 7

Question 31.
After spending 75% in his Dtal money Ravi was left with Rs 600/. Then how much money he had originally ?
A) ₹ 800
B) ₹ 1600
C) ₹ 2400
D) ₹ 120
Answer:
C) ₹ 2400

Question 32.
P = ₹ 10,000, R = 4%, n = then A = ₹ ……………….
A) 10,816
B) 11,86
C) 10,861
D) 12,81
Answer:
A) 10,816

Question 33.
P = ₹ 12,000, R = 6% = 2 years then I = ?
A) ₹ 1320
B) ₹ 1,120
C) ₹ 1,220
D) ₹ 1,440
Answer:
D) ₹ 1,440

Question 34.
The cost of a scooter is ₹ 42,000 and the depreciation value for every year is 8% then the value of scooter after 1 year is ……………….
A) ₹ 18,600
B) ₹ 38,640
C) ₹ 39,469
D) ₹ 18,460
Answer:
B) ₹ 38,640

Question 35.
Raju took some amount from a bank at 10\(\frac {1}{2}\)% per 1 year. He paid ₹ 1863.75 as interest after 2\(\frac {1}{2}\) years. Then how much amount was initially taken ?
A) ₹ 6,500
B) ₹ 1,600
C) ₹ 6,800
D) ₹ 7,100
Answer:
D) ₹ 7,100

Question 36.
On certain amount simple interest is \(\frac {16}{25}\) th part of the amount taken then the time and rate of interest is ……………….. (Numerically same)
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 3
Answer:
A) 8

Question 37.
On a certain amount at 12\(\frac {1}{2}\) % rate for 1 years it becomes ₹ 2437.50 then the amount is ………………..
A) ₹ 1225
B) ₹ 1025
C) ₹ 1625
D) ₹ 1175
Answer:
C) ₹ 1625

Question 38.
On ₹ 5000 at 12% per 1 year the interest for 3 years is …………………
A) ₹ 1200
B) ₹ 1800
C) ₹ 1000
D) None
Answer:
B) ₹ 1800

Question 39.
On wiich rate ₹ 500 will become ₹ 605 in 3 years?
A) 7%
B) 6%
C) 12%
D) 9%
Answer:
A) 7%

Question 40.
12.5% = ………………..
A) 3:2
B) 1:4
C) 8:1
D) 1:8
Answer:
D) 1:8

Question 41.
111:125 = ………………..
A) 88.8%
B) 60%
C) 12%
D) 69%
Answer:
A) 88.8%

Question 42.
How much percentage is 16 m in 40 m ?
A) 16%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 18%
Answer:
B) 40%

Question 43.
9% of ₹ 700 is ………………….
A) ₹ 20
B) ₹ 36
C) ₹ 60
D) ₹ 63
Answer:
D) ₹ 63

Question 44.
8% value of a number is 6 then the number is ……………………
A) 75
B) 60
C) 85
D) 65
Answer:
A) 75

Question 45.
3 \(\frac {1}{3}\) % of 90 km = …………………..
A) 10
B) 16
C) 13
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 46.
P = ₹2500,T = 2years6months,R = 6% then A = ……………..
A) ₹ 1975
B) ₹ 2175
C) ₹ 2875
D) ₹ 8275
Answer:
C) ₹ 2875

Question 47.
At 12% rate for 3 years how much amount will become ₹ 4590 ?
A) ₹ 3375
B) ₹ 2375
C) ₹ 1475
D) ₹ 1290
Answer:
A) ₹ 3375

Question 48.
One item was bought for ₹ 400 and sold it for ₹ 336 then the loss percentage is …………..
A) 13%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 16%
Answer:
D) 16%

Question 49.
If we increase a number by 20% it becomes 42 then the number is ……………….
A) 5
B) 16
C) 10
D) none
Answer:
D) none

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Our Earth on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 1st Lesson Our Earth with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an environmental crisis?
A) Global warming
B) Air pollution
C) Collision of asteroids
D) The rise of water levels in oceans
Answer:
C) Collision of asteroids

Question 2.
Which of the following is the biggest of all?
A) Galaxies
B) Milky way
C) Sun
D) Universe
Answer:
D) Universe

Question 3.
The universe started ……………… ago.
A) 18.7 billion years
B) 13.7 billion years
C) 16.7 billion years
D) 15.7 billion years
Answer:
B) 13.7 billion years

Question 4.
……………… is the path of the earth around the sun.
A) The axis
B) The orbit
C) The tract
D) The milky way
Answer:
B) The orbit

Question 5.
Earth travels around the sun at a speed of …………….. per hour.
A) 1,07,200 kms
B) 6,200 kms
C) 152 millions kms
D) 1,02,700 kms
Answer:
A) 1,07,200 kms

Question 6.
Earth takes ………………. days to complete one revolution.
A) 28 days
B) 30 days
C) 366 days
D) 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days
Answer:
D) 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days

Question 7.
Which of the following causes seasons on the earth?
A) Daily rotation of the earth on its axis
B) Monthly movement of the Moon around the Earth
C) Revolution of the Earth around the Sun
D) Tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation to its orbital plane
Answer:
D) Tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation to its orbital plane

Question 8.
The Earth began to form around years ago.
A) 13.7 billion
B) 1,07,200
C) 4\(\frac{1}{2}\) billion
D) 6 billion
Answer:
C) 4\(\frac{1}{2}\) billion

Question 9.
Which of the following came into existence first?
A) Human beings
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Ocean species
Answer:
D) Ocean species

Question 10.
The radius of the earth is ………….
A) 1,07,200 kms
B) 9000 kms
C) 8848 kms
D) 6000 kms
Answer:
D) 6000 kms

Question 11.
Top layer of the earth is called
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 12.
Which of the following layers of the earth is very thin?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 13.
Which of the following layers is the thickest?
A) Outer core
B) Mantle
C) Crust
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Outer core

Question 14.
Which of the following layers consists of silicons?
A) Outer core
B) Mantle
C) Crust
D) Inner core
Answer:
B) Mantle

Question 15.
Which of the following layers consists of iron and nickel?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Outer core

Question 16.
Which of the following layers consists of gold?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Inner core
D) Outer core
Answer:
C) Inner core

Question 17.
Who introduced the theory of continental drift?
A) Alfred Nobel
B) Alfred Wagener
C) John Dalton
D) Galileo Galilei
Answer:
B) Alfred Wagener

Question 18.
We can locate places on the earth with the help of
A) latitudes
B) longitudes
C) grid
D) equator
Answer:
C) grid

Question 19.
Latitudes are
A) circles
B) straight lines
C) semi-circles
D) curves
Answer:
A) circles

Question 20.
Longitudes are
A) circles
B) semi-circles
C) straight lines
D) curves
Answer:
B) semi-circles

Question 21.
Which latitude is called Tropic of Cancer?
A) 0° latitude
B) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude
C) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude
D) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude
Answer:
C) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude

Question 22.
Which latitude is called Tropic of
A) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude
B) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude
C) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude
D) 0° latitude
Answer:
A) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude

Question 23.
0° meridian is called
A) Greenwich meridian
B) Anti-meridian
C) UTC
D) Equator
Answer:
A) Greenwich meridian

Question 24.
180° meridian is called
A) Greenwich meridian
B) Anti-meridian
C) UTC
D) Equator
Answer:
B) Anti-meridian

Question 25.
How much time does the earth take to move 1° longitude?
A) 24 hours
B) one hour
C) 4 minutes
D) 4 hours
Answer:
C) 4 minutes

Question 26.
The earth is divided into
A) 36
B) 24
C) 30
D) 60
Answer:
B) 24

Question 27.
Standard meridian of India is
A) 0° longitude
B) 82° 30′ Eastern longitude
C) 82° 30′ Western latitude
D) 90° Eastern longitude
Answer:
B) 82° 30′ Eastern longitude

Question 28.
The Indian standard time is
A) 12 hours before Greenwich time
B) 12 hours after Greenwich time
C) 5\(\frac{1}{2}\)° hours before Greenwich time
D) 5\(\frac{1}{2}\)° hours after Greenwich time
Answer:
C) 5\(\frac{1}{2}\)° hours before Greenwich time

Question 29.
Universe started some …………… billion years ago.
A) One Lakh
B) 472
C) 152
D) 13.7
Answer:
D) 13.7

Question 30.
Earth travels around the sun at a speed of ………….. kmph.
A) 2,07,100
B) 7,02,100
C) 1,07,200
D) 1,02,700
Answer:
C) 1,07,200

Question 31.
Human beings arrived on earth ………….. years ago.
A) 10,00,000
B) 1,00,000
C) 1 crore
D) 1 billion
Answer:
B) 1,00,000

Question 32.
First life appeared on planet Earth in
A) oceans
B) plants
C) animals
D) plains
Answer:
A) oceans

Question 33.
Heavy substance gold most prevalent in
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
D) Inner core

Question 34.
Alfred Wagener a geophysicist of
A) Italy
B) Austria
C) France
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 35.
The largest latitude is
A) North pole
B) Arctic circle
C) Equator
D) Tropic of cancer
Answer:
C) Equator

Question 36.
………….. longitude is Standard Meridian of India.
A) 83°20’E
B) 82°30’E
C) 83°20’W
D) 82°30’W
Answer:
B) 82°30’E

Question 37.
The world is divided in …………. time zones.
A) four
B) twenty four
C) twelve
D) eight
Answer:
B) twenty four

Question 38.
Earth’s farthest point from Sun is ………. km.
A) 152 mn
B) 125 mn
C) 174 mn
D) 147 mn
Answer:
A) 152 mn

Question 39.
Earth’s closest point from Sun is ………… km.
A) 147 mn
B) 174 mn
C) 125 mn
D) 152 mn
Answer:
A) 147 mn

Question 40.
Earth takes day(s) to complete a rotation.
A) 365\(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) 1
C) 30
D) 31
Answer:
B) 1

Question 41.
The shape of the orbit is ……….
A) a circular path
B) an elongated oval path
C) a scaled oval path
D) a triangular path
Answer:
C) a scaled oval path

Question 42.
…………. is the cause of the formation of seasons on earth.
A) Rotation of the earth
B) Revolution of the earth
C) Tilt of earth’s axis
D) Shape of earth.
Answer:
B) Revolution of the earth

Question 43.
………… is the top most layer of the earth.
A) Crust
B) Core
C) Mantle
D) Centre
Answer:
A) Crust

Question 44.
……………… proposed continental drift theory.
A) Newton
B) Darwin
C) Wagener
D) Alexander
Answer:
C) Wagener

Question 45.
The super continent is …………
A) Panthalsa
B) Pangaea
C) Tethys
D) Laurasia
Answer:
A) Panthalsa

Question 46.
The network of latitudes and longitudes is …………
A) atlas
B) map
C) grid
D) equator
Answer:
C) grid

Question 47.
0° longitude is known as
A) Prime Meridian
B) Equator
C) Tropics
D) International Date Line
Answer:
A) Prime Meridian

Question 48.
The width of each time zone is …………. longitudes.
A) 10° of longitudes
B) 5° of longitudes
C) 15° of longitudes
D) 20° of longitudes
Answer:
C) 15° of longitudes

Question 49.
Let us look at the internal structure of the Earth we live on. We can see the continuity from the early days of the formation of the earth as we try to look deep inside the Earth! It took us years of scientific investigation and analysis of data to form an understanding of the interior of the Earth. The main reason for this is that even the deepest mines we have dug do not go beyond a few kilometres under the surface white the radius or the distance to the centre of the earth is over 6000 kilometres!
Read the paragraph and answer the question.
The radius of the earth is
A) 5000 kms
B) 6000 kms
C) 7000 kms
D) 8000 kms
Answer:
B) 6000 kms

Question 50.
Look at the pictures of the Earth, Sun and the orbit given below. Which one do you think is the correct picture?

Answer:
C)

Question 51.
See the picture and answer the following questions.

i) The depth of the crust is
A) 20 – 80 kms
B) 30 – 100 kms
C) 40 – 100 kms
D) 50 – 100 kms
Answer:
B) 30 – 100 kms

ii) The thickness of the mantle is
A) 100 – 1000 kms
B) 200 – 2000 kms
C) 100 – 2900 kms
D) 200 – 3900 kms
Answer:
C) 100 – 2900 kms

iii) The depth of the core is
A) 2,500 – 5,500 kms
B) 4,500 – 8,000 kms
C) 2,900 – 6,376 kms
D) 5,000 – 9,000 kms
Answer:
C) 2,900 – 6,376 kms

iv) The core is divided into
A) 2 sub layers
B) 3 sub layers
C) different parts
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) 2 sub layers

v) Which layer is supposed to have more gold?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Core
D) Inner core
Answer:
D) Inner core

vi) Which is the uppermost layer of the earth?
A) Mantle
B) Crust
C) Outer core
D) Inner core
Answer:
B) Crust

vii) Silicates are in
A) Core
B) Crust
C) Mantle
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Mantle

viii) Ferrous is in
A) Outer core
B) Inner core
C) Mantle
D) Crust
Answer:
A) Outer core

Question 52.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.

i) The latitudinal value of Equator is
A) 90°
B) 180°
C) 360°
D) 0°
Answer:
D) 0°

ii) In which hemisphere is the Arctic circle situated?
A) Southern
B) Northern
C) Eastern
D) Western
Answer:
B) Northern

iii) 90° North and South latitudes are called
A) Meridians
B) Parallels
C) Poles
D) Circles
Answer:
C) Poles

iv) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)°N latitude is also called as
A) Arctic circle
B) Tropic of cancer
C) Tropic of capricorn
D) Antarctic circle
Answer:
B) Tropic of cancer

v) The value of North pole is
A) 66°
B) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)°
C) 23°
D) 90°
Answer:
D) 90°

vi) The Southern and Northern Hemispheres are divided by
A) Greenwich
B) Equator
C) Tropic of cancer
D) Tropic of capricorn
Answer:
B) Equator

Question 53.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions given below.

i) “Whole land” as having existed in ………….. million years ago.
A) 600
B) 500
C) 200
D) 220
Answer:
D) 220

ii) Continental drift theory was introduced by
A) Aristotle
B) Alfred Wagener
C) Plato
D) Galileo
Answer:
B) Alfred Wagener

iii) Pangaea means
A) Whole land
B) Ocean
C) Mountain
D) River
Answer:
A) Whole land

iv) Panthalassa means
A) Whole land
B) Ocean
C) Hill
D) Canyon
Answer:
B) Ocean

v) Pangaea is divided into ………… parts.
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five
Answer:
C) Two

vi) Laurensia and Gondwana lands were divided by
A) Arabian Sea
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Tethys Sea
D) Indian Ocean
Answer:
C) Tethys Sea

Question 54.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0)°, what is the time in India?
A) 5.30 pm
B) 5.00 pm
C) 4.30 pm
D) 6.00 pm
Answer:
A) 5.30 pm

Question 55.
If it is 12.00 hours at midnight of Sunday at Greenwich, the time in India is
A) 5.30 am on Monday
B) 5.30 am on Sunday
C) 6.30 pm on Sunday
D) 6.30 am on Monday
Answer:
A) 5.30 am on Monday

Observe the map and answer questions 56 & 57.

Question 56.
If you travel from New Delhi to Paris to which time zone are you moving?
A) 0°
B) 10°
C) 20°
D) 30°
Answer:
A) 0°

Question 57.
If you are traveling from Hyderabad to Tokyo which time zone are you moving?
A) 9 – 10 time zone
B) 1 – 2 time zone
C) 4 – 5 time zone
D) 3 – 4 time zone
Answer:
A) 9 – 10 time zone

Match the following:

Question 58.
Group – A                                       Group – B
1) Equator                        ( )            A) 90° North latitude
2) Tropic of Cancer          ( )            B) 0° North latitude
3) Tropic of Capricorn     ( )            C) 90° South latitude
4) Northern Pole             ( )            D) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° South latitude
5) Southern Pole             ( )            E) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° North latitude
Answer:
1) B
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) C

Question 59.
Group – A                                              Group – B
1) Parallels                              ( )            A) 0° longitude
2) Meridians                           ( )            B) 180° longitude
3) Greenwich meridian           ( )            C) Latitudes
4) Anti-meridian                     ( )            D) 82° 30′ East longitude
5) Indian standard meridian   ( )            E) Longitudes
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) D

Question 60.
Group – A                                                     Group – B
1) Radius of earth                          ( )           A) 13.7 billion years ago
2) No.of longitudes                       ( )           B) 180
3) No.of latitudes                          ( )           C) 1,07,200 kms
4) Speed of earth round the sun   ( )          D) 6000 kms
5) Birth of universe                        ( )          E) 360
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) B
4) C
5) A

Question 61.
Group – A                           Group – B
1) Latitudes            ( )            A) Nearly circular
2) Longitudes         ( )            B) Circles
3) Orbit                  ( )            C) Universal time co-ordinated
4) Grid                   ( )             D) Semi-circles
5) UTC                   ( )             E) A pattern of square on a map
Answer:
1) B
2) D
3) A
4) E
5) C

Question 62.
Group – A                         Group – B
1) Big Bang           ( )            A) The northern break up part of Pangaea
2) Laurensia          ( )            B) The sourthern break up part of Pangaea
3) Pangaea           ( )             C) The single large explosion that created the universe
4) Tethys               ( )            D) The massive super continent that existed 220 million years ago
5) Gondwana        ( )            E) A long shallow inland sea that separated Laurensia and Gondwana
Answer:
1) C
2) A
3) D
4) E
5) B

Question 63.
The world is divided into 24 time zones. Number of longitudes in each one are ………….
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Answer:
B) 15

Question 64.
The exact time difference between Greenwich and IST is
A) +5 Hours
B) -5 Hours
C) +5\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
D) -5\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Answer:
C) +5\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours

Question 65.
The longitude taken as Indian Standard Time is:
A) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N
B) 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)° E
C) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° S
D) 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)° W
Answer:
B) 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)° E

Question 66.
Most of the life on Earth is:
A) On the floor
B) In the air
C) Under the water
D) In the space
Answer:
A) On the floor

Question 67.
Total number of longitudes
A) 180
B) 120
C) 360
D) 0
Answer:
C) 360

Examine given map and answer the question 68 and 69.

Question 68.
Indian standard time (Longitude) passes through from which of the following.
A) Mumbai
B) Alahabad
C) Bangalore
D) Ahmedabad
Answer:
B) Alahabad

Question 69.
Tropic of cancer passes through from which of the following.
A) Gujarath
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer:
A) Gujarath

Question 70.
The number of longitudes in a time zone
A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 20
Answer:
B) 15

Question 71.
The percentage of Earth Crust in the volume of the earth
A) 83%
B) 16%
C) 1%
D) 42%
Answer:
C) 1%

Question 72.
India is located within the …………… and the ………….. hemispheres?
A) Eastern and Western
B) Northern and Southern
C) Eastern and Northern
D) Southern and Eastern
Answer:
C) Eastern and Northern

Question 73.
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Stars can live for millions of years.
B) All stars are part of our solar system.
C) Stars appear in the same place in the sky every night.
D) All stars are of the same size.
Answer:
B) All stars are part of our solar system.

Answer questions 74 and 75 based on the map given below.

Question 74.
A ship is at point C in the map. What is the exact position of the ship?
A) 60°W and 60° E
B) 60°W and 30° E
C) 60° E and 30° S
D) 60° E and 60° S
Answer:
C) 60° E and 30° S

Question 75.
What is the difference in degrees, between points B and D in the map ?
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Answer:
C) 120°

Question 76.
Which of the following continent completely lies in the Northern hemisphere.
A) Australia
B) South America
C) Asia
D) Europe
Answer:
D) Europe

Question 77.
Which number on the image forms the crust of the Earth?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
A) 1

Question 78.
In the Atlas, the location of Agra is shown like this;

What information about Agra does the circled part denotes?
A) Page Number
B) Latitude
C) Longitude
D) Altitude
Answer:
C) Longitude

Question 79.
The latest technology that has been used to know the latitudes and longitudes of a place is:
A) Atlas
B) Compass
C) Google Earth
D) Map
Answer:
C) Google Earth

Question 80.
“Unless we exploit the natural resources, development is not at all possible:
A) Though it is unjust, it is the fact only.
B) This is unjust and unreal too. Development is possible without destroying the nature also.
C) Development is first. Everything including environment is next.
D) This opinion is unjust.
Answer:
A) Though it is unjust, it is the fact only.

Instruction: Observe below Map and answer 81 to 87 questions:

Question 81.
Which country has ‘0’ time zone:
A) Srilanka
B) USA
C) England
D) India
Answer:
C) England

Question 82.
How many time zones the world is divided?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 360
D) 24
Answer:
D) 24

Question 83.
Which time zone India lies in?
A) 5\(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) -5\(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) -5
D) 5
Answer:
A) 5\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 84.
If 2.00 pm in London, what is the time in Delhi, the capital of India?
A) 12:00 pm
B) 7.30 pm
C) 2.00 pm
D) 7:30 am
Answer:
B) 7.30 pm

Question 85.
South Africa lies in which time zone?
A) 6
B) 1
C) 5
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 86.
Why some countries has more that one time zone?
A) In this countries so many languages are in use.
B) Many climatic conditions.
C) These countries has many Governments.
D) These countries lies among many longitudes.
Answer:
D) These countries lies among many longitudes.

Question 87.
What is the base to calculate time in a country?
A) Longitudes
B) Equator
C) Tropic of cancer
D) Latitudes
Answer:
A) Longitudes

Question 88.
Consider the following statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ and find out which of them is/ are true. During the last hundred years people have understood that:
A. Stars are born an they grow.
B. They even dies.
A) A is false, B is true.
B) A is true and B is also true.
C) A is false and B is also false.
D) A is true, B is false.
Answer:
B) A is true and B is also true.

Question 89.
In the depth of 150 kms from the surface, the layer of the Earth consists
A) Silicates
B) Liquid metallic material like Nickel and Iron
C) Heavy substances like Gold
D) Various kinds of rocks
Answer:
A) Silicates

Question 90.
Rani has a Globe. Among the following which can’t she know about a place with the help of that globe?
A) In which direction should we go to reach it?
B) How much the cost of living would be there?
C) What time it would be there at any moment?
D) How hot or cold it would be there?
Answer:
A) In which direction should we go to reach it?

Question 91.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct one among the options given below.
A. Though several countries tries to fix a longitude that passes through their own territory as the 0° longitude, the Greenwich longitude was accepted as the 0° longitude.
B. England ruled a large part of the world at that time.
A) Both A and B are true. A was a reson to make B possible.
B) Both A and B are true. There is no relation between A and B.
C) Only A is true. There is no relation between A and B.
D) Both A and B are true. B was a reason to make A possible.
Answer:
B) Both A and B are true. There is no relation between A and B.

Question 92.
Which of the following is not part of Gondwana?
A) Africa
B) Australia
C) India
D) North America
Answer:
D) North America

Question 93.
Find out the wrongly shown latitude among the following
A) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N
B) 0°S
C) 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° S
D) 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° N
Answer:
B) 0°S

Question 94.
Location of Delhi:
A) 28.7°N, 77.1°E
B) 28.7°S, 77.1°W
C) 28.7°E, 77.1°W
D) 28.7°E, 77.1°N
Answer:
A) 28.7°N, 77.1°E

Question 95.
All of us live on the Earth. Related to Earth, which among the following statements is not true?
A) Half of the Earth’s history remained lifeless.
B) The Earth has reached its present form through several phases.
C) Now the Earth has reached a fixed stage that doesn’t go through any change.
D) The Earth is made up of three main layers.
Answer:
C) Now the Earth has reached a fixed stage that doesn’t go through any change.

The location of a few cities is shown on the map given below. Read the map carefully to answer questions 96 and 97.

Question 96.
Which of the following cities is located 60 degrees north and 60 degrees East?
A) City A
B) City B
C) City C
D) City D
Answer:
C) City C

Question 97.
When it is 12 Noon at Greenwich meridian (0), What will be the local time at CITY ‘C’?
A) 4 AM
B) 4 PM
C) 2 AM
D) 2 PM
Answer:
B) 4 PM

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 4 Exponents and Powers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 4th Lesson Exponents and Powers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
a^m × b^m =
A) (\(\frac{a}{b}\))^m
B) (ab)^m
C) (\(\frac{b}{a}\))^m
D) (ab)^2m
Answer:
B) (ab)^m

Question 2.
(- 5)^-3 × (- 5)^-4 =
A) (-5)^-7
B) (-5)⁷
C) \(\frac{1}{(5)^{7}}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{(-5)^{-7}}\)
Answer:
A) (-5)^-7

Question 3.
If 2^{7x – 7} = 1 then x =
A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) 3
Answer:
A) 1

Question 4.
The value of (\(\frac{2}{5}\))^-3 × (\(\frac{25}{4}\))^-2  =
A) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{-2}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 5.
Which of the following is not true ?
A) (x^-3)² = x^-6
B) x^-2 = √x
C) \(\frac{x^{-3}}{x^{-2}}=\frac{1}{x}\)
D) x^-3 × x^-5 = x^-8
Answer:
B) x^-2 = √x

Question 6.
The standard form of 43800000
A) 438 × 10⁸
B) \(\frac{438}{10^{5}}\)
C) 438 × 10⁵
D) 43.8 × 10^-8
Answer:
C) 438 × 10⁵

Question 7.
The general form of 4.67 × 10⁴ is
A) 47670
B) 4767000
C) 476700
D) 46700
Answer:
D) 46700

Question 8.
The standard form of 0.000437 × 10⁴ is ……………………
A) 437 × 10⁵
B) 4.37 × 10
C) 473 × 10^-2
D) 437 × 10^-2
Answer:
D) 437 × 10^-2

Question 9.
\(\frac{\mathbf{a}^{m}}{\mathbf{a}^{m}}\) = ………………..
A) m
B) -1
C) 1
D) a
Answer:
C) 1

Question 10.
(\(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}\))^m = ………………….
A) \(\frac{a^{m}}{b^{m}}\)
B) \(\frac{a^{m}}{b}\)
C) \(\frac{a}{b^{m}}\)
D) ab^m
Answer:
A) \(\frac{a^{m}}{b^{m}}\)

Question 11.
a^-n = ………………
A) -aⁿ
B) \(\frac{1}{a^{n}}\)
C) -a
D) -n^a
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{a^{n}}\)

Question 12.
a^m × a^-m = ……………..
A) m
B) 3
C) -1
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 13.
(2° – 3°) × 4° = ……………….
A) 1
B) 0
C) – 1
D) 1
Answer:
B) 0

Question 14.
The general form of 1.275 × 10³ ……………………..
A) 1275 × 10¹⁰⁰
B) 1257 × 10⁵
C) 1275 × 10
D) 1275
Answer:
D) 1275

Question 15.
8^{x + 1} = 1 then x = ………………….
A) 1
B) – 1
C) – 2
D) 3
Answer:
B) – 1

Question 16.
100° = ……………..
A) 3
B) -1
C) 100
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 17.
2^-4 = \(\frac{1}{2^{n}}\) then n = ……………..
A) 3
B) -3
C) 4
D) – 4
Answer:
C) 4

Question 18.
\(\frac{\mathbf{a}^{\mathbf{m}}}{\mathbf{a}^{\mathbf{n}}}\) (m < n) = ………………
A) \(\frac{1}{a^{n-m}}\)
B) a^{n – m}
C) a^m
D) \(\frac{1}{a^{m-n}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{a^{n-m}}\)

Question 19.
a × a × a × ………………… 2016 times ………………
A) 2016 a
B) a²⁰¹⁶
C) 2016^a
D) 2106^{a × a}
Answer:
B) a²⁰¹⁶

Question 20.
2^-1 + 1^-1 = ……………..
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
B) 1
C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 21.
(100° + 2^-1 + 1^-2) ÷ 2^-1 = ………………..
A) 4
B) 3
C) -5
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 22.
3⁵ ÷ 3^-6 = ………………….
A) 3¹¹
B) 3⁷
C) 3⁸
D) 3¹⁰
Answer:
A) 3¹¹

Question 23.
\(\left[\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)^{-1}\right]^{-1}\) = ……………….
A) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
C) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
D) \(\frac{5}{1}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 24.
(-2)² = ……………….
A) 4
B) -4
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
A) 4

Question 25.
a + a + a + …………. n times = ……………..
A) na
B) aⁿ
C) \(\frac{\text { na }}{2}\)
D) a
Answer:
A) na

Question 26.
Reciprocal of (\(\frac{-5}{9}\))⁹⁹ is ……………..
A) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
C) 9⁹⁹
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 27.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) a^m × a^-n = a^{m – n}
B) a^m b^m = a(b)^m
C) a⁰ = 1, a = 0 …………….
D) (ab)^-1 = a^-1
Answer:
A) a^m × a^-n = a^{m – n}

Question 28.
(xy)^-2.(xy)² = ……………….
A) x
B) y²
C) xy
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 29.
Cube of \(\frac {-1}{2}\) = ……………..
A) \(\frac {1}{8}\)
B) \(\frac {-1}{8}\)
C) 8
D) -2
Answer:
B) \(\frac {-1}{8}\)

Question 30.
(2^-2)^-3 = …………………
A) 31
B) 60
C) 32
D) 64
Answer:
D) 64

Question 31.
a³ × a^-10 = …………….. ,
A) a¹⁰
B) a⁶
C) a⁷
D) a^-7
Answer:
D) a^-7

Question 32.
7^{x + 3} = 5^{x + 3} then x = ……………….
A) – 1
B) – 3
C) – 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) – 3

Question 33.
(\(\frac {4}{3}\))^-2 = ………………
A) \(\frac{9}{16}\)
B) \(\frac{14}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{16}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{9}{17}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{9}{16}\)

Question 34.
(-9)³ ÷ 9³ = ……………..
A) – 1
B) 1
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
A) – 1

Question 35.
x⁷ ÷ x¹² = ……………….
A) x⁵
B) x^-5
C) x⁶
D) x⁷
Answer:
B) x^-5

Question 36.
(\(\frac{1}{2016}\))⁰ = ………………..
A) 0
B) – 1
C) 6
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 37.
The general form of 2.03 × 10⁵ is ………………..
A) 0.00234
B) 0.00423
C) 0.00230
D) 0.0000203
Answer:
D) 0.0000203

Question 38.
The standard form of 23,40,00,000 is ……………………
A) 2.34 × 10⁸
B) 3.24 × 10⁶
C) 3.34 × 10⁶
D) 8.15 × 10⁹
Answer:
A) 2.34 × 10⁸

Question 39.
(7^-1 – 18^-1)⁰ = …………………
A) – 1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 7
Answer:
C) 1

Question 40.
If we divide 8⁵ by ………………. we get 8
A) 8¹⁰
B) 8⁶
C) 8⁵
D) 8⁴
Answer:
D) 8⁴

Question 41.
10^-3 = ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{200}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{1000}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{1000}\)

Question 42.
(\(\frac {1}{2}\))^-2 ÷ (\(\frac {1}{2}\))^-2
A) (\(\frac {1}{2}\))³
B) -1
C) 1
D) – 2
Answer:
C) 1

Question 43.
(2⁵ ÷ 2⁶) × 2 = ………………….
A) 1
B) – 2
C) 3
D) – 1
Answer:
A) 1

Question 44.
5^{3x – 1} ÷ 25 = 125 then x = ………………
A) – 2
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
B) 2

Question 45.
\(\frac{6^{-2}}{6^{n}}\) = 6^-3 then n = ………………
A) 2
B) 1
C) -1
D) 3
Answer:
B) 1

Question 46.
\(\frac{\mathbf{5}^{\mathrm{m}} \times \mathbf{5}^{3} \times \mathbf{5}^{-\mathbf{2}}}{\mathbf{5}^{-\mathbf{5}}}\) = 5¹² then m = …………………
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 47.
2¹⁰ = …………………
A) 1042
B) 512
C) 1024
D) 1204
Answer:
C) 1024

Question 48.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)(2ⁿ) = 2^{n – 2}
B) 4^{n – 1} = 4ⁿ
C) 4^m × 4^-m = 4^-2m
D) 25 (5ⁿ) = 5^{n – 1}
Answer:
A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)(2ⁿ) = 2^{n – 2}

Question 49.
3x ^-1 = ………………
A) \(\frac{3}{x}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3 x}\)
C) \(\frac{3^{-1}}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)
D) \(\frac{x}{3}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{3}{x}\)

Question 50.
The standard form of 24.36 × 10^-3 is ……………..
A) 0.4236
B) 0.243
C) 24.36
D) 0.02436
Answer:
D) 0.02436