Category: Bit Bank

Practice the AP 9th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 2 Laws of Motion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Bits 2nd Lesson Laws of Motion with Answers

Question 1.
The tendency of a body to resist change of state is
A) force
B) momentum
C) inertia
D) conservation
Answer:
C) inertia

Question 2.
Law of inertia
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of mass
Answer:
A) Newton’s first law of motion

Question 3.
When the net force acting on a body is zero, the body is in
A) motion
B) rest
C) equilibrium
D) none
Answer:
C) equilibrium

Question 4.
Mass of an object is considered as the measure of
A) conservation of mass
B) force
C) momentum
D) inertia
Answer:
D) inertia

Question 5.
A non-zero net force acting on a body disturbs the state of
A) equilibrium
B) motion
C) rest
D) none
Answer:
A) equilibrium

Question 6.
Effect of action of non zero net force on an object is explained by
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of mass
Answer:
B) Newton’s second law of motion

Question 7.
Product of mass and velocity of an object is known as its
A) equilibrium
B) momentum
C) inertia
D) force
Answer:
B) momentum

Question 8.
Momentum is a …………………. quantity.
A) scalar
B) vector
C) linear
D) constant
Answer:
B) vector

Question 9.
Direction of momentum is in the direction of
A) mass
B) force
C) velocity
D) motion
Answer:
C) velocity

Question 10.
Acceleration is directly proportional to
A) mass
B) velocity
C) momentum
D) force
Answer:
D) force

Question 11.
Acceleration is inversely proportional to
A) mass
B) velocity
C) momentum
D) force
Answer:
A) mass

Question 12.
Net force is proportional to rate of change of momentum. This is
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of momentum
Answer:
B) Newton’s second law of motion

Question 13.
1 kg. m/s² =
A) 1 Dyne
B) 1 Hertz
C) 1 Newton
D) 1 Volt
Answer:
C) 1 Newton

Question 14.
The effect of force exerted by one body on another body is explained by
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of mass
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law of motion

Question 15.
The product of net force and interaction time is called
A) momentum
B) acceleration
C) conservation
D) impulse
Answer:
D) impulse

Question 16.
Change in momentum depends on
A) magnitude of force
B) time
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 17.
When a net force acting on a system is zero, then the system is said to be
A) isolated system
B) system of mass
C) system of conservation
D) system of inertia
Answer:
A) isolated system

Question 18.
Newton laws of motion are …………………
A) I law
B) II law
C) III law
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 19.
The tendency of an object to resist a change in their state of rest or uniform motion is …………………..
A) rigidity
B) fluidity
C) inertia
D) compression
Answer:
C) inertia

Question 20.
Newton’s first law of motion is also known as ……………………..
A) Law of friction
B) Law of force
C) Law of inertia
D) Law of momentum
Answer:
C) Law of inertia

Question 21.
When the net acting on a body is zero, the body will be in ………………………
A) motion B) rest
C) acceleration
D) both A & B
Answer:
D) both A & B

Question 22
………………… of an object is considered as the measure of inertia.
A) Volume
B) Pressure
C) Density
D) Mass
Answer:
D) Mass

Question 23.
S.I unit of mass is ………………….
A) kg
B) gram
C) Newton
D) milligram
Answer:
A) kg

Question 24.
Mass is a property of an object that specifies how much …………….. the object has.
A) rigidity
B) fluidity
C) inertia
D) expansion
Answer:
C) inertia

Question 25.
A non-zero net force acting on a body disturbs the state of ………………….
A) rest
B) motion
C) both
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
C) both

Question 26.
Newton used the word ……………………. to represent momentum.
A) mass in rest
B) mass in stationary
C) mass in motion
D) none of these
Answer:
C) mass in motion

Question 27.
Direction of momentum is direction of …………………
A) speed
B) velocity
C) acceleration
D) force
Answer:
B) velocity

Question 28.
S.I unit of momentum is …………………..
A) kg.m/s²
B) kg-m/s
C) N.Sec
D) Both B & C
Answer:
D) Both B & C

Question 29.
Acceleration increases with increase of …………………….
A) mass
B) pressure
C) volume
D) net force
Answer:
D) net force

Question 30.
Acceleration decreases with increases of …………………..
A) mass
B) volume
C) density
D) pressure
Answer:
A) mass

Question 31.
The unit of force is ……………
A) Newton
B) N.S
C) N/s
D) N.m
Answer:
A) Newton

Question 32.
Force F = ……………………
A) ma
B) m(\(\frac{\mathrm{v}-\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{t}}\))
C) \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 33.
When an object exerts a force on other object, the result will be explained by ……………………… of motion.
A) Newton’s first law
B) Newton’s second law
C) Newton’s third law
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law

Question 34.
In Newton’s third law of motion, the two opposing forces are known as …………………
A) reactant, product pair
B) action, reaction pair
C) force, retardation pair
D) none of these
Answer:
B) action, reaction pair

Question 35.
When a net force acting on a system is zero, then that system is called …………………….
A) isothermal
B) adiabatic
C) isolated
D) isochoric
Answer:
C) isolated

Question 36.
The product of net force and interaction time is called …………………
A) momentum
B) force
C) acceleration
D) impulse
Answer:
D) impulse

Question 37.
The change in momentum that an object experiences during an interaction is equivalent to ………………….
A) momentum
B) couple
C) impulse
D) torque
Answer:
C) impulse

Question 38.
Change of momentum is related to ………………….
A) First law of motion
B) Second law of motion
C) Third law of motion
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Second law of motion

Question 39.
The equation for law of conservation momentum is …………………
A) m₁u₁ – m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ – m₂v₂
B) m₂u₂ – m₁u₁ = m₂v₂ – m₁v₁
C) m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
D) \(\frac{m_{1} u_{1}}{m_{1} u_{2}}+\frac{m_{2} v_{2}}{m_{1} v_{1}}\) = 0
Answer:
C) m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Question 40.
F _net Δt is formula of …………………
A) acceleration
B) force
C) impulse
D) momentum
Answer:
C) impulse

Question 41.
Momentum is given by ………………
A) \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{s}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\)
B) \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{v}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\)
C) mv
D) ma
Answer:
C) mv

Question 42.
\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{v}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\)is ……………….
A) force
B) momentum
C) displacement
D) acceleration
Answer:
D) acceleration

Question 43.
Effect of action of no net force acting on an object
A) First law of motion
B) Second law of motion
C) Third law of motion
D) None of these
Answer:
A) First law of motion

Question 44.
Effect of action of non-zero net force acting on an object
A) First law of motion
B) Second law of motion
C) Third law of motion
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Second law of motion

Question 45.
Assertion (A) : When a ball throw on the ground, it come to rest.
Reason (R) : Every object will remain rest when no net force acts on it.
A) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
B) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true and R is false.
D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
B) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 46.
Which of the following is wrong ?
a) Static inertia : The body at rest always tries to stay at the same rest, until some force act on it.
b) Dynamic inertia : The body which is in motion always tries to come to ? rest until some force act on it. ?
A) a
B) b
C) a and b
D) None
Answer:
B) b

Question 47.
If there is no friction a moving ball
A) comes to rest
B) moves in uniform motion
C) moves with increasing speed
D) disappears
Answer:
B) moves in uniform motion

Question 48.
We can push a bicycle easily, then a car because,
A) mass of the bicycle > mass of the car
B) mass of the car > mass of the bicycle
C) momentum of the car > momentum of the bicycle
D) momentum of the bicycle > momentum of the car
Answer:
B) mass of the car > mass of the bicycle

Question 49.
A body is disturbed its state of equilibrium. Guess the reason.
A) A non – zero force acted on it
B) Zero net force acted on it
C) Either A or B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer:
A) A non – zero force acted on it

Question 50.
Force : ma :: momentum :…………………….
A) m.f
B) mg
C) mv
D) 1/2mv²
Answer:
C) mv

Question 51.
When we drop an egg on a soft pillow,
A) it do not break due to low impulse
B) it will break due to high impulse
C) A or B
D) it do not break due to high impulse
Answer:
A) it do not break due to low impulse

Question 52.
What will happen, if a non-net force acts on a body in a uniform motion ?
A) It accelerates
B) It decelerates
C) A or B
D) A and B
Answer:
C) A or B

Question 53.
Formula a = b × c, says that the net force produces acceleration in a body in the direction of force, then the physical quantity of a, b and c are (respectively)
A) F_net, mass, velocity
B) F_net, mass, acceleration
C) Acceleration, mass, friction
D) mass, F_net, gravitation
Answer:
B) F_net, mass, acceleration

Question 54.
Force : \(\frac{\mathbf{k g} \cdot \mathbf{m}}{\mathbf{s}^{2}}\) :: ……… . : \(\frac{\mathbf{k g}-\mathbf{m}}{\mathbf{s}}\)
A) friction
B) acceleration
C) momentum
D) none
Answer:
C) momentum

Question 55.

What will happen in this experiment?
A) Cork cap and test tube moves in the same direction.
B) Cork cap and test tube moves in the opposite direction.
C) Tension in string decreases.
D) The cork cap drops in the test tube.
Answer:
B) Cork cap and test tube moves in the opposite direction.

Question 56.
If a fly colloids with the wind sheild of a fast moving bus, then
a) the impact forces experienced by the fly and bus are same.
b) the acceleration experienced by the fly and bus are same.
A) ‘a’ only
B) ‘b’ only
C) both ‘a’ and b’
D) neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
Answer:
A) ‘a’ only

Question 57.
If a bird dashes a flying aeroplane,
A) bird will hurt seriously
B) aeroplane will damage
C) aeroplane will stop
D) A and B
Answer:
D) A and B

Question 58.
When a marble rolls down a slope, it picks up speed due to ……………….
A) normal force
B) frictional force
C) tension
D) force of gravity
Answer:
D) force of gravity

Question 59.
When an object rolls up an inclined plane its speed ……………………
A)increases
B) decreases
C) no change
D) none of these
Answer:
B) decreases

Question 60.
Materials required to show static friction in your lab are
A) bottle, paper, scale
B) glass, wooden planck, stand
C) bottle, paper, pen cap
D) test tube, cork, water
Answer:
C) bottle, paper, pen cap

Question 61.

Conclusion of the given experiment is
A) inertia of an object depends upon its mass.
B) inertia of an object depends upon its shape.
C) there is no relation between mass and inertia.
D) none of the above.
Answer:
A) inertia of an object depends upon its mass.

Question 62.

This experiment is used to prove
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Newton’s Gravitational theory
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law of motion

Question 63.
From the above given figure, your observation is, if we pull one of the spring balances, the reading in other spring balance
A) increases
B) decreases
C) no change
D) we cannot say
Answer:
A) increases

Question 64.
To prove Newton’s third law of motions the required apparatus are
A) two weights
B) two test tubes
C) two scales
D) two spring balances
Answer:
D) two spring balances

Question 65.
“The natural state of an earthly object is to be at rest.” This idea was concluded by
A) Galileo
B) Aristotle
C) Newton
D) Einstein
Answer:
B) Aristotle

Question 66.
The statement: “An object in motion will remain in same motion as long as no external force is applied on it” is given by
A) Galileo
B) Aristotle
C) Newton
D) Einstein
Answer:
A) Galileo

Question 67.
Laws of motion were proposed by
A) Galileo
B) Aristotle
C) Newton
D) Einstein
Answer:
C) Newton

Question 68.
The connection between the force and change in motion was explained by ………………..
A) Kepler’s laws
B) Newton’s laws of motion
C) Faraday’s laws of motion
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Newton’s laws of motion

Question 69.
For a body F_net = 0
From the given data the velocity of the body is
A) zero
B) constant
C) A or B
D)A and B
Answer:
C) A or B

Question 70.

The body is moving is steadily. Then the friction is
A) zero
B) 10 N
C) 10 × 9.8 N
D) none
Answer:
B) 10 N

Question 71.
Tension in the string of an atwood machine is \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~m}_{1} \mathrm{~m}_{2} \mathrm{~g}}{\mathrm{~m}_{1}+\mathrm{m}_{2}}\) and m₁ = m₂
From the given data tension in string equals to
A) weight
B) mass
C) gravitation
D) weight/2
Answer:
A) weight

Question 72.
F_AB = – F_BA From the data the following statement is false.
A) Negative sign indicates less force
B) F_AB is a force of a action
C) No single isolated force exists
D) It is an application of Newton’s third law
Answer:
A) Negative sign indicates less force

Question 73.
Below figure was best example for

A) Newtons first law of motion
B) Newtons second law of motion
C) Newtons third law of motion
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Newtons third law of motion

Question 74.
Name the used system in the given figure.

A) At wood machine
B) Chain system
C) Momentum
D) None
Answer:
A) At wood machine

Question 75.
Use of above system was
A) To prove the Newtons laws of motion
B) To find acceleration
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) To prove the Newtons laws of motion

Question 76.
The free body diagram that shows forces acting on a book on a table is

Answer:

Question 77.
A body of mass’m’ is kept on a table and it is pushed in the horizontal direction with force of 10N continuously. Free body diagram of the body is

Answer:

Question 78.
Free body diagram of the given situation. “A monkey is hanging branch of a tree.”

Answer:

Question 79.
The velocity of a small object that has separated from a rocket moving in free space with velocity of 11 km/s is
A) 0 km/s
B) 11 km/s
C) 11 × 9.8 km/s
D) None
Answer:
B) 11 km/s

Question 80.
You are travelling in a bus with 40 km/hr speed. Then your speed related to the observer standing out side of the bus is
A) zero
B) 40 km/hr
C) 40 × 9.8 km/hr
D) none
Answer:
B) 40 km/hr

Question 81.
A heavy truck and bicycle hit a wall, with same velocity. More damage to the wall expected from
A) heavy truck
B) bicycle
C) both
D) nothing will happen
Answer:
A) heavy truck

Question 82.
If a badminton ball and a cricket ball hit you with same speed, which one hurts you more and why ?
A) Badminton ball – more momentum
B) Cricket ball – less momentum
C) Badminton ball – less momentum
D) Cricket ball – more momentum
Answer:
D) Cricket ball – more momentum

Question 83.
The great phrase “mass in motion” instead of momentum is used by
A) Galelio
B) Aristotle
C) Newton
D) Einstein
Answer:
C) Newton

Question 84.
m₁ = 6.2 kg, m₂ = 3.6 kg then tension in the string is

A) 44. 64 N
B) 63.24 N
C) 22.32 N
D) None
Answer:
A) 44. 64 N

Question 85.
Which of the following is not an application of Newton’s third law of motion ?
A) Flying of a bird
B) Swimming of a fish
C) Walking on a road
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 86.
The force exerted by the earth on a ball is 8N. The force on the earth by the ball is
A) 8 × 9.8 N
B) 8N
C) 4N
D) Zero N
Answer:
B) 8N

Question 87.
It is difficult for a fire fighter to hold a hose (pipe) that ejects large amount of water at high speed.
The Law involved in it is
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s 2nd law of motion
C) Newton’s 3rd law of motion
D) Newton’s 4th law of motion
Answer:
C) Newton’s 3rd law of motion

Question 88.
The fielder pulls back his hands while catching a fast moving cricket ball. It gives ………………
a) less stopping distance
b) more stopping distance
c) less time to stop
d) more time to stop
A) a, c
B) b, d
C) a, d
D) b, d
Answer:
B) b, d

Question 89.
The application of “impulse of force acts on the driver for longer time when accident occurs”.
A) Breaks of the vehicles
B) Air bags inside the vehicles
C) Breaking of the glass windows
D) Power stearing of the vehicle
Answer:
B) Air bags inside the vehicles

Question 90.
Safety net to save a person who jumps from a height provides
A) low impulse
B) high impulse
C) low inertia
D) high inertia
Answer:
A) low impulse

Question 91.
If you bite by a stick on your palm, how do you escape from a larger impulse on your hand ?
A) By pulling down your palm along the direction of the stick
B) By raising up your palm opposite to the direction of the stick
C) By giving no moment to your palm
D) By catch the stick with palm
Answer:
A) By pulling down your palm along the direction of the stick

Question 92.
The following is not an application of the formule ΔP = F_netΔT (Here more F_net)
A) egg drops on a concrete floor
B) hit by a bicycle
C) pulling hands back while catching a ball
D) jumping on a cement road
Answer:
C) pulling hands back while catching a ball

Question 93.
The following is not an application of the formula ΔP = F_net ΔT
(Here more ΔT
A) egg dropping on a cushion
B) pulling hands back while catching a ball
C) opening of air balloons while hitting of a wall by a car
D) hitting of a ball to the body
Answer:
D) hitting of a ball to the body

Question 94.
Principle involved in the parachutes
A) Longer time to hit the land-low impulse
B) Longer time to hit the land-high impulse
C) Shorter time to hit the land-low impulse
D) Shorter time to hit the land-high impulse
Answer:
A) Longer time to hit the land-low impulse

Question 95.
When a carpet is beaten with a stick dust comes out due to
A) static inertia of dust
B) static inertia of carpet
C) dynamic inertia of dust
D) none
Answer:
A) static inertia of dust

Question 96.
Luggage kept on the roof of a bus is tied with a rope, because it fall down due to
A) static inertia of the luggage
B) static inertia of the bus
C) both A and B
D) dynamic inertia of the luggage
Answer:
A) static inertia of the luggage

Question 97.
Bowler In cricket runs in from a long distance before he bowls to provide
A) static inertia to the ball
B) dynamic inertia to the ball
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) dynamic inertia to the ball

Question 98.
Which of the following has more inertia ?
A) 8 kg stone
B) 25 kg stone
C) 80 kg stone
D) All are equal
Answer:
C) 80 kg stone

Question 99.
The momentum of a 6.0 kg bowling ball with a velocity of 3 m/s
A) 6 kg m/s²
B) 18 kg m/s²
C) 2 kg m/s²
D) 180 kg m/s²
Answer:
B) 18 kg m/s²

Question 100.

What is the net force?
A) 350 N
B) 250 N
C) 50 N
D) None
Answer:
B) 250 N

Question 101.
A passenger in moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that the motion of the train is
A) accelerated
B) uniform
C) retarded
D) circular motion
Answer:
A) accelerated

Question 102.
If a car is travelling westwards with a constant speed of 20 m/s. The resultant force acting on it is
A) 20 m/s
B) 20 × 9.8 m/s
C) zero
D) 10 m/s
Answer:
C) zero

Question 103.
A man of mass 30 kg uses a rope to climb which bears only 450 N. The maximum acceleration with which he can climb safely is
A) 45 m/s²
B) 30 m/s²
C) zero
D) 15 m/s²
Answer:
D) 15 m/s²

Question 104.
A vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What must be the force between the vehicle and the road if the vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.7 m/s² ?
A) 2500 N in a direction opposite to that of the vehicle.
B) 2500 N in a direction of the vehicle.
C) 2550 N in a direction opposite to that of the vehicle.
D) 2550 N in a direction of the vehicle.
Answer:
C) 2550 N in a direction opposite to that of the vehicle.

Question 105.
A truck is moving under a hopper with a constant speed of 20 m/s. Sand falls on the truck at a rate of 20 kg/s. The force acting on the truck due to falling of sand is
A) 40 N opposite to the motion of the truck
B) 400 N opposite to the motion of the truck
C) 40 N along the motion of the truck
D) 400 N along the motion of the truck
Answer:
B) 400 N opposite to the motion of the truck

Question 106.
A ball of mass 1 kg moves perpendicularly to a bat with a speed of 5 m/s. And the bat of 10 kg moves opposite to the ball with 2 m/s. After hitting ball moved with 15 m/s. What is the speed of bat after hit ?
A) 1 m/s
B) 2 m/s
C) 3 m/s
D) zero
Answer:
A) 1 m/s

Question 107.
Identify the correct statement regarding Aristotle’s belief.
A) Any moving body naturally comes to rest.
B) Any body which is at rest naturally starts moving.
C) A body continues its state of rest or uniform motion unless a net force acts on it.
D) Any moving body continues in the state only until some external force acts on it.
Answer:
A) Any moving body naturally comes to rest.

Question 108.
Match the physical quantities given in Set – A with proper units in Set – B.

A) P – x, Q – z, R – y
B) P – y, Q – z, R – x
C) P – z, Q – x, R – y
D) P – x, Q – y, R – z
Answer:
B) P – y, Q – z, R – x

Question 109.
Pavithra : Action reaction pair in Newton’s third law always represents forces acting on two bodies simultaneously.
Teja : Newton’s first and second laws of motion apply to a single body.
A) Both Pavithra and Teja are incorrect.
B) Pavithra is correct, Teja is incorrect.
C) Pavithra is incorrect, Teja is correct.
D) Both Pavithra and Teja are correct.
Answer:
D) Both Pavithra and Teja are correct.

Question 110.
When we drop an egg on the concrete floor it will break because
A) smaller force acts on the egg for shorter time.
B) smaller force acts on the egg for longer time.
C) large force acts on the egg for shorter time.
D) large force acts on the egg for longer time.
Answer:
C) large force acts on the egg for shorter time.

Question 111.
When 2.5 kg weight of hero’s hand hits the villain of 80 kg who is at rest, the villain moves with 12.5 ms^-1 and hits the transformer near by. What will be the speed of hero’s hand compared to the bullet fired from the gun ? (Speed of bullet fired from the gun is 370 ms^-1)
A) Less than bullet speed
B) Very very less than bullet speed
C) 0
D) Greater than bullet speed
Answer:
D) Greater than bullet speed

Question 112.
Assertion (A) : Pace bowler Bumrah runs in from a long distance before he bowls.
Reason (R) : To acquire dynamic inertia.
A) Both (A), (R) are correct, (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
C) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
D) Both (A), (R) are correct, (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
B) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

Question 113.
Take a block of ice and place it on a smooth surface, push the block with some net force. Now increase the net force and push it again. The outcome of the experiment is
A) Smaller the net force larger the acceleration
B) Smaller the net force smaller the acceleration
C) Larger the net force larger the acceleration
D) Larger the net force smaller the acceleration
Answer:
C) Larger the net force larger the acceleration

Question 114.
Make a stack of carrom coins on the carrom board. Give a sharp hit at the bottom of the stack with the striker. The law which represent the above experiment is
A) Newton’s second law of motion
B) Newton’s third law of motion
C) Newton’s fourth law of motion
D) Newton’s first law of motion
Answer:
D) Newton’s first law of motion

Question 115.
Read the passage given below :
Inertia is a property of matter that resists changes in its state of motion or rest. It depends on the mass of the object. Arrange the following animals in the increasing order of inertia :
a. Elephant
b. Lion
e. Dog
d. Rat
A) d, c, b, a
B) b, a, c, d
C) c, d, a, b
D) a, b, c, d
Answer:
A) d, c, b, a

Question 116.

Five pendulums are suspended as shown in figure, il first pendulum is pulled a side and released you will see that pendulum 5 will move a side, if you do it with first two, last two will move and so on.
What is the principle involved in the above activity?
A) Law of conservation of energy
B) Law of conservation of momentum
C) Law of conservation of charge
D) Law of conservation of mass
Answer:
B) Law of conservation of momentum

Question 117.
Which of the following represent correct diagram of atwood machine?

Answer:

Question 118.
A boy of mass 30 kg uses a rope to climb which bears nearly 600 N. What is the maximum acceleration with which he can climb safely ?
A) 0.05 ms^-2
B) 20 ms^-2
C) 0
D) 18000 ms^-2
Answer:
B) 20 ms^-2

Question 119.
A ball of mass ‘m’ moves perpendicularly to a wall with a speed ‘v’ strikes it and rebounds with the same speed is the change in momentum.
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv
B) 2 mv
C) mv
D) 0
Answer:
D) 0

Question 120.
The main apparatus in atwood machine
A) Pulley
B) Scale (graduated in centimeters)
C) Barometer
D) Spring balance
Answer:
A) Pulley

Question 121.
Which of the following states the law of constant proportions ?
A) Matter is neither created nor destroyed during a chemicaPreaction.
B) A given chemical substance always contains the same elements combined in fixed proportion.
C) Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties.
D) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in whole number ratios.
Answer:
D) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in whole number ratios.

Question 122.
Which property of an object determines how much inertia it has ?
A) Acceleration of the object
B) Velocity of the object
C) Mass of the object
D) Shape of the object
Answer:
C) Mass of the object

Question 123.
A force of IN acts on a body of mass 5kg. The body covers 100 cm in 2 seconds moving along a straight line. The initial velocity is
A) 200 cm/sec
B) 102 cm/sec
C) 0.5 cm/sec
D) 120 cm/sec
Answer:
D) 120 cm/sec

Question 124.
Take two bricks of different masses and place them on a straight line on the floor. Push both with the same force at the same time with a wooden scale. Which of the following can be observed ?
A) The brick with greater mass moves the same distance as the brick with lesser mass.
B) The brick with greater mass moves more than the brick with lesser mass.
C) The brick with greater mass moves less than the movement of the brick with lesser mass.
D) The brick with greater mass will move and the brick with lesser mass will not move at all.
Answer:
C) The brick with greater mass moves less than the movement of the brick with lesser mass.

Question 125.
When an object exerts a force on the other object, the second object also exerts a force on the first one which is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.
Which of the following is BEST explained by the above ?
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of momentum
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law of motion

Question 126.
NewtonSec is the unit for
A) Momentum
B) Inertia
C) Impulse
D) Force
Answer:
A) Momentum

Question 127.
A suitcase kept in a moving bus moves forward when the bus.
A) Comes to rest
B) Moves forward
C) Takes turn
D) At rest
Answer:
A) Comes to rest

Question 128.
Two people push a car for 2s with a combined net force of 250 N. The impulse providedjo the car is
A) 500 NS
B) 12\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{S}}\)
C) 0
D) 250 N
Answer:
A) 500 NS

Question 129.
In the paper ring activity of our text book we observe the result of
A) Force
B) Inertia
C) Velocity
D) Acceleration
Answer:
B) Inertia

Question 130.
Which of the following law is illustrated by Balloon rocket activity :
A) Newton’s first law
B) Newton’s Second law
C) Newton’s Third law
D) Newton’s Law of Gravity
Answer:
C) Newton’s Third law

Question 131.
S.I. Unit of Force is
i. kgms^-2
ii. \(\frac{\mathrm{kg}}{\mathrm{ms}^{-2}}\)
iii. newton
A) iii only
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) i, ii and iii
Answer:
C) i and iii

Question 132.
Safe way to catch the fast moving cricket ball is, while catching
A) Keep the hands steady
B) Push the hands towards the ball
C) Pull the hands back
D) A and B
Answer:
C) Pull the hands back

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 15 Law and Justice: A Case Study on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Along with the certificate, Kranthi proceeded to the police station to file a report.
A) Doctor
B) Police
C) Samba
D) Ravi
Answer:
A) Doctor

Question 2.
FIR is written by ……………… in Police station.
A) S.I.
B) Writer
C) C.I.
D) Homeguard
Answer:
B) Writer

Question 3.
If we want to lodge a complaint in Police station, this should be given
A) Address
B) Details
C) FIR
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) FIR

Question 4.
The police record the statements of
A) Lawyer
B) Petitioner
C) Accused
D) Witnesses
Answer:
D) Witnesses

Question 5.
Ravi was put in
A) Lockup
B) House
C) Guest House
D) Jail
Answer:
A) Lockup

Question 6.
An example for a crime
A) Bribery
B) Occupying another’s land
C) Divorce
D) Run away from debts
Answer:
A) Bribery

Question 7.
Agreement between two people breaks in ………… cases.
A) Criminal
B) Criminal and Civil
C) Civil
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Civil

Question 8.
To get bail certain sureties should be given in ………….
A) Police Station
B) Lockup
C) Jail
D) Court
Answer:
D) Court

Question 9.
In bailable offences only ………… can give bail.
A) SHO
B) Judge
C) Magistrate
D) Lawyer
Answer:
A) SHO

Question 10.
The laws are executed by
A) Legislative
B) Executive
C) Judiciary
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Executive

Question 11.
Ravi’s work in the lesson
A) Provisional stores
B) Real estate business
C) Money lending
D) Tobacco merchant
Answer:
B) Real estate business

Question 12.
The work of Samba in the lesson
A) Attender in Co-operative Society
B) Attender in industry
C) Vegetable vendor
D) Retail trader
Answer:
A) Attender in Co-operative Society

Question 13.
To whom we have to complaint in police station?
A) Police
B) Head Constable
C) Station House Officer
D) Sarpanch
Answer:
C) Station House Officer

Question 14.
The report of writer as per the information given in the complaint
A) First Information Report
B) Last Information Report
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) First Information Report

Question 15.
FIR means
A) First Information Report
B) First Interest Report
C) First Intellectual Report
D) First Information Relevant
Answer:
A) First Information Report

Question 16.
The following person have power to punish the accused.
A) Police
B) Justice
C) Legislative Assembly
D) Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
B) Justice

Question 17.
Which case can be opened on Ravi for beating Samba?
A) Civil case
B) Criminal case
C) Both A & B
D) Related to the constitution
Answer:
B) Criminal case

Question 18.
The property disputes come under this category of cases
A) Civil
B) Criminal
C) Constitutional
D) None
Answer:
A) Civil

Question 19.
The following should be submitted in the Judiciary to get bail
A) Assets
B) A person stands as surety
C) Bond
D) All the above or some of the above
Answer:
D) All the above or some of the above

Question 20.
Who is the representative of government interests in court?
A) Lawyer
B) Public Prosecutor
C) Judge
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Public Prosecutor

Question 21.
Which one of the following fells that ‘All are equal before law’?
A) Accused
B) Non accused
C) President
D) Law
Answer:
D) Law

Question 22.
He / She must conduct the prosecution on behalf of the state.
A) Asst officer
B) Co-lawyer
C) Asst. Public Prosecutor
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Asst. Public Prosecutor

Question 23.
Umpire like person in the game.
A) Lawyer
B) Complaintant
C) Police
D) Justice
Answer:
D) Justice

Question 24.
The main topic in the Constitution
A) Executive
B) Law framers
C) Differentiating executive, judiciary and legislative powers
D) Controlling police
Answer:
C) Differentiating executive, judiciary and legislative powers

Question 25.
The Officer of Law and Order at the district level.
A) Collector
B) The district level police officer Assisting the Collector
C) Chief executive officer
D) Education officer
Answer:
B) The district level police officer Assisting the Collector

Question 26.
The Police department works under this control.
A) Finance
B) Defence
C) Home
D) Agriculture
Answer:
C) Home

Question 27.
One who feels dissatisfaction with the judgment in the lower court, can ………… to the higher court with this.
A) Appeal
B) Permission
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer:
A) Appeal

Question 28.
The Court at the National level
A) Civil Court
B) Criminal Court
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer:
D) Supreme Court

Question 29.
This court inquires the civil cases at the district level
A) Session Court
B) Zilla Court
C) Court at division level
D) High Court
Answer:
B) Zilla Court

Question 30.
Which court enquires criminal cases district level?
A) District Court
B) Sessions Court
C) Asst. Sessions Judge
D) Jr. Civil Judge
Answer:
B) Sessions Court

Question 31.
The judgement given by the sessions court can be appealed in this court
A) District Court
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) All the above
Answer:
B) High Court

Question 32.
The judgement of the High court can be appealed in this court
A) District Court
B) First Class Magistrate Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Sessions Court
Answer:
C) Supreme Court

Question 33.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                            Group -B
1) High Court              ( )           a) First Information Report
2) Supreme Court       ( )           b) Bail
3) FIR                           ( )           c) Division or town level
4) Accused                   ( )          d) Hyderabad
5) District Court           ( )          e) Delhi
A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – a
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – d
D) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – c

Question 34.
In case the SHO refuses to file the report, the person can go directly to the DSP or Magistrate and file the report. The report can also be sent by post to them.
Pick the correct comment.
A) SHO is the authorised person to file FIR.
B) DSP is the only authorised person for this.
C) Magistrate is the only authorised person for this.
D) None
Answer:
A) SHO is the authorised person to file FIR.

Question 35.
A criminal offence is registered as a public wrong.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The crime is committed against the victims.
B) The crime is committed against the whole family.
C) It is a civil case.
D) The crime is committed not only against the victims but also against society as a whole.
Answer:
D) The crime is committed not only against the victims but also against society as a whole.

Question 36.
Court provides relief to the offended like a house may be vacated by the tenant or dues get paid.
This is related to
A) Civil Law
B) Criminal Law
C) Moral Law
D) Nature’s Law
Answer:
A) Civil Law

Question 37.
‘He is like an umpire in a game and conducts the trial impartially and in an open court.’
He is
A) Public Prosecutor
B) Advocate
C) Judge
D) Law Minister
Answer:
C) Judge

Question 38.
Who is our high court chief Justice ?
A) Ramesh Ranganathan
B) Gopal Ballav
C) Altamas Kabir
D) K.G. Balakrishnan
Answer:
A) Ramesh Ranganathan

Question 39.
The main function of Police
A) Listens to the witnesses
B) Record the witnesses
C) Takes photos of burned houses
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
The main function of Judge
A) Delivers judgment
B) Orders to conduct medical tests to the women
C) Conducts judicial inquiry, meets the accused
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Practice the AP 9th Class Physical Science Bits with Answers Chapter 1 Motion on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science Bits 1st Lesson Motion with Answers

Question 1.
A body released from height ‘h’ takes time’t’ to reach the ground. After time t/2, its height from the ground is
A) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{3 h}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{3}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{3 h}{4}\)

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) Distance ≥ Displacement
B) \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Displacement }}\) ≥ 1
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 3.
Ratio of the distance travelled in 1 second, 2 seconds, 3 seconds
A) 1² : 2² : 3²
B) 1 : 3 : 5
C) 1 : 2 : 3
D) 1: 5 : 9
Answer:
A) 1² : 2² : 3²

Question 4.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is the same irrespective of size and mass of body.
B) Acceleration in vacuum is absent.
C) Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum depends on mass.
D) Acceleration due to gravity is zero at poles.
Answer:
A) Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is the same irrespective of size and mass of body.

Question 5.
If a body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower the time taken by it to reach the ground depends upon
A) velocity of projection
B) height of the tower
C) both A & B
D) neither of these two
Answer:
B) height of the tower

Question 6.
Both average velocity and average instantaneous velocity are equal when a body is moving with
A) uniform velocity in same direction
B) uniform velocity in different directions
C) uniform acceleration
D) none
Answer:
A) uniform velocity in same direction

Question 7.
A body projected vertically with a velocity ‘u’ from ground. Its velocity
A) at half of maximum height is \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{2}\)
B) at \(\frac{3^{\text {th }}}{4}\) of maximum height is \(\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
C) at \(\frac{1}{3}^{\mathrm{rd}}\) of maximum height is \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\) u
D) at \(\frac{1^{\text {th }}}{4}\) of maximum height is \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\) u
Answer:
C) at \(\frac{1}{3}^{\mathrm{rd}}\) of maximum height is \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\) u

Question 8.
A freely falling body describes a distance x in first 2 seconds and a distance y in next 2 seconds. Then
A) y = x
B) y = 2x
C) x = 2y
D) y = 3x
Answer:
D) y = 3x

Question 9.
The height from which a body is released is numerically equal to the velocity acquired finally. Then that height is
A) g
B) 2g
C) 4g
D) 8g
Answer:
B) 2g

Question 10.
A physical quantity with magnitude as well as direction is called ………………. quantity.
A) scalar
B) vector
C) linear
D) none of these
Answer:
B) vector

Question 11.
Speed of a body at any particular instance is known as ………………….
A) velocity
B) average speed
C) instantaneous speed
D) none of these
Answer:
C) instantaneous speed

Question 12.
The physical quantity with only magnitude is called ………………….
A) scalar
B) vector
C) axial
D) linear
Answer:
A) scalar

Question 13.
Instantaneous speed can be represented by ………………… of the curve at a given instant of time.
A) distance
B) midpoint
C) slope
D) none of these
Answer:
C) slope

Question 14.
Average speed = ………………….
A) \(\frac{\text { Total distance }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
B) \(\frac{\text { Total time }}{\text { Total distance }}\)
C) \(\frac{\text { Total displacement }}{\text { Total time }}\)
D) \(\frac{\text { Total time }}{\text { Total displacement }}\)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{\text { Total distance }}{\text { Time taken }}\)

Question 15.
Statement – I : 1 km/hr = \(\frac{5}{18}\) m/s
Statement – II: 1 m/s = \(\frac{18}{5}\) km/hr
A) Both the statements are true.
B) Both the statements are false.
C) Statement -1 is true and statement – II is false.
D) Statement -1 is false and statement – II is true.
Answer:
A) Both the statements are true.

Question 16.
In …………………. motion distance and displacement are same.
A) curvilinear
B) rotational
C) vibrational
D) rectilinear
Answer:
D) rectilinear

Question 17
…………….. is the rate of change of velocity.
A) Displacement
B) Velocity
C) Acceleration
D) Momentum
Answer:
C) Acceleration

Question 18.
Negative acceleration is called …………………..
A) deceleration
B) retardation
C) both A & B
D) neither A nor B
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 19.
If the speed of an object decreases, the direction of velocity and acceleration are in ………………….. direction.
A) same
B) opposite
C) unable to say
D) none of these
Answer:
A) same

Question 20.
If an object moves constant velocity then acceleration is …………………….
A) positive
B) negative
C) zero
D) none of these
Answer:
C) zero

Question 21.
At maximum height the final velocity is …………………….
A) u
B) \(\frac{\mathbf{u}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\)
C) \(\frac{2 \mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{g}}\)
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 22.
A body is projected horizontally with a velocity \(\sqrt{29}\) m/s from a height 10 m, the velocity on reaching the ground ……………… m/s.
A) \(\sqrt{29}\)
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Answer:
C) 15

Question 23.
Speed in specified direction is called …………………..
A) displacement
B) velocity
C) acceleration
D) momentum
Answer:
B) velocity

Question 24.
If an ant completes one circular motion, then the displacement is
A) 2πr
B) πr
C) 4πr
D) zero
Answer:
D) zero

Question 25.
When a train comes to rest, then the acceleration is …………………..
A) positive
B) negative
C) maximum
D) none of these
Answer:
B) negative

Question 26.
Direction of acceleration is along the direction of ………………………….
A) velocity
B) constant velocity
C) increase in velocity
D) all the above
Answer:
A) velocity

Question 27.
The motion is said to be ……………….. if acceleration is constant.
A) uniform motion
B) uniform accelerated motion
C) non-uniform accelerated motion
D) none of these
Answer:
B) uniform accelerated motion

Question 28.
The S.I unit of acceleration is ……………….
A) m
B) m/s
C) m/s²
D) m²/s
Answer:
C) m/s²

Question 29.
If the direction of velocity changes continuously and speed remains constant, then the body will be in ………………… motion.
A) circular
B) rotatory
C) non-uniform circular
D) uniform circular
Answer:
D) uniform circular

Question 30.
The unit of distance is
A) m
B) s
C) kg
D) m/s
Answer:
A) m

Question 31.
The unit of speed is
A) m
B) m/s
C) m/s²
D) m²/s
Answer:
B) m/s

Question 32.
The unit of force is ……………………
A) kg
B) Newton
C) Kelvin
D) kg m/s
Answer:
B) Newton

Question 33.
Average velocity = …………………………
A) \(\frac{\text { Total distance }}{\text { Total time }}\)
B) \(\frac{\text { Total displacement }}{\text { Total time }}\)
C) Totcil distance × Total time
D) \(\frac{\text { Total time }}{\text { Total displacement }}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\text { Total displacement }}{\text { Total time }}\)

Question 34.
First law of motion is
A) v = u + at
B) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
C) v² – u² = 2as
D) S_n^th= u + \(\frac{1}{2}\) a(n – A)
Answer:
A) v = u + at

Question 35.
Second law of motion is ……………………
A) v = u + at
B) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
C) v² – u² = 2as
D) None of these
Answer:
B) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²

Question 36.
Third law of motion is
A) v = u + at
B) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
C) v² – u² = 2as
D) None of these
Answer:
C) v² – u² = 2as

Question 37.
Acceleration = …………………
A) a = \(\frac{\mathbf{v}-\mathbf{u}}{\mathbf{t}}\)
B) a = \(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
C) a = \(\frac{s}{t}\)
D) a = v × t
Answer:
A) a = \(\frac{\mathbf{v}-\mathbf{u}}{\mathbf{t}}\)

Question 38.
Which of the following is a false statement ?
A) The motion of an object depends on the position of an observer.
B) The rest of an object depends on the position of an observer.
C) Motion is relative.
D) Rest is not relative.
Answer:
D) Rest is not relative.

Question 39.
Assertion (A): Displacement is a vector.
Reason (R) : Displacement has both magnitude and direction.
A) Both A and R are true and R supports A.
B) Both A and R are true but R does not support A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R supports A.

Question 40.
A particle moved in a circular path and reached to starting point. Then the displacement is
A) 2πr
B) πr²
C) zero
D) 2r
Answer:
C) zero

Question 41.
Distance : meter :: displacement:
A) m²
B) m/s
C) 1/m
D) m
Answer:
D) m

Question 42.
If the distance between to points is ‘x’ meters, then the displacement is
A) = x meters
B) > x meters
C) < x meters
D) A or C
Answer:
D) A or C

Question 43.
Average speed :\(\frac{\text { total distance }}{\text { time taken }}\) : : …………….. : \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)
A) average velocity
B) average acceleration
C) average force
D) none of the given
Answer:
A) average velocity

Question 44.
Average velocity becomes zero, if a particle move in this way of points.
A) A → B
B) A → B → C
C) A → B → C → B
D) A → B → C → A
Answer:
D) A → B → C → A

Question 45.
If the speedometer of a car indicates a constant reading, then the car is in
A) uniform motion
B) non – uniform motion
C) circular motion
D) no motion
Answer:
A) uniform motion

Question 46.
The shape of a S – t graph for a nonuniform motion always be
A) straight line
B) curved line
C) A or B
D) none
Answer:
C) A or B

Question 47.
If the revolving of earth stops, its path of escaping is
A) along the direction of velocity vector
B) along the direction of curved path
C) along the direction of diameter of the curved path
D) we cannot say
Answer:
A) along the direction of velocity vector

Question 48.
Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of a clock in one hour
A) distance is zero
B) displacement is zero
C) the average speed is zero
D) average velocity is non-zero
Answer:
A) distance is zero

Question 49.
An object may have
A) varying speed without having varying velocity
B) varying velocity without having varying velocity
C) non-zero acceleration without having varying velocity
D) zero acceleration without having varying speed
Answer:
B) varying velocity without having varying velocity

Question 50.
Two bullets A & B fired simultaneously, horizontally and with different speeds from the same plane. Which bullet will hit the ground first ?
A) A
B) B
C) A and B
D) Depend on their masses
Answer:
C) A and B

Question 51.
A body is projected vertically up from ground with a speed \(\sqrt{\mathbf{g h}}\) . The average speed of total motion is
A) \(\sqrt{\frac{g h}{2}}\)
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{g h}}{2}\)
C) \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{gh}}\)
D) none
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\sqrt{g h}}{2}\)

Question 52.
A freely falling body crosses the points A, B and C with velocities v, 2v, 3v. Then AB : AC =
A) 1 : 2
B) 1 : 3
C) 1 : 1
D) 3 : 8
Answer:
D) 3 : 8

Question 53.
A body falling for 2 sec. covers a distance ‘s’ equals to that covered in next second. If g = 10 m/s², s =
A) 30 m
B) 10 m
C) 60 m
D) 20 m
Answer:
A) 30 m

Question 54.
Take a ball and release it from the top of a inclined plane, what is your observation ?
A) Speed of the ball is constant.
B) Speed of the ball increases gradually.
C) Speed of the ball decreases gradually.
D) Speed first increases and then decreases.
Answer:
B) Speed of the ball increases gradually.

Question 55.
Tie a stone to a rope. Whirl the rope and rotate the stone in a circular path cut the rope. Your observation is
A) stone moves along the tangent of the path.
B) stone falls in the centre of the path.
C) stone takes revers direction.
D) none
Answer:
A) stone moves along the tangent of the path.

Question 56.
A vector can be represented as a directed line segment in which length indicates ………………….. and arrow indicates ………………..
A) magnitude, direction
B) direction, magnitude
C) magnitude, speed
D) speed, velocity
Answer:
A) magnitude, direction

Question 57.
The shape of distance vs time graph for a body which is in uniform motion is ………………….
A) curve
B) straight line
C) zig zag
D) none of these
Answer:
B) straight line

Question 58.
A car was travelled in the given route. Observe the route.
More distance but least displacement are existed in between ……………. and …………… points.

A) A, B
B) A, C
C) A, D
D) B, D
Answer:
C) A, D

Question 59.

Who has greatest average speed ?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Answer:
D) D

Question 60.
The average speed between B to C is
A) 1.5 m/s
B) 2.5 m/s
C) 2m/s
D) 4m/s
Answer:
B) 2.5 m/s

Question 61.
In the above graph speed is high at
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) speed is equal
Answer:
B) B

Question 62.

The s, t graph is

Answer:

Question 63.

The graph represents
A) uniform motion
B) non – uniform motion
C) no motion
D) constant motion
Answer:
C) no motion

Question 64.

The graph represents
A) uniform motion
B) non – uniform motion
C) no motion
D) circular motion
Answer:
A) uniform motion

Question 65.

A particle ‘x’ travelling in uniform circular motion. Then its
A) speed is constant and velocity is also constant.
B) speed is constant and velocity changes.
C) speed changes and velocity Is con stant.
D) speed and velocity are change.
Answer:
B) speed is constant and velocity changes.

Question 66.

From the given diagram we can say that the object.
A) has maximum speed at ‘C’
B) travelled in uniform motion.
C) has minimum speed at ‘A’.
D) A and C
Answer:
D) A and C

Question 67.
v = u + at …………………. 1
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² ……………….. 2
v² = 2as + u² …………………. 3
v² + u² = 2as …………………. 4
Which of the above is not a equation of uniform acceleration ? ( )
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
C) 4

Question 68.
This graph represents the body is moving with

A) uniform acceleration
B) uniform speed
C) uniform deceleration
D) constant speed
Answer:
A) uniform acceleration

Question 69.
A particle moves along the side of a square of length ‘l’ starting from A and reaches the opposite comer ‘C’ by travelling from A to B and B to C in time the average velocity is

A) \(\frac{2 l}{\mathrm{t}}\)
B) \(\frac{l}{\sqrt{2} \mathrm{t}}\)
C) Zero
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{2} l}{t}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{2} l}{t}\)

Question 70.
Slope of the distance vs time graph
A) displacement
B) speed
C) velocity
D) acceleration
Answer:
B) speed

Question 71.
Vector can be represented by

Answer:

Question 72.
The displacement vector to A and B points in the given figure is

Answer:

Question 73.
Draw the displacement vector to AB.

Answer:

Question 74.
The diagram of the direction of velocity at point ‘M’ of path when a body moves from P to Q.

Answer:

Question 75.

If we draw the s, t graph, it look like

Answer:

Question 76.
If the average speed of a bus is 40 m/s. What is the time to travel a distance of 12 km?
A) 5 min
B) 300 min
C) 480 min
D) None
Answer:
A) 5 min

Question 77.
Sridevi uses a scooter to go her office. The initial and final readings of speedometer are 4849 and 5549 respectively. The total time taken to travel that distance is 25 h. The average speed of her daily journey is
A) 28 m/hr
B) 28 km/hr
C) 2800 m/sec
D) 2.8 km/hr
Answer:
B) 28 km/hr

Question 78.
The device that shows the average speed of the vehicle is
A) Speedometer
B) Gear box
C) Odometer
D) A or C
Answer:
D) A or C

Question 79.
A particle on a blade of the electrical fan moves in
A) uniform motion
B) uniform speed
C) circular path
D) above all
Answer:
D) above all

Question 80.
ACB is an arc of a circle and ADB is the diameter of that circle.
The ratio of distance and displacement from A to B is

A) π
B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
C) 2π
D) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 81.
A car was moved from A to B of distance 4800 m in 4 hrs. If its speed is 10 m/s, the ratio of distance and dis-placement between A to B is
A) 1 : 2
B) 2 : 1
C) 1: 1
D) 1 : 5
Answer:
B) 2 : 1

Question 82.
Motion of a rocket: (a) ::
Motion of a satellite around the earth: (b)
A) (a) = uniform; (b) = non – uniform
B) (a) = non – uniform; (b) = uniform
C) (a) = uniform; (b) = uniform
D) (a) = non – uniform;
(b) = non – uniform
Answer:
B) (a) = non – uniform; (b) = uniform

Question 83.
An apple is falling from a tree. It has
A) constant speed
B) constant velocity
C) constant direction
D) B and C
Answer:
C) constant direction

Question 84.
If we are travelling in a bus, when the driver presses the acceleration, our bodies press against the seat due to
A) acceleration
B) uniform motion
C) deceleration
D) none
Answer:
A) acceleration

Question 85.
Deceleration observes in
A) moving train comes to rest
B) starting of the train
C) both A and B
D) motion of earth
Answer:
A) moving train comes to rest

Question 86.
A ball is thrown upwards with 10 m/s velocity after 1 sec, what is its height?
A) 10 m
B) 5 m
C) 15 m
D) 0 m
Answer:
B) 5 m

Question 87.
The speedometre of a bike gives
A) instantaneous speed
B) uniform speed
C) uniform velocity
D) acceleration
Answer:
A) instantaneous speed

Question 88.
A body is moving with initial velocity 30 m/s. After certain time it acquires velocity of 40 m/s, then the velocity in middle of its journey is
A) 25√2
B) 50
C) 25
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{50}}{2}\)
Answer:
A) 25√2

Question 89.
With respect to passengers in a moving bus the state of motion of tree is ………………….
A) rest
B) motion in same direction
C) motion in opposite direction
D) none of these
Answer:
C) motion in opposite direction

Question 90.
When we apply brakes to car then travels with ………………………
A) acceleration
B) constant velocity
C) retardation
D) none of these
Answer:
C) retardation

Question 91.
What happens if we remove mudguard from two wheelers predict ?
A) Mud moves tangentially in all directions.
B) The look of the two wheeler increases.
C) Mud will stick to the wheels and speed decreases.
D) Mud will not fall on the two wheeler.
Answer:
C) Mud will stick to the wheels and speed decreases.

Question 92.
Observe the figure given and the wrong question regarding relative position :

A) On which side of the road is the tree located ?
B) On which side of the tree is the house located ?
C) Where is the house located with respect to road ?
D) How many persons are there in the figure ?
Answer:
D) How many persons are there in the figure ?

Question 93.
The experimental arrangement correct order is:
a. Keep the steel plate on the floor at the bottom of the tube.
b. Mark the readings in cm along the tube.
c. Take a long plastic tube of length nearly 200 cm which is be into half along the length.
d. Place one end of the tube on the book and the other end on the floor.
A) c, d, b, a
B) c, d, a, b
C) c, b, d, a
D) a, b, c, d
Answer:
B) c, d, a, b

Question 94.
The apparatus which is missing in the above question (3) to perform the experiment is
a. Glass marble
b. Digital stop clock
c. Thermocol ball
A) a and b
B) c only
C) b only
D) a, b and c
Answer:
A) a and b

Observe the table given below answer the questions 5 and 6:

Question 95.
What do you generalise from the table given above ?
A) Non-uniform velocity
B) Rest
C) Accelerated motion
D) Uniform velocity
Answer:
D) Uniform velocity

Question 96.
The correct graph representing the above table is

Answer:

Question 97.
The distance(s) – time(t) graph which represents rainy drops which are falling from certain height with uniform velocity is

Answer:

Question 98.
A car covers half the distance at a speed of 60 kmh^-1 and the other half at a speed of 40 km h^-1. The average speed of the car is
A) 44.44 km h^-1
B) 50 km h^-1
C) 48 km h^-1
D) 0
Answer:
B) 50 km h^-1

Question 99.
Mithilesh wanted to find instantaneous speed of the car in which he was travelling. He should see which one of the following meters ?
A) Anaemometer
B) Odometer
C) Speedometer
D) Thermometer
Answer:
C) Speedometer

Question 100.
An example for a motion where the speed and direction of motion both changes continuously is
A) Ball moving down the inclined plane
B) Throwing stone into the air, making some angle with the horizontal
C) Ball moving up the inclined plane
D) Whirling stone
Answer:
B) Throwing stone into the air, making some angle with the horizontal

Question 101.
Velocity : ms^-1 :: acceleration :
A) ms^-2
B) m²s
C) m^-2s
D) ms²
Answer:
A) ms^-2

Question 102.
When the driver pushes the accelerator of the car, then
A) the time interval to reach the destination decreases.
B) the time interval to reach the destination remains the same.
C) the speed and time interval both increase.
D) the time interval to reach the destination increases.
Answer:
A) the time interval to reach the destination decreases.

Question 103.
In the below graph, the velocity in ms^-1 is

A) 1/2 ms^-1
B) Not defined
C) 50 ms^-1
D) 2 ms^-1
Answer:
D) 2 ms^-1

Question 104.
Which of the following is not a vector?
A) Speed
B) Acceleration
C) Velocity
D) Displacement
Answer:
A) Speed

Question 105.
The velocity of the car was measured by a traffic police through his radar gun at that instant. The gun measured
A) Instantaneous acceleration
B) Instantaneous velocity
C) Average acceleration
D) Average velocity
Answer:
B) Instantaneous velocity

Question 106.
Siva completed half revolution of circular path of radius ‘a’ units. Displace-ment of Siva is
A) ‘a’ units
B) ‘2a’ units
C) πa units
D) 2πa units
Answer:
B) ‘2a’ units

Question 107.
Acceleration of a person moving with constant velocity
A) Infinite
B) Positive acceleration
C) Negative acceleration
D) Zero
Answer:
D) Zero

Question 108.
Thanish starts at 8 am to Ananthapuram from Amaravathi and reaches at 6pm. The distance between Amaravathi and Ananthapuram is 500 km. Average velocity of Thanish is
A) 0 km / hour
B) 40 km / hour
C) 50 km / hour
D) 60 km / hour
Answer:
C) 50 km / hour

Question 109.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. What would be the displacement after completely distance of exactly one circle i.e ‘r’ ?
A) 0
B) r
C) 2r
D) \(\frac{r}{2}\)
Answer:
A) 0

Question 110.
Which of the following is a scalar quantity ?
A) Velocity
B) Momentum
C) Impulse
D) Mass
Answer:
D) Mass

Question 111.
What does the slope of a displacement and time graph represent ?
A) Mass
B) Velocity
C) Acceleration
D) Momentum
Answer:
B) Velocity

Question 112.
The ratio of speed and velocity is
A) Always equal to 1
B) Always greater than 1
C) Always less than 1
D) Depends on the direction of motion
Answer:
B) Always greater than 1

Question 113.
Based on the direction find the Odd one.
A) Velocity
B) Displacement
C) Speed
D) Acceleration
Answer:
C) Speed

Question 114
……………….. is speed in Specified direction.
A) Distance
B) Velocity
C) Acceleration
D) Displacement
Answer:
B) Velocity

Question 115.
Match the following equations of uniform accelerated motion formulae:

A) P -X, Q – Y, R – Z
B) P – Y, Q – X, R – Z
C) P – Z, Q – X, R – Y
D) P – Y, Q – Z, R – X
Answer:
B) P – Y, Q – X, R – Z

Question 116.
Distance – time graph is shown in the figure.
Predict the equivalent velocity – time graph
among the following is

Answer:

Question 117.
Which of the following is Non-Uniform motion :
A) Motion of a ball on inclined plane
B) Uniform circular motion
C) A stone thrown in air
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 118.
If the equation of motion of an object is v² = 2as, the initial velocity is ……….
A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) 10 m/s
D) We can’t say
Answer:
A) Zero

Question 119.
Which of the following graph indicate uniform velocity ?

Answer:

Question 120.
For a vector A B which of the following is correct ?
A) length indicates magnitude
B) arrow indicates direction
C) both A and B
D) is a scalar
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 121.
Assertion (A) : Speedometer of a vehicle reads instantaneous velocity
Reason (R) : The speed at any instant is called instantaneous velocity
A) Both A and R are correct, R is correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are correct, R is not correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, R is incorrect
D) A is incorrect, R is correct
Answer:
A) Both A and R are correct, R is correct explanation of A

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 14 Parliament and Central Government on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. provides for parliamentary form of government to our country.
A) Constitution
B) Congress
C) British
D) Judiciary
Answer:
A) Constitution

Question 2.
Lok Sabha TV Channel in Delhi telecasts the discussing, taking place in the ……………. House.
A) Prime Minister’s
B) Parliament
C) President’s
D) Speaker’s
Answer:
B) Parliament

Question 3.
In ………….. the Parliament adopted a National Policy on education.
A) 1985
B) 1984
C) 1986
D) 1987
Answer:
C) 1986

Question 4.
While discussions are going on in the Parliament any of the may ask questions for clarification.
A) Press
B) Visitors
C) Members
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Members

Question 5.
Maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha
A) 250
B) 260
C) 200
D) 230
Answer:
A) 250

Question 6.
If there is any difference of opinion, the final decision will be taken in ………….. session.
A) Party
B) Joint
C) Cabinet
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Joint

Question 7.
………….. has special powers.
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Parliament
C) Lok Sabha
D) Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
C) Lok Sabha

Question 8.
Number of seats in Lok Sabha
A) 525
B) 530
C) 585
D) 545
Answer:
D) 545

Question 9.
Number of elections conducted for our Lok Sabha
A) 16 times
B) 10 times
C) 8 times
D) 6 times
Answer:
A) 16 times

Question 10.
……….. acts as Chairman to Rajya Sabha.
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Governor
Answer:
B) Vice-President

Question 11.
The is the highest law making body.
A) Assembly
B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court
D) High Court
Answer:
B) Parliament

Question 12.
Our Parliament building is here
A) New Delhi
B) Old Delhi
C) Simla
D) Hyderabad
Answer:
A) New Delhi

Question 13.
The National Educational Policy was designed in the year
A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1986
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1986

Question 14.
In the year ……………. the Parliament passed the “Right of children to free and compulsory education Act.
A) 2008
B) 2009
C) 2010
D) 2012
Answer:
B) 2009

Question 15.
Every year, the government presents the …………….. for the approval of the Parliament.
A) Annual budget
B) Annual report
C) Economical finance
D) None
Answer:
A) Annual budget

Question 16.
The maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha
A) 255
B) 250
C) 245
D) 238
Answer:
B) 250

Question 17.
The tenure of Rajya Sabha members
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 9 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 18.
The tenure of Rajya Sabha
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) Permanent Sabha
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Permanent Sabha

Question 19.
………….. Controls council of Ministers
A) Lok sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Lok sabha

Question 20.
If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say that they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers have to quit.
A) Prime minister
B) Parliament members
C) All ministers including the Prime Minister
D) All the above
Answer:
C) All ministers including the Prime Minister

Question 21.
This state has maximum number of Lok Sabha members
A) Bihar
B) A.P.
C) W. Bengal
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
D) Uttar Pradesh

Question 22.
This state has lowest number of Lok Sabha members
A) Mizoram
B) Nagaland
C) Sikkim
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 23.
The term of Lok sabha
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 4 years
Answer:
A) 5 years

Question 24.
The number of Parliament constituencies in Andhra Pradesh
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 25.
The first General elections to the Loksabha
A) 1951
B) 1951-52
C) 1953
D) 1954
Answer:
B) 1951-52

Question 26.
The number of voters in the first Lok Sabha election
A) 17,30,00,000
B) 18,30,00,000
C) 19,30,00,000
D) 20,00,00,000
Answer:
A) 17,30,00,000

Question 27.
“The election are “a leap in the dark” to India” The reason behind this.
A) India is a caste – based society
B) India is a religion – based society
C) India is formed on liguistic base
D) None
Answer:
A) India is a caste – based society

Question 28.
An …………… was set up to conduct the elections in a free and fair.
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Society
C) Comptroller and Auditor General
D) Attorney General
Answer:
A) Election Commission

Question 29.
The number of polling center’s in the first general elections.
A) 2,20,000
B) 2,24,000
C) 3,20,000
D) 3,24,000
Answer:
B) 2,24,000

Question 30.
The Election Officers who observed the first Indian elections
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs
D) 20 lakhs
Answer:
B) 10 lakhs

Question 31.
The percentage of women that took part in first general elections and used their voting right.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer:
C) 40

Question 32.
The …………% of people who used voting right in general elections in 2014.
A) 58%
B) 66.4%
C) 59%
D) 60%
Answer:
B) 66.4%

Question 33.
The number of contestant parties in 201 general elections.
A) 400
B) 450
C) 464
D) 500
Answer:
C) 464

Question 34.
The ………….% of women contestants in 2014 general elections
A) 89%
B) 11 %
C) 91 %
D) 9%
Answer:
B) 11 %

Question 35.
The number of voters in 2014 general elections.
A) 93,00,00,241
B) 83,00,00,000
C) 83,41,01,479
D) 83,14,10,974
Answer:
C) 83,41,01,479

Question 36.
One of the following does not related to the Central list.
A) Telegraph
B) Telephone
C) Defence
D) Agriculture
Answer:
D) Agriculture

Question 37.
One of the following does not related to the State list.
A) agriculture
B) police
C) Medical services
D) Army
Answer:
D) Army

Question 38.
One of the following does not related to the concurrent list.
A) Electricity
B) Factories or industries
C) Labourers
D) Medical services
Answer:
D) Medical services

Question 39.
Who elects president?
A) All the elected members of all state assemblies
B) The elected members of both parliament houses
C) The elected members of state vidhana parishads
D) Both A & B
Answer:
D) Both A & B

Question 40.
Rajya Sabha Chairman
A) President
B) Vice-president
C) Speaker
D) Deputy speaker
Answer:
B) Vice-president

Question 41.
Council of Ministers are elected from.
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Both the Sabhas
D) None
Answer:
C) Both the Sabhas

Question 42.
The head of the Executive
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Council of Minister
D) Speaker
Answer:
A) President

Question 43.
All the decisions of the government are on the name of the head of the state
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Vice President
D) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer:
B) President

Question 44.
Who elects Prime Minister?
A) Members of Lok Sabha
B) Members of Rajya Sabha
C) Members of Both in Sabhas
D) Members of Vidhana Parishad
Answer:
A) Members of Lok Sabha

Question 45.
The Executive in the government
A) Ministry
B) Prime Minister
C) Lok Sabha
D) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
A) Ministry

Question 46.
Who works in the Ministry with minister?
A) Secretary
B) Joint Secretary
C) Official Staff
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 47.
The number of Lok Sabha seats that won buy the Congress Party in 1952 first general elections
A) 300
B) 350
C) 364
D) 370
Answer:
C) 364

Question 48.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                                             Group – B
1) Free and compulsory universal education           ( )         a) 6 years
2) The term of office of Rajya Sabha members       ( )          b) A leap in the dark, a large and complex task
3) Andhra Pradesh                                                   ( )          c) 489 members
4) Elections (1951-5B)                                              ( )          d) 25 Constituencies
5) First Lok Sabha                                                     ( )          e) 2009
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – c
B) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – a
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – e, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c
Answer:
D) 1 – e, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c

Question 49.
The Parliament passed the ‘Right of children to free and compulsory education Act’ in 2009.
Pick the correct comment.
A) This is a meaningless act.
B) This is to attract the voters of the nation.
C) This is to ensure that all children get quality education.
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) This is to ensure that all children get quality education.

Question 50.
‘Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters’.
Pick the correct comment.
A) The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected.
B) The members of Lok Sabha are indirectly elected.
C) The members of I ok ??.bha are nominated.
D) The members of Lok Sabha are appointed.
Answer:
A) The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected.

Question 51.
The response of the people to the new opportunity was tremendous. They participated in the polls, fully aware that their vote was a prized possession.
These lines tell us about
A) The elections of the Constituent Assembly
B) The house to house survey
C) The elections in 1935-36
D) The elections in 1951-52
Answer:
D) The elections in 1951-52

Question 52.
Name of the President of India
A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B) Ramnath Kovind
C) Pranab Mukherjee
D) K.R. Narayanan
Answer:
B) Ramnath Kovind

Question 53.
Why are the Andhra Pradesh Parliament constituencies reduced to 25 from 42?
A) Population decreased
B) Centre decision
C) State bifurcation
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) State bifurcation

Question 54.
The party next to the Congress Party won the majority of seats in 1952 first general elections.
A) Bharathiya Jana Sangh
B) Janata Dal
C) Communists and Allies
D) Kisan Majdoor Praja Party
Answer:
C) Communists and Allies

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 13 The Indian Constitution on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson The Indian Constitution with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Our leaders who taught against British rule, wanted the future government of India to be
A) Democratic
B) Anarchical
C) Monarchy
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Democratic

Question 2.
All the civilians have …………. rights.
A) Adult
B) Fundamental
C) Children
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Fundamental

Question 3.
Motilal Nehru and eight other Indian National Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India in ……….
A) 1948
B) 1949
C) 1928
D) 1938
Answer:
C) 1928

Question 4.
In 1931, the resolution at the session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how independent India’s Constitution should look like.
A) Lahore
B) Lucknow
C) Jaipur
D) Karachi
Answer:
D) Karachi

Question 5.
The Socialist Revolution in Russia and had inspired many Indians to think of shaping a system based on social and economic equality.
A) China
B) France
C) Afghanisthan
D) Kajakisthan
Answer:
A) China

Question 6.
There were …………….. women members in our Constituent Assembly.
A) 14
B) 15
C) 16
D) 13
Answer:
B) 15

Question 7.
The first Prime Minister of India was
A) L.B. Sastry
B) Motilal Nehru
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Gandhiji
Answer:
C) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 8.
The members of the Constituent Assembly deliberated for …………. days.
A) 111
B) 142
C) 113
D) 114
Answer:
D) 114

Question 9.
The values that formed the foundation for India’s democracy are embedded in the …………… of the Indian Constitution.
A) Preamble
B) First part
C) Second part
D) Third Part
Answer:
A) Preamble

Question 10.
………….. is the head of the Government.
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Speaker
D) All the above
Answer:
B) President

Question 11.
The government ruled the people by the elected representatives.
A) Kulina rule
B) Democracy
C) Kingship
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Democracy

Question 12.
A …………. is a set of rules about how the country should be governed.
A) Constitution
B) Report
C) Summary
D) Complex, picture
Answer:
A) Constitution

Question 13.
This is mentioned in the Constitution.
A) How to make laws?
B) How to change laws?
C) How the government forms?
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
The amendments that were done to the Indian Constitution till 2011.
A) 90
B) 95
C) 97
D) 100
Answer:
C) 97

Question 15.
The main objective of our national movement.
A) Fighting against foreign rule
B) Eradication of inequalities
C) Eradication of exploitation and discrimination in our society
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 16.
The Indian Constitution was drafted in 1928 before independence under the leadership of
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Motilal Nehru
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
B) Motilal Nehru

Question 17.
In 1931, the resolution at the session of the INC dwelt on how independent India’s Constitution should look like.
A) Calcutta
B) Karachi
C) Bombay
D) Pune
Answer:
B) Karachi

Question 18.
The international incidents that inspired the Indian National leaders
A) Ideals of French Revolution
B) Britain Parliamentary democracy
C) American Rights Act
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 19.
Elections were held in …………….. to Provincial Legislatures and Ministries all over British India.
A) 1935
B) 1936
C) 1937
D) 1940
Answer:
C) 1937

Question 20.
Elections were held to the Constituent Assembly.
A) July, 1946
B) July 1947
C) August 1946
D) August, 1947
Answer:
A) July, 1946

Question 21.
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was conducted in
A) December, 1946
B) December, 1947
C) July, 1946
D) July, 1947
Answer:
A) December, 1946

Question 22.
The number of members in the Constituent Assembly.
A) 280
B) 299
C) 300
D) 305
Answer:
B) 299

Question 23.
The Indian Constitution adopted the Constitution on
A) 26-11 -1949
B) 26-09-1949
C) 26-10-1949
D) 26-01-1949
Answer:
A) 26-11 -1949

Question 24.
The Indian Constitution came into existence on
A) 26-11-1949
B) 26-01-1950
C) 15-8-1947
D) 26-11-1948
Answer:
B) 26-01-1950

Question 25.
The Republic day in India
A) 15th August
B) 9th January
C) 26th January
D) 1st November
Answer:
C) 26th January

Question 26.
The handwork of India for world peace and the welfare of human beings is called
A) Ideals resolution
B) Objectives resolution
C) Taking decisions
D) Summary of declarations
Answer:
B) Objectives resolution

Question 27.
Bringing changes in the contents of the Constitution is called
A) constitutional amendment
B) constitutional prerana
C) Peoples change
D) clear change
Answer:
A) constitutional amendment

Question 28.
The recording of each and every word that was spoken in the Constituent Assembly is called ………..
A) Constitutional Amendment
B) Constituent Assembly
C) Constituent Assembly Debates
D) Adoption of Constitution
Answer:
C) Constituent Assembly Debates

Question 29.
Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. But he wrote his vision about the constitution in his ……………. magazine in 1931.
A) Hanizan
B) Young India
C) Amrith Bazar Pathrika
D) Sanjeevani
Answer:
B) Young India

Question 30.
The dream of an India without inequality was shared by
A) Alladi Krishna Swamy Ayyangar
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) D.P. Khaithan
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 31.
“One man one vote and one vote one value” India follows this principle Who said these words?
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Vallabhai patel
Answer:
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 32.
The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer. These words are said by
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 33.
“We the people of India, having resolved to constitute India into a Republic and to secure to all its citizen’s Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity give ourselves this Constitution,” was mentioned in the
A) Preamble
B) Democracy
C) Sovereignty
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Preamble

Question 34.
The state that has an elected head as its head
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialist
Answer:
B) Republic

Question 35.
India will have the supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters and make her own laws.
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialism
Answer:
C) Sovereign

Question 36.
Which country tries to reduce and eradicate all kinds of inequalities?
A) Democracy
B) Republic
C) Sovereign
D) Socialist
Answer:
D) Socialist

Question 37.
Citizens will have complete freedom to follow any religion or no religion at all.
A) Socialism
B) Secularism
C) Democracy
D) Republic
Answer:
B) Secularism

Question 38.
In this type of government, all the people enjoy equal political rights
A) Socialism
B) Secularism
C) Democracy
D) Republic
Answer:
C) Democracy

Question 39.
All citizens should get what is their due in determining what is due to than no discrimination will be made on account of their birth, caste, tribe, community or beliefs, or wealth or status.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Secularism
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
A) Justice

Question 40.
All public offices shall be open to all, irrespective of caste or religion.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Secularism
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
B) Equality

Question 41.
There will be no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what way they think.
A) Justice
B) Equality
C) Liberty
D) Sovereignty
Answer:
C) Liberty

Question 42.
Our democracy
A) Parliamentary
B) Presidential
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Parliamentary

Question 43.
This issue does not relate to the state list
A) police
B) road transport
C) schools
D) army
Answer:
D) army

Question 44.
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the
A) people
B) government
C) states
D) All the above
Answer:
A) people

Question 45.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the
A) people
B) government
C) state assemblies
D) members of Lok Sabha
Answer:
C) state assemblies

Question 46.
The tiers of Indian democracy
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 47.
The non-political organization
A) Comptroller and Auditor General
B) Election Commission
C) Judicial System
D) Neeti Ayog
Answer:
D) Neeti Ayog

Question 48.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                      Group – B
1) 1946 July                 ( )           a) Constitution came into effect
2) 1947 August            ( )           b) Adoption of Constituent Assembly
3) 1949 Nov, 26           ( )           c) Elections to the Constituent Assembly
4) 1950 Jan, 26            ( )           d) British India Elections
5) 1937                        ( )           e) Division of Constituent Assembly
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d
B) 1 – a, 2 – e, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – c
C) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
D) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – d
Answer:
A) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – d

Question 49.

Pick the correct comment.
A) Satyameva Jayathe is a quote from an Upanishad.
B) The four Asiatic lions are symbolizing power, courage, confidence, and pride.
C) The wheel of law is also presented there.
D) All the above Everyone would be equal before the law.
Answer:
D) All the above Everyone would be equal before the law.

Question 50.
Pick the correct comment.
A) There are different punishments for like crimes.
B) All are equal before the law.
C) The elected persons have some privileges in this regard.
D) None
Answer:
B) All are equal before the law.

Question 51.
‘Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first meeting was held in December 1946.’
What was the main change in this period?
A) Muslim League opposed it.
B) Many elected members resigned.
C) Partition of the country
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Partition of the country

Question 52.
“We the people of India, having resolved to constitute India into a Republic and to secure to all its citizen’s Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity give ourselves this Constitution.”
Who gave us the Constitution?
A) The British
B) The leaders
C) Ourselves
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Ourselves

Question 53.
The main reason for the partition of the country
A) caste conflicts
B) regionalism
C) religious conflicts
D) All the above
Answer:
C) religious conflicts

Question 54.
The Constitution of India was drafted under very difficult circumstances. The difficulty was
A) The country was under British rule for many years.
B) Communal conflicts
C) Partition
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 55.
The Chairman of the Indian Drafting Committee
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) Durgabai Deshmukh
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 56.
During national movement people died because of
A) Poverty
B) Famine and Epidemics
C) Both A & B
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 12 Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson Freedom Movement in Hyderabad State with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Mulla Abdul Qayyum of ………… became great champion of the Congress.
A) Hyderabad
B) Gulbarga
C) Vijayawada
D) Goa
Answer:
A) Hyderabad

Question 2.
Arya Samaj was established in Hyderabad in ………………
A) 1891
B) 1892
C) 1893
D) 1894
Answer:
B) 1892

Question 3.
The Nizam rulers of Hyderabad state were
A) Hindus
B) Christians
C) Muslims
D) Parsis
Answer:
C) Muslims

Question 4.
…………… speaking people felt greatly offended.
A) Hindu
B) Urdu
C) Tamil
D) Telugu
Answer:
D) Telugu

Question 5.
Andhra Jana Sangham started ………….. schools.
A) 4000
B) 1000
C) 1500
D) 2000
Answer:
A) 4000

Question 6.
Many ………….. were joined in AMS by 1940.
A) Leaders
B) Communists
C) Doras
D) Students
Answer:
B) Communists

Question 7.
The Indian National Congress only functioned in the …………. India.
A) French
B) Dutch
C) British
D) Nizam
Answer:
C) British

Question 8.
In 1942 Hyderabad State Congress started ………….. in tune with the national Quit India Movement.
A) Satyagraha
B) Vandemataram
C) Non-Cooperation
D) Civil disobedience
Answer:
A) Satyagraha

Question 9.
The Telangana Armed Struggle happened between
A) 1947 – 52
B) 1946 – 51
C) 1942 – 47
D) 1947 – 53
Answer:
B) 1946 – 51

Question 10.
The received the support of Doras and feudalists.
A) Hyderabad State Congress
B) Indian National Congress
C) Rajakars
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Rajakars

Question 11.
……………. was an important princely state under the British paramountcy in Deccan.
A) Hyderabad
B) Mysore
C) Maharashtra
D) Karnataka
Answer:
A) Hyderabad

Question 12.
The Viceroys appointed ……………… in the states which were allied with the British.
A) representatives
B) residents
C) pathaks
D) kulaks
Answer:
B) residents

Question 13.
The languages of people in Hyderabad state
A) Marathi
B) Kannada
C) Telugu, Deccani Urdu
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 14.
The strong supporter of Indian National Congress belonged to this Hyderabad region.
A) Mulla Abdul Qayyum
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Aghornath Chatopadhyaya
D) None
Answer:
A) Mulla Abdul Qayyum

Question 15.
Mulla Abdul Qayyum founded this organisation.
A) Anjumen
B) Islaman
C) Anjumen – e – maref
D) Maref
Answer:
C) Anjumen – e – maref

Question 16.
The newspaper propagated the ideology of nationalism.
A) Deccan standard
B) Musllism – E – Safiq
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 17.
The Arya Samaj was established in Hyderabad in the year
A) 1890
B) 1891
C) 1892
D) 1894
Answer:
C) 1892

Question 18.
The Nizams were initially provincial governors of the
A) Delhi sultans
B) Mughal emperors
C) Afghans
D) Turks
Answer:
B) Mughal emperors

Question 19.
The number of villages under the control of Jagirdars in Hyderabad state.
A) Dozens to Hundred villages
B) 10 -15 villages
C) 20 to 30 villages
D) 30 – 40 villages
Answer:
A) Dozens to Hundred villages

Question 20.
The opposed the Congress led nationalist movement.
A) Nizams
B) Moughal
C) Turks
D) None
Answer:
A) Nizams

Question 21.
The dynasty that ruled Hyderabad state.
A) Mughals
B) Vijayanagara kings
C) Nizam dynasty
D) None
Answer:
C) Nizam dynasty

Question 22.
Which language was medium of instruction from primary level to university level?
A) Telugu
B) Urdu
C) Parseeka
D) Arabbi
Answer:
B) Urdu

Question 23.
Even by 1941, only ………….. % of people of the state were literate.
A) 9
B) 9.3
C) 9.5
D) 9.6
Answer:
B) 9.3

Question 24.
Travancore had ………….. literacy rate.
A) 47.7%
B) 50%
C) 46%
D) 48%
Answer:
A) 47.7%

Question 25.
The percentage of literacy in Baroda in 1941.
A) 12%
B) 12.2%
C) 14%
D) 23%
Answer:
D) 23%

Question 26.
Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam was established in Hyderabad by …………….
A) Komarraju Laxmana Rao
B) Nayani Venkata Ranga Rao
C) Ravichettu Ranga Rao
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 27.
In …………… in a meeting in Viveka Vardhini College in Hyderabad, a person was insulted for bringing up a resolution in Telugu rather than in, English or Urdu.
A) 1920
B) 1921
C) 1922
D) 1923
Answer:
B) 1921

Question 28.
In 1924, ………………… formed the Andhra Jana Sangham.
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Duggirala Gopal Krishnayya
C) Komarraju Laxmana Rao
D) Thenneti Viswanatham
Answer:
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao

Question 29.
The schools established by Andhra Jana Sangham
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 4000
D) 5000
Answer:
C) 4000

Question 30.
Andhra Maha Sabha was formed in
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1936
D) 1939
Answer:
A) 1930

Question 31.
The main person among the founders of AMS
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Ravi Narayana Reddy
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 32.
In the annual conference of AMS in 1935 the demands were identified.
A) Compulsory primary education and Mother tongue should be the medium of instruction
B) Child marriages should be discouraged
C) The legitimate rights of the people in Jagirs should be protected
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 33.
The Editor of the Golkonda Pathrika
A) Suravaram Pratapa Reddy
B) Pidathala Ranga Reddy
C) Marri Chenna Reddy
D) Damodaram Venkata Reddy
Answer:
A) Suravaram Pratapa Reddy

Question 34.
The Hyderabad State Congress was established in
A) 1937
B) 1938
C) 1940
D) 1942
Answer:
B) 1938

Question 35.
Who played a key role in the formation of Hyderabad State Congress?
A) Swami Ramanada Theertha
B) Potti Sree ramulu
C) K.V. Ranga Reddy
D) J.V. Narasinga rao
Answer:
A) Swami Ramanada Theertha

Question 36.
Who is person belonged to the Hyderabad State Congress and later became the Prime Minister of India?
A) Swami Ramananda Theertha
B) K.V. Ranga Reddy
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
D) H.D. Devegowda
Answer:
C) P.V. Narasimha Rao

Question 37.
The year of Quit India Movement
A) 1940
B) 1942
C) 1943
D) 1944
Answer:
B) 1942

Question 38.
From 1929, Ryot sangams were established at ……………….. of fight against the exploitation by the Patels, Patwaris, Deshmukhs, Revenue and Police officials.
A) Nalgonda
B) Pillalamarri
C) Karimnagar
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 39.
They gave a radical programme against vetti and put forward the demand of land of tillers.
A) Congress party people
B) Communists
C) Farmers
D) Landlords
Answer:
B) Communists

Question 40.
Doddi Komaraiah was murdered by Visunuru Ramachandra Reddy in
A) July 1946
B) August 1946
C) July 1948
D) August 1947
Answer:
A) July 1946

Question 41.
The fanatic, Muslim enthusiasts formed …………….. an organisation to protect the ‘Muslim domination’ of Hyderabad state and Nizam rule.
A) Ittehadul Muslimeen
B) Ittehadul Fathul
C) Ittehadul Islamic
D) Islamic Socialist Party
Answer:
A) Ittehadul Muslimeen

Question 42.
Who was killed radically by Razakars for hoisting National flag in Warangal fort?
A) Doddi Komaraiah
B) Battini Mogilaiah
C) Ravi Narayana Reddy
D) Ilamma
Answer:
B) Battini Mogilaiah

Question 43.
The Hyderabad state merged in the Indian Union in the year
A) 1947
B) 1948
C) 1949
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1948

Question 44.
Who wanted Hyderabad to be a independent state?
A) Nizam-ul-mulk
B) Osman Ali Khan
C) Burgula Rama Krishna Rao
D) Baddam Yella Reddy
Answer:
B) Osman Ali Khan

Question 45.
Hyderabad merged in India union in ………….
A) September 1948
B) October 1948
C) November 1948
D) December 194b
Answer:
A) September 1948

Question 46.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                           Group – B
1) Mulla Abdul Qayyum       ( )          a) Elections
2) 1901                                 ( )          b) Anjumen – e – maref
3) 1930                                 ( )          c) Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam
4) 1938                                 ( )          d) Andhra Maha Sabha
5) 1952                                 ( )          e) Ban on Vandemataram song
A) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – e
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
C) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – c, 5 – e
Answer:
B) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a

Question 47.
‘The Nizams opposed the Congress-led nationalist movement and passed several ‘firmans’.
Pick the correct statement.
A) They favored Muslim League.
B) They wanted to rule as per their will.
C) The Congress was anti-Muslims.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) They wanted to rule as per their will.

Question 48.
‘In 1938, seeing the rising tide of nationalism in Hyderabad, the Nizam banned the singing of Vandemataram.’
Pick the correct comment.
A) The acts of Nizam created favourable situation for Congress to enter Hyderabad.
B) Vandemataram is an anti-socialistic song.
C) Both A & B
D) B only
Answer:
A) The acts of Nizam created favourable situation for Congress to enter Hyderabad.

Question 49.
From 1929, Ryot sangams were established at Nalgonda, Pillalamarri, Karimnagar, etc. to fight against the exploitation by the Patels, Patwaris, Deshmukhs, Revenue and Police officials.
All these places are in
A) Maharashtra
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Telangana
D) Rayalaseema
Answer:
C) Telangana

Question 50.
Name the woman in the picture.

A) Durgamma
B) Subbamma
C) Ilamma
D) Kasulamma
Answer:
C) Ilamma

Question 51.
‘Our Constitution considered many demands of AMS annual conference 1935.’ One of them
A) Compulsory primary education
B) Child marriages should be discouraged
C) Untouchability should be eradicated
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Observe the following map and answer the questions.

Question 52.
Aurangabad is present in ……………
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) West Bengal
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
B) Maharashtra

Question 53.
The presidency on west side was
A) Madras presidency
B) Junagadh presidency
C) Kashmir presidency
D) Bombay presidency
Answer:
D) Bombay presidency

Question 54.
The presidency on south side was
A) Madras presidency
B) Junagadh presidency
C) Kashmir presidency
D) Bombay presidency
Answer:
A) Madras presidency

Question 55.
The given map is about
A) Bombay presidency
B) Madras presidency
C) Hyderabad state
D) Berar and Central provinces
Answer:
C) Hyderabad state

Question 56.
Hyderabad was in
A) Samsthan
B) Surf-i-khas
C) Paigan
D) Jagir
Answer:
B) Surf-i-khas

Question 57.
The Hyderabad Nizams discouraged the setting up of private medium schools.
A) Telugu
B) Urdu
C) Parsie
D) Arabic
Answer:
A) Telugu

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11B National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa.
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehru
C) Tilak
D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
A) Gandhiji

Question 2.
…………….. in Ahmedabad Gandhiji led a successful mili workers strike in ……………. year.
A) 1915
B) 1919
C) 1922
D) 1927
Answer:
B) 1919

Question 3.
In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on
A) Saudi
B) Italy
C) Turkish Sultan
D) Russia President
Answer:
C) Turkish Sultan

Question 4.
…………… district was at the centre of nationalist activity.
A) Krishna
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Vijayanagaram
D) Guntur
Answer:
D) Guntur

Question 5.
In ………………. a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura.
A) 1922
B) 1920
C) 1912
D) 1915
Answer:
A) 1922

Question 6.
The Indian National Congress met at Lahore in 1929 under the presidentship of
A) Gandhiji
B) Nehruji
C) C.R. Das
D) Bhagat Singh
Answer:
B) Nehruji

Question 7.
The Second World War started in
A) 1934
B) 1935
C) 1939
D) 1915
Answer:
C) 1939

Question 8.
The Indian Movement in 1942
A) Non-Cooperation
B) Quit India
C) Civil disobediance
D) Satyagraha
Answer:
B) Quit India

Question 9.
In March 1944, the Indian Flag was hoisted in Kohima by
A) Bhagat Singh
B) Rajguru
C) SNA
D) Sukhdev
Answer:
C) SNA

Question 10.
The Muslim League decided on mass agitation in support of its demand for
A) Pakisthan
B) Hindusthan
C) Bangladesh
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Pakisthan

Question 11.
Gandhiji returned to India from South Africa
A) 1914
B) 1915
C) 1920
D) 1916
Answer:
B) 1915

Question 12.
The first Satyagraha started by Gandhiji.
A) Champaran
B) Kheda
C) Both A & B
D) Strike of Ahmedabad Mill labourers
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 13.
In Ahmedabad he led a successful mill workers strike in
A) 1915
B) 1918
C) 1919
D) 1920
Answer:
B) 1918

Question 14.
Find out the mismatch.
i) 1917 – Champaran Andolan
ii) 1918 – Kaira Protest Movement
iii) 1918 – Strike of Ahmedabad cotton mill workers
iv) 1919 – The Rowlatt Act
A) i, ii
B) ii & iii
C) iii & iv
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 15.
Who criticised the Rowlatt Act as “devilish”.
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Md. AN Jinnah
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 16.
Gandhiji asked the Indian people to observe 6 April 1919 as a day of …………… and hartal.
A) Self reliance day
B) Prayer and humiliation day
C) Day of Protection
D) Black day
Answer:
B) Prayer and humiliation day

Question 17.
The Muslim League was formed in
A) 1905
B) 1906
C) 1907
D) 1910
Answer:
B) 1906

Question 18.
Separate electorates for Muslims were conceded in
A) 1908
B) 1907
C) 1909
D) 1910
Answer:
C) 1909

Question 19.
The Hindu Mahasabha was formed in
A) 1910
B) 1912
C) 1914
D) 1915
Answer:
D) 1915

Question 20.
The person behind the Jalianwalabagh Massacre
A) Curzon
B) Munroe
C) General ‘O’ Dyer
D) Corn Wallis
Answer:
C) General ‘O’ Dyer

Question 21.
Rabindranath Tagore expressed the pain and anger of the country by renouncing his …………. given to him by the British government.
A) Bhaihood
B) Knighthood
C) League of Nation
D) Brotherhood
Answer:
B) Knighthood

Question 22.
The title of Turkey Sultan
A) Father
B) God Father
C) Khalifa
D) Sir
Answer:
C) Khalifa

Question 23.
The main leader of Khilafat movement
A) Md. AN
B) Shoukat AN
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 24.
In the Nagapur session of the congress in 1920 was acknowledged as the leader of the Congress.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Answer:
B) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 25.
The Non-cooperation movement gained momentum throughout
A) 1921 – 22
B) 1922 – 23
C) 1923 – 24
D) 1924 – 25
Answer:
A) 1921 – 22

Question 26.
Due to participation in Non-Cooperation Movement, these persons gave up their practice
A) Motilal Nehru
B) C.R. Das
C) C. Raja Gopalachari
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 27.
The person who took up Khadi campaign
A) Nehru
B) Gandhi
C) Patel
D) Bose
Answer:
B) Gandhi

Question 28.
He was not the member of the British Ministry
A) Straford Cripps
B) Pethik Lawrence
C) Alexander
D) Federal Castro
Answer:
D) Federal Castro

Question 29.
A highlight of Non-Cooperation movement was the famous
A) Tenali Bomb case
B) Kakinada coup case
C) Chira-Perala movement
D) Kotappa Konda bad incident
Answer:
C) Chira-Perala movement

Question 30.
The Muslim League declared this date as “Direct Action Day”
A) 15-8-1946
B) 16-8-1946
C) 26-8-1946
D) 27-8-1946
Answer:
B) 16-8-1946

Question 31.
The people of Chirala – Perala refused to pay the taxes and migrated to a new settlement called
A) Rayanampadu
B) Ramnagar
C) Krishna Nagar
D) Vankayala Nagar
Answer:
B) Ramnagar

Question 32.
………………. said, Gandhiji’s swaraj is coming and we will not pay taxes to this government.
A) Gandhiji
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) People
Answer:
D) People

Question 33.
The forest Sathyagrahas were began in this districts
A) Guntur
B) Kadapa
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 34.
At the end of a powerful movement, peasants in the united province (now Uttar Pradesh) managed to stop illegal eviction of tenants.
A) Raigarh
B) Chandragarh
C) Pratapgarh
D) Kanpur
Answer:
C) Pratapgarh

Question 35.
The year of Chauri – Chaura incident
A) 1920
B) 1921
C) 1922
D) 1923
Answer:
C) 1922

Question 36.
The Non Co-operation movement was called off due to this
A) Truth
B) Non-violence
C) Violence
D) Non-truth
Answer:
C) Violence

Question 37.
Leader such as argued that they party should fight elections to the councils and enter them in under influence government policies.
A) C.R. Das
B) Motilal Nehru
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 38.
The year of Civil dis-obedience movement
A) 1920
B) 1930
C) 1932
D) 1934
Answer:
B) 1930

Question 39.
Two important developments of the mid-1920s were the formation of the
A) RSS
B) Communist Party of India
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 40.
In this session, Congress declared that the attainment of “Puma Swaraj” was its ultimate goal.
A) Kanpur
B) Calcutta
C) Bombay
D) Lahore
Answer:
D) Lahore

Question 41.
The year of Lahor session
A) 1928
B) 1929
C) 1930
D) 1932
Answer:
B) 1929

Question 42.
This was decided to celebrate as the day of Purna Swaraj
A) Feb’ 1st
B) Jan’ 1st
C) Jan’ 20th
D) Jan’ 26th
Answer:
D) Jan’ 26th

Question 43.
The Dandi Sathyagraha was started on this day
A) 11-3-1930
B) 12-3-1930
C) 18-4-1930
D) 12-4-1930
Answer:
B) 12-3-1930

Question 44.
The number of followers of Gandhiji that participated in the foot-march of dandi sathyagraha with Gandhiji
A) 72
B) 78
C) 62
D) 68
Answer:
B) 78

Question 45.
The distance of Gandhiji foot-march from Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi village
A) 200 kms
B) 300 kms
C) 375 kms
D) 400 kms
Answer:
C) 375 kms

Question 46.
Gandhiji disobeyed the British rules as a part of Salt Sathyagraha
A) 6-4-1930
B) 12-4-1930
C) 28-4-1930
D) 1-5-1930
Answer:
A) 6-4-1930

Question 47.
The number of Sathyagrahis’s that were arrested during Salt Sathyagrahas
A) 80,000
B) 90,000
C) 1,00,000
D) 1,20,000
Answer:
B) 90,000

Question 48.
The main result of Civil disobedience movement
A) 1909 Act
B) 1919 Act
C) Indian Council Act 1935
D) 1950 Act
Answer:
C) Indian Council Act 1935

Question 49.
The Congress formed governments in out of 11 provinces
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer:
A) 7

Question 50.
The period of World War – II
A) 1939-45
B) 1936-42
C) 1935-45
D) 1950-52
Answer:
A) 1939-45

Question 51.
The number of countries in allied group.
A) England, France, Russia
B) England, Germany, Austria
C) England, Russia, Austria
D) America, Japan, Russia
Answer:
A) England, France, Russia

Question 52.
During the Second World War America dropped atom bomb over these cities
A) Hiroshima
B) Nagasaki
C) Both A& B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A& B

Question 53.
The year of Quit India movement
A) 1946
B) 1942
C) 1943
D) 1944
Answer:
B) 1942

Question 54.
The slogan during the movement is “do or die”.
A) Civil disobedience movement
B) Non Co-operation movement
C) Quit India movement
D) Swadeshi movement
Answer:
C) Quit India movement

Question 55.
Congress Working Committee met on at Bombay and passed a resolution stating clearly that “British Rule in India must end immediately
A) 8-8-1942 – Bombay
B) 8-8-1943 Calcutta
C) 2-9-1944 Kanpur
D) 7-7-1945 Lucknow
Answer:
A) 8-8-1942 – Bombay

Question 56.
The Congress leaders who were arrested during the morning on 9-8-1942
A) Gandhiji, Patel
B) Nehru, Maulana Azad
C) Acharya Kripalani, Rajendra Prasad
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 57.
The people of ……………. formed parallel government between 1942-1944.
A) Kanpur
B) Midnapur
C) Calcutta
D) Bombay
Answer:
B) Midnapur

Question 58.
The number of people that were arrested by the end of 1943.
A) 80,000
B) 85,000
C) 90,000
D) 95,000
Answer:
C) 90,000

Question 59.
India got independence on
A) 15-8-1947
B) 20-8-1947
C) 27-8-1947
D) 28-8-1947
Answer:
A) 15-8-1947

Question 60.
The Slogan of Subhas Chandra Bose on 18-3-1944
A) Dilli Chalo
B) On to Delhi
C) Both A & B
D) Jai Jawan
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 61.
The Indian flag was hoisted in these place in March 1944
A) Itanagar
B) Imphal
C) Kohima
D) Aizwal
Answer:
C) Kohima

Question 62.
This was said as the death day of Subhas Chandra Bose in a plane accident when he travelled from Bangkok to Tokyo is
A) 23-8-1945
B) 25-8-1945
C) 26-8-1945
D) 7-8-1945
Answer:
A) 23-8-1945

Question 63.
In ………….. the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding “Independent States” for Muslims on the north-western and eastern areas of the country.
A) 1935
B) 1940
C) 1945
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1940

Question 64.
From which the Muslim League treated Muslims as a special race different from Hindus?
A) 1920
B) 1925
C) 1930
D) 1935
Answer:
C) 1930

Question 65.
After this year the radical organisations characterized by intensive activities
A) 1930
B) 1940
C) 1950
D) 1960
Answer:
B) 1940

Question 66.
These actively participated in the movements during 1940
A) Malabar tenant cultivators
B) Tebhaga tenant cultivators
C) Telangana Vetti castes
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 67.
Who declared itself as the one and only representative of Indian Muslims?
A) Indian National Congress
B) Muslim League
C) Viswa Hindu Parishad
D) All India Muslim Parishad
Answer:
B) Muslim League

Question 68.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                         Group – B
1. Rash Bihari Bose         ( )        a) Dandi Satyagraha
2. 1935                            ( )        b) Jallianwala Bagh
3. Atom Bomb                ( )        c) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. 1930                            ( )        d) Government of India Act
5. Amritsar                      ( )        e) Hiroshima
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – b, 5 – d
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 69.
Mahatma Gandhi spent his first year in India travelling throughout the country, understanding the people, their needs and the overall situation.
Pick the correct comment.
A) He travelled to visit India.
B) He was a tourist guide.
C) He travelled to estimate the needs of the people and the country.
D) All the above
Answer:
C) He travelled to estimate the needs of the people and the country.

Question 70.
“Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the Non-cooperation Movement in February 1992.”
Pick the correct comment.
A) He was in favour of British rule.
B) The movement turned from Satyagraha to violence.
C) He wanted to take a rest for some time.
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) The movement turned from Satyagraha to violence.

Question 71.
Communal organisations sprang up in India in the early years of the 20th century as the tide of nationalism too was rising.
Name one such organisation.
A) TRS
B) AIML
C) BJP
D) All the above
Answer:
B) AIML

Question 72.
Louis Mountbatten was appointed as Viceroy in early 1947 and was not able to resolve the differences.
Who was the Viceroy when India got freedom?
A) Mountbatten
B) Cripps
C) Lawrence
D) Alexander
Answer:
A) Mountbatten

Question 73.
Whose death is still a mystery in Indian national leaders?
A) Gandhiji
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Sanjay Gandhi
D) N.S.C. Bose
Answer:
D) N.S.C. Bose

Question 74.
Guntur district was at the centre of …………. activity.
A) Local
B) Nationalist
C) Regional
D) None
Answer:
B) Nationalist

Question 75.
Who led the Chirala-Perala movement?
A) Madapati Hanumantha Rao
B) Tanguturi Prakasam Panthulu
C) Duggirala Gopala Krishnayya
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
C) Duggirala Gopala Krishnayya

Question 76.
Subhash Chandra Bose formed INA with the help of this person in Burma and Andaman.
A) Rash Bihari Bose
B) Bhagat Singh
C) Rajguru
D) Sukhdev
Answer:
A) Rash Bihari Bose

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 11 Bio Geo Chemical Cycles on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 11th Lesson Bio Geo Chemical Cycles with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
The flow of nutrients from living organisms to environment and from environment to living organisms occur through
A) Biogeochemical cycles
B) Biocycles
C) Chemical cycles
D) Geocycles
Answer:
A) Biogeochemical cycles

Question 2.
The percentage of salt water on earth is
A) 3%
B) 1%
C) 97%
D) 2%
Answer:
C) 97%

Question 3.
The human body is composed of about how much water ?
A) 80%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 10%
Answer:
B) 70%

Question 4.
These form integral part of basic organic compounds of life.
A) Nitrogen, hydrogen
B) Hydrogen, phosphorous
C) Hydrogen, oxygen
D) Nitrogen, oxygen
Answer:
C) Hydrogen, oxygen

Question 5.
The element that is abundantly present in atmosphere is
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) CO₂
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
D) Nitrogen

Question 6.
The free living bacteria that fixes nitrogen is
A) Nitrosomonas
B) Rhizobium
C) Nitrobacter
D) All
Answer:
A) Nitrosomonas

Question 7.
Nitrogen makes its way back into the atmosphere through a process called
A) Ammonification
B) Denitrification
C) Assimilation
D) Nitrification
Answer:
B) Denitrification

Question 8.
The excessive amount of nitrates and other nitrogenous compounds when they reach rivers and lakes cause too much growth of
A) Bryophytes
B) Fungi
C) Algae
D) Pteridophytes
Answer:
C) Algae

Question 9.
It is reponsible for maintaining the earth as a green – house with temperature conditions suitable for life ?
A) Oxygen
B) CO₂
C) Hydrogen
D) Nitrogen
Answer:
B) CO₂

Question 10.
The main reservoirs of carbon are
A) Sedimentary rocks
B) Fossil fuels
C) Oceans
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 11.
Excessive amount of carbon dioxide and other green house gases has been emitted to the environment due to
A) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation
B) Burning of fossil fuels, industrialization
C) Deforestation, industrialization
D) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, industrialization
Answer:
D) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, industrialization

Question 12.
These are poisoned by elemental oxygen
A) Algae
B) Virus
C) Bacteria
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Bacteria

Question 13.
Decomposition of organic waste requires
A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Phosphorous
Answer:
B) Oxygen

Question 14.
The layer extends from the earth’s surface up to about 10 kilometers in altitude is
A) Stratosphere
B) Ionosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Troposphere
Answer:
D) Troposphere

Question 15.
The number of oxygen atoms present in ozone is
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
B) 3

Question 16.
Ozone layer absorbs these radiations of sun
A) Infrared rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) Cosmic rays
D) Gamma rays
Answer:
B) Ultraviolet rays

Question 17.
These are responsible for destruction of ozone layer
A) Pepticides
B) CO₂
C) Chlorofluoro carbons
D) Hydrogen
Answer:
C) Chlorofluoro carbons

Question 18.
To protect ozone layer, the protocol emerged was
A) Washington protocol
B) Montreal protocol
C) Vancover protocol
D) Geneva protocol
Answer:
B) Montreal protocol

Question 19.
The element present in diamond is
A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Phosphorous
Answer:
A) Carbon

Question 20.
Which of the following organisms is a free living nitrogen fixer ?
A) Rhizobium
B) Nitrosomonas
C) Mycorrhiza
D) None
Answer:
B) Nitrosomonas

Question 21.
Which of the following is the elemental form of carbon ?
A) Graphite
B) Diamond
C) Soot
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 22.
The elements that is common among proteins, DNA, RNA and Alkaloids ………………….
A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Sulphur
D) Mercury
Answer:
B) Nitrogen

Question 23.
The colour of ozone is ……………….
A) Green
B) Blue
C) Yellow
D) Pink
Answer:
B) Blue

Question 24.
Which of the following is not a green house gas ?
A) CO₂
B) CO
C) CH₄
D) C₆H₆
Answer:
D) C₆H₆

Question 25.
The percentage of CO₂ in the atmosphere is
A) 0.04%
B) 0.4%
C) 0.08%
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) 0.04%

Question 26.
Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere mainly by
A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Burning of wood
D) Fungi
Answer:
B) Photosynthesis

Question 27.
Ozone layer is getting depleted because of …………………
A) Automobiles
B) Industrial units
C) Compounds of flourine and chlorine
D) None
Answer:
C) Compounds of flourine and chlorine

Question 28.
Which of the following is a green house gas ?
A) CO₂
B) CFCs
C) CH₄
D) All
Answer:
D)All

Question 29.
Montreal protocol substances on
A) Ozone depletion
B) Green house effect
C) Air pollution
D) Water pollution
Answer:
A) Ozone depletion

Question 30.
The main source of CFCs …………………
A) Refrigerators
B) Air conditioners
C) Jet Flights
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 31.
Montreal protocol signed by 24 countries in the year ………………….
A) 1985
B) 1984
C) 1987
D) 1990
Answer:
C) 1987

Question 32.
Copenhagen meeting on revise of montreal protocol was held in the year ……………….
A) 1994
B) 1992
C) 1995
D) 1996
Answer:
B) 1992

Question 33.
Direct exposure of U.V radiation causes
A) Skin cancer
B) Destroys marine life
C) Damage to crops
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 34.
The ozone hole is observed here
A) Pacific ocean
B) Indian ocean
C) Antarctica region
D) Arctic region
Answer:
C) Antarctica region

Question 35.
These crops increase soil fertility
A) Food
B) Commercial
C) Legume
D) Vegetable
Answer:
C) Legume

Question 36.
Symbiotic bacteria that fixes the nitrogen is …………………..
A) Nitrosomonas
B) Nitrobactor
C) Micorrhiza
D) Rhizobium
Answer:
D) Rhizobium

Question 37.
Carbon burried under the ocean floor might take this much of time to return to the atmosphere
A) 12 million
B) 14 Million
C) 15 million
D) 10 Million
Answer:
D) 10 Million

Question 38.
The atmospheric layer continues from 10 km to about 50 km is ……………….
A) Troposphere
B) Ionosphere
C) Stratosphere
D) None
Answer:
C) Stratosphere

Question 39.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Nitrogen
2) Oxygen
3) Fresh water

List – B
a) 3% of water on earth
b) 21% in air
c) 78% in air
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
D) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
Answer:
C) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 40.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Nitrosomonas
2) Ozone
3) Green house effect

List – B
a) CO₂ water vapour
b) CFCs
c) Nitrogen fixation
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – c,2 – a,3 – b
D) 1 – c,2 – b,3 – a
Answer:
D) 1 – c,2 – b,3 – a

Question 41.
Which of the following is an inert gas ?
A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Methane
D) Xenon
Answer:
D) Xenon

Question 42.
Large amount of fresh water is present in
A) Seas
B) Rivers
C) Polar ice caps
D) Lakes
Answer:
C) Polar ice caps

Question 43.
Very few animals and plants are present in deserts. Because
A) There is sand
B) There is very little water
C) There are no roads
D) It is hot in desert
Answer:
B) There is very little water

Question 44.
Hydrological cycle occurs between
A) Land and air
B) Air and sea
C) Land and sea
D) Land, sea and atmosphere
Answer:
D) Land, sea and atmosphere

II. Match the following.

i)

Answer:
1) Nitrogen – C) 78% in air
2) Oxygen – A) 21% in air
3) Carbon dioxide – E) 0.04% in air
4) Fresh water – F) 3% of water on earth
5) Salt water – B) 97% of water on earth

ii)

Answer:
1) Rhizobium – G) Legumes
2) Nitrosomonas – D) Nitrogen fixation
3) Ozone – E) Chlorofluoro carbons
4) Ammonification – A) NH₃
5) Green house effect – C) CO₂

Question 45.
The troposphere extends from earth’s surface to a height of approximately
A) 1000m
B) 8848m
C) 100 km
D) 10 km
Answer:
D) 10 km

Question 46.
Which of the following is NOT an eco – friendly activity ?
A) Growing plants in waste lands
B) Minimizing electricity consumption
C) Using compost in fields
D) Maximising vehicles usage
Answer:
D) Maximising vehicles usage

Question 47.
Montreal protocol focuses on
A) Protect ozone layer
B) Control and phase out of ozone depleting factors
C) Control and phase out CFC and halocarbons
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 48.
Production of (X) from (Y) and other (Z) is called Ammonification. Here X, Y, Z respectively are
A) Ammonia, Nitrates and other nitrogenous compounds
B) Urea, Nitrogen and other carbon compounds
C) Nitrates, Ammonia and Nitrites
D) Rhizobium, Azolla, Nostoc
Answer:
A) Ammonia, Nitrates and other nitrogenous compounds

Question 49.
What happens if nitrogen fixation is stopped ?
1) Nitrogen in the soil is reduced
2) Nitrogen will not be available to plant
3) Plant and animal would die
4) Depletion of nitrogen in the environment
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 4
Answer:
A) 1, 2

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Soil Pollution on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 10th Lesson Soil Pollution with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Soil is made up of
A) minerals
B) decomposed organic matter
C) air and water
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 2.
The time required to create one inch of top soil
A) 100 – 1000 years
B) 100 – 10,000 years
C) 100 – 5000 years
D) 100 – 15,000 years
Answer:
B) 100 – 10,000 years

Question 3.
The layer of the soil which is the foundation for the life on the earth
A) the middle layer
B) bottom layer
C) top layer
D) all the above
Answer:
C) top layer

Question 4.
Soil consists of nutrients required for plant growth are
A) nitrogen
B) phosphorus
C) potassium
D) all
Answer:
D) all

Question 5.
If the pH level of soil is below 7 then the soil is
A) acidic
B) alkaline
C) saline soil
D) organic soil
Answer:
A) acidic

Question 6.
The pH value of Alkaline soil is
A) above 7
B) below 7
C) above 8
D) below 8
Answer:
A) above 7

Question 7.
Major microbial groups in soil are
A) bacteria, fungi
B) bacteria, fungi, algae
C) bacteria, fungi, algae and protozoa
D) bacteria, fungi, protozoa
Answer:
D) bacteria, fungi, protozoa

Question 8.
The process of converting organic forms of elements to their inorganic forms by soil microorganisms is known as
A) biogeochemical cycles
B) mineralization
C) pyrolysis
D) incineration
Answer:
B) mineralization

Question 9.
A major part of the soil microbial biomass is composed of
A) algae
B) fungi
C) bacteria
D) protozoa
Answer:
B) fungi

Question 10.
Waste substances that can be degraded by microbes into harmless and non-toxic substances are
A) degradable waste
B) non-biodegradable waste
C) biodegradable waste
D) non-degradable waste
Answer:
C) biodegradable waste

Question 11.
Excessive potassium content in soil decreases vitamin C and carotene content in
A) vegetables
B) fruits
C) grains
D) vegetables and fruits
Answer:
D) vegetables and fruits

Question 12.
The first widespread insecticide used is
A) DDT
B) BHC
C) Malathion
D) Nuvacron
Answer:
A) DDT

Question 13.
The process of increasing concentration of chemicals through the food chain is known as
A) incineration
B) pyrolysis
C) biomagnification
D) bioremediation
Answer:
C) biomagnification

Question 14.
Increase in solid waste is due to
A) increase in population
B) urbanization
C) both A and B
D) modernization
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 15.
Hazardous solid waste includes
A) household waste
B) industrial waste
C) sanitation residue
D) construction waste
Answer:
B) industrial waste

Question 16.
An excellent binding material that keeps the soil intact and healthy
A) forests
B) grasslands
C) forests, grasslands
D) none
Answer:
C) forests, grasslands

Question 17.
The amount of solid waste produced in Indian cities per day is
A) 50,000 – 80,000 metric tons
B) 5,000 – 8,000 metric tons
C) 500 – 800 metric tons
D) 600 – 800 metric tons
Answer:
A) 50,000 – 80,000 metric tons

Question 18.
Microbial decomposition of organic wastes generate large amounts of
A) ethane
B) propane
C) methane
D) acetylene
Answer:
C) methane

Question 19.
Which metal has unpleasant effect on human health ?
A) gold
B) silver
C) lead
D) copper
Answer:
C) lead

Question 20.
Soil pollution can be prevented by
A) limit construction in sensitive area
B) adopting four R’s : Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover
C) applying biofertilizers and manures
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 21.
The average per capita solid wastes produced per day is
A) 264 gms
B) 364 gms
C) 634 gms
D) 346 gms
Answer:
B) 364 gms

Question 22.
This is the simple and most widely used technique of solid waste management.
A) burying the waste
B) burning the waste
C) incineration of waste
D) pyrolysis
Answer:
A) burying the waste

Question 23.
The solid waste management process which is expensive and cause air pollution
A) burying the waste
B) pyrolysis
C) incineration of waste
D) bioremediation
Answer:
C) incineration of waste

Question 24.
Using a biological remedy to reduce or clean up contamination is known as
A) pyrolysis
B) incineration
C) bioaccumulation
D) bioremediation
Answer:
D) bioremediation

Question 25.
Volatile elements which can be released directly from plants to atmosphere are
A) lead, mercury
B) mercury, selenium
C) selenium, lead
D) antimony, mercury
Answer:
B) mercury, selenium

Question 26.
Land pollution occurs massively during
A) earthquakes, floods
B) land slides, hurricanes
C) earthquakes, floods, land slides
D) earthquakes, floods, land slides, hurricanes
Answer:
D) earthquakes, floods, land slides, hurricanes

Question 27.
This method helps in the percolation of water into the soil.
A) no – till farming
B) contour ploughing
C) crop rotation
D) planting trees
Answer:
B) contour ploughing

Question 28.
The uptake of nutrients in plants is also governed to a certain extent by
A) nature of the soil
B) soil pH
C) soil organisms
D) crop rotation
Answer:
B) soil pH

Question 29.
Number of earthworms present in one acre of land where the top soil is eight inches thick
A) 5000
B) 50000
C) 15000
D) 17000
Answer:
B) 50000

Question 30.
Step Farming is common in ………………..
A) Plains
B) Platues
C) Hills
D) Low lands
Answer:
C) Hills

Question 31.
The microorganisms that help in the formation of soil …………………
A) Moss
B) Bacteria
C) Lichen
D) A and C
Answer:
D) A and C

Question 32.
Burning of fossil fuel adds ……………………..
A) H₂, O₂, N₂ in air
B) CO₂, NO₂, SO₂ gases in air
C) SO₂, O₂
D) SO₃, SO₂
Answer:
B) CO₂, NO₂, SO₂ gases in air

Question 33.
Soil is the component of ………………
A) Atmosphere
B) Hydrosphere
C) Lithosphere
D) Biosphere
Answer:
C) Lithosphere

Question 34.
Soil that is best suited for plant growth is ………………
A) Clayey
B) Loamy
C) Sandy
D) Gravel
Answer:
B) Loamy

Question 35.
Biological weathering is caused by
A) Lichens
B) Mosses
C) Roots of plants
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 36.
Toxic chemicals released by paper industry are
A) Cadmium
B) Mercury
C) Lead
D) Nickel
Answer:
B) Mercury

Question 37.
Major sources of formation of soil is
A) Rocks
B) Himalayas
C) Riverbeds
D) Volcanoes
Answer:
A) Rocks

Question 38.
Sun causes weathering of rocks through
A) Physical phenomena
B) Biological changes
C) Chemical changes
D) Mechanical force
Answer:
B) Biological changes

Question 39.
These are considered as wind breaks
A) Rows of trees and shrubs
B) Growing grasses alternating with crops
C) Compound walls
D) Raising edges of fields
Answer:
A) Rows of trees and shrubs

Question 40.
This gas is formed on burning of wood
A)NO₂
B)O₂
C) H₂
D) CO₂
Answer:
D) CO₂

Question 41.
Ozone layer is present in this layer
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Ionosphere
D) None
Answer:
B) Stratosphere

Question 42.
“Friend of the farmer” ……………….
A) Frogs
B) Earthworms
C) Snails
D) Toads
Answer:
B) Earthworms

Question 43.
Biological remedy to clean up contamination is
A) Bio-remediation
B) Phyto remediation
C) Bio-magnification
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 44.
The hazardous elements that are released directly from plants to atmosphere
A) Selenium
B) Mercury
C) Lead
D) Both A and B
Answer:
D) Both A and B

Question 45.
Identify the mismatched pairs from the following.
1) Reuse – Iron
2) Recycling – Paper
3) Contour ploughing – Soil Erosion
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1 only
A) 1, 2

Question 46.
Anaerobic/aerobic decomposition of biodegradable municipal and domestic wastes give
A) Natural gas
B) CNG
C) LPG
D) Gober gas
Answer:
D) Gober gas

Question 47.
These are considered as valuable sinks for CO₂ ………………….
A) Fields
B) Rivers
C) Lakes
D) Forests
Answer:
D) Forests

Question 48.
Example for hazardous solid waste
A) Industrial and hospital waste
B) Debris
C) Chemical wastes
D) Discarded medicines
Answer:
A) Industrial and hospital waste

Question 49.
The best example for bio-magnification is …………………..
A) D.D.T
B) B.H.C
C) Dieldrin
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 50.
Identify the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Soil below pH7
2) Soil above pH7
3) Mycorrhiza

List – B
a) Symbiosis
b) Acidic
c) Basic
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a
D) 1 – c, 2 – c, 3 – b
Answer:
C) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a

Question 51.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Biodegradable waste – Dung
2) Non-Biodegradable waste – Radioactive waste
3) D.D.T – Weedicide
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 3 only
Answer:
D) 3 only

Question 52.
Identify the correct matching from the following.
1) Biomagnification – Food chain
2) Solid wastes – Deforestation
3) Soil erosion – Burying the waste
A) 1, 3
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2
D) 1 only
Answer:
D) 1 only

Question 53.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Incinaration
2) Bioremediation
3) Phytoremediation

List – B
a) Plants
b) Clean up contamination
c) Expensive method
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – a, 2 – c,3 – b
D) 1 – c, 2 – a,3 – b
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a

Question 54.
The range of pH values of a good soil lies from ………………..
A) 5.5 – 6.5
B) 6 – 7
C) 5.5 to 7.5
D) 5.5 – 8.5
Answer:
C) 5.5 to 7.5

Question 55.
D.D.T was not soluble in water but in …………….
A) Phenol
B) Fat
C) Carbohydrate
D) Benzene
Answer:
B) Fat

Question 56.
Expanded form of D.D.T is …………….
A) Di Dehydro Tetracycline
B) Diphenol Dihydro Tetrane
C) Dichloro Diphenyle Trichloro Ethane
D) Dichloro Diphenol Tri Ethane
Answer:
C) Dichloro Diphenyle Trichloro Ethane

Question 57.
The process of combustion in absence of oxygen is ……………………..
A) Incineration
B) Pyrolysis
C) Burning
D) Oxidation
Answer:
B) Pyrolysis

Question 58.
Calcium deficiency in soils is due to
A) High pH value
B) Low pH value
C) High Mg value
D) High humus value
Answer:
B) Low pH value

Question 59.
Microbial activity and nutrient absorption in soils is due to
A) Low pH
B) High pH
C) High Humus
D) None
Answer:
B) High pH

II. Match the following:

i)

Answer:
1) Soil below pH 7 – H) Acidic
2) Soil above pH 7 – E) Alkaline
3) Mineralization – G) Soil microbes
4) Mycorrhiza – A) Symbiosis
5) Biodegradable waste – F) Dung
6) Non-biodegradable waste – D) Radioactive waste
7) DDT – C) Insecticide

ii)

Answer:
1) Biomagnification – D) Food chain
2) Soil erosion – F) Deforestation
3) Solid wastes – E) Burying the waste
4) Incineration – B) Expensive method
5) Cow dung – A) Methane
6) Bioremediation – C) Clean up contamination
7) Phytoremediation – H) Plants

Question 60.
Which of the following does NOT cause soil pollution ?
A) Vegetable peels
B) Acid rain
C) Pesticides
D) Polythene bags
Answer:
A) Vegetable peels

Question 61.
One of the following statements is practicable keeping in view of waste management
A) Solid waste management involves collection, transfer and transport to suitable places.
B) We cannot treat industrial wastes.
C) Acidic and alkaline wastes should not be neutralised before disposal.
D) We should follow the Pyrolysis process as it requires more oxygen.
Answer:
A) Solid waste management involves collection, transfer and transport to suitable places.

Question 62.
BOD means
A) Basic Oxygen Demand
B) Biological Oxygen Demand
C) Biological Organic Demand
D) Biological Organic Density
Answer:
B) Biological Oxygen Demand

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 11A National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
With the growth of …………. Education during the late nineteenth century a new consciousness began to develop.
A) English
B) Old
C) Sanskrit
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) English

Question 2.
East India Association was organized in 1866 by ……………..
A) Gandhiji
B) Naoroji
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Bipin Chandrapal
Answer:
B) Naoroji

Question 3.
The first session of the Indian National Congress at ……………. in 1885.
A) Delhi
B) Lucknow
C) Bombay
D) Chennai
Answer:
C) Bombay

Question 4.
In 1886, delegates to the Congress numbering ……………. were elected by different local organizations.
A) 536
B) 336
C) 236
D) 436
Answer:
D) 436

Question 5.
Kadambari Ganguli was the first woman graduate from
A) Calcutta
B) Chennai
C) Bombay
D) Tirupathi
Answer:
A) Calcutta

Question 6.
Naoroji studied the …………….. of the British Rule.
A) Religious impact
B) Financial impact
C) Social impact
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) Financial impact

Question 7.
The proposal of the partition of Bengal was in ………………… year.
A) 1900
B) 1901
C) 1903
D) 1905
Answer:
C) 1903

Question 8.
The system introduced by the British in India during the time of First World War
A) raising taxes
B) exporting food and other necessities to the army
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 9.
In 1907 the Indian National Congress split into ………………
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer:
A) 2

Question 10.
The First World War lasted for …………….. years.
A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 3
Answer:
B) 5

Question 11.
The first revolt against the British rule throughout the country.
A) Rampa revolt
B) Mepla revolt
C) 1857 revolt
D) All the above
Answer:
C) 1857 revolt

Question 12.
A new consciousness began to develop after English education was introduced during the ……………. century, in some major cities like Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
Answer:
B) 19

Question 13.
The seeds of a new consciousness were sown in ………..
A) the second half of 18th century
B) the first half of 19th century
C) the second half of 19th century
D) the first half of 19th century
Answer:
C) the second half of 19th century

Question 14.
In ……………. Dodabhai Naoroji organized the “East India Association” in London to discuss the Indian question.
A) 1860
B) 1865
C) 1866
D) 1870
Answer:
C) 1866

Question 15.
During …………… various leaders like Surendranath Banerjee, Justice M.G. Ranade, Badruddin Tyabji, K.C. Telang and G. Subramaniam organised associations in Calcutta, pune, Bombay and Madras.
A) 1860 – 80
B) 1866 – 85
C) 1870 – 80
D) 1860 – 85
Answer:
B) 1866 – 85

Question 16.
The Moderate Phase in the history of Indian National Congress.
A) 1885 – 1905
B) 1905 – 1919
C) 1919 – 1947
D) All the above
Answer:
A) 1885 – 1905

Question 17.
The December 1885, session of Indian National Congress was presided over by
A) A.O. Hume
B) W.C. Benarjee
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
B) W.C. Benarjee

Question 18.
The December 1885 session of Indian National Congress was attended by …………… delegates.
A) 70
B) 72
C) 73
D) 74
Answer:
B) 72

Question 19.
The famous leaders of the modern phase
A) Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta
B) Badruddin Tyabji, W.C. Benarjee
C) Surendranath Benerjee, Ramesh Chandra Dutt
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 20.
The founder of the Indian National Congress
A) W.C. Banerjee
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) A.O. Hume
Answer:
D) A.O. Hume

Question 21.
The main objectives of Indian National Congress
A) to create a common political platform
B) by taking up those grievances and fighting for those rights which Indians had in common in relation to the rulers
C) to study the grievances of people and wrote appeals to the government.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 22.
In 1886, ……………. delegates were elected to the Congress by different local bodies.
A) 400
B) 420
C) 430
D) 436
Answer:
D) 436

Question 23.
Who was the first woman graduate from Calcutta?
A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
C) Both A & B
D) Kadambari Ganguli
Answer:
D) Kadambari Ganguli

Question 24.
During first …………… years, the Congress was led by the leaders who are known as Moderate Nationalists.
A) 10
C) 20
B) 15
D) 25
Answer:
C) 20

Question 25.
The main interest of the moderates
A) They wanted the Imperial Legislative Council to be made more representative
B) Civil Services Examinations are to be held in India.
C) Indians are to be placed in higher positions.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 26.
The Patrika that carried on Publicity for all the phases of Indian’s struggle for freedom
A) The Hindu
B) The Krishna Patrika
C) Andhra Bhoomi
D) Enaadu
Answer:
B) The Krishna Patrika

Question 27.
The Indian National Congress made resolutions on these issues.
A) Tax on salt
B) Treatment of Indian laborers abroad
C) The sufferings of forest dwellers caused by an interfering forest administration
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 28.
The moderate leaders reached out to people in different parts of the country by holding tours.
A) Lectures
B) Meetings
C) Tours
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 29.
The extremist phase in the history of the Indian National Congress.
A) 1885 – 1905
B) 1905 – 1920
C) 1920 – 1947
D) 1947 – 1950
Answer:
B) 1905 – 1920

Question 30.
Women, students and a large section of the urban and rural population of Bengal and other parts of India became actively involved in politics for the first time.
A) Moderate phase
B) Extremist phase
C) Gandhian phase
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Extremist phase

Question 31.
Curzon proposed the partition of Bengal in
A) 1900
B) 1902
C) 1903
D) 1905
Answer:
C) 1903

Question 32.
The Bengal was divided in
A) 1905
B) 1909
C) 1919
D) 1935
Answer:
A) 1905

Question 33.
Mutnuri Krishna Rao was died in
A) 1905
B) 1940
C) 1945
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 1945

Question 34.
The movement that encouraged Indian industries
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Swarule Movement
C) Non-Cooperation Movement
D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
A) Swadeshi Movement

Question 35.
The movement gave a stimulus to P.C. Ray’s Bengal chemical works
A) Self rule Movement
B) Swadeshi movement
C) Non co-operation movement
D) Civil disobedience movement
Answer:
B) Swadeshi movement

Question 36.
“Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it” – This slogan was given by
A) B.G. Tilak
B) Bipin Chandrapal
C) Lala Lajapathi Rai
D) All the above
Answer:
A) B.G. Tilak

Question 37.
They called the moderate phase as ‘Mendicancy’.
A) B.G. Tilak
B) Bipin Chandrapal
C) Lala Lajapathi Rai
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 38.
The split in congress was in this meeting.
A) Surat meeting
B) Lucknow meeting
C) Bombay meeting
D) Calcutta meeting
Answer:
A) Surat meeting

Question 39.
The year of the Surat session
A) 1906
B) 1907
C) 1909
D) 1911
Answer:
B) 1907

Question 40.
On 16th October 1905, the day the partition of Bengal went into effect, was observed in Bengal as a day of ……………
A) Mourning
B) Very sad
C) being insulted
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Mourning

Question 41.
The other name of Swadeshi movement
A) Vandemataram movement
B) Civil disobedience movement
C) Swarule movement
D) None
Answer:
A) Vandemataram movement

Question 42.
The ‘Krishna Pathrika’ was started in Machilipatnam in 1902 by …………..
A) Raghupathi Venkata Ratnam Naidu
B) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
C) Kandukuri Veeresalingam panthulu
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
B) Mutnuri Krishna Rao

Question 43.
Choose the correct matching.
Group – A                                                               Group – B
1) Krishna Patrika                      ( )                     a) Curzon
2) 1905, October 16                  ( )                     b) Beginning of World War – I
3) 1915                                      ( )                     c) Tilak release
4) Partition of Bengal                ( )                     d) Mutnuri Krishna Rao
5) 1914                                      ( )                     e) A Day of Mourning
A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
D) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – b, 5 – a
Answer:
B) 1 – d, 2 – e, 3 – c, 4 – a, 5 – b

Question 44.
AO. Hume, a retired British official played an important role in establishing the I.N.C.
Pick the correct comment.
A) A.O. Hume is the God Father of INC.
B) He was eagerly waiting for Indian independence.
C) It is his safety value method intended to extend the British rule in India for some more period.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
The extremists called the moderates’ strategy as ‘mendicancy’.
Mendicancy means
A) Fighting
B) Opposing
C) Begging for alms
D) None
Answer:
C) Begging for alms

Question 46.
‘The textile industry of India, in particular received a great impetus from the Swadeshi Movement.’
Swadeshi Movement means
A) Use the goods of our own land
B) Should not touch the mother land goods
C) Use the British goods only
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Use the goods of our own land

Question 47.
The First World War broke out in 1914 with Britain, France, Russia on one side and Germany and its allies on the other side.
India participated in the World War -1 in the favour of
A) Germany
B) Japan
C) Britain
D) Australia
Answer:
C) Britain

Question 48.
The newspaper which was started in Telugu during the Independence movement was
A) Eenadu
B) Krishna Patrika
C) Sakshi
D) Andhra Jyothi
Answer:
B) Krishna Patrika

Question 49.
Jamshedji Tata of Bombay opened his famous in Bihar.
A) Textile factory
B) Cement factory
C) Atom reactor
D) Iron & Steel plant
Answer:
D) Iron & Steel plant

Question 50.
Who studied the economic impact of British Rule?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) R.C. Dutt
C) Mahadev Govinda Ranade
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 51.
The agitation against the Bengal partition
A) Swadeshi Movement
B) Self Movement
C) Non-Cooperation Movement
D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
A) Swadeshi Movement

Practice the AP 9th Class Biology Bits with Answers Chapter 9 Adaptations in Different Ecosystems on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology Bits 9th Lesson Adaptations in Different Ecosystems with Answers

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
Pneumatophores of mangrove trees helps in
A) photosynthesis
B) root respiration
C) transpiration
D) absorption
Answer:
B) root respiration

Question 2.
Nowadays these plants are grown as ornamental plants.
A) hydrophytes
B) xerophytes
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
B) xerophytes

Question 3.
The fat storing part of a camel is
A) hump
B) stomach
C) skin
D) all
Answer:
A) hump

Question 4.
The desert animal of North America which can live without drinking water through out its life is
A) sand grouse
B) fennec fox
C) kangaroo rat
D) golden mole
Answer:
C) kangaroo rat

Question 5.
Animal that emit a high pitched sound which bounses off objects to find prey is
A) cuttle fish
B) bat
C) cricket insect
D) cat
Answer:
B) bat

Question 6.
Identify the marine ecosystem.
A) ponds
B) streams
C) rivers
D) oceans
Answer:
D) oceans

Question 7.
In these organisms droplets of oil in their cells are present to keep them float.
A) planktons
B) dolphins
C) larger plants
D) fishes
Answer:
A) planktons

Question 8.
For every 10 meters depth, pressure increases by
A) one atmosphere
B) two atmospheres
C) three atmospheres
D) four atmospheres
Answer:
A) one atmosphere

Question 9.
In whales and seals oxygen mostly stored in
A) lungs
B) muscle tissue
C) skin
D) all
Answer:
B) muscle tissue

Question 10.
Aquatic organisms adapted the ability to travel long distances
A) sperm whales
B) herring gills
C) both A and B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A and B

Question 11.
Zones present in the marine ecosystem
A) euphotic zone, bathyal zone
B) bathyal zone, abyssal zone
C) abyssal zone, euphotic zone
D) euphotic zone, bathyal zone, abyssal zone
Answer:
D) euphotic zone, bathyal zone, abyssal zone

Question 12.
Photosynthetic activity is maximum in this zone.
A) bathyal zone
B) euphotic zone
C) abyssal zone
D) all
Answer:
B) euphotic zone

Question 13.
The zone in marine ecosystem which is dark and cold throughout the year ?
A) abyssal zone
B) bathyal zone
C) euphotic zone
D) bathyal and abyssal zone
Answer:
A) abyssal zone

Question 14.
Electric eel is capable of generating power electric shocks of up to
A) 500 volts
B) 600 volts
C) 700 volts
D) 400 volts
Answer:
B) 600 volts

Question 15.
Identify the salt water lake.
A) Kolleru
B) Pulikat of Nellore
C) Osman Sagar
D) Shamir pet lake
Answer:
B) Pulikat of Nellore

Question 16.
The factors effect the organisms in fresh water ecosystem
A) light salt content
B) food
C) oxygen
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 17.
The salt content of sea water is
A) 2.8%
B) 2.5%
C) 3.5%
D) 3.8%
Answer:
C) 3.5%

Question 18.
Fresh water fishes have
A) low salt content in the body
B) higher internal salt content in the body
C) both A and B
D) very low salt content in the body
Answer:
B) higher internal salt content in the body

Question 19.
Some plants in temperate regions shed their leaves before the
A) winter
B) summer
C) autumn
D) rainy season
Answer:
A) winter

Question 20.
Our state bird Has
A) finch
B) eagle
C) parrot
D) pigeon
Answer:
A) finch

Question 21.
Symbiotic association is seen between animals of ocean.
A) whales, herring gulls
B) clown fish, sea anemone
C) ray fish, sea anemone
D) whale, clown fish
Answer:
B) clown fish, sea anemone

Question 22.
What is the use of hump in Camel ?
A) To store food
B) To store water
C) Stores fat for later use
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Stores fat for later use

Question 23.
What is the term for all the biotic and abiotic components of a system ?
A) Ecosystem
B) Ecotone
C) Biome
D) Community
Answer:
A) Ecosystem

Question 24.
Which of the following is a marine adaptation ?
A) Hibernation
B) Aestivation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Symbiosis
Answer:
D) Symbiosis

Question 25.
A coastal body of water connected to the ocean and supplied with fresh water from a river is an –
A) Inlet
B) Shelf
C) Estuary
D) Atoll
Answer:
C) Estuary

Question 26.
Why the leaves of kalabanda are reduced to spines ?
A) Protection
B) To kill enemies
C) To reduce water loss
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) To reduce water loss

Question 27.
The abyssal zone is present between
A) 0 – 200 m
B) 200m – 2000m
C) 2000 – 6000m
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) 2000 – 6000m

Question 28.
Kolleru lake of East Godavari is an example for –
A) Marine ecosystem
B) Fresh water ecosystem
C) Terrestrial ecosystem
D) Esturine ecosystem
Answer:
B) Fresh water ecosystem

Question 29.
Which of the following is a part of marine ecosystem ?
A) Bathyl zone
B) Lenthic zone
C) Lothic zone
D) Euphotic zone
Answer:
A) Bathyl zone

Question 30.
These fishes take more water.
A) Fresh water fishes
B) Marine fishes
C) Deep sea fishes
D) Esturine fishes
Answer:
B) Marine fishes

Question 31.
Most of the producers in an aquatic ecosystem are …………………..
A) Fungi
B) Bacteria
C) Algae
D) Virus
Answer:
C) Algae

Question 32.
The respiratory organs of fish
A) Fins
B) Nose
C) Gills
D) Lungs
Answer:
C) Gills

Question 33.
Identify the biotic component among the following.
A) Air
B) Soil
C) Water
D) Plants
Answer:
B) Soil

Question 34.
Choose the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Hydrophytes
2) Xerophytes
3) Mesophytes

List – B
a) Banyan
b) Acasia
c) Hydrilla
A) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
B) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
Answer:
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c

Question 35.
Identify the abiotic components from the following.
A) Animals
B) Fungi
C) Plants
D) Water
Answer:
D) Water

Question 36.
Which of the following take part in symbiosis of Lichen ?
A) Fungus – Fungus
B) Algae – Algae
C) Alga – Fungus
D) Fungus – Gymnosperm
Answer:
C) Alga – Fungus

Question 37.
Which of the following is a Xeric plant ?
A) Hydrilla
B) Vallisneria
C) Opuntia
D) Balsam
Answer:
C) Opuntia

Question 38.
Darwin observed the variations in Finch birds …………………
A) West-Indies islands
B) Indonesia
C) Malasia
D) Galapagos Islands
Answer:
D) Galapagos Islands

Question 39.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Hibernation – Estuaries
2) Aestivation – Summer sleep
3) Mangrooves – Winter sleep
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer:
C) 1, 3

Question 40.
Identify the mismatched pair from the following.
1) Mutualism – Leguminous plants
2) Commensalism – Lianes
3) Parasitism – Tapeworms
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) None of the above
Answer:
D) None of the above

Question 41.
Example for Camouflage is ……………..
A) Frogs
B) Fishes
C) Chameleon
D) Dragon fly
Answer:
C) Chameleon

Question 42.
We can see arenchyma in these plants ……………….
A) Xerophytes
B) Lichens
C) Mesophytes
D) Hydrophytes
Answer:
D) Hydrophytes

Question 43.
Example for Xerophytes ………………….
A) Agave
B) Opuntia
C) Cactus
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 44.
Mosses, water lilly, hydrilla are seen in ………………
A) Littoral zone
B) Limnetic zone
C) Profundal zone
D) None
Answer:
A) Littoral zone

Question 45.
Crustaceans, crabs, fishes like eels, snails, turtles, etc. are present in
A) Littoral zone
B) Profundal zone
C) Limnetic zone
D) None
Answer:
C) Limnetic zone

Question 46.
Identify the correct matching from the following.
List – A
1) Pnematophores
2) Desert ship
3) Gas filled vehicles

List – B
a) Camel
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Mangrooves
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b
C) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c
D) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c
Answer:
B) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b

II. Match the following.
1.

Answer:
1. Pneumatophores – C) Mangroves
2. Succulent stem – D) Kalabanda
3. Hump – G) Camel
4. Ornamental plants – A) Xerophytes
5. High pitched sound – B) Bat

2.

Answer:
1. Hibernation – D) Winter sleep
2. Aestivation – E) Summer sleep
3. Camouflage – B) Colour change
4. Blubber – A) Insulator
5. Finches – C) Galapagos islands

III. dentify and label the diagrams given below.

Answer:
1) Aloevera
2) Pebble plant
3) Coral colonies
4) Rayfish
5) Ploar bear
6) Seal

Question 47.
In which zone of the ocean do marine organisms with very sharp vision live?
A) Bathyal zone
B) Euphotic zone
C) Abyssal zone
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Euphotic zone

Question 48.
Lichens are symbiotic association of
A) Algae and bacteria
B) Algae and fungi
C) Bacteria and virus
D) Fungi and bacteria
Answer:
B) Algae and fungi

Question 49.
If you need to prepare a report on Darwin’s Finches, which of the following important points you would choose to summerise ?
A) Organisms are stable during environmental changes.
B) All species living in an ecosystem show same adaptations.
C) Organisms of the same species adapt to their surroundings based on the food source.
D) Adaptations acquired by organisms are not transferred to the next generations.
Answer:
C) Organisms of the same species adapt to their surroundings based on the food source.

Question 50.
Match the following.

A) b, c, d, a
B) a, b, c, d
C) d, c, b, a
D) b, d, c, a
Answer:
A) b, c, d, a

Question 51.
If photosynthetic activities are absent in Abyssal zone, then
A) The organisms would strive for food
B) The organisms would be blind
C) There will be no change
D) Brittle stars will be affected
Answer:
B) The organisms would be blind

Question 52.
A biology teacher tied a plastic cover over opuntia plant to observe transpiration. The result will be
A) No water will be accumulated in the cover
B) There will be some water in the cover
C) Either A or B is possible in condition with light
D) Neither A nor B is possible
Answer:
D) Neither A nor B is possible

Question 53.
Which sentence is related to desert plants ?
1) Wax coated, thickend membraneous cells
2) Stem filled with sap
3) Leaves are modified into spines
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) All are correct
Answer:
D) All are correct

Question 54.
Camel protects its eyes from sand due to its
A) hump
B) long legs
C) broad eye lashes
D) shape of the animal
Answer:
C) broad eye lashes

Question 55.
Read the following statements.
i) The animals which live in Abyssal zone have big eyes.
ii) The Euphotic zone have more number of animals.
A) (i) and (ii) are correct
B) (i) is correct
C) (ii) is correct
D) both are wrong
Answer:
C) (ii) is correct

Question 56.
In which of the following situation do stomata close
i) When the climate turns cool.
ii) When the climate is very hot.
iii) When the climate is humid.
iv) All the above
A) i, ii
B) ii, iii only
C) i, iii only
D) All are true
Answer:
A) i, ii

Practice the AP 8th Class Social Bits with Answers Chapter 10 Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam on a regular basis so that you can attempt exams with utmost confidence.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam with Answers

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
During the time of Mughal emperors, …………………. collected land revenue from the peasants.
A) emperor
B) revenue department
C) zamindars
D) sirazdars
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 2.
During the British reign, there were great ……………. in India.
A) deeds
B) investments
C) benefits
D) famines
Answer:
D) famines

Question 3.
In ……………… Cornwallis was the Governor General.
A) 1947
B) 1793
C) 1856
D) 1857
Answer:
B) 1793

Question 4.
The barrage in Krishna and Guntur districts …………….
A) Dhawaleshwaram
B) Prakasam
C) Sir Arthur Cotton
D) Keesara
Answer:
B) Prakasam

Question 5.
An anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1820
B) 1800
C) 1849
D) 1856
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 6.
In Mahabubnagar and Nalgonda districts, there were Doras who owned more than a thousand acres of land.
A) 500
B) 550
C) 600
D) 650
Answer:
B) 550

Question 7.
In …………… there was a civil war in America.
A) 1851
B) 1871
C) 1841
D) 1861
Answer:
D) 1861

Question 8.
The number of famines in the second half of the Nineteenth century
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 14
Answer:
B) 11

Question 9.
Patwari was a …………. official.
A) Mandal
B) Village
C) District
D) State
Answer:
B) Village

Question 10.
The peasants formed to carry their agitation forward and demanded abolition of landlordism, reduction of land revenue and control over moneylenders.
A) Rythu Sabha
B) Kisan Sabhas
C) Kisan Mela
D) Kisan Jagruthi
Answer:
B) Kisan Sabhas

Question 11.
The small forts of landlords in Telangana are called as
A) Buruju
B) Forts
C) Gadis
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Gadis

Question 12.
The own lands of Zamindars were called
A) Enams
B) Kudhkhasht
C) Qidmatgars
D) None
Answer:
B) Kudhkhasht

Question 13.
The roles of Zamindars
A) collecting taxes
B) having land
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 14.
In …………….. the peasants of Awadh in Uttar Pradesh took out huge processions to protest against the Zamindars who were extracting money from them.
A) 1920-22
B) 1922-24
C) 1924-26
D) 1926-28
Answer:
A) 1920-22

Question 15.
The famous peasant movements were the Deccan ryots of ……………… s.
A) 1850
B) 1860
C) 1870
D) 1872
Answer:
B) 1860

Question 16.
The permanent settlement system was introduced by ………………
A) Warren Hastings
B) Corn Wallis
C) Bentinck
D) Wellesly
Answer:
B) Corn Wallis

Question 17.
The Permanent Settlement System was introduced in the year.
A) 1790
B) 1791
C) 1792
D) 1973
Answer:
D) 1973

Question 18.
The Zamindars collected ………….. rather than revenue from them.
A) the income from auction
B) rent
C) riped crop
D) none
Answer:
B) rent

Question 19.
The prices of the grains rose and cultivation slowly expanded in this year.
A) 1800
B) 1810
C) 1820
D) 1840
Answer:
C) 1820

Question 20.
Ceded districts means
A) Bellary, Anantapn
B) Kadapa
C) Kurnool
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 21.
The other name of Ceded districts
A) Stone seema
B) Karnataka
C) Rayalaseema
D) None
Answer:
C) Rayalaseema

Question 22.
In this year Thomas Munro came to Rayalaseema districts as Collector.
A) 1700
B) 1800
C) 1900
D) 1850
Answer:
B) 1800

Question 23.
………….. recognised that there were no Zamindars in South like North.
A) Bentinck
B) Thomas Munro
C) Wellesly
D) Robert Clive
Answer:
B) Thomas Munro

Question 24.
Recognising the importance of the peasants, Munro devised the Ryotwari settlement in entire.
A) South India
B) Western India
C) Both A & B
D) Northern India
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 25.
Ryotwari means
A) Farmer
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation
C) Landcess
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Farmer’s right to cultivation

Question 26.
Before the cultivation commenced in Munro made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones.
A) 1801 – 02
B) 1802 – 03
C) 1803 – 04
D) 1804 – 05
Answer:
A) 1801 – 02

Question 27.
Due to the untiring efforts of Sir Arthur Cotton, an anicut across the Godavari river at Dhawaleshwaram was completed in
A) 1840
B) 1845
C) 1849
D) 1850
Answer:
C) 1849

Question 28.
Severe Famine was occured in the year.
A) 1800
B) 1830
C) 1833
D) 1836
Answer:
C) 1833

Question 29.
An anicut was constructed on the river Krishna in
A) 1850
B) 1852
C) 1853
D) 1854
Answer:
D) 1854

Question 30.
The Kurnool – Cuddapah (KC) canal was dug in the year.
A) 1850
B) 1855
C) 1857
D) 1860
Answer:
C) 1857

Question 31.
The tenants had to pay rent that was times more than the land revenue paid by the ryots to the government.
A) 2 – 5
B) 3 – 7
C) 4 – 8
D) 5 – 9
Answer:
B) 3 – 7

Question 32.
In the first half of 19th century, they tried to collect maximum land revenue through
A) Kudramukh
B) Deshmukh
C) Patwari
D) Patel
Answer:
B) Deshmukh

Question 33.
In Nizams rule the large landlords were called
A) Gadis
B) Doras
C) Landlords
D) Pettandars
Answer:
B) Doras

Question 34.
The Civil war in America was started in
A) 1860
B) 1861
C) 1862
D) 1863
Answer:
B) 1861

Question 35.
The Civil war in America ended in
A) 1865
B) 1867
C) 1873
D) 1877
Answer:
A) 1865

Question 36.
The effect of the Civil war in American showed on India in this way
A) the demand for cotton fell
B) the demand for cotton increased
C) increase in exports of agricultural products
D) exports of agricultural products are as it is
Answer:
A) the demand for cotton fell

Question 37.
In the Hyderabad state there were about 1500 Jagirs spread over 6535 villages and samsthanams over 497 villages.
A) 16
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Answer:
D) 14

Question 38.
During the colonial period, the peasants were forced to do work without wages.
A) Vetti
B) Slavery
C) Getting services
D) None
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 39.
The plight of Vetti can be understood through a government report written in
A) 1800
B) 1870
C) 1878
D) 1880
Answer:
C) 1878

Question 40.
The peasants also had to regularly supply to Zamindars.
A) ghee, milk
B) vegetables, jaggery
C) gross, dung cakes
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 41.
“The ……………. also prevent the peasants from improving their fields because they are afraid that the peasants would then start asserting their nights over the land.
A) farmers
B) landlords
C) zamindars
D) coolies
Answer:
C) zamindars

Question 42.
The revenue that was shared to the Nizam was called
A) Hindukhush
B) Peshkash
C) Enam
D) Adangal
Answer:
B) Peshkash

Question 43.
The zamindars also owned land on which the labourers worked. This was called their ‘self-cultivated’ land or Khudkhasht lands.
Pick the correct comment.
A) Zamindars worked on these lands.
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.
C) Zamindars donated these lands to the poor.
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Rights are of zamindars, kasht was of labour.

Question 44.

Pick the correct statement.
A) This barrage connected the Krishna and Guntur districts.
B) This barrage changed the fate of Krishna delta.
C) This is a boon by Sir Arthur Cotton.
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 45.
‘The peasants also had to regularly supply ghee, milk, vegetables, gur, straw, cowdung cakes, etc. free of cost to the zamindar’s house.’
This was a form of
A) gifts
B) boons
C) custom
D) exploitation
Answer:
D) exploitation

Question 46.
Famines, or massive food shortages leading to acute distress, were a regular feature of the British rule.
This was a regular feature of the British rule
A) Surplus food
B) Shortage of food grains
C) Low quality of grains
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Shortage of food grains

Question 47.
‘Peasants fled the countryside’ – The reason was
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue
B) conducting attacks
C) giving hard punishments
D) All the above
Answer:
A) a hike in landcess and unable to pay the revenue

Question 48.
This was happened because of land revenue introduced by the Britishers.
A) Farmers suffered from loans
B) Farmers achieved more progress
C) Farmers growed more crops
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Farmers suffered from loans

Question 49.
This is due to decrease in demand of cotton
A) farmers changed as beggers
B) food grains are scarce
C) severe famine
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 50.
This program is introduced to feed the children in our state
A) Annadaata
B) Antyodaya
C) MDM
D) Velugu Project
Answer:
C) MDM

Question 51.
Peasants very often borrowed money from in order to pay their land revenue.
A) Moneylenders
B) Zamindars
C) Banks
D) Organisations
Answer:
A) Money lenders

Question 52.
During the colonial period the peasants were forced to do
A) Vetti
B) Cultivation
C) Work
D) Donations
Answer:
A) Vetti

Question 53.
The Britishers raised this tax to increase their income in India
A) Pullari tax
B) Property tax
C) Landcess
D) Ganachari tax
Answer:
C) Landcess

Question 54.
The agricultural products that were exported to England from India
A) Cotton, Blue
B) Sugarcane, Wheat
C) Both 1 & 2
D) None
Answer:
C) Both 1 & 2

Question 55.
Andhra, like the rest of the country, suffered from severe famines in the centuries.
A) 19
B) 20
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
C) Both A & B

Question 56.
The severe famine occured in Ganjam
A) 1865 – 66
B) 1867 – 68
C) 1869 – 70
D) 1870 – 71
Answer:
A) 1865 – 66