Category: Bit Bank

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 22 Women Protection Acts on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 22nd Lesson Women Protection Acts with Answers

Choose the correct answer.
Question 1.
Girls are hesitating to go to
A) Schools
B) Offices
C) Temples
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Schools

Question 2.
In 1989, the UNO proposed an international children charter on which countries have signed.
A) 120
B) 191
C) 171
D) 193
Answer:
B) 191

Question 3.
Below years of age is all children without gender discrimination.
A) 15
B) 16
C) 18
D) 13
Answer:
C) 18

Question 4.
Marriage age of a male
A) 15
B) 16
C) 18
D) 21
Answer:
D) 21

Question 5.
HelpLine 1800 425 2908 is known as Help Line.
A) Bhumika
B) Soundarya
C) Raasi
D) Archana
Answer:
A) Bhumika

Question 6.
Devadasi comes under
A) Activities against the law
B) Sexual Assault
C) Labourers
D) Sadistic pleasure
Answer:
B) Sexual Assault

Question 7.
The punishment to the brothel housekeepers (imprisonment) is
A) 1 – 2
B) 3 – 4
C) 2 – 3
D) 10
Answer:
C) 2 – 3

Question 8.
Our Constitution provides the right to live in a dignified manner to all the
A) Children
B) Women
C) Men
D) Citizens
Answer:
D) Citizens

Question 9.
Violence leads to more and more
A) violence
B) energy
C) control
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) violence

Question 10.
Humiliation comes under
A) Sexual abuse
B) Verbal and emotional abuse
C) Physical abuse
D) Mental abuse
Answer:
B) Verbal and emotional abuse

Question 11.
Before the law, all are
A) Different
B) Equal
C) Unequal
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Equal

Question 12.
The punishment for sexual assault and torturing is
A) 20 years
B) 10 years
C) 14 years
D) 5 years
Answer:
A) 20 years

Question 13.
The incharge to avoid child marriages at the village level is
A) Tehsildar
B) M.R.O
C) Panchayat secretary
D) Collector
Answer:
C) Panchayat secretary

Question 14.
Violation of children and women is in various forms.
A) Rights
B) Torture
C) Prostitution
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Rights

Question 15.
Who provide the free legal services?
A) Subordinate courts
B) Municiff courts
C) Lok Adalats
D) Judicial courts
Answer:
C) Lok Adalats

Question 16.
Verbal and emotional abuse comes under ……………. violence.
A) Torture
B) Domestic violence
C) Domestic information
D) Respect
Answer:
B) Domestic violence

Question 17.
Which of the following is a people’s court?
A) Sessions court
B) Taluka court
C) Municiff court
D) Lok Adalat
Answer:
D) Lok Adalat

Question 18.
Lok Adalats were established in
A) 1982
B) 1967
C) 1976
D) 1970
Answer:
C) 1976

Question 19.
The immoral trafficking act was implemented in
A) 1970
B) 1956
C) 1980
D) 1990
Answer:
B) 1956

Question 20.
How many countries were signed on International children charter?
A) 191
B) 150
C) 200
D) 193
Answer:
A) 191

Question 21.
Child marriage means, marriage was held below the age of
A) 21-18
B) 31 – 35
C) 56 – 50
D) None of these
Answer:
A) 21-18

Question 22.
What is the punishment of violation of Dowry Prohibition Act?
A) 5 years imprisonment 15 thousand rupees fine
B) 7 years imprisonment 20 thousand rupees fine
C) 10 years imprisonment 50 thousand fine
D) 2 years imprisonment 20 thousand fine
Answer:
A) 5 years imprisonment 15 thousand rupees fine

Question 23.
What is the punishment to the male person to the child marriage?
A) 2 years imprisoned, 1 lakh fine
B) 5 years imprisoned, 50,000 fine
C) 7 years imprisoned, 25,000 fine
D) 10 years imprisoned, 15,000 fine
Answer:
A) 2 years imprisoned, 1 lakh fine

Question 24.
Vetti comes under
A) Favourable to law
B) Against to the law
C) Immoral trafficking
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Immoral trafficking

Question 25.
President of India issued an ordinance to prevent sexual assault and abuse in
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2010
D) 2013
Answer:
D) 2013

Question 26.
There will be no punishment if the accused dies in struggle at the time of attack with acid on
A) Women
B) Men
C) Helper
D) Acid seller
Answer:
A) Women

Question 27.
Lok Adalats are established under the article of
A) 20 (D)
B) 39 (A)
C) 40 (B)
D) 16 (C)
Answer:
B) 39 (A)

Question 28.
One example of social and religious prostitution is
A) Sex worker
B) Child marriage
C) Jogini
D) Purdah system
Answer:
C) Jogini

Question 29.
Sexual assault means
A) Torture
B) House arrest
C) Murder
D) Forced prostitution
Answer:
D) Forced prostitution

Question 30.
Prohibition of child marriage act was implemented in
A) 2006
B) 2000
C) 2011
D) 2009
Answer:
A) 2006

Question 31.
The incharge to avoid the child marriage divisional level is
A) SI
B) MRO
C) RDO
D) CI
Answer:
C) RDO

Question 32.
Forcible prostitutes are called
A) Sex workers
B) Murderers
C) Anti social eliments
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Sex workers

Question 33.
Use the women wealth comes under
A) Physical Abuse
B) Economic Abuse
C) Mental abuse
D) Verbal abuse
Answer:
B) Economic Abuse

Question 34.
Not allowing the women to job comes under
A) Economic Abuse
B) Physical Abuse
C) Mental Abuse
D) Sexual Abuse
Answer:
C) Mental Abuse

Question 35.
Tying up the children on camels and make them run for entertainment comes under
A) Sadistic pleasure
B) Economic Abuse
C) Physical Abuse
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Sadistic pleasure

Question 36.
International children charter was proposed by
A) I.M.F
B) U.N.O
C) IBRD
D) WHO
Answer:
B) U.N.O

Question 37.
According to Beizing declaration the sex ratio is very low because
A) Marriage
B) Advertisements
C) Torture (or) Abuse
D) Laws
Answer:
C) Torture (or) Abuse

Question 38.
During the time of marriage parents present ……….. must be as per the law.
A) Offerings
B) Dowry
C) Gold
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Offerings

Question 39.
The children are sent to …………. after protecting them from immoral trafficking.
A) Bala Sadan
B) Welfare cetres
C) Protection centres
D) Schools
Answer:
A) Bala Sadan

Question 40.
Lok Adalat means
A) Judicial court
B) People’s court
C) Munciff court
D) Sub-ordinate court
Answer:
B) People’s court

Question 41.
After protecting the victims they should be presented before the
A) Police station
B) Court
C) Magistrate
D) Collector
Answer:
C) Magistrate

Question 42.
Without warrant the police officer shall investigate the ……….. case.
A) Domestic violence
B) Immoral trafficking
C) Rape
D) Murder
Answer:
B) Immoral trafficking

Question 43.
The main reason any child become a child labour is
A) Child marriages
B) Infant Mortality rate
C) Financial position
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Financial position

Child means a person who, if a male, has not completed 21 years of age, and if a female, has not completed 18 years of age.
If a male person above 21 years con-tracts a child marriage shall be punish-able for two years imprisonment and/or a fine which may extend to Rs.l lakh. The same punishment will be given to person who performs, conducts or directs a Child Marriage under Child Marriage Act., 2006.
Question 44.
Child means
A) Below – 18 yrs
B) Below – 16 yrs
C) Below – 14 yrs
D) Below – 20 yrs
Answer:
A) Below – 18 yrs

Question 45.
What is the minimum age of marriage for girls?
A) 21 years
B) 18 years
C) 15 years
D) 13 years
Answer:
B) 18 years

Question 46.
What is the minimum age of marriage for boys
A) 31 years
B) 27 years
C) 21 years
D) 18 years
Answer:
C) 21 years

Question 47.
Child marriages Act was implemented in
A) 2002
B) 2007
C) 2005
D) 2006
Answer:
D) 2006

Incident / Name of the Act Year
1. Child marriages Act 2006
2. The Dowry prohibition Act 1961
3. The Immoral trafficking Act 1956

Question 48.
Who proposed International children charter?
A) UNO
B) ILO
C) FAO
D) IBRD
Answer:
A) UNO

Question 49.
Dowry prohibition Act was passed in
A) 1971
B) 1986
C) 1961
D) 1975
Answer:
C) 1961

Question 50.
Immoral trafficking Act was implemented in
A) 1956
B) 1963
C) 1970
D) 1980
Answer:
A) 1956

Question 51.
Match the following.
Group – A Group – B
1. Vetti — A) Physical abuse
2. Mathangi — B) Lok Adalat
3. The Dowry Prohibition Act — C) Labourers
4. Beating — D) Social and religious prostitution
5. Article 39 – A — E) 1961
Answer:
1) C
2) D
3) E
4) A
5) B

Question 52.
If you want to stop a child marriage in your area, which helpline would you call?
A) Bhoomika
B) 108
C) 104
D) BSNL
Answer:
A) Bhoomika

Question 53.
“Bhumika” help line belongs to
A) Complaints for Aadhar
B) Complaints against Dowry sytem
C) Stop the child marriages
D) Complaints for the land record
Answer:
C) Stop the child marriages

Question 54.
Which of the following is the misconception regarding domestic violence?
A) Domestic Violence starts slowly and it becomes a routine.
B) The violence free environment is the birth right of very woman.
C) Violence leads to more and more violence.
D) There is no way to get out of Domestic violence.
Answer:
D) There is no way to get out of Domestic violence.

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Playing with Numbers on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 15th Lesson Playing with Numbers with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is divisible by 2?
A) 41
B) 449
C) 573
D) 8096
Answer:
D) 8096

Question 2.
Which of the following is divisible by 3?
A) 76
B) 123
C) 457
D) 9082
Answer:
B) 123

Question 3.
Which of the following is divisible by 5?
A) 11
B) 1101
C) 1001
D) 1100
Answer:
D) 1100

Question 4.
Which of the following is divisible by ‘7’?
A) 4277
B) 3513
C) 862
D) 4675
Answer:
A) 4277

Question 5.
Which of the following is divisible by ’11’?
A) 12325
B) 56478
C) 13431
D) 122
Answer:
C) 13431

Question 6.
Every palindrome number is divisible by
A) 13
B) 17
C) 19
D) 11
Answer:
D) 11

Question 7.
Which of the following is divisible by ‘9’?
A) 1134
B) 1235
C) 1236
D) 1237
Answer:
A) 1134

Question 8.
876123 is divisible by
A) 999
B) 877
C) 109
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 9.
The sum of the numbers which are divisible by 5 from 1 to 50 is
A) 285
B) 275
C) 295
D) 265
Answer:
B) 275

Question 10.
If 7A – 16 = A9 then A =
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Answer:
C) 5

Question 11.
If 73K ÷ 8 = 9L then K + L =
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 12.
then H = ?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answrer:
A) 0

Question 13.
Which of the following divides (n³ – n)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Answer:
C) 3

Question 14.
If a number is divisible by ‘5’ then its units digit be ……………….
A) 0
B) 5
C) A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) A & B

Question 15.
(a³ – b³) ÷ (a – b) = ………………
A) a² + ab + b²
B) a – ab + b²
C) a² – ab – b²
D) a – b²
Answer:
A) a² + ab + b²

Question 16.
Sum of first ‘n’ natural numbers is ………………..
A) \(\frac{n+3}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)

Question 17.
If a number 24P is divided by 3 the remainder is 1 and when divided by 5 the remainder is 2 then the value of P is …………………..
A) 2
B) 7
C) 10
D) 9
Answer:
B) 7

Question 18.
If 50B is divisible by 5 then B = …………………
A) 0 or 5
B) 0 or 9
C) 1 or 6
D) 3 or 4
Answer:
A) 0 or 5

Question 19.
The largest number of two digits which is divisible by 2, 5, 10 is ………………….
A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 60
Answer:
C) 90

Question 20.
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24 are the multiples of ……………….
A) 24
B) 42
C) 13
D) 18
Answer:
A) 24

Question 21.
No. of rectangles in the figure are ………………
A) 9
B) 10
C) 8
D) 11
Answer:
B) 10

Question 22.
2² + 2³ + 2⁴ = ……………….
A) 28
B) 13
C) 10
D) 16
Answer:
A) 28

Question 23.
32² = ……………..
A) 1004
B) 3010
C) 1204
D) 1024
Answer:
D) 1024

Question 24.
The sum of all numbers that are divisible by 3 from 11 to 1000 is ………………
A) 766155
B) 766118
C) 166815
D) 766815
Answer:
C) 166815

Question 25.
In this A = ……………..
A) 7
B) 6
C)10
D) 9
Answer:
D) 9

Question 26.
In this P = ………………..
A) 3
B) 14
C) 9
D) 4
Answer:
A) 3

Question 27.
The number divisible by 2,5 and 10 is ………………
A) 16
B) 40
C) 19
D) 12
Answer:
B) 40

Question 28.
\(\frac{a^{5}+b^{5}}{a-b}\) = …………………
A) a⁴ – b
B) a – b⁴
C) a – b²
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 29.
The general form of a four digit number p q r s is ………………..
A) 1000a + 100p + r + 10s
B) 100p + 10q + r + s
C) 1000a + p + r
D) 1000p + 100q + 10r + s
Answer:
D) 1000p + 100q + 10r + s

Question 30.
a b c is a 3 digited number then abc – a – b – c is divisible by ……………….
A) 13
B) 11
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
C) 9

Question 31.
Which of the following is divisible by 99?
A) 114345
B) 3572406
C) 913462
D) 135792
Answer:
A) 114345

Question 32.
5A × A = 399 then the value of A = ………………
A) 3
B) 7
C) 4
D) 6
Answer:
B) 7

Question 33.
If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 3 then it is divisible by ……………..
A) 7
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 34.
2x ÷ 0 ………………
A) 0
B) x
C) 2
D) not defined
Answer:
D) not defined

Question 35.
abc is a 3 digited number then abc + bca + cab is not divisible by …………….
A) a + b + c
B) 3
C) 37
D) 10
Answer:
C) 37

Question 36.
In this A = …………………
A) 6
B) 5
C) 1
D) 3
Answer:
B) 5

Question 37.
In the above problem B = ……………..
A) 7
B) 6
C) 8
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 38.
In this A = ………………
A) 7
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
A) 7

Question 39.
In the above problem B = ……………..
A) 5
B) 9
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 40.
Which of the following is divisible by 9?
A) 108
B) 111
C) 112
D) 110
Answer:
A) 108

Question 41.
In this A = ……………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Answer:
A) 2

Question 42.
In the above problem D = ……………….
A) 8
B) 6
C) 9
D) 1
Answer:
C) 9

Question 43.
One of the multiples of 9 is ………………
A) 87
B) 33
C) 45
D) 50
Answer:
C) 45

Question 44.
Σn = ……………
A) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{n}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{n+1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)

Question 45.
1 + 1 + …………… + 10 times = …………..
A) 1
B) 9
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 46.
1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + ……………… 9 times = …………..
A) -1
B) 2
C) 1
D) 9
Answer:
C) 1

Question 47.
1² + 2² + 3² + ……………. n² = ………….
A) \(\frac{n^{2}(n+1)^{2}(2 n+1)}{6}\)
B) \(\frac{n(n+1)(2 n+1)}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{4}\)
D) None
Answer:
B) \(\frac{n(n+1)(2 n+1)}{6}\)

Question 48.
Which of the following is divisible by 11?
A) 151
B) 1331
C) 1211
D) 1334
Answer:
B) 1331

Question 49.
General form of an even number ……………….
A) 1 + 2n
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)
C) 2n
D) \(\frac{2}{n}\)
Answer:
C) 2n

Question 50.
Σn³ = ……………..
A) \(\frac{n^{2}(n+1)^{2}}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{n(n-1)}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{n(n+3)}{4}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{n^{2}(n+1)^{2}}{4}\)

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 21 Human Rights and Fundamental Rights on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 21st Lesson Human Rights and Fundamental Rights with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
A) Right to equality
B) Right to property
C) Right to freedom
D) Right against exploitation
Answer:
B) Right to property

Question 2.
The people of India do not have the following liberty
A) freedom of speech
B) freedom of expression
C) freedom to form unions
D) freedom to use microphones during festival
Answer:
C) freedom to form unions

Question 3.
………… protects us from arbitrary arrests.
A) Right to life
B) Right to freedom
C) Right to equality
D) Right to religious freedom
Answer:
A) Right to life

Question 4.
…………. right protects us from forced labour.
A) Right against exploitation
B) Right to life
C) Right to equality
D) Right to freedom
Answer:
A) Right against exploitation

Question 5.
National Human Rights Commission was established in
A) 1993
B) 1948
C) 1988
D) 1945
Answer:
A) 1993

Question 6.
Fundamental Rights may be modified through the …………
A) Parliament
B) Assembly
C) Law
D) Government
Answer:
A) Parliament

Question 7.
At present ………….. was included in fundamental rights.
A) Right to vote
B) Right to freedom
C) Right to education
D) Right to life
Answer:
C) Right to education

Question 8.
India is a secular country, that word mention in the ………..
A) Schedule
B) Constitution
C) Preamble
D) Parts
Answer:
C) Preamble

Question 9.
The constitution states, ‘no child below the age of ………….. shall be employed to work in any factory or mines or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
A) 10 years
B) 14 years
C) 9 years
D) 20 years
Answer:
B) 14 years

Question 10.
Under right against exploitation all forms of ” …………… are prohibited”.
A) works
B) anti social eliments
C) forced labours
D) cheating
Answer:
C) forced labours

Question 11.
Which of the following age children should get free and compulsory education?
A) 10-15 years
B) 0-14 years
C) 7-15 years
D) 6-14 years
Answer:
D) 6-14 years

Question 12.
The right to life does not include the right to
A) moral
B) die
C) bribes
D) take the law in our hands
Answer:
B) die

Question 13.
Even though emergency period, temporarily also this right is not suspended
A) Right to life
B) Right to education
C) Right to property
D) Right to freedom
Answer:
A) Right to life

Question 14.
Our free speech must not be
A) defamatory
B) bribe
C) cheating
D) none of the above
Answer:
A) defamatory

Question 15.
Movies are subject to review by the board.
A) trade
B) commerce
C) film
D) censor
Answer:
D) censor

Question 16.
Its practice in any form abolishes by constitution.
A) untouchability
B) prohibition
C) Riots
D) reservations
Answer:
A) untouchability

Question 17.
After the World Wars ………… was established with an objective to ensure that there are no more major wars in the globe
A) League of Nations
B) U.N.O
C) W.H.O
D) W.T.O
Answer:
B) U.N.O

Question 18.
The universal declaration of Human Rights was proposed by
A) W.H.O
B) U.N.O
C) IBRD
D) FAO
Answer:
B) U.N.O

Question 19.
The court can take cognizance of a violation of a fundamental right
A) Schedule
B) Writ
C) Sue motu
D) Hebeas
Answer:
C) Sue motu

Question 20.
Public Interest Litigation comes under …………. Right.
A) Right to freedom
B) Right to constitutional Remedies
C) Right to vote
D) Right to life
Answer:
B) Right to constitutional Remedies

Question 21.
Democracy safeguards not just the majority but also the
A) backward people
B) representatives
C) minorities
D) rich people
Answer:
C) minorities

Question 22.
These are also become significant in the democratic system.
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Directive principles
C) Fundamental Duties
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 23.
Which of these rights explained about movies?
A) Right to live
B) Right to freedom
C) Right to speech
D) Right to religious freedom
Answer:
C) Right to speech

Question 24.
Abolition of Sati comes under ………… Right.
A) Right to Religious freedom
B) Right to life
C) Right to freedom
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Right to Religious freedom

Question 25.
Fundamental rights find a place in part …………. of the constitution of India.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 26.
Writs are issued by courts to
A) High courts
B) People
C) Governments
D) Lower courts
Answer:
C) Governments

Question 27.
During the time of emergency are suspended.
A) Natural calamities
B) Fundamental rights
C) Right to life
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Fundamental rights

Question 28.
Respecting to National Anthem and National Flag is a
A) Fundamental duty
B) Fundamental Right
C) Freedom
D) Political right
Answer:
A) Fundamental duty

Question 29.
‘Swatch Bharath’ is followed by every citizen is a
A) Fundamental Right
B) Fundamental Duty
C) Revolution
D) Right to freedom
Answer:
B) Fundamental Duty

Question 30.
The tenure, of state Human Rights Commission Chairman is ………… years.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
Answer:
A) 5

Question 31.
In Andhra Pradesh in which year Human Right Protection act was passed?
A) 1990
B) 1993
C) 1947
D) 1948
Answer:
B) 1993

Question 32.
National Human Rights Commission Chairman is appointed by
A) High court
B) Supreme court
C) President
D) Prime Minister
Answer:
C) President

Question 33.
State Human Rights Commission Chairman is appointed by
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) Highcourt
D) Speaker
Answer:
A) Governor

Question 34.
Which of the following right is removed from fundamental rights?
A) Right to property
B) Right to life
C) Right to freedom
D) Right to speech
Answer:
A) Right to property

Question 35.
Freedom to form an associations or unions comes under ………… rights.
A) Right to freedom
B) Right to life
C) Right to religious freedom
D) Right to education
Answer:
A) Right to freedom

Question 36.
National Commission for protection of child rights was formed in
A) 2007
B) 2000
C) 1999
D) 1998
Answer:
A) 2007

Fundamental Rights find a place in Part 3 of the Constitution of India. These rights give people a protection from oppressive governments and place a duty on the government to uphold them. They are so important that if they are violated by thegovernment, any person has aright to approach the HighCourt or the Supreme Court directly without going to the lower courts for relief. Writ is an authority given to the court to issue directions to the government to protect and enforce any constitutional right. It is an inherent power given to the court. The court can sue motu (on its own motion) take cognizance of a violation of a fundamental right.
Question 37.
In which part of our Constitution Fundamental Rights are placed?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2
Answer:
C) 3

Question 38.
Which give protection to people?
A) Supreme court
B) Directive principles
C) Fundamental Rights
D) Duties
Answer:
C) Fundamental Rights

Question 39.
What is the inherent power of the court?
A) Writ
B) Couanento
C) Certiorari
D) Mandamus
Answer:
A) Writ

See the map given below and answer the questions.

A) New Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Mumbai
D) Hyderabad
E) Bengaluru
F) Chennai
G) Amaravathi

Question 40.
The capital of Telangana state
A) Amaravathi
B) Bengaluru
C) Hyderabad
D) Kolkata
Answer:
C) Hyderabad

Question 41.
Supreme Court is located in
A) Bengaluru
B) Mumbai
C) Hydrabad
D) New Delhi
Answer:
D) New Delhi

Question 42.
Which city is called as electronic capital of India?
A) Bengaluru
B) Mumbai
C) Chennai
D) Kolkata
Answer:
A) Bengaluru

Question 43.
Match the following.
Group – A — Group – B
1. UDHR — A) 1945
2. NHRC — B) Right to life
3. UNO — C) Right against exploitation
4. Arbitrary arrest — D) 1948
5. Forced labour — E) 1993
Answer:
1) D
2) E
3) A
4) B
5) C

Question 44.
Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian Citizen?
A) Freedom to criticise the Government
B) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
C) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
D) Freedom to oppose the central values of the constitution
Answer:
D) Freedom to oppose the central values of the constitution

Question 45.
True among the following regarding the Rights:
A) Rights are reasonable claims of per-sons
B) Everyone should respect other’s rights
C) Rights protected by law
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 46.
Expand the term PIL
A) Power Interest Litigation
B) Public Interest Litigation
C) Peoples Interest Litigation
D) Policy Interest Litigation
Answer:
B) Public Interest Litigation

Question 47.
Raju, a 10 year old boy works in a crack-ers factory. In this context, which of his right is violated?
i) Right to life ii) Right to education
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) No right is violated
Answer:
B) ii only

Question 48.
The power of the courts of law to take cognizance of the violation of a fundamental right on its own is called
A) A writ
B) A public interest litigation
C) Sue motu
D) Amendment
Answer:
C) Sue motu

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volume (Cube-Cuboid) on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 14th Lesson Surface Areas and Volume (Cube-Cuboid) with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
L.S.A. of a cuboid is
A) 2h(l + b)
B) 2(l + b)
C) 2(lb + bh + lh)
D) 4a²
Answer:
A) 2h(l + b)

Question 2.
T.S.A. of a cube is
A) 4a²
B) 6a²
C) 2(lb + bh + lh)
D) 2h(l + b)
Answer:
B) 6a²

Question 3.
The T.S.A. of a cuboid of measures 20 cm × 10 cm × 15 cm is (sq.cm)
A) 130
B) 13,000
C) 1300
D) None
Answer:
C) 1300

Question 4.
Net form of a cube is

D) None
Answer:

Question 5.
If the side of a cube is doubled then the change in its T.S.A. is
A) 1 time
B) 2 times
C) 3 times
D) 4 times
Answer:
D) 4 times

Question 6.
If s = 6 cm then T.S.A. of a cube (sq.cm) is
A) 216
B) 260
C) 460
D) None
Answer:
A) 216

Question 7.
1 cu.cm. =
A) 10 mm³
B) 100 mm³
C) 1000 mm³
D) None
Answer:
C) 1000 mm³

Question 8.
Volume of a cuboid (V) = ………………
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{lb}}{\mathrm{h}}\)
B) lbh
C) s³
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{l} \mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{b}}\)
Answer:
B) lbh

Question 9.
The volume of a water tank of measuring 1.4 m × 1 m × 0.7 m is (in Lts)
A) 98
B) 9.8
C) 980
D) 9800
Answer:
C) 980

Question 10.
Volume of a cube of side ‘s’ is ……………….
A) \(\frac{3 a}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{a}{3}\)
C) 3a
D) a³
Answer:
D) a³

Question 11.
1 cm³ = …………….. mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 7
Answer:
A) 1

Question 12.
1 m³ = ………………. kilo liter
A) 6
B) 4
C) 1
D) 10
Answer:
C) 1

Question 13.
The volume of a wood measuring 20 cm × 10 cm x 8 cm is ……………….
A) 900
B) 1800
C) 1600
D) 1000
Answer:
C) 1600

Question 14.
If V = lbh then h = ……………..
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{vb}}{l}\)
B) \(\frac{l}{\mathrm{vb}}\)
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{lb}}{\mathrm{v}}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{lb}}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{lb}}\)

Question 15.
Number of formulae can be framed from the formula, V = lbh is ………………
A) 3
B) 6
C) 4
D) 9
Answer:
A) 3

Question 16.
1 Litre = ……………. cu. cm
A) 1000
B) 100
C) 10
D) 800
Answer:
A) 1000

Question 17.
If the breadth of a cuboid is half of its length and height is 2 times of its length then its volume is …………….
A) l
B) 2l
C) 10l
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 18.
No.of soaps of measuring 6 cm × 4.5 cm × 40 mm are to be inserted in a cuboidal box of measuring 1.8 m × 90 cm × 60 cm is ………………
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 9000
D) 8000
Answer:
C) 9000

Question 19.
TSA of a cuboid is ………………
A) 2h (l + b)
B) 2 (lb + bh + lh)
C) 2 lb + 2 l²
D) 2 (lb – bh) – 1
Answer:
B) 2 (lb + bh + lh)

Question 20.
The volume of a cube of edge 1 unit side is …………… cu. units.
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 21.
Area of four walls of a room is ………………
A) 2h (l + b)
B) 2 (l + b)
C) 2 (l – b)
D) 2 (a + b)
Answer:
A) 2h (l + b)

Question 22.
Number of faces of a cube is …………..
A) 7
B) 8
C) 6
D) 9
Answer:
C) 6

Question 23.
The volume of a cube is 216m³ then its edge is ……………. mts.
A) 22
B) 16
C) 9
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 24.
Diagonal of a cube is ………………
A) a√3
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{a}\)
C) 3a
D) \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
A) a√3

Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volume (Cube-Cuboid)

Question 25.
The measurements of a cuboid are 15 m length, 12 m breadth and height is 5
m then its volume is …………… cm³
A) 600
B) 500
C) 1800
D) 900
Answer:
D) 900

Question 26.
In the above problem LSA = ……………… cm²
A) 170
B) 270
C) 180
D) 200
Answer:
B) 270

Question 27.
The diagonal of a cube is \(\) cm then its edge is ……………… cm
A) 6
B) 4
C) 9
D) 2
Answer:
D) 2

Question 28.
The volume of a cuboid with sides a, b and c is v and its surface area is s then …………………
A) V = 2 s (a + b + 1)
B) V = 2 (\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\))
C) (b + c)
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{~s}}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{a}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{~b}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{c}}\right)\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{~s}}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{a}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{~b}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{c}}\right)\)

Question 29.
If the edge of a cube is doubled then its volume increases by ……………. times.
A) 9
B) 16
C) 8
D) 18
Answer:
C) 8

Question 30.
If a trench with measurements 5m × 6m × 3m is dug out then its volume is …………… m³
A) 915
B) 105
C) 165
D) 115
Answer:
B) 105

Question 31.
The base perimeter of a room is 34 m and its height is 10 m then the area of four walls of a room is …………….. m²
A) 170
B) 220
C) 140
D) 340
Answer:
D) 340

Question 32.
The ratio between the LSA and area of base of a cuboid is ………………..
A) 1 : 2
B) 2 : 1
C) 4 : 1
D) 1 : 4
Answer:
C) 4 : 1

Question 33.
TSA of a cuboid means area of ………………… faces.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 10
Answer:
B) 6

Question 34.
Two cubes of each edge ‘a’ is joined end to end then the surface area of the resultant cuboid is …………….
A) 9b²
B) 10b²
C) 18b
D) 16b²
Answer:
B) 10b²

Question 35.
Two cubes of 6 cm edges are joined end to end then the volume of the resulting figure is ……………….. cm³
A) 432
B) 430
C) 332
D) 440
Answer:
A) 432

Question 36.
Each face of a cube has a perimeter 32 cm then its side is ………………. cm
A) 12
B) 11
C) 16
D) 8
Answer:
D) 8

Question 37.
In the above problem volume is ………………… cm³
A) 635
B) 116
C) 256
D) 156
Answer:
C) 256

Question 38.
The edge of a cube is 6√2 cm then its base area is ………………. cm².
A) 79
B) 36
C) 70
D) 72
Answer:
D) 72

Question 39.
The measurements of a cuboid are 12m × 14m × 3.5m then its volume is ……………… cm³.
A) 288
B) 188
C) 588
D) 378
Answer:
C) 588

Question 40.
The measurements of a cuboid are 8500 cm × 950 mm × 15 m then its V = ……….cu.m
A) 1312.51
B) 1211.25
C) 1416.51
D) 1011.51
Answer:
B) 1211.25

Question 41.
One cube is cut in 8 equal cubes of each edge 4 cm then the volume of that small cube is …………….
A) 125 m³
B) 512 m³
C) 160 m³
D) None
Answer:
B) 512 m³

❖ Calculate the volume of the following cuboids.

Question 42.

A) 176 cm³
B) 576 cm³
C) 369 cm³
D) 345 cm³
Answer:
B) 576 cm³

Question 43.

A) 80 m³
B) 90 m³
C) 110 m³
D)120 m³
Answer:
A) 80 m³

Question 44.

A) 700 m³
B) 300 m³
C) 600 m³
D) 200 m³
Answer:
D) 200 m³

Question 45.
Identify cuboidal shape from the following:
A) Brick
B) Book
C) Match box
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 46.
A cube has edge 1.6m then its V = ……………… – m³
A) 3.875
B) 4.96
C) 3.857
D) 4.096
Answer:
D) 4.096

Question 47.
The volume of a cube is 2197 cm³ then its a = ……………… cm.
A) 13
B) 23
C) 85
D) 6
Answer:
A) 13

Question 48.
Diagonal of a cuboid is ………………..
A) l + \(\sqrt{2 b}\)
B) \(\sqrt{l^{2}+\mathrm{b}^{2}+\mathrm{h}^{2}}\)
C) \(\sqrt{l-2 b}\)
D) None
Answer:
B) \(\sqrt{l^{2}+\mathrm{b}^{2}+\mathrm{h}^{2}}\)

Question 49.
A cuboid will become a cube if ……………..
A) l < b < h
B) l > 2b = h
C) l = b = h
D) l = b > h
Answer:
C) l = b = h

Question 50.
How many bricks of measurements 25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm are required to built a wall with measurements 8m × 6m × 22.5 cm?
A) 6000
B) 6400
C) 2000
D) 8400
Answer:
B) 6400

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 13 Visualizing 3-D in 2-D on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 13th Lesson Visualizing 3-D in 2-D with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a 3 – D figure?
A) Square
B) Rectangle
C) Cone
D) Triangle
Answer:
C) Cone

Question 2.
Which of the following is a 2 -D figure?
A) Cube
B) Cuboid
C) Cylinder
D) Rectangle
Answer:
D) Rectangle

Question 3.
No. of cubes of the given figure

A) 16
B) 14
C) 12
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 4.
No. of faces of a square pyramid ……………
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 6
Answer:
B) 5

Question 5.
A polyhedron has …………. minimum no. of faces.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 6.
No. of edges of a cuboid are
A) 6
B) 10
C) 8
D) 12
Answer:
D) 12

Question 7.
No. of vertices of a cube are
A) 4
B) 8
C) 6
D) 12
Answer:
B) 8

Question 8.
No. of faces of a triangular pyramid are
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 2
Answer:
A) 4

Question 9.
A hexagonal pyramid has …………… faces.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
Answer:
C) 6

Question 10.
Which of the following is an Euler’s law ?
A) F + V = E + 2
B) F + V = E – 2
C) F – E = V – 2
D) F + E = V – 2
Answer:
A) F + V = E + 2

Question 11.
The shape of a prism depend upon its ……………..
A) Base
B) Cone
C) Vertex
D) Number
Answer:
A) Base

Question 12.
No. of faces of a pentagonal pyramid are ……………..
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 9
Answer:
B) 5

Question 13.
The net of a cube is …………….

Answer:

Question 14.
The net for a cylinder is ……………

Answer:

Question 15.
No. of edges of a figure ……………..

A) 6
B) 10
C) 12
D) 9
Answer:
D) 9

Question 16.
The Euler’s relation among no. of faces, vertices and edges is ……………
A) E + V = E
B) F + V = E + 2
C) F – V = E
D) F – V = E – 2
Answer:
B) F + V = E + 2

Question 17.
If the sides of the base of a regular pyramid are increases infinitely then the shape of its base is ……………….
A) Cylinder
B) Cone
C) Prism
D) None
Answer:
B) Cone

Question 18.
Identify cuboid among the following.

Answer:

Question 19.
Identify 3-D object from the following.
A) Sphere
B) Circle
C) Paper
D) None
Answer:
A) Sphere

Question 20.
A polygon with 4 sides is called ………………
A) Triangle
B) Quadrilateral
C) Pentagon
D) Sexagon
Answer:
B) Quadrilateral

Question 21.
Number of edges of a cuboid is …………………
A) 11
B) 10
C) 6
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 22.
The name of given figure is ………………

A) Triangular prism
B) Octagonal prism
C) Pentagonal prism
D) Quadrilateral
Answer:
B) Octagonal prism

Question 23.
The given figure indicates ……………..

A) Octagonal prism
B) Cylinder
C) Pentagonal prism
D) Triangular prism
Answer:
A) Octagonal prism

Question 24.
In the figure F = …………….
A) 6
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
Answer:
C) 5

Question 25.
In the figure V = ………….
A) 5
B) 6
C) 10
D) 4
Answer:
A) 5

Question 26.
An object with more number of faces is ……………..
A) Circle
B) Paper
C) Square
D) Sphere
Answer:
D) Sphere

Question 27.
How many cubes are there in the figure of 1 unit measure?

A) 6
B) 4
C) 12
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 28.
How many cubes are there in the figure of 1 unit measure?

A) 9
B) 14
C) 6
D) 2
Answer:
A) 9

Question 29.
How many cubes are there in the figure of 1 unit measure?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 14
D) 13
Answer:
B) 20

Question 30.
How many cubes are there in the figure of 1 unit measure ?

A) 11
B) 13
C) 14
D) 16
Answer:
C) 14

Question 31.
‘die’ is an example of ……………..
A) Triangle
B) Cube
C) Sphere
D) Pyramid
Answer:
B) Cube

Question 32.
Plasma T.V. is an example of …………….
A) Sphere
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Cuboid
Answer:
D) Cuboid

Question 33.
Kite is an example of …………. object.
A) Two dimensional
B) 3D
C) Prism
D) Sphere
Answer:
A) Two dimensional

Question 34.
In a cube f + v = …………….
A) 14
B) 16
C) 19
D) 20
Answer:
A) 14

Question 35.
In a Pentagonal Pyramid E + 2 = ………………
A) 6
B) 9
C) 18
D) 12
Answer:
D) 12

Observe the adjacent and answer the following questions:

Question 36.
No. of surfaces is …………….
A) 5
B) 6
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
A) 5

Question 37.
No. of edges is ………….
A) 12
B) 11
C) 9
D) 16
Answer:
C) 9

Question 38.
No. of vertices is ……………
A) 9
B) 6
C) 12
D) 13
Answer:
B) 6

Question 39.
Number of edges of a cylinder is ……………….
A) 11
B) 10
C) 20
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 40.
What does in the figure indicate?

A) Surface
B) Vertex
C) Eight
D) Plane
Answer:
D) Plane

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Factorisation on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 12th Lesson Factorisation with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
a² – 2ab + b² = ………………
A) (a – b)²
B) (a + b)²
C) a² – b²
D) (a + b) (a – b)
Answer:
A) (a – b)²

Question 2.
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 is a prime factorization of
A) 48
B) 72
C) 96
D) 84
Answer:
C) 96

Question 3.
Common factors of 6xy, 9y²
A) 3, y
B) 6, y²
C) 3, y²
D) 3, x, y
Answer:
A) 3, y

Question 4.
Factorise :15a³b – 35ab³
A) 5(a³b – 7ab³)
B) 5ab (3a² – 7b²)
C) 5a²b (3a² – 7b²)
D) 5ab (3a² – 7b)
Answer:
B) 5ab (3a² – 7b²)

Question 5.
Factorise : ax + ay + bx + by
A) (x + a) (y + b)
B) (x + y) (a + b)
C) (x + b) (y + a)
D) (xy + ab)
Answer:
B) (x + y) (a + b)

Question 6.
Factorisation of x² + 10x + 25
A) (x + 5) (x + 5)
B) (x + 2) (x + 5)
C) (x + 5) (x + 3)
D) (x + 4) (x + 5)
Answer:
A) (x + 5) (x + 5)

Question 7.
25p² – 49q² = ………………
A) (5p + 7q)²
B) (5p – 7q)²
C) (5p + 7q) (7q – 5p)
D) (5p + 7q) (5p – 7q)
Answer:
D) (5p + 7q) (5p – 7q)

Question 8.
(p + 4) (p – 4) (p² + 16) = …………….
A) p⁴ – 256
B) p² – 128
C) p² – 256
D) p⁸ – 256
Answer:
A) p⁴ – 256

Question 9.
x² + x (a + b) + ab = ……………….
A) (x + a) (x – b)
B) (x + a) (x + b)
C) (x – a) (x – b)
D) (x – 3) (x + b)
Answer:
B) (x + a) (x + b)

Question 10.
48a² – 243 b² = ………………
A) 3 (4a + 9b) (4a – 9b)
B) 3 (4a + 9b)
C) 3 (3a + 4b) (4a – 9b)
D) none
Answer:
A) 3 (4a + 9b) (4a – 9b)

Question 11.
Factors of m² – 4m – 21 ………………..
A) (m + 3)²
B) (m + 7) (m – 31)
C) (m – 7)²
D) (m – 7) (m + 3)
Answer:
D) (m – 7) (m + 3)

Question 12.
4x² + 20x – 96 = ……………….
A) (x + 8) (x – 3)
B) 4 (x + 8) (x – 3)
C) (x – 8) (x + 3)
D) (x – 3)²
Answer:
B) 4 (x + 8) (x – 3)

Question 13.
70 x⁴ ÷ 14 x² = ………………….
A) 5x
B) 5x^-3
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{2}}{2}\)
D) 5x²
Answer:
D) 5x²

Question 14.
(6a² + 30) ÷ (a +5) = ………
A) 6a
B) 3a
C) \(\frac{a}{3}\)
D) a
Answer:
A) 6a

Question 15.
(6x⁴ + 10x³ + 8x²) ÷ 2x² = …………….
A) 3x² – 5x + 1
B) 3x² + 5x + 4
C) x² – 5x + 11
D) x² + 5x + 1
Answer:
B) 3x² + 5x + 4

Question 16.
30 (a²bc + ab²c + abc²) ÷ 6abc = ………………
A) 5 (a + b + c)
B) 6 (a + b)
C) a + b + c
D) 3 (a – b)
Answer:
A) 5 (a + b + c)

Question 17.
x (3x² – 108) ÷ 3x (x – 6) = ……………..
A) x – 3
B) 6 + x
C) x + 6
D) 6 – x
Answer:
C) x + 6

Question 18.
(m² – 14 m – 32) ÷ (m + 2) = …………….
A) m – 3
B) m + 6
C) m – 6
D) m – 16
Answer:
D) m – 16

Question 19.
16 z² – 48 z + 36 = ……………….
A) 4 (2z – 3)²
B) (2z – 3)²
C) (4z – 3)²
D) None
Answer:
A) 4 (2z – 3)²

Question 20.
3x² + 6x²y + 9xy² = ………………
A) 3x (x – 2y)
B) 3 (2x + 3xy)
C) 3x (x + y)
D) 3x (x + 2xy + 3y²)
Answer:
D) 3x (x + 2xy + 3y²)

Question 21.
25a²b + 35ab² = ………………
A) 5ab (5a+ 7b)
B) 5ab (a – 2b)
C) 5ab (a – b)
D) 5a² b² (a – b)
Answer:
A) 5ab (5a+ 7b)

Question 22.
6ab + 12b = …………..
A) 6 (a + 2)
B) 6b (a + 2)
C) ab – 6
D) b (a – z)
Answer:
B) 6b (a + 2)

Question 23.
The prime factorization of 72 is ………………
A) 2³ × 3²
B) 3² × 2
C) 3 × 9²
D) 8 × 16²
Answer:
A) 2³ × 3²

Question 24.
0 ÷ 36 (x – 4) = ………………
A) 0
B) 6
C) 3
D) 10
Answer:
A) 0

Question 25.
(x + 3) (x + 6) = …………….
A) x² – 3x
B) x² + 9x + 18
C) x – 3x²
D) None
Answer:
B) x² + 9x + 18

Question 26.
11 xy² z³ ÷ 55 xyz = ……………..
A) \(\frac{x}{y^{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{5 z}{x}\)
C) \(\frac{y}{z}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{yz}^{2}}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{yz}^{2}}{5}\)

Question 27.
lx² + mx = ……………….
A) x² (m + x)
B) x (lx + m)
C) x + lm
D) l(x + m)
Answer:
B) x (lx + m)

Question 28.
(l – 8)² = …………
A) l² – 16l + 64
B) l – 8l +8
C) l – 16l² + 0
D) l² – 16
Answer:
A) l² – 16l + 64

Question 29.
81² – 3⁸ = ………….
A) 81
B) 16
C) 0
D) 19
Answer:
C) 0

Question 30.
x² – 2 + \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) = …………….
A) (x – \(\frac{1}{x}\))²
B) (\(\frac{1}{x}\) – 3)²
C) (3x – \(\frac{1}{x}\))²
D) None
Answer:
A) (x – \(\frac{1}{x}\))²

Question 31.
(a + b)³ – 3ab (a + b) = ……………..
A) a³ + b³
B) a³ -b³
C) a – b³
D) 3a-b
Answer:
A) a³ + b³

Question 32.
\(\frac{8.47 \times 8.47-1.53 \times 1.53}{6.94}\) = ……………
A) 16
B) 10
C) 30
D) 11
Answer:
B) 10

Question 33.
(3x – 2y)² – (3x -2y)² = …………
A) 2xy²
B) 7y²
C) 9x²
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 34.
4x + 1 is a factor of …………..
A) x² – 16
B) 16x – 3
C) 10x – 3
D) 16x² – 1
Answer:
D) 16x² – 1

Question 35.
(2a + 1) (\(\frac{1}{2 a-1}\) , –\(\frac{2}{4 a^{2}-1}\)) = ……………
A) -1
B) – 3
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
C) 1

Question 36.
x² – 7 = …………….
A) (x + 7) (x – 7)
B)(x + √7)(x – √7)
C) (x – 3) (x + 4)
D) None
Answer:
B)(x + √7)(x – √7)

Question 37.
x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 6 then x² + \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) = ………………
A) 19
B) 16
C) 34
D) 10
Answer:
C) 34

Question 38.
In the above problem x⁴ + \(\frac{1}{x^{4}}\)= ……………..
A) 1154
B) 1145
C) 1123
D) 1192
Answer:
A) 1154

Question 39.
a⁴ – 81 = …………..
A) (a – 3) (a + 3) (a² + 9)
B) (a – 3)² (a² + 1)
C) (a – 3)⁴ (a + 1)
D) None
Answer:
A) (a – 3) (a + 3) (a² + 9)

Question 40.
7a (5x – 3y) + 5b (5x – 3y) = …………..
A) (5x – 3) (7a – 5)
B) (5x-3y) (7a + 5b)
C) (5x – 3) (4x – 1)
D) (5x – y) (7x – 3)
Answer:
B) (5x-3y)(7a + 5b)

Question 41.
ar + br + at + bt = …………..
A) (r + t) (b – a)
B) (r – t) (r + a)
C) (r + t) (a +b)
D) (r – t) (a – b)
Answer:
C) (r + t) (a +b)

Question 42.
(6 + p + q)(6 – p – q) = ………….
A) 36 – p² – q² – 2pq
B) 36 – 2p + q
C) 36 – 2p -2q
D) 36 – p² – q²
Answer:
A) 36 – p² – q² – 2pq

Question 43.
9x² – 256 = ……………..
A) (3x + 16)²
B) (3x + 16)(3x – 16)
C) (3x – 6)²
D) (x – 16)(3x – 1)
Answer:
B) (3x + 16)(3x – 16)

Question 44.
(3a – b)² – 9c² = ………….
A) (3a + b) (3c – b)
B) (3a – b + 3c) (3a – b – 3c)
C) (3a – b – c)²
D) (3a – b – 3c) (a – b)
Answer:
B) (3a – b + 3c) (3a – b – 3c)

Question 45.
(8 + x) (14 – x) = …………….
A) 121 – (x – 3)²
B) 12 – (x – 3)²
C) 12 – (x – 31)²
D) 11 – (x- 12)²
Answer:
A) 121 – (x – 3)²

Question 46.
x⁴ – y⁴ = …………….
A) (x – y)² – xy
B) (x + y) (x – y²)
C) (x² + y²) (x² – y²)
D) (x + y²) (x² + y)
Answer:
C) (x² + y²) (x² – y²)

Question 47.
(4x + 51y + 1) (4x + 51y – 1) …………….
A) (4x – 5y)²
B) (4x – 5)²
C) (3x – y)²
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 48.
\(\frac{\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{y}}{\sqrt{\mathbf{x}}-\sqrt{\mathbf{y}}}\) = ……………..
A) √x + √y
B) √x – y
C) x – √y
D) 1 – y
Answer:
A) √x + √y

Question 49.
(\(\frac{3001}{6}\))² – (\(\frac{\mathbf{2 9 9 9}}{6}\))² = ………………
A) 333\(\frac {1}{3}\)
B) 343\(\frac {1}{2}\)
C) 243\(\frac {1}{2}\)
D) 712 \(\frac {1}{2}\)
Answer:
A) 333\(\frac {1}{3}\)

Question 50.
2⁴ × 3 = …………..
A) 481
B) 48
C) 78
D) 92
Answer:
B) 48

Question 51.
3 + 2 (9) = …………
A) 11
B) 21
C) 16
D) 19
Answer:
B) 21

Question 52.
2⁵ × 3 = ……………
A) 90
B) 31
C) 96
C) 69
Answer:
C) 96

Question 53.
Identify true statement from following:
A) 3 (x – 1) = 7
B) 3 (x – 4) = 3x – 3
C) (x – 1)² = 9
D) x² – 3xy
Answer:
B) 3 (x – 4) = 3x – 3

Question 54.
(x + 8) ² = x² + □ + 64
A) 6x
B) 4x
C) 16x
D) \(\frac{x}{4}\)
Answer:
C) 16x

Question 55.
(b + 1) (3a + 2) = …………..
A) 3ab – 2b + 1
B) 3ab – 2
C) 3ab + 2
D) 3ab + 3a + 2b + 2
Answer:
D) 3ab + 3a + 2b + 2

Question 56.
(a² + 5) ÷ a² + 5 = ……………
A) 4
B) 5
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
C) 1

Question 57.
Common factors of 8x, 24 are
A) 1, 2, x
B) 2, 4, x
C) 2, 4, 8
D) 8, 4, 3
Answer:
C) 2, 4, 8

Question 58.
(m – n) (m + 4) = ……………..
A) m² – n
B) m² – mn + 4m – 4n
C) m + n²
D) m² – 4mn + 1
Answer:
B) m² – mn + 4m – 4n

Question 59.
t (u + at) = …………..
A) ut + at²
B) t + at²
C) t – at²
D) ut – t²
Answer:
A) ut + at²

Question 60.
(49x – 63) ÷ 7 = …………….
A) 7x + 1
B) 7x – 9
C) x + 3
D) x – 79
Answer:
B) 7x – 9

Question 61.
x – y = ………….
A) x√y – 1
B) (√x – √y)(√x + √y)
C) (x – √y)(x – √y)
D) (√x – y)²
Answer:
B) (√x – √y)(√x + √y)

Question 62.
a² – b⁴ = …………..
A) (a – b) (a – b²)
B) (a + b) (a + 1)
C) (a – b) (a² – 1)
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 63.
(x + 2) (x² + 5) = ……………..
A) x³ + 2x² + 5x + 10
B) x³ – x² – 5x + 1
C) x³ – 7x² + 3
D) x³ – 3x + 7
Answer:
A) x³ + 2x² + 5x + 10

Question 64.
14x² ÷ 42x² = …………….
A) \(\frac{3}{x}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{x}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{x}\)
D) \(\frac{x}{3}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{x}{3}\)

Question 65.
If we divide x^2a – 1 by x^a – 1 we get ……………..
A) x – 1
B) x^a – 1
C) x + a
D) x^a + 1
Answer:
D) x^a + 1

Question 66.
If x² + \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) = 62 then x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = ……….. (x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) > 0)
A) 3
B) 8
C) 4
D) 6
Answer:
B) 8

Question 67.
x⁴ – 1 ÷ x – 3 = ……………..
A) x³ – 1
B) x + 1
C) (x – 2)²
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 68.
18 a² b² c ÷ (- 6 abc) = …………….
A) – 3ab
B) \(\frac{-a b}{c}\)
C) abc²
D) ab
Answer:
A) – 3ab

Question 69.
The degree of a polynomial is 6 and the degree of other polynomial is 2 then the degree of the sum of the both polynomials is ……………….
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 70.
(9x² – 12x – 12) ÷ (3x + 2) = ……………..
A) 3x + 1
B) 3x – 6
C) 6x – 1
D) 6x – 3
Answer:
B) 3x – 6

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 20 Democracy: An Evolving Idea on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 20th Lesson Democracy: An Evolving Idea with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In Libya the ultimate power lay with the …………..
A) RCC
B) NCC
C) NSS
D) RSS
Answer:
A) RCC

Question 2.
The elected government functionaries are answerable to the ……………
A) PM
B) People
C) President
D) Judiciary
Answer:
B) People

Question 3.
USA allowed white woman to vote in …………..
A) 1900
B) 1940
C) 1920
D) 1965
Answer:
C) 1920

Question 4.
The first large country to be given universal voting rights was the …………..
A) USA
B) Sweden
C) Germany
D) USSR
Answer:
D) USSR

Question 5.
“In the much publicised elections for the President of USA in 2012 more than 40% people did not vote at all”
A) Inactive participation of citizen
B) That they have no voting right
C) That they don’t like the contestants
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Inactive participation of citizen

Question 6.
Restriction on civil liberties helps ………… to remain in power.
A) leaders
B) governments
C) judiciary
D) all the above
Answer:
B) governments

Question 7.
True democracy cannot be attained unless there is social and economic equality along with ………… equality.
A) religious
B) gender
C) political
D) all the above
Answer:
C) political

Question 8.
All ……………. governments need to abide by laws.
A) monarchial
B) dictatorial
C) oligarchial
D) democratic
Answer:
D) democratic

Question 9.
Democracies have successfully eliminated
A) conflicts among people
B) economic inequalities
C) idea of political inequality
D) differences of opinion about how marginalized sections are to be treated
Answer:
C) idea of political inequality

Question 10.
Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
A) Invasion by foreign countries
B) People’s desire for freedom
C) Struggle by the people
D) End of colonialism
Answer:
D) End of colonialism

Question 11.
A democratic government is a …………. government.
A) powerful
B) fruitful
C) repressive
D) legitimate
Answer:
D) legitimate

Question 12.
What is the most basic outcome of democracy?
A) Singnicant decision making
B) Powerful repressive governance
C) Accountability of the citizens
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Accountability of the citizens

Question 13.
A democracy is alternative to the needs of ……..
A) men
B) women
C) all people
D) illiterates
Answer:
C) all people

Question 14.
Most societies across the world were historically ………… dominated societies.
A) female ( )
B) male and female
C) male
D) all the above
Answer:
C) male

Question 15.
Democracy means a system get the power from the people and have ………….. to the people.
A) Answerable
B) Rigid
C) Flexible
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Answerable

Question 16.
In South of India, Sri Lanka is an Nation
A) Island
B) Peninsular
C) Enemy
D) Friendly
Answer:
A) Island

Question 17.
In Libya that ultimate power lay with
A) Command council
B) NLD
C) RCC
D) LDE
Answer:
C) RCC

Question 18.
The meaning of people’s rule means
A) Representatives
B) Soldiers
C) Citizens
D) All people who are adults
Answer:
D) All people who are adults

Question 19.
In USA ………… % of people did not vote in 2012 elections.
A) 60%
B) 10%
C) 40%
D) 20%
Answer:
C) 40%

Question 20.
…………. is the best form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.
A) Socialism
B) Communism
C) Democracy
D) Dictatorship
Answer:
C) Democracy

Question 21.
How many members were elected to National people’s congress in China?
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 1500
D) 3000
Answer:
D) 3000

Question 22.
Which of these party is in power in Mexico?
A) IRP
B) NMP
C) ANP
D) None of these
Answer:
A) IRP

Question 23.
Which of these party is in power in Zimbabwe?
A) National Zimbabwe
B) Zanu – PF
C) National Herald
D) National Awami
Answer:
B) Zanu – PF

Question 24.
Which neighbouring country of India followed the Mazaritarianism?
A) Pakistan
B) China
C) Sri Lanka
D) Nepal
Answer:
C) Sri Lanka

Question 25.
Which of the following country is given importance to people’s feelings and interests.
A) Austria
B) Germany
C) France
D) Belgium
Answer:
D) Belgium

Question 26.
In Sri Lanka many families were forced to leave the country as
A) foreigners
B) refugees
C) slaves
D) none of these
Answer:
B) refugees

Question 27.
Which of the following country is allowed to contest in elections only one or two parties?
A) Pakistan
B) Mynmar
C) Sri Lanka
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
B) Mynmar

Question 28.
What is the speciality of Democracy?
A) Laws
B) Scams
C) Elections
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Elections

Question 29.
Political equality means
A) Backwardness
B) Right to vote
C) Economic status
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Right to vote

Question 30.
In Fijji, only from the year ……….. elections an equal right to vote is been implemented
A) 2011
B) 2010
C) 2012
D) 2013
Answer:
D) 2013

Question 31.
At the beginning Right to Vote was given only to ……….
A) Rich people
B) Poor people
C) Women
D) All
Answer:
A) Rich people

Question 32.
How many years only one party ruled in Russia
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 60
Answer:
D) 60

Question 33.
In China before contesting elections a candidate needs the approval of
A) Chinese Communist party
B) Chinese People’s party
C) Chinese Revolutionary party
D) Chinese Labour party
Answer:
A) Chinese Communist party

Question 34.
In which of the following country TV and Radio are under the control of government
A) India
B) Zimbabwe
C) China
D) Srilanka
Answer:
B) Zimbabwe

Question 35.
Some of the members of China are elected by
A) Labourers
B) Army
C) Revolutionaries
D) Govt, officials
Answer:
B) Army

Question 36.
In which of the following country teachers are forced the parents vote for party?
A) ZANU – PF
B) INC-India
C) C.C.P – China
D) IRP-Mexico
Answer:
D) IRP-Mexico

USA allowed white woman to vote only in 1920. The discriminations against voting by Black citizens were removed only in 1965. The first nation to allow voting rights for all groups of people was New Zealand in 1893. The first large country to give universal voting rights was the USSR after the Russian Revolu-tion in 1917.
In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian-Fijian. Only from the year 2013 elections an equal right to vote is being implemented.
Read the given paragraph and answer the questions given blow.
Question 37.
…………… in which year USA allowed white women to vote?
A) 1920
B) 1918
C) 1914
D) 1917
Answer:
A) 1920

Question 38.
Name the first nation to allow voting rights for all groups of people
A) South Africa
B) Newzealand
C) Manchuria
D) Fiji
Answer:
B) Newzealand

Question 39.
In which year Fiji implemented equal voting value?
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2013
D) 2012
Answer:
C) 2013

Question 40.
In which year Russia granted Universal Adult franchise?
A) 1919
B) 1918
C) 1917
D) 1922
Answer:
C) 1917

Observe the table and answer questions that follow.

Question 41.
Which country has least difference?
A) USA
B) Hungary
C) Denmark
D) Brazil
Answer:
B) Hungary

Question 42.
What is the difference in USA?
A) 46
B) 36
C) 26
D) 9
Answer:
A) 46

Question 43.
Which country has more inequality
A) India
B) South Africa
C) Hungary
D) Denmark
Answer:
B) South Africa

Study the map and answer the following questions.

Question 44.
Which country fight against LTTE?
A) India
B) England
C) SriLanka
D) America
Answer:
C) SriLanka

Question 45.
Brussels is the capital of
A) Belgium
B) Netherlands
C) Italy
D) Angola
Answer:
A) Belgium

Question 46.
Socialist Revolution was held in
A) USA
B) England
C) Russia
D) France
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 47.
Match the following:
Group – A — Group – B
1. RCC — A) Inclusive
2. After Russian Revolution in 1917 — B) Libya
3. One party rule — C) Europe
4. Majoritarian — D) USSR
5. Belgium — E) Universal voting right
Answer:
1) B
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) C

Question 48.
Studies on political and social in equalities in democracy show that:
A) Democracy and development go together
B) In equalities exist in democracies.
C) In equalities do not exist under dictatorship
D) Dictatorship is betterthan democracy?
Answer:
B) In equalities exist in democracies.

Question 49.
The new constitution of Sri Lanka gave the foremost place to which religion?
A) Hinduism
B) Islam
C) Buddhism
D) Christianity
Answer:
C) Buddhism

Question 50.
In which year Soviet Union was broke up?
A) 1917
B) 1991
C) 1919
D) 1971
Answer:
B) 1991

Question 51.
The first nation to allow voting rights for all groups
A) Soviet Russia
B) United States of America
C) England
D) Newzealand
Answer:
D) Newzealand

Question 52.
Which of these is the largest and most populous democratic country in the world?
A) China
B) India
C) Indonesia
D) USA
Answer:
B) India

Question 53.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
1) 1917 – a) Establishment of Communist Party of India
2) 1920 – b) Right to vote to British women
3) 1918 – c) Boishevick revolution is Russia
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

Question 54.
Present Prime Minister of India is
A) Ramanath Kovind
B) Chandrababu Naidu
C) Vekaiah Naidu
D) Narendra Modi
Answer:
D) Narendra Modi

Question 55.
For how many years ‘The right to vote’ was given in India?
A) 18
B) 21
C) 20
D) 19
Answer:
A) 18

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Algebraic Expressions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 11th Lesson Algebraic Expressions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a monomial?
A) 2x + 3
B) \(\frac{-3}{4}\) xy
C) cx² + dx + e
D) \(\frac{5}{7}\)x – \(\frac{2}{3}\)y
Answer:
B) \(\frac{-3}{4}\) xy

Question 2.
The degree of 4xy² z³
A) 4
C) 6
B) 2
D) 3
Answer:
C) 6

Question 3.
The degree of 3x² – 5 + 7x³ – 6x⁵
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) -6
Answer:
A) 5

Question 4.
If A = 5x² + 3xy + 2y², B = – 2y2 – 3xy + 4x² then A + B = ………………..
A) 9x² + 6xy
B) 4y²
C) x² + 4y² + 6xy
D) 9x²
Answer:
D) 9x²

Question 5.
Which of the following is a group of like terms?
A) 2t, \(\frac{5 t}{2}, \frac{-6 s}{7}\)
B) x , 2x², – 7x, 8x³
C) 6p, – 7p, \(\frac{5}{2}\) p
D) 2y, \(\frac{-7}{3}\)x, 5t
Answer:
C) 6p, – 7p, \(\frac{5}{2}\) p

Question 6.
5x × (-3y) =
A) – 15xy
B) – 15x²y
C) 15xy
D) 2xy
Answer:
A) – 15xy

Question 7.
The product of 5x, 6y and 7z
A) 210 (x + y + z)
B) 210 xyz
C) 18 xyz
D) 18 (x + y + z)
Answer:
B) 210 xyz

Question 8.
(a + b)² – (a – b)² =
A) 2(a² + b²)
B) a² + b²
C) 4ab
D) 0
Answer:
C) 4ab

Question 9.
The formula involved in the product of 302 × 298
A) (a + b)²
B) (a – b)²
C) (a + b) (a – b)
D) None
Answer:
C) (a + b) (a – b)

Question 10.
(3m – 2n²) × (- 7 mn) …………………
A) – 21 m² n + 14 mn³
B) 21 m² n – 14 m²
C) – 21 mn² + 14 m³ n
D) 21 m² – 4 mn³
Answer:
A) – 21 m² n + 14 mn³

Question 11.
5x (6y + 3) = …………………..
A) 30x + 15
B) 30x – 15y
C) 3x + 15 y
D) 30xy + 15x
Answer:
D) 30xy + 15x

Question 12.
The product of two monomials is a …………………….
A) Binomial
B) Monomial
C) 0
D) 4
Answer:
B) Monomial

Question 13.
(5x + 6y) (3x – 2y) = ……………………
A) 8x² – 8 xy
B) 15x² + 3xy
C) 15x² – xy
D) 15x² + 8xy – 12y²
Answer:
D) 15x² + 8xy – 12y²

Question 14.
No. of terms in the product of a binomial and a trinomial are …………………
A) 10
B) 9
C) 6
D) 7
Answer:
C) 6

Question 15.
(a + b)² = ………………
A) a² + b²
B) a² – b²
C) 7
D) a² + 2ab + b²
Answer:
D) a² + 2ab + b²

Question 16.
The symbol used for an equation identity is ……………….

C) ≡
D) =
Answer:
C) ≡

Question 17.
(a + b) (a – b) = ………………..
A) a² – b
B) b² – a²
C) a² – b²
D) a – b²
Answer:
C) a² – b²

Question 18.
(a – b)² = ……………..
A) a² – 2ab + b
B) a² – ab + b²
C) a² – 2a + b²
D) a² – 2ab + b²
Answer:
D) a² – 2ab + b²

Question 19.
(x + a) (x + b) = …………………
A) x² + (a + b) x + ab
B) x² – (a-b) x – ab
C) x² – ab
D) x + ab
Answer:
A) x² + (a + b) x + ab

Question 20.
If the equation is true for all values of the variables then it is called an ………………..
A) Equation
B) identity
C) Product
D) None
Answer:
B) identity

Question 21.
The formula used in the product of 96 × 104 is ……………….
A) (a + b) (a – b)
B)(a – b)²
C) (a – b)²
D) a² – b
Answer:
A) (a + b) (a – b)

Question 22.
The formula used in the product of 196² is …………………..
A) (a + b)²
B) (a – b)²
C) a² – b
D) a – b²
Answer:
B) (a – b)²

Question 23.
987² – 13² = ………………….
A) 9,74,000
B) 79,400
C) 14,000
D) 14,009
Answer:
A) 9,74,000

Question 24.
(4x + 5y) (4x – 5y) = ……………………..
A) x² – 16y²
B) 16x² – y²
C) 16x – 25
D) 16x² – 25y²
Answer:
D) 16x² – 25y²

Question 25.
(a – b)² – (a-b)² = ……………….
A) 2ab
B) 0
C) ab
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{ab}}{2}\)
Answer:
B) 0

Question 26.
a² + b² = ……………………
A) (a + b)² – 2ab
B) a² – b²
G) (a – b)² + 4ab
D) None
Answer:
A) (a + b)² – 2ab

Question 27.
(a – b)² + 4ab = ………………
A) (a – b)³
B) (a – b)²
C) (a + b)²
D) a² – b
Answer:
C) (a + b)²

Question 28.
(a – b)² – (a + b)² = ………………
A) 2a² + b²
B) 0
C) 4ab
D) – 4ab
Answer:
D) – 4ab

Question 29.
Degree of 3x² y² z³ is …………………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 7
D) 3
Answer:
C) 7

Question 30.
The value of 2x³ – 2x² + 1 at x = 1 is ………………
A) 4
B) -1
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 31.
a (a² – b²) = ………………
A) a³ – b² a
B) a – b²
C) a³ – b²
D) a – b³
Answer:
A) a³ – b² a

Question 32.
a (a-b) + b (b-c) + c (c – a) = ………………..
A) 0
B) a² – b²
C) a² + b²
D) a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca
Answer:
D) a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca

Question 33.
83 × 77 = …………………
A) 3691
B) 6391
C) 6091
D) 1391
Answer:
B) 6391

Question 34.
304² = …………………….
A) 82,416
B) 92,416
C) 82,466
D) 93,416
Answer:
B) 92,416

Question 35.
(m + n) (m – n) = ………………….
A) m – n²
B) m² – n
C) m – n
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 36.
9k² + 24 kl + 16 l² = ………………
A) (9 k + 3l)²
B) (3k + 4l) (3k + 4l)
C) (3 k – 4l)²
D) None
Answer:
B) (3k + 4l) (3k + 4l)

Question 37.
abc × a²bc = ………………….
A) a²b²c²
B) abc²
C) a³b²c²
D) ab²c
Answer:
C) a³b²c²

Question 38.
(P + q) (P² – pq + q²) = ………………..
A) p³ + q
B) p – q²
C) p² + q²
D) p³ + q³
Answer:
D) p³ + q³

Question 39.
m³ + m² n – n² m – n³ = ………………..
A) (m² – n²) (m + n)
B) (m – n) (m² + n²)
C) (m + n) (m – 1)
D) None
Answer:
A) (m² – n²) (m + n)

Question 40.
– 5 p² × – 2p = ………………
A) 10p³
B) 10p
C) – 10p³
D) – 8p³
Answer:
A) 10p³

Question 41.
92² – 8² = ………………..
A) 1400
B) 1000
C) 8400
D) 8500
Answer:
C) 8400

Question 42.
I = ………………..
A) \(\frac{\text { PTR }}{100}\)
B) \(\frac{P}{100 \mathrm{TR}}\)
C) \(\frac{100 \mathrm{~T}}{\mathrm{PR}}\)
D) \(\frac{100 \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{PR}}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\text { PTR }}{100}\)

Question 43.
106 × 94 = ……………..
A) 9864
B) 9964
C) 9800
D) 9364
Answer:
B) 9964

Question 44.
– 3x² + 3x² – 5x² – x² = …………….
A) x²
B) – 6x²
C) 3x²
D) 6x²
Answer:
B) – 6x²

Question 45.
Identify like terms.
A) 3x², 2x², – x²
B) xy, xy², – 3y²
C) pq, pq², \(\frac {1}{2}\)pq
D) 8x², 9y², 2pq
Answer:
A) 3x², 2x², – x²

Question 46.
(a + b)² – (a – b)² = ……………….
A) 2ab
B) 2bc
C) 4a²
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 47.
The value of 3x + 5 at x = 1 is …………………..
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
B) 8

Question 48.
If a = 1, b = 2 then (a – b)² = ………………..
A) – 1
B) 1
C) – 2
D) 3
Answer:
B) 1

Question 49.
At x = \(\frac {1}{2}\) the value of 2x – 1 is ……………….
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
C) 2
Answer:
B) 0

Question 50.
P = xy, Q = yz, R = zx then PQR = …………………
A) x² y² z²
B) xy² z²
C) xy z
D) \(\frac{x^{2} y^{2}}{z^{2}}\)
Answer:
A) x² y² z²

Question 51.
(5x² – 6x + 9) (2x – 3) = ………………
A) 10x³ – 7x² + 3x
B) 10x³ – 7x² + x + 1
C) 10x³ – 27x² + 7
D) 10x³ – 27x² + 36x – 27
Answer:
D) 10x³ – 27x² + 36x – 27

Question 52.
(3x + 5y) (5x – 7y) = ……………………
A) 15x² – 3y²
B) 15x² + 4xy – 35y²
C) 15x² – 4xy
D) 15x – 13xy²
Answer:
B) 15x² + 4xy – 35y²

Question 53.
Additive Inverse of 6x² – 4x – 1 is ……………….
A) x² – 6x + 1
B) – 6x² + 4x – 3
C) x² – 3x + 7
D) – 6x² + 4x + 1
Answer:
D) – 6x² + 4x + 1

Question 54.
2x² + 5x – 1 + 8x + x² + 7 – 6x + 3 – 3x² = ……………
A) 7x + 9
B) x – 7
C) x – 9
D) x + 3
Answer:
A) 7x + 9

Question 55.
2a + b – (a – b) = ………………..
A) a – b
B) 2a – 2b
C) a + 2b
D) a – 2b
Answer:
C) a + 2b

Question 56.
Degree of zero is ………………..
A) 0
B) -1
C) 3
D) not defined
Answer:
D) not defined

Question 57.
Degree of constant is ………………
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) -1
Answer:
A) 0

Question 58.
(3x² – 7x + 1) (4x – 4x) = ………………
A) 4x³ – x² + 11
B) 0
C) 3x³ – 7x + 1
D) None
Answer:
B) 0

Question 59.
(X – 1) (x + 1) = ………………
A) x² + 1
B) x² – 1
C) x – 1
D) x + 3
Answer:
B) x² – 1

Question 60.
Number of terms in a trinomial is ………………..
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 61.
(√a + √b)(√a – √b) = ………………….
A) a – b²
B) a – b
C) a² – b
D) a + b
Answer:
B) a – b

Question 62.
\(\left(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{3}+\frac{\mathbf{b}}{5}\right)\left(\frac{\mathbf{a}}{3}-\frac{\mathbf{b}}{5}\right)\) = ……………….
A) \(\frac{a^{2}}{9}+\frac{b}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{a}^{2}}{9}\) – 1
C) \(\frac{a^{2}}{9}-\frac{b^{2}}{25}\)
D) \(\frac{2 a}{3}-\frac{b}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{a^{2}}{9}-\frac{b^{2}}{25}\)

Question 63.
Number of terms in ax² + bx + c is ……………….
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1
Answer:
B) 3

Question 64.
(a – b) (a² + ab + b²) = ……………
A) a³ – b
B) a – b³
C) a² – b²
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 65.
(x + 3) (x + 2) =
A) x² + 5x + 6
B) x² – 5x – 6
C) x² – 3x + 6
D) None
Answer:
A) x² + 5x + 6

Question 66.
9x² – y² = ………………
A) (3x + y) (3x – y)
B) (3x – 1) (3x – y)
C) (3x – y)(3x – 3)
D) None
Answer:
A) (3x + y) (3x – y)

Question 67.
\(\frac{4 a^{2},-1}{2 a+1}\) = ……………..
A) a – 1
B) a +1
C) 2a
D) 2a – 1
Answer:
D) 2a – 1

Question 68.
(3x² – 7x + 9) ÷ 0
A) 0
B) 3x² – 9
C) 9x
D) Not defined
Answer:
D) Not defined

Question 69.
m³ (m – 2) + 2m² (m + 3) – 6m (m – 4) = ………………..
A) m – 24m²
B) m² + 24m
C) m² + 2m
D) m + 4m²
Answer:
B) m² + 24m

Question 70.
Cube of (a + 1) is = …………………
A) a² + 1
B) a + 2a + 1
C) a + 3a + 3
D) 3a – 3
Answer:
C) a + 3a + 3

Question 71.
(99)² = ……………..
A) 1145
B) 8900
C) 9800
D) 9801
Answer:
D) 9801

Question 72.
9.8 × 10.2 = ……………….
A) 39.55
B) 91.99
C) 99.96
D) 96.99
Answer:
C) 99.96

Question 73.
(84)² – (16)² = …………..
A) 3600
B) 6100
C) 6800
D) 6900
Answer:
C) 6800

Question 74.
1010 × 990 = ………………..
A) 999900
B) 99099
C) 99000
D) 98900
Answer:
A) 999900

Question 75.
(705)² – (295)² = ………………
A) 23000
B) 13000
C) 140000
D) 410000
Answer:
D) 410000

Question 76.
(x + 1) (x – 1) (x² + 1) = ……………..
A) x⁴ – 1
B) x² – 1
C) 4x – 1
D) x + 1
Answer:
A) x⁴ – 1

Question 77.
8x = (52)² – (48)² then x = ………………..
A) 12
B) 50
C) 9
D) 26
Answer:
B) 50

Question 78.
13x = (85)² – (84)² then x = ……………….
A) 16
B) 11
C) 13
D) 10
Answer:
C) 13

Question 79.
(11 + x)(11 – x) = ……………….
A) 121 – x²
B) 121 – x
C) 12 – x³
D) 3x – 4
Answer:
A) 121 – x²

Question 80.
11³ = …………………
A) 1221
B) 1331
C) 1441
D) 1113
Answer:
B) 1331

Question 81.
(x + \(\frac{1}{x}\))² = ………………….
A) x + \(\frac{1}{2 x}\)
B) x – \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)
C) 3x – \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)
D) x² + 2 + \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)
Answer:
D) x² + 2 + \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}^{2}}\)

Question 82.
(7xy – 1) (7xy + 1) = ………………….
A) 49x² y² – 1
B) 49xy- 1
C) 49xy² – 1
D) 9xy -1
Answer:
A) 49x² y² – 1

Question 83.
The product of two positive numbers is ………………….
A) 0
B) -1
C) Negative
D) Positive
Answer:
D) Positive

Question 84.
3x²y × 4xy² × 7x³y³ = ……………. …………………
A) 84x⁶y⁶
B) 48y⁶
C) 41xy⁶
D) 40x⁶y⁶
Answer:
A) 84x⁶y⁶

Question 85.
The sum of all exponents of variables in a monomial is called ……………… of the
monomial.
A) Expression
B) Degree
C) Like
D) None
Answer:
B) Degree

Question 86.
Degree of the trinomial 3xy + 4y – 8 is ……………..
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) – 8
Answer:
A) 2

Question 87.
5x × 6y × 7z =
A) 2xy
B) 105xy
C) 120x
D) 210xy
Answer:
D) 210xy

Question 88.
In a cuboid l = 2x, b = 3y, h = 4z then volume, v = ………………….
A) 3xyz
B) 2xy
C) 4xyz
D) 24xyz
Answer:
D) 24xyz

Question 89.
The property used in a(b + c) = ab + ac is ………………..
A) Identity
B) Distributive
C) Commutative
D) None
Answer:
B) Distributive

Question 90.
How many terms are there in the product of a binomial and trinomial ?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 9
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 91.
a(a + 1) = 6 then a = ………………..
A) 2
B) – 3
C) A&B
D) None
Answer:
C) A&B

Question 92.
a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca = ……………….
A) (a + b + c)²
B) (a – b – c)²
C) (2a – b – c)²
D) (a – b)²
Answer:
A) (a + b + c)²

Question 93.
196² – (194 + 2)² = ………………
A) 16
B) 19
C) 10
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 94.
9672 = …………………
A) 93 × 004
B) 93 × 102
C) 83 × 104
D) 93 × 107
Answer:
A) 93 × 004

Question 95.
The area of adjacent square is …………………

A) 2a⁴
B) 2a²
C) (\(\frac{a}{2}\))²
D) 4a²
Answer:
D) 4a²

Question 96.
a (a – b) + b (a – b) = ………………..
A) a² – b
B) a² – b²
C) a – b²
D) \(\frac{a}{2}\) – b
Answer:
B) a² – b²

Question 97.
a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b) is a ……………….
A) Identity
B) Area
C) Place
D) None
Answer:
A) Identity

Question 98.
(x + a) (x – b) = ………………….=
A) x² + ax – bx – ab
B) x² + (a + b) x – ab
C) x² – ax – ab
D) None
Answer:
A) x² + ax – bx – ab

Question 99.
101² – 101² = ……………..
A) 101
B) 202
C) 0
D) 401
Answer:
C) 0

Question 100.
a = 13, b = 12 then a² – b² = ……………….
A) 16
B) 10
C) 25
D) 12
Answer:
C) 25

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 19 Expansion of Democracy on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Expansion of Democracy with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The famous “Arab Spring” occurred in
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2012
D) 2002
Answer:
A) 2010

Question 2.
The leader of Myanmar’s ethnic group
A) Aung San
B) Ne Win
C) Idris
D) Gaddafi
Answer:
A) Aung San

Question 3.
…………… took over the charge of Libya in 1969.
A) Idris
B) Ne Win
C) Gaddafi
D) Suu Kyi
Answer:
C) Gaddafi

Question 4.
………… was the party established by Suu Kyi.
A) MLD
B) RCC
C) CPI
D) None
Answer:
A) MLD

Question 5.
In ………….. military dictatorship and democratic rule kept coming in cycles.
A) Burma
B) Pakistan
C) India
D) Belgium
Answer:
B) Pakistan

Question 6.
In …………… USSR broke up as people demanded democracy.
A) 1900
B) 1917
C) 1947
D) 1991
Answer:
D) 1991

Question 7.
…………… believed in the dictatorship of proletariat.
A) Capitalists
B) Communists
C) Democratics
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Communists

Question 8.
Arab Spring began in …………, a small country.
A) Egypt
B) Libya
C) Tunisia
D) Yemen
Answer:
C) Tunisia

Question 9.
The old name of Mynmar was
A) Thailand
B) Pakistan
C) Bangladesh
D) Burma
Answer:
D) Burma

Question 10.
Who was the leader of Burman group?
A) Abdul Rehman
B) Aung San
C) Rasud
D) Vakeel
Answer:
B) Aung San

Question 11.
Burma got Independence in
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1952
Answer:
A) 1947

Question 12.
Like India, Burma was a colony of
A) Dutch
B) Portuguese
C) Britain
D) French
Answer:
C) Britain

Question 13.
Who was the Burman President in 2010?
A) Rehman
B) Abdul Nasser
C) Sheik Haseena
D) Thein Sein
Answer:
D) Thein Sein

Question 14.
…………. Rule was abolished in Burma in 2010
A) Kings
B) Dictatorship
C) Military Junta
D) Democratic
Answer:
C) Military Junta

Question 15.
Communism was established in the world in ………… century.
A) 19th
B) 20th
C) 18th
D) 17th
Answer:
B) 20th

Question 16.
Suu Kyi was awarded Nobel Prize for peace in ………..
A) 1991
B) 2000
C) 1985
D) 1995
Answer:
A) 1991

Question 17.
Aung San Suu Kyi’s father Aung sain was a ……….
A) government official
B) king
C) dictator
D) Burman ethnic group leader
Answer:
D) Burman ethnic group leader

Question 18.
Which of these fight against military rule in Burma?
A) Abdul Rehman
B) Aung san Suu Kyi
C) Haseena
D) Rasud
Answer:
B) Aung san Suu Kyi

Question 19.
Which country started the revolt for Democracy in Arab world?
A) Egypt
B) Pakistan
C) Oman
D) Dubai
Answer:
A) Egypt

Question 20.
In which year elections were held in Burma as per democracy?
A) 1990
B) 2011
C) 1991
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 2011

Question 21.
Libya got independence in
A) 1951
B) 1945
C) 1988
D) 1960
Answer:
A) 1951

Question 22.
In democratic elections which party won in Burma?
A) National Army
B) Awami League
C) National League for democracy
D) Burma National party
Answer:
C) National League for democracy

Question 23.
After Britain, became democracy in Europe.
A) Netherlands
B) Spain
C) France
D) Italy
Answer:
D) Italy

Question 24.
Which is the poorest country in North Africa?
A) Equador
B) Egypt
C) Ghana
D) Libya
Answer:
D) Libya

Question 25.
Who announced Libya is a “no fly zone”?
A) UNO
B) WHO
C) UNICEF
D) IBRD
Answer:
A) UNO

Question 26.
Who came to power in 1969 in Libya?
A) Gadaffi
B) Rehman
C) Army
D) People
Answer:
A) Gadaffi

Question 27.
In Libya, the average life expectation increase from under ………… years.
A) 50-75
B) 50-77
C) 50-65
D) 50-67
Answer:
B) 50-77

Question 28.
In Libya there is no chance for
A) Soldiers
B) Political parties
C) Government
D) Hospitals
Answer:
B) Political parties

Question 29.
The revolutions in 2010 in Arab world is called as
A) Arab spring
B) Arab struggle
C) Hizra
D) Government formation
Answer:
A) Arab spring

Question 30.
Under whose observation in Burma elections were held in democratic way?
A) League of Nations
B) U.N.O
C) NLD
D) Awamy League
Answer:
B) U.N.O

Question 31.
Which of the following country became a communist in 1949?
A) Prussia
B) China
C) France
D) America
Answer:
B) China

Question 32.
Which of the following country in Europe established a parliamentary democracy?
A) Denmark
B) Austria
C) Poland
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Poland

Question 33.
Which of the following country supported to Libian revolutionaries?
A) Britain
B) France
C) Germany
D) America
Answer:
D) America

Question 34.
After Gaddafi in Libya, new government was formed by
A) Colnel Robert
B) Abbas
C) General Nuwin
D) None
Answer:
C) General Nuwin

Question 35.
Who abolished the freedom of press in Libya?
A) Colnel Gaddafi
B) Rehman
C) Idris
D) Arshad
Answer:
A) Colnel Gaddafi

Question 36.
How many seats were occupied by Aung San party in 2011 elections?
A) 73
B) 63
C) 53
D) 43
Answer:
D) 43

Question 37.
Who worked for peace in Libya?
A) Hasan
B) Colnel Gaddafi
C) Rehman
D) Idris
Answer:
D) Idris

Question 38.
Libya became the richest country in the production of
A) Rawmaterial
B) Rubber
C) Oil resources
D) Crops
Answer:
C) Oil resources

Question 39.
Which city is the centre of violent incidents in Libya?
A) Benghazi
B) Swan
C) Arova
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Benghazi

Question 40.
Who were the main revolutionaries in Libya?
A) Labourers
B) Kings
C) Lawyers
D) Common people
Answer:
C) Lawyers

Libya was a poor country of North Africa which had been colonised by Italy and became free after a long struggle in 1951. When it became independent, Italy transferred power to King Idris who ruled the country with the help of a few rich and powerful families.
The people mostly belonged to different tribes which depended upon agriculture and animal rearing in the deserts. In 1959 vast reserves of petroleum were found in Libya and a lot of wealth poured into the country from the sale of oil.
Read the paragraph and answer the Question that follow.
Question 41.
Who granted Independence to Libya?
A) England
B) France
C) Italy
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Italy

Question 42.
In which year petroleum reserves are found?
A) 1960
B) 1959
C) 1961
D) 1958
Answer:
B) 1959

Question 43.
The main occupation of people of Libya is
A) Hunting
B) Weaving
C) Fishing
D) Agriculture
Answer:
D) Agriculture

Question 44.
To which part of Afria, Libya belongs?
A) East of Africa
B) North of Africa
C) West of Africa
D) South of Africa
Answer:
B) North of Africa

Study the table and answer the questions given below.

Question 45.
Who was the dictator of Libya?
A) Gaddafi
B) Aung San
C) Pedro
D) Newin
Answer:
A) Gaddafi

Question 46.
Aung San was died in
A) 1947
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1951
Answer:
B) 1948

Question 47.
The old name of Myanmar
A) Sayam
B) Prussia
C) Burma
D) Afghan
Answer:
C) Burma

Question 48.
The President of Mexico is elected by the people for the term of years.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer:
C) 6

Observe the map given above and answer the questions given below.

Question 49.
In 1900 there was no Democratic Government in ……………. country,
A) India
B) USA
C) England
D) Norway
Answer:
A) India

Question 50.
In 1900 ………… country was under democratic government.
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) Chile
Answer:
D) Chile

Question 51.
The nation which was not influenced by ‘Arab Spring’:
A) Egpyt
B) Libya
C) Syria
D) North Korea
Answer:
A) Egpyt

Question 52.
State any Democratic country in South America in 1900
A) Chile
B) France
C) India
D) Egypt
Answer:
A) Chile

Question 53.
State any Non Democratic country in Asia in 1900
A) Spain
B) Norway
C) China
D) U.S.A.
Answer:
C) China

Observe the above Map and answer the following questions (54-57)

Question 54.
Which is the largest democratic country in Asia?
A) Russia
B) India
C) China
D) Japan
Answer:
B) India

Question 55.
A democratic country in Africa
A) Somalia
B) Mangolia
C) Ethopia
D) South Africa
Answer:
D) South Africa

Question 56.
Which continent have less democratic countries?
A) Australia
B) North America
C) South America
D) Africa
Answer:
D) Africa

Question 57.
A democratic country in Europe
A) India
B) United States of America
C) Egypt
D) England
Answer:
D) England

Question 58.
Elected leaders or representatives do the day-to-day work of governing the country; they consider the issue, work to find solutions and pass laws and do all of the other things necessary to keep a country going. Citizens hold the ultimate power though because if they don’t like what the representatives are doing, they can vote in new ones. Name the form of government described above.
A) Direct Democracy
B) Autocracy
C) Dictatorship
D) Representative democracy
Answer:
D) Representative democracy

Question 59.
Which of the following freedoms is NOT available to an Indian citizen?
A) Freedom to criticize the government
B) Freedom to participate in the arrived revolution
C) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
D) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution
Answer:
D) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Question 60.
Which of the following best describes a democracy?
A) A government run by the people
B) A government run by a single person
C) A government run by a powerful corporation
D) A government run by a small group of people
Answer:
A) A government run by the people

Question 61.
According to your opinion, people can freely express their opinions in this Government:
A) Feudalism
B) Democracy
C) Dictatorship
D) Monarchy
Answer:
B) Democracy

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Direct and Inverse Proportions on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 10th Lesson Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
If x is directly proportional to y then which of the following is correct ?
A) x ∝ \(\frac{1}{y}\)
B) xy = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{k}}\)
C) \(\frac{x}{y}\) = k
D) x = y
Answer:
C) \(\frac{x}{y}\) = k

Question 2.
If x is inversely proportional to y then which of the following is true?
A) xy = k
B) \(\frac{x}{y}\) = k
C) \(\frac{1}{x}=\frac{1}{y}\)
D) xy = x + y
Answer:
A) xy = k

Question 3.
If the cost of 65 packets of tea is ₹ 2600, then the cost of 75 packets of tea is
A) ₹ 2000
B) ₹ 3000
C) ₹ 2500
D) ₹ 3500
Answer:
B) ₹ 3000

Question 4.
If A pump can take 5 hrs to fill a 50 l of tank then how much time to take to fill a 75 liters of tank for the same pump?
A) 7 hrs
B) 5 \(\frac {1}{2}\) hrs
C) 6 \(\frac {1}{2}\) hrs
D) 7 \(\frac {1}{2}\) hrs
Answer:
D) 7 \(\frac {1}{2}\) hrs

Question 5.
The cost of 20 m of cloth is? 1600 then the cost of 24.5 m of cloth is
A) ₹1970
B) ₹1960
C) ₹1860
D) ₹1260
Answer:
B) ₹1960

Question 6.
If 36 men can built a wall in 12 days, then 16 men can built the same wall in …………….. days.
A) 27
B) 18
C) 35
D) 36
Answer:
A) 27

Question 7.
6 pumps take 1 hr 20 minutes to fill a tank. If 5 pumps are opened then they fill the tank in ………………. mins.
A) 106
B) 86
C) 96
D) 92
Answer:
C) 96

Question 8.
111 : 125 = …………….. %
A) 88.8
B) 16.8
C) 81.8
D) 171
Answer:
A) 88.8

Question 9.
The ratio of present ages of P and Q is 3:8 and after 6 years their ages ratio is 4:9 then the age of P at present is …………….. years.
A) 16
B) 19
C) 18
D) 20
Answer:
C) 18

Question 10.
The expenditure of 35 members for 24 days on food is ₹ 6300 then the expenditure of 25 members for 18 days is ……………..
A) ₹ 3375
B) ₹ 3475
C) ₹ 3385
D) ₹ 3365
Answer:
A) ₹ 3375

Question 11.
24 men can do a work in 14 days by working 6 hours a day. If the work is to be completed in 8 days by working 7 hours per day how many men are required?
A) 16
B) 36
C) 27
D) 46
Answer:
B) 36

Question 12.
No.of painters and the length of a wall are in …………….. proportion.
A) Equal
B) Direct
C) Inverse
D) None
Answer:
B) Direct

Question 13.
Number of workers α ………………..
A) \(\frac{1}{\text { Number of days }}\)
B) no of days
C) \(\frac{7}{\text { Number of days }}\)
D) None
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{\text { Number of days }}\)

Question 14.
Distance = ………………..
A) \(\frac{\text { Time }}{\text { Speed }}\)
B) Time × 2
C) Time × Speed
D) None
Answer:
C) Time × Speed

Question 15.
If x α \(\frac{1}{y}\) ⇒ xy = k then k is a …………………
A) Speed
B) Zero
C) 10
D) Constant
Answer:
D) Constant

Question 16.
If x₁ y₁ = x₂ y₂ and x₁ y₁ x₂, y₂ are any 4 observations then they are in ………………. proportion.
A) Equal
B) Inverse proportion
C) Direct proportion
D) None
Answer:
B) Inverse proportion

Question 17.
If a car travels 60 kmph then it reaches the destination in 4 hours. If the car travels at 80 kmph then the time taken by car is ………………. hrs
A) 10
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 18.
In a camp there is a food stock for 500 members for 70 days. If 200 more joined in the camp then for how many days the food stock is sufficient ?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 90
Answer:
A) 50

Question 19.
If (a+1) workers (In number) will do a work in (a+1) days then in how many days will (a+2) members of workers do the work ?
A) \(\frac{a+2}{(a+1)^{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{(a+1)^{2}}{a}\)
C) \(\frac{a+1}{a+2}\)
D) \(\frac{(a+1)^{2}}{a+2}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{(a+1)^{2}}{a+2}\)

Question 20.
If 15 workers can build a wall in 48 hrs, how many workers will be required to do the same work in 30 hrs?
A) 24
B) 10
C) 19
D) 20
Answer:
A) 24

Question 21.
The cost of 48 bags of rice is ₹ 16,800 then the cost of 36 such bags is ……………….
A) ₹ 10,300
B) ₹ 11,600
C) ₹ 10,600
D) ₹ 12,600
Answer:
D) ₹ 12,600

Question 22.
Area of rectangle = …………….. sq. units.
A) l² + b
B) l + b
C) \(\frac{l}{b}\)
D) l b
Answer:
D) l b

Question 23.
Which of the following situation is in direct proportion?
A) Number of students and teachers in a school
B) Number of workers, length of the wall constructed
C) Number of animals, the quantity of food they eat
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 24.
Identify Inverse proportion in the following.
A) Time – speed
B) Time – ability to do the work
C) Distance – speed
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 25.
Inverse ratio of 5 : 6 is ……………….
A) 1 : 5
B) 6 : 5
C) 5 : 6
D) 6 : 1
Answer:
B) 6 : 5

Question 26.
Mean proportion of 1.2 and 4.8 is …………………
A) 2.4
B) 4.2
C) 3.2
D) 4.1
Answer:
A) 2.4

Question 27.
If 2.8, 7, 12 and x are in proportion then x = ………………..
A) 20
B) 31
C) 30
D) 40
Answer:
C) 30

Question 28.
3 minutes : 50 seconds = …………………
A) 18 : 5
B) 8 : 5
C) 1 : 5
D) 2 : 3
Answer:
A) 18 : 5

Question 29.
The cost of 5 litres of petrol is ₹ 110 then the cost of 8 litres is ……………..
A) ₹ 671
B) ₹ 176
C) ₹ 186
D) ₹ 216
Answer:
B) ₹ 176

Question 30.
A car reaches 300 km in 6 horns then how much distance is travelled by the car in 8 hours ?
A) 100 km
B) 200 km
C) 900 km
D) 400 km
Answer:
D) 400 km

Question 31.
The cost of 12 fruits is ₹ 27 then the cost of 18 fruits of same type is …………………
A) ₹ 1
B) ₹ 20
C) ₹ 16
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 32.
A tailor will stitch 9 shirts in 4 days then in 16 days how many shirts he will stitch?
A) 30
B) 36
C) 12
D) 19
Answer:
B) 36

Question 33.
A train travels 21/2 hrs at 90 kmph to travel the same distance how much speed is required for the train?
A) 112 1/2 km/hrs
B) 110 km/hrs
C) 141 1/2 km/hrs
D) None
Answer:
A) 112 1/2 km/hrs

Question 34.
In x 24% value is 48, then x = ……………….
A) 100
B) 200
C) 150
D) 110
Answer:
B) 200

Question 35.
The compound ratio of 3 : 4 and 5 : 6 is …………………
A) 4 : 1
B) 1 : 4
C) 5 : 4
D) 15 : 24
Answer:
D) 15 : 24

Question 36.
The cost of 25 kg potatos is ₹ 125 then for ₹ 15 how many kilograms can be purchased?
A) 9
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 37.
30 labourers can built a wall in 9 days. If the same wall is to be built by 20 labourers how many days they will take to complete it?
A) 14
B) 13 1/2
C) 16
D) 19 1/2
Answer:
B) 13 1/2

Question 38.
9% = ……………….
A) 0.09
B) 0.9
C) 90%
D) 9
Answer:
A) 0.09

Question 39.
A : B = 5 : 8 and B : C = 18 : 25 then A : C = ………………
A) 2 : 9
B) 9 : 20
C) 1 : 10
D) 16 : 5
Answer:
B) 9 : 20

Question 40.
x : 6 : : 5 : 3 then x = …………………..
A) 9
B) 3
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
D) 10

Question 41.
The cost of 9 toys is ₹ 333 then the cost of 16 such toys is …………………..
A) ₹ 592
B) ₹ 612
C) ₹ 169
D) ₹ 181
Answer:
A) ₹ 592

Question 42.
48 men can dig a trench in 14 days then how many days will be taken by 28 men to dig the same trench ?
A) 13
B) 16
C) 24
D) 42
Answer:
C) 24

Question 43.
21 cows will take the food which is equal to the amount of food taken by 15 buffalo’s then how many cows will take the food that is taken by 35 buffalo’s?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 3
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 44.
To travel a distance of 255 km a car needs 15 litres of petrol. If the car has to travel a distance of 374 kin how many litres of petrol is required?
A) 10
B) 22
C) 16
D) 9
Answer:
B) 22

Question 45.
300 : 40 = ………………
A) 1 : 4
B) 4 : 1
C) 2 : 3
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 46.
For a group of 500 members is a food provision for 24 days. If 300 more joined in the group for how many days the food will be sufficient?
A) 15
B) 10
C) 9
D) 4
Answer:
A) 15

Question 47.
A train takes 45 minutes to travel 51 kins. If the same train travels 221 kins, how much time is taken by it?
A) 16 hrs 12 min
B) 3 hrs 15 min
C) 3 hrs 20 min
D) 2 hrs 20 min
Answer:
B) 3 hrs 15 min

Question 48.
Mean proportion of 8 and 18 is……….
A) 10
B) 16
C) 12
D) 9
Answer:
C) 12

Question 49.
The cost of half meter cloth is ₹ 30 then the cost of 2latex]\frac {3}{5}[/latex] m is ……………….
A) ₹ 10
B) ₹ 20
C) ₹ 16
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 50.
37.5% = ………………… ?
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{9}{8}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Practice the AP 8th Class Maths Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Area of Plane Figures on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Bits 9th Lesson Area of Plane Figures with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
π = ……………….
A) \(\frac{22}{9}\)
B) \(\frac{22}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{21}{91}\)
D) \(\frac{22}{3}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{22}{7}\)

Question 2.
Circumference of circle = …………………
A) 2πr
B) πr
C) \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{r}}{2}\)
D) πr²
Answer:
A) 2πr

Question 3.
Each exterior angle of an equilateral triangle is …………….
A) 70°
B) 60°
C) 100°
D) 120°
Answer:
D) 120°

Question 4.
Number of diagonals in a Quadrilateral is ………………
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 1
Answer:
A) 2

Question 5.
Area of Trapezium =
A) \(\frac {1}{2}\) (a + b)
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) h (a + b)
C) \(\frac{a+b}{4}\)
D) \(\frac {1}{4}\) h (a + b)
Answer:
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) h (a + b)

Question 6.
Area of circle = ………………….
A) πr
B) 2πr
C) πr₂
D) \(\frac{\pi \mathrm{r}}{2}\)
Answer:
C) πr₂

Question 7.
Perimeter of Semi circle is …………………
A) πr₂
B) \(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{r}}\)
C) r + π
D) πr
Answer:
D) πr

Question 8.
Area of sector is ………………..
A) lr
B) \(\frac{l \mathbf{r}}{2}\)
C) \(\frac{l+r}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{l}{2}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{l+r}{2}\)

Question 9.
Central angle of circle is ………………..
A) 160°
B) 300°
C) 360°
D) 180°
Answer:
C) 360°

Question 10.
Diameter of a circle is 8.2 cm then its radius is ……………. cm
A) 4.5
B) 5.4
C) 4.1
D) 3.2
Answer:
C) 4.1

Question 11.
Sum of the angles in a triangle is ………………..
A) 130°
B) 170°
C) 160°
D) 180°
Answer:
D) 180°

Question 12.
Side of a square is 7 cm then its area is ………………. cm²
A) 49
B) 60
C) 80
D) 94
Answer:
A) 49

Question 13.
Area of the triangle is ……………..
A) a + b
B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) b + h
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh
D) bh
Answer:
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh

Question 14.
Area of parallelogram is ………………..
A) bh
B ) \(\frac {1}{2}\) bh
C) \(\frac {1}{2}\) a + b
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{ab}}{4}\)
Answer:
A) bh

Question 15.
Number of triangles in the figure is …………………
A) 7
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
D) 3

Question 16.
Number of rectangles in the figure is …………………
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer:
A) 3

Question 17.
Number of Trapeziums in the figure is ………………….
A) 6
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
Answer:
B) 2

Question 18.
In a circle d = 28 cm then A = ……………… cm²
A) 216
B) 161
C) 606
D) 616
Answer:
D) 616

Question 19.
In the given figure area of Δ ABC = 10 cm² then area of parallelogram is ………………… cm²

A) 60
B) 20
C) 80
D) 40
Answer:
B) 20

Question 20.
In a Quadrilateral d = 6 cm, h₁ = 5 cm, h₂ = 3 cm then A = ……………….. cm²
A) 16
B) 18
C) 24
D) 19
Answer:
C) 24

Question 21.
Area of Rhombus is ………………….
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\) d₁ d₂
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{d}_{1} \mathrm{~d}_{2}}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\) d₁ \(\frac{\mathrm{d}_{2}}{3}\)
D) d₁² . d₂²
Answer:
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\) d₁ d₂

Question 22.
In the given figure area of Δ ABC = ………………… cm²

A) 12
B) 6
C) 11
D) 7
Answer:
B) 6

Question 23.
In a Rectangle l = 20 cm, b = 14 cm then A = ……………….. cm²
A) 150
B) 170
C) 180
D) 280
Answer:
D) 280

Question 24.
Area of sector = ………………
A) \(\) πr²
B) \(\) × 2 π r
C) \(\) × 3 π r
D) \(\) × πr²
Answer:
A) \(\) πr²

Question 25.
Area of square is 1225 cm² then its side is ……………… cm
A) 25
B) 15
C) 45
D) 35
Answer:
D) 35

Question 26.
Area of adjacent figure is……………….. cm²

A) 64
B) 84
C) 74
D) 93
Answer:
A) 64

Question 27.
Area of parallelogram is 50 cm² and a diagonal is drawn to it, then the area of triangle so formed is cm²
A) 19
B) 16
C) 25
D) 15
Answer:
C) 25

Question 28.
In the figure area of Right angle triangle ABC = ………………… cm²

A)10
B) 8
C) 12
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 29.
Diagonals of a Rhombus are 6 cm and 7 cm then area = ……………… cm²
A) 19
B) 16
C) 13
D) 21
Answer:
D) 21

Question 30.
Which of the following figure represents a sector ?

Answer:

Question 31.
In a circle r = 14 cm then area of Quadrant circle is ………………… cm²
A) 164
B) 154
C) 110
D) 150
Answer:
B) 154

Question 32.
Area of ring is ……………… cm²
A) π (R – r)
B) π (R + r)
C) π (R² – r²)
D) π R² – r²
Answer:
C) π (R² – r²)

Question 33.
Which of the following figure represents concentric circles ?

Answer:

Question 34.
Length of arc of a sector is 16 cm and radius of a circle is 7 cm then area of sector is …………….. cm²
A) 56
B) 46
C) 16
D) 36
Answer:
A) 56

Question 35.
Length of arc of a sector is …………………
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}\) × 2 π r
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}\) × π r
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{\circ}}{180^{\circ}}\) × π r²
D) None
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}\) × 2 π r

Question 36.
In a triangle b = 5 cm, h = 10 cm then area is ……………. cm²
A) 19
B) 15
C) 25
D) 20
Answer:
C) 25

Question 37.
In a Rhombus the diagonals are 2a and 4b unite then its area is …………….. square unite.
A) 2ab
B) 4ab
C) 3ab
D) ab
Answer:
B) 4ab

Question 38.
In a circle d = 7 cm then its area is …………….. cm²
A) 10
B) 6
C) 18
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 39.
In a Ring the radii of outer and inner are 15 cm and 8 cm then the width is ……………….. cm
A) 7
B) 3
C) 6
D) 1
Answer:
A) 7

Question 40.
c : d = ……………………
A) 180°
B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
C) π
D) 90°
Answer:
C) π

Question 41.
The side of an equilateral triangle is ‘a’ units then its area is ……………. square units.
A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) a²
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) a
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{7}\) a²
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{6}\) a²
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) a²

Question 42.
The side of an equilateral triangle is’a’ units then its height is ……………….. units.
A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) a
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) a
C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) a²
D) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\) a
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) a

Question 43.
The area of adjacent figure is ……………….. cm²

A) 213
B) 103
C) 252
D) 203
Answer:
C) 252

Question 44.
Diagonal of a square is 9√3 cm then its area is ……………….. cm²
A) 90
B) 70
C) 37
D) 81
Answer:
D) 81

Question 45.
In the given figure there are two semicircles. Radius of big semicircle is 42 cm then the area of shaded portion is ………………… cm²

A) 300.5
B) 900.3
C) 346.5
D) 841.5
Answer:
C) 346.5

Question 46.
Diagonal of a square is 2.8 cm then its area is …………………. cm².
A) 2.95
B) 3.92
C) 8.9
D) 5.3
Answer:
B) 3.92

Question 47.
1 cm² = ……………………… mm²
A) 10
B) 2,000
C) 1,000
D) 100
Answer:
D) 100

Question 48.
1 hectare = ………………….. m².
A) 10,000
B) 2,000
C) 3,000
D) 1,000
Answer:
A) 10,000

Question 49.
Area of triangle = 600 cm², height =15 cm then base = ………………… cm.
A) 19
B) 16
C) 80
D) 10
Answer:
C) 80

Question 50.
Area of triangle is 120 cm² and its base is 15 cm then its height is ………………. cm.
A) 16
B) 26
C) 36
D) 10
Answer:
A) 16

Question 51.
Area of Rhombus is 96 cm² and its diagonal is 16 cm then its height is
………………….. cm
A) 60
B) 40
C) 70
D) 30
Answer:
B) 40

Question 52.
In a parallelogram the base is double the height and the area is 512 cm² then its base is …………………… cm
A) 19
B) 13
C) 16
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

Question 53.
In the above problem height = ……………….. cm
A) 19
B) 16
C) 23
D) 11
Answer:
B) 16

Question 54.
Perimeter of a Rhombus is 56 cm then the length of its side is ……………. cm.
A) 17
B) 16
C) 23
D) 19
Answer:
A) 17

Question 55.
Radius of a circle is 4.9 cm then its area is ………………. cm².
A) 64.35
B) 95.35
C) 75.46
D) 15.46
Answer:
C) 75.46

Question 56.
Area of one circle is 100 times the area of other circle then the ratio of their circumferences is ………………….
A) 1:2
B) 10:1
C) 1:20
D) 30:29
Answer:
B) 10:1

Question 57.
In the adjacent figure area of unshaded partis ………………… m².

A) 6324
B) 5784
C) 8126
D) 1199
Answer:
B) 5784

Question 58.
The area of adjacent Quadrilateral is ……………… cm².

A) 35
B) 16
C) 80
D) 55
Answer:
D) 55

Question 59.
The area of adjacent Trapezium is ………….. cm².

A) 45
B) 50
C) 60
D) 70
Answer:
A) 45

Question 60.
Area of circle is 616 cm² then its circumference is ………………… cm
A) 88
B) 10
C) 19
D) 81
Answer:
A) 88

Question 61.
The area of shaded region in the adjacent figure is ………………..cm²

A) 104
B) 114
C) 154
D) 164
Answer:
C) 154

Question 62.
Circumference of circle is 264 cm then its area is …………………. cm²
A) 1936
B) 5544
C) 1543
D) 1980
Answer:
B) 5544

Question 63.
The height of an equilateral triangle is √6 cm then its area is ……………….. cm².
A) 2√3
B) 3√2
C) 10√3
D) 9√2
Answer:
A) 2√3

Question 64.
Area of square is 200 cm² then its diagonal is ………………. cm.
A) 80
B) 30
C) 20
D) 10
Answer:
C) 20

Question 65.
The difference of a circumference of a circle and the radius is 37 cm then its area is ………………. cm².
A) 111
B) 160
C) 145
D) 154
Answer:
D) 154

Question 66.
Area of circle is 1386 cm² then its circumference is ……………… cm.
A) 123
B) 169
C) 132
D) 119
Answer:
C) 132

Question 67.
Area of rectangle is 100 cm², length is 20 cm then its breadth = ……………….. cm.
A) 16
B) 9
C) 10
D) 5
Answer:
D) 5

Question 68.
The side of a square is 9 cm then its perimeter is ……………….. cm.
A) 32
B) 10
C) 36
D) 16
Answer:
C) 36

Question 69.
Diagonal of a rectangle is ………………
A) \(\sqrt{l^{2}+b^{2}}\)
B) l + √b
C) √l + b
D) l + b
Answer:
A) \(\sqrt{l^{2}+b^{2}}\)

Question 70.
In the adjacent figure x = …………………. cm

A) 7
B) 10
C) 13
D) 11
Answer:
A) 7

Practice the AP 9th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 18 Impact of Colonialism in India on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following was not an industrial city?
A) Mumbai
B) Ahmedabad
C) Kolkata
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
D) Visakhapatnam

Question 2.
The Santhal revolt occurred during
A) 1856
B) 1940
C) 1874
D) 1922
Answer:
A) 1856

Question 3.
In …………… the electric bulbs began to be fitted in the mills.
A) 1890
B) 1880
C) 1820
D) 1885
Answer:
B) 1880

Question 4.
The first factory Act in 1881 specified the rules for the welfare of
A) the male
B) the female
C) the children
D) none
Answer:
C) the children

Question 5.
The Koya, Reddy and Kolam tribes belonged to
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Maharashtra
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
D) Andhra Pradesh

Question 6.
The first factory Act was implemented in the year
A) 1881
B) 1850
C) 1947
D) 1950
Answer:
A) 1881

Question 7.
Since 1850 ……………. Industries were established in India.
A) Agro-based
B) Machine based
C) Jute based
D) Cement based
Answer:
B) Machine based

Question 8.
The greatest achievements of Indian Industrialists was the setting up of a factory at Jamshedpur.
A) Textile
B) Jute
C) Steel
D) Cement
Answer:
C) Steel

Question 9.
Indian factories imports the machinery from
A) Japan
B) China
C) Europe
D) America
Answer:
C) Europe

Question 10.
The tribal cultivation is called as
A) Extensive
B) Intensive
C) Podu
D) Modern
Answer:
C) Podu

Question 11.
If they had to sell some forest produce, it was only to buy
A) Sandal
B) Salt, iron
C) Tea
D) Tobacco
Answer:
B) Salt, iron

Question 12.
Those who cultivated land in the forests sometimes also paid
A) goods
B) money
C) taxes
D) share
Answer:
C) taxes

Question 13.
The union formed under the influence of Gandhiji was
A) Sabarmati union
B) Dandi union
C) Shramika union
D) Mazdoor Mahajan
Answer:
D) Mazdoor Mahajan

Question 14.
Which of following federation was formed during the British period?
A) FICCI
B) SAIL
C) NALCO
D) IFSI
Answer:
A) FICCI

Question 15.
Nizam government collected taxes for grazing cattle and collecting firewood is
A) Kalasan
B) Bambram and Dupapetti
C) Non check
D) Balan
Answer:
B) Bambram and Dupapetti

Question 16.
The famous socialist labour union during the British period was
A) Peedan union
B) Labour union
C) Girni Kamgar union
D) Socialist union
Answer:
C) Girni Kamgar union

Question 17.
During the British period below years age children were not appointed in the factories work.
A) 9 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 5 years
Answer:
A) 9 years

Question 18.
At present Indian government below age children are not allowed into the work.
A) 10 years
B) 15 years
C) 14 years
D) 16 years
Answer:
C) 14 years

Question 19.
According to the present labour act women labourers cannot be made to work more than hours a day.
A) 7 hours
B) 11 hours
C) 10 hours
D) 12 hours
Answer:
B) 11 hours

Question 20.
The government would hold ……….. to sell the contracts for cutting forests.
A) Zamindars
B) Rent holders
C) Auction
D) Labourers
Answer:
C) Auction

Question 21.
Forest is under the control of forest department is called forest.
A) Reserve
B) Protected
C) Dense forest
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Reserve

Question 22.
In 1905, around lakh labourers were in the textile industry.
A) 1.5 lakh
B) 1 lak
C) 2.25 lakh
D) 4 lakhs
Answer:
C) 2.25 lakh

Question 23.
During the First World War, the import of foreign goods into India fell sharply, due to
A) Drought
B) Famine
C) Lack of ships
D) Failure of crops
Answer:
C) Lack of ships

Question 24.
Each year almost ………… wooden sleepers were needed to lay the new railway lines
A) 10 crores
B) 2 crores
C) 1 lakh
D) 1 crore
Answer:
D) 1 crore

Question 25.
Who started the revolt against the Nizam’s rule?
A) Komaram Bheem
B) Hanumanthu
C) Seeta Rama Raju
D) Kancharla Gopanna
Answer:
A) Komaram Bheem

Question 26.
Find out name of the Komaram Bheem’s army
A) Tribal
B) Guerrilla
C) Siddha
D) Revolutionary
Answer:
B) Guerrilla

Question 27.
Which message of Komaram Bheem was inspired the Adivasis?
A) Jal, Jangal, Jameen
B) Abhay
C) Ramadandu
D) Jal Kal bal
Answer:
A) Jal, Jangal, Jameen

Question 28.
Seeta Rama Raju was shot dead in the village of
A) Koyyur
B) Chintapaili
C) Bastav
D) Nallamalla
Answer:
A) Koyyur

Question 29.
The leader of Assam Rifles
A) Saunders
B) Raju
C) Bheem
D) Suri
Answer:
A) Saunders

Question 30.
In which year the first electric bulb was fit in Indian companies?
A) 1905
B) 1902
C) 1914
D) 1900
Answer:
C) 1914

Question 31.
In which year, Balagangadhar Tilak exiled from India?
A) 1919
B) 1906
C) 1905
D) 1908
Answer:
D) 1908

Question 32.
Santhals a tribal people belongs to
A) Chotanagpur plateau
B) Jarkhand
C) Uttarakhand
D) A.P
Answer:
B) Jarkhand

Question 33.
Komaram Bheem was died in the forest of
A) Dense forest
B) Jodeghat forest
C) Chintapaili
D) Kolam
Answer:
B) Jodeghat forest

Question 34.
Which among the following is a tribe in Odisha?
A) Baiga
B) Kolam
C) Saora
D) Koya
Answer:
C) Saora

Question 35.
Which among the following tribe fight against in 1880 in A.P?
A) Gondu
B) Santhals
C) Koyas
D) Kolam
Answer:
C) Koyas

Question 36.
Who was the leader of the Chotanagpur tribals?
A) Birsa Munda
B) Naik Munda
C) Bastar Munda
D) Nacjain
Answer:
A) Birsa Munda

Question 37.
Nizam government appointed to research the life of tribals.
A) Haimendorf
B) Elfins
C) Kugler
D) Battlif
Answer:
A) Haimendorf

Komaram Bheem was bom atSankepally village in Adilabad. A jagirdar named Siddhikl, informer of Nizam occupied Bheem’s land.
By that time Nizam’s government used to collect tax In the name of ‘Bambram’.
At last on one full moon day Komaram Bheem died in the battle against Nizam army in Jodeghat forest. After his death Nizam appointed Haimendorf to do some research on the life of tribal people. Read the para and answer the Questions 38 – 41.
Question 38.
In which village Komaram Bheem was born?
A) Sankepally
B) Manchiryal
C) Tanuku
D) Anaparthy
Answer:
A) Sankepally

Question 39.
What was the ‘Bambram”?
A) A forest product
B) A tax
C) A village
D) A game
Answer:
B) A tax

Question 40.
Where Komaram Bheem was defeated by Nizam’s army?
A) Jodeghat
B) Zaheerabad
C) Nalgonda
D) Miryala Guda
Answer:
A) Jodeghat

Question 41.
Who occupied Bheem’s land?
A) Siddhiki
B) Rahul
C) Mallanna
D) Nizam
Answer:
C) Mallanna

Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

Question 42.
Which adivasi tribes revolt against British in Madhya Pradesh?
A) Munda
B) Koya
C) Gond
D) Saora
Answer:
C) Gond

Question 43.
Name the adivasi tribes in Odisha.
A) Kolam
B) Saora
C) Santhals
D) Munda
Answer:
B) Saora

Question 44.
Koya, Kolam tribes conducted revolts in
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Gujarath
D) Odisha
Answer:
A) Andhra Pradesh

Question 45.
In Jarkhand which Adivasi revolt was held
A) Koya
B) Konda Reddy
C) Santhal
D) Munda
Answer:
C) Santhal

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Mumbai-
A) Oil refinery (Assom)
B) Mumbai (Cotton textile)
C) Iron & steel (VisakhA)
D) Chennai (Cement Industry)
Question 46.
The name of the oil refinery in Assom
A) Trombay
B) Digboy
C) Madhura
D) None
Answer:
B) Digboy

Question 47.
Cotton textile Industry is located in
A) Mumbai
B) Gannavaram
C) Ongole
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
A) Mumbai

Question 48.
Visakhapatnam is famous for
A) Iron & steel
B) Copper
C) Cement
D) Limestone
Answer:
A) Iron & steel

Question 49.
The first cement factory was established at
A) Chennai
B) Bengaluru
C) Visakhapatnam
D) Guntur
Answer:
A) Chennai

Question 50.
Match the following:
1. Group – A — Group – B
1. The Santhal revolt — A) 1874 -1901
2. The Munda revolt — B) 1940
3. The Gond revolt — C) 1910
4. Koya revolt — D) 1855 – 56
5. The Maria and Muria revolt — E) 1880 and 1922
Answer:
1) D
2) A
3) B
4) E
5) C

Question 51.
Group – A — Group – B
1. Factory Act of 1881 — A) 1928
2. Factory Act of 1891 — B) 1864
3. Factory Act of 1911 — C) Children given protection
4. Mumbai workers strike — D) For the welfare of male labour
5. The forest department — E) Women labourers working hours regularized
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) B

Question 52.
The tribals of Jharkand are
A) Santhals
B) Yama dis
C) Boyas
D) Koyas
Answer:
A) Santhals

Question 53.
Protected forest means
A) Specific term to denote forests with some amount of Legal/Constitutional protection
B) British Government appointed forest department to protect forest in 1864
C) To grow teak and pine trees
D) All above
Answer:
D) All above

Question 54.
Identify the correct one.
A) Jarkhand
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Odisha
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
C) Odisha

Question 55.
The slogan water, forest, land (Jal, Jangal, Jameen) given by
A) Alluri Seetha Ramaraju
B) Komaram Bheem
C) Bhirsa Munda
D) Bhagath Singh
Answer:
B) Komaram Bheem

Question 56.
You knew the conditions of Child labour during the Industrial Revolution. But child labour is still continuing in our society. How do you react on this?
A) Life Insurance facilities should be provided to the child labourers.
B) There should be no child labour system at all. It should be eradicated completely.
C) Medical facilities should be provided to the child labourers.
D) Wages of the child labourers should be increased.
Answer:
B) There should be no child labour system at all. It should be eradicated completely.